As Reported by the Senate Finance Committee

130th General Assembly
Regular Session
2013-2014
Sub. H. B. No. 59


Representative Amstutz 

Cosponsors: Representatives Anielski, Baker, Beck, Blair, Boose, Brown, Burkley, Conditt, Dovilla, Grossman, Hackett, Hagan, C., Hayes, Lynch, McClain, McGregor, Pelanda, Rosenberger, Ruhl, Sears, Sprague, Stebelton, Thompson 



A BILL
To amend sections 9.03, 9.15, 9.231, 9.239, 9.24, 1
9.833, 9.90, 9.901, 101.39, 101.391, 102.02, 2
103.144, 103.63, 107.033, 107.12, 109.06, 109.36, 3
109.57, 109.572, 109.71, 109.746, 109.77, 109.85, 4
109.86, 109.90, 111.02, 111.15, 111.28, 113.02, 5
113.061, 117.03, 117.10, 117.20, 119.01, 120.06, 6
121.02, 121.03, 121.22, 121.35, 121.37, 121.372, 7
122.075, 122.083, 122.17, 122.171, 122.175, 8
122.28, 122.30, 122.31, 122.32, 122.33, 122.34, 9
122.35, 122.36, 122.58, 122.657, 122.658, 122.66, 10
122.67, 122.68, 122.69, 122.70, 122.701, 122.76, 11
122.861, 123.01, 123.10, 123.11, 123.201, 123.21, 12
123.27, 124.11, 124.14, 124.18, 124.30, 124.341, 13
124.381, 124.57, 124.84, 125.05, 125.21, 125.212, 14
125.28, 125.602, 125.603, 125.832, 125.836, 15
126.07, 126.14, 126.32, 126.35, 126.45, 126.46, 16
126.47, 126.48, 127.14, 127.16, 131.51, 133.01, 17
133.06, 135.143, 135.22, 135.35, 135.61, 135.71, 18
135.80, 135.81, 135.85, 140.01, 140.03, 140.05, 19
145.01, 145.012, 145.037, 145.22, 149.01, 149.12, 20
149.311, 149.43, 149.431, 149.54, 151.11, 152.09, 21
153.692, 154.01, 154.17, 154.20, 154.22, 154.23, 22
154.25, 156.02, 156.03, 156.04, 156.05, 166.02, 23
166.03, 166.04, 166.08, 166.25, 167.03, 169.02, 24
169.05, 169.07, 169.08, 173.03, 173.14, 173.17, 25
173.19, 173.20, 173.21, 173.23, 173.25, 173.26, 26
173.27, 173.28, 173.39, 173.391, 173.392, 173.394, 27
173.40, 173.401, 173.402, 173.403, 173.404, 28
173.42, 173.43, 173.431, 173.432, 173.434, 173.45, 29
173.47, 173.48, 173.50, 173.501, 173.99, 175.04, 30
187.10, 191.01, 191.02, 191.04, 191.06, 301.28, 31
305.23, 306.35, 307.07, 307.674, 307.86, 309.09, 32
317.06, 317.08, 317.32, 317.321, 317.36, 321.35, 33
321.44, 323.158, 329.04, 329.051, 329.06, 329.14, 34
333.01, 333.02, 333.03, 333.04, 333.05, 339.02, 35
339.05, 339.06, 339.07, 340.01, 340.011, 340.02, 36
340.021, 340.03, 340.031, 340.032, 340.04, 340.05, 37
340.07, 340.09, 340.091, 340.10, 340.11, 340.12, 38
340.13, 340.15, 340.16, 341.192, 349.01, 349.04, 39
351.021, 715.013, 715.691, 721.01, 721.03, 40
731.091, 737.41, 742.14, 755.06, 901.21, 901.22, 41
901.23, 903.11, 903.99, 905.06, 909.15, 924.02, 42
924.06, 927.54, 935.01, 935.03, 935.041, 935.12, 43
955.01, 955.05, 955.06, 955.07, 955.08, 955.09, 44
955.12, 955.14, 955.201, 956.07, 956.18, 959.131, 45
959.132, 959.99, 991.03, 991.04, 991.06, 1309.521, 46
1321.51, 1321.535, 1321.55, 1322.01, 1322.051, 47
1327.46, 1327.48, 1327.50, 1327.501, 1327.61, 48
1327.99, 1332.26, 1337.11, 1347.08, 1501.011, 49
1501.45, 1506.21, 1506.30, 1509.01, 1509.02, 50
1509.062, 1509.10, 1509.11, 1509.22, 1509.226, 51
1509.50, 1511.02, 1511.022, 1519.05, 1531.06, 52
1531.17, 1545.071, 1547.05, 1547.051, 1547.052, 53
1547.06, 1547.542, 1547.99, 1548.02, 1551.33, 54
1551.35, 1555.15, 1711.07, 1721.10, 1724.03, 55
1739.061, 1751.01, 1751.11, 1751.12, 1751.14, 56
1751.271, 1751.31, 1751.60, 1901.10, 1901.12, 57
1901.33, 1907.14, 1923.14, 2101.08, 2101.24, 58
2108.05, 2113.041, 2113.06, 2117.061, 2117.25, 59
2133.01, 2133.25, 2151.011, 2151.3514, 2151.362, 60
2151.83, 2151.86, 2152.54, 2152.59, 2301.14, 61
2301.20, 2301.23, 2301.24, 2301.25, 2303.201, 62
2305.234, 2307.65, 2311.14, 2317.02, 2317.422, 63
2335.09, 2335.11, 2501.16, 2505.02, 2701.03, 64
2701.031, 2743.03, 2743.09, 2743.121, 2743.191, 65
2743.20, 2743.48, 2743.52, 2743.53, 2743.531, 66
2743.55, 2743.60, 2743.601, 2743.61, 2743.62, 67
2743.63, 2743.64, 2743.65, 2743.66, 2743.67, 68
2743.68, 2743.69, 2743.71, 2744.05, 2901.13, 69
2901.30, 2903.33, 2907.22, 2913.01, 2913.40, 70
2913.401, 2915.02, 2919.271, 2921.01, 2921.22, 71
2921.36, 2921.38, 2923.126, 2925.03, 2929.15, 72
2930.01, 2935.03, 2935.33, 2945.37, 2945.371, 73
2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, 2951.041, 74
2953.32, 2967.22, 2981.01, 2981.12, 2981.13, 75
3101.051, 3107.083, 3109.15, 3111.04, 3111.72, 76
3119.29, 3119.54, 3121.441, 3121.89, 3121.891, 77
3121.892, 3121.893, 3121.898, 3123.958, 3125.18, 78
3125.36, 3301.07, 3301.0711, 3301.0712, 3301.0714, 79
3301.0715, 3301.0723, 3301.0725, 3301.15, 3301.16, 80
3302.01, 3302.03, 3302.032, 3302.20, 3302.21, 81
3302.22, 3303.41, 3304.11, 3304.12, 3304.13, 82
3304.14, 3304.15, 3304.16, 3304.17, 3304.18, 83
3304.181, 3304.182, 3304.19, 3304.20, 3304.21, 84
3304.22, 3304.23, 3304.231, 3304.25, 3304.27, 85
3304.28, 3304.41, 3305.03, 3307.51, 3309.21, 86
3310.01, 3310.02, 3310.03, 3310.05, 3310.06, 87
3310.08, 3310.13, 3310.14, 3310.522, 3310.56, 88
3311.0510, 3311.19, 3311.22, 3311.231, 3311.38, 89
3311.86, 3312.08, 3313.372, 3313.376, 3313.48, 90
3313.483, 3313.484, 3313.488, 3313.4810, 3313.533, 91
3313.539, 3313.60, 3313.603, 3313.6013, 3313.6016, 92
3313.612, 3313.615, 3313.62, 3313.64, 3313.646, 93
3313.65, 3313.674, 3313.714, 3313.715, 3313.82, 94
3313.83, 3313.841, 3313.843, 3313.844, 3313.845, 95
3313.847, 3313.88, 3313.911, 3313.976, 3313.978, 96
3313.98, 3313.981, 3314.015, 3314.017, 3314.027, 97
3314.029, 3314.03, 3314.05, 3314.06, 3314.072, 98
3314.074, 3314.08, 3314.083, 3314.084, 3314.087, 99
3314.091, 3314.11, 3314.26, 3314.35, 3315.07, 100
3315.33, 3315.40, 3315.42, 3316.041, 3316.06, 101
3317.01, 3317.013, 3317.021, 3317.023, 3317.0212, 102
3317.03, 3317.032, 3317.05, 3317.06, 3317.063, 103
3317.08, 3317.10, 3317.14, 3317.18, 3317.19, 104
3317.20, 3317.201, 3317.50, 3317.51, 3318.011, 105
3318.031, 3318.08, 3318.31, 3318.36, 3318.363, 106
3319.07, 3319.073, 3319.0811, 3319.112, 3319.17, 107
3319.22, 3319.235, 3319.57, 3319.58, 3321.01, 108
3321.04, 3321.05, 3321.13, 3321.14, 3321.15, 109
3323.021, 3323.03, 3323.04, 3323.07, 3323.08, 110
3323.09, 3323.091, 3323.13, 3323.14, 3323.141, 111
3323.142, 3326.07, 3326.08, 3326.11, 3326.31, 112
3326.32, 3326.33, 3326.34, 3326.38, 3326.45, 113
3327.01, 3327.02, 3327.10, 3333.041, 3333.73, 114
3333.82, 3334.08, 3335.35, 3335.36, 3335.37, 115
3335.38, 3345.05, 3345.06, 3345.12, 3353.01, 116
3353.02, 3353.03, 3353.04, 3353.06, 3353.07, 117
3365.01, 3365.02, 3365.021, 3365.07, 3365.12, 118
3383.01, 3383.07, 3501.01, 3517.01, 3517.10, 119
3517.101, 3517.102, 3517.103, 3517.153, 3517.154, 120
3517.155, 3517.20, 3517.992, 3599.03, 3599.45, 121
3701.023, 3701.024, 3701.027, 3701.041, 3701.13, 122
3701.132, 3701.243, 3701.261, 3701.262, 3701.264, 123
3701.342, 3701.344, 3701.507, 3701.74, 3701.741, 124
3701.742, 3701.78, 3701.881, 3701.921, 3701.922, 125
3701.99, 3702.30, 3702.51, 3702.521, 3702.55, 126
3702.62, 3702.74, 3702.91, 3704.144, 3706.01, 127
3707.511, 3709.01, 3709.051, 3709.10, 3712.051, 128
3712.07, 3712.09, 3713.06, 3714.03, 3714.07, 129
3717.08, 3718.06, 3719.61, 3721.01, 3721.011, 130
3721.02, 3721.022, 3721.024, 3721.027, 3721.042, 131
3721.071, 3721.08, 3721.10, 3721.12, 3721.121, 132
3721.13, 3721.14, 3721.15, 3721.16, 3721.17, 133
3721.19, 3721.50, 3721.51, 3721.511, 3721.512, 134
3721.513, 3721.52, 3721.53, 3721.531, 3721.532, 135
3721.533, 3721.54, 3721.541, 3721.55, 3721.56, 136
3721.57, 3721.58, 3727.01, 3734.01, 3734.02, 137
3734.28, 3734.57, 3734.901, 3734.907, 3735.58, 138
3737.02, 3737.83, 3737.841, 3737.88, 3737.882, 139
3742.30, 3742.31, 3742.32, 3742.51, 3745.11, 140
3745.113, 3745.72, 3748.01, 3748.04, 3769.08, 141
3769.087, 3769.088, 3770.02, 3770.06, 3770.21, 142
3772.03, 3772.062, 3772.24, 3781.112, 3793.01, 143
3793.031, 3793.032, 3793.051, 3793.10, 3793.11, 144
3793.12, 3793.13, 3793.14, 3793.15, 3793.16, 145
3793.18, 3793.22, 3793.31, 3793.32, 3793.33, 146
3793.34, 3793.35, 3793.36, 3793.37, 3793.38, 147
3793.39, 3795.01, 3798.01, 3798.10, 3798.13, 148
3798.14, 3798.15, 3798.16, 3901.3814, 3903.14, 149
3905.40, 3905.483, 3905.862, 3916.06, 3923.24, 150
3923.241, 3923.281, 3923.443, 3923.49, 3923.50, 151
3923.601, 3923.83, 3924.41, 3924.42, 3963.01, 152
3963.04, 4104.33, 4112.02, 4112.12, 4112.31, 153
4115.034, 4115.32, 4117.06, 4117.14, 4117.15, 154
4121.44, 4121.441, 4121.50, 4121.69, 4123.32, 155
4123.35, 4123.41, 4123.57, 4123.93, 4131.03, 156
4141.162, 4141.29, 4301.01, 4301.10, 4301.171, 157
4301.30, 4301.43, 4301.62, 4303.181, 4305.131, 158
4501.01, 4501.21, 4503.03, 4503.0610, 4503.44, 159
4503.62, 4505.02, 4505.09, 4506.07, 4507.01, 160
4507.06, 4507.51, 4510.038, 4510.45, 4511.19, 161
4511.191, 4511.21, 4511.69, 4511.85, 4513.34, 162
4519.11, 4701.03, 4707.02, 4707.073, 4707.10, 163
4709.11, 4713.08, 4713.44, 4715.22, 4715.36, 164
4715.372, 4715.39, 4715.64, 4717.03, 4717.06, 165
4717.07, 4717.10, 4717.14, 4717.15, 4719.01, 166
4723.18, 4723.35, 4723.481, 4725.03, 4725.16, 167
4729.01, 4729.51, 4729.54, 4729.69, 4729.77, 168
4729.78, 4729.79, 4729.80, 4729.81, 4729.99, 169
4730.411, 4731.05, 4731.151, 4731.23, 4731.65, 170
4731.71, 4732.06, 4732.07, 4732.08, 4734.41, 171
4735.07, 4735.09, 4735.10, 4735.142, 4735.56, 172
4742.01, 4751.02, 4751.03, 4751.04, 4751.041, 173
4751.05, 4751.06, 4751.07, 4751.08, 4751.10, 174
4751.11, 4751.12, 4751.13, 4753.071, 4755.11, 175
4755.47, 4755.481, 4755.64, 4758.10, 4758.11, 176
4761.01, 4776.01, 4778.02, 4778.03, 4781.121, 177
4781.28, 4781.29, 4906.20, 4955.32, 4955.321, 178
4955.34, 4955.44, 4955.47, 4999.04, 5101.01, 179
5101.11, 5101.141, 5101.16, 5101.162, 5101.18, 180
5101.181, 5101.183, 5101.184, 5101.26, 5101.271, 181
5101.272, 5101.273, 5101.30, 5101.31, 5101.34, 182
5101.35, 5101.36, 5101.46, 5101.461, 5101.47, 183
5101.49, 5101.50, 5101.501, 5101.502, 5101.51, 184
5101.511, 5101.512, 5101.513, 5101.516, 5101.517, 185
5101.519, 5101.5110, 5101.52, 5101.521, 5101.522, 186
5101.524, 5101.527, 5101.571, 5101.572, 5101.573, 187
5101.574, 5101.575, 5101.58, 5101.59, 5101.591, 188
5101.60, 5101.61, 5101.80, 5101.801, 5101.803, 189
5103.02, 5103.0323, 5103.13, 5103.42, 5104.012, 190
5104.013, 5104.02, 5104.021, 5104.03, 5104.08, 191
5104.11, 5104.12, 5104.32, 5107.10, 5107.14, 192
5107.16, 5107.20, 5107.24, 5107.26, 5107.42, 193
5107.64, 5111.01, 5111.011, 5111.013, 5111.016, 194
5111.018, 5111.0112, 5111.0114, 5111.0116, 195
5111.0117, 5111.0118, 5111.0119, 5111.02, 196
5111.021, 5111.022, 5111.023, 5111.024, 5111.025, 197
5111.027, 5111.028, 5111.029, 5111.0210, 198
5111.0211, 5111.0212, 5111.0213, 5111.0214, 199
5111.0215, 5111.03, 5111.031, 5111.032, 5111.033, 200
5111.034, 5111.035, 5111.04, 5111.042, 5111.05, 201
5111.051, 5111.052, 5111.053, 5111.054, 5111.06, 202
5111.061, 5111.062, 5111.063, 5111.07, 5111.071, 203
5111.08, 5111.081, 5111.082, 5111.083, 5111.084, 204
5111.085, 5111.086, 5111.09, 5111.091, 5111.092, 205
5111.10, 5111.101, 5111.102, 5111.11, 5111.111, 206
5111.112, 5111.113, 5111.114, 5111.12, 5111.121, 207
5111.13, 5111.14, 5111.141, 5111.15, 5111.151, 208
5111.16, 5111.161, 5111.162, 5111.163, 5111.17, 209
5111.171, 5111.172, 5111.173, 5111.174, 5111.175, 210
5111.177, 5111.178, 5111.179, 5111.1710, 211
5111.1711, 5111.18, 5111.181, 5111.19, 5111.191, 212
5111.20, 5111.201, 5111.202, 5111.203, 5111.204, 213
5111.21, 5111.212, 5111.22, 5111.221, 5111.222, 214
5111.223, 5111.224, 5111.225, 5111.226, 5111.23, 215
5111.231, 5111.232, 5111.233, 5111.235, 5111.24, 216
5111.241, 5111.242, 5111.244, 5111.245, 5111.246, 217
5111.25, 5111.251, 5111.254, 5111.255, 5111.257, 218
5111.258, 5111.259, 5111.26, 5111.261, 5111.262, 219
5111.263, 5111.264, 5111.265, 5111.266, 5111.27, 220
5111.271, 5111.28, 5111.29, 5111.291, 5111.30, 221
5111.31, 5111.32, 5111.33, 5111.331, 5111.35, 222
5111.36, 5111.37, 5111.38, 5111.39, 5111.41, 223
5111.411, 5111.42, 5111.43, 5111.44, 5111.45, 224
5111.46, 5111.47, 5111.48, 5111.49, 5111.50, 225
5111.51, 5111.511, 5111.52, 5111.53, 5111.54, 226
5111.55, 5111.56, 5111.57, 5111.58, 5111.59, 227
5111.60, 5111.61, 5111.62, 5111.63, 5111.66, 228
5111.661, 5111.67, 5111.671, 5111.672, 5111.673, 229
5111.674, 5111.675, 5111.676, 5111.677, 5111.68, 230
5111.681, 5111.682, 5111.683, 5111.684, 5111.685, 231
5111.686, 5111.687, 5111.688, 5111.689, 5111.70, 232
5111.701, 5111.702, 5111.703, 5111.704, 5111.705, 233
5111.707, 5111.708, 5111.709, 5111.7011, 5111.71, 234
5111.711, 5111.712, 5111.713, 5111.714, 5111.715, 235
5111.83, 5111.84, 5111.85, 5111.851, 5111.852, 236
5111.853, 5111.854, 5111.855, 5111.856, 5111.86, 237
5111.861, 5111.862, 5111.863, 5111.864, 5111.865, 238
5111.87, 5111.871, 5111.872, 5111.873, 5111.874, 239
5111.875, 5111.876, 5111.877, 5111.878, 5111.879, 240
5111.88, 5111.881, 5111.882, 5111.885, 5111.886, 241
5111.887, 5111.888, 5111.889, 5111.8810, 5111.89, 242
5111.891, 5111.892, 5111.894, 5111.90, 5111.91, 243
5111.911, 5111.912, 5111.914, 5111.915, 5111.92, 244
5111.93, 5111.94, 5111.941, 5111.943, 5111.944, 245
5111.945, 5111.96, 5111.97, 5111.98, 5111.981, 246
5111.982, 5111.99, 5112.01, 5112.03, 5112.04, 247
5112.05, 5112.06, 5112.07, 5112.08, 5112.09, 248
5112.10, 5112.11, 5112.17, 5112.18, 5112.19, 249
5112.21, 5112.30, 5112.31, 5112.32, 5112.33, 250
5112.331, 5112.34, 5112.341, 5112.35, 5112.37, 251
5112.371, 5112.38, 5112.39, 5112.40, 5112.41, 252
5112.42, 5112.43, 5112.44, 5112.45, 5112.46, 253
5112.47, 5112.48, 5112.99, 5112.991, 5115.20, 254
5117.10, 5119.01, 5119.012, 5119.02, 5119.04, 255
5119.06, 5119.061, 5119.07, 5119.071, 5119.072, 256
5119.08, 5119.10, 5119.101, 5119.11, 5119.12, 257
5119.14, 5119.16, 5119.161, 5119.17, 5119.18, 258
5119.20, 5119.201, 5119.202, 5119.21, 5119.22, 259
5119.221, 5119.23, 5119.24, 5119.27, 5119.30, 260
5119.33, 5119.34, 5119.35, 5119.351, 5119.36, 261
5119.42, 5119.43, 5119.44, 5119.46, 5119.51, 262
5119.52, 5119.53, 5119.57, 5119.60, 5119.61, 263
5119.611, 5119.612, 5119.613, 5119.62, 5119.621, 264
5119.622, 5119.63, 5119.631, 5119.69, 5119.691, 265
5119.99, 5120.07, 5120.09, 5120.135, 5120.17, 266
5120.171, 5120.652, 5120.654, 5121.051, 5121.30, 267
5121.32, 5121.33, 5121.34, 5121.35, 5121.36, 268
5121.37, 5121.38, 5121.40, 5121.42, 5121.43, 269
5121.44, 5121.45, 5121.46, 5121.47, 5121.49, 270
5121.50, 5121.51, 5121.52, 5121.55, 5122.01, 271
5122.03, 5122.10, 5122.11, 5122.12, 5122.13, 272
5122.15, 5122.17, 5122.18, 5122.19, 5122.20, 273
5122.21, 5122.23, 5122.25, 5122.26, 5122.27, 274
5122.271, 5122.31, 5122.311, 5122.32, 5122.33, 275
5122.34, 5122.341, 5122.39, 5122.43, 5122.44, 276
5122.45, 5122.46, 5122.47, 5123.01, 5123.021, 277
5123.022, 5123.03, 5123.0412, 5123.0417, 5123.09, 278
5123.171, 5123.19, 5123.192, 5123.197, 5123.198, 279
5123.38, 5123.61, 5123.86, 5126.01, 5126.026, 280
5126.043, 5126.05, 5126.051, 5126.054, 5126.055, 281
5139.03, 5139.04, 5139.08, 5139.34, 5145.162, 282
5145.18, 5149.22, 5153.16, 5302.221, 5309.082, 283
5309.68, 5309.86, 5501.311, 5501.312, 5501.73, 284
5502.011, 5505.12, 5507.01, 5507.02, 5507.021, 285
5507.022, 5507.03, 5507.06, 5507.07, 5507.08, 286
5507.09, 5507.12, 5507.15, 5507.18, 5507.22, 287
5507.25, 5507.26, 5507.27, 5507.32, 5507.34, 288
5507.40, 5507.42, 5507.44, 5507.46, 5507.52, 289
5507.53, 5507.54, 5507.55, 5507.57, 5507.571, 290
5507.60, 5507.63, 5507.99, 5511.03, 5515.08, 291
5540.03, 5701.13, 5703.052, 5703.053, 5703.059, 292
5703.19, 5703.21, 5703.37, 5703.50, 5703.70, 293
5703.82, 5705.01, 5705.10, 5705.19, 5705.192, 294
5705.21, 5705.217, 5705.218, 5705.221, 5705.25, 295
5709.17, 5709.75, 5723.01, 5725.18, 5725.33, 296
5725.34, 5726.20, 5726.52, 5726.54, 5727.26, 297
5727.75, 5727.84, 5727.89, 5728.10, 5729.03, 298
5729.04, 5729.16, 5729.17, 5731.39, 5733.01, 299
5733.06, 5733.11, 5733.55, 5733.58, 5733.98, 300
5735.012, 5735.12, 5735.142, 5735.27, 5735.34, 301
5739.01, 5739.02, 5739.026, 5739.09, 5739.13, 302
5741.01, 5741.03, 5741.17, 5743.081, 5743.15, 303
5743.56, 5745.12, 5747.01, 5747.02, 5747.022, 304
5747.025, 5747.08, 5747.10, 5747.11, 5747.113, 305
5747.122, 5747.13, 5747.21, 5747.22, 5747.47, 306
5747.501, 5747.76, 5747.98, 5748.01, 5749.02, 307
5749.06, 5749.07, 5749.17, 5751.01, 5751.02, 308
5751.051, 5751.07, 5751.081, 5751.09, 5751.20, 309
5751.21, 5751.98, 5753.03, 5753.07, 5815.28, 310
5902.02, 5905.02, 5910.02, 5910.07, 5919.34, 311
5924.502, 5924.503, 5924.504, 5924.506, 6109.21, 312
and 6111.037; to amend, for the purpose of 313
adopting new section numbers as indicated in 314
parentheses, sections 173.394 (173.38), 173.40 315
(173.52), 173.401 (173.521), 173.402 (173.524), 316
173.403 (173.53), 173.404 (173.55), 3304.23 317
(3335.60), 3304.231 (3335.61), 3304.14 (3304.15), 318
3304.15 (3304.16), 3304.16 (3304.14), 3313.847 319
(3317.30), 3333.90 (3333.59), 3383.01 (123.28), 320
3383.07 (123.281), 3701.041 (124.88), 3721.50 321
(5168.40), 3721.51 (5168.42), 3721.511 (5168.43), 322
3721.512 (5168.44), 3721.513 (5168.45), 3721.52 323
(5168.46), 3721.53 (5168.47), 3721.531 (5168.48), 324
3721.532 (5168.49), 3721.533 (5168.50), 3721.54 325
(5168.51), 3721.541 (5168.52), 3721.55 (5168.53), 326
3721.56 (5168.54), 3721.57 (5168.55), 3721.58 327
(5168.56), 3737.883 (3737.884), 3793.01 (5119.01), 328
3793.031 (5119.201), 3793.032 (5119.47), 3793.051 329
(5119.161), 3793.10 (5119.38), 3793.11 (5119.39), 330
3793.12 (5119.61), 3793.13 (5119.27), 3793.14 331
(5119.26), 3793.15 (5119.17), 3793.16 (5119.188), 332
3793.18 (5119.30), 3793.22 (5119.49), 3793.31 333
(5119.90), 3793.32 (5119.91), 3793.33 (5119.92), 334
3793.34 (5119.93), 3793.35 (5119.94), 3793.36 335
(5119.95), 3793.37 (5119.96), 3793.38 (5119.97), 336
3793.39 (5119.98), 5101.271 (5160.45), 5101.31 337
(5164.756), 5101.50 (5161.05), 5101.501 (5161.06), 338
5101.502 (5161.02), 5101.51 (5161.10), 5101.511 339
(5161.11), 5101.5110 (5161.35), 5101.512 340
(5161.12), 5101.513 (5161.30), 5101.516 (5161.22), 341
5101.517 (5161.24), 5101.519 (5161.27), 5101.52 342
(5161.15), 5101.521 (5161.16), 5101.522 (5161.17), 343
5101.524 (5161.20), 5101.527 (5161.25), 5101.571 344
(5160.35), 5101.572 (5160.39), 5101.573 (5160.40), 345
5101.574 (5160.41), 5101.575 (5160.42), 5101.58 346
(5160.37), 5101.59 (5160.38), 5101.591 (5160.43), 347
5111.01 (5162.03), 5111.011 (5163.02), 5111.013 348
(5163.40), 5111.016 (5164.26), 5111.018 (5164.07), 349
5111.0112 (5162.20), 5111.0114 (5164.754), 350
5111.0116 (5163.30), 5111.0117 (5163.31), 351
5111.0118 (5163.32), 5111.0119 (5163.45), 5111.02 352
(5164.02), 5111.021 (5164.70), 5111.022 (5164.56), 353
5111.023 (5164.15), 5111.024 (5164.08), 5111.025 354
(5164.76), 5111.027 (5164.20), 5111.028 (5164.32), 355
5111.029 (5164.06), 5111.0210 (5164.92), 5111.0211 356
(5165.48), 5111.0212 (5164.80), 5111.0213 357
(5164.77), 5111.0214 (5164.82), 5111.0215 358
(5164.93), 5111.03 (5164.35), 5111.031 (5164.37), 359
5111.032 (5164.34), 5111.033 (5164.342), 5111.034 360
(5164.341), 5111.035 (5164.36), 5111.04 (5164.05), 361
5111.042 (5164.25), 5111.05 (5164.45), 5111.051 362
(5164.48), 5111.052 (5164.46), 5111.053 363
(5164.301), 5111.054 (5164.47), 5111.06 (5164.38), 364
5111.061 (5164.57), 5111.062 (5164.39), 5111.063 365
(5164.31), 5111.07 (5164.752), 5111.071 366
(5164.753), 5111.08 (5164.759), 5111.081 367
(5164.755), 5111.082 (5164.751), 5111.083 368
(5164.757), 5111.084 (5164.7510), 5111.085 369
(5164.758), 5111.086 (5164.75), 5111.09 (5162.13), 370
5111.091 (5162.131), 5111.092 (5162.132), 5111.10 371
(5162.10), 5111.101 (5162.15), 5111.102 (5162.04), 372
5111.11 (5162.21), 5111.111 (5162.211), 5111.112 373
(5162.212), 5111.113 (5162.22), 5111.114 374
(5163.33), 5111.12 (5162.23), 5111.121 (5162.24), 375
5111.13 (5164.85), 5111.14 (5164.88), 5111.141 376
(5164.89), 5111.15 (5163.20), 5111.151 (5163.21), 377
5111.16 (5167.03), 5111.161 (5167.031), 5111.162 378
(5167.20), 5111.163 (5167.201), 5111.17 (5167.10), 379
5111.171 (5167.31), 5111.172 (5167.12), 5111.173 380
(5167.40), 5111.174 (5167.41), 5111.175 (5167.26), 381
5111.177 (5167.11), 5111.178 (5167.25), 5111.179 382
(5167.13), 5111.1710 (5167.14), 5111.1711 383
(5167.30), 5111.18 (5164.86), 5111.181 (5163.22), 384
5111.19 (5164.74), 5111.191 (5164.741), 5111.20 385
(5165.01), 5111.201 (5165.011), 5111.202 386
(5165.03), 5111.203 (5165.031), 5111.204 387
(5165.04), 5111.21 (5165.06), 5111.212 (5165.35), 388
5111.22 (5165.07), 5111.221 (5165.37), 5111.222 389
(5165.15), 5111.223 (5165.071), 5111.224 390
(5124.15), 5111.225 (5165.155), 5111.226 391
(5124.02), 5111.23 (5124.19), 5111.231 (5165.19), 392
5111.232 (5165.192), 5111.233 (5124.194), 5111.235 393
(5124.23), 5111.24 (5165.16), 5111.241 (5124.21), 394
5111.242 (5165.21), 5111.244 (5165.25), 5111.245 395
(5165.26), 5111.246 (5165.23), 5111.25 (5165.17), 396
5111.251 (5124.17), 5111.254 (5165.151), 5111.255 397
(5124.151), 5111.257 (5165.28), 5111.258 398
(5165.153), 5111.259 (5165.156), 5111.26 399
(5165.10), 5111.261 (5165.107), 5111.262 400
(5165.47), 5111.263 (5124.29), 5111.264 (5165.30), 401
5111.265 (5165.29), 5111.266 (5165.101), 5111.27 402
(5165.108), 5111.271 (5165.1010), 5111.28 403
(5165.40), 5111.29 (5165.38), 5111.291 (5124.154), 404
5111.30 (5165.073), 5111.31 (5165.08), 5111.32 405
(5165.081), 5111.33 (5124.34), 5111.331 (5165.34), 406
5111.35 (5165.60), 5111.36 (5165.61), 5111.37 407
(5165.62), 5111.38 (5165.63), 5111.39 (5165.64), 408
5111.40 (5165.65), 5111.41 (5165.66), 5111.411 409
(5165.67), 5111.42 (5165.68), 5111.43 (5165.69), 410
5111.44 (5165.70), 5111.45 (5165.71), 5111.46 411
(5165.72), 5111.47 (5165.73), 5111.48 (5165.74), 412
5111.49 (5165.75), 5111.50 (5165.76), 5111.51 413
(5165.77), 5111.511 (5165.78), 5111.52 (5165.79), 414
5111.53 (5165.80), 5111.54 (5165.81), 5111.55 415
(5165.82), 5111.56 (5165.83), 5111.57 (5165.84), 416
5111.58 (5165.85), 5111.59 (5165.86), 5111.60 417
(5165.87), 5111.61 (5165.88), 5111.62 (5162.66), 418
5111.63 (5165.89), 5111.66 (5165.50), 5111.661 419
(5165.501), 5111.67 (5165.51), 5111.671 420
(5165.511), 5111.672 (5165.512), 5111.673 421
(5165.513), 5111.674 (5165.514), 5111.675 422
(5165.515), 5111.676 (5165.516), 5111.677 423
(5165.517), 5111.68 (5165.52), 5111.681 424
(5165.521), 5111.682 (5165.522), 5111.683 425
(5165.523), 5111.684 (5165.524), 5111.685 426
(5165.525), 5111.686 (5165.526), 5111.687 427
(5165.527), 5111.688 (5165.528), 5111.689 428
(5165.53), 5111.70 (5163.09), 5111.701 (5163.091), 429
5111.702 (5163.092), 5111.703 (5163.093), 5111.704 430
(5163.094), 5111.705 (5163.095), 5111.706 431
(5163.096), 5111.707 (5163.097), 5111.708 432
(5163.098), 5111.709 (5163.099), 5111.7011 433
(5163.0910), 5111.71 (5162.36), 5111.711 434
(5162.361), 5111.712 (5162.362), 5111.713 435
(5162.363), 5111.714 (5162.64), 5111.715 436
(5162.364), 5111.83 (5162.30), 5111.84 (5166.03), 437
5111.85 (5166.02), 5111.851 (5166.04), 5111.852 438
(5166.05), 5111.853 (5166.06), 5111.854 (5166.07), 439
5111.855 (5166.08), 5111.856 (5166.10), 5111.86 440
(5166.11), 5111.861 (5166.12), 5111.862 441
(5166.121), 5111.863 (5166.13), 5111.864 442
(5166.14), 5111.865 (5166.141), 5111.87 (5166.20), 443
5111.871 (5166.21), 5111.872 (5166.22), 5111.873 444
(5166.23), 5111.874 (5124.60), 5111.875 (5124.61), 445
5111.876 (5124.62), 5111.877 (5124.63), 5111.878 446
(5124.64), 5111.879 (5124.65), 5111.88 (5166.30), 447
5111.881 (5166.301), 5111.882 (5166.302), 5111.883 448
(5166.303), 5111.884 (5166.304), 5111.885 449
(5166.305), 5111.886 (5166.306), 5111.887 450
(5166.307), 5111.888 (5166.308), 5111.889 451
(5166.309), 5111.8810 (5166.3010), 5111.89 452
(173.54), 5111.891 (173.541), 5111.892 (173.544), 453
5111.893 (173.547), 5111.894 (173.542), 5111.90 454
(5162.32), 5111.91 (5162.35), 5111.911 (5162.37), 455
5111.912 (5162.371), 5111.914 (5164.58), 5111.915 456
(5162.11), 5111.92 (5162.40), 5111.93 (5162.41), 457
5111.94 (5162.54), 5111.941 (5162.52), 5111.943 458
(5162.50), 5111.944 (5162.58), 5111.945 (5162.56), 459
5111.96 (5164.90), 5111.97 (5166.35), 5111.98 460
(5162.031), 5111.981 (5164.91), 5111.982 461
(5167.21), 5111.99 (5165.99), 5112.01 (5168.01), 462
5112.03 (5168.02), 5112.04 (5168.05), 5112.05 463
(5168.03), 5112.06 (5168.06), 5112.07 (5168.07), 464
5112.08 (5168.09), 5112.09 (5168.08), 5112.10 465
(5168.04), 5112.11 (5168.10), 5112.17 (5168.14), 466
5112.18 (5168.11), 5112.19 (5168.12), 5112.21 467
(5168.13), 5112.30 (5168.60), 5112.31 (5168.61), 468
5112.32 (5168.62), 5112.33 (5168.63), 5112.331 469
(5168.64), 5112.34 (5168.65), 5112.341 (5168.66), 470
5112.35 (5168.67), 5112.37 (5168.68), 5112.371 471
(5168.69), 5112.38 (5168.70), 5112.39 (5168.71), 472
5112.40 (5168.20), 5112.41 (5168.21), 5112.42 473
(5168.22), 5112.43 (5168.23), 5112.44 (5168.24), 474
5112.45 (5168.25), 5112.46 (5168.26), 5112.47 475
(5168.27), 5112.48 (5168.28), 5112.99 (5168.99), 476
5112.991 (5168.991), 5119.01 (5119.10), 5119.012 477
(5119.141), 5119.02 (5119.14), 5119.06 (5119.21), 478
5119.061 (5119.40), 5119.07 (5119.11), 5119.071 479
(5119.18), 5119.072 (5119.181), 5119.08 480
(5119.182), 5119.10 (5119.184), 5119.101 481
(5119.185), 5119.11 (5119.186), 5119.12 482
(5119.187), 5119.14 (5119.08), 5119.16 (5119.44), 483
5119.161 (5119.45), 5119.17 (5119.51), 5119.18 484
(5119.46), 5119.20 (5119.33), 5119.201 (5119.331), 485
5119.202 (5119.332), 5119.21 (5119.333), 5119.22 486
(5119.34), 5119.221 (5119.342), 5119.23 (5119.31), 487
5119.24 (5119.15), 5119.27 (5119.05), 5119.30 488
(5119.09), 5119.33 (5119.54), 5119.34 (5119.50), 489
5119.35 (5119.56), 5119.351 (5119.55), 5119.36 490
(5119.52), 5119.42 (5119.07), 5119.43 (5119.06), 491
5119.44 (5119.051), 5119.46 (5119.60), 5119.50 492
(5119.70), 5119.51 (5119.71), 5119.52 (5119.72), 493
5119.53 (5119.73), 5119.57 (5119.29), 5119.60 494
(5119.32), 5119.61 (5119.22), 5119.611 (5119.36), 495
5119.612 (5119.37), 5119.613 (5119.361), 5119.62 496
(5119.23), 5119.621 (5119.24), 5119.622 (5119.25), 497
5119.63 (5119.42), 5119.631 (5119.421), 5119.69 498
(5119.41), 5119.691 (5119.411), 5507.01 (128.01), 499
5507.02 (128.02), 5507.021 (128.021), 5507.022 500
(128.022), 5507.03 (128.03), 5507.06 (128.06), 501
5507.07 (128.07), 5507.08 (128.08), 5507.09 502
(128.09), 5507.12 (128.12), 5507.15 (128.15), 503
5507.18 (128.18), 5507.22 (128.22), 5507.25 504
(128.25), 5507.26 (128.26), 5507.27 (128.27), 505
5507.32 (128.32), 5507.34 (128.34), 5507.40 506
(128.40), 5507.42 (128.42), 5507.44 (128.44), 507
5507.46 (128.46), 5507.52 (128.52), 5507.53 508
(128.53), 5507.54 (128.54), 5507.55 (128.55), 509
5507.57 (128.57), 5507.571 (128.571), 5507.60 510
(128.60), 5507.63 (128.63), and 5507.99 (128.99); 511
to enact new sections 1901.121, 3313.481, 512
3317.014, 3317.02, 3317.022, 3317.0217, 3317.051, 513
3317.16, 3326.39, 3345.81, and 3737.883, and 514
sections 1.611, 101.392, 103.0521, 103.83, 515
121.483, 122.681, 123.19, 125.27, 125.833, 516
126.211, 149.307, 173.51, 173.522, 173.523, 517
173.525, 173.543, 173.545, 173.546, 173.56, 518
340.08, 353.01 to 353.16, 511.261, 517.271, 519
721.29, 743.50, 903.30, 955.121, 991.041, 520
1327.502, 1509.074, 1509.16, 1541.50, 1545.23, 521
1547.532, 1901.122, 1901.123, 1907.141, 1907.142, 522
1907.143, 2101.026, 2301.19, 2329.192, 2743.041, 523
3302.035, 3302.26, 3310.032, 3310.035, 3313.5311, 524
3313.5312, 3313.6018, 3313.6019, 3313.848, 525
3313.849, 3314.042, 3314.082, 3314.086, 3314.092, 526
3314.261, 3314.29, 3317.016, 3317.017, 3317.0213, 527
3317.0214, 3317.161, 3317.25, 3317.40, 3319.031, 528
3319.0812, 3325.13, 3325.14, 3326.112, 3326.40, 529
3327.07, 3328.27, 3333.049, 3333.124, 3333.342, 530
3333.613, 3337.16, 3345.48, 3350.15, 3365.022, 531
3701.033, 3701.138, 3701.94, 3701.941, 3701.942, 532
3701.943, 3701.944, 3701.96, 3701.98, 3702.302, 533
3702.303, 3702.304, 3702.305, 3702.306, 3702.307, 534
3702.308, 3714.074, 3734.125, 3735.661, 3772.36, 535
4123.322, 4503.524, 4503.526, 4503.732, 4503.95, 536
4503.96, 4713.641, 4729.542, 4731.299, 4751.042, 537
4783.01, 4783.02, 4783.03, 4783.04, 4783.05, 538
4783.09, 4783.10, 4783.11, 4783.12, 4783.13, 539
4783.99, 4906.201, 4909.157, 4955.322, 5101.101, 540
5101.804, 5119.28, 5119.341, 5123.023, 5124.01, 541
5124.03, 5124.05, 5124.06, 5124.07, 5124.071, 542
5124.072, 5124.08, 5124.081, 5124.10, 5124.101, 543
5124.102, 5124.103, 5124.104, 5124.105, 5124.106, 544
5124.107, 5124.108, 5124.109, 5124.152, 5124.153, 545
5124.191, 5124.192, 5124.193, 5124.25, 5124.28, 546
5124.30, 5124.31, 5124.32, 5124.33, 5124.35, 547
5124.37, 5124.38, 5124.40, 5124.41, 5124.42, 548
5124.43, 5124.44, 5124.45, 5124.46, 5124.50, 549
5124.51, 5124.511, 5124.512, 5124.513, 5124.514, 550
5124.515, 5124.516, 5124.517, 5124.52, 5124.521, 551
5124.522, 5124.523, 5124.524, 5124.525, 5124.526, 552
5124.527, 5124.528, 5124.53, 5124.67, 5124.99, 553
5126.131, 5160.01, 5160.011, 5160.02, 5160.021, 554
5160.03, 5160.04, 5160.05, 5160.051, 5160.052, 555
5160.06, 5160.10, 5160.11, 5160.12, 5160.13, 556
5160.16, 5160.20, 5160.21, 5160.22, 5160.23, 557
5160.30, 5160.31, 5160.371, 5160.46, 5160.47, 558
5160.48, 5160.481, 5160.50, 5160.52, 5160.99, 559
5161.01, 5162.01, 5162.02, 5162.021, 5162.022, 560
5162.05, 5162.06, 5162.07, 5162.12, 5162.31, 561
5162.60, 5162.62, 5163.01, 5163.03, 5163.04, 562
5163.05, 5163.06, 5163.061, 5163.08, 5164.01, 563
5164.03, 5164.30, 5164.33, 5164.55, 5164.59, 564
5164.60, 5164.61, 5164.71, 5164.72, 5164.73, 565
5164.78, 5164.881, 5164.911, 5165.02, 5165.072, 566
5165.082, 5165.102, 5165.103, 5165.104, 5165.105, 567
5165.106, 5165.109, 5165.152, 5165.154, 5165.191, 568
5165.193, 5165.32, 5165.33, 5165.41, 5165.42, 569
5165.43, 5165.44, 5165.45, 5165.46, 5165.49, 570
5165.771, 5166.01, 5166.16, 5167.01, 5167.02, 571
5168.41, 5540.18, 5703.75, 5703.76, 5705.55, 572
5735.013, 5736.01 to 5736.14, 5736.99, 5741.032, 573
5751.55, 5910.08, 5919.342, and 6133.041; and to 574
repeal sections 122.076, 122.15, 122.151, 122.152, 575
122.153, 122.154, 122.29, 122.97, 123.23, 125.837, 576
125.838, 149.51, 149.55, 166.22, 166.28, 173.425, 577
173.433, 183.28, 184.04, 340.022, 340.033, 340.06, 578
340.14, 1513.371, 1531.34, 1547.721, 1547.722, 579
1547.723, 1547.724, 1547.725, 1547.726, 1901.121, 580
2301.26, 2743.54, 3302.043, 3304.24, 3304.26, 581
3304.38, 3313.481, 3313.482, 3313.4811, 3314.088, 582
3314.13, 3317.012, 3317.014, 3317.018, 3317.02, 583
3317.022, 3317.029, 3317.0217, 3317.051, 3317.052, 584
3317.053, 3317.11, 3317.16, 3317.62, 3317.63, 585
3317.64, 3318.023, 3323.16, 3326.39, 3345.81, 586
3353.09, 3353.15, 3353.20, 3383.02, 3383.03, 587
3383.04, 3383.05, 3383.06, 3383.08, 3383.09, 588
3506.22, 3517.1010, 3701.072, 3701.263, 3701.343, 589
3701.90, 3701.901, 3701.902, 3701.903, 3701.904, 590
3701.905, 3701.906, 3701.907, 3721.026, 3793.02, 591
3793.03, 3793.04, 3793.041, 3793.05, 3793.06, 592
3793.061, 3793.08, 3793.09, 3793.19, 3793.20, 593
3793.21, 3793.99, 5101.503, 5101.514, 5101.515, 594
5101.518, 5101.523, 5101.525, 5101.526, 5101.528, 595
5101.529, 5111.012, 5111.014, 5111.015, 5111.0110, 596
5111.0111, 5111.0113, 5111.0115, 5111.0120, 597
5111.0121, 5111.0122, 5111.0123, 5111.0124, 598
5111.0125, 5111.176, 5111.211, 5111.236, 5111.65, 599
5111.8710, 5111.8811, 5111.913, 5111.942, 600
5111.946, 5119.011, 5119.013, 5119.03, 5119.05, 601
5119.47, 5119.623, 5119.64, 5119.65, 5119.66, 602
5119.67, 5119.68, 5507.65, 5507.66, 5707.05, 603
5727.41, 5733.35, 5747.211, 5747.33, 6101.451, and 604
6111.029 of the Revised Code; to amend Section 1 605
of Sub. H.B. 34 of the 130th General Assembly; to 606
amend Sections 205.10, 506.10, and 755.30 of Am. 607
Sub. H.B. 51 of the 130th General Assembly; to 608
amend Section 753.30 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 609
129th General Assembly; to amend Section 4 of Am. 610
Sub. H.B. 279 of the 129th General Assembly; to 611
amend Section 11 of Sub. H.B. 303 of the 129th 612
General Assembly; to amend Section 4 of Am. Sub. 613
H.B. 472 of the 129th General Assembly; to amend 614
Sections 201.80, 205.83, and 509.40 of Sub. H.B. 615
482 of the 129th General Assembly; to amend 616
Sections 301.11, 301.12, and 301.13 of Am. Sub. 617
H.B. 487 of the 129th General Assembly; to amend 618
Section 205.80 of Sub. H.B. 482 of the 129th 619
General Assembly, as subsequently amended; to 620
amend Section 4 of Sub. S.B. 171 of the 129th 621
General Assembly, as subsequently amended; to 622
amend Section 105.05 of Am. Sub. H.B. 2 of the 623
128th General Assembly; to repeal Section 624
267.60.31 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th 625
General Assembly; to repeal Section 125.10 of Am. 626
Sub. H.B. 1 of the 128th General Assembly as 627
subsequently amended; to repeal Section 514.03 of 628
Am. Sub. H.B. 66 of the 126th General Assembly; to 629
repeal Section 153 of Am. Sub. H.B. 117 of the 630
121st General Assembly as subsequently amended; to 631
amend Sections 203.30.40, 203.30.70, 203.30.80, 632
203.90.10, 203.90.20, 205.10.20, 205.30.90, 633
205.50.70, and 207.10.10 of Sub. S.B. 312 of the 634
129th General Assembly; to amend the versions of 635
sections 109.57, 2151.011, 2923.126, 5104.012, 636
5104.013, 5104.03, 5104.08, and 5104.32 of the 637
Revised Code that are scheduled to take effect 638
January 1, 2014, to continue the provisions of 639
this act on and after that effective date; to 640
amend the versions of sections 4501.01, 4507.01, 641
and 4507.06 of the Revised Code that are scheduled 642
to take effect January 1, 2017, to continue the 643
provisions of this act on and after that effective 644
date; to amend section 3313.88 of the Revised Code 645
as it results from Section 101.01 of this act for 646
the purpose of adopting new section number 647
3313.482 on July 1, 2014; to make operating 648
appropriations for the biennium beginning July 1, 649
2013, and ending June 30, 2015; to provide 650
authorization and conditions for the operation of 651
state programs; to repeal sections 5168.20, 652
5168.21, 5168.22, 5168.23, 5168.24, 5168.25, 653
5168.26, 5168.27, and 5168.28 of the Revised Code 654
on October 1, 2015, to terminate the operation of 655
those sections on that date; to repeal sections 656
5168.01, 5168.02, 5168.03, 5168.04, 5168.05, 657
5168.06, 5168.07, 5168.08, 5168.09, 5168.10, 658
5168.11, 5168.12, 5168.13, 5168.99, and 5168.991 659
of the Revised Code on October 16, 2015, to 660
terminate the operation of those sections on that 661
date; and to repeal section 5124.67 of the Revised 662
Code on July 1, 2018, to terminate the operation 663
of that section on that date.664


BE IT ENACTED BY THE GENERAL ASSEMBLY OF THE STATE OF OHIO:

       Section 101.01. That sections 9.03, 9.15, 9.231, 9.239, 9.24, 665
9.833, 9.90, 9.901, 101.39, 101.391, 102.02, 103.144, 103.63, 666
107.033, 107.12, 109.06, 109.36, 109.57, 109.572, 109.71, 109.746, 667
109.77, 109.85, 109.86, 109.90, 111.02, 111.15, 111.28, 113.02, 668
113.061, 117.03, 117.10, 117.20, 119.01, 120.06, 121.02, 121.03, 669
121.22, 121.35, 121.37, 121.372, 122.075, 122.083, 122.17, 670
122.171, 122.175, 122.28, 122.30, 122.31, 122.32, 122.33, 122.34, 671
122.35, 122.36, 122.58, 122.657, 122.658, 122.66, 122.67, 122.68, 672
122.69, 122.70, 122.701, 122.76, 122.861, 123.01, 123.10, 123.11, 673
123.201, 123.21, 123.27, 124.11, 124.14, 124.18, 124.30, 124.341, 674
124.381, 124.57, 124.84, 125.05, 125.21, 125.212, 125.28, 125.602, 675
125.603, 125.832, 125.836, 126.07, 126.14, 126.32, 126.35, 126.45, 676
126.46, 126.47, 126.48, 127.14, 127.16, 131.51, 133.01, 133.06, 677
135.143, 135.22, 135.35, 135.61, 135.71, 135.80, 135.81, 135.85, 678
140.01, 140.03, 140.05, 145.01, 145.012, 145.037, 145.22, 149.01, 679
149.12, 149.311, 149.43, 149.431, 149.54, 151.11, 152.09, 153.692, 680
154.01, 154.17, 154.20, 154.22, 154.23, 154.25, 156.02, 156.03, 681
156.04, 156.05, 166.02, 166.03, 166.04, 166.08, 166.25, 167.03, 682
169.02, 169.05, 169.07, 169.08, 173.03, 173.14, 173.17, 173.19, 683
173.20, 173.21, 173.23, 173.25, 173.26, 173.27, 173.28, 173.39, 684
173.391, 173.392, 173.394, 173.40, 173.401, 173.402, 173.403, 685
173.404, 173.42, 173.43, 173.431, 173.432, 173.434, 173.45, 686
173.47, 173.48, 173.50, 173.501, 173.99, 175.04, 187.10, 191.01, 687
191.02, 191.04, 191.06, 301.28, 305.23, 306.35, 307.07, 307.674, 688
307.86, 309.09, 317.06, 317.08, 317.32, 317.321, 317.36, 321.35, 689
321.44, 323.158, 329.04, 329.051, 329.06, 329.14, 333.01, 333.02, 690
333.03, 333.04, 333.05, 339.02, 339.05, 339.06, 339.07, 340.01, 691
340.011, 340.02, 340.021, 340.03, 340.031, 340.032, 340.04, 692
340.05, 340.07, 340.09, 340.091, 340.10, 340.11, 340.12, 340.13, 693
340.15, 340.16, 341.192, 349.01, 349.04, 351.021, 715.013, 694
715.691, 721.01, 721.03, 731.091, 737.41, 742.14, 755.06, 901.21, 695
901.22, 901.23, 903.11, 903.99, 905.06, 909.15, 924.02, 924.06, 696
927.54, 935.01, 935.03, 935.041, 935.12, 955.01, 955.05, 955.06, 697
955.07, 955.08, 955.09, 955.12, 955.14, 955.201, 956.07, 956.18, 698
959.131, 959.132, 959.99, 991.03, 991.04, 991.06, 1309.521, 699
1321.51, 1321.535, 1321.55, 1322.01, 1322.051, 1327.46, 1327.48, 700
1327.50, 1327.501, 1327.61, 1327.99, 1332.26, 1337.11, 1347.08, 701
1501.011, 1501.45, 1506.21, 1506.30, 1509.01, 1509.02, 1509.062, 702
1509.10, 1509.11, 1509.22, 1509.226, 1509.50, 1511.02, 1511.022, 703
1519.05, 1531.06, 1531.17, 1545.071, 1547.05, 1547.051, 1547.052, 704
1547.06, 1547.542, 1547.99, 1548.02, 1551.33, 1551.35, 1555.15, 705
1711.07, 1721.10, 1724.03, 1739.061, 1751.01, 1751.11, 1751.12, 706
1751.14, 1751.271, 1751.31, 1751.60, 1901.10, 1901.12, 1901.33, 707
1907.14, 1923.14, 2101.08, 2101.24, 2108.05, 2113.041, 2113.06, 708
2117.061, 2117.25, 2133.01, 2133.25, 2151.011, 2151.3514, 709
2151.362, 2151.83, 2151.86, 2152.54, 2152.59, 2301.14, 2301.20, 710
2301.23, 2301.24, 2301.25, 2303.201, 2305.234, 2307.65, 2311.14, 711
2317.02, 2317.422, 2335.09, 2335.11, 2501.16, 2505.02, 2701.03, 712
2701.031, 2743.03, 2743.09, 2743.121, 2743.191, 2743.20, 2743.48, 713
2743.52, 2743.53, 2743.531, 2743.55, 2743.60, 2743.601, 2743.61, 714
2743.62, 2743.63, 2743.64, 2743.65, 2743.66, 2743.67, 2743.68, 715
2743.69, 2743.71, 2744.05, 2901.13, 2901.30, 2903.33, 2907.22, 716
2913.01, 2913.40, 2913.401, 2915.02, 2919.271, 2921.01, 2921.22, 717
2921.36, 2921.38, 2923.126, 2925.03, 2929.15, 2930.01, 2935.03, 718
2935.33, 2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, 719
2951.041, 2953.32, 2967.22, 2981.01, 2981.12, 2981.13, 3101.051, 720
3107.083, 3109.15, 3111.04, 3111.72, 3119.29, 3119.54, 3121.441, 721
3121.89, 3121.891, 3121.892, 3121.893, 3121.898, 3123.958, 722
3125.18, 3125.36, 3301.07, 3301.0711, 3301.0712, 3301.0714, 723
3301.0715, 3301.0723, 3301.0725, 3301.15, 3301.16, 3302.01, 724
3302.03, 3302.032, 3302.20, 3302.21, 3302.22, 3303.41, 3304.11, 725
3304.12, 3304.13, 3304.14, 3304.15, 3304.16, 3304.17, 3304.18, 726
3304.181, 3304.182, 3304.19, 3304.20, 3304.21, 3304.22, 3304.23, 727
3304.231, 3304.25, 3304.27, 3304.28, 3304.41, 3305.03, 3307.51, 728
3309.21, 3310.01, 3310.02, 3310.03, 3310.05, 3310.06, 3310.08, 729
3310.13, 3310.14, 3310.522, 3310.56, 3311.0510, 3311.19, 3311.22, 730
3311.231, 3311.38, 3311.86, 3312.08, 3313.372, 3313.376, 3313.48, 731
3313.483, 3313.484, 3313.488, 3313.4810, 3313.533, 3313.539, 732
3313.60, 3313.603, 3313.6013, 3313.6016, 3313.612, 3313.615, 733
3313.62, 3313.64, 3313.646, 3313.65, 3313.674, 3313.714, 3313.715, 734
3313.82, 3313.83, 3313.841, 3313.843, 3313.844, 3313.845, 735
3313.847, 3313.88, 3313.911, 3313.976, 3313.978, 3313.98, 736
3313.981, 3314.015, 3314.017, 3314.027, 3314.029, 3314.03, 737
3314.05, 3314.06, 3314.072, 3314.074, 3314.08, 3314.083, 3314.084, 738
3314.087, 3314.091, 3314.11, 3314.26, 3314.35, 3315.07, 3315.33, 739
3315.40, 3315.42, 3316.041, 3316.06, 3317.01, 3317.013, 3317.021, 740
3317.023, 3317.0212, 3317.03, 3317.032, 3317.05, 3317.06, 741
3317.063, 3317.08, 3317.10, 3317.14, 3317.18, 3317.19, 3317.20, 742
3317.201, 3317.50, 3317.51, 3318.011, 3318.031, 3318.08, 3318.31, 743
3318.36, 3318.363, 3319.07, 3319.073, 3319.0811, 3319.112, 744
3319.17, 3319.22, 3319.235, 3319.57, 3319.58, 3321.01, 3321.04, 745
3321.05, 3321.13, 3321.14, 3321.15, 3323.021, 3323.03, 3323.04, 746
3323.07, 3323.08, 3323.09, 3323.091, 3323.13, 3323.14, 3323.141, 747
3323.142, 3326.07, 3326.08, 3326.11, 3326.31, 3326.32, 3326.33, 748
3326.34, 3326.38, 3326.45, 3327.01, 3327.02, 3327.10, 3333.041, 749
3333.73, 3333.82, 3334.08, 3335.35, 3335.36, 3335.37, 3335.38, 750
3345.05, 3345.06, 3345.12, 3353.01, 3353.02, 3353.03, 3353.04, 751
3353.06, 3353.07, 3365.01, 3365.02, 3365.021, 3365.07, 3365.12, 752
3383.01, 3383.07, 3501.01, 3517.01, 3517.10, 3517.101, 3517.102, 753
3517.103, 3517.153, 3517.154, 3517.155, 3517.20, 3517.992, 754
3599.03, 3599.45, 3701.023, 3701.024, 3701.027, 3701.041, 3701.13, 755
3701.132, 3701.243, 3701.261, 3701.262, 3701.264, 3701.342, 756
3701.344, 3701.507, 3701.74, 3701.741, 3701.742, 3701.78, 757
3701.881, 3701.921, 3701.922, 3701.99, 3702.30, 3702.51, 3702.521, 758
3702.55, 3702.62, 3702.74, 3702.91, 3704.144, 3706.01, 3707.511, 759
3709.01, 3709.051, 3709.10, 3712.051, 3712.07, 3712.09, 3713.06, 760
3714.03, 3714.07, 3717.08, 3718.06, 3719.61, 3721.01, 3721.011, 761
3721.02, 3721.022, 3721.024, 3721.027, 3721.042, 3721.071, 762
3721.08, 3721.10, 3721.12, 3721.121, 3721.13, 3721.14, 3721.15, 763
3721.16, 3721.17, 3721.19, 3721.50, 3721.51, 3721.511, 3721.512, 764
3721.513, 3721.52, 3721.53, 3721.531, 3721.532, 3721.533, 3721.54, 765
3721.541, 3721.55, 3721.56, 3721.57, 3721.58, 3727.01, 3734.01, 766
3734.02, 3734.28, 3734.57, 3734.901, 3734.907, 3735.58, 3737.02, 767
3737.83, 3737.841, 3737.88, 3737.882, 3742.30, 3742.31, 3742.32, 768
3742.51, 3745.11, 3745.113, 3745.72, 3748.01, 3748.04, 3769.08, 769
3769.087, 3769.088, 3770.02, 3770.06, 3770.21, 3772.03, 3772.062, 770
3772.24, 3781.112, 3793.01, 3793.031, 3793.032, 3793.051, 3793.10, 771
3793.11, 3793.12, 3793.13, 3793.14, 3793.15, 3793.16, 3793.18, 772
3793.22, 3793.31, 3793.32, 3793.33, 3793.34, 3793.35, 3793.36, 773
3793.37, 3793.38, 3793.39, 3795.01, 3798.01, 3798.10, 3798.13, 774
3798.14, 3798.15, 3798.16, 3901.3814, 3903.14, 3905.40, 3905.483, 775
3905.862, 3916.06, 3923.24, 3923.241, 3923.281, 3923.443, 3923.49, 776
3923.50, 3923.601, 3923.83, 3924.41, 3924.42, 3963.01, 3963.04, 777
4104.33, 4112.02, 4112.12, 4112.31, 4115.034, 4115.32, 4117.06, 778
4117.14, 4117.15, 4121.44, 4121.441, 4121.50, 4121.69, 4123.32, 779
4123.35, 4123.41, 4123.57, 4123.93, 4131.03, 4141.162, 4141.29, 780
4301.01, 4301.10, 4301.171, 4301.30, 4301.43, 4301.62, 4303.181, 781
4305.131, 4501.01, 4501.21, 4503.03, 4503.0610, 4503.44, 4503.62, 782
4505.02, 4505.09, 4506.07, 4507.01, 4507.06, 4507.51, 4510.038, 783
4510.45, 4511.19, 4511.191, 4511.21, 4511.69, 4511.85, 4513.34, 784
4519.11, 4701.03, 4707.02, 4707.073, 4707.10, 4709.11, 4713.08, 785
4713.44, 4715.22, 4715.36, 4715.372, 4715.39, 4715.64, 4717.03, 786
4717.06, 4717.07, 4717.10, 4717.14, 4717.15, 4719.01, 4723.18, 787
4723.35, 4723.481, 4725.03, 4725.16, 4729.01, 4729.51, 4729.54, 788
4729.69, 4729.77, 4729.78, 4729.79, 4729.80, 4729.81, 4729.99, 789
4730.411, 4731.05, 4731.151, 4731.23, 4731.65, 4731.71, 4732.06, 790
4732.07, 4732.08, 4734.41, 4735.07, 4735.09, 4735.10, 4735.142, 791
4735.56, 4742.01, 4751.01, 4751.02, 4751.03, 4751.04, 4751.041, 792
4751.05, 4751.06, 4751.07, 4751.08, 4751.10, 4751.11, 4751.12, 793
4751.13, 4753.071, 4755.11, 4755.47, 4755.481, 4755.64, 4758.10, 794
4758.11, 4761.01, 4776.01, 4778.02, 4778.03, 4781.121, 4781.28, 795
4781.29, 4906.20, 4955.32, 4955.321, 4955.34, 4955.44, 4955.47, 796
4999.04, 5101.01, 5101.11, 5101.141, 5101.16, 5101.162, 5101.18, 797
5101.181, 5101.183, 5101.184, 5101.26, 5101.271, 5101.272, 798
5101.273, 5101.30, 5101.31, 5101.34, 5101.35, 5101.36, 5101.46, 799
5101.461, 5101.47, 5101.49, 5101.50, 5101.501, 5101.502, 5101.51, 800
5101.511, 5101.512, 5101.513, 5101.516, 5101.517, 5101.519, 801
5101.5110, 5101.52, 5101.521, 5101.522, 5101.524, 5101.527, 802
5101.571, 5101.572, 5101.573, 5101.574, 5101.575, 5101.58, 803
5101.59, 5101.591, 5101.60, 5101.61, 5101.80, 5101.801, 5101.803, 804
5103.02, 5103.0323, 5103.13, 5103.42, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5104.02, 805
5104.021, 5104.03, 5104.08, 5104.11, 5104.12, 5104.32, 5107.10, 806
5107.14, 5107.16, 5107.20, 5107.24, 5107.26, 5107.42, 5107.64, 807
5111.01, 5111.011, 5111.013, 5111.016, 5111.018, 5111.0112, 808
5111.0114, 5111.0116, 5111.0117, 5111.0118, 5111.0119, 5111.02, 809
5111.021, 5111.022, 5111.023, 5111.024, 5111.025, 5111.027, 810
5111.028, 5111.029, 5111.0210, 5111.0211, 5111.0212, 5111.0213, 811
5111.0214, 5111.0215, 5111.03, 5111.031, 5111.032, 5111.033, 812
5111.034, 5111.035, 5111.04, 5111.042, 5111.05, 5111.051, 813
5111.052, 5111.053, 5111.054, 5111.06, 5111.061, 5111.062, 814
5111.063, 5111.07, 5111.071, 5111.08, 5111.081, 5111.082, 815
5111.083, 5111.084, 5111.085, 5111.086, 5111.09, 5111.091, 816
5111.092, 5111.10, 5111.101, 5111.102, 5111.11, 5111.111, 817
5111.112, 5111.113, 5111.114, 5111.12, 5111.121, 5111.13, 5111.14, 818
5111.141, 5111.15, 5111.151, 5111.16, 5111.161, 5111.162, 819
5111.163, 5111.17, 5111.171, 5111.172, 5111.173, 5111.174, 820
5111.175, 5111.177, 5111.178, 5111.179, 5111.1710, 5111.1711, 821
5111.18, 5111.181, 5111.19, 5111.191, 5111.20, 5111.201, 5111.202, 822
5111.203, 5111.204, 5111.21, 5111.212, 5111.22, 5111.221, 823
5111.222, 5111.223, 5111.224, 5111.225, 5111.226, 5111.23, 824
5111.231, 5111.232, 5111.233, 5111.235, 5111.24, 5111.241, 825
5111.242, 5111.244, 5111.245, 5111.246, 5111.25, 5111.251, 826
5111.254, 5111.255, 5111.257, 5111.258, 5111.259, 5111.26, 827
5111.261, 5111.262, 5111.263, 5111.264, 5111.265, 5111.266, 828
5111.27, 5111.271, 5111.28, 5111.29, 5111.291, 5111.30, 5111.31, 829
5111.32, 5111.33, 5111.331, 5111.35, 5111.36, 5111.37, 5111.38, 830
5111.39, 5111.41, 5111.411, 5111.42, 5111.43, 5111.44, 5111.45, 831
5111.46, 5111.47, 5111.48, 5111.49, 5111.50, 5111.51, 5111.511, 832
5111.52, 5111.53, 5111.54, 5111.55, 5111.56, 5111.57, 5111.58, 833
5111.59, 5111.60, 5111.61, 5111.62, 5111.63, 5111.66, 5111.661, 834
5111.67, 5111.671, 5111.672, 5111.673, 5111.674, 5111.675, 835
5111.676, 5111.677, 5111.68, 5111.681, 5111.682, 5111.683, 836
5111.684, 5111.685, 5111.686, 5111.687, 5111.688, 5111.689, 837
5111.70, 5111.701, 5111.702, 5111.703, 5111.704, 5111.705, 838
5111.707, 5111.708, 5111.709, 5111.7011, 5111.71, 5111.711, 839
5111.712, 5111.713, 5111.714, 5111.715, 5111.83, 5111.84, 5111.85, 840
5111.851, 5111.852, 5111.853, 5111.854, 5111.855, 5111.856, 841
5111.86, 5111.861, 5111.862, 5111.863, 5111.864, 5111.865, 842
5111.87, 5111.871, 5111.872, 5111.873, 5111.874, 5111.875, 843
5111.876, 5111.877, 5111.878, 5111.879, 5111.88, 5111.881, 844
5111.882, 5111.885, 5111.886, 5111.887, 5111.888, 5111.889, 845
5111.8810, 5111.89, 5111.891, 5111.892, 5111.894, 5111.90, 846
5111.91, 5111.911, 5111.912, 5111.914, 5111.915, 5111.92, 5111.93, 847
5111.94, 5111.941, 5111.943, 5111.944, 5111.945, 5111.96, 5111.97, 848
5111.98, 5111.981, 5111.982, 5111.99, 5112.01, 5112.03, 5112.04, 849
5112.05, 5112.06, 5112.07, 5112.08, 5112.09, 5112.10, 5112.11, 850
5112.17, 5112.18, 5112.19, 5112.21, 5112.30, 5112.31, 5112.32, 851
5112.33, 5112.331, 5112.34, 5112.341, 5112.35, 5112.37, 5112.371, 852
5112.38, 5112.39, 5112.40, 5112.41, 5112.42, 5112.43, 5112.44, 853
5112.45, 5112.46, 5112.47, 5112.48, 5112.99, 5112.991, 5115.20, 854
5117.10, 5119.01, 5119.012, 5119.02, 5119.04, 5119.06, 5119.061, 855
5119.07, 5119.071, 5119.072, 5119.08, 5119.10, 5119.101, 5119.11, 856
5119.12, 5119.14, 5119.16, 5119.161, 5119.17, 5119.18, 5119.20, 857
5119.201, 5119.202, 5119.21, 5119.22, 5119.221, 5119.23, 5119.24, 858
5119.27, 5119.30, 5119.33, 5119.34, 5119.35, 5119.351, 5119.36, 859
5119.42, 5119.43, 5119.44, 5119.46, 5119.51, 5119.52, 5119.53, 860
5119.57, 5119.60, 5119.61, 5119.611, 5119.612, 5119.613, 5119.62, 861
5119.621, 5119.622, 5119.63, 5119.631, 5119.69, 5119.691, 5119.99, 862
5120.07, 5120.09, 5120.135, 5120.17, 5120.171, 5120.652, 5120.654, 863
5121.051, 5121.30, 5121.32, 5121.33, 5121.34, 5121.35, 5121.36, 864
5121.37, 5121.38, 5121.40, 5121.42, 5121.43, 5121.44, 5121.45, 865
5121.46, 5121.47, 5121.49, 5121.50, 5121.51, 5121.52, 5121.55, 866
5122.01, 5122.03, 5122.10, 5122.11, 5122.12, 5122.13, 5122.15, 867
5122.17, 5122.18, 5122.19, 5122.20, 5122.21, 5122.23, 5122.25, 868
5122.26, 5122.27, 5122.271, 5122.31, 5122.311, 5122.32, 5122.33, 869
5122.34, 5122.341, 5122.39, 5122.43, 5122.44, 5122.45, 5122.46, 870
5122.47, 5123.01, 5123.021, 5123.022, 5123.03, 5123.0412, 871
5123.0417, 5123.09, 5123.171, 5123.19, 5123.192, 5123.197, 872
5123.198, 5123.38, 5123.61, 5123.86, 5126.01, 5126.026, 5126.043, 873
5126.05, 5126.051, 5126.054, 5126.055, 5139.03, 5139.04, 5139.08, 874
5139.34, 5145.162, 5145.18, 5149.22, 5153.16, 5302.221, 5309.082, 875
5309.68, 5309.86, 5501.311, 5501.312, 5501.73, 5502.011, 5505.12, 876
5507.01, 5507.02, 5507.021, 5507.022, 5507.03, 5507.06, 5507.07, 877
5507.08, 5507.09, 5507.12, 5507.15, 5507.18, 5507.22, 5507.25, 878
5507.26, 5507.27, 5507.32, 5507.34, 5507.40, 5507.42, 5507.44, 879
5507.46, 5507.52, 5507.53, 5507.54, 5507.55, 5507.57, 5507.571, 880
5507.60, 5507.63, 5507.99, 5511.03, 5515.08, 5540.03, 5701.13, 881
5703.052, 5703.053, 5703.059, 5703.19, 5703.21, 5703.37, 5703.50, 882
5703.70, 5703.82, 5705.01, 5705.10, 5705.19, 5705.192, 5705.21, 883
5705.217, 5705.218, 5705.221, 5705.25, 5709.17, 5709.75, 5723.01, 884
5725.18, 5725.33, 5725.34, 5726.20, 5726.52, 5726.54, 5727.26, 885
5727.75, 5727.84, 5727.89, 5728.10, 5729.03, 5729.04, 5729.16, 886
5729.17, 5731.39, 5733.01, 5733.06, 5733.11, 5733.55, 5733.58, 887
5733.98, 5735.012, 5735.12, 5735.142, 5735.27, 5735.34, 5739.01, 888
5739.02, 5739.026, 5739.09, 5739.13, 5741.01, 5741.03, 5741.17, 889
5743.081, 5743.15, 5743.56, 5745.12, 5747.01, 5747.02, 5747.022, 890
5747.025, 5747.08, 5747.10, 5747.11, 5747.113, 5747.122, 5747.13, 891
5747.21, 5747.22, 5747.47, 5747.501, 5747.76, 5747.98, 5748.01, 892
5749.02, 5749.06, 5749.07, 5749.17, 5751.01, 5751.02, 5751.051, 893
5751.07, 5751.081, 5751.09, 5751.20, 5751.21, 5751.98, 5753.03, 894
5753.07, 5815.28, 5902.02, 5905.02, 5910.02, 5910.07, 5919.34, 895
5924.502, 5924.503, 5924.504, 5924.506, 6109.21, and 6111.037 be 896
amended; sections 173.394 (173.38), 173.40 (173.52), 173.401 897
(173.521), 173.402 (173.524), 173.403 (173.53), 173.404 (173.55), 898
3304.14 (3304.15), 3304.15 (3304.16), 3304.16 (3304.14), 3304.23 899
(3335.60), 3304.231 (3335.61), 3313.847 (3317.30), 3333.90 900
(3333.59), 3383.01 (123.28), 3383.07 (123.281), 3701.041 (124.88), 901
3721.50 (5168.40), 3721.51 (5168.42), 3721.511 (5168.43), 3721.512 902
(5168.44), 3721.513 (5168.45), 3721.52 (5168.46), 3721.53 903
(5168.47), 3721.531 (5168.48), 3721.532 (5168.49), 3721.533 904
(5168.50), 3721.54 (5168.51), 3721.541 (5168.52), 3721.55 905
(5168.53), 3721.56 (5168.54), 3721.57 (5168.55), 3721.58 906
(5168.56), 3737.883 (3737.884), 3793.01 (5119.01), 3793.031 907
(5119.201), 3793.032 (5119.47), 3793.051 (5119.161), 3793.10 908
(5119.38), 3793.11 (5119.39), 3793.12 (5119.61), 3793.13 909
(5119.27), 3793.14 (5119.26), 3793.15 (5119.17), 3793.16 910
(5119.188), 3793.18 (5119.30), 3793.22 (5119.49), 3793.31 911
(5119.90), 3793.32 (5119.91), 3793.33 (5119.92), 3793.34 912
(5119.93), 3793.35 (5119.94), 3793.36 (5119.95), 3793.37 913
(5119.96), 3793.38 (5119.97), 3793.39 (5119.98), 5101.271 914
(5160.45), 5101.31 (5164.756), 5101.50 (5161.05), 5101.501 915
(5161.06), 5101.502 (5161.02), 5101.51 (5161.10), 5101.511 916
(5161.11), 5101.5110 (5161.35), 5101.512 (5161.12), 5101.513 917
(5161.30), 5101.516 (5161.22), 5101.517 (5161.24), 5101.519 918
(5161.27), 5101.52 (5161.15), 5101.521 (5161.16), 5101.522 919
(5161.17), 5101.524 (5161.20), 5101.527 (5161.25), 5101.571 920
(5160.35), 5101.572 (5160.39), 5101.573 (5160.40), 5101.574 921
(5160.41), 5101.575 (5160.42), 5101.58 (5160.37), 5101.59 922
(5160.38), 5101.591 (5160.43), 5111.01 (5162.03), 5111.011 923
(5163.02), 5111.013 (5163.40), 5111.016 (5164.26), 5111.018 924
(5164.07), 5111.0112 (5162.20), 5111.0114 (5164.754), 5111.0116 925
(5163.30), 5111.0117 (5163.31), 5111.0118 (5163.32), 5111.0119 926
(5163.45), 5111.02 (5164.02), 5111.021 (5164.70), 5111.022 927
(5164.56), 5111.023 (5164.15), 5111.024 (5164.08), 5111.025 928
(5164.76), 5111.027 (5164.20), 5111.028 (5164.32), 5111.029 929
(5164.06), 5111.0210 (5164.92), 5111.0211 (5165.48), 5111.0212 930
(5164.80), 5111.0213 (5164.77), 5111.0214 (5164.82), 5111.0215 931
(5164.93), 5111.03 (5164.35), 5111.031 (5164.37), 5111.032 932
(5164.34), 5111.033 (5164.342), 5111.034 (5164.341), 5111.035 933
(5164.36), 5111.04 (5164.05), 5111.042 (5164.25), 5111.05 934
(5164.45), 5111.051 (5164.48), 5111.052 (5164.46), 5111.053 935
(5164.301), 5111.054 (5164.47), 5111.06 (5164.38), 5111.061 936
(5164.57), 5111.062 (5164.39), 5111.063 (5164.31), 5111.07 937
(5164.752), 5111.071 (5164.753), 5111.08 (5164.759), 5111.081 938
(5164.755), 5111.082 (5164.751), 5111.083 (5164.757), 5111.084 939
(5164.7510), 5111.085 (5164.758), 5111.086 (5164.75), 5111.09 940
(5162.13), 5111.091 (5162.131), 5111.092 (5162.132), 5111.10 941
(5162.10), 5111.101 (5162.15), 5111.102 (5162.04), 5111.11 942
(5162.21), 5111.111 (5162.211), 5111.112 (5162.212), 5111.113 943
(5162.22), 5111.114 (5163.33), 5111.12 (5162.23), 5111.121 944
(5162.24), 5111.13 (5164.85), 5111.14 (5164.88), 5111.141 945
(5164.89), 5111.15 (5163.20), 5111.151 (5163.21), 5111.16 946
(5167.03), 5111.161 (5167.031), 5111.162 (5167.20), 5111.163 947
(5167.201), 5111.17 (5167.10), 5111.171 (5167.31), 5111.172 948
(5167.12), 5111.173 (5167.40), 5111.174 (5167.41), 5111.175 949
(5167.26), 5111.177 (5167.11), 5111.178 (5167.25), 5111.179 950
(5167.13), 5111.1710 (5167.14), 5111.1711 (5167.30), 5111.18 951
(5164.86), 5111.181 (5163.22), 5111.19 (5164.74), 5111.191 952
(5164.741), 5111.20 (5165.01), 5111.201 (5165.011), 5111.202 953
(5165.03), 5111.203 (5165.031), 5111.204 (5165.04), 5111.21 954
(5165.06), 5111.212 (5165.35), 5111.22 (5165.07), 5111.221 955
(5165.37), 5111.222 (5165.15), 5111.223 (5165.071), 5111.224 956
(5124.15), 5111.225 (5165.155), 5111.226 (5124.02), 5111.23 957
(5124.19), 5111.231 (5165.19), 5111.232 (5165.192), 5111.233 958
(5124.194), 5111.235 (5124.23), 5111.24 (5165.16), 5111.241 959
(5124.21), 5111.242 (5165.21), 5111.244 (5165.25), 5111.245 960
(5165.26), 5111.246 (5165.23), 5111.25 (5165.17), 5111.251 961
(5124.17), 5111.254 (5165.151), 5111.255 (5124.151), 5111.257 962
(5165.28), 5111.258 (5165.153), 5111.259 (5165.156), 5111.26 963
(5165.10), 5111.261 (5165.107), 5111.262 (5165.47), 5111.263 964
(5124.29), 5111.264 (5165.30), 5111.265 (5165.29), 5111.266 965
(5165.101), 5111.27 (5165.108), 5111.271 (5165.1010), 5111.28 966
(5165.40), 5111.29 (5165.38), 5111.291 (5124.154), 5111.30 967
(5165.073), 5111.31 (5165.08), 5111.32 (5165.081), 5111.33 968
(5124.34), 5111.331 (5165.34), 5111.35 (5165.60), 5111.36 969
(5165.61), 5111.37 (5165.62), 5111.38 (5165.63), 5111.39 970
(5165.64), 5111.40 (5165.65), 5111.41 (5165.66), 5111.411 971
(5165.67), 5111.42 (5165.68), 5111.43 (5165.69), 5111.44 972
(5165.70), 5111.45 (5165.71), 5111.46 (5165.72), 5111.47 973
(5165.73), 5111.48 (5165.74), 5111.49 (5165.75), 5111.50 974
(5165.76), 5111.51 (5165.77), 5111.511 (5165.78), 5111.52 975
(5165.79), 5111.53 (5165.80), 5111.54 (5165.81), 5111.55 976
(5165.82), 5111.56 (5165.83), 5111.57 (5165.84), 5111.58 977
(5165.85), 5111.59 (5165.86), 5111.60 (5165.87), 5111.61 978
(5165.88), 5111.62 (5162.66), 5111.63 (5165.89), 5111.66 979
(5165.50), 5111.661 (5165.501), 5111.67 (5165.51), 5111.671 980
(5165.511), 5111.672 (5165.512), 5111.673 (5165.513), 5111.674 981
(5165.514), 5111.675 (5165.515), 5111.676 (5165.516), 5111.677 982
(5165.517), 5111.68 (5165.52), 5111.681 (5165.521), 5111.682 983
(5165.522), 5111.683 (5165.523), 5111.684 (5165.524), 5111.685 984
(5165.525), 5111.686 (5165.526), 5111.687 (5165.527), 5111.688 985
(5165.528), 5111.689 (5165.53), 5111.70 (5163.09), 5111.701 986
(5163.091), 5111.702 (5163.092), 5111.703 (5163.093), 5111.704 987
(5163.094), 5111.705 (5163.095), 5111.706 (5163.096), 5111.707 988
(5163.097), 5111.708 (5163.098), 5111.709 (5163.099), 5111.7011 989
(5163.0910), 5111.71 (5162.36), 5111.711 (5162.361), 5111.712 990
(5162.362), 5111.713 (5162.363), 5111.714 (5162.64), 5111.715 991
(5162.364), 5111.83 (5162.30), 5111.84 (5166.03), 5111.85 992
(5166.02), 5111.851 (5166.04), 5111.852 (5166.05), 5111.853 993
(5166.06), 5111.854 (5166.07), 5111.855 (5166.08), 5111.856 994
(5166.10), 5111.86 (5166.11), 5111.861 (5166.12), 5111.862 995
(5166.121), 5111.863 (5166.13), 5111.864 (5166.14), 5111.865 996
(5166.141), 5111.87 (5166.20), 5111.871 (5166.21), 5111.872 997
(5166.22), 5111.873 (5166.23), 5111.874 (5124.60), 5111.875 998
(5124.61), 5111.876 (5124.62), 5111.877 (5124.63), 5111.878 999
(5124.64), 5111.879 (5124.65), 5111.88 (5166.30), 5111.881 1000
(5166.301), 5111.882 (5166.302), 5111.883 (5166.303), 5111.884 1001
(5166.304), 5111.885 (5166.305), 5111.886 (5166.306), 5111.887 1002
(5166.307), 5111.888 (5166.308), 5111.889 (5166.309), 5111.8810 1003
(5166.3010), 5111.89 (173.54), 5111.891 (173.541), 5111.892 1004
(173.544), 5111.893 (173.547), 5111.894 (173.542), 5111.90 1005
(5162.32), 5111.91 (5162.35), 5111.911 (5162.37), 5111.912 1006
(5162.371), 5111.914 (5164.58), 5111.915 (5162.11), 5111.92 1007
(5162.40), 5111.93 (5162.41), 5111.94 (5162.54), 5111.941 1008
(5162.52), 5111.943 (5162.50), 5111.944 (5162.58), 5111.945 1009
(5162.56), 5111.96 (5164.90), 5111.97 (5166.35), 5111.98 1010
(5162.031), 5111.981 (5164.91), 5111.982 (5167.21), 5111.99 1011
(5165.99), 5112.01 (5168.01), 5112.03 (5168.02), 5112.04 1012
(5168.05), 5112.05 (5168.03), 5112.06 (5168.06), 5112.07 1013
(5168.07), 5112.08 (5168.09), 5112.09 (5168.08), 5112.10 1014
(5168.04), 5112.11 (5168.10), 5112.17 (5168.14), 5112.18 1015
(5168.11), 5112.19 (5168.12), 5112.21 (5168.13), 5112.30 1016
(5168.60), 5112.31 (5168.61), 5112.32 (5168.62), 5112.33 1017
(5168.63), 5112.331 (5168.64), 5112.34 (5168.65), 5112.341 1018
(5168.66), 5112.35 (5168.67), 5112.37 (5168.68), 5112.371 1019
(5168.69), 5112.38 (5168.70), 5112.39 (5168.71), 5112.40 1020
(5168.20), 5112.41 (5168.21), 5112.42 (5168.22), 5112.43 1021
(5168.23), 5112.44 (5168.24), 5112.45 (5168.25), 5112.46 1022
(5168.26), 5112.47 (5168.27), 5112.48 (5168.28), 5112.99 1023
(5168.99), 5112.991 (5168.991), 5119.01 (5119.10), 5119.012 1024
(5119.141), 5119.02 (5119.14), 5119.06 (5119.21), 5119.061 1025
(5119.40), 5119.07 (5119.11), 5119.071 (5119.18), 5119.072 1026
(5119.181), 5119.08 (5119.182), 5119.10 (5119.184), 5119.101 1027
(5119.185), 5119.11 (5119.186), 5119.12 (5119.187), 5119.14 1028
(5119.08), 5119.16 (5119.44), 5119.161 (5119.45), 5119.17 1029
(5119.51), 5119.18 (5119.46), 5119.20 (5119.33), 5119.201 1030
(5119.331), 5119.202 (5119.332), 5119.21 (5119.333), 5119.22 1031
(5119.34), 5119.221 (5119.342), 5119.23 (5119.31), 5119.24 1032
(5119.15), 5119.27 (5119.05), 5119.30 (5119.09), 5119.33 1033
(5119.54), 5119.34 (5119.50), 5119.35 (5119.56), 5119.351 1034
(5119.55), 5119.36 (5119.52), 5119.42 (5119.07), 5119.43 1035
(5119.06), 5119.44 (5119.051), 5119.46 (5119.60), 5119.50 1036
(5119.70), 5119.51 (5119.71), 5119.52 (5119.72), 5119.53 1037
(5119.73), 5119.57 (5119.29), 5119.60 (5119.32), 5119.61 1038
(5119.22), 5119.611 (5119.36), 5119.612 (5119.37), 5119.613 1039
(5119.361), 5119.62 (5119.23), 5119.621 (5119.24), 5119.622 1040
(5119.25), 5119.63 (5119.42), 5119.631 (5119.421), 5119.69 1041
(5119.41), 5119.691 (5119.411), 5507.01 (128.01), 5507.02 1042
(128.02), 5507.021 (128.021), 5507.022 (128.022), 5507.03 1043
(128.03), 5507.06 (128.06), 5507.07 (128.07), 5507.08 (128.08), 1044
5507.09 (128.09), 5507.12 (128.12), 5507.15 (128.15), 5507.18 1045
(128.18), 5507.22 (128.22), 5507.25 (128.25), 5507.26 (128.26), 1046
5507.27 (128.27), 5507.32 (128.32), 5507.34 (128.34), 5507.40 1047
(128.40), 5507.42 (128.42), 5507.44 (128.44), 5507.46 (128.46), 1048
5507.52 (128.52), 5507.53 (128.53), 5507.54 (128.54), 5507.55 1049
(128.55), 5507.57 (128.57), 5507.571 (128.571), 5507.60 (128.60), 1050
5507.63 (128.63), and 5507.99 (128.99) be amended for the purpose 1051
of adopting new section numbers as indicated in parentheses; new 1052
sections 1901.121, 3313.481, 3317.014, 3317.02, 3317.022, 1053
3317.0217, 3317.051, 3317.16, 3326.39, 3345.81, and 3737.883 and 1054
sections 1.611, 101.392, 103.0521, 103.83, 121.483, 122.681, 1055
123.19, 125.27, 125.833, 126.211, 149.307, 173.51, 173.522, 1056
173.523, 173.525, 173.543, 173.545, 173.546, 173.56, 340.08, 1057
353.01, 353.02, 353.03, 353.04, 353.05, 353.06, 353.07, 353.08, 1058
353.09, 353.10, 353.11, 353.12, 353.13, 353.14, 353.15, 353.16, 1059
511.261, 517.271, 721.29, 743.50, 903.30, 955.121, 991.041, 1060
1327.502, 1509.074, 1509.16, 1541.50, 1545.23, 1547.532, 1901.122, 1061
1901.123, 1907.141, 1907.142, 1907.143, 2101.026, 2301.19, 1062
2329.192, 2743.041, 3302.035, 3302.26, 3310.032, 3310.035, 1063
3313.5311, 3313.5312, 3313.6018, 3313.6019, 3313.848, 3313.849, 1064
3314.042, 3314.082, 3314.086, 3314.092, 3314.261, 3314.29, 1065
3317.016, 3317.017, 3317.0213, 3317.0214, 3317.161, 3317.25, 1066
3317.40, 3319.031, 3319.0812, 3325.13, 3325.14, 3326.112, 3326.40, 1067
3327.07, 3328.27, 3333.049, 3333.124, 3333.342, 3333.613, 3337.16, 1068
3345.48, 3350.15, 3365.022, 3701.033, 3701.138, 3701.94, 3701.941, 1069
3701.942, 3701.943, 3701.944, 3701.96, 3701.98, 3702.302, 1070
3702.303, 3702.304, 3702.305, 3702.306, 3702.307, 3702.308, 1071
3714.074, 3734.125, 3735.661, 3772.36, 4123.322, 4503.524, 1072
4503.526, 4503.732, 4503.95, 4503.96, 4713.641, 4729.542, 1073
4731.299, 4751.042, 4783.01, 4783.02, 4783.03, 4783.04, 4783.05, 1074
4783.09, 4783.10, 4783.11, 4783.12, 4783.13, 4783.99, 4906.201, 1075
4909.157, 4955.322, 5101.101, 5101.804, 5119.28, 5119.341, 1076
5123.023, 5124.01, 5124.03, 5124.05, 5124.06, 5124.07, 5124.071, 1077
5124.072, 5124.08, 5124.081, 5124.10, 5124.101, 5124.102, 1078
5124.103, 5124.104, 5124.105, 5124.106, 5124.107, 5124.108, 1079
5124.109, 5124.152, 5124.153, 5124.191, 5124.192, 5124.193, 1080
5124.25, 5124.28, 5124.30, 5124.31, 5124.32, 5124.33, 5124.35, 1081
5124.37, 5124.38, 5124.40, 5124.41, 5124.42, 5124.43, 5124.44, 1082
5124.45, 5124.46, 5124.50, 5124.51, 5124.511, 5124.512, 5124.513, 1083
5124.514, 5124.515, 5124.516, 5124.517, 5124.52, 5124.521, 1084
5124.522, 5124.523, 5124.524, 5124.525, 5124.526, 5124.527, 1085
5124.528, 5124.53, 5124.67, 5124.99, 5126.131, 5160.01, 5160.011, 1086
5160.02, 5160.021, 5160.03, 5160.04, 5160.05, 5160.051, 5160.052, 1087
5160.06, 5160.10, 5160.11, 5160.12, 5160.13, 5160.16, 5160.20, 1088
5160.21, 5160.22, 5160.23, 5160.30, 5160.31, 5160.371, 5160.46, 1089
5160.47, 5160.48, 5160.481, 5160.50, 5160.52, 5160.99, 5161.01, 1090
5162.01, 5162.02, 5162.021, 5162.022, 5162.05, 5162.06, 5162.07, 1091
5162.12, 5162.31, 5162.60, 5162.62, 5163.01, 5163.03, 5163.04, 1092
5163.05, 5163.06, 5163.061, 5163.08, 5164.01, 5164.03, 5164.30, 1093
5164.33, 5164.55, 5164.59, 5164.60, 5164.61, 5164.71, 5164.72, 1094
5164.73, 5164.78, 5164.881, 5164.911, 5165.02, 5165.072, 5165.082, 1095
5165.102, 5165.103, 5165.104, 5165.105, 5165.106, 5165.109, 1096
5165.152, 5165.154, 5165.191, 5165.193, 5165.32, 5165.33, 5165.41, 1097
5165.42, 5165.43, 5165.44, 5165.45, 5165.46, 5165.49, 5165.771, 1098
5166.01, 5166.16, 5167.01, 5167.02, 5168.41, 5540.18, 5703.75, 1099
5703.76, 5705.55, 5735.013, 5736.01, 5736.02, 5736.03, 5736.04, 1100
5736.05, 5736.06, 5736.07, 5736.08, 5736.081, 5736.09, 5736.10, 1101
5736.11, 5736.12, 5736.13, 5736.14, 5736.99, 5741.032, 5751.55, 1102
5910.08, 5919.342, and 6133.041 of the Revised Code be enacted to 1103
read as follows:1104

       Sec. 1.611. As used in the Revised Code, "OSU extension" 1105
means the cooperative extension service that was established by 1106
the "Smith-Lever Act," 38 Stat. 372 (1914), 7 U.S.C. 341 et seq., 1107
and is administered in this state by the Ohio state university.1108

       Sec. 9.03.  (A) As used in this section:1109

       (1) "Political subdivision" means any body corporate and 1110
politic, except a municipal corporation that has adopted a charter 1111
under Section 7 of Article XVIII, Ohio Constitution, and except a 1112
county that has adopted a charter under Sections 3 and 4 of 1113
Article X, Ohio Constitution, to which both of the following 1114
apply:1115

       (a) It is responsible for governmental activities only in a 1116
geographic area smaller than the state.1117

       (b) It is subject to the sovereign immunity of the state.1118

       (2) "Cigarettes" and "tobacco product" have the same meanings 1119
as in section 5743.01 of the Revised Code.1120

       (3) "Transaction" has the same meaning as in section 1315.51 1121
of the Revised Code.1122

       (4) "Campaign committee," "campaign fund," "candidate," 1123
"legislative campaign fund," "political action committee," 1124
"political committee," "political party," and "separate segregated 1125
fund" have the same meanings as in section 3517.01 of the Revised 1126
Code.1127

       (B) Except as otherwise provided in division (C) of this 1128
section, the governing body of a political subdivision may use 1129
public funds to publish and distribute newsletters, or to use any 1130
other means, to communicate information about the plans, policies, 1131
and operations of the political subdivision to members of the 1132
public within the political subdivision and to other persons who 1133
may be affected by the political subdivision.1134

       (C) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(7) of 1135
section 340.03 or division (A)(12) of section 340.033 of the 1136
Revised Code, no governing body of a political subdivision shall 1137
use public funds to do any of the following:1138

       (1) Publish, distribute, or otherwise communicate information 1139
that does any of the following:1140

       (a) Contains defamatory, libelous, or obscene matter;1141

       (b) Promotes alcoholic beverages, cigarettes or other tobacco 1142
products, or any illegal product, service, or activity;1143

       (c) Promotes illegal discrimination on the basis of race, 1144
color, religion, national origin, handicap, age, or ancestry;1145

       (d) Supports or opposes any labor organization or any action 1146
by, on behalf of, or against any labor organization;1147

       (e) Supports or opposes the nomination or election of a 1148
candidate for public office, the investigation, prosecution, or 1149
recall of a public official, or the passage of a levy or bond 1150
issue.1151

       (2) Compensate any employee of the political subdivision for 1152
time spent on any activity to influence the outcome of an election 1153
for any of the purposes described in division (C)(1)(e) of this 1154
section. Division (C)(2) of this section does not prohibit the use 1155
of public funds to compensate an employee of a political 1156
subdivision for attending a public meeting to present information 1157
about the political subdivision's finances, activities, and 1158
governmental actions in a manner that is not designed to influence 1159
the outcome of an election or the passage of a levy or bond issue, 1160
even though the election, levy, or bond issue is discussed or 1161
debated at the meeting.1162

       (D) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(7) of 1163
section 340.03 or division (A)(12) of section 340.033 of the 1164
Revised Code or in division (E) of this section, no person shall 1165
knowingly conduct a direct or indirect transaction of public funds 1166
to the benefit of any of the following:1167

       (1) A campaign committee;1168

       (2) A political action committee;1169

       (3) A legislative campaign fund;1170

       (4) A political party;1171

       (5) A campaign fund;1172

       (6) A political committee;1173

       (7) A separate segregated fund;1174

       (8) A candidate.1175

        (E) Division (D) of this section does not prohibit the 1176
utilization of any person's own time to speak in support of or in 1177
opposition to any candidate, recall, referendum, levy, or bond 1178
issue unless prohibited by any other section of the Revised Code.1179

       (F) Nothing in this section prohibits or restricts any 1180
political subdivision from sponsoring, participating in, or doing 1181
any of the following:1182

       (1) Charitable or public service advertising that is not 1183
commercial in nature;1184

       (2) Advertising of exhibitions, performances, programs, 1185
products, or services that are provided by employees of a 1186
political subdivision or are provided at or through premises owned 1187
or operated by a political subdivision;1188

       (3) Licensing an interest in a name or mark that is owned or 1189
controlled by the political subdivision.1190

       (G) Whoever violates division (D) of this section shall be 1191
punished as provided in section 3599.40 of the Revised Code.1192

       Sec. 9.15.  When the body of a dead person is found in a 1193
township or municipal corporation, and such person was not an 1194
inmate of a correctional, benevolent, or charitable institution of 1195
this state, and the body is not claimed by any person for private 1196
interment or cremation at the person's own expense, or delivered 1197
for the purpose of medical or surgical study or dissection in 1198
accordance with section 1713.34 of the Revised Code, it shall be 1199
disposed of as follows:1200

       (A) If the person was a legal resident of the county, the 1201
proper officers of the township or municipal corporation in which 1202
the person's body was found shall cause it to be buried or 1203
cremated at the expense of the township or municipal corporation 1204
in which the person had a legal residence at the time of death.1205

       (B) If the person had a legal residence in any other county 1206
of the state at the time of death, the superintendent of the 1207
county home of the county in which such body was found shall cause 1208
it to be buried or cremated at the expense of the township or 1209
municipal corporation in which the person had a legal residence at 1210
the time of death.1211

       (C) If the person was an inmate of a correctional institution 1212
of the county or a patient or resident of a benevolent institution 1213
of the county, the person had no legal residence in the state, or 1214
the person's legal residence is unknown, the superintendent shall 1215
cause the person to be buried or cremated at the expense of the 1216
county.1217

       Such officials shall provide, at the grave of the person or, 1218
if the person's cremated remains are buried, at the grave of the 1219
person's cremated remains, a metal, stone, or concrete marker on 1220
which the person's name and age, if known, and date of death shall 1221
be inscribed.1222

       A political subdivision is not relieved of its duty to bury 1223
or cremate a person at its expense under this section when the 1224
body is claimed by an indigent person. As used in this section, 1225
"indigent person" means a person whose income does not exceed one 1226
hundred fifty per cent of the federal poverty line, as revised 1227
annually by the United States department of health and human 1228
services in accordance with section 673(2) of the "Omnibus Budget 1229
Reconciliation Act of 1981," 95 Stat. 511, 42 U.S.C. 9902, as 1230
amended, for a family size equal to the size of the person's 1231
family.1232

       Sec. 9.231. (A)(1) Subject to divisions (A)(2) and (3) of 1233
this section, a governmental entity shall not disburse money 1234
totaling twenty-five thousand dollars or more to any person for 1235
the provision of services for the primary benefit of individuals 1236
or the public and not for the primary benefit of a governmental 1237
entity or the employees of a governmental entity, unless the 1238
contracting authority of the governmental entity first enters into 1239
a written contract with the person that is signed by the person or 1240
by an officer or agent of the person authorized to legally bind 1241
the person and that embodies all of the requirements and 1242
conditions set forth in sections 9.23 to 9.236 of the Revised 1243
Code. If the disbursement of money occurs over the course of a 1244
governmental entity's fiscal year, rather than in a lump sum, the 1245
contracting authority of the governmental entity shall enter into 1246
the written contract with the person at the point during the 1247
governmental entity's fiscal year that at least seventy-five 1248
thousand dollars has been disbursed by the governmental entity to 1249
the person. Thereafter, the contracting authority of the 1250
governmental entity shall enter into the written contract with the 1251
person at the beginning of the governmental entity's fiscal year, 1252
if, during the immediately preceding fiscal year, the governmental 1253
entity disbursed to that person an aggregate amount totaling at 1254
least seventy-five thousand dollars.1255

       (2) If the money referred to in division (A)(1) of this 1256
section is disbursed by or through more than one state agency to 1257
the person for the provision of services to the same population, 1258
the contracting authorities of those agencies shall determine 1259
which one of them will enter into the written contract with the 1260
person.1261

       (3) The requirements and conditions set forth in divisions 1262
(A), (B), (C), and (F) of section 9.232, divisions (A)(1) and (2) 1263
and (B) of section 9.234, divisions (A)(2) and (B) of section 1264
9.235, and sections 9.233 and 9.236 of the Revised Code do not 1265
apply with respect to the following:1266

       (a) Contracts to which all of the following apply: 1267

       (i) The amount received for the services is a set fee for 1268
each time the services are provided, is determined in accordance 1269
with a fixed rate per unit of time or per service, or is a 1270
capitated rate, and the fee or rate is established by competitive 1271
bidding or by a market rate survey of similar services provided in 1272
a defined market area. The market rate survey may be one conducted 1273
by or on behalf of the governmental entity or an independent 1274
survey accepted by the governmental entity as statistically valid 1275
and reliable.1276

       (ii) The services are provided in accordance with standards 1277
established by state or federal law, or by rules or regulations 1278
adopted thereunder, for their delivery, which standards are 1279
enforced by the federal government, a governmental entity, or an 1280
accrediting organization recognized by the federal government or a 1281
governmental entity.1282

       (iii) Payment for the services is made after the services are 1283
delivered and upon submission to the governmental entity of an 1284
invoice or other claim for payment as required by any applicable 1285
local, state, or federal law or, if no such law applies, by the 1286
terms of the contract. 1287

       (b) Contracts under which the services are reimbursed through 1288
or in a manner consistent with a federal program that meets all of 1289
the following requirements:1290

       (i) The program calculates the reimbursement rate on the 1291
basis of the previous year's experience or in accordance with an 1292
alternative method set forth in rules adopted by the Ohio 1293
department of job and family services.1294

       (ii) The reimbursement rate is derived from a breakdown of 1295
direct and indirect costs.1296

       (iii) The program's guidelines describe types of expenditures 1297
that are allowable and not allowable under the program and 1298
delineate which costs are acceptable as direct costs for purposes 1299
of calculating the reimbursement rate.1300

       (iv) The program includes a uniform cost reporting system 1301
with specific audit requirements.1302

       (c) Contracts under which the services are reimbursed through 1303
or in a manner consistent with a federal program that calculates 1304
the reimbursement rate on a fee for service basis in compliance 1305
with United States office of management and budget Circular A-87, 1306
as revised May 10, 2004. 1307

       (d) Contracts for services that are paid pursuant to the 1308
earmarking of an appropriation made by the general assembly for 1309
that purpose.1310

       (B) Division (A) of this section does not apply if the money 1311
is disbursed to a person pursuant to a contract with the United 1312
States or a governmental entity under any of the following 1313
circumstances:1314

       (1) The person receives the money directly or indirectly from 1315
the United States, and no governmental entity exercises any 1316
oversight or control over the use of the money.1317

       (2) The person receives the money solely in return for the 1318
performance of one or more of the following types of services:1319

       (a) Medical, therapeutic, or other health-related services 1320
provided by a person if the amount received is a set fee for each 1321
time the person provides the services, is determined in accordance 1322
with a fixed rate per unit of time, or is a capitated rate, and 1323
the fee or rate is reasonable and customary in the person's trade 1324
or profession;1325

       (b) Medicaid-funded services, including administrative and 1326
management services, provided pursuant to a contract or medicaid 1327
provider agreement that meets the requirements of the medicaid 1328
program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code. 1329

       (c) Services, other than administrative or management 1330
services or any of the services described in division (B)(2)(a) or 1331
(b) of this section, that are commonly purchased by the public at 1332
an hourly rate or at a set fee for each time the services are 1333
provided, unless the services are performed for the benefit of 1334
children, persons who are eligible for the services by reason of 1335
advanced age, medical condition, or financial need, or persons who 1336
are confined in a detention facility as defined in section 2921.01 1337
of the Revised Code, and the services are intended to help promote 1338
the health, safety, or welfare of those children or persons;1339

       (d) Educational services provided by a school to children 1340
eligible to attend that school. For purposes of division (B)(2)(d) 1341
of this section, "school" means any school operated by a school 1342
district board of education, any community school established 1343
under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, or any nonpublic school 1344
for which the state board of education prescribes minimum 1345
education standards under section 3301.07 of the Revised Code.1346

       (e) Services provided by a foster home as defined in section 1347
5103.02 of the Revised Code;1348

       (f) "Routine business services other than administrative or 1349
management services," as that term is defined by the attorney 1350
general by rule adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 1351
Revised Code;1352

       (g) Services to protect the environment or promote 1353
environmental education that are provided by a nonprofit entity or 1354
services to protect the environment that are funded with federal 1355
grants or revolving loan funds and administered in accordance with 1356
federal law.1357

       (3) The person receives the money solely in return for the 1358
performance of services intended to help preserve public health or 1359
safety under circumstances requiring immediate action as a result 1360
of a natural or man-made emergency.1361

       (C) With respect to an unincorporated nonprofit association, 1362
corporation, or organization established for the purpose of 1363
providing educational, technical, consulting, training, financial, 1364
or other services to its members in exchange for membership dues 1365
and other fees, any of the services provided to a member that is a 1366
governmental entity shall, for purposes of this section, be 1367
considered services "for the primary benefit of a governmental 1368
entity or the employees of a governmental entity."1369

       Sec. 9.239. (A) There is hereby created the government 1370
contracting advisory council. The attorney general and auditor of 1371
state shall consult with the council on the performance of their 1372
rule-making functions under sections 9.237 and 9.238 of the 1373
Revised Code and shall consider any recommendations of the 1374
council. The medicaid director of job and family services shall 1375
annually report to the council the cost methodology of the 1376
medicaid-funded services described in division (A)(3)(d) of 1377
section 9.231 of the Revised Code. The council shall consist of 1378
the following members or their designees:1379

       (1) The attorney general;1380

       (2) The auditor of state;1381

       (3) The director of administrative services;1382

        (4) The director of aging;1383

       (5) The director of alcohol and drug addiction servicesThe 1384
medicaid director;1385

       (6) The director of budget and management;1386

       (7) The director of development services;1387

       (8) The director of job and family services;1388

       (9) The director of mental healthmental health and addiction 1389
services;1390

       (10) The director of developmental disabilities;1391

       (11) The director of rehabilitation and correction;1392

       (12) The administrator of workers' compensation;1393

       (13) The executive director of the county commissioners' 1394
association of Ohio;1395

       (14) The president of the Ohio grantmakers forum;1396

       (15) The president of the Ohio chamber of commerce;1397

       (16) The president of the Ohio state bar association;1398

       (17) The president of the Ohio society of certified public 1399
accountants;1400

       (18) The executive director of the Ohio association of 1401
nonprofit organizations;1402

       (19) The president of the Ohio united way;1403

       (20) One additional member appointed by the attorney general;1404

       (21) One additional member appointed by the auditor of state.1405

       (B) If an agency or organization represented on the council 1406
ceases to exist in the form it has on September 29, 2005, the 1407
successor agency or organization shall be represented in its 1408
place. If there is no successor agency or organization, or if it 1409
is not clear what agency or organization is the successor, the 1410
attorney general shall designate an agency or organization to be 1411
represented in place of the agency or organization originally 1412
represented on the council.1413

       (C) The two members appointed to the council shall serve 1414
three-year terms. Original appointments shall be made not later 1415
than sixty days after September 29, 2005. Vacancies on the council 1416
shall be filled in the same manner as the original appointment.1417

       (D) The attorney general or the attorney general's designee 1418
shall be the chairperson of the council. The council shall meet at 1419
least once every two years to review the rules adopted under 1420
sections 9.237 and 9.238 of the Revised Code and to make 1421
recommendations to the attorney general and auditor of state 1422
regarding the adoption, amendment, or repeal of those rules. The 1423
council shall also meet at other times as requested by the 1424
attorney general or auditor of state.1425

       (E) Members of the council shall serve without compensation 1426
or reimbursement.1427

       (F) The office of the attorney general shall provide 1428
necessary staff, facilities, supplies, and services to the 1429
council.1430

       (G) Sections 101.82 to 101.87 of the Revised Code do not 1431
apply to the council.1432

       Sec. 9.24. (A) Except as may be allowed under division (F) of 1433
this section, no state agency and no political subdivision shall 1434
award a contract as described in division (G)(1) of this section 1435
for goods, services, or construction, paid for in whole or in part 1436
with state funds, to a person against whom a finding for recovery 1437
has been issued by the auditor of state on and after January 1, 1438
2001, if the finding for recovery is unresolved.1439

       A contract is considered to be awarded when it is entered 1440
into or executed, irrespective of whether the parties to the 1441
contract have exchanged any money.1442

        (B) For purposes of this section, a finding for recovery is 1443
unresolved unless one of the following criteria applies:1444

        (1) The money identified in the finding for recovery is paid 1445
in full to the state agency or political subdivision to whom the 1446
money was owed;1447

        (2) The debtor has entered into a repayment plan that is 1448
approved by the attorney general and the state agency or political 1449
subdivision to whom the money identified in the finding for 1450
recovery is owed. A repayment plan may include a provision 1451
permitting a state agency or political subdivision to withhold 1452
payment to a debtor for goods, services, or construction provided 1453
to or for the state agency or political subdivision pursuant to a 1454
contract that is entered into with the debtor after the date the 1455
finding for recovery was issued.1456

        (3) The attorney general waives a repayment plan described in 1457
division (B)(2) of this section for good cause;1458

        (4) The debtor and state agency or political subdivision to 1459
whom the money identified in the finding for recovery is owed have 1460
agreed to a payment plan established through an enforceable 1461
settlement agreement.1462

        (5) The state agency or political subdivision desiring to 1463
enter into a contract with a debtor certifies, and the attorney 1464
general concurs, that all of the following are true:1465

        (a) Essential services the state agency or political 1466
subdivision is seeking to obtain from the debtor cannot be 1467
provided by any other person besides the debtor;1468

        (b) Awarding a contract to the debtor for the essential 1469
services described in division (B)(5)(a) of this section is in the 1470
best interest of the state;1471

        (c) Good faith efforts have been made to collect the money 1472
identified in the finding of recovery.1473

       (6) The debtor has commenced an action to contest the finding 1474
for recovery and a final determination on the action has not yet 1475
been reached.1476

        (C) The attorney general shall submit an initial report to 1477
the auditor of state, not later than December 1, 2003, indicating 1478
the status of collection for all findings for recovery issued by 1479
the auditor of state for calendar years 2001, 2002, and 2003. 1480
Beginning on January 1, 2004, the attorney general shall submit to 1481
the auditor of state, on the first day of every January, April, 1482
July, and October, a list of all findings for recovery that have 1483
been resolved in accordance with division (B) of this section 1484
during the calendar quarter preceding the submission of the list 1485
and a description of the means of resolution. The attorney general 1486
shall notify the auditor of state when a judgment is issued 1487
against an entity described in division (F)(1) of this section.1488

       (D) The auditor of state shall maintain a database, 1489
accessible to the public, listing persons against whom an 1490
unresolved finding for recovery has been issued, and the amount of 1491
the money identified in the unresolved finding for recovery. The 1492
auditor of state shall have this database operational on or before 1493
January 1, 2004. The initial database shall contain the 1494
information required under this division for calendar years 2001, 1495
2002, and 2003.1496

       Beginning January 15, 2004, the auditor of state shall update 1497
the database by the fifteenth day of every January, April, July, 1498
and October to reflect resolved findings for recovery that are 1499
reported to the auditor of state by the attorney general on the 1500
first day of the same month pursuant to division (C) of this 1501
section.1502

        (E) Before awarding a contract as described in division 1503
(G)(1) of this section for goods, services, or construction, paid 1504
for in whole or in part with state funds, a state agency or 1505
political subdivision shall verify that the person to whom the 1506
state agency or political subdivision plans to award the contract 1507
has no unresolved finding for recovery issued against the person. 1508
A state agency or political subdivision shall verify that the 1509
person does not appear in the database described in division (D) 1510
of this section or shall obtain other proof that the person has no 1511
unresolved finding for recovery issued against the person.1512

        (F) The prohibition of division (A) of this section and the 1513
requirement of division (E) of this section do not apply with 1514
respect to the companies, payments, or agreements described in 1515
divisions (F)(1) and (2) of this section, or in the circumstance 1516
described in division (F)(3) of this section.1517

       (1) A bonding company or a company authorized to transact the 1518
business of insurance in this state, a self-insurance pool, joint 1519
self-insurance pool, risk management program, or joint risk 1520
management program, unless a court has entered a final judgment 1521
against the company and the company has not yet satisfied the 1522
final judgment.1523

       (2) To medicaid provider agreements under Chapter 5111. of1524
the Revised Codemedicaid program.1525

       (3) When federal law dictates that a specified entity provide 1526
the goods, services, or construction for which a contract is being 1527
awarded, regardless of whether that entity would otherwise be 1528
prohibited from entering into the contract pursuant to this 1529
section.1530

       (G)(1) This section applies only to contracts for goods, 1531
services, or construction that satisfy the criteria in either 1532
division (G)(1)(a) or (b) of this section. This section may apply 1533
to contracts for goods, services, or construction that satisfy the 1534
criteria in division (G)(1)(c) of this section, provided that the 1535
contracts also satisfy the criteria in either division (G)(1)(a) 1536
or (b) of this section.1537

       (a) The cost for the goods, services, or construction 1538
provided under the contract is estimated to exceed twenty-five 1539
thousand dollars.1540

       (b) The aggregate cost for the goods, services, or 1541
construction provided under multiple contracts entered into by the 1542
particular state agency and a single person or the particular 1543
political subdivision and a single person within the fiscal year 1544
preceding the fiscal year within which a contract is being entered 1545
into by that same state agency and the same single person or the 1546
same political subdivision and the same single person, exceeded 1547
fifty thousand dollars.1548

       (c) The contract is a renewal of a contract previously 1549
entered into and renewed pursuant to that preceding contract.1550

       (2) This section does not apply to employment contracts.1551

       (H) As used in this section:1552

       (1) "State agency" has the same meaning as in section 9.66 of 1553
the Revised Code.1554

       (2) "Political subdivision" means a political subdivision as 1555
defined in section 9.82 of the Revised Code that has received more 1556
than fifty thousand dollars of state money in the current fiscal 1557
year or the preceding fiscal year.1558

       (3) "Finding for recovery" means a determination issued by 1559
the auditor of state, contained in a report the auditor of state 1560
gives to the attorney general pursuant to section 117.28 of the 1561
Revised Code, that public money has been illegally expended, 1562
public money has been collected but not been accounted for, public 1563
money is due but has not been collected, or public property has 1564
been converted or misappropriated.1565

        (4) "Debtor" means a person against whom a finding for 1566
recovery has been issued.1567

       (5) "Person" means the person named in the finding for 1568
recovery.1569

       (6) "State money" does not include funds the state receives 1570
from another source and passes through to a political subdivision.1571

       Sec. 9.833.  (A) As used in this section, "political 1572
subdivision" has the meaning defined in sections 2744.01 and 1573
3905.36 of the Revised Code. For purposes of this section, 1574
"political subdivision" includes municipal corporations as defined 1575
in section 5705.01 of the Revised Code. 1576

       (B) Political subdivisions that provide health care benefits 1577
for their officers or employees may do any of the following:1578

       (1) Establish and maintain an individual self-insurance 1579
program with public moneys to provide authorized health care 1580
benefits, including but not limited to, health care, prescription 1581
drugs, dental care, and vision care, in accordance with division 1582
(C) of this section;1583

       (2) Establish and maintain a health savings account program 1584
whereby employees or officers may establish and maintain health 1585
savings accounts in accordance with section 223 of the Internal 1586
Revenue Code. Public moneys may be used to pay for or fund 1587
federally qualified high deductible health plans that are linked 1588
to health savings accounts or to make contributions to health 1589
savings accounts. A health savings account program may be a part 1590
of a self-insurance program.1591

       (3) After establishing an individual self-insurance program, 1592
agree with other political subdivisions that have established 1593
individual self-insurance programs for health care benefits, that 1594
their programs will be jointly administered in a manner specified 1595
in the agreement;1596

       (4) Pursuant to a written agreement and in accordance with 1597
division (C) of this section, join in any combination with other 1598
political subdivisions to establish and maintain a joint 1599
self-insurance program to provide health care benefits;1600

       (5) Pursuant to a written agreement, join in any combination 1601
with other political subdivisions to procure or contract for 1602
policies, contracts, or plans of insurance to provide health care 1603
benefits, which may include a health savings account program for 1604
their officers and employees subject to the agreement;1605

       (6) Use in any combination any of the policies, contracts, 1606
plans, or programs authorized under this division.1607

       (7) Any agreement made under division (B)(3), (4), (5), or 1608
(6) of this section shall be in writing, comply with division (C) 1609
of this section, and contain best practices established in 1610
consultation with and approved by the department of administrative 1611
services. The best practices may be reviewed and amended at the 1612
discretion of the political subdivisions in consultation with the 1613
department. Detailed information regarding the best practices 1614
shall be made available to any employee upon that employee's 1615
request.1616

       (8) Purchase plans approvedcontaining best practices 1617
established by the department of administrative services under 1618
section 9.901 of the Revised Code.1619

       (C) Except as otherwise provided in division (E) of this 1620
section, the following apply to individual or joint self-insurance 1621
programs established pursuant to this section:1622

       (1) Such funds shall be reserved as are necessary, in the 1623
exercise of sound and prudent actuarial judgment, to cover 1624
potential cost of health care benefits for the officers and 1625
employees of the political subdivision. A certified audited 1626
financial statement and a report of aggregate amounts so reserved 1627
and aggregate disbursements made from such funds, together with a 1628
written report of a member of the American academy of actuaries 1629
certifying whether the amounts reserved conform to the 1630
requirements of this division, are computed in accordance with 1631
accepted loss reserving standards, and are fairly stated in 1632
accordance with sound loss reserving principles, shall be prepared 1633
and maintained, within ninety days after the last day of the 1634
fiscal year of the entity for which the report is provided for 1635
that fiscal year, in the office of the program administrator 1636
described in division (C)(3) of this section.1637

       The report required by division (C)(1) of this section shall 1638
include, but not be limited to, the aggregate of disbursements 1639
made for the administration of the program, including claims paid, 1640
costs of the legal representation of political subdivisions and 1641
employees, and fees paid to consultants. 1642

       The program administrator described in division (C)(3) of 1643
this section shall make the report required by this division 1644
available for inspection by any person at all reasonable times 1645
during regular business hours, and, upon the request of such 1646
person, shall make copies of the report available at cost within a 1647
reasonable period of time. The program administrator shall further 1648
provide the report to the auditor of state under Chapter 117. of 1649
the Revised Code. The report required by this division is in lieu 1650
of the records required by division (A) of section 149.431 of the 1651
Revised Code.1652

       (2) Each political subdivision shall reserve funds necessary 1653
for an individual or joint self-insurance program in a special 1654
fund that may be established for political subdivisions other than 1655
an agency or instrumentality pursuant to an ordinance or 1656
resolution of the political subdivision and not subject to section 1657
5705.12 of the Revised Code. An agency or instrumentality shall 1658
reserve the funds necessary for an individual or joint 1659
self-insurance program in a special fund established pursuant to a 1660
resolution duly adopted by the agency's or instrumentality's 1661
governing board. The political subdivision may allocate the costs 1662
of insurance or any self-insurance program, or both, among the 1663
funds or accounts established under this division on the basis of 1664
relative exposure and loss experience.1665

       (3) A contract may be awarded, without the necessity of 1666
competitive bidding, to any person, political subdivision, 1667
nonprofit corporation organized under Chapter 1702. of the Revised 1668
Code, or regional council of governments created under Chapter 1669
167. of the Revised Code for purposes of administration of an 1670
individual or joint self-insurance program. No such contract shall 1671
be entered into without full, prior, public disclosure of all 1672
terms and conditions. The disclosure shall include, at a minimum, 1673
a statement listing all representations made in connection with 1674
any possible savings and losses resulting from the contract, and 1675
potential liability of any political subdivision or employee. The 1676
proposed contract and statement shall be disclosed and presented 1677
at a meeting of the political subdivision not less than one week 1678
prior to the meeting at which the political subdivision authorizes 1679
the contract.1680

       A contract awarded to a nonprofit corporation or a regional 1681
council of governments under this division may provide that all 1682
employees of the nonprofit corporation or regional council of 1683
governments, the employees of all entities related to the 1684
nonprofit corporation or regional council of governments, and the 1685
employees of other nonprofit corporations that have fifty or fewer 1686
employees and have been organized for the primary purpose of 1687
representing the interests of political subdivisions, may be 1688
covered by the individual or joint self-insurance program under 1689
the terms and conditions set forth in the contract.1690

       (4) The individual or joint self-insurance program shall 1691
include a contract with a certified public accountant and a member 1692
of the American academy of actuaries for the preparation of the 1693
written evaluations required under division (C)(1) of this 1694
section.1695

       (5) A joint self-insurance program may allocate the costs of 1696
funding the program among the funds or accounts established under 1697
this division to the participating political subdivisions on the 1698
basis of their relative exposure and loss experience.1699

       (6) An individual self-insurance program may allocate the 1700
costs of funding the program among the funds or accounts 1701
established under this division to the political subdivision that 1702
established the program.1703

       (7) Two or more political subdivisions may also authorize the 1704
establishment and maintenance of a joint health care cost 1705
containment program, including, but not limited to, the employment 1706
of risk managers, health care cost containment specialists, and 1707
consultants, for the purpose of preventing and reducing health 1708
care costs covered by insurance, individual self-insurance, or 1709
joint self-insurance programs.1710

       (8) A political subdivision is not liable under a joint 1711
self-insurance program for any amount in excess of amounts payable 1712
pursuant to the written agreement for the participation of the 1713
political subdivision in the joint self-insurance program. Under a 1714
joint self-insurance program agreement, a political subdivision 1715
may, to the extent permitted under the written agreement, assume 1716
the risks of any other political subdivision. A joint 1717
self-insurance program established under this section is deemed a 1718
separate legal entity for the public purpose of enabling the 1719
members of the joint self-insurance program to obtain insurance or 1720
to provide for a formalized, jointly administered self-insurance 1721
fund for its members. An entity created pursuant to this section 1722
is exempt from all state and local taxes.1723

       (9) Any political subdivision, other than an agency or 1724
instrumentality, may issue general obligation bonds, or special 1725
obligation bonds that are not payable from real or personal 1726
property taxes, and may also issue notes in anticipation of such 1727
bonds, pursuant to an ordinance or resolution of its legislative 1728
authority or other governing body for the purpose of providing 1729
funds to pay expenses associated with the settlement of claims, 1730
whether by way of a reserve or otherwise, and to pay the political 1731
subdivision's portion of the cost of establishing and maintaining 1732
an individual or joint self-insurance program or to provide for 1733
the reserve in the special fund authorized by division (C)(2) of 1734
this section.1735

       In its ordinance or resolution authorizing bonds or notes 1736
under this section, a political subdivision may elect to issue 1737
such bonds or notes under the procedures set forth in Chapter 133. 1738
of the Revised Code. In the event of such an election, 1739
notwithstanding Chapter 133. of the Revised Code, the maturity of 1740
the bonds may be for any period authorized in the ordinance or 1741
resolution not exceeding twenty years, which period shall be the 1742
maximum maturity of the bonds for purposes of section 133.22 of 1743
the Revised Code.1744

       Bonds and notes issued under this section shall not be 1745
considered in calculating the net indebtedness of the political 1746
subdivision under sections 133.04, 133.05, 133.06, and 133.07 of 1747
the Revised Code. Sections 9.98 to 9.983 of the Revised Code are 1748
hereby made applicable to bonds or notes authorized under this 1749
section.1750

       (10) A joint self-insurance program is not an insurance 1751
company. Its operation does not constitute doing an insurance 1752
business and is not subject to the insurance laws of this state.1753

       (11) A joint self-insurance program shall pay the run-off 1754
expenses of a participating political subdivision that terminates 1755
its participation in the program if the political subdivision has 1756
accumulated funds in the reserves for incurred but not reported 1757
claims. The run-off payment, at minimum, shall be limited to an 1758
actuarially determined cap or sixty days, whichever is reached 1759
first.1760

       (D) A political subdivision may procure group life insurance 1761
for its employees in conjunction with an individual or joint 1762
self-insurance program authorized by this section, provided that 1763
the policy of group life insurance is not self-insured.1764

       (E) This section does not apply to individual self-insurance 1765
programs created solely by municipal corporations as defined in 1766
section 5705.01 of the Revised Code.1767

       (F) A public official or employee of a political subdivision 1768
who is or becomes a member of the governing body of the program 1769
administrator of a joint self-insurance program in which the 1770
political subdivision participates is not in violation of division 1771
(D) or (E) of section 102.03, division (C) of section 102.04, or 1772
section 2921.42 of the Revised Code as a result of either of the 1773
following:1774

       (1) The political subdivision's entering under this section 1775
into the written agreement to participate in the joint 1776
self-insurance program;1777

       (2) The political subdivision's entering under this section 1778
into any other contract with the joint self-insurance program.1779

       Sec. 9.90.  (A) The following applies until the department of 1780
administrative services implements healthcare plans designed under 1781
section 9.901 of the Revised Code. If those plans do not include 1782
or address any benefits listed in this section, or if the board of 1783
trustees or other governing body of a state institution of higher 1784
education, as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, 1785
board of education of a school district, or governing board of an 1786
educational service center do not elect to be covered under a plan 1787
offered by the department of administrative services under section 1788
9.901 of the Revised Code, the following provisions continue in 1789
effect for those benefits. The board of trustees or other 1790
governing body of a state institution of higher education, as 1791
defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, board of 1792
education of a school district, or governing board of an 1793
educational service center may, in addition to all other powers 1794
provided in the Revised Code:1795

       (1) Contract for, purchase, or otherwise procure from an 1796
insurer or insurers licensed to do business by the state of Ohio 1797
for or on behalf of such of its employees as it may determine, 1798
life insurance, or sickness, accident, annuity, endowment, health, 1799
medical, hospital, dental, or surgical coverage and benefits, or 1800
any combination thereof, by means of insurance plans or other 1801
types of coverage, family, group or otherwise, and may pay from 1802
funds under its control and available for such purpose all or any 1803
portion of the cost, premium, or charge for such insurance, 1804
coverage, or benefits. However, the governing board, in addition 1805
to or as an alternative to the authority otherwise granted by 1806
division (A)(1) of this section, may elect to procure coverage for 1807
health care services, for or on behalf of such of its employees as 1808
it may determine, by means of policies, contracts, certificates, 1809
or agreements issued by at least two health insuring corporations 1810
holding a certificate of authority under Chapter 1751. of the 1811
Revised Code and may pay from funds under the governing board's 1812
control and available for such purpose all or any portion of the 1813
cost of such coverage.1814

       (2) Make payments to a custodial account for investment in 1815
regulated investment company stock for the purpose of providing 1816
retirement benefits as described in section 403(b)(7) of the 1817
Internal Revenue Code of 1954, as amended. Such stock shall be 1818
purchased only from persons authorized to sell such stock in this 1819
state.1820

       Any income of an employee deferred under divisions (A)(1) and 1821
(2) of this section in a deferred compensation program eligible 1822
for favorable tax treatment under the Internal Revenue Code of 1823
1954, as amended, shall continue to be included as regular 1824
compensation for the purpose of computing the contributions to and 1825
benefits from the retirement system of such employee. Any sum so 1826
deferred shall not be included in the computation of any federal 1827
and state income taxes withheld on behalf of any such employee.1828

       (B) All or any portion of the cost, premium, or charge 1829
therefor may be paid in such other manner or combination of 1830
manners as the board or governing body may determine, including 1831
direct payment by the employee in cases under division (A)(1) of 1832
this section, and, if authorized in writing by the employee in 1833
cases under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section, by the board 1834
or governing body with moneys made available by deduction from or 1835
reduction in salary or wages or by the foregoing of a salary or 1836
wage increase. Nothing in section 3917.01 or section 3917.06 of 1837
the Revised Code shall prohibit the issuance or purchase of group 1838
life insurance authorized by this section by reason of payment of 1839
premiums therefor by the board or governing body from its funds, 1840
and such group life insurance may be so issued and purchased if 1841
otherwise consistent with the provisions of sections 3917.01 to 1842
3917.07 of the Revised Code.1843

       (C) The board of education of any school district may 1844
exercise any of the powers granted to the governing boards of 1845
public institutions of higher education under divisions (A) and 1846
(B) of this section. All health care benefits provided to persons 1847
employed by the public schools of this state shall be through 1848
health care plans that contain best practices established by the 1849
department of administrative services pursuant to section 9.901 of 1850
the Revised Code.1851

       (D) Once the department of administrative services releases 1852
in final form health care plans designed under section 9.901 of 1853
the Revised Code, all health care benefits provided to persons 1854
employed by state institutions of higher education, school 1855
districts, or educational service centers may be through those 1856
plans.1857

       Sec. 9.901.  (A)(1) All health care benefits provided to 1858
persons employed by the political subdivisions and public school 1859
districts ofemployers as defined by this statesection shall be 1860
provided by health care plans that contain best practices 1861
established pursuant to this section by the former school 1862
employees health care board or the department of administrative 1863
services. Twelve months after the release of best practices by 1864
the board allAll policies or contracts for health care benefits 1865
provided to public school district employees that are issued or 1866
renewed after the expiration of any applicable collective 1867
bargaining agreement must contain all best practices established 1868
pursuant to this section by the boardat the time of renewal. Any 1869
or all of the healthHealth care plans that contain the best 1870
practices specified by the board may be self-insured. 1871

       (2) Upon completion of the consultant's report under division 1872
(E) of this section and once the plans are released in final form 1873
by the department, all health care benefits provided to persons 1874
employed by political subdivisions, public school districts, and 1875
state institutions of higher education may be provided by health 1876
care plans designed under this section by the department. The 1877
department, in consultation with the superintendent of insurance, 1878
may negotiate with and, in accordance with the competitive 1879
selection procedures of Chapter 125. of the Revised Code, contract 1880
with one or more insurance companies authorized to do business in 1881
this state for the issuance of the plans. Any or all of the health 1882
care plans designed by the department may be self-insured. All 1883
self-insured plans adopted shall be administered by the department 1884
in accordance with this section. The plans shall incorporate the 1885
best practices adopted by the department under division (C)(3) of 1886
this sectionconsulting with the department of administrative 1887
services, a political subdivision may adopt a delivery system of 1888
benefits that is not in accordance with the department's adopted 1889
best practices if it is considered by the department to be most 1890
financially advantageous to the political subdivision.1891

       (3) Before soliciting proposals from insurance companies for 1892
the issuance of health care plans, the department, in consultation 1893
with the superintendent of insurance, shall determine what 1894
geographic regions exist in the state based on the availability of 1895
providers, networks, costs, and other factors relating to 1896
providing health care benefits. The department shall then 1897
determine what health care plans offered by political 1898
subdivisions, public school districts, state institutions, and 1899
existing consortiums in the region offer the most cost-effective 1900
plan.1901

       (4) The department, in consultation with the superintendent 1902
of insurance, shall develop a request for proposals and solicit 1903
bids for health care plans for political subdivisions, public 1904
school districts, and state institutions in a region similar to 1905
the existing plans. The department shall also determine the 1906
benefits offered by existing health care plans, the employees' 1907
costs, and the cost-sharing arrangements used by political 1908
subdivisions, schools, and institutions participating in a 1909
consortium. The department shall determine what strategies are 1910
used by the existing plans to manage health care costs and shall 1911
study the potential benefits of state or regional consortiums 1912
offering multiple health care plans. When options exist in a 1913
defined regional service area that meet the benchmarks or best 1914
practices prescribed by the department, public employees shall be 1915
given the option of selecting from two or more health plans.1916

       (5) No political subdivision, public school district, or 1917
state institution may be required to offer the health care plans 1918
designed under this section until action is taken under division 1919
(E) of this section.1920

       In addition, political subdivisions, public school districts, 1921
or state institutions offering employee health care benefits 1922
through a plan offered by a consortium of two or more political 1923
subdivisions, districts, or state institutions, or a consortium of 1924
one or more political subdivisions, districts, or state 1925
institutions and one or more other political subdivisions may 1926
continue offering consortium plans to the political subdivisions', 1927
districts', or institutions' employees if plans contain best 1928
practices required under this section.1929

       (6) As used in this section:1930

       (a) "Public employer" means political subdivisions, public 1931
school districts, or state institutions of higher education.1932

       (b) "Public school district" means a city, local, exempted 1933
village, or joint vocational school district; a STEM school 1934
established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code; or an 1935
educational service center. "Public school district" does not mean 1936
a community school established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised 1937
Code.1938

       (b)(c) "State institution of higher education" or "state 1939
institution" means a state institution of higher education as 1940
defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.1941

       (c)(d) "Political subdivision" has the same meaning as 1942
defined in section 9.833 of the Revised Code.1943

       (d)(e) A "health care plan" includes group policies, 1944
contracts, and agreements that provide hospital, surgical, or 1945
medical expense coverage, including self-insured plans. A "health 1946
care plan" does not include an individual plan offered to the 1947
employees of a political subdivision, public school district, or 1948
state institution, or a plan that provides coverage only for 1949
specific disease or accidents, or a hospital indemnity, medicare 1950
supplement, or other plan that provides only supplemental 1951
benefits, paid for by the employees of a political subdivision, 1952
public school district, or state institution.1953

       (e)(f) A "health plan sponsor" means a political subdivision, 1954
public school district, a state institution of higher education, a 1955
consortium of political subdivisions, public school districts, or 1956
state institutions, or a council of governments.1957

       (B)(4) The political subdivisions and public employees health 1958
care fund is hereby created in the state treasury. The department 1959
shall use all funds in the political subdivisions and public 1960
employees health care fund solely to carry out the provisions of 1961
this section and related administrative costs. 1962

       (C)(B) The department of administrative services shall do all 1963
of the following:1964

       (1) Include disease management and consumer education 1965
programs, which programs shall include, but are not limited to, 1966
wellness programs and other measures designed to encourage the 1967
wise use of medical plan coverage. These programs are not services 1968
or treatments for purposes of section 3901.71 of the Revised Code.1969

       (2) After action is taken under division (E) of this section, 1970
design health care plans for political subdivisions, public school 1971
districts, and state institutions of higher education in 1972
accordance with division (A) of this section separate from the 1973
plans for state agencies;1974

       (3) Adopt and release a set of standards that shall be 1975
considered the best practices for health care plans offered to 1976
employees of political subdivisions, public school districts, and 1977
state institutions.1978

       (4) Require that the plans the health plan sponsors 1979
administer make readily available to the public all cost and 1980
design elements of the plan;1981

       (5) Set employee and employer health care plan premiums for 1982
the plans designed under division (C)(2) of this section;1983

       (6) Promote cooperation among all organizations affected by 1984
this section in identifying the elements for the successful 1985
implementation of this section;1986

       (7) Promote cost containment measures aligned with patient, 1987
plan, and provider management strategies in developing and 1988
managing health care plans;1989

       (8) Prepare and disseminate to the public an annual report on 1990
the status of health plan sponsors' effectiveness in making 1991
progress to reduce the rate of increase in insurance premiums and 1992
employee out of pocket expenses, as well as progress in improving 1993
the health status of political subdivision, public school 1994
district, and state institution employees and their families.1995

       (D) The sections in Chapter 3923. of the Revised Code 1996
regulating public employee benefit plans are not applicable to the 1997
health care plans designed pursuant to this section.1998

        (E) Before the department's release of the initial health 1999
care plans, the department shall contract with an independent 2000
consultant to analyze costs related to employee health care 2001
benefits provided by existing political subdivision, public school 2002
district, and state institution plans. All political subdivisions 2003
shall provide information requested by the department that the 2004
department determines is needed to complete this study. The 2005
information requested shall be held confidentially by the 2006
department and shall not be considered a public record under 2007
Chapter 149. of the Revised Code. The department may release the 2008
information after redacting all personally identifiable 2009
information. The consultant shall determine the benefits offered 2010
by existing plans, the employees' costs, and the cost-sharing 2011
arrangements used by political subdivisions, schools, and 2012
institutions participating in a consortium. The consultant shall 2013
determine what strategies are used by the existing plans to manage 2014
health care costs and shall study the potential benefits of state 2015
or regional consortiums of political subdivisions, public schools, 2016
and institutions offering multiple health care plans. Based on the 2017
findings of the analysis, the consultant shall submit written 2018
recommendations to the department for the development and 2019
implementation of a successful program for pooling purchasing 2020
power for the acquisition of employee health care plans. The 2021
consultant's recommendations shall address, at a minimum, all of 2022
the following issues:2023

       (1) The development of a plan for regional coordination of 2024
the health care plans;2025

       (2) The establishment of regions for the provision of health 2026
care plans, based on the availability of providers and plans in 2027
the state at the time;2028

       (3) The viability of voluntary and mandatory participation by 2029
political subdivisions, public schools, and institutions of higher 2030
education;2031

       (4) The use of regional preferred provider and closed panel 2032
plans, health savings accounts, and alternative health care plans, 2033
to stabilize both costs and the premiums charged to political 2034
subdivisions, public school districts, and state institutions and 2035
their employees;2036

       (5) The use of the competitive bidding process for regional 2037
health care plans;2038

       (6) The use of information on claims and costs and of 2039
information reported by political subdivisions, public school 2040
districts, and state institutions pursuant to the Consolidated 2041
Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) 100 Stat. 227, 29 U.S.C. 2042
1161, as amended in analyzing administrative and premium costs;2043

       (7) The experience of states that have statewide health care 2044
plans for political subdivision, public school district, and state 2045
institution employees, including the implementation strategies 2046
used by those states;2047

       (8) Recommended strategies for the use of first-year roll-in 2048
premiums in the transition from political subdivision, district, 2049
and state institution health care plans to department plans;2050

       (9) The option of allowing political subdivisions, public 2051
school districts, and state institutions to join an existing 2052
regional consortium as an alternative to department plans;2053

       (10) Mandatory and optional coverages to be offered by the 2054
department's plans;2055

       (11) Potential risks to the state from the use of plans 2056
developed under this section;2057

       (12) Any legislation needed to ensure the long-term financial 2058
solvency and stability of a health care purchasing system;2059

       (13) The potential impacts of any changes to the existing 2060
purchasing structure on all of the following:2061

       (a) Existing health care pooling and consortiums;2062

       (b) Political subdivision, school district, and state 2063
institution employees;2064

       (c) Individual political subdivisions, school districts, and 2065
state institutions.2066

       (14) Issues that could arise when political subdivisions, 2067
school districts, and state institutions transition from the 2068
existing purchasing structure to a new purchasing structure;2069

       (15) Strategies available to the department in the creation 2070
of fund reserves and the need for stop-loss insurance coverage for 2071
catastrophic losses;2072

       (16) Impact on eliminating the premium tax or excise 2073
currently received on behalf of a public employer under division 2074
(A) of section 5725.18 and division (A) of 5729.03 of the Revised 2075
Code;2076

       (17) How development of the federal health exchange in Ohio 2077
may impact public employees;2078

       (18) Impact of joint health insurance regional program on 2079
insurance carriers and agents;2080

       (19) The benefits, including any cost savings to the state of 2081
establishing a benchmark for public employers to meet in lieu of 2082
establishing new plans administered by the department.2083

       (F) TheIdentify strategies to manage health care costs;2084

       (2) Study the potential benefits of state or regional 2085
consortiums of public employers' health care plans;2086

       (3) Publish information regarding the health care plans 2087
offered by political subdivisions, public school districts, state 2088
institutions, and existing consortiums;2089

       (4) Assist in the design of health care plans for political 2090
subdivisions, public school districts, and state institutions of 2091
higher education in accordance with division (A) of this section 2092
separate from the plans for state agencies;2093

       (5) Adopt and release a set of standards that shall be 2094
considered the best practices for health care plans offered to 2095
employees of political subdivisions, public school districts, and 2096
state institutions;2097

       (6) Require that plans the health plan sponsors administer 2098
make readily available to the public all cost and design elements 2099
of the plan;2100

       (7) Promote cooperation among all organizations affected by 2101
this section in identifying the elements for successful 2102
implementation of this section;2103

       (8) Promote cost containment measures aligned with patient, 2104
plan, and provider management strategies in developing and 2105
managing health care plans; and2106

       (9) Prepare and disseminate to the public an annual report on 2107
the status of health plan sponsors' effectiveness in complying 2108
with best practices and making progress to reduce the rate of 2109
increase in insurance premiums and employee out-of-pocket 2110
expenses, as well as progress in improving the health status of 2111
employees and their families. 2112

       (C) The director of administrative services may convene a2113
public health care advisory committee is hereby created under the 2114
department of administrative services. The committee shall make 2115
recommendations to the director of administrative services or the 2116
director's designee on the development and adoption of best 2117
practices under this section. The committee shall consist of 2118
fifteen members: five members appointed by the speaker of the 2119
house of representatives,; five members appointed by the president 2120
of the senate,; and five members appointed by the governor and 2121
shall include representatives from state and local government 2122
employers, state and local government employees, insurance agents, 2123
health insurance companies, and joint purchasing arrangements 2124
currently in existence. Nothing in this section prohibits a 2125
political subdivision from adopting a delivery system of benefits 2126
that is not in accordance with the department's adopted best 2127
practices if it is considered to be most financially advantageous 2128
to the political subdivision.Members shall serve without 2129
compensation.2130

       (G)(D) The department may adopt rules for the enforcement of 2131
health plan sponsors' compliance with the best practices standards 2132
adopted by the department pursuant to this section.2133

        (H)(E) Any health care plan providing coverage for the 2134
employees of political subdivisions, public school districts, or 2135
state institutions of higher education, or that have provided 2136
coverage within two years before the effective date of this 2137
amendment, shall provide nonidentifiable aggregate claims and 2138
administrative data for the coverage provided as required by the 2139
department, without charge, within thirty days after receiving a 2140
written request from the department. The claims data shall include 2141
data relating to employee group benefit sets, demographics, and 2142
claims experience.2143

       (I)(1)(F) The department may contractwork with other state 2144
agencies forto obtain services as the department deems necessary 2145
for the implementation and operation of this section, based on 2146
demonstrated experience and expertise in administration, 2147
management, data handling, actuarial studies, quality assurance, 2148
or for other needed services. 2149

       (2)(G) The department shall hire staff as necessary to 2150
provide administrative support to the department and the public 2151
employee health care plan program established by this section.2152

       (J) Not more than ninety days before coverage begins for 2153
political subdivision, public school district, and state 2154
institution employees under health care plans designed by the 2155
department, a political subdivision's governing body, public 2156
school district's board of education, and a state institution's 2157
board of trustees or managing authority shall provide detailed 2158
information about the health care plans to the employees.2159

       (K)(H) Nothing in this section shall be construed as 2160
prohibiting political subdivisions, public school districts, or 2161
state institutions from consulting with and compensating insurance 2162
agents and brokers for professional services or from establishing 2163
a self-insurance program.2164

       (L)(I) Pursuant to Chapter 117. of the Revised Code, the 2165
auditor of state shall conduct all necessary and required audits 2166
of the department. The auditor of state, upon request, also shall 2167
furnish to the department copies of audits of political 2168
subdivisions, public school districts, or consortia performed by 2169
the auditor of state.2170

       Sec. 101.39.  (A) There is hereby created the joint 2171
legislative committee on health care oversight. The committee may 2172
review or study any matter related to the provision of health care 2173
services that it considers of significance to the citizens of this 2174
state, including the availability of health care, the quality of 2175
health care, the effectiveness and efficiency of managed care 2176
systems, and the operation of the medical assistancemedicaid2177
program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code or 2178
other government health programs.2179

       The department of job and family servicesmedicaid, 2180
department of health, department of aging, department of mental 2181
healthmental health and addiction services, department of 2182
developmental disabilities, department of alcohol and drug 2183
addiction services, and other state agencies shall cooperate with 2184
the committee in its study and review of health care issues. On 2185
request, the departments shall provide the committee with reports 2186
and other information sufficient for the committee to fulfill its 2187
duties.2188

       The committee may issue recommendations as it determines 2189
appropriate. The recommendations may be made to the general 2190
assembly, state agencies, private industry, or any other entity.2191

       (B) The committee shall consist of the following members of 2192
the general assembly: the chairperson of the senate's standing 2193
committee with primary responsibility for health legislation, the 2194
chairperson of the house of representatives' standing committee 2195
with primary responsibility for health legislation, four members 2196
of the house of representatives appointed by the speaker of the 2197
house of representatives, and four members of the senate appointed 2198
by the president of the senate. Not more than two members 2199
appointed by the speaker of the house of representatives and not 2200
more than two members appointed by the president of the senate may 2201
be of the same political party. Except in 1995, appointments shall 2202
be made not later than fifteen days after the commencement of the 2203
first regular session of each general assembly. The chairpersons 2204
of the standing committees with primary responsibility for health 2205
legislation shall serve as co-chairpersons of the committee.2206

       Each member of the committee shall hold office during the 2207
general assembly in which the member is appointed and until a 2208
successor has been appointed, notwithstanding the adjournment sine 2209
die of the general assembly in which the member was appointed or 2210
the expiration of the member's term as a member of the general 2211
assembly. Any vacancies occurring among the members of the 2212
committee shall be filled in the manner of the original 2213
appointment.2214

       The committee shall meet at least quarterly and at the call 2215
of the co-chairpersons. The co-chairpersons shall determine the 2216
time, place, and agenda for each meeting of the committee.2217

       The committee has the same powers as other standing or select 2218
committees of the general assembly. The committee may request 2219
assistance from the legislative service commission.2220

       Sec. 101.391.  (A) There is hereby created the joint 2221
legislative committee on medicaid technology and reform. The 2222
committee may review or study any matter that it considers 2223
relevant to the operation of the medicaid program established 2224
under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code, with priority given to 2225
the study or review of mechanisms to enhance the program's 2226
effectiveness through improved technology systems and program 2227
reform.2228

       (B) The committee shall consist of five members of the house 2229
of representatives appointed by the speaker of the house of 2230
representatives and five members of the senate appointed by the 2231
president of the senate. Not more than three members appointed by 2232
the speaker of the house of representatives and not more than 2233
three members appointed by the president of the senate may be of 2234
the same political party.2235

       Each member of the committee shall hold office during the 2236
general assembly in which the member is appointed and until a 2237
successor has been appointed, notwithstanding the adjournment sine 2238
die of the general assembly in which the member was appointed or 2239
the expiration of the member's term as a member of the general 2240
assembly. Any vacancies occurring among the members of the 2241
committee shall be filled in the manner of the original 2242
appointment.2243

       (C) The committee has the same powers as other standing or 2244
select committees of the general assembly. The committee may 2245
employ an executive director.2246

       Sec. 101.392.  (A) As used in this section, "Affordable Care 2247
Act" means the federal "Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act 2248
of 2010," Pub. L. 111-148, 124 Stat. 119, as amended by the 2249
federal "Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act of 2010," 2250
Pub. L. 111-152, 124 Stat. 1029, and any amendments to those acts, 2251
or any regulations or guidance issued under those acts.2252

       (B)(1) There is hereby created the joint legislative 2253
committee on the Affordable Care Act. The committee may review or 2254
study any matter that it considers relevant to the operation and 2255
impact of the Affordable Care Act in this state.2256

       (2) The committee shall study and assess the impact of the 2257
Affordable Care Act on the income of students attending colleges 2258
and universities in this state who are employed by state 2259
institutions of higher education, as defined in section 3345.011 2260
of the Revised Code.2261

       (C) The committee shall consist of three members of the house 2262
of representatives appointed by the speaker of the house of 2263
representatives, and three members of the senate appointed by the 2264
president of the senate. Two members appointed by the speaker of 2265
the house of representatives shall be from the majority party and 2266
one member shall be from the minority party, and two members 2267
appointed by the president of the senate shall be from the 2268
majority party and one member shall be from the minority party.2269

       Each member of the committee shall hold office during the 2270
general assembly in which the member is appointed and until a 2271
successor has been appointed, notwithstanding the adjournment sine 2272
die of the general assembly in which the member was appointed or 2273
the expiration of the member's term as a member of the general 2274
assembly. Any vacancies occurring among the members of the 2275
committee shall be filled in the manner of the original 2276
appointment.2277

       (D) The committee has the same powers as other standing or 2278
select committees of the general assembly. The committee may 2279
request assistance from the legislative service commission.2280

       Sec. 102.02.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in division 2281
(H) of this section, all of the following shall file with the 2282
appropriate ethics commission the disclosure statement described 2283
in this division on a form prescribed by the appropriate 2284
commission: every person who is elected to or is a candidate for a 2285
state, county, or city office or an office of a township with a 2286
population of five thousand or more, as determined by the most 2287
recent federal decennial census, and every person who is appointed 2288
to fill a vacancy for an unexpired term in such an elective 2289
office; all members of the state board of education; the director, 2290
assistant directors, deputy directors, division chiefs, or persons 2291
of equivalent rank of any administrative department of the state; 2292
the president or other chief administrative officer of every state 2293
institution of higher education as defined in section 3345.011 of 2294
the Revised Code; the executive director and the members of the 2295
capitol square review and advisory board appointed or employed 2296
pursuant to section 105.41 of the Revised Code; all members of the 2297
Ohio casino control commission, the executive director of the 2298
commission, all professional employees of the commission, and all 2299
technical employees of the commission who perform an internal 2300
audit function; the individuals set forth in division (B)(2) of 2301
section 187.03 of the Revised Code; the chief executive officer 2302
and the members of the board of each state retirement system; each 2303
employee of a state retirement board who is a state retirement 2304
system investment officer licensed pursuant to section 1707.163 of 2305
the Revised Code; the members of the Ohio retirement study council 2306
appointed pursuant to division (C) of section 171.01 of the 2307
Revised Code; employees of the Ohio retirement study council, 2308
other than employees who perform purely administrative or clerical 2309
functions; the administrator of workers' compensation and each 2310
member of the bureau of workers' compensation board of directors; 2311
the bureau of workers' compensation director of investments; the 2312
chief investment officer of the bureau of workers' compensation; 2313
all members of the board of commissioners on grievances and 2314
discipline of the supreme court and the ethics commission created 2315
under section 102.05 of the Revised Code; every business manager, 2316
treasurer, or superintendent of a city, local, exempted village, 2317
joint vocational, or cooperative education school district or an 2318
educational service center; every person who is elected to or is a 2319
candidate for the office of member of a board of education of a 2320
city, local, exempted village, joint vocational, or cooperative 2321
education school district or of a governing board of an 2322
educational service center that has a total student count of 2323
twelve thousand or more as most recently determined by the 2324
department of education pursuant to section 3317.03 of the Revised 2325
Code; every person who is appointed to the board of education of a 2326
municipal school district pursuant to division (B) or (F) of 2327
section 3311.71 of the Revised Code; all members of the board of 2328
directors of a sanitary district that is established under Chapter 2329
6115. of the Revised Code and organized wholly for the purpose of 2330
providing a water supply for domestic, municipal, and public use, 2331
and that includes two municipal corporations in two counties; 2332
every public official or employee who is paid a salary or wage in 2333
accordance with schedule C of section 124.15 or schedule E-2 of 2334
section 124.152 of the Revised Code; members of the board of 2335
trustees and the executive director of the southern Ohio 2336
agricultural and community development foundation; all members 2337
appointed to the Ohio livestock care standards board under section 2338
904.02 of the Revised Code; and every other public official or 2339
employee who is designated by the appropriate ethics commission 2340
pursuant to division (B) of this section.2341

       The disclosure statement shall include all of the following:2342

       (1) The name of the person filing the statement and each 2343
member of the person's immediate family and all names under which 2344
the person or members of the person's immediate family do 2345
business;2346

       (2)(a) Subject to divisions (A)(2)(b) and (c) of this section 2347
and except as otherwise provided in section 102.022 of the Revised 2348
Code, identification of every source of income, other than income 2349
from a legislative agent identified in division (A)(2)(b) of this 2350
section, received during the preceding calendar year, in the 2351
person's own name or by any other person for the person's use or 2352
benefit, by the person filing the statement, and a brief 2353
description of the nature of the services for which the income was 2354
received. If the person filing the statement is a member of the 2355
general assembly, the statement shall identify the amount of every 2356
source of income received in accordance with the following ranges 2357
of amounts: zero or more, but less than one thousand dollars; one 2358
thousand dollars or more, but less than ten thousand dollars; ten 2359
thousand dollars or more, but less than twenty-five thousand 2360
dollars; twenty-five thousand dollars or more, but less than fifty 2361
thousand dollars; fifty thousand dollars or more, but less than 2362
one hundred thousand dollars; and one hundred thousand dollars or 2363
more. Division (A)(2)(a) of this section shall not be construed to 2364
require a person filing the statement who derives income from a 2365
business or profession to disclose the individual items of income 2366
that constitute the gross income of that business or profession, 2367
except for those individual items of income that are attributable 2368
to the person's or, if the income is shared with the person, the 2369
partner's, solicitation of services or goods or performance, 2370
arrangement, or facilitation of services or provision of goods on 2371
behalf of the business or profession of clients, including 2372
corporate clients, who are legislative agents. A person who files 2373
the statement under this section shall disclose the identity of 2374
and the amount of income received from a person who the public 2375
official or employee knows or has reason to know is doing or 2376
seeking to do business of any kind with the public official's or 2377
employee's agency.2378

       (b) If the person filing the statement is a member of the 2379
general assembly, the statement shall identify every source of 2380
income and the amount of that income that was received from a 2381
legislative agent during the preceding calendar year, in the 2382
person's own name or by any other person for the person's use or 2383
benefit, by the person filing the statement, and a brief 2384
description of the nature of the services for which the income was 2385
received. Division (A)(2)(b) of this section requires the 2386
disclosure of clients of attorneys or persons licensed under 2387
section 4732.12 of the Revised Code, or patients of persons 2388
certified under section 4731.14 of the Revised Code, if those 2389
clients or patients are legislative agents. Division (A)(2)(b) of 2390
this section requires a person filing the statement who derives 2391
income from a business or profession to disclose those individual 2392
items of income that constitute the gross income of that business 2393
or profession that are received from legislative agents.2394

       (c) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(2)(c) of 2395
this section, division (A)(2)(a) of this section applies to 2396
attorneys, physicians, and other persons who engage in the 2397
practice of a profession and who, pursuant to a section of the 2398
Revised Code, the common law of this state, a code of ethics 2399
applicable to the profession, or otherwise, generally are required 2400
not to reveal, disclose, or use confidences of clients, patients, 2401
or other recipients of professional services except under 2402
specified circumstances or generally are required to maintain 2403
those types of confidences as privileged communications except 2404
under specified circumstances. Division (A)(2)(a) of this section 2405
does not require an attorney, physician, or other professional 2406
subject to a confidentiality requirement as described in division 2407
(A)(2)(c) of this section to disclose the name, other identity, or 2408
address of a client, patient, or other recipient of professional 2409
services if the disclosure would threaten the client, patient, or 2410
other recipient of professional services, would reveal details of 2411
the subject matter for which legal, medical, or professional 2412
advice or other services were sought, or would reveal an otherwise 2413
privileged communication involving the client, patient, or other 2414
recipient of professional services. Division (A)(2)(a) of this 2415
section does not require an attorney, physician, or other 2416
professional subject to a confidentiality requirement as described 2417
in division (A)(2)(c) of this section to disclose in the brief 2418
description of the nature of services required by division 2419
(A)(2)(a) of this section any information pertaining to specific 2420
professional services rendered for a client, patient, or other 2421
recipient of professional services that would reveal details of 2422
the subject matter for which legal, medical, or professional 2423
advice was sought or would reveal an otherwise privileged 2424
communication involving the client, patient, or other recipient of 2425
professional services.2426

       (3) The name of every corporation on file with the secretary 2427
of state that is incorporated in this state or holds a certificate 2428
of compliance authorizing it to do business in this state, trust, 2429
business trust, partnership, or association that transacts 2430
business in this state in which the person filing the statement or 2431
any other person for the person's use and benefit had during the 2432
preceding calendar year an investment of over one thousand dollars 2433
at fair market value as of the thirty-first day of December of the 2434
preceding calendar year, or the date of disposition, whichever is 2435
earlier, or in which the person holds any office or has a 2436
fiduciary relationship, and a description of the nature of the 2437
investment, office, or relationship. Division (A)(3) of this 2438
section does not require disclosure of the name of any bank, 2439
savings and loan association, credit union, or building and loan 2440
association with which the person filing the statement has a 2441
deposit or a withdrawable share account.2442

       (4) All fee simple and leasehold interests to which the 2443
person filing the statement holds legal title to or a beneficial 2444
interest in real property located within the state, excluding the 2445
person's residence and property used primarily for personal 2446
recreation;2447

       (5) The names of all persons residing or transacting business 2448
in the state to whom the person filing the statement owes, in the 2449
person's own name or in the name of any other person, more than 2450
one thousand dollars. Division (A)(5) of this section shall not be 2451
construed to require the disclosure of debts owed by the person 2452
resulting from the ordinary conduct of a business or profession or 2453
debts on the person's residence or real property used primarily 2454
for personal recreation, except that the superintendent of 2455
financial institutions shall disclose the names of all 2456
state-chartered savings and loan associations and of all service 2457
corporations subject to regulation under division (E)(2) of 2458
section 1151.34 of the Revised Code to whom the superintendent in 2459
the superintendent's own name or in the name of any other person 2460
owes any money, and that the superintendent and any deputy 2461
superintendent of banks shall disclose the names of all 2462
state-chartered banks and all bank subsidiary corporations subject 2463
to regulation under section 1109.44 of the Revised Code to whom 2464
the superintendent or deputy superintendent owes any money.2465

       (6) The names of all persons residing or transacting business 2466
in the state, other than a depository excluded under division 2467
(A)(3) of this section, who owe more than one thousand dollars to 2468
the person filing the statement, either in the person's own name 2469
or to any person for the person's use or benefit. Division (A)(6) 2470
of this section shall not be construed to require the disclosure 2471
of clients of attorneys or persons licensed under section 4732.12 2472
or 4732.15 of the Revised Code, or patients of persons certified 2473
under section 4731.14 of the Revised Code, nor the disclosure of 2474
debts owed to the person resulting from the ordinary conduct of a 2475
business or profession.2476

       (7) Except as otherwise provided in section 102.022 of the 2477
Revised Code, the source of each gift of over seventy-five 2478
dollars, or of each gift of over twenty-five dollars received by a 2479
member of the general assembly from a legislative agent, received 2480
by the person in the person's own name or by any other person for 2481
the person's use or benefit during the preceding calendar year, 2482
except gifts received by will or by virtue of section 2105.06 of 2483
the Revised Code, or received from spouses, parents, grandparents, 2484
children, grandchildren, siblings, nephews, nieces, uncles, aunts, 2485
brothers-in-law, sisters-in-law, sons-in-law, daughters-in-law, 2486
fathers-in-law, mothers-in-law, or any person to whom the person 2487
filing the statement stands in loco parentis, or received by way 2488
of distribution from any inter vivos or testamentary trust 2489
established by a spouse or by an ancestor;2490

       (8) Except as otherwise provided in section 102.022 of the 2491
Revised Code, identification of the source and amount of every 2492
payment of expenses incurred for travel to destinations inside or 2493
outside this state that is received by the person in the person's 2494
own name or by any other person for the person's use or benefit 2495
and that is incurred in connection with the person's official 2496
duties, except for expenses for travel to meetings or conventions 2497
of a national or state organization to which any state agency, 2498
including, but not limited to, any legislative agency or state 2499
institution of higher education as defined in section 3345.011 of 2500
the Revised Code, pays membership dues, or any political 2501
subdivision or any office or agency of a political subdivision 2502
pays membership dues;2503

       (9) Except as otherwise provided in section 102.022 of the 2504
Revised Code, identification of the source of payment of expenses 2505
for meals and other food and beverages, other than for meals and 2506
other food and beverages provided at a meeting at which the person 2507
participated in a panel, seminar, or speaking engagement or at a 2508
meeting or convention of a national or state organization to which 2509
any state agency, including, but not limited to, any legislative 2510
agency or state institution of higher education as defined in 2511
section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, pays membership dues, or any 2512
political subdivision or any office or agency of a political 2513
subdivision pays membership dues, that are incurred in connection 2514
with the person's official duties and that exceed one hundred 2515
dollars aggregated per calendar year;2516

       (10) If the disclosure statement is filed by a public 2517
official or employee described in division (B)(2) of section 2518
101.73 of the Revised Code or division (B)(2) of section 121.63 of 2519
the Revised Code who receives a statement from a legislative 2520
agent, executive agency lobbyist, or employer that contains the 2521
information described in division (F)(2) of section 101.73 of the 2522
Revised Code or division (G)(2) of section 121.63 of the Revised 2523
Code, all of the nondisputed information contained in the 2524
statement delivered to that public official or employee by the 2525
legislative agent, executive agency lobbyist, or employer under 2526
division (F)(2) of section 101.73 or (G)(2) of section 121.63 of 2527
the Revised Code.2528

       A person may file a statement required by this section in 2529
person or, by mail, or by electronic means. A person who is a 2530
candidate for elective office shall file the statement no later 2531
than the thirtieth day before the primary, special, or general 2532
election at which the candidacy is to be voted on, whichever 2533
election occurs soonest, except that a person who is a write-in 2534
candidate shall file the statement no later than the twentieth day 2535
before the earliest election at which the person's candidacy is to 2536
be voted on. A person who holds elective office shall file the 2537
statement on or before the fifteenth day of April of each year 2538
unless the person is a candidate for office. A person who is 2539
appointed to fill a vacancy for an unexpired term in an elective 2540
office shall file the statement within fifteen days after the 2541
person qualifies for office. Other persons shall file an annual 2542
statement on or before the fifteenth day of April or, if appointed 2543
or employed after that date, within ninety days after appointment 2544
or employment. No person shall be required to file with the 2545
appropriate ethics commission more than one statement or pay more 2546
than one filing fee for any one calendar year.2547

       The appropriate ethics commission, for good cause, may extend 2548
for a reasonable time the deadline for filing a statement under 2549
this section.2550

       A statement filed under this section is subject to public 2551
inspection at locations designated by the appropriate ethics 2552
commission except as otherwise provided in this section.2553

       (B) The Ohio ethics commission, the joint legislative ethics 2554
committee, and the board of commissioners on grievances and 2555
discipline of the supreme court, using the rule-making procedures 2556
of Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, may require any class of 2557
public officials or employees under its jurisdiction and not 2558
specifically excluded by this section whose positions involve a 2559
substantial and material exercise of administrative discretion in 2560
the formulation of public policy, expenditure of public funds, 2561
enforcement of laws and rules of the state or a county or city, or 2562
the execution of other public trusts, to file an annual statement 2563
on or before the fifteenth day of April under division (A) of this 2564
section. The appropriate ethics commission shall send the public 2565
officials or employees written notice of the requirement by the 2566
fifteenth day of February of each year the filing is required 2567
unless the public official or employee is appointed after that 2568
date, in which case the notice shall be sent within thirty days 2569
after appointment, and the filing shall be made not later than 2570
ninety days after appointment.2571

       Except for disclosure statements filed by members of the 2572
board of trustees and the executive director of the southern Ohio 2573
agricultural and community development foundation, disclosure 2574
statements filed under this division with the Ohio ethics 2575
commission by members of boards, commissions, or bureaus of the 2576
state for which no compensation is received other than reasonable 2577
and necessary expenses shall be kept confidential. Disclosure 2578
statements filed with the Ohio ethics commission under division 2579
(A) of this section by business managers, treasurers, and 2580
superintendents of city, local, exempted village, joint 2581
vocational, or cooperative education school districts or 2582
educational service centers shall be kept confidential, except 2583
that any person conducting an audit of any such school district or 2584
educational service center pursuant to section 115.56 or Chapter 2585
117. of the Revised Code may examine the disclosure statement of 2586
any business manager, treasurer, or superintendent of that school 2587
district or educational service center. Disclosure statements 2588
filed with the Ohio ethics commission under division (A) of this 2589
section by the individuals set forth in division (B)(2) of section 2590
187.03 of the Revised Code shall be kept confidential. The Ohio 2591
ethics commission shall examine each disclosure statement required 2592
to be kept confidential to determine whether a potential conflict 2593
of interest exists for the person who filed the disclosure 2594
statement. A potential conflict of interest exists if the private 2595
interests of the person, as indicated by the person's disclosure 2596
statement, might interfere with the public interests the person is 2597
required to serve in the exercise of the person's authority and 2598
duties in the person's office or position of employment. If the 2599
commission determines that a potential conflict of interest 2600
exists, it shall notify the person who filed the disclosure 2601
statement and shall make the portions of the disclosure statement 2602
that indicate a potential conflict of interest subject to public 2603
inspection in the same manner as is provided for other disclosure 2604
statements. Any portion of the disclosure statement that the 2605
commission determines does not indicate a potential conflict of 2606
interest shall be kept confidential by the commission and shall 2607
not be made subject to public inspection, except as is necessary 2608
for the enforcement of Chapters 102. and 2921. of the Revised Code 2609
and except as otherwise provided in this division.2610

       (C) No person shall knowingly fail to file, on or before the 2611
applicable filing deadline established under this section, a 2612
statement that is required by this section.2613

       (D) No person shall knowingly file a false statement that is 2614
required to be filed under this section.2615

       (E)(1) Except as provided in divisions (E)(2) and (3) of this 2616
section, the statement required by division (A) or (B) of this 2617
section shall be accompanied by a filing fee of sixty dollars.2618

       (2) The statement required by division (A) of this section 2619
shall be accompanied by the following filing fee to be paid by the 2620
person who is elected or appointed to, or is a candidate for, any 2621
of the following offices:2622

For state office, except member of the 2623
state board of education $95 2624
For office of member of general assembly $40 2625
For county office $60 2626
For city office $35 2627
For township office $35 2628
For office of member of the state board 2629
of education $35 2630
For office of member of a city, local, 2631
exempted village, or cooperative 2632
education board of 2633
education or educational service 2634
center governing board $30 2635
For position of business manager, 2636
treasurer, or superintendent of a 2637
city, local, exempted village, joint 2638
vocational, or cooperative education 2639
school district or 2640
educational service center $30 2641

       (3) No judge of a court of record or candidate for judge of a 2642
court of record, and no referee or magistrate serving a court of 2643
record, shall be required to pay the fee required under division 2644
(E)(1) or (2) or (F) of this section.2645

       (4) For any public official who is appointed to a nonelective 2646
office of the state and for any employee who holds a nonelective 2647
position in a public agency of the state, the state agency that is 2648
the primary employer of the state official or employee shall pay 2649
the fee required under division (E)(1) or (F) of this section.2650

       (F) If a statement required to be filed under this section is 2651
not filed by the date on which it is required to be filed, the 2652
appropriate ethics commission shall assess the person required to 2653
file the statement a late filing fee of ten dollars for each day 2654
the statement is not filed, except that the total amount of the 2655
late filing fee shall not exceed two hundred fifty dollars.2656

       (G)(1) The appropriate ethics commission other than the Ohio 2657
ethics commission and the joint legislative ethics committee shall 2658
deposit all fees it receives under divisions (E) and (F) of this 2659
section into the general revenue fund of the state.2660

       (2) The Ohio ethics commission shall deposit all receipts, 2661
including, but not limited to, fees it receives under divisions 2662
(E) and (F) of this section, investigative or other fees, costs, 2663
or other funds it receives as a result of court orders, and all 2664
moneys it receives from settlements under division (G) of section 2665
102.06 of the Revised Code, into the Ohio ethics commission fund, 2666
which is hereby created in the state treasury. All moneys credited 2667
to the fund shall be used solely for expenses related to the 2668
operation and statutory functions of the commission.2669

       (3) The joint legislative ethics committee shall deposit all 2670
receipts it receives from the payment of financial disclosure 2671
statement filing fees under divisions (E) and (F) of this section 2672
into the joint legislative ethics committee investigative fund.2673

       (H) Division (A) of this section does not apply to a person 2674
elected or appointed to the office of precinct, ward, or district 2675
committee member under Chapter 3517. of the Revised Code; a 2676
presidential elector; a delegate to a national convention; village 2677
or township officials and employees; township officials of a 2678
township with a population of less than five thousand, as 2679
determined by the most recent decennial census; all township 2680
employees; any physician or psychiatrist who is paid a salary or 2681
wage in accordance with schedule C of section 124.15 or schedule 2682
E-2 of section 124.152 of the Revised Code and whose primary 2683
duties do not require the exercise of administrative discretion; 2684
or any member of a board, commission, or bureau of any county or 2685
city who receives less than one thousand dollars per year for 2686
serving in that position.2687

       Sec. 103.0521. If a rule currently in effect is obsolete 2688
because the rule was adopted by an agency that is no longer in 2689
existence and jurisdiction over the rule has not been transferred 2690
to another agency, and if that status is verified by the executive 2691
director of the joint committee on agency rule review, the 2692
executive director shall prepare, for consideration of the joint 2693
committee, a motion that the director of the legislative service 2694
commission remove the obsolete rule from the Administrative Code.2695

       The chairperson of the joint committee, or another member of 2696
the joint committee delegated by the chairperson, shall offer the 2697
motion at the next meeting of the joint committee. If the motion 2698
is agreed to by the joint committee, the executive director shall 2699
transmit a copy of the motion to the director of the legislative 2700
service commission. The executive director shall certify on the 2701
copy transmitted that the motion was agreed to by the joint 2702
committee.2703

       Upon receiving the certified motion, the director of the 2704
legislative service commission shall remove the obsolete rule from 2705
the Administrative Code as directed in the motion. The director 2706
thereafter shall maintain the removed obsolete rule in a file of 2707
obsolete rules. The file of obsolete rules may be maintained in 2708
electronic form.2709

       Sec. 103.144.  As used in sections 103.144 to 103.146 of the 2710
Revised Code:2711

       (A) "Mandated benefit" means the following, when considered 2712
in the context of a sickness and accident insurance policy or a 2713
health insuring corporation policy, contract, or agreement:2714

       (1) Any required coverage for a specific medical or 2715
health-related service, treatment, medication, or practice;2716

       (2) Any required coverage for the services of specific health 2717
care providers;2718

       (3) Any requirement that an insurer or health insuring 2719
corporation offer coverage to specific individuals or groups;2720

       (4) Any requirement that an insurer or health insuring 2721
corporation offer specific medical or health-related services, 2722
treatments, medications, or practices to existing insureds or 2723
enrollees;2724

       (5) Any required expansion of, or addition to, existing 2725
coverage;2726

       (6) Any mandated reimbursement amount to specific health care 2727
providers.2728

       (B) "Mandated benefit" does not include any required coverage 2729
or offer of coverage, any required expansion of, or addition to, 2730
existing coverage, or any mandated reimbursement amount to 2731
specific providers, as described in division (A) of this section, 2732
within the context of any public health benefits arrangement, 2733
including but not limited to, the coverage of beneficiaries 2734
enrolled in Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 2735
(1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended,medicare pursuant to a 2736
medicare risk contract or medicare cost contract, or to the 2737
coverage of beneficiaries enrolled in Title XIX of the "Social 2738
Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, 2739
known as the medical assistance program or medicaid, provided by 2740
the Ohio department of job and family services under Chapter 5111. 2741
of the Revised Code.2742

       Sec. 103.63.  There is established an Ohio constitutional 2743
modernization commission consisting of thirty-two members. Twelve 2744
members shall be appointed from the general assembly as follows: 2745
three by the president of the senate, three by the minority leader 2746
of the senate, three by the speaker of the house of 2747
representatives, and three by the minority leader of the house of 2748
representatives. Not later than January 1, 2012, and every two 2749
years thereafter, the twelve general assembly members shall meet, 2750
organize, and elect two co-chairpersons, who shall be from 2751
different political parties. Beginning in 2014, the twelve general 2752
assembly members shall elect one co-chairperson from each house of 2753
the general assembly. The members shall then, by majority vote, 2754
appoint twenty commission members, not from the general assembly. 2755
All appointments shall end on the first day of January of every 2756
even-numbered year, and the commission shall then be re-created in 2757
the manner provided above. Members may be reappointed. Vacancies 2758
on the commission shall be filled in the manner provided for 2759
original appointments.2760

       The members of the commission shall serve without 2761
compensation, but each member shall be reimbursed for actual and 2762
necessary expenses incurred while engaging in the performance of 2763
the member's official duties. Membership on the commission does 2764
not constitute holding another public office. The joint 2765
legislative ethics committee is the appropriate ethics commission 2766
as described in division (F) of section 102.01 of the Revised Code 2767
for matters relating to the public members appointed to the Ohio 2768
constitutional modernization commission.2769

       Sec. 103.83. State-issued payment cards used by the general 2770
assembly or any legislative agency of this state shall be subject 2771
to a single-item purchase limit of ten thousand dollars and the 2772
monthly spending limit imposed by the office of budget and 2773
management on all other payment cardholders. Payment on a card 2774
used by the general assembly or a legislative agency shall not be 2775
required earlier than thirty days after the date of a transaction.2776

       Sec. 107.033. As part of the state budget the governor 2777
submits to the general assembly under section 107.03 of the 2778
Revised Code, the governor shall include the state appropriation 2779
limitations the general assembly shall not exceed when making 2780
aggregate general revenue fund appropriations for each respective 2781
fiscal year of the biennium covered by that budget. The aggregate 2782
general revenue fund appropriations the governor proposes in the 2783
state budget also shall not exceed those limitations for each 2784
respective fiscal year of the biennium covered by that budget.2785

        (A) For fiscal year 2008, the state appropriation limitation 2786
is the sum of the following:2787

        (1) The aggregate general revenue fund appropriations for 2788
fiscal year 2007; plus2789

       (2) The aggregate general revenue fund appropriations for 2790
fiscal year 2007 multiplied by either three and one-half per cent, 2791
or the sum of the rate of inflation plus the rate of population 2792
change, whichever is greater.2793

       (B) For each fiscal year thereafter that is not a recast 2794
fiscal year, the state appropriation limitation is the sum of the 2795
following:2796

       (1) The state appropriation limitation for the previous 2797
fiscal year; plus2798

       (2) The state appropriation limitation for the previous 2799
fiscal year multiplied by either three and one-half per cent, or 2800
the sum of the rate of inflation plus the rate of population 2801
change, whichever is greater.2802

       (C) For each recast fiscal year, the state appropriation 2803
limitation is the sum of the following:2804

       (1) The aggregate general revenue fund appropriations for the 2805
previous fiscal year; plus2806

       (2) The aggregate general revenue fund appropriations for the 2807
previous fiscal year multiplied by either three and one-half per 2808
cent, or the sum of the rate of inflation plus the rate of 2809
population change, whichever is greater.2810

       (D) The state appropriation limitation for a fiscal year 2811
shall be increased by the amount of a nongeneral revenue fund 2812
appropriation made in the immediately preceding fiscal year, if 2813
all of the following apply to the nongeneral revenue fund 2814
appropriation:2815

       (1) It was made on or after July 1, 2013.2816

       (2) It is included in the aggregate general revenue fund 2817
appropriations proposed for that fiscal year.2818

       (3) It is being made for the first time from the general 2819
revenue fund.2820

       Sec. 107.12. (A) As used in this section, "organization" 2821
means a faith-based or other organization that is exempt from 2822
federal income taxation under section 501(c)(3) of the "Internal 2823
Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 1, as amended, 2824
and provides charitable services to needy residents of this state.2825

       (B) There is hereby established within the office of the 2826
governor the governor's office of faith-based and community 2827
initiatives. The office shall:2828

       (1) Serve as a clearinghouse of information on federal, 2829
state, and local funding for charitable services performed by 2830
organizations;2831

       (2) Encourage organizations to seek public funding for their 2832
charitable services;2833

       (3) Assist local, state, and federal agencies in coordinating 2834
their activities to secure maximum use of funds and efforts that 2835
benefit people receiving charitable services from organizations;2836

       (4) Advise the governor, general assembly, and the advisory 2837
board of the governor's office of faith-based and community 2838
initiatives on the barriers that exist to collaboration between 2839
organizations and governmental entities and on ways to remove the 2840
barriers.2841

       (C) The governor shall appoint an executive director and 2842
such other staff as may be necessary to manage the office and 2843
perform or oversee the performance of the duties of the office. 2844
Within sixty days after being appointed, and every twelve months 2845
thereafter, the executive director shall distribute to the 2846
advisory board and review with the board a strategic plan. The 2847
executive director shall report to the board at least quarterly on 2848
proposed initiatives and policies. A report shall include the 2849
condition of the budget and the finances of the office.2850

       (D)(1) There is hereby created the advisory board of the 2851
governor's office of faith-based and community initiatives. The 2852
board shall consist of the following members:2853

       (a) The directors of aging, alcohol and drug addiction 2854
services, rehabilitation and correction, health, job and family 2855
services, developmental disabilities, mental healthmental health 2856
and addiction services, and youth services, or their designees;2857

       (b) The speaker of the house of representatives shall appoint 2858
to the board two members of the house of representatives, not more 2859
than one of whom shall be from the same political party and at 2860
least one of whom shall be from the legislative black caucus. The 2861
president of the senate shall appoint to the board two members of 2862
the senate, not more than one of whom shall be from the same 2863
political party.2864

       (c) The governor, the speaker of the house of 2865
representatives, and the president of the senate shall each 2866
appoint to the board three representatives of the nonprofit, 2867
faith-based and other nonprofit community.2868

       (2) Terms of the office shall be one year. Any vacancy that 2869
occurs on the board shall be filled in the same manner as the 2870
original appointment. 2871

       (3) Members of the board are not entitled to compensation, 2872
but the members appointed by the governor, the speaker of the 2873
house of representatives, and the president of the senate who are 2874
representatives of the nonprofit, faith-based and other nonprofit 2875
community shall be reimbursed for their actual and necessary 2876
expenses that are incurred in relation to board meetings.2877

       (4) The board shall be presided over by a chairperson and a 2878
vice-chairperson, who shall be the members of the board who are 2879
also members of the house of representatives or the senate. 2880
Annually on the first day of January, the chairpersonship and 2881
vice-chairpersonship shall alternate between the members of the 2882
house of representatives and the senate.2883

       (E) The board shall have the following duties:2884

       (1) Provide direction, guidance, and oversight to the office;2885

       (2) Assist in the dissemination of information about, and in 2886
the stimulation of public awareness of, the service programs 2887
supported by the office;2888

       (3) Review the budget and finances of the office, proposed 2889
initiatives and policies, and the executive director's annual 2890
strategic plan at board meetings;2891

       (4) Provide feedback for and proposed modifications of the 2892
executive director's strategic plan. Within forty-five days after 2893
submitting a strategic plan, the executive director shall contact 2894
each advisory board member to obtain feedback. With the approval 2895
of the advisory board chairperson, the executive director shall 2896
lead a strategic plan discussion at the first board meeting 2897
following the distribution of the strategic plan.2898

       (5) Publish a report of its activities and accomplishments on 2899
or before the first day of August of each year, and deliver copies 2900
of the report to the governor, the speaker and minority leader of 2901
the house of representatives, and the president and minority 2902
leader of the senate.2903

       (F) No member of the board or organization that the member is 2904
affiliated or involved with is eligible to receive any grant that 2905
the office administers or assists in administering.2906

       Sec. 109.06.  Before entering upon the discharge of the 2907
duties of his office, the attorney general shall give a bond to 2908
the state in the sum of five thousand dollars, with two or more 2909
sureties approved by the governora surety authorized to do 2910
business in the state, conditioned for the faithful discharge of 2911
the duties of histhe office of attorney general. Such bond, with 2912
the approval of the governor and the oath of office indorsed 2913
thereon, shall be deposited with and kept by the secretary of 2914
state and kept in histhe secretary of state's office.2915

       The first assistant attorney general shall give a bond to the 2916
state in the sum of five thousand dollars, and such other 2917
employees as are designated by the attorney general shall give a 2918
bond to the state in such amounts as the attorney general 2919
determines. Such bonds shall be approved by the attorney general, 2920
conditioned for the faithful discharge of the duties of their 2921
offices, and shall be deposited with and kept by the secretary of 2922
state and kept in histhe secretary of state's office.2923

       Sec. 109.36.  As used in this section and sections 109.361 to 2924
109.366 of the Revised Code:2925

       (A)(1) "Officer or employee" means any of the following:2926

       (a) A person who, at the time a cause of action against the 2927
person arises, is serving in an elected or appointed office or 2928
position with the state or is employed by the state.2929

       (b) A person that, at the time a cause of action against the 2930
person, partnership, or corporation arises, is rendering medical, 2931
nursing, dental, podiatric, optometric, physical therapeutic, 2932
psychiatric, or psychological services pursuant to a personal 2933
services contract or purchased service contract with a department, 2934
agency, or institution of the state.2935

       (c) A person that, at the time a cause of action against the 2936
person, partnership, or corporation arises, is rendering peer 2937
review, utilization review, or drug utilization review services in 2938
relation to medical, nursing, dental, podiatric, optometric, 2939
physical therapeutic, psychiatric, or psychological services 2940
pursuant to a personal services contract or purchased service 2941
contract with a department, agency, or institution of the state.2942

       (d) A person who, at the time a cause of action against the 2943
person arises, is rendering medical, nursing, dental, podiatric, 2944
optometric, physical therapeutic, psychiatric, or psychological 2945
services to patients in a state institution operated by the 2946
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services2947
pursuant to an agreement with the department.2948

       (2) "Officer or employee" does not include any person 2949
elected, appointed, or employed by any political subdivision of 2950
the state.2951

       (B) "State" means the state of Ohio, including but not 2952
limited to, the general assembly, the supreme court, courts of 2953
appeals, the offices of all elected state officers, and all 2954
departments, boards, offices, commissions, agencies, institutions, 2955
and other instrumentalities of the state of Ohio. "State" does not 2956
include political subdivisions.2957

       (C) "Political subdivisions" of the state means municipal 2958
corporations, townships, counties, school districts, and all other 2959
bodies corporate and politic responsible for governmental 2960
activities only in geographical areas smaller than that of the 2961
state.2962

       (D) "Employer" means the general assembly, the supreme court, 2963
courts of appeals, any office of an elected state officer, or any 2964
department, board, office, commission, agency, institution, or 2965
other instrumentality of the state of Ohio that employs or 2966
contracts with an officer or employee or to which an officer or 2967
employee is elected or appointed.2968

       Sec. 109.57.  (A)(1) The superintendent of the bureau of 2969
criminal identification and investigation shall procure from 2970
wherever procurable and file for record photographs, pictures, 2971
descriptions, fingerprints, measurements, and other information 2972
that may be pertinent of all persons who have been convicted of 2973
committing within this state a felony, any crime constituting a 2974
misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent 2975
offenses, or any misdemeanor described in division (A)(1)(a), 2976
(A)(5)(a), or (A)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code, of 2977
all children under eighteen years of age who have been adjudicated 2978
delinquent children for committing within this state an act that 2979
would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by an 2980
adult or who have been convicted of or pleaded guilty to 2981
committing within this state a felony or an offense of violence, 2982
and of all well-known and habitual criminals. The person in charge 2983
of any county, multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or 2984
multicounty-municipal jail or workhouse, community-based 2985
correctional facility, halfway house, alternative residential 2986
facility, or state correctional institution and the person in 2987
charge of any state institution having custody of a person 2988
suspected of having committed a felony, any crime constituting a 2989
misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent 2990
offenses, or any misdemeanor described in division (A)(1)(a), 2991
(A)(5)(a), or (A)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code or 2992
having custody of a child under eighteen years of age with respect 2993
to whom there is probable cause to believe that the child may have 2994
committed an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence 2995
if committed by an adult shall furnish such material to the 2996
superintendent of the bureau. Fingerprints, photographs, or other 2997
descriptive information of a child who is under eighteen years of 2998
age, has not been arrested or otherwise taken into custody for 2999
committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence 3000
who is not in any other category of child specified in this 3001
division, if committed by an adult, has not been adjudicated a 3002
delinquent child for committing an act that would be a felony or 3003
an offense of violence if committed by an adult, has not been 3004
convicted of or pleaded guilty to committing a felony or an 3005
offense of violence, and is not a child with respect to whom there 3006
is probable cause to believe that the child may have committed an 3007
act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed 3008
by an adult shall not be procured by the superintendent or 3009
furnished by any person in charge of any county, multicounty, 3010
municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal jail or 3011
workhouse, community-based correctional facility, halfway house, 3012
alternative residential facility, or state correctional 3013
institution, except as authorized in section 2151.313 of the 3014
Revised Code. 3015

       (2) Every clerk of a court of record in this state, other 3016
than the supreme court or a court of appeals, shall send to the 3017
superintendent of the bureau a weekly report containing a summary 3018
of each case involving a felony, involving any crime constituting 3019
a misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent 3020
offenses, involving a misdemeanor described in division (A)(1)(a), 3021
(A)(5)(a), or (A)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code, or 3022
involving an adjudication in a case in which a child under 3023
eighteen years of age was alleged to be a delinquent child for 3024
committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence 3025
if committed by an adult. The clerk of the court of common pleas 3026
shall include in the report and summary the clerk sends under this 3027
division all information described in divisions (A)(2)(a) to (f) 3028
of this section regarding a case before the court of appeals that 3029
is served by that clerk. The summary shall be written on the 3030
standard forms furnished by the superintendent pursuant to 3031
division (B) of this section and shall include the following 3032
information: 3033

       (a) The incident tracking number contained on the standard 3034
forms furnished by the superintendent pursuant to division (B) of 3035
this section; 3036

       (b) The style and number of the case; 3037

       (c) The date of arrest, offense, summons, or arraignment; 3038

       (d) The date that the person was convicted of or pleaded 3039
guilty to the offense, adjudicated a delinquent child for 3040
committing the act that would be a felony or an offense of 3041
violence if committed by an adult, found not guilty of the 3042
offense, or found not to be a delinquent child for committing an 3043
act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed 3044
by an adult, the date of an entry dismissing the charge, an entry 3045
declaring a mistrial of the offense in which the person is 3046
discharged, an entry finding that the person or child is not 3047
competent to stand trial, or an entry of a nolle prosequi, or the 3048
date of any other determination that constitutes final resolution 3049
of the case; 3050

       (e) A statement of the original charge with the section of 3051
the Revised Code that was alleged to be violated; 3052

       (f) If the person or child was convicted, pleaded guilty, or 3053
was adjudicated a delinquent child, the sentence or terms of 3054
probation imposed or any other disposition of the offender or the 3055
delinquent child. 3056

       If the offense involved the disarming of a law enforcement 3057
officer or an attempt to disarm a law enforcement officer, the 3058
clerk shall clearly state that fact in the summary, and the 3059
superintendent shall ensure that a clear statement of that fact is 3060
placed in the bureau's records. 3061

       (3) The superintendent shall cooperate with and assist 3062
sheriffs, chiefs of police, and other law enforcement officers in 3063
the establishment of a complete system of criminal identification 3064
and in obtaining fingerprints and other means of identification of 3065
all persons arrested on a charge of a felony, any crime 3066
constituting a misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on 3067
subsequent offenses, or a misdemeanor described in division 3068
(A)(1)(a), (A)(5)(a), or (A)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of the 3069
Revised Code and of all children under eighteen years of age 3070
arrested or otherwise taken into custody for committing an act 3071
that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by 3072
an adult. The superintendent also shall file for record the 3073
fingerprint impressions of all persons confined in a county, 3074
multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal 3075
jail or workhouse, community-based correctional facility, halfway 3076
house, alternative residential facility, or state correctional 3077
institution for the violation of state laws and of all children 3078
under eighteen years of age who are confined in a county, 3079
multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal 3080
jail or workhouse, community-based correctional facility, halfway 3081
house, alternative residential facility, or state correctional 3082
institution or in any facility for delinquent children for 3083
committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence 3084
if committed by an adult, and any other information that the 3085
superintendent may receive from law enforcement officials of the 3086
state and its political subdivisions. 3087

       (4) The superintendent shall carry out Chapter 2950. of the 3088
Revised Code with respect to the registration of persons who are 3089
convicted of or plead guilty to a sexually oriented offense or a 3090
child-victim oriented offense and with respect to all other duties 3091
imposed on the bureau under that chapter. 3092

       (5) The bureau shall perform centralized recordkeeping 3093
functions for criminal history records and services in this state 3094
for purposes of the national crime prevention and privacy compact 3095
set forth in section 109.571 of the Revised Code and is the 3096
criminal history record repository as defined in that section for 3097
purposes of that compact. The superintendent or the 3098
superintendent's designee is the compact officer for purposes of 3099
that compact and shall carry out the responsibilities of the 3100
compact officer specified in that compact. 3101

       (B) The superintendent shall prepare and furnish to every 3102
county, multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or 3103
multicounty-municipal jail or workhouse, community-based 3104
correctional facility, halfway house, alternative residential 3105
facility, or state correctional institution and to every clerk of 3106
a court in this state specified in division (A)(2) of this section 3107
standard forms for reporting the information required under 3108
division (A) of this section. The standard forms that the 3109
superintendent prepares pursuant to this division may be in a 3110
tangible format, in an electronic format, or in both tangible 3111
formats and electronic formats. 3112

       (C)(1) The superintendent may operate a center for 3113
electronic, automated, or other data processing for the storage 3114
and retrieval of information, data, and statistics pertaining to 3115
criminals and to children under eighteen years of age who are 3116
adjudicated delinquent children for committing an act that would 3117
be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by an adult, 3118
criminal activity, crime prevention, law enforcement, and criminal 3119
justice, and may establish and operate a statewide communications 3120
network to be known as the Ohio law enforcement gateway to gather 3121
and disseminate information, data, and statistics for the use of 3122
law enforcement agencies and for other uses specified in this 3123
division. The superintendent may gather, store, retrieve, and 3124
disseminate information, data, and statistics that pertain to 3125
children who are under eighteen years of age and that are gathered 3126
pursuant to sections 109.57 to 109.61 of the Revised Code together 3127
with information, data, and statistics that pertain to adults and 3128
that are gathered pursuant to those sections. 3129

       (2) The superintendent or the superintendent's designee shall 3130
gather information of the nature described in division (C)(1) of 3131
this section that pertains to the offense and delinquency history 3132
of a person who has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been 3133
adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a sexually oriented 3134
offense or a child-victim oriented offense for inclusion in the 3135
state registry of sex offenders and child-victim offenders 3136
maintained pursuant to division (A)(1) of section 2950.13 of the 3137
Revised Code and in the internet database operated pursuant to 3138
division (A)(13) of that section and for possible inclusion in the 3139
internet database operated pursuant to division (A)(11) of that 3140
section. 3141

        (3) In addition to any other authorized use of information, 3142
data, and statistics of the nature described in division (C)(1) of 3143
this section, the superintendent or the superintendent's designee 3144
may provide and exchange the information, data, and statistics 3145
pursuant to the national crime prevention and privacy compact as 3146
described in division (A)(5) of this section. 3147

       (4) The attorney general may adopt rules under Chapter 119. 3148
of the Revised Code establishing guidelines for the operation of 3149
and participation in the Ohio law enforcement gateway. The rules 3150
may include criteria for granting and restricting access to 3151
information gathered and disseminated through the Ohio law 3152
enforcement gateway. The attorney general shall permit the state 3153
medical board and board of nursing to access and view, but not 3154
alter, information gathered and disseminated through the Ohio law 3155
enforcement gateway.3156

       The attorney general may appoint a steering committee to 3157
advise the attorney general in the operation of the Ohio law 3158
enforcement gateway that is comprised of persons who are 3159
representatives of the criminal justice agencies in this state 3160
that use the Ohio law enforcement gateway and is chaired by the 3161
superintendent or the superintendent's designee.3162

       (D)(1) The following are not public records under section 3163
149.43 of the Revised Code:3164

       (a) Information and materials furnished to the superintendent 3165
pursuant to division (A) of this section;3166

       (b) Information, data, and statistics gathered or 3167
disseminated through the Ohio law enforcement gateway pursuant to 3168
division (C)(1) of this section;3169

       (c) Information and materials furnished to any board or 3170
person under division (F) or (G) of this section.3171

       (2) The superintendent or the superintendent's designee shall 3172
gather and retain information so furnished under division (A) of 3173
this section that pertains to the offense and delinquency history 3174
of a person who has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been 3175
adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a sexually oriented 3176
offense or a child-victim oriented offense for the purposes 3177
described in division (C)(2) of this section. 3178

       (E)(1) The attorney general shall adopt rules, in accordance 3179
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and subject to division 3180
(E)(2) of this section, setting forth the procedure by which a 3181
person may receive or release information gathered by the 3182
superintendent pursuant to division (A) of this section. A 3183
reasonable fee may be charged for this service. If a temporary 3184
employment service submits a request for a determination of 3185
whether a person the service plans to refer to an employment 3186
position has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense 3187
listed or described in division (A)(1), (2), or (3) of section 3188
109.572 of the Revised Code, the request shall be treated as a 3189
single request and only one fee shall be charged. 3190

       (2) Except as otherwise provided in this division, a rule 3191
adopted under division (E)(1) of this section may provide only for 3192
the release of information gathered pursuant to division (A) of 3193
this section that relates to the conviction of a person, or a 3194
person's plea of guilty to, a criminal offense. The superintendent 3195
shall not release, and the attorney general shall not adopt any 3196
rule under division (E)(1) of this section that permits the 3197
release of, any information gathered pursuant to division (A) of 3198
this section that relates to an adjudication of a child as a 3199
delinquent child, or that relates to a criminal conviction of a 3200
person under eighteen years of age if the person's case was 3201
transferred back to a juvenile court under division (B)(2) or (3) 3202
of section 2152.121 of the Revised Code and the juvenile court 3203
imposed a disposition or serious youthful offender disposition 3204
upon the person under either division, unless either of the 3205
following applies with respect to the adjudication or conviction:3206

       (a) The adjudication or conviction was for a violation of 3207
section 2903.01 or 2903.02 of the Revised Code.3208

       (b) The adjudication or conviction was for a sexually 3209
oriented offense, the juvenile court was required to classify the 3210
child a juvenile offender registrant for that offense under 3211
section 2152.82, 2152.83, or 2152.86 of the Revised Code, and that 3212
classification has not been removed.3213

       (F)(1) As used in division (F)(2) of this section, "head 3214
start agency" means an entity in this state that has been approved 3215
to be an agency for purposes of subchapter II of the "Community 3216
Economic Development Act," 95 Stat. 489 (1981), 42 U.S.C.A. 9831, 3217
as amended. 3218

       (2)(a) In addition to or in conjunction with any request that 3219
is required to be made under section 109.572, 2151.86, 3301.32, 3220
3301.541, division (C) of section 3310.58, or section 3319.39, 3221
3319.391, 3327.10, 3701.881, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5123.081, or 3222
5153.111 of the Revised Code or that is made under section 3223
3314.41, 3319.392, 3326.25, or 3328.20 of the Revised Code, the 3224
board of education of any school district; the director of 3225
developmental disabilities; any county board of developmental 3226
disabilities; any provider or subcontractor as defined in section 3227
5123.081 of the Revised Code; the chief administrator of any 3228
chartered nonpublic school; the chief administrator of a 3229
registered private provider that is not also a chartered nonpublic 3230
school; the chief administrator of any home health agency; the 3231
chief administrator of or person operating any child day-care 3232
center, type A family day-care home, or type B family day-care 3233
home licensed or certified under Chapter 5104. of the Revised 3234
Code; the administrator of any type C family day-care home 3235
certified pursuant to Section 1 of Sub. H.B. 62 of the 121st 3236
general assembly or Section 5 of Am. Sub. S.B. 160 of the 121st 3237
general assembly; the chief administrator of any head start 3238
agency; the executive director of a public children services 3239
agency; a private company described in section 3314.41, 3319.392, 3240
3326.25, or 3328.20 of the Revised Code; or an employer described 3241
in division (J)(2) of section 3327.10 of the Revised Code may 3242
request that the superintendent of the bureau investigate and 3243
determine, with respect to any individual who has applied for 3244
employment in any position after October 2, 1989, or any 3245
individual wishing to apply for employment with a board of 3246
education may request, with regard to the individual, whether the 3247
bureau has any information gathered under division (A) of this 3248
section that pertains to that individual. On receipt of the 3249
request, subject to division (E)(2) of this section, the 3250
superintendent shall determine whether that information exists 3251
and, upon request of the person, board, or entity requesting 3252
information, also shall request from the federal bureau of 3253
investigation any criminal records it has pertaining to that 3254
individual. The superintendent or the superintendent's designee 3255
also may request criminal history records from other states or the 3256
federal government pursuant to the national crime prevention and 3257
privacy compact set forth in section 109.571 of the Revised Code. 3258
Within thirty days of the date that the superintendent receives a 3259
request, subject to division (E)(2) of this section, the 3260
superintendent shall send to the board, entity, or person a report 3261
of any information that the superintendent determines exists, 3262
including information contained in records that have been sealed 3263
under section 2953.32 of the Revised Code, and, within thirty days 3264
of its receipt, subject to division (E)(2) of this section, shall 3265
send the board, entity, or person a report of any information 3266
received from the federal bureau of investigation, other than 3267
information the dissemination of which is prohibited by federal 3268
law. 3269

       (b) When a board of education or a registered private 3270
provider is required to receive information under this section as 3271
a prerequisite to employment of an individual pursuant to division 3272
(C) of section 3310.58 or section 3319.39 of the Revised Code, it 3273
may accept a certified copy of records that were issued by the 3274
bureau of criminal identification and investigation and that are 3275
presented by an individual applying for employment with the 3276
district in lieu of requesting that information itself. In such a 3277
case, the board shall accept the certified copy issued by the 3278
bureau in order to make a photocopy of it for that individual's 3279
employment application documents and shall return the certified 3280
copy to the individual. In a case of that nature, a district or 3281
provider only shall accept a certified copy of records of that 3282
nature within one year after the date of their issuance by the 3283
bureau. 3284

       (c) Notwithstanding division (F)(2)(a) of this section, in 3285
the case of a request under section 3319.39, 3319.391, or 3327.10 3286
of the Revised Code only for criminal records maintained by the 3287
federal bureau of investigation, the superintendent shall not 3288
determine whether any information gathered under division (A) of 3289
this section exists on the person for whom the request is made.3290

       (3) The state board of education may request, with respect to 3291
any individual who has applied for employment after October 2, 3292
1989, in any position with the state board or the department of 3293
education, any information that a school district board of 3294
education is authorized to request under division (F)(2) of this 3295
section, and the superintendent of the bureau shall proceed as if 3296
the request has been received from a school district board of 3297
education under division (F)(2) of this section. 3298

       (4) When the superintendent of the bureau receives a request 3299
for information under section 3319.291 of the Revised Code, the 3300
superintendent shall proceed as if the request has been received 3301
from a school district board of education and shall comply with 3302
divisions (F)(2)(a) and (c) of this section. 3303

       (5) When a recipient of a classroom reading improvement grant 3304
paid under section 3301.86 of the Revised Code requests, with 3305
respect to any individual who applies to participate in providing 3306
any program or service funded in whole or in part by the grant, 3307
the information that a school district board of education is 3308
authorized to request under division (F)(2)(a) of this section, 3309
the superintendent of the bureau shall proceed as if the request 3310
has been received from a school district board of education under 3311
division (F)(2)(a) of this section. 3312

       (G) In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is 3313
required to be made under section 3701.881, 3712.09, or 3721.121 3314
of the Revised Code with respect to an individual who has applied 3315
for employment in a position that involves providing direct care 3316
to an older adult or adult resident, the chief administrator of a 3317
home health agency, hospice care program, home licensed under 3318
Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, or adult day-care program 3319
operated pursuant to rules adopted under section 3721.04 of the 3320
Revised Code may request that the superintendent of the bureau 3321
investigate and determine, with respect to any individual who has 3322
applied after January 27, 1997, for employment in a position that 3323
does not involve providing direct care to an older adult or adult 3324
resident, whether the bureau has any information gathered under 3325
division (A) of this section that pertains to that individual. 3326

       In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is 3327
required to be made under section 173.27 of the Revised Code with 3328
respect to an individual who has applied for employment in a 3329
position that involves providing ombudspersonombudsman services 3330
to residents of long-term care facilities or recipients of 3331
community-based long-term care services, the state long-term care 3332
ombudspersonombudsman, ombudsperson's designee, orthe director 3333
of healthaging, a regional long-term care ombudsman, or the 3334
designee of the ombudsman, director, or program may request that 3335
the superintendent investigate and determine, with respect to any 3336
individual who has applied for employment in a position that does 3337
not involve providing such ombudspersonombudsman services, 3338
whether the bureau has any information gathered under division (A) 3339
of this section that pertains to that applicant. 3340

       In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is 3341
required to be made under section 173.394173.38 of the Revised 3342
Code with respect to an individual who has applied for employment 3343
in a direct-care position that involves providing direct care to 3344
an individual, the chief administrator of a community-based 3345
long-term care agencyprovider, as defined in section 173.39 of 3346
the Revised Code, may request that the superintendent investigate 3347
and determine, with respect to any individual who has applied for 3348
employment in a position that doesis not involve providing direct 3349
carea direct-care position, whether the bureau has any 3350
information gathered under division (A) of this section that 3351
pertains to that applicant. 3352

        In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is 3353
required to be made under section 3712.09 of the Revised Code with 3354
respect to an individual who has applied for employment in a 3355
position that involves providing direct care to a pediatric 3356
respite care patient, the chief administrator of a pediatric 3357
respite care program may request that the superintendent of the 3358
bureau investigate and determine, with respect to any individual 3359
who has applied for employment in a position that does not involve 3360
providing direct care to a pediatric respite care patient, whether 3361
the bureau has any information gathered under division (A) of this 3362
section that pertains to that individual.3363

       On receipt of a request under this division, the 3364
superintendent shall determine whether that information exists 3365
and, on request of the individual requesting information, shall 3366
also request from the federal bureau of investigation any criminal 3367
records it has pertaining to the applicant. The superintendent or 3368
the superintendent's designee also may request criminal history 3369
records from other states or the federal government pursuant to 3370
the national crime prevention and privacy compact set forth in 3371
section 109.571 of the Revised Code. Within thirty days of the 3372
date a request is received, subject to division (E)(2) of this 3373
section, the superintendent shall send to the requester a report 3374
of any information determined to exist, including information 3375
contained in records that have been sealed under section 2953.32 3376
of the Revised Code, and, within thirty days of its receipt, shall 3377
send the requester a report of any information received from the 3378
federal bureau of investigation, other than information the 3379
dissemination of which is prohibited by federal law. 3380

       (H) Information obtained by a government entity or person 3381
under this section is confidential and shall not be released or 3382
disseminated. 3383

       (I) The superintendent may charge a reasonable fee for 3384
providing information or criminal records under division (F)(2) or 3385
(G) of this section. 3386

       (J) As used in this section:3387

       (1) "Pediatric respite care program" and "pediatric respite 3388
care patient" have the same meanings as in section 3712.01 of the 3389
Revised Code.3390

       (2) "Sexually oriented offense" and "child-victim oriented 3391
offense" have the same meanings as in section 2950.01 of the 3392
Revised Code.3393

       (3) "Registered private provider" means a nonpublic school or 3394
entity registered with the superintendent of public instruction 3395
under section 3310.41 of the Revised Code to participate in the 3396
autism scholarship program or section 3310.58 of the Revised Code 3397
to participate in the Jon Peterson special needs scholarship 3398
program.3399

       Sec. 109.572. (A)(1) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to 3400
section 121.08, 3301.32, 3301.541, or 3319.39 of the Revised Code, 3401
a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this 3402
section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the 3403
manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the 3404
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 3405
investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner 3406
described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any 3407
information exists that indicates that the person who is the 3408
subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded 3409
guilty to any of the following:3410

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 3411
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 3412
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 3413
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 3414
2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 3415
2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 3416
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 3417
2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual 3418
penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised 3419
Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it 3420
existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of 3421
the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 3422
2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, 3423
had the violation been committed prior to that date, or a 3424
violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a 3425
minor drug possession offense;3426

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 3427
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 3428
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(1)(a) of 3429
this section;3430

       (c) If the request is made pursuant to section 3319.39 of the 3431
Revised Code for an applicant who is a teacher, any offense 3432
specified in section 3319.31 of the Revised Code.3433

       (2) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 3712.09 or 3434
3721.121 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant 3435
to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint 3436
impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of 3437
this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 3438
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records 3439
check with respect to any person who has applied for employment in 3440
a position for which a criminal records check is required by those 3441
sections. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records 3442
check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to 3443
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 3444
person who is the subject of the request previously has been 3445
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:3446

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 3447
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 3448
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 3449
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 3450
2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 3451
2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 3452
2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 3453
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 3454
2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;3455

       (b) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, 3456
or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of 3457
the offenses listed in division (A)(2)(a) of this section.3458

       (3) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 173.27, 3459
173.394173.38, 3701.881, 5111.0325164.34, 5111.0335164.341, 3460
5111.0345164.342, 5123.081, or 5123.169 of the Revised Code, a 3461
completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this 3462
section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the 3463
manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the 3464
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 3465
investigation shall conduct a criminal records check of the person 3466
for whom the request is made. The superintendent shall conduct the 3467
criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of 3468
this section to determine whether any information exists that 3469
indicates that the person who is the subject of the request 3470
previously has been convicted of, has pleaded guilty to, or 3471
(except in the case of a request pursuant to section 5164.34, 3472
5164.341, or 5164.342 of the Revised Code) has been found eligible 3473
for intervention in lieu of conviction for any of the following, 3474
regardless of the date of the conviction, the date of entry of the 3475
guilty plea, or (except in the case of a request pursuant to 3476
section 5164.34, 5164.341, or 5164.342 of the Revised Code) the 3477
date the person was found eligible for intervention in lieu of 3478
conviction:3479

       (a) A violation of section 959.13, 959.131, 2903.01, 2903.02, 3480
2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 3481
2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2903.341, 2905.01, 3482
2905.02, 2905.05, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2905.32, 2905.33, 2907.02, 3483
2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 3484
2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.24, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 3485
2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2907.33, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.04, 3486
2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 3487
2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.05, 2913.11, 2913.21, 3488
2913.31, 2913.32, 2913.40, 2913.41, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 3489
2913.441, 2913.45, 2913.46, 2913.47, 2913.48, 2913.49, 2913.51, 3490
2917.01, 2917.02, 2917.03, 2917.31, 2919.12, 2919.121, 2919.123, 3491
2919.22, 2919.23, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.03, 2921.11, 2921.12, 3492
2921.13, 2921.21, 2921.24, 2921.32, 2921.321, 2921.34, 2921.35, 3493
2921.36, 2921.51, 2923.12, 2923.122, 2923.123, 2923.13, 2923.161, 3494
2923.162, 2923.21, 2923.32, 2923.42, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 3495
2925.041, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.09, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.14, 3496
2925.141, 2925.22, 2925.23, 2925.24, 2925.36, 2925.55, 2925.56, 3497
2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;3498

       (b) Felonious sexual penetration in violation of former 3499
section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;3500

       (c) A violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it 3501
existed prior to July 1, 1996;3502

       (d) A violation of section 2923.01, 2923.02, or 2923.03 of 3503
the Revised Code when the underlying offense that is the object of 3504
the conspiracy, attempt, or complicity is one of the offenses 3505
listed in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (c) of this section;3506

       (e) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance 3507
or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that 3508
is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in 3509
divisions (A)(3)(a) to (d) of this section.3510

       (4) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 2151.86 of 3511
the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division 3512
(C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions 3513
obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this 3514
section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 3515
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records 3516
check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to 3517
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 3518
person who is the subject of the request previously has been 3519
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:3520

       (a) A violation of section 959.13, 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 3521
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 2903.16, 2903.21, 3522
2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 3523
2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 3524
2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 3525
2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 3526
2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2913.49, 2917.01, 2917.02, 3527
2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 3528
2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2927.12, or 3716.11 3529
of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised 3530
Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 3531
2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have been a violation of 3532
section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 3533
1996, had the violation been committed prior to that date, a 3534
violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a 3535
minor drug possession offense, two or more OVI or OVUAC violations 3536
committed within the three years immediately preceding the 3537
submission of the application or petition that is the basis of the 3538
request, or felonious sexual penetration in violation of former 3539
section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;3540

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 3541
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 3542
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(4)(a) of 3543
this section.3544

       (5) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to section 5104.012 or 3545
5104.013 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant 3546
to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint 3547
impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of 3548
this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 3549
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records 3550
check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to 3551
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 3552
person who is the subject of the request has been convicted of or 3553
pleaded guilty to any of the following:3554

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 3555
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.22, 3556
2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 3557
2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 3558
2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 3559
2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 3560
2913.041, 2913.05, 2913.06, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 3561
2913.33, 2913.34, 2913.40, 2913.41, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 3562
2913.441, 2913.45, 2913.46, 2913.47, 2913.48, 2913.49, 2919.12, 3563
2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.11, 2921.13, 2923.01, 2923.12, 3564
2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, or 3565
3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual penetration in 3566
violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code, a 3567
violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed 3568
prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of the 3569
Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 2905.04 3570
of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the 3571
violation been committed prior to that date, a violation of 3572
section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a minor drug 3573
possession offense, a violation of section 2923.02 or 2923.03 of 3574
the Revised Code that relates to a crime specified in this 3575
division, or a second violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised 3576
Code within five years of the date of application for licensure or 3577
certification.3578

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 3579
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 3580
equivalent to any of the offenses or violations described in 3581
division (A)(5)(a) of this section.3582

       (6) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to section 5153.111 of 3583
the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division 3584
(C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions 3585
obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this 3586
section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 3587
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records 3588
check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to 3589
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 3590
person who is the subject of the request previously has been 3591
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:3592

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 3593
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 3594
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 3595
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 3596
2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 3597
2909.03, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 3598
2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 3599
2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, 3600
felonious sexual penetration in violation of former section 3601
2907.12 of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the 3602
Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of 3603
section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have been a 3604
violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed 3605
prior to July 1, 1996, had the violation been committed prior to 3606
that date, or a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code 3607
that is not a minor drug possession offense;3608

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 3609
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 3610
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(6)(a) of 3611
this section.3612

       (7) On receipt of a request for a criminal records check from 3613
an individual pursuant to section 4749.03 or 4749.06 of the 3614
Revised Code, accompanied by a completed copy of the form 3615
prescribed in division (C)(1) of this section and a set of 3616
fingerprint impressions obtained in a manner described in division 3617
(C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of 3618
criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal 3619
records check in the manner described in division (B) of this 3620
section to determine whether any information exists indicating 3621
that the person who is the subject of the request has been 3622
convicted of or pleaded guilty to a felony in this state or in any 3623
other state. If the individual indicates that a firearm will be 3624
carried in the course of business, the superintendent shall 3625
require information from the federal bureau of investigation as 3626
described in division (B)(2) of this section. Subject to division 3627
(F) of this section, the superintendent shall report the findings 3628
of the criminal records check and any information the federal 3629
bureau of investigation provides to the director of public safety.3630

       (8) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 1321.37, 3631
1321.53, 1321.531, 1322.03, 1322.031, or 4763.05 of the Revised 3632
Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of 3633
this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the 3634
manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the 3635
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 3636
investigation shall conduct a criminal records check with respect 3637
to any person who has applied for a license, permit, or 3638
certification from the department of commerce or a division in the 3639
department. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records 3640
check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to 3641
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 3642
person who is the subject of the request previously has been 3643
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following: a 3644
violation of section 2913.02, 2913.11, 2913.31, 2913.51, or 3645
2925.03 of the Revised Code; any other criminal offense involving 3646
theft, receiving stolen property, embezzlement, forgery, fraud, 3647
passing bad checks, money laundering, or drug trafficking, or any 3648
criminal offense involving money or securities, as set forth in 3649
Chapters 2909., 2911., 2913., 2915., 2921., 2923., and 2925. of 3650
the Revised Code; or any existing or former law of this state, any 3651
other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent 3652
to those offenses.3653

       (9) On receipt of a request for a criminal records check from 3654
the treasurer of state under section 113.041 of the Revised Code 3655
or from an individual under section 4701.08, 4715.101, 4717.061, 3656
4725.121, 4725.501, 4729.071, 4730.101, 4730.14, 4730.28, 3657
4731.081, 4731.15, 4731.171, 4731.222, 4731.281, 4731.296, 3658
4731.531, 4732.091, 4734.202, 4740.061, 4741.10, 4755.70, 3659
4757.101, 4759.061, 4760.032, 4760.06, 4761.051, 4762.031, 3660
4762.06, 4776.021, or 4779.091, or 4783.04 of the Revised Code, 3661
accompanied by a completed form prescribed under division (C)(1) 3662
of this section and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in 3663
the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the 3664
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 3665
investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner 3666
described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any 3667
information exists that indicates that the person who is the 3668
subject of the request has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to 3669
any criminal offense in this state or any other state. Subject to 3670
division (F) of this section, the superintendent shall send the 3671
results of a check requested under section 113.041 of the Revised 3672
Code to the treasurer of state and shall send the results of a 3673
check requested under any of the other listed sections to the 3674
licensing board specified by the individual in the request.3675

       (10) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 1121.23, 3676
1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1733.47, or 1761.26 of the Revised 3677
Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of 3678
this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the 3679
manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the 3680
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 3681
investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner 3682
described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any 3683
information exists that indicates that the person who is the 3684
subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded 3685
guilty to any criminal offense under any existing or former law of 3686
this state, any other state, or the United States.3687

       (11) On receipt of a request for a criminal records check 3688
from an appointing or licensing authority under section 3772.07 of 3689
the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed under division 3690
(C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions 3691
obtained in the manner prescribed in division (C)(2) of this 3692
section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 3693
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records 3694
check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to 3695
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 3696
person who is the subject of the request previously has been 3697
convicted of or pleaded guilty or no contest to any offense under 3698
any existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the 3699
United States that is a disqualifying offense as defined in 3700
section 3772.07 of the Revised Code or substantially equivalent to 3701
such an offense.3702

       (12) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 2151.33 or 3703
2151.412 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant 3704
to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint 3705
impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of 3706
this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 3707
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records 3708
check with respect to any person for whom a criminal records check 3709
is required by that section. The superintendent shall conduct the 3710
criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of 3711
this section to determine whether any information exists that 3712
indicates that the person who is the subject of the request 3713
previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the 3714
following:3715

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 3716
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 3717
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 3718
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 3719
2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 3720
2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 3721
2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 3722
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 3723
2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;3724

       (b) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, 3725
or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of 3726
the offenses listed in division (A)(12)(a) of this section.3727

       (B) Subject to division (F) of this section, the 3728
superintendent shall conduct any criminal records check to be 3729
conducted under this section as follows:3730

       (1) The superintendent shall review or cause to be reviewed 3731
any relevant information gathered and compiled by the bureau under 3732
division (A) of section 109.57 of the Revised Code that relates to 3733
the person who is the subject of the criminal records check, 3734
including, if the criminal records check was requested under 3735
section 113.041, 121.08, 173.27, 173.394173.38, 1121.23, 1155.03, 3736
1163.05, 1315.141, 1321.37, 1321.53, 1321.531, 1322.03, 1322.031, 3737
1733.47, 1761.26, 2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 3319.39, 3701.881, 3738
3712.09, 3721.121, 3772.07, 4749.03, 4749.06, 4763.05, 5104.012, 3739
5104.013, 5111.0325164.34, 5111.0335164.341, 5111.0345164.342, 3740
5123.081, 5123.169, or 5153.111 of the Revised Code, any relevant 3741
information contained in records that have been sealed under 3742
section 2953.32 of the Revised Code;3743

       (2) If the request received by the superintendent asks for 3744
information from the federal bureau of investigation, the 3745
superintendent shall request from the federal bureau of 3746
investigation any information it has with respect to the person 3747
who is the subject of the criminal records check, including 3748
fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases 3749
as described in 42 U.S.C. 671 if the request is made pursuant to 3750
section 2151.86, 5104.012, or 5104.013 of the Revised Code or if 3751
any other Revised Code section requires fingerprint-based checks 3752
of that nature, and shall review or cause to be reviewed any 3753
information the superintendent receives from that bureau. If a 3754
request under section 3319.39 of the Revised Code asks only for 3755
information from the federal bureau of investigation, the 3756
superintendent shall not conduct the review prescribed by division 3757
(B)(1) of this section.3758

        (3) The superintendent or the superintendent's designee may 3759
request criminal history records from other states or the federal 3760
government pursuant to the national crime prevention and privacy 3761
compact set forth in section 109.571 of the Revised Code.3762

       (4) The superintendent shall include in the results of the 3763
criminal records check a list or description of the offenses 3764
listed or described in division (A)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), 3765
(7), (8), (9), (10), (11), or (12) of this section, whichever 3766
division requires the superintendent to conduct the criminal 3767
records check. The superintendent shall exclude from the results 3768
any information the dissemination of which is prohibited by 3769
federal law.3770

       (5) The superintendent shall send the results of the criminal 3771
records check to the person to whom it is to be sent not later 3772
than the following number of days after the date the 3773
superintendent receives the request for the criminal records 3774
check, the completed form prescribed under division (C)(1) of this 3775
section, and the set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the 3776
manner described in division (C)(2) of this section:3777

       (a) If the superintendent is required by division (A) of this 3778
section (other than division (A)(3) of this section) to conduct 3779
the criminal records check, thirty;3780

       (b) If the superintendent is required by division (A)(3) of 3781
this section to conduct the criminal records check, sixty.3782

       (C)(1) The superintendent shall prescribe a form to obtain 3783
the information necessary to conduct a criminal records check from 3784
any person for whom a criminal records check is to be conducted 3785
under this section. The form that the superintendent prescribes 3786
pursuant to this division may be in a tangible format, in an 3787
electronic format, or in both tangible and electronic formats.3788

       (2) The superintendent shall prescribe standard impression 3789
sheets to obtain the fingerprint impressions of any person for 3790
whom a criminal records check is to be conducted under this 3791
section. Any person for whom a records check is to be conducted 3792
under this section shall obtain the fingerprint impressions at a 3793
county sheriff's office, municipal police department, or any other 3794
entity with the ability to make fingerprint impressions on the 3795
standard impression sheets prescribed by the superintendent. The 3796
office, department, or entity may charge the person a reasonable 3797
fee for making the impressions. The standard impression sheets the 3798
superintendent prescribes pursuant to this division may be in a 3799
tangible format, in an electronic format, or in both tangible and 3800
electronic formats.3801

       (3) Subject to division (D) of this section, the 3802
superintendent shall prescribe and charge a reasonable fee for 3803
providing a criminal records check under this section. The person 3804
requesting the criminal records check shall pay the fee prescribed 3805
pursuant to this division. In the case of a request under section 3806
1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1733.47, 1761.26, 2151.33, 3807
2151.412, or 5111.0325164.34 of the Revised Code, the fee shall 3808
be paid in the manner specified in that section.3809

       (4) The superintendent of the bureau of criminal 3810
identification and investigation may prescribe methods of 3811
forwarding fingerprint impressions and information necessary to 3812
conduct a criminal records check, which methods shall include, but 3813
not be limited to, an electronic method.3814

       (D) The results of a criminal records check conducted under 3815
this section, other than a criminal records check specified in 3816
division (A)(7) of this section, are valid for the person who is 3817
the subject of the criminal records check for a period of one year 3818
from the date upon which the superintendent completes the criminal 3819
records check. If during that period the superintendent receives 3820
another request for a criminal records check to be conducted under 3821
this section for that person, the superintendent shall provide the 3822
results from the previous criminal records check of the person at 3823
a lower fee than the fee prescribed for the initial criminal 3824
records check.3825

       (E) When the superintendent receives a request for 3826
information from a registered private provider, the superintendent 3827
shall proceed as if the request was received from a school 3828
district board of education under section 3319.39 of the Revised 3829
Code. The superintendent shall apply division (A)(1)(c) of this 3830
section to any such request for an applicant who is a teacher.3831

       (F)(1) All information regarding the results of a criminal 3832
records check conducted under this section that the superintendent 3833
reports or sends under division (A)(7) or (9) of this section to 3834
the director of public safety, the treasurer of state, or the 3835
person, board, or entity that made the request for the criminal 3836
records check shall relate to the conviction of the subject 3837
person, or the subject person's plea of guilty to, a criminal 3838
offense.3839

       (2) Division (F)(1) of this section does not limit, restrict, 3840
or preclude the superintendent's release of information that 3841
relates to an adjudication of a child as a delinquent child, or 3842
that relates to a criminal conviction of a person under eighteen 3843
years of age if the person's case was transferred back to a 3844
juvenile court under division (B)(2) or (3) of section 2152.121 of 3845
the Revised Code and the juvenile court imposed a disposition or 3846
serious youthful offender disposition upon the person under either 3847
division, if either of the following applies with respect to the 3848
adjudication or conviction:3849

       (a) The adjudication or conviction was for a violation of 3850
section 2903.01 or 2903.02 of the Revised Code.3851

       (b) The adjudication or conviction was for a sexually 3852
oriented offense, as defined in section 2950.01 of the Revised 3853
Code, the juvenile court was required to classify the child a 3854
juvenile offender registrant for that offense under section 3855
2152.82, 2152.83, or 2152.86 of the Revised Code, and that 3856
classification has not been removed.3857

       (G) As used in this section:3858

       (1) "Criminal records check" means any criminal records check 3859
conducted by the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 3860
identification and investigation in accordance with division (B) 3861
of this section.3862

       (2) "Minor drug possession offense" has the same meaning as 3863
in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.3864

       (3) "OVI or OVUAC violation" means a violation of section 3865
4511.19 of the Revised Code or a violation of an existing or 3866
former law of this state, any other state, or the United States 3867
that is substantially equivalent to section 4511.19 of the Revised 3868
Code.3869

       (4) "Registered private provider" means a nonpublic school or 3870
entity registered with the superintendent of public instruction 3871
under section 3310.41 of the Revised Code to participate in the 3872
autism scholarship program or section 3310.58 of the Revised Code 3873
to participate in the Jon Peterson special needs scholarship 3874
program.3875

       Sec. 109.71.  There is hereby created in the office of the 3876
attorney general the Ohio peace officer training commission. The 3877
commission shall consist of nine members appointed by the governor 3878
with the advice and consent of the senate and selected as follows: 3879
one member representing the public; two members who are incumbent 3880
sheriffs; two members who are incumbent chiefs of police; one 3881
member from the bureau of criminal identification and 3882
investigation; one member from the state highway patrol; one 3883
member who is the special agent in charge of a field office of the 3884
federal bureau of investigation in this state; and one member from 3885
the department of education, trade and industrial education 3886
services, law enforcement training.3887

       This section does not confer any arrest authority or any 3888
ability or authority to detain a person, write or issue any 3889
citation, or provide any disposition alternative, as granted under 3890
Chapter 2935. of the Revised Code.3891

       As used in sections 109.71 to 109.801 of the Revised Code:3892

       (A) "Peace officer" means:3893

       (1) A deputy sheriff, marshal, deputy marshal, member of the 3894
organized police department of a township or municipal 3895
corporation, member of a township police district or joint police 3896
district police force, member of a police force employed by a 3897
metropolitan housing authority under division (D) of section 3898
3735.31 of the Revised Code, or township constable, who is 3899
commissioned and employed as a peace officer by a political 3900
subdivision of this state or by a metropolitan housing authority, 3901
and whose primary duties are to preserve the peace, to protect 3902
life and property, and to enforce the laws of this state, 3903
ordinances of a municipal corporation, resolutions of a township, 3904
or regulations of a board of county commissioners or board of 3905
township trustees, or any of those laws, ordinances, resolutions, 3906
or regulations;3907

       (2) A police officer who is employed by a railroad company 3908
and appointed and commissioned by the secretary of state pursuant 3909
to sections 4973.17 to 4973.22 of the Revised Code;3910

       (3) Employees of the department of taxation engaged in the 3911
enforcement of Chapter 5743. of the Revised Code and designated by 3912
the tax commissioner for peace officer training for purposes of 3913
the delegation of investigation powers under section 5743.45 of 3914
the Revised Code;3915

       (4) An undercover drug agent;3916

       (5) Enforcement agents of the department of public safety 3917
whom the director of public safety designates under section 3918
5502.14 of the Revised Code;3919

       (6) An employee of the department of natural resources who is 3920
a natural resources law enforcement staff officer designated 3921
pursuant to section 1501.013, a park officer designated pursuant 3922
to section 1541.10, a forest officer designated pursuant to 3923
section 1503.29, a preserve officer designated pursuant to section 3924
1517.10, a wildlife officer designated pursuant to section 3925
1531.13, or a state watercraft officer designated pursuant to 3926
section 1547.521 of the Revised Code;3927

       (7) An employee of a park district who is designated pursuant 3928
to section 511.232 or 1545.13 of the Revised Code;3929

       (8) An employee of a conservancy district who is designated 3930
pursuant to section 6101.75 of the Revised Code;3931

       (9) A police officer who is employed by a hospital that 3932
employs and maintains its own proprietary police department or 3933
security department, and who is appointed and commissioned by the 3934
secretary of state pursuant to sections 4973.17 to 4973.22 of the 3935
Revised Code;3936

       (10) Veterans' homes police officers designated under section 3937
5907.02 of the Revised Code;3938

       (11) A police officer who is employed by a qualified 3939
nonprofit corporation police department pursuant to section 3940
1702.80 of the Revised Code;3941

       (12) A state university law enforcement officer appointed 3942
under section 3345.04 of the Revised Code or a person serving as a 3943
state university law enforcement officer on a permanent basis on 3944
June 19, 1978, who has been awarded a certificate by the executive 3945
director of the Ohio peace officer training commission attesting 3946
to the person's satisfactory completion of an approved state, 3947
county, municipal, or department of natural resources peace 3948
officer basic training program;3949

       (13) A special police officer employed by the department of 3950
mental healthmental health and addiction services pursuant to 3951
section 5119.145119.08 of the Revised Code or the department of 3952
developmental disabilities pursuant to section 5123.13 of the 3953
Revised Code;3954

       (14) A member of a campus police department appointed under 3955
section 1713.50 of the Revised Code;3956

       (15) A member of a police force employed by a regional 3957
transit authority under division (Y) of section 306.35 of the 3958
Revised Code;3959

       (16) Investigators appointed by the auditor of state pursuant 3960
to section 117.091 of the Revised Code and engaged in the 3961
enforcement of Chapter 117. of the Revised Code;3962

       (17) A special police officer designated by the 3963
superintendent of the state highway patrol pursuant to section 3964
5503.09 of the Revised Code or a person who was serving as a 3965
special police officer pursuant to that section on a permanent 3966
basis on October 21, 1997, and who has been awarded a certificate 3967
by the executive director of the Ohio peace officer training 3968
commission attesting to the person's satisfactory completion of an 3969
approved state, county, municipal, or department of natural 3970
resources peace officer basic training program;3971

       (18) A special police officer employed by a port authority 3972
under section 4582.04 or 4582.28 of the Revised Code or a person 3973
serving as a special police officer employed by a port authority 3974
on a permanent basis on May 17, 2000, who has been awarded a 3975
certificate by the executive director of the Ohio peace officer 3976
training commission attesting to the person's satisfactory 3977
completion of an approved state, county, municipal, or department 3978
of natural resources peace officer basic training program;3979

       (19) A special police officer employed by a municipal 3980
corporation who has been awarded a certificate by the executive 3981
director of the Ohio peace officer training commission for 3982
satisfactory completion of an approved peace officer basic 3983
training program and who is employed on a permanent basis on or 3984
after March 19, 2003, at a municipal airport, or other municipal 3985
air navigation facility, that has scheduled operations, as defined 3986
in section 119.3 of Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations, 3987
14 C.F.R. 119.3, as amended, and that is required to be under a 3988
security program and is governed by aviation security rules of the 3989
transportation security administration of the United States 3990
department of transportation as provided in Parts 1542. and 1544. 3991
of Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as amended;3992

       (20) A police officer who is employed by an owner or operator 3993
of an amusement park that has an average yearly attendance in 3994
excess of six hundred thousand guests and that employs and 3995
maintains its own proprietary police department or security 3996
department, and who is appointed and commissioned by a judge of 3997
the appropriate municipal court or county court pursuant to 3998
section 4973.17 of the Revised Code;3999

        (21) A police officer who is employed by a bank, savings and 4000
loan association, savings bank, credit union, or association of 4001
banks, savings and loan associations, savings banks, or credit 4002
unions, who has been appointed and commissioned by the secretary 4003
of state pursuant to sections 4973.17 to 4973.22 of the Revised 4004
Code, and who has been awarded a certificate by the executive 4005
director of the Ohio peace officer training commission attesting 4006
to the person's satisfactory completion of a state, county, 4007
municipal, or department of natural resources peace officer basic 4008
training program;4009

       (22) An investigator, as defined in section 109.541 of the 4010
Revised Code, of the bureau of criminal identification and 4011
investigation who is commissioned by the superintendent of the 4012
bureau as a special agent for the purpose of assisting law 4013
enforcement officers or providing emergency assistance to peace 4014
officers pursuant to authority granted under that section;4015

       (23) A state fire marshal law enforcement officer appointed 4016
under section 3737.22 of the Revised Code or a person serving as a 4017
state fire marshal law enforcement officer on a permanent basis on 4018
or after July 1, 1982, who has been awarded a certificate by the 4019
executive director of the Ohio peace officer training commission 4020
attesting to the person's satisfactory completion of an approved 4021
state, county, municipal, or department of natural resources peace 4022
officer basic training program;4023

       (24) A gaming agent employed under section 3772.03 of the 4024
Revised Code.4025

       (B) "Undercover drug agent" has the same meaning as in 4026
division (B)(2) of section 109.79 of the Revised Code.4027

       (C) "Crisis intervention training" means training in the use 4028
of interpersonal and communication skills to most effectively and 4029
sensitively interview victims of rape.4030

       (D) "Missing children" has the same meaning as in section 4031
2901.30 of the Revised Code.4032

       Sec. 109.746.  (A) The attorney general may prepare public 4033
awareness programs that are designed to educate potential victims 4034
of violations of section 2905.32 of the Revised Code and their 4035
families of the risks of becoming a victim of a violation of that 4036
section. The attorney general may prepare these programs with 4037
assistance from the department of health, the department of mental 4038
healthmental health and addiction services, the department of job 4039
and family services, the department of alcohol and drug addiction 4040
services, and the department of education.4041

       (B) Any organization, person, or other governmental agency 4042
with an interest and expertise in trafficking in persons may 4043
submit information or materials to the attorney general regarding 4044
the preparation of the programs and materials permitted under this 4045
section. The attorney general, in developing the programs and 4046
materials permitted by this section, shall consider any 4047
information submitted pursuant to this division.4048

       Sec. 109.77.  (A) As used in this section, "felony" has the 4049
same meaning as in section 109.511 of the Revised Code.4050

       (B)(1) Notwithstanding any general, special, or local law or 4051
charter to the contrary, and except as otherwise provided in this 4052
section, no person shall receive an original appointment on a 4053
permanent basis as any of the following unless the person 4054
previously has been awarded a certificate by the executive 4055
director of the Ohio peace officer training commission attesting 4056
to the person's satisfactory completion of an approved state, 4057
county, municipal, or department of natural resources peace 4058
officer basic training program:4059

       (a) A peace officer of any county, township, municipal 4060
corporation, regional transit authority, or metropolitan housing 4061
authority;4062

       (b) A natural resources law enforcement staff officer, park 4063
officer, forest officer, preserve officer, wildlife officer, or 4064
state watercraft officer of the department of natural resources;4065

       (c) An employee of a park district under section 511.232 or 4066
1545.13 of the Revised Code;4067

       (d) An employee of a conservancy district who is designated 4068
pursuant to section 6101.75 of the Revised Code;4069

       (e) A state university law enforcement officer;4070

       (f) A special police officer employed by the department of 4071
mental healthmental health and addiction services pursuant to 4072
section 5119.145119.08 of the Revised Code or the department of 4073
developmental disabilities pursuant to section 5123.13 of the 4074
Revised Code;4075

       (g) An enforcement agent of the department of public safety 4076
whom the director of public safety designates under section 4077
5502.14 of the Revised Code;4078

       (h) A special police officer employed by a port authority 4079
under section 4582.04 or 4582.28 of the Revised Code;4080

       (i) A special police officer employed by a municipal 4081
corporation at a municipal airport, or other municipal air 4082
navigation facility, that has scheduled operations, as defined in 4083
section 119.3 of Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations, 14 4084
C.F.R. 119.3, as amended, and that is required to be under a 4085
security program and is governed by aviation security rules of the 4086
transportation security administration of the United States 4087
department of transportation as provided in Parts 1542. and 1544. 4088
of Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as amended;4089

       (j) A gaming agent employed under section 3772.03 of the 4090
Revised Code.4091

       (2) Every person who is appointed on a temporary basis or for 4092
a probationary term or on other than a permanent basis as any of 4093
the following shall forfeit the appointed position unless the 4094
person previously has completed satisfactorily or, within the time 4095
prescribed by rules adopted by the attorney general pursuant to 4096
section 109.74 of the Revised Code, satisfactorily completes a 4097
state, county, municipal, or department of natural resources peace 4098
officer basic training program for temporary or probationary 4099
officers and is awarded a certificate by the director attesting to 4100
the satisfactory completion of the program:4101

       (a) A peace officer of any county, township, municipal 4102
corporation, regional transit authority, or metropolitan housing 4103
authority;4104

       (b) A natural resources law enforcement staff officer, park 4105
officer, forest officer, preserve officer, wildlife officer, or 4106
state watercraft officer of the department of natural resources;4107

       (c) An employee of a park district under section 511.232 or 4108
1545.13 of the Revised Code;4109

       (d) An employee of a conservancy district who is designated 4110
pursuant to section 6101.75 of the Revised Code;4111

       (e) A special police officer employed by the department of 4112
mental healthmental health and addiction services pursuant to 4113
section 5119.145119.08 of the Revised Code or the department of 4114
developmental disabilities pursuant to section 5123.13 of the 4115
Revised Code;4116

       (f) An enforcement agent of the department of public safety 4117
whom the director of public safety designates under section 4118
5502.14 of the Revised Code;4119

       (g) A special police officer employed by a port authority 4120
under section 4582.04 or 4582.28 of the Revised Code;4121

       (h) A special police officer employed by a municipal 4122
corporation at a municipal airport, or other municipal air 4123
navigation facility, that has scheduled operations, as defined in 4124
section 119.3 of Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations, 14 4125
C.F.R. 119.3, as amended, and that is required to be under a 4126
security program and is governed by aviation security rules of the 4127
transportation security administration of the United States 4128
department of transportation as provided in Parts 1542. and 1544. 4129
of Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as amended.4130

       (3) For purposes of division (B) of this section, a state, 4131
county, municipal, or department of natural resources peace 4132
officer basic training program, regardless of whether the program 4133
is to be completed by peace officers appointed on a permanent or 4134
temporary, probationary, or other nonpermanent basis, shall 4135
include training in the handling of the offense of domestic 4136
violence, other types of domestic violence-related offenses and 4137
incidents, and protection orders and consent agreements issued or 4138
approved under section 2919.26 or 3113.31 of the Revised Code and 4139
crisis intervention training. The requirement to complete training 4140
in the handling of the offense of domestic violence, other types 4141
of domestic violence-related offenses and incidents, and 4142
protection orders and consent agreements issued or approved under 4143
section 2919.26 or 3113.31 of the Revised Code does not apply to 4144
any person serving as a peace officer on March 27, 1979, and the 4145
requirement to complete training in crisis intervention does not 4146
apply to any person serving as a peace officer on April 4, 1985. 4147
Any person who is serving as a peace officer on April 4, 1985, who 4148
terminates that employment after that date, and who subsequently 4149
is hired as a peace officer by the same or another law enforcement 4150
agency shall complete training in crisis intervention as 4151
prescribed by rules adopted by the attorney general pursuant to 4152
section 109.742 of the Revised Code. No peace officer shall have 4153
employment as a peace officer terminated and then be reinstated 4154
with intent to circumvent this section.4155

       (4) Division (B) of this section does not apply to any person 4156
serving on a permanent basis on March 28, 1985, as a park officer, 4157
forest officer, preserve officer, wildlife officer, or state 4158
watercraft officer of the department of natural resources or as an 4159
employee of a park district under section 511.232 or 1545.13 of 4160
the Revised Code, to any person serving on a permanent basis on 4161
March 6, 1986, as an employee of a conservancy district designated 4162
pursuant to section 6101.75 of the Revised Code, to any person 4163
serving on a permanent basis on January 10, 1991, as a preserve 4164
officer of the department of natural resources, to any person 4165
employed on a permanent basis on July 2, 1992, as a special police 4166
officer by the department of mental healthmental health and 4167
addiction services pursuant to section 5119.145119.08 of the 4168
Revised Code or by the department of developmental disabilities 4169
pursuant to section 5123.13 of the Revised Code, to any person 4170
serving on a permanent basis on May 17, 2000, as a special police 4171
officer employed by a port authority under section 4582.04 or 4172
4582.28 of the Revised Code, to any person serving on a permanent 4173
basis on March 19, 2003, as a special police officer employed by a 4174
municipal corporation at a municipal airport or other municipal 4175
air navigation facility described in division (A)(19) of section 4176
109.71 of the Revised Code, to any person serving on a permanent 4177
basis on June 19, 1978, as a state university law enforcement 4178
officer pursuant to section 3345.04 of the Revised Code and who, 4179
immediately prior to June 19, 1978, was serving as a special 4180
police officer designated under authority of that section, or to 4181
any person serving on a permanent basis on September 20, 1984, as 4182
a liquor control investigator, known after June 30, 1999, as an 4183
enforcement agent of the department of public safety, engaged in 4184
the enforcement of Chapters 4301. and 4303. of the Revised Code.4185

       (5) Division (B) of this section does not apply to any person 4186
who is appointed as a regional transit authority police officer 4187
pursuant to division (Y) of section 306.35 of the Revised Code if, 4188
on or before July 1, 1996, the person has completed satisfactorily 4189
an approved state, county, municipal, or department of natural 4190
resources peace officer basic training program and has been 4191
awarded a certificate by the executive director of the Ohio peace 4192
officer training commission attesting to the person's satisfactory 4193
completion of such an approved program and if, on July 1, 1996, 4194
the person is performing peace officer functions for a regional 4195
transit authority.4196

       (C) No person, after September 20, 1984, shall receive an 4197
original appointment on a permanent basis as a veterans' home 4198
police officer designated under section 5907.02 of the Revised 4199
Code unless the person previously has been awarded a certificate 4200
by the executive director of the Ohio peace officer training 4201
commission attesting to the person's satisfactory completion of an 4202
approved police officer basic training program. Every person who 4203
is appointed on a temporary basis or for a probationary term or on 4204
other than a permanent basis as a veterans' home police officer 4205
designated under section 5907.02 of the Revised Code shall forfeit 4206
that position unless the person previously has completed 4207
satisfactorily or, within one year from the time of appointment, 4208
satisfactorily completes an approved police officer basic training 4209
program.4210

       (D) No bailiff or deputy bailiff of a court of record of this 4211
state and no criminal investigator who is employed by the state 4212
public defender shall carry a firearm, as defined in section 4213
2923.11 of the Revised Code, while on duty unless the bailiff, 4214
deputy bailiff, or criminal investigator has done or received one 4215
of the following:4216

       (1) Has been awarded a certificate by the executive director 4217
of the Ohio peace officer training commission, which certificate 4218
attests to satisfactory completion of an approved state, county, 4219
or municipal basic training program for bailiffs and deputy 4220
bailiffs of courts of record and for criminal investigators 4221
employed by the state public defender that has been recommended by 4222
the Ohio peace officer training commission;4223

       (2) Has successfully completed a firearms training program 4224
approved by the Ohio peace officer training commission prior to 4225
employment as a bailiff, deputy bailiff, or criminal investigator;4226

       (3) Prior to June 6, 1986, was authorized to carry a firearm 4227
by the court that employed the bailiff or deputy bailiff or, in 4228
the case of a criminal investigator, by the state public defender 4229
and has received training in the use of firearms that the Ohio 4230
peace officer training commission determines is equivalent to the 4231
training that otherwise is required by division (D) of this 4232
section.4233

       (E)(1) Before a person seeking a certificate completes an 4234
approved peace officer basic training program, the executive 4235
director of the Ohio peace officer training commission shall 4236
request the person to disclose, and the person shall disclose, any 4237
previous criminal conviction of or plea of guilty of that person 4238
to a felony.4239

       (2) Before a person seeking a certificate completes an 4240
approved peace officer basic training program, the executive 4241
director shall request a criminal history records check on the 4242
person. The executive director shall submit the person's 4243
fingerprints to the bureau of criminal identification and 4244
investigation, which shall submit the fingerprints to the federal 4245
bureau of investigation for a national criminal history records 4246
check.4247

       Upon receipt of the executive director's request, the bureau 4248
of criminal identification and investigation and the federal 4249
bureau of investigation shall conduct a criminal history records 4250
check on the person and, upon completion of the check, shall 4251
provide a copy of the criminal history records check to the 4252
executive director. The executive director shall not award any 4253
certificate prescribed in this section unless the executive 4254
director has received a copy of the criminal history records check 4255
on the person to whom the certificate is to be awarded.4256

       (3) The executive director of the commission shall not award 4257
a certificate prescribed in this section to a person who has been 4258
convicted of or has pleaded guilty to a felony or who fails to 4259
disclose any previous criminal conviction of or plea of guilty to 4260
a felony as required under division (E)(1) of this section.4261

       (4) The executive director of the commission shall revoke the 4262
certificate awarded to a person as prescribed in this section, and 4263
that person shall forfeit all of the benefits derived from being 4264
certified as a peace officer under this section, if the person, 4265
before completion of an approved peace officer basic training 4266
program, failed to disclose any previous criminal conviction of or 4267
plea of guilty to a felony as required under division (E)(1) of 4268
this section.4269

       (F)(1) Regardless of whether the person has been awarded the 4270
certificate or has been classified as a peace officer prior to, 4271
on, or after October 16, 1996, the executive director of the Ohio 4272
peace officer training commission shall revoke any certificate 4273
that has been awarded to a person as prescribed in this section if 4274
the person does either of the following:4275

       (a) Pleads guilty to a felony committed on or after January 4276
1, 1997;4277

       (b) Pleads guilty to a misdemeanor committed on or after 4278
January 1, 1997, pursuant to a negotiated plea agreement as 4279
provided in division (D) of section 2929.43 of the Revised Code in 4280
which the person agrees to surrender the certificate awarded to 4281
the person under this section.4282

       (2) The executive director of the commission shall suspend 4283
any certificate that has been awarded to a person as prescribed in 4284
this section if the person is convicted, after trial, of a felony 4285
committed on or after January 1, 1997. The executive director 4286
shall suspend the certificate pursuant to division (F)(2) of this 4287
section pending the outcome of an appeal by the person from that 4288
conviction to the highest court to which the appeal is taken or 4289
until the expiration of the period in which an appeal is required 4290
to be filed. If the person files an appeal that results in that 4291
person's acquittal of the felony or conviction of a misdemeanor, 4292
or in the dismissal of the felony charge against that person, the 4293
executive director shall reinstate the certificate awarded to the 4294
person under this section. If the person files an appeal from that 4295
person's conviction of the felony and the conviction is upheld by 4296
the highest court to which the appeal is taken or if the person 4297
does not file a timely appeal, the executive director shall revoke 4298
the certificate awarded to the person under this section.4299

       (G)(1) If a person is awarded a certificate under this 4300
section and the certificate is revoked pursuant to division (E)(4) 4301
or (F) of this section, the person shall not be eligible to 4302
receive, at any time, a certificate attesting to the person's 4303
satisfactory completion of a peace officer basic training program.4304

       (2) The revocation or suspension of a certificate under 4305
division (E)(4) or (F) of this section shall be in accordance with 4306
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.4307

       (H)(1) A person who was employed as a peace officer of a 4308
county, township, or municipal corporation of the state on January 4309
1, 1966, and who has completed at least sixteen years of full-time 4310
active service as such a peace officer, or equivalent service as 4311
determined by the executive director of the Ohio peace officer 4312
training commission, may receive an original appointment on a 4313
permanent basis and serve as a peace officer of a county, 4314
township, or municipal corporation, or as a state university law 4315
enforcement officer, without complying with the requirements of 4316
division (B) of this section.4317

       (2) Any person who held an appointment as a state highway 4318
trooper on January 1, 1966, may receive an original appointment on 4319
a permanent basis and serve as a peace officer of a county, 4320
township, or municipal corporation, or as a state university law 4321
enforcement officer, without complying with the requirements of 4322
division (B) of this section.4323

       (I) No person who is appointed as a peace officer of a 4324
county, township, or municipal corporation on or after April 9, 4325
1985, shall serve as a peace officer of that county, township, or 4326
municipal corporation unless the person has received training in 4327
the handling of missing children and child abuse and neglect cases 4328
from an approved state, county, township, or municipal police 4329
officer basic training program or receives the training within the 4330
time prescribed by rules adopted by the attorney general pursuant 4331
to section 109.741 of the Revised Code.4332

       (J) No part of any approved state, county, or municipal basic 4333
training program for bailiffs and deputy bailiffs of courts of 4334
record and no part of any approved state, county, or municipal 4335
basic training program for criminal investigators employed by the 4336
state public defender shall be used as credit toward the 4337
completion by a peace officer of any part of the approved state, 4338
county, or municipal peace officer basic training program that the 4339
peace officer is required by this section to complete 4340
satisfactorily.4341

       (K) This section does not apply to any member of the police 4342
department of a municipal corporation in an adjoining state 4343
serving in this state under a contract pursuant to section 737.04 4344
of the Revised Code.4345

       Sec. 109.85.  (A) Upon the written request of the governor, 4346
the general assembly, the auditor of state, the medicaid director 4347
of job and family services, the director of health, or the 4348
director of budget and management, or upon the attorney general's 4349
becoming aware of criminal or improper activity related to Chapter 4350
3721. and the medical assistancemedicaid program established 4351
under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code, the attorney general 4352
shall investigate any criminal or civil violation of law related 4353
to Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code or the medical assistance4354
medicaid program.4355

       (B) When it appears to the attorney general, as a result of 4356
an investigation under division (A) of this section, that there is 4357
cause to prosecute for the commission of a crime or to pursue a 4358
civil remedy, the attorney general may refer the evidence to the 4359
prosecuting attorney having jurisdiction of the matter, or to a 4360
regular grand jury drawn and impaneled pursuant to sections 4361
2939.01 to 2939.24 of the Revised Code, or to a special grand jury 4362
drawn and impaneled pursuant to section 2939.17 of the Revised 4363
Code, or the attorney general may initiate and prosecute any 4364
necessary criminal or civil actions in any court or tribunal of 4365
competent jurisdiction in this state. When proceeding under this 4366
section, the attorney general, and any assistant or special 4367
counsel designated by the attorney general for that purpose, have 4368
all rights, privileges, and powers of prosecuting attorneys. The 4369
attorney general shall have exclusive supervision and control of 4370
all investigations and prosecutions initiated by the attorney 4371
general under this section. The forfeiture provisions of Chapter 4372
2981. of the Revised Code apply in relation to any such criminal 4373
action initiated and prosecuted by the attorney general.4374

       (C) Nothing in this section shall prevent a county 4375
prosecuting attorney from investigating and prosecuting criminal 4376
activity related to Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code and the 4377
medical assistancemedicaid program established under section 4378
5111.01 of the Revised Code. The forfeiture provisions of Chapter 4379
2981. of the Revised Code apply in relation to any prosecution of 4380
criminal activity related to the medical assistancemedicaid4381
program undertaken by the prosecuting attorney.4382

       Sec. 109.86.  (A) The attorney general shall investigate any 4383
activity the attorney general has reasonable cause to believe is 4384
in violation of section 2903.34 of the Revised Code. Upon written 4385
request of the governor, the general assembly, the auditor of 4386
state, or the director of health, job and family services, aging,4387
mental healthmental health and addiction services, or 4388
developmental disabilities, the attorney general shall investigate 4389
any activity these persons believe is in violation of section 4390
2903.34 of the Revised Code. If after an investigation the 4391
attorney general has probable cause to prosecute for the 4392
commission of a crime, the attorney general shall refer the 4393
evidence to the prosecuting attorney, director of law, or other 4394
similar chief legal officer having jurisdiction over the matter. 4395
If the prosecuting attorney decides to present the evidence to a 4396
grand jury, the prosecuting attorney shall notify the attorney 4397
general in writing of the decision within thirty days after 4398
referral of the matter and shall present the evidence prior to the 4399
discharge of the next regular grand jury. If the director of law 4400
or other chief legal officer decides to prosecute the case, the 4401
director or officer shall notify the attorney general in writing 4402
of the decision within thirty days and shall initiate prosecution 4403
within sixty days after the matter was referred to the director or 4404
officer.4405

       (B) If the prosecuting attorney, director of law, or other 4406
chief legal officer fails to notify the attorney general or to 4407
present evidence or initiate prosecution in accordance with 4408
division (A) of this section, the attorney general may present the 4409
evidence to a regular grand jury drawn and impaneled pursuant to 4410
sections 2939.01 to 2939.24 of the Revised Code, or to a special 4411
grand jury drawn and impaneled pursuant to section 2939.17 of the 4412
Revised Code, or the attorney general may initiate and prosecute 4413
any action in any court or tribunal of competent jurisdiction in 4414
this state. The attorney general, and any assistant or special 4415
counsel designated by the attorney general, have all the powers of 4416
a prosecuting attorney, director of law, or other chief legal 4417
officer when proceeding under this section. Nothing in this 4418
section shall limit or prevent a prosecuting attorney, director of 4419
law, or other chief legal officer from investigating and 4420
prosecuting criminal activity committed against a resident or 4421
patient of a care facility.4422

       Sec. 109.90. (A) The attorney general shall collaborate with 4423
the state board of pharmacy and director of alcohol and drug 4424
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services in the 4425
establishment and administration of a drug take-back program, as 4426
provided under section 4729.69 of the Revised Code. The office of 4427
the attorney general is solely responsible for the costs incurred 4428
in the establishment and administration of the program.4429

        (B) The attorney general may accept grants, gifts, or 4430
donations for purposes of the program. Money received under this 4431
division or section 3793.225119.49 or 4729.69 of the Revised Code 4432
shall be deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the 4433
drug take-back program fund, which is hereby created. Money 4434
credited to the fund shall be used solely for purposes of the 4435
program.4436

       Sec. 111.02.  Before entering upon the discharge of the 4437
duties of his office, the secretary of state shall give a bond to 4438
the state in the sum of one hundred thousand dollars, with two or 4439
more sureties approved by the governor, auditor of state, and 4440
attorney generala surety authorized to do business in the state, 4441
conditioned for the faithful discharge of the duties of histhe4442
office of secretary of state. The bond, with the approval of the 4443
proper officials and the oath of office indorsed thereon, shall be 4444
deposited with and kept by the director of administrative services 4445
and kept in histhe director's office.4446

       Sec. 111.15.  (A) As used in this section:4447

       (1) "Rule" includes any rule, regulation, bylaw, or standard 4448
having a general and uniform operation adopted by an agency under 4449
the authority of the laws governing the agency; any appendix to a 4450
rule; and any internal management rule. "Rule" does not include 4451
any guideline adopted pursuant to section 3301.0714 of the Revised 4452
Code, any order respecting the duties of employees, any finding, 4453
any determination of a question of law or fact in a matter 4454
presented to an agency, or any rule promulgated pursuant to 4455
Chapter 119., section 4141.14, division (C)(1) or (2) of section 4456
5117.02, or section 5703.14 of the Revised Code. "Rule" includes 4457
any amendment or rescission of a rule.4458

       (2) "Agency" means any governmental entity of the state and 4459
includes, but is not limited to, any board, department, division, 4460
commission, bureau, society, council, institution, state college 4461
or university, community college district, technical college 4462
district, or state community college. "Agency" does not include 4463
the general assembly, the controlling board, the adjutant 4464
general's department, or any court.4465

       (3) "Internal management rule" means any rule, regulation, 4466
bylaw, or standard governing the day-to-day staff procedures and 4467
operations within an agency.4468

       (4) "Substantive revision" has the same meaning as in 4469
division (J) of section 119.01 of the Revised Code.4470

       (B)(1) Any rule, other than a rule of an emergency nature, 4471
adopted by any agency pursuant to this section shall be effective 4472
on the tenth day after the day on which the rule in final form and 4473
in compliance with division (B)(3) of this section is filed as 4474
follows:4475

       (a) The rule shall be filed in electronic form with both the 4476
secretary of state and the director of the legislative service 4477
commission;4478

       (b) The rule shall be filed in electronic form with the joint 4479
committee on agency rule review. Division (B)(1)(b) of this 4480
section does not apply to any rule to which division (D) of this 4481
section does not apply.4482

       An agency that adopts or amends a rule that is subject to 4483
division (D) of this section shall assign a review date to the 4484
rule that is not later than five years after its effective date. 4485
If no review date is assigned to a rule, or if a review date 4486
assigned to a rule exceeds the five-year maximum, the review date 4487
for the rule is five years after its effective date. A rule with a 4488
review date is subject to review under section 119.032 of the 4489
Revised Code. This paragraph does not apply to a rule of a state 4490
college or university, community college district, technical 4491
college district, or state community college.4492

       If all filings are not completed on the same day, the rule 4493
shall be effective on the tenth day after the day on which the 4494
latest filing is completed. If an agency in adopting a rule 4495
designates an effective date that is later than the effective date 4496
provided for by division (B)(1) of this section, the rule if filed 4497
as required by such division shall become effective on the later 4498
date designated by the agency.4499

       Any rule that is required to be filed under division (B)(1) 4500
of this section is also subject to division (D) of this section if 4501
not exempted by division (D)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), or 4502
(8) of this section.4503

       If a rule incorporates a text or other material by reference, 4504
the agency shall comply with sections 121.71 to 121.76 of the 4505
Revised Code.4506

       (2) A rule of an emergency nature necessary for the immediate 4507
preservation of the public peace, health, or safety shall state 4508
the reasons for the necessity. The emergency rule, in final form 4509
and in compliance with division (B)(3) of this section, shall be 4510
filed in electronic form with the secretary of state, the director 4511
of the legislative service commission, and the joint committee on 4512
agency rule review. The emergency rule is effective immediately 4513
upon completion of the latest filing, except that if the agency in 4514
adopting the emergency rule designates an effective date, or date 4515
and time of day, that is later than the effective date and time 4516
provided for by division (B)(2) of this section, the emergency 4517
rule if filed as required by such division shall become effective 4518
at the later date, or later date and time of day, designated by 4519
the agency.4520

       An emergency rule becomes invalid at the end of the ninetieth 4521
day it is in effect. Prior to that date, the agency may file the 4522
emergency rule as a nonemergency rule in compliance with division 4523
(B)(1) of this section. The agency may not refile the emergency 4524
rule in compliance with division (B)(2) of this section so that, 4525
upon the emergency rule becoming invalid under such division, the 4526
emergency rule will continue in effect without interruption for 4527
another ninety-day period.4528

       (3) An agency shall file a rule under division (B)(1) or (2) 4529
of this section in compliance with the following standards and 4530
procedures:4531

       (a) The rule shall be numbered in accordance with the 4532
numbering system devised by the director for the Ohio 4533
administrative code.4534

       (b) The rule shall be prepared and submitted in compliance 4535
with the rules of the legislative service commission.4536

       (c) The rule shall clearly state the date on which it is to 4537
be effective and the date on which it will expire, if known.4538

       (d) Each rule that amends or rescinds another rule shall 4539
clearly refer to the rule that is amended or rescinded. Each 4540
amendment shall fully restate the rule as amended.4541

       If the director of the legislative service commission or the 4542
director's designee gives an agency notice pursuant to section 4543
103.05 of the Revised Code that a rule filed by the agency is not 4544
in compliance with the rules of the legislative service 4545
commission, the agency shall within thirty days after receipt of 4546
the notice conform the rule to the rules of the commission as 4547
directed in the notice.4548

       (C) All rules filed pursuant to divisions (B)(1)(a) and (2) 4549
of this section shall be recorded by the secretary of state and 4550
the director under the title of the agency adopting the rule and 4551
shall be numbered according to the numbering system devised by the 4552
director. The secretary of state and the director shall preserve 4553
the rules in an accessible manner. Each such rule shall be a 4554
public record open to public inspection and may be transmitted to 4555
any law publishing company that wishes to reproduce it.4556

       (D) At least sixty-five days before a board, commission, 4557
department, division, or bureau of the government of the state 4558
files a rule under division (B)(1) of this section, it shall file 4559
the full text of the proposed rule in electronic form with the 4560
joint committee on agency rule review, and the proposed rule is 4561
subject to legislative review and invalidation under division (I) 4562
of section 119.03 of the Revised Code. If a state board, 4563
commission, department, division, or bureau makes a substantive 4564
revision in a proposed rule after it is filed with the joint 4565
committee, the state board, commission, department, division, or 4566
bureau shall promptly file the full text of the proposed rule in 4567
its revised form in electronic form with the joint committee. The 4568
latest version of a proposed rule as filed with the joint 4569
committee supersedes each earlier version of the text of the same 4570
proposed rule. Except as provided in division (F) of this section, 4571
aA state board, commission, department, division, or bureau shall 4572
also file the rule summary and fiscal analysis prepared under 4573
section 127.18 of the Revised Code in electronic form along with a 4574
proposed rule, and along with a proposed rule in revised form, 4575
that is filed under this division. If a proposed rule has an 4576
adverse impact on businesses, the state board, commission, 4577
department, division, or bureau also shall file the business 4578
impact analysis, any recommendations received from the common 4579
sense initiative office, and the associated memorandum of 4580
response, if any, in electronic form along with the proposed rule, 4581
or the proposed rule in revised form, that is filed under this 4582
division.4583

       As used in this division, "commission" includes the public 4584
utilities commission when adopting rules under a federal or state 4585
statute.4586

       This division does not apply to any of the following:4587

       (1) A proposed rule of an emergency nature;4588

       (2) A rule proposed under section 1121.05, 1121.06, 1155.18, 4589
1163.22, 1349.33, 1707.201, 1733.412, 4123.29, 4123.34, 4123.341, 4590
4123.342, 4123.40, 4123.411, 4123.44, or 4123.442 of the Revised 4591
Code;4592

       (3) A rule proposed by an agency other than a board, 4593
commission, department, division, or bureau of the government of 4594
the state;4595

       (4) A proposed internal management rule of a board, 4596
commission, department, division, or bureau of the government of 4597
the state;4598

       (5) Any proposed rule that must be adopted verbatim by an 4599
agency pursuant to federal law or rule, to become effective within 4600
sixty days of adoption, in order to continue the operation of a 4601
federally reimbursed program in this state, so long as the 4602
proposed rule contains both of the following:4603

       (a) A statement that it is proposed for the purpose of 4604
complying with a federal law or rule;4605

       (b) A citation to the federal law or rule that requires 4606
verbatim compliance.4607

       (6) An initial rule proposed by the director of health to 4608
impose safety standards and quality-of-care standards with respect 4609
to a health service specified in section 3702.11 of the Revised 4610
Code, or an initial rule proposed by the director to impose 4611
quality standards on a facility listed in division (A)(4) of 4612
section 3702.30 of the Revised Code, if section 3702.12 of the 4613
Revised Code requires that the rule be adopted under this section;4614

       (7) A rule of the state lottery commission pertaining to 4615
instant game rules.4616

       If a rule is exempt from legislative review under division 4617
(D)(5) of this section, and if the federal law or rule pursuant to 4618
which the rule was adopted expires, is repealed or rescinded, or 4619
otherwise terminates, the rule is thereafter subject to 4620
legislative review under division (D) of this section.4621

       (E) Whenever a state board, commission, department, division, 4622
or bureau files a proposed rule or a proposed rule in revised form 4623
under division (D) of this section, it shall also file the full 4624
text of the same proposed rule or proposed rule in revised form in 4625
electronic form with the secretary of state and the director of 4626
the legislative service commission. Except as provided in division 4627
(F) of this section, aA state board, commission, department, 4628
division, or bureau shall file the rule summary and fiscal 4629
analysis prepared under section 127.18 of the Revised Code in 4630
electronic form along with a proposed rule or proposed rule in 4631
revised form that is filed with the secretary of state or the 4632
director of the legislative service commission.4633

       (F) Except as otherwise provided in this division, the 4634
auditor of state or the auditor of state's designee is not 4635
required to file a rule summary and fiscal analysis along with a 4636
proposed rule, or proposed rule in revised form, that the auditor 4637
of state proposes under section 117.12, 117.19, 117.38, or 117.43 4638
of the Revised Code and files under division (D) or (E) of this 4639
section.4640

       Sec. 111.28.  (A) There is hereby created in the state 4641
treasury the help America vote act (HAVA) fund. All moneys 4642
received by the secretary of state from the United States election 4643
assistance commission shall be credited to the fund. The secretary 4644
of state shall use the moneys credited to the fund for activities 4645
conducted pursuant to the "Help America Vote Act of 2002," Pub. L. 4646
No. 107-252, 116 Stat. 1666. All investment earnings of the fund 4647
shall be credited to the fund.4648

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 4649
election reform/health and human services fund. All moneys 4650
received by the secretary of state from the United States 4651
department of health and human services shall be credited to the 4652
fund. The secretary of state shall use the moneys credited to the 4653
fund for activities conducted pursuant to grants awarded to the 4654
state under Title II, Subtitle D, Sections 261 to 265 of the Help 4655
America Vote Act of 2002 to assure access for individuals with 4656
disabilities. All investment earnings of the fund shall be 4657
credited to the fund.4658

       (C) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 4659
miscellaneous federal grants fund. All moneys the secretary of 4660
state receives as grants from federal sources that are not 4661
otherwise designated shall be credited to the fund. The secretary 4662
of state shall use the moneys credited to the fund for the 4663
purposes and activities required by the applicable federal grant 4664
agreements. All investment earnings of the fund shall be credited 4665
to the fund.4666

       Sec. 113.02.  Before entering upon the discharge of the 4667
duties of his office, the treasurer of state shall give a bond to 4668
the state in the sum of one million dollars, with sureties 4669
approved by the governora surety authorized to do business in the 4670
state, conditioned for the faithful discharge of the duties of his4671
the office of treasurer of state. The bond, with the approval of 4672
the governor and the oath of office endorsed thereon, shall be 4673
deposited with and kept by the secretary of state and kept in his4674
the secretary of state's office.4675

       Sec. 113.061.  The treasurer of state shall adopt rules in 4676
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code governing the 4677
remittance of taxes by electronic funds transfer as required under 4678
sections 5726.03, 5727.311, 5727.83, 5733.022, 5735.062, 5736.04,4679
5739.032, 5745.04, and 5747.072, 5749.06, and 5751.07 of the 4680
Revised Code and any other section of the Revised Code under which 4681
a person is required to remit taxes by electronic funds transfer. 4682
The rules shall govern the modes of electronic funds transfer 4683
acceptable to the treasurer of state and under what circumstances 4684
each mode is acceptable, the content and format of electronic 4685
funds transfers, the coordination of payment by electronic funds 4686
transfer and filing of associated tax reports and returns, the 4687
remittance of taxes by means other than electronic funds transfer 4688
by persons otherwise required to do so but relieved of the 4689
requirement by the treasurer of state, and any other matter that 4690
in the opinion of the treasurer of state facilitates payment by 4691
electronic funds transfer in a manner consistent with those 4692
sections.4693

       Upon failure by a person, if so required, to remit taxes by 4694
electronic funds transfer in the manner prescribed under section4695
5726.03, 5727.83, 5733.022, 5735.062, 5736.04, 5739.032, 5745.04, 4696
or 5747.072, 5749.06, or 5751.07 of the Revised Code and rules 4697
adopted under this section, the treasurer of state shall notify 4698
the tax commissioner of such failure if the treasurer of state 4699
determines that such failure was not due to reasonable cause or 4700
was due to willful neglect, and shall provide the tax commissioner 4701
with any information used in making that determination. The tax 4702
commissioner may assess an additional charge as specified in the 4703
respective section of the Revised Code governing the requirement 4704
to remit taxes by electronic funds transfer.4705

       The treasurer of state may implement means of acknowledging, 4706
upon the request of a taxpayer, receipt of tax remittances made by 4707
electronic funds transfer, and may adopt rules governing 4708
acknowledgments. The cost of acknowledging receipt of electronic 4709
remittances shall be paid by the person requesting acknowledgment.4710

       The treasurer of state, not the tax commissioner, is 4711
responsible for resolving any problems involving electronic funds 4712
transfer transmissions.4713

       Sec. 117.03.  Before entering upon the discharge of the 4714
duties of his office, the auditor of state shall give a bond to 4715
the state in the sum of twenty thousand dollars, with a surety 4716
approved by the governorauthorized to do business in the state, 4717
conditioned for the faithful discharge of the duties of histhe4718
office of auditor of state. The bond, with the approval of the 4719
governor and the oath of office endorsed thereon, shall be 4720
deposited with and kept by the secretary of state and kept in his4721
the secretary of state's office.4722

       Sec. 117.10.  The auditor of state shall audit all public 4723
offices as provided in this chapter. The auditor of state also may 4724
audit the accounts of private institutions, associations, boards, 4725
and corporations receiving public money for their use and may 4726
require of them annual reports in such form as the auditor of 4727
state prescribes.4728

       If the auditor of state performs or contracts for the 4729
performance of an audit, including a special audit, of the public 4730
employees retirement system, school employees retirement system, 4731
state teachers retirement system, state highway patrol retirement 4732
system, or Ohio police and fire pension fund, the auditor of state 4733
shall make a timely report of the results of the audit to the Ohio 4734
retirement study council.4735

       The auditor of state may audit the accounts of any medicaid4736
provider, as defined in section 5111.065164.01 of the Revised 4737
Code.4738

       If a public office has been audited by an agency of the 4739
United States government, the auditor of state may, if satisfied 4740
that the federal audit has been conducted according to principles 4741
and procedures not contrary to those of the auditor of state, use 4742
and adopt the federal audit and report in lieu of an audit by the 4743
auditor of state's own office.4744

       Within thirty days after the creation or dissolution or the 4745
winding up of the affairs of any public office, that public office 4746
shall notify the auditor of state in writing that this action has 4747
occurred.4748

       Sec. 117.20.  (A) In adopting rules pursuant to Chapter 117. 4749
of the Revised Code, the auditor of state or the auditor of 4750
state's designee shall do both of the following:4751

       (1) Before adopting any such rule, except a rule of an 4752
emergency nature, do each of the following:4753

       (a) At least thirty-five days before any public hearing on 4754
the proposed rule-making action, mail or send by electronic mail4755
notice of the hearing to each public office and to each statewide 4756
organization that the auditor of state or designee determines will 4757
be affected or represents persons who will be affected by the 4758
proposed rule-making action;4759

       (b) Mail or send by electronic mail a copy of the proposed 4760
rule to any person or organization that requests a copy within 4761
five days after receipt of the request;4762

       (c) Consult with appropriate state and local government 4763
agencies, or with persons representative of their interests, 4764
including statewide organizations of local government officials, 4765
and consult with accounting professionals and other interested 4766
persons;4767

       (d) Conduct, on the date and at the time and place designated 4768
in the notice, a public hearing at which any person affected by 4769
the proposed rule, including statewide organizations of local 4770
government officials, may appear and be heard in person, by 4771
attorney, or both, and may present the person's or organization's 4772
position or contentions orally or in writing.4773

       (2) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(2) of this 4774
section, complyComply with divisions (B) to (E) of section 111.15 4775
of the Revised Code. The auditor of state is not required to file 4776
a rule summary and fiscal analysis along with any copy of a 4777
proposed rule, or proposed rule in revised form, that is filed 4778
with the joint committee on agency rule review, the secretary of 4779
state, or the director of the legislative service commission under 4780
division (D) or (E) of section 111.15 of the Revised Code.4781

       (B) The auditor of state shall diligently discharge the 4782
duties imposed by divisions (A)(1)(a), (b), and (c) of this 4783
section, but failure to mail or send by electronic mail any notice 4784
or copy of a proposed rule, or to consult with any person or 4785
organization, shall not invalidate any rule.4786

       (C) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of the Revised 4787
Code, the auditor of state may prepare and disseminate, to public 4788
offices and other interested persons and organizations, advisory 4789
bulletins, directives, and instructions relating to accounting and 4790
financial reporting systems, budgeting procedures, fiscal 4791
controls, and the constructions by the auditor of state of 4792
constitutional and statutory provisions, court decisions, and 4793
opinions of the attorney general. The bulletins, directives, and 4794
instructions shall be of an advisory nature only.4795

       (D) As used in this section, "rule" includes the adoption, 4796
amendment, or rescission of a rule.4797

       Sec. 119.01.  As used in sections 119.01 to 119.13 of the 4798
Revised Code:4799

       (A)(1) "Agency" means, except as limited by this division, 4800
any official, board, or commission having authority to promulgate 4801
rules or make adjudications in the civil service commission, the 4802
division of liquor control, the department of taxation, the 4803
industrial commission, the bureau of workers' compensation, the 4804
functions of any administrative or executive officer, department, 4805
division, bureau, board, or commission of the government of the 4806
state specifically made subject to sections 119.01 to 119.13 of 4807
the Revised Code, and the licensing functions of any 4808
administrative or executive officer, department, division, bureau, 4809
board, or commission of the government of the state having the 4810
authority or responsibility of issuing, suspending, revoking, or 4811
canceling licenses.4812

       Except as otherwise provided in division (I) of this section, 4813
sections 119.01 to 119.13 of the Revised Code do not apply to the 4814
public utilities commission. Sections 119.01 to 119.13 of the 4815
Revised Code do not apply to the utility radiological safety 4816
board; to the controlling board; to actions of the superintendent 4817
of financial institutions and the superintendent of insurance in 4818
the taking possession of, and rehabilitation or liquidation of, 4819
the business and property of banks, savings and loan associations, 4820
savings banks, credit unions, insurance companies, associations, 4821
reciprocal fraternal benefit societies, and bond investment 4822
companies; to any action taken by the division of securities under 4823
section 1707.201 of the Revised Code; or to any action that may be 4824
taken by the superintendent of financial institutions under 4825
section 1113.03, 1121.06, 1121.10, 1125.09, 1125.12, 1125.18, 4826
1157.09, 1157.12, 1157.18, 1165.09, 1165.12, 1165.18, 1349.33, 4827
1733.35, 1733.361, 1733.37, or 1761.03 of the Revised Code.4828

       Sections 119.01 to 119.13 of the Revised Code do not apply to 4829
actions of the industrial commission or the bureau of workers' 4830
compensation under sections 4123.01 to 4123.94 of the Revised Code 4831
with respect to all matters of adjudication, or to the actions of 4832
the industrial commission, bureau of workers' compensation board 4833
of directors, and bureau of workers' compensation under division 4834
(D) of section 4121.32, sections 4123.29, 4123.34, 4123.341, 4835
4123.342, 4123.40, 4123.411, 4123.44, 4123.442, 4127.07, divisions 4836
(B), (C), and (E) of section 4131.04, and divisions (B), (C), and 4837
(E) of section 4131.14 of the Revised Code with respect to all 4838
matters concerning the establishment of premium, contribution, and 4839
assessment rates.4840

       (2) "Agency" also means any official or work unit having 4841
authority to promulgate rules or make adjudications in the 4842
department of job and family services, but only with respect to 4843
both of the following:4844

       (a) The adoption, amendment, or rescission of rules that 4845
section 5101.09 of the Revised Code requires be adopted in 4846
accordance with this chapter;4847

       (b) The issuance, suspension, revocation, or cancellation of 4848
licenses.4849

       (B) "License" means any license, permit, certificate, 4850
commission, or charter issued by any agency. "License" does not 4851
include any arrangement whereby a person, institution, or 4852
government entity furnishes medicaid services under a provider 4853
agreement with the department of job and family services pursuant 4854
to Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 4855
U.S.C. 301, as amendedmedicaid.4856

       (C) "Rule" means any rule, regulation, or standard, having a 4857
general and uniform operation, adopted, promulgated, and enforced 4858
by any agency under the authority of the laws governing such 4859
agency, and includes any appendix to a rule. "Rule" does not 4860
include any internal management rule of an agency unless the 4861
internal management rule affects private rights and does not 4862
include any guideline adopted pursuant to section 3301.0714 of the 4863
Revised Code.4864

       (D) "Adjudication" means the determination by the highest or 4865
ultimate authority of an agency of the rights, duties, privileges, 4866
benefits, or legal relationships of a specified person, but does 4867
not include the issuance of a license in response to an 4868
application with respect to which no question is raised, nor other 4869
acts of a ministerial nature.4870

       (E) "Hearing" means a public hearing by any agency in 4871
compliance with procedural safeguards afforded by sections 119.01 4872
to 119.13 of the Revised Code.4873

       (F) "Person" means a person, firm, corporation, association, 4874
or partnership.4875

       (G) "Party" means the person whose interests are the subject 4876
of an adjudication by an agency.4877

       (H) "Appeal" means the procedure by which a person, aggrieved 4878
by a finding, decision, order, or adjudication of any agency, 4879
invokes the jurisdiction of a court.4880

       (I) "Rule-making agency" means any board, commission, 4881
department, division, or bureau of the government of the state 4882
that is required to file proposed rules, amendments, or 4883
rescissions under division (D) of section 111.15 of the Revised 4884
Code and any agency that is required to file proposed rules, 4885
amendments, or rescissions under divisions (B) and (H) of section 4886
119.03 of the Revised Code. "Rule-making agency" includes the 4887
public utilities commission. "Rule-making agency" does not include 4888
any state-supported college or university.4889

       (J) "Substantive revision" means any addition to, elimination 4890
from, or other change in a rule, an amendment of a rule, or a 4891
rescission of a rule, whether of a substantive or procedural 4892
nature, that changes any of the following:4893

       (1) That which the rule, amendment, or rescission permits, 4894
authorizes, regulates, requires, prohibits, penalizes, rewards, or 4895
otherwise affects;4896

       (2) The scope or application of the rule, amendment, or 4897
rescission.4898

       (K) "Internal management rule" means any rule, regulation, or 4899
standard governing the day-to-day staff procedures and operations 4900
within an agency.4901

       Sec. 120.06.  (A)(1) The state public defender, when 4902
designated by the court or requested by a county public defender 4903
or joint county public defender, may provide legal representation 4904
in all courts throughout the state to indigent adults and 4905
juveniles who are charged with the commission of an offense or act 4906
for which the penalty or any possible adjudication includes the 4907
potential loss of liberty.4908

       (2) The state public defender may provide legal 4909
representation to any indigent person who, while incarcerated in 4910
any state correctional institution, is charged with a felony 4911
offense, for which the penalty or any possible adjudication that 4912
may be imposed by a court upon conviction includes the potential 4913
loss of liberty.4914

       (3) The state public defender may provide legal 4915
representation to any person incarcerated in any correctional 4916
institution of the state, in any matter in which the person 4917
asserts the person is unlawfully imprisoned or detained.4918

       (4) The state public defender, in any case in which the state 4919
public defender has provided legal representation or is requested 4920
to do so by a county public defender or joint county public 4921
defender, may provide legal representation on appeal.4922

       (5) The state public defender, when designated by the court 4923
or requested by a county public defender, joint county public 4924
defender, or the director of rehabilitation and correction, shall 4925
provide legal representation in parole and probation revocation 4926
matters or matters relating to the revocation of community control 4927
or post-release control under a community control sanction or 4928
post-release control sanction, unless the state public defender 4929
finds that the alleged parole or probation violator or alleged 4930
violator of a community control sanction or post-release control 4931
sanction has the financial capacity to retain the alleged 4932
violator's own counsel.4933

       (6) The state public defender, when designated by the court 4934
or requested by a county public defender, joint county public 4935
defender, the director of rehabilitation and correction, or the 4936
director of youth services, shall provide legal representation to 4937
a child confined in a facility operated, or contracted for, by the 4938
department of youth services, on administrative issues that may 4939
extend the period of the child's confinement in a facility 4940
operated, or contracted for, by the department of youth services, 4941
unless the state public defender finds that the child has the 4942
financial capacity to retain the child's own counsel.4943

       (7) If the state public defender contracts with a county 4944
public defender commission, a joint county public defender 4945
commission, or a board of county commissioners for the provision 4946
of services, under authority of division (C)(7) of section 120.04 4947
of the Revised Code, the state public defender shall provide legal 4948
representation in accordance with the contract.4949

       (B) The state public defender shall not be required to 4950
prosecute any appeal, postconviction remedy, or other proceeding 4951
pursuant to division (A)(3), (4), or (5), or (6) of this section, 4952
unless the state public defender first is satisfied that there is 4953
arguable merit to the proceeding.4954

       (C) A court may appoint counsel or allow an indigent person 4955
to select the indigent's own personal counsel to assist the state 4956
public defender as co-counsel when the interests of justice so 4957
require. When co-counsel is appointed to assist the state public 4958
defender, the co-counsel shall receive any compensation that the 4959
court may approve, not to exceed the amounts provided for in 4960
section 2941.51 of the Revised Code.4961

       (D)(1) When the state public defender is designated by the 4962
court or requested by a county public defender or joint county 4963
public defender to provide legal representation for an indigent 4964
person in any case, other than pursuant to a contract entered into 4965
under authority of division (C)(7) of section 120.04 of the 4966
Revised Code, the state public defender shall send to the county 4967
in which the case is filed a bill detailing the actual cost of the 4968
representation that separately itemizes legal fees and expenses. 4969
The county, upon receipt of an itemized bill from the state public 4970
defender pursuant to this division, shall pay the state public 4971
defender each of the following amounts:4972

       (a) For the amount identified as legal fees in the itemized 4973
bill, one hundred per cent of the amount identified as legal fees 4974
less the state reimbursement rate as calculated by the state 4975
public defender pursuant to section 120.34 of the Revised Code for 4976
the month the case terminated, as set forth in the itemized bill;4977

       (b) For the amount identified as expenses in the itemized 4978
bill, one hundred per cent.4979

       (2) Upon payment of the itemized bill under division (D)(1) 4980
of this section, the county may submit the cost of the expenses, 4981
excluding legal fees, to the state public defender for 4982
reimbursement pursuant to section 120.33 of the Revised Code.4983

       (3) When the state public defender provides investigation or 4984
mitigation services to private appointed counsel or to a county or 4985
joint county public defender as approved by the appointing court, 4986
other than pursuant to a contract entered into under authority of 4987
division (C)(7) of section 120.04 of the Revised Code, the state 4988
public defender shall send to the county in which the case is 4989
filed a bill itemizing the actual cost of the services provided. 4990
The county, upon receipt of an itemized bill from the state public 4991
defender pursuant to this division, shall pay one hundred per cent 4992
of the amount as set forth in the itemized bill. Upon payment of 4993
the itemized bill received pursuant to this division, the county 4994
may submit the cost of the investigation and mitigation services 4995
to the state public defender for reimbursement pursuant to section 4996
120.33 of the Revised Code.4997

       (4) There is hereby created in the state treasury the county 4998
representation fund for the deposit of moneys received from 4999
counties under this division. All moneys credited to the fund 5000
shall be used by the state public defender to provide legal 5001
representation for indigent persons when designated by the court 5002
or requested by a county or joint county public defender or to 5003
provide investigation or mitigation services, including 5004
investigation or mitigation services to private appointed counsel 5005
or a county or joint county public defender, as approved by the 5006
court.5007

       (E)(1) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of sections 5008
109.02, 109.07, 109.361 to 109.366, and 120.03 of the Revised Code 5009
that pertains to representation by the attorney general, an 5010
assistant attorney general, or special counsel of an officer or 5011
employee, as defined in section 109.36 of the Revised Code, or of 5012
an entity of state government, the state public defender may elect 5013
to contract with, and to have the state pay pursuant to division 5014
(E)(2) of this section for the services of, private legal counsel 5015
to represent the Ohio public defender commission, the state public 5016
defender, assistant state public defenders, other employees of the 5017
commission or the state public defender, and attorneys described 5018
in division (C) of section 120.41 of the Revised Code in a 5019
malpractice or other civil action or proceeding that arises from 5020
alleged actions or omissions related to responsibilities derived 5021
pursuant to this chapter, or in a civil action that is based upon 5022
alleged violations of the constitution or statutes of the United 5023
States, including section 1983 of Title 42 of the United States 5024
Code, 93 Stat. 1284 (1979), 42 U.S.C.A. 1983, as amended, and that 5025
arises from alleged actions or omissions related to 5026
responsibilities derived pursuant to this chapter, if the state 5027
public defender determines, in good faith, that the defendant in 5028
the civil action or proceeding did not act manifestly outside the 5029
scope of the defendant's employment or official responsibilities, 5030
with malicious purpose, in bad faith, or in a wanton or reckless 5031
manner. If the state public defender elects not to contract 5032
pursuant to this division for private legal counsel in a civil 5033
action or proceeding, then, in accordance with sections 109.02, 5034
109.07, 109.361 to 109.366, and 120.03 of the Revised Code, the 5035
attorney general shall represent or provide for the representation 5036
of the Ohio public defender commission, the state public defender, 5037
assistant state public defenders, other employees of the 5038
commission or the state public defender, or attorneys described in 5039
division (C) of section 120.41 of the Revised Code in the civil 5040
action or proceeding.5041

       (2)(a) Subject to division (E)(2)(b) of this section, payment 5042
from the state treasury for the services of private legal counsel 5043
with whom the state public defender has contracted pursuant to 5044
division (E)(1) of this section shall be accomplished only through 5045
the following procedure:5046

       (i) The private legal counsel shall file with the attorney 5047
general a copy of the contract; a request for an award of legal 5048
fees, court costs, and expenses earned or incurred in connection 5049
with the defense of the Ohio public defender commission, the state 5050
public defender, an assistant state public defender, an employee, 5051
or an attorney in a specified civil action or proceeding; a 5052
written itemization of those fees, costs, and expenses, including 5053
the signature of the state public defender and the state public 5054
defender's attestation that the fees, costs, and expenses were 5055
earned or incurred pursuant to division (E)(1) of this section to 5056
the best of the state public defender's knowledge and information; 5057
a written statement whether the fees, costs, and expenses are for 5058
all legal services to be rendered in connection with that defense, 5059
are only for legal services rendered to the date of the request 5060
and additional legal services likely will have to be provided in 5061
connection with that defense, or are for the final legal services 5062
rendered in connection with that defense; a written statement 5063
indicating whether the private legal counsel previously submitted 5064
a request for an award under division (E)(2) of this section in 5065
connection with that defense and, if so, the date and the amount 5066
of each award granted; and, if the fees, costs, and expenses are 5067
for all legal services to be rendered in connection with that 5068
defense or are for the final legal services rendered in connection 5069
with that defense, a certified copy of any judgment entry in the 5070
civil action or proceeding or a signed copy of any settlement 5071
agreement entered into between the parties to the civil action or 5072
proceeding.5073

       (ii) Upon receipt of a request for an award of legal fees, 5074
court costs, and expenses and the requisite supportive 5075
documentation described in division (E)(2)(a)(i) of this section, 5076
the attorney general shall review the request and documentation; 5077
determine whether any of the limitations specified in division 5078
(E)(2)(b) of this section apply to the request; and, if an award 5079
of legal fees, court costs, or expenses is permissible after 5080
applying the limitations, prepare a document awarding legal fees, 5081
court costs, or expenses to the private legal counsel. The 5082
document shall name the private legal counsel as the recipient of 5083
the award; specify the total amount of the award as determined by 5084
the attorney general; itemize the portions of the award that 5085
represent legal fees, court costs, and expenses; specify any 5086
limitation applied pursuant to division (E)(2)(b) of this section 5087
to reduce the amount of the award sought by the private legal 5088
counsel; state that the award is payable from the state treasury 5089
pursuant to division (E)(2)(a)(iii) of this section; and be 5090
approved by the inclusion of the signatures of the attorney 5091
general, the state public defender, and the private legal counsel.5092

       (iii) The attorney general shall forward a copy of the 5093
document prepared pursuant to division (E)(2)(a)(ii) of this 5094
section to the director of budget and management. The award of 5095
legal fees, court costs, or expenses shall be paid out of the 5096
state public defender's appropriations, to the extent there is a 5097
sufficient available balance in those appropriations. If the state 5098
public defender does not have a sufficient available balance in 5099
the state public defender's appropriations to pay the entire award 5100
of legal fees, court costs, or expenses, the director shall make 5101
application for a transfer of appropriations out of the emergency 5102
purposes account or any other appropriation for emergencies or 5103
contingencies in an amount equal to the portion of the award that 5104
exceeds the sufficient available balance in the state public 5105
defender's appropriations. A transfer of appropriations out of the 5106
emergency purposes account or any other appropriation for 5107
emergencies or contingencies shall be authorized if there are 5108
sufficient moneys greater than the sum total of then pending 5109
emergency purposes account requests, or requests for releases from 5110
the other appropriation. If a transfer of appropriations out of 5111
the emergency purposes account or other appropriation for 5112
emergencies or contingencies is made to pay an amount equal to the 5113
portion of the award that exceeds the sufficient available balance 5114
in the state public defender's appropriations, the director shall 5115
cause the payment to be made to the private legal counsel. If 5116
sufficient moneys do not exist in the emergency purposes account 5117
or other appropriation for emergencies or contingencies to pay an 5118
amount equal to the portion of the award that exceeds the 5119
sufficient available balance in the state public defender's 5120
appropriations, the private legal counsel shall request the 5121
general assembly to make an appropriation sufficient to pay an 5122
amount equal to the portion of the award that exceeds the 5123
sufficient available balance in the state public defender's 5124
appropriations, and no payment in that amount shall be made until 5125
the appropriation has been made. The private legal counsel shall 5126
make the request during the current biennium and during each 5127
succeeding biennium until a sufficient appropriation is made.5128

       (b) An award of legal fees, court costs, and expenses 5129
pursuant to division (E) of this section is subject to the 5130
following limitations:5131

       (i) The maximum award or maximum aggregate of a series of 5132
awards of legal fees, court costs, and expenses to the private 5133
legal counsel in connection with the defense of the Ohio public 5134
defender commission, the state public defender, an assistant state 5135
public defender, an employee, or an attorney in a specified civil 5136
action or proceeding shall not exceed fifty thousand dollars.5137

       (ii) The private legal counsel shall not be awarded legal 5138
fees, court costs, or expenses to the extent the fees, costs, or 5139
expenses are covered by a policy of malpractice or other 5140
insurance.5141

       (iii) The private legal counsel shall be awarded legal fees 5142
and expenses only to the extent that the fees and expenses are 5143
reasonable in light of the legal services rendered by the private 5144
legal counsel in connection with the defense of the Ohio public 5145
defender commission, the state public defender, an assistant state 5146
public defender, an employee, or an attorney in a specified civil 5147
action or proceeding.5148

       (c) If, pursuant to division (E)(2)(a) of this section, the 5149
attorney general denies a request for an award of legal fees, 5150
court costs, or expenses to private legal counsel because of the 5151
application of a limitation specified in division (E)(2)(b) of 5152
this section, the attorney general shall notify the private legal 5153
counsel in writing of the denial and of the limitation applied.5154

       (d) If, pursuant to division (E)(2)(c) of this section, a 5155
private legal counsel receives a denial of an award notification 5156
or if a private legal counsel refuses to approve a document under 5157
division (E)(2)(a)(ii) of this section because of the proposed 5158
application of a limitation specified in division (E)(2)(b) of 5159
this section, the private legal counsel may commence a civil 5160
action against the attorney general in the court of claims to 5161
prove the private legal counsel's entitlement to the award sought, 5162
to prove that division (E)(2)(b) of this section does not prohibit 5163
or otherwise limit the award sought, and to recover a judgment for 5164
the amount of the award sought. A civil action under division 5165
(E)(2)(d) of this section shall be commenced no later than two 5166
years after receipt of a denial of award notification or, if the 5167
private legal counsel refused to approve a document under division 5168
(E)(2)(a)(ii) of this section because of the proposed application 5169
of a limitation specified in division (E)(2)(b) of this section, 5170
no later than two years after the refusal. Any judgment of the 5171
court of claims in favor of the private legal counsel shall be 5172
paid from the state treasury in accordance with division (E)(2)(a) 5173
of this section.5174

       (F) If a court appoints the office of the state public 5175
defender to represent a petitioner in a postconviction relief 5176
proceeding under section 2953.21 of the Revised Code, the 5177
petitioner has received a sentence of death, and the proceeding 5178
relates to that sentence, all of the attorneys who represent the 5179
petitioner in the proceeding pursuant to the appointment, whether 5180
an assistant state public defender, the state public defender, or 5181
another attorney, shall be certified under Rule 20 of the Rules of 5182
Superintendence for the Courts of Ohio to represent indigent 5183
defendants charged with or convicted of an offense for which the 5184
death penalty can be or has been imposed.5185

       (G)(1) The state public defender may conduct a legal 5186
assistance referral service for children committed to the 5187
department of youth services relative to conditions of confinement 5188
claims. If the legal assistance referral service receives a 5189
request for assistance from a child confined in a facility 5190
operated, or contracted for, by the department of youth services 5191
and the state public defender determines that the child has a 5192
conditions of confinement claim that has merit, the state public 5193
defender may refer the child to a private attorney. If no private 5194
attorney who the child has been referred to by the state public 5195
defender accepts the case within a reasonable time, the state 5196
public defender may prepare, as appropriate, pro se pleadings in 5197
the form of a complaint regarding the conditions of confinement at 5198
the facility where the child is confined with a motion for 5199
appointment of counsel and other applicable pleadings necessary 5200
for sufficient pro se representation.5201

        (2) Division (G)(1) of this section does not authorize the 5202
state public defender to represent a child committed to the 5203
department of youth services in general civil matters arising 5204
solely out of state law. 5205

       (3) The state public defender shall not undertake the 5206
representation of a child in court based on a conditions of 5207
confinement claim arising under this division.5208

       (H) A child's right to representation or services under this 5209
section is not affected by the child, or another person on behalf 5210
of the child, previously having paid for similar representation or 5211
services or having waived legal representation.5212

        (I) The state public defender shall have reasonable access to 5213
any child committed to the department of youth services, 5214
department of youth services institution, and department of youth 5215
services record as needed to implement this section.5216

        (J) As used in this section:5217

       (1) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 5218
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.5219

       (2) "Conditions of confinement" means any issue involving a 5220
constitutional right or other civil right related to a child's 5221
incarceration, including, but not limited to, actions cognizable 5222
under 42 U.S.C. 1983.5223

        (3) "Post-release control sanction" has the same meaning as 5224
in section 2967.01 of the Revised Code.5225

       Sec. 121.02.  The following administrative departments and 5226
their respective directors are hereby created:5227

       (A) The office of budget and management, which shall be 5228
administered by the director of budget and management;5229

       (B) The department of commerce, which shall be administered 5230
by the director of commerce;5231

       (C) The department of administrative services, which shall be 5232
administered by the director of administrative services;5233

       (D) The department of transportation, which shall be 5234
administered by the director of transportation;5235

       (E) The department of agriculture, which shall be 5236
administered by the director of agriculture;5237

       (F) The department of natural resources, which shall be 5238
administered by the director of natural resources;5239

       (G) The department of health, which shall be administered by 5240
the director of health;5241

       (H) The department of job and family services, which shall be 5242
administered by the director of job and family services;5243

       (I) Until July 1, 1997, the department of liquor control, 5244
which shall be administered by the director of liquor control;5245

       (J) The department of public safety, which shall be 5246
administered by the director of public safety;5247

       (K) The department of mental healthmental health and 5248
addiction services, which shall be administered by the director of 5249
mental healthmental health and addiction services;5250

       (L) The department of developmental disabilities, which shall 5251
be administered by the director of developmental disabilities;5252

       (M) The department of insurance, which shall be administered 5253
by the superintendent of insurance as director thereof;5254

       (N) The development services agency, which shall be 5255
administered by the director of development services;5256

       (O) The department of youth services, which shall be 5257
administered by the director of youth services;5258

       (P) The department of rehabilitation and correction, which 5259
shall be administered by the director of rehabilitation and 5260
correction;5261

       (Q) The environmental protection agency, which shall be 5262
administered by the director of environmental protection;5263

       (R) The department of aging, which shall be administered by 5264
the director of aging;5265

       (S) The department of alcohol and drug addiction services, 5266
which shall be administered by the director of alcohol and drug 5267
addiction services;5268

       (T) The department of veterans services, which shall be 5269
administered by the director of veterans services;5270

       (T) The department of medicaid, which shall be administered 5271
by the medicaid director.5272

       The director of each department shall exercise the powers and 5273
perform the duties vested by law in such department.5274

       Sec. 121.03.  The following administrative department heads 5275
shall be appointed by the governor, with the advice and consent of 5276
the senate, and shall hold their offices during the term of the 5277
appointing governor, and are subject to removal at the pleasure of 5278
the governor.5279

       (A) The director of budget and management;5280

       (B) The director of commerce;5281

       (C) The director of transportation;5282

       (D) The director of agriculture;5283

       (E) The director of job and family services;5284

       (F) Until July 1, 1997, the director of liquor control;5285

       (G) The director of public safety;5286

       (H) The superintendent of insurance;5287

       (I) The director of development services;5288

       (J) The tax commissioner;5289

       (K) The director of administrative services;5290

       (L) The director of natural resources;5291

       (M) The director of mental healthmental health and addiction 5292
services;5293

       (N) The director of developmental disabilities;5294

       (O) The director of health;5295

       (P) The director of youth services;5296

       (Q) The director of rehabilitation and correction;5297

       (R) The director of environmental protection;5298

       (S) The director of aging;5299

       (T) The director of alcohol and drug addiction services;5300

       (U) The administrator of workers' compensation who meets the 5301
qualifications required under division (A) of section 4121.121 of 5302
the Revised Code;5303

       (V)(U) The director of veterans services who meets the 5304
qualifications required under section 5902.01 of the Revised Code;5305

       (W)(V) The chancellor of the Ohio board of regents;5306

       (W) The medicaid director.5307

       Sec. 121.22.  (A) This section shall be liberally construed 5308
to require public officials to take official action and to conduct 5309
all deliberations upon official business only in open meetings 5310
unless the subject matter is specifically excepted by law.5311

       (B) As used in this section:5312

       (1) "Public body" means any of the following:5313

       (a) Any board, commission, committee, council, or similar 5314
decision-making body of a state agency, institution, or authority, 5315
and any legislative authority or board, commission, committee, 5316
council, agency, authority, or similar decision-making body of any 5317
county, township, municipal corporation, school district, or other 5318
political subdivision or local public institution;5319

       (b) Any committee or subcommittee of a body described in 5320
division (B)(1)(a) of this section;5321

       (c) A court of jurisdiction of a sanitary district organized 5322
wholly for the purpose of providing a water supply for domestic, 5323
municipal, and public use when meeting for the purpose of the 5324
appointment, removal, or reappointment of a member of the board of 5325
directors of such a district pursuant to section 6115.10 of the 5326
Revised Code, if applicable, or for any other matter related to 5327
such a district other than litigation involving the district. As 5328
used in division (B)(1)(c) of this section, "court of 5329
jurisdiction" has the same meaning as "court" in section 6115.01 5330
of the Revised Code.5331

       (2) "Meeting" means any prearranged discussion of the public 5332
business of the public body by a majority of its members.5333

       (3) "Regulated individual" means either of the following:5334

       (a) A student in a state or local public educational 5335
institution;5336

       (b) A person who is, voluntarily or involuntarily, an inmate, 5337
patient, or resident of a state or local institution because of 5338
criminal behavior, mental illness or retardation, disease, 5339
disability, age, or other condition requiring custodial care.5340

       (4) "Public office" has the same meaning as in section 5341
149.011 of the Revised Code.5342

       (C) All meetings of any public body are declared to be public 5343
meetings open to the public at all times. A member of a public 5344
body shall be present in person at a meeting open to the public to 5345
be considered present or to vote at the meeting and for purposes 5346
of determining whether a quorum is present at the meeting.5347

       The minutes of a regular or special meeting of any public 5348
body shall be promptly prepared, filed, and maintained and shall 5349
be open to public inspection. The minutes need only reflect the 5350
general subject matter of discussions in executive sessions 5351
authorized under division (G) or (J) of this section.5352

       (D) This section does not apply to any of the following:5353

       (1) A grand jury;5354

       (2) An audit conference conducted by the auditor of state or 5355
independent certified public accountants with officials of the 5356
public office that is the subject of the audit;5357

       (3) The adult parole authority when its hearings are 5358
conducted at a correctional institution for the sole purpose of 5359
interviewing inmates to determine parole or pardon;5360

       (4) The organized crime investigations commission established 5361
under section 177.01 of the Revised Code;5362

       (5) Meetings of a child fatality review board established 5363
under section 307.621 of the Revised Code and meetings conducted 5364
pursuant to sections 5153.171 to 5153.173 of the Revised Code;5365

       (6) The state medical board when determining whether to 5366
suspend a certificate without a prior hearing pursuant to division 5367
(G) of either section 4730.25 or 4731.22 of the Revised Code;5368

       (7) The board of nursing when determining whether to suspend 5369
a license or certificate without a prior hearing pursuant to 5370
division (B) of section 4723.281 of the Revised Code;5371

       (8) The state board of pharmacy when determining whether to 5372
suspend a license without a prior hearing pursuant to division (D) 5373
of section 4729.16 of the Revised Code;5374

       (9) The state chiropractic board when determining whether to 5375
suspend a license without a hearing pursuant to section 4734.37 of 5376
the Revised Code;5377

       (10) The executive committee of the emergency response 5378
commission when determining whether to issue an enforcement order 5379
or request that a civil action, civil penalty action, or criminal 5380
action be brought to enforce Chapter 3750. of the Revised Code;5381

       (11) The board of directors of the nonprofit corporation 5382
formed under section 187.01 of the Revised Code or any committee 5383
thereof, and the board of directors of any subsidiary of that 5384
corporation or a committee thereof;5385

       (12) An audit conference conducted by the audit staff of the 5386
department of job and family services with officials of the public 5387
office that is the subject of that audit under section 5101.37 of 5388
the Revised Code;5389

       (13) The occupational therapy section of the occupational 5390
therapy, physical therapy, and athletic trainers board when 5391
determining whether to suspend a license or limited permit without 5392
a hearing pursuant to division (D) of section 4755.11 of the 5393
Revised Code;5394

       (14) The physical therapy section of the occupational 5395
therapy, physical therapy, and athletic trainers board when 5396
determining whether to suspend a license without a hearing 5397
pursuant to division (E) of section 4755.47 of the Revised Code;5398

       (15) The athletic trainers section of the occupational 5399
therapy, physical therapy, and athletic trainers board when 5400
determining whether to suspend a license without a hearing 5401
pursuant to division (D) of section 4755.64 of the Revised Code.5402

       (E) The controlling board, the industrial technology and 5403
enterprise advisory council, the tax credit authority, or the 5404
minority development financing advisory board, when meeting to 5405
consider granting assistance pursuant to Chapter 122. or 166. of 5406
the Revised Code, in order to protect the interest of the 5407
applicant or the possible investment of public funds, by unanimous 5408
vote of all board, council, or authority members present, may 5409
close the meeting during consideration of the following 5410
information confidentially received by the authority, council, or 5411
board from the applicant:5412

       (1) Marketing plans;5413

       (2) Specific business strategy;5414

       (3) Production techniques and trade secrets;5415

       (4) Financial projections;5416

       (5) Personal financial statements of the applicant or members 5417
of the applicant's immediate family, including, but not limited 5418
to, tax records or other similar information not open to public 5419
inspection.5420

       The vote by the authority, council, or board to accept or 5421
reject the application, as well as all proceedings of the 5422
authority, council, or board not subject to this division, shall 5423
be open to the public and governed by this section.5424

       (F) Every public body, by rule, shall establish a reasonable 5425
method whereby any person may determine the time and place of all 5426
regularly scheduled meetings and the time, place, and purpose of 5427
all special meetings. A public body shall not hold a special 5428
meeting unless it gives at least twenty-four hours' advance notice 5429
to the news media that have requested notification, except in the 5430
event of an emergency requiring immediate official action. In the 5431
event of an emergency, the member or members calling the meeting 5432
shall notify the news media that have requested notification 5433
immediately of the time, place, and purpose of the meeting.5434

       The rule shall provide that any person, upon request and 5435
payment of a reasonable fee, may obtain reasonable advance 5436
notification of all meetings at which any specific type of public 5437
business is to be discussed. Provisions for advance notification 5438
may include, but are not limited to, mailing the agenda of 5439
meetings to all subscribers on a mailing list or mailing notices 5440
in self-addressed, stamped envelopes provided by the person.5441

       (G) Except as provided in division (J) of this section, the 5442
members of a public body may hold an executive session only after 5443
a majority of a quorum of the public body determines, by a roll 5444
call vote, to hold an executive session and only at a regular or 5445
special meeting for the sole purpose of the consideration of any 5446
of the following matters:5447

       (1) To consider the appointment, employment, dismissal, 5448
discipline, promotion, demotion, or compensation of a public 5449
employee or official, or the investigation of charges or 5450
complaints against a public employee, official, licensee, or 5451
regulated individual, unless the public employee, official, 5452
licensee, or regulated individual requests a public hearing. 5453
Except as otherwise provided by law, no public body shall hold an 5454
executive session for the discipline of an elected official for 5455
conduct related to the performance of the elected official's 5456
official duties or for the elected official's removal from office. 5457
If a public body holds an executive session pursuant to division 5458
(G)(1) of this section, the motion and vote to hold that executive 5459
session shall state which one or more of the approved purposes 5460
listed in division (G)(1) of this section are the purposes for 5461
which the executive session is to be held, but need not include 5462
the name of any person to be considered at the meeting.5463

       (2) To consider the purchase of property for public purposes, 5464
or for the sale of property at competitive bidding, if premature 5465
disclosure of information would give an unfair competitive or 5466
bargaining advantage to a person whose personal, private interest 5467
is adverse to the general public interest. No member of a public 5468
body shall use division (G)(2) of this section as a subterfuge for 5469
providing covert information to prospective buyers or sellers. A 5470
purchase or sale of public property is void if the seller or buyer 5471
of the public property has received covert information from a 5472
member of a public body that has not been disclosed to the general 5473
public in sufficient time for other prospective buyers and sellers 5474
to prepare and submit offers.5475

       If the minutes of the public body show that all meetings and 5476
deliberations of the public body have been conducted in compliance 5477
with this section, any instrument executed by the public body 5478
purporting to convey, lease, or otherwise dispose of any right, 5479
title, or interest in any public property shall be conclusively 5480
presumed to have been executed in compliance with this section 5481
insofar as title or other interest of any bona fide purchasers, 5482
lessees, or transferees of the property is concerned.5483

       (3) Conferences with an attorney for the public body 5484
concerning disputes involving the public body that are the subject 5485
of pending or imminent court action;5486

       (4) Preparing for, conducting, or reviewing negotiations or 5487
bargaining sessions with public employees concerning their 5488
compensation or other terms and conditions of their employment;5489

       (5) Matters required to be kept confidential by federal law 5490
or regulations or state statutes;5491

       (6) Details relative to the security arrangements and 5492
emergency response protocols for a public body or a public office, 5493
if disclosure of the matters discussed could reasonably be 5494
expected to jeopardize the security of the public body or public 5495
office;5496

       (7) In the case of a county hospital operated pursuant to 5497
Chapter 339. of the Revised Code, a joint township hospital 5498
operated pursuant to Chapter 513. of the Revised Code, or a 5499
municipal hospital operated pursuant to Chapter 749. of the 5500
Revised Code, to consider trade secrets, as defined in section 5501
1333.61 of the Revised Code;5502

       (8) Details and terms relative to any application for an 5503
economic development project, if the economic development 5504
assistance is to be provided or administered under any provision 5505
of Chapter 715., 725., or 1728., sections 701.07, 3735.67 to 5506
3735.70, 5709.40 to 5709.43, 5709.61 to 5709.69, 5709.73 to 5507
5709.75, or 5709.77 to 5709.81 of the Revised Code, or any other 5508
provision of law pursuant to which a political subdivision may 5509
provide economic development assistance.5510

       If a public body holds an executive session to consider any 5511
of the matters listed in divisions (G)(2) to (7)(8) of this 5512
section, the motion and vote to hold that executive session shall 5513
state which one or more of the approved matters listed in those 5514
divisions are to be considered at the executive session.5515

       A public body specified in division (B)(1)(c) of this section 5516
shall not hold an executive session when meeting for the purposes 5517
specified in that division.5518

       (H) A resolution, rule, or formal action of any kind is 5519
invalid unless adopted in an open meeting of the public body. A 5520
resolution, rule, or formal action adopted in an open meeting that 5521
results from deliberations in a meeting not open to the public is 5522
invalid unless the deliberations were for a purpose specifically 5523
authorized in division (G) or (J) of this section and conducted at 5524
an executive session held in compliance with this section. A 5525
resolution, rule, or formal action adopted in an open meeting is 5526
invalid if the public body that adopted the resolution, rule, or 5527
formal action violated division (F) of this section.5528

       (I)(1) Any person may bring an action to enforce this 5529
section. An action under division (I)(1) of this section shall be 5530
brought within two years after the date of the alleged violation 5531
or threatened violation. Upon proof of a violation or threatened 5532
violation of this section in an action brought by any person, the 5533
court of common pleas shall issue an injunction to compel the 5534
members of the public body to comply with its provisions.5535

       (2)(a) If the court of common pleas issues an injunction 5536
pursuant to division (I)(1) of this section, the court shall order 5537
the public body that it enjoins to pay a civil forfeiture of five 5538
hundred dollars to the party that sought the injunction and shall 5539
award to that party all court costs and, subject to reduction as 5540
described in division (I)(2) of this section, reasonable 5541
attorney's fees. The court, in its discretion, may reduce an award 5542
of attorney's fees to the party that sought the injunction or not 5543
award attorney's fees to that party if the court determines both 5544
of the following:5545

       (i) That, based on the ordinary application of statutory law 5546
and case law as it existed at the time of violation or threatened 5547
violation that was the basis of the injunction, a well-informed 5548
public body reasonably would believe that the public body was not 5549
violating or threatening to violate this section;5550

       (ii) That a well-informed public body reasonably would 5551
believe that the conduct or threatened conduct that was the basis 5552
of the injunction would serve the public policy that underlies the 5553
authority that is asserted as permitting that conduct or 5554
threatened conduct.5555

       (b) If the court of common pleas does not issue an injunction 5556
pursuant to division (I)(1) of this section and the court 5557
determines at that time that the bringing of the action was 5558
frivolous conduct, as defined in division (A) of section 2323.51 5559
of the Revised Code, the court shall award to the public body all 5560
court costs and reasonable attorney's fees, as determined by the 5561
court.5562

       (3) Irreparable harm and prejudice to the party that sought 5563
the injunction shall be conclusively and irrebuttably presumed 5564
upon proof of a violation or threatened violation of this section.5565

       (4) A member of a public body who knowingly violates an 5566
injunction issued pursuant to division (I)(1) of this section may 5567
be removed from office by an action brought in the court of common 5568
pleas for that purpose by the prosecuting attorney or the attorney 5569
general.5570

       (J)(1) Pursuant to division (C) of section 5901.09 of the 5571
Revised Code, a veterans service commission shall hold an 5572
executive session for one or more of the following purposes unless 5573
an applicant requests a public hearing:5574

       (a) Interviewing an applicant for financial assistance under 5575
sections 5901.01 to 5901.15 of the Revised Code;5576

       (b) Discussing applications, statements, and other documents 5577
described in division (B) of section 5901.09 of the Revised Code;5578

       (c) Reviewing matters relating to an applicant's request for 5579
financial assistance under sections 5901.01 to 5901.15 of the 5580
Revised Code.5581

       (2) A veterans service commission shall not exclude an 5582
applicant for, recipient of, or former recipient of financial 5583
assistance under sections 5901.01 to 5901.15 of the Revised Code, 5584
and shall not exclude representatives selected by the applicant, 5585
recipient, or former recipient, from a meeting that the commission 5586
conducts as an executive session that pertains to the applicant's, 5587
recipient's, or former recipient's application for financial 5588
assistance.5589

       (3) A veterans service commission shall vote on the grant or 5590
denial of financial assistance under sections 5901.01 to 5901.15 5591
of the Revised Code only in an open meeting of the commission. The 5592
minutes of the meeting shall indicate the name, address, and 5593
occupation of the applicant, whether the assistance was granted or 5594
denied, the amount of the assistance if assistance is granted, and 5595
the votes for and against the granting of assistance.5596

       Sec. 121.35.  (A) Subject to division (B) of this section, 5597
the following state agencies shall collaborate to revise and make 5598
more uniform the eligibility standards and eligibility 5599
determination procedures of programs the state agencies 5600
administer:5601

       (1) The department of aging; 5602

       (2) The department of alcohol and drug addiction services;5603

       (3) The department of development services agency;5604

       (4)(3) The department of developmental disabilities;5605

       (5)(4) The department of education;5606

       (6)(5) The department of health;5607

       (7)(6) The department of job and family services;5608

       (8)(7) The department of medicaid;5609

       (8) The department of mental healthmental health and 5610
addiction services;5611

       (9) The rehabilitation services commissionopportunities for 5612
Ohioans with disabilities agency.5613

       (B) In revising eligibility standards and eligibility 5614
determination procedures, a state agency shall not make any 5615
program's eligibility standards or eligibility determination 5616
procedures inconsistent with state or federal law. To the extent 5617
authorized by state and federal law, the revisions may provide for 5618
the state agencies to share administrative operations.5619

       Sec. 121.37.  (A)(1) There is hereby created the Ohio family 5620
and children first cabinet council. The council shall be composed 5621
of the superintendent of public instruction, the administrator5622
executive director of the rehabilitation services commission5623
opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities agency, the medicaid 5624
director, and the directors of youth services, job and family 5625
services, mental healthmental health and addiction services, 5626
health, alcohol and drug addiction services, developmental 5627
disabilities, aging, rehabilitation and correction, and budget and 5628
management. The chairperson of the council shall be the governor 5629
or the governor's designee and shall establish procedures for the 5630
council's internal control and management.5631

        The purpose of the cabinet council is to help families 5632
seeking government services. This section shall not be interpreted 5633
or applied to usurp the role of parents, but solely to streamline 5634
and coordinate existing government services for families seeking 5635
assistance for their children.5636

       (2) In seeking to fulfill its purpose, the council may do any 5637
of the following:5638

       (a) Advise and make recommendations to the governor and 5639
general assembly regarding the provision of services to children;5640

       (b) Advise and assess local governments on the coordination 5641
of service delivery to children;5642

       (c) Hold meetings at such times and places as may be 5643
prescribed by the council's procedures and maintain records of the 5644
meetings, except that records identifying individual children are 5645
confidential and shall be disclosed only as provided by law;5646

       (d) Develop programs and projects, including pilot projects, 5647
to encourage coordinated efforts at the state and local level to 5648
improve the state's social service delivery system;5649

       (e) Enter into contracts with and administer grants to county 5650
family and children first councils, as well as other county or 5651
multicounty organizations to plan and coordinate service delivery 5652
between state agencies and local service providers for families 5653
and children;5654

       (f) Enter into contracts with and apply for grants from 5655
federal agencies or private organizations;5656

       (g) Enter into interagency agreements to encourage 5657
coordinated efforts at the state and local level to improve the 5658
state's social service delivery system. The agreements may include 5659
provisions regarding the receipt, transfer, and expenditure of 5660
funds;5661

       (h) Identify public and private funding sources for services 5662
provided to alleged or adjudicated unruly children and children 5663
who are at risk of being alleged or adjudicated unruly children, 5664
including regulations governing access to and use of the services;5665

       (i) Collect information provided by local communities 5666
regarding successful programs for prevention, intervention, and 5667
treatment of unruly behavior, including evaluations of the 5668
programs;5669

       (j) Identify and disseminate publications regarding alleged 5670
or adjudicated unruly children and children who are at risk of 5671
being alleged or adjudicated unruly children and regarding 5672
programs serving those types of children;5673

       (k) Maintain an inventory of strategic planning facilitators 5674
for use by government or nonprofit entities that serve alleged or 5675
adjudicated unruly children or children who are at risk of being 5676
alleged or adjudicated unruly children.5677

       (3) The cabinet council shall provide for the following:5678

       (a) Reviews of service and treatment plans for children for 5679
which such reviews are requested;5680

       (b) Assistance as the council determines to be necessary to 5681
meet the needs of children referred by county family and children 5682
first councils;5683

       (c) Monitoring and supervision of a statewide, comprehensive, 5684
coordinated, multi-disciplinary, interagency system for infants 5685
and toddlers with developmental disabilities or delays and their 5686
families, as established pursuant to federal grants received and 5687
administered by the department of health for early intervention 5688
services under the "Individuals with Disabilities Education Act of 5689
2004," 118 Stat. 2744, 20 U.S.C.A. 1400, as amended.5690

       (4) The cabinet council shall develop and implement the 5691
following:5692

       (a) An interagency process to select the indicators that will 5693
be used to measure progress toward increasing child well-being in 5694
the state and to update the indicators on an annual basis. The 5695
indicators shall focus on expectant parents and newborns thriving; 5696
infants and toddlers thriving; children being ready for school; 5697
children and youth succeeding in school; youth choosing healthy 5698
behaviors; and youth successfully transitioning into adulthood.5699

       (b) An interagency system to offer guidance and monitor 5700
progress toward increasing child well-being in the state and in 5701
each county;5702

       (c) An annual plan that identifies state-level agency efforts 5703
taken to ensure progress towards increasing child well-being in 5704
the state.5705

       On an annual basis, the cabinet council shall submit to the 5706
governor and the general assembly a report on the status of 5707
efforts to increase child well-being in the state. This report 5708
shall be made available to any other person on request.5709

       (B)(1) Each board of county commissioners shall establish a 5710
county family and children first council. The board may invite any 5711
local public or private agency or group that funds, advocates, or 5712
provides services to children and families to have a 5713
representative become a permanent or temporary member of its 5714
county council. Each county council must include the following 5715
individuals:5716

       (a) At least three individuals who are not employed by an 5717
agency represented on the council and whose families are or have 5718
received services from an agency represented on the council or 5719
another county's council. Where possible, the number of members 5720
representing families shall be equal to twenty per cent of the 5721
council's membership.5722

       (b) The director of the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 5723
mental health services that serves the county, or, in the case of 5724
a county that has a board of alcohol and drug addiction services 5725
and a community mental health board, the directors of both boards. 5726
If a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 5727
covers more than one county, the director may designate a person 5728
to participate on the county's council.5729

       (c) The health commissioner, or the commissioner's designee, 5730
of the board of health of each city and general health district in 5731
the county. If the county has two or more health districts, the 5732
health commissioner membership may be limited to the commissioners 5733
of the two districts with the largest populations.5734

       (d) The director of the county department of job and family 5735
services;5736

       (e) The executive director of the public children services 5737
agency;5738

       (f) The superintendent of the county board of developmental 5739
disabilities or, if the superintendent serves as superintendent of 5740
more than one county board of developmental disabilities, the 5741
superintendent's designee;5742

       (g) The superintendent of the city, exempted village, or 5743
local school district with the largest number of pupils residing 5744
in the county, as determined by the department of education, which 5745
shall notify each board of county commissioners of its 5746
determination at least biennially;5747

       (h) A school superintendent representing all other school 5748
districts with territory in the county, as designated at a 5749
biennial meeting of the superintendents of those districts;5750

       (i) A representative of the municipal corporation with the 5751
largest population in the county;5752

       (j) The president of the board of county commissioners or an 5753
individual designated by the board;5754

       (k) A representative of the regional office of the department 5755
of youth services;5756

       (l) A representative of the county's head start agencies, as 5757
defined in section 3301.32 of the Revised Code;5758

       (m) A representative of the county's early intervention 5759
collaborative established pursuant to the federal early 5760
intervention program operated under the "Individuals with 5761
Disabilities Education Act of 2004";5762

       (n) A representative of a local nonprofit entity that funds, 5763
advocates, or provides services to children and families.5764

       Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the public 5765
members of a county council are not prohibited from serving on the 5766
council and making decisions regarding the duties of the council, 5767
including those involving the funding of joint projects and those 5768
outlined in the county's service coordination mechanism 5769
implemented pursuant to division (C) of this section.5770

       The cabinet council shall establish a state appeals process 5771
to resolve disputes among the members of a county council 5772
concerning whether reasonable responsibilities as members are 5773
being shared. The appeals process may be accessed only by a 5774
majority vote of the council members who are required to serve on 5775
the council. Upon appeal, the cabinet council may order that state 5776
funds for services to children and families be redirected to a 5777
county's board of county commissioners.5778

       The county's juvenile court judge senior in service or 5779
another judge of the juvenile court designated by the 5780
administrative judge or, where there is no administrative judge, 5781
by the judge senior in service shall serve as the judicial advisor 5782
to the county family and children first council. The judge may 5783
advise the county council on the court's utilization of resources, 5784
services, or programs provided by the entities represented by the 5785
members of the county council and how those resources, services, 5786
or programs assist the court in its administration of justice. 5787
Service of a judge as a judicial advisor pursuant to this section 5788
is a judicial function.5789

       (2) The purpose of the county council is to streamline and 5790
coordinate existing government services for families seeking 5791
services for their children. In seeking to fulfill its purpose, a 5792
county council shall provide for the following:5793

       (a) Referrals to the cabinet council of those children for 5794
whom the county council cannot provide adequate services;5795

       (b) Development and implementation of a process that annually 5796
evaluates and prioritizes services, fills service gaps where 5797
possible, and invents new approaches to achieve better results for 5798
families and children;5799

       (c) Participation in the development of a countywide, 5800
comprehensive, coordinated, multi-disciplinary, interagency system 5801
for infants and toddlers with developmental disabilities or delays 5802
and their families, as established pursuant to federal grants 5803
received and administered by the department of health for early 5804
intervention services under the "Individuals with Disabilities 5805
Education Act of 2004";5806

       (d) Maintenance of an accountability system to monitor the 5807
county council's progress in achieving results for families and 5808
children;5809

       (e) Establishment of a mechanism to ensure ongoing input from 5810
a broad representation of families who are receiving services 5811
within the county system.5812

       (3) A county council shall develop and implement the 5813
following:5814

       (a) An interagency process to establish local indicators and 5815
monitor the county's progress toward increasing child well-being 5816
in the county;5817

       (b) An interagency process to identify local priorities to 5818
increase child well-being. The local priorities shall focus on 5819
expectant parents and newborns thriving; infants and toddlers 5820
thriving; children being ready for school; children and youth 5821
succeeding in school; youth choosing healthy behaviors; and youth 5822
successfully transitioning into adulthood and take into account 5823
the indicators established by the cabinet council under division 5824
(A)(4)(a) of this section.5825

       (c) An annual plan that identifies the county's interagency 5826
efforts to increase child well-being in the county.5827

       On an annual basis, the county council shall submit a report 5828
on the status of efforts by the county to increase child 5829
well-being in the county to the county's board of county 5830
commissioners and the cabinet council. This report shall be made 5831
available to any other person on request.5832

       (4)(a) Except as provided in division (B)(4)(b) of this 5833
section, a county council shall comply with the policies, 5834
procedures, and activities prescribed by the rules or interagency 5835
agreements of a state department participating on the cabinet 5836
council whenever the county council performs a function subject to 5837
those rules or agreements.5838

       (b) On application of a county council, the cabinet council 5839
may grant an exemption from any rules or interagency agreements of 5840
a state department participating on the council if an exemption is 5841
necessary for the council to implement an alternative program or 5842
approach for service delivery to families and children. The 5843
application shall describe the proposed program or approach and 5844
specify the rules or interagency agreements from which an 5845
exemption is necessary. The cabinet council shall approve or 5846
disapprove the application in accordance with standards and 5847
procedures it shall adopt. If an application is approved, the 5848
exemption is effective only while the program or approach is being 5849
implemented, including a reasonable period during which the 5850
program or approach is being evaluated for effectiveness.5851

       (5)(a) Each county council shall designate an administrative 5852
agent for the council from among the following public entities: 5853
the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, 5854
including a board of alcohol and drug addiction or a community 5855
mental health board if the county is served by separate boards; 5856
the board of county commissioners; any board of health of the 5857
county's city and general health districts; the county department 5858
of job and family services; the county agency responsible for the 5859
administration of children services pursuant to section 5153.15 of 5860
the Revised Code; the county board of developmental disabilities; 5861
any of the county's boards of education or governing boards of 5862
educational service centers; or the county's juvenile court. Any 5863
of the foregoing public entities, other than the board of county 5864
commissioners, may decline to serve as the council's 5865
administrative agent.5866

       A county council's administrative agent shall serve as the 5867
council's appointing authority for any employees of the council. 5868
The council shall file an annual budget with its administrative 5869
agent, with copies filed with the county auditor and with the 5870
board of county commissioners, unless the board is serving as the 5871
council's administrative agent. The council's administrative agent 5872
shall ensure that all expenditures are handled in accordance with 5873
policies, procedures, and activities prescribed by state 5874
departments in rules or interagency agreements that are applicable 5875
to the council's functions.5876

       The administrative agent of a county council shall send 5877
notice of a member's absence if a member listed in division (B)(1) 5878
of this section has been absent from either three consecutive 5879
meetings of the county council or a county council subcommittee, 5880
or from one-quarter of such meetings in a calendar year, whichever 5881
is less. The notice shall be sent to the board of county 5882
commissioners that establishes the county council and, for the 5883
members listed in divisions (B)(1)(b), (c), (e), and (l) of this 5884
section, to the governing board overseeing the respective entity; 5885
for the member listed in division (B)(1)(f) of this section, to 5886
the county board of developmental disabilities that employs the 5887
superintendent; for a member listed in division (B)(1)(g) or (h) 5888
of this section, to the school board that employs the 5889
superintendent; for the member listed in division (B)(1)(i) of 5890
this section, to the mayor of the municipal corporation; for the 5891
member listed in division (B)(1)(k) of this section, to the 5892
director of youth services; and for the member listed in division 5893
(B)(1)(n) of this section, to that member's board of trustees.5894

       The administrative agent for a county council may do any of 5895
the following on behalf of the council:5896

       (i) Enter into agreements or administer contracts with public 5897
or private entities to fulfill specific council business. Such 5898
agreements and contracts are exempt from the competitive bidding 5899
requirements of section 307.86 of the Revised Code if they have 5900
been approved by the county council and they are for the purchase 5901
of family and child welfare or child protection services or other 5902
social or job and family services for families and children. The 5903
approval of the county council is not required to exempt 5904
agreements or contracts entered into under section 5139.34, 5905
5139.41, or 5139.43 of the Revised Code from the competitive 5906
bidding requirements of section 307.86 of the Revised Code.5907

       (ii) As determined by the council, provide financial 5908
stipends, reimbursements, or both, to family representatives for 5909
expenses related to council activity;5910

       (iii) Receive by gift, grant, devise, or bequest any moneys, 5911
lands, or other property for the purposes for which the council is 5912
established. The agent shall hold, apply, and dispose of the 5913
moneys, lands, or other property according to the terms of the 5914
gift, grant, devise, or bequest. Any interest or earnings shall be 5915
treated in the same manner and are subject to the same terms as 5916
the gift, grant, devise, or bequest from which it accrues.5917

       (b)(i) If the county council designates the board of county 5918
commissioners as its administrative agent, the board may, by 5919
resolution, delegate any of its powers and duties as 5920
administrative agent to an executive committee the board 5921
establishes from the membership of the county council. The board 5922
shall name to the executive committee at least the individuals 5923
described in divisions (B)(1)(b) to (h) of this section and may 5924
appoint the president of the board or another individual as the 5925
chair of the executive committee. The executive committee must 5926
include at least one family county council representative who does 5927
not have a family member employed by an agency represented on the 5928
council.5929

       (ii) The executive committee may, with the approval of the 5930
board, hire an executive director to assist the county council in 5931
administering its powers and duties. The executive director shall 5932
serve in the unclassified civil service at the pleasure of the 5933
executive committee. The executive director may, with the approval 5934
of the executive committee, hire other employees as necessary to 5935
properly conduct the county council's business.5936

       (iii) The board may require the executive committee to submit 5937
an annual budget to the board for approval and may amend or repeal 5938
the resolution that delegated to the executive committee its 5939
authority as the county council's administrative agent.5940

       (6) Two or more county councils may enter into an agreement 5941
to administer their county councils jointly by creating a regional 5942
family and children first council. A regional council possesses 5943
the same duties and authority possessed by a county council, 5944
except that the duties and authority apply regionally rather than 5945
to individual counties. Prior to entering into an agreement to 5946
create a regional council, the members of each county council to 5947
be part of the regional council shall meet to determine whether 5948
all or part of the members of each county council will serve as 5949
members of the regional council.5950

       (7) A board of county commissioners may approve a resolution 5951
by a majority vote of the board's members that requires the county 5952
council to submit a statement to the board each time the council 5953
proposes to enter into an agreement, adopt a plan, or make a 5954
decision, other than a decision pursuant to section 121.38 of the 5955
Revised Code, that requires the expenditure of funds for two or 5956
more families. The statement shall describe the proposed 5957
agreement, plan, or decision.5958

       Not later than fifteen days after the board receives the 5959
statement, it shall, by resolution approved by a majority of its 5960
members, approve or disapprove the agreement, plan, or decision. 5961
Failure of the board to pass a resolution during that time period 5962
shall be considered approval of the agreement, plan, or decision.5963

       An agreement, plan, or decision for which a statement is 5964
required to be submitted to the board shall be implemented only if 5965
it is approved by the board.5966

       (C) Each county shall develop a county service coordination 5967
mechanism. The county service coordination mechanism shall serve 5968
as the guiding document for coordination of services in the 5969
county. For children who also receive services under the help me 5970
grow program, the service coordination mechanism shall be 5971
consistent with rules adopted by the department of health under 5972
section 3701.61 of the Revised Code. All family service 5973
coordination plans shall be developed in accordance with the 5974
county service coordination mechanism. The mechanism shall be 5975
developed and approved with the participation of the county 5976
entities representing child welfare; mental retardation and 5977
developmental disabilities; alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 5978
health services; health; juvenile judges; education; the county 5979
family and children first council; and the county early 5980
intervention collaborative established pursuant to the federal 5981
early intervention program operated under the "Individuals with 5982
Disabilities Education Act of 2004." The county shall establish an 5983
implementation schedule for the mechanism. The cabinet council may 5984
monitor the implementation and administration of each county's 5985
service coordination mechanism.5986

       Each mechanism shall include all of the following:5987

       (1) A procedure for an agency, including a juvenile court, or 5988
a family voluntarily seeking service coordination, to refer the 5989
child and family to the county council for service coordination in 5990
accordance with the mechanism;5991

       (2) A procedure ensuring that a family and all appropriate 5992
staff from involved agencies, including a representative from the 5993
appropriate school district, are notified of and invited to 5994
participate in all family service coordination plan meetings;5995

        (3) A procedure that permits a family to initiate a meeting 5996
to develop or review the family's service coordination plan and 5997
allows the family to invite a family advocate, mentor, or support 5998
person of the family's choice to participate in any such meeting;5999

        (4) A procedure for ensuring that a family service 6000
coordination plan meeting is conducted for each child who receives 6001
service coordination under the mechanism and for whom an emergency 6002
out-of-home placement has been made or for whom a nonemergency 6003
out-of-home placement is being considered. The meeting shall be 6004
conducted within ten days of an emergency out-of-home placement. 6005
The meeting shall be conducted before a nonemergency out-of-home 6006
placement. The family service coordination plan shall outline how 6007
the county council members will jointly pay for services, where 6008
applicable, and provide services in the least restrictive 6009
environment.6010

        (5) A procedure for monitoring the progress and tracking the 6011
outcomes of each service coordination plan requested in the county 6012
including monitoring and tracking children in out-of-home 6013
placements to assure continued progress, appropriateness of 6014
placement, and continuity of care after discharge from placement 6015
with appropriate arrangements for housing, treatment, and 6016
education.;6017

        (6) A procedure for protecting the confidentiality of all 6018
personal family information disclosed during service coordination 6019
meetings or contained in the comprehensive family service 6020
coordination plan.;6021

        (7) A procedure for assessing the needs and strengths of any 6022
child or family that has been referred to the council for service 6023
coordination, including a child whose parent or custodian is 6024
voluntarily seeking services, and for ensuring that parents and 6025
custodians are afforded the opportunity to participate;6026

       (8) A procedure for development of a family service 6027
coordination plan described in division (D) of this section;6028

       (9) A local dispute resolution process to serve as the 6029
process that must be used first to resolve disputes among the 6030
agencies represented on the county council concerning the 6031
provision of services to children, including children who are 6032
abused, neglected, dependent, unruly, alleged unruly, or 6033
delinquent children and under the jurisdiction of the juvenile 6034
court and children whose parents or custodians are voluntarily 6035
seeking services. The local dispute resolution process shall 6036
comply with sections 121.38, 121.381, and 121.382 of the Revised 6037
Code. The local dispute resolution process shall be used to 6038
resolve disputes between a child's parents or custodians and the 6039
county council regarding service coordination. The county council 6040
shall inform the parents or custodians of their right to use the 6041
dispute resolution process. Parents or custodians shall use 6042
existing local agency grievance procedures to address disputes not 6043
involving service coordination. The dispute resolution process is 6044
in addition to and does not replace other rights or procedures 6045
that parents or custodians may have under other sections of the 6046
Revised Code.6047

       The cabinet council shall adopt rules in accordance with 6048
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing an administrative 6049
review process to address problems that arise concerning the 6050
operation of a local dispute resolution process.6051

        Nothing in division (C)(4) of this section shall be 6052
interpreted as overriding or affecting decisions of a juvenile 6053
court regarding an out-of-home placement, long-term placement, or 6054
emergency out-of-home placement.6055

       (D) Each county shall develop a family service coordination 6056
plan that does all of the following:6057

       (1) Designates service responsibilities among the various 6058
state and local agencies that provide services to children and 6059
their families, including children who are abused, neglected, 6060
dependent, unruly, or delinquent children and under the 6061
jurisdiction of the juvenile court and children whose parents or 6062
custodians are voluntarily seeking services;6063

       (2) Designates an individual, approved by the family, to 6064
track the progress of the family service coordination plan, 6065
schedule reviews as necessary, and facilitate the family service 6066
coordination plan meeting process;6067

        (3) Ensures that assistance and services to be provided are 6068
responsive to the strengths and needs of the family, as well as 6069
the family's culture, race, and ethnic group, by allowing the 6070
family to offer information and suggestions and participate in 6071
decisions. Identified assistance and services shall be provided in 6072
the least restrictive environment possible.6073

        (4) Includes a process for dealing with a child who is 6074
alleged to be an unruly child. The process shall include methods 6075
to divert the child from the juvenile court system;6076

       (5) Includes timelines for completion of goals specified in 6077
the plan with regular reviews scheduled to monitor progress toward 6078
those goals;6079

        (6) Includes a plan for dealing with short-term crisis 6080
situations and safety concerns.6081

       (E)(1) The process provided for under division (D)(4) of this 6082
section may include, but is not limited to, the following:6083

        (a) Designation of the person or agency to conduct the 6084
assessment of the child and the child's family as described in 6085
division (C)(7) of this section and designation of the instrument 6086
or instruments to be used to conduct the assessment;6087

       (b) An emphasis on the personal responsibilities of the child 6088
and the parental responsibilities of the parents, guardian, or 6089
custodian of the child;6090

       (c) Involvement of local law enforcement agencies and 6091
officials.6092

       (2) The method to divert a child from the juvenile court 6093
system that must be included in the service coordination process 6094
may include, but is not limited to, the following:6095

       (a) The preparation of a complaint under section 2151.27 of 6096
the Revised Code alleging that the child is an unruly child and 6097
notifying the child and the parents, guardian, or custodian that 6098
the complaint has been prepared to encourage the child and the 6099
parents, guardian, or custodian to comply with other methods to 6100
divert the child from the juvenile court system;6101

       (b) Conducting a meeting with the child, the parents, 6102
guardian, or custodian, and other interested parties to determine 6103
the appropriate methods to divert the child from the juvenile 6104
court system;6105

        (c) A method to provide to the child and the child's family a 6106
short-term respite from a short-term crisis situation involving a 6107
confrontation between the child and the parents, guardian, or 6108
custodian;6109

       (d) A program to provide a mentor to the child or the 6110
parents, guardian, or custodian;6111

       (e) A program to provide parenting education to the parents, 6112
guardian, or custodian;6113

       (f) An alternative school program for children who are truant 6114
from school, repeatedly disruptive in school, or suspended or 6115
expelled from school;6116

       (g) Other appropriate measures, including, but not limited 6117
to, any alternative methods to divert a child from the juvenile 6118
court system that are identified by the Ohio family and children 6119
first cabinet council.6120

       (F) Each county may review and revise the service 6121
coordination process described in division (D) of this section 6122
based on the availability of funds under Title IV-A of the "Social 6123
Security Act," 110 Stat. 2113 (1996), 42 U.S.C.A. 601, as amended, 6124
or to the extent resources are available from any other federal, 6125
state, or local funds.6126

       Sec. 121.372.  (A) As used in this section, "substitute care 6127
provider" means any of the following:6128

       (1) An alcohol and drugA community addiction program6129
services provider subject to certification under section 3793.066130
5119.36 of the Revised Code;6131

       (2) An institution or association subject to certification 6132
under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code;6133

       (3) A residential facility subject to licensure under section 6134
5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code;6135

       (4) A residential facility subject to licensure under section 6136
5123.19 of the Revised Code.6137

       (B) Not later than ninety days after the effective date of 6138
this sectionMarch 18, 1999, the members of the Ohio family and 6139
children first cabinet council, other than the director of budget 6140
and management, shall enter into an agreement to establish an 6141
office to perform the duties prescribed by division (C) of this 6142
section. The agreement shall specify one of the departments 6143
represented on the council as the department responsible for 6144
housing and supervising the office. The agreement shall include 6145
the recommendation of the council for funding the office.6146

       (C) The office established pursuant to the agreement entered 6147
into under this section shall review rules governing the 6148
certification and licensure of substitute care providers and 6149
determine which of the rules can be made substantively identical 6150
or more similar in order to minimize the number of differing 6151
certification and licensure standards and simplify the 6152
certification or licensure process for substitute care providers 6153
seeking certification or licensure from two or more of the 6154
departments represented on the council. The office shall provide 6155
county family and children first councils, substitute care 6156
providers, and persons interested in substitute care providers the 6157
opportunity to help the office with the review and determination. 6158
The office shall report its findings to the council. Each of the 6159
departments represented on the council that has adopted rules 6160
governing the certification or licensure of substitute care 6161
providers shall review the report and amend the rules as that 6162
department considers appropriate, except that no rule shall be 6163
amended so as to make it inconsistent with substitute care 6164
provider certification or licensure procedures and standards 6165
established by federal or state law. A department shall give 6166
priority to amendments that will not increase the department's 6167
administrative costs. In amending a rule, a department shall 6168
comply with Chapter 119. or section 111.15 of the Revised Code, as 6169
required by the Revised Code section governing the adoption of the 6170
particular rule. 6171

       (D) In accordance with section 124.27 of the Revised Code, 6172
the council shall select a coordinator to oversee the office 6173
established pursuant to the agreement entered into under this 6174
section. The coordinator shall be in the classified service. In 6175
addition to overseeing the office, the coordinator shall perform 6176
any other duties the council assigns to the coordinator. The 6177
duties the council assigns to the coordinator shall be related to 6178
the duties of the office under division (C) of this section.6179

       Sec. 121.483. A deputy inspector general appointed under 6180
section 121.48 of the Revised Code, who has been awarded a 6181
certificate by the executive director of the Ohio peace officer 6182
training commission attesting to the person's satisfactory 6183
completion of an approved state, county, or municipal peace 6184
officer basic training program, shall, during the term of the 6185
deputy inspector general's appointment, be considered a peace 6186
officer for the purpose of maintaining a current and valid basic 6187
training certificate pursuant to rules adopted under section 6188
109.74 of the Revised Code.6189

       Sec. 122.075. (A) As used in this section:6190

       (1) "Alternative fuel" has the same meaning as in section 6191
125.831 of the Revised Code.6192

       (2) "Biodiesel" means a mono-alkyl ester combustible liquid 6193
fuel that is derived from vegetable oils or animal fats, or any 6194
combination of those reagents, and that meets American society for 6195
testing and materials specification D6751-03a for biodiesel fuel 6196
(B100) blend stock distillate fuels.6197

       (3) "Diesel fuel" and "gasoline" have the same meanings as in 6198
section 5735.01 of the Revised Code.6199

       (4) "Ethanol" has the same meaning as in section 5733.46 of 6200
the Revised Code.6201

       (5) "Blended biodiesel" means diesel fuel containing at least 6202
twenty per cent biodiesel by volume.6203

       (6) "Blended gasoline" means gasoline containing at least 6204
eighty-five per cent ethanol by volume.6205

       (7) "Incremental cost" means either of the following:6206

       (a) The difference in cost between blended gasoline and 6207
gasoline containing ten per cent or less ethanol at the time that 6208
the blended gasoline is purchased;6209

       (b) The difference in cost between blended biodiesel and 6210
diesel fuel containing two per cent or less biodiesel at the time 6211
that the blended biodiesel is purchased.6212

       (B) For the purpose of improving the air quality in this 6213
state, the director of development services shall establish an 6214
alternative fuel transportation program under which the director 6215
may make grants and loans to businesses, nonprofit organizations, 6216
public school systems, or local governments for the purchase and 6217
installation of alternative fuel refueling or distribution 6218
facilities and terminals, for the purchase and use of alternative 6219
fuel, to pay the cost of fleet conversion, and to pay the costs of 6220
educational and promotional materials and activities intended for 6221
prospective alternative fuel consumers, fuel marketers, and others 6222
in order to increase the availability and use of alternative fuel.6223

       (C) The director, in consultation with the director of 6224
agriculture, shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of 6225
the Revised Code that are necessary for the administration of the 6226
alternative fuel transportation program. The rules shall establish 6227
at least all of the following:6228

       (1) An application form and procedures governing the 6229
application process for receiving funds under the program;6230

       (2) A procedure for prioritizing the award of grants and 6231
loans under the program. The procedures shall give preference to 6232
all of the following:6233

       (a) Publicly accessible refueling facilities;6234

       (b) Entities applying to the program that have secured 6235
funding from other sources, including, but not limited to, private 6236
or federal incentives;6237

       (c) Entities that have presented compelling evidence of 6238
demand in the market in which the facilities or terminals will be 6239
located;6240

       (d) Entities that have committed to utilizing purchased or 6241
installed facilities or terminals for the greatest number of 6242
years;6243

       (e) Entities that will be purchasing or installing facilities 6244
or terminals for any type of alternative fuel.6245

       (3) A requirement that the maximum incentive for the purchase 6246
and installation of an alternative fuel refueling or distribution 6247
facility or terminal be eighty per cent of the cost of the 6248
facility or terminal, except that at least twenty per cent of the 6249
total net cost of the facility or terminal shall be incurred by 6250
the recipient and not compensated for by any other source;6251

       (4) A requirement that the maximum incentive for the purchase 6252
of alternative fuel be eighty per cent of the cost of the fuel or, 6253
in the case of blended biodiesel or blended gasoline, eighty per 6254
cent of the incremental cost of the blended biodiesel or blended 6255
gasoline;6256

       (5) Any other criteria, procedures, or guidelines that the 6257
director determines are necessary to administer the program, 6258
including fees, charges, interest rates, and payment schedules.6259

       (D) An applicant for a grant or loan under this section that 6260
sells motor vehicle fuel at retail shall agree that if the 6261
applicant receives funding, the applicant will report to the 6262
director the gallon or gallon equivalent amounts of alternative 6263
fuel the applicant sells at retail in this state for a period of 6264
three years after the project is completed.6265

       The director shall enter into a written confidentiality 6266
agreement with the applicant regarding the gallon or gallon 6267
equivalent amounts sold as described in this division, and upon 6268
execution of the agreement this information is not a public 6269
record.6270

       (E) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 6271
alternative fuel transportation fund. The fund shall consist of 6272
money transferred to the fund under division (C)(B) of section 6273
125.836 and under division (B)(2) of section 3706.27 of the 6274
Revised Code, money that is appropriated to it by the general 6275
assembly, and money as may be specified by the general assembly 6276
from the advanced energy fund created by section 4928.61 of the 6277
Revised Code, and all money received from the repayment of loans 6278
made from the fund or in the event of a default on any such loan. 6279
Money in the fund shall be used to make grants and loans under the 6280
alternative fuel transportation program and by the director in the 6281
administration of that program.6282

       Sec. 122.083. (A) The director of development shall 6283
administer a shovel ready sites program to provide grants for 6284
projects to port authorities and development entities approved by 6285
the director. Grants may be used to pay the costs of any or all of 6286
the following:6287

        (1) Acquisition of property, including options;6288

        (2) Preparation of sites, including brownfield clean-up 6289
activities;6290

        (3) Construction of road, water, telecommunication, and 6291
utility infrastructure;6292

        (4) Payment of professional fees the amount of which shall 6293
not exceed twenty per cent of the grant amount for a project.6294

        (B) The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 6295
119. of the Revised Code that establish procedures and 6296
requirements necessary for the administration of the program, 6297
including a requirement that a recipient of a grant enter into an 6298
agreement with the director governing the use of the grant.6299

       (C) There is hereby created in the state treasury the shovel 6300
ready sites fund consisting of money appropriated to it. Money in 6301
the fund shall be used solely for the purposes of this section.6302

       Sec. 122.17.  (A) As used in this section:6303

       (1) "Income tax revenue" means the total amount withheld 6304
under section 5747.06 of the Revised Code by the taxpayer during 6305
the taxable year, or during the calendar year that includes the 6306
tax period, from the compensation of each employee or each 6307
home-based employee employed in the project to the extent the 6308
employee's withholdings are not used to determine the credit under 6309
section 122.171 of the Revised Code. "Income tax revenue" excludes 6310
amounts withheld before the day the taxpayer becomes eligible for 6311
the credit.6312

       (2) "Baseline income tax revenue" means income tax revenue 6313
except that the applicable withholding period is the twelve months 6314
immediately preceding the date the tax credit authority approves 6315
the taxpayer's application or the date the tax credit authority 6316
receives the recommendation described in division (C)(2)(a) of 6317
this section, whichever occurs first, multiplied by the sum of one 6318
plus an annual pay increase factor to be determined by the tax 6319
credit authority. If the taxpayer becomes eligible for the credit 6320
after the first day of the taxpayer's taxable year or after the 6321
first day of the calendar year that includes the tax period, the 6322
taxpayer's baseline income tax revenue for the first such taxable 6323
or calendar year of credit eligibility shall be reduced in 6324
proportion to the number of days during the taxable or calendar 6325
year for which the taxpayer was not eligible for the credit. For 6326
subsequent taxable or calendar years, "baseline income tax 6327
revenue" equals the unreduced baseline income tax revenue for the 6328
preceding taxable or calendar year multiplied by the sum of one 6329
plus the pay increase factor.6330

       (3) "Excess income tax revenue" means income tax revenue 6331
minus baseline income tax revenue.6332

       (4) "Home-based employee" means an employee whose services 6333
are performed primarily from the employee's residence in this 6334
state exclusively for the benefit of the project and whose rate of 6335
pay is at least one hundred thirty-one per cent of the federal 6336
minimum wage under 29 U.S.C. 206. 6337

       (B) The tax credit authority may make grants under this 6338
section to foster job creation in this state. Such a grant shall 6339
take the form of a refundable credit allowed against the tax 6340
imposed by section 5725.18, 5726.02, 5729.03, 5733.06, or 5747.02 6341
or levied under Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code. The credit 6342
shall be claimed for the taxable years or tax periods specified in 6343
the taxpayer's agreement with the tax credit authority under 6344
division (D) of this section. With respect to taxes imposed under 6345
section 5726.02, 5733.06, or 5747.02 or Chapter 5751. of the 6346
Revised Code, the credit shall be claimed in the order required 6347
under section 5726.98, 5733.98, 5747.98, or 5751.98 of the Revised 6348
Code. The amount of the credit available for a taxable year or for 6349
a calendar year that includes a tax period equals the excess 6350
income tax revenue for that year multiplied by the percentage 6351
specified in the agreement with the tax credit authority. Any 6352
credit granted under this section against the tax imposed by 6353
section 5733.06 or 5747.02 of the Revised Code, to the extent not 6354
fully utilized against such tax for taxable years ending prior to 6355
2008, shall automatically be converted without any action taken by 6356
the tax credit authority to a credit against the tax levied under 6357
Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code for tax periods beginning on or 6358
after July 1, 2008, provided that the person to whom the credit 6359
was granted is subject to such tax. The converted credit shall 6360
apply to those calendar years in which the remaining taxable years 6361
specified in the agreement end.6362

       (C)(1) A taxpayer or potential taxpayer who proposes a 6363
project to create new jobs in this state may apply to the tax 6364
credit authority to enter into an agreement for a tax credit under 6365
this section. 6366

       An application shall not propose to include both home-based 6367
employees and employees who are not home-based employees in the 6368
computation of income tax revenue for the purposes of the same tax 6369
credit agreement. If a taxpayer or potential taxpayer employs both 6370
home-based employees and employees who are not home-based 6371
employees in a project, the taxpayer shall submit separate 6372
applications for separate tax credit agreements for the project, 6373
one of which shall include home-based employees in the computation 6374
of income tax revenue and one of which shall include all other 6375
employees in the computation of income tax revenue.6376

       The director of development services shall prescribe the form 6377
of the application. After receipt of an application, the authority 6378
may enter into an agreement with the taxpayer for a credit under 6379
this section if it determines all of the following:6380

       (a) The taxpayer's project will increase payroll and income 6381
tax revenue;6382

       (b) The taxpayer's project is economically sound and will 6383
benefit the people of this state by increasing opportunities for 6384
employment and strengthening the economy of this state;6385

       (c) Receiving the tax credit is a major factor in the 6386
taxpayer's decision to go forward with the project.6387

       (2)(a) A taxpayer that chooses to begin the project prior to 6388
receiving the determination of the authority may, upon submitting 6389
the taxpayer's application to the authority, request that the 6390
chief investment officer of the nonprofit corporation formed under 6391
section 187.01 of the Revised Code and the director review the 6392
taxpayer's application and recommend to the authority that the 6393
taxpayer's application be considered. As soon as possible after 6394
receiving such a request, the chief investment officer and the 6395
director shall review the taxpayer's application and, if they 6396
determine that the application warrants consideration by the 6397
authority, make that recommendation to the authority not later 6398
than six months after the application is received by the 6399
authority.6400

       (b) The authority shall consider any taxpayer's application 6401
for which it receives a recommendation under division (C)(2)(a) of 6402
this section. If the authority determines that the taxpayer does 6403
not meet all of the criteria set forth in division (C)(1) of this 6404
section, the authority and the development services agency shall 6405
proceed in accordance with rules adopted by the director pursuant 6406
to division (I) of this section.6407

       (D) An agreement under this section shall include all of the 6408
following:6409

       (1) A detailed description of the project that is the subject 6410
of the agreement;6411

       (2)(a) The term of the tax credit, which, except as provided 6412
in division (D)(2)(b) of this section, shall not exceed fifteen 6413
years, and the first taxable year, or first calendar year that 6414
includes a tax period, for which the credit may be claimed;6415

       (b) If the tax credit is computed on the basis of home-based 6416
employees, the term of the credit shall expire on or before the 6417
last day of the taxable or calendar year ending before the 6418
beginning of the seventh year after September 6, 2012, the 6419
effective date of H.B. 327 of the 129th general assembly;.6420

       (3) A requirement that the taxpayer shall maintain operations 6421
at the project location for at least the greater of seven years or 6422
the term of the credit plus three years;6423

       (4) The percentage, as determined by the tax credit 6424
authority, of excess income tax revenue that will be allowed as 6425
the amount of the credit for each taxable year or for each 6426
calendar year that includes a tax period;6427

       (5) The pay increase factor to be applied to the taxpayer's 6428
baseline income tax revenue;6429

       (6) A requirement that the taxpayer annually shall report to 6430
the director of development services employment, tax withholding, 6431
investment, the provision of health care benefits and tuition 6432
reimbursement if required in the agreement, and other information 6433
the director needs to perform the director's duties under this 6434
section;6435

       (7) A requirement that the director of development services 6436
annually review the information reported under division (D)(6) of 6437
this section and verify compliance with the agreement; if the 6438
taxpayer is in compliance, a requirement that the director issue a 6439
certificate to the taxpayer stating that the information has been 6440
verified and identifying the amount of the credit that may be 6441
claimed for the taxable or calendar year;6442

       (8) A provision providing that the taxpayer may not relocate 6443
a substantial number of employment positions from elsewhere in 6444
this state to the project location unless the director of 6445
development services determines that the legislative authority of 6446
the county, township, or municipal corporation from which the 6447
employment positions would be relocated has been notified by the 6448
taxpayer of the relocation.6449

       For purposes of this section, the movement of an employment 6450
position from one political subdivision to another political 6451
subdivision shall be considered a relocation of an employment 6452
position unless the employment position in the first political 6453
subdivision is replaced.6454

       (9) If the tax credit is computed on the basis of home-based 6455
employees, that the tax credit may not be claimed by the taxpayer 6456
until the taxable year or tax period in which the taxpayer employs 6457
at least two hundred employees more than the number of employees 6458
the taxpayer employed on June 30, 2011.6459

       (E) If a taxpayer fails to meet or comply with any condition 6460
or requirement set forth in a tax credit agreement, the tax credit 6461
authority may amend the agreement to reduce the percentage or term 6462
of the tax credit. The reduction of the percentage or term may 6463
take effect in the current taxable or calendar year.6464

       (F) Projects that consist solely of point-of-final-purchase 6465
retail facilities are not eligible for a tax credit under this 6466
section. If a project consists of both point-of-final-purchase 6467
retail facilities and nonretail facilities, only the portion of 6468
the project consisting of the nonretail facilities is eligible for 6469
a tax credit and only the excess income tax revenue from the 6470
nonretail facilities shall be considered when computing the amount 6471
of the tax credit. If a warehouse facility is part of a 6472
point-of-final-purchase retail facility and supplies only that 6473
facility, the warehouse facility is not eligible for a tax credit. 6474
Catalog distribution centers are not considered 6475
point-of-final-purchase retail facilities for the purposes of this 6476
division, and are eligible for tax credits under this section.6477

       (G) Financial statements and other information submitted to 6478
the development services agency or the tax credit authority by an 6479
applicant or recipient of a tax credit under this section, and any 6480
information taken for any purpose from such statements or 6481
information, are not public records subject to section 149.43 of 6482
the Revised Code. However, the chairperson of the authority may 6483
make use of the statements and other information for purposes of 6484
issuing public reports or in connection with court proceedings 6485
concerning tax credit agreements under this section. Upon the 6486
request of the tax commissioner or, if the applicant or recipient 6487
is an insurance company, upon the request of the superintendent of 6488
insurance, the chairperson of the authority shall provide to the 6489
commissioner or superintendent any statement or information 6490
submitted by an applicant or recipient of a tax credit in 6491
connection with the credit. The commissioner or superintendent 6492
shall preserve the confidentiality of the statement or 6493
information.6494

       (H) A taxpayer claiming a credit under this section shall 6495
submit to the tax commissioner or, if the taxpayer is an insurance 6496
company, to the superintendent of insurance, a copy of the 6497
director of development services' certificate of verification 6498
under division (D)(7) of this section with the taxpayer's tax 6499
report or return for the taxable year or for the calendar year 6500
that includes the tax period. Failure to submit a copy of the 6501
certificate with the report or return does not invalidate a claim 6502
for a credit if the taxpayer submits a copy of the certificate to 6503
the commissioner or superintendent within sixty days after the 6504
commissioner or superintendent requests it.6505

       (I) The director of development services, after consultation 6506
with the tax commissioner and the superintendent of insurance and 6507
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt 6508
rules necessary to implement this section, including rules that 6509
establish a procedure to be followed by the tax credit authority 6510
and the development services agency in the event the authority 6511
considers a taxpayer's application for which it receives a 6512
recommendation under division (C)(2)(a) of this section but does 6513
not approve it. The rules may provide for recipients of tax 6514
credits under this section to be charged fees to cover 6515
administrative costs of the tax credit program. The fees collected 6516
shall be credited to the business assistance fund created in 6517
section 122.174 of the Revised Code. At the time the director 6518
gives public notice under division (A) of section 119.03 of the 6519
Revised Code of the adoption of the rules, the director shall 6520
submit copies of the proposed rules to the chairpersons of the 6521
standing committees on economic development in the senate and the 6522
house of representatives.6523

       (J) For the purposes of this section, a taxpayer may include 6524
a partnership, a corporation that has made an election under 6525
subchapter S of chapter one of subtitle A of the Internal Revenue 6526
Code, or any other business entity through which income flows as a 6527
distributive share to its owners. A partnership, S-corporation, or 6528
other such business entity may elect to pass the credit received 6529
under this section through to the persons to whom the income or 6530
profit of the partnership, S-corporation, or other entity is 6531
distributed. The election shall be made on the annual report 6532
required under division (D)(6) of this section. The election 6533
applies to and is irrevocable for the credit for which the report 6534
is submitted. If the election is made, the credit shall be 6535
apportioned among those persons in the same proportions as those 6536
in which the income or profit is distributed.6537

       (K) If the director of development services determines that a 6538
taxpayer who has received a credit under this section is not 6539
complying with the requirement under division (D)(3) of this 6540
section, the director shall notify the tax credit authority of the 6541
noncompliance. After receiving such a notice, and after giving the 6542
taxpayer an opportunity to explain the noncompliance, the tax 6543
credit authority may require the taxpayer to refund to this state 6544
a portion of the credit in accordance with the following:6545

       (1) If the taxpayer maintained operations at the project 6546
location for a period less than or equal to the term of the 6547
credit, an amount not exceeding one hundred per cent of the sum of 6548
any credits allowed and received under this section;6549

       (2) If the taxpayer maintained operations at the project 6550
location for a period longer than the term of the credit, but less 6551
than the greater of seven years or the term of the credit plus 6552
three years, an amount not exceeding seventy-five per cent of the 6553
sum of any credits allowed and received under this section.6554

       In determining the portion of the tax credit to be refunded 6555
to this state, the tax credit authority shall consider the effect 6556
of market conditions on the taxpayer's project and whether the 6557
taxpayer continues to maintain other operations in this state. 6558
After making the determination, the authority shall certify the 6559
amount to be refunded to the tax commissioner or superintendent of 6560
insurance, as appropriate. If the amount is certified to the 6561
commissioner, the commissioner shall make an assessment for that 6562
amount against the taxpayer under Chapter 5726., 5733., 5747., or 6563
5751. of the Revised Code. If the amount is certified to the 6564
superintendent, the superintendent shall make an assessment for 6565
that amount against the taxpayer under Chapter 5725. or 5729. of 6566
the Revised Code. The time limitations on assessments under those 6567
chapters do not apply to an assessment under this division, but 6568
the commissioner or superintendent, as appropriate, shall make the 6569
assessment within one year after the date the authority certifies 6570
to the commissioner or superintendent the amount to be refunded.6571

       (L) On or before the first day of August each year, the 6572
director of development services shall submit a report to the 6573
governor, the president of the senate, and the speaker of the 6574
house of representatives on the tax credit program under this 6575
section. The report shall include information on the number of 6576
agreements that were entered into under this section during the 6577
preceding calendar year, a description of the project that is the 6578
subject of each such agreement, and an update on the status of 6579
projects under agreements entered into before the preceding 6580
calendar year.6581

       (M) There is hereby created the tax credit authority, which 6582
consists of the director of development services and four other 6583
members appointed as follows: the governor, the president of the 6584
senate, and the speaker of the house of representatives each shall 6585
appoint one member who shall be a specialist in economic 6586
development; the governor also shall appoint a member who is a 6587
specialist in taxation. Of the initial appointees, the members 6588
appointed by the governor shall serve a term of two years; the 6589
members appointed by the president of the senate and the speaker 6590
of the house of representatives shall serve a term of four years. 6591
Thereafter, terms of office shall be for four years. Initial 6592
appointments to the authority shall be made within thirty days 6593
after January 13, 1993. Each member shall serve on the authority 6594
until the end of the term for which the member was appointed. 6595
Vacancies shall be filled in the same manner provided for original 6596
appointments. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring 6597
prior to the expiration of the term for which the member's 6598
predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of 6599
that term. Members may be reappointed to the authority. Members of 6600
the authority shall receive their necessary and actual expenses 6601
while engaged in the business of the authority. The director of 6602
development services shall serve as chairperson of the authority, 6603
and the members annually shall elect a vice-chairperson from among 6604
themselves. Three members of the authority constitute a quorum to 6605
transact and vote on the business of the authority. The majority 6606
vote of the membership of the authority is necessary to approve 6607
any such business, including the election of the vice-chairperson.6608

       The director of development services may appoint a 6609
professional employee of the development services agency to serve 6610
as the director's substitute at a meeting of the authority. The 6611
director shall make the appointment in writing. In the absence of 6612
the director from a meeting of the authority, the appointed 6613
substitute shall serve as chairperson. In the absence of both the 6614
director and the director's substitute from a meeting, the 6615
vice-chairperson shall serve as chairperson.6616

       (N) For purposes of the credits granted by this section 6617
against the taxes imposed under sections 5725.18 and 5729.03 of 6618
the Revised Code, "taxable year" means the period covered by the 6619
taxpayer's annual statement to the superintendent of insurance.6620

       (O) On or before the first day of JanuaryMarch of each of 6621
the sixfive calendar years following the year in which H.B. 327 6622
of the 129th general assembly becomeseffectivebeginning with 6623
2014, each taxpayer subject to an agreement with the tax credit 6624
authority under this section on the basis of home-based employees 6625
shall report the number of home-based employees and other 6626
employees employed by the taxpayer in this state to the department 6627
of development services agency.6628

       (P) On or before the first day of January of the seventh 6629
calendar year following the year in which H.B. 327 of the 129th 6630
general assembly became effective2019, the director of 6631
development services shall submit a report to the governor, the 6632
president of the senate, and the speaker of the house of 6633
representatives on the effect of agreements entered into under 6634
this section in which the taxpayer included home-based employees 6635
in the computation of income tax revenue. The report shall include 6636
information on the number of such agreements that were entered 6637
into in the preceding six years, a description of the projects 6638
that were the subjects of such agreements, and an analysis of 6639
nationwide home-based employment trends, including the number of 6640
home-based jobs created from July 1, 2011, through June 30, 2017, 6641
and a description of any home-based employment tax incentives 6642
provided by other states during that time.6643

       (Q) The director of development services may require any 6644
agreement entered into under this section for a tax credit 6645
computed on the basis of home-based employees to contain a 6646
provision that the taxpayer makes available health care benefits 6647
and tuition reimbursement to all employees.6648

       Sec. 122.171. (A) As used in this section:6649

       (1) "Capital investment project" means a plan of investment 6650
at a project site for the acquisition, construction, renovation, 6651
or repair of buildings, machinery, or equipment, or for 6652
capitalized costs of basic research and new product development 6653
determined in accordance with generally accepted accounting 6654
principles, but does not include any of the following:6655

       (a) Payments made for the acquisition of personal property 6656
through operating leases;6657

       (b) Project costs paid before January 1, 2002;6658

       (c) Payments made to a related member as defined in section 6659
5733.042 of the Revised Code or to a consolidated elected taxpayer 6660
or a combined taxpayer as defined in section 5751.01 of the 6661
Revised Code.6662

       (2) "Eligible business" means a taxpayer and its related 6663
members with Ohio operations satisfying all of the following:6664

       (a) The taxpayer employs at least five hundred full-time 6665
equivalent employees or has an annual payroll of at least 6666
thirty-five million dollars at the time the tax credit authority 6667
grants the tax credit under this section;6668

       (b) The taxpayer makes or causes to be made payments for the 6669
capital investment project of one of the following:6670

       (i) If the taxpayer is engaged at the project site primarily 6671
as a manufacturer, at least fifty million dollars in the aggregate 6672
at the project site during a period of three consecutive calendar 6673
years, including the calendar year that includes a day of the 6674
taxpayer's taxable year or tax period with respect to which the 6675
credit is granted;6676

       (ii) If the taxpayer is engaged at the project site primarily 6677
in significant corporate administrative functions, as defined by 6678
the director of development services by rule, at least twenty 6679
million dollars in the aggregate at the project site during a 6680
period of three consecutive calendar years including the calendar 6681
year that includes a day of the taxpayer's taxable year or tax 6682
period with respect to which the credit is granted;6683

       (iii) If the taxpayer is applying to enter into an agreement 6684
for a tax credit authorized under division (B)(3) of this section, 6685
at least five million dollars in the aggregate at the project site 6686
during a period of three consecutive calendar years, including the 6687
calendar year that includes a day of the taxpayer's taxable year 6688
or tax period with respect to which the credit is granted.6689

       (c) The taxpayer had a capital investment project reviewed 6690
and approved by the tax credit authority as provided in divisions 6691
(C), (D), and (E) of this section.6692

       (3) "Full-time equivalent employees" means the quotient 6693
obtained by dividing the total number of hours for which employees 6694
were compensated for employment in the project by two thousand 6695
eighty. "Full-time equivalent employees" shall exclude hours that 6696
are counted for a credit under section 122.17 of the Revised Code.6697

       (4) "Income tax revenue" means the total amount withheld 6698
under section 5747.06 of the Revised Code by the taxpayer during 6699
the taxable year, or during the calendar year that includes the 6700
tax period, from the compensation of all employees employed in the 6701
project whose hours of compensation are included in calculating 6702
the number of full-time equivalent employees.6703

       (5) "Manufacturer" has the same meaning as in section 6704
5739.011 of the Revised Code.6705

       (6) "Project site" means an integrated complex of facilities 6706
in this state, as specified by the tax credit authority under this 6707
section, within a fifteen-mile radius where a taxpayer is 6708
primarily operating as an eligible business.6709

       (7) "Related member" has the same meaning as in section 6710
5733.042 of the Revised Code as that section existed on the 6711
effective date of its amendment by Am. Sub. H.B. 215 of the 122nd 6712
general assembly, September 29, 1997.6713

       (8) "Taxable year" includes, in the case of a domestic or 6714
foreign insurance company, the calendar year ending on the 6715
thirty-first day of December preceding the day the superintendent 6716
of insurance is required to certify to the treasurer of state 6717
under section 5725.20 or 5729.05 of the Revised Code the amount of 6718
taxes due from insurance companies.6719

       (B) The tax credit authority created under section 122.17 of 6720
the Revised Code may grant tax credits under this section for the 6721
purpose of fostering job retention in this state. Upon application 6722
by an eligible business and upon consideration of the 6723
recommendation of the director of budget and management, tax 6724
commissioner, the superintendent of insurance in the case of an 6725
insurance company, and director of development services under 6726
division (C) of this section, the tax credit authority may grant 6727
the following credits against the tax imposed by section 5725.18, 6728
5726.02, 5729.03, 5733.06, 5747.02, or 5751.02 of the Revised 6729
Code:6730

       (1) A nonrefundable credit to an eligible business;6731

       (2) A refundable credit to an eligible business meeting the 6732
following conditions, provided that the director of budget and 6733
management, tax commissioner, superintendent of insurance in the 6734
case of an insurance company, and director of development services 6735
have recommended the granting of the credit to the tax credit 6736
authority before July 1, 2011:6737

       (a) The business retains at least one thousand full-time 6738
equivalent employees at the project site.6739

       (b) The business makes or causes to be made payments for a 6740
capital investment project of at least twenty-five million dollars 6741
in the aggregate at the project site during a period of three 6742
consecutive calendar years, including the calendar year that 6743
includes a day of the business' taxable year or tax period with 6744
respect to which the credit is granted.6745

       (c) In 2010, the business received a written offer of 6746
financial incentives from another state of the United States that 6747
the director determines to be sufficient inducement for the 6748
business to relocate the business' operations from this state to 6749
that state.6750

       (3) A refundable credit to an eligible business with a total 6751
annual payroll of at least twenty million dollars, provided that 6752
the tax credit authority grants the tax credit on or after July 1, 6753
2011, and before January 1, 2014.6754

       The credits authorized in divisions (B)(1), (2), and (3) of 6755
this section may be granted for a period up to fifteen taxable 6756
years or, in the case of the tax levied by section 5751.02 of the 6757
Revised Code, for a period of up to fifteen calendar years. The 6758
credit amount for a taxable year or a calendar year that includes 6759
the tax period for which a credit may be claimed equals the income 6760
tax revenue for that year multiplied by the percentage specified 6761
in the agreement with the tax credit authority. The percentage may 6762
not exceed seventy-five per cent. The credit shall be claimed in 6763
the order required under section 5725.98, 5726.98, 5729.98, 6764
5733.98, 5747.98, or 5751.98 of the Revised Code. In determining 6765
the percentage and term of the credit, the tax credit authority 6766
shall consider both the number of full-time equivalent employees 6767
and the value of the capital investment project. The credit amount 6768
may not be based on the income tax revenue for a calendar year 6769
before the calendar year in which the tax credit authority 6770
specifies the tax credit is to begin, and the credit shall be 6771
claimed only for the taxable years or tax periods specified in the 6772
eligible business' agreement with the tax credit authority. In no 6773
event shall the credit be claimed for a taxable year or tax period 6774
terminating before the date specified in the agreement. Any credit 6775
granted under this section against the tax imposed by section 6776
5733.06 or 5747.02 of the Revised Code, to the extent not fully 6777
utilized against such tax for taxable years ending prior to 2008, 6778
shall automatically be converted without any action taken by the 6779
tax credit authority to a credit against the tax levied under 6780
Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code for tax periods beginning on or 6781
after July 1, 2008, provided that the person to whom the credit 6782
was granted is subject to such tax. The converted credit shall 6783
apply to those calendar years in which the remaining taxable years 6784
specified in the agreement end.6785

        If a nonrefundable credit allowed under division (B)(1) of 6786
this section for a taxable year or tax period exceeds the 6787
taxpayer's tax liability for that year or period, the excess may 6788
be carried forward for the three succeeding taxable or calendar 6789
years, but the amount of any excess credit allowed in any taxable 6790
year or tax period shall be deducted from the balance carried 6791
forward to the succeeding year or period. 6792

       (C) A taxpayer that proposes a capital investment project to 6793
retain jobs in this state may apply to the tax credit authority to 6794
enter into an agreement for a tax credit under this section. The 6795
director of development services shall prescribe the form of the 6796
application. After receipt of an application, the authority shall 6797
forward copies of the application to the director of budget and 6798
management, the tax commissioner, the superintendent of insurance 6799
in the case of an insurance company, and the director of 6800
development services, each of whom shall review the application to 6801
determine the economic impact the proposed project would have on 6802
the state and the affected political subdivisions and shall submit 6803
a summary of their determinations and recommendations to the 6804
authority. 6805

       (D) Upon review and consideration of the determinations and 6806
recommendations described in division (C) of this section, the tax 6807
credit authority may enter into an agreement with the taxpayer for 6808
a credit under this section if the authority determines all of the 6809
following:6810

       (1) The taxpayer's capital investment project will result in 6811
the retention of employment in this state.6812

       (2) The taxpayer is economically sound and has the ability to 6813
complete the proposed capital investment project.6814

       (3) The taxpayer intends to and has the ability to maintain 6815
operations at the project site for at least the greater of (a) the 6816
term of the credit plus three years, or (b) seven years.6817

       (4) Receiving the credit is a major factor in the taxpayer's 6818
decision to begin, continue with, or complete the project.6819

       (5) If the taxpayer is applying to enter into an agreement 6820
for a tax credit authorized under division (B)(3) of this section, 6821
the taxpayer's capital investment project will be located in the 6822
political subdivision in which the taxpayer maintains its 6823
principal place of business or maintains a unit or division with 6824
at least four thousand two hundred employees at the project site.6825

       (E) An agreement under this section shall include all of the 6826
following:6827

       (1) A detailed description of the project that is the subject 6828
of the agreement, including the amount of the investment, the 6829
period over which the investment has been or is being made, the 6830
number of full-time equivalent employees at the project site, and 6831
the anticipated income tax revenue to be generated.6832

       (2) The term of the credit, the percentage of the tax credit, 6833
the maximum annual value of tax credits that may be allowed each 6834
year, and the first year for which the credit may be claimed.6835

        (3) A requirement that the taxpayer maintain operations at 6836
the project site for at least the greater of (a) the term of the 6837
credit plus three years, or (b) seven years.6838

       (4)(a) In the case of a credit granted under division (B)(1) 6839
of this section, a requirement that the taxpayer retain at least 6840
five hundred full-time equivalent employees at the project site 6841
and within this state for the entire term of the credit, or a 6842
requirement that the taxpayer maintain an annual payroll of at 6843
least thirty-five million dollars for the entire term of the 6844
credit;6845

        (b) In the case of a credit granted under division (B)(2) of 6846
this section, a requirement that the taxpayer retain at least one 6847
thousand full-time equivalent employees at the project site and 6848
within this state for the entire term of the credit;6849

        (c) In the case of a credit granted under division (B)(3) of 6850
this section, either of the following:6851

        (i) A requirement that the taxpayer retain at least five 6852
hundred full-time equivalent employees at the project site and 6853
within this state for the entire term of the credit and a 6854
requirement that the taxpayer maintain an annual payroll of at 6855
least twenty million dollars for the entire term of the credit;6856

        (ii) A requirement that the taxpayer maintain an annual 6857
payroll of at least thirty-five million dollars for the entire 6858
term of the credit.6859

       (5) A requirement that the taxpayer annually report to the 6860
director of development services employment, tax withholding, 6861
capital investment, and other information the director needs to 6862
perform the director's duties under this section.6863

       (6) A requirement that the director of development services 6864
annually review the annual reports of the taxpayer to verify the 6865
information reported under division (E)(5) of this section and 6866
compliance with the agreement. Upon verification, the director 6867
shall issue a certificate to the taxpayer stating that the 6868
information has been verified and identifying the amount of the 6869
credit for the taxable year or calendar year that includes the tax 6870
period. In determining the number of full-time equivalent 6871
employees, no position shall be counted that is filled by an 6872
employee who is included in the calculation of a tax credit under 6873
section 122.17 of the Revised Code.6874

        (7) A provision providing that the taxpayer may not relocate 6875
a substantial number of employment positions from elsewhere in 6876
this state to the project site unless the director of development 6877
services determines that the taxpayer notified the legislative 6878
authority of the county, township, or municipal corporation from 6879
which the employment positions would be relocated.6880

       For purposes of this section, the movement of an employment 6881
position from one political subdivision to another political 6882
subdivision shall be considered a relocation of an employment 6883
position unless the movement is confined to the project site. The 6884
transfer of an employment position from one political subdivision 6885
to another political subdivision shall not be considered a 6886
relocation of an employment position if the employment position in 6887
the first political subdivision is replaced by another employment 6888
position.6889

       (8) A waiver by the taxpayer of any limitations periods 6890
relating to assessments or adjustments resulting from the 6891
taxpayer's failure to comply with the agreement.6892

       (F) If a taxpayer fails to meet or comply with any condition 6893
or requirement set forth in a tax credit agreement, the tax credit 6894
authority may amend the agreement to reduce the percentage or term 6895
of the credit. The reduction of the percentage or term may take 6896
effect in the current taxable or calendar year.6897

       (G) Financial statements and other information submitted to 6898
the department of development services or the tax credit authority 6899
by an applicant for or recipient of a tax credit under this 6900
section, and any information taken for any purpose from such 6901
statements or information, are not public records subject to 6902
section 149.43 of the Revised Code. However, the chairperson of 6903
the authority may make use of the statements and other information 6904
for purposes of issuing public reports or in connection with court 6905
proceedings concerning tax credit agreements under this section. 6906
Upon the request of the tax commissioner, or the superintendent of 6907
insurance in the case of an insurance company, the chairperson of 6908
the authority shall provide to the commissioner or superintendent 6909
any statement or other information submitted by an applicant for 6910
or recipient of a tax credit in connection with the credit. The 6911
commissioner or superintendent shall preserve the confidentiality 6912
of the statement or other information.6913

       (H) A taxpayer claiming a tax credit under this section shall 6914
submit to the tax commissioner or, in the case of an insurance 6915
company, to the superintendent of insurance, a copy of the 6916
director of development services' certificate of verification 6917
under division (E)(6) of this section with the taxpayer's tax 6918
report or return for the taxable year or for the calendar year 6919
that includes the tax period. Failure to submit a copy of the 6920
certificate with the report or return does not invalidate a claim 6921
for a credit if the taxpayer submits a copy of the certificate to 6922
the commissioner or superintendent within sixty days after the 6923
commissioner or superintendent requests it.6924

       (I) For the purposes of this section, a taxpayer may include 6925
a partnership, a corporation that has made an election under 6926
subchapter S of chapter one of subtitle A of the Internal Revenue 6927
Code, or any other business entity through which income flows as a 6928
distributive share to its owners. A partnership, S-corporation, or 6929
other such business entity may elect to pass the credit received 6930
under this section through to the persons to whom the income or 6931
profit of the partnership, S-corporation, or other entity is 6932
distributed. The election shall be made on the annual report 6933
required under division (E)(5) of this section. The election 6934
applies to and is irrevocable for the credit for which the report 6935
is submitted. If the election is made, the credit shall be 6936
apportioned among those persons in the same proportions as those 6937
in which the income or profit is distributed.6938

       (J) If the director of development services determines that a 6939
taxpayer that received a certificate under division (E)(6) of this 6940
section is not complying with the requirement under division 6941
(E)(3) of this section, the director shall notify the tax credit 6942
authority of the noncompliance. After receiving such a notice, and 6943
after giving the taxpayer an opportunity to explain the 6944
noncompliance, the authority may terminate the agreement and 6945
require the taxpayer, or any related member or members that 6946
claimed the tax credit under division (N) of this section, to 6947
refund to the state all or a portion of the credit claimed in 6948
previous years, as follows:6949

        (1) If the taxpayer maintained operations at the project site 6950
for less than or equal to the term of the credit, an amount not to 6951
exceed one hundred per cent of the sum of any tax credits allowed 6952
and received under this section.6953

        (2) If the taxpayer maintained operations at the project site 6954
longer than the term of the credit, but less than the greater of 6955
(a) the term of the credit plus three years, or (b) seven years, 6956
the amount required to be refunded shall not exceed seventy-five 6957
per cent of the sum of any tax credits allowed and received under 6958
this section.6959

       In determining the portion of the credit to be refunded to 6960
this state, the authority shall consider the effect of market 6961
conditions on the taxpayer's project and whether the taxpayer 6962
continues to maintain other operations in this state. After making 6963
the determination, the authority shall certify the amount to be 6964
refunded to the tax commissioner or the superintendent of 6965
insurance. If the taxpayer, or any related member or members who 6966
claimed the tax credit under division (N) of this section, is not 6967
an insurance company, the commissioner shall make an assessment 6968
for that amount against the taxpayer under Chapter 5726., 5733., 6969
5747., or 5751. of the Revised Code. If the taxpayer, or any 6970
related member or members that claimed the tax credit under 6971
division (N) of this section, is an insurance company, the 6972
superintendent of insurance shall make an assessment under section 6973
5725.222 or 5729.102 of the Revised Code. The time limitations on 6974
assessments under those chapters and sections do not apply to an 6975
assessment under this division, but the commissioner or 6976
superintendent shall make the assessment within one year after the 6977
date the authority certifies to the commissioner or superintendent 6978
the amount to be refunded.6979

       (K) The director of development services, after consultation 6980
with the tax commissioner and the superintendent of insurance and 6981
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt 6982
rules necessary to implement this section. The rules may provide 6983
for recipients of tax credits under this section to be charged 6984
fees to cover administrative costs of the tax credit program. The 6985
fees collected shall be credited to the business assistance fund 6986
created in section 122.174 of the Revised Code. At the time the 6987
director gives public notice under division (A) of section 119.03 6988
of the Revised Code of the adoption of the rules, the director 6989
shall submit copies of the proposed rules to the chairpersons of 6990
the standing committees on economic development in the senate and 6991
the house of representatives.6992

       (L) On or before the first day of August of each year, the 6993
director of development services shall submit a report to the 6994
governor, the president of the senate, and the speaker of the 6995
house of representatives on the tax credit program under this 6996
section. The report shall include information on the number of 6997
agreements that were entered into under this section during the 6998
preceding calendar year, a description of the project that is the 6999
subject of each such agreement, and an update on the status of 7000
projects under agreements entered into before the preceding 7001
calendar year.7002

       (M)(1) The aggregate amount of tax credits issued under 7003
division (B)(1) of this section during any calendar year for 7004
capital investment projects reviewed and approved by the tax 7005
credit authority may not exceed the following amounts:7006

       (a) For 2010, thirteen million dollars;7007

       (b) For 2011 through 2023, the amount of the limit for the 7008
preceding calendar year plus thirteen million dollars;7009

       (c) For 2024 and each year thereafter, one hundred 7010
ninety-five million dollars.7011

       (2) The aggregate amount of tax credits authorized under 7012
divisions (B)(2) and (3) of this section and allowed to be claimed 7013
by taxpayers in any calendar year for capital improvement projects 7014
reviewed and approved by the tax credit authority in 2011, 2012, 7015
and 2013 combined shall not exceed twenty-five million dollars. An 7016
amount equal to the aggregate amount of credits first authorized 7017
in calendar year 2011, 2012, and 2013 may be claimed over the 7018
ensuing period up to fifteen years, subject to the terms of 7019
individual tax credit agreements.7020

       The limitations in division (M) of this section do not apply 7021
to credits for capital investment projects approved by the tax 7022
credit authority before July 1, 2009.7023

       (N) This division applies only to an eligible business that 7024
is part of an affiliated group that includes a diversified savings 7025
and loan holding company or a grandfathered unitary savings and 7026
loan holding company, as those terms are defined in section 7027
5726.01 of the Revised Code. Notwithstanding any contrary 7028
provision of the agreement between such an eligible business and 7029
the tax credit authority, any credit granted under this section 7030
against the tax imposed by section 5725.18, 5729.03, 5733.06, 7031
5747.02, or 5751.02 of the Revised Code to the eligible business, 7032
at the election of the eligible business and without any action by 7033
the tax credit authority, may be shared with any member or members 7034
of the affiliated group that includes the eligible business, which 7035
member or members may claim the credit against the taxes imposed 7036
by section 5725.18, 5726.02, 5729.03, 5733.06, 5747.02, or 5751.02 7037
of the Revised Code. Credits shall be claimed by the eligible 7038
business in sequential order, as applicable, first claiming the 7039
credits to the fullest extent possible against the tax that the 7040
certificate holder is subject to, then against the tax imposed by, 7041
sequentially, section 5729.03, 5725.18, 5747.02, 5751.02, and 7042
lastly 5726.02 of the Revised Code. The credits may be allocated 7043
among the members of the affiliated group in such manner as the 7044
eligible business elects, but subject to the sequential order 7045
required under this division. This division applies to credits 7046
granted before, on, or after March 27, 2013, the effective date of 7047
H.B. 510 of the 129th general assembly. Credits granted before 7048
that effective date that are shared and allocated under this 7049
division may be claimed in those calendar years in which the 7050
remaining taxable years specified in the agreement end.7051

       As used in this division, "affiliated group" means a group of 7052
two or more persons with fifty per cent or greater of the value of 7053
each person's ownership interests owned or controlled directly, 7054
indirectly, or constructively through related interests by common 7055
owners during all or any portion of the taxable year, and the 7056
common owners. "Affiliated group" includes, but is not limited to, 7057
any person eligible to be included in a consolidated elected 7058
taxpayer group under section 5751.011 of the Revised Code or a 7059
combined taxpayer group under section 5751.012 of the Revised 7060
Code.7061

       Sec. 122.175.  (A) As used in this section:7062

       (1) "Capital investment project" means a plan of investment 7063
at a project site for the acquisition, construction, renovation, 7064
expansion, replacement, or repair of a computer data center or of 7065
computer data center equipment, but does not include any of the 7066
following:7067

       (a) Project costs paid before a date determined by the tax 7068
credit authority for each capital investment project;7069

       (b) Payments made to a related member as defined in section 7070
5733.042 of the Revised Code or to a consolidated elected taxpayer 7071
or a combined taxpayer as defined in section 5751.01 of the 7072
Revised Code.7073

       (2) "Computer data center" means a facility used or to be 7074
used primarily to house computer data center equipment used or to 7075
be used in conducting aone or more computer data center business7076
businesses, as determined by the tax credit authority. 7077

       (3) "Computer data center business" means, as may be further 7078
determined by the tax credit authority, a business that provides 7079
electronic information services as defined in division (Y)(1)(c) 7080
of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code, or that leases a facility 7081
to one or more such businesses. "Computer data center business" 7082
does not include providing electronic publishing as defined in 7083
division (LLL) of that section.7084

       (4) "Computer data center equipment" means tangible personal 7085
property used or to be used for any of the following:7086

       (a) To conduct a computer data center business, including 7087
equipment cooling systems to manage the performance of computer 7088
data center equipment;7089

       (b) To generate, transform, transmit, distribute, or manage 7090
electricity necessary to operate the tangible personal property 7091
used or to be used in conducting a computer data center business;7092

       (c) As building and construction materials sold to 7093
construction contractors for incorporation into a computer data 7094
center.7095

       (5) "Eligible computer data center" means a computer data 7096
center that satisfies all of the following requirements:7097

       (a) The taxpayerOne or more taxpayers operating a computer 7098
data center business at the project site will, in the aggregate,7099
make payments for a capital investment project of at least one 7100
hundred million dollars in the aggregate at the project site 7101
during a period of three consecutive calendar years;7102

       (b) The taxpayerOne or more taxpayers operating a computer 7103
data center business at the project site will, in the aggregate,7104
pay annual compensation that is subject to the withholding 7105
obligation imposed under section 5747.06 of the Revised Code of at 7106
least fiveone million five hundred thousand dollars to employees 7107
employed at the project site for the term of the agreementeach 7108
year of the agreement beginning on or after the first day of the 7109
twenty-fifth month after the agreement was entered into under this 7110
section.7111

       (6) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 5701.01 of 7112
the Revised Code.7113

       (7) "Project site," "related member," and "tax credit 7114
authority" have the same meanings as in sections 122.17 and 7115
122.171 of the Revised Code.7116

       (8) "Taxpayer" means any person subject to the taxes imposed 7117
under Chapters 5739. and 5741. of the Revised Code.7118

       (B) The tax credit authority may completely or partially 7119
exempt from the taxes levied under Chapters 5739. and 5741. of the 7120
Revised Code the sale, storage, use, or other consumption of 7121
computer data center equipment used or to be used at an eligible 7122
computer data center. Any such exemption shall extend to charges 7123
for the delivery, installation, or repair of the computer data 7124
center equipment subject to the exemption under this section.7125

       (C) A taxpayer that proposes a capital improvement project 7126
for an eligible computer data center in this state may apply to 7127
the tax credit authority to enter into an agreement under this 7128
section forauthorizing a complete or partial exemption from the 7129
taxes imposed under Chapters 5739. and 5741. of the Revised Code 7130
on computer data center equipment purchased by the applicant or 7131
any other taxpayer that operates a computer data center business 7132
at the project site and used or to be used at the eligible 7133
computer data center. The director of development services shall 7134
prescribe the form of the application. After receipt of an 7135
application, the authority shall forward copies of the application 7136
to the director of budget and management, the tax commissioner, 7137
and the director of development services, each of whom shall 7138
review the application to determine the economic impact that the 7139
proposed eligible computer data center would have on the state and 7140
any affected political subdivisions and submit to the authority a 7141
summary of their determinations and recommendations.7142

       (D) Upon review and consideration of such determinations and 7143
recommendations, the tax credit authority may enter into an 7144
agreement with the applicant and any other taxpayer that operates 7145
a computer data center business at the project site for a complete 7146
or partial exemption from the taxes imposed under Chapters 5739. 7147
and 5741. of the Revised Code on computer data center equipment 7148
used or to be used at an eligible computer data center if the 7149
authority determines all of the following:7150

       (1) The taxpayer's capital investment project for the 7151
eligible computer data center will increase payroll and the amount 7152
of income taxes to be withheld from employee compensation pursuant 7153
to section 5747.06 of the Revised Code.7154

       (2) The taxpayerapplicant is economically sound and has the 7155
ability to complete or effect the completion of the proposed 7156
capital investment project.7157

       (3) The taxpayerapplicant intends to and has the ability to 7158
maintain operations at the project site for the term of the 7159
agreement.7160

       (4) Receiving the exemption is a major factor in the 7161
taxpayer'sapplicant's decision to begin, continue with, or 7162
complete the capital investment project.7163

       (E) An agreement entered into under this section shall 7164
include all of the following:7165

       (1) A detailed description of the capital investment project 7166
that is the subject of the agreement, including the amount of the 7167
investment, the period over which the investment has been or is 7168
being made, the annual compensation to be paid by theeach7169
taxpayer subject to the agreement to its employees at the project 7170
site, and the anticipated amount of income taxes to be withheld 7171
from employee compensation pursuant to section 5747.06 of the 7172
Revised Code.7173

       (2) The percentage of the exemption from the taxes imposed 7174
under Chapters 5739. and 5741. of the Revised Code for the 7175
computer data center equipment used or to be used at the eligible 7176
computer data center, the length of time the computer data center 7177
equipment will be exempted, and the first date on which the 7178
exemption applies.7179

       (3) A requirement that the taxpayer maintain the computer 7180
data center asremain an eligible computer data center during the 7181
term of the agreement and that the taxpayerapplicant maintain 7182
operations at the eligible computer data center during that term. 7183
An applicant does not violate the requirement described in 7184
division (E)(3) of this section if the applicant ceases operations 7185
at the eligible computer data center during the term of the 7186
agreement but resumes those operations within eighteen months 7187
after the date of cessation. The agreement shall provide that, in 7188
such a case, the applicant and any other taxpayer that operates a 7189
computer data center business at the project site shall not claim 7190
the tax exemption authorized in the agreement for any purchase of 7191
computer data center equipment made during the period in which the 7192
applicant did not maintain operations at the eligible computer 7193
data center.7194

       (4) A requirement that during, for each year of the term of 7195
the agreement the taxpayerbeginning on or after the first day of 7196
the twenty-fifth month after the date the agreement was entered 7197
into, one or more taxpayers operating a computer data center 7198
business at the project site will, in the aggregate, pay annual 7199
compensation that is subject to the withholding obligation imposed 7200
under section 5747.06 of the Revised Code of at least fiveone7201
million five hundred thousand dollars to its employees at the 7202
eligible computer data center.7203

       (5) A requirement that theeach taxpayer subject to the 7204
agreement annually report to the director of development services 7205
employment, tax withholding, capital investment, and other 7206
information required by the director to perform the director's 7207
duties under this section.7208

       (6) A requirement that the director of development services 7209
annually review the annual reports of theeach taxpayer subject to 7210
the agreement to verify the information reported under division 7211
(E)(5) of this section and compliance with the agreement. Upon 7212
verification, the director shall issue a certificate to theeach 7213
such taxpayer stating that the information has been verified and 7214
that the taxpayer remains eligible for the exemption specified in 7215
the agreement.7216

       (7) A provision providing that the taxpayertaxpayers subject 7217
to the agreement may not relocate a substantial number of 7218
employment positions from elsewhere in this state to the project 7219
site unless the director of development services determines that 7220
the appropriate taxpayer notified the legislative authority of the 7221
county, township, or municipal corporation from which the 7222
employment positions would be relocated. For purposes of this 7223
paragraph, the movement of an employment position from one 7224
political subdivision to another political subdivision shall be 7225
considered a relocation of an employment position unless the 7226
movement is confined to the project site. The transfer of an 7227
employment position from one political subdivision to another 7228
political subdivision shall not be considered a relocation of an 7229
employment position if the employment position in the first 7230
political subdivision is replaced by another employment position.7231

       (8) A waiver by theeach taxpayer subject to the agreement of 7232
any limitations periods relating to assessments or adjustments 7233
resulting from the taxpayer's failure to comply with the 7234
agreement.7235

       (F) The term of an agreement under this section shall be 7236
determined by the tax credit authority, and the amount of the 7237
exemption shall not exceed one hundred per cent of such taxes that 7238
would otherwise be owed in respect to the exempted computer data 7239
center equipment.7240

       (G) If aany taxpayer subject to an agreement under this 7241
section fails to meet or comply with any condition or requirement 7242
set forth in anthe agreement under this section, the tax credit 7243
authority may amend the agreement to reduce the percentage of the 7244
exemption or term during which the exemption applies to the 7245
computer data center equipment used or to be used by the 7246
noncompliant taxpayer at an eligible computer data center. The 7247
reduction of the percentage or term may take effect in the current 7248
calendar year.7249

       (H) Financial statements and other information submitted to 7250
the department of development services or the tax credit authority 7251
by an applicant for or recipient of an exemption under this 7252
section, and any information taken for any purpose from such 7253
statements or information, are not public records subject to 7254
section 149.43 of the Revised Code. However, the chairperson of 7255
the authority may make use of the statements and other information 7256
for purposes of issuing public reports or in connection with court 7257
proceedings concerning tax exemption agreements under this 7258
section. Upon the request of the tax commissioner, the chairperson 7259
of the authority shall provide to the tax commissioner any 7260
statement or other information submitted by an applicant for or 7261
recipient of an exemption under this section. The tax commissioner 7262
shall preserve the confidentiality of the statement or other 7263
information.7264

       (I) The tax commissioner shall issue a direct payment permit 7265
under section 5739.031 of the Revised Code to aeach taxpayer that 7266
enters intosubject to an agreement under this section. Such 7267
direct payment permit shall authorize the taxpayer to pay any 7268
sales and use taxes due on purchases of computer data center 7269
equipment used or to be used in an eligible computer data center 7270
and to pay any sales and use taxes due on purchases of tangible 7271
personal property or taxable services other than computer data 7272
center equipment used or to be used in an eligible computer data 7273
center directly to the tax commissioner. Each such taxpayer shall 7274
pay pursuant to such direct payment permit all sales tax levied on 7275
such purchases under sections 5739.02, 5739.021, 5739.023, and 7276
5739.026 of the Revised Code and all use tax levied on such 7277
purchases under sections 5741.02, 5741.021, 5741.022, and 5741.023 7278
of the Revised Code, consistent with the terms of the agreement 7279
entered into under this section. 7280

       During the term of an agreement under this section theeach7281
taxpayer subject to the agreement shall submit to the tax 7282
commissioner a return that shows the amount of computer data 7283
center equipment purchased for use at the eligible computer data 7284
center, the amount of tangible personal property and taxable 7285
services other than computer data center equipment purchased for 7286
use at the eligible computer data center, the amount of tax under 7287
Chapter 5739. or 5741. of the Revised Code that would be due in 7288
the absence of the agreement under this section, the exemption 7289
percentage for computer data center equipment specified in the 7290
agreement, and the amount of tax due under Chapter 5739. or 5741. 7291
of the Revised Code as a result of the agreement under this 7292
section. TheEach such taxpayer shall pay the tax shown on the 7293
return to be due in the manner and at the times as may be further 7294
prescribed by the tax commissioner. TheEach such taxpayer shall 7295
include a copy of the director of development services' 7296
certificate of verification issued under division (E)(6) of this 7297
section. Failure to submit a copy of the certificate with the 7298
return does not invalidate the claim for exemption if the taxpayer 7299
submits a copy of the certificate to the tax commissioner within 7300
sixty days after the tax commissioner requests it.7301

       (J) If the director of development services determines that a 7302
taxpayer thatone or more taxpayers received an exemption under 7303
this section is not complyingfrom taxes due on the purchase of 7304
computer data center equipment purchased for use at a computer 7305
data center that no longer complies with the requirement under 7306
division (E)(3) of this section, the director shall notify the tax 7307
credit authority and, if applicable, the taxpayer that applied to 7308
enter the agreement for the exemption under division (C) if this 7309
section of the noncompliance. After receiving such a notice, and 7310
after giving theeach taxpayer subject to the agreement an 7311
opportunity to explain the noncompliance, the authority may 7312
terminate the agreement and require theeach such taxpayer to pay 7313
to the state all or a portion of the taxes that would have been 7314
owed in regards to the exempt equipment in previous years, all as 7315
determined under rules adopted pursuant to division (K) of this 7316
section. In determining the portion of the taxes that would have 7317
been owed on the previously exempted equipment to be paid to this 7318
state by thea taxpayer, the authority shall consider the effect 7319
of market conditions on the taxpayer's eligible computer data 7320
center and, whether the taxpayer continues to maintain other 7321
operations in this state, and, with respect to agreements 7322
involving multiple taxpayers, the taxpayer's level of 7323
responsibility for the noncompliance. After making the 7324
determination, the authority shall certify to the tax commissioner 7325
the amount to be paid by theeach taxpayer subject to the 7326
agreement. The tax commissioner shall make an assessment for that 7327
amount against theeach such taxpayer under Chapter 5739. or 5741. 7328
of the Revised Code. The time limitations on assessments under 7329
those chapters do not apply to an assessment under this division, 7330
but the tax commissioner shall make the assessment within one year 7331
after the date the authority certifies to the tax commissioner the 7332
amount to be paid by the taxpayer.7333

       (K) The director of development services, after consultation 7334
with the tax commissioner and in accordance with Chapter 119. of 7335
the Revised Code, shall adopt rules necessary to implement this 7336
section. The rules may provide for recipients of tax exemptions 7337
under this section to be charged fees to cover administrative 7338
costs incurred in the administration of this section. The fees 7339
collected shall be credited to the business assistance fund 7340
created in section 122.174 of the Revised Code. At the time the 7341
director gives public notice under division (A) of section 119.03 7342
of the Revised Code of the adoption of the rules, the director 7343
shall submit copies of the proposed rules to the chairpersons of 7344
the standing committees on economic development in the senate and 7345
the house of representatives.7346

       (L) On or before the first day of August of each year, the 7347
director of development services shall submit a report to the 7348
governor, the president of the senate, and the speaker of the 7349
house of representatives on the tax exemption authorized under 7350
this section. The report shall include information on the number 7351
of agreements that were entered into under this section during the 7352
preceding calendar year, a description of the eligible computer 7353
data center that is the subject of each such agreement, and an 7354
update on the status of eligible computer data centers under 7355
agreements entered into before the preceding calendar year.7356

       (M) A taxpayer may be made a party to an existing agreement 7357
entered into under this section by the tax credit authority and 7358
another taxpayer or group of taxpayers. In such a case, the 7359
taxpayer shall be entitled to all benefits and bound by all 7360
obligations contained in the agreement and all requirements 7361
described in this section. When an agreement includes multiple 7362
taxpayers, each taxpayer shall be entitled to a direct payment 7363
permit as authorized in division (I) of this section.7364

       Sec. 122.28.  As used in sections 122.28 and 122.30 to 122.36 7365
of the Revised Code:7366

       (A) "New technology" means the development through science or 7367
research of methods, processes, and procedures, including but not 7368
limited to those involving the processing and utilization of coal, 7369
for practical application in industrial or agribusiness 7370
situations.7371

       (B) "Industrial research" means study and investigation in 7372
giving new shapes, new qualities or new combinations to matter or 7373
material products by the application of labor thereto or the 7374
rehabilitation of an existing matter or material product.7375

       (C) "Enterprise" means a business with its principal place of 7376
business in this state or which proposes to be engaged in this 7377
state in research and development or in the provision of products 7378
or services involving a significant amount of new technology.7379

       (D) "Educational institutions" means nonprofit public and 7380
private colleges and universities, incorporated or unincorporated, 7381
in the state.7382

       (E) "Small business" means an enterprise with less than four 7383
hundred employees, including corporations, partnerships, 7384
unincorporated entities, proprietorships, and joint enterprises.7385

       (F) "Applied research" means the application of basic 7386
research for the development of new technology.7387

       Sec. 122.30.  The industrial technology and enterprise 7388
advisory council and the director of development areservices is7389
vested with the powers and duties provided in sections 122.28 and 7390
122.30 to 122.36 of the Revised Code, to promote the welfare of 7391
the people of the state through the interaction of the business 7392
and industrial community and educational institutions in the 7393
development of new technology and enterprise.7394

       (A) It is necessary for the state to establish the industrial 7395
technology and enterprise advisory council and the programs 7396
created pursuant to sections 122.28 and 122.30 to 122.36 of the 7397
Revised Code to accomplish the following purposes which are 7398
determined to be essential:7399

       (1) Improve the existing industrial and agricultural base of 7400
the state;7401

       (2) Improve the economy of the state by providing employment, 7402
increasing productivity, and slowing the rate of inflation;7403

       (3) Develop markets worldwide for the products of the state's 7404
natural resources and agricultural and manufacturing industries;7405

       (4) Maintain a high standard of living for the people of the 7406
state.7407

       (B) The industrial technology and enterprise advisory council 7408
shall do all of the following:7409

       (1) Make recommendations to the director of development as to 7410
applications for assistance pursuant to sections 122.28 to 122.36 7411
of the Revised Code. The council may revise its recommendations to 7412
reflect any changes in the proposed assistance made by the 7413
director.7414

       (2) Advise the director in the administration of sections 7415
122.28 to 122.36 of the Revised Code;7416

       (3) Adopt bylaws to govern the conduct of the council's 7417
business.7418

       (C) The director of development shall do all of the 7419
following:7420

       (1) Receive applications for assistance under sections 122.28 7421
and 122.30 to 122.36 of the Revised Code and, after processing, 7422
forward them to the council together with necessary supporting 7423
information;7424

       (2) Receive the recommendations of the council and makeMake7425
a final determination whether to approve the application for 7426
assistance;7427

       (3) Transmit determinations to approve assistance exceeding 7428
forty thousand dollars to the controlling board, together with any 7429
information the controlling board requires, for the board's review 7430
and decision as to whether to approve the assistance;7431

       (4) Gather and disseminate information and conduct hearings, 7432
conferences, seminars, investigations, and special studies on 7433
problems and programs concerning industrial research and new 7434
technology and their commercial applications in the state;7435

       (5) Establish an annual program to recognize the 7436
accomplishments and contributions of individuals and organizations 7437
in the development of industrial research and new technology in 7438
the state;7439

       (6) Stimulate both public and industrial awareness and 7440
interest in industrial research and development of new technology 7441
primarily in the areas of industrial processes, implementation, 7442
energy, agribusiness, medical technology, avionics, and food 7443
processing;7444

       (7) Develop and implement comprehensive and coordinated 7445
policies, programs, and procedures promoting industrial research 7446
and new technology;7447

       (8) Propose appropriate legislation or executive actions to 7448
stimulate the development of industrial research and new 7449
technology by enterprises and individuals;7450

       (9) Encourage and facilitate contracts between industry, 7451
agriculture, educational institutions, federal agencies, and state 7452
agencies, with special emphasis on industrial research and new 7453
technology by small businesses and agribusiness;7454

       (10) Participate with any state agency in developing specific 7455
programs and goals to assist in the development of industrial 7456
research and new technology and monitor performance;7457

       (11) Assist enterprises in obtaining alternative forms of 7458
governmental or commercial financing for industrial research and 7459
new technology;7460

       (12) Assist enterprises or individuals in the implementation 7461
of new programs and policies and the expansion of existing 7462
programs to provide an atmosphere conducive to increased 7463
cooperation among and participation by individuals, enterprises, 7464
and educational institutions engaged in industrial research and 7465
the development of new technology;7466

       (13) Advertise, prepare, print, and distribute books, maps, 7467
pamphlets, and other information which in the judgment of the 7468
director will further its purposes;7469

       (14) Include in the director's annual report to the governor 7470
and the general assembly a report on the activities for the 7471
preceding calendar year under sections 122.28 and 122.30 to 122.36 7472
of the Revised Code;7473

       (15) Approve the expenditure of money appropriated by the 7474
general assembly for the purpose of sections 122.28 and 122.30 to 7475
122.36 of the Revised Code;7476

       (16) Identify and implement federal research and development 7477
programs which would link Ohio's industrial base, research 7478
facilities, and natural resources;7479

       (17) Employ and fix the compensation of technical and 7480
professional personnel, who shall be in the unclassified civil 7481
service, and employ other personnel, who shall be in the 7482
classified civil service, as necessary to carry out the provisions 7483
of sections 122.28 and 122.30 to 122.36 of the Revised Code.7484

       Sec. 122.31.  All expenses and obligations incurred by the 7485
director of development and the industrial technology and 7486
enterprise advisory councilservices in carrying out theirthe 7487
director's powers and in exercising their duties under sections 7488
122.28 and 122.30 to 122.36 of the Revised Code, are payable from 7489
revenues or other receipts or income from grants, gifts, 7490
contributions, compensation, reimbursement, and funds established 7491
in accordance with those sections or general revenue funds 7492
appropriated by the general assembly for operating expenses of the 7493
director or council.7494

       Sec. 122.32.  The director of development services, on behalf 7495
of the programs authorized pursuant to sections 122.28 and 122.307496
to 122.36 of the Revised Code, may receive and accept grants, 7497
gifts, and contributions of money, property, labor, and other 7498
things of value to be held, used, and applied only for the purpose 7499
for which the grants, gifts, and contributions are made, from 7500
individuals, private and public corporations, from the United 7501
States or any agency of the United States, and from any political 7502
subdivision of the state. The director may agree to repay any 7503
contribution of money or to return any property contributed or its 7504
value at times, in amounts, and on terms and conditions excluding 7505
the payment of interest as the director determines at the time the 7506
contribution is made. The director may evidence the obligation by 7507
written contracts, subject to section 122.31 of the Revised Code, 7508
provided that the director shall not thereby incur indebtedness of 7509
or impose liability upon the state or any political subdivision.7510

       Sec. 122.33.  The director of development services shall 7511
administer the following programs:7512

       (A) The industrial technology and enterprise development 7513
grant program, to provide capital to acquire, construct, enlarge, 7514
improve, or equip and to sell, lease, exchange, and otherwise 7515
dispose of property, structures, equipment, and facilities within 7516
the state.7517

       Such funding may be made to enterprises that propose to 7518
develop new products or technologies when the director finds all 7519
of the following factors to be present:7520

       (1) The undertaking will benefit the people of the state by 7521
creating or preserving jobs and employment opportunities or 7522
improving the economic welfare of the people of the state, and 7523
promoting the development of new technology.7524

       (2) There is reasonable assurance that the potential 7525
royalties to be derived from the sale of the product or process 7526
described in the proposal will be sufficient to repay the funding 7527
pursuant to sections 122.28 and 122.30 to 122.36 of the Revised 7528
Code and that, in making the agreement, as it relates to patents, 7529
copyrights, and other ownership rights, there is reasonable 7530
assurance that the resulting new technology will be utilized to 7531
the maximum extent possible in facilities located in Ohio.7532

       (3) The technology and research to be undertaken will allow 7533
enterprises to compete more effectively in the marketplace. Grants 7534
of capital may be in such form and conditioned upon such terms as 7535
the boarddirector deems appropriate.7536

       (B) The industrial technology and enterprise resources 7537
program to provide for the collection, dissemination, and exchange 7538
of information regarding equipment, facilities, and business 7539
planning consultation resources available in business, industry, 7540
and educational institutions and to establish methods by which 7541
small businesses may use available facilities and resources. The 7542
methods may include, but need not be limited to, leases 7543
reimbursing the educational institutions for their actual costs 7544
incurred in maintaining the facilities and agreements assigning 7545
royalties from development of successful products or processes 7546
through the use of the facilities and resources. The director 7547
shall operate this program in conjunction with the board of 7548
regents.7549

       (C) The Thomas Alva Edison grant program to provide grants to 7550
foster research, development, or technology transfer efforts 7551
involving enterprises and educational institutions that will lead 7552
to the creation of jobs. The director may utilize the Edison 7553
center network in carrying out the goals and objectives of this 7554
program. For the purposes of this division, "Edison center 7555
network" means the six cooperative research and development 7556
facilities in this state that receive funding under this division, 7557
are nonprofit organizations, have been in existence at least 7558
eighteen years as of the effective date of this amendment, and 7559
have experience in delivering manufacturing extension partnership 7560
program services to companies in this state.7561

       (1) Grants may be made to a nonprofit organization or a 7562
public or private educational institution, department, college, 7563
institute, faculty member, or other administrative subdivision or 7564
related entity of an educational institution when the director 7565
finds that the undertaking will benefit the people of the state by 7566
supporting research in advanced technology areas likely to improve 7567
the economic welfare of the people of the state through promoting 7568
the development of new commercial technology.7569

       (2) Grants may be made in a form and conditioned upon terms 7570
as the director considers appropriate.7571

       (3) Grants made under this program shall in all instances be 7572
in conjunction with a contribution to the project by a cooperating 7573
enterprise which maintains or proposes to maintain a relevant 7574
research, development, or manufacturing facility in the state, by 7575
a nonprofit organization, or by an educational institution or 7576
related entity; however, funding provided by an educational 7577
institution or related entity shall not be from general revenue 7578
funds appropriated by the Ohio general assembly. No grant made 7579
under this program shall exceed the contribution made by the 7580
cooperating enterprise, nonprofit organization, or educational 7581
institution or related entity. The director may consider 7582
cooperating contributions in the form of state of the art new 7583
equipment or in other forms provided the director determines that 7584
the contribution is essential to the successful implementation of 7585
the project. The director may adopt rules or guidelines for the 7586
valuation of contributions of equipment or other property.7587

       (4) The director may determine fields of research from which 7588
grant applications will be accepted under this program.7589

       Sec. 122.34.  The exercise of the powers granted by sections 7590
122.28 and 122.30 to 122.36 of the Revised Code will be in all 7591
respects for the benefit of the people of the state, for the 7592
improvement of commerce and prosperity, improvement of employment 7593
conditions, and will constitute the performance of essential 7594
governmental functions.7595

       Sec. 122.35.  All moneys received under sections 122.28 and 7596
122.30 to 122.36 of the Revised Code are trust funds to be held 7597
and applied solely as provided in those sections and section 7598
166.03 of the Revised Code. All moneys, except when deposited with 7599
the treasurer of the state, shall be kept and secured in 7600
depositories as selected by the director of development services7601
in the manner provided in sections 135.01 to 135.21 of the Revised 7602
Code, insofar as those sections are applicable. All moneys held by 7603
the director in trust to carry out the purposes of sections 122.28 7604
and 122.30 to 122.36 of the Revised Code shall be used as provided 7605
in sections 122.28 and 122.30 to 122.36 of the Revised Code and at 7606
no time be part of other public funds.7607

       Sec. 122.36.  Any materials or data submitted to, made 7608
available to, or received by the director of development, the 7609
industrial technology and enterprise advisory council,services or 7610
the controlling board, to the extent that the material or data 7611
consist of trade secrets, as defined in section 1333.61 of the 7612
Revised Code, or commercial or financial information, regarding 7613
projects are not public records for the purposes of section 149.43 7614
of the Revised Code.7615

       Sec. 122.58.  Moneys in the funds established pursuant to 7616
Chapter 122. of the Revised Code, except as otherwise provided in 7617
any proceedings authorizing revenue bonds or in any trust 7618
agreement securing such bonds, in excess of current needs, may be 7619
invested in notes, bonds, or other obligations which are direct 7620
obligations of or are guaranteed by the United States, in 7621
certificates of deposit or other withdrawable accounts of banks, 7622
trust companies, and building and loan or savings and loan 7623
associations organized under the laws of the state or the United 7624
States, or in the manner provided in any agreement entered into 7625
pursuant to section 169.05 of the Revised Code.7626

       Income from all such investments of moneys in any fund shall 7627
be credited to such funds as the director of development 7628
determines subject to the provisions of any bond issuance 7629
proceedings or trust agreement, and such investments may be sold 7630
at such time as the director shall determine, provided 7631
certificates of deposit or other withdrawable accounts may be sold 7632
only in accordance with division (B) of section 169.05 or 7633
divisions (D) and (E) and (F) of section 169.08 of the Revised 7634
Code.7635

       Sec. 122.657.  For the purposes of sections 122.65 to 122.658 7636
of the Revised Code, the director of development shall establish 7637
policies and requirements regarding all of the following:7638

       (A) The form and content of applications for grants or loans 7639
from the clean Ohio revitalization fund under section 122.652 of 7640
the Revised Code. The policies and requirements shall require that 7641
each application include, at a minimum, all of the following:7642

       (1) The name, address, and telephone number of the applicant;7643

       (2) The legal description of the property for which the grant 7644
or loan is requested;7645

       (3) A summary description of the hazardous substances or 7646
petroleum present at the brownfield and a certified copy of the 7647
results of an assessment;7648

       (4) A detailed explanation of the proposed cleanup or 7649
remediation of the brownfield, including an identification of the 7650
applicable cleanup standards, and a detailed description of the 7651
proposed use of the brownfield after completion of the cleanup or 7652
remediation;7653

       (5) An estimate of the total cost to clean up or remediate 7654
the brownfield in order to comply with the applicable cleanup 7655
standards. The total cost shall include the cost of employing a 7656
certified professional under section 122.654 of the Revised Code.7657

       (6) A detailed explanation of the portion of the estimated 7658
total cost of the cleanup or remediation of the brownfield that 7659
the applicant proposes to provide as required under sections 7660
122.653 and 122.658 of the Revised Code and financial records 7661
supporting the proposal;7662

       (7) A certified copy of a resolution or ordinance approving 7663
the project that the applicant shall obtain from the board of 7664
township trustees of the township or the legislative authority of 7665
the municipal corporation in which the property is located, 7666
whichever is applicable;7667

       (8) A description of the estimated economic benefit that will 7668
result from a cleanup or remediation of the brownfield;7669

       (9) An application summary for purposes of review by an 7670
integrating committee or, if applicable, the executive committee 7671
of an integrating committee under division (B) of section 122.652 7672
of the Revised Code;7673

       (10) With respect to applications for loans, information 7674
demonstrating that the applicant will implement a financial 7675
management plan that includes, without limitation, provisions for 7676
the satisfactory repayment of the loan;7677

       (11) Any other provisions that the director determines should 7678
be included in an application.7679

       (B) Procedures for conducting public meetings and providing 7680
public notice under division (A) of section 122.652 of the Revised 7681
Code;7682

       (C) Criteria to be used by integrating committees or, if 7683
required under division (C) of section 122.652 of the Revised 7684
Code, executive committees of integrating committees when 7685
prioritizing projects under division (B) of section 122.652 of the 7686
Revised Code. The policies and requirements also shall establish 7687
procedures that integrating committees or, if required under 7688
division (C) of section 122.652 of the Revised Code, executive 7689
committees of integrating committees shall use in applying the 7690
criteria.7691

       (D) A selection process that provides for the prioritization 7692
of brownfield cleanup or remediation projects for which grant or 7693
loan applications are submitted under section 122.652 of the 7694
Revised Code. The policies and requirements shall require the 7695
selection process to give priority to projects in which the 7696
post-cleanup or remediation use will be for a combination of 7697
residential, commercial, or industrial purposes, which may include 7698
the conversion of a portion of a brownfield to a recreation, park, 7699
or natural area that is integrated with the residential, 7700
commercial, or industrial use of the brownfield after cleanup or 7701
remediation, or will incorporate projects that are funded by 7702
grants awarded under sections 164.20 to 164.27 of the Revised 7703
Code. The policies and requirements shall require the selection 7704
process to incorporate and emphasize all of the following factors:7705

       (1) The potential economic benefit that will result from the 7706
cleanup or remediation of a brownfield;7707

       (2) The potential environmental improvement that will result 7708
from the cleanup or remediation of a brownfield;7709

       (3) The amount and nature of the match provided by an 7710
applicant as required under sections 122.653 and 122.658 of the 7711
Revised Code;7712

       (4) Funding priorities recommended by integrating committees 7713
or, if required under division (C) of section 122.652 of the 7714
Revised Code, executive committees of integrating committees under 7715
division (B) of section 122.652 of the Revised Code;7716

       (5) The potential benefit to low-income communities, 7717
including minority communities, that will result from the cleanup 7718
or remediation of a brownfield;7719

       (6) Any other factors that the director considers 7720
appropriate.7721

       (E) The development of criteria that the director shall use 7722
when awarding grants under section 122.656 of the Revised Code. 7723
The criteria shall give priority to public health projects. In 7724
addition, the director, in consultation with the director of 7725
environmental protection, shall establish policies and 7726
requirements that require the criteria to include a public health 7727
project selection process that incorporates and emphasizes all of 7728
the following factors:7729

       (1) The potential environmental improvement that will result 7730
from the cleanup or remediation;7731

       (2) The ability of an applicant to access the property for 7732
purposes of the cleanup or remediation;7733

       (3) The name and qualifications of the cleanup or remediation 7734
contractor;7735

       (4) Any other factors that the director of development 7736
considers appropriate.7737

       The director of development may develop any other policies 7738
and requirements that the director determines are necessary for 7739
the administration of section 122.656 of the Revised Code.7740

       (F) The development of a brownfield cleanup and remediation 7741
oversight program to ensure compliance with sections 122.65 to 7742
122.658 of the Revised Code and policies and requirements 7743
established under this section. The policies and requirements 7744
shall require the program to include, at a minimum, both of the 7745
following:7746

       (1) Procedures for the accounting of invoices and receipts 7747
and any other documents that are necessary to demonstrate that a 7748
cleanup or remediation was properly performed;7749

       (2) Procedures that are necessary to provide a detailed 7750
explanation of the status of the property five years after the 7751
completed cleanup or remediation.7752

       (G) A delineation of what constitutes administrative costs 7753
for purposes of divisions (D) and (F) of section 122.658 of the 7754
Revised Code;7755

       (H) Procedures and requirements for making loans and loan 7756
agreements that include at least all of the following:7757

       (1) Not more than fifteen per cent of moneys annually 7758
allocated to the clean Ohio revitalization fund shall be used for 7759
loans.7760

       (2) The loans shall be made at or below market rates of 7761
interest, including, without limitation, interest-free loans.7762

       (3) The recipient of a loan shall identify a source of 7763
security and a source of repayment of the loan.7764

       (4) All payments of principal and interest on a loan shall be 7765
deposited in the state treasury and credited to the clean Ohio 7766
revitalization revolving loan fund.7767

       (5) The clean Ohio council may accept notes and other forms 7768
of obligation to evidence indebtedness, accept mortgages, liens, 7769
pledges, assignments, and other security interests to secure such 7770
indebtedness, and take any actions that are considered by the 7771
council to be appropriate to protect such security and safeguard 7772
against losses, including, without limitation, foreclosure and 7773
bidding on the purchase of property upon foreclosure or other 7774
sale.7775

       (I) Any other policies and requirements that the director 7776
determines are necessary for the administration of sections 122.65 7777
to 122.658 of the Revised Code.7778

       Sec. 122.658. (A) The clean Ohio revitalization fund is 7779
hereby created in the state treasury. The fund shall consist of 7780
moneys credited to it pursuant to section 151.40 of the Revised 7781
Code. Moneys in the fund shall be used to make grants or loans for 7782
projects that have been approved by the clean Ohio council in 7783
accordance with section 122.653 of the Revised Code, except that 7784
the council annually shall devote twenty per cent of the net 7785
proceeds of obligations deposited in the clean Ohio revitalization 7786
fund for the purposes of section 122.656 of the Revised Code.7787

       Moneys in the clean Ohio revitalization fund may be used to 7788
pay reasonable costs incurred by the department of development and 7789
the environmental protection agency in administering sections 7790
122.65 to 122.658 of the Revised Code. All investment earnings of 7791
the fund shall be credited to the fund. Investment earnings 7792
credited to the clean Ohio revitalization fund may be used to pay 7793
costs incurred by the department of development and the 7794
environmental protection agency pursuant to sections 122.65 to 7795
122.658 of the Revised Code.7796

       The department of development shall administer the clean Ohio 7797
revitalization fund in accordance with this section, policies and 7798
requirements established under section 122.657 of the Revised 7799
Code, and the terms of agreements entered into by the council 7800
under section 122.653 of the Revised Code.7801

       (B) Grants awarded and loans made under section 122.653 of 7802
the Revised Code shall provide not more than seventy-five per cent 7803
of the estimated total cost of a project. A grant or loan to any 7804
one project shall not exceed three million dollars. An applicant 7805
shall provide at least twenty-five per cent of the estimated total 7806
cost of a project. The applicant's share may consist of one or a 7807
combination of any of the following:7808

       (1) Payment of the cost of acquiring the property for the 7809
purposes of sections 122.65 to 122.658 of the Revised Code;7810

       (2) Payment of the reasonable cost of an assessment at the 7811
property;7812

       (3) The reasonable value, as determined by the council, of 7813
labor and materials that will be contributed by the applicant in 7814
performing the cleanup or remediation;7815

       (4) Moneys received by the applicant in any form for use in 7816
performing the cleanup or remediation;7817

       (5) Loans secured by the applicant for the purpose of the 7818
cleanup or remediation of the brownfield.7819

       Costs that were incurred more than two years prior to the 7820
submission of an application to the clean Ohio council for the 7821
acquisition of property, assessments, and labor and materials 7822
shall not be used as part of the applicant's matching share.7823

       (C) The department of development shall not make any payment 7824
to an applicant from the clean Ohio revitalization fund to pay 7825
costs of the applicant that were not included in an application 7826
for a grant or loan under section 122.653 of the Revised Code or 7827
that exceed the amount of the estimated total cost of the project 7828
included in the application. If, upon completion of a project, the 7829
costs of the project are less than the amounts included in the 7830
application, the amounts included in the application less the 7831
amounts of the actual costs of the project shall be credited to 7832
the clean Ohio revitalization fund. However, the amounts credited 7833
shall be equivalent in percentage to the percentage of the costs 7834
of the project that were to be funded by the grant or loan from 7835
the fund.7836

       (D) Grants awarded or loans made under section 122.653 of the 7837
Revised Code from the clean Ohio revitalization fund shall be used 7838
by an applicant only to pay the costs of the actual cleanup or 7839
remediation of a brownfield and shall not be used by an applicant 7840
to pay any administrative costs incurred by the applicant. Costs 7841
related to the use of a certified professional for purposes of 7842
section 122.654 of the Revised Code are not administrative costs 7843
and may be paid with moneys from grants awarded or loans made 7844
under section 122.653 of the Revised Code.7845

       (E) The portion of net proceeds of obligations devoted under 7846
division (A) of this section for the purposes of section 122.656 7847
of the Revised Code shall be used to make grants for assessments, 7848
cleanup or remediation of brownfields, and public health projects 7849
that have been approved by the director of development under that 7850
section. The department of development shall administer section 7851
122.656 of the Revised Code in accordance with this section, 7852
policies and requirements established under section 122.657 of the 7853
Revised Code, and the terms of agreements entered into by the 7854
director under section 122.656 of the Revised Code. The director 7855
shall not grant more than twenty-five million dollars for public 7856
health projects under section 122.656 of the Revised Code.7857

       (F) Grants awarded under section 122.656 of the Revised Code 7858
shall be used by an applicant only to pay the costs of actually 7859
conducting an assessment, a cleanup or remediation of a 7860
brownfield, or a public health project and shall not be used by an 7861
applicant to pay any administrative costs incurred by the 7862
applicant. Costs related to the use of a certified professional 7863
for purposes of section 122.654 of the Revised Code are not 7864
administrative costs and may be paid with moneys from grants 7865
awarded under section 122.656 of the Revised Code.7866

       (G)(1) The clean Ohio revitalization revolving loan fund is 7867
hereby created in the state treasury. Payments of principal and 7868
interest on loans made from the clean Ohio revitalization fund 7869
shall be credited to this revolving loan fund, as shall payments 7870
of principal and interest on loans made from the revolving loan 7871
fund itself. The revolving loan fund's investment earnings shall 7872
be credited to it.7873

       (2) The clean Ohio revitalization revolving loan fund shall 7874
be used to make loans for the same purposes and subject to the 7875
same policies, requirements, criteria, and application procedures 7876
as loans made from the clean Ohio revitalization fund.7877

       Sec. 122.66.  As used in sections 122.66 to 122.702 of the 7878
Revised Code:7879

       (A) "Poverty line" means the official poverty line 7880
established by the director of the United States office of 7881
management and budget and as revised by the directorsecretary of 7882
the office of communityhealth and human services in accordance 7883
with section 673(2) of the "Community Services Block Grant Act," 7884
95 Stat. 1609, 42 U.S.C.A. 9902.7885

       (B) "Low-income person" means a person whose adjusted gross 7886
income as defined in division (A) of section 5747.01 of the 7887
Revised Code is below the poverty line as defined in division (A) 7888
of this section.7889

       (C) "Advocacy" means the act of pleading for, supporting, or 7890
recommending actions on behalf of low-income persons.7891

       (D) "Community action agency" means a community-based and 7892
operated private nonprofit agency or organization that includes or 7893
is designed to include a sufficient number of projects or 7894
components to provide a range of services and activities having a 7895
measurable and potentially major impact on the causes of poverty 7896
in the community or those areas of the community where poverty is 7897
a particularly acute problem and is designated as a community 7898
action agency by the office of community services division7899
pursuant to sections 122.68 and 122.69 of the Revised Code.7900

       (E) "Community" means a city, village, county, multicity or 7901
multicounty unit, a neighborhood or other area, disregarding 7902
boundaries or political subdivisions, which provides a suitable 7903
organizational base and possesses a commonality of needs and 7904
interests for a community action program suitable to be served by 7905
a community action agency.7906

       (F) "Service area" means the geographical area served by a 7907
community action agency.7908

       Sec. 122.67.  There is hereby created in the department of7909
development services agency the office of community services 7910
division. The director of development services shall employ and 7911
fix the compensation of professional and technical unclassified 7912
personnel as necessary to carry out the provisions of sections 7913
122.66 to 122.701 of the Revised Code.7914

       Sec. 122.68.  The office of community services division7915
shall:7916

       (A) Administer all federal funds appropriated to the state 7917
from the "Community Services Block Grant Act," 95 Stat. 511, 42 7918
U.S.C.A. 9901, and comply with requirements imposed by that act in 7919
its application for, and administration of, the funds;7920

       (B) Designate community action agencies to receive community 7921
services block grant funds;7922

       (C) Disburse at least ninety-five per cent or such other 7923
higher maximum amount as may from time to time be designated by 7924
congress of the funds received in the state from the "Community 7925
Services Block Grant Act" to community action agencies that comply 7926
with the requirements of section 122.69 of the Revised Code and 7927
migrant and seasonal farm worker organizations that are not 7928
designated community action agencies but which provide the 7929
services described in division (B)(1) of section 122.69 of the 7930
Revised Code.7931

       (D) Provide technical assistance to community action agencies 7932
to improve program planning, development, and administration;7933

       (E) Conduct yearly performance assessments, according to 7934
criteria determined by department of development services agency7935
rule, to determine whether community action agencies are in 7936
compliance with section 122.69 of the Revised Code;7937

       (F) Annually prepare and submit to the United States 7938
secretary of health and human services, the governor, the 7939
president of the Ohio senate, and the speaker of the Ohio house of 7940
representatives, a comprehensive report that includes:7941

       (1) Certification that all community action agencies 7942
designated to receive funds from the "Community Services Block 7943
Grant Act" are in compliance with section 122.69 of the Revised 7944
Code;7945

       (2) A program plan for the next federal fiscal year that has 7946
been made available for public inspection and that details how 7947
community services block grant funds will be disbursed and used 7948
during that fiscal year;7949

       (3) Information detailing how funds were expended for the 7950
current fiscal year;7951

       (4) An audit of community services block grant expenditures 7952
for the preceding federal fiscal year that is conducted in 7953
accordance with generally accepted accounting principles by an 7954
independent auditing firm that has no connection with any 7955
community action agency receiving community services block grant 7956
funds or with any employee of the officedivision.7957

       (G) Serve as a statewide advocate for social and economic 7958
opportunities for low-income persons.7959

       Sec. 122.681.  (A) Except as permitted by this section, or 7960
when required by federal law, no person or government entity shall 7961
solicit, release, disclose, receive, use, or knowingly permit or 7962
participate in the use of any information regarding an individual 7963
receiving assistance pursuant to a community services division 7964
program under sections 122.66 to 122.702 of the Revised Code for 7965
any purpose not directly related to the administration of a 7966
division assistance program.7967

       (B) To the extent permitted by federal law, the division, and 7968
any entity that receives division funds to administer a division 7969
program to assist individuals, shall release information regarding 7970
an individual assistance recipient to the following: 7971

       (1) A government entity responsible for administering the 7972
assistance program for purposes directly related to the 7973
administration of the program;7974

       (2) A law enforcement agency for the purpose of any 7975
investigation, prosecution, or criminal or civil proceeding 7976
relating to the administration of the assistance program;7977

       (3) A government entity responsible for administering a 7978
children's protective services program, for the purpose of 7979
protecting children.7980

       (C) To the extent permitted by federal law and section 7981
1347.08 of the Revised Code, the division, and any entity 7982
administering a division program, shall provide access to 7983
information regarding an individual assistance recipient to all of 7984
the following:7985

       (1) The individual assistance recipient;7986

       (2) The authorized representative of the individual 7987
assistance recipient;7988

       (3) The legal guardian of the individual assistance 7989
recipient;7990

       (4) The attorney of the individual assistance recipient.7991

       (D) To the extent permitted by federal law, the division, and 7992
any entity administering a division program, may do either of the 7993
following:7994

       (1) Release information about an individual assistance 7995
recipient if the recipient gives voluntary, written authorization;7996

       (2) Release information regarding an individual assistance 7997
recipient to a state, federal, or federally assisted program that 7998
provides cash or in-kind assistance or services directly to 7999
individuals based on need.8000

       (E) The community services division, or an entity 8001
administering a division program, shall provide, at no cost, a 8002
copy of each written authorization to the individual who signed 8003
it.8004

       (F) The development services agency may adopt rules defining 8005
who may serve as an individual assistance recipient's authorized 8006
representative for purposes of division (C)(2) of this section.8007

       Sec. 122.69.  (A) Any nonprofit agency or organization 8008
seeking designation as a community action agency by the office of8009
community services division shall obtain the endorsement of the 8010
chief elected officials of at least two-thirds of the municipal 8011
corporations and the counties within the community to be served by 8012
the agency or organization.8013

       (B) Any nonprofit agency or organization that receives the 8014
endorsement provided for in division (A) of this section shall be 8015
designated by the officedivision as the community action agency 8016
for the community it serves and shall receive community services 8017
block grant funds for any period of time that the nonprofit agency 8018
or organization:8019

       (1) Provides a range of services and opportunities having a 8020
measurable and potentially major impact on the causes of poverty 8021
in the community or those areas of the community where poverty is 8022
a particularly acute problem. These activities may include but 8023
shall not be limited to:8024

       (a) Providing activities designed to assist low-income 8025
persons, including elderly and handicapped low-income persons, to:8026

       (i) Secure and maintain meaningful employment, training, work 8027
experience, and unsubsidized employment;8028

       (ii) Attain an adequate education;8029

       (iii) Make better use of available income;8030

       (iv) Obtain and maintain adequate housing and a suitable 8031
living environment;8032

       (v) Obtain emergency assistance through loans or grants to 8033
meet immediate and urgent individual and family needs, including 8034
the need for health services, nutritious food, housing, and 8035
employment-related assistance;8036

       (vi) Remove obstacles and solve personal and family problems 8037
that block the achievement of self-sufficiency;8038

       (vii) Achieve greater participation in the affairs of the 8039
community;8040

       (viii) Undertake family planning, consistent with personal 8041
and family goals and religious and moral convictions;8042

       (ix) Obtain energy assistance, conservation, and 8043
weatherization services.8044

       (b) Providing, on an emergency basis, supplies and services, 8045
nutritious foodstuffs, and related services necessary to 8046
counteract conditions of starvation and malnutrition among 8047
low-income persons;8048

       (c) Coordinating and establishing links between government 8049
and other social services programs to assure the effective 8050
delivery of services to low-income individuals;8051

       (d) Providing child care services, nutrition and health 8052
services, transportation services, alcoholism and narcotic 8053
addiction prevention and rehabilitation services, youth 8054
development services, and community services to elderly and 8055
handicapped persons;8056

       (e) Encouraging entities in the private sector to participate 8057
in efforts to ameliorate poverty in the community.8058

       (2) Annually submits to the office of community services8059
division a program plan and budget for use of community services 8060
block grant funds for the next federal fiscal year. At least ten 8061
days prior to its submission to the office of community services8062
division, a copy of the program plan and budget shall be made 8063
available to the chief elected officials of the municipal 8064
corporations and counties within the service area in order to 8065
provide them the opportunity to review and comment upon such plan 8066
and budget.8067

       (3) Composes its board of directors in compliance with 8068
section (c)(3) of section 675 of the the "Community Services Block 8069
Grant Act," 95 Stat. 1609, 42 U.S.C.A. 9904, except that the board 8070
shall consist of not less than fifteen nor more than thirty-three 8071
members;8072

       (4) Complies with the prohibitions against discrimination and 8073
political activity, as provided in the "Community Services Block 8074
Grant Act";8075

       (5) Complies with fiscal and program requirements established 8076
by department of development services agency rule.8077

       Sec. 122.70.  The board of directors of a community action 8078
agency shall:8079

       (A) Select, appoint, and may remove the executive director of 8080
the community action agency;8081

       (B) Approve contracts, annual program budgets, and policies 8082
of the community action agency;8083

       (C) Advise the elected officials of any political subdivision 8084
located within its service area, and state and federal elected 8085
officials who represent its service area, of the nature and extent 8086
of poverty within its community, and advise them of any needed 8087
changes;8088

       (D) Convene public meetings to provide community members the 8089
opportunity to comment on public policies and programs to reduce 8090
poverty;8091

       (E) Annually evaluate the policies and programs of the 8092
community action agency according to criteria determined by 8093
department of development services agency rule;8094

       (F) Submit the results of the evaluation required by division 8095
(E) of this section, along with recommendations for improved 8096
administration of the community action agency, to the office of8097
community services division;8098

       (G) Adopt a code of ethics for the board of directors and the 8099
employees of the community action agency;8100

       (H) Adopt written policies describing all of the following:8101

       (1) How the community action agency is to expend and 8102
distribute the community services block grant funds that it 8103
receives from the office of community servicesdivision under 8104
sections 122.68 and 122.69 of the Revised Code;8105

       (2) The salary, benefits, travel expenses, and any other 8106
compensation that persons are to receive for serving on the 8107
community action agency's board of directors;8108

       (3) The operating procedures to be used by the board to 8109
conduct its meetings, to vote on all official business it 8110
considers, and to provide notice of its meetings.8111

       (I) Provide for the posting of notices in a conspicuous place 8112
indicating that the code of ethics described in division (G) of 8113
this section and the policies described in division (H) of this 8114
section are available for public inspection at the community 8115
action agency during normal business hours.8116

       Sec. 122.701.  (A) Prior to designating a new community 8117
action agency or rescinding a community action agency's 8118
designation, the office of community services division shall:8119

       (1) Determine whether a community action agency is in 8120
compliance with section 122.69 of the Revised Code;8121

       (2) Consult with the chief elected officials of political 8122
subdivisions located within a community action agency's service 8123
area, and, in designating a new community action agency, obtain 8124
their endorsement of the agency in accordance with division (A) of 8125
section 122.69 of the Revised Code;8126

       (3) Hold at least one public meeting within a community 8127
action agency's service area for the purpose of allowing citizens 8128
to comment on the community action agency's delivery of services;8129

       (4) Evaluate the proposed service area of the community 8130
action agency, and, as may be necessary, modify the boundaries of 8131
the service area so that low-income persons in the area are 8132
adequately and efficiently served.8133

       (B) After providing notice and hearing pursuant to sections 8134
119.01 to 119.13 of the Revised Code, the director of development 8135
services:8136

       (1) May rescind the designation of a community action agency 8137
if he findsafter finding that the agency is not in compliance 8138
with any or all of the provisions of section 122.69 of the Revised 8139
Code;8140

       (2) Shall rescind the designation of a community action 8141
agency upon notification from the chief elected officials of more 8142
than one-half of the municipal corporations and the counties 8143
within a community currently served by a community action agency 8144
that such agency is not endorsed by them and upon aafter finding 8145
by him that the agency is not in compliance with section 122.69 of 8146
the Revised Code.8147

       Any agency whose designation is rescinded pursuant to this 8148
section may appeal from an order rescinding such designation 8149
pursuant to section 119.12 of the Revised Code.8150

       Sec. 122.76.  (A) The director of development services, with 8151
controlling board approval, may lend funds to minority business 8152
enterprises and to community improvement corporations, Ohio 8153
development corporations, minority contractors business assistance 8154
organizations, and minority business supplier development councils 8155
for the purpose of loaning funds to minority business enterprises 8156
and, for the purpose of procuring or improving real or personal 8157
property, or both, for the establishment, location, or expansion 8158
of industrial, distribution, commercial, or research facilities in 8159
the state, and for the purpose of contract financing, and to 8160
community development corporations that predominantly benefit 8161
minority business enterprises or are located in a census tract 8162
that has a population that is sixty per cent or more minority, if 8163
the director determines, in the director's sole discretion, that 8164
all of the following apply:8165

       (1) The project is economically sound and will benefit the 8166
people of the state by increasing opportunities for employment, by 8167
strengthening the economy of the state, or expanding minority 8168
business enterprises.8169

       (2) The proposed minority business enterprise borrower is 8170
unable to finance the proposed project through ordinary financial 8171
channels at comparable terms.8172

       (3) The value of the project is or, upon completion, will be 8173
at least equal to the total amount of the money expended in the 8174
procurement or improvement of the project.8175

       (4) The amount to be loaned by the director will not exceed 8176
seventy-five per cent of the total amount expended in the 8177
procurement or improvement of the project.8178

       (5) The amount to be loaned by the director will be 8179
adequately secured by a first or second mortgage upon the project 8180
or by mortgages, leases, liens, assignments, or pledges on or of 8181
other property or contracts as the director requires, and such 8182
mortgage will not be subordinate to any other liens or mortgages 8183
except the liens securing loans or investments made by financial 8184
institutions referred to in division (A)(3) of this section, and 8185
the liens securing loans previously made by any financial 8186
institution in connection with the procurement or expansion of all 8187
or part of a project.8188

       (B) Any proposed minority business enterprise borrower 8189
submitting an application for assistance under this section shall 8190
not have defaulted on a previous loan from the director, and no 8191
full or limited partner, major shareholder, or holder of an equity 8192
interest of the proposed minority business enterprise borrower 8193
shall have defaulted on a loan from the director.8194

       (C) The proposed minority business enterprise borrower shall 8195
demonstrate to the satisfaction of the director that it is able to 8196
successfully compete in the private sector if it obtains the 8197
necessary financial, technical, or managerial support and that 8198
support is available through the director, the minority business 8199
development office of the department of development services 8200
agency, or other identified and acceptable sources. In determining 8201
whether a minority business enterprise borrower will be able to 8202
successfully compete, the director may give consideration to such 8203
factors as the successful completion of or participation in 8204
courses of study, recognized by the board of regents as providing 8205
financial, technical, or managerial skills related to the 8206
operation of the business, by the economically disadvantaged 8207
individual, owner, or partner, and the prior success of the 8208
individual, owner, or partner in personal, career, or business 8209
activities, as well as to other factors identified by the 8210
director.8211

       (D) The director shall not lend funds for the purpose of 8212
procuring or improving motor vehicles or accounts receivable.8213

       Sec. 122.861.  (A) As used in this section:8214

        (1) "Certified engine configuration" means a new, rebuilt, or 8215
remanufactured engine configuration that satisfies divisions 8216
(A)(1)(a) and (b) and, if applicable, division (A)(1)(c) of this 8217
section:8218

        (a) It has been certified by the administrator of the United 8219
States environmental protection agency or the California air 8220
resources board.8221

        (b) It meets or is rebuilt or remanufactured to a more 8222
stringent set of engine emission standards than when originally 8223
manufactured, as determined pursuant to Subtitle G of Title VII of 8224
the Energy Policy Act of 2005, Pub. L. No. 109-58, 119 Stat. 838, 8225
et seq.8226

        (c) In the case of a certified engine configuration involving 8227
the replacement of an existing engine, an engine configuration 8228
that replaced an engine that was removed from the vehicle and 8229
returned to the supplier for remanufacturing to a more stringent 8230
set of engine emissions standards or for scrappage.8231

        (2) "Section 793" means section 793 of the Energy Policy Act 8232
of 2005, Pub. L. No. 109-58, 119 Stat. 841, et seq.8233

        (3) "Verified technology" means a pollution control 8234
technology, including a retrofit technology, advanced truckstop 8235
electrification system, or auxiliary power unit, that has been 8236
verified by the administrator of the United States environmental 8237
protection agency or the California air resources board.8238

        (B) For the purpose of reducing emissions from diesel 8239
engines, the director of environmental protection shall administer 8240
a diesel emissions reduction grant program and a diesel emissions 8241
reduction revolving loan program. The programs shall provide for 8242
the implementation in this state of section 793 and shall 8243
otherwise be administered in compliance with the requirements of 8244
section 793, and any regulations issued pursuant to that section.8245

        The director shall apply to the administrator of the United 8246
States environmental protection agency for grant or loan funds 8247
available under section 793 to help fund the diesel emissions 8248
reduction grant program and the diesel emissions reduction 8249
revolving loan program. 8250

        (C) There is hereby created in the state treasury the diesel 8251
emissions grant fund consisting of money appropriated to it by the 8252
general assembly, any grants obtained from the federal government 8253
under section 793, and any other grants, gifts, or other 8254
contributions of money made to the credit of the fund. Money in 8255
the fund shall be used for the purpose of making grants for 8256
projects relating to certified engine configurations and verified 8257
technologies in a manner consistent with the requirements of 8258
section 793 and any regulations issued under that section. 8259
Interest earned from moneys in the fund shall be used to 8260
administer the diesel emissions reduction grant program.8261

       (D) There is hereby created in the state treasury the diesel 8262
emissions reduction revolving loan fund consisting of money 8263
appropriated to it by the general assembly, any grants obtained 8264
from the federal government under section 793, and any other 8265
grants, gifts, or other contributions of money made to the credit 8266
of the fund. Money in the fund shall be used for the purpose of 8267
making loans for projects relating to certified engine 8268
configurations and verified technologies in a manner consistent 8269
with the requirements of section 793 and any regulations issued 8270
pursuant to that section. Interest earned from moneys in the fund 8271
shall be used to administer the diesel emissions reduction 8272
revolving loan program.8273

       Sec. 123.01.  (A) The department of administrative services, 8274
in addition to those powers enumerated in Chapters 124. and 125. 8275
of the Revised Code and provided elsewhere by law, shall exercise 8276
the following powers:8277

       (1) To prepare and suggest comprehensive plans for the 8278
development of grounds and buildings under the control of a state 8279
agency;8280

       (2) To acquire, by purchase, gift, devise, lease, or grant, 8281
all real estate required by a state agency, in the exercise of 8282
which power the department may exercise the power of eminent 8283
domain, in the manner provided by sections 163.01 to 163.22 of the 8284
Revised Code;8285

       (3) To erect, supervise, and maintain all public monuments 8286
and memorials erected by the state, except where the supervision 8287
and maintenance is otherwise provided by law;8288

       (4) To procure, by lease, storage accommodations for a state 8289
agency;8290

       (5) To lease or grant easements or licenses for unproductive 8291
and unused lands or other property under the control of a state 8292
agency. Such leases, easements, or licenses may be granted to any 8293
person or entity, shall be for a period not to exceed fifteen 8294
years, and shall be executed for the state by the director of 8295
administrative services, provided that the director shall grant 8296
leases, easements, or licenses of university land for periods not 8297
to exceed twenty-five years for purposes approved by the 8298
respective university's board of trustees wherein the uses are 8299
compatible with the uses and needs of the university and may grant 8300
leases of university land for periods not to exceed forty years 8301
for purposes approved by the respective university's board of 8302
trustees pursuant to section 123.17 of the Revised Code.8303

       (6) To lease space for the use of a state agency;8304

       (7) To have general supervision and care of the storerooms, 8305
offices, and buildings leased for the use of a state agency;8306

       (8) To exercise general custodial care of all real property 8307
of the state;8308

       (9) To assign and group together state offices in any city in 8309
the state and to establish, in cooperation with the state agencies 8310
involved, rules governing space requirements for office or storage 8311
use;8312

       (10) To lease for a period not to exceed forty years, 8313
pursuant to a contract providing for the construction thereof 8314
under a lease-purchase plan, buildings, structures, and other 8315
improvements for any public purpose, and, in conjunction 8316
therewith, to grant leases, easements, or licenses for lands under 8317
the control of a state agency for a period not to exceed forty 8318
years. The lease-purchase plan shall provide that at the end of 8319
the lease period, the buildings, structures, and related 8320
improvements, together with the land on which they are situated, 8321
shall become the property of the state without cost.8322

       (a) Whenever any building, structure, or other improvement is 8323
to be so leased by a state agency, the department shall retain 8324
either basic plans, specifications, bills of materials, and 8325
estimates of cost with sufficient detail to afford bidders all 8326
needed information or, alternatively, all of the following plans, 8327
details, bills of materials, and specifications:8328

       (i) Full and accurate plans suitable for the use of mechanics 8329
and other builders in the improvement;8330

       (ii) Details to scale and full sized, so drawn and 8331
represented as to be easily understood;8332

       (iii) Accurate bills showing the exact quantity of different 8333
kinds of material necessary to the construction;8334

       (iv) Definite and complete specifications of the work to be 8335
performed, together with such directions as will enable a 8336
competent mechanic or other builder to carry them out and afford 8337
bidders all needed information;8338

       (v) A full and accurate estimate of each item of expense and 8339
of the aggregate cost thereof.8340

       (b) The department shall give public notice, in such 8341
newspaper, in such form, and with such phraseology as the director 8342
of administrative services prescribes, published once each week 8343
for four consecutive weeks, of the time when and place where bids 8344
will be received for entering into an agreement to lease to a 8345
state agency a building, structure, or other improvement. The last 8346
publication shall be at least eight days preceding the day for 8347
opening the bids. The bids shall contain the terms upon which the 8348
builder would propose to lease the building, structure, or other 8349
improvement to the state agency. The form of the bid approved by 8350
the department shall be used, and a bid is invalid and shall not 8351
be considered unless that form is used without change, alteration, 8352
or addition. Before submitting bids pursuant to this section, any 8353
builder shall comply with Chapter 153. of the Revised Code.8354

       (c) On the day and at the place named for receiving bids for 8355
entering into lease agreements with a state agency, the director 8356
of administrative services shall open the bids and shall publicly 8357
proceed immediately to tabulate the bids upon duplicate sheets. No 8358
lease agreement shall be entered into until the bureau of workers' 8359
compensation has certified that the person to be awarded the lease 8360
agreement has complied with Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code, 8361
until, if the builder submitting the lowest and best bid is a 8362
foreign corporation, the secretary of state has certified that the 8363
corporation is authorized to do business in this state, until, if 8364
the builder submitting the lowest and best bid is a person 8365
nonresident of this state, the person has filed with the secretary 8366
of state a power of attorney designating the secretary of state as 8367
its agent for the purpose of accepting service of summons in any 8368
action brought under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code, and until 8369
the agreement is submitted to the attorney general and the 8370
attorney general's approval is certified thereon. Within thirty 8371
days after the day on which the bids are received, the department 8372
shall investigate the bids received and shall determine that the 8373
bureau and the secretary of state have made the certifications 8374
required by this section of the builder who has submitted the 8375
lowest and best bid. Within ten days of the completion of the 8376
investigation of the bids, the department shall award the lease 8377
agreement to the builder who has submitted the lowest and best bid 8378
and who has been certified by the bureau and secretary of state as 8379
required by this section. If bidding for the lease agreement has 8380
been conducted upon the basis of basic plans, specifications, 8381
bills of materials, and estimates of costs, upon the award to the 8382
builder the department, or the builder with the approval of the 8383
department, shall appoint an architect or engineer licensed in 8384
this state to prepare such further detailed plans, specifications, 8385
and bills of materials as are required to construct the building, 8386
structure, or improvement. The department shall adopt such rules 8387
as are necessary to give effect to this section. The department 8388
may reject any bid. Where there is reason to believe there is 8389
collusion or combination among bidders, the bids of those 8390
concerned therein shall be rejected.8391

       (11) To acquire by purchase, gift, devise, or grant and to 8392
transfer, lease, or otherwise dispose of all real property 8393
required to assist in the development of a conversion facility as 8394
defined in section 5709.30 of the Revised Code as that section 8395
existed before its repeal by Amended Substitute House Bill 95 of 8396
the 125th general assembly;8397

       (12) To lease for a period not to exceed forty years, 8398
notwithstanding any other division of this section, the 8399
state-owned property located at 408-450 East Town Street, 8400
Columbus, Ohio, formerly the state school for the deaf, to a 8401
developer in accordance with this section. "Developer," as used in 8402
this section, has the same meaning as in section 123.77 of the 8403
Revised Code.8404

       Such a lease shall be for the purpose of development of the 8405
land for use by senior citizens by constructing, altering, 8406
renovating, repairing, expanding, and improving the site as it 8407
existed on June 25, 1982. A developer desiring to lease the land 8408
shall prepare for submission to the department a plan for 8409
development. Plans shall include provisions for roads, sewers, 8410
water lines, waste disposal, water supply, and similar matters to 8411
meet the requirements of state and local laws. The plans shall 8412
also include provision for protection of the property by insurance 8413
or otherwise, and plans for financing the development, and shall 8414
set forth details of the developer's financial responsibility.8415

       The department may employ, as employees or consultants, 8416
persons needed to assist in reviewing the development plans. Those 8417
persons may include attorneys, financial experts, engineers, and 8418
other necessary experts. The department shall review the 8419
development plans and may enter into a lease if it finds all of 8420
the following:8421

       (a) The best interests of the state will be promoted by 8422
entering into a lease with the developer;8423

       (b) The development plans are satisfactory;8424

       (c) The developer has established the developer's financial 8425
responsibility and satisfactory plans for financing the 8426
development.8427

       The lease shall contain a provision that construction or 8428
renovation of the buildings, roads, structures, and other 8429
necessary facilities shall begin within one year after the date of 8430
the lease and shall proceed according to a schedule agreed to 8431
between the department and the developer or the lease will be 8432
terminated. The lease shall contain such conditions and 8433
stipulations as the director considers necessary to preserve the 8434
best interest of the state. Moneys received by the state pursuant 8435
to this lease shall be paid into the general revenue fund. The 8436
lease shall provide that at the end of the lease period the 8437
buildings, structures, and related improvements shall become the 8438
property of the state without cost.8439

       (13) To manage the use of space owned and controlled by the 8440
department, including space in property under the jurisdiction of 8441
the Ohio building authority, by doing all of the following:8442

       (a) Biennially implementing, by state agency location, a 8443
census of agency employees assigned space;8444

        (b) Periodically in the discretion of the director of 8445
administrative services:8446

       (i) Requiring each state agency to categorize the use of 8447
space allotted to the agency between office space, common areas, 8448
storage space, and other uses, and to report its findings to the 8449
department;8450

        (ii) Creating and updating a master space utilization plan 8451
for all space allotted to state agencies. The plan shall 8452
incorporate space utilization metrics.8453

        (iii) Conducting a cost-benefit analysis to determine the 8454
effectiveness of state-owned buildings;8455

        (iv) Assessing the alternatives associated with consolidating 8456
the commercial leases for buildings located in Columbus.8457

        (c) Commissioning a comprehensive space utilization and 8458
capacity study in order to determine the feasibility of 8459
consolidating existing commercially leased space used by state 8460
agencies into a new state-owned facility.8461

       (14) To adopt rules to ensure that energy efficiency and 8462
conservation is considered in the purchase of products and 8463
equipment, except motor vehicles, by any state agency, department, 8464
division, bureau, office, unit, board, commission, authority, 8465
quasi-governmental entity, or institution. The department may 8466
require minimum energy efficiency standards for purchased products 8467
and equipment based on federal testing and labeling if available 8468
or on standards developed by the department. When possible, the 8469
rules shall apply to the competitive selection of energy consuming 8470
systems, components, and equipment under Chapter 125. of the 8471
Revised Code.8472

       (15) To ensure energy efficient and energy conserving 8473
purchasing practices by doing all of the following:8474

       (a) Identifying available energy efficiency and conservation 8475
opportunities;8476

       (b) Providing for interchange of information among purchasing 8477
agencies;8478

       (c) Identifying laws, policies, rules, and procedures that 8479
should be modified;8480

       (d) Monitoring experience with and the cost-effectiveness of 8481
this state's purchase and use of motor vehicles and of major 8482
energy-consuming systems, components, equipment, and products 8483
having a significant impact on energy consumption by the 8484
government;8485

       (e) Providing technical assistance and training to state 8486
employees involved in the purchasing process;8487

       (f) Working with the department of development services 8488
agency to make recommendations regarding planning and 8489
implementation of purchasing policies and procedures that are 8490
supportive of energy efficiency and conservation.8491

       (16) To require all state agencies, departments, divisions, 8492
bureaus, offices, units, commissions, boards, authorities, 8493
quasi-governmental entities, institutions, and state institutions 8494
of higher education to implement procedures to ensure that all of 8495
the passenger automobiles they acquire in each fiscal year, except 8496
for those passenger automobiles acquired for use in law 8497
enforcement or emergency rescue work, achieve a fleet average fuel 8498
economy of not less than the fleet average fuel economy for that 8499
fiscal year as the department shall prescribe by rule. The 8500
department shall adopt the rule prior to the beginning of the 8501
fiscal year, in accordance with the average fuel economy standards 8502
established by federal law for passenger automobiles manufactured 8503
during the model year that begins during the fiscal year.8504

       Each state agency, department, division, bureau, office, 8505
unit, commission, board, authority, quasi-governmental entity, 8506
institution, and state institution of higher education shall 8507
determine its fleet average fuel economy by dividing the total 8508
number of passenger vehicles acquired during the fiscal year, 8509
except for those passenger vehicles acquired for use in law 8510
enforcement or emergency rescue work, by a sum of terms, each of 8511
which is a fraction created by dividing the number of passenger 8512
vehicles of a given make, model, and year, except for passenger 8513
vehicles acquired for use in law enforcement or emergency rescue 8514
work, acquired during the fiscal year by the fuel economy measured 8515
by the administrator of the United States environmental protection 8516
agency, for the given make, model, and year of vehicle, that 8517
constitutes an average fuel economy for combined city and highway 8518
driving.8519

       As used in division (A)(16) of this section, "acquired" means 8520
leased for a period of sixty continuous days or more, or 8521
purchased.8522

       (B) This section and section 125.02 of the Revised Code shall 8523
not interfere with any of the following:8524

       (1) The power of the adjutant general to purchase military 8525
supplies, or with the custody of the adjutant general of property 8526
leased, purchased, or constructed by the state and used for 8527
military purposes, or with the functions of the adjutant general 8528
as director of state armories;8529

       (2) The power of the director of transportation in acquiring 8530
rights-of-way for the state highway system, or the leasing of 8531
lands for division or resident district offices, or the leasing of 8532
lands or buildings required in the maintenance operations of the 8533
department of transportation, or the purchase of real property for 8534
garage sites or division or resident district offices, or in 8535
preparing plans and specifications for and constructing such 8536
buildings as the director may require in the administration of the 8537
department;8538

       (3) The power of the director of public safety and the 8539
registrar of motor vehicles to purchase or lease real property and 8540
buildings to be used solely as locations to which a deputy 8541
registrar is assigned pursuant to division (B) of section 4507.011 8542
of the Revised Code and from which the deputy registrar is to 8543
conduct the deputy registrar's business, the power of the director 8544
of public safety to purchase or lease real property and buildings 8545
to be used as locations for division or district offices as 8546
required in the maintenance of operations of the department of 8547
public safety, and the power of the superintendent of the state 8548
highway patrol in the purchase or leasing of real property and 8549
buildings needed by the patrol, to negotiate the sale of real 8550
property owned by the patrol, to rent or lease real property owned 8551
or leased by the patrol, and to make or cause to be made repairs 8552
to all property owned or under the control of the patrol;8553

       (4) The power of the division of liquor control in the 8554
leasing or purchasing of retail outlets and warehouse facilities 8555
for the use of the division;8556

       (5) The power of the director of development services to 8557
enter into leases of real property, buildings, and office space to 8558
be used solely as locations for the state's foreign offices to 8559
carry out the purposes of section 122.05 of the Revised Code;8560

       (6) The power of the director of environmental protection to 8561
enter into environmental covenants, to grant and accept easements, 8562
or to sell property pursuant to division (G) of section 3745.01 of 8563
the Revised Code.8564

       (C) Purchases for, and the custody and repair of, buildings 8565
under the management and control of the capitol square review and 8566
advisory board, the rehabilitation services commission8567
opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities agency, the bureau of 8568
workers' compensation, or the departments of public safety, job 8569
and family services, mental healthmental health and addiction 8570
services, developmental disabilities, and rehabilitation and 8571
correction; buildings of educational and benevolent institutions 8572
under the management and control of boards of trustees; and 8573
purchases or leases for, and the custody and repair of, office 8574
space used for the purposes of the joint legislative ethics 8575
committee are not subject to the control and jurisdiction of the 8576
department of administrative services.8577

       If the joint legislative ethics committee so requests, the 8578
committee and the director of administrative services may enter 8579
into a contract under which the department of administrative 8580
services agrees to perform any services requested by the committee 8581
that the department is authorized under this section to perform.8582

       (D) Any instrument by which real property is acquired 8583
pursuant to this section shall identify the agency of the state 8584
that has the use and benefit of the real property as specified in 8585
section 5301.012 of the Revised Code.8586

       Sec. 123.10.  (A) As used in this section and section 123.11 8587
of the Revised Code, "public exigency" means an injury or 8588
obstruction that occurs in any public works of the state 8589
maintained by the director of administrative services and that 8590
materially impairs its immediate use or places in jeopardy 8591
property adjacent to it; an immediate danger of such an injury or 8592
obstruction; or an injury or obstruction, or an immediate danger 8593
of an injury or obstruction, that occurs in any public works of 8594
the state maintained by the director of administrative services 8595
and that materially impairs its immediate use or places in 8596
jeopardy property adjacent to it.8597

       (B) When a declaration of public exigency is issued pursuant 8598
to division (C) of this section, the director of administrative 8599
services may request the Ohio facilities construction commission 8600
toshall enter into contracts with proper persons for the 8601
performance of labor, the furnishing of materials, or the 8602
construction of any structures and buildings necessary to the 8603
maintenance, control, and management of the public works of the 8604
state or any part of those public works. Any contracts awarded for 8605
the work performed pursuant to the declaration of a public 8606
exigency may be awarded without competitive bidding or selection 8607
as set forth in Chapter 153. of the Revised Code.8608

       (C) The executive director of administrative servicesthe 8609
Ohio facilities construction commission may issue a declaration of 8610
a public exigency on the executive director's own initiative or 8611
upon the request of the director of any state agency. The 8612
executive director's declaration shall identify the specific 8613
injury, obstruction, or danger that is the subject of the 8614
declaration and shall set forth a dollar limitation for the 8615
repair, removal, or prevention of that exigency under the 8616
declaration.8617

       Before any project to repair, remove, or prevent a public 8618
exigency under the executive director's declaration may begin, the 8619
executive director shall send notice of the project, in writing, 8620
to the director of budget and management and to the members of the 8621
controlling board. That notice shall detail the project to be 8622
undertaken to address the public exigency and shall include a copy 8623
of the executive director's declaration that establishes the 8624
monetary limitations on that project.8625

       Sec. 123.11.  When a public exigency, as defined in division 8626
(A) of section 123.10 of the Revised Code, exists, the executive8627
director of administrative servicesthe Ohio facilities 8628
construction commission may take possession of lands and use them, 8629
or materials and other property necessary for the maintenance, 8630
protection, or repair of the public works, in accordance with 8631
sections 163.01 to 163.22 of the Revised Code.8632

       Sec. 123.19. There is hereby established in the state 8633
treasury the theater equipment maintenance fund. All appropriate 8634
theater-related revenues of the department of administrative 8635
services, as determined by the department, shall be credited to 8636
that fund and to any accounts created in that fund with the 8637
department's approval. All appropriate theater-related expenses of 8638
the department, as determined by the department, including 8639
reimbursement of, or payment to, any other fund or any 8640
governmental agency for advances made or services rendered to or 8641
on behalf of the department, shall be paid from that fund as 8642
determined by or pursuant to directions of the department. All 8643
investment earnings of that fund shall be credited to it and shall 8644
be allocated among any accounts created in the fund in the manner 8645
determined by the department.8646

       Sec. 123.201. (A) There is hereby created in the state 8647
treasury the Ohio facilities construction commission fund, 8648
consisting of transfers of moneys authorized by the general 8649
assembly and revenues received by the Ohio facilities construction 8650
commission under section 123.21 of the Revised Code. Investment 8651
earnings on moneys in the fund shall be credited to the fund. 8652
Moneys in the fund may be used by the commission, in performing 8653
its duties under this chapter, to pay personnel and other 8654
administrative expenses, to pay the cost of preparing building 8655
design specifications, to pay the cost of providing project 8656
management services, and for other purposes determined by the 8657
commission to be necessary to fulfill its duties under this 8658
chapter.8659

       (B)(1) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 8660
cultural and sports facilities building fund, consisting of 8661
proceeds of obligations authorized to pay costs of Ohio cultural 8662
facilities and Ohio sports facilities for which appropriations are 8663
made by the general assembly. All investment earnings of the fund 8664
shall be credited to the fund.8665

       (2) Upon the request of the executive director of the Ohio 8666
facilities construction commission and subject to applicable tax 8667
law limitations, the director of budget and management may 8668
transfer to the Ohio cultural facilities administration fund 8669
moneys credited to the cultural and sports facilities building 8670
fund to pay the costs of administering projects funded through the 8671
cultural and sports facilities building fund.8672

       (C) There is hereby created in the state treasury the Ohio 8673
cultural facilities administration fund, consisting of transfers 8674
of money authorized by the general assembly and revenues received 8675
by the commission under division (A)(9) of section 123.21 of the 8676
Revised Code. Moneys in the fund may be used by the Ohio 8677
facilities construction commission in administering projects 8678
funded through the cultural and sports facilities building fund 8679
pursuant to sections 123.28 and 128.281 of the Revised Code. All 8680
investment earnings of that fund shall be credited to it and shall 8681
be allocated among any accounts created in the fund in the manner 8682
determined by the commission.8683

       (D)(1) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 8684
capital donations fund, which shall be administered by the Ohio 8685
facilities construction commission. The fund consists of gifts, 8686
grants, devises, bequests, and other financial contributions made 8687
to the commission for the construction or improvement of cultural 8688
and sports facilities and shall be used in accordance with the 8689
specific purposes for which the gifts, grants, devises, bequests, 8690
or other financial contributions are made. All investment earnings 8691
of the fund shall be credited to the fund. Chapters 123., 125., 8692
127., and 153. and section 3517.13 of the Revised Code do not 8693
apply to contract obligations paid from the fund, notwithstanding 8694
anything to the contrary in those chapters or that section.8695

       (2) Not later than one month following the end of each 8696
quarter of the fiscal year, the commission shall allocate the 8697
amounts credited to the fund from investment earnings during that 8698
preceding quarter of the fiscal year among the specific projects 8699
for which they are to be used and shall certify this information 8700
to the director of budget and management.8701

       (3) If the amounts credited to the fund for a particular 8702
project exceed what is required to complete that project, the 8703
commission may refund any of those excess amounts, including 8704
unexpended investment earnings attributable to those amounts, to 8705
the entity from which they were received.8706

       Sec. 123.21.  (A) The Ohio facilities construction commission 8707
may perform any act and ensure the performance of any function 8708
necessary or appropriate to carry out the purposes of, and 8709
exercise the powers granted under this chapter or any other 8710
provision of the Revised Code, including any of the following:8711

       (1) Prepare, or contract to be prepared, by licensed 8712
engineers or architects, surveys, general and detailed plans, 8713
specifications, bills of materials, and estimates of cost for any 8714
projects, improvements, or public buildings to be constructed by 8715
state agencies that may be authorized by legislative 8716
appropriations or any other funds made available therefor, 8717
provided that the construction of the projects, improvements, or 8718
public buildings is a statutory duty of the commission. This 8719
section does not require the independent employment of an 8720
architect or engineer as provided by section 153.01 of the Revised 8721
Code in the cases to which section 153.01 of the Revised Code 8722
applies. This section does not affect or alter the existing powers 8723
of the director of transportation.8724

       (2) Have general supervision over the construction of any 8725
projects, improvements, or public buildings constructed for a 8726
state agency and over the inspection of materials prior to their 8727
incorporation into those projects, improvements, or buildings.8728

       (3) Make contracts for and supervise the design and 8729
construction of any projects and improvements or the construction 8730
and repair of buildings under the control of a state agency. All 8731
such contracts may be based in whole or in part on the unit price 8732
or maximum estimated cost, with payment computed and made upon 8733
actual quantities or units.8734

       (4) Adopt, amend, and rescind rules pertaining to the 8735
administration of the construction of the public works of the 8736
state as required by law, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 8737
Revised Code.8738

       (5) Contract with, retain the services of, or designate, and 8739
fix the compensation of, such agents, accountants, consultants, 8740
advisers, and other independent contractors as may be necessary or 8741
desirable to carry out the programs authorized under this chapter, 8742
or authorize the executive director to perform such powers and 8743
duties.8744

       (6) Receive and accept any gifts, grants, donations, and 8745
pledges, and receipts therefrom, to be used for the programs 8746
authorized under this chapter.8747

       (7) Make and enter into all contracts, commitments, and 8748
agreements, and execute all instruments, necessary or incidental 8749
to the performance of its duties and the execution of its rights 8750
and powers under this chapter, or authorize the executive director 8751
to perform such powers and duties.8752

        (8) Debar a contractor as provided in section 153.02 of the 8753
Revised Code.8754

       (9) Enter into and administer cooperative agreements for 8755
cultural projects, as provided in sections 123.28 and 123.281 of 8756
the Revised Code.8757

       (B) The commission shall appoint and fix the compensation of 8758
an executive director who shall serve at the pleasure of the 8759
commission. The executive director shall exercise all powers that 8760
the commission possesses, supervise the operations of the 8761
commission, and perform such other duties as delegated by the 8762
commission. The executive director also shall employ and fix the 8763
compensation of such employees as will facilitate the activities 8764
and purposes of the commission, who shall serve at the pleasure of 8765
the executive director. The employees of the commission are exempt 8766
from Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code and are not considered 8767
public employees as defined in section 4117.01 of the Revised 8768
Code. Any agreement entered into prior to July 1, 2012, between 8769
the office of collective bargaining and the exclusive 8770
representative for employees of the commission is binding and 8771
shall continue to have effect.8772

       (C) The attorney general shall serve as the legal 8773
representative for the commission and may appoint other counsel as 8774
necessary for that purpose in accordance with section 109.07 of 8775
the Revised Code.8776

       Sec. 123.27.  (A) As used in this section:8777

       "Capital facilities project" means the construction, 8778
reconstruction, improvement, enlargement, alteration, or repair of 8779
a building by a public entity.8780

       "Public entity" includes a state agency and a state 8781
institution of higher education. 8782

       "State institution of higher education" has the same meaning 8783
as in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.8784

       (B) Commencing not later than July 1, 2012, and upon 8785
completion of a capital facilities project that is funded wholly 8786
or in part using state funds, each public entity shall submit a 8787
report about the project to the executive director of the Ohio 8788
facilities construction commission. The report shall be submitted 8789
in Ohio administrative knowledge system capital improvement format 8790
or in a manner determined by the executive director and not later 8791
than thirty days after the project is complete. The report shall 8792
provide the total original contract bid, total cost of change 8793
orders, total actual cost of the project, total costs incurred for 8794
mediation and litigation services, and any other data requested by 8795
the executive director. The first report submitted pursuant to 8796
this division shall include information about any capital 8797
facilities project completed on or after July 1, 2011. Any capital 8798
facilities project that is funded wholly or in part through 8799
appropriations made to the Ohio school facilities commission,or8800
the Ohio public works commission, or the Ohio cultural facilities 8801
commission, or for which a joint use agreement has been entered 8802
into with any public entity, is exempt from the reporting 8803
requirement prescribed under this division.8804

       (C) Commencing not later than July 1, 2012, and annually 8805
thereafter, the attorney general shall report to the executive 8806
director of the Ohio facilities construction commission on any 8807
mediation and litigation costs associated with capital facilities 8808
projects for which a judgment has been rendered. The report shall 8809
be submitted in a manner prescribed by the executive director and 8810
shall contain any information requested by the executive director 8811
related to capital facilities project mediation and litigation 8812
costs.8813

       (D) As soon as practicable after such information is made 8814
available, the executive director of the Ohio facilities 8815
construction commission shall incorporate the information reported 8816
pursuant to divisions (B) and (C) of this section into the Ohio 8817
administrative knowledge system.8818

       Sec. 3383.01.        Sec. 123.28.  As used in this chaptersection and in 8819
section 123.281 of the Revised Code:8820

       (A) "Culture" means any of the following:8821

       (1) Visual, musical, dramatic, graphic, design, and other 8822
arts, including, but not limited to, architecture, dance, 8823
literature, motion pictures, music, painting, photography, 8824
sculpture, and theater, and the provision of training or education 8825
in these arts;8826

       (2) The presentation or making available, in museums or other 8827
indoor or outdoor facilities, of principles of science and their 8828
development, use, or application in business, industry, or 8829
commerce or of the history, heritage, development, presentation, 8830
and uses of the arts described in division (A)(1) of this section 8831
and of transportation;8832

       (3) The preservation, presentation, or making available of 8833
features of archaeological, architectural, environmental, or 8834
historical interest or significance in a state historical facility 8835
or a local historical facility.8836

       (B) "Cultural organization" means either of the following:8837

       (1) A governmental agency or Ohio nonprofit corporation, 8838
including the Ohio historical society, that provides programs or 8839
activities in areas directly concerned with culture;8840

       (2) A regional arts and cultural district as defined in 8841
section 3381.01 of the Revised Code.8842

       (C) "Cultural project" means all or any portion of an Ohio 8843
cultural facility for which the general assembly has specifically 8844
authorized the spending of money, or made an appropriation, 8845
pursuant to division (D)(3) or (E) of section 3383.07 of the 8846
Revised Codeor has specifically authorized the spending of money 8847
or the making of rental payments relating to the financing of 8848
construction.8849

       (D) "Cooperative contract" means a contract between the Ohio 8850
cultural facilities construction commission and a cultural 8851
organization providing the terms and conditions of the cooperative 8852
use of an Ohio cultural facility.8853

       (E) "Costs of operation" means amounts required to manage an 8854
Ohio cultural facility that are incurred following the completion 8855
of construction of its cultural project, provided that both of the 8856
following apply:8857

       (1) Those amounts either:8858

       (a) Have been committed to a fund dedicated to that purpose;8859

       (b) Equal the principal of any endowment fund, the income 8860
from which is dedicated to that purpose.8861

       (2) The commission and the cultural organization have 8862
executed an agreement with respect to either of those funds.8863

       (F) "General building services" means general building 8864
services for an Ohio cultural facility or an Ohio sports facility, 8865
including, but not limited to, general custodial care, security, 8866
maintenance, repair, painting, decoration, cleaning, utilities, 8867
fire safety, grounds and site maintenance and upkeep, and 8868
plumbing.8869

       (G) "Governmental agency" means a state agency, a 8870
state-supported or state-assisted institution of higher education,8871
a municipal corporation, county, township, or school district, a 8872
port authority created under Chapter 4582. of the Revised Code, 8873
any other political subdivision or special district in this state 8874
established by or pursuant to law, or any combination of these 8875
entities; except where otherwise indicated, the United States or 8876
any department, division, or agency of the United States, or any 8877
agency, commission, or authority established pursuant to an 8878
interstate compact or agreement.8879

       (H)(G) "Local contributions" means the value of an asset 8880
provided by or on behalf of a cultural organization from sources 8881
other than the state, the value and nature of which shall be 8882
approved by the Ohio cultural facilities construction commission, 8883
in its sole discretion. "Local contributions" may include the 8884
value of the site where a cultural project is to be constructed. 8885
All "local contributions," except a contribution attributable to 8886
such a site, shall be for the costs of construction of a cultural 8887
project or the creation or expansion of an endowment for the costs 8888
of operation of a cultural facility.8889

       (I)(H) "Local historical facility" means a site or facility, 8890
other than a state historical facility, of archaeological, 8891
architectural, environmental, or historical interest or 8892
significance, or a facility, including a storage facility, 8893
appurtenant to the operations of such a site or facility, that is 8894
owned by a cultural organization, provided the facility meets the 8895
requirements of division (K)(2)(b) of this section, is managed by 8896
or pursuant to a contract with the Ohio cultural facilities 8897
commission, and is used for or in connection with thecultural8898
activities of the commission, including the presentation or making 8899
available of culture to the public.8900

       (J)(I) "Manage," "operate," or "management" means the 8901
provision of, or the exercise of control over the provision of, 8902
activities:8903

       (1) Relating to culture for an Ohio cultural facility, 8904
including as applicable, but not limited to, providing for 8905
displays, exhibitions, specimens, and models; booking of artists, 8906
performances, or presentations; scheduling; and hiring or 8907
contracting for directors, curators, technical and scientific 8908
staff, ushers, stage managers, and others directly related to the 8909
cultural activities in the facility; but not including general 8910
building services;8911

       (2) Relating to sports and athletic events for an Ohio sports 8912
facility, including as applicable, but not limited to, providing 8913
for booking of athletes, teams, and events; scheduling; and hiring 8914
or contracting for staff, ushers, managers, and others directly 8915
related to the sports and athletic events in the facility; but not 8916
including general building services.8917

       (K)(J) "Ohio cultural facility" means any of the following:8918

       (1) The theaters located in the state office tower at 77 8919
South High street in Columbus;8920

       (2) Any capitalcultural facility in this state to which both 8921
of the following apply:8922

       (a) The construction of a cultural project related to the 8923
facility was authorized or funded by the general assembly pursuant 8924
to division (D)(3) of section 3383.07 of the Revised Code and 8925
proceeds of state bonds are used for costs of the cultural 8926
project.8927

       (b) The facilitythat is managed directly by, or is subject 8928
to a cooperative or management contract with, the Ohio cultural8929
facilities construction commission, and is used for or in 8930
connection with the activities of the commission, including the 8931
presentation or making available of culture to the public and the 8932
provision of training or education in culture.8933

       (3) A state historical facility or a local historical 8934
facility.8935

       (L) "State agency" means the state or any of its branches, 8936
officers, boards, commissions, authorities, departments, 8937
divisions, or other units or agencies.8938

       (M)(K) "Construction" includes acquisition, including 8939
acquisition by lease-purchase, demolition, reconstruction, 8940
alteration, renovation, remodeling, enlargement, improvement, site 8941
improvements, and related equipping and furnishing.8942

       (N)(L) "State historical facility" means a site or facility 8943
that has all of the following characteristics:8944

       (1) It is created, supervised, operated, protected, 8945
maintained, and promoted by the Ohio historical society pursuant 8946
to the society's performance of public functions under sections 8947
149.30 and 149.302 of the Revised Code.8948

       (2) Its title must reside wholly or in part with the state, 8949
the society, or both the state and the society.8950

       (3) It is managed directly by or is subject to a cooperative 8951
or management contract with the Ohio cultural facilities 8952
construction commission and is used for or in connection with the8953
cultural activities of the commission, including the presentation 8954
or making available of culture to the public.8955

       (O)(M) "Ohio sports facility" means all or a portion of a 8956
stadium, arena, tennis facility, motorsports complex, or other 8957
capital facility in this state. A primary purpose of the facility 8958
shall be to provide a site or venue for the presentation to the 8959
public of motorsports events, professional tennis tournaments, or 8960
events of one or more major or minor league professional athletic 8961
or sports teams that are associated with the state or with a city 8962
or region of the state. The facility shall be, in the case of a 8963
motorsports complex, owned by the state or governmental agency, or 8964
in all other instances, owned by or located on real property owned 8965
by the state or a governmental agency, and includes all parking 8966
facilities, walkways, and other auxiliary facilities, equipment, 8967
furnishings, and real and personal property and interests and 8968
rights therein, that may be appropriate for or used for or in 8969
connection with the facility or its operation, for capital costs 8970
of which state funds are spent pursuant to this chapterthis 8971
section and section 123.281 of the Revised Code. A facility 8972
constructed as an Ohio sports facility may be both an Ohio 8973
cultural facility and an Ohio sports facility.8974

       (P)(N) "Motorsports" means sporting events in which motor 8975
vehicles are driven on a clearly demarcated tracked surface.8976

       Sec. 3383.07.        Sec. 123.281.  (A) The Ohio facilities construction 8977
commission shall provide for the construction of a cultural 8978
project in conformity with Chapter 153. of the Revised Code, 8979
except as follows:8980

       (1) For a cultural project other than a state historical 8981
facility, construction services may be provided on behalf of the 8982
state by the Ohio cultural facilities commission, or byfor 8983
construction services provided on behalf of the state by a 8984
governmental agency or a cultural organization in accordance with 8985
divisions (B) and (C) of this section.8986

       (B) In order for a governmental agency or a cultural 8987
organization that occupies, will occupy, or is responsible for the 8988
Ohio cultural facility, as determined by the Ohio cultural 8989
facilities commission. For a project receiving a state 8990
appropriation of fifty thousand dollars or less, the Ohio cultural 8991
facilities commission may delegate to its executive director the 8992
authority to approve the provision of construction services by 8993
such an agency or organization, but not the authority to 8994
disapprove that provision. Construction services to be provided by 8995
a governmental agency or a cultural organization shall be 8996
specified in an agreement between the Ohio cultural facilities 8997
commission and the governmental agency or cultural organization. 8998
The agreement, or any actions taken under it, are not subject to 8999
Chapter 123. or 153. of the Revised Code, except for sections 9000
123.081 and 153.011 of the Revised Code, and shall be subject to 9001
Chapter 4115. of the Revised Code.9002

       (2) For a cultural project that isto provide construction 9003
services on behalf of the state for a cultural project, other than 9004
a state historical facility, for which the general assembly has 9005
made an appropriation or specifically authorized the spending of 9006
money or the making of rental payments relating to the financing 9007
of the construction, the governmental agency or cultural 9008
organization shall submit to the Ohio facilities construction 9009
commission a cooperative agreement that includes, but is not 9010
limited to, provisions that:9011

       (1) Specify how the proposed project will support culture, as 9012
defined in section 123.28 of the Revised Code;9013

       (2) Specify that the governmental agency or cultural 9014
organization has local contributions amounting to not less than 9015
fifty per cent of the total state funding for the cultural 9016
project;9017

       (3) Specify that the funds shall be used only for 9018
construction, as defined in section 123.28 of the Revised Code;9019

       (4) Identify the facility to be constructed, renovated, 9020
remodeled, or improved;9021

       (5) Specify that the project scope meets the intent and 9022
purpose of the project appropriation and that the project can be 9023
completed and ready for full occupancy without exceeding 9024
appropriated funds;9025

       (6) Specify that the governmental agency or cultural 9026
organization shall hold the Ohio facilities construction 9027
commission harmless from all liability for the operation and 9028
maintenance costs of the facility;9029

       (7) Specify that the agreement or any actions taken under it 9030
are not subject to Chapters 123. or 153. of the Revised Code, 9031
except for section 153.011 of the Revised Code, and are subject to 9032
Chapter 4115. of the Revised Code; and9033

       (8) Provide that amendments to the agreement shall require 9034
the approval of the Ohio facilities construction commission.9035

       (C) In order for a cultural organization to provide 9036
construction services on behalf of the state for a state 9037
historical facility, construction services may be provided by the 9038
Ohio cultural facilities commission or by a cultural organization 9039
that occupies, will occupy, or is responsible for the facility, as 9040
determined by the Ohio cultural facilities commission. For a 9041
facility receiving a state appropriation of fifty thousand dollars 9042
or less, the Ohio cultural facilities commission may delegate to 9043
its executive director the authority to approve the provision of 9044
construction services by such an organization, but not the 9045
authority to disapprove that provision. The construction services 9046
to be provided by the cultural organization shall be specified in 9047
an agreement between the Ohio cultural facilities commission and 9048
the cultural organization. That agreement, and any actions taken 9049
under it, are not subject to Chapter 123., 153., or 4115. of the 9050
Revised Code.9051

       (B) For an Ohio sports facility that is financed in part by 9052
obligations issued pursuant to Chapter 154. of the Revised Code, 9053
construction services shall be provided on behalf of the state by 9054
or at the direction of the governmental agency or nonprofit 9055
corporation that will own or be responsible for the management of 9056
the facility, all as determined by the Ohio cultural facilities 9057
commission. For a facility receiving a state appropriation of 9058
fifty thousand dollars or less, the Ohio cultural facilities 9059
commission may delegate to its executive director the authority to 9060
approve the provision of construction services by or at the 9061
direction of the agency or corporation, but not the authority to 9062
disapprove that provision. Any construction services to be 9063
provided by a governmental agency or nonprofit corporation shall 9064
be specified in an agreement between the Ohio cultural facilities 9065
commission and the governmental agency or nonprofit corporation. 9066
That agreement, and any actions taken under it, are not subject to 9067
Chapter 123. or 153. of the Revised Code, except for sections 9068
123.081 and 153.011 of the Revised Code, and shall be subject to 9069
Chapter 4115. of the Revised Code.9070

       (C) General building services for an Ohio cultural facility 9071
shall be provided by the Ohio cultural facilities commission or by 9072
a cultural organization that occupies, will occupy, or is 9073
responsible for the facility, as determined by the Ohio cultural 9074
facilities commission. For a facility receiving a state 9075
appropriation of fifty thousand dollars or less, the Ohio cultural 9076
facilities commission may delegate to its executive director the 9077
authority to approve the provision of general building services by 9078
such an organization, but not the authority to disapprove that 9079
provision. Alternatively, the Ohio building authority may elect to 9080
provide those services for Ohio cultural facilities financed with 9081
proceeds of state bonds issued by the authority. The costs of 9082
management and general building services shall be paid by the 9083
cultural organization that occupies, will occupy, or is 9084
responsible for the facility as provided in an agreement between 9085
the Ohio cultural facilities commission and the cultural 9086
organization, except that the state may pay for general building 9087
services for state-owned cultural facilities constructed on 9088
state-owned land.9089

       General building services for an Ohio sports facility shall 9090
be provided by or at the direction of the governmental agency or 9091
nonprofit corporation that will be responsible for the management 9092
of the facility, all as determined by the Ohio cultural facilities 9093
commission. For a facility receiving a state appropriation of 9094
fifty thousand dollars or less, the Ohio cultural facilities 9095
commission may delegate to its executive director the authority to 9096
approve the provision of general building services by or at the 9097
direction of the agency or corporation, but not the authority to 9098
disapprove that provision. Any general building services to be 9099
provided by a governmental agency or nonprofit corporation for an 9100
Ohio sports facility shall be specified in an agreement between 9101
the Ohio cultural facilities commission and the governmental 9102
agency or nonprofit corporation. That agreement, and any actions 9103
taken under it, are not subject to Chapter 123. or 153. of the 9104
Revised Code, except for sections 123.081 and 153.011 of the 9105
Revised Code, and shall be subject to Chapter 4115. of the Revised 9106
Code.9107

       (D) This division does not apply to a state historical 9108
facility. No state funds, including any state bond proceeds, shall 9109
be spent on the construction of any cultural project under this 9110
chapter unless, with respect to the cultural project and to the 9111
Ohio cultural facility related to the project, all of the 9112
following apply:9113

       (1) The Ohio cultural facilities commission has determined 9114
that there is a need for the cultural project and the Ohio 9115
cultural facility related to the project in the region of the 9116
state in which the Ohio cultural facility is located or for which 9117
the facility is proposed. For a project receiving a state 9118
appropriation of fifty thousand dollars or less, the Ohio cultural 9119
facilities commission may delegate to its executive director the 9120
authority to determine need but only in the affirmative.9121

       (2) The Ohio cultural facilities commission has determined 9122
that, as an indication of substantial regional support for the 9123
cultural project, the cultural organization has made provision 9124
satisfactory to the Ohio cultural facilities commission, in its 9125
sole discretion, for local contributions amounting to not less 9126
than fifty per cent of the total state funding for the cultural 9127
project. For a project receiving a state appropriation of fifty 9128
thousand dollars or less, the Ohio cultural facilities commission 9129
may delegate to its executive director the authority to determine 9130
the adequacy of the regional support but only in the affirmative.9131

       (3) The general assembly has specifically authorized the 9132
spending of money on, or made an appropriation for, the 9133
construction of the cultural project, or for rental payments 9134
relating to the financing of the construction of the cultural 9135
project. Authorization to spend money, or an appropriation, for 9136
planning the cultural project does not constitute authorization to 9137
spend money on, or an appropriation for, construction of the 9138
cultural project.9139

       (E) No state funds, including any state bond proceeds, shall 9140
be spent on the construction of any state historical facility 9141
under this chapter unless the general assembly has specifically 9142
authorized the spending of money on, or made an appropriation for, 9143
the construction of the state historical project related to the 9144
facility, or for rental payments relating to the financing of the 9145
construction of the state historical project. Authorization to 9146
spend money, or an appropriation, for planning the state 9147
historical project does not constitute authorization to spend 9148
money on, or an appropriation for, the construction of the state 9149
historical project.9150

       (F)for which the general assembly has made an appropriation 9151
or specifically authorized the spending of money or the making of 9152
rental payments relating to the financing of the construction, the 9153
cultural organization shall submit to the Ohio facilities 9154
construction commission a cooperative agreement that includes, but 9155
is not limited to, provisions that:9156

       (1) Specify how the proposed project will support culture, as 9157
defined in section 123.28 of the Revised Code;9158

       (2) Specify that the funds shall be used only for 9159
construction, as defined in section 123.28 of the Revised Code;9160

       (3) Identify the facility to be constructed, renovated, 9161
remodeled, or improved;9162

       (4) Specify that the project scope meets the intent and 9163
purpose of the project appropriation and that the project can be 9164
completed and ready for full occupancy without exceeding 9165
appropriated funds;9166

       (5) Specify that the cultural organization shall hold the 9167
Ohio facilities construction commission harmless from all 9168
liability for the operation and maintenance costs of the facility;9169

       (6) Specify that the agreement or any actions taken under it 9170
are not subject to Chapters 123., 153., or 4115. of the Revised 9171
Code; and9172

       (7) Provide that amendments to the agreement shall require 9173
the approval of the Ohio facilities construction commission.9174

       (D) State funds shall not be used to pay or reimburse more 9175
than fifteen per cent of the initial estimated construction cost 9176
of an Ohio sports facility, excluding any site acquisition cost, 9177
and no state funds, including any state bond proceeds, shall be 9178
spent on any Ohio sports facility under this chapter unless, with 9179
respect to that facility, all of the following apply:9180

       (1) The Ohio cultural facilities construction commission has 9181
determined that there is a need for the facility in the region of 9182
the state for which the facility is proposed to provide the 9183
function of an Ohio sports facility as provided for in this 9184
chapter. For a facility receiving a state appropriation of fifty 9185
thousand dollars or less, the Ohio cultural facilities commission 9186
may delegate to its executive director the authority to determine 9187
need but only in the affirmative.9188

       (2) As an indication of substantial local support for the 9189
facility, the Ohio cultural facilities commission has received a 9190
financial and development plan satisfactory to it, and provision 9191
has been made, by agreement or otherwise, satisfactory to the Ohio 9192
cultural facilities commission, for a contribution amounting to 9193
not less than eighty-five per cent of the total estimated 9194
construction cost of the facility, excluding any site acquisition 9195
cost, from sources other than the state. For a facility receiving 9196
a state appropriation of fifty thousand dollars or less, the Ohio 9197
cultural facilities commission may delegate to its executive 9198
director the authority to evaluate the financial and development 9199
plan and the contribution and to determine their adequacy but only 9200
in the affirmative.9201

       (3)(2) The general assembly has specifically authorized the 9202
spending of money on, or made an appropriation for, the 9203
construction of the facility, or for rental payments relating to 9204
state financing of all or a portion of the costs of constructing 9205
the facility. Authorization to spend money, or an appropriation, 9206
for planning or determining the feasibility of or need for the 9207
facility does not constitute authorization to spend money on, or 9208
an appropriation for, costs of constructing the facility.9209

       (4)(3) If state bond proceeds are being used for the Ohio 9210
sports facility, the state or a governmental agency owns or has 9211
sufficient property interests in the facility or in the site of 9212
the facility or in the portion or portions of the facility 9213
financed from proceeds of state bonds, which may include, but is 9214
not limited to, the right to use or to require the use of the 9215
facility for the presentation of sport and athletic events to the 9216
public at the facility.9217

       (G)(E) In addition to the requirements of division (F)(D) of 9218
this section, no state funds, including any state bond proceeds, 9219
shall be spent on any Ohio sports facility that is a motorsports 9220
complex, unless, with respect to that facility, both of the 9221
following apply:9222

       (1) Motorsports events shall be presented at the facility 9223
pursuant to a lease entered into with the owner of the facility. 9224
The term of the lease shall be for a period of not less than the 9225
greater of the useful life of the portion of the facility financed 9226
from proceeds of state bonds as determined using the guidelines 9227
for maximum maturities as provided under divisions (B) and (C) of 9228
section 133.20 of the Revised Code, or the period of time 9229
remaining to the date of payment or provision for payment of 9230
outstanding state bonds allocable to costs of the facility, all as 9231
determined by the director of budget and management and certified 9232
by the executive director toof the Ohio cultural facilities 9233
construction commission and to the treasurer of state. 9234

       (2) Any motorsports organization that commits to using the 9235
facility for an established period of time shall give the 9236
political subdivision in which the facility is located not less 9237
than six months' advance notice if the organization intends to 9238
cease utilizing the facility prior to the expiration of that 9239
established period. Such a motorsports organization shall be 9240
liable to the state for any state funds used on the construction 9241
costs of the facility.9242

       (H)(F) In addition to the requirements of division (F)(D) of 9243
this section, no state bond proceeds shall be spent on any Ohio 9244
sports facility that is a tennis facility, unless the owner or 9245
manager of the facility provides contractual commitments from a 9246
national or international professional tennis organization in a 9247
form acceptable to the culturalOhio facilities construction9248
commission that assures that one or more sanctioned professional 9249
tennis events will be presented at the facility during each year 9250
that the bonds remain outstanding.9251

       Sec. 124.11.  The civil service of the state and the several 9252
counties, cities, civil service townships, city health districts, 9253
general health districts, and city school districts of the state 9254
shall be divided into the unclassified service and the classified 9255
service.9256

       (A) The unclassified service shall comprise the following 9257
positions, which shall not be included in the classified service, 9258
and which shall be exempt from all examinations required by this 9259
chapter:9260

       (1) All officers elected by popular vote or persons appointed 9261
to fill vacancies in those offices;9262

       (2) All election officers as defined in section 3501.01 of 9263
the Revised Code;9264

       (3)(a) The members of all boards and commissions, and heads 9265
of principal departments, boards, and commissions appointed by the 9266
governor or by and with the governor's consent; 9267

       (b) The heads of all departments appointed by a board of 9268
county commissioners;9269

       (c) The members of all boards and commissions and all heads 9270
of departments appointed by the mayor, or, if there is no mayor, 9271
such other similar chief appointing authority of any city or city 9272
school district;9273

       Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(17) or (C) of 9274
this section, this chapter does not exempt the chiefs of police 9275
departments and chiefs of fire departments of cities or civil 9276
service townships from the competitive classified service.9277

       (4) The members of county or district licensing boards or 9278
commissions and boards of revision, and not more than five deputy 9279
county auditors;9280

       (5) All officers and employees elected or appointed by either 9281
or both branches of the general assembly, and employees of the 9282
city legislative authority engaged in legislative duties;9283

       (6) All commissioned, warrant, and noncommissioned officers 9284
and enlisted persons in the Ohio organized militia, including 9285
military appointees in the adjutant general's department;9286

       (7)(a) All presidents, business managers, administrative 9287
officers, superintendents, assistant superintendents, principals, 9288
deans, assistant deans, instructors, teachers, and such employees 9289
as are engaged in educational or research duties connected with 9290
the public school system, colleges, and universities, as 9291
determined by the governing body of the public school system, 9292
colleges, and universities;9293

       (b) The library staff of any library in the state supported 9294
wholly or in part at public expense.9295

       (8) Four clerical and administrative support employees for 9296
each of the elective state officers, four clerical and 9297
administrative support employees for each board of county 9298
commissioners and one such employee for each county commissioner, 9299
and four clerical and administrative support employees for other 9300
elective officers and each of the principal appointive executive 9301
officers, boards, or commissions, except for civil service 9302
commissions, that are authorized to appoint such clerical and 9303
administrative support employees;9304

       (9) The deputies and assistants of state agencies authorized 9305
to act for and on behalf of the agency, or holding a fiduciary or 9306
administrative relation to that agency and those persons employed 9307
by and directly responsible to elected county officials or a 9308
county administrator and holding a fiduciary or administrative 9309
relationship to such elected county officials or county 9310
administrator, and the employees of such county officials whose 9311
fitness would be impracticable to determine by competitive 9312
examination, provided that division (A)(9) of this section shall 9313
not affect those persons in county employment in the classified 9314
service as of September 19, 1961. Nothing in division (A)(9) of 9315
this section applies to any position in a county department of job 9316
and family services created pursuant to Chapter 329. of the 9317
Revised Code.9318

       (10) Bailiffs, constables, official stenographers, and 9319
commissioners of courts of record, deputies of clerks of the 9320
courts of common pleas who supervise or who handle public moneys 9321
or secured documents, and such officers and employees of courts of 9322
record and such deputies of clerks of the courts of common pleas 9323
as the appointing authority finds it impracticable to determine 9324
their fitness by competitive examination;9325

       (11) Assistants to the attorney general, special counsel 9326
appointed or employed by the attorney general, assistants to 9327
county prosecuting attorneys, and assistants to city directors of 9328
law;9329

       (12) Such teachers and employees in the agricultural 9330
experiment stations; such students in normal schools, colleges, 9331
and universities of the state who are employed by the state or a 9332
political subdivision of the state in student or intern 9333
classifications; and such unskilled labor positions as the 9334
director of administrative services, with respect to positions in 9335
the service of the state, or any municipal civil service 9336
commission may find it impracticable to include in the competitive 9337
classified service; provided such exemptions shall be by order of 9338
the commission or the director, duly entered on the record of the 9339
commission or the director with the reasons for each such 9340
exemption;9341

       (13) Any physician or dentist who is a full-time employee of 9342
the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 9343
services, the department of developmental disabilities, or an 9344
institution under the jurisdiction of either department; and 9345
physicians who are in residency programs at the institutions;9346

       (14) Up to twenty positions at each institution under the 9347
jurisdiction of the department of mental healthmental health and 9348
addiction services or the department of developmental disabilities 9349
that the department director determines to be primarily 9350
administrative or managerial; and up to fifteen positions in any 9351
division of either department, excluding administrative assistants 9352
to the director and division chiefs, which are within the 9353
immediate staff of a division chief and which the director 9354
determines to be primarily and distinctively administrative and 9355
managerial;9356

       (15) Noncitizens of the United States employed by the state, 9357
or its counties or cities, as physicians or nurses who are duly 9358
licensed to practice their respective professions under the laws 9359
of this state, or medical assistants, in mental or chronic disease 9360
hospitals, or institutions;9361

       (16) Employees of the governor's office;9362

       (17) Fire chiefs and chiefs of police in civil service 9363
townships appointed by boards of township trustees under section 9364
505.38 or 505.49 of the Revised Code;9365

       (18) Executive directors, deputy directors, and program 9366
directors employed by boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 9367
mental health services under Chapter 340. of the Revised Code, and 9368
secretaries of the executive directors, deputy directors, and 9369
program directors;9370

       (19) Superintendents, and management employees as defined in 9371
section 5126.20 of the Revised Code, of county boards of 9372
developmental disabilities;9373

       (20) Physicians, nurses, and other employees of a county 9374
hospital who are appointed pursuant to sections 339.03 and 339.06 9375
of the Revised Code;9376

       (21) The executive director of the state medical board, who 9377
is appointed pursuant to division (B) of section 4731.05 of the 9378
Revised Code;9379

       (22) County directors of job and family services as provided 9380
in section 329.02 of the Revised Code and administrators appointed 9381
under section 329.021 of the Revised Code;9382

       (23) A director of economic development who is hired pursuant 9383
to division (A) of section 307.07 of the Revised Code;9384

       (24) Chiefs of construction and compliance, of operations and 9385
maintenance, of worker protection, and of licensing and 9386
certification in the division of industrial compliance in the 9387
department of commerce;9388

       (25) The executive director of a county transit system 9389
appointed under division (A) of section 306.04 of the Revised 9390
Code;9391

       (26) Up to five positions at each of the administrative 9392
departments listed in section 121.02 of the Revised Code and at 9393
the department of taxation, department of the adjutant general, 9394
department of education, Ohio board of regents, bureau of workers' 9395
compensation, industrial commission, state lottery commission, 9396
opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities agency, and public 9397
utilities commission of Ohio that the head of that administrative 9398
department or of that other state agency determines to be involved 9399
in policy development and implementation. The head of the 9400
administrative department or other state agency shall set the 9401
compensation for employees in these positions at a rate that is 9402
not less than the minimum compensation specified in pay range 41 9403
but not more than the maximum compensation specified in pay range 9404
4447 of salary schedule E-2 in section 124.152 of the Revised 9405
Code. The authority to establish positions in the unclassified 9406
service under division (A)(26) of this section is in addition to 9407
and does not limit any other authority that an administrative 9408
department or state agency has under the Revised Code to establish 9409
positions, appoint employees, or set compensation.9410

       (27) Employees of the department of agriculture employed 9411
under section 901.09 of the Revised Code;9412

       (28) For cities, counties, civil service townships, city 9413
health districts, general health districts, and city school 9414
districts, the deputies and assistants of elective or principal 9415
executive officers authorized to act for and in the place of their 9416
principals or holding a fiduciary relation to their principals;9417

       (29) Employees who receive intermittent or temporary 9418
appointments under division (B) of section 124.30 of the Revised 9419
Code;9420

       (30) Employees appointed to administrative staff positions 9421
for which an appointing authority is given specific statutory 9422
authority to set compensation;9423

       (31) Employees appointed to highway patrol cadet or highway 9424
patrol cadet candidate classifications;9425

       (32) Employees placed in the unclassified service by another 9426
section of the Revised Code.9427

       (B) The classified service shall comprise all persons in the 9428
employ of the state and the several counties, cities, city health 9429
districts, general health districts, and city school districts of 9430
the state, not specifically included in the unclassified service. 9431
Upon the creation by the board of trustees of a civil service 9432
township civil service commission, the classified service shall 9433
also comprise, except as otherwise provided in division (A)(17) or 9434
(C) of this section, all persons in the employ of a civil service 9435
township police or fire department having ten or more full-time 9436
paid employees. The classified service consists of two classes, 9437
which shall be designated as the competitive class and the 9438
unskilled labor class.9439

       (1) The competitive class shall include all positions and 9440
employments in the state and the counties, cities, city health 9441
districts, general health districts, and city school districts of 9442
the state, and, upon the creation by the board of trustees of a 9443
civil service township of a township civil service commission, all 9444
positions in a civil service township police or fire department 9445
having ten or more full-time paid employees, for which it is 9446
practicable to determine the merit and fitness of applicants by 9447
competitive examinations. Appointments shall be made to, or 9448
employment shall be given in, all positions in the competitive 9449
class that are not filled by promotion, reinstatement, transfer, 9450
or reduction, as provided in this chapter, and the rules of the 9451
director of administrative services, by appointment from those 9452
certified to the appointing officer in accordance with this 9453
chapter.9454

       (2) The unskilled labor class shall include ordinary 9455
unskilled laborers. Vacancies in the labor class for positions in 9456
service of the state shall be filled by appointment from lists of 9457
applicants registered by the director or the director's designee. 9458
Vacancies in the labor class for all other positions shall be 9459
filled by appointment from lists of applicants registered by a 9460
commission. The director or the commission, as applicable, by 9461
rule, shall require an applicant for registration in the labor 9462
class to furnish evidence or take tests as the director or 9463
commission considers proper with respect to age, residence, 9464
physical condition, ability to labor, honesty, sobriety, industry, 9465
capacity, and experience in the work or employment for which 9466
application is made. Laborers who fulfill the requirements shall 9467
be placed on the eligible list for the kind of labor or employment 9468
sought, and preference shall be given in employment in accordance 9469
with the rating received from that evidence or in those tests. 9470
Upon the request of an appointing officer, stating the kind of 9471
labor needed, the pay and probable length of employment, and the 9472
number to be employed, the director or commission, as applicable, 9473
shall certify from the highest on the list double the number to be 9474
employed; from this number, the appointing officer shall appoint 9475
the number actually needed for the particular work. If more than 9476
one applicant receives the same rating, priority in time of 9477
application shall determine the order in which their names shall 9478
be certified for appointment.9479

       (C) A municipal or civil service township civil service 9480
commission may place volunteer firefighters who are paid on a 9481
fee-for-service basis in either the classified or the unclassified 9482
civil service.9483

       (D)(1) This division does not apply to persons in the 9484
unclassified service who have the right to resume positions in the 9485
classified service under sections 4121.121, 5119.0715119.18, 9486
5120.38, 5120.381, 5120.382, 5123.08, 5139.02, and 5501.19 of the 9487
Revised Code or to cities, counties, or political subdivisions of 9488
the state.9489

        (2) A person who holds a position in the classified service 9490
of the state and who is appointed to a position in the 9491
unclassified service shall retain the right to resume the position 9492
and status held by the person in the classified service 9493
immediately prior to the person's appointment to the position in 9494
the unclassified service, regardless of the number of positions 9495
the person held in the unclassified service. An employee's right 9496
to resume a position in the classified service may only be 9497
exercised when an appointing authority demotes the employee to a 9498
pay range lower than the employee's current pay range or revokes 9499
the employee's appointment to the unclassified service and:9500

        (a) That person held a certified position prior to July 1, 9501
2007, in the classified service within the appointing authority's 9502
agency; or9503

        (b) That person held a permanent position on or after July 1, 9504
2007, in the classified service within the appointing authority's 9505
agency.9506

        (3) An employee forfeits the right to resume a position in 9507
the classified service when:9508

       (a) The employee is removed from the position in the 9509
unclassified service due to incompetence, inefficiency, 9510
dishonesty, drunkenness, immoral conduct, insubordination, 9511
discourteous treatment of the public, neglect of duty, violation 9512
of this chapter or the rules of the director of administrative 9513
services, any other failure of good behavior, any other acts of 9514
misfeasance, malfeasance, or nonfeasance in office, or conviction 9515
of a felony; or9516

       (b) Upon transfer to a different agency.9517

       (4) Reinstatement to a position in the classified service 9518
shall be to a position substantially equal to that position in the 9519
classified service held previously, as certified by the director 9520
of administrative services. If the position the person previously 9521
held in the classified service has been placed in the unclassified 9522
service or is otherwise unavailable, the person shall be appointed 9523
to a position in the classified service within the appointing 9524
authority's agency that the director of administrative services 9525
certifies is comparable in compensation to the position the person 9526
previously held in the classified service. Service in the position 9527
in the unclassified service shall be counted as service in the 9528
position in the classified service held by the person immediately 9529
prior to the person's appointment to the position in the 9530
unclassified service. When a person is reinstated to a position in 9531
the classified service as provided in this division, the person is 9532
entitled to all rights, status, and benefits accruing to the 9533
position in the classified service during the person's time of 9534
service in the position in the unclassified service.9535

       Sec. 124.14.  (A)(1) The director of administrative services 9536
shall establish, and may modify or rescind, by rule, a job 9537
classification plan for all positions, offices, and employments 9538
the salaries of which are paid in whole or in part byin the 9539
service of the state. The director shall group jobs within a 9540
classification so that the positions are similar enough in duties 9541
and responsibilities to be described by the same title, to have 9542
the same pay assigned with equity, and to have the same 9543
qualifications for selection applied. The director shall, by rule, 9544
assign a classification title to each classification within the 9545
classification plan. However, the director shall consider in 9546
establishing classifications, including classifications with 9547
parenthetical titles, and assigning pay ranges such factors as 9548
duties performed only on one shift, special skills in short supply 9549
in the labor market, recruitment problems, separation rates, 9550
comparative salary rates, the amount of training required, and 9551
other conditions affecting employment. The director shall describe 9552
the duties and responsibilities of the class, establish the 9553
qualifications for being employed in each position in the class, 9554
and file with the secretary of state a copy of specifications for 9555
all of the classifications. The director shall file new, 9556
additional, or revised specifications with the secretary of state 9557
before they are used. 9558

       The director shall, by rule, assign each classification, 9559
either on a statewide basis or in particular counties or state 9560
institutions, to a pay range established under section 124.15 or 9561
section 124.152 of the Revised Code. The director may assign a 9562
classification to a pay range on a temporary basis for a period of 9563
six months. The director may establish, by rule adopted under 9564
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, experimental classification 9565
plans for some or all employees paid directly by warrant of the 9566
director of budget and management. The rule shall include 9567
specifications for each classification within the plan and shall 9568
specifically address compensation ranges, and methods for 9569
advancing within the ranges, for the classifications, which may be 9570
assigned to pay ranges other than the pay ranges established under 9571
section 124.15 or 124.152 of the Revised Code.9572

       (2) The director of administrative services may reassign to a 9573
proper classification those positions that have been assigned to 9574
an improper classification. If the compensation of an employee in 9575
such a reassigned position exceeds the maximum rate of pay for the 9576
employee's new classification, the employee shall be placed in pay 9577
step X and shall not receive an increase in compensation until the 9578
maximum rate of pay for that classification exceeds the employee's 9579
compensation.9580

       (3) The director may reassign an exempt employee, as defined 9581
in section 124.152 of the Revised Code, to a bargaining unit 9582
classification if the director determines that the bargaining unit 9583
classification is the proper classification for that employee. 9584
Notwithstanding Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code or instruments 9585
and contracts negotiated under it, these placements are at the 9586
director's discretion.9587

       (4) The director shall, by rule, assign related 9588
classifications, which form a career progression, to a 9589
classification series. The director shall, by rule, assign each 9590
classification in the classification plan a five-digit number, the 9591
first four digits of which shall denote the classification series 9592
to which the classification is assigned. When a career progression 9593
encompasses more than ten classifications, the director shall, by 9594
rule, identify the additional classifications belonging to a 9595
classification series. The additional classifications shall be 9596
part of the classification series, notwithstanding the fact that 9597
the first four digits of the number assigned to the additional 9598
classifications do not correspond to the first four digits of the 9599
numbers assigned to other classifications in the classification 9600
series.9601

       (B) Division (A) of this section and sections 124.15 and 9602
124.152 of the Revised Code do not apply to the following persons, 9603
positions, offices, and employments:9604

       (1) Elected officials;9605

       (2) Legislative employees, employees of the legislative 9606
service commission, employees in the office of the governor, 9607
employees who are in the unclassified civil service and exempt 9608
from collective bargaining coverage in the office of the secretary 9609
of state, auditor of state, treasurer of state, and attorney 9610
general, and employees of the supreme court;9611

       (3) Any position for which the authority to determine 9612
compensation is given by law to another individual or entity;9613

       (4) Employees of the bureau of workers' compensation whose 9614
compensation the administrator of workers' compensation 9615
establishes under division (B) of section 4121.121 of the Revised 9616
Code.9617

       (C) The director may employ a consulting agency to aid and 9618
assist the director in carrying out this section.9619

       (D)(1) When the director proposes to modify a classification 9620
or the assignment of classes to appropriate pay ranges, the 9621
director shall send written notice of the proposed rule to the 9622
appointing authorities of the affected employees thirty days 9623
before a hearing on the proposed rule. The appointing authorities 9624
shall notify the affected employees regarding the proposed rule. 9625
The director also shall send those appointing authorities notice 9626
of any final rule that is adopted within ten days after adoption.9627

       (2) When the director proposes to reclassify any employee in 9628
the service of the state so that the employee is adversely 9629
affected, the director shall give to the employee affected and to 9630
the employee's appointing authority a written notice setting forth 9631
the proposed new classification, pay range, and salary. Upon the 9632
request of any classified employee in the service of the state who 9633
is not serving in a probationary period, the director shall 9634
perform a job audit to review the classification of the employee's 9635
position to determine whether the position is properly classified. 9636
The director shall give to the employee affected and to the 9637
employee's appointing authority a written notice of the director's 9638
determination whether or not to reclassify the position or to 9639
reassign the employee to another classification. An employee or 9640
appointing authority desiring a hearing shall file a written 9641
request for the hearing with the state personnel board of review 9642
within thirty days after receiving the notice. The board shall set 9643
the matter for a hearing and notify the employee and appointing 9644
authority of the time and place of the hearing. The employee, the 9645
appointing authority, or any authorized representative of the 9646
employee who wishes to submit facts for the consideration of the 9647
board shall be afforded reasonable opportunity to do so. After the 9648
hearing, the board shall consider anew the reclassification and 9649
may order the reclassification of the employee and require the 9650
director to assign the employee to such appropriate classification 9651
as the facts and evidence warrant. As provided in division (A)(1) 9652
of section 124.03 of the Revised Code, the board may determine the 9653
most appropriate classification for the position of any employee 9654
coming before the board, with or without a job audit. The board 9655
shall disallow any reclassification or reassignment classification 9656
of any employee when it finds that changes have been made in the 9657
duties and responsibilities of any particular employee for 9658
political, religious, or other unjust reasons.9659

       (E)(1) Employees of each county department of job and family 9660
services shall be paid a salary or wage established by the board 9661
of county commissioners. The provisions of section 124.18 of the 9662
Revised Code concerning the standard work week apply to employees 9663
of county departments of job and family services. A board of 9664
county commissioners may do either of the following:9665

       (a) Notwithstanding any other section of the Revised Code, 9666
supplement the sick leave, vacation leave, personal leave, and 9667
other benefits of any employee of the county department of job and 9668
family services of that county, if the employee is eligible for 9669
the supplement under a written policy providing for the 9670
supplement;9671

       (b) Notwithstanding any other section of the Revised Code, 9672
establish alternative schedules of sick leave, vacation leave, 9673
personal leave, or other benefits for employees not inconsistent 9674
with the provisions of a collective bargaining agreement covering 9675
the affected employees.9676

       (2) Division (E)(1) of this section does not apply to 9677
employees for whom the state employment relations board 9678
establishes appropriate bargaining units pursuant to section 9679
4117.06 of the Revised Code, except in either of the following 9680
situations:9681

       (a) The employees for whom the state employment relations 9682
board establishes appropriate bargaining units elect no 9683
representative in a board-conducted representation election.9684

       (b) After the state employment relations board establishes 9685
appropriate bargaining units for such employees, all employee 9686
organizations withdraw from a representation election.9687

       (F)(1) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of sections 9688
124.01 to 124.64 of the Revised Code, the board of trustees of 9689
each state university or college, as defined in section 3345.12 of 9690
the Revised Code, shall carry out all matters of governance 9691
involving the officers and employees of the university or college, 9692
including, but not limited to, the powers, duties, and functions 9693
of the department of administrative services and the director of 9694
administrative services specified in this chapter. Officers and 9695
employees of a state university or college shall have the right of 9696
appeal to the state personnel board of review as provided in this 9697
chapter.9698

       (2) Each board of trustees shall adopt rules under section 9699
111.15 of the Revised Code to carry out the matters of governance 9700
described in division (F)(1) of this section. Until the board of 9701
trustees adopts those rules, a state university or college shall 9702
continue to operate pursuant to the applicable rules adopted by 9703
the director of administrative services under this chapter.9704

       (G)(1) Each board of county commissioners may, by a 9705
resolution adopted by a majority of its members, establish a 9706
county personnel department to exercise the powers, duties, and 9707
functions specified in division (G) of this section. As used in 9708
division (G) of this section, "county personnel department" means 9709
a county personnel department established by a board of county 9710
commissioners under division (G)(1) of this section.9711

       (2)(a) Each board of county commissioners, by a resolution 9712
adopted by a majority of its members, may designate the county 9713
personnel department of the county to exercise the powers, duties, 9714
and functions specified in sections 124.01 to 124.64 and Chapter 9715
325. of the Revised Code with regard to employees in the service 9716
of the county, except for the powers and duties of the state 9717
personnel board of review, which powers and duties shall not be 9718
construed as having been modified or diminished in any manner by 9719
division (G)(2) of this section, with respect to the employees for 9720
whom the board of county commissioners is the appointing authority 9721
or co-appointing authority. 9722

       (b) Nothing in division (G)(2) of this section shall be 9723
construed to limit the right of any employee who possesses the 9724
right of appeal to the state personnel board of review to continue 9725
to possess that right of appeal.9726

       (c) Any board of county commissioners that has established a 9727
county personnel department may contract with the department of 9728
administrative services, in accordance with division (H) of this 9729
section, another political subdivision, or an appropriate public 9730
or private entity to provide competitive testing services or other 9731
appropriate services.9732

       (3) After the county personnel department of a county has 9733
been established as described in division (G)(2) of this section, 9734
any elected official, board, agency, or other appointing authority 9735
of that county, upon written notification to the county personnel 9736
department, may elect to use the services and facilities of the 9737
county personnel department. Upon receipt of the notification by 9738
the county personnel department, the county personnel department 9739
shall exercise the powers, duties, and functions as described in 9740
division (G)(2) of this section with respect to the employees of 9741
that elected official, board, agency, or other appointing 9742
authority. 9743

       (4) Each board of county commissioners, by a resolution 9744
adopted by a majority of its members, may disband the county 9745
personnel department. 9746

       (5) Any elected official, board, agency, or appointing 9747
authority of a county may end its involvement with a county 9748
personnel department upon actual receipt by the department of a 9749
certified copy of the notification that contains the decision to 9750
no longer participate.9751

       (6) A county personnel department, in carrying out its 9752
duties, shall adhere to merit system principles with regard to 9753
employees of county departments of job and family services, child 9754
support enforcement agencies, and public child welfare agencies so 9755
that there is no threatened loss of federal funding for these 9756
agencies, and the county is financially liable to the state for 9757
any loss of federal funds due to the action or inaction of the 9758
county personnel department. 9759

       (H) County agencies may contract with the department of 9760
administrative services for any human resources services, 9761
including, but not limited to, establishment and modification of 9762
job classification plans, competitive testing services, and 9763
periodic audits and reviews of the county's uniform application of 9764
the powers, duties, and functions specified in sections 124.01 to 9765
124.64 and Chapter 325. of the Revised Code with regard to 9766
employees in the service of the county. Nothing in this division 9767
modifies the powers and duties of the state personnel board of 9768
review with respect to employees in the service of the county. 9769
Nothing in this division limits the right of any employee who 9770
possesses the right of appeal to the state personnel board of 9771
review to continue to possess that right of appeal.9772

       (I) The director of administrative services shall establish 9773
the rate and method of compensation for all employees who are paid 9774
directly by warrant of the director of budget and management and 9775
who are serving in positions that the director of administrative 9776
services has determined impracticable to include in the state job 9777
classification plan. This division does not apply to elected 9778
officials, legislative employees, employees of the legislative 9779
service commission, employees who are in the unclassified civil 9780
service and exempt from collective bargaining coverage in the 9781
office of the secretary of state, auditor of state, treasurer of 9782
state, and attorney general, employees of the courts, employees of 9783
the bureau of workers' compensation whose compensation the 9784
administrator of workers' compensation establishes under division 9785
(B) of section 4121.121 of the Revised Code, or employees of an 9786
appointing authority authorized by law to fix the compensation of 9787
those employees.9788

       (J) The director of administrative services shall set the 9789
rate of compensation for all intermittent, seasonal, temporary, 9790
emergency, and casual employees in the service of the state who 9791
are not considered public employees under section 4117.01 of the 9792
Revised Code. Those employees are not entitled to receive employee 9793
benefits. This rate of compensation shall be equitable in terms of 9794
the rate of employees serving in the same or similar 9795
classifications. This division does not apply to elected 9796
officials, legislative employees, employees of the legislative 9797
service commission, employees who are in the unclassified civil 9798
service and exempt from collective bargaining coverage in the 9799
office of the secretary of state, auditor of state, treasurer of 9800
state, and attorney general, employees of the courts, employees of 9801
the bureau of workers' compensation whose compensation the 9802
administrator establishes under division (B) of section 4121.121 9803
of the Revised Code, or employees of an appointing authority 9804
authorized by law to fix the compensation of those employees.9805

       Sec. 124.18.  (A) Forty hours shall be the standard work week 9806
for all employees whose salary or wage is paid in whole or in part 9807
by the state or by any state-supported college or university. When 9808
any employee whose salary or wage is paid in whole or in part by 9809
the state or by any state-supported college or university is 9810
required by an authorized administrative authority to be in an 9811
active pay status more than forty hours in any calendar week, the 9812
employee shall be compensated for such time over forty hours, 9813
except as otherwise provided in this section, at one and one-half 9814
times the employee's regular rate of pay. The use of sick leave or 9815
any leave used in lieu of sick leave shall not be considered to be 9816
active pay status for the purposes of earning overtime or 9817
compensatory time by employees whose wages are paid directly by 9818
warrant of the director of budget and management. A flexible-hours 9819
employee is not entitled to compensation for overtime work unless 9820
the employee's authorized administrative authority required the 9821
employee to be in active pay status for more than forty hours in a 9822
calendar week, regardless of the number of hours the employee 9823
works on any day in the same calendar week.9824

       Such compensation for overtime work shall be paid no later 9825
than at the conclusion of the next succeeding pay period.9826

       If the employee elects to take compensatory time off in lieu 9827
of overtime pay for any overtime worked, such compensatory time 9828
shall be granted by the employee's administrative superior, on a 9829
time and one-half basis, at a time mutually convenient to the 9830
employee and the administrative superior. Compensatory time is not 9831
available for use until it appears on the employee's earning 9832
statement and the compensation described in the earning statement 9833
is available to the employee.9834

       An employee may accrue compensatory time to a maximum of two 9835
hundred forty hours, except that public safety employees and other 9836
employees who meet the criteria established in the "Federal Fair 9837
Labor Standards Act of 1938," 52 Stat. 1060, 29 U.S.C.A. 207, 213, 9838
as amended, may accrue a maximum of four hundred eighty hours of 9839
compensatory time. An employee shall be paid at the employee's 9840
regular rate of pay for any hours of compensatory time accrued in 9841
excess of these maximum amounts if the employee has not used the 9842
compensatory time within three hundred sixty-five days after it is 9843
granted, if the employee transfers to another agency of the state, 9844
or if a change in the employee's status exempts the employee from 9845
the payment of overtime compensation. Upon the termination of 9846
employment, any employee with accrued but unused compensatory time 9847
shall be paid for that time at a rate that is the greater of the 9848
employee's final regular rate of pay or the employee's average 9849
regular rate of pay during the employee's last three years of 9850
employment with the state.9851

       No overtime, as described in this section, can be paid unless 9852
it has been authorized by the authorized administrative authority. 9853
Employees may be exempted from the payment of compensation as 9854
required by this section only under the criteria for exemption 9855
from the payment of overtime compensation established in the 9856
"Federal Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938," 52 Stat. 1060, 29 9857
U.S.C.A. 207, 213, as amended. With the approval of the director 9858
of administrative services, the appointing authority may establish 9859
a policy to grant compensatory time or to pay compensation to 9860
state employees in the service of the state who are exempt from 9861
overtime compensation. With the approval of the board of county 9862
commissioners, a county human services department may establish a 9863
policy to grant compensatory time or to pay compensation to 9864
employees of the department who are exempt from overtime 9865
compensation.9866

       (B)(1) An employee, whose salary or wage is paid in whole or 9867
in part by the state, shall be paid for the holidays declared in 9868
section 124.19 of the Revised Code and shall not be required to 9869
work on those holidays, unless, in the opinion of the employee's 9870
responsible administrative authority, failure to work on those 9871
holidays would impair the public service. 9872

       (2) An employee paid directly by warrant of the director of 9873
budget and management who is scheduled to work on the first day of 9874
January, the commemoration of memorial day, the fourth day of 9875
July, the fourth Thursday in November, or the twenty-fifth day of 9876
December and who does not report to work the day before, the day 9877
of, or the day after the holiday due to an illness of the employee 9878
or of a member of the employee's immediate family shall not 9879
receive holiday pay as provided by this division, unless the 9880
employee can provide documentation of extenuating circumstances 9881
that prohibited the employee from so reporting to work. If the 9882
employee works a shift between the employee's scheduled shift and 9883
the holiday, the employee shall be paid for the holiday.9884

       (3) An employee also shall not be paid for a holiday unless 9885
the employee was in active pay status on the scheduled work day 9886
immediately preceding the holiday, except that an employee need 9887
not be in active pay status on that work day in order to be paid 9888
for the holiday if the employee is participating in a mandatory or 9889
voluntary cost savings day under section 124.392 of the Revised 9890
Code. 9891

       (4) If any of the holidays declared in section 124.19 of the 9892
Revised Code falls on Saturday, the Friday immediately preceding 9893
shall be observed as the holiday. If any of the holidays declared 9894
in section 124.19 of the Revised Code falls on Sunday, the Monday 9895
immediately succeeding shall be observed as the holiday. Employees 9896
whose work schedules are based on the requirements of a 9897
seven-days-a-week work operation shall observe holidays on the 9898
actual days specified in section 124.19 of the Revised Code.9899

       (5) If an employee's work schedule is other than Monday 9900
through Friday, the employee shall be entitled to eight hours of 9901
holiday pay for holidays observed on the employee's day off 9902
regardless of the day of the week on which they are observed. 9903

       (6) A full-time permanent employee is entitled to a minimum 9904
of eight hours of pay for each holiday regardless of the 9905
employee's work shift and work schedule. A flexible-hours 9906
employee, who is normally scheduled to work in excess of eight 9907
hours on a day on which a holiday falls, either shall be required 9908
to work an alternate schedule for that week or shall receive 9909
additional holiday pay for the hours the employee is normally 9910
scheduled to work. Such an alternate schedule may require a 9911
flexible-hours employee to work five shifts consisting of eight 9912
hours each during the week including the holiday, and, in that 9913
case, the employee shall receive eight hours of holiday pay for 9914
the day the holiday is observed. 9915

        (7) Except as provided under section 124.392 of the Revised 9916
Code, part-time permanent employees shall receive four hours of 9917
holiday pay regardless of the employee's work shift and work 9918
schedule. 9919

       (8) When an employee who is eligible for overtime pay under 9920
this section is required by the employee's responsible 9921
administrative authority to work on the day observed as a holiday, 9922
the employee shall be entitled to pay for such time worked at one 9923
and one-half times the employee's regular rate of pay in addition 9924
to the employee's regular pay, or to be granted compensatory time 9925
off at time and one-half thereafter, at the employee's option. 9926
Payment at such rate shall be excluded in the calculation of hours 9927
in active pay status.9928

       (C) Each appointing authority may designate the number of 9929
employees in an agency who are flexible-hours employees. The 9930
appointing authority may establish for each flexible-hours 9931
employee a specified minimum number of hours to be worked each day 9932
that is consistent with the "Federal Fair Labor Standards Act of 9933
1938," 52 Stat. 1060, 29 U.S.C.A. 207, 213, as amended.9934

       (D) This section shall be uniformly administered for 9935
employees as defined in section 124.01 of the Revised Code and by 9936
the personnel departments of state-supported colleges and 9937
universities for employees of state-supported colleges and 9938
universities. If employees are not paid directly by warrant of the 9939
director of budget and management, the political subdivision shall 9940
determine whether the use of sick leave shall be considered to be 9941
active pay status for purposes of those employees earning overtime 9942
or compensatory time.9943

       (E) Policies relating to the payment of overtime pay or the 9944
granting of compensatory time off shall be adopted by the chief 9945
administrative officer of the house of representatives for 9946
employees of the house of representatives, by the clerk of the 9947
senate for employees of the senate, and by the director of the 9948
legislative service commission for all other legislative 9949
employees.9950

       (F) As used in this section, "regular rate of pay" means the 9951
base rate of pay an employee receives plus any pay supplements 9952
received pursuant to section 124.181 of the Revised Code.9953

       Sec. 124.30.  (A) Classified positions in the civil service 9954
may be filled without competition as follows:9955

       (1) Whenever there are urgent reasons for filling a vacancy 9956
in any position in the classified civil service and the director 9957
of administrative services is unable to certify to the appointing 9958
authority, upon its request, a list of persons eligible for 9959
appointment to the position after a competitive examination, the 9960
appointing authority may fill the position by noncompetitive 9961
examination.9962

        A temporary appointment may be made without regard to the 9963
rules of sections 124.01 to 124.64 of the Revised Code. Except as 9964
otherwise provided in this division, the temporary appointment may 9965
not continue longer than one hundred twenty days, and in no case 9966
shall successive temporary appointments be made. A temporary 9967
appointment longer than one hundred twenty days may be made if 9968
necessary by reason of sickness, disability, or other approved 9969
leave of absence of regular officers or employees, in which case 9970
it may continue during the period of sickness, disability, or 9971
other approved leave of absence, subject to the rules of the 9972
director.9973

       (2) In case of a vacancy in a position in the classified 9974
civil service where peculiar and exceptional qualifications of a 9975
scientific, managerial, professional, or educational character are 9976
required, and upon satisfactory evidence that for specified 9977
reasons competition in this special case is impracticable and that 9978
the position can best be filled by a selection of some designated 9979
person of high and recognized attainments in those qualities, the 9980
director may suspend the provisions of sections 124.01 to 124.64 9981
of the Revised Code that require competition in this special case, 9982
but no suspension shall be general in its application. All such 9983
cases of suspension shall be reported in the annual report of the 9984
director with the reasons for each suspension. The director shall 9985
suspend the provisions when theeither of the following applies:9986

       (a) The director of job and family services provides the 9987
certification under section 5101.051 of the Revised Code that a 9988
position with the department of job and family services can best 9989
be filled if the provisions are suspended;9990

       (b) The medicaid director provides the certification under 9991
section 5160.051 of the Revised Code that a position with the 9992
department of medicaid can best be filled if the provisions are 9993
suspended.9994

       (3) The acceptance or refusal by an eligible person of a 9995
temporary appointment shall not affect the person's standing on 9996
the eligible list for permanent appointment, nor shall the period 9997
of temporary service be counted as a part of the probationary 9998
service in case of subsequent appointment to a permanent position.9999

       (B) Persons who receive temporary or intermittent 10000
appointments are in the unclassified civil service and serve at 10001
the pleasure of their appointing authority.10002

       Sec. 124.341.  (A) If an employee in the classified or 10003
unclassified civil service becomes aware in the course of 10004
employment of a violation of state or federal statutes, rules, or 10005
regulations or the misuse of public resources, and the employee's 10006
supervisor or appointing authority has authority to correct the 10007
violation or misuse, the employee may file a written report 10008
identifying the violation or misuse with the supervisor or 10009
appointing authority. In addition to or instead of filing a 10010
written report with the supervisor or appointing authority, the 10011
employee may file a written report with the office of internal 10012
auditingaudit created under section 126.45 of the Revised Code or 10013
file a complaint with the auditor of state's fraud-reporting 10014
system under section 117.103 of the Revised Code.10015

       If the employee reasonably believes that a violation or 10016
misuse of public resources is a criminal offense, the employee, in 10017
addition to or instead of filing a written report or complaint 10018
with the supervisor, appointing authority, the office of internal 10019
auditingaudit, or the auditor of state's fraud-reporting system, 10020
may report it to a prosecuting attorney, director of law, village 10021
solicitor, or similar chief legal officer of a municipal 10022
corporation, to a peace officer, as defined in section 2935.01 of 10023
the Revised Code, or, if the violation or misuse of public 10024
resources is within the jurisdiction of the inspector general, to 10025
the inspector general in accordance with section 121.46 of the 10026
Revised Code. In addition to that report, if the employee 10027
reasonably believes the violation or misuse is also a violation of 10028
Chapter 102., section 2921.42, or section 2921.43 of the Revised 10029
Code, the employee may report it to the appropriate ethics 10030
commission.10031

       (B) Except as otherwise provided in division (C) of this 10032
section, no officer or employee in the classified or unclassified 10033
civil service shall take any disciplinary action against an 10034
employee in the classified or unclassified civil service for 10035
making any report or filing a complaint as authorized by division 10036
(A) of this section, including, without limitation, doing any of 10037
the following:10038

       (1) Removing or suspending the employee from employment;10039

       (2) Withholding from the employee salary increases or 10040
employee benefits to which the employee is otherwise entitled;10041

       (3) Transferring or reassigning the employee;10042

       (4) Denying the employee promotion that otherwise would have 10043
been received;10044

       (5) Reducing the employee in pay or position.10045

       (C) An employee in the classified or unclassified civil 10046
service shall make a reasonable effort to determine the accuracy 10047
of any information reported under division (A) of this section. 10048
The employee is subject to disciplinary action, including 10049
suspension or removal, as determined by the employee's appointing 10050
authority, for purposely, knowingly, or recklessly reporting false 10051
information under division (A) of this section.10052

       (D) If an appointing authority takes any disciplinary or 10053
retaliatory action against a classified or unclassified employee 10054
as a result of the employee's having filed a report or complaint 10055
under division (A) of this section, the employee's sole and 10056
exclusive remedy, notwithstanding any other provision of law, is 10057
to file an appeal with the state personnel board of review within 10058
thirty days after receiving actual notice of the appointing 10059
authority's action. If the employee files such an appeal, the 10060
board shall immediately notify the employee's appointing authority 10061
and shall hear the appeal. The board may affirm or disaffirm the 10062
action of the appointing authority or may issue any other order as 10063
is appropriate. The order of the board is appealable in accordance 10064
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.10065

       (E) As used in this section:10066

       (1) "Purposely," "knowingly," and "recklessly" have the same 10067
meanings as in section 2901.22 of the Revised Code.10068

       (2) "Appropriate ethics commission" has the same meaning as 10069
in section 102.01 of the Revised Code.10070

       (3) "Inspector general" means the inspector general appointed 10071
under section 121.48 of the Revised Code.10072

       Sec. 124.381.  (A)(1)(a) An employee in the service of the 10073
state may be eligible to receive salary continuation not to exceed 10074
four hundred eighty hours at the employee's total rate of pay for 10075
absence as a result of injury incurred during the performance of, 10076
or arising out of, state employment. When an eligible employee's 10077
absence as a result of such an injury extends beyond four hundred 10078
eighty hours, the employee immediately becomes subject to sections 10079
124.382 and 124.385 of the Revised Code regarding sick leave and 10080
disability leave benefits.10081

       An employee is ineligible to receive salary continuation 10082
until the date of implementation is established in the rules 10083
adopted under division (C)(1) of this section.10084

       (b) Employees of the secretary of state, auditor of state, 10085
treasurer of state, attorney general, supreme court, general 10086
assembly, or legislative service commission are not subject to 10087
division (A)(1)(a) of this section unless the relevant appointing 10088
authority notifies the director of administrative services in 10089
writing of the intent to have all of the appointing authority's 10090
employees participate in salary continuation. The relevant 10091
appointing authority also may discontinue salary continuation for 10092
all of its employees by providing written notice of the 10093
discontinuation to the director.10094

       Participation in salary continuation is subject to rules 10095
adopted under division (C)(1) of this section.10096

        (2) Each employee of the department of rehabilitation and 10097
correction, the department of mental healthmental health and 10098
addiction services, the department of developmental disabilities, 10099
the department of veterans services, or the Ohio schools for the 10100
deaf and blind, and each employee of the department of youth 10101
services as established in division (A) of section 124.14 of the 10102
Revised Code who sustains a qualifying physical condition 10103
inflicted by a ward of these agencies during the time the employee 10104
is lawfully carrying out the assigned duties of the employee's 10105
position shall be paid occupational injury leave at the employee's 10106
total rate of pay during the period the employee is disabled as a 10107
result of that qualifying physical condition, but in no case to 10108
exceed nine hundred sixty hours, in lieu of workers' compensation. 10109
Pay made according to this division shall not be charged to the 10110
employee's accumulation of sick leave credit. In any case when an 10111
employee's disability as a result of such a qualifying physical 10112
condition extends beyond nine hundred sixty hours, the employee 10113
immediately becomes subject to sections 124.382 and 124.385 of the 10114
Revised Code regarding sick leave and disability leave benefits.10115

        (B) An employee who is receiving salary continuation or 10116
occupational injury leave under division (A)(1) or (2) of this 10117
section is not eligible for other paid leave, including holiday 10118
pay, while receiving benefits under either division. While an 10119
employee is receiving salary continuation or occupational injury 10120
leave under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section, vacation leave 10121
credit ceases to accrue to the employee under section 124.134 of 10122
the Revised Code, but sick leave credit and personal leave credit 10123
continue to accrue to the employee under sections 124.382 and 10124
124.386 of the Revised Code.10125

       (C)(1) The director of administrative services shall adopt 10126
rules for the administration of both the salary continuation 10127
program and the occupational injury leave program. The rules shall 10128
include, but not be limited to, provisions for determining a 10129
disability, for filing a claim for leave under this section, and 10130
for allowing or denying claims for the leave.10131

       (2) The director also may adopt rules for the payment of 10132
health benefits while an employee is on workers' compensation 10133
leave.10134

       (D) An appointing authority may apply to the director of 10135
administrative services to grant salary continuation under 10136
division (A)(1) of this section or occupational injury leave under 10137
division (A)(2) of this section to law enforcement personnel 10138
employed by the agency.10139

       Sec. 124.57.  (A) No officer or employee in the classified 10140
service of the state, the several counties, cities, and city 10141
school districts of the state, or the civil service townships of 10142
the state shall directly or indirectly, orally or by letter, 10143
solicit or receive, or be in any manner concerned in soliciting or 10144
receiving, any assessment, subscription, or contribution for any 10145
political party or for any candidate for public office; nor shall 10146
any person solicit directly or indirectly, orally or by letter, or 10147
be in any manner concerned in soliciting, any such assessment, 10148
contribution, or payment from any officer or employee in the 10149
classified service of the state, the several counties, cities, or 10150
city school districts of the state, or the civil service townships 10151
of the state; nor shall any officer or employee in the classified 10152
service of the state, the several counties, cities, and city 10153
school districts of the state, or the civil service townships of 10154
the state be an officer in any political organization or take part 10155
in politics other than to vote as the officer or employee pleases 10156
and to express freely political opinions.10157

       (B)(1) Nothing in division (A) of this section prohibits an 10158
officer or employee described in that division from serving as a 10159
precinct election official under section 3501.22 of the Revised 10160
Code.10161

       (2) Nothing in division (A) of this section prohibits an 10162
employee of the Ohio cooperativeOSU extension service whose 10163
position is transferred from the unclassified civil service to the 10164
classified civil service and who also holds the office of 10165
president of a city legislative authority from completing the 10166
existing term of office as president.10167

       Sec. 124.84.  (A) The department of administrative services, 10168
in consultation with the superintendent of insurance and subject 10169
to division (D) of this section, shallmay negotiate and contract 10170
with one or more insurance companies or health insuring 10171
corporations authorized to operate or do business in this state 10172
for the purchase of a policy of long-term care insurance covering 10173
all state employees who are paid directly by warrant of the 10174
director of budget and management, including elected state 10175
officials. Any policy purchased under this division shall be 10176
negotiated and entered into in accordance with the competitive 10177
selection procedures specified in Chapter 125. of the Revised 10178
Code. As used in this section, "long-term care insurance" has the 10179
same meaning as in section 3923.41 of the Revised Code.10180

       (B) Any elected state official or state employee paid 10181
directly by warrant of the director of budget and management may 10182
elect to participate in any long-term care insurance policy 10183
purchased under division (A) of this section. All or any portion 10184
of the premium charged may be paid by the state. Participation in 10185
the policy may include the dependents and family members of the 10186
elected state official or state employee.10187

       If a participant in a long-term care insurance policy leaves 10188
employment, the participant and the participant's dependents and 10189
family members may, at their election, continue to participate in 10190
a policy established under this section. The manner of payment and 10191
the portion of premium charged the participant, dependent, and 10192
family member shall be established pursuant to division (E) of 10193
this section.10194

       (C) Any long-term care insurance policy purchased under this 10195
section or section 124.841 or 145.581 of the Revised Code shall 10196
provide for all of the following with respect to the premiums 10197
charged for the policy:10198

       (1) They shall be set at the entry age of the official or 10199
employee when first covered by the policy and shall not increase 10200
except as a class during coverage under the policy.10201

       (2) They shall be based on the class of all officials or 10202
employees covered by the policy.10203

       (3) They shall continue, pursuant to section 145.581 of the 10204
Revised Code, after the retirement of the official or employee who 10205
is covered under the policy, at the rate in effect on the date of 10206
the official's or employee's retirement.10207

       (D) Prior to entering into a contract with an insurance 10208
company or health insuring corporation for the purchase of a 10209
long-term care insurance policy under this section, the department 10210
shall request the superintendent of insurance to certify the 10211
financial condition of the company or corporation. The department 10212
shall not enter into the contract if, according to that 10213
certification, the company or corporation is insolvent, is 10214
determined by the superintendent to be potentially unable to 10215
fulfill its contractual obligations, or is placed under an order 10216
of rehabilitation or conservation by a court of competent 10217
jurisdiction or under an order of supervision by the 10218
superintendent.10219

       (E) The department shall adopt rules in accordance with 10220
section 111.15 of the Revised Code governing long-term care 10221
insurance purchased under this section. All or any portion of the 10222
premium charged the participants, dependents, and family members 10223
shall be paid in such manner or combination of manners as the 10224
department determines.10225

       Sec. 3701.041.        Sec. 124.88.  (A) The employee assistance program is 10226
hereby established in the department of administrative services10227
for the purpose of referring state employees paid by warrant of 10228
the director of budget and management who are in need of medical, 10229
social, or other services to providers of those services.10230

       The director of health, in consultation with the director of 10231
budget and management, shall determine a rate at which the 10232
payrolls of all state agencies with employees paid by warrant of 10233
the director of budget and management shall be charged each pay 10234
period that is sufficient to cover the costs of administering the 10235
program. The rate shall be based upon the total number of such 10236
employees and may be adjusted as the director of health, in 10237
consultation with the director of budget and management, considers 10238
necessary. All money collected from the assessment shall be 10239
deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the employee 10240
assistance general services fund, which is hereby created. The 10241
fund shall be used by the director of health to administer the 10242
program.10243

       (B) Records of the identity, diagnosis, prognosis, or 10244
treatment of any person that are maintained in connection with the 10245
employee assistance program created in division (A) of this 10246
section are not public records under section 149.43 of the Revised 10247
Code and shall be disclosed only as provided in division (C) of 10248
this section.10249

       (C)(1) Records described in division (B) of this section may 10250
be disclosed with the prior written consent of the person who is 10251
the subject of the record.10252

       (2) Records described in division (B) of this section may be 10253
disclosed with or without the prior written consent of the person 10254
who is the subject of the record under the following conditions:10255

       (a) To medical personnel to the extent necessary to meet a 10256
bona fide medical emergency;10257

       (b) To qualified personnel for the purpose of conducting 10258
scientific research, management audits, financial audits, or 10259
program evaluation, but the personnel shall not directly or 10260
indirectly identify any person who is the subject of the record in 10261
any report of the research, audit, or evaluation or in any other 10262
manner;10263

       (c) If authorized by an appropriate order of a court of 10264
competent jurisdiction granted after a showing of good cause. In 10265
determining good cause, the court shall weigh the public interest 10266
and the need for disclosure against injury to the person who is 10267
the subject of the record and to the employee assistance program. 10268
Upon granting such an order, the court shall, in determining the 10269
extent to which the disclosure of all or any part of any record is 10270
necessary, impose appropriate safeguards against unauthorized 10271
disclosure.10272

       (D) Except as authorized by a court order described in 10273
division (C)(2)(c) of this section, no record described in 10274
division (B) of this section may be used to initiate or 10275
substantiate criminal charges against the person who is the 10276
subject of the record or to conduct any investigation of such a 10277
person.10278

       Sec. 125.05.  Except as provided in division (F) of this 10279
section, no state agency shall purchase any supplies or services 10280
except as provided in divisions (A) to (D) of this section.10281

       (A) Subject to division (E) of this section, a state agency 10282
may, without competitive selection, make any purchase of supplies 10283
or services that cost twenty-five thousand dollars or less. The 10284
agency may make the purchase directly or may make the purchase 10285
from or through the department of administrative services, 10286
whichever the agency determines. The agency shall adopt written 10287
procedures consistent with the department's purchasing procedures 10288
and shall use those procedures when making purchases under this 10289
division.10290

       (B) Subject to division (E) of this section and in accordance 10291
with section 125.051 of the Revised Code, a state agency may make 10292
purchases of supplies and services that cost more than twenty-five 10293
thousand dollars but less than fifty thousand dollars if the 10294
purchases are made under the direction of an employee of the 10295
agency who is certified by the department to make purchases and if 10296
the purchases comply with the department's purchasing procedures. 10297
Section 127.16 of the Revised Code does not apply to purchases 10298
made under this division. Until the certification effective date 10299
established by the department in rules adopted under section 10300
125.051 of the Revised Code, state agencies may make purchases of 10301
supplies and services that cost more than twenty-five thousand 10302
dollars but less than fifty thousand dollars in the same manner as 10303
provided in division (A) of this section.10304

       (C) Subject to division (E) of this section, a state agency 10305
wanting to purchase supplies or services that cost more than 10306
twenty-five thousand dollars shall, unless otherwise authorized by 10307
law, make the purchase from or through the department. The 10308
department shall make the purchase by competitive selection. If 10309
the director of administrative services determines that it is not 10310
possible or not advantageous to the state for the department to 10311
make the purchase, the department shall grant the agency a release 10312
and permit under section 125.06 of the Revised Code to make the 10313
purchase. Section 127.16 of the Revised Code does not apply to 10314
purchases the department makes under this section.10315

       (D) An agency that has been granted a release and permit to 10316
make a purchase may make the purchase without competitive 10317
selection if after making the purchase the cumulative purchase 10318
threshold as computed under division (E) of section 127.16 of the 10319
Revised Code would:10320

       (1) Be exceeded and the controlling board approves the 10321
purchase;10322

       (2) Not be exceeded and the department of administrative 10323
services approves the purchase.10324

       (E) Not later than the thirty-first day of January of each 10325
even-numbered year, the directors of administrative services and 10326
budget and management shall review and recommend to the general 10327
assembly, if necessary, adjustments to the amounts specified in 10328
divisions (A) to (C) of this section and division (B) of section 10329
127.16 of the Revised Code.10330

       (F) If the eTech Ohio commission, the department of 10331
education, or the Ohio education computer network determines that 10332
it can purchase software services or supplies for specified school 10333
districts at a price less than the price for which the districts 10334
could purchase the same software services or supplies for 10335
themselves, the commission, department, or network shall certify 10336
that fact to the department of administrative services and, acting 10337
as an agent for the specified school districts, shall make that 10338
purchase without following the provisions in divisions (A) to (D) 10339
of this section.10340

       Sec. 125.21.  The director of administrative services shall 10341
process payroll information for the purpose of payment for 10342
personal services of state officials and employees on the basis of 10343
rates of pay determined by pertinent law, the director, or other 10344
competent authority.10345

       Calculation of payrolls may be made after the conclusion of 10346
each pay period based upon the amount of time served as certified 10347
by the appropriate appointing authority. Payment for personal 10348
service rendered by an official or employee during any pay period 10349
shall be made no later than at the conclusion of the official's or 10350
employee's next succeeding pay period.10351

       The director of administrative services shall furnish to the 10352
director of budget and management all necessary data for drawing 10353
state official and employee pay warrants and preparing earning 10354
statements. These data shall include the rate at which paid; the 10355
time for which paid, including overtime and any other adjustments 10356
affecting the official's or employee's gross pay; all taxes 10357
withheld, including, whenever practicable, year-to-date figures on 10358
all taxes withheld; the amount of contribution to the appropriate 10359
retirement system; any voluntary deductions made in accordance 10360
with authorizations filed by the official or employee; and whether 10361
a direct deposit is to be made in accordance with an authorization 10362
filed by the official or employee.10363

       Amounts deducted from the salaries or wages of all officials 10364
and employees shall be transferred to the payroll withholding10365
deduction fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury for 10366
the purpose of consolidating all such deductions made in any 10367
month. Payments from this fund shall be made at intervals for the 10368
intended purpose of the deduction or for refund where it is 10369
determined that deductions were made in error.10370

       Sec. 125.212.  The life insurance investment fund is hereby 10371
created in the state treasury. The fund shall consist of amounts 10372
from the payroll withholding fund created by section 125.21 of 10373
the Revised Codestate agencies, life insurance premium refunds 10374
received by the state, and other receipts related to the state's 10375
life insurance benefit program. The fund shall be used to pay the 10376
costs of the state's life insurance benefit program. All 10377
investment earnings of the life insurance investment fund shall be 10378
credited to the fund.10379

       Sec. 125.27. (A) There is hereby created in the state 10380
treasury the building improvement fund. The fund shall retain the 10381
interest earned.10382

       (B) The fund shall consist of any payments made by intrastate 10383
transfer voucher from the appropriation item for office building 10384
operating payments.10385

       (C) The fund shall be used for major maintenance or 10386
improvements required in the James A. Rhodes or Frank J. Lausche 10387
state office tower, Toledo government center, Senator Oliver R. 10388
Ocasek government office building, and Vern Riffe center for 10389
government and the arts.10390

       Sec. 125.28. (A)(1) Each state agency that is supported in 10391
whole or in part by nongeneral revenue fund money and that 10392
occupies space in the James A. Rhodes or Frank J. Lausche state 10393
office tower, Toledo government center, Senator Oliver R. Ocasek 10394
government office building, Vern Riffe center for government and 10395
the arts, capitol square, or governor's mansion shall reimburse 10396
the general revenue fund for the cost of occupying the space in 10397
the ratio that the occupied space in each facility attributable to 10398
the nongeneral revenue fund money bears to the total space 10399
occupied by the state agency in the facility.10400

       (2) All agencies that occupy space in the old blind school or 10401
that occupy warehouse space in the general services facility shall 10402
reimburse the department of administrative services for the cost 10403
of occupying the space. The director of administrative services 10404
shall determine the amount of debt service, if any, to be charged 10405
to building tenants and shall collect reimbursements for it.10406

       (3) Each agency that is supported in whole or in part by 10407
nongeneral revenue fund money and that occupies space in any other 10408
facility or facilities owned and maintained by the department of 10409
administrative services or space in the general services facility 10410
other than warehouse space shall reimburse the department for the 10411
cost of occupying the space, including debt service, if any, in 10412
the ratio that the occupied space in each facility attributable to 10413
the nongeneral revenue fund money bears to the total space 10414
occupied by the state agency in the facility.10415

       (B) The director of administrative services may provide 10416
building maintenance services and skilled tradesminor 10417
construction project management services to any state agency 10418
occupying space in a facility that is not owned by the department 10419
of administrative services and may collect reimbursements for the 10420
cost of providing those services.10421

       (C) All money collected by the department of administrative 10422
services for operating expenses of facilities owned or maintained 10423
by the department shall be deposited into the state treasury to 10424
the credit of the building management fund, which is hereby 10425
created, or to the credit of the building operation fund, which is 10426
hereby created. All money collected by the department for skilled 10427
tradesminor construction project management services shall be 10428
deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the skilled 10429
tradesminor construction project management fund, which is hereby 10430
created. All money collected for debt service shall be deposited 10431
into the general revenue fund.10432

       (D) The director of administrative services shall determine 10433
the reimbursable cost of space in state-owned or state-leased 10434
facilities and shall collect reimbursements for that cost.10435

       Sec. 125.602. (A) The department of developmental 10436
disabilities, the department of mental healthmental health and 10437
addiction services, the department of job and family services, the 10438
rehabilitation services commissionopportunities for Ohioans with 10439
disabilities agency, and any other state or governmental agency or 10440
community rehabilitation program responsible for the provision of 10441
rehabilitation and vocational educational services to persons with 10442
work-limiting disabilities may, through written agreement, 10443
cooperate in providing resources to the department of 10444
administrative services for the operation of the office of 10445
procurement from community rehabilitation programs. These 10446
resources may include, but are not limited to, leadership and 10447
assistance in dealing with the societal aspects of meeting the 10448
needs of persons with work-limiting disabilities.10449

       (B) The office and all governmental entities that administer 10450
socioeconomic programs may enter into contractual agreements, 10451
cooperative working relationships, or other arrangements that are 10452
necessary for effective coordination and realization of the 10453
objectives of these entities.10454

       Sec. 125.603. (A) The office of procurement from community 10455
rehabilitation programs shall do the following in addition to 10456
other duties specified in sections 125.60 to 125.6012 of the 10457
Revised Code:10458

       (1) Establish, maintain, and periodically update a 10459
procurement list of approved supplies and services available from 10460
qualified nonprofit agencies;10461

       (2) Monitor the procurement practices of government ordering 10462
offices to ensure compliance with sections 125.60 to 125.6012 of 10463
the Revised Code;10464

       (3) In cooperation with qualified nonprofit agencies, 10465
government ordering offices, the department of developmental 10466
disabilities, the department of mental healthmental health and 10467
addiction services, the department of job and family services, and 10468
the rehabilitation services commissionopportunities for Ohioans 10469
with disabilities agency, develop and recommend to the director of 10470
administrative services rules the director shall adopt in 10471
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for the effective 10472
and efficient administration of sections 125.60 to 125.6012 of the 10473
Revised Code;10474

       (4) Prepare a report of its activities by the last day of 10475
December of each year. The report shall be posted electronically 10476
on the office's web site.10477

       (B) The office of procurement from community rehabilitation 10478
programs may enter into contractual agreements and establish pilot 10479
programs to further the objectives of sections 125.60 to 125.6012 10480
of the Revised Code.10481

       Sec. 125.832. (A) The department of administrative services 10482
is granted exclusive authority over the acquisition and management 10483
of all motor vehicles used by state agencies. In carrying out this 10484
authority, the department shall do both of the following:10485

       (1) Approve the purchase or lease of each motor vehicle for 10486
use by a state agency. The department shall decide if a motor 10487
vehicle shall be leased or purchased for that use.10488

       Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(1) of this 10489
section, on and after July 1, 2005, each state agency shall 10490
acquire all passenger motor vehicles under the department's master 10491
leasing program. If the department determines that acquisition 10492
under that program is not the most economical method and if the 10493
department and the state agency acquiring the passenger motor 10494
vehicle can provide economic justification for doing so, the 10495
department may approve the purchase, rather than the lease, of a 10496
passenger motor vehicle for the acquiring state agency.10497

       (2) Direct and approve all funds that are expended for the 10498
purchase, lease, repair, maintenance, registration, insuring, and 10499
other costs related to the possession and operation of motor 10500
vehicles for the use of state agencies.10501

       (B) The director of administrative services shall establish 10502
and operate a fleet management program. The director shall operate 10503
the program for purposes including, but not limited to, 10504
cost-effective acquisition, maintenance, management, analysis, and 10505
disposal of all motor vehicles owned or leased by the state. All 10506
state agencies shall comply with statewide fleet management 10507
policies and procedures established by the director for the 10508
program, including, but not limited to, motor vehicle assignments, 10509
additions of motor vehicles to fleets or motor vehicle 10510
replacements, motor vehicle fueling, and motor vehicle repairs.10511

       (C) The director shall establish and maintain a fleet 10512
reporting system and shall require state agencies to submit to the 10513
department information relative to state motor vehicles, including 10514
motor vehicles described in division (G)(2) of section 125.831 of 10515
the Revised Code, to be used in operating the fleet management 10516
program. State agencies shall provide to the department fleet data 10517
and other information, including, but not limited to, mileage and 10518
costs. The data and other information shall be submitted in 10519
formats and in a manner determined by the department.10520

       (D) All state agency purchases or leases of motor vehicles 10521
are subject to the prior approval of the director under division 10522
(A)(1) of this section.10523

       (E) State agencies that utilize state motor vehicles or pay 10524
mileage reimbursements to employees shall provide a fleet plan to 10525
the department as directed by the department.10526

       (F)(1) The fleets of state agencies that consist of one 10527
hundred or less vehicles on July 1, 2004, shall be managed by the 10528
department's fleet management program on a time schedule 10529
determined by the department, unless the state agency has received 10530
delegated authority as described in division (G) of this section.10531

       (2) The fleets of state agencies that consist of greater than 10532
one hundred motor vehicles, but less than five hundred motor 10533
vehicles, on July 1, 2005, also shall be managed by the 10534
department's fleet management program on a time schedule 10535
determined by the department, unless the state agency has received 10536
delegated authority as described in division (G) of this section.10537

       (G)(1) The department may delegate any or all of its duties 10538
regarding fleet management to a state agency, if the state agency 10539
demonstrates to the satisfaction of the department both of the 10540
following:10541

       (a) Capabilities to institute and manage a fleet management 10542
program, including, but not limited to, the presence of a 10543
certified fleet manager;10544

       (b) Fleet management performance, as demonstrated by fleet 10545
data and other information submitted pursuant to annual reporting 10546
requirements and any other criteria the department considers 10547
necessary in evaluating the performance.10548

       (2) The department may determine that a state agency is not 10549
in compliance with this section and direct that the agency's fleet 10550
management duties be transferred to the department.10551

       (H) The proceeds derived from the disposition of any motor 10552
vehicles under this section shall be paid to whichever of the 10553
following applies:10554

       (1) The fund that originally provided moneys for the purchase 10555
or lease of the motor vehicles;10556

       (2) If the motor vehicles were originally purchased with 10557
moneys derived from the general revenue fund, the proceeds shall 10558
be deposited, in the director's discretion, into the state 10559
treasury to the credit of either the fleet management fund created 10560
by section 125.83 of the Revised Code or the investment recovery 10561
fund created by section 125.14 of the Revised Code.10562

       (I)(1) The department shall create and maintain a certified 10563
fleet manager program.10564

       (2) State agencies that have received delegated authority as 10565
described in division (G) of this section shall have a certified 10566
fleet manager.10567

       (J) The department annually shall prepare and submit a 10568
statewide fleet report to the governor, the speaker of the house 10569
of representatives, and the president of the senate. The report 10570
shall be submitted not later than the thirty-first day of January 10571
following the end of each fiscal year. It may include, but is not 10572
limited to, the numbers and types of motor vehicles, their 10573
mileage, miles per gallon, and cost per mile, mileage 10574
reimbursements, accident and insurance data, and information 10575
regarding compliance by state agencies having delegated authority 10576
under division (G) of this section with applicable fleet 10577
management requirements.10578

       (K) The director shall adopt rules for implementing the fleet 10579
management program that are consistent with recognized best 10580
practices. The program shall be supported by reasonable fee 10581
charges for the services provided. The director shall collect 10582
these fees and deposit them into the state treasury to the credit 10583
for the fleet management fund created by section 125.83 of the 10584
Revised Code. The setting and collection of fees under this 10585
division is not subject to any restriction imposed by law upon the 10586
director's or the department's authority to set or collect fees.10587

       (L) The director also shall adopt rules that prohibit, except 10588
in very limited circumstances, the exclusive assignment of 10589
state-owned, leased, or pooled motor vehicles to state employees 10590
and that prohibit the reimbursement under section 126.31 of the 10591
Revised Code of state employees who use their own motor vehicles 10592
for any mileage they incur above an amount that the department 10593
shall determine annually unless reimbursement for the excess 10594
mileage is approved by the department in accordance with standards 10595
for that approval the director shall establish in those rules. 10596
Beginning on September 26, 2003, no state-owned, leased, or pooled 10597
motor vehicle shall be personally assigned as any form of 10598
compensation or benefit of state employment, and no state-owned, 10599
leased, or pooled motor vehicle shall be assigned to an employee 10600
solely for commuting to and from home and work.10601

       (M) The director shall do both of the following:10602

       (1) Implement to the greatest extent possible the 10603
recommendations from the 2002 report entitled "Administrative 10604
Analysis of the Ohio Fleet Management Program" in connection with 10605
the authority granted to the department by this section;10606

       (2) Attempt to reduce the number of passenger vehicles used 10607
by state agencies during the fiscal years ending on June 30, 2004, 10608
and June 30, 2005.10609

       (N) Each state agency shall reimburse the department for all 10610
costs incurred in the assignment of motor vehicles to the state 10611
agency.10612

       (O) The director shall do all of the following in managing 10613
the fleet management program:10614

       (1) Determine how motor vehicles will be maintained, insured, 10615
operated, financed, and licensed;10616

       (2) Pursuant to the formula in division (O)(3) of this 10617
section, annually establish the minimum number of business miles 10618
per year an employee of a state agency must drive in order to 10619
qualify for approval by the department to receive a motor vehicle 10620
for business use;10621

       (3) Establish the minimum number of business miles per year 10622
at an amount that results when the annual motor vehicle cost is 10623
divided by the amount that is the reimbursement rate per mile 10624
minus the amount that is the sum of the fuel cost, the operating 10625
cost, and the insurance cost. As used in this division:10626

       (a) "Annual motor vehicle cost" means the price of a motor 10627
vehicle divided by the number of years an average motor vehicle is 10628
used.10629

       (b) "Fuel cost" means the average price per gallon of motor 10630
fuel divided by the miles per gallon fuel efficiency of a motor 10631
vehicle.10632

       (c) "Insurance cost" means the cost of insuring a motor 10633
vehicle per year divided by the number of miles an average motor 10634
vehicle is driven per year.10635

       (d) "Operating cost" means the maintenance cost of a motor 10636
vehicle per year divided by the product resulting when the number 10637
of miles an average motor vehicle is driven per year is multiplied 10638
by the number of years an average motor vehicle is used.10639

       (e) "Reimbursement rate per mile" means the reimbursement per 10640
mile rate for travel expenses as provided by rule of the director 10641
of budget and management adopted under division (B) of section 10642
126.31 of the Revised Code.10643

       (P)(1) Not later than the fifteenth day of September of each 10644
year, each state institution of higher education shall report to 10645
the department on all of the following topics relating to motor 10646
vehicles that the institution acquires and manages:10647

       (a) The methods it uses to track the motor vehicles;10648

       (b) Whether or not it uses a fuel card program to purchase 10649
fuel for, or to pay for the maintenance of, the motor vehicles;10650

       (c) Whether or not it makes bulk purchases of fuel for the 10651
motor vehicles.10652

       (2) Assuming it does not use the fleet management tracking, 10653
fuel card program, and bulk fuel purchases tools and services that 10654
the department provides, the report of a state institution of 10655
higher education required by division (P)(1) of this section also 10656
shall include both of the following:10657

       (a) An analysis of the amount the institution would save, if 10658
any, if it were to use the fleet management tracking, fuel card 10659
program, and bulk fuel purchases tools and services that the 10660
department provides instead of the fleet management system the 10661
institution regularly uses;10662

       (b) A rationale for either continuing with the fleet 10663
management system that the institution regularly uses or changing 10664
to the use of those tools and services that the department 10665
provides.10666

       (3) The department shall certify within ninety days after 10667
receipt of all reports under division (P)(1) of this section a 10668
list of those state institutions of higher education that the 10669
department determines would save amounts if they were to use the 10670
fleet management tracking, fuel card program, and bulk fuel 10671
purchases tools and services that the department provides. The 10672
institutions so certified then shall use those tools and services 10673
that the department provides until the department next certifies 10674
institutions under division (P)(3) of this section.10675

       Sec. 125.833. (A) There is hereby established in the 10676
department of administrative services the vehicle management 10677
commission.10678

       (B) The commission shall consist of seven members. One member 10679
shall be an officer or employee of the department of 10680
administrative services who is appointed by the director of 10681
administrative services. One member shall be an officer or 10682
employee of the department of public safety who is appointed by 10683
the director of public safety. The other members shall be two 10684
members of the house of representatives appointed by the speaker 10685
of the house of representatives, two members of the senate 10686
appointed by the president of the senate, and one person with 10687
experience in the vehicle leasing, purchasing, and maintenance 10688
industry in this state appointed by the governor and serving at 10689
the governor's pleasure. The governor shall appoint the 10690
commission's chairperson. 10691

       Initial appointments of the members to the commission shall 10692
be made by October 1, 2013, in the manner prescribed in this 10693
section. The initial meeting of the commission shall be held on 10694
that date and twice annually thereafter each year. After the 10695
initial appointments, appointments of legislative members to the 10696
commission shall be made within fifteen days after the 10697
commencement of the first regular session of the general assembly 10698
in the manner prescribed in this section. The terms of legislative 10699
members on the commission shall be for the duration of the session 10700
of the general assembly in which they are appointed. Members shall 10701
continue to serve on the commission until the appointments are 10702
made in the following session of the general assembly, unless they 10703
cease to be members of the general assembly. A vacancy on the 10704
commission shall be filled for the unexpired term in the same 10705
manner as the original appointment. 10706

       (C) The commission shall periodically review the 10707
implementation of the fleet management program by the department 10708
of administrative services under section 125.832 of the Revised 10709
Code and may recommend to the department and the general assembly 10710
modifications to the department's procedures and functions and 10711
other statutory changes.10712

       Sec. 125.836.  (A) As used in this section:10713

       (1) "Biodiesel," "blended biodiesel," and "diesel fuel" have 10714
the same meanings as in section 125.831 of the Revised Code.10715

       (2) "Credit" means a credit generated by the acquisition of 10716
alternative fueled vehicles in accordance with the "Energy Policy 10717
Act of 1992," 106 Stat. 2897, 42 U.S.C. 13257.10718

       (3) "Incremental cost" means the difference in cost between 10719
blended biodiesel and conventional petroleum-based diesel fuel at 10720
the time the blended biodiesel is purchased.10721

       (B) The department of administrative services shall establish 10722
and administer a credit banking and selling program. The 10723
department may sell or trade credits in accordance with procedures 10724
established pursuant to the "Energy Policy Act of 1992," 106 Stat. 10725
2897, 42 U.S.C. 13258.10726

       (C) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 10727
"biodiesel revolving fund," to which shall be credited moneys 10728
received from the sale of credits under this section, any moneys 10729
appropriated to the fund by the general assembly, and any other 10730
moneys obtained or accepted by the departmentdevelopment services 10731
agency for crediting to the fund. Moneys credited to the fund 10732
shall be used to pay for the incremental cost of biodiesel for use 10733
in vehicles owned or leased by the state that use diesel fuel. The 10734
director of administrative services, after consultation with the 10735
director of development,services may direct the director of 10736
budget and management to transfer available moneys in the 10737
biodiesel revolving fund to the alternative fuel transportation 10738
fund created in section 122.075 of the Revised Code to be used by 10739
the department of development services agency for the purposes 10740
specified in that section.10741

        (D) The director of administrative services shall adopt rules 10742
under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that are necessary for the 10743
administration of the credit banking and selling program. 10744

       Sec. 126.07.  Except as provided in division (B) of section 10745
126.21 of the Revised Code, no contract, agreement, or obligation 10746
involving the expenditure of money chargeable to an appropriation, 10747
nor any resolution or order for the expenditure of money 10748
chargeable to an appropriation, shall be valid and enforceable 10749
unless the director of budget and management first certifies that 10750
there is a balance in the appropriation not already obligated to 10751
pay existing obligations, in an amount at least equal to the 10752
portion of the contract, agreement, obligation, resolution, or 10753
order to be performed in the current fiscal year. Any written 10754
contract or agreement entered into by the state shall contain a 10755
clause stating that the obligations of the state are subject to 10756
this section.10757

       The chief administrative officer of a state agency is 10758
responsible for the preaudit and approval of expenditures and 10759
other transactions of the agency. In order to initiate the making 10760
of a payment from the state treasury, the person in a state agency 10761
who requests that the payment be made shall first submit to the 10762
chief administrative officer of the agency all invoices, claims, 10763
vouchers, and other documentation related to the payment. The 10764
chief administrative officer shall examine each voucher and all 10765
other documentation required to support the voucher and determine 10766
whether they meet all the requirements established by the director 10767
of budget and management for making the payment. If they do meet 10768
those requirements, the chief administrative officer shall certify 10769
to the director the approval of the chief administrative officer 10770
for payment.10771

        Prior to drawing a warrant or processing an electronic funds 10772
transfer as provided in section 126.35 of the Revised Code, the 10773
director may review and audit the voucher, any documentation 10774
accompanying the voucher, and any other documentation related to 10775
the transaction that the director may require to determine if the 10776
transaction is in accordance with law. The director shall not 10777
approve payment to be made if the director finds that there is not 10778
an unobligated balance in the appropriation for the payment, that 10779
the payment is not for a valid claim against the state that is 10780
legally due, or that insufficient documentation has been 10781
submitted. If the director does not approve payment, the director 10782
shall notify the agency of the reasons the director has not given 10783
approval.10784

       In approving payments to be made under this section, the 10785
director, upon receipt of certification from the director of job 10786
and family services pursuant to section 4141.231 of the Revised 10787
Code, shall withhold from amounts otherwise payable to a person 10788
who is the subject of the director of jobs and family services' 10789
certification, the amount certified to be due and unpaid to the 10790
director of job and family services, and shall approve for payment 10791
to the director of job and family services, the amount withheld.10792

       As used in this section and in section 126.21 of the Revised 10793
Code, "chief administrative officer" means either of the 10794
following:10795

       (A) The director of the agency or, in the case of a state 10796
agency without a director, the equivalent officer of that agency;10797

       (B) The designee of the chief administrative officer for the 10798
purposes of such sections.10799

       Sec. 126.14.  The release of any money appropriated for the 10800
purchase of real estate shall be approved by the controlling 10801
board. The release of money appropriated for all other capital 10802
projects is also subject to the approval of the controlling board, 10803
except that the director of budget and management may approve the 10804
release of money appropriated for specific projects in accordance 10805
with the requirements of this section and except that the director 10806
of budget and management may approve the release of unencumbered 10807
capital balances, for a project to repair, remove, or prevent a 10808
public exigency declared to exist by the executive director of 10809
administrative servicesthe Ohio facilities construction 10810
commission under section 123.10 of the Revised Code, or by the 10811
executive director of the Ohio facilities construction commission 10812
under section 123.23 of the Revised Code, in the amount designated 10813
in that declaration.10814

       Within sixty days after the effective date of any act 10815
appropriating money for capital projects, the director shall 10816
determine which appropriations are for general projects and which 10817
are for specific projects. Specific projects may include specific 10818
higher education projects that are to be funded from general 10819
purpose appropriations from the higher education improvement fund 10820
or the higher education improvement taxable fund created in 10821
section 154.21 of the Revised Code. Upon determining which 10822
projects are general and which are specific, the director shall 10823
submit to the controlling board a list that includes a brief 10824
description of and the estimated expenditures for each specific 10825
project. The release of money for any specific higher education 10826
projects that are to be funded from general purpose appropriations 10827
from the higher education improvement fund or the higher education 10828
improvement taxable fund but that are not included on the list, 10829
and the release of money for any specific higher education 10830
projects included on the list that will exceed the estimated 10831
expenditures by more than ten per cent, are subject to the 10832
approval of the controlling board. 10833

       The director may create new appropriation items and make 10834
transfers of appropriations to them for specific higher education 10835
projects included on the list that are to be funded from general 10836
purpose appropriations for basic renovations that are made from 10837
the higher education improvement fund or the higher education 10838
improvement taxable fund.10839

       Sec. 126.211.  The director of budget and management shall 10840
not release funds to a veterans organization until the director 10841
has been advised by the director of veterans services under 10842
division (Y) of section 5902.02 of the Revised Code that the 10843
organization has submitted a satisfactory report as required by 10844
division (W) of that section.10845

       Sec. 126.32.  (A) Any officer of any state agency may 10846
authorize reimbursement for travel, including the costs of 10847
transportation, for lodging, and for meals to any person who is 10848
interviewing for a position that is classified in pay range 13 or 10849
above in schedule E-1 or schedule E-1 for step seven only, or is 10850
classified in schedule E-2, of section 124.152 of the Revised 10851
Code.10852

       (B) If a person is appointed to a position listed in section 10853
121.03 of the Revised Code, to the position of chairperson of the 10854
industrial commission, adjutant general, chancellor of the Ohio 10855
board of regents, superintendent of public instruction, 10856
chairperson of the public utilities commission of Ohio, or 10857
director of the state lottery commission, to a position holding a 10858
fiduciary relationship to the governor, to a position of an 10859
appointing authority of the department of mental healthmental 10860
health and addiction services, developmental disabilities, or 10861
rehabilitation and correction, to a position of superintendent in 10862
the department of youth services, or to a position under section 10863
122.05 of the Revised Code, and if that appointment requires a 10864
permanent change of residence, the appropriate state agency may 10865
reimburse the person for the person's actual and necessary 10866
expenses, including the cost of in-transit storage of household 10867
goods and personal effects, of moving the person and members of 10868
the person's immediate family residing in the person's household, 10869
and of moving their household goods and personal effects, to the 10870
person's new location.10871

       Until that person moves the person's permanent residence to 10872
the new location, but not for a period that exceeds thirty 10873
consecutive days, the state agency may reimburse the person for 10874
the person's temporary living expenses at the new location that 10875
the person has incurred on behalf of the person and members of the 10876
person's immediate family residing in the person's household. In 10877
addition, the state agency may reimburse that person for the 10878
person's travel expenses between the new location and the person's 10879
former residence during this period for a maximum number of trips 10880
specified by rule of the director of budget and management, but 10881
the state agency shall not reimburse the person for travel 10882
expenses incurred for those trips by members of the person's 10883
immediate family. With the prior written approval of the director, 10884
the maximum thirty-day period for temporary living expenses may be 10885
extended for a person appointed to a position under section 122.05 10886
of the Revised Code.10887

       The director of development services may reimburse a person 10888
appointed to a position under section 122.05 of the Revised Code 10889
for the person's actual and necessary expenses of moving the 10890
person and members of the person's immediate family residing in 10891
the person's household back to the United States and may reimburse 10892
a person appointed to such a position for the cost of storage of 10893
household goods and personal effects of the person and the 10894
person's immediate family while the person is serving outside the 10895
United States, if the person's office outside the United States is 10896
the person's primary job location.10897

       (C) All reimbursement under division (A) or (B) of this 10898
section shall be made in the manner, and at rates that do not 10899
exceed those, provided by rule of the director of budget and 10900
management in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code. 10901
Reimbursements may be made under division (B) of this section 10902
directly to the persons who incurred the expenses or directly to 10903
the providers of goods or services the persons receive, as 10904
determined by the director of budget and management.10905

       Sec. 126.35.  (A) The director of budget and management shall 10906
draw warrants or process electronic funds transfers against the 10907
treasurer of state pursuant to all requests for payment that the 10908
director has approved under section 126.07 of the Revised Code.10909

       (B) Unless a cash assistance payment is to be made by 10910
electronic benefit transfer, payment by the director of budget and 10911
management to a participant in the Ohio works first program 10912
pursuant to Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code, a recipient of 10913
disability financial assistance pursuant to Chapter 5115. of the 10914
Revised Code, or a recipient of cash assistance provided under the 10915
refugee assistance program established under section 5101.49 of 10916
the Revised Code shall be made by direct deposit to the account of 10917
the participant or recipient in the financial institution 10918
designated under section 329.03 of the Revised Code. Payment by 10919
the director of budget and management to a recipient of benefits 10920
distributed through the medium of electronic benefit transfer 10921
pursuant to section 5101.33 of the Revised Code shall be by 10922
electronic benefit transfer. Payment by the director of budget and 10923
management as compensation to an employee of the state who has, 10924
pursuant to section 124.151 of the Revised Code, designated a 10925
financial institution and account for the direct deposit of such 10926
payments shall be made by direct deposit to the account of the 10927
employee. Payment to any other payee who has designated a 10928
financial institution and account for the direct deposit of such 10929
payment may be made by direct deposit to the account of the payee 10930
in the financial institution as provided in section 9.37 of the 10931
Revised Code. Accounts maintained by the director of budget and 10932
management or the director's agent in a financial institution for 10933
the purpose of effectuating payment by direct deposit or 10934
electronic benefit transfer shall be maintained in accordance with 10935
section 135.18 of the Revised Code.10936

       (C) All other payments from the state treasury shall be made 10937
by paper warrants, electronic funds transfers, or by direct 10938
deposit payable to the respective payees. The director of budget 10939
and management may mail the paper warrants to the respective 10940
payees or distribute them through other state agencies, whichever 10941
the director determines to be the better procedure.10942

       (D) If the average per transaction cost the director of 10943
budget and management incurs in making direct deposits for a state 10944
agency exceeds the average per transaction cost the director 10945
incurs in drawing paper warrants for all public offices during the 10946
same period of time, the director may certify the difference in 10947
cost and the number of direct deposits for the agency to the 10948
director of administrative services. The director of 10949
administrative services shall reimburse the director of budget and 10950
management for such additional costs and add the amount to the 10951
processing charge assessed upon the state agency.10952

       Sec. 126.45.  (A) As used in sections 126.45 to 126.48 of the 10953
Revised Code, "state agency" means the administrative departments 10954
listed in section 121.02 of the Revised Code, the department of 10955
taxation, the bureau of workers' compensation, and the Ohio board 10956
of regents, the opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities 10957
agency, the public utilities commission of Ohio, the adjutant 10958
general, and the state lottery commission.10959

       (B) The office of internal auditingaudit is hereby created 10960
in the office of budget and management to conductdirect internal 10961
audits of state agencies or divisions of state agencies to improve 10962
their operations in the areas of risk management, internal 10963
controls, and governance. The director of budget and management, 10964
with the approval of the governor, shall appoint for the office of 10965
internal auditingaudit a chief internal auditor who meets the 10966
qualifications specified in division (C)(E) of this section. The 10967
chief internal auditor shall serve at the director's pleasure and 10968
be responsible for the administration of the office of internal 10969
auditingaudit consistent with sections 126.45 to 126.48 of the 10970
Revised Code.10971

       (C) The office of internal auditingaudit shall conduct 10972
programs for the internal auditing of state agencies. The programs 10973
shall include an annual internal audit plan, reviewed by the state 10974
audit committee, that utilizes risk assessment techniques and 10975
identifies the specific audits to be conducteddirected during the 10976
year. The programs also shall include periodic audits of each 10977
state agency's major systems and controls, including those systems 10978
and controls pertaining to accounting, administration, and 10979
electronic data processinginformation technology. Upon the 10980
request of the office of internal auditingaudit, each state 10981
agency shall provide office employees access to all records and 10982
documents necessary for the performance of an internal audit.10983

       The director of budget and management shall assess a charge 10984
against each state agency for which the office of internal 10985
auditingaudit conducts internal auditing programs under sections 10986
126.45 to 126.48 of the Revised Code so that the total amount of 10987
these charges is sufficient to cover the costs of the operation of 10988
the office of internal auditingaudit.10989

       (D) At the request of any other organized body, office, or 10990
agency established by the laws of the state for the exercise of 10991
any function of state government that is not described in division 10992
(A) of this section, the office of internal audit may direct an 10993
internal audit of all or part of that body, office, or agency. The 10994
office of internal audit shall charge an amount sufficient to 10995
cover the costs it incurs in relation to the requested audit.10996

       (C)(E) The chief internal auditor of the office of internal 10997
auditingaudit shall hold at least a bachelor's degree and be one 10998
of the following:10999

       (1) A certified internal auditor, a certified government 11000
auditing professional, or a certified public accountant, who also 11001
has held a PA registration or a CPA certificate authorized by 11002
Chapter 4701. of the Revised Code for at least four years and has 11003
at least six years of auditing experience; 11004

       (2) An auditor who has held a PA registration or a CPA 11005
certificate authorized by Chapter 4701. of the Revised Code for at 11006
least four years and has at least ten years of auditing 11007
experience.11008

       (D)(F) The chief internal auditor, subject to the direction 11009
and control of the director of budget and management, may appoint 11010
and maintain any staff necessary to carry out the duties assigned 11011
by sections 126.45 to 126.48 of the Revised Code to the office of 11012
internal auditingaudit or to the chief internal auditor.11013

       Sec. 126.46.  (A)(1) There is hereby created the state audit 11014
committee, consisting of the following five members: one public 11015
member appointed by the governor; two public members appointed by 11016
the speaker of the house of representatives, one of which may be a 11017
person who is recommended by the minority leader of the house of 11018
representatives; and two public members appointed by the president 11019
of the senate, one of which may be a person who is recommended by 11020
the minority leader of the senate. Not more than two of the four 11021
members appointed by the speaker of the house of representatives 11022
and the president of the senate shall belong to or be affiliated 11023
with the same political party. The member appointed by the 11024
governor shall have the program and management expertise required 11025
to perform the duties of the committee's chairperson.11026

       Each member of the committee shall be external to the 11027
management structure of state government and shall serve a 11028
three-year term. Each term shall commence on the first day of July 11029
and end on the thirtieth day of June. Any member may continue in 11030
office subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term 11031
until the member's successor takes office or until a period of 11032
ninety days has elapsed, whichever occurs first. Members may be 11033
reappointed to serve one additional term.11034

       On the effective date of the amendment of this section by 11035
H.B. 153 of the 129th general assemblySeptember 29, 2011, the 11036
terms of the members shall be altered as follows: 11037

       (a) The terms of the members appointed by the president shall 11038
expire on June 30, 2012.11039

        (b) The term of the member appointed by the speaker scheduled 11040
to expire on November 17, 2012, shall expire on June 30, 2013.11041

        (c) The term of the other member appointed by the speaker 11042
shall expire on June 30, 2014.11043

        (d) The term of the member appointed by the governor shall 11044
expire on June 30, 2014.11045

       The committee shall include at least one member who is a 11046
financial expert; at least one member who is an active, inactive, 11047
or retired certified public accountant; at least one member who is 11048
familiar with governmental financial accounting; at least one 11049
member who is familiar with information technology systems and 11050
services; and at least one member who is a representative of the 11051
public.11052

       Any vacancy on the committee shall be filled in the same 11053
manner as provided in this division, and, when applicable, the 11054
person appointed to fill a vacancy shall serve the remainder of 11055
the predecessor's term.11056

       (2) Members of the committee shall receive reimbursement for 11057
actual and necessary expenses incurred in the discharge of their 11058
duties.11059

       (3) The member of the committee appointed by the governor 11060
shall serve as the committee's chairperson.11061

       (4) Members of the committee shall be subject to the 11062
disclosure statement requirements of section 102.02 of the Revised 11063
Code.11064

       (B) The state audit committee shall do all of the following:11065

       (1) Ensure thatEvaluate whether the internal audits 11066
conducteddirected by the office of internal auditingaudit in the 11067
office of budget and management conform to the institute of 11068
internal auditors' international standards for the professional 11069
practice ofpractices framework for internal auditing and to the 11070
institute of internal auditors' code of ethics;11071

       (2) Review and comment on the process used by the office of 11072
budget and management to prepare its annual budgetary financial 11073
report and the state's comprehensive annual financial report 11074
required under division (A)(9) of section 126.21 of the Revised 11075
Code; 11076

       (3) Review and comment on unaudited financial statements 11077
submitted to the auditor of state and communicate with external 11078
auditors as required by government auditing standards;11079

       (4) Perform the additional functions imposed upon it by 11080
section 126.47 of the Revised Code.11081

       (C) As used in this section, "financial expert" means a 11082
person who has all of the following:11083

        (1) An understanding of generally accepted accounting 11084
principles and financial statements;11085

        (2) The ability to assess the general application of those 11086
principles in connection with accounting for estimates, accruals, 11087
and reserves;11088

        (3) Experience preparing, auditing, analyzing, or evaluating 11089
financial statements presenting accounting issues that generally 11090
are of comparable breadth and level of complexity to those likely 11091
to be presented by a state agency's financial statements, or 11092
experience actively supervising one or more persons engaged in 11093
those activities;11094

        (4) An understanding of internal controls and procedures for 11095
financial reporting; and11096

        (5) An understanding of audit committee functions.11097

       Sec. 126.47.  (A) The state audit committee created by 11098
section 126.46 of the Revised Code shall ensure that the office of 11099
internal auditingaudit in the office of budget and management has 11100
an annual internal audit plan that identifies the internal audits 11101
of state agencies or divisions of state agencies scheduled for the 11102
next fiscal year. The chief internal auditor of the office of 11103
internal auditingaudit shall submit the plan to the state audit 11104
committee for review and comment before the beginning of each 11105
fiscal year. The chief internal auditor may submit a revised 11106
internal audit plan for review and comment at any time the 11107
director of budget and management believes there is reason to 11108
modify the previously submitted plan for a fiscal year.11109

       (B) To determine the state agencies or divisions of state 11110
agencies that are to be internally audited, the office of internal 11111
auditingaudit, in the formulation of an annual or revised 11112
internal audit plan, and the state audit committee, in reviewing a 11113
submitted annual or revised internal audit plan, shall consider 11114
the following factors:11115

       (1) The risk for fraud, waste, or abuse of public money 11116
within an agency or division;11117

       (2) The length of time since an agency or division was last 11118
subject to an internal audit;11119

       (3) The size of an agency or division, and the amount of time 11120
and resources necessary to audit it;11121

       (4) Any other factor the state audit committee determines to 11122
be relevant.11123

       (C) All internal audits shall be conducted onlydirected by 11124
employees of the office of internal auditingaudit.11125

       (D) After the conclusion of an internal audit, the chief 11126
internal auditor shall submit a preliminary report of the internal 11127
audit's findings and recommendations to the state audit committee 11128
and to the director of the state agency involved. The state agency 11129
or division of the state agency covered by the preliminary report 11130
shall be provided an opportunity to respond within thirty days 11131
after receipt of the preliminary report. The response shall 11132
include a corrective action plan for any recommendations in the 11133
preliminary report that are not disputed by the agency or 11134
division. Any response received by the office of internal auditing11135
audit within that thirty-day period shall be included in the 11136
office's final report of the internal audit's findings and 11137
recommendations. The final report shall be issued by the office of 11138
internal auditingaudit within thirty days after the termination 11139
of the thirty-day response period. Copies of the final report 11140
shall be submitted to the state audit committee, the governor, and 11141
the director of the state agency involved. The state audit 11142
committee shall determine an appropriate method for making the 11143
preliminary and final reports available for public inspection in a 11144
timely manner.11145

       Any suspected fraud or other illegal activity discovered by 11146
the office of internal auditingaudit during the conduct of an 11147
internal audit shall be reported immediately to the state audit 11148
committee, the director of the state agency in which the fraud or 11149
illegal activity is suspected to have occurred, and the auditor of 11150
state.11151

       (E) The chief internal auditor shall prepare an annual report 11152
and submit the report to the governor, the president of the 11153
senate, the speaker of the house of representatives, and the 11154
auditor of state. The office of budget and management shall make 11155
the report available to the public by posting it on the office's 11156
web site before the first of JulyAugust of each year.11157

       Sec. 126.48. Any(A) Except as provided in division (B) of 11158
this section, any preliminary or final report of an internal 11159
audit's findings and recommendations which is produced by the 11160
office of internal auditingaudit in the office of budget and 11161
management and all work papers of the internal audit are 11162
confidential and are not public records under section 149.43 of 11163
the Revised Code until the final report of an internal audit's 11164
findings and recommendations is submitted to the state audit 11165
committee, the governor, and the director of the state agency 11166
involved.11167

       (B) The following are not public records under section 149.43 11168
of the Revised Code:11169

        (1) An internal audit report that meets the definition of a 11170
security record under section 149.433 of the Revised Code;11171

        (2) Any information derived from a state tax return or state 11172
tax return information as permitted to be used by the office of 11173
internal audit under section 5703.21 of the Revised Code. 11174

       Sec. 127.14.  The controlling board may, at the request of 11175
any state agency or the director of budget and management, 11176
authorize, with respect to the provisions of any appropriation 11177
act:11178

       (A) Transfers of all or part of an appropriation within but 11179
not between state agencies, except such transfers as the director 11180
of budget and management is authorized by law to make, provided 11181
that no transfer shall be made by the director for the purpose of 11182
effecting new or changed levels of program service not authorized 11183
by the general assembly;11184

       (B) Transfers of all or part of an appropriation from one 11185
fiscal year to another;11186

       (C) Transfers of all or part of an appropriation within or 11187
between state agencies made necessary by administrative 11188
reorganization or by the abolition of an agency or part of an 11189
agency;11190

       (D) Transfers of all or part of cash balances in excess of 11191
needs from any fund of the state to the general revenue fund or to 11192
such other fund of the state to which the money would have been 11193
credited in the absence of the fund from which the transfers are 11194
authorized to be made, except that the controlling board may not 11195
authorize such transfers from the accrued leave liability fund, 11196
auto registration distribution fund, local motor vehicle license 11197
tax fund, budget stabilization fund, building improvement fund,11198
development bond retirement fund, facilities establishment fund, 11199
gasoline excise tax fund, general revenue fund, higher education 11200
improvement fund, highway improvement bond retirement fund, 11201
highway obligations bond retirement fund, highway capital 11202
improvement fund, highway operating fund, horse racing tax fund, 11203
improvements bond retirement fund, public library fund, liquor 11204
control fund, local government fund, local transportation 11205
improvement program fund, mental health facilities improvement 11206
fund, Ohio fairs fund, parks and recreation improvement fund, 11207
public improvements bond retirement fund, school district income 11208
tax fund, state agency facilities improvement fund, state and 11209
local government highway distribution fund, state highway safety 11210
fund, state lottery fund, undivided liquor permit fund, Vietnam 11211
conflict compensation bond retirement fund, volunteer fire 11212
fighters' dependents fund, waterways safety fund, wildlife fund, 11213
workers' compensation fund, or any fund not specified in this 11214
division that the director of budget and management determines to 11215
be a bond fund or bond retirement fund;11216

       (E) Transfers of all or part of those appropriations included 11217
in the emergency purposes account of the controlling board;11218

       (F) Temporary transfers of all or part of an appropriation or 11219
other moneys into and between existing funds, or new funds, as may 11220
be established by law when needed for capital outlays for which 11221
notes or bonds will be issued;11222

       (G) Transfer or release of all or part of an appropriation to 11223
a state agency requiring controlling board approval of such 11224
transfer or release as provided by law;11225

       (H) Temporary transfer of funds included in the emergency 11226
purposes appropriation of the controlling board. Such temporary 11227
transfers may be made subject to conditions specified by the 11228
controlling board at the time temporary transfers are authorized. 11229
No transfers shall be made under this division for the purpose of 11230
effecting new or changed levels of program service not authorized 11231
by the general assembly.11232

       As used in this section, "request" means an application by a 11233
state agency or the director of budget and management seeking some 11234
action by the controlling board.11235

       When authorizing the transfer of all or part of an 11236
appropriation under this section, the controlling board may 11237
authorize the transfer to an existing appropriation item and the 11238
creation of and transfer to a new appropriation item.11239

       Whenever there is a transfer of all or part of funds included 11240
in the emergency purposes appropriation by the controlling board, 11241
pursuant to division (E) of this section, the state agency or the 11242
director of budget and management receiving such transfer shall 11243
keep a detailed record of the use of the transferred funds. At the 11244
earliest scheduled meeting of the controlling board following the 11245
accomplishment of the purposes specified in the request originally 11246
seeking the transfer, or following the total expenditure of the 11247
transferred funds for the specified purposes, the state agency or 11248
the director of budget and management shall submit a report on the 11249
expenditure of such funds to the board. The portion of any 11250
appropriation so transferred which is not required to accomplish 11251
the purposes designated in the original request to the controlling 11252
board shall be returned to the proper appropriation of the 11253
controlling board at this time.11254

       Notwithstanding any provisions of law providing for the 11255
deposit of revenues received by a state agency to the credit of a 11256
particular fund in the state treasury, whenever there is a 11257
temporary transfer of funds included in the emergency purposes 11258
appropriation of the controlling board pursuant to division (H) of 11259
this section, revenues received by any state agency receiving such 11260
a temporary transfer of funds shall, as directed by the 11261
controlling board, be transferred back to the emergency purposes 11262
appropriation.11263

       The board may delegate to the director of budget and 11264
management authority to approve transfers among items of 11265
appropriation under division (A) of this section.11266

       Sec. 127.16.  (A) Upon the request of either a state agency 11267
or the director of budget and management and after the controlling 11268
board determines that an emergency or a sufficient economic reason 11269
exists, the controlling board may approve the making of a purchase 11270
without competitive selection as provided in division (B) of this 11271
section.11272

       (B) Except as otherwise provided in this section, no state 11273
agency, using money that has been appropriated to it directly, 11274
shall:11275

       (1) Make any purchase from a particular supplier, that would 11276
amount to fifty thousand dollars or more when combined with both 11277
the amount of all disbursements to the supplier during the fiscal 11278
year for purchases made by the agency and the amount of all 11279
outstanding encumbrances for purchases made by the agency from the 11280
supplier, unless the purchase is made by competitive selection or 11281
with the approval of the controlling board;11282

       (2) Lease real estate from a particular supplier, if the 11283
lease would amount to seventy-five thousand dollars or more when 11284
combined with both the amount of all disbursements to the supplier 11285
during the fiscal year for real estate leases made by the agency 11286
and the amount of all outstanding encumbrances for real estate 11287
leases made by the agency from the supplier, unless the lease is 11288
made by competitive selection or with the approval of the 11289
controlling board.11290

       (C) Any person who authorizes a purchase in violation of 11291
division (B) of this section shall be liable to the state for any 11292
state funds spent on the purchase, and the attorney general shall 11293
collect the amount from the person.11294

       (D) Nothing in division (B) of this section shall be 11295
construed as:11296

       (1) A limitation upon the authority of the director of 11297
transportation as granted in sections 5501.17, 5517.02, and 11298
5525.14 of the Revised Code;11299

       (2) Applying to medicaid provider agreements under Chapter 11300
5111. of the Revised Codemedicaid program;11301

       (3) Applying to the purchase of examinations from a sole 11302
supplier by a state licensing board under Title XLVII of the 11303
Revised Code;11304

       (4) Applying to entertainment contracts for the Ohio state 11305
fair entered into by the Ohio expositions commission, provided 11306
that the controlling board has given its approval to the 11307
commission to enter into such contracts and has approved a total 11308
budget amount for such contracts as agreed upon by commission 11309
action, and that the commission causes to be kept itemized records 11310
of the amounts of money spent under each contract and annually 11311
files those records with the clerk of the house of representatives 11312
and the clerk of the senate following the close of the fair;11313

       (5) Limiting the authority of the chief of the division of 11314
mineral resources management to contract for reclamation work with 11315
an operator mining adjacent land as provided in section 1513.27 of 11316
the Revised Code;11317

       (6) Applying to investment transactions and procedures of any 11318
state agency, except that the agency shall file with the board the 11319
name of any person with whom the agency contracts to make, broker, 11320
service, or otherwise manage its investments, as well as the 11321
commission, rate, or schedule of charges of such person with 11322
respect to any investment transactions to be undertaken on behalf 11323
of the agency. The filing shall be in a form and at such times as 11324
the board considers appropriate.11325

       (7) Applying to purchases made with money for the per cent 11326
for arts program established by section 3379.10 of the Revised 11327
Code;11328

       (8) Applying to purchases made by the rehabilitation services 11329
commissionopportunities for Ohioans with disabilities agency of 11330
services, or supplies, that are provided to persons with 11331
disabilities, or to purchases made by the commissionagency in 11332
connection with the eligibility determinations it makes for 11333
applicants of programs administered by the social security 11334
administration;11335

       (9) Applying to payments by the department of job and family 11336
servicesmedicaid under section 5111.135164.85 of the Revised 11337
Code for group health plan premiums, deductibles, coinsurance, and 11338
other cost-sharing expenses;11339

       (10) Applying to any agency of the legislative branch of the 11340
state government;11341

       (11) Applying to agreements or contracts entered into under 11342
section 5101.11, 5101.20, 5101.201, 5101.21, or 5101.214 of the 11343
Revised Code;11344

       (12) Applying to purchases of services by the adult parole 11345
authority under section 2967.14 of the Revised Code or by the 11346
department of youth services under section 5139.08 of the Revised 11347
Code;11348

       (13) Applying to dues or fees paid for membership in an 11349
organization or association;11350

       (14) Applying to purchases of utility services pursuant to 11351
section 9.30 of the Revised Code;11352

       (15) Applying to purchases made in accordance with rules 11353
adopted by the department of administrative services of motor 11354
vehicle, aviation, or watercraft fuel, or emergency repairs of 11355
such vehicles;11356

       (16) Applying to purchases of tickets for passenger air 11357
transportation;11358

       (17) Applying to purchases necessary to provide public 11359
notifications required by law or to provide notifications of job 11360
openings;11361

       (18) Applying to the judicial branch of state government;11362

       (19) Applying to purchases of liquor for resale by the 11363
division of liquor control;11364

       (20) Applying to purchases of motor courier and freight 11365
services made in accordance with department of administrative 11366
services rules;11367

       (21) Applying to purchases from the United States postal 11368
service and purchases of stamps and postal meter replenishment 11369
from vendors at rates established by the United States postal 11370
service;11371

       (22) Applying to purchases of books, periodicals, pamphlets, 11372
newspapers, maintenance subscriptions, and other published 11373
materials;11374

       (23) Applying to purchases from other state agencies, 11375
including state-assisted institutions of higher education or the 11376
Ohio historical society;11377

       (24) Limiting the authority of the director of environmental 11378
protection to enter into contracts under division (D) of section 11379
3745.14 of the Revised Code to conduct compliance reviews, as 11380
defined in division (A) of that section;11381

       (25) Applying to purchases from a qualified nonprofit agency 11382
pursuant to sections 125.60 to 125.6012 or 4115.31 to 4115.35 of 11383
the Revised Code;11384

       (26) Applying to payments by the department of job and family 11385
services to the United States department of health and human 11386
services for printing and mailing notices pertaining to the tax 11387
refund offset program of the internal revenue service of the 11388
United States department of the treasury;11389

       (27) Applying to contracts entered into by the department of 11390
developmental disabilities under section 5123.18 of the Revised 11391
Code;11392

       (28) Applying to payments made by the department of mental 11393
healthmental health and addiction services under a physician 11394
recruitment program authorized by section 5119.1015119.185 of 11395
the Revised Code;11396

       (29) Applying to contracts entered into with persons by the 11397
director of commerce for unclaimed funds collection and remittance 11398
efforts as provided in division (F) of section 169.03 of the 11399
Revised Code. The director shall keep an itemized accounting of 11400
unclaimed funds collected by those persons and amounts paid to 11401
them for their services.11402

       (30) Applying to purchases made by a state institution of 11403
higher education in accordance with the terms of a contract 11404
between the vendor and an inter-university purchasing group 11405
comprised of purchasing officers of state institutions of higher 11406
education;11407

       (31) Applying to the department of job and family services'11408
medicaid's purchases of health assistance services under the 11409
children's health insurance program part I provided for under 11410
section 5101.50 of the Revised Code, the children's health 11411
insurance program part II provided for under section 5101.51 of 11412
the Revised Code, or the children's health insurance program part 11413
III provided for under section 5101.52 of the Revised Code;11414

       (32) Applying to payments by the attorney general from the 11415
reparations fund to hospitals and other emergency medical 11416
facilities for performing medical examinations to collect physical 11417
evidence pursuant to section 2907.28 of the Revised Code;11418

       (33) Applying to contracts with a contracting authority or 11419
administrative receiver under division (B) of section 5126.056 of 11420
the Revised Code;11421

       (34) Applying to purchases of goods and services by the 11422
department of veterans services in accordance with the terms of 11423
contracts entered into by the United States department of veterans 11424
affairs;11425

       (35) Applying to payments by the superintendent of the bureau 11426
of criminal identification and investigation to the federal bureau 11427
of investigation for criminal records checks pursuant to section 11428
109.572 of the Revised Code;11429

       (36) Applying to contracts entered into by the department of 11430
job and family servicesmedicaid under section 5111.0545164.47 of 11431
the Revised Code;11432

       (37) Applying to contracts entered into under section 5160.12 11433
of the Revised Code;11434

       (38) Applying to payments to the Ohio historical society from 11435
other state agencies.11436

       (E) When determining whether a state agency has reached the 11437
cumulative purchase thresholds established in divisions (B)(1) and 11438
(2) of this section, all of the following purchases by such agency 11439
shall not be considered:11440

       (1) Purchases made through competitive selection or with 11441
controlling board approval;11442

       (2) Purchases listed in division (D) of this section;11443

       (3) For the purposes of the threshold of division (B)(1) of 11444
this section only, leases of real estate.11445

       (F) As used in this section, "competitive selection," 11446
"purchase," "supplies," and "services" have the same meanings as 11447
in section 125.01 of the Revised Code.11448

       Sec. 5507.01.        Sec. 128.01.  As used in this chapter:11449

       (A) "9-1-1 system" means a system through which individuals 11450
can request emergency service using the telephone number 9-1-1.11451

       (B) "Basic 9-1-1" means a 9-1-1 system in which a caller 11452
provides information on the nature of and the location of an 11453
emergency, and the personnel receiving the call must determine the 11454
appropriate emergency service provider to respond at that 11455
location.11456

       (C) "Enhanced 9-1-1" means a 9-1-1 system capable of 11457
providing both enhanced wireline 9-1-1 and wireless enhanced 11458
9-1-1.11459

       (D) "Enhanced wireline 9-1-1" means a 9-1-1 system in which 11460
the wireline telephone network, in providing wireline 9-1-1, 11461
automatically routes the call to emergency service providers that 11462
serve the location from which the call is made and immediately 11463
provides to personnel answering the 9-1-1 call information on the 11464
location and the telephone number from which the call is being 11465
made.11466

       (E) "Wireless enhanced 9-1-1" means a 9-1-1 system that, in 11467
providing wireless 9-1-1, has the capabilities of phase I and, to 11468
the extent available, phase II enhanced 9-1-1 services as 11469
described in 47 C.F.R. 20.18 (d) to (h).11470

       (F)(1) "Wireless service" means federally licensed commercial 11471
mobile service as defined in 47 U.S.C. 332(d) and further defined 11472
as commercial mobile radio service in 47 C.F.R. 20.3, and includes 11473
service provided by any wireless, two-way communications device, 11474
including a radio-telephone communications line used in cellular 11475
telephone service or personal communications service, a network 11476
radio access line, or any functional or competitive equivalent of 11477
such a radio-telephone communications or network radio access 11478
line.11479

       (2) Nothing in this chapter applies to paging or any service 11480
that cannot be used to call 9-1-1.11481

       (G) "Wireless service provider" means a facilities-based 11482
provider of wireless service to one or more end users in this 11483
state.11484

       (H) "Wireless 9-1-1" means the emergency calling service 11485
provided by a 9-1-1 system pursuant to a call originating in the 11486
network of a wireless service provider.11487

       (I) "Wireline 9-1-1" means the emergency calling service 11488
provided by a 9-1-1 system pursuant to a call originating in the 11489
network of a wireline service provider.11490

       (J) "Wireline service provider" means a facilities-based 11491
provider of wireline service to one or more end-users in this 11492
state.11493

       (K) "Wireline service" means basic local exchange service, as 11494
defined in section 4927.01 of the Revised Code, that is 11495
transmitted by means of interconnected wires or cables by a 11496
wireline service provider authorized by the public utilities 11497
commission.11498

       (L) "Wireline telephone network" means the selective router 11499
and data base processing systems, trunking and data wiring cross 11500
connection points at the public safety answering point, and all 11501
other voice and data components of the 9-1-1 system.11502

       (M) "Subdivision" means a county, municipal corporation, 11503
township, township fire district, joint fire district, township 11504
police district, joint police district, joint ambulance district, 11505
or joint emergency medical services district that provides 11506
emergency service within its territory, or that contracts with 11507
another municipal corporation, township, or district or with a 11508
private entity to provide such service; and a state college or 11509
university, port authority, or park district of any kind that 11510
employs law enforcement officers that act as the primary police 11511
force on the grounds of the college or university or port 11512
authority or in the parks operated by the district.11513

       (N) "Emergency service" means emergency law enforcement, 11514
firefighting, ambulance, rescue, and medical service.11515

       (O) "Emergency service provider" means the state highway 11516
patrol and an emergency service department or unit of a 11517
subdivision or that provides emergency service to a subdivision 11518
under contract with the subdivision.11519

       (P) "Public safety answering point" means a facility to which 11520
9-1-1 system calls for a specific territory are initially routed 11521
for response and where personnel respond to specific requests for 11522
emergency service by directly dispatching the appropriate 11523
emergency service provider, relaying a message to the appropriate 11524
provider, or transferring the call to the appropriate provider.11525

       (Q) "Customer premises equipment" means telecommunications 11526
equipment, including telephone instruments, on the premises of a 11527
public safety answering point that is used in answering and 11528
responding to 9-1-1 system calls.11529

       (R) "Municipal corporation in the county" includes any 11530
municipal corporation that is wholly contained in the county and 11531
each municipal corporation located in more than one county that 11532
has a greater proportion of its territory in the county to which 11533
the term refers than in any other county.11534

       (S) "Board of county commissioners" includes the legislative 11535
authority of a county established under Section 3 of Article X, 11536
Ohio Constitution, or Chapter 302. of the Revised Code.11537

       (T) "Final plan" means a final plan adopted under division 11538
(B) of section 5507.08128.08 of the Revised Code and, except as 11539
otherwise expressly provided, an amended final plan adopted under 11540
section 5507.12128.12 of the Revised Code.11541

       (U) "Subdivision served by a public safety answering point" 11542
means a subdivision that provides emergency service for any part 11543
of its territory that is located within the territory of a public 11544
safety answering point whether the subdivision provides the 11545
emergency service with its own employees or pursuant to a 11546
contract.11547

       (V) A township's population includes only population of the 11548
unincorporated portion of the township.11549

       (W) "Telephone company" means a company engaged in the 11550
business of providing local exchange telephone service by making 11551
available or furnishing access and a dial tone to persons within a 11552
local calling area for use in originating and receiving voice 11553
grade communications over a switched network operated by the 11554
provider of the service within the area and gaining access to 11555
other telecommunications services. "Telephone company" includes a 11556
wireline service provider and a wireless service provider unless 11557
otherwise expressly specified. For purposes of sections 5507.2511558
128.25 and 5507.26128.26 of the Revised Code, "telephone company" 11559
means a wireline service provider.11560

       (X) "Prepaid wireless calling service" has the same meaning 11561
as in division (AA)(5) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code.11562

       (Y) "Provider of a prepaid wireless calling service" means a 11563
wireless service provider that provides a prepaid wireless calling 11564
service.11565

       (Z) "Retail sale" has the same meaning as in section 5739.01 11566
of the Revised Code.11567

       (AA) "Seller" means a person that sells a prepaid wireless 11568
calling service to another person by retail sale.11569

       (BB) "Consumer" means the person for whom the prepaid 11570
wireless calling service is provided, to whom the transfer 11571
effected or license given by a sale is or is to be made or given, 11572
to whom the prepaid wireless calling service is charged, or to 11573
whom the admission is granted.11574

       (CC) "Reseller" means a nonfacilities-based provider of 11575
wireless service that provides wireless service under its own name 11576
to one or more end users in this state using the network of a 11577
wireless service provider.11578

       (DD) "Steering committee" means the statewide emergency 11579
services internet protocol network steering committee established 11580
by division (A)(1) of section 128.02 of the Revised Code.11581

       Sec. 5507.02.        Sec. 128.02.  (A)(1) There is hereby created the 11582
statewide emergency services internet protocol network steering 11583
committee, consisting of the following ten members:11584

       (a) The state chief information officer or the officer's 11585
designee;11586

       (b) Two members of the house of representatives appointed by 11587
the speaker, one from the majority party and one from the minority 11588
party;11589

       (c) Two members of the senate appointed by the president, one 11590
from the majority party and one from the minority party;11591

       (d) Five members appointed by the governor.11592

       (2) In appointing the five members under division (A)(1)(d) 11593
of this section, the governor shall appoint two representatives of 11594
the county commissioners' association of Ohio or a successor 11595
organization, two representatives of the Ohio municipal league or 11596
a successor organization, and one representative of the Ohio 11597
township association or a successor organization. For each of 11598
these appointments, the governor shall consider a nominee proposed 11599
by the association or successor organization. The governor may 11600
reject any of the nominees and may request that a nominating 11601
entity submit alternative nominees.11602

       (3) Initial appointments shall be made not later than ten 11603
days after September 28, 2012.11604

       (B)(1) The state chief information officer or the officer's 11605
designee shall serve as the chairperson of the steering committee 11606
and shall be a nonvoting member. All other members shall be voting 11607
members.11608

       (2) A member of the steering committee appointed from the 11609
membership of the senate or the house of representatives shall 11610
serve during the member's term as a member of the general assembly 11611
and until a successor is appointed and qualified, notwithstanding 11612
adjournment of the general assembly or the expiration of the 11613
member's term as a member of the general assembly.11614

       (3) The initial terms of one of the representatives of the 11615
county commissioners' association of Ohio, one of the 11616
representatives of the Ohio municipal league, and the 11617
representative of the Ohio township association shall all expire 11618
on December 31, 2016. The initial terms of the other 11619
representatives of the county commissioners' association of Ohio 11620
and the Ohio municipal league shall expire on December 31, 2014. 11621
Thereafter, terms of the members appointed by the governor shall 11622
be for four years, with each term ending on the same day of the 11623
same month as the term it succeeds. Each member appointed by the 11624
governor shall hold office from the date of the member's 11625
appointment until the end of the term for which the member was 11626
appointed, and may be reappointed. A member appointed by the 11627
governor shall continue in office after the expiration date of the 11628
member's term until the member's successor takes office or until a 11629
period of sixty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first. Members 11630
appointed by the governor shall serve without compensation and 11631
shall not be reimbursed for expenses.11632

       (4) A vacancy in the position of any member of the steering 11633
committee shall be filled for the unexpired term in the same 11634
manner as the original appointment.11635

       (C) The steering committee shall generally advise the state 11636
on the implementation, operation, and maintenance of a statewide 11637
emergency services internet protocol network that would support 11638
state and local government next-generation 9-1-1 and the dispatch 11639
of emergency service providers. The steering committee shall do 11640
all of the following:11641

       (1) On or before May 15, 2013, deliver an initial report to 11642
the speaker of the house of representatives, the president of the 11643
senate, and the governor providing recommendations for the state 11644
to address the development of a statewide emergency services 11645
internet protocol network, which recommendations shall include a 11646
review of the current funding model for this state's 9-1-1 systems 11647
and may include a recommendation for a reduction in wireless 9-1-1 11648
charges; 11649

       (2) Examine the readiness of the state's current technology 11650
infrastructure for a statewide emergency services internet 11651
protocol network;11652

       (3) Research legislative authority with regard to governance 11653
and funding of a statewide emergency services internet protocol 11654
network, and provide recommendations on best practices to limit 11655
duplicative efforts to ensure an effective transition to 11656
next-generation 9-1-1; 11657

       (4) Make recommendations for consolidation of 11658
public-safety-answering-point operations in this state, including 11659
recommendations for accelerating the consolidation schedule 11660
established in section 5507.571128.571 of the Revised Code, to 11661
accommodate next-generation 9-1-1 technology and to facilitate a 11662
more efficient and effective emergency services system;11663

       (5) Recommend policies, procedures, and statutory or 11664
regulatory authority to effectively govern a statewide emergency 11665
services internet protocol network;11666

       (6) Designate a next-generation 9-1-1 statewide coordinator 11667
to serve as the primary point of contact for federal initiatives;11668

       (7) Coordinate with statewide initiatives and associations 11669
such as the state interoperable executive committee, the Ohio 11670
geographically referenced information program council, the Ohio 11671
multi-agency radio communications system steering committee, and 11672
other interested parties;11673

       (8) Serve as the entity responsible for the administration of 11674
Chapter 128. of the Revised Code. 11675

       (D)(1) Not later than February 15, 2013, each chairperson of 11676
a countywide 9-1-1 planning committee or the chairperson's 11677
designee shall report the following informationA 9-1-1 service 11678
provider shall provide to the steering committee:11679

       (a) The aggregate number of access lines that the provider 11680
maintains within the state of Ohio;11681

        (b) The aggregate amount of costs and cost recovery 11682
associated with providing 9-1-1 service, including coverage under 11683
tariffs and bill and keep arrangements within this state;11684

        (c) Any other information requested by the steering committee 11685
deemed necessary to support the transition to next generation 11686
9-1-1.11687

        (2) Any political subdivision or governmental entity 11688
operating a public safety answering point shall provide to the 11689
steering committee:11690

        (a) The geographic location and population of the area for 11691
which the planning committee is responsible;11692

       (b) Statistics detailing the number of 9-1-1 calls received;11693

       (c) A report of expenditures made from disbursements from the 11694
wirelessfor 9-1-1 government assistance fund;11695

       (d) An inventory of and the technical specifications for the 11696
current 9-1-1 network and equipment;11697

       (e) Any other information requested by the steering committee 11698
that is deemed necessary to support the transition to next 11699
generation 9-1-1.11700

       (2)(a) If, by February 15, 2013, a countywide 9-1-1 planning 11701
committee fails to provide to the steering committee the 11702
information required under division (D)(1) of this section, the 11703
steering committee shall notify the Ohio 9-1-1 coordinator of the 11704
failure and the coordinator shall suspend disbursements from the 11705
wireless 9-1-1 government assistance fund to that county. 11706
Disbursements to the county shall resume after the steering 11707
committee receives the required information and notifies the 11708
coordinator that the requirement has been met.11709

       (b) Beginning January 1, 2014, the notification that the 11710
steering committee has received the required information shall be 11711
sent to the tax commissioner, and the disbursements to the county 11712
shall resume after the tax commissioner receives that notice11713

       (3) The information requested under divisions (D)(1) and (2) 11714
of this section shall be provided by the 9-1-1 service provider, 11715
political subdivision, or governmental entity within forty-five 11716
days of the request of the steering committee. 11717

       (E) The steering committee shall hold its inaugural meeting 11718
not later than thirty days after September 28, 2012. Thereafter, 11719
the steering committee shall meet at least once a month, either in 11720
person or utilizing telecommunication-conferencing technology. A 11721
majority of the voting members shall constitute a quorum.11722

       (F)(1) The steering committee shall have a permanent 11723
technical-standards subcommittee and a permanent 11724
public-safety-answering-point-operations subcommittee, and may, 11725
from time to time, establish additional subcommittees, to advise 11726
and assist the steering committee based upon the subcommittees' 11727
areas of expertise.11728

       (2) The membership of subcommittees shall be determined by 11729
the steering committee.11730

       (a) The technical-standards subcommittee shall include one 11731
member representing a wireline or wireless service provider that 11732
participates in the state's 9-1-1 system, one representative of 11733
the Ohio academic resources network, one representative of the 11734
Ohio multi-agency radio communications system steering committee, 11735
one representative of the Ohio geographically referenced 11736
information program, and one member representing each of the 11737
following associations selected by the steering committee from 11738
nominations received from that association:11739

       (i) The Ohio telephone association;11740

       (ii) The Ohio chapter of the association of public-safety 11741
communications officials;11742

       (iii) The Ohio chapter of the national emergency number 11743
association.11744

       (b) The public-safety-answering-point-operations subcommittee 11745
shall include one member representing the division of emergency 11746
management of the department of public safety, one member 11747
representing the state highway patrol, two members recommended by 11748
the county commissioners' association of Ohio who are managers of 11749
public safety answering points, two members recommended by the 11750
Ohio municipal league who are managers of public safety answering 11751
points, and one member from each of the following associations 11752
selected by the steering committee from nominations received from 11753
that association:11754

       (i) The buckeye state sheriffs' association;11755

       (ii) The Ohio association of chiefs of police;11756

       (iii) The Ohio association of fire chiefs;11757

       (iv) The Ohio chapter of the association of public-safety 11758
communications officials;11759

       (v) The Ohio chapter of the national emergency number 11760
association.11761

       (G) The committee is not an agency, as defined in section 11762
101.82 of the Revised Code, for purposes of sections 101.82 to 11763
101.87 of the Revised Code.11764

       (H) As used in this section, "9-1-1 system," "wireless 11765
service provider," "wireline service provider," "emergency service 11766
provider," and "public safety answering point" have the same 11767
meanings as in section 5507.01128.01 of the Revised Code.11768

       (I) As used in this section, "bill and keep arrangements" has 11769
the same meaning as in 47 C.F.R. 51.713.11770

       Sec. 5507.021.        Sec. 128.021.  Not later than January 1, 2014, and 11771
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the statewide 11772
emergency services internet protocol network steering committee 11773
shall adopt rules that establish technical and operational 11774
standards for public safety answering points eligible to receive 11775
disbursements under section 5507.55128.55 of the Revised Code. 11776
The rules shall incorporate industry standards and best practices 11777
for wireless 9-1-1 services. Public safety answering points shall 11778
comply with the standards not later than two years after the 11779
effective date of the rules adopting the standards.11780

       Sec. 5507.022.        Sec. 128.022.  The statewide emergency services 11781
internet protocol network steering committee shall establish 11782
guidelines for the tax commissioner to use when disbursing money 11783
from the next generation 9-1-1 fund to countywide 9-1-1 systems in 11784
the state. The guidelines shall be consistent with the standards 11785
adopted in section 5507.021128.021 of the Revised Code and shall 11786
specify that disbursements may be used for costs associated with 11787
the operation of and equipment for phase II wireless systems and 11788
for costs associated with a county's migration to next generation 11789
9-1-1 systems and technology.11790

       Sec. 5507.03.        Sec. 128.03.  (A)(1) A countywide 9-1-1 system shall 11791
include all of the territory of the townships and municipal 11792
corporations in the county and any portion of such a municipal 11793
corporation that extends into an adjacent county.11794

       (2) The system shall exclude any territory served by a 11795
wireline service provider that is not capable of reasonably 11796
meeting the technical and economic requirements of providing the 11797
wireline telephone network portion of the countywide system for 11798
that territory. The system shall exclude from enhanced 9-1-1 any 11799
territory served by a wireline service provider that is not 11800
capable of reasonably meeting the technical and economic 11801
requirements of providing the wireline telephone network portion 11802
of enhanced 9-1-1 for that territory. If a 9-1-1 planning 11803
committee and a wireline service provider do not agree on whether 11804
the provider is so capable, the planning committee shall notify 11805
the department of public safetysteering committee, and the 11806
departmentsteering committee shall determine whether the wireline 11807
service provider is so capable. The planning committee shall 11808
ascertain whether such disagreement exists before making its 11809
implementation proposal under division (A) of section 5507.0711810
128.07 of the Revised Code. The department'ssteering committee's11811
determination shall be in the form of an order. No final plan 11812
shall require a wireline service provider to provide the wireline 11813
telephone network portion of a 9-1-1 system that the department11814
steering committee has determined the provider is not reasonably 11815
capable of providing.11816

       (B) A countywide 9-1-1 system may be a basic or enhanced 11817
9-1-1 system, or a combination of the two, and shall be for the 11818
purpose of providing both wireline 9-1-1 and wireless 9-1-1.11819

       (C) Every emergency service provider that provides emergency 11820
service within the territory of a countywide 9-1-1 system shall 11821
participate in the countywide system.11822

       (D)(1) Each public safety answering point shall be operated 11823
by a subdivision or a regional council of governments and shall be 11824
operated constantly.11825

       (2) A subdivision or a regional council of governments that 11826
operates a public safety answering point shall pay all of the 11827
costs associated with establishing, equipping, furnishing, 11828
operating, and maintaining that facility and shall allocate those 11829
costs among itself and the subdivisions served by the answering 11830
point based on the allocation formula in a final plan. The 11831
wireline service provider or other entity that provides or 11832
maintains the customer premises equipment shall bill the operating 11833
subdivision or the operating regional council of governments for 11834
the cost of providing such equipment, or its maintenance. A 11835
wireless service provider and a subdivision or regional council of 11836
governments operating a public safety answering point may enter 11837
into a service agreement for providing wireless enhanced 9-1-1 11838
pursuant to a final plan adopted under this chapter.11839

       (E) Except to the extent provided in a final plan that 11840
provides for funding of a 9-1-1 system in part through charges 11841
imposed under section 5507.22128.22 of the Revised Code, each 11842
subdivision served by a public safety answering point shall pay 11843
the subdivision or regional council of governments that operates 11844
the answering point the amount computed in accordance with the 11845
allocation formula set forth in the final plan.11846

       (F) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the purchase 11847
or other acquisition, installation, and maintenance of the 11848
telephone network for a 9-1-1 system and the purchase or other 11849
acquisition, installation, and maintenance of customer premises 11850
equipment at a public safety answering point made in compliance 11851
with a final plan or an agreement under section 5507.09128.09 of 11852
the Revised Code, including customer premises equipment used to 11853
provide wireless enhanced 9-1-1, are not subject to any 11854
requirement of competitive bidding.11855

       (G) Each emergency service provider participating in a 11856
countywide 9-1-1 system shall maintain a telephone number in 11857
addition to 9-1-1.11858

       (H) Whenever a final plan provides for the implementation of 11859
basic 9-1-1, the planning committee shall so notify the department 11860
of public safetysteering committee, which shall determine whether 11861
the wireline service providers serving the territory covered by 11862
the plan are capable of reasonably meeting the technical and 11863
economic requirements of providing the wireline telephone network 11864
portion of an enhanced 9-1-1 system. The determination shall be 11865
made solely for purposes of division (C)(2) of section 5507.1811866
128.18 of the Revised Code.11867

       (I) If the public safety answering point personnel reasonably 11868
determine that a 9-1-1 call is not an emergency, the personnel 11869
shall provide the caller with the telephone number of an 11870
appropriate subdivision agency as applicable.11871

       (J) A final plan adopted under this chapter, or an agreement 11872
under section 5507.09128.09 of the Revised Code, may provide 11873
that, by further agreement included in the plan or agreement, the 11874
state highway patrol or one or more public safety answering points 11875
of another 9-1-1 system is the public safety answering point or 11876
points for the provision of wireline or wireless 9-1-1 for all or 11877
part of the territory of the 9-1-1 system established under the 11878
plan or agreement. In that event, the subdivision for which the 11879
wireline or wireless 9-1-1 is provided as named in the agreement 11880
shall be deemed the subdivision operating the public safety 11881
answering point or points for purposes of this chapter, except 11882
that, for the purpose of division (D)(2) of this section, that 11883
subdivision shall pay only so much of the costs of establishing, 11884
equipping, furnishing, operating, or maintaining any such public 11885
safety answering point as are specified in the agreement with the 11886
patrol or other system.11887

       (K) A final plan for the provision of wireless enhanced 9-1-1 11888
shall provide that any wireless 9-1-1 calls routed to a state 11889
highway patrol-operated public safety answering point by default, 11890
due to a wireless service provider so routing all such calls of 11891
its subscribers without prior permission, are instead to be routed 11892
as provided under the plan. Upon the implementation of countywide 11893
wireless enhanced 9-1-1 pursuant to a final plan, the state 11894
highway patrol shall cease any functioning as a public safety 11895
answering point providing wireless 9-1-1 within the territory 11896
covered by the countywide 9-1-1 system so established, unless the 11897
patrol functions as a public safety answering point providing 11898
wireless enhanced 9-1-1 pursuant to an agreement included in the 11899
plan as authorized under division (J) of this section.11900

       Sec. 5507.06.        Sec. 128.06.  (A) A board of county commissioners or 11901
the legislative authority of any municipal corporation in the 11902
county that contains at least thirty per cent of the county's 11903
population may adopt a resolution to convene a 9-1-1 planning 11904
committee, which shall serve without compensation and shall 11905
consist of three voting members as follows:11906

       (1) The president or other presiding officer of the board of 11907
county commissioners, who shall serve as chairperson of the 11908
committee;11909

       (2) The chief executive officer of the most populous 11910
municipal corporation in the county;11911

       (3) From the more populous of the following, either the chief 11912
executive officer of the second most populous municipal 11913
corporation in the county or a member of the board of township 11914
trustees of the most populous township in the county as selected 11915
by majority vote of the board of trustees.11916

       In counties with a population of one hundred seventy-five 11917
thousand or more, the planning committee shall consist of two 11918
additional voting members as follows: a member of a board of 11919
township trustees selected by the majority of boards of township 11920
trustees in the county pursuant to resolutions they adopt, and the 11921
chief executive officer of a municipal corporation in the county 11922
selected by the majority of the legislative authorities of 11923
municipal corporations in the county pursuant to resolutions they 11924
adopt.11925

       When determining population under this division, population 11926
residing outside the county shall be excluded.11927

       (B) Within thirty days after the adoption of a resolution to 11928
convene the committee under division (A) of this section, the 11929
committee shall convene for the sole purpose of developing a final 11930
plan for implementing a countywide 9-1-1 system. The county shall 11931
provide the committee with any clerical, legal, and other staff 11932
assistance necessary to develop the final plan and shall pay for 11933
copying, mailing, and any other such expenses incurred by the 11934
committee in developing the final plan and in meeting the 11935
requirements imposed by sections 5507.06128.06 to 5507.08128.0811936
of the Revised Code.11937

       (C) The 9-1-1 planning committee shall appoint a 9-1-1 11938
technical advisory committee to assist it in planning the 11939
countywide 9-1-1 system. The advisory committee shall include at 11940
least one fire chief and one police chief serving in the county, 11941
the county sheriff, a representative of the state highway patrol 11942
selected by the patrol, one representative of each telephone 11943
company in each case selected by the telephone company 11944
represented, the director/coordinator of emergency management 11945
appointed under section 5502.26, 5502.27, or 5502.271 of the 11946
Revised Code, as appropriate, and a member of a board of township 11947
trustees of a township in the county selected by a majority of 11948
boards of township trustees in the county pursuant to resolutions 11949
they adopt.11950

       Sec. 5507.07.        Sec. 128.07.  (A) The 9-1-1 planning committee shall 11951
prepare a proposal on the implementation of a countywide 9-1-1 11952
system and shall hold a public meeting on the proposal to explain 11953
the system to and receive comments from public officials. At least 11954
thirty but not more than sixty days before the meeting, the 11955
committee shall send a copy of the implementation proposal and 11956
written notice of the meeting:11957

       (1) By certified mail, to the board of county commissioners, 11958
the legislative authority of each municipal corporation in the 11959
county, and to the board of trustees of each township in the 11960
county; and11961

       (2) To the board of trustees, directors, or park 11962
commissioners of each subdivision that will be served by a public 11963
safety answering point under the plan.11964

       (B) The proposal and the final plan adopted by the committee 11965
shall specify:11966

       (1) Which telephone companies serving customers in the county 11967
and, as authorized in division (A)(1) of section 5507.03128.03 of 11968
the Revised Code, in an adjacent county will participate in the 11969
9-1-1 system;11970

       (2) The location and number of public safety answering 11971
points; how they will be connected to a company's telephone 11972
network; from what geographic territory each will receive 9-1-1 11973
calls; whether basic or enhanced 9-1-1 service will be provided 11974
within such territory; what subdivisions will be served by the 11975
answering point; and whether an answering point will respond to 11976
calls by directly dispatching an emergency service provider, by 11977
relaying a message to the appropriate provider, or by transferring 11978
the call to the appropriate provider;11979

       (3) Which subdivision or regional council of governments will 11980
establish, equip, furnish, operate, and maintain a particular 11981
public safety answering point;11982

       (4) A projection of the initial cost of establishing, 11983
equipping, and furnishing and of the annual cost of the first five 11984
years of operating and maintaining each public safety answering 11985
point;11986

       (5) Whether the cost of establishing, equipping, furnishing, 11987
operating, or maintaining each public safety answering point 11988
should be funded through charges imposed under section 5507.2211989
128.22 of the Revised Code or will be allocated among the 11990
subdivisions served by the answering point and, if any such cost 11991
is to be allocated, the formula for so allocating it;11992

       (6) How each emergency service provider will respond to a 11993
misdirected call.11994

       (C) Following the meeting required by this section, the 9-1-1 11995
planning committee may modify the implementation proposal and, no 11996
later than nine months after the resolution authorized by section 11997
5507.06128.06 of the Revised Code is adopted, may adopt, by 11998
majority vote, a final plan for implementing a countywide 9-1-1 11999
system. If a planning committee and wireline service provider do 12000
not agree on whether the wireline service provider is capable of 12001
providing the wireline telephone network as described under 12002
division (A) of section 5507.03128.03 of the Revised Code and the 12003
planning committee refers that question to the department of 12004
public safetysteering committee, the departmentsteering 12005
committee may extend the nine-month deadline established by this 12006
division to twelve months. Immediately on completion of the plan, 12007
the planning committee shall send a copy of the final plan:12008

       (1) By certified mail to the board of county commissioners of 12009
the county, to the legislative authority of each municipal 12010
corporation in the county, and to the board of township trustees 12011
of each township in the county; and12012

       (2) To the board of trustees, directors, or park 12013
commissioners of each subdivision that will be served by a public 12014
safety answering point under the plan.12015

       (D) If the committee has not adopted a final plan on or 12016
before the deadline in division (C) of this section, the committee 12017
shall cease to exist. A new 9-1-1 planning committee may be 12018
convened in the manner established in section 5507.06 of the 12019
Revised Code to develop an implementation proposal and final plan 12020
in accordance with the requirements of sections 5507.06 to 5507.08 12021
of the Revised Code.12022

       Sec. 5507.08.        Sec. 128.08.  (A) Within sixty days after receipt of 12023
the final plan pursuant to division (C) of section 5507.07128.0712024
of the Revised Code, the board of county commissioners of the 12025
county and the legislative authority of each municipal corporation 12026
in the county and of each township whose territory is proposed to 12027
be included in a countywide 9-1-1 system shall act by resolution 12028
to approve or disapprove the plan, except that, with respect to a 12029
final plan that provides for funding of the 9-1-1 system in part 12030
through charges imposed under section 5507.22128.22 of the 12031
Revised Code, the board of county commissioners shall not act by 12032
resolution to approve or disapprove the plan until after a 12033
resolution adopted under section 5507.22128.22 of the Revised 12034
Code has become effective as provided in division (D) of that 12035
section. A municipal corporation or township whose territory is 12036
proposed to be included in the system includes any municipal 12037
corporation or township in which a part of its territory is 12038
excluded pursuant to division (A)(2) of section 5507.03128.03 of 12039
the Revised Code. Each such authority immediately shall notify the 12040
board of county commissioners in writing of its approval or 12041
disapproval of the final plan. Failure by a board or legislative 12042
authority to notify the board of county commissioners of approval 12043
or disapproval within such sixty-day period shall be deemed 12044
disapproval by the board or authority.12045

       (B) As used in this division, "county's population" excludes 12046
the population of any municipal corporation or township that, 12047
under the plan, is completely excluded from 9-1-1 service in the 12048
county's final plan. A countywide plan is effective if all of the 12049
following entities approve the plan in accordance with this 12050
section:12051

       (1) The board of county commissioners;12052

       (2) The legislative authority of a municipal corporation that 12053
contains at least thirty per cent of the county's population, if 12054
any;12055

       (3) The legislative authorities of municipal corporations and 12056
townships that contain at least sixty per cent of the county's 12057
population or, if the plan has been approved by a municipal 12058
corporation that contains at least sixty per cent of the county's 12059
population, by the legislative authorities of municipal 12060
corporations and townships that contain at least seventy-five per 12061
cent of the county's population.12062

       (C) After a countywide plan approved in accordance with this 12063
section is adopted, all of the telephone companies, subdivisions, 12064
and regional councils of governments included in the plan are 12065
subject to the specific requirements of the plan and to this 12066
chapter.12067

       Sec. 5507.09.        Sec. 128.09.  (A) If a final plan is disapproved 12068
under division (B) of section 5507.08128.08 of the Revised Code, 12069
by resolution, the legislative authority of a municipal 12070
corporation or township that contains at least thirty per cent of 12071
the county's population may establish within its boundaries, or 12072
the legislative authorities of a group of municipal corporations 12073
or townships each of which is contiguous with at least one other 12074
such municipal corporation or township in the group, together 12075
containing at least thirty per cent of the county's population, 12076
may jointly establish within their boundaries a 9-1-1 system. For 12077
that purpose, the municipal corporation or township may enter into 12078
an agreement, and the contiguous municipal corporations or 12079
townships may jointly enter into an agreement with one or more 12080
telephone companies.12081

       (B) If no resolution has been adopted to convene a 9-1-1 12082
planning committee under section 5507.06128.06 of the Revised 12083
Code, by resolution, the legislative authority of any municipal 12084
corporation in the county may establish within its boundaries, or 12085
the legislative authorities of a group of municipal corporations 12086
and townships each of which is contiguous to at least one of the 12087
other such municipal corporations or townships in the group may 12088
jointly establish within their boundaries, a 9-1-1 system. For 12089
that purpose, the municipal corporation, or contiguous municipal 12090
corporations and townships, may enter into an agreement with one 12091
or more telephone companies.12092

       (C) Whenever a telephone company that is a wireline service 12093
provider and one or more municipal corporations and townships 12094
enter into an agreement under division (A) or (B) of this section 12095
to provide for the wireline telephone network portion of a basic 12096
9-1-1 system, the telephone company shall so notify the department 12097
of public safetysteering committee, which shall determine whether 12098
the telephone company is capable of reasonably meeting the 12099
technical and economic requirements of providing the wireline 12100
telephone network for an enhanced system within the territory 12101
served by the company and covered by the agreement. The 12102
determination shall be made solely for the purposes of division 12103
(C)(2) of section 5507.18128.18 of the Revised Code.12104

       (D) Within three years from the date of entering into an 12105
initial agreement described under division (C) of this section, 12106
the telephone company shall have installed the wireline telephone 12107
network portion of the 9-1-1 system according to the terms, 12108
conditions, requirements, and specifications set forth in the 12109
agreement.12110

       (E) A telephone company that is a wireline service provider 12111
shall recover the cost of installing the wireline telephone 12112
network system pursuant to agreements made under this section as 12113
provided in sections 5507.18128.18 and 5733.55 of the Revised 12114
Code.12115

       Sec. 5507.12.        Sec. 128.12.  (A) An amended final plan is required 12116
for any of the following purposes:12117

       (1) Expanding the territory included in the countywide 9-1-1 12118
system;12119

       (2) Upgrading any part or all of a system from basic to 12120
enhanced wireline 9-1-1;12121

       (3) Adjusting the territory served by a public safety 12122
answering point;12123

       (4) Permitting a regional council of governments to operate a 12124
public safety answering point;12125

       (5) Represcribing the funding of public safety answering 12126
points as between the alternatives set forth in division (B)(5) of 12127
section 5507.07128.07 of the Revised Code;12128

        (6) Providing for wireless enhanced 9-1-1;12129

       (7) Adding a telephone company as a participant in a 12130
countywide 9-1-1 system after the implementation of wireline 9-1-1 12131
or wireless enhanced 9-1-1;12132

       (8) Providing that the state highway patrol or one or more 12133
public safety answering points of another 9-1-1 system function as 12134
a public safety answering point or points for the provision of 12135
wireline or wireless 9-1-1 for all or part of the territory of the 12136
system established under the final plan, as contemplated under 12137
division (J) of section 5507.03128.03 of the Revised Code;12138

       (9) Making any other necessary adjustments to the plan.12139

       (B) Except as otherwise provided in division (C) of this 12140
section, a final plan shall be amended in the manner provided for 12141
adopting a final plan under sections 5507.06 to 5507.08 of the 12142
Revised Code, including convening a 9-1-1 planning committee and 12143
developing a proposed amended plan prior to adopting an amended 12144
final plan.12145

       (C)(1) To amend a final plan for the purpose described in 12146
division (A)(7) of this section, an entity that wishes to be added 12147
as a participant in a 9-1-1 system shall file a written letter of 12148
that intent with the board of county commissioners of the county 12149
that approved the final plan. The final plan is deemed amended 12150
upon the filing of that letter. The entity that files the letter 12151
shall send written notice of that filing to all subdivisions, 12152
regional councils of governments, and telephone companies 12153
participating in the system.12154

       (2) An amendment to a final plan for aany other purpose set 12155
forth in division (A)(1), (3), (6), or (9) of this section may be 12156
made by an addendum approved by a majority of the 9-1-1 planning 12157
committee. The board of county commissioners shall call a meeting 12158
of the 9-1-1 planning committee for the purpose of considering an 12159
addendum pursuant to this division.12160

       (3) Adoption of any resolution under section 5507.22128.2212161
of the Revised Code pursuant to a final plan that both has been 12162
adopted and provides for funding through charges imposed under 12163
that section is not an amendment of a final plan for the purpose 12164
of this division.12165

       (D)(C) When a final plan is amended for a purpose described 12166
in division (A)(1), (2), or (7) of this section, sections 5507.1812167
128.18 and 5733.55 of the Revised Code apply with respect to the 12168
receipt of the nonrecurring and recurring rates and charges for 12169
the wireline telephone network portion of the 9-1-1 system.12170

       Sec. 5507.15.        Sec. 128.15.  (A) Within three years from the date an 12171
initial final plan becomes effective under division (B) of section 12172
5507.08128.08 of the Revised Code, the wireline service providers 12173
designated in the plan shall have installed the wireline telephone 12174
network portion of the 9-1-1 system according to the terms, 12175
conditions, requirements, and specifications set forth in that 12176
plan.12177

       (B)(1) Upon installation of a countywide 9-1-1 system, the 12178
board of county commissioners may direct the county engineer to 12179
erect and maintain at the county boundaries on county roads and 12180
state and interstate highways, signs indicating the availability 12181
of a countywide 9-1-1 system. Any sign erected by a county under 12182
this section shall be erected in accordance with and meet the 12183
specifications established under division (B)(2) of this section. 12184
All expenses incurred in erecting and maintaining the signs shall 12185
be paid by the county.12186

       (2) The director of transportation shall develop design 12187
specifications for signs giving notice of the availability of a 12188
countywide 9-1-1 system. The director also shall establish 12189
standards for the erection of the signs and, in accordance with 12190
federal law and regulations and recognized engineering practices, 12191
specify those locations where the signs shall not be erected.12192

       Sec. 5507.18.        Sec. 128.18.  (A) In accordance with this chapter and 12193
Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., and 4909. of the Revised Code, the 12194
public utilities commission shall determine the just, reasonable, 12195
and compensatory rates, tolls, classifications, charges, or 12196
rentals to be observed and charged for the wireline telephone 12197
network portion of a basic or enhanced 9-1-1 system, and each 12198
telephone company that is a wireline service provider 12199
participating in the system shall be subject to those chapters, to 12200
the extent they apply, as to the service provided by its portion 12201
of the wireline telephone network for the system as described in 12202
the final plan or to be installed pursuant to agreements under 12203
section 5507.09128.09 of the Revised Code, and as to the rates, 12204
tolls, classifications, charges, or rentals to be observed and 12205
charged for that service.12206

       (B) Only the customers of a participating telephone company 12207
described in division (A) of this section that are served within 12208
the area covered by a 9-1-1 system shall pay the recurring rates 12209
for the maintenance and operation of the company's portion of the 12210
wireline telephone network of the system. Such rates shall be 12211
computed by dividing the total monthly recurring rates set forth 12212
in the company's schedule as filed in accordance with section 12213
4905.30 of the Revised Code, by the total number of residential 12214
and business customer access lines, or their equivalent, within 12215
the area served. Each residential and business customer within the 12216
area served shall pay the recurring rates based on the number of 12217
its residential and business customer access lines or their 12218
equivalent. No company shall include such amount on any customer's 12219
bill until the company has completed its portion of the wireline 12220
telephone network in accordance with the terms, conditions, 12221
requirements, and specifications of the final plan or an agreement 12222
made under section 5507.09128.09 of the Revised Code.12223

       (C)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(2) of 12224
this section, a participating telephone company described in 12225
division (A) of this section may receive through the credit 12226
authorized by section 5733.55 of the Revised Code the total 12227
nonrecurring charges for its portion of the wireline telephone 12228
network of the system and the total nonrecurring charges for any 12229
updating or modernization of that wireline telephone network in 12230
accordance with the terms, conditions, requirements, and 12231
specifications of the final plan or pursuant to agreements under 12232
section 5507.09128.09 of the Revised Code, as such charges are 12233
set forth in the schedule filed by the telephone company in 12234
accordance with section 4905.30 of the Revised Code. However, that 12235
portion, updating, or modernization shall not be for or include 12236
the provision of wireless 9-1-1. As applicable, the receipt of 12237
permissible charges shall occur only upon the completion of the 12238
installation of the network or the completion of the updating or 12239
modernization.12240

       (2) The credit shall not be allowed under division (C)(1) of 12241
this section for the upgrading of a system from basic to enhanced 12242
wireline 9-1-1 if both of the following apply:12243

       (a) The telephone company received the credit for the 12244
wireline telephone network portion of the basic 9-1-1 system now 12245
proposed to be upgraded.12246

       (b) At the time the final plan or agreement pursuant to 12247
section 5507.09128.09 of the Revised Code calling for the basic 12248
9-1-1 system was agreed to, the telephone company was capable of 12249
reasonably meeting the technical and economic requirements of 12250
providing the wireline telephone network portion of an enhanced 12251
9-1-1 system within the territory proposed to be upgraded, as 12252
determined by the department of public safetysteering committee12253
under division (A) or (H) of section 5507.03128.03 or division 12254
(C) of section 5507.09128.09 of the Revised Code.12255

       (3) If the credit is not allowed under division (C)(2) of 12256
this section, the total nonrecurring charges for the wireline 12257
telephone network used in providing 9-1-1 service, as set forth in 12258
the schedule filed by a telephone company in accordance with 12259
section 4905.30 of the Revised Code, on completion of the 12260
installation of the network in accordance with the terms, 12261
conditions, requirements, and specifications of the final plan or 12262
pursuant to section 5507.09128.09 of the Revised Code, shall be 12263
paid by the municipal corporations and townships with any 12264
territory in the area in which such upgrade from basic to enhanced 12265
9-1-1 is made.12266

       (D) If customer premises equipment for a public safety 12267
answering point is supplied by a telephone company that is 12268
required to file a schedule under section 4905.30 of the Revised 12269
Code pertaining to customer premises equipment, the recurring and 12270
nonrecurring rates and charges for the installation and 12271
maintenance of the equipment specified in the schedule shall 12272
apply.12273

       Sec. 5507.22.        Sec. 128.22.  (A)(1) For the purpose of paying the 12274
costs of establishing, equipping, and furnishing one or more 12275
public safety answering points as part of a countywide 9-1-1 12276
system effective under division (B) of section 5507.08128.08 of 12277
the Revised Code and paying the expense of administering and 12278
enforcing this section, the board of county commissioners of a 12279
county, in accordance with this section, may fix and impose, on 12280
each lot or parcel of real property in the county that is owned by 12281
a person, municipal corporation, township, or other political 12282
subdivision and is improved, or is in the process of being 12283
improved, reasonable charges to be paid by each such owner. The 12284
charges shall be sufficient to pay only the estimated allowed 12285
costs and shall be equal in amount for all such lots or parcels.12286

       (2) For the purpose of paying the costs of operating and 12287
maintaining the answering points and paying the expense of 12288
administering and enforcing this section, the board, in accordance 12289
with this section, may fix and impose reasonable charges to be 12290
paid by each owner, as provided in division (A)(1) of this 12291
section, that shall be sufficient to pay only the estimated 12292
allowed costs and shall be equal in amount for all such lots or 12293
parcels. The board may fix and impose charges under this division 12294
pursuant to a resolution adopted for the purposes of both 12295
divisions (A)(1) and (2) of this section or pursuant to a 12296
resolution adopted solely for the purpose of division (A)(2) of 12297
this section, and charges imposed under division (A)(2) of this 12298
section may be separately imposed or combined with charges imposed 12299
under division (A)(1) of this section.12300

       (B) Any board adopting a resolution under this section 12301
pursuant to a final plan initiating the establishment of a 9-1-1 12302
system or pursuant to an amendment to a final plan shall adopt the 12303
resolution within sixty days after the board receives the final 12304
plan for the 9-1-1 system pursuant to division (C) of section 12305
5507.07128.07 of the Revised Code. The board by resolution may 12306
change any charge imposed under this section whenever the board 12307
considers it advisable. Any resolution adopted under this section 12308
shall declare whether securities will be issued under Chapter 133. 12309
of the Revised Code in anticipation of the collection of unpaid 12310
special assessments levied under this section.12311

       (C) The board shall adopt a resolution under this section at 12312
a public meeting held in accordance with section 121.22 of the 12313
Revised Code. Additionally, the board, before adopting any such 12314
resolution, shall hold at least two public hearings on the 12315
proposed charges. Prior to the first hearing, the board shall 12316
publish notice of the hearings once a week for two consecutive 12317
weeks in a newspaper of general circulation in the county or as 12318
provided in section 7.16 of the Revised Code. The notice shall 12319
include a listing of the charges proposed in the resolution and 12320
the date, time, and location of each of the hearings. The board 12321
shall hear any person who wishes to testify on the charges or the 12322
resolution.12323

       (D) No resolution adopted under this section shall be 12324
effective sooner than thirty days following its adoption nor shall 12325
any such resolution be adopted as an emergency measure. The 12326
resolution is subject to a referendum in accordance with sections 12327
305.31 to 305.41 of the Revised Code unless, in the resolution, 12328
the board of county commissioners directs the board of elections 12329
of the county to submit the question of imposing the charges to 12330
the electors of the county at the next primary or general election 12331
in the county occurring not less than ninety days after the 12332
resolution is certified to the board. No resolution shall go into 12333
effect unless approved by a majority of those voting upon it in 12334
any election allowed under this division.12335

       (E) To collect charges imposed under division (A) of this 12336
section, the board of county commissioners shall certify them to 12337
the county auditor of the county who then shall place them upon 12338
the real property duplicate against the properties to be assessed, 12339
as provided in division (A) of this section. Each assessment shall 12340
bear interest at the same rate that securities issued in 12341
anticipation of the collection of the assessments bear, is a lien 12342
on the property assessed from the date placed upon the real 12343
property duplicate by the auditor, and shall be collected in the 12344
same manner as other taxes.12345

       (F) All money collected by or on behalf of a county under 12346
this section shall be paid to the county treasurer of the county 12347
and kept in a separate and distinct fund to the credit of the 12348
county. The fund shall be used to pay the costs allowed in 12349
division (A) of this section and specified in the resolution 12350
adopted under that division. In no case shall any surplus so 12351
collected be expended for other than the use and benefit of the 12352
county.12353

       Sec. 5507.25.        Sec. 128.25.  (A) This section applies only to a 12354
county that meets both of the following conditions:12355

       (1) A final plan for a countywide 9-1-1 system either has not 12356
been approved in the county under section 5507.08128.08 of the 12357
Revised Code or has been approved but has not been put into 12358
operation because of a lack of funding;12359

       (2) The board of county commissioners, at least once, has 12360
submitted to the electors of the county the question of raising 12361
funds for a 9-1-1 system under section 5507.22128.22, 5705.19, or 12362
5739.026 of the Revised Code, and a majority of the electors has 12363
disapproved the question each time it was submitted.12364

       (B) A board of county commissioners may adopt a resolution 12365
imposing a monthly charge on telephone access lines to pay for the 12366
equipment costs of establishing and maintaining no more than three 12367
public safety answering points of a countywide 9-1-1 system, which 12368
public safety answering points shall be only twenty-four-hour 12369
dispatching points already existing in the county. The resolution 12370
shall state the amount of the charge, which shall not exceed fifty 12371
cents per month, and the month the charge will first be imposed, 12372
which shall be no earlier than four months after the special 12373
election held pursuant to this section. Each residential and 12374
business telephone company customer within the area served by the 12375
9-1-1 system shall pay the monthly charge for each of its 12376
residential or business customer access lines or their equivalent.12377

       Before adopting a resolution under this division, the board 12378
of county commissioners shall hold at least two public hearings on 12379
the proposed charge. Before the first hearing, the board shall 12380
publish notice of the hearings once a week for two consecutive 12381
weeks in a newspaper of general circulation in the county or as 12382
provided in section 7.16 of the Revised Code. The notice shall 12383
state the amount of the proposed charge, an explanation of the 12384
necessity for the charge, and the date, time, and location of each 12385
of the hearings.12386

       (C) A resolution adopted under division (B) of this section 12387
shall direct the board of elections to submit the question of 12388
imposing the charge to the electors of the county at a special 12389
election on the day of the next primary or general election in the 12390
county. The board of county commissioners shall certify a copy of 12391
the resolution to the board of elections not less than ninety days 12392
before the day of the special election. No resolution adopted 12393
under division (B) of this section shall take effect unless 12394
approved by a majority of the electors voting upon the resolution 12395
at an election held pursuant to this section.12396

       In any year, the board of county commissioners may impose a 12397
lesser charge than the amount originally approved by the electors. 12398
The board may change the amount of the charge no more than once a 12399
year. The board may not impose a charge greater than the amount 12400
approved by the electors without first holding an election on the 12401
question of the greater charge.12402

       (D) Money raised from a monthly charge on telephone access 12403
lines under this section shall be deposited into a special fund 12404
created in the county treasury by the board of county 12405
commissioners pursuant to section 5705.12 of the Revised Code, to 12406
be used only for the necessary equipment costs of establishing and 12407
maintaining no more than three public safety answering points of a 12408
countywide 9-1-1 system pursuant to a resolution adopted under 12409
division (B) of this section. In complying with this division, any 12410
county may seek the assistance of the department of public safety12411
steering committee with regard to operating and maintaining a 12412
9-1-1 system.12413

       (E) Pursuant to the voter approval required by division (C) 12414
of this section, the final plan for a countywide 9-1-1 system that 12415
will be funded through a monthly charge imposed in accordance with 12416
this section shall be amended by the existing 9-1-1 planning 12417
committee, and the amendment of such a final plan is not an 12418
amendment of a final plan for the purpose of division (A) of 12419
section 5507.12128.12 of the Revised Code.12420

       Sec. 5507.26.        Sec. 128.26.  (A) This section applies only to a 12421
county that has a final plan for a countywide 9-1-1 system that 12422
either has not been approved in the county under section 5507.0812423
128.08 of the Revised Code or has been approved but has not been 12424
put into operation because of a lack of funding.12425

       (B) A board of county commissioners may adopt a resolution 12426
imposing a monthly charge on telephone access lines to pay for the 12427
operating and equipment costs of establishing and maintaining no 12428
more than one public safety answering point of a countywide 9-1-1 12429
system. The resolution shall state the amount of the charge, which 12430
shall not exceed fifty cents per month, and the month the charge 12431
will first be imposed, which shall be no earlier than four months 12432
after the special election held pursuant to this section. Each 12433
residential and business telephone company customer within the 12434
area of the county served by the 9-1-1 system shall pay the 12435
monthly charge for each of its residential or business customer 12436
access lines or their equivalent.12437

       Before adopting a resolution under this division, the board 12438
of county commissioners shall hold at least two public hearings on 12439
the proposed charge. Before the first hearing, the board shall 12440
publish notice of the hearings once a week for two consecutive 12441
weeks in a newspaper of general circulation in the county or as 12442
provided in section 7.16 of the Revised Code. The notice shall 12443
state the amount of the proposed charge, an explanation of the 12444
necessity for the charge, and the date, time, and location of each 12445
of the hearings.12446

       (C) A resolution adopted under division (B) of this section 12447
shall direct the board of elections to submit the question of 12448
imposing the charge to the electors of the county at a special 12449
election on the day of the next primary or general election in the 12450
county. The board of county commissioners shall certify a copy of 12451
the resolution to the board of elections not less than ninety days 12452
before the day of the special election. No resolution adopted 12453
under division (B) of this section shall take effect unless 12454
approved by a majority of the electors voting upon the resolution 12455
at an election held pursuant to this section.12456

       In any year, the board of county commissioners may impose a 12457
lesser charge than the amount originally approved by the electors. 12458
The board may change the amount of the charge no more than once a 12459
year. The board shall not impose a charge greater than the amount 12460
approved by the electors without first holding an election on the 12461
question of the greater charge.12462

       (D) Money raised from a monthly charge on telephone access 12463
lines under this section shall be deposited into a special fund 12464
created in the county treasury by the board of county 12465
commissioners pursuant to section 5705.12 of the Revised Code, to 12466
be used only for the necessary operating and equipment costs of 12467
establishing and maintaining no more than one public safety 12468
answering point of a countywide 9-1-1 system pursuant to a 12469
resolution adopted under division (B) of this section. In 12470
complying with this division, any county may seek the assistance 12471
of the department of public safetysteering committee with regard 12472
to operating and maintaining a 9-1-1 system.12473

       (E) Nothing in sections 5507.01128.01 to 5507.34128.34 of 12474
the Revised Code precludes a final plan adopted in accordance with 12475
those sections from being amended to provide that, by agreement 12476
included in the plan, a public safety answering point of another 12477
countywide 9-1-1 system is the public safety answering point of a 12478
countywide 9-1-1 system funded through a monthly charge imposed in 12479
accordance with this section. In that event, the county for which 12480
the public safety answering point is provided shall be deemed the 12481
subdivision operating the public safety answering point for 12482
purposes of sections 5507.01128.01 to 5507.34128.34 of the 12483
Revised Code, except that, for the purpose of division (D) of 12484
section 5507.03128.03 of the Revised Code, the county shall pay 12485
only so much of the costs associated with establishing, equipping, 12486
furnishing, operating, or maintaining the public safety answering 12487
point specified in the agreement included in the final plan.12488

       (F) Pursuant to the voter approval required by division (C) 12489
of this section, the final plan for a countywide 9-1-1 system that 12490
will be funded through a monthly charge imposed in accordance with 12491
this section, or that will be amended to include an agreement 12492
described in division (E) of this section, shall be amended by the 12493
existing 9-1-1 planning committee, and the amendment of such a 12494
final plan is not an amendment of a final plan for the purpose of 12495
division (A) of section 5507.12128.12 of the Revised Code.12496

       Sec. 5507.27.        Sec. 128.27.  (A) As part of its normal monthly 12497
billing process, each telephone company with customers in the area 12498
served by a 9-1-1 system shall bill and collect from those 12499
customers any charge imposed under section 5507.25128.25 or 12500
5507.26128.26 of the Revised Code. The company may list the 12501
charge as a separate entry on each bill and may indicate on the 12502
bill that the charge is made pursuant to approval of a ballot 12503
issue by county voters. Any customer billed by a company for a 12504
charge imposed under section 5507.25128.25 or 5507.26128.26 of 12505
the Revised Code is liable to the county for the amount billed. 12506
The company shall apply any partial payment of a customer's bill 12507
first to the amount the customer owes the company. The company 12508
shall keep complete records of charges it bills and collects, and 12509
such records shall be open during business hours for inspection by 12510
the county commissioners or their agents or employees. If a 12511
company fails to bill any customer for the charge, it is liable to 12512
the county for the amount that was not billed.12513

       (B) A telephone company that collects charges under this 12514
section shall remit the money to the county on a quarterly basis. 12515
The company may retain three per cent of any charge it collects as 12516
compensation for the costs of such collection. If a company 12517
collects charges under this section and fails to remit the money 12518
to the county as prescribed, it is liable to the county for any 12519
amount collected and not remitted.12520

       Sec. 5507.32.        Sec. 128.32.  (A)(1) The state, the state highway 12521
patrol, a subdivision, or a regional council of governments 12522
participating in a 9-1-1 system established under this chapter and 12523
any officer, agent, employee, or independent contractor of the 12524
state, the state highway patrol, or such a participating 12525
subdivision or regional council of governments is not liable in 12526
damages in a civil action for injuries, death, or loss to persons 12527
or property arising from any act or omission, except willful or 12528
wanton misconduct, in connection with developing, adopting, or 12529
approving any final plan or any agreement made under section 12530
5507.09128.09 of the Revised Code or otherwise bringing into 12531
operation the 9-1-1 system pursuant to this chapter.12532

       (2) The Ohio 9-1-1 council, the wireless 9-1-1 advisory 12533
board,steering committee and any member of that council or board12534
the steering committee are not liable in damages in a civil action 12535
for injuries, death, or loss to persons or property arising from 12536
any act or omission, except willful or wanton misconduct, in 12537
connection with the development or operation of a 9-1-1 system 12538
established under this chapter.12539

       (B) Except as otherwise provided in this section 5507.32 of 12540
the Revised Code, an individual who gives emergency instructions 12541
through a 9-1-1 system established under this chapter, and the 12542
principals for whom the person acts, including both employers and 12543
independent contractors, public and private, and an individual who 12544
follows emergency instructions and the principals for whom that 12545
person acts, including both employers and independent contractors, 12546
public and private, are not liable in damages in a civil action 12547
for injuries, death, or loss to persons or property arising from 12548
the issuance or following of emergency instructions, except where 12549
the issuance or following of the instructions constitutes willful 12550
or wanton misconduct.12551

       (C) Except for willful or wanton misconduct, a telephone 12552
company, and any other installer, maintainer, or provider, through 12553
the sale or otherwise, of customer premises equipment, and their 12554
respective officers, directors, employees, agents, and suppliers 12555
are not liable in damages in a civil action for injuries, death, 12556
or loss to persons or property incurred by any person resulting 12557
from any of the following:12558

       (1) Such an entity's or its officers', directors', 12559
employees', agents', or suppliers' participation in or acts or 12560
omissions in connection with participating in or developing, 12561
maintaining, or operating a 9-1-1 system;12562

       (2) Such an entity's or its officers', directors', 12563
employees', agents', or suppliers' provision of assistance to a 12564
public utility, municipal utility, or state or local government as 12565
authorized by divisions (G)(4) and (5) of this section.12566

       (D) Except for willful or wanton misconduct, a provider of 12567
and a seller of a prepaid wireless calling service and their 12568
respective officers, directors, employees, agents, and suppliers 12569
are not liable in damages in a civil action for injuries, death, 12570
or loss to persons or property incurred by any person resulting 12571
from anything described in division (C) of this section.12572

       (E) No person shall knowingly use the telephone number of a 12573
9-1-1 system established under this chapter to report an emergency 12574
if the person knows that no emergency exists.12575

       (F) No person shall knowingly use a 9-1-1 system for a 12576
purpose other than obtaining emergency service.12577

       (G) No person shall disclose or use any information 12578
concerning telephone numbers, addresses, or names obtained from 12579
the data base that serves the public safety answering point of a 12580
9-1-1 system established under this chapter, except for any of the 12581
following purposes or under any of the following circumstances:12582

       (1) For the purpose of the 9-1-1 system;12583

       (2) For the purpose of responding to an emergency call to an 12584
emergency service provider;12585

       (3) In the circumstance of the inadvertent disclosure of such 12586
information due solely to technology of the wireline telephone 12587
network portion of the 9-1-1 system not allowing access to the 12588
data base to be restricted to 9-1-1 specific answering lines at a 12589
public safety answering point;12590

       (4) In the circumstance of access to a data base being given 12591
by a telephone company that is a wireline service provider to a 12592
public utility or municipal utility in handling customer calls in 12593
times of public emergency or service outages. The charge, terms, 12594
and conditions for the disclosure or use of such information for 12595
the purpose of such access to a data base shall be subject to the 12596
jurisdiction of the department of public safetysteering 12597
committee.12598

       (5) In the circumstance of access to a data base given by a 12599
telephone company that is a wireline service provider to a state 12600
and local government in warning of a public emergency, as 12601
determined by the department of public safetysteering committee. 12602
The charge, terms, and conditions for the disclosure or use of 12603
that information for the purpose of access to a data base is 12604
subject to the jurisdiction of the department of public safety12605
steering committee.12606

       Sec. 5507.34.        Sec. 128.34. (A) The attorney general, upon request 12607
of the department of public safetysteering committee, or on the 12608
attorney general's own initiative, shall begin proceedings against 12609
a telephone company that is a wireline service provider to enforce 12610
compliance with this chapter or with the terms, conditions, 12611
requirements, or specifications of a final plan or of an agreement 12612
under section 5507.09128.09 of the Revised Code as to wireline 12613
or wireless 9-1-1.12614

       (B) The attorney general, upon the attorney general's own 12615
initiative, or any prosecutor, upon the prosecutor's initiative, 12616
shall begin proceedings against a subdivision or a regional 12617
council of governments as to wireline or wireless 9-1-1 to enforce 12618
compliance with this chapter or with the terms, conditions, 12619
requirements, or specifications of a final plan or of an agreement 12620
under section 5507.09128.09 of the Revised Code as to wireline or 12621
wireless 9-1-1.12622

       Sec. 5507.40.        Sec. 128.40.  There is hereby created within the 12623
public utilities commissiondepartment of administrative services12624
the 9-1-1 service program office, headed by an Ohio 9-1-1 12625
coordinatoradministrator in the unclassified civil service 12626
pursuant to division (A)(9) of section 124.11 of the Revised Code. 12627
The coordinatoradministrator shall be appointed by and serve at 12628
the pleasure of the commission chairpersondirector of 12629
administrative services and shall report directly to the 12630
chairperson. On May 6, 2005, the chairperson shall appoint an 12631
interim coordinator and, upon submission of a list of nominees by 12632
the Ohio 9-1-1 council pursuant to section 5507.65 of the Revised 12633
Code, shall consider those nominees in making the final 12634
appointment and in appointing any subsequent coordinator. The 12635
chairperson may request the council to submit additional nominees 12636
and may reject any of the nominees. The chairperson shall fix the 12637
compensation of the coordinator. The chairperson shall evaluate 12638
the performance of the coordinator after considering the 12639
evaluation and recommendations of the council under section 12640
5507.65 of the Revised Codestate chief information officer. The 12641
program office12642

       The Ohio 9-1-1 coordinator shall administer the wireless 12643
9-1-1 government assistance fund as specified in sections 5507.5312644
128.53 and 5507.55128.55 of the Revised Code. The coordinator 12645
shall carry out the coordinator's duties under this chapter. The 12646
chairperson may establish additional duties of the coordinator 12647
based on a list of recommended duties submitted by the Ohio 9-1-1 12648
council pursuant to section 5507.65 of the Revised Code. The 12649
chairperson may assign one or more commission employees to assist 12650
the coordinator in carrying out the coordinator's duties.12651

       Sec. 5507.42.        Sec. 128.42. (A) There is hereby imposed a wireless 12652
9-1-1 charge of twenty-five cents per month as follows:12653

       (1) On each wireless telephone number of a wireless service 12654
subscriber who has a billing address in this state. The subscriber 12655
shall pay the wireless 9-1-1 charge for each such wireless 12656
telephone number assigned to the subscriber. Each wireless service 12657
provider and each reseller shall collect the wireless 9-1-1 charge 12658
as a specific line item on each subscriber's monthly bill. The 12659
line item shall be expressly designated "State/Local Wireless-E911 12660
Costs ($0.25/billed number)." If a provider bills a subscriber for 12661
any wireless enhanced 9-1-1 costs that the provider may incur, the 12662
charge or amount is not to appear in the same line item as the 12663
state/local line item. If the charge or amount is to appear in its 12664
own, separate line item on the bill, the charge or amount shall be 12665
expressly designated "[Name of Provider] Federal Wireless-E911 12666
Costs." 12667

       (2)(a) Prior to January 1, 2014, on each subscriber of 12668
prepaid wireless service. A wireless service provider or reseller 12669
shall collect the wireless 9-1-1 charge in either of the following 12670
manners:12671

       (i) If the subscriber has a positive account balance on the 12672
last day of the month and has used the service during that month, 12673
by reducing that balance not later than the end of the first week 12674
of the following month by twenty-five cents or an equivalent 12675
number of airtime minutes;12676

       (ii) By dividing the total earned prepaid wireless telephone 12677
revenue from sales within this state received by the wireless 12678
service provider or reseller during the month by fifty, 12679
multiplying the quotient by twenty-five cents.12680

       (b) Amounts collected under division (A)(2) of this section 12681
shall be remitted pursuant to division (A)(1) of section 5507.4612682
128.46 of the Revised Code.12683

        The wireless 9-1-1 charges authorized under this section 12684
shall not be imposed on a subscriber of wireless lifeline service 12685
or a provider of that service.12686

       (B) Beginning January 1, 2014:12687

       (1) There is hereby imposed, on each retail sale of a prepaid 12688
wireless calling service occurring in this state, a wireless 9-1-1 12689
charge of five-tenths of one per cent of the sale price.12690

       (2) For purposes of division (B)(1) of this section, a retail 12691
sale occurs in this state if it is effected by the consumer 12692
appearing in person at a seller's business location in this state, 12693
or if the sale is sourced to this state under division (E)(3) of 12694
section 5739.034 of the Revised Code, except that under that 12695
division, in lieu of sourcing a sale under division (C)(5) of 12696
section 5739.033 of the Revised Code, the seller, rather than the 12697
service provider, may elect to source the sale to the location 12698
associated with the mobile telephone number.12699

       (3)(a) Except as provided in division (B)(4)(c) of this 12700
section, the seller of the prepaid wireless calling service shall 12701
collect the charge from the consumer at the time of each retail 12702
sale and disclose the amount of the charge to the consumer at the 12703
time of the sale by itemizing the charge on the receipt, invoice, 12704
or similar form of written documentation provided to the consumer.12705

       (b) The seller shall comply with the reporting and remittance 12706
requirements under section 5507.46128.46 of the Revised Code.12707

       (4) When a prepaid wireless calling service is sold with one 12708
or more other products or services for a single, nonitemized 12709
price, the wireless 9-1-1 charge imposed under division (B)(1) of 12710
this section shall apply to the entire nonitemized price, except 12711
as provided in divisions (B)(4)(a) to (c) of this section.12712

        (a) If the amount of the prepaid wireless calling service is 12713
disclosed to the consumer as a dollar amount, the seller may elect 12714
to apply the charge only to that dollar amount.12715

        (b) If the seller can identify the portion of the nonitemized 12716
price that is attributable to the prepaid wireless calling 12717
service, by reasonable and verifiable standards from the seller's 12718
books and records that are kept in the regular course of business 12719
for other purposes, including nontax purposes, the seller may 12720
elect to apply the charge only to that portion.12721

        (c) If a minimal amount of a prepaid wireless calling service 12722
is sold with a prepaid wireless calling device for the single, 12723
nonitemized price, the seller may elect not to collect the charge. 12724
As used in this division, "minimal" means either ten minutes or 12725
less or five dollars or less.12726

       (C) The wireless 9-1-1 charges shall be exempt from state or 12727
local taxation.12728

       Sec. 5507.44.        Sec. 128.44.  Beginning January 1, 2014, the tax 12729
commissioner shall provide notice to all known wireless service 12730
providers, resellers, and sellers of prepaid wireless calling 12731
services of any increase or decrease in either of the wireless 12732
9-1-1 charges imposed under section 5507.42128.42 of the Revised 12733
Code. Each notice shall be provided not less than thirty days 12734
before the effective date of the increase or decrease.12735

       Sec. 5507.46.        Sec. 128.46. (A) Prior to January 1, 2014:12736

       (1) A wireless service provider or reseller, not later than 12737
the last day of each month, shall remit the full amount of all 12738
wireless 9-1-1 charges it collected under division (A) of section 12739
5507.42128.42 of the Revised Code for the second preceding 12740
calendar month to the Ohio 9-1-1 coordinatoradministrator, with 12741
the exception of charges equivalent to the amount authorized as a 12742
billing and collection fee under division (A)(2) of this section. 12743
In doing so, the provider or reseller may remit the requisite 12744
amount in any reasonable manner consistent with its existing 12745
operating or technological capabilities, such as by customer 12746
address, location associated with the wireless telephone number, 12747
or another allocation method based on comparable, relevant data. 12748
If the wireless service provider or reseller receives a partial 12749
payment for a bill from a wireless service subscriber, the 12750
wireless service provider or reseller shall apply the payment 12751
first against the amount the subscriber owes the wireless service 12752
provider or reseller and shall remit to the coordinator12753
administrator such lesser amount, if any, as results from that 12754
invoice.12755

       (2) A wireless service provider or reseller may retain as a 12756
billing and collection fee two per cent of the total wireless 12757
9-1-1 charges it collects in a month and shall account to the 12758
coordinatoradministrator for the amount retained.12759

       (3) The coordinatoradministrator shall return to, or credit 12760
against the next month's remittance of, a wireless service 12761
provider or reseller the amount of any remittances the coordinator12762
administrator determines were erroneously submitted by the 12763
provider or reseller.12764

       (B) Beginning January 1, 2014:12765

       (1) Each seller of a prepaid wireless calling service, 12766
wireless service provider, and reseller shall, on or before the 12767
twenty-third day of each month, except as provided in divisions 12768
(B)(2) and (3) of this section, do both of the following: 12769

       (a) Make and file a return for the preceding month, in the 12770
form prescribed by the tax commissioner, showing the amount of the 12771
wireless 9-1-1 charges due under section 5507.42128.42 of the 12772
Revised Code for that month; 12773

        (b) Remit the full amount due, as shown on the return, with 12774
the exception of charges equivalent to the amount authorized as a 12775
collection fee under division (B)(4) of this section.12776

       (2) The commissioner may grant one or more thirty-day 12777
extensions for making and filing returns and remitting amounts 12778
due. 12779

       (3) If a seller is required to collect prepaid wireless 9-1-1 12780
charges in amounts that do not merit monthly returns, the 12781
commissioner may authorize the seller to make and file returns 12782
less frequently. The commissioner shall ascertain whether this 12783
authorization is warranted upon the basis of administrative costs 12784
to the state. 12785

       (4) A wireless service provider, reseller, and seller may 12786
each retain as a collection fee three per cent of the total 12787
wireless 9-1-1 charges required to be collected under section 12788
5507.42128.42 of the Revised Code, and shall account to the tax 12789
commissioner for the amount retained.12790

       (5) The return required under division (B)(1)(a) of this 12791
section shall be filed electronically using the Ohio business 12792
gateway, as defined in section 718.051 of the Revised Code, the 12793
Ohio telefile system, or any other electronic means prescribed by 12794
the tax commissioner. Remittance of the amount due shall be made 12795
electronically in a manner approved by the commissioner. A 12796
wireless service provider, reseller, or seller may apply to the 12797
commissioner on a form prescribed by the commissioner to be 12798
excused from either electronic requirement of this division. For 12799
good cause shown, the commissioner may excuse the provider, 12800
reseller, or seller from either or both of the requirements and 12801
may permit the provider, reseller, or seller to file returns or 12802
make remittances by nonelectronic means.12803

       (C)(1) Prior to January 1, 2014, each subscriber on which a 12804
wireless 9-1-1 charge is imposed under division (A) of section 12805
5507.42128.42 of the Revised Code is liable to the state for the 12806
amount of the charge. If a wireless service provider or reseller 12807
fails to collect the charge under that division from a subscriber 12808
of prepaid wireless service, or fails to bill any other subscriber 12809
for the charge, the wireless service provider or reseller is 12810
liable to the state for the amount not collected or billed. If a 12811
wireless service provider or reseller collects charges under that 12812
division and fails to remit the money to the coordinator12813
administrator, the wireless service provider or reseller is liable 12814
to the state for any amount collected and not remitted. 12815

       (2) Beginning January 1, 2014:12816

       (a) Each subscriber or consumer on which a wireless 9-1-1 12817
charge is imposed under section 5507.42128.42 of the Revised Code 12818
is liable to the state for the amount of the charge. If a wireless 12819
service provider or reseller fails to bill or collect the charge, 12820
or if a seller fails to collect the charge, the provider, 12821
reseller, or seller is liable to the state for the amount not 12822
billed or collected. If a provider, reseller, or seller fails to 12823
remit money to the tax commissioner as required under this 12824
section, the provider, reseller, or seller is liable to the state 12825
for the amount not remitted, regardless of whether the amount was 12826
collected. 12827

       (b) No provider of a prepaid wireless calling service shall 12828
be liable to the state for any wireless 9-1-1 charge imposed under 12829
division (B)(1) of section 5507.42128.42 of the Revised Code that 12830
was not collected or remitted.12831

       (D) Prior to January 1, 2014:12832

       (1) If the public utilities commissionsteering committee has 12833
reason to believe that a wireless service provider or reseller has 12834
failed to bill, collect, or remit the wireless 9-1-1 charge as 12835
required by divisions (A)(1) and (C)(1) of this section or has 12836
retained more than the amount authorized under division (A)(2) of 12837
this section, and after written notice to the provider or 12838
reseller, the commissionsteering committee may audit the 12839
provider or reseller for the sole purpose of making such a 12840
determination. The audit may include, but is not limited to, a 12841
sample of the provider's or reseller's billings, collections, 12842
remittances, or retentions for a representative period, and the 12843
commissionsteering committee shall make a good faith effort to 12844
reach agreement with the provider or reseller in selecting that 12845
sample.12846

       (2) Upon written notice to the wireless service provider or 12847
reseller, the commissionsteering committee, by order after 12848
completion of the audit, may make an assessment against the 12849
provider or reseller if, pursuant to the audit, the commission12850
steering committee determines that the provider or reseller has 12851
failed to bill, collect, or remit the wireless 9-1-1 charge as 12852
required by divisions (A)(1) and (C)(1) of this section or has 12853
retained more than the amount authorized under division (A)(2) of 12854
this section. The assessment shall be in the amount of any 12855
remittance that was due and unpaid on the date notice of the audit 12856
was sent by the commissionsteering committee to the provider or 12857
reseller or, as applicable, in the amount of the excess amount 12858
under division (A)(2) of this section retained by the provider or 12859
reseller as of that date.12860

       (3) The portion of any assessment not paid within sixty days 12861
after the date of service by the commissionsteering committee of 12862
the assessment notice under division (D)(2) of this section shall 12863
bear interest from that date until paid at the rate per annum 12864
prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code. That interest 12865
may be collected by making an assessment under division (D)(2) of 12866
this section. An assessment under this division and any interest 12867
due shall be remitted in the same manner as the wireless 9-1-1 12868
charge imposed under division (A) of section 5507.42128.42 of the 12869
Revised Code.12870

       (4) An assessment is final and due and payable and shall be 12871
remitted to the commission unless the assessed party petitions for 12872
rehearing under section 4903.10 of the Revised Code. The 12873
proceedings of the commission specified in division (D)(4) of this 12874
section are subject to and governed by Chapter 4903. of the 12875
Revised Code, except that the court of appeals of Franklin county 12876
has exclusive, original jurisdiction to review, modify, or vacate 12877
an order of the commission under division (D)(2) of this section. 12878
The court shall hear and determine such appeal in the same manner 12879
and under the same standards as the Ohio supreme court hears and 12880
determines appeals under Chapter 4903. of the Revised Code.12881

       The judgment of the court of appeals is final and conclusive 12882
unless reversed, vacated, or modified on appeal. Such an appeal 12883
may be made by the commission or the person to whom the order 12884
under division (D)(2) of this section was issued and shall proceed 12885
as in the case of appeals in civil actions as provided in Chapter 12886
2505. of the Revised Code.Unless the provider, reseller, or 12887
seller assessed files with the steering committee within sixty 12888
days after service of the notice of assessment, either personally 12889
or by certified mail, a written petition for reassessment, signed 12890
by the party assessed or that party's authorized agent having 12891
knowledge of the facts, the assessment shall become final and the 12892
amount of the assessment shall be due and payable from the party 12893
assessed to the administrator. The petition shall indicate the 12894
objections of the party assessed, but additional objections may be 12895
raised in writing if received by the administrator or the steering 12896
committee prior to the date shown on the final determination.12897

        (5) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 12898
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 12899
copy of the commission's entry making the assessment final 12900
assessment may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of 12901
common pleas in the county in which the place of business of the 12902
assessed party is located. If the party assessed maintains no 12903
place of business in this state, the certified copy of the entry12904
final assessment may be filed in the office of the clerk of the 12905
court of common pleas of Franklin county. Immediately upon the 12906
filing, the clerk shall enter a judgment for the state against the 12907
assessed party in the amount shown on the entryfinal assessment. 12908
The judgment may be filed by the clerk in a loose-leaf book 12909
entitled "special judgments for wireless 9-1-1 charges" and shall 12910
have the same effect as other judgments. The judgment shall be 12911
executed upon the request of the commissionsteering committee.12912

       (6) An assessment under this division does not discharge a 12913
subscriber's liability to reimburse the provider or reseller for 12914
the wireless 9-1-1 charge imposed under division (A) of section 12915
5507.42128.42 of the Revised Code. If, after the date of service 12916
of the audit notice under division (D)(1) of this section, a 12917
subscriber pays a wireless 9-1-1 charge for the period covered by 12918
the assessment, the payment shall be credited against the 12919
assessment.12920

       (7) All money collected by the commissionadministrator under 12921
division (D) of this section shall be paid to the treasurer of 12922
state, for deposit to the credit of the wireless 9-1-1 government 12923
assistance fund.12924

       (E) Beginning January 1, 2014:12925

       (1) If the tax commissioner has reason to believe that a 12926
wireless service provider, reseller, or seller has failed to bill, 12927
collect, or remit the wireless 9-1-1 charge as required by this 12928
section and section 5507.42128.42 of the Revised Code or has 12929
retained more than the amount authorized under division (B)(4) of 12930
this section, and after written notice to the provider, reseller, 12931
or seller, the tax commissioner may audit the provider, reseller, 12932
or seller for the sole purpose of making such a determination. The 12933
audit may include, but is not limited to, a sample of the 12934
provider's, reseller's, or seller's billings, collections, 12935
remittances, or retentions for a representative period, and the 12936
tax commissioner shall make a good faith effort to reach agreement 12937
with the provider, reseller, or seller in selecting that sample. 12938

       (2) Upon written notice to the wireless service provider, 12939
reseller, or seller, the tax commissioner, after completion of the 12940
audit, may make an assessment against the provider, reseller, or 12941
seller if, pursuant to the audit, the tax commissioner determines 12942
that the provider, reseller, or seller has failed to bill, 12943
collect, or remit the wireless 9-1-1 charge as required by this 12944
section and section 5507.42128.42 of the Revised Code or has 12945
retained more than the amount authorized under division (B)(4) of 12946
this section. The assessment shall be in the amount of any 12947
remittance that was due and unpaid on the date notice of the audit 12948
was sent by the tax commissioner to the provider, reseller, or 12949
seller or, as applicable, in the amount of the excess amount under 12950
division (B)(4) of this section retained by the provider, 12951
reseller, or seller as of that date.12952

       (3) The portion of any assessment consisting of wireless 12953
9-1-1 charges due and not paid within sixty days after the date of 12954
service by the tax commissioner ofthat the assessment noticewas 12955
made under division (E)(2) of this section shall bear interest 12956
from that date until paid at the rate per annum prescribed by 12957
section 5703.47 of the Revised Code. That interest may be 12958
collected by making an assessment under division (E)(2) of this 12959
section. An assessment under this division and any interest due 12960
shall be remitted in the same manner as the wireless 9-1-1 charges 12961
imposed under section 5507.42 of the Revised Code.12962

       (4) The portion of the assessment not paid within sixty days 12963
after the day the assessment was issued shall bear interest at the 12964
rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code 12965
from the day the commissioner issues the assessment until it is 12966
paid. Interest shall be remitted in the same manner as the 9-1-1 12967
charges and may be collected by the issuance of an assessment 12968
under division (E) of this section.12969

       (5) Unless the provider, reseller, or seller assessed files 12970
with the tax commissioner within sixty days after service of the 12971
notice of assessment, either personally or by certified mail, a 12972
written petition for reassessment, signed by the party assessed or 12973
that party's authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the 12974
assessment shall become final and the amount of the assessment 12975
shall be due and payable from the party assessed to the treasurer 12976
of state, for deposit to the next generation 9-1-1 fund, which is 12977
created under section 5507.54128.54 of the Revised Code. The 12978
petition shall indicate the objections of the party assessed, but 12979
additional objections may be raised in writing if received by the 12980
commissioner prior to the date shown on the final determination. 12981
If the petition has been properly filed, the commissioner shall 12982
proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised Code.12983

       (6)(5) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of 12984
the assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a 12985
certified copy of the final assessment may be filed in the office 12986
of the clerk of the court of common pleas in the county in which 12987
the business of the assessed party is conducted. If the party 12988
assessed maintains no place of business in this state, the 12989
certified copy of the final assessment may be filed in the office 12990
of the clerk of the court of common pleas of Franklin county. 12991
Immediately upon the filing, the clerk shall enter a judgment for 12992
the state against the assessed party in the amount shown on the 12993
final assessment. The judgment may be filed by the clerk in a 12994
loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for wireless 9-1-1 12995
charges" and shall have the same effect as other judgments. The 12996
judgment shall be executed upon the request of the tax 12997
commissioner.12998

       (7)(6) If the commissioner determines that the commissioner 12999
erroneously has refunded a wireless 9-1-1 charge to any person, 13000
the commissioner may make an assessment against that person for 13001
recovery of the erroneously refunded charge.13002

       (8)(7) An assessment under division (E) of this section does 13003
not discharge a subscriber's or consumer's liability to reimburse 13004
the provider, reseller, or seller for a wireless 9-1-1 charge. If, 13005
after the date of service of the audit notice under division 13006
(E)(1) of this section, a subscriber or consumer pays a wireless 13007
9-1-1 charge for the period covered by the assessment, the payment 13008
shall be credited against the assessment.13009

       Sec. 5507.52.        Sec. 128.52.  (A) Beginning on July 1, 2013, each 13010
seller of a prepaid wireless calling service required to collect 13011
prepaid wireless 9-1-1 charges under division (B) of section 13012
5507.42128.42 of the Revised Code shall also be subject to the 13013
provisions of Chapter 5739. of the Revised Code regarding the 13014
excise tax on retail sales levied under section 5739.02 of the 13015
Revised Code, as those provisions apply to audits, assessments, 13016
appeals, enforcement, liability, and penalties.13017

       (B) The tax commissioner shall establish procedures by which 13018
a person may document that a sale is not a retail sale of a 13019
prepaid wireless calling service. The procedures shall 13020
substantially coincide with similar procedures under Chapter 5739. 13021
of the Revised Code.13022

       Sec. 5507.53.        Sec. 128.53.  (A) There is hereby created the 13023
wireless 9-1-1 administrative fund in the state treasury. A 13024
sufficient percentage, determined by the chairperson of the public 13025
utilities commission but not to exceed twoTwo per cent, of the 13026
periodic remittances of the wireless 9-1-1 charges under section 13027
5507.46128.46 of the Revised Code shall be deposited to the 13028
credit of the fund, to be used by the commissionsteering 13029
committee to cover such nonpayroll costs and, at the discretion of 13030
the commissionsteering committee such payroll costs, of the 13031
commissionsteering committee as are incurred in assisting the 13032
coordinator in carrying out sections 5507.40 to 5507.66 of the 13033
Revised Code and in conducting audits under division (D) of 13034
section 5507.46 of the Revised Code. In addition, the compensation 13035
of the Ohio 9-1-1 coordinator, and any expenses of the coordinator 13036
in carrying out those sections, shall be paid from the fundthis 13037
chapter.13038

       (B) There is hereby created the wireless 9-1-1 government 13039
assistance fund, which shall be in the custody of the treasurer of 13040
state but shall not be part of the state treasury. The periodic 13041
remittances of the wireless 9-1-1 charges under section 5507.4613042
128.46 of the Revised Code, remaining after the deposit required 13043
by division (A) of this section, shall be deposited to the credit 13044
of the wireless 9-1-1 government assistance fund. The treasurer of 13045
state shall deposit or invest the moneys in this fund in 13046
accordance with Chapter 135. of the Revised Code and any other 13047
provision of law governing public moneys of the state as defined 13048
in section 135.01 of the Revised Code. The treasurer of state 13049
shall credit the interest earned to the fund. The treasurer of 13050
state shall disburse money from the fund solely upon order of the 13051
coordinatorsteering committee as authorized under division (A) of 13052
section 5507.55128.55 of the Revised Code. Annually, unless the 13053
fund is depleted, the treasurer of state shall certify to the 13054
coordinatorsteering committee the amount of moneys in the 13055
treasurer of state's custody belonging to the fund.13056

       (C) The commissionsteering committee shall transfer the 13057
funds remaining in the wireless 9-1-1 government assistance fund 13058
after the disbursements made under division (A) of section 5507.5513059
128.55 of the Revised Code to the credit of the next generation 13060
9-1-1 fund, created in section 5507.54128.54 of the Revised 13061
Code. 13062

       Sec. 5507.54.        Sec. 128.54. (A) Beginning January 1, 2014:13063

       (1) The periodic remittances of the wireless 9-1-1 charges 13064
under section 5507.46128.46 of the Revised Code shall be paid to 13065
the treasurer of state for deposit as follows: 13066

       (a) Ninety-eightNinety-seven per cent to the wireless 9-1-1 13067
government assistance fund, which is hereby created in the custody 13068
of the treasurer of state but which shall not be a part of the 13069
state treasury. The treasurer of state shall deposit or invest the 13070
moneys in this fund in accordance with Chapter 135. of the Revised 13071
Code and any other provision of law governing public moneys of the 13072
state as defined in section 135.01 of the Revised Code. The 13073
treasurer of state shall credit the interest earned to the fund. 13074
The treasurer of state shall disburse money from the fund solely 13075
upon order of the tax commissioner according to policies 13076
established by the statewide emergency services internet protocol 13077
network steering committee as authorized under section 5507.02113078
128.021 of the Revised Code. Annually, until the fund is depleted, 13079
the treasurer of state shall certify to the commissioner the 13080
amount of moneys in the treasurer of state's custody belonging to 13081
the fund.13082

       (b) One per cent to the wireless 9-1-1 administrative fund, 13083
which is hereby created in the state treasury. The treasurer of 13084
state shall credit the interest earned to the fund.13085

       (c) OneTwo per cent to the wireless 9-1-1 public safety 13086
administrativeprogram fund, which is hereby created in the state 13087
treasury. The treasurer of state shall credit the interest earned 13088
to the fund.13089

       (2) The tax commissioner shall use the remittances in the 13090
wireless 9-1-1 administrative fund to defray the costs in carrying 13091
out this chapter.13092

       (3) The director of public safetysteering committee shall 13093
use the remittances in the wireless 9-1-1 public safety 13094
administrativeprogram fund to defray the costs incurred by the 13095
departmentsteering committee in carrying out this chapter.13096

       (4) Annually, the tax commissioner and the director of public 13097
safetysteering committee, after paying administrative costs under 13098
division (B) of this section, shall transfer any excess remaining 13099
in the administrative funds to the next generation 9-1-1 fund, 13100
created under this section.13101

       (B)(1) There is hereby created the next generation 9-1-1 13102
fund, which shall be in the custody of the treasurer but shall not 13103
be a part of the state treasury.13104

       (2) Beginning on January 1, 2014, the tax commissioner shall 13105
transfer the funds remaining in the wireless 9-1-1 government 13106
assistance fund after the disbursements made under division (B)(1) 13107
of section 5507.55128.55 of the Revised Code to the credit of the 13108
next generation 9-1-1 fund. 13109

       (3) The treasurer of state shall deposit or invest the moneys 13110
in the next generation 9-1-1 fund in accordance with Chapter 135. 13111
of the Revised Code and any other provision of law governing 13112
public moneys of the state as defined in section 135.01 of the 13113
Revised Code. The treasurer of state shall credit the interest 13114
earned to the fund. The treasurer of state shall disburse money 13115
from the fund solely upon order of the tax commissioner according 13116
to policies established by the statewide emergency services 13117
internet protocol network steering committee as authorized under 13118
section 5507.021128.021 of the Revised Code. Annually, until the 13119
fund is depleted, the treasurer of state shall certify to the 13120
commissioner the amount of moneys in the treasurer of state's 13121
custody belonging to the fund.13122

       Sec. 5507.55.        Sec. 128.55. (A) Prior to January 1, 2014, the public 13123
utilities commissionsteering committee shall disburse moneys from 13124
the wireless 9-1-1 government assistance fund to each county in 13125
the same manner as the 2012 disbursements, in accordance with 13126
divisions (A) and (B) of section 4931.64 of the Revised Code as 13127
those divisions existed prior to the effective date of H.B. 360 of 13128
the 129th general assembly, December 20, 2012.13129

       (B) Beginning January 1, 2014:13130

       (1) The tax commissioner, not later than the last day of each 13131
month, shall disburse moneys from the wireless 9-1-1 government 13132
assistance fund to each county in the same manner as the 2012 13133
disbursements, in accordance with divisions (A) and (B) of section 13134
4931.64 of the Revised Code as those divisions existed prior to 13135
the effective date of H.B. 360 of the 129th general assembly, 13136
December 20, 2012.13137

       (2) The tax commissioner shall disburse moneys from the next 13138
generation 9-1-1 fund in accordance with the guidelines 13139
established under section 5507.022128.022 of the Revised Code.13140

       (C) Immediately upon receipt by a county treasurer of a 13141
disbursement under division (A) or (B)(1) of this section, the 13142
county shall disburse, in accordance with the allocation formula 13143
set forth in the final plan, the amount the county so received to 13144
any other subdivisions in the county and any regional councils of 13145
governments in the county that pay the costs of a public safety 13146
answering point providing wireless enhanced 9-1-1 under the plan.13147

       (D) Nothing in this chapter affects the authority of a 13148
subdivision operating or served by a public safety answering point 13149
of a 9-1-1 system or a regional council of governments operating a 13150
public safety answering point of a 9-1-1 system to use, as 13151
provided in the final plan for the system or in an agreement under 13152
section 5507.09128.09 of the Revised Code, any other authorized 13153
revenue of the subdivision or the regional council of governments 13154
for the purposes of providing basic or enhanced 9-1-1.13155

       Sec. 5507.57.        Sec. 128.57.  Except as otherwise provided in section 13156
5507.571128.571 of the Revised Code:13157

       (A) A countywide 9-1-1 system receiving a disbursement under 13158
section 5507.55128.55 of the Revised Code shall provide 13159
countywide wireless enhanced 9-1-1 in accordance with this chapter 13160
beginning as soon as reasonably possible after receipt of the 13161
first disbursement or, if that service is already implemented, 13162
shall continue to provide such service. Except as provided in 13163
divisions (B), (C), and (E) of this section, a disbursement shall 13164
be used solely for the purpose of paying either or both of the 13165
following:13166

       (1) Any costs of designing, upgrading, purchasing, leasing, 13167
programming, installing, testing, or maintaining the necessary 13168
data, hardware, software, and trunking required for the public 13169
safety answering point or points of the 9-1-1 system to provide 13170
wireless enhanced 9-1-1, which costs are incurred before or on or 13171
after May 6, 2005, and consist of such additional costs of the 13172
9-1-1 system over and above any costs incurred to provide wireline 13173
9-1-1 or to otherwise provide wireless enhanced 9-1-1. Annually, 13174
up to twenty-five thousand dollars of the disbursements received 13175
on or after January 1, 2009, may be applied to data, hardware, and 13176
software that automatically alerts personnel receiving a 9-1-1 13177
call that a person at the subscriber's address or telephone number 13178
may have a mental or physical disability, of which that personnel 13179
shall inform the appropriate emergency service provider. On or 13180
after the provision of technical and operational standards 13181
pursuant to division (D)(1) of section 5507.65128.021 of the 13182
Revised Code, a regional council of governments operating a public 13183
safety answering point or a subdivision shall consider the 13184
standards before incurring any costs described in this division.13185

       (2) Any costs of training the staff of the public safety 13186
answering point or points to provide wireless enhanced 9-1-1, 13187
which costs are incurred before or on or after May 6, 2005.13188

       (B) A subdivision or a regional council of governments that 13189
certifies to the department of public safetysteering committee13190
that it has paid the costs described in divisions (A)(1) and (2) 13191
of this section and is providing countywide wireless enhanced 13192
9-1-1 may use disbursements received under section 5507.55128.5513193
of the Revised Code to pay any of its personnel costs of one or 13194
more public safety answering points providing countywide wireless 13195
enhanced 9-1-1.13196

       (C) After receiving its July 2013 disbursement under division 13197
(A) of section 5507.55128.55 of the Revised Code, a regional 13198
council of governments operating a public safety answering point 13199
or a subdivision may use any remaining balance of disbursements it 13200
received under that division to pay any of its costs of providing 13201
countywide wireless 9-1-1, including the personnel costs of one or 13202
more public safety answering points providing that service.13203

       (D) The costs described in divisions (A), (B), (C), and (E) 13204
of this section may include any such costs payable pursuant to an 13205
agreement under division (J) of section 5507.03128.03 of the 13206
Revised Code.13207

       (E)(1) No disbursement to a countywide 9-1-1 system for costs 13208
of a public safety answering point shall be made from the wireless 13209
9-1-1 government assistance fund or the next generation 9-1-1 fund 13210
unless the public safety answering point meets the standards set 13211
by rule of the statewide emergency services internet protocol 13212
network steering committee under section 5507.021128.021 of the 13213
Revised Code. 13214

       (2) The department of public safetysteering committee shall 13215
monitor compliance with the standards set by the steering 13216
committee. The departmentand shall notify the tax commissioner to 13217
suspend disbursements to a countywide 9-1-1 system that fails to 13218
meet the standards. Upon receipt of this notification, the 13219
commissioner shall suspend disbursements until the commissioner is 13220
notified of compliance with the standards.13221

       (F) The auditor of state may audit and review each county's 13222
expenditures of funds received from the wireless 9-1-1 government 13223
assistance fund to verify that the funds were used in accordance 13224
with the requirements of this chapter.13225

       Sec. 5507.571.        Sec. 128.571.  (A) Payment of costs specified in 13226
divisions (A) to (D) of section 5507.57128.57 of the Revised Code 13227
from a disbursement under section 5507.55128.55 of the Revised 13228
Code shall be limited to those specified and payable costs 13229
incurred for a specified number of public safety answering points 13230
of the particular 9-1-1 system as follows:13231

       (1) For the period beginning on March 1, 2009, and ending on 13232
December 31, 2015, a countywide 9-1-1 system may use disbursements 13233
for not more than five public safety answering points per calendar 13234
year.13235

        (2) Except as provided in division (B) of this section: 13236

       (a) For the period beginning on January 1, 2016, and ending 13237
on December 31, 2017, a countywide 9-1-1 system may use 13238
disbursements for not more than four public safety answering 13239
points per calendar year.13240

       (b) For the period beginning on January 1, 2018, and 13241
thereafter a countywide 9-1-1 system may use disbursements for not 13242
more than three public safety answering points per calendar year.13243

        (B) If within a county there is a municipal corporation with 13244
a population of over 175,000one hundred seventy-five thousand13245
according to the most recent federal decennial census, that county 13246
may use disbursements for one public safety answering point in 13247
addition to the number of public safety answering points allowed 13248
under division (A)(2) of this section.13249

       (C) If a county exceeds the allowable number of public safety 13250
answering points under this section, disbursements to countywide 13251
9-1-1 systems made to the county from the wireless 9-1-1 13252
government assistance fund and the next generation 9-1-1 fund 13253
shall be reduced by fifty per cent until the county complies with 13254
the public safety answering point limitations established under 13255
this section.13256

       Sec. 5507.60.        Sec. 128.60.  (A)(1) A telephone company, the state 13257
highway patrol as described in division (J) of section 5507.0313258
128.03 of the Revised Code, and each subdivision or regional 13259
council of governments operating one or more public safety 13260
answering points for a countywide system providing wireless 9-1-1, 13261
shall provide the director of public safetysteering committee and 13262
the tax commissioner with such information as the director13263
steering committee and tax commissioner request for the purposes 13264
of carrying out their duties under this chapter, including, but 13265
not limited to, duties regarding the collection of the wireless 13266
9-1-1 charges imposed under section 5507.42128.42 of the Revised 13267
Code.13268

       (2) A wireless service provider shall provide an official, 13269
employee, agent, or representative of a subdivision or regional 13270
council of governments operating a public safety answering point, 13271
or of the state highway patrol as described in division (J) of 13272
section 5507.03128.03 of the Revised Code, with such technical, 13273
service, and location information as the official, employee, 13274
agent, or representative requests for the purpose of providing 13275
wireless 9-1-1.13276

       (3) A subdivision or regional council of governments 13277
operating one or more public safety answering points of a 9-1-1 13278
system, and a telephone company, shall provide to the Ohio 9-1-1 13279
councilsteering committee such information as the council13280
steering committee requires for the purpose of carrying out its 13281
duties under division (D) of section 5507.65Chapter 128. of the 13282
Revised Code.13283

       (B)(1) Any information provided under division (A) of this 13284
section that consists of trade secrets as defined in section 13285
1333.61 of the Revised Code or of information regarding the 13286
customers, revenues, expenses, or network information of a 13287
telephone company shall be confidential and does not constitute a 13288
public record for the purpose of section 149.43 of the Revised 13289
Code.13290

       (2) The directorsteering committee, tax commissioner, and 13291
any official, employee, agent, or representative of the director13292
steering committee, of the tax commissioner, of the state highway 13293
patrol as described in division (J) of section 5507.03128.03 of 13294
the Revised Code, or of a subdivision or regional council of 13295
governments operating a public safety answering point, while 13296
acting or claiming to act in the capacity of the directorsteering 13297
committee or tax commissioner or such official, employee, agent, 13298
or representative, shall not disclose any information provided 13299
under division (A) of this section regarding a telephone company's 13300
customers, revenues, expenses, or network information. Nothing in 13301
division (B)(2) of this section precludes any such information 13302
from being aggregated and included in any report required under 13303
division (D) of section 5507.66 of the Revised Codeof the 13304
steering committee, tax commissioner, or any official, employee, 13305
agent, or representative of the steering committee or tax 13306
commissioner, provided the aggregated information does not 13307
identify the number of any particular company's customers or the 13308
amount of its revenues or expenses or identify a particular 13309
company as to any network information.13310

       Sec. 5507.63.        Sec. 128.63.  (A) The tax commissioner may adopt 13311
rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to carry 13312
out this chapter, including rules prescribing the necessary 13313
accounting for the collection fee under division (B)(4) of section 13314
5507.46128.46 of the Revised Code. 13315

       (B) The amounts of the wireless 9-1-1 charges shall be 13316
prescribed only by act of the general assembly.13317

       Sec. 5507.99.        Sec. 128.99.  (A) Whoever violates division (E) of 13318
section 5507.32128.32 of the Revised Code is guilty of a 13319
misdemeanor of the fourth degree.13320

       (B) Whoever violates division (F) or (G) of section 5507.3213321
128.32 or division (B)(2) of section 5507.60128.60 of the Revised 13322
Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree on a first 13323
offense and a felony of the fifth degree on each subsequent 13324
offense.13325

       Sec. 131.51.  (A) On or before July 5, 2013, the tax 13326
commissioner shall compute the following amounts and certify those 13327
amounts to the director of budget and management: 13328

        (1) A percentage calculated by multiplying one hundred by the 13329
quotient obtained by dividing the total amount credited to the 13330
local government fund in fiscal year 2013 by the total amount of 13331
tax revenue credited to the general revenue fund in fiscal year 13332
2013. The percentage shall be rounded to the nearest one-hundredth 13333
of one per cent.13334

       (2) A percentage calculated by multiplying one hundred by the 13335
quotient obtained by dividing the total amount credited to the 13336
public library fund in fiscal year 2013 by the total amount of tax 13337
revenue credited to the general revenue fund in fiscal year 2013. 13338
The percentage shall be rounded to the nearest one-hundredth of 13339
one per cent.13340

       (B) On or before the seventh day of each month, the director 13341
of budget and management shall credit to the local government fund 13342
an amount equal to the product obtained by multiplying the 13343
percentage calculated under division (A)(1) of this section by the 13344
total tax revenue credited to the general revenue fund during the 13345
preceding month. In determining the total tax revenue credited to 13346
the general revenue fund during the preceding month, the director 13347
shall include amounts transferred from the fund during the 13348
preceding month under this division and division (C) of this 13349
section. Money shall be distributed from the local government fund 13350
as required under section 5747.50 of the Revised Code during the 13351
same month in which it is credited to the fund.13352

        (C) On or before the seventh day of each month, the director 13353
of budget and management shall credit to the public library fund 13354
an amount equal to the product obtained by multiplying the 13355
percentage calculated under division (A)(2) of this section by the 13356
total tax revenue credited to the general revenue fund during the 13357
preceding month. In determining the total tax revenue credited to 13358
the general revenue fund during the preceding month, the director 13359
shall include amounts transferred from the fund during the 13360
preceding month under this division and division (B) of this 13361
section. Money shall be distributed from the public library fund 13362
as required under section 5747.47 of the Revised Code during the 13363
same month in which it is credited to the fund.13364

       (D) The director of budget and management shall develop a 13365
schedule identifying the specific tax revenue sources to be used 13366
to make the monthly transfers required under divisions (B) and (C) 13367
of this section. The director may, from time to time, revise the 13368
schedule as the director considers necessary.13369

       Sec. 133.01.  As used in this chapter, in sections 9.95, 13370
9.96, and 2151.655 of the Revised Code, in other sections of the 13371
Revised Code that make reference to this chapter unless the 13372
context does not permit, and in related proceedings, unless 13373
otherwise expressly provided:13374

       (A) "Acquisition" as applied to real or personal property 13375
includes, among other forms of acquisition, acquisition by 13376
exercise of a purchase option, and acquisition of interests in 13377
property, including, without limitation, easements and 13378
rights-of-way, and leasehold and other lease interests initially 13379
extending or extendable for a period of at least sixty months.13380

       (B) "Anticipatory securities" means securities, including 13381
notes, issued in anticipation of the issuance of other securities.13382

       (C) "Board of elections" means the county board of elections 13383
of the county in which the subdivision is located. If the 13384
subdivision is located in more than one county, "board of 13385
elections" means the county board of elections of the county that 13386
contains the largest portion of the population of the subdivision 13387
or that otherwise has jurisdiction in practice over and 13388
customarily handles election matters relating to the subdivision.13389

       (D) "Bond retirement fund" means the bond retirement fund 13390
provided for in section 5705.09 of the Revised Code, and also 13391
means a sinking fund or any other special fund, regardless of the 13392
name applied to it, established by or pursuant to law or the 13393
proceedings for the payment of debt charges. Provision may be made 13394
in the applicable proceedings for the establishment in a bond 13395
retirement fund of separate accounts relating to debt charges on 13396
particular securities, or on securities payable from the same or 13397
common sources, and for the application of moneys in those 13398
accounts only to specified debt charges on specified securities or 13399
categories of securities. Subject to law and any provisions in the 13400
applicable proceedings, moneys in a bond retirement fund or 13401
separate account in a bond retirement fund may be transferred to 13402
other funds and accounts.13403

       (E) "Capitalized interest" means all or a portion of the 13404
interest payable on securities from their date to a date stated or 13405
provided for in the applicable legislation, which interest is to 13406
be paid from the proceeds of the securities.13407

       (F) "Chapter 133. securities" means securities authorized by 13408
or issued pursuant to or in accordance with this chapter.13409

       (G) "County auditor" means the county auditor of the county 13410
in which the subdivision is located. If the subdivision is located 13411
in more than one county, "county auditor" means the county auditor 13412
of the county that contains the highest amount of the tax 13413
valuation of the subdivision or that otherwise has jurisdiction in 13414
practice over and customarily handles property tax matters 13415
relating to the subdivision. In the case of a county that has 13416
adopted a charter, "county auditor" means the officer who 13417
generally has the duties and functions provided in the Revised 13418
Code for a county auditor.13419

       (H) "Credit enhancement facilities" means letters of credit, 13420
lines of credit, stand-by, contingent, or firm securities purchase 13421
agreements, insurance, or surety arrangements, guarantees, and 13422
other arrangements that provide for direct or contingent payment 13423
of debt charges, for security or additional security in the event 13424
of nonpayment or default in respect of securities, or for making 13425
payment of debt charges to and at the option and on demand of 13426
securities holders or at the option of the issuer or upon certain 13427
conditions occurring under put or similar arrangements, or for 13428
otherwise supporting the credit or liquidity of the securities, 13429
and includes credit, reimbursement, marketing, remarketing, 13430
indexing, carrying, interest rate hedge, and subrogation 13431
agreements, and other agreements and arrangements for payment and 13432
reimbursement of the person providing the credit enhancement 13433
facility and the security for that payment and reimbursement.13434

       (I) "Current operating expenses" or "current expenses" means 13435
the lawful expenditures of a subdivision, except those for 13436
permanent improvements and for payments of debt charges of the 13437
subdivision.13438

       (J) "Debt charges" means the principal, including any 13439
mandatory sinking fund deposits and mandatory redemption payments, 13440
interest, and any redemption premium, payable on securities as 13441
those payments come due and are payable. The use of "debt charges" 13442
for this purpose does not imply that any particular securities 13443
constitute debt within the meaning of the Ohio Constitution or 13444
other laws.13445

       (K) "Financing costs" means all costs and expenses relating 13446
to the authorization, including any required election, issuance, 13447
sale, delivery, authentication, deposit, custody, clearing, 13448
registration, transfer, exchange, fractionalization, replacement, 13449
payment, and servicing of securities, including, without 13450
limitation, costs and expenses for or relating to publication and 13451
printing, postage, delivery, preliminary and final official 13452
statements, offering circulars, and informational statements, 13453
travel and transportation, underwriters, placement agents, 13454
investment bankers, paying agents, registrars, authenticating 13455
agents, remarketing agents, custodians, clearing agencies or 13456
corporations, securities depositories, financial advisory 13457
services, certifications, audits, federal or state regulatory 13458
agencies, accounting and computation services, legal services and 13459
obtaining approving legal opinions and other legal opinions, 13460
credit ratings, redemption premiums, and credit enhancement 13461
facilities. Financing costs may be paid from any moneys available 13462
for the purpose, including, unless otherwise provided in the 13463
proceedings, from the proceeds of the securities to which they 13464
relate and, as to future financing costs, from the same sources 13465
from which debt charges on the securities are paid and as though 13466
debt charges.13467

       (L) "Fiscal officer" means the following, or, in the case of 13468
absence or vacancy in the office, a deputy or assistant authorized 13469
by law or charter to act in the place of the named officer, or if 13470
there is no such authorization then the deputy or assistant 13471
authorized by legislation to act in the place of the named officer 13472
for purposes of this chapter, in the case of the following 13473
subdivisions:13474

       (1) A county, the county auditor;13475

       (2) A municipal corporation, the city auditor or village 13476
clerk or clerk-treasurer, or the officer who, by virtue of a 13477
charter, has the duties and functions provided in the Revised Code 13478
for the city auditor or village clerk or clerk-treasurer;13479

       (3) A school district, the treasurer of the board of 13480
education;13481

       (4) A regional water and sewer district, the secretary of the 13482
board of trustees;13483

       (5) A joint township hospital district, the treasurer of the 13484
district;13485

       (6) A joint ambulance district, the clerk of the board of 13486
trustees;13487

       (7) A joint recreation district, the person designated 13488
pursuant to section 755.15 of the Revised Code;13489

       (8) A detention facility district or a district organized 13490
under section 2151.65 of the Revised Code or a combined district 13491
organized under sections 2152.41 and 2151.65 of the Revised Code, 13492
the county auditor of the county designated by law to act as the 13493
auditor of the district;13494

       (9) A township, a fire district organized under division (C) 13495
of section 505.37 of the Revised Code, or a township police 13496
district, the fiscal officer of the township;13497

       (10) A joint fire district, the clerk of the board of 13498
trustees of that district;13499

       (11) A regional or county library district, the person 13500
responsible for the financial affairs of that district;13501

       (12) A joint solid waste management district, the fiscal 13502
officer appointed by the board of directors of the district under 13503
section 343.01 of the Revised Code;13504

       (13) A joint emergency medical services district, the person 13505
appointed as fiscal officer pursuant to division (D) of section 13506
307.053 of the Revised Code;13507

       (14) A fire and ambulance district, the person appointed as 13508
fiscal officer under division (B) of section 505.375 of the 13509
Revised Code;13510

       (15) A subdivision described in division (MM)(18)(19) of this 13511
section, the officer who is designated by law as or performs the 13512
functions of its chief fiscal officer;13513

       (16) A joint police district, the treasurer of the district;13514

       (17) A lake facilities authority, the fiscal officer 13515
designated under section 353.02 of the Revised Code.13516

       (M) "Fiscal year" has the same meaning as in section 9.34 of 13517
the Revised Code.13518

       (N) "Fractionalized interests in public obligations" means 13519
participations, certificates of participation, shares, or other 13520
instruments or agreements, separate from the public obligations 13521
themselves, evidencing ownership of interests in public 13522
obligations or of rights to receive payments of, or on account of, 13523
principal or interest or their equivalents payable by or on behalf 13524
of an obligor pursuant to public obligations.13525

       (O) "Fully registered securities" means securities in 13526
certificated or uncertificated form, registered as to both 13527
principal and interest in the name of the owner.13528

       (P) "Fund" means to provide for the payment of debt charges 13529
and expenses related to that payment at or prior to retirement by 13530
purchase, call for redemption, payment at maturity, or otherwise.13531

       (Q) "General obligation" means securities to the payment of 13532
debt charges on which the full faith and credit and the general 13533
property taxing power, including taxes within the tax limitation 13534
if available to the subdivision, of the subdivision are pledged.13535

       (R) "Interest" or "interest equivalent" means those payments 13536
or portions of payments, however denominated, that constitute or 13537
represent consideration for forbearing the collection of money, or 13538
for deferring the receipt of payment of money to a future time.13539

       (S) "Internal Revenue Code" means the "Internal Revenue Code 13540
of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 1 et seq., as amended, and 13541
includes any laws of the United States providing for application 13542
of that code.13543

       (T) "Issuer" means any public issuer and any nonprofit 13544
corporation authorized to issue securities for or on behalf of any 13545
public issuer.13546

       (U) "Legislation" means an ordinance or resolution passed by 13547
a majority affirmative vote of the then members of the taxing 13548
authority unless a different vote is required by charter 13549
provisions governing the passage of the particular legislation by 13550
the taxing authority.13551

       (V) "Mandatory sinking fund redemption requirements" means 13552
amounts required by proceedings to be deposited in a bond 13553
retirement fund for the purpose of paying in any year or fiscal 13554
year by mandatory redemption prior to stated maturity the 13555
principal of securities that is due and payable, except for 13556
mandatory prior redemption requirements as provided in those 13557
proceedings, in a subsequent year or fiscal year.13558

       (W) "Mandatory sinking fund requirements" means amounts 13559
required by proceedings to be deposited in a year or fiscal year 13560
in a bond retirement fund for the purpose of paying the principal 13561
of securities that is due and payable in a subsequent year or 13562
fiscal year.13563

       (X) "Net indebtedness" has the same meaning as in division 13564
(A) of section 133.04 of the Revised Code.13565

       (Y) "Obligor," in the case of securities or fractionalized 13566
interests in public obligations issued by another person the debt 13567
charges or their equivalents on which are payable from payments 13568
made by a public issuer, means that public issuer.13569

       (Z) "One purpose" relating to permanent improvements means 13570
any one permanent improvement or group or category of permanent 13571
improvements for the same utility, enterprise, system, or project, 13572
development or redevelopment project, or for or devoted to the 13573
same general purpose, function, or use or for which 13574
self-supporting securities, based on the same or different sources 13575
of revenues, may be issued or for which special assessments may be 13576
levied by a single ordinance or resolution. "One purpose" 13577
includes, but is not limited to, in any case any off-street 13578
parking facilities relating to another permanent improvement, and:13579

       (1) Any number of roads, highways, streets, bridges, 13580
sidewalks, and viaducts;13581

       (2) Any number of off-street parking facilities;13582

       (3) In the case of a county, any number of permanent 13583
improvements for courthouse, jail, county offices, and other 13584
county buildings, and related facilities;13585

       (4) In the case of a school district, any number of 13586
facilities and buildings for school district purposes, and related 13587
facilities.13588

       (AA) "Outstanding," referring to securities, means securities 13589
that have been issued, delivered, and paid for, except any of the 13590
following:13591

       (1) Securities canceled upon surrender, exchange, or 13592
transfer, or upon payment or redemption;13593

       (2) Securities in replacement of which or in exchange for 13594
which other securities have been issued;13595

       (3) Securities for the payment, or redemption or purchase for 13596
cancellation prior to maturity, of which sufficient moneys or 13597
investments, in accordance with the applicable legislation or 13598
other proceedings or any applicable law, by mandatory sinking fund 13599
redemption requirements, mandatory sinking fund requirements, or 13600
otherwise, have been deposited, and credited for the purpose in a 13601
bond retirement fund or with a trustee or paying or escrow agent, 13602
whether at or prior to their maturity or redemption, and, in the 13603
case of securities to be redeemed prior to their stated maturity, 13604
notice of redemption has been given or satisfactory arrangements 13605
have been made for giving notice of that redemption, or waiver of 13606
that notice by or on behalf of the affected security holders has 13607
been filed with the subdivision or its agent for the purpose.13608

       (BB) "Paying agent" means the one or more banks, trust 13609
companies, or other financial institutions or qualified persons, 13610
including an appropriate office or officer of the subdivision, 13611
designated as a paying agent or place of payment of debt charges 13612
on the particular securities.13613

       (CC) "Permanent improvement" or "improvement" means any 13614
property, asset, or improvement certified by the fiscal officer, 13615
which certification is conclusive, as having an estimated life or 13616
period of usefulness of five years or more, and includes, but is 13617
not limited to, real estate, buildings, and personal property and 13618
interests in real estate, buildings, and personal property, 13619
equipment, furnishings, and site improvements, and reconstruction, 13620
rehabilitation, renovation, installation, improvement, 13621
enlargement, and extension of property, assets, or improvements so 13622
certified as having an estimated life or period of usefulness of 13623
five years or more. The acquisition of all the stock ownership of 13624
a corporation is the acquisition of a permanent improvement to the 13625
extent that the value of that stock is represented by permanent 13626
improvements. A permanent improvement for parking, highway, road, 13627
and street purposes includes resurfacing, but does not include 13628
ordinary repair.13629

       (DD) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 1.59 of the 13630
Revised Code and also includes any federal, state, interstate, 13631
regional, or local governmental agency, any subdivision, and any 13632
combination of those persons.13633

       (EE) "Proceedings" means the legislation, certifications, 13634
notices, orders, sale proceedings, trust agreement or indenture, 13635
mortgage, lease, lease-purchase agreement, assignment, credit 13636
enhancement facility agreements, and other agreements, 13637
instruments, and documents, as amended and supplemented, and any 13638
election proceedings, authorizing, or providing for the terms and 13639
conditions applicable to, or providing for the security or sale or 13640
award of, public obligations, and includes the provisions set 13641
forth or incorporated in those public obligations and proceedings.13642

       (FF) "Public issuer" means any of the following that is 13643
authorized by law to issue securities or enter into public 13644
obligations:13645

       (1) The state, including an agency, commission, officer, 13646
institution, board, authority, or other instrumentality of the 13647
state;13648

       (2) A taxing authority, subdivision, district, or other local 13649
public or governmental entity, and any combination or consortium, 13650
or public division, district, commission, authority, department, 13651
board, officer, or institution, thereof;13652

       (3) Any other body corporate and politic, or other public 13653
entity.13654

       (GG) "Public obligations" means both of the following:13655

       (1) Securities;13656

       (2) Obligations of a public issuer to make payments under 13657
installment sale, lease, lease purchase, or similar agreements, 13658
which obligations may bear interest or interest equivalent.13659

       (HH) "Refund" means to fund and retire outstanding 13660
securities, including advance refunding with or without payment or 13661
redemption prior to maturity.13662

       (II) "Register" means the books kept and maintained by the 13663
registrar for registration, exchange, and transfer of registered 13664
securities.13665

       (JJ) "Registrar" means the person responsible for keeping the 13666
register for the particular registered securities, designated by 13667
or pursuant to the proceedings.13668

       (KK) "Securities" means bonds, notes, certificates of 13669
indebtedness, commercial paper, and other instruments in writing, 13670
including, unless the context does not admit, anticipatory 13671
securities, issued by an issuer to evidence its obligation to 13672
repay money borrowed, or to pay interest, by, or to pay at any 13673
future time other money obligations of, the issuer of the 13674
securities, but not including public obligations described in 13675
division (GG)(2) of this section.13676

       (LL) "Self-supporting securities" means securities or 13677
portions of securities issued for the purpose of paying costs of 13678
permanent improvements to the extent that receipts of the 13679
subdivision, other than the proceeds of taxes levied by that 13680
subdivision, derived from or with respect to the improvements or 13681
the operation of the improvements being financed, or the 13682
enterprise, system, project, or category of improvements of which 13683
the improvements being financed are part, are estimated by the 13684
fiscal officer to be sufficient to pay the current expenses of 13685
that operation or of those improvements or enterprise, system, 13686
project, or categories of improvements and the debt charges 13687
payable from those receipts on securities issued for the purpose. 13688
Until such time as the improvements or increases in rates and 13689
charges have been in operation or effect for a period of at least 13690
six months, the receipts therefrom, for purposes of this 13691
definition, shall be those estimated by the fiscal officer, except 13692
that those receipts may include, without limitation, payments made 13693
and to be made to the subdivision under leases or agreements in 13694
effect at the time the estimate is made. In the case of an 13695
operation, improvements, or enterprise, system, project, or 13696
category of improvements without at least a six-month history of 13697
receipts, the estimate of receipts by the fiscal officer, other 13698
than those to be derived under leases and agreements then in 13699
effect, shall be confirmed by the taxing authority.13700

       (MM) "Subdivision" means any of the following:13701

       (1) A county, including a county that has adopted a charter 13702
under Article X, Ohio Constitution;13703

       (2) A municipal corporation, including a municipal 13704
corporation that has adopted a charter under Article XVIII, Ohio 13705
Constitution;13706

       (3) A school district;13707

       (4) A regional water and sewer district organized under 13708
Chapter 6119. of the Revised Code;13709

       (5) A joint township hospital district organized under 13710
section 513.07 of the Revised Code;13711

       (6) A joint ambulance district organized under section 505.71 13712
of the Revised Code;13713

       (7) A joint recreation district organized under division (C) 13714
of section 755.14 of the Revised Code;13715

       (8) A detention facility district organized under section 13716
2152.41, a district organized under section 2151.65, or a combined 13717
district organized under sections 2152.41 and 2151.65 of the 13718
Revised Code;13719

       (9) A township police district organized under section 505.48 13720
of the Revised Code;13721

       (10) A township;13722

       (11) A joint fire district organized under section 505.371 of 13723
the Revised Code;13724

       (12) A county library district created under section 3375.19 13725
or a regional library district created under section 3375.28 of 13726
the Revised Code;13727

       (13) A joint solid waste management district organized under 13728
section 343.01 or 343.012 of the Revised Code;13729

       (14) A joint emergency medical services district organized 13730
under section 307.052 of the Revised Code;13731

       (15) A fire and ambulance district organized under section 13732
505.375 of the Revised Code;13733

       (16) A fire district organized under division (C) of section 13734
505.37 of the Revised Code;13735

       (17) A joint police district organized under section 505.482 13736
of the Revised Code;13737

       (18) A lake facilities authority created under Chapter 353. 13738
of the Revised Code;13739

       (19) Any other political subdivision or taxing district or 13740
other local public body or agency authorized by this chapter or 13741
other laws to issue Chapter 133. securities.13742

       (NN) "Taxing authority" means in the case of the following 13743
subdivisions:13744

       (1) A county, a county library district, or a regional 13745
library district, the board or boards of county commissioners, or 13746
other legislative authority of a county that has adopted a charter 13747
under Article X, Ohio Constitution, but with respect to such a 13748
library district acting solely as agent for the board of trustees 13749
of that district;13750

       (2) A municipal corporation, the legislative authority;13751

       (3) A school district, the board of education;13752

       (4) A regional water and sewer district, a joint ambulance 13753
district, a joint recreation district, a fire and ambulance 13754
district, or a joint fire district, the board of trustees of the 13755
district;13756

       (5) A joint township hospital district, the joint township 13757
hospital board;13758

       (6) A detention facility district or a district organized 13759
under section 2151.65 of the Revised Code, a combined district 13760
organized under sections 2152.41 and 2151.65 of the Revised Code, 13761
or a joint emergency medical services district, the joint board of 13762
county commissioners;13763

       (7) A township, a fire district organized under division (C) 13764
of section 505.37 of the Revised Code, or a township police 13765
district, the board of township trustees;13766

       (8) A joint solid waste management district organized under 13767
section 343.01 or 343.012 of the Revised Code, the board of 13768
directors of the district;13769

       (9) A subdivision described in division (MM)(18)(19) of this 13770
section, the legislative or governing body or official;13771

       (10) A joint police district, the joint police district 13772
board;13773

       (11) A lake facilities authority, the board of directors.13774

       (OO) "Tax limitation" means the "ten-mill limitation" as 13775
defined in section 5705.02 of the Revised Code without diminution 13776
by reason of section 5705.313 of the Revised Code or otherwise, 13777
or, in the case of a municipal corporation or county with a 13778
different charter limitation on property taxes levied to pay debt 13779
charges on unvoted securities, that charter limitation. Those 13780
limitations shall be respectively referred to as the "ten-mill 13781
limitation" and the "charter tax limitation."13782

       (PP) "Tax valuation" means the aggregate of the valuations of 13783
property subject to ad valorem property taxation by the 13784
subdivision on the real property, personal property, and public 13785
utility property tax lists and duplicates most recently certified 13786
for collection, and shall be calculated without deductions of the 13787
valuations of otherwise taxable property exempt in whole or in 13788
part from taxation by reason of exemptions of certain amounts of 13789
taxable value under division (C) of section 5709.01, tax 13790
reductions under section 323.152 of the Revised Code, or similar 13791
laws now or in the future in effect.13792

       For purposes of section 133.06 of the Revised Code, "tax 13793
valuation" shall not include the valuation of tangible personal 13794
property used in business, telephone or telegraph property, 13795
interexchange telecommunications company property, or personal 13796
property owned or leased by a railroad company and used in 13797
railroad operations listed under or described in section 5711.22, 13798
division (B) or (F) of section 5727.111, or section 5727.12 of the 13799
Revised Code.13800

       (QQ) "Year" means the calendar year.13801

       (RR) "Administrative agent," "agent," "commercial paper," 13802
"floating rate interest structure," "indexing agent," "interest 13803
rate hedge," "interest rate period," "put arrangement," and 13804
"remarketing agent" have the same meanings as in section 9.98 of 13805
the Revised Code.13806

       (SS) "Sales tax supported" means obligations to the payment 13807
of debt charges on which an additional sales tax or additional 13808
sales taxes have been pledged by the taxing authority of a county 13809
pursuant to section 133.081 of the Revised Code.13810

       Sec. 133.06.  (A) A school district shall not incur, without 13811
a vote of the electors, net indebtedness that exceeds an amount 13812
equal to one-tenth of one per cent of its tax valuation, except as 13813
provided in divisions (G) and (H) of this section and in division 13814
(C) of section 3313.372 of the Revised Code, or as prescribed in 13815
section 3318.052 or 3318.44 of the Revised Code, or as provided in 13816
division (J) of this section.13817

       (B) Except as provided in divisions (E), (F), and (I) of this 13818
section, a school district shall not incur net indebtedness that 13819
exceeds an amount equal to nine per cent of its tax valuation.13820

       (C) A school district shall not submit to a vote of the 13821
electors the question of the issuance of securities in an amount 13822
that will make the district's net indebtedness after the issuance 13823
of the securities exceed an amount equal to four per cent of its 13824
tax valuation, unless the superintendent of public instruction, 13825
acting under policies adopted by the state board of education, and 13826
the tax commissioner, acting under written policies of the 13827
commissioner, consent to the submission. A request for the 13828
consents shall be made at least one hundred twenty days prior to 13829
the election at which the question is to be submitted.13830

       The superintendent of public instruction shall certify to the 13831
district the superintendent's and the tax commissioner's decisions 13832
within thirty days after receipt of the request for consents.13833

       If the electors do not approve the issuance of securities at 13834
the election for which the superintendent of public instruction 13835
and tax commissioner consented to the submission of the question, 13836
the school district may submit the same question to the electors 13837
on the date that the next special election may be held under 13838
section 3501.01 of the Revised Code without submitting a new 13839
request for consent. If the school district seeks to submit the 13840
same question at any other subsequent election, the district shall 13841
first submit a new request for consent in accordance with this 13842
division.13843

       (D) In calculating the net indebtedness of a school district, 13844
none of the following shall be considered:13845

       (1) Securities issued to acquire school buses and other 13846
equipment used in transporting pupils or issued pursuant to 13847
division (D) of section 133.10 of the Revised Code;13848

       (2) Securities issued under division (F) of this section, 13849
under section 133.301 of the Revised Code, and, to the extent in 13850
excess of the limitation stated in division (B) of this section, 13851
under division (E) of this section;13852

       (3) Indebtedness resulting from the dissolution of a joint 13853
vocational school district under section 3311.217 of the Revised 13854
Code, evidenced by outstanding securities of that joint vocational 13855
school district;13856

       (4) Loans, evidenced by any securities, received under 13857
sections 3313.483, 3317.0210, and 3317.0211, and 3317.64 of the 13858
Revised Code;13859

       (5) Debt incurred under section 3313.374 of the Revised Code;13860

       (6) Debt incurred pursuant to division (B)(5) of section 13861
3313.37 of the Revised Code to acquire computers and related 13862
hardware;13863

       (7) Debt incurred under section 3318.042 of the Revised Code.13864

       (E) A school district may become a special needs district as 13865
to certain securities as provided in division (E) of this section.13866

       (1) A board of education, by resolution, may declare its 13867
school district to be a special needs district by determining both 13868
of the following:13869

       (a) The student population is not being adequately serviced 13870
by the existing permanent improvements of the district.13871

       (b) The district cannot obtain sufficient funds by the 13872
issuance of securities within the limitation of division (B) of 13873
this section to provide additional or improved needed permanent 13874
improvements in time to meet the needs.13875

       (2) The board of education shall certify a copy of that 13876
resolution to the superintendent of public instruction with a 13877
statistical report showing all of the following:13878

       (a) The history of and a projection of the growth of the tax 13879
valuation;13880

       (b) The projected needs;13881

       (c) The estimated cost of permanent improvements proposed to 13882
meet such projected needs.13883

       (3) The superintendent of public instruction shall certify 13884
the district as an approved special needs district if the 13885
superintendent finds both of the following:13886

       (a) The district does not have available sufficient 13887
additional funds from state or federal sources to meet the 13888
projected needs.13889

       (b) The projection of the potential average growth of tax 13890
valuation during the next five years, according to the information 13891
certified to the superintendent and any other information the 13892
superintendent obtains, indicates a likelihood of potential 13893
average growth of tax valuation of the district during the next 13894
five years of an average of not less than one and one-half per 13895
cent per year. The findings and certification of the 13896
superintendent shall be conclusive.13897

       (4) An approved special needs district may incur net 13898
indebtedness by the issuance of securities in accordance with the 13899
provisions of this chapter in an amount that does not exceed an 13900
amount equal to the greater of the following:13901

       (a) Twelve per cent of the sum of its tax valuation plus an 13902
amount that is the product of multiplying that tax valuation by 13903
the percentage by which the tax valuation has increased over the 13904
tax valuation on the first day of the sixtieth month preceding the 13905
month in which its board determines to submit to the electors the 13906
question of issuing the proposed securities;13907

       (b) Twelve per cent of the sum of its tax valuation plus an 13908
amount that is the product of multiplying that tax valuation by 13909
the percentage, determined by the superintendent of public 13910
instruction, by which that tax valuation is projected to increase 13911
during the next ten years.13912

       (F) A school district may issue securities for emergency 13913
purposes, in a principal amount that does not exceed an amount 13914
equal to three per cent of its tax valuation, as provided in this 13915
division.13916

       (1) A board of education, by resolution, may declare an 13917
emergency if it determines both of the following:13918

       (a) School buildings or other necessary school facilities in 13919
the district have been wholly or partially destroyed, or condemned 13920
by a constituted public authority, or that such buildings or 13921
facilities are partially constructed, or so constructed or planned 13922
as to require additions and improvements to them before the 13923
buildings or facilities are usable for their intended purpose, or 13924
that corrections to permanent improvements are necessary to remove 13925
or prevent health or safety hazards.13926

       (b) Existing fiscal and net indebtedness limitations make 13927
adequate replacement, additions, or improvements impossible.13928

       (2) Upon the declaration of an emergency, the board of 13929
education may, by resolution, submit to the electors of the 13930
district pursuant to section 133.18 of the Revised Code the 13931
question of issuing securities for the purpose of paying the cost, 13932
in excess of any insurance or condemnation proceeds received by 13933
the district, of permanent improvements to respond to the 13934
emergency need.13935

       (3) The procedures for the election shall be as provided in 13936
section 133.18 of the Revised Code, except that:13937

       (a) The form of the ballot shall describe the emergency 13938
existing, refer to this division as the authority under which the 13939
emergency is declared, and state that the amount of the proposed 13940
securities exceeds the limitations prescribed by division (B) of 13941
this section;13942

       (b) The resolution required by division (B) of section 133.18 13943
of the Revised Code shall be certified to the county auditor and 13944
the board of elections at least one hundred days prior to the 13945
election;13946

       (c) The county auditor shall advise and, not later than 13947
ninety-five days before the election, confirm that advice by 13948
certification to, the board of education of the information 13949
required by division (C) of section 133.18 of the Revised Code;13950

       (d) The board of education shall then certify its resolution 13951
and the information required by division (D) of section 133.18 of 13952
the Revised Code to the board of elections not less than ninety 13953
days prior to the election.13954

       (4) Notwithstanding division (B) of section 133.21 of the 13955
Revised Code, the first principal payment of securities issued 13956
under this division may be set at any date not later than sixty 13957
months after the earliest possible principal payment otherwise 13958
provided for in that division.13959

       (G)(1) The board of education may contract with an architect, 13960
professional engineer, or other person experienced in the design 13961
and implementation of energy conservation measures for an analysis 13962
and recommendations pertaining to installations, modifications of 13963
installations, or remodeling that would significantly reduce 13964
energy consumption in buildings owned by the district. The report 13965
shall include estimates of all costs of such installations, 13966
modifications, or remodeling, including costs of design, 13967
engineering, installation, maintenance, repairs, and debt service, 13968
forgone residual value of materials or equipment replaced by the 13969
energy conservation measure, as defined by the Ohio school 13970
facilities commission, a baseline analysis of actual energy 13971
consumption data for the preceding three years with the utility 13972
baseline based on only the actual energy consumption data for the 13973
preceding twelve months, and estimates of the amounts by which 13974
energy consumption and resultant operational and maintenance 13975
costs, as defined by the commission, would be reduced.13976

       If the board finds after receiving the report that the amount 13977
of money the district would spend on such installations, 13978
modifications, or remodeling is not likely to exceed the amount of 13979
money it would save in energy and resultant operational and 13980
maintenance costs over the ensuing fifteen years, the board may 13981
submit to the commission a copy of its findings and a request for 13982
approval to incur indebtedness to finance the making or 13983
modification of installations or the remodeling of buildings for 13984
the purpose of significantly reducing energy consumption.13985

       If the commission determines that the board's findings are 13986
reasonable, itThe school facilities commission, in consultation 13987
with the auditor of state, may deny a request under this division 13988
by the board of education any school district is in a state of 13989
fiscal watch pursuant to division (A) of section 3316.03 of the 13990
Revised Code, if it determines that the expenditure of funds is 13991
not in the best interest of the school district.13992

       No district board of education of a school district that is 13993
in a state of fiscal emergency pursuant to division (B) of section 13994
3316.03 of the Revised Code shall submit a request without 13995
submitting evidence that the installations, modifications, or 13996
remodeling have been approved by the district's financial planning 13997
and supervision commission established under section 3316.05 of 13998
the Revised Code.13999

       No board of education of a school district that, for three or 14000
more consecutive years, has been declared to be in a state of 14001
academic emergency under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code, as 14002
that section existed prior to March 22, 2013, and has failed to 14003
meet adequate yearly progress, or has met any condition set forth 14004
in division (A)(2), (3), or (4) of section 3302.10 of the Revised 14005
Code shall submit a request without first receiving approval to 14006
incur indebtedness from the district's academic distress 14007
commission established under that section, for so long as such 14008
commission continues to be required for the district.14009

       (2) The school facilities commission shall approve the 14010
board's request. Uponprovided that the following conditions are 14011
satisfied:14012

       (a) The commission determines that the board's findings are 14013
reasonable.14014

       (b) The request for approval is complete.14015

       (c) The installations, modifications, or remodeling are 14016
consistent with any project to construct or acquire classroom 14017
facilities, or to reconstruct or make additions to existing 14018
classroom facilities under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 or sections 14019
3318.40 to 3318.45 of the Revised Code.14020

       Upon receipt of the commission's approval, the district may 14021
issue securities without a vote of the electors in a principal 14022
amount not to exceed nine-tenths of one per cent of its tax 14023
valuation for the purpose of making such installations, 14024
modifications, or remodeling, but the total net indebtedness of 14025
the district without a vote of the electors incurred under this 14026
and all other sections of the Revised Code, except section 14027
3318.052 of the Revised Code, shall not exceed one per cent of the 14028
district's tax valuation.14029

       (3) So long as any securities issued under division (G) of14030
this sectiondivision remain outstanding, the board of education 14031
shall monitor the energy consumption and resultant operational and 14032
maintenance costs of buildings in which installations or 14033
modifications have been made or remodeling has been done pursuant 14034
to division (G) of this sectiondivision and shall maintain and 14035
annually update a report documenting the reductions in energy 14036
consumption and resultant operational and maintenance cost savings 14037
attributable to such installations, modifications, or remodeling. 14038
The report shall be certified by an architect or engineer 14039
independent of any person that provided goods or services to the 14040
board in connection with the energy conservation measures that are 14041
the subject of the report. The resultant operational and 14042
maintenance cost savings shall be certified by the school district 14043
treasurer. The report shall be submitted annually to the 14044
commission.14045

       (H) With the consent of the superintendent of public 14046
instruction, a school district may incur without a vote of the 14047
electors net indebtedness that exceeds the amounts stated in 14048
divisions (A) and (G) of this section for the purpose of paying 14049
costs of permanent improvements, if and to the extent that both of 14050
the following conditions are satisfied:14051

       (1) The fiscal officer of the school district estimates that 14052
receipts of the school district from payments made under or 14053
pursuant to agreements entered into pursuant to section 725.02, 14054
1728.10, 3735.671, 5709.081, 5709.082, 5709.40, 5709.41, 5709.62, 14055
5709.63, 5709.632, 5709.73, 5709.78, or 5709.82 of the Revised 14056
Code, or distributions under division (C) of section 5709.43 of 14057
the Revised Code, or any combination thereof, are, after 14058
accounting for any appropriate coverage requirements, sufficient 14059
in time and amount, and are committed by the proceedings, to pay 14060
the debt charges on the securities issued to evidence that 14061
indebtedness and payable from those receipts, and the taxing 14062
authority of the district confirms the fiscal officer's estimate, 14063
which confirmation is approved by the superintendent of public 14064
instruction;14065

       (2) The fiscal officer of the school district certifies, and 14066
the taxing authority of the district confirms, that the district, 14067
at the time of the certification and confirmation, reasonably 14068
expects to have sufficient revenue available for the purpose of 14069
operating such permanent improvements for their intended purpose 14070
upon acquisition or completion thereof, and the superintendent of 14071
public instruction approves the taxing authority's confirmation.14072

       The maximum maturity of securities issued under division (H) 14073
of this section shall be the lesser of twenty years or the maximum 14074
maturity calculated under section 133.20 of the Revised Code.14075

       (I) A school district may incur net indebtedness by the 14076
issuance of securities in accordance with the provisions of this 14077
chapter in excess of the limit specified in division (B) or (C) of 14078
this section when necessary to raise the school district portion 14079
of the basic project cost and any additional funds necessary to 14080
participate in a project under Chapter 3318. of the Revised Code, 14081
including the cost of items designated by the Ohio school 14082
facilities commission as required locally funded initiatives, the 14083
cost of other locally funded initiatives in an amount that does 14084
not exceed fifty per cent of the district's portion of the basic 14085
project cost, and the cost for site acquisition. The school 14086
facilities commission shall notify the superintendent of public 14087
instruction whenever a school district will exceed either limit 14088
pursuant to this division.14089

       (J) A school district whose portion of the basic project cost 14090
of its classroom facilities project under sections 3318.01 to 14091
3318.20 of the Revised Code is greater than or equal to one 14092
hundred million dollars may incur without a vote of the electors 14093
net indebtedness in an amount up to two per cent of its tax 14094
valuation through the issuance of general obligation securities in 14095
order to generate all or part of the amount of its portion of the 14096
basic project cost if the controlling board has approved the 14097
school facilities commission's conditional approval of the project 14098
under section 3318.04 of the Revised Code. The school district 14099
board and the Ohio school facilities commission shall include the 14100
dedication of the proceeds of such securities in the agreement 14101
entered into under section 3318.08 of the Revised Code. No state 14102
moneys shall be released for a project to which this section 14103
applies until the proceeds of any bonds issued under this section 14104
that are dedicated for the payment of the school district portion 14105
of the project are first deposited into the school district's 14106
project construction fund.14107

       Sec. 135.143.  (A) The treasurer of state may invest or 14108
execute transactions for any part or all of the interim funds of 14109
the state in the following classifications of obligations:14110

       (1) United States treasury bills, notes, bonds, or any other 14111
obligations or securities issued by the United States treasury or 14112
any other obligation guaranteed as to principal and interest by 14113
the United States;14114

       (2) Bonds, notes, debentures, or any other obligations or 14115
securities issued by any federal government agency or 14116
instrumentality;14117

       (3)(a) Bonds and other direct, notes, and other obligations 14118
of the state of Ohio issued by the treasurer of state and of, the 14119
Ohio public facilities commission, the Ohio building authority, 14120
and the Ohio housing finance agency, the Ohio water development 14121
authority, and the Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission;14122

       (b) Bonds, notes, and other obligations of any state or 14123
political subdivision thereof rated at the time of purchase in the 14124
three highest categories by two nationally recognized rating 14125
agencies and purchased through a recognized securities dealer.14126

       (4)(a) Written repurchase agreements with any eligible Ohio 14127
financial institution that is a member of the federal reserve 14128
system or federal home loan bank or any recognized United States 14129
government securities dealer that is recognized as a primary 14130
dealer by the federal reserve bank of New York, under the terms of 14131
which agreement the treasurer of state purchases and the eligible 14132
financial institution or dealer agrees unconditionally to 14133
repurchase any of the securities that are listed in division 14134
(A)(1), (2), or (6) of this section and that will mature or are 14135
redeemable within ten years from the date of purchase. The market 14136
value of securities subject to these transactions must exceed the 14137
principal value of the repurchase agreement by an amount specified 14138
by the treasurer of state, and the securities must be delivered 14139
into the custody of the treasurer of state or the qualified 14140
trustee or agent designated by the treasurer of state. The 14141
agreement shall contain the requirement that for each transaction 14142
pursuant to the agreement, the participating institution or dealer 14143
shall provide all of the following information:14144

       (i) The par value of the securities;14145

       (ii) The type, rate, and maturity date of the securities;14146

       (iii) A numerical identifier generally accepted in the 14147
securities industry that designates the securities.14148

       (b) The treasurer of state also may sell any securities, 14149
listed in division (A)(1), (2), or (6) of this section, regardless 14150
of maturity or time of redemption of the securities, under the 14151
same terms and conditions for repurchase, provided that the 14152
securities have been fully paid for and are owned by the treasurer 14153
of state at the time of the sale.14154

       (5) Securities lending agreements with any eligible financial 14155
institution that is a member of the federal reserve system or 14156
federal home loan bank or any recognized United States government 14157
securities dealer, under the terms of which agreements the 14158
treasurer of state lends securities and the eligible financial 14159
institution or dealer agrees to simultaneously exchange similar 14160
securities or cash, equal value for equal value.14161

       Securities and cash received as collateral for a securities 14162
lending agreement are not interim funds of the state. The 14163
investment of cash collateral received pursuant to a securities 14164
lending agreement may be invested only in such instruments 14165
specified by the treasurer of state in accordance with a written 14166
investment policy.14167

       (6) Various forms of commercial paper issued by any 14168
corporationentity that is incorporatedorganized under the laws 14169
of the United States or a state, which notes are rated at the time 14170
of purchase in the two highest categories by two nationally 14171
recognized rating agencies, provided that the total amount 14172
invested under this section in any commercial paper at any time 14173
shall not exceed twenty-fiveforty per cent of the state's total 14174
average portfolio, as determined and calculated by the treasurer 14175
of state;14176

       (7) Bankers acceptances, maturing in two hundred seventy days 14177
or less, which are eligible for purchase by the federal reserve 14178
system, provided that the total amount invested in bankers 14179
acceptances at any time shall not exceed ten per cent of the 14180
state's total average portfolio, as determined and calculated by 14181
the treasurer of state;14182

       (8) Certificates of deposit in eligible institutions applying 14183
for interim moneys as provided in section 135.08 of the Revised 14184
Code, including linked deposits as provided in sections 135.61 to 14185
135.67 of the Revised Code, agricultural linked deposits as 14186
provided in sections 135.71 to 135.76 of the Revised Code, and 14187
housing linked deposits as provided in sections 135.81 to 135.87 14188
of the Revised Code;14189

       (9) The state treasurer's investment pool authorized under 14190
section 135.45 of the Revised Code;14191

       (10) Debt interests, other than commercial paper described in 14192
division (A)(6) of this section, rated at the time of purchase in 14193
the three highest categories by two nationally recognized rating 14194
agencies and issued by corporationsentities that are incorporated14195
organized under the laws of the United States or a state, or 14196
issued by foreign nations diplomatically recognized by the United 14197
States government, or any instrument based on, derived from, or 14198
related to such interests, provided that:14199

       (a) The investments in debt interests, other than commercial 14200
paper, shall not exceed in the aggregate twenty-five per cent of 14201
the state's portfolio;14202

       (b) The investments in debt interests issued by foreign 14203
nations shall not exceed in the aggregate one per cent of the 14204
state's portfolio;14205

       (c) TheWhen added to the investment in commercial paper, the14206
investments in the debt interests of a single issuer shall not 14207
exceed in the aggregate one-half of onefive per cent of the 14208
state's portfolio, except that debt interests of a single issuer 14209
that is a foreign nation shall not exceed in the aggregate one per 14210
cent of the state's portfolio.14211

       The treasurer of state shall invest under division (A)(10) of 14212
this section in a debt interest issued by a foreign nation only if 14213
the debt interest is backed by the full faith and credit of that 14214
foreign nation, and provided that all interest and principal shall 14215
be denominated and payable in United States funds. 14216

       For purposes of division (A)(10) of this section, a debt 14217
interest is rated in the three highest categories by two 14218
nationally recognized rating agencies if either the debt interest 14219
itself or the issuer of the debt interest is rated, or is 14220
implicitly rated, at the time of purchase in the three highest 14221
categories by two nationally recognized rating agencies.14222

       For purposes of division (A)(10) of this section, the 14223
"state's portfolio" means the state's total average portfolio, as 14224
determined and calculated by the treasurer of state.14225

       (11) No-load money market mutual funds consisting exclusively 14226
of obligations described in division (A)(1), (2), or (6) of this 14227
section and repurchase agreements secured by such obligations14228
rated at the time of purchase in the highest category by at least 14229
one nationally recognized rating agency.14230

       (12) Obligations of a political subdivision issued under 14231
Chapter 133. of the Revised Code and identified in an agreement 14232
described in division (G) of this section.14233

       (B) Whenever, during a period of designation, the treasurer 14234
of state classifies public moneys as interim moneys, the treasurer 14235
of state shall notify the state board of deposit of such action. 14236
The notification shall be given within thirty days after such 14237
classification and, in the event the state board of deposit does 14238
not concur in such classification or in the investments or 14239
deposits made under this section, the board may order the 14240
treasurer of state to sell or liquidate any of the investments or 14241
deposits, and any such order shall specifically describe the 14242
investments or deposits and fix the date upon which they are to be 14243
sold or liquidated. Investments or deposits so ordered to be sold 14244
or liquidated shall be sold or liquidated for cash by the 14245
treasurer of state on the date fixed in such order at the then 14246
current market price. Neither the treasurer of state nor the 14247
members of the state board of deposit shall be held accountable 14248
for any loss occasioned by sales or liquidations of investments or 14249
deposits at prices lower than their cost. Any loss or expense 14250
incurred in making these sales or liquidations is payable as other 14251
expenses of the treasurer's office.14252

       (C) If any securities or obligations invested in by the 14253
treasurer of state pursuant to this section are registrable either 14254
as to principal or interest, or both, such securities or 14255
obligations shall be registered in the name of the treasurer of 14256
state.14257

       (D) The treasurer of state is responsible for the safekeeping 14258
of all securities or obligations under this section. Any such 14259
securities or obligations may be deposited for safekeeping as 14260
provided in section 113.05 of the Revised Code.14261

       (E) Interest earned on any investments or deposits authorized 14262
by this section shall be collected by the treasurer of state and 14263
credited by the treasurer of state to the proper fund of the 14264
state.14265

       (F) Whenever investments or deposits acquired under this 14266
section mature and become due and payable, the treasurer of state 14267
shall present them for payment according to their tenor, and shall 14268
collect the moneys payable thereon. The moneys so collected shall 14269
be treated as public moneys subject to sections 135.01 to 135.21 14270
of the Revised Code.14271

       (G) The treasurer of state and any political subdivision 14272
issuing obligations referred to in division (A)(12) of this 14273
section, which obligations mature within one year from the 14274
original date of issuance, may enter into an agreement providing 14275
for:14276

       (1) The purchase of those obligations by the treasurer of 14277
state on terms and subject to conditions set forth in the 14278
agreement;14279

       (2) The payment by the political subdivision to the treasurer 14280
of state of a reasonable fee as consideration for the agreement of 14281
the treasurer of state to purchase those obligations; provided, 14282
however, that the treasurer of state shall not be authorized to 14283
enter into any such agreement with a board of education of a 14284
school district that has an outstanding obligation with respect to 14285
a loan received under authority of section 3313.483 of the Revised 14286
Code.14287

       (H) For purposes of division (G) of this section, a fee shall 14288
not be considered reasonable unless it is set to recover only the 14289
direct costs, a reasonable estimate of the indirect costs 14290
associated with the purchasing of obligations of a political 14291
subdivision under division (G) of this section and any reselling 14292
of the obligations or any interest in the obligations, including 14293
interests in a fund comprised of the obligations, and the 14294
administration thereof. No money from the general revenue fund 14295
shall be used to subsidize the purchase or resale of these 14296
obligations.14297

       (I) All money collected by the treasurer of state from the 14298
fee imposed by division (G) of this section shall be deposited to 14299
the credit of the state political subdivision obligations fund, 14300
which is hereby created in the state treasury. Money credited to 14301
the fund shall be used solely to pay the treasurer of state's 14302
direct and indirect costs associated with purchasing and reselling 14303
obligations of a political subdivision under division (G) of this 14304
section.14305

       (J) As used in this section, "political subdivision" means a 14306
county, township, municipal corporation, or board of education of14307
a school district.14308

       Sec. 135.22.  (A) For purposes of this section:14309

       (1) "Treasurer" has the same meaning as in section 135.01 of 14310
the Revised Code, but does not include a county treasurer or the 14311
treasurer of state. "Treasurer" includes any person whose duties 14312
include making investment decisions with respect to the investment 14313
or deposit of interim moneys.14314

       (2) "Subdivision" has the same meaning as in section 135.01 14315
of the Revised Code.14316

       (B) To enhance the background and working knowledge of 14317
treasurers in investments, cash management, andthe collection of 14318
taxes, ethics, and in any other subject area that the treasurer of 14319
state determines is reasonably related to the duties of a 14320
treasurer, the treasurer of state shall provide annual continuing 14321
education programs for treasurers. A treasurer annually shall 14322
complete the continuing education programs described in this 14323
section, unless the treasurer annually provides a notice of 14324
exemption described in division (E) of this section.14325

       (C) The treasurer of state shall determine the manner, 14326
content, and length of the continuing education programs after 14327
consultation with appropriate statewide organizations of local 14328
government officials.14329

       (D) Upon successful completion of a continuing education 14330
program required by this section, the treasurer of state shall 14331
issue a certificate indicating that the treasurer has successfully 14332
completed the continuing education program prescribed by the 14333
treasurer of state. The treasurer of state shall forward to the 14334
auditor of state any certificates issued pursuant to this division 14335
by the treasurer of state. The auditor of state shall maintain in 14336
the auditor's records any certificates forwarded by the treasurer 14337
of state pursuant to this division. As part of the auditor of 14338
state's audit of the subdivision conducted in accordance with 14339
section 117.11 of the Revised Code, the auditor of state shall 14340
report whether the treasurer is in compliance with this section of 14341
the Revised Code.14342

       (E) Division (B) of this section does not apply to any 14343
treasurer who annually provides a notice of exemption to the 14344
auditor of state. The notice shall be certified by the treasurer 14345
of state and shall provide that the treasurer is not subject to 14346
the continuing education requirements set forth in division (B) of 14347
this section, because the treasurer invests or deposits public 14348
moneys in the following investments only:14349

       (1) Interim deposits pursuant to division (B)(3) of section 14350
135.14 or section 135.145 of the Revised Code;14351

       (2) No-load money market mutual funds pursuant to division 14352
(B)(5) of section 135.14 of the Revised Code;14353

       (3) The Ohio subdivision's fund pursuant to division (B)(6) 14354
of section 135.14 of the Revised Code.14355

       (F) In carrying out the duties required by this section, the 14356
treasurer of state may charge the subdivision served by the 14357
treasurer a registration fee that will meet actual and necessary 14358
expenses in connection with the training of the treasurer, 14359
including instruction fees, site acquisition costs, and the cost 14360
of course materials. Any necessary personal expenses of a 14361
treasurer incurred as a result of attending the continuing 14362
education courses shall be borne by the subdivision represented by 14363
the treasurer.14364

       (G) The treasurer of state may allow any other interested 14365
person to attend any of the continuing education programs that are 14366
held pursuant to this section, provided that before attending any 14367
such continuing education program, the interested person has paid 14368
to the treasurer of state the full registration fee set for the 14369
continuing education program.14370

       (H) All funds collected pursuant to this section shall be 14371
paid into the county treasurer education fund created pursuant to 14372
section 321.46 of the Revised Code, and the actual and necessary 14373
expenses of the treasurer of state in conducting the continuing 14374
education programs required by this section shall be paid from 14375
this fund.14376

       (I) The treasurer of state may adopt reasonable rules not 14377
inconsistent with this section for the implementation of this 14378
section.14379

       Sec. 135.35.  (A) The investing authority shall deposit or 14380
invest any part or all of the county's inactive moneys and shall 14381
invest all of the money in the county public library fund when 14382
required by section 135.352 of the Revised Code. The following 14383
classifications of securities and obligations are eligible for 14384
such deposit or investment:14385

       (1) United States treasury bills, notes, bonds, or any other 14386
obligation or security issued by the United States treasury, any 14387
other obligation guaranteed as to principal or interest by the 14388
United States, or any book entry, zero-coupon United States 14389
treasury security that is a direct obligation of the United 14390
States.14391

       Nothing in the classification of eligible securities and 14392
obligations set forth in divisions (A)(2) to (11) of this section 14393
shall be construed to authorize any investment in stripped 14394
principal or interest obligations of such eligible securities and 14395
obligations.14396

       (2) Bonds, notes, debentures, or any other obligations or 14397
securities issued by any federal government agency or 14398
instrumentality, including, but not limited to, the federal 14399
national mortgage association, federal home loan bank, federal 14400
farm credit bank, federal home loan mortgage corporation, 14401
government national mortgage association, and student loan 14402
marketing association. All federal agency securities shall be 14403
direct issuances of federal government agencies or 14404
instrumentalities.14405

       (3) Time certificates of deposit or savings or deposit 14406
accounts, including, but not limited to, passbook accounts, in any 14407
eligible institution mentioned in section 135.32 of the Revised 14408
Code;14409

       (4) Bonds and other obligations of this state or the 14410
political subdivisions of this state;14411

       (5) No-load money market mutual funds consisting exclusively 14412
of obligations described in division (A)(1) or (2) of this section 14413
and repurchase agreements secured by such obligations, provided 14414
that investments in securities described in this division are made 14415
only through eligible institutions mentioned in section 135.32 of 14416
the Revised Code;14417

       (6) The Ohio subdivision's fund as provided in section 135.45 14418
of the Revised Code;14419

       (7) Securities lending agreements with any eligible 14420
institution mentioned in section 135.32 of the Revised Code that 14421
is a member of the federal reserve system or federal home loan 14422
bank or with any recognized United States government securities 14423
dealer meeting the description in division (J)(1) of this section, 14424
under the terms of which agreements the investing authority lends 14425
securities and the eligible institution or dealer agrees to 14426
simultaneously exchange similar securities or cash, equal value 14427
for equal value.14428

       Securities and cash received as collateral for a securities 14429
lending agreement are not inactive moneys of the county or moneys 14430
of a county public library fund. The investment of cash collateral 14431
received pursuant to a securities lending agreement may be 14432
invested only in instruments specified by the investing authority 14433
in the written investment policy described in division (K) of this 14434
section. 14435

       (8) Up to twenty-five per cent of the county's total average 14436
portfolio in either of the following investments:14437

       (a) Commercial paper notes issued by an entity that is 14438
defined in division (D) of section 1705.01 of the Revised Code and 14439
that has assets exceeding five hundred million dollars, to which 14440
notes all of the following apply:14441

       (i) The notes are rated at the time of purchase in the 14442
highest classification established by at least two nationally 14443
recognized standard rating services.14444

       (ii) The aggregate value of the notes does not exceed ten per 14445
cent of the aggregate value of the outstanding commercial paper of 14446
the issuing corporation.14447

       (iii) The notes mature not later than two hundred seventy 14448
days after purchase.14449

       (b) Bankers acceptances of banks that are insured by the 14450
federal deposit insurance corporation and to which both of the 14451
following apply:14452

       (i) The obligations are eligible for purchase by the federal 14453
reserve system.14454

       (ii) The obligations mature not later than one hundred eighty 14455
days after purchase.14456

       No investment shall be made pursuant to division (A)(8) of 14457
this section unless the investing authority has completed 14458
additional training for making the investments authorized by 14459
division (A)(8) of this section. The type and amount of additional 14460
training shall be approved by the auditor of state and may be 14461
conducted by or provided under the supervision of the auditor of 14462
state.14463

       (9) Up to fifteen per cent of the county's total average 14464
portfolio in notes issued by corporations that are incorporated 14465
under the laws of the United States and that are operating within 14466
the United States, or by depository institutions that are doing 14467
business under authority granted by the United States or any state 14468
and that are operating within the United States, provided both of 14469
the following apply:14470

        (a) The notes are rated in the second highest or higher 14471
category by at least two nationally recognized standard rating 14472
services at the time of purchase.14473

        (b) The notes mature not later than two years after purchase.14474

        (10) No-load money market mutual funds rated in the highest 14475
category at the time of purchase by at least one nationally 14476
recognized standard rating service and consisting exclusively of 14477
obligations described in division (A)(1), (2), or (6) of section 14478
135.143 of the Revised Code;14479

        (11) Debt interests rated at the time of purchase in the 14480
three highest categories by two nationally recognized standard 14481
rating services and issued by foreign nations diplomatically 14482
recognized by the United States government. All interest and 14483
principal shall be denominated and payable in United States funds. 14484
The investments made under division (A)(11) of this section shall 14485
not exceed in the aggregate one per cent of a county's total 14486
average portfolio.14487

       The investing authority shall invest under division (A)(11) 14488
of this section in a debt interest issued by a foreign nation only 14489
if the debt interest is backed by the full faith and credit of 14490
that foreign nation, there is no prior history of default, and the 14491
debt interest matures not later than five years after purchase. 14492
For purposes of division (A)(11) of this section, a debt interest 14493
is rated in the three highest categories by two nationally 14494
recognized standard rating services if either the debt interest 14495
itself or the issuer of the debt interest is rated, or is 14496
implicitly rated, at the time of purchase in the three highest 14497
categories by two nationally recognized standard rating services.14498

       (12) A current unpaid or delinquent tax line of credit 14499
authorized under division (G) of section 135.341 of the Revised 14500
Code, provided that all of the conditions for entering into such a 14501
line of credit under that division are satisfied, or bonds and 14502
other obligations of a county land reutilization corporation 14503
organized under Chapter 1724. of the Revised Code, if the county 14504
land reutilization corporation is located wholly or partly within 14505
the same county as the investing authority.14506

       (B) Nothing in the classifications of eligible obligations 14507
and securities set forth in divisions (A)(1) to (11) of this 14508
section shall be construed to authorize investment in a 14509
derivative, and no investing authority shall invest any county 14510
inactive moneys or any moneys in a county public library fund in a 14511
derivative. For purposes of this division, "derivative" means a 14512
financial instrument or contract or obligation whose value or 14513
return is based upon or linked to another asset or index, or both, 14514
separate from the financial instrument, contract, or obligation 14515
itself. Any security, obligation, trust account, or other 14516
instrument that is created from an issue of the United States 14517
treasury or is created from an obligation of a federal agency or 14518
instrumentality or is created from both is considered a derivative 14519
instrument. An eligible investment described in this section with 14520
a variable interest rate payment, based upon a single interest 14521
payment or single index comprised of other eligible investments 14522
provided for in division (A)(1) or (2) of this section, is not a 14523
derivative, provided that such variable rate investment has a 14524
maximum maturity of two years. A treasury inflation-protected 14525
security shall not be considered a derivative, provided the 14526
security matures not later than five years after purchase.14527

       (C) Except as provided in divisiondivisions (D) and (O) of 14528
this section, any investment made pursuant to this section must 14529
mature within fiveten years from the date of settlement, unless 14530
the investment is matched to a specific obligation or debt of the 14531
county or to a specific obligation or debt of a political 14532
subdivision of this state, and the investment is specifically 14533
approved by the investment advisory committee.14534

       (D) The investing authority may also enter into a written 14535
repurchase agreement with any eligible institution mentioned in 14536
section 135.32 of the Revised Code or any eligible securities 14537
dealer pursuant to division (J) of this section, under the terms 14538
of which agreement the investing authority purchases and the 14539
eligible institution or dealer agrees unconditionally to 14540
repurchase any of the securities listed in divisions (B)(1) to 14541
(5), except letters of credit described in division (B)(2), of 14542
section 135.18 of the Revised Code. The market value of securities 14543
subject to an overnight written repurchase agreement must exceed 14544
the principal value of the overnight written repurchase agreement 14545
by at least two per cent. A written repurchase agreement must 14546
exceed the principal value of the overnight written repurchase 14547
agreement, by at least two per cent. A written repurchase 14548
agreement shall not exceed thirty days, and the market value of 14549
securities subject to a written repurchase agreement must exceed 14550
the principal value of the written repurchase agreement by at 14551
least two per cent and be marked to market daily. All securities 14552
purchased pursuant to this division shall be delivered into the 14553
custody of the investing authority or the qualified custodian of 14554
the investing authority or an agent designated by the investing 14555
authority. A written repurchase agreement with an eligible 14556
securities dealer shall be transacted on a delivery versus payment 14557
basis. The agreement shall contain the requirement that for each 14558
transaction pursuant to the agreement the participating 14559
institution shall provide all of the following information:14560

       (1) The par value of the securities;14561

       (2) The type, rate, and maturity date of the securities;14562

       (3) A numerical identifier generally accepted in the 14563
securities industry that designates the securities.14564

       No investing authority shall enter into a written repurchase 14565
agreement under the terms of which the investing authority agrees 14566
to sell securities owned by the county to a purchaser and agrees 14567
with that purchaser to unconditionally repurchase those 14568
securities.14569

       (E) No investing authority shall make an investment under 14570
this section, unless the investing authority, at the time of 14571
making the investment, reasonably expects that the investment can 14572
be held until its maturity. The investing authority's written 14573
investment policy shall specify the conditions under which an 14574
investment may be redeemed or sold prior to maturity.14575

       (F) No investing authority shall pay a county's inactive 14576
moneys or moneys of a county public library fund into a fund 14577
established by another subdivision, treasurer, governing board, or 14578
investing authority, if that fund was established by the 14579
subdivision, treasurer, governing board, or investing authority 14580
for the purpose of investing or depositing the public moneys of 14581
other subdivisions. This division does not apply to the payment of 14582
public moneys into either of the following:14583

       (1) The Ohio subdivision's fund pursuant to division (A)(6) 14584
of this section;14585

       (2) A fund created solely for the purpose of acquiring, 14586
constructing, owning, leasing, or operating municipal utilities 14587
pursuant to the authority provided under section 715.02 of the 14588
Revised Code or Section 4 of Article XVIII, Ohio Constitution.14589

       For purposes of division (F) of this section, "subdivision" 14590
includes a county.14591

       (G) The use of leverage, in which the county uses its current 14592
investment assets as collateral for the purpose of purchasing 14593
other assets, is prohibited. The issuance of taxable notes for the 14594
purpose of arbitrage is prohibited. Contracting to sell securities 14595
not owned by the county, for the purpose of purchasing such 14596
securities on the speculation that bond prices will decline, is 14597
prohibited.14598

       (H) Any securities, certificates of deposit, deposit 14599
accounts, or any other documents evidencing deposits or 14600
investments made under authority of this section shall be issued 14601
in the name of the county with the county treasurer or investing 14602
authority as the designated payee. If any such deposits or 14603
investments are registrable either as to principal or interest, or 14604
both, they shall be registered in the name of the treasurer.14605

       (I) The investing authority shall be responsible for the 14606
safekeeping of all documents evidencing a deposit or investment 14607
acquired under this section, including, but not limited to, 14608
safekeeping receipts evidencing securities deposited with a 14609
qualified trustee, as provided in section 135.37 of the Revised 14610
Code, and documents confirming the purchase of securities under 14611
any repurchase agreement under this section shall be deposited 14612
with a qualified trustee, provided, however, that the qualified 14613
trustee shall be required to report to the investing authority, 14614
auditor of state, or an authorized outside auditor at any time 14615
upon request as to the identity, market value, and location of the 14616
document evidencing each security, and that if the participating 14617
institution is a designated depository of the county for the 14618
current period of designation, the securities that are the subject 14619
of the repurchase agreement may be delivered to the treasurer or 14620
held in trust by the participating institution on behalf of the 14621
investing authority.14622

       Upon the expiration of the term of office of an investing 14623
authority or in the event of a vacancy in the office for any 14624
reason, the officer or the officer's legal representative shall 14625
transfer and deliver to the officer's successor all documents 14626
mentioned in this division for which the officer has been 14627
responsible for safekeeping. For all such documents transferred 14628
and delivered, the officer shall be credited with, and the 14629
officer's successor shall be charged with, the amount of moneys 14630
evidenced by such documents.14631

       (J)(1) All investments, except for investments in securities 14632
described in divisions (A)(5), (6), and (12) of this section, 14633
shall be made only through a member of the national association of 14634
securities dealers, through a bank, savings bank, or savings and 14635
loan association regulated by the superintendent of financial 14636
institutions, or through an institution regulated by the 14637
comptroller of the currency, federal deposit insurance 14638
corporation, or board of governors of the federal reserve system. 14639

       (2) Payment for investments shall be made only upon the 14640
delivery of securities representing such investments to the 14641
treasurer, investing authority, or qualified trustee. If the 14642
securities transferred are not represented by a certificate, 14643
payment shall be made only upon receipt of confirmation of 14644
transfer from the custodian by the treasurer, governing board, or 14645
qualified trustee.14646

       (K)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (K)(2) of 14647
this section, no investing authority shall make an investment or 14648
deposit under this section, unless there is on file with the 14649
auditor of state a written investment policy approved by the 14650
investing authority. The policy shall require that all entities 14651
conducting investment business with the investing authority shall 14652
sign the investment policy of that investing authority. All 14653
brokers, dealers, and financial institutions, described in 14654
division (J)(1) of this section, initiating transactions with the 14655
investing authority by giving advice or making investment 14656
recommendations shall sign the investing authority's investment 14657
policy thereby acknowledging their agreement to abide by the 14658
policy's contents. All brokers, dealers, and financial 14659
institutions, described in division (J)(1) of this section, 14660
executing transactions initiated by the investing authority, 14661
having read the policy's contents, shall sign the investment 14662
policy thereby acknowledging their comprehension and receipt.14663

       (2) If a written investment policy described in division 14664
(K)(1) of this section is not filed on behalf of the county with 14665
the auditor of state, the investing authority of that county shall 14666
invest the county's inactive moneys and moneys of the county 14667
public library fund only in time certificates of deposits or 14668
savings or deposit accounts pursuant to division (A)(3) of this 14669
section, no-load money market mutual funds pursuant to division 14670
(A)(5) of this section, or the Ohio subdivision's fund pursuant to 14671
division (A)(6) of this section.14672

       (L)(1) The investing authority shall establish and maintain 14673
an inventory of all obligations and securities acquired by the 14674
investing authority pursuant to this section. The inventory shall 14675
include a description of each obligation or security, including 14676
type, cost, par value, maturity date, settlement date, and any 14677
coupon rate.14678

       (2) The investing authority shall also keep a complete record 14679
of all purchases and sales of the obligations and securities made 14680
pursuant to this section.14681

       (3) The investing authority shall maintain a monthly 14682
portfolio report and issue a copy of the monthly portfolio report 14683
describing such investments to the county investment advisory 14684
committee, detailing the current inventory of all obligations and 14685
securities, all transactions during the month that affected the 14686
inventory, any income received from the obligations and 14687
securities, and any investment expenses paid, and stating the 14688
names of any persons effecting transactions on behalf of the 14689
investing authority.14690

       (4) The monthly portfolio report shall be a public record and 14691
available for inspection under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.14692

       (5) The inventory and the monthly portfolio report shall be 14693
filed with the board of county commissioners. The monthly 14694
portfolio report also shall be filed with the treasurer of state.14695

       (M) An investing authority may enter into a written 14696
investment or deposit agreement that includes a provision under 14697
which the parties agree to submit to nonbinding arbitration to 14698
settle any controversy that may arise out of the agreement, 14699
including any controversy pertaining to losses of public moneys 14700
resulting from investment or deposit. The arbitration provision 14701
shall be set forth entirely in the agreement, and the agreement 14702
shall include a conspicuous notice to the parties that any party 14703
to the arbitration may apply to the court of common pleas of the 14704
county in which the arbitration was held for an order to vacate, 14705
modify, or correct the award. Any such party may also apply to the 14706
court for an order to change venue to a court of common pleas 14707
located more than one hundred miles from the county in which the 14708
investing authority is located.14709

       For purposes of this division, "investment or deposit 14710
agreement" means any agreement between an investing authority and 14711
a person, under which agreement the person agrees to invest, 14712
deposit, or otherwise manage, on behalf of the investing 14713
authority, a county's inactive moneys or moneys in a county public 14714
library fund, or agrees to provide investment advice to the 14715
investing authority.14716

       (N)(1) An investment held in the county portfolio on 14717
September 27, 1996, that was a legal investment under the law as 14718
it existed before September 27, 1996, may be held until maturity, 14719
or if the investment does not have a maturity date the investment 14720
may be held until five years from September 27, 1996, regardless 14721
of whether the investment would qualify as a legal investment 14722
under the terms of this section as amended.14723

       (2) An investment held in the county portfolio on the 14724
effective date of this amendmentSeptember 10, 2012, that was a 14725
legal investment under the law as it existed before the effective 14726
date of this amendmentSeptember 10, 2012, may be held until 14727
maturity.14728

       (O) Upon a majority affirmative vote of the county investment 14729
advisory committee in support of such action, an investment 14730
authority may invest up to twenty-five per cent of the county's 14731
total average portfolio of investments made under this section in 14732
securities and obligations that mature on a date that is more than 14733
ten years from the date of settlement.14734

       Sec. 135.61.  As used in sections 135.61 to 135.67 of the 14735
Revised Code:14736

       (A) "Eligible small business" means any person, including, 14737
but not limited to a person engaged in agriculture, that has all 14738
of the following characteristics:14739

       (1) Is headquartered in this state;14740

       (2) Maintains offices and operating facilities exclusively in 14741
this state and transacts business in this state;14742

       (3) Employs fewer than one hundred fifty employees, the 14743
majority of whom are residents of this state;14744

       (4) Is organized for profit.14745

       (B) "Eligible lending institution" means a financial 14746
institution that is eligible to make commercial loans, is a public 14747
depository of state funds under section 135.03 of the Revised 14748
Code, and agrees to participate in the linked deposit program.14749

       (C) "Linked deposit" means a certificate of deposit or other 14750
financial institution instrument placed by the treasurer of state 14751
with an eligible lending institution at a rate below current 14752
market rates, as determined and calculated by the treasurer of 14753
state, provided the institution agrees to lend the value of such 14754
deposit, according to the deposit agreement provided in division 14755
(C) of section 135.65 of the Revised Code, to eligible small 14756
businesses at a rate that reflects an equal percentage rate 14757
reduction below the present borrowing rate applicable to each 14758
specific business at the time of the deposit of state funds in the 14759
institution.14760

       (D) "Other financial institution instrument" has the same 14761
meaning as in section 135.81 of the Revised Code.14762

       (E) "Loan" means a contractual agreement under which an 14763
eligible lending institution agrees to lend money in the form of 14764
an upfront lump sum, a line of credit, or any other reasonable 14765
arrangement approved by the treasurer of state.14766

       Sec. 135.71.  As used in sections 135.71 to 135.76 of the 14767
Revised Code:14768

       (A) "Eligible agricultural business" means any person engaged 14769
in agriculture that has all of the following characteristics:14770

       (1) Is headquartered and domiciled in this state;14771

       (2) Maintains land or facilities for agricultural purposes in 14772
this state provided that the land or facilities within this state 14773
comprise not less than fifty-one per cent of the total of all 14774
lands or facilities maintained by the person;14775

       (3) Is organized for profit.14776

       (B) "Eligible lending institution" means a financial 14777
institution that is eligible to make commercial loans, agrees to 14778
participate in the agricultural linked deposit program, and:14779

       (1) Is a public depository of state funds under section 14780
135.03 of the Revised Code; or14781

       (2) Notwithstanding sections 135.01 to 135.21 of the Revised 14782
Code, is an institution of the farm credit system organized under 14783
the federal "Farm Credit Act of 1971," 85 Stat. 583, 12 U.S.C.A. 14784
2001, as amended.14785

       (C) "Agricultural linked deposit" means a certificate of 14786
deposit placed by the treasurer of state with an eligible lending 14787
institution under section 135.74 of the Revised Code or an 14788
investment in bonds, notes, debentures, or other obligations or 14789
securities issued by the federal farm credit bank with regard to 14790
an eligible lending institution.14791

       (D) "Loan" means a contractual agreement under which an 14792
eligible lending institution agrees to lend money in the form of 14793
an upfront lump sum, a line of credit, or any other reasonable 14794
arrangement approved by the treasurer of state.14795

       Sec. 135.80.  (A) The legislative authority of a municipal 14796
corporation, by ordinance; the board of directors of a port 14797
authority or a lake facilities authority, by resolution; or the 14798
board of county commissioners, by resolution, may establish a 14799
linked deposit program authorizing the treasurer or governing 14800
board of the municipal corporation, the board of directors of the 14801
port authority or lake facilities authority, or the investing 14802
authority of the county, as created or designated by the ordinance 14803
or resolution, to place certificates of deposit at up to three per 14804
cent below market rates with an eligible lending institution 14805
applying for interim moneys as provided in section 135.08 of the 14806
Revised Code, selected to invest port authority or lake facilities 14807
authority moneys in linked deposit programs pursuant to section 14808
4582.54 or 353.15 of the Revised Code, or applying for inactive 14809
moneys as provided in section 135.32 of the Revised Code, provided 14810
the institution agrees to lend the value of such deposit to 14811
eligible borrowers at up to three per cent below the present 14812
borrowing rate applicable to each borrower. The ordinance or 14813
resolution shall include requirements and provisions that are 14814
necessary to establish the program, including, but not limited to:14815

       (1) Eligibility requirements for borrowers who may receive 14816
reduced rate loans under the program;14817

       (2) Application procedures for borrowers and institutions 14818
wishing to participate in the program;14819

       (3) Review procedures for applications and criteria for 14820
acceptance or rejection of applications for reduced rate loans;14821

       (4) Necessary agreements between the eligible lending 14822
institution and the treasurer or governing board of the municipal 14823
corporation, the board of directors of the port authority or lake 14824
facilities authority, or the investing authority of the county to 14825
carry out the purposes of the linked deposit program;14826

       (5) Annual reports regarding the operation of the program to 14827
be made by the treasurer or governing board to the legislative 14828
authority, the eligible lending institution to the board of 14829
directors of the port authority or lake facilities authority, or 14830
the investing authority to the board of county commissioners.14831

       (B) The municipal corporation and the treasurer or governing 14832
board, the port authority or lake facilities authority and the 14833
board of directors, and the county and the investing authority or 14834
the board of county commissioners, are not liable to any eligible 14835
lending institution in any manner for the payment of the principal 14836
or interest on any reduced rate loan made under the program, and 14837
any delay in payment or default on the part of any borrower does 14838
not in any manner affect the deposit agreement between the 14839
eligible lending institution and the treasurer or governing board, 14840
the board of directors, or the investing authority or board of 14841
county commissioners.14842

       (C) For purposes of this section, both of the following 14843
apply:14844

       (1) "Investing authority" has the same meaning as in section 14845
135.31 of the Revised Code.14846

       (2) "Port authority" means a port authority created in 14847
accordance with section 4582.22 of the Revised Code.14848

       (3) "Lake facilities authority" means a lake facilities 14849
authority created in accordance with section 353.02 of the Revised 14850
Code.14851

       Sec. 135.81. As used in sections 135.81 to 135.87 of the 14852
Revised Code:14853

       (A) "Eligible governmental subdivision" means a municipal 14854
corporation, port authority created in accordance with section 14855
4582.22 of the Revised Code, or county in this state.14856

       (B) "Eligible governmental subdivision housing linked deposit 14857
program" means any program established pursuant to section 135.80 14858
of the Revised Code by the legislative authority of a municipal 14859
corporation, the board of directors of a port authority created in 14860
accordance with section 4582.22 of the Revised Code, or the board 14861
of county commissioners of a county, in which the program goals 14862
address specific housing issues relative to the geographic 14863
boundaries of that municipal corporation, port authority, or 14864
county. These program goals include, but are not limited to, home 14865
improvement, home restoration, energy efficiency, retention of 14866
historic significance, controlling urban sprawl, neighborhood 14867
revitalization, affordable housing, home ownership for persons 14868
unable to secure conventional financing, urban development, or 14869
economic revitalization of a residential area as a result of a 14870
natural disaster or other catastrophic occurrence.14871

       (C) "Eligible housing linked deposit participant" means any 14872
person or small business that meets the requirements set forth in 14873
an eligible governmental subdivision housing linked deposit 14874
program or set forth by the treasurer of state pursuant to 14875
division (B)(2) of section 135.82 of the Revised Code and that is 14876
a resident of this state.14877

       (D) "Eligible lending institution" means a financial 14878
institution meeting all of the following:14879

       (1) It is eligible to make commercial loans or residential 14880
loans.14881

       (2) It is a public depository of state funds under section 14882
135.03 of the Revised Code.14883

       (3) It agrees to participate in a program to provide housing 14884
linked deposits.14885

       (E) "Housing linked deposit" means a certificate of deposit 14886
or other financial institution instrument, described in section 14887
135.85 of the Revised Code, placed by the treasurer of state with 14888
an eligible lending institution, in accordance with division (B) 14889
of section 135.84 of the Revised Code, provided that the 14890
institution agrees, at the time of the deposit of state funds and 14891
for the period of the deposit, to lend the value of the deposit 14892
according to the deposit agreement described in section 135.85 of 14893
the Revised Code to eligible housing linked deposit participants 14894
at a fixed interest rate of up to three hundred basis points below 14895
the present borrowing rate applicable to each participant in the 14896
absence of approval to participate in the programs described in 14897
division (B) of section 135.82 of the Revised Code.14898

       (F) "Other financial institution instrument" means a fully 14899
collateralized product that otherwise would pay market rates of 14900
interest approved by the treasurer of state, for the purpose of 14901
providing eligible housing linked deposit participants with the 14902
benefits of a housing linked deposit.14903

       (G) "Loan" means a contractual agreement under which an 14904
eligible lending institution agrees to lend money in the form of 14905
an upfront lump sum, a line of credit, or any other reasonable 14906
arrangement approved by the treasurer of state.14907

       Sec. 135.85. (A) Upon placement of a housing linked deposit 14908
with an eligible lending institution pursuant to division (B) of 14909
section 135.84 of the Revised Code, the eligible lending 14910
institution shall do both of the following:14911

       (1) Enter into a deposit agreement with the treasurer of 14912
state that includes all of the following:14913

       (a) Any requirements necessary to carry out the purposes of 14914
sections 135.81 to 135.87 of the Revised Code;14915

       (b) Provisions for any certificate of deposit or other 14916
financial institution instrument meeting the requirements 14917
described in division (B) of this section and placed for any 14918
maturity considered appropriate by the treasurer of state but not 14919
exceeding five years;14920

       (c) A specification of the period of time in which the 14921
eligible lending institution is to provide the reduced interest 14922
rate to an approved applicant.14923

       (2) Lend funds as provided in division (C) of this section 14924
and in accordance with the deposit agreement described in this 14925
section to each eligible housing linked deposit participant 14926
approved by the treasurer of state pursuant to division (A) of 14927
section 135.84 of the Revised Code.14928

       (B) Both of the following apply to any certificate of deposit 14929
or other financial institution instrument described in division 14930
(A)(1)(b) of this section:14931

       (1) The certificate of deposit or other financial institution 14932
instrument shall not be renewed upon final maturity.14933

       (2) Interest shall be paid at the times and in the manner 14934
prescribed by the treasurer of state.14935

       (C) The loan described in division (A)(2) of this section 14936
shall be at a fixed rate of up to three hundred basis points below 14937
the present borrowing rate that would apply to the eligible 14938
housing linked deposit participant in the absence of approval to 14939
participate in the programs described in division (B) of section 14940
135.82 of the Revised Code.14941

       (D) A certificate of compliance with this section in the form 14942
and manner prescribed by the treasurer of state shall be provided 14943
by the eligible lending institution.14944

       (E)(1) Any delay in payments or default on the part of the 14945
eligible housing linked deposit participant does not in any manner 14946
affect the deposit agreement between the eligible lending 14947
institution and the treasurer of state.14948

       (2) If an eligible lending institution changes the terms of a 14949
loan to an eligible housing linked deposit participant because of 14950
a delay in payments or default, the housing linked deposit amount 14951
shall be returned to the treasurer of state by the eligible 14952
lending institution. In which case, the deposit amount plus 14953
interest and without early withdrawal penalties shall be returned 14954
in a timely manner as prescribed by the treasurer of state.14955

       (F) An eligible lending institution shall comply fully with 14956
sections 135.81 to 135.87 of the Revised Code.14957

       Sec. 140.01.  As used in this chapter:14958

       (A) "Hospital agency" means any public hospital agency or any 14959
nonprofit hospital agency.14960

       (B) "Public hospital agency" means any county, board of 14961
county hospital trustees established pursuant to section 339.02 of 14962
the Revised Code, county hospital commission established pursuant 14963
to section 339.14 of the Revised Code, municipal corporation, new 14964
community authority organized under Chapter 349. of the Revised 14965
Code, joint township hospital district, state or municipal 14966
university or college operating or authorized to operate a 14967
hospital facility, or the state.14968

       (C) "Nonprofit hospital agency" means a corporation or 14969
association not for profit, no part of the net earnings of which 14970
inures or may lawfully inure to the benefit of any private 14971
shareholder or individual, that has authority to own or operate a 14972
hospital facility or provides or is to provide services to one or 14973
more other hospital agencies.14974

       (D) "Governing body" means, in the case of a county, the 14975
board of county commissioners or other legislative body; in the 14976
case of a board of county hospital trustees, the board; in the 14977
case of a county hospital commission, the commission; in the case 14978
of a municipal corporation, the council or other legislative 14979
authority; in the case of a new community authority, its board of 14980
trustees; in the case of a joint township hospital district, the 14981
joint township district hospital board; in the case of a state or 14982
municipal university or college, its board of trustees or board of 14983
directors; in the case of a nonprofit hospital agency, the board 14984
of trustees or other body having general management of the agency; 14985
and, in the case of the state, the director of development 14986
services or the Ohio higher educational facility commission.14987

       (E) "Hospital facilities" means buildings, structures and 14988
other improvements, additions thereto and extensions thereof, 14989
furnishings, equipment, and real estate and interests in real 14990
estate, used or to be used for or in connection with one or more 14991
hospitals, emergency, intensive, intermediate, extended, 14992
long-term, or self-care facilities, diagnostic and treatment and 14993
out-patient facilities, facilities related to programs for home 14994
health services, clinics, laboratories, public health centers, 14995
research facilities, and rehabilitation facilities, for or 14996
pertaining to diagnosis, treatment, care, or rehabilitation of 14997
sick, ill, injured, infirm, impaired, disabled, or handicapped 14998
persons, or the prevention, detection, and control of disease, and 14999
also includes education, training, and food service facilities for 15000
health professions personnel, housing facilities for such 15001
personnel and their families, and parking and service facilities 15002
in connection with any of the foregoing; and includes any one, 15003
part of, or any combination of the foregoing; and further includes 15004
site improvements, utilities, machinery, facilities, furnishings, 15005
and any separate or connected buildings, structures, improvements, 15006
sites, utilities, facilities, or equipment to be used in, or in 15007
connection with the operation or maintenance of, or supplementing 15008
or otherwise related to the services or facilities to be provided 15009
by, any one or more of such hospital facilities.15010

       (F) "Costs of hospital facilities" means the costs of 15011
acquiring hospital facilities or interests in hospital facilities, 15012
including membership interests in nonprofit hospital agencies, 15013
costs of constructing hospital facilities, costs of improving one 15014
or more hospital facilities, including reconstructing, 15015
rehabilitating, remodeling, renovating, and enlarging, costs of 15016
equipping and furnishing such facilities, and all financing costs 15017
pertaining thereto, including, without limitation thereto, costs 15018
of engineering, architectural, and other professional services, 15019
designs, plans, specifications and surveys, and estimates of cost, 15020
costs of tests and inspections, the costs of any indemnity or 15021
surety bonds and premiums on insurance, all related direct or 15022
allocable administrative expenses pertaining thereto, fees and 15023
expenses of trustees, depositories, and paying agents for the 15024
obligations, cost of issuance of the obligations and financing 15025
charges and fees and expenses of financial advisors, attorneys, 15026
accountants, consultants and rating services in connection 15027
therewith, capitalized interest on the obligations, amounts 15028
necessary to establish reserves as required by the bond 15029
proceedings, the reimbursement of all moneys advanced or applied 15030
by the hospital agency or others or borrowed from others for the 15031
payment of any item or items of costs of such facilities, and all 15032
other expenses necessary or incident to planning or determining 15033
feasibility or practicability with respect to such facilities, and 15034
such other expenses as may be necessary or incident to the 15035
acquisition, construction, reconstruction, rehabilitation, 15036
remodeling, renovation, enlargement, improvement, equipment, and 15037
furnishing of such facilities, the financing thereof, and the 15038
placing of the same in use and operation, including any one, part 15039
of, or combination of such classes of costs and expenses, and 15040
means the costs of refinancing obligations issued by, or 15041
reimbursement of money advanced by, nonprofit hospital agencies or 15042
others the proceeds of which were used for the payment of costs of 15043
hospital facilities, if the governing body of the public hospital 15044
agency determines that the refinancing or reimbursement advances 15045
the purposes of this chapter, whether or not the refinancing or 15046
reimbursement is in conjunction with the acquisition or 15047
construction of additional hospital facilities.15048

       (G) "Hospital receipts" means all moneys received by or on 15049
behalf of a hospital agency from or in connection with the 15050
ownership, operation, acquisition, construction, improvement, 15051
equipping, or financing of any hospital facilities, including, 15052
without limitation thereto, any rentals and other moneys received 15053
from the lease, sale, or other disposition of hospital facilities, 15054
and any gifts, grants, interest subsidies, or other moneys 15055
received under any federal program for assistance in financing the 15056
costs of hospital facilities, and any other gifts, grants, and 15057
donations, and receipts therefrom, available for financing the 15058
costs of hospital facilities.15059

       (H) "Obligations" means bonds, notes, or other evidences of 15060
indebtedness or obligation, including interest coupons pertaining 15061
thereto, issued or issuable by a public hospital agency to pay 15062
costs of hospital facilities.15063

       (I) "Bond service charges" means principal, interest, and 15064
call premium, if any, required to be paid on obligations.15065

       (J) "Bond proceedings" means one or more ordinances, 15066
resolutions, trust agreements, indentures, and other agreements or 15067
documents, and amendments and supplements to the foregoing, or any 15068
combination thereof, authorizing or providing for the terms, 15069
including any variable interest rates, and conditions applicable 15070
to, or providing for the security of, obligations and the 15071
provisions contained in such obligations.15072

       (K) "Nursing home" has the same meaning as in division (A)(1) 15073
of section 5701.13 of the Revised Code.15074

       (L) "Residential care facility" has the same meaning as in 15075
division (A)(2) of section 5701.13 of the Revised Code.15076

       (M) "Independent living facility" means any self-care 15077
facility or other housing facility designed or used as a residence 15078
for elderly persons. An "independent living facility" does not 15079
include a residential facility, or that part of a residential 15080
facility, that is any of the following:15081

       (1) A hospital required to be certified by section 3727.02 of 15082
the Revised Code;15083

       (2) A nursing home or residential care facility;15084

       (3) A facility operated by a hospice care program licensed 15085
under section 3712.04 of the Revised Code and used for the 15086
program's hospice patients;15087

        (4) A residential facility licensed by the department of 15088
mental healthmental health and addiction services under section 15089
5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 15090
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 15091
unrelated adults;15092

       (5) A residential facility licensed by the department of 15093
mental healthmental health and addiction services under section 15094
5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code that is not a residential 15095
facility described in division (M)(4) of this section;15096

       (6) A facility licensed to provide methadone treatment under 15097
section 3793.115119.39 of the Revised Code;15098

       (7) A facility certified as an alcohol and druga community15099
addiction programservices provider under section 3793.065119.3615100
of the Revised Code;15101

       (8) A residential facility licensed under section 5123.19 of 15102
the Revised Code or a facility providing services under a contract 15103
with the department of developmental disabilities under section 15104
5123.18 of the Revised Code;15105

       (9) A residential facility used as part of a hospital to 15106
provide housing for staff of the hospital or students pursuing a 15107
course of study at the hospital.15108

       Sec. 140.03.  (A) Two or more hospital agencies may enter 15109
into agreements for the acquisition, construction, reconstruction, 15110
rehabilitation, remodeling, renovating, enlarging, equipping, and 15111
furnishing of hospital facilities, or the management, operation, 15112
occupancy, use, maintenance, and repair of hospital facilities, or 15113
for participation in programs, projects, activities, and services 15114
useful to, connected with, supplementing, or otherwise related to 15115
the services provided by, or the operation of, hospital facilities 15116
operated by one or more participating hospital agencies, including 15117
any combination of such purposes, all in such manner as to promote 15118
the public purpose stated in section 140.02 of the Revised Code. A 15119
city health district; general health district; board of alcohol, 15120
drug addiction, and mental health services; county board of 15121
developmental disabilities; the department of mental healthmental 15122
health and addiction services; the department of developmental 15123
disabilities; or any public body engaged in the education or 15124
training of health professions personnel may join in any such 15125
agreement for purposes related to its authority under laws 15126
applicable to it, and as such a participant shall be considered a 15127
public hospital agency or hospital agency for the purposes of this 15128
section.15129

       (B) An agreement entered into under authority of this section 15130
shall, where appropriate, provide for:15131

       (1) The manner in which the title to the hospital facilities, 15132
including the sites and interest in real estate pertaining 15133
thereto, is to be held, transferred, or disposed of;15134

       (2) Unless provided for by lease pursuant to section 140.05 15135
of the Revised Code, the method by which such hospital facilities 15136
are to be acquired, constructed, or otherwise improved and by 15137
which they shall be managed, occupied, maintained, and repaired, 15138
including the designation of one of the hospital agencies to have 15139
charge of the details of acquisition, construction, or improvement 15140
pursuant to the contracting procedures prescribed under the law 15141
applicable to one of the participating public hospital agencies;15142

       (3) The management or administration of any such programs, 15143
projects, activities, or services, which may include management or 15144
administration by one of said hospital agencies or a board or 15145
agency thereof;15146

       (4) Annual, or more frequent, reports to the participating 15147
hospital agencies as to the revenues and receipts pertaining to 15148
the subject of the agreement, the expenditures thereof, the status 15149
and application of other funds contributed under such agreement, 15150
and such other matters as may be specified by or pursuant to such 15151
agreement;15152

       (5) The manner of apportionment or sharing of costs of 15153
hospital facilities, any other applicable costs of management, 15154
operation, maintenance, and repair of hospital facilities, and 15155
costs for the programs, projects, activities, and services forming 15156
the subject of the agreement, which apportionment or sharing may 15157
be prescribed in fixed amounts, or determined by ratios, formulas, 15158
or otherwise, and paid as service charges, rentals, or in such 15159
other manner as provided in the agreement, and may include amounts 15160
sufficient to meet the bond service charges and other payments and 15161
deposits required under the bond proceedings for obligations 15162
issued to pay costs of hospital facilities. A hospital agency may 15163
commit itself to make such payments at least for so long as any 15164
such obligations are outstanding. In the apportionment, different 15165
classes of costs or expenses may be apportioned to one or more, 15166
all or less than all, of the participating hospital agencies as 15167
determined under such agreement.15168

       (C) An agreement entered into under authority of this section 15169
may provide for:15170

       (1) An orderly process for making determinations or advising 15171
as to planning, execution, implementation, and operation, which 15172
may include designating one of the hospital agencies, or a board 15173
thereof, for any of such purposes, provisions for a committee, 15174
board, or commission, and for representation thereon, or as may 15175
otherwise be provided;15176

       (2) Securing necessary personnel, including participation of 15177
personnel from the respective hospital agencies;15178

       (3) Standards or conditions for the admission or 15179
participation of patients and physicians;15180

       (4) Conditions for admittance of other hospital agencies to 15181
participation under the agreement;15182

       (5) Fixing or establishing the method of determining charges 15183
to be made for particular services;15184

       (6) The manner of amending, supplementing, terminating, or 15185
withdrawal or removal of any party from, the agreement, and the 15186
term of the agreement, or an indefinite term;15187

       (7) Designation of the applicants for or recipients of any 15188
federal, state, or other aid, assistance, or loans available by 15189
reason of any activities conducted under the agreement;15190

       (8) Designation of one or more of the participating hospital 15191
agencies to maintain, prepare, and submit, on behalf of all 15192
parties to the agreement, any or all records and reports with 15193
regard to the activities conducted under the agreement;15194

       (9) Any incidental use of the hospital facilities, or 15195
services thereof, by participating public hospital agencies for 15196
any of their lawful purposes, which incidental use does not impair 15197
the character of the facilities as hospital facilities for any 15198
purpose of this chapter;15199

       (10) Such other matters as the parties thereto may agree upon 15200
for the purposes of division (A) of this section.15201

       (D) For the purpose of paying or contributing its share under 15202
an agreement made under this section, a public hospital agency 15203
may:15204

       (1) Expend any moneys from its general fund, and from any 15205
other funds not otherwise restricted by law, but including funds 15206
for permanent improvements of hospital facilities of such public 15207
hospital agency where the contribution is to be made toward the 15208
costs of hospital facilities under the agreement, and including 15209
funds derived from levies for, or receipts available for, 15210
operating expenses of hospital facilities or services of such 15211
public hospital agency where the contribution or payment is to be 15212
made toward operating expenses of the hospital facilities or 15213
services under the agreement or for the services provided thereby;15214

       (2) Issue obligations under Chapter 133. or section 140.06, 15215
339.14, 339.15, 513.12, or 3345.12 of the Revised Code, or Section 15216
3 of Article XVIII, Ohio Constitution, if applicable to such 15217
public hospital agency, to pay costs of hospital facilities, or 15218
issue obligations under any other provision of law authorizing 15219
such public hospital agency to issue obligations for any costs of 15220
hospital facilities;15221

       (3) Levy taxes under Chapter 5705. or section 513.13 or 15222
3709.29 of the Revised Code, if applicable to such public hospital 15223
agency, provided that the purpose of such levy may include the 15224
provision of funds for either or both permanent improvements and 15225
current expenses if required for the contribution or payment of 15226
such hospital agency under such agreement, and each such public 15227
hospital agency may issue notes in anticipation of any such levy, 15228
pursuant to the procedures provided in section 5705.191 of the 15229
Revised Code if the levy is solely for current expenses, and in 15230
section 5705.193 of the Revised Code if the levy is all or in part 15231
for permanent improvements;15232

       (4) Contribute real and personal property or interest therein 15233
without necessity for competitive bidding or public auction on 15234
disposition of such property.15235

       (E) Any funds provided by public hospital agencies that are 15236
parties to an agreement entered into under this section shall be 15237
transferred to and placed in a separate fund or funds of such 15238
participating public hospital agency as is designated under the 15239
agreement. The funds shall be applied for the purposes provided in 15240
such agreement and are subject to audit. Pursuant to any 15241
determinations to be made under such agreement, the funds shall be 15242
deposited, invested, and disbursed under the provisions of law 15243
applicable to the public hospital agency in whose custody the 15244
funds are held. This division is subject to the provisions of any 15245
applicable bond proceedings under section 133.08, 140.06, 339.15, 15246
or 3345.12 of the Revised Code or Section 3 of Article XVIII, Ohio 15247
Constitution. The records and reports of such public hospital 15248
agency under Chapter 117. of the Revised Code and sections 3702.51 15249
to 3702.62 of the Revised Code, with respect to the funds shall be 15250
sufficient without necessity for reports thereon by the other 15251
public hospital agencies participating under such agreement.15252

       (F)(1) Prior to its entry into any such agreement, the public 15253
hospital agency must determine, and set forth in a resolution or 15254
ordinance, that the contribution to be made by it under such 15255
agreement will be fair consideration for value and benefit to be 15256
derived by it under such agreement and that the agreement will 15257
promote the public purpose stated in section 140.02 of the Revised 15258
Code.15259

       (2) If the agreement is with a board of county commissioners, 15260
board of county hospital trustees, or county hospital commission 15261
and is an initial agreement for the acquisition or operation of a 15262
county hospital operated by a board of county hospital trustees 15263
under section 339.06 of the Revised Code, the governing body of 15264
the public hospital agency shall submit the agreement, accompanied 15265
by the resolution or ordinance, to the board of county 15266
commissioners for review pursuant to section 339.091 of the 15267
Revised Code. The agreement may be entered into only if the board 15268
of county commissioners adopts a resolution under that section. 15269
The requirements of division (F)(2) of this section do not apply 15270
to the agreement if one or more hospitals classified as general 15271
hospitals by the director of health under section 3701.07 of the 15272
Revised Code are operating in the same county as the county 15273
hospital.15274

       Sec. 140.05.  (A)(1) A public hospital agency may lease any 15275
hospital facility to one or more hospital agencies for use as a 15276
hospital facility, or to one or more city or general health 15277
districts; boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 15278
services; county boards of developmental disabilities; the 15279
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services; 15280
or the department of developmental disabilities, for uses which 15281
they are authorized to make thereof under the laws applicable to 15282
them, or any combination of them, and they may lease such 15283
facilities to or from a hospital agency for such uses, upon such 15284
terms and conditions as are agreed upon by the parties. Such lease 15285
may be for a term of fifty years or less and may provide for an 15286
option of the lessee to renew for a term of fifty years or less, 15287
as therein set forth. Prior to entering into such lease, the 15288
governing body of any public hospital agency granting such lease 15289
must determine, and set forth in a resolution or ordinance, that 15290
such lease will promote the public purpose stated in section 15291
140.02 of the Revised Code and that the lessor public hospital 15292
agency will be duly benefited thereby.15293

       (2) If the lease is with a board of county commissioners, 15294
board of county hospital trustees, or county hospital commission 15295
and is an agreement for the initial lease of a county hospital 15296
operated by a board of county hospital trustees under section 15297
339.06 of the Revised Code, the governing body of the public 15298
hospital agency shall submit the agreement, accompanied by the 15299
resolution or ordinance, to the board of county commissioners for 15300
review pursuant to section 339.091 of the Revised Code. The 15301
agreement may be entered into only if the board of county 15302
commissioners adopts a resolution under that section. The 15303
requirements of division (A)(2) of this section do not apply to 15304
the lease if one or more hospitals classified as general hospitals 15305
by the director of health under section 3701.07 of the Revised 15306
Code are operating in the same county as the county hospital.15307

       (B) Any lease entered into pursuant to this section shall 15308
provide that in the event that the lessee fails faithfully and 15309
efficiently to administer, maintain, and operate such leased 15310
facilities as hospital facilities, or fails to provide the 15311
services thereof without regard to race, creed, color, or national 15312
origin, or fails to require that any hospital agency using such 15313
facilities or the services thereof shall not discriminate by 15314
reason of race, creed, color, or national origin, after an 15315
opportunity to be heard upon written charges, said lease may be 15316
terminated at the time, in the manner and with consequences 15317
therein provided. If any such lease does not contain terms to the 15318
effect provided in this division, it shall nevertheless be deemed 15319
to contain such terms which shall be implemented as determined by 15320
the governing body of the lessor.15321

       (C) Such lease may provide for rentals commencing at any time 15322
agreed upon, or advance rental, and continuing for such period 15323
therein provided, notwithstanding and without diminution, rebate, 15324
or setoff by reason of time of availability of the hospital 15325
facility for use, delays in construction, failure of completion, 15326
damage or destruction of the hospital facilities, or for any other 15327
reason.15328

       (D) Such lease may provide for the sale or transfer of title 15329
of the leased facilities pursuant to an option to purchase, 15330
lease-purchase, or installment purchase upon terms therein 15331
provided or to be determined as therein provided, which may 15332
include provision for the continued use thereof as a hospital 15333
facility for some reasonable period, taking into account efficient 15334
useful life and other factors, as is provided therein.15335

       (E) Such lease may be entered as part of or in connection 15336
with an agreement pursuant to section 140.03 of the Revised Code. 15337
Any hospital facilities which are the subject of an agreement 15338
entered into under section 140.03 of the Revised Code may be 15339
leased pursuant to this section.15340

       (F) If land acquired by a public hospital agency for a 15341
hospital facility is adjacent to an existing hospital facility 15342
owned by another hospital agency, the public hospital agency may, 15343
in connection with such acquisition or the leasing of such land 15344
and hospital facilities thereon to one or more hospital agencies, 15345
enter into an agreement with the hospital agency which owns such 15346
adjacent hospital facility for the use of common walls in the 15347
construction, operation, or maintenance of hospital facilities of 15348
the public hospital agency. For the purpose of construction, 15349
operation, or maintenance of hospital facilities, a public 15350
hospital agency may acquire by purchase, gift, lease, lease with 15351
option to purchase, lease-purchase, or installment purchase, 15352
easement deed, or other agreement, real estate and interests in 15353
real estate, including rights to use space over, under or upon 15354
real property owned by others, and support, access, common wall, 15355
and other rights in connection therewith. Any public hospital 15356
agency or other political subdivision or any public agency, board, 15357
commission, institution, body, or instrumentality may grant such 15358
real estate, interests, or rights to any hospital agency upon such 15359
terms as are agreed upon without necessity for competitive bidding 15360
or public auction.15361

       Sec. 145.01.  As used in this chapter:15362

       (A) "Public employee" means:15363

       (1) Any person holding an office, not elective, under the 15364
state or any county, township, municipal corporation, park 15365
district, conservancy district, sanitary district, health 15366
district, metropolitan housing authority, state retirement board, 15367
Ohio historical society, public library, county law library, union 15368
cemetery, joint hospital, institutional commissary, state 15369
university, or board, bureau, commission, council, committee, 15370
authority, or administrative body as the same are, or have been, 15371
created by action of the general assembly or by the legislative 15372
authority of any of the units of local government named in 15373
division (A)(1) of this section, or employed and paid in whole or 15374
in part by the state or any of the authorities named in division 15375
(A)(1) of this section in any capacity not covered by section 15376
742.01, 3307.01, 3309.01, or 5505.01 of the Revised Code.15377

       (2) A person who is a member of the public employees 15378
retirement system and who continues to perform the same or similar 15379
duties under the direction of a contractor who has contracted to 15380
take over what before the date of the contract was a publicly 15381
operated function. The governmental unit with which the contract 15382
has been made shall be deemed the employer for the purposes of 15383
administering this chapter.15384

       (3) Any person who is an employee of a public employer, 15385
notwithstanding that the person's compensation for that employment 15386
is derived from funds of a person or entity other than the 15387
employer. Credit for such service shall be included as total 15388
service credit, provided that the employee makes the payments 15389
required by this chapter, and the employer makes the payments 15390
required by sections 145.48 and 145.51 of the Revised Code.15391

       (4) A person who elects in accordance with section 145.015 of 15392
the Revised Code to remain a contributing member of the public 15393
employees retirement system.15394

       (5) A person who is an employee of the legal rights service 15395
on September 30, 2012, and continues to be employed by the 15396
nonprofit entity established under Section 319.20 of Am. Sub. H.B. 15397
153 of the 129th general assembly. The nonprofit entity is the 15398
employer for the purpose of this chapter.15399

       In all cases of doubt, the public employees retirement board 15400
shall determine under section 145.036, 145.037, or 145.038 of the 15401
Revised Code whether any person is a public employee, and its 15402
decision is final.15403

       (B) "Member" means any public employee, other than a public 15404
employee excluded or exempted from membership in the retirement 15405
system by section 145.03, 145.031, 145.032, 145.033, 145.034, 15406
145.035, or 145.38 of the Revised Code. "Member" includes a PERS 15407
retirant who becomes a member under division (C) of section 145.38 15408
of the Revised Code. "Member" also includes a disability benefit 15409
recipient.15410

       (C) "Head of the department" means the elective or appointive 15411
head of the several executive, judicial, and administrative 15412
departments, institutions, boards, and commissions of the state 15413
and local government as the same are created and defined by the 15414
laws of this state or, in case of a charter government, by that 15415
charter.15416

       (D) "Employer" or "public employer" means the state or any 15417
county, township, municipal corporation, park district, 15418
conservancy district, sanitary district, health district, 15419
metropolitan housing authority, state retirement board, Ohio 15420
historical society, public library, county law library, union 15421
cemetery, joint hospital, institutional commissary, state medical 15422
university, state university, or board, bureau, commission, 15423
council, committee, authority, or administrative body as the same 15424
are, or have been, created by action of the general assembly or by 15425
the legislative authority of any of the units of local government 15426
named in this division not covered by section 742.01, 3307.01, 15427
3309.01, or 5505.01 of the Revised Code. In addition, "employer" 15428
means the employer of any public employee.15429

       (E) "Prior military service" also means all service credited 15430
for active duty with the armed forces of the United States as 15431
provided in section 145.30 of the Revised Code.15432

       (F) "Contributor" means any person who has an account in the 15433
employees' savings fund created by section 145.23 of the Revised 15434
Code. When used in the sections listed in division (B) of section 15435
145.82 of the Revised Code, "contributor" includes any person 15436
participating in a PERS defined contribution plan.15437

       (G) "Beneficiary" or "beneficiaries" means the estate or a 15438
person or persons who, as the result of the death of a member, 15439
contributor, or retirant, qualify for or are receiving some right 15440
or benefit under this chapter.15441

       (H)(1) "Total service credit," except as provided in section 15442
145.37 of the Revised Code, means all service credited to a member 15443
of the retirement system since last becoming a member, including 15444
restored service credit as provided by section 145.31 of the 15445
Revised Code; credit purchased under sections 145.293 and 145.299 15446
of the Revised Code; all the member's military service credit 15447
computed as provided in this chapter; all service credit 15448
established pursuant to section 145.297 of the Revised Code; and 15449
any other service credited under this chapter. For the exclusive 15450
purpose of satisfying the service credit requirement and of 15451
determining eligibility for benefits under sections 145.32, 15452
145.33, 145.331, 145.332, 145.35, 145.36, and 145.361 of the 15453
Revised Code, "five or more years of total service credit" means 15454
sixty or more calendar months of contributing service in this 15455
system.15456

       (2) "One and one-half years of contributing service credit," 15457
as used in division (B) of section 145.45 of the Revised Code, 15458
also means eighteen or more calendar months of employment by a 15459
municipal corporation that formerly operated its own retirement 15460
plan for its employees or a part of its employees, provided that 15461
all employees of that municipal retirement plan who have eighteen 15462
or more months of such employment, upon establishing membership in 15463
the public employees retirement system, shall make a payment of 15464
the contributions they would have paid had they been members of 15465
this system for the eighteen months of employment preceding the 15466
date membership was established. When that payment has been made 15467
by all such employee members, a corresponding payment shall be 15468
paid into the employers' accumulation fund by that municipal 15469
corporation as the employer of the employees.15470

       (3) Where a member also is a member of the state teachers 15471
retirement system or the school employees retirement system, or 15472
both, except in cases of retirement on a combined basis pursuant 15473
to section 145.37 of the Revised Code or as provided in section 15474
145.383 of the Revised Code, service credit for any period shall 15475
be credited on the basis of the ratio that contributions to the 15476
public employees retirement system bear to total contributions in 15477
all state retirement systems.15478

       (4) Not more than one year of credit may be given for any 15479
period of twelve months.15480

       (5) "Ohio service credit" means credit for service that was 15481
rendered to the state or any of its political subdivisions or any 15482
employer.15483

       (I) "Regular interest" means interest at any rates for the 15484
respective funds and accounts as the public employees retirement 15485
board may determine from time to time.15486

       (J) "Accumulated contributions" means the sum of all amounts 15487
credited to a contributor's individual account in the employees' 15488
savings fund together with any interest credited to the 15489
contributor's account under section 145.471 or 145.472 of the 15490
Revised Code.15491

       (K)(1) "Final average salary" means the greater of the 15492
following:15493

       (a) The sum of the member's earnable salaries for the 15494
appropriate number of calendar years of contributing service, 15495
determined under section 145.017 of the Revised Code, in which the 15496
member's earnable salary was highest, divided by the same number 15497
of calendar years or, if the member has fewer than the appropriate 15498
number of calendar years of contributing service, the total of the 15499
member's earnable salary for all years of contributing service 15500
divided by the number of calendar years of the member's 15501
contributing service;15502

       (b) The sum of a member's earnable salaries for the 15503
appropriate number of consecutive months, determined under section 15504
145.017 of the Revised Code, that were the member's last months of 15505
service, up to and including the last month, divided by the 15506
appropriate number of years or, if the time between the first and 15507
final months of service is less than the appropriate number of 15508
consecutive months, the total of the member's earnable salary for 15509
all months of contributing service divided by the number of years 15510
between the first and final months of contributing service, 15511
including any fraction of a year, except that the member's final 15512
average salary shall not exceed the member's highest earnable 15513
salary for any twelve consecutive months.15514

        (2) If contributions were made in only one calendar year, 15515
"final average salary" means the member's total earnable salary.15516

       (L) "Annuity" means payments for life derived from 15517
contributions made by a contributor and paid from the annuity and 15518
pension reserve fund as provided in this chapter. All annuities 15519
shall be paid in twelve equal monthly installments.15520

       (M) "Annuity reserve" means the present value, computed upon 15521
the basis of the mortality and other tables adopted by the board, 15522
of all payments to be made on account of any annuity, or benefit 15523
in lieu of any annuity, granted to a retirant as provided in this 15524
chapter.15525

       (N)(1) "Disability retirement" means retirement as provided 15526
in section 145.36 of the Revised Code.15527

       (2) "Disability allowance" means an allowance paid on account 15528
of disability under section 145.361 of the Revised Code.15529

       (3) "Disability benefit" means a benefit paid as disability 15530
retirement under section 145.36 of the Revised Code, as a 15531
disability allowance under section 145.361 of the Revised Code, or 15532
as a disability benefit under section 145.37 of the Revised Code.15533

       (4) "Disability benefit recipient" means a member who is 15534
receiving a disability benefit.15535

       (O) "Age and service retirement" means retirement as provided 15536
in sections 145.32, 145.33, 145.331, 145.332, 145.37, and 145.46 15537
and former section 145.34 of the Revised Code.15538

       (P) "Pensions" means annual payments for life derived from 15539
contributions made by the employer that at the time of retirement 15540
are credited into the annuity and pension reserve fund from the 15541
employers' accumulation fund and paid from the annuity and pension 15542
reserve fund as provided in this chapter. All pensions shall be 15543
paid in twelve equal monthly installments.15544

       (Q) "Retirement allowance" means the pension plus that 15545
portion of the benefit derived from contributions made by the 15546
member.15547

       (R)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (R) of this 15548
section, "earnable salary" means all salary, wages, and other 15549
earnings paid to a contributor by reason of employment in a 15550
position covered by the retirement system. The salary, wages, and 15551
other earnings shall be determined prior to determination of the 15552
amount required to be contributed to the employees' savings fund 15553
under section 145.47 of the Revised Code and without regard to 15554
whether any of the salary, wages, or other earnings are treated as 15555
deferred income for federal income tax purposes. "Earnable salary" 15556
includes the following:15557

       (a) Payments made by the employer in lieu of salary, wages, 15558
or other earnings for sick leave, personal leave, or vacation used 15559
by the contributor;15560

       (b) Payments made by the employer for the conversion of sick 15561
leave, personal leave, and vacation leave accrued, but not used if 15562
the payment is made during the year in which the leave is accrued, 15563
except that payments made pursuant to section 124.383 or 124.386 15564
of the Revised Code are not earnable salary;15565

       (c) Allowances paid by the employer for maintenance, 15566
consisting of housing, laundry, and meals, as certified to the 15567
retirement board by the employer or the head of the department 15568
that employs the contributor;15569

       (d) Fees and commissions paid under section 507.09 of the 15570
Revised Code;15571

       (e) Payments that are made under a disability leave program 15572
sponsored by the employer and for which the employer is required 15573
by section 145.296 of the Revised Code to make periodic employer 15574
and employee contributions;15575

       (f) Amounts included pursuant to former division (K)(3) and 15576
former division (Y) of this section and section 145.2916 of the 15577
Revised Code.15578

       (2) "Earnable salary" does not include any of the following:15579

       (a) Fees and commissions, other than those paid under section 15580
507.09 of the Revised Code, paid as sole compensation for personal 15581
services and fees and commissions for special services over and 15582
above services for which the contributor receives a salary;15583

       (b) Amounts paid by the employer to provide life insurance, 15584
sickness, accident, endowment, health, medical, hospital, dental, 15585
or surgical coverage, or other insurance for the contributor or 15586
the contributor's family, or amounts paid by the employer to the 15587
contributor in lieu of providing the insurance;15588

       (c) Incidental benefits, including lodging, food, laundry, 15589
parking, or services furnished by the employer, or use of the 15590
employer's property or equipment, or amounts paid by the employer 15591
to the contributor in lieu of providing the incidental benefits;15592

       (d) Reimbursement for job-related expenses authorized by the 15593
employer, including moving and travel expenses and expenses 15594
related to professional development;15595

       (e) Payments for accrued but unused sick leave, personal 15596
leave, or vacation that are made at any time other than in the 15597
year in which the sick leave, personal leave, or vacation was 15598
accrued;15599

       (f) Payments made to or on behalf of a contributor that are 15600
in excess of the annual compensation that may be taken into 15601
account by the retirement system under division (a)(17) of section 15602
401 of the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 15603
U.S.C.A. 401(a)(17), as amended;15604

       (g) Payments made under division (B), (C), or (E) of section 15605
5923.05 of the Revised Code, Section 4 of Substitute Senate Bill 15606
No. 3 of the 119th general assembly, Section 3 of Amended 15607
Substitute Senate Bill No. 164 of the 124th general assembly, or 15608
Amended Substitute House Bill No. 405 of the 124th general 15609
assembly;15610

       (h) Anything of value received by the contributor that is 15611
based on or attributable to retirement or an agreement to retire, 15612
except that payments made on or before January 1, 1989, that are 15613
based on or attributable to an agreement to retire shall be 15614
included in earnable salary if both of the following apply:15615

       (i) The payments are made in accordance with contract 15616
provisions that were in effect prior to January 1, 1986;15617

       (ii) The employer pays the retirement system an amount 15618
specified by the retirement board equal to the additional 15619
liability resulting from the payments.15620

       (i) The portion of any amount included in section 145.2916 of 15621
the Revised Code that represents employer contributions.15622

       (3) The retirement board shall determine by rule whether any 15623
compensation not enumerated in division (R) of this section is 15624
earnable salary, and its decision shall be final.15625

       (S) "Pension reserve" means the present value, computed upon 15626
the basis of the mortality and other tables adopted by the board, 15627
of all payments to be made on account of any retirement allowance 15628
or benefit in lieu of any retirement allowance, granted to a 15629
member or beneficiary under this chapter.15630

       (T) "Contributing service" means both of the following:15631

       (1) All service credited to a member of the system since 15632
January 1, 1935, for which contributions are made as required by 15633
sections 145.47, 145.48, and 145.483 of the Revised Code. In any 15634
year subsequent to 1934, credit for any service shall be allowed 15635
in accordance with section 145.016 of the Revised Code.15636

       (2) Service credit received by election of the member under 15637
section 145.814 of the Revised Code.15638

       (U) "State retirement board" means the public employees 15639
retirement board, the school employees retirement board, or the 15640
state teachers retirement board.15641

       (V) "Retirant" means any former member who retires and is 15642
receiving a monthly allowance as provided in sections 145.32, 15643
145.33, 145.331, 145.332, and 145.46 and former section 145.34 of 15644
the Revised Code.15645

       (W) "Employer contribution" means the amount paid by an 15646
employer as determined under section 145.48 of the Revised Code.15647

       (X) "Public service terminates" means the last day for which 15648
a public employee is compensated for services performed for an 15649
employer or the date of the employee's death, whichever occurs 15650
first.15651

       (Y) "Five years of service credit," for the exclusive purpose 15652
of satisfying the service credit requirements and of determining 15653
eligibility under section 145.33 or 145.332 of the Revised Code, 15654
means employment covered under this chapter or under a former 15655
retirement plan operated, recognized, or endorsed by the employer 15656
prior to coverage under this chapter or under a combination of the 15657
coverage.15658

       (Z) "Deputy sheriff" means any person who is commissioned and 15659
employed as a full-time peace officer by the sheriff of any 15660
county, and has been so employed since on or before December 31, 15661
1965; any person who is or has been commissioned and employed as a 15662
peace officer by the sheriff of any county since January 1, 1966, 15663
and who has received a certificate attesting to the person's 15664
satisfactory completion of the peace officer training school as 15665
required by section 109.77 of the Revised Code; or any person 15666
deputized by the sheriff of any county and employed pursuant to 15667
section 2301.12 of the Revised Code as a criminal bailiff or court 15668
constable who has received a certificate attesting to the person's 15669
satisfactory completion of the peace officer training school as 15670
required by section 109.77 of the Revised Code.15671

       (AA) "Township constable or police officer in a township 15672
police department or district" means any person who is 15673
commissioned and employed as a full-time peace officer pursuant to 15674
Chapter 505. or 509. of the Revised Code, who has received a 15675
certificate attesting to the person's satisfactory completion of 15676
the peace officer training school as required by section 109.77 of 15677
the Revised Code.15678

       (BB) "Drug agent" means any person who is either of the 15679
following:15680

       (1) Employed full time as a narcotics agent by a county 15681
narcotics agency created pursuant to section 307.15 of the Revised 15682
Code and has received a certificate attesting to the satisfactory 15683
completion of the peace officer training school as required by 15684
section 109.77 of the Revised Code;15685

       (2) Employed full time as an undercover drug agent as defined 15686
in section 109.79 of the Revised Code and is in compliance with 15687
section 109.77 of the Revised Code.15688

       (CC) "Department of public safety enforcement agent" means a 15689
full-time employee of the department of public safety who is 15690
designated under section 5502.14 of the Revised Code as an 15691
enforcement agent and who is in compliance with section 109.77 of 15692
the Revised Code.15693

       (DD) "Natural resources law enforcement staff officer" means 15694
a full-time employee of the department of natural resources who is 15695
designated a natural resources law enforcement staff officer under 15696
section 1501.013 of the Revised Code and is in compliance with 15697
section 109.77 of the Revised Code.15698

       (EE) "Park officer" means a full-time employee of the 15699
department of natural resources who is designated a park officer 15700
under section 1541.10 of the Revised Code and is in compliance 15701
with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.15702

       (FF) "Forest officer" means a full-time employee of the 15703
department of natural resources who is designated a forest officer 15704
under section 1503.29 of the Revised Code and is in compliance 15705
with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.15706

       (GG) "Preserve officer" means a full-time employee of the 15707
department of natural resources who is designated a preserve 15708
officer under section 1517.10 of the Revised Code and is in 15709
compliance with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.15710

       (HH) "Wildlife officer" means a full-time employee of the 15711
department of natural resources who is designated a wildlife 15712
officer under section 1531.13 of the Revised Code and is in 15713
compliance with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.15714

       (II) "State watercraft officer" means a full-time employee of 15715
the department of natural resources who is designated a state 15716
watercraft officer under section 1547.521 of the Revised Code and 15717
is in compliance with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.15718

       (JJ) "Park district police officer" means a full-time 15719
employee of a park district who is designated pursuant to section 15720
511.232 or 1545.13 of the Revised Code and is in compliance with 15721
section 109.77 of the Revised Code.15722

       (KK) "Conservancy district officer" means a full-time 15723
employee of a conservancy district who is designated pursuant to 15724
section 6101.75 of the Revised Code and is in compliance with 15725
section 109.77 of the Revised Code.15726

       (LL) "Municipal police officer" means a member of the 15727
organized police department of a municipal corporation who is 15728
employed full time, is in compliance with section 109.77 of the 15729
Revised Code, and is not a member of the Ohio police and fire 15730
pension fund.15731

       (MM) "Veterans' home police officer" means any person who is 15732
employed at a veterans' home as a police officer pursuant to 15733
section 5907.02 of the Revised Code and is in compliance with 15734
section 109.77 of the Revised Code.15735

       (NN) "Special police officer for a mental health institution" 15736
means any person who is designated as such pursuant to section 15737
5119.145119.08 of the Revised Code and is in compliance with 15738
section 109.77 of the Revised Code.15739

       (OO) "Special police officer for an institution for the 15740
developmentally disabled" means any person who is designated as 15741
such pursuant to section 5123.13 of the Revised Code and is in 15742
compliance with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.15743

       (PP) "State university law enforcement officer" means any 15744
person who is employed full time as a state university law 15745
enforcement officer pursuant to section 3345.04 of the Revised 15746
Code and who is in compliance with section 109.77 of the Revised 15747
Code.15748

       (QQ) "House sergeant at arms" means any person appointed by 15749
the speaker of the house of representatives under division (B)(1) 15750
of section 101.311 of the Revised Code who has arrest authority 15751
under division (E)(1) of that section.15752

       (RR) "Assistant house sergeant at arms" means any person 15753
appointed by the house sergeant at arms under division (C)(1) of 15754
section 101.311 of the Revised Code.15755

       (SS) "Regional transit authority police officer" means a 15756
person who is employed full time as a regional transit authority 15757
police officer under division (Y) of section 306.35 of the Revised 15758
Code and is in compliance with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.15759

       (TT) "State highway patrol police officer" means a special 15760
police officer employed full time and designated by the 15761
superintendent of the state highway patrol pursuant to section 15762
5503.09 of the Revised Code or a person serving full time as a 15763
special police officer pursuant to that section on a permanent 15764
basis on October 21, 1997, who is in compliance with section 15765
109.77 of the Revised Code.15766

       (UU) "Municipal public safety director" means a person who 15767
serves full time as the public safety director of a municipal 15768
corporation with the duty of directing the activities of the 15769
municipal corporation's police department and fire department.15770

        (VV) Notwithstanding section 2901.01 of the Revised Code, 15771
"PERS law enforcement officer" means a sheriff or any of the 15772
following whose primary duties are to preserve the peace, protect 15773
life and property, and enforce the laws of this state: a deputy 15774
sheriff, township constable or police officer in a township police 15775
department or district, drug agent, department of public safety 15776
enforcement agent, natural resources law enforcement staff 15777
officer, park officer, forest officer, preserve officer, wildlife 15778
officer, state watercraft officer, park district police officer, 15779
conservancy district officer, veterans' home police officer, 15780
special police officer for a mental health institution, special 15781
police officer for an institution for the developmentally 15782
disabled, state university law enforcement officer, municipal 15783
police officer, house sergeant at arms, assistant house sergeant 15784
at arms, regional transit authority police officer, or state 15785
highway patrol police officer. "PERS law enforcement officer" also 15786
includes a person serving as a municipal public safety director at 15787
any time during the period from September 29, 2005, to March 24, 15788
2009, if the duties of that service were to preserve the peace, 15789
protect life and property, and enforce the laws of this state.15790

       (WW) "Hamilton county municipal court bailiff" means a person 15791
appointed by the clerk of courts of the Hamilton county municipal 15792
court under division (A)(3) of section 1901.32 of the Revised Code 15793
who is employed full time as a bailiff or deputy bailiff, who has 15794
received a certificate attesting to the person's satisfactory 15795
completion of the peace officer basic training described in 15796
division (D)(1) of section 109.77 of the Revised Code.15797

       (XX) "PERS public safety officer" means a Hamilton county 15798
municipal court bailiff, or any of the following whose primary 15799
duties are other than to preserve the peace, protect life and 15800
property, and enforce the laws of this state: a deputy sheriff, 15801
township constable or police officer in a township police 15802
department or district, drug agent, department of public safety 15803
enforcement agent, natural resources law enforcement staff 15804
officer, park officer, forest officer, preserve officer, wildlife 15805
officer, state watercraft officer, park district police officer, 15806
conservancy district officer, veterans' home police officer, 15807
special police officer for a mental health institution, special 15808
police officer for an institution for the mentally retarded and15809
developmentally disabled, state university law enforcement 15810
officer, municipal police officer, house sergeant at arms, 15811
assistant house sergeant at arms, regional transit authority 15812
police officer, or state highway patrol police officer. "PERS 15813
public safety officer" also includes a person serving as a 15814
municipal public safety director at any time during the period 15815
from September 29, 2005, to March 24, 2009, if the duties of that 15816
service were other than to preserve the peace, protect life and 15817
property, and enforce the laws of this state.15818

       (YY) "Fiduciary" means a person who does any of the 15819
following:15820

       (1) Exercises any discretionary authority or control with 15821
respect to the management of the system or with respect to the 15822
management or disposition of its assets;15823

       (2) Renders investment advice for a fee, direct or indirect, 15824
with respect to money or property of the system;15825

       (3) Has any discretionary authority or responsibility in the 15826
administration of the system.15827

       (ZZ) "Actuary" means an individual who satisfies all of the 15828
following requirements:15829

       (1) Is a member of the American academy of actuaries;15830

       (2) Is an associate or fellow of the society of actuaries;15831

       (3) Has a minimum of five years' experience in providing 15832
actuarial services to public retirement plans.15833

       (AAA) "PERS defined benefit plan" means the plan described in 15834
sections 145.201 to 145.79 of the Revised Code.15835

       (BBB) "PERS defined contribution plans" means the plan or 15836
plans established under section 145.81 of the Revised Code.15837

       Sec. 145.012.  (A) "Public employee," as defined in division 15838
(A) of section 145.01 of the Revised Code, does not include any 15839
person:15840

       (1) Who is employed by a private, temporary-help service and 15841
performs services under the direction of a public employer or is 15842
employed on a contractual basis as an independent contractor under 15843
a personal service contract with a public employer;15844

       (2) Who is an emergency employee serving on a temporary basis 15845
in case of fire, snow, earthquake, flood, or other similar 15846
emergency;15847

       (3) Who is employed in a program established pursuant to the 15848
"Job Training Partnership Act," 96 Stat. 1322 (1982), 29 U.S.C.A. 15849
1501;15850

       (4) Who is an appointed member of either the motor vehicle 15851
salvage dealers board or the motor vehicle dealer's board whose 15852
rate and method of payment are determined pursuant to division (J) 15853
of section 124.15 of the Revised Code;15854

       (5) Who is employed as an election worker and paid less than 15855
five hundred dollars per calendar year for that service;15856

       (6) Who is employed as a firefighter in a position requiring 15857
satisfactory completion of a firefighter training course approved 15858
under former section 3303.07 or section 4765.55 of the Revised 15859
Code or conducted under section 3737.33 of the Revised Code except 15860
for the following:15861

       (a) Any firefighter who has elected under section 145.013 of 15862
the Revised Code to remain a contributing member of the public 15863
employees retirement system;15864

       (b) Any firefighter who was eligible to transfer from the 15865
public employees retirement system to the Ohio police and fire 15866
pension fund under section 742.51 or 742.515 of the Revised Code 15867
and did not elect to transfer;15868

       (c) Any firefighter who has elected under section 742.516 of 15869
the Revised Code to transfer from the Ohio police and fire pension 15870
fund to the public employees retirement system.15871

       (7) Who is a member of the board of health of a city or 15872
general health district, which pursuant to sections 3709.051 and 15873
3709.07 of the Revised Code includes a combined health district, 15874
and whose compensation for attendance at meetings of the board is 15875
set forth in division (B) of section 3709.02 or division (B) of 15876
section 3709.05 of the Revised Code, as appropriate;15877

       (8) Who participates in an alternative retirement plan 15878
established under Chapter 3305. of the Revised Code;15879

       (9) Who is a member of the board of directors of a sanitary 15880
district established under Chapter 6115. of the Revised Code;15881

       (10) Who is a member of the unemployment compensation 15882
advisory council;15883

       (11) Who is an employee, officer, or governor-appointed 15884
member of the board of directors of the nonprofit corporation 15885
formed under section 187.01 of the Revised Code;15886

       (12) Who is employed by the nonprofit entity established to 15887
provide advocacy services and a client assistance program for 15888
people with disabilities under Section 319.20 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 15889
of the 129th general assembly and whose employment begins on or 15890
after October 1, 2012.15891

       (B) No inmate of a correctional institution operated by the 15892
department of rehabilitation and correction, no patient in a 15893
hospital for the mentally ill or criminally insane operated by the 15894
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services, 15895
no resident in an institution for the mentally retarded operated 15896
by the department of developmental disabilities, no resident 15897
admitted as a patient of a veterans' home operated under Chapter 15898
5907. of the Revised Code, and no resident of a county home shall 15899
be considered as a public employee for the purpose of establishing 15900
membership or calculating service credit or benefits under this 15901
chapter. Nothing in this division shall be construed to affect any 15902
service credit attained by any person who was a public employee 15903
before becoming an inmate, patient, or resident at any institution 15904
listed in this division, or the payment of any benefit for which 15905
such a person or such a person's beneficiaries otherwise would be 15906
eligible.15907

       Sec. 145.037. (A) As used in this section and section 145.038 15908
of the Revised Code, "business entity" means an entity with five 15909
or more employees that is a corporation, association, firm, 15910
limited liability company, partnership, sole proprietorship, or 15911
other entity engaged in business.15912

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section, 15913
an individual who provided personal services to a public employer 15914
on or before January 7, 2013, but was not classified as a public 15915
employee may request from the public employees retirement board a 15916
determination of whether the individual should have been 15917
classified as a public employee for purposes of this chapter. The 15918
request shall be made on a form provided by the board.15919

       (2) Division (B)(1) of this section does not apply to an 15920
individual employed by a business entity under contract with a 15921
public employer to provide personal services to the employer.15922

        (C)(1) Not later than thirty days after January 7, 2013, the 15923
board shall notify each employer of the right of an individual 15924
described in division (B)(1) of this section to seek the 15925
determination described in that division. The notice shall be 15926
accompanied by copies of the form described in division (B)(1) of 15927
this section.15928

       (2) Not later than September 7, 2013, the employer shall send 15929
to each individual described in division (B)(1) of this section a 15930
copy of the form provided by the retirement system and written 15931
notice of the right to seek a determination of whether the 15932
individual should have been classified as a public employee. The 15933
notice shall be sent to the individual's last known address on 15934
record with the employer.15935

       (3) On receipt of a properly completed form, the board shall 15936
determine whether the individual should have been classified as a 15937
public employee. If the board determines that the individual is 15938
not a public employee with regard to the services in question, for 15939
the purposes of this chapter the individual shall be considered an 15940
independent contractor with regard to the services in question. 15941
The board's determination is final.15942

       (4) The board shall notify the individual and the employer of 15943
its determination. The determination shall apply to services 15944
performed before, on, or after January 7, 2013, for the same 15945
employer in the same capacity.15946

        (D) Regardless of whether an individual actually receives 15947
notice under this section, the request for a determination must be 15948
made not later than August 78, 2014, unless the individual can 15949
demonstrate to the board's satisfaction through medical records 15950
that on that date the individual was physically or mentally 15951
incapacitated and unable to request a determination.15952

       Sec. 145.22.  (A) The public employees retirement board shall 15953
have prepared annually by or under the supervision of an actuary 15954
an actuarial valuation of the pension assets, liabilities, and 15955
funding requirements of the public employees retirement system as 15956
established pursuant to this chapter. The actuary shall complete 15957
the valuation in accordance with actuarial standards of practice 15958
promulgated by the actuarial standards board of the American 15959
academy of actuaries and prepare a report of the valuation. The 15960
report shall include all of the following:15961

       (1) A summary of the benefit provisions evaluated;15962

       (2) A summary of the census data and financial information 15963
used in the valuation;15964

       (3) A description of the actuarial assumptions, actuarial 15965
cost method, and asset valuation method used in the valuation, 15966
including a statement of the assumed rate of payroll growth and 15967
assumed rate of growth or decline in the number of members 15968
contributing to the retirement system;15969

       (4) A summary of findings that includes a statement of the 15970
actuarial accrued pension liabilities and unfunded actuarial 15971
accrued pension liabilities;15972

       (5) A schedule showing the effect of any changes in the 15973
benefit provisions, actuarial assumptions, or cost methods since 15974
the last annual actuarial valuation;15975

       (6) A statement of whether contributions to the retirement 15976
system are expected to be sufficient to satisfy the funding 15977
objectives established by the board.15978

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 15979
study council, the director of budget and management, and the 15980
standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate 15981
with primary responsibility for retirement legislation immediately 15982
upon its availability and not later than the first day of 15983
September following the year for which the valuation was made.15984

       (B) At such time as the public employees retirement board 15985
determines, and at least once in each five-year period, the board 15986
shall have prepared by or under the supervision of an actuary an 15987
actuarial investigation of the mortality, service, and other 15988
experience of the members, retirants, contributors, and 15989
beneficiaries of the system to update the actuarial assumptions 15990
used in the actuarial valuation required by division (A) of this 15991
section. The actuary shall prepare a report of the actuarial 15992
investigation. The report shall be prepared and any recommended 15993
changes in actuarial assumptions shall be made in accordance with 15994
the actuarial standards of practice promulgated by the actuarial 15995
standards board of the American academy of actuaries. The report 15996
shall include all of the following:15997

       (1) A summary of relevant decrement and economic assumption 15998
experience observed over the period of the investigation;15999

       (2) Recommended changes in actuarial assumptions to be used 16000
in subsequent actuarial valuations required by division (A) of 16001
this section;16002

       (3) A measurement of the financial effect of the recommended 16003
changes in actuarial assumptions.16004

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 16005
study council and the standing committees of the house of 16006
representatives and the senate with primary responsibility for 16007
retirement legislation not later than the first day of November 16008
following the last fiscal year of the period the report covers.16009

       (C) The board may at any time request the actuary to make any 16010
studies or actuarial valuations to determine the adequacy of the 16011
contribution rate determined under section 145.48 of the Revised 16012
Code, and those rates may be adjusted by the board, as recommended 16013
by the actuary, effective as of the first of any year thereafter.16014

       (D) The board shall have prepared by or under the supervision 16015
of an actuary an actuarial analysis of any introduced legislation 16016
expected to have a measurable financial impact on the retirement 16017
system. The actuarial analysis shall be completed in accordance 16018
with the actuarial standards of practice promulgated by the 16019
actuarial standards board of the American academy of actuaries. 16020
The actuary shall prepare a report of the actuarial analysis, 16021
which shall include all of the following:16022

       (1) A summary of the statutory changes that are being 16023
evaluated;16024

       (2) A description of or reference to the actuarial 16025
assumptions and actuarial cost method used in the report;16026

       (3) A description of the participant group or groups included 16027
in the report;16028

       (4) A statement of the financial impact of the legislation, 16029
including the resulting increase, if any, in the employer normal 16030
cost percentage; the increase, if any, in actuarial accrued 16031
liabilities; and the per cent of payroll that would be required to 16032
amortize the increase in actuarial accrued liabilities as a level 16033
per cent of covered payroll for all active members over a period 16034
not to exceed thirty years;16035

       (5) A statement of whether the scheduled contributions to the 16036
system after the proposed change is enacted are expected to be 16037
sufficient to satisfy the funding objectives established by the 16038
board.16039

       Not later than sixty days from the date of introduction of 16040
the legislation, the board shall submit a copy of the actuarial 16041
analysis to the legislative service commission, the standing 16042
committees of the house of representatives and the senate with 16043
primary responsibility for retirement legislation, and the Ohio 16044
retirement study council.16045

       (E) The board shall have prepared annually a report giving a 16046
full accounting of the revenues and costs relating to the 16047
provision of benefits under sections 145.58 and 145.584 of the 16048
Revised Code. The report shall be made as of December 31, 1997, 16049
and the thirty-first day of December of each year thereafter. The 16050
report shall include the following:16051

       (1) A description of the statutory authority for the benefits 16052
provided;16053

       (2) A summary of the benefits;16054

       (3) A summary of the eligibility requirements for the 16055
benefits;16056

       (4) A statement of the number of participants eligible for 16057
the benefits;16058

       (5) A description of the accounting, asset valuation, and 16059
funding method used to provide the benefits;16060

       (6) A statement of the net assets available for the provision 16061
of the benefits as of the last day of the fiscal year;16062

       (7) A statement of any changes in the net assets available 16063
for the provision of benefits, including participant and employer 16064
contributions, net investment income, administrative expenses, and 16065
benefits provided to participants, as of the last day of the 16066
fiscal year;16067

       (8) For the last six consecutive fiscal years, a schedule of 16068
the net assets available for the benefits, the annual cost of 16069
benefits, administrative expenses incurred, and annual employer 16070
contributions allocated for the provision of benefits;16071

       (9) A description of any significant changes that affect the 16072
comparability of the report required under this division;16073

       (10) A statement of the amount paid under division (C) of 16074
section 145.58 of the Revised Code.16075

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 16076
study council, the director of budget and management, and the 16077
standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate 16078
with primary responsibility for retirement legislation immediately 16079
upon its availability and not later than the thirtieth day of June 16080
following the year for which the report was made.16081

       Sec. 149.01.  Each elective state officer, the adjutant 16082
general, the adult parole authority, the department of 16083
agriculture, the director of administrative services, the public 16084
utilities commission, the superintendent of insurance, the 16085
superintendent of financial institutions, the superintendent of 16086
purchases and printing, the fire marshal, the industrial 16087
commission, the administrator of workers' compensation, the state 16088
department of transportation, the department of health, the state 16089
medical board, the state dental board, the board of embalmers and 16090
funeral directors, the Ohio commission for the blind, the 16091
accountancy board of Ohio, the state council of uniform state 16092
laws, the board of commissioners of the sinking fund, the 16093
department of taxation, the board of tax appeals, the division of 16094
liquor control, the director of state armories, the trustees of 16095
the Ohio state university, and every private or quasi-public 16096
institution, association, board, or corporation receiving state 16097
money for its use and purpose shall make annually, at the end of 16098
each fiscal year, in quadruplicate, a report of the transactions 16099
and proceedings of that office or department for that fiscal year, 16100
excepting receipts and disbursements unless otherwise specifically 16101
required by law. The report shall contain a summary of the 16102
official acts of the officer, board, council, commission, 16103
institution, association, or corporation and any suggestions and 16104
recommendations that are proper. On the first day of August of 16105
each year, one16106

       One of the reports shall be filed with the governor, one with 16107
the secretary of state, and one with the state library, and one 16108
shall be kept on file in the office of the officer, board, 16109
council, commission, institution, association, or corporation. The 16110
reports shall be so filed by the first day of August, except that 16111
the report of the treasurer of state shall be so filed by the 16112
thirty-first day of December.16113

       Sec. 149.12.  The state library board shall forward, free of 16114
charge, in a paper or electronic format, one copy of each 16115
legislative bulletin, daily house and senate journal, pamphlet law 16116
as described in section 149.09 of the Revised Code, and summary of 16117
enactments published by the legislative service commission, to the 16118
following libraries:16119

       (A) Each library within the state that has been designated by 16120
the state library board under section 149.11 of the Revised Code 16121
as a depository for state publications;16122

       (B) In each county containing no library described in 16123
division (A) of this section, to a public library designated by 16124
the state library board to receive the journals, bulletins, and 16125
summaries described in this section. The state library board shall 16126
designate libraries that can best preserve the publications and 16127
are so located geographically that they can make the publications 16128
conveniently accessible to the residents of the county.16129

       The state library board shall forward the daily house and 16130
senate journals once every week while the general assembly is in 16131
session and the legislative bulletin, each pamphlet law, and the 16132
summary of enactments as they are published.16133

       Each library receiving publications under this section or 16134
under section 149.09 of the Revised Code shall make these 16135
publications accessible to the public.16136

       Sec. 149.307.  There is hereby created in the state treasury 16137
the Ohio history license plate contribution fund. The fund shall 16138
consist of the contributions that are paid to the registrar of 16139
motor vehicles by applicants who choose to obtain "Ohio history" 16140
license plates pursuant to section 4503.95 of the Revised Code.16141

       The contributions deposited in the fund shall be used by the 16142
Ohio historical society to provide grants to historical 16143
organizations located in this state. An organization that receives 16144
a grant under this section shall use the grant only to host 16145
exhibits and increase access to its collection by the public.16146

       The society shall establish and administer all aspects of the 16147
grant program, including eligibility requirements for receiving a 16148
grant under the program.16149

       Not later than the last business day of January of each year, 16150
the society shall prepare and submit to the general assembly a 16151
written report, detailing all aspects of the grant program during 16152
the immediately preceding calendar year.16153

       Sec. 149.311.  (A) As used in this section:16154

       (1) "Historic building" means a building, including its 16155
structural components, that is located in this state and that is 16156
either individually listed on the national register of historic 16157
places under 16 U.S.C. 470a, located in a registered historic 16158
district, and certified by the state historic preservation officer 16159
as being of historic significance to the district, or is 16160
individually listed as an historic landmark designated by a local 16161
government certified under 16 U.S.C. 470a(c).16162

       (2) "Qualified rehabilitation expenditures" means 16163
expenditures paid or incurred during the rehabilitation period, 16164
and before and after that period as determined under 26 U.S.C. 47, 16165
by an owner or qualified lessee of an historic building to 16166
rehabilitate the building. "Qualified rehabilitation expenditures" 16167
includes architectural or engineering fees paid or incurred in 16168
connection with the rehabilitation, and expenses incurred in the 16169
preparation of nomination forms for listing on the national 16170
register of historic places. "Qualified rehabilitation 16171
expenditures" does not include any of the following:16172

       (a) The cost of acquiring, expanding, or enlarging an 16173
historic building;16174

       (b) Expenditures attributable to work done to facilities 16175
related to the building, such as parking lots, sidewalks, and 16176
landscaping;16177

       (c) New building construction costs.16178

       (3) "Owner" of an historic building means a person holding 16179
the fee simple interest in the building. "Owner" does not include 16180
the state or a state agency, or any political subdivision as 16181
defined in section 9.23 of the Revised Code.16182

       (4) "Qualified lessee" means a person subject to a lease 16183
agreement for aan historic building and eligible for the federal 16184
rehabilitation tax credit under 26 U.S.C. 47. "Qualified lessee" 16185
does not include the state or a state agency or political 16186
subdivision as defined in section 9.23 of the Revised Code.16187

       (5) "Certificate owner" means the owner or qualified lessee 16188
of an historic building to which a rehabilitation tax credit 16189
certificate was issued under this section.16190

       (6) "Registered historic district" means an historic district 16191
listed in the national register of historic places under 16 U.S.C. 16192
470a, an historic district designated by a local government 16193
certified under 16 U.S.C. 470a(c), or a local historic district 16194
certified under 36 C.F.R. 67.8 and 67.9.16195

       (7) "Rehabilitation" means the process of repairing or 16196
altering an historic building or buildings, making possible an 16197
efficient use while preserving those portions and features of the 16198
building and its site and environment that are significant to its 16199
historic, architectural, and cultural values.16200

       (8) "Rehabilitation period" means one of the following:16201

       (a) If the rehabilitation initially was not planned to be 16202
completed in stages, a period chosen by the owner or qualified 16203
lessee not to exceed twenty-four months during which 16204
rehabilitation occurs;16205

       (b) If the rehabilitation initially was planned to be 16206
completed in stages, a period chosen by the owner or qualified 16207
lessee not to exceed sixty months during which rehabilitation 16208
occurs. Each stage shall be reviewed as a phase of a 16209
rehabilitation as determined under 26 C.F.R. 1.48-12 or a 16210
successor to that section.16211

       (9) "State historic preservation officer" or "officer" means 16212
the state historic preservation officer appointed by the governor 16213
under 16 U.S.C. 470a.16214

       (B) The owner or qualified lessee of an historic building may 16215
apply to the director of development services for a rehabilitation 16216
tax credit certificate for qualified rehabilitation expenditures 16217
paid or incurred by such owner or qualified lessee after April 4, 16218
2007, for rehabilitation of an historic building. If the owner of 16219
aan historic building enters a pass-through agreement with a 16220
qualified lessee for the purposes of the federal rehabilitation 16221
tax credit under 26 U.S.C. 47, the qualified rehabilitation 16222
expenditures paid or incurred by the owner after April 4, 2007, 16223
shallmay be attributed to the qualified lessee.16224

       The form and manner of filing such applications shall be 16225
prescribed by rule of the director. Each application shall state 16226
the amount of qualified rehabilitation expenditures the applicant 16227
estimates will be paid or incurred. The director may require 16228
applicants to furnish documentation of such estimates.16229

       The director, after consultation with the tax commissioner 16230
and in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall 16231
adopt rules that establish all of the following:16232

        (1) Forms and procedures by which applicants may apply for 16233
rehabilitation tax credit certificates;16234

        (2) Criteria for reviewing, evaluating, and approving 16235
applications for certificates within the limitations under 16236
division (D) of this section, criteria for assuring that the 16237
certificates issued encompass a mixture of high and low qualified 16238
rehabilitation expenditures, and criteria for issuing certificates 16239
under division (C)(3)(b) of this section;16240

        (3) Eligibility requirements for obtaining a certificate 16241
under this section;16242

        (4) The form of rehabilitation tax credit certificates;16243

        (5) Reporting requirements and monitoring procedures;16244

        (6) Procedures and criteria for conducting cost-benefit 16245
analyses of historic buildings that are the subjects of 16246
applications filed under this section. The purpose of a 16247
cost-benefit analysis shall be to determine whether rehabilitation 16248
of the historic building will result in a net revenue gain in 16249
state and local taxes once the building is used.16250

       (7) Any other rules necessary to implement and administer 16251
this section.16252

       (C) The director of development services shall review the 16253
applications with the assistance of the state historic 16254
preservation officer and determine whether all of the following 16255
criteria are met:16256

       (1) That the building that is the subject of the application 16257
is an historic building and the applicant is the owner or 16258
qualified lessee of the building;16259

       (2) That the rehabilitation will satisfy standards prescribed 16260
by the United States secretary of the interior under 16 U.S.C. 16261
470, et seq., as amended, and 36 C.F.R. 67.7 or a successor to 16262
that section;16263

       (3) That receiving a rehabilitation tax credit certificate 16264
under this section is a major factor in:16265

       (a) The applicant's decision to rehabilitate the historic 16266
building; or16267

       (b) To increase the level of investment in such 16268
rehabilitation.16269

       An applicant shall demonstrate to the satisfaction of the 16270
state historic preservation officer and director of development 16271
services that the rehabilitation will satisfy the standards 16272
described in division (C)(2) of this section before the applicant 16273
begins the physical rehabilitation of the historic building.16274

       (D)(1) If the director of development services determines 16275
that an application meets the criteria in divisions (C)(1), (2), 16276
and (3) of this section, the director shall conduct a cost-benefit 16277
analysis for the historic building that is the subject of the 16278
application to determine whether rehabilitation of the historic 16279
building will result in a net revenue gain in state and local 16280
taxes once the building is used. The director shall consider the 16281
results of the cost-benefit analysis in determining whether to 16282
approve the application. The director shall also consider the 16283
potential economic impact and the regional distributive balance of 16284
the credits throughout the state. The director may approve an 16285
application only after completion of the cost-benefit analysis.16286

       (2) A rehabilitation tax credit certificate shall not be 16287
issued for an amount greater than the estimated amount furnished 16288
by the applicant on the application for such certificate and 16289
approved by the director. The director shall not approve more than 16290
a total of sixty million dollars of rehabilitation tax credits per 16291
fiscal year but the director may reallocate unused tax credits 16292
from a prior fiscal year for new applicants and such reallocated 16293
credits shall not apply toward the dollar limit of this division.16294

       (3) For rehabilitations with a rehabilitation period not 16295
exceeding twenty-four months as provided in division (A)(7)(a) of 16296
this section, a rehabilitation tax credit certificate shall not be 16297
issued before the rehabilitation of the historic building is 16298
completed.16299

       (4) For rehabilitations with a rehabilitation period not 16300
exceeding sixty months as provided in division (A)(7)(b) of this 16301
section, a rehabilitation tax credit certificate shall not be 16302
issued before a stage of rehabilitation is completed. After all 16303
stages of rehabilitation are completed, if the director cannot 16304
determine that the criteria in division (C) of this section are 16305
satisfied for all stages of rehabilitations, the director shall 16306
certify this finding to the tax commissioner, and any 16307
rehabilitation tax credits received by the applicant shall be 16308
repaid by the applicant and may be collected by assessment as 16309
unpaid tax by the commissioner.16310

        (5) The director of development services shall require the 16311
applicant to provide a third-party cost certification by a 16312
certified public accountant of the actual costs attributed to the 16313
rehabilitation of the historic building when qualified 16314
rehabilitation expenditures exceed two hundred thousand dollars.16315

        If an applicant whose application is approved for receipt of 16316
a rehabilitation tax credit certificate fails to provide to the 16317
director sufficient evidence of reviewable progress, including a 16318
viable financial plan, copies of final construction drawings, and 16319
evidence that the applicant has obtained all historic approvals 16320
within twelve months after the date the applicant received 16321
notification of approval, and if the applicant fails to provide 16322
evidence to the director that the applicant has secured and closed 16323
on financing for the rehabilitation within eighteen months after 16324
receiving notification of approval, the director may rescind the 16325
approval of the application. The director shall notify the 16326
applicant if the approval has been rescinded. Credits that would 16327
have been available to an applicant whose approval was rescinded 16328
shall be available for other qualified applicants. Nothing in this 16329
division prohibits an applicant whose approval has been rescinded 16330
from submitting a new application for a rehabilitation tax credit 16331
certificate.16332

        (E) Issuance of a certificate represents a finding by the 16333
director of development services of the matters described in 16334
divisions (C)(1), (2), and (3) of this section only; issuance of a 16335
certificate does not represent a verification or certification by 16336
the director of the amount of qualified rehabilitation 16337
expenditures for which a tax credit may be claimed under section 16338
5725.151, 5725.34, 5726.52, 5729.17, 5733.47, or 5747.76, or 16339
5751.55 of the Revised Code. The amount of qualified 16340
rehabilitation expenditures for which a tax credit may be claimed 16341
is subject to inspection and examination by the tax commissioner 16342
or employees of the commissioner under section 5703.19 of the 16343
Revised Code and any other applicable law. Upon the issuance of a 16344
certificate, the director shall certify to the tax commissioner, 16345
in the form and manner requested by the tax commissioner, the name 16346
of the applicant, the amount of qualified rehabilitation 16347
expenditures shown on the certificate, and any other information 16348
required by the rules adopted under this section.16349

       (F)(1) On or before the first day of April each year, the 16350
director of development services and tax commissioner jointly 16351
shall submit to the president of the senate and the speaker of the 16352
house of representatives a report on the tax credit program 16353
established under this section and sections 5725.151, 5725.34, 16354
5726.52, 5729.17, 5733.47, and 5747.76, and 5751.55 of the Revised 16355
Code. The report shall present an overview of the program and 16356
shall include information on the number of rehabilitation tax 16357
credit certificates issued under this section during the preceding 16358
fiscal year, an update on the status of each historic building for 16359
which an application was approved under this section, the dollar 16360
amount of the tax credits granted under sections 5725.151, 16361
5725.34, 5726.52, 5729.17, 5733.47, and 5747.76, and 5751.55 of 16362
the Revised Code, and any other information the director and 16363
commissioner consider relevant to the topics addressed in the 16364
report.16365

        (2) On or before December 1, 2015, the director of 16366
development services and tax commissioner jointly shall submit to 16367
the president of the senate and the speaker of the house of 16368
representatives a comprehensive report that includes the 16369
information required by division (F)(1) of this section and a 16370
detailed analysis of the effectiveness of issuing tax credits for 16371
rehabilitating historic buildings. The report shall be prepared 16372
with the assistance of an economic research organization jointly 16373
chosen by the director and commissioner.16374

       (G) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 16375
historic rehabilitation tax credit operating fund. The director of 16376
development services is authorized to charge reasonable 16377
application and other fees in connection with the administration 16378
of tax credits authorized by this section and sections 5725.151, 16379
5725.34, 5726.52, 5729.17, 5733.44, and 5747.76, and 5751.55 of 16380
the Revised Code. Any such fees collected shall be credited to the 16381
fund and used to pay reasonable costs incurred by the department 16382
of development services in administering this section and sections 16383
5725.151, 5725.34, 5726.52, 5729.17, 5733.44, and 5747.76, and 16384
5751.55 of the Revised Code.16385

       The Ohio historic preservation office is authorized to charge 16386
reasonable fees in connection with its review and approval of 16387
applications under this section. Any such fees collected shall be 16388
credited to the fund and used to pay administrative costs incurred 16389
by the Ohio historic preservation office pursuant to this section.16390

       Sec. 149.43.  (A) As used in this section:16391

       (1) "Public record" means records kept by any public office, 16392
including, but not limited to, state, county, city, village, 16393
township, and school district units, and records pertaining to the 16394
delivery of educational services by an alternative school in this 16395
state kept by the nonprofit or for-profit entity operating the 16396
alternative school pursuant to section 3313.533 of the Revised 16397
Code. "Public record" does not mean any of the following:16398

       (a) Medical records;16399

       (b) Records pertaining to probation and parole proceedings or 16400
to proceedings related to the imposition of community control 16401
sanctions and post-release control sanctions;16402

       (c) Records pertaining to actions under section 2151.85 and 16403
division (C) of section 2919.121 of the Revised Code and to 16404
appeals of actions arising under those sections;16405

       (d) Records pertaining to adoption proceedings, including the 16406
contents of an adoption file maintained by the department of 16407
health under section 3705.12 of the Revised Code;16408

       (e) Information in a record contained in the putative father 16409
registry established by section 3107.062 of the Revised Code, 16410
regardless of whether the information is held by the department of 16411
job and family services or, pursuant to section 3111.69 of the 16412
Revised Code, the office of child support in the department or a 16413
child support enforcement agency;16414

       (f) Records listed in division (A) of section 3107.42 of the 16415
Revised Code or specified in division (A) of section 3107.52 of 16416
the Revised Code;16417

       (g) Trial preparation records;16418

       (h) Confidential law enforcement investigatory records;16419

       (i) Records containing information that is confidential under 16420
section 2710.03 or 4112.05 of the Revised Code;16421

       (j) DNA records stored in the DNA database pursuant to 16422
section 109.573 of the Revised Code;16423

       (k) Inmate records released by the department of 16424
rehabilitation and correction to the department of youth services 16425
or a court of record pursuant to division (E) of section 5120.21 16426
of the Revised Code;16427

       (l) Records maintained by the department of youth services 16428
pertaining to children in its custody released by the department 16429
of youth services to the department of rehabilitation and 16430
correction pursuant to section 5139.05 of the Revised Code;16431

       (m) Intellectual property records;16432

       (n) Donor profile records;16433

       (o) Records maintained by the department of job and family 16434
services pursuant to section 3121.894 of the Revised Code;16435

       (p) Peace officer, parole officer, probation officer, 16436
bailiff, prosecuting attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, 16437
correctional employee, community-based correctional facility 16438
employee, youth services employee, firefighter, EMT, or 16439
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 16440
investigation residential and familial information;16441

       (q) In the case of a county hospital operated pursuant to 16442
Chapter 339. of the Revised Code or a municipal hospital operated 16443
pursuant to Chapter 749. of the Revised Code, information that 16444
constitutes a trade secret, as defined in section 1333.61 of the 16445
Revised Code;16446

       (r) Information pertaining to the recreational activities of 16447
a person under the age of eighteen;16448

       (s) Records provided to, statements made by review board 16449
members during meetings of, and all work products of a child 16450
fatality review board acting under sections 307.621 to 307.629 of 16451
the Revised Code, and child fatality review data submitted by the 16452
child fatality review board to the department of health or a 16453
national child death review database, other than the report 16454
prepared pursuant to division (A) of section 307.626 of the 16455
Revised Code;16456

       (t) Records provided to and statements made by the executive 16457
director of a public children services agency or a prosecuting 16458
attorney acting pursuant to section 5153.171 of the Revised Code 16459
other than the information released under that section;16460

       (u) Test materials, examinations, or evaluation tools used in 16461
an examination for licensure as a nursing home administrator that 16462
the board of examinersexecutives of nursing home administrators16463
long-term services and supports administers under section 4751.04 16464
of the Revised Code or contracts under that section with a private 16465
or government entity to administer;16466

       (v) Records the release of which is prohibited by state or 16467
federal law;16468

       (w) Proprietary information of or relating to any person that 16469
is submitted to or compiled by the Ohio venture capital authority 16470
created under section 150.01 of the Revised Code;16471

       (x) Information reported and evaluations conducted pursuant 16472
to section 3701.072 of the Revised Code;16473

       (y) Financial statements and data any person submits for any 16474
purpose to the Ohio housing finance agency or the controlling 16475
board in connection with applying for, receiving, or accounting 16476
for financial assistance from the agency, and information that 16477
identifies any individual who benefits directly or indirectly from 16478
financial assistance from the agency;16479

       (z)(y) Records listed in section 5101.29 of the Revised Code;16480

       (aa)(z) Discharges recorded with a county recorder under 16481
section 317.24 of the Revised Code, as specified in division 16482
(B)(2) of that section;16483

       (bb)(aa) Usage information including names and addresses of 16484
specific residential and commercial customers of a municipally 16485
owned or operated public utility;16486

       (cc)(bb) Records described in division (C) of section 187.04 16487
of the Revised Code that are not designated to be made available 16488
to the public as provided in that division.16489

       (2) "Confidential law enforcement investigatory record" means 16490
any record that pertains to a law enforcement matter of a 16491
criminal, quasi-criminal, civil, or administrative nature, but 16492
only to the extent that the release of the record would create a 16493
high probability of disclosure of any of the following:16494

       (a) The identity of a suspect who has not been charged with 16495
the offense to which the record pertains, or of an information 16496
source or witness to whom confidentiality has been reasonably 16497
promised;16498

       (b) Information provided by an information source or witness 16499
to whom confidentiality has been reasonably promised, which 16500
information would reasonably tend to disclose the source's or 16501
witness's identity;16502

       (c) Specific confidential investigatory techniques or 16503
procedures or specific investigatory work product;16504

       (d) Information that would endanger the life or physical 16505
safety of law enforcement personnel, a crime victim, a witness, or 16506
a confidential information source.16507

       (3) "Medical record" means any document or combination of 16508
documents, except births, deaths, and the fact of admission to or 16509
discharge from a hospital, that pertains to the medical history, 16510
diagnosis, prognosis, or medical condition of a patient and that 16511
is generated and maintained in the process of medical treatment.16512

       (4) "Trial preparation record" means any record that contains 16513
information that is specifically compiled in reasonable 16514
anticipation of, or in defense of, a civil or criminal action or 16515
proceeding, including the independent thought processes and 16516
personal trial preparation of an attorney.16517

       (5) "Intellectual property record" means a record, other than 16518
a financial or administrative record, that is produced or 16519
collected by or for faculty or staff of a state institution of 16520
higher learning in the conduct of or as a result of study or 16521
research on an educational, commercial, scientific, artistic, 16522
technical, or scholarly issue, regardless of whether the study or 16523
research was sponsored by the institution alone or in conjunction 16524
with a governmental body or private concern, and that has not been 16525
publicly released, published, or patented.16526

       (6) "Donor profile record" means all records about donors or 16527
potential donors to a public institution of higher education 16528
except the names and reported addresses of the actual donors and 16529
the date, amount, and conditions of the actual donation.16530

       (7) "Peace officer, parole officer, probation officer, 16531
bailiff, prosecuting attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, 16532
correctional employee, community-based correctional facility 16533
employee, youth services employee, firefighter, EMT, or 16534
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 16535
investigation residential and familial information" means any 16536
information that discloses any of the following about a peace 16537
officer, parole officer, probation officer, bailiff, prosecuting 16538
attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, 16539
community-based correctional facility employee, youth services 16540
employee, firefighter, EMT, or investigator of the bureau of 16541
criminal identification and investigation:16542

       (a) The address of the actual personal residence of a peace 16543
officer, parole officer, probation officer, bailiff, assistant 16544
prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, community-based 16545
correctional facility employee, youth services employee, 16546
firefighter, EMT, or an investigator of the bureau of criminal 16547
identification and investigation, except for the state or 16548
political subdivision in which the peace officer, parole officer, 16549
probation officer, bailiff, assistant prosecuting attorney, 16550
correctional employee, community-based correctional facility 16551
employee, youth services employee, firefighter, EMT, or 16552
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 16553
investigation resides;16554

       (b) Information compiled from referral to or participation in 16555
an employee assistance program;16556

       (c) The social security number, the residential telephone 16557
number, any bank account, debit card, charge card, or credit card 16558
number, or the emergency telephone number of, or any medical 16559
information pertaining to, a peace officer, parole officer, 16560
probation officer, bailiff, prosecuting attorney, assistant 16561
prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, community-based 16562
correctional facility employee, youth services employee, 16563
firefighter, EMT, or investigator of the bureau of criminal 16564
identification and investigation;16565

       (d) The name of any beneficiary of employment benefits, 16566
including, but not limited to, life insurance benefits, provided 16567
to a peace officer, parole officer, probation officer, bailiff, 16568
prosecuting attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, correctional 16569
employee, community-based correctional facility employee, youth 16570
services employee, firefighter, EMT, or investigator of the bureau 16571
of criminal identification and investigation by the peace 16572
officer's, parole officer's, probation officer's, bailiff's, 16573
prosecuting attorney's, assistant prosecuting attorney's, 16574
correctional employee's, community-based correctional facility 16575
employee's, youth services employee's, firefighter's, EMT's, or 16576
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 16577
investigation's employer;16578

       (e) The identity and amount of any charitable or employment 16579
benefit deduction made by the peace officer's, parole officer's, 16580
probation officer's, bailiff's, prosecuting attorney's, assistant 16581
prosecuting attorney's, correctional employee's, community-based 16582
correctional facility employee's, youth services employee's, 16583
firefighter's, EMT's, or investigator of the bureau of criminal 16584
identification and investigation's employer from the peace 16585
officer's, parole officer's, probation officer's, bailiff's, 16586
prosecuting attorney's, assistant prosecuting attorney's, 16587
correctional employee's, community-based correctional facility 16588
employee's, youth services employee's, firefighter's, EMT's, or 16589
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 16590
investigation's compensation unless the amount of the deduction is 16591
required by state or federal law;16592

       (f) The name, the residential address, the name of the 16593
employer, the address of the employer, the social security number, 16594
the residential telephone number, any bank account, debit card, 16595
charge card, or credit card number, or the emergency telephone 16596
number of the spouse, a former spouse, or any child of a peace 16597
officer, parole officer, probation officer, bailiff, prosecuting 16598
attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, 16599
community-based correctional facility employee, youth services 16600
employee, firefighter, EMT, or investigator of the bureau of 16601
criminal identification and investigation;16602

       (g) A photograph of a peace officer who holds a position or 16603
has an assignment that may include undercover or plain clothes 16604
positions or assignments as determined by the peace officer's 16605
appointing authority.16606

       As used in divisions (A)(7) and (B)(9) of this section, 16607
"peace officer" has the same meaning as in section 109.71 of the 16608
Revised Code and also includes the superintendent and troopers of 16609
the state highway patrol; it does not include the sheriff of a 16610
county or a supervisory employee who, in the absence of the 16611
sheriff, is authorized to stand in for, exercise the authority of, 16612
and perform the duties of the sheriff.16613

       As used in divisions (A)(7) and (B)(5) of this section, 16614
"correctional employee" means any employee of the department of 16615
rehabilitation and correction who in the course of performing the 16616
employee's job duties has or has had contact with inmates and 16617
persons under supervision.16618

        As used in divisions (A)(7) and (B)(5) of this section, 16619
"youth services employee" means any employee of the department of 16620
youth services who in the course of performing the employee's job 16621
duties has or has had contact with children committed to the 16622
custody of the department of youth services.16623

       As used in divisions (A)(7) and (B)(9) of this section, 16624
"firefighter" means any regular, paid or volunteer, member of a 16625
lawfully constituted fire department of a municipal corporation, 16626
township, fire district, or village.16627

       As used in divisions (A)(7) and (B)(9) of this section, "EMT" 16628
means EMTs-basic, EMTs-I, and paramedics that provide emergency 16629
medical services for a public emergency medical service 16630
organization. "Emergency medical service organization," 16631
"EMT-basic," "EMT-I," and "paramedic" have the same meanings as in 16632
section 4765.01 of the Revised Code.16633

       As used in divisions (A)(7) and (B)(9) of this section, 16634
"investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 16635
investigation" has the meaning defined in section 2903.11 of the 16636
Revised Code.16637

       (8) "Information pertaining to the recreational activities of 16638
a person under the age of eighteen" means information that is kept 16639
in the ordinary course of business by a public office, that 16640
pertains to the recreational activities of a person under the age 16641
of eighteen years, and that discloses any of the following:16642

       (a) The address or telephone number of a person under the age 16643
of eighteen or the address or telephone number of that person's 16644
parent, guardian, custodian, or emergency contact person;16645

       (b) The social security number, birth date, or photographic 16646
image of a person under the age of eighteen;16647

       (c) Any medical record, history, or information pertaining to 16648
a person under the age of eighteen;16649

       (d) Any additional information sought or required about a 16650
person under the age of eighteen for the purpose of allowing that 16651
person to participate in any recreational activity conducted or 16652
sponsored by a public office or to use or obtain admission 16653
privileges to any recreational facility owned or operated by a 16654
public office.16655

       (9) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 16656
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.16657

       (10) "Post-release control sanction" has the same meaning as 16658
in section 2967.01 of the Revised Code.16659

        (11) "Redaction" means obscuring or deleting any information 16660
that is exempt from the duty to permit public inspection or 16661
copying from an item that otherwise meets the definition of a 16662
"record" in section 149.011 of the Revised Code.16663

       (12) "Designee" and "elected official" have the same meanings 16664
as in section 109.43 of the Revised Code.16665

       (B)(1) Upon request and subject to division (B)(8) of this 16666
section, all public records responsive to the request shall be 16667
promptly prepared and made available for inspection to any person 16668
at all reasonable times during regular business hours. Subject to 16669
division (B)(8) of this section, upon request, a public office or 16670
person responsible for public records shall make copies of the 16671
requested public record available at cost and within a reasonable 16672
period of time. If a public record contains information that is 16673
exempt from the duty to permit public inspection or to copy the 16674
public record, the public office or the person responsible for the 16675
public record shall make available all of the information within 16676
the public record that is not exempt. When making that public 16677
record available for public inspection or copying that public 16678
record, the public office or the person responsible for the public 16679
record shall notify the requester of any redaction or make the 16680
redaction plainly visible. A redaction shall be deemed a denial of 16681
a request to inspect or copy the redacted information, except if 16682
federal or state law authorizes or requires a public office to 16683
make the redaction.16684

       (2) To facilitate broader access to public records, a public 16685
office or the person responsible for public records shall organize 16686
and maintain public records in a manner that they can be made 16687
available for inspection or copying in accordance with division 16688
(B) of this section. A public office also shall have available a 16689
copy of its current records retention schedule at a location 16690
readily available to the public. If a requester makes an ambiguous 16691
or overly broad request or has difficulty in making a request for 16692
copies or inspection of public records under this section such 16693
that the public office or the person responsible for the requested 16694
public record cannot reasonably identify what public records are 16695
being requested, the public office or the person responsible for 16696
the requested public record may deny the request but shall provide 16697
the requester with an opportunity to revise the request by 16698
informing the requester of the manner in which records are 16699
maintained by the public office and accessed in the ordinary 16700
course of the public office's or person's duties.16701

       (3) If a request is ultimately denied, in part or in whole, 16702
the public office or the person responsible for the requested 16703
public record shall provide the requester with an explanation, 16704
including legal authority, setting forth why the request was 16705
denied. If the initial request was provided in writing, the 16706
explanation also shall be provided to the requester in writing. 16707
The explanation shall not preclude the public office or the person 16708
responsible for the requested public record from relying upon 16709
additional reasons or legal authority in defending an action 16710
commenced under division (C) of this section.16711

       (4) Unless specifically required or authorized by state or 16712
federal law or in accordance with division (B) of this section, no 16713
public office or person responsible for public records may limit 16714
or condition the availability of public records by requiring 16715
disclosure of the requester's identity or the intended use of the 16716
requested public record. Any requirement that the requester 16717
disclose the requestor's identity or the intended use of the 16718
requested public record constitutes a denial of the request.16719

       (5) A public office or person responsible for public records 16720
may ask a requester to make the request in writing, may ask for 16721
the requester's identity, and may inquire about the intended use 16722
of the information requested, but may do so only after disclosing 16723
to the requester that a written request is not mandatory and that 16724
the requester may decline to reveal the requester's identity or 16725
the intended use and when a written request or disclosure of the 16726
identity or intended use would benefit the requester by enhancing 16727
the ability of the public office or person responsible for public 16728
records to identify, locate, or deliver the public records sought 16729
by the requester.16730

       (6) If any person chooses to obtain a copy of a public record 16731
in accordance with division (B) of this section, the public office 16732
or person responsible for the public record may require that 16733
person to pay in advance the cost involved in providing the copy 16734
of the public record in accordance with the choice made by the 16735
person seeking the copy under this division. The public office or 16736
the person responsible for the public record shall permit that 16737
person to choose to have the public record duplicated upon paper, 16738
upon the same medium upon which the public office or person 16739
responsible for the public record keeps it, or upon any other 16740
medium upon which the public office or person responsible for the 16741
public record determines that it reasonably can be duplicated as 16742
an integral part of the normal operations of the public office or 16743
person responsible for the public record. When the person seeking 16744
the copy makes a choice under this division, the public office or 16745
person responsible for the public record shall provide a copy of 16746
it in accordance with the choice made by the person seeking the 16747
copy. Nothing in this section requires a public office or person 16748
responsible for the public record to allow the person seeking a 16749
copy of the public record to make the copies of the public record.16750

       (7) Upon a request made in accordance with division (B) of 16751
this section and subject to division (B)(6) of this section, a 16752
public office or person responsible for public records shall 16753
transmit a copy of a public record to any person by United States 16754
mail or by any other means of delivery or transmission within a 16755
reasonable period of time after receiving the request for the 16756
copy. The public office or person responsible for the public 16757
record may require the person making the request to pay in advance 16758
the cost of postage if the copy is transmitted by United States 16759
mail or the cost of delivery if the copy is transmitted other than 16760
by United States mail, and to pay in advance the costs incurred 16761
for other supplies used in the mailing, delivery, or transmission.16762

       Any public office may adopt a policy and procedures that it 16763
will follow in transmitting, within a reasonable period of time 16764
after receiving a request, copies of public records by United 16765
States mail or by any other means of delivery or transmission 16766
pursuant to this division. A public office that adopts a policy 16767
and procedures under this division shall comply with them in 16768
performing its duties under this division.16769

       In any policy and procedures adopted under this division, a 16770
public office may limit the number of records requested by a 16771
person that the office will transmit by United States mail to ten 16772
per month, unless the person certifies to the office in writing 16773
that the person does not intend to use or forward the requested 16774
records, or the information contained in them, for commercial 16775
purposes. For purposes of this division, "commercial" shall be 16776
narrowly construed and does not include reporting or gathering 16777
news, reporting or gathering information to assist citizen 16778
oversight or understanding of the operation or activities of 16779
government, or nonprofit educational research.16780

       (8) A public office or person responsible for public records 16781
is not required to permit a person who is incarcerated pursuant to 16782
a criminal conviction or a juvenile adjudication to inspect or to 16783
obtain a copy of any public record concerning a criminal 16784
investigation or prosecution or concerning what would be a 16785
criminal investigation or prosecution if the subject of the 16786
investigation or prosecution were an adult, unless the request to 16787
inspect or to obtain a copy of the record is for the purpose of 16788
acquiring information that is subject to release as a public 16789
record under this section and the judge who imposed the sentence 16790
or made the adjudication with respect to the person, or the 16791
judge's successor in office, finds that the information sought in 16792
the public record is necessary to support what appears to be a 16793
justiciable claim of the person.16794

       (9)(a) Upon written request made and signed by a journalist 16795
on or after December 16, 1999, a public office, or person 16796
responsible for public records, having custody of the records of 16797
the agency employing a specified peace officer, parole officer, 16798
probation officer, bailiff, prosecuting attorney, assistant 16799
prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, community-based 16800
correctional facility employee, youth services employee, 16801
firefighter, EMT, or investigator of the bureau of criminal 16802
identification and investigation shall disclose to the journalist 16803
the address of the actual personal residence of the peace officer, 16804
parole officer, probation officer, bailiff, prosecuting attorney, 16805
assistant prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, 16806
community-based correctional facility employee, youth services 16807
employee, firefighter, EMT, or investigator of the bureau of 16808
criminal identification and investigation and, if the peace 16809
officer's, parole officer's, probation officer's, bailiff's, 16810
prosecuting attorney's, assistant prosecuting attorney's, 16811
correctional employee's, community-based correctional facility 16812
employee's, youth services employee's, firefighter's, EMT's, or 16813
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 16814
investigation's spouse, former spouse, or child is employed by a 16815
public office, the name and address of the employer of the peace 16816
officer's, parole officer's, probation officer's, bailiff's, 16817
prosecuting attorney's, assistant prosecuting attorney's, 16818
correctional employee's, community-based correctional facility 16819
employee's, youth services employee's, firefighter's, EMT's, or 16820
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 16821
investigation's spouse, former spouse, or child. The request shall 16822
include the journalist's name and title and the name and address 16823
of the journalist's employer and shall state that disclosure of 16824
the information sought would be in the public interest.16825

       (b) Division (B)(9)(a) of this section also applies to 16826
journalist requests for customer information maintained by a 16827
municipally owned or operated public utility, other than social 16828
security numbers and any private financial information such as 16829
credit reports, payment methods, credit card numbers, and bank 16830
account information.16831

       (c) As used in division (B)(9) of this section, "journalist" 16832
means a person engaged in, connected with, or employed by any news 16833
medium, including a newspaper, magazine, press association, news 16834
agency, or wire service, a radio or television station, or a 16835
similar medium, for the purpose of gathering, processing, 16836
transmitting, compiling, editing, or disseminating information for 16837
the general public.16838

       (C)(1) If a person allegedly is aggrieved by the failure of a 16839
public office or the person responsible for public records to 16840
promptly prepare a public record and to make it available to the 16841
person for inspection in accordance with division (B) of this 16842
section or by any other failure of a public office or the person 16843
responsible for public records to comply with an obligation in 16844
accordance with division (B) of this section, the person allegedly 16845
aggrieved may commence a mandamus action to obtain a judgment that 16846
orders the public office or the person responsible for the public 16847
record to comply with division (B) of this section, that awards 16848
court costs and reasonable attorney's fees to the person that 16849
instituted the mandamus action, and, if applicable, that includes 16850
an order fixing statutory damages under division (C)(1) of this 16851
section. The mandamus action may be commenced in the court of 16852
common pleas of the county in which division (B) of this section 16853
allegedly was not complied with, in the supreme court pursuant to 16854
its original jurisdiction under Section 2 of Article IV, Ohio 16855
Constitution, or in the court of appeals for the appellate 16856
district in which division (B) of this section allegedly was not 16857
complied with pursuant to its original jurisdiction under Section 16858
3 of Article IV, Ohio Constitution.16859

       If a requestor transmits a written request by hand delivery 16860
or certified mail to inspect or receive copies of any public 16861
record in a manner that fairly describes the public record or 16862
class of public records to the public office or person responsible 16863
for the requested public records, except as otherwise provided in 16864
this section, the requestor shall be entitled to recover the 16865
amount of statutory damages set forth in this division if a court 16866
determines that the public office or the person responsible for 16867
public records failed to comply with an obligation in accordance 16868
with division (B) of this section.16869

       The amount of statutory damages shall be fixed at one hundred 16870
dollars for each business day during which the public office or 16871
person responsible for the requested public records failed to 16872
comply with an obligation in accordance with division (B) of this 16873
section, beginning with the day on which the requester files a 16874
mandamus action to recover statutory damages, up to a maximum of 16875
one thousand dollars. The award of statutory damages shall not be 16876
construed as a penalty, but as compensation for injury arising 16877
from lost use of the requested information. The existence of this 16878
injury shall be conclusively presumed. The award of statutory 16879
damages shall be in addition to all other remedies authorized by 16880
this section.16881

       The court may reduce an award of statutory damages or not 16882
award statutory damages if the court determines both of the 16883
following:16884

       (a) That, based on the ordinary application of statutory law 16885
and case law as it existed at the time of the conduct or 16886
threatened conduct of the public office or person responsible for 16887
the requested public records that allegedly constitutes a failure 16888
to comply with an obligation in accordance with division (B) of 16889
this section and that was the basis of the mandamus action, a 16890
well-informed public office or person responsible for the 16891
requested public records reasonably would believe that the conduct 16892
or threatened conduct of the public office or person responsible 16893
for the requested public records did not constitute a failure to 16894
comply with an obligation in accordance with division (B) of this 16895
section;16896

       (b) That a well-informed public office or person responsible 16897
for the requested public records reasonably would believe that the 16898
conduct or threatened conduct of the public office or person 16899
responsible for the requested public records would serve the 16900
public policy that underlies the authority that is asserted as 16901
permitting that conduct or threatened conduct.16902

       (2)(a) If the court issues a writ of mandamus that orders the 16903
public office or the person responsible for the public record to 16904
comply with division (B) of this section and determines that the 16905
circumstances described in division (C)(1) of this section exist, 16906
the court shall determine and award to the relator all court 16907
costs.16908

       (b) If the court renders a judgment that orders the public 16909
office or the person responsible for the public record to comply 16910
with division (B) of this section, the court may award reasonable 16911
attorney's fees subject to reduction as described in division 16912
(C)(2)(c) of this section. The court shall award reasonable 16913
attorney's fees, subject to reduction as described in division 16914
(C)(2)(c) of this section when either of the following applies:16915

        (i) The public office or the person responsible for the 16916
public records failed to respond affirmatively or negatively to 16917
the public records request in accordance with the time allowed 16918
under division (B) of this section.16919

        (ii) The public office or the person responsible for the 16920
public records promised to permit the relator to inspect or 16921
receive copies of the public records requested within a specified 16922
period of time but failed to fulfill that promise within that 16923
specified period of time.16924

       (c) Court costs and reasonable attorney's fees awarded under 16925
this section shall be construed as remedial and not punitive. 16926
Reasonable attorney's fees shall include reasonable fees incurred 16927
to produce proof of the reasonableness and amount of the fees and 16928
to otherwise litigate entitlement to the fees. The court may 16929
reduce an award of attorney's fees to the relator or not award 16930
attorney's fees to the relator if the court determines both of the 16931
following:16932

       (i) That, based on the ordinary application of statutory law 16933
and case law as it existed at the time of the conduct or 16934
threatened conduct of the public office or person responsible for 16935
the requested public records that allegedly constitutes a failure 16936
to comply with an obligation in accordance with division (B) of 16937
this section and that was the basis of the mandamus action, a 16938
well-informed public office or person responsible for the 16939
requested public records reasonably would believe that the conduct 16940
or threatened conduct of the public office or person responsible 16941
for the requested public records did not constitute a failure to 16942
comply with an obligation in accordance with division (B) of this 16943
section;16944

       (ii) That a well-informed public office or person responsible 16945
for the requested public records reasonably would believe that the 16946
conduct or threatened conduct of the public office or person 16947
responsible for the requested public records as described in 16948
division (C)(2)(c)(i) of this section would serve the public 16949
policy that underlies the authority that is asserted as permitting 16950
that conduct or threatened conduct.16951

       (D) Chapter 1347. of the Revised Code does not limit the 16952
provisions of this section.16953

       (E)(1) To ensure that all employees of public offices are 16954
appropriately educated about a public office's obligations under 16955
division (B) of this section, all elected officials or their 16956
appropriate designees shall attend training approved by the 16957
attorney general as provided in section 109.43 of the Revised 16958
Code. In addition, all public offices shall adopt a public records 16959
policy in compliance with this section for responding to public 16960
records requests. In adopting a public records policy under this 16961
division, a public office may obtain guidance from the model 16962
public records policy developed and provided to the public office 16963
by the attorney general under section 109.43 of the Revised Code. 16964
Except as otherwise provided in this section, the policy may not 16965
limit the number of public records that the public office will 16966
make available to a single person, may not limit the number of 16967
public records that it will make available during a fixed period 16968
of time, and may not establish a fixed period of time before it 16969
will respond to a request for inspection or copying of public 16970
records, unless that period is less than eight hours.16971

       (2) The public office shall distribute the public records 16972
policy adopted by the public office under division (E)(1) of this 16973
section to the employee of the public office who is the records 16974
custodian or records manager or otherwise has custody of the 16975
records of that office. The public office shall require that 16976
employee to acknowledge receipt of the copy of the public records 16977
policy. The public office shall create a poster that describes its 16978
public records policy and shall post the poster in a conspicuous 16979
place in the public office and in all locations where the public 16980
office has branch offices. The public office may post its public 16981
records policy on the internet web site of the public office if 16982
the public office maintains an internet web site. A public office 16983
that has established a manual or handbook of its general policies 16984
and procedures for all employees of the public office shall 16985
include the public records policy of the public office in the 16986
manual or handbook.16987

       (F)(1) The bureau of motor vehicles may adopt rules pursuant 16988
to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to reasonably limit the number 16989
of bulk commercial special extraction requests made by a person 16990
for the same records or for updated records during a calendar 16991
year. The rules may include provisions for charges to be made for 16992
bulk commercial special extraction requests for the actual cost of 16993
the bureau, plus special extraction costs, plus ten per cent. The 16994
bureau may charge for expenses for redacting information, the 16995
release of which is prohibited by law.16996

       (2) As used in division (F)(1) of this section:16997

       (a) "Actual cost" means the cost of depleted supplies, 16998
records storage media costs, actual mailing and alternative 16999
delivery costs, or other transmitting costs, and any direct 17000
equipment operating and maintenance costs, including actual costs 17001
paid to private contractors for copying services.17002

       (b) "Bulk commercial special extraction request" means a 17003
request for copies of a record for information in a format other 17004
than the format already available, or information that cannot be 17005
extracted without examination of all items in a records series, 17006
class of records, or data basedatabase by a person who intends to 17007
use or forward the copies for surveys, marketing, solicitation, or 17008
resale for commercial purposes. "Bulk commercial special 17009
extraction request" does not include a request by a person who 17010
gives assurance to the bureau that the person making the request 17011
does not intend to use or forward the requested copies for 17012
surveys, marketing, solicitation, or resale for commercial 17013
purposes.17014

       (c) "Commercial" means profit-seeking production, buying, or 17015
selling of any good, service, or other product.17016

       (d) "Special extraction costs" means the cost of the time 17017
spent by the lowest paid employee competent to perform the task, 17018
the actual amount paid to outside private contractors employed by 17019
the bureau, or the actual cost incurred to create computer 17020
programs to make the special extraction. "Special extraction 17021
costs" include any charges paid to a public agency for computer or 17022
records services.17023

       (3) For purposes of divisions (F)(1) and (2) of this section, 17024
"surveys, marketing, solicitation, or resale for commercial 17025
purposes" shall be narrowly construed and does not include 17026
reporting or gathering news, reporting or gathering information to 17027
assist citizen oversight or understanding of the operation or 17028
activities of government, or nonprofit educational research.17029

       Sec. 149.431.  (A) Except as provided in sections 9.833 and 17030
2744.082744.081 of the Revised Code, any governmental entity or 17031
agency and any nonprofit corporation or association, except a 17032
corporation organized pursuant to Chapter 1719. of the Revised 17033
Code prior to January 1, 1980 or organized pursuant to Chapter 17034
3941. of the Revised Code, that enters into a contract or other 17035
agreement with the federal government, a unit of state government, 17036
or a political subdivision or taxing unit of this state for the 17037
provision of services shall keep accurate and complete financial 17038
records of any moneys expended in relation to the performance of 17039
the services pursuant to such contract or agreement according to 17040
generally accepted accounting principles. Such contract or 17041
agreement and such financial records shall be deemed to be public 17042
records as defined in division (A)(1) of section 149.43 of the 17043
Revised Code and are subject to the requirements of division (B) 17044
of that section, except that:17045

       (1) Any information directly or indirectly identifying a 17046
present or former individual patient or client or such an 17047
individual patient's or client's diagnosis, prognosis, or medical 17048
treatment, treatment for a mental or emotional disorder, treatment 17049
for mental retardation or a developmental disability, treatment 17050
for drug abuse or alcoholism, or counseling for personal or social 17051
problems is not a public record;17052

       (2) If disclosure of the contract or agreement or financial 17053
records is requested at a time when confidential professional 17054
services are being provided to a patient or client whose 17055
confidentiality might be violated if disclosure were made at that 17056
time, disclosure may be deferred if reasonable times are 17057
established when the contract or agreement or financial records 17058
will be disclosed.17059

       (3) Any nonprofit corporation or association that receives 17060
both public and private funds in fulfillment of any such contract 17061
or other agreement is not required to keep as public records the 17062
financial records of any private funds expended in relation to the 17063
performance of services pursuant to the contract or agreement.17064

       (B) Any nonprofit corporation or association that receives 17065
more than fifty per cent of its gross receipts excluding moneys 17066
received pursuant to Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 17067
Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, in a calendar year in 17068
fulfillment of a contract or other agreement for services with a 17069
governmental entity shall maintain information setting forth the 17070
compensation of any individual serving the nonprofit corporation 17071
or association in an executive or administrative capacity. Such 17072
information shall be deemed to be public records as defined in 17073
division (A)(1) of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and is 17074
subject to the requirements of division (B) of that section.17075

       Nothing in this section shall be construed to otherwise limit 17076
the provisions of section 149.43 of the Revised Code.17077

       Sec. 149.54.  In order to ensure that archaeological survey 17078
and salvage work on public lands, dedicated archaeological 17079
preserves, and registered state archaeological landmarks is 17080
conducted in a scientific manner, the director of the Ohio 17081
historical society shall, in consultation with the Ohio 17082
archaeological council and the archaeological society of Ohio, 17083
adopt and may amend or rescind rules, in accordance with Chapter 17084
119. of the Revised Code, prescribing minimum education, training, 17085
and experience requirements for personnel in charge of or 17086
otherwise engaging in archaeological survey and salvage work, and 17087
prescribing scientific methods for undertaking such activities.17088

       No person shall engage in archaeological survey or salvage 17089
work on any land that is owned, controlled, or administered by the 17090
state or any political subdivision of the state, or at any 17091
archaeological preserve, dedicated under section 149.52 of the 17092
Revised Code, or at any state archaeological landmark registered 17093
under section 149.51 of the Revised Code, without first obtaining 17094
the written permission of the director. To obtain permission, the 17095
applicant shall submit written application to the director, which 17096
application shall indicate the proposed location, the 17097
qualifications of personnel who will be engaged in the 17098
archaeological survey or salvage work, the proposed methods of 17099
survey or salvage, and such other information as the director 17100
requires by rule.17101

       The director shall deny the applicant permission to engage in 17102
archaeological survey or salvage work at the proposed location if 17103
the applicant's proposed undertaking will not comply with the 17104
rules adopted under this section. The director shall by written 17105
order approve or deny permission to disturb the site. If the 17106
director decides to deny permission, the order shall state the 17107
reasons for denial, and the director shall afford the applicant an 17108
adjudication hearing under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. The 17109
requirements of this section and of any rule adopted pursuant to 17110
this section shall not apply to any department, agency, unit, 17111
instrumentality, or political subdivision of the state.17112

       Whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of 17113
the second degree. Whoever violates or threatens to violate this 17114
section may be enjoined from violation.17115

       Sec. 151.11.  (A) As used in this section:17116

       (1) "Costs of sites and facilities" includes related direct 17117
administrative expenses and allocable portions of the direct costs 17118
of those projects. "Costs of sites and facilities" includes 17119
"allowable costs" as defined in section 122.085 of the Revised 17120
Code.17121

       (2) "Obligations" means obligations as defined in section 17122
151.01 of the Revised Code issued to pay costs of sites and 17123
facilities in Ohio for and in support of industry, commerce, 17124
distribution, and research and development purposes as referred to 17125
in division (A)(3) of Section 2p of Article VIII, Ohio 17126
Constitution.17127

       (B) The issuing authority shall issue general obligations of 17128
the state to pay costs of sites and facilities pursuant to 17129
division (B)(3) of Section 2p of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, 17130
section 151.01 of the Revised Code, and this section. The issuing 17131
authority shall issue obligations in the amount determined by the 17132
issuing authority to be required for those purposes. The total 17133
principal amount of obligations issued under this section shall 17134
not exceed one hundred fifty million dollars.17135

       (C) Net proceeds of obligations shall be deposited into the 17136
job ready site development fund created by section 122.0820 of the 17137
Revised Code.17138

       (D) There is hereby created in the state treasury the job 17139
ready site development bond service fund. All moneys received by 17140
the state and required by the bond proceedings, consistent with 17141
section 151.01 of the Revised Code and this section, to be 17142
deposited, transferred, or credited to the bond service fund, and 17143
all other moneys transferred or allocated to or received for the 17144
purposes of that fund, shall be deposited and credited to the bond 17145
service fund, subject to any applicable provisions of the bond 17146
proceedings, but without necessity for any act of appropriation. 17147
During the period beginning with the date of the first issuance of 17148
obligations and continuing during the time that any obligations 17149
are outstanding in accordance with their terms, so long as moneys 17150
in the bond service fund are insufficient to pay debt service when 17151
due on those obligations payable from that fund, except the 17152
principal amounts of bond anticipation notes payable from the 17153
proceeds of renewal notes or bonds anticipated, and due in the 17154
particular fiscal year, a sufficient amount of revenues of the 17155
state is committed and, without necessity for further act of 17156
appropriation, shall be paid to the bond service fund for the 17157
purpose of paying that debt service when due. All investment 17158
earnings on the cash balance in the fund shall be credited to the 17159
fund.17160

       Sec. 152.09.  (A) As used in sections 152.06 and 152.09 to 17161
152.33 of the Revised Code:17162

       (1) "Obligations" means bonds, notes, or other evidences of 17163
obligation, including interest coupons pertaining thereto, issued 17164
pursuant to sections 152.09 to 152.33 of the Revised Code.17165

       (2) "State agencies" means the state of Ohio and branches, 17166
officers, boards, commissions, authorities, departments, 17167
divisions, courts, general assembly, or other units or agencies of 17168
the state. "State agency" also includes counties, municipal 17169
corporations, and governmental entities of this state that enter 17170
into leases with the Ohio building authority pursuant to section 17171
152.31 of the Revised Code or that are designated by law as state 17172
agencies for the purpose of performing a state function that is to 17173
be housed by a capital facility for which the Ohio building 17174
authority is authorized to issue revenue obligations pursuant to 17175
sections 152.09 to 152.33 of the Revised Code.17176

       (3) "Bond service charges" means principal, including 17177
mandatory sinking fund requirements for retirement of obligations, 17178
and interest, and redemption premium, if any, required to be paid 17179
by the Ohio building authority on obligations.17180

       (4) "Capital facilities" means buildings, structures, and 17181
other improvements, and equipment, real estate, and interests in 17182
real estate therefor, within the state, and any one, part of, or 17183
combination of the foregoing, for housing of branches and agencies 17184
of state government, including capital facilities for the purpose 17185
of housing personnel, equipment, or functions, or any combination 17186
thereof that the state agencies are responsible for housing, for 17187
which the Ohio building authority is authorized to issue 17188
obligations pursuant to Chapter 152. of the Revised Code, and 17189
includes storage and parking facilities related to such capital 17190
facilities. For purposes of sections 152.10 to 152.15 of the 17191
Revised Code, "capital facilities" includes community or technical 17192
college capital facilities.17193

       (5) "Cost of capital facilities" means the costs of 17194
assessing, planning, acquiring, constructing, reconstructing, 17195
rehabilitating, remodeling, renovating, enlarging, improving, 17196
altering, maintaining, equipping, furnishing, repairing, painting, 17197
decorating, managing, or operating capital facilities, and the 17198
financing thereof, including the cost of clearance and preparation 17199
of the site and of any land to be used in connection with capital 17200
facilities, the cost of participating in capital facilities 17201
pursuant to section 152.33 of the Revised Code, the cost of any 17202
indemnity and surety bonds and premiums on insurance, all related 17203
direct administrative expenses and allocable portions of direct 17204
costs of the authority and lessee state agencies, cost of 17205
engineering and architectural services, designs, plans, 17206
specifications, surveys, and estimates of cost, legal fees, fees 17207
and expenses of trustees, depositories, and paying agents for the 17208
obligations, cost of issuance of the obligations and financing 17209
charges and fees and expenses of financial advisers and 17210
consultants in connection therewith, interest on obligations from 17211
the date thereof to the time when interest is to be covered from 17212
sources other than proceeds of obligations, amounts that represent 17213
the portion of investment earnings to be rebated or to be paid to 17214
the federal government in order to maintain the exclusion from 17215
gross income for federal income tax purposes of interest on those 17216
obligations pursuant to section 148(f) of the Internal Revenue 17217
Code, amounts necessary to establish reserves as required by the 17218
resolutions or the obligations, trust agreements, or indentures, 17219
costs of audits, the reimbursement of all moneys advanced or 17220
applied by or borrowed from any governmental entity, whether to or 17221
by the authority or others, from whatever source provided, for the 17222
payment of any item or items of cost of the capital facilities, 17223
any share of the cost undertaken by the authority pursuant to 17224
arrangements made with governmental entities under division (J) of 17225
section 152.21 of the Revised Code, and all other expenses 17226
necessary or incident to assessing, planning, or determining the 17227
feasibility or practicability with respect to capital facilities, 17228
and such other expenses as may be necessary or incident to the 17229
assessment, planning, acquisition, construction, reconstruction, 17230
rehabilitation, remodeling, renovation, enlargement, improvement, 17231
alteration, maintenance, equipment, furnishing, repair, painting, 17232
decoration, management, or operation of capital facilities, the 17233
financing thereof and the placing of the same in use and 17234
operation, including any one, part of, or combination of such 17235
classes of costs and expenses.17236

       (6) "Governmental entity" means any state agency, municipal 17237
corporation, county, township, school district, and any other 17238
political subdivision or special district in this state 17239
established pursuant to law, and, except where otherwise 17240
indicated, also means the United States or any of the states or 17241
any department, division, or agency thereof, and any agency, 17242
commission, or authority established pursuant to an interstate 17243
compact or agreement.17244

       (7) "Governing body" means:17245

       (a) In the case of a county, the board of county 17246
commissioners or other legislative authority; in the case of a 17247
municipal corporation, the legislative authority; in the case of a 17248
township, the board of township trustees; in the case of a school 17249
district, the board of education;17250

       (b) In the case of any other governmental entity, the 17251
officer, board, commission, authority, or other body having the 17252
general management of the entity or having jurisdiction or 17253
authority in the particular circumstances.17254

       (8) "Available receipts" means fees, charges, revenues, 17255
grants, subsidies, income from the investment of moneys, proceeds 17256
from the sale of goods or services, and all other revenues or 17257
receipts received by or on behalf of any state agency for which 17258
capital facilities are financed with obligations issued under 17259
Chapter 152. of the Revised Code, any state agency participating 17260
in capital facilities pursuant to section 152.33 of the Revised 17261
Code, or any state agency by which the capital facilities are 17262
constructed or financed; revenues or receipts derived by the 17263
authority from the operation, leasing, or other disposition of 17264
capital facilities, and the proceeds of obligations issued under 17265
Chapter 152. of the Revised Code; and also any moneys appropriated 17266
by a governmental entity, gifts, grants, donations, and pledges, 17267
and receipts therefrom, available for the payment of bond service 17268
charges on such obligations.17269

       (9) "Available community or technical college receipts" means 17270
all money received by a community or technical college or 17271
community or technical college district, including income, 17272
revenues, and receipts from the operation, ownership, or control 17273
of facilities, grants, gifts, donations, and pledges and receipts 17274
therefrom, receipts from fees and charges, the allocated state 17275
share of instruction as defined in section 3333.903333.59 of the 17276
Revised Code, and the proceeds of the sale of obligations, 17277
including proceeds of obligations issued to refund obligations 17278
previously issued, but excluding any special fee, and receipts 17279
therefrom, charged pursuant to division (D) of section 154.21 of 17280
the Revised Code.17281

        (10) "Community or technical college," "college," "community 17282
or technical college district," and "district" have the same 17283
meanings as in section 3333.903333.59 of the Revised Code.17284

       (11) "Community or technical college capital facilities" 17285
means auxiliary facilities, education facilities, and housing and 17286
dining facilities, as those terms are defined in section 3345.12 17287
of the Revised Code, to the extent permitted to be financed by the 17288
issuance of obligations under division (A)(2) of section 3357.112 17289
of the Revised Code, that are authorized by sections 3354.121, 17290
3357.112, and 3358.10 of the Revised Code to be financed by 17291
obligations issued by a community or technical college district, 17292
and for which the Ohio building authority is authorized to issue 17293
obligations pursuant to Chapter 152. of the Revised Code, and 17294
includes any one, part of, or any combination of the foregoing, 17295
and further includes site improvements, utilities, machinery, 17296
furnishings, and any separate or connected buildings, structures, 17297
improvements, sites, open space and green space areas, utilities, 17298
or equipment to be used in, or in connection with the operation or 17299
maintenance of, or supplementing or otherwise related to the 17300
services or facilities to be provided by, such facilities.17301

        (12) "Cost of community or technical college capital 17302
facilities" means the costs of acquiring, constructing, 17303
reconstructing, rehabilitating, remodeling, renovating, enlarging, 17304
improving, equipping, or furnishing community or technical college 17305
capital facilities, and the financing thereof, including the cost 17306
of clearance and preparation of the site and of any land to be 17307
used in connection with community or technical college capital 17308
facilities, the cost of any indemnity and surety bonds and 17309
premiums on insurance, all related direct administrative expenses 17310
and allocable portions of direct costs of the authority, community 17311
or technical college or community or technical college district, 17312
cost of engineering, architectural services, design, plans, 17313
specifications and surveys, estimates of cost, legal fees, fees 17314
and expenses of trustees, depositories, bond registrars, and 17315
paying agents for the obligations, cost of issuance of the 17316
obligations and financing costs and fees and expenses of financial 17317
advisers and consultants in connection therewith, interest on the 17318
obligations from the date thereof to the time when interest is to 17319
be covered by available receipts or other sources other than 17320
proceeds of the obligations, amounts that represent the portion of 17321
investment earnings to be rebated or to be paid to the federal 17322
government in order to maintain the exclusion from gross income 17323
for federal income tax purposes of interest on those obligations 17324
pursuant to section 148(f) of the Internal Revenue Code, amounts 17325
necessary to establish reserves as required by the bond 17326
proceedings, costs of audits, the reimbursements of all moneys 17327
advanced or applied by or borrowed from the community or technical 17328
college, community or technical college district, or others, from 17329
whatever source provided, including any temporary advances from 17330
state appropriations, for the payment of any item or items of cost 17331
of community or technical college facilities, and all other 17332
expenses necessary or incident to planning or determining 17333
feasibility or practicability with respect to such facilities, and 17334
such other expenses as may be necessary or incident to the 17335
acquisition, construction, reconstruction, rehabilitation, 17336
remodeling, renovation, enlargement, improvement, equipment, and 17337
furnishing of community or technical college capital facilities, 17338
the financing thereof and the placing of them in use and 17339
operation, including any one, part of, or combination of such 17340
classes of costs and expenses.17341

       (B) Pursuant to the powers granted to the general assembly 17342
under Section 2i of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, to authorize 17343
the issuance of revenue obligations and other obligations, the 17344
owners or holders of which are not given the right to have excises 17345
or taxes levied by the general assembly for the payment of 17346
principal thereof or interest thereon, the Ohio building authority 17347
may issue obligations, in accordance with Chapter 152. of the 17348
Revised Code, and shall cause the net proceeds thereof, after any 17349
deposits of accrued interest for the payment of bond service 17350
charges and after any deposit of all or such lesser portion as the 17351
authority may direct of the premium received upon the sale of 17352
those obligations for the payment of the bond service charges, to 17353
be applied to the costs of capital facilities designated by or 17354
pursuant to act of the general assembly for housing state agencies 17355
as authorized by Chapter 152. of the Revised Code. The authority 17356
shall provide by resolution for the issuance of such obligations. 17357
The bond service charges and all other payments required to be 17358
made by the trust agreement or indenture securing such obligations 17359
shall be payable solely from available receipts of the authority 17360
pledged thereto as provided in such resolution. The available 17361
receipts pledged and thereafter received by the authority are 17362
immediately subject to the lien of such pledge without any 17363
physical delivery thereof or further act, and the lien of any such 17364
pledge is valid and binding against all parties having claims of 17365
any kind against the authority, irrespective of whether those 17366
parties have notice thereof, and creates a perfected security 17367
interest for all purposes of Chapter 1309. of the Revised Code and 17368
a perfected lien for purposes of any real property interest, all 17369
without the necessity for separation or delivery of funds or for 17370
the filing or recording of the resolution, trust agreement, 17371
indenture, or other agreement by which such pledge is created or 17372
any certificate, statement, or other document with respect 17373
thereto; and the pledge of such available receipts is effective 17374
and the money therefrom and thereof may be applied to the purposes 17375
for which pledged. Every pledge, and every covenant and agreement 17376
made with respect to the pledge, made in the resolution may 17377
therein be extended to the benefit of the owners and holders of 17378
obligations authorized by Chapter 152. of the Revised Code, the 17379
net proceeds of which are to be applied to the costs of capital 17380
facilities, and to any trustee therefor, for the further securing 17381
of the payment of the bond service charges, and all or any rights 17382
under any agreement or lease made under this section may be 17383
assigned for such purpose. Obligations may be issued at one time 17384
or from time to time, and each issue shall be dated, shall mature 17385
at such time or times as determined by the authority not exceeding 17386
forty years from the date of issue, and may be redeemable before 17387
maturity at the option of the authority at such price or prices 17388
and under such terms and conditions as are fixed by the authority 17389
prior to the issuance of the obligations. The authority shall 17390
determine the form of the obligations, fix their denominations, 17391
establish their interest rate or rates, which may be a variable 17392
rate or rates, or the maximum interest rate, and establish within 17393
or without this state a place or places of payment of bond service 17394
charges.17395

       (C) The obligations shall be signed by the authority 17396
chairperson, vice-chairperson, and secretary-treasurer, and the 17397
authority seal shall be affixed. The signatures may be facsimile 17398
signatures and the seal affixed may be a facsimile seal, as 17399
provided by resolution of the authority. Any coupons attached may 17400
bear the facsimile signature of the chairperson. In case any 17401
officer who has signed any obligations, or caused the officer's 17402
facsimile signature to be affixed thereto, ceases to be such 17403
officer before such obligations have been delivered, such 17404
obligations may, nevertheless, be issued and delivered as though 17405
the person who had signed the obligations or caused the person's 17406
facsimile signature to be affixed thereto had not ceased to be 17407
such officer.17408

       Any obligations may be executed on behalf of the authority by 17409
an officer who, on the date of execution, is the proper officer 17410
although on the date of such obligations such person was not the 17411
proper officer.17412

       (D) All obligations issued by the authority shall have all 17413
the qualities and incidents of negotiable instruments and may be 17414
issued in coupon or in registered form, or both, as the authority 17415
determines. Provision may be made for the registration of any 17416
obligations with coupons attached thereto as to principal alone or 17417
as to both principal and interest, their exchange for obligations 17418
so registered, and for the conversion or reconversion into 17419
obligations with coupons attached thereto of any obligations 17420
registered as to both principal and interest, and for reasonable 17421
charges for such registration, exchange, conversion, and 17422
reconversion. The authority may sell its obligations in any manner 17423
and for such prices as it determines, except that the authority 17424
shall sell obligations sold at public or private sale in 17425
accordance with section 152.091 of the Revised Code.17426

       (E) The obligations of the authority, principal, interest, 17427
and any proceeds from their sale or transfer, are exempt from all 17428
taxation within this state.17429

       (F) The authority is authorized to issue revenue obligations 17430
and other obligations under Section 2i of Article VIII, Ohio 17431
Constitution, for the purpose of paying the cost of capital 17432
facilities for housing of branches and agencies of state 17433
government, including capital facilities for the purpose of 17434
housing personnel, equipment, or functions, or any combination 17435
thereof that the state agencies are responsible for housing, as 17436
are authorized by Chapter 152. of the Revised Code, and that are 17437
authorized by the general assembly by the appropriation of lease 17438
payments or other moneys for such capital facilities or by any 17439
other act of the general assembly, but not including the 17440
appropriation of moneys for feasibility studies for such capital 17441
facilities. This division does not authorize the authority to 17442
issue obligations pursuant to Section 2i of Article VIII, Ohio 17443
Constitution, to pay the cost of capital facilities for mental 17444
hygiene and retardation, parks and recreation, or state-supported 17445
or state-assisted institutions of higher education.17446

       (G) The authority is authorized to issue revenue obligations 17447
under Section 2i of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, on behalf of 17448
a community or technical college district and shall cause the net 17449
proceeds thereof, after any deposits of accrued interest for the 17450
payment of bond service charges and after any deposit of all or 17451
such lesser portion as the authority may direct of the premium 17452
received upon the sale of those obligations for the payment of the 17453
bond service charges, to be applied to the cost of community or 17454
technical college capital facilities, provided that the issuance 17455
of such obligations is subject to the execution of a written 17456
agreement in accordance with division (C) of section 3333.9017457
3333.59 of the Revised Code for the withholding and depositing of 17458
funds otherwise due the district, or the college it operates, in 17459
respect of its allocated state share of instruction.17460

        The authority shall provide by resolution for the issuance of 17461
such obligations. The bond service charges and all other payments 17462
required to be made by the trust agreement or indenture securing 17463
the obligations shall be payable solely from available community 17464
or technical college receipts pledged thereto as provided in the 17465
resolution. The available community or technical college receipts 17466
pledged and thereafter received by the authority are immediately 17467
subject to the lien of such pledge without any physical delivery 17468
thereof or further act, and the lien of any such pledge is valid 17469
and binding against all parties having claims of any kind against 17470
the authority, irrespective of whether those parties have notice 17471
thereof, and creates a perfected security interest for all 17472
purposes of Chapter 1309. of the Revised Code and a perfected lien 17473
for purposes of any real property interest, all without the 17474
necessity for separation or delivery of funds or for the filing or 17475
recording of the resolution, trust agreement, indenture, or other 17476
agreement by which such pledge is created or any certificate, 17477
statement, or other document with respect thereto; and the pledge 17478
of such available community or technical college receipts is 17479
effective and the money therefrom and thereof may be applied to 17480
the purposes for which pledged. Every pledge, and every covenant 17481
and agreement made with respect to the pledge, made in the 17482
resolution may therein be extended to the benefit of the owners 17483
and holders of obligations authorized by this division, and to any 17484
trustee therefor, for the further securing of the payment of the 17485
bond service charges, and all or any rights under any agreement or 17486
lease made under this section may be assigned for such purpose. 17487
Obligations may be issued at one time or from time to time, and 17488
each issue shall be dated, shall mature at such time or times as 17489
determined by the authority not exceeding forty years from the 17490
date of issue, and may be redeemable before maturity at the option 17491
of the authority at such price or prices and under such terms and 17492
conditions as are fixed by the authority prior to the issuance of 17493
the obligations. The authority shall determine the form of the 17494
obligations, fix their denominations, establish their interest 17495
rate or rates, which may be a variable rate or rates, or the 17496
maximum interest rate, and establish within or without this state 17497
a place or places of payment of bond service charges.17498

       Sec. 153.692. For every design-build contract, the public 17499
authority planning to contract for design-build services shall 17500
first obtain the services of a criteria architect or engineer by 17501
doing either of the following: 17502

       (A) Contracting for the services consistent with sections 17503
153.65 to 153.70 of the Revised Code;17504

       (B) Obtaining the services through an architect or engineer 17505
who is an employee of the public authority and notifying the 17506
department of administrative servicesOhio facilities construction 17507
commission before the services are performed.17508

       Sec. 154.01.  As used in this chapter:17509

       (A) "Commission" means the Ohio public facilities commission 17510
created in section 151.02 of the Revised Code.17511

       (B) "Obligations" means bonds, notes, or other evidences of 17512
obligation, including interest coupons pertaining thereto, issued 17513
pursuant to Chapter 154. of the Revised Code.17514

       (C) "Bond proceedings" means the order or orders, resolution 17515
or resolutions, trust agreement, indenture, lease, and other 17516
agreements, amendments and supplements to the foregoing, or any 17517
combination thereof, authorizing or providing for the terms and 17518
conditions applicable to, or providing for the security of, 17519
obligations issued pursuant to Chapter 154. of the Revised Code, 17520
and the provisions contained in such obligations.17521

       (D) "State agencies" means the state of Ohio and officers, 17522
boards, commissions, departments, divisions, or other units or 17523
agencies of the state.17524

       (E) "Governmental agency" means state agencies, state 17525
supported and assisted institutions of higher education, municipal 17526
corporations, counties, townships, school districts, and any other 17527
political subdivision or special district in this state 17528
established pursuant to law, and, except where otherwise 17529
indicated, also means the United States or any department, 17530
division, or agency thereof, and any agency, commission, or 17531
authority established pursuant to an interstate compact or 17532
agreement.17533

       (F) "Institutions of higher education" and "state supported 17534
or state assisted institutions of higher education" means the 17535
state universities identified in section 3345.011 of the Revised 17536
Code, the northeast Ohio medical university, state universities or 17537
colleges at any time created, community college districts, 17538
university branch districts, and technical college districts at 17539
any time established or operating under Chapter 3354., 3355., or 17540
3357. of the Revised Code, and other institutions for education, 17541
including technical education, beyond the high school, receiving 17542
state support or assistance for their expenses of operation.17543

       (G) "Governing body" means:17544

       (1) In the case of institutions of higher education, the 17545
board of trustees, board of directors, commission, or other body 17546
vested by law with the general management, conduct, and control of 17547
one or more institutions of higher education;17548

       (2) In the case of a county, the board of county 17549
commissioners or other legislative body; in the case of a 17550
municipal corporation, the council or other legislative body; in 17551
the case of a township, the board of township trustees; in the 17552
case of a school district, the board of education;17553

       (3) In the case of any other governmental agency, the 17554
officer, board, commission, authority or other body having the 17555
general management thereof or having jurisdiction or authority in 17556
the particular circumstances.17557

       (H) "Person" means any person, firm, partnership, 17558
association, or corporation.17559

       (I) "Bond service charges" means principal, including 17560
mandatory sinking fund requirements for retirement of obligations, 17561
and interest, and redemption premium, if any, required to be paid 17562
by the state on obligations. If not prohibited by the applicable 17563
bond proceedings, bond service charges may include costs relating 17564
to credit enhancement facilities that are related to and 17565
represent, or are intended to provide a source of payment of or 17566
limitation on, other bond service charges.17567

       (J) "Capital facilities" means buildings, structures, and 17568
other improvements, and equipment, real estate, and interests in 17569
real estate therefor, within the state, and any one, part of, or 17570
combination of the foregoing, to serve the general purposes for 17571
which the issuing authority is authorized to issue obligations 17572
pursuant to Chapter 154. of the Revised Code, including, but not 17573
limited to, drives, roadways, parking facilities, walks, lighting, 17574
machinery, furnishings, utilities, landscaping, wharves, docks, 17575
piers, reservoirs, dams, tunnels, bridges, retaining walls, 17576
riprap, culverts, ditches, channels, watercourses, retention 17577
basins, standpipes and water storage facilities, waste treatment 17578
and disposal facilities, heating, air conditioning and 17579
communications facilities, inns, lodges, cabins, camping sites, 17580
golf courses, boat and bathing facilities, athletic and 17581
recreational facilities, and site improvements.17582

       (K) "Costs of capital facilities" means the costs of 17583
acquiring, constructing, reconstructing, rehabilitating, 17584
remodeling, renovating, enlarging, improving, equipping, or 17585
furnishing capital facilities, and the financing thereof, 17586
including the cost of clearance and preparation of the site and of 17587
any land to be used in connection with capital facilities, the 17588
cost of any indemnity and surety bonds and premiums on insurance, 17589
all related direct administrative expenses and allocable portions 17590
of direct costs of the commission or issuing authority and 17591
department of administrative services, or other designees of the 17592
commission under section 154.17 of the Revised Code, cost of 17593
engineering and architectural services, designs, plans, 17594
specifications, surveys, and estimates of cost, legal fees, fees 17595
and expenses of trustees, depositories, and paying agents for the 17596
obligations, cost of issuance of the obligations and financing 17597
charges and fees and expenses of financial advisers and 17598
consultants in connection therewith, interest on obligations, 17599
including but not limited to, interest from the date of their 17600
issuance to the time when interest is to be covered from sources 17601
other than proceeds of obligations, amounts necessary to establish 17602
reserves as required by the bond proceedings, costs of audits, the 17603
reimbursement of all moneys advanced or applied by or borrowed 17604
from any governmental agency, whether to or by the commission or 17605
others, from whatever source provided, for the payment of any item 17606
or items of cost of the capital facilities, any share of the cost 17607
undertaken by the commission pursuant to arrangements made with 17608
governmental agencies under division (H) of section 154.06 of the 17609
Revised Code, and all other expenses necessary or incident to 17610
planning or determining feasibility or practicability with respect 17611
to capital facilities, and such other expenses as may be necessary 17612
or incident to the acquisition, construction, reconstruction, 17613
rehabilitation, remodeling, renovation, enlargement, improvement, 17614
equipment, and furnishing of capital facilities, the financing 17615
thereof and the placing of the same in use and operation, 17616
including any one, part of, or combination of such classes of 17617
costs and expenses.17618

       (L) "Public service facilities" means inns, lodges, hotels, 17619
cabins, camping sites, scenic trails, picnic sites, restaurants, 17620
commissaries, golf courses, boating and bathing facilities and 17621
other similar facilities in state parks.17622

       (M) "State parks" means:17623

       (1) State reservoirs described and identified in section 17624
1541.06 of the Revised Code;17625

       (2) All lands or interests therein of the state identified as 17626
administered by the division of parks and recreation in the 17627
"inventory of state owned lands administered by the department of 17628
natural resources as of June 1, 1963," as recorded in the journal 17629
of the director, which inventory was prepared by the real estate 17630
section of the department and is supported by maps now on file in 17631
said real estate section;17632

       (3) All lands or interests in lands of the state designated 17633
after June 1, 1963, as state parks in the journal of the director 17634
with the approval of the recreation and resources council.17635

       State parks do not include any lands or interest in lands of 17636
the state administered jointly by two or more divisions of the 17637
department of natural resources. The designation of lands as state 17638
parks under divisions (M)(1) to (3) of this section is conclusive 17639
and such lands shall be under the control of and administered by 17640
the division of parks and recreation. No order or proceeding 17641
designating lands as state parks or park purchase areas is subject 17642
to any appeal or review by any officer, board, commission, or 17643
court.17644

       (N) "Bond service fund" means the applicable fund created for 17645
and pledged to the payment of bond service charges under section 17646
154.20, 154.21, 154.22, or 154.23 of the Revised Code, including 17647
all moneys and investments, and earnings from investments, 17648
credited and to be credited thereto.17649

       (O) "Improvement fund" means the applicable fund created for 17650
the payment of costs of capital facilities under section 123.201,17651
154.20, 154.21, or 154.22, or 3383.09 of the Revised Code, 17652
including all moneys and investments, and earnings from 17653
investments, credited and to be credited thereto.17654

       (P) "Special funds" or "funds" means, except where the 17655
context does not permit, the bond service funds, the improvements 17656
funds, and any other funds for similar or different purposes 17657
created under bond proceedings, including all moneys and 17658
investments, and earnings from investments, credited and to be 17659
credited thereto.17660

       (Q) "Year" unless the context indicates a different meaning 17661
or intent, means a calendar year beginning on the first day of 17662
January and ending on the thirty-first day of December.17663

       (R) "Fiscal year" means the period of twelve months beginning 17664
on the first day of July and ending on the thirtieth day of June.17665

       (S) "Issuing authority" means the treasurer of state or the 17666
officer or employee who by law performs the functions of that 17667
office.17668

       (T) "Credit enhancement facilities" has the same meaning as 17669
in section 133.01 of the Revised Code.17670

       (U) "Ohio cultural facility" and "Ohio sports facility" have 17671
the same meanings as in section 3383.01123.28 of the Revised 17672
Code.17673

       Sec. 154.17.  The departments of administrative services,17674
mental healthmental health and addiction services, developmental 17675
disabilities, rehabilitation and correction, and natural 17676
resources, the Ohio board of regents, institutions of higher 17677
education, and other state officers and state agencies shall 17678
cooperate with the commission in providing services and 17679
information requested by the commission for purposes of Chapter 17680
154. of the Revised Code, and the commission may make mutually 17681
satisfactory arrangements therefor and may thereunder designate 17682
any governmental agency for the management or performance of 17683
particular functions of the commission, other than the 17684
authorization and issuance of obligations provided for in Chapter 17685
154. of the Revised Code, pursuant to which designation, upon 17686
acceptance thereof by that governmental agency, that function may 17687
be carried out with the full force and effect as if performed by 17688
the commission. Any such designation shall be made only by formal 17689
action or written agreement of the commission. In the management 17690
of capital facilities or performance of other functions with 17691
respect thereto, a governmental agency may exercise all powers 17692
which it has under law with respect to other similar facilities 17693
under its jurisdiction.17694

       Contracts relating to capital facilities shall be made in 17695
accordance with the law pertaining to the governmental agency 17696
designated under authority of this section to perform such 17697
contracting function, and in any other case shall be made in 17698
accordance with Chapter 153. of the Revised Code, for which 17699
purpose the commission shall be considered the owner, provided 17700
that the commission may assign the function of owner to the 17701
department of administrative services or other governmental agency 17702
as it determines. The commission may acquire by assignment from 17703
any governmental agency contracts which are not completed and 17704
which involve acquiring, constructing, reconstructing, 17705
rehabilitating, remodeling, renovating, enlarging, improving, 17706
equipping, or furnishing capital facilities, provided that such 17707
governmental agency has complied with the procedures prescribed by 17708
laws for its letting of such contract.17709

       No contract shall be let or assignment thereof accepted under 17710
this section involving performance in accordance with plans and 17711
specifications until such plans and specifications have been 17712
submitted to and approved by the governmental agency to have 17713
responsibility for the management of the capital facilities 17714
provided for in such plans and specifications, which approval 17715
shall be considered to be given if no approval or disapproval is 17716
communicated in writing to the commission or its designee for such 17717
purpose within sixty days following such submission of plans and 17718
specifications. Approval by such governmental agency of changes in 17719
plans and specifications is not required if the director of 17720
administrative services or the designee of the commission for such 17721
purpose shall certify that such changes do not substantially 17722
change the location, character, or extent of such capital 17723
facilities.17724

       Sec. 154.20.  (A) Subject to authorization by the general 17725
assembly under section 154.02 of the Revised Code, the issuing 17726
authority may issue obligations pursuant to this chapter to pay 17727
costs of capital facilities for mental hygiene and retardation, 17728
including housing for mental hygiene and retardation patients and 17729
persons with substance use disorders.17730

       (B) Any capital facilities for mental hygiene or retardation, 17731
including housing for mental hygiene and retardation patients and 17732
persons with substance use disorders, may be leased by the 17733
commission to the department of mental health,mental health and 17734
addiction services or the department of developmental 17735
disabilities, or the department of alcohol and drug addiction 17736
services, and other agreements may be made by the commission and 17737
any one or more of these departments with respect to the use or 17738
purchase of such capital facilities or, subject to the approval of 17739
the director of the department, the commission may lease such 17740
capital facilities to, and make or provide for other agreements 17741
with respect to the use or purchase thereof with, any governmental 17742
agency having authority under law to operate such capital 17743
facilities, and the director of the department may sublease such 17744
capital facilities to, and make other agreements with respect to 17745
the use or purchase thereof with, any such governmental agency, 17746
which may include provisions for transmittal to the mental health 17747
bond service trust fund created under division (E) of this 17748
section, by such governmental agency or by a nonprofit corporation 17749
providing mental hygiene and retardation services for or under 17750
contract with or the supervision of that governmental agency, of 17751
receipts of that agency or nonprofit corporation from charges for 17752
the treatment or care of mental hygiene and retardation patients, 17753
all upon such terms and conditions as the parties may agree upon 17754
and pursuant to this chapter, notwithstanding any other provision 17755
of law affecting the leasing, acquisition, or disposition of 17756
capital facilities by the parties.17757

       (C) For purposes of this section, "available receipts" means 17758
all receipts of the state from charges for the treatment or care 17759
of mental hygiene and retardation patients, including support 17760
payments received under Chapter 5121. of the Revised Code and 17761
moneys required to be transmitted to the mental health bond 17762
service trust fund pursuant to subleases and other agreements 17763
between any of the departments and another governmental agency 17764
pursuant to division (B) of this section as the subleases and 17765
other agreements may be further implemented for internal planning, 17766
budgeting, and accounting purposes pursuant to rules adopted by 17767
the director of mental health,mental health and addiction 17768
services or director of developmental disabilities, or director of 17769
alcohol and drug addiction services, any revenues or receipts 17770
derived by the commission from the operation, leasing, or other 17771
disposition of capital facilities financed under this section, the 17772
proceeds of obligations issued under this section and sections 17773
154.11 and 154.12 of the Revised Code, and also means any gifts, 17774
grants, donations, and pledges, and receipts therefrom, available 17775
for the payment of bond service charges on such obligations. The 17776
issuing authority may pledge all, or such portion as that 17777
authority determines, of the available receipts to the payment of 17778
bond service charges on obligations issued under this section and 17779
under sections 154.11 and 154.12 of the Revised Code and for the 17780
establishment and maintenance of any reserves, as provided in the 17781
bond proceedings, and make other provisions therein with respect 17782
to such available receipts as authorized by this chapter, which 17783
provisions shall be controlling notwithstanding any other 17784
provision of law pertaining thereto.17785

       (D) The issuing authority may covenant in the bond 17786
proceedings that the state and state agencies shall, so long as 17787
any obligations issued under this section are outstanding, cause 17788
to be charged and collected charges for the treatment or care of 17789
mental hygiene and retardation patients sufficient in amount to 17790
provide for the payment of bond service charges on such 17791
obligations and for the establishment and maintenance of any 17792
reserves, as provided in the bond proceedings, and such covenants 17793
shall be controlling notwithstanding any other provision of law 17794
pertaining to such charges.17795

       (E) There is hereby created the mental health bond service 17796
trust fund, which shall be in the custody of the treasurer of 17797
state but shall be separate and apart from and not a part of the 17798
state treasury. All moneys received by or on account of the 17799
commission or issuing authority or state agencies and required by 17800
the applicable bond proceedings to be deposited, transferred, or 17801
credited to the fund, and all other moneys transferred or 17802
allocated to or received for the purposes of the fund, shall be 17803
deposited with the treasurer of state and credited to such fund, 17804
subject to applicable provisions of the bond proceedings, but 17805
without necessity for any act of appropriation. The mental health 17806
bond service trust fund is a trust fund and is hereby pledged to 17807
the payment of bond service charges on the obligations issued 17808
pursuant to this section and sections 154.11 and 154.12 of the 17809
Revised Code to the extent provided in the applicable bond 17810
proceedings, and payment thereof from such fund shall be made or 17811
provided for by the treasurer of state in accordance with such 17812
bond proceedings without necessity for any act of appropriation.17813

       (F) There is hereby created in the state treasury the mental 17814
health facilities improvement fund. Subject to the bond 17815
proceedings therefor, all of the proceeds of the sale of 17816
obligations pursuant to this section shall be credited to the 17817
fund, except that any accrued interest shall be credited to the 17818
mental health bond service fund. The mental health facilities 17819
improvement fund may also be comprised of gifts, grants, 17820
appropriated moneys, and other sums and securities received to the 17821
credit of such fund. All investment earnings on the cash balance 17822
in the fund shall be credited to the fund. The fund shall be 17823
applied only to the following purposes:17824

       (1) Paying costs of capital facilities for mental hygiene and 17825
retardation, including housing for mental hygiene and retardation 17826
patients or for persons with substance use disorders, under the 17827
jurisdiction of the department of mental health,mental health and 17828
addiction services or department of developmental disabilities, or 17829
department of alcohol and drug addiction services;17830

       (2) Participating in capital facilities for mental hygiene 17831
and retardation, including housing for mental hygiene and 17832
retardation patients or for persons with substance use disorders, 17833
with the federal government, municipal corporations, counties, or 17834
other governmental agencies, or a nonprofit corporation 17835
specifically chartered to provide a mental health, substance use,17836
or mental retardation service when such service fulfills a public 17837
purpose, which participation may be by grants or contributions to 17838
them for such capital facilities. Except as provided in division 17839
(G) of this section, the nonprofit corporation may act in concert 17840
with a limited partnership or a limited liability company eligible 17841
to participate in the nonprofit set-aside described in section 17842
42(h)(5) of the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2198, 17843
26 U.S.C. 42, and the Ohio housing finance agency's housing tax 17844
credit program for the purpose of making use of low-income housing 17845
tax credits in support of housing for mental hygiene and 17846
retardation patients.17847

       (G) A nonprofit corporation providing a mental retardation 17848
service must obtain written approval from the director of 17849
developmental disabilities before acting in concert with a limited 17850
partnership or limited liability company as described in division 17851
(F)(2) of this section. However, the director may issue one 17852
blanket approval for all such nonprofit corporations.17853

       (H) This section is to be applied with other applicable 17854
provisions of this chapter.17855

       Sec. 154.22.  (A) Subject to authorization by the general 17856
assembly under section 154.02 of the Revised Code, the issuing 17857
authority may authorize and issue obligations pursuant to this 17858
chapter to pay costs of capital facilities for parks and 17859
recreation.17860

       (B) Any capital facilities for parks and recreation may be 17861
leased by the commission to the department of natural resources 17862
and other agreements may be made by the commission and such 17863
department with respect to the use or purchase of such capital 17864
facilities or, subject to the approval of the director of such 17865
department, the commission may lease such capital facilities to, 17866
and make other agreements with respect to their use or purchase 17867
with, any governmental agency having authority under law to 17868
operate such capital facilities, and the director of such 17869
department may sublease such capital facilities to, and make other 17870
agreements with respect to the use or purchase thereof with, any 17871
such governmental agency, or such director may sublease or 17872
contract for the operation of such capital facilities in 17873
accordance with the applicable provisions of sections 1501.09, 17874
1501.091, and 1501.10 of the Revised Code, all upon such terms and 17875
conditions as the parties may agree upon and pursuant to this 17876
chapter, notwithstanding any other provisions of law affecting the 17877
leasing, acquisition, or disposition of capital facilities by such 17878
parties.17879

       (C) For purposes of this section, "available receipts" means 17880
all receipts, including fees, charges, and rentals, derived or to 17881
be derived from state parks and public service facilities in any 17882
state park or parks, any other receipts of state agencies with 17883
respect to parks and recreational facilities, any revenues or 17884
receipts derived by the commission from the operation, leasing, or 17885
other disposition of capital facilities financed under this 17886
section, the proceeds of obligations issued under this section and 17887
sections 154.11 and 154.12 of the Revised Code, and also means any 17888
gifts, grants, donations, and pledges, and receipts thereon, 17889
available for the payment of bond service charges on obligations 17890
issued under this section. The issuing authority may pledge all, 17891
or such portion as it determines, of the available receipts to the 17892
payment of bond service charges on obligations issued under this 17893
section and sections 154.11 and 154.12 of the Revised Code and for 17894
the establishment and maintenance of any reserves, as provided in 17895
the bond proceedings, and make other provisions therein with 17896
respect to such available receipts as authorized by this chapter, 17897
which provisions shall be controlling notwithstanding any other 17898
provision of law pertaining thereto.17899

       (D) The issuing authority may covenant in the bond proceeding 17900
that the state and state agencies shall, so long as any 17901
obligations issued under this section are outstanding, cause to be 17902
charged and collected fees, charges, and rentals for the use of 17903
state parks and public service facilities and other fees and 17904
charges with respect to parks and recreation sufficient in amount 17905
to provide for the payment of bond service charges on such 17906
obligations and for the establishment and maintenance of any 17907
reserves as provided in the bond proceedings, and such covenants 17908
shall be controlling notwithstanding any other provision of law 17909
pertaining to such charges except any provision of law prohibiting 17910
or limiting charges for the use of swimming facilities of state 17911
parks and public service facilities by persons under sixteen years 17912
of age.17913

       (E) There is hereby created the parks and recreation bond 17914
service trust fund, which shall be in the custody of the treasurer 17915
of state but shall be separate and apart from and not a part of 17916
the state treasury. All moneys received by or on account of the 17917
commission or issuing authority or state agencies and required by 17918
the applicable bond proceedings to be deposited, transferred, or 17919
allocated to or received for the purposes of the trust fund shall 17920
be deposited with the treasurer of state and credited to such 17921
fund, subject to applicable provisions of the bond proceedings but 17922
without necessity for any act of appropriation. The trust fund is 17923
hereby pledged to the payment of bond service charges on the 17924
obligations issued pursuant to this section and sections 154.11 17925
and 154.12 of the Revised Code to the extent provided in the 17926
applicable bond proceedings, and payment thereof from such fund 17927
shall be made or provided for by the treasurer of state in 17928
accordance with such bond proceedings without necessity for any 17929
act of appropriation.17930

       (F) There is hereby created in the state treasury the parks 17931
and recreation improvement fund. Subject to the bond proceedings 17932
therefor, all of the proceeds of the sale of obligations issued 17933
pursuant to this section shall be credited to such fund, except 17934
that any accrued interest received shall be credited to the parks 17935
and recreation bond service trust fund. The parks and recreation 17936
improvement fund may also be comprised of gifts, grants, 17937
appropriated moneys, and other sums and securities received to the 17938
credit of such fund. Such fund shall be applied only to the 17939
purpose of paying costs of capital facilities for parks and 17940
recreation under the jurisdiction of the department of natural 17941
resources or for participation in capital facilities for parks and 17942
recreation with the federal government, municipal corporations, 17943
counties, or other governmental agencies, or any one or more of 17944
them, which participation may be by grants or contributions to 17945
them for such capital facilities. All investment earnings on the 17946
cash balance in the fund shall be credited to the fund.17947

       (G) All state parks shall be exclusively under the control 17948
and administration of the division of parks and recreation. With 17949
the approval of the recreation and resources council, the director 17950
of natural resources may by order remove from the classification 17951
as state parks any of the lands or interests therein referred to 17952
in divisions (M)(2) and (3) of section 154.01 of the Revised Code, 17953
subject to the limitations, provisions, and conditions in any 17954
order authorizing state park revenue bonds, in any trust agreement 17955
securing such bonds, or in bond proceedings with respect to 17956
obligations issued pursuant to this section. Lands or interests 17957
therein so removed shall be transferred to other divisions of the 17958
department for administration or may be sold as provided by law. 17959
Proceeds of any sale shall be used or transferred as provided in 17960
the order authorizing state park revenue bonds or in such trust 17961
agreement, or in bond proceedings with respect to obligations 17962
issued pursuant to this section, and if no such provision is made 17963
shall be transferred to the state park fund created by section 17964
1541.22 of the Revised Code.17965

       (H) This section shall be applied with other applicable 17966
provisions of this chapter.17967

       (I) Any instrument by which real property is acquired 17968
pursuant to this section shall identify the agency of the state 17969
that has the use and benefit of the real property as specified in 17970
section 5301.012 of the Revised Code.17971

       Sec. 154.23.  (A) Subject to authorization by the general 17972
assembly under section 154.02 of the Revised Code, the issuing 17973
authority may issue obligations pursuant to this chapter to pay 17974
costs of capital facilities for Ohio cultural facilities and Ohio 17975
sports facilities.17976

       (B) The Ohio public facilities commission may lease any 17977
capital facilities for Ohio cultural facilities or Ohio sports 17978
facilities to, and make or provide for other agreements with 17979
respect to the use or purchase of such capital facilities with, 17980
the Ohio cultural facilities construction commission and, with the 17981
Ohio cultural facilities construction commission's approval, any 17982
governmental agency having authority under law to operate such 17983
capital facilities. Any lease or agreement shall be subject to 17984
Chapter 3383. of the Revised Code.17985

       (C) For purposes of this section, "available receipts" means 17986
any revenues or receipts derived by the Ohio public facilities 17987
commission from the operation, leasing, or other disposition of 17988
capital facilities financed under this section, the proceeds of 17989
obligations issued under this section and section 154.11 or 154.12 17990
of the Revised Code, and also means any gifts, grants, donations, 17991
and pledges, and receipts thereon, available for the payment of 17992
bond service charges on obligations issued under this section. The 17993
issuing authority may pledge all, or such portion as it 17994
determines, of the available receipts to the payment of bond 17995
service charges on obligations issued under this section and 17996
section 154.11 or 154.12 of the Revised Code and for the 17997
establishment and maintenance of any reserves, as provided in the 17998
bond proceedings, and make other provisions therein with respect 17999
to such available receipts as authorized by this chapter, which 18000
provisions shall be controlling notwithstanding any other 18001
provision of law pertaining thereto.18002

       (D) There is hereby created one or more funds, as determined 18003
by the issuing authority in the bond proceedings, designated as 18004
the "Ohio cultural facilities commission bond service fund" with, 18005
if more than one such fund, such further identifying name as the 18006
issuing authority determines, which shall be in the custody of the 18007
treasurer of state but shall be separate and apart from and not a 18008
part of the state treasury. All money received by or on account of 18009
the issuing authority or the Ohio cultural facilities construction18010
commission and required by the applicable bond proceedings to be 18011
deposited, transferred, or credited to the Ohio cultural 18012
facilities commission bond service fund, and all other money 18013
transferred or allocated to or received for the purposes of that 18014
fund shall be deposited with the treasurer of state and credited 18015
to the applicable fund, subject to applicable provisions of the 18016
bond proceedings, but without necessity of any act or 18017
appropriation. The Ohio cultural facilities commission bond 18018
service funds are trust funds and are hereby pledged to the 18019
payment of bond service charges on the applicable obligations 18020
issued pursuant to this section and section 154.11 or 154.12 of 18021
the Revised Code to the extent provided in the applicable bond 18022
proceedings, and payment thereof from such funds shall be made or 18023
provided for by the treasurer of state in accordance with the 18024
applicable bond proceedings without necessity for any act or 18025
appropriation.18026

       (E) This section is to be applied with other applicable 18027
provisions of this chapter.18028

       Sec. 154.25. (A) As used in this section:18029

       (1) "Available community or technical college receipts" means 18030
all money received by a community or technical college or 18031
community or technical college district, including income, 18032
revenues, and receipts from the operation, ownership, or control 18033
of facilities, grants, gifts, donations, and pledges and receipts 18034
therefrom, receipts from fees and charges, the allocated state 18035
share of instruction as defined in section 3333.903333.59 of the 18036
Revised Code, and the proceeds of the sale of obligations, 18037
including proceeds of obligations issued to refund obligations 18038
previously issued, but excluding any special fee, and receipts 18039
therefrom, charged pursuant to division (D) of section 154.21 of 18040
the Revised Code.18041

       (2) "Community or technical college," "college," "community 18042
or technical college district," and "district" have the same 18043
meanings as in section 3333.903333.59 of the Revised Code.18044

       (3) "Community or technical college capital facilities" means 18045
auxiliary facilities, education facilities, and housing and dining 18046
facilities, as those terms are defined in section 3345.12 of the 18047
Revised Code, to the extent permitted to be financed by the 18048
issuance of obligations under division (A)(2) of section 3357.112 18049
of the Revised Code, that are authorized by sections 3354.121, 18050
3357.112, and 3358.10 of the Revised Code to be financed by 18051
obligations issued by a community or technical college district, 18052
and for which the issuing authority is authorized to issue 18053
obligations pursuant to this section, and includes any one, part 18054
of, or any combination of the foregoing, and further includes site 18055
improvements, utilities, machinery, furnishings, and any separate 18056
or connected buildings, structures, improvements, sites, open 18057
space and green space areas, utilities, or equipment to be used 18058
in, or in connection with the operation or maintenance of, or 18059
supplementing or otherwise related to the services or facilities 18060
to be provided by, such facilities.18061

       (4) "Cost of community or technical college capital 18062
facilities" means the costs of acquiring, constructing, 18063
reconstructing, rehabilitating, remodeling, renovating, enlarging, 18064
improving, equipping, or furnishing community or technical college 18065
capital facilities, and the financing thereof, including the cost 18066
of clearance and preparation of the site and of any land to be 18067
used in connection with community or technical college capital 18068
facilities, the cost of any indemnity and surety bonds and 18069
premiums on insurance, all related direct administrative expenses 18070
and allocable portions of direct costs of the commission and the 18071
issuing authority, community or technical college or community or 18072
technical college district, cost of engineering, architectural 18073
services, design, plans, specifications and surveys, estimates of 18074
cost, legal fees, fees and expenses of trustees, depositories, 18075
bond registrars, and paying agents for obligations, cost of 18076
issuance of obligations and financing costs and fees and expenses 18077
of financial advisers and consultants in connection therewith, 18078
interest on obligations from the date thereof to the time when 18079
interest is to be covered by available receipts or other sources 18080
other than proceeds of those obligations, amounts necessary to 18081
establish reserves as required by the bond proceedings, costs of 18082
audits, the reimbursements of all moneys advanced or applied by or 18083
borrowed from the community or technical college, community or 18084
technical college district, or others, from whatever source 18085
provided, including any temporary advances from state 18086
appropriations, for the payment of any item or items of cost of 18087
community or technical college facilities, and all other expenses 18088
necessary or incident to planning or determining feasibility or 18089
practicability with respect to such facilities, and such other 18090
expenses as may be necessary or incident to the acquisition, 18091
construction, reconstruction, rehabilitation, remodeling, 18092
renovation, enlargement, improvement, equipment, and furnishing of 18093
community or technical college capital facilities, the financing 18094
thereof and the placing of them in use and operation, including 18095
any one, part of, or combination of such classes of costs and 18096
expenses.18097

       (5) "Capital facilities" includes community or technical 18098
college capital facilities.18099

       (6) "Obligations" has the same meaning as in section 154.01 18100
or 3345.12 of the Revised Code, as the context requires.18101

       (B) The issuing authority is authorized to issue revenue 18102
obligations under Section 2i of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, 18103
on behalf of a community or technical college district and shall 18104
cause the net proceeds thereof, after any deposits of accrued 18105
interest for the payment of bond service charges and after any 18106
deposit of all or such lesser portion as the issuing authority may 18107
direct of the premium received upon the sale of those obligations 18108
for the payment of the bond service charges, to be applied to the 18109
cost of community or technical college capital facilities, 18110
provided that the issuance of such obligations is subject to the 18111
execution of a written agreement in accordance with division (C) 18112
of section 3333.903333.59 of the Revised Code for the withholding 18113
and depositing of funds otherwise due the district, or the college 18114
it operates, in respect of its allocated state share of 18115
instruction.18116

       (C) The bond service charges and all other payments required 18117
to be made by the trust agreement or indenture securing the 18118
obligations shall be payable solely from available community or 18119
technical college receipts pledged thereto as provided in the 18120
resolution. The available community or technical college receipts 18121
pledged and thereafter received by the commission are immediately 18122
subject to the lien of such pledge without any physical delivery 18123
thereof or further act, and the lien of any such pledge is valid 18124
and binding against all parties having claims of any kind against 18125
the authority, irrespective of whether those parties have notice 18126
thereof, and creates a perfected security interest for all 18127
purposes of Chapter 1309. of the Revised Code and a perfected lien 18128
for purposes of any real property interest, all without the 18129
necessity for separation or delivery of funds or for the filing or 18130
recording of the resolution, trust agreement, indenture, or other 18131
agreement by which such pledge is created or any certificate, 18132
statement, or other document with respect thereto; and the pledge 18133
of such available community or technical college receipts is 18134
effective and the money therefrom and thereof may be applied to 18135
the purposes for which pledged. Every pledge, and every covenant 18136
and agreement made with respect to the pledge, made in the 18137
resolution may therein be extended to the benefit of the owners 18138
and holders of obligations authorized by this section, and to any 18139
trustee therefor, for the further securing of the payment of the 18140
bond service charges, and all or any rights under any agreement or 18141
lease made under this section may be assigned for such purpose.18142

       (D) This section is to be applied with other applicable 18143
provisions of this chapter.18144

       Sec. 156.02.  The executive director of administrative 18145
servicesthe Ohio facilities construction commission may contract 18146
with an energy or a water services company, architect, 18147
professional engineer, contractor, or other person experienced in 18148
the design and implementation of energy or water conservation 18149
measures for a report containing an analysis and recommendations 18150
pertaining to the implementation of energy or water conservation 18151
measures that result in energy, water, or wastewater cost savings, 18152
operating cost savings, or avoided capital costs for the 18153
institution. The report shall include estimates of all costs of 18154
such installations, including the costs of design, engineering, 18155
installation, maintenance, repairs, and debt service, and 18156
estimates of the energy, water, or wastewater cost savings, 18157
operating cost savings, and avoided capital costs created.18158

       Sec. 156.03.  (A) If the executive director of administrative 18159
servicesthe Ohio facilities construction commission wishes to 18160
enter into an installment payment contract pursuant to section 18161
156.04 of the Revised Code or any other contract to implement one 18162
or more energy or water saving measures, the executive director 18163
may proceed under Chapter 153. of the Revised Code, or, 18164
alternatively, the executive director may request the controlling 18165
board to exempt the contract from Chapter 153. of the Revised 18166
Code.18167

       If the controlling board by a majority vote approves an 18168
exemption, that chapter shall not apply to the contract and 18169
instead the executive director shall request proposals from at 18170
least three parties for the implementation of the energy or water 18171
saving measures. Prior to providing any interested party a copy of 18172
any such request, the executive director shall advertise, in a 18173
newspaper of general circulation in the county where the contract 18174
is to be performed, and may advertise by electronic means pursuant 18175
to rules adopted by the executive director, the executive18176
director's intent to request proposals for the implementation of 18177
the energy or water saving measures. The notice shall invite 18178
interested parties to submit proposals for consideration and shall 18179
be published at least thirty days prior to the date for accepting 18180
proposals.18181

       (B) Upon receiving the proposals, the executive director 18182
shall analyze them and, after considering the cost estimates of 18183
each proposal and the availability of funds to pay for each with 18184
current appropriations or by financing the cost of each through an 18185
installment payment contract under section 156.04 of the Revised 18186
Code, may select one or more proposals or reject all proposals. In 18187
selecting proposals, the executive director shall select the one 18188
or more proposals most likely to result in the greatest energy, 18189
water, or wastewater savings, operating costs savings, and avoided 18190
capital costs created.18191

       (C) No contract shall be awarded to implement energy or water 18192
saving measures under this section, unless the executive director 18193
finds that both of the following circumstances exists:18194

       (1) Not less than one-fifteenth of the costs of the contract 18195
shall be paid within two years from the date of purchase;18196

        (2) In the case of a contract for a cogeneration system 18197
described in division (B)(8) of section 156.01 of the Revised 18198
Code, the remaining balance of the cost of the contract shall be 18199
paid within twenty years from the date of purchase, and, in the 18200
case of all other contracts, fifteen years.18201

       Sec. 156.04.  (A) In accordance with this section and section 18202
156.03 of the Revised Code, the executive director of 18203
administrative servicesthe Ohio facilities construction 18204
commission may enter into an installment payment contract for the 18205
implementation of one or more energy or water saving measures. If 18206
the executive director wishes an installment payment contract to 18207
be exempted from Chapter 153. of the Revised Code, the executive18208
director shall proceed pursuant to section 156.03 of the Revised 18209
Code.18210

       (B) Any installment payment contract under this section shall 18211
provide that all payments, except payments for repairs and 18212
obligations on termination of the contract prior to its 18213
expiration, are to be a stated percentage of calculated energy, 18214
water, or wastewater cost savings, operating costs, and avoided 18215
capital costs attributable to the one or more measures over a 18216
defined period of time and are to be made only to the extent that 18217
those calculated amounts actually occur. No such contract shall 18218
contain either of the following:18219

       (1) A requirement of any additional capital investment or 18220
contribution of funds, other than funds available from state or 18221
federal grants;18222

        (2) In the case of a contract for a cogeneration system 18223
described in division (B)(8) of section 156.01 of the Revised 18224
Code, a payment term longer than twenty years, and, in the case of 18225
all other contracts, a payment term longer than fifteen years.18226

       (C) Any installment payment contract entered into under this 18227
section shall terminate no later than the last day of the fiscal 18228
biennium for which funds have been appropriated to the department 18229
of administrative servicesOhio facilities construction commission18230
by the general assembly and shall be renewed in each succeeding 18231
fiscal biennium in which any balance of the contract remains 18232
unpaid, provided that both an appropriation for that succeeding 18233
fiscal biennium and the certification required by section 126.07 18234
of the Revised Code are made.18235

       (D) Any installment payment contract entered into under this 18236
section shall be eligible for financing provided through the Ohio 18237
air quality development authority under Chapter 3706. of the 18238
Revised Code.18239

       Sec. 156.05.  In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 18240
Code, the executive director of administrative servicesthe Ohio 18241
facilities construction commission shall adopt, and enforce rules 18242
necessary to administer sections 156.01 to 156.04 of the Revised 18243
Code. Rules adopted under this section shall establish procedures 18244
by which the executive director may authorize in histhe executive 18245
director's stead the manager of any building owned by the state to 18246
enter into contracts authorized under sections 156.01 to 156.04 of 18247
the Revised Code.18248

       Sec. 166.02.  (A) The general assembly finds that many local 18249
areas throughout the state are experiencing economic stagnation or 18250
decline, and that the economic development programs provided for 18251
in this chapter will constitute deserved, necessary reinvestment 18252
by the state in those areas, materially contribute to their 18253
economic revitalization, and result in improving the economic 18254
welfare of all the people of the state. Accordingly, it is 18255
declared to be the public policy of the state, through the 18256
operations of this chapter and other applicable laws adopted 18257
pursuant to Section 2p or 13 of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, 18258
and other authority vested in the general assembly, to assist in 18259
and facilitate the establishment or development of eligible 18260
projects or assist and cooperate with any governmental agency in 18261
achieving such purpose.18262

       (B) In furtherance of such public policy and to implement 18263
such purpose, the director of development may:18264

       (1) After consultation with appropriate governmental 18265
agencies, enter into agreements with persons engaged in industry, 18266
commerce, distribution, or research and with governmental agencies 18267
to induce such persons to acquire, construct, reconstruct, 18268
rehabilitate, renovate, enlarge, improve, equip, or furnish, or 18269
otherwise develop, eligible projects and make provision therein 18270
for project facilities and governmental actions, as authorized by 18271
this chapter and other applicable laws, subject to any required 18272
actions by the general assembly or the controlling board and 18273
subject to applicable local government laws and regulations;18274

       (2) Provide for the guarantees and loans as provided for in 18275
sections 166.06 and 166.07 of the Revised Code;18276

       (3) Subject to release of such moneys by the controlling 18277
board, contract for labor and materials needed for, or contract 18278
with others, including governmental agencies, to provide, project 18279
facilities the allowable costs of which are to be paid for or 18280
reimbursed from moneys in the facilities establishment fund, and 18281
contract for the operation of such project facilities;18282

       (4) Subject to release thereof by the controlling board, from 18283
moneys in the facilities establishment fund acquire or contract to 18284
acquire by gift, exchange, or purchase, including the obtaining 18285
and exercise of purchase options, property, and convey or 18286
otherwise dispose of, or provide for the conveyance or disposition 18287
of, property so acquired or contracted to be acquired by sale, 18288
exchange, lease, lease purchase, conditional or installment sale, 18289
transfer, or other disposition, including the grant of an option 18290
to purchase, to any governmental agency or to any other person 18291
without necessity for competitive bidding and upon such terms and 18292
conditions and manner of consideration pursuant to and as the 18293
director determines to be appropriate to satisfy the objectives of 18294
sections 166.01 to 166.11 of the Revised Code;18295

       (5) Retain the services of or employ financial consultants, 18296
appraisers, consulting engineers, superintendents, managers, 18297
construction and accounting experts, attorneys, and employees, 18298
agents, and independent contractors as are necessary in the 18299
director's judgment and fix the compensation for their services;18300

       (6) Receive and accept from any person grants, gifts, and 18301
contributions of money, property, labor, and other things of 18302
value, to be held, used and applied only for the purpose for which 18303
such grants, gifts, and contributions are made;18304

       (7) Enter into appropriate arrangements and agreements with 18305
any governmental agency for the taking or provision by that 18306
governmental agency of any governmental action;18307

       (8) Do all other acts and enter into contracts and execute 18308
all instruments necessary or appropriate to carry out the 18309
provisions of this chapter;18310

       (9) Adopt rules to implement any of the provisions of this 18311
chapter applicable to the director.18312

       (C) The determinations by the director that facilities 18313
constitute eligible projects, that facilities are project 18314
facilities, that costs of such facilities are allowable costs, and 18315
all other determinations relevant thereto or to an action taken or 18316
agreement entered into shall be conclusive for purposes of the 18317
validity and enforceability of rights of parties arising from 18318
actions taken and agreements entered into under this chapter.18319

       (D) Except as otherwise prescribed in this chapter, all 18320
expenses and obligations incurred by the director in carrying out 18321
the director's powers and in exercising the director's duties 18322
under this chapter, shall be payable solely from, as appropriate, 18323
moneys in the facilities establishment fund, the loan guarantee 18324
fund, the innovation Ohio loan guarantee fund, the innovation Ohio 18325
loan fund, the research and development loan fund, the logistics 18326
and distribution infrastructure fund, the logistics and 18327
distribution infrastructure taxable bond fund, or moneys 18328
appropriated for such purpose by the general assembly. This 18329
chapter does not authorize the director or the issuing authority 18330
under section 166.08 of the Revised Code to incur bonded 18331
indebtedness of the state or any political subdivision thereof, or 18332
to obligate or pledge moneys raised by taxation for the payment of 18333
any bonds or notes issued or guarantees made pursuant to this 18334
chapter.18335

       (E) Any governmental agency may enter into an agreement with 18336
the director, any other governmental agency, or a person to be 18337
assisted under this chapter, to take or provide for the purposes 18338
of this chapter any governmental action it is authorized to take 18339
or provide, and to undertake on behalf and at the request of the 18340
director any action which the director is authorized to undertake 18341
pursuant to divisions (B)(3), (4), and (5) of this section or 18342
divisions (B)(3), (4), and (5) of section 166.12 of the Revised 18343
Code. Governmental agencies of the state shall cooperate with and 18344
provide assistance to the director of development and the 18345
controlling board in the exercise of their respective functions 18346
under this chapter.18347

       Sec. 166.03.  (A) There is hereby created the facilities 18348
establishment fund within the state treasury, consisting of 18349
proceeds from the issuance of obligations as specified under 18350
section 166.08 of the Revised Code; the moneys received by the 18351
state from the sources specified in section 166.09 of the Revised 18352
Code; service charges imposed under sections 166.06 and 166.07 of 18353
the Revised Code; any grants, gifts, or contributions of moneys 18354
received by the director of development services to be used for 18355
loans made under section 166.07 of the Revised Code or for the 18356
payment of the allowable costs of project facilities; and all 18357
other moneys appropriated or transferred to the fund. Moneys in 18358
the loan guarantee fund in excess of the loan guarantee reserve 18359
requirement, but subject to the provisions and requirements of any 18360
guarantee contracts, may be transferred to the facilities 18361
establishment fund by the treasurer of state upon the order of the 18362
director of development services. Moneys received by the state 18363
under Chapter 122. of the Revised Code, to the extent allocable to 18364
the utilization of moneys derived from proceeds of the sale of 18365
obligations pursuant to section 166.08 of the Revised Code, shall 18366
be credited to the facilities establishment fund. All investment 18367
earnings on the cash balance in the fund shall be credited to the 18368
fund.18369

       (B) All moneys appropriated or transferred to the facilities 18370
establishment fund may be released at the request of the director 18371
of development services for payment of allowable costs or the 18372
making of loans under section 166.07 of the Revised Code, for 18373
transfer to the loan guarantee fund established in section 166.06 18374
of the Revised Code, or for use for the purpose of or transfer to 18375
the funds established by sections 122.35, 122.42, 122.54, 122.55, 18376
122.56, 122.561, 122.57, 122.601, and 122.80 of the Revised Code 18377
and, until July 1, 2003, the fund established by section 166.031 18378
of the Revised Code, and, until July 1, 2007, the fund established 18379
by section 122.26 of the Revised Code, but only for such of those 18380
purposes as are within the authorization of Section 13 of Article 18381
VIII, Ohio Constitution, in all cases subject to the approval of 18382
the controlling board.18383

       (C) The department of development services agency, in the 18384
administration of the facilities establishment fund, is encouraged 18385
to utilize and promote the utilization of, to the maximum 18386
practicable extent, the other existing programs, business 18387
incentives, and tax incentives that department is required or 18388
authorized to administer or supervise.18389

       Sec. 166.04.  (A) Prior to entering into each agreement to 18390
provide assistance under sections 166.02, 166.06, and 166.07 of 18391
the Revised Code, the director of development services shall 18392
determine whether the assistance will conform to the requirements 18393
of sections 166.01 to 166.11 of the Revised Code. Such 18394
determination, and the facts upon which it is based, shall be set 18395
forth, where required, by the director in submissions made to the 18396
controlling board when the director seeks a release of moneys 18397
under section 166.02 of the Revised Code. An agreement to provide 18398
assistance under sections 166.02, 166.06, and 166.07 of the 18399
Revised Code shall set forth such determination, which shall be 18400
conclusive for purposes of the validity and enforceability of such 18401
agreement and any loan guarantees, loans, or other agreements 18402
entered into pursuant to such agreement to provide assistance.18403

       (B) Whenever a person applies for financial assistance under 18404
sections 166.02, 166.06, and 166.07 of the Revised Code and the 18405
project for which assistance is requested is to relocate 18406
facilities that are currently being operated by the person and 18407
that are located in another county, municipal corporation, or 18408
township, the directorperson shall provide written notification 18409
of the relocation to the appropriate local governmental bodies and 18410
state officials. ThePrior to entering into an agreement to 18411
provide the assistance, the director shall verify that such18412
notification shall contain the following information: 18413

       (1) The name of the person applying for financial assistance; 18414

       (2) The county, and the municipal corporation or township, in 18415
which the project for which assistance is requested is located; 18416
and 18417

       (3) The county, and the municipal corporation or township, in 18418
which the facility to be replaced is locatedhas been provided.18419

       (C) As used in division (B) of this section:18420

       (1), "Appropriateappropriate local governmental bodies" 18421
means:18422

       (a)(1) The boardsboard of county commissioners or 18423
legislative authoritiesauthority of the county in which the 18424
project for which assistance is requested is located and of the 18425
county in which the facility to be replaced is located;18426

       (b)(2) The legislative authority of the municipal corporation 18427
or the board of township trustees of the township in which the 18428
project for which assistance is requested is located; and 18429

       (c) The legislative authority of the municipal corporation or 18430
the board of township trustees of the township in which the18431
facility to be replaced is located.18432

       (2) "State officials" means: 18433

       (a) The state representative and state senator in whose 18434
districts the project for which assistance is requested is 18435
located;18436

       (b) The state representative and state senator in whose 18437
districts the facility to be replaced is located. 18438

       Sec. 166.08.  (A) As used in this chapter:18439

       (1) "Bond proceedings" means the resolution, order, trust 18440
agreement, indenture, lease, and other agreements, amendments and 18441
supplements to the foregoing, or any one or more or combination 18442
thereof, authorizing or providing for the terms and conditions 18443
applicable to, or providing for the security or liquidity of, 18444
obligations issued pursuant to this section, and the provisions 18445
contained in such obligations.18446

       (2) "Bond service charges" means principal, including 18447
mandatory sinking fund requirements for retirement of obligations, 18448
and interest, and redemption premium, if any, required to be paid 18449
by the state on obligations.18450

       (3) "Bond service fund" means the applicable fund and 18451
accounts therein created for and pledged to the payment of bond 18452
service charges, which may be, or may be part of, the economic 18453
development bond service fund created by division (S) of this 18454
section including all moneys and investments, and earnings from 18455
investments, credited and to be credited thereto.18456

       (4) "Issuing authority" means the treasurer of state, or the 18457
officer who by law performs the functions of such officer.18458

       (5) "Obligations" means bonds, notes, or other evidence of 18459
obligation including interest coupons pertaining thereto, issued 18460
pursuant to this section.18461

       (6) "Pledged receipts" means all receipts of the state 18462
representing the gross profit on the sale of spirituous liquor, as 18463
referred to in division (B)(4) of section 4301.10 of the Revised 18464
Code, after paying all costs and expenses of the division of 18465
liquor control and providing an adequate working capital reserve 18466
for the division of liquor control as provided in that division, 18467
but excluding the sum required by the second paragraph of section 18468
4301.12 of the Revised Code, as in effect on May 2, 1980, to be 18469
paid into the state treasury; moneys accruing to the state from 18470
the lease, sale, or other disposition, or use, of project 18471
facilities, and from the repayment, including interest, of loans 18472
made from proceeds received from the sale of obligations; accrued 18473
interest received from the sale of obligations; income from the 18474
investment of the special funds; and any gifts, grants, donations, 18475
and pledges, and receipts therefrom, available for the payment of 18476
bond service charges.18477

       (7) "Special funds" or "funds" means, except where the 18478
context does not permit, the bond service fund, and any other 18479
funds, including reserve funds, created under the bond 18480
proceedings, and the economic development bond service fund 18481
created by division (S) of this section to the extent provided in 18482
the bond proceedings, including all moneys and investments, and 18483
earnings from investment, credited and to be credited thereto.18484

       (B) Subject to the limitations provided in section 166.11 of 18485
the Revised Code, the issuing authority, upon the certification by 18486
the director of development or, with respect to eligible advanced 18487
energy projects, the Ohio air quality development authority to the 18488
issuing authority of the amount of moneys or additional moneys 18489
needed in the facilities establishment fund, the loan guarantee 18490
fund, the innovation Ohio loan fund, the innovation Ohio loan 18491
guarantee fund, the research and development loan fund, the 18492
logistics and distribution infrastructure fund, the logistics and 18493
distribution infrastructure taxable bond fund, the advanced energy 18494
research and development fund, or the advanced energy research and 18495
development taxable fund, as applicable, for the purpose of 18496
paying, or making loans for, allowable costs from the facilities 18497
establishment fund, allowable innovation costs from the innovation 18498
Ohio loan fund, allowable costs from the research and development 18499
loan fund, allowable costs from the logistics and distribution 18500
infrastructure fund, allowable costs from the logistics and 18501
distribution infrastructure taxable bond fund, allowable costs 18502
from the advanced energy research and development fund, or 18503
allowable costs from the advanced energy research and development 18504
taxable fund, as applicable, or needed for capitalized interest, 18505
for funding reserves, and for paying costs and expenses incurred 18506
in connection with the issuance, carrying, securing, paying, 18507
redeeming, or retirement of the obligations or any obligations 18508
refunded thereby, including payment of costs and expenses relating 18509
to letters of credit, lines of credit, insurance, put agreements, 18510
standby purchase agreements, indexing, marketing, remarketing and 18511
administrative arrangements, interest swap or hedging agreements, 18512
and any other credit enhancement, liquidity, remarketing, renewal, 18513
or refunding arrangements, all of which are authorized by this 18514
section, or providing moneys for the loan guarantee fund or the 18515
innovation Ohio loan guarantee fund, as provided in this chapter 18516
or needed for the purposes of funds established in accordance with 18517
or pursuant to sections 122.35, 122.42, 122.54, 122.55, 122.56, 18518
122.561, 122.57, and 122.80 of the Revised Code which are within 18519
the authorization of Section 13 of Article VIII, Ohio 18520
Constitution, or, with respect to certain eligible advanced energy 18521
projects, Section 2p of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, shall 18522
issue obligations of the state under this section in the required 18523
amount; provided that such obligations may be issued to satisfy 18524
the covenants in contracts of guarantee made under section 166.06 18525
or 166.15 of the Revised Code, notwithstanding limitations 18526
otherwise applicable to the issuance of obligations under this 18527
section. The proceeds of such obligations, except for the portion 18528
to be deposited in special funds, including reserve funds, as may 18529
be provided in the bond proceedings, shall as provided in the bond 18530
proceedings be deposited by the director of development to the 18531
facilities establishment fund, the loan guarantee fund, the 18532
innovation Ohio loan guarantee fund, the innovation Ohio loan 18533
fund, the research and development loan fund, or the logistics and 18534
distribution infrastructure fund, or the logistics and 18535
distribution infrastructure taxable bond fund, or be deposited by 18536
the Ohio air quality development authority to the advanced energy 18537
research and development fund or the advanced energy research and 18538
development taxable fund. Bond proceedings for project financing 18539
obligations may provide that the proceeds derived from the 18540
issuance of such obligations shall be deposited into such fund or 18541
funds provided for in the bond proceedings and, to the extent 18542
provided for in the bond proceedings, such proceeds shall be 18543
deemed to have been deposited into the facilities establishment 18544
fund and transferred to such fund or funds. The issuing authority 18545
may appoint trustees, paying agents, and transfer agents and may 18546
retain the services of financial advisors, accounting experts, and 18547
attorneys, and retain or contract for the services of marketing, 18548
remarketing, indexing, and administrative agents, other 18549
consultants, and independent contractors, including printing 18550
services, as are necessary in the issuing authority's judgment to 18551
carry out this section. The costs of such services are allowable 18552
costs payable from the facilities establishment fund or the 18553
research and development loan fund, allowable innovation costs 18554
payable from the innovation Ohio loan fund, or allowable costs 18555
payable from the logistics and distribution infrastructure fund, 18556
the logistics and distribution infrastructure taxable bond fund,18557
the advanced energy research and development fund, or the advanced 18558
energy research and development taxable fund, as applicable.18559

       (C) The holders or owners of such obligations shall have no 18560
right to have moneys raised by taxation obligated or pledged, and 18561
moneys raised by taxation shall not be obligated or pledged, for 18562
the payment of bond service charges. Such holders or owners shall 18563
have no rights to payment of bond service charges from any moneys 18564
accruing to the state from the lease, sale, or other disposition, 18565
or use, of project facilities, or from payment of the principal of 18566
or interest on loans made, or fees charged for guarantees made, or 18567
from any money or property received by the director, treasurer of 18568
state, or the state under Chapter 122. of the Revised Code, or 18569
from any other use of the proceeds of the sale of the obligations, 18570
and no such moneys may be used for the payment of bond service 18571
charges, except for accrued interest, capitalized interest, and 18572
reserves funded from proceeds received upon the sale of the 18573
obligations and except as otherwise expressly provided in the 18574
applicable bond proceedings pursuant to written directions by the 18575
director. The right of such holders and owners to payment of bond 18576
service charges is limited to all or that portion of the pledged 18577
receipts and those special funds pledged thereto pursuant to the 18578
bond proceedings in accordance with this section, and each such 18579
obligation shall bear on its face a statement to that effect.18580

       (D) Obligations shall be authorized by resolution or order of 18581
the issuing authority and the bond proceedings shall provide for 18582
the purpose thereof and the principal amount or amounts, and shall 18583
provide for or authorize the manner or agency for determining the 18584
principal maturity or maturities, not exceeding twenty-five years 18585
from the date of issuance, the interest rate or rates or the 18586
maximum interest rate, the date of the obligations and the dates 18587
of payment of interest thereon, their denomination, and the 18588
establishment within or without the state of a place or places of 18589
payment of bond service charges. Sections 9.98 to 9.983 of the 18590
Revised Code are applicable to obligations issued under this 18591
section, subject to any applicable limitation under section 166.11 18592
of the Revised Code. The purpose of such obligations may be stated 18593
in the bond proceedings in terms describing the general purpose or 18594
purposes to be served. The bond proceedings also shall provide, 18595
subject to the provisions of any other applicable bond 18596
proceedings, for the pledge of all, or such part as the issuing 18597
authority may determine, of the pledged receipts and the 18598
applicable special fund or funds to the payment of bond service 18599
charges, which pledges may be made either prior or subordinate to 18600
other expenses, claims, or payments, and may be made to secure the 18601
obligations on a parity with obligations theretofore or thereafter 18602
issued, if and to the extent provided in the bond proceedings. The 18603
pledged receipts and special funds so pledged and thereafter 18604
received by the state are immediately subject to the lien of such 18605
pledge without any physical delivery thereof or further act, and 18606
the lien of any such pledges is valid and binding against all 18607
parties having claims of any kind against the state or any 18608
governmental agency of the state, irrespective of whether such 18609
parties have notice thereof, and shall create a perfected security 18610
interest for all purposes of Chapter 1309. of the Revised Code, 18611
without the necessity for separation or delivery of funds or for 18612
the filing or recording of the bond proceedings by which such 18613
pledge is created or any certificate, statement or other document 18614
with respect thereto; and the pledge of such pledged receipts and 18615
special funds is effective and the money therefrom and thereof may 18616
be applied to the purposes for which pledged without necessity for 18617
any act of appropriation. Every pledge, and every covenant and 18618
agreement made with respect thereto, made in the bond proceedings 18619
may therein be extended to the benefit of the owners and holders 18620
of obligations authorized by this section, and to any trustee 18621
therefor, for the further security of the payment of the bond 18622
service charges.18623

       (E) The bond proceedings may contain additional provisions as 18624
to:18625

       (1) The redemption of obligations prior to maturity at the 18626
option of the issuing authority at such price or prices and under 18627
such terms and conditions as are provided in the bond proceedings;18628

       (2) Other terms of the obligations;18629

       (3) Limitations on the issuance of additional obligations;18630

       (4) The terms of any trust agreement or indenture securing 18631
the obligations or under which the same may be issued;18632

       (5) The deposit, investment and application of special funds, 18633
and the safeguarding of moneys on hand or on deposit, without 18634
regard to Chapter 131. or 135. of the Revised Code, but subject to 18635
any special provisions of this chapter, with respect to particular 18636
funds or moneys, provided that any bank or trust company which 18637
acts as depository of any moneys in the special funds may furnish 18638
such indemnifying bonds or may pledge such securities as required 18639
by the issuing authority;18640

       (6) Any or every provision of the bond proceedings being 18641
binding upon such officer, board, commission, authority, agency, 18642
department, or other person or body as may from time to time have 18643
the authority under law to take such actions as may be necessary 18644
to perform all or any part of the duty required by such provision;18645

       (7) Any provision that may be made in a trust agreement or 18646
indenture;18647

       (8) Any other or additional agreements with the holders of 18648
the obligations, or the trustee therefor, relating to the 18649
obligations or the security therefor, including the assignment of 18650
mortgages or other security obtained or to be obtained for loans 18651
under section 122.43, 166.07, or 166.16 of the Revised Code.18652

       (F) The obligations may have the great seal of the state or a 18653
facsimile thereof affixed thereto or printed thereon. The 18654
obligations and any coupons pertaining to obligations shall be 18655
signed or bear the facsimile signature of the issuing authority. 18656
Any obligations or coupons may be executed by the person who, on 18657
the date of execution, is the proper issuing authority although on 18658
the date of such bonds or coupons such person was not the issuing 18659
authority. If the issuing authority whose signature or a facsimile 18660
of whose signature appears on any such obligation or coupon ceases 18661
to be the issuing authority before delivery thereof, such 18662
signature or facsimile is nevertheless valid and sufficient for 18663
all purposes as if the former issuing authority had remained the 18664
issuing authority until such delivery; and if the seal to be 18665
affixed to obligations has been changed after a facsimile of the 18666
seal has been imprinted on such obligations, such facsimile seal 18667
shall continue to be sufficient as to such obligations and 18668
obligations issued in substitution or exchange therefor.18669

       (G) All obligations are negotiable instruments and securities 18670
under Chapter 1308. of the Revised Code, subject to the provisions 18671
of the bond proceedings as to registration. The obligations may be 18672
issued in coupon or in registered form, or both, as the issuing 18673
authority determines. Provision may be made for the registration 18674
of any obligations with coupons attached thereto as to principal 18675
alone or as to both principal and interest, their exchange for 18676
obligations so registered, and for the conversion or reconversion 18677
into obligations with coupons attached thereto of any obligations 18678
registered as to both principal and interest, and for reasonable 18679
charges for such registration, exchange, conversion, and 18680
reconversion.18681

       (H) Obligations may be sold at public sale or at private 18682
sale, as determined in the bond proceedings.18683

       Obligations issued to provide moneys for the loan guarantee 18684
fund or the innovation Ohio loan guarantee fund may, as determined 18685
by the issuing authority, be sold at private sale, and without 18686
publication of a notice of sale.18687

       (I) Pending preparation of definitive obligations, the 18688
issuing authority may issue interim receipts or certificates which 18689
shall be exchanged for such definitive obligations.18690

       (J) In the discretion of the issuing authority, obligations 18691
may be secured additionally by a trust agreement or indenture 18692
between the issuing authority and a corporate trustee which may be 18693
any trust company or bank having a place of business within the 18694
state. Any such agreement or indenture may contain the resolution 18695
or order authorizing the issuance of the obligations, any 18696
provisions that may be contained in any bond proceedings, and 18697
other provisions which are customary or appropriate in an 18698
agreement or indenture of such type, including, but not limited 18699
to:18700

       (1) Maintenance of each pledge, trust agreement, indenture, 18701
or other instrument comprising part of the bond proceedings until 18702
the state has fully paid the bond service charges on the 18703
obligations secured thereby, or provision therefor has been made;18704

       (2) In the event of default in any payments required to be 18705
made by the bond proceedings, or any other agreement of the 18706
issuing authority made as a part of the contract under which the 18707
obligations were issued, enforcement of such payments or agreement 18708
by mandamus, the appointment of a receiver, suit in equity, action 18709
at law, or any combination of the foregoing;18710

       (3) The rights and remedies of the holders of obligations and 18711
of the trustee, and provisions for protecting and enforcing them, 18712
including limitations on rights of individual holders of 18713
obligations;18714

       (4) The replacement of any obligations that become mutilated 18715
or are destroyed, lost, or stolen;18716

       (5) Such other provisions as the trustee and the issuing 18717
authority agree upon, including limitations, conditions, or 18718
qualifications relating to any of the foregoing.18719

       (K) Any holders of obligations or trustees under the bond 18720
proceedings, except to the extent that their rights are restricted 18721
by the bond proceedings, may by any suitable form of legal 18722
proceedings, protect and enforce any rights under the laws of this 18723
state or granted by such bond proceedings. Such rights include the 18724
right to compel the performance of all duties of the issuing 18725
authority, the director of development, the Ohio air quality 18726
development authority, or the division of liquor control required 18727
by this chapter or the bond proceedings; to enjoin unlawful 18728
activities; and in the event of default with respect to the 18729
payment of any bond service charges on any obligations or in the 18730
performance of any covenant or agreement on the part of the 18731
issuing authority, the director of development, the Ohio air 18732
quality development authority, or the division of liquor control 18733
in the bond proceedings, to apply to a court having jurisdiction 18734
of the cause to appoint a receiver to receive and administer the 18735
pledged receipts and special funds, other than those in the 18736
custody of the treasurer of state, which are pledged to the 18737
payment of the bond service charges on such obligations or which 18738
are the subject of the covenant or agreement, with full power to 18739
pay, and to provide for payment of bond service charges on, such 18740
obligations, and with such powers, subject to the direction of the 18741
court, as are accorded receivers in general equity cases, 18742
excluding any power to pledge additional revenues or receipts or 18743
other income or moneys of the issuing authority or the state or 18744
governmental agencies of the state to the payment of such 18745
principal and interest and excluding the power to take possession 18746
of, mortgage, or cause the sale or otherwise dispose of any 18747
project facilities.18748

       Each duty of the issuing authority and the issuing 18749
authority's officers and employees, and of each governmental 18750
agency and its officers, members, or employees, undertaken 18751
pursuant to the bond proceedings or any agreement or lease, 18752
lease-purchase agreement, or loan made under authority of this 18753
chapter, and in every agreement by or with the issuing authority, 18754
is hereby established as a duty of the issuing authority, and of 18755
each such officer, member, or employee having authority to perform 18756
such duty, specifically enjoined by the law resulting from an 18757
office, trust, or station within the meaning of section 2731.01 of 18758
the Revised Code.18759

       The person who is at the time the issuing authority, or the 18760
issuing authority's officers or employees, are not liable in their 18761
personal capacities on any obligations issued by the issuing 18762
authority or any agreements of or with the issuing authority.18763

       (L) The issuing authority may authorize and issue obligations 18764
for the refunding, including funding and retirement, and advance 18765
refunding with or without payment or redemption prior to maturity, 18766
of any obligations previously issued by the issuing authority. 18767
Such obligations may be issued in amounts sufficient for payment 18768
of the principal amount of the prior obligations, any redemption 18769
premiums thereon, principal maturities of any such obligations 18770
maturing prior to the redemption of the remaining obligations on a 18771
parity therewith, interest accrued or to accrue to the maturity 18772
dates or dates of redemption of such obligations, and any 18773
allowable costs including expenses incurred or to be incurred in 18774
connection with such issuance and such refunding, funding, and 18775
retirement. Subject to the bond proceedings therefor, the portion 18776
of proceeds of the sale of obligations issued under this division 18777
to be applied to bond service charges on the prior obligations 18778
shall be credited to an appropriate account held by the trustee 18779
for such prior or new obligations or to the appropriate account in 18780
the bond service fund for such obligations. Obligations authorized 18781
under this division shall be deemed to be issued for those 18782
purposes for which such prior obligations were issued and are 18783
subject to the provisions of this section pertaining to other 18784
obligations, except as otherwise provided in this section; 18785
provided that, unless otherwise authorized by the general 18786
assembly, any limitations imposed by the general assembly pursuant 18787
to this section with respect to bond service charges applicable to 18788
the prior obligations shall be applicable to the obligations 18789
issued under this division to refund, fund, advance refund or 18790
retire such prior obligations.18791

       (M) The authority to issue obligations under this section 18792
includes authority to issue obligations in the form of bond 18793
anticipation notes and to renew the same from time to time by the 18794
issuance of new notes. The holders of such notes or interest 18795
coupons pertaining thereto shall have a right to be paid solely 18796
from the pledged receipts and special funds that may be pledged to 18797
the payment of the bonds anticipated, or from the proceeds of such 18798
bonds or renewal notes, or both, as the issuing authority provides 18799
in the resolution or order authorizing such notes. Such notes may 18800
be additionally secured by covenants of the issuing authority to 18801
the effect that the issuing authority and the state will do such 18802
or all things necessary for the issuance of such bonds or renewal 18803
notes in appropriate amount, and apply the proceeds thereof to the 18804
extent necessary, to make full payment of the principal of and 18805
interest on such notes at the time or times contemplated, as 18806
provided in such resolution or order. For such purpose, the 18807
issuing authority may issue bonds or renewal notes in such 18808
principal amount and upon such terms as may be necessary to 18809
provide funds to pay when required the principal of and interest 18810
on such notes, notwithstanding any limitations prescribed by or 18811
for purposes of this section. Subject to this division, all 18812
provisions for and references to obligations in this section are 18813
applicable to notes authorized under this division.18814

       The issuing authority in the bond proceedings authorizing the 18815
issuance of bond anticipation notes shall set forth for such bonds 18816
an estimated interest rate and a schedule of principal payments 18817
for such bonds and the annual maturity dates thereof, and for 18818
purposes of any limitation on bond service charges prescribed 18819
under division (A) of section 166.11 of the Revised Code, the 18820
amount of bond service charges on such bond anticipation notes is 18821
deemed to be the bond service charges for the bonds anticipated 18822
thereby as set forth in the bond proceedings applicable to such 18823
notes, but this provision does not modify any authority in this 18824
section to pledge receipts and special funds to, and covenant to 18825
issue bonds to fund, the payment of principal of and interest and 18826
any premium on such notes.18827

       (N) Obligations issued under this section are lawful 18828
investments for banks, societies for savings, savings and loan 18829
associations, deposit guarantee associations, trust companies, 18830
trustees, fiduciaries, insurance companies, including domestic for 18831
life and domestic not for life, trustees or other officers having 18832
charge of sinking and bond retirement or other special funds of 18833
political subdivisions and taxing districts of this state, the 18834
commissioners of the sinking fund of the state, the administrator 18835
of workers' compensation, the state teachers retirement system, 18836
the public employees retirement system, the school employees 18837
retirement system, and the Ohio police and fire pension fund, 18838
notwithstanding any other provisions of the Revised Code or rules 18839
adopted pursuant thereto by any governmental agency of the state 18840
with respect to investments by them, and are also acceptable as 18841
security for the deposit of public moneys.18842

       (O) Unless otherwise provided in any applicable bond 18843
proceedings, moneys to the credit of or in the special funds 18844
established by or pursuant to this section may be invested by or 18845
on behalf of the issuing authority only in notes, bonds, or other 18846
obligations of the United States, or of any agency or 18847
instrumentality of the United States, obligations guaranteed as to 18848
principal and interest by the United States, obligations of this 18849
state or any political subdivision of this state, and certificates 18850
of deposit of any national bank located in this state and any 18851
bank, as defined in section 1101.01 of the Revised Code, subject 18852
to inspection by the superintendent of banks. If the law or the 18853
instrument creating a trust pursuant to division (J) of this 18854
section expressly permits investment in direct obligations of the 18855
United States or an agency of the United States, unless expressly 18856
prohibited by the instrument, such moneys also may be invested in 18857
no-front-end-load money market mutual funds consisting exclusively 18858
of obligations of the United States or an agency of the United 18859
States and in repurchase agreements, including those issued by the 18860
fiduciary itself, secured by obligations of the United States or 18861
an agency of the United States; and in common trust funds 18862
established in accordance with section 1111.20 of the Revised Code 18863
and consisting exclusively of any such securities, notwithstanding 18864
division (A)(4) of that section. The income from such investments 18865
shall be credited to such funds as the issuing authority 18866
determines, and such investments may be sold at such times as the 18867
issuing authority determines or authorizes.18868

       (P) Provision may be made in the applicable bond proceedings 18869
for the establishment of separate accounts in the bond service 18870
fund and for the application of such accounts only to the 18871
specified bond service charges on obligations pertinent to such 18872
accounts and bond service fund and for other accounts therein 18873
within the general purposes of such fund. Unless otherwise 18874
provided in any applicable bond proceedings, moneys to the credit 18875
of or in the several special funds established pursuant to this 18876
section shall be disbursed on the order of the treasurer of state, 18877
provided that no such order is required for the payment from the 18878
bond service fund when due of bond service charges on obligations.18879

       (Q) The issuing authority may pledge all, or such portion as 18880
the issuing authority determines, of the pledged receipts to the 18881
payment of bond service charges on obligations issued under this 18882
section, and for the establishment and maintenance of any 18883
reserves, as provided in the bond proceedings, and make other 18884
provisions therein with respect to pledged receipts as authorized 18885
by this chapter, which provisions are controlling notwithstanding 18886
any other provisions of law pertaining thereto.18887

       (R) The issuing authority may covenant in the bond 18888
proceedings, and any such covenants are controlling 18889
notwithstanding any other provision of law, that the state and 18890
applicable officers and governmental agencies of the state, 18891
including the general assembly, so long as any obligations are 18892
outstanding, shall:18893

       (1) Maintain statutory authority for and cause to be charged 18894
and collected wholesale and retail prices for spirituous liquor 18895
sold by the state or its agents so that the pledged receipts are 18896
sufficient in amount to meet bond service charges, and the 18897
establishment and maintenance of any reserves and other 18898
requirements provided for in the bond proceedings, and, as 18899
necessary, to meet covenants contained in contracts of guarantee 18900
made under section 166.06 of the Revised Code;18901

       (2) Take or permit no action, by statute or otherwise, that 18902
would impair the exemption from federal income taxation of the 18903
interest on the obligations.18904

       (S) There is hereby created the economic development bond 18905
service fund, which shall be in the custody of the treasurer of 18906
state but shall be separate and apart from and not a part of the 18907
state treasury. All moneys received by or on account of the 18908
issuing authority or state agencies and required by the applicable 18909
bond proceedings, consistent with this section, to be deposited, 18910
transferred, or credited to a bond service fund or the economic 18911
development bond service fund, and all other moneys transferred or 18912
allocated to or received for the purposes of the fund, shall be 18913
deposited and credited to such fund and to any separate accounts 18914
therein, subject to applicable provisions of the bond proceedings, 18915
but without necessity for any act of appropriation. During the 18916
period beginning with the date of the first issuance of 18917
obligations and continuing during such time as any such 18918
obligations are outstanding, and so long as moneys in the 18919
pertinent bond service funds are insufficient to pay all bond 18920
services charges on such obligations becoming due in each year, a 18921
sufficient amount of the gross profit on the sale of spirituous 18922
liquor included in pledged receipts are committed and shall be 18923
paid to the bond service fund or economic development bond service 18924
fund in each year for the purpose of paying the bond service 18925
charges becoming due in that year without necessity for further 18926
act of appropriation for such purpose and notwithstanding anything 18927
to the contrary in Chapter 4301. of the Revised Code. The economic 18928
development bond service fund is a trust fund and is hereby 18929
pledged to the payment of bond service charges to the extent 18930
provided in the applicable bond proceedings, and payment thereof 18931
from such fund shall be made or provided for by the treasurer of 18932
state in accordance with such bond proceedings without necessity 18933
for any act of appropriation.18934

       (T) The obligations, the transfer thereof, and the income 18935
therefrom, including any profit made on the sale thereof, shall at 18936
all times be free from taxation within the state.18937

       Sec. 166.25. (A) The director of development services, with 18938
the approval of the controlling board and subject to the other 18939
applicable provisions of this chapter, may lend money in the 18940
logistics and distribution infrastructure fund and the logistics 18941
and distribution infrastructure taxable bond fund to persons for 18942
the purpose of paying allowable costs of eligible logistics and 18943
distribution projects.18944

       (B) In determining the eligible logistics and distribution 18945
projects to be assisted and the nature, amount, and terms of 18946
assistance to be provided for an eligible logistics and 18947
distribution project, the director shall consult with appropriate 18948
governmental agencies, including the department of transportation 18949
and the Ohio rail development commission.18950

       (C) Any loan made pursuant to this section shall be evidenced 18951
by a loan agreement, which shall contain such terms as the 18952
director determines necessary or appropriate, including 18953
performance measures and reporting requirements. The director may 18954
take actions necessary or appropriate to collect or otherwise deal 18955
with any loan made under this section, including requiring a loan 18956
recipient to repay the amount of the loan plus interest at a rate 18957
of three per cent above the federal short term interest rate or 18958
any other rate determined by the director.18959

       Sec. 167.03.  (A) The council shall have the power to:18960

       (1) Study such area governmental problems common to two or 18961
more members of the council as it deems appropriate, including but 18962
not limited to matters affecting health, safety, welfare, 18963
education, economic conditions, and regional development;18964

       (2) Promote cooperative arrangements and coordinate action 18965
among its members, and between its members and other agencies of 18966
local or state governments, whether or not within Ohio, and the 18967
federal government;18968

       (3) Make recommendations for review and action to the members 18969
and other public agencies that perform functions within the 18970
region;18971

       (4) Promote cooperative agreements and contracts among its 18972
members or other governmental agencies and private persons, 18973
corporations, or agencies;18974

       (5) Operate a public safety answering point in accordance 18975
with Chapter 5507128. of the Revised Code;18976

       (6) Perform planning directly by personnel of the council, or 18977
under contracts between the council and other public or private 18978
planning agencies.18979

       (B) The council may:18980

       (1) Review, evaluate, comment upon, and make recommendations, 18981
relative to the planning and programming, and the location, 18982
financing, and scheduling of public facility projects within the 18983
region and affecting the development of the area;18984

       (2) Act as an areawide agency to perform comprehensive 18985
planning for the programming, locating, financing, and scheduling 18986
of public facility projects within the region and affecting the 18987
development of the area and for other proposed land development or 18988
uses, which projects or uses have public metropolitan wide or 18989
interjurisdictional significance;18990

       (3) Act as an agency for coordinating, based on metropolitan 18991
wide comprehensive planning and programming, local public 18992
policies, and activities affecting the development of the region 18993
or area.18994

       (C) The council may, by appropriate action of the governing 18995
bodies of the members, perform such other functions and duties as 18996
are performed or capable of performance by the members and 18997
necessary or desirable for dealing with problems of mutual 18998
concern.18999

       (D) The authority granted to the council by this section or 19000
in any agreement by the members thereof shall not displace any 19001
existing municipal, county, regional, or other planning commission 19002
or planning agency in the exercise of its statutory powers.19003

       Sec. 169.02.  Subject to division (B) of section 169.01 of 19004
the Revised Code, the following constitute unclaimed funds:19005

       (A) Except as provided in division (R) of this section, any 19006
demand, savings, or matured time deposit account, or matured 19007
certificate of deposit, together with any interest or dividend on 19008
it, less any lawful claims, that is held or owed by a holder which 19009
is a financial organization, unclaimed for a period of five years;19010

       (B) Any funds paid toward the purchase of withdrawable shares 19011
or other interest in a financial organization, and any interest or 19012
dividends on them, less any lawful claims, that is held or owed by 19013
a holder which is a financial organization, unclaimed for a period 19014
of five years;19015

       (C) Except as provided in division (A) of section 3903.45 of 19016
the Revised Code, moneys held or owed by a holder, including a 19017
fraternal association, providing life insurance, including annuity 19018
or endowment coverage, unclaimed for three years after becoming 19019
payable as established from the records of such holder under any 19020
life or endowment insurance policy or annuity contract that has 19021
matured or terminated. An insurance policy, the proceeds of which 19022
are payable on the death of the insured, not matured by proof of 19023
death of the insured is deemed matured and the proceeds payable if 19024
such policy was in force when the insured attained the limiting 19025
age under the mortality table on which the reserve is based.19026

       Moneys otherwise payable according to the records of such 19027
holder are deemed payable although the policy or contract has not 19028
been surrendered as required.19029

       (D) Any deposit made to secure payment or any sum paid in 19030
advance for utility services of a public utility and any amount 19031
refundable from rates or charges collected by a public utility for 19032
utility services held or owed by a holder, less any lawful claims, 19033
that has remained unclaimed for one year after the termination of 19034
the services for which the deposit or advance payment was made or 19035
one year from the date the refund was payable, whichever is 19036
earlier;19037

       (E) Except as provided in division (R) of this section, any 19038
certificates, securities as defined in section 1707.01 of the 19039
Revised Code, nonwithdrawable shares, other instruments evidencing 19040
ownership, or rights to them or funds paid toward the purchase of 19041
them, or any dividend, capital credit, profit, distribution, 19042
interest, or payment on principal or other sum, held or owed by a 19043
holder, including funds deposited with a fiscal agent or fiduciary 19044
for payment of them, and instruments representing an ownership 19045
interest, unclaimed for five years. Any underlying share or other 19046
intangible instrument representing an ownership interest in a 19047
business association, in which the issuer has recorded on its 19048
books the issuance of the share but has been unable to deliver the 19049
certificate to the shareholder, constitutes unclaimed funds if 19050
such underlying share is unclaimed for five years. In addition, an 19051
underlying share constitutes unclaimed funds if a dividend, 19052
distribution, or other sum payable as a result of the underlying 19053
share has remained unclaimed by the owner for five years.19054

       This division shall not prejudice the rights of fiscal agents 19055
or fiduciaries for payment to return the items described in this 19056
division to their principals, according to the terms of an agency 19057
or fiduciary agreement, but such a return shall constitute the 19058
principal as the holder of the items and shall not interrupt the 19059
period for computing the time for which the items have remained 19060
unclaimed.19061

       In the case of any such funds accruing and held or owed by a 19062
corporation under division (E) of section 1701.24 of the Revised 19063
Code, such corporation shall comply with this chapter, subject to 19064
the limitation contained in section 1701.34 of the Revised Code. 19065
The period of time for which such funds have gone unclaimed 19066
specified in section 1701.34 of the Revised Code shall be 19067
computed, with respect to dividends or distributions, commencing 19068
as of the dates when such dividends or distributions would have 19069
been payable to the shareholder had such shareholder surrendered 19070
the certificates for cancellation and exchange by the date 19071
specified in the order relating to them.19072

       Capital credits of a cooperative which after January 1, 1972, 19073
have been allocated to members and which by agreement are 19074
expressly required to be paid if claimed after death of the owner 19075
are deemed payable, for the purpose of this chapter, fifteen years 19076
after either the termination of service by the cooperative to the 19077
owner or upon the nonactivity as provided in division (B) of 19078
section 169.01 of the Revised Code, whichever occurs later, 19079
provided that this provision does not apply if the payment is not 19080
mandatory.19081

       (F) Any sum payable on certified checks or other written 19082
instruments certified or issued and representing funds held or 19083
owed by a holder, less any lawful claims, that are unclaimed for 19084
five years from the date payable or from the date of issuance if 19085
payable on demand; except that the unclaimed period for money 19086
orders that are not third party bank checks is seven years, and 19087
the unclaimed period for traveler's checks is fifteen years, from 19088
the date payable or from the date of issuance if payable on 19089
demand.19090

       As used in this division, "written instruments" include, but 19091
are not limited to, certified checks, cashier's checks, bills of 19092
exchange, letters of credit, drafts, money orders, and traveler's 19093
checks.19094

       If there is no address of record for the owner or other 19095
person entitled to the funds, such address is presumed to be the 19096
address where the instrument was certified or issued.19097

       (G) Except as provided in division (R) of this section, all 19098
moneys, rights to moneys, or other intangible property, arising 19099
out of the business of engaging in the purchase or sale of 19100
securities, or otherwise dealing in intangibles, less any lawful 19101
claims, that are held or owed by a holder and are unclaimed for 19102
five years from the date of transaction.19103

       (H) Except as provided in division (A) of section 3903.45 of 19104
the Revised Code, all moneys, rights to moneys, and other 19105
intangible property distributable in the course of dissolution or 19106
liquidation of a holder that are unclaimed for one year after the 19107
date set by the holder for distribution;19108

       (I) All moneys, rights to moneys, or other intangible 19109
property removed from a safe-deposit box or other safekeeping 19110
repository located in this state or removed from a safe-deposit 19111
box or other safekeeping repository of a holder, on which the 19112
lease or rental period has expired, or any amount arising from the 19113
sale of such property, less any lawful claims, that are unclaimed 19114
for three years from the date on which the lease or rental period 19115
expired;19116

       (J) Subject to division (M)(2) of this section, all moneys, 19117
rights to moneys, or other intangible property, and any income or 19118
increment on them, held or owed by a holder which is a fiduciary 19119
for the benefit of another, or a fiduciary or custodian of a 19120
qualified retirement plan or individual retirement arrangement 19121
under section 401 or 408 of the Internal Revenue Code, unclaimed 19122
for three years after the final date for distribution;19123

       (K) All moneys, rights to moneys, or other intangible 19124
property held or owed in this state or held for or owed to an 19125
owner whose last known address is within this state, by the United 19126
States government or any state, as those terms are described in 19127
division (E) of section 169.01 of the Revised Code, unclaimed by 19128
the owner for three years, excluding any property in the control 19129
of any court in a proceeding in which a final adjudication has not 19130
been made;19131

       (L) Amounts payable pursuant to the terms of any policy of 19132
insurance, other than life insurance, or any refund available 19133
under such a policy, held or owed by any holder, unclaimed for 19134
three years from the date payable or distributable;19135

       (M)(1) Subject to division (M)(2) of this section, any funds 19136
constituting rents or lease payments due, any deposit made to 19137
secure payment of rents or leases, or any sum paid in advance for 19138
rents, leases, possible damage to property, unused services, 19139
performance requirements, or any other purpose, held or owed by a 19140
holder unclaimed for one year;19141

       (2) Any escrow funds, security deposits, or other moneys that 19142
are received by a licensed broker in a fiduciary capacity and 19143
that, pursuant to division (A)(26) of section 4735.18 of the 19144
Revised Code, are required to be deposited into and maintained in 19145
a special or trust, noninterest-bearing bank account separate and 19146
distinct from any personal or other account of the licensed 19147
broker, held or owed by the licensed broker unclaimed for two 19148
years.19149

       (N) Any sum greater than fifty dollars payable as wages, any 19150
sum payable as salaries or commissions, any sum payable for 19151
services rendered, funds owed or held as royalties, oil and 19152
mineral proceeds, funds held for or owed to suppliers, and moneys 19153
owed under pension and profit-sharing plans, held or owed by any 19154
holder unclaimed for one year from date payable or distributable, 19155
and all other credits held or owed, or to be refunded to a retail 19156
customer, by any holder unclaimed for three years from date 19157
payable or distributable;19158

       (O) Amounts held in respect of or represented by lay-aways 19159
sold after January 1, 1972, less any lawful claims, when such 19160
lay-aways are unclaimed for three years after the sale of them;19161

       (P) All moneys, rights to moneys, and other intangible 19162
property not otherwise constituted as unclaimed funds by this 19163
section, including any income or increment on them, less any 19164
lawful claims, which are held or owed by any holder, other than a 19165
holder which holds a permit issued pursuant to Chapter 3769. of 19166
the Revised Code, and which have remained unclaimed for three 19167
years after becoming payable or distributable;19168

       (Q) All moneys that arise out of a sale held pursuant to 19169
section 5322.03 of the Revised Code, that are held by a holder for 19170
delivery on demand to the appropriate person pursuant to division 19171
(I) of that section, and that are unclaimed for two years after 19172
the date of the sale.19173

       (R)(1) Any funds that are subject to an agreement between the 19174
holder and owner providing for automatic reinvestment and that 19175
constitute dividends, distributions, or other sums held or owed by 19176
a holder in connection with a security as defined in section 19177
1707.01 of the Revised Code, an ownership interest in an 19178
investment company registered under the "Investment Company Act of 19179
1940," 54 Stat. 789, 15 U.S.C. 80a-1, as amended, or a certificate 19180
of deposit, unclaimed for a period of five years.19181

       (2) The five-year period under division (R)(1) of this 19182
section commences from the date a second shareholder notification 19183
or communication mailing to the owner of the funds is returned to 19184
the holder as undeliverable by the United States postal service or 19185
other carrier. The notification or communication mailing by the 19186
holder shall be no less frequent than quarterly.19187

       All moneys in a personal allowance account, as defined by 19188
rules adopted by the medicaid director of job and family services, 19189
up to and including the maximum resource limitation, of a medicaid 19190
patientrecipient who has died after receiving care in a long-term 19191
care facility, and for whom there is no identifiable heir or 19192
sponsor, are not subject to this chapter.19193

       Sec. 169.05.  (A) Every holder required to file a report 19194
under section 169.03 of the Revised Code shall, at the time of 19195
filing, pay to the director of commerce ten per cent of the 19196
aggregate amount of unclaimed funds as shown on the report, except 19197
for aggregate amounts of fifty dollars or less in which case one 19198
hundred per cent shall be paid. The funds may be deposited by the 19199
director in the state treasury to the credit of the unclaimed 19200
funds trust fund, which is hereby created, or placed with a 19201
financial organization. Any interest earned on money in the trust 19202
fund shall be credited to the trust fund. The remainder of the 19203
aggregate amount of unclaimed funds as shown on the report, plus 19204
earnings accrued to date of payment to the director, shall, at the 19205
option of the director, be retained by the holder or paid to the 19206
director for deposit as agent for the mortgage funds with a 19207
financial organization as defined in section 169.01 of the Revised 19208
Code, with the funds to be in income-bearing accounts to the 19209
credit of the mortgage funds, or the holder may enter into an 19210
agreement with the director specifying the obligations of the 19211
United States in which funds are to be invested, and agree to pay 19212
the interest on the obligations to the state. Holders retaining 19213
any funds not in obligations of the United States shall enter into 19214
an agreement with the director specifying the classification of 19215
income-bearing account in which the funds will be held and pay the 19216
state interest on the funds at a rate equal to the prevailing 19217
market rate for similar funds. Moneys that the holder is required 19218
to pay to the director rather than to retain may be deposited with 19219
the treasurer of state, or placed with a financial organization.19220

       Securities and other intangible property transferred to the 19221
director shall, within a reasonable time, be converted to cash and 19222
the proceeds deposited as provided for other funds.19223

       One-half of the funds evidenced by agreements, in 19224
income-bearing accounts, or on deposit with the treasurer of state 19225
shall be allocated on the records of the director to the mortgage 19226
insurance fund created by section 122.561 of the Revised Code. Out 19227
of the remaining half, after allocation of sufficient moneys to 19228
the minority business bonding fund to meet the provisions of 19229
division (B) of this section, the remainder shall be allocated on 19230
the records of the director to the housing development fund 19231
created by division (A) of section 175.11 of the Revised Code.19232

       (B) The director shall serve as agent for the director of 19233
development and as agent for the Ohio housing finance agency in 19234
making deposits and withdrawals and maintaining records pertaining 19235
to the minority business bonding fund created by section 122.88 of 19236
the Revised Code, the mortgage insurance fund, and the housing 19237
development fund created by section 175.11 of the Revised Code. 19238
Funds from the mortgage insurance fund are available to the 19239
director of development when those funds are to be disbursed to 19240
prevent or cure, or upon the occurrence of, a default of a 19241
mortgage insured pursuant to section 122.451 of the Revised Code. 19242
Funds from the housing development fund are available upon request 19243
to the Ohio housing finance agency, in an amount not to exceed the 19244
funds allocated on the records of the director, for the purposes 19245
of section 175.05 of the Revised Code. Funds from the minority 19246
business bonding fund are available to the director of development 19247
upon request to pay obligations on bonds the director writes 19248
pursuant to section 122.88 of the Revised Code; except that, 19249
unless the general assembly authorizes additional amounts, the 19250
total maximum amount of moneys that may be allocated to the 19251
minority business bonding fund under this division is ten million 19252
dollars.19253

       When funds are to be disbursed, the appropriate agency shall 19254
call upon the director to transfer the necessary funds to it. The 19255
director shall first withdraw the funds paid by the holders and 19256
deposited with the treasurer of state or in a financial 19257
institution as agent for the funds. Whenever these funds are 19258
inadequate to meet the request, the director shall provide for a 19259
withdrawal of funds, within a reasonable time and in the amount 19260
necessary to meet the request, from financial institutions in 19261
which the funds were retained or placed by a holder and from other 19262
holders who have retained funds, in an equitable manner as the 19263
director prescribes. In the event that the amount to be withdrawn 19264
from any one holder is less than five hundred dollars, the amount 19265
to be withdrawn is at the director's discretion. The director 19266
shall then transfer to the agency the amount of funds requested.19267

       Funds deposited in the unclaimed funds trust fund are subject 19268
to call by the director when necessary to pay claims the director 19269
allows under section 169.08 of the Revised Code, in accordance 19270
with the director's rules, to defray the necessary costs of making 19271
publications this chapter requires and to pay other operating and 19272
administrative expenses the department of commerce incurs in the 19273
administration and enforcement of this chapter.19274

       The unclaimed funds trust fund shall be assessed a 19275
proportionate share of the administrative costs of the department 19276
of commerce in accordance with procedures the director of commerce 19277
prescribes and the director of budget and management approves. The 19278
assessment shall be paid from the unclaimed funds trust fund to 19279
the division of administration fund.19280

       (C) Earnings on the accounts in financial organizations to 19281
the credit of the mortgage funds shall, at the option of the 19282
financial organization, be credited to the accounts at times and 19283
at rates as earnings are paid on other accounts of the same 19284
classification held in the financial organization or paid to the 19285
director. The director shall be notified annually, and at other 19286
times as the director may request, of the amount of the earnings 19287
credited to the accounts. Interest on unclaimed funds a holder 19288
retains shall be paid to the director or credited as specified in 19289
the agreement under which the organization retains the funds. 19290
Interest payable to the director under an agreement to invest 19291
unclaimed funds andin income-bearing accounts or obligations of 19292
the United States shall be paid annually by the holder to the 19293
director. Any earnings or interest the director receives under 19294
this division shall be deposited in and credited to the mortgage 19295
funds.19296

       Sec. 169.07.  (A) Upon the payment of unclaimed funds to the 19297
director of commerce under section 169.05 of the Revised Code the 19298
holder will be relieved of further responsibility for the 19299
safe-keeping thereof and will be held harmless by the state from 19300
any and all liabilities for any claim arising out of the transfer 19301
of such funds to the state.19302

       (B) If legal proceedings are instituted against a holder 19303
which has paid unclaimed funds to the director or entered into an 19304
agreement as provided in section 169.05 of the Revised Code in 19305
respect to such funds, such holder shall notify the director in 19306
writing of the pendency of such proceedings and the director shall 19307
intervene and assume the defense of such proceedings. Failure to 19308
give such notice shall absolve the state from any and all 19309
liability which it may have with regard to such funds. If judgment 19310
is entered against such holder, the director shall, upon proof of 19311
satisfaction of such judgment, forthwith reimburse such 19312
organization for the amount of the judgment or enter into an 19313
agreement modified to reflect the satisfaction of such judgment, 19314
if the holder retained such funds, and shall reimburse such holder 19315
for any legal fees, costs and other expenses incurred in such 19316
proceedings in the manner provided for the payment of claims under 19317
divisiondivisions (D) and (E) of section 169.08 of the Revised 19318
Code.19319

       Sec. 169.08.  (A) The director shall pay to the owner or 19320
other person who has established the right to payment under this 19321
section, funds from the unclaimed funds trust fund in an amount 19322
equal to the amount of property delivered or reported to the 19323
director, or equal to the net proceeds if the securities or other 19324
property have been sold, together with interest earned by the 19325
state if required to be paid under division (D) of this section.19326
Any person claiming a property interest in unclaimed funds 19327
delivered or reported to the state under Chapter 169. of the 19328
Revised Code, including the office of child support in the 19329
department of job and family services, pursuant to section 3123.88 19330
of the Revised Code, may file a claim thereto on the form 19331
prescribed by the director of commerce.19332

       (B) The director shall consider matters relevant to any claim 19333
filed under division (A) of this section and shall hold a formal 19334
hearing if requested or considered necessary and receive evidence 19335
concerning such claim. A finding and decision in writing on each 19336
claim filed shall be prepared, stating the substance of any 19337
evidence received or heard and the reasons for allowance or 19338
disallowance of the claim. The evidence and decision shall be a 19339
public record. No statute of limitations shall bar the allowance 19340
of a claim.19341

       (C) For the purpose of conducting any hearing, the director 19342
may require the attendance of such witnesses and the production of 19343
such books, records, and papers as the director desires, and the 19344
director may take the depositions of witnesses residing within or 19345
without this state in the same manner as is prescribed by law for 19346
the taking of depositions in civil actions in the court of common 19347
pleas, and for that purpose the director may issue a subpoena for 19348
any witness or a subpoena duces tecum to compel the production of 19349
any books, records, or papers, directed to the sheriff of the 19350
county where such witness resides or is found, which shall be 19351
served and returned. The fees of the sheriff shall be the same as 19352
that allowed in the court of common pleas in criminal cases. 19353
Witnesses shall be paid the fees and mileage provided for under 19354
section 119.094 of the Revised Code. Fees and mileage shall be 19355
paid from the unclaimed funds trust fund.19356

       (D) Interest is notearned by the state shall be payable to 19357
claimants of unclaimed funds held by the state in accordance with 19358
final court orders derived from the Sogg v. Zurz, 121 Ohio St.3d 19359
449 (2009), line of cases and final settlement agreement 19360
determining payment of interest on unclaimed funds. For properties 19361
received by the state on or before July 26, 1991, interest shall 19362
be paid at a rate of six per cent per annum from the date the 19363
state received the property up to and including July 26, 1991. No 19364
interest shall be payable on any properties for the period from 19365
July 27, 1991, up to and including August 2, 2000. For properties 19366
held by the state on August 3, 2000, or after, interest shall be 19367
paid at the applicable required rate per annum for the period held 19368
from August 3, 2000, or the date of receipt, whichever is later, 19369
up to and including the date the claim is paid. Claims19370

       (E) Claims shall be paid from the trust fund. If the amount 19371
available in the trust fund is not sufficient to pay pending 19372
claims, or other amounts disbursable from the trust fund, the 19373
treasurer of state shall certify such fact to the director, who 19374
shall then withdraw such amount of funds from the mortgage 19375
accounts as the director determines necessary to reestablish the 19376
trust fund to a level required to pay anticipated claims but not 19377
more than ten per cent of the net unclaimed funds reported to 19378
date.19379

       The director may withdraw the funds paid to the director by 19380
the holders and deposited by the director with the treasurer of 19381
state or in a financial institution as agent for such funds. 19382
Whenever these funds are inadequate to meet the requirements for 19383
the trust fund, the director shall provide for a withdrawal of 19384
funds, within a reasonable time, in such amount as is necessary to 19385
meet the requirements, from financial institutions in which such 19386
funds were retained or placed by a holder and from other holders 19387
who have retained funds, in an equitable manner as prescribed by 19388
the director. In the event that the amount to be withdrawn from 19389
any one such holder is less than five hundred dollars, the amount 19390
to be withdrawn shall be at the discretion of the director. Such 19391
funds may be reimbursed in the amounts withdrawn when the trust 19392
fund has a surplus over the amount required to pay anticipated 19393
claims. Whenever the trust fund has a surplus over the amount 19394
required to pay anticipated claims, the director may transfer such 19395
surplus to the mortgage accounts.19396

       (E)(F) If a claim which is allowed under this section relates 19397
to funds which have been retained by the reporting holder, and if 19398
the funds, on deposit with the treasurer of state pursuant to this 19399
chapter, are insufficient to pay claims, the director may notify 19400
such holder in writing of the payment of the claim and such holder 19401
shall immediately reimburse the state in the amount of such claim. 19402
The reimbursement shall be credited to the unclaimed funds trust 19403
fund.19404

       (F)(G) Any person, including the office of child support, 19405
adversely affected by a decision of the director may appeal such 19406
decision in the manner provided in Chapter 119. of the Revised 19407
Code.19408

       In the event the claimant prevails, the claimant shall be 19409
reimbursed for reasonable attorney's fees and costs.19410

       (G)(H) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this 19411
chapter, any holder who has paid moneys to or entered into an 19412
agreement with the director pursuant to section 169.05 of the 19413
Revised Code on certified checks, cashiers' checks, bills of 19414
exchange, letters of credit, drafts, money orders, or travelers' 19415
checks, may make payment to any person entitled thereto, including 19416
the office of child support, and upon surrender of the document, 19417
except in the case of travelers' checks, and proof of such 19418
payment, the director shall reimburse the holder for such payment 19419
without interest.19420

       Sec. 173.03.  (A) There is hereby created the Ohio advisory 19421
council for the aging, which shall consist of twelve members to be 19422
appointed by the governor with the advice and consent of the 19423
senate. Two ex officio members of the council shall be members of 19424
the house of representatives appointed by the speaker of the house 19425
of representatives and shall be members of two different political 19426
parties. Two ex officio members of the council shall be members of 19427
the senate appointed by the president of the senate and shall be 19428
members of two different political parties. The medicaid director 19429
and directors of mental healthmental health and addiction 19430
services, developmental disabilities, health, and job and family 19431
services, or their designees, shall serve as ex officio members of 19432
the council. The council shall carry out its role as defined under 19433
the "Older Americans Act of 1965," 79 Stat. 219, 42 U.S.C. 3001, 19434
as amended.19435

       At the first meeting of the council, and annually thereafter, 19436
the members shall select one of their members to serve as 19437
chairperson and one of their members to serve as vice-chairperson.19438

       (B) Members of the council shall be appointed for a term of 19439
three years, except that for the first appointment members of the 19440
Ohio commission on aging who were serving on the commission 19441
immediately prior to July 26, 1984, shall become members of the 19442
council for the remainder of their unexpired terms. Thereafter, 19443
appointment to the council shall be for a three-year term by the 19444
governor. Each member shall hold office from the date of 19445
appointment until the end of the term for which the member was 19446
appointed. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior 19447
to the expiration of the term for which the member's predecessor 19448
was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of the term. No 19449
member shall continue in office subsequent to the expiration date 19450
of the member's term unless reappointed under the provisions of 19451
this section, and no member shall serve more than three 19452
consecutive terms on the council.19453

       (C) Membership of the council shall represent all areas of 19454
Ohio and shall be as follows:19455

       (1) A majority of members of the council shall have attained 19456
the age of sixtyfifty and have a knowledge of and continuing 19457
interest in the affairs and welfare of the older citizens of Ohio. 19458
The fields of business, labor, health, law, and human services 19459
shall be represented in the membership.19460

       (2) No more than seven members shall be of the same political 19461
party.19462

       (D) Any member of the council may be removed from office by 19463
the governor for neglect of duty, misconduct, or malfeasance in 19464
office after being informed in writing of the charges and afforded 19465
an opportunity for a hearing. Two consecutive unexcused absences 19466
from regularly scheduled meetings constitute neglect of duty.19467

       (E) The director of aging may reimburse a member for actual 19468
and necessary traveling and other expenses incurred in the 19469
discharge of official duties. But reimbursement shall be made in 19470
the manner and at rates that do not exceed those prescribed by the 19471
director of budget and management for any officer, member, or 19472
employee of, or consultant to, any state agency.19473

       (F) Council members are not limited as to the number of terms 19474
they may serve.19475

       (G)(1) The department of aging may award grants to or enter 19476
into contracts with a member of the advisory council or an entity 19477
that the member represents if any of the following apply:19478

       (a) The department determines that the member or the entity 19479
the member represents is capable of providing the goods or 19480
services specified under the terms of the grant or contract.19481

       (b) The member has not taken part in any discussion or vote 19482
of the council related to whether the council should recommend 19483
that the department of aging award the grant to or enter into the 19484
contract with the member of the advisory council or the entity 19485
that the member represents.19486

       (2) A member of the advisory council is not in violation of 19487
Chapter 102. or section 2921.42 of the Revised Code with regard to 19488
receiving a grant or entering into a contract under this section 19489
if the conditions of division (G)(1)(a) and (b) of this section 19490
have been met.19491

       Sec. 173.14.  As used in sections 173.14 to 173.27 of the 19492
Revised Code:19493

       (A)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(2) of 19494
this section, "long-term care facility" includes any residential 19495
facility that provides personal care services for more than 19496
twenty-four hours for one or more unrelated adults, including all 19497
of the following:19498

       (a) A "nursing home," "residential care facility," or "home 19499
for the aging" as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;19500

       (b) A facility authorized to provide extended care services 19501
under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 19502
(1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, including a long-term acute 19503
care hospital that provides medical and rehabilitative care to 19504
patients who require an average length of stay greater than 19505
twenty-five days and is classified by the centers for medicare and 19506
medicaid services as a long-term care hospital pursuant to 42 19507
C.F.R. 412.23(e);19508

       (c) A county home or district home operated pursuant to 19509
Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;19510

       (d) A residential facility licensed under section 5119.2219511
5119.34 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 19512
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 19513
unrelated adults or accommodations and personal care services for 19514
only one or two adults who are recipients under thereceiving19515
residential state supplement program;19516

       (e) A facility approved by the veterans administration under 19517
section 104(a) of the "Veterans Health Care Amendments of 1983," 19518
97 Stat. 993, 38 U.S.C. 630, as amended, and used exclusively for 19519
the placement and care of veterans.19520

       (2) "Long-term care facility" does not include a residential 19521
facility licensed under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code.19522

       (B) "Resident" means a resident of a long-term care facility 19523
and, where appropriate, includes a prospective, previous, or 19524
deceased resident of a long-term care facility.19525

       (C) "Community-based long-term care services" means health 19526
and social services provided to persons in their own homes or in 19527
community care settings, and includes any of the following:19528

       (1) Case management;19529

       (2) Home health care;19530

       (3) Homemaker services;19531

       (4) Chore services;19532

       (5) Respite care;19533

       (6) Adult day care;19534

       (7) Home-delivered meals;19535

       (8) Personal care;19536

       (9) Physical, occupational, and speech therapy;19537

       (10) Transportation;19538

       (11) Any other health and social services provided to persons 19539
that allow them to retain their independence in their own homes or 19540
in community care settings.19541

       (D) "Recipient" means a recipient of community-based 19542
long-term care services and, where appropriate, includes a 19543
prospective, previous, or deceased recipient of community-based 19544
long-term care services.19545

       (E) "Sponsor" means an adult relative, friend, or guardian 19546
who has an interest in or responsibility for the welfare of a 19547
resident or a recipient.19548

       (F) "Personal care services" has the same meaning as in 19549
section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.19550

       (G) "Regional long-term care ombudspersonombudsman program" 19551
means an entity, either public or private and nonprofit, 19552
designated as a regional long-term care ombudspersonombudsman19553
program by the state long-term care ombudspersonombudsman.19554

       (H) "Representative of the office of the state long-term care 19555
ombudspersonombudsman program" means the state long-term care 19556
ombudspersonombudsman or a member of the ombudsperson's19557
ombudsman's staff, or a person certified as a representative of 19558
the office under section 173.21 of the Revised Code.19559

       (I) "Area agency on aging" means an area agency on aging 19560
established under the "Older Americans Act of 1965," 79 Stat. 219, 19561
42 U.S.C.A. 3001, as amended.19562

       Sec. 173.17.  (A) The state long-term care ombudsperson19563
ombudsman shall do all of the following:19564

       (1) Appoint a staff and direct and administer the work of the 19565
staff;19566

       (2) Supervise the nursing home investigative unit established 19567
under division (I) of section 173.01 of the Revised Code;19568

       (3) Oversee the performance and operation of the office of 19569
the state long-term care ombudspersonombudsman program, including 19570
the operation of regional long-term care ombudspersonombudsman19571
programs;19572

       (4) Establish and maintain a statewide uniform reporting 19573
system to collect and analyze information relating to complaints 19574
and conditions in long-term care facilities and complaints 19575
regarding the provision of community-based long-term care services 19576
for the purpose of identifying and resolving significant problems;19577

       (5) Provide for public forums to discuss concerns and 19578
problems relating to action, inaction, or decisions that may 19579
adversely affect the health, safety, welfare, or rights of 19580
residents and recipients of services by providers of long-term 19581
care and their representatives, public agencies and entities, and 19582
social service agencies. This may include any of the following: 19583
conducting public hearings; sponsoring workshops and conferences; 19584
holding meetings for the purpose of obtaining information about 19585
residents and recipients, discussing and publicizing their needs, 19586
and advocating solutions to their problems; and promoting the 19587
development of citizen organizations.19588

       (6) Encourage, cooperate with, and assist in the development 19589
and operation of services to provide current, objective, and 19590
verified information about long-term care;19591

       (7) Develop and implement, with the assistance of regional 19592
programs, a continuing program to publicize, through the media and 19593
civic organizations, the office, its purposes, and its methods of 19594
operation;19595

       (8) Maintain written descriptions of the duties and 19596
qualifications of representatives of the office;19597

       (9) Evaluate and make known concerns and issues regarding 19598
long-term care by doing all of the following:19599

       (a) Preparing an annual report containing information and 19600
findings regarding the types of problems experienced by residents 19601
and recipients and the complaints made by or on behalf of 19602
residents and recipients. The report shall include recommendations 19603
for policy, regulatory, and legislative changes to solve problems, 19604
resolve complaints, and improve the quality of care and life for 19605
residents and recipients and shall be submitted to the governor, 19606
the speaker of the house of representatives, the president of the 19607
senate, the directors of health and of job and family services, 19608
and the commissioner of the administration on aging of the United 19609
States department of health and human services.19610

       (b) Monitoring and analyzing the development and 19611
implementation of federal, state, and local laws, rules, and 19612
policies regarding long-term care services in this state and 19613
recommending to officials changes the office considers appropriate 19614
in these laws, rules, and policies;19615

       (c) Providing information and making recommendations to 19616
public agencies, members of the general assembly, and others 19617
regarding problems and concerns of residents and recipients.19618

       (10) Conduct training for employees and volunteers on19619
ombudsperson'sombudsman's staff and for representatives of the 19620
office employed by regional programs;19621

       (11) Monitor the training of representatives of the office 19622
who provide volunteer services to regional programs, and provide 19623
technical assistance to the regional programs in conducting the 19624
training;19625

       (12) Issue certificates attesting to the successful 19626
completion of training and specifying the level of responsibility 19627
for which a representative of the office who has completed 19628
training is qualified;19629

       (13) Register as a residents' rights advocate with the 19630
department of health under division (B) of section 3701.07 of the 19631
Revised Code;19632

       (14) Perform other duties specified by the department of 19633
aging.19634

       (B) The state ombudspersonombudsman may delegate any of the 19635
ombudsperson'sombudsman's authority or duties under sections 19636
173.14 to 173.26 of the Revised Code to any member of the 19637
ombudsperson'sombudsman's staff. The state ombudspersonombudsman19638
is responsible for any authority or duties the ombudsperson19639
ombudsman delegates.19640

       Sec. 173.19.  (A) The office of the state long-term care19641
ombudspersonombudsman program, through the state long-term care19642
ombudspersonombudsman and the regional long-term care 19643
ombudspersonombudsman programs, shall receive, investigate, and 19644
attempt to resolve complaints made by residents, recipients, 19645
sponsors, providers of long-term care, or any person acting on 19646
behalf of a resident or recipient, relating to either of the 19647
following:19648

       (1) The health, safety, welfare, or civil rights of a 19649
resident or recipient or any violation of a resident's rights 19650
described in sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code;19651

       (2) Any action or inaction or decision by a provider of 19652
long-term care or representative of a provider, a governmental 19653
entity, or a private social service agency that may adversely 19654
affect the health, safety, welfare, or rights of a resident or 19655
recipient.19656

       (B) The department of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 19657
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code regarding the handling of 19658
complaints received under this section, including procedures for 19659
conducting investigations of complaints. The rules shall include 19660
procedures to ensure that no representative of the office 19661
investigates any complaint involving a provider of long-term care 19662
with which the representative was once employed or associated.19663

       The state ombudspersonombudsman and regional programs shall 19664
establish procedures for handling complaints consistent with the 19665
department's rules. Complaints shall be dealt with in accordance 19666
with the procedures established under this division.19667

       (C) The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson19668
ombudsman program may decline to investigate any complaint if it 19669
determines any of the following:19670

       (1) That the complaint is frivolous, vexatious, or not made 19671
in good faith;19672

       (2) That the complaint was made so long after the occurrence 19673
of the incident on which it is based that it is no longer 19674
reasonable to conduct an investigation;19675

       (3) That an adequate investigation cannot be conducted 19676
because of insufficient funds, insufficient staff, lack of staff 19677
expertise, or any other reasonable factor that would result in an 19678
inadequate investigation despite a good faith effort;19679

       (4) That an investigation by the office would create a real 19680
or apparent conflict of interest.19681

       (D) If a regional long-term care ombudspersonombudsman19682
program declines to investigate a complaint, it shall refer the 19683
complaint to the state long-term care ombudspersonombudsman.19684

       (E) Each complaint to be investigated by a regional program 19685
shall be assigned to a representative of the office of the state 19686
long-term care ombudspersonombudsman program. If the 19687
representative determines that the complaint is valid, the 19688
representative shall assist the parties in attempting to resolve 19689
it. If the representative is unable to resolve it, the 19690
representative shall refer the complaint to the state ombudsperson19691
ombudsman.19692

       In order to carry out the duties of sections 173.14 to 173.26 19693
of the Revised Code, a representative has the right to private 19694
communication with residents and their sponsors and access to 19695
long-term care facilities, including the right to tour resident 19696
areas unescorted and the right to tour facilities unescorted as 19697
reasonably necessary to the investigation of a complaint. Access 19698
to facilities shall be during reasonable hours or, during 19699
investigation of a complaint, at other times appropriate to the 19700
complaint.19701

       When community-based long-term care services are provided at 19702
a location other than the recipient's home, a representative has 19703
the right to private communication with the recipient and the 19704
recipient's sponsors and access to the community-based long-term 19705
care site, including the right to tour the site unescorted. Access 19706
to the site shall be during reasonable hours or, during the 19707
investigation of a complaint, at other times appropriate to the 19708
complaint.19709

       (F) The state ombudspersonombudsman shall determine whether 19710
complaints referred to the ombudspersonombudsman under division 19711
(D) or (E) of this section warrant investigation. The 19712
ombudsperson'sombudsman's determination in this matter is final.19713

       Sec. 173.20.  (A) If consent is given and unless otherwise 19714
prohibited by law, a representative of the office of the state 19715
long-term care ombudsman program shall have access to any records, 19716
including medical records, of a resident or a recipient that are 19717
reasonably necessary for investigation of a complaint. Consent may 19718
be given in any of the following ways:19719

       (1) In writing by the resident or recipient;19720

       (2) Orally by the resident or recipient, witnessed in writing 19721
at the time it is given by one other person, and, if the records 19722
involved are being maintained by a long-term care provider, also 19723
by an employee of the long-term care provider designated under 19724
division (E)(1) of this section;19725

       (3) In writing by the guardian of the resident or recipient;19726

       (4) In writing by the attorney in fact of the resident or 19727
recipient, if the resident or recipient has authorized the 19728
attorney in fact to give such consent;19729

       (5) In writing by the executor or administrator of the estate 19730
of a deceased resident or recipient.19731

       (B) If consent to access to records is not refused by a 19732
resident or recipient or histhe resident's or recipient's legal 19733
representative but cannot be obtained and any of the following 19734
circumstances exist, a representative of the office of the state 19735
long-term care ombudsman program, on approval of the state 19736
long-term care ombudsman, may inspect the records of a resident or 19737
a recipient, including medical records, that are reasonably 19738
necessary for investigation of a complaint:19739

       (1) The resident or recipient is unable to express written or 19740
oral consent and there is no guardian or attorney in fact;19741

       (2) There is a guardian or attorney in fact, but hethe 19742
guardian or attorney in fact cannot be contacted within three 19743
working days;19744

       (3) There is a guardianship or durable power of attorney, but 19745
its existence is unknown by the long-term care provider and the 19746
representative of the office at the time of the investigation;19747

       (4) There is no executor or administrator of the estate of a 19748
deceased resident or recipient.19749

       (C) If a representative of the office of the state long-term 19750
care ombudsman program has been refused access to records by a 19751
guardian or attorney in fact, but has reasonable cause to believe 19752
that the guardian or attorney in fact is not acting in the best 19753
interests of the resident or recipient, the representative may, on 19754
approval of the state long-term care ombudsman, inspect the 19755
records of the resident or recipient, including medical records, 19756
that are reasonably necessary for investigation of a complaint.19757

       (D) A representative of the office of the state long-term 19758
care ombudsman program shall have access to any records of a 19759
long-term care provider reasonably necessary to an investigation 19760
conducted under this section, including but not limited to: 19761
incident reports, dietary records, policies and procedures of a 19762
facility required to be maintained under section 5111.215165.0619763
of the Revised Code, admission agreements, staffing schedules, any 19764
document depicting the actual staffing pattern of the provider, 19765
any financial records that are matters of public record, resident 19766
council and grievance committee minutes, and any waiting list 19767
maintained by a facility in accordance with section 5111.3119768
5165.08 of the Revised Code, or any similar records or lists 19769
maintained by a provider of community-based long-term care 19770
services. Pursuant to division (E)(2) of this section, a 19771
representative shall be permitted to make or obtain copies of any 19772
of these records after giving the long-term care provider 19773
twenty-four hours' notice. A long-term care provider may impose a 19774
charge for providing copies of records under this division that 19775
does not exceed the actual and necessary expense of making the 19776
copies.19777

       The state ombudsman shall take whatever action is necessary 19778
to ensure that any copy of a record made or obtained under this 19779
division is returned to the long-term care provider no later than 19780
three years after the date the investigation for which the copy 19781
was made or obtained is completed.19782

       (E)(1) Each long-term care provider shall designate one or 19783
more of its employees to be responsible for witnessing the giving 19784
of oral consent under division (A) of this section. In the event 19785
that a designated employee is not available when a resident or 19786
recipient attempts to give oral consent, the provider shall 19787
designate another employee to witness the consent.19788

       (2) Each long-term care provider shall designate one or more 19789
of its employees to be responsible for releasing records for 19790
copying to representatives of the office of the long-term care 19791
ombudsman program who request permission to make or obtain copies 19792
of records specified in division (D) of this section. In the event 19793
that a designated employee is not available when a representative 19794
of the office makes the request, the long-term care provider shall 19795
designate another employee to release the records for copying.19796

       (F) A long-term care provider or any employee of such a 19797
provider is immune from civil or criminal liability or action 19798
taken pursuant to a professional disciplinary procedure for the 19799
release or disclosure of records to a representative of the office 19800
pursuant to this section.19801

       (G) A state or local government agency or entity with records 19802
relevant to a complaint or investigation being conducted by a 19803
representative of the office shall provide the representative 19804
access to the records.19805

       (H) The state ombudsman, with the approval of the director of 19806
aging, may issue a subpoena to compel any person hethe ombudsman19807
reasonably believes may be able to provide information to appear 19808
before himthe ombudsman or histhe ombudsman's designee and give 19809
sworn testimony and to produce documents, books, records, papers, 19810
or other evidence the state ombudsman believes is relevant to the 19811
investigation. On the refusal of a witness to be sworn or to 19812
answer any question put to himthe witness, or if a person 19813
disobeys a subpoena, the ombudsman shall apply to the Franklin 19814
county court of common pleas for a contempt order, as in the case 19815
of disobedience of the requirements of a subpoena issued from the 19816
court, or a refusal to testify in the court.19817

       (I) The state ombudsman may petition the court of common 19818
pleas in the county in which a long-term care facility is located 19819
to issue an injunction against any long-term care facility in 19820
violation of sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code.19821

       (J) Any suspected violation of Chapter 3721. of the Revised 19822
Code discovered during the course of an investigation may be 19823
reported to the department of health. Any suspected criminal 19824
violation discovered during the course of an investigation shall 19825
be reported to the attorney general or other appropriate law 19826
enforcement authorities.19827

       (K) The department of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 19828
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for referral by the state 19829
ombudsman and regional long-term care ombudsman programs of 19830
complaints to other public agencies or entities. A public agency 19831
or entity to which a complaint is referred shall keep the state 19832
ombudsman or regional program handling the complaint advised and 19833
notified in writing in a timely manner of the disposition of the 19834
complaint to the extent permitted by law.19835

       Sec. 173.21.  (A) The office of the state long-term care 19836
ombudspersonombudsman program, through the state long-term care 19837
ombudspersonombudsman and the regional long-term care 19838
ombudspersonombudsman programs, shall require each representative 19839
of the office to complete a training and certification program in 19840
accordance with this section and to meet the continuing education 19841
requirements established under this section.19842

       (B) The department of aging shall adopt rules under Chapter 19843
119. of the Revised Code specifying the content of training 19844
programs for representatives of the office of the state long-term 19845
care ombudspersonombudsman program. Training for representatives 19846
other than those who are volunteers providing services through 19847
regional long-term care ombudspersonombudsman programs shall 19848
include instruction regarding federal, state, and local laws, 19849
rules, and policies on long-term care facilities and 19850
community-based long-term care services; investigative techniques; 19851
and other topics considered relevant by the department and shall 19852
consist of the following:19853

       (1) A minimum of forty clock hours of basic instruction, 19854
which shall be completed before the trainee is permitted to handle 19855
complaints without the supervision of a representative of the 19856
office certified under this section;19857

       (2) An additional sixty clock hours of instruction, which 19858
shall be completed within the first fifteen months of employment;19859

       (3) An internship of twenty clock hours, which shall be 19860
completed within the first twenty-four months of employment, 19861
including instruction in, and observation of, basic nursing care 19862
and long-term care provider operations and procedures. The 19863
internship shall be performed at a site that has been approved as 19864
an internship site by the state long-term care ombudsperson19865
ombudsman.19866

       (4) One of the following, which shall be completed within the 19867
first twenty-four months of employment:19868

       (a) Observation of a survey conducted by the director of 19869
health to certify a nursing facility to receive funds under 19870
sections 5111.20 to 5111.32 of the Revised Codeparticipate in the 19871
medicaid program;19872

       (b) Observation of an inspection conducted by the director of 19873
mental healthmental health and addiction services to license a 19874
residential facility under section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised 19875
Code that provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care 19876
services for three to sixteen unrelated adults.19877

       (5) Any other training considered appropriate by the 19878
department.19879

       (C) PersonsAny person who for a period of at least six 19880
months prior to June 11, 1990, served as ombudsmenan ombudsman19881
through the long-term care ombudspersonombudsman program 19882
established by the department of aging under division (M) of 19883
section 173.01 of the Revised Code shall not be required to 19884
complete a training program. These personsSuch a person and 19885
persons who complete a training program shall take an examination 19886
administered by the department of aging. On attainment of a 19887
passing score, the person shall be certified by the department as 19888
a representative of the office. The department shall issue the 19889
person an identification card, which the representative shall show 19890
at the request of any person with whom the representative deals 19891
while performing the representative's duties and which shall be 19892
surrendered at the time the representative separates from the 19893
office.19894

       (D) The state ombudspersonombudsman and each regional 19895
program shall conduct training programs for volunteers on their 19896
respective staffs in accordance with the rules of the department 19897
of aging adopted under division (B) of this section. Training 19898
programs may be conducted that train volunteers to complete some, 19899
but not all, of the duties of a representative of the office. Each 19900
regional office shall bear the cost of training its 19901
representatives who are volunteers. On completion of a training 19902
program, the representative shall take an examination administered 19903
by the department of aging. On attainment of a passing score, a 19904
volunteer shall be certified by the department as a representative 19905
authorized to perform services specified in the certification. The 19906
department shall issue an identification card, which the 19907
representative shall show at the request of any person with whom 19908
the representative deals while performing the representative's 19909
duties and which shall be surrendered at the time the 19910
representative separates from the office. Except as a supervised 19911
part of a training program, no volunteer shall perform any duty 19912
unless he is certified as a representative having received 19913
appropriate training for that duty.19914

       (E) The state ombudspersonombudsman shall provide technical 19915
assistance to regional programs conducting training programs for 19916
volunteers and shall monitor the training programs.19917

       (F) Prior to scheduling an observation of a certification 19918
survey or licensing inspection for purposes of division (B)(4) of 19919
this section, the state ombudspersonombudsman shall obtain 19920
permission to have the survey or inspection observed from both the 19921
director of health and the long-term care facility at which the 19922
survey or inspection is to take place.19923

       (G) The department of aging shall establish continuing 19924
education requirements for representatives of the office.19925

       Sec. 173.23.  (A) Representatives of the office of the state 19926
long-term care ombudspersonombudsman program are immune from 19927
civil or criminal liability for any action taken in the good faith 19928
performance of their official duties under sections 173.14 to 19929
173.26 of the Revised Code. 19930

       (B) A person acting in good faith is immune from civil or 19931
criminal liability incident to any of the following: providing 19932
information to the office, participating in registration of a 19933
complaint with the office, participating in investigation of a 19934
complaint by the office, or participating in an administrative or 19935
judicial proceeding resulting from a complaint.19936

       (C) No person shall knowingly register a false complaint with 19937
the office, or knowingly swear or affirm the truth of a false 19938
complaint previously registered, when the statement is made with 19939
purpose to incriminate another.19940

       (D) The attorney general shall provide legal counsel to the 19941
office of the state long-term care ombudspersonombudsman program 19942
and to the regional long-term care ombudspersonombudsman19943
programs. The attorney general shall represent any representative 19944
of the office and any representative of a regional program against 19945
whom any legal action is brought in connection with the 19946
representative's official duties under sections 173.14 to 173.26 19947
of the Revised Code.19948

       Sec. 173.25.  The office of the state long-term care19949
ombudspersonombudsman program shall, in carrying out the 19950
provisions and purposes of sections 173.14 to 173.26 of the 19951
Revised Code, advise, consult, and cooperate with any agency, 19952
program, or other entity related to the purposes of the office. 19953
Any agency, program, or other entity related to the purposes of 19954
the office shall advise, consult, and cooperate with the office.19955

       The office shall attempt to establish effective coordination 19956
with government-sponsored programs that provide legal services to 19957
the elderly and with protective and advocacy programs for 19958
individuals with developmental disabilities, mental retardation, 19959
or mental illness.19960

       Sec. 173.26.  (A) Each of the following facilities shall 19961
annually pay to the department of aging six dollars for each bed 19962
maintained by the facility for use by a residentwas licensed or 19963
otherwise authorized to maintain during any part of the previous 19964
year:19965

       (1) Nursing homes,and residential care facilities, and homes 19966
for the aging as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;19967

       (2) Facilities authorized to provide extended care services 19968
under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 19969
(1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, including a long-term acute 19970
care hospital that provides medical and rehabilitative care to 19971
patients who require an average length of stay greater than 19972
twenty-five days and is classified by the centers for medicare and 19973
medicaid services as a long-term care hospital pursuant to 42 19974
C.F.R. 412.23(e);19975

       (3) County homes and district homes operated pursuant to 19976
Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;19977

       (4) Residential facilities licensed under section 5119.2219978
5119.34 of the Revised Code that provide accommodations, 19979
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 19980
unrelated adults;19981

       (5) Facilities approved by the Veterans Administration under 19982
Section 104(a) of the "Veterans Health Care Amendments of 1983," 19983
97 Stat. 993, 38 U.S.C. 630, as amended, and used exclusively for 19984
the placement and care of veterans.19985

       The department shall, by rule adopted in accordance with 19986
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, establish deadlines for payments 19987
required by this section. A facility that fails, within ninety 19988
days after the established deadline, to pay a payment required by 19989
this section shall be assessed at two times the original invoiced 19990
payment.19991

       (B) All money collected under this section shall be deposited 19992
in the state treasury to the credit of the office of the state 19993
long-term care ombudspersonombudsman program fund, which is 19994
hereby created. Money credited to the fund shall be used solely to 19995
pay the costs of operating the regional long-term care 19996
ombudspersonombudsman programs.19997

       (C) The state long-term care ombudspersonombudsman and the 19998
regional programs may solicit and receive contributions to support 19999
the operation of the office or a regional program, except that no 20000
contribution shall be solicited or accepted that would interfere 20001
with the independence or objectivity of the office or program.20002

       Sec. 173.27.  (A) As used in this section:20003

       (1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 20004
consideration for employment with the office of the state 20005
long-term care ombudsperson programby a responsible party in a 20006
full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves 20007
providing ombudspersonombudsman services to residents and 20008
recipients. "Applicant" includes a person who is under final 20009
consideration for employment as the state long-term care 20010
ombudspersonombudsman or the head of a regional long-term care 20011
ombudspersonombudsman program. "Applicant" does not include a 20012
person seeking to provide ombudspersonombudsman services to 20013
residents and recipients as a volunteer without receiving or 20014
expecting to receive any form of remuneration other than 20015
reimbursement for actual expenses.20016

       (2) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 20017
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.20018

       (3) "Disqualifying offense" means any of the offenses listed 20019
or described in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (e) of section 109.572 of 20020
the Revised Code.20021

       (4) "Employee" means a person employed by the office of the 20022
state long-term care ombudsperson programa responsible party in a 20023
full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves 20024
providing ombudspersonombudsman services to residents and 20025
recipients. "Employee" includes the person employed as the state 20026
long-term care ombudspersonombudsman and a person employed as the 20027
head of a regional long-term care ombudspersonombudsman program. 20028
"Employee" does not include a person who provides ombudsperson20029
ombudsman services to residents and recipients as a volunteer 20030
without receiving or expecting to receive any form of remuneration 20031
other than reimbursement for actual expenses.20032

       (5) "Responsible entityparty" means the following:20033

       (a) In the case of an applicant who is under final 20034
consideration for employment as the state long-term care 20035
ombudspersonombudsman or the person employed as the state 20036
long-term care ombudspersonombudsman, the director of aging;20037

       (b) In the case of any other applicant who is under final 20038
consideration for employment with the state long-term care 20039
ombudsman program or any other employee of the state long-term 20040
care ombudsman program, the state long-term care ombudsperson or 20041
the ombudsperson's designeeombudsman;20042

        (c) In the case of an applicant who is under final 20043
consideration for employment with a regional long-term care 20044
ombudsman program (including as the head of the regional program) 20045
or an employee of a regional long-term care ombudsman program 20046
(including the head of a regional program), the regional long-term 20047
care ombudsman program.20048

       (B) The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson 20049
programA responsible party may not employ an applicant or 20050
continue to employ an employee in a position that involves 20051
providing ombudspersonombudsman services to residents and 20052
recipients if any of the following apply:20053

       (1) A review of the databases listed in division (D) of this 20054
section reveals any of the following:20055

       (a) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 20056
of the databases listed in divisions (D)(1) to (5) of this 20057
section;20058

       (b) That there is in the state nurse aide registry 20059
established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code a statement 20060
detailing findings by the director of health that the applicant or 20061
employee neglected or abused a long-term care facility or 20062
residential care facility resident or misappropriated property of 20063
such a resident;20064

       (c) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 20065
of the databases, if any, specified in rules adopted under this 20066
section and the rules prohibit the officeresponsible party from 20067
employing an applicant or continuing to employ an employee 20068
included in such a database in a position that involves providing 20069
ombudspersonombudsman services to residents and recipients.20070

       (2) After the applicant or employee is provided, pursuant to 20071
division (E)(2)(a) of this section, a copy of the form prescribed 20072
pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 20073
and the standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division 20074
(C)(2) of that section, the applicant or employee fails to 20075
complete the form or provide the applicant's or employee's 20076
fingerprint impressions on the standard impression sheet.20077

       (3) Except as providedUnless the applicant or employee meets 20078
standards specified in rules adopted under this section, the 20079
applicant or employee is found by a criminal records check 20080
required by this section to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty 20081
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 20082
for a disqualifying offense.20083

       (C) TheA responsible entityparty or a responsible party's 20084
designee shall inform each applicant of both of the following at 20085
the time of the applicant's initial application for employment in 20086
a position that involves providing ombudspersonombudsman services 20087
to residents and recipients:20088

       (1) That a review of the databases listed in division (D) of 20089
this section will be conducted to determine whether the office of 20090
the state long-term care ombudsperson programresponsible party is 20091
prohibited by division (B)(1) of this section from employing the 20092
applicant in the position;20093

       (2) That, unless the database review reveals that the 20094
applicant may not be employed in the position, a criminal records 20095
check of the applicant will be conducted and the applicant is 20096
required to provide a set of the applicant's fingerprint 20097
impressions as part of the criminal records check.20098

       (D) As a condition of any applicant's being employed by the 20099
office of the state long-term care ombudsperson programa 20100
responsible party in a position that involves providing 20101
ombudspersonombudsman services to residents and recipients, the 20102
responsible entityparty or designee shall conduct a database 20103
review of the applicant in accordance with rules adopted under 20104
this section. If rules adopted under this section so require, the 20105
responsible entityparty or designee shall conduct a database 20106
review of an employee in accordance with the rules as a condition 20107
of the office'sresponsible party continuing to employ the 20108
employee in a position that involves providing ombudsperson20109
ombudsman services to residents and recipients. A database review 20110
shall determine whether the applicant or employee is included in 20111
any of the following:20112

       (1) The excluded parties list system that is maintained by 20113
the United States general services administration pursuant to 20114
subpart 9.4 of the federal acquisition regulation and available at 20115
the federal web site known as the system for award management;20116

       (2) The list of excluded individuals and entities maintained 20117
by the office of inspector general in the United States department 20118
of health and human services pursuant to section 1128 of the 20119
"Social Security Act," 94 Stat. 2619 (1980), 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7, as 20120
amended, and section 1156 of the "Social Security Act," 96 Stat. 20121
388 (1982), 42 U.S.C. 1320c-5, as amended;20122

       (3) The registry of MR/DD employees established under section 20123
5123.52 of the Revised Code;20124

       (4) The internet-based sex offender and child-victim offender 20125
database established under division (A)(11) of section 2950.13 of 20126
the Revised Code;20127

       (5) The internet-based database of inmates established under 20128
section 5120.66 of the Revised Code;20129

       (6) The state nurse aide registry established under section 20130
3721.32 of the Revised Code;20131

       (7) Any other database, if any, specified in rules adopted 20132
under this section.20133

       (E)(1) As a condition of any applicant's being employed by 20134
the office of the state long-term care ombudsperson programa 20135
responsible party in a position that involves providing 20136
ombudspersonombudsman services to residents and recipients, the 20137
responsible entityparty or designee shall request that the 20138
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 20139
investigation conduct a criminal records check of the applicant. 20140
If rules adopted under this section so require, the responsible 20141
entityparty or designee shall request that the superintendent 20142
conduct a criminal records check of an employee at times specified 20143
in the rules as a condition of the office'sresponsible party20144
continuing to employ the employee in a position that involves 20145
providing ombudspersonombudsman services to residents and 20146
recipients. However, the responsible entityparty or designee is 20147
not required to request the criminal records check of the 20148
applicant or employee if the officeresponsible party is 20149
prohibited by division (B)(1) of this section from employing the 20150
applicant or continuing to employ the employee in a position that 20151
involves providing ombudspersonombudsman services to residents 20152
and recipients. If an applicant or employee for whom a criminal 20153
records check request is required by this section does not present 20154
proof of having been a resident of this state for the five-year 20155
period immediately prior to the date the criminal records check is 20156
requested or provide evidence that within that five-year period 20157
the superintendent has requested information about the applicant 20158
or employee from the federal bureau of investigation in a criminal 20159
records check, the responsible entityparty or designee shall 20160
request that the superintendent obtain information from the 20161
federal bureau of investigation as part of the criminal records 20162
check. Even if an applicant or employee for whom a criminal 20163
records check request is required by this section presents proof 20164
of having been a resident of this state for the five-year period, 20165
the responsible entityparty or designee may request that the 20166
superintendent include information from the federal bureau of 20167
investigation in the criminal records check.20168

       (2) TheA responsible entityparty or designee shall do all 20169
of the following:20170

       (a) Provide to each applicant and employee for whom a 20171
criminal records check request is required by this section a copy 20172
of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 20173
109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard impression sheet 20174
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section;20175

       (b) Obtain the completed form and standard impression sheet 20176
from the applicant or employee;20177

       (c) Forward the completed form and standard impression sheet 20178
to the superintendent. 20179

       (3) The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson 20180
programA responsible party shall pay to the bureau of criminal 20181
identification and investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to 20182
division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each 20183
criminal records check the responsible entityparty or the 20184
responsible party's designee requests under this section. The 20185
officeresponsible party may charge an applicant a fee not 20186
exceeding the amount the officeresponsible party pays to the 20187
bureau under this section if the responsible entityparty or 20188
designee notifies the applicant at the time of initial application 20189
for employment of the amount of the fee.20190

        (F)(1) The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson 20191
programA responsible party may employ conditionally an applicant 20192
for whom a criminal records check is required by this section 20193
prior to obtaining the results of the criminal records check if 20194
both of the officefollowing apply:20195

       (a) The responsible party is not prohibited by division 20196
(B)(1) of this section from employing the applicant in a position 20197
that involves providing ombudspersonombudsman services to 20198
residents and recipients and the;20199

       (b) The responsible entityparty or designee requests the 20200
criminal records check in accordance with division (E) of this 20201
section not later than five business days after the applicant 20202
begins conditional employment.20203

       (2) The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson 20204
programA responsible party shall terminate the employment of an 20205
applicant employed conditionally under division (F)(1) of this 20206
section if the results of the criminal records check, other than 20207
the results of any request for information from the federal bureau 20208
of investigation, are not obtained within the period ending sixty 20209
days after the date the request for the criminal records check is 20210
made. Regardless of when the results of the criminal records check 20211
are obtained, if the results indicate that the applicant has been 20212
convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for 20213
intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense, 20214
the officeresponsible party shall terminate the applicant's 20215
employment unless circumstancesthe applicant meets standards20216
specified in rules adopted under this section that permit the 20217
officeresponsible party to employ the applicant exist and the 20218
officeresponsible party chooses to employ the applicant. 20219
Termination of employment under this division shall be considered 20220
just cause for discharge for purposes of division (D)(2) of 20221
section 4141.29 of the Revised Code if the applicant makes any 20222
attempt to deceive the officeresponsible party or designee about 20223
the applicant's criminal record.20224

       (G) The report of any criminal records check conducted 20225
pursuant to a request made under this section is not a public 20226
record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and 20227
shall not be made available to any person other than the 20228
following:20229

       (1) The applicant or employee who is the subject of the 20230
criminal records check or the applicant's or employee's 20231
representative;20232

       (2) The responsible entityparty or the responsible entity's 20233
representativedesignee;20234

       (3) If the state long-term care ombudsperson designates the 20235
head or other employee ofIn the case of a criminal records check 20236
conducted for an applicant who is under final consideration for 20237
employment with a regional long-term care ombudspersonombudsman20238
program to request a criminal records check under this section20239
(including as the head of the regional program) or an employee of 20240
a regional long-term care ombudsman program (including the head of 20241
a regional program), the state long-term care ombudsman or a 20242
representative of the office of the state long-term care 20243
ombudspersonombudsman program who is responsible for monitoring 20244
the regional program's compliance with this section;20245

       (4) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 20246
involved in a case dealing with any of the following:20247

       (a) A denial of employment of the applicant or employee;20248

       (b) Employment or unemployment benefits of the applicant or 20249
employee;20250

       (c) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid program 20251
or a program the department of aging administers.20252

       (H) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is 20253
brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or 20254
property caused by an applicant or employee who the office of the 20255
state long-term care ombudsperson programa responsible party20256
employs in a position that involves providing ombudsperson20257
ombudsman services to residents and recipients, all of the 20258
following shall apply:20259

       (1) If the officeresponsible party employed the applicant or 20260
employee in good faith and reasonable reliance on the report of a 20261
criminal records check requested under this section, the office20262
responsible party shall not be found negligent solely because of 20263
its reliance on the report, even if the information in the report 20264
is determined later to have been incomplete or inaccurate.20265

       (2) If the officeresponsible party employed the applicant in 20266
good faith on a conditional basis pursuant to division (F) of this 20267
section, the officeresponsible party shall not be found 20268
negligent solely because it employed the applicant prior to 20269
receiving the report of a criminal records check requested under 20270
this section.20271

       (3) If the officeresponsible party in good faith employed 20272
the applicant or employee according tobecause the personal 20273
characterapplicant or employee meets standards established20274
specified in rules adopted under this section, the office20275
responsible party shall not be found negligent solely because the 20276
applicant or employee has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or 20277
been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 20278
disqualifying offense.20279

       (I) The state long-term care ombudsman may not act as the 20280
director of aging's designee for the purpose of this section. The 20281
head of a regional long-term care ombudsman program may not act as 20282
the regional program's designee for the purpose of this section if 20283
the head is the employee for whom a database review or criminal 20284
records check is being conducted.20285

       (J) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 20286
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. 20287

       (1) The rules may do the following:20288

       (a) Require employees to undergo database reviews and 20289
criminal records checks under this section;20290

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 20291
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, exempt one 20292
or more classes of employees from the requirements;20293

       (c) For the purpose of division (D)(7) of this section, 20294
specify other databases that are to be checked as part of a 20295
database review conducted under this section.20296

       (2) The rules shall specify all of the following:20297

       (a) The procedures for conducting database reviews under this 20298
section;20299

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 20300
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, the times 20301
at which the database reviews and criminal records checks are to 20302
be conducted;20303

       (c) If the rules specify other databases to be checked as 20304
part of the database reviews, the circumstances under which the 20305
office of the state long-term care ombudsperson programa 20306
responsible party is prohibited from employing an applicant or 20307
continuing to employ an employee who is found by a database review 20308
to be included in one or more of those databases;20309

       (d) Circumstances under which the office of the state 20310
long-term care ombudsperson program may employStandards that an 20311
applicant or employee whomust meet for a responsible party to be 20312
permitted to employ the applicant or continue to employ the 20313
employee in a position that involves providing ombudsman services 20314
to residents and recipients if the applicant or employee is found 20315
by a criminal records check required by this section to have been 20316
convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for 20317
intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense 20318
but meets personal character standards.20319

       Sec. 173.28. (A)(1) As used in this division, "incident" 20320
means the occurrence of a violation with respect to a resident or 20321
recipient, as those terms are defined in section 173.14 of the 20322
Revised Code. A violation is a separate incident for each day it 20323
occurs and for each resident who is subject to it.20324

        In lieu of the fine that may be imposed under division (A) of 20325
section 173.99 of the Revised Code, the director of aging may, 20326
under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, fine a long-term care 20327
provider or other entity, or a person employed by a long-term care 20328
provider or other entity, for a violation of division (C) of 20329
section 173.24 of the Revised Code. The fine shall not exceed one 20330
thousand dollars per incident.20331

        (2) In lieu of the fine that may be imposed under division 20332
(C) of section 173.99 of the Revised Code, the director may, under 20333
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, fine a long-term care provider 20334
or other entity, or a person employed by a long-term care provider 20335
or other entity, for violating division (E) of section 173.19 of 20336
the Revised Code by denying a representative of the office of the 20337
state long-term care ombudspersonombudsman program the access 20338
required by that division. The fine shall not exceed five hundred 20339
dollars for each day the violation continued.20340

        (B) On request of the director, the attorney general shall 20341
bring and prosecute to judgment a civil action to collect any fine 20342
imposed under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section that remains 20343
unpaid thirty days after the violator's final appeal is exhausted.20344

        (C) All fines collected under this section shall be deposited 20345
into the state treasury to the credit of the state long-term care 20346
ombudspersonombudsman program fund created under section 173.26 20347
of the Revised Code.20348

       Sec. 173.394.        Sec. 173.38.  (A) As used in this section:20349

       (1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 20350
consideration for employment with a community-based long-term care 20351
agencyresponsible party in a full-time, part-time, or temporary 20352
direct-care position that involves providing direct care to an 20353
individual or is referred to a community-based long-term care 20354
agencyresponsible party by an employment service for such a 20355
position. "Applicant" does not include a person who provides 20356
direct care to an individualbeing considered for a direct-care 20357
position as a volunteer without receiving or expecting to receive 20358
any form of remuneration other than reimbursement for actual 20359
expenses.20360

       (2) "Area agency on aging" has the same meaning as in section 20361
173.14 of the Revised Code.20362

       (3) "Community-based long-term care services" means 20363
community-based long-term care services, as defined in section 20364
173.14 of the Revised Code, that are provided under a program the 20365
department of aging administers.20366

       (4) "Consumer" means an individual who receives 20367
community-based long-term care services.20368

       (5) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 20369
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.20370

       (6)(a) "Direct-care position" means an employment position in 20371
which an employee has either or both of the following:20372

       (i) In-person contact with one or more consumers;20373

       (ii) Access to one or more consumers' personal property or 20374
records.20375

       (b) "Direct-care position" does not include a person whose 20376
sole duties are transporting individuals under Chapter 306. of the 20377
Revised Code.20378

       (7) "Disqualifying offense" means any of the offenses listed 20379
or described in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (e) of section 109.572 of 20380
the Revised Code.20381

       (8) "Employee" means a person employed by a community-based 20382
long-term care agencyresponsible party in a full-time, part-time, 20383
or temporary direct-care position that involves providing direct 20384
care to an individual and a person who works in such a position 20385
due to being referred to a community-based long-term care agency20386
responsible party by an employment service. "Employee" does not 20387
include a person who provides direct care to an individualworks 20388
in a direct-care position as a volunteer without receiving or 20389
expecting to receive any form of remuneration other than 20390
reimbursement for actual expenses.20391

       (9) "PASSPORT administrative agency" has the same meaning as 20392
in section 173.42 of the Revised Code.20393

       (10) "Provider" has the same meaning as in section 173.39 of 20394
the Revised Code.20395

       (11) "Responsible party" means the following:20396

       (a) An area agency on aging in the case of either of the 20397
following:20398

       (i) A person who is an applicant because the person is under 20399
final consideration for employment with the agency in a full-time, 20400
part-time, or temporary direct-care position or is referred to the 20401
agency by an employment service for such a position;20402

       (ii) A person who is an employee because the person is 20403
employed by the agency in a full-time, part-time, or temporary 20404
direct-care position or works in such a position due to being 20405
referred to the agency by an employment service.20406

       (b) A PASSPORT administrative agency in the case of either of 20407
the following:20408

       (i) A person who is an applicant because the person is under 20409
final consideration for employment with the agency in a full-time, 20410
part-time, or temporary direct-care position or is referred to the 20411
agency by an employment service for such a position;20412

       (ii) A person who is an employee because the person is 20413
employed by the agency in a full-time, part-time, or temporary 20414
direct-care position or works in such a position due to being 20415
referred to the agency by an employment service.20416

       (c) A provider in the case of either of the following:20417

       (i) A person who is an applicant because the person is under 20418
final consideration for employment with the provider in a 20419
full-time, part-time, or temporary direct-care position or is 20420
referred to the provider by an employment service for such a 20421
position;20422

       (ii) A person who is an employee because the person is 20423
employed by the provider in a full-time, part-time, or temporary 20424
direct-care position or works in such a position due to being 20425
referred to the provider by an employment service.20426

       (d) A subcontractor in the case of either of the following:20427

       (i) A person who is an applicant because the person is under 20428
final consideration for employment with the subcontractor in a 20429
full-time, part-time, or temporary direct-care position or is 20430
referred to the subcontractor by an employment service for such a 20431
position;20432

       (ii) A person who is an employee because the person is 20433
employed by the subcontractor in a full-time, part-time, or 20434
temporary direct-care position or works in such a position due to 20435
being referred to the subcontractor by an employment service.20436

       (12) "Subcontractor" has the meaning specified in rules 20437
adopted under this section.20438

       (13) "Volunteer" means a person who serves in a direct-care 20439
position without receiving or expecting to receive any form of 20440
remuneration other than reimbursement for actual expenses.20441

       (14) "Waiver agency" has the same meaning as in section 20442
5111.0335164.342 of the Revised Code.20443

       (B) This section does not apply to any individual who is 20444
subject to a database review or criminal records check under 20445
section 3701.881 of the Revised Code or to any individual who is 20446
subject to a criminal records check under section 3721.121 of the 20447
Revised Code. If a community-based long-term care agencyprovider 20448
or subcontractor also is a waiver agency, the agencyprovider or 20449
subcontractor may provide for applicants and employees to undergo 20450
database reviews and criminal records checks in accordance with 20451
section 5111.0335164.342 of the Revised Code rather than this 20452
section.20453

       (C) No community-based long-term care agencyresponsible 20454
party shall employ an applicant or continue to employ an employee 20455
in a direct-care position that involves providing direct care to 20456
an individual if any of the following apply:20457

       (1) A review of the databases listed in division (E) of this 20458
section reveals any of the following:20459

       (a) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 20460
of the databases listed in divisions (E)(1) to (5) of this 20461
section;20462

       (b) That there is in the state nurse aide registry 20463
established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code a statement 20464
detailing findings by the director of health that the applicant or 20465
employee neglected or abused a long-term care facility or 20466
residential care facility resident or misappropriated property of 20467
such a resident;20468

       (c) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 20469
of the databases, if any, specified in rules adopted under this 20470
section and the rules prohibit the agencyresponsible party from 20471
employing an applicant or continuing to employ an employee 20472
included in such a database in a direct-care position that 20473
involves providing direct care to an individual.20474

       (2) After the applicant or employee is provided, pursuant to 20475
division (F)(2)(a) of this section, a copy of the form prescribed 20476
pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 20477
and the standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division 20478
(C)(2) of that section, the applicant or employee fails to 20479
complete the form or provide the applicant's or employee's 20480
fingerprint impressions on the standard impression sheet.20481

       (3) Except as providedUnless the applicant or employee meets 20482
standards specified in rules adopted under this section, the 20483
applicant or employee is found by a criminal records check 20484
required by this section to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty 20485
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 20486
for a disqualifying offense.20487

       (D) Except as provided by division (G) of this section, the 20488
chief administrator of a community-based long-term care agency20489
responsible party shall inform each applicant of both of the 20490
following at the time of the applicant's initial application for 20491
employment or referral to the agencyresponsible party by an 20492
employment service for a direct-care position that involves 20493
providing direct care to an individual:20494

       (1) That a review of the databases listed in division (E) of 20495
this section will be conducted to determine whether the agency20496
responsible party is prohibited by division (C)(1) of this section 20497
from employing the applicant in the direct-care position;20498

       (2) That, unless the database review reveals that the 20499
applicant may not be employed in the direct-care position, a 20500
criminal records check of the applicant will be conducted and the 20501
applicant is required to provide a set of the applicant's 20502
fingerprint impressions as part of the criminal records check.20503

       (E) As a condition of employing any applicant in a 20504
direct-care position that involves providing direct care to an 20505
individual, the chief administrator of a community-based long-term 20506
care agencyresponsible party shall conduct a database review of 20507
the applicant in accordance with rules adopted under this section. 20508
If rules adopted under this section so require, the chief 20509
administrator of a community-based long-term care agency20510
responsible party shall conduct a database review of an employee 20511
in accordance with the rules as a condition of continuing to 20512
employ the employee in a direct-care position that involves 20513
providing direct care to an individual. However, a chief 20514
administrator is not required to conduct a database review of an 20515
applicant or employee if division (G) of this section applies. A 20516
database review shall determine whether the applicant or employee 20517
is included in any of the following:20518

       (1) The excluded parties list system that is maintained by 20519
the United States general services administration pursuant to 20520
subpart 9.4 of the federal acquisition regulation and available at 20521
the federal web site known as the system for award management;20522

       (2) The list of excluded individuals and entities maintained 20523
by the office of inspector general in the United States department 20524
of health and human services pursuant to section 1128 of the 20525
"Social Security Act," 94 Stat. 2619 (1980)sections 1128 and 20526
1156, 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7, as amended, and section 1156 of the 20527
"Social Security Act," 96 Stat. 388 (1982), 42 U.S.C. 1320c-5, as 20528
amended;20529

       (3) The registry of MR/DD employees established under section 20530
5123.52 of the Revised Code;20531

       (4) The internet-based sex offender and child-victim offender 20532
database established under division (A)(11) of section 2950.13 of 20533
the Revised Code;20534

       (5) The internet-based database of inmates established under 20535
section 5120.66 of the Revised Code;20536

       (6) The state nurse aide registry established under section 20537
3721.32 of the Revised Code;20538

       (7) Any other database, if any, specified in rules adopted 20539
under this section.20540

       (F)(1) As a condition of employing any applicant in a 20541
direct-care position that involves providing direct care to an 20542
individual, the chief administrator of a community-based long-term 20543
care agencyresponsible party shall request that the 20544
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 20545
investigation conduct a criminal records check of the applicant. 20546
If rules adopted under this section so require, the chief 20547
administrator of a community-based long-term care agency20548
responsible party shall request that the superintendent conduct a 20549
criminal records check of an employee at times specified in the 20550
rules as a condition of continuing to employ the employee in a 20551
direct-care position that involves providing direct care to an 20552
individual. However, the chief administrator is not required to 20553
request the criminal records check of the applicant or employee if 20554
division (G) of this section applies or the agencyresponsible 20555
party is prohibited by division (C)(1) of this section from 20556
employing the applicant or continuing to employ the employee in a 20557
direct-care position that involves providing direct care to an 20558
individual. If an applicant or employee for whom a criminal 20559
records check request is required by this section does not present 20560
proof of having been a resident of this state for the five-year 20561
period immediately prior to the date the criminal records check is 20562
requested or provide evidence that within that five-year period 20563
the superintendent has requested information about the applicant 20564
or employee from the federal bureau of investigation in a criminal 20565
records check, the chief administrator shall request that the 20566
superintendent obtain information from the federal bureau of 20567
investigation as part of the criminal records check. Even if an 20568
applicant or employee for whom a criminal records check request is 20569
required by this section presents proof of having been a resident 20570
of this state for the five-year period, the chief administrator 20571
may request that the superintendent include information from the 20572
federal bureau of investigation in the criminal records check.20573

       (2) The chief administrator shall do all of the following:20574

       (a) Provide to each applicant and employee for whom a 20575
criminal records check request is required by this section a copy 20576
of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 20577
109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard impression sheet 20578
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section;20579

       (b) Obtain the completed form and standard impression sheet 20580
from the applicant or employee;20581

       (c) Forward the completed form and standard impression sheet 20582
to the superintendent. 20583

       (3) A community-based long-term care agencyresponsible party20584
shall pay to the bureau of criminal identification and 20585
investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of 20586
section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each criminal records 20587
check the agencyresponsible party requests under this section. An 20588
agencyA responsible party may charge an applicant a fee not 20589
exceeding the amount the agencyresponsible party pays to the 20590
bureau under this section if both of the following apply:20591

       (a) The agencyresponsible party notifies the applicant at 20592
the time of initial application for employment of the amount of 20593
the fee and that, unless the fee is paid, the applicant will not 20594
be considered for employment.20595

       (b) The medicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of 20596
the Revised Code does not reimbursepay the agencyresponsible 20597
party for the fee it pays to the bureau under this section.20598

       (G) Divisions (D) to (F) of this section do not apply with 20599
regard to an applicant or employee if the applicant or employee is 20600
referred to a community-based long-term agencyresponsible party20601
by an employment service that supplies full-time, part-time, or 20602
temporary staff for direct-care positions that involve providing 20603
direct care to an individual and both of the following apply:20604

       (1) The chief administrator of the agencyresponsible party20605
receives from the employment service confirmation that a review of 20606
the databases listed in division (E) of this section was conducted 20607
of the applicant or employee.20608

       (2) The chief administrator of the agencyresponsible party20609
receives from the employment service, applicant, or employee a 20610
report of the results of a criminal records check of the applicant 20611
or employee that has been conducted by the superintendent within 20612
the one-year period immediately preceding the following:20613

       (a) In the case of an applicant, the date of the applicant's 20614
referral by the employment service to the agencyresponsible 20615
party;20616

       (b) In the case of an employee, the date by which the agency20617
responsible party would otherwise have to request a criminal 20618
records check of the employee under division (F) of this section.20619

       (H)(1) A community-based long-term care agencyresponsible 20620
party may employ conditionally an applicant for whom a criminal 20621
records check request is required by this section prior to 20622
obtaining the results of the criminal records check if the agency20623
responsible party is not prohibited by division (C)(1) of this 20624
section from employing the applicant in a direct-care position 20625
that involves providing direct care to an individual and either of 20626
the following applies:20627

       (a) The chief administrator of the agencyresponsible party20628
requests the criminal records check in accordance with division 20629
(F) of this section not later than five business days after the 20630
applicant begins conditional employment.20631

       (b) The applicant is referred to the agencyresponsible party20632
by an employment service, the employment service or the applicant 20633
provides the chief administrator of the agencyresponsible party a 20634
letter that is on the letterhead of the employment service, the 20635
letter is dated and signed by a supervisor or another designated 20636
official of the employment service, and the letter states all of 20637
the following:20638

       (i) That the employment service has requested the 20639
superintendent to conduct a criminal records check regarding the 20640
applicant;20641

       (ii) That the requested criminal records check is to include 20642
a determination of whether the applicant has been convicted of, 20643
pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu 20644
of conviction for a disqualifying offense;20645

       (iii) That the employment service has not received the 20646
results of the criminal records check as of the date set forth on 20647
the letter;20648

       (iv) That the employment service promptly will send a copy of 20649
the results of the criminal records check to the chief 20650
administrator of the agencyresponsible party when the employment 20651
service receives the results. 20652

       (2) If a community-based long-term care agencyresponsible 20653
party employs an applicant conditionally pursuant to division 20654
(H)(1)(b) of this section, the employment service, on its receipt 20655
of the results of the criminal records check, promptly shall send 20656
a copy of the results to the chief administrator of the agency20657
responsible party.20658

       (3) A community-based long-term care agencyresponsible party20659
that employs an applicant conditionally pursuant to division 20660
(H)(1)(a) or (b) of this section shall terminate the applicant's 20661
employment if the results of the criminal records check, other 20662
than the results of any request for information from the federal 20663
bureau of investigation, are not obtained within the period ending 20664
sixty days after the date the request for the criminal records 20665
check is made. Regardless of when the results of the criminal 20666
records check are obtained, if the results indicate that the 20667
applicant has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found 20668
eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 20669
disqualifying offense, the agencyresponsible party shall 20670
terminate the applicant's employment unless circumstancesthe 20671
applicant meets standards specified in rules adopted under this 20672
section that permit the agencyresponsible party to employ the 20673
applicant exist and the agencyresponsible party chooses to employ 20674
the applicant. Termination of employment under this division shall 20675
be considered just cause for discharge for purposes of division 20676
(D)(2) of section 4141.29 of the Revised Code if the applicant 20677
makes any attempt to deceive the agencyresponsible party about 20678
the applicant's criminal record.20679

       (I) The report of any criminal records check conducted 20680
pursuant to a request made under this section is not a public 20681
record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and 20682
shall not be made available to any person other than the 20683
following:20684

       (1) The applicant or employee who is the subject of the 20685
criminal records check or the applicant's or employee's 20686
representative;20687

       (2) The chief administrator of the community-based long-term 20688
care agencyresponsible party requesting the criminal records 20689
check or the administrator's representative;20690

       (3) The administrator of any other facility, agency, or 20691
program that provides direct care to individualscommunity-based 20692
long-term care services that is owned or operated by the same 20693
entity that owns or operates the community-based long-term care 20694
agencyresponsible party that requested the criminal records 20695
check;20696

       (4) The employment service that requested the criminal 20697
records check;20698

       (5) The director of aging or a person authorized by the 20699
director to monitor a community-based long-term care agency's20700
responsible party's compliance with this section;20701

       (6) The medicaid director of job and family services and the 20702
staff of the department of job and family servicesmedicaid who 20703
are involved in the administration of the medicaid program if 20704
either of the following apply:20705

       (a) In the case of a criminal records check requested by a 20706
community-based long-term care agencyprovider or subcontractor, 20707
the agencyprovider or subcontractor also is a waiver agency;20708

       (b) In the case of a criminal records check requested by an 20709
employment service, the employment service makes the request for 20710
an applicant or employee the employment service refers to a 20711
community-based long-term care agencyprovider or subcontractor20712
that also is a waiver agency.20713

       (7) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 20714
involved in a case dealing with any of the following:20715

       (a) A denial of employment of the applicant or employee;20716

       (b) Employment or unemployment benefits of the applicant or 20717
employee;20718

        (c) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid program 20719
or a program the department of aging administers.20720

       (J) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is 20721
brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or 20722
property caused by an applicant or employee who a community-based 20723
long-term care agencyresponsible party employs in a direct-care20724
position that involves providing direct care to individuals, all 20725
of the following shall apply:20726

       (1) If the agencyresponsible party employed the applicant or 20727
employee in good faith and reasonable reliance on the report of a 20728
criminal records check requested under this section, the agency20729
responsible party shall not be found negligent solely because of 20730
its reliance on the report, even if the information in the report 20731
is determined later to have been incomplete or inaccurate.20732

       (2) If the agencyresponsible party employed the applicant in 20733
good faith on a conditional basis pursuant to division (H) of this 20734
section, the agencyresponsible party shall not be found 20735
negligent solely because it employed the applicant prior to 20736
receiving the report of a criminal records check requested under 20737
this section.20738

       (3) If the agencyresponsible party in good faith employed 20739
the applicant or employee according tobecause the personal 20740
characterapplicant or employee meets standards established20741
specified in rules adopted under this section, the agency20742
responsible party shall not be found negligent solely because the 20743
applicant or employee has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or 20744
been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 20745
disqualifying offense.20746

       (K) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 20747
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section.20748

       (1) The rules may do the following:20749

       (a) Require employees to undergo database reviews and 20750
criminal records checks under this section;20751

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 20752
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, exempt one 20753
or more classes of employees from the requirements;20754

       (c) For the purpose of division (E)(7) of this section, 20755
specify other databases that are to be checked as part of a 20756
database review conducted under this section.20757

       (2) The rules shall specify all of the following:20758

       (a) The meaning of the term "subcontractor";20759

       (b) The procedures for conducting database reviews under this 20760
section;20761

       (b)(c) If the rules require employees to undergo database 20762
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, the times 20763
at which the database reviews and criminal records checks are to 20764
be conducted;20765

       (c)(d) If the rules specify other databases to be checked as 20766
part of the database reviews, the circumstances under which a 20767
community-based long-term care agencyresponsible party is 20768
prohibited from employing an applicant or continuing to employ an 20769
employee who is found by a database review to be included in one 20770
or more of those databases;20771

       (d) Circumstances under which a community-based long-term 20772
care agency may employ(e) Standards that an applicant or employee 20773
whomust meet for a responsible party to be permitted to employ 20774
the applicant or continue to employ the employee in a direct-care 20775
position if the applicant or employee is found by a criminal 20776
records check required by this section to have been convicted of, 20777
pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu 20778
of conviction for a disqualifying offense but meets personal 20779
character standards.20780

       Sec. 173.39. (A) As used in sections 173.39 to 173.39420781
173.393 of the Revised Code:20782

       (1) "Community-based long-term care agencyProvider" means a 20783
person or governmentgovernmental entity that provides 20784
community-based long-term care services under a program the 20785
department of aging administers, regardless of whether the person 20786
or government entity is certified under section 173.391 or 20787
authorized to receive payment for the services from the department 20788
under section 173.392 of the Revised Code. "Community-based 20789
long-term care agencyProvider" includes a person or government20790
governmental entity that provides home and community-based 20791
services to older adults through the PASSPORT program created 20792
underas defined in section 173.40173.51 of the Revised Code.20793

       (2) "Community-based long-term care services" has the same 20794
meaning as in section 173.14 of the Revised Code.20795

        (B) Except as provided in section 173.392 of the Revised 20796
Code, the department of aging may not pay a person or government 20797
entityprovider for providing community-based long-term care 20798
services under a program the department administers unless the 20799
person or government entityprovider is certified under section 20800
173.391 of the Revised Code and provides the services.20801

       Sec. 173.391. (A) The department of aging or its designee 20802
shall do all of the following in accordance with Chapter 119. of 20803
the Revised Code:20804

        (1) Certify a person or government entityprovider to provide 20805
community-based long-term care services under a program the 20806
department administers if the person or government entityprovider20807
satisfies the requirements for certification established by rules 20808
adopted under division (B) of this section and pays the fee, if 20809
any, established by rules adopted under division (G) of this 20810
section;20811

        (2) When required to do so by rules adopted under division 20812
(B) of this section, take one or more of the following 20813
disciplinary actions against a person or government entity20814
provider certified under division (A)(1) of this section:20815

        (a) Issue a written warning;20816

        (b) Require the submission of a plan of correction or 20817
evidence of compliance with requirements identified by the 20818
department;20819

        (c) Suspend referrals;20820

        (d) Remove clients;20821

        (e) Impose a fiscal sanction such as a civil monetary penalty 20822
or an order that unearned funds be repaid;20823

        (f) Suspend the certification;20824

       (g) Revoke the certification;20825

        (h) Impose another sanction.20826

        (3) Except as provided in division (E) of this section, hold 20827
hearings when there is a dispute between the department or its 20828
designee and a person or government entityprovider concerning 20829
actions the department or its designee takes regarding a decision 20830
not to certify the person or government entityprovider under 20831
division (A)(1) of this section or a disciplinary action under 20832
divisions (A)(2)(e) to (h) of this section.20833

        (B) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 20834
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing certification 20835
requirements and standards for determining which type of 20836
disciplinary action to take under division (A)(2) of this section 20837
in individual situations. The rules shall establish procedures for 20838
all of the following:20839

        (1) Ensuring that community-based long-term care agencies20840
providers comply with section 173.394173.38 of the Revised Code;20841

        (2) Evaluating the services provided by the agencies20842
providers to ensure that the services are provided in a quality 20843
manner advantageous to the individual receiving the services;20844

        (3) Determining when to take disciplinary action under 20845
division (A)(2) of this section and which disciplinary action to 20846
take;20847

       (4) Determining what constitutes another sanction for 20848
purposes of division (A)(2)(h) of this section.20849

        (C) The procedures established in rules adopted under 20850
division (B)(2) of this section shall require that all of the 20851
following be considered as part of an evaluation described in 20852
division (B)(2) of this section:20853

        (1) The community-based long-term care agency'sprovider's20854
experience and financial responsibility;20855

        (2) The agency'sprovider's ability to comply with standards 20856
for the community-based long-term care services that the agency20857
provider provides under a program the department administers;20858

        (3) The agency'sprovider's ability to meet the needs of the 20859
individuals served;20860

        (4) Any other factor the director considers relevant.20861

        (D) The rules adopted under division (B)(3) of this section 20862
shall specify that the reasons disciplinary action may be taken 20863
under division (A)(2) of this section include good cause, 20864
including misfeasance, malfeasance, nonfeasance, confirmed abuse 20865
or neglect, financial irresponsibility, or other conduct the 20866
director determines is injurious, or poses a threat, to the health 20867
or safety of individuals being served.20868

       (E) Subject to division (F) of this section, the department 20869
is not required to hold hearings under division (A)(3) of this 20870
section if any of the following conditions apply:20871

       (1) Rules adopted by the director of aging pursuant to this 20872
chapter require the community-based long-term care agencyprovider20873
to be a party to a provider agreement; hold a license, 20874
certificate, or permit; or maintain a certification, any of which 20875
is required or issued by a state or federal government entity 20876
other than the department of aging, and either of the following is 20877
the case:20878

       (a) The provider agreement has not been entered into or the 20879
license, certificate, permit, or certification has not been 20880
obtained or maintained.20881

       (b) The provider agreement, license, certificate, permit, or 20882
certification has been denied, revoked, not renewed, or suspended 20883
or has been otherwise restricted.20884

        (2) The agency'sprovider's certification under this section 20885
has been denied, suspended, or revoked for any of the following 20886
reasons:20887

       (a) A governmentgovernmental entity of this state, other 20888
than the department of aging, has terminated or refused to renew 20889
any of the following held by, or has denied any of the following 20890
sought by, a community-based long-term care agencyprovider: a 20891
provider agreement, license, certificate, permit, or 20892
certification. Division (E)(2)(a) of this section applies 20893
regardless of whether the agencyprovider has entered into a 20894
provider agreement in, or holds a license, certificate, permit, or 20895
certification issued by, another state.20896

       (b) The agencyprovider or a principal owner or manager of 20897
the agencyprovider who provides direct care has entered a guilty 20898
plea for, or has been convicted of, an offense materially related 20899
to the medicaid program.20900

        (c) The agencyprovider or a principal owner or manager of 20901
the agencyprovider who provides direct care has entered a guilty 20902
plea for, been convicted of, or been found eligible for 20903
intervention in lieu of conviction for an offense listed or 20904
described in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (e) of section 109.572 of the 20905
Revised Code, but only if none of the personal characterthe 20906
provider, principal owner, or manager does not meet standards 20907
establishedspecified by the director in rules adopted under 20908
section 173.394173.38 of the Revised Code apply.20909

       (d) The United States department of health and human services 20910
has taken adverse action against the agencyprovider and that 20911
action impacts the agency'sprovider's participation in the 20912
medicaid program.20913

        (e) The agencyprovider has failed to enter into or renew a 20914
provider agreement with the PASSPORT administrative agency, as 20915
that term is defined in section 173.42 of the Revised Code, that 20916
administers programs on behalf of the department of aging in the 20917
region of the state in which the agencyprovider is certified to 20918
provide services.20919

        (f) The agencyprovider has not billed or otherwise submitted 20920
a claim to the department for payment under the medicaid program 20921
in at least two years.20922

        (g) The agencyprovider denied or failed to provide the 20923
department or its designee access to the agency'sprovider's20924
facilities during the agency'sprovider's normal business hours 20925
for purposes of conducting an audit or structural compliance 20926
review.20927

        (h) The agencyprovider has ceased doing business.20928

        (i) The agencyprovider has voluntarily relinquished its 20929
certification for any reason.20930

        (3) The agency'sprovider's provider agreement with the 20931
department of job and family servicesmedicaid has been suspended 20932
under division (C) of section 5111.0315164.37 of the Revised 20933
Code.20934

        (4) The agency'sprovider's provider agreement with the 20935
department of job and family servicesmedicaid is denied or 20936
revoked because the agencyprovider or its owner, officer, 20937
authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee has been 20938
convicted of an offense that caused the provider agreement to be 20939
suspended under section 5111.0315164.37 of the Revised Code.20940

        (F) If the department does not hold hearings when any 20941
condition described in division (E) of this section applies, the 20942
department may send a notice to the agencyprovider describing a 20943
decision not to certify the agencyprovider under division (A)(1) 20944
of this section or the disciplinary action the department proposes 20945
to take under division (A)(2)(e) to (h) of this section. The 20946
notice shall be sent to the agency'sprovider's address that is on 20947
record with the department and may be sent by regular mail.20948

       (G) The director of aging may adopt rules in accordance with 20949
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing a fee to be charged 20950
by the department of aging or its designee for certification 20951
issued under this section.20952

        All fees collected by the department or its designee under 20953
this section shall be deposited in the state treasury to the 20954
credit of the provider certification fund, which is hereby 20955
created. Money credited to the fund shall be used to pay for 20956
community-based long-term care services, administrative costs 20957
associated with community-based long-term care agencyprovider20958
certification under this section, and administrative costs related 20959
to the publication of the Ohio long-term care consumer guide.20960

       Sec. 173.392. (A) The department of aging may pay a person or 20961
government entityprovider for providing community-based long-term 20962
care services under a program the department administers, even 20963
though the person or government entityprovider is not certified 20964
under section 173.391 of the Revised Code, if all of the following 20965
are the case:20966

        (1) The person or government entityprovider has a contract 20967
with the department of aging or the department's designee to 20968
provide the services in accordance with the contract or has 20969
received a grant from the department or its designee to provide 20970
the services in accordance with a grant agreement;20971

        (2) The contract or grant agreement includes detailed 20972
conditions of participation for providers of services under a 20973
program the department administersthe provider and service 20974
standards that the person or government entityprovider is 20975
required to satisfy;20976

        (3) The person or government entityprovider complies with 20977
the contract or grant agreement;20978

       (4) The contract or grant is not for medicaid-funded 20979
services, other than services provided under the PACE program 20980
administered by the department of aging under section 173.50 of 20981
the Revised Code.20982

       (B) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 20983
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code governing both of the 20984
following:20985

        (1) Contracts and grant agreements between the department of 20986
aging or its designee and persons and government entities 20987
regarding community-based long-term care services provided under a 20988
program the department administersproviders;20989

        (2) The department's payment for community-based long-term 20990
care services under this section.20991

       Sec. 173.42.  (A) As used in sections 173.42 to 173.434 of 20992
the Revised Code:20993

       (1) "Area agency on aging" means a public or private 20994
nonprofit entity designated under section 173.011 of the Revised 20995
Code to administer programs on behalf of the department of aging.20996

       (2) "Department of aging-administered medicaid waiver 20997
component" means each of the following:20998

       (a) The medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program 20999
created under section 173.40173.52 of the Revised Code;21000

       (b) The choices program created under section 173.403173.5321001
of the Revised Code;21002

       (c) The medicaid-funded component of the assisted living 21003
program created under section 5111.89173.54 of the Revised Code;21004

       (d) Any other medicaid waiver component, as defined in 21005
section 5111.855166.01 of the Revised Code, that the department 21006
of aging administers pursuant to an interagency agreement with the 21007
department of job and family servicesmedicaid under section 21008
5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code.21009

       (3) "Home and community-based services covered by medicaid 21010
components the department of aging administers" means all of the 21011
following:21012

       (a) Medicaid waiver services available to a participant in a 21013
department of aging-administered medicaid waiver component;21014

       (b) The following medicaid state plan services available to a 21015
participant in a department of aging-administered medicaid waiver 21016
component as specified in rules adopted under section 5111.0221017
5164.02 of the Revised Code:21018

       (i) Home health services;21019

       (ii) Private duty nursing services;21020

       (iii) Durable medical equipment;21021

       (iv) Services of a clinical nurse specialist;21022

       (v) Services of a certified nurse practitioner.21023

       (c) Services available to a participant of the PACE program.21024

       (4) "Long-term care consultation" or "consultation" means the 21025
consultation service made available by the department of aging or 21026
a program administrator through the long-term care consultation 21027
program established pursuant to this section.21028

       (5) "Medicaid" means the medical assistance program 21029
established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code.21030

       (6) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 21031
5111.205165.01 of the Revised Code.21032

       (7)(6) "PACE program" means the component of the medicaid 21033
program the department of aging administers pursuant to section 21034
173.50 of the Revised Code.21035

       (8)(7) "PASSPORT administrative agency" means an entity under 21036
contract with the department of aging to provide administrative 21037
services regarding the PASSPORT program. 21038

       (9)(8) "Program administrator" means an area agency on aging 21039
or other entity under contract with the department of aging to 21040
administer the long-term care consultation program in a geographic 21041
region specified in the contract.21042

       (10)(9) "Representative" means a person acting on behalf of 21043
an individual specified in division (G) of this section. A 21044
representative may be a family member, attorney, hospital social 21045
worker, or any other person chosen to act on behalf of the 21046
individual.21047

       (B) The department of aging shall develop a long-term care 21048
consultation program whereby individuals or their representatives 21049
are provided with long-term care consultations and receive through 21050
these professional consultations information about options 21051
available to meet long-term care needs and information about 21052
factors to consider in making long-term care decisions. The 21053
long-term care consultations provided under the program may be 21054
provided at any appropriate time, as permitted or required under 21055
this section and the rules adopted under it, including either 21056
prior to or after the individual who is the subject of a 21057
consultation has been admitted to a nursing facility or granted 21058
assistance in receiving home and community-based services covered 21059
by medicaid components the department of aging administers.21060

        (C) The long-term care consultation program shall be 21061
administered by the department of aging, except that the 21062
department may have the program administered on a regional basis 21063
by one or more program administrators. The department and each 21064
program administrator shall administer the program in such a 21065
manner that all of the following are included:21066

       (1) Coordination and collaboration with respect to all 21067
available funding sources for long-term care services;21068

       (2) Assessments of individuals regarding their long-term care 21069
service needs;21070

       (3) Assessments of individuals regarding their on-going 21071
eligibility for long-term care services;21072

       (4) Procedures for assisting individuals in obtaining access 21073
to, and coordination of, health and supportive services, including 21074
department of aging-administered medicaid waiver components;21075

       (5) Priorities for using available resources efficiently and 21076
effectively.21077

        (D) The program's long-term care consultations shall be 21078
provided by individuals certified by the department under section 21079
173.422 of the Revised Code.21080

        (E) The information provided through a long-term care 21081
consultation shall be appropriate to the individual's needs and 21082
situation and shall address all of the following:21083

       (1) The availability of any long-term care options open to 21084
the individual;21085

       (2) Sources and methods of both public and private payment 21086
for long-term care services;21087

       (3) Factors to consider when choosing among the available 21088
programs, services, and benefits;21089

       (4) Opportunities and methods for maximizing independence and 21090
self-reliance, including support services provided by the 21091
individual's family, friends, and community.21092

       (F) An individual's long-term care consultation may include 21093
an assessment of the individual's functional capabilities. The 21094
consultation may incorporate portions of the determinations 21095
required under sections 5111.202, 5119.0615119.40, and 5123.021, 21096
and 5165.03 of the Revised Code and may be provided concurrently 21097
with the assessment required under section 5111.204173.546 or 21098
5165.04 of the Revised Code.21099

       (G)(1) Unless an exemption specified in division (I) of this 21100
section is applicable, each of the following shall be provided 21101
with a long-term care consultation:21102

       (a) An individual who applies or indicates an intention to 21103
apply for admission to a nursing facility, regardless of the 21104
source of payment to be used for the individual's care in a 21105
nursing facility;21106

       (b) An individual who requests a long-term care consultation;21107

       (c) An individual identified by the department or a program 21108
administrator as being likely to benefit from a long-term care 21109
consultation.21110

       (2) In addition to the individuals specified in division 21111
(G)(1) of this section, a long-term care consultation may be 21112
provided to a nursing facility resident regardless of the source 21113
of payment being used for the resident's care in the nursing 21114
facility. 21115

       (H)(1) Except as provided in division (H)(2) or (3) of this 21116
section, a long-term care consultation provided pursuant to 21117
division (G) of this section shall be provided as follows:21118

       (a) If the individual for whom the consultation is being 21119
provided has applied for medicaid and the consultation is being 21120
provided concurrently with the assessment required under section 21121
5111.2045165.04 of the Revised Code, the consultation shall be 21122
completed in accordance with the applicable time frames specified 21123
in that section for providing a level of care determination based 21124
on the assessment.21125

       (b) In all other cases, the consultation shall be provided 21126
not later than five calendar days after the department or program 21127
administrator receives notice of the reason for which the 21128
consultation is to be provided pursuant to division (G) of this 21129
section.21130

       (2) An individual or the individual's representative may 21131
request that a long-term care consultation be provided on a date 21132
that is later than the date required under division (H)(1)(a) or 21133
(b) of this section.21134

       (3) If a long-term care consultation cannot be completed 21135
within the number of days required by division (H)(1) or (2) of 21136
this section, the department or program administrator may do any 21137
of the following:21138

       (a) In the case of an individual specified in division (G)(1) 21139
of this section, exempt the individual from the consultation 21140
pursuant to rules that may be adopted under division (L) of this 21141
section;21142

       (b) In the case of an applicant for admission to a nursing 21143
facility, provide the consultation after the individual is 21144
admitted to the nursing facility;21145

       (c) In the case of a resident of a nursing facility, provide 21146
the consultation as soon as practicable.21147

       (I) An individual is not required to be provided a long-term 21148
care consultation under division (G)(1) of this section if any of 21149
the following apply:21150

       (1) The department or program administrator has attempted to 21151
provide the consultation, but the individual or the individual's 21152
representative refuses to cooperate;21153

       (2) The individual is to receive care in a nursing facility 21154
under a contract for continuing care as defined in section 173.13 21155
of the Revised Code;21156

       (3) The individual has a contractual right to admission to a 21157
nursing facility operated as part of a system of continuing care 21158
in conjunction with one or more facilities that provide a less 21159
intensive level of services, including a residential care facility 21160
licensed under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, a residential 21161
facility licensed under section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised 21162
Code that provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care 21163
services for three to sixteen unrelated adults, or an independent 21164
living arrangement;21165

       (4) The individual is to receive continual care in a home for 21166
the aged exempt from taxation under section 5701.13 of the Revised 21167
Code;21168

       (5) The individual is seeking admission to a facility that is 21169
not a nursing facility with a provider agreement under section 21170
5111.225165.07, 5111.6715165.511, or 5111.6725165.512 of the 21171
Revised Code;21172

       (6) The individual is exempted from the long-term care 21173
consultation requirement by the department or the program 21174
administrator pursuant to rules that may be adopted under division 21175
(L) of this section.21176

        (J) As part of the long-term care consultation program, the 21177
department or program administrator shall assist an individual or 21178
individual's representative in accessing all sources of care and 21179
services that are appropriate for the individual and for which the 21180
individual is eligible, including all available home and 21181
community-based services covered by medicaid components the 21182
department of aging administers. The assistance shall include 21183
providing for the conduct of assessments or other evaluations and 21184
the development of individualized plans of care or services under 21185
section 173.424 of the Revised Code.21186

       (K) No nursing facility for which an operator has a provider 21187
agreement under section 5111.225165.07, 5111.6715165.511, or 21188
5111.6725165.512 of the Revised Code shall admit any individual 21189
as a resident, unless the nursing facility has received evidence 21190
that a long-term care consultation has been completed for the 21191
individual or division (I) of this section is applicable to the 21192
individual.21193

       (L) The director of aging may adopt any rules the director 21194
considers necessary for the implementation and administration of 21195
this section. The rules shall be adopted in accordance with 21196
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and may specify any or all of the 21197
following:21198

       (1) Procedures for providing long-term care consultations 21199
pursuant to this section;21200

       (2) Information to be provided through long-term care 21201
consultations regarding long-term care services that are 21202
available;21203

       (3) Criteria and procedures to be used to identify and 21204
recommend appropriate service options for an individual receiving 21205
a long-term care consultation;21206

       (4) Criteria for exempting individuals from the long-term 21207
care consultation requirement;21208

       (5) Circumstances under which it may be appropriate to 21209
provide an individual's long-term care consultation after the 21210
individual's admission to a nursing facility rather than before 21211
admission;21212

        (6) Criteria for identifying nursing facility residents who 21213
would benefit from the provision of a long-term care consultation;21214

       (7) A description of the types of information from a nursing 21215
facility that is needed under the long-term care consultation 21216
program to assist a resident with relocation from the facility;21217

       (8) Standards to prevent conflicts of interest relative to 21218
the referrals made by a person who performs a long-term care 21219
consultation, including standards that prohibit the person from 21220
being employed by a provider of long-term care services;21221

       (9) Procedures for providing notice and an opportunity for a 21222
hearing under division (N) of this section.21223

       (M) To assist the department and each program administrator 21224
with identifying individuals who are likely to benefit from a 21225
long-term care consultation, the department and program 21226
administrator may ask to be given access to nursing facility 21227
resident assessment data collected through the use of the resident 21228
assessment instrument specified in rules adopted underauthorized 21229
by section 5111.025165.191 of the Revised Code for purposes of 21230
the medicaid program. Except when prohibited by state or federal 21231
law, the department of health, department of job and family 21232
servicesmedicaid, or nursing facility holding the data shall 21233
grant access to the data on receipt of the request from the 21234
department of aging or program administrator.21235

       (N)(1) The director of aging, after providing notice and an 21236
opportunity for a hearing, may fine a nursing facility an amount 21237
determined by rules the director shall adopt in accordance with 21238
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for any of the following reasons:21239

       (a) The nursing facility admits an individual, without 21240
evidence that a long-term care consultation has been provided, as 21241
required by this section;21242

       (b) The nursing facility denies a person attempting to 21243
provide a long-term care consultation access to the facility or a 21244
resident of the facility;21245

       (c) The nursing facility denies the department of aging or 21246
program administrator access to the facility or a resident of the 21247
facility, as the department or administrator considers necessary 21248
to administer the program.21249

       (2) In accordance with section 5111.625162.66 of the Revised 21250
Code, all fines collected under division (N)(1) of this section 21251
shall be deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the 21252
residents protection fund.21253

       Sec. 173.43. (A) Subject to section 173.433 of the Revised 21254
Code, theThe department of aging shall enter into an interagency 21255
agreement with the department of job and family servicesmedicaid21256
under section 5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code under which the 21257
department of aging is required to establish for each biennium a 21258
unified long-term care budget for home and community-based 21259
services covered by medicaid components the department of aging 21260
administers. The interagency agreement shall require the 21261
department of aging to do all of the following:21262

       (1) Administer the unified long-term care budget in 21263
accordance with sections 173.43 to 173.434 of the Revised Code and 21264
the general assembly's appropriations for home and community-based 21265
services covered by medicaid components the department of aging 21266
administers for the applicable biennium;21267

       (2) Contract with each PASSPORT administrative agency for 21268
assistance in the administration of the unified long-term care 21269
budget;21270

       (3) Provide individuals who are eligible for home and 21271
community-based services covered by medicaid components the 21272
department of aging administers a choice of services that meet the 21273
individuals' needs and improve their quality of life;21274

       (4) Provide a continuum of services that meet the life-long 21275
needs of individuals who are eligible for home and community-based 21276
services covered by medicaid components the department of aging 21277
administers.21278

       (B) The director of budget and management shall create new 21279
appropriation items as necessary for establishment of the unified 21280
long-term care budget.21281

       Sec. 173.431. Subject to section 173.433 of the Revised 21282
Code, theThe department of aging shall ensure that the unified 21283
long-term care budget established under section 173.43 of the 21284
Revised Code is administered in a manner that provides medicaid 21285
coverage of and expands access to all of the following as 21286
necessary to meet the needs of individuals receiving home and 21287
community-based services covered by medicaid components the 21288
department of aging administers:21289

       (A) To the extent permitted by the medicaid waivers 21290
authorizing department of aging-administered medicaid waiver 21291
components, all of the following medicaid waiver services provided 21292
under department of aging-administered medicaid waiver components:21293

       (1) Personal care services;21294

       (2) Home-delivered meals;21295

       (3) Adult day-care;21296

       (4) Homemaker services;21297

       (5) Emergency response services;21298

       (6) Medical equipment and supplies;21299

       (7) Chore services;21300

       (8) Social work counseling;21301

       (9) Nutritional counseling;21302

       (10) Independent living assistance;21303

       (11) Medical transportation;21304

       (12) Nonmedical transportation;21305

       (13) Home care attendant services;21306

       (14) Assisted living services;21307

       (15) Community transition services;21308

       (16) Enhanced community living services;21309

       (17) All other medicaid waiver services provided under 21310
department of aging-administered medicaid waiver components.21311

       (B) All of the following state medicaid plan services as 21312
specified in rules adopted under section 5111.025164.02 of the 21313
Revised Code:21314

       (1) Home health services;21315

       (2) Private duty nursing services;21316

       (3) Durable medical equipment;21317

       (4) Services of a clinical nurse specialist;21318

       (5) Services of a certified nurse practitioner.21319

       (C) The services that the PACE program provides.21320

       Sec. 173.432. Subject to section 173.433 of the Revised Code, 21321
theThe department of aging or its designee shall provide care 21322
management and authorization services with regard to the state 21323
plan services specified in division (B) of section 173.431 of the 21324
Revised Code that are provided to participants of department of 21325
aging-administered medicaid waiver components. The department or 21326
its designee shall ensure that no person providing the care 21327
management and authorization services performs an activity that 21328
may not be performed without a valid certificate or license issued 21329
by an agency of this state unless the person holds the valid 21330
certificate or license.21331

       Sec. 173.434. The director of job and family services shall 21332
adoptTo the extent authorized by rules underauthorized by21333
section 5111.855162.021 of the Revised Code to authorize, the 21334
director of aging toshall adopt rules that are needed to 21335
implement sections 173.43 to 173.432 of the Revised Code. The 21336
director of aging's rules shall be adopted in accordance with 21337
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.21338

       Sec. 173.45. As used in this section and in sections 173.46 21339
to 173.49 of the Revised Code:21340

        (A) "Residential facility" means a residential facility 21341
licensed under section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code that 21342
provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care services 21343
for three to sixteen unrelated adults.21344

       (B) "Community-based long-term care services" has the same 21345
meaning as in section 173.14 of the Revised Code.21346

       (C) "Long-term care facility" means a nursing home or 21347
residential care facility.21348

        (D) "Nursing home" and "residential care facility" have the 21349
same meanings as in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.21350

        (E) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 21351
5111.205165.01 of the Revised Code.21352

       Sec. 173.47. (A) For purposes of publishing the Ohio 21353
long-term care consumer guide, the department of aging shall 21354
conduct or provide for the conduct of an annual customer 21355
satisfaction survey of each long-term care facility. The results 21356
of the surveys may include information obtained from long-term 21357
care facility residents, their families, or both. A survey that is 21358
to include information obtained from nursing facility residents 21359
shall include the questions specified in divisions (C)(7)(a) and 21360
(b) and (18) and (D)(7)(a) and (b) of section 5111.2445165.25 of 21361
the Revised Code. A survey that is to include information obtained 21362
from the families of nursing facility residents shall include the 21363
questions specified in divisions (C)(8)(a) and (b) and (19) and 21364
(D)(8)(a) and (b) of section 5111.2445165.25 of the Revised Code.21365

        (B) Each long-term care facility shall cooperate in the 21366
conduct of its annual customer satisfaction survey.21367

       Sec. 173.48. (A)(1) The department of aging may charge annual 21368
fees to long-term care facilities for the publication of the Ohio 21369
long-term care consumer guide. The department may contract with 21370
any person or government entity to collect the fees on its behalf. 21371
All fees collected under this section shall be deposited in 21372
accordance with division (B) of this section.21373

        (2) The annual fees charged under this section shall not 21374
exceed the following amounts:21375

       (a) Six hundred fifty dollars for each long-term care 21376
facility that is a nursing home;21377

        (b) Three hundred dollars for each long-term care facility 21378
that is a residential care facility.21379

       (3) Fees paid by a long-term care facility that is a nursing 21380
facility shall be reimbursed through the medicaid program operated 21381
under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code.21382

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 21383
long-term care consumer guide fund. Money collected from the fees 21384
charged for the publication of the Ohio long-term care consumer 21385
guide under division (A) of this section shall be credited to the 21386
fund. The department shall use money in the fund for costs 21387
associated with publishing the Ohio long-term care consumer guide, 21388
including, but not limited to, costs incurred in conducting or 21389
providing for the conduct of customer satisfaction surveys.21390

       Sec. 173.50. (A) Pursuant to a contract entered into with the 21391
department of job and family servicesmedicaid as an interagency 21392
agreement under section 5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code, the 21393
department of aging shall carry out the day-to-day administration 21394
of the component of the medicaid program established under Chapter 21395
5111. of the Revised Code known as the program of all-inclusive 21396
care for the elderly or PACE. The department of aging shall carry 21397
out its PACE administrative duties in accordance with the 21398
provisions of the interagency agreement and all applicable federal 21399
laws, including the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965)21400
section 1934, 42 U.S.C. 1396u-4, as amended.21401

       (B) The departmentTo the extent authorized by rules 21402
authorized by section 5162.021 of the Revised Code, the director21403
of aging may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 21404
Revised Code regarding the PACE program, including rules 21405
establishing priorities for enrolling in the program pursuant to 21406
section 173.501 of the Revised Code. The department's rules are 21407
subject to both of the following:21408

       (1) The rules shall be authorized by rules adopted by the 21409
department of job and family services.21410

       (2) The rules shall address only those issues that are not 21411
addressed in rules adopted by the department of job and family 21412
servicesmedicaid director for the PACE program.21413

       Sec. 173.501.  (A) As used in this section:21414

        "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5111.2021415
5165.01 of the Revised Code.21416

       "PACE provider" has the same meaning as in the "Social 21417
Security Act," section 1934(a)(3), 42 U.S.C. 1396u-4(a)(3).21418

       (B) The department of aging shall establish a home first 21419
component of the PACE program under which eligible individuals may 21420
be enrolled in the PACE program in accordance with this section. 21421
An individual is eligible for the PACE program's home first 21422
component if both of the following apply:21423

       (1) The individual has been determined to be eligible for the 21424
PACE program.21425

       (2) At least one of the following applies:21426

       (a) The individual has been admitted to a nursing facility.21427

       (b) A physician has determined and documented in writing that 21428
the individual has a medical condition that, unless the individual 21429
is enrolled in home and community-based services such as the PACE 21430
program, will require the individual to be admitted to a nursing 21431
facility within thirty days of the physician's determination.21432

       (c) The individual has been hospitalized and a physician has 21433
determined and documented in writing that, unless the individual 21434
is enrolled in home and community-based services such as the PACE 21435
program, the individual is to be transported directly from the 21436
hospital to a nursing facility and admitted.21437

       (d) Both of the following apply:21438

       (i) The individual is the subject of a report made under 21439
section 5101.61 of the Revised Code regarding abuse, neglect, or 21440
exploitation or such a report referred to a county department of 21441
job and family services under section 5126.31 of the Revised Code 21442
or has made a request to a county department for protective 21443
services as defined in section 5101.60 of the Revised Code.21444

       (ii) A county department of job and family services and an 21445
area agency on aging have jointly documented in writing that, 21446
unless the individual is enrolled in home and community-based 21447
services such as the PACE program, the individual should be 21448
admitted to a nursing facility.21449

       (C) Each month, the department of aging shall identify 21450
individuals who are eligible for the home first component of the 21451
PACE program. When the department identifies such an individual, 21452
the department shall notify the PACE provider serving the area in 21453
which the individual resides. The PACE provider shall determine 21454
whether the PACE program is appropriate for the individual and 21455
whether the individual would rather participate in the PACE 21456
program than continue or begin to reside in a nursing facility. If 21457
the PACE provider determines that the PACE program is appropriate 21458
for the individual and the individual would rather participate in 21459
the PACE program than continue or begin to reside in a nursing 21460
facility, the PACE provider shall so notify the department of 21461
aging. On receipt of the notice from the PACE provider, the 21462
department of aging shall approve the individual's enrollment in 21463
the PACE program in accordance with priorities established in 21464
rules adopted under section 173.50 of the Revised Code. 21465

       Sec. 173.51.  As used in sections 173.51 to 173.56 of the 21466
Revised Code:21467

       "Area agency on aging" has the same meaning as in section 21468
173.14 of the Revised Code.21469

       "Assisted living program" means the program that consists of 21470
a medicaid-funded component created under section 173.54 of the 21471
Revised Code and a state-funded component created under section 21472
173.543 of the Revised Code and provides assisted living services 21473
to individuals who meet the program's applicable eligibility 21474
requirements.21475

       "Assisted living services" means the following home and 21476
community-based services: personal care, homemaker, chore, 21477
attendant care, companion, medication oversight, and therapeutic 21478
social and recreational programming.21479

       "Assisted living waiver" means the federal medicaid waiver 21480
granted by the United States secretary of health and human 21481
services that authorizes the medicaid-funded component of the 21482
assisted living program.21483

       "Choices program" means the program created under section 21484
173.53 of the Revised Code.21485

       "County or district home" means a county or district home 21486
operated under Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code.21487

       "Long-term care consultation program" means the program the 21488
department of aging is required to develop under section 173.42 of 21489
the Revised Code.21490

       "Long-term care consultation program administrator" or 21491
"administrator" means the department of aging or, if the 21492
department contracts with an area agency on aging or other entity 21493
to administer the long-term care consultation program for a 21494
particular area, that agency or entity.21495

       "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 21496
section 5166.01 of the Revised Code.21497

       "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5165.01 21498
of the Revised Code.21499

       "PASSPORT administrative agency" has the same meaning as in 21500
section 173.42 of the Revised Code.21501

       "PASSPORT program" means the preadmission screening system 21502
providing options and resources today program (PASSPORT) that 21503
consists of a medicaid-funded component created under section 21504
173.52 of the Revised Code and a state-funded component created 21505
under section 173.522 of the Revised Code and provides home and 21506
community-based services as an alternative to nursing facility 21507
placement for individuals who are aged and disabled and meet the 21508
program's applicable eligibility requirements.21509

       "PASSPORT region" means a group of contiguous counties served 21510
by an individual PASSPORT administrative agency.21511

       "PASSPORT waiver" means the federal medicaid waiver granted 21512
by the United States secretary of health and human services that 21513
authorizes the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program.21514

       "Representative" means a person acting on behalf of an 21515
applicant for the medicaid-funded component or state-funded 21516
component of the assisted living program. A representative may be 21517
a family member, attorney, hospital social worker, or any other 21518
person chosen to act on behalf of an applicant.21519

       "Residential care facility" has the same meaning as in 21520
section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.21521

       "Unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver 21522
component" means the medicaid waiver component authorized by 21523
section 5166.14 of the Revised Code.21524

       Sec. 173.40.        Sec. 173.52.  (A) As used in sections 173.40 to 21525
173.402 of the Revised Code:21526

       "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 21527
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.21528

       "PASSPORT program" means the program created under this 21529
section.21530

       "PASSPORT waiver" means the federal medicaid waiver granted 21531
by the United States secretary of health and human services that 21532
authorizes the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program.21533

       "Unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver 21534
component" means the medicaid waiver component authorized by 21535
section 5111.864 of the Revised Code.21536

       (B) There is hereby createdThe department of medicaid shall 21537
create the medicaid-funded component of the preadmission screening 21538
system providing options and resources today program, or PASSPORT 21539
program. The PASSPORT program shall provide home and 21540
community-based services as an alternative to nursing facility 21541
placement for individuals who are aged and disabled and meet the 21542
program's applicable eligibility requirements. Subject to division 21543
(C) of this section, the program shall have a medicaid-funded 21544
component and a state-funded component.In creating the 21545
medicaid-funded component, the department of medicaid shall 21546
collaborate with the department of aging.21547

       (C)(1)(B) Unless the medicaid-funded component of the 21548
PASSPORT program is terminated under division (C)(2) of this 21549
section, all of the following apply:21550

       (a)(1) The department of aging shall administer the 21551
medicaid-funded component through a contract entered into with the 21552
department of job and family servicesmedicaid under section 21553
5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code.21554

       (b)(2) The medicaid-funded component shall be operated as a 21555
separate medicaid waiver component. 21556

       (c)(3) For an individual to be eligible for the 21557
medicaid-funded component, the individual must be a medicaid 21558
recipient and meet the additional eligibility requirements 21559
applicable to the individual established in rules adopted under 21560
division (C)(1)(d)(B)(4) of this section.21561

       (d) The director of job and family services shall adopt(4) 21562
To the extent authorized by rules underauthorization by section 21563
5111.855162.021 of the Revised Code and, the director of aging 21564
shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 21565
Code to implement the medicaid-funded component.21566

       (2)(C) If the unified long-term services and support medicaid 21567
waiver component is created, the departments of aging and job and 21568
family servicesmedicaid shall work together to determine whether 21569
the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program should 21570
continue to operate as a separate medicaid waiver component or be 21571
terminated. If the departments determine that the medicaid-funded 21572
component of the PASSPORT program should be terminated, the 21573
medicaid-funded component shall cease to exist on a date the 21574
departments shall specify.21575

       (D)(1) The department of aging shall administer the 21576
state-funded component of the PASSPORT program. The state-funded 21577
component shall not be administered as part of the medicaid 21578
program.21579

       (2) For an individual to be eligible for the state-funded 21580
component, the individual must meet one of the following 21581
requirements and meet the additional eligibility requirements 21582
applicable to the individual established in rules adopted under 21583
division (D)(4) of this section:21584

       (a) The individual must have been enrolled in the 21585
state-funded component on September 1, 1991, (as the state-funded 21586
component was authorized by uncodified law in effect at that time) 21587
and have had one or more applications for enrollment in the 21588
medicaid-funded component (or, if the medicaid-funded component is 21589
terminated under division (C)(2) of this section, the unified 21590
long-term services and support medicaid waiver component) denied.21591

       (b) The individual must have had the individual's enrollment 21592
in the medicaid-funded component (or, if the medicaid-funded 21593
component is terminated under division (C)(2) of this section, the 21594
unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver component) 21595
terminated and the individual must still need the home and 21596
community-based services provided under the PASSPORT program to 21597
protect the individual's health and safety.21598

       (c) The individual must have an application for the 21599
medicaid-funded component (or, if the medicaid-funded component is 21600
terminated under division (C)(2) of this section, the unified 21601
long-term services and support medicaid waiver component) pending 21602
and the department or the department's designee must have 21603
determined that the individual meets the nonfinancial eligibility 21604
requirements of the medicaid-funded component (or, if the 21605
medicaid-funded component is terminated under division (C)(2) of 21606
this section, the unified long-term services and support medicaid 21607
waiver component) and not have reason to doubt that the individual 21608
meets the financial eligibility requirements of the 21609
medicaid-funded component (or, if the medicaid-funded component is 21610
terminated under division (C)(2) of this section, the unified 21611
long-term services and support medicaid waiver component).21612

       (3) An individual who is eligible for the state-funded 21613
component because the individual meets the requirement of division 21614
(D)(2)(c) of this section may participate in the component on that 21615
basis for not more than ninety days.21616

       (4) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 21617
with section 111.15 of the Revised Code to implement the 21618
state-funded component. The additional eligibility requirements 21619
established in the rules may vary for the different groups of 21620
individuals specified in divisions (D)(2)(a), (b), and (c) of this 21621
section.21622

       Sec. 173.401.        Sec. 173.521.  (A) As used in this section:21623

        "Area agency on aging" has the same meaning as in section 21624
173.14 of the Revised Code.21625

        "Long-term care consultation program" means the program the 21626
department of aging is required to develop under section 173.42 of 21627
the Revised Code.21628

        "Long-term care consultation program administrator" or 21629
"administrator" means the department of aging or, if the 21630
department contracts with an area agency on aging or other entity 21631
to administer the long-term care consultation program for a 21632
particular area, that agency or entity.21633

        "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5111.20 21634
of the Revised Code.21635

       (B) SubjectUnless the medicaid-funded component of the 21636
PASSPORT program is terminated pursuant to division (C)(2) of 21637
section 173.40173.52 of the Revised Code, the department shall 21638
establish a home first component of the PASSPORT program under 21639
which eligible individuals may be enrolled in the medicaid-funded 21640
component of the PASSPORT program in accordance with this section. 21641
An individual is eligible for the PASSPORT program's home first 21642
component if both of the following apply:21643

       (1) The individual has been determined to be eligible for the 21644
medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program.21645

       (2) At least one of the following applies:21646

       (a) The individual has been admitted to a nursing facility.21647

       (b) A physician has determined and documented in writing that 21648
the individual has a medical condition that, unless the individual 21649
is enrolled in home and community-based services such as the 21650
PASSPORT program, will require the individual to be admitted to a 21651
nursing facility within thirty days of the physician's 21652
determination.21653

       (c) The individual has been hospitalized and a physician has 21654
determined and documented in writing that, unless the individual 21655
is enrolled in home and community-based services such as the 21656
PASSPORT program, the individual is to be transported directly 21657
from the hospital to a nursing facility and admitted.21658

       (d) Both of the following apply:21659

       (i) The individual is the subject of a report made under 21660
section 5101.61 of the Revised Code regarding abuse, neglect, or 21661
exploitation or such a report referred to a county department of 21662
job and family services under section 5126.31 of the Revised Code 21663
or has made a request to a county department for protective 21664
services as defined in section 5101.60 of the Revised Code.21665

       (ii) A county department of job and family services and an 21666
area agency on aging have jointly documented in writing that, 21667
unless the individual is enrolled in home and community-based 21668
services such as the PASSPORT program, the individual should be 21669
admitted to a nursing facility.21670

       (C)(B) Each month, each area agency on aging shall identify 21671
individuals residing in the area that the agency serves who are 21672
eligible for the home first component of the PASSPORT program. 21673
When an area agency on aging identifies such an individual, the 21674
agency shall notify the long-term care consultation program 21675
administrator serving the area in which the individual resides. 21676
The administrator shall determine whether the PASSPORT program is 21677
appropriate for the individual and whether the individual would 21678
rather participate in the PASSPORT program than continue or begin 21679
to reside in a nursing facility. If the administrator determines 21680
that the PASSPORT program is appropriate for the individual and 21681
the individual would rather participate in the PASSPORT program 21682
than continue or begin to reside in a nursing facility, the 21683
administrator shall so notify the department of aging. On receipt 21684
of the notice from the administrator, the department shall approve 21685
the individual's enrollment in the medicaid-funded component of 21686
the PASSPORT program regardless of the unified waiting list 21687
established under section 173.404173.55 of the Revised Code, 21688
unless the enrollment would cause the component to exceed any 21689
limit on the number of individuals who may be enrolled in the 21690
component as set by the United States secretary of health and 21691
human services in the PASSPORT waiver.21692

       Sec. 173.522.  (A) The department of aging shall create and 21693
administer the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program. The 21694
state-funded component shall not be administered as part of the 21695
medicaid program.21696

       (B) For an individual to be eligible for the state-funded 21697
component of the PASSPORT program, the individual must meet one of 21698
the following requirements and meet the additional eligibility 21699
requirements applicable to the individual established in rules 21700
adopted under division (D) of this section:21701

       (1) The individual must have been enrolled in the 21702
state-funded component on September 1, 1991, (as the state-funded 21703
component was authorized by uncodified law in effect at that time) 21704
and have had one or more applications for enrollment in the 21705
medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program (or, if the 21706
medicaid-funded component is terminated under division (C) of 21707
section 173.52 of the Revised Code, the unified long-term services 21708
and support medicaid waiver component) denied.21709

       (2) The individual must have had the individual's enrollment 21710
in the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program (or, if 21711
the medicaid-funded component is terminated under division (C) of 21712
section 173.52 of the Revised Code, the unified long-term services 21713
and support medicaid waiver component) terminated and the 21714
individual must still need the home and community-based services 21715
provided under the PASSPORT program to protect the individual's 21716
health and safety.21717

       (3) The individual must have an application for the 21718
medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program (or, if the 21719
medicaid-funded component is terminated under division (C) of 21720
section 173.52 of the Revised Code, the unified long-term services 21721
and support medicaid waiver component) pending and the department 21722
or the department's designee must have determined that the 21723
individual meets the nonfinancial eligibility requirements of the 21724
medicaid-funded component (or, if the medicaid-funded component is 21725
terminated under division (C) of section 173.52 of the Revised 21726
Code, the unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver 21727
component) and not have reason to doubt that the individual meets 21728
the financial eligibility requirements of the medicaid-funded 21729
component (or, if the medicaid-funded component is terminated 21730
under division (C) of section 173.52 of the Revised Code, the 21731
unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver component).21732

       (C) An individual who is eligible for the state-funded 21733
component of the PASSPORT program because the individual meets the 21734
requirement of division (B)(3) of this section may participate in 21735
the component on that basis for not more than ninety days.21736

       (D) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 21737
with section 111.15 of the Revised Code to implement the 21738
state-funded component of the PASSPORT program. The additional 21739
eligibility requirements established in the rules may vary for the 21740
different groups of individuals specified in divisions (B)(1), 21741
(2), and (3) of this section.21742

       Sec. 173.523. (A) An individual who is an applicant for or 21743
participant or former participant in the state-funded component of 21744
the PASSPORT program may appeal an adverse action taken or 21745
proposed to be taken by the department of aging or an entity 21746
designated by the department concerning participation in or 21747
services provided under the component if the action will result in 21748
any of the following:21749

       (1) Denial of enrollment or continued enrollment in the 21750
component;21751

       (2) Denial of or reduction in the amount of services 21752
requested by or offered to the individual under the component;21753

       (3) Assessment of any patient liability payment pursuant to 21754
rules adopted by the department under this section.21755

       The appeal shall be made in accordance with section 173.56 of 21756
the Revised Code and rules adopted pursuant to that section.21757

       (B) An individual who is an applicant for or participant or 21758
former participant in the state-funded component of the PASSPORT 21759
program may not bring an appeal under this or any other section of 21760
the Revised Code if any of the following is the case:21761

       (1) The individual has voluntarily withdrawn the application 21762
for enrollment in the component;21763

       (2) The individual has voluntarily terminated enrollment in 21764
the component;21765

       (3) The individual agrees with the action being taken or 21766
proposed;21767

       (4) The individual fails to submit a written request for a 21768
hearing to the director of aging within the time specified in the 21769
rules adopted pursuant to section 173.56 of the Revised Code;21770

       (5) The individual has received services under the component 21771
for the maximum time permitted by this section. 21772

       Sec. 173.402.        Sec. 173.524. An individual enrolled in the PASSPORT 21773
program may request that home-delivered meals provided to the 21774
individual under the PASSPORT program be kosher. If such a request 21775
is made, the department of aging or the department's designee 21776
shall ensure that each home-delivered meal provided to the 21777
individual under the PASSPORT program is kosher. In complying with 21778
this requirement, the department or department's designee shall 21779
require each entity that provides home-delivered meals to the 21780
individual to provide the individual with meals that meet, as much 21781
as possible, the requirements established in rules adopted under 21782
section 173.40sections 173.52 and 173.522 of the Revised Code 21783
governing the home-delivered meal service while complying with 21784
kosher practices for meal preparation and dietary restrictions.21785

       An entity that provides a kosher home-delivered meal to a 21786
PASSPORT program enrollee pursuant to this section shall be 21787
reimbursed for the meal at a rate equal to the rate for 21788
home-delivered meals furnished to PASSPORT program enrollees 21789
requiring a therapeutic diet.21790

       Sec. 173.525. (A) The PASSPORT program shall include a 21791
structured family caregiver component as a pilot program in three 21792
rural PASSPORT regions under which an individual enrolled in the 21793
PASSPORT program may choose a family member to provide the 21794
individual home and community-based services that the individual 21795
receives under the PASSPORT program. A family member must do all 21796
of the following to be eligible to be a family caregiver under the 21797
PASSPORT program:21798

        (1) Complete all the training, obtain all required 21799
credentials, and satisfy all other applicable requirements to be a 21800
PASSPORT provider;21801

        (2) Arrange for an agency that is a PASSPORT provider to do 21802
all of the following:21803

        (a) Assist the family member with the requirements to be a 21804
family caregiver;21805

       (b) Provide or arrange professional staff training to or for 21806
the family member;21807

        (c) If possible, include the family member in electronic 21808
records used for the PASSPORT program;21809

        (d) Provide professional staff support that is appropriate 21810
for the PASSPORT enrollee's care needs to the enrollee for whom 21811
the family member serves as a family caregiver.21812

       (3) Comply with any other applicable requirements specified 21813
in rules adopted under sections 173.52 and 173.522 of the Revised 21814
Code.21815

        (B) An individual may serve as the family caregiver for not 21816
more than two PASSPORT enrollees. A family caregiver may provide 21817
home and community-based services covered by the PASSPORT program 21818
in the home of either the caregiver or the PASSPORT enrollee.21819

        (C) The structured family caregiver component of the PASSPORT 21820
program shall be available as a pilot program in three rural 21821
PASSPORT regions not later than January 1, 2014. The payment rate 21822
for the component shall be adequate to pay the family caregiver a 21823
stipend and reimburse the agency provider for the costs of 21824
providing professional staff support pursuant to division 21825
(A)(2)(d) of this section.21826

       Sec. 173.403.        Sec. 173.53.  (A) As used in this section:21827

       "Choices program" means the program created under this 21828
section.21829

       "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 21830
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.21831

       "Unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver 21832
component" means the medicaid waiver component authorized by 21833
section 5111.864 of the Revised Code.21834

       (B) Subject to division (C) of this section, there is hereby 21835
createdThe department of medicaid shall create the choices 21836
program. In creating the choices program, the department of 21837
medicaid shall collaborate with the department of aging. Subject 21838
to division (B) of this section:21839

       (1) The choices program shall provide home and 21840
community-based services. The;21841

       (2) The department of aging shall administer the choices21842
program through a contract entered into with the department of 21843
job and family servicesmedicaid under section 5111.915162.35 of 21844
the Revised Code. Subject to federal approval, the;21845

       (3) The choices program shall be available statewide.21846

       (C)(B) If the unified long-term services and support medicaid 21847
waiver component is created, the departments of aging and job and 21848
family servicesmedicaid shall work togethercollaborate to 21849
determine whether the choices program should continue to operate 21850
as a separate medicaid waiver component or be terminated. If the 21851
departments determine that the choices program should be 21852
terminated, the program shall cease to exist on a date the 21853
departments shall specify.21854

       (C) If the choices program is terminated pursuant to division 21855
(B) of this section or for another reason, not sooner than six 21856
months before the date on which the program ceases to exist, the 21857
director of aging may do both of the following:21858

       (1) Suspend new enrollments in the choices program;21859

       (2) Transfer participants of the choices program to the 21860
following:21861

       (a) Except as provided in division (C)(2)(b) of this section, 21862
the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program created 21863
under section 173.52 of the Revised Code;21864

       (b) If the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program 21865
is terminated pursuant to division (C) of section 173.52 of the 21866
Revised Code, the unified long-term services and support medicaid 21867
waiver component.21868

       Sec. 5111.89.        Sec. 173.54.  (A) As used in sections 5111.89 to 21869
5111.894 of the Revised Code:21870

       "Area agency on aging" has the same meaning as in section 21871
173.14 of the Revised Code.21872

       "Assisted living program" means the program created under 21873
this section.21874

       "Assisted living services" means the following home and 21875
community-based services: personal care, homemaker, chore, 21876
attendant care, companion, medication oversight, and therapeutic 21877
social and recreational programming.21878

       "Assisted living waiver" means the federal medicaid waiver 21879
granted by the United States secretary of health and human 21880
services that authorizes the medicaid-funded component of the 21881
assisted living program.21882

       "County or district home" means a county or district home 21883
operated under Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code.21884

       "Long-term care consultation program" means the program the 21885
department of aging is required to develop under section 173.42 of 21886
the Revised Code.21887

       "Long-term care consultation program administrator" or 21888
"administrator" means the department of aging or, if the 21889
department contracts with an area agency on aging or other entity 21890
to administer the long-term care consultation program for a 21891
particular area, that agency or entity.21892

       "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 21893
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.21894

       "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5111.20 21895
of the Revised Code.21896

       "Residential care facility" has the same meaning as in 21897
section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.21898

       "Unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver 21899
component" means the medicaid waiver component authorized by 21900
section 5111.864 of the Revised Code.21901

       (B) There is hereby createdThe department of medicaid shall 21902
create the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living 21903
program. The program shall provide assisted living services to 21904
individuals who meet the program's applicable eligibility 21905
requirements. Subject to division (C) of this section, the program 21906
shall have a medicaid-funded component and a state-funded 21907
componentIn creating the medicaid-funded component, the 21908
department of medicaid shall collaborate with the department of 21909
aging.21910

       (C)(1)(B) Unless the medicaid-funded component of the 21911
assisted living program is terminated under division (C)(2) of 21912
this section, all of the following apply:21913

       (a)(1) The department of aging shall administer the 21914
medicaid-funded component through a contract entered into with the 21915
department of job and family servicesmedicaid under section 21916
5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code.21917

       (b)(2) The contract shall include an estimate of the 21918
medicaid-funded component's costs. 21919

       (c)(3) The medicaid-funded component shall be operated as a 21920
separate medicaid waiver component. 21921

       (d)(4) The medicaid-funded component may not serve more 21922
individuals than is set by the United States secretary of health 21923
and human services in the assisted living waiver.21924

       (e) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 21925
under section 5111.85 of the Revised Code regarding the 21926
medicaid-funded component.21927

       (f) The(5) To the extent authorized by rules authorized by 21928
section 5162.021 of the Revised Code, the director of aging may 21929
adopt rules under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code regarding the 21930
medicaid-funded component that the rules adopted by the director 21931
of job and family services under division (C)(1)(e) of this 21932
section authorize the director of aging to adopt.21933

       (2)(C) If the unified long-term services and support medicaid 21934
waiver component is created, the departments of aging and job and 21935
family servicesmedicaid shall work togethercollaborate to 21936
determine whether the medicaid-funded component of the assisted 21937
living program should continue to operate as a separate medicaid 21938
waiver component or be terminated. If the departments determine 21939
that the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program 21940
should be terminated, the medicaid-funded component shall cease to 21941
exist on a date the departments shall specify.21942

       (D) The department of aging shall administer the state-funded 21943
component of the assisted living program. The state-funded 21944
component shall not be administered as part of the medicaid 21945
program.21946

       An individual who is eligible for the state-funded component 21947
may participate in the component for not more than ninety days.21948

       The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance with 21949
section 111.15 of the Revised Code to implement the state-funded 21950
component.21951

       Sec. 5111.891.        Sec. 173.541.  To be eligible for the 21952
medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program, an 21953
individual must meet all of the following requirements:21954

       (A) Need an intermediate level of care as determined under 21955
rule 5101:3-3-06by an assessment conducted under section 173.54621956
of the AdministrativeRevised Code;21957

       (B) While receiving assisted living services under the 21958
medicaid-funded component, reside in a residential care facility 21959
that is authorized by a valid medicaid provider agreement to 21960
participate in the component, including both of the following: 21961

       (1) A residential care facility that is owned or operated by 21962
a metropolitan housing authority that has a contract with the 21963
United States department of housing and urban development to 21964
receive an operating subsidy or rental assistance for the 21965
residents of the facility;21966

       (2) A county or district home licensed as a residential care 21967
facility. 21968

       (C) Meet all other eligibility requirements for the 21969
medicaid-funded component established in rules adopted pursuant to 21970
division (C) ofunder section 5111.89173.54 of the Revised Code.21971

       Sec. 5111.894.        Sec. 173.542.  (A) SubjectUnless the 21972
medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program is 21973
terminated pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 5111.89173.5421974
of the Revised Code, the department of aging shall establish a 21975
home first component of the assisted living program under which 21976
eligible individuals may be enrolled in the medicaid-funded 21977
component of the assisted living program in accordance with this 21978
section. An individual is eligible for the assisted living 21979
program's home first component if both of the following apply:21980

       (1) The individual has been determined to be eligible for the 21981
medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program.21982

       (2) At least one of the following applies:21983

       (a) The individual has been admitted to a nursing facility.21984

       (b) A physician has determined and documented in writing that 21985
the individual has a medical condition that, unless the individual 21986
is enrolled in home and community-based services such as the 21987
assisted living program, will require the individual to be 21988
admitted to a nursing facility within thirty days of the 21989
physician's determination.21990

       (c) The individual has been hospitalized and a physician has 21991
determined and documented in writing that, unless the individual 21992
is enrolled in home and community-based services such as the 21993
assisted living program, the individual is to be transported 21994
directly from the hospital to a nursing facility and admitted.21995

       (d) Both of the following apply:21996

       (i) The individual is the subject of a report made under 21997
section 5101.61 of the Revised Code regarding abuse, neglect, or 21998
exploitation or such a report referred to a county department of 21999
job and family services under section 5126.31 of the Revised Code 22000
or has made a request to a county department for protective 22001
services as defined in section 5101.60 of the Revised Code.22002

       (ii) A county department of job and family services and an 22003
area agency on aging have jointly documented in writing that, 22004
unless the individual is enrolled in home and community-based 22005
services such as the assisted living program, the individual 22006
should be admitted to a nursing facility.22007

       (B) Each month, each area agency on aging shall identify 22008
individuals residing in the area that the area agency on aging 22009
serves who are eligible for the home first component of the 22010
assisted living program. When an area agency on aging identifies 22011
such an individual and determines that there is a vacancy in a 22012
residential care facility participating in the medicaid-funded 22013
component of the assisted living program that is acceptable to the 22014
individual, the agency shall notify the long-term care 22015
consultation program administrator serving the area in which the 22016
individual resides. The administrator shall determine whether the 22017
assisted living program is appropriate for the individual and 22018
whether the individual would rather participate in the assisted 22019
living program than continue or begin to reside in a nursing 22020
facility. If the administrator determines that the assisted living 22021
program is appropriate for the individual and the individual would 22022
rather participate in the assisted living program than continue or 22023
begin to reside in a nursing facility, the administrator shall so 22024
notify the department of aging. On receipt of the notice from the 22025
administrator, the department shall approve the individual's 22026
enrollment in the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living 22027
program regardless of the unified waiting list established under 22028
section 173.404173.55 of the Revised Code, unless the enrollment 22029
would cause the component to exceed any limit on the number of 22030
individuals who may participate in the component as set by the 22031
United States secretary of health and human services in the 22032
assisted living waiver. 22033

       Sec. 173.543.  The department of aging shall create and 22034
administer the state-funded component of the assisted living 22035
program. The state-funded component shall not be administered as 22036
part of the medicaid program.22037

       An individual who is eligible for the state-funded component 22038
may participate in the component for not more than ninety days.22039

       The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance with 22040
section 111.15 of the Revised Code to implement the state-funded 22041
component.22042

       Sec. 5111.892.        Sec. 173.544. To be eligible for the state-funded 22043
component of the assisted living program, an individual must meet 22044
all of the following requirements:22045

       (A) The individual must need an intermediate level of care as 22046
determined under rule 5101:3-3-06by an assessment conducted under 22047
section 173.546 of the AdministrativeRevised Code;.22048

       (B) The individual must have an application for the 22049
medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program (or, if 22050
the medicaid-funded component is terminated under division (C)(2)22051
of section 5111.89173.54 of the Revised Code, the unified 22052
long-term services and support medicaid waiver component) pending 22053
and the department or the department's designee must have 22054
determined that the individual meets the nonfinancial eligibility 22055
requirements of the medicaid-funded component (or, if the 22056
medicaid-funded component is terminated under division (C)(2) of 22057
section 5111.89173.54 of the Revised Code, the unified long-term 22058
services and support medicaid waiver component) and not have 22059
reason to doubt that the individual meets the financial 22060
eligibility requirements of the medicaid-funded component (or, if 22061
the medicaid-funded component is terminated under division (C)(2)22062
of section 5111.89173.54 of the Revised Code, the unified 22063
long-term services and support medicaid waiver component).22064

       (C) While receiving assisted living services under the22065
state-funded component, the individual must reside in a 22066
residential care facility that is authorized by a valid provider 22067
agreement to participate in the component, including both of the 22068
following:22069

       (1) A residential care facility that is owned or operated by 22070
a metropolitan housing authority that has a contract with the 22071
United States department of housing and urban development to 22072
receive an operating subsidy or rental assistance for the 22073
residents of the facility;22074

       (2) A county or district home licensed as a residential care 22075
facility.22076

       (D) The individual must meet all other eligibility 22077
requirements for the state-funded component established in rules 22078
adopted under division (D) of section 5111.89173.54 of the 22079
Revised Code.22080

       Sec. 173.545. (A) An individual who is an applicant for or 22081
participant or former participant in the state-funded component of 22082
the assisted living program may appeal an adverse action taken or 22083
proposed to be taken by the department of aging or an entity 22084
designated by the department concerning participation in or 22085
services provided under the component if the action will result in 22086
any of the following:22087

       (1) Denial of enrollment or continued enrollment in the 22088
component; 22089

       (2) Denial of or reduction in the amount of services 22090
requested by or offered to the individual under the component;22091

       (3) Assessment of any patient liability payment pursuant to 22092
rules adopted by the department under this section.22093

       The appeal shall be made in accordance with section 173.56 of 22094
the Revised Code and rules adopted pursuant to that section.22095

       (B) An individual who is an applicant for or participant or 22096
former participant in the state-funded component of the assisted 22097
living program may not bring an appeal under this or any other 22098
section of the Revised Code if any of the following is the case:22099

       (1) The individual has voluntarily withdrawn the application 22100
for enrollment in the component;22101

       (2) The individual has voluntarily terminated enrollment in 22102
the component;22103

       (3) The individual agrees with the action being taken or 22104
proposed; 22105

       (4) The individual fails to submit a written request for a 22106
hearing to the director of aging within the time specified in the 22107
rules adopted pursuant to section 173.56 of the Revised Code;22108

       (5) The individual has received services under the component 22109
for the maximum time permitted by this section.22110

       Sec. 173.546.  (A) Each applicant for the assisted living 22111
program shall undergo an assessment to determine whether the 22112
applicant needs an intermediate level of care. The department of 22113
medicaid or an agency under contract pursuant to division (C) of 22114
this section shall conduct the assessment. The assessment may be 22115
performed concurrently with a long-term care consultation provided 22116
under section 173.42 of the Revised Code.22117

       (B) An applicant or applicant's representative has the right 22118
to appeal an assessment's findings. Section 5160.31 of the Revised 22119
Code applies to appeals regarding the medicaid-funded component of 22120
the assisted living program. The department or an agency under 22121
contract to conduct the assessment shall provide written notice of 22122
this right to the applicant or applicant's representative and the 22123
residential care facility in which the applicant intends to reside 22124
if enrolled in the assisted living program. The notice shall 22125
include an explanation of the appeal procedures. The department or 22126
agency under contract to conduct the assessment shall represent 22127
the state in any appeal of an assessment's findings.22128

       (C) The department may contract with one or more agencies to 22129
perform assessments under this section. A contract shall specify 22130
the agency's responsibilities regarding the assessments.22131

       Sec. 5111.893.        Sec. 173.547.  A residential care facility providing 22132
services covered by the assisted living program to an individual 22133
enrolled in the program shall have staff on-site twenty-four hours 22134
each day who are able to do all of the following:22135

       (A) Meet the scheduled and unpredicted needs of the 22136
individuals enrolled in the assisted living program in a manner 22137
that promotes the individuals' dignity and independence;22138

       (B) Provide supervision services for those individuals;22139

       (C) Help keep the individuals safe and secure.22140

       Sec. 173.404.        Sec. 173.55.  (A) As used in this section:22141

       (1) "Department of aging-administered medicaid waiver 22142
component" means each of the following:22143

       (a) The medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program 22144
created under section 173.40 of the Revised Code;22145

       (b) The choices program created under section 173.403 of the 22146
Revised Code;22147

       (c) The medicaid-funded component of the assisted living 22148
program created under section 5111.89 of the Revised Code.22149

       (2) "PACE program" means the component of the medicaid 22150
program the department of aging administers pursuant to section 22151
173.50 of the Revised Code.22152

       (B) If the department of aging determines that there are 22153
insufficient funds to enroll all individuals who have applied and 22154
been determined eligible for department of aging-administered 22155
medicaid waiver components and the PACE program, the department 22156
shall establish a unified waiting list for the components and 22157
program. Only individuals eligible for a department of 22158
aging-administered medicaid waiver component or the PACE program 22159
may be placed on the unified waiting list. An individual who may 22160
be enrolled in a department of aging-administered medicaid waiver 22161
component or the PACE program through a home first component 22162
established under section 173.401, 173.501, 173.521 or 5111.89422163
173.542 of the Revised Code may be so enrolled without being 22164
placed on the unified waiting list.22165

       Sec. 173.56.  (A) The department of aging shall adopt rules 22166
in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code governing 22167
appeals brought under section 173.523 or 173.545 of the Revised 22168
Code. The rules shall require notice and the opportunity for a 22169
hearing. The rules may allow an appeal hearing to be conducted by 22170
telephone and permit the department to record hearings conducted 22171
by telephone. Chapter 119. of the Revised Code applies to a 22172
hearing under section 173.523 or 173.545 of the Revised Code only 22173
to the extent provided in rules the department adopts under this 22174
section.22175

       (B) An appeal shall be commenced by submission of a written 22176
request for a hearing to the director of aging within the time 22177
specified in the rules adopted under this section. The hearing may 22178
be recorded, but neither the recording nor a transcript of the 22179
recording is part of the official record of the proceeding. The 22180
director shall notify the individual bringing the appeal of the 22181
director's decision and of the procedure for appealing the 22182
decision.22183

       (C) The director's decision may be appealed to a court of 22184
common pleas pursuant to section 119.12 of the Revised Code. The 22185
appeal shall be governed by that section except as follows:22186

       (1) The appeal shall be in the court of common pleas of the 22187
county in which the individual who brings the appeal resides or, 22188
if the individual does not reside in this state, to the Franklin 22189
county court of common pleas.22190

       (2) The notice of appeal must be mailed to the department and 22191
filed with the court not later than thirty days after the 22192
department mails notice of the director's decision. For good cause 22193
shown, the court may extend the time for mailing and filing the 22194
notice of appeal, but the time cannot exceed six months from the 22195
date the department mails the notice of the director's decision.22196

       (3) If an individual applies to the court for designation as 22197
an indigent and the court grants the application, the individual 22198
shall not be required to furnish the costs of the appeal.22199

       (4) The department is required to file a transcript of the 22200
testimony of the state hearing with the court only if the court 22201
orders that the transcript be filed. The court shall make such an 22202
order only if it finds that the department and the individual 22203
bringing the appeal are unable to stipulate to the facts of the 22204
case and that the transcript is essential to a determination of 22205
the appeal. The department shall file the transcript not later 22206
than thirty days after such an order is issued.22207

       Sec. 173.99.  (A) A long-term care provider, person employed 22208
by a long-term care provider, other entity, or employee of such 22209
other entity that violates division (C) of section 173.24 of the 22210
Revised Code is subject to a fine not to exceed one thousand 22211
dollars for each violation.22212

       (B) Whoever violates division (C) of section 173.23 of the 22213
Revised Code is guilty of registering a false complaint, a 22214
misdemeanor of the first degree.22215

       (C) A long-term care provider, other entity, or person 22216
employed by a long-term care provider or other entity that 22217
violates division (E) of section 173.19 of the Revised Code by 22218
denying a representative of the office of the state long-term care 22219
ombudspersonombudsman program the access required by that 22220
division is subject to a fine not to exceed five hundred dollars 22221
for each violation.22222

       (D) Whoever violates division (C) of section 173.44 of the 22223
Revised Code is subject to a fine of one hundred dollars.22224

       Sec. 175.04. (A) The governor shall appoint a chairperson 22225
from among the members. The agency members shall elect a member as 22226
vice-chairperson. The agency members may appoint other officers, 22227
who need not be members of the agency, as the agency deems 22228
necessary.22229

       (B) Six members of the agency constitute a quorum and the 22230
affirmative vote of six members is necessary for any action the 22231
agency takes. No vacancy in agency membership impairs the right of 22232
a quorum to exercise all of the agency's rights and perform all 22233
the agency's duties. Agency meetings may be held at any place 22234
within the state. Meetings shall comply with section 121.22 of the 22235
Revised Code.22236

       (C) The agency shall maintain accounting records in 22237
accordance with generally accepted accounting principals and other 22238
required accounting standards.22239

       (D) The agency shall develop policies and guidelines for the 22240
administration of its programs and annually shall conduct at least 22241
one public hearing to obtain input from any interested party 22242
regarding the administration of its programs. The hearing shall be 22243
held at a time and place as the agency determines and when a 22244
quorum of the agency is present.22245

       (E) The agency shall appoint committees and subcommittees 22246
comprised of members of the agency to handle matters it deems 22247
appropriate.22248

       (1) The agency shall adopt an annual plan to address this 22249
state's housing needs. The agency shall appoint an annual plan 22250
committee to develop the plan and present it to the agency for 22251
consideration.22252

        (2) The annual plan committee shall select an advisory board 22253
from a list of interested individuals the executive director 22254
provides or on its own recommendation. The advisory board shall 22255
provide input on the plan at committee meetings prior to the 22256
annual public hearing. At the public hearing, the committee shall 22257
discuss advisory board comments. The advisory board may include, 22258
but is not limited to, persons who represent state agencies, local 22259
governments, public corporations, nonprofit organizations, 22260
community development corporations, housing advocacy organizations 22261
for low- and moderate-income persons, realtors, syndicators, 22262
investors, lending institutions as recommended by a statewide 22263
banking organization, and other entities participating in the 22264
agency's programs.22265

       Each agency program that allows for loans to be made to 22266
finance housing for owner occupancy that benefits other than low- 22267
and moderate-income households, or for loans to be made to 22268
individuals under bonds issued pursuant to division (B) of section 22269
175.08 of the Revised Code, shall be presented to the advisory 22270
board and included in the annual plan as approved by the agency 22271
before the program's implementation.22272

       (F) The agency shall prepare an annual financial report 22273
describing its activities during the reporting year and submit 22274
that report in accordance with division (H) of this section and to 22275
the governor, the speaker of the house of representatives, and the 22276
president of the senate within three months after the end of the 22277
reporting year. The report shall include the agency's audited 22278
financial statements, prepared in accordance with generally 22279
accepted accounting principles and appropriate accounting 22280
standards.22281

       (G) The agency shall prepare an annual report of its programs 22282
describing how the programs have met this state's housing needs. 22283
The agency shall submit the report in accordance with division (H) 22284
of this section and to the governor, the speaker of the house of 22285
representatives, and the president of the senate within three 22286
months after the end of the reporting year.22287

       (H)(1) The agency shall submit, within a time frame agreed to 22288
by the agency and the chairs, the annual financial report 22289
described in division (F) of this section and the annual report of 22290
programs described in division (G) of this section to the chairs 22291
of the committees dealing with housing issues in the house of 22292
representatives and the senate.22293

       (2) Within forty-five days of issuance of the annual 22294
financial report, the agency shall cause the agency's executive 22295
director to appear in person before the committees described in 22296
division (H)(1) of this section to testify in regard to the 22297
financial report and the report of programs. The testimony shall 22298
include each of the following:22299

        (a) An overview of the annual plan adopted pursuant to 22300
division (E)(1) of this section;22301

        (b) An evaluation of whether the objectives in the annual 22302
plan were met through a comparison of the annual plan with the 22303
annual financial report and report of programs;22304

       (c) A complete listing of all business and contractual 22305
relationships between the agency and other entities and 22306
organizations that participated in agency programs during the 22307
fiscal year reported by the agency's annual financial report and 22308
report of programs.22309

       Sec. 187.10. (A) No person, with purpose to corrupt a 22310
director, officer, or employee of JobsOhio, shall promise, offer, 22311
or give any valuable thing or valuable benefit.22312

       (B) No person who is a director, officer, or employee of 22313
JobsOhio, either before or after being appointed, qualified, or 22314
employed in that capacity, shall knowingly solicit or accept for 22315
self or another person any valuable thing or valuable benefit to 22316
corrupt or improperly influence the person or another director, 22317
officer, or employee of JobsOhio with respect to the discharge of 22318
the person's or the other director's, officer's, or employee's 22319
duty.22320

       (C) Whoever violates division (A) or (B) of this section is 22321
guilty of the offense of bribery, as set forth in section 2921.02 22322
of the Revised Code. 22323

       Sec. 191.01.  As used in this chapter:22324

       (A) "Administrative safeguards," "availability," 22325
"confidentiality," "integrity," "physical safeguards," and 22326
"technical safeguards" have the same meanings as in 45 C.F.R. 22327
164.304.22328

        (B) "Business associate," "covered entity," "health plan," 22329
"individually identifiable health information," and "protected 22330
health information" have the same meanings as in 45 C.F.R. 22331
160.103.22332

       (C) "Executive director of the office of health 22333
transformation" or "executive director" means the executive 22334
director of the office of health transformation or the chief 22335
administrative officer of a successor governmental entity 22336
responsible for health system oversight in this state.22337

       (D) "Government program providing public benefits" means any 22338
program administered by a state agency that has been identified, 22339
pursuant to section 191.02 of the Revised Code, by the executive 22340
director of the office of health transformation in consultation 22341
with the individuals specified in that section. 22342

       (E) "Office of health transformation" means the office of 22343
health transformation created by executive order 2011-02K.22344

       (F) "Operating protocol" means a protocol adopted by the 22345
executive director of the office of health transformation or the 22346
executive director's designee under division (D) of section 191.06 22347
of the Revised Code.22348

       (G) "Participating agency" means a state agency that 22349
participates in a health transformation initiative as specified in 22350
the one or more operating protocols adopted for the initiative 22351
under division (D) of section 191.06 of the Revised Code.22352

       (H) "Personally identifiable information" means information 22353
that meets both of the following criteria: 22354

       (1) It identifies an individual or there is a reasonable 22355
basis to believe that it may be used to identify an individual;22356

       (2) It relates to an individual's eligibility for, 22357
application for, or receipt of public benefits from a government 22358
program providing public benefits.22359

       (I) "State agency" means each of the following:22360

       (1) The department of administrative services;22361

       (2) The department of aging;22362

       (2) The department of alcohol and drug addiction services;22363

       (3) The department of development services agency;22364

       (4) The department of developmental disabilities;22365

       (5) The department of education;22366

       (6) The department of health;22367

       (7) The department of insurance;22368

       (8) The department of job and family services;22369

       (9) The department of medicaid;22370

       (10) The department of mental healthmental health and 22371
addiction services;22372

       (10)(11) The department of rehabilitation and correction;22373

       (11)(12) The department of taxation;22374

       (12)(13) The department of veterans services;22375

       (13)(14) The department of youth services.22376

       (J) "Unsecured" has the same meaning as in 16 C.F.R. 318.2.22377

       Sec. 191.02.  The executive director of the office of health 22378
transformation, in consultation with all of the following 22379
individuals, shall identify each government program administered 22380
by a state agency that is to be considered a government program 22381
providing public benefits for purposes of section 191.04 of the 22382
Revised Code:22383

       (A) The director of administrative services;22384

       (B) The director of aging;22385

       (B) The director of alcohol and drug addiction services;22386

       (C) The director of development services;22387

       (D) The director of developmental disabilities;22388

       (E) The director of health;22389

       (F) The director of job and family services;22390

       (G) The director of medicaid;22391

       (H) The director of mental healthmental health and addiction 22392
services;22393

       (H)(I) The director of rehabilitation and correction;22394

       (I)(J) The director of veterans services;22395

       (J)(K) The director of youth services;22396

       (K)(L) The administratorexecutive director of the 22397
rehabilitation services commissionopportunities for Ohioans with 22398
disabilities agency;22399

       (L)(M) The administrator of workers' compensation;22400

       (M)(N) The superintendent of insurance;22401

       (N)(O) The superintendent of public instruction;22402

       (O)(P) The tax commissioner.22403

       Sec. 191.04.  (A) In accordance with federal laws governing 22404
the confidentiality of individually identifiable health 22405
information, including the "Health Insurance Portability and 22406
Accountability Act of 1996," 104 Pub. L. No. 191, 110 Stat. 2021, 22407
42 U.S.C. 1320d et seq., as amended, and regulations promulgated 22408
by the United States department of health and human services to 22409
implement the act, a state agency may exchange protected health 22410
information with another state agency relating to eligibility for 22411
or enrollment in a health plan or relating to participation in a 22412
government program providing public benefits if the exchange of 22413
information is necessary for either or both of the following:22414

       (1) Operating a health plan;22415

       (2) Coordinating, or improving the administration or 22416
management of, the health care-related functions of at least one 22417
government program providing public benefits.22418

       (B) For fiscal yearyears 2013, 2014, and 2015 only, a state 22419
agency also may exchange personally identifiable information with 22420
another state agency for purposes related to and in support of a 22421
health transformation initiative identified by the executive 22422
director of the office of health transformation pursuant to 22423
division (C) of section 191.06 of the Revised Code. 22424

       (C) With respect to a state agency that uses or discloses 22425
personally identifiable information, all of the following 22426
conditions apply:22427

       (1) The state agency shall use or disclose the information 22428
only as permitted or required by state and federal law. In 22429
addition, if the information is obtained during fiscal year 2013, 22430
2014, or 2015 from an exchange of personally identifiable 22431
information permitted under division (B) of this section, the 22432
agency shall also use or disclose the information in accordance 22433
with all operating protocols that apply to the use or disclosure. 22434

       (2) If the state agency is a state agency other than the 22435
department of job and family servicesmedicaid and it uses or 22436
discloses protected health information that is related to a 22437
medicaid recipient and obtained from the department of job and 22438
family servicesmedicaid or another agency operating a component 22439
of the medicaid program, the state agency shall comply with all 22440
state and federal laws that apply to the department of job and 22441
family servicesmedicaid when that department, as the state's 22442
single state agency to supervise the medicaid program as specified 22443
in section 5111.01 of the Revised Code, uses or discloses 22444
protected health information. 22445

       (3) A state agency shall implement administrative, physical, 22446
and technical safeguards for the purpose of protecting the 22447
confidentiality, integrity, and availability of personally 22448
identifiable information the creation, receipt, maintenance, or 22449
transmittal of which is affected or governed by this section. 22450

       (4) If a state agency discovers an unauthorized use or 22451
disclosure of unsecured protected health information or unsecured 22452
individually identifiable health information, the state agency 22453
shall, not later than seventy-two hours after the discovery, do 22454
all of the following:22455

       (a) Identify the individuals who are the subject of the 22456
protected health information or individually identifiable health 22457
information;22458

       (b) Report the discovery and the names of all individuals 22459
identified pursuant to division (C)(4)(a) of this section to all 22460
other state agencies and the executive director of the office of 22461
health transformation or the executive director's designee;22462

       (c) Mitigate, to the extent reasonably possible, any 22463
potential adverse effects of the unauthorized use or disclosure.22464

       (5) A state agency shall make available to the executive 22465
director of the office of health transformation or the executive 22466
director's designee, and to any other state or federal 22467
governmental entity required by law to have access on that 22468
entity's request, all internal practices, records, and 22469
documentation relating to personally identifiable information it 22470
receives, uses, or discloses that is affected or governed by this 22471
section.22472

       (6) On termination or expiration of an operating protocol and 22473
if feasible, a state agency shall return or destroy all personally 22474
identifiable information received directly from or received on 22475
behalf of another state agency. If the personally identifiable 22476
information is not returned or destroyed, the state agency 22477
maintaining the information shall extend the protections set forth 22478
in this section for as long as it is maintained.22479

       (7) If a state agency enters into a subcontract or, when 22480
required by 45 C.F.R. 164.502(e)(2), a business associate 22481
agreement, the subcontract or business associate agreement shall 22482
require the subcontractor or business associate to comply with the 22483
terms of this section as if the subcontractor or business 22484
associate were a state agency.22485

       Sec. 191.06.  (A) The provisions of this section shall apply 22486
only for fiscal yearyears 2013, 2014, and 2015.22487

       (B) The executive director of the office of health 22488
transformation or the executive director's designee may facilitate 22489
the coordination of operations and exchange of information between 22490
state agencies. The purpose of the executive director's authority 22491
under this section is to support agency collaboration for health 22492
transformation purposes, including modernization of the medicaid 22493
program, streamlining of health and human services programs in 22494
this state, and improving the quality, continuity, and efficiency 22495
of health care and health care support systems in this state.22496

       (C) In furtherance of the authority of the executive director 22497
of the office of health transformation under division (B) of this 22498
section, the executive director or the executive director's 22499
designee shall identify each health transformation initiative in 22500
this state that involves the participation of two or more state 22501
agencies and that permits or requires an interagency agreement to 22502
be entered into for purposes of specifying each participating 22503
agency's role in coordinating, operating, or funding the 22504
initiative, or facilitating the exchange of data or other 22505
information for the initiative. The executive director shall 22506
publish a list of the identified health transformation initiatives 22507
on the internet web site maintained by the office of health 22508
transformation.22509

       (D) For each health transformation initiative that is 22510
identified under division (C) of this section, the executive 22511
director or the executive director's designee shall, in 22512
consultation with each participating agency, adopt one or more 22513
operating protocols. Notwithstanding any law enacted by the 22514
general assembly or rule adopted by a state agency, the provisions 22515
in a protocol shall supersede any provisions in an interagency 22516
agreement, including an interagency agreement entered into under 22517
section 5101.10 or 5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code, that 22518
differ from the provisions of the protocol.22519

       (E)(1) An operating protocol adopted under division (D) of 22520
this section shall include both of the following:22521

       (a) All terms necessary to meet the requirements of "other 22522
arrangements" between a covered entity and a business associate 22523
that are referenced in 45 C.F.R. 164.314(a)(2)(ii);22524

       (b) If known, the date on which the protocol will terminate 22525
or expire.22526

       (2) In addition, a protocol may specify the extent to which 22527
each participating agency is responsible and accountable for 22528
completing the tasks necessary for successful completion of the 22529
initiative, including tasks relating to the following components 22530
of the initiative: 22531

       (a) Workflow;22532

       (b) Funding;22533

       (c) Exchange of data or other information that is 22534
confidential pursuant to state or federal law. 22535

       (F) An operating protocol adopted under division (D) of this 22536
section shall have the same force and effect as an interagency 22537
agreement or data sharing agreement, and each participating agency 22538
shall comply with it.22539

       (G) The director of job and family services shall determine 22540
whether a waiver of federal medicaid requirements or a medicaid 22541
state plan amendment is necessary to fulfill the requirements of 22542
this section. If the director determines a waiver or medicaid 22543
state plan amendment is necessary, the director shall apply to the 22544
United States secretary of health and human services for the 22545
waiver or amendment.22546

       Sec. 301.28.  (A) As used in this section:22547

       (1) "Financial transaction device" includes a credit card, 22548
debit card, charge card, or prepaid or stored value card, or 22549
automated clearinghouse network credit, debit, or e-check entry 22550
that includes, but is not limited to, accounts receivable and 22551
internet-initiated, point of purchase, and telephone-initiated 22552
applications or any other device or method for making an 22553
electronic payment or transfer of funds.22554

       (2) "County expenses" includes fees, costs, taxes, 22555
assessments, fines, penalties, payments, or any other expense a 22556
person owes or otherwise pays to a county office under the 22557
authority of a county official, other than dog registration and 22558
kennel fees required to be paid under Chapter 955. of the Revised 22559
Code. "County expenses" includes payment to a county office of 22560
money confiscated during the commitment of an individual to a 22561
county jail, of bail, of money for a prisoner's inmate account, 22562
and of money for goods and services obtained by or for the use of 22563
an individual incarcerated by a county sheriff.22564

       (3) "County official" includes the county auditor, county 22565
treasurer, county engineer, county recorder, county prosecuting 22566
attorney, county sheriff, county coroner, county park district and 22567
board of county commissioners, the clerk of the probate court, the 22568
clerk of the juvenile court, the clerks of court for all divisions 22569
of the courts of common pleas, and the clerk of the court of 22570
common pleas, the clerk of a county-operated municipal court, and 22571
the clerk of a county court.22572

       The term "county expenses" includes county expenses owed to 22573
the board of health of the general health district or a combined 22574
health district in the county. If the board of county 22575
commissioners authorizes county expenses to be paid by financial 22576
transaction devices under this section, then the board of health 22577
and the general health district and the combined health district 22578
may accept payments by financial transaction devices under this 22579
section as if the board were a "county official" and the district 22580
were a county office. However, in the case of a general health 22581
district formed by unification of general health districts under 22582
section 3709.10 of the Revised Code, this entitlement applies only 22583
if all the boards of county commissioners of all counties in the 22584
district have authorized payments to be accepted by financial 22585
transaction devices.22586

       (B) Notwithstanding any other section of the Revised Code and 22587
except as provided in division (D) of this section, a board of 22588
county commissioners may adopt a resolution authorizing the 22589
acceptance of payments by financial transaction devices for county 22590
expenses. The resolution shall include the following:22591

       (1) A specification of those county officials who, and of the 22592
county offices under those county officials that, are authorized 22593
to accept payments by financial transaction devices;22594

       (2) A list of county expenses that may be paid for through 22595
the use of a financial transaction device;22596

       (3) Specific identification of financial transaction devices 22597
that the board authorizes as acceptable means of payment for 22598
county expenses. Uniform acceptance of financial transaction 22599
devices among different types of county expenses is not required.22600

       (4) The amount, if any, authorized as a surcharge or 22601
convenience fee under division (E) of this section for persons 22602
using a financial transaction device. Uniform application of 22603
surcharges or convenience fees among different types of county 22604
expenses is not required.22605

       (5) A specific provision as provided in division (G) of this 22606
section requiring the payment of a penalty if a payment made by 22607
means of a financial transaction device is returned or dishonored 22608
for any reason.22609

       The board's resolution shall also designate the county 22610
treasurer as an administrative agent to solicit proposals, within 22611
guidelines established by the board in the resolution and in 22612
compliance with the procedures provided in division (C) of this 22613
section, from financial institutions, issuers of financial 22614
transaction devices, and processors of financial transaction 22615
devices, to make recommendations about those proposals to the 22616
board, and to assist county offices in implementing the county's 22617
financial transaction devices program. The county treasurer may 22618
decline this responsibility within thirty days after receiving a 22619
copy of the board's resolution by notifying the board in writing 22620
within that period. If the treasurer so notifies the board, the 22621
board shall perform the duties of the administrative agent.22622

       If the county treasurer is the administrative agent and fails 22623
to administer the county financial transaction devices program in 22624
accordance with the guidelines in the board's resolution, the 22625
board shall notify the treasurer in writing of the board's 22626
findings, explain the failures, and give the treasurer six months 22627
to correct the failures. If the treasurer fails to make the 22628
appropriate corrections within that six-month period, the board 22629
may pass a resolution declaring the board to be the administrative 22630
agent. The board may later rescind that resolution at its 22631
discretion.22632

       (C) The county shall follow the procedures provided in this 22633
division whenever it plans to contract with financial 22634
institutions, issuers of financial transaction devices, or 22635
processors of financial transaction devices for the purposes of 22636
this section. The administrative agent shall request proposals 22637
from at least three financial institutions, issuers of financial 22638
transaction devices, or processors of financial transaction 22639
devices, as appropriate in accordance with the resolution adopted 22640
under division (B) of this section. Prior to sending any financial 22641
institution, issuer, or processor a copy of any such request, the 22642
county shall advertise its intent to request proposals in a 22643
newspaper of general circulation in the county once a week for two 22644
consecutive weeks or as provided in section 7.16 of the Revised 22645
Code. The notice shall state that the county intends to request 22646
proposals; specify the purpose of the request; indicate the date, 22647
which shall be at least ten days after the second publication, on 22648
which the request for proposals will be mailed to financial 22649
institutions, issuers, or processors; and require that any 22650
financial institution, issuer, or processor, whichever is 22651
appropriate, interested in receiving the request for proposals 22652
submit written notice of this interest to the county not later 22653
than noon of the day on which the request for proposals will be 22654
mailed.22655

       Upon receiving the proposals, the administrative agent shall 22656
review them and make a recommendation to the board of county 22657
commissioners on which proposals to accept. The board of county 22658
commissioners shall consider the agent's recommendation and review 22659
all proposals submitted, and then may choose to contract with any 22660
or all of the entities submitting proposals, as appropriate. The 22661
board shall provide any financial institution, issuer, or 22662
processor that submitted a proposal, but with which the board does 22663
not enter into a contract, notice that its proposal is rejected. 22664
The notice shall state the reasons for the rejection, indicate 22665
whose proposals were accepted, and provide a copy of the terms and 22666
conditions of the successful bids.22667

       (D) A board of county commissioners adopting a resolution 22668
under this section shall send a copy of the resolution to each 22669
county official in the county who is authorized by the resolution 22670
to accept payments by financial transaction devices. After 22671
receiving the resolution and before accepting payments by 22672
financial transaction devices, a county official shall provide 22673
written notification to the board of county commissioners of the 22674
official's intent to implement the resolution within the 22675
official's office. Each county office subject to the board's 22676
resolution adopted under division (B) of this section may use only 22677
the financial institutions, issuers of financial transaction 22678
devices, and processors of financial transaction devices with 22679
which the board of county commissioners contracts, and each such 22680
office is subject to the terms of those contracts.22681

       If a county office under the authority of a county official 22682
is directly responsible for collecting one or more county expenses 22683
and the county official determines not to accept payments by 22684
financial transaction devices for one or more of those expenses, 22685
the office shall not be required to accept payments by financial 22686
transaction devices, notwithstanding the adoption of a resolution 22687
by the board of county commissioners under this section.22688

       Any office of a clerk of the court of common pleas that 22689
accepts financial transaction devices on or before July 1, 1999, 22690
and any other county office that accepted such devices before 22691
January 1, 1998, may continue to accept such devices without being 22692
subject to any resolution passed by the board of county 22693
commissioners under division (B) of this section, or any other 22694
oversight by the board of the office's financial transaction 22695
devices program. Any such office may use surcharges or convenience 22696
fees in any manner the county official in charge of the office 22697
determines to be appropriate, and, if the county treasurer 22698
consents, may appoint the county treasurer to be the office's 22699
administrative agent for purposes of accepting financial 22700
transaction devices. In order not to be subject to the resolution 22701
of the board of county commissioners adopted under division (B) of 22702
this section, a county office shall notify the board in writing 22703
within thirty days after March 30, 1999, that it accepted 22704
financial transaction devices prior to January 1, 1998, or, in the 22705
case of the office of a clerk of the court of common pleas, the 22706
clerk has accepted or will accept such devices on or before July 22707
1, 1999. Each such notification shall explain how processing costs 22708
associated with financial transaction devices are being paid and 22709
shall indicate whether surcharge or convenience fees are being 22710
passed on to consumers.22711

       (E) A board of county commissioners may establish a surcharge 22712
or convenience fee that may be imposed upon a person making 22713
payment by a financial transaction device. The surcharge or 22714
convenience fee shall not be imposed unless authorized or 22715
otherwise permitted by the rules prescribed by an agreement 22716
governing the use and acceptance of the financial transaction 22717
device.22718

       If a surcharge or convenience fee is imposed, every county 22719
office accepting payment by a financial transaction device, 22720
regardless of whether that office is subject to a resolution 22721
adopted by a board of county commissioners, shall clearly post a 22722
notice in that office and shall notify each person making a 22723
payment by such a device about the surcharge or fee. Notice to 22724
each person making a payment shall be provided regardless of the 22725
medium used to make the payment and in a manner appropriate to 22726
that medium. Each notice shall include all of the following:22727

       (1) A statement that there is a surcharge or convenience fee 22728
for using a financial transaction device;22729

       (2) The total amount of the charge or fee expressed in 22730
dollars and cents for each transaction, or the rate of the charge 22731
or fee expressed as a percentage of the total amount of the 22732
transaction, whichever is applicable;22733

       (3) A clear statement that the surcharge or convenience fee 22734
is nonrefundable.22735

       (F) If a person elects to make a payment to the county by a 22736
financial transaction device and a surcharge or convenience fee is 22737
imposed, the payment of the surcharge or fee shall be considered 22738
voluntary and the surcharge or fee is not refundable.22739

       (G) If a person makes payment by financial transaction device 22740
and the payment is returned or dishonored for any reason, the 22741
person is liable to the county for payment of a penalty over and 22742
above the amount of the expense due. The board of county 22743
commissioners shall determine the amount of the penalty, which may 22744
be either a fee not to exceed twenty dollars or payment of the 22745
amount necessary to reimburse the county for banking charges, 22746
legal fees, or other expenses incurred by the county in collecting 22747
the returned or dishonored payment. The remedies and procedures 22748
provided in this section are in addition to any other available 22749
civil or criminal remedies provided by law.22750

       (H) No person making any payment by financial transaction 22751
device to a county office shall be relieved from liability for the 22752
underlying obligation except to the extent that the county 22753
realizes final payment of the underlying obligation in cash or its 22754
equivalent. If final payment is not made by the financial 22755
transaction device issuer or other guarantor of payment in the 22756
transaction, the underlying obligation shall survive and the 22757
county shall retain all remedies for enforcement that would have 22758
applied if the transaction had not occurred.22759

       (I) A county official or employee who accepts a financial 22760
transaction device payment in accordance with this section and any 22761
applicable state or local policies or rules is immune from 22762
personal liability for the final collection of such payments.22763

       Sec. 305.23.  (A) As used in this section:22764

       (1) "County office" means the offices of the county 22765
commissioner, county auditor, county treasurer, county engineer, 22766
county recorder, county prosecuting attorney, county sheriff, 22767
county coroner, county park district, veterans service commission, 22768
clerk of the juvenile court, clerks of court for all divisions of 22769
the courts of common pleas, including the clerk of the court of 22770
common pleas, clerk of a county-operated municipal court, and 22771
clerk of a county court, and any agency, department, or division 22772
under the authority of, or receiving funding in whole or in part 22773
from, any of those county offices.22774

       (2) "Human resources" means any and all functions relating to 22775
human resource management, including civil service, employee 22776
benefits administration, collective bargaining, labor relations, 22777
risk management, workers' compensation, unemployment compensation, 22778
and any human resource management function required by state or 22779
federal law, but "human resources" does not authorize a board of 22780
county commissioners to adopt a resolution establishing a 22781
centralized human resource service that requires any county office 22782
to conform to any classification and compensation plan, position 22783
descriptions, or organizational structure; to determine the rate 22784
of compensation of any employee appointed by the appointing 22785
authority of a county office or the salary ranges for positions of 22786
a county office within the aggregate limits set in the 22787
appropriation resolution of the board of county commissioners; to 22788
determine the number of or the terms of employment of any employee 22789
appointed by the appointing authority of a county office within 22790
the aggregate limits set in the board's appropriation resolution; 22791
or to exercise powers relating to the hiring, qualifications, 22792
evaluation, suspension, demotion, disciplinary action, layoff, 22793
furloughing, establishment of a modified work-week schedule, or 22794
the termination of any employee appointed by the appointing 22795
authority of any county office.22796

       (B) Subject to division (C) of this section, a board of 22797
county commissioners may adopt a resolution establishing 22798
centralized purchasing, printing, transportation, vehicle 22799
maintenance, human resources, revenue collection, and mail 22800
operation services for a county office. Before adopting a 22801
resolution under this section, the board of county commissioners, 22802
in a written notice, shall inform any other county office that 22803
will be impacted by the resolution of the board's desire to 22804
establish a centralized service or services. The written notice 22805
shall include a statement that provides the rationale and the 22806
estimated savings anticipated for centralizing a service or 22807
services. In addition, the board may request any other county 22808
office to serve as the agent and responsible party for 22809
administering a centralized service or services. That county 22810
office may enter into an agreement with the board of county 22811
commissioners to administer the centralized service or services 22812
under such terms and conditions as are included in the agreement, 22813
but nothing in this section authorizes the board of county 22814
commissioners to require a county office to serve as the agent and 22815
responsible party for administering a centralized service or 22816
services at the board's request.22817

       A resolution establishing a centralized service or services 22818
shall specify all of the following:22819

       (1) The name of the county office that will be the agent and 22820
responsible party for administering a centralized service or 22821
services, and if the agent and responsible party is not the board 22822
of county commissioners, the designation of the county office that 22823
has entered into an agreement under division (B) of this section 22824
with the board to be the agent and responsible party;22825

       (2) Which county offices are required to use the centralized 22826
services;22827

       (3) If not all of the centralized services, which centralized 22828
service each county office must use;22829

       (4) A list of rates and charges the county office shall pay 22830
for the centralized services;22831

       (5) The date upon which each county office specified in the 22832
resolution shall begin using the centralized services.22833

       Not later than ten days after a resolution is adopted under 22834
this section, the clerk of the board of county commissioners shall 22835
send a copy of the resolution to each county office that is 22836
specified in the resolution.22837

       (C) A board of county commissioners shall not adopt a 22838
resolution that establishes a centralized service or services 22839
regarding any of the following:22840

       (1) Purchases made for contract services with moneys from the 22841
special fund designated as "generalcounty recorder's technology22842
fund moneys to supplement the equipment needs of the county 22843
recorder"established under section 317.321 of the Revised Code or 22844
from the funds that are paid out of the general fund of the county 22845
under sections 325.071 and 325.12 of the Revised Code;22846

       (2) Purchases made with moneys from the real estate 22847
assessment fund established under section 325.31 of the Revised 22848
Code;22849

       (3) Purchases of financial software used by the county 22850
auditor;22851

       (4) The printing of county property tax bills;22852

       (5) The collection of any taxes, assessments, and fees the 22853
county treasurer is required by law to collect;22854

       (6) Purchases of software used by the county recorder.22855

       (D) Nothing in this section authorizes the board of county 22856
commissioners to have control or authority over funds that are 22857
received directly by a county office under another section of the 22858
Revised Code, or to control, or have authority regarding, the 22859
expenditure or use of such funds.22860

       Sec. 306.35.  Upon the creation of a regional transit 22861
authority as provided by section 306.32 of the Revised Code, and 22862
upon the qualifying of its board of trustees and the election of a 22863
president and a vice-president, the authority shall exercise in 22864
its own name all the rights, powers, and duties vested in and 22865
conferred upon it by sections 306.30 to 306.53 of the Revised 22866
Code. Subject to any reservations, limitations, and qualifications 22867
that are set forth in those sections, the regional transit 22868
authority:22869

       (A) May sue or be sued in its corporate name;22870

       (B) May make contracts in the exercise of the rights, powers, 22871
and duties conferred upon it;22872

       (C) May adopt and at will alter a seal and use such seal by 22873
causing it to be impressed, affixed, reproduced, or otherwise 22874
used, but failure to affix the seal shall not affect the validity 22875
of any instrument;22876

       (D)(1) May adopt, amend, and repeal bylaws for the 22877
administration of its affairs and rules for the control of the 22878
administration and operation of transit facilities under its 22879
jurisdiction, and for the exercise of all of its rights of 22880
ownership in those transit facilities;22881

       (2) The regional transit authority also may adopt bylaws and 22882
rules for the following purposes:22883

       (a) To prohibit selling, giving away, or using any beer or 22884
intoxicating liquor on transit vehicles or transit property;22885

       (b) For the preservation of good order within or on transit 22886
vehicles or transit property;22887

       (c) To provide for the protection and preservation of all 22888
property and life within or on transit vehicles or transit 22889
property;22890

       (d) To regulate and enforce the collection of fares.22891

       (3) Before a bylaw or rule adopted under division (D)(2) of 22892
this section takes effect, the regional transit authority shall 22893
provide for a notice of its adoption to be published once a week 22894
for two consecutive weeks in a newspaper of general circulation 22895
within the territorial boundaries of the regional transit 22896
authority, or as provided in section 7.16 of the Revised Code.22897

       (4) No person shall violate any bylaw or rule of a regional 22898
transit authority adopted under division (D)(2) of this section.22899

       (E) May fix, alter, and collect fares, rates, and rentals and 22900
other charges for the use of transit facilities under its 22901
jurisdiction to be determined exclusively by it for the purpose of 22902
providing for the payment of the expenses of the regional transit 22903
authority, the acquisition, construction, improvement, extension, 22904
repair, maintenance, and operation of transit facilities under its 22905
jurisdiction, the payment of principal and interest on its 22906
obligations, and to fulfill the terms of any agreements made with 22907
purchasers or holders of any such obligations, or with any person 22908
or political subdivision;22909

       (F) Shall have jurisdiction, control, possession, and 22910
supervision of all property, rights, easements, licenses, moneys, 22911
contracts, accounts, liens, books, records, maps, or other 22912
property rights and interests conveyed, delivered, transferred, or 22913
assigned to it;22914

       (G)(1) Except as provided in division (G)(2) of this section, 22915
may acquire, construct, improve, extend, repair, lease, operate, 22916
maintain, or manage transit facilities within or without its 22917
territorial boundaries, considered necessary to accomplish the 22918
purposes of its organization and make charges for the use of 22919
transit facilities.22920

       (2) Beginning on July 1, 2011, aA regional transit authority 22921
shall not extend its service or facilities into a political 22922
subdivisionacquire, construct, improve, extend, repair, lease, 22923
operate, maintain, or manage transit facilities outside theits22924
territorial boundaries of the authority without giving prior22925
until:22926

       (a) It has provided written notice of its proposed action to 22927
the legislative authority of theany political subdivision. The 22928
legislative authority shall have thirty days after receiving the 22929
notice to comment on the proposalin which the action of the 22930
regional transit authority is proposed to take place; and 22931

       (b) It has received from each such affected political 22932
subdivision an agreement containing the terms and conditions for 22933
the regional transit authority action.22934

       (H) May levy and collect taxes as provided in sections 306.40 22935
and 306.49 of the Revised Code;22936

       (I) May issue bonds secured by its general credit as provided 22937
in section 306.40 of the Revised Code;22938

       (J) May hold, encumber, control, acquire by donation, by 22939
purchase for cash or by installment payments, by lease-purchase 22940
agreement, by lease with option to purchase, or by condemnation, 22941
and may construct, own, lease as lessee or lessor, use, and sell, 22942
real and personal property, or any interest or right in real and 22943
personal property, within or without its territorial boundaries, 22944
for the location or protection of transit facilities and 22945
improvements and access to transit facilities and improvements, 22946
the relocation of buildings, structures, and improvements situated 22947
on lands acquired by the regional transit authority, or for any 22948
other necessary purpose, or for obtaining or storing materials to 22949
be used in constructing, maintaining, and improving transit 22950
facilities under its jurisdiction;22951

       (K) May exercise the power of eminent domain to acquire 22952
property or any interest in property, within or without its 22953
territorial boundaries, that is necessary or proper for the 22954
construction or efficient operation of any transit facility or 22955
access to any transit facility under its jurisdiction in 22956
accordance with section 306.36 of the Revised Code;22957

       (L) May provide by agreement with any county, including the 22958
counties within its territorial boundaries, or any municipal 22959
corporation or any combination of counties or municipal 22960
corporations for the making of necessary surveys, appraisals, and 22961
examinations preliminary to the acquisition or construction of any 22962
transit facility and the amount of the expense for the surveys, 22963
appraisals, and examinations to be paid by each such county or 22964
municipal corporation;22965

       (M) May provide by agreement with any county, including the 22966
counties within its territorial boundaries, or any municipal 22967
corporation or any combination of those counties or municipal 22968
corporations for the acquisition, construction, improvement, 22969
extension, maintenance, or operation of any transit facility owned 22970
or to be owned and operated by it or owned or to be owned and 22971
operated by any such county or municipal corporation and the terms 22972
on which it shall be acquired, leased, constructed, maintained, or 22973
operated, and the amount of the cost and expense of the 22974
acquisition, lease, construction, maintenance, or operation to be 22975
paid by each such county or municipal corporation;22976

       (N) May issue revenue bonds for the purpose of acquiring, 22977
replacing, improving, extending, enlarging, or constructing any 22978
facility or permanent improvement that it is authorized to 22979
acquire, replace, improve, extend, enlarge, or construct, 22980
including all costs in connection with and incidental to the 22981
acquisition, replacement, improvement, extension, enlargement, or 22982
construction, and their financing, as provided by section 306.37 22983
of the Revised Code;22984

       (O) May enter into and supervise franchise agreements for the 22985
operation of a transit system;22986

       (P) May accept the assignment of and supervise an existing 22987
franchise agreement for the operation of a transit system;22988

       (Q) May exercise a right to purchase a transit system in 22989
accordance with the acquisition terms of an existing franchise 22990
agreement; and in connection with the purchase the regional 22991
transit authority may issue revenue bonds as provided by section 22992
306.37 of the Revised Code or issue bonds secured by its general 22993
credit as provided in section 306.40 of the Revised Code;22994

       (R) May apply for and accept grants or loans from the United 22995
States, the state, or any other public body for the purpose of 22996
providing for the development or improvement of transit 22997
facilities, mass transportation facilities, equipment, techniques, 22998
methods, or services, and grants or loans needed to exercise a 22999
right to purchase a transit system pursuant to agreement with the 23000
owner of those transit facilities, or for providing lawful 23001
financial assistance to existing transit systems; and may provide 23002
any consideration that may be required in order to obtain those 23003
grants or loans from the United States, the state, or other public 23004
body, either of which grants or loans may be evidenced by the 23005
issuance of revenue bonds as provided by section 306.37 of the 23006
Revised Code or general obligation bonds as provided by section 23007
306.40 of the Revised Code;23008

       (S) May employ and fix the compensation of consulting 23009
engineers, superintendents, managers, and such other engineering, 23010
construction, accounting and financial experts, attorneys, and 23011
other employees and agents necessary for the accomplishment of its 23012
purposes;23013

       (T) May procure insurance against loss to it by reason of 23014
damages to its properties resulting from fire, theft, accident, or 23015
other casualties or by reason of its liability for any damages to 23016
persons or property occurring in the construction or operation of 23017
transit facilities under its jurisdiction or the conduct of its 23018
activities;23019

       (U) May maintain funds that it considers necessary for the 23020
efficient performance of its duties;23021

       (V) May direct its agents or employees, when properly 23022
identified in writing, after at least five days' written notice, 23023
to enter upon lands within or without its territorial boundaries 23024
in order to make surveys and examinations preliminary to the 23025
location and construction of transit facilities, without liability 23026
to it or its agents or employees except for actual damage done;23027

       (W) On its own motion, may request the appropriate zoning 23028
board, as defined in section 4563.03 of the Revised Code, to 23029
establish and enforce zoning regulations pertaining to any transit 23030
facility under its jurisdiction in the manner prescribed by 23031
sections 4563.01 to 4563.21 of the Revised Code;23032

       (X) If it acquires any existing transit system, shall assume 23033
all the employer's obligations under any existing labor contract 23034
between the employees and management of the system. If the board 23035
acquires, constructs, controls, or operates any such facilities, 23036
it shall negotiate arrangements to protect the interests of 23037
employees affected by the acquisition, construction, control, or 23038
operation. The arrangements shall include, but are not limited to:23039

       (1) The preservation of rights, privileges, and benefits 23040
under existing collective bargaining agreements or otherwise, the 23041
preservation of rights and benefits under any existing pension 23042
plans covering prior service, and continued participation in 23043
social security in addition to participation in the public 23044
employees retirement system as required in Chapter 145. of the 23045
Revised Code;23046

       (2) The continuation of collective bargaining rights;23047

       (3) The protection of individual employees against a 23048
worsening of their positions with respect to their employment;23049

       (4) Assurances of employment to employees of those transit 23050
systems and priority reemployment of employees terminated or laid 23051
off;23052

       (5) Paid training or retraining programs;23053

       (6) Signed written labor agreements.23054

       The arrangements may include provisions for the submission of 23055
labor disputes to final and binding arbitration.23056

       (Y) May provide for and maintain security operations, 23057
including a transit police department, subject to section 306.352 23058
of the Revised Code. Regional transit authority police officers 23059
shall have the power and duty to act as peace officers within 23060
transit facilities owned, operated, or leased by the transit 23061
authority to protect the transit authority's property and the 23062
person and property of passengers, to preserve the peace, and to 23063
enforce all laws of the state and ordinances and regulations of 23064
political subdivisions in which the transit authority operates. 23065
Regional transit authority police officers also shall have the 23066
power and duty to act as peace officers when they render emergency 23067
assistance outside their jurisdiction to any other peace officer 23068
who is not a regional transit authority police officer and who has 23069
arrest authority under section 2935.03 of the Revised Code. 23070
Regional transit authority police officers may render emergency 23071
assistance if there is a threat of imminent physical danger to the 23072
peace officer, a threat of physical harm to another person, or any 23073
other serious emergency situation and if either the peace officer 23074
who is assisted requests emergency assistance or it appears that 23075
the peace officer who is assisted is unable to request emergency 23076
assistance and the circumstances observed by the regional transit 23077
authority police officer reasonably indicate that emergency 23078
assistance is appropriate.23079

       Before exercising powers of arrest and the other powers and 23080
duties of a peace officer, each regional transit authority police 23081
officer shall take an oath and give bond to the state in a sum 23082
that the board of trustees prescribes for the proper performance 23083
of the officer's duties.23084

       Persons employed as regional transit authority police 23085
officers shall complete training for the position to which they 23086
have been appointed as required by the Ohio peace officer training 23087
commission as authorized in section 109.77 of the Revised Code, or 23088
be otherwise qualified. The cost of the training shall be provided 23089
by the regional transit authority.23090

       (Z) May procure a policy or policies insuring members of its 23091
board of trustees against liability on account of damages or 23092
injury to persons and property resulting from any act or omission 23093
of a member in the member's official capacity as a member of the 23094
board or resulting solely out of the member's membership on the 23095
board;23096

       (AA) May enter into any agreement for the sale and leaseback 23097
or lease and leaseback of transit facilities, which agreement may 23098
contain all necessary covenants for the security and protection of 23099
any lessor or the regional transit authority including, but not 23100
limited to, indemnification of the lessor against the loss of 23101
anticipated tax benefits arising from acts, omissions, or 23102
misrepresentations of the regional transit authority. In 23103
connection with that transaction, the regional transit authority 23104
may contract for insurance and letters of credit and pay any 23105
premiums or other charges for the insurance and letters of credit. 23106
The fiscal officer shall not be required to furnish any 23107
certificate under section 5705.41 of the Revised Code in 23108
connection with the execution of any such agreement.23109

       (BB) In regard to any contract entered into on or after March 23110
19, 1993, for the rendering of services or the supplying of 23111
materials or for the construction, demolition, alteration, repair, 23112
or reconstruction of transit facilities in which a bond is 23113
required for the faithful performance of the contract, may permit 23114
the person awarded the contract to utilize a letter of credit 23115
issued by a bank or other financial institution in lieu of the 23116
bond;23117

       (CC) May enter into agreements with municipal corporations 23118
located within the territorial jurisdiction of the regional 23119
transit authority permitting regional transit authority police 23120
officers employed under division (Y) of this section to exercise 23121
full arrest powers, as provided in section 2935.03 of the Revised 23122
Code, for the purpose of preserving the peace and enforcing all 23123
laws of the state and ordinances and regulations of the municipal 23124
corporation within the areas that may be agreed to by the regional 23125
transit authority and the municipal corporation.23126

       Sec. 307.07.  (A) The board of county commissioners, by 23127
resolution, may create an office of economic development, to 23128
develop and promote plans and programs designed to assure that 23129
county resources are efficiently used, economic growth is properly 23130
balanced, and that county economic development is coordinated with 23131
that of the state and other local governments. For this purpose, 23132
the board may appropriate moneys from the county general fund, or, 23133
pursuant to section 307.64 of the Revised Code, moneys derived 23134
from a tax levied pursuant to division (EE) of section 5705.19 of 23135
the Revised Code, for the creation and operation of the office 23136
for, any economic development purpose of the office, and to 23137
provide for the establishment and operation of a program of 23138
economic development, including in support of a county land 23139
reutilization corporation organized under Chapter 1724. of the 23140
Revised Code. The board may hire a director of economic 23141
development, who shall be a member of the unclassified civil 23142
service, and fix the director's compensation; or may do any of the 23143
following:23144

       (1) Enter into an agreement with a county planning commission 23145
within the county, created under section 713.22 of the Revised 23146
Code, or a regional planning commission, created under section 23147
713.21 of the Revised Code, regardless of whether the county is a 23148
member of the commission, to carry out all of the functions and 23149
duties of a director of economic development under division (B) of 23150
this section. Any agreement shall set forth the procedure by which 23151
the county or regional planning commission shall gain the approval 23152
of the board of county commissioners for any actions, functions, 23153
and duties under division (B) of this section. Any agreement may 23154
continue in effect for a period of one to three years and may be 23155
renewed with the consent of all parties. The civil service status 23156
of planning commission staff shall not be affected by any 23157
agreement under this division.23158

       (2) Enter into an agreement with the Ohio cooperativeOSU23159
extension service, providing for the use of employees hired by the 23160
Ohio state university under section 3335.36 of the Revised Code to 23161
carry out all of the functions and duties of a director of 23162
economic development under division (B) of this section. Any 23163
agreement shall set forth the procedure by which the Ohio 23164
cooperativeOSU extension service shall gain the approval of the 23165
board of county commissioners for any actions, functions, and 23166
duties under division (B) of this section. Any agreement may 23167
continue in effect for a period of one to three years and may be 23168
renewed with the consent of all parties. The employment 23169
classification of Ohio cooperativeOSU extension service employees 23170
shall not be affected by any agreement under this division.23171

       Any moneys appropriated by the board of county commissioners 23172
to execute an agreement for the provision of services pursuant to 23173
this section by the Ohio cooperativeOSU extension service shall 23174
be paid to the Ohio state university to the credit of the Ohio 23175
cooperativeOSU extension service fund created under section 23176
3335.35 of the Revised Code.23177

       (3) Enter into an agreement with a public or private 23178
nonprofit organization to carry out all of the functions and 23179
duties of a director of economic development under division (B) of 23180
this section. The agreement shall set forth the procedure by which 23181
the nonprofit organization shall gain the approval of the board of 23182
county commissioners for any actions, functions, and duties under 23183
that division. The agreement may continue in effect for a period 23184
of one to three years and may be renewed with the consent of all 23185
parties. The employment classification of the nonprofit 23186
organization's employees shall not be affected by an agreement 23187
under this division.23188

       (B) The director of economic development may:23189

       (1) With the approval of the board, hire such staff and 23190
employ such technical and advisory personnel as the director sees 23191
fit to enable the director to carry out the functions and duties 23192
of the office;23193

       (2) With the approval of the board, contract for services 23194
necessary to enable the director to carry out the functions and 23195
duties of the office;23196

       (3) With the approval of the board, enter into agreements 23197
with federal, state, and local governments and agencies thereof, 23198
and with public, private, or nonprofit organizations to carry out 23199
the functions and duties of the office;23200

       (4) Maintain membership in development organizations;23201

       (5) With the approval of the board, make loans or grants and 23202
provide other forms of financial assistance for the purpose of 23203
economic development, including financial assistance for permanent 23204
public improvements, in compliance with applicable laws of this 23205
state, and fix the rate of interest and charges to be made for 23206
such financial assistance;23207

       (6) With the approval of the board, receive and accept 23208
grants, gifts, and contributions of money, property, labor, and 23209
other things of value, to be held, used, and applied only for the 23210
purpose for which they are made, from individuals, private and 23211
public corporations, the United States government or any agency 23212
thereof, from the state or any agency thereof, or from any 23213
political subdivision or any agency thereof, and may agree to 23214
repay any contribution of money or return any property contributed 23215
or the value thereof in amounts, and on terms and conditions, 23216
excluding the payment of interest, as the director determines, and 23217
may evidence the obligations by written evidence;23218

       (7) Establish with the board any funds that are necessary for 23219
the deposit and disbursement of gifts or contributions of money 23220
accepted for economic development purposes;23221

       (8) With the approval of the board, design, implement, 23222
monitor, oversee, and evaluate economic development plans, 23223
programs, strategies, and policies;23224

       (9) Purchase real property to convey to a county land 23225
reutilization corporation to be used in accordance with its public 23226
purposes;23227

       (10) Perform all acts necessary to fulfill the functions and 23228
duties of the office.23229

       (C) The boards of county commissioners of two or more 23230
counties, by resolution, may create a joint office of economic 23231
development for the purposes set forth in division (A) of this 23232
section. The counties participating in a joint office of economic 23233
development shall enter into an agreement that sets forth the 23234
contribution of funds, services, and property to the joint office 23235
from each participating county; establishes the person, public 23236
agency, or nonprofit organization that shall carry out the 23237
functions and duties of the office; and discloses any other terms 23238
by which the joint office shall operate.23239

       The boards of county commissioners of counties participating 23240
in a joint office of economic development may appropriate moneys 23241
from their respective county general funds, or, pursuant to 23242
section 307.64 of the Revised Code, moneys derived from a tax 23243
levied pursuant to division (EE) of section 5705.19 of the Revised 23244
Code, for the creation and operation of the joint office, for any 23245
economic development purpose of the office, and to provide for the 23246
establishment and operation of a program of economic development. 23247
The participating counties may hire a director of economic 23248
development for the joint office or enter into an agreement with a 23249
public agency or nonprofit organization in a manner set forth in 23250
division (A) of this section to carry out the functions and duties 23251
set forth in division (B) of this section.23252

       Any agreement establishing a joint office of economic 23253
development shall set forth the procedure by which the person, 23254
public agency, or nonprofit organization carrying out the 23255
functions and duties of the office shall gain the approval of the 23256
participating boards of county commissioners for any actions, 23257
functions, and duties under division (B) of this section.23258

       (D) As used in this section, "economic development" has the 23259
same meaning as in section 307.64 of the Revised Code.23260

       Sec. 307.674.  (A) As used in this section:23261

       (1) "Bonds" means:23262

       (a) Revenue bonds of the port authority described in division 23263
(B)(2)(a) of this section;23264

       (b) Securities as defined in division (KK) of section 133.01 23265
of the Revised Code issued by the host municipal corporation, 23266
described in division (B)(3)(a) of this section;23267

       (c) Any bonds issued to refund any of those revenue bonds or 23268
securities.23269

       (2) "Corporation" means a nonprofit corporation that is 23270
organized under the laws of this state and that includes within 23271
the purposes for which it is incorporated the authorization to 23272
lease and operate facilities such as a port authority educational 23273
and cultural performing arts facility.23274

       (3) "Cost," as applied to a port authority educational and 23275
cultural performing arts facility, means the cost of acquiring, 23276
constructing, renovating, rehabilitating, equipping, or improving 23277
the facility, or any combination of those purposes, collectively 23278
referred to in this section as "construction," and the cost of 23279
acquisition of all land, rights of way, property rights, 23280
easements, franchise rights, and interests required for those 23281
purposes, the cost of demolishing or removing any buildings or 23282
structures on land so acquired, including the cost of acquiring 23283
any land to which those buildings or structures may be moved, the 23284
cost of public utility and common carrier relocation or 23285
duplication, the cost of all machinery, furnishings, and 23286
equipment, financing charges, interest prior to and during 23287
construction and for not more than three years after completion of 23288
construction, costs arising under guaranty agreements, 23289
reimbursement agreements, or other credit enhancement agreements 23290
relating to bonds, engineering, expenses of research and 23291
development with respect to such facility, legal expenses, plans, 23292
specifications, surveys, studies, estimates of costs and revenues, 23293
other expenses necessary or incident to determining the 23294
feasibility or practicability of acquiring or constructing the 23295
facility, administrative expense, and other expenses as may be 23296
necessary or incident to that acquisition or construction and the 23297
financing of such acquisition or construction, including, with 23298
respect to the revenue bonds of a port authority, amounts to be 23299
paid into any special funds from the proceeds of those bonds, and 23300
repayments to the port authority, host county, host municipal 23301
corporation, or corporation of any amounts advanced for the 23302
foregoing purposes.23303

       (4) "Debt service charges" means, for any period or payable 23304
at any time, the principal of and interest and any premium due on 23305
bonds for that period or payable at that time whether due at 23306
maturity or upon mandatory redemption, together with any required 23307
deposits to reserves for the payment of principal of and interest 23308
on those bonds, and includes any payments required by the port 23309
authority to satisfy any of its obligations under or arising from 23310
any guaranty agreements, reimbursement agreements, or other credit 23311
enhancement agreements described in division (C) of this section.23312

       (5) "Host county" means the county within the boundaries of 23313
which the port authority educational and cultural performing arts 23314
facility is or will be located.23315

       (6) "Host municipal corporation" means the municipal 23316
corporation within the boundaries of which the port authority 23317
educational and cultural performing arts facility is or will be 23318
located.23319

       (7) "Port authority" means a port authority created pursuant 23320
to section 4582.22 of the Revised Code.23321

       (8) "Port authority educational and cultural performing arts 23322
facility" means a facility that consists of a center for music or 23323
other performing arts, a theater or other facilities to provide 23324
programs of an educational, recreational, or cultural nature, or 23325
any combination of those purposes as determined by the parties to 23326
the cooperative agreement for which provision is made in division 23327
(B) of this section to fulfill the public educational, 23328
recreational, and cultural purposes set forth therein, together 23329
with all parking facilities, walkways, and other auxiliary 23330
facilities, real and personal property, property rights, 23331
easements, and interests that may be appropriate for, or used in 23332
connection with, the operation of the facility.23333

       (B) A host county, a host municipal corporation, and a port 23334
authority may enter into a cooperative agreement with a 23335
corporation under which, as further provided for in that 23336
agreement:23337

       (1) The host county may agree to do any or all of the 23338
following:23339

       (a) Levy and collect a tax under division (E) and division 23340
(F) of section 5739.09 of the Revised Code for the purposes, and 23341
in an amount sufficient for those purposes, described in divisions 23342
(B)(1)(b) and (c) of this section;23343

       (b) Pay to the port authority all or such portion as provided 23344
for in the cooperative agreement of the revenue from the tax, 23345
together with any investment earnings on that revenue, to be used 23346
to pay a portion of the costs of acquiring, constructing, 23347
renovating, rehabilitating, equipping, or improving the port 23348
authority educational and cultural performing arts facility;23349

       (c) Pledge and pay to the corporation all or such portion as 23350
provided for in the cooperative agreement of the revenue from the 23351
tax, together with any investment earnings on that revenue, to be 23352
used to pay a portion of the costs to the corporation of leasing 23353
the port authority educational and cultural performing arts 23354
facility from the port authority.23355

       (2) The port authority may agree to do any or all of the 23356
following:23357

       (a) Issue its revenue bonds pursuant to section 4582.48 of 23358
the Revised Code for the purpose of paying all or a portion of the 23359
costs of the port authority educational and cultural performing 23360
arts facility;23361

       (b) Acquire, construct, renovate, rehabilitate, equip, and 23362
improve the port authority educational and cultural performing 23363
arts facility;23364

       (c) Lease the port authority educational and cultural 23365
performing arts facility to the corporation;23366

       (d) To the extent provided for in the cooperative agreement 23367
or the lease to the corporation, authorize the corporation to 23368
administer on behalf of the port authority the contracts for 23369
acquiring, constructing, renovating, rehabilitating, or equipping 23370
the port authority educational and cultural performing arts 23371
facility;23372

       (e) Use the revenue derived from the lease of the port 23373
authority educational and cultural performing arts facility to the 23374
corporation solely to pay debt service charges on revenue bonds of 23375
the port authority issued pursuant to division (B)(2)(a) of this 23376
section and to pay its obligations under or arising from any 23377
guaranty agreements, reimbursement agreements, or other credit 23378
enhancement agreements provided for in this section.23379

       (3) The host municipal corporation may agree to do either or 23380
both of the following:23381

       (a) Issue its bonds for the purpose of paying all or a 23382
portion of the costs of the port authority educational and 23383
cultural performing arts facility, and pay the proceeds from the 23384
issuance to the port authority for that purpose;23385

       (b) Enter into a guaranty agreement, a reimbursement 23386
agreement, or other credit enhancement agreement with the port 23387
authority to provide a guaranty or other credit enhancement of the 23388
port authority revenue bonds referred to in division (B)(2)(a) of 23389
this section pledging taxes, other than ad valorem property taxes, 23390
or other revenues for the purpose of providing the funds required 23391
to satisfy the host municipal corporation's obligations under that 23392
agreement.23393

       The cooperative agreement may provide that the proceeds of 23394
such securities or of such guaranty agreement, reimbursement 23395
agreement, or other credit enhancement agreement be deposited with 23396
and administered by the trustee pursuant to the trust agreement 23397
authorized in division (C) of this section.23398

       (4) The corporation may agree to do any or all of the 23399
following:23400

       (a) Lease the port authority educational and cultural 23401
performing arts facility from the port authority;23402

       (b) Operate and maintain the port authority educational and 23403
cultural performing arts facility pursuant to the lease;23404

       (c) To the extent provided for in the cooperative agreement 23405
or the lease from the port authority, administer on behalf of the 23406
port authority the contracts for acquiring, constructing, 23407
renovating, rehabilitating, or equipping the port authority 23408
educational and cultural performing arts facility.23409

       (C) The pledge and payments referred to in divisions 23410
(B)(1)(b) and (c) of this section and provided for in the 23411
cooperative agreement shall be for the period stated in the 23412
cooperative agreement but shall not extend longer than the period 23413
necessary to provide for the final retirement of the port 23414
authority revenue bonds referred to in division (B)(2)(a) of this 23415
section, and for the satisfaction by the port authority of any of 23416
its obligations under or arising from any guaranty agreements, 23417
reimbursement agreements, or other credit enhancement agreements 23418
relating to those bonds or to the revenues pledged to them. The 23419
cooperative agreement shall provide for the termination of the 23420
cooperative agreement, including the pledge and payment referred 23421
to in division (B)(1)(c) of this section, if the port authority 23422
revenue bonds referred to in division (B)(2)(a) of this section 23423
have not been issued, sold, and delivered within five years of the 23424
effective date of the cooperative agreement.23425

       The cooperative agreement shall provide that any port 23426
authority revenue bonds shall be secured by a trust agreement 23427
between the port authority and a corporate trustee that is a trust 23428
company or bank having the powers of a trust company within or 23429
outside the state but authorized to exercise trust powers within 23430
the state. The host county may be a party to that trust agreement 23431
for the purpose of better securing the pledge by the host county 23432
of its payment to the corporation pursuant to division (B)(1)(c) 23433
of this section. A tax levied pursuant to section 5739.09 of the 23434
Revised Code for the purposes specified in division (B)(1)(b) or 23435
(c) of this section is not subject to diminution by initiative or 23436
referendum or diminution by statute, unless provision is made for 23437
an adequate substitute reasonably satisfactory to the trustee 23438
under the trust agreement that secures the port authority revenue 23439
bonds.23440

       (D) A pledge of money by a host county under this section 23441
shall not be net indebtedness of the host county for purposes of 23442
section 133.07 of the Revised Code. A guaranty or other credit 23443
enhancement by a host municipal corporation under this section 23444
shall not be net indebtedness of the host municipal corporation 23445
for purposes of section 133.05 of the Revised Code.23446

       (E) If the terms of the cooperative agreement so provide, any 23447
contract for the acquisition, construction, renovation, 23448
rehabilitation, equipping, or improving of a port authority 23449
educational and cultural performing arts facility shall be made in 23450
such manner as is determined by the board of directors of the port 23451
authority, and unless the cooperative agreement provides 23452
otherwise, such a contract is not subject to division (R)(2) of 23453
section 4582.31 of the Revised Code. The port authority may take 23454
the assignment of and assume any contracts for the acquisition, 23455
construction, renovation, rehabilitation, equipping, or improving 23456
of a port authority educational and cultural performing arts 23457
facility that had previously been authorized by any of the host 23458
county, the host municipality, or the corporation. Such contracts 23459
are not subject to division (R)(2) of section 4582.31 of the 23460
Revised Code.23461

       Any contract for the acquisition, construction, renovation, 23462
rehabilitation, equipping, or improving of a port authority 23463
educational and cultural performing arts facility entered into, 23464
assigned, or assumed pursuant to this division shall provide that 23465
all laborers and mechanics employed for the acquisition, 23466
construction, renovation, rehabilitation, equipping, or improving 23467
of that facility shall be paid at the prevailing rates of wages of 23468
laborers and mechanics for the class of work called for by the 23469
port authority educational and cultural performing arts facility, 23470
which wages shall be determined in accordance with the 23471
requirements of Chapter 4115. of the Revised Code for the 23472
determination of prevailing wage rates.23473

       Notwithstanding any provisions to the contrary in section23474
3383.07123.281 of the Revised Code, construction services and 23475
general building services for a port authority educational and 23476
cultural performing arts facility funded completely or in part 23477
with money appropriated by the state to the Ohio cultural23478
facilities construction commission may be provided by a port 23479
authority or a corporation that occupies, will occupy, or is 23480
responsible for that facility, as determined by the commission. 23481
The construction services and general building services to be 23482
provided by the port authority or the corporation shall be 23483
specified in an agreement between the commission and the port 23484
authority or corporation. That agreement, or any actions taken 23485
under it, are not subject to Chapters 123. or 153. of the Revised 23486
Code, but are subject to Chapter 4115. of the Revised Code.23487

       Sec. 307.86.  Anything to be purchased, leased, leased with 23488
an option or agreement to purchase, or constructed, including, but 23489
not limited to, any product, structure, construction, 23490
reconstruction, improvement, maintenance, repair, or service, 23491
except the services of an accountant, architect, attorney at law, 23492
physician, professional engineer, construction project manager, 23493
consultant, surveyor, or appraiser, by or on behalf of the county 23494
or contracting authority, as defined in section 307.92 of the 23495
Revised Code, at a cost in excess of fifty thousand dollars, 23496
except as otherwise provided in division (D) of section 713.23 and 23497
in sections 9.48, 125.04, 125.60 to 125.6012, 307.022, 307.041, 23498
307.861, 339.05, 340.03, 340.033, 4115.31 to 4115.35, 5119.1623499
5119.44, 5513.01, 5543.19, 5713.01, and 6137.05 of the Revised 23500
Code, shall be obtained through competitive bidding. However, 23501
competitive bidding is not required when any of the following 23502
applies:23503

       (A) The board of county commissioners, by a unanimous vote of 23504
its members, makes a determination that a real and present 23505
emergency exists, and that determination and the reasons for it 23506
are entered in the minutes of the proceedings of the board, when 23507
either of the following applies:23508

       (1) The estimated cost is less than one hundred thousand 23509
dollars.23510

       (2) There is actual physical disaster to structures, radio 23511
communications equipment, or computers.23512

       For purposes of this division, "unanimous vote" means all 23513
three members of a board of county commissioners when all three 23514
members are present, or two members of the board if only two 23515
members, constituting a quorum, are present.23516

       Whenever a contract of purchase, lease, or construction is 23517
exempted from competitive bidding under division (A)(1) of this 23518
section because the estimated cost is less than one hundred 23519
thousand dollars, but the estimated cost is fifty thousand dollars 23520
or more, the county or contracting authority shall solicit 23521
informal estimates from no fewer than three persons who could 23522
perform the contract, before awarding the contract. With regard to 23523
each such contract, the county or contracting authority shall 23524
maintain a record of such estimates, including the name of each 23525
person from whom an estimate is solicited. The county or 23526
contracting authority shall maintain the record for the longer of 23527
at least one year after the contract is awarded or the amount of 23528
time the federal government requires.23529

       (B)(1) The purchase consists of supplies or a replacement or 23530
supplemental part or parts for a product or equipment owned or 23531
leased by the county, and the only source of supply for the 23532
supplies, part, or parts is limited to a single supplier.23533

       (2) The purchase consists of services related to information 23534
technology, such as programming services, that are proprietary or 23535
limited to a single source.23536

       (C) The purchase is from the federal government, the state, 23537
another county or contracting authority of another county, or a 23538
board of education, educational service center, township, or 23539
municipal corporation.23540

       (D) The purchase is made by a county department of job and 23541
family services under section 329.04 of the Revised Code and 23542
consists of family services duties or workforce development 23543
activities or is made by a county board of developmental 23544
disabilities under section 5126.05 of the Revised Code and 23545
consists of program services, such as direct and ancillary client 23546
services, child care, case management services, residential 23547
services, and family resource services.23548

       (E) The purchase consists of criminal justice services, 23549
social services programs, family services, or workforce 23550
development activities by the board of county commissioners from 23551
nonprofit corporations or associations under programs funded by 23552
the federal government or by state grants.23553

       (F) The purchase consists of any form of an insurance policy 23554
or contract authorized to be issued under Title XXXIX of the 23555
Revised Code or any form of health care plan authorized to be 23556
issued under Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code, or any combination 23557
of such policies, contracts, plans, or services that the 23558
contracting authority is authorized to purchase, and the 23559
contracting authority does all of the following:23560

       (1) Determines that compliance with the requirements of this 23561
section would increase, rather than decrease, the cost of the 23562
purchase;23563

       (2) Requests issuers of the policies, contracts, plans, or 23564
services to submit proposals to the contracting authority, in a 23565
form prescribed by the contracting authority, setting forth the 23566
coverage and cost of the policies, contracts, plans, or services 23567
as the contracting authority desires to purchase;23568

       (3) Negotiates with the issuers for the purpose of purchasing 23569
the policies, contracts, plans, or services at the best and lowest 23570
price reasonably possible.23571

       (G) The purchase consists of computer hardware, software, or 23572
consulting services that are necessary to implement a computerized 23573
case management automation project administered by the Ohio 23574
prosecuting attorneys association and funded by a grant from the 23575
federal government.23576

       (H) Child care services are purchased for provision to county 23577
employees.23578

       (I)(1) Property, including land, buildings, and other real 23579
property, is leased for offices, storage, parking, or other 23580
purposes, and all of the following apply:23581

       (a) The contracting authority is authorized by the Revised 23582
Code to lease the property.23583

       (b) The contracting authority develops requests for proposals 23584
for leasing the property, specifying the criteria that will be 23585
considered prior to leasing the property, including the desired 23586
size and geographic location of the property.23587

       (c) The contracting authority receives responses from 23588
prospective lessors with property meeting the criteria specified 23589
in the requests for proposals by giving notice in a manner 23590
substantially similar to the procedures established for giving 23591
notice under section 307.87 of the Revised Code.23592

       (d) The contracting authority negotiates with the prospective 23593
lessors to obtain a lease at the best and lowest price reasonably 23594
possible considering the fair market value of the property and any 23595
relocation and operational costs that may be incurred during the 23596
period the lease is in effect.23597

       (2) The contracting authority may use the services of a real 23598
estate appraiser to obtain advice, consultations, or other 23599
recommendations regarding the lease of property under this 23600
division.23601

       (J) The purchase is made pursuant to section 5139.34 or 23602
sections 5139.41 to 5139.46 of the Revised Code and is of programs 23603
or services that provide case management, treatment, or prevention 23604
services to any felony or misdemeanant delinquent, unruly youth, 23605
or status offender under the supervision of the juvenile court, 23606
including, but not limited to, community residential care, day 23607
treatment, services to children in their home, or electronic 23608
monitoring.23609

       (K) The purchase is made by a public children services agency 23610
pursuant to section 307.92 or 5153.16 of the Revised Code and 23611
consists of family services, programs, or ancillary services that 23612
provide case management, prevention, or treatment services for 23613
children at risk of being or alleged to be abused, neglected, or 23614
dependent children.23615

       (L) The purchase is to obtain the services of emergency 23616
medical service organizations under a contract made by the board 23617
of county commissioners pursuant to section 307.05 of the Revised 23618
Code with a joint emergency medical services district.23619

       (M) The county contracting authority determines that the use 23620
of competitive sealed proposals would be advantageous to the 23621
county and the contracting authority complies with section 307.862 23622
of the Revised Code.23623

       Any issuer of policies, contracts, plans, or services listed 23624
in division (F) of this section and any prospective lessor under 23625
division (I) of this section may have the issuer's or prospective 23626
lessor's name and address, or the name and address of an agent, 23627
placed on a special notification list to be kept by the 23628
contracting authority, by sending the contracting authority that 23629
name and address. The contracting authority shall send notice to 23630
all persons listed on the special notification list. Notices shall 23631
state the deadline and place for submitting proposals. The 23632
contracting authority shall mail the notices at least six weeks 23633
prior to the deadline set by the contracting authority for 23634
submitting proposals. Every five years the contracting authority 23635
may review this list and remove any person from the list after 23636
mailing the person notification of that action.23637

       Any contracting authority that negotiates a contract under 23638
division (F) of this section shall request proposals and negotiate 23639
with issuers in accordance with that division at least every three 23640
years from the date of the signing of such a contract, unless the 23641
parties agree upon terms for extensions or renewals of the 23642
contract. Such extension or renewal periods shall not exceed six 23643
years from the date the initial contract is signed.23644

       Any real estate appraiser employed pursuant to division (I) 23645
of this section shall disclose any fees or compensation received 23646
from any source in connection with that employment.23647

       Sec. 309.09.  (A) The prosecuting attorney shall be the legal 23648
adviser of the board of county commissioners, board of elections, 23649
all other county officers and boards, and all tax-supported public 23650
libraries, and any of them may require written opinions or 23651
instructions from the prosecuting attorney in matters connected 23652
with their official duties. The prosecuting attorney shall 23653
prosecute and defend all suits and actions that any such officer, 23654
board, or tax-supported public library directs or to which it is a 23655
party, and no county officer may employ any other counsel or 23656
attorney at the expense of the county, except as provided in 23657
section 305.14 of the Revised Code.23658

       (B)(1) The prosecuting attorney shall be the legal adviser 23659
for all township officers, boards, and commissions, unless, 23660
subject to division (B)(2) of this section, the township has 23661
adopted a limited home rule government pursuant to Chapter 504. of 23662
the Revised Code and has not entered into a contract to have the 23663
prosecuting attorney serve as the township law director, in which 23664
case, subject to division (B)(2) of this section, the township law 23665
director, whether serving full-time or part-time, shall be the 23666
legal adviser for all township officers, boards, and commissions. 23667
When the board of township trustees finds it advisable or 23668
necessary to have additional legal counsel, it may employ an 23669
attorney other than the township law director or the prosecuting 23670
attorney of the county, either for a particular matter or on an 23671
annual basis, to represent the township and its officers, boards, 23672
and commissions in their official capacities and to advise them on 23673
legal matters. No such legal counsel may be employed, except on 23674
the order of the board of township trustees, duly entered upon its 23675
journal, in which the compensation to be paid for the legal 23676
services shall be fixed. The compensation shall be paid from the 23677
township fund.23678

       Nothing in this division confers any of the powers or duties 23679
of a prosecuting attorney under section 309.08 of the Revised Code 23680
upon a township law director.23681

       (2)(a) If any township in the county served by the 23682
prosecuting attorney has adopted any resolution regarding the 23683
operation of adult entertainment establishments pursuant to the 23684
authority that is granted under section 503.52 of the Revised Code 23685
or if a resolution of that nature has been adopted under section 23686
503.53 of the Revised Code in a township in the county served by 23687
the prosecuting attorney, all of the following apply:23688

       (i) Upon the request of a township in the county that has 23689
adopted, or in which has been adopted, a resolution of that nature 23690
that is made pursuant to division (E)(1)(c) of section 503.52 of 23691
the Revised Code, the prosecuting attorney shall prosecute and 23692
defend on behalf of the township in the trial and argument in any 23693
court or tribunal of any challenge to the validity of the 23694
resolution. If the challenge to the validity of the resolution is 23695
before a federal court, the prosecuting attorney may request the 23696
attorney general to assist the prosecuting attorney in prosecuting 23697
and defending the challenge and, upon the prosecuting attorney's 23698
making of such a request, the attorney general shall assist the 23699
prosecuting attorney in performing that service if the resolution 23700
was drafted in accordance with legal guidance provided by the 23701
attorney general as described in division (B)(2) of section 503.52 23702
of the Revised Code. The attorney general shall provide this 23703
assistance without charge to the township for which the service is 23704
performed. If a township adopts a resolution without the legal 23705
guidance of the attorney general, the attorney general is not 23706
required to provide assistance as described in this division to a 23707
prosecuting attorney.23708

       (ii) Upon the request of a township in the county that has 23709
adopted, or in which has been adopted, a resolution of that nature 23710
that is made pursuant to division (E)(1)(a) of section 503.52 of 23711
the Revised Code, the prosecuting attorney shall prosecute and 23712
defend on behalf of the township a civil action to enjoin the 23713
violation of the resolution in question.23714

       (iii) Upon the request of a township in the county that has 23715
adopted, or in which has been adopted, a resolution of that nature 23716
that is made pursuant to division (E)(1)(b) of section 503.52 of 23717
the Revised Code, the prosecuting attorney shall prosecute and 23718
defend on behalf of the township a civil action under Chapter 23719
3767. of the Revised Code to abate as a nuisance the place in the 23720
unincorporated area of the township at which the resolution is 23721
being or has been violated. Proceeds from the sale of personal 23722
property or contents seized pursuant to the action shall be 23723
applied and deposited in accordance with division (E)(1)(b) of 23724
section 503.52 of the Revised Code.23725

        (b) The provisions of division (B)(2)(a) of this section 23726
apply regarding all townships, including townships that have 23727
adopted a limited home rule government pursuant to Chapter 504. of 23728
the Revised Code, and regardless of whether a township that has so 23729
adopted a limited home rule government has entered into a contract 23730
with the prosecuting attorney as described in division (B) of 23731
section 504.15 of the Revised Code or has appointed a law director 23732
as described in division (A) of that section.23733

       The prosecuting attorney shall prosecute and defend in the 23734
actions and proceedings described in division (B)(2)(a) of this 23735
section without charge to the township for which the services are 23736
performed.23737

       (C) Whenever the board of county commissioners employs an 23738
attorney other than the prosecuting attorney of the county, 23739
without the authorization of the court of common pleas as provided 23740
in section 305.14 of the Revised Code, either for a particular 23741
matter or on an annual basis, to represent the board in its 23742
official capacity and to advise it on legal matters, the board 23743
shall enter upon its journal an order of the board in which the 23744
compensation to be paid for the legal services shall be fixed. The 23745
compensation shall be paid from the county general fund. The total 23746
compensation paid, in any year, by the board for legal services 23747
under this division shall not exceed the total annual compensation 23748
of the prosecuting attorney for that county.23749

       (D) The prosecuting attorney and the board of county 23750
commissioners jointly may contract with a board of park 23751
commissioners under section 1545.07 of the Revised Code for the 23752
prosecuting attorney to provide legal services to the park 23753
district the board of park commissioners operates.23754

       (E) The prosecuting attorney may be, in the prosecuting 23755
attorney's discretion and with the approval of the board of county 23756
commissioners, the legal adviser of a joint fire district created 23757
under section 505.371 of the Revised Code at no cost to the 23758
district or may be the legal adviser to the district under a 23759
contract that the prosecuting attorney and the district enter 23760
into, and that the board of county commissionercommissioners23761
approves, to authorize the prosecuting attorney to provide legal 23762
services to the district.23763

       (F) The prosecuting attorney may be, in the prosecuting 23764
attorney's discretion and with the approval of the board of county 23765
commissioners, the legal adviser of a joint ambulance district 23766
created under section 505.71 of the Revised Code at no cost to the 23767
district or may be the legal adviser to the district under a 23768
contract that the prosecuting attorney and the district enter 23769
into, and that the board of county commissioners approves, to 23770
authorize the prosecuting attorney to provide legal services to 23771
the district.23772

       (G) The prosecuting attorney may be, in the prosecuting 23773
attorney's discretion and with the approval of the board of county 23774
commissioners, the legal adviser of a joint emergency medical 23775
services district created under section 307.052 of the Revised 23776
Code at no cost to the district or may be the legal adviser to the 23777
district under a contract that the prosecuting attorney and the 23778
district enter into, and that the board of county commissioners 23779
approves, to authorize the prosecuting attorney to provide legal 23780
services to the district.23781

       (H) The prosecuting attorney may be, in the prosecuting 23782
attorney's discretion and with the approval of the board of county 23783
commissioners, the legal adviser of a fire and ambulance district 23784
created under section 505.375 of the Revised Code at no cost to 23785
the district or may be the legal adviser to the district under a 23786
contract that the prosecuting attorney and the district enter 23787
into, and that the board of county commissioners approves, to 23788
authorize the prosecuting attorney to provide legal services to 23789
the district.23790

       (I) All money received pursuant to a contract entered into 23791
under division (D), (E), (F), (G), or (H) of this section shall be 23792
deposited into the prosecuting attorney's legal services fund, 23793
which shall be established in the county treasury of each county 23794
in which such a contract exists. Moneys in that fund may be 23795
appropriated only to the prosecuting attorney for the purpose of 23796
providing legal services to a park district, joint fire district, 23797
joint ambulance district, joint emergency medical services 23798
district, or a fire and ambulance district, as applicable, under a 23799
contract entered into under the applicable division.23800

       (J) The prosecuting attorney shall be the legal advisor of a 23801
lake facilities authority as provided in section 353.02 of the 23802
Revised Code.23803

       Sec. 317.06.  (A) Each county recorder who is newly elected 23804
to a full term of office shall attend and successfully complete at 23805
least fifteen hours of continuing education courses during the 23806
first year of the recorder's term of office and complete at least 23807
another eight hours of such courses each year of the remaining 23808
term. Each county recorder who is elected to a subsequent term of 23809
office shall attend and successfully complete at least eight hours 23810
of such courses in each year of any subsequent term of office. To 23811
be counted toward the continuing education hours required by this 23812
section, a course must be approved by the Ohio recorders' 23813
association. Any county recorder who teaches an approved course 23814
shall be entitled to credit for the course in the same manner as 23815
if the county recorder had attended the course.23816

       The Ohio recorders' association shall record and, upon 23817
request, verify the completion of required course work for each 23818
county recorder and issue a statement to each county recorder of 23819
the number of hours of continuing education the county recorder 23820
has successfully completed. Each year the association shall send a 23821
list of the continuing education courses, and the number of hours 23822
each county recorder has successfully completed, to the auditor of 23823
state and shall provide a copy of this list to any other 23824
individual who requests it.23825

       The association shall issue a "failure to complete notice" to 23826
any county recorder required to complete continuing education 23827
courses under this section who fails to successfully complete at 23828
least fifteen hours of continuing education courses during the 23829
first year of the county recorder's first term of office or to 23830
complete a total of at least thirty-nine hours of such courses, 23831
including the fifteen hours completed in the first year of the 23832
first term, by the end of that term. The association shall issue a 23833
"failure to complete notice" to any county recorder required to 23834
complete continuing education courses under this section who fails 23835
to successfully complete at least eight hours of continuing 23836
education courses each year of any subsequent term of office or to 23837
complete a total of at least thirty-two hours of such courses, by 23838
the end of that subsequent term. The notice is for informational 23839
purposes only and does not affect any individual's ability to hold 23840
the office of county recorder.23841

       (B) Each board of county commissioners shall approve, from 23842
money appropriated to the county recorder, a reasonable amount 23843
requested by the county recorder of its county to cover theThe23844
costs the county recorder must incur to meet the requirements of 23845
division (A) of this section, including registration fees, lodging 23846
and meal expenses, and travel expenses shall be paid from the 23847
county recorder's technology fund, if such a fund has been 23848
established under section 317.321 of the Revised Code.23849

       Sec. 317.08. (A) Except as provided in divisions (C), (D), 23850
and (E) of this section, the county recorder shall keep six 23851
separate sets of records as follows:23852

       (1) A record of deeds, in which shall be recorded all deeds 23853
and other instruments of writing for the absolute and 23854
unconditional sale or conveyance of lands, tenements, and 23855
hereditaments; all notices as provided in sections 5301.47 to 23856
5301.56 of the Revised Code; all judgments or decrees in actions 23857
brought under section 5303.01 of the Revised Code; all 23858
declarations and bylaws, and all amendments to declarations and 23859
bylaws, as provided in Chapter 5311. of the Revised Code; 23860
affidavits as provided in sections 5301.252 and 5301.56 of the 23861
Revised Code; all certificates as provided in section 5311.17 of 23862
the Revised Code; all articles dedicating archaeological preserves 23863
accepted by the director of the Ohio historical society under 23864
section 149.52 of the Revised Code; all articles dedicating nature 23865
preserves accepted by the director of natural resources under 23866
section 1517.05 of the Revised Code; all agreements for the 23867
registration of lands as archaeological or historic landmarks 23868
under section 149.51 or 149.55 of the Revised Code; all 23869
conveyances of conservation easements and agricultural easements 23870
under section 5301.68 of the Revised Code; all instruments 23871
extinguishing agricultural easements under section 901.21 or 23872
5301.691 of the Revised Code or pursuant to terms of such an 23873
easement granted to a charitable organization under section 23874
5301.68 of the Revised Code; all instruments or orders described 23875
in division (B)(2)(b) of section 5301.56 of the Revised Code; all 23876
no further action letters issued under section 122.654 or 3746.11 23877
of the Revised Code; all covenants not to sue issued under section 23878
3746.12 of the Revised Code, including all covenants not to sue 23879
issued pursuant to section 122.654 of the Revised Code; any 23880
restrictions on the use of property contained in a no further 23881
action letter issued under section 122.654 of the Revised Code, 23882
any restrictions on the use of property identified pursuant to 23883
division (C)(3)(a) of section 3746.10 of the Revised Code, and any 23884
restrictions on the use of property contained in a deed or other 23885
instrument as provided in division (E) or (F) of section 3737.882 23886
of the Revised Code; any easement executed or granted under 23887
section 3734.22, 3734.24, 3734.25, or 3734.26 of the Revised Code; 23888
any environmental covenant entered into in accordance with 23889
sections 5301.80 to 5301.92 of the Revised Code; all memoranda of 23890
trust, as described in division (A) of section 5301.255 of the 23891
Revised Code, that describe specific real property; and all 23892
agreements entered into under division (A) of section 1506.44 of 23893
the Revised Code;23894

       (2) A record of mortgages, in which shall be recorded all of 23895
the following:23896

       (a) All mortgages, including amendments, supplements, 23897
modifications, and extensions of mortgages, or other instruments 23898
of writing by which lands, tenements, or hereditaments are or may 23899
be mortgaged or otherwise conditionally sold, conveyed, affected, 23900
or encumbered;23901

       (b) All executory installment contracts for the sale of land 23902
executed after September 29, 1961, that by their terms are not 23903
required to be fully performed by one or more of the parties to 23904
them within one year of the date of the contracts;23905

       (c) All options to purchase real estate, including 23906
supplements, modifications, and amendments of the options, but no 23907
option of that nature shall be recorded if it does not state a 23908
specific day and year of expiration of its validity;23909

       (d) Any tax certificate sold under section 5721.33 of the 23910
Revised Code, or memorandum of it, that is presented for filing of 23911
record.23912

       (3) A record of powers of attorney, including all memoranda 23913
of trust, as described in division (A) of section 5301.255 of the 23914
Revised Code, that do not describe specific real property;23915

       (4) A record of plats, in which shall be recorded all plats 23916
and maps of town lots, of the subdivision of town lots, and of 23917
other divisions or surveys of lands, any center line survey of a 23918
highway located within the county, the plat of which shall be 23919
furnished by the director of transportation or county engineer, 23920
and all drawings and amendments to drawings, as provided in 23921
Chapter 5311. of the Revised Code;23922

       (5) A record of leases, in which shall be recorded all 23923
leases, memoranda of leases, and supplements, modifications, and 23924
amendments of leases and memoranda of leases;23925

       (6) A record of declarations executed pursuant to section 23926
2133.02 of the Revised Code and durable powers of attorney for 23927
health care executed pursuant to section 1337.12 of the Revised 23928
Code.23929

       (B) All instruments or memoranda of instruments entitled to 23930
record shall be recorded in the proper record in the order in 23931
which they are presented for record. The recorder may index, keep, 23932
and record in one volume unemployment compensation liens, internal 23933
revenue tax liens and other liens in favor of the United States as 23934
described in division (A) of section 317.09 of the Revised Code, 23935
personal tax liens, mechanic's liens, agricultural product liens, 23936
notices of liens, certificates of satisfaction or partial release 23937
of estate tax liens, discharges of recognizances, excise and 23938
franchise tax liens on corporations, broker's liens, and liens 23939
provided for in sections 1513.33, 1513.37, 3752.13, 5111.02223940
5164.56, and 5311.18 of the Revised Code.23941

       The recording of an option to purchase real estate, including 23942
any supplement, modification, and amendment of the option, under 23943
this section shall serve as notice to any purchaser of an interest 23944
in the real estate covered by the option only during the period of 23945
the validity of the option as stated in the option.23946

       (C) In lieu of keeping the six separate sets of records 23947
required in divisions (A)(1) to (6) of this section and the 23948
records required in divisions (D) and (E) of this section, a 23949
county recorder may record all the instruments required to be 23950
recorded by this section in two separate sets of record books. One 23951
set shall be called the "official records" and shall contain the 23952
instruments listed in divisions (A)(1), (2), (3), (5), and (6) and 23953
(D) and (E) of this section. The second set of records shall 23954
contain the instruments listed in division (A)(4) of this section.23955

       (D) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, the 23956
county recorder shall keep a separate set of records containing 23957
all corrupt activity lien notices filed with the recorder pursuant 23958
to section 2923.36 of the Revised Code and a separate set of 23959
records containing all medicaid fraud lien notices filed with the 23960
recorder pursuant to section 2933.75 of the Revised Code.23961

       (E)(1) The county recorder shall keep a separate set of 23962
records containing all transfers, conveyances, or assignments of 23963
any type of tangible or intangible personal property or any rights 23964
or interests in that property if and to the extent that any person 23965
wishes to record that personal property transaction and if the 23966
applicable instrument is acknowledged before a notary public. If 23967
the transferor is a natural person, the notice of personal 23968
property transfer shall be recorded in the county in this state in 23969
which the transferor maintains the transferor's principal 23970
residence. If the transferor is not a natural person, the notice 23971
of personal property transfer shall be recorded in the county in 23972
this state in which the transferor maintains its principal place 23973
of business. If the transferor does not maintain a principal 23974
residence or a principal place of business in this state and the 23975
transfer is to a trustee of a legacy trust formed pursuant to 23976
Chapter 5816. of the Revised Code, the notice of personal property 23977
transfer shall be recorded in the county in this state where that 23978
trustee maintains a principal residence or principal place of 23979
business. In all other instances, the notice of personal property 23980
transfer shall be recorded in the county in this state where the 23981
property described in the notice is located.23982

       (2) The records described in division (E)(1) of this section 23983
shall be maintained in or as part of the "official records" under 23984
division (C) of this section.23985

       Sec. 317.32.  The county recorder shall charge and collect 23986
the following fees, to include, except as otherwise provided in 23987
division (A)(2) of this section, base fees for the recorder's 23988
services and housing trust fund fees collected pursuant to section 23989
317.36 of the Revised Code:23990

       (A)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(2) of 23991
this section, for recording and indexing an instrument if the 23992
photocopy or any similar process is employed, a base fee of 23993
fourteen dollars for the first two pages and a housing trust fund 23994
fee of fourteen dollars, and a base fee of four dollars and a 23995
housing trust fund fee of four dollars for each subsequent page, 23996
size eight and one-half inches by fourteen inches, or fraction of 23997
a page, including the caption page, of such instrument;23998

       (2) For recording and indexing an instrument described in 23999
division (E)(1) of section 317.08 of the Revised Code if the 24000
photocopy or any similar process is employed, a fee of 24001
twenty-eight dollars for the first two pages to be deposited into 24002
the county treasury to the credit of the special fund designated 24003
as "general fund moneys to supplement the equipment needs of the 24004
county recorder" under section 317.321 of the Revised Codeas 24005
specified elsewhere in this division, and a fee of eight dollars 24006
to be deposited in the same manner for each subsequent page, size 24007
eight and one-half inches by fourteen inches, or fraction of a 24008
page, including the caption page, of that instrument;. If the 24009
county recorder's technology fund has been established under 24010
section 317.321 of the Revised Code, of the twenty-eight dollars, 24011
fourteen dollars shall be deposited into the county treasury to 24012
the credit of the county recorder's technology fund and fourteen 24013
dollars shall be deposited into the county treasury to the credit 24014
of the county general fund. If the county recorder's technology 24015
fund has not been established, the twenty-eight dollars shall be 24016
deposited into the county treasury to the credit of the county 24017
general fund.24018

       (B) For certifying a photocopy from the record previously 24019
recorded, a base fee of one dollar and a housing trust fund fee of 24020
one dollar per page, size eight and one-half inches by fourteen 24021
inches, or fraction of a page; for each certification if the 24022
recorder's seal is required, except as to instruments issued by 24023
the armed forces of the United States, a base fee of fifty cents 24024
and a housing trust fund fee of fifty cents;24025

       (C) For manual or typewritten recording of assignment or 24026
satisfaction of mortgage or lease or any other marginal entry, a 24027
base fee of four dollars and a housing trust fund fee of four 24028
dollars;24029

       (D) For entering any marginal reference by separate recorded 24030
instrument, a base fee of two dollars and a housing trust fund fee 24031
of two dollars for each marginal reference set out in that 24032
instrument, in addition to the fees set forth in division (A)(1) 24033
of this section;24034

       (E) For indexing in the real estate mortgage records, 24035
pursuant to section 1309.519 of the Revised Code, financing 24036
statements covering crops growing or to be grown, timber to be 24037
cut, minerals or the like, including oil and gas, accounts subject 24038
to section 1309.301 of the Revised Code, or fixture filings made 24039
pursuant to section 1309.334 of the Revised Code, a base fee of 24040
two dollars and a housing trust fund fee of two dollars for each 24041
name indexed;24042

       (F) For recording manually any plat not exceeding six lines, 24043
a base fee of two dollars and a housing trust fund fee of two 24044
dollars, and for each additional line, a base fee of ten cents and 24045
a housing trust fund fee of ten cents;24046

       (G) For filing zoning resolutions, including text and maps, 24047
in the office of the recorder as required under sections 303.11 24048
and 519.11 of the Revised Code, a base fee of twenty-five dollars 24049
and a housing trust fund fee of twenty-five dollars, regardless of 24050
the size or length of the resolutions;24051

       (H) For filing zoning amendments, including text and maps, in 24052
the office of the recorder as required under sections 303.12 and 24053
519.12 of the Revised Code, a base fee of ten dollars and a 24054
housing trust fund fee of ten dollars regardless of the size or 24055
length of the amendments;24056

       (I) For photocopying a document, other than at the time of 24057
recording and indexing as provided for in division (A)(1) or (2) 24058
of this section, a base fee of one dollar and a housing trust fund 24059
fee of one dollar per page, size eight and one-half inches by 24060
fourteen inches, or fraction thereof;24061

       (J) For local facsimile transmission of a document, a base 24062
fee of one dollar and a housing trust fund fee of one dollar per 24063
page, size eight and one-half inches by fourteen inches, or 24064
fraction thereof; for long distance facsimile transmission of a 24065
document, a base fee of two dollars and a housing trust fund fee 24066
of two dollars per page, size eight and one-half inches by 24067
fourteen inches, or fraction thereof;24068

       (K) For recording a declaration executed pursuant to section 24069
2133.02 of the Revised Code or a durable power of attorney for 24070
health care executed pursuant to section 1337.12 of the Revised 24071
Code, or both a declaration and a durable power of attorney for 24072
health care, a base fee of at least fourteen dollars but not more 24073
than twenty dollars and a housing trust fund fee of at least 24074
fourteen dollars but not more than twenty dollars.24075

       In any county in which the recorder employs the photostatic 24076
or any similar process for recording maps, plats, or prints the 24077
recorder shall determine, charge, and collect for the recording or 24078
rerecording of any map, plat, or print, a base fee of five cents 24079
and a housing trust fund fee of five cents per square inch, for 24080
each square inch of the map, plat, or print filed for that 24081
recording or rerecording, with a minimum base fee of twenty 24082
dollars and a minimum housing trust fund fee of twenty dollars; 24083
for certifying a copy from the record, a base fee of two cents and 24084
a housing trust fund fee of two cents per square inch of the 24085
record, with a minimum base fee of two dollars and a minimum 24086
housing trust fund fee of two dollars.24087

       The fees provided in this section shall be paid upon the 24088
presentation of the instruments for record or upon the application 24089
for any certified copy of the record, except that the payment of 24090
fees associated with the filing and recording of, or the copying 24091
of, notices of internal revenue tax liens and notices of other 24092
liens in favor of the United States as described in division (A) 24093
of section 317.09 of the Revised Code and certificates of 24094
discharge or release of those liens, shall be governed by section 24095
317.09 of the Revised Code, and the payment of fees for providing 24096
copies of instruments conveying or extinguishing agricultural 24097
easements to the office of farmland preservation in the department 24098
of agriculture under division (H) of section 5301.691 of the 24099
Revised Code shall be governed by that division.24100

       Sec. 317.321.  (A) Not later than the first day of October of 24101
any year, the county recorder may submit to the board of county 24102
commissioners a proposal for funding any of the following:24103

       (1) The acquisition orand maintenance of micrographic or24104
imaging and other technological equipment or forand contract 24105
services or a proposal totherefor;24106

       (2) To reserve funds for the office's future equipment24107
technology needs if the county recorder has no immediate plans for 24108
the acquisition of imaging and other technological equipment or 24109
contract services, or to use the county recorder's technology fund 24110
as a dedicated revenue source to repay debt to purchase any 24111
imaging and other technological equipment before the accumulation 24112
of adequate resources to purchase the equipment with cash. Either24113

       (3) Subject to division (G) of this section, for other 24114
expenses associated with the acquisition and maintenance of 24115
imaging and other technological equipment and contract services.24116

       (B) The proposal shall be in writing and shall include at 24117
least the following:24118

       (1) A request that an amount not to exceed seveneight24119
dollars of the feetotal base fees collected for filing or 24120
recording a document for which a fee is charged as required by 24121
division (A)(1) of section 317.32 of the Revised Code or by 24122
section 1309.525 or 5310.15 of the Revised Code and the amount of 24123
the fees collected under division (A)(2) of section 317.32 of the 24124
Revised Code be placed in the county treasury and designated as 24125
"generalto the credit of the county recorder's technology fund 24126
moneys to supplement the equipment needs of the county recorder";24127

       (2) TheExcept as provided in division (E)(3) of this 24128
section, the number of years, not to exceed five, for which the 24129
county recorder requests that the amount requested under division 24130
(A)(1) of this section be given the designation specified in that 24131
division;24132

       (3) An estimate of the total amount of fees that will be 24133
generated for filing or recording a document for which a fee is 24134
charged as required by division (A)(1) or (2) of section 317.32 of 24135
the Revised Code or by section 1309.525 or 5310.15 of the Revised 24136
Code;24137

       (4) An estimate of the total amount of fees for filing or 24138
recording a document for which a fee is charged as required by 24139
division (A)(1) or (2) of section 317.32 of the Revised Code or by 24140
section 1309.525 or 5310.15 of the Revised Code that will be 24141
designated as "generalcredited to the county recorder's 24142
technology fund moneys to supplement the equipment needs of the 24143
county recorder" if the request submitted under division (A)(B)(1) 24144
of this section is approved by the board of county commissioners.24145

       (C) A proposal for the acquisition or maintenance of 24146
micrographic or other equipment or for contract services may24147
purposes of division (A)(1) of this section shall include a 24148
description or summary of the micrographic orimaging and other 24149
technological equipment, or maintenance of the micrographic or 24150
other equipment, that the county recorder proposes to acquire and 24151
maintain, orand the nature of contract services that the county 24152
recorder proposes to utilize, if the proposal is for those 24153
purposes. A proposal to reserve funds for the office's future 24154
equipment needs if the county recorder has no immediate plans for 24155
the acquisition of equipment or servicespurposes of division 24156
(A)(2) of this section shall explain the general future technology24157
needs of the office for imaging and other technological equipment, 24158
or for revenue to repay debt, if the proposal is for those 24159
purposes. A proposal for the purposes of division (A)(3) of this 24160
section shall identify the other expenses associated with the 24161
acquisition and maintenance of imaging and other technological 24162
equipment and contract services that the county recorder proposes 24163
to pay with moneys in the county recorder's technology fund, if 24164
the proposal is for those purposes.24165

       (B)(D) The board of county commissioners shall receive either24166
a proposal and the clerk shall enter it on the journal. At the 24167
same time, the board shall establish a date, not sooner than 24168
fifteen or later than thirty days after the board's receipt of24169
board receives the proposal, on which to meet with the recorder to 24170
review the proposal.24171

       (C)(E)(1) NotExcept as provided in division (E)(3) of this 24172
section, not later than the fifteenth day of December of any year 24173
in which a proposal for the acquisition or maintenance of 24174
micrographic or other equipment or for contract services is 24175
submitted under division (A) of this section, the board of county 24176
commissioners shall approve, reject, or modify the proposal and 24177
notify the county recorder of its action on the proposal. If the 24178
board rejects or modifies the proposal, it shall make a written 24179
finding that the request is for a purpose other than for 24180
acquiring, leasing, or otherwise obtaining micrographic or other 24181
equipment or contracts for use by the county recordera purpose in 24182
division (A) of this section, or that the amount requested for the 24183
acquisition or maintenance of micrographic or other equipment or 24184
for contract services is excessive as determined by the board. If 24185
the board approves the proposal, it shall request the 24186
establishment of a special fund under section 5705.12 of the 24187
Revised Code for any fees designated as "general fund moneys to 24188
supplement the equipment needs of the county recorder."24189

       (2) Not later than the fifteenth day of December of any year 24190
in which a proposal to reserve funds for the office's future 24191
equipment needs is submitted under division (A) of this section, 24192
the board of county commissioners shall approve the proposal, 24193
notify the county recorder of its action on the proposal, and 24194
request the establishment of a special fund under section 5705.12 24195
of the Revised Code for any fees designated as "generalA 24196
proposal submitted under division (A) of this section that was 24197
approved by the board of county commissioners before, and is in 24198
effect on, the effective date of this amendment shall continue in 24199
effect until January 1, 2019, notwithstanding the number of years 24200
of funding specified in the approved proposal.24201

       (3) A proposal submitted under division (A) of this section 24202
between October 1, 2013, and October 1, 2017, may request that an 24203
amount that does not exceed three dollars be credited to the 24204
county recorder's technology fund, in addition to the amount 24205
previously approved by the board of county commissioners in a 24206
proposal described in division (E)(2) of this section. The 24207
proposal may be submitted each year during that time period, but 24208
shall be limited to funding in the following fiscal year. If the 24209
total of the amount under division (E)(2) of this section and the 24210
amount requested under this division does not exceed eight 24211
dollars, the board shall approve the proposal and notify the 24212
county recorder of its approval.24213

       (4) If the total amount of fees provided for in divisions 24214
(B), (E)(2), and (E)(3) of this section is less than eight 24215
dollars, a proposal requesting additional fees may be submitted to 24216
the board of county commissioners under division (E)(1) of this 24217
section, as long as the total amount of the fees in divisions (B) 24218
and (E)(2), (3), and (4) of this section that are to be credited 24219
to the county recorder's technology fund does not exceed eight 24220
dollars, and the proposal is for a number of years, not to exceed 24221
five.24222

       (5) When a proposal is approved by the board of county 24223
commissioners under division (E) of this section, the county 24224
recorder's technology fund moneys to supplement the equipment 24225
needs of the county recorder."is established in the county 24226
treasury, and, beginning on the following first day of January, 24227
the fees approved shall be deposited in that fund.24228

       (D)(F) The acquisition orand maintenance of micrographic or24229
imaging and other technological equipment, and the acquisition of24230
other associated expenses and contract services therefor, shall be 24231
specifically governed by sections 307.80 to 307.806, 307.84 to 24232
307.846, 307.86 to 307.92, and 5705.38, and by division (D) of 24233
section 5705.41 of the Revised Code.24234

       (G) If the use of the county recorder's technology fund for 24235
the purposes of division (A)(3) of this section includes 24236
associated expenses for personnel, the use of the fund for 24237
personnel shall be strictly confined to personnel directly related 24238
to imaging and other technological equipment, and any compensation 24239
increases for those personnel shall not exceed the average of the 24240
annual aggregate percentage increase or decrease in the 24241
compensation fixed by the board of county commissioners for their 24242
employees, and for the officers in section 325.27 of the Revised 24243
Code. Use of the fund for compensation bonuses, or for recognizing 24244
outstanding employee performance in a manner described in section 24245
325.25 of the Revised Code, is prohibited.24246

       (H) If a county is under a fiscal caution under section 24247
118.025 of the Revised Code, or is under a fiscal watch or fiscal 24248
emergency as defined in section 118.01 of the Revised Code, the 24249
board of county commissioners, notwithstanding sections 5705.14 to 24250
5705.16 of the Revised Code, may transfer from the county 24251
recorder's technology fund any moneys the board deems necessary.24252

       Sec. 317.36. (A) The county recorder shall collect the low- 24253
and moderate-income housing trust fund fee as specified in 24254
sections 317.114, 317.32, 1563.42, 1702.59, 2505.13, 4141.23, 24255
4509.60, 5111.0225164.56, 5310.15, 5719.07, 5727.56, 5733.18, 24256
5733.22, 6101.09, and 6115.09 of the Revised Code. The amount of 24257
any housing trust fund fee the recorder is authorized to collect 24258
is equal to the amount of any base fee the recorder is authorized 24259
to collect for services. The housing trust fund fee shall be 24260
collected in addition to the base fee.24261

       (B) The recorder shall certify the amounts collected as 24262
housing trust fund fees pursuant to division (A) of this section 24263
into the county treasury as housing trust fund fees to be paid to 24264
the treasurer of state pursuant to section 319.63 of the Revised 24265
Code.24266

       Sec. 321.35.  Upon demand of the treasurer of state while 24267
holding a school district, county, township, or municipal 24268
corporation obligation purchased under division (G)(1) of section 24269
135.143 of the Revised Code, in making any payment under section 24270
321.31 or 321.34 of the Revised Code, the county auditor shall 24271
withhold funds of the school district, county, township, or 24272
municipal corporation in an amount sufficient to pay debt service 24273
charges on that obligation and any of the fee for the agreement to 24274
purchase that obligation, less any amount deposited for that 24275
purpose under division (D) of section 3317.18 of the Revised Code. 24276
The county auditor shall promptly pay to the treasurer of state 24277
the amount withheld.24278

       Sec. 321.44.  (A)(1) A county probation services fund shall 24279
be established in the county treasury of each county. The fund a 24280
county establishes under this division shall contain all moneys 24281
paid to the treasurer of the county under section 2951.021 of the 24282
Revised Code for deposit into the fund. The moneys paid into the 24283
fund shall be deposited by the treasurer of the county into the 24284
appropriate account established under divisions (A)(1)(a) to (d) 24285
of this section. Separate accounts shall be maintained in 24286
accordance with the following criteria in the fund a county 24287
establishes under this division:24288

       (a) If a county department of probation is established in the 24289
county, a separate account shall be maintained in the fund for the 24290
county department of probation.24291

       (b) If the judges of the court of common pleas of the county 24292
have affiliated with the judges of the court of common pleas of 24293
one or more other counties and have established a multicounty 24294
department of probation, a separate account shall be maintained in 24295
the fund for the multicounty department of probation.24296

       (c) If a department of probation is established in a 24297
county-operated municipal court that has jurisdiction within the 24298
county, a separate account shall be maintained in the fund for the 24299
municipal court department of probation.24300

       (d) If a county department of probation has not been 24301
established in the county and if the court of common pleas of the 24302
county, pursuant to section 2301.32 of the Revised Code, has 24303
entered into an agreement with the adult parole authority under 24304
which the court may place defendants under a community control 24305
sanction in charge of the authority, a separate account shall be 24306
maintained in the fund for the court of common pleas.24307

       (2) For any county, if a county department of probation is 24308
established in the county or if a department of probation is 24309
established in a county-operated municipal court that has 24310
jurisdiction within the county, the board of county commissioners 24311
of the county shall appropriate to the county department of 24312
probation or municipal court department of probation all money 24313
that is contained in the department's account in the county 24314
probation services fund established in the county for use only for 24315
specialized staff, purchase of equipment, purchase of services, 24316
reconciliation programs for offenders and victims, other treatment 24317
programs, including alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programs24318
services providers certified under section 3793.065119.36 of the 24319
Revised Code, determined to be appropriate by the chief probation 24320
officer of the department of probation, and other similar expenses 24321
related to placing offenders under a community control sanction.24322

       For any county, if the judges of the court of common pleas of 24323
the county have affiliated with the judges of the court of common 24324
pleas of one or more other counties and have established a 24325
multicounty department of probation to serve the counties, the 24326
board of county commissioners of the county shall appropriate and 24327
the county treasurer shall transfer to the multicounty probation 24328
services fund established for the multicounty department of 24329
probation under division (B) of this section all money that is 24330
contained in the multicounty department of probation account in 24331
the county probation services fund established in the county for 24332
use in accordance with that division.24333

       For any county, if a county department of probation has not 24334
been established in the county and if the court of common pleas of 24335
the county, pursuant to section 2301.32 of the Revised Code, has 24336
entered into an agreement with the adult parole authority under 24337
which the court may place defendants under a community control 24338
sanction in charge of the authority, the board of county 24339
commissioners of the county shall appropriate to the court all 24340
money that is contained in the court's account in the county 24341
probation services fund established in the county for use only for 24342
specialized staff, purchase of equipment, purchase of services, 24343
reconciliation programs for offenders and victims, other treatment 24344
and recovery support services, including properly credentialed 24345
treatment and recovery support services program providers or those 24346
certified under section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code, 24347
determined to be appropriate by the authority, and other similar 24348
uses related to placing offenders under a community control 24349
sanction.24350

       (B) If the judges of the courts of common pleas of two or 24351
more counties have established a multicounty department of 24352
probation, a multicounty probation services fund shall be 24353
established in the county treasury of the county whose treasurer, 24354
in accordance with section 2301.27 of the Revised Code, is 24355
designated by the judges of the courts of common pleas as the 24356
treasurer to whom monthly supervision fees are to be appropriated 24357
and transferred under division (A)(2) of this section for deposit 24358
into the fund. The fund shall contain all moneys that are paid to 24359
the treasurer of any member county under section 2951.021 of the 24360
Revised Code for deposit into the county's probation services fund 24361
and that subsequently are appropriated and transferred to the 24362
multicounty probation services fund under division (A)(2) of this 24363
section. The board of county commissioners of the county in which 24364
the multicounty probation services fund is established shall 24365
appropriate the money contained in that fund to the multicounty 24366
department of probation, for use only for specialized staff, 24367
purchase of equipment, purchase of services, reconciliation 24368
programs for offenders and victims, other treatment programs, 24369
including alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programsservices 24370
providers certified under section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised 24371
Code, determined to be appropriate by the chief probation officer, 24372
and for other similar expenses related to placing offenders under 24373
a community control sanction.24374

       (C) Any money in a county or multicounty probation services 24375
fund at the end of a fiscal year shall not revert to the general 24376
fund of the county but shall be retained in the fund.24377

       (D) As used in this section:24378

       (1) "County-operated municipal court" has the same meaning as 24379
in section 1901.03 of the Revised Code.24380

       (2) "Multicounty department of probation" means a probation 24381
department established under section 2301.27 of the Revised Code 24382
to serve more than one county.24383

       (3) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 24384
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.24385

       Sec. 323.158.  (A) As used in this section, "qualifying:24386

       (1) "Qualifying county" means a county to which both of the 24387
following apply:24388

       (1)(a) At least one major league professional athletic team 24389
playsplayed its home schedule in the county for the season 24390
beginning in 1996;24391

       (2)(b) The majority of the electors of the county, voting at 24392
an election held in 1996, approved a referendum on a resolution of 24393
the board of county commissioners levying a sales and use tax 24394
under sections 5739.026 and 5741.023 of the Revised Code.24395

       (2) "Eligible homestead" means a homestead that is not an 24396
ineligible homestead.24397

       (3) "Ineligible homestead" means either of the following:24398

       (a) A homestead against which foreclosure or other 24399
proceedings to take possession of the homestead have been 24400
initiated based on a mortgage, lien, or security interest on or in 24401
the homestead. A homestead is an "ineligible homestead" for any 24402
tax year during which such proceedings against the homestead 24403
remain pending.24404

       (b) A homestead that is listed on the delinquent tax list. A 24405
homestead is an "ineligible homestead" for any tax year during 24406
which the homestead is listed on the delinquent tax list.24407

       (B) On or before December 31, 1996, the board of county 24408
commissioners of a qualifying county may adopt a resolution under 24409
this section. The resolution shall grant a partial real property 24410
tax exemption to each eligible homestead in the county that also 24411
receives the tax reduction under division (B) of section 323.152 24412
of the Revised Code. The partial exemption shall take the form of 24413
the reduction by a specified percentage each year of the real 24414
property taxes on the eligible homestead. The resolution shall 24415
specify the percentage, which may be any amount. The board may 24416
include in the resolution a condition that the partial exemption 24417
will apply only upon the receipt by the county of additional 24418
revenue from a source specified in the resolution. The resolution 24419
shall specify the tax year in which the partial exemption first 24420
applies, which may be the tax year in which the resolution takes 24421
effect as long as the resolution takes effect before the county 24422
auditor certifies the tax duplicate of real and public utility 24423
property for that tax year to the county treasurer. Upon adopting 24424
the resolution, the board shall certify copies of it to the county 24425
auditor and the tax commissioner.24426

       (C) After complying with sections 319.301, 319.302, and 24427
323.152 of the Revised Code, the county auditor shall reduce the 24428
remaining sum to be levied against aan eligible homestead by the 24429
percentage called for in the resolution adopted under division (B) 24430
of this section. The auditor shall certify the amount of taxes 24431
remaining after the reduction to the county treasurer for 24432
collection as the real property taxes charged and payable on the24433
eligible homestead.24434

       (D) For each tax year, the county auditor shall certify to 24435
the board of county commissioners the total amount by which real 24436
property taxes were reduced under this section. At the time of 24437
each semi-annual settlement of real property taxes between the 24438
county auditor and county treasurer, the board of county 24439
commissioners shall pay to the auditor one-half of that total 24440
amount. Upon receipt of the payment, the county auditor shall 24441
distribute it among the various taxing districts in the county as 24442
if it had been levied, collected, and settled as real property 24443
taxes. The board of county commissioners shall make the payment 24444
from the county general fund or from any other county revenue that 24445
may be used for that purpose. In making the payment, the board may 24446
use revenue from taxes levied by the county to provide additional 24447
general revenue under sections 5739.021 and 5741.021 of the 24448
Revised Code or to provide additional revenue for the county 24449
general fund under sections 5739.026 and 5741.023 of the Revised 24450
Code.24451

       (E) The partial exemption under this section shall not 24452
directly or indirectly affect the determination of the principal 24453
amount of notes that may be issued in anticipation of a tax levy 24454
or the amount of securities that may be issued for any permanent 24455
improvements authorized in conjunction with a tax levy.24456

       (F) At any time, the board of county commissioners may adopt 24457
a resolution amending or repealing the partial exemption granted 24458
under this section. Upon adopting a resolution amending or 24459
repealing the partial exemption, the board shall certify copies of 24460
it to the county auditor and the tax commissioner. The resolution 24461
shall specify the tax year in which the amendment or repeal first 24462
applies, which may be the tax year in which the resolution takes 24463
effect as long as the resolution takes effect before the county 24464
auditor certifies the tax duplicate of real and public utility 24465
property for that tax year to the county treasurer.24466

       (G) If a person files a late application for a tax reduction 24467
under division (B) of section 323.152 of the Revised Code for the 24468
preceding year for an eligible homestead, and is granted the 24469
reduction, the person also shall receive the reduction under this 24470
section for the preceding year. The county auditor shall credit 24471
the amount of the reduction against the person's current year 24472
taxes, and shall include the amount of the reduction in the amount 24473
certified to the board of county commissioners under division (D) 24474
of this section.24475

       Sec. 329.04.  (A) The county department of job and family 24476
services shall have, exercise, and perform the following powers 24477
and duties:24478

       (1) Perform any duties assigned by the state department of 24479
job and family services or department of medicaid regarding the 24480
provision of public family services, including the provision of 24481
the following services to prevent or reduce economic or personal 24482
dependency and to strengthen family life:24483

       (a) Services authorized by a Title IV-A program, as defined 24484
in section 5101.80 of the Revised Code;24485

       (b) Social services authorized by Title XX of the "Social 24486
Security Act" and provided for by section 5101.46 or 5101.461 of 24487
the Revised Code;24488

       (c) If the county department is designated as the child 24489
support enforcement agency, services authorized by Title IV-D of 24490
the "Social Security Act" and provided for by Chapter 3125. of the 24491
Revised Code. The county department may perform the services 24492
itself or contract with other government entities, and, pursuant 24493
to division (C) of section 2301.35 and section 2301.42 of the 24494
Revised Code, private entities, to perform the Title IV-D 24495
services.24496

       (d) Duties assigned under section 5111.985162.031 of the 24497
Revised Code.24498

       (2) Administer disability financial assistance, as required 24499
by the state department of job and family services under section 24500
5115.03 of the Revised Code;24501

       (3) Administer burials insofar as the administration of 24502
burials was, prior to September 12, 1947, imposed upon the board 24503
of county commissioners and if otherwise required by state law;24504

       (4) Cooperate with state and federal authorities in any 24505
matter relating to family services and to act as the agent of such 24506
authorities;24507

       (5) Submit an annual account of its work and expenses to the 24508
board of county commissioners and to the state department of job 24509
and family services and department of medicaid at the close of 24510
each fiscal year;24511

       (6) Exercise any powers and duties relating to family 24512
services duties or workforce development activities imposed upon 24513
the county department of job and family services by law, by 24514
resolution of the board of county commissioners, or by order of 24515
the governor, when authorized by law, to meet emergencies during 24516
war or peace;24517

       (7) Determine the eligibility for medical assistance of 24518
recipients of aid under Title XVI of the "Social Security Act";24519

       (8) If assigned by the state director of job and family 24520
services under section 5101.515 or 5101.525 of the Revised Code, 24521
determine applicants' eligibility for health assistance under the 24522
children's health insurance program part II or part III;24523

       (9) Enter into a plan of cooperation with the board of county 24524
commissioners under section 307.983, consult with the board in the 24525
development of the transportation work plan developed under 24526
section 307.985, establish with the board procedures under section 24527
307.986 for providing services to children whose families relocate 24528
frequently, and comply with the contracts the board enters into 24529
under sections 307.981 and 307.982 of the Revised Code that affect 24530
the county department;24531

       (10)(8) For the purpose of complying with a grant agreement 24532
the board of county commissioners enters into under sections 24533
307.98 and 5101.21 of the Revised Code, exercise the powers and 24534
perform the duties the grant agreement assigns to the county 24535
department;24536

       (11)(9) If the county department is designated as the 24537
workforce development agency, provide the workforce development 24538
activities specified in the contract required by section 330.05 of 24539
the Revised Code.24540

       (B) The powers and duties of a county department of job and 24541
family services are, and shall be exercised and performed, under 24542
the control and direction of the board of county commissioners. 24543
The board may assign to the county department any power or duty of 24544
the board regarding family services duties and workforce 24545
development activities. If the new power or duty necessitates the 24546
state department of job and family services or department of 24547
medicaid changing its federal cost allocation plan, the county 24548
department may not implement the power or duty unless the United 24549
States department of health and human services approves the 24550
changes.24551

       Sec. 329.051.  The county department of job and family 24552
services shall make voter registration applications as prescribed 24553
by the secretary of state under section 3503.10 of the Revised 24554
Code available to persons who are applying for, receiving 24555
assistance from, or participating in any of the following:24556

       (A) The disability financial assistance program established 24557
under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code;24558

       (B) The medical assistancemedicaid program established under 24559
Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code;24560

       (C) The Ohio works first program established under Chapter 24561
5107. of the Revised Code;24562

       (D) The prevention, retention, and contingency program 24563
established under Chapter 5108. of the Revised Code.24564

       Sec. 329.06.  (A) Except as provided in division (C) of this 24565
section and section 6301.08 of the Revised Code, the board of 24566
county commissioners shall establish a county family services 24567
planning committee. The board shall appoint a member to represent 24568
the county department of job and family services; an employee in 24569
the classified civil service of the county department of job and 24570
family services, if there are any such employees; and a member to 24571
represent the public. The board shall appoint other individuals to 24572
the committee in such a manner that the committee's membership is 24573
broadly representative of the groups of individuals and the public 24574
and private entities that have an interest in the family services 24575
provided in the county. The board shall make appointments in a 24576
manner that reflects the ethnic and racial composition of the 24577
county. The following groups and entities may be represented on 24578
the committee:24579

       (1) Consumers of family services;24580

       (2) The public children services agency;24581

       (3) The child support enforcement agency;24582

       (4) The county family and children first council;24583

       (5) Public and private colleges and universities;24584

       (6) Public entities that provide family services, including 24585
boards of health, boards of education, the county board of 24586
developmental disabilities, and the board of alcohol, drug 24587
addiction, and mental health services that serves the county;24588

       (7) Private nonprofit and for-profit entities that provide 24589
family services in the county or that advocate for consumers of 24590
family services in the county, including entities that provide 24591
services to or advocate for victims of domestic violence;24592

       (8) Labor organizations;24593

       (9) Any other group or entity that has an interest in the 24594
family services provided in the county, including groups or 24595
entities that represent any of the county's business, urban, and 24596
rural sectors.24597

       (B) The county family services planning committee shall do 24598
all of the following:24599

       (1) Serve as an advisory body to the board of county 24600
commissioners with regard to the family services provided in the 24601
county, including assistance under Chapters 5107. and 5108. of the 24602
Revised Code, publicly funded child care under Chapter 5104. of 24603
the Revised Code, and social services provided under section 24604
5101.46 of the Revised Code;24605

       (2) At least once a year, review and analyze the county 24606
department of job and family services' implementation of the 24607
programs established under Chapters 5107. and 5108. of the Revised 24608
Code. In its review, the committee shall use information available 24609
to it to examine all of the following:24610

       (a) Return of assistance groups to participation in either 24611
program after ceasing to participate;24612

       (b) Teen pregnancy rates among the programs' participants;24613

       (c) The other types of assistance the programs' participants 24614
receive, including medicaid under Chapter 5111. of the Revised 24615
Code, publicly funded child care under Chapter 5104. of the 24616
Revised Code, supplemental nutrition assistance program benefits 24617
under section 5101.54 of the Revised Code, and energy assistance 24618
under Chapter 5117. of the Revised Code;24619

       (d) Other issues the committee considers appropriate.24620

       The committee shall make recommendations to the board of 24621
county commissioners and county department of job and family 24622
services regarding the committee's findings.24623

       (3) Conduct public hearings on proposed county profiles for 24624
the provision of social services under section 5101.46 of the 24625
Revised Code;24626

       (4) At the request of the board, make recommendations and 24627
provide assistance regarding the family services provided in the 24628
county;24629

       (5) At any other time the committee considers appropriate, 24630
consult with the board and make recommendations regarding the 24631
family services provided in the county. The committee's 24632
recommendations may address the following:24633

       (a) Implementation and administration of family service 24634
programs;24635

       (b) Use of federal, state, and local funds available for 24636
family service programs;24637

       (c) Establishment of goals to be achieved by family service 24638
programs;24639

       (d) Evaluation of the outcomes of family service programs;24640

       (e) Any other matter the board considers relevant to the 24641
provision of family services.24642

       (C) If there is a committee in existence in a county on 24643
October 1, 1997, that the board of county commissioners determines 24644
is capable of fulfilling the responsibilities of a county family 24645
services planning committee, the board may designate the committee 24646
as the county's family services planning committee and the 24647
committee shall serve in that capacity.24648

       Sec. 329.14.  (A) An individual whose household income does 24649
not exceed two hundred per cent of the federal poverty line is 24650
eligible to participate in an individual development account 24651
program established by the county department of job and family 24652
services of the county in which the individual resides. An 24653
eligible individual seeking to be a participant in the program 24654
shall enter into an agreement with the fiduciary organization 24655
administering the program. The agreement shall specify the terms 24656
and conditions of uses of funds deposited, financial documentation 24657
required to be maintained by the participant, expectations and 24658
responsibilities of the participant, and services to be provided 24659
by the fiduciary organization.24660

       (B) A participant may deposit earned income, as defined in 26 24661
U.S.C. 911(d)(2), as amended, into the account. The fiduciary 24662
organization may deposit into the account an amount not exceeding 24663
four times the amount deposited by the participant except that a 24664
fiduciary organization may not, pursuant to an agreement with an 24665
employer, deposit an amount into an account held by a participant 24666
who is employed by the employer. An account may have no more than 24667
ten thousand dollars in it at any time.24668

       (C) Notwithstanding eligibility requirements established in 24669
or pursuant to Chapter 5107.,or 5108., or 5111. of the Revised 24670
Code, to the extent permitted by federal statutes and regulations, 24671
money in an individual development account, including interest, is 24672
exempt from consideration in determining whether the participant 24673
or a member of the participant's assistance group is eligible for 24674
assistance under Chapter 5107.,or 5108., or 5111. of the Revised 24675
Code and the amount of assistance the participant or assistance 24676
group is eligible to receive.24677

       (D)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(2) of this section, 24678
an individual development account program participant may use 24679
money in the account only for the following purposes:24680

       (a) Postsecondary educational expenses paid directly from the 24681
account to an eligible education institution or vendor;24682

       (b) Qualified acquisition expenses of a principal residence, 24683
as defined in 26 U.S.C. 1034, as amended, paid directly from the 24684
account to the person or government entity to which the expenses 24685
are due;24686

       (c) Qualified business capitalization expenses made in 24687
accordance with a qualified business plan that has been approved 24688
by a financial institution or by a nonprofit microenterprise 24689
program having demonstrated business expertise and paid directly 24690
from the account to the person to whom the expenses are due.24691

       (2) A fiduciary organization shall permit a participant to 24692
withdraw money deposited by the participant if it is needed to 24693
deal with a personal emergency of the participant or a member of 24694
the participant's family or household. Withdrawal shall result in 24695
the loss of any matching funds in an amount equal to the amount of 24696
the withdrawal.24697

       (3) Regardless of the reason for the withdrawal, a withdrawal 24698
from an individual development account may be made only with the 24699
approval of the fiduciary organization.24700

       Sec. 333.01.  As used in this chapter:24701

       (A) "County sales and use tax" means the tax levied by a 24702
county under division (A) of section 5739.021 or division (A) of 24703
section 5741.021 of the Revised Code that is returned or 24704
distributed to the county under section 5739.21 or 5741.03 of the 24705
Revised Code.24706

       (B) "Impact facility" means a permanent structure, including 24707
all interior or exterior square footage used for educational or 24708
exhibition activities, that meets all of the following criteria:24709

       (1) It is used for the sale of tangible personal property or 24710
services;24711

       (2) At least ten per cent of the facility's total square 24712
footage is dedicated to educational or exhibition activities;24713

       (3) At least fiftythirty million dollars is invested in 24714
land, buildings, infrastructure, and equipment for the facility at 24715
the site of the facility over a period of not more than two years;24716

       (4) An annualized average of at least one hundred fifty new 24717
full-time equivalent positions will be created and maintained at 24718
the facility;24719

       (5) More than fifty per cent of the visitors to the facility 24720
are reasonably anticipated to live at least one hundredfifty24721
miles from the facility.24722

       (C) "Qualifying investment" means a person's investment in 24723
land, buildings, infrastructure, and equipment for creating an 24724
impact facility.24725

       (D) "Full-time equivalent positions" means the total number 24726
of hours worked at a facility in a work week, divided by forty 24727
hours per week.24728

       Sec. 333.02.  Before June 1, 20072015, a board of county 24729
commissioners of a county that levies a county sales and use tax 24730
may enter into an agreement with any person that proposes to 24731
construct an impact facility in the county to provide payments to 24732
that person of up to seventy-five per cent of the county sales and 24733
use tax collected on each retail sale made by that person at the 24734
facility, for a term of up to ten years, or until the person's 24735
qualifying investment in the impact facility has been realized 24736
through the payments, whichever occurs first.24737

       Sec. 333.03.  (A) A person seeking to enter into an agreement 24738
and obtain payments under section 333.02 of the Revised Code shall 24739
provide both of the following to the board of county 24740
commissioners:24741

       (1) A certification by the person's chief financial officer, 24742
or the equivalent if that position does not exist, that the 24743
criteria listed in division (B) of section 333.01 of the Revised 24744
Code will be met; and24745

       (2) An application on a form or in a format acceptable to the 24746
board that describes the proposed impact facility, including the 24747
projected level of investment in and new jobs to be created at the 24748
facility, the rationale used for determining that more than fifty 24749
per cent of the facility's visitors live at least one hundred24750
fifty miles from the facility, the types of activities to be 24751
conducted at the facility, the projected levels of sales to occur 24752
at the facility, a calculation of the facility's square footage 24753
that will be dedicated to educational or exhibition activities, 24754
and any other information the board of county commissioners 24755
reasonably requests about the expected operations of the facility.24756

       (B) The board of county commissioners shall request the 24757
director of development services to certify that the proposed 24758
facility meets the criteria for an impact facility listed in 24759
division (B) of section 333.01 of the Revised Code. The board of 24760
county commissioners may, but need not, make findings of fact that 24761
a proposed facility meets the criteria for an impact facility 24762
listed in division (B) of section 333.01 of the Revised Code 24763
before or after requesting the certification. If the director of 24764
development services certifies a proposed facility as an impact 24765
facility under this section, and if the board makes such findings, 24766
the findings and certification are conclusive and not subject to 24767
reopening at any time.24768

       Sec. 333.04. (A) After review of the items submitted under 24769
division (A) of section 333.03 of the Revised Code, and after 24770
receipt of the certification from the director of development 24771
services under division (B) of that section, a board of county 24772
commissioners, before June 1, 20072015, may enter into an 24773
agreement under section 333.02 of the Revised Code, provided that 24774
the board has determined all of the following:24775

       (1) The proposed impact facility is economically sound;24776

       (2) Construction of the proposed impact facility has not 24777
begun prior to the day the agreement is entered into;24778

       (3) The impact facility will benefit the county by increasing 24779
employment opportunities and strengthening the local and regional 24780
economy; and24781

       (4) Receiving payments from the board of county commissioners 24782
is a major factor in the person's decision to go forward with 24783
construction of the impact facility.24784

       (B) An agreement entered into under this section shall 24785
include all of the following:24786

       (1) A description of the impact facility that is the subject 24787
of the agreement, including the existing investment level, if any, 24788
the proposed amount of investments, the scheduled starting and 24789
completion dates for the facility, and the number and type of 24790
full-time equivalent positions to be created at the facility;24791

       (2) The percentage of the county sales and use tax collected 24792
at the impact facility that will be used to make payments to the 24793
person entering into the agreement;24794

       (3) The term of the payments and the first calendar quarter 24795
in which the person may apply for a payment under section 333.06 24796
of the Revised Code;24797

       (4) A requirement that the amount of payments made to the 24798
person during the term established under division (B)(3) of this 24799
section shall not exceed the person's qualifying investment, and 24800
that all payments cease when that amount is reached;24801

       (5) A requirement that the person maintain operations at the 24802
impact facility for at least the term established under division 24803
(B)(3) of this section;24804

       (6) A requirement that the person annually certify to the 24805
board of county commissioners, on or before a date established by 24806
the board in the agreement, the level of investment in, the number 24807
of employees and type of full-time equivalent positions at, and 24808
the amount of county sales and use tax collected and remitted to 24809
the tax commissioner or treasurer of state from sales made at, the 24810
facility;24811

       (7) A provision stating that the creation of the proposed 24812
impact facility does not involve the relocation of more than ten24813
any full-time equivalent positions and two million dollars in 24814
taxable assetsor any tangible personal property to the impact 24815
facility from another facility owned by the person, or a related 24816
member of the person, that is located in another political 24817
subdivision of this state, other than the political subdivision in 24818
which the impact facility is or will be located;24819

       (8) A provision stating that the person will not relocate 24820
more than ten full-time equivalent positions and two million 24821
dollars in taxable assets to the impact facility from another 24822
facility in another political subdivision of this state during the 24823
term of the payments without the written approval of the director 24824
of development;24825

       (9) A detailed explanation of how the person determined that 24826
more than fifty per cent of the visitors to the facility live at 24827
least one hundredfifty miles from the facility.24828

       (C) For purposes of this section, the transfer of a full-time 24829
equivalent position or taxable asset from another political 24830
subdivision in this state to the political subdivision in which 24831
the impact facility is or will be located shall be considered a 24832
relocation, unless the person refills the full-time equivalent 24833
position, or replaces the taxable asset with an asset of equal or 24834
greater taxable value, within six months after the transfer. The 24835
person may not receive a payment under this chapter for any year 24836
in which more than ten relocations occurred without the written 24837
consent of the board of county commissionersNo payment may be 24838
made under this chapter to a person that is found to be in 24839
violation of the provision described in division (B)(7) of this 24840
section.24841

       Sec. 333.05.  (A) IfExcept as otherwise provided in this 24842
division, if a person fails to meet or comply with any provision 24843
of an agreement entered into under section 333.02 of the Revised 24844
Code, the board of county commissioners may amend the agreement to 24845
reduce the percentage or term, or both, of the payments the person 24846
is entitled to receive under the agreement. The reduction shall 24847
commence in the calendar quarter immediately following the 24848
calendar quarter in which the board amends the agreement. If a 24849
person fails to comply with the provision described in division 24850
(B)(7) of section 333.04 of the Revised Code, no payments may be 24851
made under this chapter to that person after the person is found 24852
to be in violation.24853

       (B) A board of county commissioners shall submit to the 24854
department of development and to the tax commissioner a copy of 24855
each agreement entered into under section 333.02 of the Revised 24856
Code and any modifications to an agreement within thirty days 24857
after finalization or modification of the agreement.24858

       Sec. 339.02.  (A) As used in this section, "area served by 24859
the hospital" means the geographic area, whether or not included 24860
within the county, from which a county hospital regularly draws 24861
patients.24862

       (B) Unless a board of county hospital trustees for the county 24863
is in existence in accordance with this section, such board shall 24864
be created pursuant to this section after the board of county 24865
commissioners first determines by resolution to establish a county 24866
hospital. Copies of such resolution shall be certified to the 24867
probate judge of the county senior in point of service and to the 24868
judge, other than a probate judge, of the court of common pleas of 24869
the county senior in point of service. The board of county 24870
commissioners together with the probate judge of the county senior 24871
in point of service and the judge of the court of common pleas of 24872
the county senior in point of service shall, within ten days after 24873
such certification, appoint a board of county hospital trustees.24874

        (C) In making appointments to a board of county hospital 24875
trustees, allboth of the following apply with respect to the 24876
individuals who may be appointed:24877

       (1) Members shall be electors and representative of the area 24878
served by the hospital, except that not more than two members may 24879
be electors of the area served by the hospital that is outside the 24880
county in which the hospital is located.24881

       (2) In no case shall more than one-half of the members be 24882
independents or be members of any one political party.24883

       (3) A physician may serve as a member, including a physician 24884
who is authorized to admit and treat patients at the hospital, 24885
except as follows:24886

       (a) Not more than two physicians may serve as members at the 24887
same time;24888

       (b) No physician who is employed by the hospital may serve as 24889
a member.24890

       (D) A board of county hospital trustees shall be composed of 24891
six members, unless the board of county commissioners determines 24892
that the board of trustees can more effectively function with 24893
eight or ten members in which case there may be eight or ten 24894
members, as designated by the board of county commissioners.24895

       (E) With respect to the initial appointment of members to a 24896
board of county hospital trustees, all of the following apply:24897

       (1) When the board is composed of six members, their terms of 24898
office shall be one for one year, one for two years, one for three 24899
years, one for four years, one for five years, and one for six 24900
years from the first Monday of March thereafter.24901

       (2) When the board is composed of eight members, their terms 24902
of office shall be one for one year, one for two years, two for 24903
three years, one for four years, one for five years, and two for 24904
six years from the first Monday of March thereafter.24905

       (3) When the board is composed of ten members, their terms of 24906
office shall be two for one year, one for two years, two for three 24907
years, two for four years, one for five years, and two for six 24908
years from the first Monday of March thereafter.24909

       (F) Except as provided in division (G)(2) of this section, 24910
all of the following apply with respect to vacancies on a board of 24911
county hospital trustees:24912

       (1) Annually, on the first Monday of March, the board of 24913
county commissioners together with the probate judge of the county 24914
senior in point of service and the judge of the court of common 24915
pleas of the county senior in point of service shall appoint or 24916
reappoint for a term of six years a sufficient number of members 24917
to replace those members whose terms have expired.24918

       (2) The appointing authority shall fill a vacancy not later 24919
than six months after the vacancy occurs. If the vacancy remains 24920
unfilled on that date, the remaining members of the board, by 24921
majority vote, shall appoint an individual to fill the vacancy.24922

       (3) The appointing authority may fill a vacancy by seeking 24923
nominations from a selection committee consisting of one county 24924
commissioner designated by the board of county commissioners, the 24925
chair of the board of county hospital trustees, and the county 24926
hospital administrator. If nominations for filling a vacancy are 24927
sought from a selection committee, the committee shall nominate at 24928
least three individuals for the vacancy. The appointing authority 24929
may fill the vacancy by appointing one of the nominated 24930
individuals or by appointing another individual selected by the 24931
appointing authority.24932

       (4) Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to 24933
the expiration date of the term for which the member's predecessor 24934
was appointed shall hold office as a member for the remainder of 24935
that term.24936

       (G)(1) The board of county commissioners together with the 24937
probate judge senior in point of service and the judge of the 24938
court of common pleas senior in point of service in any county in 24939
which a board of county hospital trustees has been appointed may 24940
expand the number of members to eight or to ten. When the number 24941
of members is increased to eight, one shall be appointed for a 24942
three-year and one for a six-year term from the first Monday of 24943
March thereafter. When the number of members is increased from six 24944
to ten, the term for additional members shall be: one for one 24945
year, one for three years, one for four years, and one for six 24946
years from the first Monday of March thereafter. When the number 24947
of members is increased from eight to ten, the term for additional 24948
members shall be: one for one year and one for four years from the 24949
first Monday of March thereafter. Thereafter except as provided in 24950
division (G)(2) of this section, upon the expiration of the term 24951
of office of each member, the vacancy shall be filled in the 24952
manner specified in division (F) of this section.24953

       (2) The board of county commissioners together with the 24954
probate judge senior in point of service and the judge of the 24955
court of common pleas senior in point of service may reduce the 24956
number of members of a board of county hospital trustees to eight 24957
or to six. The reduction shall occur on expiration of a member's 24958
term of office, at which time no appointment shall be made. While 24959
the board of county commissioners and the judges are in the 24960
process of reducing the number of members, the board of county 24961
hospital trustees may consist of nine or seven members for one 24962
year.24963

       (H) Any member of a board of county hospital trustees may be 24964
removed from office by the appointing authority for neglect of 24965
duty, misconduct, or malfeasance in office. The member shall be 24966
informed in writing of the charges and afforded an opportunity for 24967
a hearing before the appointing authority. The appointing 24968
authority shall not remove a member from office for political 24969
reasons.24970

       (I) The board of county commissioners may provide members of 24971
a board of county hospital trustees shalla stipend for their 24972
service or require the members to serve without compensation, but. 24973
The members shall be allowed their necessary and reasonable 24974
expenses incurred in the performance of their duties, including 24975
the cost of their participation in any continuing education 24976
programs or developmental programs that the members consider 24977
necessary. Allowable stipends and expenses shall be paid out of 24978
the funds provided for the county hospital.24979

        (J) The persons selected to be members of a board of county 24980
hospital trustees shall forthwith be notified, by mail, of their 24981
appointment. When a board is initially appointed, the notice shall 24982
state a time, not more than ten days later, when such board shall 24983
meet at the county seat of such county to organize. On the date 24984
stated, the board shall meet and organize.24985

       (K) A board of county hospital trustees shall organize by 24986
electing one of its number as chairperson and such other officers 24987
as specified in the board's rules. Four members of a six-member 24988
board constitute a quorum, five members constitute a quorum of an 24989
eight-member board, and six members constitute a quorum of a 24990
ten-member board.24991

        A board of county hospital trustees shall hold meetings at 24992
least once a monthquarterly, shall adopt necessary rules of 24993
procedure, and shall keep a record of its proceedings and a strict 24994
account of all its receipts, disbursements, and expenditures. On 24995
completion of the construction and equipping of a county hospital, 24996
the board shall file such account with the board of county 24997
commissioners and make final settlement with the board of county 24998
commissioners for the construction and equipping of the hospital.24999

       Sec. 339.05. (A) A board of county hospital trustees may 25000
adopt, annually, bidding procedures and purchasing or leasing25001
policies for services provided through a joint purchasing 25002
arrangement sponsored by a nonprofit organization, and for 25003
services, supplies, and equipment, that are routinely used in the 25004
operation of the hospital and that cost in excess of the amount 25005
specified in section 307.86 of the Revised Code as the amount 25006
above which purchases must be competitively bid. If a board of 25007
county hospital trustees adopts those policies and procedures, and 25008
if the board of county commissioners approves them, the board of 25009
county hospital trustees may follow those policies and procedures 25010
in lieu of following the competitive bidding procedures of 25011
sections 307.86 to 307.92 of the Revised Code.25012

       (B) Notwithstanding section 307.86 of the Revised Code, the 25013
board of county hospital trustees is exempt from competitive 25014
bidding as required under that section if the board, by a 25015
unanimous vote of its members, makes a determination that a real 25016
and present emergency exists, and either of the following applies:25017

       (1) The estimated cost is less than one hundred thousand 25018
dollars.25019

       (2) There is actual physical damage to structures or 25020
equipment.25021

       The board shall enter the determination of emergency and the 25022
reasons for it in the minutes of its proceedings.25023

       For purposes of this section, a vote is unanimous if all 25024
members of a board of county hospital trustees are present, or a 25025
lesser number of members of the board if not all members are 25026
present, provided that the number of members present constitutes a 25027
quorum.25028

       Whenever a contract of purchase, lease, or construction is 25029
exempted from competitive bidding because the estimated cost is 25030
less than one hundred thousand dollars, but the estimated cost is 25031
fifty thousand dollars or more, the board shall solicit informal 25032
estimates from not fewer than three persons who could perform the 25033
contract, before awarding the contract. With regard to each such 25034
contract, the board shall maintain a record of the informal 25035
estimates, including the name of each person from whom an informal 25036
estimate was solicited. The board shall maintain the record for 25037
the longer of at least one year after the contract is awarded or 25038
an amount of time required by the federal government.25039

       Sec. 339.06.  (A) The board of county hospital trustees, upon 25040
completion of construction or leasing and equipping of a county 25041
hospital, shall assume and continue the operation of the hospital. 25042

       (B) The board of county hospital trustees shall have the 25043
entire management and control of the county hospital. The board 25044
may in writing delegate its management and control of the county 25045
hospital to the administrator of the county hospital employed 25046
under section 339.07 of the Revised Code. The board shall 25047
establish such rules for the hospital's government, management, 25048
control, and the admission of persons as are expedient.25049

        (C) The board of county hospital trustees has control of the 25050
property of the county hospital, including management and disposal 25051
of surplus property other than real estate or an interest in real 25052
estate.25053

       (D) With respect to the use of funds by the board of county 25054
hospital trustees and its accounting for the use of funds, all of 25055
the following apply:25056

       (1) The board of county hospital trustees has control of all 25057
funds used in the county hospital's operation, including moneys 25058
received from the operation of the hospital, moneys appropriated 25059
for its operation by the board of county commissioners, and moneys 25060
resulting from special levies submitted by the board of county 25061
commissioners as provided for in section 5705.22 of the Revised 25062
Code. 25063

       (2) Of the funds used in the county hospital's operation, all 25064
or part of any amount determined not to be necessary to meet 25065
current demands on the hospital may be invested by the board of 25066
county hospital trustees or its designee in any classifications of 25067
securities and obligations eligible for deposit or investment of 25068
county moneys pursuant to section 135.35 of the Revised Code, 25069
subject to the approval of the board's written investment policy 25070
by the county investment advisory committee established pursuant 25071
to section 135.341 of the Revised Code.25072

       (3) Annually, not later than sixty days before the end of the 25073
fiscal year used by the county hospital, the board of county 25074
hospital trustees shall submit its proposed budget for the ensuing 25075
fiscal year to the board of county commissioners for that board's 25076
review. The board of county commissioners shall review and approve 25077
the proposed budget by the first day of the fiscal year to which 25078
the budget applies. If the board of county commissioners has not 25079
approved the budget by the first day of the fiscal year to which 25080
the budget applies, the budget is deemed to have been approved by 25081
the board on the first day of that fiscal year.25082

       (4) The board of county hospital trustees shall not expend 25083
funds received from taxes collected pursuant to any tax levied 25084
under section 5705.22 of the Revised Code or the amount 25085
appropriated to the county hospital by the board of county 25086
commissioners in the annual appropriation measure for the county 25087
until its budget for the applicable fiscal year is approved in 25088
accordance with division (C)(3) of this section. At any time the 25089
amount received from those sources differs from the amount shown 25090
in the approved budget, the board of county commissioners may 25091
require the board of county hospital trustees to revise the county 25092
hospital budget accordingly. 25093

       (5) Funds under the control of the board of county hospital 25094
trustees may be disbursed by the board, consistent with the 25095
approved budget, for the uses and purposes of the county hospital; 25096
for the replacement of necessary equipment; for the acquisition, 25097
leasing, or construction of permanent improvements to county 25098
hospital property; or for making a donation authorized by division 25099
(E) of this section. Each disbursement of funds shall be made on a 25100
voucher signed by signatories designated and approved by the board 25101
of county hospital trustees.25102

       (6) The head of a board of county hospital trustees is not 25103
required to file an estimate of contemplated revenue and 25104
expenditures for the ensuing fiscal year under section 5705.28 of 25105
the Revised Code unless the board of county commissioners levies a 25106
tax for the county hospital, or such a tax is proposed, or the 25107
board of county hospital trustees desires that the board of county 25108
commissioners make an appropriation to the county hospital for the 25109
ensuing fiscal year.25110

       (7) All moneys appropriated by the board of county 25111
commissioners or from special levies by the board of county 25112
commissioners for the operation of the hospital, when collected 25113
shall be paid to the board of county hospital trustees on a 25114
warrant of the county auditor and approved by the board of county 25115
commissioners. 25116

       (8) The board of county hospital trustees shall provide for 25117
the conduct of an annual financial audit of the county hospital. 25118
Not later than thirty days after it receives the final report of 25119
an annual financial audit, the board shall file a copy of the 25120
report with the board of county commissioners.25121

       (E) For the public purpose of improving the health, safety, 25122
and general welfare of the community, the board of county hospital 25123
trustees may donate to a nonprofit entity any of the following:25124

       (1) Moneys and other financial assets determined not to be 25125
necessary to meet current demands on the hospital;25126

       (2) Surplus hospital property, including supplies, equipment, 25127
office facilities, and other property that is not real estate or 25128
an interest in real estate;25129

       (3) Services rendered by the hospital.25130

       (F)(1) For purposes of division (F)(2) of this section:25131

       (a) "Bank" has the same meaning as in section 1101.01 of the 25132
Revised Code.25133

       (b) "Savings and loan association" has the same meaning as in 25134
section 1151.01 of the Revised Code.25135

       (c) "Savings bank" has the same meaning as in section 1161.01 25136
of the Revised Code.25137

       (2) The board of county hospital trustees may enter into a 25138
contract for a secured line of credit with a bank, savings and 25139
loan association, or savings bank if the contract meets all of the 25140
following requirements:25141

       (a) The term of the contract does not exceed one year, except 25142
that the contract may provide for the automatic renewal of the 25143
contract for up to four additional one-year periods if, on the 25144
date of automatic renewal, the aggregate outstanding draws 25145
remaining unpaid under the secured line of credit do not exceed 25146
fifty per cent of the maximum amount that can be drawn under the 25147
secured line of credit.25148

       (b) The contract provides that the bank, savings and loan 25149
association, or savings bank shall not commence a civil action 25150
against the board of county commissioners, any member of the 25151
board, or the county to recover the principal, interest, or any 25152
charges or other amounts that remain outstanding on the secured 25153
line of credit at the time of any default by the board of county 25154
hospital trustees.25155

       (c) The contract provides that no assets other than those of 25156
the county hospital can be used to secure the line of credit.25157

       (d) The terms and conditions of the contract comply with all 25158
state and federal statutes and rules governing the extension of a 25159
secured line of credit.25160

       (3) Any obligation incurred by a board of county hospital 25161
trustees under division (F)(2) of this section is an obligation of 25162
that board only and not a general obligation of the board of 25163
county commissioners or the county within the meaning of division 25164
(Q) of section 133.01 of the Revised Code.25165

       (4) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in the Revised 25166
Code, the board of county hospital trustees may secure the line of 25167
credit authorized under division (F)(2) of this section by the 25168
grant of a security interest in any part or all of its tangible 25169
personal property and intangible personal property, including its 25170
deposit accounts, accounts receivable, or both.25171

       (5) No board of county hospital trustees shall at any time 25172
have more than one secured line of credit under division (F)(2) of 25173
this section.25174

       (G) The board of county hospital trustees shall establish a 25175
schedule of charges for all services and treatment rendered by the 25176
county hospital. It may provide for the free treatment in the 25177
hospital of soldiers, sailors, and marines of the county, under 25178
such conditions and rules as it prescribes.25179

       (H) The board of county hospital trustees may designate the 25180
amounts and forms of insurance protection to be provided, and the 25181
board of county commissioners shall assist in obtaining such 25182
protection. The expense of providing the protection shall be paid 25183
from hospital operating funds.25184

       (I) The board of county hospital trustees may authorize a 25185
county hospital and each of its units, hospital board members, 25186
designated hospital employees, and medical staff members to be a 25187
member of and maintain membership in any local, state, or national 25188
group or association organized and operated for the promotion of 25189
the public health and welfare or advancement of the efficiency of 25190
hospital administration and in connection therewith to use tax 25191
funds for the payment of dues and fees and related expenses but 25192
nothing in this section prohibits the board from using receipts 25193
from hospital operation, other than tax funds, for the payment of 25194
such dues and fees.25195

       (J) The following apply to the board of county hospital 25196
trustees in relation to its employees and the employees of the 25197
county hospital:25198

       (1) The board shall adopt the wage and salary schedule for 25199
employees.25200

       (2) The board may employ the hospital's administrator 25201
pursuant to section 339.07 of the Revised Code, and the 25202
administrator may employ individuals for the hospital in 25203
accordance with that section.25204

       (3) The board may employ assistants as necessary to perform 25205
its clerical work, superintend properly the construction of the 25206
county hospital, and pay the hospital's expenses. Such employees 25207
may be paid from funds provided for the county hospital.25208

       (4) The board may hire, by contract or as salaried employees, 25209
such management consultants, accountants, attorneys, engineers, 25210
architects, construction managers, and other professional advisors 25211
as it determines are necessary and desirable to assist in the 25212
management of the programs and operation of the county hospital. 25213
Such professional advisors may be paid from county hospital 25214
operating funds.25215

       (5) Notwithstanding section 325.19 of the Revised Code, the 25216
board may grant to employees any fringe benefits the board 25217
determines to be customary and usual in the nonprofit hospital 25218
field in its community, including, but not limited to:25219

       (a) Additional vacation leave with full pay for full-time 25220
employees, including full-time hourly rate employees, after 25221
service of one year;25222

       (b) Vacation leave and holiday pay for part-time employees on 25223
a pro rata basis;25224

       (c) Leave with full pay due to death in the employee's 25225
immediate family, which shall not be deducted from the employee's 25226
accumulated sick leave;25227

       (d) Premium pay for working on holidays listed in section 25228
325.19 of the Revised Code;25229

       (e) Moving expenses for new employees;25230

       (f) Discounts on hospital supplies and services.25231

       (6) The board may provide holiday leave by observing Martin 25232
Luther King day, Washington-Lincoln day, Columbus day, and 25233
Veterans' day on days other than those specified in section 1.14 25234
of the Revised Code.25235

       (7) The board may grant to employees the insurance benefits 25236
authorized by section 339.16 of the Revised Code.25237

       (8) Notwithstanding section 325.19 of the Revised Code, the 25238
board may grant to employees, including hourly rate employees, 25239
such personal holidays as the board determines to be customary and 25240
usual in the hospital field in its community.25241

       (9) The board may provide employee recognition awards and 25242
hold employee recognition dinners.25243

       (10) The board may grant to employees the recruitment and 25244
retention benefits specified under division (K) of this section.25245

       (K) Notwithstanding sections 325.191 and 325.20 of the 25246
Revised Code, the board of county hospital trustees may provide, 25247
without the prior authorization of the board of county 25248
commissioners, scholarships for education in the health care 25249
professions, tuition reimbursement, and other staff development 25250
programs to enhance the skills of health care professionals for 25251
the purpose of recruiting or retaining qualified employees.25252

       The board of county hospital trustees may pay reasonable 25253
expenses for recruiting or retaining physicians and other 25254
appropriate health care practitioners.25255

       (L) The board of county hospital trustees may retain counsel 25256
and institute legal action in its own name for the collection of 25257
delinquent accounts. The board may also employ any other lawful 25258
means for the collection of delinquent accounts.25259

       Sec. 339.07.  (A) The board of county hospital trustees shall 25260
provide for the administration of the county hospital by directly 25261
employing a hospital administrator or by entering into a contract 25262
for the management of the hospital under which an administrator is 25263
provided. When an administrator is employed directly, the board 25264
shall adopt a job description delineating the administrator's 25265
powers and duties and the board may pay the administrator's salary 25266
and other benefits from funds provided for the hospital. 25267

       (B) During the construction and equipping of the hospital, 25268
the administrator shall act in an advisory capacity to the board 25269
of county hospital trustees. After the hospital is completed, the 25270
administrator shall serve as the chief executive officer and shall 25271
carry out the administration of the county hospital according to 25272
the policies set forth by the board and any written delegation.25273

       The administrator shall administer the county hospital, make 25274
reports, and take any other action that the administrator 25275
determines is necessary for the operation of the hospital.25276

       At the end of each fiscal year, the administrator shall 25277
submit to the board a complete financial statement showing the 25278
receipts, revenues, and expenditures in detail for the entire 25279
fiscal year.25280

       The administrator shall ensure that the hospital has such 25281
physicians, nurses, and other employees as are necessary for the 25282
proper care, control, and management of the county hospital and 25283
its patients. The physicians, nurses, and other employees may be 25284
suspended or removed by the administrator at any time the welfare 25285
of the hospital warrants suspension or removal. The administrator 25286
may obtain physicians, nurses, and other employees by direct 25287
employment, entering into contracts, or granting authority to 25288
practice in the hospital. Persons employed directly shall be in 25289
the unclassified civil service, pursuant to section 124.11 of the 25290
Revised Code.25291

       Sec. 340.01.  (A) As used in this chapter, "addiction," 25292
"addiction services," "alcohol and drug addiction services," and25293
"community addiction services provider," "community mental health 25294
services provider," "alcohol and drug addiction programsgambling 25295
addiction services," "mental health services," and "mental 25296
illness" have the same meanings as in section 3793.015119.01 of 25297
the Revised Code.25298

       (B) An alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service 25299
district shall be established in any county or combination of 25300
counties having a population of at least fifty thousand to provide 25301
alcohol and drug addiction services and mental health services. 25302
With the approval of the directorsdirector of mental health and 25303
alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 25304
services, any county or combination of counties having a 25305
population of less than fifty thousand may establish such a 25306
district. Districts comprising more than one county shall be known 25307
as joint-county districts.25308

       The board of county commissioners of any county participating 25309
in a joint-county district may submit a resolution requesting 25310
withdrawal from the district together with a comprehensive plan or 25311
plans that are in compliance with rules adopted by the director of 25312
mental healthmental health and addiction services under section 25313
5119.61section 5119.22 of the Revised Code and rules adopted by 25314
the department of alcohol and drug addiction services under 25315
section 3793.05 of the Revised Code, and that provide for the 25316
equitable adjustment and division of all services, assets, 25317
property, debts, and obligations, if any, of the joint-county 25318
district to the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 25319
health services, to the boards of county commissioners of each 25320
county in the district, and to the directors. No county 25321
participating in a joint-county service district may withdraw from 25322
the district without the consent of the directorsdirector of 25323
mental health and alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental 25324
health and addiction services nor earlier than one year after the 25325
submission of such resolution unless all of the participating 25326
counties agree to an earlier withdrawal. Any county withdrawing 25327
from a joint-county district shall continue to have levied against 25328
its tax list and duplicate any tax levied by the district during 25329
the period in which the county was a member of the district until 25330
such time as the levy expires or is renewed or replaced.25331

       Sec. 340.011.  (A) This chapter shall be interpreted to 25332
accomplish all of the following:25333

       (1) Establish a unified system of treatment for mentally ill 25334
persons and persons with addictions;25335

       (2) Establish a community support system available for every 25336
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district;25337

       (3) Protect the personal liberty of mentally ill persons so 25338
that they may be treated in the least restrictive environment;25339

       (4) Encourage the development of high quality, cost 25340
effective, and comprehensive services, including culturally 25341
sensitive services;25342

       (5) Foster the development of comprehensive community mental 25343
health services, based on recognized local needs, especially for 25344
severely mentally disabled children, adolescents, and adults;25345

       (6) Ensure that services provided meet minimum standards 25346
established by the director of mental health or the department of 25347
alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 25348
services;25349

       (7) Promote the delivery of high quality and cost-effective 25350
alcohol and drug addiction and mental health services;25351

       (8) Promote the participation of consumers ofpersons 25352
receiving mental health services and alcohol and drug addiction 25353
services in the planning, delivery, and evaluation of these 25354
services.25355

       (B) Nothing in Chapter 340., 3793., 5119., or 5122. of the 25356
Revised Code shall be construed as requiring a board of county 25357
commissioners to provide resources beyond the total amount set 25358
forth in a communitybudget and statement of services to be 25359
provided by the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health plan25360
services board, as developed and submitted under section 340.0325361
340.08 of the Revised Code, to provide the services listed in 25362
section 340.09 of the Revised Code, and nothing in those chapters 25363
shall be construed as requiring a board of county commissioners to 25364
provide resources beyond the total amount set forth in a plan for 25365
alcohol and drug addiction services, prepared and submitted in 25366
accordance with sections 340.033 and 3793.05 of the Revised Code, 25367
to provide alcohol and drug addiction services.25368

       Sec. 340.02. As used in this section, "mental health 25369
professional" means a person who is qualified to work with 25370
mentally ill persons, pursuant to standards established by the 25371
director of mental health under section 5119.611 of the Revised 25372
Code.25373

       (A) For each alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 25374
service district, there shall be appointed a board of alcohol, 25375
drug addiction, and mental health services consisting of eighteen 25376
members or fourteen members. Should the board of alcohol, drug 25377
addiction, and mental health services elect to remain at eighteen 25378
members, as provided under section 340.02 of the Revised Code as 25379
it existed immediately prior to the date of this amendment, the 25380
board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services and 25381
the board of county commissioners shall not be required to take 25382
any action. Should the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 25383
mental health services elect a recommendation to become a 25384
fourteen-member board, that recommendation must be approved by the 25385
board of county commissioners of the county in which the alcohol, 25386
drug addiction, and mental health district is located in order for 25387
the transition to a fourteen-member board to occur. Not later than 25388
September 30, 2013, each board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 25389
mental health services wishing to become a fourteen-member board 25390
shall notify the board of county commissioners of that 25391
recommendation. Failure of the board of county commissioners to 25392
take action within thirty days after receipt of the recommendation 25393
shall be deemed agreement by the board of county commissioners to 25394
transition to a fourteen-member board of alcohol, drug addiction, 25395
and mental health services. Should the board of county 25396
commissioners reject the recommendation, the board of county 25397
commissioners shall adopt a resolution stating that rejection 25398
within thirty days after receipt of the recommendation. Upon 25399
adoption of the resolution, the board of county commissioners 25400
shall meet with the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 25401
health services to discuss the matter. After the meeting, the 25402
board of county commissioners shall notify the department of 25403
mental health and addiction services of its election not later 25404
than January 1, 2014. In a joint-county district, a majority of 25405
the boards of county commissioners must not reject the 25406
recommendation of a joint-county board to become a fourteen-member 25407
board in order for the transition to a fourteen-member board to 25408
occur. Should the joint-county district have an even number of 25409
counties, and the boards of county commissioners of these counties 25410
tie in terms of whether or not to accept the recommendation of the 25411
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services board, the 25412
recommendation of the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 25413
service board to become a fourteen-member board shall prevail. The 25414
election shall be final. Failure to provide notice of its election 25415
to the department on or before January 1, 2014, shall constitute 25416
an election to continue to operate as an eighteen-member board. If 25417
an existing board provides timely notice of its election to 25418
transition to operate as a fourteen-member board, the number of 25419
board members may decline from eighteen to fourteen by attrition 25420
as current members' terms expire. However, the composition of the 25421
board must reflect the requirements set forth in this section for 25422
fourteen-member boards. NineFor all boards, half of the members 25423
shall be interested in mental health programs and facilities25424
services and nine otherhalf of the members shall be interested 25425
in alcohol or, drug, or gambling addiction programsservices. 25426
All members shall be residents of the service district. The 25427
membership shall, as nearly as possible, reflect the composition 25428
of the population of the service district as to race and sex.25429

       The(B) For boards operating as eighteen-member boards, the25430
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services25431
shall appoint foureight members of the board, the director of 25432
alcohol and drug addiction services shall appoint four members,25433
and the board of county commissioners shall appoint ten members. 25434
For boards operating as fourteen-member boards, the director of 25435
mental health and addiction services shall appoint six members of 25436
the board and the board of county commissioners shall appoint 25437
eight members. In a joint-county district, the county 25438
commissioners of each participating county shall appoint members 25439
in as nearly as possible the same proportion as that county's 25440
population bears to the total population of the district, except 25441
that at least one member shall be appointed from each 25442
participating county.25443

       (C) The director of mental healthmental health and addiction 25444
services shall ensure that at least one member of the board is a 25445
psychiatrist and one member of the board is a mental health 25446
professional. If the appointment of a psychiatrist is not 25447
possible, as determined under rules adopted by the director, a 25448
licensed physician may be appointed in place of the psychiatrist. 25449
If the appointment of a licensed physician is not possible, the 25450
director of mental health may waive the requirement that the 25451
psychiatrist or licensed physician be a resident of the service 25452
district and appoint a psychiatrist or licensed physician from a 25453
contiguous county. The director of mental health shall ensure that25454
clinician with experience in the delivery of mental health 25455
services, at least one member of the board is a person who has 25456
received or is receiving mental health services paid for by public 25457
funds and, at least one member of the board is a parent or other 25458
relative of such a person.25459

       The director of alcohol and drug addiction services shall 25460
ensure that at least one member of the board is a professional in 25461
the field of alcohol or drug addiction services and one member of 25462
the board is an advocate for persons receiving treatment for 25463
alcohol or drug addiction. Of the members appointed by the 25464
director of alcohol and drug addiction services, at least one 25465
member of the board is a clinician with experience in the delivery 25466
of addiction services, at least one shall bemember of the board 25467
is a person who has received or is receiving services for alcohol 25468
or drug addiction services paid for by public funds, and at least 25469
one shall bemember of the board is a parent or other relative of 25470
such a person. A single member who meets both qualifications may 25471
fulfill the requirement for a clinician with experience in the 25472
delivery of mental health services and a clinician with experience 25473
in the delivery of addiction services.25474

       (D) No member or employee of a board of alcohol, drug 25475
addiction, and mental health services shall serve as a member of 25476
the board of any agencyprovider with which the board of alcohol, 25477
drug addiction, and mental health services has entered into a 25478
contract for the provision of services or facilities. No member of 25479
a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 25480
shall be an employee of any agencyprovider with which the board 25481
has entered into a contract for the provision of services or 25482
facilities, unless the board member's employment duties with the 25483
agency consist of providing, only outside the district the board 25484
serves, services for which the medicaid program pays. No person 25485
shall be an employee of a board and such an agencya provider25486
unless the board and agencyprovider both agree in writing.25487

       (E) No person shall serve as a member of the board of 25488
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services whose spouse, 25489
child, parent, brother, sister, grandchild, stepparent, stepchild, 25490
stepbrother, stepsister, father-in-law, mother-in-law, son-in-law, 25491
daughter-in-law, brother-in-law, or sister-in-law serves as a 25492
member of the board of any agencyprovider with which the board of 25493
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services has entered 25494
into a contract for the provision of services or facilities. No 25495
person shall serve as a member or employee of the board whose 25496
spouse, child, parent, brother, sister, stepparent, stepchild, 25497
stepbrother, stepsister, father-in-law, mother-in-law, son-in-law, 25498
daughter-in-law, brother-in-law, or sister-in-law serves as a 25499
county commissioner of a county or counties in the alcohol, drug 25500
addiction, and mental health service district.25501

       (F) Each year each board member shall attend at least one 25502
inservice training session provided or approved by the department 25503
of mental health or the department of alcohol and drug addiction 25504
servicesmental health and addiction services. Such training 25505
sessions shall not be considered to be regularly scheduled 25506
meetings of the board.25507

       Each(G) For boards operating as eighteen-member boards, each25508
member shall be appointed for a term of four years, commencing the 25509
first day of July, except that one-third of initial appointments 25510
to a newly established board, and to the extent possible to 25511
expanded boards, shall be for terms of two years, one-third of 25512
initial appointments shall be for terms of three years, and 25513
one-third of initial appointments shall be for terms of four 25514
years. For boards operating as fourteen-member boards, each member 25515
shall be appointed for a term of four years, commencing the first 25516
day of July, except that four of the initial appointments to a 25517
newly established board, and to the extent possible to expanded 25518
boards, shall be for terms of two years, five initial appointments 25519
shall be for terms of three years, and five initial appointments 25520
shall be for terms of four years. No member shall serve more than 25521
two consecutive four-year terms under the same appointing 25522
authority. A member may serve for three consecutive terms under 25523
the same appointing authority only if one of the terms is for less 25524
than two years. A member who has served two consecutive four-year 25525
terms or three consecutive terms totaling less than ten years is 25526
eligible for reappointment by the same appointing authority one 25527
year following the end of the second or third term, respectively.25528

       When a vacancy occurs, appointment for the expired or 25529
unexpired term shall be made in the same manner as an original 25530
appointment. The appointing authority shall be notified by 25531
certified mail of any vacancy and shall fill the vacancy within 25532
sixty days following that notice.25533

       Any member of the board may be removed from office by the 25534
appointing authority for neglect of duty, misconduct, or 25535
malfeasance in office, and shall be removed by the appointing 25536
authority if the member is barred by this section from serving as 25537
a board member. The member shall be informed in writing of the 25538
charges and afforded an opportunity for a hearing. Upon the 25539
absence of a member within one year from either four board 25540
meetings or from two board meetings without prior notice, the 25541
board shall notify the appointing authority, which may vacate the 25542
appointment and appoint another person to complete the member's 25543
term.25544

       Members of the board shall serve without compensation, but 25545
shall be reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses incurred in 25546
the performance of their official duties, as defined by rules of 25547
the departmentsdepartment of mental health and alcohol and drug 25548
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services.25549

       Sec. 340.021.  (A) In an alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 25550
health service district comprised of a county with a population of 25551
two hundred fifty thousand or more on October 10, 1989, the board 25552
of county commissioners shall, within thirty days of October 10, 25553
1989, establish an alcohol and drug addiction services board as 25554
the entity responsible for providing alcohol and drug addiction 25555
services in the county, unless, prior to that date, the board 25556
adopts a resolution providing that the entity responsible for 25557
providing the services is a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 25558
mental health services. Ifwhere the board of county commissioners 25559
establisheshas established an alcohol and drug addiction services 25560
board, the community mental health board established under former 25561
section 340.02 of the Revised Code shall serve as the entity 25562
responsible for providing mental health services in the county. A 25563
community mental health board has all the powers, duties, and 25564
obligations of a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 25565
health services with regard to mental health services. An alcohol 25566
and drug addiction services board has all the powers, duties, and 25567
obligations of a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 25568
health services with regard to alcohol and drug addiction 25569
services. Any provision of the Revised Code that refers to a board 25570
of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services with regard 25571
to mental health services also refers to a community mental health 25572
board and any provision that refers to a board of alcohol, drug 25573
addiction, and mental health services with regard to alcohol and 25574
drug addiction services also refers to an alcohol and drug 25575
addiction services board.25576

       An alcohol and drug addiction services board shall consist of 25577
eighteen members or fourteen members, six of whomat the election 25578
of the board. Not later than January 1, 2014, each alcohol and 25579
drug addiction services board shall notify the department of 25580
mental health and addiction services of its election to operate as 25581
an eighteen-member board or to operate as a fourteen-member board. 25582
The election shall be final. Failure to provide notice of its 25583
election to the department on or before January 1, 2014, shall 25584
constitute an election to continue to operate as an 25585
eighteen-member board. If an existing board provides timely notice 25586
of its election to operate as a fourteen-member board, the number 25587
of board members may decline from eighteen to fourteen by 25588
attrition as current members' terms expire. However, the 25589
composition of the board must reflect the requirements set forth 25590
in this section and in applicable provisions of section 340.02 of 25591
the Revised Code for fourteen-member boards. For boards operating 25592
as eighteen-member boards, six members shall be appointed by the 25593
director of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and 25594
addiction services and twelve of whommembers shall be appointed 25595
by the board of county commissioners. Of the members appointed by 25596
theThe director, one shall beof mental health and addiction 25597
services shall ensure that at least one member of the board is a 25598
person who has received or is receiving services for alcohol or,25599
drug, or gambling addiction, at least one shall bemember is a 25600
parent or relative of such a person, and at least one shall be25601
member is a professional in the field of alcohol or drug25602
clinician with experience in the delivery of addiction services, 25603
and one shall be an advocate for persons receiving treatment for 25604
alcohol or drug addiction. The membership of the board shall, as 25605
nearly as possible, reflect the composition of the population of 25606
the service district as to race and sex. Members shall be 25607
residents of the service district and shall be interested in 25608
alcohol and, drug, or gambling addiction services. Requirements 25609
for membership, including prohibitions against certain family and 25610
business relationships, and terms of office shall be the same as 25611
those for members of boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 25612
health services.25613

        A community mental health board shall consist of eighteen 25614
members or fourteen members, at the election of the board. Not 25615
later than January 1, 2014, each community mental health board 25616
shall notify the department of mental health and addiction 25617
services of its election to operate as an eighteen-member board or 25618
to operate as a fourteen-member board. The election shall be 25619
final. Failure to provide notice of its election to the department 25620
on or before January 1, 2014, shall constitute an election to 25621
continue to operate as an eighteen-member board. If an existing 25622
board provides timely notice of its election to operate as a 25623
fourteen-member board, the number of board members may decline 25624
from eighteen to fourteen by attrition as current members' terms 25625
expire. However, the composition of the board must reflect the 25626
requirements set forth in this section and in applicable 25627
provisions of section 340.02 of the Revised Code for 25628
fourteen-member boards. For boards operating as eighteen-member 25629
boards, six of whommembers shall be appointed by the director of 25630
mental healthmental health and addiction services and twelve of 25631
whommembers shall be appointed by the board of county 25632
commissioners. Of the members appointed by theThe director, one 25633
shall beof mental health and addiction services shall ensure that 25634
at least one member of the board is a person who has received or 25635
is receiving mental health services, at least one shall bemember 25636
is a parent or relative of such a person, and at least one shall 25637
bemember is a psychiatrist or a physician, and one shall be a25638
clinician with experience in the delivery of mental health 25639
professionalservices. The membership of the board as nearly as 25640
possible shall reflect the composition of the population of the 25641
service district as to race and sex. Members shall be residents of 25642
the service district and shall be interested in mental health 25643
services. Requirements for membership, including prohibitions 25644
against certain family and business relationships, and terms of 25645
office shall be the same as those for members of boards of 25646
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services.25647

       (B) If a board of county commissioners subject to division 25648
(A) of this section did not adopt a resolution providing for a 25649
board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, the 25650
board of county commissioners may establish such a board in 25651
accordance with the following procedures:25652

       (1) Not later than January 1, 2007, the board of county 25653
commissioners shall adopt a resolution expressing its intent to 25654
establish a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 25655
services.25656

       (2) After adopting a resolution under division (B)(1) of this 25657
section, the board of county commissioners shall instruct the 25658
county's community mental health board and alcohol and drug 25659
addiction services board to prepare a report on the feasibility, 25660
process, and proposed plan to establish a board of alcohol, drug 25661
addiction, and mental health services. The board of county 25662
commissioners shall specify the date by which the report must be 25663
submitted to the board for its review.25664

       (3) After reviewing the report prepared under division (B)(2) 25665
of this section, the board may adopt a final resolution 25666
establishing a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 25667
services. A final resolution establishing such a board shall be 25668
adopted not later than July 1, 2007.25669

       (C)(1) If a board of county commissioners subject to division 25670
(A) of this section did not adopt a final resolution providing for 25671
a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services and 25672
did not establish such a board under division (B) of this section25673
on or before July 1, 2007, the board of county commissioners may 25674
establish a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 25675
services on or after the effective date of this amendment. To 25676
establish the board, the board of county commissioners shall adopt 25677
a resolution providing for the board's establishment. The 25678
composition of the board, the procedures for appointing members, 25679
and all other matters related to the board and its members are 25680
subject to section 340.02 of the Revised Code, with the following 25681
exceptions:25682

       (a) For initial appointments to the board, the county's 25683
community mental health board and alcohol and drug addiction 25684
services board shall jointly recommend members of those boards for 25685
reappointment and shall submit the recommendations to the board of 25686
county commissioners, director of mental health, and the director 25687
of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 25688
services.25689

       (b) To the greatest extent possible, the appointing 25690
authorities shall appoint the initial members from among the 25691
members jointly recommended under division (C)(B)(1)(a) of this 25692
section.25693

       (2) If a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 25694
services is established pursuant to division (C)(B)(1) of this 25695
section, the board has the same rights, privileges, immunities, 25696
powers, and duties that were possessed by the county's community 25697
mental health board and alcohol and drug addiction services board. 25698
When the board is established, all property and obligations of the 25699
community mental health board and alcohol and drug addiction 25700
services board shall be transferred to the board of alcohol, drug 25701
addiction, and mental health services.25702

       Sec. 340.03.  (A) Subject to rules issued by the director of 25703
mental healthmental health and addiction services after 25704
consultation with relevant constituencies as required by division 25705
(L)(A)(10) of section 5119.065119.21 of the Revised Code, with 25706
regard to mental health services, the board of alcohol, drug 25707
addiction, and mental health services shall:25708

       (1) Serve as the community addiction and mental health 25709
services planning agency for the county or counties under its 25710
jurisdiction, and in so doing it shall:25711

       (a) Evaluate the need for facilities and community addiction 25712
and mental health services;25713

       (b) In cooperation with other local and regional planning and 25714
funding bodies and with relevant ethnic organizations, assess the 25715
community addiction and mental health needs, evaluate strengths 25716
and challenges, and set priorities, and develop plans for the 25717
operation of facilities and community addiction and mental health 25718
services, including treatment and prevention. When the board sets 25719
priorities for the operation of addiction services, the board 25720
shall consult with the county commissioners of the counties in the 25721
board's service district regarding the services described in 25722
section 340.15 of the Revised Code and shall give priority to 25723
those services, except that those services shall not have a 25724
priority over services provided to pregnant women under programs 25725
developed in relation to the mandate established in section 25726
5119.17 of the Revised Code;25727

       (c) In accordance with guidelines issued by the director of 25728
mental healthmental health and addiction services after 25729
consultation with board representatives, annually develop and 25730
submit to the department of mental healthmental health and 25731
addiction services a community addiction and mental health 25732
services plan listing community addiction and mental health 25733
services needs, including the needs of all residents of the 25734
district now residing in state mental institutions and severely 25735
mentally disabled adults, children, and adolescents;currently 25736
receiving inpatient services in state-operated hospitals, the 25737
needs of other populations as required by state or federal law or 25738
programs, the needs of all children subject to a determination 25739
made pursuant to section 121.38 of the Revised Code;, and all the25740
priorities for facilities and community addiction and mental 25741
health services that are or will be in operation or provided25742
during the period for which the plan will be in operation in the 25743
service district to meet such needseffect.25744

       In alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service 25745
districts that have separate alcohol and drug addiction services 25746
and community mental health boards, the alcohol and drug addiction 25747
services board shall submit a community addiction services plan 25748
and the community mental health board shall submit a community 25749
mental health services plan. Each board shall consult with its 25750
counterpart in developing its plan and address the interaction 25751
between the local addiction services and mental health services 25752
systems and populations with regard to needs and priorities in 25753
developing its plan.25754

       The plan shall include, but not be limited to, a statement of 25755
which of the services listed in section 340.09 of the Revised Code 25756
the board intends to make available. The board must include crisis 25757
intervention services for individuals in an emergency situation in 25758
the plan and explain how the board intends to make such services 25759
available. The plan must also include a statement of the inpatient 25760
and community-based services the board proposes that the 25761
department operate, an assessment of the number and types of 25762
residential facilities needed, such other information as the 25763
department requests, and a budget for moneys the board expects to 25764
receive. The department shall approve or disapprove the plan, in 25765
whole or in part, according to the criteria developed pursuant to 25766
section 5119.615119.22 of the Revised Code. The department's 25767
statement of approval or disapproval shall specify the inpatient 25768
and the community-based services that the department will operate 25769
for the board. Eligibility for state and federal funding shall be 25770
contingent upon an approved plan or relevant part of a plan. 25771

       If a board determines that it is necessary to amend a plan or 25772
an allocation request that has been approved under this division 25773
(A)(1)(c) of this section, the board shall submit a proposed 25774
amendment to the director. The director may approve or disapprove 25775
all or part of the amendment. The director shall inform the board 25776
of the reasons for disapproval of all or part of an amendment and 25777
of the criteria that must be met before the amendment may be 25778
approved. The director shall provide the board an opportunity to 25779
present its case on behalf of the amendment. The director shall 25780
give the board a reasonable time in which to meet the criteria, 25781
and shall offer the board technical assistance to help it meet the 25782
criteria.25783

       The board shall implementoperate in accordance with the plan 25784
approved by the department.25785

       (d) Promote, arrange, and implement working agreements with 25786
social agencies, both public and private, and with judicial 25787
agencies.25788

       (2) Investigate, or request another agency to investigate, 25789
any complaint alleging abuse or neglect of any person receiving 25790
services from a community addiction or mental health agency as 25791
defined in section 5122.01 of the Revised Codeservices provider 25792
certified under section 5119.36 of the Revised Code or alleging 25793
abuse or neglect of a personresident receiving addiction services 25794
or with mental illness or severe mental disability residing in a 25795
residential facility licensed under section 5119.225119.34 of the 25796
Revised Code. If the investigation substantiates the charge of 25797
abuse or neglect, the board shall take whatever action it 25798
determines is necessary to correct the situation, including 25799
notification of the appropriate authorities. Upon request, the 25800
board shall provide information about such investigations to the 25801
department.25802

       (3) For the purpose of section 5119.6115119.36 of the 25803
Revised Code, cooperate with the director of mental healthmental 25804
health and addiction services in visiting and evaluating whether 25805
the services of a community addiction or mental health agency25806
services provider satisfy the certification standards established 25807
by rules adopted under that section;25808

       (4) In accordance with criteria established under division 25809
(E) of section 5119.615119.22 of the Revised Code, conduct 25810
program audits that review and evaluate the quality, 25811
effectiveness, and efficiency of services provided through its 25812
community addiction and mental health plancontracted services and 25813
submit its findings and recommendations to the department of 25814
mental healthmental health and addiction services;25815

       (5) In accordance with section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised 25816
Code, review an application for a residential facility license and 25817
provide to the department of mental healthmental health and 25818
addiction services any information about the applicant or facility 25819
that the board would like the department to consider in reviewing 25820
the application;25821

       (6) Audit, in accordance with rules adopted by the auditor of 25822
state pursuant to section 117.20 of the Revised Code, at least 25823
annually all programs and services provided under contract with 25824
the board. In so doing, the board may contract for or employ the 25825
services of private auditors. AObtain a copy of the fiscal audit 25826
report of all provider organizations under contract with the 25827
board. The fiscal audit report shall be provided to the director 25828
of mental healthmental health and addiction services, the auditor 25829
of state, and the county auditor of each county in the board's 25830
district. Nothing in division (A)(6) of this section shall be 25831
interpreted as prohibiting or requiring the inclusion of 25832
provisions requiring performance audits or periodic fiscal reports 25833
in contracts negotiated between the board and services providers. 25834
However, any provision in such a contract requiring a performance 25835
audit or periodic fiscal report shall relate only to programs and 25836
services paid for by the board in question with local funds.25837

       (7) Recruit and promote local financial support for addiction 25838
and mental health programsservices from private and public 25839
sources;25840

       (8)(a) Enter into contracts with public and private 25841
facilities for the operation of facility services included in the 25842
board's community mental health plan and enter into contracts with 25843
public and private community addiction and mental health agencies25844
service providers for the provision of community addiction and25845
mental health services that are listed in section 340.09 of the 25846
Revised Code and included in the board's community mental health 25847
plan. The board may not contract with a residential facility 25848
subject to section 5119.34 of the Revised Code unless the facility 25849
is licensed by the director of mental health and addiction 25850
services and may not contract with a community addiction or mental 25851
health agencyservices provider to provide community addiction or25852
mental health services included in the board's community mental 25853
health plan unless the services are certified by the director of 25854
mental healthmental health and addiction services under section 25855
5119.6115119.36 of the Revised Code. Section 307.86 of the 25856
Revised Code does not apply to contracts entered into under this 25857
division. In contracting with a community addiction or mental 25858
health agencyservices provider, a board shall consider the cost 25859
effectiveness of services provided by that agencyprovider and 25860
the quality and continuity of care, and may review cost elements, 25861
including salary costs, of the services to be provided. A 25862
utilization review process shallmay be established as part of the 25863
contract for services entered into between a board and a community 25864
addiction or mental health agencyservices provider. The board 25865
may establish this process in a way that is most effective and 25866
efficient in meeting local needs. Until July 1, 2012, a contract 25867
with a community mental health agency or facility, as defined in 25868
section 5111.023 of the Revised Code, to provide services listed 25869
in division (B) of that section shall provide for the agency or 25870
facility to be paid in accordance with the contract entered into 25871
between the departments of job and family services and mental 25872
health under section 5111.91 of the Revised Code and any rules 25873
adopted under division (A) of section 5119.61 of the Revised Code.25874

       If either the board or a facility or community addiction or25875
mental health agencyservices provider with which the board 25876
contracts under this division (A)(8)(a) of this section proposes 25877
not to renew the contract or proposes substantial changes in 25878
contract terms, the other party shall be given written notice at 25879
least one hundred twenty days before the expiration date of the 25880
contract. During the first sixty days of this one hundred 25881
twenty-day period, both parties shall attempt to resolve any 25882
dispute through good faith collaboration and negotiation in order 25883
to continue to provide services to persons in need. If the dispute 25884
has not been resolved sixty days before the expiration date of the 25885
contract, either party may notify the department of mental health25886
mental health and addiction services of the unresolved dispute. 25887
The director may require both parties to submit the dispute to a 25888
third party with the cost to be shared by the board and the 25889
facility or community mental health agencyprovider. The third 25890
party shall issue to the board, the facility or agencyprovider, 25891
and the department recommendations on how the dispute may be 25892
resolved twenty days prior to the expiration date of the contract, 25893
unless both parties agree to a time extension. The director shall 25894
adopt rules establishing the procedures of this dispute resolution 25895
process.25896

       (b) With the prior approval of the director of mental health25897
mental health and addiction services, a board may operate a 25898
facility or provide a community addiction or mental health service 25899
as follows, if there is no other qualified private or public 25900
facility or community addiction or mental health agencyservices 25901
provider that is immediately available and willing to operate such 25902
a facility or provide the service:25903

       (i) In an emergency situation, any board may operate a 25904
facility or provide a community addiction or mental health service 25905
in order to provide essential services for the duration of the 25906
emergency;25907

       (ii) In a service district with a population of at least one 25908
hundred thousand but less than five hundred thousand, a board may 25909
operate a facility or provide a community addiction or mental 25910
health service for no longer than one year;25911

       (iii) In a service district with a population of less than 25912
one hundred thousand, a board may operate a facility or provide a 25913
community addiction or mental health service for no longer than 25914
one year, except that such a board may operate a facility or 25915
provide a community addiction or mental health service for more 25916
than one year with the prior approval of the director and the 25917
prior approval of the board of county commissioners, or of a 25918
majority of the boards of county commissioners if the district is 25919
a joint-county district.25920

       The director shall not give a board approval to operate a 25921
facility or provide a community addiction or mental health service 25922
under division (A)(8)(b)(ii) or (iii) of this section unless the 25923
director determines that it is not feasible to have the department 25924
operate the facility or provide the service.25925

       The director shall not give a board approval to operate a 25926
facility or provide a community addiction or mental health service 25927
under division (A)(8)(b)(iii) of this section unless the director 25928
determines that the board will provide greater administrative 25929
efficiency and more or better services than would be available if 25930
the board contracted with a private or public facility or 25931
community addiction or mental health agencyservices provider.25932

       The director shall not give a board approval to operate a 25933
facility previously operated by a person or other government 25934
entity unless the board has established to the director's 25935
satisfaction that the person or other government entity cannot 25936
effectively operate the facility or that the person or other 25937
government entity has requested the board to take over operation 25938
of the facility. The director shall not give a board approval to 25939
provide a community addiction or mental health service previously 25940
provided by a community addiction or mental health agencyservices 25941
provider unless the board has established to the director's 25942
satisfaction that the agencyprovider cannot effectively provide 25943
the service or that the agencyprovider has requested the board 25944
take over providing the service.25945

       The director shall review and evaluate a board's operation of 25946
a facility and provision of community addiction or mental health 25947
service under division (A)(8)(b) of this section.25948

       Nothing in division (A)(8)(b) of this section authorizes a 25949
board to administer or direct the daily operation of any facility 25950
or community addiction or mental health agencyservices provider, 25951
but a facility or agencyprovider may contract with a board to 25952
receive administrative services or staff direction from the board 25953
under the direction of the governing body of the facility or 25954
agencyprovider.25955

       (9) Approve fee schedules and related charges or adopt a unit 25956
cost schedule or other methods of payment for contract services 25957
provided by community addiction or mental health agenciesservices 25958
providers in accordance with guidelines issued by the department 25959
as necessary to comply with state and federal laws pertaining to 25960
financial assistance;25961

       (10) Submit to the director and the county commissioners of 25962
the county or counties served by the board, and make available to 25963
the public, an annual report of the programsservices under the 25964
jurisdiction of the board, including a fiscal accounting;25965

       (11) Establish, to the extent resources are available, a 25966
community support systemcontinuum of care, which provides for 25967
prevention, treatment, support, and rehabilitation services and 25968
opportunities. The essential elements of the systemcontinuum25969
include, but are not limited to, the following components in 25970
accordance with section 5119.065119.21 of the Revised Code:25971

       (a) To locate persons in need of addiction or mental health 25972
services to inform them of available services and benefits 25973
mechanisms;25974

       (b) Assistance for clientspersons receiving services to 25975
obtain services necessary to meet basic human needs for food, 25976
clothing, shelter, medical care, personal safety, and income;25977

       (c) MentalAddiction and mental health careservices, 25978
including, but not limited to, outpatient, residential, partial 25979
hospitalization, and, where appropriate, inpatient care;25980

       (d) Emergency services and crisis intervention;25981

       (e) Assistance for clientspersons receiving services to 25982
obtain vocational services and opportunities for jobs;25983

       (f) The provision of services designed to develop social, 25984
community, and personal living skills;25985

       (g) Access to a wide range of housing and the provision of 25986
residential treatment and support;25987

       (h) Support, assistance, consultation, and education for 25988
families, friends, consumers ofpersons receiving addiction or25989
mental health services, and others;25990

       (i) Recognition and encouragement of families, friends, 25991
neighborhood networks, especially networks that include racial and 25992
ethnic minorities, churches, community organizations, and 25993
meaningfulcommunity employment as natural supports for consumers 25994
ofpersons receiving addiction or mental health services;25995

       (j) Grievance procedures and protection of the rights of 25996
consumers ofpersons receiving addiction or mental health 25997
services;25998

       (k) Case managementCommunity psychiatric supportive 25999
treatment services, which includes continual individualized 26000
assistance and advocacy to ensure that needed services are offered 26001
and procured.26002

       (12) Establish a method for evaluating referrals for 26003
involuntary commitment and affidavits filed pursuant to section 26004
5122.11 of the Revised Code in order to assist the probate 26005
division of the court of common pleas in determining whether there 26006
is probable cause that a respondent is subject to involuntary 26007
hospitalization and what alternative treatment is available and 26008
appropriate, if any;26009

       (13) Designate the treatment programservices, agency26010
provider, or facility, or other placement for each person 26011
involuntarily committed to the board pursuant to Chapter 5122. of 26012
the Revised Code and authorize payment for such treatment. The 26013
board shall provide the least restrictive and most appropriate 26014
alternative that is available for any person involuntarily 26015
committed to it and shall assure that the listed services listed 26016
insubmitted and approved in accordance with division (B) of26017
section 340.09340.08 of the Revised Code are available to 26018
severely mentally disabled persons residing within its service 26019
district. The board shall establish the procedure for authorizing 26020
payment for services, which may include prior authorization in 26021
appropriate circumstances. The board may provide for services 26022
directly to a severely mentally disabled person when life or 26023
safety is endangered and when no community mental health agency26024
services provider is available to provide the service.26025

       (13) Establish a method for evaluating referrals for 26026
involuntary commitment and affidavits filed pursuant to section 26027
5122.11 of the Revised Code in order to assist the probate 26028
division of the court of common pleas in determining whether there 26029
is probable cause that a respondent is subject to involuntary 26030
hospitalization and what alternative treatment is available and 26031
appropriate, if any;26032

       (14) Ensure that apartments or rooms built, subsidized, 26033
renovated, rented, owned, or leased by the board or a community 26034
addiction or mental health agencyservices provider have been 26035
approved as meeting minimum fire safety standards and that persons 26036
residing in the rooms or apartments are receiving appropriate and 26037
necessary services, including culturally relevant services, from a 26038
community addiction or mental health agencyservices provider. 26039
This division does not apply to residential facilities licensed 26040
pursuant to section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code.26041

       (15) Establish a mechanism for obtaining advice and26042
involvement of consumer recommendation and advicepersons 26043
receiving publicly funded addiction or mental health services on 26044
matters pertaining to addiction and mental health services in the 26045
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district;26046

       (16) Perform the duties required by rules adopted under 26047
section 5119.615119.22 of the Revised Code regarding referrals by 26048
the board or mental health agenciesservices providers under 26049
contract with the board of individuals with mental illness or 26050
severe mental disability to residential facilities as defined in 26051
division (A)(9)(b)(iii) of section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised 26052
Code and effective arrangements for ongoing mental health services 26053
for the individuals. The board is accountable in the manner 26054
specified in the rules for ensuring that the ongoing mental health 26055
services are effectively arranged for the individuals.26056

       (B) The board shall establish such rules, operating 26057
procedures, standards, and bylaws, and perform such other duties 26058
as may be necessary or proper to carry out the purposes of this 26059
chapter.26060

       (C) A board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 26061
services may receive by gift, grant, devise, or bequest any 26062
moneys, lands, or property for the benefit of the purposes for 26063
which the board is established, and may hold and apply it 26064
according to the terms of the gift, grant, or bequest. All money 26065
received, including accrued interest, by gift, grant, or bequest 26066
shall be deposited in the treasury of the county, the treasurer of 26067
which is custodian of the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 26068
health services funds to the credit of the board and shall be 26069
available for use by the board for purposes stated by the donor or 26070
grantor.26071

       (D) No board member or employee of a board of alcohol, drug 26072
addiction, and mental health services shall be liable for injury 26073
or damages caused by any action or inaction taken within the scope 26074
of the board member's official duties or the employee's 26075
employment, whether or not such action or inaction is expressly 26076
authorized by this section, section 340.033, or any other section 26077
of the Revised Code, unless such action or inaction constitutes 26078
willful or wanton misconduct. Chapter 2744. of the Revised Code 26079
applies to any action or inaction by a board member or employee of 26080
a board taken within the scope of the board member's official 26081
duties or employee's employment. For the purposes of this 26082
division, the conduct of a board member or employee shall not be 26083
considered willful or wanton misconduct if the board member or 26084
employee acted in good faith and in a manner that the board member 26085
or employee reasonably believed was in or was not opposed to the 26086
best interests of the board and, with respect to any criminal 26087
action or proceeding, had no reasonable cause to believe the 26088
conduct was unlawful.26089

       (E) The meetings held by any committee established by a board 26090
of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services shall be 26091
considered to be meetings of a public body subject to section 26092
121.22 of the Revised Code.26093

       Sec. 340.031.  A board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 26094
health services may:26095

       (A) Inspect any residential facility licensed under section 26096
5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code and located in its district, 26097
pursuant to a contract with the department of mental health;26098

       (B) Acquire, convey, lease, or enter into a contract to 26099
purchase, lease, or sell property for community addiction and26100
mental health and alcohol and drug addiction services and related 26101
purposes, and enter into loan agreements, including mortgages, for 26102
the acquisition of such property.26103

       Sec. 340.032.  The board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 26104
mental health services shall employ a qualified mental health or 26105
alcohol or drug addiction services professional with experience in 26106
administration or a professional administrator with experience in 26107
mental health or alcohol or drug addiction services to serve as 26108
executive director of the board and shall prescribe the director's 26109
duties.26110

       The board shall fix the compensation of the executive 26111
director. In addition to such compensation, the director shall be 26112
reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses incurred in the 26113
performance of histhe director's official duties. The board, by 26114
majority vote of the full membership, may remove the director for 26115
cause, upon written charges, after an opportunity has been 26116
afforded himthe director for a hearing before the board on 26117
request.26118

       The board may delegate to its executive director the 26119
authority to act in its behalf in the performance of its 26120
administrative duties.26121

       As used in this section, "mental health professional" and 26122
"addiction services professional" mean an individual who is 26123
qualified to work with mentally ill persons or persons receiving 26124
addiction services, pursuant to standards established by the 26125
director of mental health and addiction services under Chapter 26126
5119. of the Revised Code.26127

       Sec. 340.04.  In addition to such other duties as may be 26128
lawfully imposed, the executive director of a board of alcohol, 26129
drug addiction, and mental health services shall:26130

       (A) Serve as executive officer of the board and subject to 26131
the prior approval of the board for each contract, execute 26132
contracts on its behalf;26133

       (B) Supervise services and facilities provided, operated, 26134
contracted, or supported by the board to the extent of determining 26135
that programsservices and facilities are being administered in 26136
conformity with this chapter and rules of the director of mental 26137
health and the department of alcohol and drug addiction services26138
mental health and addiction services;26139

       (C) Provide consultation to agencies, associations, or 26140
individualsaddiction and mental health services providers26141
providing services supported by the board;26142

       (D) Recommend to the board the changes necessary to increase 26143
the effectiveness of addiction and mental health services and 26144
alcohol and drug addiction services and other matters necessary or 26145
desirable to carry out this chapter;26146

       (E) Employ and remove from office such employees and 26147
consultants in the classified civil service and, subject to the 26148
approval of the board, employ and remove from office such other 26149
employees and consultants as may be necessary for the work of the 26150
board, and fix their compensation and reimbursement within the 26151
limits set by the salary schedule and the budget approved by the 26152
board;26153

       (F) Encourage the development and expansion of preventive, 26154
treatment, rehabilitative, and consultative programsservices in 26155
the field of addiction and mental health services with emphasis on 26156
continuity of care;26157

       (G) Prepare for board approval an annual report of the 26158
programsservices and facilities under the jurisdiction of the 26159
board, including a fiscal accounting of all services;26160

       (H) Conduct such studies as may be necessary and practicable 26161
for the promotion of mental health, promotion of addiction 26162
services, and the prevention of mental illness, emotional 26163
disorders, and addiction to alcohol and drugs;26164

       (I) Authorize the county auditor, or in a joint-county 26165
district the county auditor designated as the auditor for the 26166
district, to issue warrants for the payment of board obligations 26167
approved by the board, provided that all payments from funds 26168
distributed to the board by the department of mental health and 26169
addiction services are in accordance with the comprehensive 26170
community mental health planbudget submitted pursuant to section 26171
340.08 of the Revised Code, as approved by the department of 26172
mental health, or with the alcohol and drug addiction services 26173
plan as approved by the department of alcohol and drug addiction 26174
servicesmental health and addiction services.26175

       Sec. 340.05.  A community addiction or mental health agency26176
services provider that receives a complaint alleging abuse or 26177
neglect of an individual with mental illness or severe mental 26178
disability, or an individual receiving addiction services, who 26179
resides in a residential facility as defined in division (A)(9)(b) 26180
of section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code shall report the 26181
complaint to the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 26182
health services serving the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 26183
health service district in which the residential facility is 26184
located. A board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 26185
services that receives such a complaint or a report from a 26186
community addiction or mental health agencyservices provider of 26187
such a complaint shall report the complaint to the director of 26188
mental healthmental health and addiction services for the 26189
purpose of the director conducting an investigation under section 26190
5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code. The board may enter the 26191
facility with or without the director and, if the health and 26192
safety of a resident is in immediate danger, take any necessary 26193
action to protect the resident. The board's action shall not 26194
violate any resident's rights specified in rules adopted by the 26195
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services26196
under section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code. The board shall 26197
immediately report to the director regarding the board's actions 26198
under this section.26199

       Sec. 340.07.  The board of county commissioners of any county 26200
participating in an alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 26201
service district or joint-county district, upon receipt from the 26202
board of alcohol, drug addition, and mental health services of a 26203
resolution so requesting, may appropriate money to such board for 26204
the operation, lease, acquisition, construction, renovation, and 26205
maintenance of addiction or mental health services, programs,26206
providers and facilities for mentally ill and emotionally 26207
disturbed persons in accordance with the comprehensive community 26208
addiction and mental health plan or for alcohol and drug addiction 26209
programs in accordance with the alcohol and drug addiction 26210
services planservices budget approved by the department of mental 26211
health and addiction services pursuant to section 340.08 of the 26212
Revised Code.26213

       Sec. 340.08.  In accordance with rules or guidelines issued 26214
by the director of mental health and addiction services, each 26215
board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services shall 26216
do all of the following:26217

       (A) Submit to the department a report of receipts and 26218
expenditures for all federal, state, and local moneys the board 26219
expects to receive;26220

       (1) The report shall identify funds the board and public 26221
children services agencies in the board's service district have 26222
available to fund jointly the services described in section 340.15 26223
of the Revised Code.26224

       (2) The board's proposed budget for expenditures of state and 26225
federal funds distributed to the board by the department shall be 26226
deemed an application for funds, and the department shall approve 26227
or disapprove the budget for these expenditures. The department 26228
shall inform the board of the reasons for disapproval of the 26229
budget for the expenditure of state and federal funds and of the 26230
criteria that must be met before the budget may be approved. The 26231
director shall provide the board an opportunity to present its 26232
case on behalf of the submitted budget. The director shall give 26233
the board a reasonable time in which to meet the criteria and 26234
shall offer the board technical assistance to help it meet the 26235
criteria.26236

        If a board determines that it is necessary to amend a budget 26237
that has been approved under this section, the board shall submit 26238
a proposed amendment to the director. The director may approve or 26239
disapprove all or part of the amendment. The director shall inform 26240
the board of the reasons for disapproval of all or part of the 26241
amendment and of the criteria that must be met before the 26242
amendment may be approved. The director shall provide the board an 26243
opportunity to present its case on behalf of the amendment. The 26244
director shall give the board a reasonable time in which to meet 26245
the criteria and shall offer the board technical assistance to 26246
help it meet the criteria.26247

       (3) The director of mental health and addiction services, in 26248
whole or in part, may withhold funds otherwise to be allocated to 26249
a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 26250
under Chapter 5119. of the Revised Code if the board's use of 26251
state and federal funds fails to comply with the approved budget, 26252
as it may be amended with the approval of the department.26253

       (B) Submit to the department a statement identifying the 26254
services described in section 340.09 of the Revised Code the board 26255
intends to make available. The board shall include crisis 26256
intervention services for individuals in emergency situations and 26257
services required pursuant to section 340.15 of the Revised Code, 26258
and the board shall explain the manner in which the board intends 26259
to make such services available. The list of services shall be 26260
compatible with the budget submitted pursuant to division (A) of 26261
this section. The department shall approve or disapprove the 26262
proposed listing of services to be made available. The department 26263
shall inform the board of the reasons for disapproval of the 26264
listing of proposed services and of the criteria that must be met 26265
before listing of proposed services may be approved. The director 26266
shall provide the board an opportunity to present its case on 26267
behalf of the submitted listing of proposed services. The director 26268
shall give the board a reasonable time in which to meet the 26269
criteria and shall offer the board technical assistance to help it 26270
meet the criteria.26271

       (C) Enter into a continuity of care agreement with the state 26272
institution operated by the department of mental health and 26273
addiction services and designated as the institution serving the 26274
district encompassing the board's service district. Subject to 26275
division (B) of section 340.011 of the Revised Code, the 26276
continuity of care agreement shall outline the department's and 26277
the board's responsibilities to plan for and coordinate with each 26278
other to address the needs of board residents who are patients in 26279
the institution, with an emphasis on managing appropriate hospital 26280
bed day use and discharge planning.26281

       (D) In conjunction with the department of mental health and 26282
addiction services, operate a coordinated system for tracking and 26283
monitoring persons found not guilty by reason of insanity and 26284
committed pursuant to section 2945.40 of the Revised Code who have 26285
been granted a conditional release and persons found incompetent 26286
to stand trial and committed pursuant to section 2945.39 of the 26287
Revised Code who have been granted a conditional release. The 26288
system shall do all of the following:26289

       (1) Centralize responsibility for the tracking of those 26290
persons;26291

       (2) Provide for uniformity in monitoring those persons;26292

       (3) Provide a mechanism to allow prompt rehospitalization, 26293
reinstitutionalization, or detention when a violation of the 26294
conditional release or decompensation occurs.26295

       (E) Submit to the department a report summarizing complaints 26296
and grievances received by the board concerning the rights of 26297
persons seeking or receiving services, investigations of 26298
complaints and grievances, and outcomes of the investigations.26299

       (F) Provide to the department information to be submitted to 26300
the community addiction and mental health information system or 26301
systems established by the department under Chapter 5119. of the 26302
Revised Code.26303

       (G) Annually, and upon any change in membership, submit to 26304
the department a list of all current members of the board of 26305
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, including the 26306
appointing authority for each member, and the member's specific 26307
qualification for appointment pursuant to section 340.02 or 26308
340.021 of the Revised Code, if applicable.26309

       (H) Submit to the department other information as is 26310
reasonably required for purposes of the department's operations, 26311
service evaluation, reporting activities, research, system 26312
administration, and oversight.26313

       Sec. 340.09. (A) The department of mental healthmental 26314
health and addiction services shall provide assistance to any 26315
county for the operation of boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 26316
mental health services and, the provision of the following26317
services approved by the department within the continuum of care, 26318
the provision of approved support functions, and the partnership 26319
in, or support for, approved continuum of care-related activities26320
from funds appropriated for that purpose by the general assembly:.26321

       (A) Outpatient;26322

       (B) Categories in the continuum of care may include all of 26323
the following:26324

       (1) Inpatient;26325

       (C) Partial hospitalization(2) Residential;26326

       (D) Rehabilitation(3) Outpatient treatment;26327

       (E)(4) Intensive and other supports;26328

       (5) Recovery support;26329

       (6) Prevention and wellness management.26330

       (C) Support functions may include all of the following:26331

       (1) Consultation;26332

       (F) Mental health education and other preventive services;26333

       (G) Emergency;26334

       (H) Crisis intervention;26335

       (I)(2) Research;26336

       (J)(3) Administrative;26337

       (K)(4) Referral and information;26338

       (L) Residential;26339

       (M)(5) Training;26340

       (N) Substance abuse;26341

       (O)(6) Service and program evaluation;26342

       (P) Community support system;26343

       (Q) Case management;26344

       (R) Residential housing;26345

       (S) Other services approved by the board and the director of 26346
mental health.26347

       Sec. 340.091.  Each board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 26348
mental health services shall contract with a community mental 26349
health agencyservices provider under division (A)(7)(8)(a) of 26350
section 340.03 of the Revised Code for the agencyprovider to do 26351
all of the following in accordance with rules adopted under 26352
section 5119.615119.22 of the Revised Code for an individual 26353
referred to the agencyprovider under division (D)(2) of section 26354
5119.695119.41 of the Revised Code:26355

       (A) Assess the individual and, if the agencyprovider26356
determines that the environment in which the individual will be 26357
living while receiving residential state supplement payments is 26358
appropriate for the individual's needs, issue a recommendation to 26359
the referring residential state supplement administrative agency 26360
that the referring agency should conclude that the living 26361
environment is appropriate when it makes its determination 26362
regarding the appropriateness of the environment;26363

       (B) Provide ongoing monitoring to ensure that listed services 26364
provided undersubmitted and approved under division (B) of26365
section 340.09340.08 of the Revised Code are available to the 26366
individual;26367

       (C) Provide discharge planning to ensure the individual's 26368
earliest possible transition to a less restrictive environment.26369

       Sec. 340.10.  The county auditor or, in a joint-county 26370
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district, the 26371
auditor of the county, the treasurer of which has been designated 26372
in the agreement between the counties of the district as custodian 26373
of the community addiction and mental health services funds and 26374
alcohol and drug addiction services funds, is hereby designated as 26375
the auditor and fiscal officer of an alcohol, drug addiction, and 26376
mental health service district or joint-county district. State 26377
funds allocated for the support of a service district shall be 26378
paid to the county treasurer or, in a joint-county district, to 26379
the treasurer of that county designated in the agreement as 26380
custodian of the community addiction and mental health services26381
funds and authorized to make payments from such funds on order of 26382
the county auditor and on recommendation of the board of alcohol, 26383
drug addiction, and mental health services, or the executive 26384
director of the board when authorized by the board. The auditor 26385
shall submit to the board a detailed monthly statement of all 26386
receipts, disbursements, and ending balances for the community 26387
addiction and mental health services funds.26388

       Sec. 340.11.  A board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 26389
health services may procure a policy or policies of insurance 26390
insuring board members or employees of the board or agencies26391
providers with which the board contracts against liability arising 26392
from the performance of their official duties. If the liability 26393
insurance is unavailable or the amount a board has procured or is 26394
able to procure is insufficient to cover the amount of a claim, 26395
the board may indemnify a board member or employee as follows:26396

       (A) For any action or inaction in the capacity of board 26397
member or employee or at the request of the board, whether or not 26398
the action or inaction is expressly authorized by this or any 26399
other section of the Revised Code, if both of the following apply:26400

       (1) The board member or employee acted in good faith and in a 26401
manner that the board member or employee reasonably believed was 26402
in or was not opposed to the best interests of the board; and26403

       (2) With respect to any criminal action or proceeding, the 26404
board member or employee had no reason to believe the board 26405
member's or employee's conduct was unlawful.26406

       (B) Against any expenses, including attorneys' fees, the 26407
board member or employee actually and reasonably incurs as a 26408
result of a suit or other proceeding involving the defense of any 26409
action or inaction in the capacity of board member or employee or 26410
at the request of the board, or in defense of any claim, issue, or 26411
matter raised in connection with the defense of such an action or 26412
inaction, to the extent that the board member or employee is 26413
successful on the merits or otherwise.26414

       Sec. 340.12.  No board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 26415
health services or any agency, corporation, or association26416
addiction or mental health services provider under contract with 26417
such a board shall discriminate in the provision of services under 26418
its authority, in employment, or contract on the basis of race, 26419
color, creed, sex, creed,national origin, or disability, or 26420
national origin.26421

       Each board,and each community addiction or mental health 26422
agency, and each alcohol and drug addiction programservices 26423
provider shall have a written affirmative action program. The 26424
affirmative action program shall include goals for the employment 26425
and effective utilization of, including contracts with, members of 26426
economically disadvantaged groups as defined in division (E)(1) of 26427
section 122.71 of the Revised Code in percentages reflecting as 26428
nearly as possible the composition of the alcohol, drug addiction, 26429
and mental health service district served by the board. Each 26430
board, agency, and programprovider shall file a description of 26431
the affirmative action program and a progress report on its 26432
implementation with the department of mental health or the 26433
department of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health 26434
and addiction services.26435

       Sec. 340.13.  (A) As used in this section, "minority:26436

       (1) "Minority business enterprise" has the same meaning as in 26437
division (E)(1) of section 122.71 of the Revised Code.26438

       (2) "EDGE business enterprise" has the same meaning as in 26439
section 123.152 of the Revised Code.26440

       (B) Any minority business enterprise that desires to bid on a 26441
contract under division (C) or (D) of this section shall first 26442
apply to the equal employment opportunity coordinator in the 26443
department of administrative services for certification as a 26444
minority business enterprise. Any EDGE business enterprise that 26445
desires to bid on a contract under division (D) of this section 26446
shall first apply to the equal employment opportunity coordinator 26447
of the department of administrative services for certification as 26448
an EDGE business enterprise. The coordinator shall approve the 26449
application of any minority business enterprise or EDGE business 26450
enterprise that complies with the rules adopted under section 26451
122.71 or 123.152 of the Revised Code, respectively. The 26452
coordinator shall prepare and maintain a list of minority business 26453
enterprises and EDGE business enterprises certified under this 26454
sectionthose sections.26455

       (C) From the contracts to be awarded for the purchases of 26456
equipment, materials, supplies, or services, other than contracts 26457
entered into under section 340.03 or 340.033 of the Revised Code, 26458
each board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 26459
shall select a number of contracts with an aggregate value of 26460
approximately fifteen per cent of the total estimated value of 26461
contracts to be awarded in the current fiscal year. The board 26462
shall set aside the contracts so selected for bidding by minority 26463
business enterprises only. The bidding procedures for such 26464
contracts shall be the same as for all other contracts awarded 26465
under section 307.86 of the Revised Code, except that only 26466
minority business enterprises certified and listed underpursuant 26467
to division (B) of this section shall be qualified to submit bids.26468

       (D) To the extent that a board is authorized to enter into 26469
contracts for construction, the board shall set aside a number of 26470
contractsstrive to attain a yearly contract dollar procurement 26471
goal the aggregate value of which equals approximately five per 26472
cent of the aggregate value of construction contracts for the 26473
current fiscal year for bidding by minorityEDGE business 26474
enterprises only. The bidding procedures for the contracts set 26475
aside for minority business enterprises shall be the same as for 26476
all other contracts awarded by the board, except that only 26477
minority business enterprises certified and listed under division 26478
(B) of this section shall be qualified to submit bids.26479

       (E)(1) In the case of contracts set aside under divisions26480
division (C) and (D) of this section, if no bid is submitted by a 26481
minority business enterprise, the contract shall be awarded 26482
according to normal bidding procedures. The board shall from time 26483
to time set aside such additional contracts as are necessary to 26484
replace those contracts previously set aside on which no minority 26485
business enterprise bid.26486

       (2) If a board, after having made a good faith effort, is 26487
unable to comply with the goal of procurement for contracting with 26488
EDGE business enterprises pursuant to division (D) of this 26489
section, the board may apply in writing, on a form prescribed by 26490
the department of administrative services, to the director of 26491
mental health and addiction services for a waiver or modification 26492
of the goal.26493

       (F) This section does not preclude any minority business 26494
enterprise or EDGE business enterprise from bidding on any other 26495
contract not specifically set aside for minority business 26496
enterprises or subject to procurement goals for EDGE business 26497
enterprises.26498

       (G) Within ninety days after the beginning of each fiscal 26499
year, each board shall file a report with the department of mental 26500
healthmental health and addiction services that shows for that 26501
fiscal year the name of each minority business enterprise and EDGE 26502
business enterprise with which the board entered into a contract, 26503
the value and type of each such contract, the total value of 26504
contracts awarded under divisions (C) and (D) of this section, the 26505
total value of contracts awarded for the purchases of equipment, 26506
materials, supplies, or services, other than contracts entered 26507
into under section 340.03 of the Revised Code, and the total value 26508
of contracts entered into for construction.26509

       (H) Any person who intentionally misrepresents himselfself26510
as owning, controlling, operating, or participating in a minority 26511
business enterprise or an EDGE business enterprise for the purpose 26512
of obtaining contracts or any other benefits under this section 26513
shall be guilty of theft by deception as provided for in section 26514
2913.02 of the Revised Code.26515

       Sec. 340.15.  (A) A public children services agency that 26516
identifies a child by a risk assessment conducted pursuant to 26517
section 5153.16 of the Revised Code as being at imminent risk of 26518
being abused or neglected because of an addiction of a parent, 26519
guardian, or custodian of the child to a drug of abuse or alcohol 26520
shall refer the child's addicted parent, guardian, or custodian 26521
and, if the agency determines that the child needs alcohol or 26522
other drug addiction services, the child to an alcohol and druga 26523
community addiction programservices provider certified by the 26524
department of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health 26525
and addiction services under section 3793.065119.36 of the 26526
Revised Code. A public children services agency that is sent a 26527
court order issued pursuant to division (B) of section 2151.3514 26528
of the Revised Code shall refer the addicted parent or other 26529
caregiver of the child identified in the court order to an alcohol 26530
and druga community addiction programservices provider26531
certified by the department of alcohol and drug addiction services26532
mental health and addiction services under section 3793.065119.3626533
of the Revised Code. On receipt of a referral under this division 26534
and to the extent funding identified under division (A)(1) of 26535
section 340.033340.08 of the Revised Code is available, the 26536
programprovider shall provide the following services to the 26537
addicted parent, guardian, custodian, or caregiver and child in 26538
need of alcohol or other drugaddiction services:26539

       (1) If it is determined pursuant to an initial screening to 26540
be needed, assessment and appropriate treatment; 26541

       (2) Documentation of progress in accordance with a treatment 26542
plan developed for the addicted parent, guardian, custodian, 26543
caregiver, or child;26544

       (3) If the referral is based on a court order issued pursuant 26545
to division (B) of section 2151.3514 of the Revised Code and the 26546
order requires the specified parent or other caregiver of the 26547
child to submit to alcohol or other drug testing during, after, or 26548
both during and after, treatment, testing in accordance with the 26549
court order.26550

       (B) The services described in division (A) of this section 26551
shall have a priority as provided in the alcohol and drug26552
addiction and mental health services plan and budget established 26553
pursuant to section 340.033sections 340.03 and 340.08 of the 26554
Revised Code. Once a referral has been received pursuant to this 26555
section, the public children services agency and the alcohol or 26556
drug addiction programservices provider shall, in accordance with 26557
42 C.F.R. Part 2, share with each other any information concerning 26558
the persons and services described in that division that the 26559
agency and programprovider determine are necessary to share. If 26560
the referral is based on a court order issued pursuant to division 26561
(B) of section 2151.3514 of the Revised Code, the results and 26562
recommendations of the alcohol and drug addiction program26563
services provider also shall be provided and used as described in 26564
division (D) of that section. Information obtained or maintained 26565
by the agency or programprovider pursuant to this section that 26566
could enable the identification of any person described in 26567
division (A) of this section is not a public record subject to 26568
inspection or copying under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.26569

       Sec. 340.16. Not later than ninety days after September 5, 26570
2001, theThe department of mental healthmental health and 26571
addiction services and the department of job and family services26572
medicaid shall adopt rules that establish requirements and 26573
procedures for prior notification and service coordination between 26574
public children services agencies and boards of alcohol, drug 26575
addiction, and mental health services when a public children 26576
services agency refers a child in its custody to a board for 26577
services funded by the board. The rules shall be adopted in 26578
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.26579

       The department of mental health and department of job and 26580
family services shall collaborate in formulating a plan that 26581
delineates the funding responsibilities of public children 26582
services agencies and boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 26583
mental health services for services provided under section 26584
5111.023 of the Revised Code to children in the custody of public 26585
children services agencies. The departments shall complete the 26586
plan not later than ninety days after September 5, 2001.26587

       Sec. 341.192. (A) As used in this section:26588

        (1) "Jail" means a county jail, or a multicounty, 26589
municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal correctional center.26590

       (2) "Medical assistance program" has the same meaning as in 26591
section 2913.40 of the Revised Code.26592

       (3) "Medical provider" means a physician, hospital, 26593
laboratory, pharmacy, or other health care provider that is not 26594
employed by or under contract to a county, municipal corporation, 26595
township, the department of youth services, or the department of 26596
rehabilitation and correction to provide medical services to 26597
persons confined in a jail or state correctional institution, or 26598
is in the custody of a law enforcement officer.26599

       (4)(3) "Necessary care" means medical care of a nonelective 26600
nature that cannot be postponed until after the period of 26601
confinement of a person who is confined in a jail or state 26602
correctional institution, or is in the custody of a law 26603
enforcement officer without endangering the life or health of the 26604
person.26605

        (B) If a physician employed by or under contract to a county, 26606
municipal corporation, township, the department of youth services, 26607
or the department of rehabilitation and correction to provide 26608
medical services to persons confined in a jail or state 26609
correctional institution determines that a person who is confined 26610
in the jail or state correctional institution or who is in the 26611
custody of a law enforcement officer prior to the person's 26612
confinement in a jail or state correctional institution requires 26613
necessary care that the physician cannot provide, the necessary 26614
care shall be provided by a medical provider. The county, 26615
municipal corporation, township, the department of youth services, 26616
or the department of rehabilitation and correction shall pay a 26617
medical provider for necessary care an amount not exceeding the 26618
authorized reimbursement rate for the same service established by 26619
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid under the 26620
medical assistancemedicaid program.26621

       Sec. 349.01.  As used in this chapter:26622

       (A) "New community" means a community or an addition to an 26623
existing community planned pursuant to this chapter so that it 26624
includes facilities for the conduct of industrial, commercial, 26625
residential, cultural, educational, and recreational activities, 26626
and designed in accordance with planning concepts for the 26627
placement of utility, open space, and other supportive facilities.26628

       In the case of a new community authority established within 26629
three years after March 22, 2012, the effective date of H.B. 225 26630
of the 129th general assembly, "new community" may mean a 26631
community or development of property planned under this chapter in 26632
relation to an existing community so that the community includes 26633
facilities for the conduct of community activities, and is 26634
designed in accordance with planning concepts for the placement of 26635
utility, open space, and other supportive facilities for the 26636
community.26637

       (B) "New community development program" means a program for 26638
the development of a new community characterized by well-balanced 26639
and diversified land use patterns and which includes land 26640
acquisition and land development, the acquisition, construction, 26641
operation, and maintenance of community facilities, and the 26642
provision of services authorized in this chapter.26643

       In the case of a new community authority established within 26644
three years after March 22, 2012, the effective date of H.B. 225 26645
of the 129th general assembly, a new community development program 26646
may take into account any existing community in relation to which 26647
a new community is developed for purposes of being characterized 26648
by well-balanced and diversified land use patterns.26649

       (C) "New community district" means the area of land described 26650
by the developer in the petition as set forth in division (A) of 26651
section 349.03 of the Revised Code for development as a new 26652
community and any lands added to the district by amendment of the 26653
resolution establishing the community authority.26654

       (D) "New community authority" means a body corporate and 26655
politic in this state, established pursuant to section 349.03 of 26656
the Revised Code and governed by a board of trustees as provided 26657
in section 349.04 of the Revised Code.26658

       (E) "Developer" means any person, organized for carrying out 26659
a new community development program who owns or controls, through 26660
leases of at least seventy-five years' duration, options, or 26661
contracts to purchase, the land within a new community district, 26662
or any municipal corporation, county, or port authority that owns 26663
the land within a new community district, or has the ability to 26664
acquire such land, either by voluntary acquisition or condemnation 26665
in order to eliminate slum, blighted, and deteriorated or 26666
deteriorating areas and to prevent the recurrence thereof. In the 26667
case of a new community authority established within three years 26668
after March 22, 2012, the effective date of H.B. 225 of the 129th 26669
general assembly, "developer" may mean a person, municipal 26670
corporation, county, or port authority that controls land within a 26671
new community district through leases of at least forty years' 26672
duration.26673

       (F) "Organizational board of commissioners" means, if thethe 26674
following:26675

       (1) For a new community district that is located in only one 26676
county, the board of county commissioners of suchthat county; if26677

       (2) For a new community district that is located in more than 26678
one county, a board consisting of the members of the board of 26679
county commissioners of each of the counties in which the district 26680
is located, provided that action of suchthe board shall require a 26681
majority vote of the members of each separate board of county 26682
commissioners; or, if26683

       (3) For a new community district that is located entirely 26684
within the boundaries of a municipal corporation or for a new 26685
community district where more than half of the new community 26686
district is located within the boundaries of the most populous 26687
municipal corporation of a county, the legislative authority of 26688
the municipal corporation.26689

       (G) "Land acquisition" means the acquisition of real property 26690
and interests in real property as part of a new community 26691
development program.26692

       (H) "Land development" means the process of clearing and 26693
grading land, making, installing, or constructing water 26694
distribution systems, sewers, sewage collection systems, steam, 26695
gas, and electric lines, roads, streets, curbs, gutters, 26696
sidewalks, storm drainage facilities, and other installations or 26697
work, whether within or without the new community district, and 26698
the construction of community facilities.26699

       (I)(1) "Community facilities" means all real property, 26700
buildings, structures, or other facilities, including related 26701
fixtures, equipment, and furnishings, to be owned, operated, 26702
financed, constructed, and maintained under this chapter, 26703
including public, community, village, neighborhood, or town 26704
buildings, centers and plazas, auditoriums, day care centers, 26705
recreation halls, educational facilities, hospital facilities as 26706
defined in section 140.01 of the Revised Code, recreational 26707
facilities, natural resource facilities, including parks and other 26708
open space land, lakes and streams, cultural facilities, community 26709
streets, pathway and bikeway systems, pedestrian underpasses and 26710
overpasses, lighting facilities, design amenities, or other 26711
community facilities, and buildings needed in connection with 26712
water supply or sewage disposal installations or steam, gas, or 26713
electric lines or installation.26714

       (2) In the case of a new community authority established 26715
within three years after March 22, 2012, the effective date of 26716
H.B. 225 of the 129th general assembly, "community facilities" may 26717
mean, in addition to the facilities authorized in division (I)(1) 26718
of this section, any community facilities that are owned, 26719
operated, financed, constructed, or maintained for, relating to, 26720
or in furtherance of community activities, including, but not 26721
limited to, town buildings or other facilities, health care 26722
facilities including, but limited to, hospital facilities, and 26723
off-street parking facilities.26724

       (J) "Cost" as applied to a new community development program 26725
means all costs related to land acquisition and land development, 26726
the acquisition, construction, maintenance, and operation of 26727
community facilities and offices of the community authority, and 26728
of providing furnishings and equipment therefor, financing charges 26729
including interest prior to and during construction and for the 26730
duration of the new community development program, planning 26731
expenses, engineering expenses, administrative expenses including 26732
working capital, and all other expenses necessary and incident to 26733
the carrying forward of the new community development program.26734

       (K) "Income source" means any and all sources of income to 26735
the community authority, including community development charges 26736
of which the new community authority is the beneficiary as 26737
provided in section 349.07 of the Revised Code, rentals, user fees 26738
and other charges received by the new community authority, any 26739
gift or grant received, any moneys received from any funds 26740
invested by or on behalf of the new community authority, and 26741
proceeds from the sale or lease of land and community facilities.26742

       (L) "Community development charge" means:26743

       (1) A dollar amount which shall be determined on the basis of 26744
the assessed valuation of real property or interests in real 26745
property in a new community district sold, leased, or otherwise 26746
conveyed by the developer or the new community authority, the 26747
income of the residents of such property subject to such charge 26748
under section 349.07 of the Revised Code, if such property is 26749
devoted to residential uses or to the profits of any business, a 26750
uniform fee on each parcel of such real property originally sold, 26751
leased, or otherwise conveyed by the developer or new community 26752
authority, or any combination of the foregoing bases.26753

        (2) For a new community authority that is established within 26754
three years after March 22, 2012, the effective date of H.B. 225 26755
of the 129th general assembly, "community development charge" 26756
includes, in addition to the charges authorized in division (L)(1) 26757
of this section, a charge determined on the basis of all or a part 26758
of the income of the residents of real property within the new 26759
community district if such property is devoted to residential uses 26760
or of persons employed within the district, or all or a part of 26761
the profits, gross receipts, or other revenues of any business 26762
operating in the new community district, including, but not 26763
limited to, rentals received from leases of real property located 26764
in the district. If a new community authority imposes a community 26765
development charge determined on the basis of rentals received 26766
from leases of real property, improvements of any such leased real 26767
property located in the new community district and subject to that 26768
charge may not be exempted from taxation under section 5709.40, 26769
5709.41, 5709.73, or 5709.78 of the Revised Code.26770

       (M) "Proximate city" means any city that, as of the date of 26771
filing of the petition under section 349.03 of the Revised Code, 26772
is the city with the greatest population located in the county in 26773
which the proposed new community district is located, is the city 26774
with the greatest population located in an adjoining county if any 26775
portion of such city is within five miles of any part of the 26776
boundaries of such district, or exercises extraterritorial 26777
subdivision authority under section 711.09 of the Revised Code 26778
with respect to any part of such district.26779

       In the case of a new community authority that is established 26780
within three years after March 22, 2012, the effective date of 26781
H.B. 225 of the 129th general assembly, "proximate city" may mean 26782
a municipal corporation in which, at the time of filing the 26783
petition under section 349.03 of the Revised Code, any portion of 26784
the proposed new community district is located, or, if at the time 26785
of that filing more than one-half of the proposed district is 26786
contained within a joint economic development district created 26787
under sections 715.70 to 715.83 of the Revised Code, the township 26788
containing the greatest portion of the territory of the joint 26789
economic development district.26790

       (N) "Community activities" means cultural, educational, 26791
governmental, recreational, residential, industrial, commercial, 26792
distribution and research activities, or any combination thereof 26793
that includes residential activities.26794

       Sec. 349.04.  The following method of selecting a board of 26795
trustees is deemed to be a compelling state interest. Within ten 26796
days after the new community authority has been established, as 26797
provided in section 349.03 of the Revised Code, an initial board 26798
of trustees shall be appointed as follows: the organizational 26799
board of commissioners shall appoint by resolution at least three, 26800
but not more than six, citizen members of the board of trustees to 26801
represent the interests of present and future residents of the new 26802
community district and one member to serve as a representative of 26803
local government, and the developer shall appoint a number of 26804
members equal to the number of citizen members to serve as 26805
representatives of the developer. In the case of a new community 26806
authority established within three years after March 22, 2012, the 26807
citizen members may represent present and future employers within 26808
the new community district and any present or future residents of 26809
the district.26810

       Members shall serve two-year overlapping terms, with two of 26811
each of the initial citizen and developer members appointed to 26812
serve initial one-year terms. The organizational board of 26813
commissioners shall adopt, by further resolution adopted within 26814
one year of such resolution establishing such initial board of 26815
trustees, a method for selection of successor members thereof 26816
which determines the projected total population of the projected 26817
new community and meets the following criteria:26818

       (A) The appointed citizen members shall be replaced by 26819
elected citizen members according to a schedule established by the 26820
organizational board of commissioners calculated to achieve one 26821
such replacement each time the new community district gains a 26822
proportion, having a numerator of one and a denominator of twice 26823
the number of citizen members, of its projected total population 26824
until such time as all of the appointed citizen members are 26825
replaced.26826

       (B) Representatives of the developer shall be replaced by 26827
elected citizen members according to a schedule established by the 26828
organizational board of commissioners calculated to achieve one 26829
such replacement each time the new community district gains a 26830
proportion, having a numerator of one and a denominator equal to 26831
the number of developer members, of its projected total population 26832
until such time as all of the developer's representatives are 26833
replaced.26834

       (C) The representative of local government shall be replaced 26835
by an elected citizen member at the time the new community 26836
district gains three-quarters of its projected total population.26837

       Elected citizen members of the board of trustees shall be 26838
elected by a majority of the residents of the new community 26839
district voting at elections held at the times and in the manner 26840
provided in a resolution of the organizational board of 26841
commissioners. Each citizen member except an appointed citizen 26842
member shall be a qualified elector who resides within the new 26843
community district. In the case of a new community authority for 26844
which a petition is filed within three years after March 22, 2012, 26845
theThe organizational board of commissioners, by resolution, may 26846
adopt an alternative method of selecting or electing successor 26847
members of the board of trustees provided that if an alternative 26848
method of selection is adopted for a new community authority 26849
organized prior to March 22, 2012, the board of trustees of that 26850
authority shall be limited in the collection of a community 26851
development charge, collected pursuant to division (Q) of section 26852
349.06 of the Revised Code, and the issuance of bonds or notes, 26853
issued pursuant to section 349.08 of the Revised Code, to the 26854
amount or to the extent otherwise permitted for a board of 26855
trustees whose members are not elected by residents of the new 26856
community district. If the alternative method provides for the 26857
election of citizen members, the elections may be held at the 26858
times and in the manner provided in the petition or in a 26859
resolution of the organizational board of commissioners, and the 26860
elected citizen members shall be qualified electors who reside in 26861
the new community district.26862

       Citizen members shall not be employees of or have financial 26863
interest in the developer. If a vacancy occurs in the office of a 26864
member other than a member appointed by the developer, the 26865
organizational board of commissioners may appoint a successor 26866
member for the remainder of the unexpired term. Any appointed 26867
member of the board of trustees may at any time be removed by the 26868
organizational board of commissioners for misfeasance, 26869
nonfeasance, or malfeasance in office. Members appointed by the 26870
developer may also at any time be removed by the developer without 26871
a showing of cause.26872

       Each member of the board of trustees, before entering upon 26873
official duties, shall take and subscribe to an oath before an 26874
officer authorized to administer oaths in Ohio that the member 26875
will honestly and faithfully perform the duties of the member's 26876
office. Such oath shall be filed in the office of the clerk of the 26877
board of county commissioners in which the petition was filed. 26878
Upon taking the oath, the board of trustees shall elect one of its 26879
number as chairperson and another as vice-chairperson, and shall 26880
appoint suitable persons as secretary and treasurer who need not 26881
be members of the board. The treasurer shall be the fiscal officer 26882
of the authority. The board shall adopt by-laws governing the 26883
administration of the affairs of the new community authority. Each 26884
member of the board shall post a bond for the faithful performance 26885
of official duties and give surety therefor in such amount, but 26886
not less than ten thousand dollars, as the resolution creating 26887
such board shall prescribe.26888

       All of the powers of the new community authority shall be 26889
exercised by its board of trustees, but without relief of such 26890
responsibility, such powers may be delegated to committees of the 26891
board or its officers and employees in accordance with its 26892
by-laws. A majority of the board shall constitute a quorum, and a 26893
concurrence of a majority of a quorum in any matter within the 26894
board's duties is sufficient for its determination, provided a 26895
quorum is present when such concurrence is had and a majority of 26896
those members constituting such quorum are trustees not appointed 26897
by the developer. All trustees shall be empowered to vote on all 26898
matters within the authority of the board of trustees, and no vote 26899
by a member appointed by the developer shall be construed to give 26900
rise to civil or criminal liability for conflict of interest on 26901
the part of public officials.26902

       Sec. 351.021.  (A) The resolution of the county commissioners 26903
creating a convention facilities authority, or any amendment or 26904
supplement to that resolution, may authorize the authority to levy 26905
one or both of the excise taxes authorized by division (B) of this 26906
section to pay the cost of one or more facilities; to pay 26907
principal, interest, and premium on convention facilities 26908
authority tax anticipation bonds issued to pay those costs; to pay 26909
the operating costs of the authority; to pay operating and 26910
maintenance costs of those facilities; and to pay the costs of 26911
administering the excise tax.26912

       (B) The board of directors of a convention facilities 26913
authority that has been authorized pursuant to resolution adopted, 26914
amended, or supplemented by the board of county commissioners 26915
pursuant to division (A) of this section may levy, by resolution 26916
adopted on or before December 31, 1988, either or both of the 26917
following:26918

       (1) Within the territory of the authority, an additional 26919
excise tax not to exceed four per cent on each transaction. The 26920
excise tax authorized by division (B)(1) of this section shall be 26921
in addition to any excise tax levied pursuant to section 5739.08 26922
or 5739.09 of the Revised Code, or division (B)(2) of this 26923
section.26924

       (2) Within that portion of any municipal corporation that is 26925
located within the territory of the authority or within the 26926
boundaries of any township that is located within the territory of 26927
the authority, which municipal corporation or township is levying 26928
any portion of the excise tax authorized by division (A) of 26929
section 5739.08 of the Revised Code, and with the approval, by 26930
ordinance or resolution, of the legislative authority of that 26931
municipal corporation or township, an additional excise tax not to 26932
exceed nine-tenths of one per cent on each transaction. The excise 26933
tax authorized by division (B)(2) of this section may be levied 26934
only if, on the effective date of the levy specified in the 26935
resolution making the levy, the amount being levied pursuant to 26936
division (A) of section 5739.08 of the Revised Code by each 26937
municipal corporation or township in which the tax authorized by 26938
division (B)(2) of this section will be levied, when added to the 26939
amount levied under division (B)(2) of this section, does not 26940
exceed three per cent on each transaction. The excise tax 26941
authorized by division (B)(2) of this section shall be in addition 26942
to any excise tax that is levied pursuant to section 5739.08 or 26943
5739.09 of the Revised Code, or division (B)(1) of this section.26944

       (C)(1) The board of directors of a convention facilities 26945
authority that is located in an eligible Appalachian county; that 26946
has been authorized pursuant to resolution adopted, amended, or 26947
supplemented by the board of county commissioners pursuant to 26948
division (A) of this section; and that is not levying a tax under 26949
division (B)(1) or (2) of this section may levy within the 26950
territory of the authority, by resolution adopted on or before 26951
December 31, 2005, an additional excise tax not to exceed three 26952
per cent on each transaction. The excise tax authorized under 26953
division (C)(1) of this section shall be in addition to any excise 26954
tax levied pursuant to section 5739.08 or 5739.09 of the Revised 26955
Code.26956

        As used in division (C)(1) of this section, "eligible 26957
Appalachian county" means a county in this state designated as 26958
being in the "Appalachian region" under the "Appalachian Regional 26959
Development Act of 1965," 79 Stat. 4, 40 U.S.C. App. 403, and 26960
having a population less than eighty thousand according to the 26961
most recent federal decennial census.26962

       (2) Division (B)(C)(2) of this section applies only to a 26963
convention facilities authority located in a county with a 26964
population, according to the 2000 federal decennial census, of at 26965
least one hundred thirty-five thousand and not more than one 26966
hundred fifty thousand and containing entirely within its 26967
boundaries the territory of a municipal corporation with a 26968
population according to that census of more than fifty thousand. 26969
The board of directors of such a convention facilities authority, 26970
by resolution adopted on or before November 1, 2009, may levy 26971
within the territory of the authority an excise tax on 26972
transactions by which lodging by a hotel is or is to be furnished 26973
to transient guests at a rate not to exceed three per cent on such 26974
transactions for the same purposes for which a tax may be levied 26975
under division (B) of this section. The resolution may be adopted 26976
only if the board of county commissioners of the county, by 26977
resolution, authorizes the levy of the tax. The resolution of the 26978
board of county commissioners is subject to referendum as 26979
prescribed by sections 305.31 to 305.41 of the Revised Code. If, 26980
pursuant to those procedures, a referendum is to be held, the 26981
board's resolution does not take effect until approved by a 26982
majority of electors voting on the question. The convention 26983
facilities authority may adopt the resolution authorized by 26984
division (C)(2) of this section before the election, but the 26985
authority's resolution shall not take effect if the board of 26986
commissioners' resolution is not approved at the election. A tax 26987
levied under division (C)(2) of this section is in addition to any 26988
tax levied under section 5739.09 of the Revised Code.26989

       (D) The authority shall provide for the administration and 26990
allocation of an excise tax levied pursuant to division (B) or (C) 26991
of this section. All receipts arising from those excise taxes 26992
shall be expended for the purposes provided in, and in accordance 26993
with this section and section 351.141 of the Revised Code. An 26994
excise tax levied under division (B) or (C) of this section shall 26995
remain in effect at the rate at which it is levied for at least 26996
the duration of the period for which the receipts from the tax 26997
have been anticipated and pledged pursuant to section 351.141 of 26998
the Revised Code.26999

       (E) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section, 27000
the levy of an excise tax on each transaction pursuant to sections 27001
5739.08 and 5739.09 of the Revised Code does not prevent a 27002
convention facilities authority from levying an excise tax 27003
pursuant to division (B) or (C) of this section.27004

       (F) A convention facilities authority located in a county 27005
with a population greater than eighty thousand but less than 27006
ninety thousand according to the 2010 federal decennial census 27007
that levies a tax under division (B) of this section may amend the 27008
resolution levying the tax to allocate a portion of the revenue 27009
from the tax for support of tourism-related sites or facilities 27010
and programs operated by the county or a municipal corporation 27011
within the county in which the authority is located or for the 27012
purpose of leasing lands for county fairs, erecting buildings for 27013
county fair purposes, making improvements on a county fairground, 27014
or for any purpose connected with the use of a county fairground 27015
or with the management thereof by the county in which the 27016
authority is located. The revenue allocated by the authority for 27017
such purposes in a calendar year shall not exceed fifteen per cent 27018
of the total revenue from the tax in the preceding calendar year.27019

       Sec. 353.01.  For purposes of this chapter:27020

       (A) "Lake facilities authority" means a body corporate and 27021
politic created pursuant to section 353.02 of the Revised Code.27022

       (B) "Watershed" means a watershed as determined by the United 27023
States geological survey.27024

       (C) "Impacted watershed" means a watershed meeting both of 27025
the following conditions:27026

       (1) The watershed contains a natural or man-made lake of at 27027
least one-half square mile that has experienced levels of 27028
microcystin toxins in excess of eighty parts-per-billion, as 27029
measured by the Ohio environmental protection agency, during the 27030
twenty-four month period immediately preceding the date the last 27031
resolution necessary for the creation of a lake facilities 27032
authority under section 353.02 of the Revised Code was adopted.27033

       (2) The watershed is partially or completely located within a 27034
state park, as defined in section 154.01 of the Revised Code, that 27035
has averaged at least four hundred thousand visitors per year for 27036
the four calendar years preceding the calendar year in which the 27037
last resolution necessary for the creation of a lake facilities 27038
authority under section 353.02 of the Revised Code was adopted.27039

       (D) "Impacted lake district" means the territory of all 27040
townships and municipal corporations having territory in an 27041
impacted watershed.27042

       (E) "Cost" as applied to a lake facilities authority facility 27043
means the cost of acquisition or construction of the facility; the 27044
cost of acquisition of all land, rights-of-way, property rights, 27045
easements, franchise rights, and interests required for such 27046
acquisition; the cost of demolishing or removing any buildings or 27047
structures on land so acquired, including the cost of acquiring 27048
any lands to which such buildings or structures may be moved; the 27049
cost of acquiring or constructing and equipping a principal office 27050
of the lake facilities authority; the cost of diverting highways, 27051
interchange of highways, and access roads to private property, 27052
including the cost of land or easements for the access roads, the 27053
cost of public utility and common carrier relocation or 27054
duplication, the cost of all machinery, furnishings, and 27055
equipment, financing charges, interest prior to and during any 27056
construction and for no more than eighteen months after completion 27057
of any construction; engineering; expenses of research and 27058
development with respect to an impacted lake district; legal 27059
expenses; expenses of developing or obtaining plans, 27060
specifications, engineering surveys, studies, and estimates of 27061
cost and revenues; expenses necessary or incident to determining 27062
the feasibility or practicability of acquiring or constructing the 27063
facility or remediating the impacted lake district; administrative 27064
expense; and such other expenses as may be necessary or incident 27065
to the acquisition or construction of the facility, the 27066
remediation of the impacted lake district and other activities 27067
authorized by this chapter, the financing of such acquisition, 27068
construction or remediation, including the amount authorized in 27069
the resolution of the lake facilities authority providing for the 27070
issuance of lake facilities authority revenue bonds to be paid 27071
into any special funds from the proceeds of such bonds and the 27072
financing of the placing of the facility in operation, the cost of 27073
issuing the bonds, and the financing of remediation and other 27074
purposes authorized by this chapter.27075

       (F) "Revenues" means all rentals and other charges received 27076
by the lake facilities authority with respect to an impacted 27077
watershed; any gift or grant received with respect to any impacted 27078
watershed; money received in repayment of, and for interest on, 27079
any loans made by the authority to a person or governmental 27080
agency, whether from the United States or any department, 27081
administration, or agency thereof, or otherwise; proceeds of lake 27082
facilities authority revenue bonds to the extent the use thereof 27083
for payment of principal or of premium, if any, or interest on the 27084
bonds is authorized by the authority; proceeds from any insurance, 27085
appropriation, or guaranty pertaining to an impacted watershed or 27086
property mortgaged to secure bonds or pertaining to the financing 27087
of any activities authorized under this chapter; income and profit 27088
from the investment of the proceeds of lake facilities authority 27089
revenue bonds or of any revenues; and contributions of service 27090
payments in lieu of taxes generated pursuant to section 5709.40, 27091
5709.41, 5709.73, or 5709.78 of the Revised Code, and all other 27092
nontax revenues paid or payable to the lake facilities authority.27093

       (G) "Lake facilities revenue bonds," unless the context 27094
indicates a different meaning or intent, includes revenue notes, 27095
revenue renewal notes, and revenue refunding bonds.27096

       (H) "Authorized purpose" means activities that remediate, 27097
rehabilitate, enhance, foster, aid, improve, provide, or promote 27098
an impacted watershed within the jurisdiction of the lake 27099
facilities authority, including, without limitation, research and 27100
development efforts related thereto.27101

       (I) "Lake facilities authority facility" or "facility" means 27102
real or personal property, or any combination thereof owned, 27103
leased, or otherwise controlled or financed by a lake facilities 27104
authority and directly related to an authorized purpose.27105

       Sec. 353.02.  A lake facilities authority may be created by 27106
the board of county commissioners of a county that contains all of 27107
the territory of an impacted watershed. If the territory of an 27108
impacted watershed is contained within more than one county, a 27109
joint facilities lake authority may be created by resolution of 27110
the board of commissioners of each county in which the impacted 27111
watershed is located. A resolution creating a lake facilities 27112
authority must include a finding that the watershed sought to be 27113
improved or remediated pursuant to this chapter is an impacted 27114
watershed.27115

       A lake facilities authority created pursuant to this section 27116
is a body corporate and politic which may sue and be sued, plead 27117
and be impleaded, and has the powers and jurisdiction enumerated 27118
in this chapter. The exercise by an authority of the powers 27119
conferred upon it shall be deemed to be essential governmental 27120
functions of this state.27121

       Within sixty days after the creation of a lake facilities 27122
authority, the county engineer of each county with territory in 27123
the impacted watershed shall prepare a survey denoting the 27124
boundaries of the impacted watershed in the county. The survey 27125
shall include references to the county auditor's permanent parcel 27126
number designations as those parcel number designations correspond 27127
to the boundaries of the impacted watershed. If requested by the 27128
county engineer of each county with territory in the impacted 27129
watershed, the cost of such surveys shall be paid from the funds 27130
of the lake facilities authority pursuant to an agreement between 27131
the lake facilities authority and the county engineer of each 27132
county. Such funds may be advanced by the board of county 27133
commissioners of any county with territory in the impacted 27134
watershed. 27135

       The county auditor of the county with the greatest amount of 27136
territory in the impacted watershed shall be the fiscal officer 27137
for the lake facilities authority. The county prosecutor of the 27138
county with the greatest amount of territory in the impacted 27139
watershed shall be the legal advisor of the lake facilities 27140
authority and shall prosecute and defend all suits and actions 27141
that the lake facilities authority directs or to which it is a 27142
party. 27143

       Upon the creation of a lake facilities authority, no 27144
authority that is granted by law any powers or duties that are 27145
substantially the same as the powers and duties of a lake 27146
facilities authority may be created if its territorial 27147
jurisdiction includes any territory within the impacted lake 27148
district.27149

       Sec. 353.03.  A lake facilities authority may do all of the 27150
following:27151

       (A) Acquire by purchase, lease, gift, or otherwise, on such 27152
terms and in such manner as it considers proper, real and personal 27153
property necessary for an authorized purpose or any estate, 27154
interest, or right therein, within or without the impacted lake 27155
district;27156

       (B) Improve, remediate, maintain, sell, lease, or otherwise 27157
dispose of real and personal property on such terms and in such 27158
manner as it considers proper;27159

       (C) Request that the department of natural resources, the 27160
environmental protection agency, or the department of agriculture 27161
adopt, modify, and enforce reasonable rules and regulations 27162
governing impacted watersheds;27163

       (D) Employ such managers, administrative officers, agents, 27164
engineers, architects, attorneys, contractors, subcontractors, and 27165
employees as may be appropriate in the exercise of the rights, 27166
powers, and duties conferred on it, prescribe the duties and 27167
compensation for such persons, require bonds to be given by any 27168
such persons and by officers of the authority for the faithful 27169
performance of their duties, and fix the amount and surety 27170
therefor, and pay the surety;27171

       (E) Sue and be sued in its corporate name;27172

       (F)(1) Make and enter into all contracts and agreements and 27173
execute all instruments relating to the provisions of this 27174
chapter;27175

       (2) Except as provided otherwise under divisions (F)(2) and 27176
(3) of this section, when the cost of a contract for the 27177
construction of any building, structure, or other improvement 27178
undertaken by a lake facilities authority involves an expenditure 27179
exceeding twenty-five thousand dollars, and the lake facilities 27180
authority is the contracting authority, the lake facilities 27181
authority shall make a written contract after notice calling for 27182
bids for the award of the contract has been given by publication 27183
twice, with at least seven days between publications, in a 27184
newspaper of general circulation in the impacted lake district. 27185
Each such contract shall be awarded to the lowest responsive and 27186
responsible bidder in accordance with section 9.312 of the Revised 27187
Code. The board of directors by rule may provide criteria for the 27188
negotiation and award without competitive bidding of any contract 27189
as to which the lake facilities authority is the contracting 27190
authority for the construction of any building or structure or 27191
other improvement under any of the following circumstances:27192

       (a) There exists a real and present emergency that threatens 27193
damage to property or injury to persons of the lake facilities 27194
authority or other persons, provided that a statement specifying 27195
the nature of the emergency that is the basis for the negotiation 27196
and award of a contract without competitive bidding shall be 27197
signed at the time of the contract's execution by the officer of 27198
the lake facilities authority that executes the contract and shall 27199
be attached to the contract.27200

       (b) A commonly recognized industry or other standard or 27201
specification does not exist and cannot objectively be articulated 27202
for the improvement.27203

       (c) The contract is for any energy conservation measure as 27204
defined in section 307.041 of the Revised Code.27205

       (d) With respect to material to be incorporated into the 27206
improvement, only a single source or supplier exists for the 27207
material.27208

       (e) A single bid is received by the lake facilities authority 27209
after complying with the above provisions.27210

       (3) In addition to the exceptions to competitive bidding 27211
requirements under division (F)(2) of this section, a lake 27212
facilities authority may contract for the acquisition or 27213
construction of any property for an authorized purpose and for the 27214
leasing, subleasing, sale, or other disposition of the property in 27215
a manner determined by the lake facilities authority in its sole 27216
discretion, without necessity for competitive bidding or 27217
performance bonds. 27218

       (4) With respect to any public improvement undertaken by, or 27219
under contract for, the lake facilities authority, the authority 27220
may elect to apply sections 4115.03 to 4115.21 of the Revised 27221
Code.27222

       (G) Accept aid or contributions from any source of money, 27223
property, labor, or other things of value, to be held, used, and 27224
applied only for the purposes for which the grants and 27225
contributions are made;27226

       (H) Apply for and accept grants, loans, or commitments of 27227
guarantee or insurance, including any guarantees of lake 27228
facilities authority bonds and notes, from the United States, the 27229
state, or other public body or other sources, and provide any 27230
consideration which may be required in order to obtain such 27231
grants, loans, or contracts of guarantee or insurance; 27232

       (I) Procure insurance against loss to the lake facilities 27233
authority by reason of damage to its properties resulting from 27234
fire, theft, accident, or other casualties, or by reason of its 27235
liability for any damages to persons or property occurring in the 27236
construction or operation of facilities or areas under its 27237
jurisdiction or the conduct of its activities;27238

       (J) Maintain such funds or reserves as it considers necessary 27239
for the efficient performance of its duties;27240

       (K) Enforce any covenants, of which the lake facilities 27241
authority is the beneficiary, running with the land.27242

       (L) Issue securities for the remediation of an impacted 27243
watershed and directly related permanent improvements in 27244
compliance with Chapter 133. of the Revised Code, except that such 27245
bonds or notes may be issued only pursuant to a vote of the 27246
electors residing within the impacted lake district. The net 27247
indebtedness incurred by a lake facilities authority pursuant to 27248
this division may not exceed one-tenth of one per cent of the 27249
total value of all property within the territory comprising the 27250
impacted lake district as listed and assessed for taxation.27251

       (M) Issue lake facilities authority revenue bonds beyond the 27252
limit of bonded indebtedness provided by law, payable solely from 27253
revenues as provided in section 353.09 of the Revised Code for the 27254
purpose of providing funds to pay costs of any facility or 27255
facilities or parts thereof;27256

       (N) Advise and provide input to political subdivisions within 27257
the impacted lake district with respect to zoning and land use 27258
planning within the impacted lake district;27259

       (O) Enter into agreements for the management, ownership, 27260
possession, or control of lands or property to be used for wetland 27261
mitigation banking;27262

       (P) Adopt and modify rules and regulations to carry out the 27263
authority granted to the lake facilities authority under this 27264
section.27265

       Sec. 353.04.  (A) Upon the creation of a lake facilities 27266
authority under section 353.02 of the Revised Code, a board of 27267
directors consisting of the county commissioners of each county 27268
with territory in the impacted lake district shall be created. 27269
Membership on the board is not a direct or indirect interest in a 27270
contract or expenditure of money by the county. Notwithstanding 27271
any provision of law to the contrary, no member of the board shall 27272
be disqualified from holding any public office or employment by 27273
reason of membership on the board. The board is a public body for 27274
the purposes of section 121.22 of the Revised Code and a public 27275
office for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code. 27276
Notwithstanding those sections, the board may hold closed meetings 27277
and protect the confidentiality of information under the same 27278
circumstances as authorized for a community improvement 27279
corporation under section 1724.11 of the Revised Code. Chapter 27280
2744. of the Revised Code applies to the board. Each year, the 27281
board shall prepare an annual report of its activities and make it 27282
available to the public.27283

       (B) A board of directors shall consult with the advisory 27284
council created under this division in performing the remediation 27285
and other activities authorized by this chapter. 27286

       Not later than sixty days after the creation of the board of 27287
directors, the board shall provide written notice of its creation 27288
to the legislative authority of each political subdivision with 27289
territory in the impacted lake district. The notice shall describe 27290
the process for the appointment of an advisory council. Upon 27291
receipt of such notice, the legislative authority of each 27292
political subdivision with territory in the impacted lake district 27293
shall appoint one representative each to serve on the advisory 27294
council. The representative need not be an elected or appointed 27295
official of the political subdivision. 27296

       Sec. 353.05. The board of directors of a lake facilities 27297
authority, by resolution, may propose the levy of a tax upon the 27298
taxable property in the impacted lake district pursuant to section 27299
5705.55 of the Revised Code.27300

       Sec. 353.06. As used in this section, "hotel" and "transient 27301
guests" have the same meanings as in section 5739.01 of the 27302
Revised Code.27303

        A resolution creating a lake facilities authority under 27304
section 353.02 of the Revised Code, or any amendments or 27305
supplements thereto, may authorize the authority to levy an excise 27306
tax on transactions by which lodging in a hotel is or is to be 27307
furnished to transient guests to pay any costs authorized under 27308
this chapter; to pay principal, interest, and premium on lake 27309
facilities authority tax anticipation bonds issued to pay those 27310
costs; to pay the operating costs of the authority; and to pay the 27311
costs of administering the tax.27312

       Upon the affirmative vote of at least a majority of the 27313
qualified electors in a primary or general election within the 27314
impacted lake district voting at an election held for the purpose 27315
of authorizing the tax, the board of directors of a lake 27316
facilities authority authorized to levy a tax under this section 27317
may, by resolution, levy an additional excise tax within the 27318
territory of the impacted lake district on all transactions by 27319
which lodging in a hotel is or is to be furnished to transient 27320
guests. The rate of the tax, when added to the aggregate rate of 27321
excise taxes levied in the impacted lake district pursuant to 27322
section 351.021, 5739.08, or 5739.09 of the Revised Code, shall 27323
not cause the total aggregate rate to exceed five per cent on any 27324
such transaction.27325

       The lake facilities authority shall provide for the 27326
administration and allocation of a tax levied pursuant to this 27327
section. All receipts arising from the tax shall be expended for 27328
the purposes provided in, and in accordance with, this section. An 27329
excise tax levied under this section shall remain in effect at the 27330
rate at which it is levied for at least the duration of the period 27331
for which the receipts from the tax have been anticipated and 27332
pledged pursuant to section 353.08 of the Revised Code.27333

       The form of the ballot in an election held on the question of 27334
levying a tax proposed pursuant to this section shall be as 27335
follows or in any other form acceptable to the secretary of state:27336

       "An excise tax on all transactions by which lodging in a 27337
hotel is or is to be furnished to transient guests within the 27338
territory of the (name of impacted lake district) ........... for 27339
the purpose of .......... at a rate of ......... for ............ 27340
(number of years the tax is to be levied).27341

        27342

 For the Excise Tax 27343
 Against the Excise Tax  " 27344

       Sec. 353.07. The director of natural resources may transfer 27345
real property owned by the state to a lake facilities authority 27346
for the purpose of promoting wetland banking, wildlife, or 27347
sporting activities. The division of wildlife within the 27348
department of natural resources may enter into an agreement with a 27349
lake facilities authority to establish wetland or natural areas to 27350
benefit wildlife or sporting activities. The agreement may be 27351
entered as part of, or in conjunction with, a mitigation banking 27352
program.27353

       Sec. 353.08.  A lake facilities authority that levies a tax 27354
authorized by sections 353.05 and 5705.55 or section 353.06 of the 27355
Revised Code may, by resolution, anticipate the proceeds of the 27356
tax and issue lake facilities authority anticipation bonds, and 27357
notes anticipating the proceeds or the bonds, in the principal 27358
amount that, in the opinion of the authority, are necessary for 27359
the purpose of paying the cost of an authorized purpose, and that 27360
the authority is able to pay over the term of the issue with the 27361
interest on the bonds or notes, or in the case of notes 27362
anticipating bonds over the term of the bonds, by the estimated 27363
amount of the taxes anticipated. The taxes are determined by the 27364
general assembly to satisfy any applicable requirement of Section 27365
11 of Article XII, Ohio Constitution.27366

       Every issue of outstanding anticipation bonds shall be 27367
payable out of the proceeds of the taxes anticipated and other 27368
revenues of the authority that are pledged for such payment. The 27369
pledge shall be valid and binding from the time the pledge is 27370
made, and the anticipated excise taxes and revenues so pledged and 27371
thereafter received by the authority immediately shall be subject 27372
to the lien of that pledge without any physical delivery of those 27373
taxes and revenues or further act. The lien of any pledge is valid 27374
and binding as against all parties having claims of any kind in 27375
tort, contract, or otherwise against the authority, whether or not 27376
such parties have notice of the lien. Neither the resolution nor 27377
any trust agreement by which a pledge is created need be filed or 27378
recorded except in the authority's records.27379

       The anticipation bonds shall bear such date or dates, and 27380
shall mature at such time or times, in the case of any such notes 27381
or any renewals of such notes not exceeding twenty years from the 27382
date of issue of such original notes and in the case of any such 27383
bonds or any refunding bonds not exceeding forty years from the 27384
date of the original issue of notes or bonds for the purpose, and 27385
shall be executed in the manner that the resolution authorizing 27386
the bonds may provide. The anticipation bonds shall bear interest 27387
at such rates, or at a variable rate or rates changing from time 27388
to time, in accordance with provisions provided in the authorizing 27389
resolution, be in such denominations and form, either coupon or 27390
registered, carry such registration privileges, be payable in such 27391
medium of payment and at such place or places, and be subject to 27392
such terms of redemption, as the authority may authorize or 27393
provide.27394

       Sec. 353.09.  A lake facilities authority at any time may 27395
issue lake facilities authority revenue bonds in such principal 27396
amounts as, in the opinion of the lake facilities authority, are 27397
necessary for the purpose of paying the cost of one or more lake 27398
facilities authority facilities or parts thereof. A lake 27399
facilities authority at any time may issue renewal notes, issue 27400
bonds to retire its notes and, whenever it considers refunding 27401
expedient, refund any bonds by the issuance of lake facilities 27402
authority revenue refunding bonds, whether the bonds to be 27403
refunded have or have not matured, and issue lake facilities 27404
authority revenue bonds partly to refund outstanding bonds and 27405
partly for any other authorized purpose. The lake facilities 27406
authority revenue refunding bonds shall be sold and the proceeds 27407
applied to the purchase, redemption, or payment of the bonds to be 27408
refunded. Lake facilities authority revenue bonds shall be special 27409
obligations of the lake facilities authority payable out of the 27410
revenues of the lake facilities authority that are pledged for 27411
such payment. The pledge shall be valid and binding from the time 27412
the pledge is made and the revenues so pledged and thereafter 27413
received by the lake facilities authority immediately shall be 27414
subject to the lien of the pledge without any physical delivery 27415
thereof or further act, and the lien of the pledge is valid and 27416
binding as against all parties having claims of any kind in tort, 27417
contract, or otherwise against the lake facilities authority, 27418
irrespective of whether those parties have notice thereof. Neither 27419
the resolution nor any trust agreement by which a pledge is 27420
created need be filed or recorded except in the records of the 27421
lake facilities authority.27422

       Whether or not the lake facilities authority revenue bonds 27423
are of such form and character as to be negotiable instruments, 27424
the lake facilities authority revenue bonds shall have all the 27425
qualities and incidents of negotiable instruments, subject only to 27426
the provisions of the bonds for registration.27427

       The lake facilities authority revenue bonds shall be 27428
authorized by resolution of the lake facilities authority, and 27429
shall bear interest at such rate or rates, shall bear such date or 27430
dates, and shall mature at such time or times, and in such number 27431
of installments as may be provided in or pursuant to that 27432
resolution. The final maturity of any lake facilities authority 27433
revenue bond in the form of a note and any renewals thereof shall 27434
not exceed five years from the date of issue of the original note. 27435
The final maturity of any issue of lake facilities authority 27436
revenue bonds shall not be later than forty-five years from the 27437
date of issue of the original issue of bonds. Any such bonds or 27438
notes shall be executed in a manner as the resolution or 27439
resolutions may provide. The lake facilities authority revenue 27440
bonds shall be in such denominations, be in such form, either 27441
coupon or registered, carry such registration privileges, be 27442
payable in such medium of payment, at such place or places, and be 27443
subject to such terms of redemption as may be provided in or 27444
pursuant to the resolution authorizing their issuance. Lake 27445
facilities authority revenue bonds of the lake facilities 27446
authority may be sold by the lake facilities authority, at public 27447
or private sale, at or at not less than a price or prices as the 27448
lake facilities authority determines. In case any officer whose 27449
signature or a facsimile of whose signature appears on any bonds, 27450
notes, or coupons, ceases to be such officer before delivery of 27451
bonds or notes, the signature or facsimile shall nevertheless be 27452
sufficient for all purposes the same as if the officer had 27453
remained in office until such delivery, and in case the seal of 27454
the lake facilities authority has been changed after a facsimile 27455
has been imprinted on such bonds or notes, the facsimile seal will 27456
continue to be sufficient for all purposes.27457

       Any resolution or resolutions authorizing any lake facilities 27458
authority revenue bonds or any issue of bonds may contain 27459
provisions, subject to any agreements with bondholders as may then 27460
exist, which provisions shall be a part of the contract with the 27461
holders of bonds, as to the pledging of all or any part of the 27462
revenues of the lake facilities authority to secure the payment of 27463
the lake facilities authority bonds or of any issue of the bonds; 27464
the use and disposition of revenues of the lake facilities 27465
authority; a covenant to fix, alter, and collect rentals and other 27466
charges so that pledged revenues will be sufficient to pay costs 27467
of operation, maintenance, and repairs, pay principal of and 27468
interest on bonds secured by the pledge of such revenues, and 27469
provide any reserves that may be required by the applicable 27470
resolution or trust agreement; the setting aside of reserve funds, 27471
sinking funds, or replacement and improvement funds and the 27472
regulation and disposition thereof; the crediting of the proceeds 27473
of the sale of bonds to and among the funds referred to or 27474
provided for in or pursuant to the resolution authorizing the 27475
issuance of the bonds or notes; the use, lease, sale, or other 27476
disposition of any lake facilities authority facility or any other 27477
assets of the lake facilities authority; limitations on the 27478
purpose to which the proceeds of sale of bonds may be applied and 27479
the pledging of those proceeds to secure the payment of the bonds 27480
or of any issue of the bonds; as to notes issued in anticipation 27481
of the issuance of bonds, the agreement of the lake facilities 27482
authority to do all things necessary for the authorization, 27483
issuance, and sale of the bonds in amounts that may be necessary 27484
for the timely retirement of the notes; limitations on the 27485
issuance of additional bonds; the terms upon which additional 27486
bonds may be issued and secured; the refunding of outstanding 27487
bonds; the procedure, if any, by which the terms of any contract 27488
with bondholders may be amended or abrogated, the amount of bonds 27489
the holders of which must consent thereto, and the manner in which 27490
such consent may be given; limitations on the amount of moneys to 27491
be expended by the lake facilities authority for operating, 27492
administrative, or other expenses of the lake facilities 27493
authority; securing any bonds or notes by a trust agreement; and 27494
any other matters, of like or different character, that in any way 27495
affect the security or protection of the bonds or notes.27496

       Neither the board of directors of the lake facilities 27497
authority nor any person executing the bonds shall be liable 27498
personally on the bonds or be subject to any personal liability or 27499
accountability by reason of the issuance thereof.27500

       The issuance of lake facilities authority revenue bonds under 27501
this section need not comply with any other law applicable to the 27502
issuance of bonds or notes.27503

       Sec. 353.10.  (A) With respect to facilities, and their 27504
financing, for an authorized purpose, under agreements whereby the 27505
person to whom the facility is to be leased, subleased, or sold, 27506
or to whom a loan is to be made for the facility, is to make 27507
payments sufficient to pay all of the principal of, premium, if 27508
any, and interest on the lake facilities authority revenue bonds 27509
issued for the facility, the lake facilities authority, in 27510
addition to other powers under this chapter, may do any of the 27511
following:27512

       (1) Make loans for the acquisition or construction of the 27513
facility to such person upon such terms as the lake facilities 27514
authority may determine or authorize including secured or 27515
unsecured loans, and, in connection therewith, enter into loan 27516
agreements and other agreements, accept notes and other forms of 27517
obligation to evidence such indebtedness and mortgages, liens, 27518
pledges, assignments, or other security interests to secure such 27519
indebtedness, which may be prior or subordinate to or on a parity 27520
with other indebtedness, obligations, mortgages, pledges, 27521
assignments, other security interests, or liens or encumbrances, 27522
and take actions it considers appropriate to protect such security 27523
and safeguard against losses, including, without limitation, 27524
foreclosure and the bidding upon and purchase of property upon 27525
foreclosure or other sale;27526

       (2) Sell the facility under such terms as it may determine, 27527
including, without limitation, sale by conditional sale or 27528
installment sale, under which title may pass prior to or after 27529
completion of the facility or payment or provisions for payment of 27530
all principal of, premium, if any, and interest on the bonds, or 27531
at any other time provided in the agreement pertaining to the 27532
sale, and including sale under an option to purchase at a price 27533
which may be a nominal amount or less than true value at the time 27534
of purchase;27535

       (3) Grant a mortgage, lien, or other encumbrance on, or 27536
pledge or assignment of, or other security interest with respect 27537
to, all or any part of the facility, revenues, reserve funds, or 27538
other funds established in connection with the bonds, or on, of, 27539
or with respect to any lease, sublease, sale, conditional sale or 27540
installment sale agreement, loan agreement, or other agreement 27541
pertaining to the lease, sublease, sale, or other disposition of a 27542
facility or pertaining to a loan made for a facility, or any 27543
guaranty or insurance agreement made with respect thereto, or any 27544
interest of the lake facilities authority therein, or any other 27545
interest granted, assigned, or released to secure payments of the 27546
principal of, premium, if any, or interest on the bonds or to 27547
secure any other payments to be made by the lake facilities 27548
authority, which mortgage, lien, encumbrance, pledge, assignment, 27549
or other security interest may be prior or subordinate to or on a 27550
parity with any other mortgage, assignment, or other security 27551
interest, or lien or encumbrance;27552

       (4) Provide that the interest on the bonds may be at a 27553
variable rate or rates changing from time to time in accordance 27554
with a base or formula as authorized by the lake facilities 27555
authority;27556

       (5) Contract for the acquisition or construction of the 27557
facility or any part thereof and for the leasing, subleasing, 27558
sale, or other disposition of the facility in a manner determined 27559
by the lake facilities authority in its sole discretion, without 27560
necessity for competitive bidding or performance bonds;27561

       (6) Make appropriate provision for adequate maintenance of 27562
the facility.27563

       (B) With respect to the facilities referred to in this 27564
section, the authority granted by this section is cumulative and 27565
supplementary to all other authority granted in this chapter. The 27566
authority granted by this section does not alter or impair any 27567
similar authority granted elsewhere in this chapter for or with 27568
respect to other facilities.27569

       Sec. 353.11.  In the discretion of the lake facilities 27570
authority, any lake facilities authority revenue bonds issued 27571
under this chapter may be secured by a trust agreement between the 27572
lake facilities authority and a corporate trustee that may be any 27573
trust company or bank having the powers of a trust company within 27574
or without the state.27575

       The trust agreement may pledge or assign revenues of the lake 27576
facilities authority to be received and may convey or mortgage any 27577
facility or any part thereof. The trust agreement or any 27578
resolution providing for the issuance of such bonds may contain 27579
any provisions for protecting and enforcing the rights and 27580
remedies of the bondholders as are reasonable and proper and not 27581
in violation of law, including covenants setting forth the duties 27582
of the lake facilities authority in relation to the acquisition of 27583
property, the construction, improvement, maintenance, repair, 27584
operation, and insurance of the facility in connection with which 27585
the bonds are authorized, the rentals or other charges to be 27586
imposed for the use or services of any facility, the custody, 27587
safeguarding, and application of all moneys, and provisions for 27588
the employment of consulting engineers in connection with the 27589
construction or operation of the facility.27590

        Any bank or trust company incorporated under the laws of this 27591
state that may act as depository of the proceeds of bonds or of 27592
revenues may furnish any indemnifying bonds or may pledge any 27593
securities that are required by the lake facilities authority. The 27594
trust agreement may set forth the rights and remedies of the 27595
bondholders and of the trustee, and may restrict the individual 27596
right of action by bondholders as is customary in trust agreements 27597
or trust indentures securing similar bonds. The trust agreement 27598
may contain any other provisions that the lake facilities 27599
authority determines reasonable and proper for the security of the 27600
bondholders. All expenses incurred in carrying out the provisions 27601
of the trust agreement may be treated as a part of the cost of the 27602
operation of the facility.27603

       Sec. 353.12.  Any holder of lake facilities authority revenue 27604
bonds issued under sections 353.09 to 353.15 of the Revised Code, 27605
or any of the coupons pertaining to those bonds, and the trustee 27606
under any trust agreement, except to the extent the rights given 27607
by those sections may be restricted by the applicable resolution 27608
or that trust agreement, may by suit, action, mandamus, or other 27609
proceedings, protect and enforce any rights under the laws of the 27610
state or granted under those sections, the trust agreement, or the 27611
resolution authorizing the issuance of the bonds, and may enforce 27612
and compel the performance of all duties required by those 27613
sections, or by the trust agreement or resolution, to be performed 27614
by the lake facilities authority or any officer of the lake 27615
facilities authority, including the fixing, charging, and 27616
collecting of rentals or other charges.27617

       Sec. 353.13.  Lake facilities authority revenue bonds issued 27618
under sections 353.09 to 353.15 of the Revised Code do not 27619
constitute a debt, or a pledge of the faith and credit, of the 27620
state or any political subdivision of the state. The holders or 27621
owners of the bonds have no right to have taxes levied by the 27622
general assembly or taxing authority of any political subdivision 27623
of the state for the payment of the principal of or interest on 27624
the bonds. The bonds are payable solely from the revenues and 27625
funds pledged for their payment as authorized by this chapter, 27626
unless the revenue bonds are notes issued in anticipation of the 27627
issuance of the bonds, or the revenue bonds are refunded by 27628
refunding bonds issued under section 353.09 of the Revised Code, 27629
provided that the refunding bonds shall be payable solely from 27630
revenues and funds pledged for their payment as authorized by that 27631
section. All bonds shall contain on the face thereof a statement 27632
to the effect that the bonds, as to both principal and interest, 27633
are not debts of the state or any political subdivision of the 27634
state, but are payable solely from revenues and funds pledged for 27635
their payment.27636

       Sec. 353.14.  All moneys, funds, properties, and assets 27637
acquired by the lake facilities authority under this chapter, 27638
whether as proceeds from the sale of lake facilities authority 27639
revenue bonds or as revenues, or otherwise, shall be held by it in 27640
trust for the purposes of carrying out its powers and duties, 27641
shall be used and reused as provided in this chapter, and shall at 27642
no time be part of other public funds. Such funds, except as 27643
otherwise provided in any resolution authorizing its lake 27644
facilities authority revenue bonds or in any trust agreement 27645
securing those bonds, or except when invested pursuant to section 27646
353.15 of the Revised Code, shall be kept in depositories selected 27647
by the lake facilities authority in the manner provided in Chapter 27648
135. of the Revised Code for the selection of eligible public 27649
depositories, and the deposits shall be secured as provided in 27650
that chapter. The resolution authorizing the issuance of such 27651
bonds or the trust agreement securing the bonds shall provide that 27652
any officer to whom, or any bank or trust company to which, such 27653
money is paid shall act as trustee of the money and hold and apply 27654
the money for the purposes for which the bonds are issued, subject 27655
to such conditions as Chapter 135. of the Revised Code and such 27656
resolutions or trust agreement provide.27657

       Sec. 353.15.  Except as otherwise provided in any resolution 27658
authorizing the issuance of its lake facilities authority revenue 27659
bonds or in any trust agreement securing the bonds, moneys in the 27660
funds of the lake facilities authority in excess of current needs 27661
may be invested as permitted by sections 135.01 to 135.21 of the 27662
Revised Code or invested in linked deposit programs established by 27663
resolution of the board of directors in accordance with section 27664
135.80 of the Revised Code. Income from all investments of moneys 27665
in any fund shall be credited to funds as the lake facilities 27666
authority determines, subject to the provisions of any such 27667
resolution or trust agreement, and the investments may be sold at 27668
any time the lake facilities authority determines.27669

       Sec. 353.16.  Bonds of a lake facilities authority and lake 27670
facilities authority revenue bonds are lawful investments of 27671
banks, societies for savings, trust companies, savings and loan 27672
associations, deposit guaranty associations, trustees, 27673
fiduciaries, trustees or other officers having charge of the bond 27674
retirement funds or sinking funds of port authorities and 27675
political subdivisions, and taxing districts of this state, the 27676
commissioners of the sinking fund of this state, the administrator 27677
of workers' compensation, the state teachers retirement system, 27678
the school employees retirement system, the public employees 27679
retirement system, the Ohio police and fire pension fund, and 27680
insurance companies, including domestic life insurance companies 27681
and domestic insurance companies other than life, and are 27682
acceptable as security for the deposit of public moneys.27683

       Sec. 511.261.  If a township park district enters into an 27684
agreement for the sale or lease of mineral rights regarding a park 27685
within the district, any royalties or other moneys resulting from 27686
the sale or lease shall be deposited into a special fund that the 27687
board of park commissioners shall establish under division (F) of 27688
section 5705.09 of the Revised Code. The fund shall be used 27689
exclusively for maintenance of parks within the district and for 27690
the acquisition of new park lands.27691

       Sec. 517.271.  Notwithstanding section 517.22 of the Revised 27692
Code, the company, association, or religious society that most 27693
recently owned and operated a cemetery currently owned by a board 27694
of township trustees may petition the probate court of the county 27695
in which the cemetery is located to transfer the ownership of the 27696
cemetery to the petitioner.27697

       If the court determines that the petitioner has met all of 27698
the following conditions, the court shall transfer the ownership 27699
of the cemetery to the petitioner and shall order the board to 27700
give the petitioner all necessary records and documents concerning 27701
the cemetery, including records of the board's sale of any lots 27702
pursuant to section 517.07 of the Revised Code:27703

       (A) The petitioner has the financial resources necessary to 27704
operate and maintain the cemetery;27705

       (B) The petitioner is in compliance with all applicable laws 27706
and administrative rules concerning the owners and operators of 27707
cemeteries, including registration under section 4767.02 of the 27708
Revised Code; and27709

       (C) The petitioner owes no delinquent taxes.27710

       Sec. 715.013. (A) Except as otherwise expressly authorized by 27711
the Revised Code, no municipal corporation shall levy a tax that 27712
is the same as or similar to a tax levied under Chapter 322., 27713
3734., 3769., 4123., 4141., 4301., 4303., 4305., 4307., 4309., 27714
5707., 5725., 5726., 5727., 5728., 5729., 5731., 5735., 5736.,27715
5737., 5739., 5741., 5743., or 5749., or 5751. of the Revised 27716
Code.27717

       (B) This section does not prohibit a municipal corporation 27718
from levying a tax on any of the following:27719

       (1) Amounts received for admission to any place;27720

       (2) The income of an electric company or combined company, as 27721
defined in section 5727.01 of the Revised Code;27722

       (3) On and after January 1, 2004, the income of a telephone 27723
company, as defined in section 5727.01 of the Revised Code.27724

       Sec. 715.691.  (A) As used in this section:27725

       (1) "Contracting party" means a municipal corporation that 27726
has entered into a joint economic development zone contract or any 27727
party succeeding to the municipal corporation, or a township that 27728
entered into a joint economic development zone contract with a 27729
municipal corporation.27730

       (2) "Zone" means a joint economic development zone designated 27731
under this section.27732

       (B) This section provides alternative procedures and 27733
requirements for creating and operating a joint economic 27734
development zone to those set forth in section 715.69 of the 27735
Revised Code. This section applies only if one of the contracting 27736
parties to the zone does not levy a municipal income tax under 27737
Chapter 718. of the Revised Code. A municipal corporation that 27738
does not levy a municipal income tax may enter into an agreement 27739
to create and operate a joint economic development zone under this 27740
section or under section 715.69 of the Revised Code.27741

       Two or more municipal corporations or one or more townships 27742
and one or more municipal corporations may enter into a contract 27743
whereby they agree to share in the costs of improvements for an 27744
area or areas located in one or more of the contracting parties 27745
that they designate as a joint economic development zone for the 27746
purpose of facilitating new or expanded growth for commercial or 27747
economic development in the state. The contract and zone shall 27748
meet the requirements of divisions (B) to (J) of this section.27749

       (C) The contract shall set forth each contracting party's 27750
contribution to the joint economic development zone. The 27751
contributions may be in any form that the contracting parties 27752
agree to, and may include, but are not limited to, the provision 27753
of services, money, or equipment. The contract may be amended, 27754
renewed, or terminated with the consent of the contracting 27755
parties. The contract shall continue in existence throughout the 27756
term it specifies and shall be binding on the contracting parties 27757
and on any entities succeeding to the contracting parties.27758

       (D) Before the legislative authority of any of the 27759
contracting parties enacts an ordinance or resolution approving a 27760
contract to designate a joint economic development zone, the 27761
legislative authority of each of the contracting parties shall 27762
hold a public hearing concerning the contract and zone. Each 27763
legislative authority shall provide at least thirty days' public 27764
notice of the time and place of the public hearing in a newspaper 27765
of general circulation in the municipal corporation or township. 27766
During the thirty-day period prior to the public hearing, all of 27767
the following documents shall be available for public inspection 27768
in the office of the clerk of the legislative authority of a 27769
municipal corporation that is a contracting party and in the 27770
office of the fiscal officer of a township that is a contracting 27771
party:27772

       (1) A copy of the contract designating the zone;27773

       (2) A description of the area or areas to be included in the 27774
zone, including a map in sufficient detail to denote the specific 27775
boundaries of the area or areas;27776

       (3) An economic development plan for the zone that includes a 27777
schedule for the provision of any new, expanded, or additional 27778
services, facilities, or improvements.27779

       A public hearing held under division (D) of this section 27780
shall allow for public comment and recommendations on the contract 27781
and zone. The contracting parties may include in the contract any 27782
of those recommendations prior to approval of the contract.27783

       (E) After the public hearings required under division (D) of 27784
this section have been held, each contracting party may enact an 27785
ordinance or resolution approving the contract to designate a 27786
joint economic development zone. After each contracting party has 27787
enacted an ordinance or resolution, the clerk of the legislative 27788
authority of a municipal corporation that is a contracting party 27789
and the fiscal officer of a township that is a contracting party 27790
shall file with the board of elections of each county within which 27791
a contracting party is located a copy of the ordinance or 27792
resolution approving the contract and shall direct the board of 27793
elections to submit the ordinance or resolution to the electors of 27794
the contracting party on the day of the next general, primary, or 27795
special election occurring at least ninety days after the 27796
ordinance or resolution is filed with the board of elections. If 27797
any of the contracting parties is a township, however, then only 27798
the township or townships shall submit the resolution to the 27799
electors.27800

       (F)(1) If a vote is required to approve a municipal 27801
corporation as a contracting party to a joint economic development 27802
zone under this section, the ballot shall be in the following 27803
form:27804

       "Shall the ordinance of the legislative authority of the 27805
(city or village) of (name of contracting party) approving the 27806
contract with (name of each other contracting party) for the 27807
designation of a joint economic development zone be approved?27808

        27809

 FOR THE ORDINANCE AND CONTRACT 27810
 AGAINST THE ORDINANCE AND CONTRACT  " 27811

        27812

       (2) If a vote is required to approve a township as a 27813
contracting party to a joint economic development zone under this 27814
section, the ballot shall be in the following form:27815

       "Shall the resolution of the board of township trustees of 27816
the township of (name of contracting party) approving the contract 27817
with (name of each other contracting party) for the designation of 27818
a joint economic development zone be approved?27819

        27820

 FOR THE RESOLUTION AND CONTRACT 27821
 AGAINST THE RESOLUTION AND CONTRACT  " 27822

        27823

       If a majority of the electors of each contracting party 27824
voting on the issue vote for the ordinance or resolution and 27825
contract, the ordinance or resolution shall become effective 27826
immediately and the contract shall go into effect immediately or 27827
in accordance with its terms.27828

       (G)(1) A board of directors shall govern each joint economic 27829
development zone created under section 715.691 of the Revised 27830
Code. The members of the board shall be appointed as provided in 27831
the contract. Each of the contracting parties shall appoint three 27832
members to the board. Terms for each member shall be for two 27833
years, each term ending on the same day of the month of the year 27834
as did the term that it succeeds. A member may be reappointed to 27835
the board.27836

       (2) Membership on the board is not the holding of a public 27837
office or employment within the meaning of any section of the 27838
Revised Code or any charter provision prohibiting the holding of 27839
other public office or employment. Membership on the board is not 27840
a direct or indirect interest in a contract or expenditure of 27841
money by a municipal corporation, township, county, or other 27842
political subdivision with which a member may be affiliated. 27843
Notwithstanding any provision of law or a charter to the contrary, 27844
no member of the board shall forfeit or be disqualified from 27845
holding any public office or employment by reason of membership on 27846
the board.27847

       (3) The board is a public body for the purposes of section 27848
121.22 of the Revised Code. Chapter 2744. of the Revised Code 27849
applies to the board and the zone.27850

       (H) The contract may grant to the board of directors 27851
appointed under division (G) of this section the power to adopt a 27852
resolution to levy an income tax within the zone. The income tax 27853
shall be used for the purposes of the zone and for the purposes of 27854
the contracting municipal corporationsparties pursuant to the 27855
contract. The income tax may be levied in the zone based on income 27856
earned by persons working within the zone and on the net profits 27857
of businesses located in the zone. The income tax is subject to 27858
Chapter 718. of the Revised Code, except that a vote shall be 27859
required by the electors residing in the zone to approve the rate 27860
of income tax unless a majority of the electors residing within 27861
the zone, as determined by the total number of votes cast in the 27862
zone for the office of governor at the most recent general 27863
election for that office, submit a petition to the board 27864
requesting that the election provided for in division (H)(1) of 27865
this section not be held. If no electors reside within the zone, 27866
then division (H)(3) of this section applies. The rate of the 27867
income tax shall be no higher than the highest rate being levied 27868
by a municipal corporation that is a party to the contract.27869

       (1) The board of directors may levy an income tax at a rate 27870
that is not higher than the highest rate being levied by a 27871
municipal corporation that is a party to the contract, provided 27872
that the rate of the income tax is first submitted to and approved 27873
by the electors of the zone at the succeeding regular or primary 27874
election, or a special election called by the board, occurring 27875
subsequent to ninety days after a certified copy of the resolution 27876
levying the income tax and calling for the election is filed with 27877
the board of elections. If the voters approve the levy of the 27878
income tax, the income tax shall be in force for the full period 27879
of the contract establishing the zone. No election shall be held 27880
under this section if a majority of the electors residing within 27881
the zone, determined as specified in division (H) of this section, 27882
submit a petition to that effect to the board of directors. Any 27883
increase in the rate of an income tax by the board of directors 27884
shall be approved by a vote of the electors of the zone and shall 27885
be in force for the remaining period of the contract establishing 27886
the zone.27887

       (2) Whenever a zone is located in the territory of more than 27888
one contracting party, a majority vote of the electors in each of 27889
the several portions of the territory of the contracting parties 27890
constituting the zone approving the levy of the tax is required 27891
before it may be imposed under division (H) of this section.27892

       (3) If no electors reside in the zone, no election for the 27893
approval or rejection of an income tax shall be held under this 27894
section, provided that where no electors reside in the zone, the 27895
rate of the income tax shall be no higher than the highest rate 27896
being levied by a municipal corporation that is a party to the 27897
contract.27898

       (4) The board of directors of a zone levying an income tax 27899
shall enter into an agreement with one of the municipal 27900
corporations that is a party to the contract to administer, 27901
collect, and enforce the income tax on behalf of the zone.27902

       (5) The board of directors of a zone shall publish or post 27903
public notice within the zone of any resolution adopted levying an 27904
income tax in the same manner required of municipal corporations 27905
under sections 731.21 and 731.25 of the Revised Code.27906

       (I)(1) If for any reason a contracting party reverts to or 27907
has its boundaries changed so that it is classified as a township 27908
that is the entity succeeding to that contracting party, the 27909
township is considered to be a municipal corporation for the 27910
purposes of the contract for the full period of the contract 27911
establishing the joint economic development zone, except that if 27912
that contracting party is administering, collecting, and enforcing 27913
the income tax on behalf of the district as provided in division 27914
(H)(4) of this section, the contract shall be amended to allow one 27915
of the other contracting parties to administer, collect, and 27916
enforce that tax.27917

       (2) Notwithstanding any other section of the Revised Code, if 27918
there is any change in the boundaries of a township so that a 27919
municipal corporation once located within the township is no 27920
longer so located, the township shall remain in existence even 27921
though its remaining unincorporated area contains less than 27922
twenty-two square miles, if the township has been or becomes a 27923
party to a contract creating a joint economic development zone 27924
under this section or the contract creating that joint economic 27925
development zone under this section is terminated or repudiated 27926
for any reason by any party or person. The township shall continue 27927
its existing status in all respects, including having the same 27928
form of government and the same elected board of trustees as its 27929
governing body. The township shall continue to receive all of its 27930
tax levies and sources of income as a township in accordance with 27931
any section of the Revised Code, whether the levies and sources of 27932
income generate millage within the ten-mill limitation or in 27933
excess of the ten-mill limitation. The name of the township may be 27934
changed to the name of the contracting party appearing in the 27935
contract creating a joint economic development zone under this 27936
section, so long as the name does not conflict with any other name 27937
in the state that has been certified by the secretary of state. 27938
The township shall have all of the powers set out in sections 27939
715.79, 715.80, and 715.81 of the Revised Code.27940

       (J) If, after creating and operating a joint economic 27941
development zone under this section, a contracting party that did 27942
not levy a municipal income tax under Chapter 718. of the Revised 27943
Code levies such a tax, the tax shall not apply to the zone for 27944
the full period of the contract establishing the zone, if the 27945
board of directors of the zone has levied an income tax as 27946
provided in division (H) of this section.27947

       Sec. 721.01.  Municipal corporations have special power to 27948
sell or lease real estate or to sell personal property belonging 27949
to the municipal corporation, when such real estate or personal 27950
property is not needed for any municipal purpose. Such power shall 27951
be exercised in the manner provided by sections 721.01 to 721.26, 27952
inclusive, of the Revised Codethis chapter.27953

       Sec. 721.03.  No contract, except as provided in section 27954
721.28 of the Revised Code, for the sale or lease of real estate 27955
belonging to a municipal corporation shall be made unless 27956
authorized by an ordinance, approved by a two-thirds vote of the 27957
members of the legislative authority of such municipal 27958
corporation, and by the board or officer having supervision or 27959
management of such real estate. When the contract is so 27960
authorized, it shall be made in writing by such board or officer, 27961
and, except as provided in section 721.27 or 721.29 of the Revised 27962
Code, only with the highest bidder, after advertisement once a 27963
week for five consecutive weeks in a newspaper of general 27964
circulation within the municipal corporation or as provided in 27965
section 7.16 of the Revised Code. Such board or officer may reject 27966
any bids and readvertise until all such real estate is sold or 27967
leased.27968

       Sec. 721.29. The legislative authority of a city may sell to 27969
a board of county commissioners real estate belonging to the city 27970
that is no longer needed for city purposes upon such lawful terms 27971
as are agreed upon between the city and the board of county 27972
commissioners, without competitive bidding as required by section 27973
721.03 of the Revised Code. No such sale shall be made unless the 27974
contract for the sale is authorized by ordinance, approved by a 27975
two-thirds vote of the members of the legislative authority of the 27976
city, and by the board or officer having supervision or management 27977
of the real estate.27978

       Sec. 731.091. (A) The legislative authority of a village may, 27979
by the adoption of an ordinance or resolution to eliminate 27980
staggered terms of office, determine that all members of the 27981
legislative authority shall be elected at the same municipal 27982
election as provided for in this section.27983

       (B) At the regular municipal election occurring not less than 27984
ninety days after the certification of the ordinance or resolution 27985
to the board of elections eliminating staggered terms of office, 27986
the following apply:27987

        (1) If there are six members of the legislative authority, 27988
threethe number of members eligible for election at that regular 27989
municipal election shall be elected at the next regular municipal 27990
election forto two-year nonstaggered terms, and all members of 27991
the legislative authority shall be elected to four-year 27992
nonstaggered terms at all following municipal elections.27993

        (2) If there are five members of the legislative authority, 27994
threea number of members that is one less than the number of 27995
members that would otherwise be eligible for election at that 27996
regular municipal election but for the first-time implementation 27997
of the new membership of five, or, in the case of a village that 27998
has previously reduced its number of members to five, then the 27999
number of members eligible for election at that regular municipal 28000
election shall be elected at the next municipal election forto28001
two-year nonstaggered terms, and all members shall be elected to 28002
four-year nonstaggered terms at all following municipal elections.28003

       Sec. 737.41.  (A) The legislative authority of a municipal 28004
corporation in which is established a municipal court, other than 28005
a county-operated municipal court, that has a department of 28006
probation shall establish in the municipal treasury a municipal 28007
probation services fund. The fund shall contain all moneys paid to 28008
the treasurer of the municipal corporation under section 2951.021 28009
of the Revised Code for deposit into the fund. The treasurer of 28010
the municipal corporation shall disburse the money contained in 28011
the fund at the request of the municipal court department of 28012
probation, for use only by that department for specialized staff, 28013
purchase of equipment, purchase of services, reconciliation 28014
programs for offenders and victims, other treatment programs, 28015
including alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programsservices 28016
providers certified under section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised 28017
Code, determined to be appropriate by the chief probation officer, 28018
and other similar expenses related to placing offenders under a 28019
community control sanction.28020

       (B) Any money in a municipal probation services fund at the 28021
end of a fiscal year shall not revert to the treasury of the 28022
municipal corporation but shall be retained in the fund.28023

       (C) As used in this section:28024

       (1) "County-operated municipal court" has the same meaning as 28025
in section 1901.03 of the Revised Code.28026

       (2) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 28027
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.28028

       Sec. 742.14.  (A) The board of trustees of the Ohio police 28029
and fire pension fund shall have prepared triennially by or under 28030
the supervision of an actuary an actuarial valuation of the 28031
pension assets, liabilities, and funding requirements of the Ohio 28032
police and fire pension fund as established pursuant to sections 28033
742.01 to 742.61 of the Revised Code. The actuary shall complete 28034
the valuation in accordance with actuarial standards of practice 28035
promulgated by the actuarial standards board of the American 28036
academy of actuaries and prepare a report of the valuation. The 28037
report shall include all of the following:28038

       (1) A summary of the benefit provisions evaluated;28039

       (2) A summary of the census data and financial information 28040
used in the valuation;28041

       (3) A description of the actuarial assumptions, actuarial 28042
cost method, and asset valuation method used in the valuation, 28043
including a statement of the assumed rate of payroll growth and 28044
assumed rate of growth or decline in the number of members of the 28045
fund contributing to the pension fund;28046

       (4) A summary of findings that includes a statement of the 28047
actuarial accrued pension liabilities and unfunded actuarial 28048
accrued pension liabilities;28049

       (5) A schedule showing the effect of any changes in the 28050
benefit provisions, actuarial assumptions, or cost methods since 28051
the last triennial actuarial valuation;28052

       (6) A statement of whether employee and employer 28053
contributions to the pension fund are expected to be sufficient to 28054
satisfy the funding objectives established by the board.28055

       The first triennial report shall be made not later than 28056
November 1, 2013, to the Ohio retirement study council, the 28057
director of budget and management, and the standing committees of 28058
the house of representatives and the senate with primary 28059
responsibility for retirement legislation immediately upon its 28060
availability and thereafter triennially, not later than the first 28061
day of November.28062

       (B) At such times as the board determines, and at least once 28063
in each quinquennial period, the board shall have prepared by or 28064
under the supervision of an actuary an actuarial investigation of 28065
the mortality, service, and other experience of the members of the 28066
fund and of other system retirants, as defined in section 742.26 28067
of the Revised Code, who are members of a police department or a 28068
fire department to update the actuarial assumptions used in the 28069
actuarial valuation required by division (A) of this section. The 28070
actuary shall prepare a report of the actuarial investigation. The 28071
report shall be prepared and any recommended changes in actuarial 28072
assumptions shall be made in accordance with the actuarial 28073
standards of practice promulgated by the actuarial standards board 28074
of the American academy of actuaries. The report shall include all 28075
of the following:28076

       (1) A summary of relevant decrement and economic assumption 28077
experience observed over the period of the investigation;28078

       (2) Recommended changes in actuarial assumptions to be used 28079
in subsequent actuarial valuations required by division (A) of 28080
this section;28081

       (3) A measurement of the financial effect of the recommended 28082
changes in actuarial assumptions;28083

       (4) If the investigation required by this division includes 28084
the investigation required by division (E) of this section, a 28085
report of the result of that investigation.28086

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 28087
study council and the standing committees of the house of 28088
representatives and the senate with primary responsibility for 28089
retirement legislation not later than the first day of November 28090
following the last fiscal year of the period the report covers.28091

       (C) The board shall have prepared by or under the supervision 28092
of an actuary an actuarial analysis of any introduced legislation 28093
expected to have a measurable financial impact on the pension 28094
fund. The actuarial analysis shall be completed in accordance with 28095
the actuarial standards of practice promulgated by the actuarial 28096
standards board of the American academy of actuaries. The actuary 28097
shall prepare a report of the actuarial analysis, which shall 28098
include all of the following:28099

       (1) A summary of the statutory changes that are being 28100
evaluated;28101

       (2) A description of or reference to the actuarial 28102
assumptions and actuarial cost method used in the report;28103

       (3) A description of the participant group or groups included 28104
in the report;28105

       (4) A statement of the financial impact of the legislation, 28106
including the resulting increase, if any, in the employer normal 28107
cost percentage; the increase, if any, in actuarial accrued 28108
liabilities; and the per cent of payroll that would be required to 28109
amortize the increase in actuarial accrued liabilities as a level 28110
per cent of covered payroll for all active members of the fund 28111
over a period not to exceed thirty years;28112

       (5) A statement of whether the scheduled contributions to the 28113
system after the proposed change is enacted are expected to be 28114
sufficient to satisfy the funding objectives established by the 28115
board.28116

       Not later than sixty days from the date of introduction of 28117
the legislation, the board shall submit a copy of the actuarial 28118
analysis to the legislative service commission, the standing 28119
committees of the house of representatives and the senate with 28120
primary responsibility for retirement legislation, and the Ohio 28121
retirement study council.28122

       (D) The board shall have prepared triennially a report giving 28123
a full accounting of the revenues and costs relating to the 28124
provision of benefits under section 742.45 of the Revised Code. 28125
The first triennial report shall be made as of December 31, 2013, 28126
and the thirty-first day of December triennially thereafter. The 28127
report shall include the following:28128

       (1) A description of the statutory authority for the benefits 28129
provided;28130

       (2) A summary of the benefits;28131

       (3) A summary of the eligibility requirements for the 28132
benefits;28133

       (4) A statement of the number of participants eligible for 28134
the benefits;28135

       (5) A description of the accounting, asset valuation, and 28136
funding method used to provide the benefits;28137

       (6) A statement of the net assets available for the provision 28138
of the benefits as of the last day of the fiscal year;28139

       (7) A statement of any changes in the net assets available 28140
for the provision of benefits, including participant and employer 28141
contributions, net investment income, administrative expenses, and 28142
benefits provided to participants, as of the last day of the 28143
fiscal year;28144

       (8) For the last six consecutive fiscal years, a schedule of 28145
the net assets available for the benefits, the annual cost of 28146
benefits, administrative expenses incurred, and annual employer 28147
contributions allocated for the provision of benefits;28148

       (9) A description of any significant changes that affect the 28149
comparability of the report required under this division;28150

       (10) A statement of the amount paid under division (B) of 28151
section 742.45 of the Revised Code.28152

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 28153
study council, the director of budget and management, and the 28154
standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate 28155
with primary responsibility for retirement legislation immediately 28156
upon its availability and not later than the thirtieth day of June 28157
following the year for which the report was made.28158

       (E) At least once in each quinquennial period, the board 28159
shall have prepared by or under the supervision of an actuary an 28160
actuarial investigation of the deferred retirement option plan 28161
established under section 742.43 of the Revised Code. The 28162
investigation shall include an examination of the financial 28163
impact, if any, on the fund of offering the plan to members.28164

       The actuary shall prepare a report of the actuarial 28165
investigation. The report shall include a determination of whether 28166
the plan, as established or modified, has a negative financial 28167
impact on the fund and, if so, recommendations on how to modify 28168
the plan to eliminate the negative financial impact. If the 28169
actuarial report indicates that the plan has a negative financial 28170
impact on the fund, the board may modify the plan or cease to 28171
allow members who have not already done so to elect to participate 28172
in the plan. The firefighter and police officers employers' 28173
contributions shall not be increased to offset any negative 28174
financial impact of the plan.28175

       If the board ceases to allow members to elect to participate 28176
in the plan, the rights and obligations of members who have 28177
already elected to participate shall not be altered.28178

       The board may include the actuarial investigation required 28179
under this division as part of the actuarial investigation 28180
required under division (B) of this section. If the report of the 28181
actuarial investigation required by this division is not included 28182
in the report required by division (B) of this section, the board 28183
shall submit the report required by this division to the Ohio 28184
retirement study council and the standing committees of the house 28185
of representatives and the senate with primary responsibility for 28186
retirement legislation not later than the first day of November 28187
following the last fiscal year of the period the report covers.28188

       Sec. 743.50. (A) A municipal corporation that has established 28189
and implemented a watershed management program with regard to 28190
reservoirs for drinking water shall not include in the program any 28191
prohibition against maintenance of property that constitutes a 28192
buffer around a body of water that is part of such a reservoir by 28193
an owner of property that is contiguous to the buffer.28194

       (B) A municipal corporation that has established and 28195
implemented a watershed management program with regard to 28196
reservoirs for drinking water shall not include in the program any 28197
prohibition against mowing grass, weeds, or other vegetation on 28198
municipal property that constitutes a buffer around a body of 28199
water that is part of such a reservoir by owners of property 28200
contiguous to the buffer.28201

        (C) No peace officer or other official with authority to cite 28202
trespassers on municipal property described in this section may 28203
issue a civil or criminal citation to any individual who enters 28204
municipal property buffering a reservoir for the sole purpose of 28205
mowing grass, weeds, or other vegetation in an effort to beautify 28206
the municipal property that is contiguous to property owned by the 28207
individual. 28208

       Sec. 755.06. (A) The board of park commissioners shall have 28209
the expenditures of all moneys appropriated by the legislative 28210
authority of the city or received from any other source for the 28211
purchase, acquisition, improvement, maintenance, equipment, or 28212
enjoyment of all property mentioned in section 755.05 of the 28213
Revised Code, but no liability shall be incurred or expenditure 28214
made unless the money required therefor is in the treasury to the 28215
credit of the park fund and not appropriated for any other 28216
purpose.28217

       (B) Notwithstanding division (A) of this section, if the 28218
legislative authority of a municipal corporation enters into an 28219
agreement for the sale or lease of mineral rights regarding lands 28220
that the board of park commissioners manages or controls, any 28221
royalties or other moneys resulting from the sale or lease shall 28222
be deposited into a special fund that the legislative authority 28223
shall establish under division (F) of section 5705.09 of the 28224
Revised Code. The board of park commissioners shall use the fund 28225
exclusively for maintenance of lands that the board manages or 28226
controls and for the acquisition of new park lands.28227

       Sec. 901.21.  (A) As used in this section and section 901.22 28228
of the Revised Code:28229

       (1) "Agricultural easement" has the same meaning as in 28230
section 5301.67 of the Revised Code.28231

       (2) "Agriculture" means those activities occurring on land 28232
devoted exclusively to agricultural use, as defined in section 28233
5713.30 of the Revised Code, or on land that constitutes a 28234
homestead.28235

       (3) "Homestead" means the portion of a farm on which is 28236
located a dwelling house, yard, or outbuildings such as a barn or 28237
garage.28238

       (B) The director of agriculture may acquire real property 28239
used predominantly in agriculture and agricultural easements by 28240
gift, devise, or bequest if, at the time an easement is granted, 28241
such an easement is on land that is valued for purposes of real 28242
property taxation at its current value for agricultural use under 28243
section 5713.31 of the Revised Code or that constitutes a 28244
homestead. Any terms may be included in an agricultural easement 28245
so acquired that are necessary or appropriate to preserve on 28246
behalf of the grantor of the easement the favorable tax 28247
consequences of the gift, devise, or bequest under the "Internal 28248
Revenue Act of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 1, as amended. 28249
The director, by any such means or by purchase or lease, may 28250
acquire, or acquire the use of, stationary personal property or 28251
equipment that is located on land acquired in fee by the director 28252
under this section and that is necessary or appropriate for the 28253
use of the land predominantly in agriculture.28254

       (C) The director may include, in an agricultural easement 28255
acquired under division (B) of this section, a provision to 28256
preserve a unique natural or physical feature on the land so long 28257
as the use of the land remains predominantly agricultural.28258

       (D) The director may do all things necessary or appropriate 28259
to retain the use of real property acquired in fee under division 28260
(B) of this section predominantly in agriculture, including, 28261
without limitation, performing any of the activities described in 28262
division (A)(1) or (2) of section 5713.30 of the Revised Code or 28263
entering into contracts to lease or rent the real property so 28264
acquired to persons or governmental entities that will use the 28265
land predominantly in agriculture.28266

       (D)(E)(1) When the director considers it to be necessary or 28267
appropriate, the director may sell real property acquired in fee, 28268
and stationary personal property or equipment acquired by gift, 28269
devise, bequest, or purchase, under division (B) of this section 28270
on such terms as the director considers to be advantageous to this 28271
state.28272

       (2) An agricultural easement acquired under division (B) of 28273
this section may be extinguished under the circumstances 28274
prescribed, and in accordance with the terms and conditions set 28275
forth, in the instrument conveying the agricultural easement.28276

       (E)(F) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 28277
agricultural easement purchase fund. The fund shall consist of the 28278
proceeds received from the sale of real and personal property 28279
under division (D)(E) of this section; moneys received due to the 28280
extinguishment of agricultural easements acquired by the director 28281
under division (B) of this section or section 5301.691 of the 28282
Revised Code; moneys received due to the extinguishment of 28283
agricultural easements purchased with the assistance of matching 28284
grants made under section 901.22 of the Revised Code; gifts, 28285
bequests, devises, and contributions received by the director for 28286
the purpose of acquiring agricultural easements; and grants 28287
received from public or private sources for the purpose of 28288
purchasing agricultural easements. The fund shall be administered 28289
by the director, and moneys in the fund shall be used by the 28290
director exclusively to purchase agricultural easements under 28291
division (A) of section 5301.691 of the Revised Code and provide 28292
matching grants under section 901.22 of the Revised Code to 28293
municipal corporations, counties, townships, soil and water 28294
conservation districts established under Chapter 1515. of the 28295
Revised Code, and charitable organizations described in division 28296
(B) of section 5301.69 of the Revised Code for the purchase of 28297
agricultural easements. Money in the fund shall be used only to 28298
purchase agricultural easements on land that is valued for 28299
purposes of real property taxation at its current value for 28300
agricultural use under section 5713.31 of the Revised Code or that 28301
constitutes a homestead when the easement is purchased.28302

       (F)(G) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 28303
clean Ohio agricultural easement fund. Twelve and one-half per 28304
cent of net proceeds of obligations issued and sold pursuant to 28305
sections 151.01 and 151.09 of the Revised Code shall be deposited 28306
into the fund. The fund shall be used by the director for the 28307
purposes of this section, section 901.22 of the Revised Code, and 28308
the provisions of sections 5301.67 to 5301.70 of the Revised Code 28309
governing agricultural easements. Investment earnings of the fund 28310
shall be credited to the fund and may be used to pay costs 28311
incurred by the director in administering those sections and 28312
provisions.28313

       (G)(H) The term of an agricultural easement purchased wholly 28314
or in part with money from the clean Ohio agricultural easement 28315
fund or the agricultural easement purchase fund shall be perpetual 28316
and shall run with the land.28317

       Sec. 901.22.  (A) The director of agriculture, in accordance 28318
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt rules that do 28319
all of the following:28320

       (1) Establish procedures and eligibility criteria for making 28321
matching grants to municipal corporations, counties, townships, 28322
soil and water conservation districts established under Chapter 28323
1515. of the Revised Code, and charitable organizations described 28324
in division (B) of section 5301.69 of the Revised Code for the 28325
purchase of agricultural easements. With respect to agricultural 28326
easements that are purchased or proposed to be purchased with such 28327
matching grants that consist in whole or in part of moneys from 28328
the clean Ohio agricultural easement fund created in section 28329
901.21 of the Revised Code, the rules shall establish all of the 28330
following:28331

       (a) Procedures for all of the following:28332

       (i) Soliciting and accepting applications for matching 28333
grants;28334

       (ii) Participation by local governments and by the public in 28335
the process of making matching grants to charitable organizations;28336

       (iii) Notifying local governments, charitable organizations, 28337
and organizations that represent the interests of farmers of the 28338
ranking system established in rules adopted under division 28339
(A)(1)(b) of this section.28340

       (b) A ranking system for applications for the matching grants 28341
that is based on the soil type, proximity of the land or other 28342
land that is conducive to agriculture as defined by rules adopted 28343
under this section and that is the subject of an application to 28344
other agricultural land or other land that is conducive to 28345
agriculture as defined by rules adopted under this section and 28346
that is already or is in the process of becoming permanently 28347
protected from development, farm stewardship, development 28348
pressure, and, if applicable, a local comprehensive land use plan 28349
involved with a proposed agricultural easement. The rules shall 28350
require that preference be given to proposed agricultural 28351
easements that involve the greatest proportion of all of the 28352
following:28353

       (i) Prime soils, unique or locally important soils, 28354
microclimates, or similar features;28355

       (ii) Land that is adjacent to or that is in close proximity 28356
to other agricultural land or other land that is conducive to 28357
agriculture as defined by rules adopted under this section and 28358
that is already or is in the process of becoming permanently 28359
protected from development, by agricultural easement or otherwise, 28360
so that a buffer would exist between the land involving the 28361
proposed agricultural easement and areas that have been developed 28362
or likely will be developed for purposes other than agriculture;28363

       (iii) The use of best management practices, including 28364
federally or state approved conservation plans, and a history of 28365
substantial compliance with applicable federal and state laws;28366

       (iv) Development pressure that is imminent, but not a result 28367
of current location in the direct path of urban development;28368

       (v) Areas identified for agricultural protection in local 28369
comprehensive land use plans.28370

       (c) Any other criteria that the director determines are 28371
necessary for selecting applications for matching grants;28372

       (d) Requirements regarding the information that must be 28373
included in the annual monitoring report that must be prepared for 28374
an agricultural easement under division (E)(2) of section 5301.691 28375
of the Revised Code, procedures for submitting a copy of the 28376
report to the office of farmland preservation in the department of 28377
agriculture, and requirements and procedures governing corrective 28378
actions that may be necessary to enforce the terms of the 28379
agricultural easement.28380

       (2) Establish provisions that shall be included in the 28381
instrument conveying to a municipal corporation, county, township, 28382
soil and water conservation district, or charitable organization 28383
any agricultural easement purchased with matching grant funds 28384
provided by the director under this section, including, without 28385
limitation, all of the following provisions:28386

       (a) A provision stating that an easement so purchased may be 28387
extinguished only if an unexpected change in the conditions of or 28388
surrounding the land that is subject to the easement makes 28389
impossible or impractical the continued use of the land for the 28390
purposes described in the easement, or if the requirements of the 28391
easement are extinguished by judicial proceedings;28392

       (b) A provision requiring that, upon the sale, exchange, or 28393
involuntary conversion of the land subject to the easement, the 28394
holder of the easement shall be paid an amount of money that is at 28395
least equal to the proportionate value of the easement compared to 28396
the total value of the land at the time the easement was acquired;28397

       (c) A provision requiring that, upon receipt of the portion 28398
of the proceeds of a sale, exchange, or involuntary conversion 28399
described in division (A)(2)(b) of this section, the municipal 28400
corporation, county, township, soil and water conservation 28401
district, or charitable organization remit to the director an 28402
amount of money equal to the percentage of the cost of purchasing 28403
the easement it received as a matching grant under this section.28404

       Moneys received by the director pursuant to rules adopted 28405
under division (A)(2)(c) of this section shall be credited to the 28406
agricultural easement purchase fund created in section 901.21 of 28407
the Revised Code.28408

       (3) Establish a provision that provides a charitable 28409
organization, municipal corporation, township, county, or soil and 28410
water conservation district with the option of purchasing 28411
agricultural easements either in installments or with a lump sum 28412
payment. The rules shall include a requirement that a charitable 28413
organization, municipal corporation, township, county, or soil and 28414
water conservation district negotiate with the seller of the 28415
agricultural easement concerning any installment payment terms, 28416
including the dates and amounts of payments and the interest rate 28417
on the outstanding balance. The rules also shall require the 28418
director to approve any method of payment that is undertaken in 28419
accordance with the rules adopted under division (A)(3) of this 28420
section.28421

       (4) Establish any other requirements that the director 28422
considers to be necessary or appropriate to implement or 28423
administer a program to make matching grants under this section 28424
and monitor those grants.28425

       (B) The director may develop guidelines regarding the 28426
acquisition of agricultural easements by the department of 28427
agriculture and the provisions of instruments conveying those 28428
easements. The director may make the guidelines available to 28429
public and private entities authorized to acquire and hold 28430
agricultural easements.28431

       (C) The director may provide technical assistance in 28432
developing a program for the acquisition and monitoring of 28433
agricultural easements to public and private entities authorized 28434
to hold agricultural easements. The technical assistance may 28435
include, without limitation, reviewing and providing advisory 28436
recommendations regarding draft instruments conveying agricultural 28437
easements.28438

       (D)(1) The director may make matching grants from the 28439
agricultural easement purchase fund and the clean Ohio 28440
agricultural easement fund to municipal corporations, counties, 28441
townships, soil and water conservation districts, and charitable 28442
organizations to assist those political subdivisions and 28443
charitable organizations in purchasing agricultural easements. 28444
Application for a matching grant shall be made on forms prescribed 28445
and provided by the director. The matching grants shall be made in 28446
compliance with the criteria and procedures established in rules 28447
adopted under this section. Instruments conveying agricultural 28448
easements purchased with matching grant funds provided under this 28449
section, at a minimum, shall include the mandatory provisions set 28450
forth in those rules.28451

       Matching grants made under this division using moneys from 28452
the clean Ohio agricultural easement fund created in section 28453
901.21 of the Revised Code may provide up to seventy-five per cent 28454
of the value of an agricultural easement as determined by a 28455
general real estate appraiser who is certified under Chapter 4763. 28456
of the Revised Code or as determined through a points-based 28457
appraisal system established under division (D)(2) of this 28458
section. Not less than twenty-five per cent of the value of the 28459
agricultural easement shall be provided by the recipient of the 28460
matching grant or donated by the person who is transferring the 28461
easement to the grant recipient. The amount of such a matching 28462
grant used for the purchase of a single agricultural easement 28463
shall not exceed one million dollars.28464

       (2) The director shall establish a points-based appraisal 28465
system for the purposes of division (D)(1) of this section. The 28466
director may include any or all of the following factors in the 28467
system:28468

       (a) Whether the applicable county auditor has determined that 28469
the land is land that is devoted exclusively to agriculture for 28470
the purposes of sections 5713.30 to 5713.38 of the Revised Code;28471

       (b) Changes in land values following the completion of the 28472
applicable county auditor's reappraisal or triennial update;28473

       (c) Soil types and productivity;28474

       (d) Proximity of the land to land that is already subject to 28475
an agricultural easement, conservation easement created under 28476
sections 5301.67 to 5301.70 of the Revised Code, or similar 28477
land-use limitation;28478

       (e) Proximity of the land to water and sewer lines, road 28479
interchanges, and nonagricultural development;28480

       (f) Parcel size and roadway frontage of the land;28481

       (g) Existence of an agreement entered into under division (D) 28482
of section 1515.08 of the Revised Code or of an operation and 28483
management plan developed under division (A) of section 1511.021 28484
of the Revised Code;28485

       (h) Existence of a comprehensive plan that is adopted under 28486
section 303.02 or 519.02 of the Revised Code or that is adopted by 28487
the planning commission of a municipal corporation under section 28488
713.06 of the Revised Code;28489

       (i) Any other factors that the director determines are 28490
necessary for inclusion in the system.28491

       (E) An agricultural easement acquired as a result of a 28492
matching grant awarded under division (D) of this section may 28493
include a provision to preserve a unique natural or physical 28494
feature on the land so long as the use of the land remains 28495
predominantly agricultural.28496

       (F) For any agricultural easement purchased with a matching 28497
grant that consists in whole or in part of moneys from the clean 28498
Ohio agricultural easement fund, the director shall be named as a 28499
grantee on the instrument conveying the easement, as shall the 28500
municipal corporation, county, township, soil and water 28501
conservation district, or charitable organization that receives 28502
the grant.28503

       (F)(G)(1) The director shall monitor and evaluate the 28504
effectiveness and efficiency of the agricultural easement program 28505
as a farmland preservation tool. On or before July 1, 1999, and 28506
the first day of July of each year thereafter, the director shall 28507
prepare and submit a report to the chairpersons of the standing 28508
committees of the senate and the house of representatives that 28509
consider legislation regarding agriculture. The report shall 28510
consider and address the following criteria to determine the 28511
program's effectiveness:28512

       (a) The number of agricultural easements purchased during the 28513
preceding year;28514

       (b) The location of those easements;28515

       (c) The number of acres of land preserved for agricultural 28516
use;28517

       (d) The amount of money used by a municipal corporation, 28518
township, county, or soil and water conservation district from any 28519
fund to purchase the agricultural easements;28520

       (e) The number of state matching grants given to purchase the 28521
agricultural easements;28522

       (f) The amount of state matching grant moneys used to 28523
purchase the agricultural easements.28524

       (2) The report also shall consider and include, at a minimum, 28525
the following information for each county to determine the 28526
program's efficiency:28527

       (a) The total number of acres in the county;28528

       (b) The total number of acres in current agricultural use;28529

       (c) The total number of acres preserved for agricultural use 28530
in the preceding year;28531

       (d) The average cost, per acre, of land preserved for 28532
agricultural use in the preceding year.28533

       Sec. 901.23. (A) There is hereby created the farmland 28534
preservation advisory board consisting of twelve voting members 28535
appointed by the director of agriculture as follows:28536

       (1) One member who is a county commissioner or a 28537
representative of a statewide organization that represents county 28538
commissioners;28539

       (2) One member who is a township trustee or a representative 28540
of a statewide organization that represents township trustees;28541

       (3) One representative of the Ohio state university;28542

       (4) One representative of a national nonprofit organization 28543
dedicated to the preservation of farmland;28544

       (5) One representative each of development, environmental, 28545
planning, and soil and water conservation interests;28546

       (6) One farmer from each of the state's four quadrants.28547

        Terms of office shall be staggered and shall be for three 28548
years, with each term ending on the same day of the same month as 28549
did the term that it succeeds. Each member shall hold office from 28550
the date of appointment until the end of the term for which the 28551
member was appointed, except that the term of any member who is a 28552
county commissioner or township trustee shall end when the member 28553
ceases to serve as a county commissioner or township trustee.28554

       Members may be reappointed. Vacancies shall be filled in the 28555
manner provided for original appointments. Any member appointed to 28556
fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration date of the term 28557
for which the member was appointed shall serve for the remainder 28558
of that term. A member shall continue to serve subsequent to the 28559
expiration date of the member's term until the member's successor 28560
takes office or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, 28561
whichever occurs first. Members shall serve at the pleasure of the 28562
director.28563

       The executive director of the office of farmland preservation 28564
in the department of agriculture or another employee of the 28565
department who is designated by the director shall serve as the 28566
nonvoting chairperson of the board. The director annually shall 28567
designate one member of the board to serve as its 28568
vice-chairperson. The board may adopt bylaws governing its 28569
operation and shall meet at a time when the director, or the 28570
director's designee, considers it appropriate in order for the 28571
board to provide advice as required under division (B) of this 28572
section.28573

       (B) The board shall provide advice to the director regarding 28574
all of the following:28575

       (1) The design and implementation of an agricultural easement 28576
purchase program;28577

       (2) The selection of applications that will be awarded 28578
matching grants under division (D) of section 901.22 of the 28579
Revised Code for the purchase of agricultural easements;28580

       (3) The design and implementation of any other statewide 28581
farmland protection measures that the director considers 28582
appropriate.28583

       (C) Serving as a member of the board does not constitute 28584
holding a public office or position of employment under the laws 28585
of this state and does not constitute grounds for removal of 28586
public officers or employees from their offices or positions of 28587
employment.28588

       (D) A board member shall be reimbursed for actual and 28589
necessary expenses incurred in the discharge of duties as a board 28590
member.28591

       Sec. 903.11.  (A) The director of agriculture may enter into 28592
contracts or agreements to carry out the purposes of this chapter 28593
with any public or private person, including the Ohio state 28594
universityOSU extension service, the natural resources 28595
conservation service in the United States department of 28596
agriculture, the environmental protection agency, the division of 28597
soil and water resources in the department of natural resources, 28598
and soil and water conservation districts established under 28599
Chapter 1515. of the Revised Code. However, the director shall not 28600
enter into a contract or agreement with a private person for the 28601
review of applications for permits to install, permits to operate, 28602
NPDES permits, or review compliance certificates that are issued 28603
under this chapter or for the inspection of a facility regulated 28604
under this chapter or with any person for the issuance of any of 28605
those permits or certificates or for the enforcement of this 28606
chapter and rules adopted under it.28607

       (B) The director may administer grants and loans using moneys 28608
from the federal government and other sources, public or private, 28609
for carrying out any of the director's functions. Nothing in this 28610
chapter shall be construed to limit the eligibility of owners or 28611
operators of animal feeding facilities or other agricultural 28612
enterprises to receive moneys from the water pollution control 28613
loan fund established under section 6111.036 of the Revised Code 28614
and the nonpoint source pollution management fund established 28615
under section 6111.037 of the Revised Code.28616

       The director of agriculture shall provide the director of 28617
environmental protection with written recommendations for 28618
providing financial assistance from those funds to agricultural 28619
enterprises. The director of environmental protection shall 28620
consider the recommendations in developing priorities for 28621
providing financial assistance from the funds.28622

       Sec. 903.30. (A) No person shall violate division (B)(1), 28623
(C)(1), (K), or (M)(1) or (2) of section 903.08 of the Revised 28624
Code or the NPDES provisions of a permit to operate.28625

        (B) No person shall violate or fail to perform any duty 28626
required by sections 903.01 to 903.07 and 903.12 of the Revised 28627
Code, violate a rule, or violate an order or term or condition of 28628
a permit issued by the director of agriculture under those 28629
sections or rules.28630

        (C) The attorney general, upon the written request of the 28631
director, shall prosecute any person who violates division (A) or 28632
(B) of this section. 28633

       Sec. 903.99.  (A) Whoever negligently violates division 28634
(A)(2) of section 903.02 or division (A)(2) of section 903.0328635
903.30 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third 28636
degree on a first offense, a misdemeanor of the second degree on a 28637
second offense, and a misdemeanor of the first degree on a third 28638
or subsequent offense. Each ten-day period that the offense 28639
continuesshall be fined not more than ten thousand dollars or 28640
imprisoned for not more than ninety days, or both. Each day of 28641
violation constitutes a separate offense. For purposes of this 28642
division, notwithstanding division (D) of section 2901.22 of the 28643
Revised Code, a person acts negligently when, because of a lapse 28644
from due care, the person fails to perceive or avoid a risk that 28645
the person's conduct may cause a certain result or may be of a 28646
certain nature. A person is negligent with respect to 28647
circumstances when, because of a lapse from due care, the person 28648
fails to perceive or avoid a risk that such circumstances may 28649
exist.28650

       (B) Whoever recklessly violates the terms and conditions of a 28651
permit to install issued under section 903.02 of the Revised Code 28652
or of a permit to operate issued under section 903.03 of the 28653
Revised Code, division (A) or (B)(1), (C)(1), or (M)(1) or (2) of 28654
section 903.08 of the Revised Code, or the NPDES provisions of a 28655
permit to operate shall be fined not more than twenty-five 28656
thousand dollars.of section 903.30 of the Revised Code shall be 28657
fined not more than ten thousand dollars or imprisoned for not 28658
more than one year, or both. Each day of violation constitutes a 28659
separate offense.28660

       (C) Whoever knowingly violates division (K)(A) or (B) of 28661
section 903.08903.30 of the Revised Code is guilty of a felony 28662
and shall be fined not more than twenty-five thousand dollars or 28663
imprisoned for not more than three years, or both. Each day of 28664
violation constitutes a separate offense.28665

       Sec. 905.06.  The director of agriculture shall:28666

       (A) Gather information on the performance of various 28667
agricultural additives, including distributors' and manufacturers' 28668
claims, the results of investigation or research on additives, and 28669
the conditions when they are useful, and make the information 28670
available to the public;28671

       (B) Provide and distribute, in cooperation with the 28672
agriculturalOSU extension service, information on the use of 28673
agricultural additives;28674

       (C) Provide for the prompt and thorough investigation of 28675
written complaints received concerning agricultural additives.28676

       Sec. 909.15.  All moneys from registration fees and from 28677
fines imposed and recovered under sections 909.01 to 909.18 of the 28678
Revised Code, shall be paid to the director of agriculture, who 28679
shall deposit such moneys in the state treasury to the credit of 28680
the general revenueplant pest program fund created in section 28681
927.54 of the Revised Code.28682

       Sec. 924.02.  The director of agriculture, subject to 28683
sections 924.01 to 924.16 and Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 28684
shall do all of the following:28685

       (A) Establish procedures by which producers of Ohio 28686
agricultural commodities may propose, develop, and operate 28687
marketing programs to:28688

       (1) Promote the sale and use of their products;28689

       (2) Develop new uses and markets for such products;28690

       (3) Improve the methods of distributing such products to 28691
consumers;28692

       (4) Standardize the quality of such products for specific 28693
uses.28694

       (B) Adopt and enforce rules to put into effect the intent of 28695
sections 924.01 to 924.16 of the Revised Code;28696

       (C) DetermineExcept as provided in section 924.06 of the 28697
Revised Code, determine the eligibility of producers to 28698
participate in referendums and other procedures that may be 28699
required to establish marketing programs for agricultural 28700
commodities.28701

       Sec. 924.06.  (A) Within ninety days after he has approved a 28702
proposed amendment to an agricultural commodity marketing program 28703
established before April 10, 1985, the director of agriculture 28704
shall determine by a referendum whether the eligible producers 28705
favor the proposed amendment to the program. Any proposed 28706
amendment to a marketing program established before April 10, 28707
1985, is favored by the producers of the agricultural commodity 28708
which would be affected by the proposed amendment if either of the 28709
following occurs:28710

       (1) Sixty-six and two-thirds per cent or more, by number, of 28711
the producers who vote in the referendum, vote in favor of the 28712
amendment, and represent a majority of the volume of the affected 28713
commodity that was produced in the preceding marketing year by all 28714
producers who voted in the referendum;28715

       (2) A majority of the producers who vote in the referendum, 28716
vote in favor of the amendment and represent sixty-six and 28717
two-thirds per cent, or more, of the volume of the affected 28718
commodity that was produced in the preceding marketing year by all 28719
the producers who voted in the referendum.28720

       (B) Within ninety days after he has approvedapproving an 28721
agricultural commodity marketing program proposed on or after28722
April 10, 1985the effective date of this amendment, or a proposed 28723
amendment to such aan agricultural commodity marketing program, 28724
the director of agriculture shall determine by a referendum 28725
whether the eligible producers favor the proposed marketing 28726
program or amendment. Any such marketing program or amendment to 28727
such a marketing program is favored by the producers of the 28728
agricultural commodity that would be affected by the proposed 28729
program or amendment if a majority of the producers who vote in 28730
the referendum vote in favor of the program or amendment.28731

       (C)(B) If the producers who vote in any referendum held 28732
pursuant to this section do not favor a proposed marketing 28733
program, or proposed amendment to a program, the director shall 28734
hold no additional referendum on that proposed program or proposed 28735
amendment during the ten months following the close of the 28736
referendum at which the producers did not favor that proposed 28737
program or amendment.28738

       (D)(C) In any referendum held pursuant to this section, each 28739
eligible producer of the Ohio agricultural commodity whichthat28740
would be affected by the proposed marketing program, or amendment 28741
to a program, is entitled to one vote.28742

       (E)(D) In any referendum held on an agricultural commodity 28743
marketing program, or a proposed amendment to such a program, 28744
votes may be cast in person or by mailing a ballot to a polling 28745
place designated by the director. The director shall establish a 28746
three-day period during which eligible producers may vote in 28747
person during normal business hours at polling places designated 28748
by the director. The director or other appropriate person shall 28749
send a mail-in ballot by ordinary first-class mail to any eligible 28750
producer who requests one by calling the toll-free telephone 28751
number or sending in the ballot request form provided for in 28752
division (F)(E) of this section, by calling one of the polling 28753
places designated by the director, or by any additional method 28754
that the director or operating committee may provide. No ballot 28755
returned by mail shall be valid if it is postmarked later than the 28756
third day of the election period established by the director.28757

       (F)(E) For any referendum held on an agricultural commodity 28758
marketing program, or a proposed amendment to such a program, the 28759
director or operating committee shall cause a ballot request form 28760
to be published at least thirty days before the beginning of the 28761
election period established under division (E)(D) of this section 28762
in at least two appropriate periodicals designated by the 28763
director, and shall make the form available for reproduction to 28764
any interested group or association. The director shall provide a 28765
toll-free telephone number that producers may call to request a 28766
ballot.28767

       (F) For the purposes of a referendum held on an egg marketing 28768
program or a proposed amendment to such a program under this 28769
section, an eligible producer is a person who is in the business 28770
of producing and marketing, or causing to be produced and 28771
marketed, eggs from a flock of more than seventy-five thousand 28772
domesticated chickens and, if the referendum is held on a proposed 28773
amendment to an egg marketing program, is subject to an assessment 28774
under the program.28775

       Sec. 927.54. The plant pest program fund is hereby created in 28776
the state treasury. The fund shall consist of money credited to it 28777
under section 909.15 of the Revised Code and under this chapter 28778
and any rules adopted under it. The director of agriculture shall 28779
use money in the fund to administer this chapter and Chapter 909. 28780
of the Revised Code.28781

        The director shall keep accurate records of all receipts into 28782
and disbursements from the fund and shall prepare, and provide 28783
upon request, an annual report classifying the receipts and 28784
disbursements that pertain to plant pests.28785

       Sec. 935.01.  As used in this chapter:28786

       (A) "Board of health" means the board of health of a city or 28787
general health district or the authority having the duties of a 28788
board of health in any city authorized by section 3709.05 of the 28789
Revised Code.28790

       (B) "Circus" means a traveling show to which all of the 28791
following apply:28792

       (1) It is licensed by the United States department of 28793
agriculture under the federal animal welfare act.28794

       (2) It presents dangerous wild animals, restricted snakes, or 28795
both in a public performance as its own event or as part of a fair 28796
or carnival.28797

       (3) It does not allow physical contact between the public and 28798
the dangerous wild animals or restricted snakes possessed by it. 28799
Division (B)(3) of this section does not apply to rides or other 28800
interactions between the public and an elephant, provided that 28801
such a ride or other interaction is under the direct supervision 28802
of an experienced animal handler.28803

       (4) It is in the state for less than sixty-five days each 28804
year.28805

       (C) "Dangerous wild animal" means any of the following, 28806
including hybrids unless otherwise specified:28807

       (1) Hyenas; 28808

       (2) Gray wolves, excluding hybrids; 28809

       (3) Lions;28810

       (4) Tigers;28811

       (5) Jaguars;28812

       (6) Leopards, including clouded leopards, Sunda clouded 28813
leopards, and snow leopards;28814

       (7) All of the following, including hybrids with domestic 28815
cats unless otherwise specified:28816

       (a) Cheetahs;28817

       (b) Lynxes, including Canadian lynxes, Eurasian lynxes, and 28818
Iberian lynxes;28819

       (c) Cougars, also known as pumas or mountain lions; 28820

       (d) Caracals;28821

       (e) Servals, excluding hybrids with domestic cats commonly 28822
known as savannah cats. 28823

       (8) Bears;28824

       (9) Elephants;28825

       (10) Rhinoceroses;28826

       (11) Hippopotamuses;28827

       (12) Cape buffaloes;28828

       (13) African wild dogs;28829

       (14) Komodo dragons;28830

       (15) Alligators;28831

       (16) Crocodiles;28832

       (17) Caimans, excluding dwarf caimans;28833

       (18) Gharials;28834

       (19) Nonhuman primates other than lemurs and the nonhuman 28835
primates specified in division (C)(20) of this section;28836

       (20) All of the following nonhuman primates:28837

       (a) Golden lion, black-faced lion, golden-rumped lion, 28838
cotton-top, emperor, saddlebacked, black-mantled, and Geoffroy's 28839
tamarins;28840

       (b) Southern and northern night monkeys;28841

       (c) Dusky titi and masked titi monkeys;28842

       (d) Muriquis;28843

       (e) Goeldi's monkeys;28844

       (f) White-faced, black-bearded, white-nose bearded, and monk 28845
sakis;28846

       (g) Bald and black uakaris;28847

       (h) Black-handed, white-bellied, brown-headed, and black 28848
spider monkeys;28849

       (i) Common woolly monkeys;28850

       (j)(i) Red, black, and mantled howler monkeys.28851

       "Dangerous wild animal" does not include a domesticated 28852
animal that is considered livestock as defined in section 901.70 28853
of the Revised Code.28854

       (D) "Federal animal welfare act" has the same meaning as in 28855
section 959.131 of the Revised Code.28856

       (E) "Felony drug abuse offense" has the same meaning as in 28857
section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.28858

       (F) "Health district" means a city or general health district 28859
created by or under the authority of Chapter 3709. of the Revised 28860
Code.28861

       (G) "Humane society" means an organization that is organized 28862
under section 1717.05 of the Revised Code.28863

       (H) "Law enforcement officer" means a sheriff, deputy 28864
sheriff, constable, police officer of a township or joint police 28865
district, marshal, deputy marshal, municipal police officer, or 28866
state highway patrol trooper.28867

       (I) "Natural resources law enforcement officers" means peace 28868
officers as specified in division (A)(6) of section 109.71 of the 28869
Revised Code and employees of the division of wildlife specified 28870
in sections 1531.13 and 1531.14 of the Revised Code.28871

        (J) "Offense of violence" has the same meaning as in section 28872
2901.01 of the Revised Code.28873

       (K) "Rescue facility" means a nonprofit organization as 28874
described in section 170 of the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 28875
100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 170, as amended, that operates a place 28876
of refuge where abused, neglected, unwanted, impounded, abandoned, 28877
orphaned, or displaced dangerous wild animals are provided care 28878
for their lifetime or released back to their natural habitat, and, 28879
with respect to an animal possessed by the organization, that does 28880
not do any of the following:28881

       (1) Sell, trade, or barter the animal or the animal's body 28882
parts;28883

       (2) Use the animal in any manner for profit;28884

       (3) Breed the animal;28885

       (4) Allow the public the opportunity to come into contact 28886
with the animal.28887

       (L) "Restricted snake" means any of the following:28888

       (1) All of the following constricting snakes that are twelve 28889
feet or longer: 28890

       (a) Green anacondas; 28891

       (b) Yellow anacondas; 28892

       (c) Reticulated pythons; 28893

       (d) Indian pythons; 28894

       (e) Burmese pythons; 28895

       (f) North African rock pythons; 28896

       (g) South African rock pythons; 28897

       (h) Amethystine pythons. 28898

       (2) Species of the following families: 28899

       (a) Atractaspididae; 28900

       (b) Elapidae; 28901

       (c) Viperidae. 28902

       (3) Boomslang snakes;28903

       (4) Twig snakes.28904

       (M) "Rule" means a rule adopted under section 935.17 of the 28905
Revised Code.28906

       (N) "Veterinarian" means a person who is licensed under 28907
Chapter 4741. of the Revised Code.28908

       (O) "Wildlife sanctuary" means a nonprofit organization as 28909
described in section 170 of the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 28910
100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 170, as amended, that is accredited or 28911
verified by the global federation of animal sanctuaries, that 28912
operates a place of refuge where abused, neglected, unwanted, 28913
impounded, abandoned, orphaned, or displaced dangerous wild 28914
animals or restricted snakes are provided care for their lifetime 28915
or released back to their natural habitat, and, with respect to an 28916
animal or snake possessed by the organization, that does not do 28917
any of the following:28918

       (1) Use or allow the use of the animal or snake for any type 28919
of entertainment or in a traveling exhibit;28920

       (2) Sell, trade, lease, loan, or barter the animal or snake 28921
or the animal's or snake's body parts;28922

       (3) Use or allow the use of the animal or snake in any manner 28923
for profit;28924

       (4) Breed the animal or snake;28925

       (5) Allow the public the opportunity to come into physical 28926
contact with the animal or snake.28927

       Sec. 935.03. (A) Division (A) of section 935.02 of the 28928
Revised Code does not apply to any of the following:28929

       (1) A person to which all of the following apply:28930

       (a) The person possesses a dangerous wild animal.28931

       (b) The person has been issued a license by the United States 28932
department of agriculture under the federal animal welfare act.28933

       (c) The director of agriculture has determined that the 28934
person is in the process of becoming an accredited member of the 28935
association of zoos and aquariums or the zoological association of 28936
America.28937

       (d) The director has informed the person that the person is 28938
exempt from division (A) of section 935.02 of the Revised Code.28939

       (2) An organization to which all of the following apply:28940

       (a) The organization possesses a dangerous wild animal.28941

       (b) The director has determined that the organization is in 28942
the process of being accredited or verified by the global 28943
federation of animal sanctuaries as a wildlife sanctuary.28944

       (c) The director has informed the organization that it is 28945
exempt from division (A) of section 935.02 of the Revised Code.28946

       (3) A person whose possession of a dangerous wild animal is 28947
authorized by an unexpired permit issued under this chapter.28948

       (B) Except for the purposes of divisions (A) and (B) of 28949
section 935.04 of the Revised Code, this chapter does not apply to 28950
any of the following:28951

       (1) A facility that is an accredited member of the 28952
association of zoos and aquariums or the zoological association of 28953
America and that is licensed by the United States department of 28954
agriculture under the federal animal welfare act;28955

       (2) A research facility as defined in the federal animal 28956
welfare act;28957

       (3) A research facility that is accredited by the association 28958
for the assessment and accreditation of laboratory animal care 28959
international;28960

       (4) A circus;28961

       (5) A wildlife rehabilitation facility that is issued a 28962
permit by the chief of the division of wildlife in rules adopted 28963
under section 1531.08 of the Revised Code and that rehabilitates 28964
dangerous wild animals or restricted snakes that are native to the 28965
state for the purpose of reintroduction into the wild;28966

       (6) A veterinarian that is providing temporary veterinary 28967
care to a dangerous wild animal or restricted snake;28968

       (7) A wildlife sanctuary;28969

       (8) An individual who does not reside in this state, is 28970
traveling through this state with a dangerous wild animal or 28971
restricted snake, and does all of the following:28972

       (a) Confines the animal or snake in a cage at all times;28973

       (b) Confines the animal or snake in a cage that is not 28974
accessible to the public;28975

       (c) Does not exhibit the animal or snake;28976

       (d) Is in the state not more than forty-eight hours unless 28977
the animal or snake is receiving veterinary care.28978

       (9) An educational institution that displays a single 28979
dangerous wild animal as a sports mascot and that meets all of the 28980
following criteria:28981

       (a) An official of the educational institution has submitted 28982
an affidavit attesting that the institution will care for the 28983
animal as long as the animal lives and in a facility that is an 28984
accredited member of the association of zoos and aquariums or the 28985
zoological association of America.28986

       (b) The educational institution maintains a liability 28987
insurance policy with an insurer authorized or approved to write 28988
such insurance in this state that covers claims for injury or 28989
damage to persons or property caused by a dangerous wild animal. 28990
The amount of the insurance coverage shall be not less than one 28991
million dollars.28992

       (c) During display and transport, the educational institution 28993
confines the dangerous wild animal in a cage that does not permit 28994
physical contact between the animal and the public.28995

       (d) The educational institution began displaying a dangerous 28996
wild animal as a mascot prior to the effective date of this 28997
sectionSeptember 5, 2012.28998

       (10) Any person who has been issued a permit under section 28999
1533.08 of the Revised Code;29000

       (11) Any person authorized to possess a dangerous wild animal 29001
or restricted snake under section 1531.25 of the Revised Code or 29002
rules adopted under it;29003

       (12) A mobility impaired person as defined in section 955.011 29004
of the Revised Code who possesses a dangerous wild animal 29005
specified in division (C)(20)(h) of section 935.01 of the Revised 29006
Code that has been trained by a nonprofit agency or is in such 29007
training to assist the mobility impaired person;29008

       (13) A deaf or hearing-impaired person who possesses a 29009
dangerous wild animal specified in division (C)(20)(h) of section 29010
935.01 of the Revised Code that has been trained by a nonprofit 29011
agency or is in such training to assist the deaf or 29012
hearing-impaired person;29013

       (14) A person who is blind as defined in section 955.011 of 29014
the Revised Code and possesses a dangerous wild animal specified 29015
in division (C)(20)(h) of section 935.01 of the Revised Code that 29016
has been trained by a nonprofit agency or is in such training to 29017
assist the blind person.29018

       Sec. 935.041.  A person that possesses any of the following 29019
animals shall register the animal in the same manner as provided 29020
in section 935.04 of the Revised Code:29021

       (A) Pygmy, white-tufted-ear, silvery, and black-pencilled 29022
marmosets;29023

       (B) Squirrel monkeys;29024

       (C) Brown, white-faced, weeping, and white-fronted capuchins;29025

       (D) Lemurs;29026

       (E) Black-handed, white-bellied, brown-headed, and black 29027
spider monkeys.29028

       Sec. 935.12. (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this 29029
section, a person that has been issued a permit under this chapter 29030
for a dangerous wild animal or animals shall comply with the 29031
requirements regarding the care and housing of dangerous wild 29032
animals established in rules.29033

       (B) A person that has been issued a wildlife shelter, 29034
wildlife propagation permit, or rescue facility permit under this 29035
chapter for a dangerous wild animal or animals specified in 29036
division (C)(20) of section 935.01 of the Revised Code shall 29037
comply with both of the following:29038

       (1) The requirements regarding the care of those animals 29039
established in regulations adopted under the federal animal 29040
welfare act;29041

        (2) The requirements regarding the housing of those animals 29042
established in rules.29043

       (C) A person that has been issued a restricted snake 29044
possession or restricted snake propagation permit under this 29045
chapter shall comply with the requirements regarding the care and 29046
housing of those snakes established in standards adopted by the 29047
zoological association of America and in effect on September 5, 29048
2012.29049

       Sec. 955.01.  (A)(1) Except as otherwise provided in this 29050
section or in sections 955.011, 955.012, and 955.16 of the Revised 29051
Code, every person who owns, keeps, or harbors a dog more than 29052
three months of age, shall file, on or after the first day of the 29053
precedingapplicable December, but before the thirty-first day of 29054
the applicable January of each year, in the office of the county 29055
auditor of the county in which the dog is kept or harbored, an 29056
application for registration for the followinga period of one29057
year, beginning the thirty-first day of January of that yearor 29058
three years or an application for a permanent registration. The 29059
board of county commissioners, by resolution, may extend the 29060
period for filing the application. The application shall state the 29061
age, sex, color, character of hair, whether short or long, and 29062
breed, if known, of the dog and the name and address of the owner 29063
of the dog. A registration fee of two dollars for each year of 29064
registration for a one-year or three-year registration or twenty 29065
dollars for a permanent registration for each dog shall accompany 29066
the application, unless. However, the fee may exceed that amount 29067
if a greater fee has been established under division (A)(2) of 29068
this section or under section 955.14 of the Revised Code.29069

       (2) A board of county commissioners may establish a 29070
registration fee higher than the one provided for in division 29071
(A)(1) of this section for dogs more than nine months of age that 29072
have not been spayed or neutered, except that the higher 29073
registration fee permitted by this division shall not apply if a 29074
person registering a dog furnishes with the application either a 29075
certificate from a licensed veterinarian verifying that the dog 29076
should not be spayed or neutered because of its age or medical 29077
condition or because the dog is used or intended for use for show 29078
or breeding purposes or a certificate from the owner of the dog 29079
declaring that the owner holds a valid hunting license issued by 29080
the division of wildlife of the department of natural resources 29081
and that the dog is used or intended for use for hunting purposes. 29082
If the board establishes such a fee, the application for 29083
registration shall state whether the dog is spayed or neutered, 29084
and whether a licensed veterinarian has certified that the dog 29085
should not be spayed or neutered or the owner has stated that the 29086
dog is used or intended to be used for hunting purposes. The board 29087
may require a person who is registering a spayed or neutered dog 29088
to furnish with the application a certificate from a licensed 29089
veterinarian verifying that the dog is spayed or neutered. No 29090
person shall furnish a certificate under this division whichthat29091
the person knows to be false.29092

       (B) If the application for registration is not filed and the 29093
registration fee paid, on or before the thirty-first day of the 29094
applicable January of each year or, if the board of county 29095
commissioners by resolution has extended the date to a date later 29096
than the thirty-first day of January, the date established by the 29097
board, the auditor shall assess a penalty in an amount equal to 29098
the registration fee upon the owner, keeper, or harborer, which 29099
mustshall be paid with the registration fee.29100

       (C) An animal shelter that keeps or harbors a dog more than 29101
three months of age is exempt from paying any fees imposed under 29102
division (A) or (B) of this section if it is a nonprofit 29103
organization that is exempt from federal income taxation under 29104
subsection 501(a) and described in subsection 501(c)(3) of the 29105
"Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2852085, 26 U.S.C. 1.29106

       Sec. 955.05.  After the thirty-first day of January of any 29107
year, except as otherwise provided in section 955.012 or 955.16 of 29108
the Revised Code, every person, immediately upon becoming the 29109
owner, keeper, or harborer of any dog more than three months of 29110
age or brought from outside the state during any year, shall file 29111
like applications, with fees, as required by section 955.01 of the 29112
Revised Code, for registration for the current year. If suchthe29113
application is not filed and the fee paid, within thirty days 29114
after suchthe dog is acquired, becomes three months of age, or is 29115
brought from outside the state, the auditor shall assess a penalty 29116
in an amount equal to the registration fee upon suchthe owner, 29117
keeper, or harborer, which mustshall be paid with the 29118
registration fee. Thereafter, the owner, keeper, or harborer shall 29119
register the dog for a period of one year or three years or 29120
register the dog permanently as provided in section 955.01 of the 29121
Revised Code.29122

       Every person becoming the owner of a kennel of dogs after the 29123
thirty-first day of January of any year shall file like 29124
applications, with fees, as required by section 955.04 of the 29125
Revised Code, for the registration of such kennel for the current 29126
calendar year. If such application is not filed and the fee paid 29127
within thirty days after the person becomes the owner of such 29128
kennel, the auditor shall assess a penalty in an amount equal to 29129
the registration fee upon the owner of such kennel.29130

       Sec. 955.06. The owner, keeper, or harborer of a dog 29131
becoming three months of age after the first day of July in a 29132
calendar year and the owner, keeper, or harborer of a dog 29133
purchased outside the state after the first day of July in a 29134
calendar year shall register the dog for one year. The 29135
registration fee for any such dog becoming three months of age 29136
after the first day of July of any year and the registration fee 29137
of any dog purchased from outside the state after the first day of 29138
July of any year shall be one-half of the original fee. 29139
Thereafter, the owner, keeper, or harborer shall register the dog 29140
for a period of one year or three years or register the dog 29141
permanently as provided in section 955.01 of the Revised Code.29142

       Sec. 955.07.  Upon the filing of the application for 29143
registration required by sections 955.01 and 955.04 of the Revised 29144
Code and upon the payment of the registration fee and the 29145
administrative fee, if applicable, the county auditor shall assign 29146
a distinctive number to every dog or dog kennel described in the 29147
application and shall deliver a certificate of registration 29148
bearing the number to the owner of the dog or dog kennel. A record 29149
of all certificates of registration issued, together with the 29150
applications for registration, shall be kept by the auditor in a 29151
dog and kennel register for two years or until after an audit 29152
performed by the auditor of state, whichever is later. This record 29153
shall be open to the inspection of any person during reasonable 29154
business hours.29155

       Sec. 955.08.  In addition to the certificate of registration 29156
provided for by section 955.07 of the Revised Code, the county 29157
auditor shall issue to every person making application for the 29158
registration of a dog and paying the required fee therefor a metal 29159
tag for each dog so registered. The form, color, character, and 29160
lettering of the tag shall be prescribed by the county auditor. 29161
Each year the tag shall be a color distinctive from that of the 29162
previous year. If a tag is lost, a duplicate shall be furnished by 29163
the auditor upon proper proof of loss and the payment of five 29164
dollars for each duplicate tag issued.29165

       Sec. 955.09.  Certificates of registration and registration 29166
tags shall be valid only during the calendar year inor years for29167
which they are issued, and during the first thirty-one days of the 29168
following calendar year.29169

       Sec. 955.12. TheExcept as provided in section 955.121 of 29170
Revised Code, a board of county commissioners shall appoint or 29171
employ a county dog warden and deputies in such number, for such 29172
periods of time, and at such compensation as the board considers 29173
necessary to enforce sections 955.01 to 955.27, 955.29 to 955.38, 29174
and 955.50 to 955.53 of the Revised Code.29175

       The warden and deputies shall give bond in a sum not less 29176
than five hundred dollars and not more than two thousand dollars, 29177
as set by the board, conditioned for the faithful performance of 29178
their duties. The bond or bonds may, in the discretion of the 29179
board, be individual or blanket bonds. The bonds shall be filed 29180
with the county auditor of their respective counties. 29181

       The warden and deputies shall make a record of all dogs 29182
owned, kept, and harbored in their respective counties. They shall 29183
patrol their respective counties and seize and impound on sight 29184
all dogs found running at large and all dogs more than three 29185
months of age found not wearing a valid registration tag, except 29186
any dog that wears a valid registration tag and is: on the 29187
premises of its owner, keeper, or harborer, under the reasonable 29188
control of its owner or some other person, hunting with its owner 29189
or its handler at a field trial, kept constantly confined in a dog 29190
kennel registered under this chapter or one licensed under Chapter 29191
956. of the Revised Code, or acquired by, and confined on the 29192
premises of, an institution or organization of the type described 29193
in section 955.16 of the Revised Code. A dog that wears a valid 29194
registration tag may be seized on the premises of its owner, 29195
keeper, or harborer and impounded only in the event of a natural 29196
disaster.29197

       If a dog warden has reason to believe that a dog is being 29198
treated inhumanely on the premises of its owner, keeper, or 29199
harborer, the warden shall apply to the court of common pleas for 29200
the county in which the premises are located for an order to enter 29201
the premises, and if necessary, seize the dog. If the court finds 29202
probable cause to believe that the dog is being treated 29203
inhumanely, it shall issue such an order. 29204

       The warden and deputies shall also investigate all claims for 29205
damages to animals reported to them under section 955.29 of the 29206
Revised Code and assist claimants to fill out the claim form 29207
therefor. They shall make weekly reports, in writing, to the board 29208
in their respective counties of all dogs seized, impounded, 29209
redeemed, and destroyed and of all claims for damage to animals 29210
inflicted by dogs. 29211

       The wardens and deputies shall have the same police powers as 29212
are conferred upon sheriffs and police officers in the performance 29213
of their duties as prescribed by sections 955.01 to 955.27, 955.29 29214
to 955.38, and 955.50 to 955.53 of the Revised Code. They shall 29215
also have power to summon the assistance of bystanders in 29216
performing their duties and may serve writs and other legal 29217
processes issued by any court in their respective counties with 29218
reference to enforcing those sections. County auditors may 29219
deputize the wardens or deputies to issue dog licenses as provided 29220
in sections 955.01 and 955.14 of the Revised Code. 29221

       Whenever any person files an affidavit in a court of 29222
competent jurisdiction that there is a dog running at large that 29223
is not kept constantly confined either in a dog kennel registered 29224
under this chapter or one licensed under Chapter 956. of the 29225
Revised Code or on the premises of an institution or organization 29226
of the type described in section 955.16 of the Revised Code or 29227
that a dog is kept or harbored in the warden's jurisdiction 29228
without being registered as required by law, the court shall 29229
immediately order the warden to seize and impound the dog. 29230
Thereupon the warden shall immediately seize and impound the dog 29231
complained of. The warden shall give immediate notice by certified 29232
mail to the owner, keeper, or harborer of the dog seized and 29233
impounded by the warden, if the owner, keeper, or harborer can be 29234
determined from the current year's registration list maintained by 29235
the warden and the county auditor of the county where the dog is 29236
registered, that the dog has been impounded and that, unless the 29237
dog is redeemed within fourteen days of the date of the notice, it 29238
may thereafter be sold or destroyed according to law. If the 29239
owner, keeper, or harborer cannot be determined from the current 29240
year's registration list maintained by the warden and the county 29241
auditor of the county where the dog is registered, the officer 29242
shall post a notice in the pound or animal shelter both describing 29243
the dog and place where seized and advising the unknown owner 29244
that, unless the dog is redeemed within three days, it may 29245
thereafter be sold or destroyed according to law.29246

       As used in this section, "animal" has the same meaning as in 29247
section 955.51 of the Revised Code.29248

       Sec. 955.121.  (A)(1) In lieu of appointing a county dog 29249
warden and deputies under section 955.12 of the Revised Code, a 29250
board of county commissioners may appoint the county sheriff to 29251
enforce sections 955.01 to 955.27, 955.29 to 955.38, and 955.50 to 29252
955.53 of the Revised Code. If a board chooses to appoint the 29253
county sheriff as the county dog warden, the board shall enter 29254
into a two-year written agreement with the sheriff for that 29255
purpose at the first meeting in a calendar year following a 29256
general election in which at least one of the members of the board 29257
was elected.29258

       (2) The agreement may authorize both of the following:29259

       (a) The sheriff to appoint sheriff's deputies or persons 29260
other than peace officers as deputy dog wardens;29261

       (b) The transfer of any benefits accrued by employees who are 29262
transferred as a result of the county sheriff's being appointed as 29263
the county dog warden.29264

       (B) Any dog warden and deputy dog wardens appointed under 29265
this section shall comply with both of the following:29266

       (1) Any training requirements applicable to county dog 29267
wardens and deputy dog wardens appointed or employed under section 29268
955.12 of the Revised Code;29269

       (2) The requirements established in that section.29270

       (C) If a county sheriff or a sheriff's deputies are appointed 29271
as a dog warden or deputy dog wardens under this section, 29272
references in this chapter and in Chapters 953., 956., and 959. of 29273
the Revised Code to "dog warden" and "deputy dog warden" shall be 29274
deemed to be replaced, respectively, with references to "sheriff" 29275
and "deputy sheriff."29276

       Sec. 955.14.  (A) Notwithstanding section 955.01 of the 29277
Revised Code, a board of county commissioners by resolution may 29278
increase dog and kennel registration fees in the county. The 29279
amount of the fees shall not exceed an amount that the board, in 29280
its discretion, estimates is needed to pay all expenses for the 29281
administration of this chapter and to pay claims allowed for 29282
animals injured or destroyed by dogs. Such a resolution shall be 29283
adopted not earlier than the first day of February and not later 29284
than the thirty-first day of August of any year and shall apply to29285
specify the registration period commencing on the first day of 29286
December of the current year and ending on the thirty-first day of 29287
January of the following year, unless the period is extended under 29288
section 955.01 of the Revised Codeor periods to which the 29289
increased fees apply. AnyAn increase in fees adopted under this 29290
division shall be in the ratio of two dollars for each year of 29291
registration, and twenty dollars for a permanent registration, for 29292
a dog registration fee and ten dollars for a kennel registration 29293
fee.29294

       (B) Not later than the fifteenth day of October of each year, 29295
the board of county commissioners shall determine if there is 29296
sufficient money in the dog and kennel fund, after paying the 29297
expenses of administration incurred or estimated to be incurred 29298
for the remainder of the year, to pay the claims allowed for 29299
animals injured or destroyed by dogs. If the board determines 29300
there is not sufficient money in the dog and kennel fund to pay 29301
the claims allowed, the board shall provide by resolution that all 29302
claims remaining unpaid shall be paid from the general fund of the 29303
county. All money paid out of the general fund for those purposes 29304
may be replaced by the board from the dog and kennel fund at any 29305
time during the following year notwithstanding section 5705.14 of 29306
the Revised Code.29307

       (C) Notwithstanding section 955.20 of the Revised Code, if 29308
dog and kennel registration fees in any county are increased above 29309
two dollars for each year of registration and twenty dollars for a 29310
permanent registration for a dog registration fee and ten dollars, 29311
respectively,for a kennel registration fee under authority of 29312
division (A) of this section, then on or before the first day of 29313
March following each year in which the increased fees are in 29314
effect, the county auditor shall draw on the dog and kennel fund a 29315
warrant payable to the college of veterinary medicine of the Ohio 29316
state university in an amount equal to ten cents for each one-year29317
dog andregistration, thirty cents for each three-year dog 29318
registration, one dollar for each permanent dog registration, and 29319
ten cents for each kennel registration fee received during the 29320
preceding year. The money received by the college of veterinary 29321
medicine of the Ohio state university under this division shall be 29322
applied for research and study of the diseases of dogs, 29323
particularly those transmittable to humans, and for research of 29324
other diseases of dogs that by their nature will provide results 29325
applicable to the prevention and treatment of both human and 29326
canine illness.29327

       (D) The Ohio state university college of veterinary medicine 29328
shall be responsible to report annually to the general assembly 29329
the progress of the research and study authorized and funded by 29330
division (C) of this section. The report shall briefly describe 29331
the research projects undertaken and assess the value of each. The 29332
report shall account for funds received pursuant to division (C) 29333
of this section and for the funds expended attributable to each 29334
research project and for other necessary expenses in conjunction 29335
with the research authorized by division (C) of this section. The 29336
report shall be filed with the general assembly by the first day 29337
of May of each year.29338

       (E) The county auditor may authorize agents to receive 29339
applications for registration of dogs and kennels and to issue 29340
certificates of registration and tags. If authorized agents are 29341
employed in a county, each applicant for a dog or kennel 29342
registration shall pay to the agent an administrative fee of 29343
seventy-five cents in addition to the registration fee. The 29344
administrative fee shall be the compensation of the agent. The 29345
county auditor shall establish rules for reporting and accounting 29346
by the agents. No administrative or similar fee shall be charged 29347
in any county except as authorized by this division or division 29348
(F) of this section.29349

       (F) For any county that accepts the payment of dog and kennel 29350
registration fees by financial transaction devices in accordance 29351
with section 955.013 of the Revised Code, in addition to those 29352
registration fees, the county auditor shall collect for each 29353
registration paid by a financial transaction device one of the 29354
following:29355

       (1) An administrative fee of seventy-five cents or another 29356
amount necessary to cover actual costs designated by the county 29357
auditor;29358

       (2) If the board of county commissioners adopts a surcharge 29359
or convenience fee for making payments by a financial transaction 29360
device under division (E) of section 301.28 of the Revised Code, 29361
that surcharge or convenience fee;29362

       (3) If the county auditor contracts with a third party to 29363
provide services to enable registration via the internet as 29364
provided in section 955.013 of the Revised Code, a surcharge or 29365
convenience fee as agreed to between that third party and the 29366
county for those internet registration services. Any additional 29367
expenses incurred by the county auditor that result from a 29368
contract with a third party as provided in this section and 29369
section 955.013 of the Revised Code and that are not covered by a 29370
surcharge or convenience fee shall be paid out of the allowance 29371
provided to the county auditor under section 955.20 of the Revised 29372
Code.29373

       (G) The county auditor shall post conspicuously the amount of 29374
the administrative fee, surcharge, or convenience fee that is 29375
permissible under this section on the web page where the auditor 29376
accepts payments for registrations made under division (B)(1) of 29377
section 955.013 of the Revised Code. If any person chooses to pay 29378
by financial transaction device, the administrative fee, 29379
surcharge, or convenience fee shall be considered voluntary and is 29380
not refundable.29381

       (H) As used in this section, "animal" has the same meaning as 29382
in section 955.51 of the Revised Code.29383

       Sec. 955.201. (A) As used in this section and in section 29384
955.202 of the Revised Code, "Ohio pet fund" means a nonprofit 29385
corporation organized by that name under Chapter 1702. of the 29386
Revised Code that consists of humane societies, veterinarians, 29387
animal shelters, companion animal breeders, dog wardens, or 29388
similar individuals and entities.29389

        (B) The Ohio pet fund shall do all of the following:29390

       (1) Establish eligibility criteria for organizations that may 29391
receive financial assistance from the Ohio pet fund. Those 29392
organizations may include any of the following:29393

        (a) An animal shelter as defined in section 4729.01 of the 29394
Revised Code;29395

       (b) A local nonprofit veterinary association that operates a 29396
program for the sterilization of dogs and cats;29397

       (c) A charitable organization that is exempt from federal 29398
income taxation under subsection 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue 29399
Code and a purpose of which is to support programs for the 29400
sterilization of dogs and cats and educational programs concerning 29401
the proper veterinary care of those animals.29402

       (2) Establish procedures for applying for financial 29403
assistance from the Ohio pet fund. Application procedures shall 29404
require eligible organizations to submit detailed proposals that 29405
outline the intended uses of the moneys sought.29406

       (3) Establish eligibility criteria for sterilization and 29407
educational programs for which moneys from the Ohio pet fund may 29408
be used and, consistent with division (C) of this section, 29409
establish eligibility criteria for individuals who seek 29410
sterilization for their dogs and cats from eligible organizations;29411

       (4) Establish procedures for the disbursement of moneys the 29412
Ohio pet fund receives from license plate contributions pursuant 29413
to division (C) of section 4503.551 of the Revised Code;29414

       (5) Advertise or otherwise provide notification of the 29415
availability of financial assistance from the Ohio pet fund for 29416
eligible organizations;29417

       (6) Design markings to be inscribed on "pets" license plates 29418
under section 4503.551 of the Revised Code.29419

       (C)(1) The owner of a dog or cat is eligible for dog or cat 29420
sterilization services from an eligible organization when those 29421
services are subsidized in whole or in part by money from the Ohio 29422
pet fund if any of the following applies:29423

       (a) The income of the owner's family does not exceed one 29424
hundred fifty per cent of the federal poverty guideline.29425

       (b) The owner, or any member of the owner's family who 29426
resides with the owner, is a recipient or beneficiary of one of 29427
the following government assistance programs:29428

       (i) Low-income housing assistance under the "United States 29429
Housing Act of 1937," 42 U.S.C.A. 1437f, as amended, known as the 29430
federal section 8 housing program;29431

       (ii) The Ohio works first program established by Chapter 29432
5107. of the Revised Code;29433

       (iii) Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 29434
(1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, known as the medical 29435
assistanceThe medicaid program or medicaid, provided by the 29436
department of job and family services under Chapter 5111. of the 29437
Revised Code;29438

       (iv) A program or law administered by the United States 29439
department of veterans' affairs or veterans' administration for 29440
any service-connected disability;29441

       (v) The supplemental nutrition assistance program established 29442
under the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008 (7 U.S.C. 2011 et seq.), 29443
administered by the department of job and family services under 29444
section 5101.54 of the Revised Code;29445

       (vi) The "special supplemental nutrition program for women, 29446
infants, and children" established under the "Child Nutrition Act 29447
of 1966," 80 Stat. 885, 42 U.S.C. 1786, as amended, administered 29448
by the department of health under section 3701.132 of the Revised 29449
Code;29450

       (vii) Supplemental security income under Title XVI of the 29451
"Social Security Act," 86 Stat. 1475 (1972), 42 U.S.C.A. 1383, as 29452
amended;29453

       (viii) Social security disability insurance benefits provided 29454
under Title II of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 29455
42 U.S.C.A. 401, as amended.29456

       (c) The owner of the dog or cat submits to the eligible 29457
organization operating the sterilization program either of the 29458
following:29459

       (i) A certificate of adoption showing that the dog or cat was 29460
adopted from a licensed animal shelter, a municipal, county, or 29461
regional pound, or a holding and impoundment facility that 29462
contracts with a municipal corporation;29463

       (ii) A certificate of adoption showing that the dog or cat 29464
was adopted through a nonprofit corporation operating an animal 29465
adoption referral service whose holding facility, if any, is 29466
licensed in accordance with state law or a municipal ordinance.29467

       (2) The Ohio pet fund shall determine the type of documentary 29468
evidence that must be presented by the owner of a dog or cat to 29469
show that the income of the owner's family does not exceed one 29470
hundred fifty per cent of the federal poverty guideline or that 29471
the owner is eligible under division (C)(1)(b) of this section.29472

       (D) As used in division (C) of this section, "federal poverty 29473
guideline" means the official poverty guideline as revised 29474
annually by the United States department of health and human 29475
services in accordance with section 673(2) of the "Omnibus Budget 29476
Reconciliation Act of 1981," 95 Stat. 511, 42 U.S.C.A. 9902, as 29477
amended, for a family size equal to the size of the family of the 29478
person whose income is being determined.29479

       Sec. 956.07. (A) A person who is applying for a license to 29480
operate a high volume breeder or to act as or perform the 29481
functions of a dog retailer under section 956.04 or 956.05 of the 29482
Revised Code, as applicable, shall include with the application 29483
for a license a nonrefundable license application fee. For the 29484
purpose of calculating the application fee for a high volume 29485
breeder, the sale of one dog from a litter constitutes the sale of 29486
a litter. The application fees are as follows:29487

       (1) For a high volume breeder:29488

       (a) One hundred fifty dollars if the high volume breeder 29489
annually sells at least nine, but not more than fifteen litters;29490

       (b) Two hundred fifty dollars if the high volume breeder 29491
annually sells at least sixteen, but not more than twenty-five 29492
litters;29493

       (c) Three hundred fifty dollars if the high volume breeder 29494
annually sells at least twenty-six, but not more than thirty-five 29495
litters;29496

       (d) Five hundred dollars if the high volume breeder annually 29497
sells at least thirty-six, but not more than forty-five litters;29498

       (e) Seven hundred fifty dollars if the high volume breeder 29499
annually sells forty-six or more litters.29500

       (2) For a dog retailer, five hundred dollars.29501

       (B) Money collected by the director of agriculture from each 29502
application fee submitted under this section shall be transmitted 29503
by the director to the treasurer ofdeposited in the state 29504
treasury to be credited tothe credit of the high volume breeder 29505
kennel control license fund created in section 956.18 of the 29506
Revised Code. The treasurer of state shall transfer to the county 29507
auditor of the county in which a high volume breeder is located or 29508
will be locateddirector shall use fifty dollars of the 29509
application fee submitted by thea high volume breeder under this 29510
section or an amount equal to the fee charged in that county for 29511
the registration of a kennel under section 955.14 of the Revised 29512
Code in the county in which the high volume breeder is located or 29513
will be located, whichever is greater, to reimburse that county. 29514
The county auditor shall deposit the transferred money into that 29515
county's dog and kennel fund created under section 955.20 of the 29516
Revised Code.29517

       Sec. 956.18. (A) All money collected by the director of 29518
agriculture from license fees under section 956.08956.07 and 29519
civil penalties assessed under section 956.13 of the Revised Code 29520
shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the high 29521
volume breeder kennel control license fund, which is hereby 29522
created. The fund shall also consist of money appropriated to it.29523

       (B) No money may be released from the fund without 29524
controlling board approval. The director shall request the 29525
controlling board to release money in an amount not to exceed two 29526
million five hundred thousand dollars per biennium.29527

        (C) The director shall use the money in the fund for the 29528
purpose of administering this chapter and rules adopted under it.29529

       Sec. 959.131. (A) As used in this section:29530

       (1) "Companion animal" means any animal that is kept inside a 29531
residential dwelling and any dog or cat regardless of where it is 29532
kept. "Companion animal" does not include livestock or any wild 29533
animal.29534

       (2) "Cruelty," "torment," and "torture" have the same 29535
meanings as in section 1717.01 of the Revised Code.29536

       (3) "Residential dwelling" means a structure or shelter or 29537
the portion of a structure or shelter that is used by one or more 29538
humans for the purpose of a habitation.29539

       (4) "Practice of veterinary medicine" has the same meaning as 29540
in section 4741.01 of the Revised Code.29541

       (5) "Wild animal" has the same meaning as in section 1531.01 29542
of the Revised Code.29543

       (6) "Federal animal welfare act" means the "Laboratory Animal 29544
Act of 1966," Pub. L. No. 89-544, 80 Stat. 350 (1966), 7 U.S.C.A. 29545
2131 et seq., as amended by the "Animal Welfare Act of 1970," Pub. 29546
L. No. 91-579, 84 Stat. 1560 (1970), the "Animal Welfare Act 29547
Amendments of 1976," Pub. L. No. 94-279, 90 Stat. 417 (1976), and 29548
the "Food Security Act of 1985," Pub. L. No. 99-198, 99 Stat. 1354 29549
(1985), and as it may be subsequently amended.29550

       (7) "Dog kennel" means an animal rescue for dogs that is 29551
registered under section 956.06 of the Revised Code, a boarding 29552
kennel, or a training kennel. 29553

       (8) "Boarding kennel" has the same meaning as in section 29554
956.01 of the Revised Code. 29555

       (9) "Training kennel" means an establishment operating for 29556
profit that keeps, houses, and maintains dogs for the purpose of 29557
training the dogs in return for a fee or other consideration. 29558

       (B) No person shall knowingly torture, torment, needlessly 29559
mutilate or maim, cruelly beat, poison, needlessly kill, or commit 29560
an act of cruelty against a companion animal.29561

       (C) No person who confines or who is the custodian or 29562
caretaker of a companion animal shall negligently do any of the 29563
following:29564

       (1) Torture, torment, needlessly mutilate or maim, cruelly 29565
beat, poison, needlessly kill, or commit an act of cruelty against 29566
the companion animal;29567

       (2) Deprive the companion animal of necessary sustenance, 29568
confine the companion animal without supplying it during the 29569
confinement with sufficient quantities of good, wholesome food and 29570
water, or impound or confine the companion animal without 29571
affording it, during the impoundment or confinement, with access 29572
to shelter from heat, cold, wind, rain, snow, or excessive direct 29573
sunlight, if it can reasonably be expected that the companion 29574
animal would become sick or suffer in any other way as a result of 29575
or due to the deprivation, confinement, or impoundment or 29576
confinement in any of those specified manners.29577

       (D) No owner, manager, or employee of a dog kennel who 29578
confines or is the custodian or caretaker of a companion animal 29579
shall knowingly torture, torment, needlessly mutilate or maim, 29580
cruelly beat, poison, needlessly kill, or commit an act of cruelty 29581
against the companion animal.29582

       (E) No owner, manager, or employee of a dog kennel who 29583
confines or is the custodian or caretaker of a companion animal 29584
shall negligently do any of the following:29585

        (1) Torture, torment, needlessly mutilate or maim, cruelly 29586
beat, poison, needlessly kill, or commit an act of cruelty against 29587
the companion animal;29588

        (2) Deprive the companion animal of necessary sustenance, 29589
confine the companion animal without supplying it during the 29590
confinement with sufficient quantities of good, wholesome food and 29591
water, or impound or confine the companion animal without 29592
affording it, during the impoundment or confinement, with access 29593
to shelter from heat, cold, wind, rain, snow, or excessive direct 29594
sunlight if it can reasonably be expected that the companion 29595
animal would become sick or suffer in any other way as a result of 29596
or due to the deprivation, confinement, or impoundment or 29597
confinement in any of those specified manners.29598

        (F) Divisions (B) and, (C), (D), and (E) of this section do 29599
not apply to any of the following:29600

       (1) A companion animal used in scientific research conducted 29601
by an institution in accordance with the federal animal welfare 29602
act and related regulations;29603

       (2) The lawful practice of veterinary medicine by a person 29604
who has been issued a license, temporary permit, or registration 29605
certificate to do so under Chapter 4741. of the Revised Code;29606

       (3) Dogs being used or intended for use for hunting or field 29607
trial purposes, provided that the dogs are being treated in 29608
accordance with usual and commonly accepted practices for the care 29609
of hunting dogs;29610

       (4) The use of common training devices, if the companion 29611
animal is being treated in accordance with usual and commonly 29612
accepted practices for the training of animals;29613

       (5) The administering of medicine to a companion animal that 29614
was properly prescribed by a person who has been issued a license, 29615
temporary permit, or registration certificate under Chapter 4741. 29616
of the Revised Code.29617

       (E)(G) Notwithstanding any section of the Revised Code that 29618
otherwise provides for the distribution of fine moneys, the clerk 29619
of court shall forward all fines the clerk collects that are so 29620
imposed for any violation of this section to the treasurer of the 29621
political subdivision or the state, whose county humane society or 29622
law enforcement agency is to be paid the fine money as determined 29623
under this division. The treasurer to whom the fines are forwarded 29624
shall pay the fine moneys to the county humane society or the 29625
county, township, municipal corporation, or state law enforcement 29626
agency in this state that primarily was responsible for or 29627
involved in the investigation and prosecution of the violation. If 29628
a county humane society receives any fine moneys under this 29629
division, the county humane society shall use the fine moneys to 29630
provide the training that is required for humane agents under 29631
section 1717.06 of the Revised Code.29632

       Sec. 959.132.  (A) As used in this section:29633

        (1) "Companion animal" has the same meaning as in section 29634
959.131 of the Revised Code.29635

        (2) "Impounding agency" means a county humane society 29636
organized under section 1717.05 of the Revised Code, an animal 29637
shelter, or a law enforcement agency that has impounded a 29638
companion animal in accordance with this section.29639

       (3) "Offense" means a violation of section 959.131 of the 29640
Revised Code or an attempt, in violation of section 2923.02 of the 29641
Revised Code, to violate section 959.131 of the Revised Code.29642

        (4) "Officer" means any law enforcement officer, agent of a 29643
county humane society, or other person appointed to act as an 29644
animal control officer for a municipal corporation or township in 29645
accordance with state law, an ordinance, or a resolution.29646

        (B) An officer may seize and cause to be impounded at an 29647
impounding agency a companion animal that the officer has probable 29648
cause to believe is the subject of an offense. No officer or 29649
impounding agency shall impound a companion animal that is the 29650
subject of an offense in a shelter owned, operated, or controlled 29651
by a board of county commissioners pursuant to Chapter 955. of the 29652
Revised Code unless the board, by resolution, authorizes the 29653
impoundment of such a companion animal in a shelter owned, 29654
operated, or controlled by that board and has executed, in the 29655
case when the officer is other than a dog warden or assistant dog 29656
warden, a contract specifying the terms and conditions of the 29657
impoundment.29658

       (C) The officer shall give written notice of the seizure and 29659
impoundment to the owner, keeper, or harborer of the companion 29660
animal that was seized and impounded. If the officer is unable to 29661
give the notice to the owner, keeper, or harborer of the companion 29662
animal, the officer shall post the notice on the door of the 29663
residence or in another conspicuous place on the premises at which 29664
the companion animal was seized. The notice shall include a 29665
statement that a hearing will be held not later than ten days 29666
after the notice is provided or at the next available court date 29667
to determine whether the officer had probable cause to seize the 29668
companion animal and, if applicable, to determine the amount of a 29669
bond or cash deposit that is needed to provide for the companion 29670
animal's care and keeping for not less than thirty days beginning 29671
on the date on which the companion animal was impounded.29672

       (D) A companion animal that is seized under this section may 29673
be humanely destroyed immediately or at any time during 29674
impoundment if a licensed veterinarian determines it to be 29675
necessary because the companion animal is suffering.29676

       (E)(1) Not later than ten days after notice is provided or at 29677
the next available court date, the court shall hold a hearing to 29678
determine whether the officer impounding a companion animal had 29679
probable cause to seize the companion animal. If the court 29680
determines that probable cause exists, the court shall determine 29681
the amount of a bond or cash deposit that is needed to provide for 29682
the companion animal's care and keeping for not less than thirty 29683
days beginning on the date on which the companion animal was 29684
impounded.29685

       (2) If the court determines that probable cause does not 29686
exist, the court immediately shall order the impounding agency to 29687
return the companion animal to its owner if possible. If the 29688
companion animal cannot be returned because it has died as a 29689
result of neglect or other misconduct by the impounding agency or 29690
if the companion animal is injured as a result of neglect or other 29691
misconduct by the impounding agency, the court shall order the 29692
impounding agency to pay the owner an amount determined by the 29693
court to be equal to the reasonable market value of the companion 29694
animal at the time that it was impounded plus statutory interest 29695
as defined in section 1343.03 of the Revised Code from the date of 29696
the impoundment or an amount determined by the court to be equal 29697
to the reasonable cost of treatment of the injury to the companion 29698
animal, as applicable. The requirement established in division 29699
(E)(2) of this section regarding the payment of the reasonable 29700
market value of the companion animal shall not apply in the case 29701
of a dog that, in violation of section 955.01 of the Revised Code, 29702
was not registered at the time it was seized and impounded.29703

       (3) If the court determines that probable cause exists and 29704
determines the amount of a bond or cash deposit, the case shall 29705
continue and the owner shall post a bond or cash deposit to 29706
provide for the companion animal's care and keeping for not less 29707
than thirty days beginning on the date on which the companion 29708
animal was impounded. The owner may renew a bond or cash deposit 29709
by posting, not later than ten days following the expiration of 29710
the period for which a previous bond or cash deposit was posted, a 29711
new bond or cash deposit in an amount that the court, in 29712
consultation with the impounding agency, determines is sufficient 29713
to provide for the companion animal's care and keeping for not 29714
less than thirty days beginning on the date on which the previous 29715
period expired. If no bond or cash deposit is posted or if a bond 29716
or cash deposit expires and is not renewed, the impounding agency 29717
may determine the disposition of the companion animal unless the 29718
court issues an order that specifies otherwise.29719

       (F) If a person is convicted of committing an offense, the 29720
court may impose the following additional penalties against the 29721
person:29722

       (1) A requirement that the person pay for the costs incurred 29723
by the impounding agency in caring for a companion animal involved 29724
in the applicable offense, provided that the costs were incurred 29725
during the companion animal's impoundment. A bond or cash deposit 29726
posted under this section may be applied to the costs.29727

       (2) An order permanently terminating the person's right to 29728
possession, title, custody, or care of the companion animal that 29729
was involved in the offense. If the court issues such an order, 29730
the court shall order the disposition of the companion animal.29731

       (G) If a person is found not guilty of committing an offense, 29732
the court immediately shall order the impounding agency to return 29733
the companion animal to its owner if possible and to return the 29734
entire amount of any bond or cash deposit posted under division 29735
(E) of this section. If the companion animal cannot be returned 29736
because it has died as a result of neglect or other misconduct by 29737
the impounding agency or if the companion animal is injured as a 29738
result of neglect or other misconduct by the impounding agency, 29739
the court shall order the impounding agency to pay the owner an 29740
amount determined by the court to be equal to the reasonable 29741
market value of the companion animal at the time that it was 29742
impounded plus statutory interest as defined in section 1343.03 of 29743
the Revised Code from the date of the impoundment or an amount 29744
determined by the court to be equal to the reasonable cost of 29745
treatment of the injury to the companion animal, as applicable. 29746
The requirements established in this division regarding the return 29747
of a bond or cash deposit and the payment of the reasonable market 29748
value of the companion animal shall not apply in the case of a dog 29749
that, in violation of section 955.01 of the Revised Code, was not 29750
registered at the time it was seized and impounded.29751

       (H) If charges are filed under section 959.131 of the Revised 29752
Code against the custodian or caretaker of a companion animal, but 29753
the companion animal that is the subject of the charges is not 29754
impounded, the court in which the charges are pending may order 29755
the owner or person having custody of the companion animal to 29756
provide to the companion animal the necessities described in 29757
division (C)(2) or (E)(2) of section 959.131 of the Revised Code 29758
until the final disposition of the charges. If the court issues an 29759
order of that nature, the court also may authorize an officer or 29760
another person to visit the place where the companion animal is 29761
being kept, at the times and under the conditions that the court 29762
may set, to determine whether the companion animal is receiving 29763
those necessities and to remove and impound the companion animal 29764
if the companion animal is not receiving those necessities.29765

       Sec. 959.99.  (A) Whoever violates section 959.18 or 959.19 29766
of the Revised Code is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.29767

       (B) Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever 29768
violates section 959.02 of the Revised Code is guilty of a 29769
misdemeanor of the second degree. If the value of the animal 29770
killed or the injury done amounts to three hundred dollars or 29771
more, whoever violates section 959.02 of the Revised Code is 29772
guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree.29773

       (C) Whoever violates section 959.03, 959.06, 959.12, 959.15, 29774
or 959.17 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the 29775
fourth degree.29776

       (D) Whoever violates division (A) of section 959.13 of the 29777
Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the second degree. In 29778
addition, the court may order the offender to forfeit the animal 29779
or livestock and may provide for its disposition, including, but 29780
not limited to, the sale of the animal or livestock. If an animal 29781
or livestock is forfeited and sold pursuant to this division, the 29782
proceeds from the sale first shall be applied to pay the expenses 29783
incurred with regard to the care of the animal from the time it 29784
was taken from the custody of the former owner. The balance of the 29785
proceeds from the sale, if any, shall be paid to the former owner 29786
of the animal.29787

       (E)(1) Whoever violates division (B) of section 959.131 of 29788
the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree on 29789
a first offense and a felony of the fifth degree on each 29790
subsequent offense.29791

       (2) Whoever violates section 959.01 of the Revised Code or 29792
division (C) of section 959.131 of the Revised Code is guilty of a 29793
misdemeanor of the second degree on a first offense and a 29794
misdemeanor of the first degree on each subsequent offense.29795

       (3) Whoever violates division (D) of section 959.131 of the 29796
Revised Code is guilty of a felony of the fifth degree.29797

       (4) Whoever violates division (E) of section 959.131 of the 29798
Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree.29799

        (5)(a) A court may order a person who is convicted of or 29800
pleads guilty to a violation of section 959.131 of the Revised 29801
Code to forfeit to an impounding agency, as defined in section 29802
959.132 of the Revised Code, any or all of the companion animals 29803
in that person's ownership or care. The court also may prohibit or 29804
place limitations on the person's ability to own or care for any 29805
companion animals for a specified or indefinite period of time.29806

       (b) A court may order a person who is convicted of or pleads 29807
guilty to a violation of section 959.131 of the Revised Code to 29808
reimburse an impounding agency for the reasonably necessary costs 29809
incurred by the agency for the care of a companion animal that the 29810
agency impounded as a result of the investigation or prosecution 29811
of the violation, provided that the costs were not otherwise paid 29812
under section 959.132 of the Revised Code.29813

       (4)(6) If a court has reason to believe that a person who is 29814
convicted of or pleads guilty to a violation of section 959.131 of 29815
the Revised Code suffers from a mental or emotional disorder that 29816
contributed to the violation, the court may impose as a community 29817
control sanction or as a condition of probation a requirement that 29818
the offender undergo psychological evaluation or counseling. The 29819
court shall order the offender to pay the costs of the evaluation 29820
or counseling.29821

       (F) Whoever violates section 959.14 of the Revised Code is 29822
guilty of a misdemeanor of the second degree on a first offense 29823
and a misdemeanor of the first degree on each subsequent offense.29824

       (G) Whoever violates section 959.05 or 959.20 of the Revised 29825
Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree.29826

       (H) Whoever violates section 959.16 of the Revised Code is 29827
guilty of a felony of the fourth degree for a first offense and a 29828
felony of the third degree on each subsequent offense.29829

       Sec. 991.03.  (A) The Ohio expositions commission shall:29830

       (1) Conduct at least one fair or exposition annually;29831

       (2) Maintain and manage property held by the state for the 29832
purpose of conducting fairs, expositions, and exhibits;29833

       (3) As provided in section 109.122 of the Revised Code, 29834
provide notice of or copies of any proposed entertainment or 29835
sponsorship contracts to the attorney general.29836

       (B) The commission may:29837

       (1) Conduct such additional fairs, expositions, or 29838
exhibitions as the commission determines are in the general public 29839
interest;29840

       (2) Accept on behalf of the state conveyances of property for 29841
the purposes of conducting fairs, expositions, and exhibits, 29842
subject to any terms and conditions agreed to by the commission 29843
and approved by the controlling board;29844

       (3) Accept gifts, devises, and bequests of money, lands, and 29845
other property and apply the money, lands, or other property 29846
according to the terms of the gift, devise, or bequest. A 29847
political subdivision as authorized by law may make gifts and 29848
devises to the commission, and the commission shall apply such a 29849
gift or devise according to the terms of the gift or devise. All 29850
gifts and bequests of money accepted under this division shall be 29851
deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the Ohio 29852
expositions support fund.29853

       (4) Enter into contracts that the commission considers 29854
necessary or worthwhile in the conduct of its purposes, provided 29855
that contracts made for a term exceeding two years, other than 29856
those described in division (B)(4) of this section, shall be 29857
subject to the approval of the controlling board and provided that 29858
the attorney general, pursuant to the attorney general's authority 29859
under section 109.122 of the Revised Code, has not disapproved the 29860
proposed contract;29861

       (4)(5) Enter into contracts for the mutual exchange of goods 29862
or services;29863

       (5)(6) Sell or convey all or a portion of the property, land, 29864
or buildings under its management subject to the approval of the 29865
legislature;29866

       (6)(7) Grant leases on all or any part of the property, land, 29867
or buildings under the management of the commission to private or 29868
public organizations, which appear to be in the best interests of 29869
the state, with the approval of the controlling board and director 29870
of administrative services, subject to the following conditions:29871

       (a) The lessees shall make or construct improvements on such 29872
lands or buildings at no cost to the commission or to the state, 29873
subject to prior approval by the director of administrative 29874
services of detailed plans and specifications of such 29875
improvements.29876

       (b) No person, firm, or corporation shall cause a lien to be 29877
filed against any funds or property of the state or of the 29878
commission as a result of a lessee's activities pursuant to 29879
division (B)(6)(7)(a) of this section.29880

       (c) Leases shall be entered into subject to the sale of such 29881
property, lands, or buildings during the term of the lease.29882

       (d) No leases shall be made which interfere with a fair, 29883
exposition, or exhibition on such lands.29884

       (7)(8) Encumber appropriations for the entire amount of a 29885
contract at the time the contract is made, even though the 29886
contract will not be performed in the fiscal year for which the 29887
appropriations were made.29888

       (8)(9) Implement a credit card payment program permitting 29889
payment by means of a credit card of any fees, charges, and 29890
rentals associated with conducting fairs, expositions, and 29891
exhibits. The commission may open an account outside the state 29892
treasury in a financial institution for the purpose of depositing 29893
credit card receipts. By the end of the business day following the 29894
deposit of the receipts, the financial institution shall make 29895
available to the commission funds in the amount of the receipts. 29896
The commission shall then pay these funds into the state treasury 29897
to the credit of the Ohio expositions fund.29898

       The commission shall adopt rules as necessary to carry out 29899
the purposes of division (B)(8)(9) of this section. The rules 29900
shall include standards for determining eligible financial 29901
institutions and the manner in which funds shall be made available 29902
and shall be consistent with the standards contained in sections 29903
135.03, 135.18, and 135.181 of the Revised Code.29904

       The commission shall not adopt or enforce any rules which 29905
will prohibit livestock exhibited at the Ohio state fair from 29906
participating in county and independent fairs in the state.29907

       Sec. 991.04.  There is hereby established in the state 29908
treasury the Ohio expositions fund. AllExcept for gifts and 29909
bequests of money accepted under division (B)(3) of section 991.03 29910
of the Revised Code, all moneys collected by the Ohio expositions 29911
commission pursuant to sections 991.01 to 991.07 of the Revised 29912
Code and any income generated from the investment of those moneys 29913
shall be paid into the fund and may be used to defray the costs of 29914
administration and carrying out the purposes of sections 991.01 to 29915
991.07 of the Revised Code.29916

       With the approval of the director of budget and management, 29917
provisions may be made for a cash fund to be established on the 29918
state fairgrounds during the period of activities related to the 29919
holding of the annual state fair. The purpose of such fund is to 29920
provide for payment of premiums and entertainers and for immediate 29921
payment of small amounts for obligations, including ticket 29922
refunds, of such nature as to require immediate payment.29923

       The expositions commission shall cause to be kept an accurate 29924
record of all transactions, contracts, and proceedings. The 29925
director of budget and management shall prescribe a system of 29926
accounting and reporting. Such system shall include methods and 29927
forms showing the sources from which all revenues of the 29928
expositions commission are received, the amount collected from 29929
each source, and the amount expended for each purpose.29930

       Sec. 991.041. There is in the state treasury the Ohio 29931
expositions support fund. All gifts and bequests of money accepted 29932
under division (B)(3) of section 991.03 of the Revised Code shall 29933
be deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the fund. 29934
Investment earnings of the fund shall be deposited into the fund. 29935
The Ohio expositions commission may use the fund, consistent with 29936
the terms of the gift or bequest, to defray the cost of 29937
administration and of carrying out the purposes of sections 991.01 29938
to 991.07 of the Revised Code.29939

       Sec. 991.06.  Annually on or before the thirtieth day of 29940
September the Ohio expositions commission, through its general 29941
manager, shall prepare and file with the auditor of state a 29942
statement showing the total amount received from each source of 29943
revenue, the total amount disbursed for each class of 29944
expenditures, and the aggregate of all receipts and expenditures 29945
of the commission. This statement shall also include a summary of 29946
each contract for the mutual exchange of goods or services entered 29947
into by the commission under division (B)(4) of section 991.03 of 29948
the Revised Code. Upon receipt of such statement, the auditor of 29949
state shall have it verified and make a report of histhe auditor 29950
of state's findings thereon to the governor.29951

       Assistant auditors of state shall conduct an audit of 29952
activities of the annual Ohio state fair on the Ohio exposition 29953
center during the period when the fair is in progress.29954

       The cost of such audit shall be included in the annual 29955
expenses of the Ohio expositions commission.29956

       Sec. 1309.521.  (A) A filing office that accepts written 29957
records may not refuse to accept a written initial financing 29958
statement in the following form and format set forth in the 29959
official text of the 2010 amendments to article 9 of the uniform 29960
commercial code promulgated by the American law institute and the 29961
national conference of commissioners on uniform state laws, except 29962
for a reason prescribed in division (B) of section 1309.516 of the 29963
Revised Code:.29964

UCC FINANCING STATEMENT
29965

Follow instructions (front and back) carefully.
29966

A. Name and phone of contact at filer (optional) 29967
................................................................. 29968
B. Send acknowledgment to: (name and address) 29969
.................................. 29970
.................................. 29971
.................................. The above space is for filing office use only. 29972
1. DEBTOR'S EXACT FULL LEGAL NAME 29973
(Insert only one debtor name [1a or 1b]. Do not abbreviate or 29974
combine names. If completing 1b, insert the debtor's name exactly as it appears on the debtor's current driver's license or identification card issued by this state, if one exists.) 29975
1a. Organization's name ......................................... 29976
or 29977
1b. Individual's last name ............. First name ............. 29978
Middle name ........................... Suffix .................. 29979
1c. Mailing address ............................................. 29980
City .......... State ....... Postal code ...... Country ........ 29981
29982
Additional information regarding organization debtor 29983
1d. Type of organization ........................................ 29984
1e. Jurisdiction of organization ................................ 29985
2. ADDITIONAL DEBTOR'S EXACT FULL LEGAL NAME 29986
(Insert only one debtor name [2a or 2b]. Do not abbreviate or 29987
combine names. If completing 2b, insert the debtor's name exactly as it appears on the debtor's current driver's license or identification card issued by this state, if one exists.) 29988
2a. Organization's name ......................................... 29989
or 29990
2b. Individual's last name ............. First name ............. 29991
Middle name ........................... Suffix .................. 29992
2c. Mailing address ............................................. 29993
City .......... State ....... Postal code ...... Country ........ 29994
29995
Additional information regarding organization debtor 29996
2d. Type of organization ........................................ 29997
2e. Jurisdiction of organization ................................ 29998
3. SECURED PARTY'S NAME (or name of total assignee of assignor 29999
S/P). Insert only one secured party name (3a or 3b). 30000
3a. Organization's name ......................................... 30001
or 30002
3b. Individual's last name ............. First name ............. 30003
Middle name ........................... Suffix .................. 30004
3c. Mailing address ............................................. 30005
City .......... State ....... Postal code ...... Country ........ 30006
4. This FINANCING STATEMENT covers the following collateral: 30007
................................................................. 30008
................................................................. 30009
................................................................. 30010
................................................................. 30011
5. ALTERNATIVE DESIGNATION (if applicable): 30012
[ ] Lessee/lessor [ ] Consignee/consignor [ ] Bailee/bailor 30013
[ ] Seller/buyer [ ] Ag. lien [ ] Non-UCC filing 30014
6. [ ] This FINANCING STATEMENT is to be filed [for record] (or 30015
recorded) in the REAL ESTATE RECORDS. Attach addendum .......... 30016
[if applicable]. 30017
7. Check to REQUEST SEARCH REPORT(S) on debtor(s) 30018
[ADDITIONAL FEE] .......... [optional] 30019
[ ] All debtors [ ] Debtor 1 [ ] Debtor 2 30020
8. OPTIONAL FILER REFERENCE DATA 30021
................................................................. 30022
................................................................. 30023

UCC FINANCING STATEMENT ADDENDUM
30024

Follow instructions (front and back) carefully.
30025

9. NAME OF FIRST DEBTOR (1a OR 1b) ON RELATED FINANCING STATEMENT 30026
9a. Organization's name ......................................... 30027
or 30028
9b. Individual's last name ............. First name ............. 30029
Middle name ........................... Suffix .................. 30030
10. MISCELLANEOUS 30031
.................................. 30032
.................................. 30033
.................................. The above space is for filing office use only. 30034
11. ADDITIONAL DEBTOR'S EXACT FULL LEGAL NAME 30035
(Insert only one name [11a or 11b]. Do not abbreviate or combine 30036
names. If completing 11b, insert the debtor's name exactly as it appears on the debtor's current driver's license or identification card issued by this state, if one exists.) 30037
11a. Organization's name ........................................ 30038
or 30039
11b. Individual's last name ............. First name ............ 30040
Middle name ........................... Suffix .................. 30041
11c. Mailing address ............................................ 30042
City .......... State ....... Postal code ...... Country ........ 30043
30044
Additional information regarding organization debtor 30045
11d. Type of organization ....................................... 30046
11e. Jurisdiction of organization ............................... 30047
12. [ ] ADDITIONAL SECURED PARTY'S or [ ] ASSIGNOR S/P'S NAME 30048
(Insert only one name [12a or 12b].) 30049
12a. Organization's name ........................................ 30050
or 30051
12b. Individual's last name ............. First name ............ 30052
Middle name ........................... Suffix .................. 30053
12c. Mailing address ............................................ 30054
City .......... State ....... Postal code ...... Country ........ 30055
13. This FINANCING STATEMENT covers [ ] timber to be cut or 30056
[ ] as-extracted collateral, or is filed as a [ ] fixture filing. 30057
14. DESCRIPTION OF REAL ESTATE: 30058
................................................................. 30059
................................................................. 30060
................................................................. 30061
................................................................. 30062
15. Name and address of a RECORD OWNER of above-described real 30063
estate (if debtor does not have a record interest): 30064
................................................................. 30065
................................................................. 30066
................................................................. 30067
16. Additional collateral description: 30068
................................................................. 30069
................................................................. 30070
................................................................. 30071
................................................................. 30072
17. Check only if applicable and check only one box. 30073
Debtor is a [ ] Trust or [ ] Trustee acting with respect to 30074
property held in trust or [ ] Decedent's estate 30075
18. Check only if applicable and check only one box. 30076
[ ] Debtor is a transmitting utility 30077
[ ] Filed in connection with a manufactured-home transaction - 30078
effective 30 years 30079
[ ] Filed in connection with a public-finance transaction - 30080
effective 30 years 30081

       (B) A filing office that accepts written records may not 30082
refuse to accept a written record in the following form and format 30083
set forth as form UCC3 and form UCC3Ad in the final official text 30084
of the 2010 amendments to article 9 of the uniform commercial code 30085
promulgated by the American law institute and the national 30086
conference of commissioners on uniform state laws, except for a 30087
reason prescribed in division (B) of section 1309.516 of the 30088
Revised Code:.30089

UCC FINANCING STATEMENT AMENDMENT
30090

Follow instructions (front and back) carefully.
30091

A. Name and phone of contact at filer (optional) 30092
................................................................ 30093
B. Send acknowledgment to: (name and address) 30094
.................................. 30095
.................................. 30096
.................................. The above space is for filing office use only. 30097
1a. INITIAL FINANCING STATEMENT FILE NUMBER .................... 30098
1b. [ ] This financing statement amendment is to be filed [for 30099
record] (or recorded) in the real estate records. 30100
2. [ ] TERMINATION: Effectiveness of the financing statement identified above is terminated with respect to security interest(s) of the secured party authorizing this termination statement. 30101
3. [ ] CONTINUATION: Effectiveness of the financing statement identified above with respect to security interest(s) of the secured party authorizing this continuation statement is continued for the additional period provided by applicable law. 30102
4. [ ] ASSIGNMENT (full or partial): Give name of assignee in item 7a or 7b and address of assignee in item 7c; and also give name of assignor in item 9. 30103
5. AMENDMENT (PARTY INFORMATION): This amendment affects [ ] Debtor 30104
or [ ] Secured Party of record. Check only one of these two boxes. 30105

Also check one of the following three boxes and provide appropriate information in items 6 and/or 7. 30106
[ ] CHANGE name and/or address. Give current record name in item 6a or 6b; also give new name (if name change) in item 7a or 7b and/or new address (if address change) in item 7c. 30107
[ ] DELETE name. Give record name to be deleted in item 6a or 6b. 30108
[ ] ADD name. Complete item 7a or 7b, and also item 7c; also complete items 7d-7g (if applicable). 30109

6. CURRENT RECORD INFORMATION: 30110
6a. Organization's name ......................................... 30111
or 30112
6b. Individual's last name .................. First name ........ 30113
Middle name ................................. Suffix ............ 30114
7. CHANGED (NEW) OR ADDED INFORMATION: 30115
(If completing 7b and the amendment affects a debtor, insert the debtor's name exactly as it appears on the debtor's current driver's license or identification card issued by this state, if one exists.) 30116
7a. Organization's name ......................................... 30117
or 30118
7b. Individual's last name .................. First name ........ 30119
Middle name ................................. Suffix ............ 30120
7c. Mailing address ............................................. 30121
City ........ State ....... Postal code ....... Country ......... 30122
30123
Additional information regarding organization debtor 30124
7d. Type of organization ........................................ 30125
7e. Jurisdiction of organization ................................ 30126
8. AMENDMENT (COLLATERAL CHANGE). Check only one box. 30127
Describe collateral [ ] deleted or [ ] added, or give entire 30128
[ ] restated collateral description, or describe collateral 30129
[ ] assigned. 30130
................................................................. 30131
................................................................. 30132
................................................................. 30133
................................................................. 30134
9. NAME OF SECURED PARTY OF RECORD AUTHORIZING THIS AMENDMENT 30135
(name of assignor, if this is an assignment). If this is an 30136
amendment authorized by a debtor that adds collateral or adds 30137
the authorizing debtor, or if this is a termination authorized 30138
by a debtor, check here [ ] and enter name of debtor 30139
authorizing this amendment. 30140
9a. Organization's name ......................................... 30141
or 30142
9b. Individual's last name ................ First name .......... 30143
Middle name ............................... Suffix .............. 30144
10. OPTIONAL FILER REFERENCE DATA 30145
................................................................. 30146

UCC FINANCING STATEMENT AMENDMENT ADDENDUM
30147

Follow instructions (front and back) carefully.
30148

11. INITIAL FINANCING STATEMENT FILE NUMBER (same as item 1a 30149
on amendment form) ............................................. 30150
12. NAME OF PARTY AUTHORIZING 30151
THIS AMENDMENT (same as item 9 30152
on amendment form) 30153
12a. Organization's name 30154
................................. 30155
or 30156
12b. Individual's last name 30157
................................. 30158
First name ...................... 30159
Middle name .......... Suffix ... The above space is for filing office use only. 30160
13. Use this space for additional information. 30161
................................................................... 30162
................................................................... 30163
................................................................... 30164

................................................................... 30165

       Sec. 1321.51.  As used in sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the 30166
Revised Code:30167

       (A) "Person" means an individual, partnership, association, 30168
trust, corporation, or any other legal entity.30169

       (B) "Certificate" means a certificate of registration issued 30170
under sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code.30171

       (C) "Registrant" means a person to whom one or more 30172
certificates of registration have been issued under sections 30173
1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code.30174

       (D) "Principal amount" means the amount of cash paid to, or 30175
paid or payable for the account of, the borrower, and includes any 30176
charge, fee, or expense that is financed by the borrower at 30177
origination of the loan or during the term of the loan.30178

       (E) "Interest" means all charges payable directly or 30179
indirectly by a borrower to a registrant as a condition to a loan 30180
or an application for a loan, however denominated, but does not 30181
include default charges, deferment charges, insurance charges or 30182
premiums, court costs, loan origination charges, check collection 30183
charges, credit line charges, points, prepayment penalties, or 30184
other fees and charges specifically authorized by law.30185

       (F) "Interest-bearing loan" means a loan in which the debt 30186
is expressed as the principal amount and interest is computed, 30187
charged, and collected on unpaid principal balances outstanding 30188
from time to time.30189

       (G) "Precomputed loan" means a loan in which the debt is a 30190
sum comprising the principal amount and the amount of interest 30191
computed in advance on the assumption that all scheduled payments 30192
will be made when due.30193

       (H) "Actuarial method" means the method of allocating 30194
payments made on a loan between the principal amount and interest 30195
whereby a payment is applied first to the accumulated interest and 30196
the remainder to the unpaid principal amount.30197

       (I) "Applicable charge" means the amount of interest 30198
attributable to each monthly installment period of the loan 30199
contract. The applicable charge is computed as if each installment 30200
period were one month and any charge for extending the first 30201
installment period beyond one month is ignored. In the case of 30202
loans originally scheduled to be repaid in sixty-one months or 30203
less, the applicable charge for any installment period is that 30204
proportion of the total interest contracted for, as the balance 30205
scheduled to be outstanding during that period bears to the sum of 30206
all of the periodic balances, all determined according to the 30207
payment schedule originally contracted for. In all other cases, 30208
the applicable charge for any installment period is that which 30209
would have been made for such period had the loan been made on an 30210
interest-bearing basis, based upon the assumption that all 30211
payments were made according to schedule.30212

       (J) "Broker" means a person who acts as an intermediary or 30213
agent in finding, arranging, or negotiating loans, other than 30214
residential mortgage loans, and charges or receives a fee for 30215
these services.30216

       (K) "Annual percentage rate" means the ratio of the interest 30217
on a loan to the unpaid principal balances on the loan for any 30218
period of time, expressed on an annual basis.30219

       (L) "Point" means a charge equal to one per cent of either of 30220
the following:30221

       (1) The principal amount of a precomputed loan or 30222
interest-bearing loan;30223

       (2) The original credit line of an open-end loan.30224

       (M) "Prepayment penalty" means a charge for prepayment of a 30225
loan at any time prior to five years from the date the loan 30226
contract is executed.30227

       (N) "Refinancing" means a loan the proceeds of which are used 30228
in whole or in part to pay the unpaid balance of a prior loan made 30229
by the same registrant to the same borrower under sections 1321.51 30230
to 1321.60 of the Revised Code.30231

       (O) "Superintendent of financial institutions" includes the 30232
deputy superintendent for consumer finance as provided in section 30233
1181.21 of the Revised Code.30234

       (P)(1) "Mortgage loan originator" means an individual who for 30235
compensation or gain, or in anticipation of compensation or gain, 30236
does any of the following:30237

       (a) Takes or offers to take a residential mortgage loan 30238
application; 30239

       (b) Assists or offers to assist a borrower in obtaining or 30240
applying to obtain a residential mortgage loan by, among other 30241
things, advising on loan terms, including rates, fees, and other 30242
costs; 30243

       (c) Offers or negotiates terms of a residential mortgage 30244
loan; 30245

       (d) Issues or offers to issue a commitment for a residential 30246
mortgage loan to a borrower.30247

       (2) "Mortgage loan originator" does not include any of the 30248
following: 30249

       (a) An individual who performs purely administrative or 30250
clerical tasks on behalf of a mortgage loan originator; 30251

       (b) A person licensed pursuant to Chapter 4735. of the 30252
Revised Code, or under the similar law of another state, who 30253
performs only real estate brokerage activities permitted by that 30254
license, provided the person is not compensated by a mortgage 30255
lender, mortgage broker, mortgage loan originator, or by any agent 30256
thereof;30257

       (c) A person solely involved in extensions of credit relating 30258
to timeshare plans, as that term is defined in 11 U.S.C. 101, in 30259
effect on January 1, 2009;30260

       (d) A person acting solely as a loan processor or 30261
underwriter, who does not represent to the public, through 30262
advertising or other means of communicating, including the use of 30263
business cards, stationery, brochures, signs, rate lists, or other 30264
promotional items, that the person can or will perform any of the 30265
activities of a mortgage loan originator; 30266

       (e) A loan originator licensed under sections 1322.01 to 30267
1322.12 of the Revised Code, when acting solely under that 30268
authority; 30269

       (f) A licensed attorney who negotiates the terms of a 30270
residential mortgage loan on behalf of a client as an ancillary 30271
matter to the attorney's representation of the client, unless the 30272
attorney is compensated by a lender, a mortgage broker, or another 30273
mortgage loan originator, or by any agent thereof;30274

       (g) Any person engaged in the retail sale of manufactured 30275
homes, mobile homes, or industrialized units if, in connection 30276
with financing those retail sales, the person only assists the 30277
borrower by providing or transmitting the loan application and 30278
does not do any of the following:30279

       (i) Offer or negotiate the residential mortgage loan rates or 30280
terms;30281

       (ii) Provide any counseling with borrowers about residential 30282
mortgage loan rates or terms;30283

       (iii) Receive any payment or fee from any company or 30284
individual for assisting the borrower obtain or apply for 30285
financing to purchase the manufactured home, mobile home, or 30286
industrialized unit;30287

       (iv) Assist the borrower in completing the residential 30288
mortgage loan application.30289

       (3) An individual acting exclusively as a servicer engaging 30290
in loss mitigation efforts with respect to existing mortgage 30291
transactions shall not be considered a mortgage loan originator 30292
for purposes of sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code 30293
until July 1, 2011, unless such delay is denied by the United 30294
States department of housing and urban development.30295

       (Q) "Residential mortgage loan" means any loan primarily for 30296
personal, family, or household use that is secured by a mortgage, 30297
deed of trust, or other equivalent consensual security interest on 30298
a dwelling or on residential real estate upon which is constructed 30299
or intended to be constructed a dwelling. For purposes of this 30300
division, "dwelling" has the same meaning as in the "Truth in 30301
Lending Act," 82 Stat. 146, 15 U.S.C. 1602.30302

       (R) "Nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry" or 30303
"NMLS" means a mortgage licensing system developed and maintained 30304
by the conference of state bank supervisors and the American 30305
association of residential mortgage regulators, or their successor 30306
entities, for the licensing and registration of mortgage loan 30307
originators, or any system established by the secretary of housing 30308
and urban development pursuant to the "Secure and Fair Enforcement 30309
for Mortgage Licensing Act of 2008," 122 Stat. 2810, 12 U.S.C. 30310
5101.30311

       (S) "Registered mortgage loan originator" means an individual 30312
to whom both of the following apply: 30313

       (1) The individual is a mortgage loan originator and an 30314
employee of a depository institution, a subsidiary that is owned 30315
and controlled by a depository institution and regulated by a 30316
federal banking agency, or an institution regulated by the farm 30317
credit administration.30318

       (2) The individual is registered with, and maintains a unique 30319
identifier through, the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 30320
registryNMLS. 30321

       (T) "Administrative or clerical tasks" means the receipt, 30322
collection, and distribution of information common for the 30323
processing or underwriting of a loan in the mortgage industry, and 30324
communication with a consumer to obtain information necessary for 30325
the processing or underwriting of a residential mortgage loan.30326

       (U) "Federal banking agency" means the board of governors of 30327
the federal reserve system, the comptroller of the currency, the 30328
director of the office of thrift supervision, the national credit 30329
union administration, and the federal deposit insurance 30330
corporation.30331

       (V) "Loan processor or underwriter" means an individual who 30332
performs clerical or support duties at the direction of and 30333
subject to the supervision and instruction of a licensed mortgage 30334
loan originator or registered mortgage loan originator. For 30335
purposes of this division, to "perform clerical or support duties" 30336
means to do all of the following activities:30337

       (1) Receiving, collecting, distributing, and analyzing 30338
information common for the processing or underwriting of a 30339
residential mortgage loan; 30340

       (2) Communicating with a borrower to obtain the information 30341
necessary for the processing or underwriting of a loan, to the 30342
extent the communication does not include offering or negotiating 30343
loan rates or terms or counseling borrowers about residential 30344
mortgage loan rates or terms.30345

       (W) "Real estate brokerage activity" means any activity that 30346
involves offering or providing real estate brokerage services to 30347
the public, including all of the following:30348

       (1) Acting as a real estate agent or real estate broker for a 30349
buyer, seller, lessor, or lessee of real property; 30350

       (2) Bringing together parties interested in the sale, 30351
purchase, lease, rental, or exchange of real property; 30352

       (3) Negotiating, on behalf of any party, any portion of a 30353
contract relating to the sale, purchase, lease, rental, or 30354
exchange of real property, other than in connection with providing 30355
financing for any such transaction; 30356

       (4) Engaging in any activity for which a person engaged in 30357
that activity is required to be registered or licensed as a real 30358
estate agent or real estate broker under any applicable law; 30359

       (5) Offering to engage in any activity, or to act in any 30360
capacity, described in division (W) of this section.30361

       (X) "Licensee" means any person that has been issued a 30362
mortgage loan originator license under sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 30363
of the Revised Code.30364

       (Y) "Unique identifier" means a number or other identifier 30365
that permanently identifies a mortgage loan originator and is 30366
assigned by protocols established by the nationwide mortgage 30367
licensing system and registryNMLS or federal banking agencies to 30368
facilitate electronic tracking of mortgage loan originators and 30369
uniform identification of, and public access to, the employment 30370
history of and the publicly adjudicated disciplinary and 30371
enforcement actions against mortgage loan originators.30372

       (Z) "State" in the context of referring to states in addition 30373
to Ohio means any state of the United States, the district of 30374
Columbia, any territory of the United States, Puerto Rico, Guam, 30375
American Samoa, the trust territory of the Pacific islands, the 30376
virgin islands, and the northern Mariana islands.30377

       (AA) "Depository institution" has the same meaning as in 30378
section 3 of the "Federal Deposit Insurance Act," 64 Stat. 873, 12 30379
U.S.C. 1813, and includes any credit union.30380

       (BB) "Bona fide third party" means a person that is not an 30381
employee of, related to, or affiliated with, the registrant, and 30382
that is not used for the purpose of circumvention or evasion of 30383
sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code.30384

       (CC) "Nontraditional mortgage product" means any mortgage 30385
product other than a thirty-year fixed rate mortgage.30386

       (DD) "Employee" means an individual for whom a registrant or 30387
applicant, in addition to providing a wage or salary, pays social 30388
security and unemployment taxes, provides workers' compensation 30389
coverage, and withholds local, state, and federal income taxes. 30390
"Employee" also includes any individual who acts as a mortgage 30391
loan originator or operations manager of the registrant, but for 30392
whom the registrant is prevented by law from making income tax 30393
withholdings.30394

       (EE) "Primary point of contact" means the employee or owner 30395
designated by the registrant or applicant to be the individual who 30396
the division of financial institutions can contact regarding 30397
compliance or licensing matters relating to the registrant's or 30398
applicant's business or lending activities secured by an interest 30399
in real estate.30400

       (FF) "Consumer reporting agency" has the same meaning as in 30401
the "Fair Credit Reporting Act," 84 Stat. 1128, 15 U.S.C. 1681a, 30402
as amended.30403

       (GG) "Mortgage broker" has the same meaning as in section 30404
1322.01 of the Revised Code.30405

       Sec. 1321.535.  (A) Each applicant for a mortgage loan 30406
originator license shall submit to a written test that is 30407
developed and approved by the nationwide mortgage licensing system 30408
and registryNMLS and administered by a test provider approved by 30409
the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registryNMLS based 30410
upon reasonable standards.30411

       (1) The test shall adequately measure the applicant's 30412
knowledge and comprehension in appropriate subject matters, 30413
including ethics and federal and state law related to mortgage 30414
origination, fraud, consumer protection, the nontraditional 30415
mortgage marketplace, and fair lending issues.30416

       (2) An individual shall not be considered to have passed the 30417
test unless the individual achieves a test score of at least 30418
seventy-five per cent correct answers on all questions and at 30419
least seventy-five per cent correct answers on all questions 30420
relating to Ohio mortgage lending laws and the Ohio consumer sales 30421
practices act, Chapter 1345. of the Revised Code, as it applies to 30422
registrants and licensees.30423

       (3) An individual may retake the test three consecutive times 30424
provided the period between taking the tests is at least thirty 30425
days.30426

       (4) After failing three consecutive tests, an individual 30427
shall be required to wait at least six months before taking the 30428
test again.30429

       (5) If a mortgage loan originator fails to maintain a valid 30430
license for a period of five years or longer, the individual shall 30431
be required to retake the test. For this purpose, any time during 30432
which the individual is a registered mortgage loan originator 30433
shall not be taken into account.30434

       (B) Notwithstanding division (A) of this section, if the 30435
nationwide mortgage licensing system and registryNMLS fails to 30436
have in place a testing process that meets the criteria set forth 30437
in that division, the superintendent shall require, until that 30438
process is in place, evidence that the mortgage loan originator 30439
applicant passed a written test acceptable to the superintendent.30440

       Sec. 1321.55.  (A) Every registrant shall keep records 30441
pertaining to loans made under sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the 30442
Revised Code. Such records shall be segregated from records 30443
pertaining to transactions that are not subject to these sections 30444
of the Revised Code. Every registrant shall preserve records 30445
pertaining to loans made under sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the 30446
Revised Code for at least two years after making the final entry 30447
on such records. Accounting systems maintained in whole or in part 30448
by mechanical or electronic data processing methods that provide 30449
information equivalent to that otherwise required are acceptable 30450
for this purpose. At least once each eighteen-month cycle, the 30451
division of financial institutions shall make or cause to be made 30452
an examination of records pertaining to loans made under sections 30453
1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code, for the purpose of 30454
determining whether the registrant is complying with these 30455
sections and of verifying the registrant's annual report.30456

       (B)(1) As required by the superintendent of financial 30457
institutions, each registrant shall file with the division each 30458
year a report under oath or affirmation, on forms supplied by the 30459
division, concerning the business and operations for the preceding 30460
calendar year. Whenever a registrant operates two or more 30461
registered offices or whenever two or more affiliated registrants 30462
operate registered offices, then a composite report of the group 30463
of registered offices may be filed in lieu of individual reports.30464

       (2) The division shall publish annually an analysis of the 30465
information required under division (B)(1) of this section, but 30466
the individual reports shall not be public records and shall not 30467
be open to public inspection.30468

       (3) Each mortgage licensee shall submit to the nationwide 30469
mortgage licensing system and registryNMLS call reports or other 30470
reports of condition, which shall be in such form and shall 30471
contain such information as the nationwide mortgage licensing 30472
system and registryNMLS may require.30473

       (4) If the division obtains a call report from the NMLS, the 30474
call report is confidential and not a public record for the 30475
purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code.30476

       (C)(1) The following information is confidential:30477

       (a) Examination information, and any information leading to 30478
or arising from an examination;30479

       (b) Investigation information, and any information arising 30480
from or leading to an investigation.30481

       (2) The information described in division (C)(1) of this 30482
section shall remain confidential for all purposes except when it 30483
is necessary for the superintendent to take official action 30484
regarding the affairs of a registrant or licensee, or in 30485
connection with criminal or civil proceedings to be initiated by a 30486
prosecuting attorney or the attorney general. This information may 30487
also be introduced into evidence or disclosed when and in the 30488
manner authorized by section 1181.25 of the Revised Code.30489

       (D) All application information, except social security 30490
numbers, employer identification numbers, financial account 30491
numbers, the identity of the institution where financial accounts 30492
are maintained, personal financial information, fingerprint cards 30493
and the information contained on such cards, and criminal 30494
background information, is a public record as defined in section 30495
149.43 of the Revised Code.30496

       (E) This section does not prevent the division of financial 30497
institutions from releasing to or exchanging with other financial 30498
institution regulatory authorities information relating to 30499
registrants and licensees. For this purpose, a "financial 30500
institution regulatory authority" includes a regulator of a 30501
business activity in which a registrant or licensee is engaged, or 30502
has applied to engage in, to the extent that the regulator has 30503
jurisdiction over a registrant or licensee engaged in that 30504
business activity. A registrant or licensee is engaged in a 30505
business activity, and a regulator of that business activity has 30506
jurisdiction over the registrant or licensee, whether the 30507
registrant or licensee conducts the activity directly or a 30508
subsidiary or affiliate of the registrant or licensee conducts the 30509
activity. 30510

       (1) Any confidentiality or privilege arising under federal or 30511
state law with respect to any information or material provided to 30512
the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registryNMLS shall 30513
continue to apply to the information or material after the 30514
information or material has been provided to the nationwide 30515
mortgage licensing system and registryNMLS. The information and 30516
material so provided may be shared with all state and federal 30517
regulatory officials with mortgage industry oversight authority 30518
without the loss of confidentiality or privilege protections 30519
provided by federal law or the law of any state. Information or 30520
material described in division (E)(1) of this section to which 30521
confidentiality or privilege applies shall not be subject to any 30522
of the following: 30523

       (a) Disclosure under any federal or state law governing 30524
disclosure to the public of information held by an officer or an 30525
agency of the federal government or of the respective state; 30526

       (b) Subpoena or discovery, or admission into evidence, in any 30527
private civil action or administrative process, unless the person 30528
to whom such information or material pertains waives, in whole or 30529
in part and at the discretion of the person, any privilege held by 30530
the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registryNMLS with 30531
respect to that information or material.30532

       (2) The superintendent, in order to promote more effective 30533
regulation and reduce regulatory burden through supervisory 30534
information sharing, may enter into sharing arrangements with 30535
other governmental agencies, the conference of state bank 30536
supervisors, and the American association of residential mortgage 30537
regulators. 30538

       (3) Any state law, including section 149.43 of the Revised 30539
Code, relating to the disclosure of confidential supervisory 30540
information or any information or material described in division 30541
(C)(1) or (E)(1) of this section that is inconsistent with this 30542
section shall be superseded by the requirements of this section.30543

       (F) This section shall not apply with respect to information 30544
or material relating to the employment history of, and publicly 30545
adjudicated disciplinary and enforcement actions against, mortgage 30546
loan originators that is included in the nationwide mortgage 30547
licensing system and registryNMLS for access by the public.30548

       (G) This section does not prevent the division from releasing 30549
information relating to registrants and licensees to the attorney 30550
general, to the superintendent of real estate and professional 30551
licensing for purposes relating to the administration of Chapters 30552
4735. and 4763. of the Revised Code, to the superintendent of 30553
insurance for purposes relating to the administration of Chapter 30554
3953. of the Revised Code, to the commissioner of securities for 30555
purposes relating to the administration of Chapter 1707. of the 30556
Revised Code, or to local law enforcement agencies and local 30557
prosecutors. Information the division releases pursuant to this 30558
section remains confidential.30559

       (H) The superintendent of financial institutions shall, by 30560
rule adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 30561
establish a process by which mortgage loan originators may 30562
challenge information provided to the nationwide mortgage 30563
licensing system and registryNMLS by the superintendent. 30564

       (I) No person, in connection with any examination or 30565
investigation conducted by the superintendent under sections 30566
1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code, shall knowingly do any of 30567
the following:30568

       (1) Circumvent, interfere with, obstruct, or fail to 30569
cooperate, including making a false or misleading statement, 30570
failing to produce records, or intimidating or suborning any 30571
witness;30572

       (2) Withhold, abstract, remove, mutilate, destroy, or secrete 30573
any books, records, computer records, or other information; 30574

       (3) Tamper with, alter, or manufacture any evidence.30575

       Sec. 1322.01.  As used in sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the 30576
Revised Code:30577

       (A) "Buyer" means an individual who is solicited to purchase 30578
or who purchases the services of a mortgage broker for purposes of 30579
obtaining a residential mortgage loan.30580

       (B) "Consumer reporting agency" has the same meaning as in 30581
the "Fair Credit Reporting Act," 84 Stat. 1128, 15 U.S.C.A. 1681a, 30582
as amended.30583

       (C) "Employee" means an individual for whom a mortgage 30584
broker, in addition to providing a wage or salary, pays social 30585
security and unemployment taxes, provides workers' compensation 30586
coverage, and withholds local, state, and federal income taxes. 30587
"Employee" also includes any individual who acts as a loan 30588
originator or operations manager of a registrant, but for whom the 30589
registrant is prevented by law from making income tax 30590
withholdings.30591

       (D) "Licensee" means any individual who has been issued a 30592
loan originator license under sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the 30593
Revised Code.30594

       (E)(1) "Loan originator" means an individual who for 30595
compensation or gain, or in anticipation of compensation or gain, 30596
does any of the following:30597

       (a) Takes or offers to take a residential mortgage loan 30598
application;30599

       (b) Assists or offers to assist a buyer in obtaining or 30600
applying to obtain a residential mortgage loan by, among other 30601
things, advising on loan terms, including rates, fees, and other 30602
costs;30603

       (c) Offers or negotiates terms of a residential mortgage 30604
loan;30605

       (d) Issues or offers to issue a commitment for a residential 30606
mortgage loan to a buyer.30607

       (2) "Loan originator" does not include any of the following:30608

       (a) An individual who performs purely administrative or 30609
clerical tasks on behalf of a loan originator;30610

       (b) A person licensed under Chapter 4735. of the Revised 30611
Code, or under the similar law of another state, who performs only 30612
real estate brokerage activities permitted by that license, 30613
provided the person is not compensated by a mortgage lender, 30614
mortgage broker, loan originator, or by any agent thereof; 30615

       (c) A person solely involved in extensions of credit relating 30616
to timeshare plans, as that term is defined in 11 U.S.C. 101 in 30617
effect on January 1, 2009;30618

       (d) An employee of a registrant who acts solely as a loan 30619
processor or underwriter and who does not represent to the public, 30620
through advertising or other means of communicating, including the 30621
use of business cards, stationery, brochures, signs, rate lists, 30622
or other promotional items, that the employee can or will perform 30623
any of the activities of a loan originator;30624

       (e) A mortgage loan originator licensed under sections 30625
1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code, when acting solely under 30626
that authority; 30627

       (f) A licensed attorney who negotiates the terms of a 30628
residential mortgage loan on behalf of a client as an ancillary 30629
matter to the attorney's representation of the client, unless the 30630
attorney is compensated by a lender, a mortgage broker, or another 30631
loan originator, or by any agent thereof;30632

       (g) Any person engaged in the retail sale of manufactured 30633
homes, mobile homes, or industrialized units if, in connection 30634
with financing those retail sales, the person only assists the 30635
borrower by providing or transmitting the loan application and 30636
does not do any of the following:30637

       (i) Offer or negotiate the residential mortgage loan rates or 30638
terms;30639

       (ii) Provide any counseling with borrowers about residential 30640
mortgage loan rates or terms;30641

       (iii) Receive any payment or fee from any company or 30642
individual for assisting the borrower obtain or apply for 30643
financing to purchase the manufactured home, mobile home, or 30644
industrialized unit;30645

       (iv) Assist the borrower in completing a residential mortgage 30646
loan application.30647

       (h) An individual employed by a nonprofit organization that 30648
is recognized as tax exempt under 26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3) and whose 30649
primary activity is the construction, remodeling, or 30650
rehabilitation of homes for use by low-income families, provided 30651
that the nonprofit organization makes no-profit mortgage loans or 30652
mortgage loans at zero per cent interest to low-income families 30653
and no fees accrue directly to the nonprofit organization or 30654
individual employed by the nonprofit organization from those 30655
mortgage loans and that the United States department of housing 30656
and urban development does not deny this exemption.30657

       (F) "Mortgage" means any indebtedness secured by a deed of 30658
trust, security deed, or other lien on real property.30659

       (G)(1) "Mortgage broker" means any of the following:30660

       (a) A person that holds that person out as being able to 30661
assist a buyer in obtaining a mortgage and charges or receives 30662
from either the buyer or lender money or other valuable 30663
consideration readily convertible into money for providing this 30664
assistance;30665

       (b) A person that solicits financial and mortgage information 30666
from the public, provides that information to a mortgage broker or 30667
a person that makes residential mortgage loans, and charges or 30668
receives from either of them money or other valuable consideration 30669
readily convertible into money for providing the information;30670

       (c) A person engaged in table-funding or warehouse-lending 30671
mortgage loans that are first lien residential mortgage loans.30672

       (2) "Mortgage broker" does not include any of the following 30673
persons only with respect to business engaged in or authorized by 30674
the person's charter, license, authority, approval, or 30675
certificate, or as otherwise authorized by division (G)(2)(h) of 30676
this section:30677

       (a) A person that makes residential mortgage loans and 30678
receives a scheduled payment on each of those mortgage loans;30679

       (b) Any entity chartered and lawfully doing business under 30680
the authority of any law of this state, another state, or the 30681
United States as a bank, savings bank, trust company, savings and 30682
loan association, or credit union, or a subsidiary of any such 30683
entity, which subsidiary is regulated by a federal banking agency 30684
and is owned and controlled by a depository institution;30685

       (c) A consumer reporting agency that is in substantial 30686
compliance with the "Fair Credit Reporting Act," 84 Stat. 1128, 15 30687
U.S.C.A. 1681a, as amended;30688

       (d) Any political subdivision, or any governmental or other 30689
public entity, corporation, instrumentality, or agency, in or of 30690
the United States or any state;30691

       (e) A college or university, or controlled entity of a 30692
college or university, as those terms are defined in section 30693
1713.05 of the Revised Code; 30694

       (f) Any entity created solely for the purpose of securitizing 30695
loans secured by an interest in real estate, provided the entity 30696
does not service the loans. For purposes of division (G)(2)(f) of 30697
this section, "securitizing" means the packaging and sale of 30698
mortgage loans as a unit for sale as investment securities, but 30699
only to the extent of those activities. 30700

       (g) Any person engaged in the retail sale of manufactured 30701
homes, mobile homes, or industrialized units if, in connection 30702
with obtaining financing by others for those retail sales, the 30703
person only assists the borrower by providing or transmitting the 30704
loan application and does not do any of the following:30705

       (i) Offer or negotiate the residential mortgage loan rates or 30706
terms;30707

       (ii) Provide any counseling with borrowers about residential 30708
mortgage loan rates or terms;30709

       (iii) Receive any payment or fee from any company or 30710
individual for assisting the borrower obtain or apply for 30711
financing to purchase the manufactured home, mobile home, or 30712
industrialized unit;30713

       (iv) Assist the borrower in completing the residential 30714
mortgage loan application.30715

       (h) A mortgage banker, provided it complies with section 30716
1322.022 of the Revised Code and holds a valid letter of exemption 30717
issued by the superintendent. For purposes of this section, 30718
"mortgage banker" means any person that makes, services, buys, or 30719
sells residential mortgage loans secured by a first lien, that 30720
underwrites the loans, and that meets at least one of the 30721
following criteria:30722

       (i) The person has been directly approved by the United 30723
States department of housing and urban development as a 30724
nonsupervised mortgagee with participation in the direct 30725
endorsement program. Division (G)(2)(h)(i) of this section 30726
includes a person that has been directly approved by the United 30727
States department of housing and urban development as a 30728
nonsupervised mortgagee with participation in the direct 30729
endorsement program and that makes loans in excess of the 30730
applicable loan limit set by the federal national mortgage 30731
association, provided that the loans in all respects, except loan 30732
amounts, comply with the underwriting and documentation 30733
requirements of the United States department of housing and urban 30734
development. Division (G)(2)(h)(i) of this section does not 30735
include a mortgagee approved as a loan correspondent.30736

       (ii) The person has been directly approved by the federal 30737
national mortgage association as a seller/servicer. Division 30738
(G)(2)(h)(ii) of this section includes a person that has been 30739
directly approved by the federal national mortgage association as 30740
a seller/servicer and that makes loans in excess of the applicable 30741
loan limit set by the federal national mortgage association, 30742
provided that the loans in all respects, except loan amounts, 30743
comply with the underwriting and documentation requirements of the 30744
federal national mortgage association.30745

       (iii) The person has been directly approved by the federal 30746
home loan mortgage corporation as a seller/servicer. Division 30747
(G)(2)(h)(iii) of this section includes a person that has been 30748
directly approved by the federal home loan mortgage corporation as 30749
a seller/servicer and that makes loans in excess of the applicable 30750
loan limit set by the federal home loan mortgage corporation, 30751
provided that the loans in all respects, except loan amounts, 30752
comply with the underwriting and documentation requirements of the 30753
federal home loan mortgage corporation.30754

       (iv) The person has been directly approved by the United 30755
States department of veterans affairs as a nonsupervised automatic 30756
lender. Division (G)(2)(h)(iv) of this section does not include a 30757
person directly approved by the United States department of 30758
veterans affairs as a nonsupervised lender, an agent of a 30759
nonsupervised automatic lender, or an agent of a nonsupervised 30760
lender.30761

       (i) A nonprofit organization that is recognized as tax exempt 30762
under 26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3) and whose primary activity is the 30763
construction, remodeling, or rehabilitation of homes for use by 30764
low-income families, provided that the nonprofit organization 30765
makes no-profit mortgage loans or mortgage loans at zero per cent 30766
interest to low-income families and no fees accrue directly to the 30767
nonprofit organization from those mortgage loans and that the 30768
United States department of housing and urban development does not 30769
deny this exemption.30770

       (j) A credit union service organization, provided that the 30771
organization utilizes services provided by registered loan 30772
originators or that it holds a valid letter of exemption issued by 30773
the superintendent under section 1322.023 of the Revised Code and 30774
complies with that section.30775

       (H) "Operations manager" means the employee or owner 30776
responsible for the everyday operations, compliance requirements, 30777
and management of a mortgage broker business.30778

       (I) "Registered loan originator" means an individual to whom 30779
both of the following apply:30780

       (1) The individual is a loan originator and an employee of a 30781
depository institution, a subsidiary that is owned and controlled 30782
by a depository institution and regulated by a federal banking 30783
agency, or an institution regulated by the farm credit 30784
administration.30785

       (2) The individual is registered with, and maintains a unique 30786
identifier through, the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 30787
registryNMLS.30788

       (J) "Registrant" means any person that has been issued a 30789
mortgage broker certificate of registration under sections 1322.01 30790
to 1322.12 of the Revised Code.30791

       (K) "Superintendent of financial institutions" includes the 30792
deputy superintendent for consumer finance as provided in section 30793
1181.21 of the Revised Code.30794

       (L) "Table-funding mortgage loan" means a residential 30795
mortgage loan transaction in which the residential mortgage loan 30796
is initially payable to the mortgage broker, the mortgage broker 30797
does not use the mortgage broker's own funds to fund the 30798
transaction, and, by the terms of the mortgage or other agreement, 30799
the mortgage is simultaneously assigned to another person.30800

       (M) "Warehouse-lending mortgage loan" means a residential 30801
mortgage loan transaction in which the residential mortgage loan 30802
is initially payable to the mortgage broker, the mortgage broker 30803
uses the mortgage broker's own funds to fund the transaction, and 30804
the mortgage is sold or assigned before the mortgage broker 30805
receives a scheduled payment on the residential mortgage loan.30806

       (N) "Administrative or clerical tasks" means the receipt, 30807
collection, and distribution of information common for the 30808
processing or underwriting of a loan in the mortgage industry, and 30809
communication with a consumer to obtain information necessary for 30810
the processing or underwriting of a residential mortgage loan.30811

       (O) "Appraisal company" means a sole proprietorship, 30812
partnership, corporation, limited liability company, or any other 30813
business entity or association, that employs or retains the 30814
services of a person licensed or certified under Chapter 4763. of 30815
the Revised Code for purposes of performing residential real 30816
estate appraisals for mortgage loans.30817

       (P) "Depository institution" has the same meaning as in 30818
section 3 of the "Federal Deposit Insurance Act," 64 Stat. 873, 12 30819
U.S.C. 1813, and includes any credit union. 30820

       (Q) "Federal banking agency" means the board of governors of 30821
the federal reserve system, the comptroller of the currency, the 30822
director of the office of thrift supervision, the national credit 30823
union administration, and the federal deposit insurance 30824
corporation.30825

       (R) "Immediate family" means an individual's spouse, child, 30826
stepchild, parent, stepparent, grandparent, grandchild, brother, 30827
sister, parent-in-law, brother-in-law, or sister-in-law.30828

       (S) "Individual" means a natural person.30829

       (T) "Loan processor or underwriter" means an individual who 30830
performs clerical or support duties at the direction of and 30831
subject to the supervision and instruction of a licensed loan 30832
originator or registered loan originator. For purposes of this 30833
division, to "perform clerical or support duties" means to do all 30834
of the following activities:30835

       (1) Receiving, collecting, distributing, and analyzing 30836
information common for the processing or underwriting of a 30837
residential mortgage loan;30838

       (2) Communicating with a buyer to obtain the information 30839
necessary for the processing or underwriting of a loan, to the 30840
extent the communication does not include offering or negotiating 30841
loan rates or terms or counseling buyers about residential 30842
mortgage loan rates or terms.30843

       (U) "Nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry" or 30844
"NMLS" means a mortgage licensing system developed and maintained 30845
by the conference of state bank supervisors and the American 30846
association of residential mortgage regulators, or their successor 30847
entities, for the licensing and registration of loan originators, 30848
or any system established by the secretary of housing and urban 30849
development pursuant to the "Secure and Fair Enforcement for 30850
Mortgage Licensing Act of 2008," 122 Stat. 2810, 12 U.S.C. 5101.30851

       (V) "Nontraditional mortgage product" means any mortgage 30852
product other than a thirty-year fixed rate mortgage.30853

       (W) "Real estate brokerage activity" means any activity that 30854
involves offering or providing real estate brokerage services to 30855
the public, including all of the following:30856

       (1) Acting as a real estate agent or real estate broker for a 30857
buyer, seller, lessor, or lessee of real property;30858

       (2) Bringing together parties interested in the sale, 30859
purchase, lease, rental, or exchange of real property, other than 30860
in connection with providing financing for any such transaction;30861

       (3) Negotiating, on behalf of any party, any portion of a 30862
contract relating to the sale, purchase, lease, rental, or 30863
exchange of real property, other than in connection with providing 30864
financing for any such transaction;30865

       (4) Engaging in any activity for which a person engaged in 30866
that activity is required to be registered or licensed as a real 30867
estate agent or real estate broker under any applicable law;30868

       (5) Offering to engage in any activity, or to act in any 30869
capacity, described in division (W) of this section.30870

       (X) "Residential mortgage loan" means any loan primarily for 30871
personal, family, or household use that is secured by a mortgage 30872
or other equivalent consensual security interest on a dwelling or 30873
on residential real estate upon which is constructed or intended 30874
to be constructed a dwelling. For purposes of this division, 30875
"dwelling" has the same meaning as in section 103 of the "Truth in 30876
Lending Act," 82 Stat. 146, 15 U.S.C. 1602.30877

       (Y) "State," in the context of referring to states in 30878
addition to Ohio, means any state of the United States, the 30879
district of Columbia, any territory of the United States, Puerto 30880
Rico, Guam, American Samoa, the trust territory of the Pacific 30881
islands, the virgin islands, and the northern Mariana islands.30882

       (Z) "Unique identifier" means a number or other identifier 30883
that permanently identifies a loan originator and is assigned by 30884
protocols established by the nationwide mortgage licensing system 30885
and registryNMLS or federal banking agencies to facilitate 30886
electronic tracking of loan originators and uniform identification 30887
of, and public access to, the employment history of and the 30888
publicly adjudicated disciplinary and enforcement actions against 30889
loan originators.30890

       Sec. 1322.051.  (A) Each person designated under division 30891
(A)(3) of section 1322.03 of the Revised Code to act as operations 30892
manager for a mortgage broker business shall submit to a written 30893
test approved by the superintendent of financial institutions. An 30894
individual shall not be considered to have passed the written test 30895
unless the individual achieves a test score of at least 30896
seventy-five per cent correct answers to all questions.30897

       (B) Each applicant for a loan originator license shall submit 30898
to a written test that is developed and approved by the nationwide 30899
mortgage licensing system and registryNMLS and administered by a 30900
test provider approved by the nationwide mortgage licensing system 30901
and registryNMLS based on reasonable standards.30902

       (1) The test shall adequately measure the applicant's 30903
knowledge and comprehension in appropriate subject areas, 30904
including ethics, federal and state law related to mortgage 30905
origination, fraud, consumer protection, and the nontraditional 30906
mortgage marketplace, and fair lending issues.30907

       (2) An individual shall not be considered to have passed the 30908
written test unless the individual achieves a test score of at 30909
least seventy-five per cent correct answers on all questions and 30910
at least seventy-five per cent correct answers on all questions 30911
relating to state mortgage lending laws and the Ohio consumer 30912
sales practices act, Chapter 1345. of the Revised Code, as it 30913
applies to registrants and licensees.30914

       (3) An individual may retake the test three consecutive times 30915
provided the period between taking the tests is at least thirty 30916
days. If an individual fails three consecutive tests, the 30917
individual shall be required to wait at least six months before 30918
taking the test again.30919

       (4) If a loan originator fails to maintain a valid loan 30920
originator license for a period of five years or longer, the 30921
individual shall be required to retake the test.30922

       For this purpose, any time during which the individual is a 30923
registered loan originator shall not be taken into account.30924

       (C) Notwithstanding division (B) of this section, until the 30925
nationwide mortgage licensing system and registryNMLS implements 30926
a testing process that meets the criteria set forth in that 30927
division, the superintendent shall require each applicant to pass 30928
a written test acceptable to the superintendent.30929

       Sec. 1327.46.  As used in sections 1327.46 to 1327.61 of the 30930
Revised Code:30931

       (A) "Weights and measures" means all weights and measures of 30932
every kind, instruments and devices for weighing and measuring, 30933
and any appliances and accessories associated with any such 30934
instruments and devices, except that "weights and measures" shall 30935
not be construed to include meters for the measurement of 30936
electricity, gas, whether natural or manufactured, or water when 30937
the same are operated in a public utility system. Such 30938
electricity, gas, and water meters, and appliances or accessories 30939
associated therewith, are specifically excluded from the purview 30940
of the weights and measures laws.30941

       (B) "Intrastate commerce" means all commerce or trade that is 30942
begun, carried on, and completed wholly within the limits of this 30943
state, and "introduced into intrastate commerce" defines the time 30944
and place in which the first sale and delivery of a commodity is 30945
made within the state, the delivery being made either directly to 30946
the purchaser or to a common carrier for shipment to the 30947
purchaser.30948

       (C) "Package" means any commodity put up or packaged in any 30949
manner in advance of sale in units suitable for either wholesale 30950
or retail sale.30951

       (D) "Consumer package" means a package that is customarily 30952
produced or distributed for sale through a retail sales agency for 30953
consumption by an individual or use by an individual.30954

       (E) "Weight" as used in connection with any commodity means 30955
net weight.30956

       (F) "Correct" as used in connection with weights and measures 30957
means conformity with all applicable requirements of sections 30958
1327.46 to 1327.61 of the Revised Code and rules adopted pursuant 30959
to those sections.30960

       (G) "PrimaryReference standards" means the physical 30961
standards of the state that serve as the legal reference from 30962
which all other standards and weights and measures are derived.30963

       (H) "SecondaryWorking standards" means the physical 30964
standards that are traceable to the primaryreference standards 30965
through comparisons, using acceptable laboratory procedures, and 30966
used in the enforcement of weights and measures laws and rules.30967

       (I) "Sale from bulk" means the sale of commodities when the 30968
quantity is determined at the time of sale.30969

       (J) "Net weight" means the weight of a commodity, excluding 30970
any materials, substances, or items not considered to be a part of 30971
the commodity. Materials, substances, or items not considered to 30972
be part of the commodity include, but are not limited to, 30973
containers, conveyances, bags, wrappers, packaging materials, 30974
labels, individual piece coverings, decorative accompaniments, and 30975
coupons.30976

       (K) "Random weight package" means a package that is one of a 30977
lot, shipment, or delivery of packages of the same commodity with 30978
no fixed pattern of weights.30979

       (L) "Sold" includes keeping, offering, or exposing for sale.30980

       (M) "Commercially used weighing and measuring device" means a 30981
device described in the national institute of standards and 30982
technology handbook 44 or its supplements and revisions and any 30983
other weighing and measuring device designated by rules adopted 30984
under division (C) of section 1327.50 of the Revised Code. 30985
"Commercially used weighing and measuring device" includes, but is 30986
not limited to, a livestock scale, vehicle scale, railway scale, 30987
vehicle tank meter, bulk rack meter, and LPG meter.30988

       (N) "Livestock scale" means a scale equipped with stock racks 30989
and gates that is adapted to weighing livestock standing on the 30990
scale platform.30991

       (O) "Vehicle scale" means a scale that is adapted to weighing 30992
highway, farm, or other large industrial vehicles other than 30993
railroad cars.30994

       (P) "Railway scale" means a rail scale that is designed to 30995
weigh railroad cars.30996

       (Q) "Vehicle tank meter" means a vehicle mounted device that 30997
is designed for the measurement and delivery of liquid products 30998
from a tank.30999

       (R) "Bulk rack meter" means a wholesale device, usually 31000
mounted on a rack, that is designed for the measurement and 31001
delivery of liquid products.31002

       (S) "LPG meter" means a system, including a mechanism or 31003
machine of the meter type, that is designed to measure and deliver 31004
liquefied petroleum gas in the liquid state by a definite quantity 31005
whether installed in a permanent location or mounted on a vehicle.31006

       (T) "Service person" means an individual who installs, 31007
services, repairs, reconditions, or places into service a 31008
commercially used weighing and measuring device for any type of 31009
compensation.31010

       Sec. 1327.48.  Weights and measures that are traceable to the 31011
United States prototype standards supplied by the federal 31012
government, or approved as being satisfactory by the national 31013
institute of standards and technology, shall be the state primary31014
reference standards of weights and measures, and shall be 31015
maintained in such calibration as is prescribed by the national 31016
institute of standards and technology. All secondaryworking31017
standards may be prescribed by the director of agriculture and 31018
shall be verified upon their initial receipt, and as often as 31019
found necessary by the director.31020

       Sec. 1327.50.  The director of agriculture shall:31021

       (A) Maintain traceability of the state standards to those of 31022
the national institute of standards and technologyinternational 31023
system of units;31024

       (B) Enforce sections 1327.46 to 1327.61 of the Revised Code;31025

       (C) Issue reasonable rules for the uniform enforcement of 31026
sections 1327.46 to 1327.61 of the Revised Code, which rules shall 31027
have the force and effect of law;31028

       (D) Establish standards of weight, measure, or count, 31029
reasonable standards of fill, and standards for the voluntary 31030
presentation of cost per unit information for any package;31031

       (E) Grant any exemptions from sections 1327.46 to 1327.61 of 31032
the Revised Code, or any rules adopted under those sections, when 31033
appropriate to the maintenance of good commercial practices in the 31034
state;31035

       (F) Conduct investigations to ensure compliance with sections 31036
1327.46 to 1327.61 of the Revised Code;31037

       (G) Delegate to appropriate personnel any of these 31038
responsibilities for the proper administration of the director's 31039
office;31040

       (H) Test as often as is prescribed by rule the standards of 31041
weight and measure used by any municipal corporation or county 31042
within the state, and approve the same when found to be correct;31043

       (I) Inspect and test weights and measures that are sold;31044

       (J) Inspect and test to ascertain if they are correct, 31045
weights and measures commercially used either:31046

       (1) In determining the weight, measure, or count of 31047
commodities or things sold on the basis of weight, measure, or 31048
count;31049

       (2) In computing the basic charge or payment for goods or 31050
services rendered on the basis of weight, measure, or count.31051

       (K) Test all weights and measures used in checking the 31052
receipt or disbursement of supplies in every institution, for the 31053
maintenance of which funds are appropriated by the general 31054
assembly;31055

       (L) Approve for use, and may mark, such weights and measures 31056
as the director finds to be correct, and shall reject and mark as 31057
rejected such weights and measures as the director finds to be 31058
incorrect. Weights and measures that have been rejected may be 31059
seized if not corrected within the time specified or if used or 31060
disposed of in a manner not specifically authorized, and may be 31061
condemned and seized if found to be incorrect and not capable of 31062
being made correct.31063

       (M) Weigh, measure, or inspect packaged commodities that are 31064
sold or in the process of delivery to determine whether they 31065
contain the amounts represented and whether they are sold in 31066
accordance with sections 1327.46 to 1327.61 of the Revised Code or 31067
rules adopted under those sections. In carrying out this section, 31068
the director shall employ recognized sampling procedures, such as 31069
those designated in the national institute of standards and 31070
technology handbook 133 "checking the net contents of packaged 31071
goods."31072

       (N) Prescribe by rule the appropriate term or unit of weight 31073
or measure to be used, whenever the director determines in the 31074
case of a specific commodity that an existing practice of 31075
declaring the quantity by weight, measure, numerical count, or 31076
combination thereof, does not facilitate value comparisons by 31077
consumers, or offers an opportunity for consumer confusion;31078

       (O) Allow reasonable variations from the stated quantity of 31079
contents, which shall include those caused by unavoidable 31080
deviations in good manufacturing practice and by loss or gain of 31081
moisture during the course of good distribution practice, only 31082
after the commodity has entered intrastate commerce;31083

       (P) Provide for the weights and measures training of 31084
inspector personnel and establish minimum training requirements, 31085
which shall be met by all inspector personnel, whether county, 31086
municipal, or state;31087

       (Q) Prescribe the methods of tests and inspections to be 31088
employed in the enforcement of sections 1327.46 to 1327.61 of the 31089
Revised Code. The director may prescribe the official test and 31090
inspection forms to be used.31091

       (R) Provide by rule for voluntary registration with the 31092
director of privateservice persons who are employed by 31093
commercially used weighing and measuring device servicing 31094
agencies, and personnel;31095

       (S) In conjunction with the national institute of standards 31096
and technology, operate a type evaluation program for 31097
certification of weighing and measuring devices as part of the 31098
national type evaluation program. The director shall establish a 31099
schedule of fees for services rendered by the department of 31100
agriculture for type evaluation services. The director may require 31101
any weighing or measuring instrument or device to be traceable to 31102
a national type evaluation program certificate of conformance 31103
prior to use for commercial or law enforcement purposes.31104

        (T) Verify advertised prices, price representations, and 31105
point-of-sale systems, as necessary, to determine both the 31106
accuracy of prices and computations and the correct use of the 31107
equipment and the accuracy of prices printed or recalled from a 31108
database if a system utilizes scanning or coding in lieu of manual 31109
entry. In order to implement this division, the director shall do 31110
all of the following:31111

       (1) Employ recognized procedures such as those designated in 31112
the national institute of standards and technology handbook 130, 31113
uniform laws and regulations, "examination procedures for price 31114
verification";31115

        (2) Adopt rules establishing requirements governing the 31116
accuracy of advertised prices and point-of-sale systems and 31117
establishing requirements and procedures for the enforcement of 31118
this division;31119

       (3) Conduct necessary inspections.31120

       Sec. 1327.501.  (A) No person shall operate in this state a 31121
commercially used weighing and measuring device that provides the 31122
final quantity and finalor cost of a final transaction and for 31123
which a fee is established in division (G) of this section unless 31124
the operator of the device obtains a permit issued by the director 31125
of agriculture or the director's designee. 31126

       (B) An application for a permit shall be submitted to the 31127
director on a form that the director prescribes and provides. The 31128
applicant shall include with the application any information that 31129
is specified on the application form as well as the application 31130
fee established in this section.31131

       (C) Upon receipt of a completed application and the required 31132
fee from an applicant, the director or the director's designee 31133
shall issue or deny the permit to operate the commercially used 31134
weighing and measuring device that was the subject of the 31135
application.31136

       (D) A permit issued under this section expires on the 31137
thirtieth day of June of the year following its issuance and may 31138
be renewed annually on or before the first day of July of that 31139
year upon payment of a permit renewal fee established in this 31140
section.31141

       (E) If a permit renewal fee is more than sixty days past due, 31142
the director may assess a late penalty in an amount established 31143
under this section.31144

       (F) The director shall do both of the following:31145

       (1) Establish procedures and requirements governing the 31146
issuance or denial of permits under this section;31147

       (2) Establish late penalties to be assessed for the late 31148
payment of a permit renewal fee and fees for the replacement of 31149
lost or destroyed permits.31150

       (G) An applicant for a permit to operate under this section 31151
shall pay an application fee in the following applicable amount:31152

       (1) Seventy-five dollars for a livestock scale;31153

       (2) Seventy-five dollars for a vehicle scale;31154

       (3) Seventy-five dollars for a railway scale;31155

       (4) Seventy-five dollars for a vehicle tank meter;31156

       (5) Seventy-five dollars for a bulk rack meter;31157

       (6) Seventy-five dollars for aan LPG meter.31158

       A person who is issued a permit under this section and who 31159
seeks to renew that permit shall pay an annual permit renewal fee. 31160
The amount of a permit renewal fee shall be equal to the 31161
application fee for that permit established in this division. 31162

       (H) All money collected through the payment of fees and the 31163
imposition of penalties under this section shall be credited to 31164
the metrology and scale certification and device permitting fund 31165
created in section 1327.511 of the Revised Code.31166

       Sec. 1327.502.  A service person who is employed by a 31167
commercially used weighing and measuring device servicing agency 31168
shall register with the director of agriculture in accordance with 31169
rules adopted under section 1327.50 of the Revised Code.31170

       Sec. 1327.61.  No person shall do any of the following:31171

       (A) Use or have in possession for use in commerce any 31172
incorrect weight or measure;31173

       (B) Wrap, package, label, or advertise any product or service 31174
contrary to this chapter, or any rules adopted under it, or sell, 31175
offer, hold, or expose for sale any service or product wrapped, 31176
packaged, labeled, or offered for sale contrary to this chapter or 31177
any rules adopted under it, or misrepresent the quantity or price 31178
or service contrary to this chapter, or any rules adopted under 31179
it;31180

       (C) Remove any tag, seal, or mark from any weight or measure 31181
without specific written authorization from the proper authority;31182

       (D) Install for use, repair, service, or place into service a 31183
commercially used weighing and measuring device unless the 31184
installation, repair, service, or placement is performed by one of 31185
the following:31186

        (1) A department of agriculture division of weights and 31187
measures inspector;31188

        (2) A service person registered with the department;31189

        (3) A county or municipal weights and measures inspector.31190

        (E) Hinder or obstruct any weights and measures official in 31191
the performance of hisofficial duties;31192

       (E)(F) Sell or offer for use in commerce any incorrect weight 31193
or measure.31194

       Sec. 1327.99.  Whoever violates section 1327.501 or 1327.54 31195
or division (A), (B), (C), or (D)(E) of section 1327.61 of the 31196
Revised Code or a rule adopted under sections 1327.46 to 1327.61 31197
of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the second 31198
degree on a first offense; on each subsequent offense within seven 31199
years after the first offense, suchthe person is guilty of a 31200
misdemeanor of the first degree.31201

       Sec. 1332.26. (A) No political subdivision shall require a 31202
video service provider to obtain from it any authority to provide 31203
video service within its boundaries.31204

       (B) Except as authorized under division (C) of this section 31205
and under sections 1332.30 and 1332.32 of the Revised Code, no 31206
political subdivision shall request anything of value from a video 31207
service provider for providing video service; impose any fee, 31208
license, or gross receipt tax on the provision of video service by 31209
such a provider; or impose any franchise or other requirement on 31210
the provision of video service by a video service provider, 31211
including, but not limited to, any provision regulating rates 31212
charged by a video service provider or establishing any build-out 31213
requirement or requirement to deploy any facility or equipment.31214

       (C) When requested to do so, a video service provider shall 31215
assist a municipal corporation or township in addressing video 31216
service subscriber complaints, in a manner consistent with the 31217
provider's complaint handling process set forth in its application 31218
pursuant to division (A)(7) of section 1332.24 of the Revised 31219
Code. Nothing in sections 1332.21 to 1332.34 of the Revised Code 31220
affects any authority granted under sections 1345.01 to 1345.13 of 31221
the Revised Code.31222

       (D) A video service provider shall meet all of the following 31223
customer service standards:31224

       (1) The provider shall restore video service within 31225
seventy-two hours after a subscriber reports a service 31226
interruption or other problem if the cause was not a natural 31227
disaster.31228

       (2) Upon a report by a subscriber of a service interruption 31229
and if the interruption is caused by the video service provider 31230
and lasts for more than fours hours in a given day, the provider 31231
shall give the subscriber a credit in the amount of the cost of 31232
each such day's video service as would be billed to the 31233
subscriber.31234

       (3) Upon a report by a subscriber of a service interruption 31235
and if the interruption is not caused by the video service 31236
provider and lasts for more than twenty-four consecutive hours, 31237
the provider shall give the subscriber, for each hour of service 31238
interruption, a credit in the amount of the cost of per hour video 31239
service as would be billed to the subscriber.31240

       (4) The provider shall give a subscriber at least thirty 31241
days' advance, written notice before removing a channel from the 31242
provider's video service, but no such notice is required if the 31243
provider must remove the channel because of circumstances beyond 31244
its control.31245

       (5) The provider shall give a subscriber at least ten days' 31246
advance, written notice of a disconnection of all or part of the 31247
subscriber's video service, except if the disconnectionany of the 31248
following apply:31249

       (a) Disconnection has been requested by the subscriber,.31250

       (b) Disconnection is necessary to prevent theft of video 31251
service, or.31252

       (c) Disconnection is necessary to prevent the use of video 31253
service through fraud.31254

       (d) Disconnection is necessary to reduce or prevent signal 31255
leakage as described in 47 C.F.R. 76.611. 31256

       (6) The provider shall not establish a due date earlier than 31257
fourteen days after a video service bill is issued.31258

       (7) The provider shall not disconnect all or part of a 31259
subscriber's video service for failure of the subscriber to pay 31260
any amount of its video service bill, until the billamount is at 31261
least forty-fivefourteen days past due.31262

       (7)(8) The provider shall give a subscriber at least thirty 31263
days' advance, written notice before instituting an increase in 31264
video service rates.31265

       Sec. 1337.11.  As used in sections 1337.11 to 1337.17 of the 31266
Revised Code:31267

       (A) "Adult" means a person who is eighteen years of age or 31268
older.31269

       (B) "Attending physician" means the physician to whom a 31270
principal or the family of a principal has assigned primary 31271
responsibility for the treatment or care of the principal or, if 31272
the responsibility has not been assigned, the physician who has 31273
accepted that responsibility.31274

       (C) "Comfort care" means any of the following:31275

       (1) Nutrition when administered to diminish the pain or 31276
discomfort of a principal, but not to postpone death;31277

       (2) Hydration when administered to diminish the pain or 31278
discomfort of a principal, but not to postpone death;31279

       (3) Any other medical or nursing procedure, treatment, 31280
intervention, or other measure that is taken to diminish the pain 31281
or discomfort of a principal, but not to postpone death.31282

       (D) "Consulting physician" means a physician who, in 31283
conjunction with the attending physician of a principal, makes one 31284
or more determinations that are required to be made by the 31285
attending physician, or to be made by the attending physician and 31286
one other physician, by an applicable provision of sections 31287
1337.11 to 1337.17 of the Revised Code, to a reasonable degree of 31288
medical certainty and in accordance with reasonable medical 31289
standards.31290

       (E) "Declaration for mental health treatment" has the same 31291
meaning as in section 2135.01 of the Revised Code.31292

       (F) "Guardian" means a person appointed by a probate court 31293
pursuant to Chapter 2111. of the Revised Code to have the care and 31294
management of the person of an incompetent.31295

       (G) "Health care" means any care, treatment, service, or 31296
procedure to maintain, diagnose, or treat an individual's physical 31297
or mental condition or physical or mental health.31298

       (H) "Health care decision" means informed consent, refusal to 31299
give informed consent, or withdrawal of informed consent to health 31300
care.31301

       (I) "Health care facility" means any of the following:31302

       (1) A hospital;31303

       (2) A hospice care program, pediatric respite care program, 31304
or other institution that specializes in comfort care of patients 31305
in a terminal condition or in a permanently unconscious state;31306

       (3) A nursing home;31307

       (4) A home health agency;31308

       (5) An intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded31309
individuals with intellectual disabilities;31310

       (6) A regulated community mental health organization.31311

       (J) "Health care personnel" means physicians, nurses, 31312
physician assistants, emergency medical technicians-basic, 31313
emergency medical technicians-intermediate, emergency medical 31314
technicians-paramedic, medical technicians, dietitians, other 31315
authorized persons acting under the direction of an attending 31316
physician, and administrators of health care facilities.31317

       (K) "Home health agency" has the same meaning as in section 31318
3701.881 of the Revised Code.31319

       (L) "Hospice care program" and "pediatric respite care 31320
program" have the same meanings as in section 3712.01 of the 31321
Revised Code.31322

       (M) "Hospital" has the same meanings as in sections 3701.01, 31323
3727.01, and 5122.01 of the Revised Code.31324

       (N) "Hydration" means fluids that are artificially or 31325
technologically administered.31326

       (O) "Incompetent" has the same meaning as in section 2111.01 31327
of the Revised Code.31328

       (P) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded31329
individuals with intellectual disabilities" has the same meaning 31330
as in section 5111.205124.01 of the Revised Code.31331

       (Q) "Life-sustaining treatment" means any medical procedure, 31332
treatment, intervention, or other measure that, when administered 31333
to a principal, will serve principally to prolong the process of 31334
dying.31335

       (R) "Medical claim" has the same meaning as in section 31336
2305.113 of the Revised Code.31337

       (S) "Mental health treatment" has the same meaning as in 31338
section 2135.01 of the Revised Code.31339

       (T) "Nursing home" has the same meaning as in section 3721.01 31340
of the Revised Code.31341

       (U) "Nutrition" means sustenance that is artificially or 31342
technologically administered.31343

       (V) "Permanently unconscious state" means a state of 31344
permanent unconsciousness in a principal that, to a reasonable 31345
degree of medical certainty as determined in accordance with 31346
reasonable medical standards by the principal's attending 31347
physician and one other physician who has examined the principal, 31348
is characterized by both of the following:31349

       (1) Irreversible unawareness of one's being and environment.31350

       (2) Total loss of cerebral cortical functioning, resulting in 31351
the principal having no capacity to experience pain or suffering.31352

       (W) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 1.59 of the 31353
Revised Code and additionally includes political subdivisions and 31354
governmental agencies, boards, commissions, departments, 31355
institutions, offices, and other instrumentalities.31356

       (X) "Physician" means a person who is authorized under 31357
Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery 31358
or osteopathic medicine and surgery.31359

       (Y) "Political subdivision" and "state" have the same 31360
meanings as in section 2744.01 of the Revised Code.31361

       (Z) "Professional disciplinary action" means action taken by 31362
the board or other entity that regulates the professional conduct 31363
of health care personnel, including the state medical board and 31364
the board of nursing.31365

       (AA) "Regulated community mental health organization" means a 31366
residential facility as defined and licensed under section 5119.2231367
5119.34 of the Revised Code or a community mental health agency31368
services provider as defined in section 5122.01 of the Revised 31369
Code.31370

        (BB) "Terminal condition" means an irreversible, incurable, 31371
and untreatable condition caused by disease, illness, or injury 31372
from which, to a reasonable degree of medical certainty as 31373
determined in accordance with reasonable medical standards by a 31374
principal's attending physician and one other physician who has 31375
examined the principal, both of the following apply:31376

       (1) There can be no recovery.31377

       (2) Death is likely to occur within a relatively short time 31378
if life-sustaining treatment is not administered.31379

       (CC) "Tort action" means a civil action for damages for 31380
injury, death, or loss to person or property, other than a civil 31381
action for damages for a breach of contract or another agreement 31382
between persons.31383

       Sec. 1347.08.  (A) Every state or local agency that maintains 31384
a personal information system, upon the request and the proper 31385
identification of any person who is the subject of personal 31386
information in the system, shall:31387

       (1) Inform the person of the existence of any personal 31388
information in the system of which the person is the subject;31389

       (2) Except as provided in divisions (C) and (E)(2) of this 31390
section, permit the person, the person's legal guardian, or an 31391
attorney who presents a signed written authorization made by the 31392
person, to inspect all personal information in the system of which 31393
the person is the subject;31394

       (3) Inform the person about the types of uses made of the 31395
personal information, including the identity of any users usually 31396
granted access to the system.31397

       (B) Any person who wishes to exercise a right provided by 31398
this section may be accompanied by another individual of the 31399
person's choice.31400

       (C)(1) A state or local agency, upon request, shall disclose 31401
medical, psychiatric, or psychological information to a person who 31402
is the subject of the information or to the person's legal 31403
guardian, unless a physician, psychiatrist, or psychologist 31404
determines for the agency that the disclosure of the information 31405
is likely to have an adverse effect on the person, in which case 31406
the information shall be released to a physician, psychiatrist, or 31407
psychologist who is designated by the person or by the person's 31408
legal guardian.31409

       (2) Upon the signed written request of either a licensed 31410
attorney at law or a licensed physician designated by the inmate, 31411
together with the signed written request of an inmate of a 31412
correctional institution under the administration of the 31413
department of rehabilitation and correction, the department shall 31414
disclose medical information to the designated attorney or 31415
physician as provided in division (C) of section 5120.21 of the 31416
Revised Code.31417

       (D) If an individual who is authorized to inspect personal 31418
information that is maintained in a personal information system 31419
requests the state or local agency that maintains the system to 31420
provide a copy of any personal information that the individual is 31421
authorized to inspect, the agency shall provide a copy of the 31422
personal information to the individual. Each state and local 31423
agency may establish reasonable fees for the service of copying, 31424
upon request, personal information that is maintained by the 31425
agency.31426

       (E)(1) This section regulates access to personal information 31427
that is maintained in a personal information system by persons who 31428
are the subject of the information, but does not limit the 31429
authority of any person, including a person who is the subject of 31430
personal information maintained in a personal information system, 31431
to inspect or have copied, pursuant to section 149.43 of the 31432
Revised Code, a public record as defined in that section.31433

       (2) This section does not provide a person who is the subject 31434
of personal information maintained in a personal information 31435
system, the person's legal guardian, or an attorney authorized by 31436
the person, with a right to inspect or have copied, or require an 31437
agency that maintains a personal information system to permit the 31438
inspection of or to copy, a confidential law enforcement 31439
investigatory record or trial preparation record, as defined in 31440
divisions (A)(2) and (4) of section 149.43 of the Revised Code.31441

       (F) This section does not apply to any of the following:31442

       (1) The contents of an adoption file maintained by the 31443
department of health under section 3705.12 of the Revised Code;31444

       (2) Information contained in the putative father registry 31445
established by section 3107.062 of the Revised Code, regardless of 31446
whether the information is held by the department of job and 31447
family services or, pursuant to section 3111.69 of the Revised 31448
Code, the office of child support in the department or a child 31449
support enforcement agency;31450

       (3) Papers, records, and books that pertain to an adoption 31451
and that are subject to inspection in accordance with section 31452
3107.17 of the Revised Code;31453

       (4) Records listed in division (A) of section 3107.42 of the 31454
Revised Code or specified in division (A) of section 3107.52 of 31455
the Revised Code;31456

       (5) Records that identify an individual described in division 31457
(A)(1) of section 3721.031 of the Revised Code, or that would tend 31458
to identify such an individual;31459

       (6) Files and records that have been expunged under division 31460
(D)(1) or (2) of section 3721.23 of the Revised Code;31461

       (7) Records that identify an individual described in division 31462
(A)(1) of section 3721.25 of the Revised Code, or that would tend 31463
to identify such an individual;31464

       (8) Records that identify an individual described in division 31465
(A)(1) of section 5111.615165.88 of the Revised Code, or that 31466
would tend to identify such an individual;31467

       (9) Test materials, examinations, or evaluation tools used in 31468
an examination for licensure as a nursing home administrator that 31469
the board of examinersexecutives of nursing home administrators31470
long-term services and supports administers under section 4751.04 31471
of the Revised Code or contracts under that section with a private 31472
or government entity to administer;31473

       (10) Information contained in a database established and 31474
maintained pursuant to section 5101.13 of the Revised Code.31475

       Sec. 1501.011. (A) TheExcept as provided in divisions (B), 31476
(C), and (D) of this section, the Ohio facilities construction 31477
commission shall supervise the design and construction of, and 31478
make contracts for the construction, reconstruction, improvement, 31479
enlargement, alteration, repair, or decoration of, any projects or 31480
improvements for the department of natural resources has the 31481
following powers in addition to its other powers: to prepare, or 31482
contract to be prepared, surveys, general and detailed plans, 31483
specifications, bills of materials, and estimates of cost for, to 31484
enter into contracts for, and to supervise the performance of 31485
labor, the furnishing of materials, or the construction, repair, 31486
or maintenance of any projects, improvements, or buildings, on 31487
lands and waters under the control of the department, asthat may 31488
be authorized by legislative appropriations or any other funds 31489
available therefor, the estimated cost of which amounts to two 31490
hundred thousand dollars or more or the amount determined pursuant 31491
to section 153.53 of the Revised Code or more.31492

       (B) Except as provided in division (E) of this section, the 31493
director of natural resources shall publish notice in a newspaper 31494
of general circulation in the region where the activity for which 31495
bids are submitted is to occur and in any other newspapers that 31496
the director determines are appropriate, at least once each week 31497
for four consecutive weeks, the last publication to be at least 31498
eight days preceding the day for opening bids, seeking proposals 31499
on each contract for the performance of labor, the furnishing of 31500
materials, or the construction, repair, or maintenance of 31501
projects, improvements, or buildings, as necessary for compliance 31502
with provisions of the act to make appropriations for capital 31503
improvements or the act to make general appropriations, and the 31504
director may also advertise in such trade journals as will afford 31505
adequate information to the public of the terms of the contract 31506
and the nature of the work to be performed, together with the time 31507
of the letting and place and manner of receiving proposals, and 31508
the places where plans and specifications are on file. A proposal 31509
is invalid and shall not be considered by the department unless 31510
the form for proposals specified by the department is used without 31511
change, alteration, or additionThe department of natural 31512
resources shall administer the construction of improvements under 31513
an agreement with the supervisors of a soil and water conservation 31514
district pursuant to division (I) of section 1515.08 of the 31515
Revised Code.31516

       (C) Each bidder for a contract for the performance of labor, 31517
the furnishing of materials, or the maintenance, construction, 31518
demolition, alteration, repair, or reconstruction of an 31519
improvement shall meet the requirements of section 153.54 of the 31520
Revised Code. The director may require each bidder to furnish 31521
under oath, upon such printed forms as the director may prescribe, 31522
detailed information with respect to the bidder's financial 31523
resources, equipment, past performance record, organization 31524
personnel, and experience, together with such other information as 31525
the director considers necessary.31526

       (D) The director shall award the contract to the lowest 31527
responsive and responsible bidder in accordance with section 9.312 31528
of the Revised Code. The award shall be made within a reasonable 31529
time after the date on which the bids were opened, and the 31530
successful bidder shall enter into a contract within ten days from 31531
the date the successful bidder is notified that the contract has 31532
been awarded, or within any longer period that the director 31533
considers necessary. Nothing in this section shall preclude the 31534
rejection of any bid the acceptance of which is not in the best 31535
interests of the state. No contract shall be entered into until 31536
the bureau of workers' compensation has certified that the 31537
corporation, partnership, or person awarded the contract has 31538
complied with Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code and until, if the 31539
bidder awarded the contract is a foreign corporation, the 31540
secretary of state has certified that the corporation is 31541
authorized to do business in this state, and until, if the bidder 31542
so awarded the contract is a person or partnership nonresident of 31543
this state, the person or partnership has filed with the secretary 31544
of state a power of attorney designating the secretary of state as 31545
its agency for the purpose of accepting service of process.31546

       (E) With respect to the director's entering into a contract 31547
for the performance of labor, the furnishing of materials, or the 31548
construction, repair, or maintenance of any projects, 31549
improvements, or buildings on lands and waters under the control 31550
of the department, both of the following apply:31551

       (1) The director is not required to advertise for and receive 31552
bids if the total estimated cost of the contract is less than 31553
twenty-five thousand dollars.31554

       (2) The director is not required to advertise for bids, 31555
regardless of the cost of the contract, if the(1) The department 31556
of natural resources shall supervise the design and construction 31557
of, and make contracts for the construction, reconstruction, 31558
improvement, enlargement, alteration, repair, or decoration of, 31559
any of the following activities, projects, or improvements:31560

       (a) Dam repairs administered by the division of engineering 31561
under Chapter 1507. of the Revised Code;31562

       (b) Projects or improvements administered by the division of 31563
watercraft and funded through the waterways safety fund 31564
established in section 1547.75 of the Revised Code;31565

       (c) Projects or improvements administered by the division of 31566
wildlife under Chapter 1531. or 1533. of the Revised Code;31567

       (d) Activities conducted by the department pursuant to 31568
section 5511.05 of the Revised Code in order to maintain the 31569
department's roadway inventory.31570

       (2) If a contract to be let under division (C)(1) of this 31571
section involves an exigency that concerns the public health, 31572
safety, or welfare or addresses an emergency situation in which 31573
timeliness is crucial in preventing the cost of the contract from 31574
increasing significantly. Regarding such a contract, the director 31575
may solicit bids by sending a letter to a minimum of three 31576
contractors in the region where the contract is to be let or by 31577
any other means that the director considers appropriate.31578

       (F) The director may insert in any contract awarded under 31579
this section a clause providing for value engineering change 31580
proposals, under which a contractor who has been awarded a 31581
contract may propose a change in the plans and specifications of 31582
the project that saves the department time or money on the project 31583
without impairing any of the essential functions and 31584
characteristics of the project such as service life, reliability, 31585
economy of operation, ease of maintenance, safety, and necessary 31586
standardized features. If the director adopts the value 31587
engineering proposal, the savings from the proposal shall be 31588
divided between the department and the contractor according to 31589
guidelines established by the director, provided that the 31590
contractor shall receive at least fifty per cent of the savings 31591
from the proposal. The adoption of a value engineering proposal 31592
does not invalidate the award of the contract or require the 31593
director to rebid the project.31594

       (G) When in the opinion of the department the work under any 31595
contract made under this section or any law of the state is 31596
neglected by the contractor, the work completed is deficient in 31597
quality or materials, or the work is not prosecuted with the 31598
diligence and force specified or intended in the contract, the 31599
department may require the contractor to provide, at no additional 31600
expense to the department, any additional labor and materials that 31601
are necessary to complete the improvements at the level of quality 31602
and within the time of performance specified in the contract. 31603
Procedures concerning such a requirement together with its format 31604
shall be specified in the contract. If the contractor fails to 31605
comply with the requirement within the period specified in the 31606
contract, the department may take action to complete the work 31607
through other means, up to and including termination of the 31608
contract.31609

       (H) When an exigency occurs or there is immediate danger of 31610
an exigency that would materially impair the successful bidding, 31611
construction, or completion of a project, improvement, or 31612
building, the director may revise related plans and specifications 31613
as necessary to address the exigency through the issuance of an 31614
addendum prior to the opening of bids or, in accordance with 31615
procedures established in section 153.62 of the Revised Code, 31616
through the issuance of a change order after the contract has been 31617
awarded, pursuant to the declaration of a public exigency, the 31618
department may award the contract without competitive bidding or 31619
selection as otherwise required by Chapter 153. of the Revised 31620
Code.31621

       (D) The executive director of the Ohio facilities 31622
construction commission may authorize the department of natural 31623
resources to administer any other project or improvement, the 31624
estimated cost of which, including design fees, construction, 31625
equipment, and contingency amounts, is not more than one million 31626
five hundred thousand dollars.31627

       Sec. 1501.45.  (A) As used in this section:31628

       (1) "Forfeiture laws" means provisions that are established 31629
in Title XXIX of the Revised Code and that govern the forfeiture 31630
and disposition of certain property that is seized pursuant to a 31631
law enforcement investigation.31632

       (2) "Law enforcement division" means the division of 31633
forestry, the division of natural areas and preserves, the 31634
division of wildlife, the division of parks and recreation, or the 31635
division of watercraft in the department of natural resources.31636

       (3) "Law enforcement fund" means a fund created in this 31637
section.31638

       (B) Except as otherwise provided in this section and 31639
notwithstanding any provision of the Revised Code that is not in 31640
Title XV of the Revised Code to the contrary, the forfeiture laws 31641
apply to a law enforcement division that substantially conducts an 31642
investigation that results in the ordered forfeiture of property 31643
and also apply to the involved forfeiture of property, and the law 31644
enforcement division shall comply with those forfeiture laws. 31645
Accordingly, the portion of the forfeiture laws that authorizes 31646
certain proceeds from forfeited property to be distributed to the 31647
law enforcement agency that substantially conducted the 31648
investigation that resulted in the seizure of the subsequently 31649
forfeited property apply to the law enforcement divisions except 31650
as provided in division (C)(2)(a) of this section. If a law 31651
enforcement division is eligible to receive such proceeds, the 31652
proceeds shall be deposited into the state treasury to the credit 31653
of the applicable law enforcement fund.31654

       (C)(1) There are hereby created in the state treasury the 31655
division of forestry law enforcement fund, the division of natural 31656
areas and preserves law enforcement fund, the division of wildlife 31657
law enforcement fund, the division of parks and recreation law 31658
enforcement fund, and the division of watercraft law enforcement 31659
fund. The31660

       (2) The funds shall consist of proceeds from forfeited 31661
property that are deposited in accordance with this section. The31662
as follows:31663

       (a) Proceeds from forfeited property resulting from an 31664
investigation conducted by the division of forestry, the division 31665
of natural areas and preserves, or the division of parks and 31666
recreation shall be deposited in the division of parks and 31667
recreation law enforcement fund.31668

       (b) Proceeds from forfeited property resulting from an 31669
investigation conducted by the division of wildlife shall be 31670
deposited in the division of wildlife law enforcement fund.31671

       (c) Proceeds from forfeited property resulting from an 31672
investigation conducted by the division of watercraft shall be 31673
deposited in the division of watercraft law enforcement fund.31674

       (3) The funds shall be used by the applicable law enforcement 31675
division for law enforcement purposes specified in the forfeiture 31676
laws; however, aas follows:31677

       (a) Money in the division of parks and recreation law 31678
enforcement fund shall be used by the division of parks and 31679
recreation.31680

       (b) Money in the division of wildlife law enforcement fund 31681
shall be used by the division of wildlife.31682

       (c) Money in the division of watercraft law enforcement fund 31683
shall be used by the division of watercraft.31684

       (4) A law enforcement division shall not use such fundsits 31685
fund to pay the salaries of its employees or to provide for any 31686
other remuneration of personnel.31687

       (D) If the forfeiture laws conflict with any provisions that 31688
govern forfeitures and that are established in another section of 31689
Title XV of the Revised Code, the provisions established in the 31690
other section of Title XV apply.31691

       Sec. 1506.21.  (A) There is hereby created the Ohio Lake Erie 31692
commission, consisting of the directors of environmental 31693
protection, natural resources, health, agriculture, and31694
transportation, and development services, or their designees, and 31695
five additional members appointed by the governor who shall serve 31696
at the pleasure of the governor. The members of the commission 31697
annually shall designate a chairperson, who shall preside at the 31698
meetings of the commission, and a secretary.31699

       The commission shall hold at least one meeting every three 31700
months. The secretary of the commission shall keep a record of its 31701
proceedings. Special meetings shall be held at the call of the 31702
chairperson or upon the request of four members of the commission. 31703
All meetings and records of the commission shall be open to the 31704
public. Six members of the commission constitute a quorum. The 31705
agencies represented on the commission shall furnish clerical, 31706
technical, and other services required by the commission in the 31707
performance of its duties.31708

       (B) The commission shall do all of the following:31709

       (1) Ensure the coordination of state and local policies and 31710
programs pertaining to Lake Erie water quality, toxic pollution 31711
control, and resource protection;31712

       (2) Review, and make recommendations concerning, the 31713
development and implementation of policies, programs, and issues 31714
for long-term, comprehensive protection of Lake Erie water 31715
resources and water quality that are consistent with the great 31716
lakes water quality agreement and the great lakes toxic substances 31717
control agreement;31718

       (3) Recommend policies and programs to modify the coastal 31719
management program of this state;31720

       (4) At each regular meeting, consider matters relating to the 31721
implementation of sections 1506.22 and 1506.23 of the Revised 31722
Code;31723

       (5) Publish and submit the Lake Erie protection agenda in 31724
accordance with division (C) of section 1506.23 of the Revised 31725
Code;31726

       (6) Ensure the implementation of a basinwide approach to Lake 31727
Erie issues;31728

       (7) Increase representation of the interests of this state in 31729
state, regional, national, and international forums pertaining to 31730
the resources and water quality of Lake Erie and the Lake Erie 31731
basin;31732

       (8) Promote education concerning the wise management of the 31733
resources of Lake Erie;31734

       (9) Establish public advisory councils as considered 31735
necessary to assist in programs established under this section and 31736
sections 1506.22 and 1506.23 of the Revised Code. Members of the 31737
public advisory councils shall represent a broad cross section of 31738
interests, shall have experience or expertise in the subject for 31739
which the advisory council was established, and shall serve 31740
without compensation.31741

       (10) Prepare and submit the report required under division 31742
(D) of section 1506.23 of the Revised Code.31743

       (C) Each state agency, upon the request of the commission, 31744
shall cooperate in the implementation of this section and sections 31745
1506.22 and 1506.23 of the Revised Code.31746

       Sec. 1506.30.  As used in sections 1506.30 to 1506.36 of the 31747
Revised Code:31748

       (A) "Abandoned property" means a submerged aircraft; a 31749
submerged watercraft, including a ship, boat, canoe, skiff, raft, 31750
or barge; the rigging, gear, fittings, trappings, and equipment of 31751
a submerged aircraft or watercraft; the personal property of the 31752
officers, crew, and passengers of a submerged aircraft or 31753
watercraft; the cargo of a submerged aircraft or watercraft that 31754
has been deserted, relinquished, cast away, or left behind and for 31755
which attempts at reclamation have been abandoned by the owners 31756
and insurers; and submerged materials resulting from activities of 31757
prehistoric and historic native Americans.31758

       (B) "Lake Erie" means that portion of the waters and lands of 31759
Lake Erie belonging to the state as provided in section 1506.10 of 31760
the Revised Code.31761

       (C) "Historical value" means the quality of significance 31762
exemplified by an object, structure, site, or district that is 31763
included in or eligible for inclusion in the state registry of 31764
archaeological landmarks authorized under section 149.51 of the 31765
Revised Code, the state registry of historic landmarks authorized 31766
under section 149.55 of the Revised Code, or the national register 31767
of historic places.31768

       (D) "Marine surveyor" means a person engaged in the business 31769
of mapping or surveying submerged lands and abandoned property.31770

       (E) "Mechanical or other assistance" means all artificial 31771
devices used to raise or remove artifacts from abandoned property, 31772
including pry bars, wrenches and other hand or power tools, 31773
cutting torches, explosives, winches, flotation bags, lines to 31774
surface, extra divers buoyancy devices, and other buoyancy 31775
devices.31776

       (F) "Recreational value" means value relating to an activity 31777
in which the public engages or may engage for recreation or sport, 31778
including scuba diving and fishing, as determined by the director 31779
of natural resources.31780

       Sec. 1509.01.  As used in this chapter:31781

       (A) "Well" means any borehole, whether drilled or bored, 31782
within the state for production, extraction, or injection of any 31783
gas or liquid mineral, excluding potable water to be used as such, 31784
but including natural or artificial brines and oil field waters.31785

       (B) "Oil" means crude petroleum oil and all other 31786
hydrocarbons, regardless of gravity, that are produced in liquid 31787
form by ordinary production methods, but does not include 31788
hydrocarbons that were originally in a gaseous phase in the 31789
reservoir.31790

       (C) "Gas" means all natural gas and all other fluid 31791
hydrocarbons that are not oil, including condensate.31792

       (D) "Condensate" means liquid hydrocarbons separated at or 31793
near the well pad or along the gas production or gathering system 31794
prior to gas processing.31795

       (E) "Pool" means an underground reservoir containing a common 31796
accumulation of oil or gas, or both, but does not include a gas 31797
storage reservoir. Each zone of a geological structure that is 31798
completely separated from any other zone in the same structure may 31799
contain a separate pool.31800

       (F) "Field" means the general area underlaid by one or more 31801
pools.31802

       (G) "Drilling unit" means the minimum acreage on which one 31803
well may be drilled, but does not apply to a well for injecting 31804
gas into or removing gas from a gas storage reservoir.31805

       (H) "Waste" includes all of the following:31806

       (1) Physical waste, as that term generally is understood in 31807
the oil and gas industry;31808

       (2) Inefficient, excessive, or improper use, or the 31809
unnecessary dissipation, of reservoir energy;31810

       (3) Inefficient storing of oil or gas;31811

       (4) Locating, drilling, equipping, operating, or producing an 31812
oil or gas well in a manner that reduces or tends to reduce the 31813
quantity of oil or gas ultimately recoverable under prudent and 31814
proper operations from the pool into which it is drilled or that 31815
causes or tends to cause unnecessary or excessive surface loss or 31816
destruction of oil or gas;31817

       (5) Other underground or surface waste in the production or 31818
storage of oil, gas, or condensate, however caused.31819

       (I) "Correlative rights" means the reasonable opportunity to 31820
every person entitled thereto to recover and receive the oil and 31821
gas in and under the person's tract or tracts, or the equivalent 31822
thereof, without having to drill unnecessary wells or incur other 31823
unnecessary expense.31824

       (J) "Tract" means a single, individually taxed parcel of land 31825
appearing on the tax list.31826

       (K) "Owner," unless referring to a mine, means the person who 31827
has the right to drill on a tract or drilling unit, to drill into 31828
and produce from a pool, and to appropriate the oil or gas 31829
produced therefrom either for the person or for others, except 31830
that a person ceases to be an owner with respect to a well when 31831
the well has been plugged in accordance with applicable rules 31832
adopted and orders issued under this chapter. "Owner" does not 31833
include a person who obtains a lease of the mineral rights for oil 31834
and gas on a parcel of land if the person does not attempt to 31835
produce or produce oil or gas from a well or obtain a permit under 31836
this chapter for a well or if the entire interest of a well is 31837
transferred to the person in accordance with division (B) of 31838
section 1509.31 of the Revised Code.31839

       (L) "Royalty interest" means the fee holder's share in the 31840
production from a well.31841

       (M) "Discovery well" means the first well capable of 31842
producing oil or gas in commercial quantities from a pool.31843

       (N) "Prepared clay" means a clay that is plastic and is 31844
thoroughly saturated with fresh water to a weight and consistency 31845
great enough to settle through saltwater in the well in which it 31846
is to be used, except as otherwise approved by the chief of the 31847
division of oil and gas resources management.31848

       (O) "Rock sediment" means the combined cutting and residue 31849
from drilling sedimentary rocks and formation.31850

       (P) "Excavations and workings," "mine," and "pillar" have the 31851
same meanings as in section 1561.01 of the Revised Code.31852

       (Q) "Coal bearing township" means a township designated as 31853
such by the chief of the division of mineral resources management 31854
under section 1561.06 of the Revised Code.31855

       (R) "Gas storage reservoir" means a continuous area of a 31856
subterranean porous sand or rock stratum or strata into which gas 31857
is or may be injected for the purpose of storing it therein and 31858
removing it therefrom and includes a gas storage reservoir as 31859
defined in section 1571.01 of the Revised Code.31860

       (S) "Safe Drinking Water Act" means the "Safe Drinking Water 31861
Act," 88 Stat. 1661 (1974), 42 U.S.C.A. 300(f), as amended by the 31862
"Safe Drinking Water Amendments of 1977," 91 Stat. 1393, 42 31863
U.S.C.A. 300(f), the "Safe Drinking Water Act Amendments of 1986," 31864
100 Stat. 642, 42 U.S.C.A. 300(f), and the "Safe Drinking Water 31865
Act Amendments of 1996," 110 Stat. 1613, 42 U.S.C.A. 300(f), and 31866
regulations adopted under those acts.31867

       (T) "Person" includes any political subdivision, department, 31868
agency, or instrumentality of this state; the United States and 31869
any department, agency, or instrumentality thereof; and any legal 31870
entity defined as a person under section 1.59 of the Revised Code.31871

       (U) "Brine" means all saline geological formation water 31872
resulting from, obtained from, or produced in connection with 31873
exploration, drilling, well stimulation, production of oil or gas, 31874
or plugging of a well.31875

       (V) "Waters of the state" means all streams, lakes, ponds, 31876
marshes, watercourses, waterways, springs, irrigation systems, 31877
drainage systems, and other bodies of water, surface or 31878
underground, natural or artificial, that are situated wholly or 31879
partially within this state or within its jurisdiction, except 31880
those private waters that do not combine or effect a junction with 31881
natural surface or underground waters.31882

       (W) "Exempt Mississippian well" means a well that meets all 31883
of the following criteria:31884

       (1) Was drilled and completed before January 1, 1980;31885

       (2) Is located in an unglaciated part of the state;31886

       (3) Was completed in a reservoir no deeper than the 31887
Mississippian Big Injun sandstone in areas underlain by 31888
Pennsylvanian or Permian stratigraphy, or the Mississippian Berea 31889
sandstone in areas directly underlain by Permian stratigraphy;31890

       (4) Is used primarily to provide oil or gas for domestic use.31891

       (X) "Exempt domestic well" means a well that meets all of the 31892
following criteria:31893

       (1) Is owned by the owner of the surface estate of the tract 31894
on which the well is located;31895

       (2) Is used primarily to provide gas for the owner's domestic 31896
use;31897

       (3) Is located more than two hundred feet horizontal distance 31898
from any inhabited private dwelling house other than an inhabited 31899
private dwelling house located on the tract on which the well is 31900
located;31901

       (4) Is located more than two hundred feet horizontal distance 31902
from any public building that may be used as a place of resort, 31903
assembly, education, entertainment, lodging, trade, manufacture, 31904
repair, storage, traffic, or occupancy by the public.31905

       (Y) "Urbanized area" means an area where a well or production 31906
facilities of a well are located within a municipal corporation or 31907
within a township that has an unincorporated population of more 31908
than five thousand in the most recent federal decennial census 31909
prior to the issuance of the permit for the well or production 31910
facilities.31911

       (Z) "Well stimulation" or "stimulation of a well" means the 31912
process of enhancing well productivity, including hydraulic 31913
fracturing operations.31914

       (AA) "Production operation" means all operations and 31915
activities and all related equipment, facilities, and other 31916
structures that may be used in or associated with the exploration 31917
and production of oil, gas, or other mineral resources that are 31918
regulated under this chapter, including operations and activities 31919
associated with site preparation, site construction, access road 31920
construction, well drilling, well completion, well stimulation, 31921
well site activities, reclamation, and plugging. "Production 31922
operation" also includes all of the following:31923

       (1) The piping, equipment, and facilities used for the 31924
production and preparation of hydrocarbon gas or liquids for 31925
transportation or delivery;31926

       (2) The processes of extraction and recovery, lifting, 31927
stabilization, treatment, separation, production processing, 31928
storage, waste disposal, and measurement of hydrocarbon gas and 31929
liquids, including related equipment and facilities;31930

       (3) The processes and related equipment and facilities 31931
associated with production compression, gas lift, gas injection, 31932
fuel gas supply, well drilling, well stimulation, and well 31933
completion activities, including dikes, pits, and earthen and 31934
other impoundments used for the temporary storage of fluids and 31935
waste substances associated with well drilling, well stimulation, 31936
and well completion activities;31937

       (4) Equipment and facilities at a wellpad or other location 31938
that are used for the transportation, handling, recycling, 31939
temporary storage, management, processing, or treatment of any 31940
equipment, material, and by-products or other substances from an 31941
operation at a wellpad that may be used or reused at the same or 31942
another operation at a wellpad or that will be disposed of in 31943
accordance with applicable laws and rules adopted under them.31944

       (BB) "Annular overpressurization" means the accumulation of 31945
fluids within an annulus with sufficient pressure to allow 31946
migration of annular fluids into underground sources of drinking 31947
water.31948

       (CC) "Idle and orphaned well" means a well for which a bond 31949
has been forfeited or an abandoned well for which no money is 31950
available to plug the well in accordance with this chapter and 31951
rules adopted under it.31952

       (DD) "Temporarily inactive well" means a well that has been 31953
granted temporary inactive status under section 1509.062 of the 31954
Revised Code.31955

       (EE) "Material and substantial violation" means any of the 31956
following:31957

       (1) Failure to obtain a permit to drill, reopen, convert, 31958
plugback, or plug a well under this chapter;31959

       (2) Failure to obtain, maintain, update, or submit proof of 31960
insurance coverage that is required under this chapter;31961

       (3) Failure to obtain, maintain, update, or submit proof of a 31962
surety bond that is required under this chapter;31963

       (4) Failure to plug an abandoned well or idle and orphaned 31964
well unless the well has been granted temporary inactive status 31965
under section 1509.062 of the Revised Code or the chief of the 31966
division of oil and gas resources management has approved another 31967
option concerning the abandoned well or idle and orphaned well;31968

       (5) Failure to restore a disturbed land surface as required 31969
by section 1509.072 of the Revised Code;31970

       (6) Failure to reimburse the oil and gas well fund pursuant 31971
to a final order issued under section 1509.071 of the Revised 31972
Code;31973

       (7) Failure to comply with a final nonappealable order of the 31974
chief issued under section 1509.04 of the Revised Code;31975

       (8) Failure to submit a report, test result, fee, or document 31976
that is required in this chapter or rules adopted under it.31977

       (FF) "Severer" has the same meaning as in section 5749.01 of 31978
the Revised Code.31979

       (GG) "Horizontal well" means a well that is drilled for the 31980
production of oil or gas in which the wellbore reaches a 31981
horizontal or near horizontal position in the Point Pleasant, 31982
Utica, or Marcellus formation and the well is stimulated.31983

       (HH) "Well pad" means the area that is cleared or prepared 31984
for the drilling of one or more horizontal wells.31985

       Sec. 1509.02.  There is hereby created in the department of 31986
natural resources the division of oil and gas resources 31987
management, which shall be administered by the chief of the 31988
division of oil and gas resources management. The division has 31989
sole and exclusive authority to regulate the permitting, location, 31990
and spacing of oil and gas wells and production operations within 31991
the state, excepting only those activities regulated under federal 31992
laws for which oversight has been delegated to the environmental 31993
protection agency and activities regulated under sections 6111.02 31994
to 6111.0296111.028 of the Revised Code. The regulation of oil 31995
and gas activities is a matter of general statewide interest that 31996
requires uniform statewide regulation, and this chapter and rules 31997
adopted under it constitute a comprehensive plan with respect to 31998
all aspects of the locating, drilling, well stimulation, 31999
completing, and operating of oil and gas wells within this state, 32000
including site construction and restoration, permitting related to 32001
those activities, and the disposal of wastes from those wells. In 32002
order to assist the division in the furtherance of its sole and 32003
exclusive authority as established in this section, the chief may 32004
enter into cooperative agreements with other state agencies for 32005
advice and consultation, including visitations at the surface 32006
location of a well on behalf of the division. Such cooperative 32007
agreements do not confer on other state agencies any authority to 32008
administer or enforce this chapter and rules adopted under it. In 32009
addition, such cooperative agreements shall not be construed to 32010
dilute or diminish the division's sole and exclusive authority as 32011
established in this section. Nothing in this section affects the 32012
authority granted to the director of transportation and local 32013
authorities in section 723.01 or 4513.34 of the Revised Code, 32014
provided that the authority granted under those sections shall not 32015
be exercised in a manner that discriminates against, unfairly 32016
impedes, or obstructs oil and gas activities and operations 32017
regulated under this chapter.32018

       The chief shall not hold any other public office, nor shall 32019
the chief be engaged in any occupation or business that might 32020
interfere with or be inconsistent with the duties as chief.32021

       All moneys collected by the chief pursuant to sections 32022
1509.06, 1509.061, 1509.062, 1509.071, 1509.13, 1509.22, 1509.222, 32023
1509.28, 1509.34, and 1509.50 of the Revised Code, ninety per cent 32024
of moneys received by the treasurer of state from the tax levied 32025
in divisions (A)(5) and (6) of section 5749.02 of the Revised 32026
Code, all civil penalties paid under section 1509.33 of the 32027
Revised Code, and, notwithstanding any section of the Revised Code 32028
relating to the distribution or crediting of fines for violations 32029
of the Revised Code, all fines imposed under divisions (A) and (B) 32030
of section 1509.99 of the Revised Code and fines imposed under 32031
divisions (C) and (D) of section 1509.99 of the Revised Code for 32032
all violations prosecuted by the attorney general and for 32033
violations prosecuted by prosecuting attorneys that do not involve 32034
the transportation of brine by vehicle shall be deposited into the 32035
state treasury to the credit of the oil and gas well fund, which 32036
is hereby created. Fines imposed under divisions (C) and (D) of 32037
section 1509.99 of the Revised Code for violations prosecuted by 32038
prosecuting attorneys that involve the transportation of brine by 32039
vehicle and penalties associated with a compliance agreement 32040
entered into pursuant to this chapter shall be paid to the county 32041
treasury of the county where the violation occurred.32042

       The fund shall be used solely and exclusively for the 32043
purposes enumerated in division (B) of section 1509.071 of the 32044
Revised Code, for the expenses of the division associated with the 32045
administration of this chapter and Chapter 1571. of the Revised 32046
Code and rules adopted under them, and for expenses that are 32047
critical and necessary for the protection of human health and 32048
safety and the environment related to oil and gas production in 32049
this state. The expenses of the division in excess of the moneys 32050
available in the fund shall be paid from general revenue fund 32051
appropriations to the department.32052

       Sec. 1509.062. (A)(1) The owner of a well that has not been 32053
completed, a well that has not produced within one year after 32054
completion, or an existing well that is not a horizontal well and32055
that has no reported production for two consecutive reporting 32056
periods as reported in accordance with section 1509.11 of the 32057
Revised Code, or an existing horizontal well that has no reported 32058
production for eight consecutive reporting periods as reported in 32059
accordance with section 1509.11 of the Revised Code shall plug the 32060
well in accordance with section 1509.12 of the Revised Code, 32061
obtain temporary inactive well status for the well in accordance 32062
with this section, or perform another activity regarding the well 32063
that is approved by the chief of the division of oil and gas 32064
resources management.32065

       (2) If a well has a reported annual production that is less 32066
than one hundred thousand cubic feet of natural gas or fifteen 32067
barrels of crude oil, or a combination thereof, the chief may 32068
require the owner of the well to submit an application for 32069
temporary inactive well status under this section for the well.32070

       (B) In order for the owner of a well to submit an application 32071
for temporary inactive well status for the well under this 32072
division, the owner and the well shall be in compliance with this 32073
chapter and rules adopted under it, any terms and conditions of 32074
the permit for the well, and applicable orders issued by the 32075
chief. An application for temporary inactive status for a well 32076
shall be submitted to the chief on a form prescribed and provided 32077
by the chief and shall contain all of the following:32078

       (1) The owner's name and address and, if the owner is a 32079
corporation, the name and address of the corporation's statutory 32080
agent;32081

       (2) The signature of the owner or of the owner's authorized 32082
agent. When an authorized agent signs an application, the 32083
application shall be accompanied by a certified copy of the 32084
appointment as such agent.32085

       (3) The permit number assigned to the well. If the well has 32086
not been assigned a permit number, the chief shall assign a permit 32087
number to the well.32088

       (4) A map, on a scale not smaller than four hundred feet to 32089
the inch, that shows the location of the well and the tank 32090
battery, that includes the latitude and longitude of the well, and 32091
that contains all other data that are required by the chief;32092

       (5) A demonstration that the well is of future utility and 32093
that the applicant has a viable plan to utilize the well within a 32094
reasonable period of time;32095

       (6) A demonstration that the well poses no threat to the 32096
health or safety of persons, property, or the environment;32097

       (7) Any other relevant information that the chief prescribes 32098
by rule.32099

       The chief may waive any of the requirements established in 32100
divisions (B)(1) to (6) of this section if the division of oil and 32101
gas resources management possesses a current copy of the 32102
information or document that is required in the applicable 32103
division.32104

       (C) Upon receipt of an application for temporary inactive 32105
well status, the chief shall review the application and shall 32106
either deny the application by issuing an order or approve the 32107
application. The chief shall approve the application only if the 32108
chief determines that the well that is the subject of the 32109
application poses no threat to the health or safety of persons, 32110
property, or the environment. If the chief approves the 32111
application, the chief shall notify the applicant of the chief's 32112
approval. Upon receipt of the chief's approval, the owner shall 32113
shut in the well and empty all liquids and gases from all storage 32114
tanks, pipelines, and other equipment associated with the well. In 32115
addition, the owner shall maintain the well, other equipment 32116
associated with the well, and the surface location of the well in 32117
a manner that prevents hazards to the health and safety of people 32118
and the environment. The owner shall inspect the well at least 32119
every six months and submit to the chief within fourteen days 32120
after the inspection a record of inspection on a form prescribed 32121
and provided by the chief.32122

       (D) Not later than thirty days prior to the expiration of 32123
temporary inactive well status or a renewal of temporary inactive 32124
well status approved by the chief for a well, the owner of the 32125
well may submit to the chief an application for renewal of the 32126
temporary inactive well status on a form prescribed and provided 32127
by the chief. The application shall include a detailed plan that 32128
describes the ultimate disposition of the well, the time frames 32129
for that disposition, and any other information that the chief 32130
determines is necessary. The chief shall either deny an 32131
application by order or approve the application. If the chief 32132
approves the application, the chief shall notify the owner of the 32133
well of the chief's approval.32134

       (E) An application for temporary inactive well status shall 32135
be accompanied by a nonrefundable fee of one hundred dollars. An 32136
application for a renewal of temporary inactive well status shall 32137
be accompanied by a nonrefundable fee of two hundred fifty dollars 32138
for the first renewal and five hundred dollars for each subsequent 32139
renewal.32140

       (F) After a third renewal, the chief may require an owner to 32141
provide a surety bond in an amount not to exceed ten thousand 32142
dollars for each of the owner's wells that has been approved by 32143
the chief for temporary inactive well status.32144

       (G) Temporary inactive well status approved by the chief 32145
expires one year after the date of approval of the application for 32146
temporary inactive well status or production from the well 32147
commences, whichever occurs sooner. In addition, a renewal of a 32148
temporary inactive well status expires one year after the 32149
expiration date of the initial temporary inactive well status or 32150
one year after the expiration date of the previous renewal of the 32151
temporary inactive well status, as applicable, or production from 32152
the well commences, whichever occurs sooner.32153

       (H) The owner of a well that has been approved by the chief 32154
for temporary inactive well status may commence production from 32155
the well at any time. Not later than sixty days after the 32156
commencement of production from such a well, the owner shall 32157
notify the chief of the commencement of production.32158

       (I) This chapter and rules adopted under it, any terms and 32159
conditions of the permit for a well, and applicable orders issued 32160
by the chief apply to a well that has been approved by the chief 32161
for temporary inactive well status or renewal of that status.32162

       Sec. 1509.074.  (A) With regard to material that results from 32163
the construction, operation, or plugging of a horizontal well, all 32164
of the following apply:32165

       (1) Except as provided in division (A)(2) of this section, 32166
the owner shall determine the concentration of radium-226 and of 32167
radium-228 in representative samples of the material if the 32168
material is technologically enhanced naturally occurring 32169
radioactive material. The owner shall provide for the collection 32170
and analysis of the representative samples of the material. The 32171
collection and analysis of the representative samples shall be 32172
performed in accordance with requirements approved by the chief of 32173
the division of oil and gas resources management. The owner shall 32174
not remove the material from the location associated with the 32175
production operation of the horizontal well until the analysis is 32176
complete and the results are available. However, the owner may do 32177
one of the following:32178

       (a) Temporarily store the material in an area adjacent to the 32179
location associated with the production operation of the well 32180
while the results from the analysis of the representative samples 32181
are pending if the material is located in an area that is 32182
designated by the division of oil and gas resources management and 32183
the owner complies with all conditions imposed by the chief;32184

       (b) Prior to the collection of representative samples under 32185
division (A)(1) of this section, transport the material to a 32186
location for which a permit or order has been issued under 32187
division (C) of section 1509.22 of the Revised Code. The owner 32188
shall provide for the collection of representative samples of the 32189
material at that location in accordance with that division and 32190
shall temporarily store the material at that location while the 32191
results from the analysis are pending.32192

       (2) The owner is not required to determine the concentration 32193
of radium-226 and of radium-228 of the material that is 32194
technologically enhanced naturally occurring radioactive material 32195
if any of the following applies:32196

       (a) The material is reused in the horizontal well from where 32197
it originated or is transferred to another site for reuse in a 32198
horizontal well. For purposes of division (A)(2)(a) of this 32199
section, a material is reused if the material is used in a 32200
substantially similar manner as it was originally used.32201

       (b) The owner disposes of the material at an injection well 32202
for which a permit has been issued under section 1509.22 of the 32203
Revised Code.32204

       (c) The owner uses the material in association with a method 32205
of enhanced recovery for which a permit has been issued under 32206
section 1509.21 of the Revised Code.32207

       (d) The material is transported out of the state for lawful 32208
disposal. The owner shall retain records that substantiate the 32209
lawful disposal and provide them to the chief upon request.32210

       (3) Except as provided in division (A)(2) of this section, 32211
the owner shall transport and dispose of material that is 32212
technologically enhanced naturally occurring radioactive material 32213
in accordance with all applicable laws.32214

       (4) If the material is not technologically enhanced naturally 32215
occurring radioactive material and the material has come in 32216
contact with a refined oil-based substance, the owner shall do one 32217
of the following:32218

       (a) If the material is removed from the location associated 32219
with the production operation of the well or from a location 32220
specified in a permit or order issued under division (C) of 32221
section 1509.22 of the Revised Code, dispose of the material at a 32222
solid waste facility that is authorized to accept the material in 32223
accordance with Chapter 3734. of the Revised Code and rules 32224
adopted under it;32225

       (b) If the material is removed from the location associated 32226
with the production operation of the well or from a location 32227
specified in a permit or order issued under division (C) of 32228
section 1509.22 of the Revised Code, beneficially use the material 32229
in accordance with rules adopted by the director of environmental 32230
protection under section 3734.125 of the Revised Code;32231

       (c) If the material is not removed from the location 32232
associated with the production operation of the well, recycle or 32233
reuse the material with the approval of the chief.32234

       (5) If the material is not technologically enhanced naturally 32235
occurring radioactive material and the material has not come in 32236
contact with a refined oil-based substance, the material may be 32237
used at the location associated with the production operation of 32238
the horizontal well or at another location associated with a 32239
production operation.32240

       (B) An owner who has obtained results under division (A)(1) 32241
of this section shall keep and maintain the results for a period 32242
of three years. In addition, the owner shall provide a copy of the 32243
results to the chief upon request.32244

       (C) As used in this section:32245

       (1) "Technologically enhanced naturally occurring radioactive 32246
material" has the same meaning as in section 3748.01 of the 32247
Revised Code.32248

       (2) "Owner" includes a person that is an authorized agent of 32249
an owner.32250

       Sec. 1509.10.  (A) Any person drilling within the state 32251
shall, within sixty days after the completion of drilling 32252
operations to the proposed total depth or after a determination 32253
that a well is a dry or lost hole, file with the division of oil 32254
and gas resources management all wireline electric logs and an 32255
accurate well completion record on a form that is prescribed by 32256
the chief of the division of oil and gas resources management that 32257
designates:32258

       (1) The purpose for which the well was drilled;32259

       (2) The character, depth, and thickness of geological units 32260
encountered, including coal seams, mineral beds, associated fluids 32261
such as fresh water, brine, and crude oil, natural gas, and sour 32262
gas, if such seams, beds, fluids, or gases are known;32263

       (3) The dates on which drilling operations were commenced and 32264
completed;32265

       (4) The types of drilling tools used and the name of the 32266
person that drilled the well;32267

       (5) The length in feet of the various sizes of casing and 32268
tubing used in drilling the well, the amount removed after 32269
completion, the type and setting depth of each packer, all other 32270
data relating to cementing in the annular space behind such casing 32271
or tubing, and data indicating completion as a dry, gas, oil, 32272
combination oil and gas, brine injection, or artificial brine well 32273
or a stratigraphic test;32274

       (6) The number of perforations in the casing and the 32275
intervals of the perforations;32276

       (7) The elevation above mean sea level of the point from 32277
which the depth measurements were made, stating also the height of 32278
the point above ground level at the well, the total depth of the 32279
well, and the deepest geological unit that was penetrated in the 32280
drilling of the well;32281

       (8) If applicable, the type, volume, and concentration of 32282
acid, and the date on which acid was used in acidizing the well;32283

       (9)(a) If applicable, the trade name and the total amount of 32284
all products, fluids, and substances, and the supplier of each 32285
product, fluid, or substance, not including cement and its 32286
constituents and lost circulation materials, intentionally added 32287
to facilitate the drilling of any portion of the well until the 32288
surface casing is set and properly sealed. The owner shall 32289
identify each additive used and provide a brief description of the 32290
purpose for which the additive is used. In addition, the owner 32291
shall include a list of all chemicals, not including any 32292
information that is designated as a trade secret pursuant to 32293
division (I)(1) of this section, intentionally added to all 32294
products, fluids, or substances and include each chemical's 32295
corresponding chemical abstracts service number and the maximum 32296
concentration of each chemical. The owner shall obtain the 32297
chemical information, not including any information that is 32298
designated as a trade secret pursuant to division (I)(1) of this 32299
section, from the company that drilled the well, provided service 32300
at the well, or supplied the chemicals. If the company that 32301
drilled the well, provided service at the well, or supplied the 32302
chemicals provides incomplete or inaccurate chemical information, 32303
the owner shall make reasonable efforts to obtain the required 32304
information from the company or supplier.32305

       (b) For purposes of division (A)(9)(a) of this section, if 32306
recycled fluid was used, the total volume of recycled fluid and 32307
the well that is the source of the recycled fluid or the 32308
centralized facility that is the source of the recycled fluid.32309

       (10)(a) If applicable, the type and volume of fluid, not 32310
including cement and its constituents or information that is 32311
designated as a trade secret pursuant to division (I)(1) of this 32312
section, used to stimulate the reservoir of the well, the 32313
reservoir breakdown pressure, the method used for the containment 32314
of fluids recovered from the fracturing of the well, the methods 32315
used for the containment of fluids when pulled from the wellbore 32316
from swabbing the well, the average pumping rate of the well, and 32317
the name of the person that performed the well stimulation. In 32318
addition, the owner shall include a copy of the log from the 32319
stimulation of the well, a copy of the invoice for each of the 32320
procedures and methods described in division (A)(10) of this 32321
section that were used on a well, and a copy of the pumping 32322
pressure and rate graphs. However, the owner may redact from the 32323
copy of each invoice that is required to be included under 32324
division (A)(10) of this section the costs of and charges for the 32325
procedures and methods described in division (A)(10) of this 32326
section that were used on a well.32327

       (b) If applicable, the trade name and the total volume of all 32328
products, fluids, and substances, and the supplier of each 32329
product, fluid, or substance used to stimulate the well. The owner 32330
shall identify each additive used, provide a brief description of 32331
the purpose for which the additive is used, and include the 32332
maximum concentration of the additive used. In addition, the owner 32333
shall include a list of all chemicals, not including any 32334
information that is designated as a trade secret pursuant to 32335
division (I)(1) of this section, intentionally added to all 32336
products, fluids, or substances and include each chemical's 32337
corresponding chemical abstracts service number and the maximum 32338
concentration of each chemical. The owner shall obtain the 32339
chemical information, not including any information that is 32340
designated as a trade secret pursuant to division (I)(1) of this 32341
section, from the company that stimulated the well or supplied the 32342
chemicals. If the company that stimulated the well or supplied the 32343
chemicals provides incomplete or inaccurate chemical information, 32344
the owner shall make reasonable efforts to obtain the required 32345
information from the company or supplier.32346

       (c) For purposes of division (A)(10)(b) of this section, if 32347
recycled fluid was used, the total volume of recycled fluid and 32348
the well that is the source of the recycled fluid or the 32349
centralized facility that is the source of the recycled fluid.32350

       (11) The name of the company that performed the logging of 32351
the well and the types of wireline electric logs performed on the 32352
well.32353

       The well completion record shall be submitted in duplicate. 32354
The first copy shall be retained as a permanent record in the 32355
files of the division, and the second copy shall be transmitted by 32356
the chief to the division of geological survey.32357

        (B)(1) Not later than sixty days after the completion of the 32358
drilling operations to the proposed total depth, the owner shall 32359
file all wireline electric logs with the division of oil and gas 32360
resources management and the chief shall transmit such logs 32361
electronically, if available, to the division of geological 32362
survey. Such logs may be retained by the owner for a period of not 32363
more than six months, or such additional time as may be granted by 32364
the chief in writing, after the completion of the well 32365
substantially to the depth shown in the application required by 32366
section 1509.06 of the Revised Code.32367

       (2) If a well is not completed within sixty days after the 32368
completion of drilling operations, the owner shall file with the 32369
division of oil and gas resources management a supplemental well 32370
completion record that includes all of the information required 32371
under this section within sixty days after the completion of the 32372
well.32373

       (3) After a well is initially completed and stimulated and 32374
until the well is plugged, the owner shall report, on a form 32375
prescribed by the chief, all materials placed into the formation 32376
to refracture, restimulate, or newly complete the well. The owner 32377
shall submit the information within sixty days after completing 32378
the refracturing, restimulation, or new completion. In addition, 32379
the owner shall report the information required in divisions 32380
(A)(10)(a) to (c) of this section, as applicable, in a manner 32381
consistent with the requirements established in this section.32382

       (C) Upon request in writing by the chief of the division of 32383
geological survey prior to the beginning of drilling of the well, 32384
the person drilling the well shall make available a complete set 32385
of cuttings accurately identified as to depth.32386

       (D) The form of the well completion record required by this 32387
section shall be one that has been prescribed by the chief of the 32388
division of oil and gas resources management and the chief of the 32389
division of geological survey. The filing of a log as required by 32390
this section fulfills the requirement of filing a log with the 32391
chief of the division of geological survey in section 1505.04 of 32392
the Revised Code.32393

       (E) If a material listed or designated under division (A)(9) 32394
or (10) or (B)(3) of this section is a material for which the 32395
division of oil and gas resources management does not have a 32396
material safety data sheet, the owner shall provide a copy of the 32397
material safety data sheet for the material to the chief.32398

       (F) An owner shall submit to the chief the information that 32399
is required in divisions (A)(10)(b) and (c) and (B)(3) of this 32400
section consistent with the requirements established in this 32401
section using one of the following methods:32402

       (1) On a form prescribed by the chief;32403

       (2) Through the chemical disclosure registry that is 32404
maintained by the ground water protection council and the 32405
interstate oil and gas compact commission;32406

       (3) Any other means approved by the chief.32407

       (G) The chief shall post on the division's web site each 32408
material safety data sheet obtained under division (E) of this 32409
section. In addition, the chief shall make available through the 32410
division's web site the chemical information that is required by 32411
divisions (A)(9) and (10) and (B)(3) of this section.32412

       (H)(1) If a medical professional, in order to assist in the 32413
diagnosis or treatment of an individual who was affected by an 32414
incident associated with the production operations of a well, 32415
requests the exact chemical composition of each product, fluid, or 32416
substance and of each chemical component in a product, fluid, or 32417
substance that is designated as a trade secret pursuant to 32418
division (I) of this section, the person claiming the trade secret 32419
protection pursuant to that division shall provide to the medical 32420
professional the exact chemical composition of the product, fluid, 32421
or substance and of the chemical component in a product, fluid, or 32422
substance that is requested.32423

       (2) A medical professional who receives information pursuant 32424
to division (H)(1) of this section shall keep the information 32425
confidential and shall not disclose the information for any 32426
purpose that is not related to the diagnosis or treatment of an 32427
individual who was affected by an incident associated with the 32428
production operations of a well. Nothing in division (H)(2) of 32429
this section precludes a medical professional from making any 32430
report required by law or professional ethical standards.32431

       (I)(1) The owner of a well who is required to submit a well 32432
completion record under division (A) of this section or a report 32433
under division (B)(3) of this section or a person that provides 32434
information to the owner as described in and for purposes of 32435
division (A)(9) or (10) or (B)(3) of this section may designate 32436
without disclosing on a form prescribed by the chief and withhold 32437
from disclosure to the chief the identity, amount, concentration, 32438
or purpose of a product, fluid, or substance or of a chemical 32439
component in a product, fluid, or substance as a trade secret. The 32440
owner or person may pursue enforcement of any rights or remedies 32441
established in sections 1333.61 to 1333.69 of the Revised Code for 32442
misappropriation, as defined in section 1333.61 of the Revised 32443
Code, with respect to the identity, amount, concentration, or 32444
purpose of a product, fluid, or substance or a chemical component 32445
in a product, fluid, or substance designated as a trade secret 32446
pursuant to division (I)(1) of this section. The division shall 32447
not disclose information regarding the identity, amount, 32448
concentration, or purpose of any product, fluid, or substance or 32449
of any chemical component in a product, fluid, or substance 32450
designated as a trade secret pursuant to division (I)(1) of this 32451
section.32452

       (2) A property owner, an adjacent property owner, or any 32453
person or agency of this state having an interest that is or may 32454
be adversely affected by a product, fluid, or substance or by a 32455
chemical component in a product, fluid, or substance may commence 32456
a civil action in the court of common pleas of Franklin county 32457
against an owner or person described in division (I)(1) of this 32458
section challenging the owner's or person's claim to entitlement 32459
to trade secret protection for the specific identity, amount, 32460
concentration, or purpose of a product, fluid, or substance or of 32461
a chemical component in a product, fluid, or substance pursuant to 32462
division (I)(1) of this section. A person who commences a civil 32463
action pursuant to division (I)(2) of this section shall provide 32464
notice to the chief in a manner prescribed by the chief. In the 32465
civil action, the court shall conduct an in camera review of 32466
information submitted by an owner or person described in division 32467
(I)(1) of this section to determine if the identity, amount, 32468
concentration, or purpose of a product, fluid, or substance or of 32469
a chemical component in a product, fluid, or substance pursuant to 32470
division (I)(1) of this section is entitled to trade secret 32471
protection.32472

       (J)(1) Except for any information that is designated as a 32473
trade secret pursuant to division (I)(1) of this section and 32474
except as provided in division (J)(2) of this section, the owner 32475
of a well shall maintain records of all chemicals placed in a well 32476
for a period of not less than two years after the date on which 32477
each such chemical was placed in the well. The chief may inspect 32478
the records at any time concerning any such chemical.32479

       (2) An owner or person who has designated the identity, 32480
amount, concentration, or purpose of a product, fluid, or 32481
substance or of a chemical component in a product, fluid, or 32482
substance as a trade secret pursuant to division (I)(1) of this 32483
section shall maintain the records for such a product, fluid, or 32484
substance or for a chemical component in a product, fluid, or 32485
substance for a period of not less than two years after the date 32486
on which each such product, fluid, or substance or each such 32487
chemical component in a product, fluid, or substance was placed in 32488
the well. Upon the request of the chief, the owner or person, as 32489
applicable, shall disclose the records to the chief if the 32490
information is necessary to respond to a spill, release, or 32491
investigation. However, the chief shall not disclose the 32492
information that is designated as a trade secret.32493

       (K)(1) For purposes of correcting inaccuracies and 32494
incompleteness in chemical information required by divisions 32495
(A)(9) and (10) and (B)(3) of this section, an owner shall be 32496
considered in substantial compliance if the owner has made 32497
reasonable efforts to obtain the required information from the 32498
supplier.32499

       (2) For purposes of reporting under this section, an owner is 32500
not required to report chemicals that occur incidentally or in 32501
trace amounts.32502

       (L) As used in this section, the term "material safety data 32503
sheet" shall conform to any revision of or change in the term by 32504
the occupational safety and health administration in the United 32505
States department of labor.32506

       Sec. 1509.11. (A)(1) The owner of any well, includingexcept32507
a horizontal well, that is producing or capable of producing oil 32508
or gas shall file with the chief of the division of oil and gas 32509
resources management, on or before the thirty-first day of March, 32510
a statement of production of oil, gas, and brine for the last 32511
preceding calendar year in such form as the chief may prescribe. 32512
An owner that has more than one hundred such wells in this state 32513
shall submit electronically the statement of production in a 32514
format that is approved by the chief. The chief shall include on 32515
the form, at the minimum, a request for the submittal of the 32516
information that a person who is regulated under this chapter is 32517
required to submit under the "Emergency Planning and Community 32518
Right-To-Know Act of 1986," 100 Stat. 1728, 42 U.S.C.A. 11001, and 32519
regulations adopted under it, and that the division of oil and gas 32520
resources management does not obtain through other reporting 32521
mechanisms.32522

       (2) The owner of any horizontal well that is producing or 32523
capable of producing oil or gas shall file with the chief, on the 32524
forty-fifth day following the close of each calendar quarter, a 32525
statement of production of oil, gas, and brine for the preceding 32526
calendar quarter in a form that the chief prescribes. An owner 32527
that has more than one hundred horizontal wells in this state 32528
shall submit electronically the statement of production in a 32529
format that is approved by the chief. The chief shall include on 32530
the form, at a minimum, a request for the submittal of the 32531
information that a person who is regulated under this chapter is 32532
required to submit under the "Emergency Planning and Community 32533
Right-To-Know Act of 1986," 100 Stat. 1728, 42 U.S.C. 11001, and 32534
regulations adopted under it, and that the division does not 32535
obtain through other reporting mechanisms.32536

       (B) The chief shall not disclose information received from 32537
the department of taxation under division (C)(12) of section 32538
5703.21 of the Revised Code until the related statement of 32539
production required by division (A) of this section is filed with 32540
the chief.32541

       Sec. 1509.16.  (A) As used in this section, "oil country 32542
tubular goods" means circular steel pipes that are seamless or 32543
welded and used in drilling for oil or natural gas, including 32544
casing, tubing, and drill pipe, whether finished or unfinished, 32545
and steel couplings and drill collars used with the pipes.32546

       (B) An owner shall file with the division of oil and gas 32547
resources management a disclosure form that specifies the country 32548
in which each oil country tubular good initially used in a 32549
production operation on or after the effective date of this 32550
section was manufactured unless that country cannot be determined 32551
by the owner. The division shall prescribe the disclosure form and 32552
consult with representatives from the natural gas, oil, and steel 32553
industries when developing the form. The division shall use the 32554
information specified on the form to establish a quality well 32555
infrastructure catalog.32556

       (C) The division shall determine the date on which the 32557
disclosure form shall be filed.32558

       Sec. 1509.22.  (A) Except when acting in accordance with 32559
section 1509.226 of the Revised Code, no person shall place or 32560
cause to be placed in ground water or in or on the land or 32561
discharge or cause to be discharged in surface water brine, crude 32562
oil, natural gas, or other fluids associated with the exploration 32563
or, development, well stimulation, production operations, or 32564
plugging of oil and gas resources in surface or ground water or in 32565
or on the land in such quantities or in such manner as actually32566
that causes or could reasonably be anticipated to cause either of 32567
the following:32568

       (1) Water used for consumption by humans or domestic animals 32569
to exceed the standards of the Safe Drinking Water Act;32570

       (2) Damagedamage or injury to public health or safety or the 32571
environment.32572

       (B)(1) No person shall store or dispose of brine in violation 32573
of a plan approved under division (A) of section 1509.222 or 32574
section 1509.226 of the Revised Code, in violation of a resolution 32575
submitted under section 1509.226 of the Revised Code, or in 32576
violation of rules or orders applicable to those plans or 32577
resolutions.32578

       (2)(a) On and after January 1, 2014, no person shall store, 32579
recycle, treat, process, or dispose of in this state brine or 32580
other waste substances associated with the exploration, 32581
development, well stimulation, production operations, or plugging 32582
of oil and gas resources without an order or a permit issued under 32583
this section or section 1509.06 or 1509.21 of the Revised Code or 32584
rules adopted under any of those sections. For purposes of 32585
division (B)(2)(a) of this section, a permit or other form of 32586
authorization issued by another agency of the state or a political 32587
subdivision of the state shall not be considered a permit or order 32588
issued by the chief of the division of oil and gas resources 32589
management under this chapter.32590

       (b) Division (B)(2)(a) of this section does not apply to a 32591
person that disposes of such waste substances other than brine in 32592
accordance with Chapter 3734. of the Revised Code and rules 32593
adopted under it.32594

       (C) The chief of the division of oil and gas resources 32595
management shall adopt rules and issue orders regarding storage, 32596
recycling, treatment, processing, and disposal of brine and other 32597
waste substances; however, the. The rules shall establish 32598
procedures and requirements in accordance with which a person 32599
shall apply for a permit or order for the storage, recycling, 32600
treatment, processing, or disposal of brine and other waste 32601
substances that are not subject to a permit issued under section 32602
1509.06 or 1509.21 of the Revised Code and in accordance with 32603
which the chief may issue such a permit or order. An application 32604
for such a permit shall be accompanied by a nonrefundable fee of 32605
two thousand five hundred dollars.32606

        The storage, recycling, treatment, processing, and disposal 32607
of brine and other waste substances and the chief's rules relating 32608
to storage, recycling, treatment, processing, and disposal are 32609
subject to all of the following standards:32610

       (1) Brine from any well except an exempt Mississippian well 32611
shall be disposed of only by injectionas follows:32612

       (a) By injection into an underground formation, including 32613
annular disposal if approved by rule of the chief, which injection 32614
shall be subject to division (D) of this section; by32615

       (b) By surface application in accordance with section 32616
1509.226 of the Revised Code; in32617

       (c) In association with a method of enhanced recovery as 32618
provided in section 1509.21 of the Revised Code; or by32619

       (d) In any other methodsmanner not specified in divisions 32620
(C)(1)(a) to (c) of this section that is approved by a permit or 32621
order issued by the chief for testing or implementing a new 32622
technology or method of disposal. Brine32623

       (2) Brine from exempt Mississippian wells shall not be 32624
discharged directly into the waters of the state.32625

       (2)(3) Muds, cuttings, and other waste substances shall not 32626
be disposed of in violation of this chapter or any rule adopted 32627
under it.32628

       (3)(4) Pits or steel tanks shall be used as authorized by the 32629
chief for containing brine and other waste substances resulting 32630
from, obtained from, or produced in connection with drilling, well 32631
stimulation, reworking, reconditioning, plugging back, or plugging 32632
operations. The pits and steel tanks shall be constructed and 32633
maintained to prevent the escape of brine and other waste 32634
substances. 32635

       (4)(5) A dike or pit may be used for spill prevention and 32636
control. A dike or pit so used shall be constructed and maintained 32637
to prevent the escape of brine and crude oil, and the reservoir 32638
within such a dike or pit shall be kept reasonably free of brine, 32639
crude oil, and other waste substances.32640

       (5) Earthen impoundments(6) Impoundments constructed 32641
utilizing a synthetic liner pursuant to the division's 32642
specifications may be used for the temporary storage of fluids32643
waste substances used in the construction, stimulation, or 32644
plugging of a well.32645

       (6)(7) No pit, earthen impoundment, or dike shall be used for 32646
the temporary storage of brine or other waste substances except in 32647
accordance with divisions (C)(3) to(4) and (5) of this section.32648

       (7)(8) No pit or dike shall be used for the ultimate disposal 32649
of brine or other liquid waste substances.32650

       (D)(1) No person, without first having obtained a permit from 32651
the chief, shall inject brine or other waste substances resulting 32652
from, obtained from, or produced in connection with oil or gas 32653
drilling, exploration, or production into an underground formation 32654
unless a rule of the chief expressly authorizes the injection 32655
without a permit. The permit shall be in addition to any permit 32656
required by section 1509.05 of the Revised Code, and the permit 32657
application shall be accompanied by a permit fee of one thousand 32658
dollars. The chief shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 32659
119. of the Revised Code regarding the injection into wells of 32660
brine and other waste substances resulting from, obtained from, or 32661
produced in connection with oil or gas drilling, exploration, or 32662
production. The rules shall include provisions regarding all of 32663
the following:32664

       (a) Applications for and issuance of the permits required by 32665
this division; 32666

       (b) Entry to conduct inspections and to examine and copy 32667
records to ascertain compliance with this division and rules, 32668
orders, and terms and conditions of permits adopted or issued 32669
under it; 32670

       (c) The provision and maintenance of information through 32671
monitoring, recordkeeping, and reporting. In addition, the rules 32672
shall require the owner of an injection well who has been issued a 32673
permit under division (D) of this section to quarterly submit 32674
electronically to the chief information concerning each shipment 32675
of brine or other waste substances received by the owner for 32676
injection into the well.32677

       (d) The provision and electronic reporting quarterly of 32678
information concerning brine and other waste substances from a 32679
transporter that is registered under section 1509.222 of the 32680
Revised Code prior to the injection of the transported brine or 32681
other waste substances;32682

       (e) Any other provisions in furtherance of the goals of this 32683
section and the Safe Drinking Water Act. 32684

       (2) The chief may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. 32685
of the Revised Code authorizing tests to evaluate whether fluids 32686
or carbon dioxide may be injected in a reservoir and to determine 32687
the maximum allowable injection pressure, which shall be conducted 32688
in accordance with methods prescribed in the rules or in 32689
accordance with conditions of the permit. In addition, the chief 32690
may adopt rules that do both of the following:32691

        (a) Establish the total depth of a well for which a permit 32692
has been applied for or issued under this division;32693

        (b) Establish requirements and procedures to protect public 32694
health and safety. 32695

       (3) To implement the goals of the Safe Drinking Water Act, 32696
the chief shall not issue a permit for the injection of brine or 32697
other waste substances resulting from, obtained from, or produced 32698
in connection with oil or gas drilling, exploration, or production 32699
unless the chief concludes that the applicant has demonstrated 32700
that the injection will not result in the presence of any 32701
contaminant in ground water that supplies or can reasonably be 32702
expected to supply any public water system, such that the presence 32703
of the contaminant may result in the system's not complying with 32704
any national primary drinking water regulation or may otherwise 32705
adversely affect the health of persons. 32706

       (4) The chief may issue an order to the owner of a well in 32707
existence on the effective date of this amendmentSeptember 10, 32708
2012, to make changes in the operation of the well in order to 32709
correct problems or to address safety concerns.32710

       (5) This division and rules, orders, and terms and conditions 32711
of permits adopted or issued under it shall be construed to be no 32712
more stringent than required for compliance with the Safe Drinking 32713
Water Act unless essential to ensure that underground sources of 32714
drinking water will not be endangered.32715

       (E) The owner holding a permit, or an assignee or transferee 32716
who has assumed the obligations and liabilities imposed by this 32717
chapter and any rules adopted or orders issued under it pursuant 32718
to section 1509.31 of the Revised Code, and the operator of a well 32719
shall be liable for a violation of this section or any rules 32720
adopted or orders or terms or conditions of a permit issued under 32721
it.32722

       (F)(1) An owner shall replace the water supply of the holder 32723
of an interest in real property who obtains all or part of the 32724
holder's supply of water for domestic, agricultural, industrial, 32725
or other legitimate use from an underground or surface source 32726
where the supply has been substantially disrupted by 32727
contamination, diminution, or interruption proximately resulting 32728
from the owner's oil or gas operation, or the owner may elect to 32729
compensate the holder of the interest in real property for the 32730
difference between the fair market value of the interest before 32731
the damage occurred to the water supply and the fair market value 32732
after the damage occurred if the cost of replacing the water 32733
supply exceeds this difference in fair market values. However, 32734
during the pendency of any order issued under this division, the 32735
owner shall obtain for the holder or shall reimburse the holder 32736
for the reasonable cost of obtaining a water supply from the time 32737
of the contamination, diminution, or interruption by the operation 32738
until the owner has complied with an order of the chief for 32739
compliance with this division or such an order has been revoked or 32740
otherwise becomes not effective. If the owner elects to pay the 32741
difference in fair market values, but the owner and the holder 32742
have not agreed on the difference within thirty days after the 32743
chief issues an order for compliance with this division, within 32744
ten days after the expiration of that thirty-day period, the owner 32745
and the chief each shall appoint an appraiser to determine the 32746
difference in fair market values, except that the holder of the 32747
interest in real property may elect to appoint and compensate the 32748
holder's own appraiser, in which case the chief shall not appoint 32749
an appraiser. The two appraisers appointed shall appoint a third 32750
appraiser, and within thirty days after the appointment of the 32751
third appraiser, the three appraisers shall hold a hearing to 32752
determine the difference in fair market values. Within ten days 32753
after the hearing, the appraisers shall make their determination 32754
by majority vote and issue their final determination of the 32755
difference in fair market values. The chief shall accept a 32756
determination of the difference in fair market values made by 32757
agreement of the owner and holder or by appraisers under this 32758
division and shall make and dissolve orders accordingly. This 32759
division does not affect in any way the right of any person to 32760
enforce or protect, under applicable law, the person's interest in 32761
water resources affected by an oil or gas operation.32762

       (2) For purposes of determining contamination of a water 32763
supply under division (F)(1) of this section, the chief shall 32764
review any baseline water supply test data that are available and 32765
may apply the primary drinking water standards established under 32766
the Safe Drinking Water Act.32767

       (G) In any action brought by the state for a violation of 32768
division (A) of this section involving any well at which annular 32769
disposal is used, there shall be a rebuttable presumption 32770
available to the state that the annular disposal caused the 32771
violation if the well is located within a one-quarter-mile radius 32772
of the site of the violation.32773

       (H)(1) There is levied on the owner of an injection well who 32774
has been issued a permit under division (D) of this section the 32775
following fees:32776

       (a) Five cents per barrel of each substance that is delivered 32777
to a well to be injected in the well when the substance is 32778
produced within the division of oil and gas resources management 32779
regulatory district in which the well is located or within an 32780
adjoining oil and gas resources management regulatory district;32781

       (b) Twenty cents per barrel of each substance that is 32782
delivered to a well to be injected in the well when the substance 32783
is not produced within the division of oil and gas resources 32784
management regulatory district in which the well is located or 32785
within an adjoining oil and gas resources management regulatory 32786
district.32787

       (2) The maximum number of barrels of substance per injection 32788
well in a calendar year on which a fee may be levied under 32789
division (H) of this section is five hundred thousand. If in a 32790
calendar year the owner of an injection well receives more than 32791
five hundred thousand barrels of substance to be injected in the 32792
owner's well and if the owner receives at least one substance that 32793
is produced within the division's regulatory district in which the 32794
well is located or within an adjoining regulatory district and at 32795
least one substance that is not produced within the division's 32796
regulatory district in which the well is located or within an 32797
adjoining regulatory district, the fee shall be calculated first 32798
on all of the barrels of substance that are not produced within 32799
the division's regulatory district in which the well is located or 32800
within an adjoining district at the rate established in division 32801
(H)(2) of this section. The fee then shall be calculated on the 32802
barrels of substance that are produced within the division's 32803
regulatory district in which the well is located or within an 32804
adjoining district at the rate established in division (H)(1) of 32805
this section until the maximum number of barrels established in 32806
division (H)(2) of this section has been attained.32807

       (3) The owner of an injection well who is issued a permit 32808
under division (D) of this section shall collect the fee levied by 32809
division (H) of this section on behalf of the division of oil and 32810
gas resources management and forward the fee to the division. The 32811
chief shall transmit all money received under division (H) of this 32812
section to the treasurer of state who shall deposit the money in 32813
the state treasury to the credit of the oil and gas well fund 32814
created in section 1509.02 of the Revised Code. The owner of an 32815
injection well who collects the fee levied by this division may 32816
retain up to three per cent of the amount that is collected.32817

       (4) The chief shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 32818
119. of the Revised Code establishing requirements and procedures 32819
for collection of the fee levied by division (H) of this section.32820

       Sec. 1509.226.  (A) If a board of county commissioners, a 32821
board of township trustees, or the legislative authority of a 32822
municipal corporation wishes to permit the surface application of 32823
brine to roads, streets, highways, and other similar land surfaces 32824
it owns or has the right to control for control of dust or ice, it 32825
may adopt a resolution permitting such application as provided in 32826
this section. If a board or legislative authority does not adopt 32827
such a resolution, then no such surface application of brine is 32828
permitted on such roads, streets, highways, and other similar 32829
surfaces. If a board or legislative authority votes on a proposed 32830
resolution to permit such surface application of brine, but the 32831
resolution fails to receive the affirmative vote of a majority of 32832
the board or legislative authority, the board or legislative 32833
authority shall not adopt such a resolution for one year following 32834
the date on which the vote was taken. A board or legislative 32835
authority shall hold at least one public hearing on any proposal 32836
to permit surface application of brine under this division and may 32837
hold additional hearings. The board or legislative authority shall 32838
publish notice of the time and place of each such public hearing 32839
in a newspaper of general circulation in the political subdivision 32840
at least five days before the day on which the hearing is to be 32841
held.32842

       (B) If a board or legislative authority adopts a resolution 32843
permitting the surface application of brine to roads, streets, 32844
highways, and other similar land surfaces under division (A) of 32845
this section, the board or legislative authority shall, within 32846
thirty days after the adoption of the resolution, prepare and 32847
submit to the chief of the division of oil and gas resources 32848
management a copy of the resolution. Any department, agency, or 32849
instrumentality of this state or the United States that wishes to 32850
permit the surface application of brine to roads, streets, 32851
highways, and other similar land surfaces it owns or has a right 32852
to control shall prepare and submit guidelines for such 32853
application, but need not adopt a resolution under division (A) of 32854
this section permitting such surface application.32855

       All resolutions and guidelines shall be subject to the 32856
following standards:32857

       (1) Brine shall not be applied:32858

       (a) To a water-saturated surface;32859

       (b) Directly to vegetation near or adjacent to surfaces being 32860
treated;32861

       (c) Within twelve feet of structures crossing bodies of water 32862
or crossing drainage ditches;32863

       (d) Between sundown and sunrise, except for ice control.32864

       (2) The discharge of brine through the spreader bar shall 32865
stop when the application stops.32866

       (3) The applicator vehicle shall be moving at least five 32867
miles per hour at all times while the brine is being applied.32868

       (4) The maximum spreader bar nozzle opening shall be 32869
three-quarters of an inch in diameter.32870

       (5) The maximum uniform application rate of brine shall be 32871
three thousand gallons per mile on a twelve-foot-wide road or 32872
three gallons per sixty square feet on unpaved lots.32873

       (6) The applicator vehicle discharge valve shall be closed 32874
between the brine collection point and the specific surfaces that 32875
have been approved for brine application.32876

       (7) Any valves that provide for tank draining other than 32877
through the spreader bar shall be closed during the brine 32878
application and transport.32879

       (8) The angle of discharge from the applicator vehicle 32880
spreader bar shall not be greater than sixty degrees from the 32881
perpendicular to the unpaved surface.32882

       (9) Only the last twenty-five per cent of an applicator 32883
vehicle's contents shall be allowed to have a pressure greater 32884
than atmospheric pressure; therefore, the first seventy-five per 32885
cent of the applicator vehicle's contents shall be discharged 32886
under atmospheric pressure.32887

       (10) Only brine that is produced from a well that is not a 32888
horizontal well shall be allowed to be spread on a road. Fluids 32889
from the drilling of a well, flowback from the stimulation of a 32890
well, and other fluids used to treat a well shall not be spread on 32891
a road.32892

       If a resolution or guidelines contain only the standards 32893
listed in divisions (B)(1) to (10) of this section, without 32894
addition or qualification, the resolution or guidelines shall be 32895
deemed effective when submitted to the chief without further 32896
action by the chief. All other resolutions and guidelines shall 32897
comply with and be no less stringent than this chapter, rules 32898
concerning surface application that the chief shall adopt under 32899
division (C) of section 1509.22 of the Revised Code, and other 32900
rules of the chief. Within fifteen days after receiving such other 32901
resolutions and guidelines, the chief shall review them for 32902
compliance with the law and rules and disapprove them if they do 32903
not comply.32904

       The board, legislative authority, or department, agency, or 32905
instrumentality may revise and resubmit any resolutions or 32906
guidelines that the chief disapproves after each disapproval, and 32907
the chief shall again review and approve or disapprove them within 32908
fifteen days after receiving them. The board, legislative 32909
authority, or department, agency, or instrumentality may amend any 32910
resolutions or guidelines previously approved by the chief and 32911
submit them, as amended, to the chief. The chief shall receive, 32912
review, and approve or disapprove the amended resolutions or 32913
guidelines on the same basis and in the same time as original 32914
resolutions or guidelines. The board, legislative authority, or 32915
department, agency, or instrumentality shall not implement amended 32916
resolutions or guidelines until they are approved by the chief 32917
under this division.32918

       (C) Any person, other than a political subdivision required 32919
to adopt a resolution under division (A) of this section or a 32920
department, agency, or instrumentality of this state or the United 32921
States, who owns or has a legal right or obligation to maintain a 32922
road, street, highway, or other similar land surface may file with 32923
the board of county commissioners a written plan for the 32924
application of brine to the road, street, highway, or other 32925
surface. The board need not approve any such plans, but if it 32926
approves a plan, the plan shall comply with this chapter, rules 32927
adopted thereunder, and the board's resolutions, if any. 32928
Disapproved plans may be revised and resubmitted for the board's 32929
approval. Approved plans may also be revised and submitted to the 32930
board. A plan or revised plan shall do all of the following:32931

       (1) Identify the sources of brine to be used under the plan;32932

       (2) Identify by name, address, and registration certificate, 32933
if applicable, any transporters of the brine;32934

       (3) Specifically identify the places to which the brine will 32935
be applied;32936

       (4) Specifically describe the method, rate, and frequency of 32937
application.32938

       (D) The board may attach terms and conditions to approval of 32939
a plan, or revised plan, and may revoke approval for any violation 32940
of this chapter, rules adopted thereunder, resolutions adopted by 32941
the board, or terms or conditions attached by the board. The board 32942
shall conduct at least one public hearing before approving a plan 32943
or revised plan, publishing notice of the time and place of each 32944
such public hearing in a newspaper of general circulation in the 32945
county at least five days before the day on which the hearing is 32946
to be held. The board shall record the filings of all plans and 32947
revised plans in its journal. The board shall approve, disapprove, 32948
or revoke approval of a plan or revised plan by the adoption of a 32949
resolution. Upon approval of a plan or revised plan, the board 32950
shall send a copy of the plan to the chief. Upon revoking approval 32951
of a plan or revised plan, the board shall notify the chief of the 32952
revocation.32953

       (E) No person shall:32954

       (1) Apply brine to a water-saturated surface;32955

       (2) Apply brine directly to vegetation adjacent to the 32956
surface of roads, streets, highways, and other surfaces to which 32957
brine may be applied.32958

       (F) Each political subdivision that adopts a resolution under 32959
divisions (A) and (B) of this section, each department, agency, or 32960
instrumentality of this state or the United States that submits 32961
guidelines under division (B) of this section, and each person who 32962
files a plan under divisions (C) and (D) of this section shall, on 32963
or before the fifteenth day of April of each year, file a report 32964
with the chief concerning brine applied within the person's or 32965
governmental entity's jurisdiction, including the quantities 32966
transported and the sources and application points during the last 32967
preceding calendar year and such other information in such form as 32968
the chief requires.32969

       (G) Any political subdivision or department, agency, or 32970
instrumentality of this state or the United States that applies 32971
brine under this section may do so with its own personnel, 32972
vehicles, and equipment without registration under or compliance 32973
with section 1509.222 or 1509.223 of the Revised Code and without 32974
the necessity for filing the surety bond or other security 32975
required by section 1509.225 of the Revised Code. However, each 32976
such entity shall legibly identify vehicles used to apply brine 32977
with reflective paint in letters no less than four inches in 32978
height, indicating the word "brine" and that the vehicle is a 32979
vehicle of the political subdivision, department, agency, or 32980
instrumentality. Except as stated in this division, such entities 32981
shall transport brine in accordance with sections 1509.22 to 32982
1509.226 of the Revised Code.32983

       (H) A surface application plan filed for approval under 32984
division (C) of this section shall be accompanied by a 32985
nonrefundable fee of fifty dollars, which shall be credited to the 32986
general fund of the county. An approved plan is valid for one year 32987
from the date of its approval unless it is revoked before that 32988
time. An approved revised plan is valid for the remainder of the 32989
term of the plan it supersedes unless it is revoked before that 32990
time. Any person who has filed such a plan or revised plan and had 32991
it approved may renew it by refiling it in accordance with 32992
divisions (C) and (D) of this section within thirty days before 32993
any anniversary of the date on which the original plan was 32994
approved. The board shall notify the chief of renewals and 32995
nonrenewals of plans. Even if a renewed plan is approved under 32996
those divisions, the plan is not effective until notice is 32997
received by the chief, and until notice is received, the chief 32998
shall enforce this chapter and rules adopted thereunder with 32999
regard to the affected roads, streets, highways, and other similar 33000
land surfaces as if the plan had not been renewed.33001

       (I) A resolution adopted under division (A) of this section 33002
by a board or legislative authority shall be effective for one 33003
year following the date of its adoption and from month to month 33004
thereafter until the board or legislative authority, by 33005
resolution, terminates the authority granted in the original 33006
resolution. The termination shall be effective not less than seven 33007
days after enactment of the resolution, and a copy of the 33008
resolution shall be sent to the chief.33009

       Sec. 1509.50.  (A) An oil and gas regulatory cost recovery 33010
assessment is hereby imposed by this section on an owner. An owner 33011
shall pay the assessment in the same manner as a severer who is 33012
required to file a return under section 5749.06 of the Revised 33013
Code. However, an owner may designate a severer who shall pay the 33014
owner's assessment on behalf of the owner on the return that the 33015
severer is required to file under that section. If a severer so 33016
pays an owner's assessment, the severer may recoup from the owner 33017
the amount of the assessment. Except for an exempt domestic well, 33018
the assessment imposed shall be in addition to the taxes levied on 33019
the severance of oil and gas under section 5749.02 of the Revised 33020
Code.33021

       (B)(1) Except for an exempt domestic well, the oil and gas 33022
regulatory cost recovery assessment shall be calculated on a 33023
quarterly basis and shall be one of the following:33024

       (a) If the sum of ten cents per barrel of oil for all of the 33025
wells of the owner, one-half of one cent per one thousand cubic 33026
feet of natural gas for all of the wells of the owner, and the 33027
amount of the severance tax levied on each severer for all of the 33028
wells of the owner under divisions (A)(5) and (6) of section 33029
5749.02 of the Revised Code, as applicable, is greater than the 33030
sum of fifteen dollars for each well owned by the owner, the 33031
amount of the assessment is the sum of ten cents per barrel of oil 33032
for all of the wells of the owner and one-half of one cent per one 33033
thousand cubic feet of natural gas for all of the wells of the 33034
owner.33035

       (b) If the sum of ten cents per barrel of oil for all of the 33036
wells of the owner, one-half of one cent per one thousand cubic 33037
feet of natural gas for all of the wells of the owner, and the 33038
amount of the severance tax levied on each severer for all of the 33039
wells of the owner under divisions (A)(5) and (6) of section 33040
5749.02 of the Revised Code, as applicable, is less than the sum 33041
of fifteen dollars for each well owned by the owner, the amount of 33042
the assessment is the sum of fifteen dollars for each well owned 33043
by the owner less the amount of the tax levied on each severer for 33044
all of the wells of the owner under divisions (A)(5) and (6) of 33045
section 5749.02 of the Revised Code, as applicable.33046

       (2) The oil and gas regulatory cost recovery assessment for a 33047
well that becomes an exempt domestic well on and after June 30, 33048
2010, shall be sixty dollars to be paid to the division of oil and 33049
gas resources management on the first day of July of each year.33050

       (C) All money collected pursuant to this section shall be 33051
deposited in the state treasury to the credit ofcredited to the 33052
severance tax receipts fund. After the director of budget and 33053
management transfers money from the severance tax receipts fund as 33054
required in division (H) of section 5749.06 of the Revised Code, 33055
money in the severance tax receipts fund from amounts collected 33056
pursuant to this section shall be credited to the oil and gas well 33057
fund created in section 1509.02 of the Revised Code.33058

       (D) Except for purposes of revenue distribution as specified 33059
in division (B) of section 5749.02 of the Revised Code, the oil 33060
and gas regulatory cost recovery assessment imposed by this 33061
section shall be treated the same and equivalent for all purposes 33062
as the taxes levied on the severance of oil and gas under that 33063
section. However, the assessment imposed by this section is not a 33064
tax under Chapter 5749. of the Revised Code.33065

       Sec. 1511.02.  The chief of the division of soil and water 33066
resources, subject to the approval of the director of natural 33067
resources, shall do all of the following:33068

       (A) Provide administrative leadership to local soil and water 33069
conservation districts in planning, budgeting, staffing, and 33070
administering district programs and the training of district 33071
supervisors and personnel in their duties, responsibilities, and 33072
authorities as prescribed in this chapter and Chapter 1515. of the 33073
Revised Code;33074

       (B) Administer this chapter and Chapter 1515. of the Revised 33075
Code pertaining to state responsibilities and provide staff 33076
assistance to the Ohio soil and water conservation commission in 33077
exercising its statutory responsibilities;33078

       (C) Assist in expediting state responsibilities for watershed 33079
development and other natural resource conservation works of 33080
improvement;33081

       (D) Coordinate the development and implementation of 33082
cooperative programs and working agreements between local soil and 33083
water conservation districts and divisions or sections of the 33084
department of natural resources, or other agencies of local, 33085
state, and federal government;33086

       (E) Subject to the approval of the Ohio soil and water 33087
conservation commission, adopt, amend, or rescind rules pursuant 33088
to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. Rules adopted pursuant to 33089
this section:33090

       (1) Shall establish technically feasible and economically 33091
reasonable standards to achieve a level of management and 33092
conservation practices in farming or silvicultural operations that 33093
will abate wind or water erosion of the soil or abate the 33094
degradation of the waters of the state by animal waste or by soil 33095
sediment including substances attached thereto, and establish 33096
criteria for determination of the acceptability of such management 33097
and conservation practices;33098

       (2) Shall establish technically feasible and economically 33099
reasonable standards to achieve a level of management and 33100
conservation practices that will abate wind or water erosion of 33101
the soil or abate the degradation of the waters of the state by 33102
soil sediment in conjunction with land grading, excavating, 33103
filling, or other soil-disturbing activities on land used or being 33104
developed for nonfarm commercial, industrial, residential, or 33105
other nonfarm purposes, and establish criteria for determination 33106
of the acceptability of such management and conservation 33107
practices. The standards shall be designed to implement applicable 33108
areawide waste treatment management plans prepared under section 33109
208 of the "Federal Water Pollution Control Act," 86 Stat. 816 33110
(1972), 33 U.S.C.A. 1288, as amended. The standards and criteria 33111
shall not apply in any municipal corporation or county that adopts 33112
ordinances or rules pertaining to sediment control, nor to lands 33113
being used in a strip mine operation as defined in section 1513.01 33114
of the Revised Code, nor to lands being used in a surface mining 33115
operation as defined in section 1514.01 of the Revised Code.33116

       (3) May recommend criteria and procedures for the approval of 33117
urban sediment pollution abatement plans and issuance of permits 33118
prior to any grading, excavating, filling, or other whole or 33119
partial disturbance of five or more contiguous acres of land owned 33120
by one person or operated as one development unit and require 33121
implementation of such a plan. Areas of less than five contiguous 33122
acres are not exempt from compliance with other provisions of this 33123
chapter and rules adopted under them.33124

       (4) Shall establish procedures for administration of rules 33125
for agricultural pollution abatement and urban sediment pollution 33126
abatement and for enforcement of rules for agricultural pollution 33127
abatement;33128

       (5) Shall specify the pollution abatement practices eligible 33129
for state cost sharing and determine the conditions for 33130
eligibility, the construction standards and specifications, the 33131
useful life, the maintenance requirements, and the limits of cost 33132
sharing for those practices. Eligible practices shall be limited 33133
to practices that address agricultural or silvicultural operations 33134
and that require expenditures that are likely to exceed the 33135
economic returns to the owner or operator and that abate soil 33136
erosion or degradation of the waters of the state by animal waste 33137
or soil sediment including pollutants attached thereto.33138

       (6) Shall establish procedures for administering grants to 33139
owners or operators of agricultural land or concentrated animal 33140
feeding operations for the implementation of operation and 33141
management plans;33142

       (7) Shall establish procedures for administering grants to 33143
soil and water conservation districts for urban sediment pollution 33144
abatement programs, specify the types of projects eligible for 33145
grants, establish limits on the availability of grants, and 33146
establish requirements governing the execution of projects to 33147
encourage the reduction of erosion and sedimentation associated 33148
with soil-disturbing activities;33149

       (8) Shall do all of the following with regard to composting 33150
conducted in conjunction with agricultural operations:33151

       (a) Provide for the distribution of educational material 33152
concerning composting to the offices of the Ohio cooperativeOSU33153
extension service for the purposes of section 1511.022 of the 33154
Revised Code;33155

       (b) Establish methods, techniques, or practices for 33156
composting dead animals, or particular types of dead animals, that 33157
are to be used at such operations, as the chief considers to be 33158
necessary or appropriate;33159

       (c) Establish requirements and procedures governing the 33160
review and approval or disapproval of composting plans by the 33161
supervisors of soil and water conservation districts under 33162
division (Q) of section 1515.08 of the Revised Code.33163

       (9) Shall be adopted, amended, or rescinded after the chief 33164
does all of the following:33165

       (a) Mails notice to each statewide organization that the 33166
chief determines represents persons or local governmental agencies 33167
who would be affected by the proposed rule, amendment thereto, or 33168
rescission thereof at least thirty-five days before any public 33169
hearing thereon;33170

       (b) Mails a copy of each proposed rule, amendment thereto, or 33171
rescission thereof to any person who requests a copy, within five 33172
days after receipt of the request;33173

       (c) Consults with appropriate state and local governmental 33174
agencies or their representatives, including statewide 33175
organizations of local governmental officials, industrial 33176
representatives, and other interested persons;33177

       (d) If the rule relates to agricultural pollution abatement, 33178
develops an economic impact statement concerning the effect of the 33179
proposed rule or amendment.33180

       (10) Shall not conflict with air or water quality standards 33181
adopted pursuant to section 3704.03 or 6111.041 of the Revised 33182
Code. Compliance with rules adopted pursuant to this section does 33183
not affect liability for noncompliance with air or water quality 33184
standards adopted pursuant to section 3704.03 or 6111.041 of the 33185
Revised Code. The application of a level of management and 33186
conservation practices recommended under this section to control 33187
windblown soil from farming operations creates a presumption of 33188
compliance with section 3704.03 of the Revised Code as that 33189
section applies to windblown soil.33190

       (11) Insofar as the rules relate to urban sediment pollution, 33191
shall not be applicable in a municipal corporation or county that 33192
adopts ordinances or rules for urban sediment control, except that 33193
a municipal corporation or county that adopts such ordinances or 33194
rules may receive moneys for urban sediment control that are 33195
disbursed by the board of supervisors of the applicable soil and 33196
water conservation district under division (N) of section 1515.08 33197
of the Revised Code. The rules shall not exempt any person from 33198
compliance with municipal ordinances enacted pursuant to Section 3 33199
of Article XVIII, Ohio Constitution.33200

       (F) Cost share with landowners on practices established 33201
pursuant to division (E)(5) of this section as moneys are 33202
appropriated and available for that purpose. Any practice for 33203
which cost share is provided shall be maintained for its useful 33204
life. Failure to maintain a cost share practice for its useful 33205
life shall subject the landowner to full repayment to the 33206
division.33207

       (G) Issue orders requiring compliance with any rule adopted 33208
under division (E)(1) of this section or with section 1511.022 of 33209
the Revised Code. Before the chief issues an order, the chief 33210
shall afford each person allegedly liable an adjudication hearing 33211
under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. The chief may require in 33212
an order that a person who has caused agricultural pollution by 33213
failure to comply with the standards established under division 33214
(E)(1) of this section operate under an operation and management 33215
plan approved by the chief under this section. The chief shall 33216
require in an order that a person who has failed to comply with 33217
division (A) of section 1511.022 of the Revised Code prepare a 33218
composting plan in accordance with rules adopted under division 33219
(E)(10)(c) of this section and operate in accordance with that 33220
plan or that a person who has failed to operate in accordance with 33221
such a plan begin to operate in accordance with it. Each order 33222
shall be issued in writing and contain a finding by the chief of 33223
the facts upon which the order is based and the standard that is 33224
not being met.33225

       (H) Employ field assistants and such other employees as are 33226
necessary for the performance of the work prescribed by Chapter 33227
1515. of the Revised Code, for performance of work of the 33228
division, and as agreed to under working agreements or contractual 33229
arrangements with local soil and water conservation districts, 33230
prescribe their duties, and fix their compensation in accordance 33231
with such schedules as are provided by law for the compensation of 33232
state employees.33233

       All employees of the division, unless specifically exempted 33234
by law, shall be employed subject to the classified civil service 33235
laws in force at the time of employment.33236

       (I) In connection with new or relocated projects involving 33237
highways, underground cables, pipelines, railroads, and other 33238
improvements affecting soil and water resources, including surface 33239
and subsurface drainage:33240

       (1) Provide engineering service as is mutually agreeable to 33241
the Ohio soil and water conservation commission and the director 33242
to aid in the design and installation of soil and water 33243
conservation practices as a necessary component of such projects;33244

       (2) Maintain close liaison between the owners of lands on 33245
which the projects are executed, local soil and water conservation 33246
districts, and authorities responsible for such projects;33247

       (3) Review plans for such projects to ensure their compliance 33248
with standards developed under division (E) of this section in 33249
cooperation with the department of transportation or with any 33250
other interested agency that is engaged in soil or water 33251
conservation projects in the state in order to minimize adverse 33252
impacts on soil and water resources adjacent to or otherwise 33253
affected by these projects;33254

       (4) Recommend measures to retard erosion and protect soil and 33255
water resources through the installation of water impoundment or 33256
other soil and water conservation practices;33257

       (5) Cooperate with other agencies and subdivisions of the 33258
state to protect the agricultural status of rural lands adjacent 33259
to such projects and control adverse impacts on soil and water 33260
resources.33261

       (J) Collect, analyze, inventory, and interpret all available 33262
information pertaining to the origin, distribution, extent, use, 33263
and conservation of the soil resources of the state;33264

       (K) Prepare and maintain up-to-date reports, maps, and other 33265
materials pertaining to the soil resources of the state and their 33266
use and make that information available to governmental agencies, 33267
public officials, conservation entities, and the public;33268

       (L) Provide soil and water conservation districts with 33269
technical assistance including on-site soil investigations and 33270
soil interpretation reports on the suitability or limitations of 33271
soil to support a particular use or to plan soil conservation 33272
measures. The assistance shall be upon such terms as are mutually 33273
agreeable to the districts and the department of natural 33274
resources.33275

       (M) Assist local government officials in utilizing land use 33276
planning and zoning, current agricultural use value assessment, 33277
development reviews, and land management activities;33278

       (N) When necessary for the purposes of this chapter or 33279
Chapter 1515. of the Revised Code, develop or approve operation 33280
and management plans.33281

       This section does not restrict the excrement of domestic or 33282
farm animals defecated on land outside a concentrated animal 33283
feeding operation or runoff therefrom into the waters of the 33284
state.33285

       Sec. 1511.022.  (A) Any person who owns or operates an 33286
agricultural operation, or owns the animals raised by the owner or 33287
operator of an agricultural operation, and who wishes to conduct 33288
composting of dead animals resulting from the agricultural 33289
operation shall do both of the following:33290

       (1) Participate in an educational course concerning 33291
composting conducted by the Ohio cooperativeOSU extension service33292
and obtain a certificate of completion for the course;33293

       (2) Use the appropriate method, technique, or practice of 33294
composting established in rules adopted under division (E)(8) of 33295
section 1511.02 of the Revised Code.33296

       (B) Any person who fails to comply with division (A) of this 33297
section shall prepare and operate under a composting plan in 33298
accordance with an order issued by the chief of the division of 33299
soil and water resources under division (G) of section 1511.02 of 33300
the Revised Code. If the person's proposed composting plan is 33301
disapproved by the board of supervisors of the appropriate soil 33302
and water conservation district under division (Q)(3) of section 33303
1515.08 of the Revised Code, the person may appeal the plan 33304
disapproval to the chief, who shall afford the person a hearing. 33305
Following the hearing, the chief shall uphold the plan disapproval 33306
or reverse it. If the chief reverses the disapproval, the plan 33307
shall be deemed approved.33308

       Sec. 1519.05. (A) As used in this section, "local political 33309
subdivision" and "nonprofit organization" have the same meanings 33310
as in section 164.20 of the Revised Code.33311

       (B)(1) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 33312
clean Ohio trail fund. Twelve and one-half per cent of the net 33313
proceeds of obligations issued and sold pursuant to sections 33314
151.01 and 151.09 of the Revised Code shall be deposited into the 33315
fund.33316

       (2) Investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the 33317
fund and may be used to pay costs incurred by the director of 33318
natural resources in administering this section.33319

       (3) Money in the clean Ohio trail fund shall not be used for 33320
the appropriation of land, rights, rights-of-way, franchises, 33321
easements, or other property through the exercise of the right of 33322
eminent domain.33323

       The(4) Except as provided in division (B)(5) of this 33324
section, the director shall use moneys in the fund exclusively to 33325
provide matching grants to nonprofit organizations and to local 33326
political subdivisions for the purposes of purchasing land or 33327
interests in land for recreational trails and for the construction 33328
of such trails. A matching grant may provide up to seventy-five 33329
per cent of the cost of a recreational trail project, and the 33330
recipient of the matching grant shall provide not less than 33331
twenty-five per cent of that cost.33332

       (5) The director, at the director's discretion, may use up to 33333
twenty-five per cent of moneys in the fund to provide grants to 33334
nonprofit organizations and to local political subdivisions for 33335
the purpose of maintaining recreational trails.33336

       (C) The director shall establish policies for the purposes of 33337
this section. The policies shall establish all of the following:33338

       (1) Procedures for providing matching grants to nonprofit 33339
organizations and local political subdivisions for the purposes of 33340
purchasing land or interests in land for recreational trails and 33341
for the construction of such trails, including, without 33342
limitation, procedures for both of the following:33343

       (a) Developing a grant application form and soliciting, 33344
accepting, and approving grant applications;33345

       (b) Participation by nonprofit organizations and local 33346
political subdivisions in the application process.33347

       (2) A requirement that an application for a matching grant 33348
for a recreational trail project include a copy of a resolution 33349
supporting the project from each county in which the proposed 33350
project is to be conducted and whichever of the following is 33351
applicable:33352

       (a) If the proposed project is to be conducted wholly within 33353
the geographical boundaries of one township, a copy of a 33354
resolution supporting the project from the township;33355

       (b) If the proposed project is to be conducted wholly within 33356
the geographical boundaries of one municipal corporation, a copy 33357
of a resolution supporting the project from the municipal 33358
corporation;33359

       (c) If the proposed project is to be conducted in more than 33360
one, but fewer than five townships or municipal corporations, a 33361
copy of a resolution supporting the project from at least one-half 33362
of the total number of townships and municipal corporations in 33363
which the proposed project is to be conducted;33364

       (d) If the proposed project is to be conducted in five or 33365
more municipal corporations, a copy of a resolution supporting the 33366
project from at least three-fifths of the total number of 33367
townships and municipal corporations in which the proposed project 33368
is to be conducted.33369

       (3) Eligibility criteria that must be satisfied by an 33370
applicant in order to receive a matching grant and that emphasize 33371
the following:33372

       (a) Synchronization with the statewide trail plan;33373

       (b) Complete regional systems and links to the statewide 33374
trail system;33375

       (c) A combination of funds from various state agencies;33376

       (d) The provision of links in urban areas that support 33377
commuter access and show economic impact on local communities;33378

       (e) The linkage of population centers with public outdoor 33379
recreation areas and facilities;33380

       (f) The purchase of rail lines that are linked to the 33381
statewide trail plan;33382

       (g) The preservation of natural corridors.33383

       (4) Items of value, such as in-kind contributions of land, 33384
easements or other interests in land, labor, or materials, that 33385
may be considered as contributing toward the percentage of the 33386
cost of a recreational trails project that must be provided by a 33387
matching grant recipient;33388

       (5) A requirement that an application for a matching grant 33389
for a recreational trail project include a study on the current 33390
use of existing trails in the county in which the proposed project 33391
will be located if there is an existing trail in that county. The 33392
study shall include a report on the maintenance needs and a plan 33393
for use of the proposed project.33394

        (6) Procedures for providing grants to nonprofit 33395
organizations and local political subdivisions for the purpose of 33396
maintaining recreational trails, including, without limitation, 33397
procedures for both of the following:33398

        (a) Developing a grant application form and soliciting, 33399
accepting, and approving grant applications;33400

        (b) Participation by nonprofit organizations and local 33401
political subdivisions in the application process.33402

        (7) Eligibility criteria that must be satisfied by an 33403
applicant in order to receive a grant for the purpose of 33404
maintaining recreational trails.33405

       Sec. 1531.06.  (A) The chief of the division of wildlife, 33406
with the approval of the director of natural resources, may 33407
acquire by gift, lease, purchase, or otherwise lands or surface 33408
rights upon lands and waters or surface rights upon waters for 33409
wild animals, fish or game management, preservation, propagation, 33410
and protection, outdoor and nature activities, public fishing and 33411
hunting grounds, and flora and fauna preservation. The chief, with 33412
the approval of the director, may receive by grant, devise, 33413
bequest, donation, or assignment evidences of indebtedness, the 33414
proceeds of which are to be used for the purchase of such lands or 33415
surface rights upon lands and waters or surface rights upon 33416
waters.33417

       (B)(1) The chief shall adopt rules for the protection of 33418
state-owned or leased lands and waters and property under the 33419
control of the division of wildlife against wrongful use or 33420
occupancy that will ensure the carrying out of the intent of this 33421
section, protect those lands, waters, and property from 33422
depredations, and preserve them from molestation, spoilation, 33423
destruction, or any improper use or occupancy thereof, including 33424
rules with respect to recreational activities and for the 33425
government and use of such lands, waters, and property.33426

       (2) The chief may adopt rules benefiting wild animals, fish 33427
or game management, preservation, propagation, and protection, 33428
outdoor and nature activities, public fishing and hunting grounds, 33429
and flora and fauna preservation, and regulating the taking and 33430
possession of wild animals on any lands or waters owned or leased 33431
or under the division's supervision and control and, for a 33432
specified period of years, may prohibit or recall the taking and 33433
possession of any wild animal on any portion of such lands or 33434
waters. The division clearly shall define and mark the boundaries 33435
of the lands and waters owned or leased or under its supervision 33436
and control upon which the taking of any wild animal is 33437
prohibited.33438

       (C) The chief, with the approval of the director, may acquire 33439
by gift, lease, or purchase land for the purpose of establishing 33440
state fish hatcheries and game farms and may erect on it buildings 33441
or structures that are necessary.33442

       The title to or lease of such lands and waters shall be taken 33443
by the chief in the name of the state. The lease or purchase price 33444
of all such lands and waters may be paid from hunting and trapping 33445
and fishing licenses and any other funds.33446

       (D) To provide more public recreation, stream and lake 33447
agreements for public fishing only may be obtained under rules 33448
adopted by the chief.33449

       (E) The chief, with the approval of the director, may 33450
establish user fees for the use of special public facilities or 33451
participation in special activities on lands and waters 33452
administered by the division. The special facilities and 33453
activities may include hunting or fishing on special designated 33454
public lands and waters intensively managed or stocked with 33455
artificially propagated game birds or fish, field trial 33456
facilities, wildlife nature centers, firearm ranges, boat mooring 33457
facilities, camping sites, and other similar special facilities 33458
and activities. The chief shall determine whether the user fees 33459
are refundable and shall ensure that that information is provided 33460
at the time the user fees are paid.33461

       (F) The chief, with the approval of the director, may enter 33462
into lease agreements for rental of concessions or other special 33463
projects situated on state-owned or leased lands or waters or 33464
other property under the division's control. The chief shall set 33465
and collect the fees for concession rentals or other special 33466
projects; regulate through contracts between the division and 33467
concessionaires the sale of tangible objects at concessions or 33468
other special projects; and keep a record of all such fee payments 33469
showing the amount received, from whom received, and for what 33470
purpose the fee was collected.33471

       (G) The chief may sell or donate conservation-related items 33472
or items that promote wildlife conservation, including, but not 33473
limited to, stamps, pins, badges, books, bulletins, maps, 33474
publications, calendars, and any other educational article or 33475
artifact pertaining to wild animals; sell confiscated or forfeited 33476
items; and sell surplus structures and equipment, and timber or 33477
crops from lands owned, administered, leased, or controlled by the 33478
division. The chief, with the approval of the director, also may 33479
engage in campaigns and special events that promote wildlife 33480
conservation by selling or donating wildlife-related materials, 33481
memberships, and other items of promotional value.33482

       (H) The chief may sell, lease, or transfer minerals or 33483
mineral rights, with the approval of the director, when the chief 33484
and the director determine it to be in the best interest of the 33485
state. Upon approval of the director, the chief may make, execute, 33486
and deliver contracts, including leases, to mine, drill, or 33487
excavate iron ore, stone, coal, salt, and other minerals, other 33488
than oil or gas, upon and under lands owned by the state and 33489
administered by the division to any person who complies with the 33490
terms of such a contract. No such contract shall be valid for more 33491
than fifty years from its effective date. Consideration for 33492
minerals and mineral rights shall be by rental or royalty basis as 33493
prescribed by the chief and payable as prescribed by contract. 33494
Moneys collected under this division shall be paid into the state 33495
treasury to the credit of the wildlife habitat fund created in 33496
section 1531.33 of the Revised Code. Contracts entered into under 33497
this division also may provide for consideration for minerals or 33498
mineral rights in the form of acquisition of lands as provided 33499
under divisions (A) and (C) of this section.33500

       (I) All moneys received under divisions (E), (F), and (G) of 33501
this section shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit 33502
of a fund that shall be used for the purposes outlined in section 33503
1533.15 of the Revised Code and for the management of other wild 33504
animals for their ecological and nonconsumptive recreational value 33505
or benefit.33506

       (J) The chief, with the approval of the director, may barter 33507
or sell wild animals to other states, state or federal agencies, 33508
and conservation or zoological organizations. Moneys received from 33509
the sale of wild animals shall be deposited into the wild animal33510
wildlife fund created in section 1531.341531.17 of the Revised 33511
Code.33512

       (K) The chief shall adopt rules establishing standards and 33513
guidelines for the administration of contraceptive chemicals to 33514
noncaptive wild animals. The rules may specify chemical delivery 33515
methods and devices and monitoring requirements.33516

       The chief shall establish criteria for the issuance of and 33517
shall issue permits for the administration of contraceptive 33518
chemicals to noncaptive wild animals. No person shall administer 33519
contraceptive chemicals to noncaptive wild animals without a 33520
permit issued by the chief.33521

       (L) All fees set by the chief under this section shall be 33522
approved by the wildlife council.33523

       (M) Information contained in the wildlife diversity database 33524
that is established pursuant to division (B)(2) of this section 33525
and section 1531.25 of the Revised Code may be made available to 33526
any individual or public or private agency for research, 33527
educational, environmental, land management, or other similar 33528
purposes that are not detrimental to the conservation of a species 33529
or feature. Information regarding sensitive site locations of 33530
species that are listed pursuant to section 1531.25 of the Revised 33531
Code and of features that are included in the wildlife diversity 33532
database is not subject to section 149.43 of the Revised Code if 33533
the chief determines that the release of the information could be 33534
detrimental to the conservation of a species or feature.33535

       Sec. 1531.17.  All fines, penalties, and forfeitures arising 33536
from prosecutions, convictions, confiscations, or otherwise under 33537
this chapter and Chapters 1517. and 1533. of the Revised Code, 33538
unless otherwise directed by the director of natural resources, 33539
shall be paid by the officer by whom collected to the director and 33540
by himthe director paid into the state treasury to the credit of 33541
the wildlife fund, which is hereby created, for the use of the 33542
division of wildlife. All moneys received from the sale of wild 33543
animals under division (J) of section 1531.06 shall be paid into 33544
the state treasury to the credit of the wildlife fund for the use 33545
of the division. All moneys collected as license fees on nets in 33546
the Lake Erie fishing district shall be paid by the director into 33547
the state treasury to the credit of the wildlife fund for use only 33548
in the betterment and the propagation of fish therein or in 33549
otherwise propagating fish in such district. All investment 33550
earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund. The wildlife 33551
fund shall not be used for compensation of personnel employed by 33552
other divisions of the department of natural resources who are 33553
assigned to law enforcement duties in aid of the division of 33554
wildlife or for compensation of division of wildlife personnel for 33555
activities related to the instruction of personnel of other 33556
divisions.33557

       Sec. 1541.50.  (A) There is hereby created the state 33558
recreational vehicle fund advisory board consisting of nine 33559
members. Not later than sixty days after the effective date of 33560
this section, the director of natural resources shall appoint all 33561
of the following members to the board:33562

       (1) Two members shall represent snowmobile users;33563

       (2) Two members shall represent all-purpose vehicle users;33564

       (3) Two members shall represent off-highway motorcycle users;33565

       (4) One member shall represent full-size four wheel drive 33566
users;33567

       (5) Two members shall represent power sport dealers.33568

       Of the initial appointments to the board, three shall serve 33569
for a one-year term, three shall serve for a two-year term, and 33570
three shall serve for a three-year term. Thereafter, terms of 33571
office shall be for three years, with each term ending on the same 33572
day of the same month as did the term that it succeeds. Each 33573
member shall hold office from the date of appointment until the 33574
end of the term for which the member was appointed.33575

       (B) Members may be reappointed. Any member appointed to fill 33576
a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration date of the term for 33577
which the member was appointed shall serve for the remainder of 33578
that term. A member shall continue to serve subsequent to the 33579
expiration date of the member's term until the member's successor 33580
takes office or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, 33581
whichever occurs first.33582

       (C) The state recreational vehicle fund advisory board shall 33583
advise with and make recommendations to the department of natural 33584
resources regarding the use of state recreational vehicle fund 33585
money and the department shall give primary consideration to the 33586
board's advice and recommendations.33587

       (D) Serving as a member of the board does not constitute 33588
holding a public office or position of employment under the laws 33589
of this state and does not constitute grounds for removal of 33590
public officers or employees from their offices or positions of 33591
employment.33592

       (E) A board member shall be reimbursed for actual and 33593
necessary expenses incurred in the discharge of duties as a board 33594
member.33595

       Sec. 1545.071. The following applies until the department of 33596
administrative services implements for park districts the health 33597
care plans under section 9.901 of the Revised Code. If those plans 33598
do not include or address any benefits listed in this section, the 33599
following provisions continue in effect for those benefits.33600

       The board of park commissioners of any park district may 33601
procure and pay all or any part of the cost of group insurance 33602
policies that may provide benefits for hospitalization, surgical 33603
care, major medical care, disability, dental care, eye care, 33604
medical care, hearing aids, or prescription drugs, or sickness and 33605
accident insurance or a combination of any of the foregoing types 33606
of insurance or coverage for park district officers and employees 33607
and their immediate dependents issued by an insurance company duly 33608
authorized to do business in this state.33609

       The board may procure and pay all or any part of the cost of 33610
group life insurance to insure the lives of park district 33611
employees.33612

       The board also may contract for group health care services 33613
with health insuring corporations holding a certificate of 33614
authority under Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code provided that 33615
each officer or employee is permitted to:33616

       (A) Choose between a plan offered by an insurance company and 33617
a plan offered by a health insuring corporation and provided 33618
further that the officer or employee pays any amount by which the 33619
cost of the plan chosen by the officer or employee exceeds the 33620
cost of the plan offered by the board under this section;33621

       (B) Change the choice made under division (A) of this section 33622
at a time each year as determined in advance by the board.33623

       Any appointed member of the board of park commissioners and 33624
the spouse and dependent children of the member may be covered, at 33625
the option and expense of the member, as a noncompensated employee 33626
of the park district under any benefit plan described in division 33627
(A) of this section. The member shall pay to the park district the 33628
amount certified to it by the benefit provider as the provider's 33629
charge for the coverage the member has chosen under division (A) 33630
of this section. Payments for coverage shall be made, in advance, 33631
in a manner prescribed by the board. The member's exercise of an 33632
option to be covered under this section shall be in writing, 33633
announced at a regular public meeting of the board, and recorded 33634
as a public record in the minutes of the board.33635

       The board may provide the benefits authorized in this section 33636
by contributing to a health and welfare trust fund administered 33637
through or in conjunction with a collective bargaining 33638
representative of the park district employees.33639

       The board may provide the benefits described in this section 33640
through an individual self-insurance program or a joint 33641
self-insurance program as provided in section 9.833 of the Revised 33642
Code.33643

       Sec. 1545.23.  If a park district enters into an agreement 33644
for the sale or lease of mineral rights regarding a park within 33645
the district, any royalties or other moneys resulting from the 33646
sale or lease shall be deposited into a special fund that the 33647
board of park commissioners shall create. The fund shall be used 33648
exclusively for maintenance of parks within the district and for 33649
the acquisition of new park lands.33650

       Sec. 1547.05. NoExcept as provided in division (A)(2) of 33651
section 1547.052 of the Revised Code, no person born on or after 33652
January 1, 1982,under eighteen years of age shall operate on the 33653
waters in this state a powercraft powered by more than ten 33654
horsepower, and no person shall supervise a person under division 33655
(A) of section 1547.06 of the Revised Code, unless the operator or 33656
supervisor successfully has completed either a safe boater course 33657
approved by the national association of state boating law 33658
administrators or a proctored or nonproctored proficiency 33659
examination that tests knowledge of information included in the 33660
curriculum of such a course, and has received a certificate as 33661
evidence of successful completion of the course or examination.33662

       No person shall permit a powercraft to be operated on the 33663
waters in this state in violation of this section.33664

       Sec. 1547.051.  A person born on or after January 1, 1982,33665
under eighteen years of age who is operating on the waters in this 33666
state a powercraft powered by more than ten horsepower or a person 33667
who is supervising a person under division (A) of section 1547.06 33668
of the Revised Code and who is stopped by a law enforcement 33669
officer in the enforcement of Chapter 1547. of the Revised Code33670
this chapter or rules adopted under it shall present to the law 33671
enforcement officer, not later than seventy-two hours after being 33672
stopped, a certificate obtained by the person pursuant to section 33673
1547.05 of the Revised Code prior to being stopped or proof of 33674
holding such a certificate. Failure of the person to present the 33675
certificate or proof of holding it within seventy-two hours 33676
constitutes prima-facieprima facie evidence of a violation of 33677
section 1547.05 of the Revised Code.33678

       Sec. 1547.052.  (A) No rental business shall lease, hire, or 33679
rent a powercraft powered by more than ten horsepower for 33680
operation on the waters in this state to a person born on or after 33681
January 1, 1982under eighteen years of age, or to a person who 33682
will be supervising a person under division (A) of section 1547.06 33683
of the Revised Code, unless the person to whom the powercraft will 33684
be leased, hired, or rented meets one of the following 33685
requirements:33686

       (1) The person signs a statement on the rental agreement or 33687
attached to the rental agreement that the person has successfully 33688
completed a safe boater course approved by the national 33689
association of state boating law administrators or has 33690
successfully completed a proficiency examination as provided in 33691
section 1547.05 of the Revised Code.33692

       (2) The person receives educational materials from the rental 33693
business and successfully passes, with a score of ninety per cent 33694
or better, an abbreviated examination given by the rental 33695
business. The achievement of a passing score on the examination 33696
shall be indicated on or attached to the powercraft rental 33697
agreement.33698

       (B) Any person born on or after January 1, 1982,under 33699
eighteen years of age operating a leased, hired, or rented 33700
powercraft or supervising the operation of a leased, hired, or 33701
rented powercraft under division (A) of section 1547.06 of the 33702
Revised Code shall:33703

       (1) Meet the requirements for boater education of division 33704
(A) of this section.;33705

       (2) Be named as an operator on the agreement that leases, 33706
hires, or rents the powercraft.33707

       (C) The division of watercraft shall make available to all 33708
watercraft rental businesses in Ohio boater safety educational 33709
materials and an abbreviated examination that shall be used by the 33710
watercraft rental business for the purposes of division (A)(2) of 33711
this section.33712

       Sec. 1547.06.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in this 33713
division, no(1) No person under sixteentwelve years of age shall 33714
operate a personal watercraft on the waters in this state. A33715

       (2) A person who is not less than twelve, nor more than 33716
fifteen years of age may operate a personal watercraft if a 33717
supervising person eighteen years of age or older is aboard the 33718
personal watercraft and, in the case of a supervising person born33719
meets one of the following requirements:33720

       (a) Was born before January 1, 1982;33721

       (b) Was born on or after January 1, 1982, if the supervising 33722
personand holds a certificate obtained under section 1547.05 of 33723
the Revised Code or, in;33724

       (c) In the case of a rented powercraft, meets the 33725
requirements of section 1547.052 of the Revised Code.33726

       (B) No person under twelve years of age shall operate any 33727
vessel on the waters in this state unless the person is under the 33728
direct visual and audible supervision, during the operation, of a 33729
person who is eighteen years of age or older. This division does 33730
not apply to a personal watercraft, which shall be governed by 33731
division (A) of this section, or to a powercraft, other than a 33732
personal watercraft, powered by more than ten horsepower, which 33733
shall be governed by division (C) of this section.33734

       (C) No person under twelve years of age shall operate on the 33735
waters in this state a powercraft, other than a personal 33736
watercraft, powered by more than ten horsepower unless the person 33737
is under the direct visual and audible supervision, during the 33738
operation, of a person eighteen years of age or older who is 33739
aboard the powercraft and, in the case of such a supervising 33740
person born on or after January 1, 1982, who holds a certificate 33741
obtained under section 1547.05 of the Revised Code or, in the case 33742
of a rented powercraft, meets the requirements of section 1547.052 33743
of the Revised Code.33744

       (D) No supervising person eighteen years of age or older 33745
shall permit any person who is under the supervising person's 33746
supervision and who is operating a vessel on the waters in this 33747
state to violate any section of this chapter or a rule adopted 33748
under it.33749

       Sec. 1547.532.  (A) All of the following are exempt from 33750
registration under this chapter:33751

       (1) Sailboards;33752

       (2) Kiteboards;33753

       (3) Paddleboards;33754

       (4) Belly boats or float tubes.33755

       (B) As used in this section:33756

       (1) "Belly boat" or "float tube" means a vessel that is 33757
inflatable, propelled solely by human muscular effort without 33758
using an oar, paddle, or pole, and designed to accommodate a 33759
single individual as an operator in such a manner that the 33760
operator remains partially submerged in the water.33761

       (2) "Kiteboard" means a recreational vessel that is 33762
inherently buoyant, has no cockpit, and is operated by an 33763
individual who is standing on the vessel while using a kite as a 33764
means of propulsion and lift.33765

       (3) "Paddleboard" means a recreational vessel that is 33766
inherently buoyant, is propelled by human muscular effort using a 33767
pole or single- or double-bladed paddle, and is operated by an 33768
individual who is kneeling, standing, or lying on the vessel.33769

       (4) "Sailboard" means a recreational vessel that is 33770
inherently buoyant, has no cockpit, has a single sail mounted on a 33771
mast that is connected to the vessel by a free-rotating, flexible 33772
joint, and is operated by an individual who is standing on the 33773
vessel.33774

       Sec. 1547.542. (A) Any person or organization owning any 33775
number of canoes, rowboats, inflatable watercraft, or sailboats 33776
for the purpose of rental to the public may apply with the chief 33777
of the division of watercraft for and receive an annual 33778
certificate of livery registration. No watercraft shall be rented 33779
to the public from a livery or other place of business in this 33780
state unless it first has been numbered and registered in 33781
accordance with this section or section 1547.54 of the Revised 33782
Code. Certificates of livery registration shall be issued by an 33783
authorized agent who is selected by the chief from among those 33784
designated under section 1547.54 of the Revised Code. The 33785
certificate shall display theall of the following:33786

       (1) The name of the owner of the livery, the;33787

       (2) The date of issuance, the;33788

       (3) The date of expiration, the;33789

       (4) The number of watercraft registered, the;33790

       (5) The fee paid, an;33791

       (6) An authorized facsimile of the signature of the chief 33792
provided by the authorized agent who is selected to issue the 33793
certificate, and the;33794

       (7) The signature of the livery owner. The certificate shall 33795
bear the;33796

       (8) The livery watercraft registration number assigned to the 33797
livery owner, which shall be displayed in accordance with section 33798
1547.57 of the Revised Code on each watercraft in the fleet for 33799
which the certificate was issued. The33800

       The owner of the livery shall be issued a tag for each 33801
watercraft that has been registered in accordance with this 33802
section. The tag shall be affixed to each such watercraft in 33803
accordance with this section prior to the watercraft's being 33804
rented to the public. The chief shall prescribe the content and 33805
form of the tag in rules adopted under section 1547.52 of the 33806
Revised Code.33807

       The owner of a livery shall obtain an amended certificate of 33808
livery registration from the chief whenever the composition of the 33809
fleet changes.33810

       (B) Not later than March 15, 2015, the owner of a livery 33811
shall identify each watercraft in the fleet for which a 33812
certificate of registration has been issued under this section in 33813
one of the following ways:33814

       (1) By displaying the livery watercraft registration number 33815
assigned to the livery owner on the forward half of both sides of 33816
the watercraft in block characters that are of a single color that 33817
contrasts with the color of the hull and are at least three inches 33818
in height. The livery watercraft registration number shall be 33819
displayed in such a manner that the number is visible under normal 33820
operating conditions. In addition, the tag that has been issued to 33821
the watercraft under this section shall be placed not more than 33822
six inches from the livery watercraft registration number on the 33823
port side of the watercraft.33824

       (2) By displaying the livery name on the rear half of the 33825
watercraft in such a manner that it is clearly visible under 33826
normal operating conditions. If there is insufficient space or it 33827
is impractical to display the livery name on the sides of the 33828
watercraft, the livery name may be displayed on the rear half of 33829
the watercraft's deck, provided that the display of the name does 33830
not interfere with the placement of the tag that has been issued 33831
to the watercraft. In addition, the tag shall be placed in one of 33832
the following locations:33833

       (a) In the upper right corner of the transom so that the tag 33834
does not interfere with the legibility of the hull identification 33835
number of the watercraft;33836

       (b) Six inches from the stern on the outside of the 33837
watercraft below the port side gunwale;33838

       (c) On the inside of the watercraft on the upper portion of 33839
the starboard side gunwale so that the tag is visible from the 33840
port side of the watercraft;33841

       (d) On a deck on the rear half of the watercraft.33842

       For purposes of division (B) of this section, each watercraft 33843
in a livery fleet shall be identified in a uniform and consistent 33844
manner.33845

       (C) The fee for each watercraft registered under this section 33846
shall be an annual registration fee. The fee shall be one-third of 33847
the triennial registration fees prescribed in section 1547.54 of 33848
the Revised Code. However, if the size of the fleet does not 33849
increase, the fee for an amended certificate of livery 33850
registration shall be the fee prescribed for issuing a duplicate 33851
registration certificate under section 1547.54 of the Revised 33852
Code, and the chief shall not refund to the livery owner all or 33853
any portion of an annual registration fee applicable to a 33854
watercraft transferred or abandoned by the livery owner. If the 33855
size of the fleet increases, the livery owner shall be required to 33856
pay the applicable annual registration fee for each watercraft 33857
registered under an amended certificate of livery registration 33858
that is in excess of the number of watercraft contained in the 33859
annual certificate of livery registration.33860

       In addition to the fees established in this section, 33861
watercraft that are not powercraft shall be charged a waterways 33862
conservation assessment fee. The fee shall be collected at the 33863
time of the issuance of an annual livery registration under this 33864
section and shall be one dollar and fifty cents for each 33865
watercraft included in the registration. The fee shall be 33866
deposited in the state treasury and credited to a distinct account 33867
in the waterways safety fund created in section 1547.75 of the 33868
Revised Code.33869

       (D) The certificate of livery registration, rental receipts33870
agreements, and required safety equipment are subject to 33871
inspection at any time at the livery's place of business by any 33872
authorized representative of the division of watercraft or any law 33873
enforcement officer in accordance with section 1547.63 of the 33874
Revised Code.33875

       (E) Except as provided in this section, all watercraft 33876
registered under this section are subject to this chapter and 33877
Chapter 1548. of the Revised Code.33878

       (F) The chief may issue an order temporarily or permanently33879
restricting or suspending a livery certificate of registration and 33880
the privileges associated with it without a hearing if the chief 33881
finds that the holder of the certificate has violated this 33882
chapter.33883

       Sec. 1547.99.  (A) Whoever violates section 1547.91 of the 33884
Revised Code is guilty of a felony of the fourth degree.33885

       (B) Whoever violates division (F) of section 1547.08, section 33886
1547.10, division (I) of section 1547.111, section 1547.13, or 33887
section 1547.66 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of 33888
the first degree.33889

       (C) Whoever violates a provision of this chapter or a rule 33890
adopted thereunder, for which no penalty is otherwise provided, is 33891
guilty of a minor misdemeanor.33892

       (D) Whoever violates section 1547.07, 1547.132, or 1547.12 of 33893
the Revised Code without causing injury to persons or damage to 33894
property is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.33895

       (E) Whoever violates section 1547.07, 1547.132, or 1547.12 of 33896
the Revised Code causing injury to persons or damage to property 33897
is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.33898

       (F) Whoever violates division (N) of section 1547.54, 33899
division (G) of section 1547.30, or section 1547.131, 1547.25, 33900
1547.33, 1547.38, 1547.39, 1547.40, 1547.65, 1547.69, or 1547.92 33901
of the Revised Code or a rule adopted under division (A)(2) of 33902
section 1547.52 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of 33903
the fourth degree.33904

       (G) Whoever violates section 1547.11 of the Revised Code is 33905
guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree and shall be punished 33906
as provided in division (G)(1), (2), or (3) of this section.33907

       (1) Except as otherwise provided in division (G)(2) or (3) of 33908
this section, the court shall sentence the offender to a jail term 33909
of three consecutive days and may sentence the offender pursuant 33910
to section 2929.24 of the Revised Code to a longer jail term. In 33911
addition, the court shall impose upon the offender a fine of not 33912
less than one hundred fifty nor more than one thousand dollars.33913

       The court may suspend the execution of the mandatory jail 33914
term of three consecutive days that it is required to impose by 33915
division (G)(1) of this section if the court, in lieu of the 33916
suspended jail term, places the offender under a community control 33917
sanction pursuant to section 2929.25 of the Revised Code and 33918
requires the offender to attend, for three consecutive days, a 33919
drivers' intervention program that is certified pursuant to 33920
section 3793.105119.38 of the Revised Code. The court also may 33921
suspend the execution of any part of the mandatory jail term of 33922
three consecutive days that it is required to impose by division 33923
(G)(1) of this section if the court places the offender under a 33924
community control sanction pursuant to section 2929.25 of the 33925
Revised Code for part of the three consecutive days; requires the 33926
offender to attend, for that part of the three consecutive days, a 33927
drivers' intervention program that is certified pursuant to 33928
section 3793.105119.38 of the Revised Code; and sentences the 33929
offender to a jail term equal to the remainder of the three 33930
consecutive days that the offender does not spend attending the 33931
drivers' intervention program. The court may require the offender, 33932
as a condition of community control, to attend and satisfactorily 33933
complete any treatment or education programs, in addition to the 33934
required attendance at a drivers' intervention program, that the 33935
operators of the drivers' intervention program determine that the 33936
offender should attend and to report periodically to the court on 33937
the offender's progress in the programs. The court also may impose 33938
any other conditions of community control on the offender that it 33939
considers necessary.33940

       (2) If, within six years of the offense, the offender has 33941
been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one violation of section 33942
1547.11 of the Revised Code or one other equivalent offense, the 33943
court shall sentence the offender to a jail term of ten 33944
consecutive days and may sentence the offender pursuant to section 33945
2929.24 of the Revised Code to a longer jail term. In addition, 33946
the court shall impose upon the offender a fine of not less than 33947
one hundred fifty nor more than one thousand dollars.33948

       In addition to any other sentence that it imposes upon the 33949
offender, the court may require the offender to attend a drivers' 33950
intervention program that is certified pursuant to section 3793.1033951
5119.38 of the Revised Code.33952

       (3) If, within six years of the offense, the offender has 33953
been convicted of or pleaded guilty to more than one violation or 33954
offense identified in division (G)(2) of this section, the court 33955
shall sentence the offender to a jail term of thirty consecutive 33956
days and may sentence the offender to a longer jail term of not 33957
more than one year. In addition, the court shall impose upon the 33958
offender a fine of not less than one hundred fifty nor more than 33959
one thousand dollars.33960

       In addition to any other sentence that it imposes upon the 33961
offender, the court may require the offender to attend a drivers' 33962
intervention program that is certified pursuant to section 3793.1033963
5119.38 of the Revised Code.33964

       (4) Upon a showing that serving a jail term would seriously 33965
affect the ability of an offender sentenced pursuant to division 33966
(G)(1), (2), or (3) of this section to continue the offender's 33967
employment, the court may authorize that the offender be granted 33968
work release after the offender has served the mandatory jail term 33969
of three, ten, or thirty consecutive days that the court is 33970
required by division (G)(1), (2), or (3) of this section to 33971
impose. No court shall authorize work release during the mandatory 33972
jail term of three, ten, or thirty consecutive days that the court 33973
is required by division (G)(1), (2), or (3) of this section to 33974
impose. The duration of the work release shall not exceed the time 33975
necessary each day for the offender to commute to and from the 33976
place of employment and the place in which the jail term is served 33977
and the time actually spent under employment.33978

       (5) Notwithstanding any section of the Revised Code that 33979
authorizes the suspension of the imposition or execution of a 33980
sentence or the placement of an offender in any treatment program 33981
in lieu of being imprisoned or serving a jail term, no court shall 33982
suspend the mandatory jail term of ten or thirty consecutive days 33983
required to be imposed by division (G)(2) or (3) of this section 33984
or place an offender who is sentenced pursuant to division (G)(2) 33985
or (3) of this section in any treatment program in lieu of being 33986
imprisoned or serving a jail term until after the offender has 33987
served the mandatory jail term of ten or thirty consecutive days 33988
required to be imposed pursuant to division (G)(2) or (3) of this 33989
section. Notwithstanding any section of the Revised Code that 33990
authorizes the suspension of the imposition or execution of a 33991
sentence or the placement of an offender in any treatment program 33992
in lieu of being imprisoned or serving a jail term, no court, 33993
except as specifically authorized by division (G)(1) of this 33994
section, shall suspend the mandatory jail term of three 33995
consecutive days required to be imposed by division (G)(1) of this 33996
section or place an offender who is sentenced pursuant to division 33997
(G)(1) of this section in any treatment program in lieu of 33998
imprisonment until after the offender has served the mandatory 33999
jail term of three consecutive days required to be imposed 34000
pursuant to division (G)(1) of this section.34001

       (6) As used in division (G) of this section:34002

       (a) "Equivalent offense" has the same meaning as in section 34003
4511.181 of the Revised Code.34004

       (b) "Jail term" and "mandatory jail term" have the same 34005
meanings as in section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.34006

       (H) Whoever violates section 1547.304 of the Revised Code is 34007
guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree and also shall be 34008
assessed any costs incurred by the state or a county, township, 34009
municipal corporation, or other political subdivision in disposing 34010
of an abandoned junk vessel or outboard motor, less any money 34011
accruing to the state, county, township, municipal corporation, or 34012
other political subdivision from that disposal.34013

       (I) Whoever violates division (B) or (C) of section 1547.49 34014
of the Revised Code is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.34015

       (J) Whoever violates section 1547.31 of the Revised Code is 34016
guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree on a first offense. 34017
On each subsequent offense, the person is guilty of a misdemeanor 34018
of the third degree.34019

       (K) Whoever violates section 1547.05 or 1547.051 of the 34020
Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree if 34021
the violation is not related to a collision, injury to a person, 34022
or damage to property and a misdemeanor of the third degree if the 34023
violation is related to a collision, injury to a person, or damage 34024
to property.34025

       (L) The sentencing court, in addition to the penalty provided 34026
under this section for a violation of this chapter or a rule 34027
adopted under it that involves a powercraft powered by more than 34028
ten horsepower and that, in the opinion of the court, involves a 34029
threat to the safety of persons or property, shall order the 34030
offender to complete successfully a boating course approved by the 34031
national association of state boating law administrators before 34032
the offender is allowed to operate a powercraft powered by more 34033
than ten horsepower on the waters in this state. Violation of a 34034
court order entered under this division is punishable as contempt 34035
under Chapter 2705. of the Revised Code.34036

       Sec. 1548.02.  The chief of the division of watercraft shall 34037
adopt such rules as the chief considers necessary to ensure 34038
uniform and orderly operation of this chapter, and the clerks of 34039
the courts of common pleas shall conform to those rules. The chief 34040
shall receive and file in the chief's office all information 34041
forwarded to the chief by the clerks under this chapter and shall 34042
maintain indexes covering the state at large for that information. 34043
These indexes shall be for the state at large and not for 34044
individual counties.34045

       The chief shall check with the chief's record all duplicate 34046
certificates of title received in the chief's office from the 34047
clerks.34048

       If it appears that any certificate of title has been 34049
improperly issued or is no longer required, the chief shall cancel 34050
the certificate. Upon the cancellation of any certificate of 34051
title, the chief shall notify the clerk who issued it, and the 34052
clerk shall enter the cancellation in the clerk's records. The 34053
chief also shall notify the person to whom the certificate of 34054
title was issued, as well as any lienholders appearing on it, of 34055
the cancellation and, if it is a physical certificate of title, 34056
shall demand the surrender of the certificate of title, but the 34057
cancellation shall not affect the validity of any lien noted on 34058
it. The holder of a physical certificate of title shall return it 34059
to the chief immediately.34060

       The clerks shall keep on hand a sufficient supply of blank 34061
forms that, except certificate of title and memorandum certificate 34062
forms, shall be furnished and distributed without charge to 34063
registered manufacturers or dealers or to other persons residing 34064
within the county. The clerks shall provide the certificates of 34065
title, theand ribbons, cartridges, or other devices necessary for 34066
datathe operation of the certificate of title processing, and 34067
removable backup mediaequipment as determined by the automated 34068
title processing board pursuant to division (C) of section 4505.09 34069
of the Revised Code from moneys provided to the clerks from the 34070
automated title processing fund in accordance with division 34071
(B)(3)(b) of section 4505.09 of the Revised Code. The clerks shall 34072
furnish all other supplies from other moneys available to the 34073
clerks.34074

       Sec. 1551.33.  (A) The director of development services shall 34075
appoint and fix the compensation of the director of the Ohio coal 34076
development office. The director shall serve at the pleasure of 34077
the director of development services.34078

       (B) The director of the office shall do all of the following:34079

       (1) Biennially prepare and maintain the Ohio coal development 34080
agenda required under section 1551.34 of the Revised Code;34081

       (2) Propose and support policies for the office consistent 34082
with the Ohio coal development agenda and develop means to 34083
implement the agenda;34084

       (3) Initiate, undertake, and support projects to carry out 34085
the office's purposes and ensure that the projects are consistent 34086
with and meet the selection criteria established by the Ohio coal 34087
development agenda;34088

       (4) Actively encourage joint participation in and, when 34089
feasible, joint funding of the office's projects with governmental 34090
agencies, electric utilities, universities and colleges, other 34091
public or private interests, or any other person;34092

       (5) Establish a table of organization for and employ such 34093
employees and agents as are necessary for the administration and 34094
operation of the office. Any such employees shall be in the 34095
unclassified service and shall serve at the pleasure of the 34096
director of development services.34097

       (6) Appoint specified members of and conveneConvene the 34098
technical advisory committee established under section 1551.35 of 34099
the Revised Code;34100

       (7) Review, with the assistance of the technical advisory 34101
committee, proposed coal research and development projects as 34102
defined in section 1555.01 of the Revised Code, and coal 34103
development projects, submitted to the office by public utilities 34104
for the purpose of section 4905.304 of the Revised Code. If the 34105
director and the advisory committee determine that any such 34106
facility or project has as its purpose the enhanced use of Ohio 34107
coal in an environmentally acceptable, cost effective manner, 34108
promotes energy conservation, is cost effective, and is 34109
environmentally sound, the director shall submit to the public 34110
utilities commission a report recommending that the commission 34111
allow the recovery of costs associated with the facility or 34112
project under section 4905.304 of the Revised Code and including 34113
the reasons for the recommendation.34114

       (8) Establish such policies, procedures, and guidelines as 34115
are necessary to achieve the office's purposes.34116

       (C) With the approval of the director of development 34117
services, the director of the office may exercise any of the 34118
powers and duties that the director of development services34119
considers appropriate or desirable to achieve the office's 34120
purposes, including, but not limited to, the powers and duties 34121
enumerated in sections 1551.11, 1551.12, and 1551.15 of the 34122
Revised Code.34123

       Additionally, the director of the office may make loans to 34124
governmental agencies or persons for projects to carry out the 34125
office's purposes. Fees, charges, rates of interest, times of 34126
payment of interest and principal, and other terms, conditions, 34127
and provisions of the loans shall be such as the director of the 34128
office determines to be appropriate and in furtherance of the 34129
purposes for which the loans are made. The mortgage lien securing 34130
any moneys lent by the director of the office may be subordinate 34131
to the mortgage lien securing any moneys lent or invested by a 34132
financial institution, but shall be superior to that securing any 34133
moneys lent or expended by any other person. The moneys used in 34134
making the loans shall be disbursed upon order of the director of 34135
the office.34136

       Sec. 1551.35.  (A) There is hereby established a technical 34137
advisory committee to assist the director of the Ohio coal 34138
development office in achieving the office's purposes. The 34139
director of development services shall appoint to the committee 34140
one member of the public utilities commission and one 34141
representative each of coal production companies, the united mine 34142
workers of America, electric utilities, manufacturers that use 34143
Ohio coal, and environmental organizations, as well as two people 34144
with a background in coal research and development technology, one 34145
of whom is employed at the time of the member's appointment by a 34146
state university, as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised 34147
Code. In addition, the committee shall include four legislative 34148
members. The speaker and minority leader of the house of 34149
representatives each shall appoint one member of the house of 34150
representatives, and the president and minority leader of the 34151
senate each shall appoint one member of the senate, to the 34152
committee. The director of environmental protection shall serve on 34153
the committee as an ex officio member. Any member of the committee 34154
may designate in writing a substitute to serve in the member's 34155
absence on the committee. The director of environmental protection 34156
may designate in writing the chief of the air pollution control 34157
division of the agency to represent the agency. Members shall 34158
serve on the committee at the pleasure of their appointing 34159
authority. Members of the committee appointed by the director of 34160
the officedevelopment services and, notwithstanding section 34161
101.26 of the Revised Code, legislative members of the committee, 34162
when engaged in their official duties as members of the committee, 34163
shall be compensated on a per diem basis in accordance with 34164
division (J) of section 124.15 of the Revised Code, except that 34165
the member of the public utilities commission and, while employed 34166
by a state university, the member with a background in coal 34167
research, shall not be so compensated. Members shall receive their 34168
actual and necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their 34169
duties.34170

       (B) The technical advisory committee shall review and make 34171
recommendations concerning the Ohio coal development agenda 34172
required under section 1551.34 of the Revised Code, project 34173
proposals, research and development projects submitted to the 34174
office by public utilities for the purpose of section 4905.304 of 34175
the Revised Code, proposals for grants, loans, and loan guarantees 34176
for purposes of sections 1555.01 to 1555.06 of the Revised Code, 34177
and such other topics as the director of the office considers 34178
appropriate.34179

       (C) The technical advisory committee may hold an executive 34180
session at any regular or special meeting for the purpose of 34181
considering research and development project proposals or 34182
applications for assistance submitted to the Ohio coal development 34183
office under section 1551.33, or sections 1555.01 to 1555.06, of 34184
the Revised Code, to the extent that the proposals or applications 34185
consist of trade secrets or other proprietary information.34186

       Any materials or data submitted to, made available to, or 34187
received by the department of development services agency or the 34188
director of the Ohio coal development office in connection with 34189
agreements for assistance entered into under this chapter or 34190
Chapter 1555. of the Revised Code, or any information taken from 34191
those materials or data for any purpose, to the extent that the 34192
materials or data consist of trade secrets or other proprietary 34193
information, are not public records for the purposes of section 34194
149.43 of the Revised Code.34195

       As used in this division, "trade secrets" has the same 34196
meaning as in section 1333.61 of the Revised Code.34197

       Sec. 1555.15.  There is hereby created in the state treasury 34198
the coal research and development fund. Moneys obtained for coal 34199
research and development projects from federal grants or loans, 34200
private grants, and other sources, and moneys paid into the fund 34201
pursuant to section 151.07 or 1555.08 of the Revised Code, shall 34202
be expended for the purpose of making grants and making or 34203
guaranteeing loans for coal research and development projects that 34204
will encourage the use of Ohio coal, to any individual, 34205
association, or corporation doing business in this state, or to 34206
any educational or scientific institution located in this state as 34207
provided for in Section 15 of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution and 34208
section 1555.08 of the Revised Code, when appropriated for such 34209
purposes by the general assembly. All investment earnings on the 34210
cash balance in the fund shall be credited to the fund.34211

       The director of budget and management shall establish and 34212
maintain records or accounts for or within the coal research and 34213
development fund in such manner as to show the amounts credited to 34214
such fund pursuant to section 1555.08 of the Revised Code and that 34215
the amounts so credited have been expended for the purposes set 34216
forth in Section 15 of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, and 34217
section 151.07 of the Revised Code. The director of budget and 34218
management may otherwise manage the fund to comply with any 34219
requirements established by federal grants or loans, private 34220
grants, or moneys from other sources.34221

       Sec. 1711.07.  The board of directors of a county or 34222
independent agricultural society shall consist of at least eight 34223
members. An employee of the Ohio state universityOSU extension 34224
service and the county school superintendent shall be members ex 34225
officio. Their terms of office shall be determined by the rules of 34226
the department of agriculture. Any vacancy in the board caused by 34227
death, resignation, refusal to qualify, removal from county, or 34228
other cause may be filled by the board until the society's next 34229
annual election, when a director shall be elected for the 34230
unexpired term. There shall be an annual election of directors by 34231
ballot at a time and a place fixed by the board, but this election 34232
shall not be held later than the first Saturday in December 1994, 34233
and not later than the fifteenth day of November each year 34234
thereafter, beginning in 1995. The secretary of the society shall 34235
give notice of suchthe election, for three weeks prior to the 34236
holding thereof, in a newspaper of general circulation in the 34237
county or as provided in section 7.16 of the Revised Code, or by 34238
letter mailed to each member of the society. Only persons holding 34239
membership certificates at the close of the annual county fair, or 34240
at least fifteen calendar days before the date of election, as may 34241
be fixed by the board, may vote, unless suchthe election is held 34242
on the fairground during the fair, in which case all persons 34243
holding membership certificates on the date and hour of the 34244
election may vote. When the election is to be held during the 34245
fair, notice of suchthe election mustshall be prominently 34246
mentioned in the premium list, in addition to the notice required 34247
in a newspaper. The terms of office of the retiring directors 34248
shall expire, and those of the directors-elect shall begin, not 34249
later than the first Saturday in January 1995, and not later than 34250
the thirtieth day of November each year thereafter, beginning in 34251
1995.34252

       The secretary of suchthe society shall send the name and 34253
address of each member of its board to the director of agriculture 34254
within ten days after the election.34255

       Sec. 1721.10. LandsExcept as otherwise provided in this 34256
section, lands appropriated and set apart as burial grounds, 34257
either for public or for private use, and recorded or filed as 34258
such in the office of the county recorder of the county where they 34259
are situated, and any burial ground that has been used as such for 34260
fifteen years are exempt from sale on execution on a judgment, 34261
taxation, dower, and compulsory partition; but land appropriated 34262
and set apart as a private burial ground is not so exempt if it 34263
exceeds in value the sum of fifty dollars.34264

       The lien for taxes against such burial grounds may be 34265
enforced in the same manner prescribed for abandoned lands under 34266
sections 323.65 to 323.79 of the Revised Code except that the 34267
burial ground may be transferred only to a municipal corporation, 34268
county, or township under division (D) of section 323.74 of the 34269
Revised Code. No burial ground that is otherwise exempt from sale 34270
or execution under this section shall be offered for sale at 34271
public auction.34272

       Sec. 1724.03. (A) After the articles of incorporation have 34273
been filed, and at the first meeting of the board of directors of 34274
a county land reutilization corporation, the board shall adopt 34275
regulations for the government of the corporation, the conduct of 34276
its affairs, and the management of its property, consistent with 34277
law and the articles. The content of the regulations shall be 34278
governed by section 1702.11 of the Revised Code to the extent not 34279
inconsistent with this chapter. 34280

       (B) The board of directors of a county land reutilization 34281
corporation shall be composed of five, seven, or nine members, 34282
including the county treasurer, at least two of the members of the 34283
board of county commissioners, one representative of the largest 34284
municipal corporation, based on the population according to the 34285
most recent federal decennial census, that is located in the 34286
county, one representative of a township with a population of at 34287
least ten thousand in the unincorporated area of the township 34288
according to the most recent federal decennial census, if at least 34289
two such townships exist in the county, and any remaining members 34290
selected by the treasurer and the county commissioners who are 34291
members of the corporation's board. The township representative 34292
shall be chosen by a majority of the boards of township trustees 34293
of townships with a population of at least ten thousand in the 34294
unincorporated area of the township according to the most recent 34295
federal decennial census. At least one board member shall have 34296
private sector or nonprofit experience in rehabilitation or real 34297
estate acquisitions. A county treasurer and the county 34298
commissioners each may appoint a representative, as a director of 34299
the corporation, to act for the officer at any of the meetings of 34300
the corporation. Except as may otherwise be authorized by the 34301
regulations of the corporation, all members of the board of 34302
directors shall serve without compensation, but shall be 34303
reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses. 34304

       Sec. 1739.061. (A)(1) This section applies to both of the 34305
following:34306

       (a) A multiple employer welfare arrangement that issues or 34307
requires the use of a standardized identification card or an 34308
electronic technology for submission and routing of prescription 34309
drug claims;34310

        (b) A person or entity that a multiple employer welfare 34311
arrangement contracts with to issue a standardized identification 34312
card or an electronic technology described in division (A)(1)(a) 34313
of this section.34314

       (2) Notwithstanding division (A)(1) of this section, this 34315
section does not apply to the issuance or required use of a 34316
standardized identification card or an electronic technology for 34317
the submission and routing of prescription drug claims in 34318
connection with any of the following:34319

       (a) Any program or arrangement covering only accident, 34320
credit, dental, disability income, long-term care, hospital 34321
indemnity, medicare supplement, medicare, tricare, specified 34322
disease, or vision care; coverage under a 34323
one-time-limited-duration policy of not longer than six months; 34324
coverage issued as a supplement to liability insurance; insurance 34325
arising out of workers' compensation or similar law; automobile 34326
medical payment insurance; or insurance under which benefits are 34327
payable with or without regard to fault and which is statutorily 34328
required to be contained in any liability insurance policy or 34329
equivalent self-insurance.34330

       (b) Coverage provided under the medicaid, as defined in 34331
section 5111.01 of the Revised Codeprogram.34332

       (c) Coverage provided under an employer's self-insurance plan 34333
or by any of its administrators, as defined in section 3959.01 of 34334
the Revised Code, to the extent that federal law supersedes, 34335
preempts, prohibits, or otherwise precludes the application of 34336
this section to the plan and its administrators.34337

       (B) A standardized identification card or an electronic 34338
technology issued or required to be used as provided in division 34339
(A)(1) of this section shall contain uniform prescription drug 34340
information in accordance with either division (B)(1) or (2) of 34341
this section.34342

        (1) The standardized identification card or the electronic 34343
technology shall be in a format and contain information fields 34344
approved by the national council for prescription drug programs or 34345
a successor organization, as specified in the council's or 34346
successor organization's pharmacy identification card 34347
implementation guide in effect on the first day of October most 34348
immediately preceding the issuance or required use of the 34349
standardized identification card or the electronic technology.34350

        (2) If the multiple employer welfare arrangement or person 34351
under contract with it to issue a standardized identification card 34352
or an electronic technology requires the information for the 34353
submission and routing of a claim, the standardized identification 34354
card or the electronic technology shall contain any of the 34355
following information:34356

        (a) The name of the multiple employer welfare arrangement;34357

        (b) The individual's name, group number, and identification 34358
number;34359

       (c) A telephone number to inquire about pharmacy-related 34360
issues;34361

        (d) The issuer's international identification number, labeled 34362
as "ANSI BIN" or "RxBIN";34363

        (e) The processor's control number, labeled as "RxPCN";34364

        (f) The individual's pharmacy benefits group number if 34365
different from the insured's medical group number, labeled as 34366
"RxGrp."34367

        (C) If the standardized identification card or the electronic 34368
technology issued or required to be used as provided in division 34369
(A)(1) of this section is also used for submission and routing of 34370
nonpharmacy claims, the designation "Rx" is required to be 34371
included as part of the labels identified in divisions (B)(2)(d) 34372
and (e) of this section if the issuer's international 34373
identification number or the processor's control number is 34374
different for medical and pharmacy claims.34375

        (D) Each multiple employer welfare arrangement described in 34376
division (A) of this section shall annually file a certificate 34377
with the superintendent of insurance certifying that it or any 34378
person it contracts with to issue a standardized identification 34379
card or electronic technology for submission and routing of 34380
prescription drug claims complies with this section.34381

       (E)(1) Except as provided in division (E)(2) of this section, 34382
if there is a change in the information contained in the 34383
standardized identification card or the electronic technology 34384
issued to an individual, the multiple employer welfare arrangement 34385
or person under contract with it to issue a standardized 34386
identification card or an electronic technology shall issue a new 34387
card or electronic technology to the individual.34388

        (2) A multiple employer welfare arrangement or person under 34389
contract with it is not required under division (E)(1) of this 34390
section to issue a new card or electronic technology to an 34391
individual more than once during a twelve-month period.34392

        (F) Nothing in this section shall be construed as requiring a 34393
multiple employer welfare arrangement to produce more than one 34394
standardized identification card or one electronic technology for 34395
use by individuals accessing health care benefits provided under a 34396
multiple employer welfare arrangement.34397

       Sec. 1751.01.  As used in this chapter:34398

       (A)(1) "Basic health care services" means the following 34399
services when medically necessary:34400

       (a) Physician's services, except when such services are 34401
supplemental under division (B) of this section;34402

       (b) Inpatient hospital services;34403

       (c) Outpatient medical services;34404

       (d) Emergency health services;34405

       (e) Urgent care services;34406

       (f) Diagnostic laboratory services and diagnostic and 34407
therapeutic radiologic services;34408

       (g) Diagnostic and treatment services, other than 34409
prescription drug services, for biologically based mental 34410
illnesses;34411

       (h) Preventive health care services, including, but not 34412
limited to, voluntary family planning services, infertility 34413
services, periodic physical examinations, prenatal obstetrical 34414
care, and well-child care;34415

       (i) Routine patient care for patients enrolled in an eligible 34416
cancer clinical trial pursuant to section 3923.80 of the Revised 34417
Code.34418

       "Basic health care services" does not include experimental 34419
procedures.34420

        Except as provided by divisions (A)(2) and (3) of this 34421
section in connection with the offering of coverage for diagnostic 34422
and treatment services for biologically based mental illnesses, a 34423
health insuring corporation shall not offer coverage for a health 34424
care service, defined as a basic health care service by this 34425
division, unless it offers coverage for all listed basic health 34426
care services. However, this requirement does not apply to the 34427
coverage of beneficiaries enrolled in medicare pursuant to a 34428
medicare contract, or to the coverage of beneficiaries enrolled in 34429
the federal employee health benefits program pursuant to 5 34430
U.S.C.A. 8905, or to the coverage of medicaid recipients, or to 34431
the coverage of beneficiaries under any federal health care 34432
program regulated by a federal regulatory body, or to the coverage 34433
of beneficiaries under any contract covering officers or employees 34434
of the state that has been entered into by the department of 34435
administrative services.34436

       (2) A health insuring corporation may offer coverage for 34437
diagnostic and treatment services for biologically based mental 34438
illnesses without offering coverage for all other basic health 34439
care services. A health insuring corporation may offer coverage 34440
for diagnostic and treatment services for biologically based 34441
mental illnesses alone or in combination with one or more 34442
supplemental health care services. However, a health insuring 34443
corporation that offers coverage for any other basic health care 34444
service shall offer coverage for diagnostic and treatment services 34445
for biologically based mental illnesses in combination with the 34446
offer of coverage for all other listed basic health care services.34447

       (3) A health insuring corporation that offers coverage for 34448
basic health care services is not required to offer coverage for 34449
diagnostic and treatment services for biologically based mental 34450
illnesses in combination with the offer of coverage for all other 34451
listed basic health care services if all of the following apply:34452

       (a) The health insuring corporation submits documentation 34453
certified by an independent member of the American academy of 34454
actuaries to the superintendent of insurance showing that incurred 34455
claims for diagnostic and treatment services for biologically 34456
based mental illnesses for a period of at least six months 34457
independently caused the health insuring corporation's costs for 34458
claims and administrative expenses for the coverage of basic 34459
health care services to increase by more than one per cent per 34460
year. 34461

       (b) The health insuring corporation submits a signed letter 34462
from an independent member of the American academy of actuaries to 34463
the superintendent of insurance opining that the increase in costs 34464
described in division (A)(3)(a) of this section could reasonably 34465
justify an increase of more than one per cent in the annual 34466
premiums or rates charged by the health insuring corporation for 34467
the coverage of basic health care services.34468

       (c) The superintendent of insurance makes the following 34469
determinations from the documentation and opinion submitted 34470
pursuant to divisions (A)(3)(a) and (b) of this section:34471

       (i) Incurred claims for diagnostic and treatment services for 34472
biologically based mental illnesses for a period of at least six 34473
months independently caused the health insuring corporation's 34474
costs for claims and administrative expenses for the coverage of 34475
basic health care services to increase by more than one per cent 34476
per year.34477

       (ii) The increase in costs reasonably justifies an increase 34478
of more than one per cent in the annual premiums or rates charged 34479
by the health insuring corporation for the coverage of basic 34480
health care services. 34481

       Any determination made by the superintendent under this 34482
division is subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.34483

       (B)(1) "Supplemental health care services" means any health 34484
care services other than basic health care services that a health 34485
insuring corporation may offer, alone or in combination with 34486
either basic health care services or other supplemental health 34487
care services, and includes:34488

       (a) Services of facilities for intermediate or long-term 34489
care, or both;34490

       (b) Dental care services;34491

       (c) Vision care and optometric services including lenses and 34492
frames;34493

       (d) Podiatric care or foot care services;34494

       (e) Mental health services, excluding diagnostic and 34495
treatment services for biologically based mental illnesses;34496

       (f) Short-term outpatient evaluative and crisis-intervention 34497
mental health services;34498

       (g) Medical or psychological treatment and referral services 34499
for alcohol and drug abuse or addiction;34500

       (h) Home health services;34501

       (i) Prescription drug services;34502

       (j) Nursing services;34503

       (k) Services of a dietitian licensed under Chapter 4759. of 34504
the Revised Code;34505

       (l) Physical therapy services;34506

       (m) Chiropractic services;34507

       (n) Any other category of services approved by the 34508
superintendent of insurance.34509

       (2) If a health insuring corporation offers prescription drug 34510
services under this division, the coverage shall include 34511
prescription drug services for the treatment of biologically based 34512
mental illnesses on the same terms and conditions as other 34513
physical diseases and disorders.34514

       (C) "Specialty health care services" means one of the 34515
supplemental health care services listed in division (B) of this 34516
section, when provided by a health insuring corporation on an 34517
outpatient-only basis and not in combination with other 34518
supplemental health care services.34519

       (D) "Biologically based mental illnesses" means 34520
schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, major depressive 34521
disorder, bipolar disorder, paranoia and other psychotic 34522
disorders, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and panic disorder, as 34523
these terms are defined in the most recent edition of the 34524
diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorders published by 34525
the American psychiatric association.34526

       (E) "Closed panel plan" means a health care plan that 34527
requires enrollees to use participating providers.34528

       (F) "Compensation" means remuneration for the provision of 34529
health care services, determined on other than a fee-for-service 34530
or discounted-fee-for-service basis.34531

       (G) "Contractual periodic prepayment" means the formula for 34532
determining the premium rate for all subscribers of a health 34533
insuring corporation.34534

       (H) "Corporation" means a corporation formed under Chapter 34535
1701. or 1702. of the Revised Code or the similar laws of another 34536
state.34537

       (I) "Emergency health services" means those health care 34538
services that must be available on a seven-days-per-week, 34539
twenty-four-hours-per-day basis in order to prevent jeopardy to an 34540
enrollee's health status that would occur if such services were 34541
not received as soon as possible, and includes, where appropriate, 34542
provisions for transportation and indemnity payments or service 34543
agreements for out-of-area coverage.34544

       (J) "Enrollee" means any natural person who is entitled to 34545
receive health care benefits provided by a health insuring 34546
corporation.34547

       (K) "Evidence of coverage" means any certificate, agreement, 34548
policy, or contract issued to a subscriber that sets out the 34549
coverage and other rights to which such person is entitled under a 34550
health care plan.34551

       (L) "Health care facility" means any facility, except a 34552
health care practitioner's office, that provides preventive, 34553
diagnostic, therapeutic, acute convalescent, rehabilitation, 34554
mental health, mental retardation, intermediate care, or skilled 34555
nursing services.34556

       (M) "Health care services" means basic, supplemental, and 34557
specialty health care services.34558

       (N) "Health delivery network" means any group of providers or 34559
health care facilities, or both, or any representative thereof, 34560
that have entered into an agreement to offer health care services 34561
in a panel rather than on an individual basis.34562

       (O) "Health insuring corporation" means a corporation, as 34563
defined in division (H) of this section, that, pursuant to a 34564
policy, contract, certificate, or agreement, pays for, reimburses, 34565
or provides, delivers, arranges for, or otherwise makes available, 34566
basic health care services, supplemental health care services, or 34567
specialty health care services, or a combination of basic health 34568
care services and either supplemental health care services or 34569
specialty health care services, through either an open panel plan 34570
or a closed panel plan.34571

       "Health insuring corporation" does not include a limited 34572
liability company formed pursuant to Chapter 1705. of the Revised 34573
Code, an insurer licensed under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code if 34574
that insurer offers only open panel plans under which all 34575
providers and health care facilities participating receive their 34576
compensation directly from the insurer, a corporation formed by or 34577
on behalf of a political subdivision or a department, office, or 34578
institution of the state, or a public entity formed by or on 34579
behalf of a board of county commissioners, a county board of 34580
developmental disabilities, an alcohol and drug addiction services 34581
board, a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 34582
services, or a community mental health board, as those terms are 34583
used in Chapters 340. and 5126. of the Revised Code. Except as 34584
provided by division (D) of section 1751.02 of the Revised Code, 34585
or as otherwise provided by law, no board, commission, agency, or 34586
other entity under the control of a political subdivision may 34587
accept insurance risk in providing for health care services. 34588
However, nothing in this division shall be construed as 34589
prohibiting such entities from purchasing the services of a health 34590
insuring corporation or a third-party administrator licensed under 34591
Chapter 3959. of the Revised Code.34592

       (P) "Intermediary organization" means a health delivery 34593
network or other entity that contracts with licensed health 34594
insuring corporations or self-insured employers, or both, to 34595
provide health care services, and that enters into contractual 34596
arrangements with other entities for the provision of health care 34597
services for the purpose of fulfilling the terms of its contracts 34598
with the health insuring corporations and self-insured employers.34599

       (Q) "Intermediate care" means residential care above the 34600
level of room and board for patients who require personal 34601
assistance and health-related services, but who do not require 34602
skilled nursing care.34603

       (R) "Medicaid" has the same meaning as in section 5111.01 of 34604
the Revised Code.34605

       (S) "Medical record" means the personal information that 34606
relates to an individual's physical or mental condition, medical 34607
history, or medical treatment.34608

       (T) "Medicare" means the program established under Title 34609
XVIII of the "Social Security Act" 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 34610
1395, as amended.34611

       (U)(S)(1) "Open panel plan" means a health care plan that 34612
provides incentives for enrollees to use participating providers 34613
and that also allows enrollees to use providers that are not 34614
participating providers.34615

       (2) No health insuring corporation may offer an open panel 34616
plan, unless the health insuring corporation is also licensed as 34617
an insurer under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code, the health 34618
insuring corporation, on June 4, 1997, holds a certificate of 34619
authority or license to operate under Chapter 1736. or 1740. of 34620
the Revised Code, or an insurer licensed under Title XXXIX of the 34621
Revised Code is responsible for the out-of-network risk as 34622
evidenced by both an evidence of coverage filing under section 34623
1751.11 of the Revised Code and a policy and certificate filing 34624
under section 3923.02 of the Revised Code.34625

       (V)(T) "Osteopathic hospital" means a hospital registered 34626
under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code that advocates 34627
osteopathic principles and the practice and perpetuation of 34628
osteopathic medicine by doing any of the following:34629

       (1) Maintaining a department or service of osteopathic 34630
medicine or a committee on the utilization of osteopathic 34631
principles and methods, under the supervision of an osteopathic 34632
physician;34633

       (2) Maintaining an active medical staff, the majority of 34634
which is comprised of osteopathic physicians;34635

       (3) Maintaining a medical staff executive committee that has 34636
osteopathic physicians as a majority of its members.34637

       (W)(U) "Panel" means a group of providers or health care 34638
facilities that have joined together to deliver health care 34639
services through a contractual arrangement with a health insuring 34640
corporation, employer group, or other payor.34641

       (X)(V) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 1.59 of 34642
the Revised Code, and, unless the context otherwise requires, 34643
includes any insurance company holding a certificate of authority 34644
under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code, any subsidiary and 34645
affiliate of an insurance company, and any government agency.34646

       (Y)(W) "Premium rate" means any set fee regularly paid by a 34647
subscriber to a health insuring corporation. A "premium rate" does 34648
not include a one-time membership fee, an annual administrative 34649
fee, or a nominal access fee, paid to a managed health care system 34650
under which the recipient of health care services remains solely 34651
responsible for any charges accessed for those services by the 34652
provider or health care facility.34653

       (Z)(X) "Primary care provider" means a provider that is 34654
designated by a health insuring corporation to supervise, 34655
coordinate, or provide initial care or continuing care to an 34656
enrollee, and that may be required by the health insuring 34657
corporation to initiate a referral for specialty care and to 34658
maintain supervision of the health care services rendered to the 34659
enrollee.34660

       (AA)(Y) "Provider" means any natural person or partnership of 34661
natural persons who are licensed, certified, accredited, or 34662
otherwise authorized in this state to furnish health care 34663
services, or any professional association organized under Chapter 34664
1785. of the Revised Code, provided that nothing in this chapter 34665
or other provisions of law shall be construed to preclude a health 34666
insuring corporation, health care practitioner, or organized 34667
health care group associated with a health insuring corporation 34668
from employing certified nurse practitioners, certified nurse 34669
anesthetists, clinical nurse specialists, certified nurse 34670
midwives, dietitians, physician assistants, dental assistants, 34671
dental hygienists, optometric technicians, or other allied health 34672
personnel who are licensed, certified, accredited, or otherwise 34673
authorized in this state to furnish health care services.34674

       (BB)(Z) "Provider sponsored organization" means a 34675
corporation, as defined in division (H) of this section, that is 34676
at least eighty per cent owned or controlled by one or more 34677
hospitals, as defined in section 3727.01 of the Revised Code, or 34678
one or more physicians licensed to practice medicine or surgery or 34679
osteopathic medicine and surgery under Chapter 4731. of the 34680
Revised Code, or any combination of such physicians and hospitals. 34681
Such control is presumed to exist if at least eighty per cent of 34682
the voting rights or governance rights of a provider sponsored 34683
organization are directly or indirectly owned, controlled, or 34684
otherwise held by any combination of the physicians and hospitals 34685
described in this division.34686

       (CC)(AA) "Solicitation document" means the written materials 34687
provided to prospective subscribers or enrollees, or both, and 34688
used for advertising and marketing to induce enrollment in the 34689
health care plans of a health insuring corporation.34690

       (DD)(BB) "Subscriber" means a person who is responsible for 34691
making payments to a health insuring corporation for participation 34692
in a health care plan, or an enrollee whose employment or other 34693
status is the basis of eligibility for enrollment in a health 34694
insuring corporation.34695

       (EE)(CC) "Urgent care services" means those health care 34696
services that are appropriately provided for an unforeseen 34697
condition of a kind that usually requires medical attention 34698
without delay but that does not pose a threat to the life, limb, 34699
or permanent health of the injured or ill person, and may include 34700
such health care services provided out of the health insuring 34701
corporation's approved service area pursuant to indemnity payments 34702
or service agreements.34703

       Sec. 1751.11.  (A) Every subscriber of a health insuring 34704
corporation is entitled to an evidence of coverage for the health 34705
care plan under which health care benefits are provided.34706

       (B) Every subscriber of a health insuring corporation that 34707
offers basic health care services is entitled to an identification 34708
card or similar document that specifies the health insuring 34709
corporation's name as stated in its articles of incorporation, and 34710
any trade or fictitious names used by the health insuring 34711
corporation. The identification card or document shall list at 34712
least one toll-free telephone number that provides the subscriber 34713
with access, to information on a twenty-four-hours-per-day, 34714
seven-days-per-week basis, as to how health care services may be 34715
obtained. The identification card or document shall also list at 34716
least one toll-free number that, during normal business hours, 34717
provides the subscriber with access to information on the coverage 34718
available under the subscriber's health care plan and information 34719
on the health care plan's internal and external review processes.34720

       (C) No evidence of coverage, or amendment to the evidence of 34721
coverage, shall be delivered, issued for delivery, renewed, or 34722
used, until the form of the evidence of coverage or amendment has 34723
been filed by the health insuring corporation with the 34724
superintendent of insurance. If the superintendent does not 34725
disapprove the evidence of coverage or amendment within sixty days 34726
after it is filed it shall be deemed approved, unless the 34727
superintendent sooner gives approval for the evidence of coverage 34728
or amendment. With respect to an amendment to an approved evidence 34729
of coverage, the superintendent only may disapprove provisions 34730
amended or added to the evidence of coverage. If the 34731
superintendent determines within the sixty-day period that any 34732
evidence of coverage or amendment fails to meet the requirements 34733
of this section, the superintendent shall so notify the health 34734
insuring corporation and it shall be unlawful for the health 34735
insuring corporation to use such evidence of coverage or 34736
amendment. At any time, the superintendent, upon at least thirty 34737
days' written notice to a health insuring corporation, may 34738
withdraw an approval, deemed or actual, of any evidence of 34739
coverage or amendment on any of the grounds stated in this 34740
section. Such disapproval shall be effected by a written order, 34741
which shall state the grounds for disapproval and shall be issued 34742
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.34743

       (D) No evidence of coverage or amendment shall be delivered, 34744
issued for delivery, renewed, or used:34745

       (1) If it contains provisions or statements that are 34746
inequitable, untrue, misleading, or deceptive;34747

       (2) Unless it contains a clear, concise, and complete 34748
statement of the following:34749

       (a) The health care services and insurance or other benefits, 34750
if any, to which an enrollee is entitled under the health care 34751
plan;34752

       (b) Any exclusions or limitations on the health care 34753
services, type of health care services, benefits, or type of 34754
benefits to be provided, including copayments and deductibles;34755

       (c) An enrollee's personal financial obligation for 34756
noncovered services;34757

       (d) Where and in what manner general information and 34758
information as to how health care services may be obtained is 34759
available, including a toll-free telephone number;34760

       (e) The premium rate with respect to individual and 34761
conversion contracts, and relevant copayment and deductible 34762
provisions with respect to all contracts. The statement of the 34763
premium rate, however, may be contained in a separate insert.34764

       (f) The method utilized by the health insuring corporation 34765
for resolving enrollee complaints;34766

       (g) The utilization review, internal review, and external 34767
review procedures established under sections 1751.77 to 1751.83 34768
and Chapter 3922. of the Revised Code.34769

       (3) Unless it provides for the continuation of an enrollee's 34770
coverage, in the event that the enrollee's coverage under the 34771
group policy, contract, certificate, or agreement terminates while 34772
the enrollee is receiving inpatient care in a hospital. This 34773
continuation of coverage shall terminate at the earliest 34774
occurrence of any of the following:34775

       (a) The enrollee's discharge from the hospital;34776

       (b) The determination by the enrollee's attending physician 34777
that inpatient care is no longer medically indicated for the 34778
enrollee; however, nothing in division (D)(3)(b) of this section 34779
precludes a health insuring corporation from engaging in 34780
utilization review as described in the evidence of coverage.34781

       (c) The enrollee's reaching the limit for contractual 34782
benefits;34783

       (d) The effective date of any new coverage.34784

       (4) Unless it contains a provision that states, in substance, 34785
that the health insuring corporation is not a member of any 34786
guaranty fund, and that in the event of the health insuring 34787
corporation's insolvency, an enrollee is protected only to the 34788
extent that the hold harmless provision required by section 34789
1751.13 of the Revised Code applies to the health care services 34790
rendered;34791

       (5) Unless it contains a provision that states, in substance, 34792
that in the event of the insolvency of the health insuring 34793
corporation, an enrollee may be financially responsible for health 34794
care services rendered by a provider or health care facility that 34795
is not under contract to the health insuring corporation, whether 34796
or not the health insuring corporation authorized the use of the 34797
provider or health care facility.34798

       (E) Notwithstanding divisions (C) and (D) of this section, a 34799
health insuring corporation may use an evidence of coverage that 34800
provides for the coverage of beneficiaries enrolled in medicare 34801
pursuant to a medicare contract, or an evidence of coverage that 34802
provides for the coverage of beneficiaries enrolled in the federal 34803
employees health benefits program pursuant to 5 U.S.C.A. 8905, or 34804
an evidence of coverage that provides for the coverage of medicaid 34805
recipients, or an evidence of coverage that provides for the 34806
coverage of beneficiaries under any other federal health care 34807
program regulated by a federal regulatory body, or an evidence of 34808
coverage that provides for the coverage of beneficiaries under any 34809
contract covering officers or employees of the state that has been 34810
entered into by the department of administrative services, if both 34811
of the following apply:34812

       (1) The evidence of coverage has been approved by the United 34813
States department of health and human services, the United States 34814
office of personnel management, the Ohio department of job and 34815
family servicesmedicaid, or the department of administrative 34816
services.34817

       (2) The evidence of coverage is filed with the superintendent 34818
of insurance prior to use and is accompanied by documentation of 34819
approval from the United States department of health and human 34820
services, the United States office of personnel management, the 34821
Ohio department of job and family servicesmedicaid, or the 34822
department of administrative services.34823

       Sec. 1751.12.  (A)(1) No contractual periodic prepayment and 34824
no premium rate for nongroup and conversion policies for health 34825
care services, or any amendment to them, may be used by any health 34826
insuring corporation at any time until the contractual periodic 34827
prepayment and premium rate, or amendment, have been filed with 34828
the superintendent of insurance, and shall not be effective until 34829
the expiration of sixty days after their filing unless the 34830
superintendent sooner gives approval. The filing shall be 34831
accompanied by an actuarial certification in the form prescribed 34832
by the superintendent. The superintendent shall disapprove the 34833
filing, if the superintendent determines within the sixty-day 34834
period that the contractual periodic prepayment or premium rate, 34835
or amendment, is not in accordance with sound actuarial principles 34836
or is not reasonably related to the applicable coverage and 34837
characteristics of the applicable class of enrollees. The 34838
superintendent shall notify the health insuring corporation of the 34839
disapproval, and it shall thereafter be unlawful for the health 34840
insuring corporation to use the contractual periodic prepayment or 34841
premium rate, or amendment.34842

       (2) No contractual periodic prepayment for group policies for 34843
health care services shall be used until the contractual periodic 34844
prepayment has been filed with the superintendent. The filing 34845
shall be accompanied by an actuarial certification in the form 34846
prescribed by the superintendent. The superintendent may reject a 34847
filing made under division (A)(2) of this section at any time, 34848
with at least thirty days' written notice to a health insuring 34849
corporation, if the contractual periodic prepayment is not in 34850
accordance with sound actuarial principles or is not reasonably 34851
related to the applicable coverage and characteristics of the 34852
applicable class of enrollees.34853

       (3) At any time, the superintendent, upon at least thirty 34854
days' written notice to a health insuring corporation, may 34855
withdraw the approval given under division (A)(1) of this section, 34856
deemed or actual, of any contractual periodic prepayment or 34857
premium rate, or amendment, based on information that either of 34858
the following applies:34859

       (a) The contractual periodic prepayment or premium rate, or 34860
amendment, is not in accordance with sound actuarial principles.34861

       (b) The contractual periodic prepayment or premium rate, or 34862
amendment, is not reasonably related to the applicable coverage 34863
and characteristics of the applicable class of enrollees.34864

       (4) Any disapproval under division (A)(1) of this section, 34865
any rejection of a filing made under division (A)(2) of this 34866
section, or any withdrawal of approval under division (A)(3) of 34867
this section, shall be effected by a written notice, which shall 34868
state the specific basis for the disapproval, rejection, or 34869
withdrawal and shall be issued in accordance with Chapter 119. of 34870
the Revised Code.34871

       (B) Notwithstanding division (A) of this section, a health 34872
insuring corporation may use a contractual periodic prepayment or 34873
premium rate for policies used for the coverage of beneficiaries 34874
enrolled in medicare pursuant to a medicare risk contract or 34875
medicare cost contract, or for policies used for the coverage of 34876
beneficiaries enrolled in the federal employees health benefits 34877
program pursuant to 5 U.S.C.A. 8905, or for policies used for the 34878
coverage of medicaid recipients, or for policies used for the 34879
coverage of beneficiaries under any other federal health care 34880
program regulated by a federal regulatory body, or for policies 34881
used for the coverage of beneficiaries under any contract covering 34882
officers or employees of the state that has been entered into by 34883
the department of administrative services, if both of the 34884
following apply:34885

       (1) The contractual periodic prepayment or premium rate has 34886
been approved by the United States department of health and human 34887
services, the United States office of personnel management, the 34888
department of job and family servicesmedicaid, or the department 34889
of administrative services.34890

       (2) The contractual periodic prepayment or premium rate is 34891
filed with the superintendent prior to use and is accompanied by 34892
documentation of approval from the United States department of 34893
health and human services, the United States office of personnel 34894
management, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid, or 34895
the department of administrative services.34896

       (C) The administrative expense portion of all contractual 34897
periodic prepayment or premium rate filings submitted to the 34898
superintendent for review must reflect the actual cost of 34899
administering the product. The superintendent may require that the 34900
administrative expense portion of the filings be itemized and 34901
supported.34902

       (D)(1) Copayments must be reasonable and must not be a 34903
barrier to the necessary utilization of services by enrollees.34904

       (2) A health insuring corporation, in order to ensure that 34905
copayments are reasonable and not a barrier to the necessary 34906
utilization of basic health care services by enrollees, may do one 34907
of the following:34908

       (a) Impose copayment charges on any single covered basic 34909
health care service that does not exceed forty per cent of the 34910
average cost to the health insuring corporation of providing the 34911
service;34912

       (b) Impose copayment charges that annually do not exceed 34913
twenty per cent of the total annual cost to the health insuring 34914
corporation of providing all covered basic health care services, 34915
including physician office visits, urgent care services, and 34916
emergency health services, when aggregated as to all persons 34917
covered under the filed product in question. In addition, annual 34918
copayment charges as to each enrollee shall not exceed twenty per 34919
cent of the total annual cost to the health insuring corporation 34920
of providing all covered basic health care services, including 34921
physician office visits, urgent care services, and emergency 34922
health services, as to such enrollee. The total annual cost of 34923
providing a health care service is the cost to the health insuring 34924
corporation of providing the health care service to its enrollees 34925
as reduced by any applicable provider discount.34926

       (3) To ensure that copayments are reasonable and not a 34927
barrier to the utilization of basic health care services, a health 34928
insuring corporation may not impose, in any contract year, on any 34929
subscriber or enrollee, copayments that exceed two hundred per 34930
cent of the average annual premium rate to subscribers or 34931
enrollees.34932

       (4) For purposes of division (D) of this section, both of the 34933
following apply:34934

        (a) Copayments imposed by health insuring corporations in 34935
connection with a high deductible health plan that is linked to a 34936
health savings account are reasonable and are not a barrier to the 34937
necessary utilization of services by enrollees.34938

        (b) Divisions (D)(2) and (3) of this section do not apply to 34939
a high deductible health plan that is linked to a health savings 34940
account.34941

       (E) A health insuring corporation shall not impose lifetime 34942
maximums on basic health care services. However, a health insuring 34943
corporation may establish a benefit limit for inpatient hospital 34944
services that are provided pursuant to a policy, contract, 34945
certificate, or agreement for supplemental health care services.34946

       (F) A health insuring corporation may require that an 34947
enrollee pay an annual deductible that does not exceed one 34948
thousand dollars per enrollee or two thousand dollars per family, 34949
except that:34950

       (1) A health insuring corporation may impose higher 34951
deductibles for high deductible health plans that are linked to 34952
health savings accounts;34953

       (2) The superintendent may adopt rules allowing different 34954
annual deductible amounts for plans with a medical savings 34955
account, health reimbursement arrangement, flexible spending 34956
account, or similar account;34957

       (3) A health insuring corporation may impose higher 34958
deductibles under health plans if requested by the group contract, 34959
policy, certificate, or agreement holder, or an individual seeking 34960
coverage under an individual health plan. This shall not be 34961
construed as requiring the health insuring corporation to create 34962
customized health plans for group contract holders or individuals.34963

        (G) As used in this section, "health savings account" and 34964
"high deductible health plan" have the same meanings as in the 34965
"Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 223, as 34966
amended.34967

       Sec. 1751.14.  (A) Notwithstanding section 3901.71 of the 34968
Revised Code, any policy, contract, or agreement for health care 34969
services authorized by this chapter that is issued, delivered, or 34970
renewed in this state and that provides that coverage of an 34971
unmarried dependent child will terminate upon attainment of the 34972
limiting age for dependent children specified in the policy, 34973
contract, or agreement, shall also provide in substance both of 34974
the following:34975

        (1) Once an unmarried child has attained the limiting age for 34976
dependent children, as provided in the policy, contract, or 34977
agreement, upon the request of the subscriber, the health insuring 34978
corporation shall offer to cover the unmarried child until the 34979
child attains twenty-eight years of age if all of the following 34980
are true:34981

        (a) The child is the natural child, stepchild, or adopted 34982
child of the subscriber.34983

       (b) The child is a resident of this state or a full-time 34984
student at an accredited public or private institution of higher 34985
education.34986

        (c) The child is not employed by an employer that offers any 34987
health benefit plan under which the child is eligible for 34988
coverage.34989

       (d) The child is not eligible for coverage under the medicaid 34990
program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code or the 34991
medicare program established under Title XVIII of the "Social 34992
Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1395.34993

        (2) That attainment of the limiting age for dependent 34994
children shall not operate to terminate the coverage of a 34995
dependent child if the child is and continues to be both of the 34996
following:34997

       (a) Incapable of self-sustaining employment by reason of 34998
mental retardation or physical handicap;34999

       (b) Primarily dependent upon the subscriber for support and 35000
maintenance.35001

       (B) Proof of incapacity and dependence for purposes of 35002
division (A)(2) of this section shall be furnished to the health 35003
insuring corporation within thirty-one days of the child's 35004
attainment of the limiting age. Upon request, but not more 35005
frequently than annually, the health insuring corporation may 35006
require proof satisfactory to it of the continuance of such 35007
incapacity and dependency.35008

       (C) Nothing in this section shall do any of the following:35009

       (1) Require that any policy, contract, or agreement offer 35010
coverage for dependent children or provide coverage for an 35011
unmarried dependent child's children as dependents on the policy, 35012
contract, or agreement;35013

       (2) Require an employer to pay for any part of the premium 35014
for an unmarried dependent child that has attained the limiting 35015
age for dependents, as provided in the policy, contract, or 35016
agreement;35017

       (3) Require an employer to offer health insurance coverage to 35018
the dependents of any employee.35019

        (D) This section does not apply to any health insuring 35020
corporation policy, contract, or agreement offering only 35021
supplemental health care services or specialty health care 35022
services.35023

       (E) As used in this section, "health benefit plan" has the 35024
same meaning as in section 3924.01 of the Revised Code and also 35025
includes both of the following:35026

        (1) A public employee benefit plan;35027

        (2) A health benefit plan as regulated under the "Employee 35028
Retirement Income Security Act of 1974," 29 U.S.C. 1001, et seq.35029

       Sec. 1751.271.  (A) Each health insuring corporation that 35030
provides coverage to medicaid recipients shall post a performance 35031
bond in the amount of three million dollars as security to fulfill 35032
the obligations of the health insuring corporation to pay claims 35033
of contracted providers for covered health care services provided 35034
to medicaid recipients. The bond shall be payable to the 35035
department of insurance in the event that the health insuring 35036
corporation is placed in rehabilitation or liquidation proceedings 35037
under Chapter 3903. of the Revised Code, and shall become a 35038
special deposit subject to section 3903.14 or 3903.421 of the 35039
Revised Code, as applicable. In lieu of the performance bond, a 35040
medicaid health insuring corporation may deposit securities with 35041
the superintendent of insurance, acceptable to the superintendent, 35042
in the amount of three million dollars, to satisfy the bonding 35043
requirements of this section. Upon rehabilitation or liquidation, 35044
the securities shall become a special deposit subject to sections 35045
3903.14 and 3903.421 of the Revised Code, as applicable. The 35046
health insuring corporation shall receive the interest on the 35047
deposited securities as long as the health insuring corporation 35048
remains solvent.35049

        (B) The bond shall be issued by a surety company licensed 35050
with the department of insurance. The bond or deposit, or any 35051
replacement bond or deposit, shall be in a form acceptable to the 35052
superintendent, and shall remain in effect during the duration of 35053
the medicaid health insuring corporation's license and thereafter 35054
until all claims against the medicaid health insuring corporation 35055
have been paid in full.35056

        (C) Documentation of the bond acceptable to the 35057
superintendent of insurance shall be filed with the superintendent 35058
prior to the issuance of a certificate of authority. Annually, 35059
thirty days prior to the renewal of its certificate of authority, 35060
every medicaid health insuring corporation shall furnish the 35061
superintendent of insurance with evidence that the required bond 35062
is still in effect.35063

        (D) As used in this section:35064

        (1) "Contracted provider" means a provider that has a 35065
contract with a medicaid health insuring corporation to provide 35066
covered health care services to medicaid recipients.35067

        (2) "Medicaid health insuring corporation" means a health 35068
insuring corporation that provides health insurance coverage or 35069
otherwise assumes claims liabilities for medicaid recipients.35070

        (3) "Medicaid recipient" means a person eligible for 35071
assistance underenrolled in the medicaid program operated 35072
pursuant to Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code.35073

       Sec. 1751.31.  (A) Any changes in a health insuring 35074
corporation's solicitation document shall be filed with the 35075
superintendent of insurance. The superintendent, within sixty days 35076
of filing, may disapprove any solicitation document or amendment 35077
to it on any of the grounds stated in this section. Such 35078
disapproval shall be effected by written notice to the health 35079
insuring corporation. The notice shall state the grounds for 35080
disapproval and shall be issued in accordance with Chapter 119. of 35081
the Revised Code.35082

       (B) The solicitation document shall contain all information 35083
necessary to enable a consumer to make an informed choice as to 35084
whether or not to enroll in the health insuring corporation. The 35085
information shall include a specific description of the health 35086
care services to be available and the approximate number and type 35087
of full-time equivalent medical practitioners. The information 35088
shall be presented in the solicitation document in a manner that 35089
is clear, concise, and intelligible to prospective applicants in 35090
the proposed service area.35091

       (C) Every potential applicant whose subscription to a health 35092
care plan is solicited shall receive, at or before the time of 35093
solicitation, a solicitation document approved by the 35094
superintendent.35095

       (D) Notwithstanding division (A) of this section, a health 35096
insuring corporation may use a solicitation document that the 35097
corporation uses in connection with policies for medicare 35098
beneficiaries pursuant to a medicare risk contract or medicare 35099
cost contract, or for policies for beneficiaries of the federal 35100
employees health benefits program pursuant to 5 U.S.C.A. 8905, or 35101
for policies for medicaid recipients, or for policies for 35102
beneficiaries of any other federal health care program regulated 35103
by a federal regulatory body, or for policies for beneficiaries of 35104
contracts covering officers or employees of the state entered into 35105
by the department of administrative services, if both of the 35106
following apply:35107

       (1) The solicitation document has been approved by the United 35108
States department of health and human services, the United States 35109
office of personnel management, the department of job and family 35110
servicesmedicaid, or the department of administrative services.35111

       (2) The solicitation document is filed with the 35112
superintendent of insurance prior to use and is accompanied by 35113
documentation of approval from the United States department of 35114
health and human services, the United States office of personnel 35115
management, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid, or 35116
the department of administrative services.35117

       (E) No health insuring corporation, or its agents or 35118
representatives, shall use monetary or other valuable 35119
consideration, engage in misleading or deceptive practices, or 35120
make untrue, misleading, or deceptive representations to induce 35121
enrollment. Nothing in this division shall prohibit incentive 35122
forms of remuneration such as commission sales programs for the 35123
health insuring corporation's employees and agents.35124

       (F) Any person obligated for any part of a premium rate in 35125
connection with an enrollment agreement, in addition to any right 35126
otherwise available to revoke an offer, may cancel such agreement 35127
within seventy-two hours after having signed the agreement or 35128
offer to enroll. Cancellation occurs when written notice of the 35129
cancellation is given to the health insuring corporation or its 35130
agents or other representatives. A notice of cancellation mailed 35131
to the health insuring corporation shall be considered to have 35132
been filed on its postmark date.35133

       (G) Nothing in this section shall prohibit healthy lifestyle 35134
programs.35135

       Sec. 1751.60.  (A) Except as provided for in divisions (E) 35136
and (F) of this section, every provider or health care facility 35137
that contracts with a health insuring corporation to provide 35138
health care services to the health insuring corporation's 35139
enrollees or subscribers shall seek compensation for covered 35140
services solely from the health insuring corporation and not, 35141
under any circumstances, from the enrollees or subscribers, except 35142
for approved copayments and deductibles.35143

       (B) No subscriber or enrollee of a health insuring 35144
corporation is liable to any contracting provider or health care 35145
facility for the cost of any covered health care services, if the 35146
subscriber or enrollee has acted in accordance with the evidence 35147
of coverage.35148

       (C) Except as provided for in divisions (E) and (F) of this 35149
section, every contract between a health insuring corporation and 35150
provider or health care facility shall contain a provision 35151
approved by the superintendent of insurance requiring the provider 35152
or health care facility to seek compensation solely from the 35153
health insuring corporation and not, under any circumstances, from 35154
the subscriber or enrollee, except for approved copayments and 35155
deductibles.35156

       (D) Nothing in this section shall be construed as preventing 35157
a provider or health care facility from billing the enrollee or 35158
subscriber of a health insuring corporation for noncovered 35159
services.35160

       (E) Upon application by a health insuring corporation and a 35161
provider or health care facility, the superintendent may waive the 35162
requirements of divisions (A) and (C) of this section when, in 35163
addition to the reserve requirements contained in section 1751.28 35164
of the Revised Code, the health insuring corporation provides 35165
sufficient assurances to the superintendent that the provider or 35166
health care facility has been provided with financial guarantees. 35167
No waiver of the requirements of divisions (A) and (C) of this 35168
section is effective as to enrollees or subscribers for whom the 35169
health insuring corporation is compensated under a provider 35170
agreement or risk contract entered into pursuant to Chapter 5111. 35171
or 5115. of the Revised Codeunder the medicaid program.35172

       (F) The requirements of divisions (A) to (C) of this section 35173
apply only to health care services provided to an enrollee or 35174
subscriber prior to the effective date of a termination of a 35175
contract between the health insuring corporation and the provider 35176
or health care facility.35177

       Sec. 1901.10.  (A)(1)(a) The judges of thea municipal court 35178
and officers of the court shall take an oath of office as provided 35179
in section 3.23 of the Revised Code. The35180

       (B) The office of judge of thea municipal court is subject 35181
to forfeiture, and the judge may be removed from office, for the 35182
causes and by the procedure provided in sections 3.07 to 3.10 of 35183
the Revised Code. A vacancy in the office of judge exists upon the 35184
death, resignation, forfeiture, removal from office, or absence 35185
from official duties for a period of six consecutive months, as 35186
determined under this section, of the judge and also by reason of 35187
the expiration of the term of an incumbent when no successor has 35188
been elected or qualified. The chief justice of the supreme court 35189
may designate a judge of another municipal court to act until that 35190
vacancy is filled in accordance with section 107.08 of the Revised 35191
Code. A vacancy resulting from the absence of a judge from 35192
official duties for a period of six consecutive months shall be 35193
determined and declared by the legislative authority.35194

       (b)(C)(1) If a vacancy occurs in the office of judge or clerk 35195
of thea municipal court after the one-hundredth day before the 35196
first Tuesday after the first Monday in May and prior to the 35197
fortieth day before the day of the general election, all 35198
candidates for election to the unexpired term of the judge or 35199
clerk shall file nominating petitions with the board of elections 35200
not later than four p.m. on the tenth day following the day on 35201
which the vacancy occurs, except that, when the vacancy occurs 35202
fewer than six days before the fortieth day before the general 35203
election, the deadline for filing shall be four p.m. on the 35204
thirty-sixth day before the day of the general election.35205

       (c)(2) Each nominating petition referred to in division 35206
(A)(C)(1)(b) of this section shall be in the form prescribed in 35207
section 3513.261 of the Revised Code and shall be signed by at 35208
least fifty qualified electors of the territory of the municipal 35209
court. No nominating petition shall be accepted for filing or 35210
filed if it appears on its face to contain signatures aggregating 35211
in number more than twice the minimum aggregate number of 35212
signatures required by this section.35213

       (2) If a judge of a municipal court that has only one judge 35214
is temporarily absent, incapacitated, or otherwise unavailable, 35215
the judge may appoint a substitute who has the qualifications 35216
required by section 1901.06 of the Revised Code or a retired judge 35217
of a court of record who is a qualified elector and a resident of 35218
the territory of the court. If the judge is unable to make the 35219
appointment, the chief justice of the supreme court shall appoint 35220
a substitute. The appointee shall serve during the absence, 35221
incapacity, or unavailability of the incumbent, shall have the 35222
jurisdiction and powers conferred upon the judge of the municipal 35223
court, and shall be styled "acting judge." During that time of 35224
service, the acting judge shall sign all process and records and 35225
shall perform all acts pertaining to the office, except that of 35226
removal and appointment of officers of the court. All courts shall 35227
take judicial notice of the selection and powers of the acting 35228
judge. The incumbent judge shall establish the amount of 35229
compensation of an acting judge upon either a per diem, hourly, or 35230
other basis, but the rate of pay shall not exceed the per diem 35231
amount received by the incumbent judge.35232

       (B) When the volume of cases pending in any municipal court 35233
necessitates an additional judge, the chief justice of the supreme 35234
court, upon the written request of the judge or presiding judge of 35235
that municipal court, may designate a judge of another municipal 35236
court or county court to serve for any period of time that the 35237
chief justice may prescribe. The compensation of a judge so 35238
designated shall be paid from the city treasury or, in the case of 35239
a county-operated municipal court, from the county treasury. In 35240
addition to the annual salary provided for in section 1901.11 of 35241
the Revised Code and in addition to any compensation under 35242
division (A)(5) or (6) of section 141.04 of the Revised Code to 35243
which the judge is entitled in connection with the judge's own 35244
court, a full-time or part-time judge while holding court outside 35245
the judge's territory on the designation of the chief justice 35246
shall receive actual and necessary expenses and compensation as 35247
follows:35248

       (1) A full-time judge shall receive thirty dollars for each 35249
day of the assignment.35250

       (2) A part-time judge shall receive for each day of the 35251
assignment the per diem compensation of the judges of the court to 35252
which the judge is assigned, less the per diem amount paid to 35253
those judges pursuant to section 141.04 of the Revised Code, 35254
calculated on the basis of two hundred fifty working days per 35255
year.35256

       If a request is made by a judge or the presiding judge of a 35257
municipal court to designate a judge of another municipal court 35258
because of the volume of cases in the court for which the request 35259
is made and the chief justice reports, in writing, that no 35260
municipal or county court judge is available to serve by 35261
designation, the judges of the court requesting the designation 35262
may appoint a substitute as provided in division (A)(2) of this 35263
section, who may serve for any period of time that is prescribed 35264
by the chief justice. The substitute judge shall be paid in the 35265
same manner and at the same rate as the incumbent judges, except 35266
that, if the substitute judge is entitled to compensation under 35267
division (A)(5) or (6) of section 141.04 of the Revised Code, then 35268
section 1901.121 of the Revised Code shall govern its payment.35269

       Sec. 1901.12.  (A) A municipal judge of a municipal court is 35270
entitled to thirty days of vacation in each calendar year. Not 35271
less than two hundred forty days of open session of the municipal 35272
court shall be held by each judge during the year, unless all 35273
business of the court is disposed of sooner.35274

       (B) When a court consists of a single judge, a qualified 35275
substitute may be appointed in accordance with division (A)(2) of 35276
section 1901.10 of the Revised Code to serve during the thirty-day 35277
vacation period, who shall be paid in the same manner and at the 35278
same rate as the incumbent judge, except that, if the substitute 35279
judge is entitled to compensation under division (A)(5) or (6) of 35280
section 141.04 of the Revised Code, then section 1901.121 of the 35281
Revised Code shall govern its payment. If a municipal court 35282
consists of two or more judges, one of the judges shall be in 35283
attendance at the court at all times, and the presiding judge 35284
shall have the authority to designate the vacation period for each 35285
judge, and when necessary, to appoint a substitute for the judge 35286
when on vacation or not in attendance. If a court consists of more 35287
than two judges, two-thirds of the court shall be in attendance at 35288
all times, and the presiding judge shall have authority to 35289
designate the vacation period of each judge, and, when necessary, 35290
to appoint a substitute for any judge on vacation or not in 35291
attendance.35292

       Sec. 1901.121.  (A)(1) If a vacancy occurs in the office of a 35293
judge of a municipal court that consists of only one judge or if 35294
the judge of a municipal court of that nature is incapacitated or 35295
unavailable due to disqualification, suspension, or recusal, the 35296
chief justice of the supreme court may assign a sitting judge of 35297
another court of record or a retired judge of a court of record to 35298
temporarily serve on the court in accordance with rules adopted by 35299
the supreme court pursuant to division (A)(1) of Section 5 of 35300
Article IV, Ohio Constitution. The assignee shall be styled 35301
"assigned judge" and shall serve for any period of time the chief 35302
justice may prescribe.35303

       (2) If a judge of a municipal court that consists of only one 35304
judge is otherwise temporarily absent for a reason other than as 35305
specified in division (A)(1) of this section, the judge may do 35306
either of the following:35307

       (a) Appoint a substitute who is a resident of the territory 35308
of the court or, if the territory of the court has a population of 35309
less than twenty-five thousand according to the latest federal 35310
decennial census and the judge is unable to appoint a substitute 35311
who is a resident of the territory of the court, appoint a 35312
substitute who is a resident of the territory of a municipal or 35313
county court that is contiguous to the court. The appointee shall 35314
either be admitted to the practice of law in this state and have 35315
been, for a total of at least six years preceding appointment, 35316
engaged in the practice of law in this state or a judge of a court 35317
of record in any jurisdiction in the United States or be a retired 35318
judge of a court of record. The appointee shall be styled "acting 35319
judge" and shall temporarily serve on the court during the 35320
temporary absence of the incumbent judge.35321

       (b) Request the chief justice of the supreme court to assign 35322
a sitting judge of another court of record or a retired judge of a 35323
court of record to temporarily serve on the court in accordance 35324
with rules adopted by the supreme court pursuant to division 35325
(A)(1) of Section 5 of Article IV, Ohio Constitution. The assignee 35326
shall be styled "assigned judge" and shall serve for any period of 35327
time the chief justice may prescribe.35328

       (B) If a vacancy occurs in the office of a judge of a 35329
municipal court that consists of two judges or if a judge of a 35330
municipal court of that nature is incapacitated, unavailable, or 35331
temporarily absent, the presiding judge may do either of the 35332
following:35333

       (1) Appoint a substitute who is a resident of the territory 35334
of the court or, if the territory of the court has a population of 35335
less than twenty-five thousand according to the latest federal 35336
decennial census and the judge is unable to appoint a substitute 35337
who is a resident of the territory of the court, appoint a 35338
substitute who is a resident of the territory of a municipal or 35339
county court that is contiguous to the court. The appointee shall 35340
either be admitted to the practice of law in this state and have 35341
been, for a total of at least six years preceding appointment, 35342
engaged in the practice of law in this state or a judge of a court 35343
of record in any jurisdiction in the United States or be a retired 35344
judge of a court of record. The appointee shall be styled "acting 35345
judge" and shall temporarily serve on the court during the vacancy 35346
or the incapacity, unavailability, or temporary absence of the 35347
incumbent judge.35348

       (2) Request the chief justice of the supreme court to assign 35349
a sitting judge of another court of record or a retired judge of a 35350
court of record to temporarily serve on the court in accordance 35351
with rules adopted by the supreme court pursuant to division 35352
(A)(1) of Section 5 of Article IV, Ohio Constitution. The assignee 35353
shall be styled "assigned judge" and shall serve for any period of 35354
time the chief justice may prescribe.35355

       (C) If a vacancy occurs in the office of a judge of a 35356
municipal court that consists of three or more judges or if a 35357
judge of a municipal court of that nature is incapacitated, 35358
unavailable, or temporarily absent, the presiding judge may do 35359
either of the following:35360

       (1) If no other judge of the court is available to perform 35361
the duties of the judge, appoint a substitute who is a resident of 35362
the territory of the court. The appointee shall either be admitted 35363
to the practice of law in this state and have been, for a total of 35364
at least six years preceding appointment, engaged in the practice 35365
of law in this state or a judge of a court of record in any 35366
jurisdiction in the United States or be a retired judge of a court 35367
of record. The appointee shall be styled "acting judge" and shall 35368
temporarily serve on the court during the vacancy or the 35369
incapacity, unavailability, or temporary absence of the incumbent 35370
judge.35371

       (2) Request the chief justice of the supreme court to assign 35372
a sitting judge of another court of record or a retired judge of a 35373
court of record to temporarily serve on the court in accordance 35374
with rules adopted by the supreme court pursuant to division 35375
(A)(1) of Section 5 of Article IV, Ohio Constitution. The assignee 35376
shall be styled "assigned judge" and shall serve for any period of 35377
time the chief justice may prescribe.35378

       (D) When the volume of cases pending in any municipal court 35379
necessitates an additional judge, the judge, if the court consists 35380
of a single judge, or the presiding judge, if the court consists 35381
of two or more judges, may request the chief justice of the 35382
supreme court to assign a sitting judge of another court of record 35383
or a retired judge of a court of record to temporarily serve on 35384
the court in accordance with rules adopted by the supreme court 35385
pursuant to division (A)(1) of Section 5 of Article IV, Ohio 35386
Constitution. The appointee shall be styled "assigned judge" and 35387
shall serve for any period of time the chief justice may 35388
prescribe.35389

       (E) An acting judge appointed pursuant to division (A)(2)(a), 35390
(B)(1), or (C)(1) of this section and an assigned judge assigned 35391
pursuant to division (A)(1), (A)(2)(b), (B)(2), (C)(2), or (D) of 35392
this section shall have the jurisdiction and adjudicatory powers 35393
conferred upon the judge of the municipal court. During the time 35394
of service, the acting judge or assigned judge shall sign all 35395
process and records and shall perform all acts pertaining to the 35396
office, except that of removal and appointment of officers of the 35397
municipal court. All courts shall take judicial notice of the 35398
selection and powers of the acting judge or assigned judge.35399

       Sec. 1901.122.  (A)(1) An acting judge appointed pursuant to 35400
division (A)(2)(a), (B)(1), or (C)(1) of section 1901.121 of the 35401
Revised Code shall receive reimbursement for actual and necessary 35402
expenses and a per diem compensation established by the incumbent 35403
judge, subject to the following limitations: 35404

       (a) If the incumbent judge receives compensation as described 35405
in division (A)(5) of section 141.04 of the Revised Code, the per 35406
diem compensation of the acting judge shall not exceed the per 35407
diem compensation paid to the incumbent judge based upon a work 35408
year of two hundred fifty days.35409

       (b) If the incumbent judge receives compensation as described 35410
in division (A)(6) of section 141.04 of the Revised Code, the per 35411
diem compensation of the acting judge shall not exceed the per 35412
diem compensation paid to the incumbent judge based upon a work 35413
year of one hundred thirty days.35414

       (2) The per diem compensation of the acting judge shall be 35415
payable in the same manner as the compensation paid to the 35416
incumbent judge during the same period.35417

       (B) An assigned judge assigned pursuant to division (A)(1), 35418
(A)(2)(b), (B)(2), (C)(2), or (D) of section 1901.121 of the 35419
Revised Code shall receive reimbursement for actual and necessary 35420
expenses and a per diem compensation computed as follows:35421

       (1) If the assigned judge receives compensation as described 35422
in division (A)(5) of section 141.04 of the Revised Code, thirty 35423
dollars;35424

       (2) If the assigned judge receives compensation as described 35425
in division (A)(6) of section 141.04 of the Revised Code, the per 35426
diem compensation of a judge of a municipal court compensated as 35427
described in division (A)(5) of section 141.04 of the Revised 35428
Code, less the per diem compensation of the assigned judge, each 35429
calculated on the basis of two hundred fifty working days per 35430
year;35431

       (3) If the assigned judge is a retired judge of a municipal 35432
or county court or a court of common pleas, the established per 35433
diem compensation for a judge of a municipal court compensated as 35434
described in division (A)(5) of section 141.04 of the Revised 35435
Code, calculated on the basis of two hundred fifty working days 35436
per year, in addition to any retirement benefits to which the 35437
assigned judge may be entitled; 35438

       (4) If the assigned judge is a sitting judge of the court of 35439
appeals or a court of common pleas, fifty dollars.35440

       Sec. 1901.123.  (A)(1) Subject to reimbursement under 35441
division (B) of this section, the treasurer of the county in which 35442
a county-operated municipal court or other municipal court is 35443
located shall pay the per diem compensation to which an acting 35444
judge appointed pursuant to division (A)(2)(a), (B)(1), or (C)(1) 35445
of section 1901.121 of the Revised Code is entitled pursuant to 35446
division (A)(1) of section 1901.122 of the Revised Code.35447

       (2) Subject to reimbursement under division (B) of this 35448
section, the treasurer of the county in which a county-operated 35449
municipal court or other municipal court is located shall pay the 35450
per diem compensation to which an assigned judge assigned pursuant 35451
to division (A)(1), (A)(2)(b), (B)(2), (C)(2), or (D) of section 35452
1901.121 of the Revised Code is entitled pursuant to division (B) 35453
of section 1901.122 of the Revised Code.35454

       (B) The treasurer of a county that, pursuant to division (A) 35455
of this section, is required to pay any compensation to which an 35456
acting judge or assigned judge is entitled under division (A)(5) 35457
or (6) of section 141.04 of the Revised Code, shall submit to the 35458
administrative director of the supreme court quarterly requests 35459
for reimbursements of the per diem amounts so paid. The requests 35460
shall include verifications of the payment of those amounts and an 35461
affidavit from the acting judge or assigned judge stating the days 35462
and hours worked. The administrative director shall cause 35463
reimbursements of those amounts to be issued to the county if the 35464
administrative director verifies that those amounts were, in fact, 35465
so paid.35466

       Sec. 1901.33.  (A) The judge or judges of a municipal court 35467
may appoint one or more interpreters, one or more mental health 35468
professionals, one or more probation officers, an assignment 35469
commissioner, deputy assignment commissioners, and other court 35470
aides on a full-time, part-time, hourly, or other basis. Each 35471
appointee shall receive the compensation out of the city treasury 35472
that the legislative authority prescribes in either biweekly 35473
installments or semimonthly installments, as determined by the 35474
payroll administrator, except that in a county-operated municipal 35475
court they shall receive the compensation out of the treasury of 35476
the county in which the court is located that the board of county 35477
commissioners prescribes. Probation officers have all the powers 35478
of regular police officers and shall perform any duties that are 35479
designated by the judge or judges of the court. Assignment 35480
commissioners shall assign cases for trial and perform any other 35481
duties that the court directs.35482

       The judge or judges may appoint one or more typists,35483
stenographers, statistical clerks, and official court reporters, 35484
each of whom shall be paid the compensation out of the city 35485
treasury that the legislative authority prescribes, except that in 35486
a county-operated municipal court they shall be paid the 35487
compensation out of the treasury of the county in which the court 35488
is located that the board of county commissioners prescribes. The 35489
cost of transcripts shall be determined as provided in section 35490
2301.25 of the Revised Code.35491

       (B) If a municipal court appoints one or more probation 35492
officers, those officers shall constitute the municipal court 35493
department of probation unless the court designates other 35494
employees as the department of probation for the court.35495

       (C) The chief probation officer may grant permission to a 35496
probation officer to carry firearms when required in the discharge 35497
of the probation officer's official duties if the probation 35498
officer has successfully completed a basic firearm training 35499
program that is approved by the executive director of the Ohio 35500
peace officer training commission. A probation officer who has 35501
been granted permission to carry a firearm in the discharge of the 35502
probation officer's official duties annually shall successfully 35503
complete a firearms requalification program in accordance with 35504
section 109.801 of the Revised Code.35505

       (D) The judge or judges of a municipal court in which the 35506
clerk of the court is elected as provided in division (A)(1)(a) or 35507
(d) or (A)(2)(b) of section 1901.31 of the Revised Code may 35508
appoint an administrative assistant. The administrative assistant 35509
shall have charge of personnel related matters of the court and 35510
shall perform any other administrative duties assigned by the 35511
court. The administrative assistant shall receive the compensation 35512
out of the city treasury that the court prescribes, except that, 35513
in a county-operated municipal court, the administrative assistant 35514
shall receive the compensation out of the treasury of the county 35515
in which the court is located that the court prescribes.35516

       Sec. 1907.14. (A) A judge of a county court shall take an 35517
oath of office as provided in section 3.23 of the Revised Code, 35518
the.35519

       (B) The office of judge of a county court is subject to 35520
forfeiture, and a judge may be removed from office, for the causes 35521
and by the procedure provided in sections 3.07 to 3.10 of the 35522
Revised Code.35523

       When a judge of a county court is temporarily absent, 35524
incapacitated, or otherwise unavailable, the judge may appoint a 35525
substitute having the qualifications required by section 1907.13 35526
of the Revised Code or may appoint a retired judge of a court of 35527
record in the state who is a qualified elector and a resident of 35528
the county court district. If the judge is unable to make the 35529
appointment, the administrative judge of the county court district 35530
or the administrative judge of the court of common pleas of the 35531
county shall appoint the substitute. The appointee shall serve 35532
during the absence, incapacity, or unavailability of the 35533
incumbent, shall have the jurisdiction and powers conferred upon 35534
the judge of the county court, and shall be styled "acting judge." 35535
During that term of service, the acting judge shall sign all 35536
process and records and perform all acts pertaining to the office 35537
except that of removal and appointment of officers of the court. 35538
All courts shall take judicial notice of the selection and powers 35539
of the acting judge. The incumbent judge shall establish the 35540
amount of the compensation of an acting judge on a per diem, 35541
hourly, or other basis, and the compensation shall not exceed the 35542
per diem compensation paid to the incumbent judge based upon a 35543
work year of one hundred thirty days. The compensation shall be 35544
payable in the same manner as the compensation paid to the 35545
incumbent judge during the same period.35546

       Sec. 1907.141.  (A)(1) If a vacancy occurs in the office of a 35547
judge of a county court that consists of only one judge or if the 35548
judge of a county court of that nature is incapacitated or 35549
unavailable due to disqualification, suspension, or recusal, the 35550
chief justice of the supreme court may assign a sitting judge of 35551
another court of record or a retired judge of a court of record to 35552
temporarily serve on the court in accordance with rules adopted by 35553
the supreme court pursuant to division (A)(1) of Section 5 of 35554
Article IV, Ohio Constitution. The assignee shall be styled 35555
"assigned judge" and shall serve for any period of time the chief 35556
justice may prescribe.35557

       (2) If a judge of a county court that consists of only one 35558
judge is temporarily absent for a reason other than as specified 35559
in division (A)(1) of this section, the judge may do either of the 35560
following:35561

       (a) Appoint a substitute who is a resident of the territory 35562
of the court or, if the territory of the court has a population of 35563
less than twenty-five thousand according to the latest federal 35564
decennial census and the judge is unable to appoint a substitute 35565
who is a resident of the territory of the court, appoint a 35566
substitute who is a resident of the territory of a municipal or 35567
county court that is contiguous to the court. The appointee shall 35568
either be admitted to the practice of law in this state and have 35569
been, for a total of at least six years preceding appointment, 35570
engaged in the practice of law in this state or a judge of a court 35571
of record in any jurisdiction in the United States or be a retired 35572
judge of a court of record. The appointee shall be styled "acting 35573
judge" and shall temporarily serve on the court during the 35574
temporary absence of the incumbent judge.35575

       (b) Request the chief justice of the supreme court to assign 35576
a sitting judge of another court of record or a retired judge of a 35577
court of record to temporarily serve on the court in accordance 35578
with rules adopted by the supreme court pursuant to division 35579
(A)(1) of Section 5 of Article IV, Ohio Constitution. The assignee 35580
shall be styled "assigned judge" and shall serve for any period of 35581
time the chief justice may prescribe.35582

       (B) If a vacancy occurs in the office of a judge of a county 35583
court that consists of two judges or if a judge of a county court 35584
of that nature is incapacitated, unavailable, or temporarily 35585
absent, the presiding judge may do either of the following:35586

       (1) Appoint a substitute who is a resident of the territory 35587
of the court or, if the territory of the court has a population of 35588
less than twenty-five thousand according to the latest federal 35589
decennial census and the judge is unable to appoint a substitute 35590
who is a resident of the territory of the court, appoint a 35591
substitute who is a resident of the territory of a municipal or 35592
county court that is contiguous to the court. The appointee shall 35593
either be admitted to the practice of law in this state and have 35594
been, for a total of at least six years preceding appointment, 35595
engaged in the practice of law in this state or a judge of a court 35596
of record in any jurisdiction in the United States or be a retired 35597
judge of a court of record. The appointee shall be styled "acting 35598
judge" and shall temporarily serve on the court during the vacancy 35599
or the incapacity, unavailability, or temporary absence of the 35600
incumbent judge.35601

       (2) Request the chief justice of the supreme court to assign 35602
a sitting judge of another court of record or a retired judge of a 35603
court of record to temporarily serve on the court in accordance 35604
with rules adopted by the supreme court pursuant to division 35605
(A)(1) of Section 5 of Article IV, Ohio Constitution. The assignee 35606
shall be styled "assigned judge" and shall serve for any period of 35607
time the chief justice may prescribe.35608

       (C) If a vacancy occurs in the office of a judge of a county 35609
court that consists of three or more judges or if a judge of a 35610
county court of that nature is incapacitated, unavailable, or 35611
temporarily absent, the presiding judge may do either of the 35612
following:35613

       (1) If no other judge of the court is available to perform 35614
the duties of the judge, appoint a substitute who is a resident of 35615
the territory of the court. The appointee shall either be admitted 35616
to the practice of law in this state and have been, for a total of 35617
at least six years preceding appointment, engaged in the practice 35618
of law in this state or a judge of a court of record in any 35619
jurisdiction in the United States or be a retired judge of a court 35620
of record. The appointee shall be styled "acting judge" and shall 35621
temporarily serve on the court during the vacancy or the 35622
incapacity, unavailability, or temporary absence of the incumbent 35623
judge.35624

       (2) Request the chief justice of the supreme court to assign 35625
a sitting judge of another court of record or a retired judge of a 35626
court of record to temporarily serve on the court in accordance 35627
with rules adopted by the supreme court pursuant to division 35628
(A)(1) of Section 5 of Article IV, Ohio Constitution. The assignee 35629
shall be styled "assigned judge" and shall serve for any period of 35630
time the chief justice may prescribe35631

       (D) An acting judge appointed pursuant to division (A)(2)(a), 35632
(B)(1), or (C)(1) of this section and an assigned judge assigned 35633
pursuant to division (A)(1), (A)(2)(b), (B)(2), or (C)(2) of this 35634
section shall have the jurisdiction and adjudicatory powers 35635
conferred upon the judge of the county court. During the time of 35636
service, the acting judge or assigned judge shall sign all process 35637
and records and shall perform all acts pertaining to the office, 35638
except that of removal and appointment of officers of the court. 35639
All courts shall take judicial notice of the selection and powers 35640
of the acting judge or assigned judge.35641

       Sec. 1907.142.  (A) An acting judge appointed pursuant to 35642
division (A)(2)(a), (B)(1), or (C)(1) of section 1907.141 of the 35643
Revised Code shall receive reimbursement for actual and necessary 35644
expenses and a per diem compensation established by the incumbent 35645
judge, provided the per diem compensation of the acting judge 35646
shall not exceed the per diem compensation paid to the incumbent 35647
judge based upon a work year of one hundred thirty days. The per 35648
diem compensation of the acting judge shall be payable in the same 35649
manner as the compensation paid to the incumbent judge during the 35650
same period. 35651

       (B) An assigned judge assigned pursuant to division (A)(1), 35652
(A)(2)(b), (B)(2), or (C)(2) of section 1907.141 of the Revised 35653
Code shall receive reimbursement for actual and necessary expenses 35654
and a per diem compensation computed as follows:35655

       (1) If the assigned judge receives compensation as described 35656
in division (A)(5) of section 141.04 of the Revised Code, thirty 35657
dollars;35658

       (2) If the assigned judge receives compensation as described 35659
in division (A)(6) of section 141.04 of the Revised Code, the per 35660
diem compensation of a judge of a municipal court compensated as 35661
described in division (A)(5) of section 141.04 of the Revised 35662
Code, less the per diem compensation of the assigned judge, each 35663
calculated on the basis of two hundred fifty working days per 35664
year;35665

       (3) If the assigned judge is a retired judge of a municipal 35666
or county court or a court of common pleas, the established per 35667
diem compensation for a judge of a municipal court compensated as 35668
described in division (A)(5) of section 141.04 of the Revised 35669
Code, calculated on the basis of two hundred fifty working days 35670
per year, in addition to any retirement benefits to which the 35671
assigned judge may be entitled; 35672

       (4) If the assigned judge is a sitting judge of the court of 35673
appeals or a court of common pleas, fifty dollars.35674

       Sec. 1907.143.  (A)(1) Subject to reimbursement under 35675
division (B) of this section, the treasurer of the county in which 35676
a county court is located shall pay the per diem compensation to 35677
which an acting judge appointed pursuant to division (A)(2)(b), 35678
(B)(1), or (C)(1) of section 1907.141 of the Revised Code is 35679
entitled pursuant to division (A) of section 1907.142 of the 35680
Revised Code.35681

       (2) Subject to reimbursement under division (B) of this 35682
section, the treasurer of the county in which a county court is 35683
located shall pay the per diem compensation to which an assigned 35684
judge assigned pursuant to division (A)(1), (A)(2)(b), (B)(2), or 35685
(C)(2) of section 1907.141 of the Revised Code is entitled 35686
pursuant to division (B) of section 1907.142 of the Revised Code.35687

       (B) The treasurer of a county that, pursuant to division (A) 35688
of this section, is required to pay any compensation to which an 35689
acting judge or assigned judge is entitled under division (A)(5) 35690
or (6) of section 141.04 of the Revised Code, shall submit to the 35691
administrative director of the supreme court quarterly requests 35692
for reimbursements of the per diem amounts so paid. The requests 35693
shall include verifications of the payment of those amounts and an 35694
affidavit from the acting judge or assigned judge stating the days 35695
and hours worked. The administrative director shall cause 35696
reimbursements of those amounts to be issued to the county if the 35697
administrative director verifies that those amounts were, in fact, 35698
so paid.35699

       Sec. 1923.14. (A) Except as otherwise provided in this 35700
section, within ten days after receiving a writ of execution 35701
described in division (A) or (B) of section 1923.13 of the Revised 35702
Code, the sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff shall 35703
execute it by restoring the plaintiff to the possession of the 35704
premises, and shall levy and collect the costs and make return, as 35705
upon other executions. If an appeal from the judgment of 35706
restitution is filed and if, following the filing of the appeal, a 35707
stay of execution is obtained and any required bond is filed with 35708
the court of common pleas, municipal court, or county court, the 35709
judge of that court immediately shall issue an order to the 35710
sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff commanding the 35711
delay of all further proceedings upon the execution. If the 35712
premises have been restored to the plaintiff, the sheriff, police 35713
officer, constable, or bailiff shall forthwith place the defendant 35714
in possession of them, and return the writ with the sheriff's, 35715
police officer's, constable's, or bailiff's proceedings and the 35716
costs taxed on it.35717

       (B)(1) After a court of common pleas, municipal court, or 35718
county court issues a writ of execution described in division (B) 35719
of section 1923.13 of the Revised Code, the clerk of the court 35720
shall send by regular mail, to the last known address of the 35721
titled owner of the manufactured home, mobile home, or 35722
recreational vehicle that is the subject of the writ and to the 35723
last known address of each other person who is listed on the writ 35724
as having any outstanding right, title, or interest in the home, 35725
vehicle, or personal property and to the auditor and treasurer of 35726
the county in which the court is located, a written notice that 35727
the home or vehicle potentially may be sold, destroyed, or have 35728
its title transferred under the circumstances described in 35729
division (B)(3) or (4) of this section.35730

       (2) Except as otherwise provided in this division, after 35731
receiving a writ of execution described in division (B) of section 35732
1923.13 of the Revised Code, and after causing the defendant to be 35733
removed from the residential premises of the manufactured home 35734
park, if necessary, in accordance with the writ, the sheriff, 35735
police officer, constable, or bailiff may cause the manufactured 35736
home, mobile home, or recreational vehicle that is the subject of 35737
the writ, and all personal property on the residential premises, 35738
at the sheriff's, police officer's, constable's, or bailiff's 35739
option, either to be removed from the manufactured home park and, 35740
if necessary, moved to a storage facility of the sheriff's, police 35741
officer's, constable's, or bailiff's choice, or to be retained at 35742
their current location on the residential premises, until they are 35743
claimed by the defendant or they are disposed of in a manner 35744
authorized by division (B)(3), (4), or (6) of this section or by 35745
another section of the Revised Code. The sheriff, police officer, 35746
constable, or bailiff shall not cause the manufactured home, 35747
mobile home, or recreational vehicle that is the subject of the 35748
writ, or the personal property, to be removed from the 35749
manufactured home park or moved to a storage facility if the 35750
holder of any outstanding lien, right, title, or interest in the 35751
home or vehicle, other than the titled owner of the home or 35752
vehicle, meets the conditions set forth in division (B)(6) or (7) 35753
of this section.35754

       The sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff who 35755
removes the manufactured home, mobile home, or recreational 35756
vehicle, or the abandoned personal property, from the residential 35757
premises shall be immune from civil liability pursuant to section 35758
2744.03 of the Revised Code for any damage caused to the home, 35759
vehicle, or any personal property during the removal. The park 35760
operator shall not be liable for any damage caused by the park 35761
operator's removal of the manufactured home, mobile home, or 35762
recreational vehicle or the removal of the personal property from 35763
the residential premises, or for any damage to the home, vehicle, 35764
or personal property during the time the home, vehicle, or 35765
property remains abandoned or stored in the manufactured home 35766
park, unless the damage is the result of acts that the park 35767
operator or the park operator's agents or employees performed with 35768
malicious purpose, in bad faith, or in a wanton or reckless 35769
manner. The reasonable costs for a removal of the manufactured 35770
home, mobile home, or recreational vehicle and personal property 35771
and, as applicable, the reasonable costs for its storage shall 35772
constitute a lien upon the home or vehicle payable by the titled 35773
owner of the home or vehicle or payable pursuant to division 35774
(B)(3) of this section.35775

       (3) Except as provided in divisions (B)(4), (5), and (6) of 35776
this section and division (D) of section 1923.12 of the Revised 35777
Code, within sixty days after receiving a writ of execution 35778
described in division (B) of section 1923.13 of the Revised Code, 35779
the sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff shall commence 35780
proceedings for the sale of the manufactured home, mobile home, or 35781
recreational vehicle that is the subject of the writ, and the 35782
abandoned personal property on the residential premises, if the 35783
home or vehicle is determined to be abandoned in accordance with 35784
the procedures for the sale of goods on execution under Chapter 35785
2329. of the Revised Code. In addition to all notices required to 35786
be given under section 2329.13 of the Revised Code, the sheriff, 35787
police officer, constable, or bailiff shall serve at their 35788
respective last known addresses a written notice of the date, 35789
time, and place of the sale upon all persons who are listed on the 35790
writ of execution as having any outstanding right, title, or 35791
interest in the abandoned manufactured home, mobile home, or 35792
recreational vehicle and the personal property and shall provide 35793
written notice to the auditor and the treasurer of the county in 35794
which the court issuing the writ is located.35795

        Unless the proceedings are governed by division (D) of 35796
section 1923.12 of the Revised Code, notwithstanding any statutory 35797
provision to the contrary, including, but not limited to, section 35798
2329.66 of the Revised Code, there shall be no stay of execution 35799
or exemption from levy or sale on execution available to the 35800
titled owner of the abandoned manufactured home, mobile home, or 35801
recreational vehicle in relation to a sale under this division. 35802
Except as otherwise provided in sections 2113.031, 2117.25, and 35803
5111.115162.21 of the Revised Code in a case involving a deceased 35804
resident or resident's estate, the sheriff, police officer, 35805
constable, or bailiff shall distribute the proceeds from the sale 35806
of an abandoned manufactured home, mobile home, or recreational 35807
vehicle and any personal property under this division in the 35808
following manner:35809

       (a) The sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff shall 35810
first pay the costs for any moving of and any storage outside the 35811
manufactured home park of the home or vehicle and any personal 35812
property pursuant to division (B)(2) of this section, the costs of 35813
the sale, including reimbursing the park operator for the deposit 35814
that the park operator paid to the clerk of court under division 35815
(C) of section 1923.12 of the Revised Code, and any unpaid court 35816
costs assessed against the defendant in the underlying action.35817

       (b) Following the payment required by division (B)(3)(a) of 35818
this section, the sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff 35819
shall pay all outstanding tax liens on the home or vehicle.35820

       (c) Following the payment required by division (B)(3)(b) of 35821
this section, the sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff 35822
shall pay all other outstanding security interests, liens, or 35823
encumbrances on the home or vehicle by priority of filing or other 35824
priority.35825

       (d) Following the payment required by division (B)(3)(c) of 35826
this section, the sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff 35827
shall pay any outstanding monetary judgment rendered under section 35828
1923.09 or 1923.11 of the Revised Code in favor of the plaintiff 35829
and any costs associated with retaining the home or vehicle prior 35830
to the sale at its location on the residential premises within the 35831
manufactured home park pursuant to division (B)(2) of this 35832
section.35833

       (e) After complying with divisions (B)(3)(a) to (d) of this 35834
section, the sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff shall 35835
report any remaining money as unclaimed funds pursuant to Chapter 35836
169. of the Revised Code.35837

       Upon the return of any writ of execution for the satisfaction 35838
of which an abandoned manufactured home, mobile home, or 35839
recreational vehicle has been sold under this division, on careful 35840
examination of the proceedings of the sheriff, police officer, 35841
constable, or bailiff conducting the sale, if the court that 35842
issued the writ finds that the sale was made, in all respects, in 35843
conformity with the relevant provisions of Chapter 2329. of the 35844
Revised Code and with this division, it shall direct the clerk of 35845
the court to make an entry on the journal that the court is 35846
satisfied with the legality of the sale and the court shall direct 35847
the clerk of the court of common pleas of the county in which the 35848
writ was issued to issue a certificate of title, free and clear of 35849
all security interests, liens, and encumbrances, to the purchaser 35850
of the home or vehicle. The clerk of the court of common pleas 35851
shall issue the new certificate of title to the purchaser of the 35852
home or vehicle regardless of whether the writ was issued by the 35853
court of common pleas or another court duly authorized to issue 35854
the writ. If the manufactured home, mobile home, or recreational 35855
vehicle sold under this division is located in a manufactured home 35856
park, the purchaser of the home or vehicle shall have no right to 35857
maintain the home or vehicle in the manufactured home park without 35858
the park operator's consent and the sheriff, police officer, 35859
constable, or bailiff conducting the sale shall notify all 35860
prospective purchasers of this fact prior to the commencement of 35861
the sale.35862

       If, after it is offered for sale on two occasions under this 35863
division, the abandoned manufactured home, mobile home, or 35864
recreational vehicle cannot be sold due to a want of bidders, the 35865
sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff shall present the 35866
writ of execution unsatisfied to the clerk of the court of common 35867
pleas of the county in which the writ was issued for the issuance 35868
by the clerk in the manner prescribed in section 4505.10 of the 35869
Revised Code of a certificate of title transferring the title of 35870
the home or vehicle to the plaintiff, free and clear of all 35871
security interests, liens, and encumbrances. The clerk of the 35872
court of common pleas shall issue the new certificate of title 35873
transferring the title of the manufactured home, mobile home, or 35874
recreational vehicle to the plaintiff regardless of whether the 35875
writ was issued by the court of common pleas or another court duly 35876
authorized to issue the writ. If any taxes are owed on the home or 35877
vehicle at this time, the county auditor shall remove the 35878
delinquent taxes from the manufactured home tax list and the 35879
delinquent manufactured home tax list and remit any penalties for 35880
late payment of manufactured home taxes. Acceptance of the 35881
certificate of title by the plaintiff terminates all further 35882
proceedings under this section.35883

       (4) Except as provided in division (B)(5) or (6) of this 35884
section and division (D) of section 1923.12 of the Revised Code, 35885
within sixty days after receiving a writ of execution described in 35886
division (B) of section 1923.13 of the Revised Code, if the 35887
manufactured home, mobile home, or recreational vehicle is 35888
determined to be abandoned and to have a value of less than three 35889
thousand dollars, the sheriff, police officer, constable, or 35890
bailiff shall serve at their respective last known addresses a 35891
written notice of potential action as described in this division 35892
upon all persons who are listed on the writ as having any 35893
outstanding right, title, or interest in the home or vehicle. This 35894
notice shall be in addition to all notices required to be given 35895
under section 2329.13 of the Revised Code. Subject to the 35896
fulfillment of these notice requirements, the sheriff, police 35897
officer, constable, or bailiff shall take one of the following 35898
actions with respect to the abandoned manufactured home, mobile 35899
home, or recreational vehicle:35900

       (a) Cause its destruction if there is no person having an 35901
outstanding right, title, or interest in the home or vehicle, 35902
other than the titled owner of the home or vehicle;35903

       (b) Proceed with its sale under division (B)(3) of this 35904
section;35905

       (c) If there is no person having an outstanding right, title, 35906
or interest in the home or vehicle other than the titled owner of 35907
the home or vehicle, or if there is an outstanding right, title, 35908
or interest in the home or vehicle and the lienholder consents in 35909
writing, present the writ of execution to the clerk of the court 35910
of common pleas of the county in which the writ was issued for the 35911
issuance by the clerk in the manner prescribed in section 4505.10 35912
of the Revised Code of a certificate of title transferring the 35913
title of the home or vehicle to the plaintiff, free and clear of 35914
all security interests, liens, and encumbrances. The clerk of the 35915
court of common pleas shall issue the new certificate of title 35916
transferring the title of the home or vehicle regardless of 35917
whether the writ was issued by the court of common pleas or 35918
another court duly authorized to issue the writ. If any taxes are 35919
owed on the home or vehicle at this time, the county auditor shall 35920
remove the delinquent taxes from the manufactured home tax list 35921
and the delinquent manufactured home tax list and remit any 35922
penalties for late payment of manufactured home taxes. Acceptance 35923
of the certificate of title by the plaintiff terminates all 35924
further proceedings under this section.35925

       (5) At any time prior to the issuance of the writ of 35926
execution described in division (B) of section 1923.13 of the 35927
Revised Code, the titled owner of the manufactured home, mobile 35928
home, or recreational vehicle that would be the subject of the 35929
writ may remove the abandoned home or vehicle from the 35930
manufactured home park or other place of storage upon payment to 35931
the county auditor of all outstanding tax liens on the home or 35932
vehicle and, unless the owner is indigent, payment to the clerk of 35933
court of all unpaid court costs assessed against the defendant in 35934
the underlying action. After the issuance of the writ of 35935
execution, the titled owner of the home or vehicle may remove the 35936
abandoned home or vehicle from the manufactured home park or other 35937
place of storage at any time up to the day before the scheduled 35938
sale, destruction, or transfer of the home or vehicle pursuant to 35939
division (B)(3) or (4) of this section upon payment of all of the 35940
following:35941

        (a) All costs for moving and storage of the home or vehicle 35942
pursuant to division (B)(2) of this section and all costs incurred 35943
by the sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff up to and 35944
including the date of the removal of the home or vehicle;35945

       (b) All outstanding tax liens on the home or vehicle;35946

       (c) Unless the owner is indigent, all unpaid court costs 35947
assessed against the defendant in the underlying action.35948

       (6) At any time after the issuance of the writ of execution 35949
described in division (B) of section 1923.13 of the Revised Code, 35950
the holder of any outstanding lien, right, title, or interest in 35951
the manufactured home, mobile home, or recreational vehicle, other 35952
than the titled owner of the home or vehicle, may stop the 35953
sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff from proceeding 35954
with the sale under this division by doing both of the following:35955

        (a) Commencing a proceeding to repossess the home or vehicle 35956
pursuant to Chapters 1309. and 1317. of the Revised Code;35957

        (b) Paying to the park operator all monthly rental payments 35958
for the lot on which the home or vehicle is located from the time 35959
of the issuance of the writ of execution until the time that the 35960
home or vehicle is sold pursuant to Chapters 1309. and 1317. of 35961
the Revised Code.35962

       (7)(a) At any time prior to the day before the scheduled sale 35963
of the property pursuant to division (B)(3) of this section, the 35964
defendant may remove any personal property of the defendant from 35965
the abandoned home or vehicle or other place of storage.35966

       (b) If personal property owned by a person other than the 35967
defendant is abandoned on the residential premises and has not 35968
previously been removed, the owner of the personal property may 35969
remove the personal property from the abandoned home or vehicle or 35970
other place of storage up to the day before the scheduled sale of 35971
the property pursuant to division (B)(3) of this section upon 35972
presentation of proof of ownership of the property that is 35973
satisfactory to the sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff 35974
conducting the sale.35975

       Sec. 2101.026. (A) The probate court of Franklin county may 35976
accept funds or other program assistance from the board of 35977
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services of Franklin 35978
county or the Franklin county board of developmental disabilities. 35979
Any funds received by the probate court of Franklin county under 35980
this division shall be paid into the treasury of Franklin county 35981
and credited to a fund to be known as the Franklin county probate 35982
court mental health fund.35983

        (B) The moneys in the Franklin county probate court mental 35984
health fund shall be used for services to help ensure the 35985
treatment of any person who is under the care of the board of 35986
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services of Franklin 35987
county or the Franklin county board of developmental disabilities. 35988
These services include, but are not limited to, involuntary 35989
commitment proceedings and the establishment and management of 35990
adult guardianships, including all associated expenses, for wards 35991
who are under the care of the board of alcohol, drug addiction, 35992
and mental health services of Franklin county or the Franklin 35993
county board of developmental disabilities.35994

        (C) If the judge of the probate court of Franklin county 35995
determines that some of the moneys in the Franklin county probate 35996
court mental health fund are needed for the efficient operation of 35997
that court, the moneys may be used for the acquisition of 35998
equipment, the hiring and training of staff, community services 35999
programs, volunteer guardianship training services, the employment 36000
of magistrates, and other related services. 36001

       Sec. 2101.08.  The probate judge may appoint court reporters 36002
and fix their compensation in the manner provided for the court of 36003
common pleas in sections 2301.18 to 2301.262301.25 of the Revised 36004
Code.36005

       Sec. 2101.24.  (A)(1) Except as otherwise provided by law, 36006
the probate court has exclusive jurisdiction:36007

       (a) To take the proof of wills and to admit to record 36008
authenticated copies of wills executed, proved, and allowed in the 36009
courts of any other state, territory, or country. If the probate 36010
judge is unavoidably absent, any judge of the court of common 36011
pleas may take proof of wills and approve bonds to be given, but 36012
the record of these acts shall be preserved in the usual records 36013
of the probate court.36014

       (b) To grant and revoke letters testamentary and of 36015
administration;36016

       (c) To direct and control the conduct and settle the accounts 36017
of executors and administrators and order the distribution of 36018
estates;36019

       (d) To appoint the attorney general to serve as the 36020
administrator of an estate pursuant to section 2113.06 of the 36021
Revised Code;36022

       (e) To appoint and remove guardians, conservators, and 36023
testamentary trustees, direct and control their conduct, and 36024
settle their accounts;36025

       (f) To grant marriage licenses;36026

       (g) To make inquests respecting persons who are so mentally 36027
impaired as a result of a mental or physical illness or 36028
disability, or mental retardation, or as a result of chronic 36029
substance abuse, that they are unable to manage their property and 36030
affairs effectively, subject to guardianship;36031

       (h) To qualify assignees, appoint and qualify trustees and 36032
commissioners of insolvents, control their conduct, and settle 36033
their accounts;36034

       (i) To authorize the sale of lands, equitable estates, or 36035
interests in lands or equitable estates, and the assignments of 36036
inchoate dower in such cases of sale, on petition by executors, 36037
administrators, and guardians;36038

       (j) To authorize the completion of real property contracts on 36039
petition of executors and administrators;36040

       (k) To construe wills;36041

       (l) To render declaratory judgments, including, but not 36042
limited to, those rendered pursuant to section 2107.084 of the 36043
Revised Code;36044

       (m) To direct and control the conduct of fiduciaries and 36045
settle their accounts;36046

       (n) To authorize the sale or lease of any estate created by 36047
will if the estate is held in trust, on petition by the trustee;36048

       (o) To terminate a testamentary trust in any case in which a 36049
court of equity may do so;36050

       (p) To hear and determine actions to contest the validity of 36051
wills;36052

       (q) To make a determination of the presumption of death of 36053
missing persons and to adjudicate the property rights and 36054
obligations of all parties affected by the presumption;36055

       (r) To hear and determine an action commenced pursuant to 36056
section 3107.41 of the Revised Code to obtain the release of 36057
information pertaining to the birth name of the adopted person and 36058
the identity of the adopted person's biological parents and 36059
biological siblings;36060

       (s) To act for and issue orders regarding wards pursuant to 36061
section 2111.50 of the Revised Code;36062

       (t) To hear and determine actions against sureties on the 36063
bonds of fiduciaries appointed by the probate court;36064

       (u) To hear and determine actions involving informed consent 36065
for medication of persons hospitalized pursuant to section 36066
5122.141 or 5122.15 of the Revised Code;36067

       (v) To hear and determine actions relating to durable powers 36068
of attorney for health care as described in division (D) of 36069
section 1337.16 of the Revised Code;36070

       (w) To hear and determine actions commenced by objecting 36071
individuals, in accordance with section 2133.05 of the Revised 36072
Code;36073

       (x) To hear and determine complaints that pertain to the use 36074
or continuation, or the withholding or withdrawal, of 36075
life-sustaining treatment in connection with certain patients 36076
allegedly in a terminal condition or in a permanently unconscious 36077
state pursuant to division (E) of section 2133.08 of the Revised 36078
Code, in accordance with that division;36079

       (y) To hear and determine applications that pertain to the 36080
withholding or withdrawal of nutrition and hydration from certain 36081
patients allegedly in a permanently unconscious state pursuant to 36082
section 2133.09 of the Revised Code, in accordance with that 36083
section;36084

       (z) To hear and determine applications of attending 36085
physicians in accordance with division (B) of section 2133.15 of 36086
the Revised Code;36087

       (aa) To hear and determine actions relative to the use or 36088
continuation of comfort care in connection with certain principals 36089
under durable powers of attorney for health care, declarants under 36090
declarations, or patients in accordance with division (E) of 36091
either section 1337.16 or 2133.12 of the Revised Code;36092

       (bb) To hear and determine applications for an order 36093
relieving an estate from administration under section 2113.03 of 36094
the Revised Code;36095

       (cc) To hear and determine applications for an order granting 36096
a summary release from administration under section 2113.031 of 36097
the Revised Code;36098

       (dd) To hear and determine actions relating to the exercise 36099
of the right of disposition, in accordance with section 2108.90 of 36100
the Revised Code;36101

       (ee) To hear and determine actions relating to the 36102
disinterment and reinterment of human remains under section 517.23 36103
of the Revised Code;36104

       (ff) To hear and determine petitions for an order for 36105
treatment of a person suffering from alcohol and other drug abuse 36106
filed under section 3793.345119.93 of the Revised Code and to 36107
order treatment of that nature in accordance with, and take other 36108
actions afforded to the court under, sections 3793.315119.90 to 36109
3793.395119.98 of the Revised Code.36110

       (2) In addition to the exclusive jurisdiction conferred upon 36111
the probate court by division (A)(1) of this section, the probate 36112
court shall have exclusive jurisdiction over a particular subject 36113
matter if both of the following apply:36114

       (a) Another section of the Revised Code expressly confers 36115
jurisdiction over that subject matter upon the probate court.36116

       (b) No section of the Revised Code expressly confers 36117
jurisdiction over that subject matter upon any other court or 36118
agency.36119

       (B)(1) The probate court has concurrent jurisdiction with, 36120
and the same powers at law and in equity as, the general division 36121
of the court of common pleas to issue writs and orders, and to 36122
hear and determine actions as follows:36123

       (a) If jurisdiction relative to a particular subject matter 36124
is stated to be concurrent in a section of the Revised Code or has 36125
been construed by judicial decision to be concurrent, any action 36126
that involves that subject matter;36127

       (b) Any action that involves an inter vivos trust; a trust 36128
created pursuant to section 5815.28 of the Revised Code; a 36129
charitable trust or foundation; subject to divisions (A)(1)(u) and 36130
(z) of this section, a power of attorney, including, but not 36131
limited to, a durable power of attorney; the medical treatment of 36132
a competent adult; or a writ of habeas corpus;36133

       (c) Subject to section 2101.31 of the Revised Code, any 36134
action with respect to a probate estate, guardianship, trust, or 36135
post-death dispute that involves any of the following:36136

        (i) A designation or removal of a beneficiary of a life 36137
insurance policy, annuity contract, retirement plan, brokerage 36138
account, security account, bank account, real property, or 36139
tangible personal property;36140

        (ii) A designation or removal of a payable-on-death 36141
beneficiary or transfer-on-death beneficiary;36142

        (iii) A change in the title to any asset involving a joint 36143
and survivorship interest;36144

        (iv) An alleged gift;36145

        (v) The passing of assets upon the death of an individual 36146
otherwise than by will, intestate succession, or trust.36147

       (2) Any action that involves a concurrent jurisdiction 36148
subject matter and that is before the probate court may be 36149
transferred by the probate court, on its order, to the general 36150
division of the court of common pleas.36151

       (C) The probate court has plenary power at law and in equity 36152
to dispose fully of any matter that is properly before the court, 36153
unless the power is expressly otherwise limited or denied by a 36154
section of the Revised Code.36155

       (D) The jurisdiction acquired by a probate court over a 36156
matter or proceeding is exclusive of that of any other probate 36157
court, except when otherwise provided by law.36158

       Sec. 2108.05.  (A) A donor may make an anatomical gift by 36159
doing any of the following:36160

       (1) Authorizing a statement or symbol to be imprinted on the 36161
donor's driver's license or identification card indicating that 36162
the donor has certified a willingness to make an anatomical gift;36163

       (2) Specifying in the donor's will an intent to make an 36164
anatomical gift;36165

       (3) Specifying an intent to make an anatomical gift in the 36166
donor's declaration as described in section 2133.16 of the Revised 36167
Code;36168

       (4) During a terminal illness or injury of the donor, 36169
communicating in any manner to a minimum of two adults, at least 36170
one of whom is a disinterested witness, that the donor intends to 36171
make an anatomical gift;36172

       (5) Following the procedure in division (B) of this section.36173

       (B) A donor or other person authorized to make an anatomical 36174
gift under section 2108.04 of the Revised Code may make a gift by 36175
a donor card or other record signed by the donor or other person 36176
making the gift or by authorizing that a statement or symbol 36177
indicating that the donor has certified a willingness to make an 36178
anatomical gift be included in a donor registry. If the donor or 36179
other person is physically unable to sign a record, the record may 36180
be signed by another individual at the direction of the donor or 36181
other person and shall do both of the following:36182

       (1) Be witnessed by at least two adults, at least one of whom 36183
is a disinterested witness, who have signed at the request of the 36184
donor or the other person;36185

       (2) State that it has been signed and witnessed as provided 36186
in division (B)(1) of this section.36187

       (C) Once a donor has authorized a statement or symbol to be 36188
imprinted on the donor's driver's license or identification card 36189
indicating that the donor has certified a willingness to make an 36190
anatomical gift, the donor does not need to recertify the donor's 36191
willingness to make an anatomical gift upon renewal of the 36192
driver's license or identification card. The authorization shall 36193
remain in effect until the donor withdraws that authorization.36194

       (D) Revocation, suspension, expiration, or cancellation of a 36195
driver's license or identification card upon which an anatomical 36196
gift is indicated does not invalidate the gift.36197

       (D)(E) An anatomical gift made by will takes effect on the 36198
donor's death whether or not the will is probated. Invalidation of 36199
the will after the donor's death does not invalidate the gift.36200

       Sec. 2113.041. (A) The administrator of the medicaid estate 36201
recovery program established pursuant to section 5111.115162.2136202
of the Revised Code may present an affidavit to a financial 36203
institution requesting that the financial institution release 36204
account proceeds to recover the cost of services correctly 36205
provided to a medicaid recipient who is subject to the medicaid 36206
estate recovery program. The affidavit shall include all of the 36207
following information:36208

        (1) The name of the decedent;36209

        (2) The name of any person who gave notice that the decedent 36210
was a medicaid recipient and that person's relationship to the 36211
decedent;36212

        (3) The name of the financial institution;36213

        (4) The account number;36214

        (5) A description of the claim for estate recovery;36215

        (6) The amount of funds to be recovered.36216

        (B) A financial institution may release account proceeds to 36217
the administrator of the medicaid estate recovery program if all 36218
of the following apply:36219

        (1) The decedent held an account at the financial institution 36220
that was in the decedent's name only.36221

        (2) No estate has been, and it is reasonable to assume that 36222
no estate will be, opened for the decedent.36223

        (3) The decedent has no outstanding debts known to the 36224
administrator of the medicaid estate recovery program.36225

        (4) The financial institution has received no objections or 36226
has determined that no valid objections to release of proceeds 36227
have been received.36228

        (C) If proceeds have been released pursuant to division (B) 36229
of this section and the department of job and family services36230
medicaid receives notice of a valid claim to the proceeds that has 36231
a higher priority under section 2117.25 of the Revised Code than 36232
the claim of the medicaid estate recovery program, the department 36233
may refund the proceeds to the financial institution or pay them 36234
to the person or government entity with the claim.36235

       Sec. 2113.06. (A) Administration of the estate of an 36236
intestate shall be granted to persons mentioned in this division, 36237
in the following order:36238

       (1) To the surviving spouse of the deceased, if resident of 36239
the state;36240

       (2) To one of the next of kin of the deceased, resident of 36241
the state.36242

       (B) If the persons entitled to administer the estate under 36243
division (A) of this section fail to take or renounce 36244
administration voluntarily, the matter shall be set for hearing 36245
and notice given to the persons.36246

       (C) If there are no persons entitled to administration, if 36247
they are for any reason unsuitable for the discharge of the trust, 36248
or if without sufficient cause they neglect to apply within a 36249
reasonable time for the administration of the estate, their right 36250
to priority shall be lost, and the court shall commit the 36251
administration to some suitable person who is a resident of the 36252
state, or to the attorney general or the attorney general's 36253
designee, if the department of job and family servicesmedicaid is 36254
seeking to recover medical assistancethe costs of medicaid 36255
services from the deceased pursuant to section 5111.115162.21 or 36256
5111.1115162.211 of the Revised Code. The person granted 36257
administration may be a creditor of the estate.36258

       (D) This section applies to the appointment of an 36259
administrator de bonis non.36260

       Sec. 2117.061. (A) As used in this section:36261

       (1) "Medicaid estate recovery program" means the program 36262
instituted under section 5111.115162.21 of the Revised Code.36263

        (2) "Person responsible for the estate" means the executor, 36264
administrator, commissioner, or person who filed pursuant to 36265
section 2113.03 of the Revised Code for release from 36266
administration of an estate.36267

        (B) The person responsible for the estate of a decedent 36268
subject to the medicaid estate recovery program or the estate of a 36269
decedent who was the spouse of a decedent subject to the medicaid 36270
estate recovery program shall submit a properly completed medicaid 36271
estate recovery notice form to the administrator of the medicaid 36272
estate recovery program not later than thirty days after the 36273
occurrence of any of the following:36274

        (1) The granting of letters of administration or letters 36275
testamentary;36276

        (2) The filing of an application for release from 36277
administration or summary release from administration.36278

        (C) The person responsible for the estate shall mark the 36279
appropriate box on the appropriate probate form that gives notice 36280
to the administrator of the medicaid estate recovery program to 36281
indicate compliance with the requirements of division (B) of this 36282
section.36283

       (D) The administrator of the medicaid estate recovery program 36284
shall present a claim for estate recovery to the person 36285
responsible for the estate of the decedent or the person's legal 36286
representative not later than ninety days after the date on which 36287
the medicaid estate recovery notice form is received under 36288
division (B) of this section or one year after the decedent's 36289
death, whichever is later.36290

       Sec. 2117.25. (A) Every executor or administrator shall 36291
proceed with diligence to pay the debts of the decedent and shall 36292
apply the assets in the following order:36293

       (1) Costs and expenses of administration;36294

       (2) An amount, not exceeding four thousand dollars, for 36295
funeral expenses that are included in the bill of a funeral 36296
director, funeral expenses other than those in the bill of a 36297
funeral director that are approved by the probate court, and an 36298
amount, not exceeding three thousand dollars, for burial and 36299
cemetery expenses, including that portion of the funeral 36300
director's bill allocated to cemetery expenses that have been paid 36301
to the cemetery by the funeral director.36302

       For purposes of division (A)(2) of this section, burial and 36303
cemetery expenses shall be limited to the following:36304

       (a) The purchase of a right of interment;36305

       (b) Monuments or other markers;36306

       (c) The outer burial container;36307

       (d) The cost of opening and closing the place of interment;36308

       (e) The urn.36309

       (3) The allowance for support made to the surviving spouse, 36310
minor children, or both under section 2106.13 of the Revised Code;36311

       (4) Debts entitled to a preference under the laws of the 36312
United States;36313

       (5) Expenses of the last sickness of the decedent;36314

       (6) If the total bill of a funeral director for funeral 36315
expenses exceeds four thousand dollars, then, in addition to the 36316
amount described in division (A)(2) of this section, an amount, 36317
not exceeding two thousand dollars, for funeral expenses that are 36318
included in the bill and that exceed four thousand dollars;36319

       (7) Expenses of the decedent's last continuous stay in a 36320
nursing home as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code, 36321
residential facility as defined in section 5123.19 of the Revised 36322
Code, or hospital long-term care unit as defined in section 36323
3721.505168.40 of the Revised Code.36324

       For purposes of division (A)(7) of this section, a decedent's 36325
last continuancecontinuous stay includes up to thirty consecutive 36326
days during which the decedent was temporarily absent from the 36327
nursing home, residential facility, or hospital long-term care 36328
unit.36329

       (8) Personal property taxes, claims made under the medicaid 36330
estate recovery program instituted pursuant to section 5111.1136331
5162.21 of the Revised Code, and obligations for which the 36332
decedent was personally liable to the state or any of its 36333
subdivisions;36334

       (9) Debts for manual labor performed for the decedent within 36335
twelve months preceding the decedent's death, not exceeding three 36336
hundred dollars to any one person;36337

       (10) Other debts for which claims have been presented and 36338
finally allowed.36339

       (B) The part of the bill of a funeral director that exceeds 36340
the total of six thousand dollars as described in divisions (A)(2) 36341
and (6) of this section, and the part of a claim included in 36342
division (A)(9) of this section that exceeds three hundred dollars 36343
shall be included as a debt under division (A)(10) of this 36344
section, depending upon the time when the claim for the additional 36345
amount is presented.36346

       (C) Any natural person or fiduciary who pays a claim of any 36347
creditor described in division (A) of this section shall be 36348
subrogated to the rights of that creditor proportionate to the 36349
amount of the payment and shall be entitled to reimbursement for 36350
that amount in accordance with the priority of payments set forth 36351
in that division.36352

       (D)(1) Chapters 2113. to 2125. of the Revised Code, relating 36353
to the manner in which and the time within which claims shall be 36354
presented, shall apply to claims set forth in divisions (A)(2), 36355
(6), and (9) of this section. Claims for an expense of 36356
administration or for the allowance for support need not be 36357
presented. The executor or administrator shall pay debts included 36358
in divisions (A)(4) and (8) of this section, of which the executor 36359
or administrator has knowledge, regardless of presentation.36360

       (2) The giving of written notice to an executor or 36361
administrator of a motion or application to revive an action 36362
pending against the decedent at the date of death shall be 36363
equivalent to the presentation of a claim to the executor or 36364
administrator for the purpose of determining the order of payment 36365
of any judgment rendered or decree entered in such an action.36366

       (E) No payments shall be made to creditors of one class until 36367
all those of the preceding class are fully paid or provided for. 36368
If the assets are insufficient to pay all the claims of one class, 36369
the creditors of that class shall be paid ratably.36370

       (F) If it appears at any time that the assets have been 36371
exhausted in paying prior or preferred charges, allowances, or 36372
claims, those payments shall be a bar to an action on any claim 36373
not entitled to that priority or preference.36374

       Sec. 2133.01.  Unless the context otherwise requires, as used 36375
in sections 2133.01 to 2133.15 of the Revised Code:36376

       (A) "Adult" means an individual who is eighteen years of age 36377
or older.36378

       (B) "Attending physician" means the physician to whom a 36379
declarant or other patient, or the family of a declarant or other 36380
patient, has assigned primary responsibility for the treatment or 36381
care of the declarant or other patient, or, if the responsibility 36382
has not been assigned, the physician who has accepted that 36383
responsibility.36384

       (C) "Comfort care" means any of the following:36385

       (1) Nutrition when administered to diminish the pain or 36386
discomfort of a declarant or other patient, but not to postpone 36387
the declarant's or other patient's death;36388

       (2) Hydration when administered to diminish the pain or 36389
discomfort of a declarant or other patient, but not to postpone 36390
the declarant's or other patient's death;36391

       (3) Any other medical or nursing procedure, treatment, 36392
intervention, or other measure that is taken to diminish the pain 36393
or discomfort of a declarant or other patient, but not to postpone 36394
the declarant's or other patient's death.36395

       (D) "Consulting physician" means a physician who, in 36396
conjunction with the attending physician of a declarant or other 36397
patient, makes one or more determinations that are required to be 36398
made by the attending physician, or to be made by the attending 36399
physician and one other physician, by an applicable provision of 36400
this chapter, to a reasonable degree of medical certainty and in 36401
accordance with reasonable medical standards.36402

       (E) "Declarant" means any adult who has executed a 36403
declaration in accordance with section 2133.02 of the Revised 36404
Code.36405

       (F) "Declaration" means a written document executed in 36406
accordance with section 2133.02 of the Revised Code.36407

       (G) "Durable power of attorney for health care" means a 36408
document created pursuant to sections 1337.11 to 1337.17 of the 36409
Revised Code.36410

       (H) "Guardian" means a person appointed by a probate court 36411
pursuant to Chapter 2111. of the Revised Code to have the care and 36412
management of the person of an incompetent.36413

       (I) "Health care facility" means any of the following:36414

       (1) A hospital;36415

       (2) A hospice care program, pediatric respite care program, 36416
or other institution that specializes in comfort care of patients 36417
in a terminal condition or in a permanently unconscious state;36418

       (3) A nursing home or residential care facility, as defined 36419
in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;36420

       (4) A home health agency and any residential facility where a 36421
person is receiving care under the direction of a home health 36422
agency;36423

       (5) An intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded36424
individuals with intellectual disabilities.36425

       (J) "Health care personnel" means physicians, nurses, 36426
physician assistants, emergency medical technicians-basic, 36427
emergency medical technicians-intermediate, emergency medical 36428
technicians-paramedic, medical technicians, dietitians, other 36429
authorized persons acting under the direction of an attending 36430
physician, and administrators of health care facilities.36431

       (K) "Home health agency" has the same meaning as in section 36432
3701.881 of the Revised Code.36433

       (L) "Hospice care program" and "pediatric respite care 36434
program" have the same meanings as in section 3712.01 of the 36435
Revised Code.36436

       (M) "Hospital" has the same meanings as in sections 3701.01, 36437
3727.01, and 5122.01 of the Revised Code.36438

       (N) "Hydration" means fluids that are artificially or 36439
technologically administered.36440

       (O) "Incompetent" has the same meaning as in section 2111.01 36441
of the Revised Code.36442

       (P) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded36443
individuals with intellectual disabilities" has the same meaning 36444
as in section 5111.205124.01 of the Revised Code.36445

       (Q) "Life-sustaining treatment" means any medical procedure, 36446
treatment, intervention, or other measure that, when administered 36447
to a qualified patient or other patient, will serve principally to 36448
prolong the process of dying.36449

       (R) "Nurse" means a person who is licensed to practice 36450
nursing as a registered nurse or to practice practical nursing as 36451
a licensed practical nurse pursuant to Chapter 4723. of the 36452
Revised Code.36453

       (S) "Nursing home" has the same meaning as in section 3721.01 36454
of the Revised Code.36455

       (T) "Nutrition" means sustenance that is artificially or 36456
technologically administered.36457

       (U) "Permanently unconscious state" means a state of 36458
permanent unconsciousness in a declarant or other patient that, to 36459
a reasonable degree of medical certainty as determined in 36460
accordance with reasonable medical standards by the declarant's or 36461
other patient's attending physician and one other physician who 36462
has examined the declarant or other patient, is characterized by 36463
both of the following:36464

       (1) Irreversible unawareness of one's being and environment.36465

       (2) Total loss of cerebral cortical functioning, resulting in 36466
the declarant or other patient having no capacity to experience 36467
pain or suffering.36468

       (V) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 1.59 of the 36469
Revised Code and additionally includes political subdivisions and 36470
governmental agencies, boards, commissions, departments, 36471
institutions, offices, and other instrumentalities.36472

       (W) "Physician" means a person who is authorized under 36473
Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery 36474
or osteopathic medicine and surgery.36475

       (X) "Political subdivision" and "state" have the same 36476
meanings as in section 2744.01 of the Revised Code.36477

       (Y) "Professional disciplinary action" means action taken by 36478
the board or other entity that regulates the professional conduct 36479
of health care personnel, including the state medical board and 36480
the board of nursing.36481

       (Z) "Qualified patient" means an adult who has executed a 36482
declaration and has been determined to be in a terminal condition 36483
or in a permanently unconscious state.36484

       (AA) "Terminal condition" means an irreversible, incurable, 36485
and untreatable condition caused by disease, illness, or injury 36486
from which, to a reasonable degree of medical certainty as 36487
determined in accordance with reasonable medical standards by a 36488
declarant's or other patient's attending physician and one other 36489
physician who has examined the declarant or other patient, both of 36490
the following apply:36491

       (1) There can be no recovery.36492

       (2) Death is likely to occur within a relatively short time 36493
if life-sustaining treatment is not administered.36494

       (BB) "Tort action" means a civil action for damages for 36495
injury, death, or loss to person or property, other than a civil 36496
action for damages for breach of a contract or another agreement 36497
between persons.36498

       Sec. 2133.25.  (A) The department of health, by rule adopted 36499
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt a 36500
standardized method of procedure for the withholding of CPR by 36501
physicians, emergency medical services personnel, and health care 36502
facilities in accordance with sections 2133.21 to 2133.26 of the 36503
Revised Code. The standardized method shall specify criteria for 36504
determining when a do-not-resuscitate order issued by a physician 36505
is current. The standardized method so adopted shall be the 36506
"do-not-resuscitate protocol" for purposes of sections 2133.21 to 36507
2133.26 of the Revised Code. The department also shall approve one 36508
or more standard forms of DNR identification to be used throughout 36509
this state.36510

       (B) The department of health shall adopt rules in accordance 36511
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for the administration of 36512
sections 2133.21 to 2133.26 of the Revised Code.36513

       (C) The department of health shall appoint an advisory 36514
committee to advise the department in the development of rules 36515
under this section. The advisory committee shall include, but 36516
shall not be limited to, representatives of each of the following 36517
organizations:36518

       (1) The association for hospitals and health systems (OHA);36519

       (2) The Ohio state medical association;36520

       (3) The Ohio chapter of the American college of emergency 36521
physicians;36522

       (4) The Ohio hospice organization;36523

       (5) The Ohio council for home care;36524

       (6) The Ohio health care association;36525

       (7) The Ohio ambulance association;36526

       (8) The Ohio medical directors association;36527

       (9) The Ohio association of emergency medical services;36528

       (10) The bioethics network of Ohio;36529

       (11) The Ohio nurses association;36530

       (12) The Ohio academy of nursing homes;36531

       (13) The Ohio association of professional firefighters;36532

       (14) The department of developmental disabilities;36533

       (15) The Ohio osteopathic association;36534

       (16) The association of Ohio philanthropic homes, housing and 36535
services for the aging;36536

       (17) The catholic conference of Ohio;36537

       (18) The department of aging;36538

       (19) The department of mental healthmental health and 36539
addiction services;36540

       (20) The Ohio private residential association;36541

       (21) The northern Ohio fire fighters association.36542

       Sec. 2151.011.  (A) As used in the Revised Code:36543

       (1) "Juvenile court" means whichever of the following is 36544
applicable that has jurisdiction under this chapter and Chapter 36545
2152. of the Revised Code:36546

       (a) The division of the court of common pleas specified in 36547
section 2101.022 or 2301.03 of the Revised Code as having 36548
jurisdiction under this chapter and Chapter 2152. of the Revised 36549
Code or as being the juvenile division or the juvenile division 36550
combined with one or more other divisions;36551

       (b) The juvenile court of Cuyahoga county or Hamilton county 36552
that is separately and independently created by section 2151.08 or 36553
Chapter 2153. of the Revised Code and that has jurisdiction under 36554
this chapter and Chapter 2152. of the Revised Code;36555

       (c) If division (A)(1)(a) or (b) of this section does not 36556
apply, the probate division of the court of common pleas.36557

       (2) "Juvenile judge" means a judge of a court having 36558
jurisdiction under this chapter.36559

       (3) "Private child placing agency" means any association, as 36560
defined in section 5103.02 of the Revised Code, that is certified 36561
under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code to accept temporary, 36562
permanent, or legal custody of children and place the children for 36563
either foster care or adoption.36564

       (4) "Private noncustodial agency" means any person, 36565
organization, association, or society certified by the department 36566
of job and family services that does not accept temporary or 36567
permanent legal custody of children, that is privately operated in 36568
this state, and that does one or more of the following:36569

       (a) Receives and cares for children for two or more 36570
consecutive weeks;36571

       (b) Participates in the placement of children in certified 36572
foster homes;36573

       (c) Provides adoption services in conjunction with a public 36574
children services agency or private child placing agency.36575

       (B) As used in this chapter:36576

       (1) "Adequate parental care" means the provision by a child's 36577
parent or parents, guardian, or custodian of adequate food, 36578
clothing, and shelter to ensure the child's health and physical 36579
safety and the provision by a child's parent or parents of 36580
specialized services warranted by the child's physical or mental 36581
needs.36582

       (2) "Adult" means an individual who is eighteen years of age 36583
or older.36584

       (3) "Agreement for temporary custody" means a voluntary 36585
agreement authorized by section 5103.15 of the Revised Code that 36586
transfers the temporary custody of a child to a public children 36587
services agency or a private child placing agency.36588

       (4) "Alternative response" means the public children services 36589
agency's response to a report of child abuse or neglect that 36590
engages the family in a comprehensive evaluation of child safety, 36591
risk of subsequent harm, and family strengths and needs and that 36592
does not include a determination as to whether child abuse or 36593
neglect occurred.36594

       (5) "Certified foster home" means a foster home, as defined 36595
in section 5103.02 of the Revised Code, certified under section 36596
5103.03 of the Revised Code.36597

       (6) "Child" means a person who is under eighteen years of 36598
age, except that the juvenile court has jurisdiction over any 36599
person who is adjudicated an unruly child prior to attaining 36600
eighteen years of age until the person attains twenty-one years of 36601
age, and, for purposes of that jurisdiction related to that 36602
adjudication, a person who is so adjudicated an unruly child shall 36603
be deemed a "child" until the person attains twenty-one years of 36604
age.36605

       (7) "Child day camp," "child care," "child day-care center," 36606
"part-time child day-care center," "type A family day-care home," 36607
"certified type B family day-care home," "type B home," 36608
"administrator of a child day-care center," "administrator of a 36609
type A family day-care home," "in-home aide," and "authorized 36610
provider" have the same meanings as in section 5104.01 of the 36611
Revised Code.36612

       (8) "Child care provider" means an individual who is a 36613
child-care staff member or administrator of a child day-care 36614
center, a type A family day-care home, or a type B family day-care 36615
home, or an in-home aide or an individual who is licensed, is 36616
regulated, is approved, operates under the direction of, or 36617
otherwise is certified by the department of job and family 36618
services, department of developmental disabilities, or the early 36619
childhood programs of the department of education.36620

       (9) "Chronic truant" has the same meaning as in section 36621
2152.02 of the Revised Code.36622

       (10) "Commit" means to vest custody as ordered by the court.36623

       (11) "Counseling" includes both of the following:36624

       (a) General counseling services performed by a public 36625
children services agency or shelter for victims of domestic 36626
violence to assist a child, a child's parents, and a child's 36627
siblings in alleviating identified problems that may cause or have 36628
caused the child to be an abused, neglected, or dependent child.36629

       (b) Psychiatric or psychological therapeutic counseling 36630
services provided to correct or alleviate any mental or emotional 36631
illness or disorder and performed by a licensed psychiatrist, 36632
licensed psychologist, or a person licensed under Chapter 4757. of 36633
the Revised Code to engage in social work or professional 36634
counseling.36635

       (12) "Custodian" means a person who has legal custody of a 36636
child or a public children services agency or private child 36637
placing agency that has permanent, temporary, or legal custody of 36638
a child.36639

       (13) "Delinquent child" has the same meaning as in section 36640
2152.02 of the Revised Code.36641

       (14) "Detention" means the temporary care of children pending 36642
court adjudication or disposition, or execution of a court order, 36643
in a public or private facility designed to physically restrict 36644
the movement and activities of children.36645

       (15) "Developmental disability" has the same meaning as in 36646
section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.36647

       (16) "Differential response approach" means an approach that 36648
a public children services agency may use to respond to accepted 36649
reports of child abuse or neglect with either an alternative 36650
response or a traditional response.36651

       (17) "Foster caregiver" has the same meaning as in section 36652
5103.02 of the Revised Code.36653

       (18) "Guardian" means a person, association, or corporation 36654
that is granted authority by a probate court pursuant to Chapter 36655
2111. of the Revised Code to exercise parental rights over a child 36656
to the extent provided in the court's order and subject to the 36657
residual parental rights of the child's parents.36658

       (19) "Habitual truant" means any child of compulsory school 36659
age who is absent without legitimate excuse for absence from the 36660
public school the child is supposed to attend for five or more 36661
consecutive school days, seven or more school days in one school 36662
month, or twelve or more school days in a school year.36663

       (20) "Juvenile traffic offender" has the same meaning as in 36664
section 2152.02 of the Revised Code.36665

       (21) "Legal custody" means a legal status that vests in the 36666
custodian the right to have physical care and control of the child 36667
and to determine where and with whom the child shall live, and the 36668
right and duty to protect, train, and discipline the child and to 36669
provide the child with food, shelter, education, and medical care, 36670
all subject to any residual parental rights, privileges, and 36671
responsibilities. An individual granted legal custody shall 36672
exercise the rights and responsibilities personally unless 36673
otherwise authorized by any section of the Revised Code or by the 36674
court.36675

       (22) A "legitimate excuse for absence from the public school 36676
the child is supposed to attend" includes, but is not limited to, 36677
any of the following:36678

       (a) The fact that the child in question has enrolled in and 36679
is attending another public or nonpublic school in this or another 36680
state;36681

       (b) The fact that the child in question is excused from 36682
attendance at school for any of the reasons specified in section 36683
3321.04 of the Revised Code;36684

       (c) The fact that the child in question has received an age 36685
and schooling certificate in accordance with section 3331.01 of 36686
the Revised Code.36687

       (23) "Mental illness" and "mentally ill person subject to 36688
hospitalization by court order" have the same meanings as in 36689
section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.36690

       (24) "Mental injury" means any behavioral, cognitive, 36691
emotional, or mental disorder in a child caused by an act or 36692
omission that is described in section 2919.22 of the Revised Code 36693
and is committed by the parent or other person responsible for the 36694
child's care.36695

       (25) "Mentally retarded person" has the same meaning as in 36696
section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.36697

       (26) "Nonsecure care, supervision, or training" means care, 36698
supervision, or training of a child in a facility that does not 36699
confine or prevent movement of the child within the facility or 36700
from the facility.36701

       (27) "Of compulsory school age" has the same meaning as in 36702
section 3321.01 of the Revised Code.36703

       (28) "Organization" means any institution, public, 36704
semipublic, or private, and any private association, society, or 36705
agency located or operating in the state, incorporated or 36706
unincorporated, having among its functions the furnishing of 36707
protective services or care for children, or the placement of 36708
children in certified foster homes or elsewhere.36709

       (29) "Out-of-home care" means detention facilities, shelter 36710
facilities, certified children's crisis care facilities, certified 36711
foster homes, placement in a prospective adoptive home prior to 36712
the issuance of a final decree of adoption, organizations, 36713
certified organizations, child day-care centers, type A family 36714
day-care homes, child care provided by type B family day-care home 36715
providers and by in-home aides, group home providers, group homes, 36716
institutions, state institutions, residential facilities, 36717
residential care facilities, residential camps, day camps, public 36718
schools, chartered nonpublic schools, educational service centers, 36719
hospitals, and medical clinics that are responsible for the care, 36720
physical custody, or control of children.36721

       (30) "Out-of-home care child abuse" means any of the 36722
following when committed by a person responsible for the care of a 36723
child in out-of-home care:36724

       (a) Engaging in sexual activity with a child in the person's 36725
care;36726

       (b) Denial to a child, as a means of punishment, of proper or 36727
necessary subsistence, education, medical care, or other care 36728
necessary for a child's health;36729

       (c) Use of restraint procedures on a child that cause injury 36730
or pain;36731

       (d) Administration of prescription drugs or psychotropic 36732
medication to the child without the written approval and ongoing 36733
supervision of a licensed physician;36734

       (e) Commission of any act, other than by accidental means, 36735
that results in any injury to or death of the child in out-of-home 36736
care or commission of any act by accidental means that results in 36737
an injury to or death of a child in out-of-home care and that is 36738
at variance with the history given of the injury or death.36739

       (31) "Out-of-home care child neglect" means any of the 36740
following when committed by a person responsible for the care of a 36741
child in out-of-home care:36742

       (a) Failure to provide reasonable supervision according to 36743
the standards of care appropriate to the age, mental and physical 36744
condition, or other special needs of the child;36745

       (b) Failure to provide reasonable supervision according to 36746
the standards of care appropriate to the age, mental and physical 36747
condition, or other special needs of the child, that results in 36748
sexual or physical abuse of the child by any person;36749

       (c) Failure to develop a process for all of the following:36750

       (i) Administration of prescription drugs or psychotropic 36751
drugs for the child;36752

       (ii) Assuring that the instructions of the licensed physician 36753
who prescribed a drug for the child are followed;36754

       (iii) Reporting to the licensed physician who prescribed the 36755
drug all unfavorable or dangerous side effects from the use of the 36756
drug.36757

       (d) Failure to provide proper or necessary subsistence, 36758
education, medical care, or other individualized care necessary 36759
for the health or well-being of the child;36760

       (e) Confinement of the child to a locked room without 36761
monitoring by staff;36762

       (f) Failure to provide ongoing security for all prescription 36763
and nonprescription medication;36764

       (g) Isolation of a child for a period of time when there is 36765
substantial risk that the isolation, if continued, will impair or 36766
retard the mental health or physical well-being of the child.36767

       (32) "Permanent custody" means a legal status that vests in a 36768
public children services agency or a private child placing agency, 36769
all parental rights, duties, and obligations, including the right 36770
to consent to adoption, and divests the natural parents or 36771
adoptive parents of all parental rights, privileges, and 36772
obligations, including all residual rights and obligations.36773

       (33) "Permanent surrender" means the act of the parents or, 36774
if a child has only one parent, of the parent of a child, by a 36775
voluntary agreement authorized by section 5103.15 of the Revised 36776
Code, to transfer the permanent custody of the child to a public 36777
children services agency or a private child placing agency.36778

       (34) "Person" means an individual, association, corporation, 36779
or partnership and the state or any of its political subdivisions, 36780
departments, or agencies.36781

       (35) "Person responsible for a child's care in out-of-home 36782
care" means any of the following:36783

       (a) Any foster caregiver, in-home aide, or provider;36784

       (b) Any administrator, employee, or agent of any of the 36785
following: a public or private detention facility; shelter 36786
facility; certified children's crisis care facility; organization; 36787
certified organization; child day-care center; type A family 36788
day-care home; certified type B family day-care home; group home; 36789
institution; state institution; residential facility; residential 36790
care facility; residential camp; day camp; school district; 36791
community school; chartered nonpublic school; educational service 36792
center; hospital; or medical clinic;36793

       (c) Any person who supervises or coaches children as part of 36794
an extracurricular activity sponsored by a school district, public 36795
school, or chartered nonpublic school;36796

       (d) Any other person who performs a similar function with 36797
respect to, or has a similar relationship to, children.36798

       (36) "Physically impaired" means having one or more of the 36799
following conditions that substantially limit one or more of an 36800
individual's major life activities, including self-care, receptive 36801
and expressive language, learning, mobility, and self-direction:36802

       (a) A substantial impairment of vision, speech, or hearing;36803

       (b) A congenital orthopedic impairment;36804

       (c) An orthopedic impairment caused by disease, rheumatic 36805
fever or any other similar chronic or acute health problem, or 36806
amputation or another similar cause.36807

       (37) "Placement for adoption" means the arrangement by a 36808
public children services agency or a private child placing agency 36809
with a person for the care and adoption by that person of a child 36810
of whom the agency has permanent custody.36811

       (38) "Placement in foster care" means the arrangement by a 36812
public children services agency or a private child placing agency 36813
for the out-of-home care of a child of whom the agency has 36814
temporary custody or permanent custody.36815

       (39) "Planned permanent living arrangement" means an order of 36816
a juvenile court pursuant to which both of the following apply:36817

       (a) The court gives legal custody of a child to a public 36818
children services agency or a private child placing agency without 36819
the termination of parental rights.36820

       (b) The order permits the agency to make an appropriate 36821
placement of the child and to enter into a written agreement with 36822
a foster care provider or with another person or agency with whom 36823
the child is placed.36824

       (40) "Practice of social work" and "practice of professional 36825
counseling" have the same meanings as in section 4757.01 of the 36826
Revised Code.36827

       (41) "Sanction, service, or condition" means a sanction, 36828
service, or condition created by court order following an 36829
adjudication that a child is an unruly child that is described in 36830
division (A)(4) of section 2152.19 of the Revised Code.36831

       (42) "Protective supervision" means an order of disposition 36832
pursuant to which the court permits an abused, neglected, 36833
dependent, or unruly child to remain in the custody of the child's 36834
parents, guardian, or custodian and stay in the child's home, 36835
subject to any conditions and limitations upon the child, the 36836
child's parents, guardian, or custodian, or any other person that 36837
the court prescribes, including supervision as directed by the 36838
court for the protection of the child.36839

       (43) "Psychiatrist" has the same meaning as in section 36840
5122.01 of the Revised Code.36841

       (44) "Psychologist" has the same meaning as in section 36842
4732.01 of the Revised Code.36843

       (45) "Residential camp" means a program in which the care, 36844
physical custody, or control of children is accepted overnight for 36845
recreational or recreational and educational purposes.36846

       (46) "Residential care facility" means an institution, 36847
residence, or facility that is licensed by the department of 36848
mental healthmental health and addiction services under section 36849
5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code and that provides care for a 36850
child.36851

       (47) "Residential facility" means a home or facility that is 36852
licensed by the department of developmental disabilities under 36853
section 5123.19 of the Revised Code and in which a child with a 36854
developmental disability resides.36855

       (48) "Residual parental rights, privileges, and 36856
responsibilities" means those rights, privileges, and 36857
responsibilities remaining with the natural parent after the 36858
transfer of legal custody of the child, including, but not 36859
necessarily limited to, the privilege of reasonable visitation, 36860
consent to adoption, the privilege to determine the child's 36861
religious affiliation, and the responsibility for support.36862

       (49) "School day" means the school day established by the 36863
state board of education pursuant to section 3313.48 of the 36864
Revised Code.36865

       (50) "School month" and "school year" have the same meanings 36866
as in section 3313.62 of the Revised Code.36867

       (51) "Secure correctional facility" means a facility under 36868
the direction of the department of youth services that is designed 36869
to physically restrict the movement and activities of children and 36870
used for the placement of children after adjudication and 36871
disposition.36872

       (52) "Sexual activity" has the same meaning as in section 36873
2907.01 of the Revised Code.36874

       (53) "Shelter" means the temporary care of children in 36875
physically unrestricted facilities pending court adjudication or 36876
disposition.36877

       (54) "Shelter for victims of domestic violence" has the same 36878
meaning as in section 3113.33 of the Revised Code.36879

       (55) "Temporary custody" means legal custody of a child who 36880
is removed from the child's home, which custody may be terminated 36881
at any time at the discretion of the court or, if the legal 36882
custody is granted in an agreement for temporary custody, by the 36883
person who executed the agreement.36884

       (56) "Traditional response" means a public children services 36885
agency's response to a report of child abuse or neglect that 36886
encourages engagement of the family in a comprehensive evaluation 36887
of the child's current and future safety needs and a fact-finding 36888
process to determine whether child abuse or neglect occurred and 36889
the circumstances surrounding the alleged harm or risk of harm.36890

       (C) For the purposes of this chapter, a child shall be 36891
presumed abandoned when the parents of the child have failed to 36892
visit or maintain contact with the child for more than ninety 36893
days, regardless of whether the parents resume contact with the 36894
child after that period of ninety days.36895

       Sec. 2151.3514.  (A) As used in this section:36896

       (1) "Alcohol and drugCommunity addiction programservices 36897
provider" has the same meaning as in section 3793.015119.01 of 36898
the Revised Code;36899

       (2) "Chemical dependency" means either of the following:36900

       (a) The chronic and habitual use of alcoholic beverages to 36901
the extent that the user no longer can control the use of alcohol 36902
or endangers the user's health, safety, or welfare or that of 36903
others;36904

       (b) The use of a drug of abuse to the extent that the user 36905
becomes physically or psychologically dependent on the drug or 36906
endangers the user's health, safety, or welfare or that of others.36907

       (3) "Drug of abuse" has the same meaning as in section 36908
3719.011 of the Revised Code.36909

       (4) "Medicaid" means the program established under Chapter 36910
5111. of the Revised Code.36911

       (B) If the juvenile court issues an order of temporary 36912
custody or protective supervision under division (A) of section 36913
2151.353 of the Revised Code with respect to a child adjudicated 36914
to be an abused, neglected, or dependent child and the alcohol or 36915
other drug addiction of a parent or other caregiver of the child 36916
was the basis for the adjudication of abuse, neglect, or 36917
dependency, the court shall issue an order requiring the parent or 36918
other caregiver to submit to an assessment and, if needed, 36919
treatment from an alcohol and druga community addiction program36920
services provider certified by the department of alcohol and drug 36921
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services. The court 36922
may order the parent or other caregiver to submit to alcohol or 36923
other drug testing during, after, or both during and after, the 36924
treatment. The court shall send any order issued pursuant to this 36925
division to the public children services agency that serves the 36926
county in which the court is located for use as described in 36927
section 340.15 of the Revised Code.36928

       (C) Any order requiring alcohol or other drug testing that is 36929
issued pursuant to division (B) of this section shall require one 36930
alcohol or other drug test to be conducted each month during a 36931
period of twelve consecutive months beginning the month 36932
immediately following the month in which the order for alcohol or 36933
other drug testing is issued. Arrangements for administering the 36934
alcohol or other drug tests, as well as funding the costs of the 36935
tests, shall be locally determined in accordance with sections 36936
340.033340.03 and 340.15 of the Revised Code. If a parent or 36937
other caregiver required to submit to alcohol or other drug tests 36938
under this section is not a recipient of medicaid, the agency that 36939
refers the parent or caregiver for the tests may require the 36940
parent or caregiver to reimburse the agency for the cost of 36941
conducting the tests.36942

       (D) The certified alcohol and drugcommunity addiction 36943
programservices provider that conducts any alcohol or other drug 36944
tests ordered in accordance with divisions (B) and (C) of this 36945
section shall send the results of the tests, along with the 36946
program'sprovider's recommendations as to the benefits of 36947
continued treatment, to the court and to the public children 36948
services agency providing services to the involved family, 36949
according to federal regulations set forth in 42 C.F.R. Part 2, 36950
and division (B) of section 340.15 of the Revised Code. The court 36951
shall consider the results and the recommendations sent to it 36952
under this division in any adjudication or review by the court, 36953
according to section 2151.353, 2151.414, or 2151.419 of the 36954
Revised Code.36955

       Sec. 2151.362. (A)(1) In the manner prescribed by division 36956
(C)(1) or (2) of section 3313.64 of the Revised Code, as 36957
applicable, the court, at the time of making any order that 36958
removes a child from the child's own home or that vests legal or 36959
permanent custody of the child in a person other than the child's 36960
parent or a government agency, shall determine the school district 36961
that is to bear the cost of educating the child. The court shall 36962
make the determination a part of the order that provides for the 36963
child's placement or commitment. That school district shall bear 36964
the cost of educating the child unless and until the department of 36965
education determines that a different district shall be 36966
responsible for bearing that cost pursuant to division (A)(2) of 36967
this section. The court's order shall state that the determination 36968
of which school district is responsible to bear the cost of 36969
educating the child is subject to re-determination by the 36970
department pursuant to that division.36971

        (2) If, while the child is in the custody of a person other 36972
than the child's parent or a government agency, the department of 36973
education determines that the place of residence of the child's 36974
parent has changed since the court issued its initial order, the 36975
department may name a different school district to bear the cost 36976
of educating the child. The department shall make this new 36977
determination, and any future determinations, based on evidence 36978
received from the school district currently responsible to bear 36979
the cost of educating the child. If the department finds that the 36980
evidence demonstrates to its satisfaction that the residence of 36981
the child's parent has changed since the court issued its initial 36982
order under division (A)(1) of this section, or since the 36983
department last made a determination under division (A)(2) of this 36984
section, the department shall name the district in which the 36985
child's parent currently resides or, if the parent's residence is 36986
not known, the district in which the parent's last known residence 36987
is located. If the department cannot determine any Ohio district 36988
in which the parent currently resides or has resided, the school 36989
district designated in the initial court order under division 36990
(A)(1) of this section, or in the most recent determination made 36991
by the department under division (A)(2) of this section, shall 36992
continue to bear the cost of educating the child.36993

       (B) Whenever a child is placed in a detention facility 36994
established under section 2152.41 of the Revised Code or a 36995
juvenile facility established under section 2151.65 of the Revised 36996
Code, the facility shall be responsible for coordinating the 36997
education of the child. The facility may take any of the following 36998
measures in coordinating the education of the child:36999

        (1) If applicable, use the chartered nonpublic school that 37000
the facility operates;37001

        (2) Arrange with the school district responsible for bearing 37002
the cost of educating the child determined under division (A) of 37003
this section, for the facility to educate the child on its own;37004

        (3) Contract with an educational service center for the 37005
service center to educate the child;37006

        (4) Contract with the school district in which the facility 37007
is located for that school district to educate the child;37008

       (5) If the child is enrolled in an internet- or 37009
computer-based community school established under Chapter 3314. of 37010
the Revised Code, and provided that the facility possesses the 37011
necessary hardware, software, and internet connectivity, permit 37012
continued instruction of the child by the internet- or 37013
computer-based community school. 37014

       If the facility coordinates the education of the child 37015
pursuant to division (B)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of this section,37016
child's school district as determined by the court or the 37017
department, in the same manner as prescribed in division (A) of 37018
this section, shall pay the cost of educating the child based on 37019
the per capita cost of the educational facility within the 37020
detention home or juvenile facility.37021

       If the facility coordinates the education of the child 37022
pursuant to division (B)(5) of this section, payment for the cost 37023
of educating the child shall be made only as provided in division 37024
(C) of section 3314.08 of the Revised Code.37025

       (C) Whenever a child is placed by the court in a private 37026
institution, school, or residential treatment center or any other 37027
private facility, the state shall pay to the court a subsidy to 37028
help defray the expense of educating the child in an amount equal 37029
to the product of the daily per capita educational cost of the 37030
private facility, as determined pursuant to this section, and the 37031
number of days the child resides at the private facility, provided 37032
that the subsidy shall not exceed twenty-five hundred dollars per 37033
year per child. The daily per capita educational cost of a private 37034
facility shall be determined by dividing the actual program cost 37035
of the private facility or twenty-five hundred dollars, whichever 37036
is less, by three hundred sixty-five days or by three hundred 37037
sixty-six days for years that include February twenty-ninth. The 37038
state shall pay seventy-five per cent of the total subsidy for 37039
each year quarterly to the court. The state may adjust the 37040
remaining twenty-five per cent of the total subsidy to be paid to 37041
the court for each year to an amount that is less than twenty-five 37042
per cent of the total subsidy for that year based upon the 37043
availability of funds appropriated to the department of education 37044
for the purpose of subsidizing courts that place a child in a 37045
private institution, school, or residential treatment center or 37046
any other private facility and shall pay that adjusted amount to 37047
the court at the end of the year.37048

       Sec. 2151.83.  (A) A public children services agency or 37049
private child placing agency, on the request of a young adult, 37050
shall enter into a jointly prepared written agreement with the 37051
young adult that obligates the agency to ensure that independent 37052
living services are provided to the young adult and sets forth the 37053
responsibilities of the young adult regarding the services. The 37054
agreement shall be developed based on the young adult's strengths, 37055
needs, and circumstances. The agreement shall be designed to 37056
promote the young adult's successful transition to independent 37057
adult living and emotional and economic self-sufficiency.37058

       (B) If the young adult appears to be eligible for services 37059
from one or more of the following entities, the agency must 37060
contact the appropriate entity to determine eligibility:37061

       (1) An entity, other than the agency, that is represented on 37062
a county family and children first council established pursuant to 37063
section 121.37 of the Revised Code. If the entity is a board of 37064
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, an alcohol 37065
and drug addiction services board, or a community mental health 37066
board, the agency shall contact the provider of alcohol, drug 37067
addiction, or mental health services that has been designated by 37068
the board to determine the young adult's eligibility for services.37069

       (2) The rehabilitation services commissionopportunities for 37070
Ohioans with disabilities agency;37071

       (3) A metropolitan housing authority established pursuant to 37072
section 3735.27 of the Revised Code.37073

       If an entity described in this division determines that the 37074
young adult qualifies for services from the entity, that entity, 37075
the young adult, and the agency to which the young adult made the 37076
request for independent living services shall enter into a written 37077
addendum to the jointly prepared agreement entered into under 37078
division (A) of this section. The addendum shall indicate how 37079
services under the agreement and addendum are to be coordinated 37080
and allocate the service responsibilities among the entities and 37081
agency that signed the addendum.37082

       Sec. 2151.86.  (A)(1) The appointing or hiring officer of any 37083
entity that appoints or employs any person responsible for a 37084
child's care in out-of-home care shall request the superintendent 37085
of BCII to conduct a criminal records check with respect to any 37086
person who is under final consideration for appointment or 37087
employment as a person responsible for a child's care in 37088
out-of-home care, except that section 3319.39 of the Revised Code 37089
shall apply instead of this section if the out-of-home care entity 37090
is a public school, educational service center, or chartered 37091
nonpublic school.37092

       (2) At the times specified in this division, the 37093
administrative director of an agency, or attorney, who arranges an 37094
adoption for a prospective adoptive parent shall request the 37095
superintendent of BCII to conduct a criminal records check with 37096
respect to that prospective adoptive parent and a criminal records 37097
check with respect to all persons eighteen years of age or older 37098
who reside with the prospective adoptive parent. The 37099
administrative director or attorney shall request a criminal 37100
records check pursuant to this division at the time of the initial 37101
home study, every four years after the initial home study at the 37102
time of an update, and at the time that an adoptive home study is 37103
completed as a new home study.37104

       (3) Before a recommending agency submits a recommendation to 37105
the department of job and family services on whether the 37106
department should issue a certificate to a foster home under 37107
section 5103.03 of the Revised Code, and every four years 37108
thereafter prior to a recertification under that section, the 37109
administrative director of the agency shall request that the 37110
superintendent of BCII conduct a criminal records check with 37111
respect to the prospective foster caregiver and a criminal records 37112
check with respect to all other persons eighteen years of age or 37113
older who reside with the foster caregiver.37114

       (B)(1) If a person subject to a criminal records check under 37115
division (A)(1) of this section does not present proof that the 37116
person has been a resident of this state for the five-year period 37117
immediately prior to the date upon which the criminal records 37118
check is requested or does not provide evidence that within that 37119
five-year period the superintendent of BCII has requested 37120
information about the person from the federal bureau of 37121
investigation in a criminal records check, the appointing or 37122
hiring officer shall request that the superintendent of BCII 37123
obtain information from the federal bureau of investigation as a 37124
part of the criminal records check, including fingerprint-based 37125
checks of national crime information databases as described in 42 37126
U.S.C. 671. If a person subject to a criminal records check under 37127
division (A)(1) of this section presents proof that the person has 37128
been a resident of this state for that five-year period, the 37129
appointing or hiring officer or attorney may request that the 37130
superintendent of BCII include information from the federal bureau 37131
of investigation in the criminal records check, including 37132
fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases 37133
as described in 42 U.S.C. 671.37134

       When the administrative director of an agency, or attorney, 37135
who arranges an adoption for a prospective parent requests, at the 37136
time of the initial home study, a criminal records check for a 37137
person pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section, the 37138
administrative director or attorney shall request that the 37139
superintendent of BCII obtain information from the federal bureau 37140
of investigation as part of the criminal records check, including 37141
fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases 37142
as described in 42 U.S.C. 671, for the person subject to the 37143
criminal records check. In all other cases in which the 37144
administrative director of an agency, or attorney, who arranges an 37145
adoption for a prospective parent requests a criminal records 37146
check for a person pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section, 37147
the administrative director or attorney may request that the 37148
superintendent of BCII include information from the federal bureau 37149
of investigation in the criminal records check, including 37150
fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases 37151
as described in 42 U.S.C. 671.37152

        When the administrative director of a recommending agency 37153
requests, before submitting a recommendation to the department of 37154
job and family services on whether the department should issue a 37155
certificate to a foster home under section 5103.03 of the Revised 37156
Code, a criminal records check for a person pursuant to division 37157
(A)(3) of this section, the administrative director shall request 37158
that the superintendent of BCII obtain information from the 37159
federal bureau of investigation as part of a criminal records 37160
check, including fingerprint-based checks of national crime 37161
information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 671, for the 37162
person subject to the criminal records check. In all other cases 37163
in which the administrative director of a recommending agency 37164
requests a criminal records check for a person pursuant to 37165
division (A)(3) of this section, the administrative director may 37166
request that the superintendent of BCII include information from 37167
the federal bureau of investigation in the criminal records check, 37168
including fingerprint-based checks of national crime information 37169
databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 671.37170

       Prior to a hearing on a final decree of adoption or 37171
interlocutory order of adoption by a probate court, the 37172
administrative director of an agency, or an attorney, who arranges 37173
an adoption for a prospective parent shall provide to the clerk of 37174
the probate court either of the following:37175

       (a) Any information received pursuant to a request made under 37176
this division from the superintendent of BCII or the federal 37177
bureau of investigation as part of the criminal records check, 37178
including fingerprint-based checks of national crime information 37179
databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 671, for the person subject to 37180
the criminal records check;37181

       (b) Written notification that the person subject to a 37182
criminal records check pursuant to this division failed upon 37183
request to provide the information necessary to complete the form 37184
or failed to provide impressions of the person's fingerprints as 37185
required under division (B)(2) of this section. 37186

       (2) An appointing or hiring officer, administrative director, 37187
or attorney required by division (A) of this section to request a 37188
criminal records check shall provide to each person subject to a 37189
criminal records check a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to 37190
division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a 37191
standard impression sheet to obtain fingerprint impressions 37192
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 109.572 of the 37193
Revised Code, obtain the completed form and impression sheet from 37194
the person, and forward the completed form and impression sheet to 37195
the superintendent of BCII at the time the criminal records check 37196
is requested.37197

       Any person subject to a criminal records check who receives 37198
pursuant to this division a copy of the form prescribed pursuant 37199
to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a 37200
copy of an impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) 37201
of that section and who is requested to complete the form and 37202
provide a set of fingerprint impressions shall complete the form 37203
or provide all the information necessary to complete the form and 37204
shall provide the impression sheet with the impressions of the 37205
person's fingerprints. If a person subject to a criminal records 37206
check, upon request, fails to provide the information necessary to 37207
complete the form or fails to provide impressions of the person's 37208
fingerprints, the appointing or hiring officer shall not appoint 37209
or employ the person as a person responsible for a child's care in 37210
out-of-home care, a probate court may not issue a final decree of 37211
adoption or an interlocutory order of adoption making the person 37212
an adoptive parent, and the department of job and family services 37213
shall not issue a certificate authorizing the prospective foster 37214
caregiver to operate a foster home.37215

       (C)(1) No appointing or hiring officer shall appoint or 37216
employ a person as a person responsible for a child's care in 37217
out-of-home care, the department of job and family services shall 37218
not issue a certificate under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code 37219
authorizing a prospective foster caregiver to operate a foster 37220
home, and no probate court shall issue a final decree of adoption 37221
or an interlocutory order of adoption making a person an adoptive 37222
parent if the person or, in the case of a prospective foster 37223
caregiver or prospective adoptive parent, any person eighteen 37224
years of age or older who resides with the prospective foster 37225
caregiver or prospective adoptive parent previously has been 37226
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the violations described 37227
in division (A)(4) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code, unless 37228
the person meets rehabilitation standards established in rules 37229
adopted under division (F) of this section.37230

       (2) The appointing or hiring officer may appoint or employ a 37231
person as a person responsible for a child's care in out-of-home 37232
care conditionally until the criminal records check required by 37233
this section is completed and the officer receives the results of 37234
the criminal records check. If the results of the criminal records 37235
check indicate that, pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, 37236
the person subject to the criminal records check does not qualify 37237
for appointment or employment, the officer shall release the 37238
person from appointment or employment.37239

       (3) Prior to certification or recertification under section 37240
5103.03 of the Revised Code, the prospective foster caregiver 37241
subject to a criminal records check under division (A)(3) of this 37242
section shall notify the recommending agency of the revocation of 37243
any foster home license, certificate, or other similar 37244
authorization in another state occurring within the five years 37245
prior to the date of application to become a foster caregiver in 37246
this state. The failure of a prospective foster caregiver to 37247
notify the recommending agency of any revocation of that type in 37248
another state that occurred within that five-year period shall be 37249
grounds for denial of the person's foster home application or the 37250
revocation of the person's foster home certification, whichever is 37251
applicable. If a person has had a revocation in another state 37252
within the five years prior to the date of the application, the 37253
department of job and family services shall not issue a foster 37254
home certificate to the prospective foster caregiver.37255

       (D) The appointing or hiring officer, administrative 37256
director, or attorney shall pay to the bureau of criminal 37257
identification and investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to 37258
division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each 37259
criminal records check conducted in accordance with that section 37260
upon a request pursuant to division (A) of this section. The 37261
officer, director, or attorney may charge the person subject to 37262
the criminal records check a fee for the costs the officer, 37263
director, or attorney incurs in obtaining the criminal records 37264
check. A fee charged under this division shall not exceed the 37265
amount of fees the officer, director, or attorney pays for the 37266
criminal records check. If a fee is charged under this division, 37267
the officer, director, or attorney shall notify the person who is 37268
the applicant at the time of the person's initial application for 37269
appointment or employment, an adoption to be arranged, or a 37270
certificate to operate a foster home of the amount of the fee and 37271
that, unless the fee is paid, the person who is the applicant will 37272
not be considered for appointment or employment or as an adoptive 37273
parent or foster caregiver.37274

       (E) The report of any criminal records check conducted by the 37275
bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance 37276
with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant to a request 37277
made under division (A) of this section is not a public record for 37278
the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not 37279
be made available to any person other than the following:37280

       (1) The person who is the subject of the criminal records 37281
check or the person's representative;37282

       (2) The appointing or hiring officer, administrative 37283
director, or attorney requesting the criminal records check or the 37284
officer's, director's, or attorney's representative;37285

       (3) The department of job and family services, a county 37286
department of job and family services, or a public children 37287
services agency;37288

       (4) Any court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 37289
involved in a case dealing with the denial of employment, a final 37290
decree of adoption or interlocutory order of adoption, or a foster 37291
home certificate.37292

       (F) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 37293
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement 37294
this section. The rules shall include rehabilitation standards a 37295
person who has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense 37296
listed in division (A)(4) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 37297
must meet for an appointing or hiring officer to appoint or employ 37298
the person as a person responsible for a child's care in 37299
out-of-home care, a probate court to issue a final decree of 37300
adoption or interlocutory order of adoption making the person an 37301
adoptive parent, or the department to issue a certificate 37302
authorizing the prospective foster caregiver to operate a foster 37303
home or not revoke a foster home certificate for a violation 37304
specified in section 5103.0328 of the Revised Code.37305

       (G) An appointing or hiring officer, administrative director, 37306
or attorney required by division (A) of this section to request a 37307
criminal records check shall inform each person who is the 37308
applicant, at the time of the person's initial application for 37309
appointment or employment, an adoption to be arranged, or a foster 37310
home certificate, that the person subject to the criminal records 37311
check is required to provide a set of impressions of the person's 37312
fingerprints and that a criminal records check is required to be 37313
conducted and satisfactorily completed in accordance with section 37314
109.572 of the Revised Code.37315

       (H) The department of job and family services may waive the 37316
requirement that a criminal records check based on fingerprints be 37317
conducted for an adult resident of a prospective adoptive or 37318
foster home or the home of a foster caregiver if the recommending 37319
agency documents to the department's satisfaction that the adult 37320
resident is physically unable to comply with the fingerprinting 37321
requirement and poses no danger to foster children or adoptive 37322
children who may be placed in the home. In such cases, the 37323
recommending or approving agency shall request that the bureau of 37324
criminal identification and investigation conduct a criminal 37325
records check using the person's name and social security number.37326

        (I) As used in this section:37327

       (1) "Children's hospital" means any of the following:37328

       (a) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the 37329
Revised Code that provides general pediatric medical and surgical 37330
care, and in which at least seventy-five per cent of annual 37331
inpatient discharges for the preceding two calendar years were 37332
individuals less than eighteen years of age;37333

       (b) A distinct portion of a hospital registered under section 37334
3701.07 of the Revised Code that provides general pediatric 37335
medical and surgical care, has a total of at least one hundred 37336
fifty registered pediatric special care and pediatric acute care 37337
beds, and in which at least seventy-five per cent of annual 37338
inpatient discharges for the preceding two calendar years were 37339
individuals less than eighteen years of age;37340

       (c) A distinct portion of a hospital, if the hospital is 37341
registered under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as a 37342
children's hospital and the children's hospital meets all the 37343
requirements of division (I)(H)(1)(a) of this section.37344

       (2) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 37345
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.37346

       (3) "Person responsible for a child's care in out-of-home 37347
care" has the same meaning as in section 2151.011 of the Revised 37348
Code, except that it does not include a prospective employee of 37349
the department of youth services or a person responsible for a 37350
child's care in a hospital or medical clinic other than a 37351
children's hospital.37352

       (4) "Person subject to a criminal records check" means the 37353
following:37354

       (a) A person who is under final consideration for appointment 37355
or employment as a person responsible for a child's care in 37356
out-of-home care;37357

       (b) A prospective adoptive parent;37358

       (c) A prospective foster caregiver;37359

       (d) A person eighteen years old or older who resides with a 37360
prospective foster caregiver or a prospective adoptive parent.37361

       (5) "Recommending agency" means a public children services 37362
agency, private child placing agency, or private noncustodial 37363
agency to which the department of job and family services has 37364
delegated a duty to inspect and approve foster homes.37365

       (6) "Superintendent of BCII" means the superintendent of the 37366
bureau of criminal identification and investigation.37367

       Sec. 2152.54.  (A) An evaluation of a child who does not 37368
appear to the court to be a person who is at least moderately 37369
intellectually disabled shall be made by an evaluator who is one 37370
of the following: 37371

       (1) A professional employed by a psychiatric facility or 37372
center certified by the department of mental healthmental health 37373
and addiction services to provide forensic services and appointed 37374
by the director of the facility or center to conduct the 37375
evaluation; 37376

       (2) A psychiatrist or a licensed clinical psychologist who 37377
satisfies the criteria of division (I)(1) of section 5122.01 of 37378
the Revised Code and has specialized education, training, or 37379
experience in forensic evaluations of children or adolescents.37380

       (B) An evaluation of a child who appears to the court to be a 37381
person who is at least moderately intellectually disabled shall be 37382
made by a psychiatrist or licensed clinical psychologist who 37383
satisfies the criteria of division (I)(1) of section 5122.01 of 37384
the Revised Code and has specialized education, training, or 37385
experience in forensic evaluations of children or adolescents who 37386
have intellectual disability.37387

       (C) If an evaluation is conducted by an evaluator of the type 37388
described in division (A)(1) or (2) of this section and the 37389
evaluator concludes that the child is a person who is at least 37390
moderately intellectually disabled, the evaluator shall 37391
discontinue the evaluation and notify the court within one 37392
business day after reaching the conclusion. Within two business 37393
days after receiving notification, the court shall order the child 37394
to undergo an evaluation by an evaluator of the type described in 37395
division (B) of this section. Within two business days after the 37396
appointment of the new evaluator, the original evaluator shall 37397
deliver to the new evaluator all information relating to the child 37398
obtained during the original evaluation. 37399

       Sec. 2152.59.  (A) If after a hearing held pursuant to 37400
section 2152.58 of the Revised Code the court determines that a 37401
child is competent, the court shall proceed with the delinquent 37402
child's proceeding as provided by law. No statement that a child 37403
makes during an evaluation or hearing conducted under sections 37404
2152.51 through 2152.59 of the Revised Code shall be used against 37405
the child on the issue of responsibility or guilt in any child or 37406
adult proceeding. 37407

       (B) If after a hearing held pursuant to section 2152.58 of 37408
the Revised Code the court determines that the child is not 37409
competent and cannot attain competency within the period of time 37410
applicable under division (D)(2) of this section, the court shall 37411
dismiss the charges without prejudice, except that the court may 37412
delay dismissal for up to ninety calendar days and do either of 37413
the following:37414

       (1) Refer the matter to a public children services agency and 37415
request that agency determine whether to file an action in 37416
accordance with section 2151.27 of the Revised Code alleging that 37417
the child is a dependent, neglected, or abused child;37418

       (2) Assign court staff to refer the child or the child's 37419
family to the local family and children first council or an agency 37420
funded by the department of mental healthmental health and 37421
addiction services or department of developmental disabilities or 37422
otherwise secure services to reduce the potential that the child 37423
would engage in behavior that could result in delinquent child or 37424
other criminal charges.37425

       (C) If after a hearing held pursuant to section 2152.58 of 37426
the Revised Code the court determines that a child is not 37427
competent but could likely attain competency by participating in 37428
services specifically designed to help the child develop 37429
competency, the court may order the child to participate in 37430
services specifically designed to help the child develop 37431
competency at county expense. The court shall name a reliable 37432
provider to deliver the competency attainment services and shall 37433
order the child's parent, guardian, or custodian to contact that 37434
provider by a specified date to arrange for services. 37435

       (D) The competency attainment services provided to a child 37436
shall be based on a competency attainment plan described in 37437
division (E)(2) of this section and approved by the court. 37438
Services are subject to the following conditions and time periods 37439
measured from the date the court approves the plan:37440

       (1) Services shall be provided in the least restrictive 37441
setting that is consistent with the child's ability to attain 37442
competency and the safety of both the child and the community. If 37443
the child has been released on temporary or interim orders and 37444
refuses or fails to cooperate with the service provider, the court 37445
may reassess the orders and amend them to require a more 37446
appropriate setting. 37447

       (2) No child shall be required to participate in competency 37448
attainment services for longer than is required for the child to 37449
attain competency. The following maximum periods of participation 37450
apply:37451

       (a) If a child is ordered to participate in competency 37452
attainment services that are provided outside of a residential 37453
setting, the child shall not participate in those services for a 37454
period exceeding three months if the child is charged with an act 37455
that would be a misdemeanor if committed by an adult, six months 37456
if the child is charged with an act that would be a felony of the 37457
third, fourth, or fifth degree if committed by an adult, or one 37458
year if the child is charged with an act that would be a felony of 37459
the first or second degree, aggravated murder, or murder if 37460
committed by an adult.37461

       (b) If a child is ordered to receive competency attainment 37462
services that are provided in a residential setting that is 37463
operated solely or in part for the purpose of providing competency 37464
attainment services, the child shall not participate in those 37465
services for a period exceeding forty-five calendar days if the 37466
child is charged with an act that would be a misdemeanor if 37467
committed by an adult, three months if the child is charged with 37468
an act that would be a felony of the third, fourth, or fifth 37469
degree if committed by an adult, six months if the child is 37470
charged with an act that would be a felony of the first or second 37471
degree if committed by an adult, or one year if the child is 37472
charged with an act that would be aggravated murder or murder if 37473
committed by an adult. 37474

       (c) If a child is ordered into a residential, detention, or 37475
other secured setting for reasons other than to participate in 37476
competency attainment services and is also ordered to participate 37477
in competency attainment services concurrently, the child shall 37478
participate in the competency attainment services for not longer 37479
than the relevant period set forth in division (D)(2)(a) of this 37480
section.37481

       (d) If a child is ordered to participate in competency 37482
attainment services that require the child to live for some but 37483
not all of the duration of the services in a residential setting 37484
that is operated solely or in part for the purpose of providing 37485
competency attainment services, the child shall participate in the 37486
competency attainment services for not longer than the relevant 37487
period set forth in division (D)(2)(b) of this section. For the 37488
purpose of calculating a time period under division (D)(2)(d) of 37489
this section, two days of participation in a nonresidential 37490
setting shall equal one day of participation in a residential 37491
setting. 37492

       (3) A child who receives competency attainment services in a 37493
residential setting that is operated solely or partly for the 37494
purpose of providing competency attainment services is in 37495
detention for purposes of section 2921.34 and division (B) of 37496
section 2152.18 of the Revised Code during the time that the child 37497
resides in the residential setting.37498

       (E)(1) Within ten business days after the court names the 37499
provider responsible for the child's competency attainment 37500
services under division (D) of this section, the court shall 37501
deliver to that provider a copy of each competency assessment 37502
report it has received for review. The provider shall return the 37503
copies of the reports to the court upon the termination of the 37504
services.37505

       (2) Not later than thirty calendar days after the child 37506
contacts the competency attainment services provider under 37507
division (C) of this section, the provider shall submit to the 37508
court a plan for the child to attain competency. The court shall 37509
provide copies of the plan to the prosecuting attorney, the 37510
child's attorney, the child's guardian ad litem, if any, and the 37511
child's parents, guardian, or custodian.37512

       (F) The provider that provides the child's competency 37513
attainment services pursuant to the competency attainment plan 37514
shall submit reports to the court on the following schedule:37515

       (1) A report on the child's progress every thirty calendar 37516
days and on the termination of services. The report shall not 37517
include any details of the alleged offense as reported by the 37518
child.37519

       (2) If the provider determines that the child is not 37520
cooperating to a degree that would allow the services to be 37521
effective to help the child attain competency, a report informing 37522
the court of the determination within three business days after 37523
making the determination;37524

       (3) If the provider determines that the current setting is no 37525
longer the least restrictive setting that is consistent with the 37526
child's ability to attain competency and the safety of both the 37527
child and the community, a report informing the court of the 37528
determination within three business days after making the 37529
determination;37530

       (4) If the provider determines that the child has achieved 37531
the goals of the plan and would be able to understand the nature 37532
and objectives of the proceeding against the child and to assist 37533
in the child's defense, with or without reasonable accommodations 37534
to meet the criteria set forth in division (B) of section 2152.56 37535
of the Revised Code, a report informing the court of that 37536
determination within three business days after making the 37537
determination. If the provider believes that accommodations would 37538
be necessary or desirable, the report shall include 37539
recommendations for accommodations.37540

       (5) If the provider determines that the child will not 37541
achieve the goals of the plan within the applicable period of time 37542
under division (D)(2) of this section, a report informing the 37543
court of the determination within three business days after making 37544
the determination. The report shall include recommendations for 37545
services for the child that would support the safety of the child 37546
or the community.37547

       (G) The court shall provide copies of any report made under 37548
division (F) of this section to the prosecuting attorney, the 37549
child's attorney, and the child's guardian ad litem, if any. The 37550
court shall provide copies of any report made under division (F) 37551
of this section to the child's parents, guardian, or custodian 37552
unless the court finds that doing so is not in the best interest 37553
of the child.37554

       (H)(1) Within fifteen business days after receiving a report 37555
under division (F) of this section, the court may hold a hearing 37556
to determine if a new order is necessary. To assist in making a 37557
determination under division (H) of this section, the court may 37558
order a new competency evaluation in accordance with section 37559
2152.53 of the Revised Code. Until a new order is issued or the 37560
required period of participation expires, the child shall continue 37561
to participate in competency attainment services.37562

       (2) If after a hearing held under division (H)(1) of this 37563
section the court determines that the child is not making progress 37564
toward competency or is so uncooperative that attainment services 37565
cannot be effective, the court may order a change in setting or 37566
services that would help the child attain competency within the 37567
relevant period of time under division (D)(2) of this section.37568

       (3) If after a hearing held under division (H)(1) of this 37569
section the court determines that the child has not or will not 37570
attain competency within the relevant period of time under 37571
division (D)(2) of this section, the court shall dismiss the 37572
delinquency complaint without prejudice, except that the court may 37573
delay dismissal for up to ninety calendar days and do either of 37574
the following:37575

       (a) Refer the matter to a public children services agency and 37576
request that agency determine whether to file an action in 37577
accordance with section 2151.27 of the Revised Code alleging that 37578
the child is a dependent, neglected, or abused child;37579

       (b) Assign court staff to refer the child or the child's 37580
family to the local family and children first council or an agency 37581
funded by the department of mental healthmental health and 37582
addiction services or department of developmental disabilities or 37583
otherwise secure services to reduce the potential that the child 37584
would engage in behavior that could result in delinquency or other 37585
criminal charges.37586

       (4) A dismissal under division (H)(3) of this section does 37587
not preclude a future delinquent child proceeding or criminal 37588
prosecution as provided under section 2151.23 of the Revised Code 37589
if the child eventually attains competency.37590

       (5) If after a hearing held under division (H)(1) of this 37591
section the court determines that the child has attained 37592
competency, the court shall proceed with the delinquent child's 37593
proceeding in accordance with division (A) of this section.37594

       (6) A dismissal under this section does not bar a civil 37595
action based on the acts or omissions that formed the basis of the 37596
complaint.37597

       Sec. 2301.14.  The clerk of the court of common pleas in 37598
which the service of a court interpreter is rendered shall tax in 37599
the cost bill in such case, to be collected as other costs, the 37600
sum of three dollars for each day of service of such interpreter, 37601
which fees shall be paid into the county treasury to the credit of 37602
the county fund. If the party taxed with costs is indigent, the 37603
clerk shall not tax the interpreter's fees as costs, and the 37604
county shall pay the interpreter's fees.37605

       Sec. 2301.19.  A transcript is an official verbatim record of 37606
a proceeding that is prepared by a reporter and that is certified 37607
to be correct by the reporter. A transcript, but not a duplicate 37608
copy of a transcript, shall be taken and received as prima facie 37609
evidence of its correctness.37610

       Sec. 2301.20. AllIf any party to a civil andor criminal 37611
actionsaction requests the services of a reporter at a hearing in 37612
the action, the court of common pleas shall be recordedgrant the 37613
request. The reporter shall take accurate notes of or 37614
electronically recordcarefully preserve the oral testimony37615
proceeding on an appropriate medium. The notes and electronic 37616
recordsmedium shall be filed in the office of the official 37617
reporter and carefully preserved for either of the following 37618
periods of time:37619

       (A) If the action is not a capital case, the notes and 37620
electronic recordsmedium shall be preserved for the period of 37621
time specified by the court of common pleas, which period of time 37622
shall not be longer than the period of time that the other records 37623
of the particular action are required to be kept.37624

       (B) If the action is a capital case, the notes and electronic 37625
recordsmedium shall be preserved for the longer of ten years or 37626
until the final disposition of the action and exhaustion of all 37627
appeals.37628

       Sec. 2301.23. When notes have been taken or an electronic 37629
recording has been made in a case as provided in section 2301.20 37630
of the Revised Code, ifIf the court or eitherany party to thea37631
suit requests a written transcriptstranscript of all or any 37632
portion of the proceeding that has been preserved on an 37633
appropriate medium by the reporter or other court personnel, the 37634
reporter reporting the case shall make a full and accurate 37635
transcripts of the notes or electronic recordingtranscript. The 37636
court may direct the official reporter to furnish to the court and 37637
the parties copies of decisions rendered and charges delivered by 37638
the court in pending cases.37639

       When the compensation for transcripts, copies of decisions, 37640
or charges is taxed as a part of the costs, the transcripts, 37641
copies of decisions, and charges shall remain on file with the 37642
papers of the case.37643

       Sec. 2301.24. (A) As used in this section, "actual cost" 37644
means the cost of depleted supplies; records storage media costs; 37645
actual mailing and alternative delivery costs, or other 37646
transmitting costs; and any direct equipment operating and 37647
maintenance costs, including actual costs paid to private 37648
contractors for copying services.37649

       (B) The compensation of reporters for making written 37650
transcripts as provided in section 2301.23 of the Revised Code 37651
shall be fixed by the court of common pleas of the county in which 37652
the trialproceeding is held. If more than oneWhen a transcript 37653
of the same testimony orany portion of a proceeding is ordered,37654
by the prosecuting attorney, the attorney general, a municipal 37655
director of law, or a similar chief legal officer of a public 37656
office in an appeal of any civil, criminal, or juvenile case or by 37657
the indigent defendant in an appeal of any criminal or juvenile 37658
case, any additional transcript of the same portion of the 37659
proceeding that is ordered by any of these parties for filing 37660
shall be provided by the reporter shall make copies of the 37661
transcript at cost pursuant to division (B)(1) of section 149.43 37662
of the Revised Code or shall provide an electronic copy of the 37663
transcript free of chargeat actual cost. In all other 37664
circumstances, the compensation to the reporter for making an 37665
additional transcript shall be as fixed by the court but shall not 37666
exceed one-half the compensation allowed for the first transcript 37667
made of the portion of the proceeding. The compensation shall be 37668
paid by the party for whose benefit a transcript is made. The, 37669
except that the compensation for transcripts requested by the 37670
prosecuting attorney or an indigent defendant in criminal cases or 37671
by the trial judge in either civil or criminal cases, and for 37672
copies of decisions and charges furnished by direction of the 37673
court shall be paid from the county treasury and taxed and 37674
collected as costs.37675

       (C) A reporter who takes the testimony of witnesses before a 37676
grand jury shall receive the same compensation for the transcript, 37677
and be paid in the same manner, as for other transcripts under 37678
division (B) of this section.37679

        (D) A duplicate copy of a transcript shall be provided by the 37680
clerk of court, if the transcript has been filed, or by the 37681
reporter, if the transcript has not been filed, at actual cost. 37682
Personnel cost may be added to the actual cost if the time of a 37683
reporter who makes a duplicate copy or an additional transcript is 37684
not paid for by a public entity. The reporter shall provide an 37685
electronic copy of a transcript at actual cost.37686

       Sec. 2301.25.  When ordered by the prosecuting attorney or 37687
the defendant in a criminal case or when ordered by a judge of the 37688
court of common pleas in either civil or criminal cases, the costs 37689
of transcripts shall be taxed as costs in the case, collected as 37690
other costs, whether the transcripts have been prepaid or not, as 37691
provided by section 2301.24 of the Revised Code, paid by the clerk 37692
of the court of common pleas quarterly into the county treasury, 37693
and credited to the general fund. If, upon final judgment, the 37694
costs or any part of the costs are adjudged against a defendant in 37695
a criminal case and the defendant has prepaid for the cost of a 37696
transcript or has paid a deposit toward the cost of the 37697
transcript, the defendant shall be allowed credit onfor the cost 37698
bill of the amount paid for the transcript the defendant ordered 37699
and, ifprepaid or deposited and shall not be charged again for 37700
that amount as part of the costs. If upon final judgment the costs37701
are finally adjudged against the state, the defendant shall have 37702
the defendant's depositbe refunded the amount prepaid or 37703
deposited toward the transcript. All transcripts shall be taken 37704
and received as prima-facie evidence of their correctness. If the 37705
testimony of witnesses is taken before the grand jury by 37706
reporters, they shall receive for the transcripts the same 37707
compensation and be paid in the same manner as provided in this 37708
section and section 2301.24 of the Revised Code.37709

       This section, as amended by H.B. 59 of the 130th general 37710
assembly, applies to transcripts of proceedings that are recorded 37711
on or after the effective date of the amendment.37712

       Sec. 2303.201.  (A)(1) The court of common pleas of any 37713
county may determine that for the efficient operation of the court 37714
additional funds are required to computerize the court, to make 37715
available computerized legal research services, or to do both. 37716
Upon making a determination that additional funds are required for 37717
either or both of those purposes, the court shall authorize and 37718
direct the clerk of the court of common pleas to charge one 37719
additional fee, not to exceed six dollars, on the filing of each 37720
cause of action or appeal under divisions (A), (Q), and (U) of 37721
section 2303.20 of the Revised Code.37722

       (2) All fees collected under division (A)(1) of this section 37723
shall be paid to the county treasurer. The treasurer shall place 37724
the funds from the fees in a separate fund to be disbursed either 37725
upon an order of the court, subject to an appropriation by the 37726
board of county commissioners, or upon an order of the court, 37727
subject to the court making an annual report available to the 37728
public listing the use of all such funds, in an amount not greater 37729
than the actual cost to the court of procuring and maintaining 37730
computerization of the court, computerized legal research 37731
services, or both.37732

       (3) If the court determines that the funds in the fund 37733
described in division (A)(2) of this section are more than 37734
sufficient to satisfy the purpose for which the additional fee 37735
described in division (A)(1) of this section was imposed, the 37736
court may declare a surplus in the fund and, subject to an 37737
appropriation by the board of county commissioners, expend those 37738
surplus funds, or upon an order of the court, subject to the court 37739
making an annual report available to the public listing the use of 37740
all such funds, expend those surplus funds, for other appropriate 37741
technological expenses of the court.37742

       (B)(1) The court of common pleas of any county may determine 37743
that, for the efficient operation of the court, additional funds 37744
are required to make technological advances in or to computerize 37745
the office of the clerk of the court of common pleas and, upon 37746
that determination, authorize and direct the clerk of the court of 37747
common pleas to charge an additional fee, not to exceed twenty 37748
dollars, on the filing of each cause of action or appeal, on the 37749
filing, docketing, and endorsing of each certificate of judgment, 37750
or on the docketing and indexing of each aid in execution or 37751
petition to vacate, revive, or modify a judgment under divisions 37752
(A), (P), (Q), (T), and (U) of section 2303.20 of the Revised Code 37753
and not to exceed one dollar each for the services described in 37754
divisions (B), (C), (D), (F), (H), and (L) of section 2303.20 of 37755
the Revised Code. Subject to division (B)(2) of this section, all 37756
moneys collected under division (B)(1) of this section shall be 37757
paid to the county treasurer to be disbursed, upon an order of the 37758
court of common pleas and subject to appropriation by the board of 37759
county commissioners, in an amount no greater than the actual cost 37760
to the court of procuring and maintaining technology and computer 37761
systems for the office of the clerk of the court of common pleas.37762

       (2) If the court of common pleas of a county makes the 37763
determination described in division (B)(1) of this section, the 37764
board of county commissioners of that county may issue one or more 37765
general obligation bonds for the purpose of procuring and 37766
maintaining the technology and computer systems for the office of 37767
the clerk of the court of common pleas. In addition to the 37768
purposes stated in division (B)(1) of this section for which the 37769
moneys collected under that division may be expended, the moneys 37770
additionally may be expended to pay debt charges on and financing 37771
costs related to any general obligation bonds issued pursuant to 37772
division (B)(2) of this section as they become due. General 37773
obligation bonds issued pursuant to division (B)(2) of this 37774
section are Chapter 133. securities.37775

       (C) The court of common pleas shall collect the sum of 37776
twenty-six dollars as additional filing fees in each new civil 37777
action or proceeding for the charitable public purpose of 37778
providing financial assistance to legal aid societies that operate 37779
within the state and to support the office of the state public 37780
defender. This division does not apply to proceedings concerning 37781
annulments, dissolutions of marriage, divorces, legal separation, 37782
spousal support, marital property or separate property 37783
distribution, support, or other domestic relations matters; to a 37784
juvenile division of a court of common pleas; to a probate 37785
division of a court of common pleas, except that the additional 37786
filing fees shall apply to name change, guardianship, adoption, 37787
and decedents' estate proceedings; or to an execution on a 37788
judgment, proceeding in aid of execution, or other post-judgment 37789
proceeding arising out of a civil action. The filing fees required 37790
to be collected under this division shall be in addition to any 37791
other filing fees imposed in the action or proceeding and shall be 37792
collected at the time of the filing of the action or proceeding. 37793
The court shall not waive the payment of the additional filing 37794
fees in a new civil action or proceeding unless the court waives 37795
the advanced payment of all filing fees in the action or 37796
proceeding. All such moneys collected during a month except for an 37797
amount equal to up to one per cent of those moneys retained to 37798
cover administrative costs shall be transmitted on or before the 37799
twentieth day of the following month by the clerk of the court to 37800
the treasurer of state in a manner prescribed by the treasurer of 37801
state or by the Ohio legal assistance foundation. The treasurer of 37802
state shall deposit four per cent of the funds collected under 37803
this division to the credit of the civil case filing fee fund 37804
established under section 120.07 of the Revised Code and 37805
ninety-six per cent of the funds collected under this division to 37806
the credit of the legal aid fund established under section 120.52 37807
of the Revised Code.37808

       The court may retain up to one per cent of the moneys it 37809
collects under this division to cover administrative costs, 37810
including the hiring of any additional personnel necessary to 37811
implement this division. If the court fails to transmit to the 37812
treasurer of state the moneys the court collects under this 37813
division in a manner prescribed by the treasurer of state or by 37814
the Ohio legal assistance foundation, the court shall forfeit the 37815
moneys the court retains under this division to cover 37816
administrative costs, including the hiring of any additional 37817
personnel necessary to implement this division, and shall transmit 37818
to the treasurer of state all moneys collected under this 37819
division, including the forfeited amount retained for 37820
administrative costs, for deposit in the legal aid fund.37821

       (D) On and after the thirtieth day after December 9, 1994, 37822
the court of common pleas shall collect the sum of thirty-two 37823
dollars as additional filing fees in each new action or proceeding 37824
for annulment, divorce, or dissolution of marriage for the purpose 37825
of funding shelters for victims of domestic violence pursuant to 37826
sections 3113.35 to 3113.39 of the Revised Code. The filing fees 37827
required to be collected under this division shall be in addition 37828
to any other filing fees imposed in the action or proceeding and 37829
shall be collected at the time of the filing of the action or 37830
proceeding. The court shall not waive the payment of the 37831
additional filing fees in a new action or proceeding for 37832
annulment, divorce, or dissolution of marriage unless the court 37833
waives the advanced payment of all filing fees in the action or 37834
proceeding. On or before the twentieth day of each month, all 37835
moneys collected during the immediately preceding month pursuant 37836
to this division shall be deposited by the clerk of the court into 37837
the county treasury in the special fund used for deposit of 37838
additional marriage license fees as described in section 3113.34 37839
of the Revised Code. Upon their deposit into the fund, the moneys 37840
shall be retained in the fund and expended only as described in 37841
section 3113.34 of the Revised Code.37842

       (E)(1) The court of common pleas may determine that, for the 37843
efficient operation of the court, additional funds are necessary 37844
to acquire and pay for special projects of the court, including, 37845
but not limited to, the acquisition of additional facilities or 37846
the rehabilitation of existing facilities, the acquisition of 37847
equipment, the hiring and training of staff, community service 37848
programs, mediation or dispute resolution services, the employment 37849
of magistrates, the training and education of judges, acting 37850
judges, and magistrates, and other related services. Upon that 37851
determination, the court by rule may charge a fee, in addition to 37852
all other court costs, on the filing of each criminal cause, civil 37853
action or proceeding, or judgment by confession.37854

       If the court of common pleas offers or requires a special 37855
program or serviceadditional services in cases of a specific 37856
type, the court by rule may assess an additional charge in a case 37857
of that type, over and above court costs, to cover the special 37858
program or service. The court shall adjust the special assessment 37859
periodically, but not retroactively, so that the amount assessed 37860
in those cases does not exceed the actual cost of providing the 37861
service or program.37862

       All moneys collected under division (E) of this section shall 37863
be paid to the county treasurer for deposit into either a general 37864
special projects fund or a fund established for a specific special 37865
project. Moneys from a fund of that nature shall be disbursed upon 37866
an order of the court, subject to an appropriation by the board of 37867
county commissioners, in an amount no greater than the actual cost 37868
to the court of a project. If a specific fund is terminated 37869
because of the discontinuance of a program or service established 37870
under division (E) of this section, the court may order, subject 37871
to an appropriation by the board of county commissioners, that 37872
moneys remaining in the fund be transferred to an account 37873
established under this division for a similar purpose.37874

       (2) As used in division (E) of this section:37875

       (a) "Criminal cause" means a charge alleging the violation of 37876
a statute or ordinance, or subsection of a statute or ordinance, 37877
that requires a separate finding of fact or a separate plea before 37878
disposition and of which the defendant may be found guilty, 37879
whether filed as part of a multiple charge on a single summons, 37880
citation, or complaint or as a separate charge on a single 37881
summons, citation, or complaint. "Criminal cause" does not include 37882
separate violations of the same statute or ordinance, or 37883
subsection of the same statute or ordinance, unless each charge is 37884
filed on a separate summons, citation, or complaint.37885

       (b) "Civil action or proceeding" means any civil litigation 37886
that must be determined by judgment entry.37887

       Sec. 2305.234.  (A) As used in this section:37888

       (1) "Chiropractic claim," "medical claim," and "optometric 37889
claim" have the same meanings as in section 2305.113 of the 37890
Revised Code.37891

       (2) "Dental claim" has the same meaning as in section 37892
2305.113 of the Revised Code, except that it does not include any 37893
claim arising out of a dental operation or any derivative claim 37894
for relief that arises out of a dental operation.37895

       (3) "Governmental health care program" has the same meaning 37896
as in section 4731.65 of the Revised Code.37897

       (4) "Health care facility or location" means a hospital, 37898
clinic, ambulatory surgical facility, office of a health care 37899
professional or associated group of health care professionals, 37900
training institution for health care professionals, or any other 37901
place where medical, dental, or other health-related diagnosis, 37902
care, or treatment is provided to a person.37903

       (5) "Health care professional" means any of the following who 37904
provide medical, dental, or other health-related diagnosis, care, 37905
or treatment:37906

       (a) Physicians authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised 37907
Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and 37908
surgery;37909

       (b) Registered nurses and licensed practical nurses licensed 37910
under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code and individuals who hold a 37911
certificate of authority issued under that chapter that authorizes 37912
the practice of nursing as a certified registered nurse 37913
anesthetist, clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, 37914
or certified nurse practitioner;37915

       (c) Physician assistants authorized to practice under Chapter 37916
4730. of the Revised Code;37917

       (d) Dentists and dental hygienists licensed under Chapter 37918
4715. of the Revised Code;37919

       (e) Physical therapists, physical therapist assistants, 37920
occupational therapists, and occupational therapy assistants 37921
licensed under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code;37922

       (f) Chiropractors licensed under Chapter 4734. of the Revised 37923
Code;37924

       (g) Optometrists licensed under Chapter 4725. of the Revised 37925
Code;37926

       (h) Podiatrists authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised 37927
Code to practice podiatry;37928

       (i) Dietitians licensed under Chapter 4759. of the Revised 37929
Code;37930

       (j) Pharmacists licensed under Chapter 4729. of the Revised 37931
Code;37932

       (k) Emergency medical technicians-basic, emergency medical 37933
technicians-intermediate, and emergency medical 37934
technicians-paramedic, certified under Chapter 4765. of the 37935
Revised Code;37936

       (l) Respiratory care professionals licensed under Chapter 37937
4761. of the Revised Code;37938

       (m) Speech-language pathologists and audiologists licensed 37939
under Chapter 4753. of the Revised Code;37940

       (n) Professional clinical counselors, professional 37941
counselors, independent social workers, social workers, 37942
independent marriage and family therapists, and marriage and 37943
family therapists, licensed under Chapter 4757. of the Revised 37944
Code;37945

       (o) Psychologists licensed under Chapter 4732. of the Revised 37946
Code;37947

       (p) Independent chemical dependency counselors, chemical 37948
dependency counselors III, chemical dependency counselors II, and 37949
chemical dependency counselors I, licensed under Chapter 4758. of 37950
the Revised Code.37951

       (6) "Health care worker" means a person other than a health 37952
care professional who provides medical, dental, or other 37953
health-related care or treatment under the direction of a health 37954
care professional with the authority to direct that individual's 37955
activities, including medical technicians, medical assistants, 37956
dental assistants, orderlies, aides, and individuals acting in 37957
similar capacities.37958

       (7) "Indigent and uninsured person" means a person who meets 37959
all of the following requirements:37960

       (a) The person's income is not greater than two hundred per 37961
cent of the current poverty line as defined by the United States 37962
office of management and budget and revised in accordance with 37963
section 673(2) of the "Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981," 37964
95 Stat. 511, 42 U.S.C. 9902, as amended.37965

       (b) The person is not eligible to receive medical assistance 37966
under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code or assistance underfor 37967
the medicaid program or any other governmental health care 37968
program.37969

       (c) Either of the following applies:37970

       (i) The person is not a policyholder, certificate holder, 37971
insured, contract holder, subscriber, enrollee, member, 37972
beneficiary, or other covered individual under a health insurance 37973
or health care policy, contract, or plan.37974

       (ii) The person is a policyholder, certificate holder, 37975
insured, contract holder, subscriber, enrollee, member, 37976
beneficiary, or other covered individual under a health insurance 37977
or health care policy, contract, or plan, but the insurer, policy, 37978
contract, or plan denies coverage or is the subject of insolvency 37979
or bankruptcy proceedings in any jurisdiction.37980

       (8) "Nonprofit health care referral organization" means an 37981
entity that is not operated for profit and refers patients to, or 37982
arranges for the provision of, health-related diagnosis, care, or 37983
treatment by a health care professional or health care worker.37984

       (9) "Operation" means any procedure that involves cutting or 37985
otherwise infiltrating human tissue by mechanical means, including 37986
surgery, laser surgery, ionizing radiation, therapeutic 37987
ultrasound, or the removal of intraocular foreign bodies. 37988
"Operation" does not include the administration of medication by 37989
injection, unless the injection is administered in conjunction 37990
with a procedure infiltrating human tissue by mechanical means 37991
other than the administration of medicine by injection. 37992
"Operation" does not include routine dental restorative 37993
procedures, the scaling of teeth, or extractions of teeth that are 37994
not impacted.37995

       (10) "Tort action" means a civil action for damages for 37996
injury, death, or loss to person or property other than a civil 37997
action for damages for a breach of contract or another agreement 37998
between persons or government entities.37999

       (11) "Volunteer" means an individual who provides any 38000
medical, dental, or other health-care related diagnosis, care, or 38001
treatment without the expectation of receiving and without receipt 38002
of any compensation or other form of remuneration from an indigent 38003
and uninsured person, another person on behalf of an indigent and 38004
uninsured person, any health care facility or location, any 38005
nonprofit health care referral organization, or any other person 38006
or government entity.38007

       (12) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 38008
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.38009

       (13) "Deep sedation" means a drug-induced depression of 38010
consciousness during which a patient cannot be easily aroused but 38011
responds purposefully following repeated or painful stimulation, a 38012
patient's ability to independently maintain ventilatory function 38013
may be impaired, a patient may require assistance in maintaining a 38014
patent airway and spontaneous ventilation may be inadequate, and 38015
cardiovascular function is usually maintained.38016

       (14) "General anesthesia" means a drug-induced loss of 38017
consciousness during which a patient is not arousable, even by 38018
painful stimulation, the ability to independently maintain 38019
ventilatory function is often impaired, a patient often requires 38020
assistance in maintaining a patent airway, positive pressure 38021
ventilation may be required because of depressed spontaneous 38022
ventilation or drug-induced depression of neuromuscular function, 38023
and cardiovascular function may be impaired.38024

       (B)(1) Subject to divisions (F) and (G)(3) of this section, a 38025
health care professional who is a volunteer and complies with 38026
division (B)(2) of this section is not liable in damages to any 38027
person or government entity in a tort or other civil action, 38028
including an action on a medical, dental, chiropractic, 38029
optometric, or other health-related claim, for injury, death, or 38030
loss to person or property that allegedly arises from an action or 38031
omission of the volunteer in the provision to an indigent and 38032
uninsured person of medical, dental, or other health-related 38033
diagnosis, care, or treatment, including the provision of samples 38034
of medicine and other medical products, unless the action or 38035
omission constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.38036

       (2) To qualify for the immunity described in division (B)(1) 38037
of this section, a health care professional shall do all of the 38038
following prior to providing diagnosis, care, or treatment:38039

       (a) Determine, in good faith, that the indigent and uninsured 38040
person is mentally capable of giving informed consent to the 38041
provision of the diagnosis, care, or treatment and is not subject 38042
to duress or under undue influence;38043

       (b) Inform the person of the provisions of this section, 38044
including notifying the person that, by giving informed consent to 38045
the provision of the diagnosis, care, or treatment, the person 38046
cannot hold the health care professional liable for damages in a 38047
tort or other civil action, including an action on a medical, 38048
dental, chiropractic, optometric, or other health-related claim, 38049
unless the action or omission of the health care professional 38050
constitutes willful or wanton misconduct;38051

       (c) Obtain the informed consent of the person and a written 38052
waiver, signed by the person or by another individual on behalf of 38053
and in the presence of the person, that states that the person is 38054
mentally competent to give informed consent and, without being 38055
subject to duress or under undue influence, gives informed consent 38056
to the provision of the diagnosis, care, or treatment subject to 38057
the provisions of this section. A written waiver under division 38058
(B)(2)(c) of this section shall state clearly and in conspicuous 38059
type that the person or other individual who signs the waiver is 38060
signing it with full knowledge that, by giving informed consent to 38061
the provision of the diagnosis, care, or treatment, the person 38062
cannot bring a tort or other civil action, including an action on 38063
a medical, dental, chiropractic, optometric, or other 38064
health-related claim, against the health care professional unless 38065
the action or omission of the health care professional constitutes 38066
willful or wanton misconduct.38067

       (3) A physician or podiatrist who is not covered by medical 38068
malpractice insurance, but complies with division (B)(2) of this 38069
section, is not required to comply with division (A) of section 38070
4731.143 of the Revised Code.38071

       (C) Subject to divisions (F) and (G)(3) of this section, 38072
health care workers who are volunteers are not liable in damages 38073
to any person or government entity in a tort or other civil 38074
action, including an action upon a medical, dental, chiropractic, 38075
optometric, or other health-related claim, for injury, death, or 38076
loss to person or property that allegedly arises from an action or 38077
omission of the health care worker in the provision to an indigent 38078
and uninsured person of medical, dental, or other health-related 38079
diagnosis, care, or treatment, unless the action or omission 38080
constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.38081

       (D) Subject to divisions (F) and (G)(3) of this section, a 38082
nonprofit health care referral organization is not liable in 38083
damages to any person or government entity in a tort or other 38084
civil action, including an action on a medical, dental, 38085
chiropractic, optometric, or other health-related claim, for 38086
injury, death, or loss to person or property that allegedly arises 38087
from an action or omission of the nonprofit health care referral 38088
organization in referring indigent and uninsured persons to, or 38089
arranging for the provision of, medical, dental, or other 38090
health-related diagnosis, care, or treatment by a health care 38091
professional described in division (B)(1) of this section or a 38092
health care worker described in division (C) of this section, 38093
unless the action or omission constitutes willful or wanton 38094
misconduct.38095

       (E) Subject to divisions (F) and (G)(3) of this section and 38096
to the extent that the registration requirements of section 38097
3701.071 of the Revised Code apply, a health care facility or 38098
location associated with a health care professional described in 38099
division (B)(1) of this section, a health care worker described in 38100
division (C) of this section, or a nonprofit health care referral 38101
organization described in division (D) of this section is not 38102
liable in damages to any person or government entity in a tort or 38103
other civil action, including an action on a medical, dental, 38104
chiropractic, optometric, or other health-related claim, for 38105
injury, death, or loss to person or property that allegedly arises 38106
from an action or omission of the health care professional or 38107
worker or nonprofit health care referral organization relative to 38108
the medical, dental, or other health-related diagnosis, care, or 38109
treatment provided to an indigent and uninsured person on behalf 38110
of or at the health care facility or location, unless the action 38111
or omission constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.38112

       (F)(1) Except as provided in division (F)(2) of this section, 38113
the immunities provided by divisions (B), (C), (D), and (E) of 38114
this section are not available to a health care professional, 38115
health care worker, nonprofit health care referral organization, 38116
or health care facility or location if, at the time of an alleged 38117
injury, death, or loss to person or property, the health care 38118
professionals or health care workers involved are providing one of 38119
the following:38120

       (a) Any medical, dental, or other health-related diagnosis, 38121
care, or treatment pursuant to a community service work order 38122
entered by a court under division (B) of section 2951.02 of the 38123
Revised Code or imposed by a court as a community control 38124
sanction;38125

       (b) Performance of an operation to which any one of the 38126
following applies:38127

        (i) The operation requires the administration of deep 38128
sedation or general anesthesia.38129

        (ii) The operation is a procedure that is not typically 38130
performed in an office.38131

       (iii) The individual involved is a health care professional, 38132
and the operation is beyond the scope of practice or the 38133
education, training, and competence, as applicable, of the health 38134
care professional.38135

       (c) Delivery of a baby or any other purposeful termination of 38136
a human pregnancy.38137

       (2) Division (F)(1) of this section does not apply when a 38138
health care professional or health care worker provides medical, 38139
dental, or other health-related diagnosis, care, or treatment that 38140
is necessary to preserve the life of a person in a medical 38141
emergency.38142

       (G)(1) This section does not create a new cause of action or 38143
substantive legal right against a health care professional, health 38144
care worker, nonprofit health care referral organization, or 38145
health care facility or location.38146

       (2) This section does not affect any immunities from civil 38147
liability or defenses established by another section of the 38148
Revised Code or available at common law to which a health care 38149
professional, health care worker, nonprofit health care referral 38150
organization, or health care facility or location may be entitled 38151
in connection with the provision of emergency or other medical, 38152
dental, or other health-related diagnosis, care, or treatment.38153

       (3) This section does not grant an immunity from tort or 38154
other civil liability to a health care professional, health care 38155
worker, nonprofit health care referral organization, or health 38156
care facility or location for actions that are outside the scope 38157
of authority of health care professionals or health care workers.38158

       (4) This section does not affect any legal responsibility of 38159
a health care professional, health care worker, or nonprofit 38160
health care referral organization to comply with any applicable 38161
law of this state or rule of an agency of this state.38162

       (5) This section does not affect any legal responsibility of 38163
a health care facility or location to comply with any applicable 38164
law of this state, rule of an agency of this state, or local code, 38165
ordinance, or regulation that pertains to or regulates building, 38166
housing, air pollution, water pollution, sanitation, health, fire, 38167
zoning, or safety.38168

       Sec. 2307.65. (A) The attorney general may bring a civil 38169
action in the Franklin county court of common pleas on behalf of 38170
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid, and the 38171
prosecuting attorney of the county in which a violation of 38172
division (B) of section 2913.401 of the Revised Code occurs may 38173
bring a civil action in the court of common pleas of that county 38174
on behalf of the county department of job and family services, 38175
against a person who violates division (B) of section 2913.401 of 38176
the Revised Code for the recovery of the amount of benefits paid 38177
on behalf of a person that either department would not have paid 38178
but for the violation minus any amounts paid in restitution under 38179
division (C)(2) of section 2913.401 of the Revised Code and for 38180
reasonable attorney's fees and all other fees and costs of 38181
litigation.38182

        (B) In a civil action brought under division (A) of this 38183
section, if the defendant failed to disclose a transfer of 38184
property in violation of division (B)(3) of section 2913.401 of 38185
the Revised Code, the court may also grant any of the following 38186
relief to the extent permitted by the "Social Security Act," 38187
section 1917, 42 U.S.C. 1396p:38188

        (1) Avoidance of the transfer of property that was not 38189
disclosed in violation of division (B)(3) of section 2913.401 of 38190
the Revised Code to the extent of the amount of benefits the 38191
department would not have paid but for the violation;38192

        (2) An order of attachment or garnishment against the 38193
property in accordance with Chapter 2715. or 2716. of the Revised 38194
Code;38195

        (3) An injunction against any further disposition by the 38196
transferor or transferee, or both, of the property the transfer of 38197
which was not disclosed in violation of division (B)(3) of section 38198
2913.401 of the Revised Code or against the disposition of other 38199
property by the transferor or transferee;38200

        (4) Appointment of a receiver to take charge of the property 38201
transferred or of other property of the transferee;38202

        (5) Any other relief that the court considers just and 38203
equitable.38204

        (C) To the extent permitted by the "Social Security Act," 38205
section 1917, 42 U.S.C. 1396p, the department of job and family 38206
servicesmedicaid or the county department of job and family 38207
services may enforce a judgment obtained under this section by 38208
levying on property the transfer of which was not disclosed in 38209
violation of division (B)(3) of section 2913.401 of the Revised 38210
Code or on the proceeds of the transfer of that property in 38211
accordance with Chapter 2329. of the Revised Code.38212

        (D) The remedies provided in divisions (B) and (C) of this 38213
section do not apply if the transferee of the property the 38214
transfer of which was not disclosed in violation of division 38215
(B)(3) of section 2913.401 of the Revised Code acquired the 38216
property in good faith and for fair market value.38217

        (E) The remedies provided in this section are not exclusive 38218
and do not preclude the use of any other criminal or civil remedy 38219
for any act that is in violation of section 2913.401 of the 38220
Revised Code.38221

        (F) Amounts of medicaid benefitsservices paid and recovered 38222
in an action brought under this section shall be credited to the 38223
general revenue fund, and any applicable federal share shall be 38224
returned to the appropriate agency or department of the United 38225
States.38226

       Sec. 2311.14.  (A)(1) Whenever because of a hearing, speech, 38227
or other impairment a party to or witness in a legal proceeding 38228
cannot readily understand or communicate, the court shall appoint 38229
a qualified interpreter to assist such person. Before appointing 38230
any interpreter under this division for a party or witness who is 38231
a mentally retarded person or developmentally disabled person, the 38232
court shall evaluate the qualifications of the interpreter and 38233
shall make a determination as to the ability of the interpreter to 38234
effectively interpret on behalf of the party or witness that the 38235
interpreter will assist, and the court may appoint the interpreter 38236
only if the court is satisfied that the interpreter is able to 38237
effectively interpret on behalf of that party or witness.38238

       (2) This section is not limited to a person who speaks a 38239
language other than English. It also applies to the language and 38240
descriptions of any mentally retarded person or developmentally 38241
disabled person who cannot be reasonably understood, or who cannot 38242
understand questioning, without the aid of an interpreter. The 38243
interpreter may aid the parties in formulating methods of 38244
questioning the person with mental retardation or a developmental 38245
disability and in interpreting the answers of the person.38246

       (B) Before entering upon official duties, the interpreter 38247
shall take an oath that the interpreter will make a true 38248
interpretation of the proceedings to the party or witness, and 38249
that the interpreter will truly repeat the statements made by such 38250
party or witness to the court, to the best of the interpreter's 38251
ability. If the interpreter is appointed to assist a mentally 38252
retarded person or developmentally disabled person as described in 38253
division (A)(2) of this section, the oath also shall include an 38254
oath that the interpreter will not prompt, lead, suggest, or 38255
otherwise improperly influence the testimony of the witness or 38256
party.38257

       (C) The court shall determine a reasonable fee for all such 38258
interpreter service which shall be paid out of the same funds as 38259
witness fees. If the party taxed with costs is indigent, the court 38260
shall not tax the interpreter's fees as costs, and the county 38261
shall pay the interpreter's fees.38262

       (D) As used in this section, "mentally retarded person" and 38263
"developmentally disabled person" have the same meanings as in 38264
section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.38265

       Sec. 2317.02.  The following persons shall not testify in 38266
certain respects:38267

       (A)(1) An attorney, concerning a communication made to the 38268
attorney by a client in that relation or concerning the attorney's 38269
advice to a client, except that the attorney may testify by 38270
express consent of the client or, if the client is deceased, by 38271
the express consent of the surviving spouse or the executor or 38272
administrator of the estate of the deceased client. However, if 38273
the client voluntarily reveals the substance of attorney-client 38274
communications in a nonprivileged context or is deemed by section 38275
2151.421 of the Revised Code to have waived any testimonial 38276
privilege under this division, the attorney may be compelled to 38277
testify on the same subject.38278

       The testimonial privilege established under this division 38279
does not apply concerning a communication between a client who has 38280
since died and the deceased client's attorney if the communication 38281
is relevant to a dispute between parties who claim through that 38282
deceased client, regardless of whether the claims are by testate 38283
or intestate succession or by inter vivos transaction, and the 38284
dispute addresses the competency of the deceased client when the 38285
deceased client executed a document that is the basis of the 38286
dispute or whether the deceased client was a victim of fraud, 38287
undue influence, or duress when the deceased client executed a 38288
document that is the basis of the dispute.38289

       (2) An attorney, concerning a communication made to the 38290
attorney by a client in that relationship or the attorney's advice 38291
to a client, except that if the client is an insurance company, 38292
the attorney may be compelled to testify, subject to an in camera 38293
inspection by a court, about communications made by the client to 38294
the attorney or by the attorney to the client that are related to 38295
the attorney's aiding or furthering an ongoing or future 38296
commission of bad faith by the client, if the party seeking 38297
disclosure of the communications has made a prima-facie showing of 38298
bad faith, fraud, or criminal misconduct by the client.38299

       (B)(1) A physician or a dentist concerning a communication 38300
made to the physician or dentist by a patient in that relation or 38301
the physician's or dentist's advice to a patient, except as 38302
otherwise provided in this division, division (B)(2), and division 38303
(B)(3) of this section, and except that, if the patient is deemed 38304
by section 2151.421 of the Revised Code to have waived any 38305
testimonial privilege under this division, the physician may be 38306
compelled to testify on the same subject.38307

       The testimonial privilege established under this division 38308
does not apply, and a physician or dentist may testify or may be 38309
compelled to testify, in any of the following circumstances:38310

       (a) In any civil action, in accordance with the discovery 38311
provisions of the Rules of Civil Procedure in connection with a 38312
civil action, or in connection with a claim under Chapter 4123. of 38313
the Revised Code, under any of the following circumstances:38314

       (i) If the patient or the guardian or other legal 38315
representative of the patient gives express consent;38316

       (ii) If the patient is deceased, the spouse of the patient or 38317
the executor or administrator of the patient's estate gives 38318
express consent;38319

       (iii) If a medical claim, dental claim, chiropractic claim, 38320
or optometric claim, as defined in section 2305.113 of the Revised 38321
Code, an action for wrongful death, any other type of civil 38322
action, or a claim under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code is 38323
filed by the patient, the personal representative of the estate of 38324
the patient if deceased, or the patient's guardian or other legal 38325
representative.38326

       (b) In any civil action concerning court-ordered treatment or 38327
services received by a patient, if the court-ordered treatment or 38328
services were ordered as part of a case plan journalized under 38329
section 2151.412 of the Revised Code or the court-ordered 38330
treatment or services are necessary or relevant to dependency, 38331
neglect, or abuse or temporary or permanent custody proceedings 38332
under Chapter 2151. of the Revised Code.38333

       (c) In any criminal action concerning any test or the results 38334
of any test that determines the presence or concentration of 38335
alcohol, a drug of abuse, a combination of them, a controlled 38336
substance, or a metabolite of a controlled substance in the 38337
patient's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, urine, or 38338
other bodily substance at any time relevant to the criminal 38339
offense in question.38340

       (d) In any criminal action against a physician or dentist. In 38341
such an action, the testimonial privilege established under this 38342
division does not prohibit the admission into evidence, in 38343
accordance with the Rules of Evidence, of a patient's medical or 38344
dental records or other communications between a patient and the 38345
physician or dentist that are related to the action and obtained 38346
by subpoena, search warrant, or other lawful means. A court that 38347
permits or compels a physician or dentist to testify in such an 38348
action or permits the introduction into evidence of patient 38349
records or other communications in such an action shall require 38350
that appropriate measures be taken to ensure that the 38351
confidentiality of any patient named or otherwise identified in 38352
the records is maintained. Measures to ensure confidentiality that 38353
may be taken by the court include sealing its records or deleting 38354
specific information from its records.38355

       (e)(i) If the communication was between a patient who has 38356
since died and the deceased patient's physician or dentist, the 38357
communication is relevant to a dispute between parties who claim 38358
through that deceased patient, regardless of whether the claims 38359
are by testate or intestate succession or by inter vivos 38360
transaction, and the dispute addresses the competency of the 38361
deceased patient when the deceased patient executed a document 38362
that is the basis of the dispute or whether the deceased patient 38363
was a victim of fraud, undue influence, or duress when the 38364
deceased patient executed a document that is the basis of the 38365
dispute.38366

       (ii) If neither the spouse of a patient nor the executor or 38367
administrator of that patient's estate gives consent under 38368
division (B)(1)(a)(ii) of this section, testimony or the 38369
disclosure of the patient's medical records by a physician, 38370
dentist, or other health care provider under division (B)(1)(e)(i) 38371
of this section is a permitted use or disclosure of protected 38372
health information, as defined in 45 C.F.R. 160.103, and an 38373
authorization or opportunity to be heard shall not be required.38374

       (iii) Division (B)(1)(e)(i) of this section does not require 38375
a mental health professional to disclose psychotherapy notes, as 38376
defined in 45 C.F.R. 164.501.38377

       (iv) An interested person who objects to testimony or 38378
disclosure under division (B)(1)(e)(i) of this section may seek a 38379
protective order pursuant to Civil Rule 26.38380

       (v) A person to whom protected health information is 38381
disclosed under division (B)(1)(e)(i) of this section shall not 38382
use or disclose the protected health information for any purpose 38383
other than the litigation or proceeding for which the information 38384
was requested and shall return the protected health information to 38385
the covered entity or destroy the protected health information, 38386
including all copies made, at the conclusion of the litigation or 38387
proceeding.38388

       (2)(a) If any law enforcement officer submits a written 38389
statement to a health care provider that states that an official 38390
criminal investigation has begun regarding a specified person or 38391
that a criminal action or proceeding has been commenced against a 38392
specified person, that requests the provider to supply to the 38393
officer copies of any records the provider possesses that pertain 38394
to any test or the results of any test administered to the 38395
specified person to determine the presence or concentration of 38396
alcohol, a drug of abuse, a combination of them, a controlled 38397
substance, or a metabolite of a controlled substance in the 38398
person's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, or urine at 38399
any time relevant to the criminal offense in question, and that 38400
conforms to section 2317.022 of the Revised Code, the provider, 38401
except to the extent specifically prohibited by any law of this 38402
state or of the United States, shall supply to the officer a copy 38403
of any of the requested records the provider possesses. If the 38404
health care provider does not possess any of the requested 38405
records, the provider shall give the officer a written statement 38406
that indicates that the provider does not possess any of the 38407
requested records.38408

       (b) If a health care provider possesses any records of the 38409
type described in division (B)(2)(a) of this section regarding the 38410
person in question at any time relevant to the criminal offense in 38411
question, in lieu of personally testifying as to the results of 38412
the test in question, the custodian of the records may submit a 38413
certified copy of the records, and, upon its submission, the 38414
certified copy is qualified as authentic evidence and may be 38415
admitted as evidence in accordance with the Rules of Evidence. 38416
Division (A) of section 2317.422 of the Revised Code does not 38417
apply to any certified copy of records submitted in accordance 38418
with this division. Nothing in this division shall be construed to 38419
limit the right of any party to call as a witness the person who 38420
administered the test to which the records pertain, the person 38421
under whose supervision the test was administered, the custodian 38422
of the records, the person who made the records, or the person 38423
under whose supervision the records were made.38424

       (3)(a) If the testimonial privilege described in division 38425
(B)(1) of this section does not apply as provided in division 38426
(B)(1)(a)(iii) of this section, a physician or dentist may be 38427
compelled to testify or to submit to discovery under the Rules of 38428
Civil Procedure only as to a communication made to the physician 38429
or dentist by the patient in question in that relation, or the 38430
physician's or dentist's advice to the patient in question, that 38431
related causally or historically to physical or mental injuries 38432
that are relevant to issues in the medical claim, dental claim, 38433
chiropractic claim, or optometric claim, action for wrongful 38434
death, other civil action, or claim under Chapter 4123. of the 38435
Revised Code.38436

       (b) If the testimonial privilege described in division (B)(1) 38437
of this section does not apply to a physician or dentist as 38438
provided in division (B)(1)(c) of this section, the physician or 38439
dentist, in lieu of personally testifying as to the results of the 38440
test in question, may submit a certified copy of those results, 38441
and, upon its submission, the certified copy is qualified as 38442
authentic evidence and may be admitted as evidence in accordance 38443
with the Rules of Evidence. Division (A) of section 2317.422 of 38444
the Revised Code does not apply to any certified copy of results 38445
submitted in accordance with this division. Nothing in this 38446
division shall be construed to limit the right of any party to 38447
call as a witness the person who administered the test in 38448
question, the person under whose supervision the test was 38449
administered, the custodian of the results of the test, the person 38450
who compiled the results, or the person under whose supervision 38451
the results were compiled.38452

       (4) The testimonial privilege described in division (B)(1) of 38453
this section is not waived when a communication is made by a 38454
physician to a pharmacist or when there is communication between a 38455
patient and a pharmacist in furtherance of the physician-patient 38456
relation.38457

       (5)(a) As used in divisions (B)(1) to (4) of this section, 38458
"communication" means acquiring, recording, or transmitting any 38459
information, in any manner, concerning any facts, opinions, or 38460
statements necessary to enable a physician or dentist to diagnose, 38461
treat, prescribe, or act for a patient. A "communication" may 38462
include, but is not limited to, any medical or dental, office, or 38463
hospital communication such as a record, chart, letter, 38464
memorandum, laboratory test and results, x-ray, photograph, 38465
financial statement, diagnosis, or prognosis.38466

       (b) As used in division (B)(2) of this section, "health care 38467
provider" means a hospital, ambulatory care facility, long-term 38468
care facility, pharmacy, emergency facility, or health care 38469
practitioner.38470

       (c) As used in division (B)(5)(b) of this section:38471

       (i) "Ambulatory care facility" means a facility that provides 38472
medical, diagnostic, or surgical treatment to patients who do not 38473
require hospitalization, including a dialysis center, ambulatory 38474
surgical facility, cardiac catheterization facility, diagnostic 38475
imaging center, extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy center, home 38476
health agency, inpatient hospice, birthing center, radiation 38477
therapy center, emergency facility, and an urgent care center. 38478
"Ambulatory health care facility" does not include the private 38479
office of a physician or dentist, whether the office is for an 38480
individual or group practice.38481

       (ii) "Emergency facility" means a hospital emergency 38482
department or any other facility that provides emergency medical 38483
services.38484

       (iii) "Health care practitioner" has the same meaning as in 38485
section 4769.01 of the Revised Code.38486

       (iv) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of 38487
the Revised Code.38488

       (v) "Long-term care facility" means a nursing home, 38489
residential care facility, or home for the aging, as those terms 38490
are defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code; a residential 38491
facility licensed under section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised 38492
Code that provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care 38493
services for three to sixteen unrelated adults; a nursing facility 38494
or intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded, as those 38495
terms are defined in section 5111.205165.01 of the Revised Code; 38496
a facility or portion of a facility certified as a skilled 38497
nursing facility under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 38498
49 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C.A. 1395, as amended, as defined in 38499
section 5165.01 of the Revised Code; and an intermediate care 38500
facility for individuals with intellectual disabilities, as 38501
defined in section 5124.01 of the Revised Code.38502

       (vi) "Pharmacy" has the same meaning as in section 4729.01 of 38503
the Revised Code.38504

       (d) As used in divisions (B)(1) and (2) of this section, 38505
"drug of abuse" has the same meaning as in section 4506.01 of the 38506
Revised Code.38507

       (6) Divisions (B)(1), (2), (3), (4), and (5) of this section 38508
apply to doctors of medicine, doctors of osteopathic medicine, 38509
doctors of podiatry, and dentists.38510

       (7) Nothing in divisions (B)(1) to (6) of this section 38511
affects, or shall be construed as affecting, the immunity from 38512
civil liability conferred by section 307.628 of the Revised Code 38513
or the immunity from civil liability conferred by section 2305.33 38514
of the Revised Code upon physicians who report an employee's use 38515
of a drug of abuse, or a condition of an employee other than one 38516
involving the use of a drug of abuse, to the employer of the 38517
employee in accordance with division (B) of that section. As used 38518
in division (B)(7) of this section, "employee," "employer," and 38519
"physician" have the same meanings as in section 2305.33 of the 38520
Revised Code.38521

       (C)(1) A cleric, when the cleric remains accountable to the 38522
authority of that cleric's church, denomination, or sect, 38523
concerning a confession made, or any information confidentially 38524
communicated, to the cleric for a religious counseling purpose in 38525
the cleric's professional character. The cleric may testify by 38526
express consent of the person making the communication, except 38527
when the disclosure of the information is in violation of a sacred 38528
trust and except that, if the person voluntarily testifies or is 38529
deemed by division (A)(4)(c) of section 2151.421 of the Revised 38530
Code to have waived any testimonial privilege under this division, 38531
the cleric may be compelled to testify on the same subject except 38532
when disclosure of the information is in violation of a sacred 38533
trust.38534

       (2) As used in division (C) of this section:38535

        (a) "Cleric" means a member of the clergy, rabbi, priest, 38536
Christian Science practitioner, or regularly ordained, accredited, 38537
or licensed minister of an established and legally cognizable 38538
church, denomination, or sect.38539

        (b) "Sacred trust" means a confession or confidential 38540
communication made to a cleric in the cleric's ecclesiastical 38541
capacity in the course of discipline enjoined by the church to 38542
which the cleric belongs, including, but not limited to, the 38543
Catholic Church, if both of the following apply:38544

        (i) The confession or confidential communication was made 38545
directly to the cleric.38546

        (ii) The confession or confidential communication was made in 38547
the manner and context that places the cleric specifically and 38548
strictly under a level of confidentiality that is considered 38549
inviolate by canon law or church doctrine.38550

       (D) Husband or wife, concerning any communication made by one 38551
to the other, or an act done by either in the presence of the 38552
other, during coverture, unless the communication was made, or act 38553
done, in the known presence or hearing of a third person competent 38554
to be a witness; and such rule is the same if the marital relation 38555
has ceased to exist;38556

       (E) A person who assigns a claim or interest, concerning any 38557
matter in respect to which the person would not, if a party, be 38558
permitted to testify;38559

       (F) A person who, if a party, would be restricted under 38560
section 2317.03 of the Revised Code, when the property or thing is 38561
sold or transferred by an executor, administrator, guardian, 38562
trustee, heir, devisee, or legatee, shall be restricted in the 38563
same manner in any action or proceeding concerning the property or 38564
thing.38565

       (G)(1) A school guidance counselor who holds a valid educator 38566
license from the state board of education as provided for in 38567
section 3319.22 of the Revised Code, a person licensed under 38568
Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code as a professional clinical 38569
counselor, professional counselor, social worker, independent 38570
social worker, marriage and family therapist or independent 38571
marriage and family therapist, or registered under Chapter 4757. 38572
of the Revised Code as a social work assistant concerning a 38573
confidential communication received from a client in that relation 38574
or the person's advice to a client unless any of the following 38575
applies:38576

       (a) The communication or advice indicates clear and present 38577
danger to the client or other persons. For the purposes of this 38578
division, cases in which there are indications of present or past 38579
child abuse or neglect of the client constitute a clear and 38580
present danger.38581

       (b) The client gives express consent to the testimony.38582

       (c) If the client is deceased, the surviving spouse or the 38583
executor or administrator of the estate of the deceased client 38584
gives express consent.38585

       (d) The client voluntarily testifies, in which case the 38586
school guidance counselor or person licensed or registered under 38587
Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code may be compelled to testify on 38588
the same subject.38589

       (e) The court in camera determines that the information 38590
communicated by the client is not germane to the counselor-client, 38591
marriage and family therapist-client, or social worker-client 38592
relationship.38593

       (f) A court, in an action brought against a school, its 38594
administration, or any of its personnel by the client, rules after 38595
an in-camera inspection that the testimony of the school guidance 38596
counselor is relevant to that action.38597

       (g) The testimony is sought in a civil action and concerns 38598
court-ordered treatment or services received by a patient as part 38599
of a case plan journalized under section 2151.412 of the Revised 38600
Code or the court-ordered treatment or services are necessary or 38601
relevant to dependency, neglect, or abuse or temporary or 38602
permanent custody proceedings under Chapter 2151. of the Revised 38603
Code.38604

       (2) Nothing in division (G)(1) of this section shall relieve 38605
a school guidance counselor or a person licensed or registered 38606
under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code from the requirement to 38607
report information concerning child abuse or neglect under section 38608
2151.421 of the Revised Code.38609

       (H) A mediator acting under a mediation order issued under 38610
division (A) of section 3109.052 of the Revised Code or otherwise 38611
issued in any proceeding for divorce, dissolution, legal 38612
separation, annulment, or the allocation of parental rights and 38613
responsibilities for the care of children, in any action or 38614
proceeding, other than a criminal, delinquency, child abuse, child 38615
neglect, or dependent child action or proceeding, that is brought 38616
by or against either parent who takes part in mediation in 38617
accordance with the order and that pertains to the mediation 38618
process, to any information discussed or presented in the 38619
mediation process, to the allocation of parental rights and 38620
responsibilities for the care of the parents' children, or to the 38621
awarding of parenting time rights in relation to their children;38622

       (I) A communications assistant, acting within the scope of 38623
the communication assistant's authority, when providing 38624
telecommunications relay service pursuant to section 4931.06 of 38625
the Revised Code or Title II of the "Communications Act of 1934," 38626
104 Stat. 366 (1990), 47 U.S.C. 225, concerning a communication 38627
made through a telecommunications relay service. Nothing in this 38628
section shall limit the obligation of a communications assistant 38629
to divulge information or testify when mandated by federal law or 38630
regulation or pursuant to subpoena in a criminal proceeding.38631

       Nothing in this section shall limit any immunity or privilege 38632
granted under federal law or regulation.38633

       (J)(1) A chiropractor in a civil proceeding concerning a 38634
communication made to the chiropractor by a patient in that 38635
relation or the chiropractor's advice to a patient, except as 38636
otherwise provided in this division. The testimonial privilege 38637
established under this division does not apply, and a chiropractor 38638
may testify or may be compelled to testify, in any civil action, 38639
in accordance with the discovery provisions of the Rules of Civil 38640
Procedure in connection with a civil action, or in connection with 38641
a claim under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code, under any of the 38642
following circumstances:38643

       (a) If the patient or the guardian or other legal 38644
representative of the patient gives express consent.38645

       (b) If the patient is deceased, the spouse of the patient or 38646
the executor or administrator of the patient's estate gives 38647
express consent.38648

       (c) If a medical claim, dental claim, chiropractic claim, or 38649
optometric claim, as defined in section 2305.113 of the Revised 38650
Code, an action for wrongful death, any other type of civil 38651
action, or a claim under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code is 38652
filed by the patient, the personal representative of the estate of 38653
the patient if deceased, or the patient's guardian or other legal 38654
representative.38655

       (2) If the testimonial privilege described in division (J)(1) 38656
of this section does not apply as provided in division (J)(1)(c) 38657
of this section, a chiropractor may be compelled to testify or to 38658
submit to discovery under the Rules of Civil Procedure only as to 38659
a communication made to the chiropractor by the patient in 38660
question in that relation, or the chiropractor's advice to the 38661
patient in question, that related causally or historically to 38662
physical or mental injuries that are relevant to issues in the 38663
medical claim, dental claim, chiropractic claim, or optometric 38664
claim, action for wrongful death, other civil action, or claim 38665
under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code.38666

       (3) The testimonial privilege established under this division 38667
does not apply, and a chiropractor may testify or be compelled to 38668
testify, in any criminal action or administrative proceeding.38669

       (4) As used in this division, "communication" means 38670
acquiring, recording, or transmitting any information, in any 38671
manner, concerning any facts, opinions, or statements necessary to 38672
enable a chiropractor to diagnose, treat, or act for a patient. A 38673
communication may include, but is not limited to, any 38674
chiropractic, office, or hospital communication such as a record, 38675
chart, letter, memorandum, laboratory test and results, x-ray, 38676
photograph, financial statement, diagnosis, or prognosis.38677

       (K)(1) Except as provided under division (K)(2) of this 38678
section, a critical incident stress management team member 38679
concerning a communication received from an individual who 38680
receives crisis response services from the team member, or the 38681
team member's advice to the individual, during a debriefing 38682
session.38683

        (2) The testimonial privilege established under division 38684
(K)(1) of this section does not apply if any of the following are 38685
true:38686

        (a) The communication or advice indicates clear and present 38687
danger to the individual who receives crisis response services or 38688
to other persons. For purposes of this division, cases in which 38689
there are indications of present or past child abuse or neglect of 38690
the individual constitute a clear and present danger.38691

        (b) The individual who received crisis response services 38692
gives express consent to the testimony.38693

       (c) If the individual who received crisis response services 38694
is deceased, the surviving spouse or the executor or administrator 38695
of the estate of the deceased individual gives express consent.38696

        (d) The individual who received crisis response services 38697
voluntarily testifies, in which case the team member may be 38698
compelled to testify on the same subject.38699

        (e) The court in camera determines that the information 38700
communicated by the individual who received crisis response 38701
services is not germane to the relationship between the individual 38702
and the team member.38703

       (f) The communication or advice pertains or is related to any 38704
criminal act.38705

       (3) As used in division (K) of this section:38706

       (a) "Crisis response services" means consultation, risk 38707
assessment, referral, and on-site crisis intervention services 38708
provided by a critical incident stress management team to 38709
individuals affected by crisis or disaster.38710

       (b) "Critical incident stress management team member" or 38711
"team member" means an individual specially trained to provide 38712
crisis response services as a member of an organized community or 38713
local crisis response team that holds membership in the Ohio 38714
critical incident stress management network.38715

       (c) "Debriefing session" means a session at which crisis 38716
response services are rendered by a critical incident stress 38717
management team member during or after a crisis or disaster.38718

       (L)(1) Subject to division (L)(2) of this section and except 38719
as provided in division (L)(3) of this section, an employee 38720
assistance professional, concerning a communication made to the 38721
employee assistance professional by a client in the employee 38722
assistance professional's official capacity as an employee 38723
assistance professional.38724

        (2) Division (L)(1) of this section applies to an employee 38725
assistance professional who meets either or both of the following 38726
requirements:38727

        (a) Is certified by the employee assistance certification 38728
commission to engage in the employee assistance profession;38729

        (b) Has education, training, and experience in all of the 38730
following:38731

        (i) Providing workplace-based services designed to address 38732
employer and employee productivity issues;38733

        (ii) Providing assistance to employees and employees' 38734
dependents in identifying and finding the means to resolve 38735
personal problems that affect the employees or the employees' 38736
performance;38737

       (iii) Identifying and resolving productivity problems 38738
associated with an employee's concerns about any of the following 38739
matters: health, marriage, family, finances, substance abuse or 38740
other addiction, workplace, law, and emotional issues;38741

       (iv) Selecting and evaluating available community resources;38742

        (v) Making appropriate referrals;38743

        (vi) Local and national employee assistance agreements;38744

        (vii) Client confidentiality.38745

        (3) Division (L)(1) of this section does not apply to any of 38746
the following:38747

        (a) A criminal action or proceeding involving an offense 38748
under sections 2903.01 to 2903.06 of the Revised Code if the 38749
employee assistance professional's disclosure or testimony relates 38750
directly to the facts or immediate circumstances of the offense;38751

        (b) A communication made by a client to an employee 38752
assistance professional that reveals the contemplation or 38753
commission of a crime or serious, harmful act;38754

        (c) A communication that is made by a client who is an 38755
unemancipated minor or an adult adjudicated to be incompetent and 38756
indicates that the client was the victim of a crime or abuse;38757

       (d) A civil proceeding to determine an individual's mental 38758
competency or a criminal action in which a plea of not guilty by 38759
reason of insanity is entered;38760

        (e) A civil or criminal malpractice action brought against 38761
the employee assistance professional;38762

        (f) When the employee assistance professional has the express 38763
consent of the client or, if the client is deceased or disabled, 38764
the client's legal representative;38765

        (g) When the testimonial privilege otherwise provided by 38766
division (L)(1) of this section is abrogated under law.38767

       Sec. 2317.422.  (A) Notwithstanding sections 2317.40 and 38768
2317.41 of the Revised Code but subject to division (B) of this 38769
section, the records, or copies or photographs of the records, of 38770
a hospital, homes required to be licensed pursuant to section 38771
3721.01 of the Revised Code, and residential facilities licensed 38772
pursuant to section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code that 38773
provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care services 38774
for three to sixteen unrelated adults, in lieu of the testimony in 38775
open court of their custodian, person who made them, or person 38776
under whose supervision they were made, may be qualified as 38777
authentic evidence if any such person endorses thereon the 38778
person's verified certification identifying such records, giving 38779
the mode and time of their preparation, and stating that they were 38780
prepared in the usual course of the business of the institution. 38781
Such records, copies, or photographs may not be qualified by 38782
certification as provided in this section unless the party 38783
intending to offer them delivers a copy of them, or of their 38784
relevant portions, to the attorney of record for each adverse 38785
party not less than five days before trial. Nothing in this 38786
section shall be construed to limit the right of any party to call 38787
the custodian, person who made such records, or person under whose 38788
supervision they were made, as a witness.38789

       (B) Division (A) of this section does not apply to any 38790
certified copy of the results of any test given to determine the 38791
presence or concentration of alcohol, a drug of abuse, a 38792
combination of them, a controlled substance, or a metabolite of a 38793
controlled substance in a patient's whole blood, blood serum or 38794
plasma, breath, or urine at any time relevant to a criminal 38795
offense that is submitted in a criminal action or proceeding in 38796
accordance with division (B)(2)(b) or (B)(3)(b) of section 2317.02 38797
of the Revised Code.38798

       Sec. 2329.192. (A) As used in this section:38799

        (1) "State lien" means a lien upon real estate, including 38800
lands and tenements, of persons indebted to the state for debt, 38801
taxes, or in any other manner recorded by a state agency in any 38802
office of the clerk of a county court or the county recorder.38803

        (2) "State lienholder" means the department, agency, or other 38804
division of the state in whose name a state lien has been filed or 38805
recorded.38806

        (B) In every action seeking the judicial sale of real estate 38807
that is subject to a state lien, all of the following apply:38808

        (1) The party seeking a judicial sale shall include the state 38809
lienholder as a party defendant and shall serve that state 38810
lienholder with a copy of the preliminary judicial report or 38811
commitment for an owner's fee policy of title insurance filed in 38812
accordance with section 2329.191 of the Revised Code.38813

        (2) A state lienholder shall not be made a party defendant if 38814
no state lien has been recorded against the owner of the real 38815
estate for which the judicial sale is sought.38816

        (3) The appearance of the state lienholder shall be presumed 38817
for purposes of jurisdiction, and the court shall take judicial 38818
notice that the state has a lien against the real estate.38819

        (4) A state lienholder may, but is not required to, file an 38820
answer to the complaint or any other pleading in the action if the 38821
amount, validity, or priority of the state lien is not identified 38822
in the pleadings as disputed and shall file an answer to the 38823
complaint or any other pleading in the action if the amount, 38824
validity, or priority of the state lien is identified in the 38825
pleadings as disputed. If a state lien is not identified as 38826
disputed, unless the state files an answer or other responsive 38827
pleading, the party seeking the judicial sale is not required to 38828
serve the state lienholder with any answer or subsequent pleadings 38829
in the action for judicial sale.38830

        (5) As part of any order confirming the sale of the real 38831
estate that is subject to any undisputed state lien or 38832
distributing the proceeds of any judicial sale of real estate, the 38833
undisputed state lien shall be protected as if the state had 38834
appeared in the action and filed an answer asserting the validity 38835
of the state lien as recorded in the office of the clerk of the 38836
county court or the office of the county recorder.38837

        (6) Any party asserting a dispute as to the amount, validity, 38838
or priority of the state lien or of any lien or other interest 38839
that has priority over the state lien shall serve the state 38840
lienholder and the attorney general with notice of the dispute, 38841
and the state lienholder shall be permitted to file a responsive 38842
pleading and participate in the proceedings as if the state 38843
lienholder had been served with a summons on the date the state 38844
lienholder received notice of the dispute.38845

        (C) Upon the judicial sale of the real estate that is the 38846
subject of an action under division (B) of this section, the 38847
interest of any undisputed state lien shall transfer to the 38848
proceeds of the sale of the real estate, and the state lienholder 38849
shall be entitled to payment from the proceeds of the sale of the 38850
real estate in accordance with the state lienholder's priority as 38851
set forth in the final judicial report or commitment for an 38852
owner's fee policy of title insurance filed in accordance with 38853
section 2329.191 of the Revised Code.38854

       Sec. 2335.09.  Whenever, in any criminal proceeding or 38855
prosecution for the violation of an ordinance, or in a hearing 38856
before a coroner, an interpreter is necessary, the judge, 38857
magistrate, or coroner may appoint interpreters, who shall receive 38858
fees as witnesses in the case or proceeding. Such fees shall be 38859
taxed and paid as provided by sections 2335.05 to 2335.08, 38860
inclusive, of the Revised Code for other witness fees. If the 38861
party taxed with costs is indigent, interpreter's fees shall not 38862
be taxed as costs, and the legislative authority of the court 38863
shall pay the interpreter's fees. This section shall not apply if, 38864
by law, an interpreter is otherwise provided.38865

       Sec. 2335.11.  In felony cases in which the defendant is 38866
convicted, the fees of the various magistrates and their officers, 38867
the witness fees, and interpreter's fees shall be inserted in the 38868
judgment of conviction and, when collected shall be disbursed by 38869
the clerk of the court of common pleas to the persons entitled 38870
thereto. In minor state cases, which have come to the court of 38871
common pleas through such magistrate's courts, the fees enumerated 38872
by this section shall be inserted in the judgment of conviction 38873
and, when collected shall be disbursed by the clerk to the persons 38874
entitled thereto. In both felonies and minor state cases, such 38875
clerk shall pay the witness and interpreter's fees into the county 38876
treasury, monthly.38877

       If the defendant is indigent, the interpreter's fees shall 38878
not be inserted in the judgment of conviction, and the county 38879
shall pay the interpreter's fees.38880

       In all cases in which recognizances are taken, forfeited, and 38881
collected, the amount recovered shall be paid into the county 38882
treasury, and if no conviction is had, such costs shall be paid by 38883
the county upon the allowance of the county auditor.38884

       Sec. 2501.16.  (A) Each court of appeals may appoint one or 38885
more official reporters, law clerks, secretaries, and any other 38886
employees that the court considers necessary for its efficient 38887
operation.38888

       The clerk of the court of common pleas, acting as the clerk 38889
of the court of appeals for the county, shall perform the duties 38890
otherwise performed and collect the fees otherwise collected by 38891
the clerk of the court of common pleas, as set forth in section 38892
2303.03 of the Revised Code, and shall maintain the files and 38893
records of the court. The clerk of the court of common pleas, 38894
acting as the clerk of the court of appeals for the county, may 38895
refuse to accept for filing any pleading or paper submitted for 38896
filing by a person who has been found to be a vexatious litigator 38897
under section 2323.52 of the Revised Code and who has failed to 38898
obtain leave from the court of appeals to proceed under that 38899
section. The overhead expenses pertaining to the office of the 38900
clerk of the court of common pleas that result from the clerk's 38901
acting as clerk of the court of appeals for the county, other than 38902
wages and salaries, shall be paid from the funds provided under 38903
sections 2501.18 and 2501.181 of the Revised Code.38904

       Each officer and employee appointed pursuant to this section 38905
shall take an oath of office, serve at the pleasure of the court, 38906
and perform any duties that the court directs. Each reporter shall 38907
have the powers that are vested in official reporters of the court 38908
of common pleas under sections 2301.18 to 2301.262301.25 of the 38909
Revised Code. Whenever an opinion, per curiam, or report of a case 38910
has been prepared in accordance with section 2503.20 of the 38911
Revised Code, the official reporter immediately shall forward one 38912
copy of the opinion, per curiam, or report to the reporter of the 38913
supreme court, without expense to the reporter.38914

       (B) The court of appeals may determine that, for the 38915
efficient operation of the court, additional funds are necessary 38916
to acquire and pay for special projects of the court, including, 38917
but not limited to, the acquisition of additional facilities or 38918
the rehabilitation of existing facilities, the acquisition of 38919
equipment, the hiring and training of staff, the employment of 38920
magistrates, the training and education of judges, acting judges, 38921
and magistrates, community service programs, and other related 38922
services. Upon that determination, the court by rule may charge a 38923
fee, in addition to all other court costs, on the filing of each 38924
case or cause over which the court has jurisdiction.38925

       If the court of appeals offers a special program or service 38926
in cases of a specific type, the court by rule may assess an 38927
additional charge in a case of that type, over and above court 38928
costs, to cover the special program or service. The court shall 38929
adjust the special assessment periodically, but not retroactively, 38930
so that the amount assessed in those cases does not exceed the 38931
actual cost of providing the service or program.38932

       All moneys collected under division (B) of this section shall 38933
be paid to the county treasurer of the county selected as the 38934
principal seat of that court of appeals for deposit into either a 38935
general special projects fund or a fund established for a specific 38936
special project. Moneys from a fund of that nature shall be 38937
disbursed upon an order of the court in an amount no greater than 38938
the actual cost to the court of a project. If a specific fund is 38939
terminated because of the discontinuance of a program or service 38940
established under division (B) of this section, the court may 38941
order that moneys remaining in the fund be transferred to an 38942
account established under this division for a similar purpose.38943

       Sec. 2505.02.  (A) As used in this section:38944

       (1) "Substantial right" means a right that the United States 38945
Constitution, the Ohio Constitution, a statute, the common law, or 38946
a rule of procedure entitles a person to enforce or protect.38947

       (2) "Special proceeding" means an action or proceeding that 38948
is specially created by statute and that prior to 1853 was not 38949
denoted as an action at law or a suit in equity.38950

       (3) "Provisional remedy" means a proceeding ancillary to an 38951
action, including, but not limited to, a proceeding for a 38952
preliminary injunction, attachment, discovery of privileged 38953
matter, suppression of evidence, a prima-facie showing pursuant to 38954
section 2307.85 or 2307.86 of the Revised Code, a prima-facie 38955
showing pursuant to section 2307.92 of the Revised Code, or a 38956
finding made pursuant to division (A)(3) of section 2307.93 of the 38957
Revised Code.38958

       (B) An order is a final order that may be reviewed, affirmed, 38959
modified, or reversed, with or without retrial, when it is one of 38960
the following:38961

       (1) An order that affects a substantial right in an action 38962
that in effect determines the action and prevents a judgment;38963

       (2) An order that affects a substantial right made in a 38964
special proceeding or upon a summary application in an action 38965
after judgment;38966

       (3) An order that vacates or sets aside a judgment or grants 38967
a new trial;38968

       (4) An order that grants or denies a provisional remedy and 38969
to which both of the following apply:38970

       (a) The order in effect determines the action with respect to 38971
the provisional remedy and prevents a judgment in the action in 38972
favor of the appealing party with respect to the provisional 38973
remedy.38974

       (b) The appealing party would not be afforded a meaningful or 38975
effective remedy by an appeal following final judgment as to all 38976
proceedings, issues, claims, and parties in the action.38977

       (5) An order that determines that an action may or may not be 38978
maintained as a class action;38979

       (6) An order determining the constitutionality of any changes 38980
to the Revised Code made by Am. Sub. S.B. 281 of the 124th general 38981
assembly, including the amendment of sections 1751.67, 2117.06, 38982
2305.11, 2305.15, 2305.234, 2317.02, 2317.54, 2323.56, 2711.21, 38983
2711.22, 2711.23, 2711.24, 2743.02, 2743.43, 2919.16, 3923.63, 38984
3923.64, 4705.15, and 5111.018 (renumbered as 5164.07 by H.B. 59 38985
of the 130th general assembly), and the enactment of sections 38986
2305.113, 2323.41, 2323.43, and 2323.55 of the Revised Code or any 38987
changes made by Sub. S.B. 80 of the 125th general assembly, 38988
including the amendment of sections 2125.02, 2305.10, 2305.131, 38989
2315.18, 2315.19, and 2315.21 of the Revised Code;38990

       (7) An order in an appropriation proceeding that may be 38991
appealed pursuant to division (B)(3) of section 163.09 of the 38992
Revised Code.38993

       (C) When a court issues an order that vacates or sets aside a 38994
judgment or grants a new trial, the court, upon the request of 38995
either party, shall state in the order the grounds upon which the 38996
new trial is granted or the judgment vacated or set aside.38997

       (D) This section applies to and governs any action, including 38998
an appeal, that is pending in any court on July 22, 1998, and all 38999
claims filed or actions commenced on or after July 22, 1998, 39000
notwithstanding any provision of any prior statute or rule of law 39001
of this state.39002

       Sec. 2701.03.  (A) If a judge of the court of common pleas 39003
allegedly is interested in a proceeding pending before the court, 39004
allegedly is related to or has a bias or prejudice for or against 39005
a party to a proceeding pending before the court or a party's 39006
counsel, or allegedly otherwise is disqualified to preside in a 39007
proceeding pending before the court, any party to the proceeding 39008
or the party's counsel may file an affidavit of disqualification 39009
with the clerk of the supreme court in accordance with division 39010
(B) of this section.39011

       (B) An affidavit of disqualification filed under section 39012
2101.39 or, 2501.13, 2701.031, or 2743.041 of the Revised Code or 39013
division (A) of this section shall be filed with the clerk of the 39014
supreme court not less than seven calendar days before the day on 39015
which the next hearing in the proceeding is scheduled and shall 39016
include all of the following:39017

       (1) The specific allegations on which the claim of interest, 39018
bias, prejudice, or disqualification is based and the facts to 39019
support each of those allegations or, in relation to an affidavit 39020
filed against a judge of a court of appeals, a specific allegation 39021
that the judge presided in the lower court in the same proceeding 39022
and the facts to support that allegation;39023

       (2) The jurat of a notary public or another person authorized 39024
to administer oaths or affirmations;39025

       (3) A certificate indicating that a copy of the affidavit has 39026
been served on the probate judge, judge of a court of appeals, or39027
judge of a court of common pleas, judge of a municipal or county 39028
court, or judge of the court of claims against whom the affidavit 39029
is filed and on all other parties or their counsel;39030

       (4) The date of the next scheduled hearing in the proceeding 39031
or, if there is no hearing scheduled, a statement that there is no 39032
hearing scheduled.39033

       (C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section, 39034
when an affidavit of disqualification is presented to the clerk of 39035
the supreme court for filing under division (B) of this section, 39036
all of the following apply:39037

       (a) The clerk of the supreme court shall accept the affidavit 39038
for filing and shall forward the affidavit to the chief justice of 39039
the supreme court.39040

       (b) The supreme court shall send notice of the filing of the 39041
affidavit to the probate court served by the judge if the 39042
affidavit is filed against a probate court judge, to the clerk of 39043
the court of appeals served by the judge if the affidavit is filed 39044
against a judge of a court of appeals, or to the clerk of the 39045
court of common pleas served by the judge if the affidavit is 39046
filed against a judge of a court of common pleas, to the clerk of 39047
the municipal or county court served by the judge if the affidavit 39048
is filed against a judge of a municipal or county court, or to the 39049
clerk of the court of claims if the affidavit is filed against a 39050
judge of the court of claims.39051

       (c) Upon receipt of the notice under division (C)(1)(b) of 39052
this section, the probate court, the clerk of the court of 39053
appeals, or the clerk of the court of common pleas, the clerk of 39054
the municipal or county court, or the clerk of the court of claims39055
shall enter the fact of the filing of the affidavit on the docket 39056
of the probate court, the docket of the court of appeals, or the 39057
docket in the proceeding in the court of common pleas, the docket 39058
of the proceeding in the municipal or county court, or the docket 39059
of the proceeding in the court of claims.39060

       (2) The clerk of the supreme court shall not accept an 39061
affidavit of disqualification presented for filing under division 39062
(B) of this section if it is not timely presented for filing or 39063
does not satisfy the requirements of divisions (B)(2), (3), and 39064
(4) of this section.39065

       (D)(1) Except as provided in divisions (D)(2) to (4) of this 39066
section, if the clerk of the supreme court accepts an affidavit of 39067
disqualification for filing under divisions (B) and (C) of this 39068
section, the affidavit deprives the judge against whom the 39069
affidavit was filed of any authority to preside in the proceeding 39070
until the chief justice of the supreme court, or a justice of the 39071
supreme court designated by the chief justice, rules on the 39072
affidavit pursuant to division (E) of this section.39073

       (2) A judge against whom an affidavit of disqualification has 39074
been filed under divisions (B) and (C) of this section may do any 39075
of the following that is applicable:39076

       (a) If, based on the scheduled hearing date, the affidavit 39077
was not timely filed, the judge may preside in the proceeding.39078

       (b) If the proceeding is a domestic relations proceeding, the 39079
judge may issue any temporary order relating to spousal support 39080
pendente lite and the support, maintenance, and allocation of 39081
parental rights and responsibilities for the care of children.39082

       (c) If the proceeding pertains to a complaint brought 39083
pursuant to Chapter 2151. or 2152. of the Revised Code, the judge 39084
may issue any temporary order pertaining to the relation and 39085
conduct of any other person toward a child who is the subject of a 39086
complaint as the interest and welfare of the child may require.39087

       (3) A judge against whom an affidavit of disqualification has 39088
been filed under divisions (B) and (C) of this section may 39089
determine a matter that does not affect a substantive right of any 39090
of the parties.39091

       (4) If the clerk of the supreme court accepts an affidavit of 39092
disqualification for filing under divisions (B) and (C) of this 39093
section, if the chief justice of the supreme court, or a justice 39094
of the supreme court designated by the chief justice, denies the 39095
affidavit of disqualification pursuant to division (E) of this 39096
section, and if, after the denial, a second or subsequent 39097
affidavit of disqualification regarding the same judge and the 39098
same proceeding is filed by the same party who filed or on whose 39099
behalf was filed the affidavit that was denied or by counsel for 39100
the same party who filed or on whose behalf was filed the 39101
affidavit that was denied, the judge against whom the second or 39102
subsequent affidavit is filed may preside in the proceeding prior 39103
to the ruling of the chief justice of the supreme court, or a 39104
justice designated by the chief justice, on the second or 39105
subsequent affidavit.39106

       (E) If the clerk of the supreme court accepts an affidavit of 39107
disqualification for filing under divisions (B) and (C) of this 39108
section and if the chief justice of the supreme court, or any 39109
justice of the supreme court designated by the chief justice, 39110
determines that the interest, bias, prejudice, or disqualification 39111
alleged in the affidavit does not exist, the chief justice or the 39112
designated justice shall issue an entry denying the affidavit of 39113
disqualification. If the chief justice of the supreme court, or 39114
any justice of the supreme court designated by the chief justice, 39115
determines that the interest, bias, prejudice, or disqualification 39116
alleged in the affidavit exists, the chief justice or the 39117
designated justice shall issue an entry that disqualifies that 39118
judge from presiding in the proceeding and either order that the 39119
proceeding be assigned to another judge of the court of which the 39120
disqualified judge is a member, to a judge of another court, or to 39121
a retired judge.39122

       Sec. 2701.031. (A) If a judge of a municipal or county court 39123
allegedly is interested in a proceeding pending before the judge, 39124
allegedly is related to or has a bias or prejudice for or against 39125
a party to a proceeding pending before the judge or to a party's 39126
counsel, or allegedly otherwise is disqualified to preside in a 39127
proceeding pending before the judge, any party to the proceeding 39128
or the party's counsel may file an affidavit of disqualification 39129
with the clerk of the supreme court in which the proceeding is 39130
pending. The affidavit of disqualification shall be filed and 39131
decided in accordance with divisions (B) to (E) of section 2701.03 39132
of the Revised Code, and, upon the filing of the affidavit, the 39133
provisions of those divisions apply to the affidavit, the 39134
proceeding, the judge, and the parties to the proceeding.39135

       (B) An affidavit of disqualification shall be filed under 39136
this section with the clerk of the court in which the proceeding 39137
is pending not less than seven calendar days before the day on 39138
which the next hearing in the proceeding is scheduled and shall 39139
include all of the following:39140

       (1) The specific allegations on which the claim of interest, 39141
bias, prejudice, or disqualification is based and the facts to 39142
support each of those allegations;39143

       (2) The jurat of a notary public or another person authorized 39144
to administer oaths or affirmations;39145

       (3) A certificate indicating that a copy of the affidavit has 39146
been served on the judge of the municipal or county court against 39147
whom the affidavit is filed and on all other parties or their 39148
counsel;39149

       (4) The date of the next scheduled hearing in the proceeding 39150
or, if there is no hearing scheduled, a statement that there is no 39151
hearing scheduled.39152

       (C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section, 39153
when an affidavit of disqualification is presented to the clerk of 39154
a municipal or county court for filing under division (B) of this 39155
section, the clerk shall enter the fact of the filing on the 39156
docket in that proceeding and shall provide notice of the filing 39157
of the affidavit to one of the following:39158

       (a) The presiding judge of the court of common pleas of the 39159
county;39160

       (b) If there is no presiding judge of the court of common 39161
pleas of the county, a judge of the court of common pleas of the 39162
county.39163

       (2) The clerk of the municipal or county court in which a 39164
proceeding is pending shall not accept an affidavit of 39165
disqualification presented for filing under division (B) of this 39166
section if it is not timely presented for filing or does not 39167
satisfy the requirements of divisions (B)(2), (3), and (4) of this 39168
section.39169

       (D)(1) Except as provided in divisions (D)(2) to (4) of this 39170
section, if the clerk of the municipal or county court in which a 39171
proceeding is pending accepts an affidavit of disqualification for 39172
filing under divisions (B) and (C) of this section, the affidavit 39173
deprives the judge of a municipal or county court against whom the 39174
affidavit was filed of any authority to preside in the proceeding 39175
until the judge who was notified pursuant to division (C)(1) of 39176
this section rules on the affidavit pursuant to division (E) of 39177
this section.39178

       (2) A judge of a municipal or county court against whom an 39179
affidavit of disqualification has been filed under divisions (B) 39180
and (C) of this section may preside in the proceeding if, based on 39181
the scheduled hearing date, the affidavit was not timely filed.39182

       (3) A judge of a municipal or county court against whom an 39183
affidavit of disqualification has been filed under divisions (B) 39184
and (C) of this section may determine a matter that does not 39185
affect a substantive right of any of the parties.39186

       (4) If the clerk of a municipal or county court accepts an 39187
affidavit of disqualification for filing under divisions (B) and 39188
(C) of this section, if the judge who is notified pursuant to 39189
division (C)(1) of this section of the filing of the affidavit of 39190
disqualification denies the affidavit pursuant to division (E) of 39191
this section, and if, after the denial, a second or subsequent 39192
affidavit of disqualification regarding the same judge and the 39193
same proceeding is filed by the same party who filed or on whose 39194
behalf was filed the affidavit that was denied or by counsel for 39195
the same party who filed or on whose behalf was filed the 39196
affidavit that was denied, the judge of a municipal or county 39197
court against whom the second or subsequent affidavit is filed may 39198
preside in the proceeding prior to the ruling, by the judge who is 39199
notified pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, on the 39200
second or subsequent affidavit pursuant to division (E) of this 39201
section.39202

       (E) If the clerk of a municipal or county court accepts an 39203
affidavit of disqualification for filing under divisions (B) and 39204
(C) of this section and if the judge who is notified pursuant to 39205
division (C)(1) of this section of the filing of the affidavit 39206
determines that the interest, bias, prejudice, or disqualification 39207
alleged in the affidavit does not exist, the judge who is so 39208
notified shall issue an entry denying the affidavit of 39209
disqualification. If the judge who is notified pursuant to 39210
division (C)(1) of this section of the filing of the affidavit 39211
determines that the interest, bias, prejudice, or disqualification 39212
alleged in the affidavit exists, the judge who is so notified 39213
shall issue an entry that disqualifies the judge against whom the 39214
affidavit was filed from presiding in the proceeding and designate 39215
another judge of the municipal or county court, or of the court of 39216
common pleas, to preside in the proceeding in place of the 39217
disqualified judge.39218

       Sec. 2743.03.  (A)(1) There is hereby created a court of 39219
claims. The court of claims is a court of record and has 39220
exclusive, original jurisdiction of all civil actions against the 39221
state permitted by the waiver of immunity contained in section 39222
2743.02 of the Revised Code,and exclusive jurisdiction of the 39223
causes of action of all parties in civil actions that are removed 39224
to the court of claims, and jurisdiction to hear appeals from the 39225
decisions of the court of claims commissioners. The court shall 39226
have full equity powers in all actions within its jurisdiction and 39227
may entertain and determine all counterclaims, cross-claims, and 39228
third-party claims.39229

       (2) If the claimant in a civil action as described in 39230
division (A)(1) of this section also files a claim for a 39231
declaratory judgment, injunctive relief, or other equitable relief 39232
against the state that arises out of the same circumstances that 39233
gave rise to the civil action described in division (A)(1) of this 39234
section, the court of claims has exclusive, original jurisdiction 39235
to hear and determine that claim in that civil action. This 39236
division does not affect, and shall not be construed as affecting, 39237
the original jurisdiction of another court of this state to hear 39238
and determine a civil action in which the sole relief that the 39239
claimant seeks against the state is a declaratory judgment, 39240
injunctive relief, or other equitable relief.39241

       (3) In addition to its exclusive, original jurisdiction as 39242
conferred by division (A)(1) and (2) of this section, the court of 39243
claims has exclusive, original jurisdiction as described in 39244
division (F) of section 2743.02, division (B) of section 3335.03, 39245
and division (C) of section 5903.02 of the Revised Code.39246

       (B) The court of claims shall sit in Franklin county, its 39247
hearings shall be public, and it shall consist of incumbent 39248
justices or judges of the supreme court, courts of appeals, or 39249
courts of common pleas, or retired justices or judges eligible for 39250
active duty pursuant to division (C) of Section 6 of Article IV, 39251
Ohio Constitution, sitting by temporary assignment of the chief 39252
justice of the supreme court. The chief justice may direct the 39253
court to sit in any county for cases on removal upon a showing of 39254
substantial hardship and whenever justice dictates.39255

       (C)(1) A civil action against the state shall be heard and 39256
determined by a single judge. Upon application by the claimant or 39257
the state, the chief justice of the supreme court may assign a 39258
panel of three judges to hear and determine a civil action 39259
presenting novel or complex issues of law or fact. Concurrence of 39260
two members of the panel is necessary for any judgment or order.39261

       (2) Whenever the chief justice of the supreme court believes 39262
an equitable resolution of a case will be expedited, the chief 39263
justice may appoint refereesmagistrates in accordance with Civil 39264
Rule 53 to hear the case.39265

       (3) When any dispute under division (B) of section 153.12 of 39266
the Revised Code is brought to the court of claims, upon request 39267
of either party to the dispute, the chief justice of the supreme 39268
court shall appoint a single referee or a panel of three referees. 39269
The referees need not be attorneys, but shall be persons 39270
knowledgeable about construction contract law, a member of the 39271
construction industry panel of the American arbitration 39272
association, or an individual or individuals deemed qualified by 39273
the chief justice to serve. No person shall serve as a referee if 39274
that person has been employed by an affected state agency or a 39275
contractor or subcontractor involved in the dispute at any time in 39276
the preceding five years. Proceedings governing referees shall be 39277
in accordance with Civil Rule 53, except as modified by this 39278
division. The referee or panel of referees shall submit its 39279
report, which shall include a recommendation and finding of fact, 39280
to the judge assigned to the case by the chief justice, within 39281
thirty days of the conclusion of the hearings. Referees appointed 39282
pursuant to this division shall be compensated on a per diem basis 39283
at the same rate as is paid to judges of the court and also shall 39284
be paid their expenses. If a single referee is appointed or a 39285
panel of three referees is appointed, then, with respect to one 39286
referee of the panel, the compensation and expenses of the referee 39287
shall not be taxed as part of the costs in the case but shall be 39288
included in the budget of the court. If a panel of three referees 39289
is appointed, the compensation and expenses of the two remaining 39290
referees shall be taxed as costs of the case.39291

       All costs of a case shall be apportioned among the parties. 39292
The court may not require that any party deposit with the court 39293
cash, bonds, or other security in excess of two hundred dollars to 39294
guarantee payment of costs without the prior approval in each case 39295
of the chief justice.39296

       (4) An appeal from a decision of the court of claims 39297
commissionersattorney general shall be heard and determined by 39298
one judge of the court of claims.39299

       (D) The Rules of Civil Procedure shall govern practice and 39300
procedure in all actions in the court of claims, except insofar as 39301
inconsistent with this chapter. The supreme court may promulgate 39302
rules governing practice and procedure in actions in the court as 39303
provided in Section 5 of Article IV, Ohio Constitution.39304

       (E)(1) A party who files a counterclaim against the state or 39305
makes the state a third-party defendant in an action commenced in 39306
any court, other than the court of claims, shall file a petition 39307
for removal in the court of claims. The petition shall state the 39308
basis for removal, be accompanied by a copy of all process, 39309
pleadings, and other papers served upon the petitioner, and shall 39310
be signed in accordance with Civil Rule 11. A petition for removal 39311
based on a counterclaim shall be filed within twenty-eight days 39312
after service of the counterclaim of the petitioner. A petition 39313
for removal based on third-party practice shall be filed within 39314
twenty-eight days after the filing of the third-party complaint of 39315
the petitioner.39316

       (2) Within seven days after filing a petition for removal, 39317
the petitioner shall give written notice to the parties, and shall 39318
file a copy of the petition with the clerk of the court in which 39319
the action was brought originally. The filing effects the removal 39320
of the action to the court of claims, and the clerk of the court 39321
where the action was brought shall forward all papers in the case 39322
to the court of claims. The court of claims shall adjudicate all 39323
civil actions removed. The court may remand a civil action to the 39324
court in which it originated upon a finding that the removal 39325
petition does not justify removal, or upon a finding that the 39326
state is no longer a party.39327

       (3) Bonds, undertakings, or security and injunctions, 39328
attachments, sequestrations, or other orders issued prior to 39329
removal remain in effect until dissolved or modified by the court 39330
of claims.39331

       Sec. 2743.041.  If a judge of the court of claims allegedly 39332
is interested in a proceeding pending before the judge, allegedly 39333
is related to or has a bias or prejudice for or against a party to 39334
a proceeding pending before the judge or to a party's counsel, or 39335
allegedly otherwise is disqualified to preside in a proceeding 39336
pending before the judge, any party to the proceeding or the 39337
party's counsel may file an affidavit of disqualification with the 39338
clerk of the supreme court. The affidavit of disqualification 39339
shall be filed and decided in accordance with divisions (B) to (E) 39340
of section 2701.03 of the Revised Code, and, upon the filing of 39341
the affidavit, the provisions of those divisions apply to the 39342
affidavit, the proceeding, the judge, and the parties to the 39343
proceeding.39344

       Sec. 2743.09.  The clerk of the court of claims shall do all 39345
of the following:39346

       (A) Administer oaths and take and certify affidavits, 39347
depositions, and acknowledgments of powers of attorney and other 39348
instruments in writing;39349

       (B) Prepare the dockets, enter and record the orders, 39350
judgments, decisions, awards, and proceedings of the court of 39351
claims and the court of claims commissioners, and issue writs and 39352
process;39353

       (C) Maintain an office in Franklin county in rooms provided 39354
by the supreme court for that purpose;39355

       (D) Keep an appearance docket of civil actions,and claims 39356
for an award of reparations, and appeals from decisions of the 39357
court of claims commissioners. The clerk may refuse to accept for 39358
filing any pleading or paper that relates to a civil action in the 39359
court of claims and that is submitted for filing by a person who 39360
has been found to be a vexatious litigator under section 2323.52 39361
of the Revised Code and who has failed to obtain leave to proceed 39362
under that section.39363

       Upon the commencement of an action or claim, the clerk shall 39364
assign it a number. This number shall be placed on the first page, 39365
and every continuation page, of the appearance docket that 39366
concerns the particular action or claim. In addition, this number 39367
and the names of the parties shall be placed on the case file and 39368
every paper filed in the action or claim.39369

       At the time the action is commenced the clerk shall enter in 39370
the appearance docket the names of the parties in full and the 39371
names of counsel and shall index the action alphabetically by the 39372
last name of each party. Thereafter, the clerk shall 39373
chronologically note in the appearance docket all process issued 39374
and returns, pleas, motions, papers filed in the action, orders, 39375
verdicts, and judgments. The notations shall be brief but shall 39376
show the date of filing, substance, and journal volume and page of 39377
each order, verdict, and judgment. An action is commenced for 39378
purposes of this division by the filing of a complaint, including 39379
a form complaint under section 2743.10 of the Revised Code or a 39380
petition for removal.39381

       At the time an appeal for an award of reparations is 39382
commenced, the clerk shall enter the full names of the claimant, 39383
the victim, and the attorneys in the appearance docket and shall 39384
index the claim alphabetically by the last name of the claimant 39385
and the victim. Thereafter, the clerk shall chronologically note 39386
in the appearance docket all process issued and returns, motions, 39387
papers filed in the claim, orders, decisions, and awards. The 39388
notations shall be brief but shall show the date of filing, 39389
substance, and journal volume and page of each order. 39390

       (E) Keep all original papers filed in an action or claim in a 39391
separate file folder and a journal in which all orders, verdicts, 39392
and judgments of the court and commissioners shall be recorded;39393

       (F) Charge and collect fees pursuant to section 2303.20 of 39394
the Revised Code, keep a cashbook in which the clerk shall enter 39395
the amounts received, make a report to the clerk of the supreme 39396
court each quarter of the fees received during the preceding 39397
quarter, and pay them monthly into the state treasury;39398

       (G) Appoint reporters and other clerical personnel;39399

       (H) Under the direction of the chief justice, establish 39400
procedures for hearing and determining appeals for an award of 39401
reparations pursuant to sections 2743.51 to 2743.72 of the Revised 39402
Code.39403

       Sec. 2743.121. (A) A panel of court of claims commissioners 39404
shall render its decisions as to claims for an award of 39405
reparations in writing and shall include separate findings of fact 39406
and any conclusions of law that are necessary. Orders as to claims 39407
for an award of reparations shall be entered on the journal, and 39408
the clerk shall certify on the order the date of journalization 39409
and shall send copies of the order and decision to the claimant, 39410
the attorney general, and the prosecuting attorney of the county 39411
in which the criminally injurious conduct occurred.39412

       (B) A judge of theThe court of claims shall render the 39413
judge'sits decisions as to appeals from decisions of a panel of 39414
court of claims commissionersthe attorney general pursuant to 39415
sections 2743.51 to 2743.72 of the Revised Code in writing and 39416
shall include a separate finding for each issue contested upon 39417
appeal. Orders as to appeals shall be entered on the journal, and 39418
the clerk shall certify on the order the date of journalization 39419
and shall send copies of the order and decision to the claimant, 39420
the attorney general, and the prosecuting attorney of the county 39421
in which the criminally injurious conduct occurred.39422

       Sec. 2743.191.  (A)(1) There is hereby created in the state 39423
treasury the reparations fund, which shall be used only for the 39424
following purposes:39425

       (a) The payment of awards of reparations that are granted by 39426
the attorney general;39427

       (b) The compensation of any personnel needed by the attorney 39428
general to administer sections 2743.51 to 2743.72 of the Revised 39429
Code;39430

       (c) The compensation of witnesses as provided in division (J) 39431
of section 2743.65 of the Revised Code;39432

       (d) Other administrative costs of hearing and determining 39433
claims for an award of reparations by the attorney general;39434

       (e) The costs of administering sections 2907.28 and 2969.01 39435
to 2969.06 of the Revised Code;39436

       (f) The costs of investigation and decision-making as 39437
certified by the attorney general;39438

       (g) The provision of state financial assistance to victim 39439
assistance programs in accordance with sections 109.91 and 109.92 39440
of the Revised Code;39441

       (h) The costs of paying the expenses of sex offense-related 39442
examinations and antibiotics pursuant to section 2907.28 of the 39443
Revised Code;39444

       (i) The cost of printing and distributing the pamphlet 39445
prepared by the attorney general pursuant to section 109.42 of the 39446
Revised Code;39447

       (j) Subject to division (D) of section 2743.71 of the Revised 39448
Code, the costs associated with the printing and providing of 39449
information cards or other printed materials to law enforcement 39450
agencies and prosecuting authorities and with publicizing the 39451
availability of awards of reparations pursuant to section 2743.71 39452
of the Revised Code;39453

       (k) The payment of costs of administering a DNA specimen 39454
collection procedure pursuant to sections 2152.74 and 2901.07 of 39455
the Revised Code, of performing DNA analysis of those DNA 39456
specimens, and of entering the resulting DNA records regarding 39457
those analyses into the DNA database pursuant to section 109.573 39458
of the Revised Code;39459

       (l) The payment of actual costs associated with initiatives 39460
by the attorney general for the apprehension, prosecution, and 39461
accountability of offenders, and the enhancing of services to 39462
crime victims. The amount of payments made pursuant to division 39463
(A)(1)(l) of this section during any given fiscal year shall not 39464
exceed five per cent of the balance of the reparations fund at the 39465
close of the immediately previous fiscal year;39466

       (m) The costs of administering the adult parole authority's 39467
supervision pursuant to division (E) of section 2971.05 of the 39468
Revised Code of sexually violent predators who are sentenced to a 39469
prison term pursuant to division (A)(3) of section 2971.03 of the 39470
Revised Code and of offenders who are sentenced to a prison term 39471
pursuant to division (B)(1)(a), (b), or (c), (B)(2)(a), (b), or 39472
(c), or (B)(3)(a), (b), (c), or (d) of that section;39473

        (n) Subject to the limit set forth in those sections, the 39474
costs of the installation and monitoring of an electronic 39475
monitoring device used in the monitoring of a respondent pursuant 39476
to an electronic monitoring order issued by a court under division 39477
(E)(1)(b) of section 2151.34 or division (E)(1)(b) of section 39478
2903.214 of the Revised Code if the court determines that the 39479
respondent is indigent or used in the monitoring of an offender 39480
pursuant to an electronic monitoring order issued under division 39481
(B)(5) of section 2919.27 of the Revised Code if the court 39482
determines that the offender is indigent;39483

        (o) The provision of state financial assistance to rape 39484
crisis programs by the attorney general.39485

       (2) All costs paid pursuant to section 2743.70 of the Revised 39486
Code, the portions of license reinstatement fees mandated by 39487
division (F)(2)(b) of section 4511.191 of the Revised Code to be 39488
credited to the fund, the portions of the proceeds of the sale of 39489
a forfeited vehicle specified in division (C)(2) of section 39490
4503.234 of the Revised Code, payments collected by the department 39491
of rehabilitation and correction from prisoners who voluntarily 39492
participate in an approved work and training program pursuant to 39493
division (C)(8)(b)(ii) of section 5145.16 of the Revised Code, and 39494
all moneys collected by the state pursuant to its right of 39495
subrogation provided in section 2743.72 of the Revised Code shall 39496
be deposited in the fund.39497

       (B) In making an award of reparations, the attorney general 39498
shall render the award against the state. The award shall be 39499
accomplished only through the following procedure, and the 39500
following procedure may be enforced by writ of mandamus directed 39501
to the appropriate official:39502

       (1) The attorney general shall provide for payment of the 39503
claimant or providers in the amount of the award only if the 39504
amount of the award is fifty dollars or more.39505

       (2) The expense shall be charged against all available 39506
unencumbered moneys in the fund.39507

       (3) If sufficient unencumbered moneys do not exist in the 39508
fund, the attorney general shall make application for payment of 39509
the award out of the emergency purposes account or any other 39510
appropriation for emergencies or contingencies, and payment out of 39511
this account or other appropriation shall be authorized if there 39512
are sufficient moneys greater than the sum total of then pending 39513
emergency purposes account requests or requests for releases from 39514
the other appropriations.39515

       (4) If sufficient moneys do not exist in the account or any 39516
other appropriation for emergencies or contingencies to pay the 39517
award, the attorney general shall request the general assembly to 39518
make an appropriation sufficient to pay the award, and no payment 39519
shall be made until the appropriation has been made. The attorney 39520
general shall make this appropriation request during the current 39521
biennium and during each succeeding biennium until a sufficient 39522
appropriation is made. If, prior to the time that an appropriation 39523
is made by the general assembly pursuant to this division, the 39524
fund has sufficient unencumbered funds to pay the award or part of 39525
the award, the available funds shall be used to pay the award or 39526
part of the award, and the appropriation request shall be amended 39527
to request only sufficient funds to pay that part of the award 39528
that is unpaid.39529

       (C) The attorney general shall not make payment on a decision 39530
or order granting an award until all appeals have been determined 39531
and all rights to appeal exhausted, except as otherwise provided 39532
in this section. If any party to a claim for an award of 39533
reparations appeals from only a portion of an award, and a 39534
remaining portion provides for the payment of money by the state, 39535
that part of the award calling for the payment of money by the 39536
state and not a subject of the appeal shall be processed for 39537
payment as described in this section.39538

       (D) The attorney general shall prepare itemized bills for the 39539
costs of printing and distributing the pamphlet the attorney 39540
general prepares pursuant to section 109.42 of the Revised Code. 39541
The itemized bills shall set forth the name and address of the 39542
persons owed the amounts set forth in them.39543

       (E) The attorney general shall adopt rules under Chapter 119. 39544
of the Revised Code governing the provision of state financial 39545
assistance to rape crisis programs under division (A)(1)(o) of 39546
this section.39547

        (F) As used in this section,:39548

       (1) "DNA analysis" and "DNA specimen" have the same meanings 39549
as in section 109.573 of the Revised Code.39550

       (2) "Rape crisis program" means any of the following:39551

        (a) The nonprofit state sexual assault coalition designated 39552
by the center for injury prevention and control of the federal 39553
centers for disease control and prevention; 39554

       (b) A victim witness assistance program operated by a 39555
prosecuting attorney;39556

        (c) A program operated by a government-based or nonprofit 39557
entity that provides a full continuum of services to victims of 39558
sexual assault, including, but not limited to, hotlines, victim 39559
advocacy, and support services from the onset of the need for 39560
services through the completion of healing, that does not provide 39561
medical services, and that may refer victims to physicians for 39562
medical care but does not engage in or refer for services for 39563
which the use of genetic services funds is prohibited by section 39564
3701.511 of the Revised Code.39565

        (3) "Sexual assault" means any of the following:39566

        (a) A violation of section 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 39567
2907.05, or former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;39568

        (b) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance 39569
or law of this or any other state or the United States that is or 39570
was substantially equivalent to any section listed in division 39571
(F)(3)(a) of this section.39572

       Sec. 2743.20.  Appeals from orders and judgments of the court 39573
of claims lie to the same courts under the same circumstances, as 39574
appeals from the court of common pleas of Franklin county, and the 39575
same rules of law govern their determination. The decision of the 39576
court of claims with respect to an appeal from a decision of the 39577
court of claims commissionersthe attorney general pursuant to 39578
sections 2743.51 to 2743.72 of the Revised Code is final, and no 39579
appeal from the decision of the court of claims lies to any other 39580
court.39581

       Sec. 2743.48.  (A) As used in this section and section 39582
2743.49 of the Revised Code, a "wrongfully imprisoned individual" 39583
means an individual who satisfies each of the following:39584

       (1) The individual was charged with a violation of a section 39585
of the Revised Code by an indictment or information, and the 39586
violation charged was an aggravated felony or felony.39587

       (2) The individual was found guilty of, but did not plead 39588
guilty to, the particular charge or a lesser-included offense by 39589
the court or jury involved, and the offense of which the 39590
individual was found guilty was an aggravated felony or felony.39591

       (3) The individual was sentenced to an indefinite or definite 39592
term of imprisonment in a state correctional institution for the 39593
offense of which the individual was found guilty.39594

       (4) The individual's conviction was vacated, dismissed, or 39595
reversed on appeal, the prosecuting attorney in the case cannot or 39596
will not seek any further appeal of right or upon leave of court, 39597
and no criminal proceeding is pending, can be brought, or will be 39598
brought by any prosecuting attorney, city director of law, village 39599
solicitor, or other chief legal officer of a municipal corporation 39600
against the individual for any act associated with that 39601
conviction.39602

       (5) Subsequent to sentencing and during or subsequent to 39603
imprisonment, an error in procedure resulted in the individual's 39604
release, or it was determined by the court of common pleas in the 39605
county where the underlying criminal action was initiated that the 39606
charged offense, including all lesser-included offenses, either 39607
was not committed by the individual or was not committed by any 39608
person.39609

       (B)(1) A person may file a civil action to be declared a 39610
wrongfully imprisoned individual in the court of common pleas in 39611
the county where the underlying criminal action was initiated. 39612
That civil action shall be separate from the underlying finding of 39613
guilt by the court of common pleas. The prosecuting attorney of 39614
that county shall be served with a copy of the complaint and shall 39615
defend all civil actions to determine a person to be a wrongfully 39616
imprisoned individual under this section. Upon the filing of a 39617
civil action to be determined a wrongfully imprisoned individual, 39618
the attorney general also shall be served with a copy of the 39619
complaint and shall be heard.39620

       (2) When the court of common pleas in the county where the 39621
underlying criminal action was initiated determines in a separate 39622
civil action that a person is a wrongfully imprisoned individual, 39623
the court shall provide the person with a copy of this section and 39624
orally inform the person and the person's attorney of the person's 39625
rights under this section to commence a civil action against the 39626
state in the court of claims because of the person's wrongful 39627
imprisonment and to be represented in that civil action by counsel 39628
of the person's own choice.39629

       (3) The court described in division (B)(1) of this section 39630
shall notify the clerk of the court of claims, in writing and 39631
within seven days after the date of the entry of its determination 39632
that the person is a wrongfully imprisoned individual, of the name 39633
and proposed mailing address of the person and of the fact that 39634
the person has the rights to commence a civil action and to have 39635
legal representation as provided in this section. The clerk of the 39636
court of claims shall maintain in the clerk's office a list of 39637
wrongfully imprisoned individuals for whom notices are received 39638
under this section and shall create files in the clerk's office 39639
for each such individual.39640

       (4) Within sixty days after the date of the entry of the 39641
determination by the court of common pleas in the county where the 39642
underlying criminal action was initiated that a person is a 39643
wrongfully imprisoned individual, the clerk of the court of claims 39644
shall forward a preliminary judgment to the president of the 39645
controlling board requesting the payment of fifty per cent of the 39646
amount described in division (E)(2)(b) of this section to the 39647
wrongfully imprisoned individual. The board shall take all actions 39648
necessary to cause the payment of that amount out of the emergency 39649
purposes special purpose account of the board.39650

       (5) If an individual was serving at the time of the wrongful 39651
imprisonment concurrent sentences on other convictions that were 39652
not vacated, dismissed, or reversed on appeal, the individual is 39653
not eligible for compensation as described in this section for any 39654
portion of that wrongful imprisonment that occurred during a 39655
concurrent sentence of that nature.39656

       (C)(1) In a civil action under this section, a wrongfully 39657
imprisoned individual has the right to have counsel of the 39658
individual's own choice.39659

       (2) If a wrongfully imprisoned individual who is the subject 39660
of a court determination as described in division (B)(2) of this 39661
section does not commence a civil action under this section within 39662
six months after the entry of that determination, the clerk of the 39663
court of claims shall send a letter to the wrongfully imprisoned 39664
individual, at the address set forth in the notice received from 39665
the court of common pleas pursuant to division (B)(3) of this 39666
section or to any later address provided by the wrongfully 39667
imprisoned individual, that reminds the wrongfully imprisoned 39668
individual of the wrongfully imprisoned individual's rights under 39669
this section. Until the statute of limitations provided in 39670
division (H) of this section expires and unless the wrongfully 39671
imprisoned individual commences a civil action under this section, 39672
the clerk of the court of claims shall send a similar letter in a 39673
similar manner to the wrongfully imprisoned individual at least 39674
once each three months after the sending of the first reminder.39675

       (D) Notwithstanding any provisions of this chapter to the 39676
contrary, a wrongfully imprisoned individual has and may file a 39677
civil action against the state, in the court of claims, to recover 39678
a sum of money as described in this section, because of the 39679
individual's wrongful imprisonment. The court of claims shall have 39680
exclusive, original jurisdiction over such a civil action. The 39681
civil action shall proceed, be heard, and be determined as 39682
provided in sections 2743.01 to 2743.20 of the Revised Code, 39683
except that if a provision of this section conflicts with a 39684
provision in any of those sections, the provision in this section 39685
controls.39686

       (E)(1) In a civil action as described in division (D) of this 39687
section, the complainant may establish that the claimant is a 39688
wrongfully imprisoned individual by submitting to the court of 39689
claims a certified copy of the judgment entry of the court of 39690
common pleas associated with the claimant's conviction and 39691
sentencing, and a certified copy of the entry of the determination 39692
of the court of common pleas that the claimant is a wrongfully 39693
imprisoned individual under division (B)(2) of this section. No 39694
other evidence shall be required of the complainant to establish 39695
that the claimant is a wrongfully imprisoned individual, and the 39696
claimant shall be irrebuttably presumed to be a wrongfully 39697
imprisoned individual.39698

       (2) In a civil action as described in division (D) of this 39699
section, upon presentation of requisite proof to the court of 39700
claims, a wrongfully imprisoned individual is entitled to receive 39701
a sum of money that equals the total of each of the following 39702
amounts:39703

       (a) The amount of any fine or court costs imposed and paid, 39704
and the reasonable attorney's fees and other expenses incurred by 39705
the wrongfully imprisoned individual in connection with all 39706
associated criminal proceedings and appeals, and, if applicable, 39707
in connection with obtaining the wrongfully imprisoned 39708
individual's discharge from confinement in the state correctional 39709
institution;39710

       (b) For each full year of imprisonment in the state 39711
correctional institution for the offense of which the wrongfully 39712
imprisoned individual was found guilty, forty thousand three 39713
hundred thirty dollars or the adjusted amount determined by the 39714
auditor of state pursuant to section 2743.49 of the Revised Code, 39715
and for each part of a year of being so imprisoned, a pro-rated 39716
share of forty thousand three hundred thirty dollars or the 39717
adjusted amount determined by the auditor of state pursuant to 39718
section 2743.49 of the Revised Code;39719

       (c) Any loss of wages, salary, or other earned income that 39720
directly resulted from the wrongfully imprisoned individual's 39721
arrest, prosecution, conviction, and wrongful imprisonment;39722

       (d) The amount of the following cost debts the department of 39723
rehabilitation and correction recovered from the wrongfully 39724
imprisoned individual who was in custody of the department or 39725
under the department's supervision:39726

       (i) Any user fee or copayment for services at a detention 39727
facility, including, but not limited to, a fee or copayment for 39728
sick call visits;39729

       (ii) The cost of housing and feeding the wrongfully 39730
imprisoned individual in a detention facility;39731

       (iii) The cost of supervision of the wrongfully imprisoned 39732
individual;39733

       (iv) The cost of any ancillary services provided to the 39734
wrongfully imprisoned individual.39735

       (F)(1) If the court of claims determines in a civil action as 39736
described in division (D) of this section that the complainant is 39737
a wrongfully imprisoned individual, it shall enter judgment for 39738
the wrongfully imprisoned individual in the amount of the sum of 39739
money to which the wrongfully imprisoned individual is entitled 39740
under division (E)(2) of this section. In determining that sum, 39741
the court of claims shall not take into consideration any expenses 39742
incurred by the state or any of its political subdivisions in 39743
connection with the arrest, prosecution, and imprisonment of the 39744
wrongfully imprisoned individual, including, but not limited to, 39745
expenses for food, clothing, shelter, and medical services. The 39746
court shall reduce that sum by the amount of the payment to the 39747
wrongfully imprisoned individual described in division (B)(4) of 39748
this section.39749

       (2) If the wrongfully imprisoned individual was represented 39750
in the civil action under this section by counsel of the 39751
wrongfully imprisoned individual's own choice, the court of claims 39752
shall include in the judgment entry referred to in division (F)(1) 39753
of this section an award for the reasonable attorney's fees of 39754
that counsel. These fees shall be paid as provided in division (G) 39755
of this section.39756

       (3) The state consents to be sued by a wrongfully imprisoned 39757
individual because the imprisonment was wrongful, and to liability 39758
on its part because of that fact, only as provided in this 39759
section. However, this section does not affect any liability of 39760
the state or of its employees to a wrongfully imprisoned 39761
individual on a claim for relief that is not based on the fact of 39762
the wrongful imprisonment, including, but not limited to, a claim 39763
for relief that arises out of circumstances occurring during the 39764
wrongfully imprisoned individual's confinement in the state 39765
correctional institution.39766

       (G) The clerk of the court of claims shall forward a 39767
certified copy of a judgment under division (F) of this section to 39768
the president of the controlling board. The board shall take all 39769
actions necessary to cause the payment of the judgment out of the 39770
emergency purposes special purpose account of the board.39771

       (H) To be eligible to recover a sum of money as described in 39772
this section because of wrongful imprisonment, both of the 39773
following shall apply to a wrongfully imprisoned individual:39774

       (1) The wrongfully imprisoned individual shall not have been, 39775
prior to September 24, 1986, the subject of an act of the general 39776
assembly that authorized an award of compensation for the wrongful 39777
imprisonment or have been the subject of an action before the 39778
former sundry claims board that resulted in an award of 39779
compensation for the wrongful imprisonment. 39780

       (2) The wrongfully imprisoned individual shall commence a 39781
civil action under this section in the court of claims no later 39782
than two years after the date of the entry of the determination of 39783
the court of common pleas that the individual is a wrongfully 39784
imprisoned individual under division (B)(2) of this section.39785

       Sec. 2743.52.  (A) The attorney general shall make awards of 39786
reparations for economic loss arising from criminally injurious 39787
conduct, if satisfied by a preponderance of the evidence that the 39788
requirements for an award of reparations have been met.39789

       (B) AThe court of claims panel of commissioners or a judge 39790
of the court of claims has appellate jurisdiction to order awards 39791
of reparations for economic loss arising from criminally injurious 39792
conduct, if satisfied by a preponderance of the evidence that the 39793
requirements for an award of reparations have been met.39794

       (C) A decision of the attorney general, an order of a court 39795
of claims panel of commissioners, or the judgment of a judge of39796
the court of claims concerning an OVI violation shall not be used 39797
as the basis for any civil or criminal action and shall not be 39798
admissible as evidence in any civil or criminal proceeding.39799

       Sec. 2743.53. (A) AThe court of claims panel of 39800
commissioners shall hear and determine all matters relating to 39801
appeals from decisions of the attorney general pursuant to 39802
sections 2743.51 to 2743.72 of the Revised Code.39803

       (B) A judge of the court of claims shall hear and determine 39804
all matters relating to appeals from decisions or orders of a 39805
panel of commissioners of the court of claims.39806

       Sec. 2743.531.  The court of claims victims of crime fund is 39807
hereby created in the state treasury. The fund shall be used to 39808
pay the compensation of the court of claims commissioners, the 39809
compensation of judges of the court of claims necessary to hear 39810
and determine appeals from the commissioners, the compensation of 39811
any court of claims personnel needed to administer sections 39812
2743.51 to 2743.72 of the Revised Code, and other administrative 39813
expenses of hearing and determining appeals by court of claims 39814
commissioners and judgesunder sections 2743.51 to 2743.72 of the 39815
Revised Code.39816

       At the beginning of each fiscal year, the director of budget 39817
and management shall transfer cash from the reparations fund to 39818
the court of claims victims of crime fund in an amount sufficient 39819
to make the cash balance in the court of claims victims of crime 39820
fund equal to the sum of the appropriation for that fiscal year 39821
and all prior fiscal year encumbrances. If the appropriation from 39822
the court of claims victims of crime fund is increased during the 39823
fiscal year, the director shall transfer cash from the reparations 39824
fund to the court of claims victims of crime fund in an amount 39825
equal to the increase in the appropriation.39826

       Sec. 2743.55. (A) The attorney general, a court of claims 39827
panel of commissioners, or a judge of the court of claims shall 39828
determine all matters relating to claims for an award of 39829
reparations. The attorney general, a court of claims panel of 39830
commissioners, or a judge of the court of claims may order law 39831
enforcement officers to provide copies of any information or data 39832
gathered in the investigation of the criminally injurious conduct 39833
that is the basis of any claim to enable the attorney general, a 39834
court of claims panel of commissioners, or a judge of the court of 39835
claims to determine whether, and the extent to which, a claimant 39836
qualifies for an award of reparations.39837

       (B) A court of claims panel of commissioners shall sit in 39838
Franklin county.39839

       Sec. 2743.60.  (A) The attorney general, a court of claims 39840
panel of commissioners, or a judge of the court of claims shall 39841
not make or order an award of reparations to a claimant if the 39842
criminally injurious conduct upon which the claimant bases a claim 39843
never was reported to a law enforcement officer or agency.39844

       (B)(1) The attorney general, a panel of commissioners, or a 39845
judge of the court of claims shall not make or order an award of 39846
reparations to a claimant if any of the following apply:39847

       (a) The claimant is the offender or an accomplice of the 39848
offender who committed the criminally injurious conduct, or the 39849
award would unjustly benefit the offender or accomplice.39850

       (b) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section, 39851
both of the following apply:39852

       (i) The victim was a passenger in a motor vehicle and knew or 39853
reasonably should have known that the driver was under the 39854
influence of alcohol, a drug of abuse, or both.39855

       (ii) The claimant is seeking compensation for injuries 39856
proximately caused by the driver described in division 39857
(B)(1)(b)(i) of this section being under the influence of alcohol, 39858
a drug of abuse, or both.39859

       (c) Both of the following apply:39860

       (i) The victim was under the influence of alcohol, a drug of 39861
abuse, or both and was a passenger in a motor vehicle and, if 39862
sober, should have reasonably known that the driver was under the 39863
influence of alcohol, a drug of abuse, or both.39864

       (ii) The claimant is seeking compensation for injuries 39865
proximately caused by the driver described in division 39866
(B)(1)(b)(i) of this section being under the influence of alcohol, 39867
a drug of abuse, or both.39868

       (2) Division (B)(1)(b) of this section does not apply if on 39869
the date of the occurrence of the criminally injurious conduct, 39870
the victim was under sixteen years of age or was at least sixteen 39871
years of age but less than eighteen years of age and was riding 39872
with a parent, guardian, or care-provider.39873

       (C) The attorney general, a panel of commissioners, or a 39874
judge of the court of claims, upon a finding that the claimant or 39875
victim has not fully cooperated with appropriate law enforcement 39876
agencies, may deny a claim or reconsider and reduce an award of 39877
reparations.39878

       (D) The attorney general, a panel of commissioners, or a 39879
judge of the court of claims shall reduce an award of reparations 39880
or deny a claim for an award of reparations that is otherwise 39881
payable to a claimant to the extent that the economic loss upon 39882
which the claim is based is recouped from other persons, including 39883
collateral sources. If an award is reduced or a claim is denied 39884
because of the expected recoupment of all or part of the economic 39885
loss of the claimant from a collateral source, the amount of the 39886
award or the denial of the claim shall be conditioned upon the 39887
claimant's economic loss being recouped by the collateral source. 39888
If the award or denial is conditioned upon the recoupment of the 39889
claimant's economic loss from a collateral source and it is 39890
determined that the claimant did not unreasonably fail to present 39891
a timely claim to the collateral source and will not receive all 39892
or part of the expected recoupment, the claim may be reopened and 39893
an award may be made in an amount equal to the amount of expected 39894
recoupment that it is determined the claimant will not receive 39895
from the collateral source.39896

       If the claimant recoups all or part of the economic loss upon 39897
which the claim is based from any other person or entity, 39898
including a collateral source, the attorney general may recover 39899
pursuant to section 2743.72 of the Revised Code the part of the 39900
award that represents the economic loss for which the claimant 39901
received the recoupment from the other person or entity.39902

       (E)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (E)(2) of 39903
this section, the attorney general, a panel of commissioners, or a 39904
judge of the court of claims shall not make an award to a claimant 39905
if any of the following applies:39906

       (a) The victim was convicted of a felony within ten years 39907
prior to the criminally injurious conduct that gave rise to the 39908
claim or is convicted of a felony during the pendency of the 39909
claim.39910

       (b) The claimant was convicted of a felony within ten years 39911
prior to the criminally injurious conduct that gave rise to the 39912
claim or is convicted of a felony during the pendency of the 39913
claim.39914

       (c) It is proved by a preponderance of the evidence that the 39915
victim or the claimant engaged, within ten years prior to the 39916
criminally injurious conduct that gave rise to the claim or during 39917
the pendency of the claim, in an offense of violence, a violation 39918
of section 2925.03 of the Revised Code, or any substantially 39919
similar offense that also would constitute a felony under the laws 39920
of this state, another state, or the United States.39921

       (d) The claimant was convicted of a violation of section 39922
2919.22 or 2919.25 of the Revised Code, or of any state law or 39923
municipal ordinance substantially similar to either section, 39924
within ten years prior to the criminally injurious conduct that 39925
gave rise to the claim or during the pendency of the claim.39926

       (e) It is proved by a preponderance of the evidence that the 39927
victim at the time of the criminally injurious conduct that gave 39928
rise to the claim engaged in conduct that was a felony violation 39929
of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code or engaged in any 39930
substantially similar conduct that would constitute a felony under 39931
the laws of this state, another state, or the United States.39932

       (2) The attorney general, a panel of commissioners, or a 39933
judge of the court of claims may make an award to a minor 39934
dependent of a deceased victim for dependent's economic loss or 39935
for counseling pursuant to division (F)(2) of section 2743.51 of 39936
the Revised Code if the minor dependent is not ineligible under 39937
division (E)(1) of this section due to the minor dependent's 39938
criminal history and if the victim was not killed while engaging 39939
in illegal conduct that contributed to the criminally injurious 39940
conduct that gave rise to the claim. For purposes of this section, 39941
the use of illegal drugs by the deceased victim shall not be 39942
deemed to have contributed to the criminally injurious conduct 39943
that gave rise to the claim.39944

       (F) In determining whether to make an award of reparations 39945
pursuant to this section, the attorney general or panel of 39946
commissionersthe court of claims shall consider whether there was 39947
contributory misconduct by the victim or the claimant. The 39948
attorney general, a panel of commissioners, or a judge of the 39949
court of claims shall reduce an award of reparations or deny a 39950
claim for an award of reparations to the extent it is determined 39951
to be reasonable because of the contributory misconduct of the 39952
claimant or the victim.39953

       When the attorney general decides whether a claim should be 39954
denied because of an allegation of contributory misconduct, the 39955
burden of proof on the issue of that alleged contributory 39956
misconduct shall be upon the claimant, if either of the following 39957
apply:39958

       (1) The victim was convicted of a felony more than ten years 39959
prior to the criminally injurious conduct that is the subject of 39960
the claim or has a record of felony arrests under the laws of this 39961
state, another state, or the United States.39962

       (2) There is good cause to believe that the victim engaged in 39963
an ongoing course of criminal conduct within five years or less of 39964
the criminally injurious conduct that is the subject of the claim.39965

       (G) The attorney general, a panel of commissioners, or a 39966
judge of the court of claims shall not make an award of 39967
reparations to a claimant if the criminally injurious conduct that 39968
caused the injury or death that is the subject of the claim 39969
occurred to a victim who was an adult and while the victim, after 39970
being convicted of or pleading guilty to an offense, was serving a 39971
sentence of imprisonment in any detention facility, as defined in 39972
section 2921.01 of the Revised Code.39973

       (H) If a claimant unreasonably fails to present a claim 39974
timely to a source of benefits or advantages that would have been 39975
a collateral source and that would have reimbursed the claimant 39976
for all or a portion of a particular expense, the attorney 39977
general, a panel of commissioners, or a judge of the court of 39978
claims may reduce an award of reparations or deny a claim for an 39979
award of reparations to the extent that it is reasonable to do so.39980

       (I) Reparations payable to a victim and to all other 39981
claimants sustaining economic loss because of injury to or the 39982
death of that victim shall not exceed fifty thousand dollars in 39983
the aggregate. If the attorney general, a panel of commissioners,39984
or a judge of the court of claims reduces an award under division 39985
(F) of this section, the maximum aggregate amount of reparations 39986
payable under this division shall be reduced proportionately to 39987
the reduction under division (F) of this section.39988

       (J) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit an 39989
award to a claimant whose claim is based on the claimant's being a 39990
victim of a violation of section 2905.32 of the Revised Code if 39991
the claimant was less than eighteen years of age when the 39992
criminally injurious conduct occurred.39993

       Sec. 2743.601. Except as otherwise provided in this section, 39994
the amendments to sections 2743.51, 2743.56, 2743.59, and 2743.60 39995
of the Revised Code made by the act in which this section was 39996
enacted apply to all applications for an award of reparations 39997
filed on or after the effective date of this sectionSeptember 30, 39998
2011, and to all applications for an award of reparations filed 39999
before the effective date of this sectionSeptember 30, 2011, for 40000
which an award or denial of the claim by the attorney general, a 40001
panel of commissioners, or the court of claims has not yet become 40002
final. The amendments to section 2743.60 of the Revised Code made 40003
by the act in which this section was enacted, to the extent that 40004
they eliminate the statute of limitations and to the extent that 40005
they remove the seventy-two hour reporting requirement, and the 40006
amendments to section 2743.51 of the Revised Code concerning 40007
guardian bonds shall apply to all claims for an award of 40008
reparations pending on the effective date of this section40009
September 30, 2011, and to all claims for an award of reparations 40010
filed on or after the effective date of this sectionSeptember 30, 40011
2011, that are based on criminally injurious conduct not 40012
previously addressed by the attorney general, by a panel of 40013
commissioners, or by the court of claims.40014

       Sec. 2743.61.  (A) The attorney general, on the attorney 40015
general's own motion or upon request of a claimant or victim, may 40016
reconsider a decision to make an award of reparations, the amount 40017
of an award of reparations, or a decision to deny a claim for an 40018
award of reparations. A claimant may file a request for 40019
reconsideration with the attorney general not later than thirty 40020
days after the attorney general renders an initial decision. A 40021
claimant may submit with the request any additional information 40022
that is relevant to the claimant's claim for an award of 40023
reparation.40024

       The attorney general shall reconsider the application based 40025
upon evidence that is relevant to the application and issue a 40026
final decision within sixty days of receiving the request for 40027
reconsideration. The attorney general may extend the sixty-day 40028
time limit and shall record in writing specific reasons to justify 40029
the extension. The attorney general shall notify the claimant of 40030
the extension and of the reasons for the extension.40031

       If a claimant does not file a request for reconsideration of 40032
a decision of the attorney general to make an award or to deny a 40033
claim or of the amount of an award within thirty days after the 40034
decision is rendered, the award, the denial of the claim, or the 40035
amount of the award is final unless the attorney general in the 40036
interest of justice allows the reconsideration after the 40037
expiration of that period of time.40038

       (B) A claimant may appeal an award of reparations, the amount 40039
of an award of reparations, or the denial of a claim for an award 40040
of reparations that is made by a final decision of the attorney 40041
general after any reconsideration. If the final decision of the 40042
attorney general with respect to any claim for an award of 40043
reparations is appealed, athe court of claims panel of 40044
commissioners, within ninety days of receiving the notice of 40045
appeal, shall schedule and conduct a hearing on the appeal. The 40046
panel of commissionerscourt shall determine the appeal within 40047
sixty days from the date of the hearing on the basis of the record 40048
of the hearing before the commissionerscourt, including the 40049
original award or denial and the finding of fact of the attorney 40050
general, any information or documents that the attorney general 40051
used in the investigation, any information or data provided to the 40052
attorney general, any briefs or oral arguments that may be 40053
requested by athe court of claims panel of commissioners, and any 40054
additional evidence presented at the hearing. The panel of 40055
commissionerscourt may extend the sixty-day time limit and shall 40056
record in writing specific reasons to justify the extension. The 40057
attorney general shall supply the panel of commissionerscourt40058
with the original decision awarding or denying compensation, the 40059
finding of fact of the attorney general, any information or 40060
documents that the attorney general used in the investigation, and 40061
any information or data provided to the attorney general within 40062
fourteen days of the filing of the objection and notice of appeal 40063
by the applicant. The panel of commissionerscourt shall notify 40064
the claimant and attorney general of the extension and of the 40065
reasons for the extension. If upon hearing and consideration of 40066
the record and evidence, the court of claims panel of 40067
commissioners decides that the decision of the attorney general 40068
appealed from is reasonable and lawful, it shall affirm the same. 40069
If the court of claims panel of commissioners decides that the 40070
decision of the attorney general is not supported by a 40071
preponderance of the evidence or is unreasonable or unlawful, it40072
the court shall reverse and vacate the decision or modify it and 40073
enter judgment thereon. The40074

       (C) The attorney general or a claimant may appeal an award of 40075
reparations, the amount of an award of reparations, or the denial 40076
of a claim for an award of reparations that is made by a panel of 40077
court of claims commissioners. If the determination of the panel 40078
of commissioners with respect to any claim for an award of 40079
reparations is appealed, a judge of the court of claims shall hear 40080
and determine the appeal on the basis of the record of the hearing 40081
before the commissioners, including the original award or denial 40082
made by the attorney general, any information or documents 40083
presented to the panel of commissioners, and any briefs or oral 40084
arguments that may be requested by the judge. If upon hearing and 40085
consideration of the record and evidence, the judge decides that 40086
the decision of the panel of commissioners is unreasonable or 40087
unlawful, the judge shall reverse and vacate the decision or 40088
modify it and enter judgment on the claim. The decision of the 40089
judge of the court of claims is final.40090

       (D)(C) Notices of an appeal concerning an award of 40091
reparations shall be filed within thirty days after the date on 40092
which the award or the denial of a claim is made by a final 40093
decision of the attorney general. If a notice of appeal is not 40094
filed within the thirty-day period, the award or denial of the 40095
claim is final unless athe court of claims panel of commissioners40096
in the interests of justice allows the appeal.40097

       (E) The attorney general or a claimant shall file a notice of 40098
an appeal concerning an order or decision of a panel of 40099
commissioners within thirty days after the date on which the award 40100
or the denial of a claim is made by the panel of commissioners. If 40101
the attorney general or a claimant does not file a notice of 40102
appeal with respect to an award or denial within the thirty-day 40103
period, the award or denial of the claim is final unless a judge 40104
of the court of claims in the interests of justice allows the 40105
appeal.40106

       Sec. 2743.62.  (A)(1) Subject to division (A)(2) of this 40107
section, there is no privilege, except the privileges arising from 40108
the attorney-client relationship, as to communications or records 40109
that are relevant to the physical, mental, or emotional condition 40110
of the claimant or victim in a proceeding under sections 2743.51 40111
to 2743.72 of the Revised Code in which that condition is an 40112
element.40113

       (2)(a) Except as specified in division (A)(2)(b) of this 40114
section, any record or report that a judge of the court of claims, 40115
a court of claims panel of commissioners, or the attorney general 40116
has obtained prior to, or obtains on or after, June 30, 1998, 40117
under the provisions of sections 2743.51 to 2743.72 of the Revised 40118
Code and that is confidential or otherwise exempt from public 40119
disclosure under section 149.43 of the Revised Code while in the 40120
possession of the creator of the record or report shall remain 40121
confidential or exempt from public disclosure under section 149.43 40122
of the Revised Code while in the possession of the court of claims 40123
or the attorney general.40124

       (b) Notwithstanding division (A)(2)(a) of this section, a 40125
judge of the court of claims, a panel of commissionersmagistrate, 40126
a claimant, a claimant's attorney, or the attorney general may 40127
disclose or refer to records or reports described in that division 40128
in any hearing conducted under sections 2743.51 to 2743.72 of the 40129
Revised Code or in the judge's, panel of commissioners'40130
magistrate's, claimant's, or attorney general's written pleadings, 40131
findings, recommendations, and decisions.40132

       (B) If the mental, physical, or emotional condition of a 40133
victim or claimant is material to a claim for an award of 40134
reparations, the attorney general, a panel of commissioners, or a 40135
judge of the court of claims may order the victim or claimant to 40136
submit to a mental or physical examination and may order an 40137
autopsy of a deceased victim. The order may be made for good cause 40138
shown and upon notice to the person to be examined and to the 40139
claimant. The order shall specify the time, place, manner, 40140
conditions, and scope of the examination or autopsy and the person 40141
by whom it is to be made. In the case of a mental examination, the 40142
person specified may be a physician or psychologist. In the case 40143
of a physical examination, the person specified may be a 40144
physician, a physician assistant, a clinical nurse specialist, a 40145
certified nurse practitioner, or a certified nurse-midwife. In the 40146
case of an autopsy, the person specified must be a physician. The 40147
order shall require the person who performs the examination or 40148
autopsy to file with the attorney general a detailed written 40149
report of the examination or autopsy. The report shall set out the 40150
findings, including the results of all tests made, diagnoses, 40151
prognoses, and other conclusions and reports of earlier 40152
examinations of the same conditions.40153

       (C) On request of the person examined, the attorney general 40154
shall furnish the person a copy of the report. If the victim is 40155
deceased, the attorney general, on request, shall furnish the 40156
claimant a copy of the report.40157

       (D) The attorney general, a panel of commissioners, or a 40158
judge of the court of claims may require the claimant to 40159
supplement the application for an award of reparations with any 40160
reasonably available medical or psychological reports relating to 40161
the injury for which the award of reparations is claimed.40162

       (E) The attorney general, a panel of commissioners, or a 40163
judge of the court of claims, in a claim arising out of a 40164
violation of any provision of sections 2907.02 to 2907.07 of the 40165
Revised Code, shall not request the victim or the claimant to 40166
supply, or permit any person to supply, any evidence of specific 40167
instances of the victim's sexual activity, opinion evidence of the 40168
victim's sexual activity, or reputation evidence of the victim's 40169
sexual activity unless it involves evidence of the origin of 40170
semen, pregnancy, or disease or evidence of the victim's past 40171
sexual activity with the offender and only to the extent that the40172
judge, the panelcourt of commissioners,claims or the attorney 40173
general finds that the evidence is relevant to a fact at issue in 40174
the claim.40175

       Sec. 2743.63.  If a person refuses to comply with an order 40176
under sections 2743.51 to 2743.72 of the Revised Code, or asserts 40177
a privilege, except privileges arising from the attorney-client 40178
relationship, to withhold or suppress evidence relevant to a claim 40179
for an award of reparations, the attorney general may make any 40180
just decision including denial of the claim but shall not find the 40181
person in contempt. If necessary to carry out any of the attorney 40182
general's powers and duties, the attorney general may petition a40183
the court of claims panel of commissioners for an appropriate 40184
order, including but not limited to a finding of contempt, but a 40185
panel of commissionersthe court shall not find a person in 40186
contempt for refusal to submit to a mental or physical 40187
examination.40188

       Sec. 2743.64.  The attorney general, a court of claims panel 40189
of commissioners, or a judge of the court of claims may make an 40190
award of reparations whether or not any person is prosecuted or 40191
convicted for committing the conduct that is the basis of the 40192
award. Proof of conviction of a person whose conduct gave rise to 40193
a claim is conclusive evidence that the crime was committed, 40194
unless an application for rehearing, an appeal of the conviction, 40195
or certiorari is pending, or a rehearing or new trial has been 40196
ordered.40197

       If the prosecuting attorney of the county in which the 40198
criminally injurious conduct allegedly occurred requests the 40199
suspension of proceedings in any claim for an award of reparations 40200
and if the request is made because of the commencement of a 40201
criminal prosecution, the attorney general may suspend, because a 40202
criminal prosecution has been commenced or is imminent, the 40203
proceedings in any claim for an award of reparations for a 40204
definite period of time, and may make an emergency award under 40205
section 2743.67 of the Revised Code.40206

       Sec. 2743.65.  (A) The attorney general shall determine, and 40207
the state shall pay, in accordance with this section attorney's 40208
fees, commensurate with services rendered, to the attorney 40209
representing a claimant under sections 2743.51 to 2743.72 of the 40210
Revised Code. The attorney shall submit on an application form an 40211
itemized fee bill at the rate of sixty dollars per hour upon 40212
receipt of the final decision on the claim. Attorney's fees paid 40213
pursuant to this section are subject to the following maximum 40214
amounts:40215

       (1) A maximum of seven hundred twenty dollars for claims 40216
resolved without the filing of an appeal to the panelcourt of 40217
commissionersclaims;40218

       (2) A maximum of one thousand twenty dollars for claims in 40219
which an appeal to the panelcourt of commissionersclaims is 40220
filed plus, at the request of an attorney whose main office is not 40221
in Franklin county, Delaware county, Licking county, Fairfield 40222
county, Pickaway county, Madison county, or Union county, an 40223
amount for the attorney's travel time to attend the oral hearing 40224
before the panelcourt of commissionersclaims at the rate of 40225
thirty dollars per hour;40226

       (3) A maximum of one thousand three hundred twenty dollars 40227
for claims in which an appeal to a judge of the court of claims is 40228
filed plus, at the request of an attorney whose main office is not 40229
in Franklin county, Delaware county, Licking county, Fairfield 40230
county, Pickaway county, Madison county, or Union county, an 40231
amount for the attorney's travel time to attend the oral hearing 40232
before the judgecourt at the rate of thirty dollars per hour;40233

       (4) A maximum of seven hundred twenty dollars for a 40234
supplemental reparations application;40235

       (5) A maximum of two hundred dollars if the claim is denied 40236
on the basis of a claimant's or victim's conviction of a felony 40237
offense prior to the filing of the claim. If the claimant or 40238
victim is convicted of a felony offense during the pendency of the 40239
claim, the two hundred dollars maximum does not apply. If the 40240
attorney had knowledge of the claimant's or victim's felony 40241
conviction prior to the filing of the application for the claim, 40242
the attorney general may determine that the filing of the claim 40243
was frivolous and may deny attorney's fees.40244

       (B) The attorney general may determine that an attorney be 40245
reimbursed for fees incurred in the creation of a guardianship if 40246
the guardianship is required in order for an individual to receive 40247
an award of reparations, and those fees shall be reimbursed at a 40248
rate of sixty dollars per hour. 40249

       (C)(1) The attorney general shall forward an application form 40250
for attorney's fees to a claimant's attorney before or when the 40251
final decision on a claim is rendered. The application form for 40252
attorney's fees shall do all of the following:40253

       (a) Inform the attorney of the requirements of this section;40254

       (b) Require a verification statement comporting with the law 40255
prohibiting falsification;40256

       (c) Require an itemized fee statement;40257

       (d) Require a verification statement that the claimant was 40258
served a copy of the completed application form; 40259

       (e) Include notice that the claimant may oppose the 40260
application by notifying the attorney general in writing within 40261
ten days.40262

       (2) The attorney general shall forward a copy of this section 40263
to the attorney with the application form for attorney's fees. The 40264
attorney shall file the application form with the attorney 40265
general. The attorney general's decision with respect to an award 40266
of attorney's fees is final ten days after the attorney general 40267
renders the decision and mails a copy of the decision to the 40268
attorney at the address provided by the attorney. The attorney may 40269
request reconsideration of the decision on grounds that it is 40270
insufficient or calculated incorrectly. The attorney general's 40271
decision on the request for reconsideration is final.40272

       (D) The attorney general shall review all application forms 40273
for attorney's fees that are submitted by a claimant's attorney 40274
and shall issue an order approving the amount of fees to be paid 40275
to the attorney within sixty days after receipt of the application 40276
form.40277

       (E) No attorney's fees shall be paid for the following:40278

       (1) Estate work or representation of a claimant against a 40279
collateral source;40280

       (2) Duplication of investigative work required to be 40281
performed by the attorney general;40282

       (3) Performance of unnecessary criminal investigation of the 40283
offense;40284

       (4) Presenting or appealing an issue that has been repeatedly 40285
ruled upon by the highest appellate authority, unless a unique set 40286
of facts or unique issue of law exists that distinguishes it;40287

       (5) A fee request that is unreasonable, is not commensurate 40288
with services rendered, violates the Ohio code of professional 40289
responsibility, or is based upon services that are determined to 40290
be frivolous.40291

       (F)(1) The attorney general may reduce or deny the payment of 40292
attorney's fees to an attorney who has filed a frivolous claim. 40293
Subject to division (A)(5) of this section, the denial of a claim 40294
on the basis of a felony conviction, felony conduct, or 40295
contributory misconduct does not constitute a frivolous claim.40296

       (2) As used in this section, "frivolous claim" means a claim 40297
in which there is clearly no legal grounds under the existing laws 40298
of this state to support the filing of a claim on behalf of the 40299
claimant or victim.40300

       (G) The attorney general may determine that a lesser number 40301
of hours should have been required in a given case. Additional 40302
reimbursement may be made where the attorney demonstrates to the 40303
attorney general that the nature of the particular claim required 40304
the expenditure of an amount in excess of that allowed.40305

       (H) No attorney shall receive payment under this section for 40306
assisting a claimant with an application for an award of 40307
reparations under sections 2743.51 to 2743.72 of the Revised Code 40308
if that attorney's fees have been allowed as an expense in 40309
accordance with division (F)(4) of section 2743.51 of the Revised 40310
Code.40311

       (I) A contract or other agreement between an attorney and any 40312
person that provides for the payment of attorney's fees or other 40313
payments in excess of the attorney's fees allowed under this 40314
section for representing a claimant under sections 2743.51 to 40315
2743.72 of the Revised Code shall be void and unenforceable.40316

       (J) Each witness who appears in a hearing on a claim for an 40317
award of reparations shall receive compensation in an amount equal 40318
to that received by witnesses under section 119.094 of the Revised 40319
Code.40320

       Sec. 2743.66.  (A) A decision of the attorney general,or40321
order of a court of claims panel of commissioners, or judgment of 40322
a judge of the court of claims granting an award of reparations 40323
may provide for the payment of the award in a lump sum or in 40324
installments. The part of an award equal to the amount of economic 40325
loss accrued to the date of the award shall be paid in a lump sum. 40326
An award for allowable expense that would accrue after the award 40327
is made shall not be paid in a lump sum. Except as provided in 40328
division (B) of this section, the part of an award not paid in a 40329
lump sum shall be paid in installments.40330

       (B) Upon the motion of the claimant, the attorney general may 40331
commute future economic loss, other than allowable expense, to a 40332
lump sum but only upon a finding that either of the following 40333
applies:40334

       (1) The award in a lump sum will promote the interests of the 40335
claimant.40336

       (2) The present value of all future economic loss, other than 40337
allowable expense, does not exceed one thousand dollars.40338

       (C) The attorney general may make an award for future 40339
economic loss payable in installments only for a period as to 40340
which future economic loss reasonably can be determined. An award 40341
for future economic loss payable in installments may be 40342
reconsidered and modified upon a finding that a material and 40343
substantial change of circumstances has occurred.40344

       (D) An award is not subject to execution, attachment, 40345
garnishment, or other process, except that, upon receipt of an 40346
award by a claimant:40347

       (1) The part of the award that is for allowable expense or 40348
funeral expense is not exempt from such action by a creditor to 40349
the extent that the creditor provided products, services, or 40350
accommodations the costs of which are included in the award.40351

       (2) The part of the award that is for work loss shall not be 40352
exempt from such action to secure payment of spousal support, 40353
other maintenance, or child support.40354

       (3) The attorney general may recover the award pursuant to 40355
section 2743.72 of the Revised Code if it is discovered that the 40356
claimant actually was not eligible for the award or that the award 40357
otherwise should not have been made under the standards and 40358
criteria set forth in sections 2743.51 to 2743.72 of the Revised 40359
Code.40360

       (4) If the claimant receives compensation from any other 40361
person or entity, including a collateral source, for an expense 40362
that is included within the award, the attorney general may 40363
recover pursuant to section 2743.72 of the Revised Code the part 40364
of the award that represents the expense for which the claimant 40365
received the compensation from the other person or entity.40366

       (E) If a person entitled to an award of reparations is under 40367
eighteen years of age and if the amount of the award exceeds one 40368
thousand dollars, the order providing for the payment of the award 40369
shall specify that the award be paid either to the guardian of the 40370
estate of the minor appointed pursuant to Chapter 2111. of the 40371
Revised Code or to the person or depository designated by the 40372
probate court under section 2111.05 of the Revised Code. If a 40373
person entitled to an award of reparations is under eighteen years 40374
of age and if the amount of the award is one thousand dollars or 40375
less, the order providing for the payment of the award may specify 40376
that the award be paid to an adult member of the family of the 40377
minor who is legally responsible for the minor's care or to any 40378
other person designated by the attorney general or panel of 40379
commissioners issuing the decision or ordercourt of claims.40380

       Sec. 2743.67.  The attorney general may make an emergency 40381
award if, before acting on an application for an award of 40382
reparations under this section, it appears likely that a final 40383
award will be made, and the claimant or victim will suffer undue 40384
hardship if immediate economic relief is not obtained. An 40385
emergency award shall not exceed two thousand dollars. The 40386
attorney general or the court of claims panel of commissioners40387
shall deduct an amount of the emergency award from the final 40388
award, or the claimant or victim shall repay the amount of the 40389
emergency award that exceeds the final award made to the claimant. 40390
If no final award is made, the claimant or victim shall repay the 40391
entire emergency award.40392

       Sec. 2743.68.  A claimant may file a supplemental reparations 40393
application in a claim if the attorney general, a court of claims 40394
panel of commissioners, or judge of the court of claims, within 40395
five years prior to the filing of the supplemental application, 40396
has made any of the following determinations:40397

       (A) That an award, supplemental award, or installment award 40398
be granted;40399

       (B) That an award, supplemental award, or installment award 40400
be conditioned or denied because of actual or potential recovery 40401
from a collateral source;40402

       (C) That an award, supplemental award, or installment award 40403
be denied because the claimant had not incurred any economic loss 40404
at that time.40405

       Sec. 2743.69. (A) The attorney general shall prepare and 40406
transmit annually to the governor, the president of the senate, 40407
the speaker of the house of representatives, and the minority 40408
leaders of both houses a report of the activities of the Ohio 40409
crime victims compensation program under sections 2743.51 to 40410
2743.72 of the Revised Code. The report shall include all of the 40411
following:40412

       (1) The number of claims filed, the number of awards made and 40413
the amount of each award, and a statistical summary of awards made 40414
and denied, including the average size of awards; 40415

       (2) The balance in the reparations fund, with a listing by 40416
source and amount of the moneys that have been deposited in the 40417
fund; 40418

       (3) The amount that has been withdrawn from the fund, 40419
including separate listings of the administrative costs incurred 40420
by the attorney general and athe court of claims panel of 40421
commissioners, compensation of judges and court personnel, the 40422
amount awarded as attorney's fees, and the amount of payments made 40423
pursuant to divisions (A)(1)(k) and (l) of section 2743.191 of the 40424
Revised Code. 40425

       (B) The director of budget and management shall assist the 40426
attorney general in the preparation of the report required by this 40427
section.40428

       Sec. 2743.71.  (A) Any law enforcement agency that 40429
investigates, and any prosecuting attorney, city director of law, 40430
village solicitor, or similar prosecuting authority who 40431
prosecutes, an offense committed in this state shall, upon first 40432
contact with the victim or the victim's family or dependents, give 40433
the victim or the victim's family or dependents a copy of an 40434
information card or other printed material provided by the 40435
attorney general pursuant to division (B) of this section and 40436
explain, upon request, the information on the card or material to 40437
the victim or the victim's family or dependents.40438

       (B) The attorney general shall have printed, and shall 40439
provide to law enforcement agencies, prosecuting attorneys, city 40440
directors of law, village solicitors, and similar prosecuting 40441
authorities, cards or other materials that contain information 40442
explaining awards of reparations. The information on the cards or 40443
other materials shall include, but shall not be limited to, the 40444
following statements:40445

       (1) Awards of reparations are limited to losses that are 40446
caused by physical injury resulting from criminally injurious 40447
conduct;40448

       (2) Reparations applications are required to be filed within 40449
two years after the date of the criminally injurious conduct if 40450
the victim was an adult, or within the period provided by division 40451
(C)(B)(1) of section 2743.56 of the Revised Code if the victim of 40452
the criminally injurious conduct was a minor;40453

       (3) An attorney who represents an applicant for an award of 40454
reparations cannot charge the applicant for the services rendered 40455
in relation to that representation but is required to apply to the 40456
attorney general for payment for the representation;40457

       (4) Applications for awards of reparations may be obtained 40458
from the attorney general, law enforcement agencies, and victim 40459
assistance agencies and are to be filed with the attorney general.40460

       (C) The attorney general may order that a reasonable amount 40461
of money be paid out of the reparations fund, subject to the 40462
limitation imposed by division (D) of this section, for use by the 40463
attorney general to publicize the availability of awards of 40464
reparations.40465

       (D) During any fiscal year, the total expenditure for the 40466
printing and providing of information cards or other materials 40467
pursuant to division (B) of this section and for the publicizing 40468
of the availability of awards of reparations pursuant to division 40469
(C) of this section shall not exceed two per cent of the total of 40470
all court costs deposited, in accordance with section 2743.70 of 40471
the Revised Code, in the reparations fund during the immediately 40472
preceding fiscal year.40473

       Sec. 2744.05.  Notwithstanding any other provisions of the 40474
Revised Code or rules of a court to the contrary, in an action 40475
against a political subdivision to recover damages for injury, 40476
death, or loss to person or property caused by an act or omission 40477
in connection with a governmental or proprietary function:40478

       (A) Punitive or exemplary damages shall not be awarded.40479

       (B)(1) If a claimant receives or is entitled to receive 40480
benefits for injuries or loss allegedly incurred from a policy or 40481
policies of insurance or any other source, the benefits shall be 40482
disclosed to the court, and the amount of the benefits shall be 40483
deducted from any award against a political subdivision recovered 40484
by that claimant. No insurer or other person is entitled to bring 40485
an action under a subrogation provision in an insurance or other 40486
contract against a political subdivision with respect to those 40487
benefits.40488

       The amount of the benefits shall be deducted from an award 40489
against a political subdivision under division (B)(1) of this 40490
section regardless of whether the claimant may be under an 40491
obligation to pay back the benefits upon recovery, in whole or in 40492
part, for the claim. A claimant whose benefits have been deducted 40493
from an award under division (B)(1) of this section is not 40494
considered fully compensated and shall not be required to 40495
reimburse a subrogated claim for benefits deducted from an award 40496
pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section.40497

       (2) Nothing in division (B)(1) of this section shall be 40498
construed to do either of the following:40499

       (a) Limit the rights of a beneficiary under a life insurance 40500
policy or the rights of sureties under fidelity or surety bonds;40501

       (b) Prohibit the department of job and family services40502
medicaid from recovering from the political subdivision, pursuant 40503
to section 5101.585160.37 of the Revised Code, the cost of 40504
medical assistance benefits provided under Chapter 5107. or 5111. 40505
of the Revised Codeprovided under a medical assistance program.40506

       (C)(1) There shall not be any limitation on compensatory 40507
damages that represent the actual loss of the person who is 40508
awarded the damages. However, except in wrongful death actions 40509
brought pursuant to Chapter 2125. of the Revised Code, damages 40510
that arise from the same cause of action, transaction or 40511
occurrence, or series of transactions or occurrences and that do 40512
not represent the actual loss of the person who is awarded the 40513
damages shall not exceed two hundred fifty thousand dollars in 40514
favor of any one person. The limitation on damages that do not 40515
represent the actual loss of the person who is awarded the damages 40516
provided in this division does not apply to court costs that are 40517
awarded to a plaintiff, or to interest on a judgment rendered in 40518
favor of a plaintiff, in an action against a political 40519
subdivision.40520

       (2) As used in this division, "the actual loss of the person 40521
who is awarded the damages" includes all of the following:40522

       (a) All wages, salaries, or other compensation lost by the 40523
person injured as a result of the injury, including wages, 40524
salaries, or other compensation lost as of the date of a judgment 40525
and future expected lost earnings of the person injured;40526

       (b) All expenditures of the person injured or another person 40527
on behalf of the person injured for medical care or treatment, for 40528
rehabilitation services, or for other care, treatment, services, 40529
products, or accommodations that were necessary because of the 40530
injury;40531

       (c) All expenditures to be incurred in the future, as 40532
determined by the court, by the person injured or another person 40533
on behalf of the person injured for medical care or treatment, for 40534
rehabilitation services, or for other care, treatment, services, 40535
products, or accommodations that will be necessary because of the 40536
injury;40537

       (d) All expenditures of a person whose property was injured 40538
or destroyed or of another person on behalf of the person whose 40539
property was injured or destroyed in order to repair or replace 40540
the property that was injured or destroyed;40541

       (e) All expenditures of the person injured or of the person 40542
whose property was injured or destroyed or of another person on 40543
behalf of the person injured or of the person whose property was 40544
injured or destroyed in relation to the actual preparation or 40545
presentation of the claim involved;40546

       (f) Any other expenditures of the person injured or of the 40547
person whose property was injured or destroyed or of another 40548
person on behalf of the person injured or of the person whose 40549
property was injured or destroyed that the court determines 40550
represent an actual loss experienced because of the personal or 40551
property injury or property loss.40552

       "The actual loss of the person who is awarded the damages" 40553
does not include any fees paid or owed to an attorney for any 40554
services rendered in relation to a personal or property injury or 40555
property loss, and does not include any damages awarded for pain 40556
and suffering, for the loss of society, consortium, companionship, 40557
care, assistance, attention, protection, advice, guidance, 40558
counsel, instruction, training, or education of the person 40559
injured, for mental anguish, or for any other intangible loss.40560

       Sec. 2901.13.  (A)(1) Except as provided in division (A)(2) 40561
or (3) of this section or as otherwise provided in this section, a 40562
prosecution shall be barred unless it is commenced within the 40563
following periods after an offense is committed:40564

       (a) For a felony, six years;40565

       (b) For a misdemeanor other than a minor misdemeanor, two 40566
years;40567

       (c) For a minor misdemeanor, six months.40568

       (2) There is no period of limitation for the prosecution of a 40569
violation of section 2903.01 or 2903.02 of the Revised Code.40570

       (3) Except as otherwise provided in divisions (B) to (H) of 40571
this section, a prosecution of any of the following offenses shall 40572
be barred unless it is commenced within twenty years after the 40573
offense is committed:40574

       (a) A violation of section 2903.03, 2903.04, 2905.01, 40575
2905.32, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.21, 2909.02, 40576
2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2909.26, 2909.27, 2909.28, 2909.29, 40577
2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, or 2917.02 of the Revised 40578
Code, a violation of section 2903.11 or 2903.12 of the Revised 40579
Code if the victim is a peace officer, a violation of section 40580
2903.13 of the Revised Code that is a felony, or a violation of 40581
former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;40582

       (b) A conspiracy to commit, attempt to commit, or complicity 40583
in committing a violation set forth in division (A)(3)(a) of this 40584
section.40585

       (B)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (B)(2) of 40586
this section, if the period of limitation provided in division 40587
(A)(1) or (3) of this section has expired, prosecution shall be 40588
commenced for an offense of which an element is fraud or breach of 40589
a fiduciary duty, within one year after discovery of the offense 40590
either by an aggrieved person, or by the aggrieved person's legal 40591
representative who is not a party to the offense.40592

       (2) If the period of limitation provided in division (A)(1) 40593
or (3) of this section has expired, prosecution for a violation of 40594
section 2913.49 of the Revised Code shall be commenced within five 40595
years after discovery of the offense either by an aggrieved person 40596
or the aggrieved person's legal representative who is not a party 40597
to the offense.40598

       (C)(1) If the period of limitation provided in division 40599
(A)(1) or (3) of this section has expired, prosecution shall be 40600
commenced for the following offenses during the following 40601
specified periods of time:40602

       (a) For an offense involving misconduct in office by a public 40603
servant, at any time while the accused remains a public servant, 40604
or within two years thereafter;40605

       (b) For an offense by a person who is not a public servant 40606
but whose offense is directly related to the misconduct in office 40607
of a public servant, at any time while that public servant remains 40608
a public servant, or within two years thereafter.40609

       (2) As used in this division:40610

       (a) An "offense is directly related to the misconduct in 40611
office of a public servant" includes, but is not limited to, a 40612
violation of section 101.71, 101.91, 121.61 or 2921.13, division 40613
(F) or (H) of section 102.03, division (A) of section 2921.02, 40614
division (A) or (B) of section 2921.43, or division (F) or (G) of 40615
section 3517.13 of the Revised Code, that is directly related to 40616
an offense involving misconduct in office of a public servant.40617

       (b) "Public servant" has the same meaning as in section 40618
2921.01 of the Revised Code.40619

       (D) An offense is committed when every element of the offense 40620
occurs. In the case of an offense of which an element is a 40621
continuing course of conduct, the period of limitation does not 40622
begin to run until such course of conduct or the accused's 40623
accountability for it terminates, whichever occurs first.40624

       (E) A prosecution is commenced on the date an indictment is 40625
returned or an information filed, or on the date a lawful arrest 40626
without a warrant is made, or on the date a warrant, summons, 40627
citation, or other process is issued, whichever occurs first. A 40628
prosecution is not commenced by the return of an indictment or the 40629
filing of an information unless reasonable diligence is exercised 40630
to issue and execute process on the same. A prosecution is not 40631
commenced upon issuance of a warrant, summons, citation, or other 40632
process, unless reasonable diligence is exercised to execute the 40633
same.40634

       (F) The period of limitation shall not run during any time 40635
when the corpus delicti remains undiscovered.40636

       (G) The period of limitation shall not run during any time 40637
when the accused purposely avoids prosecution. Proof that the 40638
accused departed this state or concealed the accused's identity or 40639
whereabouts is prima-facie evidence of the accused's purpose to 40640
avoid prosecution.40641

       (H) The period of limitation shall not run during any time a 40642
prosecution against the accused based on the same conduct is 40643
pending in this state, even though the indictment, information, or 40644
process that commenced the prosecution is quashed or the 40645
proceedings on the indictment, information, or process are set 40646
aside or reversed on appeal.40647

       (I) The period of limitation for a violation of any provision 40648
of Title XXIX of the Revised Code that involves a physical or 40649
mental wound, injury, disability, or condition of a nature that 40650
reasonably indicates abuse or neglect of a child under eighteen 40651
years of age or of a mentally retarded, developmentally disabled, 40652
or physically impaired child under twenty-one years of age shall 40653
not begin to run until either of the following occurs:40654

       (1) The victim of the offense reaches the age of majority.40655

       (2) A public children services agency, or a municipal or 40656
county peace officer that is not the parent or guardian of the 40657
child, in the county in which the child resides or in which the 40658
abuse or neglect is occurring or has occurred has been notified 40659
that abuse or neglect is known, suspected, or believed to have 40660
occurred.40661

       (J) As used in this section, "peace officer" has the same 40662
meaning as in section 2935.01 of the Revised Code.40663

       Sec. 2901.30.  (A) As used in sections 2901.30 to 2901.32 of 40664
the Revised Code:40665

       (1) "Information" means information that can be integrated 40666
into the computer system and that relates to the physical or 40667
mental description of a minor including, but not limited to, 40668
height, weight, color of hair and eyes, use of eyeglasses or 40669
contact lenses, skin coloring, physical or mental handicaps, 40670
special medical conditions or needs, abnormalities, problems, 40671
scars and marks, and distinguishing characteristics, and other 40672
information that could assist in identifying a minor including, 40673
but not limited to, full name and nickname, date and place of 40674
birth, age, names and addresses of parents and other relatives, 40675
fingerprints, dental records, photographs, social security number, 40676
driver's license number, credit card numbers, bank account 40677
numbers, and clothing.40678

       (2) "Minor" means a person under eighteen years of age.40679

       (3) "Missing children" or "missing child" means either of the 40680
following:40681

       (a) A minor who has run away from or who otherwise is missing 40682
from the home of, or the care, custody, and control of, the 40683
minor's parents, parent who is the residential parent and legal 40684
custodian, guardian, legal custodian, or other person having 40685
responsibility for the care of the minor;40686

       (b) A minor who is missing and about whom there is reason to 40687
believe the minor could be the victim of a violation of section 40688
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.03, or 2919.23 of the Revised Code or of a 40689
violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed 40690
prior to July 1, 1996.40691

       (B) When a law enforcement agency in this state that has 40692
jurisdiction in the matter is informed that a minor is or may be a 40693
missing child and that the person providing the information wishes 40694
to file a missing child report, the law enforcement agency shall 40695
take that report. Upon taking the report, the law enforcement 40696
agency shall take prompt action upon it, including, but not 40697
limited to, concerted efforts to locate the missing child. No law 40698
enforcement agency in this state shall have a rule or policy that 40699
prohibits or discourages the filing of or the taking of action 40700
upon a missing child report, within a specified period following 40701
the discovery or formulation of a belief that a minor is or could 40702
be a missing child.40703

       (C) If a missing child report is made to a law enforcement 40704
agency in this state that has jurisdiction in the matter, the law 40705
enforcement agency shall gather readily available information 40706
about the missing child and integrate it into the national crime 40707
information center computer immediately following the making of 40708
the report. The law enforcement agency shall make reasonable 40709
efforts to acquire additional information about the missing child 40710
following the transmittal of the initially available information, 40711
and promptly integrate any additional information acquired into 40712
such computer systems.40713

       Whenever a law enforcement agency integrates information 40714
about a missing child into the national crime information center 40715
computer, the law enforcement agency promptly shall notify the 40716
missing child's parents, parent who is the residential parent and 40717
legal custodian, guardian, or legal custodian, or any other person 40718
responsible for the care of the missing child, that it has so 40719
integrated the information.40720

       The parents, parent who is the residential parent and legal 40721
custodian, guardian, legal custodian, or other person responsible 40722
for the care of the missing child shall provide available 40723
information upon request, and may provide information voluntarily, 40724
to the law enforcement agency during the information gathering 40725
process. The law enforcement agency also may obtain available 40726
information about the missing child from other persons, subject to 40727
constitutional and statutory limitations.40728

       (D) Upon the filing of a missing child report, the law 40729
enforcement agency involved may notify the public or nonpublic 40730
school in which the missing child is or was most recently 40731
enrolled, as ascertained by the agency, that the child is the 40732
subject of a missing child report and that the child's school 40733
records are to be marked in accordance with section 3313.672 of 40734
the Revised Code.40735

        (E) Upon the filing of a missing child report, the law 40736
enforcement agency involved promptly shall make a reasonable 40737
attempt to notify other law enforcement agencies within its county 40738
and, if the agency has jurisdiction in a municipal corporation or 40739
township that borders another county, to notify the law 40740
enforcement agency for the municipal corporation or township in 40741
the other county with which it shares the border, that it has 40742
taken a missing child report and may be requesting assistance or 40743
cooperation in the case, and provide relevant information to the 40744
other law enforcement agencies. The agency may notify additional 40745
law enforcement agencies, or appropriate public children services 40746
agencies, about the case, request their assistance or cooperation 40747
in the case, and provide them with relevant information.40748

       Upon request from a law enforcement agency, a public children 40749
services agency shall grant the law enforcement agency access to 40750
all information concerning a missing child that the agency 40751
possesses that may be relevant to the law enforcement agency in 40752
investigating a missing child report concerning that child. The 40753
information obtained by the law enforcement agency shall be used 40754
only to further the investigation to locate the missing child.40755

       (F) Upon request, law enforcement agencies in this state 40756
shall provide assistance to, and cooperate with, other law 40757
enforcement agencies in their investigation of missing child 40758
cases. The assistance and cooperation under this paragraph shall 40759
be pursuant to any terms agreed upon by the law enforcement 40760
agencies, which may include the provision of law enforcement 40761
services or the use of law enforcement equipment or the 40762
interchange of services and equipment among the cooperating law 40763
enforcement agencies. Chapter 2744. of the Revised Code, insofar 40764
as it applies to the operation of law enforcement agencies, shall 40765
apply to the cooperating political subdivisions and to the law 40766
enforcement agency employees when they are rendering services 40767
pursuant to this paragraph outside the territory of the political 40768
subdivision by which they are employed. Law enforcement agency 40769
employees rendering services outside the territory of the 40770
political subdivision in which they are employed, pursuant to this 40771
paragraph, shall be entitled to participate in any indemnity fund 40772
established by their employer to the same extent as if they were 40773
rendering service within the territory of their employing 40774
political subdivision. Those law enforcement agency employees also 40775
shall be entitled to all the rights and benefits of Chapter 4123. 40776
of the Revised Code to the same extent as if rendering services 40777
within the territory of their employing political subdivision.40778

       The information in any missing child report made to a law 40779
enforcement agency shall be made available, upon request, to law 40780
enforcement personnel of this state, other states, and the federal 40781
government when the law enforcement personnel indicate that the 40782
request is to aid in identifying or locating a missing child or 40783
the possible identification of a deceased minor who, upon 40784
discovery, cannot be identified.40785

       (G) When a missing child has not been located within thirty 40786
days after the date on which the missing child report pertaining 40787
to the child was filed with a law enforcement agency, that law 40788
enforcement agency shall request the missing child's parents, 40789
parent who is the residential parent and legal custodian, 40790
guardian, or legal custodian, or any other person responsible for 40791
the care of the missing child, to provide written consent for the 40792
law enforcement agency to contact the missing child's dentist and 40793
request the missing child's dental records. Upon receipt of such 40794
written consent, the dentist shall release a copy of the missing 40795
child's dental records to the law enforcement agency and shall 40796
provide and encode the records in such form as requested by the 40797
law enforcement agency. The law enforcement agency then shall 40798
integrate information in the records into the national crime 40799
information center computer in order to compare the records to 40800
those of unidentified deceased persons. This division does not 40801
prevent a law enforcement agency from seeking consent to obtain 40802
copies of a missing child's dental records, or prevent a missing 40803
child's parents, parent who is the residential parent and legal 40804
custodian, guardian, or legal custodian, or any other person 40805
responsible for the care of the missing child, from granting 40806
consent for the release of copies of the missing child's dental 40807
records to a law enforcement agency, at any time.40808

       (H) A missing child's parents, parent who is the residential 40809
parent and legal custodian, guardian, or legal custodian, or any 40810
other persons responsible for the care of a missing child, 40811
immediately shall notify the law enforcement agency with which 40812
they filed the missing child report whenever the child has 40813
returned to their home or to their care, custody, and control, has 40814
been released if the missing child was the victim of an offense 40815
listed in division (A)(3)(b) of this section, or otherwise has 40816
been located. Upon such notification or upon otherwise learning 40817
that a missing child has returned to the home of, or to the care, 40818
custody, and control of the missing child's parents, parent who is 40819
the residential parent and legal custodian, guardian, legal 40820
custodian, or other person responsible for the missing child's 40821
care, has been released if the missing child was the victim of an 40822
offense listed in division (A)(3)(b) of this section, or otherwise 40823
has been located, the law enforcement agency involved promptly 40824
shall integrate the fact that the minor no longer is a missing 40825
child into the national crime information center computer and 40826
shall inform any school that was notified under division (D) of 40827
this section that the minor is no longer a missing child.40828

       (I) Nothing contained in this section shall be construed to 40829
impair the confidentiality of services provided to runaway minors 40830
by shelters for runaway minors pursuant to sections 5119.64 to 40831
5119.68 of the Revised Code.40832

       Sec. 2903.33.  As used in sections 2903.33 to 2903.36 of the 40833
Revised Code:40834

       (A) "Care facility" means any of the following:40835

       (1) Any "home" as defined in section 3721.10 or 5111.20 of 40836
the Revised Code;40837

       (2) Any "residential facility" as defined in section 5123.19 40838
of the Revised Code;40839

       (3) Any institution or facility operated or provided by the 40840
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services40841
or by the department of developmental disabilities pursuant to 40842
sections 5119.025119.14 and 5123.03 of the Revised Code;40843

       (4) Any "residential facility" as defined in section 5119.2240844
5119.34 of the Revised Code;40845

       (5) Any unit of any hospital, as defined in section 3701.01 40846
of the Revised Code, that provides the same services as a nursing 40847
home, as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;40848

       (6) Any institution, residence, or facility that provides, 40849
for a period of more than twenty-four hours, whether for a 40850
consideration or not, accommodations to one individual or two 40851
unrelated individuals who are dependent upon the services of 40852
others.40853

       (B) "Abuse" means knowingly causing physical harm or 40854
recklessly causing serious physical harm to a person by physical 40855
contact with the person or by the inappropriate use of a physical 40856
or chemical restraint, medication, or isolation on the person.40857

       (C)(1) "Gross neglect" means knowingly failing to provide a 40858
person with any treatment, care, goods, or service that is 40859
necessary to maintain the health or safety of the person when the 40860
failure results in physical harm or serious physical harm to the 40861
person.40862

       (2) "Neglect" means recklessly failing to provide a person 40863
with any treatment, care, goods, or service that is necessary to 40864
maintain the health or safety of the person when the failure 40865
results in serious physical harm to the person.40866

       (D) "Inappropriate use of a physical or chemical restraint, 40867
medication, or isolation" means the use of physical or chemical 40868
restraint, medication, or isolation as punishment, for staff 40869
convenience, excessively, as a substitute for treatment, or in 40870
quantities that preclude habilitation and treatment.40871

       Sec. 2907.22.  (A) No person shall knowingly:40872

       (1) Establish, maintain, operate, manage, supervise, control, 40873
or have an interest in a brothel or any other enterprise a purpose 40874
of which is to facilitate engagement in sexual activity for hire;40875

       (2) Supervise, manage, or control the activities of a 40876
prostitute in engaging in sexual activity for hire;40877

       (3) Transport another, or cause another to be transported 40878
across the boundary of this state or of any county in this state, 40879
in order to facilitate the other person's engaging in sexual 40880
activity for hire;40881

       (4) For the purpose of violating or facilitating a violation 40882
of this section, induce or procure another to engage in sexual 40883
activity for hire.40884

       (B) Whoever violates this section is guilty of promoting 40885
prostitution. Except as otherwise provided in this division, 40886
promoting prostitution is a felony of the fourth degree. If any 40887
prostitute in the brothel involved in the offense, or the 40888
prostitute whose activities are supervised, managed, or controlled 40889
by the offender, or the person transported, induced, or procured 40890
by the offender to engage in sexual activity for hire, is a minor, 40891
whether or not the offender knows the age of the minor, then 40892
promoting prostitution is a felony of the third degree. If the 40893
offender in any case also is convicted of or pleads guilty to a 40894
specification as described in section 2941.1422 of the Revised 40895
Code that was included in the indictment, count in the indictment, 40896
or information charging the offense, the court shall sentence the 40897
offender to a mandatory prison term as provided in division (B)(7) 40898
of section 2929.14 of the Revised Code and shall order the 40899
offender to make restitution as provided in division (B)(8) of 40900
section 2929.18 of the Revised Code.40901

       Sec. 2913.01.  As used in this chapter, unless the context 40902
requires that a term be given a different meaning:40903

       (A) "Deception" means knowingly deceiving another or causing 40904
another to be deceived by any false or misleading representation, 40905
by withholding information, by preventing another from acquiring 40906
information, or by any other conduct, act, or omission that 40907
creates, confirms, or perpetuates a false impression in another, 40908
including a false impression as to law, value, state of mind, or 40909
other objective or subjective fact.40910

       (B) "Defraud" means to knowingly obtain, by deception, some 40911
benefit for oneself or another, or to knowingly cause, by 40912
deception, some detriment to another.40913

       (C) "Deprive" means to do any of the following:40914

       (1) Withhold property of another permanently, or for a period 40915
that appropriates a substantial portion of its value or use, or 40916
with purpose to restore it only upon payment of a reward or other 40917
consideration;40918

       (2) Dispose of property so as to make it unlikely that the 40919
owner will recover it;40920

       (3) Accept, use, or appropriate money, property, or services, 40921
with purpose not to give proper consideration in return for the 40922
money, property, or services, and without reasonable justification 40923
or excuse for not giving proper consideration.40924

       (D) "Owner" means, unless the context requires a different 40925
meaning, any person, other than the actor, who is the owner of, 40926
who has possession or control of, or who has any license or 40927
interest in property or services, even though the ownership, 40928
possession, control, license, or interest is unlawful.40929

       (E) "Services" include labor, personal services, professional 40930
services, rental services, public utility services including 40931
wireless service as defined in division (F)(1) of section 5507.0140932
128.01 of the Revised Code, common carrier services, and food, 40933
drink, transportation, entertainment, and cable television 40934
services and, for purposes of section 2913.04 of the Revised Code, 40935
include cable services as defined in that section.40936

       (F) "Writing" means any computer software, document, letter, 40937
memorandum, note, paper, plate, data, film, or other thing having 40938
in or upon it any written, typewritten, or printed matter, and any 40939
token, stamp, seal, credit card, badge, trademark, label, or other 40940
symbol of value, right, privilege, license, or identification.40941

       (G) "Forge" means to fabricate or create, in whole or in part 40942
and by any means, any spurious writing, or to make, execute, 40943
alter, complete, reproduce, or otherwise purport to authenticate 40944
any writing, when the writing in fact is not authenticated by that 40945
conduct.40946

       (H) "Utter" means to issue, publish, transfer, use, put or 40947
send into circulation, deliver, or display.40948

       (I) "Coin machine" means any mechanical or electronic device 40949
designed to do both of the following:40950

       (1) Receive a coin, bill, or token made for that purpose;40951

       (2) In return for the insertion or deposit of a coin, bill, 40952
or token, automatically dispense property, provide a service, or 40953
grant a license.40954

       (J) "Slug" means an object that, by virtue of its size, 40955
shape, composition, or other quality, is capable of being inserted 40956
or deposited in a coin machine as an improper substitute for a 40957
genuine coin, bill, or token made for that purpose.40958

       (K) "Theft offense" means any of the following:40959

       (1) A violation of section 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 40960
2911.12, 2911.13, 2911.31, 2911.32, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 40961
2913.041, 2913.05, 2913.06, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 40962
2913.33, 2913.34, 2913.40, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 2913.45, 40963
2913.47, 2913.48, former section 2913.47 or 2913.48, or section 40964
2913.51, 2915.05, or 2921.41 of the Revised Code;40965

       (2) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance 40966
or law of this or any other state, or of the United States, 40967
substantially equivalent to any section listed in division (K)(1) 40968
of this section or a violation of section 2913.41, 2913.81, or 40969
2915.06 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996;40970

       (3) An offense under an existing or former municipal 40971
ordinance or law of this or any other state, or of the United 40972
States, involving robbery, burglary, breaking and entering, theft, 40973
embezzlement, wrongful conversion, forgery, counterfeiting, 40974
deceit, or fraud;40975

       (4) A conspiracy or attempt to commit, or complicity in 40976
committing, any offense under division (K)(1), (2), or (3) of this 40977
section.40978

       (L) "Computer services" includes, but is not limited to, the 40979
use of a computer system, computer network, computer program, data 40980
that is prepared for computer use, or data that is contained 40981
within a computer system or computer network.40982

       (M) "Computer" means an electronic device that performs 40983
logical, arithmetic, and memory functions by the manipulation of 40984
electronic or magnetic impulses. "Computer" includes, but is not 40985
limited to, all input, output, processing, storage, computer 40986
program, or communication facilities that are connected, or 40987
related, in a computer system or network to an electronic device 40988
of that nature.40989

       (N) "Computer system" means a computer and related devices, 40990
whether connected or unconnected, including, but not limited to, 40991
data input, output, and storage devices, data communications 40992
links, and computer programs and data that make the system capable 40993
of performing specified special purpose data processing tasks.40994

       (O) "Computer network" means a set of related and remotely 40995
connected computers and communication facilities that includes 40996
more than one computer system that has the capability to transmit 40997
among the connected computers and communication facilities through 40998
the use of computer facilities.40999

       (P) "Computer program" means an ordered set of data 41000
representing coded instructions or statements that, when executed 41001
by a computer, cause the computer to process data.41002

       (Q) "Computer software" means computer programs, procedures, 41003
and other documentation associated with the operation of a 41004
computer system.41005

       (R) "Data" means a representation of information, knowledge, 41006
facts, concepts, or instructions that are being or have been 41007
prepared in a formalized manner and that are intended for use in a 41008
computer, computer system, or computer network. For purposes of 41009
section 2913.47 of the Revised Code, "data" has the additional 41010
meaning set forth in division (A) of that section.41011

       (S) "Cable television service" means any services provided by 41012
or through the facilities of any cable television system or other 41013
similar closed circuit coaxial cable communications system, or any 41014
microwave or similar transmission service used in connection with 41015
any cable television system or other similar closed circuit 41016
coaxial cable communications system.41017

       (T) "Gain access" means to approach, instruct, communicate 41018
with, store data in, retrieve data from, or otherwise make use of 41019
any resources of a computer, computer system, or computer network, 41020
or any cable service or cable system both as defined in section 41021
2913.04 of the Revised Code.41022

       (U) "Credit card" includes, but is not limited to, a card, 41023
code, device, or other means of access to a customer's account for 41024
the purpose of obtaining money, property, labor, or services on 41025
credit, or for initiating an electronic fund transfer at a 41026
point-of-sale terminal, an automated teller machine, or a cash 41027
dispensing machine. It also includes a county procurement card 41028
issued under section 301.29 of the Revised Code.41029

       (V) "Electronic fund transfer" has the same meaning as in 92 41030
Stat. 3728, 15 U.S.C.A. 1693a, as amended.41031

       (W) "Rented property" means personal property in which the 41032
right of possession and use of the property is for a short and 41033
possibly indeterminate term in return for consideration; the 41034
rentee generally controls the duration of possession of the 41035
property, within any applicable minimum or maximum term; and the 41036
amount of consideration generally is determined by the duration of 41037
possession of the property.41038

       (X) "Telecommunication" means the origination, emission, 41039
dissemination, transmission, or reception of data, images, 41040
signals, sounds, or other intelligence or equivalence of 41041
intelligence of any nature over any communications system by any 41042
method, including, but not limited to, a fiber optic, electronic, 41043
magnetic, optical, digital, or analog method.41044

       (Y) "Telecommunications device" means any instrument, 41045
equipment, machine, or other device that facilitates 41046
telecommunication, including, but not limited to, a computer, 41047
computer network, computer chip, computer circuit, scanner, 41048
telephone, cellular telephone, pager, personal communications 41049
device, transponder, receiver, radio, modem, or device that 41050
enables the use of a modem.41051

       (Z) "Telecommunications service" means the providing, 41052
allowing, facilitating, or generating of any form of 41053
telecommunication through the use of a telecommunications device 41054
over a telecommunications system.41055

       (AA) "Counterfeit telecommunications device" means a 41056
telecommunications device that, alone or with another 41057
telecommunications device, has been altered, constructed, 41058
manufactured, or programmed to acquire, intercept, receive, or 41059
otherwise facilitate the use of a telecommunications service or 41060
information service without the authority or consent of the 41061
provider of the telecommunications service or information service. 41062
"Counterfeit telecommunications device" includes, but is not 41063
limited to, a clone telephone, clone microchip, tumbler telephone, 41064
or tumbler microchip; a wireless scanning device capable of 41065
acquiring, intercepting, receiving, or otherwise facilitating the 41066
use of telecommunications service or information service without 41067
immediate detection; or a device, equipment, hardware, or software 41068
designed for, or capable of, altering or changing the electronic 41069
serial number in a wireless telephone.41070

       (BB)(1) "Information service" means, subject to division 41071
(BB)(2) of this section, the offering of a capability for 41072
generating, acquiring, storing, transforming, processing, 41073
retrieving, utilizing, or making available information via 41074
telecommunications, including, but not limited to, electronic 41075
publishing.41076

       (2) "Information service" does not include any use of a 41077
capability of a type described in division (BB)(1) of this section 41078
for the management, control, or operation of a telecommunications 41079
system or the management of a telecommunications service.41080

       (CC) "Elderly person" means a person who is sixty-five years 41081
of age or older.41082

       (DD) "Disabled adult" means a person who is eighteen years of 41083
age or older and has some impairment of body or mind that makes 41084
the person unable to work at any substantially remunerative 41085
employment that the person otherwise would be able to perform and 41086
that will, with reasonable probability, continue for a period of 41087
at least twelve months without any present indication of recovery 41088
from the impairment, or who is eighteen years of age or older and 41089
has been certified as permanently and totally disabled by an 41090
agency of this state or the United States that has the function of 41091
so classifying persons.41092

       (EE) "Firearm" and "dangerous ordnance" have the same 41093
meanings as in section 2923.11 of the Revised Code.41094

       (FF) "Motor vehicle" has the same meaning as in section 41095
4501.01 of the Revised Code.41096

       (GG) "Dangerous drug" has the same meaning as in section 41097
4729.01 of the Revised Code.41098

       (HH) "Drug abuse offense" has the same meaning as in section 41099
2925.01 of the Revised Code.41100

       (II)(1) "Computer hacking" means any of the following:41101

       (a) Gaining access or attempting to gain access to all or 41102
part of a computer, computer system, or a computer network without 41103
express or implied authorization with the intent to defraud or 41104
with intent to commit a crime;41105

       (b) Misusing computer or network services including, but not 41106
limited to, mail transfer programs, file transfer programs, proxy 41107
servers, and web servers by performing functions not authorized by 41108
the owner of the computer, computer system, or computer network or 41109
other person authorized to give consent. As used in this division, 41110
"misuse of computer and network services" includes, but is not 41111
limited to, the unauthorized use of any of the following:41112

       (i) Mail transfer programs to send mail to persons other than 41113
the authorized users of that computer or computer network;41114

       (ii) File transfer program proxy services or proxy servers to 41115
access other computers, computer systems, or computer networks;41116

       (iii) Web servers to redirect users to other web pages or web 41117
servers.41118

       (c)(i) Subject to division (II)(1)(c)(ii) of this section, 41119
using a group of computer programs commonly known as "port 41120
scanners" or "probes" to intentionally access any computer, 41121
computer system, or computer network without the permission of the 41122
owner of the computer, computer system, or computer network or 41123
other person authorized to give consent. The group of computer 41124
programs referred to in this division includes, but is not limited 41125
to, those computer programs that use a computer network to access 41126
a computer, computer system, or another computer network to 41127
determine any of the following: the presence or types of computers 41128
or computer systems on a network; the computer network's 41129
facilities and capabilities; the availability of computer or 41130
network services; the presence or versions of computer software 41131
including, but not limited to, operating systems, computer 41132
services, or computer contaminants; the presence of a known 41133
computer software deficiency that can be used to gain unauthorized 41134
access to a computer, computer system, or computer network; or any 41135
other information about a computer, computer system, or computer 41136
network not necessary for the normal and lawful operation of the 41137
computer initiating the access.41138

       (ii) The group of computer programs referred to in division 41139
(II)(1)(c)(i) of this section does not include standard computer 41140
software used for the normal operation, administration, 41141
management, and test of a computer, computer system, or computer 41142
network including, but not limited to, domain name services, mail 41143
transfer services, and other operating system services, computer 41144
programs commonly called "ping," "tcpdump," and "traceroute" and 41145
other network monitoring and management computer software, and 41146
computer programs commonly known as "nslookup" and "whois" and 41147
other systems administration computer software.41148

       (d) The intentional use of a computer, computer system, or a 41149
computer network in a manner that exceeds any right or permission 41150
granted by the owner of the computer, computer system, or computer 41151
network or other person authorized to give consent.41152

       (2) "Computer hacking" does not include the introduction of a 41153
computer contaminant, as defined in section 2909.01 of the Revised 41154
Code, into a computer, computer system, computer program, or 41155
computer network.41156

       (JJ) "Police dog or horse" has the same meaning as in section 41157
2921.321 of the Revised Code.41158

       (KK) "Anhydrous ammonia" is a compound formed by the 41159
combination of two gaseous elements, nitrogen and hydrogen, in the 41160
manner described in this division. Anhydrous ammonia is one part 41161
nitrogen to three parts hydrogen (NH3). Anhydrous ammonia by 41162
weight is fourteen parts nitrogen to three parts hydrogen, which 41163
is approximately eighty-two per cent nitrogen to eighteen per cent 41164
hydrogen.41165

       (LL) "Assistance dog" has the same meaning as in section 41166
955.011 of the Revised Code.41167

       (MM) "Federally licensed firearms dealer" has the same 41168
meaning as in section 5502.63 of the Revised Code.41169

       Sec. 2913.40.  (A) As used in this section: 41170

       (1) "Statement or representation" means any oral, written, 41171
electronic, electronic impulse, or magnetic communication that is 41172
used to identify an item of goods or a service for which 41173
reimbursement may be made under the medical assistancemedicaid41174
program or that states income and expense and is or may be used to 41175
determine a rate of reimbursement under the medical assistance41176
medicaid program. 41177

       (2) "Medical assistance program" means the program 41178
established by the department of job and family services to 41179
provide medical assistance under section 5111.01 of the Revised 41180
Code and the medicaid program of Title XIX of the "Social Security 41181
Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended.41182

       (3) "Provider" means any person who has signed a provider 41183
agreement with the department of job and family servicesmedicaid41184
to provide goods or services pursuant to the medical assistance41185
medicaid program or any person who has signed an agreement with a 41186
party to such a provider agreement under which the person agrees 41187
to provide goods or services that are reimbursable under the 41188
medical assistancemedicaid program. 41189

       (4)(3) "Provider agreement" means an oral or written 41190
agreement between the department of job and family services and a 41191
person in which the person agrees to provide goods or services 41192
under the medical assistance programhas the same meaning as in 41193
section 5164.01 of the Revised Code. 41194

       (5)(4) "Recipient" means any individual who receives goods or 41195
services from a provider under the medical assistancemedicaid41196
program. 41197

       (6)(5) "Records" means any medical, professional, financial, 41198
or business records relating to the treatment or care of any 41199
recipient, to goods or services provided to any recipient, or to 41200
rates paid for goods or services provided to any recipient and any 41201
records that are required by the rules of the medicaid director of 41202
job and family services to be kept for the medical assistance41203
medicaid program. 41204

       (B) No person shall knowingly make or cause to be made a 41205
false or misleading statement or representation for use in 41206
obtaining reimbursement from the medical assistancemedicaid41207
program. 41208

       (C) No person, with purpose to commit fraud or knowing that 41209
the person is facilitating a fraud, shall do either of the 41210
following: 41211

       (1) Contrary to the terms of the person's provider agreement, 41212
charge, solicit, accept, or receive for goods or services that the 41213
person provides under the medical assistancemedicaid program any 41214
property, money, or other consideration in addition to the amount 41215
of reimbursement under the medical assistancemedicaid program and 41216
the person's provider agreement for the goods or services and any 41217
cost-sharing expenses authorized by section 5111.01125162.20 of 41218
the Revised Code or rules adopted pursuant to section 5111.01, 41219
5111.011, or 5111.02 of the Revised Codeby the medicaid director 41220
regarding the medicaid program. 41221

       (2) Solicit, offer, or receive any remuneration, other than 41222
any cost-sharing expenses authorized by section 5111.01125162.2041223
of the Revised Code or rules adopted under section 5111.01, 41224
5111.011, or 5111.02 of the Revised Codeby the medicaid director 41225
regarding the medicaid program, in cash or in kind, including, but 41226
not limited to, a kickback or rebate, in connection with the 41227
furnishing of goods or services for which whole or partial 41228
reimbursement is or may be made under the medical assistance41229
medicaid program. 41230

       (D) No person, having submitted a claim for or provided goods 41231
or services under the medical assistancemedicaid program, shall 41232
do either of the following for a period of at least six years 41233
after a reimbursement pursuant to that claim, or a reimbursement 41234
for those goods or services, is received under the medical 41235
assistancemedicaid program: 41236

       (1) Knowingly alter, falsify, destroy, conceal, or remove any 41237
records that are necessary to fully disclose the nature of all 41238
goods or services for which the claim was submitted, or for which 41239
reimbursement was received, by the person; 41240

       (2) Knowingly alter, falsify, destroy, conceal, or remove any 41241
records that are necessary to disclose fully all income and 41242
expenditures upon which rates of reimbursements were based for the 41243
person. 41244

       (E) Whoever violates this section is guilty of medicaid 41245
fraud. Except as otherwise provided in this division, medicaid 41246
fraud is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the value of 41247
property, services, or funds obtained in violation of this section 41248
is one thousand dollars or more and is less than seven thousand 41249
five hundred dollars, medicaid fraud is a felony of the fifth 41250
degree. If the value of property, services, or funds obtained in 41251
violation of this section is seven thousand five hundred dollars 41252
or more and is less than one hundred fifty thousand dollars, 41253
medicaid fraud is a felony of the fourth degree. If the value of 41254
the property, services, or funds obtained in violation of this 41255
section is one hundred fifty thousand dollars or more, medicaid 41256
fraud is a felony of the third degree. 41257

       (F) Upon application of the governmental agency, office, or 41258
other entity that conducted the investigation and prosecution in a 41259
case under this section, the court shall order any person who is 41260
convicted of a violation of this section for receiving any 41261
reimbursement for furnishing goods or services under the medical 41262
assistancemedicaid program to which the person is not entitled to 41263
pay to the applicant its cost of investigating and prosecuting the 41264
case. The costs of investigation and prosecution that a defendant 41265
is ordered to pay pursuant to this division shall be in addition 41266
to any other penalties for the receipt of that reimbursement that 41267
are provided in this section, section 5111.035164.35 of the 41268
Revised Code, or any other provision of law. 41269

       (G) The provisions of this section are not intended to be 41270
exclusive remedies and do not preclude the use of any other 41271
criminal or civil remedy for any act that is in violation of this 41272
section. 41273

       Sec. 2913.401.  (A) As used in this section: 41274

       (1) "Medicaid benefitsservices" means benefits under the 41275
medical assistance program established under Chapter 5111.has the 41276
same meaning as in section 5164.01 of the Revised Code. 41277

       (2) "Property" means any real or personal property or other 41278
asset in which a person has any legal title or interest. 41279

       (B) No person shall knowingly do any of the following in an 41280
application for enrollment in the medicaid benefitsprogram or in 41281
a document that requires a disclosure of assets for the purpose of 41282
determining eligibility to receivefor the medicaid benefits41283
program: 41284

       (1) Make or cause to be made a false or misleading statement; 41285

       (2) Conceal an interest in property; 41286

       (3)(a) Except as provided in division (B)(3)(b) of this 41287
section, fail to disclose a transfer of property that occurred 41288
during the period beginning thirty-six months before submission of 41289
the application or document and ending on the date the application 41290
or document was submitted; 41291

       (b) Fail to disclose a transfer of property that occurred 41292
during the period beginning sixty months before submission of the 41293
application or document and ending on the date the application or 41294
document was submitted and that was made to an irrevocable trust a 41295
portion of which is not distributable to the applicant for 41296
medicaid benefits or the recipient of medicaid benefits or to a 41297
revocable trust. 41298

       (C)(1) Whoever violates this section is guilty of medicaid 41299
eligibility fraud. Except as otherwise provided in this division, 41300
a violation of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree. 41301
If the value of the medicaid benefitsservices paid as a result of 41302
the violation is one thousand dollars or more and is less than 41303
seven thousand five hundred dollars, a violation of this section 41304
is a felony of the fifth degree. If the value of the medicaid 41305
benefitsservices paid as a result of the violation is seven 41306
thousand five hundred dollars or more and is less than one hundred 41307
fifty thousand dollars, a violation of this section is a felony of 41308
the fourth degree. If the value of the medicaid benefitsservices41309
paid as a result of the violation is one hundred fifty thousand 41310
dollars or more, a violation of this section is a felony of the 41311
third degree. 41312

       (2) In addition to imposing a sentence under division (C)(1) 41313
of this section, the court shall order that a person who is guilty 41314
of medicaid eligibility fraud make restitution in the full amount 41315
of any medicaid benefitsservices paid on behalf of an applicant 41316
for or recipient of medicaid benefits for which the applicant or 41317
recipient was not eligible, plus interest at the rate applicable 41318
to judgments on unreimbursed amounts from the date on which the 41319
benefitsmedicaid services were paid to the date on which 41320
restitution is made. 41321

       (3) The remedies and penalties provided in this section are 41322
not exclusive and do not preclude the use of any other criminal or 41323
civil remedy for any act that is in violation of this section. 41324

       (D) This section does not apply to a person who fully 41325
disclosed in an application for medicaid benefits or in a document 41326
that requires a disclosure of assets for the purpose of 41327
determining eligibility to receivefor medicaid benefits all of 41328
the interests in property of the applicant for or recipient of 41329
medicaid benefits, all transfers of property by the applicant for 41330
or recipient of medicaid benefits, and the circumstances of all 41331
those transfers. 41332

       (E) Any amounts of medicaid benefitsservices recovered as 41333
restitution under this section and any interest on those amounts 41334
shall be credited to the general revenue fund, and any applicable 41335
federal share shall be returned to the appropriate agency or 41336
department of the United States. 41337

       Sec. 2915.02.  (A) No person shall do any of the following:41338

       (1) Engage in bookmaking, or knowingly engage in conduct that 41339
facilitates bookmaking;41340

       (2) Establish, promote, or operate or knowingly engage in 41341
conduct that facilitates any game of chance conducted for profit 41342
or any scheme of chance;41343

       (3) Knowingly procure, transmit, exchange, or engage in 41344
conduct that facilitates the procurement, transmission, or 41345
exchange of information for use in establishing odds or 41346
determining winners in connection with bookmaking or with any game 41347
of chance conducted for profit or any scheme of chance;41348

       (4) Engage in betting or in playing any scheme or game of 41349
chance as a substantial source of income or livelihood;41350

       (5) Conduct, or participate in the conduct of, a sweepstakes 41351
with the use of a sweepstakes terminal device at a sweepstakes 41352
terminal device facility and either:41353

       (a) Give to another person any item described in division 41354
(VV)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of section 2915.01 of the Revised Code 41355
as a prize for playing or participating in a sweepstakes; or41356

       (b) Give to another person any merchandise prize, or a 41357
redeemable voucher for a merchandise prize, the wholesale value of 41358
which is in excess of ten dollars and which is awarded as a single 41359
entry for playing or participating in a sweepstakes. Redeemable 41360
vouchers shall not be redeemable for a merchandise prize that has 41361
a wholesale value of more than ten dollars.41362

       (6) Conduct, or participate in the conduct of, a sweepstakes 41363
with the use of a sweepstakes terminal device at a sweepstakes 41364
terminal device facility without first obtaining a current annual 41365
"certificate of registration" from the attorney general as 41366
required by division (F) of this section;41367

       (7) With purpose to violate division (A)(1), (2), (3), (4), 41368
(5), or (6) of this section, acquire, possess, control, or operate 41369
any gambling device.41370

       (B) For purposes of division (A)(1) of this section, a person 41371
facilitates bookmaking if the person in any way knowingly aids an 41372
illegal bookmaking operation, including, without limitation, 41373
placing a bet with a person engaged in or facilitating illegal 41374
bookmaking. For purposes of division (A)(2) of this section, a 41375
person facilitates a game of chance conducted for profit or a 41376
scheme of chance if the person in any way knowingly aids in the 41377
conduct or operation of any such game or scheme, including, 41378
without limitation, playing any such game or scheme.41379

       (C) This section does not prohibit conduct in connection with 41380
gambling expressly permitted by law.41381

       (D) This section does not apply to any of the following:41382

       (1) Games of chance, if all of the following apply:41383

       (a) The games of chance are not craps for money or roulette 41384
for money.41385

       (b) The games of chance are conducted by a charitable 41386
organization that is, and has received from the internal revenue 41387
service a determination letter that is currently in effect, 41388
stating that the organization is, exempt from federal income 41389
taxation under subsection 501(a) and described in subsection 41390
501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code.41391

       (c) The games of chance are conducted at festivals of the 41392
charitable organization that are conducted not more than a total 41393
of five days a calendar year, and are conducted on premises owned 41394
by the charitable organization for a period of no less than one 41395
year immediately preceding the conducting of the games of chance, 41396
on premises leased from a governmental unit, or on premises that 41397
are leased from a veteran's or fraternal organization and that 41398
have been owned by the lessor veteran's or fraternal organization 41399
for a period of no less than one year immediately preceding the 41400
conducting of the games of chance.41401

       A charitable organization shall not lease premises from a 41402
veteran's or fraternal organization to conduct a festival 41403
described in division (D)(1)(c) of this section if the veteran's 41404
or fraternal organization already has leased the premises twelve 41405
times during the preceding year to charitable organizations for 41406
that purpose. If a charitable organization leases premises from a 41407
veteran's or fraternal organization to conduct a festival 41408
described in division (D)(1)(c) of this section, the charitable 41409
organization shall not pay a rental rate for the premises per day 41410
of the festival that exceeds the rental rate per bingo session 41411
that a charitable organization may pay under division (B)(1) of 41412
section 2915.09 of the Revised Code when it leases premises from 41413
another charitable organization to conduct bingo games.41414

       (d) All of the money or assets received from the games of 41415
chance after deduction only of prizes paid out during the conduct 41416
of the games of chance are used by, or given, donated, or 41417
otherwise transferred to, any organization that is described in 41418
subsection 509(a)(1), 509(a)(2), or 509(a)(3) of the Internal 41419
Revenue Code and is either a governmental unit or an organization 41420
that is tax exempt under subsection 501(a) and described in 41421
subsection 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code;41422

       (e) The games of chance are not conducted during, or within 41423
ten hours of, a bingo game conducted for amusement purposes only 41424
pursuant to section 2915.12 of the Revised Code.41425

       No person shall receive any commission, wage, salary, reward, 41426
tip, donation, gratuity, or other form of compensation, directly 41427
or indirectly, for operating or assisting in the operation of any 41428
game of chance.41429

       (2) Any tag fishing tournament operated under a permit issued 41430
under section 1533.92 of the Revised Code, as "tag fishing 41431
tournament" is defined in section 1531.01 of the Revised Code;41432

       (3) Bingo conducted by a charitable organization that holds a 41433
license issued under section 2915.08 of the Revised Code.41434

       (E) Division (D) of this section shall not be construed to 41435
authorize the sale, lease, or other temporary or permanent 41436
transfer of the right to conduct games of chance, as granted by 41437
that division, by any charitable organization that is granted that 41438
right.41439

       (F) Any person desiring to conduct, or participate in the 41440
conduct of, a sweepstakes with the use of a sweepstakes terminal 41441
device at a sweepstakes terminal device facility shall first 41442
register with the office of the attorney general and obtain an 41443
annual certificate of registration by providing a filing fee of 41444
two hundred dollars and all information as required by rule 41445
adopted under division (H) of this section. Not later than the 41446
tenth day of each month, each sweepstakes terminal device operator 41447
shall file a sweepstakes terminal device monthly report with the 41448
attorney general and provide a filing fee of fifty dollars and all 41449
information required by rule adopted under division (H) of this 41450
section. All information provided to the attorney general under 41451
this division shall be available to law enforcement upon request.41452

       (G) A person may apply to the attorney general, on a form 41453
prescribed by the attorney general, for a certificate of 41454
compliance that the person is not operating a sweepstakes terminal 41455
device facility. The form shall require the person to include the 41456
address of the business location where sweepstakes terminal 41457
devices will be used and to make the following certifications:41458

       (1) That the person will not use more than two sweepstakes 41459
terminal devices at the business location;41460

       (2) That the retail value of sweepstakes prizes to be awarded 41461
at the business location using sweepstakes terminal devices during 41462
a reporting period will be less than three per cent of the gross 41463
revenue received at the business location during the reporting 41464
period;41465

       (3) That no other form of gaming except lottery ticket sales 41466
as authorized under Chapter 3770. of the Revised Code will be 41467
conducted at the business location or in an adjoining area of the 41468
business location;41469

       (4) That any sweepstakes terminal device at the business 41470
location will not allow any deposit of any money, coin, or token, 41471
or the use of any credit card, debit card, prepaid card, or any 41472
other method of similar payment to be used, directly or 41473
indirectly, to participate in a sweepstakes;41474

       (5) That notification of any prize will not take place on the 41475
same day as a participant's sweepstakes entry; and41476

       (6) That the person consents to provide any other information 41477
to the attorney general as required by rule adopted under division 41478
(H) of this section.41479

       The filing fee for a certificate of compliance is two hundred 41480
fifty dollars. The attorney general may charge up to an additional 41481
two hundred fifty dollars for reasonable expenses resulting from 41482
any investigation related to an application for a certificate of 41483
compliance.41484

       A certificate of compliance is effective for one year. The 41485
certificate holder may reapply for a certificate of compliance. A 41486
person issued a certificate of compliance shall file semiannual 41487
reports with the attorney general stating the number of 41488
sweepstakes terminal devices at the business location and that the 41489
retail value of prizes awarded at the business location using 41490
sweepstakes terminal devices is less than three per cent of the 41491
gross revenue received at the business location.41492

       (H) The attorney general shall adopt rules setting forth:41493

       (1) The required information to be submitted by persons 41494
conducting a sweepstakes with the use of a sweepstakes terminal 41495
device at a sweepstakes terminal device facility as described in 41496
division (F) of this section; and41497

       (2) The requirements pertaining to a certificate of 41498
compliance under division (G) of this section, which shall provide 41499
for a person to file a consolidated application and a consolidated 41500
semiannual report if a person has more than one business location; 41501
and41502

       (3) The standards and requirements for security and 41503
surveillance equipment, in consultation with the Ohio casino 41504
control commission, that may require a person with a certificate 41505
of registration to install security and surveillance equipment 41506
where any chips, tokens, tickets, electronic cards, or similar 41507
objects may be redeemed for cash, whether by an employee or by 41508
electronic means, that shall capture, for law enforcement 41509
purposes, facial feature pattern characteristics, including a 41510
computerized facial image, and that shall require such records to 41511
be retained for at least five years. The attorney general may 41512
secure, by agreement, information and services as the attorney 41513
general considers necessary from any state agency or other unit of 41514
state government. All costs related to the installation of 41515
security and surveillance equipment shall be the responsibility of 41516
the person with the certificate of registration.41517

        The attorney general shall issue a certificate of 41518
registration or a certificate of compliance to all persons who 41519
have successfully satisfied the applicable requirements of this 41520
section. The attorney general shall post online a registry of all 41521
properly registered and certified sweepstakes terminal device 41522
operators.41523

       (I) The attorney general may refuse to issue an annual 41524
certificate of registration or certificate of compliance to any 41525
person or, if one has been issued, the attorney general may revoke 41526
a certificate of registration or a certificate of compliance if 41527
the applicant has provided any information to the attorney general 41528
as part of a registration, certification, monthly report, 41529
semiannual report, or any other information that is materially 41530
false or misleading, or if the applicant or any officer, partner, 41531
or owner of five per cent or more interest in the applicant has 41532
violated any provision of this chapter.41533

       (J) The attorney general may take any necessary and 41534
reasonable action to determine a violation of this chapter, 41535
including requesting documents and information, performing 41536
inspections of premises, or requiring the attendance of any person 41537
at an examination under oath.41538

        (K) Whoever violates this section is guilty of gambling, a 41539
misdemeanor of the first degree. If the offender previously has 41540
been convicted of any gambling offense, gambling is a felony of 41541
the fifth degree. Notwithstanding this division, failing to file a 41542
sweepstakes terminal device monthly report as required by division 41543
(F) of this section or the semiannual report required by division 41544
(G) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree.41545

       Sec. 2919.271.  (A)(1)(a) If a defendant is charged with a 41546
violation of section 2919.27 of the Revised Code or of a municipal 41547
ordinance that is substantially similar to that section, the court 41548
may order an evaluation of the mental condition of the defendant 41549
if the court determines that either of the following criteria 41550
apply:41551

       (i) If the alleged violation is a violation of a protection 41552
order issued or consent agreement approved pursuant to section 41553
2919.26 or 3113.31 of the Revised Code, that the violation 41554
allegedly involves conduct by the defendant that caused physical 41555
harm to the person or property of a family or household member 41556
covered by the order or agreement, or conduct by the defendant 41557
that caused a family or household member to believe that the 41558
defendant would cause physical harm to that member or that 41559
member's property.41560

       (ii) If the alleged violation is a violation of a protection 41561
order issued pursuant to section 2903.213 or 2903.214 of the 41562
Revised Code or a protection order issued by a court of another 41563
state, that the violation allegedly involves conduct by the 41564
defendant that caused physical harm to the person or property of 41565
the person covered by the order, or conduct by the defendant that 41566
caused the person covered by the order to believe that the 41567
defendant would cause physical harm to that person or that 41568
person's property.41569

       (b) If a defendant is charged with a violation of section 41570
2903.211 of the Revised Code or of a municipal ordinance that is 41571
substantially similar to that section, the court may order an 41572
evaluation of the mental condition of the defendant.41573

       (2) An evaluation ordered under division (A)(1) of this 41574
section shall be completed no later than thirty days from the date 41575
the order is entered pursuant to that division. In that order, the 41576
court shall do either of the following:41577

       (a) Order that the evaluation of the mental condition of the 41578
defendant be preceded by an examination conducted either by a 41579
forensic center that is designated by the department of mental 41580
healthmental health and addiction services to conduct 41581
examinations and make evaluations of defendants charged with 41582
violations of section 2903.211 or 2919.27 of the Revised Code or 41583
of substantially similar municipal ordinances in the area in which 41584
the court is located, or by any other program or facility that is 41585
designated by the department of mental healthmental health and 41586
addiction services or the department of developmental disabilities 41587
to conduct examinations and make evaluations of defendants charged 41588
with violations of section 2903.211 or 2919.27 of the Revised Code 41589
or of substantially similar municipal ordinances, and that is 41590
operated by either department or is certified by either department 41591
as being in compliance with the standards established under 41592
division (H)(B)(7) of section 5119.015119.10 of the Revised Code 41593
or division (C) of section 5123.04 of the Revised Code.41594

       (b) Designate a center, program, or facility other than one 41595
designated by the department of mental healthmental health and 41596
addiction services or the department of developmental 41597
disabilities, as described in division (A)(2)(a) of this section, 41598
to conduct the evaluation and preceding examination of the mental 41599
condition of the defendant.41600

       Whether the court acts pursuant to division (A)(2)(a) or (b) 41601
of this section, the court may designate examiners other than the 41602
personnel of the center, program, facility, or department involved 41603
to make the evaluation and preceding examination of the mental 41604
condition of the defendant.41605

       (B) If the court considers that additional evaluations of the 41606
mental condition of a defendant are necessary following the 41607
evaluation authorized by division (A) of this section, the court 41608
may order up to two additional similar evaluations. These 41609
evaluations shall be completed no later than thirty days from the 41610
date the applicable court order is entered. If more than one 41611
evaluation of the mental condition of the defendant is ordered 41612
under this division, the prosecutor and the defendant may 41613
recommend to the court an examiner whom each prefers to perform 41614
one of the evaluations and preceding examinations.41615

       (C)(1) The court may order a defendant who has been released 41616
on bail to submit to an examination under division (A) or (B) of 41617
this section. The examination shall be conducted either at the 41618
detention facility in which the defendant would have been confined 41619
if the defendant had not been released on bail, or, if so 41620
specified by the center, program, facility, or examiners involved, 41621
at the premises of the center, program, or facility. Additionally, 41622
the examination shall be conducted at the times established by the 41623
examiners involved. If such a defendant refuses to submit to an 41624
examination or a complete examination as required by the court or 41625
the center, program, facility, or examiners involved, the court 41626
may amend the conditions of the bail of the defendant and order 41627
the sheriff to take the defendant into custody and deliver the 41628
defendant to the detention facility in which the defendant would 41629
have been confined if the defendant had not been released on bail, 41630
or, if so specified by the center, program, facility, or examiners 41631
involved, to the premises of the center, program, or facility, for 41632
purposes of the examination.41633

       (2) A defendant who has not been released on bail shall be 41634
examined at the detention facility in which the defendant is 41635
confined or, if so specified by the center, program, facility, or 41636
examiners involved, at the premises of the center, program, or 41637
facility.41638

       (D) The examiner of the mental condition of a defendant under 41639
division (A) or (B) of this section shall file a written report 41640
with the court within thirty days after the entry of an order for 41641
the evaluation of the mental condition of the defendant. The 41642
report shall contain the findings of the examiner; the facts in 41643
reasonable detail on which the findings are based; the opinion of 41644
the examiner as to the mental condition of the defendant; the 41645
opinion of the examiner as to whether the defendant represents a 41646
substantial risk of physical harm to other persons as manifested 41647
by evidence of recent homicidal or other violent behavior, 41648
evidence of recent threats that placed other persons in reasonable 41649
fear of violent behavior and serious physical harm, or evidence of 41650
present dangerousness; and the opinion of the examiner as to the 41651
types of treatment or counseling that the defendant needs. The 41652
court shall provide copies of the report to the prosecutor and 41653
defense counsel.41654

       (E) The costs of any evaluation and preceding examination of 41655
a defendant that is ordered pursuant to division (A) or (B) of 41656
this section shall be taxed as court costs in the criminal case.41657

       (F) If the examiner considers it necessary in order to make 41658
an accurate evaluation of the mental condition of a defendant, an 41659
examiner under division (A) or (B) of this section may request any 41660
family or household member of the defendant to provide the 41661
examiner with information. A family or household member may, but 41662
is not required to, provide information to the examiner upon 41663
receipt of the request.41664

       (G) As used in this section:41665

       (1) "Bail" includes a recognizance.41666

       (2) "Examiner" means a psychiatrist, a licensed independent 41667
social worker who is employed by a forensic center that is 41668
certified as being in compliance with the standards established 41669
under division (H)(B)(7) of section 5119.015119.10 or division 41670
(C) of section 5123.04 of the Revised Code, a licensed 41671
professional clinical counselor who is employed at a forensic 41672
center that is certified as being in compliance with such 41673
standards, or a licensed clinical psychologist, except that in 41674
order to be an examiner, a licensed clinical psychologist shall 41675
meet the criteria of division (I)(1) of section 5122.01 of the 41676
Revised Code or be employed to conduct examinations by the 41677
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services41678
or by a forensic center certified as being in compliance with the 41679
standards established under division (H)(B)(7) of section 5119.0141680
5119.10 or division (C) of section 5123.04 of the Revised Code 41681
that is designated by the department of mental healthmental 41682
health and addiction services.41683

       (3) "Family or household member" has the same meaning as in 41684
section 2919.25 of the Revised Code.41685

       (4) "Prosecutor" has the same meaning as in section 2935.01 41686
of the Revised Code.41687

       (5) "Psychiatrist" and "licensed clinical psychologist" have 41688
the same meanings as in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.41689

       (6) "Protection order issued by a court of another state" has 41690
the same meaning as in section 2919.27 of the Revised Code.41691

       Sec. 2921.01.  As used in sections 2921.01 to 2921.45 of the 41692
Revised Code:41693

       (A) "Public official" means any elected or appointed officer, 41694
or employee, or agent of the state or any political subdivision, 41695
whether in a temporary or permanent capacity, and includes, but is 41696
not limited to, legislators, judges, and law enforcement officers. 41697
"Public official" does not include an employee, officer, or 41698
governor-appointed member of the board of directors of the 41699
nonprofit corporation formed under section 187.01 of the Revised 41700
Code.41701

       (B) "Public servant" means any of the following:41702

       (1) Any public official;41703

       (2) Any person performing ad hoc a governmental function, 41704
including, but not limited to, a juror, member of a temporary 41705
commission, master, arbitrator, advisor, or consultant;41706

       (3) A person who is a candidate for public office, whether or 41707
not the person is elected or appointed to the office for which the 41708
person is a candidate. A person is a candidate for purposes of 41709
this division if the person has been nominated according to law 41710
for election or appointment to public office, or if the person has 41711
filed a petition or petitions as required by law to have the 41712
person's name placed on the ballot in a primary, general, or 41713
special election, or if the person campaigns as a write-in 41714
candidate in any primary, general, or special election.41715

       "Public servant" does not include an employee, officer, or 41716
governor-appointed member of the board of directors of the 41717
nonprofit corporation formed under section 187.01 of the Revised 41718
Code.41719

       (C) "Party official" means any person who holds an elective 41720
or appointive post in a political party in the United States or 41721
this state, by virtue of which the person directs, conducts, or 41722
participates in directing or conducting party affairs at any level 41723
of responsibility.41724

       (D) "Official proceeding" means any proceeding before a 41725
legislative, judicial, administrative, or other governmental 41726
agency or official authorized to take evidence under oath, and 41727
includes any proceeding before a referee, hearing examiner, 41728
commissioner, notary, or other person taking testimony or a 41729
deposition in connection with an official proceeding.41730

       (E) "Detention" means arrest; confinement in any vehicle 41731
subsequent to an arrest; confinement in any public or private 41732
facility for custody of persons charged with or convicted of crime 41733
in this state or another state or under the laws of the United 41734
States or alleged or found to be a delinquent child or unruly 41735
child in this state or another state or under the laws of the 41736
United States; hospitalization, institutionalization, or 41737
confinement in any public or private facility that is ordered 41738
pursuant to or under the authority of section 2945.37, 2945.371, 41739
2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised 41740
Code; confinement in any vehicle for transportation to or from any 41741
facility of any of those natures; detention for extradition or 41742
deportation; except as provided in this division, supervision by 41743
any employee of any facility of any of those natures that is 41744
incidental to hospitalization, institutionalization, or 41745
confinement in the facility but that occurs outside the facility; 41746
supervision by an employee of the department of rehabilitation and 41747
correction of a person on any type of release from a state 41748
correctional institution; or confinement in any vehicle, airplane, 41749
or place while being returned from outside of this state into this 41750
state by a private person or entity pursuant to a contract entered 41751
into under division (E) of section 311.29 of the Revised Code or 41752
division (B) of section 5149.03 of the Revised Code. For a person 41753
confined in a county jail who participates in a county jail 41754
industry program pursuant to section 5147.30 of the Revised Code, 41755
"detention" includes time spent at an assigned work site and going 41756
to and from the work site.41757

       (F) "Detention facility" means any public or private place 41758
used for the confinement of a person charged with or convicted of 41759
any crime in this state or another state or under the laws of the 41760
United States or alleged or found to be a delinquent child or 41761
unruly child in this state or another state or under the laws of 41762
the United States.41763

       (G) "Valuable thing or valuable benefit" includes, but is not 41764
limited to, a contribution. This inclusion does not indicate or 41765
imply that a contribution was not included in those terms before 41766
September 17, 1986.41767

       (H) "Campaign committee," "contribution," "political action 41768
committee," "legislative campaign fund," "political party," and 41769
"political contributing entity" have the same meanings as in 41770
section 3517.01 of the Revised Code.41771

       (I) "Provider agreement" and "medical assistance program" 41772
havehas the same meaningsmeaning as in section 2913.405164.0141773
of the Revised Code.41774

       Sec. 2921.22.  (A)(1) Except as provided in division (A)(2) 41775
of this section, no person, knowing that a felony has been or is 41776
being committed, shall knowingly fail to report such information 41777
to law enforcement authorities.41778

       (2) No person, knowing that a violation of division (B) of 41779
section 2913.04 of the Revised Code has been, or is being 41780
committed or that the person has received information derived from 41781
such a violation, shall knowingly fail to report the violation to 41782
law enforcement authorities.41783

       (B) Except for conditions that are within the scope of 41784
division (E) of this section, no physician, limited practitioner, 41785
nurse, or other person giving aid to a sick or injured person 41786
shall negligently fail to report to law enforcement authorities 41787
any gunshot or stab wound treated or observed by the physician, 41788
limited practitioner, nurse, or person, or any serious physical 41789
harm to persons that the physician, limited practitioner, nurse, 41790
or person knows or has reasonable cause to believe resulted from 41791
an offense of violence.41792

       (C) No person who discovers the body or acquires the first 41793
knowledge of the death of a person shall fail to report the death 41794
immediately to a physician whom the person knows to be treating 41795
the deceased for a condition from which death at such time would 41796
not be unexpected, or to a law enforcement officer, an ambulance 41797
service, an emergency squad, or the coroner in a political 41798
subdivision in which the body is discovered, the death is believed 41799
to have occurred, or knowledge concerning the death is obtained.41800

       (D) No person shall fail to provide upon request of the 41801
person to whom a report required by division (C) of this section 41802
was made, or to any law enforcement officer who has reasonable 41803
cause to assert the authority to investigate the circumstances 41804
surrounding the death, any facts within the person's knowledge 41805
that may have a bearing on the investigation of the death.41806

       (E)(1) As used in this division, "burn injury" means any of 41807
the following:41808

       (a) Second or third degree burns;41809

       (b) Any burns to the upper respiratory tract or laryngeal 41810
edema due to the inhalation of superheated air;41811

       (c) Any burn injury or wound that may result in death;41812

       (d) Any physical harm to persons caused by or as the result 41813
of the use of fireworks, novelties and trick noisemakers, and wire 41814
sparklers, as each is defined by section 3743.01 of the Revised 41815
Code.41816

       (2) No physician, nurse, or limited practitioner who, outside 41817
a hospital, sanitarium, or other medical facility, attends or 41818
treats a person who has sustained a burn injury that is inflicted 41819
by an explosion or other incendiary device or that shows evidence 41820
of having been inflicted in a violent, malicious, or criminal 41821
manner shall fail to report the burn injury immediately to the 41822
local arson, or fire and explosion investigation, bureau, if there 41823
is a bureau of this type in the jurisdiction in which the person 41824
is attended or treated, or otherwise to local law enforcement 41825
authorities.41826

       (3) No manager, superintendent, or other person in charge of 41827
a hospital, sanitarium, or other medical facility in which a 41828
person is attended or treated for any burn injury that is 41829
inflicted by an explosion or other incendiary device or that shows 41830
evidence of having been inflicted in a violent, malicious, or 41831
criminal manner shall fail to report the burn injury immediately 41832
to the local arson, or fire and explosion investigation, bureau, 41833
if there is a bureau of this type in the jurisdiction in which the 41834
person is attended or treated, or otherwise to local law 41835
enforcement authorities.41836

       (4) No person who is required to report any burn injury under 41837
division (E)(2) or (3) of this section shall fail to file, within 41838
three working days after attending or treating the victim, a 41839
written report of the burn injury with the office of the state 41840
fire marshal. The report shall comply with the uniform standard 41841
developed by the state fire marshal pursuant to division (A)(15) 41842
of section 3737.22 of the Revised Code.41843

       (5) Anyone participating in the making of reports under 41844
division (E) of this section or anyone participating in a judicial 41845
proceeding resulting from the reports is immune from any civil or 41846
criminal liability that otherwise might be incurred or imposed as 41847
a result of such actions. Notwithstanding section 4731.22 of the 41848
Revised Code, the physician-patient relationship is not a ground 41849
for excluding evidence regarding a person's burn injury or the 41850
cause of the burn injury in any judicial proceeding resulting from 41851
a report submitted under division (E) of this section.41852

       (F)(1) Any doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine, 41853
hospital intern or resident, registered or licensed practical 41854
nurse, psychologist, social worker, independent social worker, 41855
social work assistant, professional clinical counselor, or 41856
professional counselor who knows or has reasonable cause to 41857
believe that a patient or client has been the victim of domestic 41858
violence, as defined in section 3113.31 of the Revised Code, shall 41859
note that knowledge or belief and the basis for it in the 41860
patient's or client's records.41861

       (2) Notwithstanding section 4731.22 of the Revised Code, the 41862
doctor-patient privilege shall not be a ground for excluding any 41863
information regarding the report containing the knowledge or 41864
belief noted under division (F)(1) of this section, and the 41865
information may be admitted as evidence in accordance with the 41866
Rules of Evidence.41867

       (G) Divisions (A) and (D) of this section do not require 41868
disclosure of information, when any of the following applies:41869

       (1) The information is privileged by reason of the 41870
relationship between attorney and client; doctor and patient; 41871
licensed psychologist or licensed school psychologist and client; 41872
member of the clergy, rabbi, minister, or priest and any person 41873
communicating information confidentially to the member of the 41874
clergy, rabbi, minister, or priest for a religious counseling 41875
purpose of a professional character; husband and wife; or a 41876
communications assistant and those who are a party to a 41877
telecommunications relay service call.41878

       (2) The information would tend to incriminate a member of the 41879
actor's immediate family.41880

       (3) Disclosure of the information would amount to revealing a 41881
news source, privileged under section 2739.04 or 2739.12 of the 41882
Revised Code.41883

       (4) Disclosure of the information would amount to disclosure 41884
by a member of the ordained clergy of an organized religious body 41885
of a confidential communication made to that member of the clergy 41886
in that member's capacity as a member of the clergy by a person 41887
seeking the aid or counsel of that member of the clergy.41888

       (5) Disclosure would amount to revealing information acquired 41889
by the actor in the course of the actor's duties in connection 41890
with a bona fide program of treatment or services for drug 41891
dependent persons or persons in danger of drug dependence, which 41892
program is maintained or conducted by a hospital, clinic, person, 41893
agency, or organizationservices provider certified pursuant to 41894
section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code.41895

       (6) Disclosure would amount to revealing information acquired 41896
by the actor in the course of the actor's duties in connection 41897
with a bona fide program for providing counseling services to 41898
victims of crimes that are violations of section 2907.02 or 41899
2907.05 of the Revised Code or to victims of felonious sexual 41900
penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised 41901
Code. As used in this division, "counseling services" include 41902
services provided in an informal setting by a person who, by 41903
education or experience, is competent to provide those services.41904

       (H) No disclosure of information pursuant to this section 41905
gives rise to any liability or recrimination for a breach of 41906
privilege or confidence.41907

       (I) Whoever violates division (A) or (B) of this section is 41908
guilty of failure to report a crime. Violation of division (A)(1) 41909
of this section is a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. Violation 41910
of division (A)(2) or (B) of this section is a misdemeanor of the 41911
second degree.41912

       (J) Whoever violates division (C) or (D) of this section is 41913
guilty of failure to report knowledge of a death, a misdemeanor of 41914
the fourth degree.41915

       (K)(1) Whoever negligently violates division (E) of this 41916
section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.41917

       (2) Whoever knowingly violates division (E) of this section 41918
is guilty of a misdemeanor of the second degree.41919

       Sec. 2921.36.  (A) No person shall knowingly convey, or 41920
attempt to convey, onto the grounds of a detention facility or of 41921
an institution, office building, or other place that is under the 41922
control of the department of mental healthmental health and 41923
addiction services, the department of developmental disabilities, 41924
the department of youth services, or the department of 41925
rehabilitation and correction any of the following items:41926

       (1) Any deadly weapon or dangerous ordnance, as defined in 41927
section 2923.11 of the Revised Code, or any part of or ammunition 41928
for use in such a deadly weapon or dangerous ordnance;41929

       (2) Any drug of abuse, as defined in section 3719.011 of the 41930
Revised Code;41931

       (3) Any intoxicating liquor, as defined in section 4301.01 of 41932
the Revised Code.41933

       (B) Division (A) of this section does not apply to any person 41934
who conveys or attempts to convey an item onto the grounds of a 41935
detention facility or of an institution, office building, or other 41936
place under the control of the department of mental healthmental 41937
health and addiction services, the department of developmental 41938
disabilities, the department of youth services, or the department 41939
of rehabilitation and correction pursuant to the written 41940
authorization of the person in charge of the detention facility or 41941
the institution, office building, or other place and in accordance 41942
with the written rules of the detention facility or the 41943
institution, office building, or other place.41944

       (C) No person shall knowingly deliver, or attempt to deliver, 41945
to any person who is confined in a detention facility, to a child 41946
confined in a youth services facility, to a prisoner who is 41947
temporarily released from confinement for a work assignment, or to 41948
any patient in an institution under the control of the department 41949
of mental healthmental health and addiction services or the 41950
department of developmental disabilities any item listed in 41951
division (A)(1), (2), or (3) of this section.41952

       (D) No person shall knowingly deliver, or attempt to deliver, 41953
cash to any person who is confined in a detention facility, to a 41954
child confined in a youth services facility, or to a prisoner who 41955
is temporarily released from confinement for a work assignment.41956

       (E) No person shall knowingly deliver, or attempt to deliver, 41957
to any person who is confined in a detention facility, to a child 41958
confined in a youth services facility, or to a prisoner who is 41959
temporarily released from confinement for a work assignment a 41960
cellular telephone, two-way radio, or other electronic 41961
communications device.41962

       (F)(1) It is an affirmative defense to a charge under 41963
division (A)(1) of this section that the weapon or dangerous 41964
ordnance in question was being transported in a motor vehicle for 41965
any lawful purpose, that it was not on the actor's person, and, if 41966
the weapon or dangerous ordnance in question was a firearm, that 41967
it was unloaded and was being carried in a closed package, box, or 41968
case or in a compartment that can be reached only by leaving the 41969
vehicle.41970

       (2) It is an affirmative defense to a charge under division 41971
(C) of this section that the actor was not otherwise prohibited by 41972
law from delivering the item to the confined person, the child, 41973
the prisoner, or the patient and that either of the following 41974
applies:41975

       (a) The actor was permitted by the written rules of the 41976
detention facility or the institution, office building, or other 41977
place to deliver the item to the confined person or the patient.41978

       (b) The actor was given written authorization by the person 41979
in charge of the detention facility or the institution, office 41980
building, or other place to deliver the item to the confined 41981
person or the patient.41982

       (G)(1) Whoever violates division (A)(1) of this section or 41983
commits a violation of division (C) of this section involving an 41984
item listed in division (A)(1) of this section is guilty of 41985
illegal conveyance of weapons onto the grounds of a specified 41986
governmental facility, a felony of the third degree. If the 41987
offender is an officer or employee of the department of 41988
rehabilitation and correction, the court shall impose a mandatory 41989
prison term.41990

       (2) Whoever violates division (A)(2) of this section or 41991
commits a violation of division (C) of this section involving any 41992
drug of abuse is guilty of illegal conveyance of drugs of abuse 41993
onto the grounds of a specified governmental facility, a felony of 41994
the third degree. If the offender is an officer or employee of the 41995
department of rehabilitation and correction or of the department 41996
of youth services, the court shall impose a mandatory prison term.41997

       (3) Whoever violates division (A)(3) of this section or 41998
commits a violation of division (C) of this section involving any 41999
intoxicating liquor is guilty of illegal conveyance of 42000
intoxicating liquor onto the grounds of a specified governmental 42001
facility, a misdemeanor of the second degree.42002

       (4) Whoever violates division (D) of this section is guilty 42003
of illegal conveyance of cash onto the grounds of a detention 42004
facility, a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the offender 42005
previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation 42006
of division (D) of this section, illegal conveyance of cash onto 42007
the grounds of a detention facility is a felony of the fifth 42008
degree.42009

       (5) Whoever violates division (E) of this section is guilty 42010
of illegal conveyance of a communications device onto the grounds 42011
of a specified governmental facility, a misdemeanor of the first 42012
degree, or if the offender previously has been convicted of or 42013
pleaded guilty to a violation of division (E) of this section, a 42014
felony of the fifth degree.42015

       Sec. 2921.38.  (A) No person who is confined in a detention 42016
facility, with intent to harass, annoy, threaten, or alarm another 42017
person, shall cause or attempt to cause the other person to come 42018
into contact with blood, semen, urine, feces, or another bodily 42019
substance by throwing the bodily substance at the other person, by 42020
expelling the bodily substance upon the other person, or in any 42021
other manner.42022

       (B) No person, with intent to harass, annoy, threaten, or 42023
alarm a law enforcement officer, shall cause or attempt to cause 42024
the law enforcement officer to come into contact with blood, 42025
semen, urine, feces, or another bodily substance by throwing the 42026
bodily substance at the law enforcement officer, by expelling the 42027
bodily substance upon the law enforcement officer, or in any other 42028
manner.42029

       (C) No person, with knowledge that the person is a carrier of 42030
the virus that causes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome, is a 42031
carrier of a hepatitis virus, or is infected with tuberculosis and 42032
with intent to harass, annoy, threaten, or alarm another person, 42033
shall cause or attempt to cause the other person to come into 42034
contact with blood, semen, urine, feces, or another bodily 42035
substance by throwing the bodily substance at the other person, by 42036
expelling the bodily substance upon the other person, or in any 42037
other manner.42038

       (D) Whoever violates this section is guilty of harassment 42039
with a bodily substance. A violation of division (A) or (B) of 42040
this section is a felony of the fifth degree. A violation of 42041
division (C) of this section is a felony of the third degree.42042

       (E)(1) The court, on request of the prosecutor, or the law 42043
enforcement authority responsible for the investigation of the 42044
violation, shall cause a person who allegedly has committed a 42045
violation of this section to submit to one or more appropriate 42046
tests to determine if the person is a carrier of the virus that 42047
causes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome, is a carrier of a 42048
hepatitis virus, or is infected with tuberculosis.42049

       (2) The court shall charge the offender with the costs of the 42050
test or tests ordered under division (E)(1) of this section unless 42051
the court determines that the accused is unable to pay, in which 42052
case the costs shall be charged to the entity that operates the 42053
detention facility in which the alleged offense occurred.42054

       (F) This section does not apply to a person who is 42055
hospitalized, institutionalized, or confined in a facility 42056
operated by the department of mental healthmental health and 42057
addiction services or the department of developmental 42058
disabilities.42059

       Sec. 2923.126.  (A) A concealed handgun license that is 42060
issued under section 2923.125 of the Revised Code shall expire 42061
five years after the date of issuance. A licensee who has been 42062
issued a license under that section shall be granted a grace 42063
period of thirty days after the licensee's license expires during 42064
which the licensee's license remains valid. Except as provided in 42065
divisions (B) and (C) of this section, a licensee who has been 42066
issued a concealed handgun license under section 2923.125 or 42067
2923.1213 of the Revised Code may carry a concealed handgun 42068
anywhere in this state if the licensee also carries a valid 42069
license and valid identification when the licensee is in actual 42070
possession of a concealed handgun. The licensee shall give notice 42071
of any change in the licensee's residence address to the sheriff 42072
who issued the license within forty-five days after that change.42073

       If a licensee is the driver or an occupant of a motor vehicle 42074
that is stopped as the result of a traffic stop or a stop for 42075
another law enforcement purpose and if the licensee is 42076
transporting or has a loaded handgun in the motor vehicle at that 42077
time, the licensee shall promptly inform any law enforcement 42078
officer who approaches the vehicle while stopped that the licensee 42079
has been issued a concealed handgun license and that the licensee 42080
currently possesses or has a loaded handgun; the licensee shall 42081
not knowingly disregard or fail to comply with lawful orders of a 42082
law enforcement officer given while the motor vehicle is stopped, 42083
knowingly fail to remain in the motor vehicle while stopped, or 42084
knowingly fail to keep the licensee's hands in plain sight after 42085
any law enforcement officer begins approaching the licensee while 42086
stopped and before the officer leaves, unless directed otherwise 42087
by a law enforcement officer; and the licensee shall not knowingly 42088
have contact with the loaded handgun by touching it with the 42089
licensee's hands or fingers, in any manner in violation of 42090
division (E) of section 2923.16 of the Revised Code, after any law 42091
enforcement officer begins approaching the licensee while stopped 42092
and before the officer leaves. Additionally, if a licensee is the 42093
driver or an occupant of a commercial motor vehicle that is 42094
stopped by an employee of the motor carrier enforcement unit for 42095
the purposes defined in section 5503.04 of the Revised Code and if 42096
the licensee is transporting or has a loaded handgun in the 42097
commercial motor vehicle at that time, the licensee shall promptly 42098
inform the employee of the unit who approaches the vehicle while 42099
stopped that the licensee has been issued a concealed handgun 42100
license and that the licensee currently possesses or has a loaded 42101
handgun. 42102

       If a licensee is stopped for a law enforcement purpose and if 42103
the licensee is carrying a concealed handgun at the time the 42104
officer approaches, the licensee shall promptly inform any law 42105
enforcement officer who approaches the licensee while stopped that 42106
the licensee has been issued a concealed handgun license and that 42107
the licensee currently is carrying a concealed handgun; the 42108
licensee shall not knowingly disregard or fail to comply with 42109
lawful orders of a law enforcement officer given while the 42110
licensee is stopped or knowingly fail to keep the licensee's hands 42111
in plain sight after any law enforcement officer begins 42112
approaching the licensee while stopped and before the officer 42113
leaves, unless directed otherwise by a law enforcement officer; 42114
and the licensee shall not knowingly remove, attempt to remove, 42115
grasp, or hold the loaded handgun or knowingly have contact with 42116
the loaded handgun by touching it with the licensee's hands or 42117
fingers, in any manner in violation of division (B) of section 42118
2923.12 of the Revised Code, after any law enforcement officer 42119
begins approaching the licensee while stopped and before the 42120
officer leaves.42121

        (B) A valid concealed handgun license does not authorize the 42122
licensee to carry a concealed handgun in any manner prohibited 42123
under division (B) of section 2923.12 of the Revised Code or in 42124
any manner prohibited under section 2923.16 of the Revised Code. A 42125
valid license does not authorize the licensee to carry a concealed 42126
handgun into any of the following places:42127

       (1) A police station, sheriff's office, or state highway 42128
patrol station, premises controlled by the bureau of criminal 42129
identification and investigation, a state correctional 42130
institution, jail, workhouse, or other detention facility, an 42131
airport passenger terminal, or an institution that is maintained, 42132
operated, managed, and governed pursuant to division (A) of 42133
section 5119.025119.14 of the Revised Code or division (A)(1) of 42134
section 5123.03 of the Revised Code;42135

        (2) A school safety zone if the licensee's carrying the 42136
concealed handgun is in violation of section 2923.122 of the 42137
Revised Code;42138

       (3) A courthouse or another building or structure in which a 42139
courtroom is located, in violation of section 2923.123 of the 42140
Revised Code;42141

       (4) Any premises or open air arena for which a D permit has 42142
been issued under Chapter 4303. of the Revised Code if the 42143
licensee's carrying the concealed handgun is in violation of 42144
section 2923.121 of the Revised Code;42145

        (5) Any premises owned or leased by any public or private 42146
college, university, or other institution of higher education, 42147
unless the handgun is in a locked motor vehicle or the licensee is 42148
in the immediate process of placing the handgun in a locked motor 42149
vehicle;42150

        (6) Any church, synagogue, mosque, or other place of worship, 42151
unless the church, synagogue, mosque, or other place of worship 42152
posts or permits otherwise;42153

       (7) A child day-care center, a type A family day-care home, a 42154
type B family day-care home, or a type C family day-care home, 42155
except that this division does not prohibit a licensee who resides 42156
in a type A family day-care home, a type B family day-care home, 42157
or a type C family day-care home from carrying a concealed handgun 42158
at any time in any part of the home that is not dedicated or used 42159
for day-care purposes, or from carrying a concealed handgun in a 42160
part of the home that is dedicated or used for day-care purposes 42161
at any time during which no children, other than children of that 42162
licensee, are in the home;42163

       (8) An aircraft that is in, or intended for operation in, 42164
foreign air transportation, interstate air transportation, 42165
intrastate air transportation, or the transportation of mail by 42166
aircraft;42167

       (9) Any building that is a government facility of this state 42168
or a political subdivision of this state and that is not a 42169
building that is used primarily as a shelter, restroom, parking 42170
facility for motor vehicles, or rest facility and is not a 42171
courthouse or other building or structure in which a courtroom is 42172
located that is subject to division (B)(3) of this section;42173

       (10) A place in which federal law prohibits the carrying of 42174
handguns.42175

       (C)(1) Nothing in this section shall negate or restrict a 42176
rule, policy, or practice of a private employer that is not a 42177
private college, university, or other institution of higher 42178
education concerning or prohibiting the presence of firearms on 42179
the private employer's premises or property, including motor 42180
vehicles owned by the private employer. Nothing in this section 42181
shall require a private employer of that nature to adopt a rule, 42182
policy, or practice concerning or prohibiting the presence of 42183
firearms on the private employer's premises or property, including 42184
motor vehicles owned by the private employer.42185

       (2)(a) A private employer shall be immune from liability in a 42186
civil action for any injury, death, or loss to person or property 42187
that allegedly was caused by or related to a licensee bringing a 42188
handgun onto the premises or property of the private employer, 42189
including motor vehicles owned by the private employer, unless the 42190
private employer acted with malicious purpose. A private employer 42191
is immune from liability in a civil action for any injury, death, 42192
or loss to person or property that allegedly was caused by or 42193
related to the private employer's decision to permit a licensee to 42194
bring, or prohibit a licensee from bringing, a handgun onto the 42195
premises or property of the private employer. As used in this 42196
division, "private employer" includes a private college, 42197
university, or other institution of higher education.42198

       (b) A political subdivision shall be immune from liability in 42199
a civil action, to the extent and in the manner provided in 42200
Chapter 2744. of the Revised Code, for any injury, death, or loss 42201
to person or property that allegedly was caused by or related to a 42202
licensee bringing a handgun onto any premises or property owned, 42203
leased, or otherwise under the control of the political 42204
subdivision. As used in this division, "political subdivision" has 42205
the same meaning as in section 2744.01 of the Revised Code.42206

       (3)(a) Except as provided in division (C)(3)(b) of this 42207
section, the owner or person in control of private land or 42208
premises, and a private person or entity leasing land or premises 42209
owned by the state, the United States, or a political subdivision 42210
of the state or the United States, may post a sign in a 42211
conspicuous location on that land or on those premises prohibiting 42212
persons from carrying firearms or concealed firearms on or onto 42213
that land or those premises. Except as otherwise provided in this 42214
division, a person who knowingly violates a posted prohibition of 42215
that nature is guilty of criminal trespass in violation of 42216
division (A)(4) of section 2911.21 of the Revised Code and is 42217
guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If a person 42218
knowingly violates a posted prohibition of that nature and the 42219
posted land or premises primarily was a parking lot or other 42220
parking facility, the person is not guilty of criminal trespass in 42221
violation of division (A)(4) of section 2911.21 of the Revised 42222
Code and instead is subject only to a civil cause of action for 42223
trespass based on the violation.42224

       (b) A landlord may not prohibit or restrict a tenant who is a 42225
licensee and who on or after September 9, 2008, enters into a 42226
rental agreement with the landlord for the use of residential 42227
premises, and the tenant's guest while the tenant is present, from 42228
lawfully carrying or possessing a handgun on those residential 42229
premises.42230

       (c) As used in division (C)(3) of this section:42231

       (i) "Residential premises" has the same meaning as in section 42232
5321.01 of the Revised Code, except "residential premises" does 42233
not include a dwelling unit that is owned or operated by a college 42234
or university.42235

       (ii) "Landlord," "tenant," and "rental agreement" have the 42236
same meanings as in section 5321.01 of the Revised Code.42237

        (D) A person who holds a concealed handgun license issued by 42238
another state that is recognized by the attorney general pursuant 42239
to a reciprocity agreement entered into pursuant to section 109.69 42240
of the Revised Code has the same right to carry a concealed 42241
handgun in this state as a person who was issued a concealed 42242
handgun license under section 2923.125 of the Revised Code and is 42243
subject to the same restrictions that apply to a person who 42244
carries a license issued under that section.42245

       (E) A peace officer has the same right to carry a concealed 42246
handgun in this state as a person who was issued a concealed 42247
handgun license under section 2923.125 of the Revised Code. For 42248
purposes of reciprocity with other states, a peace officer shall 42249
be considered to be a licensee in this state.42250

       (F)(1) A qualified retired peace officer who possesses a 42251
retired peace officer identification card issued pursuant to 42252
division (F)(2) of this section and a valid firearms 42253
requalification certification issued pursuant to division (F)(3) 42254
of this section has the same right to carry a concealed handgun in 42255
this state as a person who was issued a concealed handgun license 42256
under section 2923.125 of the Revised Code and is subject to the 42257
same restrictions that apply to a person who carries a license 42258
issued under that section. For purposes of reciprocity with other 42259
states, a qualified retired peace officer who possesses a retired 42260
peace officer identification card issued pursuant to division 42261
(F)(2) of this section and a valid firearms requalification 42262
certification issued pursuant to division (F)(3) of this section 42263
shall be considered to be a licensee in this state.42264

        (2)(a) Each public agency of this state or of a political 42265
subdivision of this state that is served by one or more peace 42266
officers shall issue a retired peace officer identification card 42267
to any person who retired from service as a peace officer with 42268
that agency, if the issuance is in accordance with the agency's 42269
policies and procedures and if the person, with respect to the 42270
person's service with that agency, satisfies all of the following:42271

        (i) The person retired in good standing from service as a 42272
peace officer with the public agency, and the retirement was not 42273
for reasons of mental instability.42274

        (ii) Before retiring from service as a peace officer with 42275
that agency, the person was authorized to engage in or supervise 42276
the prevention, detection, investigation, or prosecution of, or 42277
the incarceration of any person for, any violation of law and the 42278
person had statutory powers of arrest.42279

        (iii) At the time of the person's retirement as a peace 42280
officer with that agency, the person was trained and qualified to 42281
carry firearms in the performance of the peace officer's duties.42282

        (iv) Before retiring from service as a peace officer with 42283
that agency, the person was regularly employed as a peace officer 42284
for an aggregate of fifteen years or more, or, in the alternative, 42285
the person retired from service as a peace officer with that 42286
agency, after completing any applicable probationary period of 42287
that service, due to a service-connected disability, as determined 42288
by the agency.42289

        (b) A retired peace officer identification card issued to a 42290
person under division (F)(2)(a) of this section shall identify the 42291
person by name, contain a photograph of the person, identify the 42292
public agency of this state or of the political subdivision of 42293
this state from which the person retired as a peace officer and 42294
that is issuing the identification card, and specify that the 42295
person retired in good standing from service as a peace officer 42296
with the issuing public agency and satisfies the criteria set 42297
forth in divisions (F)(2)(a)(i) to (iv) of this section. In 42298
addition to the required content specified in this division, a 42299
retired peace officer identification card issued to a person under 42300
division (F)(2)(a) of this section may include the firearms 42301
requalification certification described in division (F)(3) of this 42302
section, and if the identification card includes that 42303
certification, the identification card shall serve as the firearms 42304
requalification certification for the retired peace officer. If 42305
the issuing public agency issues credentials to active law 42306
enforcement officers who serve the agency, the agency may comply 42307
with division (F)(2)(a) of this section by issuing the same 42308
credentials to persons who retired from service as a peace officer 42309
with the agency and who satisfy the criteria set forth in 42310
divisions (F)(2)(a)(i) to (iv) of this section, provided that the 42311
credentials so issued to retired peace officers are stamped with 42312
the word "RETIRED."42313

        (c) A public agency of this state or of a political 42314
subdivision of this state may charge persons who retired from 42315
service as a peace officer with the agency a reasonable fee for 42316
issuing to the person a retired peace officer identification card 42317
pursuant to division (F)(2)(a) of this section.42318

        (3) If a person retired from service as a peace officer with 42319
a public agency of this state or of a political subdivision of 42320
this state and the person satisfies the criteria set forth in 42321
divisions (F)(2)(a)(i) to (iv) of this section, the public agency 42322
may provide the retired peace officer with the opportunity to 42323
attend a firearms requalification program that is approved for 42324
purposes of firearms requalification required under section 42325
109.801 of the Revised Code. The retired peace officer may be 42326
required to pay the cost of the course.42327

        If a retired peace officer who satisfies the criteria set 42328
forth in divisions (F)(2)(a)(i) to (iv) of this section attends a 42329
firearms requalification program that is approved for purposes of 42330
firearms requalification required under section 109.801 of the 42331
Revised Code, the retired peace officer's successful completion of 42332
the firearms requalification program requalifies the retired peace 42333
officer for purposes of division (F) of this section for five 42334
years from the date on which the program was successfully 42335
completed, and the requalification is valid during that five-year 42336
period. If a retired peace officer who satisfies the criteria set 42337
forth in divisions (F)(2)(a)(i) to (iv) of this section 42338
satisfactorily completes such a firearms requalification program, 42339
the retired peace officer shall be issued a firearms 42340
requalification certification that identifies the retired peace 42341
officer by name, identifies the entity that taught the program, 42342
specifies that the retired peace officer successfully completed 42343
the program, specifies the date on which the course was 42344
successfully completed, and specifies that the requalification is 42345
valid for five years from that date of successful completion. The 42346
firearms requalification certification for a retired peace officer 42347
may be included in the retired peace officer identification card 42348
issued to the retired peace officer under division (F)(2) of this 42349
section.42350

        A retired peace officer who attends a firearms 42351
requalification program that is approved for purposes of firearms 42352
requalification required under section 109.801 of the Revised Code 42353
may be required to pay the cost of the program.42354

        (G) As used in this section:42355

       (1) "Qualified retired peace officer" means a person who 42356
satisfies all of the following:42357

        (a) The person satisfies the criteria set forth in divisions 42358
(F)(2)(a)(i) to (v) of this section.42359

       (b) The person is not under the influence of alcohol or 42360
another intoxicating or hallucinatory drug or substance.42361

        (c) The person is not prohibited by federal law from 42362
receiving firearms.42363

       (2) "Retired peace officer identification card" means an 42364
identification card that is issued pursuant to division (F)(2) of 42365
this section to a person who is a retired peace officer.42366

       (3) "Government facility of this state or a political 42367
subdivision of this state" means any of the following:42368

       (a) A building or part of a building that is owned or leased 42369
by the government of this state or a political subdivision of this 42370
state and where employees of the government of this state or the 42371
political subdivision regularly are present for the purpose of 42372
performing their official duties as employees of the state or 42373
political subdivision;42374

       (b) The office of a deputy registrar serving pursuant to 42375
Chapter 4503. of the Revised Code that is used to perform deputy 42376
registrar functions.42377

       Sec. 2925.03.  (A) No person shall knowingly do any of the 42378
following:42379

       (1) Sell or offer to sell a controlled substance or a 42380
controlled substance analog;42381

       (2) Prepare for shipment, ship, transport, deliver, prepare 42382
for distribution, or distribute a controlled substance or a 42383
controlled substance analog, when the offender knows or has 42384
reasonable cause to believe that the controlled substance or a 42385
controlled substance analog is intended for sale or resale by the 42386
offender or another person.42387

       (B) This section does not apply to any of the following:42388

       (1) Manufacturers, licensed health professionals authorized 42389
to prescribe drugs, pharmacists, owners of pharmacies, and other 42390
persons whose conduct is in accordance with Chapters 3719., 4715., 42391
4723., 4729., 4730., 4731., and 4741. of the Revised Code;42392

       (2) If the offense involves an anabolic steroid, any person 42393
who is conducting or participating in a research project involving 42394
the use of an anabolic steroid if the project has been approved by 42395
the United States food and drug administration;42396

       (3) Any person who sells, offers for sale, prescribes, 42397
dispenses, or administers for livestock or other nonhuman species 42398
an anabolic steroid that is expressly intended for administration 42399
through implants to livestock or other nonhuman species and 42400
approved for that purpose under the "Federal Food, Drug, and 42401
Cosmetic Act," 52 Stat. 1040 (1938), 21 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, 42402
and is sold, offered for sale, prescribed, dispensed, or 42403
administered for that purpose in accordance with that act.42404

       (C) Whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty 42405
of one of the following:42406

       (1) If the drug involved in the violation is any compound, 42407
mixture, preparation, or substance included in schedule I or 42408
schedule II, with the exception of marihuana, cocaine, L.S.D., 42409
heroin, hashish, and controlled substance analogs, whoever 42410
violates division (A) of this section is guilty of aggravated 42411
trafficking in drugs. The penalty for the offense shall be 42412
determined as follows:42413

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(1)(b), (c), 42414
(d), (e), or (f) of this section, aggravated trafficking in drugs 42415
is a felony of the fourth degree, and division (C) of section 42416
2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in determining whether to 42417
impose a prison term on the offender.42418

       (b) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(1)(c), (d), 42419
(e), or (f) of this section, if the offense was committed in the 42420
vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, aggravated 42421
trafficking in drugs is a felony of the third degree, and division 42422
(C) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in determining 42423
whether to impose a prison term on the offender.42424

       (c) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 42425
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds the bulk amount but 42426
is less than five times the bulk amount, aggravated trafficking in 42427
drugs is a felony of the third degree, and, except as otherwise 42428
provided in this division, there is a presumption for a prison 42429
term for the offense. If aggravated trafficking in drugs is a 42430
felony of the third degree under this division and if the offender 42431
two or more times previously has been convicted of or pleaded 42432
guilty to a felony drug abuse offense, the court shall impose as a 42433
mandatory prison term one of the prison terms prescribed for a 42434
felony of the third degree. If the amount of the drug involved is 42435
within that range and if the offense was committed in the vicinity 42436
of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, aggravated 42437
trafficking in drugs is a felony of the second degree, and the 42438
court shall impose as a mandatory prison term one of the prison 42439
terms prescribed for a felony of the second degree.42440

       (d) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 42441
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds five times the bulk 42442
amount but is less than fifty times the bulk amount, aggravated 42443
trafficking in drugs is a felony of the second degree, and the 42444
court shall impose as a mandatory prison term one of the prison 42445
terms prescribed for a felony of the second degree. If the amount 42446
of the drug involved is within that range and if the offense was 42447
committed in the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a 42448
juvenile, aggravated trafficking in drugs is a felony of the first 42449
degree, and the court shall impose as a mandatory prison term one 42450
of the prison terms prescribed for a felony of the first degree.42451

       (e) If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds 42452
fifty times the bulk amount but is less than one hundred times the 42453
bulk amount and regardless of whether the offense was committed in 42454
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 42455
aggravated trafficking in drugs is a felony of the first degree, 42456
and the court shall impose as a mandatory prison term one of the 42457
prison terms prescribed for a felony of the first degree.42458

       (f) If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds one 42459
hundred times the bulk amount and regardless of whether the 42460
offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or in the 42461
vicinity of a juvenile, aggravated trafficking in drugs is a 42462
felony of the first degree, the offender is a major drug offender, 42463
and the court shall impose as a mandatory prison term the maximum 42464
prison term prescribed for a felony of the first degree.42465

       (2) If the drug involved in the violation is any compound, 42466
mixture, preparation, or substance included in schedule III, IV, 42467
or V, whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of 42468
trafficking in drugs. The penalty for the offense shall be 42469
determined as follows:42470

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(2)(b), (c), 42471
(d), or (e) of this section, trafficking in drugs is a felony of 42472
the fifth degree, and division (B) of section 2929.13 of the 42473
Revised Code applies in determining whether to impose a prison 42474
term on the offender.42475

       (b) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(2)(c), (d), 42476
or (e) of this section, if the offense was committed in the 42477
vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking 42478
in drugs is a felony of the fourth degree, and division (C) of 42479
section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in determining whether 42480
to impose a prison term on the offender.42481

       (c) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 42482
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds the bulk amount but 42483
is less than five times the bulk amount, trafficking in drugs is a 42484
felony of the fourth degree, and division (B) of section 2929.13 42485
of the Revised Code applies in determining whether to impose a 42486
prison term for the offense. If the amount of the drug involved is 42487
within that range and if the offense was committed in the vicinity 42488
of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in drugs 42489
is a felony of the third degree, and there is a presumption for a 42490
prison term for the offense.42491

       (d) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 42492
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds five times the bulk 42493
amount but is less than fifty times the bulk amount, trafficking 42494
in drugs is a felony of the third degree, and there is a 42495
presumption for a prison term for the offense. If the amount of 42496
the drug involved is within that range and if the offense was 42497
committed in the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a 42498
juvenile, trafficking in drugs is a felony of the second degree, 42499
and there is a presumption for a prison term for the offense.42500

       (e) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 42501
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds fifty times the bulk 42502
amount, trafficking in drugs is a felony of the second degree, and 42503
the court shall impose as a mandatory prison term one of the 42504
prison terms prescribed for a felony of the second degree. If the 42505
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds fifty times the bulk 42506
amount and if the offense was committed in the vicinity of a 42507
school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in drugs is a 42508
felony of the first degree, and the court shall impose as a 42509
mandatory prison term one of the prison terms prescribed for a 42510
felony of the first degree.42511

       (3) If the drug involved in the violation is marihuana or a 42512
compound, mixture, preparation, or substance containing marihuana 42513
other than hashish, whoever violates division (A) of this section 42514
is guilty of trafficking in marihuana. The penalty for the offense 42515
shall be determined as follows:42516

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(3)(b), (c), 42517
(d), (e), (f), (g), or (h) of this section, trafficking in 42518
marihuana is a felony of the fifth degree, and division (B) of 42519
section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in determining whether 42520
to impose a prison term on the offender.42521

       (b) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(3)(c), (d), 42522
(e), (f), (g), or (h) of this section, if the offense was 42523
committed in the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a 42524
juvenile, trafficking in marihuana is a felony of the fourth 42525
degree, and division (B) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code 42526
applies in determining whether to impose a prison term on the 42527
offender.42528

       (c) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 42529
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds two hundred grams 42530
but is less than one thousand grams, trafficking in marihuana is a 42531
felony of the fourth degree, and division (B) of section 2929.13 42532
of the Revised Code applies in determining whether to impose a 42533
prison term on the offender. If the amount of the drug involved is 42534
within that range and if the offense was committed in the vicinity 42535
of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in 42536
marihuana is a felony of the third degree, and division (C) of 42537
section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in determining whether 42538
to impose a prison term on the offender.42539

       (d) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 42540
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds one thousand grams 42541
but is less than five thousand grams, trafficking in marihuana is 42542
a felony of the third degree, and division (C) of section 2929.13 42543
of the Revised Code applies in determining whether to impose a 42544
prison term on the offender. If the amount of the drug involved is 42545
within that range and if the offense was committed in the vicinity 42546
of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in 42547
marihuana is a felony of the second degree, and there is a 42548
presumption that a prison term shall be imposed for the offense.42549

       (e) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 42550
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds five thousand grams 42551
but is less than twenty thousand grams, trafficking in marihuana 42552
is a felony of the third degree, and there is a presumption that a 42553
prison term shall be imposed for the offense. If the amount of the 42554
drug involved is within that range and if the offense was 42555
committed in the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a 42556
juvenile, trafficking in marihuana is a felony of the second 42557
degree, and there is a presumption that a prison term shall be 42558
imposed for the offense.42559

       (f) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 42560
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds twenty thousand 42561
grams but is less than forty thousand grams, trafficking in 42562
marihuana is a felony of the second degree, and the court shall 42563
impose a mandatory prison term of five, six, seven, or eight 42564
years. If the amount of the drug involved is within that range and 42565
if the offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or in the 42566
vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in marihuana is a felony of 42567
the first degree, and the court shall impose as a mandatory prison 42568
term the maximum prison term prescribed for a felony of the first 42569
degree.42570

       (g) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 42571
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds forty thousand 42572
grams, trafficking in marihuana is a felony of the second degree, 42573
and the court shall impose as a mandatory prison term the maximum 42574
prison term prescribed for a felony of the second degree. If the 42575
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds forty thousand grams 42576
and if the offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or in 42577
the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in marihuana is a felony 42578
of the first degree, and the court shall impose as a mandatory 42579
prison term the maximum prison term prescribed for a felony of the 42580
first degree.42581

       (h) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 42582
offense involves a gift of twenty grams or less of marihuana, 42583
trafficking in marihuana is a minor misdemeanor upon a first 42584
offense and a misdemeanor of the third degree upon a subsequent 42585
offense. If the offense involves a gift of twenty grams or less of 42586
marihuana and if the offense was committed in the vicinity of a 42587
school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in marihuana 42588
is a misdemeanor of the third degree.42589

       (4) If the drug involved in the violation is cocaine or a 42590
compound, mixture, preparation, or substance containing cocaine, 42591
whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of 42592
trafficking in cocaine. The penalty for the offense shall be 42593
determined as follows:42594

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(4)(b), (c), 42595
(d), (e), (f), or (g) of this section, trafficking in cocaine is a 42596
felony of the fifth degree, and division (B) of section 2929.13 of 42597
the Revised Code applies in determining whether to impose a prison 42598
term on the offender.42599

       (b) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(4)(c), (d), 42600
(e), (f), or (g) of this section, if the offense was committed in 42601
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 42602
trafficking in cocaine is a felony of the fourth degree, and 42603
division (C) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in 42604
determining whether to impose a prison term on the offender.42605

       (c) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 42606
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds five grams but is 42607
less than ten grams of cocaine, trafficking in cocaine is a felony 42608
of the fourth degree, and division (B) of section 2929.13 of the 42609
Revised Code applies in determining whether to impose a prison 42610
term for the offense. If the amount of the drug involved is within 42611
that range and if the offense was committed in the vicinity of a 42612
school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in cocaine is 42613
a felony of the third degree, and there is a presumption for a 42614
prison term for the offense.42615

       (d) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 42616
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds ten grams but is 42617
less than twenty grams of cocaine, trafficking in cocaine is a 42618
felony of the third degree, and, except as otherwise provided in 42619
this division, there is a presumption for a prison term for the 42620
offense. If trafficking in cocaine is a felony of the third degree 42621
under this division and if the offender two or more times 42622
previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a felony 42623
drug abuse offense, the court shall impose as a mandatory prison 42624
term one of the prison terms prescribed for a felony of the third 42625
degree. If the amount of the drug involved is within that range 42626
and if the offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or in 42627
the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in cocaine is a felony of 42628
the second degree, and the court shall impose as a mandatory 42629
prison term one of the prison terms prescribed for a felony of the 42630
second degree.42631

       (e) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 42632
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds twenty grams but is 42633
less than twenty-seven grams of cocaine, trafficking in cocaine is 42634
a felony of the second degree, and the court shall impose as a 42635
mandatory prison term one of the prison terms prescribed for a 42636
felony of the second degree. If the amount of the drug involved is 42637
within that range and if the offense was committed in the vicinity 42638
of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in 42639
cocaine is a felony of the first degree, and the court shall 42640
impose as a mandatory prison term one of the prison terms 42641
prescribed for a felony of the first degree.42642

       (f) If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds 42643
twenty-seven grams but is less than one hundred grams of cocaine 42644
and regardless of whether the offense was committed in the 42645
vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking 42646
in cocaine is a felony of the first degree, and the court shall 42647
impose as a mandatory prison term one of the prison terms 42648
prescribed for a felony of the first degree.42649

       (g) If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds one 42650
hundred grams of cocaine and regardless of whether the offense was 42651
committed in the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a 42652
juvenile, trafficking in cocaine is a felony of the first degree, 42653
the offender is a major drug offender, and the court shall impose 42654
as a mandatory prison term the maximum prison term prescribed for 42655
a felony of the first degree.42656

       (5) If the drug involved in the violation is L.S.D. or a 42657
compound, mixture, preparation, or substance containing L.S.D., 42658
whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of 42659
trafficking in L.S.D. The penalty for the offense shall be 42660
determined as follows:42661

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(5)(b), (c), 42662
(d), (e), (f), or (g) of this section, trafficking in L.S.D. is a 42663
felony of the fifth degree, and division (B) of section 2929.13 of 42664
the Revised Code applies in determining whether to impose a prison 42665
term on the offender.42666

       (b) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(5)(c), (d), 42667
(e), (f), or (g) of this section, if the offense was committed in 42668
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 42669
trafficking in L.S.D. is a felony of the fourth degree, and 42670
division (C) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in 42671
determining whether to impose a prison term on the offender.42672

       (c) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 42673
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds ten unit doses but 42674
is less than fifty unit doses of L.S.D. in a solid form or equals 42675
or exceeds one gram but is less than five grams of L.S.D. in a 42676
liquid concentrate, liquid extract, or liquid distillate form, 42677
trafficking in L.S.D. is a felony of the fourth degree, and 42678
division (B) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in 42679
determining whether to impose a prison term for the offense. If 42680
the amount of the drug involved is within that range and if the 42681
offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or in the 42682
vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in L.S.D. is a felony of the 42683
third degree, and there is a presumption for a prison term for the 42684
offense.42685

       (d) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 42686
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds fifty unit doses but 42687
is less than two hundred fifty unit doses of L.S.D. in a solid 42688
form or equals or exceeds five grams but is less than twenty-five 42689
grams of L.S.D. in a liquid concentrate, liquid extract, or liquid 42690
distillate form, trafficking in L.S.D. is a felony of the third 42691
degree, and, except as otherwise provided in this division, there 42692
is a presumption for a prison term for the offense. If trafficking 42693
in L.S.D. is a felony of the third degree under this division and 42694
if the offender two or more times previously has been convicted of 42695
or pleaded guilty to a felony drug abuse offense, the court shall 42696
impose as a mandatory prison term one of the prison terms 42697
prescribed for a felony of the third degree. If the amount of the 42698
drug involved is within that range and if the offense was 42699
committed in the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a 42700
juvenile, trafficking in L.S.D. is a felony of the second degree, 42701
and the court shall impose as a mandatory prison term one of the 42702
prison terms prescribed for a felony of the second degree.42703

       (e) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 42704
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds two hundred fifty 42705
unit doses but is less than one thousand unit doses of L.S.D. in a 42706
solid form or equals or exceeds twenty-five grams but is less than 42707
one hundred grams of L.S.D. in a liquid concentrate, liquid 42708
extract, or liquid distillate form, trafficking in L.S.D. is a 42709
felony of the second degree, and the court shall impose as a 42710
mandatory prison term one of the prison terms prescribed for a 42711
felony of the second degree. If the amount of the drug involved is 42712
within that range and if the offense was committed in the vicinity 42713
of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in 42714
L.S.D. is a felony of the first degree, and the court shall impose 42715
as a mandatory prison term one of the prison terms prescribed for 42716
a felony of the first degree.42717

       (f) If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds one 42718
thousand unit doses but is less than five thousand unit doses of 42719
L.S.D. in a solid form or equals or exceeds one hundred grams but 42720
is less than five hundred grams of L.S.D. in a liquid concentrate, 42721
liquid extract, or liquid distillate form and regardless of 42722
whether the offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or 42723
in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in L.S.D. is a felony 42724
of the first degree, and the court shall impose as a mandatory 42725
prison term one of the prison terms prescribed for a felony of the 42726
first degree.42727

       (g) If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds five 42728
thousand unit doses of L.S.D. in a solid form or equals or exceeds 42729
five hundred grams of L.S.D. in a liquid concentrate, liquid 42730
extract, or liquid distillate form and regardless of whether the 42731
offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or in the 42732
vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in L.S.D. is a felony of the 42733
first degree, the offender is a major drug offender, and the court 42734
shall impose as a mandatory prison term the maximum prison term 42735
prescribed for a felony of the first degree.42736

       (6) If the drug involved in the violation is heroin or a 42737
compound, mixture, preparation, or substance containing heroin, 42738
whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of 42739
trafficking in heroin. The penalty for the offense shall be 42740
determined as follows:42741

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(6)(b), (c), 42742
(d), (e), (f), or (g) of this section, trafficking in heroin is a 42743
felony of the fifth degree, and division (B) of section 2929.13 of 42744
the Revised Code applies in determining whether to impose a prison 42745
term on the offender.42746

       (b) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(6)(c), (d), 42747
(e), (f), or (g) of this section, if the offense was committed in 42748
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 42749
trafficking in heroin is a felony of the fourth degree, and 42750
division (C) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in 42751
determining whether to impose a prison term on the offender.42752

       (c) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 42753
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds ten unit doses but 42754
is less than fifty unit doses or equals or exceeds one gram but is 42755
less than five grams, trafficking in heroin is a felony of the 42756
fourth degree, and division (B) of section 2929.13 of the Revised 42757
Code applies in determining whether to impose a prison term for 42758
the offense. If the amount of the drug involved is within that 42759
range and if the offense was committed in the vicinity of a school 42760
or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in heroin is a 42761
felony of the third degree, and there is a presumption for a 42762
prison term for the offense.42763

       (d) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 42764
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds fifty unit doses but 42765
is less than one hundred unit doses or equals or exceeds five 42766
grams but is less than ten grams, trafficking in heroin is a 42767
felony of the third degree, and there is a presumption for a 42768
prison term for the offense. If the amount of the drug involved is 42769
within that range and if the offense was committed in the vicinity 42770
of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in 42771
heroin is a felony of the second degree, and there is a 42772
presumption for a prison term for the offense.42773

       (e) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 42774
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds one hundred unit 42775
doses but is less than five hundred unit doses or equals or 42776
exceeds ten grams but is less than fifty grams, trafficking in 42777
heroin is a felony of the second degree, and the court shall 42778
impose as a mandatory prison term one of the prison terms 42779
prescribed for a felony of the second degree. If the amount of the 42780
drug involved is within that range and if the offense was 42781
committed in the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a 42782
juvenile, trafficking in heroin is a felony of the first degree, 42783
and the court shall impose as a mandatory prison term one of the 42784
prison terms prescribed for a felony of the first degree.42785

       (f) If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds five 42786
hundred unit doses but is less than two thousand five hundred unit 42787
doses or equals or exceeds fifty grams but is less than two 42788
hundred fifty grams and regardless of whether the offense was 42789
committed in the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a 42790
juvenile, trafficking in heroin is a felony of the first degree, 42791
and the court shall impose as a mandatory prison term one of the 42792
prison terms prescribed for a felony of the first degree.42793

       (g) If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds two 42794
thousand five hundred unit doses or equals or exceeds two hundred 42795
fifty grams and regardless of whether the offense was committed in 42796
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 42797
trafficking in heroin is a felony of the first degree, the 42798
offender is a major drug offender, and the court shall impose as a 42799
mandatory prison term the maximum prison term prescribed for a 42800
felony of the first degree.42801

       (7) If the drug involved in the violation is hashish or a 42802
compound, mixture, preparation, or substance containing hashish, 42803
whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of 42804
trafficking in hashish. The penalty for the offense shall be 42805
determined as follows:42806

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(7)(b), (c), 42807
(d), (e), (f), or (g) of this section, trafficking in hashish is a 42808
felony of the fifth degree, and division (B) of section 2929.13 of 42809
the Revised Code applies in determining whether to impose a prison 42810
term on the offender.42811

       (b) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(7)(c), (d), 42812
(e), (f), or (g) of this section, if the offense was committed in 42813
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 42814
trafficking in hashish is a felony of the fourth degree, and 42815
division (B) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in 42816
determining whether to impose a prison term on the offender.42817

       (c) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 42818
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds ten grams but is 42819
less than fifty grams of hashish in a solid form or equals or 42820
exceeds two grams but is less than ten grams of hashish in a 42821
liquid concentrate, liquid extract, or liquid distillate form, 42822
trafficking in hashish is a felony of the fourth degree, and 42823
division (B) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in 42824
determining whether to impose a prison term on the offender. If 42825
the amount of the drug involved is within that range and if the 42826
offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or in the 42827
vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in hashish is a felony of the 42828
third degree, and division (C) of section 2929.13 of the Revised 42829
Code applies in determining whether to impose a prison term on the 42830
offender.42831

       (d) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 42832
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds fifty grams but is 42833
less than two hundred fifty grams of hashish in a solid form or 42834
equals or exceeds ten grams but is less than fifty grams of 42835
hashish in a liquid concentrate, liquid extract, or liquid 42836
distillate form, trafficking in hashish is a felony of the third 42837
degree, and division (C) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code 42838
applies in determining whether to impose a prison term on the 42839
offender. If the amount of the drug involved is within that range 42840
and if the offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or in 42841
the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in hashish is a felony of 42842
the second degree, and there is a presumption that a prison term 42843
shall be imposed for the offense.42844

       (e) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 42845
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds two hundred fifty 42846
grams but is less than one thousand grams of hashish in a solid 42847
form or equals or exceeds fifty grams but is less than two hundred 42848
grams of hashish in a liquid concentrate, liquid extract, or 42849
liquid distillate form, trafficking in hashish is a felony of the 42850
third degree, and there is a presumption that a prison term shall 42851
be imposed for the offense. If the amount of the drug involved is 42852
within that range and if the offense was committed in the vicinity 42853
of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in 42854
hashish is a felony of the second degree, and there is a 42855
presumption that a prison term shall be imposed for the offense.42856

       (f) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 42857
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds one thousand grams 42858
but is less than two thousand grams of hashish in a solid form or 42859
equals or exceeds two hundred grams but is less than four hundred 42860
grams of hashish in a liquid concentrate, liquid extract, or 42861
liquid distillate form, trafficking in hashish is a felony of the 42862
second degree, and the court shall impose a mandatory prison term 42863
of five, six, seven, or eight years. If the amount of the drug 42864
involved is within that range and if the offense was committed in 42865
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 42866
trafficking in hashish is a felony of the first degree, and the 42867
court shall impose as a mandatory prison term the maximum prison 42868
term prescribed for a felony of the first degree.42869

       (g) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 42870
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds two thousand grams 42871
of hashish in a solid form or equals or exceeds four hundred grams 42872
of hashish in a liquid concentrate, liquid extract, or liquid 42873
distillate form, trafficking in hashish is a felony of the second 42874
degree, and the court shall impose as a mandatory prison term the 42875
maximum prison term prescribed for a felony of the second degree. 42876
If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds two thousand 42877
grams of hashish in a solid form or equals or exceeds four hundred 42878
grams of hashish in a liquid concentrate, liquid extract, or 42879
liquid distillate form and if the offense was committed in the 42880
vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking 42881
in hashish is a felony of the first degree, and the court shall 42882
impose as a mandatory prison term the maximum prison term 42883
prescribed for a felony of the first degree.42884

       (8) If the drug involved in the violation is a controlled 42885
substance analog or compound, mixture, preparation, or substance 42886
that contains a controlled substance analog, whoever violates 42887
division (A) of this section is guilty of trafficking in a 42888
controlled substance analog. The penalty for the offense shall be 42889
determined as follows:42890

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(8)(b), (c), 42891
(d), (e), (f), or (g) of this section, trafficking in a controlled 42892
substance analog is a felony of the fifth degree, and division (C) 42893
of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in determining 42894
whether to impose a prison term on the offender.42895

       (b) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(8)(c), (d), 42896
(e), (f), or (g) of this section, if the offense was committed in 42897
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 42898
trafficking in a controlled substance analog is a felony of the 42899
fourth degree, and division (C) of section 2929.13 of the Revised 42900
Code applies in determining whether to impose a prison term on the 42901
offender.42902

       (c) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 42903
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds ten grams but is 42904
less than twenty grams, trafficking in a controlled substance 42905
analog is a felony of the fourth degree, and division (B) of 42906
section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in determining whether 42907
to impose a prison term for the offense. If the amount of the drug 42908
involved is within that range and if the offense was committed in 42909
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 42910
trafficking in a controlled substance analog is a felony of the 42911
third degree, and there is a presumption for a prison term for the 42912
offense.42913

       (d) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 42914
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds twenty grams but is 42915
less than thirty grams, trafficking in a controlled substance 42916
analog is a felony of the third degree, and there is a presumption 42917
for a prison term for the offense. If the amount of the drug 42918
involved is within that range and if the offense was committed in 42919
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 42920
trafficking in a controlled substance analog is a felony of the 42921
second degree, and there is a presumption for a prison term for 42922
the offense.42923

       (e) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 42924
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds thirty grams but is 42925
less than forty grams, trafficking in a controlled substance 42926
analog is a felony of the second degree, and the court shall 42927
impose as a mandatory prison term one of the prison terms 42928
prescribed for a felony of the second degree. If the amount of the 42929
drug involved is within that range and if the offense was 42930
committed in the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a 42931
juvenile, trafficking in a controlled substance analog is a felony 42932
of the first degree, and the court shall impose as a mandatory 42933
prison term one of the prison terms prescribed for a felony of the 42934
first degree.42935

       (f) If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds 42936
forty grams but is less than fifty grams and regardless of whether 42937
the offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or in the 42938
vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in a controlled substance 42939
analog is a felony of the first degree, and the court shall impose 42940
as a mandatory prison term one of the prison terms prescribed for 42941
a felony of the first degree.42942

       (g) If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds 42943
fifty grams and regardless of whether the offense was committed in 42944
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 42945
trafficking in a controlled substance analog is a felony of the 42946
first degree, the offender is a major drug offender, and the court 42947
shall impose as a mandatory prison term the maximum prison term 42948
prescribed for a felony of the first degree.42949

       (D) In addition to any prison term authorized or required by 42950
division (C) of this section and sections 2929.13 and 2929.14 of 42951
the Revised Code, and in addition to any other sanction imposed 42952
for the offense under this section or sections 2929.11 to 2929.18 42953
of the Revised Code, the court that sentences an offender who is 42954
convicted of or pleads guilty to a violation of division (A) of 42955
this section shall do all of the following that are applicable 42956
regarding the offender:42957

       (1) If the violation of division (A) of this section is a 42958
felony of the first, second, or third degree, the court shall 42959
impose upon the offender the mandatory fine specified for the 42960
offense under division (B)(1) of section 2929.18 of the Revised 42961
Code unless, as specified in that division, the court determines 42962
that the offender is indigent. Except as otherwise provided in 42963
division (H)(1) of this section, a mandatory fine or any other 42964
fine imposed for a violation of this section is subject to 42965
division (F) of this section. If a person is charged with a 42966
violation of this section that is a felony of the first, second, 42967
or third degree, posts bail, and forfeits the bail, the clerk of 42968
the court shall pay the forfeited bail pursuant to divisions 42969
(D)(1) and (F) of this section, as if the forfeited bail was a 42970
fine imposed for a violation of this section. If any amount of the 42971
forfeited bail remains after that payment and if a fine is imposed 42972
under division (H)(1) of this section, the clerk of the court 42973
shall pay the remaining amount of the forfeited bail pursuant to 42974
divisions (H)(2) and (3) of this section, as if that remaining 42975
amount was a fine imposed under division (H)(1) of this section.42976

       (2) The court shall suspend the driver's or commercial 42977
driver's license or permit of the offender in accordance with 42978
division (G) of this section.42979

       (3) If the offender is a professionally licensed person, the 42980
court immediately shall comply with section 2925.38 of the Revised 42981
Code.42982

       (E) When a person is charged with the sale of or offer to 42983
sell a bulk amount or a multiple of a bulk amount of a controlled 42984
substance, the jury, or the court trying the accused, shall 42985
determine the amount of the controlled substance involved at the 42986
time of the offense and, if a guilty verdict is returned, shall 42987
return the findings as part of the verdict. In any such case, it 42988
is unnecessary to find and return the exact amount of the 42989
controlled substance involved, and it is sufficient if the finding 42990
and return is to the effect that the amount of the controlled 42991
substance involved is the requisite amount, or that the amount of 42992
the controlled substance involved is less than the requisite 42993
amount.42994

       (F)(1) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of section 42995
3719.21 of the Revised Code and except as provided in division (H) 42996
of this section, the clerk of the court shall pay any mandatory 42997
fine imposed pursuant to division (D)(1) of this section and any 42998
fine other than a mandatory fine that is imposed for a violation 42999
of this section pursuant to division (A) or (B)(5) of section 43000
2929.18 of the Revised Code to the county, township, municipal 43001
corporation, park district, as created pursuant to section 511.18 43002
or 1545.04 of the Revised Code, or state law enforcement agencies 43003
in this state that primarily were responsible for or involved in 43004
making the arrest of, and in prosecuting, the offender. However, 43005
the clerk shall not pay a mandatory fine so imposed to a law 43006
enforcement agency unless the agency has adopted a written 43007
internal control policy under division (F)(2) of this section that 43008
addresses the use of the fine moneys that it receives. Each agency 43009
shall use the mandatory fines so paid to subsidize the agency's 43010
law enforcement efforts that pertain to drug offenses, in 43011
accordance with the written internal control policy adopted by the 43012
recipient agency under division (F)(2) of this section.43013

       (2)(a) Prior to receiving any fine moneys under division 43014
(F)(1) of this section or division (B) of section 2925.42 of the 43015
Revised Code, a law enforcement agency shall adopt a written 43016
internal control policy that addresses the agency's use and 43017
disposition of all fine moneys so received and that provides for 43018
the keeping of detailed financial records of the receipts of those 43019
fine moneys, the general types of expenditures made out of those 43020
fine moneys, and the specific amount of each general type of 43021
expenditure. The policy shall not provide for or permit the 43022
identification of any specific expenditure that is made in an 43023
ongoing investigation. All financial records of the receipts of 43024
those fine moneys, the general types of expenditures made out of 43025
those fine moneys, and the specific amount of each general type of 43026
expenditure by an agency are public records open for inspection 43027
under section 149.43 of the Revised Code. Additionally, a written 43028
internal control policy adopted under this division is such a 43029
public record, and the agency that adopted it shall comply with 43030
it.43031

       (b) Each law enforcement agency that receives in any calendar 43032
year any fine moneys under division (F)(1) of this section or 43033
division (B) of section 2925.42 of the Revised Code shall prepare 43034
a report covering the calendar year that cumulates all of the 43035
information contained in all of the public financial records kept 43036
by the agency pursuant to division (F)(2)(a) of this section for 43037
that calendar year, and shall send a copy of the cumulative 43038
report, no later than the first day of March in the calendar year 43039
following the calendar year covered by the report, to the attorney 43040
general. Each report received by the attorney general is a public 43041
record open for inspection under section 149.43 of the Revised 43042
Code. Not later than the fifteenth day of April in the calendar 43043
year in which the reports are received, the attorney general shall 43044
send to the president of the senate and the speaker of the house 43045
of representatives a written notification that does all of the 43046
following:43047

       (i) Indicates that the attorney general has received from law 43048
enforcement agencies reports of the type described in this 43049
division that cover the previous calendar year and indicates that 43050
the reports were received under this division;43051

       (ii) Indicates that the reports are open for inspection under 43052
section 149.43 of the Revised Code;43053

       (iii) Indicates that the attorney general will provide a copy 43054
of any or all of the reports to the president of the senate or the 43055
speaker of the house of representatives upon request.43056

       (3) As used in division (F) of this section:43057

       (a) "Law enforcement agencies" includes, but is not limited 43058
to, the state board of pharmacy and the office of a prosecutor.43059

       (b) "Prosecutor" has the same meaning as in section 2935.01 43060
of the Revised Code.43061

       (G) When required under division (D)(2) of this section or 43062
any other provision of this chapter, the court shall suspend for 43063
not less than six months or more than five years the driver's or 43064
commercial driver's license or permit of any person who is 43065
convicted of or pleads guilty to any violation of this section or 43066
any other specified provision of this chapter. If an offender's 43067
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit is suspended 43068
pursuant to this division, the offender, at any time after the 43069
expiration of two years from the day on which the offender's 43070
sentence was imposed or from the day on which the offender finally 43071
was released from a prison term under the sentence, whichever is 43072
later, may file a motion with the sentencing court requesting 43073
termination of the suspension; upon the filing of such a motion 43074
and the court's finding of good cause for the termination, the 43075
court may terminate the suspension.43076

       (H)(1) In addition to any prison term authorized or required 43077
by division (C) of this section and sections 2929.13 and 2929.14 43078
of the Revised Code, in addition to any other penalty or sanction 43079
imposed for the offense under this section or sections 2929.11 to 43080
2929.18 of the Revised Code, and in addition to the forfeiture of 43081
property in connection with the offense as prescribed in Chapter 43082
2981. of the Revised Code, the court that sentences an offender 43083
who is convicted of or pleads guilty to a violation of division 43084
(A) of this section may impose upon the offender an additional 43085
fine specified for the offense in division (B)(4) of section 43086
2929.18 of the Revised Code. A fine imposed under division (H)(1) 43087
of this section is not subject to division (F) of this section and 43088
shall be used solely for the support of one or more eligible 43089
alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programsservices provider in 43090
accordance with divisions (H)(2) and (3) of this section.43091

       (2) The court that imposes a fine under division (H)(1) of 43092
this section shall specify in the judgment that imposes the fine 43093
one or more eligible alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programs43094
services provider for the support of which the fine money is to be 43095
used. No alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programservices 43096
provider shall receive or use money paid or collected in 43097
satisfaction of a fine imposed under division (H)(1) of this 43098
section unless the programservices provider is specified in the 43099
judgment that imposes the fine. No alcohol and drugcommunity43100
addiction programservices provider shall be specified in the 43101
judgment unless the programservices provider is an eligible 43102
alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programservices provider43103
and, except as otherwise provided in division (H)(2) of this 43104
section, unless the programservices provider is located in the 43105
county in which the court that imposes the fine is located or in a 43106
county that is immediately contiguous to the county in which that 43107
court is located. If no eligible alcohol and drugcommunity43108
addiction programservices provider is located in any of those 43109
counties, the judgment may specify an eligible alcohol and drug43110
community addiction programservices provider that is located 43111
anywhere within this state.43112

       (3) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of section 3719.21 43113
of the Revised Code, the clerk of the court shall pay any fine 43114
imposed under division (H)(1) of this section to the eligible 43115
alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programservices provider43116
specified pursuant to division (H)(2) of this section in the 43117
judgment. The eligible alcohol and drugcommunity addiction 43118
programservices provider that receives the fine moneys shall use 43119
the moneys only for the alcohol and drug addiction services 43120
identified in the application for certification under section 43121
3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code or in the application for a 43122
license under section 3793.115119.39 of the Revised Code filed 43123
with the department of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental 43124
health and addiction services by the alcohol and drugcommunity43125
addiction programservices provider specified in the judgment.43126

       (4) Each alcohol and drugcommunity addiction program43127
services provider that receives in a calendar year any fine moneys 43128
under division (H)(3) of this section shall file an annual report 43129
covering that calendar year with the court of common pleas and the 43130
board of county commissioners of the county in which the program43131
services provider is located, with the court of common pleas and 43132
the board of county commissioners of each county from which the 43133
programservices provider received the moneys if that county is 43134
different from the county in which the programservices provider43135
is located, and with the attorney general. The alcohol and drug43136
community addiction programservices provider shall file the 43137
report no later than the first day of March in the calendar year 43138
following the calendar year in which the programservices provider43139
received the fine moneys. The report shall include statistics on 43140
the number of persons served by the alcohol and drugcommunity43141
addiction programservices provider, identify the types of alcohol 43142
and drug addiction services provided to those persons, and include 43143
a specific accounting of the purposes for which the fine moneys 43144
received were used. No information contained in the report shall 43145
identify, or enable a person to determine the identity of, any 43146
person served by the alcohol and drugcommunity addiction program43147
services provider. Each report received by a court of common 43148
pleas, a board of county commissioners, or the attorney general is 43149
a public record open for inspection under section 149.43 of the 43150
Revised Code.43151

       (5) As used in divisions (H)(1) to (5) of this section:43152

       (a) "Alcohol and drugCommunity addiction programservices 43153
provider" and "alcohol and drug addiction services" have the same 43154
meanings as in section 3793.015119.01 of the Revised Code.43155

       (b) "Eligible alcohol and drugcommunity addiction program43156
services provider" means an alcohol and druga community addiction 43157
programservices provider that is certified under section 3793.0643158
5119.36 of the Revised Code or licensed under section 3793.1143159
5119.39 of the Revised Code by the department of alcohol and drug 43160
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services.43161

       (I) As used in this section, "drug" includes any substance 43162
that is represented to be a drug.43163

       (J) It is an affirmative defense to a charge of trafficking 43164
in a controlled substance analog under division (C)(8) of this 43165
section that the person charged with violating that offense sold 43166
or offered to sell, or prepared for shipment, shipped, 43167
transported, delivered, prepared for distribution, or distributed 43168
an item described in division (HH)(2)(a), (b), or (c) of section 43169
3719.01 of the Revised Code.43170

       Sec. 2929.15.  (A)(1) If in sentencing an offender for a 43171
felony the court is not required to impose a prison term, a 43172
mandatory prison term, or a term of life imprisonment upon the 43173
offender, the court may directly impose a sentence that consists 43174
of one or more community control sanctions authorized pursuant to 43175
section 2929.16, 2929.17, or 2929.18 of the Revised Code. If the 43176
court is sentencing an offender for a fourth degree felony OVI 43177
offense under division (G)(1) of section 2929.13 of the Revised 43178
Code, in addition to the mandatory term of local incarceration 43179
imposed under that division and the mandatory fine required by 43180
division (B)(3) of section 2929.18 of the Revised Code, the court 43181
may impose upon the offender a community control sanction or 43182
combination of community control sanctions in accordance with 43183
sections 2929.16 and 2929.17 of the Revised Code. If the court is 43184
sentencing an offender for a third or fourth degree felony OVI 43185
offense under division (G)(2) of section 2929.13 of the Revised 43186
Code, in addition to the mandatory prison term or mandatory prison 43187
term and additional prison term imposed under that division, the 43188
court also may impose upon the offender a community control 43189
sanction or combination of community control sanctions under 43190
section 2929.16 or 2929.17 of the Revised Code, but the offender 43191
shall serve all of the prison terms so imposed prior to serving 43192
the community control sanction.43193

        The duration of all community control sanctions imposed upon 43194
an offender under this division shall not exceed five years. If 43195
the offender absconds or otherwise leaves the jurisdiction of the 43196
court in which the offender resides without obtaining permission 43197
from the court or the offender's probation officer to leave the 43198
jurisdiction of the court, or if the offender is confined in any 43199
institution for the commission of any offense while under a 43200
community control sanction, the period of the community control 43201
sanction ceases to run until the offender is brought before the 43202
court for its further action. If the court sentences the offender 43203
to one or more nonresidential sanctions under section 2929.17 of 43204
the Revised Code, the court shall impose as a condition of the 43205
nonresidential sanctions that, during the period of the sanctions, 43206
the offender must abide by the law and must not leave the state 43207
without the permission of the court or the offender's probation 43208
officer. The court may impose any other conditions of release 43209
under a community control sanction that the court considers 43210
appropriate, including, but not limited to, requiring that the 43211
offender not ingest or be injected with a drug of abuse and submit 43212
to random drug testing as provided in division (D) of this section 43213
to determine whether the offender ingested or was injected with a 43214
drug of abuse and requiring that the results of the drug test 43215
indicate that the offender did not ingest or was not injected with 43216
a drug of abuse.43217

       (2)(a) If a court sentences an offender to any community 43218
control sanction or combination of community control sanctions 43219
authorized pursuant to section 2929.16, 2929.17, or 2929.18 of the 43220
Revised Code, the court shall place the offender under the general 43221
control and supervision of a department of probation in the county 43222
that serves the court for purposes of reporting to the court a 43223
violation of any condition of the sanctions, any condition of 43224
release under a community control sanction imposed by the court, a 43225
violation of law, or the departure of the offender from this state 43226
without the permission of the court or the offender's probation 43227
officer. Alternatively, if the offender resides in another county 43228
and a county department of probation has been established in that 43229
county or that county is served by a multicounty probation 43230
department established under section 2301.27 of the Revised Code, 43231
the court may request the court of common pleas of that county to 43232
receive the offender into the general control and supervision of 43233
that county or multicounty department of probation for purposes of 43234
reporting to the court a violation of any condition of the 43235
sanctions, any condition of release under a community control 43236
sanction imposed by the court, a violation of law, or the 43237
departure of the offender from this state without the permission 43238
of the court or the offender's probation officer, subject to the 43239
jurisdiction of the trial judge over and with respect to the 43240
person of the offender, and to the rules governing that department 43241
of probation.43242

       If there is no department of probation in the county that 43243
serves the court, the court shall place the offender, regardless 43244
of the offender's county of residence, under the general control 43245
and supervision of the adult parole authority for purposes of 43246
reporting to the court a violation of any of the sanctions, any 43247
condition of release under a community control sanction imposed by 43248
the court, a violation of law, or the departure of the offender 43249
from this state without the permission of the court or the 43250
offender's probation officer.43251

       (b) If the court imposing sentence upon an offender sentences 43252
the offender to any community control sanction or combination of 43253
community control sanctions authorized pursuant to section 43254
2929.16, 2929.17, or 2929.18 of the Revised Code, and if the 43255
offender violates any condition of the sanctions, any condition of 43256
release under a community control sanction imposed by the court, 43257
violates any law, or departs the state without the permission of 43258
the court or the offender's probation officer, the public or 43259
private person or entity that operates or administers the sanction 43260
or the program or activity that comprises the sanction shall 43261
report the violation or departure directly to the sentencing 43262
court, or shall report the violation or departure to the county or 43263
multicounty department of probation with general control and 43264
supervision over the offender under division (A)(2)(a) of this 43265
section or the officer of that department who supervises the 43266
offender, or, if there is no such department with general control 43267
and supervision over the offender under that division, to the 43268
adult parole authority. If the public or private person or entity 43269
that operates or administers the sanction or the program or 43270
activity that comprises the sanction reports the violation or 43271
departure to the county or multicounty department of probation or 43272
the adult parole authority, the department's or authority's 43273
officers may treat the offender as if the offender were on 43274
probation and in violation of the probation, and shall report the 43275
violation of the condition of the sanction, any condition of 43276
release under a community control sanction imposed by the court, 43277
the violation of law, or the departure from the state without the 43278
required permission to the sentencing court.43279

       (3) If an offender who is eligible for community control 43280
sanctions under this section admits to being drug addicted or the 43281
court has reason to believe that the offender is drug addicted, 43282
and if the offense for which the offender is being sentenced was 43283
related to the addiction, the court may require that the offender 43284
be assessed by a properly credentialed professional within a 43285
specified period of time and shall require the professional to 43286
file a written assessment of the offender with the court. If a 43287
court imposes treatment and recovery support services as a 43288
community control sanction, the court shall direct the level and 43289
type of treatment and recovery support services after 43290
consideration of the written assessment, if available at the time 43291
of sentencing, and recommendations of the professional and other 43292
treatment and recovery support services providers.43293

        (4) If an assessment completed pursuant to division (A)(3) of 43294
this section indicates that the offender is addicted to drugs or 43295
alcohol, the court may include in any community control sanction 43296
imposed for a violation of section 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 43297
2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.22, 2925.23, 2925.36, or 43298
2925.37 of the Revised Code a requirement that the offender 43299
participate in a treatment and recovery support services program 43300
certified under section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code or 43301
offered by another properly credentialed programcommunity 43302
addiction services provider.43303

       (B)(1) If the conditions of a community control sanction are 43304
violated or if the offender violates a law or leaves the state 43305
without the permission of the court or the offender's probation 43306
officer, the sentencing court may impose upon the violator one or 43307
more of the following penalties:43308

       (a) A longer time under the same sanction if the total time 43309
under the sanctions does not exceed the five-year limit specified 43310
in division (A) of this section;43311

       (b) A more restrictive sanction under section 2929.16, 43312
2929.17, or 2929.18 of the Revised Code;43313

       (c) A prison term on the offender pursuant to section 2929.14 43314
of the Revised Code. 43315

       (2) The prison term, if any, imposed upon a violator pursuant 43316
to this division shall be within the range of prison terms 43317
available for the offense for which the sanction that was violated 43318
was imposed and shall not exceed the prison term specified in the 43319
notice provided to the offender at the sentencing hearing pursuant 43320
to division (B)(2) of section 2929.19 of the Revised Code. The 43321
court may reduce the longer period of time that the offender is 43322
required to spend under the longer sanction, the more restrictive 43323
sanction, or a prison term imposed pursuant to this division by 43324
the time the offender successfully spent under the sanction that 43325
was initially imposed.43326

       (C) If an offender, for a significant period of time, 43327
fulfills the conditions of a sanction imposed pursuant to section 43328
2929.16, 2929.17, or 2929.18 of the Revised Code in an exemplary 43329
manner, the court may reduce the period of time under the sanction 43330
or impose a less restrictive sanction, but the court shall not 43331
permit the offender to violate any law or permit the offender to 43332
leave the state without the permission of the court or the 43333
offender's probation officer.43334

       (D)(1) If a court under division (A)(1) of this section 43335
imposes a condition of release under a community control sanction 43336
that requires the offender to submit to random drug testing, the 43337
department of probation or the adult parole authority that has 43338
general control and supervision of the offender under division 43339
(A)(2)(a) of this section may cause the offender to submit to 43340
random drug testing performed by a laboratory or entity that has 43341
entered into a contract with any of the governmental entities or 43342
officers authorized to enter into a contract with that laboratory 43343
or entity under section 341.26, 753.33, or 5120.63 of the Revised 43344
Code.43345

       (2) If no laboratory or entity described in division (D)(1) 43346
of this section has entered into a contract as specified in that 43347
division, the department of probation or the adult parole 43348
authority that has general control and supervision of the offender 43349
under division (A)(2)(a) of this section shall cause the offender 43350
to submit to random drug testing performed by a reputable public 43351
laboratory to determine whether the individual who is the subject 43352
of the drug test ingested or was injected with a drug of abuse.43353

       (3) A laboratory or entity that has entered into a contract 43354
pursuant to section 341.26, 753.33, or 5120.63 of the Revised Code 43355
shall perform the random drug tests under division (D)(1) of this 43356
section in accordance with the applicable standards that are 43357
included in the terms of that contract. A public laboratory shall 43358
perform the random drug tests under division (D)(2) of this 43359
section in accordance with the standards set forth in the policies 43360
and procedures established by the department of rehabilitation and 43361
correction pursuant to section 5120.63 of the Revised Code. An 43362
offender who is required under division (A)(1) of this section to 43363
submit to random drug testing as a condition of release under a 43364
community control sanction and whose test results indicate that 43365
the offender ingested or was injected with a drug of abuse shall 43366
pay the fee for the drug test if the department of probation or 43367
the adult parole authority that has general control and 43368
supervision of the offender requires payment of a fee. A 43369
laboratory or entity that performs the random drug testing on an 43370
offender under division (D)(1) or (2) of this section shall 43371
transmit the results of the drug test to the appropriate 43372
department of probation or the adult parole authority that has 43373
general control and supervision of the offender under division 43374
(A)(2)(a) of this section.43375

       Sec. 2930.01.  As used in this chapter:43376

       (A) "Crime" means any of the following:43377

       (1) A felony;43378

       (2) A violation of section 2903.05, 2903.06, 2903.13, 43379
2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2907.06, 2919.25, or 2921.04 of the 43380
Revised Code, a violation of section 2903.07 of the Revised Code 43381
as it existed prior to March 23, 2000, or a violation of a 43382
substantially equivalent municipal ordinance;43383

       (3) A violation of division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19, 43384
division (A) or (B) of section 1547.11, or division (A)(3) of 43385
section 4561.15 of the Revised Code or of a municipal ordinance 43386
substantially similar to any of those divisions that is the 43387
proximate cause of a vehicle, streetcar, trackless trolley, 43388
aquatic device, or aircraft accident in which the victim receives 43389
injuries for which the victim receives medical treatment either at 43390
the scene of the accident by emergency medical services personnel 43391
or at a hospital, ambulatory care facility, physician's office, 43392
specialist's office, or other medical care facility.43393

       (4) A motor vehicle accident to which both of the following 43394
apply:43395

       (a) The motor vehicle accident is caused by a violation of a 43396
provision of the Revised Code that is a misdemeanor of the first 43397
degree or higher.43398

       (b) As a result of the motor vehicle accident, the victim 43399
receives injuries for which the victim receives medical treatment 43400
either at the scene of the accident by emergency medical services 43401
personnel or at a hospital, ambulatory care facility, physician's 43402
office, specialist's office, or other medical care facility.43403

       (B) "Custodial agency" means one of the following:43404

       (1) The entity that has custody of a defendant or an alleged 43405
juvenile offender who is incarcerated for a crime, is under 43406
detention for the commission of a specified delinquent act, or who 43407
is detained after a finding of incompetence to stand trial or not 43408
guilty by reason of insanity relative to a crime, including any of 43409
the following:43410

       (a) The department of rehabilitation and correction or the 43411
adult parole authority;43412

       (b) A county sheriff;43413

       (c) The entity that administers a jail, as defined in section 43414
2929.01 of the Revised Code;43415

       (d) The entity that administers a community-based 43416
correctional facility and program or a district community-based 43417
correctional facility and program;43418

       (e) The department of mental healthmental health and 43419
addiction services or other entity to which a defendant found 43420
incompetent to stand trial or not guilty by reason of insanity is 43421
committed.43422

       (2) The entity that has custody of an alleged juvenile 43423
offender pursuant to an order of disposition of a juvenile court, 43424
including the department of youth services or a school, camp, 43425
institution, or other facility operated for the care of delinquent 43426
children.43427

       (C) "Defendant" means a person who is alleged to be the 43428
perpetrator of a crime in a police report or in a complaint, 43429
indictment, or information that charges the commission of a crime 43430
and that provides the basis for the criminal prosecution and 43431
subsequent proceedings to which this chapter makes reference.43432

       (D) "Member of the victim's family" means a spouse, child, 43433
stepchild, sibling, parent, stepparent, grandparent, or other 43434
relative of a victim but does not include a person who is charged 43435
with, convicted of, or adjudicated to be a delinquent child for 43436
the crime or specified delinquent act against the victim or 43437
another crime or specified delinquent act arising from the same 43438
conduct, criminal episode, or plan.43439

       (E) "Prosecutor" means one of the following:43440

       (1) With respect to a criminal case, it has the same meaning 43441
as in section 2935.01 of the Revised Code and also includes the 43442
attorney general and, when appropriate, the employees of any 43443
person listed in section 2935.01 of the Revised Code or of the 43444
attorney general.43445

       (2) With respect to a delinquency proceeding, it includes any 43446
person listed in division (C) of section 2935.01 of the Revised 43447
Code or an employee of a person listed in that division who 43448
prosecutes a delinquency proceeding.43449

       (F) "Public agency" means an office, agency, department, 43450
bureau, or other governmental entity of the state or of a 43451
political subdivision of the state.43452

       (G) "Public official" has the same meaning as in section 43453
2921.01 of the Revised Code.43454

       (H) "Victim" means either of the following:43455

       (1) A person who is identified as the victim of a crime or 43456
specified delinquent act in a police report or in a complaint, 43457
indictment, or information that charges the commission of a crime 43458
and that provides the basis for the criminal prosecution or 43459
delinquency proceeding and subsequent proceedings to which this 43460
chapter makes reference.43461

       (2) A person who receives injuries as a result of a vehicle, 43462
streetcar, trackless trolley, aquatic device, or aircraft accident 43463
that is proximately caused by a violation described in division 43464
(A)(3) of this section or a motor vehicle accident that is 43465
proximately caused by a violation described in division (A)(4) of 43466
this section and who receives medical treatment as described in 43467
division (A)(3) or (4) of this section, whichever is applicable.43468

       (I) "Victim's representative" means a member of the victim's 43469
family or another person who pursuant to the authority of section 43470
2930.02 of the Revised Code exercises the rights of a victim under 43471
this chapter.43472

       (J) "Court" means a court of common pleas, juvenile court, 43473
municipal court, or county court.43474

       (K) "Delinquency proceeding" means all proceedings in a 43475
juvenile court that are related to a case in which a complaint has 43476
been filed alleging that a child is a delinquent child.43477

       (L) "Case" means a delinquency proceeding and all related 43478
activity or a criminal prosecution and all related activity.43479

       (M) The "defense" means the defense against criminal charges 43480
in a criminal prosecution or the defense against a delinquent 43481
child complaint in a delinquency proceeding.43482

       (N) The "prosecution" means the prosecution of criminal 43483
charges in a criminal prosecution or the prosecution of a 43484
delinquent child complaint in a delinquency proceeding.43485

       (O) "Specified delinquent act" means any of the following:43486

       (1) An act committed by a child that if committed by an adult 43487
would be a felony;43488

       (2) An act committed by a child that is a violation of a 43489
section listed in division (A)(1) or (2) of this section or is a 43490
violation of a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance;43491

       (3) An act committed by a child that is described in division 43492
(A)(3) or (4) of this section.43493

       (P)(1) "Alleged juvenile offender" means a child who is 43494
alleged to have committed a specified delinquent act in a police 43495
report or in a complaint in juvenile court that charges the 43496
commission of a specified delinquent act and that provides the 43497
basis for the delinquency proceeding and all subsequent 43498
proceedings to which this chapter makes reference.43499

       (2) As used in divisions (O) and (P)(1) of this section, 43500
"child" has the same meaning as in section 2151.011 of the Revised 43501
Code.43502

       (Q) "Motor vehicle accident" means any accident involving a 43503
motor vehicle.43504

       (R) "Motor vehicle" has the same meaning as in section 43505
4509.01 of the Revised Code.43506

       (S) "Aircraft" has the same meaning as in section 4561.01 of 43507
the Revised Code.43508

       (T) "Aquatic device" means any vessel, or any water skis, 43509
aquaplane, or similar device.43510

        (U) "Vehicle," "streetcar," and "trackless trolley" have the 43511
same meanings as in section 4511.01 of the Revised Code.43512

        (V) "Vehicle, streetcar, trackless trolley, aquatic device, 43513
or aircraft accident" means any accident involving a vehicle, 43514
streetcar, trackless trolley, aquatic device, or aircraft.43515

        (W) "Vessel" has the same meaning as in section 1547.01 of 43516
the Revised Code.43517

       Sec. 2935.03.  (A)(1) A sheriff, deputy sheriff, marshal, 43518
deputy marshal, municipal police officer, township constable, 43519
police officer of a township or joint police district, member of a 43520
police force employed by a metropolitan housing authority under 43521
division (D) of section 3735.31 of the Revised Code, member of a 43522
police force employed by a regional transit authority under 43523
division (Y) of section 306.35 of the Revised Code, state 43524
university law enforcement officer appointed under section 3345.04 43525
of the Revised Code, veterans' home police officer appointed under 43526
section 5907.02 of the Revised Code, special police officer 43527
employed by a port authority under section 4582.04 or 4582.28 of 43528
the Revised Code, or a special police officer employed by a 43529
municipal corporation at a municipal airport, or other municipal 43530
air navigation facility, that has scheduled operations, as defined 43531
in section 119.3 of Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations, 43532
14 C.F.R. 119.3, as amended, and that is required to be under a 43533
security program and is governed by aviation security rules of the 43534
transportation security administration of the United States 43535
department of transportation as provided in Parts 1542. and 1544. 43536
of Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as amended, shall 43537
arrest and detain, until a warrant can be obtained, a person found 43538
violating, within the limits of the political subdivision, 43539
metropolitan housing authority housing project, regional transit 43540
authority facilities or areas of a municipal corporation that have 43541
been agreed to by a regional transit authority and a municipal 43542
corporation located within its territorial jurisdiction, college, 43543
university, veterans' home operated under Chapter 5907. of the 43544
Revised Code, port authority, or municipal airport or other 43545
municipal air navigation facility, in which the peace officer is 43546
appointed, employed, or elected, a law of this state, an ordinance 43547
of a municipal corporation, or a resolution of a township.43548

       (2) A peace officer of the department of natural resources, a 43549
state fire marshal law enforcement officer described in division 43550
(A)(23) of section 109.71 of the Revised Code, or an individual 43551
designated to perform law enforcement duties under section 43552
511.232, 1545.13, or 6101.75 of the Revised Code shall arrest and 43553
detain, until a warrant can be obtained, a person found violating, 43554
within the limits of the peace officer's, state fire marshal law 43555
enforcement officer's, or individual's territorial jurisdiction, a 43556
law of this state.43557

       (3) The house sergeant at arms, if the house sergeant at arms 43558
has arrest authority pursuant to division (E)(1) of section 43559
101.311 of the Revised Code, and an assistant house sergeant at 43560
arms shall arrest and detain, until a warrant can be obtained, a 43561
person found violating, within the limits of the sergeant at 43562
arms's or assistant sergeant at arms's territorial jurisdiction 43563
specified in division (D)(1)(a) of section 101.311 of the Revised 43564
Code or while providing security pursuant to division (D)(1)(f) of 43565
section 101.311 of the Revised Code, a law of this state, an 43566
ordinance of a municipal corporation, or a resolution of a 43567
township.43568

       (4) The senate sergeant at arms and an assistant senate 43569
sergeant at arms shall arrest and detain, until a warrant can be 43570
obtained, a person found violating, within the limits of the 43571
sergeant at arms's or assistant sergeant at arms's territorial 43572
jurisdiction specified in division (B) of section 101.312 of the 43573
Revised Code, a law of this state, an ordinance of a municipal 43574
corporation, or a resolution of a township.43575

       (B)(1) When there is reasonable ground to believe that an 43576
offense of violence, the offense of criminal child enticement as 43577
defined in section 2905.05 of the Revised Code, the offense of 43578
public indecency as defined in section 2907.09 of the Revised 43579
Code, the offense of domestic violence as defined in section 43580
2919.25 of the Revised Code, the offense of violating a protection 43581
order as defined in section 2919.27 of the Revised Code, the 43582
offense of menacing by stalking as defined in section 2903.211 of 43583
the Revised Code, the offense of aggravated trespass as defined in 43584
section 2911.211 of the Revised Code, a theft offense as defined 43585
in section 2913.01 of the Revised Code, or a felony drug abuse 43586
offense as defined in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code, has 43587
been committed within the limits of the political subdivision, 43588
metropolitan housing authority housing project, regional transit 43589
authority facilities or those areas of a municipal corporation 43590
that have been agreed to by a regional transit authority and a 43591
municipal corporation located within its territorial jurisdiction, 43592
college, university, veterans' home operated under Chapter 5907. 43593
of the Revised Code, port authority, or municipal airport or other 43594
municipal air navigation facility, in which the peace officer is 43595
appointed, employed, or elected or within the limits of the 43596
territorial jurisdiction of the peace officer, a peace officer 43597
described in division (A) of this section may arrest and detain 43598
until a warrant can be obtained any person who the peace officer 43599
has reasonable cause to believe is guilty of the violation.43600

       (2) For purposes of division (B)(1) of this section, the 43601
execution of any of the following constitutes reasonable ground to 43602
believe that the offense alleged in the statement was committed 43603
and reasonable cause to believe that the person alleged in the 43604
statement to have committed the offense is guilty of the 43605
violation:43606

       (a) A written statement by a person alleging that an alleged 43607
offender has committed the offense of menacing by stalking or 43608
aggravated trespass;43609

       (b) A written statement by the administrator of the 43610
interstate compact on mental health appointed under section 43611
5119.515119.71 of the Revised Code alleging that a person who had 43612
been hospitalized, institutionalized, or confined in any facility 43613
under an order made pursuant to or under authority of section 43614
2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 43615
2945.402 of the Revised Code has escaped from the facility, from 43616
confinement in a vehicle for transportation to or from the 43617
facility, or from supervision by an employee of the facility that 43618
is incidental to hospitalization, institutionalization, or 43619
confinement in the facility and that occurs outside of the 43620
facility, in violation of section 2921.34 of the Revised Code;43621

       (c) A written statement by the administrator of any facility 43622
in which a person has been hospitalized, institutionalized, or 43623
confined under an order made pursuant to or under authority of 43624
section 2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 43625
2945.402 of the Revised Code alleging that the person has escaped 43626
from the facility, from confinement in a vehicle for 43627
transportation to or from the facility, or from supervision by an 43628
employee of the facility that is incidental to hospitalization, 43629
institutionalization, or confinement in the facility and that 43630
occurs outside of the facility, in violation of section 2921.34 of 43631
the Revised Code.43632

       (3)(a) For purposes of division (B)(1) of this section, a 43633
peace officer described in division (A) of this section has 43634
reasonable grounds to believe that the offense of domestic 43635
violence or the offense of violating a protection order has been 43636
committed and reasonable cause to believe that a particular person 43637
is guilty of committing the offense if any of the following 43638
occurs:43639

       (i) A person executes a written statement alleging that the 43640
person in question has committed the offense of domestic violence 43641
or the offense of violating a protection order against the person 43642
who executes the statement or against a child of the person who 43643
executes the statement.43644

       (ii) No written statement of the type described in division 43645
(B)(3)(a)(i) of this section is executed, but the peace officer, 43646
based upon the peace officer's own knowledge and observation of 43647
the facts and circumstances of the alleged incident of the offense 43648
of domestic violence or the alleged incident of the offense of 43649
violating a protection order or based upon any other information, 43650
including, but not limited to, any reasonably trustworthy 43651
information given to the peace officer by the alleged victim of 43652
the alleged incident of the offense or any witness of the alleged 43653
incident of the offense, concludes that there are reasonable 43654
grounds to believe that the offense of domestic violence or the 43655
offense of violating a protection order has been committed and 43656
reasonable cause to believe that the person in question is guilty 43657
of committing the offense.43658

       (iii) No written statement of the type described in division 43659
(B)(3)(a)(i) of this section is executed, but the peace officer 43660
witnessed the person in question commit the offense of domestic 43661
violence or the offense of violating a protection order.43662

       (b) If pursuant to division (B)(3)(a) of this section a peace 43663
officer has reasonable grounds to believe that the offense of 43664
domestic violence or the offense of violating a protection order 43665
has been committed and reasonable cause to believe that a 43666
particular person is guilty of committing the offense, it is the 43667
preferred course of action in this state that the officer arrest 43668
and detain that person pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section 43669
until a warrant can be obtained.43670

       If pursuant to division (B)(3)(a) of this section a peace 43671
officer has reasonable grounds to believe that the offense of 43672
domestic violence or the offense of violating a protection order 43673
has been committed and reasonable cause to believe that family or 43674
household members have committed the offense against each other, 43675
it is the preferred course of action in this state that the 43676
officer, pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section, arrest and 43677
detain until a warrant can be obtained the family or household 43678
member who committed the offense and whom the officer has 43679
reasonable cause to believe is the primary physical aggressor. 43680
There is no preferred course of action in this state regarding any 43681
other family or household member who committed the offense and 43682
whom the officer does not have reasonable cause to believe is the 43683
primary physical aggressor, but, pursuant to division (B)(1) of 43684
this section, the peace officer may arrest and detain until a 43685
warrant can be obtained any other family or household member who 43686
committed the offense and whom the officer does not have 43687
reasonable cause to believe is the primary physical aggressor.43688

       (c) If a peace officer described in division (A) of this 43689
section does not arrest and detain a person whom the officer has 43690
reasonable cause to believe committed the offense of domestic 43691
violence or the offense of violating a protection order when it is 43692
the preferred course of action in this state pursuant to division 43693
(B)(3)(b) of this section that the officer arrest that person, the 43694
officer shall articulate in the written report of the incident 43695
required by section 2935.032 of the Revised Code a clear statement 43696
of the officer's reasons for not arresting and detaining that 43697
person until a warrant can be obtained.43698

       (d) In determining for purposes of division (B)(3)(b) of this 43699
section which family or household member is the primary physical 43700
aggressor in a situation in which family or household members have 43701
committed the offense of domestic violence or the offense of 43702
violating a protection order against each other, a peace officer 43703
described in division (A) of this section, in addition to any 43704
other relevant circumstances, should consider all of the 43705
following:43706

       (i) Any history of domestic violence or of any other violent 43707
acts by either person involved in the alleged offense that the 43708
officer reasonably can ascertain;43709

       (ii) If violence is alleged, whether the alleged violence was 43710
caused by a person acting in self-defense;43711

       (iii) Each person's fear of physical harm, if any, resulting 43712
from the other person's threatened use of force against any person 43713
or resulting from the other person's use or history of the use of 43714
force against any person, and the reasonableness of that fear;43715

       (iv) The comparative severity of any injuries suffered by the 43716
persons involved in the alleged offense.43717

       (e)(i) A peace officer described in division (A) of this 43718
section shall not require, as a prerequisite to arresting or 43719
charging a person who has committed the offense of domestic 43720
violence or the offense of violating a protection order, that the 43721
victim of the offense specifically consent to the filing of 43722
charges against the person who has committed the offense or sign a 43723
complaint against the person who has committed the offense.43724

       (ii) If a person is arrested for or charged with committing 43725
the offense of domestic violence or the offense of violating a 43726
protection order and if the victim of the offense does not 43727
cooperate with the involved law enforcement or prosecuting 43728
authorities in the prosecution of the offense or, subsequent to 43729
the arrest or the filing of the charges, informs the involved law 43730
enforcement or prosecuting authorities that the victim does not 43731
wish the prosecution of the offense to continue or wishes to drop 43732
charges against the alleged offender relative to the offense, the 43733
involved prosecuting authorities, in determining whether to 43734
continue with the prosecution of the offense or whether to dismiss 43735
charges against the alleged offender relative to the offense and 43736
notwithstanding the victim's failure to cooperate or the victim's 43737
wishes, shall consider all facts and circumstances that are 43738
relevant to the offense, including, but not limited to, the 43739
statements and observations of the peace officers who responded to 43740
the incident that resulted in the arrest or filing of the charges 43741
and of all witnesses to that incident.43742

       (f) In determining pursuant to divisions (B)(3)(a) to (g) of 43743
this section whether to arrest a person pursuant to division 43744
(B)(1) of this section, a peace officer described in division (A) 43745
of this section shall not consider as a factor any possible 43746
shortage of cell space at the detention facility to which the 43747
person will be taken subsequent to the person's arrest or any 43748
possibility that the person's arrest might cause, contribute to, 43749
or exacerbate overcrowding at that detention facility or at any 43750
other detention facility.43751

       (g) If a peace officer described in division (A) of this 43752
section intends pursuant to divisions (B)(3)(a) to (g) of this 43753
section to arrest a person pursuant to division (B)(1) of this 43754
section and if the officer is unable to do so because the person 43755
is not present, the officer promptly shall seek a warrant for the 43756
arrest of the person.43757

       (h) If a peace officer described in division (A) of this 43758
section responds to a report of an alleged incident of the offense 43759
of domestic violence or an alleged incident of the offense of 43760
violating a protection order and if the circumstances of the 43761
incident involved the use or threatened use of a deadly weapon or 43762
any person involved in the incident brandished a deadly weapon 43763
during or in relation to the incident, the deadly weapon that was 43764
used, threatened to be used, or brandished constitutes contraband, 43765
and, to the extent possible, the officer shall seize the deadly 43766
weapon as contraband pursuant to Chapter 2981. of the Revised 43767
Code. Upon the seizure of a deadly weapon pursuant to division 43768
(B)(3)(h) of this section, section 2981.12 of the Revised Code 43769
shall apply regarding the treatment and disposition of the deadly 43770
weapon. For purposes of that section, the "underlying criminal 43771
offense" that was the basis of the seizure of a deadly weapon 43772
under division (B)(3)(h) of this section and to which the deadly 43773
weapon had a relationship is any of the following that is 43774
applicable:43775

       (i) The alleged incident of the offense of domestic violence 43776
or the alleged incident of the offense of violating a protection 43777
order to which the officer who seized the deadly weapon responded;43778

       (ii) Any offense that arose out of the same facts and 43779
circumstances as the report of the alleged incident of the offense 43780
of domestic violence or the alleged incident of the offense of 43781
violating a protection order to which the officer who seized the 43782
deadly weapon responded.43783

       (4) If, in the circumstances described in divisions (B)(3)(a) 43784
to (g) of this section, a peace officer described in division (A) 43785
of this section arrests and detains a person pursuant to division 43786
(B)(1) of this section, or if, pursuant to division (B)(3)(h) of 43787
this section, a peace officer described in division (A) of this 43788
section seizes a deadly weapon, the officer, to the extent 43789
described in and in accordance with section 9.86 or 2744.03 of the 43790
Revised Code, is immune in any civil action for damages for 43791
injury, death, or loss to person or property that arises from or 43792
is related to the arrest and detention or the seizure.43793

       (C) When there is reasonable ground to believe that a 43794
violation of division (A)(1), (2), (3), (4), or (5) of section 43795
4506.15 or a violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code has 43796
been committed by a person operating a motor vehicle subject to 43797
regulation by the public utilities commission of Ohio under Title 43798
XLIX of the Revised Code, a peace officer with authority to 43799
enforce that provision of law may stop or detain the person whom 43800
the officer has reasonable cause to believe was operating the 43801
motor vehicle in violation of the division or section and, after 43802
investigating the circumstances surrounding the operation of the 43803
vehicle, may arrest and detain the person.43804

       (D) If a sheriff, deputy sheriff, marshal, deputy marshal, 43805
municipal police officer, member of a police force employed by a 43806
metropolitan housing authority under division (D) of section 43807
3735.31 of the Revised Code, member of a police force employed by 43808
a regional transit authority under division (Y) of section 306.35 43809
of the Revised Code, special police officer employed by a port 43810
authority under section 4582.04 or 4582.28 of the Revised Code, 43811
special police officer employed by a municipal corporation at a 43812
municipal airport or other municipal air navigation facility 43813
described in division (A) of this section, township constable, 43814
police officer of a township or joint police district, state 43815
university law enforcement officer appointed under section 3345.04 43816
of the Revised Code, peace officer of the department of natural 43817
resources, individual designated to perform law enforcement duties 43818
under section 511.232, 1545.13, or 6101.75 of the Revised Code, 43819
the house sergeant at arms if the house sergeant at arms has 43820
arrest authority pursuant to division (E)(1) of section 101.311 of 43821
the Revised Code, or an assistant house sergeant at arms is 43822
authorized by division (A) or (B) of this section to arrest and 43823
detain, within the limits of the political subdivision, 43824
metropolitan housing authority housing project, regional transit 43825
authority facilities or those areas of a municipal corporation 43826
that have been agreed to by a regional transit authority and a 43827
municipal corporation located within its territorial jurisdiction, 43828
port authority, municipal airport or other municipal air 43829
navigation facility, college, or university in which the officer 43830
is appointed, employed, or elected or within the limits of the 43831
territorial jurisdiction of the peace officer, a person until a 43832
warrant can be obtained, the peace officer, outside the limits of 43833
that territory, may pursue, arrest, and detain that person until a 43834
warrant can be obtained if all of the following apply:43835

       (1) The pursuit takes place without unreasonable delay after 43836
the offense is committed;43837

       (2) The pursuit is initiated within the limits of the 43838
political subdivision, metropolitan housing authority housing 43839
project, regional transit authority facilities or those areas of a 43840
municipal corporation that have been agreed to by a regional 43841
transit authority and a municipal corporation located within its 43842
territorial jurisdiction, port authority, municipal airport or 43843
other municipal air navigation facility, college, or university in 43844
which the peace officer is appointed, employed, or elected or 43845
within the limits of the territorial jurisdiction of the peace 43846
officer;43847

       (3) The offense involved is a felony, a misdemeanor of the 43848
first degree or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, a 43849
misdemeanor of the second degree or a substantially equivalent 43850
municipal ordinance, or any offense for which points are 43851
chargeable pursuant to section 4510.036 of the Revised Code.43852

       (E) In addition to the authority granted under division (A) 43853
or (B) of this section:43854

       (1) A sheriff or deputy sheriff may arrest and detain, until 43855
a warrant can be obtained, any person found violating section 43856
4503.11, 4503.21, or 4549.01, sections 4549.08 to 4549.12, section 43857
4549.62, or Chapter 4511. or 4513. of the Revised Code on the 43858
portion of any street or highway that is located immediately 43859
adjacent to the boundaries of the county in which the sheriff or 43860
deputy sheriff is elected or appointed.43861

       (2) A member of the police force of a township police 43862
district created under section 505.48 of the Revised Code, a 43863
member of the police force of a joint police district created 43864
under section 505.482 of the Revised Code, or a township constable 43865
appointed in accordance with section 509.01 of the Revised Code, 43866
who has received a certificate from the Ohio peace officer 43867
training commission under section 109.75 of the Revised Code, may 43868
arrest and detain, until a warrant can be obtained, any person 43869
found violating any section or chapter of the Revised Code listed 43870
in division (E)(1) of this section, other than sections 4513.33 43871
and 4513.34 of the Revised Code, on the portion of any street or 43872
highway that is located immediately adjacent to the boundaries of 43873
the township police district or joint police district, in the case 43874
of a member of a township police district or joint police district 43875
police force, or the unincorporated territory of the township, in 43876
the case of a township constable. However, if the population of 43877
the township that created the township police district served by 43878
the member's police force, or the townships and municipal 43879
corporations that created the joint police district served by the 43880
member's police force, or the township that is served by the 43881
township constable, is sixty thousand or less, the member of the 43882
township police district or joint police district police force or 43883
the township constable may not make an arrest under division 43884
(E)(2) of this section on a state highway that is included as part 43885
of the interstate system.43886

       (3) A police officer or village marshal appointed, elected, 43887
or employed by a municipal corporation may arrest and detain, 43888
until a warrant can be obtained, any person found violating any 43889
section or chapter of the Revised Code listed in division (E)(1) 43890
of this section on the portion of any street or highway that is 43891
located immediately adjacent to the boundaries of the municipal 43892
corporation in which the police officer or village marshal is 43893
appointed, elected, or employed.43894

       (4) A peace officer of the department of natural resources, a 43895
state fire marshal law enforcement officer described in division 43896
(A)(23) of section 109.71 of the Revised Code, or an individual 43897
designated to perform law enforcement duties under section 43898
511.232, 1545.13, or 6101.75 of the Revised Code may arrest and 43899
detain, until a warrant can be obtained, any person found 43900
violating any section or chapter of the Revised Code listed in 43901
division (E)(1) of this section, other than sections 4513.33 and 43902
4513.34 of the Revised Code, on the portion of any street or 43903
highway that is located immediately adjacent to the boundaries of 43904
the lands and waters that constitute the territorial jurisdiction 43905
of the peace officer or state fire marshal law enforcement 43906
officer.43907

       (F)(1) A department of mental healthmental health and 43908
addiction services special police officer or a department of 43909
developmental disabilities special police officer may arrest 43910
without a warrant and detain until a warrant can be obtained any 43911
person found committing on the premises of any institution under 43912
the jurisdiction of the particular department a misdemeanor under 43913
a law of the state.43914

       A department of mental healthmental health and addiction 43915
services special police officer or a department of developmental 43916
disabilities special police officer may arrest without a warrant 43917
and detain until a warrant can be obtained any person who has been 43918
hospitalized, institutionalized, or confined in an institution 43919
under the jurisdiction of the particular department pursuant to or 43920
under authority of section 2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 43921
2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code and who is 43922
found committing on the premises of any institution under the 43923
jurisdiction of the particular department a violation of section 43924
2921.34 of the Revised Code that involves an escape from the 43925
premises of the institution.43926

       (2)(a) If a department of mental healthmental health and 43927
addiction services special police officer or a department of 43928
developmental disabilities special police officer finds any person 43929
who has been hospitalized, institutionalized, or confined in an 43930
institution under the jurisdiction of the particular department 43931
pursuant to or under authority of section 2945.37, 2945.371, 43932
2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised 43933
Code committing a violation of section 2921.34 of the Revised Code 43934
that involves an escape from the premises of the institution, or 43935
if there is reasonable ground to believe that a violation of 43936
section 2921.34 of the Revised Code has been committed that 43937
involves an escape from the premises of an institution under the 43938
jurisdiction of the department of mental healthmental health and 43939
addiction services or the department of developmental disabilities 43940
and if a department of mental healthmental health and addiction 43941
services special police officer or a department of developmental 43942
disabilities special police officer has reasonable cause to 43943
believe that a particular person who has been hospitalized, 43944
institutionalized, or confined in the institution pursuant to or 43945
under authority of section 2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 43946
2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code is guilty of 43947
the violation, the special police officer, outside of the premises 43948
of the institution, may pursue, arrest, and detain that person for 43949
that violation of section 2921.34 of the Revised Code, until a 43950
warrant can be obtained, if both of the following apply:43951

       (i) The pursuit takes place without unreasonable delay after 43952
the offense is committed;43953

       (ii) The pursuit is initiated within the premises of the 43954
institution from which the violation of section 2921.34 of the 43955
Revised Code occurred.43956

       (b) For purposes of division (F)(2)(a) of this section, the 43957
execution of a written statement by the administrator of the 43958
institution in which a person had been hospitalized, 43959
institutionalized, or confined pursuant to or under authority of 43960
section 2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 43961
2945.402 of the Revised Code alleging that the person has escaped 43962
from the premises of the institution in violation of section 43963
2921.34 of the Revised Code constitutes reasonable ground to 43964
believe that the violation was committed and reasonable cause to 43965
believe that the person alleged in the statement to have committed 43966
the offense is guilty of the violation.43967

       (G) As used in this section:43968

       (1) A "department of mental healthmental health and 43969
addiction services special police officer" means a special police 43970
officer of the department of mental healthmental health and 43971
addiction services designated under section 5119.145119.08 of the 43972
Revised Code who is certified by the Ohio peace officer training 43973
commission under section 109.77 of the Revised Code as having 43974
successfully completed an approved peace officer basic training 43975
program.43976

       (2) A "department of developmental disabilities special 43977
police officer" means a special police officer of the department 43978
of developmental disabilities designated under section 5123.13 of 43979
the Revised Code who is certified by the Ohio peace officer 43980
training council under section 109.77 of the Revised Code as 43981
having successfully completed an approved peace officer basic 43982
training program.43983

       (3) "Deadly weapon" has the same meaning as in section 43984
2923.11 of the Revised Code.43985

       (4) "Family or household member" has the same meaning as in 43986
section 2919.25 of the Revised Code.43987

       (5) "Street" or "highway" has the same meaning as in section 43988
4511.01 of the Revised Code.43989

       (6) "Interstate system" has the same meaning as in section 43990
5516.01 of the Revised Code.43991

       (7) "Peace officer of the department of natural resources" 43992
means an employee of the department of natural resources who is a 43993
natural resources law enforcement staff officer designated 43994
pursuant to section 1501.013 of the Revised Code, a forest officer 43995
designated pursuant to section 1503.29 of the Revised Code, a 43996
preserve officer designated pursuant to section 1517.10 of the 43997
Revised Code, a wildlife officer designated pursuant to section 43998
1531.13 of the Revised Code, a park officer designated pursuant to 43999
section 1541.10 of the Revised Code, or a state watercraft officer 44000
designated pursuant to section 1547.521 of the Revised Code.44001

       (8) "Portion of any street or highway" means all lanes of the 44002
street or highway irrespective of direction of travel, including 44003
designated turn lanes, and any berm, median, or shoulder.44004

       Sec. 2935.33.  (A) If a person charged with a misdemeanor is 44005
taken before a judge of a court of record and if it appears to the 44006
judge that the person is an alcoholic or is suffering from acute 44007
alcohol intoxication and that the person would benefit from 44008
services provided by an alcohol and druga community addiction 44009
programservices provider certified under Chapter 3793.5119. of 44010
the Revised Code, the judge may place the person temporarily in a 44011
programservices provider certified under that chapter in the area 44012
in which the court has jurisdiction for inpatient care and 44013
treatment for an indefinite period not exceeding five days. The 44014
commitment does not limit the right to release on bail. The judge 44015
may dismiss a charge of a violation of division (B) of section 44016
2917.11 of the Revised Code or of a municipal ordinance 44017
substantially equivalent to that division if the defendant 44018
complies with all the conditions of treatment ordered by the 44019
court.44020

       The court may order that any fines or court costs collected 44021
by the court from defendants who have received inpatient care from 44022
an alcohol and druga community addiction programservices 44023
provider be paid, for the benefit of the program, to the board of 44024
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services of the 44025
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district in 44026
which the programservices provider is located or to the director 44027
of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 44028
services.44029

       (B) If a person is being sentenced for a violation of 44030
division (B) of section 2917.11 or section 4511.19 of the Revised 44031
Code, a misdemeanor violation of section 2919.25 of the Revised 44032
Code, a misdemeanor violation of section 2919.27 of the Revised 44033
Code involving a protection order issued or consent agreement 44034
approved pursuant to section 2919.26 or 3113.31 of the Revised 44035
Code, or a violation of a municipal ordinance substantially 44036
equivalent to that division or any of those sections and if it 44037
appears to the judge at the time of sentencing that the person is 44038
an alcoholic or is suffering from acute alcohol intoxication and 44039
that, in lieu of imprisonment, the person would benefit from 44040
services provided by an alcohol and druga community addiction 44041
programservices provider certified under Chapter 3793.5119. of 44042
the Revised Code, the court may commit the person to close 44043
supervision in any facility in the area in which the court has 44044
jurisdiction that is, or is operated by, such a programservices 44045
provider. Such close supervision may include outpatient services 44046
and part-time release, except that a person convicted of a 44047
violation of division (A) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code 44048
shall be confined to the facility for at least three days and 44049
except that a person convicted of a misdemeanor violation of 44050
section 2919.25 of the Revised Code, a misdemeanor violation of 44051
section 2919.27 of the Revised Code involving a protection order 44052
issued or consent agreement approved pursuant to section 2919.26 44053
or 3113.31 of the Revised Code, or a violation of a substantially 44054
equivalent municipal ordinance shall be confined to the facility 44055
in accordance with the order of commitment. A commitment of a 44056
person to a facility for purposes of close supervision shall not 44057
exceed the maximum term for which the person could be imprisoned.44058

       (C) A law enforcement officer who finds a person subject to 44059
prosecution for violation of division (B) of section 2917.11 of 44060
the Revised Code or a municipal ordinance substantially equivalent 44061
to that division and who has reasonable cause to believe that the 44062
person is an alcoholic or is suffering from acute alcohol 44063
intoxication and would benefit from immediate treatment 44064
immediately may place the person in an alcohol and druga 44065
community addiction programservices provider certified under 44066
Chapter 3793.5119. of the Revised Code in the area in which the 44067
person is found, for emergency treatment, in lieu of other arrest 44068
procedures, for a maximum period of forty-eight hours. During that 44069
time, if the person desires to leave such custody, the person 44070
shall be released forthwith.44071

       (D) As used in this section:44072

       (1) "Alcoholic" has the same meaning as in section 3793.0144073
5119.01 of the Revised Code;44074

       (2) "Acute alcohol intoxication" means a heavy consumption of 44075
alcohol over a relatively short period of time, resulting in 44076
dysfunction of the brain centers controlling behavior, speech, and 44077
memory and causing characteristic withdrawal symptoms.44078

       Sec. 2945.37.  (A) As used in sections 2945.37 to 2945.402 of 44079
the Revised Code:44080

       (1) "Prosecutor" means a prosecuting attorney or a city 44081
director of law, village solicitor, or similar chief legal officer 44082
of a municipal corporation who has authority to prosecute a 44083
criminal case that is before the court or the criminal case in 44084
which a defendant in a criminal case has been found incompetent to 44085
stand trial or not guilty by reason of insanity.44086

       (2) "Examiner" means either of the following:44087

       (a) A psychiatrist or a licensed clinical psychologist who 44088
satisfies the criteria of division (I)(1) of section 5122.01 of 44089
the Revised Code or is employed by a certified forensic center 44090
designated by the department of mental healthmental health and 44091
addiction services to conduct examinations or evaluations.44092

       (b) For purposes of a separate mental retardation evaluation 44093
that is ordered by a court pursuant to division (H) of section 44094
2945.371 of the Revised Code, a psychologist designated by the 44095
director of developmental disabilities pursuant to that section to 44096
conduct that separate mental retardation evaluation.44097

       (3) "Nonsecured status" means any unsupervised, off-grounds 44098
movement or trial visit from a hospital or institution, or any 44099
conditional release, that is granted to a person who is found 44100
incompetent to stand trial and is committed pursuant to section 44101
2945.39 of the Revised Code or to a person who is found not guilty 44102
by reason of insanity and is committed pursuant to section 2945.40 44103
of the Revised Code.44104

       (4) "Unsupervised, off-grounds movement" includes only 44105
off-grounds privileges that are unsupervised and that have an 44106
expectation of return to the hospital or institution on a daily 44107
basis.44108

       (5) "Trial visit" means a patient privilege of a longer 44109
stated duration of unsupervised community contact with an 44110
expectation of return to the hospital or institution at designated 44111
times.44112

       (6) "Conditional release" means a commitment status under 44113
which the trial court at any time may revoke a person's 44114
conditional release and order the rehospitalization or 44115
reinstitutionalization of the person as described in division (A) 44116
of section 2945.402 of the Revised Code and pursuant to which a 44117
person who is found incompetent to stand trial or a person who is 44118
found not guilty by reason of insanity lives and receives 44119
treatment in the community for a period of time that does not 44120
exceed the maximum prison term or term of imprisonment that the 44121
person could have received for the offense in question had the 44122
person been convicted of the offense instead of being found 44123
incompetent to stand trial on the charge of the offense or being 44124
found not guilty by reason of insanity relative to the offense.44125

       (7) "Licensed clinical psychologist," "mentally ill person 44126
subject to hospitalization by court order," and "psychiatrist" 44127
have the same meanings as in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.44128

       (8) "Mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization 44129
by court order" has the same meaning as in section 5123.01 of the 44130
Revised Code.44131

       (B) In a criminal action in a court of common pleas, a county 44132
court, or a municipal court, the court, prosecutor, or defense may 44133
raise the issue of the defendant's competence to stand trial. If 44134
the issue is raised before the trial has commenced, the court 44135
shall hold a hearing on the issue as provided in this section. If 44136
the issue is raised after the trial has commenced, the court shall 44137
hold a hearing on the issue only for good cause shown or on the 44138
court's own motion.44139

       (C) The court shall conduct the hearing required or 44140
authorized under division (B) of this section within thirty days 44141
after the issue is raised, unless the defendant has been referred 44142
for evaluation in which case the court shall conduct the hearing 44143
within ten days after the filing of the report of the evaluation 44144
or, in the case of a defendant who is ordered by the court 44145
pursuant to division (H) of section 2945.371 of the Revised Code 44146
to undergo a separate mental retardation evaluation conducted by a 44147
psychologist designated by the director of developmental 44148
disabilities, within ten days after the filing of the report of 44149
the separate mental retardation evaluation under that division. A 44150
hearing may be continued for good cause.44151

       (D) The defendant shall be represented by counsel at the 44152
hearing conducted under division (C) of this section. If the 44153
defendant is unable to obtain counsel, the court shall appoint 44154
counsel under Chapter 120. of the Revised Code or under the 44155
authority recognized in division (C) of section 120.06, division 44156
(E) of section 120.16, division (E) of section 120.26, or section 44157
2941.51 of the Revised Code before proceeding with the hearing.44158

       (E) The prosecutor and defense counsel may submit evidence on 44159
the issue of the defendant's competence to stand trial. A written 44160
report of the evaluation of the defendant may be admitted into 44161
evidence at the hearing by stipulation, but, if either the 44162
prosecution or defense objects to its admission, the report may be 44163
admitted under sections 2317.36 to 2317.38 of the Revised Code or 44164
any other applicable statute or rule.44165

       (F) The court shall not find a defendant incompetent to stand 44166
trial solely because the defendant is receiving or has received 44167
treatment as a voluntary or involuntary mentally ill patient under 44168
Chapter 5122. or a voluntary or involuntary mentally retarded 44169
resident under Chapter 5123. of the Revised Code or because the 44170
defendant is receiving or has received psychotropic drugs or other 44171
medication, even if the defendant might become incompetent to 44172
stand trial without the drugs or medication.44173

       (G) A defendant is presumed to be competent to stand trial. 44174
If, after a hearing, the court finds by a preponderance of the 44175
evidence that, because of the defendant's present mental 44176
condition, the defendant is incapable of understanding the nature 44177
and objective of the proceedings against the defendant or of 44178
assisting in the defendant's defense, the court shall find the 44179
defendant incompetent to stand trial and shall enter an order 44180
authorized by section 2945.38 of the Revised Code.44181

       (H) Municipal courts shall follow the procedures set forth in 44182
sections 2945.37 to 2945.402 of the Revised Code. Except as 44183
provided in section 2945.371 of the Revised Code, a municipal 44184
court shall not order an evaluation of the defendant's competence 44185
to stand trial or the defendant's mental condition at the time of 44186
the commission of the offense to be conducted at any hospital 44187
operated by the department of mental healthmental health and 44188
addiction services. Those evaluations shall be performed through 44189
community resources including, but not limited to, certified 44190
forensic centers, court probation departments, and community 44191
mental health agenciesservices providers. All expenses of the 44192
evaluations shall be borne by the legislative authority of the 44193
municipal court, as defined in section 1901.03 of the Revised 44194
Code, and shall be taxed as costs in the case. If a defendant is 44195
found incompetent to stand trial or not guilty by reason of 44196
insanity, a municipal court may commit the defendant as provided 44197
in sections 2945.38 to 2945.402 of the Revised Code.44198

       Sec. 2945.371.  (A) If the issue of a defendant's competence 44199
to stand trial is raised or if a defendant enters a plea of not 44200
guilty by reason of insanity, the court may order one or more 44201
evaluations of the defendant's present mental condition or, in the 44202
case of a plea of not guilty by reason of insanity, of the 44203
defendant's mental condition at the time of the offense charged. 44204
An examiner shall conduct the evaluation.44205

       (B) If the court orders more than one evaluation under 44206
division (A) of this section, the prosecutor and the defendant may 44207
recommend to the court an examiner whom each prefers to perform 44208
one of the evaluations. If a defendant enters a plea of not guilty 44209
by reason of insanity and if the court does not designate an 44210
examiner recommended by the defendant, the court shall inform the 44211
defendant that the defendant may have independent expert 44212
evaluation and that, if the defendant is unable to obtain 44213
independent expert evaluation, it will be obtained for the 44214
defendant at public expense if the defendant is indigent.44215

       (C) If the court orders an evaluation under division (A) of 44216
this section, the defendant shall be available at the times and 44217
places established by the examiners who are to conduct the 44218
evaluation. The court may order a defendant who has been released 44219
on bail or recognizance to submit to an evaluation under this 44220
section. If a defendant who has been released on bail or 44221
recognizance refuses to submit to a complete evaluation, the court 44222
may amend the conditions of bail or recognizance and order the 44223
sheriff to take the defendant into custody and deliver the 44224
defendant to a center, program, or facility operated or certified 44225
by the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 44226
services or the department of developmental disabilities where the 44227
defendant may be held for evaluation for a reasonable period of 44228
time not to exceed twenty days.44229

       (D) A defendant who has not been released on bail or 44230
recognizance may be evaluated at the defendant's place of 44231
detention. Upon the request of the examiner, the court may order 44232
the sheriff to transport the defendant to a program or facility 44233
operated or certified by the department of mental healthmental 44234
health and addiction services or the department of developmental 44235
disabilities, where the defendant may be held for evaluation for a 44236
reasonable period of time not to exceed twenty days, and to return 44237
the defendant to the place of detention after the evaluation. A 44238
municipal court may make an order under this division only upon 44239
the request of a certified forensic center examiner.44240

       (E) If a court orders the evaluation to determine a 44241
defendant's mental condition at the time of the offense charged, 44242
the court shall inform the examiner of the offense with which the 44243
defendant is charged.44244

       (F) In conducting an evaluation of a defendant's mental 44245
condition at the time of the offense charged, the examiner shall 44246
consider all relevant evidence. If the offense charged involves 44247
the use of force against another person, the relevant evidence to 44248
be considered includes, but is not limited to, any evidence that 44249
the defendant suffered, at the time of the commission of the 44250
offense, from the "battered woman syndrome."44251

       (G) The examiner shall file a written report with the court 44252
within thirty days after entry of a court order for evaluation, 44253
and the court shall provide copies of the report to the prosecutor 44254
and defense counsel. The report shall include all of the 44255
following:44256

       (1) The examiner's findings;44257

       (2) The facts in reasonable detail on which the findings are 44258
based;44259

       (3) If the evaluation was ordered to determine the 44260
defendant's competence to stand trial, all of the following 44261
findings or recommendations that are applicable:44262

       (a) Whether the defendant is capable of understanding the 44263
nature and objective of the proceedings against the defendant or 44264
of assisting in the defendant's defense;44265

       (b) If the examiner's opinion is that the defendant is 44266
incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 44267
proceedings against the defendant or of assisting in the 44268
defendant's defense, whether the defendant presently is mentally 44269
ill or mentally retarded and, if the examiner's opinion is that 44270
the defendant presently is mentally retarded, whether the 44271
defendant appears to be a mentally retarded person subject to 44272
institutionalization by court order;44273

       (c) If the examiner's opinion is that the defendant is 44274
incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 44275
proceedings against the defendant or of assisting in the 44276
defendant's defense, the examiner's opinion as to the likelihood 44277
of the defendant becoming capable of understanding the nature and 44278
objective of the proceedings against the defendant and of 44279
assisting in the defendant's defense within one year if the 44280
defendant is provided with a course of treatment;44281

       (d) If the examiner's opinion is that the defendant is 44282
incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 44283
proceedings against the defendant or of assisting in the 44284
defendant's defense and that the defendant presently is mentally 44285
ill or mentally retarded, the examiner's recommendation as to the 44286
least restrictive placement or commitment alternative, consistent 44287
with the defendant's treatment needs for restoration to competency 44288
and with the safety of the community.44289

       (4) If the evaluation was ordered to determine the 44290
defendant's mental condition at the time of the offense charged, 44291
the examiner's findings as to whether the defendant, at the time 44292
of the offense charged, did not know, as a result of a severe 44293
mental disease or defect, the wrongfulness of the defendant's acts 44294
charged.44295

       (H) If the examiner's report filed under division (G) of this 44296
section indicates that in the examiner's opinion the defendant is 44297
incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 44298
proceedings against the defendant or of assisting in the 44299
defendant's defense and that in the examiner's opinion the 44300
defendant appears to be a mentally retarded person subject to 44301
institutionalization by court order, the court shall order the 44302
defendant to undergo a separate mental retardation evaluation 44303
conducted by a psychologist designated by the director of 44304
developmental disabilities. Divisions (C) to (F) of this section 44305
apply in relation to a separate mental retardation evaluation 44306
conducted under this division. The psychologist appointed under 44307
this division to conduct the separate mental retardation 44308
evaluation shall file a written report with the court within 44309
thirty days after the entry of the court order requiring the 44310
separate mental retardation evaluation, and the court shall 44311
provide copies of the report to the prosecutor and defense 44312
counsel. The report shall include all of the information described 44313
in divisions (G)(1) to (4) of this section. If the court orders a 44314
separate mental retardation evaluation of a defendant under this 44315
division, the court shall not conduct a hearing under divisions 44316
(B) to (H) of section 2945.37 of the Revised Code regarding that 44317
defendant until a report of the separate mental retardation 44318
evaluation conducted under this division has been filed. Upon the 44319
filing of that report, the court shall conduct the hearing within 44320
the period of time specified in division (C) of section 2945.37 of 44321
the Revised Code.44322

       (I) An examiner appointed under divisions (A) and (B) of this 44323
section or under division (H) of this section to evaluate a 44324
defendant to determine the defendant's competence to stand trial 44325
also may be appointed to evaluate a defendant who has entered a 44326
plea of not guilty by reason of insanity, but an examiner of that 44327
nature shall prepare separate reports on the issue of competence 44328
to stand trial and the defense of not guilty by reason of 44329
insanity.44330

       (J) No statement that a defendant makes in an evaluation or 44331
hearing under divisions (A) to (H) of this section relating to the 44332
defendant's competence to stand trial or to the defendant's mental 44333
condition at the time of the offense charged shall be used against 44334
the defendant on the issue of guilt in any criminal action or 44335
proceeding, but, in a criminal action or proceeding, the 44336
prosecutor or defense counsel may call as a witness any person who 44337
evaluated the defendant or prepared a report pursuant to a 44338
referral under this section. Neither the appointment nor the 44339
testimony of an examiner appointed under this section precludes 44340
the prosecutor or defense counsel from calling other witnesses or 44341
presenting other evidence on competency or insanity issues.44342

       (K) Persons appointed as examiners under divisions (A) and 44343
(B) of this section or under division (H) of this section shall be 44344
paid a reasonable amount for their services and expenses, as 44345
certified by the court. The certified amount shall be paid by the 44346
county in the case of county courts and courts of common pleas and 44347
by the legislative authority, as defined in section 1901.03 of the 44348
Revised Code, in the case of municipal courts.44349

       Sec. 2945.38.  (A) If the issue of a defendant's competence 44350
to stand trial is raised and if the court, upon conducting the 44351
hearing provided for in section 2945.37 of the Revised Code, finds 44352
that the defendant is competent to stand trial, the defendant 44353
shall be proceeded against as provided by law. If the court finds 44354
the defendant competent to stand trial and the defendant is 44355
receiving psychotropic drugs or other medication, the court may 44356
authorize the continued administration of the drugs or medication 44357
or other appropriate treatment in order to maintain the 44358
defendant's competence to stand trial, unless the defendant's 44359
attending physician advises the court against continuation of the 44360
drugs, other medication, or treatment.44361

       (B)(1)(a) If, after taking into consideration all relevant 44362
reports, information, and other evidence, the court finds that the 44363
defendant is incompetent to stand trial and that there is a 44364
substantial probability that the defendant will become competent 44365
to stand trial within one year if the defendant is provided with a 44366
course of treatment, the court shall order the defendant to 44367
undergo treatment. If the defendant has been charged with a felony 44368
offense and if, after taking into consideration all relevant 44369
reports, information, and other evidence, the court finds that the 44370
defendant is incompetent to stand trial, but the court is unable 44371
at that time to determine whether there is a substantial 44372
probability that the defendant will become competent to stand 44373
trial within one year if the defendant is provided with a course 44374
of treatment, the court shall order continuing evaluation and 44375
treatment of the defendant for a period not to exceed four months 44376
to determine whether there is a substantial probability that the 44377
defendant will become competent to stand trial within one year if 44378
the defendant is provided with a course of treatment.44379

       (b) The court order for the defendant to undergo treatment or 44380
continuing evaluation and treatment under division (B)(1)(a) of 44381
this section shall specify that the defendant, if determined to 44382
require mental health treatment or continuing evaluation and 44383
treatment, either shall be committed to the department of mental 44384
healthmental health and addiction services for treatment or 44385
continuing evaluation and treatment at a hospital, facility, or 44386
agency, as determined to be clinically appropriate by the 44387
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services44388
or shall be committed to a facility certified by the department of 44389
mental healthmental health and addiction services as being 44390
qualified to treat mental illness, to a public or community mental 44391
health facility, or to a psychiatrist or another mental health 44392
professional for treatment or continuing evaluation and treatment. 44393
Prior to placing the defendant, the department of mental health44394
mental health and addiction services shall obtain court approval 44395
for that placement following a hearing. The court order for the 44396
defendant to undergo treatment or continuing evaluation and 44397
treatment under division (B)(1)(a) of this section shall specify 44398
that the defendant, if determined to require treatment or 44399
continuing evaluation and treatment for mental retardation, shall 44400
receive treatment or continuing evaluation and treatment at an 44401
institution or facility operated by the department of 44402
developmental disabilities, at a facility certified by the 44403
department of developmental disabilities as being qualified to 44404
treat mental retardation, at a public or private mental 44405
retardation facility, or by a psychiatrist or another mental 44406
retardation professional. In any case, the order may restrict the 44407
defendant's freedom of movement as the court considers necessary. 44408
The prosecutor in the defendant's case shall send to the chief 44409
clinical officer of the hospital, facility, or agency where the 44410
defendant is placed by the department of mental healthmental 44411
health and addiction services, or to the managing officer of the 44412
institution, the director of the program or facility, or the 44413
person to which the defendant is committed, copies of relevant 44414
police reports and other background information that pertains to 44415
the defendant and is available to the prosecutor unless the 44416
prosecutor determines that the release of any of the information 44417
in the police reports or any of the other background information 44418
to unauthorized persons would interfere with the effective 44419
prosecution of any person or would create a substantial risk of 44420
harm to any person.44421

       In determining the place of commitment, the court shall 44422
consider the extent to which the person is a danger to the person 44423
and to others, the need for security, and the type of crime 44424
involved and shall order the least restrictive alternative 44425
available that is consistent with public safety and treatment 44426
goals. In weighing these factors, the court shall give preference 44427
to protecting public safety.44428

       (c) If the defendant is found incompetent to stand trial, if 44429
the chief clinical officer of the hospital, facility, or agency 44430
where the defendant is placed, or the managing officer of the 44431
institution, the director of the program or facility, or the 44432
person to which the defendant is committed for treatment or 44433
continuing evaluation and treatment under division (B)(1)(b) of 44434
this section determines that medication is necessary to restore 44435
the defendant's competency to stand trial, and if the defendant 44436
lacks the capacity to give informed consent or refuses medication, 44437
the chief clinical officer of the hospital, facility, or agency 44438
where the defendant is placed, or the managing officer of the 44439
institution, the director of the program or facility, or the 44440
person to which the defendant is committed for treatment or 44441
continuing evaluation and treatment may petition the court for 44442
authorization for the involuntary administration of medication. 44443
The court shall hold a hearing on the petition within five days of 44444
the filing of the petition if the petition was filed in a 44445
municipal court or a county court regarding an incompetent 44446
defendant charged with a misdemeanor or within ten days of the 44447
filing of the petition if the petition was filed in a court of 44448
common pleas regarding an incompetent defendant charged with a 44449
felony offense. Following the hearing, the court may authorize the 44450
involuntary administration of medication or may dismiss the 44451
petition.44452

       (2) If the court finds that the defendant is incompetent to 44453
stand trial and that, even if the defendant is provided with a 44454
course of treatment, there is not a substantial probability that 44455
the defendant will become competent to stand trial within one 44456
year, the court shall order the discharge of the defendant, unless 44457
upon motion of the prosecutor or on its own motion, the court 44458
either seeks to retain jurisdiction over the defendant pursuant to 44459
section 2945.39 of the Revised Code or files an affidavit in the 44460
probate court for the civil commitment of the defendant pursuant 44461
to Chapter 5122. or 5123. of the Revised Code alleging that the 44462
defendant is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by 44463
court order or a mentally retarded person subject to 44464
institutionalization by court order. If an affidavit is filed in 44465
the probate court, the trial court shall send to the probate court 44466
copies of all written reports of the defendant's mental condition 44467
that were prepared pursuant to section 2945.371 of the Revised 44468
Code.44469

       The trial court may issue the temporary order of detention 44470
that a probate court may issue under section 5122.11 or 5123.71 of 44471
the Revised Code, to remain in effect until the probable cause or 44472
initial hearing in the probate court. Further proceedings in the 44473
probate court are civil proceedings governed by Chapter 5122. or 44474
5123. of the Revised Code.44475

       (C) No defendant shall be required to undergo treatment, 44476
including any continuing evaluation and treatment, under division 44477
(B)(1) of this section for longer than whichever of the following 44478
periods is applicable:44479

       (1) One year, if the most serious offense with which the 44480
defendant is charged is one of the following offenses:44481

       (a) Aggravated murder, murder, or an offense of violence for 44482
which a sentence of death or life imprisonment may be imposed;44483

       (b) An offense of violence that is a felony of the first or 44484
second degree;44485

       (c) A conspiracy to commit, an attempt to commit, or 44486
complicity in the commission of an offense described in division 44487
(C)(1)(a) or (b) of this section if the conspiracy, attempt, or 44488
complicity is a felony of the first or second degree.44489

       (2) Six months, if the most serious offense with which the 44490
defendant is charged is a felony other than a felony described in 44491
division (C)(1) of this section;44492

       (3) Sixty days, if the most serious offense with which the 44493
defendant is charged is a misdemeanor of the first or second 44494
degree;44495

       (4) Thirty days, if the most serious offense with which the 44496
defendant is charged is a misdemeanor of the third or fourth 44497
degree, a minor misdemeanor, or an unclassified misdemeanor.44498

       (D) Any defendant who is committed pursuant to this section 44499
shall not voluntarily admit the defendant or be voluntarily 44500
admitted to a hospital or institution pursuant to section 5122.02, 44501
5122.15, 5123.69, or 5123.76 of the Revised Code.44502

       (E) Except as otherwise provided in this division, a 44503
defendant who is charged with an offense and is committed by the 44504
court under this section to the department of mental healthmental 44505
health and addiction services or is committed to an institution or 44506
facility for the treatment of mental retardation shall not be 44507
granted unsupervised on-grounds movement, supervised off-grounds 44508
movement, or nonsecured status except in accordance with the court 44509
order. The court may grant a defendant supervised off-grounds 44510
movement to obtain medical treatment or specialized habilitation 44511
treatment services if the person who supervises the treatment or 44512
the continuing evaluation and treatment of the defendant ordered 44513
under division (B)(1)(a) of this section informs the court that 44514
the treatment or continuing evaluation and treatment cannot be 44515
provided at the hospital or facility where the defendant is placed 44516
by the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 44517
services or the institution or facility to which the defendant is 44518
committed. The chief clinical officer of the hospital or facility 44519
where the defendant is placed by the department of mental health44520
mental health and addiction services or the managing officer of 44521
the institution or director of the facility to which the defendant 44522
is committed, or a designee of any of those persons, may grant a 44523
defendant movement to a medical facility for an emergency medical 44524
situation with appropriate supervision to ensure the safety of the 44525
defendant, staff, and community during that emergency medical 44526
situation. The chief clinical officer of the hospital or facility 44527
where the defendant is placed by the department of mental health44528
mental health and addiction services or the managing officer of 44529
the institution or director of the facility to which the defendant 44530
is committed shall notify the court within twenty-four hours of 44531
the defendant's movement to the medical facility for an emergency 44532
medical situation under this division.44533

       (F) The person who supervises the treatment or continuing 44534
evaluation and treatment of a defendant ordered to undergo 44535
treatment or continuing evaluation and treatment under division 44536
(B)(1)(a) of this section shall file a written report with the 44537
court at the following times:44538

       (1) Whenever the person believes the defendant is capable of 44539
understanding the nature and objective of the proceedings against 44540
the defendant and of assisting in the defendant's defense;44541

       (2) For a felony offense, fourteen days before expiration of 44542
the maximum time for treatment as specified in division (C) of 44543
this section and fourteen days before the expiration of the 44544
maximum time for continuing evaluation and treatment as specified 44545
in division (B)(1)(a) of this section, and, for a misdemeanor 44546
offense, ten days before the expiration of the maximum time for 44547
treatment, as specified in division (C) of this section;44548

       (3) At a minimum, after each six months of treatment;44549

       (4) Whenever the person who supervises the treatment or 44550
continuing evaluation and treatment of a defendant ordered under 44551
division (B)(1)(a) of this section believes that there is not a 44552
substantial probability that the defendant will become capable of 44553
understanding the nature and objective of the proceedings against 44554
the defendant or of assisting in the defendant's defense even if 44555
the defendant is provided with a course of treatment.44556

       (G) A report under division (F) of this section shall contain 44557
the examiner's findings, the facts in reasonable detail on which 44558
the findings are based, and the examiner's opinion as to the 44559
defendant's capability of understanding the nature and objective 44560
of the proceedings against the defendant and of assisting in the 44561
defendant's defense. If, in the examiner's opinion, the defendant 44562
remains incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 44563
proceedings against the defendant and of assisting in the 44564
defendant's defense and there is a substantial probability that 44565
the defendant will become capable of understanding the nature and 44566
objective of the proceedings against the defendant and of 44567
assisting in the defendant's defense if the defendant is provided 44568
with a course of treatment, if in the examiner's opinion the 44569
defendant remains mentally ill or mentally retarded, and if the 44570
maximum time for treatment as specified in division (C) of this 44571
section has not expired, the report also shall contain the 44572
examiner's recommendation as to the least restrictive placement or 44573
commitment alternative that is consistent with the defendant's 44574
treatment needs for restoration to competency and with the safety 44575
of the community. The court shall provide copies of the report to 44576
the prosecutor and defense counsel.44577

       (H) If a defendant is committed pursuant to division (B)(1) 44578
of this section, within ten days after the treating physician of 44579
the defendant or the examiner of the defendant who is employed or 44580
retained by the treating facility advises that there is not a 44581
substantial probability that the defendant will become capable of 44582
understanding the nature and objective of the proceedings against 44583
the defendant or of assisting in the defendant's defense even if 44584
the defendant is provided with a course of treatment, within ten 44585
days after the expiration of the maximum time for treatment as 44586
specified in division (C) of this section, within ten days after 44587
the expiration of the maximum time for continuing evaluation and 44588
treatment as specified in division (B)(1)(a) of this section, 44589
within thirty days after a defendant's request for a hearing that 44590
is made after six months of treatment, or within thirty days after 44591
being advised by the treating physician or examiner that the 44592
defendant is competent to stand trial, whichever is the earliest, 44593
the court shall conduct another hearing to determine if the 44594
defendant is competent to stand trial and shall do whichever of 44595
the following is applicable:44596

       (1) If the court finds that the defendant is competent to 44597
stand trial, the defendant shall be proceeded against as provided 44598
by law.44599

       (2) If the court finds that the defendant is incompetent to 44600
stand trial, but that there is a substantial probability that the 44601
defendant will become competent to stand trial if the defendant is 44602
provided with a course of treatment, and the maximum time for 44603
treatment as specified in division (C) of this section has not 44604
expired, the court, after consideration of the examiner's 44605
recommendation, shall order that treatment be continued, may 44606
change the facility or program at which the treatment is to be 44607
continued, and shall specify whether the treatment is to be 44608
continued at the same or a different facility or program.44609

       (3) If the court finds that the defendant is incompetent to 44610
stand trial, if the defendant is charged with an offense listed in 44611
division (C)(1) of this section, and if the court finds that there 44612
is not a substantial probability that the defendant will become 44613
competent to stand trial even if the defendant is provided with a 44614
course of treatment, or if the maximum time for treatment relative 44615
to that offense as specified in division (C) of this section has 44616
expired, further proceedings shall be as provided in sections 44617
2945.39, 2945.401, and 2945.402 of the Revised Code.44618

       (4) If the court finds that the defendant is incompetent to 44619
stand trial, if the most serious offense with which the defendant 44620
is charged is a misdemeanor or a felony other than a felony listed 44621
in division (C)(1) of this section, and if the court finds that 44622
there is not a substantial probability that the defendant will 44623
become competent to stand trial even if the defendant is provided 44624
with a course of treatment, or if the maximum time for treatment 44625
relative to that offense as specified in division (C) of this 44626
section has expired, the court shall dismiss the indictment, 44627
information, or complaint against the defendant. A dismissal under 44628
this division is not a bar to further prosecution based on the 44629
same conduct. The court shall discharge the defendant unless the 44630
court or prosecutor files an affidavit in probate court for civil 44631
commitment pursuant to Chapter 5122. or 5123. of the Revised Code. 44632
If an affidavit for civil commitment is filed, the court may 44633
detain the defendant for ten days pending civil commitment. All of 44634
the following provisions apply to persons charged with a 44635
misdemeanor or a felony other than a felony listed in division 44636
(C)(1) of this section who are committed by the probate court 44637
subsequent to the court's or prosecutor's filing of an affidavit 44638
for civil commitment under authority of this division:44639

       (a) The chief clinical officer of the entity, hospital, or 44640
facility, the managing officer of the institution, the director of 44641
the program, or the person to which the defendant is committed or 44642
admitted shall do all of the following:44643

       (i) Notify the prosecutor, in writing, of the discharge of 44644
the defendant, send the notice at least ten days prior to the 44645
discharge unless the discharge is by the probate court, and state 44646
in the notice the date on which the defendant will be discharged;44647

       (ii) Notify the prosecutor, in writing, when the defendant is 44648
absent without leave or is granted unsupervised, off-grounds 44649
movement, and send this notice promptly after the discovery of the 44650
absence without leave or prior to the granting of the 44651
unsupervised, off-grounds movement, whichever is applicable;44652

       (iii) Notify the prosecutor, in writing, of the change of the 44653
defendant's commitment or admission to voluntary status, send the 44654
notice promptly upon learning of the change to voluntary status, 44655
and state in the notice the date on which the defendant was 44656
committed or admitted on a voluntary status.44657

       (b) Upon receiving notice that the defendant will be granted 44658
unsupervised, off-grounds movement, the prosecutor either shall 44659
re-indict the defendant or promptly notify the court that the 44660
prosecutor does not intend to prosecute the charges against the 44661
defendant.44662

       (I) If a defendant is convicted of a crime and sentenced to a 44663
jail or workhouse, the defendant's sentence shall be reduced by 44664
the total number of days the defendant is confined for evaluation 44665
to determine the defendant's competence to stand trial or 44666
treatment under this section and sections 2945.37 and 2945.371 of 44667
the Revised Code or by the total number of days the defendant is 44668
confined for evaluation to determine the defendant's mental 44669
condition at the time of the offense charged.44670

       Sec. 2945.39.  (A) If a defendant who is charged with an 44671
offense described in division (C)(1) of section 2945.38 of the 44672
Revised Code is found incompetent to stand trial, after the 44673
expiration of the maximum time for treatment as specified in 44674
division (C) of that section or after the court finds that there 44675
is not a substantial probability that the defendant will become 44676
competent to stand trial even if the defendant is provided with a 44677
course of treatment, one of the following applies:44678

       (1) The court or the prosecutor may file an affidavit in 44679
probate court for civil commitment of the defendant in the manner 44680
provided in Chapter 5122. or 5123. of the Revised Code. If the 44681
court or prosecutor files an affidavit for civil commitment, the 44682
court may detain the defendant for ten days pending civil 44683
commitment. If the probate court commits the defendant subsequent 44684
to the court's or prosecutor's filing of an affidavit for civil 44685
commitment, the chief clinical officer of the entity, hospital, or 44686
facility, the managing officer of the institution, the director of 44687
the program, or the person to which the defendant is committed or 44688
admitted shall send to the prosecutor the notices described in 44689
divisions (H)(4)(a)(i) to (iii) of section 2945.38 of the Revised 44690
Code within the periods of time and under the circumstances 44691
specified in those divisions.44692

       (2) On the motion of the prosecutor or on its own motion, the 44693
court may retain jurisdiction over the defendant if, at a hearing, 44694
the court finds both of the following by clear and convincing 44695
evidence:44696

       (a) The defendant committed the offense with which the 44697
defendant is charged.44698

       (b) The defendant is a mentally ill person subject to 44699
hospitalization by court order or a mentally retarded person 44700
subject to institutionalization by court order.44701

       (B) In making its determination under division (A)(2) of this 44702
section as to whether to retain jurisdiction over the defendant, 44703
the court may consider all relevant evidence, including, but not 44704
limited to, any relevant psychiatric, psychological, or medical 44705
testimony or reports, the acts constituting the offense charged, 44706
and any history of the defendant that is relevant to the 44707
defendant's ability to conform to the law.44708

       (C) If the court conducts a hearing as described in division 44709
(A)(2) of this section and if the court does not make both 44710
findings described in divisions (A)(2)(a) and (b) of this section 44711
by clear and convincing evidence, the court shall dismiss the 44712
indictment, information, or complaint against the defendant. Upon 44713
the dismissal, the court shall discharge the defendant unless the 44714
court or prosecutor files an affidavit in probate court for civil 44715
commitment of the defendant pursuant to Chapter 5122. or 5123. of 44716
the Revised Code. If the court or prosecutor files an affidavit 44717
for civil commitment, the court may order that the defendant be 44718
detained for up to ten days pending the civil commitment. If the 44719
probate court commits the defendant subsequent to the court's or 44720
prosecutor's filing of an affidavit for civil commitment, the 44721
chief clinical officer of the entity, hospital, or facility, the 44722
managing officer of the institution, the director of the program, 44723
or the person to which the defendant is committed or admitted 44724
shall send to the prosecutor the notices described in divisions 44725
(H)(4)(a)(i) to (iii) of section 2945.38 of the Revised Code 44726
within the periods of time and under the circumstances specified 44727
in those divisions. A dismissal of charges under this division is 44728
not a bar to further criminal proceedings based on the same 44729
conduct.44730

       (D)(1) If the court conducts a hearing as described in 44731
division (A)(2) of this section and if the court makes the 44732
findings described in divisions (A)(2)(a) and (b) of this section 44733
by clear and convincing evidence, the court shall commit the 44734
defendant, if determined to require mental health treatment, 44735
either to the department of mental healthmental health and 44736
addiction services for treatment at a hospital, facility, or 44737
agency as determined clinically appropriate by the department of 44738
mental healthmental health and addiction services or to another 44739
medical or psychiatric facility, as appropriate. Prior to placing 44740
the defendant, the department of mental healthmental health and 44741
addiction services shall obtain court approval for that placement. 44742
If the court conducts such a hearing and if it makes those 44743
findings by clear and convincing evidence, the court shall commit 44744
the defendant, if determined to require treatment for mental 44745
retardation, to a facility operated by the department of 44746
developmental disabilities, or another facility, as appropriate. 44747
In determining the place of commitment, the court shall consider 44748
the extent to which the person is a danger to the person and to 44749
others, the need for security, and the type of crime involved and 44750
shall order the least restrictive alternative available that is 44751
consistent with public safety and the welfare of the defendant. In 44752
weighing these factors, the court shall give preference to 44753
protecting public safety.44754

       (2) If a court makes a commitment of a defendant under 44755
division (D)(1) of this section, the prosecutor shall send to the 44756
hospital, facility, or agency where the defendant is placed by the 44757
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services44758
or to the defendant's place of commitment all reports of the 44759
defendant's current mental condition and, except as otherwise 44760
provided in this division, any other relevant information, 44761
including, but not limited to, a transcript of the hearing held 44762
pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section, copies of relevant 44763
police reports, and copies of any prior arrest and conviction 44764
records that pertain to the defendant and that the prosecutor 44765
possesses. The prosecutor shall send the reports of the 44766
defendant's current mental condition in every case of commitment, 44767
and, unless the prosecutor determines that the release of any of 44768
the other relevant information to unauthorized persons would 44769
interfere with the effective prosecution of any person or would 44770
create a substantial risk of harm to any person, the prosecutor 44771
also shall send the other relevant information. Upon admission of 44772
a defendant committed under division (D)(1) of this section, the 44773
place of commitment shall send to the board of alcohol, drug 44774
addiction, and mental health services or the community mental 44775
health board serving the county in which the charges against the 44776
defendant were filed a copy of all reports of the defendant's 44777
current mental condition and a copy of the other relevant 44778
information provided by the prosecutor under this division, 44779
including, if provided, a transcript of the hearing held pursuant 44780
to division (A)(2) of this section, the relevant police reports, 44781
and the prior arrest and conviction records that pertain to the 44782
defendant and that the prosecutor possesses.44783

       (3) If a court makes a commitment under division (D)(1) of 44784
this section, all further proceedings shall be in accordance with 44785
sections 2945.401 and 2945.402 of the Revised Code.44786

       Sec. 2945.40.  (A) If a person is found not guilty by reason 44787
of insanity, the verdict shall state that finding, and the trial 44788
court shall conduct a full hearing to determine whether the person 44789
is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court order 44790
or a mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization by 44791
court order. Prior to the hearing, if the trial judge believes 44792
that there is probable cause that the person found not guilty by 44793
reason of insanity is a mentally ill person subject to 44794
hospitalization by court order or mentally retarded person subject 44795
to institutionalization by court order, the trial judge may issue 44796
a temporary order of detention for that person to remain in effect 44797
for ten court days or until the hearing, whichever occurs first.44798

       Any person detained pursuant to a temporary order of 44799
detention issued under this division shall be held in a suitable 44800
facility, taking into consideration the place and type of 44801
confinement prior to and during trial.44802

       (B) The court shall hold the hearing under division (A) of 44803
this section to determine whether the person found not guilty by 44804
reason of insanity is a mentally ill person subject to 44805
hospitalization by court order or a mentally retarded person 44806
subject to institutionalization by court order within ten court 44807
days after the finding of not guilty by reason of insanity. 44808
Failure to conduct the hearing within the ten-day period shall 44809
cause the immediate discharge of the respondent, unless the judge 44810
grants a continuance for not longer than ten court days for good 44811
cause shown or for any period of time upon motion of the 44812
respondent.44813

       (C) If a person is found not guilty by reason of insanity, 44814
the person has the right to attend all hearings conducted pursuant 44815
to sections 2945.37 to 2945.402 of the Revised Code. At any 44816
hearing conducted pursuant to one of those sections, the court 44817
shall inform the person that the person has all of the following 44818
rights:44819

       (1) The right to be represented by counsel and to have that 44820
counsel provided at public expense if the person is indigent, with 44821
the counsel to be appointed by the court under Chapter 120. of the 44822
Revised Code or under the authority recognized in division (C) of 44823
section 120.06, division (E) of section 120.16, division (E) of 44824
section 120.26, or section 2941.51 of the Revised Code;44825

       (2) The right to have independent expert evaluation and to 44826
have that independent expert evaluation provided at public expense 44827
if the person is indigent;44828

       (3) The right to subpoena witnesses and documents, to present 44829
evidence on the person's behalf, and to cross-examine witnesses 44830
against the person;44831

       (4) The right to testify in the person's own behalf and to 44832
not be compelled to testify;44833

       (5) The right to have copies of any relevant medical or 44834
mental health document in the custody of the state or of any place 44835
of commitment other than a document for which the court finds that 44836
the release to the person of information contained in the document 44837
would create a substantial risk of harm to any person.44838

       (D) The hearing under division (A) of this section shall be 44839
open to the public, and the court shall conduct the hearing in 44840
accordance with the Rules of Civil Procedure. The court shall make 44841
and maintain a full transcript and record of the hearing 44842
proceedings. The court may consider all relevant evidence, 44843
including, but not limited to, any relevant psychiatric, 44844
psychological, or medical testimony or reports, the acts 44845
constituting the offense in relation to which the person was found 44846
not guilty by reason of insanity, and any history of the person 44847
that is relevant to the person's ability to conform to the law.44848

       (E) Upon completion of the hearing under division (A) of this 44849
section, if the court finds there is not clear and convincing 44850
evidence that the person is a mentally ill person subject to 44851
hospitalization by court order or a mentally retarded person 44852
subject to institutionalization by court order, the court shall 44853
discharge the person, unless a detainer has been placed upon the 44854
person by the department of rehabilitation and correction, in 44855
which case the person shall be returned to that department.44856

       (F) If, at the hearing under division (A) of this section, 44857
the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that the person 44858
is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 44859
order, the court shall commit the person either to the department 44860
of mental healthmental health and addiction services for 44861
treatment in a hospital, facility, or agency as determined 44862
clinically appropriate by the department of mental healthmental 44863
health and addiction services or to another medical or psychiatric 44864
facility, as appropriate. Prior to placing the defendant, the 44865
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services44866
shall obtain court approval for that placement. If, at the hearing 44867
under division (A) of this section, the court determines by clear 44868
and convincing evidence that the person requires treatment for 44869
mental retardation, it shall commit the person to a facility 44870
operated by the department of developmental disabilities or 44871
another facility, as appropriate. Further proceedings shall be in 44872
accordance with sections 2945.401 and 2945.402 of the Revised 44873
Code. In determining the place of commitment, the court shall 44874
consider the extent to which the person is a danger to the person 44875
and to others, the need for security, and the type of crime 44876
involved and shall order the least restrictive alternative 44877
available that is consistent with public safety and the welfare of 44878
the person. In weighing these factors, the court shall give 44879
preference to protecting public safety.44880

       (G) If a court makes a commitment of a person under division 44881
(F) of this section, the prosecutor shall send to the hospital, 44882
facility, or agency where the person is placed by the department 44883
of mental healthmental health and addiction services or to the 44884
defendant's place of commitment all reports of the person's 44885
current mental condition, and, except as otherwise provided in 44886
this division, any other relevant information, including, but not 44887
limited to, a transcript of the hearing held pursuant to division 44888
(A) of this section, copies of relevant police reports, and copies 44889
of any prior arrest and conviction records that pertain to the 44890
person and that the prosecutor possesses. The prosecutor shall 44891
send the reports of the person's current mental condition in every 44892
case of commitment, and, unless the prosecutor determines that the 44893
release of any of the other relevant information to unauthorized 44894
persons would interfere with the effective prosecution of any 44895
person or would create a substantial risk of harm to any person, 44896
the prosecutor also shall send the other relevant information. 44897
Upon admission of a person committed under division (F) of this 44898
section, the place of commitment shall send to the board of 44899
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services or the 44900
community mental health board serving the county in which the 44901
charges against the person were filed a copy of all reports of the 44902
person's current mental condition and a copy of the other relevant 44903
information provided by the prosecutor under this division, 44904
including, if provided, a transcript of the hearing held pursuant 44905
to division (A) of this section, the relevant police reports, and 44906
the prior arrest and conviction records that pertain to the person 44907
and that the prosecutor possesses. 44908

       (H) A person who is committed pursuant to this section shall 44909
not voluntarily admit the person or be voluntarily admitted to a 44910
hospital or institution pursuant to section 5122.02, 5122.15, 44911
5123.69, or 5123.76 of the Revised Code.44912

       Sec. 2945.401.  (A) A defendant found incompetent to stand 44913
trial and committed pursuant to section 2945.39 of the Revised 44914
Code or a person found not guilty by reason of insanity and 44915
committed pursuant to section 2945.40 of the Revised Code shall 44916
remain subject to the jurisdiction of the trial court pursuant to 44917
that commitment, and to the provisions of this section, until the 44918
final termination of the commitment as described in division 44919
(J)(1) of this section. If the jurisdiction is terminated under 44920
this division because of the final termination of the commitment 44921
resulting from the expiration of the maximum prison term or term 44922
of imprisonment described in division (J)(1)(b) of this section, 44923
the court or prosecutor may file an affidavit for the civil 44924
commitment of the defendant or person pursuant to Chapter 5122. or 44925
5123. of the Revised Code.44926

       (B) A hearing conducted under any provision of sections 44927
2945.37 to 2945.402 of the Revised Code shall not be conducted in 44928
accordance with Chapters 5122. and 5123. of the Revised Code. Any 44929
person who is committed pursuant to section 2945.39 or 2945.40 of 44930
the Revised Code shall not voluntarily admit the person or be 44931
voluntarily admitted to a hospital or institution pursuant to 44932
section 5122.02, 5122.15, 5123.69, or 5123.76 of the Revised Code. 44933
All other provisions of Chapters 5122. and 5123. of the Revised 44934
Code regarding hospitalization or institutionalization shall apply 44935
to the extent they are not in conflict with this chapter. A 44936
commitment under section 2945.39 or 2945.40 of the Revised Code 44937
shall not be terminated and the conditions of the commitment shall 44938
not be changed except as otherwise provided in division (D)(2) of 44939
this section with respect to a mentally retarded person subject to 44940
institutionalization by court order or except by order of the 44941
trial court.44942

       (C) The department of mental healthmental health and 44943
addiction services or the institution, facility, or program to 44944
which a defendant or person has been committed under section 44945
2945.39 or 2945.40 of the Revised Code shall report in writing to 44946
the trial court, at the times specified in this division, as to 44947
whether the defendant or person remains a mentally ill person 44948
subject to hospitalization by court order or a mentally retarded 44949
person subject to institutionalization by court order and, in the 44950
case of a defendant committed under section 2945.39 of the Revised 44951
Code, as to whether the defendant remains incompetent to stand 44952
trial. The department, institution, facility, or program shall 44953
make the reports after the initial six months of treatment and 44954
every two years after the initial report is made. The trial court 44955
shall provide copies of the reports to the prosecutor and to the 44956
counsel for the defendant or person. Within thirty days after its 44957
receipt pursuant to this division of a report from the department, 44958
institution, facility, or program, the trial court shall hold a 44959
hearing on the continued commitment of the defendant or person or 44960
on any changes in the conditions of the commitment of the 44961
defendant or person. The defendant or person may request a change 44962
in the conditions of confinement, and the trial court shall 44963
conduct a hearing on that request if six months or more have 44964
elapsed since the most recent hearing was conducted under this 44965
section.44966

       (D)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(2) of 44967
this section, when a defendant or person has been committed under 44968
section 2945.39 or 2945.40 of the Revised Code, at any time after 44969
evaluating the risks to public safety and the welfare of the 44970
defendant or person, the designee of the department of mental 44971
healthmental health and addiction services or the managing 44972
officer of the institution or director of the facility or program 44973
to which the defendant or person is committed may recommend a 44974
termination of the defendant's or person's commitment or a change 44975
in the conditions of the defendant's or person's commitment.44976

       Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(2) of this 44977
section, if the designee of the department of mental healthmental 44978
health and addiction services recommends on-grounds unsupervised 44979
movement, off-grounds supervised movement, or nonsecured status 44980
for the defendant or person or termination of the defendant's or 44981
person's commitment, the following provisions apply:44982

       (a) If the department's designee recommends on-grounds 44983
unsupervised movement or off-grounds supervised movement, the 44984
department's designee shall file with the trial court an 44985
application for approval of the movement and shall send a copy of 44986
the application to the prosecutor. Within fifteen days after 44987
receiving the application, the prosecutor may request a hearing on 44988
the application and, if a hearing is requested, shall so inform 44989
the department's designee. If the prosecutor does not request a 44990
hearing within the fifteen-day period, the trial court shall 44991
approve the application by entering its order approving the 44992
requested movement or, within five days after the expiration of 44993
the fifteen-day period, shall set a date for a hearing on the 44994
application. If the prosecutor requests a hearing on the 44995
application within the fifteen-day period, the trial court shall 44996
hold a hearing on the application within thirty days after the 44997
hearing is requested. If the trial court, within five days after 44998
the expiration of the fifteen-day period, sets a date for a 44999
hearing on the application, the trial court shall hold the hearing 45000
within thirty days after setting the hearing date. At least 45001
fifteen days before any hearing is held under this division, the 45002
trial court shall give the prosecutor written notice of the date, 45003
time, and place of the hearing. At the conclusion of each hearing 45004
conducted under this division, the trial court either shall 45005
approve or disapprove the application and shall enter its order 45006
accordingly.45007

       (b) If the department's designee recommends termination of 45008
the defendant's or person's commitment at any time or if the 45009
department's designee recommends the first of any nonsecured 45010
status for the defendant or person, the department's designee 45011
shall send written notice of this recommendation to the trial 45012
court and to the local forensic center. The local forensic center 45013
shall evaluate the committed defendant or person and, within 45014
thirty days after its receipt of the written notice, shall submit 45015
to the trial court and the department's designee a written report 45016
of the evaluation. The trial court shall provide a copy of the 45017
department's designee's written notice and of the local forensic 45018
center's written report to the prosecutor and to the counsel for 45019
the defendant or person. Upon the local forensic center's 45020
submission of the report to the trial court and the department's 45021
designee, all of the following apply:45022

       (i) If the forensic center disagrees with the recommendation 45023
of the department's designee, it shall inform the department's 45024
designee and the trial court of its decision and the reasons for 45025
the decision. The department's designee, after consideration of 45026
the forensic center's decision, shall either withdraw, proceed 45027
with, or modify and proceed with the recommendation. If the 45028
department's designee proceeds with, or modifies and proceeds 45029
with, the recommendation, the department's designee shall proceed 45030
in accordance with division (D)(1)(b)(iii) of this section.45031

       (ii) If the forensic center agrees with the recommendation of 45032
the department's designee, it shall inform the department's 45033
designee and the trial court of its decision and the reasons for 45034
the decision, and the department's designee shall proceed in 45035
accordance with division (D)(1)(b)(iii) of this section.45036

       (iii) If the forensic center disagrees with the 45037
recommendation of the department's designee and the department's 45038
designee proceeds with, or modifies and proceeds with, the 45039
recommendation or if the forensic center agrees with the 45040
recommendation of the department's designee, the department's 45041
designee shall work with community mental health agenciesservices 45042
providers, programs, facilities, or boards of alcohol, drug 45043
addiction, and mental health services or community mental health 45044
boards to develop a plan to implement the recommendation. If the 45045
defendant or person is on medication, the plan shall include, but 45046
shall not be limited to, a system to monitor the defendant's or 45047
person's compliance with the prescribed medication treatment plan. 45048
The system shall include a schedule that clearly states when the 45049
defendant or person shall report for a medication compliance 45050
check. The medication compliance checks shall be based upon the 45051
effective duration of the prescribed medication, taking into 45052
account the route by which it is taken, and shall be scheduled at 45053
intervals sufficiently close together to detect a potential 45054
increase in mental illness symptoms that the medication is 45055
intended to prevent.45056

       The department's designee, after consultation with the board 45057
of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services or the 45058
community mental health board serving the area, shall send the 45059
recommendation and plan developed under division (D)(1)(b)(iii) of 45060
this section, in writing, to the trial court, the prosecutor, and 45061
the counsel for the committed defendant or person. The trial court 45062
shall conduct a hearing on the recommendation and plan developed 45063
under division (D)(1)(b)(iii) of this section. Divisions (D)(1)(c) 45064
and (d) and (E) to (J) of this section apply regarding the 45065
hearing.45066

       (c) If the department's designee's recommendation is for 45067
nonsecured status or termination of commitment, the prosecutor may 45068
obtain an independent expert evaluation of the defendant's or 45069
person's mental condition, and the trial court may continue the 45070
hearing on the recommendation for a period of not more than thirty 45071
days to permit time for the evaluation.45072

       The prosecutor may introduce the evaluation report or present 45073
other evidence at the hearing in accordance with the Rules of 45074
Evidence.45075

       (d) The trial court shall schedule the hearing on a 45076
department's designee's recommendation for nonsecured status or 45077
termination of commitment and shall give reasonable notice to the 45078
prosecutor and the counsel for the defendant or person. Unless 45079
continued for independent evaluation at the prosecutor's request 45080
or for other good cause, the hearing shall be held within thirty 45081
days after the trial court's receipt of the recommendation and 45082
plan.45083

       (2)(a) Division (D)(1) of this section does not apply to 45084
on-grounds unsupervised movement of a defendant or person who has 45085
been committed under section 2945.39 or 2945.40 of the Revised 45086
Code, who is a mentally retarded person subject to 45087
institutionalization by court order, and who is being provided 45088
residential habilitation, care, and treatment in a facility 45089
operated by the department of developmental disabilities.45090

       (b) If, pursuant to section 2945.39 of the Revised Code, the 45091
trial court commits a defendant who is found incompetent to stand 45092
trial and who is a mentally retarded person subject to 45093
institutionalization by court order, if the defendant is being 45094
provided residential habilitation, care, and treatment in a 45095
facility operated by the department of developmental disabilities, 45096
if an individual who is conducting a survey for the department of 45097
health to determine the facility's compliance with the 45098
certification requirements of the medicaid program under Chapter 45099
5111. of the Revised Code and Title XIX of the "Social Security 45100
Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, cites the 45101
defendant's receipt of the residential habilitation, care, and 45102
treatment in the facility as being inappropriate under the 45103
certification requirements, if the defendant's receipt of the 45104
residential habilitation, care, and treatment in the facility 45105
potentially jeopardizes the facility's continued receipt of 45106
federal medicaid moneys, and if as a result of the citation the 45107
chief clinical officer of the facility determines that the 45108
conditions of the defendant's commitment should be changed, the 45109
department of developmental disabilities may cause the defendant 45110
to be removed from the particular facility and, after evaluating 45111
the risks to public safety and the welfare of the defendant and 45112
after determining whether another type of placement is consistent 45113
with the certification requirements, may place the defendant in 45114
another facility that the department selects as an appropriate 45115
facility for the defendant's continued receipt of residential 45116
habilitation, care, and treatment and that is a no less secure 45117
setting than the facility in which the defendant had been placed 45118
at the time of the citation. Within three days after the 45119
defendant's removal and alternative placement under the 45120
circumstances described in division (D)(2)(b) of this section, the 45121
department of developmental disabilities shall notify the trial 45122
court and the prosecutor in writing of the removal and alternative 45123
placement.45124

       The trial court shall set a date for a hearing on the removal 45125
and alternative placement, and the hearing shall be held within 45126
twenty-one days after the trial court's receipt of the notice from 45127
the department of developmental disabilities. At least ten days 45128
before the hearing is held, the trial court shall give the 45129
prosecutor, the department of developmental disabilities, and the 45130
counsel for the defendant written notice of the date, time, and 45131
place of the hearing. At the hearing, the trial court shall 45132
consider the citation issued by the individual who conducted the 45133
survey for the department of health to be prima-facie evidence of 45134
the fact that the defendant's commitment to the particular 45135
facility was inappropriate under the certification requirements of 45136
the medicaid program under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code and 45137
Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 45138
U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, and potentially jeopardizes the 45139
particular facility's continued receipt of federal medicaid 45140
moneys. At the conclusion of the hearing, the trial court may 45141
approve or disapprove the defendant's removal and alternative 45142
placement. If the trial court approves the defendant's removal and 45143
alternative placement, the department of developmental 45144
disabilities may continue the defendant's alternative placement. 45145
If the trial court disapproves the defendant's removal and 45146
alternative placement, it shall enter an order modifying the 45147
defendant's removal and alternative placement, but that order 45148
shall not require the department of developmental disabilities to 45149
replace the defendant for purposes of continued residential 45150
habilitation, care, and treatment in the facility associated with 45151
the citation issued by the individual who conducted the survey for 45152
the department of health.45153

       (E) In making a determination under this section regarding 45154
nonsecured status or termination of commitment, the trial court 45155
shall consider all relevant factors, including, but not limited 45156
to, all of the following:45157

       (1) Whether, in the trial court's view, the defendant or 45158
person currently represents a substantial risk of physical harm to 45159
the defendant or person or others;45160

       (2) Psychiatric and medical testimony as to the current 45161
mental and physical condition of the defendant or person;45162

       (3) Whether the defendant or person has insight into the 45163
defendant's or person's condition so that the defendant or person 45164
will continue treatment as prescribed or seek professional 45165
assistance as needed;45166

       (4) The grounds upon which the state relies for the proposed 45167
commitment;45168

       (5) Any past history that is relevant to establish the 45169
defendant's or person's degree of conformity to the laws, rules, 45170
regulations, and values of society;45171

       (6) If there is evidence that the defendant's or person's 45172
mental illness is in a state of remission, the medically suggested 45173
cause and degree of the remission and the probability that the 45174
defendant or person will continue treatment to maintain the 45175
remissive state of the defendant's or person's illness should the 45176
defendant's or person's commitment conditions be altered.45177

       (F) At any hearing held pursuant to division (C) or (D)(1) or 45178
(2) of this section, the defendant or the person shall have all 45179
the rights of a defendant or person at a commitment hearing as 45180
described in section 2945.40 of the Revised Code.45181

       (G) In a hearing held pursuant to division (C) or (D)(1) of 45182
this section, the prosecutor has the burden of proof as follows:45183

       (1) For a recommendation of termination of commitment, to 45184
show by clear and convincing evidence that the defendant or person 45185
remains a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 45186
order or a mentally retarded person subject to 45187
institutionalization by court order;45188

       (2) For a recommendation for a change in the conditions of 45189
the commitment to a less restrictive status, to show by clear and 45190
convincing evidence that the proposed change represents a threat 45191
to public safety or a threat to the safety of any person.45192

       (H) In a hearing held pursuant to division (C) or (D)(1) or 45193
(2) of this section, the prosecutor shall represent the state or 45194
the public interest.45195

       (I) At the conclusion of a hearing conducted under division 45196
(D)(1) of this section regarding a recommendation from the 45197
designee of the department of mental healthmental health and 45198
addiction services, managing officer of the institution, or 45199
director of a facility or program, the trial court may approve, 45200
disapprove, or modify the recommendation and shall enter an order 45201
accordingly.45202

       (J)(1) A defendant or person who has been committed pursuant 45203
to section 2945.39 or 2945.40 of the Revised Code continues to be 45204
under the jurisdiction of the trial court until the final 45205
termination of the commitment. For purposes of division (J) of 45206
this section, the final termination of a commitment occurs upon 45207
the earlier of one of the following:45208

       (a) The defendant or person no longer is a mentally ill 45209
person subject to hospitalization by court order or a mentally 45210
retarded person subject to institutionalization by court order, as 45211
determined by the trial court;45212

       (b) The expiration of the maximum prison term or term of 45213
imprisonment that the defendant or person could have received if 45214
the defendant or person had been convicted of the most serious 45215
offense with which the defendant or person is charged or in 45216
relation to which the defendant or person was found not guilty by 45217
reason of insanity;45218

       (c) The trial court enters an order terminating the 45219
commitment under the circumstances described in division 45220
(J)(2)(a)(ii) of this section.45221

       (2)(a) If a defendant is found incompetent to stand trial and 45222
committed pursuant to section 2945.39 of the Revised Code, if 45223
neither of the circumstances described in divisions (J)(1)(a) and 45224
(b) of this section applies to that defendant, and if a report 45225
filed with the trial court pursuant to division (C) of this 45226
section indicates that the defendant presently is competent to 45227
stand trial or if, at any other time during the period of the 45228
defendant's commitment, the prosecutor, the counsel for the 45229
defendant, or the designee of the department of mental health45230
mental health and addiction services or the managing officer of 45231
the institution or director of the facility or program to which 45232
the defendant is committed files an application with the trial 45233
court alleging that the defendant presently is competent to stand 45234
trial and requesting a hearing on the competency issue or the 45235
trial court otherwise has reasonable cause to believe that the 45236
defendant presently is competent to stand trial and determines on 45237
its own motion to hold a hearing on the competency issue, the 45238
trial court shall schedule a hearing on the competency of the 45239
defendant to stand trial, shall give the prosecutor, the counsel 45240
for the defendant, and the department's designee or the managing 45241
officer of the institution or the director of the facility to 45242
which the defendant is committed notice of the date, time, and 45243
place of the hearing at least fifteen days before the hearing, and 45244
shall conduct the hearing within thirty days of the filing of the 45245
application or of its own motion. If, at the conclusion of the 45246
hearing, the trial court determines that the defendant presently 45247
is capable of understanding the nature and objective of the 45248
proceedings against the defendant and of assisting in the 45249
defendant's defense, the trial court shall order that the 45250
defendant is competent to stand trial and shall be proceeded 45251
against as provided by law with respect to the applicable offenses 45252
described in division (C)(1) of section 2945.38 of the Revised 45253
Code and shall enter whichever of the following additional orders 45254
is appropriate:45255

       (i) If the trial court determines that the defendant remains 45256
a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court order or 45257
a mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization by 45258
court order, the trial court shall order that the defendant's 45259
commitment to the department of mental healthmental health and 45260
addiction services or to an institution, facility, or program for 45261
the treatment of mental retardation be continued during the 45262
pendency of the trial on the applicable offenses described in 45263
division (C)(1) of section 2945.38 of the Revised Code.45264

       (ii) If the trial court determines that the defendant no 45265
longer is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by 45266
court order or a mentally retarded person subject to 45267
institutionalization by court order, the trial court shall order 45268
that the defendant's commitment to the department of mental health45269
mental health and addiction services or to an institution, 45270
facility, or program for the treatment of mental retardation shall 45271
not be continued during the pendency of the trial on the 45272
applicable offenses described in division (C)(1) of section 45273
2945.38 of the Revised Code. This order shall be a final 45274
termination of the commitment for purposes of division (J)(1)(c) 45275
of this section.45276

       (b) If, at the conclusion of the hearing described in 45277
division (J)(2)(a) of this section, the trial court determines 45278
that the defendant remains incapable of understanding the nature 45279
and objective of the proceedings against the defendant or of 45280
assisting in the defendant's defense, the trial court shall order 45281
that the defendant continues to be incompetent to stand trial, 45282
that the defendant's commitment to the department of mental health45283
mental health and addiction services or to an institution, 45284
facility, or program for the treatment of mental retardation shall 45285
be continued, and that the defendant remains subject to the 45286
jurisdiction of the trial court pursuant to that commitment, and 45287
to the provisions of this section, until the final termination of 45288
the commitment as described in division (J)(1) of this section.45289

       Sec. 2951.041.  (A)(1) If an offender is charged with a 45290
criminal offense, including but not limited to a violation of 45291
section 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, or 2919.21 of 45292
the Revised Code, and the court has reason to believe that drug or 45293
alcohol usage by the offender was a factor leading to the criminal 45294
offense with which the offender is charged or that, at the time of 45295
committing that offense, the offender had a mental illness or was 45296
a person with intellectual disability and that the mental illness 45297
or status as a person with intellectual disability was a factor 45298
leading to the offender's criminal behavior, the court may accept, 45299
prior to the entry of a guilty plea, the offender's request for 45300
intervention in lieu of conviction. The request shall include a 45301
statement from the offender as to whether the offender is alleging 45302
that drug or alcohol usage by the offender was a factor leading to 45303
the criminal offense with which the offender is charged or is 45304
alleging that, at the time of committing that offense, the 45305
offender had a mental illness or was a person with intellectual 45306
disability and that the mental illness or status as a person with 45307
intellectual disability was a factor leading to the criminal 45308
offense with which the offender is charged. The request also shall 45309
include a waiver of the defendant's right to a speedy trial, the 45310
preliminary hearing, the time period within which the grand jury 45311
may consider an indictment against the offender, and arraignment, 45312
unless the hearing, indictment, or arraignment has already 45313
occurred. The court may reject an offender's request without a 45314
hearing. If the court elects to consider an offender's request, 45315
the court shall conduct a hearing to determine whether the 45316
offender is eligible under this section for intervention in lieu 45317
of conviction and shall stay all criminal proceedings pending the 45318
outcome of the hearing. If the court schedules a hearing, the 45319
court shall order an assessment of the offender for the purpose of 45320
determining the offender's eligibility for intervention in lieu of 45321
conviction and recommending an appropriate intervention plan.45322

       If the offender alleges that drug or alcohol usage by the 45323
offender was a factor leading to the criminal offense with which 45324
the offender is charged, the court may order that the offender be 45325
assessed by a programan addiction services provider certified 45326
pursuant to section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code or a 45327
properly credentialed professional for the purpose of determining 45328
the offender's eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction 45329
and recommending an appropriate intervention plan. The program45330
addiction services provider or the properly credentialed 45331
professional shall provide a written assessment of the offender to 45332
the court.45333

       (2) The victim notification provisions of division (C) of 45334
section 2930.08 of the Revised Code apply in relation to any 45335
hearing held under division (A)(1) of this section.45336

       (B) An offender is eligible for intervention in lieu of 45337
conviction if the court finds all of the following:45338

       (1) The offender previously has not been convicted of or 45339
pleaded guilty to a felony offense of violence or previously has 45340
been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any felony that is not an 45341
offense of violence and the prosecuting attorney recommends that 45342
the offender be found eligible for participation in intervention 45343
in lieu of treatment under this section, previously has not been 45344
through intervention in lieu of conviction under this section or 45345
any similar regimen, and is charged with a felony for which the 45346
court, upon conviction, would impose a community control sanction 45347
on the offender under division (B)(2) of section 2929.13 of the 45348
Revised Code or with a misdemeanor.45349

       (2) The offense is not a felony of the first, second, or 45350
third degree, is not an offense of violence, is not a violation of 45351
division (A)(1) or (2) of section 2903.06 of the Revised Code, is 45352
not a violation of division (A)(1) of section 2903.08 of the 45353
Revised Code, is not a violation of division (A) of section 45354
4511.19 of the Revised Code or a municipal ordinance that is 45355
substantially similar to that division, and is not an offense for 45356
which a sentencing court is required to impose a mandatory prison 45357
term, a mandatory term of local incarceration, or a mandatory term 45358
of imprisonment in a jail.45359

       (3) The offender is not charged with a violation of section 45360
2925.02, 2925.04, or 2925.06 of the Revised Code, is not charged 45361
with a violation of section 2925.03 of the Revised Code that is a 45362
felony of the first, second, third, or fourth degree, and is not 45363
charged with a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code 45364
that is a felony of the first, second, or third degree.45365

       (4) If an offender alleges that drug or alcohol usage by the 45366
offender was a factor leading to the criminal offense with which 45367
the offender is charged, the court has ordered that the offender 45368
be assessed by a programan addiction services provider certified 45369
pursuant to section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code or a 45370
properly credentialed professional for the purpose of determining 45371
the offender's eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction 45372
and recommending an appropriate intervention plan, the offender 45373
has been assessed by a programan addiction services provider of 45374
that nature or a properly credentialed professional in accordance 45375
with the court's order, and the programaddiction services 45376
provider or properly credentialed professional has filed the 45377
written assessment of the offender with the court.45378

       (5) If an offender alleges that, at the time of committing 45379
the criminal offense with which the offender is charged, the 45380
offender had a mental illness or was a person with intellectual 45381
disability and that the mental illness or status as a person with 45382
intellectual disability was a factor leading to that offense, the 45383
offender has been assessed by a psychiatrist, psychologist, 45384
independent social worker, or professional clinical counselor for 45385
the purpose of determining the offender's eligibility for 45386
intervention in lieu of conviction and recommending an appropriate 45387
intervention plan.45388

       (6) The offender's drug usage, alcohol usage, mental illness, 45389
or intellectual disability, whichever is applicable, was a factor 45390
leading to the criminal offense with which the offender is 45391
charged, intervention in lieu of conviction would not demean the 45392
seriousness of the offense, and intervention would substantially 45393
reduce the likelihood of any future criminal activity.45394

       (7) The alleged victim of the offense was not sixty-five 45395
years of age or older, permanently and totally disabled, under 45396
thirteen years of age, or a peace officer engaged in the officer's 45397
official duties at the time of the alleged offense.45398

       (8) If the offender is charged with a violation of section 45399
2925.24 of the Revised Code, the alleged violation did not result 45400
in physical harm to any person, and the offender previously has 45401
not been treated for drug abuse.45402

       (9) The offender is willing to comply with all terms and 45403
conditions imposed by the court pursuant to division (D) of this 45404
section.45405

       (10) The offender is not charged with an offense that would 45406
result in the offender being disqualified under Chapter 4506. of 45407
the Revised Code from operating a commercial motor vehicle or 45408
would subject the offender to any other sanction under that 45409
chapter. 45410

       (C) At the conclusion of a hearing held pursuant to division 45411
(A) of this section, the court shall enter its determination as to 45412
whether the offender is eligible for intervention in lieu of 45413
conviction and as to whether to grant the offender's request. If 45414
the court finds under division (B) of this section that the 45415
offender is eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction and 45416
grants the offender's request, the court shall accept the 45417
offender's plea of guilty and waiver of the defendant's right to a 45418
speedy trial, the preliminary hearing, the time period within 45419
which the grand jury may consider an indictment against the 45420
offender, and arraignment, unless the hearing, indictment, or 45421
arraignment has already occurred. In addition, the court then may 45422
stay all criminal proceedings and order the offender to comply 45423
with all terms and conditions imposed by the court pursuant to 45424
division (D) of this section. If the court finds that the offender 45425
is not eligible or does not grant the offender's request, the 45426
criminal proceedings against the offender shall proceed as if the 45427
offender's request for intervention in lieu of conviction had not 45428
been made.45429

       (D) If the court grants an offender's request for 45430
intervention in lieu of conviction, the court shall place the 45431
offender under the general control and supervision of the county 45432
probation department, the adult parole authority, or another 45433
appropriate local probation or court services agency, if one 45434
exists, as if the offender was subject to a community control 45435
sanction imposed under section 2929.15, 2929.18, or 2929.25 of the 45436
Revised Code. The court shall establish an intervention plan for 45437
the offender. The terms and conditions of the intervention plan 45438
shall require the offender, for at least one year from the date on 45439
which the court grants the order of intervention in lieu of 45440
conviction, to abstain from the use of illegal drugs and alcohol, 45441
to participate in treatment and recovery support services, and to 45442
submit to regular random testing for drug and alcohol use and may 45443
include any other treatment terms and conditions, or terms and 45444
conditions similar to community control sanctions, which may 45445
include community service or restitution, that are ordered by the 45446
court.45447

       (E) If the court grants an offender's request for 45448
intervention in lieu of conviction and the court finds that the 45449
offender has successfully completed the intervention plan for the 45450
offender, including the requirement that the offender abstain from 45451
using illegal drugs and alcohol for a period of at least one year 45452
from the date on which the court granted the order of intervention 45453
in lieu of conviction, the requirement that the offender 45454
participate in treatment and recovery support services, and all 45455
other terms and conditions ordered by the court, the court shall 45456
dismiss the proceedings against the offender. Successful 45457
completion of the intervention plan and period of abstinence under 45458
this section shall be without adjudication of guilt and is not a 45459
criminal conviction for purposes of any disqualification or 45460
disability imposed by law and upon conviction of a crime, and the 45461
court may order the sealing of records related to the offense in 45462
question in the manner provided in sections 2953.31 to 2953.36 of 45463
the Revised Code.45464

       (F) If the court grants an offender's request for 45465
intervention in lieu of conviction and the offender fails to 45466
comply with any term or condition imposed as part of the 45467
intervention plan for the offender, the supervising authority for 45468
the offender promptly shall advise the court of this failure, and 45469
the court shall hold a hearing to determine whether the offender 45470
failed to comply with any term or condition imposed as part of the 45471
plan. If the court determines that the offender has failed to 45472
comply with any of those terms and conditions, it shall enter a 45473
finding of guilty and shall impose an appropriate sanction under 45474
Chapter 2929. of the Revised Code. If the court sentences the 45475
offender to a prison term, the court, after consulting with the 45476
department of rehabilitation and correction regarding the 45477
availability of services, may order continued court-supervised 45478
activity and treatment of the offender during the prison term and, 45479
upon consideration of reports received from the department 45480
concerning the offender's progress in the program of activity and 45481
treatment, may consider judicial release under section 2929.20 of 45482
the Revised Code.45483

       (G) As used in this section:45484

       (1) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 45485
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.45486

       (2) "Intervention in lieu of conviction" means any 45487
court-supervised activity that complies with this section.45488

       (3) "Peace officer" has the same meaning as in section 45489
2935.01 of the Revised Code.45490

       (4) "Mental illness" and "psychiatrist" have the same 45491
meanings as in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.45492

       (5) "Person with intellectual disability" means a person 45493
having significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning 45494
existing concurrently with deficiencies in adaptive behavior, 45495
manifested during the developmental period.45496

       (6) "Psychologist" has the same meaning as in section 4732.01 45497
of the Revised Code.45498

       (H) Whenever the term "mentally retarded person" is used in 45499
any statute, rule, contract, grant, or other document, the 45500
reference shall be deemed to include a "person with intellectual 45501
disability," as defined in this section.45502

       Sec. 2953.32.  (A)(1) Except as provided in section 2953.61 45503
of the Revised Code, an eligible offender may apply to the 45504
sentencing court if convicted in this state, or to a court of 45505
common pleas if convicted in another state or in a federal court, 45506
for the sealing of the conviction record. Application may be made 45507
at the expiration of three years after the offender's final 45508
discharge if convicted of a felony, or at the expiration of one 45509
year after the offender's final discharge if convicted of a 45510
misdemeanor.45511

       (2) Any person who has been arrested for any misdemeanor 45512
offense and who has effected a bail forfeiture may apply to the 45513
court in which the misdemeanor criminal case was pending when bail 45514
was forfeited for the sealing of the record of the case. Except as 45515
provided in section 2953.61 of the Revised Code, the application 45516
may be filed at any time after the expiration of one year from the 45517
date on which the bail forfeiture was entered upon the minutes of 45518
the court or the journal, whichever entry occurs first.45519

       (B) Upon the filing of an application under this section, the 45520
court shall set a date for a hearing and shall notify the 45521
prosecutor for the case of the hearing on the application. The 45522
prosecutor may object to the granting of the application by filing 45523
an objection with the court prior to the date set for the hearing. 45524
The prosecutor shall specify in the objection the reasons for 45525
believing a denial of the application is justified. The court 45526
shall direct its regular probation officer, a state probation 45527
officer, or the department of probation of the county in which the 45528
applicant resides to make inquiries and written reports as the 45529
court requires concerning the applicant. If the applicant was 45530
convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of division (A)(2) 45531
or (B) of section 2919.21 of the Revised Code, the probation 45532
officer or county department of probation that the court directed 45533
to make inquiries concerning the applicant shall contact the child 45534
support enforcement agency enforcing the applicant's obligations 45535
under the child support order to inquire about the offender's 45536
compliance with the child support order.45537

       (C)(1) The court shall do each of the following:45538

       (a) Determine whether the applicant is an eligible offender 45539
or whether the forfeiture of bail was agreed to by the applicant 45540
and the prosecutor in the case. If the applicant applies as an 45541
eligible offender pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section and 45542
has two or three convictions that result from the same indictment, 45543
information, or complaint, from the same plea of guilty, or from 45544
the same official proceeding, and result from related criminal 45545
acts that were committed within a three-month period but do not 45546
result from the same act or from offenses committed at the same 45547
time, in making its determination under this division, the court 45548
initially shall determine whether it is not in the public interest 45549
for the two or three convictions to be counted as one conviction. 45550
If the court determines that it is not in the public interest for 45551
the two or three convictions to be counted as one conviction, the 45552
court shall determine that the applicant is not an eligible 45553
offender; if the court does not make that determination, the court 45554
shall determine that the offender is an eligible offender.45555

       (b) Determine whether criminal proceedings are pending 45556
against the applicant;45557

       (c) If the applicant is an eligible offender who applies 45558
pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section, determine whether the 45559
applicant has been rehabilitated to the satisfaction of the court;45560

       (d) If the prosecutor has filed an objection in accordance 45561
with division (B) of this section, consider the reasons against 45562
granting the application specified by the prosecutor in the 45563
objection;45564

       (e) Weigh the interests of the applicant in having the 45565
records pertaining to the applicant's conviction sealed against 45566
the legitimate needs, if any, of the government to maintain those 45567
records.45568

       (2) If the court determines, after complying with division 45569
(C)(1) of this section, that the applicant is an eligible offender 45570
or the subject of a bail forfeiture, that no criminal proceeding 45571
is pending against the applicant, and that the interests of the 45572
applicant in having the records pertaining to the applicant's 45573
conviction or bail forfeiture sealed are not outweighed by any 45574
legitimate governmental needs to maintain those records, and that 45575
the rehabilitation of an applicant who is an eligible offender 45576
applying pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section has been 45577
attained to the satisfaction of the court, the court, except as 45578
provided in divisions (G) and (H) of this section, shall order all 45579
official records pertaining to the case sealed and, except as 45580
provided in division (F) of this section, all index references to 45581
the case deleted and, in the case of bail forfeitures, shall 45582
dismiss the charges in the case. The proceedings in the case shall 45583
be considered not to have occurred and the conviction or bail 45584
forfeiture of the person who is the subject of the proceedings 45585
shall be sealed, except that upon conviction of a subsequent 45586
offense, the sealed record of prior conviction or bail forfeiture 45587
may be considered by the court in determining the sentence or 45588
other appropriate disposition, including the relief provided for 45589
in sections 2953.31 to 2953.33 of the Revised Code.45590

       (3) Upon the filing of an application under this section, the 45591
applicant, unless indigent, shall pay a fee of fifty dollars. The 45592
court shall pay thirty dollars of the fee into the state treasury. 45593
It shall pay twenty dollars of the fee into the county general 45594
revenue fund if the sealed conviction or bail forfeiture was 45595
pursuant to a state statute, or into the general revenue fund of 45596
the municipal corporation involved if the sealed conviction or 45597
bail forfeiture was pursuant to a municipal ordinance.45598

       (D) Inspection of the sealed records included in the order 45599
may be made only by the following persons or for the following 45600
purposes:45601

       (1) By a law enforcement officer or prosecutor, or the 45602
assistants of either, to determine whether the nature and 45603
character of the offense with which a person is to be charged 45604
would be affected by virtue of the person's previously having been 45605
convicted of a crime;45606

       (2) By the parole or probation officer of the person who is 45607
the subject of the records, for the exclusive use of the officer 45608
in supervising the person while on parole or under a community 45609
control sanction or a post-release control sanction, and in making 45610
inquiries and written reports as requested by the court or adult 45611
parole authority;45612

       (3) Upon application by the person who is the subject of the 45613
records, by the persons named in the application;45614

       (4) By a law enforcement officer who was involved in the 45615
case, for use in the officer's defense of a civil action arising 45616
out of the officer's involvement in that case;45617

       (5) By a prosecuting attorney or the prosecuting attorney's 45618
assistants, to determine a defendant's eligibility to enter a 45619
pre-trial diversion program established pursuant to section 45620
2935.36 of the Revised Code;45621

       (6) By any law enforcement agency or any authorized employee 45622
of a law enforcement agency or by the department of rehabilitation 45623
and correction as part of a background investigation of a person 45624
who applies for employment with the agency as a law enforcement 45625
officer or with the department as a corrections officer;45626

       (7) By any law enforcement agency or any authorized employee 45627
of a law enforcement agency, for the purposes set forth in, and in 45628
the manner provided in, section 2953.321 of the Revised Code;45629

       (8) By the bureau of criminal identification and 45630
investigation or any authorized employee of the bureau for the 45631
purpose of providing information to a board or person pursuant to 45632
division (F) or (G) of section 109.57 of the Revised Code;45633

       (9) By the bureau of criminal identification and 45634
investigation or any authorized employee of the bureau for the 45635
purpose of performing a criminal history records check on a person 45636
to whom a certificate as prescribed in section 109.77 of the 45637
Revised Code is to be awarded;45638

       (10) By the bureau of criminal identification and 45639
investigation or any authorized employee of the bureau for the 45640
purpose of conducting a criminal records check of an individual 45641
pursuant to division (B) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 45642
that was requested pursuant to any of the sections identified in 45643
division (B)(1) of that section;45644

       (11) By the bureau of criminal identification and 45645
investigation, an authorized employee of the bureau, a sheriff, or 45646
an authorized employee of a sheriff in connection with a criminal 45647
records check described in section 311.41 of the Revised Code;45648

       (12) By the attorney general or an authorized employee of the 45649
attorney general or a court for purposes of determining a person's 45650
classification pursuant to Chapter 2950. of the Revised Code;45651

       (13) By a prosecuting attorney or the attorney general, or 45652
the assistants of either, for purposes of defending or 45653
participating in a civil action brought pursuant to division 45654
(B)(1) of section 2743.48 of the Revised Code.45655

       When the nature and character of the offense with which a 45656
person is to be charged would be affected by the information, it 45657
may be used for the purpose of charging the person with an 45658
offense.45659

       (E) In any criminal proceeding, proof of any otherwise 45660
admissible prior conviction may be introduced and proved, 45661
notwithstanding the fact that for any such prior conviction an 45662
order of sealing previously was issued pursuant to sections 45663
2953.31 to 2953.36 of the Revised Code.45664

       (F) The person or governmental agency, office, or department 45665
that maintains sealed records pertaining to convictions or bail 45666
forfeitures that have been sealed pursuant to this section may 45667
maintain a manual or computerized index to the sealed records. The 45668
index shall contain only the name of, and alphanumeric identifiers 45669
that relate to, the persons who are the subject of the sealed 45670
records, the word "sealed," and the name of the person, agency, 45671
office, or department that has custody of the sealed records, and 45672
shall not contain the name of the crime committed. The index shall 45673
be made available by the person who has custody of the sealed 45674
records only for the purposes set forth in divisions (C), (D), and 45675
(E) of this section.45676

       (G) Notwithstanding any provision of this section or section 45677
2953.33 of the Revised Code that requires otherwise, a board of 45678
education of a city, local, exempted village, or joint vocational 45679
school district that maintains records of an individual who has 45680
been permanently excluded under sections 3301.121 and 3313.662 of 45681
the Revised Code is permitted to maintain records regarding a 45682
conviction that was used as the basis for the individual's 45683
permanent exclusion, regardless of a court order to seal the 45684
record. An order issued under this section to seal the record of a 45685
conviction does not revoke the adjudication order of the 45686
superintendent of public instruction to permanently exclude the 45687
individual who is the subject of the sealing order. An order 45688
issued under this section to seal the record of a conviction of an 45689
individual may be presented to a district superintendent as 45690
evidence to support the contention that the superintendent should 45691
recommend that the permanent exclusion of the individual who is 45692
the subject of the sealing order be revoked. Except as otherwise 45693
authorized by this division and sections 3301.121 and 3313.662 of 45694
the Revised Code, any school employee in possession of or having 45695
access to the sealed conviction records of an individual that were 45696
the basis of a permanent exclusion of the individual is subject to 45697
section 2953.35 of the Revised Code.45698

       (H) For purposes of sections 2953.31 to 2953.36 of the 45699
Revised Code, DNA records collected in the DNA database and 45700
fingerprints filed for record by the superintendent of the bureau 45701
of criminal identification and investigation shall not be sealed 45702
unless the superintendent receives a certified copy of a final 45703
court order establishing that the offender's conviction has been 45704
overturned. For purposes of this section, a court order is not 45705
"final" if time remains for an appeal or application for 45706
discretionary review with respect to the order.45707

       Sec. 2967.22.  Whenever it is brought to the attention of the 45708
adult parole authority or a department of probation that a 45709
parolee, person under a community control sanction, person under 45710
transitional control, or releasee appears to be a mentally ill 45711
person subject to hospitalization by court order, as defined in 45712
section 5122.01 of the Revised Code, or a mentally retarded person 45713
subject to institutionalization by court order, as defined in 45714
section 5123.01 of the Revised Code, the parole or probation 45715
officer, subject to the approval of the chief of the adult parole 45716
authority, the designee of the chief of the adult parole 45717
authority, or the chief probation officer, may file an affidavit 45718
under section 5122.11 or 5123.71 of the Revised Code. A parolee, 45719
person under a community control sanction, or releasee who is 45720
involuntarily detained under Chapter 5122. or 5123. of the Revised 45721
Code shall receive credit against the period of parole or 45722
community control or the term of post-release control for the 45723
period of involuntary detention.45724

       If a parolee, person under a community control sanction, 45725
person under transitional control, or releasee escapes from an 45726
institution or facility within the department of mental health45727
mental health and addiction services or the department of 45728
developmental disabilities, the superintendent of the institution 45729
immediately shall notify the chief of the adult parole authority 45730
or the chief probation officer. Notwithstanding the provisions of 45731
section 5122.26 of the Revised Code, the procedure for the 45732
apprehension, detention, and return of the parolee, person under a 45733
community control sanction, person under transitional control, or 45734
releasee is the same as that provided for the apprehension, 45735
detention, and return of persons who escape from institutions 45736
operated by the department of rehabilitation and correction. If 45737
the escaped parolee, person under transitional control, or 45738
releasee is not apprehended and returned to the custody of the 45739
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services45740
or the department of developmental disabilities within ninety days 45741
after the escape, the parolee, person under transitional control, 45742
or releasee shall be discharged from the custody of the department 45743
of mental healthmental health and addiction services or the 45744
department of developmental disabilities and returned to the 45745
custody of the department of rehabilitation and correction. If the 45746
escaped person under a community control sanction is not 45747
apprehended and returned to the custody of the department of45748
mental healthmental health and addiction services or the 45749
department of developmental disabilities within ninety days after 45750
the escape, the person under a community control sanction shall be 45751
discharged from the custody of the department of mental health45752
mental health and addiction services or the department of 45753
developmental disabilities and returned to the custody of the 45754
court that sentenced that person.45755

       Sec. 2981.01. (A) Forfeitures under this chapter shall be 45756
governed by all of the following purposes:45757

       (1) To provide economic disincentives and remedies to deter 45758
and offset the economic effect of offenses by seizing and 45759
forfeiting contraband, proceeds, and certain instrumentalities;45760

       (2) To ensure that seizures and forfeitures of 45761
instrumentalities are proportionate to the offense committed;45762

       (3) To protect third parties from wrongful forfeiture of 45763
their property;45764

       (4) To prioritize restitution for victims of offenses.45765

       (B) As used in this chapter:45766

       (1) "Aircraft" has the same meaning as in section 4561.01 of 45767
the Revised Code.45768

       (2) "Computers," "computer networks," "computer systems," 45769
"computer software," and "telecommunications device" have the same 45770
meanings as in section 2913.01 of the Revised Code.45771

       (3) "Financial institution" means a bank, credit union, 45772
savings and loan association, or a licensee or registrant under 45773
Chapter 1321. of the Revised Code.45774

       (4) "Firearm" and "dangerous ordnance" have the same meanings 45775
as in section 2923.11 of the Revised Code.45776

       (5) "Innocent person" includes any bona fide purchaser of 45777
property that is subject to forfeiture, including any person who 45778
establishes a valid claim to or interest in the property in 45779
accordance with section 2923.04 of the Revised Code, and any 45780
victim of an alleged offense.45781

       (6) "Instrumentality" means property otherwise lawful to 45782
possess that is used in or intended to be used in an offense. An 45783
"instrumentality" may include, but is not limited to, a firearm, a 45784
mobile instrumentality, a computer, a computer network, a computer 45785
system, computer software, a telecommunications device, money, and 45786
any other means of exchange.45787

       (7) "Law enforcement agency" includes, but is not limited to, 45788
the state board of pharmacy, the enforcement division of the 45789
department of taxation, the Ohio casino control commission, and 45790
the office of the prosecutor.45791

       (8) "Mobile instrumentality" means an instrumentality that is 45792
inherently mobile and used in the routine transport of persons. 45793
"Mobile instrumentality" includes, but is not limited to, any 45794
vehicle, any watercraft, and any aircraft.45795

       (9) "Money" has the same meaning as in section 1301.201 of 45796
the Revised Code.45797

       (10) "Offense" means any act or omission that could be 45798
charged as a criminal offense or a delinquent act, whether or not 45799
a formal criminal prosecution or delinquent child proceeding began 45800
at the time the forfeiture is initiated. Except as otherwise 45801
specified, an offense for which property may be forfeited includes 45802
any felony and any misdemeanor. The commission of an "offense" 45803
includes the commission of a delinquent act.45804

       (11) "Proceeds" means both of the following:45805

       (a) In cases involving unlawful goods, services, or 45806
activities, "proceeds" means any property derived directly or 45807
indirectly from an offense. "Proceeds" may include, but is not 45808
limited to, money or any other means of exchange. "Proceeds" is 45809
not limited to the net gain or profit realized from the offense.45810

       (b) In cases involving lawful goods or services that are sold 45811
or provided in an unlawful manner, "proceeds" means the amount of 45812
money or other means of exchange acquired through the illegal 45813
transactions resulting in the forfeiture, less the direct costs 45814
lawfully incurred in providing the goods or services. The lawful 45815
costs deduction does not include any part of the overhead expenses 45816
of, or income taxes paid by, the entity providing the goods or 45817
services. The alleged offender or delinquent child has the burden 45818
to prove that any costs are lawfully incurred.45819

       (12) "Property" means "property" as defined in section 45820
2901.01 of the Revised Code and any benefit, privilege, claim, 45821
position, interest in an enterprise, or right derived, directly or 45822
indirectly, from the offense.45823

       (13) "Property subject to forfeiture" includes contraband and 45824
proceeds and may include instrumentalities as provided in this 45825
chapter.45826

       (14) "Prosecutor" has the same meaning as in section 2935.01 45827
of the Revised Code. When relevant, "prosecutor" also includes the 45828
attorney general.45829

       (15) "Vehicle" has the same meaning as in section 4501.01 of 45830
the Revised Code.45831

       (16) "Watercraft" has the same meaning as in section 1547.01 45832
of the Revised Code.45833

       (C) The penalties and procedures under Chapters 2923., 2925., 45834
and 2933., and 3772. of the Revised Code remain in effect to the 45835
extent that they do not conflict with this chapter.45836

       Sec. 2981.12. (A) Unclaimed or forfeited property in the 45837
custody of a law enforcement agency, other than property described 45838
in division (A)(2) of section 2981.11 of the Revised Code, shall 45839
be disposed of by order of any court of record that has 45840
territorial jurisdiction over the political subdivision that 45841
employs the law enforcement agency, as follows:45842

       (1) Drugs shall be disposed of pursuant to section 3719.11 of 45843
the Revised Code or placed in the custody of the secretary of the 45844
treasury of the United States for disposal or use for medical or 45845
scientific purposes under applicable federal law.45846

       (2) Firearms and dangerous ordnance suitable for police work 45847
may be given to a law enforcement agency for that purpose. 45848
Firearms suitable for sporting use or as museum pieces or 45849
collectors' items may be sold at public auction pursuant to 45850
division (B) of this section. The agency may sell other firearms 45851
and dangerous ordnance to a federally licensed firearms dealer in 45852
a manner that the court considers proper. The agency shall destroy 45853
any firearms or dangerous ordnance not given to a law enforcement 45854
agency or sold or shall send them to the bureau of criminal 45855
identification and investigation for destruction by the bureau.45856

       (3) Obscene materials shall be destroyed.45857

       (4) Beer, intoxicating liquor, or alcohol seized from a 45858
person who does not hold a permit issued under Chapters 4301. and 45859
4303. of the Revised Code or otherwise forfeited to the state for 45860
an offense under section 4301.45 or 4301.53 of the Revised Code 45861
shall be sold by the division of liquor control if the division 45862
determines that it is fit for sale or shall be placed in the 45863
custody of the investigations unit in the department of public 45864
safety and be used for training relating to law enforcement 45865
activities. The department, with the assistance of the division of 45866
liquor control, shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. 45867
of the Revised Code to provide for the distribution to state or 45868
local law enforcement agencies upon their request. If any tax 45869
imposed under Title XLIII of the Revised Code has not been paid in 45870
relation to the beer, intoxicating liquor, or alcohol, any moneys 45871
acquired from the sale shall first be used to pay the tax. All 45872
other money collected under this division shall be paid into the 45873
state treasury. Any beer, intoxicating liquor, or alcohol that the 45874
division determines to be unfit for sale shall be destroyed.45875

       (5) Money received by an inmate of a correctional institution 45876
from an unauthorized source or in an unauthorized manner shall be 45877
returned to the sender, if known, or deposited in the inmates' 45878
industrial and entertainment fund of the institution if the sender 45879
is not known.45880

       (6)(a) Any mobile instrumentality forfeited under this 45881
chapter may be given to the law enforcement agency that initially 45882
seized the mobile instrumentality for use in performing its 45883
duties, if the agency wants the mobile instrumentality. The agency 45884
shall take the mobile instrumentality subject to any security 45885
interest or lien on the mobile instrumentality.45886

       (b) Vehicles and vehicle parts forfeited under sections 45887
4549.61 to 4549.63 of the Revised Code may be given to a law 45888
enforcement agency for use in performing its duties. Those parts 45889
may be incorporated into any other official vehicle. Parts that do 45890
not bear vehicle identification numbers or derivatives of them may 45891
be sold or disposed of as provided by rules of the director of 45892
public safety. Parts from which a vehicle identification number or 45893
derivative of it has been removed, defaced, covered, altered, or 45894
destroyed and that are not suitable for police work or 45895
incorporation into an official vehicle shall be destroyed and sold 45896
as junk or scrap.45897

       (7) Computers, computer networks, computer systems, and 45898
computer software suitable for police work may be given to a law 45899
enforcement agency for that purpose or disposed of under division 45900
(B) of this section.45901

       (8) Money seized in connection with a violation of section 45902
2905.32, 2907.21, or 2907.22 of the Revised Code shall be 45903
deposited in the victims of human trafficking fund created by 45904
section 5101.87 of the Revised Code.45905

       (B) Unclaimed or forfeited property that is not described in 45906
division (A) of this section or division (A)(2) of section 2981.11 45907
of the Revised Code, with court approval, may be used by the law 45908
enforcement agency in possession of it. If it is not used by the 45909
agency, it may be sold without appraisal at a public auction to 45910
the highest bidder for cash or disposed of in another manner that 45911
the court considers proper.45912

       (C) Except as provided in divisions (A) and (F) of this 45913
section and after compliance with division (D) of this section 45914
when applicable, any moneys acquired from the sale of property 45915
disposed of pursuant to this section shall be placed in the 45916
general revenue fund of the state, or the general fund of the 45917
county, the township, or the municipal corporation of which the 45918
law enforcement agency involved is an agency.45919

       (D) If the property was in the possession of the law 45920
enforcement agency in relation to a delinquent child proceeding in 45921
a juvenile court, ten per cent of any moneys acquired from the 45922
sale of property disposed of under this section shall be applied 45923
to one or more alcohol and drugcommunity addiction treatment 45924
programsservices providers that are certified by the department 45925
of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 45926
services under section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code. A 45927
juvenile court shall not specify a programservices provider, 45928
except as provided in this division, unless the programservices 45929
provider is in the same county as the court or in a contiguous 45930
county. If no certified programservices provider is located in 45931
any of those counties, the juvenile court may specify a certified 45932
programservices provider anywhere in Ohio. The remaining ninety 45933
per cent of the proceeds or cash shall be applied as provided in 45934
division (C) of this section.45935

       Each treatment programservices provider that receives in any 45936
calendar year forfeited money under this division shall file an 45937
annual report for that year with the attorney general and with the 45938
court of common pleas and board of county commissioners of the 45939
county in which the programservices provider is located and of 45940
any other county from which the programservices provider received 45941
forfeited money. The programservices provider shall file the 45942
report on or before the first day of March in the calendar year 45943
following the calendar year in which the programservices provider45944
received the money. The report shall include statistics on the 45945
number of persons the programservices provider served, identify 45946
the types of treatment services it provided to them, and include a 45947
specific accounting of the purposes for which it used the money so 45948
received. No information contained in the report shall identify, 45949
or enable a person to determine the identity of, any person served 45950
by the programservices provider.45951

       (E) Each certified alcohol and drugcommunity addiction 45952
treatment programservices provider that receives in any calendar 45953
year money under this section or under section 2981.13 of the 45954
Revised Code as the result of a juvenile forfeiture order shall 45955
file an annual report for that calendar year with the attorney 45956
general and with the court of common pleas and board of county 45957
commissioners of the county in which the programservices provider45958
is located and of any other county from which the programservices 45959
provider received the money. The programservices provider shall 45960
file the report on or before the first day of March in the 45961
calendar year following the year in which the programservices 45962
provider received the money. The report shall include statistics 45963
on the number of persons served with the money, identify the types 45964
of treatment services provided, and specifically account for how 45965
the money was used. No information in the report shall identify or 45966
enable a person to determine the identity of anyone served by the 45967
programservices provider.45968

       As used in this division, "juvenile-related forfeiture order" 45969
means any forfeiture order issued by a juvenile court under 45970
section 2981.04 or 2981.05 of the Revised Code and any disposal of 45971
property ordered by a court under section 2981.11 of the Revised 45972
Code regarding property that was in the possession of a law 45973
enforcement agency in relation to a delinquent child proceeding in 45974
a juvenile court.45975

       (F) Each board of county commissioners that recognizes a 45976
citizens' reward program under section 9.92 of the Revised Code 45977
shall notify each law enforcement agency of that county and of a 45978
township or municipal corporation wholly located in that county of 45979
the recognition by filing a copy of its resolution conferring that 45980
recognition with each of those agencies. When the board recognizes 45981
a citizens' reward program and the county includes a part, but not 45982
all, of the territory of a municipal corporation, the board shall 45983
so notify the law enforcement agency of that municipal corporation 45984
of the recognition of the citizens' reward program only if the 45985
county contains the highest percentage of the municipal 45986
corporation's population.45987

       Upon being so notified, each law enforcement agency shall pay 45988
twenty-five per cent of any forfeited proceeds or cash derived 45989
from each sale of property disposed of pursuant to this section to 45990
the citizens' reward program for use exclusively to pay rewards. 45991
No part of the funds may be used to pay expenses associated with 45992
the program. If a citizens' reward program that operates in more 45993
than one county or in another state in addition to this state 45994
receives funds under this section, the funds shall be used to pay 45995
rewards only for tips and information to law enforcement agencies 45996
concerning offenses committed in the county from which the funds 45997
were received.45998

       Receiving funds under this section or section 2981.11 of the 45999
Revised Code does not make the citizens' reward program a 46000
governmental unit or public office for purposes of section 149.43 46001
of the Revised Code.46002

       (G) Any property forfeited under this chapter shall not be 46003
used to pay any fine imposed upon a person who is convicted of or 46004
pleads guilty to an underlying criminal offense or a different 46005
offense arising out of the same facts and circumstances.46006

       (H) Any moneys acquired from the sale of personal effects, 46007
tools, or other property seized because the personal effects, 46008
tools, or other property were used in the commission of a 46009
violation of section 2905.32, 2907.21, or 2907.22 of the Revised 46010
Code or derived from the proceeds of the commission of a violation 46011
of section 2905.32, 2907.21, or 2907.22 of the Revised Code and 46012
disposed of pursuant to this section shall be placed in the 46013
victims of human trafficking fund created by section 5101.87 of 46014
the Revised Code.46015

       Sec. 2981.13. (A) Except as otherwise provided in this 46016
section, property ordered forfeited as contraband, proceeds, or an 46017
instrumentality pursuant to this chapter shall be disposed of, 46018
used, or sold pursuant to section 2981.12 of the Revised Code. If 46019
the property is to be sold under that section, the prosecutor 46020
shall cause notice of the proposed sale to be given in accordance 46021
with law.46022

       (B) If the contraband or instrumentality forfeited under this 46023
chapter is sold, any moneys acquired from a sale and any proceeds 46024
forfeited under this chapter shall be applied in the following 46025
order:46026

       (1) First, to pay costs incurred in the seizure, storage, 46027
maintenance, security, and sale of the property and in the 46028
forfeiture proceeding;46029

       (2) Second, in a criminal forfeiture case, to satisfy any 46030
restitution ordered to the victim of the offense or, in a civil 46031
forfeiture case, to satisfy any recovery ordered for the person 46032
harmed, unless paid from other assets;46033

       (3) Third, to pay the balance due on any security interest 46034
preserved under this chapter;46035

       (4) Fourth, apply the remaining amounts as follows: 46036

       (a) If the forfeiture was ordered by a juvenile court, ten 46037
per cent to one or more certified alcohol and drug addiction 46038
treatment programs as provided in division (D) of section 2981.12 46039
of the Revised Code;46040

       (b) If the forfeiture was ordered in a juvenile court, ninety 46041
per cent, and if the forfeiture was ordered in a court other than 46042
a juvenile court, one hundred per cent to the law enforcement 46043
trust fund of the prosecutor and to the following fund supporting 46044
the law enforcement agency that substantially conducted the 46045
investigation: the law enforcement trust fund of the county 46046
sheriff, municipal corporation, township, or park district created 46047
under section 511.18 or 1545.01 of the Revised Code; the state 46048
highway patrol contraband, forfeiture, and other fund; the 46049
department of public safety investigative unit contraband, 46050
forfeiture, and other fund; the department of taxation enforcement 46051
fund; the board of pharmacy drug law enforcement fund created by 46052
division (B)(1) of section 4729.65 of the Revised Code; the 46053
medicaid fraud investigation and prosecution fund; the casino 46054
control commission enforcement fund created by section 3772.36 of 46055
the Revised Code; or the treasurer of state for deposit into the 46056
peace officer training commission fund if any other state law 46057
enforcement agency substantially conducted the investigation. In 46058
the case of property forfeited for medicaid fraud, any remaining 46059
amount shall be used by the attorney general to investigate and 46060
prosecute medicaid fraud offenses.46061

       If the prosecutor declines to accept any of the remaining 46062
amounts, the amounts shall be applied to the fund of the agency 46063
that substantially conducted the investigation.46064

       (c) If more than one law enforcement agency is substantially 46065
involved in the seizure of property forfeited under this chapter, 46066
the court ordering the forfeiture shall equitably divide the 46067
amounts, after calculating any distribution to the law enforcement 46068
trust fund of the prosecutor pursuant to division (B)(4) of this 46069
section, among the entities that the court determines were 46070
substantially involved in the seizure.46071

       (C)(1) A law enforcement trust fund shall be established by 46072
the prosecutor of each county who intends to receive any remaining 46073
amounts pursuant to this section, by the sheriff of each county, 46074
by the legislative authority of each municipal corporation, by the 46075
board of township trustees of each township that has a township 46076
police department, township or joint police district police force, 46077
or office of the constable, and by the board of park commissioners 46078
of each park district created pursuant to section 511.18 or 46079
1545.01 of the Revised Code that has a park district police force 46080
or law enforcement department, for the purposes of this section.46081

       There is hereby created in the state treasury the state 46082
highway patrol contraband, forfeiture, and other fund, the 46083
department of public safety investigative unit contraband, 46084
forfeiture, and other fund, the medicaid fraud investigation and 46085
prosecution fund, the department of taxation enforcement fund, and 46086
the peace officer training commission fund, for the purposes of 46087
this section.46088

       Amounts distributed to any municipal corporation, township, 46089
or park district law enforcement trust fund shall be allocated 46090
from the fund by the legislative authority only to the police 46091
department of the municipal corporation, by the board of township 46092
trustees only to the township police department, township police 46093
district police force, or office of the constable, by the joint 46094
police district board only to the joint police district, and by 46095
the board of park commissioners only to the park district police 46096
force or law enforcement department.46097

       (2)(a) No amounts shall be allocated to a fund created under 46098
this section or used by an agency unless the agency has adopted a 46099
written internal control policy that addresses the use of moneys 46100
received from the appropriate fund. The appropriate fund shall be 46101
expended only in accordance with that policy and, subject to the 46102
requirements specified in this section, only for the following 46103
purposes:46104

       (i) To pay the costs of protracted or complex investigations 46105
or prosecutions;46106

       (ii) To provide reasonable technical training or expertise;46107

       (iii) To provide matching funds to obtain federal grants to 46108
aid law enforcement, in the support of DARE programs or other 46109
programs designed to educate adults or children with respect to 46110
the dangers associated with the use of drugs of abuse;46111

       (iv) To pay the costs of emergency action taken under section 46112
3745.13 of the Revised Code relative to the operation of an 46113
illegal methamphetamine laboratory if the forfeited property or 46114
money involved was that of a person responsible for the operation 46115
of the laboratory;46116

       (v) For other law enforcement purposes that the 46117
superintendent of the state highway patrol, department of public 46118
safety, prosecutor, county sheriff, legislative authority, 46119
department of taxation, Ohio casino control commission, board of 46120
township trustees, or board of park commissioners determines to be 46121
appropriate.46122

       (b) The board of pharmacy drug law enforcement fund shall be 46123
expended only in accordance with the written internal control 46124
policy so adopted by the board and only in accordance with section 46125
4729.65 of the Revised Code, except that it also may be expended 46126
to pay the costs of emergency action taken under section 3745.13 46127
of the Revised Code relative to the operation of an illegal 46128
methamphetamine laboratory if the forfeited property or money 46129
involved was that of a person responsible for the operation of the 46130
laboratory.46131

       (c) The state highway patrol contraband, forfeiture, and 46132
other fund, the department of public safety investigative unit 46133
contraband, forfeiture, and other fund, the department of taxation 46134
enforcement fund, the board of pharmacy drug law enforcement fund, 46135
the casino control commission enforcement fund, and a law 46136
enforcement trust fund shall not be used to meet the operating 46137
costs of the state highway patrol, of the investigative unit of 46138
the department of public safety, of the state board of pharmacy, 46139
of any political subdivision, of the Ohio casino control 46140
commission, or of any office of a prosecutor or county sheriff 46141
that are unrelated to law enforcement.46142

       (d) Forfeited moneys that are paid into the state treasury to 46143
be deposited into the peace officer training commission fund shall 46144
be used by the commission only to pay the costs of peace officer 46145
training.46146

       (3) Any of the following offices or agencies that receive 46147
amounts under this section during any calendar year shall file a 46148
report with the specified entity, not later than the thirty-first 46149
day of January of the next calendar year, verifying that the 46150
moneys were expended only for the purposes authorized by this 46151
section or other relevant statute and specifying the amounts 46152
expended for each authorized purpose:46153

       (a) Any sheriff or prosecutor shall file the report with the 46154
county auditor.46155

       (b) Any municipal corporation police department shall file 46156
the report with the legislative authority of the municipal 46157
corporation.46158

       (c) Any township police department, township or joint police 46159
district police force, or office of the constable shall file the 46160
report with the board of township trustees of the township.46161

       (d) Any park district police force or law enforcement 46162
department shall file the report with the board of park 46163
commissioners of the park district.46164

       (e) The superintendent of the state highway patrol and the 46165
tax commissioner shall file the report with the attorney general.46166

       (f) The executive director of the state board of pharmacy 46167
shall file the report with the attorney general, verifying that 46168
cash and forfeited proceeds paid into the board of pharmacy drug 46169
law enforcement fund were used only in accordance with section 46170
4729.65 of the Revised Code.46171

       (g) The peace officer training commission shall file a report 46172
with the attorney general, verifying that cash and forfeited 46173
proceeds paid into the peace officer training commission fund 46174
pursuant to this section during the prior calendar year were used 46175
by the commission during the prior calendar year only to pay the 46176
costs of peace officer training.46177

       (h) The executive director of the Ohio casino control 46178
commission shall file the report with the attorney general, 46179
verifying that cash and forfeited proceeds paid into the casino 46180
control commission enforcement fund were used only in accordance 46181
with section 3772.36 of the Revised Code.46182

       (D) The written internal control policy of a county sheriff, 46183
prosecutor, municipal corporation police department, township 46184
police department, township or joint police district police force, 46185
office of the constable, or park district police force or law 46186
enforcement department shall provide that at least ten per cent of 46187
the first one hundred thousand dollars of amounts deposited during 46188
each calendar year in the agency's law enforcement trust fund 46189
under this section, and at least twenty per cent of the amounts 46190
exceeding one hundred thousand dollars that are so deposited, 46191
shall be used in connection with community preventive education 46192
programs. The manner of use shall be determined by the sheriff, 46193
prosecutor, department, police force, or office of the constable 46194
after receiving and considering advice on appropriate community 46195
preventive education programs from the county's board of alcohol, 46196
drug addiction, and mental health services, from the county's 46197
alcohol and drug addiction services board, or through appropriate 46198
community dialogue.46199

       The financial records kept under the internal control policy 46200
shall specify the amount deposited during each calendar year in 46201
the portion of that amount that was used pursuant to this 46202
division, and the programs in connection with which the portion of 46203
that amount was so used.46204

       As used in this division, "community preventive education 46205
programs" include, but are not limited to, DARE programs and other 46206
programs designed to educate adults or children with respect to 46207
the dangers associated with using drugs of abuse.46208

       (E) Upon the sale, under this section or section 2981.12 of 46209
the Revised Code, of any property that is required by law to be 46210
titled or registered, the state shall issue an appropriate 46211
certificate of title or registration to the purchaser. If the 46212
state is vested with title and elects to retain property that is 46213
required to be titled or registered under law, the state shall 46214
issue an appropriate certificate of title or registration.46215

       (F) Any failure of a law enforcement officer or agency, 46216
prosecutor, court, or the attorney general to comply with this 46217
section in relation to any property seized does not affect the 46218
validity of the seizure and shall not be considered to be the 46219
basis for suppressing any evidence resulting from the seizure, 46220
provided the seizure itself was lawful.46221

       Sec. 3101.051.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) of 46222
this section, a probate court shall make available to any person 46223
for inspection the records pertaining to the issuance of marriage 46224
licenses as provided under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.46225

       (B) Before it makes available to a person any records 46226
pertaining to the issuance of a marriage license as described in 46227
division (A) of this section, subject to division (C) of this 46228
section, a probate court shall delete or otherwise remove any 46229
social security numbers of the parties to a marriage so that they 46230
are not available to the person inspecting the records.46231

       (C) Division (B) of this section does not apply in any of the 46232
following circumstances:46233

       (1) If the records in question are inspected by authorized 46234
personnel of the division of child support in the department of 46235
job and family services under section 5101.315101.37 of the 46236
Revised Code;46237

       (2) If the records in question are inspected by law 46238
enforcement personnel for purposes of a criminal investigation;46239

       (3) If the records in question with the social security 46240
numbers are necessary for use in a civil or criminal trial and the 46241
release of the records with the social security numbers is ordered 46242
by a court with jurisdiction over the trial;46243

       (4) If the records in question are inspected by either party 46244
to the marriage to which the records pertain;46245

       (5) If the court possessed the records in question prior to 46246
the effective date of this section.46247

       Sec. 3107.083.  Not later than ninety days after June 20, 46248
1996, the director of job and family services shall do all of the 46249
following:46250

       (A)(1) For a parent of a child who, if adopted, will be an 46251
adopted person as defined in section 3107.45 of the Revised Code, 46252
prescribe a form that has the following six components:46253

       (a) A component the parent signs under section 3107.071, 46254
3107.081, or 5103.151 of the Revised Code to indicate the 46255
requirements of section 3107.082 or 5103.152 of the Revised Code 46256
have been met. The component shall be as follows:46257

"Statement Concerning Ohio Law and Adoption Materials
46258

       By signing this component of this form, I acknowledge that it 46259
has been explained to me, and I understand, that, if I check the 46260
space on the next component of this form that indicates that I 46261
authorize the release, the adoption file maintained by the Ohio 46262
Department of Health, which contains identifying information about 46263
me at the time of my child's birth, will be released, on request, 46264
to the adoptive parent when the adoptee is at least age eighteen 46265
but younger than age twenty-one and to the adoptee when he or she 46266
is age twenty-one or older. It has also been explained to me, and 46267
I understand, that I may prohibit the release of identifying 46268
information about me contained in the adoption file by checking 46269
the space on the next component of this form that indicates that I 46270
do not authorize the release of the identifying information. It 46271
has additionally been explained to me, and I understand, that I 46272
may change my mind regarding the decision I make on the next 46273
component of this form at any time and as many times as I desire 46274
by signing, dating, and having filed with the Ohio Department of 46275
Health a denial of release form or authorization of release form 46276
prescribed and provided by the Department of Health and providing 46277
the Department two items of identification.46278

       By signing this component of this form, I also acknowledge 46279
that I have been provided a copy of written materials about 46280
adoption prepared by the Ohio Department of Job and Family 46281
Services, the adoption process and ramifications of consenting to 46282
adoption or entering into a voluntary permanent custody surrender 46283
agreement have been discussed with me, and I have been provided 46284
the opportunity to review the materials and ask questions about 46285
the materials and discussion.46286

Signature of biological parent: 46287
Signature of witness: 46288
Date: " 46289

       (b) A component the parent signs under section 3107.071, 46290
3107.081, or 5103.151 of the Revised Code regarding the parent's 46291
decision whether to allow identifying information about the parent 46292
contained in an adoption file maintained by the department of 46293
health to be released to the parent's child and adoptive parent 46294
pursuant to section 3107.47 of the Revised Code. The component 46295
shall be as follows:46296

"Statement Regarding Release of Identifying Information
46297

       The purpose of this component of this form is to allow a 46298
biological parent to decide whether to allow the Ohio Department 46299
of Health to provide an adoptee and adoptive parent identifying 46300
information about the adoptee's biological parent contained in an 46301
adoption file maintained by the Department. Please check one of 46302
the following spaces:46303

...... YES, I authorize the Ohio Department of Health to release identifying information about me, on request, to the adoptive parent when the adoptee is at least age eighteen but younger than age twenty-one and to the adoptee when he or she is age twenty-one or older. 46304
...... NO, I do not authorize the release of identifying information about me to the adoptive parent or adoptee. 46305

Signature of biological parent: 46306
Signature of witness: 46307
Date: " 46308

       (c) A component the parent, if the mother of the child, 46309
completes and signs under section 3107.071, 3107.081, or 5103.151 46310
of the Revised Code to indicate, to the extent of the mother's 46311
knowledge, all of the following:46312

       (i) Whether the mother, during her pregnancy, was a recipient 46313
of the medical assistancemedicaid program established under 46314
Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code or other public health insurance 46315
program and, if so, the dates her eligibility began and ended;46316

       (ii) Whether the mother, during her pregnancy, was covered by 46317
private health insurance and, if so, the dates the coverage began 46318
and ended, the name of the insurance provider, the type of 46319
coverage, and the identification number of the coverage;46320

       (iii) The name and location of the hospital, freestanding 46321
birthbirthing center, or other place where the mother gave birth 46322
and, if different, received medical care immediately after giving 46323
birth;46324

       (iv) The expenses of the obstetrical and neonatal care;46325

       (v) Whether the mother has been informed that the adoptive 46326
parent or the agency or attorney arranging the adoption are to pay 46327
expenses involved in the adoption, including expenses the mother 46328
has paid and expects to receive or has received reimbursement, 46329
and, if so, what expenses are to be or have been paid and an 46330
estimate of the expenses;46331

       (vi) Any other information related to expenses the department 46332
determines appropriate to be included in this component.46333

       (d) A component the parent may sign to authorize the agency 46334
or attorney arranging the adoption to provide to the child or 46335
adoptive parent materials, other than photographs of the parent, 46336
that the parent requests be given to the child or adoptive parent 46337
pursuant to section 3107.68 of the Revised Code.46338

       (e) A component the parent may sign to authorize the agency 46339
or attorney arranging the adoption to provide to the child or 46340
adoptive parent photographs of the parent pursuant to section 46341
3107.68 of the Revised Code.46342

       (f) A component the parent may sign to authorize the agency 46343
or attorney arranging the adoption to provide to the child or 46344
adoptive parent the first name of the parent pursuant to section 46345
3107.68 of the Revised Code.46346

       (2) State at the bottom of the form that the parent is to 46347
receive a copy of the form the parent signed.46348

       (3) Provide copies of the form prescribed under this division 46349
to probate and juvenile courts, public children services agencies, 46350
private child placing agencies, private noncustodial agencies, 46351
attorneys, and persons authorized to take acknowledgments.46352

       (B)(1) For a parent of a child who, if adopted, will become 46353
an adopted person as defined in section 3107.39 of the Revised 46354
Code, prescribe a form that has the following five components:46355

       (a) A component the parent signs under section 3107.071, 46356
3107.081, or 5103.151 of the Revised Code to attest that the 46357
requirement of division (A) of section 3107.082 or division (A) of 46358
section 5103.152 of the Revised Code has been met;46359

       (b) A component the parent, if the mother of the child, 46360
completes and signs under section 3107.071, 3107.081, or 5103.151 46361
of the Revised Code to indicate, to the extent of the mother's 46362
knowledge, all of the following:46363

       (i) Whether the mother, during her pregnancy, was a recipient 46364
of the medical assistancemedicaid program established under 46365
Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code or other public health insurance 46366
program and, if so, the dates her eligibility began and ended;46367

       (ii) Whether the mother, during her pregnancy, was covered by 46368
private health insurance and, if so, the dates the coverage began 46369
and ended, the name of the insurance provider, the type of 46370
coverage, and the identification number of the coverage;46371

       (iii) The name and location of the hospital, freestanding 46372
birthbirthing center, or other place where the mother gave birth 46373
and, if different, received medical care immediately after giving 46374
birth;46375

       (iv) The expenses of the obstetrical and neonatal care;46376

       (v) Whether the mother has been informed that the adoptive 46377
parent or the agency or attorney arranging the adoption are to pay 46378
expenses involved in the adoption, including expenses the mother 46379
has paid and expects to receive or has received reimbursement for, 46380
and, if so, what expenses are to be or have been paid and an 46381
estimate of the expenses;46382

       (vi) Any other information related to expenses the department 46383
determines appropriate to be included in the component.46384

       (c) A component the parent may sign to authorize the agency 46385
or attorney arranging the adoption to provide to the child or 46386
adoptive parent materials, other than photographs of the parent, 46387
that the parent requests be given to the child or adoptive parent 46388
pursuant to section 3107.68 of the Revised Code.46389

       (d) A component the parent may sign to authorize the agency 46390
or attorney arranging the adoption to provide to the child or 46391
adoptive parent photographs of the parent pursuant to section 46392
3107.68 of the Revised Code.46393

       (e) A component the parent may sign to authorize the agency 46394
or attorney arranging the adoption to provide to the child or 46395
adoptive parent the first name of the parent pursuant to section 46396
3107.68 of the Revised Code.46397

       (2) State at the bottom of the form that the parent is to 46398
receive a copy of the form the parent signed.46399

       (3) Provide copies of the form prescribed under this division 46400
to probate and juvenile courts, public children services agencies, 46401
private child placing agencies, private noncustodial agencies, and 46402
attorneys.46403

       (C) Prepare the written materials about adoption that are 46404
required to be given to parents under division (A) of section 46405
3107.082 and division (A) of section 5103.152 of the Revised Code. 46406
The materials shall provide information about the adoption 46407
process, including ramifications of a parent consenting to a 46408
child's adoption or entering into a voluntary permanent custody 46409
surrender agreement. The materials also shall include referral 46410
information for professional counseling and adoption support 46411
organizations. The director shall provide the materials to 46412
assessors.46413

       (D) Adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 46414
Revised Code specifying the documents that must be filed with a 46415
probate court under divisions (B) and (D) of section 3107.081 of 46416
the Revised Code and a juvenile court under divisions (C) and (E) 46417
of section 5103.151 of the Revised Code.46418

       Sec. 3109.15.  There is hereby created within the department 46419
of job and family services the children's trust fund board 46420
consisting of fifteen members. The directors of alcohol and drug 46421
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services, health, 46422
and job and family services shall be members of the board. Eight 46423
public members shall be appointed by the governor. These members 46424
shall be persons with demonstrated knowledge in programs for 46425
children, shall be representative of the demographic composition 46426
of this state, and, to the extent practicable, shall be 46427
representative of the following categories: the educational 46428
community; the legal community; the social work community; the 46429
medical community; the voluntary sector; and professional 46430
providers of child abuse and child neglect services. Five of these 46431
members shall be residents of metropolitan statistical areas as 46432
defined by the United States office of management and budget where 46433
the population exceeds four hundred thousand; no two such members 46434
shall be residents of the same metropolitan statistical area. Two 46435
members of the board shall be members of the house of 46436
representatives appointed by the speaker of the house of 46437
representatives and shall be members of two different political 46438
parties. Two members of the board shall be members of the senate 46439
appointed by the president of the senate and shall be members of 46440
two different political parties. All members of the board 46441
appointed by the speaker of the house of representatives or the 46442
president of the senate shall serve until the expiration of the 46443
sessions of the general assembly during which they were appointed. 46444
They may be reappointed to an unlimited number of successive terms 46445
of two years at the pleasure of the speaker of the house of 46446
representatives or president of the senate. Public members shall 46447
serve terms of three years. Each member shall serve until the 46448
member's successor is appointed, or until a period of sixty days 46449
has elapsed, whichever occurs first. No public member may serve 46450
more than two consecutive full terms. All vacancies on the board 46451
shall be filled for the balance of the unexpired term in the same 46452
manner as the original appointment.46453

       Any member of the board may be removed by the member's 46454
appointing authority for misconduct, incompetency, or neglect of 46455
duty after first being given the opportunity to be heard in the 46456
member's own behalf. Pursuant to section 3.17 of the Revised Code, 46457
a member, except a member of the general assembly or a judge of 46458
any court in the state, who fails to attend at least three-fifths 46459
of the regular and special meetings held by the board during any 46460
two-year period forfeits the member's position on the board.46461

       Each member of the board shall serve without compensation but 46462
shall be reimbursed for all actual and necessary expenses incurred 46463
in the performance of official duties.46464

       At the beginning of the first year of each even-numbered 46465
general assembly, the chairperson of the board shall be appointed 46466
by the speaker of the house of representatives from among members 46467
of the board who are members of the house of representatives. At 46468
the beginning of the first year of each odd-numbered general 46469
assembly, the chairperson of the board shall be appointed by the 46470
president of the senate from among the members of the board who 46471
are senate members.46472

       The board shall biennially select a vice-chair from among its 46473
nonlegislative members.46474

       Sec. 3111.04.  (A) An action to determine the existence or 46475
nonexistence of the father and child relationship may be brought 46476
by the child or the child's personal representative, the child's 46477
mother or her personal representative, a man alleged or alleging 46478
himself to be the child's father, the child support enforcement 46479
agency of the county in which the child resides if the child's 46480
mother, father, or alleged father is a recipient of public 46481
assistance or of services under Title IV-D of the "Social Security 46482
Act," 88 Stat. 2351 (1975), 42 U.S.C.A. 651, as amended, or the 46483
alleged father's personal representative.46484

       (B) An agreement does not bar an action under this section.46485

       (C) If an action under this section is brought before the 46486
birth of the child and if the action is contested, all 46487
proceedings, except service of process and the taking of 46488
depositions to perpetuate testimony, may be stayed until after the 46489
birth.46490

       (D) A recipient of public assistance or of services under 46491
Title IV-D of the "Social Security Act," 88 Stat. 2351 (1975), 42 46492
U.S.C.A. 651, as amended, shall cooperate with the child support 46493
enforcement agency of the county in which a child resides to 46494
obtain an administrative determination pursuant to sections 46495
3111.38 to 3111.54 of the Revised Code, or, if necessary, a court 46496
determination pursuant to sections 3111.01 to 3111.18 of the 46497
Revised Code, of the existence or nonexistence of a parent and 46498
child relationship between the father and the child. If the 46499
recipient fails to cooperate, the agency may commence an action to 46500
determine the existence or nonexistence of a parent and child 46501
relationship between the father and the child pursuant to sections 46502
3111.01 to 3111.18 of the Revised Code.46503

       (E) As used in this section, "public assistance" means all of 46504
the following:46505

       (1) Medicaid under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code;46506

       (2) Ohio works first under Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code;46507

       (3) Disability financial assistance under Chapter 5115. of 46508
the Revised Code.46509

       Sec. 3111.72.  The contract between the department of job and 46510
family services and a local hospital shall require all of the 46511
following:46512

       (A) That the hospital provide a staff person to meet with 46513
each unmarried mother who gave birth in or en route to the 46514
hospital within twenty-four hours of the birth or before the 46515
mother is released from the hospital;46516

       (B) That the staff person attempt to meet with the father of 46517
the unmarried mother's child if possible;46518

       (C) That the staff person explain to the unmarried mother and 46519
the father, if he is present, the benefit to the child of 46520
establishing a parent and child relationship between the father 46521
and the child and the various proper procedures for establishing a 46522
parent and child relationship;46523

       (D) That the staff person present to the unmarried mother 46524
and, if possible, the father, the pamphlet or statement regarding 46525
the rights and responsibilities of a natural parent that is 46526
prepared and provided by the department of job and family services 46527
pursuant to section 3111.32 of the Revised Code;46528

       (E) That the staff person provide the mother and, if 46529
possible, the father, all forms and statements necessary to 46530
voluntarily establish a parent and child relationship, including, 46531
but not limited to, the acknowledgment of paternity affidavit 46532
prepared by the department of job and family services pursuant to 46533
section 3111.31 of the Revised Code;46534

       (F) That the staff person, at the request of both the mother 46535
and father, help the mother and father complete any form or 46536
statement necessary to establish a parent and child relationship;46537

       (G) That the hospital provide a notary public to notarize an 46538
acknowledgment of paternity affidavit signed by the mother and 46539
father;46540

       (H) That the staff person present to an unmarried mother who 46541
is not participating in the Ohio works first program established 46542
under Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code or receiving medical 46543
assistance under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Codemedicaid an 46544
application for Title IV-D services;46545

       (I) That the staff person forward any completed 46546
acknowledgment of paternity, no later than ten days after it is 46547
completed, to the office of child support in the department of job 46548
and family services;46549

       (J) That the department of job and family services pay the 46550
hospital twenty dollars for every correctly signed and notarized 46551
acknowledgment of paternity affidavit from the hospital.46552

       Sec. 3119.29. (A) As used in this section and sections 46553
3119.30 to 3119.56 of the Revised Code:46554

       (1) "Cash medical support" means an amount ordered to be paid 46555
in a child support order toward the cost of health insurance 46556
provided by a public entity, another parent, or person with whom 46557
the child resides, through employment or otherwise, or for other 46558
medical cost not covered by insurance.46559

       (2) "Federal poverty line" has the same meaning as defined in 46560
section 5104.01 of the Revised Code.46561

       (3) "Health care" means such medical support that includes 46562
coverage under a health insurance plan, payment of costs of 46563
premiums, co-paymentscopayments, and deductibles, or payment for 46564
medical expenses incurred on behalf of the child.46565

       (4) "Health insurance coverage" means accessible private 46566
health insurance that provides primary care services within thirty 46567
miles from the residence of the child subject to the child support 46568
order.46569

       (5) "Health plan administrator" means any entity authorized 46570
under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code to engage in the business of 46571
insurance in this state, any health insuring corporation, any 46572
legal entity that is self-insured and provides benefits to its 46573
employees or members, and the administrator of any such entity or 46574
corporation.46575

       (6) "National medical support notice" means a form required 46576
by the "Child Support Performance and Incentive Act of 1998," P.L. 46577
105-200, 112 Stat. 659, 42 U.S.C. 666(a)(19), as amended, and 46578
jointly developed and promulgated by the secretary of health and 46579
human services and the secretary of labor in federal regulations 46580
adopted under that act as modified by the department of job and 46581
family services under section 3119.291 of the Revised Code.46582

       (7) "Person required to provide health insurance coverage" 46583
means the obligor, obligee, or both, required by the court under a 46584
court child support order or by the child support enforcement 46585
agency under an administrative child support order to provide 46586
health insurance coverage pursuant to section 3119.30 of the 46587
Revised Code.46588

       (8) Subject to division (B) of this section, "reasonable 46589
cost" means the contributing cost of private family health 46590
insurance to the person responsible for the health care of the 46591
children subject to the child support order that does not exceed 46592
an amount equal to five per cent of the annual gross income of 46593
that person.46594

       (9) "Title XIX" has the same meaning as defined in section 46595
5111.205165.01 of the Revised Code.46596

       (B) If the United States secretary of health and human 46597
services issues a regulation defining "reasonable cost" or a 46598
similar term or phrase relevant to the provisions in child support 46599
orders relating to the provision of health care for children 46600
subject to the orders, and if that definition is substantively 46601
different from the meaning of "reasonable cost" as defined in 46602
division (A) of this section, "reasonable cost" as used in this 46603
section shall have the meaning as defined by the United States 46604
secretary of health and human services.46605

       Sec. 3119.54.  A party to a child support order issued in 46606
accordance with section 3119.30 of the Revised Code shall notify 46607
any physician, hospital, or other provider of medical services 46608
that provides medical services to the child who is the subject of 46609
the child support order of the number of any health insurance or 46610
health care policy, contract, or plan that covers the child if the 46611
child is eligible for medical assistance under Chapter 5111. of 46612
the Revised Codemedicaid. The party shall include in the notice 46613
the name and address of the insurer. Any physician, hospital, or 46614
other provider of medical services for which medical assistance is 46615
available under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Codecovered by the 46616
medicaid program who is notified under this section of the 46617
existence of a health insurance or health care policy, contract, 46618
or plan with coverage for children who are eligible for medical 46619
assistancemedicaid shall first bill the insurer for any services 46620
provided for those children. If the insurer fails to pay all or 46621
any part of a claim filed under this section and the services for 46622
which the claim is filed are covered by Chapter 5111. of the 46623
Revised Codethe medicaid program, the physician, hospital, or 46624
other medical services provider shall bill the remaining unpaid 46625
costs of the services in accordance with Chapter 5111. of the 46626
Revised Codeto the medicaid program.46627

       Sec. 3121.441. (A) Notwithstanding the provisions of this 46628
chapter, Chapters 3119., 3123., and 3125., and sections 3770.071 46629
and 5107.20 of the Revised Code providing for the office of child 46630
support in the department of job and family services to collect, 46631
withhold, or deduct spousal support, when a court pursuant to 46632
section 3105.18 or 3105.65 of the Revised Code issues or modifies 46633
an order requiring an obligor to pay spousal support or grants or 46634
modifies a decree of dissolution of marriage incorporating a 46635
separation agreement that provides for spousal support, or at any 46636
time after the issuance, granting, or modification of an order or 46637
decree of that type, the court may permit the obligor to make the 46638
spousal support payments directly to the obligee instead of to the 46639
office if the obligee and the obligor have no minor children born 46640
as a result of their marriage and the obligee has not assigned the 46641
spousal support amounts to the department pursuant to section46642
5101.59 or 5107.20 or 5160.38 of the Revised Code.46643

       (B) A court that permits an obligor to make spousal support 46644
payments directly to the obligee pursuant to division (A) of this 46645
section shall order the obligor to make the spousal support 46646
payments as a check, as a money order, or in any other form that 46647
establishes a clear record of payment.46648

       (C) If a court permits an obligor to make spousal support 46649
payments directly to an obligee pursuant to division (A) of this 46650
section and the obligor is in default in making any spousal 46651
support payment to the obligee, the court, upon motion of the 46652
obligee or on its own motion, may rescind the permission granted 46653
under that division. After the rescission, the court shall 46654
determine the amount of arrearages in the spousal support payments 46655
and order the obligor to make to the office of child support in 46656
the department of job and family services any spousal support 46657
payments that are in arrears and any future spousal support 46658
payments. Upon the issuance of the order of the court under this 46659
division, the provisions of this chapter, Chapters 3119., 3123., 46660
and 3125., and sections 3770.071 and 5107.20 of the Revised Code 46661
apply with respect to the collection, withholding, or deduction of 46662
the obligor's spousal support payments that are the subject of 46663
that order of the court.46664

       Sec. 3121.89.  As used in sections 3121.891 to 3121.8911 of 46665
the Revised Code:46666

       (A) "Contractor" means an individual who provides services to 46667
an employer as an independent contractor for compensation that is 46668
reported as income other than wages and who is an individual, the 46669
sole shareholder of a corporation, or the sole member of a limited 46670
liability company. "Contractor" does not include any of the 46671
following:46672

       (1) An individual performing intelligence or 46673
counterintelligence functions for a state agency if the head of 46674
the agency has determined that reporting pursuant to this section 46675
could endanger the safety of the individual or compromise an 46676
ongoing investigation or intelligence mission;46677

       (2) A professionally licensed person who is providing 46678
services to the employer under that license;46679

       (3) An individual who will receive for the services provided 46680
under the contract compensation of less than two thousand five 46681
hundred dollars per year or a greater amount that the director of 46682
job and family services establishes by rule adopted under section 46683
3121.896 of the Revised Code.46684

       (B) "Employee" means an individual who is employed to provide 46685
services to an employer for compensation that is reported as 46686
income from wages. "Employee" does not include an individual 46687
performing intelligence or counterintelligence functions for a 46688
state agency, if the head of the agency has determined that 46689
reporting pursuant to this section could endanger the safety of 46690
the employee or compromise an ongoing investigation or 46691
intelligence mission.46692

       (C) "Employer" means any person or governmental entity other 46693
than the federal government for which an individual performs any 46694
service, of whatever nature, as the employee or contractor of such 46695
person, except that:46696

       (1) If the person for whom the individual performs services 46697
does not have control of the payment of compensation for the 46698
services, "employer" means the person having control of the 46699
payment of the compensation.46700

       (2) In the case of a person paying compensation on behalf of 46701
a nonresident alien individual, foreign partnership, or foreign 46702
corporation not engaged in trade or business within the United 46703
States, "employer" means the person paying the compensation.46704

       (3) In the case of compensation paid to a contractor, 46705
"employer" does not include any person or entity that lacks a 46706
federal employer identification number.46707

       (D) "Newly hired employee" means either of the following:46708

       (1) An employee who has not previously been employed by the 46709
employer;46710

       (2) An employee who was previously employed by an employer 46711
but has been separated from that prior employment for at least 46712
sixty consecutive days.46713

       (E) "Professionally licensed person" has the same meaning as 46714
in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.46715

       Sec. 3121.891.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) or (C) 46716
of this section, every employer shall make a new hire report to 46717
the department of job and family services regarding the hiring, 46718
rehiring, or return to work as ana newly hired employee or a46719
contractor of a person who resides, works, or will be assigned to 46720
work in this state to whom the employer anticipates paying 46721
compensation.46722

       (B) An employer with employees or contractors in two or more 46723
states that transmits new hire reports magnetically or 46724
electronically may make the new hire report to another state if 46725
the employer does both of the following:46726

       (1) Notifies the Ohio department of job and family services 46727
and the United States secretary of health and human services in 46728
writing that the employer has designated another state as the 46729
state to which the employer will transmit the report;46730

       (2) Transmits the report to that state in compliance with 46731
federal law.46732

       (C) The department may by rule exempt employers from making 46733
new hire reports on any classification of contractors if the 46734
department determines that exempting the employer will assist the 46735
administration of the new hire reporting requirement.46736

       Sec. 3121.892. (A) An employer shall include all of the 46737
following in each new hire report:46738

        (1) For each employee, the employee's name, address, date of 46739
birth, social security number, and date of hire, rehire, or return 46740
to work;46741

        (2) For each contractor, the contractor's name, address, 46742
social security or tax identification number, the date payments 46743
begin, and the length of time the contractor will be performing 46744
services for the employer;46745

       (3) The employer's name, address, and identification number.46746

       (B) The department of job and family services may by rule 46747
require that additional information, specified in the rule, be 46748
included in each new hire report.46749

       Sec. 3121.893.  An employer shall make a new hire report for 46750
each newly hired employee or contractor in a manner prescribed by 46751
the department of job and family services. The department may 46752
require that the report include or consist of the submission of a 46753
copy of the United States internal revenue service form W-4 46754
(employee's withholding allowance certificate) for the employee, a 46755
form provided by the department, or any other hiring document or 46756
data storage device or mechanism the department authorizes. An 46757
employer may make the new hire report by mail, fax, magnetic or 46758
electronic means, or other means the department authorizes. If an 46759
employer makes a new hire report by mail, the date of making the 46760
report is the postmark date if the report is mailed in the United 46761
States with first class postage and is addressed as the department 46762
authorizes. An employer shall make the new hire report not later 46763
than twenty days after the date on which the employer hires or 46764
rehires an employee or the employee returns to work or the date on 46765
which the employer engages or re-engages the contractor or the 46766
contractor resumes providing services under the contract.46767

       Sec. 3121.898.  The department of job and family services 46768
shall use the new hire reports it receives for any of the 46769
following purposes set forth in 42 U.S.C. 653a, as amended, 46770
including:46771

       (A) To locate individuals for the purposes of establishing 46772
paternity and for establishing, modifying, and enforcing child 46773
support orders.46774

       (B) As used in this division, "state agency" means every 46775
department, bureau, board, commission, office, or other organized 46776
body established by the constitution or laws of this state for the 46777
exercise of state government; every entity of county government 46778
that is subject to the rules of a state agency; and every 46779
contractual agent of a state agency.46780

       To make available to any state agency responsible for 46781
administering any of the following programs for purposes of 46782
verifying program eligibility:46783

       (1) Any Title IV-A program as defined in section 5101.80 of 46784
the Revised Code;46785

       (2) The medicaid program authorized by Chapter 5111. of the 46786
Revised Code;46787

       (3) The unemployment compensation program authorized by 46788
Chapter 4141. of the Revised Code;46789

       (4) The supplemental nutrition assistance program authorized 46790
by section 5101.54 of the Revised Code;46791

       (5) Any other program authorized in 42 U.S.C. 1320b-7(b), as 46792
amended.46793

       (C) The administration of the employment security program 46794
under the director of job and family services.46795

       Sec. 3123.958.  The office of child support shallmay publish 46796
and distribute the firsta set of posters throughout the state not 46797
later than October 1, 1992. The office shall publish and 46798
distribute subsequent sets of posters not less than twice46799
annually.46800

       Sec. 3125.18. A child support enforcement agency shall 46801
administer a Title IV-A program identified under division 46802
(A)(4)(c) or (f)(g) of section 5101.80 of the Revised Code that 46803
the department of job and family services provides for the agency 46804
to administer under the department's supervision pursuant to 46805
section 5101.801 of the Revised Code.46806

       Sec. 3125.36.  (A) Subject to division (B) of this section, 46807
all support orders that are administered by a child support 46808
enforcement agency designated under section 307.981 of the Revised 46809
Code or former section 2301.35 of the Revised Code and are 46810
eligible for Title IV-D services shall be Title IV-D cases under 46811
Title IV-D of the "Social Security Act." Subject to division (B) 46812
of this section, all obligees of support orders administered by 46813
the agency shall be considered to have filed a signed application 46814
for Title IV-D services.46815

       (B) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, a 46816
court that issues or modifies a support order shall require the 46817
obligee under the order to sign, at the time of the issuance or 46818
modification of the order, an application for Title IV-D services 46819
and to file, as soon as possible, the signed application with the 46820
child support enforcement agency that will administer the order. 46821
The application shall be on a form prescribed by the department of 46822
job and family services. Except as provided in division (D) of 46823
this section, a support order that is administered by a child 46824
support enforcement agency, and that is eligible for Title IV-D 46825
services shall be a Title IV-D case under Title IV-D of the 46826
"Social Security Act" only upon the filing of the signed 46827
application for Title IV-D services.46828

       (C) A child support enforcement agency shall make available 46829
an application for Title IV-D services to all persons requesting a 46830
child support enforcement agency's assistance in an action under 46831
sections 3111.01 to 3111.18 of the Revised Code or in an 46832
administrative proceeding brought to establish a parent and child 46833
relationship, to establish or modify an administrative support 46834
order, or to establish or modify an order to provide health 46835
insurance coverage for the children subject to a support order.46836

       (D) An obligee under a support order who has assigned the 46837
right to the support pursuant to section 5101.59 or 5107.20 or 46838
5160.38 of the Revised Code shall not be required to sign an 46839
application for Title IV-D services. The support order shall be 46840
considered a Title IV-D case.46841

       Sec. 3301.07.  The state board of education shall exercise 46842
under the acts of the general assembly general supervision of the 46843
system of public education in the state. In addition to the powers 46844
otherwise imposed on the state board under the provisions of law, 46845
the board shall have the powers described in this section.46846

       (A) The state board shall exercise policy forming, planning, 46847
and evaluative functions for the public schools of the state 46848
except as otherwise provided by law.46849

       (B)(1) The state board shall exercise leadership in the 46850
improvement of public education in this state, and administer the 46851
educational policies of this state relating to public schools, and 46852
relating to instruction and instructional material, building and 46853
equipment, transportation of pupils, administrative 46854
responsibilities of school officials and personnel, and finance 46855
and organization of school districts, educational service centers, 46856
and territory. Consultative and advisory services in such matters 46857
shall be provided by the board to school districts and educational 46858
service centers of this state. 46859

       (2) The state board also shall develop a standard of 46860
financial reporting which shall be used by each school district 46861
board of education and educational service centereach governing 46862
board of an educational service center, each governing authority 46863
of a community school established under Chapter 3314., each 46864
governing body of a STEM school established under Chapter 3328., 46865
and each board of trustees of a college-preparatory boarding 46866
school established under Chapter 3328. of the Revised Code to make 46867
its financial information and annual budgets for each school 46868
building under its control available to the public in a format 46869
understandable by the average citizen. The format shall show, 46870
among other things,both at the district and educational service 46871
center level orand at the school building level, as determined 46872
appropriate by the department of education, revenue by source; 46873
expenditures for salaries, wages, and benefits of employees, 46874
showing such amounts separately for classroom teachers, other 46875
employees required to hold licenses issued pursuant to sections 46876
3319.22 to 3319.31 of the Revised Code, and all other employees; 46877
expenditures other than for personnel, by category, including 46878
utilities, textbooks and other educational materials, equipment, 46879
permanent improvements, pupil transportation, extracurricular 46880
athletics, and other extracurricular activities; and per pupil 46881
expenditures. The format shall also include information on total 46882
revenue and expenditures, per pupil revenue, and expenditures for 46883
both classroom and nonclassroom purposes, as defined by the 46884
standards adopted under section 3302.20 of the Revised Code in the 46885
aggregate and for each subgroup of students, as defined by section 46886
3317.40 of the Revised Code, that receives services provided for 46887
by state or federal funding.46888

       (3) Each school district board, governing authority, 46889
governing body, or board of trustees, or its respective designee, 46890
shall annually report, to the department of education, all 46891
financial information required by the standards for financial 46892
reporting, as prescribed by division (B)(2) of this section and 46893
adopted by the state board. The department shall post these 46894
reports in a prominent location on its web site and shall notify 46895
each school when reports are made available.46896

       (C) The state board shall administer and supervise the 46897
allocation and distribution of all state and federal funds for 46898
public school education under the provisions of law, and may 46899
prescribe such systems of accounting as are necessary and proper 46900
to this function. It may require county auditors and treasurers, 46901
boards of education, educational service center governing boards, 46902
treasurers of such boards, teachers, and other school officers and 46903
employees, or other public officers or employees, to file with it 46904
such reports as it may prescribe relating to such funds, or to the 46905
management and condition of such funds.46906

       (D)(1) Wherever in Titles IX, XXIII, XXIX, XXXIII, XXXVII, 46907
XLVII, and LI of the Revised Code a reference is made to standards 46908
prescribed under this section or division (D) of this section, 46909
that reference shall be construed to refer to the standards 46910
prescribed under division (D)(2) of this section, unless the 46911
context specifically indicates a different meaning or intent.46912

        (2) The state board shall formulate and prescribe minimum 46913
standards to be applied to all elementary and secondary schools in 46914
this state for the purpose of requiringproviding children access 46915
to a general education of high quality according to the learning 46916
needs of each individual, including students with disabilities, 46917
economically disadvantaged students, limited English proficient 46918
students, and students identified as gifted. Such standards shall 46919
provide adequately for: the licensing of teachers, administrators, 46920
and other professional personnel and their assignment according to 46921
training and qualifications; efficient and effective instructional 46922
materials and equipment, including library facilities; the proper 46923
organization, administration, and supervision of each school, 46924
including regulations for preparing all necessary records and 46925
reports and the preparation of a statement of policies and 46926
objectives for each school; the provision of safe buildings, 46927
grounds, health and sanitary facilities and services; admission of 46928
pupils, and such requirements for their promotion from grade to 46929
grade as will assure that they are capable and prepared for the 46930
level of study to which they are certified; requirements for 46931
graduation; and such other factors as the board finds necessary.46932

       The state board shall base any standards governing the 46933
promotion of students or requirements for graduation on the 46934
ability of students, at any grade level, to earn credits or 46935
advance upon demonstration of mastery of knowledge and skills 46936
through competency-based learning models. Credits of grade level 46937
advancement shall not require a minimum number of days or hours in 46938
a classroom.46939

       The state board shall base any standards governing the 46940
assignment of staff on ensuring each school has a sufficient 46941
number of teachers to ensure a student has an appropriate level of 46942
interaction to meet each student's personal learning goals.46943

       In the formulation and administration of such standards for 46944
nonpublic schools the board shall also consider the particular 46945
needs, methods and objectives of those schools, provided they do 46946
not conflict with the provision of a general education of a high 46947
quality and provided that regular procedures shall be followed for 46948
promotion from grade to grade of pupils who have met the 46949
educational requirements prescribed.46950

        In the formulation and administration of such standards as 46951
they relate to instructional materials and equipment in public 46952
schools, including library materials, the board shall require that 46953
the material and equipment be aligned with and promote skills 46954
expected under the statewide academic standards adopted under 46955
section 3301.079 of the Revised Code.46956

        (3) In addition to the minimum standards required by division 46957
(D)(2) of this section, the state board may formulate and 46958
prescribe the following additional minimum operating standards for 46959
school districts:46960

       (a) Standards for the effective and efficient organization, 46961
administration, and supervision of each school district so that it 46962
becomes a thinking and learning organization according to 46963
principles of systems design and collaborative professional 46964
learning communities research as defined by the superintendent of 46965
public instruction, including a focus on the personalized and 46966
individualized needs of each student; a shared responsibility 46967
among school boards, administrators, faculty, and staff to develop 46968
a common vision, mission, and set of guiding principles; a shared 46969
responsibility among school boards, administrators, faculty, and 46970
staff to engage in a process of collective inquiry, action 46971
orientation, and experimentation to ensure the academic success of 46972
all students; commitment to teaching and learning strategies that 46973
utilize technological tools and emphasize inter-disciplinary, 46974
real-world, project-based, and technology-oriented learning 46975
experiences to meet the individual needs of every student;with a46976
commitment to high expectations for every student based on the 46977
learning needs of each individual, including students with 46978
disabilities, economically disadvantaged students, limited English 46979
proficient students, and students identified as gifted, and 46980
commitment to closing the achievement gap without suppressing the 46981
achievement levels of higher achieving students so that all 46982
students achieve core knowledge and skills in accordance with the 46983
statewide academic standards adopted under section 3301.079 of the 46984
Revised Code; commitment to the use of assessments to diagnose 46985
the needs of each student; effective connections and relationships 46986
with families and others that support student success; and 46987
commitment to the use of positive behavior intervention supports 46988
throughout a district to ensure a safe and secure learning 46989
environment for all students;46990

       (b) Standards for the establishment of business advisory 46991
councils under section 3313.82 of the Revised Code;46992

        (c) Standards for school district buildings that may require:46993

       (i) Thethe effective and efficient organization, 46994
administration, and supervision of each school district building 46995
so that it becomes a thinking and learning organization according 46996
to principles of systems design and collaborative professional 46997
learning communities research as defined by the state 46998
superintendent, including a focus on the personalized and 46999
individualized needs of each student; a shared responsibility 47000
among building administrators, faculty, and staff to develop a 47001
common vision, mission, and set of guiding principles; a shared 47002
responsibility among building administrators, faculty, and staff 47003
to engage in a process of collective inquiry, action orientation, 47004
and experimentation to ensure the academic success of all 47005
students; commitment to job embedded professional development and 47006
professional mentoring and coaching; established periods of time 47007
for teachers to pursue planning time for the development of lesson 47008
plans, professional development, and shared learning; commitment 47009
to effective management strategies that allow administrators 47010
reasonable access to classrooms for observation and professional 47011
development experiences; commitment to teaching and learning 47012
strategies that utilize technological tools and emphasize 47013
inter-disciplinary, real-world, project-based, and 47014
technology-oriented learning experiences to meet the individual 47015
needs of every student;with a commitment to high expectations for 47016
every student based on the learning needs of each individual, 47017
including students with disabilities, economically disadvantaged 47018
students, limited English proficient students, and students 47019
identified as gifted, and commitment to closing the achievement 47020
gap without suppressing the achievement levels of higher achieving 47021
students so that all students achieve core knowledge and skills in 47022
accordance with the statewide academic standards adopted under 47023
section 3301.079 of the Revised Code; commitment to the use of 47024
assessments to diagnose the needs of each student; effective 47025
connections and relationships with families and others that 47026
support student success; commitment to the use of positive 47027
behavior intervention supports throughout the building to ensure a 47028
safe and secure learning environment for all students;47029

       (ii) A school building leadership team to coordinate positive 47030
behavior intervention supports, learning environments, thinking 47031
and learning systems, collaborative planning, planning time, 47032
student academic interventions, student extended learning 47033
opportunities, and other activities identified by the team and 47034
approved by the district board of education. The team shall 47035
include the building principal, representatives from each 47036
collective bargaining unit, a classroom teacher, parents, business 47037
representatives, and others that support student success. 47038

        (E) The state board may require as part of the health 47039
curriculum information developed under section 2108.34 of the 47040
Revised Code promoting the donation of anatomical gifts pursuant 47041
to Chapter 2108. of the Revised Code and may provide the 47042
information to high schools, educational service centers, and 47043
joint vocational school district boards of education;47044

       (F) The state board shall prepare and submit annually to the 47045
governor and the general assembly a report on the status, needs, 47046
and major problems of the public schools of the state, with 47047
recommendations for necessary legislative action and a ten-year 47048
projection of the state's public and nonpublic school enrollment, 47049
by year and by grade level.47050

       (G) The state board shall prepare and submit to the director 47051
of budget and management the biennial budgetary requests of the 47052
state board of education, for its agencies and for the public 47053
schools of the state.47054

       (H) The state board shall cooperate with federal, state, and 47055
local agencies concerned with the health and welfare of children 47056
and youth of the state.47057

       (I) The state board shall require such reports from school 47058
districts and educational service centers, school officers, and 47059
employees as are necessary and desirable. The superintendents and 47060
treasurers of school districts and educational service centers 47061
shall certify as to the accuracy of all reports required by law or 47062
state board or state department of education rules to be submitted 47063
by the district or educational service center and which contain 47064
information necessary for calculation of state funding. Any 47065
superintendent who knowingly falsifies such report shall be 47066
subject to license revocation pursuant to section 3319.31 of the 47067
Revised Code.47068

       (J) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 47069
state board shall adopt procedures, standards, and guidelines for 47070
the education of children with disabilities pursuant to Chapter 47071
3323. of the Revised Code, including procedures, standards, and 47072
guidelines governing programs and services operated by county 47073
boards of developmental disabilities pursuant to section 3323.09 47074
of the Revised Code.47075

       (K) For the purpose of encouraging the development of special 47076
programs of education for academically gifted children, the state 47077
board shall employ competent persons to analyze and publish data, 47078
promote research, advise and counsel with boards of education, and 47079
encourage the training of teachers in the special instruction of 47080
gifted children. The board may provide financial assistance out of 47081
any funds appropriated for this purpose to boards of education and 47082
educational service center governing boards for developing and 47083
conducting programs of education for academically gifted children.47084

       (L) The state board shall require that all public schools 47085
emphasize and encourage, within existing units of study, the 47086
teaching of energy and resource conservation as recommended to 47087
each district board of education by leading business persons 47088
involved in energy production and conservation, beginning in the 47089
primary grades.47090

       (M) The state board shall formulate and prescribe minimum 47091
standards requiring the use of phonics as a technique in the 47092
teaching of reading in grades kindergarten through three. In 47093
addition, the state board shall provide in-service training 47094
programs for teachers on the use of phonics as a technique in the 47095
teaching of reading in grades kindergarten through three.47096

       (N) The state board may adopt rules necessary for carrying 47097
out any function imposed on it by law, and may provide rules as 47098
are necessary for its government and the government of its 47099
employees, and may delegate to the superintendent of public 47100
instruction the management and administration of any function 47101
imposed on it by law. It may provide for the appointment of board 47102
members to serve on temporary committees established by the board 47103
for such purposes as are necessary. Permanent or standing 47104
committees shall not be created.47105

        (O) Upon application from the board of education of a school 47106
district, the superintendent of public instruction may issue a 47107
waiver exempting the district from compliance with the standards 47108
adopted under divisions (B)(2) and (D) of this section, as they 47109
relate to the operation of a school operated by the district. The 47110
state board shall adopt standards for the approval or disapproval 47111
of waivers under this division. The state superintendent shall 47112
consider every application for a waiver, and shall determine 47113
whether to grant or deny a waiver in accordance with the state 47114
board's standards. For each waiver granted, the state 47115
superintendent shall specify the period of time during which the 47116
waiver is in effect, which shall not exceed five years. A district 47117
board may apply to renew a waiver.47118

       Sec. 3301.0711.  (A) The department of education shall:47119

       (1) Annually furnish to, grade, and score all assessments 47120
required by divisions (A)(1) and (B)(1) of section 3301.0710 of 47121
the Revised Code to be administered by city, local, exempted 47122
village, and joint vocational school districts, except that each 47123
district shall score any assessment administered pursuant to 47124
division (B)(10) of this section. Each assessment so furnished 47125
shall include the data verification code of the student to whom 47126
the assessment will be administered, as assigned pursuant to 47127
division (D)(2) of section 3301.0714 of the Revised Code. In 47128
furnishing the practice versions of Ohio graduation tests 47129
prescribed by division (D) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised 47130
Code, the department shall make the tests available on its web 47131
site for reproduction by districts. In awarding contracts for 47132
grading assessments, the department shall give preference to 47133
Ohio-based entities employing Ohio residents.47134

       (2) Adopt rules for the ethical use of assessments and 47135
prescribing the manner in which the assessments prescribed by 47136
section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code shall be administered to 47137
students.47138

       (B) Except as provided in divisions (C) and (J) of this 47139
section, the board of education of each city, local, and exempted 47140
village school district shall, in accordance with rules adopted 47141
under division (A) of this section:47142

       (1) Administer the English language arts assessments 47143
prescribed under division (A)(1)(a) of section 3301.0710 of the 47144
Revised Code twice annually to all students in the third grade who 47145
have not attained the score designated for that assessment under 47146
division (A)(2)(c) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code.47147

       (2) Administer the mathematics assessment prescribed under 47148
division (A)(1)(a) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code at 47149
least once annually to all students in the third grade.47150

       (3) Administer the assessments prescribed under division 47151
(A)(1)(b) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code at least once 47152
annually to all students in the fourth grade.47153

       (4) Administer the assessments prescribed under division 47154
(A)(1)(c) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code at least once 47155
annually to all students in the fifth grade.47156

       (5) Administer the assessments prescribed under division 47157
(A)(1)(d) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code at least once 47158
annually to all students in the sixth grade.47159

       (6) Administer the assessments prescribed under division 47160
(A)(1)(e) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code at least once 47161
annually to all students in the seventh grade.47162

       (7) Administer the assessments prescribed under division 47163
(A)(1)(f) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code at least once 47164
annually to all students in the eighth grade.47165

       (8) Except as provided in division (B)(9) of this section, 47166
administer any assessment prescribed under division (B)(1) of 47167
section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code as follows:47168

       (a) At least once annually to all tenth grade students and at 47169
least twice annually to all students in eleventh or twelfth grade 47170
who have not yet attained the score on that assessment designated 47171
under that division;47172

       (b) To any person who has successfully completed the 47173
curriculum in any high school or the individualized education 47174
program developed for the person by any high school pursuant to 47175
section 3323.08 of the Revised Code but has not received a high 47176
school diploma and who requests to take such assessment, at any 47177
time such assessment is administered in the district.47178

       (9) In lieu of the board of education of any city, local, or 47179
exempted village school district in which the student is also 47180
enrolled, the board of a joint vocational school district shall 47181
administer any assessment prescribed under division (B)(1) of 47182
section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code at least twice annually to 47183
any student enrolled in the joint vocational school district who 47184
has not yet attained the score on that assessment designated under 47185
that division. A board of a joint vocational school district may 47186
also administer such an assessment to any student described in 47187
division (B)(8)(b) of this section.47188

       (10) If the district has a three-year average graduation rate 47189
of not more than seventy-five per cent, administer each assessment 47190
prescribed by division (D) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised 47191
Code in September to all ninth grade students, beginning in the 47192
school year that starts July 1, 2005.47193

       Except as provided in section 3313.614 of the Revised Code 47194
for administration of an assessment to a person who has fulfilled 47195
the curriculum requirement for a high school diploma but has not 47196
passed one or more of the required assessments, the assessments 47197
prescribed under division (B)(1) of section 3301.0710 of the 47198
Revised Code and the practice assessments prescribed under 47199
division (D) of that section and required to be administered under 47200
divisions (B)(8), (9), and (10) of this section shall not be 47201
administered after the assessment system prescribed by division 47202
(B)(2) of section 3301.0710 and section 3301.0712 of the Revised 47203
Code is implemented under rule of the state board adopted under 47204
division (D)(1) of section 3301.0712 of the Revised Code. 47205

       (11) Administer the assessments prescribed by division (B)(2) 47206
of section 3301.0710 and section 3301.0712 of the Revised Code in 47207
accordance with the timeline and plan for implementation of those 47208
assessments prescribed by rule of the state board adopted under 47209
division (D)(1) of section 3301.0712 of the Revised Code.47210

       (C)(1)(a) In the case of a student receiving special 47211
education services under Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code, the 47212
individualized education program developed for the student under 47213
that chapter shall specify the manner in which the student will 47214
participate in the assessments administered under this section. 47215
The individualized education program may excuse the student from 47216
taking any particular assessment required to be administered under 47217
this section if it instead specifies an alternate assessment 47218
method approved by the department of education as conforming to 47219
requirements of federal law for receipt of federal funds for 47220
disadvantaged pupils. To the extent possible, the individualized 47221
education program shall not excuse the student from taking an 47222
assessment unless no reasonable accommodation can be made to 47223
enable the student to take the assessment.47224

       (b) Any alternate assessment approved by the department for a 47225
student under this division shall produce measurable results 47226
comparable to those produced by the assessment it replaces in 47227
order to allow for the student's results to be included in the 47228
data compiled for a school district or building under section 47229
3302.03 of the Revised Code.47230

       (c) Any student enrolled in a chartered nonpublic school who 47231
has been identified, based on an evaluation conducted in 47232
accordance with section 3323.03 of the Revised Code or section 504 47233
of the "Rehabilitation Act of 1973," 87 Stat. 355, 29 U.S.C.A. 47234
794, as amended, as a child with a disability shall be excused 47235
from taking any particular assessment required to be administered 47236
under this section if a plan developed for the student pursuant to 47237
rules adopted by the state board excuses the student from taking 47238
that assessment. In the case of any student so excused from taking 47239
an assessment, the chartered nonpublic school shall not prohibit 47240
the student from taking the assessment.47241

       (2) A district board may, for medical reasons or other good 47242
cause, excuse a student from taking an assessment administered 47243
under this section on the date scheduled, but that assessment 47244
shall be administered to the excused student not later than nine 47245
days following the scheduled date. The district board shall 47246
annually report the number of students who have not taken one or 47247
more of the assessments required by this section to the state 47248
board of education not later than the thirtieth day of June.47249

       (3) As used in this division, "limited English proficient 47250
student" has the same meaning as in 20 U.S.C. 7801.47251

       No school district board shall excuse any limited English 47252
proficient student from taking any particular assessment required 47253
to be administered under this section, except that any limited 47254
English proficient student who has been enrolled in United States 47255
schools for less than one full school year shall not be required 47256
to take any reading, writing, or English language arts assessment. 47257
However, no board shall prohibit a limited English proficient 47258
student who is not required to take an assessment under this 47259
division from taking the assessment. A board may permit any 47260
limited English proficient student to take an assessment required 47261
to be administered under this section with appropriate 47262
accommodations, as determined by the department. For each limited 47263
English proficient student, each school district shall annually 47264
assess that student's progress in learning English, in accordance 47265
with procedures approved by the department.47266

       The governing authority of a chartered nonpublic school may 47267
excuse a limited English proficient student from taking any 47268
assessment administered under this section. However, no governing 47269
authority shall prohibit a limited English proficient student from 47270
taking the assessment.47271

       (D)(1) In the school year next succeeding the school year in 47272
which the assessments prescribed by division (A)(1) or (B)(1) of 47273
section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code or former division (A)(1), 47274
(A)(2), or (B) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code as it 47275
existed prior to September 11, 2001, are administered to any 47276
student, the board of education of any school district in which 47277
the student is enrolled in that year shall provide to the student 47278
intervention services commensurate with the student's performance, 47279
including any intensive intervention required under section 47280
3313.608 of the Revised Code, in any skill in which the student 47281
failed to demonstrate at least a score at the proficient level on 47282
the assessment.47283

       (2) Following any administration of the assessments 47284
prescribed by division (D) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised 47285
Code to ninth grade students, each school district that has a 47286
three-year average graduation rate of not more than seventy-five 47287
per cent shall determine for each high school in the district 47288
whether the school shall be required to provide intervention 47289
services to any students who took the assessments. In determining 47290
which high schools shall provide intervention services based on 47291
the resources available, the district shall consider each school's 47292
graduation rate and scores on the practice assessments. The 47293
district also shall consider the scores received by ninth grade 47294
students on the English language arts and mathematics assessments 47295
prescribed under division (A)(1)(f) of section 3301.0710 of the 47296
Revised Code in the eighth grade in determining which high schools 47297
shall provide intervention services.47298

       Each high school selected to provide intervention services 47299
under this division shall provide intervention services to any 47300
student whose results indicate that the student is failing to make 47301
satisfactory progress toward being able to attain scores at the 47302
proficient level on the Ohio graduation tests. Intervention 47303
services shall be provided in any skill in which a student 47304
demonstrates unsatisfactory progress and shall be commensurate 47305
with the student's performance. Schools shall provide the 47306
intervention services prior to the end of the school year, during 47307
the summer following the ninth grade, in the next succeeding 47308
school year, or at any combination of those times.47309

       (E) Except as provided in section 3313.608 of the Revised 47310
Code and division (M) of this section, no school district board of 47311
education shall utilize any student's failure to attain a 47312
specified score on an assessment administered under this section 47313
as a factor in any decision to deny the student promotion to a 47314
higher grade level. However, a district board may choose not to 47315
promote to the next grade level any student who does not take an 47316
assessment administered under this section or make up an 47317
assessment as provided by division (C)(2) of this section and who 47318
is not exempt from the requirement to take the assessment under 47319
division (C)(3) of this section.47320

       (F) No person shall be charged a fee for taking any 47321
assessment administered under this section.47322

       (G)(1) Each school district board shall designate one 47323
location for the collection of assessments administered in the 47324
spring under division (B)(1) of this section and those 47325
administered under divisions (B)(2) to (7) of this section. Each 47326
district board shall submit the assessments to the entity with 47327
which the department contracts for the scoring of the assessments 47328
as follows:47329

        (a) If the district's total enrollment in grades kindergarten 47330
through twelve during the first full school week of October was 47331
less than two thousand five hundred, not later than the Friday 47332
after all of the assessments have been administered;47333

       (b) If the district's total enrollment in grades kindergarten 47334
through twelve during the first full school week of October was 47335
two thousand five hundred or more, but less than seven thousand, 47336
not later than the Monday after all of the assessments have been 47337
administered;47338

        (c) If the district's total enrollment in grades kindergarten 47339
through twelve during the first full school week of October was 47340
seven thousand or more, not later than the Tuesday after all of 47341
the assessments have been administered.47342

        However, any assessment that a student takes during the 47343
make-up period described in division (C)(2) of this section shall 47344
be submitted not later than the Friday following the day the 47345
student takes the assessment.47346

        (2) The department or an entity with which the department 47347
contracts for the scoring of the assessment shall send to each 47348
school district board a list of the individual scores of all 47349
persons taking an assessment prescribed by division (A)(1) or 47350
(B)(1) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code within sixty days 47351
after its administration, but in no case shall the scores be 47352
returned later than the fifteenth day of June following the 47353
administration. For assessments administered under this section by 47354
a joint vocational school district, the department or entity shall 47355
also send to each city, local, or exempted village school district 47356
a list of the individual scores of any students of such city, 47357
local, or exempted village school district who are attending 47358
school in the joint vocational school district.47359

       (H) Individual scores on any assessments administered under 47360
this section shall be released by a district board only in 47361
accordance with section 3319.321 of the Revised Code and the rules 47362
adopted under division (A) of this section. No district board or 47363
its employees shall utilize individual or aggregate results in any 47364
manner that conflicts with rules for the ethical use of 47365
assessments adopted pursuant to division (A) of this section.47366

       (I) Except as provided in division (G) of this section, the 47367
department or an entity with which the department contracts for 47368
the scoring of the assessment shall not release any individual 47369
scores on any assessment administered under this section. The 47370
state board of education shall adopt rules to ensure the 47371
protection of student confidentiality at all times. The rules may 47372
require the use of the data verification codes assigned to 47373
students pursuant to division (D)(2) of section 3301.0714 of the 47374
Revised Code to protect the confidentiality of student scores.47375

       (J) Notwithstanding division (D) of section 3311.52 of the 47376
Revised Code, this section does not apply to the board of 47377
education of any cooperative education school district except as 47378
provided under rules adopted pursuant to this division.47379

       (1) In accordance with rules that the state board of 47380
education shall adopt, the board of education of any city, 47381
exempted village, or local school district with territory in a 47382
cooperative education school district established pursuant to 47383
divisions (A) to (C) of section 3311.52 of the Revised Code may 47384
enter into an agreement with the board of education of the 47385
cooperative education school district for administering any 47386
assessment prescribed under this section to students of the city, 47387
exempted village, or local school district who are attending 47388
school in the cooperative education school district.47389

       (2) In accordance with rules that the state board of 47390
education shall adopt, the board of education of any city, 47391
exempted village, or local school district with territory in a 47392
cooperative education school district established pursuant to 47393
section 3311.521 of the Revised Code shall enter into an agreement 47394
with the cooperative district that provides for the administration 47395
of any assessment prescribed under this section to both of the 47396
following:47397

       (a) Students who are attending school in the cooperative 47398
district and who, if the cooperative district were not 47399
established, would be entitled to attend school in the city, 47400
local, or exempted village school district pursuant to section 47401
3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code;47402

       (b) Persons described in division (B)(8)(b) of this section.47403

       Any assessment of students pursuant to such an agreement 47404
shall be in lieu of any assessment of such students or persons 47405
pursuant to this section.47406

       (K)(1) As a condition of compliance with section 3313.612 of 47407
the Revised Code, each chartered nonpublic school that educates47408
(a) Each chartered nonpublic school for which at least thirty-five 47409
per cent of its total enrollment is made up of students who are 47410
participating in state scholarship programs shall administer the 47411
assessments prescribed by section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code.47412

       (b) If a chartered nonpublic school is not subject to 47413
division (K)(1)(a) of this section and is educating students in 47414
grades nine through twelve, it shall administer the assessments 47415
prescribed by divisions (B)(1) and (2) of section 3301.0710 of the 47416
Revised Code as a condition of compliance with section 3313.612 of 47417
the Revised Code. Any chartered nonpublic school that is not 47418
subject to division (K)(1)(a) of this section may participate in 47419
the assessment program by administering any of the assessments 47420
prescribed by division (A) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised 47421
Code. The chief administrator of the school shall specify which 47422
assessments the school will administer. Such specification shall 47423
be made in writing to the superintendent of public instruction 47424
prior to the first day of August of any school year in which 47425
assessments are administered and shall include a pledge that the 47426
nonpublic school will administer the specified assessments in the 47427
same manner as public schools are required to do under this 47428
section and rules adopted by the department.47429

       (2) The department of education shall furnish the assessments 47430
prescribed by section 3301.0710 or 3301.0712 of the Revised Code 47431
to each chartered nonpublic school that is subject to division 47432
(K)(1)(a) of this section or participates under this division 47433
(K)(1)(b) of this section.47434

       (L)(1) The superintendent of the state school for the blind 47435
and the superintendent of the state school for the deaf shall 47436
administer the assessments described by sections 3301.0710 and 47437
3301.0712 of the Revised Code. Each superintendent shall 47438
administer the assessments in the same manner as district boards 47439
are required to do under this section and rules adopted by the 47440
department of education and in conformity with division (C)(1)(a) 47441
of this section.47442

       (2) The department of education shall furnish the assessments 47443
described by sections 3301.0710 and 3301.0712 of the Revised Code 47444
to each superintendent.47445

       (M) Notwithstanding division (E) of this section, a school 47446
district may use a student's failure to attain a score in at least 47447
the proficient range on the mathematics assessment described by 47448
division (A)(1)(a) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code or on 47449
an assessment described by division (A)(1)(b), (c), (d), (e), or 47450
(f) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code as a factor in 47451
retaining that student in the current grade level.47452

       (N)(1) In the manner specified in divisions (N)(3) and (4) of 47453
this section, the assessments required by division (A)(1) of 47454
section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code shall become public records 47455
pursuant to section 149.43 of the Revised Code on the first day of 47456
July following the school year that the assessments were 47457
administered.47458

       (2) The department may field test proposed questions with 47459
samples of students to determine the validity, reliability, or 47460
appropriateness of questions for possible inclusion in a future 47461
year's assessment. The department also may use anchor questions on 47462
assessments to ensure that different versions of the same 47463
assessment are of comparable difficulty.47464

       Field test questions and anchor questions shall not be 47465
considered in computing scores for individual students. Field test 47466
questions and anchor questions may be included as part of the 47467
administration of any assessment required by division (A)(1) or 47468
(B)(1) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code.47469

       (3) Any field test question or anchor question administered 47470
under division (N)(2) of this section shall not be a public 47471
record. Such field test questions and anchor questions shall be 47472
redacted from any assessments which are released as a public 47473
record pursuant to division (N)(1) of this section.47474

       (4) This division applies to the assessments prescribed by 47475
division (A) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code.47476

       (a) The first administration of each assessment, as specified 47477
in former section 3301.0712 of the Revised Code, shall be a public 47478
record.47479

       (b) For subsequent administrations of each assessment prior 47480
to the 2011-2012 school year, not less than forty per cent of the 47481
questions on the assessment that are used to compute a student's 47482
score shall be a public record. The department shall determine 47483
which questions will be needed for reuse on a future assessment 47484
and those questions shall not be public records and shall be 47485
redacted from the assessment prior to its release as a public 47486
record. However, for each redacted question, the department shall 47487
inform each city, local, and exempted village school district of 47488
the statewide academic standard adopted by the state board of 47489
education under section 3301.079 of the Revised Code and the 47490
corresponding benchmark to which the question relates. The 47491
preceding sentence does not apply to field test questions that are 47492
redacted under division (N)(3) of this section.47493

       (c) The administrations of each assessment in the 2011-2012 47494
school year and later shall not be a public record.47495

       (5) Each assessment prescribed by division (B)(1) of section 47496
3301.0710 of the Revised Code shall not be a public record.47497

       (O) As used in this section:47498

        (1) "Three-year average" means the average of the most recent 47499
consecutive three school years of data.47500

        (2) "Dropout" means a student who withdraws from school 47501
before completing course requirements for graduation and who is 47502
not enrolled in an education program approved by the state board 47503
of education or an education program outside the state. "Dropout" 47504
does not include a student who has departed the country.47505

        (3) "Graduation rate" means the ratio of students receiving a 47506
diploma to the number of students who entered ninth grade four 47507
years earlier. Students who transfer into the district are added 47508
to the calculation. Students who transfer out of the district for 47509
reasons other than dropout are subtracted from the calculation. If 47510
a student who was a dropout in any previous year returns to the 47511
same school district, that student shall be entered into the 47512
calculation as if the student had entered ninth grade four years 47513
before the graduation year of the graduating class that the 47514
student joins.47515

       (4) "State scholarship programs" means the educational choice 47516
scholarship pilot program established under sections 3310.01 to 47517
3310.17 of the Revised Code, the autism scholarship program 47518
established under section 3310.41 of the Revised Code, the Jon 47519
Peterson special needs scholarship program established under 47520
sections 3310.51 to 3310.64 of the Revised Code, and the pilot 47521
project scholarship program established under sections 3313.974 to 47522
3313.979 of the Revised Code.47523

       Sec. 3301.0712.  (A) The state board of education, the 47524
superintendent of public instruction, and the chancellor of the 47525
Ohio board of regents shall develop a system of college and work 47526
ready assessments as described in divisions (B)(1) and (2) of this 47527
section to assess whether each student upon graduating from high 47528
school is ready to enter college or the workforce. The system 47529
shall replace the Ohio graduation tests prescribed in division 47530
(B)(1) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code as a measure of 47531
student academic performance and a prerequisite for eligibility 47532
for a high school diploma in the manner prescribed by rule of the 47533
state board adopted under division (D) of this section.47534

       (B) The college and work ready assessment system shall 47535
consist of the following:47536

       (1) A nationally standardized assessment that measures 47537
college and career readiness selected jointly by the state 47538
superintendent and the chancellor. 47539

       (2) A series of end-of-course examinations in the areas of 47540
science, mathematics, English language arts, American history, and 47541
American government selected jointly by the state superintendent 47542
and the chancellor in consultation with faculty in the appropriate 47543
subject areas at institutions of higher education of the 47544
university system of Ohio. For each subject area, the state 47545
superintendent and chancellor shall select multiple assessments 47546
that school districts, public schools, and chartered nonpublic 47547
schools may use as end-of-course examinations. Subject to division 47548
(B)(3)(b) of this section, those assessments shall include 47549
nationally recognized subject area assessments, such as advanced 47550
placement examinations, SAT subject tests, international 47551
baccalaureate examinations, and other assessments of college and 47552
work readiness. 47553

       (3)(a) Not later than July 1, 2013, each school district 47554
board of education shall adopt interim end-of-course examinations 47555
that comply with the requirements of divisions (B)(3)(b)(i) and 47556
(ii) of this section to assess mastery of American history and 47557
American government standards adopted under division (A)(1)(b) of 47558
section 3301.079 of the Revised Code and the topics required under 47559
division (M) of section 3313.603 of the Revised Code. Each high 47560
school of the district shall use the interim examinations until 47561
the state superintendent and chancellor select end-of-course 47562
examinations in American history and American government under 47563
division (B)(2) of this section.47564

       (b) Not later than July 1, 2014, the state superintendent and 47565
the chancellor shall select the end-of-course examinations in 47566
American history and American government. 47567

       (i) The end-of-course examinations in American history and 47568
American government shall require demonstration of mastery of the 47569
American history and American government content for social 47570
studies standards adopted under division (A)(1)(b) of section 47571
3301.079 of the Revised Code and the topics required under 47572
division (M) of section 3313.603 of the Revised Code.47573

       (ii) At least twenty per cent of the end-of-course 47574
examination in American government shall address the topics on 47575
American history and American government described in division (M) 47576
of section 3313.603 of the Revised Code.47577

       (C) The state board shall convene a group of national 47578
experts, state experts, and local practitioners to provide advice, 47579
guidance, and recommendations for the alignment of standards and 47580
model curricula to the assessments and in the design of the 47581
end-of-course examinations prescribed by this section.47582

       (D) Upon completion of the development of the assessment 47583
system, the state board shall adopt rules prescribing all of the 47584
following:47585

       (1) A timeline and plan for implementation of the assessment 47586
system, including a phased implementation if the state board 47587
determines such a phase-in is warranted;47588

       (2) The date after which a person entering ninth grade shall 47589
meet the requirements of the entire assessment system as a 47590
prerequisite for a high school diploma under section 3313.61, 47591
3313.612, or 3325.08 of the Revised Code;47592

       (3) The date after which a person shall meet the requirements 47593
of the entire assessment system as a prerequisite for a diploma of 47594
adult education under section 3313.611 of the Revised Code;47595

       (4) Whether and the extent to which a person may be excused 47596
from an American history end-of-course examination and an American 47597
government end-of-course examination under division (H) of section 47598
3313.61 and division (B)(2)(3) of section 3313.612 of the Revised 47599
Code;47600

       (5) The date after which a person who has fulfilled the 47601
curriculum requirement for a diploma but has not passed one or 47602
more of the required assessments at the time the person fulfilled 47603
the curriculum requirement shall meet the requirements of the 47604
entire assessment system as a prerequisite for a high school 47605
diploma under division (B) of section 3313.614 of the Revised 47606
Code;47607

       (6) The extent to which the assessment system applies to 47608
students enrolled in a dropout recovery and prevention program for 47609
purposes of division (F) of section 3313.603 and section 3314.36 47610
of the Revised Code.47611

       No rule adopted under this division shall be effective 47612
earlier than one year after the date the rule is filed in final 47613
form pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. 47614

       (E) Not later than forty-five days prior to the state board's 47615
adoption of a resolution directing the department of education to 47616
file the rules prescribed by division (D) of this section in final 47617
form under section 119.04 of the Revised Code, the superintendent 47618
of public instruction shall present the assessment system 47619
developed under this section to the respective committees of the 47620
house of representatives and senate that consider education 47621
legislation.47622

       Sec. 3301.0714.  (A) The state board of education shall adopt 47623
rules for a statewide education management information system. The 47624
rules shall require the state board to establish guidelines for 47625
the establishment and maintenance of the system in accordance with 47626
this section and the rules adopted under this section. The 47627
guidelines shall include:47628

       (1) Standards identifying and defining the types of data in 47629
the system in accordance with divisions (B) and (C) of this 47630
section;47631

       (2) Procedures for annually collecting and reporting the data 47632
to the state board in accordance with division (D) of this 47633
section;47634

       (3) Procedures for annually compiling the data in accordance 47635
with division (G) of this section;47636

       (4) Procedures for annually reporting the data to the public 47637
in accordance with division (H) of this section.47638

       (B) The guidelines adopted under this section shall require 47639
the data maintained in the education management information system 47640
to include at least the following:47641

       (1) Student participation and performance data, for each 47642
grade in each school district as a whole and for each grade in 47643
each school building in each school district, that includes:47644

       (a) The numbers of students receiving each category of 47645
instructional service offered by the school district, such as 47646
regular education instruction, vocational education instruction, 47647
specialized instruction programs or enrichment instruction that is 47648
part of the educational curriculum, instruction for gifted 47649
students, instruction for students with disabilities, and remedial 47650
instruction. The guidelines shall require instructional services 47651
under this division to be divided into discrete categories if an 47652
instructional service is limited to a specific subject, a specific 47653
type of student, or both, such as regular instructional services 47654
in mathematics, remedial reading instructional services, 47655
instructional services specifically for students gifted in 47656
mathematics or some other subject area, or instructional services 47657
for students with a specific type of disability. The categories of 47658
instructional services required by the guidelines under this 47659
division shall be the same as the categories of instructional 47660
services used in determining cost units pursuant to division 47661
(C)(3) of this section.47662

       (b) The numbers of students receiving support or 47663
extracurricular services for each of the support services or 47664
extracurricular programs offered by the school district, such as 47665
counseling services, health services, and extracurricular sports 47666
and fine arts programs. The categories of services required by the 47667
guidelines under this division shall be the same as the categories 47668
of services used in determining cost units pursuant to division 47669
(C)(4)(a) of this section.47670

       (c) Average student grades in each subject in grades nine 47671
through twelve;47672

       (d) Academic achievement levels as assessed under sections 47673
3301.0710, 3301.0711, and 3301.0712 of the Revised Code;47674

       (e) The number of students designated as having a disabling 47675
condition pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 3301.0711 of the 47676
Revised Code;47677

       (f) The numbers of students reported to the state board 47678
pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 3301.0711 of the Revised 47679
Code;47680

       (g) Attendance rates and the average daily attendance for the 47681
year. For purposes of this division, a student shall be counted as 47682
present for any field trip that is approved by the school 47683
administration.47684

       (h) Expulsion rates;47685

       (i) Suspension rates;47686

       (j) Dropout rates;47687

       (k) Rates of retention in grade;47688

       (l) For pupils in grades nine through twelve, the average 47689
number of carnegie units, as calculated in accordance with state 47690
board of education rules;47691

       (m) Graduation rates, to be calculated in a manner specified 47692
by the department of education that reflects the rate at which 47693
students who were in the ninth grade three years prior to the 47694
current year complete school and that is consistent with 47695
nationally accepted reporting requirements;47696

       (n) Results of diagnostic assessments administered to 47697
kindergarten students as required under section 3301.0715 of the 47698
Revised Code to permit a comparison of the academic readiness of 47699
kindergarten students. However, no district shall be required to 47700
report to the department the results of any diagnostic assessment 47701
administered to a kindergarten student if the parent of that 47702
student requests the district not to report those results.47703

       (2) Personnel and classroom enrollment data for each school 47704
district, including:47705

       (a) The total numbers of licensed employees and nonlicensed 47706
employees and the numbers of full-time equivalent licensed 47707
employees and nonlicensed employees providing each category of 47708
instructional service, instructional support service, and 47709
administrative support service used pursuant to division (C)(3) of 47710
this section. The guidelines adopted under this section shall 47711
require these categories of data to be maintained for the school 47712
district as a whole and, wherever applicable, for each grade in 47713
the school district as a whole, for each school building as a 47714
whole, and for each grade in each school building.47715

       (b) The total number of employees and the number of full-time 47716
equivalent employees providing each category of service used 47717
pursuant to divisions (C)(4)(a) and (b) of this section, and the 47718
total numbers of licensed employees and nonlicensed employees and 47719
the numbers of full-time equivalent licensed employees and 47720
nonlicensed employees providing each category used pursuant to 47721
division (C)(4)(c) of this section. The guidelines adopted under 47722
this section shall require these categories of data to be 47723
maintained for the school district as a whole and, wherever 47724
applicable, for each grade in the school district as a whole, for 47725
each school building as a whole, and for each grade in each school 47726
building.47727

       (c) The total number of regular classroom teachers teaching 47728
classes of regular education and the average number of pupils 47729
enrolled in each such class, in each of grades kindergarten 47730
through five in the district as a whole and in each school 47731
building in the school district.47732

       (d) The number of lead teachers employed by each school 47733
district and each school building.47734

       (3)(a) Student demographic data for each school district, 47735
including information regarding the gender ratio of the school 47736
district's pupils, the racial make-up of the school district's 47737
pupils, the number of limited English proficient students in the 47738
district, and an appropriate measure of the number of the school 47739
district's pupils who reside in economically disadvantaged 47740
households. The demographic data shall be collected in a manner to 47741
allow correlation with data collected under division (B)(1) of 47742
this section. Categories for data collected pursuant to division 47743
(B)(3) of this section shall conform, where appropriate, to 47744
standard practices of agencies of the federal government.47745

       (b) With respect to each student entering kindergarten, 47746
whether the student previously participated in a public preschool 47747
program, a private preschool program, or a head start program, and 47748
the number of years the student participated in each of these 47749
programs.47750

       (4) Any data required to be collected pursuant to federal 47751
law.47752

       (C) The education management information system shall include 47753
cost accounting data for each district as a whole and for each 47754
school building in each school district. The guidelines adopted 47755
under this section shall require the cost data for each school 47756
district to be maintained in a system of mutually exclusive cost 47757
units and shall require all of the costs of each school district 47758
to be divided among the cost units. The guidelines shall require 47759
the system of mutually exclusive cost units to include at least 47760
the following:47761

       (1) Administrative costs for the school district as a whole. 47762
The guidelines shall require the cost units under this division 47763
(C)(1) to be designed so that each of them may be compiled and 47764
reported in terms of average expenditure per pupil in formula ADM 47765
in the school district, as determined pursuant to section 3317.03 47766
of the Revised Code.47767

       (2) Administrative costs for each school building in the 47768
school district. The guidelines shall require the cost units under 47769
this division (C)(2) to be designed so that each of them may be 47770
compiled and reported in terms of average expenditure per 47771
full-time equivalent pupil receiving instructional or support 47772
services in each building.47773

       (3) Instructional services costs for each category of 47774
instructional service provided directly to students and required 47775
by guidelines adopted pursuant to division (B)(1)(a) of this 47776
section. The guidelines shall require the cost units under 47777
division (C)(3) of this section to be designed so that each of 47778
them may be compiled and reported in terms of average expenditure 47779
per pupil receiving the service in the school district as a whole 47780
and average expenditure per pupil receiving the service in each 47781
building in the school district and in terms of a total cost for 47782
each category of service and, as a breakdown of the total cost, a 47783
cost for each of the following components:47784

       (a) The cost of each instructional services category required 47785
by guidelines adopted under division (B)(1)(a) of this section 47786
that is provided directly to students by a classroom teacher;47787

       (b) The cost of the instructional support services, such as 47788
services provided by a speech-language pathologist, classroom 47789
aide, multimedia aide, or librarian, provided directly to students 47790
in conjunction with each instructional services category;47791

       (c) The cost of the administrative support services related 47792
to each instructional services category, such as the cost of 47793
personnel that develop the curriculum for the instructional 47794
services category and the cost of personnel supervising or 47795
coordinating the delivery of the instructional services category.47796

       (4) Support or extracurricular services costs for each 47797
category of service directly provided to students and required by 47798
guidelines adopted pursuant to division (B)(1)(b) of this section. 47799
The guidelines shall require the cost units under division (C)(4) 47800
of this section to be designed so that each of them may be 47801
compiled and reported in terms of average expenditure per pupil 47802
receiving the service in the school district as a whole and 47803
average expenditure per pupil receiving the service in each 47804
building in the school district and in terms of a total cost for 47805
each category of service and, as a breakdown of the total cost, a 47806
cost for each of the following components:47807

       (a) The cost of each support or extracurricular services 47808
category required by guidelines adopted under division (B)(1)(b) 47809
of this section that is provided directly to students by a 47810
licensed employee, such as services provided by a guidance 47811
counselor or any services provided by a licensed employee under a 47812
supplemental contract;47813

       (b) The cost of each such services category provided directly 47814
to students by a nonlicensed employee, such as janitorial 47815
services, cafeteria services, or services of a sports trainer;47816

       (c) The cost of the administrative services related to each 47817
services category in division (C)(4)(a) or (b) of this section, 47818
such as the cost of any licensed or nonlicensed employees that 47819
develop, supervise, coordinate, or otherwise are involved in 47820
administering or aiding the delivery of each services category.47821

       (D)(1) The guidelines adopted under this section shall 47822
require school districts to collect information about individual 47823
students, staff members, or both in connection with any data 47824
required by division (B) or (C) of this section or other reporting 47825
requirements established in the Revised Code. The guidelines may 47826
also require school districts to report information about 47827
individual staff members in connection with any data required by 47828
division (B) or (C) of this section or other reporting 47829
requirements established in the Revised Code. The guidelines shall 47830
not authorize school districts to request social security numbers 47831
of individual students. The guidelines shall prohibit the 47832
reporting under this section of a student's name, address, and 47833
social security number to the state board of education or the 47834
department of education. The guidelines shall also prohibit the 47835
reporting under this section of any personally identifiable 47836
information about any student, except for the purpose of assigning 47837
the data verification code required by division (D)(2) of this 47838
section, to any other person unless such person is employed by the 47839
school district or the information technology center operated 47840
under section 3301.075 of the Revised Code and is authorized by 47841
the district or technology center to have access to such 47842
information or is employed by an entity with which the department 47843
contracts for the scoring or the development of state assessments. 47844
The guidelines may require school districts to provide the social 47845
security numbers of individual staff members and the county of 47846
residence for a student. Nothing in this section prohibits the 47847
state board of education or department of education from providing 47848
a student's county of residence to the department of taxation to 47849
facilitate the distribution of tax revenue.47850

       (2)(a) The guidelines shall provide for each school district 47851
or community school to assign a data verification code that is 47852
unique on a statewide basis over time to each student whose 47853
initial Ohio enrollment is in that district or school and to 47854
report all required individual student data for that student 47855
utilizing such code. The guidelines shall also provide for 47856
assigning data verification codes to all students enrolled in 47857
districts or community schools on the effective date of the 47858
guidelines established under this section. The assignment of data 47859
verification codes for other entities, as described in division 47860
(D)(2)(c) of this section, the use of those codes, and the 47861
reporting and use of associated individual student data shall be 47862
coordinated by the department in accordance with state and federal 47863
law.47864

        School districts shall report individual student data to the 47865
department through the information technology centers utilizing 47866
the code. The entities described in division (D)(2)(c) of this 47867
section shall report individual student data to the department in 47868
the manner prescribed by the department.47869

        Except as provided in sections 3301.941, 3310.11, 3310.42, 47870
3310.63, 3313.978, and 3317.20 of the Revised Code, at no time 47871
shall the state board or the department have access to information 47872
that would enable any data verification code to be matched to 47873
personally identifiable student data.47874

       (b) Each school district and community school shall ensure 47875
that the data verification code is included in the student's 47876
records reported to any subsequent school district, community 47877
school, or state institution of higher education, as defined in 47878
section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, in which the student 47879
enrolls. Any such subsequent district or school shall utilize the 47880
same identifier in its reporting of data under this section.47881

       (c) The director of any state agency that administers a 47882
publicly funded program providing services to children who are 47883
younger than compulsory school age, as defined in section 3321.01 47884
of the Revised Code, including the directors of health, job and 47885
family services, mental healthmental health and addiction 47886
services, and developmental disabilities, shall request and 47887
receive, pursuant to sections 3301.0723 and 3701.62 of the Revised 47888
Code, a data verification code for a child who is receiving those 47889
services. 47890

       (E) The guidelines adopted under this section may require 47891
school districts to collect and report data, information, or 47892
reports other than that described in divisions (A), (B), and (C) 47893
of this section for the purpose of complying with other reporting 47894
requirements established in the Revised Code. The other data, 47895
information, or reports may be maintained in the education 47896
management information system but are not required to be compiled 47897
as part of the profile formats required under division (G) of this 47898
section or the annual statewide report required under division (H) 47899
of this section.47900

       (F) Beginning with the school year that begins July 1, 1991, 47901
the board of education of each school district shall annually 47902
collect and report to the state board, in accordance with the 47903
guidelines established by the board, the data required pursuant to 47904
this section. A school district may collect and report these data 47905
notwithstanding section 2151.357 or 3319.321 of the Revised Code.47906

       (G) The state board shall, in accordance with the procedures 47907
it adopts, annually compile the data reported by each school 47908
district pursuant to division (D) of this section. The state board 47909
shall design formats for profiling each school district as a whole 47910
and each school building within each district and shall compile 47911
the data in accordance with these formats. These profile formats 47912
shall:47913

       (1) Include all of the data gathered under this section in a 47914
manner that facilitates comparison among school districts and 47915
among school buildings within each school district;47916

       (2) Present the data on academic achievement levels as 47917
assessed by the testing of student achievement maintained pursuant 47918
to division (B)(1)(d) of this section.47919

       (H)(1) The state board shall, in accordance with the 47920
procedures it adopts, annually prepare a statewide report for all 47921
school districts and the general public that includes the profile 47922
of each of the school districts developed pursuant to division (G) 47923
of this section. Copies of the report shall be sent to each school 47924
district.47925

       (2) The state board shall, in accordance with the procedures 47926
it adopts, annually prepare an individual report for each school 47927
district and the general public that includes the profiles of each 47928
of the school buildings in that school district developed pursuant 47929
to division (G) of this section. Copies of the report shall be 47930
sent to the superintendent of the district and to each member of 47931
the district board of education.47932

       (3) Copies of the reports received from the state board under 47933
divisions (H)(1) and (2) of this section shall be made available 47934
to the general public at each school district's offices. Each 47935
district board of education shall make copies of each report 47936
available to any person upon request and payment of a reasonable 47937
fee for the cost of reproducing the report. The board shall 47938
annually publish in a newspaper of general circulation in the 47939
school district, at least twice during the two weeks prior to the 47940
week in which the reports will first be available, a notice 47941
containing the address where the reports are available and the 47942
date on which the reports will be available.47943

       (I) Any data that is collected or maintained pursuant to this 47944
section and that identifies an individual pupil is not a public 47945
record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code.47946

       (J) As used in this section:47947

       (1) "School district" means any city, local, exempted 47948
village, or joint vocational school district and, in accordance 47949
with section 3314.17 of the Revised Code, any community school. As 47950
used in division (L) of this section, "school district" also 47951
includes any educational service center or other educational 47952
entity required to submit data using the system established under 47953
this section.47954

       (2) "Cost" means any expenditure for operating expenses made 47955
by a school district excluding any expenditures for debt 47956
retirement except for payments made to any commercial lending 47957
institution for any loan approved pursuant to section 3313.483 of 47958
the Revised Code.47959

       (K) Any person who removes data from the information system 47960
established under this section for the purpose of releasing it to 47961
any person not entitled under law to have access to such 47962
information is subject to section 2913.42 of the Revised Code 47963
prohibiting tampering with data.47964

       (L)(1) In accordance with division (L)(2) of this section and 47965
the rules adopted under division (L)(10) of this section, the 47966
department of education may sanction any school district that 47967
reports incomplete or inaccurate data, reports data that does not 47968
conform to data requirements and descriptions published by the 47969
department, fails to report data in a timely manner, or otherwise 47970
does not make a good faith effort to report data as required by 47971
this section.47972

       (2) If the department decides to sanction a school district 47973
under this division, the department shall take the following 47974
sequential actions:47975

       (a) Notify the district in writing that the department has 47976
determined that data has not been reported as required under this 47977
section and require the district to review its data submission and 47978
submit corrected data by a deadline established by the department. 47979
The department also may require the district to develop a 47980
corrective action plan, which shall include provisions for the 47981
district to provide mandatory staff training on data reporting 47982
procedures.47983

       (b) Withhold up to ten per cent of the total amount of state 47984
funds due to the district for the current fiscal year and, if not 47985
previously required under division (L)(2)(a) of this section, 47986
require the district to develop a corrective action plan in 47987
accordance with that division;47988

       (c) Withhold an additional amount of up to twenty per cent of 47989
the total amount of state funds due to the district for the 47990
current fiscal year;47991

       (d) Direct department staff or an outside entity to 47992
investigate the district's data reporting practices and make 47993
recommendations for subsequent actions. The recommendations may 47994
include one or more of the following actions:47995

       (i) Arrange for an audit of the district's data reporting 47996
practices by department staff or an outside entity;47997

       (ii) Conduct a site visit and evaluation of the district;47998

       (iii) Withhold an additional amount of up to thirty per cent 47999
of the total amount of state funds due to the district for the 48000
current fiscal year;48001

       (iv) Continue monitoring the district's data reporting;48002

       (v) Assign department staff to supervise the district's data 48003
management system;48004

       (vi) Conduct an investigation to determine whether to suspend 48005
or revoke the license of any district employee in accordance with 48006
division (N) of this section;48007

       (vii) If the district is issued a report card under section 48008
3302.03 of the Revised Code, indicate on the report card that the 48009
district has been sanctioned for failing to report data as 48010
required by this section;48011

       (viii) If the district is issued a report card under section 48012
3302.03 of the Revised Code and incomplete or inaccurate data 48013
submitted by the district likely caused the district to receive a 48014
higher performance rating than it deserved under that section, 48015
issue a revised report card for the district;48016

       (ix) Any other action designed to correct the district's data 48017
reporting problems.48018

       (3) Any time the department takes an action against a school 48019
district under division (L)(2) of this section, the department 48020
shall make a report of the circumstances that prompted the action. 48021
The department shall send a copy of the report to the district 48022
superintendent or chief administrator and maintain a copy of the 48023
report in its files.48024

       (4) If any action taken under division (L)(2) of this section 48025
resolves a school district's data reporting problems to the 48026
department's satisfaction, the department shall not take any 48027
further actions described by that division. If the department 48028
withheld funds from the district under that division, the 48029
department may release those funds to the district, except that if 48030
the department withheld funding under division (L)(2)(c) of this 48031
section, the department shall not release the funds withheld under 48032
division (L)(2)(b) of this section and, if the department withheld 48033
funding under division (L)(2)(d) of this section, the department 48034
shall not release the funds withheld under division (L)(2)(b) or 48035
(c) of this section.48036

       (5) Notwithstanding anything in this section to the contrary, 48037
the department may use its own staff or an outside entity to 48038
conduct an audit of a school district's data reporting practices 48039
any time the department has reason to believe the district has not 48040
made a good faith effort to report data as required by this 48041
section. If any audit conducted by an outside entity under 48042
division (L)(2)(d)(i) or (5) of this section confirms that a 48043
district has not made a good faith effort to report data as 48044
required by this section, the district shall reimburse the 48045
department for the full cost of the audit. The department may 48046
withhold state funds due to the district for this purpose.48047

       (6) Prior to issuing a revised report card for a school 48048
district under division (L)(2)(d)(viii) of this section, the 48049
department may hold a hearing to provide the district with an 48050
opportunity to demonstrate that it made a good faith effort to 48051
report data as required by this section. The hearing shall be 48052
conducted by a referee appointed by the department. Based on the 48053
information provided in the hearing, the referee shall recommend 48054
whether the department should issue a revised report card for the 48055
district. If the referee affirms the department's contention that 48056
the district did not make a good faith effort to report data as 48057
required by this section, the district shall bear the full cost of 48058
conducting the hearing and of issuing any revised report card.48059

       (7) If the department determines that any inaccurate data 48060
reported under this section caused a school district to receive 48061
excess state funds in any fiscal year, the district shall 48062
reimburse the department an amount equal to the excess funds, in 48063
accordance with a payment schedule determined by the department. 48064
The department may withhold state funds due to the district for 48065
this purpose.48066

       (8) Any school district that has funds withheld under 48067
division (L)(2) of this section may appeal the withholding in 48068
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.48069

       (9) In all cases of a disagreement between the department and 48070
a school district regarding the appropriateness of an action taken 48071
under division (L)(2) of this section, the burden of proof shall 48072
be on the district to demonstrate that it made a good faith effort 48073
to report data as required by this section.48074

       (10) The state board of education shall adopt rules under 48075
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement division (L) of this 48076
section.48077

       (M) No information technology center or school district shall 48078
acquire, change, or update its student administration software 48079
package to manage and report data required to be reported to the 48080
department unless it converts to a student software package that 48081
is certified by the department.48082

       (N) The state board of education, in accordance with sections 48083
3319.31 and 3319.311 of the Revised Code, may suspend or revoke a 48084
license as defined under division (A) of section 3319.31 of the 48085
Revised Code that has been issued to any school district employee 48086
found to have willfully reported erroneous, inaccurate, or 48087
incomplete data to the education management information system.48088

       (O) No person shall release or maintain any information about 48089
any student in violation of this section. Whoever violates this 48090
division is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.48091

       (P) The department shall disaggregate the data collected 48092
under division (B)(1)(n) of this section according to the race and 48093
socioeconomic status of the students assessed. No data collected 48094
under that division shall be included on the report cards required 48095
by section 3302.03 of the Revised Code.48096

       (Q) If the department cannot compile any of the information 48097
required by division (H) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code 48098
based upon the data collected under this section, the department 48099
shall develop a plan and a reasonable timeline for the collection 48100
of any data necessary to comply with that division.48101

       Sec. 3301.0715.  (A) Except as otherwise required under 48102
division (B)(1) of section 3313.608 of the Revised Code, the board 48103
of education of each city, local, and exempted village school 48104
district shall administer each applicable diagnostic assessment 48105
developed and provided to the district in accordance with section 48106
3301.079 of the Revised Code to the following:48107

       (1) Any student who transfers into the district or to a 48108
different school within the district if each applicable diagnostic 48109
assessment was not administered by the district or school the 48110
student previously attended in the current school year, within 48111
thirty days after the date of transfer. If the district or school 48112
into which the student transfers cannot determine whether the 48113
student has taken any applicable diagnostic assessment in the 48114
current school year, the district or school may administer the 48115
diagnostic assessment to the student.48116

       (2) Each(a) Prior to July 1, 2014, each kindergarten 48117
student, not earlier than four weeks prior to the first day of 48118
school and not later than the first day of October. For48119

       (b) Beginning July 1, 2014, each kindergarten student, not 48120
earlier than the first day of the school year and not later than 48121
the first day of November, except that the language and reading 48122
skills portion of the assessment shall be administered by the 48123
thirtieth day of September to fulfill the requirements of division 48124
(B) of section 3313.608 of the Revised Code.48125

       For the purpose of division (A)(2) of this section, the 48126
district shall administer the kindergarten readiness assessment 48127
provided by the department of education. In no case shall the 48128
results of the readiness assessment be used to prohibit a student 48129
from enrolling in kindergarten.48130

       (3) Each student enrolled in first, second, or third grade.48131

       (B) Each district board shall administer each diagnostic 48132
assessment when the board deems appropriate, provided the 48133
administration complies with section 3313.608 of the Revised Code. 48134
However, the board shall administer any diagnostic assessment at 48135
least once annually to all students in the appropriate grade 48136
level. A district board may administer any diagnostic assessment 48137
in the fall and spring of a school year to measure the amount of 48138
academic growth attributable to the instruction received by 48139
students during that school year.48140

       (C) Any district that received an excellent or effective 48141
rating for the immediately preceding school year, pursuant to 48142
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to the 48143
effective date of this amendmentMarch 22, 2013, or the equivalent 48144
of such rating as determined by the department of education, may 48145
use different diagnostic assessments from those adopted under 48146
division (D) of section 3301.079 of the Revised Code in order to 48147
satisfy the requirements of division (A)(2) of this section.48148

       (D) Each district board shall utilize and score any 48149
diagnostic assessment administered under division (A) of this 48150
section in accordance with rules established by the department. 48151
After the administration of any diagnostic assessment, each 48152
district shall provide a student's completed diagnostic 48153
assessment, the results of such assessment, and any other 48154
accompanying documents used during the administration of the 48155
assessment to the parent of that student, and shall include all 48156
such documents and information in any plan developed for the 48157
student under division (C) of section 3313.608 of the Revised 48158
Code. Each district shall submit to the department, in the manner 48159
the department prescribes, the results of the diagnostic 48160
assessments administered under this section, regardless of the 48161
type of assessment used under section 3313.608 of the Revised 48162
Code. The department may issue reports with respect to the data 48163
collected.48164

       (E) Each district board shall provide intervention services 48165
to students whose diagnostic assessments show that they are 48166
failing to make satisfactory progress toward attaining the 48167
academic standards for their grade level.48168

       Sec. 3301.0723.  (A) The independent contractor engaged by 48169
the department of education to create and maintain for school 48170
districts and community schools the student data verification 48171
codes required by division (D)(2) of section 3301.0714 of the 48172
Revised Code, upon request of the director of any state agency 48173
that administers a publicly funded program providing services to 48174
children who are younger than compulsory school age, as defined in 48175
section 3321.01 of the Revised Code, including the directors of 48176
health, job and family services, mental healthmental health and 48177
addiction services, and developmental disabilities, shall assign a 48178
data verification code to a child who is receiving such services 48179
and shall provide that code to the director. The contractor also 48180
shall provide that code to the department of education.48181

       (B) The director of a state agency that receives a child's 48182
data verification code under division (A) of this section shall 48183
use that code to submit information for that child to the 48184
department of education in accordance with section 3301.0714 of 48185
the Revised Code.48186

       (C) A public school that receives from the independent 48187
contractor the data verification code for a child assigned under 48188
division (A) of this section shall not request or assign to that 48189
child another data verification code under division (D)(2) of 48190
section 3301.0714 of the Revised Code. That school and any other 48191
public school in which the child subsequently enrolls shall use 48192
the data verification code assigned under division (A) of this 48193
section to report data relative to that student required under 48194
section 3301.0714 of the Revised Code.48195

       Sec. 3301.0725.  A school district may employ certificated 48196
instructional personnel for more days during a school year than 48197
the district normally employs its regular classroom teachershours 48198
outside of the normal school day for the purpose of providing 48199
extended programming, subject to the provisions of section 48200
3319.0812 of the Revised Code. Extended programming, as defined by 48201
rule of the state board of education, shall be based upon learner 48202
needs and, if applicable, business and industry validated 48203
standards and competencies and shall enhance student learning 48204
opportunities. Extended programming shall be subject to the 48205
requirements of sections 3313.6018 and 3313.6019 of the Revised 48206
Code.48207

       No rule of the state board shall require extended programming 48208
employment of certificated instructional personnel as a condition 48209
of eligibility for funding under any other section of the Revised 48210
Code.48211

       Sec. 3301.15.  The state board of education or its authorized 48212
representatives may inspect all institutions under the control of 48213
the department of job and family services, the department of48214
mental healthmental health and addiction services, the department 48215
of developmental disabilities, and the department of 48216
rehabilitation and correction which employ teachers, and may make 48217
a report on the teaching, discipline, and school equipment in 48218
these institutions to the director of job and family services, the 48219
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services, 48220
the director of developmental disabilities, the director of 48221
rehabilitation and correction, and the governor.48222

       Sec. 3301.16.  Pursuant to standards prescribed by the state 48223
board of education as provided in division (D) of section 3301.07 48224
of the Revised Code, the state board shall classify and charter 48225
school districts and individual schools within each district 48226
except that no charter shall be granted to a nonpublic school 48227
unless the school complies with division (K)(1)(a) of section 48228
3301.0711, if applicable, and section 3313.612 of the Revised 48229
Code. 48230

       In the course of considering the charter of a new school 48231
district created under section 3311.26 or 3311.38 of the Revised 48232
Code, the state board shall require the party proposing creation 48233
of the district to submit to the board a map, certified by the 48234
county auditor of the county in which the proposed new district is 48235
located, showing the boundaries of the proposed new district. In 48236
the case of a proposed new district located in more than one 48237
county, the map shall be certified by the county auditor of each 48238
county in which the proposed district is located.48239

       The state board shall revoke the charter of any school 48240
district or school which fails to meet the standards for 48241
elementary and high schools as prescribed by the board. The state 48242
board shall also revoke the charter of any nonpublic school that 48243
does not comply with division (K)(1)(a) of section 3301.0711, if 48244
applicable, and section 3313.612 of the Revised Code. 48245

       In the issuance and revocation of school district or school 48246
charters, the state board shall be governed by the provisions of 48247
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.48248

       No school district, or individual school operated by a school 48249
district, shall operate without a charter issued by the state 48250
board under this section.48251

       In case a school district charter is revoked pursuant to this 48252
section, the state board may dissolve the school district and 48253
transfer its territory to one or more adjacent districts. An 48254
equitable division of the funds, property, and indebtedness of the 48255
school district shall be made by the state board among the 48256
receiving districts. The board of education of a receiving 48257
district shall accept such territory pursuant to the order of the 48258
state board. Prior to dissolving the school district, the state 48259
board shall notify the appropriate educational service center 48260
governing board and all adjacent school district boards of 48261
education of its intention to do so. Boards so notified may make 48262
recommendations to the state board regarding the proposed 48263
dissolution and subsequent transfer of territory. Except as 48264
provided in section 3301.161 of the Revised Code, the transfer 48265
ordered by the state board shall become effective on the date 48266
specified by the state board, but the date shall be at least 48267
thirty days following the date of issuance of the order.48268

       A high school is one of higher grade than an elementary 48269
school, in which instruction and training are given in accordance 48270
with sections 3301.07 and 3313.60 of the Revised Code and which 48271
also offers other subjects of study more advanced than those 48272
taught in the elementary schools and such other subjects as may be 48273
approved by the state board of education.48274

       An elementary school is one in which instruction and training 48275
are given in accordance with sections 3301.07 and 3313.60 of the 48276
Revised Code and which offers such other subjects as may be 48277
approved by the state board of education. In districts wherein a 48278
junior high school is maintained, the elementary schools in that 48279
district may be considered to include only the work of the first 48280
six school years inclusive, plus the kindergarten year.48281

       Sec. 3302.01.  As used in this chapter:48282

       (A) "Performance index score" means the average of the totals 48283
derived from calculations for each subject area of English 48284
language arts, mathematics, science, and social studies of the 48285
weighted proportion of untested students and students scoring at 48286
each level of skill described in division (A)(2) of section 48287
3301.0710 of the Revised Code on the assessments prescribed by 48288
divisions (A) and (B)(1) of that section. The department of 48289
education shall assign weights such that students who do not take 48290
an assessment receive a weight of zero and students who take an 48291
assessment receive progressively larger weights dependent upon the 48292
level of skill attained on the assessment. The department shall 48293
assign additional weights to students who have been permitted to 48294
pass over a subject in accordance with a student acceleration 48295
policy adopted under section 3324.10 of the Revised Code. If such 48296
a student attains the proficient score prescribed under division 48297
(A)(2)(c) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code or higher on an 48298
assessment, the department shall assign the student the weight 48299
prescribed for the next higher scoring level. If such a student 48300
attains the advanced score, prescribed under division (A)(2)(a) of 48301
section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code, on an assessment, the 48302
department shall assign to the student an additional proportional 48303
weight, as approved by the state board. For each school year that 48304
such a student's score is included in the performance index score 48305
and the student attains the proficient score on an assessment, 48306
that additional weight shall be assigned to the student on a 48307
subject-by-subject basis.48308

       Students shall be included in the "performance index score" 48309
in accordance with division (K)(2) of section 3302.03 of the 48310
Revised Code.48311

       (B) "Subgroup" means a subset of the entire student 48312
population of the state, a school district, or a school building 48313
and includes each of the following:48314

       (1) Major racial and ethnic groups;48315

       (2) Students with disabilities;48316

       (3) Economically disadvantaged students;48317

       (4) Limited English proficient students;48318

       (5) Students identified as gifted in superior cognitive 48319
ability and specific academic ability fields under Chapter 3324. 48320
of the Revised Code. For students who are gifted in specific 48321
academic ability fields, the department shall use data for those 48322
students with specific academic ability in math and reading. If 48323
any other academic field is assessed, the department shall also 48324
include data for students with specific academic ability in that 48325
field.48326

       (6) Students in the lowest quintile for achievement 48327
statewide, as determined by a method prescribed by the state board 48328
of education.48329

       (C) "No Child Left Behind Act of 2001" includes the statutes 48330
codified at 20 U.S.C. 6301 et seq. and any amendments, waivers, or 48331
both thereto, rules and regulations promulgated pursuant to those 48332
statutes, guidance documents, and any other policy directives 48333
regarding implementation of that act issued by the United States 48334
department of education.48335

       (D) "Adequate yearly progress" means a measure of annual 48336
academic performance as calculated in accordance with the "No 48337
Child Left Behind Act of 2001." 48338

       (E) "Supplemental educational services" means additional 48339
academic assistance, such as tutoring, remediation, or other 48340
educational enrichment activities, that is conducted outside of 48341
the regular school day by a provider approved by the department in 48342
accordance with the "No Child Left Behind Act of 2001." 48343

       (F) "Value-added progress dimension" means a measure of 48344
academic gain for a student or group of students over a specific 48345
period of time that is calculated by applying a statistical 48346
methodology to individual student achievement data derived from 48347
the achievement assessments prescribed by section 3301.0710 of the 48348
Revised Code. The "value-added progress dimension" shall be 48349
developed and implemented in accordance with section 3302.021 of 48350
the Revised Code.48351

       (G)(1) "Four-year adjusted cohort graduation rate" means the 48352
number of students who graduate in four years or less with a 48353
regular high school diploma divided by the number of students who 48354
form the adjusted cohort for the graduating class.48355

       (2) "Five-year adjusted cohort graduation rate" means the 48356
number of students who graduate in five years with a regular high 48357
school diploma divided by the number of students who form the 48358
adjusted cohort for the four-year graduation rate.48359

        (H) "State institution of higher education" has the same 48360
meaning as in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.48361

       (I) "Annual measurable objectives" means a measure of student 48362
progress determined in accordance with an agreement between the 48363
department of education and the United States department of 48364
education.48365

       Sec. 3302.03.  Annually, not later than the fifteenth day of 48366
September or the preceding Friday when that day falls on a 48367
Saturday or Sunday, the department of education shall assign a 48368
letter grade for overall academic performance and for each 48369
separate performance measure for each school district, and each 48370
school building in a district, in accordance with this section. 48371
The state board shall adopt rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the 48372
Revised Code to establish performance criteria for each letter 48373
grade and prescribe a method by which the department assigns each 48374
letter grade. For a school building to which any of the 48375
performance measures do not apply, due to grade levels served by 48376
the building, the state board shall designate the performance 48377
measures that are applicable to the building and that must be 48378
calculated separately and used to calculate the building's overall 48379
grade. The department shall issue annual report cards reflecting 48380
the performance of each school district, each building within each 48381
district, and for the state as a whole using the performance 48382
measures and letter grade system described in this section. The 48383
department shall include on the report card for each district and 48384
each building within each district the most recent two-year trend 48385
data in student achievement for each subject and each grade.48386

       (A)(1) For the 2012-2013 school year, the department shall 48387
issue grades as described in division (E) of this section for each 48388
of the following performance measures:48389

       (a) Annual measurable objectives; 48390

       (b) Performance index score for a school district or 48391
building. Grades shall be awarded as a percentage of the total 48392
possible points on the performance index system as adopted by the 48393
state board. In adopting benchmarks for assigning letter grades 48394
under division (A)(1)(b) of this section, the state board of 48395
education shall designate ninety per cent or higher for an "A," at 48396
least seventy per cent but not more than eighty per cent for a 48397
"C," and less than fifty per cent for an "F."48398

       (c) The extent to which the school district or building meets 48399
each of the applicable performance indicators established by the 48400
state board under section 3302.02 of the Revised Code and the 48401
percentage of applicable performance indicators that have been 48402
achieved. In adopting benchmarks for assigning letter grades under 48403
division (A)(1)(c) of this section, the state board shall 48404
designate ninety per cent or higher for an "A."48405

       (d) The four- and five-year adjusted cohort graduation rates.48406

        In adopting benchmarks for assigning letter grades under 48407
division (A)(1)(d), (B)(1)(d), or (C)(1)(d) of this section, the 48408
department shall designate a four-year adjusted cohort graduation 48409
rate of ninety-three per cent or higher for an "A" and a five-year 48410
cohort graduation rate of ninety-five per cent or higher for an 48411
"A."48412

       (e) The overall score under the value-added progress 48413
dimension of a school district or building, for which the 48414
department shall use up to three years of value-added data as 48415
available. The letter grade assigned for this growth measure shall 48416
be as follows:48417

       (i) A score that is at least two standard errors of measure 48418
above the mean score shall be designated as an "A."48419

       (ii) A score that is at least one standard error of measure 48420
but less than two standard errors of measure above the mean score 48421
shall be designated as a "B."48422

       (iii) A score that is less than one standard error of measure 48423
above the mean score but greater than or equal to one standard 48424
error of measure below the mean score shall be designated as a 48425
"C."48426

       (iv) A score that is not greater than one standard error of 48427
measure below the mean score but is greater than or equal to two 48428
standard errors of measure below the mean score shall be 48429
designated as a "D."48430

       (v) A score that is not greater than two standard errors of 48431
measure below the mean score shall be designated as an "F."48432

       Whenever the value-added progress dimension is used as a 48433
graded performance measure, whether as an overall measure or as a 48434
measure of separate subgroups, the grades for the measure shall be 48435
calculated in the same manner as prescribed in division (A)(1)(e) 48436
of this section.48437

       (f) The value-added progress dimension score for a school 48438
district or building disaggregated for each of the following 48439
subgroups: students identified as gifted, students with 48440
disabilities, and students whose performance places them in the 48441
lowest quintile for achievement on a statewide basis. Each 48442
subgroup shall be a separate graded measure.48443

       (2) Not later than April 30, 2013, the state board of 48444
education shall adopt a resolution describing the performance 48445
measures, benchmarks, and grading system for the 2012-2013 school 48446
year and, not later than June 30, 2013, shall adopt rules in 48447
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that prescribe 48448
the methods by which the performance measures under division 48449
(A)(1) of this section shall be assessed and assigned a letter 48450
grade, including performance benchmarks for each letter grade.48451

       At least forty-five days prior to the state board's adoption 48452
of rules to prescribe the methods by which the performance 48453
measures under division (A)(1) of this section shall be assessed 48454
and assigned a letter grade, the department shall conduct a public 48455
presentation before the standing committees of the house of 48456
representatives and the senate that consider education legislation 48457
describing such methods, including performance benchmarks.48458

       (3) There shall not be an overall letter grade for a school 48459
district or building for the 2012-2013 school year.48460

       (B)(1) For the 2013-2014 school year, the department shall 48461
issue grades as described in division (E) of this section for each 48462
of the following performance measures:48463

       (a) Annual measurable objectives; 48464

       (b) Performance index score for a school district or 48465
building. Grades shall be awarded as a percentage of the total 48466
possible points on the performance index system as created by the 48467
department. In adopting benchmarks for assigning letter grades 48468
under division (B)(1)(b) of this section, the state board shall 48469
designate ninety per cent or higher for an "A," at least seventy 48470
per cent but not more than eighty per cent for a "C," and less 48471
than fifty per cent for an "F."48472

       (c) The extent to which the school district or building meets 48473
each of the applicable performance indicators established by the 48474
state board under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and the 48475
percentage of applicable performance indicators that have been 48476
achieved. In adopting benchmarks for assigning letter grades under 48477
division (B)(1)(c) of this section, the state board shall 48478
designate ninety per cent or higher for an "A."48479

       (d) The four- and five-year adjusted cohort graduation rates;48480

       (e) The overall score under the value-added progress 48481
dimension of a school district or building, for which the 48482
department shall use up to three years of value-added data as 48483
available.48484

       (f) The value-added progress dimension score for a school 48485
district or building disaggregated for each of the following 48486
subgroups: students identified as gifted in superior cognitive 48487
ability and specific academic ability fields under Chapter 3324. 48488
of the Revised Code, students with disabilities, and students 48489
whose performance places them in the lowest quintile for 48490
achievement on a statewide basis. Each subgroup shall be a 48491
separate graded measure.48492

       (g) Whether a school district or building is making progress 48493
in improving literacy in grades kindergarten through three, as 48494
determined using a method prescribed by the state board. The state 48495
board shall adopt rules to prescribe benchmarks and standards for 48496
assigning grades to districts and buildings for purposes of 48497
division (B)(1)(j)(g) of this section. In adopting benchmarks for 48498
assigning letter grades under divisions (B)(1)(g) and (C)(1)(g) of 48499
this section, the state board shall determine progress made based 48500
on the reduction in the percentage of students scoring below grade 48501
level, or below proficient, compared from year to year on the 48502
English language artsreading and writing diagnostic assessments 48503
administered under section 3301.0715 of the Revised Code and the 48504
third grade English language arts assessment under section 48505
3301.0710 of the Revised Code, as applicable. The state board 48506
shall designate for a "C" grade a value that is not lower than the 48507
statewide average value for this measure. No grade shall be issued 48508
under divisions (B)(1)(g) and (C)(1)(j)(g) of this section for a 48509
district or building in which less than five per cent of students 48510
have scored below grade level on the diagnostic assessment 48511
administered to students in kindergarten under division (B)(1) of 48512
section 3313.608 of the Revised Code.48513

       (2) In addition to the graded measures in division (B)(1) of 48514
this section, the department shall include on a school district's 48515
or building's report card all of the following without an assigned 48516
letter grade:48517

       (a) The percentage of students enrolled in a district or 48518
building participating in advanced placement classes and the 48519
percentage of those students who received a score of three or 48520
better on advanced placement examinations;48521

        (b) The number of a district's or building's students who 48522
have earned at least three college credits through dual enrollment 48523
programs, such as the post-secondary enrollment options program 48524
under Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code and state-approved 48525
career-technical courses offered through dual enrollment or 48526
statewide articulation, that appear on a student's transcript or 48527
other official document, either of which is issued by the 48528
institution of higher education from which the student earned the 48529
college credit. The credits earned that are reported under 48530
divisions (B)(2)(b) and (C)(2)(c) of this section shall not 48531
include any that are remedial or developmental and shall include 48532
those that count toward the curriculum requirements established 48533
for completion of a degree.48534

       (c) The percentage of students enrolled in a district or 48535
building who have taken a national standardized test used for 48536
college admission determinations and the percentage of those 48537
students who are determined to be remediation-free in accordance 48538
with standards adopted under division (F) of section 3345.061 of 48539
the Revised Code;48540

        (d) The percentage of the district's or the building's 48541
students who receive industry credentials. The state board shall 48542
adopt criteria for acceptable industry credentials.48543

        (e) The percentage of students enrolled in a district or 48544
building who are participating in an international baccalaureate 48545
program and the percentage of those students who receive a score 48546
of four or better on the international baccalaureate examinations.48547

        (f) The percentage of the district's or building's students 48548
who receive an honors diploma under division (B) of section 48549
3313.61 of the Revised Code.48550

       (3) Not later than December 31, 2013, the state board shall 48551
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 48552
that prescribe the methods by which the performance measures under 48553
divisions (B)(1)(f) and (B)(1)(g) of this section will be assessed 48554
and assigned a letter grade, including performance benchmarks for 48555
each grade.48556

       At least forty-five days prior to the state board's adoption 48557
of rules to prescribe the methods by which the performance 48558
measures under division (B)(1) of this section shall be assessed 48559
and assigned a letter grade, the department shall conduct a public 48560
presentation before the standing committees of the house of 48561
representatives and the senate that consider education legislation 48562
describing such methods, including performance benchmarks.48563

       (4) There shall not be an overall letter grade for a school 48564
district or building for the 2013-2014 school year.48565

       (C)(1) For the 2014-2015 school year and each school year 48566
thereafter, the department shall issue grades as described in 48567
division (E) of this section for each of the following performance 48568
measures and an overall letter grade based on an aggregate of 48569
those measures:48570

       (a) Annual measurable objectives; 48571

       (b) Performance index score for a school district or 48572
building. Grades shall be awarded as a percentage of the total 48573
possible points on the performance index system as created by the 48574
department. In adopting benchmarks for assigning letter grades 48575
under division (C)(1)(b) of this section, the state board shall 48576
designate ninety per cent or higher for an "A," at least seventy 48577
per cent but not more than eighty per cent for a "C," and less 48578
than fifty per cent for an "F."48579

       (c) The extent to which the school district or building meets 48580
each of the applicable performance indicators established by the 48581
state board under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and the 48582
percentage of applicable performance indicators that have been 48583
achieved. In adopting benchmarks for assigning letter grades under 48584
division (C)(1)(c) of this section, the state board shall 48585
designate ninety per cent or higher for an "A."48586

       (d) The four- and five-year adjusted cohort graduation rates;48587

       (e) The overall score under the value-added progress 48588
dimension, or another measure of student academic progress if 48589
adopted by the state board, of a school district or building, for 48590
which the department shall use up to three years of value-added 48591
data as available.48592

       In adopting benchmarks for assigning letter grades for 48593
overall score on value-added progress dimension under division 48594
(C)(1)(e) of this section, the state board shall prohibit the 48595
assigning of a grade of "A" for that measure unless the district's 48596
or building's grade assigned for value-added progress dimension 48597
for all subgroups under division (C)(1)(i)(f) of this section is a 48598
"B" or higher.48599

       For the metric prescribed by division (C)(1)(e) of this 48600
section, the state board may adopt a student academic progress 48601
measure to be used instead of the value-added progress dimension. 48602
If the state board adopts such a measure, it also shall prescribe 48603
a method for assigning letter grades for the new measure that is 48604
comparable to the method prescribed in division (A)(1)(e) of this 48605
section.48606

       (f) The value-added progress dimension score of a school 48607
district or building disaggregated for each of the following 48608
subgroups: students identified as gifted in superior cognitive 48609
ability and specific academic ability fields under Chapter 3324. 48610
of the Revised Code, students with disabilities, and students 48611
whose performance places them in the lowest quintile for 48612
achievement on a statewide basis, as determined by a method 48613
prescribed by the state board. Each subgroup shall be a separate 48614
graded measure.48615

       The state board may adopt student academic progress measures 48616
to be used instead of the value-added progress dimension. If the 48617
state board adopts such measures, it also shall prescribe a method 48618
for assigning letter grades for the new measures that is 48619
comparable to the method prescribed in division (A)(1)(e) of this 48620
section.48621

       (g) Whether a school district or building is making progress 48622
in improving literacy in grades kindergarten through three, as 48623
determined using a method prescribed by the state board. The state 48624
board shall adopt rules to prescribe benchmarks and standards for 48625
assigning grades to a district or building for purposes of 48626
division (C)(1)(j)(g) of this section. The state board shall 48627
designate for a "C" grade a value that is not lower than the 48628
statewide average value for this measure. No grade shall be issued 48629
under division (C)(1)(g) of this section for a district or 48630
building in which less than five per cent of students have scored 48631
below grade level on the kindergarten diagnostic assessment under 48632
division (B)(1) of section 3313.608 of the Revised Code.48633

       (2) In addition to the graded measures in division (C)(1) of 48634
this section, the department shall include on a school district's 48635
or building's report card all of the following without an assigned 48636
letter grade:48637

        (a) The percentage of students enrolled in a district or 48638
building who have taken a national standardized test used for 48639
college admission determinations and the percentage of those 48640
students who are determined to be remediation-free in accordance 48641
with the standards adopted under division (F) of section 3345.061 48642
of the Revised Code;48643

        (b) The percentage of students enrolled in a district or 48644
building participating in advanced placement classes and the 48645
percentage of those students who received a score of three or 48646
better on advanced placement examinations;48647

        (c) The number of a district's or building's students who 48648
have earned at least three college credits through dual enrollment 48649
programs, such as the post-secondary enrollment options program 48650
under Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code and state-approved 48651
career-technical courses offered through dual enrollment or 48652
statewide articulation, that appear on a student's transcript or 48653
other official document, either of which is issued by the 48654
institution of higher education from which the student earned the 48655
college credit. The credits earned that are reported under 48656
divisions (B)(2)(b) and (C)(2)(c) of this section shall not 48657
include any that are remedial or developmental and shall include 48658
those that count toward the curriculum requirements established 48659
for completion of a degree.48660

        (d) The percentage of the district's or building's students 48661
who receive an honor's diploma under division (B) of section 48662
3313.61 of the Revised Code;48663

        (e) The percentage of the district's or building's students 48664
who receive industry credentials;48665

        (f) The percentage of students enrolled in a district or 48666
building who are participating in an international baccalaureate 48667
program and the percentage of those students who receive a score 48668
of four or better on the international baccalaureate examinations;48669

        (g) The results of the college and career-ready assessments 48670
administered under division (B)(1) of section 3301.0712 of the 48671
Revised Code.48672

        (3) The state board shall adopt rules pursuant to Chapter 48673
119. of the Revised Code that establish a method to assign an 48674
overall grade for a school district or school building for the 48675
2014-2015 school year and each school year thereafter. The rules 48676
shall group the performance measures in divisions (C)(1) and (2) 48677
of this section into the following components:48678

        (a) Gap closing, which shall include the performance measure 48679
in division (C)(1)(a) of this section;48680

        (b) Achievement, which shall include the performance measures 48681
in divisions (C)(1)(b) and (c) of this section;48682

        (c) Progress, which shall include the performance measures in 48683
divisions (C)(1)(e) and (i)(f) of this section;48684

        (d) Graduation, which shall include the performance measure 48685
in division (C)(1)(d) of this section;48686

        (e) Kindergarten through third-grade literacy, which shall 48687
include the performance measure in division (C)(1)(k)(g) of this 48688
section;48689

        (f) Prepared for success, which shall include the performance 48690
measures in divisions (C)(2)(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), and (f) of 48691
this section. The state board shall develop a method to determine 48692
a grade for the component in division (C)(3)(f) of this section 48693
using the performance measures in divisions (C)(2)(a), (b), (c), 48694
(d), (e), and (f) of this section. When available, the state board 48695
may incorporate the performance measure under division (C)(2)(g) 48696
of this section into the component under division (C)(3)(f) of 48697
this section. When determining the overall grade for the prepared 48698
for success component prescribed by division (C)(3)(f) of this 48699
section, no individual student shall be counted in more than one 48700
performance measure. However, if a student qualifies for more than 48701
one performance measure in the component, the state board may, in 48702
its method to determine a grade for the component, specify an 48703
additional weight for such a student that is not greater than or 48704
equal to 1.0. In determining the overall score under division 48705
(C)(3)(f) of this section, the state board shall ensure that the 48706
pool of students included in the performance measures aggregated 48707
under that division are all of the students included in the four- 48708
and five-year adjusted graduation cohort.48709

        In the rules adopted under division (C)(3) of this section, 48710
the state board shall adopt a method for determining a grade for 48711
each component in divisions (C)(3)(a) to (f) of this section. The 48712
state board also shall establish a method to assign an overall 48713
grade of "A," "B," "C," "D," or "F" using the grades assigned for 48714
each component. The method the state board adopts for assigning an 48715
overall grade shall give equal weight to the components in 48716
divisions (C)(3)(b) and (c) of this section.48717

       At least forty-five days prior to the state board's adoption 48718
of rules to prescribe the methods for calculating the overall 48719
grade for the report card, as required by this division, the 48720
department shall conduct a public presentation before the standing 48721
committees of the house of representatives and the senate that 48722
consider education legislation describing the format for the 48723
report card, weights that will be assigned to the components of 48724
the overall grade, and the method for calculating the overall 48725
grade.48726

       (D) Not later than July 1, 2015, the state board shall 48727
develop a measure of student academic progress for high school 48728
students. Beginning with the report card for the 2015-2016 school 48729
year, each school district and applicable school building shall be 48730
assigned a separate letter grade for this measure and the 48731
district's or building's grade for that measure shall be included 48732
in determining the district's or building's overall letter grade. 48733
This measure shall be included within the measure prescribed in 48734
division (C)(2)(3)(c) of this section in the calculation for the 48735
overall letter grade.48736

       (E) The letter grades assigned to a school district or 48737
building under this section shall be as follows:48738

       (1) "A" for a district or school making excellent progress;48739

       (2) "B" for a district or school making above average 48740
progress;48741

       (3) "C" for a district or school making average progress;48742

       (4) "D" for a district or school making below average 48743
progress;48744

       (5) "F" for a district or school failing to meet minimum 48745
progress.48746

        (F) When reporting data on student achievement and progress, 48747
the department shall disaggregate that data according to the 48748
following categories: 48749

       (1) Performance of students by grade-level; 48750

       (2) Performance of students by race and ethnic group; 48751

       (3) Performance of students by gender; 48752

       (4) Performance of students grouped by those who have been 48753
enrolled in a district or school for three or more years; 48754

       (5) Performance of students grouped by those who have been 48755
enrolled in a district or school for more than one year and less 48756
than three years; 48757

       (6) Performance of students grouped by those who have been 48758
enrolled in a district or school for one year or less; 48759

       (7) Performance of students grouped by those who are 48760
economically disadvantaged; 48761

       (8) Performance of students grouped by those who are enrolled 48762
in a conversion community school established under Chapter 3314. 48763
of the Revised Code; 48764

       (9) Performance of students grouped by those who are 48765
classified as limited English proficient; 48766

       (10) Performance of students grouped by those who have 48767
disabilities; 48768

       (11) Performance of students grouped by those who are 48769
classified as migrants; 48770

       (12) Performance of students grouped by those who are 48771
identified as gifted in superior cognitive ability and the 48772
specific academic ability fields of reading and math pursuant to 48773
Chapter 3324. of the Revised Code. In disaggregating specific 48774
academic ability fields for gifted students, the department shall 48775
use data for those students with specific academic ability in math 48776
and reading. If any other academic field is assessed, the 48777
department shall also include data for students with specific 48778
academic ability in that field as well.48779

       (13) Performance of students grouped by those who perform in 48780
the lowest quintile for achievement on a statewide basis, as 48781
determined by a method prescribed by the state board. 48782

       The department may disaggregate data on student performance 48783
according to other categories that the department determines are 48784
appropriate. To the extent possible, the department shall 48785
disaggregate data on student performance according to any 48786
combinations of two or more of the categories listed in divisions 48787
(F)(1) to (13) of this section that it deems relevant. 48788

       In reporting data pursuant to division (F) of this section, 48789
the department shall not include in the report cards any data 48790
statistical in nature that is statistically unreliable or that 48791
could result in the identification of individual students. For 48792
this purpose, the department shall not report student performance 48793
data for any group identified in division (F) of this section that 48794
contains less than ten students. If the department does not report 48795
student performance data for a group because it contains less than 48796
ten students, the department shall indicate on the report card 48797
that is why data was not reported.48798

       (G) The department may include with the report cards any 48799
additional education and fiscal performance data it deems 48800
valuable. 48801

       (H) The department shall include on each report card a list 48802
of additional information collected by the department that is 48803
available regarding the district or building for which the report 48804
card is issued. When available, such additional information shall 48805
include student mobility data disaggregated by race and 48806
socioeconomic status, college enrollment data, and the reports 48807
prepared under section 3302.031 of the Revised Code. 48808

       The department shall maintain a site on the world wide web. 48809
The report card shall include the address of the site and shall 48810
specify that such additional information is available to the 48811
public at that site. The department shall also provide a copy of 48812
each item on the list to the superintendent of each school 48813
district. The district superintendent shall provide a copy of any 48814
item on the list to anyone who requests it. 48815

       (I) Division (I) of this section does not apply to conversion 48816
community schools that primarily enroll students between sixteen 48817
and twenty-two years of age who dropped out of high school or are 48818
at risk of dropping out of high school due to poor attendance, 48819
disciplinary problems, or suspensions. 48820

       (1) For any district that sponsors a conversion community 48821
school under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, the department 48822
shall combine data regarding the academic performance of students 48823
enrolled in the community school with comparable data from the 48824
schools of the district for the purpose of determining the 48825
performance of the district as a whole on the report card issued 48826
for the district under this section or section 3302.033 of the 48827
Revised Code. 48828

       (2) Any district that leases a building to a community school 48829
located in the district or that enters into an agreement with a 48830
community school located in the district whereby the district and 48831
the school endorse each other's programs may elect to have data 48832
regarding the academic performance of students enrolled in the 48833
community school combined with comparable data from the schools of 48834
the district for the purpose of determining the performance of the 48835
district as a whole on the district report card. Any district that 48836
so elects shall annually file a copy of the lease or agreement 48837
with the department. 48838

       (3) Any municipal school district, as defined in section 48839
3311.71 of the Revised Code, that sponsors a community school 48840
located within the district's territory, or that enters into an 48841
agreement with a community school located within the district's 48842
territory whereby the district and the community school endorse 48843
each other's programs, may exercise either or both of the 48844
following elections:48845

        (a) To have data regarding the academic performance of 48846
students enrolled in that community school combined with 48847
comparable data from the schools of the district for the purpose 48848
of determining the performance of the district as a whole on the 48849
district's report card;48850

        (b) To have the number of students attending that community 48851
school noted separately on the district's report card.48852

       The election authorized under division (I)(3)(a) of this 48853
section is subject to approval by the governing authority of the 48854
community school.48855

       Any municipal school district that exercises an election to 48856
combine or include data under division (I)(3) of this section, by 48857
the first day of October of each year, shall file with the 48858
department documentation indicating eligibility for that election, 48859
as required by the department.48860

       (J) The department shall include on each report card the 48861
percentage of teachers in the district or building who are highly 48862
qualified, as defined by the "No Child Left Behind Act of 2001," 48863
and a comparison of that percentage with the percentages of such 48864
teachers in similar districts and buildings. 48865

       (K)(1) In calculating English language arts, mathematics, 48866
social studies, or science assessment passage rates used to 48867
determine school district or building performance under this 48868
section, the department shall include all students taking an 48869
assessment with accommodation or to whom an alternate assessment 48870
is administered pursuant to division (C)(1) or (3) of section 48871
3301.0711 of the Revised Code. 48872

        (2) In calculating performance index scores, rates of 48873
achievement on the performance indicators established by the state 48874
board under section 3302.02 of the Revised Code, and annual 48875
measurable objectives for determining adequate yearly progress for 48876
school districts and buildings under this section, the department 48877
shall do all of the following: 48878

       (a) Include for each district or building only those students 48879
who are included in the ADM certified for the first full school 48880
week of October and are continuously enrolled in the district or 48881
building through the time of the spring administration of any 48882
assessment prescribed by division (A)(1) or (B)(1) of section 48883
3301.0710 of the Revised Code that is administered to the 48884
student's grade level; 48885

       (b) Include cumulative totals from both the fall and spring 48886
administrations of the third grade English language arts 48887
achievement assessment; 48888

       (c) Except as required by the "No Child Left Behind Act of 48889
2001," exclude for each district or building any limited English 48890
proficient student who has been enrolled in United States schools 48891
for less than one full school year.48892

       (L) Beginning with the 2015-2016 school year and at least 48893
once every three years thereafter, the state board of education 48894
shall review and may adjust the benchmarks for assigning letter 48895
grades to the performance measures and components prescribed under 48896
divisions (C)(3) and (D) of this section.48897

       Sec. 3302.032. (A) Not later than December 31, 2011, the 48898
state board of education shall establish a measure of the 48899
following:48900

       (1) Student success in meeting the benchmarks contained in 48901
the physical education standards adopted under division (A)(3) of 48902
section 3301.079 of the Revised Code;48903

       (2) Compliance with the requirements for local wellness 48904
policies prescribed by section 204 of the "Child Nutrition and WIC 48905
Reauthorization Act of 2004," 42 U.S.C. 1751 note;48906

       (3) Whether a school district or building has elected to 48907
administer the screenings authorized by sections 3313.674, 48908
3314.15, and 3326.26 of the Revised Code;48909

       (4) Whether a school district or building is participating in 48910
the physical activity pilot program administered under section 48911
3313.6016 of the Revised Code.48912

       (B) The measure shall be included on the school district and 48913
building report cards issued under section 3302.03 of the Revised 48914
Code, beginning with the report cards issued for the 2012-2013 48915
school year, but it shall not be a factor in the performance 48916
ratings issued under that section.48917

       (C) The department of education may accept, receive, and 48918
expend gifts, devises, or bequests of money for the purpose of 48919
establishing the measure required by this section.48920

       (D) The department shall not include a student enrolled in an 48921
internet- or computer-based community school, as defined in 48922
section 3314.02 of the Revised Code, or a child with a disability, 48923
as defined in section 3323.01 of the Revised Code, in any reports 48924
using the measures required under division (A) of this section.48925

       Sec. 3302.035. (A) As used in this section, "internet- or 48926
computer-based community school" and "operator" have the same 48927
meanings as in section 3314.02 of the Revised Code. 48928

       (B) The department of education shall issue to each operator 48929
that manages, in whole or in part, more than one internet- or 48930
computer-based community school composite grades for the same 48931
measures prescribed for individual schools and school districts by 48932
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code based on the grades issued 48933
under that section for such schools managed by the operator. 48934

       (C) An internet- or computer-based community school managed 48935
by an operator described in division (B) of this section shall be 48936
subject to sanctions under this chapter or permanent closure under 48937
section 3314.35 of the Revised Code based on the lower of the 48938
grade or grades issued to an individual school under section 48939
3302.03 of the Revised Code or the composite grade or grades 48940
issued to the school's operator under this section. 48941

       (D) This section does not apply to a community school 48942
described in division (A)(4)(a) of section 3314.35 of the Revised 48943
Code. 48944

       Sec. 3302.20.  (A) The department of education shall develop 48945
standards for determining, from the existing data reported in 48946
accordance with sections 3301.0714 and 3314.17 of the Revised 48947
Code, the amount of annual operating expenditures for classroom 48948
instructional purposes and for nonclassroom purposes for each 48949
city, exempted village, local, and joint vocational school 48950
district, each community school established under Chapter 3314. 48951
that is not an internet- or computer-based community school, each 48952
internet- or computer-based community school, and each STEM school 48953
established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code. The 48954
department shall present those standards to the state board of 48955
education for consideration. In developing the standards, the 48956
department shall adapt existing standards used by professional 48957
organizations, research organizations, and other state 48958
governments. The department also shall align the expenditure 48959
categories required for reporting under the standards with the 48960
categories that are required for reporting to the United States 48961
department of education under federal law.48962

       The state board shall consider the proposed standards and 48963
adopt a final set of standards not later than December 31, 2012. 48964
School districts, community schools, and STEM schools shall begin 48965
reporting data in accordance with the standards on June 30, 2013. 48966

       (B)(1) The department shall categorize all city, exempted 48967
village, and local school districts into not less than three nor 48968
more than five groups based primarily on average daily student 48969
enrollment as reported on the most recent report card issued for 48970
each district under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code. 48971

       (2) The department shall categorize all joint vocational 48972
school districts into not less than three nor more than five 48973
groups based primarily on average daily membership as reported 48974
under division (D) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code rounded 48975
to the nearest whole number.48976

       (3) The department shall categorize all community schools 48977
that are not internet- or computer-based community schools into 48978
not less than three nor more than five groups based primarily on 48979
average daily student enrollment as reported on the most recent 48980
report card issued for each community school under sections 48981
3302.03 and 3314.012 of the Revised Code or, in the case of a 48982
school to which section 3314.017 of the Revised Code applies, on 48983
the total number of students reported under divisions (B)(2)(a) 48984
and (b) of section 3314.08 of the Revised Code.48985

       (4) The department shall categorize all internet- or 48986
computer-based community schools into a single category.48987

       (5) The department shall categorize all STEM schools into a 48988
single category.48989

       (C) Using the standards adopted under division (A) of this 48990
section and the data reported under sections 3301.0714 and 3314.17 48991
of the Revised Code, the department shall compute annually for 48992
each fiscal year, the following:48993

       (1) The percentage of each district's, community school's, or 48994
STEM school's total operating budget spent for classroom 48995
instructional purposes;48996

       (2) The statewide average percentage for all districts, 48997
community schools, and STEM schools combined spent for classroom 48998
instructional purposes;48999

       (3) The average percentage for each of the categories of 49000
districts and schools established under division (B) of this 49001
section spent for classroom instructional purposes;49002

       (4) The ranking of each district, community school, or STEM 49003
school within its respective category established under division 49004
(B) of this section according to the following:49005

       (a) From highest to lowest percentage spent for classroom 49006
instructional purposes;49007

       (b) From lowest to highest percentage spent for 49008
noninstructional purposes. 49009

       (D) In its display of rankings within each category under 49010
division (C)(4) of this section, the department shall make the 49011
following notations:49012

       (1) Within each category of city, exempted village, and local 49013
school districts, the department shall denote each district that 49014
is:49015

       (a) Among the twenty per cent of all city, exempted village, 49016
and local school districts statewide with the lowest total 49017
operating expenditures per pupil;49018

       (b) Among the twenty per cent of all city, exempted village, 49019
and local school districts statewide with the highest performance 49020
index scores.49021

       (2) Within each category of joint vocational school 49022
districts, the department shall denote each district that is:49023

       (a) Among the twenty per cent of all joint vocational school 49024
districts statewide with the lowest total operating expenditures 49025
per pupil;49026

       (b) Among the twenty per cent of all joint vocational school 49027
districts statewide with the highest report card scores under 49028
section 3302.033 of the Revised Code.49029

       (3) Within each category of community schools that are not 49030
internet- or computer-based community schools, the department 49031
shall denote each school that is:49032

       (a) Among the twenty per cent of all such community schools 49033
statewide with the lowest total operating expenditures per pupil;49034

       (b) Among the twenty per cent of all such community schools 49035
statewide with the highest performance index scores, excluding 49036
such community schools to which section 3314.017 of the Revised 49037
Code applies. 49038

       (4) Within the category of internet- or computer-based 49039
community schools, the department shall denote each school that 49040
is:49041

       (a) Among the twenty per cent of all such community schools 49042
statewide with the lowest total operating expenditures per pupil;49043

       (b) Among the twenty per cent of all such community schools 49044
statewide with the highest performance index scores, excluding 49045
such community schools to which section 3314.017 of the Revised 49046
Code applies.49047

       (5) Within the category of STEM schools, the department shall 49048
denote each school that is:49049

       (a) Among the twenty per cent of all STEM schools statewide 49050
with the lowest total operating expenditures per pupil;49051

       (b) Among the twenty per cent of all STEM schools statewide 49052
with the highest performance index scores.49053

       For purposes of divisions (D)(3)(b) and (4)(b) of this 49054
section, the display shall note that, in accordance with section 49055
3314.017 of the Revised Code, a performance index score is not 49056
reported for some community schools that serve primarily students 49057
enrolled in dropout prevention and recovery programs.49058

       (E) The department shall post in a prominent location on its 49059
web site the information prescribed by divisions (C) and (D) of 49060
this section. The department also shall include on each 49061
district's, community school's, and STEM school's annual report 49062
card issued under section 3302.03 or 3314.017 of the Revised Code 49063
the respective information computed for the district or school 49064
under divisions (C)(1) and (4) of this section, the statewide 49065
information computed under division (C)(2) of this section, and 49066
the information computed for the district's or school's category 49067
under division (C)(3) of this section. 49068

       (F) As used in this section:49069

       (1) "Internet- or computer-based community school" has the 49070
same meaning as in section 3314.02 of the Revised Code.49071

       (2) A school district's, community school's, or STEM school's 49072
performance index score rank is its performance index score rank 49073
as computed under section 3302.21 of the Revised Code.49074

       (3) "Operating expenditures per pupil" has the same meaning 49075
as "expenditure per equivalent pupils" as defined in section 49076
3302.26 of the Revised Code.49077

       Sec. 3302.21.  (A) The department of education shall develop 49078
a system to rank order all city, exempted village, and local 49079
school districts, community schools established under Chapter 49080
3314. of the Revised Code except those community schools to which 49081
section 3314.017 of the Revised Code applies, and STEM schools 49082
established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code according to 49083
the following measures:49084

       (1) Performance index score for each school district, 49085
community school, and STEM school and for each separate building 49086
of a district, community school, or STEM school. For districts, 49087
schools, or buildings to which the performance index score does 49088
not apply, the superintendent of public instruction may develop 49089
another measure of student academic performance based on similar 49090
data and performance measures if appropriate and use that measure 49091
to include those buildings in the ranking so that districts, 49092
schools, and buildings may be reliably compared to each other.49093

       (2) Student performance growth from year to year, using the 49094
value-added progress dimension, if applicable, and other measures 49095
of student performance growth designated by the superintendent of 49096
public instruction for subjects and grades not covered by the 49097
value-added progress dimension or the alternative student academic 49098
progress measure if adopted under division (C)(1)(e) of section 49099
3302.03 of the Revised Code;49100

       (3) Current operating expenditures per pupil as determined 49101
under standards adopted by the state board of education under 49102
section 3302.20 of the Revised Code;49103

       (4) Of total current operating expenditures, percentage spent 49104
for classroom instruction as determined under standards adopted by 49105
the state board under section 3302.20 of the Revised Code;49106

       (5) Performance of, and opportunities provided to, students 49107
identified as gifted using value-added progress dimensions, if 49108
applicable, and other relevant measures as designated by the 49109
superintendent of public instruction.49110

       The department shall rank each district, each community 49111
school except a community school to which section 3314.017 of the 49112
Revised Code applies, and each STEM school annually in accordance 49113
with the system developed under this section.49114

       (B) In addition to the reports required by sections 3302.03 49115
and 3302.031 of the Revised Code, not later than the first day of 49116
September each year, the department shall issue a report for each 49117
city, exempted village, and local school district, each community 49118
school except a community school to which section 3314.017 of the 49119
Revised Code applies, and each STEM school indicating the 49120
district's or school's rank on each measure described in divisions 49121
(A)(1) to (4) of this section, including each separate building's 49122
rank among all public school buildings according to performance 49123
index score under division (A)(1) of this section.49124

       (C) As used in this section, "operating expenditures per 49125
pupil" has the same meaning as "expenditure per equivalent pupils" 49126
as defined in section 3302.26 of the Revised Code.49127

       Sec. 3302.22.  (A) The governor's effective and efficient 49128
schools recognition program is hereby created. Each year, the 49129
governor shall recognize, in a manner deemed appropriate by the 49130
governor, the top ten per cent of all public schools in this 49131
state, including schools of city, exempted village, and local 49132
school districts, or joint vocational school districts, community 49133
schools established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, and 49134
STEM schools established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code.49135

       (B) The top ten per cent of schools shall be determined by 49136
the department of education according to standards established by 49137
the department, in consultation with the governor's office of 21st 49138
century education. The standards for recognition for each type of 49139
school may vary depending upon the unique characteristics of that 49140
type of school. The standards shall include, but need not be 49141
limited to, both of the following, provided that sufficient data 49142
is available for each school:49143

       (1) Student performance, as determined by factors including49144
that may include, but not be limited to, performance indicators 49145
under section 3302.02 of the Revised Code, report cards issued 49146
under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code, performance index score 49147
rankings under section 3302.21 of the Revised Code, and any other 49148
statewide or national assessment or student performance 49149
recognition program the department selects;49150

       (2) Fiscal performance, includingwhich may include49151
cost-effective measures taken by the school.49152

       (C) If applicable, the standards under divisions (B)(1) and 49153
(2) of this section may be applied at the school building or 49154
district level, depending upon the quality and availability of 49155
data.49156

       Sec. 3302.26. (A) As used in this section:49157

       (1) "Expenditure per equivalent pupils" is the total 49158
operating expenditures of a school district divided by the measure 49159
of equivalent pupils.49160

       (2) "Measure of equivalent pupils" is the total number of 49161
students in a school district adjusted for the relative 49162
differences in costs associated with the unique characteristics 49163
and needs of each category of pupil.49164

       (B) The department of education shall create a performance 49165
management section on the department's public web site. The 49166
performance management section shall include information on 49167
academic and financial performance metrics for each school 49168
district to assist schools and districts in providing an effective 49169
and efficient delivery of educational services. The section shall 49170
include a graph that illustrates the relationship between a 49171
district's academic performance, as measured by the performance 49172
index score, and its expenditure per equivalent pupils as compared 49173
to similar districts. The section shall include statistics of 49174
academic and financial performance measures for each school 49175
district to allow for a comparison and benchmarking between 49176
districts.49177

       (C) The department may contract with an independent 49178
organization to develop and host the performance management 49179
section of its web site.49180

       Sec. 3303.41.  There is hereby created the governor's council 49181
on people with disabilities. The council shall consist of 49182
twenty-one members of which the majority shall be people with 49183
disabilities as defined in this section, appointed by the governor 49184
for a term of three years except that for initial appointments, 49185
seven members shall be appointed for a term of one year, seven 49186
members shall be appointed for a term of two years, and seven 49187
members shall be appointed for a term of three years. Members may 49188
succeed themselves not more than one time. The governor shall 49189
annually appoint a chairmanchairperson who may succeed himself or 49190
herself not more than one time. Members of the council shall serve 49191
without compensation, but shall be paid the actual and necessary 49192
expenses they incur in the performance of their duties.49193

       The council shall meet at least six times annually at such 49194
times and places as may be designated by the chairmanchairperson.49195

       The governor's council on people with disabilities shall be 49196
assigned to the rehabilitation services commissionopportunities 49197
for Ohioans with disabilities agency for administrative purposes. 49198
The administratorexecutive director of the rehabilitation 49199
services commissionopportunities for Ohioans with disabilities 49200
agency shall assign one professional staff person to the council 49201
to serve as executive secretary and other personnel as determined 49202
advisable.49203

       The council shall have the following powers:49204

       (A) To cooperate with the president's committee on employment 49205
of the handicapped;49206

       (B) To cooperate with all employers both public and private 49207
in locating or developing employment opportunities for people with 49208
disabilities;49209

       (C) To encourage and assist in the creation of committees at 49210
the community level;49211

       (D) To assist local, state, and federal agencies to 49212
coordinate their activities for the purpose of securing maximum 49213
utilization of funds and efforts that benefit people with 49214
disabilities;49215

       (E) To encourage cooperation among public and private 49216
employers, unions, and rehabilitation agencies, bureaus, and 49217
organizations both public and private with a specific goal to 49218
facilitate employment of people with disabilities;49219

       (F) To serve in an advisory capacity to the governor's office 49220
directly and as needed to the general assembly on issues relating 49221
to the needs, problems, and other concerns of people with 49222
disabilities;49223

       (G) To conduct educational programs to acquaint the public 49224
with the abilities and accomplishments of people with 49225
disabilities;49226

       (H) To promote the elimination of architectural barriers to 49227
make buildings used by the public accessible and useable by 49228
persons with physical limitations;49229

       (I) To make such rules as it determines advisable for the 49230
conduct of its own business.49231

       The council shall annually report to the governor on council 49232
activities and on the state of Ohio'sthe people of this state49233
with disabilities. This report may include any recommendations 49234
believed necessary or desirable to carry out the purposes of this 49235
section.49236

       As used in this section, "person with a disability" means any 49237
individual who has a disability or condition whichthat, 49238
regardless of its physical or mental origin, imposes a functional 49239
limitation. It49240

       It shall be lawful for any public employee or officer to 49241
serve as a member of the council.49242

       Sec. 3304.11.  As used in sections 3304.11 to 3304.27, 49243
inclusive, of the Revised Code:49244

       (A) "Handicapped person" or "disabled person""Person with a 49245
disability" means any person with a physical or mental disability 49246
whichimpairment that is a substantial handicapimpediment to 49247
employment and which is of a nature thatwho can benefit in terms 49248
of an employment outcome from the provision of vocational 49249
rehabilitation services may reasonably be expected to render him 49250
fit to engage in a gainful occupation consistent with his 49251
capacities and abilities, and any person with a physical or mental 49252
disability that constitutes a substantial handicap to employment 49253
for whom vocational rehabilitation services are necessary to 49254
determine his rehabilitation potential.49255

       (B) "Physical or mental disabilityimpairment" means a 49256
physical or mental condition that materially limits, contributes 49257
to limiting or, if not corrected, will probably result in limiting 49258
a person's activities or functioning.49259

       (C) "Substantial handicapimpediment to employment" means a 49260
physical or mental disability that impedes a person's occupational 49261
performance, by preventing histhe person's obtaining, retaining, 49262
or preparing for a gainful occupation consistent with histhe 49263
person's capacities and abilities.49264

       (D) "Vocational rehabilitation" and "vocational 49265
rehabilitation services" means any activity or service calculated 49266
to enable a handicapped person with a disability or groups of 49267
handicapped persons with disabilities to engage in gainful 49268
occupation and includes, but is not limited to, medical and 49269
vocational evaluation, including diagnostic and related services, 49270
vocational counseling, guidance and placement, including follow-up 49271
services, rehabilitation training, including books and other 49272
training materials, physical restoration, recruitment and training 49273
services designed to provide handicapped persons with disabilities49274
new employment opportunities, maintenance, occupational tools, 49275
equipment, supplies, transportation, services to families of 49276
handicapped persons whichwith disabilities that contribute 49277
substantially to the rehabilitation of these persons, and any 49278
other goods or service necessary to render a handicapped person 49279
with a disability employable.49280

       (E) "Establishment of a rehabilitation facility" means the 49281
expansion, remodeling, or alteration of an existing building, 49282
whichthat is necessary to adapt or to increase the effectiveness 49283
of that building for rehabilitation facility purposes, the 49284
acquisition of equipment for these purposes, and the initial 49285
staffing.49286

       (F) "Construction" means the construction of new buildings, 49287
acquisition of land or existing buildings and their expansion, 49288
remodeling, alteration and renovation, and the initial staffing 49289
and equipment of any new, newly acquired, expanded, remodeled, 49290
altered, or renovated buildings.49291

       (G) "Physical restoration services" means those services49292
whichthat are necessary to correct or substantially modify within 49293
a reasonable period of time a physical or mental condition which49294
that is stable or slowly progressive.49295

       (H) "Occupational license" means any license, permit, or 49296
other written authority required by any governmental unit in order 49297
to engage in any occupation or business.49298

       (I) "Maintenance" means money payments to disabled persons 49299
with disabilities who need financial assistance for their 49300
subsistence during their vocational rehabilitation.49301

       Sec. 3304.12.  (A) The governor, with the advice and consent 49302
of the senate, shall appoint a rehabilitation servicesthe 49303
opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities commission within the 49304
opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities agency consisting of 49305
seven members, no more than four of whom shall be members of the 49306
same political party and who shall include at least three from 49307
rehabilitation professions, including at least one member from the 49308
field of services to the blind, and at least four handicapped49309
individuals with disabilities, no less than two nor more than 49310
three of whom have received vocational rehabilitation services 49311
offered by a state vocational rehabilitation agency or the 49312
veterans' administration. Such handicappedThe members with 49313
disabilities shall be representative of several major categories 49314
of handicapped persons with disabilities served by the commission49315
opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities agency.49316

       (B) Of the members first appointed to the commission, one 49317
shall be appointed for a term of seven years, one for a term of 49318
six years, one for a term of five years, one for a term of four 49319
years, one for a term of three years, one for a term of two years, 49320
and one for a term of one year. Thereafter, termsTerms of office 49321
shall be for seven years, commencing on the ninth day of September 49322
and ending on the eighth day of September, with no person eligible 49323
to serve more than two seven-year terms. Each member shall hold 49324
office from the date of his appointment until the end of the term 49325
for which hethe member was appointed. Any member appointed to 49326
fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for 49327
which histhe member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office 49328
for the remainder of suchthat term. Any member shall continue in 49329
office subsequent to the expiration date of histhe member's term 49330
until hisa successor takes office, or until a period of sixty 49331
days has elapsed, whichever occurs first. Members appointed to the 49332
commission after September 1, 1977, shall be handicapped 49333
individuals representing those who have received vocational 49334
rehabilitation services offered by a state vocational 49335
rehabilitaion agency or the veterans' administration until the 49336
commission membership includes at least four such individuals.49337
Members who fail to perform their duties or who are guilty of 49338
misconduct may be removed on written charges preferred by the 49339
governor or by a majority of the commission.49340

       (C) Members of the commission shall be reimbursed for travel 49341
and necessary expenses incurred in the conduct of their duties, 49342
and shall receive an amount fixed pursuant to division (J) of 49343
section 124.15 of the Revised Code while actually engaged in 49344
attendance at meetings or in the performance of their duties.49345

       Sec. 3304.13.  The rehabilitation services commission49346
opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities commission shall hold 49347
its first meeting at the call of the governor, and at that 49348
meeting, shall elect one of its members as chairmanchairperson49349
and adopt rules governing the time and place of regular meetings, 49350
which shall be held not less than once every four months. Special 49351
meetings shall be held at the call of the chairmanchairperson or 49352
any three members of the commission. The chairmanchairperson49353
shall serve for four years, unless removed earlier by a majority 49354
vote of the commission, and shall be ineligible to serve as 49355
chairmanchairperson during the succeeding four years. Each member 49356
of the commission, before entering upon the duties of office, 49357
shall take and subscribe an oath to uphold the constitution and 49358
laws of the United States and this state and to perform the duties 49359
of office honestly, faithfully, and impartially. Each member shall 49360
give a bond of five thousand dollars, with a sufficient surety 49361
approved by the treasurer of state. After approval, the bond shall 49362
be filed with the secretary of state. If the bond is executed by a 49363
surety company, the premiums on it shall be paid from the funds 49364
appropriated for the expenses of the rehabilitation services 49365
commissionopportunities for Ohioans with disabilities agency.49366

       Sec. 3304.16.        Sec. 3304.14. In carrying outFor the purposes of 49367
sections 3304.11 to 3304.27 of the Revised Code, the 49368
rehabilitation services commissionopportunities for Ohioans with 49369
disabilities commission shall approve the state vocational 49370
rehabilitation plan, jointly approve the state plan for 49371
independent living with the Ohio state independent living council, 49372
appoint a consumer advisory committee, and, to the extent 49373
feasible, conduct a review and analysis of the effectiveness of 49374
and consumer satisfaction with all of the following:49375

       (A) Shall develop all necessary rulesThe functions performed 49376
by the opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities agency;49377

       (B) Shall prepare and submit to the governor annual reports 49378
of activities and expenditures and, prior to each first regular 49379
session of the general assembly, an estimate of sums required to 49380
carry out the commission's responsibilitiesThe vocational 49381
rehabilitation services provided by state agencies and other 49382
public and private entities responsible for providing vocational 49383
rehabilitation services to persons with disabilities under the 49384
"Rehabilitation Act of 1973," 87 Stat. 355, 29 U.S.C. 701, as 49385
amended;49386

       (C) Shall certify any disbursement of funds available to the 49387
commission for vocational rehabilitation activities;49388

       (D) Shall serve as the sole state agency designated to 49389
administer the plan under the "Rehabilitation Act of 1973," 87 49390
Stat. 355, 29 U.S.C. 701, as amended;49391

       (E) Shall take appropriate action to guarantee rights of and 49392
services to handicapped persons;49393

       (F) Shall consult with and advise other state agencies to 49394
assist them in meeting the needs of handicapped persons more 49395
effectively and to achieve maximum coordination among programs for 49396
the handicapped;49397

       (G) Shall establish an administrative division of consumer 49398
affairs and advocacy within the commission to promote and help 49399
guarantee the rights of handicapped persons;49400

       (H) Shall maintain an inventory of state services that are 49401
available to handicapped persons;49402

       (I) Shall utilize, support, assist, and cooperate with the 49403
governor's committee on employment of the handicapped;49404

       (J) May delegate to any officer or employee of the commission 49405
any necessary powers and duties, except that the commission shall 49406
delegate to the administrator of the commission, as provided in 49407
section 3304.14 of the Revised Code, the power and duty to 49408
administer the daily operation and provision of vocational 49409
rehabilitation services;49410

       (K) May take any other necessary or appropriate action for 49411
cooperation with public and private agencies and organizations 49412
which may include:49413

       (1) Reciprocal agreements with other states to provide for 49414
the vocational rehabilitation of individuals within the states 49415
concerned;49416

       (2) Contracts or other arrangements with public and other 49417
nonprofit agencies and organizations for the construction or 49418
establishment and operation of vocational rehabilitation programs 49419
and facilities;49420

       (3) Cooperative arrangements with the federal government for 49421
carrying out sections 3304.11 to 3304.27 of the Revised Code, the 49422
"Vocational Rehabilitation Act," 41 Stat. 735 (1920), 29 U.S.C. 49423
31, as amended, or other federal statutes pertaining to vocational 49424
rehabilitation, and to this end, may adopt plans and methods of 49425
administration found necessary by the federal government for the 49426
efficient operation of any joint arrangements or the efficient 49427
application of any federal statutes;49428

       (4) Upon the designation of the governor, performing 49429
functions and services for the federal government relating to 49430
individuals under a physical or mental disability.49431

       (L) May take any appropriate action necessary to obtain 49432
federal funds in the maximum amount and most advantageous 49433
proportion possible;49434

       (M) May conduct research and demonstration projects, 49435
including inquiries concerning the causes of blindness and its 49436
prevention, provide training and instruction, including the 49437
establishment and maintenance of research fellowships and 49438
traineeships along with all necessary stipends and allowances, 49439
disseminate information, and provide technical assistance relating 49440
to vocational rehabilitation;49441

       (N) May plan, establish, and operate programs, facilities, 49442
and services relating to vocational rehabilitation;49443

       (O) May accept and hold, invest, reinvest, or otherwise use 49444
gifts made for the purpose of furthering vocational 49445
rehabilitation;49446

       (P) May ameliorate the condition of the aged blind or other 49447
severely disabled individuals by establishing a program of home 49448
visitation by commission employees for the purpose of instruction;49449

       (Q) May establish and manage small business enterprises that 49450
are operated by persons with a substantial handicap to employment, 49451
including blind persons;49452

       (R) May purchase from insurance companies licensed to do 49453
business in this state any insurance deemed necessary by the 49454
commission for the efficient operation of a suitable vending 49455
facility as defined in division (A) of section 3304.28 of the 49456
Revised Code;49457

       (S) May accept directly from any state agency, and any state 49458
agency may transfer directly to the commission, surplus computers 49459
and computer equipment to be used for any purposes the commission 49460
considers appropriate, notwithstanding sections 125.12 to 125.14 49461
of the Revised CodeThe employment outcomes achieved by eligible 49462
individuals receiving services under sections 3304.11 to 3304.27 49463
of the Revised Code, including the availability of health and 49464
other employment benefits in connection with those employment 49465
outcomes.49466

       Sec. 3304.14.        Sec. 3304.15. (A) There is hereby created the 49467
opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities agency. The agency is 49468
the designated state unit authorized under the "Rehabilitation Act 49469
of 1973," 87 Stat. 355, 29 U.S.C. 701, as amended, to provide 49470
vocational rehabilitation to eligible persons with disabilities.49471

       (B) The governor shall appoint an administratorexecutive 49472
director of the rehabilitation services commissionopportunities 49473
for Ohioans with disabilities agency to serve at the pleasure of 49474
the governor and shall fix the administrator'sexecutive 49475
director's compensation. The administratorexecutive director49476
shall devote the administrator'sexecutive director's entire time 49477
to the duties of the administrator'sexecutive director's office, 49478
shall hold no other office or position of trust and profit, and 49479
shall engage in no other business during the administrator's49480
executive director's term of office. The governor may grant the 49481
administratorexecutive director the authority to appoint, remove, 49482
and discipline without regard to sex, race, creed, color, age, or 49483
national origin, such other professional, administrative, and 49484
clerical staff members as are necessary to carry out the functions 49485
and duties of the commissionagency.49486

       (B)(1)The executive director of the opportunities for 49487
Ohioans with disabilities agency is the executive and 49488
administrative officer of the agency. Whenever the Revised Code 49489
imposes a duty on or requires an action of the agency, the 49490
executive director shall perform the duty or action on behalf of 49491
the agency. The executive director may establish procedures for 49492
all of the following:49493

       (1) The governance of the agency;49494

       (2) The conduct of agency employees and officers;49495

       (3) The performance of agency business;49496

       (4) The custody, use, and preservation of agency records, 49497
papers, books, documents, and property.49498

       (C) The administratorexecutive director shall have exclusive 49499
authority to administer the daily operation and provision of 49500
vocational rehabilitation services under this chapter. In 49501
exercising that authority, the executive director may do all of 49502
the following:49503

       (1) Adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 49504
Revised Code;49505

       (2) Prepare and submit an annual report to the governor;49506

       (3) Certify any disbursement of funds available to the agency 49507
for vocational rehabilitation activities;49508

       (4) Take appropriate action to guarantee rights of services 49509
to people with disabilities;49510

       (5) Consult with and advise other state agencies and 49511
coordinate programs for persons with disabilities;49512

       (6) Comply with the requirements for match as part of budget 49513
submission;49514

       (7) Establish research and demonstration projects;49515

       (8) Accept, hold, invest, reinvest, or otherwise use gifts to 49516
further vocational rehabilitation;49517

       (9) For the purposes of the business enterprise program 49518
administered under sections 3304.28 to 3304.35 of the Revised 49519
Code:49520

       (a) Establish and manage small business entities owned or 49521
operated by visually impaired persons;49522

       (b) Purchase insurance;49523

       (c) Accept computers.49524

       (10) Enter into contracts and other agreements for the 49525
provision of services.49526

       (2)(D) The administratorexecutive director shall establish a 49527
fee schedule for vocational rehabilitation services in accordance 49528
with 34 C.F.R. 361.50.49529

       Sec. 3304.15.        Sec. 3304.16.  The rehabilitation services commission49530
executive director of the opportunities for Ohioans with 49531
disabilities agency shall establish administrative subdivisions 49532
under its control as it determines necessary or appropriate to 49533
carry out itsthe agency's functions and duties, but there shall 49534
be a bureau of services for the visually impaired and a bureau of 49535
vocational rehabilitation, each of which has as its head a deputy49536
director appointed by the administrator, subject to commission49537
approvalexecutive director. The commissionexecutive director49538
shall prescribe the budgets for the government of each division, 49539
and rules for the conduct of its employees, the performance of its 49540
business, and the custody, use, and preservation of the records, 49541
papers, books, documents, and property pertaining thereto.49542

       Sec. 3304.17.  The rehabilitation services commission49543
opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities agency shall provide 49544
vocational rehabilitation services to all eligible handicapped49545
persons with disabilities, including any handicapped person with a 49546
disability who is eligible under the terms of an agreement or 49547
arrangement with another state or with the federal government.49548

       Sec. 3304.18.  The treasurer of state shall be the custodian 49549
of all moneys received from the federal government for vocational 49550
rehabilitation programs and shall disburse the money upon the 49551
certification of the rehabilitation services commissionexecutive 49552
director of the opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities 49553
agency. If federal funds are not available to the state for 49554
vocational rehabilitation purposes, the governor shall include as 49555
part of histhe governor's biennial budget request to the general 49556
assembly a request for funds sufficient to support the activities 49557
of the commissionagency.49558

       Sec. 3304.181.  If the total of all funds available from 49559
nonfederal sources to support the activities of the rehabilitation 49560
services commissionopportunities for Ohioans with disabilities 49561
agency does not comply with the expenditure requirements of 34 49562
C.F.R. 361.60 and 361.62 for those activities or would cause the 49563
state to lose an allotment or fail to receive a reallotment under 49564
34 C.F.R. 361.65, the commissionagency may solicit additional 49565
funds from, and enter into agreements for the use of those funds 49566
with, private or public entities, including local government 49567
entities of this state. The commissionagency may continue to 49568
solicit additional funds and enter into agreements until the total 49569
funding available is sufficient for the commissionagency to 49570
receive federal funds at the maximum amount and in the most 49571
advantageous proportion possible.49572

       Any agreement entered into between the commissionagency and 49573
a private or public entity to provide funds under this section 49574
shall be in accordance with 34 C.F.R. 361.28 and section 3304.182 49575
of the Revised Code.49576

       Sec. 3304.182.  Any agreement between the rehabilitation 49577
services commissionopportunities for Ohioans with disabilities 49578
agency and a private or public entity providing funds under 49579
section 3304.181 of the Revised Code may permit the commission49580
agency to receive a specified percentage of the funds, but the 49581
percentage shall be not more than twenty-five per cent of the 49582
total funds available under the agreement. The commissionagency49583
may terminate an agreement at any time for just cause. It may 49584
terminate an agreement for any other reason by giving at least 49585
thirty days' notice to the public or private entity.49586

       Any services provided under an agreement entered into under 49587
section 3304.181 of the Revised Code shall be provided by a person 49588
or government entity that meets the accreditation standards 49589
established in rules adopted by the commissionagency under 49590
section 3304.163304.15 of the Revised Code.49591

       Sec. 3304.19.  The right of a handicapped person with a 49592
disability to living maintenance under sections 3304.11 to 49593
3304.27, inclusive, of the Revised Code, is not transferable or 49594
assignable at law or in equity, and none of the money paid or 49595
payable or rights existing under this actchapter are subject to 49596
execution, levy, attachment, garnishment, or other legal process, 49597
or to the operation of any bankruptcy or insolvency law.49598

       Sec. 3304.20.  Any person applying for or receiving 49599
vocational rehabilitation services who is dissatisfied with regard 49600
to the furnishing or denial of services, may file a request for an 49601
administrative review and redetermination of that action in 49602
accordance with rules of the rehabilitation services commission49603
opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities agency. When the 49604
person is dissatisfied with the finding of this administrative 49605
review, hethe person is entitled, in accordance with commission49606
agency rules and in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 49607
Code, to a fair hearing before the administratorexecutive 49608
director of the rehabilitation services commissionagency.49609

       Sec. 3304.21.  No person shall, except for the purposes of 49610
sections 3304.11 to 3304.27, inclusive, of the Revised Code, and 49611
in accordance with the rules established by the rehabilitation 49612
services commissionopportunities for Ohioans with disabilities 49613
agency, solicit, disclose, receive, make use of, authorize, 49614
knowingly permit, participate in, or acquiesce in the use of any 49615
list of names or information concerning persons applying for or 49616
receiving any services from the commissionagency, which 49617
information is directly or indirectly derived from the records of 49618
the agency or is acquired in the performance of the person's 49619
official duties.49620

       Sec. 3304.22.  No officer or employee of the rehabilitation 49621
servicesopportunities for Ohioans with disabilities commission, 49622
the opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities agency, or any 49623
person engaged in the administration of a vocational 49624
rehabilitation program sponsored by or affiliated with the state 49625
shall use or permit the use of any vocational rehabilitation 49626
program for the purpose of interfering with an election for any 49627
partisan political purpose; solicit or receive money for a 49628
partisan political purpose; or require any other person to 49629
contribute any service or money for a partisan political purpose. 49630
Whoever violates this section shall be removed from histhe 49631
officer's or employee's office or employment.49632

       Sec. 3304.25.  The members of the bureauconsumer advisory 49633
committeescommittee appointed under section 3304.14 of the 49634
Revised Code shall receive no compensation for their services 49635
except their actual and necessary traveling and other expenses 49636
incurred in the performance of their official duties, which shall 49637
first be approved by the administratorexecutive director of the 49638
rehabilitation services commissionopportunities for Ohioans with 49639
disabilities agency.49640

       Sec. 3304.27.  All vocational rehabilitation services made 49641
available under sections 3304.11 to 3304.27, inclusive, of the 49642
Revised Code, are made available subject to amendment or repeal of 49643
those sections 3304.11 to 3304.27, inclusive, of the Revised Code, 49644
and no disabled person with a disability shall have any claim by 49645
reason of histhe person's vocational rehabilitation being 49646
affected in any way by such an amendment or repeal.49647

       Sec. 3304.28.  As used in sections 3304.28 to 3304.34 of the 49648
Revised Code:49649

       (A) "Suitable vending facility" means automatic vending 49650
machines, cafeterias, snack bars, cart service shelters, counters, 49651
and other appropriate auxiliary food service equipment determined 49652
to be necessary by the bureau of services for the visually 49653
impaired for the automatic or manual dispensing of foods, 49654
beverages, and other such commodities for sale by persons, no 49655
fewer than one-half of whom are blind, under the supervision of a 49656
licensed blind vendor or an employee of the commission49657
opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities agency.49658

       (B) "Blind" means either of the following:49659

       (1) Vision twenty/two hundred or less in the better eye with 49660
proper correction;49661

       (2) Field defect in the better eye with proper correction49662
whichthat contracts the peripheral field so that the diameter of 49663
the visual field subtends an angle no greater than twenty degrees.49664

       (C) "Governmental property" means any real property, 49665
building, or facility owned, leased, or rented by the state or any 49666
board, commission, department, division, or other unit or agency 49667
thereof, but does not include any institution under the management 49668
of the department of rehabilitation and correction pursuant to 49669
section 5120.05 of the Revised Code, or under the management of 49670
the department of youth services created pursuant to section 49671
5139.01 of the Revised Code.49672

       Sec. 3304.41.  The rehabilitation services commission49673
opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities agency shall establish 49674
and administer a program for the use of funds appropriated for 49675
that purpose to provide personal care assistance to enable 49676
eligible severely physically disabled persons to live 49677
independently or work, shall adopt rules in accordance with 49678
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary to carry out the 49679
purposes of this section, and shall apply to the controlling board 49680
for the release of the funds.49681

       Sec. 3305.03.  (A) The Ohio board of regents shall designate 49682
the entities that are eligible to provide investment options under 49683
alternative retirement plans maintained by public institutions of 49684
higher education. The board shall accept and review applications 49685
from entities seeking designation as a vendor. The board shall not 49686
designate an entity as a vendor unless the entity meets the 49687
requirements described in division (B) of this section.49688

       (B) To be eligible for designation as a vendor, an entity 49689
must meet both of the following requirements:49690

       (1) The entity must be authorized to conduct business in this 49691
state with regard to the investment options to be offered under an 49692
alternative retirement plan maintained by a public institution of 49693
higher education.49694

       (2) The entity must offermeet one of the following 49695
requirements:49696

       (a) Have provided investment options for not less than ten 49697
years under alternative retirement plans maintained by public 49698
institutions of higher education in this state;49699

       (b) Offer the same or similar investment options under 49700
alternative retirement plans, optional retirement plans, or 49701
similar types of plans with respect to which all of the following 49702
apply:49703

       (a)(i) The plans are defined contribution plans that are 49704
qualified plans under Internal Revenue Code 401(a) or 403(b).49705

       (b)(ii) The plans are maintained by institutions of higher 49706
education in at least ten other states.49707

       (c)(iii) The plans are established as primary retirement 49708
plans that are alternatives to or a component of the applicable 49709
state retirement system.49710

       (C) In determining whether to designate an entity as a 49711
vendor, the board of regents shall identify, consider, and 49712
evaluate all of the following:49713

       (1) The experience of the entity in providing in this state 49714
or other states investment options under alternative retirement 49715
plans, optional retirement plans, or similar types of plans that 49716
meet the requirements of division (B)(2)(a) or (b) of this 49717
section, as applicable;49718

       (2) The potential effectiveness of the entity in recruiting 49719
eligible employees to select that entity for purposes of 49720
participating in an alternative retirement plan and in retaining 49721
those employees' accounts;49722

       (3) Whether the entity intends to offer a broad range of 49723
investment options to the electing employees;49724

       (4) The suitability of the investment options to the needs 49725
and interests of the electing employees and their beneficiaries;49726

       (5) The capability of the entity to offer sufficient 49727
information to the electing employees and their beneficiaries to 49728
make informed decisions with regard to investment options offered 49729
by the entity;49730

       (6) The capability of the entity to perform in a manner that 49731
is in the best interests of the electing employees and their 49732
beneficiaries;49733

       (7) The fees and expenses associated with the entity's 49734
investment options and the manner in which the entity intends to 49735
disclose those fees and expenses;49736

       (8) The rights and benefits to be provided under the 49737
investment options;49738

       (9) The capability of the entity to provide the rights and 49739
benefits under the investment options;49740

       (10) Comments submitted by a public institution of higher 49741
education under section 3305.031 of the Revised Code;49742

       (11) Any other matters the board of regents considers 49743
relevant.49744

       (D) The board of regents shall conduct periodic reviews of 49745
each entity designated as a vendor and the investment options 49746
being offered to ensure that the requirements and purposes of this 49747
chapter are being met. The reviews of a vendor shall occur not 49748
less frequently than once every three years.49749

       If it finds that the vendor is not in compliance with the 49750
requirements of this chapter or the vendor is not satisfactorily 49751
meeting the purposes of this chapter, the board shall rescind the 49752
vendor's designation.49753

       (E) Notwithstanding sections 125.01 to 125.11 of the Revised 49754
Code, designation of a vendor or the execution of any agreement 49755
under this chapter is not subject to competitive bidding under 49756
those sections.49757

       Sec. 3307.51.  (A) The state teachers retirement board shall 49758
have prepared annually by or under the supervision of an actuary 49759
an actuarial valuation of the pension assets, liabilities, and 49760
funding requirements of the STRS defined benefit plan. The actuary 49761
shall complete the valuation in accordance with actuarial 49762
standards of practice promulgated by the actuarial standards board 49763
of the American academy of actuaries and prepare a report of the 49764
valuation. The report shall include all of the following:49765

       (1) A summary of the benefit provisions evaluated;49766

       (2) A summary of the census data and financial information 49767
used in the valuation;49768

       (3) A description of the actuarial assumptions, actuarial 49769
cost method, and asset valuation method used in the valuation, 49770
including a statement of the assumed rate of payroll growth and 49771
assumed rate of growth or decline in the number of members 49772
contributing to the retirement system;49773

       (4) A summary of findings that includes a statement of the 49774
actuarial accrued pension liabilities and unfunded actuarial 49775
accrued pension liabilities;49776

       (5) A schedule showing the effect of any changes in the 49777
benefit provisions, actuarial assumptions, or cost methods since 49778
the last annual actuarial valuation;49779

       (6) A statement of whether contributions to the retirement 49780
system are expected to be sufficient to satisfy the funding 49781
objectives established by the board.49782

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 49783
study council, the director of budget and management, and the 49784
standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate 49785
with primary responsibility for retirement legislation immediately 49786
upon its availability and not later than the first day of January 49787
following the year for which the valuation was made.49788

       (B) At such times as the state teachers retirement board 49789
determines, and at least once in each quinquennial period, the 49790
board shall have prepared by or under the supervision of an 49791
actuary an actuarial investigation of the mortality, service, and 49792
other experience of the members, retirants, and beneficiaries of 49793
the system, and other system retirants as defined in section 49794
3307.35 of the Revised Code to update the actuarial assumptions 49795
used in the actuarial valuation required by division (A) of this 49796
section. The actuary shall prepare a report of the actuarial 49797
investigation. The report shall be prepared and any recommended 49798
changes in actuarial assumptions shall be made in accordance with 49799
the actuarial standards of practice promulgated by the actuarial 49800
standards board of the American academy of actuaries. The report 49801
shall include all of the following:49802

       (1) A summary of relevant decrement and economic assumption 49803
experience observed over the period of the investigation;49804

       (2) Recommended changes in actuarial assumptions to be used 49805
in subsequent actuarial valuations required by division (A) of 49806
this section;49807

       (3) A measurement of the financial effect of the recommended 49808
changes in actuarial assumptions.49809

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 49810
study council and the standing committees of the house of 49811
representatives and the senate with primary responsibility for 49812
retirement legislation not later than the first day of May 49813
following the last fiscal year of the period the report covers.49814

       (C) The board may at any time request the actuary to make any 49815
other studies or actuarial valuations to determine the adequacy of 49816
the normal and deficiency rates of contribution provided by 49817
section 3307.28 of the Revised Code, and those rates may be 49818
adjusted by the board, as recommended by the actuary, effective as 49819
of the first of any year thereafter.49820

       (D) The board shall have prepared by or under the supervision 49821
of an actuary an actuarial analysis of any introduced legislation 49822
expected to have a measurable financial impact on the retirement 49823
system. The actuarial analysis shall be completed in accordance 49824
with the actuarial standards of practice promulgated by the 49825
actuarial standards board of the American academy of actuaries. 49826
The actuary shall prepare a report of the actuarial analysis, 49827
which shall include all of the following:49828

       (1) A summary of the statutory changes that are being 49829
evaluated;49830

       (2) A description of or reference to the actuarial 49831
assumptions and actuarial cost method used in the report;49832

       (3) A description of the participant group or groups included 49833
in the report;49834

       (4) A statement of the financial impact of the legislation, 49835
including the resulting increase, if any, in the employer normal 49836
cost percentage; the increase, if any, in actuarial accrued 49837
liabilities; and the per cent of payroll that would be required to 49838
amortize the increase in actuarial accrued liabilities as a level 49839
per cent of covered payroll for all active members over a period 49840
not to exceed thirty years;49841

       (5) A statement of whether the scheduled contributions to the 49842
system after the proposed change is enacted are expected to be 49843
sufficient to satisfy the funding objectives established by the 49844
board.49845

       Not later than sixty days from the date of introduction of 49846
the legislation, the board shall submit a copy of the actuarial 49847
analysis to the legislative service commission, the standing 49848
committees of the house of representatives and the senate with 49849
primary responsibility for retirement legislation, and the Ohio 49850
retirement study council.49851

       (E) The board shall have prepared annually a report giving a 49852
full accounting of the revenues and costs relating to the 49853
provision of benefits under section 3307.39 of the Revised Code. 49854
The report shall be made as of June 30, 1997, and the thirtieth 49855
day of June of each year thereafter. The report shall include the 49856
following:49857

       (1) A description of the statutory authority for the benefits 49858
provided;49859

       (2) A summary of the benefits;49860

       (3) A summary of the eligibility requirements for the 49861
benefits;49862

       (4) A statement of the number of participants eligible for 49863
the benefits;49864

       (5) A description of the accounting, asset valuation, and 49865
funding method used to provide the benefits;49866

       (6) A statement of the net assets available for the 49867
provisions of benefits as of the last day of the fiscal year;49868

       (7) A statement of any changes in the net assets available 49869
for the provision of benefits, including participant and employer 49870
contributions, net investment income, administrative expenses, and 49871
benefits provided to participants, as of the last day of the 49872
fiscal year;49873

       (8) For the last six consecutive fiscal years, a schedule of 49874
the net assets available for the benefits, the annual cost of 49875
benefits, administrative expenses incurred, and annual employer 49876
contributions allocated for the provision of benefits;49877

       (9) A description of any significant changes that affect the 49878
comparability of the report required under this division;49879

       (10) A statement of the amount paid under division (B) of 49880
section 3307.39 of the Revised Code.49881

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 49882
study council, the director of budget and management, and the 49883
standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate 49884
with primary responsibility for retirement legislation immediately 49885
upon its availability and not later than the thirty-first day of 49886
December following the year for which the report was made.49887

       Sec. 3309.21.  (A) The school employees retirement board 49888
shall have prepared annually by or under the supervision of an 49889
actuary an actuarial valuation of the pension assets, liabilities, 49890
and funding requirements of the school employees retirement system 49891
as established pursuant to this chapter. The actuary shall 49892
complete the valuation in accordance with actuarial standards of 49893
practice promulgated by the actuarial standards board of the 49894
American academy of actuaries and prepare a report of the 49895
valuation. The report shall include all of the following:49896

       (1) A summary of the benefit provisions evaluated;49897

       (2) A summary of the census data and financial information 49898
used in the valuation;49899

       (3) A description of the actuarial assumptions, actuarial 49900
cost method, and asset valuation method used in the valuation, 49901
including a statement of the assumed rate of payroll growth and 49902
assumed rate of growth or decline in the number of members 49903
contributing to the retirement system;49904

       (4) A summary of findings that includes a statement of the 49905
actuarial accrued pension liabilities and unfunded actuarial 49906
accrued pension liabilities;49907

       (5) A schedule showing the effect of any changes in the 49908
benefit provisions, actuarial assumptions, or cost methods since 49909
the last annual actuarial valuation;49910

       (6) A statement of whether contributions to the retirement 49911
system are expected to be sufficient to satisfy the funding 49912
objectives established by the board.49913

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 49914
study council, the director of budget and management, and the 49915
standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate 49916
with primary responsibility for retirement legislation immediately 49917
upon its availability and not later than the first day of May 49918
following the year for which the valuation was made.49919

       (B) At such times as the school employees retirement board 49920
determines, and at least once in each quinquennial period, the 49921
board shall have prepared by or under the supervision of an 49922
actuary an actuarial investigation of the mortality, service, and 49923
other experience of the members, retirants, and beneficiaries of 49924
the retirement system, and SERS retirants and other system 49925
retirants as defined in section 3309.341 of the Revised Code to 49926
update the actuarial assumptions used in the actuarial valuation 49927
required by division (A) of this section. The actuary shall 49928
prepare a report of the actuarial investigation. The report shall 49929
be prepared and any recommended changes in actuarial assumptions 49930
shall be made in accordance with the actuarial standards of 49931
practice promulgated by the actuarial standards board of the 49932
American academy of actuaries. The report shall include all of the 49933
following:49934

       (1) A summary of relevant decrement and economic assumption 49935
experience observed over the period of the investigation;49936

       (2) Recommended changes in actuarial assumptions to be used 49937
in subsequent actuarial valuations required by division (A) of 49938
this section;49939

       (3) A measurement of the financial effect of the recommended 49940
changes in actuarial assumptions.49941

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 49942
study council and the standing committees of the house of 49943
representatives and the senate with primary responsibility for 49944
retirement legislation not later than the first day of May 49945
following the last fiscal year of the period the report covers.49946

       (C) The board may at any time request the actuary to make any 49947
studies or actuarial valuations to determine the adequacy of the 49948
rates of contribution as provided by section 3309.49 of the 49949
Revised Code, and those rates may be adjusted by the board, as 49950
recommended by the actuary, effective as of the first of any year 49951
thereafter.49952

       (D) The board shall have prepared by or under the supervision 49953
of an actuary an actuarial analysis of any introduced legislation 49954
expected to have a measurable financial impact on the retirement 49955
system. The actuarial analysis shall be completed in accordance 49956
with the actuarial standards of practice promulgated by the 49957
actuarial standards board of the American academy of actuaries. 49958
The actuary shall prepare a report of the actuarial analysis, 49959
which shall include all of the following:49960

       (1) A summary of the statutory changes that are being 49961
evaluated;49962

       (2) A description of or reference to the actuarial 49963
assumptions and actuarial cost method used in the report;49964

       (3) A description of the participant group or groups included 49965
in the report;49966

       (4) A statement of the financial impact of the legislation, 49967
including the resulting increase, if any, in the employer normal 49968
cost percentage; the increase, if any, in actuarial accrued 49969
liabilities; and the per cent of payroll that would be required to 49970
amortize the increase in actuarial accrued liabilities as a level 49971
per cent of covered payroll for all active members over a period 49972
not to exceed thirty years;49973

       (5) A statement of whether the scheduled contributions to the 49974
system after the proposed change is enacted are expected to be 49975
sufficient to satisfy the funding objectives established by the 49976
board.49977

       Not later than sixty days from the date of introduction of 49978
the legislation, the board shall submit a copy of the actuarial 49979
analysis to the legislative service commission, the standing 49980
committees of the house of representatives and the senate with 49981
primary responsibility for retirement legislation, and the Ohio 49982
retirement study council.49983

       (E) The board shall have prepared annually a report giving a 49984
full accounting of the revenues and costs relating to the 49985
provision of benefits under sections 3309.375 and 3309.69 of the 49986
Revised Code. The report shall be made as of June 30, 1997, and 49987
the thirtieth day of June of each year thereafter. The report 49988
shall include the following:49989

       (1) A description of the statutory authority for the benefits 49990
provided;49991

       (2) A summary of the benefits;49992

       (3) A summary of the eligibility requirements for the 49993
benefits;49994

       (4) A statement of the number of participants eligible for 49995
the benefits;49996

       (5) A description of the accounting, asset valuation, and 49997
funding method used to provide the benefits;49998

       (6) A statement of the net assets available for the provision 49999
of the benefits as of the last day of the fiscal year;50000

       (7) A statement of any changes in the net assets available 50001
for the provision of benefits, including participant and employer 50002
contributions, net investment income, administrative expenses, and 50003
benefits provided to participants, as of the last day of the 50004
fiscal year;50005

       (8) For the last six consecutive fiscal years, a schedule of 50006
the net assets available for the benefits, the annual cost of 50007
benefits, administrative expenses incurred, and annual employer 50008
contributions allocated for the provision of benefits;50009

       (9) A description of any significant changes that affect the 50010
comparability of the report required under this division;50011

       (10) A statement of the amount paid under division (E) of 50012
section 3309.69 of the Revised Code.50013

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 50014
study council, the director of budget and management, and the 50015
standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate 50016
with primary responsibility for retirement legislation immediately 50017
upon its availability and not later than the thirty-first day of 50018
December following the year for which the report was made.50019

       Sec. 3310.01.  As used in sections 3310.01 to 3310.17 of the 50020
Revised Code:50021

       (A) "Chartered nonpublic school" means a nonpublic school 50022
that holds a valid charter issued by the state board of education 50023
under section 3301.16 of the Revised Code and meets the standards 50024
established for such schools in rules adopted by the state board.50025

       (B) An "eligible student" is a student who satisfies the 50026
conditions specified in section 3310.03 or 3310.032 of the Revised 50027
Code.50028

       (C) "Parent" has the same meaning as in section 3313.98 of 50029
the Revised Code.50030

       (D) "Resident district" means the school district in which a 50031
student is entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 50032
3313.65 of the Revised Code.50033

       (E) "School year" has the same meaning as in section 3313.62 50034
of the Revised Code.50035

       Sec. 3310.02. (A) The educational choice scholarship pilot 50036
program is hereby established. Under the program, the department 50037
of education annually shall pay scholarships to attend chartered 50038
nonpublic schools in accordance with section 3310.08 of the 50039
Revised Code for up to the following number of eligible students:50040

       (1) Thirty thousand in the 2011-2012 school year;50041

       (2) Sixty thousand in the 2012-2013 school year and 50042
thereafter. 50043

       (B) If the number of students who apply for a scholarship 50044
exceeds the number of scholarships available under division (A) of 50045
this section for the applicable school year, the department shall 50046
award scholarships in the following order of priority:50047

       (1) First, to eligible students who received scholarships in 50048
the prior school year;50049

       (2) Second, to eligible students with family incomes at or 50050
below two hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines, as 50051
defined in section 5101.46 of the Revised Code, who qualify under 50052
division (A) of section 3310.03 of the Revised Code. If the number 50053
of students described in division (B)(2) of this section who apply 50054
for a scholarship exceeds the number of available scholarships 50055
after awards are made under division (B)(1) of this section, the 50056
department shall select students described in division (B)(2) of 50057
this section by lot to receive any remaining scholarships.50058

        (3) Third, to other eligible students who qualify under 50059
division (A) of section 3310.03 of the Revised Code. If the number 50060
of students described in division (B)(3) of this section who apply 50061
for a scholarship exceeds the number of available scholarships 50062
after awards are made under divisions (B)(1) and (2) of this 50063
section, the department shall select students described in 50064
division (B)(3) of this section by lot to receive any remaining 50065
scholarships.50066

       (4) Fourth, to eligible students with family incomes at or 50067
below two hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines who 50068
qualify under division (B)(D) of section 3310.03 of the Revised 50069
Code. If the number of students described in division (B)(4) of 50070
this section who apply for a scholarship exceeds the number of 50071
available scholarships after awards are made under divisions 50072
(B)(1) to (3) of this section, the department shall select 50073
students described in division (B)(4) of this section by lot to 50074
receive any remaining scholarships.50075

       (5) Fifth, to other eligible students who qualify under 50076
division (B)(D) of section 3310.03 of the Revised Code. If the 50077
number of students described in division (B)(5) of this section 50078
who apply for a scholarship exceeds the number of available 50079
scholarships after awards are made under divisions (B)(1) to (4) 50080
of this section, the department shall select students described in 50081
division (B)(5) of this section by lot to receive any remaining 50082
scholarships.50083

       (6) Sixth, to eligible students with family incomes at or 50084
below two hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines who 50085
qualify under division (B) of section 3310.03 of the Revised Code. 50086
If the number of students described in division (B)(6) of this 50087
section who apply for a scholarship exceeds the number of 50088
available scholarships after awards are made under divisions 50089
(B)(1) to (5) of this section, the department shall select 50090
students described in division (B)(6) of this section by lot to 50091
receive any remaining scholarships.50092

        (7) Seventh, to other eligible students who qualify under 50093
division (B) of section 3310.03 of the Revised Code. If the number 50094
of students described in division (B)(7) of this section who apply 50095
for a scholarship exceeds the number of available scholarships 50096
after awards are made under divisions (B)(1) to (6) of this 50097
section, the department shall select students described in 50098
division (B)(7) of this section by lot to receive any remaining 50099
scholarships. 50100

       Sec. 3310.03.  A student is an "eligible student" for 50101
purposes of the educational choice scholarship pilot program if 50102
the student's resident district is not a school district in which 50103
the pilot project scholarship program is operating under sections 50104
3313.974 to 3313.979 of the Revised Code and the student satisfies 50105
one of the conditions in division (A), (B), or (C), or (D) of this 50106
section:50107

       (A)(1) The student is enrolled in a school building operated 50108
by the student's resident district that, on the report card issued 50109
under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code published prior to the 50110
first day of July of the school year for which a scholarship is 50111
sought, did not receive a rating as described in division (G)(H)50112
of this section, and to which any or a combination of any of the 50113
following apply for two of the three most recent report cards 50114
published prior to the first day of July of the school year for 50115
which a scholarship is sought:50116

       (a) The building was declared to be in a state of academic 50117
emergency or academic watch under section 3302.03 of the Revised 50118
Code as that section existed prior to the effective date of this 50119
amendmentMarch 22, 2013.50120

       (b) The building received a grade of "D" or "F" for the 50121
performance index score under division (A)(1)(b) or (B)(1)(b) of 50122
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and for the value-added 50123
progress dimension under division (A)(1)(e) or (B)(1)(e) of 50124
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code for the 2012-2013 or 2013-2014 50125
school year, or both; or if the building serves only grades ten 50126
through twelve, the building received a grade of "D" or "F" for 50127
the performance index score under division (A)(1)(b) or (B)(1)(b) 50128
of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and had a four-year 50129
adjusted cohort graduation rate of less than seventy-five per 50130
cent.50131

        (c) The building received an overall grade of "D" or "F" 50132
under division (C)(3) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code or a 50133
grade of "F" for the value-added progress dimension under division 50134
(C)(1)(e) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code for the 2014-2015 50135
school year or any school year thereafter.50136

       (2) The student is eligible to enroll in kindergartenwill be 50137
enrolling in school in this state for the first time in the school 50138
year for which a scholarship is sought, will be at least five 50139
years of age by the first day of January of the school year for 50140
which a scholarship is sought, and otherwise would be assigned 50141
under section 3319.01 of the Revised Code in the school year for 50142
which a scholarship is sought, to a school building described in 50143
division (A)(1) of this section.50144

       (3) The student is enrolled in a community school established 50145
under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code but otherwise would be 50146
assigned under section 3319.01 of the Revised Code to a building 50147
described in division (A)(1) of this section.50148

       (4) The student is enrolled in a school building operated by 50149
the student's resident district or in a community school 50150
established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code and otherwise 50151
would be assigned under section 3319.01 of the Revised Code to a 50152
school building described in division (A)(1) of this section in 50153
the school year for which the scholarship is sought.50154

       (5) The student is eligible to enroll in kindergarten inwill 50155
be both enrolling in school in this state for the first time and 50156
at least five years of age by the first day of January of the 50157
school year for which a scholarship is sought, or is enrolled in a 50158
community school established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised 50159
Code, and all of the following apply to the student's resident 50160
district:50161

        (a) The district has in force an intradistrict open 50162
enrollment policy under which no student in kindergarten or the 50163
community school student's grade level, respectively, is 50164
automatically assigned to a particular school building;50165

       (b) In the most recent rating published prior to the first 50166
day of July of the school year for which scholarship is sought, 50167
the district did not receive a rating described in division (G)(H)50168
of this section, and in at least two of the three most recent 50169
report cards published prior to the first day of July of that 50170
school year, any or a combination of the following apply to the 50171
district:50172

        (i) The district was declared to be in a state of academic 50173
emergency under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code as it existed 50174
prior to the effective date of this amendmentMarch 22, 2013.50175

        (ii) The district received a grade of "D" or "F" for the 50176
performance index score under division (A)(1)(b) or (B)(1)(b) of 50177
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and for the value-added 50178
progress dimension under division (A)(1)(e) or (B)(1)(e) of 50179
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code for the 2012-2013 or 2013-2014 50180
school year, or both.50181

        (c) The district received an overall grade of "D" or "F" 50182
under division (C)(3) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code or a 50183
grade of "F" for the value-added progress dimension under division 50184
(C)(1)(e) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code for the 2014-2015 50185
school year or any school year thereafter.50186

       (B)(1) The student is enrolled in a school building operated 50187
by the student's resident district and to which both of the 50188
following apply:50189

       (a) The building was ranked, for at least two of the three 50190
most recent rankings published under section 3302.21 of the 50191
Revised Code prior to the first day of July of the school year for 50192
which a scholarship is sought, in the lowest ten per cent of all 50193
public school buildings according to performance index score under 50194
section 3302.21 of the Revised Code.50195

       (b) The building was not declared to be excellent or 50196
effective, or the equivalent of such ratings as determined by the 50197
department of education, under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code 50198
in the most recent rating published prior to the first day of July 50199
of the school year for which a scholarship is sought.50200

       (2) The student is eligible to enroll in kindergartenwill be 50201
enrolling in school in this state for the first time in the school 50202
year for which a scholarship is sought, will be at least five 50203
years of age, as defined in section 3321.01 of the Revised Code, 50204
by the first day of January of the school year for which a 50205
scholarship is sought, and otherwise would be assigned under 50206
section 3319.01 of the Revised Code in the school year for which a 50207
scholarship is sought, to a school building described in division 50208
(B)(1) of this section.50209

       (3) The student is enrolled in a community school established 50210
under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code but otherwise would be 50211
assigned under section 3319.01 of the Revised Code to a building 50212
described in division (B)(1) of this section.50213

       (4) The student is enrolled in a school building operated by 50214
the student's resident district or in a community school 50215
established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code and otherwise 50216
would be assigned under section 3319.01 of the Revised Code to a 50217
school building described in division (B)(1) of this section in 50218
the school year for which the scholarship is sought.50219

       (C) The student is enrolled in a nonpublic school at the time 50220
the school is granted a charter by the state board of education 50221
under section 3301.16 of the Revised Code and the student meets 50222
the standards of division (B) of section 3310.031 of the Revised 50223
Code.50224

        (D) For the 2016-2017 school year and each school year 50225
thereafter, the student is in any of grades kindergarten through 50226
three, is enrolled in a school building that is operated by the 50227
student's resident district or will be enrolling in school in this 50228
state for the first time in the school year for which a 50229
scholarship is sought, and to which both of the following apply:50230

        (1) The building, in at least two of the three most recent 50231
ratings of school buildings published prior to the first day of 50232
July of the school year for which a scholarship is sought, 50233
received a grade of "D" or "F" for making progress in improving 50234
literacy in grades kindergarten through three under division 50235
(B)(1)(g) or (C)(1)(g) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code;50236

        (2) The building did not receive a grade of "A" for making 50237
progress in improving literacy in grades kindergarten through 50238
three under division (B)(1)(g) or (C)(1)(g) of section 3302.03 of 50239
the Revised Code in the most recent rating published prior to the 50240
first day of July of the school year for which a scholarship is 50241
sought.50242

        (E) A student who receives a scholarship under the 50243
educational choice scholarship pilot program remains an eligible 50244
student and may continue to receive scholarships in subsequent 50245
school years until the student completes grade twelve, so long as 50246
all of the following apply:50247

       (1) The student's resident district remains the same, or the 50248
student transfers to a new resident district and otherwise would 50249
be assigned in the new resident district to a school building 50250
described in division (A)(1) or, (B)(1), or (D) of this section; 50251

       (2) The student takes each assessment prescribed for the 50252
student's grade level under section 3301.0710 or 3301.0712 of the 50253
Revised Code while enrolled in a chartered nonpublic school;50254

       (3) In each school year that the student is enrolled in a 50255
chartered nonpublic school, the student is absent from school for 50256
not more than twenty days that the school is open for instruction, 50257
not including excused absences.50258

        (E)(F)(1) The department shall cease awarding first-time 50259
scholarships pursuant to divisions (A)(1) to (4) of this section 50260
with respect to a school building that, in the most recent ratings 50261
of school buildings published under section 3302.03 of the Revised 50262
Code prior to the first day of July of the school year, ceases to 50263
meet the criteria in division (A)(1) of this section. The 50264
department shall cease awarding first-time scholarships pursuant 50265
to division (A)(5) of this section with respect to a school 50266
district that, in the most recent ratings of school districts 50267
published under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code prior to the 50268
first day of July of the school year, ceases to meet the criteria 50269
in division (A)(5) of this section. 50270

       (2) The department shall cease awarding first-time 50271
scholarships pursuant to divisions (B)(1) to (4) of this section 50272
with respect to a school building that, in the most recent ratings 50273
of school buildings under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code 50274
prior to the first day of July of the school year, ceases to meet 50275
the criteria in division (B)(1) of this section. 50276

       (3) The department shall cease awarding first-time 50277
scholarships pursuant to division (D) of this section with respect 50278
to a school building that, in the most recent ratings of school 50279
buildings under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code prior to the 50280
first day of July of the school year, ceases to meet the criteria 50281
in division (D) of this section.50282

        (4) However, students who have received scholarships in the 50283
prior school year remain eligible students pursuant to division 50284
(D)(E) of this section.50285

       (F)(G) The state board of education shall adopt rules 50286
defining excused absences for purposes of division (D)(E)(3) of 50287
this section.50288

       (G)(H)(1) A student who satisfies only the conditions 50289
prescribed in divisions (A)(1) to (4) of this section shall not be 50290
eligible for a scholarship if the student's resident building 50291
meets any of the following in the most recent rating under section 50292
3302.03 of the Revised Code published prior to the first day of 50293
July of the school year for which a scholarship is sought:50294

        (a) The building has an overall designation of excellent or 50295
effective under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code as it existed 50296
prior to the effective date of this amendmentMarch 22, 2013.50297

        (b) For the 2012-2013 or 2013-2014 school year or both, the 50298
building has a grade of "A" or "B" for the performance index score 50299
under division (A)(1)(b) or (B)(1)(b) of section 3302.03 of the 50300
Revised Code and for the value-added progress dimension under 50301
division (A)(1)(e) or (B)(1)(e) of section 3302.03 of the Revised 50302
Code; or if the building serves only grades ten through twelve, 50303
the building received a grade of "A" or "B" for the performance 50304
index score under division (A)(1)(b) or (B)(1)(b) of section 50305
3302.03 of the Revised Code and had a four-year adjusted cohort 50306
graduation rate of greater than or equal to seventy-five per cent.50307

        (c) For the 2014-2015 school year or any school year 50308
thereafter, the building has a grade of "A" or "B" under division 50309
(C)(3) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and a grade of "A" 50310
for the value-added progress dimension under division (C)(1)(e) of 50311
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code; or if the building serves 50312
only grades ten through twelve, the building received a grade of 50313
"A" or "B" for the performance index score under division 50314
(C)(1)(b) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and had a 50315
four-year adjusted cohort graduation rate of greater than or equal 50316
to seventy-five per cent.50317

        (2) A student who satisfies only the conditions prescribed in 50318
division (A)(5) of this section shall not be eligible for a 50319
scholarship if the student's resident district meets any of the 50320
following in the most recent rating under section 3302.03 of the 50321
Revised Code published prior to the first day of July of the 50322
school year for which a scholarship is sought:50323

        (a) The district has an overall designation of excellent or 50324
effective under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code as it existed 50325
prior to the effective date of this amendmentMarch 22, 2013.50326

        (b) The district has a grade of "A" or "B" for the 50327
performance index score under division (A)(1)(b) or (B)(1)(b) of 50328
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and for the value-added 50329
progress dimension under division (A)(1)(e) or (B)(1)(e) of 50330
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code for the 2012-2013 and 50331
2013-2014 school years.50332

        (c) The district has an overall grade of "A" or "B" under 50333
division (C)(3) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and a grade 50334
of "A" for the value-added progress dimension under division 50335
(C)(1)(e) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code for the 2014-2015 50336
school year or any school year thereafter.50337

       Sec. 3310.032.  (A) A student is an "eligible student" for 50338
purposes of the expansion of the educational choice scholarship 50339
pilot program under this section if the student's resident 50340
district is not a school district in which the pilot project 50341
scholarship program is operating under sections 3313.974 to 50342
3313.979 of the Revised Code, the student is not eligible for an 50343
educational choice scholarship under section 3310.03 of the 50344
Revised Code, and the student's family income is at or below two 50345
hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines, as defined in 50346
section 5101.46 of the Revised Code.50347

       (B) In each fiscal year for which the general assembly 50348
appropriates funds for purposes of this section, the department of 50349
education shall pay scholarships to attend chartered nonpublic 50350
schools in accordance with section 3310.08 of the Revised Code. 50351
The number of scholarships awarded under this section shall not 50352
exceed the number that can be funded with appropriations made by 50353
the general assembly for this purpose.50354

       (C) Scholarships under this section shall be awarded as 50355
follows:50356

       (1) For the 2013-2014 school year, to eligible students who 50357
are entering kindergarten in that school year for the first time;50358

       (2) For each subsequent school year, scholarships shall be 50359
awarded to eligible students in the next grade level above the 50360
highest grade level awarded in the preceding school year, in 50361
addition to the grade levels for which students received 50362
scholarships in the preceding school year.50363

       (D) If the number of eligible students who apply for a 50364
scholarship under this section exceeds the scholarships available 50365
based on the appropriation for this section, the department shall 50366
award scholarships in the following order of priority:50367

       (1) First, to eligible students who received scholarships 50368
under this section in the prior school year;50369

       (2) Second, to eligible students with family incomes at or 50370
below one hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines. If 50371
the number of students described in division (D)(2) of this 50372
section who apply for a scholarship exceeds the number of 50373
available scholarships after awards are made under division (D)(1) 50374
of this section, the department shall select students described in 50375
division (D)(2) of this section by lot to receive any remaining 50376
scholarships.50377

       (3) Third, to other eligible students who qualify under this 50378
section. If the number of students described in division (D)(3) of 50379
this section exceeds the number of available scholarships after 50380
awards are made under divisions (D)(1) and (2) of this section, 50381
the department shall select students described in division (D)(3) 50382
of this section by lot to receive any remaining scholarships.50383

       (E) Subject to divisions (E)(1) to (3) of this section, a 50384
student who receives a scholarship under this section remains an 50385
eligible student and may continue to receive scholarships under 50386
this section in subsequent school years until the student 50387
completes grade twelve, so long as the student satisfies the 50388
conditions specified in divisions (E)(2) and (3) of section 50389
3310.03 of the Revised Code.50390

       Once a scholarship is awarded under this section, the student 50391
shall remain eligible for that scholarship for the current school 50392
year and subsequent school years even if the student's family 50393
income rises above the amount specified in division (A) of this 50394
section, provided the student remains enrolled in a chartered 50395
nonpublic school, however:50396

        (1) If the student's family income is above two hundred per 50397
cent but at or below three hundred per cent of the federal poverty 50398
guidelines, the student shall receive a scholarship in the amount 50399
of seventy-five per cent of the full scholarship amount.50400

        (2) If the student's family income is above three hundred per 50401
cent but at or below four hundred per cent of the federal poverty 50402
guidelines, the student shall receive a scholarship in the amount 50403
of fifty per cent of the full scholarship amount.50404

        (3) If the student's family income is above four hundred per 50405
cent of the federal poverty guidelines, the student is no longer 50406
eligible to receive an educational choice scholarship. 50407

       Sec. 3310.035. (A) A student who is eligible for an 50408
educational choice scholarship under both sections 3310.03 and 50409
3310.032 of the Revised Code, and applies for a scholarship for 50410
the first time after the effective date of this section shall 50411
receive a scholarship under section 3310.03 of the Revised Code.50412

        (B) A student who is eligible under both sections 3310.03 and 50413
3310.032 of the Revised Code and received a scholarship in the 50414
previous school year shall continue to receive the scholarship 50415
under the section from which the student received the scholarship 50416
in the previous school year, so long as:50417

        (1) The number of students who apply for a scholarship does 50418
not exceed the number of scholarships available under division (A) 50419
of section 3310.02 of the Revised Code.50420

        (2) A student who receives a scholarship under section 50421
3310.03 of the Revised Code satisfies with the conditions 50422
specified in divisions (E)(1) to (3) of that section, and a 50423
student who receives a scholarship under section 3310.032 50424
satisfies with the conditions specified in divisions (E)(2) and 50425
(3) of section 3310.03 of the Revised Code. 50426

       Sec. 3310.05.  A scholarship under the educational choice 50427
scholarship pilot program is not available for any student whose 50428
resident district is a school district in which the pilot project 50429
scholarship program is operating under sections 3313.974 to 50430
3313.979 of the Revised Code. The two pilot programs are separate 50431
and distinct, with differing eligibility criteria. The pilot 50432
project scholarship program operating under sections 3313.974 to 50433
3313.979 of the Revised Code is a district-wide program that may 50434
award scholarships to students who do not attend district schools 50435
that face academic challenges, whereas the educational choice 50436
scholarship pilot program established under sections 3310.01 to 50437
3310.17 of the Revised Code is limited to students of individual 50438
district school buildings that face academic challenges and to 50439
students from low-income families.50440

       Sec. 3310.06.  It is the policy adopted by the general 50441
assembly that the educational choice scholarship pilot program 50442
shall be construed as one of several educational options available 50443
for students enrolled in persistently low-performing school 50444
buildings or for students from low-income families. Students may 50445
be enrolled in the schools of the student's resident district, in 50446
a community school established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised 50447
Code, in the schools of another school district pursuant to an 50448
open enrollment policy adopted under section 3313.98 of the 50449
Revised Code, in a chartered nonpublic school with or without a 50450
scholarship under the educational choice scholarship pilot 50451
program, or in other schools as the law may provide.50452

       Sec. 3310.08. (A) The amount paid for an eligible student 50453
under the educational choice scholarship pilot program shall be 50454
the lesser of the tuition of the chartered nonpublic school in 50455
which the student is enrolled or the maximum amount prescribed in 50456
section 3310.09 of the Revised Code.50457

        (B)(1) The department of education shall pay to the parent of 50458
each eligible student for whom a scholarship is awarded under the 50459
program, or to the student if at least eighteen years of age, 50460
periodic partial payments of the scholarship.50461

        (2) The department shall proportionately reduce or terminate 50462
the payments for any student who withdraws from a chartered 50463
nonpublic school prior to the end of the school year.50464

       (C)(1) The department shall deduct from the payments made to 50465
each school district under Chapter 3317., and if necessary, 50466
sections 321.24 and 323.156 of the Revised Code, the amount paid 50467
under division (B) of this section for each eligible student 50468
awardedwho qualifies for a scholarship under the programsection 50469
3310.03 of the Revised Code and who is entitled under section 50470
3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code to attend school in the 50471
district. In the case of a student entitled to attend school in a 50472
school district under division (B)(2)(a) of section 3313.64 or 50473
division (C) of section 3313.65 of the Revised Code, the 50474
department shall deduct the payments from the school district that 50475
includes the student in its average daily membership as reported 50476
to the department under section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, as 50477
determined by the department.50478

       (2) If the department reduces or terminates payments to a 50479
parent or a student, as prescribed in division (B)(2) of this 50480
section, and the student enrolls in the schools of the student's 50481
resident district or in a community school, established under 50482
Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, before the end of the school 50483
year, the department shall proportionally restore to the resident 50484
district the amount deducted for that student under division 50485
(C)(1) of this section.50486

       Sec. 3310.13. (A) No chartered nonpublic school shall charge 50487
any student whose family income is at or below two hundred per 50488
cent of the federal poverty guidelines, as defined in section 50489
5101.46 of the Revised Code, a tuition fee that is greater than 50490
the total amount paid for that student under section 3310.08 of 50491
the Revised Code.50492

       (B) A chartered nonpublic school may charge any other student 50493
who is paid a scholarship under that section the difference 50494
between the amount of the scholarship and the regular tuition 50495
charge of the school. Each chartered nonpublic school shall permit 50496
such an eligible student's family, at the family's option, to 50497
provide volunteer services in lieu of cash payment to pay all or 50498
part of the amount of the school's tuition not covered by the 50499
scholarship paid under section 3310.08 of the Revised Code.50500

       Sec. 3310.14. Notwithstanding division (K) of section 50501
3301.0711 of the Revised Code, eachEach chartered nonpublic 50502
school that is not subject to division (K)(1)(a) of section 50503
3301.0711 of the Revised Code and enrolls students awarded 50504
scholarships under sections 3310.01 to 3310.17 of the Revised Code 50505
annually shall administer the assessments prescribed by section 50506
3301.0710 or 3301.0712 of the Revised Code to each scholarship 50507
student enrolled in the school in accordance with section 50508
3301.0711 of the Revised Code. Each chartered nonpublic school 50509
that is subject to this section shall report to the department of 50510
education the results of each assessment administered to each 50511
scholarship student under this section.50512

       Nothing in this section requires a chartered nonpublic school 50513
to administer any achievement assessment, except for an Ohio 50514
graduation test prescribed by division (B)(1) of section 3301.0710 50515
of the Revised Code, as required by section 3313.612 of the 50516
Revised Code, to any student enrolled in the school who is not a 50517
scholarship student.50518

       Sec. 3310.522.  In order to maintain eligibility for a 50519
scholarship under the program, a student shall take each 50520
assessment prescribed by sections 3301.0710 and 3301.0712 of the 50521
Revised Code, unless the student is excused from taking that 50522
assessment under federal law or the student's individualized 50523
education program. 50524

       Notwithstanding division (K) of section 3301.0711 of the 50525
Revised Code, eachEach registered private provider that is not 50526
subject to division (K)(1)(a) of section 3301.0711 of the Revised 50527
Code and enrolls a student who is awarded a scholarship under this 50528
section shall administer each assessment prescribed by sections 50529
3301.0710 and 3301.0712 of the Revised Code to that student, 50530
unless the student is excused from taking that assessment, and 50531
shall report to the department the results of each assessment so 50532
administered. 50533

       Nothing in this section requires any chartered nonpublic 50534
school that is a registered private provider to administer any 50535
achievement assessment, except for an Ohio graduation test 50536
prescribed by division (B)(1) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised 50537
Code, as required by section 3313.612 of the Revised Code, to any 50538
student enrolled in the school who is not a scholarship student.50539

       Sec. 3310.56. (A) The amount of the scholarship awarded and 50540
paid to an eligible applicant for services for a qualified special 50541
education child under the Jon Peterson special needs scholarship 50542
program in each school year shall be the least of the amounts 50543
prescribed in divisions (A)(1), (2), orand (3) of this section, 50544
as follows:50545

       (1) The amount of fees charged for that school year by the 50546
alternative public provider or registered private provider;50547

       (2) The sum of the amounts calculated under divisions 50548
(A)(2)(a) and (b) of this section:50549

        (a) The sum of the formula amount plus the per pupil amount 50550
of the base funding supplements specified in divisions (C)(1) to 50551
(4) of section 3317.012 of the Revised Code for fiscal year 2009;50552

       (b) An amount equal to $5,732 times the following multiple50553
prescribed for the child's disability as follows:50554

        (i) For a student in category one, 0.2892the amount 50555
specified in division (A) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;50556

        (ii) For a student in category two, 0.3691the amount 50557
specified in division (B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;50558

       (iii) For a student in category three, 1.7695the amount 50559
specified in division (C) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;50560

       (iv) For a student in category four, 2.3646the amount 50561
specified in division (D) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;50562

        (v) For a student in category five, 3.1129the amount 50563
specified in division (E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;50564

        (vi) For a student in category six, 4.7342the amount 50565
specified in division (F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.50566

        Before applying the multiples specified in divisions 50567
(A)(2)(b)(i) to (vi) of this section, they first shall be adjusted 50568
by multiplying them by 0.90.50569

       (3) Twenty thousand dollars.50570

        (B) As used in division (A)(2)(b) of this section, a child 50571
with a disability is in:50572

        (1) "Category one" if the child's primary or only identified 50573
disability is a speech and language disability, as this term is 50574
defined pursuant to Chapter 3323.child is receiving special 50575
education services for a disability specified in division (A) of 50576
section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;50577

        (2) "Category two" if the child is identified as specific 50578
learning disabled or developmentally disabled, as these terms are 50579
defined pursuant to Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code, or as 50580
having an other health impairment-minor, as defined in section 50581
3317.02receiving special education services for a disability 50582
specified in division (B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;50583

        (3) "Category three" if the child is identified as vision 50584
impaired, hearing disabled, or severe behavior disabled, as these 50585
terms are defined pursuant to Chapter 3323.receiving special 50586
education services for a disability specified in division (C) of 50587
section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;50588

       (4) "Category four" if the child is identified as 50589
orthopedically disabled, as this term is defined pursuant to 50590
Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code, or as having an other health 50591
impairment-major, as defined in section 3317.02receiving special 50592
education services for a disability specified in division (D) of 50593
section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;50594

       (5) "Category five" if the child is identified as having 50595
multiple disabilities, as this term is defined pursuant to Chapter 50596
3323.receiving special education services for a disability 50597
specified in division (E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;50598

       (6) "Category six" if the child is identified as autistic, 50599
having traumatic brain injuries, or both visually and hearing 50600
impaired, as these terms are defined pursuant to Chapter 3323.50601
receiving special education services for a disability specified in 50602
division (F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.50603

       Sec. 3311.0510.  (A) If all of the client school districts of 50604
an educational service center have terminated their agreements 50605
with the service center under division (D) of section 3313.843 of 50606
the Revised Code, upon the latest effective date of the 50607
terminations, the governing board of that service center shall be 50608
abolished and such service center shall be dissolved by order of 50609
the superintendent of public instruction. The superintendent's 50610
order shall provide for the equitable division and disposition of 50611
the assets, property, debts, and obligations of the service center 50612
among the school districts that were client school districts of 50613
the service center for the service center's last fiscal year of 50614
operation. The superintendent's order shall provide that the tax 50615
duplicate of each of those school districts shall be bound for and 50616
assume the district's equitable share of the outstanding 50617
indebtedness of the service center. The superintendent's order is 50618
final and is not appealable.50619

       Immediately upon the abolishment of the service center 50620
governing board pursuant to this section, the superintendent of 50621
public instruction shall appoint a qualified individual to 50622
administer the dissolution of the service center and to implement 50623
the terms of the superintendent's dissolution order.50624

        Prior to distributing assets to any school district under 50625
this section, but after paying in full other debts and obligations 50626
of the service center under this section, the superintendent of 50627
public instruction may assess against the remaining assets of the 50628
service center the amount of the costs incurred by the department 50629
of education in performing the superintendent's duties under this 50630
division, including the fees, if any, owed to the individual 50631
appointed to administer the superintendent's dissolution order. 50632
Any excess cost incurred by the department under this division 50633
shall be divided equitably among the school districts that were 50634
client school districts of the service center for the service 50635
center's last fiscal year of operation. Each district's share of 50636
that excess cost shall be bound against the tax duplicate of that 50637
district.50638

       (B) A final audit of the former service center shall be 50639
performed in accordance with procedures established by the auditor 50640
of state.50641

       (C) The public records of an educational service center that 50642
is dissolved under this section shall be transferred in accordance 50643
with this division. Public records maintained by the service 50644
center in connection with services provided by the service center 50645
to local school districts of which the territory of the service 50646
center is or previously was made up shall be transferred to each 50647
of the respective local school districts. Public records 50648
maintained by the service center in connection with services 50649
provided to client school districts shall be transferred to each 50650
of the respective client school districts. All other public 50651
records maintained by the service center at the time the service 50652
center ceases operations shall be transferred to the Ohio 50653
historical society for analysis and disposition by the society in 50654
its capacity as archives administrator for the state and its 50655
political subdivisions pursuant to division (C) of section 149.30 50656
and section 149.31 of the Revised Code.50657

       (D) As used in this section, "client school district" has the 50658
same meaning as in section 3317.11 of the Revised Codemeans a 50659
city, exempted village, or local school district that has entered 50660
into an agreement under section 3313.843 or 3313.845 of the 50661
Revised Code to receive any services from an educational service 50662
center.50663

       Sec. 3311.19.  (A) The management and control of a joint 50664
vocational school district shall be vested in the joint vocational 50665
school district board of education. Where a joint vocational 50666
school district is composed only of two or more local school 50667
districts located in one county, or when all the participating 50668
districts are in one county and the boards of such participating 50669
districts so choose, the educational service center governing 50670
board of the county in which the joint vocational school district 50671
is located shall serve as the joint vocational school district 50672
board of education. Where a joint vocational school district is 50673
composed of local school districts of more than one county, or of 50674
any combination of city, local, or exempted village school 50675
districts or educational service centers, unless administration by 50676
the educational service center governing board has been chosen by 50677
all the participating districts in one county pursuant to this 50678
section, the board of education of the joint vocational school 50679
district shall be composed of one or more persons who are members 50680
of the boards of education from each of the city or exempted 50681
village school districts or members of the educational service 50682
centers' governing boards affected to be appointed by the boards 50683
of education or governing boards of such school districts and 50684
educational service centers. In such joint vocational school 50685
districts the number and terms of members of the joint vocational 50686
school district board of education and the allocation of a given 50687
number of members to each of the city and exempted village 50688
districts and educational service centers shall be determined in 50689
the plan for such district, provided that each such joint 50690
vocational school district board of education shall be composed of 50691
an odd number of members.50692

       (B) Notwithstanding division (A) of this section, a governing 50693
board of an educational service center that has members of its 50694
governing board serving on a joint vocational school district 50695
board of education may make a request to the joint vocational 50696
district board that the joint vocational school district plan be 50697
revised to provide for one or more members of boards of education 50698
of local school districts that are within the territory of the 50699
educational service district and within the joint vocational 50700
school district to serve in the place of or in addition to its 50701
educational service center governing board members. If agreement 50702
is obtained among a majority of the boards of education and 50703
governing boards that have a member serving on the joint 50704
vocational school district board of education and among a majority 50705
of the local school district boards of education included in the 50706
district and located within the territory of the educational 50707
service center whose board requests the substitution or addition, 50708
the state board of education may revise the joint vocational 50709
school district plan to conform with such agreement.50710

       (C) If the board of education of any school district or 50711
educational service center governing board included within a joint 50712
vocational district that has had its board or governing board 50713
membership revised under division (B) of this section requests the 50714
joint vocational school district board to submit to the state 50715
board of education a revised plan under which one or more joint 50716
vocational board members chosen in accordance with a plan revised 50717
under such division would again be chosen in the manner prescribed 50718
by division (A) of this section, the joint vocational board shall 50719
submit the revised plan to the state board of education, provided 50720
the plan is agreed to by a majority of the boards of education 50721
represented on the joint vocational board, a majority of the local 50722
school district boards included within the joint vocational 50723
district, and each educational service center governing board 50724
affected by such plan. The state board of education may revise the 50725
joint vocational school district plan to conform with the revised 50726
plan.which, beginning on the effective date of this amendment, 50727
shall be appointed under division (C) of this section. Beginning 50728
on the effective date of this amendment, no board member shall be 50729
appointed in the manner formerly provided by this section, as it 50730
existed prior to the effective date of this amendment.50731

       All members of a joint vocational school district board 50732
serving unexpired terms on the effective date of this amendment 50733
may continue in office until the expiration of their terms. If a 50734
member leaves office for any reason prior to the expiration of 50735
that member's term, the vacancy shall be filled only in the manner 50736
provided in division (C) of this section.50737

       (B) Members of the joint vocational school district board 50738
appointed on or after the effective date of this amendment shall 50739
serve for three year terms of office. No member shall hold office 50740
for a period of longer than two consecutive terms. Terms shall be 50741
considered consecutive unless separated by three or more years.50742

       Members of the board shall be selected based on the diversity 50743
of the employers from the geographical region of the state in 50744
which the territory of the joint vocational school district is 50745
located represented by the members. A majority of the members of 50746
the board shall reside in or be employed within the territory of 50747
the joint vocational school district board upon which the member 50748
serves.50749

       (C) The board of education of each city, exempted village, or 50750
local school district or educational service center that belongs 50751
to the joint vocational school district shall appoint one member 50752
to the joint vocational school district board; however, that 50753
individual shall not be a member of an appointing school district 50754
or service center board. The total number of members appointed to 50755
the joint vocational school district board shall be equal to the 50756
number of members on the joint vocational school district's board 50757
prior to the effective date of this amendment.50758

       Initial appointments under this section shall be made as the 50759
terms of members of each joint vocational school district board 50760
who are serving unexpired terms on the effective date of this 50761
amendment expire or as those offices are otherwise vacated prior 50762
to the expiration date. The appointing district boards shall 50763
continue to replace members in such a way that, by the time all 50764
terms of members serving on the effective date of this amendment 50765
have expired or their offices have been vacated prior to 50766
expiration of the term of office, the joint vocational school 50767
district board consists of one member appointed by the board of 50768
each school district belonging to the joint vocational school 50769
district. Thereafter, appointments shall be made by a district 50770
board as terms expire or are otherwise vacated.50771

       Appointing boards may also appoint students of the district 50772
to serve as additional members of the board, but student members 50773
shall be nonvoting members.50774

       Members of the joint vocational board shall have experience 50775
as chief financial officers, chief executive officers, human 50776
resources managers, or other business and industry professionals 50777
who are qualified to discuss the labor needs of the region with 50778
respect to the regional economy. The appointing board shall 50779
appoint members who represent employers in the region served by 50780
the joint vocational school district who are qualified to consider 50781
a region's workforce needs with an understanding of the skills, 50782
training, and education needed for current and future employment 50783
needs in the region.50784

       (D) The vocational schools in suchthe joint vocational 50785
school district shall be available to all youth of school age 50786
within the joint vocational school district subject to the rules 50787
adopted by the joint vocational school district board of education 50788
in regard to the standards requisite to admission. A joint 50789
vocational school district board of education shall have the same 50790
powers, duties, and authority for the management and operation of 50791
such joint vocational school district as is granted by law, except 50792
by this chapter and Chapters 124., 3317., 3323., and 3331. of the 50793
Revised Code, to a board of education of a city school district, 50794
and shall be subject to all the provisions of law that apply to a 50795
city school district, except such provisions in this chapter and 50796
Chapters 124., 3317., 3323., and 3331. of the Revised Code.50797

       (E) Where a governing board of an educational service center 50798
has been designated to serve as the joint vocational school 50799
district board of education, the educational service center 50800
superintendent shall be the executive officer for the joint 50801
vocational school district, and the governing board may provide 50802
for additional compensation to be paid to the educational service 50803
center superintendent by the joint vocational school district, but 50804
the educational service center superintendent shall have no 50805
continuing tenure other than that of educational service center 50806
superintendent. The superintendent of schools of a joint 50807
vocational school district shall exercise the duties and authority 50808
vested by law in a superintendent of schools pertaining to the 50809
operation of a school district and the employment and supervision 50810
of its personnel. The joint vocational school district board of 50811
education shall appoint a treasurer of the joint vocational school 50812
district who shall be the fiscal officer for such district and who 50813
shall have all the powers, duties, and authority vested by law in 50814
a treasurer of a board of education. Where a governing board of an 50815
educational service center has been designated to serve as the 50816
joint vocational school district board of education, such board 50817
may appoint the educational service center superintendent as the 50818
treasurer of the joint vocational school district.50819

       (F) Each member of a joint vocational school district board 50820
of education may be paid such compensation as the board provides 50821
by resolution, but it shall not exceed one hundred twenty-five 50822
dollars per member for each meeting attended plus mileage, at the 50823
rate per mile provided by resolution of the board, to and from 50824
meetings of the board.50825

       The board may provide by resolution for the deduction of 50826
amounts payable for benefits under section 3313.202 of the Revised 50827
Code.50828

       Each member of a joint vocational school district board may 50829
be paid such compensation as the board provides by resolution for 50830
attendance at an approved training program, provided that such 50831
compensation shall not exceed sixty dollars per day for attendance 50832
at a training program three hours or fewer in length and one 50833
hundred twenty-five dollars a day for attendance at a training 50834
program longer than three hours in length. However, no board 50835
member shall be compensated for the same training program under 50836
this section and section 3313.12 of the Revised Code.50837

       Sec. 3311.22.  A governing board of an educational service 50838
center may propose, by resolution adopted by majority vote of its 50839
full membership, or qualified electors of the area affected equal 50840
in number to at least fifty-five per cent of the qualified 50841
electors voting at the last general election residing within that 50842
portion of a school district, or districts proposed to be 50843
transferred may propose, by petition, the transfer of a part or 50844
all of one or more local school districts to another local school 50845
district or districts within the territory of the educational 50846
service center. Such transfers may be made only to local school 50847
districts adjoining the school district that is proposed to be 50848
transferred, unless the board of education of the district 50849
proposed to be transferred has entered into an agreement pursuant 50850
to section 3313.42 of the Revised Code, in which case such 50851
transfers may be made to any local school district within the 50852
territory of the educational service center.50853

       When a governing board of an educational service center 50854
adopts a resolution proposing a transfer of school territory it 50855
shall forthwith file a copy of such resolution, together with an 50856
accurate map of the territory described in the resolution, with 50857
the board of education of each school district whose boundaries 50858
would be altered by such proposal. A governing board of an 50859
educational service center proposing a transfer of territory under 50860
the provisions of this section shall at its next regular meeting 50861
that occurs not earlier than thirty days after the adoption by the 50862
governing board of a resolution proposing such transfer, adopt a 50863
resolution making the transfer effective at any time prior to the 50864
next succeeding first day of July, unless, prior to the expiration 50865
of such thirty-day period, qualified electors residing in the area 50866
proposed to be transferred, equal in number to a majority of the 50867
qualified electors voting at the last general election, file a 50868
petition of referendum against such transfer.50869

       Any petition of transfer or petition of referendum filed 50870
under the provisions of this section shall be filed at the office 50871
of the educational service center superintendent. The person 50872
presenting the petition shall be given a receipt containing 50873
thereon the time of day, the date, and the purpose of the 50874
petition.50875

       The educational service center superintendent shall cause the 50876
board of elections to check the sufficiency of signatures on any 50877
petition of transfer or petition of referendum filed under this 50878
section and, if found to be sufficient, the superintendent shall 50879
present the petition to the educational service center governing 50880
board at a meeting of the board which shall occur not later than 50881
thirty days following the filing of the petition.50882

       Upon presentation to the educational service center governing 50883
board of a proposal to transfer territory as requested by petition 50884
of fifty-five per cent of the qualified electors voting at the 50885
last general election or a petition of referendum against a 50886
proposal of the county board to transfer territory, the governing 50887
board shall promptly certify the proposal to the board of 50888
elections for the purpose of having the proposal placed on the 50889
ballot at the next general or primary election which occurs not 50890
less than ninety days after the date of such certification, or at 50891
a special election, the date of which shall be specified in the 50892
certification, which date shall not be less than ninety days after 50893
the date of such certification. Signatures on a petition of 50894
transfer or petition of referendum may be withdrawn up to and 50895
including the above mentioned meeting of the educational service 50896
center governing board only by order of the board upon testimony 50897
of the petitioner concerned under oath before the board that the 50898
petitioner's signature was obtained by fraud, duress, or 50899
misrepresentation.50900

       If a petition is filed with the educational service center 50901
governing board which proposes the transfer of a part or all of 50902
the territory included in a resolution of transfer previously 50903
adopted by the educational service center governing board, no 50904
action shall be taken on such petition if within the thirty-day 50905
period after the adoption of the resolution of transfer a 50906
referendum petition is filed. After the election, if the proposed 50907
transfer fails to receive a majority vote, action on such petition 50908
shall then be processed under this section as though originally 50909
filed under the provisions hereof. If no referendum petition is 50910
filed within the thirty-day period after the adoption of the 50911
resolution of transfer, no action shall be taken on such petition.50912

       If a petition is filed with the educational service center 50913
governing board which proposes the transfer of a part or all of 50914
the territory included in a petition previously filed by electors 50915
no action shall be taken on such new petition.50916

       Upon certification of a proposal to the board or boards of 50917
elections pursuant to this section, the board or boards of 50918
elections shall make the necessary arrangements for the submission 50919
of such question to the electors of the county or counties 50920
qualified to vote thereon, and the election shall be conducted and 50921
canvassed and the results shall be certified in the same manner as 50922
in regular elections for the election of members of a board of 50923
education.50924

       The persons qualified to vote upon a proposal are the 50925
electors residing in the district or districts containing 50926
territory that is proposed to be transferred. If the proposed 50927
transfer be approved by at least a majority of the electors voting 50928
on the proposal, the educational service center governing board 50929
shall make such transfer at any time prior to the next succeeding 50930
first day of July. If the proposed transfer is not approved by at 50931
least a majority of the electors voting on the proposal, the 50932
question of transferring any property included in the territory 50933
covered by the proposal shall not be submitted to electors at any 50934
election prior to the first general election the date of which is 50935
at least two years after the date of the original election, or the 50936
first primary election held in an even-numbered year the date of 50937
which is at least two years after the date of the original 50938
election. A transfer shall be subject to the approval of the 50939
receiving board or boards of education, unless the proposal was 50940
initiated by the educational service center governing board, in 50941
which case, if the transfer is opposed by the board of education 50942
offered the territory, the local board may, within thirty days, 50943
following the receipt of the notice of transfer, appeal to the 50944
state board of education which shall then either approve or 50945
disapprove the transfer.50946

       Following an election upon a proposed transfer initiated by a 50947
petition the board of education that is offered territory shall, 50948
within thirty days following receipt of the proposal, either 50949
accept or reject the transfer.50950

       When an entire school district is proposed to be transferred 50951
to two or more school districts and the offer is rejected by any 50952
one of the receiving boards of education, none of the territory 50953
included in the proposal shall be transferred.50954

       Upon the acceptance of territory by the receiving board or 50955
boards of education the educational service center governing board 50956
offering the territory shall file with the county auditor and with 50957
the state board of education an accurate map showing the 50958
boundaries of the territory transferred.50959

       Upon the making of such transfer, the net indebtedness of the 50960
former district from which territory was transferred shall be 50961
apportioned between the acquiring school district and that portion 50962
of the former school district remaining after the transfer in the 50963
ratio which the assessed valuation of the territory transferred to 50964
the acquiring school district bears to the assessed valuation of 50965
the original school district as of the effective date of the 50966
transfer. As used in this section "net indebtedness" means the 50967
difference between the par value of the outstanding and unpaid 50968
bonds and notes of the school district and the amount held in the 50969
sinking fund and other indebtedness retirement funds for their 50970
redemption.50971

       If an entire district is transferred, any indebtedness of the 50972
former district incurred as a result of a loan made under section 50973
3317.64 of the Revised Code is hereby canceled and such 50974
indebtedness shall not be apportioned among any districts 50975
acquiring the territory. 50976

       Upon the making of any transfer under this section, the funds 50977
of the district from which territory was transferred shall be 50978
divided equitably by the educational service center governing 50979
board between the acquiring district and any part of the original 50980
district remaining after the transfer.50981

       If an entire district is transferred the board of education 50982
of such district is thereby abolished or if a member of the board 50983
of education lives in that part of a school district transferred 50984
the member becomes a nonresident of the school district from which 50985
the territory was transferred and such member ceases to be a 50986
member of the board of education of such district.50987

       The legal title of all property of the board of education in 50988
the territory transferred shall become vested in the board of 50989
education of the school district to which such territory is 50990
transferred.50991

       Subsequent to June 30, 1959, if an entire district is 50992
transferred, foundation program moneys accruing to a district 50993
accepting school territory under the provisions of this section or 50994
former section 3311.22 of the Revised Code, shall not be less, in 50995
any year during the next succeeding three years following the 50996
transfer, than the sum of the amounts received by the districts 50997
separately in the year in which the transfer was consummated.50998

       Sec. 3311.231.  A governing board of an educational service 50999
center may propose, by resolution adopted by majority vote of its 51000
full membership, or qualified electors of the area affected equal 51001
in number to not less than fifty-five per cent of the qualified 51002
electors voting at the last general election residing within that 51003
portion of a school district proposed to be transferred may 51004
propose, by petition, the transfer of a part or all of one or more 51005
local school districts within the territory of the center to an 51006
adjoining educational service center or to an adjoining city or 51007
exempted village school district.51008

       A governing board of an educational service center adopting a 51009
resolution proposing a transfer of school territory under this 51010
section shall file a copy of such resolution together with an 51011
accurate map of the territory described in the resolution, with 51012
the board of education of each school district whose boundaries 51013
would be altered by such proposal. Where a transfer of territory 51014
is proposed by a governing board of an educational service center 51015
under this section, the governing board shall, at its next regular 51016
meeting that occurs not earlier than the thirtieth day after the 51017
adoption by the governing board of the resolution proposing such 51018
transfer, adopt a resolution making the transfer as originally 51019
proposed, effective at any time prior to the next succeeding first 51020
day of July, unless, prior to the expiration of such thirty-day 51021
period, qualified electors residing in the area proposed to be 51022
transferred, equal in number to a majority of the qualified 51023
electors voting at the last general election, file a petition of 51024
referendum against such transfer.51025

       Any petition of transfer or petition of referendum under the 51026
provisions of this section shall be filed at the office of the 51027
educational service center superintendent. The person presenting 51028
the petition shall be given a receipt containing thereon the time 51029
of day, the date, and the purpose of the petition.51030

       The educational service center superintendent shall cause the 51031
board of elections to check the sufficiency of signatures on any 51032
such petition, and, if found to be sufficient, the superintendent 51033
shall present the petition to the educational service center 51034
governing board at a meeting of said governing board which shall 51035
occur not later than thirty days following the filing of said 51036
petition.51037

       The educational service center governing board shall promptly 51038
certify the proposal to the board of elections of such counties in 51039
which school districts whose boundaries would be altered by such 51040
proposal are located for the purpose of having the proposal placed 51041
on the ballot at the next general or primary election which occurs 51042
not less than ninety days after the date of such certification or 51043
at a special election, the date of which shall be specified in the 51044
certification, which date shall not be less than ninety days after 51045
the date of such certification.51046

       Signatures on a petition of transfer or petition of 51047
referendum may be withdrawn up to and including the above 51048
mentioned meeting of the educational service center governing 51049
board only by order of the governing board upon testimony of the 51050
petitioner concerned under oath before the board that the 51051
petitioner's signature was obtained by fraud, duress, or 51052
misrepresentation.51053

       If a petition is filed with the educational service center 51054
governing board which proposes the transfer of a part or all of 51055
the territory included either in a petition previously filed by 51056
electors or in a resolution of transfer previously adopted by the 51057
educational service center governing board, no action shall be 51058
taken on such new petition as long as the previously initiated 51059
proposal is pending before the governing board or is subject to an 51060
election.51061

       Upon certification of a proposal to the board or boards of 51062
elections pursuant to this section, the board or boards of 51063
elections shall make the necessary arrangements for the submission 51064
of such question to the electors of the county or counties 51065
qualified to vote thereon, and the election shall be conducted and 51066
canvassed and the results shall be certified in the same manner as 51067
in regular elections for the election of members of a board of 51068
education.51069

       The persons qualified to vote upon a proposal are the 51070
electors residing in the district or districts containing 51071
territory that is proposed to be transferred. If the proposed 51072
transfer is approved by at least a majority of the electors voting 51073
on the proposal, the educational service center governing board 51074
shall make such transfer at any time prior to the next succeeding 51075
first day of July, subject to the approval of the receiving board 51076
of education in case of a transfer to a city or exempted village 51077
school district, and subject to the approval of the educational 51078
service center governing board of the receiving center, in case of 51079
a transfer to an educational service center. If the proposed 51080
transfer is not approved by at least a majority of the electors 51081
voting on the proposal, the question of transferring any property 51082
included in the territory covered by the proposal shall not be 51083
submitted to electors at any election prior to the first general 51084
election the date of which is at least two years after the date of 51085
the original election, or the first primary election held in an 51086
even-numbered year the date of which is at least two years after 51087
the date of the original election.51088

       Where a territory is transferred under this section to a city 51089
or exempted village school district, the board of education of 51090
such district shall, and where territory is transferred to an 51091
educational service center the governing board of such educational 51092
service center shall, within thirty days following receipt of the 51093
proposal, either accept or reject the transfer.51094

       Where a governing board of an educational service center 51095
adopts a resolution accepting territory transferred to the 51096
educational service center under the provisions of sections 51097
3311.231 and 3311.24 of the Revised Code, the governing board 51098
shall, at the time of the adoption of the resolution accepting the 51099
territory, designate the school district to which the accepted 51100
territory shall be annexed.51101

       When an entire school district is proposed to be transferred 51102
to two or more adjoining school districts and the offer is 51103
rejected by any one of the receiving boards of education, none of 51104
the territory included in the proposal shall be transferred.51105

       Upon the acceptance of territory by the receiving board or 51106
boards of education the educational service center governing board 51107
offering the territory shall file with the county auditor of each 51108
county affected by the transfer and with the state board of 51109
education an accurate map showing the boundaries of the territory 51110
transferred.51111

       Upon the making of such transfer, the net indebtedness of the 51112
former district from which territory was transferred shall be 51113
apportioned between the acquiring school district and the portion 51114
of the former school district remaining after the transfer in the 51115
ratio which the assessed valuation of the territory transferred to 51116
the acquiring school district bears to the assessed valuation of 51117
the original school district as of the effective date of the 51118
transfer. As used in this section "net indebtedness" means the 51119
difference between the par value of the outstanding and unpaid 51120
bonds and notes of the school district and the amount held in the 51121
sinking fund and other indebtedness retirement funds for their 51122
redemption.51123

       If an entire district is transferred, any indebtedness of the 51124
former district incurred as a result of a loan made under section 51125
3317.64 of the Revised Code is hereby canceled and such 51126
indebtedness shall not be apportioned among any districts 51127
acquiring the territory. 51128

       Upon the making of any transfer under this section, the funds 51129
of the district from which territory was transferred shall be 51130
divided equitably by the educational service center governing 51131
board, between the acquiring district and any part of the original 51132
district remaining after the transfer.51133

       If an entire district is transferred the board of education 51134
of such district is thereby abolished or if a member of the board 51135
of education lives in that part of a school district transferred 51136
the member becomes a nonresident of the school district from which 51137
the territory was transferred and such member ceases to be a 51138
member of the board of education of such district.51139

       The legal title of all property of the board of education in 51140
the territory transferred shall become vested in the board of 51141
education of the school district to which such territory is 51142
transferred.51143

       If an entire district is transferred, foundation program 51144
moneys accruing to a district receiving school territory under the 51145
provisions of this section shall not be less, in any year during 51146
the next succeeding three years following the transfer, than the 51147
sum of the amounts received by the districts separately in the 51148
year in which the transfer was consummated.51149

       Sec. 3311.38.  The state board of education may conduct, or 51150
may direct the superintendent of public instruction to conduct, 51151
studies where there is evidence of need for transfer of local, 51152
exempted village, or city school districts, or parts of any such 51153
districts, to contiguous or noncontiguous local, exempted village, 51154
or city school districts. Such studies shall include a study of 51155
the effect of any proposal upon any portion of a school district 51156
remaining after such proposed transfer. The state board, in 51157
conducting such studies and in making recommendations as a result 51158
thereof, shall consider the possibility of improving school 51159
district organization as well as the desires of the residents of 51160
the school districts which would be affected.51161

       (A) After the adoption of recommendations growing out of any 51162
such study, or upon receipt of a resolution adopted by majority 51163
vote of the full membership of the board of any city, local, or 51164
exempted village school district requesting that the entire 51165
district be transferred to another city, local, or exempted 51166
village school district, the state board may propose by resolution 51167
the transfer of territory, which may consist of part or all of the 51168
territory of a local, exempted village, or city school district to 51169
a contiguous local, exempted village, or city school district.51170

       The state board shall thereupon file a copy of such proposal 51171
with the board of education of each school district whose 51172
boundaries would be altered by the proposal and with the governing 51173
board of any educational service center in which such school 51174
district is located.51175

       The state board may, not less than thirty days following the 51176
adoption of the resolution proposing the transfer of territory, 51177
certify the proposal to the board of elections of the county or 51178
counties in which any of the territory of the proposed district is 51179
located, for the purpose of having the proposal placed on the 51180
ballot at the next general election or at a primary election 51181
occurring not less than ninety days after the adoption of such 51182
resolution.51183

       If any proposal has been previously initiated pursuant to 51184
section 3311.22, 3311.231, or 3311.26 of the Revised Code which 51185
affects any of the territory affected by the proposal of the state 51186
board, the proposal of the state board shall not be placed on the 51187
ballot while the previously initiated proposal is subject to an 51188
election.51189

       Upon certification of a proposal to the board of elections of 51190
any county pursuant to this section, the board of elections of 51191
such county shall make the necessary arrangements for the 51192
submission of such question to the electors of the county 51193
qualified to vote thereon, and the election shall be counted and 51194
canvassed and the results shall be certified in the same manner as 51195
in regular elections for the election of members of a board of 51196
education.51197

       The electors qualified to vote upon a proposal are the 51198
electors residing in the local, exempted village, or city school 51199
districts, containing territory proposed to be transferred.51200

       If the proposed transfer be approved by a majority of the 51201
electors voting on the proposal, the state board, subject to the 51202
approval of the board of education of the district to which the 51203
territory would be transferred, shall make such transfer prior to 51204
the next succeeding July 1.51205

       (B) If a study conducted in accordance with this section 51206
involves a school district with less than four thousand dollars of 51207
assessed value for each pupil in the total student count 51208
determined under section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, the state 51209
board of education, with the approval of the educational service 51210
center governing board, and upon recommendation by the state 51211
superintendent of public instruction, may by resolution transfer 51212
all or any part of such a school district to any city, exempted 51213
village, or local school district which has more than twenty-five 51214
thousand pupils in average daily membership. Such resolution of 51215
transfer shall be adopted only after the board of education of the 51216
receiving school district has adopted a resolution approving the 51217
proposed transfer. For the purposes of this division, the assessed 51218
value shall be as certified in accordance with section 3317.021 of 51219
the Revised Code.51220

       (C) Upon the making of a transfer of an entire school 51221
district pursuant to this section, the indebtedness of the 51222
district transferred shall be assumed in full by the acquiring 51223
district and the funds of the district transferred shall be paid 51224
over in full to the acquiring district, except that any 51225
indebtedness of the transferred district incurred as a result of a 51226
loan made under section 3317.64 of the Revised Code is hereby 51227
canceled and shall not be assumed by the acquiring district.51228

       (D) Upon the making of a transfer pursuant to this section, 51229
when only part of a district is transferred, the net indebtedness 51230
of each original district of which only a part is taken by the 51231
acquiring district shall be apportioned between the acquiring 51232
district and the original district in the ratio which the assessed 51233
valuation of the part taken by the acquiring district bears to the 51234
assessed valuation of the original district as of the effective 51235
date of the transfer. As used in this section "net indebtedness" 51236
means the difference between the par value of the outstanding and 51237
unpaid bonds and notes of the school district and the amount held 51238
in the sinking fund and other indebtedness retirement funds for 51239
their redemption.51240

       (E) Upon the making of a transfer pursuant to this section, 51241
when only part of a district is transferred, the funds of the 51242
district from which territory was transferred shall be divided 51243
equitably by the state board between the acquiring district and 51244
that part of the former district remaining after the transfer.51245

       (F) If an entire school district is transferred, the board of 51246
education of such district is thereby abolished. If part of a 51247
school district is transferred, any member of the board of 51248
education who is a legal resident of that part which is 51249
transferred shall thereby cease to be a member of that board.51250

       If an entire school district is transferred, foundation 51251
program moneys accruing to a district accepting school territory 51252
under the provisions of this section shall not be less, in any 51253
year during the next succeeding three years following the 51254
transfer, than the sum of the amounts received by the districts 51255
separately in the year in which the transfer became effective.51256

       Sec. 3311.86.  (A) As used in this section:51257

       (1) "Alliance" means a municipal school district 51258
transformation alliance established as a nonprofit corporation.51259

       (2) "Alliance municipal school district" means a municipal 51260
school district for which an alliance has been created under this 51261
section.51262

       (3) "Partnering community school" means a community school 51263
established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code that is 51264
located within the territory of a municipal school district and 51265
that either is sponsored by the district or is a party to an 51266
agreement with the district whereby the district and the community 51267
school endorse each other's programs.51268

       (4) "Transformation alliance education plan" means a plan 51269
prepared by the mayor, and confirmed by the alliance, to transform 51270
public education in the alliance municipal school district to a 51271
system of municipal school district schools and partnering 51272
community schools that will be held to the highest standards of 51273
school performance and student achievement.51274

       (B) If one or more partnering community schools are located 51275
in a municipal school district, the mayor may initiate proceedings 51276
to establish a municipal school district transformation alliance 51277
as a nonprofit corporation under Chapter 1702. of the Revised 51278
Code. The mayor shall have sole authority to appoint the directors 51279
of any alliance created under this section. The directors of the 51280
alliance shall include representatives of all of the following:51281

       (1) The municipal school district;51282

       (2) Partnering community schools;51283

       (3) Members of the community at large, including parents and 51284
educators;51285

       (4) The business community, including business leaders and 51286
foundation leaders.51287

        No one group listed in divisions (B)(1) to (4) of this 51288
section shall comprise a majority of the directors. The mayor 51289
shall be an ex officio director, and serve as the chairperson of 51290
the board of directors, of any alliance created under this 51291
section. If the proceedings are initiated, the mayor shall 51292
identify the directors in the articles of incorporation filed 51293
under section 1702.04 of the Revised Code.51294

       (C)(1) A majority of the members of the board of directors of 51295
the alliance shall constitute a quorum of the board. Any formal 51296
action taken by the board of directors shall take place at a 51297
meeting of the board and shall require the concurrence of a 51298
majority of the members of the board. Meetings of the board of 51299
directors shall be public meetings open to the public at all 51300
times, except that the board and its committees and subcommittees51301
may hold an executive session, as if it were a public body with 51302
public employees, for any of the purposes for which an executive 51303
session of a public body is permitted under division (G) of 51304
section 121.22 of the Revised Code, notwithstanding that the 51305
alliance is not a public body as defined in that section, and its 51306
employees are not public employees as provided in division (F) of 51307
this section. The board of directors shall establish reasonable 51308
methods whereby any person may determine the time and place of all 51309
of the board's public meetings and by which any person, upon 51310
request, may obtain reasonable advance notification of the board's 51311
public meetings. Provisions for that advance notification may 51312
include, but are not limited to, mailing notices to all 51313
subscribers on a mailing list or mailing notices in 51314
self-addressed, stamped envelopes provided by the person.51315

       (2) All records of the alliance shall be organized and 51316
maintained by the alliance and also filed with the department of 51317
education. The alliance and the department shall make those 51318
records available to the public as though those records were 51319
public records for purposes of Chapter 149. of the Revised Code. 51320
The department shall promptly notify the alliance upon the 51321
department's receipt of any requests for records relating to the 51322
alliance pursuant to section 149.43 of the Revised Code.51323

       (3) The board of directors of the alliance shall establish a 51324
conflicts of interest policy and shall adopt that policy, and any 51325
amendments to the policy, at a meeting of the board held in 51326
accordance with this section.51327

       (D) If an alliance is created under this section, the 51328
alliance shall do all of the following:51329

       (1) Report annually on the performance of all municipal 51330
school district schools and all community schools established 51331
under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code and located in the 51332
district, using the criteria adopted under division (B) of section 51333
3311.87 of the Revised Code;51334

       (2) Confirm and monitor implementation of the transformation 51335
alliance education plan;51336

       (3) Suggest national education models for and provide input 51337
in the development of new municipal school district schools and 51338
partnering community schools.51339

       (E) Divisions (E)(1) to (3) of this section apply to each 51340
community school sponsor that is subject to approval by the 51341
department of education under section 3314.015 of the Revised Code 51342
whose approval under that section is granted or renewed on or 51343
after the effective date of this sectionOctober 1, 2012. 51344
Divisions (E)(1) to (3) of this section do not apply to a sponsor 51345
that has been approved by the department prior to that date, until 51346
the sponsor's approval is renewed or granted anew on or after that 51347
date.51348

        (1) Before a sponsor to which this section applies may 51349
sponsor new community schools in an alliance municipal school 51350
district, the sponsor shall request recommendation from the 51351
alliance to sponsor community schools in the district.51352

        (2) The alliance shall review the sponsor's application and 51353
shall make a recommendation based on the standards for sponsors 51354
developed under division (A)(2) of section 3311.87 of the Revised 51355
Code. 51356

       (3) The department shall use the standards developed under 51357
division (A)(2) of section 3311.87 of the Revised Code, in 51358
addition to any other requirements of the Revised Code, to review 51359
a sponsor's request and make a final determination, on 51360
recommendation of the alliance, of whether the sponsor may sponsor 51361
new community schools in the alliance municipal school district.51362

        No sponsor shall be required to receive authorization to 51363
sponsor new community schools under division (E)(3) of this 51364
section more than one time. 51365

       (F) Directors, officers, and employees of an alliance are not 51366
public employees or public officials, are not subject to Chapters 51367
124., 145., and 4117. of the Revised Code, and are not "public 51368
officials" or "public servants" as defined in section 2921.01 of 51369
the Revised Code. Membership on the board of directors of an 51370
alliance does not constitute the holding of an incompatible public 51371
office or employment in violation of any statutory or common law 51372
prohibition against the simultaneous holding of more than one 51373
public office or employment. Members of the board of directors of 51374
an alliance are not disqualified from holding any public office by 51375
reason of that membership, and do not forfeit by reason of that 51376
membership the public office or employment held when appointed to 51377
the board, notwithstanding any contrary disqualification or 51378
forfeiture requirement under the Revised Code or the common law of 51379
this state.51380

       (G) The authority to establish an alliance under this section 51381
expires on January 1, 2018. Any alliance established under this 51382
section is terminated, and any related authority granted to the 51383
alliance under this section expires on that date.51384

       Sec. 3312.08.  Each fiscal agent selected by the department 51385
of education pursuant to section 3312.07 of the Revised Code shall 51386
do all of the following:51387

       (A) Enter into performance contracts with the department in 51388
accordance with section 3312.09 of the Revised Code for the 51389
implementation of state and regional education initiatives and 51390
school improvement efforts;51391

       (B) Receive federal and state funds, including federal funds 51392
for the provision of special education and related services, as 51393
specified in the performance contracts, and disburse those funds 51394
as specified in the performance contracts to educational service 51395
centers, information technology centers, and other regional 51396
service providers. However, any funds owed to an educational 51397
service center in accordance with an agreement entered into under 51398
section 3317.113313.843, 3313.844, or 3313.845 of the Revised 51399
Code shall be paid directly to the service center by the 51400
department in accordance with that section and any operating funds 51401
appropriated for an information technology center shall be paid 51402
directly to the information technology center by the department 51403
pursuant to section 3301.075 of the Revised Code.51404

       (C) Implement any expenditure of funds recommended by the 51405
advisory council for the region pursuant to section 3312.04 of the 51406
Revised Code or required by the terms of any performance contract, 51407
unless there are insufficient funds available to the region to pay 51408
for the expenditure or the expenditure violates a provision of the 51409
Revised Code, a rule of the state board of education regarding 51410
such expenditure, or the terms of a performance contract;51411

       (D) Exercise fiscal oversight of the implementation of state 51412
and regional education initiatives and school improvement efforts.51413

       Sec. 3313.372.  (A) As used in this section, "energy 51414
conservation measure" means an installation or modification of an 51415
installation in, or remodeling of, a building, to reduce energy 51416
consumption. It includes:51417

       (1) Insulation of the building structure and systems within 51418
the building;51419

       (2) Storm windows and doors, multiglazed windows and doors, 51420
heat absorbing or heat reflective glazed and coated window and 51421
door systems, additional glazing, reductions in glass area, and 51422
other window and door system modifications that reduce energy 51423
consumption;51424

       (3) Automatic energy control systems;51425

       (4) Heating, ventilating, or air conditioning system 51426
modifications or replacements;51427

       (5) Caulking and weatherstripping;51428

       (6) Replacement or modification of lighting fixtures to 51429
increase the energy efficiency of the system without increasing 51430
the overall illumination of a facility, unless such increase in 51431
illumination is necessary to conform to the applicable state or 51432
local building code for the proposed lighting system;51433

       (7) Energy recovery systems;51434

       (8) Cogeneration systems that produce steam or forms of 51435
energy such as heat, as well as electricity, for use primarily 51436
within a building or complex of buildings;51437

       (9) Any other modification, installation, or remodeling 51438
approved by the Ohio school facilities commission as an energy 51439
conservation measure.51440

       (B) A board of education of a city, exempted village, local, 51441
or joint vocational school district may enter into an installment 51442
payment contract for the purchase and installation of energy 51443
conservation measures. The provisions of such installment payment 51444
contracts dealing with interest charges and financing terms shall 51445
not be subject to the competitive bidding requirements of section 51446
3313.46 of the Revised Code, and shall be on the following terms:51447

       (1) Not less than one-fifteenth of the costs thereof shall be 51448
paid within two years from the date of purchase.51449

       (2) The remaining balance of the costs thereof shall be paid 51450
within fifteen years from the date of purchase.51451

       The provisions of any installment payment contract entered 51452
into pursuant to this section shall provide that all payments, 51453
except payments for repairs and obligations on termination of the 51454
contract prior to its expiration, be stated as a percentage of 51455
calculated energy, water, or waste water cost savings, avoided 51456
operating costs, and avoided capital costs attributable to the one 51457
or more measures over a defined period of time. Those payments 51458
shall be made only to the extent that the savings described in 51459
this division actually occur. The contractor shall warrant and 51460
guarantee that the energy conservation measures shall realize 51461
guaranteed savings and shall be responsible to pay an amount equal 51462
to any savings shortfall.51463

       An installment payment contract entered into by a board of 51464
education under this section shall require the board to contract 51465
in accordance with division (A) of section 3313.46 of the Revised 51466
Code for the installation, modification, or remodeling of energy 51467
conservation measures unless division (A) of section 3313.46 of 51468
the Revised Code does not apply pursuant to division (B)(3) of 51469
that section.51470

       (C) The board may issue the notes of the school district 51471
signed by the president and the treasurer of the board and 51472
specifying the terms of the purchase and securing the deferred 51473
payments provided in this section, payable at the times provided 51474
and bearing interest at a rate not exceeding the rate determined 51475
as provided in section 9.95 of the Revised Code. The notes may 51476
contain an option for prepayment and shall not be subject to 51477
Chapter 133. of the Revised Code. In the resolution authorizing 51478
the notes, the board may provide, without the vote of the electors 51479
of the district, for annually levying and collecting taxes in 51480
amounts sufficient to pay the interest on and retire the notes, 51481
except that the total net indebtedness of the district without a 51482
vote of the electors incurred under this and all other sections of 51483
the Revised Code, except section 3318.052 of the Revised Code, 51484
shall not exceed one per cent of the district's tax valuation. 51485
Revenues derived from local taxes or otherwise, for the purpose of 51486
conserving energy or for defraying the current operating expenses 51487
of the district, may be applied to the payment of interest and the 51488
retirement of such notes. The notes may be sold at private sale or 51489
given to the contractor under the installment payment contract 51490
authorized by division (B) of this section.51491

       (D) Debt incurred under this section shall not be included in 51492
the calculation of the net indebtedness of a school district under 51493
section 133.06 of the Revised Code.51494

       (E) No school district board shall enter into an installment 51495
payment contract under division (B) of this section unless it 51496
first obtains a report of the costs of the energy conservation 51497
measures and the savings thereof as described under division (G) 51498
of section 133.06 of the Revised Code as a requirement for issuing 51499
energy securities, makes a finding that the amount spent on such 51500
measures is not likely to exceed the amount of money it would save 51501
in energy costs and resultant operational and maintenance costs as 51502
described in that division, except that that finding shall cover 51503
the ensuing fifteen years, and the Ohio school facilities 51504
commission determines that the district board's findings are 51505
reasonable and approves the contract as described in that 51506
division.51507

       The district board shall monitor the savings and maintain a 51508
report of those savings, which shall be submitted to the 51509
commission in the same manner as required by division (G) of 51510
section 133.06 of the Revised Code in the case of energy 51511
securities.51512

       Sec. 3313.376.  As used in this section, "client school 51513
district" has the same meaning as in section 3317.11 of the 51514
Revised Codemeans a city, exempted village, or local school 51515
district that has entered into an agreement under section 3313.843 51516
or 3313.845 of the Revised Code to receive any services from an 51517
educational service center.51518

       For the purpose of obtaining quantity discounts in purchasing 51519
textbooks; computer equipment, including computer software; school 51520
buses; and natural gas, electricity, and other utility services, 51521
the governing boards of two or more educational service centers 51522
may enter into agreements, including installment purchase and 51523
lease-purchase contracts, to jointly purchase such commodities to 51524
be utilized by client school districts of the educational service 51525
centers.51526

       Sec. 3313.48. (A) The board of education of each city, 51527
exempted village, local, and joint vocational school district 51528
shall provide for the free education of the youth of school age 51529
within the district under its jurisdiction, at such places as will 51530
be most convenient for the attendance of the largest number 51531
thereof. Except as provided in section 3313.481 of the Revised 51532
Code, eachEach school so provided and each chartered nonpublic 51533
school shall be open for instruction with pupils in attendance, 51534
including scheduled classes, supervised activities, and approved 51535
education options but excluding lunch and breakfast periods and 51536
extracurricular activities, for not less than one hundred 51537
eighty-two daysfour hundred fifty-five hours in the case of 51538
pupils in kindergarten unless such pupils are provided all-day 51539
kindergarten, as defined in section 3321.05 of the Revised Code, 51540
in which case the pupils shall be in attendance for nine hundred 51541
ten hours; nine hundred ten hours in the case of pupils in grades 51542
one through six; and one thousand one hours in the case of pupils 51543
in grades seven through twelve in each school year, which may 51544
include all of the following:51545

       (A)(1) Up to fourthe equivalent of two school days per year 51546
in which classes are dismissed one-half day early or the 51547
equivalent amount of time during a different number of daysduring 51548
which pupils would otherwise be in attendance but are not required 51549
to attend for the purpose of individualized parent-teacher 51550
conferences and reporting periods;51551

       (B)(2) Up to the equivalent of two school days per year 51552
during which pupils would otherwise be in attendance but are not 51553
required to attend for professional meetings of teachers when such 51554
days occur during a regular school week and schools are not in 51555
session;51556

       (C) The number of days the school is closed as a result of 51557
public calamity, as provided in section 3317.01 of the Revised 51558
Code(3) Morning and afternoon recess periods of not more than 51559
fifteen minutes duration per period for pupils in grades 51560
kindergarten through six.51561

       The state board of education shall adopt standards for 51562
defining "school day" as used in sections 3313.48 and 3317.01 of 51563
the Revised Code.51564

       Except as otherwise provided in this section, each day for 51565
grades seven through twelve shall consist of not less than five 51566
clock hours with pupils in attendance, except in such emergency 51567
situations, including lack of classroom space, as are approved by 51568
the state board of education. Except as otherwise provided in this 51569
section, each day for grades one through six shall consist of not 51570
less than five clock hours with pupils in attendance which may 51571
include fifteen minute morning and afternoon recess periods, 51572
except in such emergency situations, including lack of classroom 51573
space, as are approved by the state board of education.51574

       (B) Not later than thirty days prior to adopting a school 51575
calendar, the board of education of each city, exempted village, 51576
and local school district shall hold a public hearing on the 51577
school calendar, addressing topics that include, but are not 51578
limited to, the total number of hours in a school year, length of 51579
school day, and beginning and end dates of instruction.51580

        (C) No school operated by a city, exempted village, local, or 51581
joint vocational school district shall reduce the number of hours 51582
in each school year that the school is scheduled to be open for 51583
instruction from the number of hours per year the school was open 51584
for instruction during the previous school year unless the 51585
reduction is approved by a resolution adopted by the district 51586
board of education. Any reduction so approved shall not result in 51587
fewer hours of instruction per school year than the applicable 51588
number of hours required under division (A) of this section.51589

       (D) Prior to making any change in the hours or days in which 51590
a high school under its jurisdiction is open for instruction, the 51591
board of education of each city, exempted village, and local 51592
school district shall consider the compatibility of the proposed 51593
change with the scheduling needs of any joint vocational school 51594
district in which any of the high school's students are also 51595
enrolled. The board shall consider the impact of the proposed 51596
change on student access to the instructional programs offered by 51597
the joint vocational school district, incentives for students to 51598
participate in career-technical education, transportation, and the 51599
timing of graduation. The board shall provide the joint vocational 51600
school district board with advance notice of the proposed change 51601
and the two boards shall enter into a written agreement 51602
prescribing reasonable accommodations to meet the scheduling needs 51603
of the joint vocational school district prior to implementation of 51604
the change.51605

       (E) Prior to making any change in the hours or days in which 51606
a school under its jurisdiction is open for instruction, the board 51607
of education of each city, exempted village, and local school 51608
district shall consider the compatibility of the proposed change 51609
with the scheduling needs of any community school established 51610
under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code to which the district is 51611
required to transport students under sections 3314.09 and 3327.01 51612
of the Revised Code. The board shall consider the impact of the 51613
proposed change on student access to the instructional programs 51614
offered by the community school, transportation, and the timing of 51615
graduation. The board shall provide the sponsor, governing 51616
authority, and operator of the community school with advance 51617
notice of the proposed change, and the board and the governing 51618
authority, or operator if such authority is delegated to the 51619
operator, shall enter into a written agreement prescribing 51620
reasonable accommodations to meet the scheduling needs of the 51621
community school prior to implementation of the change.51622

       (F) Prior to making any change in the hours or days in which 51623
the schools under its jurisdiction are open for instruction, the 51624
board of education of each city, exempted village, and local 51625
school district shall consult with the chartered nonpublic schools 51626
to which the district is required to transport students under 51627
section 3327.01 of the Revised Code and shall consider the effect 51628
of the proposed change on the schedule for transportation of those 51629
students to their nonpublic schools. The governing authority of a 51630
chartered nonpublic school shall consult with each school district 51631
board of education that transports students to the chartered 51632
nonpublic school under section 3327.01 of the Revised Code prior 51633
to making any change in the hours or days in which the nonpublic 51634
school is open for instruction.51635

       (G) The state board of education shall not adopt or enforce 51636
any rule or standard that imposes on chartered nonpublic schools 51637
the procedural requirements imposed on school districts by 51638
divisions (B), (C), (D), and (E) of this section.51639

       Sec. 3313.481. Wherever in Title XXXIII of the Revised Code 51640
the term "school day" is used, unless otherwise specified, that 51641
term shall be construed to mean the time during a calendar day 51642
that a school is open for instruction pursuant to the schedule 51643
adopted by the board of education of the school district or the 51644
governing authority of the chartered nonpublic school in 51645
accordance with section 3313.48 of the Revised Code.51646

       Sec. 3313.483.  (A) A board of education, upon the adoption 51647
of a resolution stating that it may be financially unable to open 51648
on the day or to remain open for instruction on all days set forth 51649
in its adopted school calendar and pay all obligated expenses, or 51650
the superintendent of public instruction upon the issuance of 51651
written notification under division (B) of section 3313.489 of the 51652
Revised Code, shall request the auditor of state to determine 51653
whether such situation exists. The auditor shall deliver a copy of 51654
each request from a board of education to the superintendent of 51655
public instruction. In the case of a school district not under a 51656
fiscal emergency pursuant to Chapter 3316. of the Revised Code the 51657
auditor shall not issue a finding under this section until written 51658
notification is received from the superintendent pursuant to 51659
section 3313.487 of the Revised Code.51660

       (B) If the auditor of state finds that the board of education 51661
has attempted to avail itself to the fullest extent authorized by 51662
law of all lawful revenue sources available to it except those 51663
authorized by section 5705.21 of the Revised Code, the auditor 51664
shall certify that finding to the superintendent of public 51665
instruction and the state board of education and shall certify the 51666
operating deficit the district will have at the end of the fiscal 51667
year if it commences or continues operating its instructional 51668
program in accordance with its adopted school calendar and pays 51669
all obligated expenses.51670

       (C) No board of education may delay the opening of its 51671
schools or close its schools for financial reasons. Upon the 51672
request of the superintendent of public instruction, the attorney 51673
general shall seek injunctive relief and any other relief required 51674
to enforce this prohibition in the court of common pleas of 51675
Franklin county. The court of common pleas of Franklin county has 51676
exclusive original jurisdiction over all such actions.51677

       (D) Upon the receipt of any certification of an operating 51678
deficit from the auditor of state, a board of education shall make 51679
application to a commercial bank, underwriter, or other 51680
prospective lender or purchaser of its obligations for a loan in 51681
an amount sufficient to enable the district to open or remain open 51682
for instruction on all days set forth in its adopted school 51683
calendar but not to exceed the amount of the deficit certified.51684

       (E)(1) Any board of education that has applied for and been 51685
denied a loan from a commercial bank, underwriter, or other 51686
prospective lender or purchaser of its obligations pursuant to 51687
division (D) of this section shall submit to the superintendent of 51688
public instruction a plan for implementing reductions in the 51689
school district's budget; apply for a loan from a commercial bank, 51690
underwriter, or other prospective lender or purchaser of its 51691
obligations in an amount not to exceed its certified deficit; and 51692
provide the superintendent such information as the superintendent 51693
requires concerning its application for such a loan. The board of 51694
education of a school district declared to be under a fiscal watch 51695
pursuant to division (A) of section 3316.03 of the Revised Code 51696
may, upon approval of the superintendent, utilize the financial 51697
plan required by section 3316.04 of the Revised Code, or 51698
applicable parts thereof, as the plan required under this 51699
division. The board of education of a school district declared to 51700
be under a fiscal emergency pursuant to division (B) of section 51701
3316.03 of the Revised Code may utilize the financial recovery 51702
plan for the district, or applicable parts thereof, as the plan 51703
required under this division. Except for the plan of a school 51704
district under a fiscal emergency, the superintendent shall 51705
evaluate, make recommendations concerning, and approve or 51706
disapprove each plan. When a plan is submitted, the superintendent 51707
shall immediately notify the members of the general assembly whose 51708
legislative districts include any or all of the territory of the 51709
school district submitting the plan.51710

       (2) The superintendent shall submit to the controlling board 51711
a copy of each plan the superintendent approves, or each plan 51712
submitted by a district under a fiscal emergency pursuant to 51713
division (B) of section 3316.03 of the Revised Code, and the 51714
general terms of each proposed loan, and shall make 51715
recommendations regarding the plan and whether a proposed loan to 51716
the board of education should be approved for payment as provided 51717
in division (E)(3) of this section. The controlling board shall 51718
approve or disapprove the plan and the proposed loan presented to 51719
it by the superintendent. In the case of a district not under a 51720
fiscal emergency pursuant to division (B) of section 3316.03 of 51721
the Revised Code, the controlling board may require a board of 51722
education to implement the superintendent's recommendations for 51723
expenditure reductions or impose other requirements. Loan 51724
repayments shall be in accordance with a schedule approved by the 51725
superintendent, except that the principal amount of the loan shall 51726
be payable in monthly, semiannual, or annual installments of 51727
principal and interest that are substantially equal principal and 51728
interest installments. Except as otherwise provided in division 51729
(E)(2) of this section, repayment shall be made no later than the 51730
fifteenth day of June of the second fiscal year following the 51731
approval of the loan. A school district with a certified deficit 51732
in excess of either twenty-five million dollars or fifteen per 51733
cent of the general fund expenditures of the district during the 51734
fiscal year shall repay the loan no later than the fifteenth day 51735
of June of the tenth fiscal year following the approval of the 51736
loan. In deciding whether to approve or disapprove a proposed 51737
loan, the controlling board shall consider the deficit certified 51738
by the auditor of state pursuant to this section. A board of 51739
education that has an outstanding loan approved pursuant to this 51740
section with a repayment date of more than two fiscal years after 51741
the date of approval of such loan may not apply for another loan 51742
with such a repayment date until the outstanding loan has been 51743
repaid.51744

       (3) If a board of education has submitted and received 51745
controlling board approval of a plan and proposed loan in 51746
accordance with this section, the superintendent of public 51747
instruction shall report to the controlling board the actual 51748
amounts loaned to the board of education. Such board of education 51749
shall request the superintendent to pay any funds the board of 51750
education would otherwise receive pursuant to Chapter 3306. of the 51751
Revised Code first directly to the holders of the board of 51752
education's notes, or an agent thereof, such amounts as are 51753
specified under the terms of the loan. Such payments shall be made 51754
only from and to the extent of money appropriated by the general 51755
assembly for purposes of such sections. No note or other 51756
obligation of the board of education under the loan constitutes an 51757
obligation nor a debt or a pledge of the faith, credit, or taxing 51758
power of the state, and the holder or owner of such note or 51759
obligation has no right to have taxes levied by the general 51760
assembly for the payment of such note or obligation, and such note 51761
or obligation shall contain a statement to that effect.51762

       (4) Pursuant to the terms of such a loan, a board of 51763
education may issue its notes in anticipation of the collection of 51764
its voted levies for current expenses or its receipt of such state 51765
funds or both. Such notes shall be issued in accordance with 51766
division (E) of section 133.10 of the Revised Code and constitute 51767
Chapter 133. securities to the extent such division and the 51768
otherwise applicable provisions of Chapter 133. of the Revised 51769
Code are not inconsistent with this section, provided that in any 51770
event sections 133.24 and 5705.21 and divisions (A), (B), (C), and 51771
(E)(2) of section 133.10 of the Revised Code do not apply to such 51772
notes.51773

       (5) Notwithstanding section 133.36 or 3313.17, any other 51774
section of the Revised Code, or any other provision of law, a 51775
board of education that has received a loan under this section may 51776
not declare bankruptcy, so long as any portion of such loan 51777
remains unpaid.51778

       (F) Under this section and sectionssection 3313.4810 and 51779
3313.4811, "board of education" or "district board" includes the 51780
financial planning and supervision commission of a school district 51781
under a fiscal emergency pursuant to Chapter 3316. of the Revised 51782
Code where such commission chooses to exercise the powers and 51783
duties otherwise required of the district board of education under 51784
this section and sectionssection 3313.4810 and 3313.4811 of the 51785
Revised Code.51786

       Sec. 3313.484.  No loan shall be approved under sections 51787
3313.483 to 3313.48113313.4810 of the Revised Code after March 1, 51788
1998.51789

       By the last day of June each year, the department of 51790
education shall calculate and pay a subsidy to every school 51791
district that during the current fiscal year paid and was 51792
obligated to pay interest on a loan under sections 3313.483 to 51793
3313.48113313.4810 of the Revised Code in excess of two per cent 51794
simple interest. The amount of the subsidy shall equal the 51795
difference between the amount of interest the district paid and 51796
was obligated to pay during the year and the interest that the 51797
district would have been obligated to pay if the interest rate on 51798
the loan had been two per cent per year.51799

       Sec. 3313.488.  (A) Within fifteen days ofafter the date a 51800
board of education requests that its school district be made 51801
subject to this section as authorized by section 3317.62 of the 51802
Revised Code, or the state board of education has issuedissues an 51803
order under section 3313.487 of the Revised Code making a school 51804
district subject to this section, the district's board of 51805
education shall prepare a fiscal statement of expenses and 51806
expenditures for the remainder of the current fiscal year. The 51807
fiscal statement shall be submitted to the superintendent of 51808
public instruction and shall set forth all revenues to be received 51809
by the district during the remainder of the fiscal year and their 51810
sources, the expenses to be incurred by the district during the 51811
remainder of the fiscal year, the outstanding and unpaid expenses 51812
at the time the fiscal statement is prepared and the date or dates 51813
by which such expenses must be paid, and such other information as 51814
the superintendent requires to enable the superintendent to ensure 51815
that during the remainder of the fiscal year, the district will 51816
not incur any expenses that will further impair its ability to 51817
operate an instructional program that meets or exceeds the minimum 51818
standards of the state board of education and requirements of the 51819
Revised Code during the current and ensuing fiscal years with the 51820
revenue available to it from existing revenue sources. The fiscal 51821
statement shall be presented in such detail and form as the 51822
superintendent prescribes. Beginning the tenth day after the 51823
fiscal statement is submitted and for the remainder of the fiscal 51824
year, the board shall not make any expenditure of money, make any 51825
employment, purchase, or rental contract, give any order involving 51826
the expenditure of money, or increase any wage or salary schedule 51827
unless the superintendent of public instruction has approved the 51828
fiscal statement in writing and the expenditure, contract, order, 51829
or schedule has been approved in writing by the superintendent as 51830
being in conformity with the fiscal statement.51831

       Any contract or expenditure made, order given, or schedule 51832
adopted or put into effect without the written approval of the 51833
superintendent of public instruction is void, and no warrant shall 51834
be issued in payment of any amount due thereon.51835

       (B) A board of education subject to division (A) of this 51836
section shall prepare a fiscal statement of expenses and 51837
expenditures for the ensuing fiscal year. The fiscal statement 51838
shall be submitted to the superintendent of public instruction and 51839
shall set forth all revenues to be received by the district during 51840
such year and their source, the expenses to be incurred by the 51841
district during such year, the outstanding and unpaid expenses on 51842
the first day of such fiscal year, the date or dates by which such 51843
expenses must be paid, and such other information as the 51844
superintendent requires to enable the superintendent to ensure 51845
that during such year, the district will not incur any expenses 51846
that will further impair its ability to operate an instructional 51847
program that meets or exceeds the minimum standards of the state 51848
board of education and requirements of the Revised Code during 51849
such year with the revenue available to it from existing revenue 51850
sources. The fiscal statement shall be presented at the time and 51851
in such detail and form as the superintendent prescribes. During 51852
the fiscal year following the year in which a board of education 51853
first becomes subject to division (A) of this section it shall not 51854
make any expenditure of money, make any employment, purchase, or 51855
rental contract, give any order involving the expenditure of 51856
money, or increase any wage or salary schedule unless the 51857
superintendent of public instruction has approved the fiscal 51858
statement submitted under this division in writing and has 51859
approved the expenditure, contract, order, or schedule in writing 51860
as being in conformity with the fiscal statement.51861

       Any contract or expenditure made, order given, or schedule 51862
adopted or put into effect without the written approval of the 51863
superintendent of public instruction is void, and no warrant shall 51864
be issued in payment of any amount due thereon.51865

       (C) The state board of education shall examine any fiscal 51866
statement presented to and approved by the superintendent of 51867
public instruction under division (B) of this section and shall 51868
determine whether the data set forth in the fiscal statement are 51869
factual and based upon assumptions that in its judgment are 51870
reasonable expectations consistent with acceptable governmental 51871
budget and accounting practices. If the state board so determines 51872
and finds that the revenues and expenditures in the fiscal 51873
statement are in balance for the fiscal year and the fiscal 51874
statement will enable the district to operate during such year 51875
without interrupting its school calendar, it shall certify its 51876
determination and finding to the district at least thirty days 51877
prior to the beginning of the fiscal year, and the district shall 51878
thereupon cease to be subject to this section. If the state board 51879
does not make such a determination and finding, the board of 51880
education and school district are subject to this division and 51881
division (B) of this section in the ensuing fiscal year and each 51882
fiscal year thereafter until the state board makes a 51883
determination, finding, and certification under this division.51884

       (D) Any officer, employee, or other person who knowingly 51885
expends or authorizes the expenditure of any public funds or 51886
knowingly authorizes or executes any contract, order, or schedule 51887
contrary to division (A) or (B) of this section or who knowingly 51888
expends or authorizes the expenditure of any public funds on any 51889
such void contract, order, or schedule is jointly and severally 51890
liable in person and upon any official bond that the officer, 51891
employee, or other person has given to such school district to the 51892
extent of any payments on the void claim, not to exceed twenty 51893
thousand dollars. The attorney general at the written request of 51894
the superintendent of public instruction shall enforce this 51895
liability by civil action brought in any court of appropriate 51896
jurisdiction in the name of and on behalf of the school district.51897

       (E) During each month that a board of education is subject to 51898
division (A), (B), or (C) of this section, the superintendent of 51899
public instruction shall submit a report to the speaker of the 51900
house of representatives and the president of the senate on the 51901
financial condition of the school district. The report shall 51902
contain the date by which the superintendent anticipates the 51903
district will cease to be subject to such divisions, the 51904
district's plans for becoming exempt from such section, and such 51905
other information the superintendent determines appropriate or the 51906
speaker of the house of representatives or president of the senate 51907
requests.51908

       In addition to the other reports required under this 51909
division, on the thirty-first day of each school district fiscal 51910
year following a fiscal year in which a school district first 51911
becomes subject to this section, the superintendent shall submit a 51912
written report to the speaker of the house of representatives and 51913
the president of the senate. The report shall include 51914
recommendations to the general assembly for strengthening the 51915
financial condition of school districts based upon the experiences 51916
of the superintendent and the state board in exercising their 51917
powers under this section and sections 3313.483 and 3313.487 of 51918
the Revised Code.51919

       (F) This section does not apply to a school district declared 51920
to be under a fiscal emergency pursuant to division (B) of section 51921
3316.03 of the Revised Code.51922

       Sec. 3313.4810.  Any school district receiving a loan under 51923
section 3313.483 or 3317.64 of the Revised Code in excess of seven 51924
per cent of the general fund expenditures of the district during 51925
the fiscal year in which the loan is received and that has 51926
received a loan under that section within the last five years is 51927
subject to section 3313.488 of the Revised Code for the duration 51928
of the fiscal year in which the district receives the loan and 51929
during the ensuing two fiscal years. The controlling board may not 51930
relieve a school district to which this section applies from any 51931
requirements imposed under section 3313.483 or 3317.64 of the 51932
Revised Code to implement recommendations of the superintendent of 51933
public instruction for expenditure reduction and may not modify 51934
any other requirements imposed under such section upon such a 51935
district as a condition for receiving the loan unless expressly 51936
authorized to do so by law. The superintendent of public 51937
instruction shall, among any recommendations hethe superintendent51938
makes for expenditure reduction under section 3313.483 or 3317.6351939
of the Revised Code affecting the number of employees of a school 51940
district to which this section applies, provide wherever possible 51941
for the retention of teachers who are actually involved in the 51942
daily teaching of students in the classroom.51943

       Sec. 3313.533.  (A) The board of education of a city, 51944
exempted village, or local school district may adopt a resolution 51945
to establish and maintain an alternative school in accordance with 51946
this section. The resolution shall specify, but not necessarily be 51947
limited to, all of the following:51948

       (1) The purpose of the school, which purpose shall be to 51949
serve students who are on suspension, who are having truancy 51950
problems, who are experiencing academic failure, who have a 51951
history of class disruption, who are exhibiting other academic or 51952
behavioral problems specified in the resolution, or who have been 51953
discharged or released from the custody of the department of youth 51954
services under section 5139.51 of the Revised Code;51955

       (2) The grades served by the school, which may include any of 51956
grades kindergarten through twelve;51957

       (3) A requirement that the school be operated in accordance 51958
with this section. The board of education adopting the resolution 51959
under division (A) of this section shall be the governing board of 51960
the alternative school. The board shall develop and implement a 51961
plan for the school in accordance with the resolution establishing 51962
the school and in accordance with this section. Each plan shall 51963
include, but not necessarily be limited to, all of the following:51964

       (a) Specification of the reasons for which students will be 51965
accepted for assignment to the school and any criteria for 51966
admission that are to be used by the board to approve or 51967
disapprove the assignment of students to the school;51968

       (b) Specification of the criteria and procedures that will be 51969
used for returning students who have been assigned to the school 51970
back to the regular education program of the district;51971

       (c) An evaluation plan for assessing the effectiveness of the 51972
school and its educational program and reporting the results of 51973
the evaluation to the public.51974

       (B) Notwithstanding any provision of Title XXXIII of the 51975
Revised Code to the contrary, the alternative school plan may 51976
include any of the following:51977

       (1) A requirement that on each school day students must 51978
attend school or participate in other programs specified in the 51979
plan or by the chief administrative officer of the school for a 51980
period equal to the minimum school day set by the state board of 51981
education under section 3313.48 of the Revised Code plus any 51982
additional time required in the plan or by the chief 51983
administrative officer;51984

       (2) Restrictions on student participation in extracurricular 51985
or interscholastic activities;51986

       (3) A requirement that students wear uniforms prescribed by 51987
the district board of education.51988

       (C) In accordance with the alternative school plan, the 51989
district board of education may employ teachers and nonteaching 51990
employees necessary to carry out its duties and fulfill its 51991
responsibilities or may contract with a nonprofit or for profit 51992
entity to operate the alternative school, including the provision 51993
of personnel, supplies, equipment, or facilities.51994

       (D) An alternative school may be established in all or part 51995
of a school building.51996

       (E) If a district board of education elects under this 51997
section, or is required by section 3313.534 of the Revised Code, 51998
to establish an alternative school, the district board may join 51999
with the board of education of one or more other districts to form 52000
a joint alternative school by forming a cooperative education 52001
school district under section 3311.52 or 3311.521 of the Revised 52002
Code, or a joint educational program under section 3313.842 of the 52003
Revised Code. The authority to employ personnel or to contract 52004
with a nonprofit or for profit entity under division (C) of this 52005
section applies to any alternative school program established 52006
under this division.52007

       (F) Any individual employed as a teacher at an alternative 52008
school operated by a nonprofit or for profit entity under this 52009
section shall be licensed and shall be subject to background 52010
checks, as described in section 3319.39 of the Revised Code, in 52011
the same manner as an individual employed by a school district.52012

       (G) Division (G) of this section applies only to any 52013
alternative school that is operated by a nonprofit or for profit 52014
entity under contract with the school district.52015

       (1) In addition to the specifications authorized under 52016
division (B) of this section, any plan adopted under that division 52017
for an alternative school to which division (G) of this section 52018
also applies shall include the following:52019

       (a) A description of the educational program provided at the 52020
alternative school, which shall include:52021

       (i) Provisions for the school to be configured in clusters or 52022
small learning communities;52023

       (ii) Provisions for the incorporation of education technology 52024
into the curriculum;52025

       (iii) Provisions for accelerated learning programs in reading 52026
and mathematics.52027

       (b) A method to determine the reading and mathematics level 52028
of each student assigned to the alternative school and a method to 52029
continuously monitor each student's progress in those areas. The 52030
methods employed under this division shall be aligned with the 52031
curriculum adopted by the school district board of education under 52032
section 3313.60 of the Revised Code.52033

       (c) A plan for social services to be provided at the 52034
alternative school, such as, but not limited to, counseling 52035
services, psychological support services, and enrichment programs;52036

       (d) A plan for a student's transition from the alternative 52037
school back to a school operated by the school district;52038

       (e) A requirement that the alternative school maintain 52039
financial records in a manner that is compatible with the form 52040
prescribed for school districts by the auditor of state to enable 52041
the district to comply with any rules adopted by the auditor of 52042
state.52043

       (2) Notwithstanding division (A)(2) of this section, any 52044
alternative school to which division (G) of this section applies 52045
shall include only grades six through twelve.52046

       (3) Notwithstanding anything in division (A)(3)(a) of this 52047
section to the contrary, the characteristics of students who may 52048
be assigned to an alternative school to which division (G) of this 52049
section applies shall include only disruptive and low-performing 52050
students.52051

       (H) When any district board of education determines to 52052
contract with a nonprofit or for profit entity to operate an 52053
alternative school under this section, the board shall use the 52054
procedure set forth in this division.52055

       (1) The board shall publish notice of a request for proposals 52056
in a newspaper of general circulation in the district once each 52057
week for a period of two consecutive weeks, or as provided in 52058
section 7.16 of the Revised Code, prior to the date specified by 52059
the board for receiving proposals. Notices of requests for 52060
proposals shall contain a general description of the subject of 52061
the proposed contract and the location where the request for 52062
proposals may be obtained. The request for proposals shall include 52063
all of the following information:52064

       (a) Instructions and information to respondents concerning 52065
the submission of proposals, including the name and address of the 52066
office where proposals are to be submitted;52067

       (b) Instructions regarding communications, including at least 52068
the names, titles, and telephone numbers of persons to whom 52069
questions concerning a proposal may be directed;52070

       (c) A description of the performance criteria that will be 52071
used to evaluate whether a respondent to which a contract is 52072
awarded is meeting the district's educational standards or the 52073
method by which such performance criteria will be determined;52074

       (d) Factors and criteria to be considered in evaluating 52075
proposals, the relative importance of each factor or criterion, 52076
and a description of the evaluation procedures to be followed;52077

       (e) Any terms or conditions of the proposed contract, 52078
including any requirement for a bond and the amount of such bond;52079

       (f) Documents that may be incorporated by reference into the 52080
request for proposals, provided that the request for proposals 52081
specifies where such documents may be obtained and that such 52082
documents are readily available to all interested parties.52083

       (2) After the date specified for receiving proposals, the 52084
board shall evaluate the submitted proposals and may hold 52085
discussions with any respondent to ensure a complete understanding 52086
of the proposal and the qualifications of such respondent to 52087
execute the proposed contract. Such qualifications shall include, 52088
but are not limited to, all of the following:52089

       (a) Demonstrated competence in performance of the required 52090
services as indicated by effective implementation of educational 52091
programs in reading and mathematics and at least three years of 52092
experience successfully serving a student population similar to 52093
the student population assigned to the alternative school;52094

       (b) Demonstrated performance in the areas of cost 52095
containment, the provision of educational services of a high 52096
quality, and any other areas determined by the board;52097

       (c) Whether the respondent has the resources to undertake the 52098
operation of the alternative school and to provide qualified 52099
personnel to staff the school;52100

       (d) Financial responsibility.52101

       (3) The board shall select for further review at least three 52102
proposals from respondents the board considers qualified to 52103
operate the alternative school in the best interests of the 52104
students and the district. If fewer than three proposals are 52105
submitted, the board shall select each proposal submitted. The 52106
board may cancel a request for proposals or reject all proposals 52107
at any time prior to the execution of a contract.52108

       The board may hold discussions with any of the three selected 52109
respondents to clarify or revise the provisions of a proposal or 52110
the proposed contract to ensure complete understanding between the 52111
board and the respondent of the terms under which a contract will 52112
be entered. Respondents shall be accorded fair and equal treatment 52113
with respect to any opportunity for discussion regarding 52114
clarifications or revisions. The board may terminate or 52115
discontinue any further discussion with a respondent upon written 52116
notice.52117

       (4) Upon further review of the three proposals selected by 52118
the board, the board shall award a contract to the respondent the 52119
board considers to have the most merit, taking into consideration 52120
the scope, complexity, and nature of the services to be performed 52121
by the respondent under the contract.52122

       (5) Except as provided in division (H)(6) of this section, 52123
the request for proposals, submitted proposals, and related 52124
documents shall become public records under section 149.43 of the 52125
Revised Code after the award of the contract.52126

       (6) Any respondent may request in writing that the board not 52127
disclose confidential or proprietary information or trade secrets 52128
contained in the proposal submitted by the respondent to the 52129
board. Any such request shall be accompanied by an offer of 52130
indemnification from the respondent to the board. The board shall 52131
determine whether to agree to the request and shall inform the 52132
respondent in writing of its decision. If the board agrees to 52133
nondisclosure of specified information in a proposal, such 52134
information shall not become a public record under section 149.43 52135
of the Revised Code. If the respondent withdraws its proposal at 52136
any time prior to the execution of a contract, the proposal shall 52137
not be a public record under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.52138

       (I) Upon a recommendation from the department and in 52139
accordance with section 3301.16 of the Revised Code, the state 52140
board of education may revoke the charter of any alternative 52141
school operated by a school district that violates this section.52142

       Sec. 3313.539. (A) As used in this section, "physician":52143

       "Physician" means a person authorized under Chapter 4731. of 52144
the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic 52145
medicine and surgery.52146

       "Chiropractor" means a person licensed under Chapter 4734. of 52147
the Revised Code to practice chiropractic.52148

       (B) No school district board of education or governing 52149
authority of a chartered or nonchartered nonpublic school shall 52150
permit a student to practice for or compete in interscholastic 52151
athletics until the student has submitted, to a school official 52152
designated by the board or governing authority, a form signed by 52153
the parent, guardian, or other person having care or charge of the 52154
student stating that the student and the parent, guardian, or 52155
other person having care or charge of the student have received 52156
the concussion and head injury information sheet required by 52157
section 3707.52 of the Revised Code. A completed form shall be 52158
submitted each school year, as defined in section 3313.62 of the 52159
Revised Code, for each sport or other category of interscholastic 52160
athletics for or in which the student practices or competes.52161

       (C)(1) No school district board of education or governing 52162
authority of a chartered or nonchartered nonpublic school shall 52163
permit an individual to coach interscholastic athletics unless the 52164
individual holds a pupil-activity program permit issued under 52165
section 3319.303 of the Revised Code for coaching interscholastic 52166
athletics.52167

       (2) No school district board of education or governing 52168
authority of a chartered or nonchartered nonpublic school shall 52169
permit an individual to referee interscholastic athletics unless 52170
the individual holds a pupil-activity program permit issued under 52171
section 3319.303 of the Revised Code for coaching interscholastic 52172
athletics or presents evidence that the individual has 52173
successfully completed, within the previous three years, a 52174
training program in recognizing the symptoms of concussions and 52175
head injuries to which the department of health has provided a 52176
link on its internet web site under section 3707.52 of the Revised 52177
Code or a training program authorized and required by an 52178
organization that regulates interscholastic conferences or events.52179

       (D) If a student practicing for or competing in an 52180
interscholastic athletic event exhibits signs, symptoms, or 52181
behaviors consistent with having sustained a concussion or head 52182
injury while participating in the practice or competition, the 52183
student shall be removed from the practice or competition by 52184
either of the following:52185

        (1) The individual who is serving as the student's coach 52186
during that practice or competition;52187

        (2) An individual who is serving as a referee during that 52188
practice or competition.52189

       (E)(1) If a student is removed from practice or competition 52190
under division (D) of this section, the coach or referee who 52191
removed the student shall not allow the student, on the same day 52192
the student is removed, to return to that practice or competition 52193
or to participate in any other practice or competition for which 52194
the coach or referee is responsible. Thereafter, the coach or 52195
referee shall not allow the student to return to that practice or 52196
competition or to participate in any other practice or competition 52197
for which the coach or referee is responsible until both of the 52198
following conditions are satisfied:52199

       (a) The student's condition is assessed by eitherany of the 52200
following:52201

       (i) A physician;52202

        (ii) A chiropractor;52203

       (iii) Any other licensed health care provider the school 52204
district board of education or governing authority of the 52205
chartered or nonchartered nonpublic school, pursuant to division 52206
(E)(2) of this section, authorizes to assess a student who has 52207
been removed from practice or competition under division (D) of 52208
this section.52209

       (b) The student receives written clearance that it is safe 52210
for the student to return to practice or competition from a 52211
physician, chiropractor, or from another licensed health care 52212
provider authorized pursuant to division (E)(2) of this section to 52213
grant the clearance.52214

       (2) A school district board of education or governing 52215
authority of a chartered or nonchartered nonpublic school may 52216
authorize a licensed health care provider who is not a physician 52217
or a chiropractor to make an assessment or grant a clearance for 52218
purposes of division (E)(1) of this section only if the provider 52219
is acting in accordance with one of the following, as applicable 52220
to the provider's authority to practice in this state:52221

       (a) In consultation with a physician;52222

       (b) Pursuant to the referral of a physician;52223

       (c) In collaboration with a physician;52224

       (d) Under the supervision of a physician.52225

       (3) A physician, chiropractor, or other licensed health care 52226
provider who makes an assessment or grants a clearance for 52227
purposes of division (E)(1) of this section may be a volunteer.52228

       (F) A school district board of education or governing 52229
authority of a chartered or nonchartered nonpublic school that is 52230
subject to the rules of an interscholastic conference or an 52231
organization that regulates interscholastic conferences or events 52232
shall be considered to be in compliance with divisions (B), (D), 52233
and (E) of this section, as long as the requirements of those 52234
rules are substantially similar to the requirements of divisions 52235
(B), (D), and (E) of this section.52236

       (G)(1) A school district, member of a school district board 52237
of education, or school district employee or volunteer, including 52238
a coach or referee, is not liable in damages in a civil action for 52239
injury, death, or loss to person or property allegedly arising 52240
from providing services or performing duties under this section, 52241
unless the act or omission constitutes willful or wanton 52242
misconduct.52243

       This section does not eliminate, limit, or reduce any other 52244
immunity or defense that a school district, member of a school 52245
district board of education, or school district employee or 52246
volunteer, including a coach or referee, may be entitled to under 52247
Chapter 2744. or any other provision of the Revised Code or under 52248
the common law of this state.52249

       (2) A chartered or nonchartered nonpublic school or any 52250
officer, director, employee, or volunteer of the school, including 52251
a coach or referee, is not liable in damages in a civil action for 52252
injury, death, or loss to person or property allegedly arising 52253
from providing services or performing duties under this section, 52254
unless the act or omission constitutes willful or wanton 52255
misconduct.52256

       Sec. 3313.5311. (A) As used in this section and in section 52257
3313.5312 of the Revised Code, "extracurricular activity" has the 52258
same meaning as in section 3313.537 of the Revised Code.52259

       (B) If the nonpublic school in which the student is enrolled 52260
does not offer the extracurricular activity, a student enrolled in 52261
a chartered or nonchartered nonpublic school shall be afforded, by 52262
the superintendent of the school district in which the student is 52263
entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the 52264
Revised Code, the opportunity to participate in that 52265
extracurricular activity at the district school to which the 52266
student otherwise would be assigned during that school year. If 52267
more than one school operated by the school district serves the 52268
student's grade level, as determined by the district 52269
superintendent based on the student's age and academic 52270
performance, the student shall be afforded the opportunity to 52271
participate in that extracurricular activity at the school to 52272
which the student would be assigned by the superintendent under 52273
section 3319.01 of the Revised Code.52274

       (C) The superintendent of any school district may afford any 52275
student enrolled in a nonpublic school, and who is not entitled to 52276
attend school in the district under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of 52277
the Revised Code, the opportunity to participate in an 52278
extracurricular activity offered by a school of the district, if 52279
both of the following apply:52280

        (1) The nonpublic school in which the student is enrolled 52281
does not offer the extracurricular activity;52282

        (2) The extracurricular activity is not interscholastic 52283
athletics or interscholastic contests or competition in music, 52284
drama, or forensics.52285

       (D) In order to participate in an extracurricular activity 52286
under this section, the student shall be of the appropriate age 52287
and grade level, as determined by the superintendent of the 52288
district, for the school that offers the extracurricular activity, 52289
and shall fulfill the same academic, nonacademic, and financial 52290
requirements as any other participant. 52291

       (E) No school district shall impose additional rules on a 52292
student to participate under this section that do not apply to 52293
other students participating in the same extracurricular activity. 52294
No district shall impose additional fees for a student to 52295
participate under this section that exceed any fees charged to 52296
other students participating in the same extracurricular activity.52297

       (F) A school district board of education may require a 52298
student enrolled in a chartered or nonchartered nonpublic school 52299
to enroll and participate in not more than one academic course at 52300
the school offering the extracurricular activity as a condition to 52301
participating in the activity. In that case, the board shall admit 52302
students seeking to enroll in an academic course to fulfill the 52303
requirement as space allows after first enrolling students 52304
assigned to that school.52305

       (G) No school district, interscholastic conference, or 52306
organization that regulates interscholastic conferences or events 52307
shall require a student who is eligible to participate in 52308
interscholastic extracurricular activities under this section to 52309
meet eligibility requirements that conflict with this section.52310

       Sec. 3313.5312.  (A) A student who is receiving home 52311
instruction in accordance with division (A)(2) of section 3321.04 52312
of the Revised Code shall be afforded, by the superintendent of 52313
the school district in which the student is entitled to attend 52314
school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code, the 52315
opportunity to participate in any extracurricular activity offered 52316
at the district school to which the student otherwise would be 52317
assigned during that school year. If more than one school operated 52318
by the school district serves the student's grade level, as 52319
determined by the district superintendent based on the student's 52320
age and academic performance, the student shall be afforded the 52321
opportunity to participate in extracurricular activities at the 52322
school to which the student would be assigned by the 52323
superintendent under section 3319.01 of the Revised Code. If a 52324
student who is afforded the opportunity to participate in 52325
extracurricular activities under division (A) of this section 52326
wishes to participate in an activity that is offered by the 52327
district, the student shall not participate in that activity at 52328
another school or school district to which the student is not 52329
entitled to attend.52330

       (B) The superintendent of any school district may afford any 52331
student who receives home instruction under division (A)(2) of 52332
section 3321.04 of the Revised Code, and who is not entitled to 52333
attend school in the district under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of 52334
the Revised Code, the opportunity to participate in any 52335
extracurricular activity offered by a school of the district, if 52336
the district to which the student is entitled to attend does not 52337
offer that extracurricular activity.52338

       (C) In order to participate in an extracurricular activity 52339
under this section, the student shall be of the appropriate age 52340
and grade level, as determined by the superintendent of the 52341
district, for the school that offers the extracurricular activity, 52342
shall fulfill the same nonacademic and financial requirements as 52343
any other participant, and shall fulfill either of the following 52344
academic requirements:52345

       (1) If the student received home instruction in the preceding 52346
grading period, the student shall meet any academic requirements 52347
established by the state board of education for the continuation 52348
of home instruction.52349

       (2) If the student did not receive home instruction in the 52350
preceding grading period, the student's academic performance 52351
during the preceding grading period shall have met any academic 52352
standards for eligibility to participate in the program 52353
established by the school district.52354

       (D) Eligibility for a student who leaves a school district 52355
mid-year for home instruction shall be determined based on an 52356
interim academic assessment issued by the district in which the 52357
student was enrolled based on the student's work while enrolled in 52358
that district.52359

       (E) Any student who commences home instruction after the 52360
beginning of a school year and who is, at the time home 52361
instruction commences, ineligible to participate in an 52362
extracurricular activity due to failure to meet academic standards 52363
or any other requirements of the district shall not participate in 52364
the extracurricular activity under this section until the student 52365
meets the academic requirements established by the state board of 52366
education for continuation of home instruction as verified by the 52367
superintendent of the district. No student under this section 52368
shall be eligible to participate in the same semester in which the 52369
student was determined ineligible.52370

       (F) No school district shall impose additional rules on a 52371
student to participate under this section that do not apply to 52372
other students participating in the same extracurricular activity. 52373
No district shall impose fees for a student to participate under 52374
this section that exceed any fees charged to other students 52375
participating in the same extracurricular activity.52376

       (G) A school district board of education may require a 52377
student who receives home instruction under division (A)(2) of 52378
section 3321.04 of the Revised Code to enroll and participate in 52379
not more than one academic course at the school offering the 52380
extracurricular activity as a condition to participating in the 52381
activity. In that case, the board shall admit students seeking to 52382
enroll in an academic course to fulfill the requirement as space 52383
allows after first enrolling students assigned to that school.52384

       (H) No school district, interscholastic conference, or 52385
organization that regulates interscholastic conferences or events 52386
shall require a student who is eligible to participate in 52387
interscholastic extracurricular activities under this section to 52388
meet eligibility requirements that conflict with this section.52389

       Sec. 3313.60.  Notwithstanding division (D) of section 52390
3311.52 of the Revised Code, divisions (A) to (E) of this section 52391
do not apply to any cooperative education school district 52392
established pursuant to divisions (A) to (C) of section 3311.52 of 52393
the Revised Code.52394

       (A) The board of education of each city and, exempted 52395
village, and local school district, the governing board of each 52396
educational service center, and the board of each cooperative 52397
education school district established, pursuant to section 52398
3311.521 of the Revised Code, shall prescribe a curriculum for all 52399
schools under theirits control. Except as provided in division 52400
(E) of this section, in any such curriculum there shall be 52401
included the study of the following subjects:52402

       (1) The language arts, including reading, writing, spelling, 52403
oral and written English, and literature;52404

       (2) Geography, the history of the United States and of Ohio, 52405
and national, state, and local government in the United States, 52406
including a balanced presentation of the relevant contributions to 52407
society of men and women of African, Mexican, Puerto Rican, and 52408
American Indian descent as well as other ethnic and racial groups 52409
in Ohio and the United States;52410

       (3) Mathematics;52411

       (4) Natural science, including instruction in the 52412
conservation of natural resources;52413

       (5) Health education, which shall include instruction in:52414

       (a) The nutritive value of foods, including natural and 52415
organically produced foods, the relation of nutrition to health, 52416
and the use and effects of food additives;52417

       (b) The harmful effects of and legal restrictions against the 52418
use of drugs of abuse, alcoholic beverages, and tobacco;52419

       (c) Venereal disease education, except that upon written 52420
request of the student's parent or guardian, a student shall be 52421
excused from taking instruction in venereal disease education;52422

       (d) In grades kindergarten through six, instruction in 52423
personal safety and assault prevention, except that upon written 52424
request of the student's parent or guardian, a student shall be 52425
excused from taking instruction in personal safety and assault 52426
prevention;52427

       (e) In grades seven through twelve, age-appropriate 52428
instruction in dating violence prevention education, which shall 52429
include instruction in recognizing dating violence warning signs 52430
and characteristics of healthy relationships. 52431

       In order to assist school districts in developing a dating 52432
violence prevention education curriculum, the department of 52433
education shall provide on its web site links to free curricula 52434
addressing dating violence prevention. 52435

       If the parent or legal guardian of a student less than 52436
eighteen years of age submits to the principal of the student's 52437
school a written request to examine the dating violence prevention 52438
instruction materials used at that school, the principal, within a 52439
reasonable period of time after the request is made, shall allow 52440
the parent or guardian to examine those materials at that school. 52441

       (6) Physical education;52442

       (7) The fine arts, including music;52443

       (8) First aid, including a training program in 52444
cardiopulmonary resuscitation, safety, and fire prevention, except 52445
that upon written request of the student's parent or guardian, a 52446
student shall be excused from taking instruction in 52447
cardiopulmonary resuscitation.52448

       (B) Except as provided in division (E) of this section, every 52449
school or school district shall include in the requirements for 52450
promotion from the eighth grade to the ninth grade one year's 52451
course of study of American history. A board may waive this 52452
requirement for academically accelerated students who, in 52453
accordance with procedures adopted by the board, are able to 52454
demonstrate mastery of essential concepts and skills of the eighth 52455
grade American history course of study.52456

       (C) As specified in divisions (B)(6) and (C)(6) of section 52457
3313.603 of the Revised Code, except as provided in division (E) 52458
of this section, every high school shall include in the 52459
requirements for graduation from any curriculum one-half unit each 52460
of American history and government.52461

       (D) Except as provided in division (E) of this section, basic 52462
instruction or demonstrated mastery in geography, United States 52463
history, the government of the United States, the government of 52464
the state of Ohio, local government in Ohio, the Declaration of 52465
Independence, the United States Constitution, and the Constitution 52466
of the state of Ohio shall be required before pupils may 52467
participate in courses involving the study of social problems, 52468
economics, foreign affairs, United Nations, world government, 52469
socialism, and communism.52470

       (E) For each cooperative education school district 52471
established pursuant to section 3311.521 of the Revised Code and 52472
each city, exempted village, and local school district that has 52473
territory within such a cooperative district, the curriculum 52474
adopted pursuant to divisions (A) to (D) of this section shall 52475
only include the study of the subjects that apply to the grades 52476
operated by each such school district. The curriculums for such 52477
schools, when combined, shall provide to each student of these 52478
districts all of the subjects required under divisions (A) to (D) 52479
of this section.52480

       (F) The board of education of any cooperative education 52481
school district established pursuant to divisions (A) to (C) of 52482
section 3311.52 of the Revised Code shall prescribe a curriculum 52483
for the subject areas and grade levels offered in any school under 52484
its control.52485

       (G) Upon the request of any parent or legal guardian of a 52486
student, the board of education of any school district shall 52487
permit the parent or guardian to promptly examine, with respect to 52488
the parent's or guardian's own child:52489

       (1) Any survey or questionnaire, prior to its administration 52490
to the child;52491

       (2) Any textbook, workbook, software, video, or other 52492
instructional materials being used by the district in connection 52493
with the instruction of the child;52494

       (3) Any completed and graded test taken or survey or 52495
questionnaire filled out by the child;52496

       (4) Copies of the statewide academic standards and each model 52497
curriculum developed pursuant to section 3301.079 of the Revised 52498
Code, which copies shall be available at all times during school 52499
hours in each district school building.52500

       Sec. 3313.603.  (A) As used in this section:52501

       (1) "One unit" means a minimum of one hundred twenty hours of 52502
course instruction, except that for a laboratory course, "one 52503
unit" means a minimum of one hundred fifty hours of course 52504
instruction.52505

       (2) "One-half unit" means a minimum of sixty hours of course 52506
instruction, except that for physical education courses, "one-half 52507
unit" means a minimum of one hundred twenty hours of course 52508
instruction.52509

       (3) "Internet- or computer-based community school" has the 52510
same meaning as in section 3314.02 of the Revised Code.52511

       (4) "Child with a disability" and "IEP" have the same 52512
meanings as in section 3323.01 of the Revised Code.52513

       (B) Beginning September 15, 2001, except as required in 52514
division (C) of this section and division (C) of section 3313.614 52515
of the Revised Code, the requirements for graduation from every 52516
high school shall include twenty units earned in grades nine 52517
through twelve and shall be distributed as follows:52518

       (1) English language arts, four units;52519

       (2) Health, one-half unit;52520

       (3) Mathematics, three units;52521

       (4) Physical education, one-half unit;52522

       (5) Science, two units until September 15, 2003, and three 52523
units thereafter, which at all times shall include both of the 52524
following:52525

       (a) Biological sciences, one unit;52526

       (b) Physical sciences, one unit.52527

       (6) History and government, one unit, which shall comply with 52528
division (M) of this section and shall include both of the 52529
following:52530

       (a) American history, one-half unit;52531

       (b) American government, one-half unit.52532

       (7) Social studies, two units.52533

       (8) Elective units, seven units until September 15, 2003, and 52534
six units thereafter.52535

       Each student's electives shall include at least one unit, or 52536
two half units, chosen from among the areas of 52537
business/technology, fine arts, and/or foreign language.52538

       (C) Beginning with students who enter ninth grade for the 52539
first time on or after July 1, 2010, except as provided in 52540
divisions (D) to (F) of this section, the requirements for 52541
graduation from every public and chartered nonpublic high school 52542
shall include twenty units that are designed to prepare students 52543
for the workforce and college. The units shall be distributed as 52544
follows:52545

       (1) English language arts, four units;52546

       (2) Health, one-half unit, which shall include instruction in 52547
nutrition and the benefits of nutritious foods and physical 52548
activity for overall health;52549

       (3) Mathematics, four units, which shall include one unit of 52550
algebra II or the equivalent of algebra II;52551

       (4) Physical education, one-half unit;52552

       (5) Science, three units with inquiry-based laboratory 52553
experience that engages students in asking valid scientific 52554
questions and gathering and analyzing information, which shall 52555
include the following, or their equivalent:52556

       (a) Physical sciences, one unit;52557

       (b) Life sciences, one unit;52558

       (c) Advanced study in one or more of the following sciences, 52559
one unit:52560

       (i) Chemistry, physics, or other physical science;52561

       (ii) Advanced biology or other life science;52562

       (iii) Astronomy, physical geology, or other earth or space 52563
science.52564

       (6) History and government, one unit, which shall comply with 52565
division (M) of this section and shall include both of the 52566
following:52567

       (a) American history, one-half unit;52568

       (b) American government, one-half unit.52569

       (7) Social studies, two units.52570

       Each school shall integrate the study of economics and 52571
financial literacy, as expressed in the social studies academic 52572
content standards adopted by the state board of education under 52573
division (A)(1) of section 3301.079 of the Revised Code and the 52574
academic content standards for financial literacy and 52575
entrepreneurship adopted under division (A)(2) of that section, 52576
into one or more existing social studies credits required under 52577
division (C)(7) of this section, or into the content of another 52578
class, so that every high school student receives instruction in 52579
those concepts. In developing the curriculum required by this 52580
paragraph, schools shall use available public-private partnerships 52581
and resources and materials that exist in business, industry, and 52582
through the centers for economics education at institutions of 52583
higher education in the state.52584

       (8) Five units consisting of one or any combination of 52585
foreign language, fine arts, business, career-technical education, 52586
family and consumer sciences, technology, agricultural education, 52587
a junior reserve officer training corps (JROTC) program approved 52588
by the congress of the United States under title 10 of the United 52589
States Code, or English language arts, mathematics, science, or 52590
social studies courses not otherwise required under division (C) 52591
of this section.52592

       Ohioans must be prepared to apply increased knowledge and 52593
skills in the workplace and to adapt their knowledge and skills 52594
quickly to meet the rapidly changing conditions of the 52595
twenty-first century. National studies indicate that all high 52596
school graduates need the same academic foundation, regardless of 52597
the opportunities they pursue after graduation. The goal of Ohio's 52598
system of elementary and secondary education is to prepare all 52599
students for and seamlessly connect all students to success in 52600
life beyond high school graduation, regardless of whether the next 52601
step is entering the workforce, beginning an apprenticeship, 52602
engaging in post-secondary training, serving in the military, or 52603
pursuing a college degree.52604

        The Ohio core curriculum is the standard expectation for all 52605
students entering ninth grade for the first time at a public or 52606
chartered nonpublic high school on or after July 1, 2010. A 52607
student may satisfy this expectation through a variety of methods, 52608
including, but not limited to, integrated, applied, 52609
career-technical, and traditional coursework.52610

       Whereas teacher quality is essential for student success in 52611
completing the Ohio core curriculum, the general assembly shall 52612
appropriate funds for strategic initiatives designed to strengthen 52613
schools' capacities to hire and retain highly qualified teachers 52614
in the subject areas required by the curriculum. Such initiatives 52615
are expected to require an investment of $120,000,000 over five 52616
years.52617

       Stronger coordination between high schools and institutions 52618
of higher education is necessary to prepare students for more 52619
challenging academic endeavors and to lessen the need for academic 52620
remediation in college, thereby reducing the costs of higher 52621
education for Ohio's students, families, and the state. The state 52622
board and the chancellor of the Ohio board of regents shall 52623
develop policies to ensure that only in rare instances will 52624
students who complete the Ohio core curriculum require academic 52625
remediation after high school.52626

       School districts, community schools, and chartered nonpublic 52627
schools shall integrate technology into learning experiences 52628
across the curriculum in order to maximize efficiency, enhance 52629
learning, and prepare students for success in the 52630
technology-driven twenty-first century. Districts and schools 52631
shall use distance and web-based course delivery as a method of 52632
providing or augmenting all instruction required under this 52633
division, including laboratory experience in science. Districts 52634
and schools shall utilize technology access and electronic 52635
learning opportunities provided by the eTech Ohiobroadcast 52636
educational media commission, chancellor, the Ohio learning 52637
network, education technology centers, public television stations, 52638
and other public and private providers.52639

       (D) Except as provided in division (E) of this section, a 52640
student who enters ninth grade on or after July 1, 2010, and 52641
before July 1, 2014, may qualify for graduation from a public or 52642
chartered nonpublic high school even though the student has not 52643
completed the Ohio core curriculum prescribed in division (C) of 52644
this section if all of the following conditions are satisfied:52645

       (1) After the student has attended high school for two years, 52646
as determined by the school, the student and the student's parent, 52647
guardian, or custodian sign and file with the school a written 52648
statement asserting the parent's, guardian's, or custodian's 52649
consent to the student's graduating without completing the Ohio 52650
core curriculum and acknowledging that one consequence of not 52651
completing the Ohio core curriculum is ineligibility to enroll in 52652
most state universities in Ohio without further coursework.52653

       (2) The student and parent, guardian, or custodian fulfill 52654
any procedural requirements the school stipulates to ensure the 52655
student's and parent's, guardian's, or custodian's informed 52656
consent and to facilitate orderly filing of statements under 52657
division (D)(1) of this section.52658

       (3) The student and the student's parent, guardian, or 52659
custodian and a representative of the student's high school 52660
jointly develop an individual career plan for the student that 52661
specifies the student matriculating to a two-year degree program, 52662
acquiring a business and industry credential, or entering an 52663
apprenticeship.52664

       (4) The student's high school provides counseling and support 52665
for the student related to the plan developed under division 52666
(D)(3) of this section during the remainder of the student's high 52667
school experience.52668

       (5) The student successfully completes, at a minimum, the 52669
curriculum prescribed in division (B) of this section.52670

       The department of education, in collaboration with the 52671
chancellor, shall analyze student performance data to determine if 52672
there are mitigating factors that warrant extending the exception 52673
permitted by division (D) of this section to high school classes 52674
beyond those entering ninth grade before July 1, 2014. The 52675
department shall submit its findings and any recommendations not 52676
later than August 1, 2014, to the speaker and minority leader of 52677
the house of representatives, the president and minority leader of 52678
the senate, the chairpersons and ranking minority members of the 52679
standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate 52680
that consider education legislation, the state board of education, 52681
and the superintendent of public instruction.52682

       (E) Each school district and chartered nonpublic school 52683
retains the authority to require an even more rigorous minimum 52684
curriculum for high school graduation than specified in division 52685
(B) or (C) of this section. A school district board of education, 52686
through the adoption of a resolution, or the governing authority 52687
of a chartered nonpublic school may stipulate any of the 52688
following:52689

        (1) A minimum high school curriculum that requires more than 52690
twenty units of academic credit to graduate;52691

        (2) An exception to the district's or school's minimum high 52692
school curriculum that is comparable to the exception provided in 52693
division (D) of this section but with additional requirements, 52694
which may include a requirement that the student successfully 52695
complete more than the minimum curriculum prescribed in division 52696
(B) of this section;52697

        (3) That no exception comparable to that provided in division 52698
(D) of this section is available.52699

       (F) A student enrolled in a dropout prevention and recovery 52700
program, which program has received a waiver from the department, 52701
may qualify for graduation from high school by successfully 52702
completing a competency-based instructional program administered 52703
by the dropout prevention and recovery program in lieu of 52704
completing the Ohio core curriculum prescribed in division (C) of 52705
this section. The department shall grant a waiver to a dropout 52706
prevention and recovery program, within sixty days after the 52707
program applies for the waiver, if the program meets all of the 52708
following conditions:52709

       (1) The program serves only students not younger than sixteen 52710
years of age and not older than twenty-one years of age.52711

       (2) The program enrolls students who, at the time of their 52712
initial enrollment, either, or both, are at least one grade level 52713
behind their cohort age groups or experience crises that 52714
significantly interfere with their academic progress such that 52715
they are prevented from continuing their traditional programs.52716

       (3) The program requires students to attain at least the 52717
applicable score designated for each of the assessments prescribed 52718
under division (B)(1) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code or, 52719
to the extent prescribed by rule of the state board under division 52720
(D)(6) of section 3301.0712 of the Revised Code, division (B)(2) 52721
of that section.52722

       (4) The program develops an individual career plan for the 52723
student that specifies the student's matriculating to a two-year 52724
degree program, acquiring a business and industry credential, or 52725
entering an apprenticeship.52726

       (5) The program provides counseling and support for the 52727
student related to the plan developed under division (F)(4) of 52728
this section during the remainder of the student's high school 52729
experience.52730

       (6) The program requires the student and the student's 52731
parent, guardian, or custodian to sign and file, in accordance 52732
with procedural requirements stipulated by the program, a written 52733
statement asserting the parent's, guardian's, or custodian's 52734
consent to the student's graduating without completing the Ohio 52735
core curriculum and acknowledging that one consequence of not 52736
completing the Ohio core curriculum is ineligibility to enroll in 52737
most state universities in Ohio without further coursework.52738

       (7) Prior to receiving the waiver, the program has submitted 52739
to the department an instructional plan that demonstrates how the 52740
academic content standards adopted by the state board under 52741
section 3301.079 of the Revised Code will be taught and assessed.52742

       If the department does not act either to grant the waiver or 52743
to reject the program application for the waiver within sixty days 52744
as required under this section, the waiver shall be considered to 52745
be granted.52746

       (G) Every high school may permit students below the ninth 52747
grade to take advanced work. If a high school so permits, it shall 52748
award high school credit for successful completion of the advanced 52749
work and shall count such advanced work toward the graduation 52750
requirements of division (B) or (C) of this section if the 52751
advanced work was both:52752

       (1) Taught by a person who possesses a license or certificate 52753
issued under section 3301.071, 3319.22, or 3319.222 of the Revised 52754
Code that is valid for teaching high school;52755

       (2) Designated by the board of education of the city, local, 52756
or exempted village school district, the board of the cooperative 52757
education school district, or the governing authority of the 52758
chartered nonpublic school as meeting the high school curriculum 52759
requirements.52760

        Each high school shall record on the student's high school 52761
transcript all high school credit awarded under division (G) of 52762
this section. In addition, if the student completed a seventh- or 52763
eighth-grade fine arts course described in division (K) of this 52764
section and the course qualified for high school credit under that 52765
division, the high school shall record that course on the 52766
student's high school transcript.52767

       (H) The department shall make its individual academic career 52768
plan available through its Ohio career information system web site 52769
for districts and schools to use as a tool for communicating with 52770
and providing guidance to students and families in selecting high 52771
school courses.52772

        (I) Units earned in English language arts, mathematics, 52773
science, and social studies that are delivered through integrated 52774
academic and career-technical instruction are eligible to meet the 52775
graduation requirements of division (B) or (C) of this section.52776

       (J) The state board, in consultation with the chancellor, 52777
shall adopt a statewide plan implementing methods for students to 52778
earn units of high school credit based on a demonstration of 52779
subject area competency, instead of or in combination with 52780
completing hours of classroom instruction. The state board shall 52781
adopt the plan not later than March 31, 2009, and commence phasing 52782
in the plan during the 2009-2010 school year. The plan shall 52783
include a standard method for recording demonstrated proficiency 52784
on high school transcripts. Each school district and community 52785
school shall comply with the state board's plan adopted under this 52786
division and award units of high school credit in accordance with 52787
the plan. The state board may adopt existing methods for earning 52788
high school credit based on a demonstration of subject area 52789
competency as necessary prior to the 2009-2010 school year.52790

       (K) This division does not apply to students who qualify for 52791
graduation from high school under division (D) or (F) of this 52792
section, or to students pursuing a career-technical instructional 52793
track as determined by the school district board of education or 52794
the chartered nonpublic school's governing authority. 52795
Nevertheless, the general assembly encourages such students to 52796
consider enrolling in a fine arts course as an elective.52797

       Beginning with students who enter ninth grade for the first 52798
time on or after July 1, 2010, each student enrolled in a public 52799
or chartered nonpublic high school shall complete two semesters or 52800
the equivalent of fine arts to graduate from high school. The 52801
coursework may be completed in any of grades seven to twelve. Each 52802
student who completes a fine arts course in grade seven or eight 52803
may elect to count that course toward the five units of electives 52804
required for graduation under division (C)(8) of this section, if 52805
the course satisfied the requirements of division (G) of this 52806
section. In that case, the high school shall award the student 52807
high school credit for the course and count the course toward the 52808
five units required under division (C)(8) of this section. If the 52809
course in grade seven or eight did not satisfy the requirements of 52810
division (G) of this section, the high school shall not award the 52811
student high school credit for the course but shall count the 52812
course toward the two semesters or the equivalent of fine arts 52813
required by this division.52814

       (L)(1) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this 52815
section, the board of education of each school district and the 52816
governing authority of each chartered nonpublic school may adopt a 52817
policy to excuse from the high school physical education 52818
requirement each student who, during high school, has participated 52819
in interscholastic athletics, marching band, or cheerleading for 52820
at least two full seasons or in the junior reserve officer 52821
training corps for at least two full school years. If the board or 52822
authority adopts such a policy, the board or authority shall not 52823
require the student to complete any physical education course as a 52824
condition to graduate. However52825

       (2) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this section, 52826
the following students shall be excused from the high school 52827
physical education requirement prescribed by this section:52828

       (a) A student enrolled in an internet- or computer-based 52829
community school;52830

       (b) To the extent that division (L)(2) does not conflict with 52831
the child's IEP, any child with a disability.52832

       (3) However, theany student excused from the physical 52833
education requirement under division (L) of this section shall be 52834
required to complete one-half unit, consisting of at least sixty 52835
hours of instruction, in another course of study. In the case of a 52836
student who has participated in the junior reserve officer 52837
training corps for at least two full school years, credit received 52838
for that participation may be used to satisfy the requirement to 52839
complete one-half unit in another course of study.52840

       (M) It is important that high school students learn and 52841
understand United States history and the governments of both the 52842
United States and the state of Ohio. Therefore, beginning with 52843
students who enter ninth grade for the first time on or after July 52844
1, 2012, the study of American history and American government 52845
required by divisions (B)(6) and (C)(6) of this section shall 52846
include the study of all of the following documents:52847

        (1) The Declaration of Independence;52848

        (2) The Northwest Ordinance;52849

        (3) The Constitution of the United States with emphasis on 52850
the Bill of Rights;52851

        (4) The Ohio Constitution.52852

        The study of each of the documents prescribed in divisions 52853
(M)(1) to (4) of this section shall include study of that document 52854
in its original context.52855

        The study of American history and government required by 52856
divisions (B)(6) and (C)(6) of this section shall include the 52857
historical evidence of the role of documents such as the 52858
Federalist Papers and the Anti-Federalist Papers to firmly 52859
establish the historical background leading to the establishment 52860
of the provisions of the Constitution and Bill of Rights.52861

       Sec. 3313.6013. (A) As used in this section, "dual enrollment 52862
program" means a program that enables a student to earn credit 52863
toward a degree from an institution of higher education while 52864
enrolled in high school or that enables a student to complete 52865
coursework while enrolled in high school that may earn credit 52866
toward a degree from an institution of higher education upon the 52867
student's attainment of a specified score on an examination 52868
covering the coursework. Dual enrollment programs may include any 52869
of the following:52870

        (1) The post-secondary enrollment options program established 52871
under Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code;52872

       (2) Advanced placement courses;52873

       (3) Any similar program established pursuant to an agreement 52874
between a school district or chartered nonpublic high school and 52875
an institution of higher education;52876

       (4) Early college high schools.52877

        (B) Each city, local, exempted village, and joint vocational 52878
school district and each chartered nonpublic high school shall 52879
provide students enrolled in grades nine through twelve with the 52880
opportunity to participate in a dual enrollment program. For this 52881
purpose, each school district and chartered nonpublic high school 52882
shall offer at least one dual enrollment program in accordance 52883
with division (B)(1) or (2) of this section, as applicable.52884

        (1) A city, local, or exempted village school district meets 52885
the requirements of this division through its mandatory 52886
participation in the post-secondary enrollment options program 52887
established under Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code. However, a 52888
city, local, or exempted village school district may offer any 52889
other dual enrollment program, in addition to the post-secondary 52890
enrollment options program, and each joint vocational school 52891
district shall offer at least one other dual enrollment program, 52892
to students in good standing, as defined by the partnership for 52893
continued learning under section 3301.42 of the Revised Code as it 52894
existed prior to October 16, 2009, or as subsequently defined by 52895
the department of education.52896

        (2) A chartered nonpublic high school that elects to 52897
participate in the post-secondary enrollment options program 52898
established under Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code meets the 52899
requirements of this division. Each chartered nonpublic high 52900
school that elects not to participate in the post-secondary 52901
enrollment options program instead shall offer at least one other 52902
dual enrollment program to students in good standing, as defined 52903
by the partnership for continued learning under section 3301.42 of 52904
the Revised Code as it existed prior to October 16, 2009, or as 52905
subsequently defined by the department of education.52906

       (C) Each school district and each chartered nonpublic high 52907
school shall provide information about the dual enrollment 52908
programs offered by the district or school to all students 52909
enrolled in grades eight through eleven.52910

       Sec. 3313.6016.  (A) Beginning in the 2011-2012 school year, 52911
the department of education shall administer a pilot program 52912
requiring daily physical activity for students. Any school 52913
district; community school established under Chapter 3314. of the 52914
Revised Code; science, technology, engineering, and mathematics 52915
school established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code; or 52916
chartered nonpublic school annually may elect to participate in 52917
the pilot program by notifying the department of its interest by a 52918
date established by the department. If a school district elects to 52919
participate in the pilot program, each school building operated by 52920
the district shall be requiredthe district shall select one or 52921
more school buildings to participate in the program. To the 52922
maximum extent possible, the department shall seek to include in 52923
the pilot program districts and schools that are located in urban, 52924
suburban, and rural areas distributed geographically throughout 52925
the state. The department shall administer the pilot program in 52926
accordance with this section.52927

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, each 52928
district or school participating in the pilot program shall 52929
require all students in each of grades kindergarten through twelve52930
the school building selected under division (A) of this section to 52931
engage in at least thirty minutes of moderate to rigorous physical 52932
activity each school day or at least one hundred fifty minutes of 52933
moderate to rigorous physical activity each week, exclusive of 52934
recess. Physical activity engaged in during the following may 52935
count toward the daily requirement:52936

       (1) A physical education course;52937

       (2) A program or activity occurring before or after the 52938
regular school day, as defined in section 3313.814 of the Revised 52939
Code, that is sponsored or approved by the school of attendance, 52940
provided school officials are able to monitor students' 52941
participation to ensure compliance with the requirement.52942

       (C) None of the following shall be subject to the requirement 52943
of division (B) of this section:52944

       (1) Any student enrolled in the post-secondary enrollment 52945
options program established under Chapter 3365. of the Revised 52946
Code;52947

       (2) Any student enrolled in a career-technical education 52948
program operated by the district or school;52949

       (3) Any student enrolled in a dropout prevention and recovery 52950
program operated by the district or school;52951

       (4) Any student enrolled in an internet- or computer-based 52952
community school;52953

       (5) Any child with a disability, to the extent that division 52954
(C)(5) of this section does not conflict with the child's IEP. As 52955
used in this section, "child with a disability" and "IEP" have the 52956
same meanings as in section 3323.01 of the Revised Code.52957

       (D) For any period in which a student is participating in 52958
interscholastic athletics, marching band, cheerleading, or a 52959
junior reserve officer training corps program, the district or 52960
school may excuse the student from the requirement of division (B) 52961
of this section.52962

       (E) The district or school may excuse any kindergarten 52963
student who is not enrolled in all-day kindergarten, as defined in 52964
section 3321.05 of the Revised Code, from the requirement of 52965
division (B) of this section.52966

       (F) Each district or school annually shall report to the 52967
department, in the manner prescribed by the department, how the 52968
district or school implemented the thirty minutes of daily 52969
physical activity and the financial costs of implementation. The 52970
department shall issue an annual report of the data collected 52971
under this division.52972

       Sec. 3313.6018.  (A) As used in this section and section 52973
3313.6019 of the Revised Code, "extended programming" means 52974
extended programming as described in section 3301.0725 of the 52975
Revised Code.52976

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of section 3313.6019 52977
of the Revised Code, extended programming shall be used for 52978
activities that involve direct contact with students or are 52979
directly related to student programs and activities. On any given 52980
day that extended programming is provided, it shall be provided 52981
for at least one hour.52982

       Sec. 3313.6019. (A) Not later than December 31, 2013, the 52983
department of education shall issue a report with recommendations 52984
for quality agricultural education programs. These recommendations 52985
shall be developed using both of the following:52986

       (1) The standards for exemplary agricultural education that 52987
are described in the national quality program standards for 52988
secondary (grades 9-12) agricultural education developed by the 52989
national council for agricultural education or a successor 52990
document developed by the national council for agricultural 52991
education or its successor;52992

       (2) The quality program standards for Ohio's agricultural and 52993
environmental systems career field programs or a successor 52994
document developed by the department, the Ohio association of 52995
agricultural educators, the Ohio state university, and wilmington 52996
college of Ohio.52997

        The report shall include the appropriate use of extended 52998
programming in agricultural education programs and the recommended 52999
number of hours outside the normal school day that licensed 53000
educators may be permitted to provide extended programming 53001
instruction. Following the initial issuance of the report, the 53002
department may periodically review and update the report as it 53003
considers necessary.53004

       (B) All agricultural education instructors shall utilize a 53005
three-part model of agricultural education instruction of 53006
classroom instruction, FFA activities, and extended programming 53007
projects.53008

       (C) Professional development associated with agricultural 53009
education shall be considered an acceptable use of extended 53010
student programming funds.53011

       (D) All agricultural education instructors shall submit a 53012
monthly time log to the principal of the school at which the 53013
extended programming is offered, or the principal's designee, for 53014
review.53015

       Sec. 3313.612.  (A) No nonpublic school chartered by the 53016
state board of education shall grant a high school diploma to any 53017
person unless, subject to section 3313.614 of the Revised Code, 53018
the person has met the assessment requirements of division (A)(1) 53019
or (2) of this section, as applicable.53020

       (1) If the person entered the ninth grade prior to the date 53021
prescribed by rule of the state board under division (D)(2) of 53022
section 3301.0712 of the Revised Code, the person has attained at 53023
least the applicable scores designated under division (B)(1) of 53024
section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code on all the assessments 53025
required by that division, or has satisfied the alternative 53026
conditions prescribed in section 3313.615 of the Revised Code.53027

       (2) If the person entered the ninth grade on or after the 53028
date prescribed by rule of the state board under division (E)(2) 53029
of section 3301.0712 of the Revised Code, the person has met the 53030
requirements of the entire assessment system prescribed under 53031
division (B)(2) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code.53032

       (B) This section does not apply to eitherany of the 53033
following:53034

       (1) Any person with regard to any assessment from which the 53035
person was excused pursuant to division (C)(1)(c) of section 53036
3301.0711 of the Revised Code;53037

       (2) Any person that attends a nonpublic school accredited 53038
through the independent school association of the central states 53039
with regard to any end-of-course examination required under 53040
divisions (B)(2) and (3) of section 3301.0712 of the Revised Code;53041

        (3) Any person with regard to the social studies assessment 53042
under division (B)(1) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code, 53043
any American history end-of-course examination and any American 53044
government end-of-course examination required under division 53045
(B)(2) of that section if such an exemption is prescribed by rule 53046
of the state board of education under division (D)(4) of section 53047
3301.0712 of the Revised Code, or the citizenship test under 53048
former division (B) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code as it 53049
existed prior to September 11, 2001, if all of the following 53050
apply:53051

       (a) The person is not a citizen of the United States;53052

       (b) The person is not a permanent resident of the United 53053
States;53054

       (c) The person indicates no intention to reside in the United 53055
States after completion of high school.53056

       (C) As used in this division, "limited English proficient 53057
student" has the same meaning as in division (C)(3) of section 53058
3301.0711 of the Revised Code.53059

        Notwithstanding division (C)(3) of section 3301.0711 of the 53060
Revised Code, no limited English proficient student who has not 53061
either attained the applicable scores designated under division 53062
(B)(1) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code on all the 53063
assessments required by that division, or met the requirements of 53064
the assessments under division (B)(2) of that section, shall be 53065
awarded a diploma under this section.53066

       Sec. 3313.615.  This section shall apply to diplomas awarded 53067
after September 15, 2006, to students who are required to take the 53068
five Ohio graduation tests prescribed by division (B)(1) of 53069
section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code.53070

       (A) As an alternative to the requirement that a person attain 53071
the scores designated under division (B)(1) of section 3301.0710 53072
of the Revised Code on all the assessments required under that 53073
division in order to be eligible for a high school diploma or an 53074
honors diploma under sections 3313.61, 3313.612, or 3325.08 of the 53075
Revised Code or for a diploma of adult education under section 53076
3313.611 of the Revised Code, a person who has attained at least 53077
the applicable scores designated under division (B)(1) of section 53078
3301.0710 of the Revised Code on all but one of the assessments 53079
required by that division and from which the person was not 53080
excused or exempted, pursuant to division (L) of section 3313.61, 53081
division (B)(1) of section 3313.612, or section 3313.532 of the 53082
Revised Code, may be awarded a diploma or honors diploma if the 53083
person has satisfied all of the following conditions:53084

       (1) On the one assessment required under division (B)(1) of 53085
section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code for which the person failed 53086
to attain the designated score, the person missed that score by 53087
ten points or less;53088

       (2) Has a ninety-seven per cent school attendance rate in 53089
each of the last four school years, excluding any excused 53090
absences;53091

       (3) Has not been expelled from school under section 3313.66 53092
of the Revised Code in any of the last four school years;53093

       (4) Has a grade point average of at least 2.5 out of 4.0, or 53094
its equivalent as designated in rules adopted by the state board 53095
of education, in the subject area of the assessment required under 53096
division (B)(1) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code for which 53097
the person failed to attain the designated score;53098

       (5) Has completed the high school curriculum requirements 53099
prescribed in section 3313.603 of the Revised Code or has 53100
qualified under division (D) or (F) of that section;53101

       (6) Has taken advantage of any intervention programs provided 53102
by the school district or school in the subject area described in 53103
division (A)(4) of this section and has a ninety-seven per cent 53104
attendance rate, excluding any excused absences, in any of those 53105
programs that are provided at times beyond the normal school day, 53106
school week, or school year or has received comparable 53107
intervention services from a source other than the school district 53108
or school;53109

       (7) Holds a letter recommending graduation from each of the 53110
person's high school teachers in the subject area described in 53111
division (A)(4) of this section and from the person's high school 53112
principal.53113

       (B) The state board of education shall establish rules 53114
designating grade point averages equivalent to the average 53115
specified in division (A)(4) of this section for use by school 53116
districts and schools with different grading systems.53117

       (C) Any student who is exempt from attaining the applicable 53118
score designated under division (B)(1) of section 3301.0710 of the 53119
Revised Code on the Ohio graduation test in social studies 53120
pursuant to division (H) of section 3313.61 or division (B)(2)(3)53121
of section 3313.612 of the Revised Code shall not qualify for a 53122
high school diploma under this section, unless, notwithstanding 53123
the exemption, the student attains the applicable score on that 53124
assessment. If the student attains the applicable score on that 53125
assessment, the student may qualify for a diploma under this 53126
section in the same manner as any other student who is required to 53127
take the five Ohio graduation tests prescribed by division (B)(1) 53128
of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code.53129

       Sec. 3313.62.  The school year shall begin on the first day 53130
of July of each calendar year and close on the thirtieth day of 53131
June of the succeeding calendar year. A school week shall consist 53132
of five days, and a school month of four school weeks. A chartered 53133
nonpublic school may be open for instruction with pupils in 53134
attendance on any day of the week, including Saturday or Sunday.53135

       Sec. 3313.64.  (A) As used in this section and in section 53136
3313.65 of the Revised Code:53137

       (1)(a) Except as provided in division (A)(1)(b) of this 53138
section, "parent" means either parent, unless the parents are 53139
separated or divorced or their marriage has been dissolved or 53140
annulled, in which case "parent" means the parent who is the 53141
residential parent and legal custodian of the child. When a child 53142
is in the legal custody of a government agency or a person other 53143
than the child's natural or adoptive parent, "parent" means the 53144
parent with residual parental rights, privileges, and 53145
responsibilities. When a child is in the permanent custody of a 53146
government agency or a person other than the child's natural or 53147
adoptive parent, "parent" means the parent who was divested of 53148
parental rights and responsibilities for the care of the child and 53149
the right to have the child live with the parent and be the legal 53150
custodian of the child and all residual parental rights, 53151
privileges, and responsibilities.53152

       (b) When a child is the subject of a power of attorney 53153
executed under sections 3109.51 to 3109.62 of the Revised Code, 53154
"parent" means the grandparent designated as attorney in fact 53155
under the power of attorney. When a child is the subject of a 53156
caretaker authorization affidavit executed under sections 3109.64 53157
to 3109.73 of the Revised Code, "parent" means the grandparent 53158
that executed the affidavit.53159

       (2) "Legal custody," "permanent custody," and "residual 53160
parental rights, privileges, and responsibilities" have the same 53161
meanings as in section 2151.011 of the Revised Code.53162

       (3) "School district" or "district" means a city, local, or 53163
exempted village school district and excludes any school operated 53164
in an institution maintained by the department of youth services.53165

       (4) Except as used in division (C)(2) of this section, "home" 53166
means a home, institution, foster home, group home, or other 53167
residential facility in this state that receives and cares for 53168
children, to which any of the following applies:53169

       (a) The home is licensed, certified, or approved for such 53170
purpose by the state or is maintained by the department of youth 53171
services.53172

       (b) The home is operated by a person who is licensed, 53173
certified, or approved by the state to operate the home for such 53174
purpose.53175

       (c) The home accepted the child through a placement by a 53176
person licensed, certified, or approved to place a child in such a 53177
home by the state.53178

       (d) The home is a children's home created under section 53179
5153.21 or 5153.36 of the Revised Code.53180

       (5) "Agency" means all of the following:53181

       (a) A public children services agency;53182

       (b) An organization that holds a certificate issued by the 53183
Ohio department of job and family services in accordance with the 53184
requirements of section 5103.03 of the Revised Code and assumes 53185
temporary or permanent custody of children through commitment, 53186
agreement, or surrender, and places children in family homes for 53187
the purpose of adoption;53188

       (c) Comparable agencies of other states or countries that 53189
have complied with applicable requirements of section 2151.39 of 53190
the Revised Code or as applicable, sections 5103.20 to 5103.22 or 53191
5103.23 to 5103.237 of the Revised Code.53192

       (6) A child is placed for adoption if either of the following 53193
occurs:53194

       (a) An agency to which the child has been permanently 53195
committed or surrendered enters into an agreement with a person 53196
pursuant to section 5103.16 of the Revised Code for the care and 53197
adoption of the child.53198

       (b) The child's natural parent places the child pursuant to 53199
section 5103.16 of the Revised Code with a person who will care 53200
for and adopt the child.53201

       (7) "Preschool child with a disability" has the same meaning 53202
as in section 3323.01 of the Revised Code.53203

       (8) "Child," unless otherwise indicated, includes preschool 53204
children with disabilities.53205

       (9) "Active duty" means active duty pursuant to an executive 53206
order of the president of the United States, an act of the 53207
congress of the United States, or section 5919.29 or 5923.21 of 53208
the Revised Code.53209

       (B) Except as otherwise provided in section 3321.01 of the 53210
Revised Code for admittance to kindergarten and first grade, a 53211
child who is at least five but under twenty-two years of age and 53212
any preschool child with a disability shall be admitted to school 53213
as provided in this division.53214

       (1) A child shall be admitted to the schools of the school 53215
district in which the child's parent resides.53216

       (2) AExcept as provided in division (B) of section 2151.362 53217
and section 3317.30 of the Revised Code, a child who does not 53218
reside in the district where the child's parent resides shall be 53219
admitted to the schools of the district in which the child resides 53220
if any of the following applies:53221

       (a) The child is in the legal or permanent custody of a 53222
government agency or a person other than the child's natural or 53223
adoptive parent.53224

       (b) The child resides in a home.53225

       (c) The child requires special education.53226

       (3) A child who is not entitled under division (B)(2) of this 53227
section to be admitted to the schools of the district where the 53228
child resides and who is residing with a resident of this state 53229
with whom the child has been placed for adoption shall be admitted 53230
to the schools of the district where the child resides unless 53231
either of the following applies:53232

       (a) The placement for adoption has been terminated.53233

       (b) Another school district is required to admit the child 53234
under division (B)(1) of this section.53235

       Division (B) of this section does not prohibit the board of 53236
education of a school district from placing a child with a 53237
disability who resides in the district in a special education 53238
program outside of the district or its schools in compliance with 53239
Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code.53240

       (C) A district shall not charge tuition for children admitted 53241
under division (B)(1) or (3) of this section. If the district 53242
admits a child under division (B)(2) of this section, tuition 53243
shall be paid to the district that admits the child as provided in 53244
divisions (C)(1) to (3) of this section, unless division (C)(4) of 53245
this section applies to the child:53246

       (1) If the child receives special education in accordance 53247
with Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code, the school district of 53248
residence, as defined in section 3323.01 of the Revised Code, 53249
shall pay tuition for the child in accordance with section 53250
3323.091, 3323.13, 3323.14, or 3323.141 of the Revised Code 53251
regardless of who has custody of the child or whether the child 53252
resides in a home.53253

       (2) For a child that does not receive special education in 53254
accordance with Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code, except as 53255
otherwise provided in division (C)(2)(d) of this section, if the 53256
child is in the permanent or legal custody of a government agency 53257
or person other than the child's parent, tuition shall be paid by:53258

       (a) The district in which the child's parent resided at the 53259
time the court removed the child from home or at the time the 53260
court vested legal or permanent custody of the child in the person 53261
or government agency, whichever occurred first;53262

       (b) If the parent's residence at the time the court removed 53263
the child from home or placed the child in the legal or permanent 53264
custody of the person or government agency is unknown, tuition 53265
shall be paid by the district in which the child resided at the 53266
time the child was removed from home or placed in legal or 53267
permanent custody, whichever occurred first;53268

       (c) If a school district cannot be established under division 53269
(C)(2)(a) or (b) of this section, tuition shall be paid by the 53270
district determined as required by section 2151.362 of the Revised 53271
Code by the court at the time it vests custody of the child in the 53272
person or government agency;53273

       (d) If at the time the court removed the child from home or 53274
vested legal or permanent custody of the child in the person or 53275
government agency, whichever occurred first, one parent was in a 53276
residential or correctional facility or a juvenile residential 53277
placement and the other parent, if living and not in such a 53278
facility or placement, was not known to reside in this state, 53279
tuition shall be paid by the district determined under division 53280
(D) of section 3313.65 of the Revised Code as the district 53281
required to pay any tuition while the parent was in such facility 53282
or placement;53283

       (e) If the department of education has determined, pursuant 53284
to division (A)(2) of section 2151.362 of the Revised Code, that a 53285
school district other than the one named in the court's initial 53286
order, or in a prior determination of the department, is 53287
responsible to bear the cost of educating the child, the district 53288
so determined shall be responsible for that cost.53289

       (3) If the child is not in the permanent or legal custody of 53290
a government agency or person other than the child's parent and 53291
the child resides in a home, tuition shall be paid by one of the 53292
following:53293

       (a) The school district in which the child's parent resides;53294

       (b) If the child's parent is not a resident of this state, 53295
the home in which the child resides.53296

       (4) Division (C)(4) of this section applies to any child who 53297
is admitted to a school district under division (B)(2) of this 53298
section, resides in a home that is not a foster home or, a home 53299
maintained by the department of youth services, a detention 53300
facility established under section 2152.41 of the Revised Code, or 53301
a juvenile facility established under section 2151.65 of the 53302
Revised Code, receives educational services at the home or 53303
facility in which the child resides pursuant to a contract between 53304
the home or facility and the school district providing those 53305
services, and does not receive special education.53306

        In the case of a child to which division (C)(4) of this 53307
section applies, the total educational cost to be paid for the 53308
child shall be determined by a formula approved by the department 53309
of education, which formula shall be designed to calculate a per 53310
diem cost for the educational services provided to the child for 53311
each day the child is served and shall reflect the total actual 53312
cost incurred in providing those services. The department shall 53313
certify the total educational cost to be paid for the child to 53314
both the school district providing the educational services and, 53315
if different, the school district that is responsible to pay 53316
tuition for the child. The department shall deduct the certified 53317
amount from the state basic aid funds payable under Chapter 3317. 53318
of the Revised Code to the district responsible to pay tuition and 53319
shall pay that amount to the district providing the educational 53320
services to the child.53321

       (D) Tuition required to be paid under divisions (C)(2) and 53322
(3)(a) of this section shall be computed in accordance with 53323
section 3317.08 of the Revised Code. Tuition required to be paid 53324
under division (C)(3)(b) of this section shall be computed in 53325
accordance with section 3317.081 of the Revised Code. If a home 53326
fails to pay the tuition required by division (C)(3)(b) of this 53327
section, the board of education providing the education may 53328
recover in a civil action the tuition and the expenses incurred in 53329
prosecuting the action, including court costs and reasonable 53330
attorney's fees. If the prosecuting attorney or city director of 53331
law represents the board in such action, costs and reasonable 53332
attorney's fees awarded by the court, based upon the prosecuting 53333
attorney's, director's, or one of their designee's time spent 53334
preparing and presenting the case, shall be deposited in the 53335
county or city general fund.53336

       (E) A board of education may enroll a child free of any 53337
tuition obligation for a period not to exceed sixty days, on the 53338
sworn statement of an adult resident of the district that the 53339
resident has initiated legal proceedings for custody of the child.53340

       (F) In the case of any individual entitled to attend school 53341
under this division, no tuition shall be charged by the school 53342
district of attendance and no other school district shall be 53343
required to pay tuition for the individual's attendance. 53344
Notwithstanding division (B), (C), or (E) of this section:53345

       (1) All persons at least eighteen but under twenty-two years 53346
of age who live apart from their parents, support themselves by 53347
their own labor, and have not successfully completed the high 53348
school curriculum or the individualized education program 53349
developed for the person by the high school pursuant to section 53350
3323.08 of the Revised Code, are entitled to attend school in the 53351
district in which they reside.53352

       (2) Any child under eighteen years of age who is married is 53353
entitled to attend school in the child's district of residence.53354

       (3) A child is entitled to attend school in the district in 53355
which either of the child's parents is employed if the child has a 53356
medical condition that may require emergency medical attention. 53357
The parent of a child entitled to attend school under division 53358
(F)(3) of this section shall submit to the board of education of 53359
the district in which the parent is employed a statement from the 53360
child's physician certifying that the child's medical condition 53361
may require emergency medical attention. The statement shall be 53362
supported by such other evidence as the board may require.53363

       (4) Any child residing with a person other than the child's 53364
parent is entitled, for a period not to exceed twelve months, to 53365
attend school in the district in which that person resides if the 53366
child's parent files an affidavit with the superintendent of the 53367
district in which the person with whom the child is living resides 53368
stating all of the following:53369

       (a) That the parent is serving outside of the state in the 53370
armed services of the United States;53371

       (b) That the parent intends to reside in the district upon 53372
returning to this state;53373

       (c) The name and address of the person with whom the child is 53374
living while the parent is outside the state.53375

       (5) Any child under the age of twenty-two years who, after 53376
the death of a parent, resides in a school district other than the 53377
district in which the child attended school at the time of the 53378
parent's death is entitled to continue to attend school in the 53379
district in which the child attended school at the time of the 53380
parent's death for the remainder of the school year, subject to 53381
approval of that district board.53382

       (6) A child under the age of twenty-two years who resides 53383
with a parent who is having a new house built in a school district 53384
outside the district where the parent is residing is entitled to 53385
attend school for a period of time in the district where the new 53386
house is being built. In order to be entitled to such attendance, 53387
the parent shall provide the district superintendent with the 53388
following:53389

       (a) A sworn statement explaining the situation, revealing the 53390
location of the house being built, and stating the parent's 53391
intention to reside there upon its completion;53392

       (b) A statement from the builder confirming that a new house 53393
is being built for the parent and that the house is at the 53394
location indicated in the parent's statement.53395

       (7) A child under the age of twenty-two years residing with a 53396
parent who has a contract to purchase a house in a school district 53397
outside the district where the parent is residing and who is 53398
waiting upon the date of closing of the mortgage loan for the 53399
purchase of such house is entitled to attend school for a period 53400
of time in the district where the house is being purchased. In 53401
order to be entitled to such attendance, the parent shall provide 53402
the district superintendent with the following:53403

       (a) A sworn statement explaining the situation, revealing the 53404
location of the house being purchased, and stating the parent's 53405
intent to reside there;53406

       (b) A statement from a real estate broker or bank officer 53407
confirming that the parent has a contract to purchase the house, 53408
that the parent is waiting upon the date of closing of the 53409
mortgage loan, and that the house is at the location indicated in 53410
the parent's statement.53411

       The district superintendent shall establish a period of time 53412
not to exceed ninety days during which the child entitled to 53413
attend school under division (F)(6) or (7) of this section may 53414
attend without tuition obligation. A student attending a school 53415
under division (F)(6) or (7) of this section shall be eligible to 53416
participate in interscholastic athletics under the auspices of 53417
that school, provided the board of education of the school 53418
district where the student's parent resides, by a formal action, 53419
releases the student to participate in interscholastic athletics 53420
at the school where the student is attending, and provided the 53421
student receives any authorization required by a public agency or 53422
private organization of which the school district is a member 53423
exercising authority over interscholastic sports.53424

       (8) A child whose parent is a full-time employee of a city, 53425
local, or exempted village school district, or of an educational 53426
service center, may be admitted to the schools of the district 53427
where the child's parent is employed, or in the case of a child 53428
whose parent is employed by an educational service center, in the 53429
district that serves the location where the parent's job is 53430
primarily located, provided the district board of education 53431
establishes such an admission policy by resolution adopted by a 53432
majority of its members. Any such policy shall take effect on the 53433
first day of the school year and the effective date of any 53434
amendment or repeal may not be prior to the first day of the 53435
subsequent school year. The policy shall be uniformly applied to 53436
all such children and shall provide for the admission of any such 53437
child upon request of the parent. No child may be admitted under 53438
this policy after the first day of classes of any school year.53439

       (9) A child who is with the child's parent under the care of 53440
a shelter for victims of domestic violence, as defined in section 53441
3113.33 of the Revised Code, is entitled to attend school free in 53442
the district in which the child is with the child's parent, and no 53443
other school district shall be required to pay tuition for the 53444
child's attendance in that school district.53445

       The enrollment of a child in a school district under this 53446
division shall not be denied due to a delay in the school 53447
district's receipt of any records required under section 3313.672 53448
of the Revised Code or any other records required for enrollment. 53449
Any days of attendance and any credits earned by a child while 53450
enrolled in a school district under this division shall be 53451
transferred to and accepted by any school district in which the 53452
child subsequently enrolls. The state board of education shall 53453
adopt rules to ensure compliance with this division.53454

       (10) Any child under the age of twenty-two years whose parent 53455
has moved out of the school district after the commencement of 53456
classes in the child's senior year of high school is entitled, 53457
subject to the approval of that district board, to attend school 53458
in the district in which the child attended school at the time of 53459
the parental move for the remainder of the school year and for one 53460
additional semester or equivalent term. A district board may also 53461
adopt a policy specifying extenuating circumstances under which a 53462
student may continue to attend school under division (F)(10) of 53463
this section for an additional period of time in order to 53464
successfully complete the high school curriculum for the 53465
individualized education program developed for the student by the 53466
high school pursuant to section 3323.08 of the Revised Code.53467

       (11) As used in this division, "grandparent" means a parent 53468
of a parent of a child. A child under the age of twenty-two years 53469
who is in the custody of the child's parent, resides with a 53470
grandparent, and does not require special education is entitled to 53471
attend the schools of the district in which the child's 53472
grandparent resides, provided that, prior to such attendance in 53473
any school year, the board of education of the school district in 53474
which the child's grandparent resides and the board of education 53475
of the school district in which the child's parent resides enter 53476
into a written agreement specifying that good cause exists for 53477
such attendance, describing the nature of this good cause, and 53478
consenting to such attendance.53479

       In lieu of a consent form signed by a parent, a board of 53480
education may request the grandparent of a child attending school 53481
in the district in which the grandparent resides pursuant to 53482
division (F)(11) of this section to complete any consent form 53483
required by the district, including any authorization required by 53484
sections 3313.712, 3313.713, 3313.716, and 3313.718 of the Revised 53485
Code. Upon request, the grandparent shall complete any consent 53486
form required by the district. A school district shall not incur 53487
any liability solely because of its receipt of a consent form from 53488
a grandparent in lieu of a parent.53489

       Division (F)(11) of this section does not create, and shall 53490
not be construed as creating, a new cause of action or substantive 53491
legal right against a school district, a member of a board of 53492
education, or an employee of a school district. This section does 53493
not affect, and shall not be construed as affecting, any 53494
immunities from defenses to tort liability created or recognized 53495
by Chapter 2744. of the Revised Code for a school district, 53496
member, or employee.53497

       (12) A child under the age of twenty-two years is entitled to 53498
attend school in a school district other than the district in 53499
which the child is entitled to attend school under division (B), 53500
(C), or (E) of this section provided that, prior to such 53501
attendance in any school year, both of the following occur:53502

       (a) The superintendent of the district in which the child is 53503
entitled to attend school under division (B), (C), or (E) of this 53504
section contacts the superintendent of another district for 53505
purposes of this division;53506

       (b) The superintendents of both districts enter into a 53507
written agreement that consents to the attendance and specifies 53508
that the purpose of such attendance is to protect the student's 53509
physical or mental well-being or to deal with other extenuating 53510
circumstances deemed appropriate by the superintendents.53511

       While an agreement is in effect under this division for a 53512
student who is not receiving special education under Chapter 3323. 53513
of the Revised Code and notwithstanding Chapter 3327. of the 53514
Revised Code, the board of education of neither school district 53515
involved in the agreement is required to provide transportation 53516
for the student to and from the school where the student attends.53517

       A student attending a school of a district pursuant to this 53518
division shall be allowed to participate in all student 53519
activities, including interscholastic athletics, at the school 53520
where the student is attending on the same basis as any student 53521
who has always attended the schools of that district while of 53522
compulsory school age.53523

       (13) All school districts shall comply with the 53524
"McKinney-Vento Homeless Assistance Act," 42 U.S.C.A. 11431 et 53525
seq., for the education of homeless children. Each city, local, 53526
and exempted village school district shall comply with the 53527
requirements of that act governing the provision of a free, 53528
appropriate public education, including public preschool, to each 53529
homeless child.53530

       When a child loses permanent housing and becomes a homeless 53531
person, as defined in 42 U.S.C.A. 11481(5), or when a child who is 53532
such a homeless person changes temporary living arrangements, the 53533
child's parent or guardian shall have the option of enrolling the 53534
child in either of the following:53535

       (a) The child's school of origin, as defined in 42 U.S.C.A. 53536
11432(g)(3)(C);53537

       (b) The school that is operated by the school district in 53538
which the shelter where the child currently resides is located and 53539
that serves the geographic area in which the shelter is located.53540

       (14) A child under the age of twenty-two years who resides 53541
with a person other than the child's parent is entitled to attend 53542
school in the school district in which that person resides if both 53543
of the following apply:53544

       (a) That person has been appointed, through a military power 53545
of attorney executed under section 574(a) of the "National Defense 53546
Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 1994," 107 Stat. 1674 (1993), 10 53547
U.S.C. 1044b, or through a comparable document necessary to 53548
complete a family care plan, as the parent's agent for the care, 53549
custody, and control of the child while the parent is on active 53550
duty as a member of the national guard or a reserve unit of the 53551
armed forces of the United States or because the parent is a 53552
member of the armed forces of the United States and is on a duty 53553
assignment away from the parent's residence.53554

       (b) The military power of attorney or comparable document 53555
includes at least the authority to enroll the child in school.53556

        The entitlement to attend school in the district in which the 53557
parent's agent under the military power of attorney or comparable 53558
document resides applies until the end of the school year in which 53559
the military power of attorney or comparable document expires.53560

       (G) A board of education, after approving admission, may 53561
waive tuition for students who will temporarily reside in the 53562
district and who are either of the following:53563

       (1) Residents or domiciliaries of a foreign nation who 53564
request admission as foreign exchange students;53565

       (2) Residents or domiciliaries of the United States but not 53566
of Ohio who request admission as participants in an exchange 53567
program operated by a student exchange organization.53568

       (H) Pursuant to sections 3311.211, 3313.90, 3319.01, 3323.04, 53569
3327.04, and 3327.06 of the Revised Code, a child may attend 53570
school or participate in a special education program in a school 53571
district other than in the district where the child is entitled to 53572
attend school under division (B) of this section.53573

       (I)(1) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this 53574
section or section 3313.65 of the Revised Code, a child under 53575
twenty-two years of age may attend school in the school district 53576
in which the child, at the end of the first full week of October 53577
of the school year, was entitled to attend school as otherwise 53578
provided under this section or section 3313.65 of the Revised 53579
Code, if at that time the child was enrolled in the schools of the 53580
district but since that time the child or the child's parent has 53581
relocated to a new address located outside of that school district 53582
and within the same county as the child's or parent's address 53583
immediately prior to the relocation. The child may continue to 53584
attend school in the district, and at the school to which the 53585
child was assigned at the end of the first full week of October of 53586
the current school year, for the balance of the school year. 53587
Division (I)(1) of this section applies only if both of the 53588
following conditions are satisfied:53589

       (a) The board of education of the school district in which 53590
the child was entitled to attend school at the end of the first 53591
full week in October and of the district to which the child or 53592
child's parent has relocated each has adopted a policy to enroll 53593
children described in division (I)(1) of this section.53594

       (b) The child's parent provides written notification of the 53595
relocation outside of the school district to the superintendent of 53596
each of the two school districts.53597

       (2) At the beginning of the school year following the school 53598
year in which the child or the child's parent relocated outside of 53599
the school district as described in division (I)(1) of this 53600
section, the child is not entitled to attend school in the school 53601
district under that division.53602

       (3) Any person or entity owing tuition to the school district 53603
on behalf of the child at the end of the first full week in 53604
October, as provided in division (C) of this section, shall 53605
continue to owe such tuition to the district for the child's 53606
attendance under division (I)(1) of this section for the lesser of 53607
the balance of the school year or the balance of the time that the 53608
child attends school in the district under division (I)(1) of this 53609
section.53610

       (4) A pupil who may attend school in the district under 53611
division (I)(1) of this section shall be entitled to 53612
transportation services pursuant to an agreement between the 53613
district and the district in which the child or child's parent has 53614
relocated unless the districts have not entered into such 53615
agreement, in which case the child shall be entitled to 53616
transportation services in the same manner as a pupil attending 53617
school in the district under interdistrict open enrollment as 53618
described in division (H) of section 3313.981 of the Revised Code, 53619
regardless of whether the district has adopted an open enrollment 53620
policy as described in division (B)(1)(b) or (c) of section 53621
3313.98 of the Revised Code.53622

       (J) This division does not apply to a child receiving special 53623
education.53624

       A school district required to pay tuition pursuant to 53625
division (C)(2) or (3) of this section or section 3313.65 of the 53626
Revised Code shall have an amount deducted under division (C) of 53627
section 3317.023 of the Revised Code equal to its own tuition rate 53628
for the same period of attendance. A school district entitled to 53629
receive tuition pursuant to division (C)(2) or (3) of this section 53630
or section 3313.65 of the Revised Code shall have an amount 53631
credited under division (C) of section 3317.023 of the Revised 53632
Code equal to its own tuition rate for the same period of 53633
attendance. If the tuition rate credited to the district of 53634
attendance exceeds the rate deducted from the district required to 53635
pay tuition, the department of education shall pay the district of 53636
attendance the difference from amounts deducted from all 53637
districts' payments under division (C) of section 3317.023 of the 53638
Revised Code but not credited to other school districts under such 53639
division and from appropriations made for such purpose. The 53640
treasurer of each school district shall, by the fifteenth day of 53641
January and July, furnish the superintendent of public instruction 53642
a report of the names of each child who attended the district's 53643
schools under divisions (C)(2) and (3) of this section or section 53644
3313.65 of the Revised Code during the preceding six calendar 53645
months, the duration of the attendance of those children, the 53646
school district responsible for tuition on behalf of the child, 53647
and any other information that the superintendent requires.53648

       Upon receipt of the report the superintendent, pursuant to 53649
division (C) of section 3317.023 of the Revised Code, shall deduct 53650
each district's tuition obligations under divisions (C)(2) and (3) 53651
of this section or section 3313.65 of the Revised Code and pay to 53652
the district of attendance that amount plus any amount required to 53653
be paid by the state.53654

       (K) In the event of a disagreement, the superintendent of 53655
public instruction shall determine the school district in which 53656
the parent resides.53657

       (L) Nothing in this section requires or authorizes, or shall 53658
be construed to require or authorize, the admission to a public 53659
school in this state of a pupil who has been permanently excluded 53660
from public school attendance by the superintendent of public 53661
instruction pursuant to sections 3301.121 and 3313.662 of the 53662
Revised Code.53663

       (M) In accordance with division (B)(1) of this section, a 53664
child whose parent is a member of the national guard or a reserve 53665
unit of the armed forces of the United States and is called to 53666
active duty, or a child whose parent is a member of the armed 53667
forces of the United States and is ordered to a temporary duty 53668
assignment outside of the district, may continue to attend school 53669
in the district in which the child's parent lived before being 53670
called to active duty or ordered to a temporary duty assignment 53671
outside of the district, as long as the child's parent continues 53672
to be a resident of that district, and regardless of where the 53673
child lives as a result of the parent's active duty status or 53674
temporary duty assignment. However, the district is not 53675
responsible for providing transportation for the child if the 53676
child lives outside of the district as a result of the parent's 53677
active duty status or temporary duty assignment.53678

       Sec. 3313.646.  (A) The board of education of a school 53679
district, except a cooperative education district established 53680
pursuant to section 3311.521 of the Revised Code, may establish 53681
and operate a preschool program to provide services to 53682
preschool-age children, provided the board has demonstrated a need 53683
for the program. A board may use school funds in support of 53684
preschool programs. The board shall maintain, operate, and admit 53685
children to any such program pursuant to rules adopted by such 53686
board and the rules of the state board of education adopted under 53687
sections 3301.52 to 3301.57 of the Revised Code.53688

       A board of education may establish fees or tuition, which may 53689
be graduated in proportion to family income, for participation in 53690
a preschool program. In cases where payment of fees or tuition 53691
would create a hardship for the child's parent or guardian, the 53692
board may waive any such fees or tuition.53693

       (B) No board of education that is not receiving funds under 53694
the "Head Start Act," 95 Stat. 489 (1981), 42 U.S.C.A. 9831, on 53695
March 17, 1989, shall compete for funds under the "Head Start Act" 53696
with any grantee receiving funds under that act.53697

       (C) A board of education may contract with any of the 53698
following preschool providers to provide preschool programs53699
services to preschool-age children, other than programs for units 53700
described by divisions (B) and (C) ofthose services for which the 53701
district is eligible to receive funding under section 3317.0553702
3317.0213 of the Revised Code, for children of the school 53703
district:53704

       (1) Any organization receiving funds under the "Head Start 53705
Act";53706

       (2) Any nonsectarian eligible nonpublic school as defined in 53707
division (H) of section 3301.52 of the Revised Code;53708

       (3) Any child care provider licensed under Chapter 5104. of 53709
the Revised Code.53710

       Boards may contract to provide preschool programsservices to 53711
preschool-age children only with such organizations whose staff 53712
meet the requirements of rules adopted under section 3301.53 of 53713
the Revised Code or those of the child development associate 53714
credential established by the national association for the 53715
education of young children.53716

       (D) A contract entered into under division (C) of this 53717
section may provide for the board of education to lease school 53718
facilities to the preschool provider or to furnish transportation, 53719
utilities, or staff for the preschool program.53720

       (E) The treasurer of any board of education operating a 53721
preschool program pursuant to this section shall keep an account 53722
of all funds used to operate the program in the same manner as the 53723
treasurer would any other funds of the district pursuant to this 53724
chapter.53725

       Sec. 3313.65.  (A) As used in this section and section 53726
3313.64 of the Revised Code:53727

       (1) A person is "in a residential facility" if the person is 53728
a resident or a resident patient of an institution, home, or other 53729
residential facility that is:53730

       (a) Licensed as a nursing home, residential care facility, or 53731
home for the aging by the director of health under section 3721.02 53732
of the Revised Code;53733

       (b) Maintained as a county home or district home by the board 53734
of county commissioners or a joint board of county commissioners 53735
under Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;53736

       (c) Operated or administered by a board of alcohol, drug 53737
addiction, and mental health services under section 340.03 or 53738
340.06 of the Revised Code, or provides residential care pursuant 53739
to contracts made under section 340.03 or 340.033 of the Revised 53740
Code;53741

       (d) Maintained as a state institution for the mentally ill 53742
under Chapter 5119. of the Revised Code;53743

       (e) Licensed by the department of mental healthmental health 53744
and addiction services under section 5119.205119.33 or 5119.2253745
5119.34 of the Revised Code;53746

       (f) Licensed as a residential facility by the department of 53747
developmental disabilities under section 5123.19 of the Revised 53748
Code;53749

       (g) Operated by the veteran's administration or another 53750
agency of the United States government;53751

       (h) Operated by the Ohio veterans' home.53752

       (2) A person is "in a correctional facility" if any of the 53753
following apply:53754

       (a) The person is an Ohio resident and is:53755

       (i) Imprisoned, as defined in section 1.05 of the Revised 53756
Code;53757

       (ii) Serving a term in a community-based correctional 53758
facility or a district community-based correctional facility;53759

       (iii) Required, as a condition of parole, a post-release 53760
control sanction, a community control sanction, transitional 53761
control, or early release from imprisonment, as a condition of 53762
shock parole or shock probation granted under the law in effect 53763
prior to July 1, 1996, or as a condition of a furlough granted 53764
under the version of section 2967.26 of the Revised Code in effect 53765
prior to March 17, 1998, to reside in a halfway house or other 53766
community residential center licensed under section 2967.14 of the 53767
Revised Code or a similar facility designated by the court of 53768
common pleas that established the condition or by the adult parole 53769
authority.53770

       (b) The person is imprisoned in a state correctional 53771
institution of another state or a federal correctional institution 53772
but was an Ohio resident at the time the sentence was imposed for 53773
the crime for which the person is imprisoned.53774

       (3) A person is "in a juvenile residential placement" if the 53775
person is an Ohio resident who is under twenty-one years of age 53776
and has been removed, by the order of a juvenile court, from the 53777
place the person resided at the time the person became subject to 53778
the court's jurisdiction in the matter that resulted in the 53779
person's removal.53780

       (4) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 53781
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.53782

       (5) "Post-release control sanction" has the same meaning as 53783
in section 2967.01 of the Revised Code.53784

       (B) If the circumstances described in division (C) of this 53785
section apply, the determination of what school district must 53786
admit a child to its schools and what district, if any, is liable 53787
for tuition shall be made in accordance with this section, rather 53788
than section 3313.64 of the Revised Code.53789

       (C) A child who does not reside in the school district in 53790
which the child's parent resides and for whom a tuition obligation 53791
previously has not been established under division (C)(2) of 53792
section 3313.64 of the Revised Code shall be admitted to the 53793
schools of the district in which the child resides if at least one 53794
of the child's parents is in a residential or correctional 53795
facility or a juvenile residential placement and the other parent, 53796
if living and not in such a facility or placement, is not known to 53797
reside in this state.53798

       (D) Regardless of who has custody or care of the child, 53799
whether the child resides in a home, or whether the child receives 53800
special education, if a district admits a child under division (C) 53801
of this section, tuition shall be paid to that district as 53802
follows:53803

       (1) If the child's parent is in a juvenile residential 53804
placement, by the district in which the child's parent resided at 53805
the time the parent became subject to the jurisdiction of the 53806
juvenile court;53807

       (2) If the child's parent is in a correctional facility, by 53808
the district in which the child's parent resided at the time the 53809
sentence was imposed;53810

       (3) If the child's parent is in a residential facility, by 53811
the district in which the parent resided at the time the parent 53812
was admitted to the residential facility, except that if the 53813
parent was transferred from another residential facility, tuition 53814
shall be paid by the district in which the parent resided at the 53815
time the parent was admitted to the facility from which the parent 53816
first was transferred;53817

       (4) In the event of a disagreement as to which school 53818
district is liable for tuition under division (C)(1), (2), or (3) 53819
of this section, the superintendent of public instruction shall 53820
determine which district shall pay tuition.53821

       (E) If a child covered by division (D) of this section 53822
receives special education in accordance with Chapter 3323. of the 53823
Revised Code, the tuition shall be paid in accordance with section 53824
3323.13 or 3323.14 of the Revised Code. Tuition for children who 53825
do not receive special education shall be paid in accordance with 53826
division (J) of section 3313.64 of the Revised Code.53827

       Sec. 3313.674.  (A) Except as provided in division (D) of 53828
this section, the board of education of each city, exempted 53829
village, or local school district and the governing authority of 53830
each chartered nonpublic school may require each student enrolled 53831
in kindergarten, third grade, fifth grade, and ninth grade to 53832
undergo a screening for body mass index and weight status 53833
category.53834

       (B) The board or governing authority may provide any 53835
screenings authorized by this section itself, contract with 53836
another entity for provision of the screenings, or request the 53837
parent or guardian of each student subject to the screening to 53838
obtain the screening from a provider selected by the parent or 53839
guardian and to submit the results to the board or governing 53840
authority. If the board or governing authority provides the 53841
screenings itself or contracts with another entity for provision 53842
of the screenings, the board or governing authority shall protect 53843
student privacy by ensuring that each student is screened alone 53844
and not in the presence of other students or staff.53845

       (C) Each school year, each board or governing authority 53846
electing to require the screening shall provide the parent or 53847
guardian of each student subject to the screening with information 53848
about the screening program. If the board or governing authority 53849
requests parents and guardians to obtain a screening from a 53850
provider of their choosing, the board or governing authority shall 53851
provide them with a list of providers and information about 53852
screening services available in the community to parents and 53853
guardians who cannot afford a private provider.53854

       (D) If the parent or guardian of a student subject to the 53855
screening signs and submits to the board or governing authority a 53856
written statement indicating that the parent or guardian does not 53857
wish to have the student undergo the screening, the board or 53858
governing authority shall not require the student to be screened.53859

       (E) The board or governing authority shall notify the parent 53860
or guardian of each student screened under this section of any 53861
health risks associated with the student's results and shall 53862
provide the parent or guardian with information about 53863
appropriately addressing the risks. For this purpose, the 53864
department of health, in consultation with the department of 53865
education and the healthy choices for healthy children council 53866
established under section 3301.92 of the Revised Code, shall 53867
develop a list of documents, pamphlets, or other resources that 53868
may be distributed to parents and guardians under this division.53869

       (F) The board or governing authority shall maintain the 53870
confidentiality of each student's individual screening results at 53871
all times. No board or governing authority shall report a 53872
student's individual screening results to any person other than 53873
the student's parent or guardian.53874

        (G) In a manner prescribed by rule of the director of health, 53875
each board or governing authority electing to require the 53876
screening shall report aggregated body mass index and weight 53877
status category data collected under this section, and any other 53878
demographic data required by the director, to the department of 53879
health. In the case of a school district, data shall be aggregated 53880
for the district as a whole and not for individual schools within 53881
the district, unless the district operates only one school. In the 53882
case of a chartered nonpublic school, data shall be aggregated for 53883
the school as a whole. The department annually may publish the 53884
data reported under this division, aggregated by county. For each 53885
county in which a district, community school, STEM school, or 53886
chartered nonpublic school has elected not to require the 53887
screening for a school year for which data is published, the 53888
department shall note that the data for the county in which the 53889
district or school is located is incomplete. The department may 53890
share data reported under this division with other governmental 53891
entities for the purpose of monitoring population health, making 53892
reports, or public health promotional activities.53893

       (H) To the extent that this division does not conflict with 53894
the child's IEP, no child with a disability shall be subject to 53895
the requirements of this section.53896

       As used in this section, "child with a disability" and "IEP" 53897
have the same meanings as in section 3323.01 of the Revised Code.53898

       Sec. 3313.714.  (A) As used in this section:53899

       (1) "Board of education" means the board of education of a 53900
city, local, exempted village, or joint vocational school 53901
district.53902

       (2) "Healthcheck" means the early and periodic screening, 53903
diagnosis, and treatment program, a component of the medical 53904
assistancemedicaid program established under Title XIX of the 53905
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 302, as 53906
amended, and Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code.53907

       (3) "Pupil" means a person under age twenty-two enrolled in 53908
the schools of a city, local, exempted village, or joint 53909
vocational school district.53910

       (4) "Parent" means either parent with the following 53911
exceptions:53912

       (a) If one parent has custody by court order, "parent" means 53913
the parent with custody.53914

       (b) If neither parent has legal custody, "parent" means the 53915
person or government entity with legal custody.53916

       (c) The child's legal guardian or a person who has accepted 53917
responsibility for the health, safety, and welfare of the child.53918

       (B) At the request of the department of job and family 53919
servicesmedicaid, a board of education shall establish and 53920
conduct a healthcheck program for pupils enrolled in the schools 53921
of the district who are medicaid recipients of medical assistance 53922
under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code. At the request of a board 53923
of education, the department may authorize the board to establish 53924
a healthcheck program. A board that establishes a healthcheck 53925
program shall enter into a medical assistancemedicaid provider 53926
agreement with the department.53927

       A healthcheck program established by a board of education 53928
shall be conducted in accordance with rules adopted by the 53929
medicaid director of job and family services under division (F) of 53930
this section. The healthcheck program shall include all of the 53931
following components:53932

       (1) A comprehensive health and development history;53933

       (2) A comprehensive physical examination;53934

       (3) A developmental assessment;53935

       (4) A nutritional assessment;53936

       (5) A vision assessment;53937

       (6) A hearing assessment;53938

       (7) An immunization assessment;53939

       (8) Lead screening and laboratory tests ordered by a doctor 53940
of medicine or osteopathic medicine as part of one of the other 53941
components;53942

       (9) Such other assessment as may be required by the 53943
department of job and family servicesmedicaid in accordance with 53944
the requirements of the healthcheck program.53945

       All services included in a board of education's healthcheck 53946
program that the board provided under sections 3313.67, 3313.673, 53947
3313.68, 3313.69, and 3313.71 of the Revised Code during the 53948
1990-1991 school year shall continue to be provided to medical 53949
assistancemedicaid recipients by the board pursuant to those 53950
sections. The services shall be considered part of the healthcheck 53951
program for medicaid recipients of medical assistance, and the 53952
board shall be eligible for reimbursementpayment from the state53953
department in accordance with this division for providing the 53954
services.53955

       The department shall reimbursepay boards of education for 53956
healthcheck program services provided under this division at the 53957
rates paid under the medical assistancemedicaid program to 53958
physicians, dentists, nurses, and other providers of healthcheck 53959
services.53960

       (C) Each board of education that conducts a healthcheck 53961
program shall determine for each pupil enrolled in the schools of 53962
the district whether the pupil is a medical assistancemedicaid53963
recipient. The department of job and family servicesmedicaid and 53964
county departments of human servicesjob and family services shall 53965
assist the board in making these determinations. Except as 53966
necessary to carry out the purposes of this section, all 53967
information received by a board under this division shall be 53968
confidential.53969

       Before the first day of October of each year, each board that 53970
conducts a healthcheck program shall send the parent of each pupil 53971
who is under age eighteen and a medicaid recipient of medical 53972
assistance notice that the pupil will be examined under the 53973
district's healthcheck program unless the parent notifies the 53974
board that the parent denies consent for the examination. The 53975
notice shall include a form to be used by the parent to indicate 53976
that the parent denies consent. The denial shall be effective only 53977
if the form is signed by the parent and returned to the board or 53978
the school in which the pupil is enrolled. If the parent does not 53979
return a signed form indicating denial of consent within two weeks 53980
after the date the notice is sent, the school district and the 53981
department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall deem the 53982
parent to have consented to examination of the parent's child 53983
under the healthcheck program. In the case of a pupil age eighteen 53984
or older, the notice shall be given to the pupil, and the school 53985
district and the department of job and family servicesmedicaid53986
shall deem the pupil to have consented to examination unless the 53987
pupil returns the signed form indicating the pupil's denial of 53988
consent.53989

       (D)(1) As used in this division:53990

       (a) "Nonfederal share" means the portion of expenditures for 53991
services that is required under the medical assistancemedicaid53992
program to be paid for with state or local government funds.53993

       (b) "Federal financial participation" means the portion of 53994
expenditures for services that is reimbursedpayable under the 53995
medical assistancemedicaid program with federal funds.53996

       (2) At the request of a board of education, the state 53997
department may enter into an agreement with the board under which 53998
the board provides medical services to a medicaid recipient of 53999
medical assistance that are reimbursablepayable under the medical 54000
assistancemedicaid program but not under the healthcheck program. 54001
The agreement may be for a term specified in the agreement and 54002
renewable by mutual consent of the board and the department, or 54003
may continue in force as long as agreeable to the board and the 54004
department.54005

       The board shall use state or local funds of the district to 54006
pay the nonfederal share of expenditures for services provided 54007
under this division. Prior to entering into or renewing an 54008
agreement and at any other time requested by the department while 54009
the agreement is in force, the board shall certify to the 54010
department in accordance with the rules adopted under division (F) 54011
of this section that it will have sufficient state or local funds 54012
to pay the nonfederal share of expenditures under this division. 54013
If the board fails to make the certification, the department shall 54014
not enter into or renew the agreement. If an agreement has been 54015
entered into, it shall be void unless the board makes the 54016
certification not later than fifteen days after receiving notice 54017
from the department that the certification is due. The board shall 54018
report to the department, in accordance with the rules, the amount 54019
of state or local funds it spends to provide services under this 54020
division.54021

       The department shall reimbursepay the board the federal 54022
financial participation allowed for the board's expenditures for 54023
services under this division. The total of the nonfederal share 54024
spent by the board and the federal financial participation 54025
reimbursedpaid by the department for a service rendered under 54026
this division shall be an amount agreed to by the board and the 54027
department, but shall not exceed the maximum reimbursablepayable 54028
amount for that service under rules adopted by the director of job 54029
and family services under Chapter 5111.section 5164.02 of the 54030
Revised Code. The rules adopted under division (F) of this section 54031
shall include procedures under which the department will recover 54032
from a board overpayments and subsequent federal audit 54033
disallowances of federal financial participation reimbursedpaid54034
by the department.54035

       (E) A board of education shall provide services under 54036
division (D) of this section and under its healthcheck program as 54037
provided in division (E)(1), (2), or (3) of this section:54038

       (1) By having the services performed by physicians, dentists, 54039
and nurses employed by the board;54040

       (2) By contracting with physicians, dentists, nurses, and 54041
other providers of services who have medical assistancemedicaid54042
provider agreements with the department of job and family services54043
medicaid;54044

       (3) By having some of the services performed by persons 54045
described in division (E)(1) of this section and others performed 54046
by persons described in division (E)(2) of this section.54047

       (F) The medicaid director of job and family services shall 54048
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 54049
governing healthcheck programs conducted under this section and 54050
services provided under division (D) of this section.54051

       Sec. 3313.715.  The board of education of a school district 54052
may request from the director of developmental disabilities the 54053
appropriate identification numbers for all students residing in 54054
the district who are medical assistancemedicaid recipients under 54055
Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code. The director shall furnish such 54056
numbers upon receipt of lists of student names furnished by the 54057
district board, in such form as the director may require.54058

       The medicaid director of job and family services shall 54059
provide the director of developmental disabilities with the data 54060
necessary for compliance with this section.54061

       Section 3319.321 of the Revised Code does not apply to the 54062
release of student names or other data to the director of 54063
developmental disabilities for the purposes of this section. 54064
Chapter 1347. of the Revised Code does not apply to information 54065
required to be kept by a school board or the departments of job 54066
and family servicesmedicaid or developmental disabilities to the 54067
extent necessary to comply with this section and section 3313.714 54068
of the Revised Code. However, any such information or data shall 54069
be used only for the specific legal purposes of such boards and 54070
departments and shall not be released to any unauthorized person.54071

       Sec. 3313.82.  The board of education of each city and 54072
exempted village school district and the governing board of each 54073
educational service center shall appoint a business advisory 54074
council, except that a school district that has entered into an 54075
agreement under section 3313.843 or 3313.845 of the Revised Code 54076
to receive any services from an educational service center is not 54077
required to appoint a council if the school district and 54078
educational service center agree that the educational service 54079
center's council will represent the business of the district. The 54080
council shall advise and provide recommendations to the board on 54081
matters specified by the board including, but not necessarily 54082
limited to, the delineation of employment skills and the 54083
development of curriculum to instill these skills; changes in the 54084
economy and in the job market, and the types of employment in 54085
which future jobs are most likely to be available; and suggestions 54086
for developing a working relationship among businesses, labor 54087
organizations, and educational personnel in the district or in 54088
the territory of the educational service center. Each board shall 54089
determine the membership and organization of its council. 54090
Notwithstanding division (D) of section 3311.19 and division (D) 54091
of section 3311.52 of the Revised Code, this section shall not 54092
apply to the board of education of any joint vocational school 54093
district or any cooperative education school district created 54094
pursuant to divisions (A) to (C) of section 3311.52 of the Revised 54095
Code.54096

       Sec. 3313.83.  (A)(1) For the purpose of pooling resources, 54097
operating more cost effectively, minimizing administrative 54098
overhead, encouraging the sharing of resource development, and 54099
diminishing duplication, the boards of education of two or more 54100
city, local, or exempted village school districts each having a 54101
majority of its territory in a county with a population greater 54102
than one million two hundred thousand, by adopting identical 54103
resolutions, may enter into an agreement providing for the 54104
creation of a regional student education district for the purpose 54105
of funding the following for students enrolled in those school 54106
districts, including students diagnosed as autistic and students 54107
with special needs, and their immediate family members:54108

        (a) Special education services;54109

        (b) Behavioral health services for persons with special 54110
needs.54111

        If more than eight boards of education adopt resolutions to 54112
form a regional student education district, the boards may meet at 54113
facilities of the educational service center of the county to 54114
discuss membership in the district.54115

       (2) The territory of a regional student education district at 54116
any time shall be composed of the combined territories of the 54117
school districts that are parties to the agreement at that time. 54118
Services funded by a regional student education district shall be 54119
available to all individuals enrolled in a school district that is 54120
a part of the regional student education district and members of 54121
their immediate family.54122

       (3) The agreement may be amended pursuant to terms and 54123
procedures mutually agreed to by the boards of education that are 54124
parties to the agreement.54125

       (B) Each regional student education district shall be 54126
governed by a board of directors. The superintendent of each board 54127
of education that is a party to the agreement shall serve on the 54128
board of directors. The agreement shall provide for the terms of 54129
office of directors. Directors shall receive no compensation, but 54130
shall be reimbursed, from the special fund of the regional student 54131
education district, for the reasonable and necessary expenses they 54132
incur in the performance of their duties for the district. The 54133
agreement shall provide for the conduct of the board's initial 54134
organizational meeting and for the frequency of subsequent 54135
meetings and quorum requirements. At its first meeting, the board 54136
shall designate from among its members a president and secretary 54137
in the manner provided in the agreement.54138

       The board of directors of a regional student education 54139
district is a body corporate and politic, is capable of suing and 54140
being sued, is capable of contracting within the limits of this 54141
section and the agreement governing the district, and is capable 54142
of accepting gifts, donations, bequests, or other grants of money 54143
for use in paying its expenses. The district is a public office 54144
and its directors are public officials within the meaning of 54145
section 117.01 of the Revised Code, the board of directors is a 54146
public body within the meaning of section 121.22 of the Revised 54147
Code, and records of the board and of the district are public 54148
records within the meaning of section 149.43 of the Revised Code.54149

       The agreement shall require the board to designate a 54150
permanent location for its offices and meeting place, and may 54151
provide for the use of such facilities and property for the 54152
provision of services by the agencies with which the board 54153
contracts under division (C) of this section.54154

       (C)(1) To provide the services identified in division (A)(1) 54155
of this section, the board of directors of a regional student 54156
education district shall provide for the hiring of employees or 54157
shall contract with one or more entities. Except as provided in 54158
division (C)(2) of this section, any entity with which the board 54159
of directors contracts to provide the services identified in 54160
division (A)(1)(b) of this section shall be a qualified nonprofit, 54161
nationally accredited agency to which both of the following apply:54162

        (a) The agency is licensed or certified by the departments of 54163
mental health,mental health and addiction services and job and 54164
family services, and alcohol and drug addiction services.54165

        (b) The agency provides school-based behavioral health 54166
services.54167

       (2) The board of directors may contract with an entity that 54168
does not meet the conditions stated in division (C)(1) of this 54169
section if the services to be provided by the entity are only 54170
incidental to the services identified in division (A)(1)(b) of 54171
this section.54172

       (3) The board of directors may levy a tax throughout the 54173
district as provided in section 5705.2111 of the Revised Code. The 54174
board of directors shall provide for the creation of a special 54175
fund to hold the proceeds of any tax levied under section 54176
5705.2111 of the Revised Code and any gifts, donations, bequests, 54177
or other grants of money coming into the possession of the 54178
district. A regional student education district is a subdivision, 54179
and the board of directors is a governing body, within the meaning 54180
of section 135.01 of the Revised Code. The board of directors may 54181
not issue securities or otherwise incur indebtedness.54182

       (4) The adoption or rejection by electors of a tax levy to 54183
fund a regional student education district pursuant to section 54184
5705.2111 of the Revised Code does not alter the duty of each 54185
school district member of the regional student education district 54186
to provide special education and related services as required 54187
under Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code. On the expiration of a 54188
regional student education district levy, the state, member school 54189
districts of the regional student education district, and any 54190
other governmental entity shall not be obligated to provide 54191
replacement funding for the revenues under the expired levy. The 54192
tax levy, in whole or in part, shall not be considered a levy for 54193
current operating expenses pursuant to division (A) of section 54194
3317.01 of the Revised Code for any of the school districts that 54195
are members of the regional student education district.54196

       (D)(1) The agreement shall provide for the manner of 54197
appointing an individual or entity to perform the duties of fiscal 54198
officer of the regional student education district. The agreement 54199
shall specify the length of time the individual or entity shall 54200
perform those duties and whether the individual or entity may be 54201
reappointed upon the completion of a term. The fiscal officer may 54202
receive compensation for performing the duties of the position and 54203
be reimbursed for reasonable expenses of performing those duties 54204
from the regional student education district's special fund.54205

       (2) The legal advisor of the board of directors of a regional 54206
student education district shall be the prosecuting attorney of 54207
the most populous county containing a school district that is a 54208
member of the regional student education district. The prosecuting 54209
attorney shall prosecute all actions against a member of the board 54210
of directors for malfeasance or misfeasance in office and shall be 54211
the legal counsel for the board and its members in all other 54212
actions brought by or against them and shall conduct those actions 54213
in the prosecuting attorney's official capacity. No compensation 54214
in addition to the prosecuting attorney's regular salary shall be 54215
allowed.54216

       (E) The board of directors of a regional student education 54217
district shall procure a policy or policies of insurance insuring 54218
the board, the fiscal officer, and the legal representative 54219
against liability on account of damage or injury to persons and 54220
property. Before procuring such insurance the board shall adopt a 54221
resolution setting forth the amount of insurance to be purchased, 54222
the necessity of the insurance, and a statement of its estimated 54223
premium cost. Insurance procured pursuant to this section shall be 54224
from one or more recognized insurance companies authorized to do 54225
business in this state. The cost of the insurance shall be paid 54226
from the district's special fund.54227

       A regional student education district is a political 54228
subdivision within the meaning of section 2744.01 of the Revised 54229
Code.54230

       (F)(1) The board of education of a school district having a 54231
majority of its territory in the county may join an existing 54232
regional student education district by adopting a resolution 54233
requesting to join as a party to the agreement and upon approval 54234
by the boards of education that currently are parties to the 54235
agreement. If a tax is levied in the regional student education 54236
district under section 5705.2111 of the Revised Code, a board of 54237
education may join the district only after a majority of qualified 54238
electors in the school district voting on the question vote in 54239
favor of levying the tax throughout the school district. A board 54240
of education joining an existing district shall have the same 54241
powers, rights, and obligations under the agreement as other 54242
boards of education that are parties to the agreement.54243

       (2) A board of education that is a party to an agreement 54244
under this section may withdraw the school district from a 54245
regional student education district by adopting a resolution. The 54246
withdrawal shall take effect on the date provided in the 54247
resolution. If a tax is levied in the regional student education 54248
district under section 5705.2111 of the Revised Code, the 54249
resolution shall take effect not later than the first day of 54250
January following adoption of the resolution. Beginning with the 54251
first day of January following adoption of the resolution, any tax 54252
levied under section 5705.2111 of the Revised Code shall not be 54253
levied within the territory of the withdrawing school district. 54254
Any collection of tax levied in the territory of the withdrawing 54255
school district under that section that has not been settled and 54256
distributed when the resolution takes effect shall be credited to 54257
the district's special fund.54258

       (G) An agreement entered into under this section shall 54259
provide for the manner of the regional student education 54260
district's dissolution. The district shall cease to exist when not 54261
more than one school district remains in the district, and the 54262
levy of any tax under section 5705.2111 of the Revised Code shall 54263
not be extended on the tax lists in any tax year beginning after 54264
the dissolution of the district. The agreement shall provide that, 54265
upon dissolution of the district, any unexpended balance in the 54266
district's special fund shall be divided among the school 54267
districts that are parties to the agreement immediately before 54268
dissolution in proportion to the taxable valuation of taxable 54269
property in the districts, and credited to their respective 54270
general funds.54271

       Sec. 3313.841.  The boards of education and governing boards 54272
of two or more city, local, joint vocational, or exempted village 54273
school districts or educational service centers may contract in 54274
accordance with the terms of this section for the sharing on a 54275
cooperative basis of the services of supervisory teachers, special 54276
instruction teachers, special education teachers, and other 54277
licensed personnel necessary to conduct approved cooperative 54278
classes for special education and related services and gifted 54279
education.54280

       The boards of two or more districts or service centers 54281
desiring to enroll students in such classes shall each adopt 54282
resolutions indicating such desire and designating one of the 54283
participating districts or service centers as the funding agent 54284
for purposes of this section. The district or service center 54285
designated as the funding agent shall enter into an employment 54286
contract with each licensed teacher whose services are to be 54287
shared among the participating districts and service centers. In 54288
turn, the funding agent shall enter into contracts with each of 54289
the districts and service centers which have adopted resolutions 54290
agreeing to participate in the cooperative program upon terms 54291
agreed to by all parties to such contract. Such contracts between 54292
districts and service centers shall set forth the services to be 54293
provided by the licensed teacher employed by the funding agent 54294
whose services are to be shared by the participating districts and 54295
service centers and the basis for computing the amounts to be paid 54296
for such services to the funding agent by the participating 54297
districts and service centers.54298

       For purposes of division (B) of section 3317.053317.0213 of 54299
the Revised Code, the funding agent shall count all pupils 54300
enrolled in cooperative programs for pupils with disabilities as 54301
pupils enrolled in such programs in the funding agent district. 54302
Upon receipt of payment for such programs, the funding agent 54303
district shall credit the account of districts participating in 54304
the cooperative program for the amounts due under contracts 54305
entered into under the terms of this section in proportion to the 54306
number of resident students enrolled in the cooperative program 54307
from each participating district and service center.54308

       In determining the terms of the contract entered into by the 54309
funding agent district or service center and the participating 54310
districts and service centers, the superintendent of schools of 54311
each participating board of education and governing board shall 54312
serve as a committee which shall recommend such terms to such 54313
boards.54314

       Sec. 3313.843.  (A) Notwithstanding division (D) of section 54315
3311.52 of the Revised Code, this section does not apply to any 54316
cooperative education school district.54317

       (B)(1) The board of education of each city, exempted village, 54318
or local school district with an average daily student enrollment 54319
of sixteen thousand or less, reported for the district on the most 54320
recent report card issued under section 3302.03 of the Revised 54321
Code, shall enter into an agreement with the governing board of an 54322
educational service center, under which the educational service 54323
center governing board will provide services to the district.54324

       (2) The board of education of a city, exempted village, or 54325
local school district with an average daily student enrollment of 54326
more than sixteen thousand may enter into an agreement with the 54327
governing board of an educational service center, under which the 54328
educational service center governing board will provide services 54329
to the district.54330

       (3) Services provided under an agreement entered into under 54331
division (B)(1) or (2) of this section shall be specified in the 54332
agreement, and may include any of the following: supervisory 54333
teachers; in-service and continuing education programs for 54334
district personnel; curriculum services; research and development 54335
programs; academic instruction for which the governing board 54336
employs teachers pursuant to section 3319.02 of the Revised Code; 54337
assistance in the provision of special accommodations and classes 54338
for students with disabilities; or any other services the district 54339
board and service center governing board agree can be better 54340
provided by the service center and are not provided under an 54341
agreement entered into under section 3313.845 of the Revised Code. 54342
Services included in the agreement shall be provided to the 54343
district in the manner specified in the agreement. The district 54344
board of education shall reimburse the educational service center 54345
governing board pursuant to section 3317.11 of the Revised Code54346
division (H) of this section.54347

       Beginning with the 2012-2013 school year, the board of any 54348
district described in division (B)(2) of this section may elect 54349
not to receive the supervisory services for which supervisory 54350
units are paid under division (B) of section 3317.11 of the 54351
Revised Code, provided that election is specified in the 54352
agreement.54353

       (C) Any agreement entered into pursuant to this section shall 54354
be filed with the department of education by the first day of July 54355
of the school year for which the agreement is in effect.54356

       (D)(1) An agreement for services from an educational service 54357
center entered into under this section may be terminated by the 54358
school district board of education, at its option, by notifying 54359
the governing board of the service center by March 1, 2012, or by 54360
the first day of January of any odd-numbered year thereafter, that 54361
the district board intends to terminate the agreement in that 54362
year, and that termination shall be effective on the thirtieth day 54363
of June of that year. The failure of a district board to notify an 54364
educational service center of its intent to terminate an agreement 54365
by March 1, 2012, shall result in renewal of the existing 54366
agreement for the following school year. Thereafter, the failure 54367
of a district board to notify an educational service center of its 54368
intent to terminate an agreement by the first day of January of an 54369
odd-numbered year shall result in renewal of the existing 54370
agreement for the following two school years.54371

       (2) If the school district that terminates an agreement for 54372
services under division (D)(1) of this section is also subject to 54373
the requirement of division (B)(1) of this section, the district 54374
board shall enter into a new agreement with any educational 54375
service center so that the new agreement is effective on the first 54376
day of July of that same year.54377

       (3) If all moneys owed by a school district to an educational 54378
service center under an agreement for services terminated under 54379
division (D)(1) of this section have been paid in full by the 54380
effective date of the termination, the governing board of the 54381
service center shall submit an affidavit to the department 54382
certifying that fact not later than fifteen days after the 54383
termination's effective date. Notwithstanding anything in the 54384
Revised Code to the contrary, until the department receives such 54385
an affidavit, it shall not make any payments to any other 54386
educational service center with which the district enters into an 54387
agreement under this section for services that the educational 54388
service center provides to the district.54389

        (E) An educational service center may apply to any state or 54390
federal agency for competitive grants. It may also apply to any 54391
private entity for additional funds. 54392

       (F) Not later than January 1, 2014, each educational service 54393
center shall post on its web site a list of all of the services 54394
that it provides and the corresponding cost for each of those 54395
services.54396

       (G)(1) For purposes of calculating any state subsidy to be 54397
paid to an educational service center for services provided to a 54398
school district, the service center's student count shall be the 54399
sum of the total student counts of all the school districts with 54400
which the educational service center has entered into an agreement 54401
under this section.54402

        (2) When a district enters into a new agreement with a new 54403
educational service center, the department of education shall 54404
ensure that the state subsidy for services provided to the 54405
district is paid to the new educational service center and that 54406
the educational service center with which the district previously 54407
had an agreement is no longer paid a state subsidy for providing 54408
services to that district. 54409

       (H) Pursuant to division (B) of section 3317.023 of the 54410
Revised Code, the department annually shall deduct from each 54411
school district that enters into an agreement with an educational 54412
service center under this section, and pay to the service center, 54413
an amount equal to six dollars and fifty cents times the school 54414
district's total student count. The district board of education, 54415
or the district superintendent acting on behalf of the district 54416
board, may agree to pay an amount in excess of six dollars and 54417
fifty cents per student in total student count. If a majority of 54418
the boards of education, or superintendents acting on behalf of 54419
the boards, of the districts that entered into an agreement under 54420
this section approve an amount in excess of six dollars and fifty 54421
cents per student in total student count, each district shall pay 54422
the excess amount to the service center.54423

        (I) For purposes of this section, a school district's "total 54424
student count" means the average daily student enrollment reported 54425
on the most recent report card issued for the district pursuant to 54426
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code.54427

       Sec. 3313.844.  The governing authority of a community school 54428
established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code and the 54429
governing board of an educational service center may enter into an 54430
agreement, through adoption of identical resolutions, under which 54431
the service center board will provide services to the community 54432
school. Services provided under the agreement and the amount and 54433
manner in which the community school board will pay for such 54434
services shall be mutually agreed to by the school's governing54435
boardauthority and the service center board, and shall be 54436
specified in the service agreement. If specified in the agreement 54437
as the manner of payment, the department of education shall pay 54438
the service center the amount due to it under the agreement and 54439
shall deduct that amount from the payments made to the community 54440
school under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code. Any agreement 54441
entered into under this section shall be valid only if a copy is 54442
filed with the department.54443

       Sec. 3313.845.  The board of education of a city, exempted 54444
village, or local, or joint vocational school district and the 54445
governing board of an educational service center may enter into an 54446
agreement under which the educational service center will provide 54447
services to the school district. Services provided under the 54448
agreement and the amount to be paid for such services shall be 54449
mutually agreed to by the district board of education and the 54450
service center governing board, and shall be specified in the 54451
agreement. Payment for services specified in the agreement shall 54452
be made pursuant to division (D) of section 3317.11 of the 54453
Revised Code and shall not include any deduction under division 54454
(B), (C), or (F) of that sectionthe terms of that agreement. If 54455
specified in the agreement as the manner of payment, the 54456
department of education shall pay the service center the amount 54457
due to it under the agreement and shall deduct that amount from 54458
the payments made to the city, exempted village, local, or joint 54459
vocational school district under Chapter 3317. of the Revised 54460
Code. Any agreement entered into pursuant to this section shall be 54461
valid only if a copy is filed with the department of education.54462

       The authority granted under this section to the boards of 54463
education of city, exempted village, and local school districts is 54464
in addition to the authority granted to such boards under section 54465
3313.843 of the Revised Code. 54466

       Sec. 3313.848.  (A) As used in this section:54467

       (1) "Client" means a city, local, or exempted village school 54468
district, community school established under Chapter 3314. of the 54469
Revised Code, STEM school established under Chapter 3326. of the 54470
Revised Code, or political subdivision.54471

       (2) "Governing body" means the board of education of a school 54472
district, governing authority of a community school, governing 54473
body of a STEM school, or governing body of a political 54474
subdivision.54475

       (3) "Political subdivision" has the same meaning as used in 54476
section 3313.846 of the Revised Code.54477

       (4) "Service agreement" means an agreement that a client has 54478
entered into with an educational service center under section 54479
3313.843, 3313.844, 3313.845, 3313.846, or 3326.45 of the Revised 54480
Code and any subsequent amendment to that agreement.54481

       (B) If at the end of a fiscal year for which a service 54482
agreement is in effect any of the funds paid directly by a client 54483
to the educational service center under the agreement are 54484
unexpended and unobligated, a client's governing body may elect to 54485
have the service center retain the unexpended and unobligated 54486
funds for the purpose of applying them toward any payment the 54487
client will owe to the service center under a service agreement 54488
for the next fiscal year. The treasurer or fiscal officer of the 54489
client shall indicate on the client's end-of-year financial report 54490
that unexpended funds have been retained by the service center and 54491
the amount of those funds.54492

       (C) A client shall expend its funds retained under division 54493
(B) of this section only for services specifically set forth under 54494
a service agreement. The treasurer of the educational service 54495
center shall keep a record of the client's expenditure and the 54496
service or services for which the expenditure was made. On at 54497
least an annual basis, or upon the request of the client's 54498
governing body or its treasurer or fiscal officer, the treasurer 54499
of the service center shall notify the client's treasurer or 54500
fiscal officer of the expenditures recorded under this division. 54501
The client's treasurer or fiscal officer shall include that 54502
information in the financial report made by the treasurer or 54503
fiscal officer at the next meeting of the client's governing body 54504
that occurs following receipt of the information.54505

       Sec. 3313.849.  The governing bodies of two or more city, 54506
exempted village, local, or joint vocational school districts, 54507
community schools established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised 54508
Code, or STEM schools established under Chapter 3326. of the 54509
Revised Code, may mutually agree to share supervisory, curriculum, 54510
teaching, special education, professional development, or any 54511
other services offered by an educational service center and may 54512
pool their funding to pay the cost of receiving those services. 54513
Each of the governing bodies of the districts or schools 54514
participating in shared services pursuant to this section shall 54515
specify in its service agreement with the service center under 54516
section 3313.843, 3313.844, 3313.845, or 3326.45 of the Revised 54517
Code which services that the participants have agreed to share, 54518
any other districts or schools participating in the shared 54519
services, and the amount of funds that the governing body will 54520
contribute toward the total cost of the shared services. Each 54521
governing body's funding contribution shall be paid to the service 54522
center in accordance with section 3313.843, 3313.844, 3313.845, or 54523
3326.45 of the Revised Code, as applicable.54524

       The authority granted under this section is in addition to 54525
the authority granted to school district boards of education under 54526
section 3313.841 of the Revised Code.54527

       Sec. 3313.88.  (A)(1) Prior to the first day of August of 54528
each school year, the board of education of any school district or 54529
the governing authority of any chartered nonpublic school may 54530
submit to the department of education a plan to require students 54531
to access and complete classroom lessons posted on the district's 54532
or nonpublic school's web portal or web site in order to make up 54533
days in that school year on which it is necessary to close schools 54534
for any of the reasons specified in division (B) of section 54535
3317.01 of the Revised Code in excess of the number of days 54536
permitted under sections 3313.48, 3313.481, and 3317.01 of the 54537
Revised Code.54538

       Prior to the first day of August of each school year, the 54539
governing authority of any community school established under 54540
Chapter 3314. that is not an internet- or computer-based community 54541
school, as defined in section 3314.02 of the Revised Code, may 54542
submit to the department a plan to require students to access and 54543
complete classroom lessons posted on the school's web portal or 54544
web site in order to make up days or hours in that school year on 54545
which it is necessary to close the school for any of the reasons 54546
specified in division (L)(H)(4) of section 3314.08 of the Revised 54547
Code so that the school is in compliance with the minimum number 54548
of hours required under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code.54549

        A plan submitted by a school district board or chartered 54550
nonpublic school governing authority shall provide for making up 54551
any number of days, up to a maximum of three days. A plan 54552
submitted by a community school governing authority shall provide 54553
for making up any number of hours, up to a maximum of the 54554
equivalent of three days. Provided the plan meets all requirements 54555
of this section, the department shall permit the board or 54556
governing authority to implement the plan for the applicable 54557
school year.54558

       (2) Each plan submitted under this section by a school 54559
district board of education shall include the written consent of 54560
the teachers' employee representative designated under division 54561
(B) of section 4117.04 of the Revised Code.54562

       (3) Each plan submitted under this section shall provide for 54563
the following:54564

       (a) Not later than the first day of November of the school 54565
year, each classroom teacher shall develop a sufficient number of 54566
lessons for each course taught by the teacher that school year to 54567
cover the number of make-up days or hours specified in the plan. 54568
The teacher shall designate the order in which the lessons are to 54569
be posted on the district's, community school's, or nonpublic 54570
school's web portal or web site in the event of a school closure. 54571
Teachers may be granted up to one professional development day to 54572
create lesson plans for those lessons.54573

       (b) To the extent possible and necessary, a classroom teacher 54574
shall update or replace, based on current instructional progress, 54575
one or more of the lesson plans developed under division (A)(3)(a) 54576
of this section before they are posted on the web portal or web 54577
site under division (A)(3)(c) of this section or distributed under 54578
division (B) of this section.54579

       (c) As soon as practicable after a school closure, a district 54580
or school employee responsible for web portal or web site 54581
operations shall make the designated lessons available to students 54582
on the district's, community school's, or nonpublic school's 54583
portal or site. A lesson shall be posted for each course that was 54584
scheduled to meet on the day or hours of the closure.54585

       (d) Each student enrolled in a course for which a lesson is 54586
posted on the portal or site shall be granted a two-week period 54587
from the date of posting to complete the lesson. The student's 54588
classroom teacher shall grade the lesson in the same manner as 54589
other lessons. The student may receive an incomplete or failing 54590
grade if the lesson is not completed on time.54591

       (e) If a student does not have access to a computer at the 54592
student's residence and the plan does not include blizzard bags 54593
under division (B) of this section, the student shall be permitted 54594
to work on the posted lessons at school after the student's school 54595
reopens. If the lessons were posted prior to the reopening, the 54596
student shall be granted a two-week period from the date of the 54597
reopening, rather than from the date of posting as otherwise 54598
required under division (A)(3)(d) of this section, to complete the 54599
lessons. The district board or community school or nonpublic 54600
school governing authority may provide the student access to a 54601
computer before, during, or after the regularly scheduled school 54602
day or may provide a substantially similar paper lesson in order 54603
to complete the lessons.54604

       (B)(1) In addition to posting classroom lessons online under 54605
division (A) of this section, the board of education of any school 54606
district or governing authority of any community or chartered 54607
nonpublic school may include in the plan distribution of "blizzard 54608
bags," which are paper copies of the lessons posted online.54609

        (2) If a school opts to use blizzard bags, teachers shall 54610
prepare paper copies in conjunction with the lessons to be posted 54611
online and update the paper copies whenever the teacher updates 54612
the online lesson plans.54613

        (3) The board of education of any school district or 54614
governing authority of any community or chartered nonpublic school 54615
that opts to use blizzard bags shall specify in the plan the 54616
method of distribution of blizzard bag lessons, which may include, 54617
but not be limited to, requiring distribution by a specific 54618
deadline or requiring distribution prior to anticipated school 54619
closure as directed by the superintendent of a school district or 54620
the principal, director, chief administrative officer, or the 54621
equivalent, of a school.54622

        (4) Students shall turn in completed lessons in accordance 54623
with division (A)(3)(d) of this section. 54624

       (C)(1) No school district that implements a plan in 54625
accordance with this section shall be considered to have failed to 54626
comply with division (B) of section 3317.01 of the Revised Code 54627
with respect to the number of make-up days specified in the plan.54628

       (2) No community school that implements a plan in accordance 54629
with this section shall be considered to have failed to comply 54630
with the minimum number of hours required under Chapter 3314. of 54631
the Revised Code with respect to the number of make-up hours 54632
specified in the plan.54633

       Sec. 3313.911.  The state board of education may adopt a 54634
resolution assigning a city, exempted village, or local school 54635
district that is not a part of a joint vocational school district 54636
to membership in a joint vocational school district. A copy of the 54637
resolution shall be certified to the board of education of the 54638
joint vocational school district and the board of education of the 54639
district proposed to be assigned. The board of education of the 54640
joint vocational school district shall advertise a copy of the 54641
resolution in a newspaper of general circulation in the district 54642
proposed to be assigned once each week for two weeks, or as 54643
provided in section 7.16 of the Revised Code, immediately 54644
following the certification of the resolution to the board. The 54645
assignment shall take effect on the ninety-first day after the 54646
state board adopts the resolution, unless prior to that date 54647
qualified electors residing in the school district proposed for 54648
assignment, equal in number to ten per cent of the qualified 54649
electors of that district voting at the last general election, 54650
file a petition against the assignment.54651

       The petition of referendum shall be filed with the treasurer 54652
of the board of education of the district proposed to be assigned 54653
to the joint vocational school district. The treasurer shall give 54654
the person presenting the petition a receipt showing the time of 54655
day, date, and purpose of the petition. The treasurer shall cause 54656
the board of elections to determine the sufficiency of signatures 54657
on the petition and if the signatures are found to be sufficient, 54658
shall present the petition to the board of education of the 54659
district. The board of education shall promptly certify the 54660
question to the board of elections for the purpose of having the 54661
question placed on the ballot at the next general, primary, or 54662
special election not earlier than sixty days after the date of the 54663
certification.54664

       Only those qualified electors residing in the district 54665
proposed for assignment to the joint vocational school district 54666
are qualified to vote on the question. If a majority of the 54667
electors voting on the question vote against the assignment, it 54668
shall not take place, and the state board of education shall 54669
require the district to contract with the joint vocational school 54670
district or another school district as authorized by section 54671
3313.91 of the Revised Code.54672

       If a majority of the electors voting on the question do not 54673
vote against the assignment, the assignment shall take immediate 54674
effect, and the board of education of the joint vocational school 54675
district shall notify the county auditor of the county in which 54676
the school district becoming a part of the joint vocational school 54677
district is located to have any outstanding levy of the joint 54678
vocational school district spread over the territory of the school 54679
district that has become a part of the joint vocational school 54680
district.54681

       The assignment of a school district to a joint vocational 54682
school district pursuant to this section is subject to any 54683
agreements made between the board of education of the assigned 54684
school district and the board of education of the joint vocational 54685
school district. Such an agreement may include provisions for a 54686
payment by the assigned school district to the joint vocational 54687
school district of an amount to be contributed toward the cost of 54688
the existing facilities of the joint vocational school district.54689

       On the assignment of a school district to a joint vocational 54690
school district pursuant to this section, the joint vocational 54691
school district's board of education shall submit a proposal to 54692
the state board of education to enlarge or reorganize the 54693
membership of the joint vocational school district's board of 54694
education if expansion or reorganization of the board is necessary 54695
in order to comply with section 3311.19 of the Revised Code.54696

       Sec. 3313.976.  (A) No private school may receive scholarship 54697
payments from parents pursuant to section 3313.979 of the Revised 54698
Code until the chief administrator of the private school registers 54699
the school with the superintendent of public instruction. The 54700
state superintendent shall register any school that meets the 54701
following requirements:54702

       (1) The school is located within the boundaries of the pilot 54703
project school district;54704

       (2) The school indicates in writing its commitment to follow 54705
all requirements for a state-sponsored scholarship program 54706
specified under sections 3313.974 to 3313.979 of the Revised Code, 54707
including, but not limited to, the requirements for admitting 54708
students pursuant to section 3313.977 of the Revised Code;54709

       (3) The school meets all state minimum standards for 54710
chartered nonpublic schools in effect on July 1, 1992, except that 54711
the state superintendent at the superintendent's discretion may 54712
register nonchartered nonpublic schools meeting the other 54713
requirements of this division;54714

       (4) The school does not discriminate on the basis of race, 54715
religion, or ethnic background;54716

       (5) The school enrolls a minimum of ten students per class or 54717
a sum of at least twenty-five students in all the classes offered;54718

       (6) The school does not advocate or foster unlawful behavior 54719
or teach hatred of any person or group on the basis of race, 54720
ethnicity, national origin, or religion;54721

       (7) The school does not provide false or misleading 54722
information about the school to parents, students, or the general 54723
public;54724

       (8) For students in grades kindergarten through eight with 54725
family incomes at or below two hundred per cent of the federal 54726
poverty guidelines, as defined in section 5104.46 of the Revised 54727
Code, the school agrees not to charge any tuition in excess of the 54728
scholarship amount established pursuant to division (C)(1) of 54729
section 3313.978 of the Revised Code, excluding any increase 54730
described in division (C)(2) of that section. 54731

       (9) For students in grades kindergarten through eight with 54732
family incomes above two hundred per cent of the federal poverty 54733
guidelines, whose scholarship amounts are less than the actual 54734
tuition charge of the school, the school agrees not to charge any 54735
tuition in excess of the difference between the actual tuition 54736
charge of the school and the scholarship amount established 54737
pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 3313.978 of the Revised 54738
Code, excluding any increase described in division (C)(2) of that 54739
section. The school shall permit such tuition, at the discretion 54740
of the parent, to be satisfied by the family's provision of 54741
in-kind contributions or services.54742

       (10) The school agrees not to charge any tuition to families 54743
of students in grades nine through twelve receiving a scholarship 54744
in excess of the actual tuition charge of the school less the 54745
scholarship amount established pursuant to division (C)(1) of 54746
section 3313.978 of the Revised Code, excluding any increase 54747
described in division (C)(2) of that section.54748

       (11) NotwithstandingIf the school is not subject to division 54749
(K)(1)(a) of section 3301.0711 of the Revised Code, the schoolit54750
annually administers the assessments prescribed by section 54751
3301.0710 of the Revised Code to each scholarship student enrolled 54752
in the school in accordance with section 3301.0711 of the Revised 54753
Code and reports to the department of education the results of 54754
each such assessment administered to each scholarship student.54755

       (B) The state superintendent shall revoke the registration of 54756
any school if, after a hearing, the superintendent determines that 54757
the school is in violation of any of the provisions of division 54758
(A) of this section.54759

       (C) Any public school located in a school district adjacent 54760
to the pilot project district may receive scholarship payments on 54761
behalf of parents pursuant to section 3313.979 of the Revised Code 54762
if the superintendent of the district in which such public school 54763
is located notifies the state superintendent prior to the first 54764
day of March that the district intends to admit students from the 54765
pilot project district for the ensuing school year pursuant to 54766
section 3327.06 of the Revised Code.54767

       (D) Any parent wishing to purchase tutorial assistance from 54768
any person or governmental entity pursuant to the pilot project 54769
program under sections 3313.974 to 3313.979 of the Revised Code 54770
shall apply to the state superintendent. The state superintendent 54771
shall approve providers who appear to possess the capability of 54772
furnishing the instructional services they are offering to 54773
provide.54774

       Sec. 3313.978.  (A) Annually by the first day of November, 54775
the superintendent of public instruction shall notify the pilot 54776
project school district of the number of initial scholarships that 54777
the state superintendent will be awarding in each of grades 54778
kindergarten through twelve.54779

       The state superintendent shall provide information about the 54780
scholarship program to all students residing in the district, 54781
shall accept applications from any such students until such date 54782
as shall be established by the state superintendent as a deadline 54783
for applications, and shall establish criteria for the selection 54784
of students to receive scholarships from among all those applying 54785
prior to the deadline, which criteria shall give preference to 54786
students from low-income families. The state superintendent shall 54787
notify students of their selection prior to the fifteenth day of 54788
January. 54789

       (1) A student receiving a pilot project scholarship may 54790
utilize it at an alternative public school by notifying the 54791
district superintendent, at any time before the beginning of the 54792
school year, of the name of the public school in an adjacent 54793
school district to which the student has been accepted pursuant to 54794
section 3327.06 of the Revised Code.54795

       (2) A student may decide to utilize a pilot project 54796
scholarship at a registered private school in the district if all 54797
of the following conditions are met:54798

       (a) By the fifteenth day of February of the preceding school 54799
year, or at any time prior to the start of the school year, the 54800
parent makes an application on behalf of the student to a 54801
registered private school.54802

       (b) The registered private school notifies the parent and the 54803
state superintendent as follows that the student has been 54804
admitted:54805

       (i) By the fifteenth day of March of the preceding school 54806
year if the student filed an application by the fifteenth day of 54807
February and was admitted by the school pursuant to division (A) 54808
of section 3313.977 of the Revised Code;54809

       (ii) Within one week of the decision to admit the student if 54810
the student is admitted pursuant to division (C) of section 54811
3313.977 of the Revised Code.54812

       (c) The student actually enrolls in the registered private 54813
school to which the student was first admitted or in another 54814
registered private school in the district or in a public school in 54815
an adjacent school district.54816

       (B) The state superintendent shall also award in any school 54817
year tutorial assistance grants to a number of students equal to 54818
the number of students who receive scholarships under division (A) 54819
of this section. Tutorial assistance grants shall be awarded 54820
solely to students who are enrolled in the public schools of the 54821
district in a grade level covered by the pilot project. Tutorial 54822
assistance grants may be used solely to obtain tutorial assistance 54823
from a provider approved pursuant to division (D) of section 54824
3313.976 of the Revised Code.54825

       All students wishing to obtain tutorial assistance grants 54826
shall make application to the state superintendent by the first 54827
day of the school year in which the assistance will be used. The 54828
state superintendent shall award assistance grants in accordance 54829
with criteria the superintendent shall establish. 54830

       (C)(1) In the case of basic scholarships for students in 54831
grades kindergarten through eight, the scholarship amount shall 54832
not exceed the lesser of the net tuition charges of the 54833
alternative school the scholarship recipient attends or three 54834
thousand dollars before fiscal year 2007, three thousand four 54835
hundred fifty dollars in fiscal year 2007 through fiscal year 54836
2011, and four thousand two hundred fifty dollars in fiscal year 54837
2012 and thereafter.54838

       In the case of basic scholarships for students in grades nine 54839
through twelve, the scholarship amount shall not exceed the lesser 54840
of the net tuition charges of the alternative school the 54841
scholarship recipient attends or two thousand seven hundred 54842
dollars before fiscal year 2007, three thousand four hundred fifty 54843
dollars in fiscal year 2007 through fiscal year 2011, and five 54844
thousand dollars in fiscal year 2012 and thereafterfiscal year 54845
2013, and five thousand seven hundred dollars in fiscal year 2014 54846
and thereafter.54847

       The net tuition and fees charged to a student shall be the 54848
tuition amount specified by the alternative school minus all other 54849
financial aid, discounts, and adjustments received for the 54850
student. In cases where discounts are offered for multiple 54851
students from the same family, and not all students in the same 54852
family are scholarship recipients, the net tuition amount 54853
attributable to the scholarship recipient shall be the lowest net 54854
tuition to which the family is entitled.54855

       (2) The state superintendent shall provide for an increase in 54856
the basic scholarship amount in the case of any student who is a 54857
mainstreamed student with a disability and shall further increase 54858
such amount in the case of any separately educated student with a 54859
disability. Such increases shall take into account the 54860
instruction, related services, and transportation costs of 54861
educating such students.54862

       (3) In the case of tutorial assistance grants, the grant 54863
amount shall not exceed the lesser of the provider's actual 54864
charges for such assistance or:54865

       (a) Before fiscal year 2007, a percentage established by the 54866
state superintendent, not to exceed twenty per cent, of the amount 54867
of the pilot project school district's average basic scholarship 54868
amount;54869

       (b) In fiscal year 2007 and thereafter, four hundred dollars.54870

       (D)(1) Annually by the first day of November, the state 54871
superintendent shall estimate the maximum per-pupil scholarship 54872
amounts for the ensuing school year. The state superintendent 54873
shall make this estimate available to the general public at the 54874
offices of the district board of education together with the forms 54875
required by division (D)(2) of this section.54876

       (2) Annually by the fifteenth day of January, the chief 54877
administrator of each registered private school located in the 54878
pilot project district and the principal of each public school in 54879
such district shall complete a parental information form and 54880
forward it to the president of the board of education. The 54881
parental information form shall be prescribed by the department of 54882
education and shall provide information about the grade levels 54883
offered, the numbers of students, tuition amounts, achievement 54884
test results, and any sectarian or other organizational 54885
affiliations.54886

       (E)(1) Only for the purpose of administering the pilot 54887
project scholarship program, the department may request from any 54888
of the following entities the data verification code assigned 54889
under division (D)(2) of section 3301.0714 of the Revised Code to 54890
any student who is seeking a scholarship under the program:54891

        (a) The school district in which the student is entitled to 54892
attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised 54893
Code;54894

        (b) If applicable, the community school in which the student 54895
is enrolled;54896

        (c) The independent contractor engaged to create and maintain 54897
data verification codes.54898

        (2) Upon a request by the department under division (E)(1) of 54899
this section for the data verification code of a student seeking a 54900
scholarship or a request by the student's parent for that code, 54901
the school district or community school shall submit that code to 54902
the department or parent in the manner specified by the 54903
department. If the student has not been assigned a code, because 54904
the student will be entering kindergarten during the school year 54905
for which the scholarship is sought, the district shall assign a 54906
code to that student and submit the code to the department or 54907
parent by a date specified by the department. If the district does 54908
not assign a code to the student by the specified date, the 54909
department shall assign a code to the student.54910

       The department annually shall submit to each school district 54911
the name and data verification code of each student residing in 54912
the district who is entering kindergarten, who has been awarded a 54913
scholarship under the program, and for whom the department has 54914
assigned a code under this division.54915

       (3) The department shall not release any data verification 54916
code that it receives under division (E) of this section to any 54917
person except as provided by law.54918

       (F) Any document relative to the pilot project scholarship 54919
program that the department holds in its files that contains both 54920
a student's name or other personally identifiable information and 54921
the student's data verification code shall not be a public record 54922
under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.54923

       (G)(1) The department annually shall compile the scores 54924
attained by scholarship students enrolled in registered private 54925
schools on the assessments administered to the students pursuant 54926
to division (A)(11) of section 3313.976 of the Revised Code. The 54927
scores shall be aggregated as follows:54928

       (a) By school district, which shall include all scholarship 54929
students residing in the pilot project school district who are 54930
enrolled in a registered private school and were required to take 54931
an assessment pursuant to division (A)(11) of section 3313.976 of 54932
the Revised Code;54933

       (b) By registered private school, which shall include all 54934
scholarship students enrolled in that school who were required to 54935
take an assessment pursuant to division (A)(11) of section 54936
3313.976 of the Revised Code.54937

       (2) The department shall disaggregate the student performance 54938
data described in division (G)(1) of this section according to the 54939
following categories:54940

       (a) Grade level;54941

       (b) Race and ethnicity;54942

       (c) Gender;54943

       (d) Students who have participated in the scholarship program 54944
for three or more years;54945

       (e) Students who have participated in the scholarship program 54946
for more than one year and less than three years;54947

       (f) Students who have participated in the scholarship program 54948
for one year or less;54949

       (g) Economically disadvantaged students.54950

       (3) The department shall post the student performance data 54951
required under divisions (G)(1) and (2) of this section on its web 54952
site and shall include that data in the information about the 54953
scholarship program provided to students under division (A) of 54954
this section. In reporting student performance data under this 54955
division, the department shall not include any data that is 54956
statistically unreliable or that could result in the 54957
identification of individual students. For this purpose, the 54958
department shall not report performance data for any group that 54959
contains less than ten students.54960

       (4) The department shall provide the parent of each 54961
scholarship student enrolled in a registered private school with 54962
information comparing the student's performance on the assessments 54963
administered pursuant to division (A)(11) of section 3313.976 of 54964
the Revised Code with the average performance of similar students 54965
enrolled in the building operated by the pilot project school 54966
district that the scholarship student would otherwise attend. In 54967
calculating the performance of similar students, the department 54968
shall consider age, grade, race and ethnicity, gender, and 54969
socioeconomic status.54970

       Sec. 3313.98.  Notwithstanding division (D) of section 54971
3311.19 and division (D) of section 3311.52 of the Revised Code, 54972
the provisions of this section and sections 3313.981 to 3313.983 54973
of the Revised Code that apply to a city school district do not 54974
apply to a joint vocational or cooperative education school 54975
district unless expressly specified.54976

       (A) As used in this section and sections 3313.981 to 3313.983 54977
of the Revised Code:54978

       (1) "Parent" means either of the natural or adoptive parents 54979
of a student, except under the following conditions:54980

       (a) When the marriage of the natural or adoptive parents of 54981
the student has been terminated by a divorce, dissolution of 54982
marriage, or annulment or the natural or adoptive parents of the 54983
student are living separate and apart under a legal separation 54984
decree and the court has issued an order allocating the parental 54985
rights and responsibilities with respect to the student, "parent" 54986
means the residential parent as designated by the court except 54987
that "parent" means either parent when the court issues a shared 54988
parenting decree.54989

       (b) When a court has granted temporary or permanent custody 54990
of the student to an individual or agency other than either of the 54991
natural or adoptive parents of the student, "parent" means the 54992
legal custodian of the child.54993

       (c) When a court has appointed a guardian for the student, 54994
"parent" means the guardian of the student.54995

       (2) "Native student" means a student entitled under section 54996
3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code to attend school in a 54997
district adopting a resolution under this section.54998

       (3) "Adjacent district" means a city, exempted village, or 54999
local school district having territory that abuts the territory of 55000
a district adopting a resolution under this section.55001

       (4) "Adjacent district student" means a student entitled 55002
under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code to attend 55003
school in an adjacent district.55004

       (5) "Adjacent district joint vocational student" means an 55005
adjacent district student who enrolls in a city, exempted village, 55006
or local school district pursuant to this section and who also 55007
enrolls in a joint vocational school district that does not 55008
contain the territory of the district for which that student is a 55009
native student and does contain the territory of the city, 55010
exempted village, or local district in which the student enrolls.55011

       (6) "Formula amount" has the same meaning as in section 55012
3317.02 of the Revised Code.55013

       (7) "Adjusted formula amount" means the sum of the formula 55014
amount plus the per pupil amount of the base funding supplements 55015
specified in divisions (C)(1) to (4) of section 3317.012 of the 55016
Revised Code for fiscal year 2009.55017

       (8) "Poverty line" means the poverty line established by the 55018
director of the United States office of management and budget as 55019
revised by the directorsecretary of the office of community55020
health and human services in accordance with section 673(2) of the 55021
"Community Services Block Grant Act," 95 Stat. 1609, 42 U.S.C.A. 55022
9902, as amended.55023

       (9)(8) "IEP" has the same meaning as in section 3323.01 of 55024
the Revised Code.55025

       (10)(9) "Other district" means a city, exempted village, or 55026
local school district having territory outside of the territory of 55027
a district adopting a resolution under this section.55028

       (11)(10) "Other district student" means a student entitled 55029
under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code to attend 55030
school in an other district.55031

       (12)(11) "Other district joint vocational student" means a 55032
student who is enrolled in any city, exempted village, or local 55033
school district and who also enrolls in a joint vocational school 55034
district that does not contain the territory of the district for 55035
which that student is a native student in accordance with a policy 55036
adopted under section 3313.983 of the Revised Code.55037

       (B)(1) The board of education of each city, local, and 55038
exempted village school district shall adopt a resolution 55039
establishing for the school district one of the following 55040
policies:55041

       (a) A policy that entirely prohibits the enrollment of 55042
students from adjacent districts or other districts, other than 55043
students for whom tuition is paid in accordance with section 55044
3317.08 of the Revised Code;55045

       (b) A policy that permits enrollment of students from all 55046
adjacent districts in accordance with policy statements contained 55047
in the resolution;55048

       (c) A policy that permits enrollment of students from all 55049
other districts in accordance with policy statements contained in 55050
the resolution.55051

       (2) A policy permitting enrollment of students from adjacent 55052
or from other districts, as applicable, shall provide for all of 55053
the following:55054

       (a) Application procedures, including deadlines for 55055
application and for notification of students and the 55056
superintendent of the applicable district whenever an adjacent or 55057
other district student's application is approved.55058

       (b) Procedures for admitting adjacent or other district 55059
applicants free of any tuition obligation to the district's 55060
schools, including, but not limited to:55061

       (i) The establishment of district capacity limits by grade 55062
level, school building, and education program;55063

       (ii) A requirement that all native students wishing to be 55064
enrolled in the district will be enrolled and that any adjacent or 55065
other district students previously enrolled in the district shall 55066
receive preference over first-time applicants;55067

       (iii) Procedures to ensure that an appropriate racial balance 55068
is maintained in the district schools.55069

       (C) Except as provided in section 3313.982 of the Revised 55070
Code, the procedures for admitting adjacent or other district 55071
students, as applicable, shall not include:55072

       (1) Any requirement of academic ability, or any level of 55073
athletic, artistic, or other extracurricular skills;55074

       (2) Limitations on admitting applicants because of 55075
disability, except that a board may refuse to admit a student 55076
receiving services under Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code, if the 55077
services described in the student's IEP are not available in the 55078
district's schools;55079

       (3) A requirement that the student be proficient in the 55080
English language;55081

       (4) Rejection of any applicant because the student has been 55082
subject to disciplinary proceedings, except that if an applicant 55083
has been suspended or expelled by the student's district for ten 55084
consecutive days or more in the term for which admission is sought 55085
or in the term immediately preceding the term for which admission 55086
is sought, the procedures may include a provision denying 55087
admission of such applicant.55088

       (D)(1) Each school board permitting only enrollment of 55089
adjacent district students shall provide information about the 55090
policy adopted under this section, including the application 55091
procedures and deadlines, to the superintendent and the board of 55092
education of each adjacent district and, upon request, to the 55093
parent of any adjacent district student.55094

       (2) Each school board permitting enrollment of other district 55095
students shall provide information about the policy adopted under 55096
this section, including the application procedures and deadlines, 55097
upon request, to the board of education of any other school 55098
district or to the parent of any student anywhere in the state.55099

       (E) Any school board shall accept all credits toward 55100
graduation earned in adjacent or other district schools by an 55101
adjacent or other district student or a native student.55102

       (F)(1) No board of education may adopt a policy discouraging 55103
or prohibiting its native students from applying to enroll in the 55104
schools of an adjacent or any other district that has adopted a 55105
policy permitting such enrollment, except that:55106

       (a) A district may object to the enrollment of a native 55107
student in an adjacent or other district in order to maintain an 55108
appropriate racial balance.55109

       (b) The board of education of a district receiving funds 55110
under 64 Stat. 1100 (1950), 20 U.S.C.A. 236 et seq., as amended, 55111
may adopt a resolution objecting to the enrollment of its native 55112
students in adjacent or other districts if at least ten per cent 55113
of its students are included in the determination of the United 55114
States secretary of education made under section 20 U.S.C.A. 55115
238(a).55116

       (2) If a board objects to enrollment of native students under 55117
this division, any adjacent or other district shall refuse to 55118
enroll such native students unless tuition is paid for the 55119
students in accordance with section 3317.08 of the Revised Code. 55120
An adjacent or other district enrolling such students may not 55121
receive funding for those students in accordance with section 55122
3313.981 of the Revised Code.55123

       (G) The state board of education shall monitor school 55124
districts to ensure compliance with this section and the 55125
districts' policies. The board may adopt rules requiring uniform 55126
application procedures, deadlines for application, notification 55127
procedures, and record-keeping requirements for all school boards 55128
that adopt policies permitting the enrollment of adjacent or other 55129
district students, as applicable. If the state board adopts such 55130
rules, no school board shall adopt a policy that conflicts with 55131
those rules.55132

       (H) A resolution adopted by a board of education under this 55133
section that entirely prohibits the enrollment of students from 55134
adjacent and from other school districts does not abrogate any 55135
agreement entered into under section 3313.841 or 3313.92 of the 55136
Revised Code or any contract entered into under section 3313.90 of 55137
the Revised Code between the board of education adopting the 55138
resolution and the board of education of any adjacent or other 55139
district or prohibit these boards of education from entering into 55140
any such agreement or contract.55141

       (I) Nothing in this section shall be construed to permit or 55142
require the board of education of a city, exempted village, or 55143
local school district to exclude any native student of the 55144
district from enrolling in the district.55145

       Sec. 3313.981.  (A) The state board of education shall adopt 55146
rules requiring all of the following:55147

       (1) The board of education of each city, exempted village, 55148
and local school district to annually report to the department of 55149
education all of the following:55150

       (a) The number of adjacent district or other district 55151
students, as applicable, and adjacent district or other district 55152
joint vocational students, as applicable, enrolled in the district 55153
and the number of native students enrolled in adjacent or other 55154
districts, in accordance with a policy adopted under division (B) 55155
of section 3313.98 of the Revised Code;55156

       (b) Each adjacent district or other district student's or 55157
adjacent district or other district joint vocational student's 55158
date of enrollment in the district;55159

       (c) The full-time equivalent number of adjacent district or 55160
other district students enrolled in vocationaleach of the 55161
categories of career-technical education programs or classes 55162
described in division (A) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code 55163
and the full-time equivalent number of such students enrolled in 55164
vocational education programs or classes described in division (B) 55165
of that section;55166

       (d) Each native student's date of enrollment in an adjacent 55167
or other district.55168

       (2) The board of education of each joint vocational school 55169
district to annually report to the department all of the 55170
following:55171

       (a) The number of adjacent district or other district joint 55172
vocational students, as applicable, enrolled in the district;55173

       (b) The full-time equivalent number of adjacent district or 55174
other district joint vocational students enrolled in vocational55175
each category of career-technical education programs or classes 55176
described in division (A) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code 55177
and the full-time equivalent number of such students enrolled in 55178
vocational education programs or classes described in division (B) 55179
of that section;55180

       (c) For each adjacent district or other district joint 55181
vocational student, the city, exempted village, or local school 55182
district in which the student is also enrolled.55183

       (3) Prior to the first full school week in October each year, 55184
the superintendent of each city, local, or exempted village school 55185
district that admits adjacent district or other district students 55186
or adjacent district or other district joint vocational students 55187
in accordance with a policy adopted under division (B) of section 55188
3313.98 of the Revised Code to notify each adjacent or other 55189
district where those students are entitled to attend school under 55190
section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code of the number of 55191
the adjacent or other district's native students who are enrolled 55192
in the superintendent's district under the policy.55193

       The rules shall provide for the method of counting students 55194
who are enrolled for part of a school year in an adjacent or other 55195
district or as an adjacent district or other district joint 55196
vocational student.55197

       (B) From the payments made to a city, exempted village, or 55198
local school district under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code and, 55199
if necessary, from the payments made to the district under 55200
sections 321.24 and 323.156 of the Revised Code, the department of 55201
education shall annually subtract both of the following:55202

       (1) An amount equal to the number of the district's native 55203
students reported under division (A)(1) of this section who are 55204
enrolled in adjacent or other school districts pursuant to 55205
policies adopted by such districts under division (B) of section 55206
3313.98 of the Revised Code multiplied by the adjusted formula 55207
amount;55208

       (2) The excess costs computed in accordance with division (E) 55209
of this section for any such native students receiving special 55210
education and related services in adjacent or other school 55211
districts or as an adjacent district or other district joint 55212
vocational student;55213

       (3) For the full-time equivalent numbereach of the 55214
district's native students reported under division (A)(1)(c) or 55215
(2)(b) of this section as enrolled in vocationalcareer-technical55216
education programs or classes described in section 3317.014 of the 55217
Revised Code, anthe per pupil amount equal to $5,732 times the 55218
applicable multiple prescribed by that section for the student's 55219
respective career-technical category, on a full-time equivalency 55220
basis.55221

       (C) To the payments made to a city, exempted village, or 55222
local school district under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code, the 55223
department of education shall annually add all of the following:55224

       (1) An amount equal to the adjusted formula amount multiplied 55225
by the remainder obtained by subtracting the number of adjacent 55226
district or other district joint vocational students from the 55227
number of adjacent district or other district students enrolled in 55228
the district, as reported under division (A)(1) of this section;55229

       (2) The excess costs computed in accordance with division (E) 55230
of this section for any adjacent district or other district 55231
students, except for any adjacent or other district joint 55232
vocational students, receiving special education and related 55233
services in the district;55234

       (3) For the full-time equivalent numbereach of the adjacent 55235
or other district students who are not adjacent district or other 55236
district joint vocational students and are reported under division 55237
(A)(1)(c) of this section as enrolled in vocational55238
career-technical education programs or classes described in 55239
section 3317.014 of the Revised Code, anthe per pupil amount 55240
equal to $5,732 times the applicable multiple prescribed by that 55241
section for the student's respective career-technical category, on 55242
a full-time equivalency basis;55243

       (4) An amount equal to the number of adjacent district or 55244
other district joint vocational students reported under division 55245
(A)(1) of this section multiplied by an amount equal to twenty per 55246
cent of the adjusted formula amount.55247

       (D) To the payments made to a joint vocational school 55248
district under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code, the department 55249
of education shall add, for each adjacent district or other 55250
district joint vocational student reported under division (A)(2) 55251
of this section, both of the following:55252

       (1) The adjusted formula amount;55253

       (2) AnThe per pupil amount equal to the full-time equivalent 55254
numberfor each of the students reported pursuant to division 55255
(A)(2)(b) of this section times $5,732 times the applicable 55256
multiple prescribed by section 3317.014 of the Revised Code for 55257
the student's respective career-technical category, on a full-time 55258
equivalency basis.55259

       (E)(1) A city, exempted village, or local school board 55260
providing special education and related services to an adjacent or 55261
other district student in accordance with an IEP shall, pursuant 55262
to rules of the state board, compute the excess costs to educate 55263
such student as follows:55264

       (a) Subtract the adjusted formula amount from the actual 55265
costs to educate the student;55266

       (b) From the amount computed under division (E)(1)(a) of this 55267
section subtract the amount of any funds received by the district 55268
under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code to provide special 55269
education and related services to the student.55270

       (2) The board shall report the excess costs computed under 55271
this division to the department of education.55272

       (3) If any student for whom excess costs are computed under 55273
division (E)(1) of this section is an adjacent or other district 55274
joint vocational student, the department of education shall add 55275
the amount of such excess costs to the payments made under Chapter 55276
3317. of the Revised Code to the joint vocational school district 55277
enrolling the student.55278

       (F) As provided in division (D)(1)(b) of section 3317.03 of 55279
the Revised Code, no joint vocational school district shall count 55280
any adjacent or other district joint vocational student enrolled 55281
in the district in its formula ADM certified under section 3317.03 55282
of the Revised Code.55283

       (G) No city, exempted village, or local school district shall 55284
receive a payment under division (C) of this section for a 55285
student, and no joint vocational school district shall receive a 55286
payment under division (D) of this section for a student, if for 55287
the same school year that student is counted in the district's 55288
formula ADM certified under section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.55289

       (H) Upon request of a parent, and provided the board offers 55290
transportation to native students of the same grade level and 55291
distance from school under section 3327.01 of the Revised Code, a 55292
city, exempted village, or local school board enrolling an 55293
adjacent or other district student shall provide transportation 55294
for the student within the boundaries of the board's district, 55295
except that the board shall be required to pick up and drop off a 55296
nonhandicapped student only at a regular school bus stop 55297
designated in accordance with the board's transportation policy. 55298
Pursuant to rules of the state board of education, such board may 55299
reimburse the parent from funds received for pupil transportation 55300
under section 3317.0212 of the Revised Code, or other provisions 55301
of law, for the reasonable cost of transportation from the 55302
student's home to the designated school bus stop if the student's 55303
family has an income below the federal poverty line.55304

       Sec. 3314.015.  (A) The department of education shall be 55305
responsible for the oversight of any and all sponsors of the 55306
community schools established under this chapter and shall provide 55307
technical assistance to schools and sponsors in their compliance 55308
with applicable laws and the terms of the contracts entered into 55309
under section 3314.03 of the Revised Code and in the development 55310
and start-up activities of those schools. In carrying out its 55311
duties under this section, the department shall do all of the 55312
following:55313

        (1) In providing technical assistance to proposing parties, 55314
governing authorities, and sponsors, conduct training sessions and 55315
distribute informational materials;55316

       (2) Approve entities to be sponsors of community schools; 55317

       (3) Monitor and evaluate, as required under section 3314.016 55318
of the Revised Code, the effectiveness of any and all sponsors in 55319
their oversight of the schools with which they have contracted;55320

        (4) By December thirty-first of each year, issue a report to 55321
the governor, the speaker of the house of representatives, the 55322
president of the senate, and the chairpersons of the house and 55323
senate committees principally responsible for education matters 55324
regarding the effectiveness of academic programs, operations, and 55325
legal compliance and of the financial condition of all community 55326
schools established under this chapter and on the performance of 55327
community school sponsors;55328

        (5) From time to time, make legislative recommendations to 55329
the general assembly designed to enhance the operation and 55330
performance of community schools.55331

        (B)(1) Except as provided in sections 3314.021 and 3314.027 55332
of the Revised Code, no entity listed in division (C)(1) of 55333
section 3314.02 of the Revised Code shall enter into a preliminary 55334
agreement under division (C)(2) of section 3314.02 of the Revised 55335
Code until it has received approval from the department of 55336
education to sponsor community schools under this chapter and has 55337
entered into a written agreement with the department regarding the 55338
manner in which the entity will conduct such sponsorship. The55339

       The initial term of a sponsor's agreement with the department 55340
shall be for up to seven years. For every year that the sponsor 55341
satisfies the conditions of division (B)(1)(a) or (b) of this 55342
section, as applicable, the department shall add one year to the 55343
agreement term, subject to divisions (C) and (F) of this section, 55344
unless the sponsor notifies the department that it does not wish 55345
to have the term of the agreement so extended.55346

       To qualify for the extension of the term of the sponsor's 55347
agreement, the sponsor shall satisfy one of the following, as 55348
applicable:55349

       (a) Prior to January 1, 2015, the sponsor is not in the 55350
lowest twenty per cent of sponsors statewide according to the 55351
composite performance index score as ranked under section 3314.016 55352
of the Revised Code, as that section exists prior to that date, 55353
and the sponsor continues to meet all the requirements of this 55354
chapter pertaining to community school sponsors.55355

       (b) On or after January 1, 2015, the sponsor is rated as 55356
"exemplary" or "effective" under section 3314.016 of the Revised 55357
Code, as that section exists on and after that date, and the 55358
sponsor continues to meet all the requirements of this chapter 55359
pertaining to community school sponsors.55360

       The department shall adopt in accordance with Chapter 119. of 55361
the Revised Code rules containing criteria, procedures, and 55362
deadlines for processing applications for such approval of 55363
sponsors, for oversight of sponsors, for notifying a sponsor of 55364
noncompliance with applicable laws and administrative rules under 55365
division (F) of this section, for revocation of the approval of 55366
sponsors under division (C) of this section, and for entering 55367
into written agreements with sponsors. The rules shall require an 55368
entity to submit evidence of the entity's ability and willingness 55369
to comply with the provisions of division (D) of section 3314.03 55370
of the Revised Code. The rules also shall require entities 55371
approved as sponsors on and after June 30, 2005, to demonstrate a 55372
record of financial responsibility and successful implementation 55373
of educational programs. If an entity seeking approval on or after 55374
June 30, 2005, to sponsor community schools in this state sponsors 55375
or operates schools in another state, at least one of the schools 55376
sponsored or operated by the entity must be comparable to or 55377
better than the performance of Ohio schools in need of continuous 55378
improvement under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code, as 55379
determined by the department.55380

        Subject to section 3314.016 of the Revised Code, an entity 55381
that sponsors community schools may enter into preliminary 55382
agreements and sponsor up to one hundred schools, provided each 55383
school and the contract for sponsorship meets the requirements of 55384
this chapter.55385

       (2) The state board of education shall determine, pursuant to 55386
criteria specified in rules adopted in accordance with Chapter 55387
119. of the Revised Code, whether the mission proposed to be 55388
specified in the contract of a community school to be sponsored by 55389
a state university board of trustees or the board's designee under 55390
division (C)(1)(e) of section 3314.02 of the Revised Code complies 55391
with the requirements of that division. Such determination of the 55392
state board is final.55393

       (3) The state board of education shall determine, pursuant to 55394
criteria specified in rules adopted in accordance with Chapter 55395
119. of the Revised Code, if any tax-exempt entity under section 55396
501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code that is proposed to be a 55397
sponsor of a community school is an education-oriented entity for 55398
purpose of satisfying the condition prescribed in division 55399
(C)(1)(f)(iii) of section 3314.02 of the Revised Code. Such 55400
determination of the state board is final.55401

       (C) If at any time the state board of education finds that a 55402
sponsor is not in compliance or is no longer willing to comply 55403
with its contract with any community school or with the 55404
department's rules for sponsorship, the state board or designee 55405
shall conduct a hearing in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 55406
Revised Code on that matter. If after the hearing, the state board 55407
or designee has confirmed the original finding, the department of 55408
education may revoke the sponsor's approval to sponsor community 55409
schools. In that case, the department's office of Ohio school 55410
sponsorship, established under section 3314.029 of the Revised 55411
Code, may assume the sponsorship of any schools with which the 55412
sponsor has contracted until the earlier of the expiration of two 55413
school years or until a new sponsor as described in division 55414
(C)(1) of section 3314.02 of the Revised Code is secured by the 55415
school's governing authority. The office of Ohio school 55416
sponsorship may extend the term of the contract in the case of a 55417
school for which it has assumed sponsorship under this division as 55418
necessary to accommodate the term of the department's 55419
authorization to sponsor the school specified in this division. 55420
Community schools sponsored under this division shall not apply to 55421
the limit on directly authorized community schools under division 55422
(A)(3) of section 3314.029 of the Revised Code. However, nothing 55423
in this division shall preclude a community school affected by 55424
this division from applying for sponsorship under that section.55425

       (D) The decision of the department to disapprove an entity 55426
for sponsorship of a community school or to revoke approval for 55427
such sponsorship under division (C) of this section, may be 55428
appealed by the entity in accordance with section 119.12 of the 55429
Revised Code.55430

       (E) The department shall adopt procedures for use by a 55431
community school governing authority and sponsor when the school 55432
permanently closes and ceases operation, which shall include at 55433
least procedures for data reporting to the department, handling of 55434
student records, distribution of assets in accordance with section 55435
3314.074 of the Revised Code, and other matters related to ceasing 55436
operation of the school.55437

       (F)(1) In lieu of revoking a sponsor's authority to sponsor 55438
community schools under division (C) of this section, if the 55439
department finds that a sponsor is not in compliance with 55440
applicable laws and administrative rules, the department shall 55441
declare in a written notice to the sponsor the specific laws or 55442
rules, or both, for which the sponsor is noncompliant. A sponsor 55443
notified under division (F)(1) of this section shall respond to 55444
the department not later than fourteen days after the notification 55445
with a proposed plan to remedy the conditions for which the 55446
sponsor was found to be noncompliant. The department shall approve 55447
or disapprove the plan not later than fourteen days after 55448
receiving it. If the plan is disapproved, the sponsor may submit a 55449
revised plan to the department not later than fourteen days after 55450
receiving notification of disapproval from the department or not 55451
later than sixty days after the date the sponsor received 55452
notification of noncompliance from the department, whichever is 55453
earlier. The department shall approve or disapprove the revised 55454
plan not later than fourteen days after receiving it or not later 55455
than sixty days after the date the sponsor received notification 55456
of noncompliance from the department, whichever is earlier. A 55457
sponsor may continue to make revisions by the deadlines prescribed 55458
in division (F)(1) of this section to any revised plan that is 55459
disapproved by the department until the sixtieth day after the 55460
date the sponsor received notification of noncompliance from the 55461
department.55462

        If a plan or a revised plan is approved, the sponsor shall 55463
implement it not later than sixty days after the date the sponsor 55464
received notification of noncompliance from the department or not 55465
later than thirty days after the plan is approved, whichever is 55466
later. If a sponsor does not respond to the department or 55467
implement an approved compliance plan by the deadlines prescribed 55468
by division (F)(1) of this section, or if a sponsor does not 55469
receive approval of a compliance plan on or before the sixtieth 55470
day after the date the sponsor received notification of 55471
noncompliance from the department, the department shall declare in 55472
written notice to the sponsor that the sponsor is in probationary 55473
status, and may limit the sponsor's ability to sponsor additional 55474
schools.55475

        (2) A sponsor that has been placed on probationary status 55476
under division (F)(1) of this section may apply to the department 55477
for its probationary status to be lifted. The application for a 55478
sponsor's probationary status to be lifted shall include evidence, 55479
occurring after the initial notification of noncompliance, of the 55480
sponsor's compliance with applicable laws and administrative 55481
rules. Not later than fourteen days after receiving an application 55482
from the sponsor, the department shall decide whether or not to 55483
remove the sponsor's probationary status.55484

       (G) In carrying out its duties under this chapter, the 55485
department shall not impose requirements on community schools or 55486
their sponsors that are not permitted by law or duly adopted 55487
rules.55488

       (H) This section applies to entities that sponsor conversion 55489
community schools and new start-up schools.55490

       Sec. 3314.017.  (A) The state board of education shall 55491
prescribe by rules, adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 55492
Revised Code, an academic performance rating and report card 55493
system that satisfies the requirements of this section for 55494
community schools that primarily serve students enrolled in 55495
dropout prevention and recovery programs as described in division 55496
(A)(4)(a) of section 3314.35 of the Revised Code, to be used in 55497
lieu of the system prescribed under sections 3302.03 and 3314.012 55498
of the Revised Code beginning with the 2012-2013 school year. Each 55499
such school shall comply with the testing and reporting 55500
requirements of the system as prescribed by the state board.55501

       (B) Nothing in this section shall at any time relieve a 55502
school from its obligations under the "No Child Left Behind Act of 55503
2001" to make "adequate yearly progress," as both that act and 55504
that term are defined in section 3302.01 of the Revised Code, or a 55505
school's amenability to the provisions of section 3302.04 or 55506
3302.041 of the Revised Code. The department shall continue to 55507
report each school's performance as required by the act and to 55508
enforce applicable sanctions under section 3302.04 or 3302.041 of 55509
the Revised Code. 55510

       (C) The rules adopted by the state board shall prescribe the 55511
following performance indicators for the rating and report card 55512
system required by this section:55513

       (1) Graduation rate for each of the following student 55514
cohorts:55515

       (a) The number of students who graduate in four years or less 55516
with a regular high school diploma divided by the number of 55517
students who form the adjusted cohort for the graduating class;55518

       (b) The number of students who graduate in five years with a 55519
regular high school diploma divided by the number of students who 55520
form the adjusted cohort for the four-year graduation rate;55521

       (c) The number of students who graduate in six years with a 55522
regular high school diploma divided by the number of students who 55523
form the adjusted cohort for the four-year graduation rate;55524

       (d) The number of students who graduate in seven years with a 55525
regular high school diploma divided by the number of students who 55526
form the adjusted cohort for the four-year graduation rate;55527

       (e) The number of students who graduate in eight years with a 55528
regular high school diploma divided by the number of students who 55529
form the adjusted cohort for the four-year graduation rate.55530

       (2) The percentage of twelfth-grade students currently 55531
enrolled in the school who have attained the designated passing 55532
score on all of the applicable state high school achievement 55533
assessments required under division (B)(1) or (2) of section 55534
3301.0710 of the Revised Code and other students enrolled in the 55535
school, regardless of grade level, who are within three months of 55536
their twenty-second birthday and have attained the designated 55537
passing score on all of the applicable state high school 55538
achievement assessments by their twenty-second birthday;55539

       (3) Annual measurable objectives as defined in section 55540
3302.01 of the Revised Code;55541

        (4) Growth in student achievement in reading, or mathematics, 55542
or both as measured by separate nationally norm-referenced 55543
assessments that have developed appropriate standards for students 55544
enrolled in dropout prevention and recovery programs, adopted or 55545
approved by the state board.55546

       (D)(1) The state board's rules shall prescribe the expected 55547
performance levels and benchmarks for each of the indicators 55548
prescribed by division (C) of this section based on the data 55549
gathered by the department under division (F) of this section. 55550
Based on a school's level of attainment or nonattainment of the 55551
expected performance levels and benchmarks for each of the 55552
indicators, the department shall rate each school in one of the 55553
following categories:55554

       (a) Exceeds standards;55555

       (b) Meets standards;55556

       (c) Does not meet standards.55557

       (2) The state board's rules shall establish all of the 55558
following:55559

       (a) Not later than June 30, 2013, performance levels and 55560
benchmarks for the indicators described in divisions (C)(1) to (3) 55561
of this section;55562

       (b) Not later than December 31, 2014, both of the following:55563

       (i) Performance levels and benchmarks for the indicator 55564
described in division (C)(4) of this section;55565

       (ii) Standards for awarding a community school described in 55566
division (A)(4)(a) of section 3314.35 of the Revised Code an 55567
overall designation, which shall be calculated as follows:55568

       (I) Thirty per cent of the score shall be based on the 55569
indicators described in division (C)(1) of this section that are 55570
applicable to the school year for which the overall designation is 55571
granted.55572

       (II) Thirty per cent of the score shall be based on the 55573
indicators described in division (C)(4) of this section.55574

       (III) Twenty per cent of the score shall be based on the 55575
indicators described in division (C)(2) of this section.55576

       (IV) Twenty per cent of the score shall be based on the 55577
indicators described in division (C)(3) of this section.55578

       (3) If both of the indicators described in divisions (C)(1) 55579
and (2) of this section improve by ten per cent for two 55580
consecutive years, a school shall be rated asnot less than "meets 55581
standards."55582

       The rating and the relevant performance data for each school 55583
shall be posted on the department's web site, and a copy of the 55584
rating and data shall be provided to the governing authority of 55585
the community school. 55586

       (E)(1) For the 2012-2013 school year, the department shall 55587
issue a report card including the following performance measures, 55588
but without a performance rating as described in divisions 55589
(D)(1)(a) to (c) of this section, for each community school 55590
described in division (A)(4)(a) of section 3314.35 of the Revised 55591
Code:55592

       (a) The graduation rates as described in divisions (C)(1)(a) 55593
to (c) of this section;55594

       (b) The percentage of twelfth-grade students and other 55595
students who have attained a designated passing score on high 55596
school achievement assessments as described in division (C)(2) of 55597
this section;55598

       (c) The statewide average for the graduation rates and 55599
assessment passage rates described in divisions (C)(1)(a) to (c) 55600
and (C)(2) of this section;55601

        (d) Annual measurable objectives described in division (C)(3) 55602
of this section.55603

       (2) For the 2013-2014 school year, the department shall issue 55604
a report card including the following performance measures for 55605
each community school described in division (A)(4) of section 55606
3314.35 of the Revised Code:55607

       (a) The graduation rates described in divisions (C)(1)(a) to 55608
(d) of this section, including a performance rating as described 55609
in divisions (D)(1)(a) to (c) of this section;55610

       (b) The percentage of twelfth-grade students and other 55611
students who have attained a designated passing score on high 55612
school achievement assessments as described in division (C)(2) of 55613
this section, including a performance rating as described in 55614
divisions (D)(1)(a) to (c) of this section;55615

       (c) Annual measurable objectives described in division (C)(3) 55616
of this section, including a performance rating as described in 55617
divisions (D)(1)(a) to (c) of this section;55618

        (d) Both of the following without an assigned rating:55619

        (i) Growth in annual student achievement in reading and 55620
mathematics described in division (C)(4) of this section, if 55621
available;55622

       (ii) Student outcome data, including postsecondary credit 55623
earned, nationally recognized career or technical certification, 55624
military enlistment, job placement, and attendance rate. 55625

       (3) Beginning with the 2014-2015 school year, and annually 55626
thereafter, the department shall issue a report card for each 55627
community school described in division (A)(4)(a) of section 55628
3314.35 of the Revised Code that includes all of the following 55629
performance measures, including a performance rating for each 55630
measure as described in divisions (D)(1)(a) to (c) of this 55631
section:55632

       (a) The graduation rates as described in division (C)(1) of 55633
this section;55634

       (b) The percentage of twelfth-grade students and other 55635
students who have attained a designated passing score on high 55636
school achievement assessments as described in division (C)(2) of 55637
this section;55638

       (c) Annual measurable objectives described in division (C)(3) 55639
of this section, including a performance rating as described in 55640
divisions (D)(1)(a) to (c) of this section;55641

        (d) Growth in annual student achievement in reading and 55642
mathematics as described in division (C)(4) of this section;55643

       (e) An overall performance designation for the school 55644
calculated under rules adopted under division (D)(2) of this 55645
section.55646

       The department shall also include student outcome data, 55647
including postsecondary credit earned, nationally recognized 55648
career or technical certification, military enlistment, job 55649
placement, attendance rate, and progress on closing achievement 55650
gaps for each school. This information shall not be included in 55651
the calculation of a school's performance rating.55652

        (F) In developing the rating and report card system required 55653
by this section, during the 2012-2013 and 2013-2014 school years, 55654
the department shall gather and analyze data as determined 55655
necessary from each community school described in division 55656
(A)(4)(a) of section 3314.35 of the Revised Code. Each such school 55657
shall cooperate with the department by supplying requested data 55658
and administering required assessments, including sample 55659
assessments for purposes of measuring student achievement growth 55660
as described in division (C)(4) of this section. The department 55661
shall consult with stakeholder groups in performing its duties 55662
under this division.55663

       The department shall also identify one or more states that 55664
have established or are in the process of establishing similar 55665
academic performance rating systems for dropout prevention and 55666
recovery programs and consult with the departments of education of 55667
those states in developing the system required by this section.55668

       (G) Not later than December 31, 2014, the state board shall 55669
review the performance levels and benchmarks for performance 55670
indicators in the report card issued under this section and may 55671
revise them based on the data collected under division (F) of this 55672
section.55673

       Sec. 3314.027. Notwithstanding the requirement for initial 55674
approval of sponsorship by the department of education prescribed 55675
in divisions (A)(2) and (B)(1) of section 3314.015 of the Revised 55676
Code and any geographical restriction or mission requirement 55677
prescribed in division (C)(1) of section 3314.02 of the Revised 55678
Code, an entity that has entered into a contract to sponsor a 55679
community school on April 8, 2003, may continue to sponsor the 55680
school in conformance with the terms of that contract as long as 55681
the entity complies with all other sponsorship provisions of this 55682
chapter. Such an entityand also may enter into new contracts to 55683
sponsor community schools after April 8, 2003, and need not be 55684
approved by the department for such sponsorship, as otherwise 55685
required under divisions (A)(2) and (B)(1) of section 3314.015 of 55686
the Revised Code, as long as the contracts conform to and the 55687
entity complies with all other provisions of this chapter.55688

       Regardless of the entity's authority to sponsor community 55689
schools without the initial approval of the department, each 55690
entity described in this section is under the continuing oversight 55691
of the department in accordance with rules adopted under section 55692
3314.015 of the Revised Code.55693

       Sec. 3314.029. This section establishes the Ohio school 55694
sponsorship program. The department of education shall establish 55695
an office of Ohio school sponsorship to perform the department's 55696
duties prescribed by this section.55697

        (A)(1) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this 55698
chapter, but subject to section 3314.20 of the Revised Code, any 55699
person, group of individuals, or entity may apply to the 55700
department for direct authorization to establish a community 55701
school and, upon approval of the application, may establish the 55702
school. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this chapter, 55703
the governing authority of an existing community school, upon the 55704
expiration or termination of its contract with the school's 55705
sponsor entered into under section 3314.03 of the Revised Code, 55706
may apply to the department for direct authorization to continue 55707
operating the school and, upon approval of the application, may 55708
continue to operate the school.55709

        Each application submitted to the department shall include 55710
the following:55711

       (a) Evidence that the applicant will be able to comply with 55712
division (C) of this section;55713

       (b) A statement indicating that the applicant agrees to 55714
comply with all applicable provisions of this chapter, including 55715
the requirement to be established as a nonprofit corporation or 55716
public benefit corporation in accordance with division (A)(1) of 55717
section 3314.03 of the Revised Code;55718

       (c) A statement attesting that no unresolved finding of 55719
recovery has been issued by the auditor of state against any 55720
person, group of individuals, or entity that is a party to the 55721
application and that no person who is party to the application has 55722
been a member of the governing authority of any community school 55723
that has permanently closed and against which an unresolved 55724
finding of recovery has been issued by the auditor of state. In 55725
the case of an application submitted by the governing authority of 55726
an existing community school, a person who is party to the 55727
application shall include each individual member of that governing 55728
authority.55729

       (d) A statement that the school will be nonsectarian in its 55730
programs, admission policies, employment practices, and all other 55731
operations, and will not be operated by a sectarian school or 55732
religious institution;55733

       (e) A statement of whether the school is to be created by 55734
converting all or part of an existing public school or educational 55735
service center building or is to be a new start-up school. If it 55736
is a converted public school or service center building, the 55737
statement shall include a specification of any duties or 55738
responsibilities of an employer that the board of education or 55739
service center governing board that operated the school or 55740
building before conversion is delegating to the governing 55741
authority of the community school with respect to all or any 55742
specified group of employees, provided the delegation is not 55743
prohibited by a collective bargaining agreement applicable to such 55744
employees.55745

       (f) A statement that the school's teachers will be licensed 55746
in the manner prescribed by division (A)(10) of section 3314.03 of 55747
the Revised Code;55748

       (g) A statement that the school will comply with all of the 55749
provisions of law enumerated in divisions (A)(11)(d) and (e) of 55750
section 3314.03 of the Revised Code and of division (A)(11)(h) of 55751
that section, if applicable;55752

       (h) A statement that the school's graduation and curriculum 55753
requirements will comply with division (A)(11)(f) of section 55754
3314.03 of the Revised Code;55755

       (i) A description of each of the following:55756

       (i) The school's mission and educational program, the 55757
characteristics of the students the school is expected to attract, 55758
the ages and grade levels of students, and the focus of the 55759
curriculum;55760

       (ii) The school's governing authority, which shall be in 55761
compliance with division (E) of section 3314.02 of the Revised 55762
Code;55763

       (iii) The school's admission and dismissal policies, which 55764
shall be in compliance with divisions (A)(5) and (6) of section 55765
3314.03 of the Revised Code;55766

       (iv) The school's business plan, including a five-year 55767
financial forecast;55768

       (v) In the case of an application to establish a community 55769
school, the applicant's resources and capacity to establish and 55770
operate the school;55771

       (vi) The school's academic goals to be achieved and the 55772
method of measurement that will be used to determine progress 55773
toward those goals, which shall include the statewide achievement 55774
assessments;55775

       (vii) The facilities to be used by the school and their 55776
locations;55777

       (viii) A description of the learning opportunities that will 55778
be offered to students including both classroom-based and 55779
nonclassroom-based learning opportunities that are in compliance 55780
with criteria for student participation established by the 55781
department under division (L)(H)(2) of section 3314.08 of the 55782
Revised Code.55783

       (2) Subject to division (A)(3) of this section, the 55784
department shall approve each application, unless, within thirty 55785
days after receipt of the application, the department determines 55786
that the application does not satisfy the requirements of division 55787
(A)(1) of this section and provides the applicant a written 55788
explanation of the reasons for the determination. In that case, 55789
the department shall grant the applicant thirty days to correct 55790
the insufficiencies in the application. If the department 55791
determines that the insufficiencies have been corrected, it shall 55792
approve the application. If the department determines that the 55793
insufficiencies have not been corrected, it shall deny the 55794
application and provide the applicant with a written explanation 55795
of the reasons for the denial. The denial of an application may be 55796
appealed in accordance with section 119.12 of the Revised Code.55797

       (3) For each of five school years, beginning with the school 55798
year that begins in the calendar year in which this section takes 55799
effect, the department may approve up to twenty applications for 55800
community schools to be established or to continue operation under 55801
division (A) of this section; however, of the twenty applications 55802
that may be approved each school year, only up to five may be for 55803
the establishment of new schools.55804

       (4) Notwithstanding division (A)(2) of this section, the 55805
department may deny an application submitted by the governing 55806
authority of an existing community school, if a previous sponsor 55807
of that school did not renew its contract or terminated its 55808
contract with the school entered into under section 3314.03 of the 55809
Revised Code.55810

       (B) The department and the governing authority of each 55811
community school authorized under this section shall enter into a 55812
contract under section 3314.03 of the Revised Code. 55813
Notwithstanding division (A)(13) of that section, the contract 55814
with an existing community school may begin at any time during the 55815
academic year. The length of the initial contract of any community 55816
school under this section may be for any term up to five years. 55817
The contract may be renewed in accordance with division (E) of 55818
that section. The contract may provide for the school's governing 55819
authority to pay a fee for oversight and monitoring of the school 55820
that does not exceed three per cent of the total amount of 55821
payments for operating expenses that the school receives from the 55822
state.55823

       (C) The department may require a community school authorized 55824
under this section to post and file with the superintendent of 55825
public instruction a bond payable to the state or to file with the 55826
state superintendent a guarantee, which shall be used to pay the 55827
state any moneys owed by the community school in the event the 55828
school closes.55829

       (D) Except as otherwise provided in this section, a community 55830
school authorized under this section shall comply with all 55831
applicable provisions of this chapter. The department may take any 55832
action that a sponsor may take under this chapter to enforce the 55833
school's compliance with this division and the terms of the 55834
contract entered into under division (B) of this section.55835

       (E) Not later than December 31, 2012, and annually 55836
thereafter, the department shall issue a report on the program, 55837
including information about the number of community schools 55838
participating in the program and their compliance with the 55839
provisions of this chapter. In its fifth report, the department 55840
shall include a complete evaluation of the program and 55841
recommendations regarding the program's continuation. Each report 55842
shall be provided to the general assembly, in accordance with 55843
section 101.68 of the Revised Code, and to the governor.55844

       Sec. 3314.03.  A copy of every contract entered into under 55845
this section shall be filed with the superintendent of public 55846
instruction. The department of education shall make available on 55847
its web site a copy of every approved, executed contract filed 55848
with the superintendent under this section.55849

       (A) Each contract entered into between a sponsor and the 55850
governing authority of a community school shall specify the 55851
following:55852

       (1) That the school shall be established as either of the 55853
following:55854

       (a) A nonprofit corporation established under Chapter 1702. 55855
of the Revised Code, if established prior to April 8, 2003;55856

       (b) A public benefit corporation established under Chapter 55857
1702. of the Revised Code, if established after April 8, 2003.55858

       (2) The education program of the school, including the 55859
school's mission, the characteristics of the students the school 55860
is expected to attract, the ages and grades of students, and the 55861
focus of the curriculum;55862

       (3) The academic goals to be achieved and the method of 55863
measurement that will be used to determine progress toward those 55864
goals, which shall include the statewide achievement assessments;55865

       (4) Performance standards by which the success of the school 55866
will be evaluated by the sponsor;55867

       (5) The admission standards of section 3314.06 of the Revised 55868
Code and, if applicable, section 3314.061 of the Revised Code;55869

       (6)(a) Dismissal procedures;55870

       (b) A requirement that the governing authority adopt an 55871
attendance policy that includes a procedure for automatically 55872
withdrawing a student from the school if the student without a 55873
legitimate excuse fails to participate in one hundred five 55874
consecutive hours of the learning opportunities offered to the 55875
student.55876

       (7) The ways by which the school will achieve racial and 55877
ethnic balance reflective of the community it serves;55878

       (8) Requirements for financial audits by the auditor of 55879
state. The contract shall require financial records of the school 55880
to be maintained in the same manner as are financial records of 55881
school districts, pursuant to rules of the auditor of state. 55882
Audits shall be conducted in accordance with section 117.10 of the 55883
Revised Code.55884

       (9) The facilities to be used and their locations;55885

       (10) Qualifications of teachers, including the following:55886

       (a) A requirement that the school's classroom teachers be 55887
licensed in accordance with sections 3319.22 to 3319.31 of the 55888
Revised Code, except that a community school may engage 55889
noncertificated persons to teach up to twelve hours per week 55890
pursuant to section 3319.301 of the Revised Code;55891

       (b) A requirement that each classroom teacher initially hired 55892
by the school on or after July 1, 2013, and employed to provide 55893
instruction in physical education hold a valid license issued 55894
pursuant to section 3319.22 of the Revised Code for teaching 55895
physical education.55896

       (11) That the school will comply with the following 55897
requirements:55898

       (a) The school will provide learning opportunities to a 55899
minimum of twenty-five students for a minimum of nine hundred 55900
twenty hours per school year.55901

       (b) The governing authority will purchase liability 55902
insurance, or otherwise provide for the potential liability of the 55903
school.55904

       (c) The school will be nonsectarian in its programs, 55905
admission policies, employment practices, and all other 55906
operations, and will not be operated by a sectarian school or 55907
religious institution.55908

       (d) The school will comply with sections 9.90, 9.91, 109.65, 55909
121.22, 149.43, 2151.357, 2151.421, 2313.19, 3301.0710, 3301.0711, 55910
3301.0712, 3301.0715, 3313.472, 3313.50, 3313.536, 3313.539, 55911
3313.608, 3313.609, 3313.6012, 3313.6013, 3313.6014, 3313.6015, 55912
3313.643, 3313.648, 3313.6411, 3313.66, 3313.661, 3313.662, 55913
3313.666, 3313.667, 3313.67, 3313.671, 3313.672, 3313.673, 55914
3313.69, 3313.71, 3313.716, 3313.718, 3313.719, 3313.80, 3313.814, 55915
3313.816, 3313.817, 3313.86, 3313.96, 3319.073, 3319.321, 3319.39, 55916
3319.391, 3319.41, 3321.01, 3321.041, 3321.13, 3321.14, 3321.17, 55917
3321.18, 3321.19, 3321.191, 3327.10, 4111.17, 4113.52, and 55918
5705.391 and Chapters 117., 1347., 2744., 3365., 3742., 4112., 55919
4123., 4141., and 4167. of the Revised Code as if it were a school 55920
district and will comply with section 3301.0714 of the Revised 55921
Code in the manner specified in section 3314.17 of the Revised 55922
Code.55923

       (e) The school shall comply with Chapter 102. and section 55924
2921.42 of the Revised Code.55925

       (f) The school will comply with sections 3313.61, 3313.611, 55926
and 3313.614 of the Revised Code, except that for students who 55927
enter ninth grade for the first time before July 1, 2010, the 55928
requirement in sections 3313.61 and 3313.611 of the Revised Code 55929
that a person must successfully complete the curriculum in any 55930
high school prior to receiving a high school diploma may be met by 55931
completing the curriculum adopted by the governing authority of 55932
the community school rather than the curriculum specified in Title 55933
XXXIII of the Revised Code or any rules of the state board of 55934
education. Beginning with students who enter ninth grade for the 55935
first time on or after July 1, 2010, the requirement in sections 55936
3313.61 and 3313.611 of the Revised Code that a person must 55937
successfully complete the curriculum of a high school prior to 55938
receiving a high school diploma shall be met by completing the 55939
Ohio core curriculum prescribed in division (C) of section 55940
3313.603 of the Revised Code, unless the person qualifies under 55941
division (D) or (F) of that section. Each school shall comply with 55942
the plan for awarding high school credit based on demonstration of 55943
subject area competency, adopted by the state board of education 55944
under division (J) of section 3313.603 of the Revised Code.55945

       (g) The school governing authority will submit within four 55946
months after the end of each school year a report of its 55947
activities and progress in meeting the goals and standards of 55948
divisions (A)(3) and (4) of this section and its financial status 55949
to the sponsor and the parents of all students enrolled in the 55950
school.55951

       (h) The school, unless it is an internet- or computer-based 55952
community school, will comply with section 3313.801 of the Revised 55953
Code as if it were a school district.55954

       (i) If the school is the recipient of moneys from a grant 55955
awarded under the federal race to the top program, Division (A), 55956
Title XIV, Sections 14005 and 14006 of the "American Recovery and 55957
Reinvestment Act of 2009," Pub. L. No. 111-5, 123 Stat. 115, the 55958
school will pay teachers based upon performance in accordance with 55959
section 3317.141 and will comply with section 3319.111 of the 55960
Revised Code as if it were a school district.55961

       (12) Arrangements for providing health and other benefits to 55962
employees;55963

       (13) The length of the contract, which shall begin at the 55964
beginning of an academic year. No contract shall exceed five years 55965
unless such contract has been renewed pursuant to division (E) of 55966
this section.55967

       (14) The governing authority of the school, which shall be 55968
responsible for carrying out the provisions of the contract;55969

       (15) A financial plan detailing an estimated school budget 55970
for each year of the period of the contract and specifying the 55971
total estimated per pupil expenditure amount for each such year. 55972
The plan shall specify for each year the base formula amount that 55973
will be used for purposes of funding calculations under section 55974
3314.08 of the Revised Code. This base formula amount for any year 55975
shall not exceed the formula amount defined under section 3317.02 55976
of the Revised Code. The plan may also specify for any year a 55977
percentage figure to be used for reducing the per pupil amount of 55978
the subsidy calculated pursuant to section 3317.029 of the Revised 55979
Code the school is to receive that year under section 3314.08 of 55980
the Revised Code. 55981

       (16) Requirements and procedures regarding the disposition of 55982
employees of the school in the event the contract is terminated or 55983
not renewed pursuant to section 3314.07 of the Revised Code;55984

       (17) Whether the school is to be created by converting all or 55985
part of an existing public school or educational service center 55986
building or is to be a new start-up school, and if it is a 55987
converted public school or service center building, specification 55988
of any duties or responsibilities of an employer that the board of 55989
education or service center governing board that operated the 55990
school or building before conversion is delegating to the 55991
governing authority of the community school with respect to all or 55992
any specified group of employees provided the delegation is not 55993
prohibited by a collective bargaining agreement applicable to such 55994
employees;55995

       (18) Provisions establishing procedures for resolving 55996
disputes or differences of opinion between the sponsor and the 55997
governing authority of the community school;55998

       (19) A provision requiring the governing authority to adopt a 55999
policy regarding the admission of students who reside outside the 56000
district in which the school is located. That policy shall comply 56001
with the admissions procedures specified in sections 3314.06 and 56002
3314.061 of the Revised Code and, at the sole discretion of the 56003
authority, shall do one of the following:56004

       (a) Prohibit the enrollment of students who reside outside 56005
the district in which the school is located;56006

       (b) Permit the enrollment of students who reside in districts 56007
adjacent to the district in which the school is located;56008

       (c) Permit the enrollment of students who reside in any other 56009
district in the state.56010

       (20) A provision recognizing the authority of the department 56011
of education to take over the sponsorship of the school in 56012
accordance with the provisions of division (C) of section 3314.015 56013
of the Revised Code;56014

       (21) A provision recognizing the sponsor's authority to 56015
assume the operation of a school under the conditions specified in 56016
division (B) of section 3314.073 of the Revised Code;56017

        (22) A provision recognizing both of the following:56018

       (a) The authority of public health and safety officials to 56019
inspect the facilities of the school and to order the facilities 56020
closed if those officials find that the facilities are not in 56021
compliance with health and safety laws and regulations;56022

       (b) The authority of the department of education as the 56023
community school oversight body to suspend the operation of the 56024
school under section 3314.072 of the Revised Code if the 56025
department has evidence of conditions or violations of law at the 56026
school that pose an imminent danger to the health and safety of 56027
the school's students and employees and the sponsor refuses to 56028
take such action.56029

        (23) A description of the learning opportunities that will be 56030
offered to students including both classroom-based and 56031
non-classroom-based learning opportunities that is in compliance 56032
with criteria for student participation established by the 56033
department under division (L)(H)(2) of section 3314.08 of the 56034
Revised Code;56035

       (24) The school will comply with sections 3302.04 and 56036
3302.041 of the Revised Code, except that any action required to 56037
be taken by a school district pursuant to those sections shall be 56038
taken by the sponsor of the school. However, the sponsor shall not 56039
be required to take any action described in division (F) of 56040
section 3302.04 of the Revised Code.56041

       (25) Beginning in the 2006-2007 school year, the school will 56042
open for operation not later than the thirtieth day of September 56043
each school year, unless the mission of the school as specified 56044
under division (A)(2) of this section is solely to serve dropouts. 56045
In its initial year of operation, if the school fails to open by 56046
the thirtieth day of September, or within one year after the 56047
adoption of the contract pursuant to division (D) of section 56048
3314.02 of the Revised Code if the mission of the school is solely 56049
to serve dropouts, the contract shall be void.56050

       (B) The community school shall also submit to the sponsor a 56051
comprehensive plan for the school. The plan shall specify the 56052
following:56053

       (1) The process by which the governing authority of the 56054
school will be selected in the future;56055

       (2) The management and administration of the school;56056

       (3) If the community school is a currently existing public 56057
school or educational service center building, alternative 56058
arrangements for current public school students who choose not to 56059
attend the converted school and for teachers who choose not to 56060
teach in the school or building after conversion;56061

       (4) The instructional program and educational philosophy of 56062
the school;56063

       (5) Internal financial controls.56064

       (C) A contract entered into under section 3314.02 of the 56065
Revised Code between a sponsor and the governing authority of a 56066
community school may provide for the community school governing 56067
authority to make payments to the sponsor, which is hereby 56068
authorized to receive such payments as set forth in the contract 56069
between the governing authority and the sponsor. The total amount 56070
of such payments for oversight and monitoring of the school shall 56071
not exceed three per cent of the total amount of payments for 56072
operating expenses that the school receives from the state.56073

       (D) The contract shall specify the duties of the sponsor 56074
which shall be in accordance with the written agreement entered 56075
into with the department of education under division (B) of 56076
section 3314.015 of the Revised Code and shall include the 56077
following:56078

        (1) Monitor the community school's compliance with all laws 56079
applicable to the school and with the terms of the contract;56080

        (2) Monitor and evaluate the academic and fiscal performance 56081
and the organization and operation of the community school on at 56082
least an annual basis;56083

        (3) Report on an annual basis the results of the evaluation 56084
conducted under division (D)(2) of this section to the department 56085
of education and to the parents of students enrolled in the 56086
community school;56087

        (4) Provide technical assistance to the community school in 56088
complying with laws applicable to the school and terms of the 56089
contract;56090

        (5) Take steps to intervene in the school's operation to 56091
correct problems in the school's overall performance, declare the 56092
school to be on probationary status pursuant to section 3314.073 56093
of the Revised Code, suspend the operation of the school pursuant 56094
to section 3314.072 of the Revised Code, or terminate the contract 56095
of the school pursuant to section 3314.07 of the Revised Code as 56096
determined necessary by the sponsor;56097

        (6) Have in place a plan of action to be undertaken in the 56098
event the community school experiences financial difficulties or 56099
closes prior to the end of a school year.56100

        (E) Upon the expiration of a contract entered into under this 56101
section, the sponsor of a community school may, with the approval 56102
of the governing authority of the school, renew that contract for 56103
a period of time determined by the sponsor, but not ending earlier 56104
than the end of any school year, if the sponsor finds that the 56105
school's compliance with applicable laws and terms of the contract 56106
and the school's progress in meeting the academic goals prescribed 56107
in the contract have been satisfactory. Any contract that is 56108
renewed under this division remains subject to the provisions of 56109
sections 3314.07, 3314.072, and 3314.073 of the Revised Code.56110

       (F) If a community school fails to open for operation within 56111
one year after the contract entered into under this section is 56112
adopted pursuant to division (D) of section 3314.02 of the Revised 56113
Code or permanently closes prior to the expiration of the 56114
contract, the contract shall be void and the school shall not 56115
enter into a contract with any other sponsor. A school shall not 56116
be considered permanently closed because the operations of the 56117
school have been suspended pursuant to section 3314.072 of the 56118
Revised Code. 56119

       Sec. 3314.042.  The governing authority of each community 56120
school shall comply with the standards for financial reporting 56121
adopted under division (B)(2) of section 3301.07 of the Revised 56122
Code.56123

       Sec. 3314.05.  (A) The contract between the community school 56124
and the sponsor shall specify the facilities to be used for the 56125
community school and the method of acquisition. Except as provided 56126
in divisions (B)(3) and (4) of this section, no community school 56127
shall be established in more than one school district under the 56128
same contract.56129

        (B) Division (B) of this section shall not apply to internet- 56130
or computer-based community schools.56131

       (1) A community school may be located in multiple facilities 56132
under the same contract only if the limitations on availability of 56133
space prohibit serving all the grade levels specified in the 56134
contract in a single facility or division (B)(2), (3), or (4) of 56135
this section applies to the school. The school shall not offer the 56136
same grade level classrooms in more than one facility.56137

       (2) A community school may be located in multiple facilities 56138
under the same contract and, notwithstanding division (B)(1) of 56139
this section, may assign students in the same grade level to 56140
multiple facilities, as long as all of the following apply:56141

       (a) The governing authority of the community school filed a 56142
copy of its contract with the school's sponsor under section 56143
3314.03 of the Revised Code with the superintendent of public 56144
instruction on or before May 15, 2008.56145

       (b) The school was not open for operation prior to July 1, 56146
2008.56147

       (c) The governing authority has entered into and maintains a 56148
contract with an operator of the type described in division 56149
(A)(8)(b) of section 3314.02 of the Revised Code.56150

       (d)(b) The contract with that operator qualified the school 56151
to be established pursuant to division (A) of former section 56152
3314.016 of the Revised Code.56153

       (e)(c) The school's rating under section 3302.03 of the 56154
Revised Code does not fall below a combination of any of the 56155
following for two or more consecutive years:56156

       (i) A rating of "in need of continuous improvement" under 56157
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code, as that section existed prior 56158
to the effective date of this sectionMarch 22, 2013;56159

       (ii) For the 2012-2013 and 2013-2014 school years, a rating 56160
of "C" for both the performance index score under division 56161
(A)(1)(b) or (B)(1)(b) and the value-added dimension under 56162
division (A)(1)(e) or (B)(1)(e) of section 3302.03 of the Revised 56163
Code; or if the building serves only grades ten through twelve, 56164
the building received a grade of "C" for the performance index 56165
score under division (A)(1)(b) or (B)(1)(b) of section 3302.03 of 56166
the Revised Code;56167

       (iii) For the 2014-2015 school year and for any school year 56168
thereafter, an overall grade of "C" under division (C)(3) of 56169
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code or an overall performance 56170
designation of "meets standards" under division (E)(3)(e) of 56171
section 3314.017 of the Revised Code.56172

       (3) A new start-up community school may be established in two 56173
school districts under the same contract if all of the following 56174
apply:56175

       (a) At least one of the school districts in which the school 56176
is established is a challenged school district;56177

       (b) The school operates not more than one facility in each 56178
school district and, in accordance with division (B)(1) of this 56179
section, the school does not offer the same grade level classrooms 56180
in both facilities; and56181

       (c) Transportation between the two facilities does not 56182
require more than thirty minutes of direct travel time as measured 56183
by school bus.56184

       In the case of a community school to which division (B)(3) of 56185
this section applies, if only one of the school districts in which 56186
the school is established is a challenged school district, that 56187
district shall be considered the school's primary location and the 56188
district in which the school is located for the purposes of 56189
division (A)(19) of section 3314.03 and divisions (C) and (H) of 56190
section 3314.06 of the Revised Code and for all other purposes of 56191
this chapter. If both of the school districts in which the school 56192
is established are challenged school districts, the school's 56193
governing authority shall designate one of those districts to be 56194
considered the school's primary location and the district in which 56195
the school is located for the purposes of those divisions and all 56196
other purposes of this chapter and shall notify the department of 56197
education of that designation.56198

       (4) A community school may be located in multiple facilities 56199
under the same contract and, notwithstanding division (B)(1) of 56200
this section, may assign students in the same grade level to 56201
multiple facilities, as long as both of the following apply:56202

       (a) The facilities are all located in the same county.56203

       (b) Either of the following conditions are satisfied:56204

        (i) The community school is sponsored by a board of education 56205
of a city, local, or exempted village school district having 56206
territory in the same county where the facilities of the community 56207
school are located;56208

        (ii) The community school is managed by an operator.56209

       In the case of a community school to which division (B)(4) of 56210
this section applies and that maintains facilities in more than 56211
one school district, the school's governing authority shall 56212
designate one of those districts to be considered the school's 56213
primary location and the district in which the school is located 56214
for the purposes of division (A)(19) of section 3314.03 and 56215
divisions (C) and (H) of section 3314.06 of the Revised Code and 56216
for all other purposes of this chapter and shall notify the 56217
department of that designation.56218

       (5) Any facility used for a community school shall meet all 56219
health and safety standards established by law for school 56220
buildings.56221

       (C) In the case where a community school is proposed to be 56222
located in a facility owned by a school district or educational 56223
service center, the facility may not be used for such community 56224
school unless the district or service center board owning the 56225
facility enters into an agreement for the community school to 56226
utilize the facility. Use of the facility may be under any terms 56227
and conditions agreed to by the district or service center board 56228
and the school.56229

       (D) Two or more separate community schools may be located in 56230
the same facility.56231

       (E) In the case of a community school that is located in 56232
multiple facilities, beginning July 1, 2012, the department shall 56233
assign a unique identification number to the school and to each 56234
facility maintained by the school. Each number shall be used for 56235
identification purposes only. Nothing in this division shall be 56236
construed to require the department to calculate the amount of 56237
funds paid under this chapter, or to compute any data required for 56238
the report cards issued under section 3314.012 of the Revised 56239
Code, for each facility separately. The department shall make all 56240
such calculations or computations for the school as a whole.56241

       Sec. 3314.06.  The governing authority of each community 56242
school established under this chapter shall adopt admission 56243
procedures that specify the following:56244

       (A) That, except as otherwise provided in this section, 56245
admission to the school shall be open to any individual age five 56246
to twenty-two entitled to attend school pursuant to section 56247
3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code in a school district in the 56248
state.56249

       Additionally, except as otherwise provided in this section, 56250
admission to the school may be open on a tuition basis to any 56251
individual age five to twenty-two who is not a resident of this 56252
state. The school shall not receive state funds under section 56253
3314.08 of the Revised Code for any student who is not a resident 56254
of this state.56255

       An individual younger than five years of age may be admitted 56256
to the school in accordance with division (A)(2) of section 56257
3321.01 of the Revised Code.56258

       (B)(1) That admission to the school may be limited to 56259
students who have attained a specific grade level or are within a 56260
specific age group; to students that meet a definition of 56261
"at-risk," as defined in the contract; to residents of a specific 56262
geographic area within the district, as defined in the contract; 56263
or to separate groups of autistic students and nondisabled 56264
students, as authorized in section 3314.061 of the Revised Code 56265
and as defined in the contract.56266

       (2) For purposes of division (B)(1) of this section, 56267
"at-risk" students may include those students identified as gifted 56268
students under section 3324.03 of the Revised Code.56269

       (C) Whether enrollment is limited to students who reside in 56270
the district in which the school is located or is open to 56271
residents of other districts, as provided in the policy adopted 56272
pursuant to the contract.56273

       (D)(1) That there will be no discrimination in the admission 56274
of students to the school on the basis of race, creed, color, 56275
disability, or sex except that:56276

       (a) The governing authority may do either of the following 56277
for the purpose described in division (G) of this section:56278

       (i) Establish a single-gender school for either sex;56279

       (ii) Establish single-gender schools for each sex under the 56280
same contract, provided substantially equal facilities and 56281
learning opportunities are offered for both boys and girls. Such 56282
facilities and opportunities may be offered for each sex at 56283
separate locations.56284

       (b) The governing authority may establish a school that 56285
simultaneously serves a group of students identified as autistic 56286
and a group of students who are not disabled, as authorized in 56287
section 3314.061 of the Revised Code. However, unless the total 56288
capacity established for the school has been filled, no student 56289
with any disability shall be denied admission on the basis of that 56290
disability.56291

       (2) That upon admission of any student with a disability, the 56292
community school will comply with all federal and state laws 56293
regarding the education of students with disabilities.56294

       (E) That the school may not limit admission to students on 56295
the basis of intellectual ability, measures of achievement or 56296
aptitude, or athletic ability, except that a school may limit its 56297
enrollment to students as described in division (B) of this 56298
section.56299

       (F) That the community school will admit the number of 56300
students that does not exceed the capacity of the school's 56301
programs, classes, grade levels, or facilities.56302

       (G) That the purpose of single-gender schools that are 56303
established shall be to take advantage of the academic benefits 56304
some students realize from single-gender instruction and 56305
facilities and to offer students and parents residing in the 56306
district the option of a single-gender education.56307

       (H) That, except as otherwise provided under division (B) of 56308
this section or section 3314.061 of the Revised Code, if the 56309
number of applicants exceeds the capacity restrictions of division 56310
(F) of this section, students shall be admitted by lot from all 56311
those submitting applications, except preference shall be given to 56312
students attending the school the previous year and to students 56313
who reside in the district in which the school is located. 56314
Preference may be given to siblings of students attending the 56315
school the previous year.56316

       Notwithstanding divisions (A) to (H) of this section, in the 56317
event the racial composition of the enrollment of the community 56318
school is violative of a federal desegregation order, the 56319
community school shall take any and all corrective measures to 56320
comply with the desegregation order.56321

       Sec. 3314.072. The provisions of this section are enacted to 56322
promote the public health, safety, and welfare by establishing 56323
procedures under which the governing authorities of community 56324
schools established under this chapter will be held accountable 56325
for their compliance with the terms of the contracts they enter 56326
into with their school's sponsors and the law relating to the 56327
school's operation. Suspension of the operation of a school 56328
imposed under this section is intended to encourage the governing 56329
authority's compliance with the terms of the school's contract and 56330
the law and is not intended to be an alteration of the terms of 56331
that contract.56332

       (A) If a sponsor of a community school established under this 56333
chapter suspends the operation of that school pursuant to 56334
procedures set forth in this section, the governing authority 56335
shall not operate that school while the suspension is in effect. 56336
Any such suspension shall remain in effect until the sponsor 56337
notifies the governing authority that it is no longer in effect. 56338
The contract of a school of which operation is suspended under 56339
this section also may be subject to termination or nonrenewal 56340
under section 3314.07 of the Revised Code.56341

       (B) If at any time conditions at the school do not comply 56342
with a health and safety standard established by law for school 56343
buildings, the sponsor shall immediately suspend the operation of 56344
the school pursuant to procedures set forth in division (D) of 56345
this section. If the sponsor fails to take action to suspend the 56346
operation of a school to which this division applies, the 56347
department of education may take such action.56348

       (C)(1) For any of the reasons prescribed in division 56349
(B)(1)(a) to (d) of section 3314.07 of the Revised Code, the 56350
sponsor of a community school established under this chapter may 56351
suspend the operation of the school only if it first issues to the 56352
governing authority notice of the sponsor's intent to suspend the 56353
operation of the contract. Such notice shall explain the reasons 56354
for the sponsor's intent to suspend operation of the contract and 56355
shall provide the school's governing authority with five business 56356
days to submit to the sponsor a proposal to remedy the conditions 56357
cited as reasons for the suspension.56358

       (2) The sponsor shall promptly review any proposed remedy 56359
timely submitted by the governing authority and either approve or 56360
disapprove the remedy. If the sponsor disapproves the remedy 56361
proposed by the governing authority, if the governing authority 56362
fails to submit a proposed remedy in the manner prescribed by the 56363
sponsor, or if the governing authority fails to implement the 56364
remedy as approved by the sponsor, the sponsor may suspend 56365
operation of the school pursuant to procedures set forth in 56366
division (D) of this section.56367

       (D)(1) If division (B) of this section applies or if the 56368
sponsor of a community school established under this chapter 56369
decides to suspend the operation of a school as permitted in 56370
division (C)(2) of this section, the sponsor shall promptly send 56371
written notice to the governing authority stating that the 56372
operation of the school is immediately suspended, and explaining 56373
the specific reasons for the suspension. The notice shall state 56374
that the governing authority has five business days to submit a 56375
proposed remedy to the conditions cited as reasons for the 56376
suspension or face potential contract termination.56377

       (2) Upon receipt of the notice of suspension prescribed under 56378
division (D)(1) of this section, the governing authority shall 56379
immediately notify the employees of the school and the parents of 56380
the students enrolled in the school of the suspension and the 56381
reasons therefore, and shall cease all school operations on the 56382
next business day.56383

       (E)(1) Beginning with the 2013-2014 school year, if the 56384
sponsor of a community school suspends the operation of that 56385
school pursuant to procedures set forth in this section, the 56386
school's contract with the sponsor under section 3314.03 of the 56387
Revised Code shall become void, if the governing authority of the 56388
school fails to provide a proposal to remedy the conditions cited 56389
by the sponsor as reasons for the suspension, to the satisfaction 56390
of the sponsor, by the thirtieth day of September of the school 56391
year immediately following the school year in which the operation 56392
of school was suspended.56393

       (2) If, prior to the effective date of this amendment, the 56394
sponsor of a community school has suspended the operation of the 56395
school, the contract with the sponsor under section 3314.03 of the 56396
Revised Code shall become void if the governing authority of the 56397
school fails to provide by September 30, 2014, a proposal to 56398
remedy the conditions cited by the sponsor as reasons for the 56399
suspension, to the satisfaction of the sponsor.56400

       Sec. 3314.074. Divisions (A) and (B) of this section apply 56401
only to the extent permitted under Chapter 1702. of the Revised 56402
Code.56403

       (A) If any community school established under this chapter 56404
permanently closes and ceases its operation as a community school, 56405
the assets of that school shall be distributed first to the 56406
retirement funds of employees of the school, employees of the 56407
school, and private creditors who are owed compensation, and then 56408
any remaining funds shall be paid to the department of education 56409
for redistribution to the school districts in which the students 56410
who were enrolled in the school at the time it ceased operation 56411
were entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of 56412
the Revised Code. The amount distributed to each school district 56413
shall be proportional to the district's share of the total 56414
enrollment in the community school.56415

       (B) If a community school closes and ceases to operate as a 56416
community school and the school has received computer hardware or 56417
software from the former Ohio SchoolNet commission or the former56418
eTech Ohio commission, such hardware or software shall be returned56419
turned over to the eTech Ohio commissiondepartment of education, 56420
and the eTech Ohio commissionwhich shall redistribute the 56421
hardware and software, to the extent such redistribution is 56422
possible, to school districts in conformance with the provisions 56423
of the programs as they were operated and administered by the 56424
former eTech Ohio commission.56425

       (C) If the assets of the school are insufficient to pay all 56426
persons or entities to whom compensation is owed, the 56427
prioritization of the distribution of the assets to individual 56428
persons or entities within each class of payees may be determined 56429
by decree of a court in accordance with this section and Chapter 56430
1702. of the Revised Code.56431

       Sec. 3314.08. The deductions under division (C) and the 56432
payments under division (D) of this section for fiscal years 2012 56433
and 2013 shall be made in accordance with section 3314.088 of the 56434
Revised Code.56435

       (A) As used in this section:56436

       (1) "Base formula amount" means the amount specified as such 56437
in a community school's financial plan for a school year pursuant 56438
to division (A)(15) of section 3314.03 of the Revised Code.56439

       (2) "IEP" has the same meaning as in section 3323.01 of the 56440
Revised Code.56441

       (3) "Applicable special education weight" means the multiple 56442
specified in section 3317.013 of the Revised Code for a disability 56443
described in that section.56444

       (4) "Applicable vocational education weight" means:56445

       (a) For a student enrolled in vocational education programs 56446
or classes described in division (A) of section 3317.014 of the 56447
Revised Code, the multiple specified in that division;56448

       (b) For a student enrolled in vocational education programs 56449
or classes described in division (B) of section 3317.014 of the 56450
Revised Code, the multiple specified in that division.56451

       (5) "Entitled to attend school" means entitled to attend 56452
school in a district under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the 56453
Revised Code.56454

       (6) A community school student is "included in the poverty 56455
student count" of a school district if the student is entitled to 56456
attend school in the district and the student's family receives 56457
assistance under the Ohio works first program.56458

       (7) "Poverty-based assistance reduction factor" means the 56459
percentage figure, if any, for reducing the per pupil amount of 56460
poverty-based assistance a community school is entitled to receive 56461
pursuant to divisions (D)(5) to (9) of this section in any year, 56462
as specified in the school's financial plan for the year pursuant 56463
to division (A)(15) of section 3314.03 of the Revised Code.56464

       (8) "All-day kindergarten" has the same meaning as in section 56465
3321.05 of the Revised Code.56466

        (9)(a) "Category one career-technical education student" 56467
means a student who is receiving the career-technical education 56468
services described in division (A) of section 3317.014 of the 56469
Revised Code.56470

       (b) "Category two career-technical student" means a student 56471
who is receiving the career-technical education services described 56472
in division (B) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.56473

       (c) "Category three career-technical student" means a student 56474
who is receiving the career-technical education services described 56475
in division (C) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.56476

       (d) "Category four career-technical student" means a student 56477
who is receiving the career-technical education services described 56478
in division (D) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.56479

       (e) "Category five career-technical education student" means 56480
a student who is receiving the career-technical education services 56481
described in division (E) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.56482

       (2)(a) "Category one limited English proficient student" 56483
means a limited English proficient student described in division 56484
(A) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code.56485

       (b) "Category two limited English proficient student" means a 56486
limited English proficient student described in division (B) of 56487
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code.56488

       (c) "Category three limited English proficient student" means 56489
a limited English proficient student described in division (C) of 56490
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code.56491

       (3)(a) "Category one special education student" means a 56492
student who is receiving special education services for a 56493
disability specified in division (A) of section 3317.013 of the 56494
Revised Code.56495

       (b) "Category two special education student" means a student 56496
who is receiving special education services for a disability 56497
specified in division (B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.56498

       (c) "Category three special education student" means a 56499
student who is receiving special education services for a 56500
disability specified in division (C) of section 3317.013 of the 56501
Revised Code.56502

       (d) "Category four special education student" means a student 56503
who is receiving special education services for a disability 56504
specified in division (D) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.56505

       (e) "Category five special education student" means a student 56506
who is receiving special education services for a disability 56507
specified in division (E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.56508

       (f) "Category six special education student" means a student 56509
who is receiving special education services for a disability 56510
specified in division (F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.56511

       (4) "Formula amount" has the same meaning as in section 56512
3317.02 of the Revised Code.56513

       (5) "IEP" has the same meaning as in section 3323.01 of the 56514
Revised Code.56515

       (6) "Resident district" means the school district in which a 56516
student is entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 56517
3313.65 of the Revised Code.56518

       (7) "State education aid" has the same meaning as in section 56519
5751.20 of the Revised Code.56520

       (B) The state board of education shall adopt rules requiring 56521
both of the following:56522

       (1) The board of education of each city, exempted village, 56523
and local school district to annually report the number of 56524
students entitled to attend school in the district who are 56525
enrolled in grades oneeach grade kindergarten through twelve in a 56526
community school established under this chapter, the number of 56527
students entitled to attend school in the district who are 56528
enrolled in kindergarten in a community school, the number of 56529
those kindergartners who are enrolled in all-day kindergarten in 56530
their community school, and for each child, the community school 56531
in which the child is enrolled.56532

       (2) The governing authority of each community school 56533
established under this chapter to annually report all of the 56534
following:56535

       (a) The number of students enrolled in grades one through 56536
twelve and the full-time equivalent number of students enrolled in 56537
kindergarten in the school who are not receiving special education 56538
and related services pursuant to an IEP;56539

       (b) The number of enrolled students in grades one through 56540
twelve and the full-time equivalent number of enrolled students in 56541
kindergarten, who are receiving special education and related 56542
services pursuant to an IEP;56543

       (c) The number of students reported under division (B)(2)(b) 56544
of this section receiving special education and related services 56545
pursuant to an IEP for a disability described in each of divisions 56546
(A) to (F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;56547

       (d) The full-time equivalent number of students reported 56548
under divisions (B)(2)(a) and (b) of this section who are enrolled 56549
in vocationalcareer-technical education programs or classes 56550
described in each of divisions (A) and (B)to (E) of section 56551
3317.014 of the Revised Code that are provided by the community 56552
school;56553

       (e) Twenty per cent of the number of students reported under 56554
divisions (B)(2)(a) and (b) of this section who are not reported 56555
under division (B)(2)(d) of this section but who are enrolled in 56556
vocationalcareer-technical education programs or classes 56557
described in each of divisions (A) and (B)to (E) of section 56558
3317.014 of the Revised Code at a joint vocational school district 56559
under a contract between the community school and the joint 56560
vocational school district and are entitled to attend school in a 56561
city, local, or exempted village school district whose territory 56562
is part of the territory of the joint vocational school district56563
or another district in the career-technical planning district to 56564
which the school is assigned;56565

       (f) The number of enrolled preschool children with 56566
disabilities receiving special education services in a 56567
state-funded unit;56568

       (g) The community school's base formula amount;56569

       (h)The number of students reported under divisions (B)(2)(a) 56570
and (b) of this section who are category one to three limited 56571
English proficient students described in each of divisions (A) to 56572
(C) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code;56573

       (g) The number of students reported under divisions (B)(2)(a) 56574
and (b) who are economically disadvantaged, as defined by the 56575
department. A student shall not be categorically excluded from the 56576
number reported under division (B)(2)(g) of this section based on 56577
anything other than family income.56578

       (h) For each student, the city, exempted village, or local 56579
school district in which the student is entitled to attend school;56580

       (i) Any poverty-based assistance reduction factor that 56581
applies to a school yearunder section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the 56582
Revised Code.56583

       A school district board and a community school governing 56584
authority shall include in their respective reports under division 56585
(B) of this section any child admitted in accordance with division 56586
(A)(2) of section 3321.01 of the Revised Code.56587

       A governing authority of a community school shall not include 56588
in its report under division (B)(2) of this section any student 56589
for whom tuition is charged under division (F) of this section.56590

       (C) From the state education aid calculated for a city, 56591
exempted village, or local school district and, if necessary, from 56592
the payment made to the district under sections 321.24 and 323.156 56593
of the Revised Code, the department of education shall annually 56594
subtract the sum of the amounts described in divisions (C)(1) to 56595
(9) of this section. However, when deducting payments on behalf of 56596
students enrolled in internet- or computer-based community 56597
schools, the department shall deduct only those amounts described 56598
in divisions (C)(1) and (2) of this section. Furthermore, the 56599
aggregate amount deducted under this division shall not exceed the 56600
sum of the district's state education aid and its payment under 56601
sections 321.24 and 323.156 of the Revised Code.56602

       (1) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 56603
for each community school where the district's students are 56604
enrolled, the number of the district's students reported under 56605
divisions (B)(2)(a), (b), and (e) of this section who are enrolled 56606
in grades one through twelve, and one-half the number of students 56607
reported under those divisions who are enrolled in kindergarten, 56608
in that community school is multiplied by the sum of the base 56609
formula amount of that community school plus the per pupil amount 56610
of the base funding supplements specified in divisions (C)(1) to 56611
(4) of section 3317.012 of the Revised Code.56612

       (2) The sum of the amounts calculated under divisions 56613
(C)(2)(a) and (b) of this section:56614

       (a) For each of the district's students reported under 56615
division (B)(2)(c) of this section as enrolled in a community 56616
school in grades one through twelve and receiving special 56617
education and related services pursuant to an IEP for a disability 56618
described in section 3317.013 of the Revised Code, the product of 56619
the applicable special education weight times the community 56620
school's base formula amount;56621

       (b) For each of the district's students reported under 56622
division (B)(2)(c) of this section as enrolled in kindergarten in 56623
a community school and receiving special education and related 56624
services pursuant to an IEP for a disability described in section 56625
3317.013 of the Revised Code, one-half of the amount calculated as 56626
prescribed in division (C)(2)(a) of this section.56627

       (3) For each of the district's students reported under 56628
division (B)(2)(d) of this section for whom payment is made under 56629
division (D)(4) of this section, the amount of that payment;56630

       (4) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 56631
for each community school where the district's students are 56632
enrolled, the number of the district's students enrolled in that 56633
community school who are included in the district's poverty 56634
student count is multiplied by the per pupil amount of 56635
poverty-based assistance the school district receives that year 56636
pursuant to division (C) of section 3317.029 of the Revised Code, 56637
as adjusted by any poverty-based assistance reduction factor of 56638
that community school. The per pupil amount of that aid for the 56639
district shall be calculated by the department.56640

       (5) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 56641
for each community school where the district's students are 56642
enrolled, the district's per pupil amount of aid received under 56643
division (E) of section 3317.029 of the Revised Code, as adjusted 56644
by any poverty-based assistance reduction factor of the community 56645
school, is multiplied by the sum of the following:56646

       (a) The number of the district's students reported under 56647
division (B)(2)(a) of this section who are enrolled in grades one 56648
to three in that community school and who are not receiving 56649
special education and related services pursuant to an IEP;56650

       (b) One-half of the district's students who are enrolled in 56651
all-day or any other kindergarten class in that community school 56652
and who are not receiving special education and related services 56653
pursuant to an IEP;56654

       (c) One-half of the district's students who are enrolled in 56655
all-day kindergarten in that community school and who are not 56656
receiving special education and related services pursuant to an 56657
IEP.56658

       The district's per pupil amount of aid under division (E) of 56659
section 3317.029 of the Revised Code is the quotient of the amount 56660
the district received under that division divided by the 56661
district's kindergarten through third grade ADM, as defined in 56662
that section.56663

       (6) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 56664
for each community school where the district's students are 56665
enrolled, the district's per pupil amount received under division 56666
(F) of section 3317.029 of the Revised Code, as adjusted by any 56667
poverty-based assistance reduction factor of that community 56668
school, is multiplied by the number of the district's students 56669
enrolled in the community school who are identified as 56670
limited-English proficient.56671

       (7) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 56672
for each community school where the district's students are 56673
enrolled, the district's per pupil amount received under division 56674
(G) of section 3317.029 of the Revised Code, as adjusted by any 56675
poverty-based assistance reduction factor of that community 56676
school, is multiplied by the sum of the following:56677

       (a) The number of the district's students enrolled in grades 56678
one through twelve in that community school;56679

       (b) One-half of the number of the district's students 56680
enrolled in kindergarten in that community school.56681

       The district's per pupil amount under division (G) of section 56682
3317.029 of the Revised Code is the district's amount per teacher 56683
calculated under division (G)(1) or (2) of that section divided by 56684
17.56685

       (8) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 56686
for each community school where the district's students are 56687
enrolled, the district's per pupil amount received under divisions 56688
(H) and (I) of section 3317.029 of the Revised Code, as adjusted 56689
by any poverty-based assistance reduction factor of that community 56690
school, is multiplied by the sum of the following:56691

       (a) The number of the district's students enrolled in grades 56692
one through twelve in that community school;56693

       (b) One-half of the number of the district's students 56694
enrolled in kindergarten in that community school.56695

       The district's per pupil amount under divisions (H) and (I) 56696
of section 3317.029 of the Revised Code is the amount calculated 56697
under each division divided by the district's formula ADM, as 56698
defined in section 3317.02 of the Revised Code.56699

       (9) An amount equal to the per pupil state parity aid funding 56700
calculated for the school district under either division (C) or 56701
(D) of section 3317.0217 of the Revised Code multiplied by the sum 56702
of the number of students in grades one through twelve, and 56703
one-half of the number of students in kindergarten, who are 56704
entitled to attend school in the district and are enrolled in a 56705
community school as reported under division (B)(1) of this 56706
section.56707

       (D) The department shall annually pay to a community school 56708
established under this chapter the sum of the amounts described in 56709
divisions (D)(1) to (10) of this section. However, the department 56710
shall calculate and pay to each internet- or computer-based 56711
community school only the amounts described in divisions (D)(1) to 56712
(3) of this section. Furthermore, the sum of the payments to all 56713
community schools under divisions (D)(1), (2), and (4) to (10) of 56714
this section for the students entitled to attend school in any 56715
particular school district shall not exceed the sum of that 56716
district's state education aid and its payment under sections 56717
321.24 and 323.156 of the Revised Code. If the sum of the payments 56718
calculated under those divisions for the students entitled to 56719
attend school in a particular school district exceeds the sum of 56720
that district's state education aid and its payment under sections 56721
321.24 and 323.156 of the Revised Code, the department shall 56722
calculate and apply a proration factor to the payments to all 56723
community schools under those divisions for the students entitled 56724
to attend school in that district.56725

       (1) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when 56726
the number of students enrolled in grades one through twelve, plus 56727
one-half of the kindergarten students in the school, reported 56728
under divisions (B)(2)(a), (b), and (e) of this section who are 56729
not receiving special education and related services pursuant to 56730
an IEP for a disability described in section 3317.013 of the 56731
Revised Code is multiplied by the sum of the community school's 56732
base formula amount plus the per pupil amount of the base funding 56733
supplements specified in divisions (C)(1) to (4) of section 56734
3317.012 of the Revised Code.56735

       (2) The sum of the following amounts:56736

       (a) For each student reported under division (B)(2)(c) of 56737
this section as enrolled in the school in grades one through 56738
twelve and receiving special education and related services 56739
pursuant to an IEP for a disability described in section 3317.013 56740
of the Revised Code, the following amount:56741

(the school's base formula amount plus
56742

the per pupil amount of the base funding supplements specified in
56743

divisions (C)(1) to (4) of section 3317.012 of the Revised Code)
56744

+ (the applicable special education weight X the
56745

community school's base formula amount);
56746

       (b) For each student reported under division (B)(2)(c) of 56747
this section as enrolled in kindergarten and receiving special 56748
education and related services pursuant to an IEP for a disability 56749
described in section 3317.013 of the Revised Code, one-half of the 56750
amount calculated under the formula prescribed in division 56751
(D)(2)(a) of this section.56752

       (3) An amount received from federal funds to provide special 56753
education and related services to students in the community 56754
school, as determined by the superintendent of public instruction.56755

       (4) For each student reported under division (B)(2)(d) of 56756
this section as enrolled in vocational education programs or 56757
classes that are described in section 3317.014 of the Revised 56758
Code, are provided by the community school, and are comparable as 56759
determined by the superintendent of public instruction to school 56760
district vocational education programs and classes eligible for 56761
state weighted funding under section 3317.014 of the Revised Code, 56762
an amount equal to the applicable vocational education weight 56763
times the community school's base formula amount times the 56764
percentage of time the student spends in the vocational education 56765
programs or classes.56766

       (5) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 56767
for each school district where the community school's students are 56768
entitled to attend school, the number of that district's students 56769
enrolled in the community school who are included in the 56770
district's poverty student count is multiplied by the per pupil 56771
amount of poverty-based assistance that school district receives 56772
that year pursuant to division (C) of section 3317.029 of the 56773
Revised Code, as adjusted by any poverty-based assistance 56774
reduction factor of the community school. The per pupil amount of 56775
aid shall be determined as described in division (C)(4) of this 56776
section.56777

       (6) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 56778
for each school district where the community school's students are 56779
entitled to attend school, the district's per pupil amount of aid 56780
received under division (E) of section 3317.029 of the Revised 56781
Code, as adjusted by any poverty-based assistance reduction factor 56782
of the community school, is multiplied by the sum of the 56783
following:56784

       (a) The number of the district's students reported under 56785
division (B)(2)(a) of this section who are enrolled in grades one 56786
to three in that community school and who are not receiving 56787
special education and related services pursuant to an IEP;56788

       (b) One-half of the district's students who are enrolled in 56789
all-day or any other kindergarten class in that community school 56790
and who are not receiving special education and related services 56791
pursuant to an IEP;56792

       (c) One-half of the district's students who are enrolled in 56793
all-day kindergarten in that community school and who are not 56794
receiving special education and related services pursuant to an 56795
IEP.56796

       The district's per pupil amount of aid under division (E) of 56797
section 3317.029 of the Revised Code shall be determined as 56798
described in division (C)(5) of this section.56799

       (7) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 56800
for each school district where the community school's students are 56801
entitled to attend school, the number of that district's students 56802
enrolled in the community school who are identified as 56803
limited-English proficient is multiplied by the district's per 56804
pupil amount received under division (F) of section 3317.029 of 56805
the Revised Code, as adjusted by any poverty-based assistance 56806
reduction factor of the community school.56807

       (8) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 56808
for each school district where the community school's students are 56809
entitled to attend school, the district's per pupil amount 56810
received under division (G) of section 3317.029 of the Revised 56811
Code, as adjusted by any poverty-based assistance reduction factor 56812
of the community school, is multiplied by the sum of the 56813
following:56814

       (a) The number of the district's students enrolled in grades 56815
one through twelve in that community school;56816

       (b) One-half of the number of the district's students 56817
enrolled in kindergarten in that community school.56818

       The district's per pupil amount under division (G) of section 56819
3317.029 of the Revised Code shall be determined as described in 56820
division (C)(7) of this section.56821

       (9) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 56822
for each school district where the community school's students are 56823
entitled to attend school, the district's per pupil amount 56824
received under divisions (H) and (I) of section 3317.029 of the 56825
Revised Code, as adjusted by any poverty-based assistance 56826
reduction factor of the community school, is multiplied by the sum 56827
of the following:56828

       (a) The number of the district's students enrolled in grades 56829
one through twelve in that community school;56830

       (b) One-half of the number of the district's students 56831
enrolled in kindergarten in that community school.56832

       The district's per pupil amount under divisions (H) and (I) 56833
of section 3317.029 of the Revised Code shall be determined as 56834
described in division (C)(8) of this section.56835

       (10) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 56836
for each school district where the community school's students are 56837
entitled to attend school, the district's per pupil amount of 56838
state parity aid funding calculated under either division (C) or 56839
(D) of section 3317.0217 of the Revised Code is multiplied by the 56840
sum of the number of that district's students enrolled in grades 56841
one through twelve, and one-half of the number of that district's 56842
students enrolled in kindergarten, in the community school as 56843
reported under divisions (B)(2)(a) and (b) of this section.56844

       (E)(1) If a community school's costs for a fiscal year for a 56845
student receiving special education and related services pursuant 56846
to an IEP for a disability described in divisions (B) to (F) of 56847
section 3317.013 of the Revised Code exceed the threshold 56848
catastrophic cost for serving the student as specified in division 56849
(C)(3)(b) of section 3317.022 of the Revised Code, the school may 56850
submit to the superintendent of public instruction documentation, 56851
as prescribed by the superintendent, of all its costs for that 56852
student. Upon submission of documentation for a student of the 56853
type and in the manner prescribed, the department shall pay to the 56854
community school an amount equal to the school's costs for the 56855
student in excess of the threshold catastrophic costs.56856

       (2) The community school shall only report under division 56857
(E)(1) of this section, and the department shall only pay for, the 56858
costs of educational expenses and the related services provided to 56859
the student in accordance with the student's individualized 56860
education program. Any legal fees, court costs, or other costs 56861
associated with any cause of action relating to the student may 56862
not be included in the amount.56863

       (F) A community school may apply to the department of 56864
education for preschool children with disabilities unit funding 56865
the school would receive if it were a school district. Upon 56866
request of its governing authority, a community school that 56867
received such unit funding as a school district-operated school 56868
before it became a community school shall retain any units awarded 56869
to it as a school district-operated school provided the school 56870
continues to meet eligibility standards for the unit.56871

       A community school shall be considered a school district and 56872
its governing authority shall be considered a board of education 56873
for the purpose of applying to any state or federal agency for 56874
grants that a school district may receive under federal or state 56875
law or any appropriations act of the general assembly. The 56876
governing authority of a community school may apply to any private 56877
entity for additional funds.56878

       (G)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section, 56879
and subject to divisions (C)(3), (4), (5), (6), and (7) of this 56880
section, on a full-time equivalency basis, for each student 56881
enrolled in a community school established under this chapter, the 56882
department of education annually shall deduct from the state 56883
education aid of a student's resident district and, if necessary, 56884
from the payment made to the district under sections 321.24 and 56885
323.156 of the Revised Code and pay to the community school the 56886
sum of the following:56887

       (a) An opportunity grant in an amount equal to the formula 56888
amount;56889

       (b) The per pupil amount of targeted assistance funds 56890
calculated under division (A) of section 3317.0217 of the Revised 56891
Code for the student's resident district, as determined by the 56892
department, X 0.25;56893

       (c) Additional state aid for special education and related 56894
services provided under Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code as 56895
follows:56896

       (i) If the student is a category one special education 56897
student, the amount specified in division (A) of section 3317.013 56898
of the Revised Code;56899

       (ii) If the student is a category two special education 56900
student, the amount specified in division (B) of section 3317.013 56901
of the Revised Code;56902

       (iii) If the student is a category three special education 56903
student, the amount specified in division (C) of section 3317.013 56904
of the Revised Code;56905

       (iv) If the student is a category four special education 56906
student, the amount specified in division (D) of section 3317.013 56907
of the Revised Code;56908

       (v) If the student is a category five special education 56909
student, the amount specified in division (E) of section 3317.013 56910
of the Revised Code;56911

       (vi) If the student is a category six special education 56912
student, the amount specified in division (F) of section 3317.013 56913
of the Revised Code.56914

       (d) If the student is in kindergarten through third grade, an 56915
additional amount of $225, in fiscal year 2014, and $335, in 56916
fiscal year 2015;56917

       (e) If the student is economically disadvantaged, an 56918
additional amount equal to the following:56919

       ($250, in fiscal year 2014, or $253, in fiscal year 2015) X 56920
(the resident district's economically disadvantaged index)56921

       (f) Limited English proficiency funds as follows:56922

       (i) If the student is a category one limited English 56923
proficient student, the amount specified in division (A) of 56924
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code;56925

       (ii) If the student is a category two limited English 56926
proficient student, the amount specified in division (B) of 56927
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code;56928

       (iii) If the student is a category three limited English 56929
proficient student, the amount specified in division (C) of 56930
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code.56931

       (g) Career-technical education funds as follows:56932

       (i) If the student is a category one career-technical 56933
education student, the amount specified in division (A) of section 56934
3317.014 of the Revised Code;56935

       (ii) If the student is a category two career-technical 56936
education student, the amount specified in division (B) of section 56937
3317.014 of the Revised Code;56938

       (iii) If the student is a category three career-technical 56939
education student, the amount specified in division (C) of section 56940
3317.014 of the Revised Code;56941

       (iv) If the student is a category four career-technical 56942
education student, the amount specified in division (D) of section 56943
3317.014 of the Revised Code;56944

       (v) If the student is a category five career-technical 56945
education student, the amount specified in division (E) of section 56946
3317.014 of the Revised Code.56947

       Deduction and payment of funds under division (C)(1)(g) of 56948
this section is subject to approval by the lead district of a 56949
career-technical planning district or the department of education 56950
under section 3317.161 of the Revised Code.56951

       (2) When deducting from the state education aid of a 56952
student's resident district for students enrolled in an internet- 56953
or computer-based community school and making payments to such 56954
school under this section, the department shall make the 56955
deductions and payments described in only divisions (C)(1)(a), 56956
(c), and (g) of this section.56957

       No deductions or payments shall be made for a student 56958
enrolled in such school under division (C)(1)(b), (d), (e), or (f) 56959
of this section.56960

       (3)(a) If a community school's costs for a fiscal year for a 56961
student receiving special education and related services pursuant 56962
to an IEP for a disability described in divisions (B) to (F) of 56963
section 3317.013 of the Revised Code exceed the threshold 56964
catastrophic cost for serving the student as specified in division 56965
(B) of section 3317.0214 of the Revised Code, the school may 56966
submit to the superintendent of public instruction documentation, 56967
as prescribed by the superintendent, of all its costs for that 56968
student. Upon submission of documentation for a student of the 56969
type and in the manner prescribed, the department shall pay to the 56970
community school an amount equal to the school's costs for the 56971
student in excess of the threshold catastrophic costs.56972

       (b) The community school shall report under division 56973
(C)(3)(a) of this section, and the department shall pay for, only 56974
the costs of educational expenses and the related services 56975
provided to the student in accordance with the student's 56976
individualized education program. Any legal fees, court costs, or 56977
other costs associated with any cause of action relating to the 56978
student may not be included in the amount.56979

       (4) In any fiscal year, a community school receiving funds 56980
under division (C)(1)(g) of this section shall spend those funds 56981
only for the purposes that the department designates as approved 56982
for career-technical education expenses. Career-technical 56983
educational expenses approved by the department shall include only 56984
expenses connected to the delivery of career-technical programming 56985
to career-technical students. The department shall require the 56986
school to report data annually so that the department may monitor 56987
the school's compliance with the requirements regarding the manner 56988
in which funding received under division (C)(1)(g) of this section 56989
may be spent.56990

       (5) All funds received under division (C)(1)(g) of this 56991
section shall be spent in the following manner:56992

       (a) At least seventy-five per cent of the funds shall be 56993
spent on curriculum development, purchase, and implementation; 56994
instructional resources and supplies; industry-based program 56995
certification; student assessment, credentialing, and placement; 56996
curriculum specific equipment purchases and leases; 56997
career-technical student organization fees and expenses; home and 56998
agency linkages; work-based learning experiences; professional 56999
development; and other costs directly associated with 57000
career-technical education programs including development of new 57001
programs.57002

       (b) Not more than twenty-five per cent of the funds shall be 57003
used for personnel expenditures.57004

       (6) A community school shall spend the funds it receives 57005
under division (C)(1)(e) of this section in accordance with 57006
section 3317.25 of the Revised Code. 57007

       (7) If the sum of the payments computed under division (C)(1) 57008
of this section for the students entitled to attend school in a 57009
particular school district under sections 3313.64 and 3313.65 of 57010
the Revised Code exceeds the sum of that district's state 57011
education aid and its payment under sections 321.24 and 323.156 of 57012
the Revised Code, the department shall calculate and apply a 57013
proration factor to the payments to all community schools under 57014
that division for the students entitled to attend school in that 57015
district.57016

       (D) A board of education sponsoring a community school may 57017
utilize local funds to make enhancement grants to the school or 57018
may agree, either as part of the contract or separately, to 57019
provide any specific services to the community school at no cost 57020
to the school.57021

       (H)(E) A community school may not levy taxes or issue bonds 57022
secured by tax revenues.57023

       (I)(F) No community school shall charge tuition for the 57024
enrollment of any student who is a resident of this state. A 57025
community school may charge tuition for the enrollment of any 57026
student who is not a resident of this state.57027

       (J)(G)(1)(a) A community school may borrow money to pay any 57028
necessary and actual expenses of the school in anticipation of the 57029
receipt of any portion of the payments to be received by the 57030
school pursuant to division (D)(C) of this section. The school may 57031
issue notes to evidence such borrowing. The proceeds of the notes 57032
shall be used only for the purposes for which the anticipated 57033
receipts may be lawfully expended by the school.57034

       (b) A school may also borrow money for a term not to exceed 57035
fifteen years for the purpose of acquiring facilities.57036

       (2) Except for any amount guaranteed under section 3318.50 of 57037
the Revised Code, the state is not liable for debt incurred by the 57038
governing authority of a community school.57039

       (K) For purposes of determining the number of students for 57040
which divisions (D)(5) and (6) of this section applies in any 57041
school year, a community school may submit to the department of 57042
job and family services, no later than the first day of March, a 57043
list of the students enrolled in the school. For each student on 57044
the list, the community school shall indicate the student's name, 57045
address, and date of birth and the school district where the 57046
student is entitled to attend school. Upon receipt of a list under 57047
this division, the department of job and family services shall 57048
determine, for each school district where one or more students on 57049
the list is entitled to attend school, the number of students 57050
residing in that school district who were included in the 57051
department's report under section 3317.10 of the Revised Code. The 57052
department shall make this determination on the basis of 57053
information readily available to it. Upon making this 57054
determination and no later than ninety days after submission of 57055
the list by the community school, the department shall report to 57056
the state department of education the number of students on the 57057
list who reside in each school district who were included in the 57058
department's report under section 3317.10 of the Revised Code. In 57059
complying with this division, the department of job and family 57060
services shall not report to the state department of education any 57061
personally identifiable information on any student.57062

       (L)(H) The department of education shall adjust the amounts 57063
subtracted and paid under divisionsdivision (C) and (D) of this 57064
section to reflect any enrollment of students in community schools 57065
for less than the equivalent of a full school year. The state 57066
board of education within ninety days after April 8, 2003, shall 57067
adopt in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code rules 57068
governing the payments to community schools under this section and 57069
section 3314.13 of the Revised Code including initial payments in 57070
a school year and adjustments and reductions made in subsequent 57071
periodic payments to community schools and corresponding 57072
deductions from school district accounts as provided under 57073
divisionsdivision (C) and (D) of this section and section 3314.13 57074
of the Revised Code. For purposes of this section and section 57075
3314.13 of the Revised Code:57076

       (1) A student shall be considered enrolled in the community 57077
school for any portion of the school year the student is 57078
participating at a college under Chapter 3365. of the Revised 57079
Code.57080

       (2) A student shall be considered to be enrolled in a 57081
community school for the period of time beginning on the later of 57082
the date on which the school both has received documentation of 57083
the student's enrollment from a parent and the student has 57084
commenced participation in learning opportunities as defined in 57085
the contract with the sponsor, or thirty days prior to the date on 57086
which the student is entered into the education management 57087
information system established under section 3301.0714 of the 57088
Revised Code. For purposes of applying this division and divisions 57089
(L)(H)(3) and (4) of this section to a community school student, 57090
"learning opportunities" shall be defined in the contract, which 57091
shall describe both classroom-based and non-classroom-based 57092
learning opportunities and shall be in compliance with criteria 57093
and documentation requirements for student participation which 57094
shall be established by the department. Any student's instruction 57095
time in non-classroom-based learning opportunities shall be 57096
certified by an employee of the community school. A student's 57097
enrollment shall be considered to cease on the date on which any 57098
of the following occur:57099

        (a) The community school receives documentation from a parent 57100
terminating enrollment of the student.57101

        (b) The community school is provided documentation of a 57102
student's enrollment in another public or private school.57103

        (c) The community school ceases to offer learning 57104
opportunities to the student pursuant to the terms of the contract 57105
with the sponsor or the operation of any provision of this 57106
chapter.57107

       Except as otherwise specified in this paragraph, beginning in 57108
the 2011-2012 school year, any student who completed the prior 57109
school year in an internet- or computer-based community school 57110
shall be considered to be enrolled in the same school in the 57111
subsequent school year until the student's enrollment has ceased 57112
as specified in division (L)(H)(2) of this section. The department 57113
shall continue subtracting and paying amounts for the student 57114
under divisionsdivision (C) and (D) of this section without 57115
interruption at the start of the subsequent school year. However, 57116
if the student without a legitimate excuse fails to participate in 57117
the first one hundred five consecutive hours of learning 57118
opportunities offered to the student in that subsequent school 57119
year, the student shall be considered not to have re-enrolled in 57120
the school for that school year and the department shall 57121
recalculate the payments to the school for that school year to 57122
account for the fact that the student is not enrolled.57123

        (3) The department shall determine each community school 57124
student's percentage of full-time equivalency based on the 57125
percentage of learning opportunities offered by the community 57126
school to that student, reported either as number of hours or 57127
number of days, is of the total learning opportunities offered by 57128
the community school to a student who attends for the school's 57129
entire school year. However, no internet- or computer-based 57130
community school shall be credited for any time a student spends 57131
participating in learning opportunities beyond ten hours within 57132
any period of twenty-four consecutive hours. Whether it reports 57133
hours or days of learning opportunities, each community school 57134
shall offer not less than nine hundred twenty hours of learning 57135
opportunities during the school year.57136

       (4) With respect to the calculation of full-time equivalency 57137
under division (L)(H)(3) of this section, the department shall 57138
waive the number of hours or days of learning opportunities not 57139
offered to a student because the community school was closed 57140
during the school year due to disease epidemic, hazardous weather 57141
conditions, law enforcement emergencies, inoperability of school 57142
buses or other equipment necessary to the school's operation, 57143
damage to a school building, or other temporary circumstances due 57144
to utility failure rendering the school building unfit for school 57145
use, so long as the school was actually open for instruction with 57146
students in attendance during that school year for not less than 57147
the minimum number of hours required by this chapter. The 57148
department shall treat the school as if it were open for 57149
instruction with students in attendance during the hours or days 57150
waived under this division.57151

       (M)(I) The department of education shall reduce the amounts 57152
paid under division (D) of this section to reflect payments made 57153
to colleges under division (B) of section 3365.07 of the Revised 57154
Code or through alternative funding agreements entered into under 57155
rules adopted under section 3365.12 of the Revised Code.57156

       (N)(J)(1) No student shall be considered enrolled in any 57157
internet- or computer-based community school or, if applicable to 57158
the student, in any community school that is required to provide 57159
the student with a computer pursuant to division (C) of section 57160
3314.22 of the Revised Code, unless both of the following 57161
conditions are satisfied:57162

       (a) The student possesses or has been provided with all 57163
required hardware and software materials and all such materials 57164
are operational so that the student is capable of fully 57165
participating in the learning opportunities specified in the 57166
contract between the school and the school's sponsor as required 57167
by division (A)(23) of section 3314.03 of the Revised Code;57168

       (b) The school is in compliance with division (A) of section 57169
3314.22 of the Revised Code, relative to such student.57170

       (2) In accordance with policies adopted jointly by the 57171
superintendent of public instruction and the auditor of state, the 57172
department shall reduce the amounts otherwise payable under 57173
division (D)(C) of this section to any community school that 57174
includes in its program the provision of computer hardware and 57175
software materials to any student, if such hardware and software 57176
materials have not been delivered, installed, and activated for 57177
each such student in a timely manner or other educational 57178
materials or services have not been provided according to the 57179
contract between the individual community school and its sponsor.57180

       The superintendent of public instruction and the auditor of 57181
state shall jointly establish a method for auditing any community 57182
school to which this division pertains to ensure compliance with 57183
this section.57184

       The superintendent, auditor of state, and the governor shall 57185
jointly make recommendations to the general assembly for 57186
legislative changes that may be required to assure fiscal and 57187
academic accountability for such schools.57188

       (O)(K)(1) If the department determines that a review of a 57189
community school's enrollment is necessary, such review shall be 57190
completed and written notice of the findings shall be provided to 57191
the governing authority of the community school and its sponsor 57192
within ninety days of the end of the community school's fiscal 57193
year, unless extended for a period not to exceed thirty additional 57194
days for one of the following reasons:57195

        (a) The department and the community school mutually agree to 57196
the extension.57197

        (b) Delays in data submission caused by either a community 57198
school or its sponsor.57199

       (2) If the review results in a finding that additional 57200
funding is owed to the school, such payment shall be made within 57201
thirty days of the written notice. If the review results in a 57202
finding that the community school owes moneys to the state, the 57203
following procedure shall apply:57204

       (a) Within ten business days of the receipt of the notice of 57205
findings, the community school may appeal the department's 57206
determination to the state board of education or its designee.57207

        (b) The board or its designee shall conduct an informal 57208
hearing on the matter within thirty days of receipt of such an 57209
appeal and shall issue a decision within fifteen days of the 57210
conclusion of the hearing.57211

        (c) If the board has enlisted a designee to conduct the 57212
hearing, the designee shall certify its decision to the board. The 57213
board may accept the decision of the designee or may reject the 57214
decision of the designee and issue its own decision on the matter.57215

        (d) Any decision made by the board under this division is 57216
final.57217

        (3) If it is decided that the community school owes moneys to 57218
the state, the department shall deduct such amount from the 57219
school's future payments in accordance with guidelines issued by 57220
the superintendent of public instruction.57221

       (P)(L) The department shall not subtract from a school 57222
district's state aid account under division (C) of this section57223
and shall not pay to a community school under division (D)(C) of 57224
this section any amount for any of the following:57225

        (1) Any student who has graduated from the twelfth grade of a 57226
public or nonpublic high school;57227

        (2) Any student who is not a resident of the state;57228

        (3) Any student who was enrolled in the community school 57229
during the previous school year when assessments were administered 57230
under section 3301.0711 of the Revised Code but did not take one 57231
or more of the assessments required by that section and was not 57232
excused pursuant to division (C)(1) or (3) of that section, unless 57233
the superintendent of public instruction grants the student a 57234
waiver from the requirement to take the assessment and a parent is 57235
not paying tuition for the student pursuant to section 3314.26 of 57236
the Revised Code. The superintendent may grant a waiver only for 57237
good cause in accordance with rules adopted by the state board of 57238
education.57239

       (4) Any student who has attained the age of twenty-two years, 57240
except for veterans of the armed services whose attendance was 57241
interrupted before completing the recognized twelve-year course of 57242
the public schools by reason of induction or enlistment in the 57243
armed forces and who apply for enrollment in a community school 57244
not later than four years after termination of war or their 57245
honorable discharge. If, however, any such veteran elects to 57246
enroll in special courses organized for veterans for whom tuition 57247
is paid under federal law, or otherwise, the department shall not 57248
subtract from a school district's state aid account under division 57249
(C) of this section and shall not pay to a community school under 57250
division (D)(C) of this section any amount for that veteran.57251

       Sec. 3314.082.  A community school shall be considered a 57252
school district and its governing authority shall be considered a 57253
board of education for the purpose of applying to any state or 57254
federal agency for grants that a school district may receive under 57255
federal or state law or any appropriations act of the general 57256
assembly. The governing authority of a community school may apply 57257
to any private entity for additional funds.57258

       Sec. 3314.083. If the department of education pays a joint 57259
vocational school district under division (G)(4)(C)(3) of section 57260
3317.16 of the Revised Code for excess costs of providing special 57261
education and related services to a student with a disability who 57262
is enrolled in a community school, as calculated under division 57263
(G)(2)(C)(1) of that section, the department shall deduct the 57264
amount of that payment from the amount calculated for payment to 57265
the community school under section 3314.08 of the Revised Code.57266

       Sec. 3314.084.  (A) As used in this section:57267

       (1) "Formula ADM" has the same meaning as in section 3317.03 57268
of the Revised Code.57269

       (2) "Home" has the same meaning as in section 3313.64 of the 57270
Revised Code.57271

       (3) "School district of residence" has the same meaning as in 57272
section 3323.01 of the Revised Code; however, a community school 57273
established under this chapter is not a "school district of 57274
residence" for purposes of this section.57275

       (B) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in section 57276
3314.08 or 3317.03 of the Revised Code, all of the following apply 57277
in the case of a child who is enrolled in a community school and 57278
is also living in a home:57279

       (1) For purposes of the report required under division (B)(1) 57280
of section 3314.08 of the Revised Code, the child's school 57281
district of residence, and not the school district in which the 57282
home that the child is living in is located, shall be considered 57283
to be the school district in which the child is entitled to attend 57284
school. That school district of residence, therefore, shall make 57285
the report required under division (B)(1) of section 3314.08 of 57286
the Revised Code with respect to the child.57287

       (2) For purposes of the report required under division (B)(2) 57288
of section 3314.08 of the Revised Code, the community school shall 57289
report the name of the child's school district of residence.57290

       (3) The child's school district of residence shall count the 57291
child in that district's formula ADM.57292

       (4) The school district in which the home that the child is 57293
living in is located shall not count the child in that district's 57294
formula ADM.57295

       (5) The Departmentdepartment of Educationeducation shall 57296
deduct the applicable amounts prescribed under division (C) of 57297
section 3314.08 and division (D) of section 3314.13 of the Revised 57298
Code from the child's school district of residence and shall not 57299
deduct those amounts from the school district in which the home 57300
that the child is living in is located.57301

       (6) The Departmentdepartment shall make the payments 57302
prescribed in divisions (D) and (E)division (C) of section 57303
3314.08 and section 3314.13 of the Revised Code, as applicable, to 57304
the community school.57305

       Sec. 3314.086. A community school established under this 57306
chapter, including an internet- or computer-based community 57307
school, may provide career-technical education in the manner 57308
prescribed by section 3313.90 of the Revised Code. The community 57309
school may contract with any public agency, board, or bureau or 57310
with any private individual or firm for the purchase of any 57311
career-technical education or vocational rehabilitation service 57312
for any student enrolled in the community school and may pay for 57313
such services with funds received under section 3314.08 of the 57314
Revised Code.57315

       Sec. 3314.087.  (A) As used in this section:57316

        (1) "Career-technical program" means vocational57317
career-technical programs or classes described in division (A) or,57318
(B), (C), (D), or (E) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code in 57319
which a student is enrolled.57320

        (2) "Formula ADM," "category one or two vocationalthrough 57321
five career-technical education ADM," and "FTE basis" have the 57322
same meanings as in section 3317.02 of the Revised Code.57323

        (3) "Resident school district" means the city, exempted 57324
village, or local school district in which a student is entitled 57325
to attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised 57326
Code.57327

        (B) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this chapter 57328
or Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code, a student enrolled in a 57329
community school may simultaneously enroll in the career-technical 57330
program operated by the student's resident school district57331
career-technical planning district to which the student's resident 57332
district belongs. On an FTE basis, the student's resident school 57333
district shall count the student in the category one or two 57334
vocationalthrough five career-technical education ADM for the 57335
proportion of the time the student is enrolled in the district'sa57336
career-technical program of the career-technical planning district 57337
to which the student's resident district belongs and, accordingly, 57338
the department of education shall calculate funds under Chapter 57339
3317. for the resident district attributable to the student for 57340
the proportion of time the student attends the career-technical 57341
program. The community school shall count the student in its 57342
enrollment report under section 3314.08 of the Revised Code and 57343
shall report to the department the proportion of time that the 57344
student attends classes at the community school. The department 57345
shall pay the community school and deduct from the student's 57346
resident school district the amount computed for the student under 57347
section 3314.08 of the Revised Code in proportion to the fraction 57348
of the time on an FTE basis that the student attends classes at 57349
the community school. "Full-time equivalency" for a community 57350
school student, as defined in division (L)(H) of section 3314.08 57351
of the Revised Code, does not apply to the student.57352

       Sec. 3314.091.  (A) A school district is not required to 57353
provide transportation for any native student enrolled in a 57354
community school if the district board of education has entered 57355
into an agreement with the community school's governing authority 57356
that designates the community school as responsible for providing 57357
or arranging for the transportation of the district's native 57358
students to and from the community school. For any such agreement 57359
to be effective, it must be certified by the superintendent of 57360
public instruction as having met all of the following 57361
requirements:57362

       (1) It is submitted to the department of education by a 57363
deadline which shall be established by the department.57364

       (2) In accordance with divisions (C)(1) and (2) of this 57365
section, it specifies qualifications, such as residing a minimum 57366
distance from the school, for students to have their 57367
transportation provided or arranged.57368

       (3) The transportation provided by the community school is 57369
subject to all provisions of the Revised Code and all rules 57370
adopted under the Revised Code pertaining to pupil transportation.57371

        (4) The sponsor of the community school also has signed the 57372
agreement.57373

       (B)(1) For the school year that begins on July 1, 2007, a 57374
school district is not required to provide transportation for any 57375
native student enrolled in a community school, if the community 57376
school during the previous school year transported the students 57377
enrolled in the school or arranged for the students' 57378
transportation, even if that arrangement consisted of having 57379
parents transport their children to and from the school, but did 57380
not enter into an agreement to transport or arrange for 57381
transportation for those students under division (A) of this 57382
section, and if the governing authority of the community school by 57383
July 15, 2007, submits written notification to the district board 57384
of education stating that the governing authority is accepting 57385
responsibility for providing or arranging for the transportation 57386
of the district's native students to and from the community 57387
school. 57388

       (2) ForExcept as provided in division (B)(4) of this 57389
section, for any school year subsequent to the school year that 57390
begins on July 1, 2007, a school district is not required to 57391
provide transportation for any native student enrolled in a 57392
community school if the governing authority of the community 57393
school, by the thirty-first day of January of the previous school 57394
year, submits written notification to the district board of 57395
education stating that the governing authority is accepting 57396
responsibility for providing or arranging for the transportation 57397
of the district's native students to and from the community 57398
school. If the governing authority of the community school has 57399
previously accepted responsibility for providing or arranging for 57400
the transportation of a district's native students to and from the 57401
community school, under division (B)(1) or (2) of this section, 57402
and has since relinquished that responsibility under division 57403
(B)(3) of this section, the governing authority shall not accept 57404
that responsibility again unless the district board consents to 57405
the governing authority's acceptance of that responsibility.57406

       (3) A governing authority's acceptance of responsibility 57407
under division (B)(1) or (2) of this section shall cover an entire 57408
school year, and shall remain in effect for subsequent school 57409
years unless the governing authority submits written notification 57410
to the district board that the governing authority is 57411
relinquishing the responsibility. However, a governing authority 57412
shall not relinquish responsibility for transportation before the 57413
end of a school year, and shall submit the notice relinquishing 57414
responsibility by the thirty-first day of January, in order to 57415
allow the school district reasonable time to prepare 57416
transportation for its native students enrolled in the school. 57417

       (4)(a) For any school year that begins on or after July 1, 57418
2014, a school district is not required to provide transportation 57419
for any native student enrolled in a community school scheduled to 57420
open for operation in the current school year, if the governing 57421
authority of the community school, by the fifteenth day of April 57422
of the previous school year, submits written notification to the 57423
district board of education stating that the governing authority 57424
is accepting responsibility for providing or arranging for the 57425
transportation of the district's native students to and from the 57426
community school.57427

        (b) The governing authority of a community school that 57428
accepts responsibility for transporting its students under 57429
division (4)(a) of this section shall comply with divisions (B)(2) 57430
and (3) of this section to renew or relinquish that authority for 57431
subsequent school years. 57432

        (C)(1) A community school governing authority that enters 57433
into an agreement under division (A) of this section, or that 57434
accepts responsibility under division (B) of this section, shall 57435
provide or arrange transportation free of any charge for each of 57436
its enrolled students who is required to be transported under 57437
section 3327.01 of the Revised Code or who would otherwise be 57438
transported by the school district under the district's 57439
transportation policy. The governing authority shall report to the 57440
department of education the number of students transported or for 57441
whom transportation is arranged under this section in accordance 57442
with rules adopted by the state board of education.57443

       (2) The governing authority may provide or arrange 57444
transportation for any other enrolled student who is not eligible 57445
for transportation in accordance with division (C)(1) of this 57446
section and may charge a fee for such service up to the actual 57447
cost of the service.57448

       (3) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in division 57449
(C)(1) or (2) of this section, a community school governing 57450
authority shall provide or arrange transportation free of any 57451
charge for any disabled student enrolled in the school for whom 57452
the student's individualized education program developed under 57453
Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code specifies transportation.57454

       (D)(1) If a school district board and a community school 57455
governing authority elect to enter into an agreement under 57456
division (A) of this section, the department of education shall 57457
make payments to the community school according to the terms of 57458
the agreement for each student actually transported under division 57459
(C)(1) of this section.57460

        If a community school governing authority accepts 57461
transportation responsibility under division (B) of this section, 57462
the department shall make payments to the community school for 57463
each student actually transported or for whom transportation is 57464
arranged by the community school under division (C)(1) of this 57465
section, calculated as follows:57466

       (a) For any fiscal year which the general assembly has 57467
specified that transportation payments to school districts be 57468
based on an across-the-board percentage of the district's payment 57469
for the previous school year, the per pupil payment to the 57470
community school shall be the following quotient:57471

       (i) The total amount calculated for the school district in 57472
which the child is entitled to attend school for student 57473
transportation other than transportation of children with 57474
disabilities; divided by57475

       (ii) The number of students included in the district's 57476
transportation ADM for the current fiscal year, as reported under 57477
division (B)(13)(19) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, plus 57478
the number of students enrolled in the community school not 57479
counted in the district's transportation ADM who are transported 57480
under division (B)(1) or (2) of this section.57481

       (b) For any fiscal year which the general assembly has 57482
specified that the transportation payments to school districts be 57483
calculated in accordance with section 3317.0212 of the Revised 57484
Code and any rules of the state board of education implementing 57485
that section, the payment to the community school shall be the 57486
amount so calculated that otherwise would be paid to the school 57487
district in which the student is entitled to attend school by the 57488
method of transportation the district would have used. The 57489
community school, however, is not required to use the same method 57490
to transport that student.57491

       (c) Divisions (D)(1)(a) and (b) of this section do not apply 57492
to fiscal years 2012 and 2013. Rather, for each of those fiscal 57493
years, the per pupil payment to a community school for 57494
transporting a student shall be the total amount paid under former 57495
section 3306.12 of the Revised Code for fiscal year 2011 to the 57496
school district in which the child is entitled to attend school 57497
divided by that district's "qualifying ridership," as defined in 57498
that section for fiscal year 2011.57499

       As used in this division "entitled to attend school" means 57500
entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the 57501
Revised Code. 57502

        (2) The department shall deduct the payment under division 57503
(D)(1) of this section from the state education aid, as defined in 57504
section 3314.08 of the Revised Code, and, if necessary, the 57505
payment under sections 321.14 and 323.156 of the Revised Code, 57506
that is otherwise paid to the school district in which the student 57507
enrolled in the community school is entitled to attend school. The 57508
department shall include the number of the district's native 57509
students for whom payment is made to a community school under 57510
division (D)(1) of this section in the calculation of the 57511
district's transportation payment under section 3317.0212 of the 57512
Revised Code and the operating appropriations act.57513

       (3) A community school shall be paid under division (D)(1) of 57514
this section only for students who are eligible as specified in 57515
section 3327.01 of the Revised Code and division (C)(1) of this 57516
section, and whose transportation to and from school is actually 57517
provided, who actually utilized transportation arranged, or for 57518
whom a payment in lieu of transportation is made by the community 57519
school's governing authority. To qualify for the payments, the 57520
community school shall report to the department, in the form and 57521
manner required by the department, data on the number of students 57522
transported or whose transportation is arranged, the number of 57523
miles traveled, cost to transport, and any other information 57524
requested by the department.57525

       (4) A community school shall use payments received under this 57526
section solely to pay the costs of providing or arranging for the 57527
transportation of students who are eligible as specified in 57528
section 3327.01 of the Revised Code and division (C)(1) of this 57529
section, which may include payments to a parent, guardian, or 57530
other person in charge of a child in lieu of transportation.57531

       (E) Except when arranged through payment to a parent, 57532
guardian, or person in charge of a child, transportation provided 57533
or arranged for by a community school pursuant to an agreement 57534
under this section is subject to all provisions of the Revised 57535
Code, and all rules adopted under the Revised Code, pertaining to 57536
the construction, design, equipment, and operation of school buses 57537
and other vehicles transporting students to and from school. The 57538
drivers and mechanics of the vehicles are subject to all 57539
provisions of the Revised Code, and all rules adopted under the 57540
Revised Code, pertaining to drivers and mechanics of such 57541
vehicles. The community school also shall comply with sections 57542
3313.201, 3327.09, and 3327.10 of the Revised Code, division (B) 57543
of section 3327.16 of the Revised Code and, subject to division 57544
(C)(1) of this section, sections 3327.01 and 3327.02 of the 57545
Revised Code, as if it were a school district. 57546

       Sec. 3314.092. The governing authority or operator of a 57547
community school established under this chapter shall consult with 57548
each school district board of education that transports students 57549
to the community school under sections 3314.09 and 3327.01 of the 57550
Revised Code prior to making any change in the hours or days in 57551
which the community school is open for instruction.57552

       Sec. 3314.11.  (A) The board of education of each city, 57553
exempted village, and local school district monthly shall review 57554
enrollment for students enrolled in community schools established 57555
under this chapter and entitled to attend school in the district 57556
under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code. For each 57557
student, the district shall verify to the department of education 57558
both of the following:57559

       (1) The community school in which the student is enrolled;57560

       (2) That the student is entitled to attend school in the 57561
district under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code.57562

       (B) For purposes of its initial reporting of the school 57563
districts its students are entitled to attend, the governing 57564
authority of a community school may adopt a policy that prescribes 57565
the number of documents listed in division (E) of this section 57566
required to verify a student's residency. This policy, if adopted, 57567
shall supersede any policy concerning the number of documents for 57568
initial residency verification adopted by the district the student 57569
is entitled to attend. If a community school does not adopt a 57570
policy under this division, the policy of the school district in 57571
which the student is entitled to attend shall prevail.57572

       (C) In making the determinations under this section, the 57573
school district in which a parent or child resides is the location 57574
the parent or student has established as the primary residence and 57575
where substantial family activity takes place.57576

        (D) If a district's determination under division (A) of this 57577
section of the school district a student is entitled to attend 57578
under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code differs from 57579
a community school's determination under division (B) of this 57580
section, the community school shall provide the school district 57581
that made the determination under division (A) of this section 57582
with documentation of the student's residency and shall make a 57583
good faith effort to accurately identify the correct residence of 57584
the student.57585

        (E) For purposes of this section, the following documents may 57586
serve as evidence of primary residence:57587

       (1) A deed, mortgage, lease, current home owner's or renter's 57588
insurance declaration page, or current real property tax bill;57589

       (2) A utility bill or receipt of utility installation issued 57590
within ninety days of enrollment;57591

       (3) A paycheck or paystub issued to the parent or student 57592
within ninety days of the date of enrollment that includes the 57593
address of the parent's or student's primary residence;57594

       (4) The most current available bank statement issued to the 57595
parent or student that includes the address of the parent's or 57596
student's primary residence;57597

       (5) Any other official document issued to the parent or 57598
student that includes the address of the parent's or student's 57599
primary residence. The superintendent of public instruction shall 57600
develop guidelines for determining what qualifies as an "official 57601
document" under this division.57602

       (F) When a student loses permanent housing and becomes a 57603
homeless child or youth, as defined in 42 U.S.C. 11434a, or when a 57604
child who is such a homeless child or youth changes temporary 57605
living arrangements, the district in which the student is entitled 57606
to attend school shall be determined in accordance with division 57607
(F)(13) of section 3313.64 of the Revised Code and the 57608
"McKinney-Vento Homeless Assistance Act," 42 U.S.C. 11431 et seq.57609

       (G) In the event of a disagreement as to which school 57610
district a student is entitled to attend, the community school, 57611
after complying with division (D) of this section, but not more 57612
than sixty days after the monthly deadline established by the 57613
department of education for reporting of community school 57614
enrollment, may present the matter to the superintendent of public 57615
instruction. Not later than thirty days after the community school 57616
presents the matter, the state superintendent, or the state 57617
superintendent's designee, shall determine which district the 57618
student is entitled to attend and shall direct any necessary 57619
adjustments to payments and deductions under sectionssection57620
3314.08 and 3314.13 of the Revised Code based on that 57621
determination.57622

       Sec. 3314.26. (A) Each internet- or computer-based community 57623
school shall withdraw from the school any student who, for two 57624
consecutive school years, has failed to participate in the spring 57625
administration of any assessment prescribed under section 57626
3301.0710 or 3301.0712 of the Revised Code for the student's grade 57627
level and was not excused from the assessment pursuant to division 57628
(C)(1) or (3) of section 3301.0711 of the Revised Code, regardless 57629
of whether a waiver was granted for the student under division 57630
(P)(L)(3) of section 3314.08 of the Revised Code. The school shall 57631
report any such student's data verification code, as assigned 57632
pursuant to section 3301.0714 of the Revised Code, to the 57633
department of education. The department shall maintain a list of 57634
all data verification codes reported under this division and 57635
section 3313.6410 of the Revised Code and provide that list to 57636
each internet- or computer-based community school and to each 57637
school to which section 3313.6410 of the Revised Code applies.57638

        (B) No internet- or computer-based community school shall 57639
receive any state funds under this chapter for any enrolled 57640
student whose data verification code appears on the list 57641
maintained by the department under division (A) of this section.57642

       Notwithstanding any provision of the Revised Code to the 57643
contrary, the parent of any such student shall pay tuition to the 57644
internet- or computer-based community school in an amount equal to 57645
the state funds the school otherwise would receive for that 57646
student, as determined by the department. An internet- or 57647
computer-based community school may withdraw any student for whom 57648
the parent does not pay tuition as required by this division.57649

       Sec. 3314.261. A student shall be considered continuously 57650
enrolled for purposes of the administration of state assessments 57651
prescribed by sections 3301.0710 and 3301.0712 of the Revised Code 57652
if the student transfers from an internet or computer-based 57653
community school to another internet or computer-based community 57654
school that is managed by the same operator.57655

       Sec. 3314.29.  (A) Notwithstanding anything in this chapter 57656
to the contrary, an internet- or computer-based community school 57657
may divide into two separate internet- or computer-based community 57658
schools by grade level, if all of the following apply:57659

       (1) The school was in operation on or before the effective 57660
date of this section.57661

       (2) The school offers at least grades one through eight.57662

       (3) The sponsor of the school approves dividing the school 57663
into two separate schools under this section.57664

       (4) The school exercises the option to divide into two 57665
separate schools under this section during either the 2013-2014 or 57666
2014-2015 school year. 57667

       (5) Either of the following applies:57668

        (a) For a school that divides into separate schools in the 57669
2013-2014 school year, the school is rated in continuous 57670
improvement or higher for the 2011-2012 school year on the report 57671
cards issued under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code as that 57672
section existed prior to March 22, 2013, and the school receives a 57673
grade of "C" or higher on its performance index score under 57674
division (A)(1)(b) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code for the 57675
report cards issued for the 2012-2013 school year.57676

        (b) For a school that divides into separate schools in the 57677
2013-2014 school year, the school receives a grade of "C" or 57678
higher on its performance index score under divisions (A)(1)(b) 57679
and (B)(1)(b) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code on the report 57680
cards issued for both the 2012-2013 and 2013-2014 school years.57681

       (B) No school may exercise the option under this section 57682
after the 2014-2015 school year. However, the authority of a 57683
school that has exercised the option under this section to operate 57684
separately as two schools continues for all subsequent school 57685
years in which the schools are in operation.57686

       (C) If a school divides into separate schools under this 57687
section, the accountability data of the original school, including 57688
report card ratings under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code, 57689
shall continue to apply to the applicable grade levels of the new 57690
schools.57691

        (D) The resulting two schools from a separation under this 57692
section shall not add additional grade levels at any time during 57693
either school's operation. 57694

       (E) An internet- or computer-based community school created 57695
under this section shall not count toward the annual limit on new 57696
internet- or computer-based community schools prescribed by 57697
division (B) of section 3314.013 of the Revised Code.57698

       Sec. 3314.35.  (A)(1) Except as provided in division (A)(4) 57699
of this section, this section applies to any community school that 57700
meets one of the following criteria after July 1, 2009, but before 57701
July 1, 2011:57702

       (a) The school does not offer a grade level higher than three 57703
and has been declared to be in a state of academic emergency under 57704
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code for three of the four most 57705
recent school years.57706

       (b) The school satisfies all of the following conditions:57707

       (i) The school offers any of grade levels four to eight but 57708
does not offer a grade level higher than nine.57709

       (ii) The school has been declared to be in a state of 57710
academic emergency under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code for 57711
two of the three most recent school years.57712

       (iii) In at least two of the three most recent school years, 57713
the school showed less than one standard year of academic growth 57714
in either reading or mathematics, as determined by the department 57715
of education in accordance with rules adopted under division (A) 57716
of section 3302.021 of the Revised Code.57717

       (c) The school offers any of grade levels ten to twelve and 57718
has been declared to be in a state of academic emergency under 57719
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code for three of the four most 57720
recent school years.57721

       (2) Except as provided in division (A)(4) of this section, 57722
this section applies to any community school that meets one of the 57723
following criteria after July 1, 2011, but before July 1, 2013:57724

       (a) The school does not offer a grade level higher than three 57725
and has been declared to be in a state of academic emergency under 57726
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code for two of the three most 57727
recent school years.57728

       (b) The school satisfies all of the following conditions:57729

       (i) The school offers any of grade levels four to eight but 57730
does not offer a grade level higher than nine.57731

       (ii) The school has been declared to be in a state of 57732
academic emergency under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code for 57733
two of the three most recent school years.57734

       (iii) In at least two of the three most recent school years, 57735
the school showed less than one standard year of academic growth 57736
in either reading or mathematics, as determined by the department 57737
in accordance with rules adopted under division (A) of section 57738
3302.021 of the Revised Code.57739

       (c) The school offers any of grade levels ten to twelve and 57740
has been declared to be in a state of academic emergency under 57741
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code for two of the three most 57742
recent school years.57743

       (3) Except as provided in division (A)(4) of this section, 57744
this section applies to any community school that meets one of the 57745
following criteria on or after July 1, 2013:57746

        (a) The school does not offer a grade level higher than three 57747
and, for two of the three most recent school years, satisfies any 57748
of the following criteria:57749

        (i) The school has been declared to be in a state of academic 57750
emergency under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code, as it existed 57751
prior to the effective date of this amendmentMarch 22, 2013;57752

        (ii) The school has received a grade of "F" in improving 57753
literacy in grades kindergarten through three under division 57754
(B)(1)(j) or (C)(1)(k) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code;57755

        (iii) The school has received an overall grade of "F" under 57756
division (C) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code.57757

        (b) The school offers any of grade levels four to eight but 57758
does not offer a grade level higher than nine and, for two of the 57759
three most recent school years, satisfies any of the following 57760
criteria:57761

        (i) The school has been declared to be in a state of academic 57762
emergency under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code, as it existed 57763
prior to the effective date of this amendmentMarch 22, 2013, and 57764
the school showed less than one standard year of academic growth 57765
in either reading or mathematics, as determined by the department 57766
in accordance with rules adopted under division (A) of section 57767
3302.021 of the Revised Code;57768

        (ii) The school has received a grade of "F" for the 57769
performance index score under division (A)(1)(b), (B)(1)(b), or 57770
(C)(1)(b) and a grade of "F" for the value-added progress 57771
dimension under division (A)(1)(e), (B)(1)(e), or (C)(1)(e) of 57772
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code;57773

        (iii) The school has received an overall grade of "F" under 57774
division (C) and a grade of "F" for the value-added progress 57775
dimension under division (C)(1)(e) of section 3302.03 of the 57776
Revised Code.57777

        (c) The school offers any of grade levels ten to twelve and, 57778
for two of the three most recent school years, satisfies any of 57779
the following criteria:57780

        (i) The school has been declared to be in a state of academic 57781
emergency under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code, as it existed 57782
prior to the effective date of this amendmentMarch 22, 2013;57783

        (ii) The school has received a grade of "F" for the 57784
performance index score under division (A)(1)(b), (B)(1)(b), or 57785
(C)(1)(b) and has not met annual measurable objectives under 57786
division (A)(1)(a), (B)(1)(a), or (C)(1)(a) of section 3302.03 of 57787
the Revised Code;57788

        (iii) The school has received an overall grade of "F" under 57789
division (C) and a grade of "F" for the value-added progress 57790
dimension under division (C)(1)(e) of section 3302.03 of the 57791
Revised Code.57792

       For purposes of division (A)(3) of this section only, the 57793
value-added progress dimension for a community school shall be 57794
calculated using assessment scores for only those students to whom 57795
the school has administered the achievement assessments prescribed 57796
by section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code for at least the two most 57797
recent school years.57798

        (4) This section does not apply to either of the following:57799

       (a) Any community school in which a majority of the students 57800
are enrolled in a dropout prevention and recovery program that is 57801
operated by the school. Rather, such schools shall be subject to 57802
closure only as provided in section 3314.351 of the Revised Code. 57803
However, prior to July 1, 2014, a community school in which a 57804
majority of the students are enrolled in a dropout prevention and 57805
recovery program shall be exempt from this section only if it has 57806
been granted a waiver under section 3314.36 of the Revised Code.57807

       (b) Any community school in which a majority of the enrolled 57808
students are children with disabilities receiving special 57809
education and related services in accordance with Chapter 3323. of 57810
the Revised Code.57811

       (B) Any community school to which this section applies shall 57812
permanently close at the conclusion of the school year in which 57813
the school first becomes subject to this section. The sponsor and 57814
governing authority of the school shall comply with all procedures 57815
for closing a community school adopted by the department under 57816
division (E) of section 3314.015 of the Revised Code. The 57817
governing authority of the school shall not enter into a contract 57818
with any other sponsor under section 3314.03 of the Revised Code 57819
after the school closes.57820

       (C) In accordance with division (B) of section 3314.012 of 57821
the Revised Code, the department shall not consider the 57822
performance ratings assigned to a community school for its first 57823
two years of operation when determining whether the school meets 57824
the criteria prescribed by division (A)(1) or (2) of this section.57825

       Sec. 3315.07.  (A) The board of education of each city and 57826
exempted village school district may provide an instructional 57827
program for the employees of the district. The board may provide 57828
the necessary bulletins and instructional material in connection 57829
with the program and pay the cost of meetings held for the purpose 57830
of carrying out the program.57831

       (B) The board of any district or educational service center 57832
may provide bulletins or other materials necessary for the 57833
effective administration of the schools of suchthe district or 57834
programs of the educational service center and may compile, make 57835
available, or publish any of the following materials not 57836
inconsistent with division (C) of this section: student handbooks, 57837
dress codes, curriculum guides, school policy bulletins, 57838
newsletters, board meeting summaries or minutes, financial 57839
reports, annual reports, and other reports concerning the 57840
operation of the schools of the district or programs of the 57841
service center. Such materials shall be published for the purpose 57842
of furthering public awareness of all aspects of the board's 57843
educational program and operation including:57844

       (1) Board policies and actions, procedures, administration 57845
and finance, and state and federal requirements;57846

       (2) The board's programs, activities, and plans;57847

       (3) Student achievements and information concerning 57848
employees;57849

       (4) Any other information the board considers helpful in 57850
keeping students, parents, employees, and residents aware of the 57851
operation of the school district. The board may assign to 57852
employees the duty of producing the information authorized by this 57853
division as a part or all of their jobs.57854

       (C)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(2) of 57855
this section, no board of education shall use public funds to 57856
support or oppose the passage of a school levy or bond issue or to 57857
compensate any school district employee for time spent on any 57858
activity intended to influence the outcome of a school levy or 57859
bond issue election.57860

       (2) A board of education may permit any of its employees to 57861
attend a public meeting during histhe employee's regular working 57862
hours for the purpose of presenting information about school 57863
finances and activities and board actions, even if the purpose of 57864
the meeting is to discuss or debate the passage of a school levy 57865
or bond issue.57866

       (D) BoardsThe board of education of locala school districts 57867
and, subject to approval by the educational service center 57868
governing board, boards of city and exempted village school 57869
districts located in whole or in part in the territory ofdistrict 57870
that has entered into an agreement under section 3313.843 or 57871
3313.845 of the Revised Code to receive any services from an 57872
educational service center may authorize educationalthe service 57873
center governing boards to purchase or to accept upon donation 57874
supplies and equipment for such school districtsdistrict and to 57875
pay the transportation, handling, and storage charges involved in 57876
securing such supplies and equipment. Upon such authorization, the 57877
governing board may make such purchases or accept such donations 57878
and pay from the service center fund the cost of such supplies and 57879
equipment and the transportation, handling, and storage charges 57880
involved. BoardsThe district board shall reimburse in full the 57881
service center governing board for all such expenditures on their57882
its behalf.57883

       Sec. 3315.33.  There is hereby established a fund to be known 57884
as the Ohio scholarship fund for teacher trainees for the public 57885
purpose of relieving the existing teacher shortage in public 57886
schools, to be administered and expended as prescribed in sections 57887
3315.33 to 3315.35 of the Revised Code. Appropriations by the 57888
general assembly for the purpose of scholarships for teacher 57889
trainees shall be paid into this fund.57890

       Each scholarship for a teacher trainee shall have a maximum 57891
value of five hundred dollars annually and shall be awarded as 57892
follows:57893

       (A) The state board of education shall prescribe standards 57894
and requirements which shall be met by persons who are eligible 57895
for such scholarships. Scholarships shall be allocated among the 57896
counties of the state on an equitable basis by the state board of 57897
education, provided that not less than three such scholarships 57898
shall be available annually to residents of each county of the 57899
state. If, on the first day of September in each year, the state 57900
board of education finds that the number of eligible persons 57901
recommended from any county is less than the number of 57902
scholarships allocated to that county, it may reallocate the 57903
remaining scholarships among the counties in which the number of 57904
eligible persons exceeds the number of scholarships allocated. 57905
Such reallocation as may affect a county in one year shall not 57906
prejudice in any way the allocation to it in succeeding years.57907

       (B) In accordance with the requirements of sections 3315.33, 57908
3315.34, and 3315.35 of the Revised Code, the educational service 57909
center superintendent in each educational service center as 57910
committee chairperson shall appoint a committee consisting of one 57911
city or exempted village high school principal, one elementary 57912
school principal, and one city or exempted village classroom 57913
teacher. This committee shall select and recommend, on the basis 57914
of merit, a number of high school graduates, not to exceed the 57915
number allocated to each county by the state board of education, 57916
who are interested in teaching and whose work and qualifications 57917
are such as to indicate that they possess the qualities which 57918
should be possessed by a successful teacher. Such persons shall 57919
not have previously been enrolled in any college of education or 57920
have majored in education in any college or university. Such other 57921
college training shall be considered in determining such person's 57922
qualifications to become a successful teacher.57923

       (C) The scholarship fund for teacher trainees shall be 57924
disbursed to scholarship holders upon their application as 57925
approved by the state board of education upon vouchers for that 57926
purpose. Such scholarships shall be paid in equal installments at 57927
the beginning of each quarter or semester while college is in 57928
session to each person who has been awarded such a scholarship 57929
when the following requirements are met:57930

       (1) Such person shall be a bona fide student in the college 57931
of education or department of teacher training in an Ohio 57932
institution of higher learning.57933

       (2) Such person shall pursue a course of study in elementary 57934
education in said college of education or department of teacher 57935
training approved by the state board of education.57936

       Sec. 3315.40.  The board of education of a city, local, 57937
exempted village, or joint vocational school district or the 57938
governing board of any educational service center may establish an 57939
education foundation fund. Moneys in the fund shall consist of 57940
proceeds paid into the fund under division (B) of section 3313.36 57941
of the Revised Code. In addition, by resolution adopted by a 57942
majority of its members, a city, local, exempted village, or joint 57943
vocational board may annually direct the school district treasurer 57944
to pay into the education foundation fund an amount from the 57945
school district general fund not to exceed one-half of one per 57946
cent of the total appropriations of the school district as 57947
estimated by the board at the time the resolution is adopted or as 57948
set forth in the annual appropriation measure as most recently 57949
amended or supplemented; and any governing board, by resolution 57950
adopted by a majority of its members, may annually direct the 57951
service center treasurer to pay into the education foundation fund 57952
an amount not to exceed one-half of one per cent of the funds 57953
received by the governing board pursuant to an agreement entered 57954
into under section 3317.113313.843 or 3313.845 of the Revised 57955
Code.57956

       Income from the investment of moneys in the fund shall be 57957
paid into the fund. A board, by resolution adopted by a majority 57958
of its members, may accept a trust created under section 3315.41 57959
of the Revised Code for the investment of money in the educational 57960
foundation fund and direct the school district or service center 57961
treasurer to pay to the trustee, the initial trust principal 57962
contemplated by the instrument creating the trust. A board that 57963
has accepted a trust created under section 3315.41 of the Revised 57964
Code may do any of the following by resolution adopted by a 57965
majority of its members: direct the school district or service 57966
center treasurer to pay additional amounts to the trust principal, 57967
amend the trust, revoke the trust, or provide for payment of 57968
compensation to the trustee.57969

       Moneys in the fund shall be expended only by resolution 57970
adopted by a majority of the members of the board for operating or 57971
capital costs of any existing or new and innovative program 57972
designed to enhance or promote education within the district or 57973
service center, such as scholarships for students or teachers.57974

       A board of education or governing board may appoint a 57975
committee of administrators to administer the education foundation 57976
fund and to make recommendations for the use of the fund. Members 57977
of the committee shall serve at the discretion of the appointing 57978
board. Members shall receive no compensation, but may be 57979
reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses incurred in the 57980
performance of their official duties.57981

       Sec. 3315.42.  Sections 3315.40 and 3315.41 of the Revised 57982
Code do not apply to either of the following:57983

       (A) A school district that has received funds for a project 57984
under Chapter 3318. of the Revised Code, so long as the purchase 57985
price to be paid by the board for the state's interest in the 57986
project has not been paid;57987

       (B) A school district that has an outstanding loan under 57988
section 3313.483 or sections 3317.62 to 3317.64 of the Revised 57989
Code.57990

       Sec. 3316.041.  (A) Notwithstanding any provision of Chapter 57991
133. or sections 3313.483 to 3313.48113313.4810 of the Revised 57992
Code, and subject to the approval of the superintendent of public 57993
instruction, a school district that is in a state of fiscal watch 57994
declared under section 3316.03 of the Revised Code may restructure 57995
or refinance loans obtained or in the process of being obtained 57996
under section 3313.483 of the Revised Code if all of the following 57997
requirements are met:57998

       (1) The operating deficit certified for the school district 57999
for the current or preceding fiscal year under section 3313.483 of 58000
the Revised Code exceeds fifteen per cent of the district's 58001
general revenue fund for the fiscal year preceding the year for 58002
which the certification of the operating deficit is made.58003

       (2) The school district voters have, during the period of the 58004
fiscal watch, approved the levy of a tax under section 718.09, 58005
718.10, 5705.194, 5705.21, 5748.02, or 5748.09 of the Revised Code 58006
that is not a renewal or replacement levy, or a levy under section 58007
5705.199 of the Revised Code, and that will provide new operating 58008
revenue.58009

       (3) The board of education of the school district has adopted 58010
or amended the financial plan required by section 3316.04 of the 58011
Revised Code to reflect the restructured or refinanced loans, and 58012
sets forth the means by which the district will bring projected 58013
operating revenues and expenditures, and projected debt service 58014
obligations, into balance for the life of any such loan.58015

       (B) Subject to the approval of the superintendent of public 58016
instruction, the school district may issue securities to evidence 58017
the restructuring or refinancing authorized by this section. Such 58018
securities may extend the original period for repayment not to 58019
exceed ten years, and may alter the frequency and amount of 58020
repayments, interest or other financing charges, and other terms 58021
or agreements under which the loans were originally contracted, 58022
provided the loans received under sections 3313.483 of the Revised 58023
Code are repaid from funds the district would otherwise receive 58024
under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code, as required under 58025
division (E)(3) of section 3313.483 of the Revised Code. 58026
Securities issued for the purpose of restructuring or refinancing 58027
under this section shall be repaid in equal payments and at equal 58028
intervals over the term of the debt and are not eligible to be 58029
included in any subsequent proposal to restructure or refinance.58030

       (C) Unless the district is declared to be in a state of 58031
fiscal emergency under division (D) of section 3316.04 of the 58032
Revised Code, a school district shall remain in a state of fiscal 58033
watch for the duration of the repayment period of any loan 58034
restructured or refinanced under this section.58035

       Sec. 3316.06.  (A) Within one hundred twenty days after the 58036
first meeting of a school district financial planning and 58037
supervision commission, the commission shall adopt a financial 58038
recovery plan regarding the school district for which the 58039
commission was created. During the formulation of the plan, the 58040
commission shall seek appropriate input from the school district 58041
board and from the community. This plan shall contain the 58042
following:58043

       (1) Actions to be taken to:58044

       (a) Eliminate all fiscal emergency conditions declared to 58045
exist pursuant to division (B) of section 3316.03 of the Revised 58046
Code;58047

       (b) Satisfy any judgments, past-due accounts payable, and all 58048
past-due and payable payroll and fringe benefits;58049

       (c) Eliminate the deficits in all deficit funds, except that 58050
any prior year deficits in the capital and maintenance fund 58051
established pursuant to section 3315.18 of the Revised Code shall 58052
be forgiven;58053

       (d) Restore to special funds any moneys from such funds that 58054
were used for purposes not within the purposes of such funds, or 58055
borrowed from such funds by the purchase of debt obligations of 58056
the school district with the moneys of such funds, or missing from 58057
the special funds and not accounted for, if any;58058

       (e) Balance the budget, avoid future deficits in any funds, 58059
and maintain on a current basis payments of payroll, fringe 58060
benefits, and all accounts;58061

       (f) Avoid any fiscal emergency condition in the future;58062

       (g) Restore the ability of the school district to market 58063
long-term general obligation bonds under provisions of law 58064
applicable to school districts generally.58065

       (2) The management structure that will enable the school 58066
district to take the actions enumerated in division (A)(1) of this 58067
section. The plan shall specify the level of fiscal and management 58068
control that the commission will exercise within the school 58069
district during the period of fiscal emergency, and shall 58070
enumerate respectively, the powers and duties of the commission 58071
and the powers and duties of the school board during that period. 58072
The commission may elect to assume any of the powers and duties of 58073
the school board it considers necessary, including all powers 58074
related to personnel, curriculum, and legal issues in order to 58075
successfully implement the actions described in division (A)(1) of 58076
this section.58077

       (3) The target dates for the commencement, progress upon, and 58078
completion of the actions enumerated in division (A)(1) of this 58079
section and a reasonable period of time expected to be required to 58080
implement the plan. The commission shall prepare a reasonable time 58081
schedule for progress toward and achievement of the requirements 58082
for the plan, and the plan shall be consistent with that time 58083
schedule.58084

       (4) The amount and purpose of any issue of debt obligations 58085
that will be issued, together with assurances that any such debt 58086
obligations that will be issued will not exceed debt limits 58087
supported by appropriate certifications by the fiscal officer of 58088
the school district and the county auditor. Debt obligations 58089
issued pursuant to section 133.301 of the Revised Code shall 58090
include assurances that such debt shall be in an amount not to 58091
exceed the amount certified under division (B) of such section. If 58092
the commission considers it necessary in order to maintain or 58093
improve educational opportunities of pupils in the school 58094
district, the plan may include a proposal to restructure or 58095
refinance outstanding debt obligations incurred by the board under 58096
section 3313.483 of the Revised Code contingent upon the approval, 58097
during the period of the fiscal emergency, by district voters of a 58098
tax levied under section 718.09, 718.10, 5705.194, 5705.21, 58099
5748.02, 5748.08, or 5748.09 of the Revised Code that is not a 58100
renewal or replacement levy, or a levy under section 5705.199 of 58101
the Revised Code, and that will provide new operating revenue. 58102
Notwithstanding any provision of Chapter 133. or sections 3313.483 58103
to 3313.48113313.4810 of the Revised Code, following the required 58104
approval of the district voters and with the approval of the 58105
commission, the school district may issue securities to evidence 58106
the restructuring or refinancing. Those securities may extend the 58107
original period for repayment, not to exceed ten years, and may 58108
alter the frequency and amount of repayments, interest or other 58109
financing charges, and other terms of agreements under which the 58110
debt originally was contracted, at the discretion of the 58111
commission, provided that any loans received pursuant to section 58112
3313.483 of the Revised Code shall be paid from funds the district 58113
would otherwise receive under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code, 58114
as required under division (E)(3) of section 3313.483 of the 58115
Revised Code. The securities issued for the purpose of 58116
restructuring or refinancing the debt shall be repaid in equal 58117
payments and at equal intervals over the term of the debt and are 58118
not eligible to be included in any subsequent proposal for the 58119
purpose of restructuring or refinancing debt under this section.58120

       (5) An evaluation of the feasibility of entering into shared 58121
services agreements with other political subdivisions for the 58122
joint exercise of any power, performance of any function, or 58123
rendering of any service, if so authorized by statute.58124

       (B) Any financial recovery plan may be amended subsequent to 58125
its adoption. Each financial recovery plan shall be updated 58126
annually.58127

       (C) Each school district financial planning and supervision 58128
commission shall submit the financial recovery plan it adopts or 58129
updates under this section to the state superintendent of public 58130
instruction for approval immediately following its adoption or 58131
updating. The state superintendent shall evaluate the plan and 58132
either approve or disapprove it within thirty calendar days from 58133
the date of its submission. If the plan is disapproved, the state 58134
superintendent shall recommend modifications that will render it 58135
acceptable. No financial planning and supervision commission shall 58136
implement a financial recovery plan that is adopted or updated on 58137
or after April 10, 2001, unless the state superintendent has 58138
approved it.58139

       Sec. 3317.01.  As used in this section, "school district," 58140
unless otherwise specified, means any city, local, exempted 58141
village, joint vocational, or cooperative education school 58142
district and any educational service center.58143

       This chapter shall be administered by the state board of 58144
education. The superintendent of public instruction shall 58145
calculate the amounts payable to each school district and shall 58146
certify the amounts payable to each eligible district to the 58147
treasurer of the district as provided by this chapter. As soon as 58148
possible after such amounts are calculated, the superintendent 58149
shall certify to the treasurer of each school district the 58150
district's adjusted charge-off increase, as defined in section 58151
5705.211 of the Revised Code. Certification of moneys pursuant to 58152
this section shall include the amounts payable to each school 58153
building, at a frequency determined by the superintendent, for 58154
each subgroup of students, as defined in section 3317.40 of the 58155
Revised Code, receiving services, provided for by state funding, 58156
from the district or school. No moneys shall be distributed 58157
pursuant to this chapter without the approval of the controlling 58158
board.58159

       The state board of education shall, in accordance with 58160
appropriations made by the general assembly, meet the financial 58161
obligations of this chapter.58162

       Moneys distributed pursuant to this chapter shall be 58163
calculated and paid on a fiscal year basis, beginning with the 58164
first day of July and extending through the thirtieth day of June. 58165
The moneys appropriated for each fiscal year shall be distributed 58166
periodically to each school district unless otherwise provided 58167
for. The state board, in June of each year, shall submit to the 58168
controlling board the state board's year-end distributions 58169
pursuant to this chapter.58170

       Payments shall be calculated to reflect the biannual 58171
reporting of average daily membership. Annualized periodic 58172
payments for each school district shall be based on the district's 58173
final student counts verified by the superintendent of public 58174
instruction based on reports under section 3317.03 of the Revised 58175
Code, as adjusted, if so ordered, under division (K) of that 58176
section, as follows:58177

the sum of one-half of the number of students verified and
58178
adjusted for the first full week in October plus one-half of the
58179
average of the numbers verified and adjusted for the first full
58180
week in October and for the first full week in February
58181

       Except as otherwise provided, payments under this chapter 58182
shall be made only to those school districts in which:58183

       (A) The school district, except for any educational service 58184
center and any joint vocational or cooperative education school 58185
district, levies for current operating expenses at least twenty 58186
mills. Levies for joint vocational or cooperative education school 58187
districts or county school financing districts, limited to or to 58188
the extent apportioned to current expenses, shall be included in 58189
this qualification requirement. School district income tax levies 58190
under Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code, limited to or to the 58191
extent apportioned to current operating expenses, shall be 58192
included in this qualification requirement to the extent 58193
determined by the tax commissioner under division (D) of section 58194
3317.021 of the Revised Code.58195

       (B) The school year next preceding the fiscal year for which 58196
such payments are authorized meets the requirement of section 58197
3313.48 or 3313.481 of the Revised Code, with regard to the 58198
minimum number of days or hours school must be open for 58199
instruction with pupils in attendance, for individualized 58200
parent-teacher conference and reporting periods, and for 58201
professional meetings of teachers. This requirement shall be 58202
waived by the superintendent of public instruction if it had been 58203
necessary for a school to be closed because of disease epidemic, 58204
hazardous weather conditions, law enforcement emergencies, 58205
inoperability of school buses or other equipment necessary to the 58206
school's operation, damage to a school building, or other 58207
temporary circumstances due to utility failure rendering the 58208
school building unfit for school use, provided that for those 58209
school districts operating pursuant to section 3313.48 of the 58210
Revised Code the number of days the school was actually open for 58211
instruction with pupils in attendance and for individualized 58212
parent-teacher conference and reporting periods is not less than 58213
one hundred seventy-five, or for those school districts operating 58214
on a trimester plan the number of days the school was actually 58215
open for instruction with pupils in attendance not less than 58216
seventy-nine days in any trimester, for those school districts 58217
operating on a quarterly plan the number of days the school was 58218
actually open for instruction with pupils in attendance not less 58219
than fifty-nine days in any quarter, or for those school districts 58220
operating on a pentamester plan the number of days the school was 58221
actually open for instruction with pupils in attendance not less 58222
than forty-four days in any pentamester.58223

       A school district shall not be considered to have failed to 58224
comply with this division or section 3313.481 of the Revised Code58225
because schools were open for instruction but either twelfth grade 58226
students were excused from attendance for up to the equivalent of58227
three school days or only a portion of the kindergarten students 58228
were in attendance for up to the equivalent of three school days 58229
in order to allow for the gradual orientation to school of such 58230
students.58231

       The superintendent of public instruction shall waive the 58232
requirements of this section with reference to the minimum number 58233
of days or hours school must be in session with pupils in 58234
attendance for the school year succeeding the school year in which 58235
a board of education initiates a plan of operation pursuant to 58236
section 3313.481 of the Revised Code. The minimum requirements of 58237
this section shall again be applicable to such a district 58238
beginning with the school year commencing the second July 58239
succeeding the initiation of one such plan, and for each school 58240
year thereafter.58241

       A school district shall not be considered to have failed to 58242
comply with this division or section 3313.48 or 3313.481 of the 58243
Revised Code because schools were open for instruction but the 58244
length of the regularly scheduled school day, for any number of 58245
days during the school year, was reduced by not more than two 58246
hours due to hazardous weather conditions.58247

       A board of education or governing board of an educational 58248
service center which has not conformed with other law and the 58249
rules pursuant thereto, shall not participate in the distribution 58250
of funds authorized by this chapter, except for good and 58251
sufficient reason established to the satisfaction of the state 58252
board of education and the state controlling board.58253

       All funds allocated to school districts under this chapter, 58254
except those specifically allocated for other purposes, shall be 58255
used to pay current operating expenses only.58256

       Sec. 3317.013. Except for a preschool child with a 58257
disability for whom a scholarship has been awarded under section 58258
3310.41 of the Revised Code, this section does not apply to 58259
preschool children with disabilities.58260

       Analysis of special education cost data has resulted in a 58261
finding that the average special education additional cost per 58262
pupil, including the costs of related services, can be expressed 58263
as a multiple of the formula amount. The multiplesamounts for the 58264
following categories of special education programs, as these 58265
programs are defined for purposes of Chapter 3323. of the Revised 58266
Code, and adjusted as provided in this section, are as follows:58267

       (A) A multiple of 0.2906An amount of $1,503, in fiscal year 58268
2014, or $1,517, in fiscal year 2015, for studentseach student58269
whose primary or only identified disability is a speech and 58270
language disability, as this term is defined pursuant to Chapter 58271
3323. of the Revised Code;58272

       (B) A multiple of 0.7374An amount of $3,813, in fiscal year 58273
2014, or $3,849, in fiscal year 2015, for studentseach student58274
identified as specific learning disabled or developmentally 58275
disabled, as these terms are defined pursuant to Chapter 3323. of 58276
the Revised Code, oridentified as having an other health 58277
impairment-minor, or identified as a preschool child who is 58278
developmentally delayed;58279

       (C) A multiple of 1.7716An amount of $9,160, in fiscal year 58280
2014, or $9,248, in fiscal year 2015, for studentseach student58281
identified as hearing disabled or severe behavior disabled, as 58282
these terms are defined pursuant to Chapter 3323. of the Revised 58283
Code;58284

       (D) A multiple of 2.3643An amount of $12,225, in fiscal year 58285
2014, or $12,342, in fiscal year 2015, for studentseach student58286
identified as vision impaired, as this term is defined pursuant to 58287
Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code, or as having an other health 58288
impairment-major;58289

       (E) A multiple of 3.2022An amount of $16,557, in fiscal year 58290
2014, or $16,715, in fiscal year 2015, for studentseach student58291
identified as orthopedically disabled or as having multiple 58292
disabilities, as these terms are defined pursuant to Chapter 3323. 58293
of the Revised Code;58294

       (F) A multiple of 4.7205An amount of $24,407, in fiscal year 58295
2014, or $24,641, in fiscal year 2015, for studentseach student58296
identified as autistic, having traumatic brain injuries, or as 58297
both visually and hearing impaired, as these terms are defined 58298
pursuant to Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code.58299

       In fiscal years 2008, 2009, 2010, 2011, 2012, and 2013, the 58300
multiples specified in divisions (A) to (F) of this section shall 58301
be adjusted by multiplying them by 0.90.58302

       Sec.  3317.014.  The career-technical education additional 58303
amount per pupil for each student enrolled in career-technical 58304
education programs approved by the department of education in 58305
accordance with rules adopted under section 3313.90 of the Revised 58306
Code shall be as follows:58307

       (A) An amount of $4,336, in fiscal year 2014, or $4,408, in 58308
fiscal year 2015, for each student enrolled in career-technical 58309
education workforce development programs in environmental and 58310
agricultural systems, construction technologies, engineering and 58311
science technologies, finance, health science, information 58312
technology, and manufacturing technologies;58313

       (B) An amount of $3,907, in fiscal year 2014, or $3,944, in 58314
fiscal year 2015, for each student enrolled in workforce 58315
development programs in business and administration, hospitality 58316
and tourism, human services, law and public safety, and 58317
transportation systems;58318

       (C) An amount of $2,470, in fiscal year 2014, or $2,494, in 58319
fiscal year 2015, for students enrolled in workforce development 58320
career-based intervention programs;58321

       (D) An amount of $1,781, in fiscal year 2014, or $1,798, in 58322
fiscal year 2015, for students enrolled in workforce development 58323
programs in arts and communications, education and training, 58324
marketing, workforce development academics, and career 58325
development;58326

       (E) An amount of $1,379, in fiscal year 2014, or $1,392, in 58327
fiscal year 2015, for students enrolled in family and consumer 58328
science programs.58329

       The amount for career-technical education associated services 58330
shall be $225, in fiscal year 2014, or $227, in fiscal year 2015.58331

       Sec. 3317.016.  The amounts for limited English proficient 58332
students shall be as follows:58333

       (A) An amount of $1,500, in fiscal year 2014, and $1,515, in 58334
fiscal year 2015, for each student who has been enrolled in 58335
schools in the United States for 180 school days or less and was 58336
not previously exempted from taking the spring administration of 58337
either of the state's English language arts assessments prescribed 58338
by section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code (reading or writing).58339

       (B) An amount of $1,125, in fiscal year 2014, and $1,136, in 58340
fiscal year 2015, for each student who has been enrolled in 58341
schools in the United States for more than 180 school days or was 58342
previously exempted from taking the spring administration of 58343
either of the state's English language arts assessments prescribed 58344
by section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code (reading or writing).58345

       (C) An amount of $750, in fiscal year 2014, and $758, in 58346
fiscal year 2015, for each student who does not qualify for 58347
inclusion under division (A) or (B) of this section and is in a 58348
trial-mainstream period, as defined by the department.58349

       Sec. 3317.017.  The department of education shall compute a 58350
school district's state share index as follows:58351

       (A) Calculate the district's valuation index, which equals 58352
the following quotient:58353

       (The district's three-year average valuation / the district's 58354
total ADM) / (the statewide three-year average valuation for 58355
school districts with a total ADM greater than zero / the 58356
statewide total ADM)58357

       (B) Calculate the district's median income index, which 58358
equals the following quotient:58359

       (The district's median Ohio adjusted gross income / the 58360
median of the median Ohio adjusted gross income of all districts 58361
statewide)58362

       (C) Determine the district's wealth index as follows:58363

       (1) If the district's median income index is less than the 58364
district's valuation index, then the district's wealth index shall 58365
be equal to [(1/3 X the district's median income index) + (2/3 X 58366
the district's valuation index)].58367

       (2) If the district's median income index is greater than or 58368
equal to the district's valuation index, then the district's 58369
wealth index shall be equal to the district's valuation index.58370

       (D) Determine the district's state share index as follows:58371

       (1) If the district's wealth index is less than or equal to 58372
0.35, then the district's state share index shall be equal to 58373
0.90.58374

       (2) If the district's wealth index is greater than 0.35 but 58375
less than or equal to 0.90, then the district's state share index 58376
shall be equal to {0.40 X [(0.90 – the district's wealth index) / 58377
0.55]} + 0.50.58378

       (3) If the district's wealth index is greater than 0.90 but 58379
less than 1.8, then the district's state share index shall be 58380
equal to {0.45 X [(1.8 – the district's wealth index) / 0.9]} + 58381
0.05.58382

       (4) If the district's wealth index is greater than or equal 58383
to 1.8, then the district's state share index shall be equal to 58384
0.05.58385

       (E)(1) For each school district for which the tax-exempt 58386
value of the district, as certified under division (A)(4) of 58387
section 3317.021 of the Revised Code, equals or exceeds thirty per 58388
cent of the potential value of the district, the department shall 58389
calculate the difference between the district's tax-exempt value 58390
and thirty per cent of the district's potential value. For this 58391
purpose, the "potential value" of a school district is the 58392
three-year average valuation of the district plus the tax-exempt 58393
value of the district.58394

       (2) For each school district to which division (E)(1) of this 58395
section applies, the department shall adjust the three-year 58396
average valuation used in the calculation under division (A) of 58397
this section by subtracting from it the amount calculated under 58398
division (E)(1) of this section.58399

       (F) When performing the calculations required under this 58400
section, the department shall not round to fewer than four decimal 58401
places.58402

        For purposes of these calculations for fiscal years 2014 and 58403
2015, "three-year average valuation" means the average of total 58404
taxable value for fiscal years 2012, 2013, and 2014; "total ADM" 58405
means the total ADM for fiscal year 2014; "median Ohio adjusted 58406
gross income" means the median Ohio adjusted gross income for tax 58407
year 2011; and "tax-exempt value" means the tax-exempt value for 58408
fiscal year 2014.58409

       Sec. 3317.02.  As used in this chapter:58410

       (A)(1) "Category one career-technical education ADM" means 58411
the average daily membership of students receiving 58412
career-technical education services described in division (A) of 58413
section 3317.014 of the Revised Code and reported under division 58414
(B)(11) or (D)(2)(h) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.58415

       (2) "Category two career-technical education ADM" means the 58416
average daily membership of students receiving career-technical 58417
education services described in division (B) of section 3317.014 58418
of the Revised Code and reported under division (B)(12) or 58419
(D)(2)(i) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.58420

       (3) "Category three career-technical education ADM" means the 58421
average daily membership of students receiving career-technical 58422
education services described in division (C) of section 3317.014 58423
of the Revised Code and reported under division (B)(13) or 58424
(D)(2)(j) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.58425

       (4) "Category four career-technical education ADM" means the 58426
average daily membership of students receiving career-technical 58427
education services described in division (D) of section 3317.014 58428
of the Revised Code and reported under division (B)(14) or 58429
(D)(2)(k) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.58430

       (5) "Category five career-technical education ADM" means the 58431
average daily membership of students receiving career-technical 58432
education services described in division (E) of section 3317.014 58433
of the Revised Code and reported under division (B)(15) or 58434
(D)(2)(l) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.58435

       (B)(1) "Category one limited English proficient ADM" means 58436
the average daily membership of limited English proficient 58437
students described in division (A) of section 3317.016 of the 58438
Revised Code and reported under division (B)(16) or (D)(2)(m) of 58439
section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.58440

       (2) "Category two limited English proficient ADM" means the 58441
average daily membership of limited English proficient students 58442
described in division (B) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code 58443
and reported under division (B)(17) or (D)(2)(n) of section 58444
3317.03 of the Revised Code.58445

       (3) "Category three limited English proficient ADM" means the 58446
average daily membership of limited English proficient students 58447
described in division (C) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code 58448
and reported under division (B)(18) or (D)(2)(o) of section 58449
3317.03 of the Revised Code.58450

       (C)(1) "Category one special education ADM" means the average 58451
daily membership of children with disabilities receiving special 58452
education services for the disability specified in division (A) of 58453
section 3317.013 of the Revised Code and reported under division 58454
(B)(5) or (D)(2)(b) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.58455

       (2) "Category two special education ADM" means the average 58456
daily membership of children with disabilities receiving special 58457
education services for those disabilities specified in division 58458
(B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code and reported under 58459
division (B)(6) or (D)(2)(c) of section 3317.03 of the Revised 58460
Code.58461

       (3) "Category three special education ADM" means the average 58462
daily membership of students receiving special education services 58463
for those disabilities specified in division (C) of section 58464
3317.013 of the Revised Code, and reported under division (B)(7) 58465
or (D)(2)(d) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.58466

       (4) "Category four special education ADM" means the average 58467
daily membership of students receiving special education services 58468
for those disabilities specified in division (D) of section 58469
3317.013 of the Revised Code and reported under division (B)(8) or 58470
(D)(2)(e) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.58471

       (5) "Category five special education ADM" means the average 58472
daily membership of students receiving special education services 58473
for the disabilities specified in division (E) of section 3317.013 58474
of the Revised Code and reported under division (B)(9) or 58475
(D)(2)(f) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.58476

       (6) "Category six special education ADM" means the average 58477
daily membership of students receiving special education services 58478
for the disabilities specified in division (F) of section 3317.013 58479
of the Revised Code and reported under division (B)(10) or 58480
(D)(2)(g) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.58481

       (D) "County DD board" means a county board of developmental 58482
disabilities.58483

       (E) "Economically disadvantaged index for a school district" 58484
means the square of the quotient of that district's percentage of 58485
students in its total ADM who are identified as economically 58486
disadvantaged as defined by the department of education, divided 58487
by the statewide percentage of students identified as economically 58488
disadvantaged.58489

       (F)(1) "Formula ADM" means, for a city, local, or exempted 58490
village school district, the average daily membership described in 58491
division (A) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, as verified 58492
by the superintendent of public instruction and adjusted if so 58493
ordered under division (K) of that section, and as further 58494
adjusted by counting only twenty per cent of the number of joint 58495
vocational school district students counted under division (A)(3) 58496
of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.58497

       (2) "Formula ADM" means, for a joint vocational school 58498
district, the final number verified by the superintendent of 58499
public instruction, based on the number reported pursuant to 58500
division (D) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, as adjusted, 58501
if so ordered, under division (K) of that section.58502

       (G) "Formula amount" means $5,745, for fiscal year 2014, and 58503
$5,800, for fiscal year 2015.58504

       (H) "FTE basis" means a count of students based on full-time 58505
equivalency, in accordance with rules adopted by the department of 58506
education pursuant to section 3317.03 of the Revised Code. In 58507
adopting its rules under this division, the department shall 58508
provide for counting any student in category one, two, three, 58509
four, five, or six special education ADM or in category one, two, 58510
three, four, or five career technical education ADM in the same 58511
proportion the student is counted in formula ADM.58512

       (I) "Internet- or computer-based community school" has the 58513
same meaning as in section 3314.02 of the Revised Code.58514

       (J) "Medically fragile child" means a child to whom all of 58515
the following apply:58516

       (1) The child requires the services of a doctor of medicine 58517
or osteopathic medicine at least once a week due to the 58518
instability of the child's medical condition.58519

       (2) The child requires the services of a registered nurse on 58520
a daily basis.58521

       (3) The child is at risk of institutionalization in a 58522
hospital, skilled nursing facility, or intermediate care facility 58523
for individuals with intellectual disabilities.58524

       (K)(1) A child may be identified as having an "other health 58525
impairment-major" if the child's condition meets the definition of 58526
"other health impaired" established in rules previously adopted by 58527
the state board of education and if either of the following apply:58528

       (a) The child is identified as having a medical condition 58529
that is among those listed by the superintendent of public 58530
instruction as conditions where a substantial majority of cases 58531
fall within the definition of "medically fragile child."58532

       (b) The child is determined by the superintendent of public 58533
instruction to be a medically fragile child. A school district 58534
superintendent may petition the superintendent of public 58535
instruction for a determination that a child is a medically 58536
fragile child.58537

       (2) A child may be identified as having an "other health 58538
impairment-minor" if the child's condition meets the definition of 58539
"other health impaired" established in rules previously adopted by 58540
the state board of education but the child's condition does not 58541
meet either of the conditions specified in division (K)(1)(a) or 58542
(b) of this section.58543

       (L) "Preschool child with a disability" means a child with a 58544
disability, as defined in section 3323.01 of the Revised Code, who 58545
is at least age three but is not of compulsory school age, as 58546
defined in section 3321.01 of the Revised Code, and who is not 58547
currently enrolled in kindergarten.58548

       (M) "Preschool scholarship ADM" means the number of preschool 58549
children with disabilities reported under division (B)(3)(h) of 58550
section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.58551

       (N) "Related services" includes:58552

       (1) Child study, special education supervisors and 58553
coordinators, speech and hearing services, adaptive physical 58554
development services, occupational or physical therapy, teacher 58555
assistants for children with disabilities whose disabilities are 58556
described in division (B) of section 3317.013 or division (B)(3) 58557
of this section, behavioral intervention, interpreter services, 58558
work study, nursing services, and specialized integrative services 58559
as those terms are defined by the department;58560

       (2) Speech and language services provided to any student with 58561
a disability, including any student whose primary or only 58562
disability is a speech and language disability;58563

       (3) Any related service not specifically covered by other 58564
state funds but specified in federal law, including but not 58565
limited to, audiology and school psychological services;58566

       (4) Any service included in units funded under former 58567
division (O)(1) of section 3317.024 of the Revised Code;58568

       (5) Any other related service needed by children with 58569
disabilities in accordance with their individualized education 58570
programs.58571

       (O) "School district," unless otherwise specified, means 58572
city, local, and exempted village school districts.58573

       (P) "State education aid" has the same meaning as in section 58574
5751.20 of the Revised Code.58575

       (Q) "State share index" means the state share index 58576
calculated for a district under section 3317.017 of the Revised 58577
Code.58578

       (R) "Taxes charged and payable" means the taxes charged and 58579
payable against real and public utility property after making the 58580
reduction required by section 319.301 of the Revised Code, plus 58581
the taxes levied against tangible personal property.58582

       (S) "Total ADM" means, for a city, local, or exempted village 58583
school district, the average daily membership described in 58584
division (A) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, as verified 58585
by the superintendent of public instruction and adjusted if so 58586
ordered under division (K) of that section.58587

       (T) "Total special education ADM" means the sum of categories 58588
one through six special education ADM.58589

       (U) "Total taxable value" means the sum of the amounts 58590
certified for a city, local, exempted village, or joint vocational 58591
school district under divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 3317.021 58592
of the Revised Code.58593

       Sec. 3317.021.  (A) On or before the first day of June of 58594
each year, the tax commissioner shall certify to the department of 58595
education and the office of budget and management the information 58596
described in divisions (A)(1) to (7)(5) of this section for each 58597
city, exempted village, and local school district, and the 58598
information required by divisions (A)(1) and (2) of this section 58599
for each joint vocational school district, and it shall be used, 58600
along with the information certified under division (B) of this 58601
section, in making the computations for the district under this 58602
chapter.58603

       (1) The taxable value of real and public utility real 58604
property in the school district subject to taxation in the 58605
preceding tax year, by class and by county of location.58606

       (2) The taxable value of tangible personal property, 58607
including public utility personal property, subject to taxation by 58608
the district for the preceding tax year.58609

       (3)(a) The total property tax rate and total taxes charged 58610
and payable for the current expenses for the preceding tax year 58611
and the total property tax rate and the total taxes charged and 58612
payable to a joint vocational district for the preceding tax year 58613
that are limited to or to the extent apportioned to current 58614
expenses.58615

       (b) The portion of the amount of taxes charged and payable 58616
reported for each city, local, and exempted village school 58617
district under division (A)(3)(a) of this section attributable to 58618
a joint vocational school district.58619

       (4) The value of all real and public utility real property in 58620
the school district exempted from taxation minus both of the 58621
following:58622

       (a) The value of real and public utility real property in the 58623
district owned by the United States government and used 58624
exclusively for a public purpose;58625

       (b) The value of real and public utility real property in the 58626
district exempted from taxation under Chapter 725. or 1728. or 58627
section 3735.67, 5709.40, 5709.41, 5709.62, 5709.63, 5709.632, 58628
5709.73, or 5709.78 of the Revised Code.58629

       (5) The total federal adjusted gross income of the residents 58630
of the school district, based on tax returns filed by the 58631
residents of the district, for the most recent year for which this 58632
information is available, and the median Ohio adjusted gross 58633
income of the residents of the school district determined on the 58634
basis of tax returns filed for the second preceding tax year by 58635
the residents of the district.58636

       (6) The sum of the school district compensation value as 58637
indicated on the list of exempted property for the preceding tax 58638
year under section 5713.08 of the Revised Code as if such property 58639
had been assessed for taxation that year and the other 58640
compensation value for the school district, minus the amounts 58641
described in divisions (A)(6)(c) to (i) of this section. The 58642
portion of school district compensation value or other 58643
compensation value attributable to an incentive district exemption 58644
may be subtracted only once even if that incentive district 58645
satisfies more than one of the criteria in divisions (A)(6)(c) to 58646
(i) of this section.58647

       (a) "School district compensation value" means the aggregate 58648
value of real property in the school district exempted from 58649
taxation pursuant to an ordinance or resolution adopted under 58650
division (C) of section 5709.40, division (C) of section 5709.73, 58651
or division (B) of section 5709.78 of the Revised Code to the 58652
extent that the exempted value results in the charging of payments 58653
in lieu of taxes required to be paid to the school district under 58654
division (D)(1) or (2) of section 5709.40, division (D) of section 58655
5709.73, or division (C) of section 5709.78 of the Revised Code.58656

       (b) "Other compensation value" means the quotient that 58657
results from dividing (i) the dollar value of compensation 58658
received by the school district during the preceding tax year 58659
pursuant to division (B), (C), or (D) of section 5709.82 of the 58660
Revised Code and the amounts received pursuant to an agreement as 58661
specified in division (D)(2) of section 5709.40, division (D) of 58662
section 5709.73, or division (C) of section 5709.78 of the Revised 58663
Code to the extent those amounts were not previously reported or 58664
included in division (A)(6)(a) of this section, and so that any 58665
such amount is reported only once under division (A)(6)(b) of this 58666
section, in relation to exemptions from taxation granted pursuant 58667
to an ordinance or resolution adopted under division (C) of 58668
section 5709.40, division (C) of section 5709.73, or division (B) 58669
of section 5709.78 of the Revised Code, by (ii) the real property 58670
tax rate in effect for the preceding tax year for 58671
nonresidential/agricultural real property after making the 58672
reductions required by section 319.301 of the Revised Code.58673

       (c) The portion of school district compensation value or 58674
other compensation value that was exempted from taxation pursuant 58675
to such an ordinance or resolution for the preceding tax year, if 58676
the ordinance or resolution is adopted prior to January 1, 2006, 58677
and the legislative authority or board of township trustees or 58678
county commissioners, prior to January 1, 2006, executes a 58679
contract or agreement with a developer, whether for-profit or 58680
not-for-profit, with respect to the development of a project 58681
undertaken or to be undertaken and identified in the ordinance or 58682
resolution, and upon which parcels such project is being, or will 58683
be, undertaken;58684

        (d) The portion of school district compensation value that 58685
was exempted from taxation for the preceding tax year and for 58686
which payments in lieu of taxes for the preceding tax year were 58687
provided to the school district under division (D)(1) of section 58688
5709.40 of the Revised Code.58689

       (e) The portion of school district compensation value that 58690
was exempted from taxation for the preceding tax year pursuant to 58691
such an ordinance or resolution, if and to the extent that, on or 58692
before April 1, 2006, the fiscal officer of the municipal 58693
corporation that adopted the ordinance, or of the township or 58694
county that adopted the resolution, certifies and provides 58695
appropriate supporting documentation to the tax commissioner and 58696
the director of development that, based on hold-harmless 58697
provisions in any agreement between the school district and the 58698
legislative authority of the municipal corporation, board of 58699
township trustees, or board of county commissioners that was 58700
entered into on or before June 1, 2005, the ability or obligation 58701
of the municipal corporation, township, or county to repay bonds, 58702
notes, or other financial obligations issued or entered into prior 58703
to January 1, 2006, will be impaired, including obligations to or 58704
of any other body corporate and politic with whom the legislative 58705
authority of the municipal corporation or board of township 58706
trustees or county commissioners has entered into an agreement 58707
pertaining to the use of service payments derived from the 58708
improvements exempted;58709

       (f) The portion of school district compensation value that 58710
was exempted from taxation for the preceding tax year pursuant to 58711
such an ordinance or resolution, if the ordinance or resolution is 58712
adopted prior to January 1, 2006, in a municipal corporation with 58713
a population that exceeds one hundred thousand, as shown by the 58714
most recent federal decennial census, that includes a major 58715
employment center and that is adjacent to historically distressed 58716
neighborhoods, if the legislative authority of the municipal 58717
corporation that exempted the property prepares an economic 58718
analysis that demonstrates that all taxes generated within the 58719
incentive district accruing to the state by reason of improvements 58720
constructed within the district during its existence exceed the 58721
amount the state pays the school district under section 3317.022 58722
of the Revised Code attributable to such property exemption from 58723
the school district's recognized valuation. The analysis shall be 58724
submitted to and approved by the department of development prior 58725
to January 1, 2006, and the department shall not unreasonably 58726
withhold approval.58727

       (g) The portion of school district compensation value that 58728
was exempted from taxation for the preceding tax year under such 58729
an ordinance or resolution, if the ordinance or resolution is 58730
adopted prior to January 1, 2006, and if service payments have 58731
been pledged to be used for mixed-use riverfront entertainment 58732
development in any county with a population that exceeds six 58733
hundred thousand, as shown by the most recent federal decennial 58734
census;58735

       (h) The portion of school district compensation value that 58736
was exempted from taxation for the preceding tax year under such 58737
an ordinance or resolution, if, prior to January 1, 2006, the 58738
legislative authority of a municipal corporation, board of 58739
township trustees, or board of county commissioners has pledged 58740
service payments for a designated transportation capacity project 58741
approved by the transportation review advisory council under 58742
Chapter 5512. of the Revised Code;58743

       (i) The portion of school district compensation value that 58744
was exempted from taxation for the preceding tax year under such 58745
an ordinance or resolution if the legislative authority of a 58746
municipal corporation, board of township trustees, or board of 58747
county commissioners have, by January 1, 2006, pledged proceeds 58748
for designated transportation improvement projects that involve 58749
federal funds for which the proceeds are used to meet a local 58750
share match requirement for such funding.58751

       As used in division (A)(6) of this section, "project" has the 58752
same meaning as in section 5709.40 of the Revised Code.58753

       (7) The aggregate value of real property in the school 58754
district for which an exemption from taxation is granted by an 58755
ordinance or resolution adopted on or after January 1, 2006, under 58756
Chapter 725. or 1728., sections 3735.65 to 3735.70, or section 58757
5709.62, 5709.63, 5709.632, 5709.84, or 5709.88 of the Revised 58758
Code, as indicated on the list of exempted property for the 58759
preceding tax year under section 5713.08 of the Revised Code and 58760
as if such property had been assessed for taxation that year, 58761
minus the product determined by multiplying (a) the aggregate 58762
value of the real property in the school district exempted from 58763
taxation for the preceding tax year under any of the chapters or 58764
sections specified in this division, by (b) a fraction, the 58765
numerator of which is the difference between (i) the amount of 58766
anticipated revenue such school district would have received for 58767
the preceding tax year if the real property exempted from taxation 58768
had not been exempted from taxation and (ii) the aggregate amount 58769
of payments in lieu of taxes on the exempt real property for the 58770
preceding tax year and other compensation received for the 58771
preceding tax year by the school district pursuant to any 58772
agreements entered into on or after January 1, 2006, under section 58773
5709.82 of the Revised Code between the school district and the 58774
legislative authority of a political subdivision that acted under 58775
the authority of a chapter or statute specified in this division, 58776
that were entered into in relation to such exemption, and the 58777
denominator of which is the amount of anticipated revenue such 58778
school district would have received in the preceding fiscal year 58779
if the real property exempted from taxation had not been exempted.58780

       (B) On or before the first day of May each year, the tax 58781
commissioner shall certify to the department of education and the 58782
office of budget and management the total taxable real property 58783
value of railroads and, separately, the total taxable tangible 58784
personal property value of all public utilities for the preceding 58785
tax year, by school district and by county of location.58786

       (C) If a public utility has properly and timely filed a 58787
petition for reassessment under section 5727.47 of the Revised 58788
Code with respect to an assessment issued under section 5727.23 of 58789
the Revised Code affecting taxable property apportioned by the tax 58790
commissioner to a school district, the taxable value of public 58791
utility tangible personal property included in the certification 58792
under divisions (A)(2) and (B) of this section for the school 58793
district shall include only the amount of taxable value on the 58794
basis of which the public utility paid tax for the preceding year 58795
as provided in division (B)(1) or (2) of section 5727.47 of the 58796
Revised Code.58797

       (D) If on the basis of the information certified under 58798
division (A) of this section, the department determines that any 58799
district fails in any year to meet the qualification requirement 58800
specified in division (A) of section 3317.01 of the Revised Code, 58801
the department shall immediately request the tax commissioner to 58802
determine the extent to which any school district income tax 58803
levied by the district under Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code 58804
shall be included in meeting that requirement. Within five days of 58805
receiving such a request from the department, the tax commissioner 58806
shall make the determination required by this division and report 58807
the quotient obtained under division (D)(3) of this section to the 58808
department and the office of budget and management. This quotient 58809
represents the number of mills that the department shall include 58810
in determining whether the district meets the qualification 58811
requirement of division (A) of section 3317.01 of the Revised 58812
Code.58813

       The tax commissioner shall make the determination required by 58814
this division as follows:58815

       (1) Multiply one mill times the total taxable value of the 58816
district as determined in divisions (A)(1) and (2) of this 58817
section;58818

       (2) Estimate the total amount of tax liability for the 58819
current tax year under taxes levied by Chapter 5748. of the 58820
Revised Code that are apportioned to current operating expenses of 58821
the district, excluding any income tax receipts allocated for the 58822
project cost, debt service, or maintenance set-aside associated 58823
with a state-assisted classroom facilities project as authorized 58824
by section 3318.052 of the Revised Code;58825

       (3) Divide the amount estimated under division (D)(2) of this 58826
section by the product obtained under division (D)(1) of this 58827
section.58828

       (E)(1) On or before June 1, 2006, and the first day of April 58829
of each year thereafter, the director of development shall report 58830
to the department of education, the tax commissioner, and the 58831
director of budget and management the total amounts of payments 58832
received by each city, local, exempted village, or joint 58833
vocational school district for the preceding tax year pursuant to 58834
division (D) of section 5709.40, division (D) of section 5709.73, 58835
division (C) of section 5709.78, or division (B)(1), (B)(2), (C), 58836
or (D) of section 5709.82 of the Revised Code in relation to 58837
exemptions from taxation granted pursuant to an ordinance adopted 58838
by the legislative authority of a municipal corporation under 58839
division (C) of section 5709.40 of the Revised Code, or a 58840
resolution adopted by a board of township trustees or board of 58841
county commissioners under division (C) of section 5709.73 or 58842
division (B) of section 5709.78 of the Revised Code, respectively. 58843
On or before April 1, 2006, and the first day of March of each 58844
year thereafter, the treasurer of each city, local, exempted 58845
village, or joint vocational school district that has entered into 58846
such an agreement shall report to the director of development the 58847
total amounts of such payments the district received for the 58848
preceding tax year as provided in this section. The state board of 58849
education, in accordance with sections 3319.31 and 3319.311 of the 58850
Revised Code, may suspend or revoke the license of a treasurer 58851
found to have willfully reported erroneous, inaccurate, or 58852
incomplete data under this division.58853

       (2) On or before April 1, 2007, and the first day of April of 58854
each year thereafter, the director of development shall report to 58855
the department of education, the tax commissioner, and the 58856
director of budget and management the total amounts of payments 58857
received by each city, local, exempted village, or joint 58858
vocational school district for the preceding tax year pursuant to 58859
divisions (B), (C), and (D) of section 5709.82 of the Revised Code 58860
in relation to exemptions from taxation granted pursuant to 58861
ordinances or resolutions adopted on or after January 1, 2006, 58862
under Chapter 725. or 1728., sections 3735.65 to 3735.70, or 58863
section 5709.62, 5709.63, 5709.632, 5709.84, or 5709.88 of the 58864
Revised Code. On or before March 1, 2007, and the first day of 58865
March of each year thereafter, the treasurer of each city, local, 58866
exempted village, or joint vocational school district that has 58867
entered into such an agreement shall report to the director of 58868
development the total amounts of such payments the district 58869
received for the preceding tax year as provided by this section. 58870
The state board of education, in accordance with sections 3319.31 58871
and 3319.311 of the Revised Code, may suspend or revoke the 58872
license of a treasurer found to have willfully reported erroneous, 58873
inaccurate, or incomplete data under this division.58874

       Sec. 3317.022. (A) The department of education shall compute 58875
and distribute state core foundation funding to each eligible 58876
school district for the fiscal year, using the information 58877
obtained under section 3317.021 of the Revised Code in the 58878
calendar year in which the fiscal year begins, as prescribed in 58879
the following divisions:58880

       (1) An opportunity grant calculated according to the 58881
following formula:58882

       The formula amount X (formula ADM + preschool scholarship 58883
ADM) X the district's state share index58884

       (2) Targeted assistance funds calculated under divisions (A) 58885
and (B) of section 3317.0217 of the Revised Code;58886

       (3) Additional state aid for special education and related 58887
services provided under Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code 58888
calculated as the sum of the following:58889

       (a) The district's category one special education ADM X the 58890
amount specified in division (A) of section 3317.013 of the 58891
Revised Code X the district's state share index;58892

       (b) The district's category two special education ADM X the 58893
amount specified in division (B) of section 3317.013 of the 58894
Revised Code X the district's state share index;58895

       (c) The district's category three special education ADM X the 58896
amount specified in division (C) of section 3317.013 of the 58897
Revised Code X the district's state share index;58898

       (d) The district's category four special education ADM X the 58899
amount specified in division (D) of section 3317.013 of the 58900
Revised Code X the district's state share index;58901

       (e) The district's category five special education ADM X the 58902
amount specified in division (E) of section 3317.013 of the 58903
Revised Code X the district's state share index;58904

       (f) The district's category six special education ADM X the 58905
amount specified in division (F) of section 3317.013 of the 58906
Revised Code X the district's state share index.58907

       (4) Kindergarten through third grade literacy funds 58908
calculated according to the following formula:58909

       [($125, in fiscal year 2014, or $175, in fiscal year 2015) X 58910
formula ADM for grades kindergarten through three X the district's 58911
state share index] + [($100, in fiscal year 2014, or $160, in 58912
fiscal year 2015) X formula ADM for grades kindergarten through 58913
three]58914

       For purposes of this calculation, the department shall 58915
subtract from a district's formula ADM for grades kindergarten 58916
through three the number of students reported under division 58917
(B)(3)(e) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code as enrolled in an 58918
internet- or computer-based community school who are in grades 58919
kindergarten through three.58920

       (5) Economically disadvantaged funds calculated according to 58921
the following formula:58922

       ($250, in fiscal year 2014, or $253, in fiscal year 2015) X 58923
(the district's economically disadvantaged index) X the number of 58924
students who are economically disadvantaged as reported under 58925
division (B)(21) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code58926

       (6) Limited English proficiency funds calculated as the sum 58927
of the following:58928

       (a) The district's category one limited English proficient 58929
ADM X the amount specified in division (A) of section 3317.016 of 58930
the Revised Code X the district's state share index;58931

       (b) The district's category two limited English proficient 58932
ADM X the amount specified in division (B) of section 3317.016 of 58933
the Revised Code X the district's state share index;58934

       (c) The district's category three limited English proficient 58935
ADM X the amount specified in division (C) of section 3317.016 of 58936
the Revised Code X the district's state share index.58937

       (7)(a) Gifted identification funds calculated according to 58938
the following formula:58939

($5, in fiscal year 2014, or $5.05, in fiscal year 2015) X the
58940

district's formula ADM
58941

       (b) Gifted unit funding calculated under section 3317.051 of 58942
the Revised Code.58943

       (8) Career-technical education funds calculated as the sum of 58944
the following:58945

       (a) The district's category one career-technical education 58946
ADM X the amount specified in division (A) of section 3317.014 of 58947
the Revised Code X the district's state share index;58948

       (b) The district's category two career-technical education 58949
ADM X the amount specified in division (B) of section 3317.014 of 58950
the Revised Code X the district's state share index;58951

       (c) The district's category three career-technical education 58952
ADM X the amount specified in division (C) of section 3317.014 of 58953
the Revised Code X the district's state share index;58954

       (d) The district's category four career-technical education 58955
ADM X the amount specified in division (D) of section 3317.014 of 58956
the Revised Code X the district's state share index;58957

       (e) The district's category five career-technical education 58958
ADM X the amount specified in division (E) of section 3317.014 of 58959
the Revised Code X the district's state share index.58960

       Payment of funds under division (A)(8) of this section is 58961
subject to approval under section 3317.161 of the Revised Code.58962

       (9) Career-technical education associated services funds 58963
calculated according to the following formula:58964

The district's state share index X the amount for career-technical
58965
education associated services specified in section 3317.014 of the
58966
Revised Code X the sum of categories one through five
58967
career-technical education ADM
58968

       (B) In any fiscal year, a school district shall spend for 58969
purposes that the department designates as approved for special 58970
education and related services expenses at least the amount 58971
calculated as follows:58972

(The formula amount X the total special education ADM) + (the
58973
district's category one special education ADM X the amount
58974
specified in division (A) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code)
58975
+ (the district's category two special education ADM X the amount
58976
specified in division (B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code)
58977
+ (the district's category three special education ADM X the
58978
amount specified in division (C) of section 3317.013 of the
58979
Revised Code) + (the district's category four special education
58980
ADM X the amount specified in division (D) of section 3317.013 of
58981
the Revised Code) + (the district's category five special
58982
education ADM X the amount specified in division (E) of section
58983
3317.013 of the Revised Code) + (the district's category six
58984
special education ADM X the amount specified in division (F) of
58985
section 3317.013 of the Revised Code)
58986

       The purposes approved by the department for special education 58987
expenses shall include, but shall not be limited to, 58988
identification of children with disabilities, compliance with 58989
state rules governing the education of children with disabilities 58990
and prescribing the continuum of program options for children with 58991
disabilities, provision of speech language pathology services, and 58992
the portion of the school district's overall administrative and 58993
overhead costs that are attributable to the district's special 58994
education student population.58995

       The scholarships deducted from the school district's account 58996
under sections 3310.41 and 3310.55 of the Revised Code shall be 58997
considered to be an approved special education and related 58998
services expense for the purpose of the school district's 58999
compliance with this division.59000

       (C) In any fiscal year, a school district receiving funds 59001
under division (A)(8) of this section shall spend those funds only 59002
for the purposes that the department designates as approved for 59003
career-technical education expenses. Career-technical educational 59004
expenses approved by the department shall include only expenses 59005
connected to the delivery of career-technical programming to 59006
career-technical students. The department shall require the school 59007
district to report data annually so that the department may 59008
monitor the district's compliance with the requirements regarding 59009
the manner in which funding received under division (A)(8) of this 59010
section may be spent.59011

       (D) In any fiscal year, a school district receiving funds 59012
under division (A)(9) of this section, or through a transfer of 59013
funds pursuant to division (I) of section 3317.023 of the Revised 59014
Code, shall spend those funds only for the purposes that the 59015
department designates as approved for career-technical education 59016
associated services expenses, which may include such purposes as 59017
apprenticeship coordinators, coordinators for other 59018
career-technical education services, career-technical evaluation, 59019
and other purposes designated by the department. The department 59020
may deny payment under division (A)(9) of this section to any 59021
district that the department determines is not operating those 59022
services or is using funds paid under division (A)(9) of this 59023
section, or through a transfer of funds pursuant to division (I) 59024
of section 3317.023 of the Revised Code, for other purposes.59025

       (E) All funds received under division (A)(8) of this section 59026
shall be spent in the following manner:59027

        (1) At least seventy-five per cent of the funds shall be 59028
spent on curriculum development, purchase, and implementation; 59029
instructional resources and supplies; industry-based program 59030
certification; student assessment, credentialing, and placement; 59031
curriculum specific equipment purchases and leases; 59032
career-technical student organization fees and expenses; home and 59033
agency linkages; work-based learning experiences; professional 59034
development; and other costs directly associated with 59035
career-technical education programs including development of new 59036
programs.59037

        (2) Not more than twenty-five per cent of the funds shall be 59038
used for personnel expenditures. 59039

       (F) A school district shall spend the funds it receives under 59040
division (A)(5) of this section in accordance with section 3317.25 59041
of the Revised Code.59042

       Sec. 3317.023.  (A) The amounts required to be paid to a 59043
district under this chapter shall be adjusted by the amount of the 59044
computations made under divisions (B) to (K) of this section. 59045

       As used in this section:59046

       (1) "VEPDCTPD" means a school district or group of school 59047
districts designated by the department of education as being 59048
responsible for the planning for and provision of vocational59049
career-technical education services to students within the 59050
district or group. A community school established under Chapter 59051
3314. of the Revised Code or a STEM school established under 59052
Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code may be assigned to a 59053
career-technical planning district.59054

       (2) "Lead district" means a school district, including a 59055
joint vocational school district, designated by the department as 59056
a VEPDCTPD, or designated to provide primary vocational59057
career-technical education leadership within a VEPDCTPD composed 59058
of a group of districts and, if assigned to the CTPD, community 59059
schools and STEM schools. 59060

       (B) If a local school district, or a, city, or exempted 59061
village school district to which a governing board of an 59062
educational service center provides services pursuant to an 59063
agreement entered into under section 3313.843 of the Revised Code, 59064
deduct the amount of the payment required for the reimbursement of 59065
the governing board under that section 3317.11 of the Revised 59066
Code.59067

       (C)(1) If the district is required to pay to or entitled to 59068
receive tuition from another school district under division (C)(2) 59069
or (3) of section 3313.64 or section 3313.65 of the Revised Code, 59070
or if the superintendent of public instruction is required to 59071
determine the correct amount of tuition and make a deduction or 59072
credit under section 3317.08 of the Revised Code, deduct and 59073
credit such amounts as provided in division (J) of section 3313.64 59074
or section 3317.08 of the Revised Code.59075

       (2) For each child for whom the district is responsible for 59076
tuition or payment under division (A)(1) of section 3317.082 or 59077
section 3323.091 of the Revised Code, deduct the amount of tuition 59078
or payment for which the district is responsible.59079

       (D) If the district has been certified by the superintendent 59080
of public instruction under section 3313.90 of the Revised Code as 59081
not in compliance with the requirements of that section, deduct an 59082
amount equal to ten per cent of the amount computed for the 59083
district under this chapter.59084

       (E) If the district has received a loan from a commercial 59085
lending institution for which payments are made by the 59086
superintendent of public instruction pursuant to division (E)(3) 59087
of section 3313.483 of the Revised Code, deduct an amount equal to 59088
such payments.59089

       (F)(1) If the district is a party to an agreement entered 59090
into under division (D), (E), or (F) of section 3311.06 or 59091
division (B) of section 3311.24 of the Revised Code and is 59092
obligated to make payments to another district under such an 59093
agreement, deduct an amount equal to such payments if the district 59094
school board notifies the department in writing that it wishes to 59095
have such payments deducted.59096

       (2) If the district is entitled to receive payments from 59097
another district that has notified the department to deduct such 59098
payments under division (F)(1) of this section, add the amount of 59099
such payments.59100

       (G) If the district is required to pay an amount of funds to 59101
a cooperative education district pursuant to a provision described 59102
by division (B)(4) of section 3311.52 or division (B)(8) of 59103
section 3311.521 of the Revised Code, deduct such amounts as 59104
provided under that provision and credit those amounts to the 59105
cooperative education district for payment to the district under 59106
division (B)(1) of section 3317.19 of the Revised Code.59107

       (H)(1) If a district is educating a student entitled to 59108
attend school in another district pursuant to a shared education 59109
contract, compact, or cooperative education agreement other than 59110
an agreement entered into pursuant to section 3313.842 of the 59111
Revised Code, credit to that educating district on an FTE basis 59112
both of the following:59113

       (a) An amount equal to the formula amount.59114

       (b) AnAny amount equal to $5,732 times the state share 59115
percentage times any multiple applicable to the student for fiscal 59116
year 2009 pursuant to section 3317.013 or 3317.014 of the Revised 59117
Code, as those sections existed for that fiscal year.59118

       (2) Deduct any amount credited pursuant to division (H)(1) of 59119
this section from amounts paid to the school district in which the 59120
student is entitled to attend school pursuant to section 3313.64 59121
or 3313.65 of the Revised Code.59122

       (3) If the district is required by a shared education 59123
contract, compact, or cooperative education agreement to make 59124
payments to an educational service center, deduct the amounts from 59125
payments to the district and add them to the amounts paid to the 59126
service center pursuant to section 3317.11 of the Revised Code.59127

       (I)(1) If a district, including a joint vocational school 59128
district, is a lead district of a VEPDCTPD, credit to that 59129
district the following amountsamount calculated for all theeach59130
school districtsdistrict within that VEPDCTPD:59131

       (a) In any fiscal year except fiscal year 2012 or 2013, the 59132
amount computed under division (D)(2) of section 3317.022 of the 59133
Revised Code;59134

       (b) In fiscal years 2012 and 2013, an amount equal to the 59135
following:59136

state share
percentage
index
X .05 X
$5,732
the formula amount
X
59137

the sum of categories one
59138

and two vocational
through five career-technical
education ADM
59139

       (2) Deduct from each appropriate district that is not a lead 59140
district, the amount attributable to that district that is 59141
credited to a lead district under division (I)(1) of this section.59142

       (J) If the department pays a joint vocational school district 59143
under division (G)(4)(C)(3) of section 3317.16 of the Revised Code 59144
for excess costs of providing special education and related 59145
services to a student with a disability, as calculated under 59146
division (G)(2)(C)(1) of that section, the department shall 59147
deduct the amount of that payment from the city, local, or 59148
exempted village school district that is responsible as specified 59149
in that section for the excess costs.59150

       (K)(1) If the district reports an amount of excess cost for 59151
special education services for a child under division (C) of 59152
section 3323.14 of the Revised Code, the department shall pay that 59153
amount to the district.59154

       (2) If the district reports an amount of excess cost for 59155
special education services for a child under division (C) of 59156
section 3323.14 of the Revised Code, the department shall deduct 59157
that amount from the district of residence of that child.59158

       Sec. 3317.0212. The department of education shall make no 59159
payments under this section for fiscal year 2012 or 2013.59160

       (A) As used in this section:59161

        (1) "Assigned bus" means a school bus used to transport 59162
qualifying riders.59163

       (2) "Nontraditional ridership" means the average number of 59164
qualifying riders who are enrolled in a community school 59165
established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, in a STEM 59166
school established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code, or in 59167
a nonpublic school and are provided school bus service by a school 59168
district during the first full week of October.59169

        (3) "Qualifying riders" means resident students enrolled in 59170
regular education in grades kindergarten to twelve who are 59171
provided school bus service by a school district and who live more 59172
than one mile from the school they attend, including students with 59173
dual enrollment in a joint vocational school district or a 59174
cooperative education school district, and students enrolled in a 59175
community school, STEM school, or nonpublic school.59176

       (4)(2) "Qualifying ridership" means the average number of 59177
qualifying riders who are provided school bus service by a school 59178
district during the first full week of October.59179

       (5)(3) "Rider density" means the number of qualifying riders59180
total ADM per square mile of a school district.59181

       (6)(4) "School bus service" means a school district's 59182
transportation of qualifying riders in any of the following types 59183
of vehicles:59184

       (a) School buses owned or leased by the district;59185

       (b) School buses operated by a private contractor hired by 59186
the district;59187

       (c) School buses operated by another school district or 59188
entity with which the district has contracted, either as part of a 59189
consortium for the provision of transportation or otherwise.59190

       (B) Not later than the fifteenth day of October each year, 59191
each city, local, and exempted village school district shall 59192
report to the department of education its qualifying ridership, 59193
nontraditional ridership, number of qualifying riders per assigned 59194
bus, and any other information requested by the department. 59195
Subsequent adjustments to the reported numbers shall be made only 59196
in accordance with rules adopted by the department.59197

       (C) The department shall calculate the statewide 59198
transportation cost per student as follows:59199

       (1) Determine each city, local, and exempted village school 59200
district's transportation cost per student by dividing the 59201
district's total costs for school bus service in the previous 59202
fiscal year by its qualifying ridership in the previous fiscal 59203
year.59204

       (2) After excluding districts that do not provide school bus 59205
service and the ten districts with the highest transportation 59206
costs per student and the ten districts with the lowest 59207
transportation costs per student, divide the aggregate cost for 59208
school bus service for the remaining districts in the previous 59209
fiscal year by the aggregate qualifying ridership of those 59210
districts in the previous fiscal year.59211

       (D) The department shall calculate the statewide 59212
transportation cost per mile as follows:59213

       (1) Determine each city, local, and exempted village school 59214
district's transportation cost per mile by dividing the district's 59215
total costs for school bus service in the previous fiscal year by 59216
its total number of miles driven for school bus service in the 59217
previous fiscal year.59218

       (2) After excluding districts that do not provide school bus 59219
service and the ten districts with the highest transportation 59220
costs per mile and the ten districts with the lowest 59221
transportation costs per mile, divide the aggregate cost for 59222
school bus service for the remaining districts in the previous 59223
fiscal year by the aggregate miles driven for school bus service 59224
in those districts in the previous fiscal year.59225

       (E) The department shall calculate each city, local, and 59226
exempted village school district's transportation base payment as 59227
follows:59228

       (1) Multiply the statewide transportation cost per student by 59229
the district's qualifying ridership for the current fiscal year.59230

       (2) Multiply the statewide transportation cost per mile by 59231
the district's total number of miles driven for school bus service 59232
in the current fiscal year.59233

       (3) Multiply the greater of the amounts calculated under 59234
divisions (E)(1) and (2) of this section by the greater of sixty 59235
per cent or the district's state share percentageindex, as 59236
defined in section 3317.02 of the Revised Code.59237

       (F) The department shall calculate each city, local, and 59238
exempted village school district's nontraditional ridership 59239
adjustment according to the following formula:59240

(nontraditional ridership for the current fiscal year /
59241

qualifying ridership for the current fiscal year) X 0.1 X
59242

transportation base payment
59243

       (G) If a city, local, or exempted village school district 59244
offers school bus service to all resident students who are 59245
enrolled in regular education in district schools in grades nine 59246
to twelve and who live more than one mile from the school they 59247
attend, the department shall calculate the district's high school 59248
ridership adjustment according to the following formula:59249

0.025 X transportation base payment
59250

       (H) If a city, local, or exempted village school district 59251
offers school bus service to students enrolled in grades 59252
kindergarten to eight who live more than one mile, but two miles 59253
or less, from the school they attend, the department shall 59254
calculate an additional adjustment according to the following 59255
formula:59256

0.025 X transportation base payment
59257

       (I)(1) The department annually shall establish a target 59258
number of qualifying riders per assigned bus for each city, local, 59259
and exempted village school district. The department shall use the 59260
most recently available data in establishing the target number. 59261
The target number shall be based on the statewide median number of 59262
qualifying riders per assigned bus as adjusted to reflect the 59263
district's rider density in comparison to the rider density of all 59264
other districts. The department shall post on the department's web 59265
site each district's target number of qualifying riders per 59266
assigned bus and a description of how the target number was 59267
determined.59268

       (2) The department shall determine each school district's 59269
efficiency index by dividing the district's median number of 59270
qualifying riders per assigned bus by its target number of 59271
qualifying riders per assigned bus.59272

       (3) The department shall determine each city, local, and 59273
exempted village school district's efficiency adjustment as 59274
follows:59275

       (a) If the district's efficiency index is equal to or greater 59276
than 1.5, the efficiency adjustment shall be calculated according 59277
to the following formula:59278

0.1 X transportation base payment
59279

       (b) If the district's efficiency index is less than 1.5 but 59280
equal to or greater than 1.0, the efficiency adjustment shall be 59281
calculated according to the following formula:59282

[(efficiency index – 1) / 5] X transportation base payment
59283

       (c) If the district's efficiency index is less than 1.0, the 59284
efficiency adjustment shall be zero.59285

       (J) The department shall pay each city, local, and exempted 59286
village school district the lesser of the following:59287

       (1) The sum of the amounts calculated under divisions (E) to 59288
(H) and (I)(3) of this section;59289

       (2) The district's total costs for school bus service for the 59290
prior fiscal year.59291

       (K) In addition to funds paid under division (J)(E) of this 59292
section, each city, local, and exempted village district shall 59293
receive in accordance with rules adopted by the state board of 59294
education a payment for students transported by means other than 59295
school bus service and whose transportation is not funded under 59296
division (C) of section 3317.024 of the Revised Code. The rules 59297
shall include provisions for school district reporting of such 59298
students.59299

       (G)(1) In fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the department shall 59300
pay each district a pro rata portion of the amounts calculated 59301
under division (E) of this section and described in division (F) 59302
of this section, based on state appropriations.59303

       (2) In addition to the prorated payment under division (G)(1) 59304
of this section, in fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the department 59305
shall pay each school district that meets the conditions 59306
prescribed in division (G)(3) of this section an additional amount 59307
equal to the difference of (a) the amounts calculated under 59308
division (E) of this section and prescribed in division (F) of 59309
this section minus (b) that prorated payment.59310

       (3) Division (G)(2) of this section applies to each school 59311
district that meets all of the following conditions:59312

       (a) The district qualifies for the calculation of a payment 59313
under division (E) of this section because it transports students 59314
on board-owned or contractor-owned school buses.59315

       (b) The district's state share index is greater than or equal 59316
to 0.50.59317

       (c) The district's rider density is at or below the median 59318
rider density of all districts that qualify for calculation of a 59319
payment under division (E) of this section.59320

       (H) Each city, local, and exempted village school district 59321
shall report all data used to calculate funding for transportation 59322
under this section through the education management information 59323
system pursuant to section 3301.0714 of the Revised Code.59324

       Sec. 3317.0213. (A) The department of education shall compute 59325
and pay in accordance with this section additional state aid for 59326
preschool special education children to each city, local, and 59327
exempted village school district and to each institution, as 59328
defined in section 3323.091 of the Revised Code. Funding shall be 59329
provided for children who are not enrolled in kindergarten and who 59330
are under age six on the thirtieth day of September of the 59331
academic year, or on the first day of August of the academic year 59332
if the school district in which the child is enrolled has adopted 59333
a resolution under division (A)(3) of section 3321.01 of the 59334
Revised Code, but not less than age three on the first day of 59335
December of the academic year.59336

       The additional state aid shall be calculated under the 59337
following formula:59338

       ($4,000 X the number of preschool special education children) 59339
+ the sum of the following:59340

       (1) The district's or institution's category one special 59341
education preschool students X the amount specified in division 59342
(A) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code X the district's state 59343
share index X 0.50;59344

       (2) The district's or institution's category two special 59345
education preschool students X the amount specified in division 59346
(B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code X the district's state 59347
share index X 0.50;59348

       (3) The district's or institution's category three special 59349
education preschool students X the amount specified in division 59350
(C) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code X the district's state 59351
share index X 0.50;59352

       (4) The district's or institution's category four special 59353
education preschool students X the amount specified in division 59354
(D) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code X the district's state 59355
share index X 0.50;59356

       (5) The district's or institution's category five special 59357
education preschool students X the amount specified in division 59358
(E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code X the district's state 59359
share index X 0.50;59360

       (6) The district's or institution's category six special 59361
education preschool students X the amount specified in division 59362
(F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code X the district's state 59363
share index X 0.50.59364

       The special education disability categories for preschool 59365
children used in this section are the same categories prescribed 59366
in section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.59367

       As used in division (A) of this section, the state share 59368
index of a student enrolled in an institution is the state share 59369
index of the school district in which the student is entitled to 59370
attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised 59371
Code.59372

       (B) If an educational service center is providing services to 59373
preschool special education students under agreement with the 59374
city, local, or exempted village school district in which the 59375
students are entitled to attend school, that district may 59376
authorize the department to transfer funds computed under this 59377
section to the service center providing those services.59378

       (C) If a county DD board is providing services to preschool 59379
special education students under agreement with the city, local, 59380
or exempted village school district in which the students are 59381
entitled to attend school, the department shall deduct from the 59382
district's payment computed under division (A) of this section the 59383
total amount of those funds that are attributable to the students 59384
served by the county DD board and pay that amount to that board.59385

       Sec. 3317.0214. (A) The department shall compute and pay in 59386
accordance with this section additional state aid to school 59387
districts for students in categories two through six special 59388
education ADM. If a district's costs for the fiscal year for a 59389
student in its categories two through six special education ADM 59390
exceed the threshold catastrophic cost for serving the student, 59391
the district may submit to the superintendent of public 59392
instruction documentation, as prescribed by the superintendent, of 59393
all its costs for that student. Upon submission of documentation 59394
for a student of the type and in the manner prescribed, the 59395
department shall pay to the district an amount equal to the sum of 59396
the following:59397

       (1) One-half of the district's costs for the student in 59398
excess of the threshold catastrophic cost;59399

       (2) The product of one-half of the district's costs for the 59400
student in excess of the threshold catastrophic cost multiplied by 59401
the district's state share index.59402

       (B) For purposes of division (A) of this section, the 59403
threshold catastrophic cost for serving a student equals:59404

       (1) For a student in the school district's category two, 59405
three, four, or five special education ADM, twenty-seven thousand 59406
three hundred seventy-five dollars;59407

       (2) For a student in the district's category six special 59408
education ADM, thirty-two thousand eight hundred fifty dollars.59409

       (C) The district shall report under division (A) of this 59410
section, and the department shall pay for, only the costs of 59411
educational expenses and the related services provided to the 59412
student in accordance with the student's individualized education 59413
program. Any legal fees, court costs, or other costs associated 59414
with any cause of action relating to the student may not be 59415
included in the amount.59416

       Sec. 3317.0217. Payment of the amount calculated for a school 59417
district under this section shall be made under division (A) of 59418
section 3317.022 of the Revised Code.59419

       (A) The department of education shall annually compute 59420
targeted assistance funds to school districts, as follows:59421

        (1) Calculate the local wealth per pupil of each school 59422
district, which equals the following sum:59423

        (a) One-half times the quotient of (i) the district's 59424
three-year average valuation divided by (ii) its formula ADM; plus59425

        (b) One-half times the quotient of (i) the average of the 59426
total federal adjusted gross income of the school district's 59427
residents for the three years most recently reported under section 59428
3317.021 of the Revised Code divided by (ii) its formula ADM.59429

        (2) Rank all school districts in order of local wealth per 59430
pupil, from the district with the lowest local wealth per pupil to 59431
the district with the highest local wealth per pupil.59432

       (3) Compute the statewide wealth per pupil, which equals the 59433
following sum:59434

        (a) One-half times the quotient of (i) the sum of the 59435
three-year average valuations for all school districts divided by 59436
(ii) the sum of formula ADM counts for all schools districts; plus59437

        (b) One-half times the quotient of (i) the sum of the 59438
three-year average total federal adjusted gross incomes for all 59439
school districts divided by (ii) the sum of formula ADM counts for 59440
all school districts.59441

        (4) Compute each district's wealth index by dividing the 59442
statewide wealth per pupil by the district's local wealth per 59443
pupil.59444

       (5) Compute the per pupil targeted assistance for each 59445
eligible school district in accordance with the following formula:59446

(Threshold local wealth per pupil - the district's local wealth
59447
per pupil)
59448

X target millage X the district's wealth index
59449

       Where:59450

       (a) An "eligible school district" means a school district 59451
with a local wealth per pupil less than that of the school 59452
district with the 490th lowest local wealth per pupil.59453

       (b) "Threshold local wealth per pupil" means the local wealth 59454
per pupil of the school district with the 490th lowest local 59455
wealth per pupil.59456

       (c) "Target millage" means 0.006.59457

        If the result of the calculation for a school district under 59458
division (A)(5) of this section is less than zero, the district's 59459
targeted assistance shall be zero.59460

       (6) Calculate the aggregate amount to be paid as targeted 59461
assistance funds to each school district under division (A) of 59462
section 3317.022 of the Revised Code by multiplying the per pupil 59463
targeted assistance computed under division (A)(5) of this section 59464
by the district's net formula ADM.59465

       As used in this division, a district's "net formula ADM" 59466
means its formula ADM minus the number of community school 59467
students reported under division (B)(3)(d) of section 3317.03 of 59468
the Revised Code X 0.75, the number of internet- and 59469
computer-based community school students reported under division 59470
(B)(3)(e) of that section, and the number of scholarship students 59471
reported under divisions (B)(3)(f), (g), and (l) of that section.59472

       (B) The department shall annually compute supplemental 59473
targeted assistance funds to school districts, as follows:59474

       (1) Compute each district's agricultural percentage as the 59475
quotient of (a) the three-year average tax valuation of real 59476
property in the district that is classified as agricultural 59477
property divided by (b) the three-year average tax valuation of 59478
all of the real property in the district. For purposes of this 59479
computation, a district's "three-year average tax valuation" means 59480
the average of a district's tax valuation for fiscal years 2012, 59481
2013, and 2014.59482

       (2) Determine each district's agricultural targeted 59483
percentage as follows:59484

       (a) If a district's agricultural percentage is greater than 59485
or equal to 0.10, then the district's agricultural targeted 59486
percentage shall be equal to 0.40.59487

       (b) If a district's agricultural percentage is less than 59488
0.10, then the district's agricultural targeted percentage shall 59489
be equal to 4 X the district's agricultural percentage.59490

       (3) Calculate the aggregate amount to be paid as supplemental 59491
targeted assistance funds to each school district under division 59492
(A) of section 3317.022 of the Revised Code by multiplying the 59493
district's agricultural targeted percentage by the amount 59494
calculated for the district under division (A)(6) of this section.59495

       Sec. 3317.03.  (A) The superintendent of each city, local, 59496
and exempted village school district and of each educational 59497
service center shall, for the schools under the superintendent's 59498
supervision, certify to the state board of education on or before 59499
the fifteenth day of October in each year for the first full 59500
school week in October, and on or before the fifteenth day of 59501
February in each year for the first full school week in February,59502
the average daily membership of students receiving services from 59503
schools under the superintendent's supervision, and the numbers of 59504
other students entitled to attend school in the district under 59505
section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code the superintendent 59506
is required to report under this section, so that the department 59507
of education can calculate the district's formula ADM. If a school 59508
under the superintendent's supervision is closed for one or more 59509
days during thata week for which the average daily membership 59510
must be certified due to hazardous weather conditions or other 59511
circumstances described in the first paragraph of division 59512
(B)(A)(1) of section 3317.013313.482 of the Revised Code, the 59513
superintendent may apply to the superintendent of public 59514
instruction for a waiver, under which the superintendent of public 59515
instruction may exempt the district superintendent from certifying 59516
the average daily membership for that school for that week and 59517
specify an alternate week in the same month for certifying the 59518
average daily membership of that school.59519

       The average daily membership during sucha week shall consist 59520
of the sum of the following:59521

       (1) On an FTE basis, the number of students in grades 59522
kindergarten through twelve receiving any educational services 59523
from the district, except that the following categories of 59524
students shall not be included in the determination:59525

       (a) Students enrolled in adult education classes;59526

       (b) Adjacent or other district students enrolled in the 59527
district under an open enrollment policy pursuant to section 59528
3313.98 of the Revised Code;59529

       (c) Students receiving services in the district pursuant to a 59530
compact, cooperative education agreement, or a contract, but who 59531
are entitled to attend school in another district pursuant to 59532
section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code;59533

       (d) Students for whom tuition is payable pursuant to sections 59534
3317.081 and 3323.141 of the Revised Code;59535

       (e) Students receiving services in the district through a 59536
scholarship awarded under either section 3310.41 or sections 59537
3310.51 to 3310.64 of the Revised Code.59538

       (2) On an FTE basis, the number of students entitled to 59539
attend school in the district pursuant to section 3313.64 or 59540
3313.65 of the Revised Code, but receiving educational services in 59541
grades kindergarten through twelve from one or more of the 59542
following entities:59543

       (a) A community school pursuant to Chapter 3314. of the 59544
Revised Code, including any participation in a college pursuant to 59545
Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code while enrolled in such community 59546
school;59547

       (b) An alternative school pursuant to sections 3313.974 to 59548
3313.979 of the Revised Code as described in division (I)(2)(a) or 59549
(b) of this section;59550

       (c) A college pursuant to Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code, 59551
except when the student is enrolled in the college while also 59552
enrolled in a community school pursuant to Chapter 3314. or a 59553
science, technology, engineering, and mathematics school 59554
established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code;59555

       (d) An adjacent or other school district under an open 59556
enrollment policy adopted pursuant to section 3313.98 of the 59557
Revised Code;59558

       (e) An educational service center or cooperative education 59559
district;59560

       (f) Another school district under a cooperative education 59561
agreement, compact, or contract;59562

       (g) A chartered nonpublic school with a scholarship paid 59563
under section 3310.08 of the Revised Code, if the students 59564
qualified for the scholarship under section 3310.03 of the Revised 59565
Code;59566

        (h) An alternative public provider or a registered private 59567
provider with a scholarship awarded under either section 3310.41 59568
or sections 3310.51 to 3310.64 of the Revised Code. 59569

       As used in this section, "alternative public provider" and 59570
"registered private provider" have the same meanings as in section 59571
3310.41 or 3310.51 of the Revised Code, as applicable.59572

       (i) A science, technology, engineering, and mathematics 59573
school established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code, 59574
including any participation in a college pursuant to Chapter 3365. 59575
of the Revised Code while enrolled in the school;59576

       (j) A college-preparatory boarding school established under 59577
Chapter 3328. of the Revised Code.59578

       (3) The number of students enrolled in a joint vocational 59579
school district or under a vocationalcareer-technical education 59580
compact, excluding any students entitled to attend school in the 59581
district under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code who 59582
are enrolled in another school district through an open enrollment 59583
policy as reported under division (A)(2)(d) of this section and 59584
then enroll in a joint vocational school district or under a 59585
vocationalcareer-technical education compact;59586

       (4) The number of children with disabilities, other than 59587
preschool children with disabilities, entitled to attend school in 59588
the district pursuant to section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised 59589
Code who are placed by the district with a county DD board, minus 59590
the number of such children placed with a county DD board in 59591
fiscal year 1998. If this calculation produces a negative number, 59592
the number reported under division (A)(4) of this section shall be 59593
zero.59594

       (B) To enable the department of education to obtain the data 59595
needed to complete the calculation of payments pursuant to this 59596
chapter, in addition to the average daily membership, each 59597
superintendent shall report separately the following student 59598
counts for the same weekweeks for which average daily membership 59599
is certified:59600

       (1) The total average daily membership in regular learning 59601
day classes included in the report under division (A)(1) or (2) of 59602
this section for each of the individual grades kindergarten 59603
through twelve in schools under the superintendent's supervision;59604

       (2) The number of all preschool children with disabilities 59605
enrolled as of the first day of December in classes in the 59606
district that arefor whom the district is eligible for approval59607
to receive funding under division (B) of section 3317.053317.021359608
of the Revised Code and the number of those classes, which shall 59609
be reported not later than the fifteenth day of December, in 59610
accordance with rules adopted under thatthe disability categories 59611
prescribed in section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;59612

       (3) The number of children entitled to attend school in the 59613
district pursuant to section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised 59614
Code who are:59615

       (a) Participating in a pilot project scholarship program 59616
established under sections 3313.974 to 3313.979 of the Revised 59617
Code as described in division (I)(2)(a) or (b) of this section;59618

       (b) Enrolled in a college under Chapter 3365. of the Revised 59619
Code, except when the student is enrolled in the college while 59620
also enrolled in a community school pursuant to Chapter 3314. or a 59621
science, technology, engineering, and mathematics school 59622
established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code;59623

       (c) Enrolled in an adjacent or other school district under 59624
section 3313.98 of the Revised Code;59625

       (d) Enrolled in a community school established under Chapter 59626
3314. of the Revised Code that is not an internet- or 59627
computer-based community school as defined in section 3314.02 of 59628
the Revised Code, including any participation in a college 59629
pursuant to Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code while enrolled in 59630
such community school;59631

       (e) Enrolled in an internet- or computer-based community 59632
school, as defined in section 3314.02 of the Revised Code, 59633
including any participation in a college pursuant to Chapter 3365. 59634
of the Revised Code while enrolled in the school;59635

        (f) Enrolled in a chartered nonpublic school with a 59636
scholarship paid under section 3310.08 of the Revised Code and who 59637
qualified for the scholarship under section 3310.03 of the Revised 59638
Code;59639

       (g) Enrolled in kindergarten through grade twelve in an 59640
alternative public provider or a registered private provider with 59641
a scholarship awarded under section 3310.41 of the Revised Code;59642

        (h) Enrolled as a preschool child with a disability in an 59643
alternative public provider or a registered private provider with 59644
a scholarship awarded under section 3310.41 of the Revised Code;59645

       (i) Participating in a program operated by a county DD board 59646
or a state institution;59647

       (j) Enrolled in a science, technology, engineering, and 59648
mathematics school established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised 59649
Code, including any participation in a college pursuant to Chapter 59650
3365. of the Revised Code while enrolled in the school;59651

       (k) Enrolled in a college-preparatory boarding school 59652
established under Chapter 3328. of the Revised Code;59653

       (l) Enrolled in an alternative public provider or a 59654
registered private provider with a scholarship awarded under 59655
sections 3310.51 to 3310.64 of the Revised Code.59656

       (4) The number of pupils enrolled in joint vocational 59657
schools;59658

       (5) The combined average daily membership of children with 59659
disabilities reported under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section 59660
receiving special education services for the category one 59661
disability described in division (A) of section 3317.013 of the 59662
Revised Code, including children attending a special education 59663
program operated by an alternative public provider or a registered 59664
private provider with a scholarship awarded under sections 3310.51 59665
to 3310.64 of the Revised Code;59666

       (6) The combined average daily membership of children with 59667
disabilities reported under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section 59668
receiving special education services for category two disabilities 59669
described in division (B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code, 59670
including children attending a special education program operated 59671
by an alternative public provider or a registered private provider 59672
with a scholarship awarded under sections 3310.51 to 3310.64 of 59673
the Revised Code;59674

       (7) The combined average daily membership of children with 59675
disabilities reported under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section 59676
receiving special education services for category three 59677
disabilities described in division (C) of section 3317.013 of the 59678
Revised Code, including children attending a special education 59679
program operated by an alternative public provider or a registered 59680
private provider with a scholarship awarded under sections 3310.51 59681
to 3310.64 of the Revised Code;59682

       (8) The combined average daily membership of children with 59683
disabilities reported under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section 59684
receiving special education services for category four 59685
disabilities described in division (D) of section 3317.013 of the 59686
Revised Code, including children attending a special education 59687
program operated by an alternative public provider or a registered 59688
private provider with a scholarship awarded under sections 3310.51 59689
to 3310.64 of the Revised Code;59690

       (9) The combined average daily membership of children with 59691
disabilities reported under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section 59692
receiving special education services for the category five 59693
disabilities described in division (E) of section 3317.013 of the 59694
Revised Code, including children attending a special education 59695
program operated by an alternative public provider or a registered 59696
private provider with a scholarship awarded under sections 3310.51 59697
to 3310.64 of the Revised Code;59698

       (10) The combined average daily membership of children with 59699
disabilities reported under division (A)(1) or (2) and under 59700
division (B)(3)(h) of this section receiving special education 59701
services for category six disabilities described in division (F) 59702
of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code, including children 59703
attending a special education program operated by an alternative 59704
public provider or a registered private provider with a 59705
scholarship awarded under either section 3310.41 or sections 59706
3310.51 to 3310.64 of the Revised Code;59707

       (11) The average daily membership of pupils reported under 59708
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section enrolled in category one 59709
vocationalcareer-technical education programs or classes, 59710
described in division (A) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code, 59711
operated by the school district or by another district that is a 59712
member of the district's career-technical planning district, other 59713
than a joint vocational school district, or by an educational 59714
service center, excluding any student reported under division 59715
(B)(3)(e) of this section as enrolled in an internet- or 59716
computer-based community school, notwithstanding division (C)(H)59717
of section 3317.02 of the Revised Code and division (C)(3) of this 59718
section;59719

       (12) The average daily membership of pupils reported under 59720
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section enrolled in category two 59721
vocationalcareer-technical education programs or services, 59722
described in division (B) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code, 59723
operated by the school district or another school district that is 59724
a member of the district's career-technical planning district, 59725
other than a joint vocational school district, or by an 59726
educational service center, excluding any student reported under 59727
division (B)(3)(e) of this section as enrolled in an internet- or 59728
computer-based community school, notwithstanding division (C)(H)59729
of section 3317.02 of the Revised Code and division (C)(3) of this 59730
section;59731

       Beginning with fiscal year 2010, vocational education ADM 59732
shall not be used to calculate a district's funding but shall be 59733
reported under divisions (B)(11) and (12) of this section for 59734
statistical purposes.59735

       (13) The average daily membership of pupils reported under 59736
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section enrolled in category three 59737
career-technical education programs or services, described in 59738
division (C) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code, operated by 59739
the school district or another school district that is a member of 59740
the district's career-technical planning district, other than a 59741
joint vocational school district, or by an educational service 59742
center, notwithstanding division (H) of section 3317.02 of the 59743
Revised Code and division (C)(3) of this section;59744

       (14) The average daily membership of pupils reported under 59745
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section enrolled in category four 59746
career-technical education programs or services, described in 59747
division (D) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code, operated by 59748
the school district or another school district that is a member of 59749
the district's career-technical planning district, other than a 59750
joint vocational school district, or by an educational service 59751
center, notwithstanding division (H) of section 3317.02 of the 59752
Revised Code and division (C)(3) of this section;59753

       (15) The average daily membership of pupils reported under 59754
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section enrolled in category five 59755
career-technical education programs or services, described in 59756
division (E) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code, operated by 59757
the school district or another school district that is a member of 59758
the district's career-technical planning district, other than a 59759
joint vocational school district, or by an educational service 59760
center, notwithstanding division (H) of section 3317.02 of the 59761
Revised Code and division (C)(3) of this section;59762

       (16) The average daily membership of pupils reported under 59763
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section who are limited English 59764
proficient students described in division (A) of section 3317.016 59765
of the Revised Code, excluding any student reported under division 59766
(B)(3)(e) of this section as enrolled in an internet- or 59767
computer-based community school;59768

       (17) The average daily membership of pupils reported under 59769
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section who are limited English 59770
proficient students described in division (B) of section 3317.016 59771
of the Revised Code, excluding any student reported under division 59772
(B)(3)(e) of this section as enrolled in an internet- or 59773
computer-based community school;59774

       (18) The average daily membership of pupils reported under 59775
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section who are limited English 59776
proficient students described in division (C) of section 3317.016 59777
of the Revised Code, excluding any student reported under division 59778
(B)(3)(e) of this section as enrolled in an internet- or 59779
computer-based community school;59780

       (19) The average number of children transported by the school 59781
district on board-owned or contractor-owned and -operated buses, 59782
reported in accordance with rules adopted by the department of 59783
education;59784

       (14)(20)(a) The number of children, other than preschool 59785
children with disabilities, the district placed with a county DD 59786
board in fiscal year 1998;. Division (B)(20)(a) of this section 59787
does not apply after fiscal year 2013.59788

       (b) The number of children with disabilities, other than 59789
preschool children with disabilities, placed with a county DD 59790
board in the current fiscal year to receive special education 59791
services for the category one disability described in division (A) 59792
of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;59793

       (c) The number of children with disabilities, other than 59794
preschool children with disabilities, placed with a county DD 59795
board in the current fiscal year to receive special education 59796
services for category two disabilities described in division (B) 59797
of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;59798

       (d) The number of children with disabilities, other than 59799
preschool children with disabilities, placed with a county DD 59800
board in the current fiscal year to receive special education 59801
services for category three disabilities described in division (C) 59802
of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;59803

       (e) The number of children with disabilities, other than 59804
preschool children with disabilities, placed with a county DD 59805
board in the current fiscal year to receive special education 59806
services for category four disabilities described in division (D) 59807
of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;59808

       (f) The number of children with disabilities, other than 59809
preschool children with disabilities, placed with a county DD 59810
board in the current fiscal year to receive special education 59811
services for the category five disabilities described in division 59812
(E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;59813

       (g) The number of children with disabilities, other than 59814
preschool children with disabilities, placed with a county DD 59815
board in the current fiscal year to receive special education 59816
services for category six disabilities described in division (F) 59817
of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.59818

       (21) The number of students who are economically 59819
disadvantaged, as defined by the department, excluding any student 59820
reported under division (B)(3)(e) of this section as enrolled in 59821
an internet- or computer-based community school. A student shall 59822
not be categorically excluded from the number reported under 59823
division (B)(21) of this section based on anything other than 59824
family income.59825

       (C)(1) The average daily membership in divisions (B)(1) to 59826
(12) of this section shall be based upon the number of full-time 59827
equivalent students. The state board of education shall adopt 59828
rules defining full-time equivalent students and for determining 59829
the average daily membership therefrom for the purposes of 59830
divisions (A), (B), and (D) of this section. Each student enrolled 59831
in kindergarten shall be counted as one full-time equivalent 59832
student regardless of whether the student is enrolled in a 59833
part-day or all-day kindergarten class.59834

       (2) A student enrolled in a community school established 59835
under Chapter 3314., a science, technology, engineering, and 59836
mathematics school established under Chapter 3326., or a 59837
college-preparatory boarding school established under Chapter 59838
3328. of the Revised Code shall be counted in the formula ADM and, 59839
if applicable, the category one, two, three, four, five, or six 59840
special education ADM of the school district in which the student 59841
is entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of 59842
the Revised Code for the same proportion of the school year that 59843
the student is counted in the enrollment of the community school, 59844
the science, technology, engineering, and mathematics school, or 59845
the college-preparatory boarding school for purposes of section 59846
3314.08, 3326.33, or 3328.24 of the Revised Code. Notwithstanding 59847
the number of students reported pursuant to division (B)(3)(d), 59848
(e), (j), or (k) of this section, the department may adjust the 59849
formula ADM of a school district to account for students entitled 59850
to attend school in the district under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 59851
of the Revised Code who are enrolled in a community school, a 59852
science, technology, engineering, and mathematics school, or a 59853
college-preparatory boarding school for only a portion of the 59854
school year.59855

        (3) No child shall be counted as more than a total of one 59856
child in the sum of the average daily memberships of a school 59857
district under division (A), divisions (B)(1) to (12)(22), or 59858
division (D) of this section, except as follows:59859

       (a) A child with a disability described in section 3317.013 59860
of the Revised Code may be counted both in formula ADM and in 59861
category one, two, three, four, five, or six special education ADM 59862
and, if applicable, in category one or, two vocational, three, 59863
four, or five career-technical education ADM. As provided in 59864
division (C)(H) of section 3317.02 of the Revised Code, such a 59865
child shall be counted in category one, two, three, four, five, or 59866
six special education ADM in the same proportion that the child is 59867
counted in formula ADM.59868

       (b) A child enrolled in vocationalcareer-technical education 59869
programs or classes described in section 3317.014 of the Revised 59870
Code may be counted both in formula ADM and category one or, two 59871
vocational, three, four, or five career-technical education ADM 59872
and, if applicable, in category one, two, three, four, five, or 59873
six special education ADM. Such a child shall be counted in 59874
category one or, two vocational, three, four, or five 59875
career-technical education ADM in the same proportion as the 59876
percentage of time that the child spends in the vocational59877
career-technical education programs or classes.59878

       (4) Based on the information reported under this section, the 59879
department of education shall determine the total student count, 59880
as defined in section 3301.011 of the Revised Code, for each 59881
school district.59882

       (D)(1) The superintendent of each joint vocational school 59883
district shall certify to the superintendent of public instruction 59884
on or before the fifteenth day of October in each year for the 59885
first full school week in October the formula ADM, for purposes of 59886
section 3318.42 of the Revised Code and for any other purpose 59887
prescribed by law for which "formula ADM" of the joint vocational 59888
district is a factor, and on or before the fifteenth day of 59889
February in each year for the first full school week in February, 59890
the average daily membership. If a school operated by the joint 59891
vocational school district is closed for one or more days during 59892
thata week for which the average daily membership must be 59893
certified due to hazardous weather conditions or other 59894
circumstances described in the first paragraph of division 59895
(B)(A)(1) of section 3317.013313.482 of the Revised Code, the 59896
superintendent may apply to the superintendent of public 59897
instruction for a waiver, under which the superintendent of public 59898
instruction may exempt the district superintendent from certifying 59899
the formula ADMaverage daily membership for that school for that 59900
week and specify an alternate week in the same month for 59901
certifying the formula ADMaverage daily membership of that 59902
school.59903

       The formula ADMaverage daily membership, except as otherwise 59904
provided in this division, shall consist of the average daily 59905
membership during sucha week, on an FTE basis, of the number of 59906
students receiving any educational services from the district, 59907
including students enrolled in a community school established 59908
under Chapter 3314. or a science, technology, engineering, and 59909
mathematics school established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised 59910
Code who are attending the joint vocational district under an 59911
agreement between the district board of education and the 59912
governing authority of the community school or the governing body 59913
of the science, technology, engineering, and mathematics school59914
and are entitled to attend school in a city, local, or exempted 59915
village school district whose territory is part of the territory 59916
of the joint vocational district.59917

        The following categories of students shall not be included in 59918
the determination made under division (D)(1) of this section:59919

       (a) Students enrolled in adult education classes;59920

       (b) Adjacent or other district joint vocational students 59921
enrolled in the district under an open enrollment policy pursuant 59922
to section 3313.98 of the Revised Code;59923

       (c) Students receiving services in the district pursuant to a 59924
compact, cooperative education agreement, or a contract, but who 59925
are entitled to attend school in a city, local, or exempted 59926
village school district whose territory is not part of the 59927
territory of the joint vocational district;59928

       (d) Students for whom tuition is payable pursuant to sections 59929
3317.081 and 3323.141 of the Revised Code.59930

       (2) To enable the department of education to obtain the data 59931
needed to complete the calculation of payments pursuant to this 59932
chapter, in addition to the formula ADM, each superintendent shall 59933
report separately the average daily membership included in the 59934
report under division (D)(1) of this section for each of the 59935
following categories of students for each of the same weekweeks59936
for which formula ADM is certified:59937

       (a) Students enrolled in each individual grade included in 59938
the joint vocational district schools;59939

       (b) Children with disabilities receiving special education 59940
services for the category one disability described in division (A) 59941
of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;59942

       (c) Children with disabilities receiving special education 59943
services for the category two disabilities described in division 59944
(B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;59945

       (d) Children with disabilities receiving special education 59946
services for category three disabilities described in division (C) 59947
of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;59948

       (e) Children with disabilities receiving special education 59949
services for category four disabilities described in division (D) 59950
of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;59951

       (f) Children with disabilities receiving special education 59952
services for the category five disabilities described in division 59953
(E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;59954

       (g) Children with disabilities receiving special education 59955
services for category six disabilities described in division (F) 59956
of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;59957

       (h) Students receiving category one vocational59958
career-technical education services, described in division (A) of 59959
section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;59960

       (i) Students receiving category two vocational59961
career-technical education services, described in division (B) of 59962
section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;59963

       (j) Students receiving category three career-technical 59964
education services, described in division (C) of section 3317.014 59965
of the Revised Code;59966

       (k) Students receiving category four career-technical 59967
education services, described in division (D) of section 3317.014 59968
of the Revised Code;59969

       (l) Students receiving category five career-technical 59970
education services, described in division (E) of section 3317.014 59971
of the Revised Code;59972

       (m) Limited English proficient students described in division 59973
(A) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code;59974

       (n) Limited English proficient students described in division 59975
(B) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code;59976

       (o) Limited English proficient students described in division 59977
(C) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code;59978

       (p) Students who are economically disadvantaged, as defined 59979
by the department. A student shall not be categorically excluded 59980
from the number reported under division (D)(2)(p) of this section 59981
based on anything other than family income.59982

       The superintendent of each joint vocational school district 59983
shall also indicate the city, local, or exempted village school 59984
district in which each joint vocational district pupil is entitled 59985
to attend school pursuant to section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the 59986
Revised Code.59987

       (E) In each school of each city, local, exempted village, 59988
joint vocational, and cooperative education school district there 59989
shall be maintained a record of school membership, which record 59990
shall accurately show, for each day the school is in session, the 59991
actual membership enrolled in regular day classes. For the purpose 59992
of determining average daily membership, the membership figure of 59993
any school shall not include any pupils except those pupils 59994
described by division (A) of this section. The record of 59995
membership for each school shall be maintained in such manner that 59996
no pupil shall be counted as in membership prior to the actual 59997
date of entry in the school and also in such manner that where for 59998
any cause a pupil permanently withdraws from the school that pupil 59999
shall not be counted as in membership from and after the date of 60000
such withdrawal. There shall not be included in the membership of 60001
any school any of the following:60002

       (1) Any pupil who has graduated from the twelfth grade of a 60003
public or nonpublic high school;60004

       (2) Any pupil who is not a resident of the state;60005

       (3) Any pupil who was enrolled in the schools of the district 60006
during the previous school year when assessments were administered 60007
under section 3301.0711 of the Revised Code but did not take one 60008
or more of the assessments required by that section and was not 60009
excused pursuant to division (C)(1) or (3) of that section;60010

       (4) Any pupil who has attained the age of twenty-two years, 60011
except for veterans of the armed services whose attendance was 60012
interrupted before completing the recognized twelve-year course of 60013
the public schools by reason of induction or enlistment in the 60014
armed forces and who apply for reenrollment in the public school 60015
system of their residence not later than four years after 60016
termination of war or their honorable discharge.60017

       If, however, any veteran described by division (E)(4) of this 60018
section elects to enroll in special courses organized for veterans 60019
for whom tuition is paid under the provisions of federal laws, or 60020
otherwise, that veteran shall not be included in average daily 60021
membership.60022

       Notwithstanding division (E)(3) of this section, the 60023
membership of any school may include a pupil who did not take an 60024
assessment required by section 3301.0711 of the Revised Code if 60025
the superintendent of public instruction grants a waiver from the 60026
requirement to take the assessment to the specific pupil and a 60027
parent is not paying tuition for the pupil pursuant to section 60028
3313.6410 of the Revised Code. The superintendent may grant such a 60029
waiver only for good cause in accordance with rules adopted by the 60030
state board of education.60031

       Except as provided in divisions (B)(2) and (F) of this 60032
section, the average daily membership figure of any local, city, 60033
exempted village, or joint vocational school district shall be 60034
determined by dividing the figure representing the sum of the 60035
number of pupils enrolled during each day the school of attendance 60036
is actually open for instruction during the week for which the 60037
average daily membership is being certified by the total number of 60038
days the school was actually open for instruction during that 60039
week. For purposes of state funding, "enrolled" persons are only 60040
those pupils who are attending school, those who have attended 60041
school during the current school year and are absent for 60042
authorized reasons, and those children with disabilities currently 60043
receiving home instruction.60044

       The average daily membership figure of any cooperative 60045
education school district shall be determined in accordance with 60046
rules adopted by the state board of education.60047

       (F)(1) If the formula ADM for the first full school week in 60048
February is at least three per cent greater than that certified 60049
for the first full school week in the preceding October, the 60050
superintendent of schools of any city, exempted village, or joint 60051
vocational school district or educational service center shall 60052
certify such increase to the superintendent of public instruction. 60053
Such certification shall be submitted no later than the fifteenth 60054
day of February. For the balance of the fiscal year, beginning 60055
with the February payments, the superintendent of public 60056
instruction shall use the increased formula ADM in calculating or 60057
recalculating the amounts to be allocated in accordance with 60058
section 3317.022 or 3317.16 of the Revised Code. In no event shall 60059
the superintendent use an increased membership certified to the 60060
superintendent after the fifteenth day of February. Division 60061
(F)(1) of this section does not apply after fiscal year 2006.60062

       (2) If on the first school day of April the total number of 60063
classes or units for preschool children with disabilities that are 60064
eligible for approval under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the 60065
Revised Code exceeds the number of units that have been approved 60066
for the year under that division, the superintendent of schools of 60067
any city, exempted village, or cooperative education school 60068
district or educational service center shall make the 60069
certifications required by this section for that day. If the 60070
department determines additional units can be approved for the 60071
fiscal year within any limitations set forth in the acts 60072
appropriating moneys for the funding of such units, the department 60073
shall approve additional units for the fiscal year on the basis of 60074
such average daily membership. For each unit so approved, the 60075
department shall pay an amount computed in the manner prescribed 60076
in section 3317.052 or 3317.19 and section 3317.053 of the Revised 60077
Code.60078

       (3) If a student attending a community school under Chapter 60079
3314., a science, technology, engineering, and mathematics school 60080
established under Chapter 3326., or a college-preparatory boarding 60081
school established under Chapter 3328. of the Revised Code is not 60082
included in the formula ADM certified for the school district in 60083
which the student is entitled to attend school under section 60084
3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code, the department of 60085
education shall adjust the formula ADM of that school district to 60086
include the student in accordance with division (C)(2) of this 60087
section, and shall recalculate the school district's payments 60088
under this chapter for the entire fiscal year on the basis of that 60089
adjusted formula ADM. This requirement applies regardless of 60090
whether the student was enrolled, as defined in division (E) of 60091
this section, in the community school, the science, technology, 60092
engineering, and mathematics school, or the college-preparatory 60093
boarding school during the weekweeks for which the formula ADM is 60094
being certified.60095

        (4)(2) If a student awarded an educational choice scholarship 60096
is not included in the formula ADM of the school district from 60097
which the department deducts funds for the scholarship under 60098
section 3310.08 of the Revised Code, the department shall adjust 60099
the formula ADM of that school district to include the student to 60100
the extent necessary to account for the deduction, and shall 60101
recalculate the school district's payments under this chapter for 60102
the entire fiscal year on the basis of that adjusted formula ADM. 60103
This requirement applies regardless of whether the student was 60104
enrolled, as defined in division (E) of this section, in the 60105
chartered nonpublic school, the school district, or a community 60106
school during the weekweeks for which the formula ADM is being 60107
certified.60108

       (5)(3) If a student awarded a scholarship under the Jon 60109
Peterson special needs scholarship program is not included in the 60110
formula ADM of the school district from which the department 60111
deducts funds for the scholarship under section 3310.55 of the 60112
Revised Code, the department shall adjust the formula ADM of that 60113
school district to include the student to the extent necessary to 60114
account for the deduction, and shall recalculate the school 60115
district's payments under this chapter for the entire fiscal year 60116
on the basis of that adjusted formula ADM. This requirement 60117
applies regardless of whether the student was enrolled, as defined 60118
in division (E) of this section, in an alternative public 60119
provider, a registered private provider, or the school district 60120
during the weekweeks for which the formula ADM is being 60121
certified. 60122

       (G)(1)(a) The superintendent of an institution operating a 60123
special education program pursuant to section 3323.091 of the 60124
Revised Code shall, for the programs under such superintendent's 60125
supervision, certify to the state board of education, in the 60126
manner prescribed by the superintendent of public instruction, 60127
both of the following:60128

       (i) The average daily membership of all children with 60129
disabilities other than preschool children with disabilities 60130
receiving services at the institution for each category of 60131
disability described in divisions (A) to (F) of section 3317.013 60132
of the Revised Code;60133

       (ii) The average daily membership of all preschool children 60134
with disabilities in classes or programs approved annually by the 60135
department of education for unitfor whom the district is eligible 60136
to receive funding under section 3317.053317.0213 of the Revised 60137
Code, reported according to the categories prescribed in section 60138
3317.013 of the Revised Code.60139

       (b) The superintendent of an institution with vocational60140
career-technical education units approved under division (A) of60141
section 3317.05 of the Revised Code shall, for the units under the 60142
superintendent's supervision, certify to the state board of 60143
education the average daily membership in those units, in the 60144
manner prescribed by the superintendent of public instruction.60145

       (2) The superintendent of each county DD board that maintains 60146
special education classes under section 3317.20 of the Revised 60147
Code or units approvedprovides services to preschool children 60148
with disabilities pursuant to section 3317.05 of the Revised Code60149
an agreement between the DD board and the appropriate school 60150
district shall do both of the following:60151

       (a) Certify to the state board, in the manner prescribed by 60152
the board, the average daily membership in classes under section 60153
3317.20 of the Revised Code for each school district that has 60154
placed children in the classes;60155

       (b) Certify to the state board, in the manner prescribed by 60156
the board, the number of all preschool children with disabilities 60157
enrolled as of the first day of December in classes for which the 60158
DD board is eligible for approvalto receive funding under 60159
division (B) of section 3317.053317.0213 of the Revised Code, 60160
reported according to the categories prescribed in section 60161
3317.013 of the Revised Code, and the number of those classes.60162

       (3)(a) If on the first school day of April the number of 60163
classes or units maintained for preschool children with 60164
disabilities by the county DD board that are eligible for approval 60165
under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the Revised Code is 60166
greater than the number of units approved for the year under that 60167
division, the superintendent shall make the certification required 60168
by this section for that day.60169

       (b) If the department determines that additional classes or 60170
units can be approved for the fiscal year within any limitations 60171
set forth in the acts appropriating moneys for the funding of the 60172
classes and units described in division (G)(3)(a) of this section, 60173
the department shall approve and fund additional units for the 60174
fiscal year on the basis of such average daily membership. For 60175
each unit so approved, the department shall pay an amount computed 60176
in the manner prescribed in sections 3317.052 and 3317.053 of the 60177
Revised Code.60178

       (H) Except as provided in division (I) of this section, when 60179
any city, local, or exempted village school district provides 60180
instruction for a nonresident pupil whose attendance is 60181
unauthorized attendance as defined in section 3327.06 of the 60182
Revised Code, that pupil's membership shall not be included in 60183
that district's membership figure used in the calculation of that 60184
district's formula ADM or included in the determination of any 60185
unitfunding approved for the district under section 3317.0560186
3317.0213 of the Revised Code. The reporting official shall report 60187
separately the average daily membership of all pupils whose 60188
attendance in the district is unauthorized attendance, and the 60189
membership of each such pupil shall be credited to the school 60190
district in which the pupil is entitled to attend school under 60191
division (B) of section 3313.64 or section 3313.65 of the Revised 60192
Code as determined by the department of education.60193

       (I)(1) A city, local, exempted village, or joint vocational 60194
school district admitting a scholarship student of a pilot project 60195
district pursuant to division (C) of section 3313.976 of the 60196
Revised Code may count such student in its average daily 60197
membership.60198

       (2) In any year for which funds are appropriated for pilot 60199
project scholarship programs, a school district implementing a 60200
state-sponsored pilot project scholarship program that year 60201
pursuant to sections 3313.974 to 3313.979 of the Revised Code may 60202
count in average daily membership:60203

       (a) All children residing in the district and utilizing a 60204
scholarship to attend kindergarten in any alternative school, as 60205
defined in section 3313.974 of the Revised Code;60206

       (b) All children who were enrolled in the district in the 60207
preceding year who are utilizing a scholarship to attend an 60208
alternative school.60209

       (J) The superintendent of each cooperative education school 60210
district shall certify to the superintendent of public 60211
instruction, in a manner prescribed by the state board of 60212
education, the applicable average daily memberships for all 60213
students in the cooperative education district, also indicating 60214
the city, local, or exempted village district where each pupil is 60215
entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the 60216
Revised Code.60217

       (K) If the superintendent of public instruction determines 60218
that a component of the average daily membership certified or 60219
reported by a district superintendent, or other reporting entity, 60220
is not correct, the superintendent of public instruction may order 60221
that the formula ADM used for the purposes of payments under any 60222
section of Title XXXIII of the Revised Code be adjusted in the 60223
amount of the error.60224

       Sec. 3317.032. (A) Each city, local, exempted village, and 60225
cooperative education school district, each educational service 60226
center, each county DD board, and each institution operating a 60227
special education program pursuant to section 3323.091 of the 60228
Revised Code shall, in accordance with procedures adopted by the 60229
state board of education, maintain a record of district membership 60230
of both of the following:60231

       (1) All preschool children with disabilities in units 60232
approved under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the Revised 60233
Code; 60234

       (2) Allall preschool children with disabilities who are not 60235
in units approved under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the 60236
Revised Code but who are otherwise served by a special education 60237
program.60238

       (B) The superintendent of each district, board, or 60239
institution subject to division (A) of this section shall certify 60240
to the state board of education, in accordance with procedures 60241
adopted by that board, membership figures of all preschool 60242
children with disabilities whose membership is maintained under 60243
division (A)(2) of this section. The figures certified under this 60244
division shall be used in the determination of the ADM used to 60245
compute funds for educational service center governing boards 60246
under section 3317.11 of the Revised Code.60247

       Sec. 3317.05.  (A) For the purpose of calculating payments 60248
under sections 3317.052 and 3317.053 of the Revised Code, theThe60249
department of education shall determine for each institution, by 60250
the last day of January of each year and based on information 60251
certified under section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, the number of 60252
vocationalcareer-technical education units or fractions of units 60253
approved by the department on the basis of standards and rules 60254
adopted by the state board of education. As used in this division60255
section, "institution" means an institution operated by a 60256
department specified in section 3323.091 of the Revised Code and 60257
that provides vocationalcareer-technical education programs under 60258
the supervision of the division of vocationalcareer-technical60259
education of the department that meet the standards and rules for 60260
these programs, including licensure of professional staff involved 60261
in the programs, as established by the state board.60262

       (B) For the purpose of calculating payments under sections 60263
3317.052, 3317.053, 3317.11, and 3317.19 of the Revised Code, the 60264
department shall determine, based on information certified under 60265
section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, the following by the last day 60266
of January of each year for each educational service center, for 60267
each school district, including each cooperative education school 60268
district, for each institution eligible for payment under section 60269
3323.091 of the Revised Code, and for each county DD board: the 60270
number of classes operated by the school district, service center, 60271
institution, or county DD board for preschool children with 60272
disabilities, or fraction thereof, including in the case of a 60273
district or service center that is a funding agent, classes taught 60274
by a licensed teacher employed by that district or service center 60275
under section 3313.841 of the Revised Code, approved annually by 60276
the department on the basis of standards and rules adopted by the 60277
state board.60278

       (C) For the purpose of calculating payments under sections 60279
3317.052, 3317.053, 3317.11, and 3317.19 of the Revised Code, the 60280
department shall determine, based on information certified under 60281
section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, the following by the last day 60282
of January of each year for each school district, including each 60283
cooperative education school district, for each institution 60284
eligible for payment under section 3323.091 of the Revised Code, 60285
and for each county DD board: the number of units for related 60286
services, as defined in section 3323.01 of the Revised Code, for 60287
preschool children with disabilities approved annually by the 60288
department on the basis of standards and rules adopted by the 60289
state board.60290

       (D) All of the arithmetical calculations made under this 60291
section shall be carried to the second decimal place. The total 60292
number of units for school districts, service centers, and60293
institutions approved annually under this section shall not exceed 60294
the number of units included in the estimate of cost for these 60295
units and appropriations made for them by the general assembly.60296

        In the case of units for preschool children with disabilities 60297
described in division (B) of this section, the department shall 60298
approve only preschool units for children who are under age six on 60299
the thirtieth day of September of the academic year, or on the 60300
first day of August of the academic year if the school district in 60301
which the child is enrolled has adopted a resolution under 60302
division (A)(3) of section 3321.01 of the Revised Code, but not 60303
less than age three on the first day of December of the academic 60304
year, except that such a unit may include one or more children who 60305
are under age three or are age six or over on the applicable date, 60306
as reported under division (B)(2) or (G)(2)(b) of section 3317.03 60307
of the Revised Code, if such children have been admitted to the 60308
unit pursuant to rules of the state board. The number of units for 60309
county DD boards and institutions eligible for payment under 60310
section 3323.091 of the Revised Code approved under this section 60311
shall not exceed the number that can be funded with appropriations 60312
made for such purposes by the general assembly.60313

       No unit shall be approved under divisions (B) and (C) of this 60314
section unless a plan has been submitted and approved under 60315
Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code.60316

       (C) The department shall pay each institution approved for 60317
career-technical education units under division (A) of this 60318
section an amount for the total of all the units approved under 60319
that division. The amount for each unit shall be the sum of the 60320
minimum salary for the teacher of the unit, calculated on the 60321
basis of the teacher's training level and years of experience 60322
pursuant to the salary schedule prescribed in the version of 60323
section 3317.13 of the Revised Code in effect prior to July 1, 60324
2001, plus fifteen per cent of that minimum salary amount, and 60325
nine thousand five hundred ten dollars. Each institution that 60326
receives unit funds under this division annually shall report to 60327
the department on the delivery of services and the performance of 60328
students and any other information required by the department to 60329
evaluate the institution's career-technical education program.60330

       (D) For each unit allocated to an institution pursuant to 60331
division (A) of this section, the department, in addition to the 60332
amount specified in division (B) of this section, shall pay a 60333
supplemental unit allowance of $7,227.60334

       Sec. 3317.051.  (A) As used in this section, "gifted unit 60335
ADM" means a school district's formula ADM minus the number of 60336
students reported by a district under divisions (A)(2)(a) and (i) 60337
of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.60338

       (B) The department of education shall compute and pay to a 60339
school district funds based on units for services to students 60340
identified as gifted under Chapter 3324. of the Revised Code as 60341
prescribed by this section.60342

       (C) The department shall allocate gifted units for a school 60343
district as follows:60344

       (1) One gifted coordinator unit shall be allocated for every 60345
3,300 students in a district's gifted unit ADM, with a minimum of 60346
0.5 units and a maximum of 8 units allocated for the district.60347

       (2) One gifted intervention specialist unit shall be 60348
allocated for every 1,100 students in a district's gifted unit 60349
ADM, with a minimum of 0.3 units allocated for the district.60350

       (D) The department shall pay the following amount to a school 60351
district for gifted units:60352

       (1) In fiscal year 2014, $37,000 multiplied by the number of 60353
units allocated to a school district under division (C) of this 60354
section;60355

       (2) In fiscal year 2015, $37,370 multiplied by the number of 60356
units allocated to a school district under division (C) of this 60357
section.60358

       A school district shall use the funds it receives for units 60359
allocated under division (C)(1) of this section only for gifted 60360
coordinator services as prescribed by the department. Qualified 60361
personnel shall be employed by the district for this purpose on a 60362
full-time equivalency basis that corresponds to the number of 60363
units allocated to the district under division (C)(1) of this 60364
section.60365

       A school district shall use the funds it receives for units 60366
allocated under division (C)(2) of this section only for gifted 60367
intervention specialist services as prescribed by the department. 60368
Qualified personnel shall be employed by the district for this 60369
purpose on a full-time equivalency basis that corresponds to the 60370
number of units allocated to the district under division (C)(2) of 60371
this section.60372

       (E) A school district may assign gifted unit funding that it 60373
receives under division (D) of this section to another school 60374
district, an educational service center, a community school, or a 60375
STEM school as part of an arrangement to provide services to the 60376
district as follows:60377

       (1) Funds received for units allocated under division (C)(1) 60378
of this section may be assigned to a district, service center, or 60379
school that employs qualified gifted coordinators;60380

       (2) Funds received for units allocated under division (C)(2) 60381
of this section may be assigned to a district, service center, or 60382
school that employs qualified gifted intervention specialists.60383

       Sec. 3317.06.  Moneys paid to school districts under division 60384
(E) of section 3317.024 of the Revised Code shall be used for the 60385
following independent and fully severable purposes:60386

       (A) To purchase such secular textbooks or electronic 60387
textbooksdigital texts as have been approved by the 60388
superintendent of public instruction for use in public schools in 60389
the state and to loan such textbooks or electronic textbooks60390
digital texts to pupils attending nonpublic schools within the 60391
district or to their parents and to hire clerical personnel to 60392
administer such lending program. Such loans shall be based upon 60393
individual requests submitted by such nonpublic school pupils or 60394
parents. Such requests shall be submitted to the school district 60395
in which the nonpublic school is located. Such individual requests 60396
for the loan of textbooks or electronic textbooksdigital texts60397
shall, for administrative convenience, be submitted by the 60398
nonpublic school pupil or the pupil's parent to the nonpublic 60399
school, which shall prepare and submit collective summaries of the 60400
individual requests to the school district. As used in this 60401
section:60402

       (1) "Textbook" means any book or book substitute that a pupil 60403
uses as a consumable or nonconsumable text, text substitute, or 60404
text supplement in a particular class or program in the school the 60405
pupil regularly attends.60406

       (2) "Electronic textbook""Digital text" means anya 60407
consumable book or book substitute that a student accesses through 60408
the use of a computer or other electronic medium or that is 60409
available through an internet-based provider of course content, or 60410
any other material that contributes to the learning process 60411
through electronic means.60412

       (B) To provide speech and hearing diagnostic services to 60413
pupils attending nonpublic schools within the district. Such 60414
service shall be provided in the nonpublic school attended by the 60415
pupil receiving the service.60416

       (C) To provide physician, nursing, dental, and optometric 60417
services to pupils attending nonpublic schools within the 60418
district. Such services shall be provided in the school attended 60419
by the nonpublic school pupil receiving the service.60420

       (D) To provide diagnostic psychological services to pupils 60421
attending nonpublic schools within the district. Such services 60422
shall be provided in the school attended by the pupil receiving 60423
the service.60424

       (E) To provide therapeutic psychological and speech and 60425
hearing services to pupils attending nonpublic schools within the 60426
district. Such services shall be provided in the public school, in 60427
nonpublic schools, in public centers, or in mobile units located 60428
on or off of the nonpublic premises. If such services are provided 60429
in the public school or in public centers, transportation to and 60430
from such facilities shall be provided by the school district in 60431
which the nonpublic school is located.60432

       (F) To provide guidance, counseling, and social work services 60433
to pupils attending nonpublic schools within the district. Such 60434
services shall be provided in the public school, in nonpublic 60435
schools, in public centers, or in mobile units located on or off 60436
of the nonpublic premises. If such services are provided in the 60437
public school or in public centers, transportation to and from 60438
such facilities shall be provided by the school district in which 60439
the nonpublic school is located.60440

       (G) To provide remedial services to pupils attending 60441
nonpublic schools within the district. Such services shall be 60442
provided in the public school, in nonpublic schools, in public 60443
centers, or in mobile units located on or off of the nonpublic 60444
premises. If such services are provided in the public school or in 60445
public centers, transportation to and from such facilities shall 60446
be provided by the school district in which the nonpublic school 60447
is located.60448

       (H) To supply for use by pupils attending nonpublic schools 60449
within the district such standardized tests and scoring services 60450
as are in use in the public schools of the state;60451

       (I) To provide programs for children who attend nonpublic 60452
schools within the district and are children with disabilities as 60453
defined in section 3323.01 of the Revised Code or gifted children. 60454
Such programs shall be provided in the public school, in nonpublic 60455
schools, in public centers, or in mobile units located on or off 60456
of the nonpublic premises. If such programs are provided in the 60457
public school or in public centers, transportation to and from 60458
such facilities shall be provided by the school district in which 60459
the nonpublic school is located.60460

       (J) To hire clerical personnel to assist in the 60461
administration of programs pursuant to divisions (B), (C), (D), 60462
(E), (F), (G), and (I) of this section and to hire supervisory 60463
personnel to supervise the providing of services and textbooks 60464
pursuant to this section.60465

       (K) To purchase or lease any secular, neutral, and 60466
nonideological computer application software designed to assist 60467
students in performing a single task or multiple related tasks, 60468
device management software, learning management software, 60469
site-licensing, digital video on demand (DVD), wide area 60470
connectivity and related technology as it relates to internet 60471
access, mathematics or science equipment and materials, 60472
instructional materials, and school library materials that are in 60473
general use in the public schools of the state and loan such items 60474
to pupils attending nonpublic schools within the district or to 60475
their parents, and to hire clerical personnel to administer the 60476
lending program. Only such items that are incapable of diversion 60477
to religious use and that are susceptible of loan to individual 60478
pupils and are furnished for the use of individual pupils shall be 60479
purchased and loaned under this division. As used in this section, 60480
"instructional materials" means prepared learning materials that 60481
are secular, neutral, and nonideological in character and are of 60482
benefit to the instruction of school children, and may include 60483
educational resources and services developed by the eTech Ohio 60484
commission.60485

       Mobile applications that are secular, neutral, and 60486
nonideological in character and that are purchased for less than 60487
ten dollars for instructional use shall be considered to be 60488
consumable and shall be distributed to students without the 60489
expectation that the applications must be returned.60490

       (L) To purchase or lease instructional equipment, including 60491
computer hardware and related equipment in general use in the 60492
public schools of the state, for use by pupils attending nonpublic 60493
schools within the district and to loan such items to pupils 60494
attending nonpublic schools within the district or to their 60495
parents, and to hire clerical personnel to administer the lending 60496
program. "Computer hardware and related equipment" includes 60497
desktop computers and workstations; laptop computers, computer 60498
tablets, and other mobile handheld devices; and their operating 60499
systems and accessories.60500

       (M) To purchase mobile units to be used for the provision of 60501
services pursuant to divisions (E), (F), (G), and (I) of this 60502
section and to pay for necessary repairs and operating costs 60503
associated with these units.60504

       (N) To reimburse costs the district incurred to store the 60505
records of a chartered nonpublic school that closes. 60506
Reimbursements under this division shall be made one time only for 60507
each chartered nonpublic school that closes.60508

       (O) To purchase life-saving medical or other emergency 60509
equipment for placement in nonpublic schools within the district 60510
or to maintain such equipment.60511

       Clerical and supervisory personnel hired pursuant to division 60512
(J) of this section shall perform their services in the public 60513
schools, in nonpublic schools, public centers, or mobile units 60514
where the services are provided to the nonpublic school pupil, 60515
except that such personnel may accompany pupils to and from the 60516
service sites when necessary to ensure the safety of the children 60517
receiving the services.60518

       All services provided pursuant to this section may be 60519
provided under contract with educational service centers, the 60520
department of health, city or general health districts, or private 60521
agencies whose personnel are properly licensed by an appropriate 60522
state board or agency.60523

       Transportation of pupils provided pursuant to divisions (E), 60524
(F), (G), and (I) of this section shall be provided by the school 60525
district from its general funds and not from moneys paid to it 60526
under division (E) of section 3317.024 of the Revised Code unless 60527
a special transportation request is submitted by the parent of the 60528
child receiving service pursuant to such divisions. If such an 60529
application is presented to the school district, it may pay for 60530
the transportation from moneys paid to it under division (E) of 60531
section 3317.024 of the Revised Code.60532

       No school district shall provide health or remedial services 60533
to nonpublic school pupils as authorized by this section unless 60534
such services are available to pupils attending the public schools 60535
within the district.60536

       Materials, equipment, computer hardware or software, 60537
textbooks, electronic textbooksdigital texts, and health and 60538
remedial services provided for the benefit of nonpublic school 60539
pupils pursuant to this section and the admission of pupils to 60540
such nonpublic schools shall be provided without distinction as to 60541
race, creed, color, or national origin of such pupils or of their 60542
teachers.60543

       No school district shall provide services, materials, or 60544
equipment that contain religious content for use in religious 60545
courses, devotional exercises, religious training, or any other 60546
religious activity.60547

       As used in this section, "parent" includes a person standing 60548
in loco parentis to a child.60549

       Notwithstanding section 3317.01 of the Revised Code, payments 60550
shall be made under this section to any city, local, or exempted 60551
village school district within which is located one or more 60552
nonpublic elementary or high schools and any payments made to 60553
school districts under division (E) of section 3317.024 of the 60554
Revised Code for purposes of this section may be disbursed without 60555
submission to and approval of the controlling board.60556

       The allocation of payments for materials, equipment, 60557
textbooks, electronic textbooksdigital texts, health services, 60558
and remedial services to city, local, and exempted village school 60559
districts shall be on the basis of the state board of education's 60560
estimated annual average daily membership in nonpublic elementary 60561
and high schools located in the district.60562

       Payments made to city, local, and exempted village school 60563
districts under this section shall be equal to specific 60564
appropriations made for the purpose. All interest earned by a 60565
school district on such payments shall be used by the district for 60566
the same purposes and in the same manner as the payments may be 60567
used.60568

       The department of education shall adopt guidelines and 60569
procedures under which such programs and services shall be 60570
provided, under which districts shall be reimbursed for 60571
administrative costs incurred in providing such programs and 60572
services, and under which any unexpended balance of the amounts 60573
appropriated by the general assembly to implement this section may 60574
be transferred to the auxiliary services personnel unemployment 60575
compensation fund established pursuant to section 4141.47 of the 60576
Revised Code. The department shall also adopt guidelines and 60577
procedures limiting the purchase and loan of the items described 60578
in division (K) of this section to items that are in general use 60579
in the public schools of the state, that are incapable of 60580
diversion to religious use, and that are susceptible to individual 60581
use rather than classroom use. Within thirty days after the end of 60582
each biennium, each board of education shall remit to the 60583
department all moneys paid to it under division (E) of section 60584
3317.024 of the Revised Code and any interest earned on those 60585
moneys that are not required to pay expenses incurred under this 60586
section during the biennium for which the money was appropriated 60587
and during which the interest was earned. If a board of education 60588
subsequently determines that the remittal of moneys leaves the 60589
board with insufficient money to pay all valid expenses incurred 60590
under this section during the biennium for which the remitted 60591
money was appropriated, the board may apply to the department of 60592
education for a refund of money, not to exceed the amount of the 60593
insufficiency. If the department determines the expenses were 60594
lawfully incurred and would have been lawful expenditures of the 60595
refunded money, it shall certify its determination and the amount 60596
of the refund to be made to the director of job and family 60597
services who shall make a refund as provided in section 4141.47 of 60598
the Revised Code.60599

       Each school district shall label materials, equipment, 60600
computer hardware or software, textbooks, and electronic textbooks60601
digital texts purchased or leased for loan to a nonpublic school 60602
under this section, acknowledging that they were purchased or 60603
leased with state funds under this section. However, a district 60604
need not label materials, equipment, computer hardware or 60605
software, textbooks, or electronic textbooksdigital texts that 60606
the district determines are consumable in nature or have a value 60607
of less than two hundred dollars.60608

       Sec. 3317.063.  The superintendent of public instruction, in 60609
accordance with rules adopted by the department of education, 60610
shall annually reimburse each chartered nonpublic school for the 60611
actual mandated service administrative and clerical costs incurred 60612
by such school during the preceding school year in preparing, 60613
maintaining, and filing reports, forms, and records, and in 60614
providing such other administrative and clerical services that are 60615
not an integral part of the teaching process as may be required by 60616
state law or rule or by requirements duly promulgated by city, 60617
exempted village, or local school districts. The mandated service 60618
costs reimbursed pursuant to this section shall include, but are 60619
not limited to, the preparation, filing and maintenance of forms, 60620
reports, or records and other clerical and administrative services 60621
relating to state chartering or approval of the nonpublic school, 60622
pupil attendance, pupil health and health testing, transportation 60623
of pupils, federally funded education programs, pupil appraisal, 60624
pupil progress, educator licensure, unemployment and workers' 60625
compensation, transfer of pupils, and such other education related 60626
data which are now or hereafter shall be required of such 60627
nonpublic school by state law or rule, or by requirements of the 60628
state department of education, other state agencies, or city, 60629
exempted village, or local school districts.60630

       The reimbursement required by this section shall be for 60631
school years beginning on or after July 1, 1981.60632

       Each nonpublic school which seeks reimbursement pursuant to 60633
this section shall submit to the superintendent of public 60634
instruction an application together with such additional reports 60635
and documents as the department of education may require. Such 60636
application, reports, and documents shall contain such information 60637
as the department of education may prescribe in order to carry out 60638
the purposes of this section. No payment shall be made until the 60639
superintendent of public instruction has approved such 60640
application.60641

       Each nonpublic school which applies for reimbursement 60642
pursuant to this section shall maintain a separate account or 60643
system of accounts for the expenses incurred in rendering the 60644
required services for which reimbursement is sought. Such accounts 60645
shall contain such information as is required by the department of 60646
education and shall be maintained in accordance with rules adopted 60647
by the department of education.60648

       Reimbursement payments to a nonpublic school pursuant to this 60649
section shall not exceed an amount for each school year equal to 60650
three hundred twenty-fivesixty dollars per pupil enrolled in that 60651
nonpublic school.60652

       The superintendent of public instruction may, from time to 60653
time, examine any and all accounts and records of a nonpublic 60654
school which have been maintained pursuant to this section in 60655
support of an application for reimbursement, for the purpose of 60656
determining the costs to such school of rendering the services for 60657
which reimbursement is sought. If after such audit it is 60658
determined that any school has received funds in excess of the 60659
actual cost of providing such services, said school shall 60660
immediately reimburse the state in such excess amount.60661

       Any payments made to chartered nonpublic schools under this 60662
section may be disbursed without submission to and approval of the 60663
controlling board.60664

       Sec. 3317.08.  A board of education may admit to its schools 60665
a child it is not required by section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the 60666
Revised Code to admit, if tuition is paid for the child.60667

       Unless otherwise provided by law, tuition shall be computed 60668
in accordance with this section. A district's tuition charge for a 60669
school year shall be one of the following:60670

       (A) For any child, except a preschool child with a disability 60671
described in division (B) of this section, the quotient obtained 60672
by dividing the sum of the amounts described in divisions (A)(1) 60673
and (2) of this section by the district's formula ADM.60674

       (1) The district's total taxes charged and payable for 60675
current expenses for the tax year preceding the tax year in which 60676
the school year begins as certified under division (A)(3) of 60677
section 3317.021 of the Revised Code.60678

       (2) The district's total taxes collected for current expenses 60679
under a school district income tax adopted pursuant to section 60680
5748.03, 5748.08, or 5748.09 of the Revised Code that are 60681
disbursed to the district during the fiscal year, excluding any 60682
income tax receipts allocated for the project cost, debt service, 60683
or maintenance set-aside associated with a state-assisted 60684
classroom facilities project as authorized by section 3318.052 of 60685
the Revised Code. On or before the first day of June of each year, 60686
the tax commissioner shall certify the amount to be used in the 60687
calculation under this division for the next fiscal year to the 60688
department of education and the office of budget and management 60689
for each city, local, and exempted village school district that 60690
levies a school district income tax.60691

       (B) For any preschool child with a disability not included in 60692
a unit approved under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the 60693
Revised Code, an amount computed for the school year as follows:60694

       (1) For each type of special education service provided to 60695
the child for whom tuition is being calculated, determine the 60696
amount of the district's operating expenses in providing that type 60697
of service to all preschool children with disabilities not 60698
included in units approved under division (B) of section 3317.05 60699
of the Revised Code;60700

       (2) For each type of special education service for which 60701
operating expenses are determined under division (B)(1) of this 60702
section, determine the amount of such operating expenses that was 60703
paid from any state funds received under this chapter;60704

       (3) For each type of special education service for which 60705
operating expenses are determined under division (B)(1) of this 60706
section, divide the difference between the amount determined under 60707
division (B)(1) of this section and the amount determined under 60708
division (B)(2) of this section by the total number of preschool 60709
children with disabilities not included in units approved under 60710
division (B) of section 3317.05 of the Revised Code who received 60711
that type of service;60712

       (4) Determine the sum of the quotients obtained under 60713
division (B)(3) of this section for all types of special education 60714
services provided to the child for whom tuition is being 60715
calculated.60716

       The state board of education shall adopt rules defining the 60717
types of special education services and specifying the operating 60718
expenses to be used in the computation under this section.60719

       If any child for whom a tuition charge is computed under this 60720
section for any school year is enrolled in a district for only 60721
part of that school year, the amount of the district's tuition 60722
charge for the child for the school year shall be computed in 60723
proportion to the number of school days the child is enrolled in 60724
the district during the school year.60725

       Except as otherwise provided in division (J) of section 60726
3313.64 of the Revised Code, whenever a district admits a child to 60727
its schools for whom tuition computed in accordance with this 60728
section is an obligation of another school district, the amount of 60729
the tuition shall be certified by the treasurer of the board of 60730
education of the district of attendance, to the board of education 60731
of the district required to pay tuition for its approval and 60732
payment. If agreement as to the amount payable or the district 60733
required to pay the tuition cannot be reached, or the board of 60734
education of the district required to pay the tuition refuses to 60735
pay that amount, the board of education of the district of 60736
attendance shall notify the superintendent of public instruction. 60737
The superintendent shall determine the correct amount and the 60738
district required to pay the tuition and shall deduct that amount, 60739
if any, under division (D) of section 3317.023 of the Revised 60740
Code, from the district required to pay the tuition and add that 60741
amount to the amount allocated to the district attended under such 60742
division. The superintendent of public instruction shall send to 60743
the district required to pay the tuition an itemized statement 60744
showing such deductions at the time of such deduction.60745

       When a political subdivision owns and operates an airport, 60746
welfare, or correctional institution or other project or facility 60747
outside its corporate limits, the territory within which the 60748
facility is located is exempt from taxation by the school district 60749
within which such territory is located, and there are school age 60750
children residing within such territory, the political subdivision 60751
owning such tax exempt territory shall pay tuition to the district 60752
in which such children attend school. The tuition for these 60753
children shall be computed as provided for in this section.60754

       Sec. 3317.10.  (A) On or before the first day of March of 60755
each year, the department of job and family services shall certify 60756
to the state board of education the unduplicated number of 60757
children ages five through seventeen residing in each school 60758
district and living in a family that, during the preceding 60759
October, participated in Ohio works first.60760

       The department of job and family services shall certify this 60761
information according to the school district of residence for each 60762
child. Except as provided under division (B) of this section, the 60763
number of children so certified in any year shall be used by the 60764
department of education in calculating the distribution of moneys 60765
for the ensuing fiscal year as provided in section 3317.029 of the 60766
Revised Code.60767

       (B) Upon the transfer of part of the territory of one school 60768
district to the territory of one or more other school districts, 60769
the department of education may adjust the number of children 60770
certified under division (A) of this section for any district 60771
gaining or losing territory in such a transfer in order to take 60772
into account the effect of the transfer on the number of such 60773
children who reside in the district. Within sixty days of receipt 60774
of a request for information from the department of education, the 60775
department of job and family services shall provide any 60776
information the department of education determines is necessary to 60777
make such adjustments. The department of education may use the 60778
adjusted number for any district for the applicable fiscal year, 60779
in lieu of the number certified for the district for that fiscal 60780
year under division (A) of this section, in the calculation of the 60781
distribution of moneys provided in section 3317.029 of the Revised 60782
Code.60783

       Sec. 3317.14.  Any school district board of education or 60784
educational service center governing board participating in funds 60785
distributed under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code shall annually 60786
adopt a teachers' salary schedule with provision for increments 60787
based upon training and years of service. Notwithstanding sections 60788
3317.13 and 3319.088 of the Revised Code, the board may establish 60789
its own service requirements and may grant service credit for such 60790
activities as teaching in public or nonpublic schools in this 60791
state or in another state, for service as an educational assistant 60792
other than as a classroom aide employed in accordance with section 60793
5107.541 of the Revised Code, and for service in the military or 60794
in an appropriate state or federal governmental agency, provided 60795
no teacher receives less than the amount required to be paid 60796
pursuant to section 3317.13 of the Revised Code and provided full 60797
credit for a minimum of five years of actual teaching and military 60798
experience as defined in division (A) of section 3317.13 of the 60799
Revised Code is given to each teacher.60800

       On the fifteenth day of October of each year, a copy of the 60801
salary schedule in effect on that date shall be filed by the board 60802
of education of each local school district with the educational 60803
service center superintendent, who thereupon shall certify to the 60804
treasurer of such local district the correct salary to be paid to 60805
each teacher in accordance with the adopted schedule.60806

       Each teacher who has completed training which would qualify 60807
such teacher for a higher salary bracket pursuant to this section 60808
shall file by the fifteenth day of September with the treasurer of 60809
the board of education or educational service center satisfactory 60810
evidence of the completion of such additional training. The 60811
treasurer shall then immediately place the teacher, pursuant to 60812
this section and section 3317.13 of the Revised Code, in the 60813
proper salary bracket in accordance with training and years of 60814
service before certifying such salary, training, and years of 60815
service to the superintendent of public instruction. No teacher 60816
shall be paid less than the salary to which such teacher is 60817
entitled pursuant to section 3317.13 of the Revised Code.60818

       Sec. 3317.16.  (A) The department of education shall compute 60819
and distribute state core foundation funding to each joint 60820
vocational school district for the fiscal year as prescribed in 60821
the following divisions:60822

       (1) An opportunity grant calculated according to the 60823
following formula:60824

(The formula amount X formula ADM) - (0.0005 X the
60825

district's three-year average valuation)
60826

       If the result of the calculation for a joint vocational 60827
school district under division (A)(1) of this section is less than 60828
zero, the joint vocational school district's opportunity grant 60829
shall be zero.60830

       (2) Additional state aid for special education and related 60831
services provided under Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code 60832
calculated as the sum of the following:60833

       (a) The district's category one special education ADM X the 60834
amount specified in division (A) of section 3317.013 of the 60835
Revised Code X the district's state share percentage;60836

       (b) The district's category two special education ADM X the 60837
amount specified in division (B) of section 3317.013 of the 60838
Revised Code X the district's state share percentage;60839

       (c) The district's category three special education ADM X the 60840
amount specified in division (C) of section 3317.013 of the 60841
Revised Code X the district's state share percentage;60842

       (d) The district's category four special education ADM X the 60843
amount specified in division (D) of section 3317.013 of the 60844
Revised Code X the district's state share percentage;60845

       (e) The district's category five special education ADM X the 60846
amount specified in division (E) of section 3317.013 of the 60847
Revised Code X the district's state share percentage;60848

       (f) The district's category six special education ADM X the 60849
amount specified in division (F) of section 3317.013 of the 60850
Revised Code X the district's state share percentage.60851

       (3) Economically disadvantaged funds calculated according to 60852
the following formula:60853

($250, in fiscal year 2014, or $253, in fiscal year 2015) X
60854

(the district's economically disadvantaged index) X the number
60855

of students who are economically disadvantaged as reported under
60856

division (D)(2)(p) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code
60857

       (4) Limited English proficiency funds calculated as the sum 60858
of the following:60859

       (a) The district's category one limited English proficient 60860
ADM X the amount specified in division (A) of section 3317.016 of 60861
the Revised Code X the district's state share percentage;60862

       (b) The district's category two limited English proficient 60863
ADM X the amount specified in division (B) of section 3317.016 of 60864
the Revised Code X the district's state share percentage;60865

       (c) The district's category three limited English proficient 60866
ADM X the amount specified in division (C) of section 3317.016 of 60867
the Revised Code X the district's state share percentage;60868

       (5) Career-technical education funds calculated as the sum of 60869
the following:60870

       (a) The district's category one career-technical education 60871
ADM X the amount specified in division (A) of section 3317.014 of 60872
the Revised Code X the district's state share percentage;60873

       (b) The district's category two career-technical education 60874
ADM X the amount specified in division (B) of section 3317.014 of 60875
the Revised Code X the district's state share percentage;60876

       (c) The district's category three career-technical education 60877
ADM X the amount specified in division (C) of section 3317.014 of 60878
the Revised Code X the district's state share percentage;60879

       (d) The district's category four career-technical education 60880
ADM X the amount specified in division (D) of section 3317.014 of 60881
the Revised Code X the district's state share percentage;60882

       (e) The district's category five career-technical education 60883
ADM X the amount specified in division (E) of section 3317.014 of 60884
the Revised Code X the district's state share percentage.60885

       Payment of funds under division (A)(5) of this section is 60886
subject to approval under section 3317.161 of the Revised Code.60887

       (6) Career-technical education associated services funds 60888
calculated under the following formula:60889

The district's state share percentage X the
60890

amount for career-technical education associated services
60891
specified in section 3317.014 of the Revised Code X the sum of
60892
categories one through five career-technical
60893

education ADM
60894

       (B)(1) If a joint vocational school district's costs for a 60895
fiscal year for a student in its categories two through six 60896
special education ADM exceed the threshold catastrophic cost for 60897
serving the student, as specified in division (B) of section 60898
3317.0214 of the Revised Code, the district may submit to the 60899
superintendent of public instruction documentation, as prescribed 60900
by the superintendent, of all of its costs for that student. Upon 60901
submission of documentation for a student of the type and in the 60902
manner prescribed, the department shall pay to the district an 60903
amount equal to the sum of the following:60904

       (a) One-half of the district's costs for the student in 60905
excess of the threshold catastrophic cost;60906

       (b) The product of one-half of the district's costs for the 60907
student in excess of the threshold catastrophic cost multiplied by 60908
the district's state share percentage.60909

       (2) The district shall report under division (B)(1) of this 60910
section, and the department shall pay for, only the costs of 60911
educational expenses and the related services provided to the 60912
student in accordance with the student's individualized education 60913
program. Any legal fees, court costs, or other costs associated 60914
with any cause of action relating to the student may not be 60915
included in the amount.60916

       (C)(1) For each student with a disability receiving special 60917
education and related services under an individualized education 60918
program, as defined in section 3323.01 of the Revised Code, at a 60919
joint vocational district, the resident district or, if the 60920
student is enrolled in a community school, the community school 60921
shall be responsible for the amount of any costs of providing 60922
those special education and related services to that student that 60923
exceed the sum of the amount calculated for those services 60924
attributable to that student under division (A) of this section.60925

       Those excess costs shall be calculated by subtracting the sum 60926
of the following from the actual cost to provide special education 60927
and related services to the student:60928

       (a) The formula amount;60929

       (b) The amount specified in section 3317.013 of the Revised 60930
Code that is applicable to the student;60931

       (c) Any funds paid under section 3317.0214 for the student.60932

       (2) The board of education of the joint vocational school 60933
district may report the excess costs calculated under division 60934
(C)(1) of this section to the department of education.60935

       (3) If the board of education of the joint vocational school 60936
district reports excess costs under division (C)(2) of this 60937
section, the department shall pay the amount of excess cost 60938
calculated under division (C)(2) of this section to the joint 60939
vocational school district and shall deduct that amount as 60940
provided in division (C)(3)(a) or (b) of this section, as 60941
applicable:60942

       (a) If the student is not enrolled in a community school, the 60943
department shall deduct the amount from the account of the 60944
student's resident district pursuant to division (J) of section 60945
3317.023 of the Revised Code.60946

       (b) If the student is enrolled in a community school, the 60947
department shall deduct the amount from the account of the 60948
community school pursuant to section 3314.083 of the Revised Code.60949

       (D)(1) In any fiscal year, a school district receiving funds 60950
under division (A)(5) of this section shall spend those funds only 60951
for the purposes that the department designates as approved for 60952
career-technical education expenses. Career-technical educational 60953
expenses approved by the department shall include only expenses 60954
connected to the delivery of career-technical programming to 60955
career-technical students. The department shall require the school 60956
district to report data annually so that the department may 60957
monitor the district's compliance with the requirements regarding 60958
the manner in which funding received under division (A)(5) of this 60959
section may be spent.60960

       (2) All funds received under division (A)(5) of this section 60961
shall be spent in the following manner:60962

        (a) At least seventy-five per cent of the funds shall be 60963
spent on curriculum development, purchase, and implementation; 60964
instructional resources and supplies; industry-based program 60965
certification; student assessment, credentialing, and placement; 60966
curriculum specific equipment purchases and leases; 60967
career-technical student organization fees and expenses; home and 60968
agency linkages; work-based learning experiences; professional 60969
development; and other costs directly associated with 60970
career-technical education programs including development of new 60971
programs.60972

        (b) Not more than twenty-five per cent of the funds shall be 60973
used for personnel expenditures.60974

       (E) In any fiscal year, a school district receiving funds 60975
under division (A)(6) of this section, or through a transfer of 60976
funds pursuant to division (I) of section 3317.023 of the Revised 60977
Code, shall spend those funds only for the purposes that the 60978
department designates as approved for career-technical education 60979
associated services expenses, which may include such purposes as 60980
apprenticeship coordinators, coordinators for other 60981
career-technical education services, career-technical evaluation, 60982
and other purposes designated by the department. The department 60983
may deny payment under division (A)(6) of this section to any 60984
district that the department determines is not operating those 60985
services or is using funds paid under division (A)(6) of this 60986
section, or through a transfer of funds pursuant to division (I) 60987
of section 3317.023 of the Revised Code, for other purposes.60988

       (F) A joint vocational school district shall spend the funds 60989
it receives under division (A)(3) of this section in accordance 60990
with section 3317.25 of the Revised Code.60991

       (G) As used in this section:60992

       (1) "Community school" means a community school established 60993
under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code.60994

       (2) "Resident district" means the city, local, or exempted 60995
village school district in which a student is entitled to attend 60996
school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code.60997

       (3) "State share percentage" is equal to the following:60998

The amount computed under division (A)(1) of this section /
60999

(the formula amount X formula ADM)
61000

       Sec. 3317.161.  (A) As used in this section, "lead district" 61001
has the same meaning as in section 3317.023 of the Revised Code.61002

       (B) The lead district of a career-technical planning district 61003
shall review the career-technical education program of each city, 61004
local, and exempted village school district, each community 61005
school, and each STEM school that is assigned to the 61006
career-technical planning district and determine whether to 61007
approve or disapprove the program. The lead district shall notify 61008
the department of its determination.61009

       (C) Upon receiving notification of a lead district's 61010
approval, the department shall pay to the member city, local, or 61011
exempted village school district or deduct from the state 61012
education aid of a district and pay to a community school or STEM 61013
school the funds attributed to the career-technical students 61014
enrolled in the district or school, according to a payment 61015
schedule prescribed by the department.61016

       (D) Upon receiving notification from a lead district of 61017
disapproval of a city, local, or exempted village school 61018
district's, a community school's, or STEM school's 61019
career-technical education program, the department shall 61020
automatically review the lead district's decision. In reviewing 61021
the lead district's decision, the department shall consider the 61022
demand for the career-technical education program and the 61023
availability of the program within the career-technical planning 61024
district. If, as a result of the review, the department decides to 61025
approve the city, local, or exempted village school district's, 61026
the community school's, or the STEM school's career-technical 61027
education program, the department shall pay the funds to the 61028
district or deduct and pay the funds to the community school or 61029
STEM school in the manner described in division (C) of this 61030
section. The department's decision shall be final.61031

       Sec. 3317.18.  (A) As used in this section, the terms 61032
"Chapter 133. securities," "credit enhancement facilities," "debt 61033
charges," "general obligation," "legislation," "public 61034
obligations," and "securities" have the same meanings as in 61035
section 133.01 of the Revised Code.61036

       (B) The board of education of any school district authorizing 61037
the issuance of securities under section 133.10, 133.301, or 61038
3313.372 of the Revised Code or general obligation Chapter 133. 61039
securities may adopt legislation requesting the state department 61040
of education to approve, and enter into an agreement with the 61041
school district and the primary paying agent or fiscal agent for 61042
such securities providing for, the withholding and deposit of 61043
funds, otherwise due the district under Chapter 3317. of the 61044
Revised Code, for the payment of debt service charges on such 61045
securities.61046

       The board of education shall deliver to the state department 61047
a copy of such resolution and any additional pertinent information 61048
the state department may require.61049

       The department of education and the office of budget and 61050
management shall evaluate each request received from a school 61051
district under this section and the department, with the advice 61052
and consent of the director of budget and management, shall 61053
approve or deny each request based on all of the following:61054

       (1) Whether approval of the request will enhance the 61055
marketability of the securities for which the request is made;61056

       (2) Any other pertinent factors or limitations established in 61057
rules made under division (I) of this section, including:61058

       (a) Current and projected obligations of funds due to the 61059
requesting school district under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code 61060
including obligations of those funds to public obligations or 61061
relevant credit enhancement facilities under this section, Chapter 61062
133. and section 3313.483 of the Revised Code, and under any other 61063
similar provisions of law;61064

       (b) Whether the department of education or the office of 61065
budget and management has any reason to believe the requesting 61066
school district will be unable to pay when due the debt charges on 61067
the securities for which the request is made.61068

       The department may require a school district to establish 61069
schedules for the payment of all debt charges that take into 61070
account the amount and timing of anticipated distributions of 61071
funds to the district under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code.61072

       (C) If the department approves the request of a school 61073
district to withhold and deposit funds pursuant to this section, 61074
the department shall enter into a written agreement with the 61075
district and the primary paying agent or fiscal agent for the 61076
securities which shall provide for the withholding of funds 61077
pursuant to this section for the payment of debt charges on those 61078
securities, and may include both of the following:61079

       (1) Provisions for certification by the district to the 61080
department, at a time prior to any date for the payment of 61081
applicable debt charges, whether the district is able to pay those 61082
debt charges when due;61083

       (2) Requirements that the district deposit amounts for the 61084
payment of debt charges on the securities with the primary paying 61085
agent or fiscal agent for the securities prior to the date on 61086
which those debt charge payments are due to the owners or holders 61087
of the securities.61088

       (D) Whenever a district notifies the department of education 61089
that it will be unable to pay debt charges when they are due, 61090
subject to the withholding provisions of this section, or whenever 61091
the applicable paying agent or fiscal agent notifies the 61092
department that it has not timely received from a school district 61093
the full amount needed for the payment when due of those debt 61094
charges to the holders or owners of such securities, the 61095
department shall immediately contact the school district and the 61096
paying agent or fiscal agent to confirm or determine whether the 61097
district is unable to make the required payment by the date on 61098
which it is due.61099

       Upon demand of the treasurer of state while holding a school 61100
district obligation purchased under division (G)(1) of section 61101
135.143 of the Revised Code, the state department of education, 61102
without a request of the school district, shall withhold and 61103
deposit funds pursuant to this section for payment of debt service 61104
charges on that obligation.61105

       If the department confirms or determines that the district 61106
will be unable to make such payment and payment will not be made 61107
pursuant to a credit enhancement facility, the department shall 61108
promptly pay to the applicable primary paying agent or fiscal 61109
agent the lesser of the amount due for debt charges or the amount 61110
due the district for the remainder of the fiscal year under 61111
Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code. If this amount is insufficient 61112
to pay the total amount then due the agent for the payment of debt 61113
charges, the department shall pay to the agent each fiscal year 61114
thereafter, and until the full amount due the agent for unpaid 61115
debt charges is paid in full, the lesser of the remaining amount 61116
due the agent for debt charges or the amount due the district for 61117
the fiscal year under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code.61118

       (E) The state department may make any payments under this 61119
division by direct deposit of funds by electronic transfer.61120

       Any amount received by a paying agent or fiscal agent under 61121
this section shall be applied only to the payment of debt charges 61122
on the securities of the school district subject to this section 61123
or to the reimbursement to the provider of a credit enhancement 61124
facility that has paid such debt charges.61125

       (F) To the extent a school district whose securities are 61126
subject to this section is unable to pay applicable debt charges 61127
because of the failure to collect property taxes levied for the 61128
payment of those debt charges, the district may transfer to or 61129
deposit into any fund that would have received payments under 61130
Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code that were withheld under this 61131
section any such delinquent property taxes when later collected, 61132
provided that transfer or deposit shall be limited to the amounts 61133
withheld from that fund under this section.61134

       (G) The department may make payments under this section to 61135
paying agents or fiscal agents only from and to the extent that 61136
money is appropriated by the general assembly for Chapter 3317. of 61137
the Revised Code or for the purposes of this section. No 61138
securities of a school district to which this section is made 61139
applicable constitute an obligation or a debt or a pledge of the 61140
faith, credit, or taxing power of the state, and the holders or 61141
owners of such securities have no right to have taxes levied or 61142
appropriations made by the general assembly for the payment of 61143
debt charges on those securities, and those securities, if the 61144
department requires, shall contain a statement to that effect. The 61145
agreement for or the actual withholding and payment of moneys 61146
under this section does not constitute the assumption by the state 61147
of any debt of a school district.61148

       (H) In the case of securities subject to the withholding 61149
provisions of this section, the issuing board of education shall 61150
appoint a paying agent or fiscal agent who is not an officer or 61151
employee of the school district.61152

       (I) The department of education, with the advice of the 61153
office of budget and management, may adopt reasonable rules not 61154
inconsistent with this section for the implementation of this 61155
section and division (B) of section 133.25 of the Revised Code as 61156
it relates to the withholding and depositing of payments under 61157
Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code to secure payment of debt 61158
charges on school district securities. Those rules shall include 61159
criteria for the evaluation and approval or denial of school 61160
district requests for withholding under this section and limits on 61161
the obligation for the purpose of paying debt charges or 61162
reimbursing credit enhancement facilities of funds otherwise to be 61163
paid to school districts under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code.61164

       (J) The authority granted by this section is in addition to 61165
and not a limitation on any other authorizations granted by or 61166
pursuant to law for the same or similar purposes.61167

       Sec. 3317.19. (A) As used in this section, "total unit 61168
allowance" means an amount equal to the sum of the following:61169

       (1) The total of the salary allowances for the teachers 61170
employed in the cooperative education school district for all 61171
units approved under division (B) or (C) of section 3317.05 of the 61172
Revised Code. The salary allowance for each unit shall equal the 61173
minimum salary for the teacher of the unit calculated on the basis 61174
of the teacher's training level and years of experience pursuant 61175
to the salary schedule prescribed in the version of section 61176
3317.13 of the Revised Code in effect prior to July 1, 2001.61177

       (2) Fifteen per cent of the total computed under division 61178
(A)(1) of this section;61179

       (3) The total of the unit operating allowances for all 61180
approved units. The amount of each allowance shall equal one of 61181
the following:61182

       (a) Eight thousand twenty-three dollars times the number of 61183
units for preschool children with disabilities or fraction thereof 61184
approved for the year under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the 61185
Revised Code;61186

       (b) Two thousand one hundred thirty-two dollars times the 61187
number of units or fraction thereof approved for the year under 61188
division (C) of section 3317.05 of the Revised Code.61189

       (B) The state board of education shall compute and distribute 61190
to each cooperative education school district for each fiscal year 61191
an amount equal to the sum of the following:61192

       (1)(A) An amount equal to the total of the amounts credited 61193
to the cooperative education school district pursuant to division 61194
(H) of section 3317.023 of the Revised Code;61195

       (2) The total unit allowance;61196

       (3)(B) An amount for assisting in providing free lunches to 61197
needy children pursuant to division (D) of section 3317.024 of the 61198
Revised Code.61199

       (C) If a cooperative education school district has had 61200
additional special education units approved for the year under 61201
division (F)(2) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, the 61202
district shall receive an additional amount during the last half 61203
of the fiscal year. For each unit, the additional amount shall 61204
equal fifty per cent of the amount computed under division (A) of 61205
this section for a unit approved under division (B) of section 61206
3317.05 of the Revised Code.61207

       Sec. 3317.20.  This section does not apply to preschool 61208
children with disabilities.61209

       (A) As used in this section:61210

       (1) "Applicable weightspecial education amount" means the 61211
multipleamount specified in section 3317.013 of the Revised Code 61212
for a disability described in that section.61213

       (2) "Child's school district" means the school district in 61214
which a child is entitled to attend school pursuant to section 61215
3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code.61216

       (3) "State share percentageindex" means the state share 61217
percentageindex of the child's school district.61218

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, the61219
The department shall annually pay each county DD board for each 61220
child with a disability, other than a preschool child with a 61221
disability, for whom the county DD board provides special 61222
education and related services an amount equal to the formula 61223
amount + (state share percentage X formula amountindex X the 61224
applicable weightspecial education amount).61225

       (C) If any school district places with a county DD board more 61226
children with disabilities than it had placed with a county DD 61227
board in fiscal year 1998, the department shall not make a payment 61228
under division (B) of this section for the number of children 61229
exceeding the number placed in fiscal year 1998. The department 61230
instead shall deduct from the district's payments under this 61231
chapter, and pay to the county DD board, an amount calculated in 61232
accordance with the formula prescribed in division (B) of this 61233
section for each child over the number of children placed in 61234
fiscal year 1998.61235

       (D) The department shall calculate for each county DD board 61236
receiving payments under divisions (B) and (C) of this section the 61237
following amounts: 61238

       (1) The amount received by the county DD board for approved 61239
special education and related services units, other than units for 61240
preschool children with disabilities, in fiscal year 1998, divided 61241
by the total number of children served in the units that year;61242

       (2) The product of the quotient calculated under division 61243
(D)(1) of this section times the number of children for whom 61244
payments are made under divisions (B) and (C) of this section.61245

       If the amount calculated under division (D)(2) of this 61246
section is greater than the total amount calculated under 61247
divisions (B) and (C) of this section, the department shall pay 61248
the county DD board one hundred per cent of the difference in 61249
addition to the payments under divisions (B) and (C) of this 61250
section.61251

       (E)(C) Each county DD board shall report to the department, 61252
in the manner specified by the department, the name of each child 61253
for whom the county DD board provides special education and 61254
related services and the child's school district.61255

        (F)(D)(1) For the purpose of verifying the accuracy of the 61256
payments under this section, the department may request from 61257
either of the following entities the data verification code 61258
assigned under division (D)(2) of section 3301.0714 of the Revised 61259
Code to any child who is placed with a county DD board:61260

        (a) The child's school district;61261

        (b) The independent contractor engaged to create and maintain 61262
data verification codes.61263

        (2) Upon a request by the department under division (F)(D)(1) 61264
of this section for the data verification code of a child, the 61265
child's school district shall submit that code to the department 61266
in the manner specified by the department. If the child has not 61267
been assigned a code, the district shall assign a code to that 61268
child and submit the code to the department by a date specified by 61269
the department. If the district does not assign a code to the 61270
child by the specified date, the department shall assign a code to 61271
the child.61272

        The department annually shall submit to each school district 61273
the name and data verification code of each child residing in the 61274
district for whom the department has assigned a code under this 61275
division.61276

        (3) The department shall not release any data verification 61277
code that it receives under division (F)(D) of this section to any 61278
person except as provided by law.61279

       (G)(E) Any document relative to special education and related 61280
services provided by a county DD board that the department holds 61281
in its files that contains both a student's name or other 61282
personally identifiable information and the student's data 61283
verification code shall not be a public record under section 61284
149.43 of the Revised Code.61285

       Sec. 3317.201. This section does not apply to preschool 61286
children with disabilities.61287

       (A) As used in this section, the "total special education 61288
weightamount" for an institution means the sum of the following 61289
amounts:61290

       (1) The number of children reported by the institution under 61291
division (G)(1)(a)(i) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code as 61292
receiving services for a disability described in division (A) of 61293
section 3317.013 of the Revised Code multiplied by the multiple61294
amount specified in that division;61295

       (2) The number of children reported by the institution under 61296
division (G)(1)(a)(i) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code as 61297
receiving services for a disability described in division (B) of 61298
section 3317.013 of the Revised Code multiplied by the multiple61299
amount specified in that division;61300

       (3) The number of children reported by the institution under 61301
division (G)(1)(a)(i) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code as 61302
receiving services for a disability described in division (C) of 61303
section 3317.013 of the Revised Code multiplied by the multiple61304
amount specified in that division;61305

       (4) The number of children reported by the institution under 61306
division (G)(1)(a)(i) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code as 61307
receiving services for a disability described in division (D) of 61308
section 3317.013 of the Revised Code multiplied by the multiple61309
amount specified in that division;61310

       (5) The number of children reported by the institution under 61311
division (G)(1)(a)(i) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code as 61312
receiving services for a disability described in division (E) of 61313
section 3317.013 of the Revised Code multiplied by the multiple61314
amount specified in that division;61315

       (6) The number of children reported by the institution under 61316
division (G)(1)(a)(i) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code as 61317
receiving services for a disability described in division (F) of 61318
section 3317.013 of the Revised Code multiplied by the multiple61319
amount specified in that division.61320

       (B) For each fiscal year, the department of education shall 61321
pay each state institution required to provide special education 61322
services under division (A) of section 3323.091 of the Revised 61323
Code an amount equal to the greater of:61324

       (1) The formula amount times the institution's total special 61325
education weight;61326

       (2) The aggregate amount of special education and related 61327
services unit funding the institution received for all children 61328
with disabilities other than preschool children with disabilities 61329
in fiscal year 2005 under sections 3317.052 and 3317.053 of the 61330
Revised Code, as those sections existed prior to June 30, 200561331
amount.61332

       Sec. 3317.25.  (A) As used in this section, "economically 61333
disadvantaged funds" means the following:61334

       (1) For a city, local, or exempted village school district, 61335
the funds received under division (A)(5) of section 3317.022 of 61336
the Revised Code;61337

       (2) For a joint vocational school district, the funds 61338
received under division (A)(3) of section 3317.16 of the Revised 61339
Code;61340

       (3) For a community school established under Chapter 3314. of 61341
the Revised Code, the funds received under division (C)(1)(e) of 61342
section 3314.08 of the Revised Code;61343

       (4) For a STEM school established under Chapter 3326. of the 61344
Revised Code, the funds received under division (E) of section 61345
3326.33 of the Revised Code.61346

       (B) In any fiscal year, a city, local, exempted village, or 61347
joint vocational school district, community school, or STEM school 61348
shall spend the economically disadvantaged funds it receives for 61349
any of the following initiatives or a combination of any of the 61350
following initiatives:61351

       (1) Extended school day and school year;61352

       (2) Reading improvement and intervention;61353

       (3) Instructional technology or blended learning;61354

       (4) Professional development in reading instruction for 61355
teachers of students in kindergarten through third grade;61356

       (5) Dropout prevention;61357

       (6) School safety and security measures.61358

       (C) At the end of each fiscal year, each city, local, 61359
exempted village, or joint vocational school district, community 61360
school, and STEM school shall submit a report to the department of 61361
education describing the initiative or initiatives on which the 61362
district's or school's economically disadvantaged funds were spent 61363
during that fiscal year.61364

       (D) Starting in 2015, the department shall submit a report of 61365
the information it receives under division (C) of this section to 61366
the General Assembly not later than the first day of December of 61367
each odd-numbered year in accordance with section 101.68 of the 61368
Revised Code.61369

       Sec. 3313.847.        Sec. 3317.30. (A) In the case of a child placed in 61370
the custody of a juvenile facility established under section 61371
2151.65 or a detention facility established under section 2152.41 61372
of the Revised Code, ifpayment for the child's education services 61373
shall be administered by one of the following methods:61374

        (1) If the facility educates the child, the facility, or the 61375
chartered nonpublic school it operates, may submit its request for 61376
payment directly to the school district that is to bear the cost 61377
of educating the child, as determined under section 2151.362 of 61378
the Revised Code. That district shall pay the facility or the 61379
chartered nonpublic school directly for those services.61380

        (2) If the facility contracts directly with a school district 61381
in which the facility is located for services for that child, the 61382
school district may submit its request for payment directly to the 61383
school district that is to bear the cost of educating the child, 61384
as determined under section 2151.362 of the Revised Code. That 61385
district shall pay the school district where the facility is 61386
located directly for those services.61387

        (3) If that facility contracts directly with an educational 61388
service center for services for that child, the service center may 61389
submit its request for payment for services for the child directly 61390
to the school district that is responsible to bear the cost of 61391
educating the child, as determined under section 2151.362 of the 61392
Revised Code. That district shall pay the service center directly 61393
for those services. Notwithstanding61394

       (B) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in section 61395
3317.03 of the Revised Code, the district that pays a service 61396
center, facility or chartered nonpublic school the facility 61397
operates, or other school district for services for a particular 61398
child under this section shall include that child in the 61399
district's average daily membership as reported under division (A) 61400
of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code. No other district shall 61401
include the child in its average daily membership.61402

       Payments made for a child under this section shall be 61403
determined in accordance with division (C)(4) of section 3313.64 61404
of the Revised Code.61405

       Sec. 3317.40.  (A) As used in this section, "subgroup" means 61406
one of the following subsets of the entire student population of a 61407
school district or a school building:61408

       (1) Students with disabilities;61409

       (2) Economically disadvantaged students;61410

       (3) Limited English proficient students;61411

       (4) Students identified as gifted in superior cognitive 61412
ability and specific academic ability fields under Chapter 3324. 61413
of the Revised Code. 61414

       (B) When funds are provided under this chapter specifically 61415
for services for a subgroup of students, the general assembly has 61416
determined that these students experience unique challenges 61417
requiring additional resources and intends that the funds so 61418
provided be used for services that will allow students in those 61419
subgroups to master the knowledge base required for high school 61420
graduation.61421

       (C) If a district or school fails to show satisfactory 61422
achievement and progress, as determined by the state board of 61423
education, for any subgroup of students based on performance 61424
measures reported or graded under section 3302.03 of the Revised 61425
Code, the district or school shall submit an improvement plan to 61426
the department for approval. The plan may be included in any other 61427
improvement plan required of the district or school under state or 61428
federal law. The department may require that a plan required under 61429
division (C) of this section include an agreement to partner with 61430
another organization that has demonstrated the ability to improve 61431
the educational outcome for that subgroup of students to provide 61432
services to those students. The partner organization may be 61433
another school, district, or other education provider.61434

       Not later than December 31, 2014, the state board of 61435
education shall establish measures of satisfactory achievement and 61436
progress, which include, but are not limited to, performance 61437
measures under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code. The department 61438
shall make the initial determination of satisfactory achievement 61439
and progress under this section using those measures not later 61440
than September 1, 2015, and then make determinations under this 61441
section annually thereafter.61442

       The department shall publish a list of schools, school 61443
districts, and other educational providers that have demonstrated 61444
an ability to serve each subgroup of students.61445

       Sec. 3317.50.  The eTech Ohio telecommunity education fund is 61446
hereby created in the state treasury. The fund shall consist of 61447
certain excess local exchange telephone company contributions 61448
transferred from the reserve fund of the Ohio telecommunications 61449
advisory board pursuant to an agreement between the public 61450
utilities commission of Ohio and the Ohio department of education. 61451
The fund shall be used by the chancellor of the Ohio board of 61452
regents, in the amounts appropriated, to finance technology grants 61453
to state-chartered elementary and secondary schools. Investment 61454
earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund.61455

       Sec. 3317.51.  (A) The distance learning fund is hereby 61456
created in the state treasury. The fund shall consist of moneys 61457
paid to the eTech Ohio commission by any telephone company as a 61458
part of a settlement agreement between such company and the public 61459
utilities commission in fiscal year 1995 in part to establish 61460
distance learning throughout the state. The commissionchancellor 61461
of the Ohio board of regents shall administer the fund and expend 61462
moneys from it to finance technology grants to eligible schools 61463
chartered by the state board of education to establish distance 61464
learning in those schools. Chartered schools are eligible for 61465
funds if they are within the service area of the telephone 61466
company. Investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the 61467
fund.61468

       (B) For purposes of this section, "distance learning" means 61469
the creation of a learning environment involving a school setting 61470
and at least one other location outside of the school which allows 61471
for information available at one site to be accessed at the other 61472
through the use of such educational applications as one-way or 61473
two-way transmission of data, voice, and video, singularly or in 61474
appropriate combinations.61475

       Sec. 3318.011.  For purposes of providing assistance under 61476
sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code, the department of 61477
education shall annually do all of the following:61478

       (A) Calculate the adjusted valuation per pupil of each city, 61479
local, and exempted village school district according to the 61480
following formula:61481

The district's valuation per pupil -
61482

[$30,000 X (1 - the district's income factor)].
61483

       For purposes of this calculation:61484

       (1) Except for a district with an open enrollment net gain 61485
that is ten per cent or more of its formula ADM, "valuation per 61486
pupil" for a district means its average taxable value, divided by 61487
its formula ADM for the previous fiscal year. "Valuation per 61488
pupil," for a district with an open enrollment net gain that is 61489
ten per cent or more of its formula ADM, means its average taxable 61490
value, divided by the sum of its formula ADM for the previous 61491
fiscal year plus its open enrollment net gain for the previous 61492
fiscal year. 61493

       (2) "Average taxable value" means the average of the sum of 61494
the amounts certified for a district under divisions (A)(1) and 61495
(2) of section 3317.021 of the Revised Code in the second, third, 61496
and fourth preceding fiscal years.61497

       (3) "Entitled to attend school" means entitled to attend 61498
school in a city, local, or exempted village school district under 61499
section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code.61500

        (4) "Formula ADM" and "income factor" havehas the same 61501
meaningsmeaning as in section 3317.02 of the Revised Code.61502

       (5) "Native student" has the same meaning as in section 61503
3313.98 of the Revised Code.61504

        (6) "Open enrollment net gain" for a district means (a) the 61505
number of the students entitled to attend school in another 61506
district but who are enrolled in the schools of the district under 61507
its open enrollment policy minus (b) the number of the district's 61508
native students who are enrolled in the schools of another 61509
district under the other district's open enrollment policy, both 61510
numbers as certified to the department under section 3313.981 of 61511
the Revised Code. If the difference is a negative number, the 61512
district's "open enrollment net gain" is zero.61513

        (7) "Open enrollment policy" means an interdistrict open 61514
enrollment policy adopted under section 3313.98 of the Revised 61515
Code.61516

       (8) "District median income" means the median Ohio adjusted 61517
gross income certified for a school district under section 61518
3317.021 of the Revised Code.61519

       (9) "Statewide median income" means the median district 61520
median income of all city, exempted village, and local school 61521
districts in the state.61522

       (10) "Income factor" for a city, exempted village, or local 61523
school district means the quotient obtained by dividing that 61524
district's median income by the statewide median income.61525

       (B) Calculate for each district the three-year average of the 61526
adjusted valuations per pupil calculated for the district for the 61527
current and two preceding fiscal years;61528

       (C) Rank all such districts in order of adjusted valuation 61529
per pupil from the district with the lowest three-year average 61530
adjusted valuation per pupil to the district with the highest 61531
three-year average adjusted valuation per pupil;61532

       (D) Divide such ranking into percentiles with the first 61533
percentile containing the one per cent of school districts having 61534
the lowest three-year average adjusted valuations per pupil and 61535
the one-hundredth percentile containing the one per cent of school 61536
districts having the highest three-year average adjusted 61537
valuations per pupil;61538

       (E) Determine the school districts that have three-year 61539
average adjusted valuations per pupil that are greater than the 61540
median three-year average adjusted valuation per pupil for all 61541
school districts in the state;61542

       (F) On or before the first day of September, certify the 61543
information described in divisions (A) to (E) of this section to 61544
the Ohio school facilities commission.61545

       Sec. 3318.031. (A) The Ohio school facilities commission 61546
shall consider student and staff safety and health when reviewing 61547
design plans for classroom facility construction projects proposed 61548
under this chapter. After consulting with appropriate education, 61549
health, and law enforcement personnel, the commission may require 61550
as a condition of project approval under either section 3318.03 or 61551
division (B)(1) of section 3318.41 of the Revised Code such 61552
changes in the design plans as the commission believes will 61553
advance or improve student and staff safety and health in the 61554
proposed classroom facility.61555

       To carry out its duties under this division, the commission 61556
shall review and, if necessary, amend any construction and design 61557
standards used in its project approval process, including 61558
standards for location and number of exits, standards for lead 61559
safety in classroom facilities constructed before 1978 in which 61560
services are provided to children under six years of age, and 61561
location of restrooms, with a focus on advancing student and staff 61562
safety and health.61563

       (B) When reviewing design standards for classroom facility 61564
construction projects proposed under this chapter, the commission 61565
shall also consider the extent to which the design standards 61566
support the following:61567

       (1) Support and facilitation of smaller classes and the trend 61568
toward smaller schoolsTrends in educational delivery methods, 61569
including digital access and blended learning;61570

       (2) Provision of sufficient space for training new teachers 61571
and promotion of collaboration among teaching candidates, 61572
experienced teachers, and teacher educators;61573

       (3) Provision of adequate space for teacher planning and 61574
collaboration;61575

       (4) Provision of adequate space for parent involvement 61576
activities;61577

       (5) Provision of sufficient space for innovative partnerships 61578
between schools and health and social service agencies.61579

       Sec. 3318.08.  Except in the case of a joint vocational 61580
school district that receives assistance under sections 3318.40 to 61581
3318.45 of the Revised Code, if the requisite favorable vote on 61582
the election is obtained, or if the school district board has 61583
resolved to apply the proceeds of a property tax levy or the 61584
proceeds of an income tax, or a combination of proceeds from such 61585
taxes, as authorized in section 3318.052 of the Revised Code, the 61586
Ohio school facilities commission, upon certification to it of 61587
either the results of the election or the resolution under section 61588
3318.052 of the Revised Code, shall enter into a written agreement 61589
with the school district board for the construction and sale of 61590
the project. In the case of a joint vocational school district 61591
that receives assistance under sections 3318.40 to 3318.45 of the 61592
Revised Code, if the school district board of education and the 61593
school district electors have satisfied the conditions prescribed 61594
in division (D)(1) of section 3318.41 of the Revised Code, the 61595
commission shall enter into an agreement with the school district 61596
board for the construction and sale of the project. In either 61597
case, the agreement shall include, but need not be limited to, the 61598
following provisions:61599

       (A) The sale and issuance of bonds or notes in anticipation 61600
thereof, as soon as practicable after the execution of the 61601
agreement, in an amount equal to the school district's portion of 61602
the basic project cost, including any securities authorized under 61603
division (J) of section 133.06 of the Revised Code and dedicated 61604
by the school district board to payment of the district's portion 61605
of the basic project cost of the project; provided, that if at 61606
that time the county treasurer of each county in which the school 61607
district is located has not commenced the collection of taxes on 61608
the general duplicate of real and public utility property for the 61609
year in which the controlling board approved the project, the 61610
school district board shall authorize the issuance of a first 61611
installment of bond anticipation notes in an amount specified by 61612
the agreement, which amount shall not exceed an amount necessary 61613
to raise the net bonded indebtedness of the school district as of 61614
the date of the controlling board's approval to within five 61615
thousand dollars of the required level of indebtedness for the 61616
preceding year. In the event that a first installment of bond 61617
anticipation notes is issued, the school district board shall, as 61618
soon as practicable after the county treasurer of each county in 61619
which the school district is located has commenced the collection 61620
of taxes on the general duplicate of real and public utility 61621
property for the year in which the controlling board approved the 61622
project, authorize the issuance of a second and final installment 61623
of bond anticipation notes or a first and final issue of bonds.61624

       The combined value of the first and second installment of 61625
bond anticipation notes or the value of the first and final issue 61626
of bonds shall be equal to the school district's portion of the 61627
basic project cost. The proceeds of any such bonds shall be used 61628
first to retire any bond anticipation notes. Otherwise, the 61629
proceeds of such bonds and of any bond anticipation notes, except 61630
the premium and accrued interest thereon, shall be deposited in 61631
the school district's project construction fund. In determining 61632
the amount of net bonded indebtedness for the purpose of fixing 61633
the amount of an issue of either bonds or bond anticipation notes, 61634
gross indebtedness shall be reduced by moneys in the bond 61635
retirement fund only to the extent of the moneys therein on the 61636
first day of the year preceding the year in which the controlling 61637
board approved the project. Should there be a decrease in the tax 61638
valuation of the school district so that the amount of 61639
indebtedness that can be incurred on the tax duplicates for the 61640
year in which the controlling board approved the project is less 61641
than the amount of the first installment of bond anticipation 61642
notes, there shall be paid from the school district's project 61643
construction fund to the school district's bond retirement fund to 61644
be applied against such notes an amount sufficient to cause the 61645
net bonded indebtedness of the school district, as of the first 61646
day of the year following the year in which the controlling board 61647
approved the project, to be within five thousand dollars of the 61648
required level of indebtedness for the year in which the 61649
controlling board approved the project. The maximum amount of 61650
indebtedness to be incurred by any school district board as its 61651
share of the cost of the project is either an amount that will 61652
cause its net bonded indebtedness, as of the first day of the year 61653
following the year in which the controlling board approved the 61654
project, to be within five thousand dollars of the required level 61655
of indebtedness, or an amount equal to the required percentage of 61656
the basic project costs, whichever is greater. All bonds and bond 61657
anticipation notes shall be issued in accordance with Chapter 133. 61658
of the Revised Code, and notes may be renewed as provided in 61659
section 133.22 of the Revised Code.61660

       (B) The transfer of such funds of the school district board 61661
available for the project, together with the proceeds of the sale 61662
of the bonds or notes, except premium, accrued interest, and 61663
interest included in the amount of the issue, to the school 61664
district's project construction fund;61665

       (C) For all school districts except joint vocational school 61666
districts that receive assistance under sections 3318.40 to 61667
3318.45 of the Revised Code, the following provisions as 61668
applicable:61669

       (1) If section 3318.052 of the Revised Code applies, the 61670
earmarking of the proceeds of a tax levied under section 5705.21 61671
of the Revised Code for general permanent improvements or under 61672
section 5705.218 of the Revised Code for the purpose of permanent 61673
improvements, or the proceeds of a school district income tax 61674
levied under Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code, or the proceeds 61675
from a combination of those two taxes, in an amount to pay all or 61676
part of the service charges on bonds issued to pay the school 61677
district portion of the project and an amount equivalent to all or 61678
part of the tax required under division (B) of section 3318.05 of 61679
the Revised Code;61680

       (2) If section 3318.052 of the Revised Code does not apply, 61681
one of the following:61682

       (a) The levy of the tax authorized at the election for the 61683
payment of maintenance costs, as specified in division (B) of 61684
section 3318.05 of the Revised Code;61685

       (b) If the school district electors have approved a 61686
continuing tax for general permanent improvements under section 61687
5705.21 of the Revised Code and that tax can be used for 61688
maintenance, the earmarking of an amount of the proceeds from such 61689
tax for maintenance of classroom facilities as specified in 61690
division (B) of section 3318.05 of the Revised Code;61691

       (c) If, in lieu of the tax otherwise required under division 61692
(B) of section 3318.05 of the Revised Code, the commission has 61693
approved the transfer of money to the maintenance fund in 61694
accordance with section 3318.051 of the Revised Code, a 61695
requirement that the district board comply with the provisions of61696
that section. The district board may rescind the provision 61697
prescribed under division (C)(2)(c) of this section only so long 61698
as the electors of the district have approved, in accordance with 61699
section 3318.063 of the Revised Code, the levy of a tax for the 61700
maintenance of the classroom facilities acquired under the 61701
district's project and that levy continues to be collected as 61702
approved by the electors.61703

       (D) For joint vocational school districts that receive 61704
assistance under sections 3318.40 to 3318.45 of the Revised Code, 61705
provision for deposit of school district moneys dedicated to 61706
maintenance of the classroom facilities acquired under those 61707
sections as prescribed in section 3318.43 of the Revised Code;61708

       (E) Dedication of any local donated contribution as provided 61709
for under section 3318.084 of the Revised Code, including a 61710
schedule for depositing such moneys applied as an offset of the 61711
district's obligation to levy the tax described in division (B) of 61712
section 3318.05 of the Revised Code as required under division 61713
(D)(2) of section 3318.084 of the Revised Code;61714

       (F) Ownership of or interest in the project during the period 61715
of construction, which shall be divided between the commission and 61716
the school district board in proportion to their respective 61717
contributions to the school district's project construction fund;61718

       (G) Maintenance of the state's interest in the project until 61719
any obligations issued for the project under section 3318.26 of 61720
the Revised Code are no longer outstanding;61721

       (H) The insurance of the project by the school district from 61722
the time there is an insurable interest therein and so long as the 61723
state retains any ownership or interest in the project pursuant to 61724
division (F) of this section, in such amounts and against such 61725
risks as the commission shall require; provided, that the cost of 61726
any required insurance until the project is completed shall be a 61727
part of the basic project cost;61728

       (I) The certification by the director of budget and 61729
management that funds are available and have been set aside to 61730
meet the state's share of the basic project cost as approved by 61731
the controlling board pursuant to either section 3318.04 or 61732
division (B)(1) of section 3318.41 of the Revised Code;61733

       (J) Authorization of the school district board to advertise 61734
for and receive construction bids for the project, for and on 61735
behalf of the commission, and to award contracts in the name of 61736
the state subject to approval by the commission;61737

       (K) Provisions for the disbursement of moneys from the school 61738
district's project account upon issuance by the commission or the 61739
commission's designated representative of vouchers for work done 61740
to be certified to the commission by the treasurer of the school 61741
district board;61742

       (L) Disposal of any balance left in the school district's 61743
project construction fund upon completion of the project;61744

       (M) Limitations upon use of the project or any part of it so 61745
long as any obligations issued to finance the project under 61746
section 3318.26 of the Revised Code are outstanding;61747

       (N) Provision for vesting the state's interest in the project 61748
to the school district board when the obligations issued to 61749
finance the project under section 3318.26 of the Revised Code are 61750
outstanding;61751

       (O) Provision for deposit of an executed copy of the 61752
agreement in the office of the commission;61753

       (P) Provision for termination of the contract and release of 61754
the funds encumbered at the time of the conditional approval, if 61755
the proceeds of the sale of the bonds of the school district board 61756
are not paid into the school district's project construction fund 61757
and if bids for the construction of the project have not been 61758
taken within such period after the execution of the agreement as 61759
may be fixed by the commission;61760

       (Q) Provision for the school district to maintain the project 61761
in accordance with a plan approved by the commission;61762

       (R) Provision that all state funds reserved and encumbered to 61763
pay the state share of the cost of the project and the funds 61764
provided by the school district to pay for its share of the 61765
project cost, including the respective shares of the cost of a 61766
segment if the project is divided into segments, be spent on the 61767
construction and acquisition of the project or segment 61768
simultaneously in proportion to the state's and the school 61769
district's respective shares of that basic project cost as 61770
determined under section 3318.032 of the Revised Code or, if the 61771
district is a joint vocational school district, under section 61772
3318.42 of the Revised Code. However, if the school district 61773
certifies to the commission that expenditure by the school 61774
district is necessary to maintain the federal tax status or 61775
tax-exempt status of notes or bonds issued by the school district 61776
to pay for its share of the project cost or to comply with 61777
applicable temporary investment periods or spending exceptions to 61778
rebate as provided for under federal law in regard to those notes 61779
or bonds, the school district may commit to spend, or spend, a 61780
greater portion of the funds it provides during any specific 61781
period than would otherwise be required under this division.61782

       (S) A provision stipulating that the commission may prohibit 61783
the district from proceeding with any project if the commission 61784
determines that the site is not suitable for construction 61785
purposes. The commission may perform soil tests in its 61786
determination of whether a site is appropriate for construction 61787
purposes.61788

       (T) A provision stipulating that, unless otherwise authorized 61789
by the commission, any contingency reserve portion of the 61790
construction budget prescribed by the commission shall be used 61791
only to pay costs resulting from unforeseen job conditions, to 61792
comply with rulings regarding building and other codes, to pay 61793
costs related to design clarifications or corrections to contract 61794
documents, and to pay the costs of settlements or judgments 61795
related to the project as provided under section 3318.086 of the 61796
Revised Code;61797

       (U) ProvisionA provision stipulating that for continued 61798
release of project funds the school district board shall comply 61799
with sectionsections 3313.41 and 3313.411 of the Revised Code 61800
throughout the project and shall notify the department of 61801
education and the Ohio community school association when the board 61802
plans to dispose of facilities by sale under that section;61803

       (V) ProvisionA provision stipulating that the commission 61804
shall not approve a contract for demolition of a facility until 61805
the school district board has complied with sectionsections61806
3313.41 and 3313.411 of the Revised Code relative to that 61807
facility, unless demolition of that facility is to clear a site 61808
for construction of a replacement facility included in the 61809
district's project;61810

       (W) A requirement for the school district to adhere to a 61811
facilities maintenance plan approved by the commission.61812

       Sec. 3318.31.  (A) The Ohio school facilities commission may 61813
perform any act and ensure the performance of any function 61814
necessary or appropriate to carry out the purposes of, and 61815
exercise the powers granted under, Chapter 3318. of the Revised 61816
Code, including any of the following:61817

       (1) Adopt, amend, and rescind, pursuant to section 111.15 of 61818
the Revised Code, rules for the administration of programs 61819
authorized under Chapter 3318. of the Revised Code.61820

       (2) Contract with, retain the services of, or designate, and 61821
fix the compensation of, such agents, accountants, consultants, 61822
advisers, and other independent contractors as may be necessary or 61823
desirable to carry out the programs authorized under Chapter 3318. 61824
of the Revised Code, or authorize the executive director to 61825
perform such powers and duties.61826

       (3) Receive and accept any gifts, grants, donations, and 61827
pledges, and receipts therefrom, to be used for the programs 61828
authorized under Chapter 3318. of the Revised Code.61829

       (4) Make and enter into all contracts, commitments, and 61830
agreements, and execute all instruments, necessary or incidental 61831
to the performance of its duties and the execution of its rights 61832
and powers under Chapter 3318. of the Revised Code, or authorize 61833
the executive director or the Ohio facilities construction 61834
commission to perform such powers and duties.61835

       (5) Request the Ohio facilities construction commission to 61836
debar a contractor as provided in section 153.02 of the Revised 61837
Code.61838

       (B) The Ohio school facilities commission shall appoint and 61839
fix the compensation of an executive director whoof the Ohio 61840
facilities construction commission, as appointed under division 61841
(B) of section 123.21 of the Revised Code, shall also serve at the 61842
pleasure ofas the executive director for the Ohio school 61843
facilities commission. The executive director shall exercise all 61844
powers that the Ohio school facilities commission possesses, 61845
supervise the operations of the Ohio school facilities commission 61846
and perform such other duties as delegated by the Ohio school 61847
facilities commission. The executive director also shall employ 61848
and fix the compensation of such employees as will facilitate the 61849
activities and purposes of the Ohio school facilities commission, 61850
who shall serve at the pleasure of the executive director. The 61851
employees of the Ohio school facilities commission shall be exempt 61852
from Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code and shall not be public 61853
employees as defined in section 4117.01 of the Revised Code. Any 61854
agreement entered into prior to July 1, 2012, between the office 61855
of collective bargaining and the exclusive representative for 61856
employees of the commission is binding and shall continue to have 61857
effect.61858

       (C) The attorney general shall serve as the legal 61859
representative for the Ohio school facilities commission and may 61860
appoint other counsel as necessary for that purpose in accordance 61861
with section 109.07 of the Revised Code.61862

       Sec. 3318.36.  (A)(1) As used in this section:61863

       (a) "Ohio school facilities commission," "classroom 61864
facilities," "school district," "school district board," "net 61865
bonded indebtedness," "required percentage of the basic project 61866
costs," "basic project cost," "valuation," and "percentile" have 61867
the same meanings as in section 3318.01 of the Revised Code.61868

       (b) "Required level of indebtedness" means five per cent of 61869
the school district's valuation for the year preceding the year in 61870
which the commission and school district enter into an agreement 61871
under division (B) of this section, plus [two one-hundredths of 61872
one per cent multiplied by (the percentile in which the district 61873
ranks minus one)].61874

       (c) "Local resources" means any moneys generated in any 61875
manner permitted for a school district board to raise the school 61876
district portion of a project undertaken with assistance under 61877
sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code.61878

       (d) "Tangible personal property phase-out impacted district" 61879
means a school district for which the taxable value of its 61880
tangible personal property certified under division (A)(2) of 61881
section 3317.021 of the Revised Code for tax year 2005, excluding 61882
the taxable value of public utility personal property, made up 61883
eighteen per cent or more of its total taxable value for tax year 61884
2005 as certified under that section.61885

       (2) For purposes of determining the required level of 61886
indebtedness, the required percentage of the basic project costs 61887
under division (C)(1) of this section, and priority for assistance 61888
under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code, the 61889
percentile ranking of a school district with which the commission 61890
has entered into an agreement under this section between the first 61891
day of July and the thirty-first day of August in each fiscal year 61892
is the percentile ranking calculated for that district for the 61893
immediately preceding fiscal year, and the percentile ranking of a 61894
school district with which the commission has entered into such 61895
agreement between the first day of September and the thirtieth day 61896
of June in each fiscal year is the percentile ranking calculated 61897
for that district for the current fiscal year. However, in the 61898
case of a tangible personal property phase-out impacted district, 61899
the district's priority for assistance under sections 3318.01 to 61900
3318.20 of the Revised Code and its portion of the basic project 61901
cost under those sections shall be determined in the manner 61902
prescribed, respectively, in divisions (B)(3)(b) and (E)(1)(b) of 61903
this section.61904

       (B)(1) There is hereby established the school building 61905
assistance expedited local partnership program. Under the program, 61906
the Ohio school facilities commission may enter into an agreement 61907
with the board of any school district under which the board may 61908
proceed with the new construction or major repairs of a part of 61909
the district's classroom facilities needs, as determined under 61910
sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code, through the 61911
expenditure of local resources prior to the school district's 61912
eligibility for state assistance under those sections, and may 61913
apply that expenditure toward meeting the school district's 61914
portion of the basic project cost of the total of the district's 61915
classroom facilities needs, as recalculated under division (E) of 61916
this section, when the district becomes eligible for state 61917
assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 or section 3318.364 61918
of the Revised Code. Any school district that is reasonably 61919
expected to receive assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 61920
of the Revised Code within two fiscal years from the date the 61921
school district adopts its resolution under division (B) of this 61922
section shall not be eligible to participate in the program 61923
established under this section.61924

       (2) To participate in the program, a school district board 61925
shall first adopt a resolution certifying to the commission the 61926
board's intent to participate in the program.61927

       The resolution shall specify the approximate date that the 61928
board intends to seek elector approval of any bond or tax measures 61929
or to apply other local resources to use to pay the cost of 61930
classroom facilities to be constructed under this section. The 61931
resolution may specify the application of local resources or 61932
elector-approved bond or tax measures after the resolution is 61933
adopted by the board, and in such case the board may proceed with 61934
a discrete portion of its project under this section as soon as 61935
the commission and the controlling board have approved the basic 61936
project cost of the district's classroom facilities needs as 61937
specified in division (D) of this section. The board shall submit 61938
its resolution to the commission not later than ten days after the 61939
date the resolution is adopted by the board.61940

       The commission shall not consider any resolution that is 61941
submitted pursuant to division (B)(2) of this section, as amended 61942
by this amendment, sooner than September 14, 2000.61943

       (3) For purposes of determining when a district that enters 61944
into an agreement under this section becomes eligible for 61945
assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code 61946
or priority for assistance under section 3318.364 of the Revised 61947
Code, the commission shall use one of the following as applicable:61948

       (a) Except for a tangible personal property phase-out 61949
impacted district, the district's percentile ranking determined at 61950
the time the district entered into the agreement under this 61951
section, as prescribed by division (A)(2) of this section;61952

       (b) For a tangible personal property phase-out impacted 61953
district, the lesser of (i) the district's percentile ranking 61954
determined at the time the district entered into the agreement 61955
under this section, as prescribed by division (A)(2) of this 61956
section, or (ii) the district's current percentile ranking under 61957
section 3318.011 of the Revised Code.61958

       (4) Any project under this section shall comply with section 61959
3318.03 of the Revised Code and with any specifications for plans 61960
and materials for classroom facilities adopted by the commission 61961
under section 3318.04 of the Revised Code.61962

       (5) If a school district that enters into an agreement under 61963
this section has not begun a project applying local resources as 61964
provided for under that agreement at the time the district is 61965
notified by the commission that it is eligible to receive state 61966
assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code, 61967
all assessment and agreement documents entered into under this 61968
section are void.61969

       (6) Only construction of or repairs to classroom facilities 61970
that have been approved by the commission and have been therefore 61971
included as part of a district's basic project cost qualify for 61972
application of local resources under this section.61973

       (C) Based on the results of on-site visits and assessment, 61974
the commission shall determine the basic project cost of the 61975
school district's classroom facilities needs. The commission shall 61976
determine the school district's portion of such basic project 61977
cost, which shall be the greater of:61978

       (1) The required percentage of the basic project costs, 61979
determined based on the school district's percentile ranking;61980

       (2) An amount necessary to raise the school district's net 61981
bonded indebtedness, as of the fiscal year the commission and the 61982
school district enter into the agreement under division (B) of 61983
this section, to within five thousand dollars of the required 61984
level of indebtedness.61985

       (D)(1) When the commission determines the basic project cost 61986
of the classroom facilities needs of a school district and the 61987
school district's portion of that basic project cost under 61988
division (C) of this section, the project shall be conditionally 61989
approved. Such conditional approval shall be submitted to the 61990
controlling board for approval thereof. The controlling board 61991
shall forthwith approve or reject the commission's determination, 61992
conditional approval, and the amount of the state's portion of the 61993
basic project cost; however, no state funds shall be encumbered 61994
under this section. Upon approval by the controlling board, the 61995
school district board may identify a discrete part of its 61996
classroom facilities needs, which shall include only new 61997
construction of or additions or major repairs to a particular 61998
building, to address with local resources. Upon identifying a part 61999
of the school district's basic project cost to address with local 62000
resources, the school district board may allocate any available 62001
school district moneys to pay the cost of that identified part, 62002
including the proceeds of an issuance of bonds if approved by the 62003
electors of the school district.62004

       All local resources utilized under this division shall first 62005
be deposited in the project construction account required under 62006
section 3318.08 of the Revised Code.62007

       (2) Unless the school district board exercises its option 62008
under division (D)(3) of this section, for a school district to 62009
qualify for participation in the program authorized under this 62010
section, one of the following conditions shall be satisfied:62011

       (a) The electors of the school district by a majority vote 62012
shall approve the levy of taxes outside the ten-mill limitation 62013
for a period of twenty-three years at the rate of not less than 62014
one-half mill for each dollar of valuation to be used to pay the 62015
cost of maintaining the classroom facilities included in the basic 62016
project cost as determined by the commission. The form of the 62017
ballot to be used to submit the question whether to approve the 62018
tax required under this division to the electors of the school 62019
district shall be the form for an additional levy of taxes 62020
prescribed in section 3318.361 of the Revised Code, which may be 62021
combined in a single ballot question with the questions prescribed 62022
under section 5705.218 of the Revised Code.62023

       (b) As authorized under division (C) of section 3318.05 of 62024
the Revised Code, the school district board shall earmark from the 62025
proceeds of a permanent improvement tax levied under section 62026
5705.21 of the Revised Code, an amount equivalent to the 62027
additional tax otherwise required under division (D)(2)(a) of this 62028
section for the maintenance of the classroom facilities included 62029
in the basic project cost as determined by the commission.62030

       (c) As authorized under section 3318.051 of the Revised Code, 62031
the school district board shall, if approved by the commission, 62032
annually transfer into the maintenance fund required under section 62033
3318.05 of the Revised Code the amount prescribed in section 62034
3318.051 of the Revised Code in lieu of the tax otherwise required 62035
under division (D)(2)(a) of this section for the maintenance of 62036
the classroom facilities included in the basic project cost as 62037
determined by the commission.62038

        (d) If the school district board has rescinded the agreement 62039
to make transfers under section 3318.051 of the Revised Code, as 62040
provided under division (F) of that section, the electors of the 62041
school district, in accordance with section 3318.063 of the 62042
Revised Code, first shall approve the levy of taxes outside the 62043
ten-mill limitation for the period specified in that section at a 62044
rate of not less than one-half mill for each dollar of valuation.62045

       (e) The school district board shall apply the proceeds of a 62046
tax to leverage bonds as authorized under section 3318.052 of the 62047
Revised Code or dedicate a local donated contribution in the 62048
manner described in division (B) of section 3318.084 of the 62049
Revised Code in an amount equivalent to the additional tax 62050
otherwise required under division (D)(2)(a) of this section for 62051
the maintenance of the classroom facilities included in the basic 62052
project cost as determined by the commission.62053

       (3) A school district board may opt to delay taking any of 62054
the actions described in division (D)(2) of this section until the 62055
school district becomes eligible for state assistance under 62056
sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code. In order to 62057
exercise this option, the board shall certify to the commission a 62058
resolution indicating the board's intent to do so prior to 62059
entering into an agreement under division (B) of this section.62060

       (4) If pursuant to division (D)(3) of this section a district 62061
board opts to delay levying an additional tax until the district 62062
becomes eligible for state assistance, it shall submit the 62063
question of levying that tax to the district electors as follows:62064

       (a) In accordance with section 3318.06 of the Revised Code if 62065
it will also be necessary pursuant to division (E) of this section 62066
to submit a proposal for approval of a bond issue;62067

       (b) In accordance with section 3318.361 of the Revised Code 62068
if it is not necessary to also submit a proposal for approval of a 62069
bond issue pursuant to division (E) of this section.62070

       (5) No state assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of 62071
the Revised Code shall be released until a school district board 62072
that adopts and certifies a resolution under division (D) of this 62073
section also demonstrates to the satisfaction of the commission 62074
compliance with the provisions of division (D)(2) of this section.62075

       Any amount required for maintenance under division (D)(2) of 62076
this section shall be deposited into a separate fund as specified 62077
in division (B) of section 3318.05 of the Revised Code.62078

       (E)(1) If the school district becomes eligible for state 62079
assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code 62080
based on its percentile ranking under division (B)(3) of this 62081
section or is offered assistance under section 3318.364 of the 62082
Revised Code, the commission shall conduct a new assessment of the 62083
school district's classroom facilities needs and shall recalculate 62084
the basic project cost based on this new assessment. The basic 62085
project cost recalculated under this division shall include the 62086
amount of expenditures made by the school district board under 62087
division (D)(1) of this section. The commission shall then 62088
recalculate the school district's portion of the new basic project 62089
cost, which shall be one of the following as applicable:62090

       (a) Except for a tangible personal property phase-out 62091
impacted district, the percentage of the original basic project 62092
cost assigned to the school district as its portion under division 62093
(C) of this section;62094

       (b) For a tangible personal property phase-out impacted 62095
district, the lesser of (i) the percentage of the original basic 62096
project cost assigned to the school district as its portion under 62097
division (C) of this section, or (ii) the percentage of the new 62098
basic project cost determined under section 3318.032 of the 62099
Revised Code using the district's current percentile ranking under 62100
section 3318.011 of the Revised Code. The62101

       The commission shall deduct the expenditure of school 62102
district moneys made under division (D)(1) of this section from 62103
the school district's portion of the basic project cost as 62104
recalculated under this division. If the amount of school district 62105
resources applied by the school district board to the school 62106
district's portion of the basic project cost under this section is 62107
less than the total amount of such portion as recalculated under 62108
this division, the school district board by a majority vote of all 62109
of its members shall, if it desires to seek state assistance under 62110
sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code, adopt a 62111
resolution as specified in section 3318.06 of the Revised Code to 62112
submit to the electors of the school district the question of 62113
approval of a bond issue in order to pay any additional amount of 62114
school district portion required for state assistance. Any tax 62115
levy approved under division (D) of this section satisfies the 62116
requirements to levy the additional tax under section 3318.06 of 62117
the Revised Code.62118

       (2) If the amount of school district resources applied by the 62119
school district board to the school district's portion of the 62120
basic project cost under this section is more than the total 62121
amount of such portion as recalculated under this division (E)(1) 62122
of this section, within one year after the school district's 62123
portion is so recalculated under division (E)(1) of this section62124
the commission may grant to the school district the difference 62125
between the two calculated portions, but at no time shall the 62126
commission expend any state funds on a project in an amount 62127
greater than the state's portion of the basic project cost as 62128
recalculated under this division (E)(1) of this section.62129

       Any reimbursement under this division shall be only for local 62130
resources the school district has applied toward construction cost 62131
expenditures for the classroom facilities approved by the 62132
commission, which shall not include any financing costs associated 62133
with that construction.62134

       The school district board shall use any moneys reimbursed to 62135
the district under this division to pay off any debt service the 62136
district owes for classroom facilities constructed under its 62137
project under this section before such moneys are applied to any 62138
other purpose. However, the district board first may deposit 62139
moneys reimbursed under this division into the district's general 62140
fund or a permanent improvement fund to replace local resources 62141
the district withdrew from those funds, as long as, and to the 62142
extent that, those local resources were used by the district for 62143
constructing classroom facilities included in the district's basic 62144
project cost.62145

       (3) A tangible personal property phase-out impacted district 62146
shall receive credit under division (E) of this section for the 62147
expenditure of local resources pursuant to any prior agreement 62148
authorized by this section, notwithstanding any recalculation of 62149
its average taxable value.62150

       Sec. 3318.363. (A) This section applies beginning in fiscal 62151
year 2003 and only to a school district participating in the 62152
school building assistance expedited local partnership program 62153
under section 3318.36 of the Revised Code.62154

       (B) If there is a decrease in the tax valuation of a school 62155
district to which this section applies by ten per cent or greater 62156
from one tax year to the next due to a decrease in the assessment 62157
rate of the taxable property of an electric company that owns 62158
property in the district, as provided for in section 5727.111 of 62159
the Revised Code as amended by Am. Sub. S.B. 3 of the 123rd 62160
General Assembly, the Ohio school facilities commission shall 62161
calculate or recalculate the state and school district portions of 62162
the basic project cost of the school district's project by 62163
determining the percentile rank in which the district would be 62164
located if such ranking were made using the adjusted valuation per 62165
pupil calculated under division (C) of this section rather than 62166
the three-year average adjusted valuation per pupil, calculated 62167
under division (B) of section 3318.011 of the Revised Code. For 62168
such district, the required percentage of the basic project cost 62169
used to determine the state and school district shares of that 62170
cost under division (C) of section 3318.36 of the Revised Code 62171
shall be based on the percentile rank as calculated under this 62172
section rather than as otherwise provided in division (C)(1) of 62173
section 3318.36 of the Revised Code. If the commission has 62174
determined the state and school district portion of the basic 62175
project cost of such a district's project under section 3318.36 of 62176
the Revised Code prior to that decrease in tax valuation, the 62177
commission shall adjust the state and school district shares of 62178
the basic project cost of such project in accordance with this 62179
section.62180

       (C)(1) As used in divisions (C) and (D) of this section, 62181
"total taxable value," and "formula ADM," and "income factor" have 62182
the same meanings as in section 3317.02 of the Revised Code, and 62183
"income factor" has the same meaning as in section 3318.011 of the 62184
Revised Code.62185

       (2) The adjusted valuation per pupil for a school district to 62186
which this section applies shall be calculated using the following 62187
formula:62188

       (The district's total taxable value for the tax year 62189
preceding the calendar year in which the current fiscal year 62190
begins / the district's formula ADM for the previous fiscal year) 62191
- [$30,000 x (1 - the district's income factor)].62192

       (D) At the request of the Ohio school facilities commission, 62193
the department of education shall report a district's total 62194
taxable value for the tax year preceding the calendar year in 62195
which the current fiscal year begins for any district to which 62196
this section applies as that information has been certified to the 62197
department by the tax commissioner pursuant to section 3317.021 of 62198
the Revised Code.62199

       Sec. 3319.031.  Notwithstanding any provision of the Revised 62200
Code to the contrary, if the board of education of a city, local, 62201
or exempted village school district does not appoint a business 62202
manager under section 3319.03 of the Revised Code, the board may 62203
assign powers and duties specified in section 3319.04 of the 62204
Revised Code to one or more employees or officers of the board, 62205
including the treasurer, and may give the employees or officers 62206
any title recognizing the assignment of the powers and duties. The 62207
prohibition, in section 3319.04 of the Revised Code, against a 62208
business manager having possession of moneys does not prevent a 62209
board from assigning powers and duties specified in that section 62210
to the treasurer and does not prevent a treasurer who is assigned 62211
those powers and duties from exercising the powers and duties of 62212
treasurer. If the board assigns the duties of a business manager 62213
under section 3319.04 of the Revised Code to the treasurer, the 62214
treasurer shall not have the authority to make recommendations to 62215
appoint or discharge noneducational employees, except as provided 62216
under section 3313.31 of the Revised Code. Instead, the district 62217
superintendent shall be responsible for making recommendations, 62218
subject to confirmation by the board, for the appointment or 62219
discharge of noneducational employees. 62220

       Sec. 3319.07.  (A) The board of education of each city, 62221
exempted village, local, and joint vocational school district 62222
shall employ the teachers of the public schools of their 62223
respective districts.62224

       The governing board of each educational service center may 62225
employ special instruction teachers, special education teachers, 62226
and teachers of academic courses in which there are too few 62227
students in each of the school districts entering into agreements 62228
pursuant to section 3313.843 of the Revised Code to warrant each 62229
district's employing teachers for those courses.62230

       When any board makes appointments of teachers, the teachers 62231
in the employ of the board shall be considered before new teachers 62232
are chosen in their stead. In all school districts and in service 62233
centers, no teacher shall be employed unless such person is 62234
nominated by the superintendent of such district or center, or by 62235
another individual designated by the board in the event that the 62236
superintendent's nomination would be a violation of section 62237
2921.42 of the Revised Code. Such board, by a three-fourths vote 62238
of its full membership, may re-employ any teacher whom the 62239
superintendent refuses to appoint.62240

       (B) The board of education of any school district may 62241
contract with the governing board of the educational service 62242
center from which it otherwise receives services to conduct 62243
searches and recruitment of candidates for teacher positions.62244

       Sec. 3319.073.  (A) The board of education of each city and 62245
exempted village school district and the governing board of each 62246
educational service center shall adopt or adapt the curriculum 62247
developed by the department of education for, or shall develop in 62248
consultation with public or private agencies or persons involved 62249
in child abuse prevention or intervention programs, a program of 62250
in-service training in the prevention of child abuse, violence, 62251
and substance abuse and the promotion of positive youth 62252
development. Each person employed by any school district or 62253
service center to work in a school as a nurse, teacher, counselor, 62254
school psychologist, or administrator shall complete at least four 62255
hours of the in-service training within two years of commencing 62256
employment with the district or center, and every five years 62257
thereafter. A person who is employed by any school district or 62258
service center to work in an elementary school as a nurse, 62259
teacher, counselor, school psychologist, or administrator on March 62260
30, 2007, shall complete at least four hours of the in-service 62261
training not later than March 30, 2009, and every five years 62262
thereafter. A person who is employed by any school district or 62263
service center to work in a middle or high school as a nurse, 62264
teacher, counselor, school psychologist, or administrator on 62265
October 16, 2009, shall complete at least four hours of the 62266
in-service training not later than October 16, 2011, and every 62267
five years thereafter.62268

       (B) Each board shall incorporate training in school safety 62269
and violence prevention, including human trafficking content, into 62270
the in-service training required by division (A) of this section. 62271
For this purpose, the board shall adopt or adapt the curriculum 62272
developed by the department or shall develop its own curriculum in 62273
consultation with public or private agencies or persons involved 62274
in school safety and violence prevention programs.62275

       (C) Each board shall incorporate training on the board's 62276
harassment, intimidation, or bullying policy adopted under section 62277
3313.666 of the Revised Code into the in-service training required 62278
by division (A) of this section. Each board also shall incorporate 62279
training in the prevention of dating violence into the in-service 62280
training required by that division for middle and high school 62281
employees. The board shall develop its own curricula for these 62282
purposes.62283

       (D) Each board shall incorporate training in youth suicide 62284
awareness and prevention into the in-service training required by 62285
division (A) of this section for each person employed by a school 62286
district or service center to work in a school as a nurse, 62287
teacher, counselor, school psychologist, or administrator, and any 62288
other personnel that the board determines appropriate. For this 62289
purpose, the board shall adopt or adapt the curriculum developed 62290
by the department or shall develop its own curriculum in 62291
consultation with public or private agencies or persons involved 62292
in youth suicide awareness and prevention programs.62293

       The training completed under this division shall count toward 62294
the satisfaction of requirements for professional development 62295
required by the school district or service center board, and the 62296
training may be accomplished through self-review of suitable 62297
suicide prevention materials approved by the board.62298

       Sec. 3319.0811. IfExcept as provided in section 3319.0812 of 62299
the Revised Code, if the board of education of a school district 62300
offers to students of compulsory school age courses for high 62301
school credit that are taught at times outside the district's 62302
normal school day, the board shall enter into supplemental 62303
contracts under section 3319.08 of the Revised Code with the 62304
teachers assigned to teach those courses and shall not include 62305
such assignment of duties within the teachers' regular employment 62306
contracts under that section.62307

       Sec. 3319.0812.  (A) As used in this section, "extended 62308
programming" means extended programming as described in section 62309
3301.0725 of the Revised Code.62310

       (B) The board of education of a school district shall pay a 62311
licensed educator who is providing extended programming on an 62312
hourly basis at the regular per diem rate determined under the 62313
licensed educator's employment contract or collective bargaining 62314
agreement.62315

       (C) A licensed educator shall not provide more than eight 62316
hours of extended programming in a twenty-four-hour day.62317

       Sec. 3319.112.  (A) Not later than December 31, 2011, the 62318
state board of education shall develop a standards-based state 62319
framework for the evaluation of teachers. The state board may 62320
update the framework periodically by adoption of a resolution. The 62321
framework shall establish an evaluation system that does the 62322
following:62323

        (1) Provides for multiple evaluation factors. One factor 62324
shall be student academic growth which shall account for fifty62325
thirty-five per cent of each evaluation. A school district may 62326
attribute an additional percentage to the academic growth factor, 62327
not to exceed fifteen per cent of each evaluation. When applicable 62328
to the grade level or subject area taught by a teacher, the 62329
value-added progress dimension established under section 3302.021 62330
of the Revised Code or an alternative student academic progress 62331
measure if adopted under division (C)(1)(e) of section 3302.03 of 62332
the Revised Code shall be used in the student academic growth 62333
portion of an evaluation in proportion to the part of a teacher's 62334
schedule of courses or subjects for which the value-added progress 62335
dimension is applicable.62336

        If a teacher's schedule is comprised only of courses or 62337
subjects for which the value-added progress dimension is 62338
applicable, one of the following applies:62339

        (a) Beginning with the effective date of this amendmentMarch 62340
22, 2013, until June 30, 2014, the majority of the student 62341
academic growth factor of the evaluation shall be based on the 62342
value-added progress dimension.62343

        (b) On or after July 1, 2014, the entire student academic 62344
growth factor of the evaluation shall be based on the value-added 62345
progress dimension. In calculating student academic growth for an 62346
evaluation, a student shall not be included if the student has 62347
sixtythirty or more excused or unexcused absences for the school 62348
year.62349

        (2) Is aligned with the standards for teachers adopted under 62350
section 3319.61 of the Revised Code;62351

        (3) Requires observation of the teacher being evaluated, 62352
including at least two formal observations by the evaluator of at 62353
least thirty minutes each and classroom walkthroughs;62354

        (4) Assigns a rating on each evaluation in accordance with 62355
division (B) of this section;62356

        (5) Requires each teacher to be provided with a written 62357
report of the results of the teacher's evaluation;62358

        (6) Identifies measures of student academic growth for grade 62359
levels and subjects for which the value-added progress dimension 62360
prescribed by section 3302.021 of the Revised Code or an 62361
alternative student academic progress measure if adopted under 62362
division (C)(1)(e) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code does not 62363
apply;62364

        (7) Implements a classroom-level, value-added program 62365
developed by a nonprofit organization described in division (B) of 62366
section 3302.021 of the Revised Code or an alternative student 62367
academic progress measure if adopted under division (C)(1)(e) of 62368
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code;62369

        (8) Provides for professional development to accelerate and 62370
continue teacher growth and provide support to poorly performing 62371
teachers;62372

        (9) Provides for the allocation of financial resources to 62373
support professional development.62374

       (B) For purposes of the framework developed under this 62375
section, the state board also shall do the following:62376

       (1) Develop specific standards and criteria that distinguish 62377
between the following levels of performance for teachers and 62378
principals for the purpose of assigning ratings on the evaluations 62379
conducted under sections 3311.80, 3311.84, 3319.02, and 3319.111 62380
of the Revised Code:62381

       (a) Accomplished;62382

       (b) Proficient;62383

       (c) Developing;62384

       (d) Ineffective.62385

       (2) For grade levels and subjects for which the assessments 62386
prescribed under sections 3301.0710 and 3301.0712 of the Revised 62387
Code and the value-added progress dimension prescribed by section 62388
3302.021 of the Revised Code, or alternative student academic 62389
progress measure, do not apply, develop a list of student 62390
assessments that measure mastery of the course content for the 62391
appropriate grade level, which may include nationally normed 62392
standardized assessments, industry certification examinations, or 62393
end-of-course examinations.62394

       (C) The state board shall consult with experts, teachers and 62395
principals employed in public schools, and representatives of 62396
stakeholder groups in developing the standards and criteria 62397
required by division (B)(1) of this section.62398

       (D) To assist school districts in developing evaluation 62399
policies under sections 3311.80, 3311.84, 3319.02, and 3319.111 of 62400
the Revised Code, the department shall do both of the following:62401

       (1) Serve as a clearinghouse of promising evaluation 62402
procedures and evaluation models that districts may use;62403

       (2) Provide technical assistance to districts in creating 62404
evaluation policies.62405

       (E) Not later than June 30, 2013, the state board, in 62406
consultation with state agencies that employ teachers, shall 62407
develop a standards-based framework for the evaluation of teachers 62408
employed by those agencies. Each state agency that employs 62409
teachers shall adopt a standards-based teacher evaluation policy 62410
that conforms with the framework developed under this division. 62411
The policy shall become operative at the expiration of any 62412
collective bargaining agreement covering teachers employed by the 62413
agency that is in effect on September 24, 2012, and shall be 62414
included in any renewal or extension of such an agreement. 62415
However, this division does not apply to any person who is 62416
employed as a substitute teacher or as an instructor of adult 62417
education.62418

       Sec. 3319.17.  (A) As used in this section, "interdistrict 62419
contract" means any contract or agreement entered into by an 62420
educational service center governing board and another board or 62421
other public entity pursuant to section 3313.17, 3313.841, 62422
3313.842, 3313.843, 3313.844, 3313.845, 3313.91, or 3323.08 of the 62423
Revised Code, including any such contract or agreement for the 62424
provision of services funded under division (E) of section 62425
3317.024 of the Revised Code or provided in any unit approved 62426
under section 3317.05 of the Revised Code.62427

       (B) When, for any of the following reasons that apply to any 62428
city, exempted village, local, or joint vocational school district 62429
or any educational service center, the board decides that it will 62430
be necessary to reduce the number of teachers it employs, it may 62431
make a reasonable reduction:62432

       (1) In the case of any district or service center, return to 62433
duty of regular teachers after leaves of absence including 62434
suspension of schools, territorial changes affecting the district 62435
or center, or financial reasons;62436

       (2) In the case of any city, exempted village, local, or 62437
joint vocational school district, decreased enrollment of pupils 62438
in the district;62439

       (3) In the case of any governing board of a service center 62440
providing any particular service directly to pupils pursuant to 62441
one or more interdistrict contracts requiring such service, 62442
reduction in the total number of pupils the governing board is 62443
required to provide with the service under all interdistrict 62444
contracts as a result of the termination or nonrenewal of one or 62445
more of these interdistrict contracts;62446

       (4) In the case of any governing board providing any 62447
particular service that it does not provide directly to pupils 62448
pursuant to one or more interdistrict contracts requiring such 62449
service, reduction in the total level of the service the governing 62450
board is required to provide under all interdistrict contracts as 62451
a result of the termination or nonrenewal of one or more of these 62452
interdistrict contracts.62453

       (C) In making any such reduction, any city, exempted village, 62454
local, or joint vocational school board shall proceed to suspend 62455
contracts in accordance with the recommendation of the 62456
superintendent of schools who shall, within each teaching field 62457
affected, give preference to teachers on continuing contracts. The 62458
board shall not give preference to any teacher based on seniority, 62459
except when making a decision between teachers who have comparable 62460
evaluations.62461

       On a case-by-case basis, in lieu of suspending a contract in 62462
whole, a board may suspend a contract in part, so that an 62463
individual is required to work a percentage of the time the 62464
employee otherwise is required to work under the contract and 62465
receives a commensurate percentage of the full compensation the 62466
employee otherwise would receive under the contract.62467

       The teachers whose continuing contracts are suspended by any 62468
board pursuant to this section shall have the right of restoration 62469
to continuing service status by that board if and when teaching 62470
positions become vacant or are created for which any of such 62471
teachers are or become qualified. No teacher whose continuing 62472
contract has been suspended pursuant to this section shall lose 62473
that right of restoration to continuing service status by reason 62474
of having declined recall to a position that is less than 62475
full-time or, if the teacher was not employed full-time just prior 62476
to suspension of the teacher's continuing contract, to a position 62477
requiring a lesser percentage of full-time employment than the 62478
position the teacher last held while employed in the district or 62479
service center. Seniority shall not be the basis for rehiring a 62480
teacher, except when making a decision between teachers who have 62481
comparable evaluations.62482

       (D) Notwithstanding any provision to the contrary in Chapter 62483
4117. of the Revised Code:62484

       (1) The requirements of this section, as it existed prior to 62485
the effective date of this amendmentSeptember 29, 2011, prevail 62486
over any conflicting provisions of agreements between employee 62487
organizations and public employers entered into between September 62488
29, 2005, and that effective dateSeptember 29, 2011;62489

       (2) The requirements of this section, as it exists on and 62490
after the effective date of this amendmentSeptember 29, 2011, 62491
prevail over any conflicting provisions of agreements between 62492
employee organizations and public employers entered into on or 62493
after that effective dateSeptember 29, 2011.62494

       Sec. 3319.22.  (A)(1) The state board of education shall 62495
issue the following educator licenses:62496

       (a) A resident educator license, which shall be valid for 62497
four years, except that the state board, on a case-by-case basis, 62498
may extend the license's duration as necessary to enable the 62499
license holder to complete the Ohio teacher residency program 62500
established under section 3319.223 of the Revised Code;62501

       (b) A professional educator license, which shall be valid for 62502
five years and shall be renewable;62503

       (c) A senior professional educator license, which shall be 62504
valid for five years and shall be renewable;62505

       (d) A lead professional educator license, which shall be 62506
valid for five years and shall be renewable.62507

       (2) The state board may issue any additional educator 62508
licenses of categories, types, and levels the board elects to 62509
provide. 62510

       (3) The state board shall adopt rules establishing the 62511
standards and requirements for obtaining each educator license 62512
issued under this section.62513

       (B) The rules adopted under this section shall require at 62514
least the following standards and qualifications for the educator 62515
licenses described in division (A)(1) of this section:62516

       (1) An applicant for a resident educator license shall hold 62517
at least a bachelor's degree from an accredited teacher 62518
preparation program or be a participant in the teach for America 62519
program and meet the qualifications required under section 62520
3319.227 of the Revised Code.62521

       (2) An applicant for a professional educator license shall:62522

       (a) Hold at least a bachelor's degree from an institution of 62523
higher education accredited by a regional accrediting 62524
organization;62525

       (b) Have successfully completed the Ohio teacher residency 62526
program established under section 3319.223 of the Revised Code, if 62527
the applicant's current or most recently issued license is a 62528
resident educator license issued under this section or an 62529
alternative resident educator license issued under section 3319.26 62530
of the Revised Code.62531

       (3) An applicant for a senior professional educator license 62532
shall:62533

       (a) Hold at least a master's degree from an institution of 62534
higher education accredited by a regional accrediting 62535
organization;62536

       (b) Have previously held a professional educator license 62537
issued under this section or section 3319.222 or under former 62538
section 3319.22 of the Revised Code;62539

       (c) Meet the criteria for the accomplished or distinguished 62540
level of performance, as described in the standards for teachers 62541
adopted by the state board under section 3319.61 of the Revised 62542
Code.62543

       (4) An applicant for a lead professional educator license 62544
shall:62545

       (a) Hold at least a master's degree from an institution of 62546
higher education accredited by a regional accrediting 62547
organization;62548

       (b) Have previously held a professional educator license or a 62549
senior professional educator license issued under this section or 62550
a professional educator license issued under section 3319.222 or 62551
former section 3319.22 of the Revised Code;62552

       (c) Meet the criteria for the distinguished level of 62553
performance, as described in the standards for teachers adopted by 62554
the state board under section 3319.61 of the Revised Code;62555

       (d) Either hold a valid certificate issued by the national 62556
board for professional teaching standards or meet the criteria for 62557
a master teacher or other criteria for a lead teacher adopted by 62558
the educator standards board under division (F)(4) or (5) of 62559
section 3319.61 of the Revised Code.62560

       (C) The state board shall align the standards and 62561
qualifications for obtaining a principal license with the 62562
standards for principals adopted by the state board under section 62563
3319.61 of the Revised Code. 62564

       (D) If the state board requires any examinations for educator 62565
licensure, the department of education shall provide the results 62566
of such examinations received by the department to the chancellor 62567
of the Ohio board of regents, in the manner and to the extent 62568
permitted by state and federal law.62569

       (E) Any rules the state board of education adopts, amends, or 62570
rescinds for educator licenses under this section, division (D) of 62571
section 3301.07 of the Revised Code, or any other law shall be 62572
adopted, amended, or rescinded under Chapter 119. of the Revised 62573
Code except as follows:62574

       (1) Notwithstanding division (D) of section 119.03 and 62575
division (A)(1) of section 119.04 of the Revised Code, in the case 62576
of the adoption of any rule or the amendment or rescission of any 62577
rule that necessitates institutions' offering preparation programs 62578
for educators and other school personnel that are approved by the 62579
chancellor of the Ohio board of regents under section 3333.048 of 62580
the Revised Code to revise the curriculum of those programs, the 62581
effective date shall not be as prescribed in division (D) of 62582
section 119.03 and division (A)(1) of section 119.04 of the 62583
Revised Code. Instead, the effective date of such rules, or the 62584
amendment or rescission of such rules, shall be the date 62585
prescribed by section 3333.048 of the Revised Code.62586

       (2) Notwithstanding the authority to adopt, amend, or rescind 62587
emergency rules in division (F) of section 119.03 of the Revised 62588
Code, this authority shall not apply to the state board of 62589
education with regard to rules for educator licenses.62590

       (F)(1) The rules adopted under this section establishing 62591
standards requiring additional coursework for the renewal of any 62592
educator license shall require a school district and a chartered 62593
nonpublic school to establish local professional development 62594
committees. In a nonpublic school, the chief administrative 62595
officer shall establish the committees in any manner acceptable to 62596
such officer. The committees established under this division shall 62597
determine whether coursework that a district or chartered 62598
nonpublic school teacher proposes to complete meets the 62599
requirement of the rules. The department of education shall 62600
provide technical assistance and support to committees as the 62601
committees incorporate the professional development standards 62602
adopted by the state board of education pursuant to section 62603
3319.61 of the Revised Code into their review of coursework that 62604
is appropriate for license renewal. The rules shall establish a 62605
procedure by which a teacher may appeal the decision of a local 62606
professional development committee.62607

       (2) In any school district in which there is no exclusive 62608
representative established under Chapter 4117. of the Revised 62609
Code, the professional development committees shall be established 62610
as described in division (F)(2) of this section.62611

       Not later than the effective date of the rules adopted under 62612
this section, the board of education of each school district shall 62613
establish the structure for one or more local professional 62614
development committees to be operated by such school district. The 62615
committee structure so established by a district board shall 62616
remain in effect unless within thirty days prior to an anniversary 62617
of the date upon which the current committee structure was 62618
established, the board provides notice to all affected district 62619
employees that the committee structure is to be modified. 62620
Professional development committees may have a district-level or 62621
building-level scope of operations, and may be established with 62622
regard to particular grade or age levels for which an educator 62623
license is designated.62624

       Each professional development committee shall consist of at 62625
least three classroom teachers employed by the district, one 62626
principal employed by the district, and one other employee of the 62627
district appointed by the district superintendent. For committees 62628
with a building-level scope, the teacher and principal members 62629
shall be assigned to that building, and the teacher members shall 62630
be elected by majority vote of the classroom teachers assigned to 62631
that building. For committees with a district-level scope, the 62632
teacher members shall be elected by majority vote of the classroom 62633
teachers of the district, and the principal member shall be 62634
elected by a majority vote of the principals of the district, 62635
unless there are two or fewer principals employed by the district, 62636
in which case the one or two principals employed shall serve on 62637
the committee. If a committee has a particular grade or age level 62638
scope, the teacher members shall be licensed to teach such grade 62639
or age levels, and shall be elected by majority vote of the 62640
classroom teachers holding such a license and the principal shall 62641
be elected by all principals serving in buildings where any such 62642
teachers serve. The district superintendent shall appoint a 62643
replacement to fill any vacancy that occurs on a professional 62644
development committee, except in the case of vacancies among the 62645
elected classroom teacher members, which shall be filled by vote 62646
of the remaining members of the committee so selected.62647

       Terms of office on professional development committees shall 62648
be prescribed by the district board establishing the committees. 62649
The conduct of elections for members of professional development 62650
committees shall be prescribed by the district board establishing 62651
the committees. A professional development committee may include 62652
additional members, except that the majority of members on each 62653
such committee shall be classroom teachers employed by the 62654
district. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior 62655
to the expiration date of the term for which a predecessor was 62656
appointed shall hold office as a member for the remainder of that 62657
term.62658

       The initial meeting of any professional development 62659
committee, upon election and appointment of all committee members, 62660
shall be called by a member designated by the district 62661
superintendent. At this initial meeting, the committee shall 62662
select a chairperson and such other officers the committee deems 62663
necessary, and shall adopt rules for the conduct of its meetings. 62664
Thereafter, the committee shall meet at the call of the 62665
chairperson or upon the filing of a petition with the district 62666
superintendent signed by a majority of the committee members 62667
calling for the committee to meet.62668

       (3) In the case of a school district in which an exclusive 62669
representative has been established pursuant to Chapter 4117. of 62670
the Revised Code, professional development committees shall be 62671
established in accordance with any collective bargaining agreement 62672
in effect in the district that includes provisions for such 62673
committees.62674

       If the collective bargaining agreement does not specify a 62675
different method for the selection of teacher members of the 62676
committees, the exclusive representative of the district's 62677
teachers shall select the teacher members.62678

       If the collective bargaining agreement does not specify a 62679
different structure for the committees, the board of education of 62680
the school district shall establish the structure, including the 62681
number of committees and the number of teacher and administrative 62682
members on each committee; the specific administrative members to 62683
be part of each committee; whether the scope of the committees 62684
will be district levels, building levels, or by type of grade or 62685
age levels for which educator licenses are designated; the lengths 62686
of terms for members; the manner of filling vacancies on the 62687
committees; and the frequency and time and place of meetings. 62688
However, in all cases, except as provided in division (F)(4) of 62689
this section, there shall be a majority of teacher members of any 62690
professional development committee, there shall be at least five 62691
total members of any professional development committee, and the 62692
exclusive representative shall designate replacement members in 62693
the case of vacancies among teacher members, unless the collective 62694
bargaining agreement specifies a different method of selecting 62695
such replacements.62696

       (4) Whenever an administrator's coursework plan is being 62697
discussed or voted upon, the local professional development 62698
committee shall, at the request of one of its administrative 62699
members, cause a majority of the committee to consist of 62700
administrative members by reducing the number of teacher members 62701
voting on the plan.62702

       (G)(1) The department of education, educational service 62703
centers, county boards of developmental disabilities, regional 62704
professional development centers, special education regional 62705
resource centers, college and university departments of education, 62706
head start programs, the eTech Ohio commission, and the Ohio 62707
education computer network may establish local professional 62708
development committees to determine whether the coursework 62709
proposed by their employees who are licensed or certificated under 62710
this section or section 3319.222 of the Revised Code, or under the 62711
former version of either section as it existed prior to October 62712
16, 2009, meet the requirements of the rules adopted under this 62713
section. They may establish local professional development 62714
committees on their own or in collaboration with a school district 62715
or other agency having authority to establish them.62716

       Local professional development committees established by 62717
county boards of developmental disabilities shall be structured in 62718
a manner comparable to the structures prescribed for school 62719
districts in divisions (F)(2) and (3) of this section, as shall 62720
the committees established by any other entity specified in 62721
division (G)(1) of this section that provides educational services 62722
by employing or contracting for services of classroom teachers 62723
licensed or certificated under this section or section 3319.222 of 62724
the Revised Code, or under the former version of either section as 62725
it existed prior to October 16, 2009. All other entities specified 62726
in division (G)(1) of this section shall structure their 62727
committees in accordance with guidelines which shall be issued by 62728
the state board.62729

       (2) Any public agency that is not specified in division 62730
(G)(1) of this section but provides educational services and 62731
employs or contracts for services of classroom teachers licensed 62732
or certificated under this section or section 3319.222 of the 62733
Revised Code, or under the former version of either section as it 62734
existed prior to October 16, 2009, may establish a local 62735
professional development committee, subject to the approval of the 62736
department of education. The committee shall be structured in 62737
accordance with guidelines issued by the state board.62738

       Sec. 3319.235.  (A) The standards for the preparation of 62739
teachers adopted under section 3333.048 of the Revised Code shall 62740
require any institution that provides a course of study for the 62741
training of teachers to ensure that graduates of such course of 62742
study are skilled at integrating educational technology in the 62743
instruction of children, as evidenced by the graduate having 62744
either demonstrated proficiency in such skills in a manner 62745
prescribed by the department of education or completed a course 62746
that includes training in such skills.62747

       (B) The eTech Ohio commissionchancellor of the Ohio board of 62748
regents, in consultation with the department of education, shall 62749
establish model professional development programs to assist 62750
teachers who completed their teacher preparation prior to the 62751
effective date of division (A) of this section to become skilled 62752
at integrating educational technology in the instruction of 62753
children. The commissionchancellor shall provide technical 62754
assistance to school districts wishing to establish such programs.62755

       Sec. 3319.57.  (A) A grant program is hereby established 62756
under which the department of education shall award grants to 62757
assist certain schools in a city, exempted village, local, or 62758
joint vocational school district in implementing one of the 62759
following innovations:62760

       (1) The use of instructional specialists to mentor and 62761
support classroom teachers;62762

       (2) The use of building managers to supervise the 62763
administrative functions of school operation so that a school 62764
principal can focus on supporting instruction, providing 62765
instructional leadership, and engaging teachers as part of the 62766
instructional leadership team;62767

       (3) The reconfiguration of school leadership structure in a 62768
manner that allows teachers to serve in leadership roles so that 62769
teachers may share the responsibility for making and implementing 62770
school decisions;62771

       (4) The adoption of new models for restructuring the school 62772
day or school year, such as including teacher planning and 62773
collaboration time as part of the school day;62774

       (5) The creation of smaller schools or smaller units within 62775
larger schools for the purpose of facilitating teacher 62776
collaboration to improve and advance the professional practice of 62777
teaching;62778

       (6) The implementation of "grow your own" recruitment 62779
strategies that are designed to assist individuals who show a 62780
commitment to education become licensed teachers, to assist 62781
experienced teachers obtain licensure in subject areas for which 62782
there is need, and to assist teachers in becoming principals;62783

       (7) The provision of better conditions for new teachers, such 62784
as reduced teaching load and reduced class size;62785

        (8) The provision of incentives to attract qualified 62786
mathematics, science, or special education teachers;62787

        (9) The development and implementation of a partnership with 62788
teacher preparation programs at colleges and universities to help 62789
attract teachers qualified to teach in shortage areas;62790

        (10) The implementation of a program to increase the cultural 62791
competency of both new and veteran teachers;62792

        (11) The implementation of a program to increase the subject 62793
matter competency of veteran teachers.62794

       (B) To qualify for a grant to implement one of the 62795
innovations described in division (A) of this section, a school 62796
must meet both of the following criteria:62797

       (1) Be hard to staff, as defined by the department.62798

       (2) Use existing school district funds for the implementation 62799
of the innovation in an amount equal to the grant amount 62800
multiplied by (1 - the district's state share percentageindex for 62801
the fiscal year in which the grant is awarded). 62802

       For purposes of division (B)(2) of this section, "state share 62803
percentageindex" has the same meaning as in section 3317.02 of 62804
the Revised Code.62805

       (C) The amount and number of grants awarded under this 62806
section shall be determined by the department based on any 62807
appropriations made by the general assembly for grants under this 62808
section. 62809

       (D) The state board of education shall adopt rules for the 62810
administration of this grant program.62811

       Sec. 3319.58.  (A) As used in this section, "core subject 62812
area" has the same meaning as in section 3319.074 of the Revised 62813
Code.62814

       (B) Each year, beginning with the 2015-2016 school year, the 62815
board of education of each city, exempted village, local, and 62816
joint vocational school district shall require each classroom 62817
teacher who is currently teaching in a core subject area and has 62818
received a rating of ineffective on the evaluations conducted 62819
under section 3319.111 of the Revised Code for two of the three 62820
most recent school years to register for and take all written 62821
examinations of content knowledge selected by the department of 62822
education as appropriate to determine expertise to teach that core 62823
subject area and the grade level to which the teacher is assigned.62824

       (C) Each year, beginning with the 2015-2016 school year, the 62825
governing authority of each community school established under 62826
Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, except a community school to 62827
which section 3314.017 of the Revised Code applies or a community 62828
school described in division (A)(4)(b) of section 3314.35 of the 62829
Revised Code, and governing body of each STEM school established 62830
under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code with a building ranked in 62831
the lowest ten per cent of all public school buildings according 62832
to performance index score, under section 3302.21 of the Revised 62833
Code, shall require each classroom teacher currently teaching in a 62834
core subject area in such a building to register for and take all 62835
written examinations of content knowledge selected by the 62836
department as appropriate to determine expertise to teach that 62837
core subject area and the grade level to which the teacher is 62838
assigned. 62839

       (D) If a teacher who takes an examination under division (B) 62840
of this section passes that examination and provides proof of that 62841
passage to the teacher's employer, the employer shall require the 62842
teacher, at the teacher's expense, to complete professional 62843
development that is targeted to the deficiencies identified in the 62844
teacher's evaluations conducted under section 3319.111 of the 62845
Revised Code. The receipt by the teacher of a rating of 62846
ineffective on the teacher's next evaluation after completion of 62847
the professional development, or the failure of the teacher to 62848
complete the professional development, shall be grounds for 62849
termination of the teacher under section 3319.16 of the Revised 62850
Code.62851

       (E) If a teacher who takes an examination under this section 62852
passes that examination and provides proof of that passage to the 62853
teacher's employer, the teacher shall not be required to take the 62854
examination again for three years, regardless of the teacher's 62855
evaluation ratings or the performance index score ranking of the 62856
building in which the teacher teaches. No teacher shall be 62857
responsible for the cost of taking an examination under this 62858
section.62859

       (F) Each district board of education, each community school 62860
governing authority, and each STEM school governing body may use 62861
the results of a teacher's examinations required under division 62862
(B) or (C) of this section in developing and revising professional 62863
development plans and in deciding whether or not to continue 62864
employing the teacher in accordance with the provisions of this 62865
chapter or Chapter 3314. or 3326. of the Revised Code. However, no 62866
decision to terminate or not to renew a teacher's employment 62867
contract shall be made solely on the basis of the results of a 62868
teacher's examination under this section until and unless the 62869
teacher has not attained a passing score on the same required 62870
examination for at least three consecutive administrations of that 62871
examination.62872

       Sec. 3321.01. (A)(1) As used in this chapter, "parent," 62873
"guardian," or "other person having charge or care of a child" 62874
means either parent unless the parents are separated or divorced 62875
or their marriage has been dissolved or annulled, in which case 62876
"parent" means the parent who is the residential parent and legal 62877
custodian of the child. If the child is in the legal or permanent 62878
custody of a person or government agency, "parent" means that 62879
person or government agency. When a child is a resident of a home, 62880
as defined in section 3313.64 of the Revised Code, and the child's 62881
parent is not a resident of this state, "parent," "guardian," or 62882
"other person having charge or care of a child" means the head of 62883
the home.62884

       A child between six and eighteen years of age is "of 62885
compulsory school age" for the purpose of sections 3321.01 to 62886
3321.13 of the Revised Code. A child under six years of age who 62887
has been enrolled in kindergarten also shall be considered "of 62888
compulsory school age" for the purpose of sections 3321.01 to 62889
3321.13 of the Revised Code unless at any time the child's parent 62890
or guardian, at the parent's or guardian's discretion and in 62891
consultation with the child's teacher and principal, formally 62892
withdraws the child from kindergarten. The compulsory school age 62893
of a child shall not commence until the beginning of the term of 62894
such schools, or other time in the school year fixed by the rules 62895
of the board of the district in which the child resides.62896

       (2) No child shall be admitted to a kindergarten or a first 62897
grade of a public school in a district in which all children are 62898
admitted to kindergarten and the first grade in August or 62899
September unless the child is five or six years of age, 62900
respectively, by the thirtieth day of September of the year of 62901
admittance, or by the first day of a term or semester other than 62902
one beginning in August or September in school districts granting 62903
admittance at the beginning of such term or semester, unless the 62904
child has been recommended for early admittance in accordance with 62905
the district's acceleration policy adopted under section 3324.10 62906
of the Revised Code. A child who does not meet the age requirement 62907
for admittance to kindergarten or first grade shall be evaluated 62908
for early admittance upon referral by the child's parent or 62909
guardian, an educator employed by the district, a preschool 62910
educator who knows the child, or a pediatrician or psychologist 62911
who knows the child.62912

       (3) Notwithstanding division (A)(2) of this section, 62913
beginning with the school year that starts in 2001 and continuing 62914
thereafter the board of education of any district may adopt a 62915
resolution establishing the first day of August in lieu of the 62916
thirtieth day of September as the required date by which students 62917
must have attained the age specified in that division.62918

       (4) After a student has been admitted to kindergarten in a 62919
school district or chartered nonpublic school, no board of 62920
education of a school district to which the student transfers 62921
shall deny that student admission based on the student's age.62922

       (B) As used in division (C) of this section, "successfully 62923
completed kindergarten" means that the child has completed the 62924
kindergarten requirements at one of the following:62925

       (1) A public or chartered nonpublic school;62926

       (2) A kindergarten class that is both of the following:62927

       (a) Offered by a day-care provider licensed under Chapter 62928
5104. of the Revised Code;62929

       (b) If offered after July 1, 1991, is directly taught by a 62930
teacher who holds one of the following:62931

       (i) A valid educator license issued under section 3319.22 of 62932
the Revised Code;62933

       (ii) A Montessori preprimary credential or age-appropriate 62934
diploma granted by the American Montessori society or the 62935
association Montessori internationale;62936

       (iii) Certification determined under division (F) of this 62937
section to be equivalent to that described in division 62938
(B)(2)(b)(ii) of this section;62939

       (iv) Certification for teachers in nontax-supported schools 62940
pursuant to section 3301.071 of the Revised Code.62941

       (C) Except as provided in division (A)(2) of this section, no 62942
school district shall admit to the first grade any child who has 62943
not successfully completed kindergarten.62944

       (D) The scheduling of times for kindergarten classes and 62945
length of the school day for kindergarten shall be determined by 62946
the board of education of a city, exempted village, or local 62947
school district.62948

       (E) Any kindergarten class offered by a day-care provider or 62949
school described by division (B)(1) or (B)(2)(a) of this section 62950
shall be developmentally appropriate.62951

       (F) Upon written request of a day-care provider described by 62952
division (B)(2)(a) of this section, the department of education 62953
shall determine whether certification held by a teacher employed 62954
by the provider meets the requirement of division (B)(2)(b)(iii) 62955
of this section and, if so, shall furnish the provider a statement 62956
to that effect.62957

        (G) As used in this division, "all-day kindergarten" has the 62958
same meaning as in section 3321.05 of the Revised Code.62959

       (1) AnyA school district that did not receive for fiscal 62960
year 2009 poverty-based assistance foris offering all-day 62961
kindergarten under division (D) of section 3317.029 of the Revised 62962
Codefor the first time or that charged fees or tuition for 62963
all-day kindergarten in the 2012-2013 school year may charge fees 62964
or tuition for studentsa student enrolled in all-day kindergarten 62965
in any school year following the 2012-2013 school year. The 62966
department shall adjust the district's average daily membership 62967
certification under section 3317.03 of the Revised Code by 62968
one-half of the full-time equivalency for each student charged 62969
fees or tuition for all-day kindergarten under this division. If a 62970
district charges fees or tuition for all-day kindergarten under 62971
this division, the district shall develop a sliding fee scale 62972
based on family incomes.62973

       (2) The department of education shall conduct an annual 62974
survey of each school district described in division (G)(1) of 62975
this section to determine the following:62976

       (a) Whether the district charges fees or tuition for students 62977
enrolled in all-day kindergarten;62978

       (b) The amount of the fees or tuition charged;62979

       (c) How many of the students for whom tuition is charged are 62980
eligible for free lunches under the "National School Lunch Act," 62981
60 Stat. 230 (1946), 42 U.S.C. 1751, as amended, and the "Child 62982
Nutrition Act of 1966," 80 Stat. 885, 42 U.S.C. 1771, as amended, 62983
and how many of the students for whom tuition is charged are 62984
eligible for reduced price lunches under those acts;62985

       (d) How many students are enrolled in traditional half-day 62986
kindergarten rather than all-day kindergarten.62987

       Each district shall report to the department, in the manner 62988
prescribed by the department, the information described in 62989
divisions (G)(2)(a) to (d) of this section.62990

       The department shall issue an annual report on the results of 62991
the survey and shall post the report on its web site. The 62992
department shall issue the first report not later than April 30, 62993
2008, and shall issue a report not later than the thirtieth day of 62994
April each year thereafter.62995

       Sec. 3321.04.  Notwithstanding division (D) of section 62996
3311.19 and division (D) of section 3311.52 of the Revised Code, 62997
this section does not apply to any joint vocational or cooperative 62998
education school district or its superintendent.62999

       Every parent of any child of compulsory school age who is not 63000
employed under an age and schooling certificate must send such 63001
child to a school or a special education program that conforms to 63002
the minimum standards prescribed by the state board of education, 63003
for the full time the school or program attended is in session, 63004
which shall not be for less than thirty-two weeks per school year. 63005
Such attendance must begin within the first week of the school 63006
term or program or within one week of the date on which the child 63007
begins to reside in the district or within one week after histhe 63008
child's withdrawal from employment.63009

       For the purpose of operating a school or program on a 63010
trimester plan, "full time the school attended is in session," as 63011
used in this section means the two trimesters to which the child 63012
is assigned by the board of education. For the purpose of 63013
operating a school or program on a quarterly plan, "full time the 63014
school attended is in session," as used in this section, means the 63015
three quarters to which the child is assigned by the board of 63016
education. For the purpose of operating a school or program on a 63017
pentamester plan, "full time the school is in session," as used in 63018
this section, means the four pentamesters to which the child is 63019
assigned by the board of education.63020

       Excuses from future attendance at or past absence from school 63021
or a special education program may be granted for the causes, by 63022
the authorities, and under the following conditions:63023

       (A) The superintendent of the city or exempted village school 63024
district or the educational service center in which the child 63025
resides may excuse the child from attendance for any part of the 63026
remainder of the current school year upon satisfactory showing of 63027
either of the following facts:63028

       (1) That the child's bodily or mental condition does not 63029
permit attendance at school or a special education program during 63030
such period; this fact is certified in writing by a licensed 63031
physician or, in the case of a mental condition, by a licensed 63032
physician, a licensed psychologist, licensed school psychologist 63033
or a certificated school psychologist; and provision is made for 63034
appropriate instruction of the child, in accordance with Chapter 63035
3323. of the Revised Code;63036

       (2) That the child is being instructed at home by a person 63037
qualified to teach the branches in which instruction is required, 63038
and such additional branches, as the advancement and needs of the 63039
child may, in the opinion of such superintendent, require. In each 63040
such case the issuing superintendent shall file in histhe 63041
superintendent's office, with a copy of the excuse, papers showing 63042
how the inability of the child to attend school or a special 63043
education program or the qualifications of the person instructing 63044
the child at home were determined. All such excuses shall become 63045
void and subject to recall upon the removal of the disability of 63046
the child or the cessation of proper home instruction; and 63047
thereupon the child or the child's parents may be proceeded 63048
against after due notice whether such excuse be recalled or not.63049

       (B) The state board of education may adopt rules authorizing 63050
the superintendent of schools of the district in which the child 63051
resides to excuse a child over fourteen years of age from 63052
attendance for a future limited period for the purpose of 63053
performing necessary work directly and exclusively for the child's 63054
parents or legal guardians.63055

       All excuses provided for in divisions (A) and (B) of this 63056
section shall be in writing and shall show the reason for excusing 63057
the child. A copy thereof shall be sent to the person in charge of 63058
the child.63059

       (C) The board of education of the city or exempted village63060
school district or the governing board of the educational service 63061
center in which a public school is located or the governing 63062
authorities of a private or parochial school may in the rules 63063
governing the discipline in such schools, prescribe the authority 63064
by which and the manner in which any child may be excused for 63065
absence from such school for good and sufficient reasons.63066

       The state board of education may by rule prescribe conditions 63067
governing the issuance of excuses, which shall be binding upon the 63068
authorities empowered to issue them.63069

       Sec. 3321.05.  (A) As used in this section, "all-day 63070
kindergarten" means a kindergarten class that is in session five 63071
days per week for not less than the same number of clock hours 63072
each dayweek as for students in grades one through six.63073

        (B) Any school district may operate all-day kindergarten or 63074
extended kindergarten, but no district shall require any student 63075
to attend kindergarten for more than the number of clock hours 63076
required each day for traditional kindergarten by the minimum 63077
standards adopted under division (D) of section 3301.07 of the 63078
Revised Code. Each school district that operates all-day or 63079
extended kindergarten shall accommodate kindergarten students 63080
whose parents or guardians elect to enroll them for the minimum 63081
number of hours.63082

       (C) A school district may use space in child day-care centers 63083
licensed under Chapter 5104. of the Revised Code to provide 63084
all-day kindergarten under this section.63085

       Sec. 3321.13.  (A) Whenever any child of compulsory school 63086
age withdraws from school the teacher of that child shall 63087
ascertain the reason for withdrawal. The fact of the withdrawal 63088
and the reason for it shall be immediately transmitted by the 63089
teacher to the superintendent of schools of the city, local, or 63090
exempted village school district or the educational service center 63091
as the case may be. If the child who has withdrawn from school has 63092
done so because of change of residence, the next residence shall 63093
be ascertained and shall be included in the notice thus 63094
transmitted. The superintendent shall thereupon forward a card 63095
showing the essential facts regarding the child and stating the 63096
place of the child's new residence to the superintendent of 63097
schools of the district to which the child has moved.63098

       The superintendent of public instruction may prescribe the 63099
forms to be used in the operation of this division.63100

       (B)(1) Upon receipt of information that a child of compulsory 63101
school age has withdrawn from school for a reason other than 63102
because of change of residence and is not enrolled in and 63103
attending in accordance with school policy an approved program to 63104
obtain a diploma or its equivalent, the superintendent shall 63105
notify the registrar of motor vehicles and the juvenile judge of 63106
the county in which the district is located of the withdrawal and 63107
failure to enroll in and attend an approved program to obtain a 63108
diploma or its equivalent. A notification to the registrar 63109
required by this division shall be given in the manner the 63110
registrar by rule requires and a notification to the juvenile 63111
judge required by this division shall be given in writing. Each 63112
notification shall be given within two weeks after the withdrawal 63113
and failure to enroll in and attend an approved program or its 63114
equivalent.63115

       (2) The board of education of a school district may adopt a 63116
resolution providing that the provisions of division (B)(2) of 63117
this section apply within the district. The provisions of division 63118
(B)(2) of this section do not apply within any school district, 63119
and no superintendent of a school district shall send a 63120
notification of the type described in division (B)(2) of this 63121
section to the registrar of motor vehicles or the juvenile judge 63122
of the county in which the district is located, unless the board 63123
of education of the district has adopted such a resolution. If the 63124
board of education of a school district adopts a resolution 63125
providing that the provisions of division (B)(2) of this section 63126
apply within the district, and if the superintendent of schools of 63127
that district receives information that, during any semester or 63128
term, a child of compulsory school age has been absent without 63129
legitimate excuse from the school the child is supposed to attend 63130
for more than ten consecutive school days or for at least fifteen 63131
total school days, the superintendent shall notify the child and 63132
the child's parent, guardian, or custodian, in writing, that the 63133
information has been provided to the superintendent, that as a 63134
result of that information the child's temporary instruction 63135
permit or driver's license will be suspended or the opportunity to 63136
obtain such a permit or license will be denied, and that the child 63137
and the child's parent, guardian, or custodian may appear in 63138
person at a scheduled date, time, and place before the 63139
superintendent or a designee to challenge the information provided 63140
to the superintendent.63141

       The notification to the child and the child's parent, 63142
guardian, or custodian required by division (B)(2) of this section 63143
shall set forth the information received by the superintendent and 63144
shall inform the child and the child's parent, guardian, or 63145
custodian of the scheduled date, time, and place of the appearance 63146
that they may have before the superintendent or a designee. The 63147
date scheduled for the appearance shall be no earlier than three 63148
and no later than five days after the notification is given, 63149
provided that an extension may be granted upon request of the 63150
child or the child's parent, guardian, or custodian. If an 63151
extension is granted, the superintendent shall schedule a new 63152
date, time, and place for the appearance and shall inform the 63153
child and the child's parent, guardian, or custodian of the new 63154
date, time, and place.63155

       If the child and the child's parent, guardian, or custodian 63156
do not appear before the superintendent or a designee on the 63157
scheduled date and at the scheduled time and place, or if the 63158
child and the child's parent, guardian, or custodian appear before 63159
the superintendent or a designee on the scheduled date and at the 63160
scheduled time and place but the superintendent or a designee 63161
determines that the information the superintendent received 63162
indicating that, during the semester or term, the child had been 63163
absent without legitimate excuse from the school the child was 63164
supposed to attend for more than ten consecutive school days or 63165
for at least fifteen total school days, the superintendent shall 63166
notify the registrar of motor vehicles and the juvenile judge of 63167
the county in which the district is located that the child has 63168
been absent for that period of time and that the child does not 63169
have any legitimate excuse for the habitual absence. A 63170
notification to the registrar required by this division shall be 63171
given in the manner the registrar by rule requires and a 63172
notification to the juvenile judge required by this division shall 63173
be given in writing. Each notification shall be given within two 63174
weeks after the receipt of the information of the habitual absence 63175
from school without legitimate excuse, or, if the child and the 63176
child's parent, guardian, or custodian appear before the 63177
superintendent or a designee to challenge the information, within 63178
two weeks after the appearance.63179

       For purposes of division (B)(2) of this section, a legitimate 63180
excuse for absence from school includes, but is not limited to, 63181
the fact that the child in question has enrolled in another school 63182
or school district in this or another state, the fact that the 63183
child in question was excused from attendance for any of the 63184
reasons specified in section 3321.04 of the Revised Code, or the 63185
fact that the child in question has received an age and schooling 63186
certificate in accordance with section 3331.01 of the Revised 63187
Code.63188

       (3) Whenever a pupil is suspended or expelled from school 63189
pursuant to section 3313.66 of the Revised Code and the reason for 63190
the suspension or expulsion is the use or possession of alcohol, a 63191
drug of abuse, or alcohol and a drug of abuse, the superintendent 63192
of schools of that district may notify the registrar and the 63193
juvenile judge of the county in which the district is located of 63194
such suspension or expulsion. Any such notification of suspension 63195
or expulsion shall be given to the registrar, in the manner the 63196
registrar by rule requires and shall be given to the juvenile 63197
judge in writing. The notifications shall be given within two 63198
weeks after the suspension or expulsion.63199

       (4) Whenever a pupil is suspended, expelled, removed, or 63200
permanently excluded from a school for misconduct included in a 63201
policy that the board of education of a city, exempted village, or 63202
local school district has adopted under division (A) of section 63203
3313.661 of the Revised Code, and the misconduct involves a 63204
firearm or a knife or other weapon as defined in that policy, the 63205
superintendent of schools of that district shall notify the 63206
registrar and the juvenile judge of the county in which the 63207
district is located of the suspension, expulsion, removal, or 63208
permanent exclusion. The notification shall be given to the 63209
registrar in the manner the registrar, by rule, requires and shall 63210
be given to the juvenile judge in writing. The notifications shall 63211
be given within two weeks after the suspension, expulsion, 63212
removal, or permanent exclusion. 63213

       (C) A notification of withdrawal, habitual absence without 63214
legitimate excuse, suspension, or expulsion given to the registrar 63215
or a juvenile judge under division (B)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of 63216
this section shall contain the name, address, date of birth, 63217
school, and school district of the child. If the superintendent 63218
finds, after giving a notification of withdrawal, habitual absence 63219
without legitimate excuse, suspension, or expulsion to the 63220
registrar and the juvenile judge under division (B)(1), (2), (3), 63221
or (4) of this section, that the notification was given in error, 63222
the superintendent immediately shall notify the registrar and the 63223
juvenile judge of that fact.63224

       Sec. 3321.14.  Notwithstanding division (D) of section 63225
3311.19 and division (D) of section 3311.52 of the Revised Code, 63226
the provisions of this section and sections 3321.15 to 3321.21 of 63227
the Revised Code that apply to a city school district or its 63228
superintendent do not apply to any joint vocational or cooperative 63229
education school district or its superintendent unless otherwise 63230
specified.63231

       The board of education of every city school district and of 63232
every, exempted village, or local school district shall either63233
employ an attendance officer, and may employ or appoint any 63234
assistants that the board deems advisable, or shall obtain such 63235
services from the educational service center with which the 63236
district has entered into an agreement under section 3313.843 or 63237
3313.845 of the Revised Code, in accordance with the terms 63238
prescribed in that agreement. In63239

       In cities of one hundred thousand population or over, the 63240
board may appoint, subject to the nomination of the district63241
superintendent of schools, one or more pupil-personnel workers and 63242
make provision for the traveling expenses within the school 63243
district of those employees.63244

       Sec. 3321.15.  Every governing board of an educational 63245
service center shallmay employ an educational service center 63246
attendance officer, and may employ or appoint such assistants as 63247
the board deems advisable. The decision to employ an attendance 63248
officer shall be based on consultation with the districts that 63249
have entered into agreements with the educational service center 63250
under section 3313.843 or 3313.845 of the Revised Code and the 63251
services outlined in the agreements. The compensation and 63252
necessary traveling expenses of such attendance officer and 63253
assistants shall be paid out of the educational service center 63254
governing board fund. With the consent and approval of the judge 63255
of the juvenile court, a probation officer of the court may be 63256
designated as the service center attendance officer or as an 63257
assistant. The compensation of the probation officers of the 63258
juvenile court so designated shall be fixed and paid in the same 63259
manner as salaries of other probation officers of the juvenile 63260
court; their traveling expenses as attendance officers which would 63261
not be incurred as probation officers shall be paid out of the 63262
educational service center governing board fund. In addition to 63263
the compensation provided in this section the board may pay such 63264
additional compensation as it deems advisable, to any probation 63265
officer designated as attendance officer and such additional 63266
amount shall be paid from the educational service center governing 63267
board fund. The attendance officer and assistants shall work under 63268
the direction of the educational service center superintendent. 63269
The authority of such attendance officer and assistants shallmay63270
extend to all the local school districts served by the service 63271
center pursuant to any agreements entered into under section 63272
3313.843 or 3313.845 of the Revised Code. This section does not 63273
confine their authority to investigate employmentattendance to 63274
that within the territory of the service center.63275

       Sec. 3323.021.  As used in this section, "participating 63276
county DD board" means a county board of developmental 63277
disabilities electing to participate in the provision of or 63278
contracting for educational services for children under division 63279
(D) of section 5126.05 of the Revised Code.63280

       (A) When a school district, educational service center, or 63281
participating county DD board enters into an agreement or contract 63282
with another school district, educational service center, or 63283
participating county DD board to provide educational services to a 63284
disabled child during a school year, both of the following shall 63285
apply:63286

       (1) Beginning with fiscal year 1999, if the provider of the 63287
services intends to increase the amount it charges for some or all 63288
of those services during the next school year or if the provider 63289
intends to cease offering all or part of those services during the 63290
next school year, the provider shall notify the entity for which 63291
the services are provided of these intended changes no later than 63292
the first day of March of the current fiscal year.63293

       (2) Beginning with fiscal year 1999, if the entity for which 63294
services are provided intends to cease obtaining those services 63295
from the provider for the next school year or intends to change 63296
the type or amount of services it obtains from the provider for 63297
the next school year, the entity shall notify the service provider 63298
of these intended changes no later than the first day of March of 63299
the current fiscal year.63300

       (B) School districts, educational service centers, 63301
participating county DD boards, and other applicable governmental 63302
entities shall collaborate where possible to maximize federal 63303
sources of revenue to provide additional funds for special 63304
education related services for disabled children. Annually, each 63305
school district shall report to the department of education any 63306
amounts of moneysuch federal revenue the district received 63307
through such medical assistance program.63308

       (C) The state board of education, the department of 63309
developmental disabilities, and the department of job and family 63310
servicesmedicaid shall develop working agreements for pursuing 63311
additional funds for services for disabled children.63312

       Sec. 3323.03.  The state board of education shall, in 63313
consultation with the department of health, the department of 63314
mental healthmental health and addiction services, and the 63315
department of developmental disabilities, establish standards and 63316
procedures for the identification, location, and evaluation of all 63317
children with disabilities residing in the state, including 63318
children with disabilities who are homeless children or are wards 63319
of the state and children with disabilities attending nonpublic 63320
schools, regardless of the severity of their disabilities, and who 63321
are in need of special education and related services. The state 63322
board shall develop and implement a practical method to determine 63323
which children with disabilities are currently receiving needed 63324
special education and related services.63325

       In conducting the evaluation, the board of education of each 63326
school district shall use a variety of assessment tools and 63327
strategies to gather relevant functional, developmental, and 63328
academic information about the child, including information 63329
provided by the child's parent. The board of education of each 63330
school district, in consultation with the county DD board, the 63331
county family and children first council, and the board of 63332
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services of each county 63333
in which the school district has territory, shall identify, 63334
locate, and evaluate all children with disabilities residing 63335
within the district to determine which children with disabilities 63336
are not receiving appropriate special education and related 63337
services. In addition, the board of education of each school 63338
district, in consultation with such county boards or council, 63339
shall identify, locate, and evaluate all children with 63340
disabilities who are enrolled by their parents in nonpublic 63341
elementary and secondary schools located within the public school 63342
district, without regard to where those children reside in 63343
accordance with rules of the state board of education or 63344
guidelines of the superintendent of public instruction.63345

        Each county DD board, county family and children first 63346
council, and board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 63347
services and the board's or council's contract agencies may 63348
transmit to boards of education the names and addresses of 63349
children with disabilities who are not receiving appropriate 63350
special education and related services.63351

       Sec. 3323.04.  The state board of education, in consultation 63352
with the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 63353
services and the department of developmental disabilities, shall 63354
establish procedures and standards for the development of 63355
individualized education programs for children with disabilities.63356

       The state board shall require the board of education of each 63357
school district to develop an individualized education program for 63358
each child with a disability who is at least three years of age 63359
and less than twenty-two years of age residing in the district in 63360
a manner that is in accordance with rules of the state board.63361

       Prior to the placement of a child with a disability in a 63362
program operated under section 3323.09 of the Revised Code, the 63363
district board of education shall consult the county DD board of 63364
the county in which the child resides regarding the proposed 63365
placement.63366

       A child with a disability enrolled in a nonpublic school or 63367
facility shall be provided special education and related services, 63368
in accordance with an individualized education program, at no cost 63369
for those services, if the child is placed in, or referred to, 63370
that nonpublic school or facility by the department of education 63371
or a school district.63372

       The IEP team shall review the individualized education 63373
program of each child with a disability periodically, but at least 63374
annually, to determine whether the annual goals for the child are 63375
being achieved, and shall revise the individualized education 63376
program as appropriate.63377

       The state board shall establish procedures and standards to 63378
assure that to the maximum extent appropriate, children with 63379
disabilities, including children in public or private institutions 63380
or other care facilities, shall be educated with children who are 63381
not disabled. Special classes, separate schools, or other removal 63382
of children with disabilities from the regular educational 63383
environment shall be used only when the nature or severity of a 63384
child's disability is such that education in regular classes with 63385
supplementary aids and services cannot be achieved satisfactorily.63386

       If an agency directly affected by a placement decision 63387
objects to such decision, an impartial hearing officer, appointed 63388
by the department of education from a list prepared by the 63389
department, shall conduct a hearing to review the placement 63390
decision. The agencies that are parties to a hearing shall divide 63391
the costs of such hearing equally. The decision of the hearing 63392
officer shall be final, except that any party to the hearing who 63393
is aggrieved by the findings or the decision of the hearing 63394
officer may appeal the findings or decision in accordance with 63395
division (H) of section 3323.05 of the Revised Code or the parent 63396
of any child affected by such decision may present a complaint in 63397
accordance with that section.63398

       Sec. 3323.07.  The state board of education shall authorize 63399
the establishment and maintenance of special education and related 63400
services for all children with disabilities who are at least three 63401
years of age and less than twenty-two years of age, including 63402
children with disabilities who have been suspended or expelled 63403
from school, and may authorize special education and related 63404
services for children with disabilities who are less than three 63405
years of age in accordance with rules adopted by the state board. 63406
The state board shall require the boards of education of school 63407
districts, shall authorize the department of mental healthmental 63408
health and addiction services and the department of developmental 63409
disabilities, and may authorize any other educational agency, to 63410
establish and maintain such special education and related services 63411
in accordance with standards adopted by the state board.63412

       Sec. 3323.08.  (A) Each school district shall submit a plan 63413
to the superintendent of public instruction that provides 63414
assurances that the school district will provide for the education 63415
of children with disabilities within its jurisdiction and has in 63416
effect policies, procedures, and programs that are consistent with 63417
the policies and procedures adopted by the state board of 63418
education in accordance with section 612 of the "Individuals with 63419
Disabilities Education Improvement Act of 2004," 20 U.S.C. 1412, 63420
and that meet the conditions applicable to school districts under 63421
section 613 of that act, 20 U.S.C. 1413.63422

       Each district's plan shall do all of the following:63423

       (1) Provide, as specified in section 3323.11 of the Revised 63424
Code and in accordance with standards established by the state 63425
board, for an organizational structure and necessary and qualified 63426
staffing and supervision for the identification of and provision 63427
of special education and related services for children with 63428
disabilities;63429

       (2) Provide, as specified by section 3323.03 of the Revised 63430
Code and in accordance with standards established by the state 63431
board, for the identification, location, and evaluation of all 63432
children with disabilities residing in the district, including 63433
children with disabilities who are homeless children or are wards 63434
of the state and children with disabilities attending private 63435
schools and who are in need of special education and related 63436
services. A practical method shall be developed and implemented to 63437
determine which children with disabilities are currently receiving 63438
needed special education and related services.63439

       (3) Provide, as specified by section 3323.07 of the Revised 63440
Code and standards established by the state board, for the 63441
establishment and maintenance of special education and related 63442
services for children with disabilities who are at least three 63443
years of age and less than twenty-two years of age, including 63444
children with disabilities who have been suspended or expelled 63445
from school.63446

       (4) Provide, as specified by section 3323.04 of the Revised 63447
Code and in accordance with standards adopted by the state board, 63448
for an individualized education program for each child with a 63449
disability who is at least three years of age and less than 63450
twenty-two years of age residing within the district;63451

       (5) Provide, as specified by section 3323.02 of the Revised 63452
Code and in accordance with standards established by the state 63453
board, for special education and related services and a free 63454
appropriate public education for every child with a disability who 63455
is at least three years of age and less than twenty-two years of 63456
age, including children with disabilities who have been suspended 63457
or expelled from school;63458

       (6) Provide procedural safeguards and prior written notice as 63459
required under section 3323.05 of the Revised Code and the 63460
standards established by the state board;63461

       (7) Outline the steps that have been or are being taken to 63462
comply with standards established by the state board.63463

       (B)(1) A school district may arrange, by a cooperative 63464
agreement or contract with one or more school districts or with a 63465
cooperative education or joint vocational school district or an 63466
educational service center, to provide for the identification, 63467
location, and evaluation of children with disabilities, and to 63468
provide special education and related services for such children 63469
that meet the standards established by the state board. A school 63470
district may arrange, by a cooperative agreement or contract, for 63471
the provision of related services for children with disabilities 63472
that meet the standards established by the state board.63473

       (2) A school district shall arrange by interagency agreement 63474
with one or more school districts or with a cooperative education 63475
or joint vocational school district or an educational service 63476
center or other providers of early learning services to provide 63477
for the identification, location, evaluation of children with 63478
disabilities of ages birth through five years of age and for the 63479
transition of children with disabilities at age three in 63480
accordance with the standards established by the state board. A 63481
school district may arrange by interagency agreement with 63482
providers of early learning services to provide special education 63483
and related services for such children that meet the standards 63484
established by the state board.63485

       (3) If at the time an individualized education program is 63486
developed for a child a school district is not providing special 63487
education and related services required by that individualized 63488
education program, the school district may arrange by contract 63489
with a nonpublic entity for the provision of the special education 63490
and related services, provided the special education and related 63491
services meet the standards for special education and related 63492
services established by the state board and is provided within the 63493
state.63494

       (4) Any cooperative agreement or contract under division 63495
(B)(1) or (2) of this section involving a local school district 63496
shall be approved by the governing board of the educational 63497
service center which serves that district.63498

       (C) No plan of a local school district shall be submitted to 63499
the superintendent of public instruction until it has been 63500
approved by the superintendent of the educational service center 63501
which serves that district.63502

       (D) Upon approval of a school district's plan by the 63503
superintendent of public instruction, the district shall 63504
immediately certify students for state funds under section 3317.03 63505
of the Revised Code to implement and maintain such plan. The 63506
district also shall request approval of classroom units under 63507
division (B) of section 3317.05 of the Revised Code for which the 63508
district has adequately identified preschool children with 63509
disabilities and shall, in accordance with procedures adopted by 63510
the state board, request approval of units under division (C) of 63511
section 3317.05 of the Revised Code. The district shall, in 63512
accordance with guidelines adopted by the state board, identify 63513
problems relating to the provision of qualified personnel and 63514
adequate facilities, and indicate the extent to which the cost of 63515
programs required under the plan will exceed anticipated state 63516
reimbursement. Each school district shall immediately implement 63517
the identification, location, and evaluation of children with 63518
disabilities in accordance with this chapter, and shall implement 63519
those parts of the plan involving placement and provision of 63520
special education and related services.63521

       Sec. 3323.09.  (A) As used in this section:63522

       (1) "Home" has the meaning given in section 3313.64 of the 63523
Revised Code.63524

       (2) "Preschool child" means a child who is at least age three 63525
but under age six on the thirtieth day of September of an academic 63526
year.63527

       (B) Each county DD board shall establish special education 63528
programs for all children with disabilities who in accordance with 63529
section 3323.04 of the Revised Code have been placed in special 63530
education programs operated by the county board and for preschool 63531
children who are developmentally delayed or at risk of being 63532
developmentally delayed. The board annually shall submit to the 63533
department of education a plan for the provision of these programs 63534
and, if applicable, a request for approval of units under section 63535
3317.05 of the Revised Code. The superintendent of public 63536
instruction shall review the plan and approve or modify it in 63537
accordance with rules adopted by the state board of education 63538
under section 3301.07 of the Revised Code. The superintendent of 63539
public instruction shall compile the plans submitted by county 63540
boards and shall submit a comprehensive plan to the state board.63541

       A county DD board may combine transportation for children 63542
enrolled in classes funded under sectionsections 3317.0213 or63543
3317.20 or units approved under section 3317.05 with 63544
transportation for children and adults enrolled in programs and 63545
services offered by the board under Chapter 5126. of the Revised 63546
Code.63547

       (C) A county DD board that during the school year provided 63548
special education pursuant to this section for any child with 63549
mental disabilities under twenty-two years of age shall prepare 63550
and submit the following reports and statements:63551

       (1) The board shall prepare a statement for each child who at 63552
the time of receiving such special education was a resident of a 63553
home and was not in the legal or permanent custody of an Ohio 63554
resident or a government agency in this state, and whose natural 63555
or adoptive parents are not known to have been residents of this 63556
state subsequent to the child's birth. The statement shall contain 63557
the child's name, the name of the child's school district of 63558
residence, the name of the county board providing the special 63559
education, and the number of months, including any fraction of a 63560
month, it was provided. Not later than the thirtieth day of June, 63561
the board shall forward a certified copy of such statement to both 63562
the director of developmental disabilities and to the home.63563

       Within thirty days after its receipt of a statement, the home 63564
shall pay tuition to the county board computed in the manner 63565
prescribed by section 3323.141 of the Revised Code.63566

       (2) The board shall prepare a report for each school district 63567
that is the school district of residence of one or more of such 63568
children for whom statements are not required by division (C)(1) 63569
of this section. The report shall contain the name of the county 63570
board providing special education, the name of each child 63571
receiving special education, the number of months, including 63572
fractions of a month, that the child received it, and the name of 63573
the child's school district of residence. Not later than the 63574
thirtieth day of June, the board shall forward certified copies of 63575
each report to the school district named in the report, the 63576
superintendent of public instruction, and the director of 63577
developmental disabilities.63578

       Sec. 3323.091.  (A) The department of mental healthmental 63579
health and addiction services, the department of developmental 63580
disabilities, the department of youth services, and the department 63581
of rehabilitation and correction shall establish and maintain 63582
special education programs for children with disabilities in 63583
institutions under their jurisdiction according to standards 63584
adopted by the state board of education.63585

       (B) The superintendent of each state institution required to 63586
provide services under division (A) of this section, and each 63587
county DD board, providing special education for preschool 63588
children with disabilities under this chapter may apply to the 63589
state department of education for unit funding, which shall be 63590
paid in accordance with sections 3317.052 and 3317.053 of the 63591
Revised Code.63592

        The superintendent of each state institution required to 63593
provide services under division (A) of this section may apply to 63594
the department of education for special education and related 63595
services weighted funding for children with disabilities other 63596
than preschool children with disabilities, calculated in 63597
accordance with section 3317.201 of the Revised Code.63598

       Each county DD board providing special education for children 63599
with disabilities other than preschool children with disabilities 63600
may apply to the department of education for base cost and63601
opportunity funds and special education and related services 63602
weighted funding calculated in accordance with section 3317.20 of 63603
the Revised Code.63604

       (C) In addition to the authorization to apply for state 63605
funding described in division (B) of this section, each state 63606
institution required to provide services under division (A) of 63607
this section is entitled to tuition payments calculated in the 63608
manner described in division (C) of this section.63609

       On or before the thirtieth day of June of each year, the 63610
superintendent of each institution that during the school year 63611
provided special education pursuant to this section shall prepare 63612
a statement for each child with a disability under twenty-two 63613
years of age who has received special education. The statement 63614
shall contain the child's data verification code assigned pursuant 63615
to division (D)(2) of section 3301.0714 of the Revised Code and 63616
the name of the child's school district of residence. Within sixty 63617
days after receipt of such statement, the department of education 63618
shall perform one of the following:63619

       (1) For any child except a preschool child with a disability 63620
described in division (C)(2) of this section, pay to the 63621
institution submitting the statement an amount equal to the 63622
tuition calculated under division (A) of section 3317.08 of the 63623
Revised Code for the period covered by the statement, and deduct 63624
the same from the amount of state funds, if any, payable under 63625
Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code, to the child's school district 63626
of residence or, if the amount of such state funds is 63627
insufficient, require the child's school district of residence to 63628
pay the institution submitting the statement an amount equal to 63629
the amount determined under this division.63630

       (2) For any preschool child with a disability not included in 63631
a unit approved under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the 63632
Revised Code, perform the following:63633

       (a) Pay to the institution submitting the statement an amount 63634
equal to the tuition calculated under division (B) of section 63635
3317.08 of the Revised Code for the period covered by the 63636
statement, except that in calculating the tuition under that 63637
section the operating expenses of the institution submitting the 63638
statement under this section shall be used instead of the 63639
operating expenses of the school district of residence;63640

       (b) Deduct from the amount of state funds, if any, payable 63641
under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code to the child's school 63642
district of residence an amount equal to the amount paid under 63643
division (C)(2)(a) of this section.63644

       Sec. 3323.13. (A) If a child who is a school resident of one 63645
school district receives special education from another district, 63646
the board of education of the district providing the education, 63647
subject to division (C) of this section, may require the payment 63648
by the board of education of the district of residence of a sum 63649
not to exceed one of the following, as applicable:63650

       (1) For any child except a preschool child with a disability 63651
described in division (A)(2) of this section, the tuition of the 63652
district providing the education for a child of normal needs of 63653
the same school grade. The determination of the amount of such 63654
tuition shall be in the manner provided for by division (A) of 63655
section 3317.08 of the Revised Code.63656

       (2) For any preschool child with a disability not included in 63657
a unit approved under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the 63658
Revised Code, the tuition of the district providing the education 63659
for the child as calculated under division (B) of section 3317.08 63660
of the Revised Code, multiplied by 0.50.63661

       (B) The board of the district of residence may contract with 63662
the board of another district for the transportation of such child 63663
into any school in such other district, on terms agreed upon by 63664
such boards. Upon direction of the state board of education, the 63665
board of the district of residence shall pay for the child's 63666
transportation and the tuition.63667

       (C) The board of education of a district providing the 63668
education for a child shall be entitled to require payment from 63669
the district of residence under this section or section 3323.14 of 63670
the Revised Code only if the district providing the education has 63671
done at least one of the following:63672

        (1) Invited the district of residence to send representatives 63673
to attend the meetings of the team developing the child's 63674
individualized education program;63675

        (2) Received from the district of residence a copy of the 63676
individualized education program or a multifactored evaluation 63677
developed for the child by the district of residence;63678

        (3) Informed the district of residence in writing that the 63679
district is providing the education for the child.63680

        As used in division (C)(2) of this section, "multifactored 63681
evaluation" means an evaluation, conducted by a multidisciplinary 63682
team, of more than one area of the child's functioning so that no 63683
single procedure shall be the sole criterion for determining an 63684
appropriate educational program placement for the child.63685

       Sec. 3323.14. This section does not apply to any preschool 63686
child with a disability except if included in a unit approved 63687
under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the Revised Code.63688

       (A) Where a child who is a school resident of one school 63689
district receives special education from another district and the 63690
per capita cost to the educating district for that child exceeds 63691
the sum of the amount received by the educating district for that 63692
child under division (A) of section 3317.08 of the Revised Code 63693
and the amount received by the district from the state board of 63694
education for that child, then the board of education of the 63695
district of residence shall pay to the board of the school 63696
district that is providing the special education such excess cost 63697
as is determined by using a formula approved by the department of 63698
education and agreed upon in contracts entered into by the boards 63699
of the districts concerned at the time the district providing such 63700
special education accepts the child for enrollment. The department 63701
shall certify the amount of the payments under Chapter 3317. of 63702
the Revised Code for such pupils with disabilities for each school 63703
year ending on the thirtieth day of July.63704

       (B) In the case of a child described in division (A) of this 63705
section who has been placed in a home, as defined in section 63706
3313.64 of the Revised Code, pursuant to the order of a court and 63707
who is not subject to section 3323.141 of the Revised Code, the 63708
district providing the child with special education and related 63709
services may charge to the child's district of residence the 63710
excess cost determined by formula approved by the department, 63711
regardless of whether the district of residence has entered into a 63712
contract with the district providing the services. If the district 63713
providing the services chooses to charge excess costs, the 63714
district may report the amount calculated under this division to 63715
the department.63716

       (C) If a district providing special education for a child 63717
reports an amount for the excess cost of those services, as 63718
authorized and calculated under division (A) or (B) of this 63719
section, the department shall pay that amount of excess cost to 63720
the district providing the services and shall deduct that amount 63721
from the child's district of residence in accordance with division 63722
(K) of section 3317.023 of the Revised Code.63723

       Sec. 3323.141.  (A) When a child who is not in the legal or 63724
permanent custody of an Ohio resident or a government agency in 63725
this state and whose natural or adoptive parents are not known to 63726
have been residents of this state subsequent to the child's birth 63727
is a resident of a home as defined in section 3313.64 of the 63728
Revised Code and receives special education and related services 63729
from a school district or county MR/DDDD board, the home shall 63730
pay tuition to the board providing the special education.63731

       (B) In the case of a child described in division (A) of this 63732
section who receives special education and related services from a 63733
school district, tuition shall be the amount determined under 63734
division (B)(1) or (2) of this section.63735

       (1) For a child other than a child described in division 63736
(B)(2) of this section the tuition shall be an amount equal to the 63737
sum of the following:63738

       (a) Tuition as determined in the manner provided for by 63739
division (B) of section 3317.081 of the Revised Code for the 63740
district that provides the special education;63741

       (b) Such excess cost as is determined by using a formula 63742
established by rule of the department of education. The excess 63743
cost computed in this section shall not be used as excess cost 63744
computed under section 3323.14 of the Revised Code.63745

       (2) For a child who is a preschool child with a disability 63746
not included in a unit approved under division (B) of section 63747
3317.05 of the Revised Code, the tuition shall be computed as 63748
follows:63749

       (a) Determine the amount of the tuition of the district 63750
providing the education for the child as calculated under division 63751
(B) of section 3317.08 of the Revised Code;63752

       (b) For each type of special education service included in 63753
the computation of the amount of tuition under division (B)(2)(a) 63754
of this section, divide the amount determined for that computation 63755
under division (B)(2) of section 3317.08 of the Revised Code by 63756
the total number of preschool children with disabilities used for 63757
that computation under division (B)(3) of section 3317.08 of the 63758
Revised Code;63759

       (c) Determine the sum of the quotients obtained under 63760
division (B)(2)(b) of this section;63761

       (d) Determine the sum of the amounts determined under 63762
divisions (B)(2)(a) and (c) of this section.63763

       (C) In the case of a child described in division (A) of this 63764
section who receives special education and related services from a 63765
county MR/DDDD board, tuition shall be the amount determined 63766
under division (C)(1) or (2) of this section.63767

       (1) For a child other than a child described in division 63768
(C)(2) of this section, the tuition shall be an amount equal to 63769
such board's per capita cost of providing special education and 63770
related services for children at least three but less than 63771
twenty-two years of age as determined by using a formula 63772
established by rule of the department of developmental 63773
disabilities.63774

       (2) For a child who is a preschool child with a disability 63775
not included in a unit approved under division (B) of section 63776
3317.05 of the Revised Code, the tuition shall equal the sum of 63777
the amounts of each such board's per capita cost of providing each 63778
of the special education or related service that the child 63779
receives. The calculation of tuition shall be made by using a 63780
formula established by rule of the department of developmental 63781
disabilities. The formula for the calculation of per capita costs 63782
under division (C)(2) of this section shall be based only on each 63783
such MR/DDDD board's cost of providing each type of special 63784
education or related service to preschool children with 63785
disabilities not included in a unit approved under division (B) of 63786
section 3317.05 of the Revised Code.63787

       (D) If a home fails to pay the tuition required under this 63788
section, the board of education or county MR/DDDD board providing 63789
the education may recover in a civil action the tuition and the 63790
expenses incurred in prosecuting the action, including court costs 63791
and reasonable attorney's fees. If the prosecuting attorney or 63792
city director of law represents the board in such action, costs 63793
and reasonable attorney's fees awarded by the court, based upon 63794
the time spent preparing and presenting the case by the 63795
prosecuting attorney, director, or a designee of either, shall be 63796
deposited in the county or city general fund.63797

       Sec. 3323.142. This section does not apply to any preschool 63798
child with a disability except if included in a unit approved 63799
under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the Revised Code.63800

       As used in this section, "per pupil amount" for a preschool 63801
child with a disability included in such an approved unit means 63802
the amount determined by dividing the amount received for the 63803
classroom unit in which the child has been placed by the number of 63804
children in the unit. For any other child, "per pupil amount" 63805
means the amount paid for the child under section 3317.20 of the 63806
Revised Code.63807

       When a school district places or has placed a child with a 63808
county DD board for special education, but another district is 63809
responsible for tuition under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the 63810
Revised Code and the child is not a resident of the territory 63811
served by the county DD board, the board may charge the district 63812
responsible for tuition with the educational costs in excess of 63813
the per pupil amount received by the board under Chapter 3317. of 63814
the Revised Code. The amount of the excess cost shall be 63815
determined by the formula established by rule of the department of 63816
education under section 3323.14 of the Revised Code, and the 63817
payment for such excess cost shall be made by the school district 63818
directly to the county DD board.63819

       A school district board of education and the county DD board 63820
that serves the school district may negotiate and contract, at or 63821
after the time of placement, for payments by the board of 63822
education to the county DD board for additional services provided 63823
to a child placed with the county DD board and whose 63824
individualized education program established pursuant to section 63825
3323.08 of the Revised Code requires additional services that are 63826
not routinely provided children in the county DD board's program 63827
but are necessary to maintain the child's enrollment and 63828
participation in the program. Additional services may include, but 63829
are not limited to, specialized supplies and equipment for the 63830
benefit of the child and instruction, training, or assistance 63831
provided by staff members other than staff members for which 63832
funding is received under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code.63833

       Sec. 3325.13.  The state school for the blind employees food 63834
service fund is hereby created in the state treasury. The fund 63835
shall consist of payments received from employees who make 63836
purchases from the school's food service program. Notwithstanding 63837
section 3325.01 of the Revised Code, the approval of the state 63838
board of education is not required to designate money for deposit 63839
into the fund. The school for the blind shall use money in the 63840
fund to pay costs associated with the school's food service 63841
program.63842

       Sec. 3325.14. The state school for the deaf employees food 63843
service fund is hereby created in the state treasury. The fund 63844
shall consist of payments received from employees who make 63845
purchases from the school's food service program. Notwithstanding 63846
section 3325.01 of the Revised Code, the approval of the state 63847
board of education is not required to designate money for deposit 63848
into the fund. The school for the deaf shall use money in the fund 63849
to pay costs associated with the school's food service program.63850

       Sec. 3326.07. Each science, technology, engineering, and 63851
mathematics school established under this chapter is a public 63852
school, is part of the state's program of education, may contract 63853
for any services necessary for the operation of the school, and 63854
may continue in operation for as long as the school is in 63855
compliance with the provisions of this chapter and with the 63856
proposal for its establishment as approved by the STEM committee. 63857
If the school closes for any reason, its assets shall be 63858
distributed in the manner provided in the proposal for its 63859
establishment as required by division (C)(9) of section 3326.03 of 63860
the Revised Code.63861

       Sec. 3326.08. (A) The governing body of each science, 63862
technology, engineering, and mathematics school shall employ and 63863
fix the compensation for theengage the services of administrative 63864
officers, teachers, and nonteaching employees of the STEM school 63865
necessary for the school to carry out its mission and shall 63866
oversee the operations of the school. The governing body of each 63867
STEM school shall employengage the services of a chief 63868
administrative officer to serve as the school's instructional and 63869
administrative leader. The chief administrative officer shall be 63870
granted the authority to oversee the recruitment, retention, and 63871
employment of teachers and nonteaching employees.63872

       (B) The department of education shall monitor the oversight 63873
of each STEM school exercised by the school's governing body and 63874
shall monitor the school's compliance with this chapter and with 63875
the proposal for the establishment of the school as it was 63876
approved by the STEM committee under section 3326.04 of the 63877
Revised Code. If the department finds that the school is not in 63878
compliance with this chapter or with the proposal, the department 63879
shall consult with the STEM committee, and the committee may order 63880
the school to close on the last day of the school year in which 63881
the committee issues its order.63882

       (C) The governing body of each STEM school shall comply with 63883
sections 121.22 and 149.43 of the Revised Code.63884

       Sec. 3326.11. Each science, technology, engineering, and 63885
mathematics school established under this chapter and its 63886
governing body shall comply with sections 9.90, 9.91, 109.65, 63887
121.22, 149.43, 2151.357, 2151.421, 2313.19, 2921.42, 2921.43, 63888
3301.0714, 3301.0715, 3313.14, 3313.15, 3313.16, 3313.18, 63889
3313.201, 3313.26, 3313.472, 3313.48, 3313.481, 3313.482, 3313.50, 63890
3313.536, 3313.539, 3313.608, 3313.6012, 3313.6013, 3313.6014, 63891
3313.6015, 3313.61, 3313.611, 3313.614, 3313.615, 3313.643, 63892
3313.648, 3313.6411, 3313.66, 3313.661, 3313.662, 3313.666, 63893
3313.667, 3313.67, 3313.671, 3313.672, 3313.673, 3313.69, 3313.71, 63894
3313.716, 3313.718, 3313.719, 3313.80, 3313.801, 3313.814, 63895
3313.816, 3313.817, 3313.86, 3313.88, 3313.96, 3319.073, 3319.21, 63896
3319.32, 3319.321, 3319.35, 3319.39, 3319.391, 3319.41, 3319.45, 63897
3321.01, 3321.041, 3321.13, 3321.14, 3321.17, 3321.18, 3321.19, 63898
3321.191, 3327.10, 4111.17, 4113.52, and 5705.391 and Chapters 63899
102., 117., 1347., 2744., 3307., 3309., 3365., 3742., 4112., 63900
4123., 4141., and 4167. of the Revised Code as if it were a school 63901
district.63902

       Sec. 3326.112.  The governing body of each STEM school shall 63903
comply with the standards for financial reporting adopted under 63904
division (B)(2) of section 3301.07 of the Revised Code.63905

       Sec. 3326.31.  As used in sections 3326.31 to 3326.50 of the 63906
Revised Code:63907

       (A) "Applicable special education weight" means the multiple 63908
specified in section 3317.013 of the Revised Code for a disability 63909
described in that section.63910

       (B) "Applicable vocational education weight" means the 63911
multiple specified in section 3317.014 of the Revised Code for 63912
vocational education programs or classes described in that section63913
(1) "Category one career-technical education student" means a 63914
student who is receiving the career-technical education services 63915
described in division (A) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.63916

       (2) "Category two career-technical student" means a student 63917
who is receiving the career-technical education services described 63918
in division (B) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.63919

       (3) "Category three career-technical student" means a student 63920
who is receiving the career-technical education services described 63921
in division (C) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.63922

       (4) "Category four career-technical student" means a student 63923
who is receiving the career-technical education services described 63924
in division (D) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.63925

       (5) "Category five career-technical education student" means 63926
a student who is receiving the career-technical education services 63927
described in division (E) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.63928

       (B)(1) "Category one limited English proficient student" 63929
means a limited English proficient student described in division 63930
(A) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code.63931

       (2) "Category two limited English proficient student" means a 63932
limited English proficient student described in division (B) of 63933
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code.63934

       (3) "Category three limited English proficient student" means 63935
a limited English proficient student described in division (C) of 63936
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code.63937

       (C)(1) "Category one special education student" means a 63938
student who is receiving special education services for a 63939
disability specified in division (A) of section 3317.013 of the 63940
Revised Code.63941

       (2) "Category two special education student" means a student 63942
who is receiving special education services for a disability 63943
specified in division (B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.63944

       (3) "Category three special education student" means a 63945
student who is receiving special education services for a 63946
disability specified in division (C) of section 3317.013 of the 63947
Revised Code.63948

       (4) "Category four special education student" means a student 63949
who is receiving special education services for a disability 63950
specified in division (D) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.63951

       (5) "Category five special education student" means a student 63952
who is receiving special education services for a disability 63953
specified in division (E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.63954

       (6) "Category six special education student" means a student 63955
who is receiving special education services for a disability 63956
specified in division (F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.63957

       (C)(D) "Formula amount" has the same meaning as in section 63958
3317.02 of the Revised Code.63959

       (D)(E) "IEP" means an individualized education program as 63960
defined in section 3323.01 of the Revised Code.63961

       (E) A student is "included in the poverty student count of 63962
the student's resident district" if the student's family receives 63963
assistance under the Ohio works first program.63964

       (F) "Resident district" means the school district in which a 63965
student is entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 63966
3313.65 of the Revised Code.63967

       (G) "State education aid" has the same meaning as in section 63968
5751.20 of the Revised Code.63969

       Sec. 3326.32.  Each science, technology, engineering, and 63970
mathematics school shall report to the department of education, in 63971
the form and manner required by the department, all of the 63972
following information:63973

       (A) The total number of students enrolled in the school;63974

       (B) The number of students who are receiving special 63975
education and related services pursuant to an IEP;63976

       (C) For each student reported under division (B) of this 63977
section, which category specified in divisions (A) to (F) of 63978
section 3317.013 of the Revised Code applies to the student;63979

       (D) The full-time equivalent number of students who are 63980
enrolled in vocationalcareer-technical education programs or 63981
classes described in each of divisions (A) and, (B), (C), (D), and 63982
(E) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code that are provided by 63983
the STEM school;63984

       (E) The number of students who are limited English proficient 63985
students and which category specified in divisions (A) to (C) of 63986
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code applies to each student;63987

       (F) The number of students reported under division (A) of 63988
this section who are economically disadvantaged, as defined by the 63989
department. A student shall not be categorically excluded from the 63990
number reported under division (F) of this section based on 63991
anything other than family income.63992

       (G) The resident district of each student;63993

       (F)(H) Any additional information the department determines 63994
necessary to make payments under this chapter.63995

       Sec. 3326.33. Payments and deductions under this section for 63996
fiscal years 2012 and 2013 shall be made in accordance with 63997
section 3326.39 of the Revised Code.63998

       For each student enrolled in a science, technology, 63999
engineering, and mathematics school established under this 64000
chapter, on a full-time equivalency basis, the department of 64001
education annually shall deduct from the state education aid of a 64002
student's resident school district and, if necessary, from the 64003
payment made to the district under sections 321.24 and 323.156 of 64004
the Revised Code and pay to the school the sum of the following:64005

       (A) The sum of the formula amount plus the per pupil amount 64006
of the base funding supplements specified in divisions (C)(1) to 64007
(4) of section 3317.012 of the Revised Code.64008

       (B) If the student is receiving special education and related 64009
services pursuant to an IEP, the product of the applicable special 64010
education weight times the formula amount;64011

       (C) If the student is enrolled in vocational education 64012
programs or classes that are described in section 3317.014 of the 64013
Revised Code, are provided by the school, and are comparable as 64014
determined by the superintendent of public instruction to school 64015
district vocational education programs and classes eligible for 64016
state weighted funding under section 3317.014 of the Revised Code, 64017
the product of the applicable vocational education weight times 64018
the formula amount times the percentage of time the student spends 64019
in the vocational education programs or classes;64020

       (D) If the student is included in the poverty student count 64021
of the student's resident district, the per pupil amount of the 64022
district's payment under division (C) of section 3317.029 of the 64023
Revised Code;64024

       (E) If the student is identified as limited English 64025
proficient and the student's resident district receives a payment 64026
for services to limited English proficient students under division 64027
(F) of section 3317.029 of the Revised Code, the per pupil amount 64028
of the district's payment under that division, calculated in the 64029
same manner as per pupil payments are calculated under division 64030
(C)(6) of section 3314.08 of the Revised Code;64031

       (F) If the student's resident district receives a payment 64032
under division (G), (H), or (I) of section 3317.029 of the Revised 64033
Code, the per pupil amount of the district's payments under each 64034
division, calculated in the same manner as per pupil payments are 64035
calculated under divisions (C)(7) and (8) of section 3314.08 of 64036
the Revised Code;64037

       (G) If the student's resident district receives a parity aid 64038
payment under section 3317.0217 of the Revised Code, the per pupil 64039
amount calculated for the district under division (C) or (D) of 64040
that sectionAn opportunity grant in an amount equal to the 64041
formula amount;64042

       (B) The per pupil amount of targeted assistance funds 64043
calculated under division (A) of section 3317.0217 of the Revised 64044
Code for the student's resident district, as determined by the 64045
department, X 0.25;64046

       (C) Additional state aid for special education and related 64047
services provided under Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code as 64048
follows:64049

       (1) If the student is a category one special education 64050
student, the amount specified in division (A) of section 3317.013 64051
of the Revised Code;64052

       (2) If the student is a category two special education 64053
student, the amount specified in division (B) of section 3317.013 64054
of the Revised Code;64055

       (3) If the student is a category three special education 64056
student, the amount specified in division (C) of section 3317.013 64057
of the Revised Code;64058

       (4) If the student is a category four special education 64059
student, the amount specified in division (D) of section 3317.013 64060
of the Revised Code;64061

       (5) If the student is a category five special education 64062
student, the amount specified in division (E) of section 3317.013 64063
of the Revised Code;64064

       (6) If the student is a category six special education 64065
student, the amount specified in division (F) of section 3317.013 64066
of the Revised Code.64067

       (D) If the student is in kindergarten through third grade, 64068
$225, in fiscal year 2014, or $335, in fiscal year 2015;64069

       (E) If the student is economically disadvantaged, an amount 64070
equal to the following:64071

($250, in fiscal year 2014, or $253, in fiscal year 2015) X (the
64072
resident district's economically disadvantaged index)
64073

       (F) Limited English proficiency funds, as follows:64074

       (1) If the student is a category one limited English 64075
proficient student, the amount specified in division (A) of 64076
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code;64077

       (2) If the student is a category two limited English 64078
proficient student, the amount specified in division (B) of 64079
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code;64080

       (3) If the student is a category three limited English 64081
proficient student, the amount specified in division (C) of 64082
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code.64083

       (G) Career-technical education funds as follows:64084

       (1) If the student is a category one career-technical 64085
education student, the amount specified in division (A) of section 64086
3317.014 of the Revised Code;64087

       (2) If the student is a category two career-technical 64088
education student, the amount specified in division (B) of section 64089
3317.014 of the Revised Code;64090

       (3) If the student is a category three career-technical 64091
education student, the amount specified in division (C) of section 64092
3317.014 of the Revised Code;64093

       (4) If the student is a category four career-technical 64094
education student, the amount specified in division (D) of section 64095
3317.014 of the Revised Code;64096

       (5) If the student is a category five career-technical 64097
education student, the amount specified in division (E) of section 64098
3317.014 of the Revised Code.64099

       Deduction and payment of funds under division (G) of this 64100
section is subject to approval under section 3317.161 of the 64101
Revised Code.64102

       Sec. 3326.34. If a science, technology, engineering, and 64103
mathematics school established under this chapter incurs costs for 64104
a fiscal year for a student receiving special education and 64105
related services pursuant to an IEP for a disability described in 64106
divisions (B) to (F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code that 64107
exceed the threshold catastrophic cost for serving the student as 64108
specified in division (C)(3)(b)(B) of section 3317.0223317.021464109
of the Revised Code, the STEM school may submit to the 64110
superintendent of public instruction documentation, as prescribed 64111
by the superintendent, of all its costs for that student. Upon 64112
submission of documentation for a student of the type and in the 64113
manner prescribed, the department of education shall pay to the 64114
school an amount equal to the school's costs for the student in 64115
excess of the threshold catastrophic costs.64116

       The school shall only report under this section, and the 64117
department shall only pay for, the costs of educational expenses 64118
and the related services provided to the student in accordance 64119
with the student's IEP. Any legal fees, court costs, or other 64120
costs associated with any cause of action relating to the student 64121
may not be included in the amount.64122

       Sec. 3326.38. A science, technology, engineering, and 64123
mathematics school may do allboth of the following:64124

       (A) Apply to the department of education for gifted unit 64125
funding;64126

       (B) Apply to any state or federal agency for grants that a 64127
school district or public school may receive under federal or 64128
state law or any appropriations act of the general assembly;64129

       (C)(B) Apply to any private entity or foundation for 64130
additional funds.64131

       Sec. 3326.39.  (A) In any fiscal year, a STEM school 64132
receiving funds under division (G) of section 3326.33 of the 64133
Revised Code shall spend those funds only for the purposes that 64134
the department designates as approved for career-technical 64135
education expenses. Career-technical educational expenses approved 64136
by the department shall include only expenses connected to the 64137
delivery of career-technical programming to career-technical 64138
students. The department shall require the school to report data 64139
annually so that the department may monitor the school's 64140
compliance with the requirements regarding the manner in which 64141
funding received under division (G) of section 3326.33 of the 64142
Revised Code may be spent.64143

        (B) All funds received under division (G) of section 3326.33 64144
of the Revised Code shall be spent in the following manner:64145

        (1) At least seventy-five per cent of the funds shall be 64146
spent on curriculum development, purchase, and implementation; 64147
instructional resources and supplies; industry-based program 64148
certification; student assessment, credentialing, and placement; 64149
curriculum specific equipment purchases and leases; 64150
career-technical student organization fees and expenses; home and 64151
agency linkages; work-based learning experiences; professional 64152
development; and other costs directly associated with 64153
career-technical education programs including development of new 64154
programs.64155

        (2) Not more than twenty-five per cent of the funds shall be 64156
used for personnel expenditures.64157

       Sec. 3326.40.  A STEM school shall spend the funds it 64158
receives under division (E) of section 3326.33 of the Revised Code 64159
in accordance with section 3317.25 of the Revised Code.64160

       Sec. 3326.45. (A) The governing body of a science, 64161
technology, engineering, and mathematics school may contract with 64162
the governing board of an educational service center or the board 64163
of education of a joint vocational school district for the 64164
provision of services to the STEM school or to any student 64165
enrolled in the school. Services provided under the contract and 64166
the amount to be paid for those services shall be mutually agreed 64167
to by the parties to the contract, and shall be specified in the 64168
contract.64169

       (B) A contract entered into under this section may require an 64170
educational service center to provide any one or a combination of 64171
the following services to a STEM school:64172

       (1) Supervisory teachers;64173

       (2) In-service and continuing education programs for 64174
personnel of the STEM school;64175

       (3) Curriculum services as provided to the client school 64176
districts of the service center;64177

       (4) Research and development programs;64178

       (5) Academic instruction for which the service center 64179
governing board employs teachers;64180

       (6) Assistance in the provision of special accommodations and 64181
classes for students with disabilities.64182

       Services described in division (B) of this section shall be 64183
provided to the STEM school in the same manner they are provided 64184
to client school districts of the service center, unless otherwise 64185
specified in the contract. The contract shall specify whether the 64186
service center will receive a per-pupil payment from the 64187
department of education for the provision of these services and, 64188
if so, the amount of the per-pupil payment, which shall not exceed 64189
the per-pupil amount paid to the service center under division (F) 64190
of section 3317.11 of the Revised Code for each student in the 64191
service center ADM.64192

       (C) For each contract entered into under this section, the 64193
department shall deduct the amount owed by the STEM school from 64194
the state funds due to the STEM school under this chapter and 64195
shall pay that amount to the educational service center or joint 64196
vocational school district that is party to the contract. In the 64197
case of a contract with an educational service center that 64198
specifies per-pupil payments for the provision of services 64199
described in division (B) of this section, the department also 64200
shall pay the service center the amount calculated under division 64201
(H) of section 3317.11 of the Revised Code.64202

       (D) No contract entered into under this section shall be 64203
valid unless a copy is filed with the department by the first day 64204
of the school year for which the contract is in effect.64205

       (E) As used in this section, "client school district" has the 64206
same meaning as in section 3317.11 of the Revised Codemeans a 64207
city, exempted village, or local school district that has entered 64208
into an agreement under section 3313.843 or 3313.845 of the 64209
Revised Code to receive any services from an educational service 64210
center.64211

       Sec. 3327.01.  Notwithstanding division (D) of section 64212
3311.19 and division (D) of section 3311.52 of the Revised Code, 64213
this section and sections 3327.011, 3327.012, and 3327.02 of the 64214
Revised Code do not apply to any joint vocational or cooperative 64215
education school district.64216

       In all city, local, and exempted village school districts 64217
where resident school pupils in grades kindergarten through eight 64218
live more than two miles from the school for which the state board 64219
of education prescribes minimum standards pursuant to division (D) 64220
of section 3301.07 of the Revised Code and to which they are 64221
assigned by the board of education of the district of residence or 64222
to and from the nonpublic or community school which they attend,64223
the board of education shall provide transportation for such 64224
pupils to and from suchthat school except as provided in section 64225
3327.02 of the Revised Code.64226

       In all city, local, and exempted village school districts 64227
where pupil transportation is required under a career-technical 64228
plan approved by the state board of education under section 64229
3313.90 of the Revised Code, for any student attending a 64230
career-technical program operated by another school district, 64231
including a joint vocational school district, as prescribed under 64232
that section, the board of education of the student's district of 64233
residence shall provide transportation from the public high school 64234
operated by that district to which the student is assigned to the 64235
career-technical program.64236

       In all city, local, and exempted village school districts,64237
the board may provide transportation for resident school pupils in 64238
grades nine through twelve to and from the high school to which 64239
they are assigned by the board of education of the district of 64240
residence or to and from the nonpublic or community high school 64241
which they attend for which the state board of education 64242
prescribes minimum standards pursuant to division (D) of section 64243
3301.07 of the Revised Code.64244

       A board of education shall not be required to transport 64245
elementary or high school pupils to and from a nonpublic or 64246
community school where such transportation would require more than 64247
thirty minutes of direct travel time as measured by school bus 64248
from the public school building to which the pupils would be 64249
assigned if attending the public school designated by the district 64250
of residence.64251

       Where it is impractical to transport a pupil by school 64252
conveyance, a board of education may offer payment, in lieu of 64253
providing such transportation in accordance with section 3327.02 64254
of the Revised Code.64255

       A board of education shall not be required to transport 64256
elementary or high school pupils to and from a nonpublic or 64257
community school on Saturday or Sunday, unless a board of 64258
education and a nonpublic or community school have an agreement in 64259
place to do so before July 1, 2014.64260

       In all city, local, and exempted village school districts,64261
the board shall provide transportation for all children who are so 64262
disabled that they are unable to walk to and from the school for 64263
which the state board of education prescribes minimum standards 64264
pursuant to division (D) of section 3301.07 of the Revised Code 64265
and which they attend. In case of dispute whether the child is 64266
able to walk to and from the school, the health commissioner shall 64267
be the judge of such ability. In all city, exempted village, and 64268
local school districts, the board shall provide transportation to 64269
and from school or special education classes for educable mentally64270
retardeddisabled children in accordance with standards adopted by 64271
the state board of education.64272

       When transportation of pupils is provided the conveyance 64273
shall be run on a time schedule that shall be adopted and put in 64274
force by the board not later than ten days after the beginning of 64275
the school term.64276

       The cost of any transportation service authorized by this 64277
section shall be paid first out of federal funds, if any, 64278
available for the purpose of pupil transportation, and secondly 64279
out of state appropriations, in accordance with regulations 64280
adopted by the state board of education.64281

       No transportation of any pupils shall be provided by any 64282
board of education to or from any school which in the selection of 64283
pupils, faculty members, or employees, practices discrimination 64284
against any person on the grounds of race, color, religion, or 64285
national origin.64286

       Sec. 3327.02.  (A) After considering each of the following 64287
factors, the board of education of a city, exempted village, or 64288
local school district may determine that it is impractical to 64289
transport a pupil who is eligible for transportation to and from a 64290
school under section 3327.01 of the Revised Code:64291

        (1) The time and distance required to provide the 64292
transportation;64293

        (2) The number of pupils to be transported;64294

        (3) The cost of providing transportation in terms of 64295
equipment, maintenance, personnel, and administration;64296

        (4) Whether similar or equivalent service is provided to 64297
other pupils eligible for transportation;64298

        (5) Whether and to what extent the additional service 64299
unavoidably disrupts current transportation schedules;64300

        (6) Whether other reimbursable types of transportation are 64301
available.64302

        (B)(1) Based on its consideration of the factors established 64303
in division (A) of this section, the board may pass a resolution 64304
declaring the impracticality of transportation. The resolution 64305
shall include each pupil's name and the reason for impracticality.64306

        (2) The board shall report its determination to the state 64307
board of education in a manner determined by the state board.64308

        (3) The board of education of a local school district 64309
additionally shall submit the resolution for concurrence to the 64310
educational service center that contains the local district's 64311
territory. If the educational service center governing board 64312
considers transportation by school conveyance practicable, it 64313
shall so inform the local board and transportation shall be 64314
provided by such local board. If the educational service center 64315
board agrees with the view of the local board, the local board may 64316
offer payment in lieu of transportation as provided in this 64317
section.64318

       (C) After passing the resolution declaring the impracticality 64319
of transportation, the district board shall offer to provide 64320
payment in lieu of transportation by doing the following:64321

        (1) In accordance with guidelines established by the 64322
department of education, informing the pupil's parent, guardian, 64323
or other person in charge of the pupil of both of the following:64324

        (a) The board's resolution;64325

        (b) The right of the pupil's parent, guardian, or other 64326
person in charge of the pupil to accept the offer of payment in 64327
lieu of transportation or to reject the offer and instead request 64328
the department to initiate mediation procedures.64329

        (2) Issuing the pupil's parent, guardian, or other person in 64330
charge of the pupil a contract or other form on which the parent, 64331
guardian, or other person in charge of the pupil is given the 64332
option to accept or reject the board's offer of payment in lieu of 64333
transportation.64334

        (D) If the parent, guardian, or other person in charge of the 64335
pupil accepts the offer of payment in lieu of providing 64336
transportation, the board shall pay the parent, guardian, or other 64337
person in charge of the pupil an amount that shall be not less 64338
than the amount determined by the department of education as the 64339
minimum for payment in lieu of transportation,two hundred 64340
twenty-five dollars and not more than the amount determined by the 64341
department as the average cost of pupil transportation for the 64342
previous school year. Payment may be prorated if the time period 64343
involved is only a part of the school year.64344

        (E)(1)(a) Upon the request of a parent, guardian, or other 64345
person in charge of the pupil who rejected the payment in lieu of 64346
transportation, the department shall conduct mediation procedures.64347

        (b) If the mediation does not resolve the dispute, the state 64348
board of education shall conduct a hearing in accordance with 64349
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. The state board may approve the 64350
payment in lieu of transportation or may order the board of 64351
education to provide transportation. The decision of the state 64352
board is binding in subsequent years and on future parties in 64353
interest provided the facts of the determination remain 64354
comparable.64355

        (2) The school district shall provide transportation for the 64356
pupil from the time the parent, guardian, or other person in 64357
charge of the pupil requests mediation until the matter is 64358
resolved under division (E)(1)(a) or (b) of this section.64359

        (F)(1) If the department determines that a school district 64360
board has failed or is failing to provide transportation as 64361
required by division (E)(2) of this section or as ordered by the 64362
state board under division (E)(1)(b) of this section, the 64363
department shall order the school district board to pay to the 64364
pupil's parent, guardian, or other person in charge of the pupil, 64365
an amount equal to the state average daily cost of transportation 64366
as determined by the state board of education for the previous 64367
year. The school district board shall make payments on a schedule 64368
ordered by the department.64369

        (2) If the department subsequently finds that a school 64370
district board is not in compliance with an order issued under 64371
division (F)(1) of this section and the affected pupils are 64372
enrolled in a nonpublic or community school, the department shall 64373
deduct the amount that the board is required to pay under that 64374
order from any pupil transportation payments the department makes 64375
to the school district board under section 3317.0212 of the 64376
Revised Code or other provisions of law. The department shall use 64377
the moneys so deducted to make payments to the nonpublic or 64378
community school attended by the pupil. The department shall 64379
continue to make the deductions and payments required under this 64380
division until the school district board either complies with the 64381
department's order issued under division (F)(1) of this section or 64382
begins providing transportation.64383

        (G) A nonpublic or community school that receives payments 64384
from the department under division (F)(2) of this section shall do 64385
either of the following:64386

        (1) Disburse the entire amount of the payments to the parent, 64387
guardian, or other person in charge of the pupil affected by the 64388
failure of the school district of residence to provide 64389
transportation;64390

        (2) Use the entire amount of the payments to provide 64391
acceptable transportation for the affected pupil.64392

       Sec. 3327.07. (A) The governing authority of a chartered 64393
nonpublic school that transports a student enrolled in the school 64394
to and from school may charge the parent or guardian of the 64395
student a fee for the transportation, if the governing authority 64396
purchased the vehicle that transports the student using no state 64397
or federal funds. The fee shall not exceed the per student cost of 64398
the transportation, as determined by the governing authority.64399

        (B) The parent or guardian of a student who is enrolled in a 64400
chartered nonpublic school and is eligible for transportation by a 64401
school district under section 3327.01 of the Revised Code may 64402
decline that transportation and accept transportation from the 64403
chartered nonpublic school. The governing authority of a chartered 64404
nonpublic school may charge a fee under division (A) of this 64405
section regardless of whether a student is eligible for 64406
transportation under section 3327.01 of the Revised Code.64407

        (C) The offering by the governing authority of a chartered 64408
nonpublic school of transportation to and from the school does not 64409
relieve any school district board of education from any duty 64410
imposed by sections 3327.01 and 3327.02 of the Revised Code with 64411
respect to the chartered nonpublic school's students.64412

       Sec. 3327.10.  (A) No person shall be employed as driver of a 64413
school bus or motor van, owned and operated by any school district 64414
or educational service center or privately owned and operated 64415
under contract with any school district or service center in this 64416
state, who has not received a certificate from either the 64417
educational service center governing board in case such person is 64418
employed by a service center or by a local school district under 64419
the supervision of the service center governing board,that has 64420
entered into an agreement with the school district under section 64421
3313.843 or 3313.845 of the Revised Code or by the superintendent 64422
of schools, in case such person is employed by the board of a city 64423
or exempted villagethe school district, certifying that such 64424
person is at least eighteen years of age and is of good moral 64425
character and is qualified physically and otherwise for such 64426
position. The service center governing board or the 64427
superintendent, as the case may be, shall provide for an annual 64428
physical examination that conforms with rules adopted by the state 64429
board of education of each driver to ascertain the driver's 64430
physical fitness for such employment. Any certificate may be 64431
revoked by the authority granting the same on proof that the 64432
holder has been guilty of failing to comply with division (D)(1) 64433
of this section, or upon a conviction or a guilty plea for a 64434
violation, or any other action, that results in a loss or 64435
suspension of driving rights. Failure to comply with such division 64436
may be cause for disciplinary action or termination of employment 64437
under division (C) of section 3319.081, or section 124.34 of the 64438
Revised Code.64439

       (B) No person shall be employed as driver of a school bus or 64440
motor van not subject to the rules of the department of education 64441
pursuant to division (A) of this section who has not received a 64442
certificate from the school administrator or contractor certifying 64443
that such person is at least eighteen years of age, is of good 64444
moral character, and is qualified physically and otherwise for 64445
such position. Each driver shall have an annual physical 64446
examination which conforms to the state highway patrol rules, 64447
ascertaining the driver's physical fitness for such employment. 64448
The examination shall be performed by one of the following:64449

       (1) A person licensed under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code 64450
or by another state to practice medicine and surgery or 64451
osteopathic medicine and surgery;64452

       (2) A physician assistant;64453

       (3) A certified nurse practitioner;64454

       (4) A clinical nurse specialist;64455

       (5) A certified nurse-midwife.64456

       Any written documentation of the physical examination shall 64457
be completed by the individual who performed the examination.64458

       Any certificate may be revoked by the authority granting the 64459
same on proof that the holder has been guilty of failing to comply 64460
with division (D)(2) of this section.64461

       (C) Any person who drives a school bus or motor van must give 64462
satisfactory and sufficient bond except a driver who is an 64463
employee of a school district and who drives a bus or motor van 64464
owned by the school district.64465

       (D) No person employed as driver of a school bus or motor van 64466
under this section who is convicted of a traffic violation or who 64467
has had the person's commercial driver's license suspended shall 64468
drive a school bus or motor van until the person has filed a 64469
written notice of the conviction or suspension, as follows:64470

       (1) If the person is employed under division (A) of this 64471
section, the person shall file the notice with the superintendent, 64472
or a person designated by the superintendent, of the school 64473
district for which the person drives a school bus or motor van as 64474
an employee or drives a privately owned and operated school bus or 64475
motor van under contract.64476

       (2) If employed under division (B) of this section, the 64477
person shall file the notice with the employing school 64478
administrator or contractor, or a person designated by the 64479
administrator or contractor.64480

       (E) In addition to resulting in possible revocation of a 64481
certificate as authorized by divisions (A) and (B) of this 64482
section, violation of division (D) of this section is a minor 64483
misdemeanor.64484

       (F)(1) Not later than thirty days after June 30, 2007, each 64485
owner of a school bus or motor van shall obtain the complete 64486
driving record for each person who is currently employed or 64487
otherwise authorized to drive the school bus or motor van. An 64488
owner of a school bus or motor van shall not permit a person to 64489
operate the school bus or motor van for the first time before the 64490
owner has obtained the person's complete driving record. 64491
Thereafter, the owner of a school bus or motor van shall obtain 64492
the person's driving record not less frequently than semiannually 64493
if the person remains employed or otherwise authorized to drive 64494
the school bus or motor van. An owner of a school bus or motor van 64495
shall not permit a person to resume operating a school bus or 64496
motor van, after an interruption of one year or longer, before the 64497
owner has obtained the person's complete driving record.64498

       (2) The owner of a school bus or motor van shall not permit a 64499
person to operate the school bus or motor van for six years after 64500
the date on which the person pleads guilty to or is convicted of a 64501
violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or a 64502
substantially equivalent municipal ordinance.64503

       (3) An owner of a school bus or motor van shall not permit 64504
any person to operate such a vehicle unless the person meets all 64505
other requirements contained in rules adopted by the state board 64506
of education prescribing qualifications of drivers of school buses 64507
and other student transportation.64508

       (G) No superintendent of a school district, educational 64509
service center, community school, or public or private employer 64510
shall permit the operation of a vehicle used for pupil 64511
transportation within this state by an individual unless both of 64512
the following apply:64513

       (1) Information pertaining to that driver has been submitted 64514
to the department of education, pursuant to procedures adopted by 64515
that department. Information to be reported shall include the name 64516
of the employer or school district, name of the driver, driver 64517
license number, date of birth, date of hire, status of physical 64518
evaluation, and status of training.64519

       (2) The most recent criminal records check required by 64520
division (J) of this section has been completed and received by 64521
the superintendent or public or private employer.64522

       (H) A person, school district, educational service center, 64523
community school, nonpublic school, or other public or nonpublic 64524
entity that owns a school bus or motor van, or that contracts with 64525
another entity to operate a school bus or motor van, may impose 64526
more stringent restrictions on drivers than those prescribed in 64527
this section, in any other section of the Revised Code, and in 64528
rules adopted by the state board.64529

       (I) For qualified drivers who, on July 1, 2007, are employed 64530
by the owner of a school bus or motor van to drive the school bus 64531
or motor van, any instance in which the driver was convicted of or 64532
pleaded guilty to a violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised 64533
Code or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance prior to 64534
two years prior to July 1, 2007, shall not be considered a 64535
disqualifying event with respect to division (F) of this section.64536

       (J)(1) This division applies to persons hired by a school 64537
district, educational service center, community school, chartered 64538
nonpublic school, or science, technology, engineering, and 64539
mathematics school established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised 64540
Code to operate a vehicle used for pupil transportation.64541

       For each person to whom this division applies who is hired on 64542
or after November 14, 2007, the employer shall request a criminal 64543
records check in accordance with section 3319.39 of the Revised 64544
Code and every six years thereafter. For each person to whom this 64545
division applies who is hired prior to that date, the employer 64546
shall request a criminal records check by a date prescribed by the 64547
department of education and every six years thereafter.64548

       (2) This division applies to persons hired by a public or 64549
private employer not described in division (J)(1) of this section 64550
to operate a vehicle used for pupil transportation.64551

       For each person to whom this division applies who is hired on 64552
or after November 14, 2007, the employer shall request a criminal 64553
records check prior to the person's hiring and every six years 64554
thereafter. For each person to whom this division applies who is 64555
hired prior to that date, the employer shall request a criminal 64556
records check by a date prescribed by the department and every six 64557
years thereafter.64558

       (3) Each request for a criminal records check under division 64559
(J) of this section shall be made to the superintendent of the 64560
bureau of criminal identification and investigation in the manner 64561
prescribed in section 3319.39 of the Revised Code, except that if 64562
both of the following conditions apply to the person subject to 64563
the records check, the employer shall request the superintendent 64564
only to obtain any criminal records that the federal bureau of 64565
investigation has on the person:64566

       (a) The employer previously requested the superintendent to 64567
determine whether the bureau of criminal identification and 64568
investigation has any information, gathered pursuant to division 64569
(A) of section 109.57 of the Revised Code, on the person in 64570
conjunction with a criminal records check requested under section 64571
3319.39 of the Revised Code or under division (J) of this section.64572

       (b) The person presents proof that the person has been a 64573
resident of this state for the five-year period immediately prior 64574
to the date upon which the person becomes subject to a criminal 64575
records check under this section. 64576

       Upon receipt of a request, the superintendent shall conduct 64577
the criminal records check in accordance with section 109.572 of 64578
the Revised Code as if the request had been made under section 64579
3319.39 of the Revised Code. However, as specified in division 64580
(B)(2) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code, if the employer 64581
requests the superintendent only to obtain any criminal records 64582
that the federal bureau of investigation has on the person for 64583
whom the request is made, the superintendent shall not conduct the 64584
review prescribed by division (B)(1) of that section.64585

       (K)(1) Until the effective date of the amendments to rule 64586
3301-83-23 of the Ohio Administrative Code required by the second 64587
paragraph of division (E) of section 3319.39 of the Revised Code, 64588
any person who is the subject of a criminal records check under 64589
division (J) of this section and has been convicted of or pleaded 64590
guilty to any offense described in division (B)(1) of section 64591
3319.39 of the Revised Code shall not be hired or shall be 64592
released from employment, as applicable, unless the person meets 64593
the rehabilitation standards prescribed for nonlicensed school 64594
personnel by rule 3301-20-03 of the Ohio Administrative Code.64595

       (2) Beginning on the effective date of the amendments to rule 64596
3301-83-23 of the Ohio Administrative Code required by the second 64597
paragraph of division (E) of section 3319.39 of the Revised Code, 64598
any person who is the subject of a criminal records check under 64599
division (J) of this section and has been convicted of or pleaded 64600
guilty to any offense that, under the rule, disqualifies a person 64601
for employment to operate a vehicle used for pupil transportation 64602
shall not be hired or shall be released from employment, as 64603
applicable, unless the person meets the rehabilitation standards 64604
prescribed by the rule.64605

       Sec. 3328.27.  The board of trustees of each 64606
college-preparatory boarding school shall comply with the 64607
standards for financial reporting adopted under division (B)(2) of 64608
section 3301.07 of the Revised Code.64609

       Sec. 3333.041.  (A) On or before the last day of December of 64610
each year, the chancellor of the Ohio board of regents shall 64611
submit to the governor and, in accordance with section 101.68 of 64612
the Revised Code, the general assembly a report or reports 64613
concerning all of the following:64614

       (1) The status of graduates of Ohio school districts at state 64615
institutions of higher education during the twelve-month period 64616
ending on the thirtieth day of September of the current calendar 64617
year. The report shall list, by school district, the number of 64618
graduates of each school district who attended a state institution 64619
of higher education and the percentage of each district's 64620
graduates enrolled in a state institution of higher education 64621
during the reporting period who were required during such period 64622
by the college or university, as a prerequisite to enrolling in 64623
those courses generally required for first-year students, to 64624
enroll in a remedial course in English, including composition or 64625
reading, mathematics, and any other area designated by the 64626
chancellor. The chancellor also shall make the information 64627
described in division (A)(1) of this section available to the 64628
board of education of each city, exempted village, and local 64629
school district.64630

       Each state institution of higher education shall, by the 64631
first day of November of each year, submit to the chancellor in 64632
the form specified by the chancellor the information the 64633
chancellor requires to compile the report.64634

       (2) Aggregate academic growth data for students assigned to 64635
graduates of teacher preparation programs approved under section 64636
3333.048 of the Revised Code who teach English language arts or 64637
mathematics in any of grades four to eight in a public school in 64638
Ohio. For this purpose, the chancellor shall use the value-added 64639
progress dimension prescribed by section 3302.021 of the Revised 64640
Code or the alternative student academic progress measure if 64641
adopted under division (C)(1)(e) of section 3302.03 of the Revised 64642
Code. The chancellor shall aggregate the data by graduating class 64643
for each approved teacher preparation program, except that if a 64644
particular class has ten or fewer graduates to which this section 64645
applies, the chancellor shall report the data for a group of 64646
classes over a three-year period. In no case shall the report 64647
identify any individual graduate. The department of education 64648
shall share any data necessary for the report with the chancellor.64649

       (3) The following information with respect to the Ohio 64650
tuition trust authority:64651

       (a) The name of each investment manager that is a minority 64652
business enterprise or a women's business enterprise with which 64653
the chancellor contracts;64654

       (b) The amount of assets managed by investment managers that 64655
are minority business enterprises or women's business enterprises, 64656
expressed as a percentage of assets managed by investment managers 64657
with which the chancellor has contracted;64658

       (c) Efforts by the chancellor to increase utilization of 64659
investment managers that are minority business enterprises or 64660
women's business enterprises.64661

       (4) The status of implementation of faculty improvement 64662
programs under section 3345.28 of the Revised Code. The report 64663
shall include, but need not be limited to, the following: the 64664
number of professional leave grants made by each institution; the 64665
purpose of each professional leave; and a statement of the cost to 64666
the institution of each professional leave, to the extent that the 64667
cost exceeds the salary of the faculty member on professional 64668
leave.64669

       (5) The number and types of biobased products purchased under 64670
section 125.092 of the Revised Code and the amount of money spent 64671
by state institutions of higher education for those biobased 64672
products as that information is provided to the chancellor under 64673
division (A) of section 3345.692 of the Revised Code.64674

       (6) A description of dual enrollment programs, as defined in 64675
section 3313.6013 of the Revised Code, that are offered by school 64676
districts, community schools established under Chapter 3314. of 64677
the Revised Code, STEM schools established under Chapter 3326. of 64678
the Revised Code, college-preparatory boarding schools established 64679
under Chapter 3328. of the Revised Code, and chartered nonpublic 64680
high schools. The chancellor also shall post the information on 64681
the chancellor's web site.64682

       (7) The academic and economic impact of the Ohio innovation 64683
partnership established under section 3333.61 of the Revised Code. 64684
At a minimum, the report shall include the following:64685

       (a) Progress and performance metrics for each initiative that 64686
received an award in the previous fiscal year;64687

       (b) Economic indicators of the impact of each initiative, and 64688
all initiatives as a whole, on the regional economies and the 64689
statewide economy;64690

       (c)(5) The chancellor's strategy in assigning choose Ohio 64691
first scholarships, as established under section 3333.61 of the 64692
Revised Code, among state universities and colleges and how the 64693
actual awards fit that strategy.64694

       (8)(6) The academic and economic impact of the Ohio 64695
co-op/internship program established under section 3333.72 of the 64696
Revised Code. At a minimum, the report shall include the 64697
following:64698

        (a) Progress and performance metrics for each initiative that 64699
received an award in the previous fiscal year;64700

        (b) Economic indicators of the impact of each initiative, and 64701
all initiatives as a whole, on the regional economies and the 64702
statewide economy;64703

        (c) The chancellor's strategy in allocating awards among 64704
state institutions of higher education and how the actual awards 64705
fit that strategy.64706

       (B) As used in this section:64707

       (1) "Minority business enterprise" has the same meaning as in 64708
section 122.71 of the Revised Code.64709

       (2) "State institution of higher education" and "state 64710
university" have the same meanings as in section 3345.011 of the 64711
Revised Code.64712

       (3) "State university or college" has the same meaning as in 64713
section 3345.12 of the Revised Code.64714

        (4) "Women's business enterprise" means a business, or a 64715
partnership, corporation, limited liability company, or joint 64716
venture of any kind, that is owned and controlled by women who are 64717
United States citizens and residents of this state.64718

       Sec. 3333.049. No nonprofit institution that holds a 64719
certificate of authorization issued under Chapter 1713. of the 64720
Revised Code shall be liable for a breach of confidentiality 64721
arising from the institution's submission of student data or 64722
records to the board of regents or any other state agency in 64723
compliance with any law, rule, or regulation, provided that the 64724
breach occurs as a result of one of the following:64725

        (A) An action by a third party during and after the 64726
transmission of the data or records by the institution but prior 64727
to receipt of the data or records by the board of regents or other 64728
state agency;64729

        (B) An action by the board of regents or the state agency.64730

        This provision shall apply to the submission of any student 64731
data or records that are subject to any laws of this state or, to 64732
the extent permitted, any federal law, including the "Family 64733
Educational Rights and Privacy Act of 1974," 88 Stat. 571, 20 64734
U.S.C. 1232g. 64735

       Sec. 3333.124. There is hereby created in the state treasury 64736
the Ohio college opportunity grant program reserve fund. Not later 64737
than the first day of July of each fiscal year, the chancellor of 64738
the Ohio board of regents shall certify to the director of budget 64739
and management the unencumbered balance of the general revenue 64740
fund appropriations made in the immediately preceding fiscal year 64741
for purposes of the Ohio college opportunity grant program created 64742
in section 3333.122 of the Revised Code. Upon receipt of the 64743
certification, the director may transfer an amount not exceeding 64744
the certified amount from the general revenue fund to the Ohio 64745
college opportunity grant program reserve fund. Moneys in the Ohio 64746
college opportunity grant program reserve fund shall be used to 64747
pay grant obligations in excess of the general revenue fund 64748
appropriations made for that purpose.64749

       The director may transfer any unencumbered balance from the 64750
Ohio college opportunity grant program reserve fund to the general 64751
revenue fund.64752

       Sec. 3333.342. (A) The chancellor of the Ohio board of 64753
regents may designate a "certificate of value" for a certificate 64754
program at any adult career-technical education institution or 64755
state institution of higher education, as defined under section 64756
3345.011 of the Revised Code, based on the standards adopted under 64757
division (B) of this section.64758

       (B) The chancellor shall develop standards for designation of 64759
the certificates of value for certificate programs at adult 64760
career-technical education institutions and state institutions of 64761
higher education. The standards shall include at least the 64762
following considerations:64763

       (1) The quality of the certificate program;64764

       (2) The ability to transfer agreed-upon technical courses 64765
completed through an adult career-technical education institution 64766
to a state institution of higher education without unnecessary 64767
duplication or institutional barriers;64768

       (3) The extent to which the certificate program encourages a 64769
student to obtain an associate's or bachelor's degree;64770

       (4) The extent to which the certificate program increases a 64771
student's likelihood to complete other certificate programs or an 64772
associate's or bachelor's degree;64773

       (5) The ability of the certificate program to meet the 64774
expectations of the workplace and higher education;64775

       (6) The extent to which the certificate program is aligned 64776
with the strengths of the regional economy;64777

       (7) The extent to which the certificate program increases the 64778
amount of individuals who remain in or enter the state's 64779
workforce;64780

       (8) The extent of a certificate program's relationship with 64781
private companies in the state to fill potential job growth. 64782

       (C) The designation of a certificate of value under this 64783
section shall expire six years after its designation date.64784

       (D) The chancellor may revoke a designation prior to its 64785
expiration date if the chancellor determines that the program no 64786
longer complies with the standards developed under division (B) of 64787
this section.64788

       (E) Any revocation of a certificate of value under this 64789
section shall become effective one hundred eighty days after the 64790
date the revocation was declared by the chancellor.64791

       (F) Any adult career-technical education institution or state 64792
institution of higher education that desires to be eligible to 64793
receive a designation of certificate of value for one or more of 64794
its certificate programs shall comply with all records and data 64795
requests required by the chancellor.64796

       Sec. 3333.90.        Sec. 3333.59.  (A) As used in this section:64797

       (1) "Allocated state share of instruction" means, for any 64798
fiscal year, the amount of the state share of instruction 64799
appropriated to the Ohio board of regents by the general assembly 64800
that is allocated to a community or technical college or community 64801
or technical college district for such fiscal year.64802

       (2) "Issuing authority" has the same meaning as in section 64803
154.01 of the Revised Code.64804

       (3) "Bond service charges" has the same meaning as in section 64805
154.01 of the Revised Code.64806

       (4) "Chancellor" means the chancellor of the Ohio board of 64807
regents.64808

       (5) "Community or technical college" or "college" means any 64809
of the following state-supported or state-assisted institutions of 64810
higher education:64811

       (a) A community college as defined in section 3354.01 of the 64812
Revised Code;64813

       (b) A technical college as defined in section 3357.01 of the 64814
Revised Code;64815

       (c) A state community college as defined in section 3358.01 64816
of the Revised Code.64817

       (6) "Community or technical college district" or "district" 64818
means any of the following institutions of higher education that 64819
are state-supported or state-assisted:64820

       (a) A community college district as defined in section 64821
3354.01 of the Revised Code;64822

       (b) A technical college district as defined in section 64823
3357.01 of the Revised Code;64824

       (c) A state community college district as defined in section 64825
3358.01 of the Revised Code. 64826

       (7) "Credit enhancement facilities" has the same meaning as 64827
in section 133.01 of the Revised Code.64828

       (8) "Obligations" has the meaning as in section 154.01 or 64829
3345.12 of the Revised Code, as the context requires.64830

       (B) The board of trustees of any community or technical 64831
college district authorizing the issuance of obligations under 64832
section 3354.12, 3354.121, 3357.11, 3357.112, or 3358.10 of the 64833
Revised Code, or for whose benefit and on whose behalf the issuing 64834
authority proposes to issue obligations under section 154.25 of 64835
the Revised Code, may adopt a resolution requesting the chancellor 64836
to enter into an agreement with the community or technical college 64837
district and the primary paying agent or fiscal agent for such 64838
obligations, providing for the withholding and deposit of funds 64839
otherwise due the district or the community or technical college 64840
it operates in respect of its allocated state share of 64841
instruction, for the payment of bond service charges on such 64842
obligations.64843

       The board of trustees shall deliver to the chancellor a copy 64844
of the resolution and any additional pertinent information the 64845
chancellor may require.64846

       The chancellor and the office of budget and management, and 64847
the issuing authority in the case of obligations to be issued by 64848
the issuing authority, shall evaluate each request received from a 64849
community or technical college district under this section. The 64850
chancellor, with the advice and consent of the director of budget 64851
and management and the issuing authority in the case of 64852
obligations to be issued by the issuing authority, shall approve 64853
each request if all of the following conditions are met:64854

       (1) Approval of the request will enhance the marketability of 64855
the obligations for which the request is made;64856

       (2) The chancellor and the office of budget and management, 64857
and the issuing authority in the case of obligations to be issued 64858
by the issuing authority, have no reason to believe the requesting 64859
community or technical college district or the community or 64860
technical college it operates will be unable to pay when due the 64861
bond service charges on the obligations for which the request is 64862
made, and bond service charges on those obligations are therefore 64863
not anticipated to be paid pursuant to this section from the 64864
allocated state share of instruction for purposes of Section 17 of 64865
Article VIII, Ohio Constitution.64866

       (3) Any other pertinent conditions established in rules 64867
adopted under division (H) of this section.64868

       (C) If the chancellor approves the request of a community or 64869
technical college district to withhold and deposit funds pursuant 64870
to this section, the chancellor shall enter into a written 64871
agreement with the district and the primary paying agent or fiscal 64872
agent for the obligations, which agreement shall provide for the 64873
withholding of funds pursuant to this section for the payment of 64874
bond service charges on those obligations. The agreement may also 64875
include both of the following:64876

       (1) Provisions for certification by the district to the 64877
chancellor, prior to the deadline for payment of the applicable 64878
bond service charges, whether the district and the community or 64879
technical college it operates are able to pay those bond service 64880
charges when due;64881

       (2) Requirements that the district or the community or 64882
technical college it operates deposits amounts for the payment of 64883
those bond service charges with the primary paying agent or fiscal 64884
agent for the obligations prior to the date on which the bond 64885
service charges are due to the owners or holders of the 64886
obligations.64887

       (D) Whenever a district or the community or technical college 64888
it operates notifies the chancellor that it will not be able to 64889
pay the bond service charges when they are due, subject to the 64890
withholding provisions of this section, or whenever the applicable 64891
paying agent or fiscal agent notifies the chancellor that it has 64892
not timely received from a district or from the college it 64893
operates the full amount needed for payment of the bond service 64894
charges when due to the holders or owners of such obligations, the 64895
chancellor shall immediately contact the district or college and 64896
the paying agent or fiscal agent to confirm that the district and 64897
the college are not able to make the required payment by the date 64898
on which it is due.64899

       If the chancellor confirms that the district and the college 64900
are not able to make the payment and the payment will not be made 64901
pursuant to a credit enhancement facility, the chancellor shall 64902
promptly pay to the applicable primary paying agent or fiscal 64903
agent the lesser of the amount due for bond service charges or the 64904
amount of the next periodic distribution scheduled to be made to 64905
the district or to the college in respect of its allocated state 64906
share of instruction. If this amount is insufficient to pay the 64907
total amount then due the agent for the payment of bond service 64908
charges, the chancellor shall continue to pay to the agent from 64909
each periodic distribution thereafter, and until the full amount 64910
due the agent for unpaid bond service charges is paid in full, the 64911
lesser of the remaining amount due the agent for bond service 64912
charges or the amount of the next periodic distribution scheduled 64913
to be made to the district or college in respect of its allocated 64914
state share of instruction.64915

       (E) The chancellor may make any payments under this section 64916
by direct deposit of funds by electronic transfer.64917

       Any amount received by a paying agent or fiscal agent under 64918
this section shall be applied only to the payment of bond service 64919
charges on the obligations of the community or technical college 64920
district or community or technical college subject to this section 64921
or to the reimbursement of the provider of a credit enhancement 64922
facility that has paid the bond service charges.64923

       (F) The chancellor may make payments under this section to 64924
paying agents or fiscal agents during any fiscal biennium of the 64925
state only from and to the extent that money is appropriated to 64926
the board of regents by the general assembly for distribution 64927
during such biennium for the state share of instruction and only 64928
to the extent that a portion of the state share of instruction has 64929
been allocated to the community or technical college district or 64930
community or technical college. Obligations of the issuing 64931
authority or of a community or technical college district to which 64932
this section is made applicable do not constitute an obligation or 64933
a debt or a pledge of the faith, credit, or taxing power of the 64934
state, and the holders or owners of those obligations have no 64935
right to have excises or taxes levied or appropriations made by 64936
the general assembly for the payment of bond service charges on 64937
the obligations, and the obligations shall contain a statement to 64938
that effect. The agreement for or the actual withholding and 64939
payment of money under this section does not constitute the 64940
assumption by the state of any debt of a community or technical 64941
college district or a community or technical college, and bond 64942
service charges on the related obligations are not anticipated to 64943
be paid from the state general revenue fund for purposes of 64944
Section 17 of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution.64945

       (G) In the case of obligations subject to the withholding 64946
provisions of this section, the issuing community or technical 64947
college district, or the issuing authority in the case of 64948
obligations issued by the issuing authority, shall appoint a 64949
paying agent or fiscal agent who is not an officer or employee of 64950
the district or college.64951

       (H) The chancellor, with the advice and consent of the office 64952
of budget and management, may adopt reasonable rules not 64953
inconsistent with this section for the implementation of this 64954
section to secure payment of bond service charges on obligations 64955
issued by a community or technical college district or by the 64956
issuing authority for the benefit of a community or technical 64957
college district or the community or technical college it 64958
operates. Those rules shall include criteria for the evaluation 64959
and approval or denial of community or technical college district 64960
requests for withholding under this section.64961

       (I) The authority granted by this section is in addition to 64962
and not a limitation on any other authorizations granted by or 64963
pursuant to law for the same or similar purposes.64964

       Sec. 3333.613. There is hereby created in the state treasury 64965
the choose Ohio first scholarship reserve fund. Not later than the 64966
first day of July of each fiscal year, the chancellor of the Ohio 64967
board of regents shall certify to the director of budget and 64968
management the unencumbered balance of the general revenue fund 64969
appropriations made in the immediately preceding fiscal year for 64970
purposes of the choose Ohio first scholarship program created in 64971
section 3333.61 of the Revised Code. Upon receipt of the 64972
certification, the director may transfer an amount not exceeding 64973
the certified amount from the general revenue fund to the choose 64974
Ohio first scholarship reserve fund. Moneys in the choose Ohio 64975
first scholarship reserve fund shall be used to pay scholarship 64976
obligations in excess of the general revenue fund appropriations 64977
made for that purpose.64978

       The director may transfer any unencumbered balance from the 64979
choose Ohio first scholarship reserve fund to the general revenue 64980
fund.64981

       Sec. 3333.73.  The chancellor of the Ohio board of regents 64982
shall establish a competitive process for making awards under the 64983
Ohio co-op/internship program. The chancellor, on completion of 64984
that process, shall make a recommendation to the controlling board 64985
asking for approval of each award selected by the chancellor.64986

       The state institution of higher education shall submit a 64987
proposal and other documentation required by the chancellor, in 64988
the form and manner prescribed by the chancellor, for each award 64989
it seeks. A proposal may propose an initiative to be implemented 64990
solely by the state institution of higher education or in 64991
collaboration with other state institutions of higher education or 64992
nonpublic Ohio universities or colleges.64993

       The chancellor shall determine which proposals will receive 64994
awards each fiscal year, and the amount of each award, on the 64995
basis of the merit of each proposal, which the chancellor, subject 64996
to approval by the controlling board, shall determine based on one 64997
or more of the following criteria:64998

       (A) The extent to which the proposal will keep Ohio students 64999
in Ohio institutions of higher education;65000

       (B) The extent to which the proposal will attract Ohio 65001
residents who left Ohio to attend out-of-state institutions of 65002
higher education to return to Ohio institutions of higher 65003
education;65004

       (C) The extent to which the proposal will increase the number 65005
of Ohio graduates who remain in Ohio and enter Ohio's workforce;65006

       (D) The quality of the program that is the subject of the 65007
proposal and the extent to which additional resources will enhance 65008
its quality;65009

       (E) The extent to which the proposal is integrated with the 65010
strengths of the regional economy;65011

       (F) The extent to which the proposal is aligned with the 65012
report submitted by the chancellor pursuant to Section 4 of Sub. 65013
H.B. 2 of the 127th general assembly, as amendedsupports the 65014
workforce policies of the governor's office of workforce 65015
transformation to meet the workforce needs of the state and to 65016
provide a student participating in the program with the skills 65017
needed for workplace success;65018

       (G) The extent to which the proposal facilitates the 65019
development of high quality academic programs with a cooperative 65020
education program or a significant internship program at state 65021
institutions of higher education;65022

       (H) The extent to which the proposal is integrated with 65023
supporting private companies to fill potential job growth, is 65024
responsive to the needs of employers, aligns with the skills 65025
identified by employers as necessary to fill high-demand job 65026
openings, particularly job openings in targeted industry sectors 65027
as identified by the governor's office of workforce 65028
transformation;65029

       (I) The amount of other institutional, public, or private 65030
resources, whether monetary or nonmonetary, the proposal pledges 65031
to leverage that are in addition to the monetary cost-sharing 65032
requirement prescribed in section 3333.74 of the Revised Code;65033

       (J) The extent to which the proposal is collaborative with 65034
other Ohio institutions of higher education;65035

       (K) The extent to which the proposal is integrated with the 65036
institution's mission;65037

       (L) The extent to which the proposal meets a statewide 65038
educational need at the undergraduate or graduate level;65039

       (M) The demonstrated productivity or future capacity of the 65040
students to be recruited;65041

       (N) The extent to which the proposal will create additional 65042
capacity in a high quality academic program with a cooperative 65043
education program or significant internship program;65044

       (O) The extent to which the proposal will encourage students 65045
who received degrees from two-year institutions to pursue 65046
baccalaureate degrees;65047

       (P) The extent to which the proposal facilitates the 65048
completion of a baccalaureate degree in a cost-effective manner;65049

       (Q) The extent to which other institutional, public, or 65050
private resources that are pledged to the proposal, in addition to 65051
the monetary cost-sharing requirement prescribed in section 65052
3333.74 of the Revised Code, will be deployed to assist in 65053
sustaining the academic program of excellence;65054

       (R) The extent to which the proposal increases the likelihood 65055
that students will successfully complete their degree programs or 65056
certificate programs;65057

       (S) The extent to which the proposal ensures that a student 65058
participating in the high quality academic program funded by the 65059
Ohio co-op/internship program is appropriately qualified and 65060
prepared to successfully transition into professions in Ohio's 65061
growing companies and industries.65062

       Sec. 3333.82.  (A) The chancellor of the Ohio board of 65063
regents shall establish a clearinghouse of interactive distance 65064
learning courses and other distance learning courses delivered via 65065
a computer-based method offered by school districts, community 65066
schools, STEM schools, state institutions of higher education, 65067
private colleges and universities, and other nonprofit and 65068
for-profit course providers for sharing with other school 65069
districts, community schools, STEM schools, state institutions of 65070
higher education, private colleges and universities, and 65071
individuals for the fee set pursuant to section 3333.84 of the 65072
Revised Code. The chancellor shall not be responsible for the 65073
content of courses offered through the clearinghouse; however, all 65074
such courses shall be delivered only in accordance with technical 65075
specifications approved by the chancellor and on a common 65076
statewide platform administered by the chancellor.65077

       The clearinghouse's distance learning program for students in 65078
grades kindergarten to twelve shall be based on the following 65079
principles:65080

       (1) All Ohio students shall have access to high quality 65081
distance learning courses at any point in their educational 65082
careers.65083

       (2) All students shall be able to customize their education 65084
using distance learning courses offered through the clearinghouse 65085
and no student shall be denied access to any course in the 65086
clearinghouse in which the student is eligible to enroll.65087

       (3) Students may take distance learning courses for all or 65088
any portion of their curriculum requirements and may utilize a 65089
combination of distance learning courses and courses taught in a 65090
traditional classroom setting.65091

       (4) Students may earn an unlimited number of academic credits 65092
through distance learning courses.65093

       (5) Students may take distance learning courses at any time 65094
of the calendar year.65095

       (6) Student advancement to higher coursework shall be based 65096
on a demonstration of subject area competency instead of 65097
completion of any particular number of hours of instruction.65098

       (B) To offer a course through the clearinghouse, a course 65099
provider shall apply to the chancellor in a form and manner 65100
prescribed by the chancellor. The application for each course 65101
shall describe the course of study in as much detail as required 65102
by the chancellor, whether an instructor is provided, the 65103
qualification and credentials of the instructor, the number of 65104
hours of instruction, and any other information required by the 65105
chancellor. The chancellor may require course providers to include 65106
in their applications information recommended by the state board 65107
of education under former section 3353.30 of the Revised Code.65108

       (C) The chancellor shall review the technical specifications 65109
of each application submitted under division (B) of this section. 65110
In reviewing applications, the chancellor may consult with the 65111
department of education; however, the responsibility to either 65112
approve or not approve a course for the clearinghouse belongs to 65113
the chancellor. The chancellor may request additional information 65114
from a course provider that submits an application under division 65115
(B) of this section, if the chancellor determines that such 65116
information is necessary. The chancellor may negotiate changes in 65117
the proposal to offer a course, if the chancellor determines that 65118
changes are necessary in order to approve the course.65119

       (D) The chancellor shall catalog each course approved for the 65120
clearinghouse, through a print or electronic medium, displaying 65121
the following:65122

       (1) Information necessary for a student and the student's 65123
parent, guardian, or custodian and the student's school district, 65124
community school, STEM school, college, or university to decide 65125
whether to enroll in or subscribe to the course;65126

       (2) Instructions for enrolling in that course, including 65127
deadlines for enrollment.65128

       (E) Any expenses related to the installation of a course into 65129
the common statewide platform shall be borne by the course 65130
provider. 65131

       (F) The eTech Ohio commission, in consultation with the 65132
chancellor and the state board, shall distribute information to 65133
students and parents describing the clearinghouse. The information 65134
shall be provided in an easily understandable formatThe 65135
chancellor may contract with an entity to perform any or all of 65136
the chancellor's duties under sections 3333.81 to 3333.88 of the 65137
Revised Code.65138

       Sec. 3334.08.  (A) Subject to division (B) of this section, 65139
in addition to any other powers conferred by this chapter, the 65140
Ohio tuition trust authority may do any of the following:65141

       (1) Impose reasonable residency requirements for 65142
beneficiaries of tuition units;65143

       (2) Impose reasonable limits on the number of tuition unit 65144
participants;65145

       (3) Impose and collect administrative fees and charges in 65146
connection with any transaction under this chapter;65147

       (4) Purchase insurance from insurers licensed to do business 65148
in this state providing for coverage against any loss in 65149
connection with the authority's property, assets, or activities or 65150
to further ensure the value of tuition units;65151

       (5) Indemnify or purchase policies of insurance on behalf of 65152
members, officers, and employees of the authority from insurers 65153
licensed to do business in this state providing for coverage for 65154
any liability incurred in connection with any civil action, 65155
demand, or claim against a director, officer, or employee by 65156
reason of an act or omission by the director, officer, or employee 65157
that was not manifestly outside the scope of the employment or 65158
official duties of the director, officer, or employee or with 65159
malicious purpose, in bad faith, or in a wanton or reckless 65160
manner;65161

       (6) Make, execute, and deliver contracts, conveyances, and 65162
other instruments necessary to the exercise and discharge of the 65163
powers and duties of the authority;65164

       (7) Promote, advertise, and publicize the Ohio college 65165
savings program and the variable college savings program;65166

       (8) Adopt rules under section 111.15 of the Revised Code for 65167
the implementation of the Ohio college savings program;65168

       (9) Contract, for the provision of all or part of the 65169
services necessary for the management and operation of the Ohio 65170
college savings program and the variable college savings program, 65171
with a bank, trust company, savings and loan association, 65172
insurance company, or licensed dealer in securities if the bank, 65173
company, association, or dealer is authorized to do business in 65174
this state and information about the contract is filed with65175
approved by the controlling board pursuant to division (D)(6) of 65176
section 127.16 of the Revised Code; provided, however, that any65177
funds of the Ohio college savings program and the variable college 65178
savings program that are not needed for immediate use shall be 65179
deposited by the treasurer of state in the same manner provided 65180
under Chapter 135. of the Revised Code for public moneys of the 65181
state. All interest earned on those deposits shall be credited to 65182
the Ohio college savings program or the variable college savings 65183
program, as applicable.65184

       (10) Contract for other services, or for goods, needed by the 65185
authority in the conduct of its business, including but not 65186
limited to credit card services;65187

       (11) Employ an executive director and other personnel as 65188
necessary to carry out its responsibilities under this chapter, 65189
and fix the compensation of these persons. All employees of the 65190
authority shall be in the unclassified civil service and shall be 65191
eligible for membership in the public employees retirement system. 65192
In the hiring of the executive director, the Ohio tuition trust 65193
authority shall obtain the advice and consent of the Ohio tuition 65194
trust board created in section 3334.03 of the Revised Code, 65195
provided that the executive director shall not be hired unless a 65196
majority of the board votes in favor of the hiring. In addition, 65197
the board may remove the executive director at any time subject to 65198
the advice and consent of the chancellor of the Ohio board of 65199
regents.65200

       (12) Contract with financial consultants, actuaries, 65201
auditors, and other consultants as necessary to carry out its 65202
responsibilities under this chapter;65203

       (13) Enter into agreements with any agency of the state or 65204
its political subdivisions or with private employers under which 65205
an employee may agree to have a designated amount deducted in each 65206
payroll period from the wages or salary due the employee for the 65207
purpose of purchasing tuition units pursuant to a tuition payment 65208
contract or making contributions pursuant to a variable college 65209
savings program contract;65210

       (14) Enter into an agreement with the treasurer of state 65211
under which the treasurer of state will receive, and credit to the 65212
Ohio tuition trust fund or variable college savings program fund, 65213
from any bank or savings and loan association authorized to do 65214
business in this state, amounts that a depositor of the bank or 65215
association authorizes the bank or association to withdraw 65216
periodically from the depositor's account for the purpose of 65217
purchasing tuition units pursuant to a tuition payment contract or 65218
making contributions pursuant to a variable college savings 65219
program contract;65220

       (15) Solicit and accept gifts, grants, and loans from any 65221
person or governmental agency and participate in any governmental 65222
program;65223

       (16) Impose limits on the number of units which may be 65224
purchased on behalf of or assigned or awarded to any beneficiary 65225
and on the total amount of contributions that may be made on 65226
behalf of a beneficiary;65227

       (17) Impose restrictions on the substitution of another 65228
individual for the original beneficiary under the Ohio college 65229
savings program;65230

       (18) Impose a limit on the age of a beneficiary, above which 65231
tuition units may not be purchased on behalf of that beneficiary;65232

       (19) Enter into a cooperative agreement with the treasurer of 65233
state to provide for the direct disbursement of payments under 65234
tuition payment or variable college savings program contracts;65235

       (20) Determine the other higher education expenses for which 65236
tuition units or contributions may be used;65237

       (21) Terminate any tuition payment or variable college 65238
savings program contract if no purchases or contributions are made 65239
for a period of three years or more and there are fewer than a 65240
total of five tuition units or less than a dollar amount set by 65241
rule on account, provided that notice of a possible termination 65242
shall be provided in advance, explaining any options to prevent 65243
termination, and a reasonable amount of time shall be provided 65244
within which to act to prevent a termination;65245

       (22) Maintain a separate account for each tuition payment or 65246
variable college savings program contract;65247

       (23) Perform all acts necessary and proper to carry out the 65248
duties and responsibilities of the authority pursuant to this 65249
chapter.65250

       (B) The authority shall adopt rules under section 111.15 of 65251
the Revised Code for the implementation and administration of the 65252
variable college savings program. The rules shall provide 65253
taxpayers with the maximum tax advantages and flexibility 65254
consistent with section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code and 65255
regulations adopted thereunder with regard to disposition of 65256
contributions and earnings, designation of beneficiaries, and 65257
rollover of account assets to other programs.65258

       (C) Except as otherwise specified in this chapter, the 65259
provisions of Chapters 123., 125., and 4117. of the Revised Code 65260
shall not apply to the authority. The department of administrative 65261
services shall, upon the request of the authority, act as the 65262
authority's agent for the purchase of equipment, supplies, 65263
insurance, or services, or the performance of administrative 65264
services pursuant to Chapter 125. of the Revised Code.65265

       Sec. 3335.35.  There is hereby created the "Ohio cooperative65266
OSU extension service fund," which shall be under the custody and 65267
control of the board of trustees of the Ohio state university and 65268
shall consist of all moneys appropriated, given, granted, or 65269
bequeathed to the university for the use of the Ohio cooperative65270
OSU extension service by the United States, this state, any 65271
political subdivision of this state, or any person. The board 65272
shall have responsibility for expenditure of all moneys in the 65273
fund in accordance with state and federal law and memoranda of 65274
agreement between the university and the United States department 65275
of agriculture.65276

       Sec. 3335.36.  The board of trustees of the Ohio state 65277
university may employ such employees as it considers appropriate 65278
for the conduct of educational programs of the Ohio cooperative65279
OSU extension service and may provide for the payment from the 65280
Ohio cooperativeOSU extension service fund created by section 65281
3335.35 of the Revised Code of reasonable compensation to such 65282
employees and of reasonable expenses incurred by them in the 65283
discharge of their duties, including expenses of travel and of 65284
maintaining, equipping, and supplying their offices.65285

       The employees shall cooperate with the department of 65286
agriculture, the Ohio agricultural research and development 65287
center, the department of education, and the United States 65288
department of agriculture, for the purpose of making available the 65289
educational materials of theOSU extension service. SuchThe65290
employees shall represent the university and shall conduct 65291
educational activities related to agriculture, natural resources,65292
home economicscommunity development, family livingand consumer 65293
sciences, and 4-H programs for the citizens of this state through 65294
personal instruction, bulletins, practical demonstrations, mass 65295
media, and otherwise, subject to such rules as may be prescribed 65296
by the board of trustees of the university. SuchThe employees 65297
shall have offices provided by the county or other political 65298
subdivision in which they serve in which bulletins and other 65299
educational materials of value to the people may be consulted and 65300
through which the employees may be reached.65301

       The board of trustees of the Ohio state university may hire 65302
or use employees of the Ohio cooperativeOSU extension service to 65303
carry out the functions and duties of a director of economic 65304
development under division (B) of section 307.07 of the Revised 65305
Code pursuant to any agreement with a county under division (A)(2) 65306
of section 307.07 of the Revised Code.65307

       Sec. 3335.37.  The board of county commissioners of any 65308
county may levy a tax, within the limitations prescribed by law, 65309
and appropriate money from the proceeds thereof or from the 65310
general fund of the county to be paid to the Ohio state university 65311
to the credit of the Ohio cooperativeOSU extension service fund 65312
created by section 3335.35 of the Revised Code and expended for 65313
the purposes prescribed in section 3335.36 of the Revised Code for 65314
the benefit of the citizens of suchthat county. Any money paid 65315
into the fund under this section that aggregates more than ten per 65316
cent of the county appropriation in the preceding year and that 65317
remains unexpended for two years from the time of suchthe payment 65318
shall be returned to the county from which it came unless the 65319
board of county commissioners determines by resolution to 65320
contribute it to the Ohio cooperativeOSU extension service for 65321
general purposes.65322

       Sec. 3335.38.  The board of trustees of the Ohio state 65323
university shall establish a farm financial management institute 65324
in the Ohio cooperativeOSU extension service to train interested 65325
and qualified persons to assist farmers needing help with farm 65326
financial management problems.65327

       Participation shall be open to all interested persons, but 65328
the following persons shall be given priority as to enrollment: 65329
employees or representatives of banks and other farm credit 65330
agencies, agricultural teachers, and faculty and employees of the 65331
Ohio state university and the Ohio cooperativeOSU extension 65332
service who agree to assist Ohio farmers in completing and 65333
understanding the coordinated financial statement and other 65334
subjects. A fee may be charged participants, as determined by the65335
OSU extension service, but may be waived for those participants 65336
granted priority status at enrollment.65337

       Sec. 3304.23.        Sec. 3335.60.  (A) There is hereby created in the65338
rehabilitation services commissionOhio state university college 65339
of medicine a brain injury program consisting of a program 65340
director and at least one support staff person.65341

       (B) To the extent that funds are available, the brain injury 65342
program may do the following:65343

       (1) Identify existing services in this state to assist 65344
survivors and families of survivors of brain injury;65345

       (2) Promote the coordination of services for survivors and 65346
families of survivors of brain injury;65347

       (3) Explore options for delivery of services to survivors and 65348
families of survivors of brain injury;65349

       (4) Explore the establishment of a traumatic brain injury 65350
incidence reporting system to collect information on the incidence 65351
and character of traumatic brain injury in this state;65352

       (5) Promote practices that will reduce the incidence of brain 65353
injury;65354

       (6) Develop training programs on dealing with brain injury 65355
and the special needs of survivors of brain injury;65356

       (7) Identify sources of available funds for services for 65357
survivors and families of survivors of brain injury;65358

       (8) Explore options for the delivery of case management 65359
services to residents of this state who are survivors of brain 65360
injury;65361

       (9) Provide assistance to assure that services for survivors 65362
and families of survivors of brain injury are all of the 65363
following:65364

       (a) Designed to enhance the survivor's ability to lead an 65365
independent and productive life;65366

       (b) Available within close proximity of the survivor's home;65367

       (c) Provided in the least restrictive environment;65368

       (d) Appropriate to the unique needs of the survivor.65369

       (C) The staff of the brain injury program shall prepare a 65370
biennial report on the incidence of brain injury in this state65371
that. The report shall be submitted to the administrator of the 65372
rehabilitation services commission on or before December 15, 1992,65373
completed not later than two years after the effective date of 65374
this amendment and every two years thereafter. A copy of the 65375
report shall beand submitted to the brain injury advisory 65376
committee created under section 3304.2313335.61 of the Revised 65377
Code.65378

       Sec. 3304.231.        Sec. 3335.61.  There is hereby created a brain 65379
injury advisory committee, which shall advise the administrator of 65380
the rehabilitation services commission and the brain injury 65381
program with regard to unmet needs of survivors of brain injury, 65382
development of programs for survivors and their families, 65383
establishment of training programs for health care professionals, 65384
and any other matter within the province of the brain injury 65385
program. The committee shall consist of not fewer than twenty65386
nineteen and not more than twenty-twotwenty-one members as 65387
follows:65388

       (A) Not fewer than ten and not more than twelve members 65389
appointed by the administrator of the rehabilitation services 65390
commissiondean of the college of medicine of the Ohio state 65391
university, including all of the following: a survivor of brain 65392
injury, a relative of a survivor of brain injury, a licensed 65393
physician recommended by the Ohio chapter of the American college 65394
of emergency physicians, a licensed physician recommended by the 65395
Ohio state medical association, one other health care 65396
professional, a rehabilitation professional, an individual who 65397
represents the brain injury association of Ohio, and not fewer 65398
than three nor more than five individuals who shall represent the 65399
public;65400

       (B) The directors of the departments of health, alcohol and 65401
drug addiction servicesmental health and drug addiction services, 65402
developmental disabilities, mental health, job and family 65403
services, aging, and public safety; the medicaid director; the 65404
administrator of workers' compensation; the superintendent of 65405
public instruction; and the administratorexecutive director of 65406
the rehabilitation services commissionopportunities for Ohioans 65407
with disabilities agency. Any of the officials specified in this 65408
division may designate an individual to serve in the official's 65409
place as a member of the committee.65410

        Terms of office of the appointed members shall be two years. 65411
Members may be reappointed. Vacancies shall be filled in the 65412
manner provided for original appointments. Any member appointed to 65413
fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration date of the term 65414
for which the member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office 65415
as a member for the remainder of that term.65416

       Members of the committee shall serve without compensation, 65417
but shall be reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses incurred 65418
in the performance of their duties.65419

       Sec. 3337.16.  (A) The president of Ohio university may 65420
create an advisory committee to do both of the following:65421

       (1) Review the comprehensive land use plans and any updates 65422
of those land use plans prepared by Ohio university for the 65423
property conveyed to the university in Sub. H.B. 576 of the 117th 65424
general assembly;65425

       (2) Comment on and periodically review the progress on the 65426
implementation of the comprehensive land use plans described in 65427
division (A)(1) of this section.65428

       (B) The advisory committee created under division (A) of this 65429
section shall consist of the following members:65430

       (1) The president of Ohio university or the president's 65431
designee, who shall serve as chairperson of the advisory 65432
committee;65433

       (2) The mayor of the city of Athens or the mayor's designee;65434

       (3) The following members appointed by the president of Ohio 65435
university:65436

       (a) One Athens county commissioner;65437

       (b) One to three individuals who reside in Athens county and 65438
have special knowledge and experience in land use planning, 65439
preservation, or economic development.65440

       Vacancies on the committee shall be filled in the same manner 65441
as the original appointments.65442

       Sec. 3345.05.  (A) All registration fees, nonresident tuition 65443
fees, academic fees for the support of off-campus instruction, 65444
laboratory and course fees when so assessed and collected, student 65445
health fees for the support of a student health service, all other 65446
fees, deposits, charges, receipts, and income from all or part of 65447
the students, all subsidy or other payments from state 65448
appropriations, and all other fees, deposits, charges, receipts, 65449
income, and revenue received by each state institution of higher 65450
education, the Ohio state university hospitals and their ancillary 65451
facilities, the Ohio agricultural research and development center, 65452
and the Ohio state university cooperativeOSU extension service65453
shall be held and administered by the respective boards of 65454
trustees of the state institution of higher education; provided, 65455
that such fees, deposits, charges, receipts, income and revenue, 65456
to the extent required by resolutions, trust agreements, 65457
indentures, leases, and agreements adopted, made, or entered into 65458
under Chapter 154. or section 3345.07, 3345.11, or 3345.12 of the 65459
Revised Code, shall be held, administered, transferred, and 65460
applied in accordance therewith.65461

       (B) The Ohio board of regents shall require annual reporting 65462
by the Ohio agricultural research and development center and by 65463
each university and college receiving state aid in such form and 65464
detail as determined by the board in consultation with such 65465
center, universities and colleges, and the director of budget and 65466
management.65467

       (C) Notwithstanding any provision of the Revised Code to the 65468
contrary, the title to investments made by the board of trustees 65469
of a state institution of higher education with funds derived from 65470
any of the sources described in division (A) of this section shall 65471
not be vested in the state or the political subdivision but shall 65472
be held in trust by the board. Such investments shall be made 65473
pursuant to an investment policy adopted by the board in public 65474
session that requires all fiduciaries to discharge their duties 65475
with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence under the 65476
circumstances then prevailing that a prudent person acting in like 65477
capacity and familiar with such matters would use in the conduct 65478
of an enterprise of a like character and with like aims. The 65479
policy also shall require at least the following:65480

       (1) A stipulation that investment of at least twenty-five per 65481
cent of the average amount of the investment portfolio over the 65482
course of the previous fiscal year be invested in securities of 65483
the United States government or of its agencies or 65484
instrumentalities, the treasurer of state's pooled investment 65485
program, obligations of this state or any political subdivision of 65486
this state, certificates of deposit of any national bank located 65487
in this state, written repurchase agreements with any eligible 65488
Ohio financial institution that is a member of the federal reserve 65489
system or federal home loan bank, money market funds, or bankers 65490
acceptances maturing in two hundred seventy days or less which are 65491
eligible for purchase by the federal reserve system, as a reserve;65492

       (2) Eligible funds above those that meet the conditions of 65493
division (C)(1) of this section may be pooled with other 65494
institutional funds and invested in accordance with section 65495
1715.52 of the Revised Code.65496

        (3) The establishment of an investment committee.65497

       (D) The investment committee established under division 65498
(C)(3) of this section shall meet at least quarterly. The 65499
committee shall review and recommend revisions to the board's 65500
investment policy and shall advise the board on its investments 65501
made under division (C) of this section in an effort to assist it 65502
in meeting its obligations as a fiduciary as described in division 65503
(C) of this section. The committee shall be authorized to retain 65504
the services of an investment advisor who meets both of the 65505
following qualifications:65506

       (1) The advisor is either:65507

       (a) Licensed by the division of securities under section 65508
1707.141 of the Revised Code;65509

       (b) Registered with the securities and exchange commission.65510

       (2) The advisor either:65511

       (a) Has experience in the management of investments of public 65512
funds, especially in the investment of state-government investment 65513
portfolios;65514

       (b) Is an eligible institution referenced in section 135.03 65515
of the Revised Code.65516

       (E) As used in this section, "state institution of higher 65517
education" means a state institution of higher education as 65518
defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.65519

       Sec. 3345.06.  (A) Subject to divisions (B) and (C) of this 65520
section, a graduate of the twelfth grade shall be entitled to 65521
admission without examination to any college or university which 65522
is supported wholly or in part by the state, but for unconditional 65523
admission may be required to complete such units not included in 65524
the graduate's high school course as may be prescribed, not less 65525
than two years prior to the graduate's entrance, by the faculty of 65526
the institution.65527

       (B) Beginning with the 2014-2015 academic year, each state 65528
university listed in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, except 65529
for Central state university, Shawnee state university, and 65530
Youngstown state university, shall permit a resident of this state 65531
who entered ninth grade for the first time on or after July 1, 65532
2010, to begin undergraduate coursework at the university only if 65533
the person has successfully completed the Ohio core curriculum for 65534
high school graduation prescribed in division (C) of section 65535
3313.603 of the Revised Code, unless one of the following applies:65536

       (1) The person has earned at least ten semester hours, or the 65537
equivalent, at a community college, state community college, 65538
university branch, technical college, or another post-secondary 65539
institution except a state university to which division (B) of 65540
this section applies, in courses that are college-credit-bearing 65541
and may be applied toward the requirements for a degree. The 65542
university shall grant credit for successful completion of those 65543
courses pursuant to any applicable articulation and transfer 65544
policy of the Ohio board of regents or any agreements the 65545
university has entered into in accordance with policies and 65546
procedures adopted under section 3333.16, 3313.161, or 3333.162 of 65547
the Revised Code. The university may count college credit that the 65548
student earned while in high school through the post-secondary 65549
enrollment options program under Chapter 3365. of the Revised 65550
Code, or through other dual enrollment programs, toward the 65551
requirements of division (B)(1) of this section if the credit may 65552
be applied toward a degree.65553

       (2) The person qualified to graduate from high school under 65554
division (D) or (F) of section 3313.603 of the Revised Code and 65555
has successfully completed the topics or courses that the person 65556
lacked to graduate under division (C) of that section at any 65557
post-secondary institution or at a summer program at the state 65558
university. A state university may admit a person for enrollment 65559
contingent upon completion of such topics or courses or summer 65560
program.65561

       (3) The person met the high school graduation requirements by 65562
successfully completing the person's individualized education 65563
program developed under section 3323.08 of the Revised Code.65564

       (3)(4) The person is receiving or has completed the final 65565
year of instruction at home as authorized under section 3321.04 of 65566
the Revised Code, or has graduated from a nonchartered, nonpublic 65567
school in Ohio, and demonstrates mastery of the academic content 65568
and skills in reading, writing, and mathematics needed to 65569
successfully complete introductory level coursework at an 65570
institution of higher education and to avoid remedial coursework.65571

       (4)(5) The person is a high school student participating in 65572
the post-secondary enrollment options program under Chapter 3365. 65573
of the Revised Code or another dual enrollment program.65574

       (C) A state university subject to division (B) of this 65575
section may delay admission for or admit conditionally an 65576
undergraduate student who has successfully completed the Ohio core 65577
curriculum if the university determines the student requires 65578
academic remedial or developmental coursework. The university may 65579
delay admission pending, or make admission conditional upon, the 65580
student's successful completion of the academic remedial or 65581
developmental coursework at a university branch, community 65582
college, state community college, or technical college.65583

       (D) This section does not deny the right of a college of law, 65584
medicine, or other specialized education to require college 65585
training for admission, or the right of a department of music or 65586
other art to require particular preliminary training or talent.65587

       Sec. 3345.12.  (A) As used in this section and sections 65588
3345.07 and 3345.11 of the Revised Code, in other sections of the 65589
Revised Code that make reference to this section unless the 65590
context does not permit, and in related bond proceedings unless 65591
otherwise expressly provided:65592

       (1) "State university or college" means each of the state 65593
universities identified in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code 65594
and the northeast Ohio medical university, and includes its board 65595
of trustees.65596

       (2) "Institution of higher education" or "institution" means 65597
a state university or college, or a community college district, 65598
technical college district, university branch district, or state 65599
community college, and includes the applicable board of trustees 65600
or, in the case of a university branch district, any other 65601
managing authority.65602

       (3) "Housing and dining facilities" means buildings, 65603
structures, and other improvements, and equipment, real estate, 65604
and interests in real estate therefor, to be used for or in 65605
connection with dormitories or other living quarters and 65606
accommodations, or related dining halls or other food service and 65607
preparation facilities, for students, members of the faculty, 65608
officers, or employees of the institution of higher education, and 65609
their spouses and families.65610

       (4) "Auxiliary facilities" means buildings, structures, and 65611
other improvements, and equipment, real estate, and interests in 65612
real estate therefor, to be used for or in connection with student 65613
activity or student service facilities, housing and dining 65614
facilities, dining halls, and other food service and preparation 65615
facilities, vehicular parking facilities, bookstores, athletic and 65616
recreational facilities, faculty centers, auditoriums, assembly 65617
and exhibition halls, hospitals, infirmaries and other medical and 65618
health facilities, research, and continuing education facilities.65619

       (5) "Education facilities" means buildings, structures, and 65620
other improvements, and equipment, real estate, and interests in 65621
real estate therefor, to be used for or in connection with, 65622
classrooms or other instructional facilities, libraries, 65623
administrative and office facilities, and other facilities, other 65624
than auxiliary facilities, to be used directly or indirectly for 65625
or in connection with the conduct of the institution of higher 65626
education.65627

       (6) "Facilities" means housing and dining facilities, 65628
auxiliary facilities, or education facilities, and includes any 65629
one, part of, or any combination of such facilities, and further 65630
includes site improvements, utilities, machinery, furnishings, and 65631
any separate or connected buildings, structures, improvements, 65632
sites, open space and green space areas, utilities or equipment to 65633
be used in, or in connection with the operation or maintenance of, 65634
or supplementing or otherwise related to the services or 65635
facilities to be provided by, such facilities.65636

       (7) "Obligations" means bonds or notes or other evidences of 65637
obligation, including interest coupons pertaining thereto, 65638
authorized to be issued under this section or section 3345.07, 65639
3345.11, 3354.121, 3355.091, 3357.112, or 3358.10 of the Revised 65640
Code.65641

       (8) "Bond service charges" means principal, including any 65642
mandatory sinking fund or redemption requirements for the 65643
retirement of obligations or assurances, interest, or interest 65644
equivalent and other accreted amounts, and any call premium 65645
required to be paid on obligations or assurances.65646

       (9) "Bond proceedings" means the resolutions, trust 65647
agreement, indenture, and other agreements and credit enhancement 65648
facilities, and amendments and supplements to the foregoing, or 65649
any one or more or combination thereof, authorizing, awarding, or 65650
providing for the terms and conditions applicable to, or providing 65651
for the security or liquidity of, obligations or assurances, and 65652
the provisions contained in those obligations or assurances.65653

       (10) "Costs of facilities" means the costs of acquiring, 65654
constructing, reconstructing, rehabilitating, remodeling, 65655
renovating, enlarging, improving, equipping, or furnishing 65656
facilities, and the financing thereof, including the cost of 65657
clearance and preparation of the site and of any land to be used 65658
in connection with facilities, the cost of any indemnity and 65659
surety bonds and premiums on insurance, all related direct 65660
administrative expenses and allocable portions of direct costs of 65661
the institution of higher education or state agency, cost of 65662
engineering, architectural services, design, plans, specifications 65663
and surveys, estimates of cost, legal fees, fees and expenses of 65664
trustees, depositories, bond registrars, and paying agents for the 65665
obligations, cost of issuance of the obligations and financing 65666
costs and fees and expenses of financial advisers and consultants 65667
in connection therewith, interest on the obligations from the date 65668
thereof to the time when interest is to be covered by available 65669
receipts or other sources other than proceeds of the obligations, 65670
amounts necessary to establish reserves as required by the bond 65671
proceedings, costs of audits, the reimbursements of all moneys 65672
advanced or applied by or borrowed from the institution or others, 65673
from whatever source provided, including any temporary advances 65674
from state appropriations, for the payment of any item or items of 65675
cost of facilities, and all other expenses necessary or incident 65676
to planning or determining feasibility or practicability with 65677
respect to facilities, and such other expenses as may be necessary 65678
or incident to the acquisition, construction, reconstruction, 65679
rehabilitation, remodeling, renovation, enlargement, improvement, 65680
equipment, and furnishing of facilities, the financing thereof and 65681
the placing of them in use and operation, including any one, part 65682
of, or combination of such classes of costs and expenses.65683

       (11) "Available receipts" means all moneys received by the 65684
institution of higher education, including income, revenues, and 65685
receipts from the operation, ownership, or control of facilities 65686
or entrepreneurial projects, grants, gifts, donations, and pledges 65687
and receipts therefrom, receipts from fees and charges, and the 65688
proceeds of the sale of obligations or assurances, including 65689
proceeds of obligations or assurances issued to refund obligations 65690
or assurances previously issued, but excluding any special fee, 65691
and receipts therefrom, charged pursuant to division (D) of 65692
section 154.21 of the Revised Code.65693

       (12) "Credit enhancement facilities" has the meaning given in 65694
division (H) of section 133.01 of the Revised Code.65695

       (13) "Financing costs" has the meaning given in division (K) 65696
of section 133.01 of the Revised Code.65697

       (14) "Interest" or "interest equivalent" has the meaning 65698
given in division (R) of section 133.01 of the Revised Code.65699

       (15) "Assurances" means bonds, notes, or other evidence of 65700
indebtedness, including interest coupons pertaining thereto, 65701
authorized to be issued under section 3345.36 of the Revised Code.65702

       (16) "Entrepreneurial project" has the same meaning as in 65703
section 3345.36 of the Revised Code.65704

        (17) "Costs of entrepreneurial projects" means any costs 65705
related to the establishment or development of entrepreneurial 65706
projects pursuant to a resolution adopted under section 3345.36 of 65707
the Revised Code.65708

       (B) Obligations issued under section 3345.07 or 3345.11 of 65709
the Revised Code by a state university or college shall be 65710
authorized by resolution of its board of trustees. Obligations 65711
issued by any other institution of higher education shall be 65712
authorized by resolution of its board of trustees, or managing 65713
directors in the case of certain university branch districts, as 65714
applicable. Sections 9.96 and 9.98 to 9.983 of the Revised Code 65715
apply to obligations and assurances. Obligations and assurances 65716
may be issued to pay costs of facilities or entrepreneurial 65717
projects even if the institution anticipates the possibility of a 65718
future state appropriation to pay all or a portion of such costs.65719

       (C) Obligations and assurances shall be secured by a pledge 65720
of and lien on all or such part of the available receipts of the 65721
institution of higher education as it provides for in the bond 65722
proceedings, excluding moneys raised by taxation and state 65723
appropriations except as permitted by section 3333.903333.59 of 65724
the Revised Code. Such pledge and lien may be made prior to all 65725
other expenses, claims, or payments, excepting any pledge of such 65726
available receipts previously made to the contrary and except as 65727
provided by any existing restrictions on the use thereof, or such 65728
pledge and lien may be made subordinate to such other expenses, 65729
claims, or payments, as provided in the bond proceedings. 65730
Obligations or assurances may be additionally secured by covenants 65731
of the institution to make, fix, adjust, collect, and apply such 65732
charges, rates, fees, rentals, and other items of available 65733
receipts as will produce pledged available receipts sufficient to 65734
meet bond service charges, reserve, and other requirements 65735
provided for in the bond proceedings. Notwithstanding this and any 65736
other sections of the Revised Code, the holders or owners of the 65737
obligations or assurances shall not be given the right and shall 65738
have no right to have excises or taxes levied by the general 65739
assembly for the payment of bond service charges thereon, and each 65740
such obligation or assurance shall bear on its face a statement to 65741
that effect and to the effect that the right to such payment is 65742
limited to the available receipts and special funds pledged to 65743
such purpose under the bond proceedings.65744

       All pledged available receipts and funds and the proceeds of 65745
obligations or assurances are trust funds and, subject to the 65746
provisions of this section and the applicable bond proceedings, 65747
shall be held, deposited, invested, reinvested, disbursed, 65748
applied, and used to such extent, in such manner, at such times, 65749
and for such purposes, as are provided in the bond proceedings.65750

       (D) The bond proceedings for obligations or assurances shall 65751
provide for the purpose thereof and the principal amount or 65752
maximum principal amount, and provide for or authorize the manner 65753
of determining the principal maturity or maturities, the sale 65754
price including any permitted discount, the interest rate or 65755
rates, which may be a variable rate or rates, or the maximum 65756
interest rate, the date of the obligations or assurances and the 65757
date or dates of payment of interest thereon, their denominations, 65758
the manner of sale thereof, and the establishment within or 65759
without the state of a place or places of payment of bond service 65760
charges. The bond proceedings also shall provide for a pledge of 65761
and lien on available receipts of the institution of higher 65762
education as provided in division (C) of this section, and a 65763
pledge of and lien on such fund or funds provided in the bond 65764
proceedings arising from available receipts, which pledges and 65765
liens may provide for parity with obligations or assurances 65766
theretofore or thereafter issued by the institution. The available 65767
receipts so pledged and thereafter received by the institution and 65768
the funds so pledged are immediately subject to the lien of such 65769
pledge without any physical delivery thereof or further act, and 65770
the lien of any such pledge is valid and binding against all 65771
parties having claims of any kind against the institution, 65772
irrespective of whether such parties have notice thereof, and 65773
shall create a perfected security interest for all purposes of 65774
Chapter 1309. of the Revised Code, without the necessity for 65775
separation or delivery of funds or for the filing or recording of 65776
the bond proceedings by which such pledge is created or any 65777
certificate, statement, or other document with respect thereto; 65778
and the pledge of such available receipts and funds shall be 65779
effective and the money therefrom and thereof may be applied to 65780
the purposes for which pledged without necessity for any act of 65781
appropriation.65782

       (E) The bond proceedings may contain additional provisions 65783
customary or appropriate to the financing or to the obligations or 65784
assurances or to particular obligations and assurances, including:65785

       (1) The acquisition, construction, reconstruction, equipment, 65786
furnishing, improvement, operation, alteration, enlargement, 65787
maintenance, insurance, and repair of facilities or 65788
entrepreneurial projects, and the duties of the institution of 65789
higher education with reference thereto;65790

       (2) The terms of the obligations or assurances, including 65791
provisions for their redemption prior to maturity at the option of 65792
the institution of higher education at such price or prices and 65793
under such terms and conditions as are provided in the bond 65794
proceedings;65795

       (3) Limitations on the purposes to which the proceeds of the 65796
obligations or assurances may be applied;65797

       (4) The rates or rentals or other charges for the use of or 65798
right to use the facilities or entrepreneurial projects financed 65799
by the obligations or assurances, or other properties the revenues 65800
or receipts from which are pledged to the obligations or 65801
assurances, and rules for assuring any applicable use and 65802
occupancy thereof, including limitations upon the right to modify 65803
such rates, rentals, other charges, or regulations;65804

       (5) The use and expenditure of the pledged available receipts 65805
in such manner and to such extent as shall be determined, which 65806
may include provision for the payment of the expenses of 65807
operation, maintenance, and repair of facilities or 65808
entrepreneurial projects so that such expenses, or part thereof, 65809
shall be paid or provided as a charge prior or subsequent to the 65810
payment of bond service charges and any other payments required to 65811
be made by the bond proceedings;65812

       (6) Limitations on the issuance of additional obligations or 65813
assurances;65814

       (7) The terms of any trust agreement or indenture securing 65815
the obligations or assurances or under which the same may be 65816
issued;65817

       (8) The deposit, investment, and application of funds, and 65818
the safeguarding of funds on hand or on deposit without regard to 65819
Chapter 131. or 135. of the Revised Code, and any bank or trust 65820
company or other financial institution that acts as depository of 65821
any moneys under the bond proceedings shall furnish such 65822
indemnifying bonds or pledge such securities as required by the 65823
bond proceedings or otherwise by the institution of higher 65824
education;65825

       (9) The binding effect of any or every provision of the bond 65826
proceedings upon such officer, board, commission, authority, 65827
agency, department, or other person or body as may from time to 65828
time have the authority under law to take such actions as may be 65829
necessary to perform all or any part of the duty required by such 65830
provision;65831

       (10) Any provision that may be made in a trust agreement or 65832
indenture;65833

       (11) Any other or additional agreements with respect to the 65834
facilities of the institution of higher education or its 65835
entrepreneurial projects, their operation, the available receipts 65836
and funds pledged, and insurance of facilities or entrepreneurial 65837
projects and of the institution, its officers and employees.65838

       (F) Such obligations or assurances may have the seal of the 65839
institution of higher education or a facsimile thereof affixed 65840
thereto or printed thereon and shall be executed by such officers 65841
as are designated in the bond proceedings, which execution may be 65842
by facsimile signatures. Any obligations or assurances may be 65843
executed by an officer who, on the date of execution, is the 65844
proper officer although on the date of such obligations or 65845
assurances such person was not the proper officer. In case any 65846
officer whose signature or a facsimile of whose signature appears 65847
on any such obligation or assurance ceases to be such officer 65848
before delivery thereof, such signature or facsimile is 65849
nevertheless valid and sufficient for all purposes as if the 65850
person had remained such officer until such delivery; and in case 65851
the seal of the institution has been changed after a facsimile of 65852
the seal has been imprinted on such obligations or assurances, 65853
such facsimile seal continues to be sufficient as to such 65854
obligations or assurances and obligations or assurances issued in 65855
substitution or exchange therefor.65856

       (G) All such obligations or assurances are negotiable 65857
instruments and securities under Chapter 1308. of the Revised 65858
Code, subject to the provisions of the bond proceedings as to 65859
registration. The obligations or assurances may be issued in 65860
coupon or in registered form, or both. Provision may be made for 65861
the registration of any obligations or assurances with coupons 65862
attached thereto as to principal alone or as to both principal and 65863
interest, their exchange for obligations or assurances so 65864
registered, and for the conversion or reconversion into 65865
obligations or assurances with coupons attached thereto of any 65866
obligations or assurances registered as to both principal and 65867
interest, and for reasonable charges for such registration, 65868
exchange, conversion, and reconversion.65869

       (H) Pending preparation of definitive obligations or 65870
assurances, the institution of higher education may issue interim 65871
receipts or certificates which shall be exchanged for such 65872
definitive obligations or assurances.65873

       (I) Such obligations or assurances may be secured 65874
additionally by a trust agreement or indenture between the 65875
institution of higher education and a corporate trustee, which may 65876
be any trust company or bank having the powers of a trust company 65877
within or without this state but authorized to exercise trust 65878
powers within this state. Any such agreement or indenture may 65879
contain the resolution authorizing the issuance of the obligations 65880
or assurances, any provisions that may be contained in the bond 65881
proceedings as authorized by this section, and other provisions 65882
which are customary or appropriate in an agreement or indenture of 65883
such type, including:65884

       (1) Maintenance of each pledge, trust agreement, and 65885
indenture, or other instrument comprising part of the bond 65886
proceedings until the institution of higher education has fully 65887
paid the bond service charges on the obligations or assurances 65888
secured thereby, or provision therefor has been made;65889

       (2) In the event of default in any payments required to be 65890
made by the bond proceedings, or any other agreement of the 65891
institution of higher education made as a part of the contract 65892
under which the obligations or assurances were issued, enforcement 65893
of such payments or agreement by mandamus, the appointment of a 65894
receiver, suit in equity, action at law, or any combination of the 65895
foregoing;65896

       (3) The rights and remedies of the holders of obligations or 65897
assurances and of the trustee, and provisions for protecting and 65898
enforcing them, including limitations on rights of individual 65899
holders of obligations or assurances;65900

       (4) The replacement of any obligations or assurances that 65901
become mutilated or are destroyed, lost, or stolen;65902

       (5) Such other provisions as the trustee and the institution 65903
of higher education agree upon, including limitations, conditions, 65904
or qualifications relating to any of the foregoing.65905

       (J) Each duty of the institution of higher education and its 65906
officers or employees, undertaken pursuant to the bond proceedings 65907
or any related agreement or lease made under authority of law, is 65908
hereby established as a duty of such institution, and of each such 65909
officer or employee having authority to perform such duty, 65910
specially enjoined by law resulting from an office, trust, or 65911
station within the meaning of section 2731.01 of the Revised Code. 65912
The persons who are at the time the members of the board of 65913
trustees or the managing directors of the institution or its 65914
officers or employees are not liable in their personal capacities 65915
on such obligations or assurances, or lease, or other agreement of 65916
the institution.65917

       (K) The authority to issue obligations or assurances includes 65918
authority to:65919

       (1) Issue obligations or assurances in the form of bond 65920
anticipation notes and to renew them from time to time by the 65921
issuance of new notes. Such notes are payable solely from the 65922
available receipts and funds that may be pledged to the payment of 65923
such bonds, or from the proceeds of such bonds or renewal notes, 65924
or both, as the institution of higher education provides in its 65925
resolution authorizing such notes. Such notes may be additionally 65926
secured by covenants of the institution to the effect that it will 65927
do such or all things necessary for the issuance of such bonds or 65928
renewal notes in appropriate amount, and either exchange such 65929
bonds or renewal notes therefor or apply the proceeds thereof to 65930
the extent necessary, to make full payment of the bond service 65931
charges on such notes at the time or times contemplated, as 65932
provided in such resolution. Subject to the provisions of this 65933
division, all references to obligations or assurances in this 65934
section apply to such anticipation notes.65935

       (2) Issue obligations or assurances to refund, including 65936
funding and retirement of, obligations or assurances previously 65937
issued to pay costs of facilities or entrepreneurial projects. 65938
Such obligations or assurances may be issued in amounts sufficient 65939
for payment of the principal amount of the obligations or 65940
assurances to be so refunded, any redemption premiums thereon, 65941
principal maturities of any obligations or assurances maturing 65942
prior to the redemption of any other obligations or assurances on 65943
a parity therewith to be so refunded, interest accrued or to 65944
accrue to the maturity date or dates of redemption of such 65945
obligations or assurances, and any expenses incurred or to be 65946
incurred in connection with such refunding or the issuance of the 65947
obligations or assurances.65948

       (L) Obligations and assurances are lawful investments for 65949
banks, societies for savings, savings and loan associations, 65950
deposit guarantee associations, trust companies, trustees, 65951
fiduciaries, insurance companies, including domestic for life and 65952
domestic not for life, trustees or other officers having charge of 65953
sinking and bond retirement or other special funds of political 65954
subdivisions and taxing districts of this state, the commissioners 65955
of the sinking fund, the administrator of workers' compensation in 65956
accordance with the investment policy approved by the bureau of 65957
workers' compensation board of directors pursuant to section 65958
4121.12 of the Revised Code, the state teachers retirement system, 65959
the public employees retirement system, the school employees 65960
retirement system, and the Ohio police and fire pension fund, 65961
notwithstanding any other provisions of the Revised Code or rules 65962
adopted pursuant thereto by any state agency with respect to 65963
investments by them, and are also acceptable as security for the 65964
deposit of public moneys.65965

       (M) All facilities or entrepreneurial projects purchased, 65966
acquired, constructed, or owned by an institution of higher 65967
education, or financed in whole or in part by obligations or 65968
assurances issued by an institution, and used for the purposes of 65969
the institution or other publicly owned and controlled college or 65970
university, is public property used exclusively for a public 65971
purpose, and such property and the income therefrom is exempt from 65972
all taxation and assessment within this state, including ad 65973
valorem and excise taxes. The obligations or assurances, the 65974
transfer thereof, and the income therefrom, including any profit 65975
made on the sale thereof, are at all times free from taxation 65976
within the state. The transfer of tangible personal property by 65977
lease under authority of this section or section 3345.07, 3345.11, 65978
3345.36, 3354.121, 3355.091, 3357.112, or 3358.10 of the Revised 65979
Code is not a sale as used in Chapter 5739. of the Revised Code.65980

       (N) The authority granted by this section is cumulative with 65981
the authority granted to institutions of higher education under 65982
Chapter 154. of the Revised Code, and nothing in this section 65983
impairs or limits the authority granted by Chapter 154. of the 65984
Revised Code. In any lease, agreement, or commitment made by an 65985
institution of higher education under Chapter 154. of the Revised 65986
Code, it may agree to restrict or subordinate any pledge it may 65987
thereafter make under authority of this section.65988

       (O) Title to lands acquired under this section and sections 65989
3345.07 and 3345.11 of the Revised Code by a state university or 65990
college shall be taken in the name of the state.65991

       (P) Except where costs of facilities or entrepreneurial 65992
projects are to be paid in whole or in part from funds 65993
appropriated by the general assembly, section 125.81 of the 65994
Revised Code and the requirement for certification with respect 65995
thereto under section 153.04 of the Revised Code do not apply to 65996
such facilities or entrepreneurial projects.65997

       (Q) A state university or college may sell or lease lands or 65998
interests in land owned by it or by the state for its use, or 65999
facilities authorized to be acquired or constructed by it under 66000
section 3345.07 or 3345.11 of the Revised Code, to permit the 66001
purchasers or lessees thereof to acquire, construct, equip, 66002
furnish, reconstruct, alter, enlarge, remodel, renovate, 66003
rehabilitate, improve, maintain, repair, or maintain and operate 66004
thereon and to provide by lease or otherwise to such institution, 66005
facilities authorized in section 3345.07 or 3345.11 of the Revised 66006
Code or entrepreneurial projects authorized under section 3345.36 66007
of the Revised Code. Such land or interests therein shall be sold 66008
for such appraised value, or leased, and on such terms as the 66009
board of trustees determines. All deeds or other instruments 66010
relating to such sales or leases shall be executed by such officer 66011
of the state university or college as the board of trustees 66012
designates. The state university or college shall hold, invest, or 66013
use the proceeds of such sales or leases for the same purposes for 66014
which proceeds of borrowings may be used under sections 3345.07 66015
and 3345.11 of the Revised Code or, if the proceeds relate to the 66016
sale or lease of entrepreneurial projects, for purposes of section 66017
3345.36 of the Revised Code.66018

       (R) An institution of higher education may pledge available 66019
receipts, to the extent permitted by division (C) of this section 66020
with respect to obligations, to secure the payments to be made by 66021
it under any lease, lease with option to purchase, or 66022
lease-purchase agreement authorized under this section or section 66023
3345.07, 3345.11, 3345.36, 3354.121, 3355.091, 3357.112, or 66024
3358.10 of the Revised Code.66025

       Sec. 3345.48. (A) As used in this section:66026

        (1) "Cohort" means a group of students who will complete 66027
their bachelor's degree requirements and graduate from a state 66028
university at the same time. A cohort may include transfer 66029
students and other selected undergraduate student academic 66030
programs as determined by the board of trustees of a state 66031
university.66032

        (2) "Eligible student" means an undergraduate student who:66033

        (a) Is enrolled full-time in a bachelor's degree program at a 66034
state university;66035

        (b) Is a resident of this state, as defined by the chancellor 66036
of the Ohio board of regents under section 3333.31 of the Revised 66037
Code.66038

        (3) "State university" has the same meaning as in section 66039
3345.011 of the Revised Code.66040

        (B) The board of trustees of a state university may establish 66041
an undergraduate tuition guarantee program that allows eligible 66042
students in the same cohort to pay a fixed rate for general and 66043
instructional fees for four years. A board of trustees may include 66044
room and board and any additional fees in the program.66045

        If the board of trustees chooses to establish such a program, 66046
the board shall adopt rules for the program that include, but are 66047
not limited to, all of the following:66048

        (1) The number of credit hours required to earn an 66049
undergraduate degree in each major;66050

        (2) A guarantee that the general and instructional fees for 66051
each student in the cohort shall remain constant for four years so 66052
long as the student complies with the requirements of the program, 66053
except that, notwithstanding any law to the contrary, the board 66054
may increase the guaranteed amount by up to six per cent above 66055
what has been charged in the previous academic year one time for 66056
the first cohort enrolled under the tuition guarantee program. If 66057
the board of trustees determines that economic conditions or other 66058
circumstances require an increase for the first cohort of above 66059
six per cent, the board shall submit a request to increase the 66060
amount by a specified percentage to the chancellor. The 66061
chancellor, based on information the chancellor requires from the 66062
board of trustees, shall approve or disapprove such a request. 66063
Thereafter, the board of trustees may increase the guaranteed 66064
amount by up to the sum of the following above what has been 66065
charged in the previous academic year one time per subsequent 66066
cohort:66067

        (a) The average rate of inflation, as measured by the 66068
consumer price index prepared by the bureau of labor statistics of 66069
the United States department of labor (all urban consumers, all 66070
items), for the previous sixty-month period; and66071

        (b) The percentage amount the general assembly restrains 66072
increases on in-state undergraduate instructional and general fees 66073
for the applicable fiscal year. If the general assembly does not 66074
enact a limit on the increase of in-state undergraduate 66075
instructional and general fees, then no limit shall apply under 66076
this division for the cohort that first enrolls in any academic 66077
year for which the general assembly does not prescribe a limit.66078

        If, beginning with the academic year that starts four years 66079
after the effective date of this section, the board of trustees 66080
determines that the general and instructional fees charged under 66081
the tuition guarantee have fallen significantly lower than those 66082
of other state universities, the board of trustees may submit a 66083
request to increase the amount charged to a cohort by a specified 66084
percentage to the chancellor, who shall approve or disapprove such 66085
a request.66086

        (3) A benchmark by which the board sets annual increases in 66087
general and instructional fees. This benchmark and any subsequent 66088
change to the benchmark shall be subject to approval of the 66089
chancellor.66090

        (4) Eligibility requirements for students to participate in 66091
the program;66092

        (5) Student rights and privileges under the program;66093

        (6) Consequences to the university for students unable to 66094
complete a degree program within four years, as follows:66095

        (a) For a student who could not complete the program in four 66096
years due to a lack of available classes or space in classes 66097
provided by the university, the university shall provide the 66098
necessary course or courses for completion to the student free of 66099
charge.66100

        (b) For a student who could not complete the program in four 66101
years due to military service or other circumstances beyond a 66102
student's control, as determined by the board of trustees, the 66103
university shall provide the necessary course or courses for 66104
completion to the student at the student's initial cohort rate.66105

        (c) For a student who did not complete the program in four 66106
years for any other reason, as determined by the board of 66107
trustees, the university shall provide the necessary course or 66108
courses for completion to the student at a rate determined through 66109
a method established by the board under division (B)(7) of this 66110
section.66111

        (7) Guidelines for adjusting a student's annual charges if 66112
the student, due to circumstances under the student's control, is 66113
unable to complete a degree program within four years;66114

        (8) A requirement that the rules adopted under division (B) 66115
of this section be published or posted in the university handbook, 66116
course catalog, and web site.66117

        (C) If a board of trustees implements a program under this 66118
section, the board shall submit the rules adopted under division 66119
(B) of this section to the chancellor for approval before 66120
beginning implementation of the program.66121

        The chancellor shall not unreasonably withhold approval of a 66122
program if the program conforms in principle with the parameters 66123
and guidelines of this section.66124

        (D) A board of trustees of a state university may establish 66125
an undergraduate tuition guarantee program for nonresident 66126
students.66127

        (E) Within five years after the effective date of this 66128
section, the chancellor shall publish on the board of regents web 66129
site a report that includes all of the following:66130

        (1) The state universities that have adopted an undergraduate 66131
tuition guarantee program under this section;66132

        (2) The details of each undergraduate tuition guarantee 66133
program established under this section;66134

        (3) Comparative data, including general and instructional 66135
fees, room and board, graduation rates, and retention rates, from 66136
all state universities.66137

       Sec. 3345.81.  Not later than June 30, 2014, the board of 66138
trustees of each institution of higher education, as defined by 66139
section 3345.12 of the Revised Code, shall adopt an 66140
institution-specific strategic completion plan designed to 66141
increase the number of degrees and certificates awarded to 66142
students. The plan shall be consistent with the mission and 66143
strategic priorities of the institution, include measureable 66144
student completion goals, and align with the state's workforce 66145
development priorities. Upon adoption by the board of trustees, 66146
each institution of higher education shall provide a copy of its 66147
plan to the chancellor of the Ohio board of regents.66148

       The board of trustees of each institution of higher education 66149
shall update its plan at least once every two years and provide a 66150
copy of their updated plan to the chancellor upon adoption.66151

       Sec. 3350.15. The northeast Ohio medical university may enter 66152
into a partnership with Cleveland state university to establish 66153
the northeast Ohio medical university academic campus at Cleveland 66154
state university, to enable fifty per cent or more of the medical 66155
curriculum taught to students enrolled under this partnership to 66156
be based in Cleveland at Cleveland state university, local 66157
hospitals, and community- and neighborhood-based primary care 66158
clinics. Cleveland state university shall not receive state 66159
capital appropriations to pay for facilities for the academic 66160
campus.66161

       Sec. 3353.01.  As used in this chapter:66162

       (A) "Educational television or radio" means television or 66163
radio programs which serve the educational needs of the community 66164
and which meet the requirements of the federal communications 66165
commission for noncommercial educational television or radio.66166

       (B) "Educational telecommunications network" means a system 66167
of connected educational television, radio, or radio reading 66168
service facilities and coordinated programs established and 66169
operated or controlled by the eTech Ohiobroadcast educational 66170
media commission, pursuant to this chapter.66171

       (C) "Transmission" means the sending out of television, 66172
radio, or radio reading service programs, either directly to the 66173
public, or to broadcasting stations or services for simultaneous 66174
broadcast or rebroadcast.66175

       (D) "Transmission facilities" means structures, equipment, 66176
material, and services used in the transmission of educational 66177
television, radio, or radio reading service programs.66178

       (E) "Interconnection facilities" means the equipment, 66179
material, and services used to link one location to another 66180
location or to several locations by means of telephone line, 66181
coaxial cable, microwave relays, or other available technologies.66182

       (F) "Broadcasting station" means a properly licensed 66183
noncommercial educational television or radio station, 66184
appropriately staffed and equipped to produce programs or lessons 66185
and to broadcast programs.66186

       (G) "Radio reading service" means a nonprofit organization 66187
that disseminates news and other information to blind and 66188
physically handicapped persons.66189

       (H) "Affiliate" means an educational telecommunication 66190
entity, including a television or radio broadcasting station or 66191
radio reading service.66192

       Sec. 3353.02.  (A) There is hereby created the eTech Ohio66193
broadcast educational media commission as an independent agency to 66194
advance education and accelerate the learning of the citizens of 66195
this state through technologypublic educational broadcasting 66196
services. The commission shall provide leadership and support in 66197
extending the knowledge of the citizens of this state by promoting 66198
access to and use of all forms of educational technology66199
broadcasting services, including educational television and radio,66200
and radio reading services, broadband networks, videotapes, 66201
compact discs, digital video on demand (DVD), and the internet. 66202
The commission also shall administer programs to provide financial 66203
and other assistance to school districts and other educational 66204
institutions for the acquisition and utilization of educational 66205
technologytelevision and radio and radio reading services.66206

       The commission is a body corporate and politic, an agency of 66207
the state performing essential governmental functions of the 66208
state.66209

       (B) The commission shall consist of thirteenfifteen members, 66210
nineeleven of whom shall be voting members. SixNine of the 66211
voting members shall be representatives of the public selected 66212
from among leading citizens in the state who have demonstrated 66213
interest in educational broadcast media through service on boards 66214
or advisory councils of educational television stations, 66215
educational radio stations, educational technology agencies, or 66216
radio reading services. Of the representatives of the public, four66217
three shall be appointed by the governor with the advice and 66218
consent of the senate, onethree shall be appointed by the speaker 66219
of the house of representatives, and onethree shall be appointed 66220
by the president of the senate. Not more than two members 66221
appointed by the speaker of the house of representatives and not 66222
more than two members appointed by the president of the senate 66223
shall be of the same political party. The superintendent of public 66224
instruction or a designee of the superintendent,and the 66225
chancellor of the Ohio board of regents or a designee of the 66226
chancellor, and the state chief information officer or a designee 66227
of the officer shall be ex officio voting members. Of the 66228
nonvoting members, two shall be members of the house of 66229
representatives appointed by the speaker of the house of 66230
representatives and two shall be members of the senate appointed 66231
by the president of the senate. The members appointed from each 66232
chamber shall not be members of the same political party.66233

       (C) Initial terms of office for appointed voting members 66234
appointed by the governor shall be one year foras follows:66235

       (1) For one member, two years for one member, three years for 66236
one member, and four years for one memberappointed by each of the 66237
governor, speaker of the house of representatives, and president 66238
of the senate, one year;66239

       (2) For one member appointed by each of the governor, speaker 66240
of the house of representatives, and president of the senate, two 66241
years;66242

       (3) For one member appointed by each of the governor, speaker 66243
of the house of representatives, and president of the senate, 66244
three years. At the first meeting of the commission, such members 66245
appointed by the governor shall draw lots to determine the length 66246
of the term each member will serve. Thereafter, terms of office 66247
for such members appointed by the governor shall be for four 66248
years. Terms of office for voting members appointed by the speaker 66249
of the house of representatives and the president of the senate 66250
shall be for four years. Any member who is a representative of the 66251
public may be reappointed by the member's respective appointing 66252
authority, but no such member may serve more than two consecutive 66253
four-year terms. Such a member may be removed by the member's 66254
respective appointing authority for cause.66255

       Any legislative member appointed by the speaker of the house 66256
of representatives or the president of the senate who ceases to be 66257
a member of the legislative chamber from which the member was 66258
appointed shall cease to be a member of the commission. The 66259
speaker of the house of representatives and the president of the 66260
senate may remove their respective appointments to the commission 66261
at any time.66262

       (D) Vacancies among appointed members shall be filled in the 66263
manner provided for original appointments. Any member appointed to 66264
fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for 66265
which the member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office for 66266
the remainder of that term. Any appointed member shall continue in 66267
office subsequent to the expiration of that member's term until 66268
the member's successor takes office or until a period of sixty 66269
days has elapsed, whichever occurs first.66270

       (E) Members of the commission shall serve without 66271
compensation. The members who are representatives of the public 66272
shall be reimbursed, pursuant to office of budget and management 66273
guidelines, for actual and necessary expenses incurred in the 66274
performance of official duties.66275

       (F) The governor shall appoint the chairperson of the 66276
commission from among the commission's public voting members. The 66277
chairperson shall serve a term of two years and may be 66278
reappointed. The commission shall elect other officers as 66279
necessary from among its voting members and shall prescribe its 66280
rules of procedure.66281

       (G) The commission shall establish advisory groups as needed 66282
to address topics of interest and to provide guidance to the 66283
commission regarding educational technology issues and the 66284
technology needs of educators, learners, and the public. Members 66285
of each advisory group shall be appointed by the commission and 66286
shall include representatives of individuals or organizations with 66287
an interest in the topic addressed by the advisory group.66288

       Sec. 3353.03.  (A) The eTech Ohiobroadcast educational media66289
commission shall appoint an executive director, who shall serve at 66290
the pleasure of the commission. The executive director shall have 66291
no authority other than that provided by law or delegated to the 66292
executive director by the commission. The executive director shall 66293
do all of the following:66294

       (1) Direct commission employees in the administration of all 66295
programs of the commission;66296

       (2) Provide leadership and support in extending the knowledge 66297
of the citizens of this state by promoting equal access to and use 66298
of all forms of educational technologybroadcast media, as 66299
directed by the commission;66300

       (3) Provide financial and other assistance to school 66301
districts, educational television and radio stations, radio 66302
reading services, educational technology organizations, and other 66303
educational institutions for the acquisition and utilization of 66304
educational technologyand related organizations and activities;66305

       (4) Implement policies and directives issued by the 66306
commission;66307

       (5) Perform other duties authorized by the commission.66308

       (B) The commission shall fix the compensation of the 66309
executive director. The executive director shall employ and fix 66310
the compensation for such employees as necessary to facilitate the 66311
activities and purposes of the commission. The employees shall 66312
serve at the pleasure of the executive director.66313

       (C) The employees of the commission shall be placed in the 66314
unclassified service. 66315

       (D)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(2) of this section, 66316
the employees of the commission shall be exempt from Chapter 4117. 66317
of the Revised Code and shall not be public employees as defined 66318
in section 4117.01 of the Revised Code.66319

       (2) All employees of the commission who transferred to the 66320
commission from one of the commission's predecessor agencies upon 66321
the commission's creation and, when employed by the predecessor 66322
agency were included in a bargaining unit established under 66323
Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code, shall continue to be included 66324
in that bargaining unit, are public employees as defined in 66325
section 4117.01 of the Revised Code, and may collectively bargain 66326
with the commission in accordance with that chapter. Otherwise, 66327
any employee hired by the commission after July 1, 2005, either to 66328
fill vacancies or to fill new positions, shall be exempt from 66329
Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code and shall not be public 66330
employees as defined in section 4117.10 of the Revised Code.66331

       Sec. 3353.04. (A) The eTech Ohiobroadcast educational media66332
commission may perform any act necessary to carry out the 66333
functions of this chapter, including any of the following:66334

       (1) Make grants to institutions and other organizations as 66335
prescribed by the general assembly for the provision of technical 66336
assistance, professional development, and other support services 66337
to enable school districts, community schools established under 66338
Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, other educational institutions, 66339
and affiliates to utilize educational technology;66340

       (2) Establish a reporting system for school districts, 66341
community schools, other educational institutions, affiliates, and 66342
educational technology organizations that receive financial 66343
assistance from the commission. The system may require the 66344
reporting of information regarding the manner in which the 66345
assistance was expended, the manner in which the equipment or 66346
services purchased with the assistance is being utilized, the 66347
results or outcome of the utilization, the manner in which the 66348
utilization is compatible with the statewide academic standards 66349
adopted by the state board of education pursuant to section 66350
3301.079 of the Revised Code, and any other information determined 66351
by the commission.66352

       (3) Ensure that, where appropriate, products produced by any 66353
entity to which the commission provides financial assistance for 66354
use in elementary and secondary education are aligned with the 66355
statewide academic standards adopted by the state board pursuant 66356
to section 3301.079 of the Revised Code;66357

       (4) Promote accessibility tothrough broadcasting services of66358
educational products aligned with the statewide academic 66359
standards, adopted by the state board pursuant to section 3301.079 66360
of the Revised Code, for school districts, community schools, and 66361
other entities serving grades kindergarten through twelve;66362

       (5)(2) Own or operate transmission facilities and 66363
interconnection facilities, or contract for transmission 66364
facilities and interconnection facilities, for an educational 66365
television, radio, or radio reading service network;66366

       (6)(3) Establish standards for interconnection facilities 66367
used by the commission in the transmission of educational 66368
television, radio, or radio reading service programming;66369

        (7)(4) Enter into agreements with noncommercial educational 66370
television or radio broadcasting stations or radio reading 66371
services for the operation of the interconnection; 66372

       (8)(5) Enter into agreements with noncommercial educational 66373
television or radio broadcasting stations or radio reading 66374
services for the production and use of educational television, 66375
radio, or radio reading service programs to be transmitted by the 66376
educational telecommunications network;66377

       (9)(6) Execute contracts and other agreements necessary and 66378
desirable to carry out the purposes of this chapter and other 66379
duties prescribed to the commission by law or authorize the 66380
executive director of the commission to execute such contracts and 66381
agreements on the commission's behalf;66382

       (10)(7) Act as consultant with educational television and 66383
educational radio stations and radio reading services toward 66384
coordination within the state of the distribution of federal funds 66385
that may become available for equipment for educational 66386
broadcasting or radio reading services;66387

       (11)(8) Make payments to noncommercial Ohio educational 66388
television or radio broadcasting stations or radio reading 66389
services to sustain the operation of such stations or services;66390

       (12)(9) In consultation with participants in programs 66391
administered by the commission, establish guidelines governing 66392
purchasing and procurement that facilitate the timely and 66393
effective implementation of such programs;66394

       (13)(10) In consultation with participants in programs 66395
administered by the commission, consider the efficiency and cost 66396
savings of statewide procurement prior to allocating and releasing 66397
funds for such programs;66398

       (14)(11) In consultation with participants in programs 66399
administered by the commission, establish a systems support 66400
network to facilitate the timely implementation of the programs 66401
and other projects and activities for which the commission 66402
provides assistance.66403

       (B) Chapters 123., 124., 125., and 153. of the Revised Code 66404
and sections 9.331 to 9.335 of the Revised Code do not apply to 66405
contracts, programs, projects, or activities of the commission.66406

       Sec. 3353.06.  (A) The affiliates services fund is hereby 66407
created in the state treasury. The eTech Ohiobroadcast 66408
educational media commission shall deposit any money it receives 66409
for services provided to affiliates to the credit of the fund, 66410
including:66411

       (1) Reimbursements for services provided to stations;66412

       (2) Charges levied for maintenance of telecommunications, 66413
broadcasting, or transmission equipment;66414

       (3) Contract or grant payments from affiliates.66415

       (B) The commission shall use money credited to the affiliates 66416
services fund for any commission operating purposes, including:66417

       (1) The purchase, repair, or maintenance of 66418
telecommunications, broadcasting, or transmission equipment;66419

       (2) The purchase or lease of educational programming;66420

       (3) The purchase of tape and digital media storage and 66421
maintenance of a media library;66422

       (4) Professional development programs and services;66423

       (5) Administrative expenses.66424

       Sec. 3353.07.  (A) There is hereby created the Ohio 66425
government telecommunications service. The Ohio government 66426
telecommunications service shall provide the state government and 66427
affiliated organizations with multimedia support including audio, 66428
visual, and internet services, multimedia streaming, and hosting 66429
multimedia programs.66430

       Services relating to the official activities of the general 66431
assembly and the executive offices provided by the Ohio government 66432
telecommunications service shall be funded through grants to a 66433
publican educational television broadcasting station that will 66434
manage the staff and provide the services of the Ohio government 66435
telecommunications service. The Ohio educational television 66436
stations shall select a member station to manage the Ohio 66437
government telecommunications service. The Ohio government 66438
telecommunications service shall receive grants from, or contract 66439
with, any of the three branches of Ohio government, and their 66440
affiliates, to provide additional services. Services provided by 66441
the Ohio government telecommunications service shall not be used 66442
for political purposes included in campaign materials, or 66443
otherwise used to influence an election, legislation, issue, 66444
judicial decision, or other policy of state government.66445

       (B)(1) There is hereby created the legislative programming 66446
committee of the Ohio government telecommunications service that 66447
shall consist of the president of the senate, speaker of the house 66448
of representatives, minority leader of the senate, and minority 66449
leader of the house of representatives, or their designees, and 66450
the clerks of the senate and house of representatives as 66451
nonvoting, ex officio members. By a vote of a majority of its 66452
members, the program committee may add additional members to the 66453
committee.66454

       (2) The legislative programming committee shall adopt rules 66455
that govern the operation of the Ohio government 66456
telecommunications service relating to the general assembly and 66457
any affiliated organizations.66458

       Sec. 3365.01.  As used in this chapter:66459

       (A) "College" means any state-assisted college or university 66460
described in section 3333.041 of the Revised Code, any nonprofit 66461
institution holding a certificate of authorization pursuant to 66462
Chapter 1713. of the Revised Code, any private institution exempt 66463
from regulation under Chapter 3332. of the Revised Code as 66464
prescribed in section 3333.046 of the Revised Code, and any 66465
institution holding a certificate of registration from the state 66466
board of career colleges and schools and program authorization for 66467
an associate or bachelor's degree program issued under section 66468
3332.05 of the Revised Code.66469

       (B) "School district," except as specified in division (G) of 66470
this section, means any school district to which a student is 66471
admitted under section 3313.64, 3313.65, 3313.98, or 3317.08 of 66472
the Revised Code and does not include a joint vocational or 66473
cooperative education school district.66474

       (C) "Parent" has the same meaning as in section 3313.64 of 66475
the Revised Code.66476

       (D) "Participant" means a student enrolled in a college under 66477
the post-secondary enrollment options program established by this 66478
chapter, including a student who has been excused from the 66479
compulsory attendance law for the purpose of home instruction 66480
under section 3321.04 of the Revised Code.66481

       (E) "Secondary grade" means the ninth through twelfth grades.66482

       (F) "School foundation payments" means the amount required to 66483
be paid to a school district for a fiscal year under Chapter 3317. 66484
of the Revised Code.66485

       (G) "Tuition base" means, with respect to a participant's 66486
school district, the sum of the formula amount plus the per pupil 66487
amount of the base funding supplements specified in divisions 66488
(C)(1) to (4) of section 3317.0123317.02 of the Revised Code for 66489
the applicable fiscal year 2009.66490

       The participant's "school district" in the case of a 66491
participant enrolled in a community school shall be the school 66492
district in which the student is entitled to attend school under 66493
section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code.66494

       (H) "Educational program" means enrollment in one or more 66495
school districts, in a nonpublic school, or in a college under 66496
division (B) of section 3365.04 of the Revised Code.66497

       (I) "Nonpublic school" means a chartered or nonchartered 66498
school for which minimum standards are prescribed by the state 66499
board of education pursuant to division (D) of section 3301.07 of 66500
the Revised Code.66501

       (J) "School year" means the year beginning on the first day 66502
of July and ending on the thirtieth day of June.66503

       (K) "Community school" means any school established pursuant 66504
to Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code that includes secondary 66505
grades.66506

       (L) "STEM school" means a science, technology, engineering, 66507
and mathematics school established under Chapter 3326. of the 66508
Revised Code.66509

       Sec. 3365.02.  There is hereby established the post-secondary 66510
enrollment options program under which a secondary grade student 66511
who is a resident of this state may enroll at a college, on a 66512
full- or part-time basis, and complete nonsectarian courses for 66513
high school and college credit.66514

       Secondary grade students in a nonpublic school may 66515
participate in the post-secondary enrollment options program if 66516
the chief administrator of such school notifies the department of 66517
education by the first day of April prior to the school year in 66518
which the school's students will participate.66519

       The state board of education, after consulting with the board 66520
of regents, shall adopt rules governing the program. The rules 66521
shall include:66522

       (A) Requirements for school districts, community schools, or 66523
participating nonpublic schools to provide information about the 66524
program prior to the first day of March of each year to all 66525
students enrolled in grades eight through eleven;66526

       (B) A requirement that a student or the student's parent 66527
inform the district board of education, the governing authority of 66528
a community school, the STEM school chief administrative officer, 66529
or the nonpublic school administrator by the thirtieth day of 66530
March of the student's intent to participate in the program during 66531
the following school year. The rule shall provide that any student 66532
who fails to provide the notification by the required date may not 66533
participate in the program during the following school year 66534
without the written consent of the district superintendent, the 66535
governing authority of a community school, the STEM school chief 66536
administrative officer, or the nonpublic school administrator.66537

       (C) Requirements that school districts, community schools, 66538
and STEM schools provide counseling services to students in grades 66539
eight through eleven and to their parents before the students 66540
participate in the program under this chapter to ensure that 66541
students and parents are fully aware of the possible risks and 66542
consequences of participation. Counseling information shall 66543
include without limitation:66544

       (1) Program eligibility;66545

       (2) The process for granting academic credits;66546

       (3) Financial arrangements for tuition, books, materials, and 66547
fees;66548

       (4) Criteria for any transportation aid;66549

       (5) Available support services;66550

       (6) Scheduling;66551

       (7) The consequences of failing or not completing a course in 66552
which the student enrolls and the effect of the grade attained in 66553
the course being included in the student's grade point average, if 66554
applicable;66555

       (8) The effect of program participation on the student's 66556
ability to complete the district's or school's graduation 66557
requirements;66558

       (9) The academic and social responsibilities of students and 66559
parents under the program;66560

       (10) Information about and encouragement to use the 66561
counseling services of the college in which the student intends to 66562
enroll.66563

       (11) A list of all institutions of higher education that 66564
currently participate in the program or in another dual enrollment 66565
program, as defined in section 3313.6013 of the Revised Code, 66566
compiled and distributed by the department of education pursuant 66567
to division (G) of this section.66568

       (D) A requirement that the student and the student's parent 66569
sign a form, provided by the school district or school, stating 66570
that they have received the counseling required by division (C) of 66571
this section and that they understand the responsibilities they 66572
must assume in the program;66573

       (E) The options required by section 3365.04 of the Revised 66574
Code;66575

       (F) A requirement that a student may not enroll in any 66576
specific college course through the program if the student has 66577
taken high school courses in the same subject area as that college 66578
course and has failed to attain a cumulative grade point average 66579
of at least 3.0 on a 4.0 scale, or the equivalent, in such 66580
completed high school coursesA requirement that student 66581
participation in the program be based solely on a participating 66582
college's established placement standards for college-level 66583
courses for which credit is awarded.66584

       (G) A requirement that the department of education annually 66585
compile a list of all institutions of higher education that 66586
currently participate in the program or in another dual enrollment 66587
program as defined in section 3313.6013 of the Revised Code and, 66588
not later than the thirty-first day of December of each school 66589
year, distribute this list to all school districts, community 66590
schools, STEM schools, and chartered nonpublic schools in the 66591
state.66592

       Sec. 3365.021.  The chief administrator of any nonpublic 66593
school notifying the department of education that students of the 66594
school will participate in the post-secondary enrollment options 66595
program shall provide counseling to students in grades eight 66596
through eleven and to their parents before the students 66597
participate in the program to ensure that students and parents are 66598
fully aware of the possible risks and consequences of 66599
participation. Such counseling shall include explaining the fact 66600
that funding may be limited and that not all students who wish to 66601
participate may be able to do so.66602

       The chief administrator also shall provide students and 66603
parents with a list of all institutions of higher education that 66604
currently participate in the program or in another dual enrollment 66605
program as defined in section 3313.6013 of the Revised Code, 66606
compiled and distributed by the department of education pursuant 66607
to division (G) of section 3365.02 of the Revised Code.66608

       Sec. 3365.022.  (A) Beginning July 1, 2013, a student who has 66609
been excused from the compulsory attendance law for the purpose of 66610
home instruction under section 3321.04 of the Revised Code, and is 66611
the equivalent of a ninth, tenth, eleventh, or twelfth grader may 66612
participate in the post-secondary enrollment options program 66613
established under this chapter. 66614

       (B)(1) If a student meets the criteria established in 66615
division (A) of this section and wishes to participate in the 66616
post-secondary enrollment options program, the parent or guardian 66617
of that student shall notify the department of education by the 66618
first day of April prior to the school year in which the student 66619
wishes to participate. 66620

       (2) For the 2013-2014 school year, the department may accept 66621
applications at a later date if that student wishes to participate 66622
in the program during the 2013-2014 school year.66623

       (C) Pursuant to rules adopted by the state board of education 66624
under section 3365.02 of the Revised Code, payments to a 66625
participating college, in which home-instructed students enrolled 66626
pursuant to this section, shall be made in the same manner as 66627
payments made for participating students from nonpublic secondary 66628
schools, pursuant to section 3365.07 of the Revised Code.66629

       Sec. 3365.07.  (A) The rules adopted under section 3365.02 of 66630
the Revised Code shall specify a method for each of the following:66631

       (1) Determining, with respect to any participant, the 66632
percentage of a full-time educational program constituted by the 66633
participant's total educational program. That percentage shall be 66634
the participant's full-time equivalency percentage for purposes of 66635
the computation required by division (B)(1) of this section.66636

       (2) In the case of a participant who is not enrolled in a 66637
participating nonpublic school, determining the percentage of a 66638
participant's school day during which the participant is 66639
participating in each of the following:66640

       (a) Programs provided by the city, local, or exempted village 66641
school district, a community school, or a STEM school;66642

       (b) Programs provided by a joint vocational school district;66643

       (c) Programs provided by a college under division (B) of 66644
section 3365.04 of the Revised Code.66645

The sum of divisions (A)(2)(a) to (c) of this section shall equal 66646
one hundred per cent.66647

       (3) In the case of a participant who is not enrolled in a 66648
participating nonpublic school, determining the percentage of a 66649
participant's enrollment that shall be deemed to be enrollment in 66650
a joint vocational school district and the percentage that shall 66651
be deemed to be enrollment in a city, local, or exempted village 66652
school district. The sum of such percentages shall equal one 66653
hundred per cent.66654

       (4) In the case of a participant who is enrolled in a 66655
participating nonpublic school, determining the percentage of a 66656
participant's school day during which the participant is 66657
participating in programs provided by a college under division (B) 66658
of section 3365.04 of the Revised Code.66659

       (B) Each July, unless provided otherwise in an alternative 66660
funding agreement entered into under rules adopted under section 66661
3365.12 of the Revised Code, the department of education shall pay 66662
each college for any participant enrolled in the college in the 66663
prior school year under division (B) of section 3365.04 of the 66664
Revised Code an amount computed as follows:66665

       (1) Multiply the tuition base by the participant's full-time 66666
equivalency percentage and multiply the resulting amount by a 66667
percentage equal to the percentage of the participant's school day 66668
apportioned to the college under division (A)(2)(c) or (4) of this 66669
section, as applicable.66670

       (2) Pay the college the lesser of:66671

       (a) The amount computed under division (B)(1) of this 66672
section;66673

       (b) The actual costs that would have been the responsibility 66674
of the participant had the participant elected to enroll under 66675
division (A) of section 3365.04 of the Revised Code, as verified 66676
by the department, of tuition, textbooks, materials, and fees 66677
directly related to any courses elected by the participant during 66678
the prior school year under division (B) of section 3365.04 of the 66679
Revised Code.66680

       (C) The department shall not reimburse anya college for any 66681
of the following:66682

       (1) A college course taken by a participant under division 66683
(A) of section 3365.04 of the Revised Code;66684

       (2) A remedial college course taken by a participant.66685

       (D) If the participant was not enrolled in a participating 66686
nonpublic school, the amount paid under division (B) of this 66687
section for each participant shall be subtracted from the school 66688
foundation payments made to the participant's school district or, 66689
if the participant was enrolled in a community school or a STEM 66690
school, from the payments made to the participant's school under 66691
section 3314.08 or 3326.33 of the Revised Code. If the participant 66692
was enrolled in a joint vocational school district, a portion of 66693
the amount shall be subtracted from the payments to the joint 66694
vocational school district and a portion shall be subtracted from 66695
the payments to the participant's city, local, or exempted village 66696
school district. The amount of the payment subtracted from the 66697
city, local, or exempted village school district shall be computed 66698
as follows:66699

       (1) Add the following:66700

       (a) The percentage of the participant's enrollment in the 66701
school district, determined under division (A)(3) of this section; 66702
and66703

       (b) Twenty-five per cent times the percentage of the 66704
participant's enrollment in the joint vocational school district, 66705
determined under division (A)(3) of this section.66706

       (2) Multiply the sum obtained under division (D)(1) of this 66707
section by the amount computed under division (B)(2) of this 66708
section.66709

The balance of the payment shall be subtracted from the joint 66710
vocational district's school foundation payments.66711

       (E) If the participant was enrolled in a participating 66712
nonpublic school, the amount paid under division (B) of this 66713
section shall be subtracted from moneys set aside by the general 66714
assembly for such purpose from funds appropriated for the purposes 66715
of section 3317.06 of the Revised Code.66716

       Sec. 3365.12. The superintendent of public instruction and 66717
the chancellor of the Ohio board of regents jointly may adopt 66718
rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 66719
permitting a board of education of a school district or joint 66720
vocational school district, governing authority of a community 66721
school, governing body of a STEM school, or governing authority of 66722
a participating nonpublic school to enter into an agreement with a 66723
college or university to use an alternate funding formula to 66724
calculate, or an alternate method to transmit, the amount the 66725
college or university would be paid for a student participating in 66726
a program under this chapter, including the program known as 66727
seniors to sophomores.66728

       Rules adopted under this section may include, but need not be 66729
limited to, any of the following alternative funding options:66730

       (A) Direct payment of funds necessary to support students 66731
participating in a program under this chapter, including the 66732
seniors to sophomores program, by the school district, joint 66733
vocational school district, community school, STEM school, or any 66734
combination thereof, to the college or university in which the 66735
student enrolled;66736

       (B) Alternate funding formulas to calculate the amount of 66737
money to be paid to colleges for participants;66738

       (C) A negotiated amount to be paid, as agreed by the school 66739
district, joint vocational school district, community school, or 66740
STEM school and the college or university. 66741

       Rules adopted under this section shall prohibit any 66742
alternative funding option to include charging a student 66743
participating in the program under this chapter any tuition or 66744
fees.66745

       Sec. 3501.01.  As used in the sections of the Revised Code 66746
relating to elections and political communications:66747

       (A) "General election" means the election held on the first 66748
Tuesday after the first Monday in each November.66749

       (B) "Regular municipal election" means the election held on 66750
the first Tuesday after the first Monday in November in each 66751
odd-numbered year.66752

       (C) "Regular state election" means the election held on the 66753
first Tuesday after the first Monday in November in each 66754
even-numbered year.66755

       (D) "Special election" means any election other than those 66756
elections defined in other divisions of this section. A special 66757
election may be held only on the first Tuesday after the first 66758
Monday in February, May, August, or November, or on the day 66759
authorized by a particular municipal or county charter for the 66760
holding of a primary election, except that in any year in which a 66761
presidential primary election is held, no special election shall 66762
be held in February or May, except as authorized by a municipal or 66763
county charter, but may be held on the first Tuesday after the 66764
first Monday in March.66765

       (E)(1) "Primary" or "primary election" means an election held 66766
for the purpose of nominating persons as candidates of political 66767
parties for election to offices, and for the purpose of electing 66768
persons as members of the controlling committees of political 66769
parties and as delegates and alternates to the conventions of 66770
political parties. Primary elections shall be held on the first 66771
Tuesday after the first Monday in May of each year except in years 66772
in which a presidential primary election is held.66773

       (2) "Presidential primary election" means a primary election 66774
as defined by division (E)(1) of this section at which an election 66775
is held for the purpose of choosing delegates and alternates to 66776
the national conventions of the major political parties pursuant 66777
to section 3513.12 of the Revised Code. Unless otherwise 66778
specified, presidential primary elections are included in 66779
references to primary elections. In years in which a presidential 66780
primary election is held, all primary elections shall be held on 66781
the first Tuesday after the first Monday in March except as 66782
otherwise authorized by a municipal or county charter.66783

       (F) "Political party" means any group of voters meeting the 66784
requirements set forth in section 3517.01 of the Revised Code for 66785
the formation and existence of a political party.66786

       (1) "Major political party" means any political party 66787
organized under the laws of this state whose candidate for 66788
governor or nominees for presidential electors received no less 66789
than twenty per cent of the total vote cast for such office at the 66790
most recent regular state election.66791

       (2) "Intermediate political party" means any political party 66792
organized under the laws of this state whose candidate for 66793
governor or nominees for presidential electors received less than 66794
twenty per cent but not less than ten per cent of the total vote 66795
cast for such office at the most recent regular state election.66796

       (3) "Minor political party" means any political party 66797
organized under the laws of this state whose candidate for 66798
governor or nominees for presidential electors received less than 66799
ten per cent but not less than five per cent of the total vote 66800
cast for such office at the most recent regular state election or 66801
which has filed with the secretary of state, subsequent to any 66802
election in which it received less than five per cent of such 66803
vote, a petition signed by qualified electors equal in number to 66804
at least one per cent of the total vote cast for such office in 66805
the last preceding regular state election, except that a newly 66806
formed political party shall be known as a minor political party 66807
until the time of the first election for governor or president 66808
which occurs not less than twelve months subsequent to the 66809
formation of such party, after which election the status of such 66810
party shall be determined by the vote for the office of governor 66811
or president.66812

       (G) "Dominant party in a precinct" or "dominant political 66813
party in a precinct" means that political party whose candidate 66814
for election to the office of governor at the most recent regular 66815
state election at which a governor was elected received more votes 66816
than any other person received for election to that office in such 66817
precinct at such election.66818

       (H) "Candidate" means any qualified person certified in 66819
accordance with the provisions of the Revised Code for placement 66820
on the official ballot of a primary, general, or special election 66821
to be held in this state, or any qualified person who claims to be 66822
a write-in candidate, or who knowingly assents to being 66823
represented as a write-in candidate by another at either a 66824
primary, general, or special election to be held in this state.66825

       (I) "Independent candidate" means any candidate who claims 66826
not to be affiliated with a political party, and whose name has 66827
been certified on the office-type ballot at a general or special 66828
election through the filing of a statement of candidacy and 66829
nominating petition, as prescribed in section 3513.257 of the 66830
Revised Code.66831

       (J) "Nonpartisan candidate" means any candidate whose name is 66832
required, pursuant to section 3505.04 of the Revised Code, to be 66833
listed on the nonpartisan ballot, including all candidates for 66834
judicial office, for member of any board of education, for 66835
municipal or township offices in which primary elections are not 66836
held for nominating candidates by political parties, and for 66837
offices of municipal corporations having charters that provide for 66838
separate ballots for elections for these offices.66839

       (K) "Party candidate" means any candidate who claims to be a 66840
member of a political party, whose name has been certified on the 66841
office-type ballot at a general or special election through the 66842
filing of a declaration of candidacy and petition of candidate, 66843
and who has won the primary election of the candidate's party for 66844
the public office the candidate seeks or is selected by party 66845
committee in accordance with section 3513.31 of the Revised Code.66846

       (L) "Officer of a political party" includes, but is not 66847
limited to, any member, elected or appointed, of a controlling 66848
committee, whether representing the territory of the state, a 66849
district therein, a county, township, a city, a ward, a precinct, 66850
or other territory, of a major, intermediate, or minor political 66851
party.66852

       (M) "Question or issue" means any question or issue certified 66853
in accordance with the Revised Code for placement on an official 66854
ballot at a general or special election to be held in this state.66855

       (N) "Elector" or "qualified elector" means a person having 66856
the qualifications provided by law to be entitled to vote.66857

       (O) "Voter" means an elector who votes at an election.66858

       (P) "Voting residence" means that place of residence of an 66859
elector which shall determine the precinct in which the elector 66860
may vote.66861

       (Q) "Precinct" means a district within a county established 66862
by the board of elections of such county within which all 66863
qualified electors having a voting residence therein may vote at 66864
the same polling place.66865

       (R) "Polling place" means that place provided for each 66866
precinct at which the electors having a voting residence in such 66867
precinct may vote.66868

       (S) "Board" or "board of elections" means the board of 66869
elections appointed in a county pursuant to section 3501.06 of the 66870
Revised Code.66871

       (T) "Political subdivision" means a county, township, city, 66872
village, or school district.66873

       (U) "Election officer" or "election official" means any of 66874
the following:66875

       (1) Secretary of state;66876

       (2) Employees of the secretary of state serving the division 66877
of elections in the capacity of attorney, administrative officer, 66878
administrative assistant, elections administrator, office manager, 66879
or clerical supervisor;66880

       (3) Director of a board of elections;66881

       (4) Deputy director of a board of elections;66882

       (5) Member of a board of elections;66883

       (6) Employees of a board of elections;66884

       (7) Precinct polling place judges;66885

       (8) Employees appointed by the boards of elections on a 66886
temporary or part-time basis.66887

       (V) "Acknowledgment notice" means a notice sent by a board of 66888
elections, on a form prescribed by the secretary of state, 66889
informing a voter registration applicant or an applicant who 66890
wishes to change the applicant's residence or name of the status 66891
of the application; the information necessary to complete or 66892
update the application, if any; and if the application is 66893
complete, the precinct in which the applicant is to vote.66894

       (W) "Confirmation notice" means a notice sent by a board of 66895
elections, on a form prescribed by the secretary of state, to a 66896
registered elector to confirm the registered elector's current 66897
address.66898

       (X) "Designated agency" means an office or agency in the 66899
state that provides public assistance or that provides 66900
state-funded programs primarily engaged in providing services to 66901
persons with disabilities and that is required by the National 66902
Voter Registration Act of 1993 to implement a program designed and 66903
administered by the secretary of state for registering voters, or 66904
any other public or government office or agency that implements a 66905
program designed and administered by the secretary of state for 66906
registering voters, including the department of job and family 66907
services, the program administered under section 3701.132 of the 66908
Revised Code by the department of health, the department of mental 66909
healthmental health and addiction services, the department of 66910
developmental disabilities, the rehabilitation services commission66911
opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities agency, and any other 66912
agency the secretary of state designates. "Designated agency" does 66913
not include public high schools and vocational schools, public 66914
libraries, or the office of a county treasurer.66915

       (Y) "National Voter Registration Act of 1993" means the 66916
"National Voter Registration Act of 1993," 107 Stat. 77, 42 66917
U.S.C.A. 1973gg.66918

       (Z) "Voting Rights Act of 1965" means the "Voting Rights Act 66919
of 1965," 79 Stat. 437, 42 U.S.C.A. 1973, as amended.66920

       (AA) "Photo identification" means a document that meets each 66921
of the following requirements:66922

        (1) It shows the name of the individual to whom it was 66923
issued, which shall conform to the name in the poll list or 66924
signature pollbook.66925

        (2) It shows the current address of the individual to whom it 66926
was issued, which shall conform to the address in the poll list or 66927
signature pollbook, except for a driver's license or a state 66928
identification card issued under section 4507.50 of the Revised 66929
Code, which may show either the current or former address of the 66930
individual to whom it was issued, regardless of whether that 66931
address conforms to the address in the poll list or signature 66932
pollbook.66933

        (3) It shows a photograph of the individual to whom it was 66934
issued.66935

        (4) It includes an expiration date that has not passed.66936

        (5) It was issued by the government of the United States or 66937
this state.66938

       Sec. 3517.01.  (A)(1) A political party within the meaning of 66939
Title XXXV of the Revised Code is any group of voters that, at the 66940
most recent regular state election, polled for its candidate for 66941
governor in the state or nominees for presidential electors at 66942
least five per cent of the entire vote cast for that office or 66943
that filed with the secretary of state, subsequent to any election 66944
in which it received less than five per cent of that vote, a 66945
petition signed by qualified electors equal in number to at least 66946
one per cent of the total vote for governor or nominees for 66947
presidential electors at the most recent election, declaring their 66948
intention of organizing a political party, the name of which shall 66949
be stated in the declaration, and of participating in the 66950
succeeding primary election, held in even-numbered years, that 66951
occurs more than one hundred twenty days after the date of filing. 66952
No such group of electors shall assume a name or designation that 66953
is similar, in the opinion of the secretary of state, to that of 66954
an existing political party as to confuse or mislead the voters at 66955
an election. If any political party fails to cast five per cent of 66956
the total vote cast at an election for the office of governor or 66957
president, it shall cease to be a political party. 66958

       (2) A campaign committee shall be legally liable for any 66959
debts, contracts, or expenditures incurred or executed in its 66960
name. 66961

       (B) Notwithstanding the definitions found in section 3501.01 66962
of the Revised Code, as used in this section and sections 3517.08 66963
to 3517.14, 3517.99, and 3517.992 of the Revised Code: 66964

       (1) "Campaign committee" means a candidate or a combination 66965
of two or more persons authorized by a candidate under section 66966
3517.081 of the Revised Code to receive contributions and make 66967
expenditures. 66968

       (2) "Campaign treasurer" means an individual appointed by a 66969
candidate under section 3517.081 of the Revised Code. 66970

       (3) "Candidate" has the same meaning as in division (H) of 66971
section 3501.01 of the Revised Code and also includes any person 66972
who, at any time before or after an election, receives 66973
contributions or makes expenditures or other use of contributions, 66974
has given consent for another to receive contributions or make 66975
expenditures or other use of contributions, or appoints a campaign 66976
treasurer, for the purpose of bringing about the person's 66977
nomination or election to public office. When two persons jointly 66978
seek the offices of governor and lieutenant governor, "candidate" 66979
means the pair of candidates jointly. "Candidate" does not include 66980
candidates for election to the offices of member of a county or 66981
state central committee, presidential elector, and delegate to a 66982
national convention or conference of a political party. 66983

       (4) "Continuing association" means an association, other than 66984
a campaign committee, political party, legislative campaign fund, 66985
political contributing entity, or labor organization, that is 66986
intended to be a permanent organization that has a primary purpose 66987
other than supporting or opposing specific candidates, political 66988
parties, or ballot issues, and that functions on a regular basis 66989
throughout the year. "Continuing association" includes 66990
organizations that are determined to be not organized for profit 66991
under subsection 501 and that are described in subsection 66992
501(c)(3), 501(c)(4), or 501(c)(6) of the Internal Revenue Code. 66993

       (5) "Contribution" means a loan, gift, deposit, forgiveness 66994
of indebtedness, donation, advance, payment, or transfer of funds 66995
or anything of value, including a transfer of funds from an inter 66996
vivos or testamentary trust or decedent's estate, and the payment 66997
by any person other than the person to whom the services are 66998
rendered for the personal services of another person, which 66999
contribution is made, received, or used for the purpose of 67000
influencing the results of an election. Any loan, gift, deposit, 67001
forgiveness of indebtedness, donation, advance, payment, or 67002
transfer of funds or of anything of value, including a transfer of 67003
funds from an inter vivos or testamentary trust or decedent's 67004
estate, and the payment by any campaign committee, political 67005
action committee, legislative campaign fund, political party, 67006
political contributing entity, or person other than the person to 67007
whom the services are rendered for the personal services of 67008
another person, that is made, received, or used by a state or 67009
county political party, other than moneys a state or county 67010
political party receives from the Ohio political party fund 67011
pursuant to section 3517.17 of the Revised Code and the moneys a 67012
state or county political partyan entity may receive under 67013
sections 3517.101, 3517.1012, and 3517.1013 of the Revised Code, 67014
shall be considered to be a "contribution" for the purpose of 67015
section 3517.10 of the Revised Code and shall be included on a 67016
statement of contributions filed under that section. 67017

       "Contribution" does not include any of the following: 67018

       (a) Services provided without compensation by individuals 67019
volunteering a portion or all of their time on behalf of a person; 67020

       (b) Ordinary home hospitality; 67021

       (c) The personal expenses of a volunteer paid for by that 67022
volunteer campaign worker; 67023

       (d) Any gift given to a state or county political partyan 67024
entity pursuant to section 3517.101 of the Revised Code. As used 67025
in division (B)(5)(d) of this section, "political party" means 67026
only a major political party; 67027

       (e) Any contribution as defined in section 3517.1011 of the 67028
Revised Code that is made, received, or used to pay the direct 67029
costs of producing or airing an electioneering communication; 67030

       (f) Any gift given to a state or county political party for 67031
the party's restricted fund under division (A)(2) of section 67032
3517.1012 of the Revised Code; 67033

       (g) Any gift given to a state political party for deposit in 67034
a Levin account pursuant to section 3517.1013 of the Revised Code. 67035
As used in this division, "Levin account" has the same meaning as 67036
in that section. 67037

       (h) Any donation given to a transition fund under section 67038
3517.1014 of the Revised Code. 67039

       (6) "Expenditure" means the disbursement or use of a 67040
contribution for the purpose of influencing the results of an 67041
election or of making a charitable donation under division (G) of 67042
section 3517.08 of the Revised Code. Any disbursement or use of a 67043
contribution by a state or county political party is an 67044
expenditure and shall be considered either to be made for the 67045
purpose of influencing the results of an election or to be made as 67046
a charitable donation under division (G) of section 3517.08 of the 67047
Revised Code and shall be reported on a statement of expenditures 67048
filed under section 3517.10 of the Revised Code. During the thirty 67049
days preceding a primary or general election, any disbursement to 67050
pay the direct costs of producing or airing a broadcast, cable, or 67051
satellite communication that refers to a clearly identified 67052
candidate shall be considered to be made for the purpose of 67053
influencing the results of that election and shall be reported as 67054
an expenditure or as an independent expenditure under section 67055
3517.10 or 3517.105 of the Revised Code, as applicable, except 67056
that the information required to be reported regarding 67057
contributors for those expenditures or independent expenditures 67058
shall be the same as the information required to be reported under 67059
divisions (D)(1) and (2) of section 3517.1011 of the Revised Code. 67060

       As used in this division, "broadcast, cable, or satellite 67061
communication" and "refers to a clearly identified candidate" have 67062
the same meanings as in section 3517.1011 of the Revised Code. 67063

       (7) "Personal expenses" includes, but is not limited to, 67064
ordinary expenses for accommodations, clothing, food, personal 67065
motor vehicle or airplane, and home telephone. 67066

       (8) "Political action committee" means a combination of two 67067
or more persons, the primary or major purpose of which is to 67068
support or oppose any candidate, political party, or issue, or to 67069
influence the result of any election through express advocacy, and 67070
that is not a political party, a campaign committee, a political 67071
contributing entity, or a legislative campaign fund. "Political 67072
action committee" does not include either of the following: 67073

       (a) A continuing association that makes disbursements for the 67074
direct costs of producing or airing electioneering communications 67075
and that does not engage in express advocacy; 67076

       (b) A political club that is formed primarily for social 67077
purposes and that consists of one hundred members or less, has 67078
officers and periodic meetings, has less than two thousand five 67079
hundred dollars in its treasury at all times, and makes an 67080
aggregate total contribution of one thousand dollars or less per 67081
calendar year. 67082

       (9) "Public office" means any state, county, municipal, 67083
township, or district office, except an office of a political 67084
party, that is filled by an election and the offices of United 67085
States senator and representative. 67086

       (10) "Anything of value" has the same meaning as in section 67087
1.03 of the Revised Code. 67088

       (11) "Beneficiary of a campaign fund" means a candidate, a 67089
public official or employee for whose benefit a campaign fund 67090
exists, and any other person who has ever been a candidate or 67091
public official or employee and for whose benefit a campaign fund 67092
exists. 67093

       (12) "Campaign fund" means money or other property, including 67094
contributions. 67095

       (13) "Public official or employee" has the same meaning as in 67096
section 102.01 of the Revised Code. 67097

       (14) "Caucus" means all of the members of the house of 67098
representatives or all of the members of the senate of the general 67099
assembly who are members of the same political party. 67100

       (15) "Legislative campaign fund" means a fund that is 67101
established as an auxiliary of a state political party and 67102
associated with one of the houses of the general assembly. 67103

       (16) "In-kind contribution" means anything of value other 67104
than money that is used to influence the results of an election or 67105
is transferred to or used in support of or in opposition to a 67106
candidate, campaign committee, legislative campaign fund, 67107
political party, political action committee, or political 67108
contributing entity and that is made with the consent of, in 67109
coordination, cooperation, or consultation with, or at the request 67110
or suggestion of the benefited candidate, committee, fund, party, 67111
or entity. The financing of the dissemination, distribution, or 67112
republication, in whole or part, of any broadcast or of any 67113
written, graphic, or other form of campaign materials prepared by 67114
the candidate, the candidate's campaign committee, or their 67115
authorized agents is an in-kind contribution to the candidate and 67116
an expenditure by the candidate. 67117

       (17) "Independent expenditure" means an expenditure by a 67118
person advocating the election or defeat of an identified 67119
candidate or candidates, that is not made with the consent of, in 67120
coordination, cooperation, or consultation with, or at the request 67121
or suggestion of any candidate or candidates or of the campaign 67122
committee or agent of the candidate or candidates. As used in 67123
division (B)(17) of this section: 67124

       (a) "Person" means an individual, partnership, unincorporated 67125
business organization or association, political action committee, 67126
political contributing entity, separate segregated fund, 67127
association, or other organization or group of persons, but not a 67128
labor organization or a corporation unless the labor organization 67129
or corporation is a political contributing entity. 67130

       (b) "Advocating" means any communication containing a message 67131
advocating election or defeat. 67132

       (c) "Identified candidate" means that the name of the 67133
candidate appears, a photograph or drawing of the candidate 67134
appears, or the identity of the candidate is otherwise apparent by 67135
unambiguous reference. 67136

       (d) "Made in coordination, cooperation, or consultation with, 67137
or at the request or suggestion of, any candidate or the campaign 67138
committee or agent of the candidate" means made pursuant to any 67139
arrangement, coordination, or direction by the candidate, the 67140
candidate's campaign committee, or the candidate's agent prior to 67141
the publication, distribution, display, or broadcast of the 67142
communication. An expenditure is presumed to be so made when it is 67143
any of the following: 67144

       (i) Based on information about the candidate's plans, 67145
projects, or needs provided to the person making the expenditure 67146
by the candidate, or by the candidate's campaign committee or 67147
agent, with a view toward having an expenditure made; 67148

       (ii) Made by or through any person who is, or has been, 67149
authorized to raise or expend funds, who is, or has been, an 67150
officer of the candidate's campaign committee, or who is, or has 67151
been, receiving any form of compensation or reimbursement from the 67152
candidate or the candidate's campaign committee or agent; 67153

       (iii) Except as otherwise provided in division (D) of section 67154
3517.105 of the Revised Code, made by a political party in support 67155
of a candidate, unless the expenditure is made by a political 67156
party to conduct voter registration or voter education efforts. 67157

       (e) "Agent" means any person who has actual oral or written 67158
authority, either express or implied, to make or to authorize the 67159
making of expenditures on behalf of a candidate, or means any 67160
person who has been placed in a position with the candidate's 67161
campaign committee or organization such that it would reasonably 67162
appear that in the ordinary course of campaign-related activities 67163
the person may authorize expenditures. 67164

       (18) "Labor organization" means a labor union; an employee 67165
organization; a federation of labor unions, groups, locals, or 67166
other employee organizations; an auxiliary of a labor union, 67167
employee organization, or federation of labor unions, groups, 67168
locals, or other employee organizations; or any other bona fide 67169
organization in which employees participate and that exists for 67170
the purpose, in whole or in part, of dealing with employers 67171
concerning grievances, labor disputes, wages, hours, and other 67172
terms and conditions of employment. 67173

       (19) "Separate segregated fund" means a separate segregated 67174
fund established pursuant to the Federal Election Campaign Act. 67175

       (20) "Federal Election Campaign Act" means the "Federal 67176
Election Campaign Act of 1971," 86 Stat. 11, 2 U.S.C.A. 431, et 67177
seq., as amended. 67178

       (21) "Restricted fund" means the fund a state or county 67179
political party must establish under division (A)(1) of section 67180
3517.1012 of the Revised Code. 67181

       (22) "Electioneering communication" has the same meaning as 67182
in section 3517.1011 of the Revised Code. 67183

       (23) "Express advocacy" means a communication that contains 67184
express words advocating the nomination, election, or defeat of a 67185
candidate or that contains express words advocating the adoption 67186
or defeat of a question or issue, as determined by a final 67187
judgment of a court of competent jurisdiction. 67188

       (24) "Political committee" has the same meaning as in section 67189
3517.1011 of the Revised Code. 67190

       (25) "Political contributing entity" means any entity, 67191
including a corporation or labor organization, that may lawfully 67192
make contributions and expenditures and that is not an individual 67193
or a political action committee, continuing association, campaign 67194
committee, political party, legislative campaign fund, designated 67195
state campaign committee, or state candidate fund. For purposes of 67196
this division, "lawfully" means not prohibited by any section of 67197
the Revised Code, or authorized by a final judgment of a court of 67198
competent jurisdiction. 67199

       Sec. 3517.10.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in this 67200
division, every campaign committee, political action committee, 67201
legislative campaign fund, political party, and political 67202
contributing entity that made or received a contribution or made 67203
an expenditure in connection with the nomination or election of 67204
any candidate or in connection with any ballot issue or question 67205
at any election held or to be held in this state shall file, on a 67206
form prescribed under this section or by electronic means of 67207
transmission as provided in this section and section 3517.106 of 67208
the Revised Code, a full, true, and itemized statement, made under 67209
penalty of election falsification, setting forth in detail the 67210
contributions and expenditures, not later than four p.m. of the 67211
following dates: 67212

       (1) The twelfth day before the election to reflect 67213
contributions received and expenditures made from the close of 67214
business on the last day reflected in the last previously filed 67215
statement, if any, to the close of business on the twentieth day 67216
before the election; 67217

       (2) The thirty-eighth day after the election to reflect the 67218
contributions received and expenditures made from the close of 67219
business on the last day reflected in the last previously filed 67220
statement, if any, to the close of business on the seventh day 67221
before the filing of the statement; 67222

       (3) The last business day of January of every year to reflect 67223
the contributions received and expenditures made from the close of 67224
business on the last day reflected in the last previously filed 67225
statement, if any, to the close of business on the last day of 67226
December of the previous year; 67227

       (4) The last business day of July of every year to reflect 67228
the contributions received and expenditures made from the close of 67229
business on the last day reflected in the last previously filed 67230
statement, if any, to the close of business on the last day of 67231
June of that year. 67232

       A campaign committee shall only be required to file the 67233
statements prescribed under divisions (A)(1) and (2) of this 67234
section in connection with the nomination or election of the 67235
committee's candidate. 67236

       The statement required under division (A)(1) of this section 67237
shall not be required of any campaign committee, political action 67238
committee, legislative campaign fund, political party, or 67239
political contributing entity that has received contributions of 67240
less than one thousand dollars and has made expenditures of less 67241
than one thousand dollars at the close of business on the 67242
twentieth day before the election. Those contributions and 67243
expenditures shall be reported in the statement required under 67244
division (A)(2) of this section. 67245

       If an election to select candidates to appear on the general 67246
election ballot is held within sixty days before a general 67247
election, the campaign committee of a successful candidate in the 67248
earlier election may file the statement required by division 67249
(A)(1) of this section for the general election instead of the 67250
statement required by division (A)(2) of this section for the 67251
earlier election if the pregeneral election statement reflects the 67252
status of contributions and expenditures for the period twenty 67253
days before the earlier election to twenty days before the general 67254
election. 67255

       If a person becomes a candidate less than twenty days before 67256
an election, the candidate's campaign committee is not required to 67257
file the statement required by division (A)(1) of this section. 67258

       No statement under division (A)(3) of this section shall be 67259
required for any year in which a campaign committee, political 67260
action committee, legislative campaign fund, political party, or 67261
political contributing entity is required to file a postgeneral 67262
election statement under division (A)(2) of this section. However, 67263
a statement under division (A)(3) of this section may be filed, at 67264
the option of the campaign committee, political action committee, 67265
legislative campaign fund, political party, or political 67266
contributing entity. 67267

       No campaign committee of a candidate for the office of chief 67268
justice or justice of the supreme court, and no campaign committee 67269
of a candidate for the office of judge of any court in this state, 67270
shall be required to file a statement under division (A)(4) of 67271
this section. 67272

       Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph and in the 67273
next paragraph of this section, the only campaign committees 67274
required to file a statement under division (A)(4) of this section 67275
are the campaign committee of a statewide candidate and the 67276
campaign committee of a candidate for county office. The campaign 67277
committee of a candidate for any other nonjudicial office is 67278
required to file a statement under division (A)(4) of this section 67279
if that campaign committee receives, during that period, 67280
contributions exceeding ten thousand dollars. 67281

       No statement under division (A)(4) of this section shall be 67282
required of a campaign committee, a political action committee, a 67283
legislative campaign fund, a political party, or a political 67284
contributing entity for any year in which the campaign committee, 67285
political action committee, legislative campaign fund, political 67286
party, or political contributing entity is required to file a 67287
postprimary election statement under division (A)(2) of this 67288
section. However, a statement under division (A)(4) of this 67289
section may be filed at the option of the campaign committee, 67290
political action committee, legislative campaign fund, political 67291
party, or political contributing entity. 67292

       No statement under division (A)(3) or (4) of this section 67293
shall be required if the campaign committee, political action 67294
committee, legislative campaign fund, political party, or 67295
political contributing entity has no contributions that it has 67296
received and no expenditures that it has made since the last date 67297
reflected in its last previously filed statement. However, the 67298
campaign committee, political action committee, legislative 67299
campaign fund, political party, or political contributing entity 67300
shall file a statement to that effect, on a form prescribed under 67301
this section and made under penalty of election falsification, on 67302
the date required in division (A)(3) or (4) of this section, as 67303
applicable. 67304

       The campaign committee of a statewide candidate shall file a 67305
monthly statement of contributions received during each of the 67306
months of July, August, and September in the year of the general 67307
election in which the candidate seeks office. The campaign 67308
committee of a statewide candidate shall file the monthly 67309
statement not later than three business days after the last day of 67310
the month covered by the statement. During the period beginning on 67311
the nineteenth day before the general election in which a 67312
statewide candidate seeks election to office and extending through 67313
the day of that general election, each time the campaign committee 67314
of the joint candidates for the offices of governor and lieutenant 67315
governor or of a candidate for the office of secretary of state, 67316
auditor of state, treasurer of state, or attorney general receives 67317
a contribution from a contributor that causes the aggregate amount 67318
of contributions received from that contributor during that period 67319
to equal or exceed ten thousand dollars and each time the campaign 67320
committee of a candidate for the office of chief justice or 67321
justice of the supreme court receives a contribution from a 67322
contributor that causes the aggregate amount of contributions 67323
received from that contributor during that period to exceed ten 67324
thousand dollars, the campaign committee shall file a 67325
two-business-day statement reflecting that contribution. During 67326
the period beginning on the nineteenth day before a primary 67327
election in which a candidate for statewide office seeks 67328
nomination to office and extending through the day of that primary 67329
election, each time either the campaign committee of a statewide 67330
candidate in that primary election that files a notice under 67331
division (C)(1) of section 3517.103 of the Revised Code or the 67332
campaign committee of a statewide candidate in that primary 67333
election to which, in accordance with division (D) of section 67334
3517.103 of the Revised Code, the contribution limitations 67335
prescribed in section 3517.102 of the Revised Code no longer apply 67336
receives a contribution from a contributor that causes the 67337
aggregate amount of contributions received from that contributor 67338
during that period to exceed ten thousand dollars, the campaign 67339
committee shall file a two-business-day statement reflecting that 67340
contribution. Contributions reported on a two-business-day 67341
statement required to be filed by a campaign committee of a 67342
statewide candidate in a primary election shall also be included 67343
in the postprimary election statement required to be filed by that 67344
campaign committee under division (A)(2) of this section. A 67345
two-business-day statement required by this paragraph shall be 67346
filed not later than two business days after receipt of the 67347
contribution. The statements required by this paragraph shall be 67348
filed in addition to any other statements required by this 67349
section. 67350

       Subject to the secretary of state having implemented, tested, 67351
and verified the successful operation of any system the secretary 67352
of state prescribes pursuant to divisions (C)(6)(b) and (D)(6) of 67353
this section and division (H)(1) of section 3517.106 of the 67354
Revised Code for the filing of campaign finance statements by 67355
electronic means of transmission, a campaign committee of a 67356
statewide candidate shall file a two-business-day statement under 67357
the preceding paragraph by electronic means of transmission if the 67358
campaign committee is required to file a pre-election, 67359
postelection, or monthly statement of contributions and 67360
expenditures by electronic means of transmission under this 67361
section or section 3517.106 of the Revised Code. 67362

       If a campaign committee or political action committee has no 67363
balance on hand and no outstanding obligations and desires to 67364
terminate itself, it shall file a statement to that effect, on a 67365
form prescribed under this section and made under penalty of 67366
election falsification, with the official with whom it files a 67367
statement under division (A) of this section after filing a final 67368
statement of contributions and a final statement of expenditures, 67369
if contributions have been received or expenditures made since the 67370
period reflected in its last previously filed statement. 67371

       (B) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(7) of this 67372
section, each statement required by division (A) of this section 67373
shall contain the following information: 67374

       (1) The full name and address of each campaign committee, 67375
political action committee, legislative campaign fund, political 67376
party, or political contributing entity, including any treasurer 67377
of the committee, fund, party, or entity, filing a contribution 67378
and expenditure statement; 67379

       (2)(a) In the case of a campaign committee, the candidate's 67380
full name and address; 67381

       (b) In the case of a political action committee, the 67382
registration number assigned to the committee under division 67383
(D)(1) of this section. 67384

       (3) The date of the election and whether it was or will be a 67385
general, primary, or special election; 67386

       (4) A statement of contributions received, which shall 67387
include the following information: 67388

       (a) The month, day, and year of the contribution; 67389

       (b)(i) The full name and address of each person, political 67390
party, campaign committee, legislative campaign fund, political 67391
action committee, or political contributing entity from whom 67392
contributions are received and the registration number assigned to 67393
the political action committee under division (D)(1) of this 67394
section. The requirement of filing the full address does not apply 67395
to any statement filed by a state or local committee of a 67396
political party, to a finance committee of such committee, or to a 67397
committee recognized by a state or local committee as its 67398
fund-raising auxiliary. Notwithstanding division (F) of this 67399
section, the requirement of filing the full address shall be 67400
considered as being met if the address filed is the same address 67401
the contributor provided under division (E)(1) of this section. 67402

       (ii) If a political action committee, political contributing 67403
entity, legislative campaign fund, or political party that is 67404
required to file campaign finance statements by electronic means 67405
of transmission under section 3517.106 of the Revised Code or a 67406
campaign committee of a statewide candidate or candidate for the 67407
office of member of the general assembly receives a contribution 67408
from an individual that exceeds one hundred dollars, the name of 67409
the individual's current employer, if any, or, if the individual 67410
is self-employed, the individual's occupation and the name of the 67411
individual's business, if any; 67412

       (iii) If a campaign committee of a statewide candidate or 67413
candidate for the office of member of the general assembly 67414
receives a contribution transmitted pursuant to section 3599.031 67415
of the Revised Code from amounts deducted from the wages and 67416
salaries of two or more employees that exceeds in the aggregate 67417
one hundred dollars during any one filing period under division 67418
(A)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of this section, the full name of the 67419
employees' employer and the full name of the labor organization of 67420
which the employees are members, if any. 67421

       (c) A description of the contribution received, if other than 67422
money; 67423

       (d) The value in dollars and cents of the contribution; 67424

       (e) A separately itemized account of all contributions and 67425
expenditures regardless of the amount, except a receipt of a 67426
contribution from a person in the sum of twenty-five dollars or 67427
less at one social or fund-raising activity and a receipt of a 67428
contribution transmitted pursuant to section 3599.031 of the 67429
Revised Code from amounts deducted from the wages and salaries of 67430
employees if the contribution from the amount deducted from the 67431
wages and salary of any one employee is twenty-five dollars or 67432
less aggregated in a calendar year. An account of the total 67433
contributions from each social or fund-raising activity shall 67434
include a description of and the value of each in-kind 67435
contribution received at that activity from any person who made 67436
one or more such contributions whose aggregate value exceeded two 67437
hundred fifty dollars and shall be listed separately, together 67438
with the expenses incurred and paid in connection with that 67439
activity. A campaign committee, political action committee, 67440
legislative campaign fund, political party, or political 67441
contributing entity shall keep records of contributions from each 67442
person in the amount of twenty-five dollars or less at one social 67443
or fund-raising activity and contributions from amounts deducted 67444
under section 3599.031 of the Revised Code from the wages and 67445
salary of each employee in the amount of twenty-five dollars or 67446
less aggregated in a calendar year. No continuing association that 67447
is recognized by a state or local committee of a political party 67448
as an auxiliary of the party and that makes a contribution from 67449
funds derived solely from regular dues paid by members of the 67450
auxiliary shall be required to list the name or address of any 67451
members who paid those dues. 67452

       Contributions that are other income shall be itemized 67453
separately from all other contributions. The information required 67454
under division (B)(4) of this section shall be provided for all 67455
other income itemized. As used in this paragraph, "other income" 67456
means a loan, investment income, or interest income. 67457

       (f) In the case of a campaign committee of a state elected 67458
officer, if a person doing business with the state elected officer 67459
in the officer's official capacity makes a contribution to the 67460
campaign committee of that officer, the information required under 67461
division (B)(4) of this section in regard to that contribution, 67462
which shall be filed together with and considered a part of the 67463
committee's statement of contributions as required under division 67464
(A) of this section but shall be filed on a separate form provided 67465
by the secretary of state. As used in this division: 67466

       (i) "State elected officer" has the same meaning as in 67467
section 3517.092 of the Revised Code. 67468

       (ii) "Person doing business" means a person or an officer of 67469
an entity who enters into one or more contracts with a state 67470
elected officer or anyone authorized to enter into contracts on 67471
behalf of that officer to receive payments for goods or services, 67472
if the payments total, in the aggregate, more than five thousand 67473
dollars during a calendar year. 67474

       (5) A statement of expenditures which shall include the 67475
following information: 67476

       (a) The month, day, and year of the expenditure; 67477

       (b) The full name and address of each person, political 67478
party, campaign committee, legislative campaign fund, political 67479
action committee, or political contributing entity to whom the 67480
expenditure was made and the registration number assigned to the 67481
political action committee under division (D)(1) of this section; 67482

       (c) The object or purpose for which the expenditure was made; 67483

       (d) The amount of each expenditure. 67484

       (C)(1) The statement of contributions and expenditures shall 67485
be signed by the person completing the form. If a statement of 67486
contributions and expenditures is filed by electronic means of 67487
transmission pursuant to this section or section 3517.106 of the 67488
Revised Code, the electronic signature of the person who executes 67489
the statement and transmits the statement by electronic means of 67490
transmission, as provided in division (H) of section 3517.106 of 67491
the Revised Code, shall be attached to or associated with the 67492
statement and shall be binding on all persons and for all purposes 67493
under the campaign finance reporting law as if the signature had 67494
been handwritten in ink on a printed form. 67495

       (2) The person filing the statement, under penalty of 67496
election falsification, shall include with it a list of each 67497
anonymous contribution, the circumstances under which it was 67498
received, and the reason it cannot be attributed to a specific 67499
donor. 67500

       (3) Each statement of a campaign committee of a candidate who 67501
holds public office shall contain a designation of each 67502
contributor who is an employee in any unit or department under the 67503
candidate's direct supervision and control. In a space provided in 67504
the statement, the person filing the statement shall affirm that 67505
each such contribution was voluntarily made. 67506

       (4) A campaign committee that did not receive contributions 67507
or make expenditures in connection with the nomination or election 67508
of its candidate shall file a statement to that effect, on a form 67509
prescribed under this section and made under penalty of election 67510
falsification, on the date required in division (A)(2) of this 67511
section. 67512

       (5) The campaign committee of any person who attempts to 67513
become a candidate and who, for any reason, does not become 67514
certified in accordance with Title XXXV of the Revised Code for 67515
placement on the official ballot of a primary, general, or special 67516
election to be held in this state, and who, at any time prior to 67517
or after an election, receives contributions or makes 67518
expenditures, or has given consent for another to receive 67519
contributions or make expenditures, for the purpose of bringing 67520
about the person's nomination or election to public office, shall 67521
file the statement or statements prescribed by this section and a 67522
termination statement, if applicable. Division (C)(5) of this 67523
section does not apply to any person with respect to an election 67524
to the offices of member of a county or state central committee, 67525
presidential elector, or delegate to a national convention or 67526
conference of a political party. 67527

       (6)(a) The statements required to be filed under this section 67528
shall specify the balance in the hands of the campaign committee, 67529
political action committee, legislative campaign fund, political 67530
party, or political contributing entity and the disposition 67531
intended to be made of that balance. 67532

       (b) The secretary of state shall prescribe the form for all 67533
statements required to be filed under this section and shall 67534
furnish the forms to the boards of elections in the several 67535
counties. The boards of elections shall supply printed copies of 67536
those forms without charge. The secretary of state shall prescribe 67537
the appropriate methodology, protocol, and data file structure for 67538
statements required or permitted to be filed by electronic means 67539
of transmission under division (A) of this section, divisions (E), 67540
(F), and (G) of section 3517.106, division (D) of section 67541
3517.1011, division (B) of section 3517.1012, division (C) of 67542
section 3517.1013, and divisions (D) and (I) of section 3517.1014 67543
of the Revised Code. Subject to division (A) of this section, 67544
divisions (E), (F), and (G) of section 3517.106, division (D) of 67545
section 3517.1011, division (B) of section 3517.1012, division (C) 67546
of section 3517.1013, and divisions (D) and (I) of section 67547
3517.1014 of the Revised Code, the statements required to be 67548
stored on computer by the secretary of state under division (B) of 67549
section 3517.106 of the Revised Code shall be filed in whatever 67550
format the secretary of state considers necessary to enable the 67551
secretary of state to store the information contained in the 67552
statements on computer. Any such format shall be of a type and 67553
nature that is readily available to whoever is required to file 67554
the statements in that format. 67555

       (c) The secretary of state shall assess the need for training 67556
regarding the filing of campaign finance statements by electronic 67557
means of transmission and regarding associated technologies for 67558
candidates, campaign committees, political action committees, 67559
legislative campaign funds, political parties, or political 67560
contributing entities, for individuals, partnerships, or other 67561
entities, for persons making disbursements to pay the direct costs 67562
of producing or airing electioneering communications, or for 67563
treasurers of transition funds, required or permitted to file 67564
statements by electronic means of transmission under this section 67565
or section 3517.105, 3517.106, 3517.1011, 3517.1012, 3517.1013, or 67566
3517.1014 of the Revised Code. If, in the opinion of the secretary 67567
of state, training in these areas is necessary, the secretary of 67568
state shall arrange for the provision of voluntary training 67569
programs for candidates, campaign committees, political action 67570
committees, legislative campaign funds, political parties, or 67571
political contributing entities, for individuals, partnerships, 67572
and other entities, for persons making disbursements to pay the 67573
direct costs of producing or airing electioneering communications, 67574
or for treasurers of transition funds, as appropriate. 67575

       (7) Each monthly statement and each two-business-day 67576
statement required by division (A) of this section shall contain 67577
the information required by divisions (B)(1) to (4), (C)(2), and, 67578
if appropriate, (C)(3) of this section. Each statement shall be 67579
signed as required by division (C)(1) of this section. 67580

       (D)(1) Prior to receiving a contribution or making an 67581
expenditure, every campaign committee, political action committee, 67582
legislative campaign fund, political party, or political 67583
contributing entity shall appoint a treasurer and shall file, on a 67584
form prescribed by the secretary of state, a designation of that 67585
appointment, including the full name and address of the treasurer 67586
and of the campaign committee, political action committee, 67587
legislative campaign fund, political party, or political 67588
contributing entity. That designation shall be filed with the 67589
official with whom the campaign committee, political action 67590
committee, legislative campaign fund, political party, or 67591
political contributing entity is required to file statements under 67592
section 3517.11 of the Revised Code. The name of a campaign 67593
committee shall include at least the last name of the campaign 67594
committee's candidate. If two or more candidates are the 67595
beneficiaries of a single campaign committee under division (B) of 67596
section 3517.081 of the Revised Code, the name of the campaign 67597
committee shall include at least the last name of each candidate 67598
who is a beneficiary of that campaign committee. The secretary of 67599
state shall assign a registration number to each political action 67600
committee that files a designation of the appointment of a 67601
treasurer under this division if the political action committee is 67602
required by division (A)(1) of section 3517.11 of the Revised Code 67603
to file the statements prescribed by this section with the 67604
secretary of state. 67605

       (2) The treasurer appointed under division (D)(1) of this 67606
section shall keep a strict account of all contributions, from 67607
whom received and the purpose for which they were disbursed. 67608

       (3)(a) Except as otherwise provided in section 3517.108 of 67609
the Revised Code, a campaign committee shall deposit all monetary 67610
contributions received by the committee into an account separate 67611
from a personal or business account of the candidate or campaign 67612
committee. 67613

       (b) A political action committee shall deposit all monetary 67614
contributions received by the committee into an account separate 67615
from all other funds. 67616

       (c) A state or county political party may establish a state 67617
candidate fund that is separate from an account that contains the 67618
public moneys received from the Ohio political party fund under 67619
section 3517.17 of the Revised Code and from all other funds. A 67620
state or county political party may deposit into its state 67621
candidate fund any amounts of monetary contributions that are made 67622
to or accepted by the political party subject to the applicable 67623
limitations, if any, prescribed in section 3517.102 of the Revised 67624
Code. A state or county political party shall deposit all other 67625
monetary contributions received by the party into one or more 67626
accounts that are separate from its state candidate fund and from 67627
its account that contains the public moneys received from the Ohio 67628
political party fund under section 3517.17 of the Revised Code. 67629

       (d) Each state political party shall have only one 67630
legislative campaign fund for each house of the general assembly. 67631
Each such fund shall be separate from any other funds or accounts 67632
of that state party. A legislative campaign fund is authorized to 67633
receive contributions and make expenditures for the primary 67634
purpose of furthering the election of candidates who are members 67635
of that political party to the house of the general assembly with 67636
which that legislative campaign fund is associated. Each 67637
legislative campaign fund shall be administered and controlled in 67638
a manner designated by the caucus. As used in this division, 67639
"caucus" has the same meaning as in section 3517.01 of the Revised 67640
Code and includes, as an ex officio member, the chairperson of the 67641
state political party with which the caucus is associated or that 67642
chairperson's designee. 67643

       (4) Every expenditure in excess of twenty-five dollars shall 67644
be vouched for by a receipted bill, stating the purpose of the 67645
expenditure, that shall be filed with the statement of 67646
expenditures. A canceled check with a notation of the purpose of 67647
the expenditure is a receipted bill for purposes of division 67648
(D)(4) of this section. 67649

       (5) The secretary of state or the board of elections, as the 67650
case may be, shall issue a receipt for each statement filed under 67651
this section and shall preserve a copy of the receipt for a period 67652
of at least six years. All statements filed under this section 67653
shall be open to public inspection in the office where they are 67654
filed and shall be carefully preserved for a period of at least 67655
six years after the year in which they are filed. 67656

       (6) The secretary of state, by rule adopted pursuant to 67657
section 3517.23 of the Revised Code, shall prescribe both of the 67658
following: 67659

       (a) The manner of immediately acknowledging, with date and 67660
time received, and preserving the receipt of statements that are 67661
transmitted by electronic means of transmission to the secretary 67662
of state pursuant to this section or section 3517.106, 3517.1011, 67663
3517.1012, 3517.1013, or 3517.1014 of the Revised Code; 67664

       (b) The manner of preserving the contribution and 67665
expenditure, contribution and disbursement, deposit and 67666
disbursement, gift and disbursement, or donation and disbursement 67667
information in the statements described in division (D)(6)(a) of 67668
this section. The secretary of state shall preserve the 67669
contribution and expenditure, contribution and disbursement, 67670
deposit and disbursement, gift and disbursement, or donation and 67671
disbursement information in those statements for at least ten 67672
years after the year in which they are filed by electronic means 67673
of transmission. 67674

       (7) The secretary of state, pursuant to division (I) of 67675
section 3517.106 of the Revised Code, shall make available online 67676
to the public through the internet the contribution and 67677
expenditure, contribution and disbursement, deposit and 67678
disbursement, gift and disbursement, or donation and disbursement 67679
information in all statements, all addenda, amendments, or other 67680
corrections to statements, and all amended statements filed with 67681
the secretary of state by electronic or other means of 67682
transmission under this section, division (B)(2)(b) or (C)(2)(b) 67683
of section 3517.105, or section 3517.106, 3517.1011, 3517.1012, 67684
3517.1013, 3517.1014, or 3517.11 of the Revised Code. The 67685
secretary of state may remove the information from the internet 67686
after a reasonable period of time. 67687

       (E)(1) Any person, political party, campaign committee, 67688
legislative campaign fund, political action committee, or 67689
political contributing entity that makes a contribution in 67690
connection with the nomination or election of any candidate or in 67691
connection with any ballot issue or question at any election held 67692
or to be held in this state shall provide its full name and 67693
address to the recipient of the contribution at the time the 67694
contribution is made. The political action committee also shall 67695
provide the registration number assigned to the committee under 67696
division (D)(1) of this section to the recipient of the 67697
contribution at the time the contribution is made. 67698

       (2) Any individual who makes a contribution that exceeds one 67699
hundred dollars to a political action committee, political 67700
contributing entity, legislative campaign fund, or political party 67701
or to a campaign committee of a statewide candidate or candidate 67702
for the office of member of the general assembly shall provide the 67703
name of the individual's current employer, if any, or, if the 67704
individual is self-employed, the individual's occupation and the 67705
name of the individual's business, if any, to the recipient of the 67706
contribution at the time the contribution is made. Sections 67707
3599.39 and 3599.40 of the Revised Code do not apply to division 67708
(E)(2) of this section. 67709

       (3) If a campaign committee shows that it has exercised its 67710
best efforts to obtain, maintain, and submit the information 67711
required under divisions (B)(4)(b)(ii) and (iii) of this section, 67712
that committee is considered to have met the requirements of those 67713
divisions. A campaign committee shall not be considered to have 67714
exercised its best efforts unless, in connection with written 67715
solicitations, it regularly includes a written request for the 67716
information required under division (B)(4)(b)(ii) of this section 67717
from the contributor or the information required under division 67718
(B)(4)(b)(iii) of this section from whoever transmits the 67719
contribution. 67720

       (4) Any check that a political action committee uses to make 67721
a contribution or an expenditure shall contain the full name and 67722
address of the committee and the registration number assigned to 67723
the committee under division (D)(1) of this section. 67724

       (F) As used in this section: 67725

       (1)(a) Except as otherwise provided in division (F)(1) of 67726
this section, "address" means all of the following if they exist: 67727
apartment number, street, road, or highway name and number, rural 67728
delivery route number, city or village, state, and zip code as 67729
used in a person's post-office address, but not post-office box. 67730

        (b) Except as otherwise provided in division (F)(1) of this 67731
section, if an address is required in this section, a post-office 67732
box and office, room, or suite number may be included in addition 67733
to, but not in lieu of, an apartment, street, road, or highway 67734
name and number. 67735

        (c) If an address is required in this section, a campaign 67736
committee, political action committee, legislative campaign fund, 67737
political party, or political contributing entity may use the 67738
business or residence address of its treasurer or deputy 67739
treasurer. The post-office box number of the campaign committee, 67740
political action committee, legislative campaign fund, political 67741
party, or political contributing entity may be used in addition to 67742
that address. 67743

       (d) For the sole purpose of a campaign committee's reporting 67744
of contributions on a statement of contributions received under 67745
division (B)(4) of this section, "address" has one of the 67746
following meanings at the option of the campaign committee: 67747

       (i) The same meaning as in division (F)(1)(a) of this 67748
section; 67749

       (ii) All of the following, if they exist: the contributor's 67750
post-office box number and city or village, state, and zip code as 67751
used in the contributor's post-office address. 67752

       (e) As used with regard to the reporting under this section 67753
of any expenditure, "address" means all of the following if they 67754
exist: apartment number, street, road, or highway name and number, 67755
rural delivery route number, city or village, state, and zip code 67756
as used in a person's post-office address, or post-office box. If 67757
an address concerning any expenditure is required in this section, 67758
a campaign committee, political action committee, legislative 67759
campaign fund, political party, or political contributing entity 67760
may use the business or residence address of its treasurer or 67761
deputy treasurer or its post-office box number. 67762

       (2) "Statewide candidate" means the joint candidates for the 67763
offices of governor and lieutenant governor or a candidate for the 67764
office of secretary of state, auditor of state, treasurer of 67765
state, attorney general, member of the state board of education, 67766
chief justice of the supreme court, or justice of the supreme 67767
court. 67768

       (3) "Candidate for county office" means a candidate for the 67769
office of county auditor, county treasurer, clerk of the court of 67770
common pleas, judge of the court of common pleas, sheriff, county 67771
recorder, county engineer, county commissioner, prosecuting 67772
attorney, or coroner. 67773

       (G) An independent expenditure shall be reported whenever and 67774
in the same manner that an expenditure is required to be reported 67775
under this section and shall be reported pursuant to division 67776
(B)(2)(a) or (C)(2)(a) of section 3517.105 of the Revised Code. 67777

       (H)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (H)(2) of 67778
this section, if, during the combined pre-election and 67779
postelection reporting periods for an election, a campaign 67780
committee has received contributions of five hundred dollars or 67781
less and has made expenditures in the total amount of five hundred 67782
dollars or less, it may file a statement to that effect, under 67783
penalty of election falsification, in lieu of the statement 67784
required by division (A)(2) of this section. The statement shall 67785
indicate the total amount of contributions received and the total 67786
amount of expenditures made during those combined reporting 67787
periods. 67788

       (2) In the case of a successful candidate at a primary 67789
election, if either the total contributions received by or the 67790
total expenditures made by the candidate's campaign committee 67791
during the preprimary, postprimary, pregeneral, and postgeneral 67792
election periods combined equal more than five hundred dollars, 67793
the campaign committee may file the statement under division 67794
(H)(1) of this section only for the primary election. The first 67795
statement that the campaign committee files in regard to the 67796
general election shall reflect all contributions received and all 67797
expenditures made during the preprimary and postprimary election 67798
periods. 67799

       (3) Divisions (H)(1) and (2) of this section do not apply if 67800
a campaign committee receives contributions or makes expenditures 67801
prior to the first day of January of the year of the election at 67802
which the candidate seeks nomination or election to office or if 67803
the campaign committee does not file a termination statement with 67804
its postprimary election statement in the case of an unsuccessful 67805
primary election candidate or with its postgeneral election 67806
statement in the case of other candidates. 67807

       (I) In the case of a contribution made by a partner of a 67808
partnership or an owner or a member of another unincorporated 67809
business from any funds of the partnership or other unincorporated 67810
business, all of the following apply: 67811

       (1) The recipient of the contribution shall report the 67812
contribution by listing both the partnership or other 67813
unincorporated business and the name of the partner, owner, or 67814
member making the contribution. 67815

       (2) In reporting the contribution, the recipient of the 67816
contribution shall be entitled to conclusively rely upon the 67817
information provided by the partnership or other unincorporated 67818
business, provided that the information includes one of the 67819
following: 67820

       (a) The name of each partner, owner, or member as of the date 67821
of the contribution or contributions, and a statement that the 67822
total contributions are to be allocated equally among all of the 67823
partners, owners, or members; or 67824

       (b) The name of each partner, owner, or member as of the date 67825
of the contribution or contributions who is participating in the 67826
contribution or contributions, and a statement that the 67827
contribution or contributions are to be allocated to those 67828
individuals in accordance with the information provided by the 67829
partnership or other unincorporated business to the recipient of 67830
the contribution. 67831

       (3) For purposes of section 3517.102 of the Revised Code, the 67832
contribution shall be considered to have been made by the partner, 67833
owner, or member reported under division (I)(1) of this section. 67834

       (4) No contribution from a partner of a partnership or an 67835
owner or a member of another unincorporated business shall be 67836
accepted from any funds of the partnership or other unincorporated 67837
business unless the recipient reports the contribution under 67838
division (I)(1) of this section together with the information 67839
provided under division (I)(2) of this section. 67840

       (5) No partnership or other unincorporated business shall 67841
make a contribution or contributions solely in the name of the 67842
partnership or other unincorporated business. 67843

       (6) As used in division (I) of this section, "partnership or 67844
other unincorporated business" includes, but is not limited to, a 67845
cooperative, a sole proprietorship, a general partnership, a 67846
limited partnership, a limited partnership association, a limited 67847
liability partnership, and a limited liability company. 67848

       (J) A candidate shall have only one campaign committee at any 67849
given time for all of the offices for which the person is a 67850
candidate or holds office. 67851

       (K)(1) In addition to filing a designation of appointment of 67852
a treasurer under division (D)(1) of this section, the campaign 67853
committee of any candidate for an elected municipal office that 67854
pays an annual amount of compensation of five thousand dollars or 67855
less, the campaign committee of any candidate for member of a 67856
board of education except member of the state board of education, 67857
or the campaign committee of any candidate for township trustee or 67858
township fiscal officer may sign, under penalty of election 67859
falsification, a certificate attesting that the committee will not 67860
accept contributions during an election period that exceed in the 67861
aggregate two thousand dollars from all contributors and one 67862
hundred dollars from any one individual, and that the campaign 67863
committee will not make expenditures during an election period 67864
that exceed in the aggregate two thousand dollars. 67865

       The certificate shall be on a form prescribed by the 67866
secretary of state and shall be filed not later than ten days 67867
after the candidate files a declaration of candidacy and petition, 67868
a nominating petition, or a declaration of intent to be a write-in 67869
candidate. 67870

       (2) Except as otherwise provided in division (K)(3) of this 67871
section, a campaign committee that files a certificate under 67872
division (K)(1) of this section is not required to file the 67873
statements required by division (A) of this section. 67874

       (3) If, after filing a certificate under division (K)(1) of 67875
this section, a campaign committee exceeds any of the limitations 67876
described in that division during an election period, the 67877
certificate is void and thereafter the campaign committee shall 67878
file the statements required by division (A) of this section. If 67879
the campaign committee has not previously filed a statement, then 67880
on the first statement the campaign committee is required to file 67881
under division (A) of this section after the committee's 67882
certificate is void, the committee shall report all contributions 67883
received and expenditures made from the time the candidate filed 67884
the candidate's declaration of candidacy and petition, nominating 67885
petition, or declaration of intent to be a write-in candidate. 67886

       (4) As used in division (K) of this section, "election 67887
period" means the period of time beginning on the day a person 67888
files a declaration of candidacy and petition, nominating 67889
petition, or declaration of intent to be a write-in candidate 67890
through the day of the election at which the person seeks 67891
nomination to office if the person is not elected to office, or, 67892
if the candidate was nominated in a primary election, the day of 67893
the election at which the candidate seeks office. 67894

       (L) A political contributing entity that receives 67895
contributions from the dues, membership fees, or other assessments 67896
of its members or from its officers, shareholders, and employees 67897
may report the aggregate amount of contributions received from 67898
those contributors and the number of individuals making those 67899
contributions, for each filing period under divisions (A)(1), (2), 67900
(3), and (4) of this section, rather than reporting information as 67901
required under division (B)(4) of this section, including, when 67902
applicable, the name of the current employer, if any, of a 67903
contributor whose contribution exceeds one hundred dollars or, if 67904
such a contributor is self-employed, the contributor's occupation 67905
and the name of the contributor's business, if any. Division 67906
(B)(4) of this section applies to a political contributing entity 67907
with regard to contributions it receives from all other 67908
contributors. 67909

       Sec. 3517.101.  (A) As used in this section:67910

       (1) "Gift" means a gift, subscription, loan, advance, or 67911
deposit of money or anything of value, given to a state or county 67912
political partyan entity described in division (C) of this 67913
section, that is specifically designated and used to defray any 67914
cost incurred on or after the effective date of this section67915
amendment for any of the construction, renovation, or purchase of 67916
any office facility that is not used solely for the purpose of 67917
directly influencing the election of any individual candidate in 67918
any particular election for any officefollowing purposes:67919

       (a) The construction, renovation, purchase, or lease of an 67920
office facility;67921

       (b) Furniture and fixtures to be installed in an office 67922
facility;67923

       (c) Equipment and supplies to be used in an office facility;67924

       (d) The operating costs, maintenance, and repair of an office 67925
facility.67926

       (2) "Address" has the meaning given in division (F) of 67927
section 3517.10 of the Revised Code.67928

       (3) "Political party" means only a major political party.67929

       (B) Any person, including a corporation engaged in business 67930
in this state but not including a public utility, may make a gift 67931
to a state or county political partyan entity described in 67932
division (C) of this section if the gift is specifically 67933
designated and used to defray any cost incurred on or after the 67934
effective date of this sectionamendment for the construction, 67935
renovation, or purchase of any office facility that is not used 67936
solely for the purpose of directly influencing the election of any 67937
individual candidate in any particular election for any office 67938
and, if itpurposes described in division (A)(1) of this section. 67939
If the gift is a gift of money from a corporation engaged in 67940
business in this state, if the gift doesshall not exceed ten per 67941
cent of the cost of the construction, renovation, or purchase67942
costs incurred for those purposes. Such gift shall not be 67943
considered a contribution or expenditure prohibited by any section 67944
of the Revised Code.67945

       (C) Any of the following entities may receive a gift under 67946
this section:67947

       (1) A state political party;67948

       (2) A county political party;67949

       (3) A legislative campaign fund.67950

       (D)(1) Each state or county political partyentity that 67951
receives a gift pursuant to this section shall file on a form 67952
prescribed by the secretary of state, a full, true, and itemized 67953
statement describing the gift received and how it was disbursed. 67954
The statement shall be made under penalty of election 67955
falsification and shall be filed not later than four p.m. of the 67956
last day of January of every year to reflect gifts received and 67957
disbursed during the immediately preceding calendar year.67958

       (2) Each statement required under division (C)(D)(1) of this 67959
section shall contain all of the following information:67960

       (a) The full name and address of the state or county 67961
political partyentity filing the statement, including its 67962
treasurer;67963

       (b) A description of each gift received, which shall include:67964

       (i) The month, day, and year on which the gift was received;67965

       (ii) The full name and address of each person from whom or 67966
from which the gift was received;67967

       (iii) The nature of the gift, if other than money;67968

       (iv) The value of the gift in dollars and cents.67969

       Each gift received shall be itemized separately regardless of 67970
its amount or value.67971

       (c) An itemization of how each gift was disbursed;67972

       (d) The total value of gifts received and gifts disbursed 67973
during each reporting period;67974

       (e) The total cost ofcosts incurred for the construction, 67975
renovation, or purchase of any office facilitypurposes for which 67976
a gift is used.67977

       (D)(E)(1) All monetary gifts and all income from the lease or 67978
rental of an office facility for which a gift is used shall be 67979
deposited in an account separate from other funds and maintained 67980
in that separate account. Except as provided in division (D)(2) of 67981
this section, moneysMoneys in the account shall be used only for 67982
the construction, renovation, or purchase of an office facility as67983
purposes described in division (B)(A)(1) of this section.67984

       (2) Any moneys remaining in an account under division (D)(1) 67985
of this section after the construction, renovation, or purchase of 67986
an office facility shall be used only for the maintenance and 67987
repair of the facility or for the construction, renovation, or 67988
purchase of another office facility as described in division (B) 67989
of this section and shall not be used for operating costs of the 67990
facility or for any other purpose.67991

       (3) When a state or county political partyan entity 67992
described in division (C) of this section sells an office facility 67993
that was constructed, renovated, or purchased in whole or in part 67994
from monetary gifts or sells furniture, fixtures, equipment, or 67995
supplies that were purchased in whole or in part from monetary 67996
gifts, the partyentity shall deposit in the account under 67997
division (D)(E)(1) of this section an amount that is the same 67998
percentage of the total proceeds of the sale as the monetary gifts 67999
used in the construction, renovation, or purchase of the facility68000
were of the total cost of that construction, renovation, or 68001
purchasethose goods or services. Proceeds deposited in the 68002
account shall be used only for the construction, renovation, or 68003
purchase of another office facility aspurposes described in 68004
division (B)(A)(1) of this section.68005

       (E)(F) A state political party or a legislative campaign fund68006
shall file a statement required under this section with the 68007
secretary of state and a county political party shall file a 68008
statement required under this section with the board of elections 68009
of the county in which the party is located.68010

       (F)(G)(1) No state or county political partyentity shall 68011
fail to file a statement required to be filed under this section.68012

       (2) No state or county political partyentity shall knowingly 68013
fail to report, or shall knowingly misrepresent, a gift required 68014
to be reported on a statement required to be filed under this 68015
section.68016

       (G)(H) No state or county political partyentity shall expend 68017
or use a gift for a purpose other than to defray any cost incurred 68018
on or after the effective date of this section for the 68019
construction, renovation, or purchase of an office facility asthe 68020
purposes described in division (B)(A)(1) of this section or for 68021
the maintenance and repair of such a facility as provided in 68022
division (D)(2) of this section.68023

       (H)(I) Prior to receiving any gift under this section, every68024
political partyentity shall appoint a treasurer and file, on a 68025
form prescribed by the secretary of state, a designation of the 68026
appointment, including the full name and address of the political 68027
partyentity. The designation shall be filed with the official 68028
with whom the political partyentity is required to file 68029
statements under division (E) of this section. The treasurer shall 68030
keep a strict account of all gifts required to be reported under 68031
this section. The secretary of state or board of elections, as the 68032
case may be, shall, if requested, issue a receipt for each 68033
statement filed under this section and preserve a record of the 68034
filing for at least six years. All such statements shall be open 68035
to public inspection in the office where they are filed, and shall 68036
be carefully preserved for a period of at least six years after 68037
the year in which they are filed.68038

       Sec. 3517.102.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in section 68039
3517.103 of the Revised Code, as used in this section and sections 68040
3517.103 and 3517.104 of the Revised Code:68041

       (1) "Candidate" has the same meaning as in section 3517.01 of 68042
the Revised Code but includes only candidates for the offices of 68043
governor, lieutenant governor, secretary of state, auditor of 68044
state, treasurer of state, attorney general, member of the state 68045
board of education, member of the general assembly, chief justice 68046
of the supreme court, and justice of the supreme court.68047

       (2) "Statewide candidate" or "any one statewide candidate" 68048
means the joint candidates for the offices of governor and 68049
lieutenant governor or a candidate for the office of secretary of 68050
state, auditor of state, treasurer of state, attorney general, 68051
member of the state board of education, chief justice of the 68052
supreme court, or justice of the supreme court.68053

       (3) "Senate candidate" means a candidate for the office of 68054
state senator.68055

       (4) "House candidate" means a candidate for the office of 68056
state representative.68057

       (5)(a) "Primary election period" for a candidate begins on 68058
the beginning date of the candidate's pre-filing period specified 68059
in division (A)(9) of section 3517.109 of the Revised Code and 68060
ends on the day of the primary election.68061

       (b) In regard to any candidate, the "general election period" 68062
begins on the day after the primary election immediately preceding 68063
the general election at which the candidate seeks an office 68064
specified in division (A)(1) of this section and ends on the 68065
thirty-first day of December following that general election.68066

       (6) "State candidate fund" means the state candidate fund 68067
established by a state or county political party under division 68068
(D)(3)(c) of section 3517.10 of the Revised Code.68069

       (7) "Postgeneral election statement" means the statement 68070
filed under division (A)(2) of section 3517.10 of the Revised Code 68071
by the campaign committee of a candidate after the general 68072
election in which the candidate ran for office or filed by 68073
legislative campaign fund after the general election in an 68074
even-numbered year.68075

       (8) "Contribution" means any contribution that is required to 68076
be reported in the statement of contributions under section 68077
3517.10 of the Revised Code.68078

       (9)(a) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(9)(b) of 68079
this section and in division (F) of section 3517.103 and division 68080
(B)(3)(b) of section 3517.1010 of the Revised Code, "designated 68081
state campaign committee" means:68082

       (i) In the case of contributions to or from a state political 68083
party, a campaign committee of a statewide candidate, statewide 68084
officeholder, senate candidate, house candidate, or member of the 68085
general assembly.68086

       (ii) In the case of contributions to or from a county 68087
political party, a campaign committee of a senate candidate or 68088
house candidate whose candidacy is to be submitted to some or all 68089
of the electors in that county, or member of the general assembly 68090
whose district contains all or part of that county.68091

       (iii) In the case of contributions to or from a legislative 68092
campaign fund, a campaign committee of any of the following:68093

       (I) A senate or house candidate who, if elected, will be a 68094
member of the same party that established the legislative campaign 68095
fund and the same house with which the legislative campaign fund 68096
is associated;68097

       (II) A state senator or state representative who is a member 68098
of the same party that established the legislative campaign fund 68099
and the same house with which the legislative campaign fund is 68100
associated.68101

       (b) A campaign committee is no longer a "designated state 68102
campaign committee" after the campaign committee's candidate 68103
changes the designation of treasurer required to be filed under 68104
division (D)(1) of section 3517.10 of the Revised Code to indicate 68105
that the person intends to be a candidate for, or becomes a 68106
candidate for nomination or election to, any office that, if 68107
elected, would not qualify that candidate's campaign committee as 68108
a "designated state campaign committee" under division (A)(9)(a) 68109
of this section.68110

       (B)(1)(a) No individual who is seven years of age or older 68111
shall make a contribution or contributions aggregating more than:68112

        (i) Ten thousand dollars to the campaign committee of any one 68113
statewide candidate in a primary election period or in a general 68114
election period;68115

        (ii) Ten thousand dollars to the campaign committee of any 68116
one senate candidate in a primary election period or in a general 68117
election period;68118

        (iii) Ten thousand dollars to the campaign committee of any 68119
one house candidate in a primary election period or in a general 68120
election period;68121

        (iv) Ten thousand dollars to a county political party of the 68122
county in which the individual's designated Ohio residence is 68123
located for the party's state candidate fund in a calendar year; 68124

       (v) Fifteen thousand dollars to any one legislative campaign 68125
fund in a calendar year;68126

        (vi) Thirty thousand dollars to any one state political party 68127
for the party's state candidate fund in a calendar year;68128

        (vii) Ten thousand dollars to any one political action 68129
committee in a calendar year;68130

       (viii) Ten thousand dollars to any one political contributing 68131
entity in a calendar year.68132

       (b) No individual shall make a contribution or contributions 68133
to the state candidate fund of a county political party of any 68134
county other than the county in which the individual's designated 68135
Ohio residence is located.68136

       (c) No individual who is under seven years of age shall make 68137
any contribution.68138

       (2)(a) Subject to division (D)(1) of this section, no 68139
political action committee shall make a contribution or 68140
contributions aggregating more than:68141

        (i) Ten thousand dollars to the campaign committee of any one 68142
statewide candidate in a primary election period or in a general 68143
election period;68144

        (ii) Ten thousand dollars to the campaign committee of any 68145
one senate candidate in a primary election period or in a general 68146
election period;68147

        (iii) Ten thousand dollars to the campaign committee of any 68148
one house candidate in a primary election period or in a general 68149
election period;68150

        (iv) Fifteen thousand dollars to any one legislative campaign 68151
fund in a calendar year;68152

        (v) Thirty thousand dollars to any one state political party 68153
for the party's state candidate fund in a calendar year;68154

        (vi) Ten thousand dollars to another political action 68155
committee or to a political contributing entity in a calendar 68156
year. This division does not apply to a political action committee 68157
that makes a contribution to a political action committee or a 68158
political contributing entity affiliated with it. For purposes of 68159
this division, a political action committee is affiliated with 68160
another political action committee or with a political 68161
contributing entity if they are both established, financed, 68162
maintained, or controlled by, or if they are, the same 68163
corporation, organization, labor organization, continuing 68164
association, or other person, including any parent, subsidiary, 68165
division, or department of that corporation, organization, labor 68166
organization, continuing association, or other person.68167

       (b) No political action committee shall make a contribution 68168
or contributions to a county political party for the party's state 68169
candidate fund.68170

       (3) No campaign committee shall make a contribution or 68171
contributions aggregating more than:68172

       (a) Ten thousand dollars to the campaign committee of any one 68173
statewide candidate in a primary election period or in a general 68174
election period;68175

       (b) Ten thousand dollars to the campaign committee of any one 68176
senate candidate in a primary election period or in a general 68177
election period;68178

       (c) Ten thousand dollars to the campaign committee of any one 68179
house candidate in a primary election period or in a general 68180
election period;68181

       (d) Ten thousand dollars to any one political action 68182
committee in a calendar year;68183

       (e) Ten thousand dollars to any one political contributing 68184
entity in a calendar year.68185

       (4)(a) Subject to division (D)(3) of this section, no 68186
political party shall make a contribution or contributions 68187
aggregating more than ten thousand dollars to any one political 68188
action committee or to any one political contributing entity in a 68189
calendar year.68190

       (b) No county political party shall make a contribution or 68191
contributions to another county political party.68192

       (5)(a) Subject to division (B)(5)(b) of this section, no 68193
campaign committee, other than a designated state campaign 68194
committee, shall make a contribution or contributions aggregating 68195
in a calendar year more than:68196

        (i) Thirty thousand dollars to any one state political party 68197
for the party's state candidate fund;68198

        (ii) Fifteen thousand dollars to any one legislative campaign 68199
fund;68200

        (iii) Ten thousand dollars to any one county political party 68201
for the party's state candidate fund.68202

       (b) No campaign committee shall make a contribution or 68203
contributions to a county political party for the party's state 68204
candidate fund unless one of the following applies:68205

       (i) The campaign committee's candidate will appear on a 68206
ballot in that county.68207

       (ii) The campaign committee's candidate is the holder of an 68208
elected public office that represents all or part of the 68209
population of that county at the time the contribution is made.68210

       (6)(a) No state candidate fund of a county political party 68211
shall make a contribution or contributions, except a contribution 68212
or contributions to a designated state campaign committee, in a 68213
primary election period or a general election period, aggregating 68214
more than:68215

       (i) Two hundred fifty thousand dollars to the campaign 68216
committee of any one statewide candidate;68217

       (ii) Ten thousand dollars to the campaign committee of any 68218
one senate candidate;68219

        (iii) Ten thousand dollars to the campaign committee of any 68220
one house candidate.68221

       (b)(i) No state candidate fund of a state or county political 68222
party shall make a transfer or a contribution or transfers or 68223
contributions of cash or cash equivalents to a designated state 68224
campaign committee in a primary election period or in a general 68225
election period aggregating more than:68226

       (I) Five hundred thousand dollars to the campaign committee 68227
of any one statewide candidate;68228

       (II) One hundred thousand dollars to the campaign committee 68229
of any one senate candidate;68230

       (III) Fifty thousand dollars to the campaign committee of any 68231
one house candidate.68232

       (ii) No legislative campaign fund shall make a transfer or a 68233
contribution or transfers or contributions of cash or cash 68234
equivalents to a designated state campaign committee aggregating 68235
more than:68236

       (I) Fifty thousand dollars in a primary election period or 68237
one hundred thousand dollars in a general election period to the 68238
campaign committee of any one senate candidate;68239

       (II) Twenty-five thousand dollars in a primary election 68240
period or fifty thousand dollars in a general election period to 68241
the campaign committee of any one house candidate.68242

       (iii) As used in divisions (B)(6)(b) and (C)(6) of this 68243
section, "transfer or contribution of cash or cash equivalents" 68244
does not include any in-kind contributions.68245

       (c) A county political party that has no state candidate fund 68246
and that is located in a county having a population of less than 68247
one hundred fifty thousand may make one or more contributions from 68248
other accounts to any one statewide candidate or to any one 68249
designated state campaign committee that do not exceed, in the 68250
aggregate, two thousand five hundred dollars in any primary 68251
election period or general election period. As used in this 68252
division, "other accounts" does not include an account that 68253
contains the public moneys received from the Ohio political party 68254
fund under section 3517.17 of the Revised Code.68255

       (d) No legislative campaign fund shall make a contribution, 68256
other than to a designated state campaign committee or to the 68257
state candidate fund of a political party.68258

       (7)(a) Subject to division (D)(1) of this section, no 68259
political contributing entity shall make a contribution or 68260
contributions aggregating more than:68261

        (i) Ten thousand dollars to the campaign committee of any one 68262
statewide candidate in a primary election period or in a general 68263
election period;68264

        (ii) Ten thousand dollars to the campaign committee of any 68265
one senate candidate in a primary election period or in a general 68266
election period;68267

        (iii) Ten thousand dollars to the campaign committee of any 68268
one house candidate in a primary election period or in a general 68269
election period;68270

        (iv) Fifteen thousand dollars to any one legislative campaign 68271
fund in a calendar year;68272

        (v) Thirty thousand dollars to any one state political party 68273
for the party's state candidate fund in a calendar year;68274

        (vi) Ten thousand dollars to another political contributing 68275
entity or to a political action committee in a calendar year. This 68276
division does not apply to a political contributing entity that 68277
makes a contribution to a political contributing entity or a 68278
political action committee affiliated with it. For purposes of 68279
this division, a political contributing entity is affiliated with 68280
another political contributing entity or with a political action 68281
committee if they are both established, financed, maintained, or 68282
controlled by, or if they are, the same corporation, organization, 68283
labor organization, continuing association, or other person, 68284
including any parent, subsidiary, division, or department of that 68285
corporation, organization, labor organization, continuing 68286
association, or other person.68287

       (b) No political contributing entity shall make a 68288
contribution or contributions to a county political party for the 68289
party's state candidate fund.68290

       (C)(1)(a) Subject to division (D)(1) of this section, no 68291
campaign committee of a statewide candidate shall do any of the 68292
following:68293

       (i) Knowingly accept a contribution or contributions from any 68294
individual who is under seven years of age;68295

       (ii) Accept a contribution or contributions aggregating more 68296
than ten thousand dollars from any one individual who is seven 68297
years of age or older, from any one political action committee, 68298
from any one political contributing entity, or from any one other 68299
campaign committee in a primary election period or in a general 68300
election period;68301

       (iii) Accept a contribution or contributions aggregating more 68302
than two hundred fifty thousand dollars from any one or 68303
combination of state candidate funds of county political parties 68304
in a primary election period or in a general election period.68305

       (b) No campaign committee of a statewide candidate shall 68306
accept a contribution or contributions aggregating more than two 68307
thousand five hundred dollars in a primary election period or in a 68308
general election period from a county political party that has no 68309
state candidate fund and that is located in a county having a 68310
population of less than one hundred fifty thousand.68311

       (2)(a) Subject to division (D)(1) of this section and except 68312
for a designated state campaign committee, no campaign committee 68313
of a senate candidate shall do either of the following:68314

       (i) Knowingly accept a contribution or contributions from any 68315
individual who is under seven years of age;68316

       (ii) Accept a contribution or contributions aggregating more 68317
than ten thousand dollars from any one individual who is seven 68318
years of age or older, from any one political action committee, 68319
from any one political contributing entity, from any one state 68320
candidate fund of a county political party, or from any one other 68321
campaign committee in a primary election period or in a general 68322
election period.68323

       (b) No campaign committee of a senate candidate shall accept 68324
a contribution or contributions aggregating more than two thousand 68325
five hundred dollars in a primary election period or in a general 68326
election period from a county political party that has no state 68327
candidate fund and that is located in a county having a population 68328
of less than one hundred fifty thousand.68329

       (3)(a) Subject to division (D)(1) of this section and except 68330
for a designated state campaign committee, no campaign committee 68331
of a house candidate shall do either of the following:68332

       (i) Knowingly accept a contribution or contributions from any 68333
individual who is under seven years of age;68334

       (ii) Accept a contribution or contributions aggregating more 68335
than ten thousand dollars from any one individual who is seven 68336
years of age or older, from any one political action committee, 68337
from any one political contributing entity, from any one state 68338
candidate fund of a county political party, or from any one other 68339
campaign committee in a primary election period or in a general 68340
election period.68341

       (b) No campaign committee of a house candidate shall accept a 68342
contribution or contributions aggregating more than two thousand 68343
five hundred dollars in a primary election period or in a general 68344
election period from a county political party that has no state 68345
candidate fund and that is located in a county having a population 68346
of less than one hundred fifty thousand.68347

       (4)(a)(i) Subject to division (C)(4)(a)(ii) of this section 68348
and except for a designated state campaign committee, no county 68349
political party shall knowingly accept a contribution or 68350
contributions from any individual who is under seven years of age, 68351
or accept a contribution or contributions for the party's state 68352
candidate fund aggregating more than ten thousand dollars from any 68353
one individual whose designated Ohio residence is located within 68354
that county and who is seven years of age or older or from any one 68355
campaign committee in a calendar year.68356

       (ii) Subject to division (D)(1) of this section, no county 68357
political party shall accept a contribution or contributions for 68358
the party's state candidate fund from any individual whose 68359
designated Ohio residence is located outside of that county and 68360
who is seven years of age or older, from any campaign committee 68361
unless the campaign committee's candidate will appear on a ballot 68362
in that county or unless the campaign committee's candidate is the 68363
holder of an elected public office that represents all or part of 68364
the population of that county at the time the contribution is 68365
accepted, or from any political action committee or any political 68366
contributing entity.68367

       (iii) No county political party shall accept a contribution 68368
or contributions from any other county political party.68369

       (b) Subject to division (D)(1) of this section, no state 68370
political party shall do either of the following:68371

       (i) Knowingly accept a contribution or contributions from any 68372
individual who is under seven years of age;68373

        (ii) Accept a contribution or contributions for the party's 68374
state candidate fund aggregating more than thirty thousand dollars 68375
from any one individual who is seven years of age or older, from 68376
any one political action committee, from any one political 68377
contributing entity, or from any one campaign committee, other 68378
than a designated state campaign committee, in a calendar year.68379

       (5) Subject to division (D)(1) of this section, no 68380
legislative campaign fund shall do either of the following:68381

       (a) Knowingly accept a contribution or contributions from any 68382
individual who is under seven years of age;68383

        (b) Accept a contribution or contributions aggregating more 68384
than fifteen thousand dollars from any one individual who is seven 68385
years of age or older, from any one political action committee, 68386
from any one political contributing entity, or from any one 68387
campaign committee, other than a designated state campaign 68388
committee, in a calendar year.68389

       (6)(a) No designated state campaign committee shall accept a 68390
transfer or contribution of cash or cash equivalents from a state 68391
candidate fund of a state political party aggregating in a primary 68392
election period or a general election period more than:68393

       (i) Five hundred thousand dollars, in the case of a campaign 68394
committee of a statewide candidate;68395

       (ii) One hundred thousand dollars, in the case of a campaign 68396
committee of a senate candidate;68397

       (iii) Fifty thousand dollars, in the case of a campaign 68398
committee of a house candidate.68399

       (b) No designated state campaign committee shall accept a 68400
transfer or contribution of cash or cash equivalents from a 68401
legislative campaign fund aggregating more than:68402

       (i) Fifty thousand dollars in a primary election period or 68403
one hundred thousand dollars in a general election period, in the 68404
case of a campaign committee of a senate candidate;68405

       (ii) Twenty-five thousand dollars in a primary election 68406
period or fifty thousand dollars in a general election period, in 68407
the case of a campaign committee of a house candidate.68408

       (c) No campaign committee of a candidate for the office of 68409
member of the general assembly, including a designated state 68410
campaign committee, shall accept a transfer or contribution of 68411
cash or cash equivalents from any one or combination of state 68412
candidate funds of county political parties aggregating in a 68413
primary election period or a general election period more than:68414

       (i) One hundred thousand dollars, in the case of a campaign 68415
committee of a senate candidate;68416

       (ii) Fifty thousand dollars, in the case of a campaign 68417
committee of a house candidate.68418

       (7)(a) Subject to division (D)(3) of this section, no 68419
political action committee and no political contributing entity 68420
shall do either of the following:68421

       (i) Knowingly accept a contribution or contributions from any 68422
individual who is under seven years of age;68423

        (ii) Accept a contribution or contributions aggregating more 68424
than ten thousand dollars from any one individual who is seven 68425
years of age or older, from any one campaign committee, or from 68426
any one political party in a calendar year.68427

       (b) Subject to division (D)(1) of this section, no political 68428
action committee shall accept a contribution or contributions 68429
aggregating more than ten thousand dollars from another political 68430
action committee or from a political contributing entity in a 68431
calendar year. Subject to division (D)(1) of this section, no 68432
political contributing entity shall accept a contribution or 68433
contributions aggregating more than ten thousand dollars from 68434
another political contributing entity or from a political action 68435
committee in a calendar year. This division does not apply to a 68436
political action committee or political contributing entity that 68437
accepts a contribution from a political action committee or 68438
political contributing entity affiliated with it. For purposes of 68439
this division, a political action committee is affiliated with 68440
another political action committee or with a political 68441
contributing entity if they are both established, financed, 68442
maintained, or controlled by the same corporation, organization, 68443
labor organization, continuing association, or other person, 68444
including any parent, subsidiary, division, or department of that 68445
corporation, organization, labor organization, continuing 68446
association, or other person.68447

       (D)(1)(a) For purposes of the limitations prescribed in 68448
division (B)(2) of this section and the limitations prescribed in 68449
divisions (C)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), and (7)(b) of this section, 68450
whichever is applicable, all contributions made by and all 68451
contributions accepted from political action committees that are 68452
established, financed, maintained, or controlled by, or that are, 68453
the same corporation, organization, labor organization, continuing 68454
association, or other person, including any parent, subsidiary, 68455
division, or department of that corporation, organization, labor 68456
organization, continuing association, or other person, are 68457
considered to have been made by or accepted from a single 68458
political action committee.68459

       (b) For purposes of the limitations prescribed in division 68460
(B)(7) of this section and the limitations prescribed in divisions 68461
(C)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), and (7)(b) of this section, whichever 68462
is applicable, all contributions made by and all contributions 68463
accepted from political contributing entities that are 68464
established, financed, maintained, or controlled by, or that are, 68465
the same corporation, organization, labor organization, continuing 68466
association, or other person, including any parent, subsidiary, 68467
division, or department of that corporation, organization, labor 68468
organization, continuing association, or other person, are 68469
considered to have been made by or accepted from a single 68470
political contributing entity.68471

       (2) As used in divisions (B)(1)(a)(vii), (B)(3)(d), 68472
(B)(4)(a), and (C)(7) of this section, "political action 68473
committee" does not include a political action committee that is 68474
organized to support or oppose a ballot issue or question and that 68475
makes no contributions to or expenditures on behalf of a political 68476
party, campaign committee, legislative campaign fund, political 68477
action committee, or political contributing entity. As used in 68478
divisions (B)(1)(a)(viii), (B)(3)(e), (B)(4)(a), and (C)(7) of 68479
this section, "political contributing entity" does not include a 68480
political contributing entity that is organized to support or 68481
oppose a ballot issue or question and that makes no contributions 68482
to or expenditures on behalf of a political party, campaign 68483
committee, legislative campaign fund, political action committee, 68484
or political contributing entity.68485

       (3) For purposes of the limitations prescribed in divisions 68486
(B)(4) and (C)(7)(a) of this section, all contributions made by 68487
and all contributions accepted from a national political party, a 68488
state political party, and a county political party are considered 68489
to have been made by or accepted from a single political party and 68490
shall be combined with each other to determine whether the 68491
limitations have been exceeded.68492

       (E)(1) If a legislative campaign fund has kept a total amount 68493
of contributions exceeding one hundred fifty thousand dollars at 68494
the close of business on the seventh day before the postgeneral 68495
election statement is required to be filed under section 3517.10 68496
of the Revised Code, the legislative campaign fund shall comply 68497
with division (E)(2) of this section.68498

       (2)(a) Any legislative campaign fund that has kept a total 68499
amount of contributions in excess of the amount specified in 68500
division (E)(1) of this section at the close of business on the 68501
seventh day before the postgeneral election statement is required 68502
to be filed under section 3517.10 of the Revised Code shall 68503
dispose of the excess amount in the manner prescribed in division 68504
(E)(2)(b)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this section not later than ninety 68505
days after the day the postgeneral election statement is required 68506
to be filed under section 3517.10 of the Revised Code. Any 68507
legislative campaign fund that is required to dispose of an excess 68508
amount of contributions under this division shall file a statement 68509
on the ninetieth day after the postgeneral election statement is 68510
required to be filed under section 3517.10 of the Revised Code 68511
indicating the total amount of contributions the fund has at the 68512
close of business on the seventh day before the postgeneral 68513
election statement is required to be filed under section 3517.10 68514
of the Revised Code and that the excess contributions were 68515
disposed of pursuant to this division and division (E)(2)(b) of 68516
this section. The statement shall be on a form prescribed by the 68517
secretary of state and shall contain any additional information 68518
the secretary of state considers necessary.68519

       (b) Any legislative campaign fund that is required to dispose 68520
of an excess amount of contributions under division (E)(2) of this 68521
section shall dispose of that excess amount by doing any of the 68522
following:68523

       (i) Giving the amount to the treasurer of state for deposit 68524
into the state treasury to the credit of the Ohio elections 68525
commission fund created by division (I) of section 3517.152 of the 68526
Revised Code;68527

       (ii) Giving the amount to individuals who made contributions 68528
to that legislative campaign fund as a refund of all or part of 68529
their contributions;68530

       (iii) Giving the amount to a corporation that is exempt from 68531
federal income taxation under subsection 501(a) and described in 68532
subsection 501(c) of the Internal Revenue Code.68533

       (F)(1) No legislative campaign fund shall fail to file a 68534
statement required by division (E) of this section.68535

       (2) No legislative campaign fund shall fail to dispose of 68536
excess contributions as required by division (E) of this section.68537

       (G) Nothing in this section shall affect, be used in 68538
determining, or supersede a limitation on campaign contributions 68539
as provided for in the Federal Election Campaign Act.68540

       Sec. 3517.103.  (A)(1) For purposes of this section:68541

       (a)(1) "Statewide candidate" means the joint candidates for 68542
the offices of governor and lieutenant governor or a candidate for 68543
the office of secretary of state, auditor of state, treasurer of 68544
state, attorney general, or member of the state board of 68545
education.68546

       (b)(i)(2)(a) "Personal funds" means contributions to the 68547
campaign committee of a candidate by the candidate or by the 68548
candidate's spouse, parents, children, sons-in-law, 68549
daughters-in-law, brothers, sisters, grandparents, mother-in-law, 68550
father-in-law, brothers-in-law, sisters-in-law, or grandparents by 68551
marriage.68552

       (ii)(b) A loan obtained by, guaranteed by, or for the benefit 68553
of a statewide candidate, senate candidate, or house candidate 68554
shall be considered "personal funds" subject to the provisions of 68555
this section and section 3517.1010 of the Revised Code to the 68556
extent that the loan is obtained or guaranteed by the candidate or 68557
is for the benefit of the candidate and is obtained or guaranteed 68558
by the candidate's spouse, parents, children, sons-in-law, 68559
daughters-in-law, brothers, sisters, grandparents, mother-in-law, 68560
father-in-law, brothers-in-law, sisters-in-law, or grandparents by 68561
marriage. A loan that is obtained or guaranteed and that is for 68562
the benefit of a statewide candidate, senate candidate, or house 68563
candidate shall not be considered "personal funds" for the 68564
purposes of this section and section 3517.1010 of the Revised Code68565
but shall be considered to be a "contribution" for the purposes of 68566
this chapter if the loan is obtained or guaranteed by anyone other 68567
than the candidate or the candidate's spouse, parents, children, 68568
sons-in-law, daughters-in-law, brothers, sisters, grandparents, 68569
mother-in-law, father-in-law, brothers-in-law, sisters-in-law, or 68570
grandparents by marriage.68571

       (iii)(c) When a debt or other obligation incurred by a 68572
committee or by a candidate on behalf of the candidate's committee 68573
described in division (C)(1) or (2) of this section is to be paid 68574
from "personal funds," those funds are considered to be expended 68575
when the debt or other obligation is incurred, regardless of when 68576
it is paid.68577

       (2) For purposes of this chapter, a candidate is an 68578
"opponent" when the candidate has indicated on the candidate's 68579
most recently filed designation of treasurer that the candidate 68580
seeks the same office at the same primary or general election as 68581
another candidate whose campaign committee has filed a personal 68582
funds notice required by division (C)(1) or (2) of this section.68583

       (B)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (B)(2) of 68584
this section, no statewide candidate or candidate for the office 68585
of member of the general assembly shall make an expenditure of 68586
personal funds to influence the results of an election for that 68587
candidate's nomination or election to office unless the personal 68588
funds are first deposited into the campaign fund of that 68589
candidate's campaign committee.68590

       (2) A statewide candidate or candidate for the office of 68591
member of the general assembly may make an expenditure of personal 68592
funds without first depositing those funds into the campaign 68593
committee's funds as long as the aggregate total of those 68594
expenditures does not exceed five hundred dollars at any time 68595
during an election period. After the candidate's campaign 68596
committee reimburses the candidate for any direct expenditure of 68597
personal funds, the amount that was reimbursed is no longer 68598
included in the aggregate total of expenditures of personal funds 68599
subject to the five-hundred-dollar limit.68600

       (C)(1) If the campaign committee of any statewide candidate 68601
has received or expended or expects to expend more than one 68602
hundred thousand dollars of personal funds during a primary 68603
election period or one hundred fifty thousand dollars of personal 68604
funds during a general election period, the campaign committee 68605
shall file a personal funds notice in the manner provided in 68606
division (C)(3) of this section indicating that the committee has 68607
received or expended or expects to expend more than that amount. 68608
For the purpose of this division, a joint team of candidates for 68609
governor and lieutenant governor shall be considered a single 68610
candidate and their personal funds shall be combined.68611

       (2) If the campaign committee of any senate candidate or 68612
house candidate has received or expended or expects to expend more 68613
than twenty-five thousand dollars of personal funds during a 68614
primary election period or twenty-five thousand dollars of 68615
personal funds during a general election period, the campaign 68616
committee shall file a personal funds notice in the manner 68617
provided in division (C)(3) of this section indicating that the 68618
committee has received or expended or expects to expend more than 68619
that amount.68620

       (3) The personal funds notice required in divisions (C)(1) 68621
and (2) of this section and the declaration of no limits required 68622
under division (D)(2) of this section shall be on a form 68623
prescribed by the secretary of state. The personal funds notice 68624
required in divisions (C)(1) and (2) of this section shall be 68625
filed not later than the earlier of the following times:68626

       (a) One hundred twenty days before a primary election, in the 68627
case of personal funds received, expended, or expected to be 68628
expended during a primary election period, or not later than one 68629
hundred twenty days before a general election, in the case of 68630
personal funds received, expended, or expected to be expended 68631
during a general election period;68632

       (b) Two business days after the candidate's campaign 68633
committee receives or makes an expenditure of personal funds or 68634
the candidate makes an expenditure of personal funds on behalf of 68635
the candidate's campaign committee during that election period 68636
that exceed, in the aggregate, the amount specified in division 68637
(C)(1) or (2) of this section.68638

       The personal funds notice required under divisions (C)(1) and 68639
(2) of this section and the declaration of no limits required 68640
under division (D)(2) of this section shall be filed wherever the 68641
campaign committee files statements of contributions and 68642
expenditures under section 3517.11 of the Revised Code. The board 68643
of elections shall send to the secretary of state a copy of any 68644
personal funds notice or declaration of no limits filed by the 68645
campaign committee of a senate candidate or house candidate under 68646
division (C)(3) or (D)(2) of this section.68647

       (D)(1) Whenever a campaign committee files a notice under 68648
division (C)(1) or (2) of this section, and the campaign committee 68649
of an opponent files a declaration of no limits pursuant to 68650
division (D)(2) of this section within thirty days of the filing 68651
of the personal funds notice under division (C)(1) or (2) of this 68652
section, the contribution limitations prescribed in section 68653
3517.102 of the Revised Code no longer apply to the campaign 68654
committee of the candidate's opponent.68655

       (2) No campaign committee of a candidate described in 68656
division (D)(1) of this section shall accept any contribution or 68657
contributions from a contributor that exceed the limitations 68658
prescribed in section 3517.102 of the Revised Code until the 68659
committee files a declaration that the committee will accept 68660
contributions that exceed those limitations. This declaration 68661
shall be filed not later than thirty days after a candidate's 68662
opponent has filed a personal funds notice pursuant to division 68663
(C)(1) or (2) of section 3517.103 of the Revised Code, shall be 68664
referred to as the "declaration of no limits," and shall list all 68665
of the following:68666

       (a) The amount of cash on hand in the candidate's campaign 68667
fund at the end of the day immediately preceding the day on which 68668
the candidate's campaign committee files the declaration of no 68669
limits;68670

       (b) The value and description of all campaign assets worth 68671
five hundred dollars or more available to the candidate at the end 68672
of the day immediately preceding the day on which the candidate's 68673
campaign committee files the declaration of no limits.68674

       (3) A candidate who was not an opponent of a candidate who 68675
filed the personal funds notice required under division (C)(3) of 68676
this section on the date the personal funds notice was filed may 68677
file the declaration of no limits pursuant to division (D)(2) of 68678
this section within thirty days after becoming an opponent of the 68679
candidate who filed the personal funds notice.68680

       (4) If the candidate whose campaign committee filed a 68681
personal funds notice under division (C)(1) or (2) of this section 68682
fails to file a declaration of candidacy for the office listed on 68683
the designation of treasurer filed under division (D) of section 68684
3517.10 of the Revised Code or files a declaration of candidacy or 68685
nominating petition for that office and dies or withdraws, both of 68686
the following apply to the campaign committee of that candidate's 68687
opponent if the opponent has filed a declaration of no limits 68688
pursuant to division (D) of this section:68689

       (a) No contribution from a contributor may thereafter be 68690
accepted that, when added to the aggregate total of all 68691
contributions received by that committee from that contributor 68692
during the primary election period or general election period, 68693
whichever is applicable, would cause that committee to exceed the 68694
contribution limitations prescribed in section 3517.102 of the 68695
Revised Code for the applicable election period.68696

       (b) The statement of primary-day finances or the year-end 68697
statement required to be filed under division (E) of section 68698
3517.1010 of the Revised Code shall be filed not later than 68699
fourteen days after the date the candidate's opponent fails to 68700
file a declaration of candidacy or nominating petition by the 68701
appropriate filing deadline, or dies or withdraws. For purposes of 68702
calculating permitted funds under division (A)(4) of section 68703
3517.1010 of the Revised Code, the primary or general election 68704
period, whichever is applicable, shall be considered to have ended 68705
on the filing deadline, in the case of an opponent who fails to 68706
file a declaration of candidacy or nominating petition, or on the 68707
date of the opponent's death or withdrawal. In such an event, the 68708
filing of a statement of primary-day finances or year-end finances 68709
and the disposing of any excess funds as required under division 68710
(B) of section 3517.1010 of the Revised Code satisfies the 68711
candidate's obligation to file such a statement for that election 68712
period.68713

       (E)(1) No campaign committee shall fail to file a personal 68714
funds notice as required under division (C)(1) or (2) of this 68715
section.68716

       (2) No campaign committee shall accept any contribution in 68717
excess of the contribution limitations prescribed in section 68718
3517.102 of the Revised Code:68719

       (a) Unless a declaration of no limits has been filed under 68720
division (D)(2) of this section;68721

       (b) In violation of division (D)(4) of this section once the 68722
candidate who filed a personal funds notice under division (C)(3) 68723
of this section fails to file a declaration of candidacy or 68724
nominating petition or that candidate dies or withdraws.68725

       (3) No campaign committee that violates division (E)(1) of 68726
this section shall expend any personal funds in excess of the 68727
amount specified in division (C)(1) or (2) of this section, 68728
whichever is appropriate to the committee. 68729

       (4) The candidate of any campaign committee that violates 68730
division (E) of this section shall forfeit the candidate's 68731
nomination, if the candidate was nominated, or the office to which 68732
the candidate was elected, if the candidate was elected to office. 68733

       (F)(1) Whenever a campaign committee files a notice under 68734
division (C)(1) or (2) of this section or whenever the 68735
contribution limitations prescribed in section 3517.102 of the 68736
Revised Code do not apply to a campaign committee under division 68737
(D)(1) of this section, that committee is not a designated state 68738
campaign committee for the purpose of the limitations prescribed 68739
in section 3517.102 of the Revised Code with regard to 68740
contributions made by that campaign committee to a legislative 68741
campaign fund or to a state candidate fund of a state or county 68742
political party.68743

       (2) Division (F)(1) of this section no longer applies to a 68744
campaign committee after both of the following occur:68745

       (a) The primary or general election period during which the 68746
contribution limitations prescribed in section 3517.102 of the 68747
Revised Code did not apply after being removed pursuant to 68748
division (D) of this section has expired;68749

       (b) When the campaign committee has disposed of all excess 68750
funds and excess aggregate contributions as required under section 68751
3517.1010 of the Revised Code.68752

       Sec. 3517.153.  (A) Upon the filing of a complaint with the 68753
Ohio elections commission, which shall be made by affidavit of any 68754
person, on personal knowledge, and subject to the penalties for 68755
perjury, or upon the filing of a complaint made by the secretary 68756
of state or an official at the board of elections, setting forth a 68757
failure to comply with or a violation of any provision in sections 68758
3517.08 to 3517.13, 3517.17, 3517.18, 3517.20 to 3517.22, 3599.03, 68759
or 3599.031 of the Revised Code, the commission shall proceed in 68760
accordance with sections 3517.154 to 3517.157 of the Revised Code. 68761

       (B) The commission shall prescribe the form for complaints 68762
made under division (A) of this section. The secretary of state 68763
and boards of elections shall furnish the information that the 68764
commission requests. The commission or a member of the commission 68765
may administer oaths, and the commission may issue subpoenas to 68766
any person in the state compelling the attendance of witnesses and 68767
the production of relevant papers, books, accounts, and reports. 68768
Section 101.42 of the Revised Code governs the issuance of 68769
subpoenas insofar as applicable. Upon the refusal of any person to 68770
obey a subpoena or to be sworn or to answer as a witness, the 68771
commission may apply to the court of common pleas of Franklin 68772
county under section 2705.03 of the Revised Code. The court shall 68773
hold proceedings in accordance with Chapter 2705. of the Revised 68774
Code. 68775

       (C) No prosecution shall commence for a violation of a 68776
provision in sections 3517.08 to 3517.13, 3517.17, 3517.18, 68777
3517.20 to 3517.22, 3599.03, or 3599.031 of the Revised Code 68778
unless a complaint has been filed with the commission under this 68779
section and all proceedings of the commission or a panel of the 68780
commission, as appropriate, under sections 3517.154 to 3517.157 of 68781
the Revised Code are completed. 68782

       (D) The commission may recommend legislation and render 68783
advisory opinions concerning sections 3517.08, 3517.082, 3517.092, 68784
3517.102, 3517.103, 3517.105, 3517.1014, 3517.13, 3517.18, 3517.20 68785
to 3517.22, 3599.03, and 3599.031 of the Revised Code for persons 68786
over whose acts it has or may have jurisdiction. When the 68787
commission renders an advisory opinion relating to a specific set 68788
of circumstances involving any of those sections stating that 68789
there is no violation of a provision in those sections, the person 68790
to whom the opinion is directed or a person who is similarly 68791
situated may reasonably rely on the opinion and is immune from 68792
criminal prosecution and a civil action, including, without 68793
limitation, a civil action for removal from public office or 68794
employment, based on facts and circumstances covered by the 68795
opinion. 68796

       (E) The commission shall establish a web site on which it 68797
shall post, at a minimum, all decisions and advisory opinions 68798
issued by the commission and copies of each election law as it is 68799
amended by the general assembly. The commission shall update the 68800
web site regularly to reflect any changes to those decisions and 68801
advisory opinions and any new decisions and advisory opinions. 68802

       Sec. 3517.154.  (A)(1) The full-time attorney for the Ohio 68803
elections commission shall review each complaint filed with the 68804
commission under section 3517.153 of the Revised Code, shall 68805
determine the nature of the complaint, and, unless division 68806
(A)(2)(a) of this section requires that the complaint receive an 68807
automatic expedited hearing, shall make a recommendation to the 68808
commission for its disposition, in accordance with this section. 68809
The attorney shall make the determination and the recommendation, 68810
if required, not later than one business day after the complaint 68811
is filed. 68812

       (2)(a) If the attorney determines that the complaint sets 68813
forth a violation of division (B) of section 3517.21 or division 68814
(B) of section 3517.22 of the Revised Code and that the complaint 68815
is filed during one of the periods of time specified in division 68816
(B)(1) of section 3517.156 of the Revised Code, or that the 68817
complaint sets forth a violation of section 3517.103 of the 68818
Revised Code or a violation described in division (D) of section 68819
3517.1010 of the Revised Code, the complaint shall receive an 68820
automatic expedited hearing under section 3517.156 of the Revised 68821
Code. 68822

       (b) If the attorney determines that the complaint sets forth 68823
a failure to comply with or a violation of division (G), (I), (J), 68824
(O), (P), or (Q) of section 3517.13, division (A) of section 68825
3517.21, or division (A) of section 3517.22 of the Revised Code 68826
and that the complaint is filed during one of the periods of time 68827
specified in division (B)(1) of section 3517.156 of the Revised 68828
Code, the attorney shall recommend to the commission that the 68829
complaint receive an expedited hearing under section 3517.156 of 68830
the Revised Code, and the complaint shall receive such a hearing. 68831

       (c) If the attorney determines that the complaint sets forth 68832
a failure to comply with or a violation of a section of the 68833
Revised Code over which the commission has jurisdiction to hear 68834
complaints other than the sections described in divisions 68835
(A)(2)(a) and (b) of this section, and unless the attorney makes a 68836
determination as provided for in division (A)(3) of this section, 68837
the attorney shall recommend to the commission that the complaint 68838
be submitted to the commission under section 3517.155 of the 68839
Revised Code. After the attorney makes that recommendation, the 68840
attorney shall notify all parties to the complaint of the 68841
attorney's recommendation. 68842

       (3)(a) If a complaint sets forth a failure to comply with or 68843
a violation of a section of the Revised Code over which the 68844
commission has jurisdiction to hear complaints other than the 68845
sections described in divisions (A)(2)(a) and (b) of this section 68846
and if the complaint is filed during one of the periods of time 68847
specified in division (B)(1) of section 3517.156 of the Revised 68848
Code, the attorney may determine that the complaint should receive 68849
an expedited hearing under that section. The attorney shall make 68850
that determination by considering one or more of the following: 68851

       (i) The number of prior failures to comply with or violations 68852
of Title XXXV of the Revised Code that the person or entity 68853
against whom the complaint has been brought has committed and any 68854
prior penalties the commission has imposed on the person or 68855
entity; 68856

       (ii) If the complaint involves a statement required to be 68857
filed under section 3517.10, division (E) of section 3517.102, or 68858
section 3517.103, 3517.105, 3517.107, 3517.108, 3517.109, 68859
3517.1011, 3517.1012, or 3517.1014 of the Revised Code or an 68860
addendum required to be filed under section 3517.11 of the Revised 68861
Code that is filed late, how late the filing is and how much time 68862
has elapsed between the deadline for filing the statement or 68863
addendum and the filing of the complaint; 68864

       (iii) If the complaint involves contributions and 68865
expenditures, contributions and disbursements, deposits and 68866
disbursements, gifts and disbursements, or donations and 68867
disbursements required to be reported under section 3517.10, 68868
division (E) of section 3517.102, or section 3517.105, 3517.107, 68869
3517.108, 3517.109, 3517.1011, 3517.1012, 3517.1013, or 3517.1014 68870
of the Revised Code that are either not reported or reported late, 68871
the number of contributions and expenditures, contributions and 68872
disbursements, deposits and disbursements, gifts and 68873
disbursements, or donations and disbursements not reported or how 68874
late they were reported; 68875

       (iv) If the complaint involves contributions required to be 68876
reported by a campaign committee under section 3517.10, division 68877
(E) of section 3517.102, or section 3517.105, 3517.107, 3517.108, 68878
or 3517.109 of the Revised Code that are not reported, whether any 68879
of the contributors of the contributions not reported have a 68880
personal or professional relationship with the campaign 68881
committee's candidate; 68882

       (v) If the complaint involves a statement required to be 68883
filed under section 3517.10, division (E) of section 3517.102, or 68884
section 3517.103, 3517.105, 3517.107, 3517.108, 3517.109, 68885
3517.1011, 3517.1012, 3517.1013, or 3517.1014 of the Revised Code 68886
that is incomplete, the degree to which it is incomplete; 68887

       (vi) If the complaint involves the receipt of contributions 68888
in violation of section 3599.03 of the Revised Code, the dollar 68889
amount and number of contributions received in violation of that 68890
section; 68891

       (vii) If the complaint involves a failure to make the 68892
identification or a misstatement of the identification required 68893
under section 3517.105 or 3517.20 of the Revised Code, whether the 68894
failure or misstatement was purposely made; 68895

       (viii) If the complaint sets forth a failure to comply with 68896
or a violation of a section of the Revised Code described in 68897
division (A)(2)(c) of this section, whether the person or entity 68898
against whom the complaint has been made has committed more than 68899
one such failure or violation within a reasonable amount of time, 68900
or whether the cumulative nature of the failures or violations 68901
indicates a systematic disregard for the law. 68902

       (b) Prior to making a determination under division (A)(3)(a) 68903
of this section that the complaint should receive an expedited 68904
hearing under section 3517.156 of the Revised Code, the attorney 68905
shall take into consideration the number of panels of the 68906
commission that have cases pending before them and the number of 68907
cases pending before the panels and shall not make a determination 68908
that will place an undue burden on a panel of the commission. 68909

       (c) If the attorney determines that the complaint should 68910
receive an expedited hearing under section 3517.156 of the Revised 68911
Code, the attorney shall recommend to the commission that the 68912
complaint receive an expedited hearing, and, if a majority of the 68913
members of the commission agrees with the recommendation, the 68914
complaint shall receive an expedited hearing under that section. 68915

       (4) The attorney may join two or more complaints if the 68916
attorney determines that the allegations in each complaint are of 68917
the same or similar character, are based on the same act or 68918
failure to act, or are based on two or more acts or failures to 68919
act constituting parts of a common scheme or plan. If one 68920
complaint contains two or more allegations, the attorney may 68921
separate the allegations if they are not of the same or similar 68922
character, if they are not based on the same act or failure to 68923
act, or if they are not based on two or more acts or failures to 68924
act constituting parts of a common scheme or plan. If the attorney 68925
separates the allegations in a complaint, the attorney may make 68926
separate recommendations under division (A)(2) or (3) of this 68927
section for each allegation. 68928

       (B) Whenever a person or other entity files a complaint with 68929
the commission setting forth a failure to comply with or a 68930
violation of a section of the Revised Code as described in 68931
division (A)(2)(c) of this section and the complaint is filed 68932
during one of the periods of time specified in division (B)(1) of 68933
section 3517.156 of the Revised Code, the person or entity may 68934
request an expedited hearing under that section at the time the 68935
complaint is filed. The attorney for the commission shall inform 68936
the members of the commission of that request at the time the 68937
attorney makes a recommendation under division (A) of this 68938
section. The commission may grant the request for an expedited 68939
hearing under this division if it determines that an expedited 68940
hearing is practicable. 68941

       Sec. 3517.155.  (A)(1) Except as otherwise provided in 68942
division (B) of this section, the Ohio elections commission shall 68943
hold its first hearing on a complaint filed with it, other than a 68944
complaint that receives an expedited hearing under section 68945
3517.156 of the Revised Code, not later than ninety business days 68946
after the complaint is filed unless the commission has good cause 68947
to hold the hearing after that time, in which case it shall hold 68948
the hearing not later than one hundred eighty business days after 68949
the complaint is filed. At the hearing, the commission shall 68950
determine whether or not the failure to act or the violation 68951
alleged in the complaint has occurred and shall do only one of the 68952
following, except as otherwise provided in division (B) of this 68953
section or in division (B) of section 3517.151 of the Revised 68954
Code:68955

       (a) Enter a finding that good cause has been shown not to 68956
impose a fine or not to refer the matter to the appropriate 68957
prosecutor;68958

       (b) Impose a fine under section 3517.993 of the Revised Code;68959

       (c) Refer the matter to the appropriate prosecutor;68960

       (d) Direct the secretary of state or appropriate board of 68961
elections with the authority to certify a candidate to the ballot 68962
to remove a candidate's name from the ballot if the candidate is 68963
barred from the ballot under division (D) of section 3517.1010 of 68964
the Revised Code.68965

       (2) As used in division (A) of this section, "appropriate 68966
prosecutor" means a prosecutor as defined in section 2935.01 of 68967
the Revised Code and either of the following:68968

       (a) In the case of a failure to comply with or a violation of 68969
law involving a campaign committee or the committee's candidate, a 68970
political party, a legislative campaign fund, a political action 68971
committee, or a political contributing entity, that is required to 68972
file a statement of contributions and expenditures with the 68973
secretary of state under division (A) of section 3517.11 of the 68974
Revised Code, the prosecutor of Franklin county;68975

       (b) In the case of a failure to comply with or a violation of 68976
law involving any other campaign committee or committee's 68977
candidate, or any other political party, political action 68978
committee, or political contributing entity either of the 68979
following as determined by the commission:68980

       (i) The prosecutor of Franklin county;68981

       (ii) The prosecutor of the county in which the candidacy or 68982
ballot question or issue is submitted to the electors or, if it is 68983
submitted in more than one county, the most populous of those 68984
counties.68985

       (B) If the commission decides that the evidence is 68986
insufficient for it to determine whether or not the failure to act 68987
or the violation alleged in the complaint has occurred, the 68988
commission, by the affirmative vote of five members, may request 68989
that an investigatory attorney investigate the complaint. Upon 68990
that request, an investigatory attorney shall make an 68991
investigation in order to produce sufficient evidence for the 68992
commission to decide the matter. If the commission requests an 68993
investigation under this division, for good cause shown by the 68994
investigatory attorney, the commission may extend by sixty days 68995
the deadline for holding its first hearing on the complaint as 68996
required in division (A) of this section.68997

       (C) The commission shall take one of the actions required 68998
under division (A) of this section not later than thirty days 68999
after the close of all the evidence presented.69000

       (D)(1) The commission shall make any finding of a failure to 69001
comply with or a violation of law in regard to a complaint that 69002
alleges a violation of division (D) of section 3517.1010, division 69003
(A) or (B) of section 3517.21, or division (A) or (B) of section 69004
3517.22 of the Revised Code by clear and convincing evidence. The 69005
commission shall make any finding of a failure to comply with or a 69006
violation of law in regard to any other complaint by a 69007
preponderance of the evidence.69008

       (2) If the commission finds a violation of division (B) of 69009
section 3517.21 or division (B) of section 3517.22 of the Revised 69010
Code, it shall refer the matter to the appropriate prosecutor 69011
under division (A)(1)(c) of this section and shall not impose a 69012
fine under division (A)(1)(b) of this section or section 3517.993 69013
of the Revised Code.69014

       (E) In an action before the commission or a panel of the 69015
commission, if the allegations of the complainant are not proved, 69016
and the commission takes the action described in division 69017
(A)(1)(a) of this section or a panel of the commission takes the 69018
action described in division (C)(1) of section 3517.156 of the 69019
Revised Code, the commission or a panel of the commission may find 69020
that the complaint is frivolous, and, if the commission or panel 69021
so finds, the commission shall order the complainant to pay 69022
reasonable attorney's fees and to pay the costs of the commission 69023
or panel as determined by a majority of the members of the 69024
commission. The costs paid to the commission or panel under this 69025
division shall be deposited into the Ohio elections commission 69026
fund.69027

       Sec. 3517.20.  (A)(1) As used in this section:69028

       (a) "Political publication for or against a candidate" means 69029
a notice, placard, advertisement, sample ballot, brochure, flyer, 69030
direct mailer, or other form of general publication that is 69031
designed to promote the nomination, election, or defeat of a 69032
candidate.69033

       (b) "Political publication for or against an issue" means a 69034
notice, placard, advertisement, sample ballot, brochure, flyer, 69035
direct mailer, or other form of general publication that is 69036
designed to promote the adoption or defeat of a ballot issue or 69037
question or to influence the voters in an election.69038

       (c) "Public political advertising" means newspapers, 69039
magazines, outdoor advertising facilities, direct mailings, or 69040
other similar types of general public political advertising, or 69041
flyers, handbills, or other nonperiodical printed matter.69042

       (d) "Statewide candidate" has the same meaning as in section 69043
3517.102 of the Revised Code.69044

       (e) "Legislative candidate" means a candidate for the office 69045
of member of the general assembly.69046

       (f) "Local candidate" means a candidate for an elective 69047
office of a political subdivision of this state.69048

       (g) "Legislative campaign fund" has the same meaning as in 69049
section 3517.01 of the Revised Code.69050

       (h) "Limited political action committee" means a political 69051
action committee of fewer than ten members.69052

       (i) "Limited political contributing entity" means a political 69053
contributing entity of fewer than ten members.69054

        (j) "Designated amount" means one hundred dollars in the case 69055
of a local candidate or a local ballot issue, two hundred fifty 69056
dollars in the case of a legislative candidate, or five hundred 69057
dollars in the case of a statewide candidate or a statewide ballot 69058
issue.69059

       (k) "To issue" includes to print, post, distribute, reproduce 69060
for distribution, or cause to be issued, printed, posted, 69061
distributed, or reproduced for distribution.69062

       (l) "Telephone bank" means more than five hundred telephone 69063
calls of an identical or substantially similar nature within any 69064
thirty-day period, whether those telephone calls are made by 69065
individual callers or by recording.69066

       (2)(a) No candidate, legislative campaign fund, political 69067
party, or other entity, except a political action committee, a 69068
political contributing entity, a candidate, a legislative campaign 69069
fund, or a campaign committee, shall issue a form of political 69070
publication for or against a candidate, or shall make an 69071
expenditure for the purpose of financing political communications 69072
in support of or opposition to a candidate through public 69073
political advertising, unless the name and residence or business 69074
address of the candidate or the chairperson, treasurer, or 69075
secretary of the legislative campaign fund, political party, or 69076
other entity that issues or otherwise is responsible for that 69077
political publication or that makes an expenditure for that 69078
political communication appears in a conspicuous place on that 69079
political publication or is contained within that political 69080
communication. 69081

       (b) No candidate, legislative campaign fund, or campaign 69082
committee shall issue a form of political publication for or 69083
against a candidate, or shall make an expenditure for the purpose 69084
of financing political communications in support of or opposition 69085
to a candidate through public political advertising, unless the 69086
name of the campaign committeeentity appears in a conspicuous 69087
place on that political publication or is contained within that 69088
political communication.69089

       (3) No limited political action committee or limited 69090
political contributing entity shall do either of the following 69091
unless the name and residence or business address of the 69092
chairperson, treasurer, or secretary of the limited political 69093
action committee or limited political contributing entity involved 69094
appears in a conspicuous place in the political publication for or 69095
against a candidate described in division (A)(3)(a) of this 69096
section or is contained within the political communication 69097
described in division (A)(3)(b) of this section:69098

       (a) Issue a form of political publication for or against a 69099
candidate that costs in excess of the designated amount or that is 69100
issued in cooperation, consultation, or concert with, or at the 69101
request or suggestion of, a candidate, a campaign committee, a 69102
legislative campaign fund, a political party, a political action 69103
committee with ten or more members, a political contributing 69104
entity with ten or more members, or a limited political action 69105
committee or limited political contributing entity that spends in 69106
excess of the designated amount on a related or the same or 69107
similar political publication for or against a candidate;69108

       (b) Make an expenditure in excess of the designated amount in 69109
support of or opposition to a candidate or make an expenditure in 69110
cooperation, consultation, or concert with, or at the request or 69111
suggestion of, a candidate, a campaign committee, a legislative 69112
campaign fund, a political party, a political action committee 69113
with ten or more members, a political contributing entity with ten 69114
or more members, or a limited political action committee or 69115
limited political contributing entity that spends in excess of the 69116
designated amount in support of or opposition to the same 69117
candidate, for the purpose of financing political communications 69118
in support of or opposition to that candidate through public 69119
political advertising.69120

       (4) No political action committee with ten or more members 69121
and no political contributing entity with ten or more members 69122
shall issue a form of political publication for or against a 69123
candidate, or shall make an expenditure for the purpose of 69124
financing political communications in support of or opposition to 69125
a candidate through public political advertising, unless the name 69126
and residence or business address of the chairperson, treasurer, 69127
or secretary of the political action committee or political 69128
contributing entity that issues or otherwise is responsible for 69129
that political publication or that makes an expenditure for that 69130
political communication through public political advertising 69131
appears in a conspicuous place in that political publication or is 69132
contained within that political communication.69133

       (5)(a) No corporation, labor organization, legislative 69134
campaign fund, political party, or other entity, except a 69135
political action committee, a legislative campaign fund, or a 69136
campaign committee, shall issue a form of political publication 69137
for or against an issue, or shall make an expenditure for the 69138
purpose of financing political communications in support of or 69139
opposition to a ballot issue or question through public political 69140
advertising, unless the name and residence or business address of 69141
the chairperson, treasurer, or secretary of the corporation, labor 69142
organization, legislative campaign fund, political party, or other 69143
entity that issues or otherwise is responsible for that political 69144
publication or that makes an expenditure for that political 69145
communication through public political advertising appears in a 69146
conspicuous place in that political publication or is contained 69147
within that political communication.69148

       (b) No campaign committee or legislative campaign fund shall 69149
issue a form of political publication for or against an issue, or 69150
shall make an expenditure for the purpose of financing political 69151
communications in support of or opposition to a ballot issue or 69152
question through public political advertising, unless the name of 69153
the campaign committee or legislative campaign fund appears in a 69154
conspicuous place in that political publication or is contained 69155
within that political communication.69156

       (6) No limited political action committee shall do either of 69157
the following unless the name and residence or business address of 69158
the chairperson, treasurer, or secretary of the limited political 69159
action committee involved appears in a conspicuous place in the 69160
political publication for or against a ballot issue described in 69161
division (A)(6)(a) of this section or is contained within the 69162
political communication described in division (A)(6)(b) of this 69163
section:69164

       (a) Issue a form of political publication for or against a 69165
ballot issue that costs in excess of the designated amount or that 69166
is issued in cooperation, consultation, or concert with, or at the 69167
request or suggestion of, a candidate, a campaign committee, a 69168
legislative campaign fund, a political party, a political action 69169
committee with ten or more members, or a limited political action 69170
committee that spends in excess of the designated amount for a 69171
related or the same or similar political publication for or 69172
against an issue;69173

       (b) Make an expenditure in excess of the designated amount in 69174
support of or opposition to a ballot issue or make an expenditure 69175
in cooperation, consultation, or concert with, or at the request 69176
or suggestion of, a candidate, a campaign committee, a legislative 69177
campaign fund, a political party, a political action committee 69178
with ten or more members, or a limited political action committee 69179
that spends in excess of the designated amount in support of or 69180
opposition to the same ballot issue, for the purpose of financing 69181
political communications in support of or opposition to that 69182
ballot issue through public political advertising.69183

       (7) No political action committee with ten or more members 69184
shall issue a form of political publication for or against an 69185
issue, or shall make an expenditure for the purpose of financing 69186
political communications in support of or opposition to a ballot 69187
issue or question through public political advertising, unless the 69188
name and residence or business address of the chairperson, 69189
treasurer, or secretary of the political action committee that 69190
issues or otherwise is responsible for that political publication 69191
or that makes an expenditure for that political communication 69192
appears in a conspicuous place in that political publication or is 69193
contained within that political communication.69194

       (8) The disclaimer "paid political advertisement" is not 69195
sufficient to meet the requirements of this section. 69196

       (9) If the political publication described in division (A) of 69197
this section is issued by the regularly constituted central or 69198
executive committee of a political party that is organized as 69199
provided in this chapter, it shall be sufficiently identified if 69200
it bears the name of the committee and its chairperson or 69201
treasurer. 69202

       (10) If more than one piece of printed matter or printed 69203
political communications are mailed as a single packet, the 69204
requirements of division (A) of this section are met if one of the 69205
pieces of printed matter or printed political communications in 69206
the packet contains the name and residence or business address of 69207
the chairperson, treasurer, or secretary of the organization or 69208
entity that issues or is responsible for the printed matter or 69209
other printed political communications, except that if a campaign 69210
committee or legislative campaign fund mails more than one piece 69211
of printed matter or printed political communications as a single 69212
packet, the requirements of division (A) of this section are met 69213
if one of the pieces of printed matter or printed political 69214
communications in the packet contains the name of the campaign 69215
committee or legislative campaign fund.69216

       (11) This section does not apply to the transmittal of 69217
personal correspondence that is not reproduced by machine for 69218
general distribution.69219

       (12) The secretary of state, by rule, may exempt from the 69220
requirements of this section, printed matter and certain other 69221
kinds of printed communications such as campaign buttons, 69222
balloons, pencils, or similar items, the size or nature of which 69223
makes it unreasonable to add an identification or disclaimer. 69224

       (13) The disclaimer or identification described in division 69225
(A) of this section, when paid for by a candidate, legislative 69226
campaign fund, or campaign committee, shall be identified by the 69227
words "paid for by" followed by the name of the campaign committee 69228
and the appropriate officer of the committee, identified by name 69229
and titleentity. The identification or disclaimer may use 69230
reasonable abbreviations for common terms such as "treasurer" or69231
"committee".69232

       (B)(1) No candidate, campaign committee, legislative campaign 69233
fund, political party, political action committee, limited 69234
political action committee, political contributing entity, limited 69235
political contributing entity, or other entity shall utter or 69236
cause to be uttered, over the broadcasting facilities of any radio 69237
or television station within this state, any communication that is 69238
designed to promote the nomination, election, or defeat of a 69239
candidate, or the adoption or defeat of an issue or to influence 69240
the voters in an election, unless the speaker identifies the 69241
speaker with the speaker's name and residence address or unless 69242
the communication identifies the chairperson, treasurer, or 69243
secretary of the organization responsible for the communication 69244
with the name and residence or business address of that officer, 69245
except that communications by radio need not broadcast the 69246
residence or business address of the officer. However, a radio 69247
station, for a period of at least six months, shall keep the 69248
residence or business address on file and divulge it to any person 69249
upon request.69250

       No person operating a broadcast station or an organ of 69251
printed media shall broadcast or print a paid political 69252
communication that does not contain the identification required by 69253
this section.69254

       (2) Division (B) of this section does not apply to any 69255
communications made on behalf of a radio or television station or 69256
network by any employee of such radio or television station or 69257
network while acting in the course of the employee's employment.69258

       (3) No candidate or entity described in division (B)(1) of 69259
this section shall use or cause to be used a false, fictitious, or 69260
fraudulent name or address in the making or issuing of a 69261
publication or communication included within the provisions of 69262
this section.69263

       (C) No candidate, campaign committee, legislative campaign 69264
fund, political party, political action committee, limited 69265
political action committee, political contributing entity, limited 69266
political contributing entity, or other person or entity shall 69267
conduct a telephone bank for the purpose of promoting the 69268
nomination, election, or defeat of a candidate or the adoption or 69269
defeat of an issue or to influence the voters in an election, 69270
unless the call includes a disclaimer that identifies the name of 69271
the candidate, campaign committee, legislative campaign fund, 69272
political party, political action committee, limited political 69273
action committee, political contributing entity, limited political 69274
contributing entity, or other person or entity paying for the 69275
telephone bank.69276

        (D) Before a prosecution may commence under this section, a 69277
complaint shall be filed with the Ohio elections commission under 69278
section 3517.153 of the Revised Code. After the complaint is 69279
filed, the commission shall proceed in accordance with sections 69280
3517.154 to 3517.157 of the Revised Code.69281

       Sec. 3517.992.  This section establishes penalties only with 69282
respect to acts or failures to act that occur on and after August 69283
24, 1995. 69284

       (A)(1) A candidate whose campaign committee violates division 69285
(A), (B), (C), (D), or (V) of section 3517.13 of the Revised Code, 69286
or a treasurer of a campaign committee who violates any of those 69287
divisions, shall be fined not more than one hundred dollars for 69288
each day of violation. 69289

       (2) Whoever violates division (E) or (X)(5) of section 69290
3517.13 or division (E)(1) of section 3517.1014 of the Revised 69291
Code shall be fined not more than one hundred dollars for each day 69292
of violation. 69293

       (B) A political partyAn entity that violates division 69294
(F)(G)(1) of section 3517.101 of the Revised Code shall be fined 69295
not more than one hundred dollars for each day of violation. 69296

       (C) Whoever violates division (F)(G)(2) of section 3517.101, 69297
division (G) of section 3517.13, or division (E)(2) or (3) of 69298
section 3517.1014 of the Revised Code shall be fined not more than 69299
ten thousand dollars or, if the offender is a person who was 69300
nominated or elected to public office, shall forfeit the 69301
nomination or the office to which the offender was elected, or 69302
both. 69303

       (D) Whoever violates division (F) of section 3517.13 of the 69304
Revised Code shall be fined not more than three times the amount 69305
contributed. 69306

       (E) Whoever violates division (H) of section 3517.13 of the 69307
Revised Code shall be fined not more than one hundred dollars. 69308

       (F) Whoever violates division (O), (P), or (Q) of section 69309
3517.13 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the 69310
first degree. 69311

       (G) A state or county committee of a political party that 69312
violates division (B)(1) of section 3517.18 of the Revised Code 69313
shall be fined not more than twice the amount of the improper 69314
expenditure. 69315

       (H) A state or county political partyAn entity that violates 69316
division (G)(H) of section 3517.101 of the Revised Code shall be 69317
fined not more than twice the amount of the improper expenditure 69318
or use. 69319

       (I)(1) Any individual who violates division (B)(1) of section 69320
3517.102 of the Revised Code and knows that the contribution the 69321
individual makes violates that division shall be fined an amount 69322
equal to three times the amount contributed in excess of the 69323
amount permitted by that division. 69324

       (2) Any political action committee that violates division 69325
(B)(2) of section 3517.102 of the Revised Code shall be fined an 69326
amount equal to three times the amount contributed in excess of 69327
the amount permitted by that division. 69328

       (3) Any campaign committee that violates division (B)(3) or 69329
(5) of section 3517.102 of the Revised Code shall be fined an 69330
amount equal to three times the amount contributed in excess of 69331
the amount permitted by that division. 69332

       (4)(a) Any legislative campaign fund that violates division 69333
(B)(6) of section 3517.102 of the Revised Code shall be fined an 69334
amount equal to three times the amount transferred or contributed 69335
in excess of the amount permitted by that division, as applicable. 69336

       (b) Any state political party, county political party, or 69337
state candidate fund of a state political party or county 69338
political party that violates division (B)(6) of section 3517.102 69339
of the Revised Code shall be fined an amount equal to three times 69340
the amount transferred or contributed in excess of the amount 69341
permitted by that division, as applicable. 69342

       (c) Any political contributing entity that violates division 69343
(B)(7) of section 3517.102 of the Revised Code shall be fined an 69344
amount equal to three times the amount contributed in excess of 69345
the amount permitted by that division. 69346

       (5) Any political party that violates division (B)(4) of 69347
section 3517.102 of the Revised Code shall be fined an amount 69348
equal to three times the amount contributed in excess of the 69349
amount permitted by that division. 69350

       (6) Notwithstanding divisions (I)(1), (2), (3), (4), and (5) 69351
of this section, no violation of division (B) of section 3517.102 69352
of the Revised Code occurs, and the secretary of state shall not 69353
refer parties to the Ohio elections commission, if the amount 69354
transferred or contributed in excess of the amount permitted by 69355
that division meets either of the following conditions: 69356

       (a) It is completely refunded within five business days after 69357
it is accepted. 69358

       (b) It is completely refunded on or before the tenth business 69359
day after notification to the recipient of the excess transfer or 69360
contribution by the board of elections or the secretary of state 69361
that a transfer or contribution in excess of the permitted amount 69362
has been received. 69363

       (J)(1) Any campaign committee that violates division (C)(1), 69364
(2), (3), or (6) of section 3517.102 of the Revised Code shall be 69365
fined an amount equal to three times the amount accepted in excess 69366
of the amount permitted by that division. 69367

       (2)(a) Any county political party that violates division 69368
(C)(4)(a)(ii) or (iii) of section 3517.102 of the Revised Code 69369
shall be fined an amount equal to three times the amount accepted. 69370

       (b) Any county political party that violates division 69371
(C)(4)(a)(i) of section 3517.102 of the Revised Code shall be 69372
fined an amount from its state candidate fund equal to three times 69373
the amount accepted in excess of the amount permitted by that 69374
division. 69375

       (c) Any state political party that violates division 69376
(C)(4)(b) of section 3517.102 of the Revised Code shall be fined 69377
an amount from its state candidate fund equal to three times the 69378
amount accepted in excess of the amount permitted by that 69379
division. 69380

       (3) Any legislative campaign fund that violates division 69381
(C)(5) of section 3517.102 of the Revised Code shall be fined an 69382
amount equal to three times the amount accepted in excess of the 69383
amount permitted by that division. 69384

       (4) Any political action committee or political contributing 69385
entity that violates division (C)(7) of section 3517.102 of the 69386
Revised Code shall be fined an amount equal to three times the 69387
amount accepted in excess of the amount permitted by that 69388
division. 69389

       (5) Notwithstanding divisions (J)(1), (2), (3), and (4) of 69390
this section, no violation of division (C) of section 3517.102 of 69391
the Revised Code occurs, and the secretary of state shall not 69392
refer parties to the Ohio elections commission, if the amount 69393
transferred or contributed in excess of the amount permitted to be 69394
accepted by that division meets either of the following 69395
conditions: 69396

       (a) It is completely refunded within five business days after 69397
its acceptance. 69398

       (b) It is completely refunded on or before the tenth business 69399
day after notification to the recipient of the excess transfer or 69400
contribution by the board of elections or the secretary of state 69401
that a transfer or contribution in excess of the permitted amount 69402
has been received. 69403

       (K)(1) Any legislative campaign fund that violates division 69404
(F)(1) of section 3517.102 of the Revised Code shall be fined 69405
twenty-five dollars for each day of violation. 69406

       (2) Any legislative campaign fund that violates division 69407
(F)(2) of section 3517.102 of the Revised Code shall give to the 69408
treasurer of state for deposit into the state treasury to the 69409
credit of the Ohio elections commission fund all excess 69410
contributions not disposed of as required by division (E) of 69411
section 3517.102 of the Revised Code. 69412

       (L) Whoever violates section 3517.105 of the Revised Code 69413
shall be fined one thousand dollars. 69414

       (M)(1) Whoever solicits a contribution in violation of 69415
section 3517.092 or violates division (B) of section 3517.09 of 69416
the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree. 69417

       (2) Whoever knowingly accepts a contribution in violation of 69418
division (B) or (C) of section 3517.092 of the Revised Code shall 69419
be fined an amount equal to three times the amount accepted in 69420
violation of either of those divisions and shall return to the 69421
contributor any amount so accepted. Whoever unknowingly accepts a 69422
contribution in violation of division (B) or (C) of section 69423
3517.092 of the Revised Code shall return to the contributor any 69424
amount so accepted. 69425

       (N) Whoever violates division (S) of section 3517.13 of the 69426
Revised Code shall be fined an amount equal to three times the 69427
amount of funds transferred or three times the value of the assets 69428
transferred in violation of that division. 69429

       (O) Any campaign committee that accepts a contribution or 69430
contributions in violation of section 3517.108 of the Revised 69431
Code, uses a contribution in violation of that section, or fails 69432
to dispose of excess contributions in violation of that section 69433
shall be fined an amount equal to three times the amount accepted, 69434
used, or kept in violation of that section. 69435

       (P) Any political party, state candidate fund, legislative 69436
candidate fund, or campaign committee that violates division (T) 69437
of section 3517.13 of the Revised Code shall be fined an amount 69438
equal to three times the amount contributed or accepted in 69439
violation of that section. 69440

       (Q) A treasurer of a committee or another person who violates 69441
division (U) of section 3517.13 of the Revised Code shall be fined 69442
not more than two hundred fifty dollars. 69443

       (R) Whoever violates division (I) or (J) of section 3517.13 69444
of the Revised Code shall be fined not more than one thousand 69445
dollars. Whenever a person is found guilty of violating division 69446
(I) or (J) of section 3517.13 of the Revised Code, the contract 69447
awarded in violation of either of those divisions shall be 69448
rescinded if its terms have not yet been performed. 69449

       (S) A candidate whose campaign committee violates or a 69450
treasurer of a campaign committee who violates section 3517.081 of 69451
the Revised Code, and a candidate whose campaign committee 69452
violates or a treasurer of a campaign committee or another person 69453
who violates division (C) of section 3517.10 of the Revised Code, 69454
shall be fined not more than five hundred dollars. 69455

       (T) A candidate whose campaign committee violates or a 69456
treasurer of a committee who violates division (B) of section 69457
3517.09 of the Revised Code, or a candidate whose campaign 69458
committee violates or a treasurer of a campaign committee or 69459
another person who violates division (C) of section 3517.09 of the 69460
Revised Code shall be fined not more than one thousand dollars. 69461

       (U) Whoever violates section 3517.20 of the Revised Code 69462
shall be fined not more than five hundred dollars. 69463

       (V) Whoever violates section 3517.21 or 3517.22 of the 69464
Revised Code shall be imprisoned for not more than six months or 69465
fined not more than five thousand dollars, or both. 69466

       (W) A campaign committee that is required to file a 69467
declaration of no limits under division (D)(2) of section 3517.103 69468
of the Revised Code that, before filing that declaration, accepts 69469
a contribution or contributions that exceed the limitations 69470
prescribed in section 3517.102 of the Revised Code, shall return 69471
that contribution or those contributions to the contributor. 69472

       (X) Any campaign committee that fails to file the declaration 69473
of filing-day finances required by division (F) of section 69474
3517.109 or the declaration of primary-day finances or declaration 69475
of year-end finances required by division (E) of section 3517.101069476
of the Revised Code shall be fined twenty-five dollars for each 69477
day of violation. 69478

       (Y)(1) Any campaign committee that fails to dispose of excess 69479
funds or excess aggregate contributions under division (B) of 69480
section 3517.109 of the Revised Code in the manner required by 69481
division (C) of that section or under division (B) of section 69482
3517.1010 of the Revised Code in the manner required by division 69483
(C) of that section shall give to the treasurer of state for 69484
deposit into the Ohio elections commission fund created under 69485
division (I) of section 3517.152 of the Revised Code all funds not 69486
disposed of pursuant to those divisionsthat division. 69487

       (2) Any treasurer of a transition fund that fails to dispose 69488
of assets remaining in the transition fund as required under 69489
division (H)(1) or (2) of section 3517.1014 of the Revised Code 69490
shall give to the treasurer of state for deposit into the Ohio 69491
elections commission fund all assets not disposed of pursuant to 69492
that division. 69493

       (Z) Any individual, campaign committee, political action 69494
committee, political contributing entity, legislative campaign 69495
fund, political party, treasurer of a transition fund, or other 69496
entity that violates any provision of sections 3517.09 to 3517.12 69497
of the Revised Code for which no penalty is provided for under any 69498
other division of this section shall be fined not more than one 69499
thousand dollars. 69500

       (AA)(1) Whoever knowingly violates division (W)(1) of section 69501
3517.13 of the Revised Code shall be fined an amount equal to 69502
three times the amount contributed, expended, or promised in 69503
violation of that division or ten thousand dollars, whichever 69504
amount is greater. 69505

       (2) Whoever knowingly violates division (W)(2) of section 69506
3517.13 of the Revised Code shall be fined an amount equal to 69507
three times the amount solicited or accepted in violation of that 69508
division or ten thousand dollars, whichever amount is greater. 69509

       (BB) Whoever knowingly violates division (C) or (D) of 69510
section 3517.1011 of the Revised Code shall be fined not more than 69511
ten thousand dollars plus not more than one thousand dollars for 69512
each day of violation. 69513

       (CC)(1) Subject to division (CC)(2) of this section, whoever 69514
violates division (H) of section 3517.1011 of the Revised Code 69515
shall be fined an amount up to three times the amount disbursed 69516
for the direct costs of airing the communication made in violation 69517
of that division. 69518

       (2) Whoever has been ordered by the Ohio elections commission 69519
or by a court of competent jurisdiction to cease making 69520
communications in violation of division (H) of section 3517.1011 69521
of the Revised Code who again violates that division shall be 69522
fined an amount equal to three times the amount disbursed for the 69523
direct costs of airing the communication made in violation of that 69524
division. 69525

       (DD)(1) Any corporation or labor organization that violates 69526
division (X)(3)(a) of section 3517.13 of the Revised Code shall be 69527
fined an amount equal to three times the amount given in excess of 69528
the amount permitted by that division. 69529

       (2) Any state or county political party that violates 69530
division (X)(3)(b) of section 3517.13 of the Revised Code shall be 69531
fined an amount equal to three times the amount accepted in excess 69532
of the amount permitted by that division. 69533

       (EE)(1) Any campaign committee or person who violates 69534
division (C)(1)(b) or (c) of section 3517.1014 of the Revised Code 69535
shall be fined an amount equal to three times the amount donated 69536
in excess of the amount permitted by that division. 69537

       (2) Any officeholder or treasurer of a transition fund who 69538
violates division (C)(3)(a) or (b) of section 3517.1014 of the 69539
Revised Code shall be fined an amount equal to three times the 69540
amount accepted in excess of the amount permitted by that 69541
division.69542

       Sec. 3599.03.  (A)(1) Except to carry on activities specified 69543
in sections 3517.082, 3517.101, and 3517.1011, division (A)(2) of 69544
section 3517.1012, division (B) of section 3517.1013, division 69545
(C)(1) of section 3517.1014, and section 3599.031 of the Revised 69546
Code and except as provided in divisions (D), (E), and (F) of this 69547
section, no corporation, no nonprofit corporation, and no labor 69548
organization, directly or indirectly, shall pay or use, or offer, 69549
advise, consent, or agree to pay or use, the corporation's money 69550
or property, or the labor organization's money, including dues, 69551
initiation fees, or other assessments paid by members, or 69552
property, for or in aid of or opposition to a political party, a 69553
candidate for election or nomination to public office, a political 69554
action committee including a political action committee of the 69555
corporation or labor organization, a legislative campaign fund, or 69556
any organization that supports or opposes any such candidate, or 69557
for any partisan political purpose, shall violate any law 69558
requiring the filing of an affidavit or statement respecting such 69559
use of those funds, or shall pay or use the corporation's or labor 69560
organization's money for the expenses of a social fund-raising 69561
event for its political action committee if an employee's or labor 69562
organization member's right to attend such an event is predicated 69563
on the employee's or member's contribution to the corporation's or 69564
labor organization's political action committee. 69565

       (2) Whoever violates division (A)(1) of this section shall be 69566
fined not less than five hundred nor more than five thousand 69567
dollars. 69568

       (B)(1) No officer, stockholder, attorney, or agent of a 69569
corporation or nonprofit corporation, no member, including an 69570
officer, attorney, or agent, of a labor organization, and no 69571
candidate, political party official, or other individual shall 69572
knowingly aid, advise, solicit, or receive money or other property 69573
in violation of division (A)(1) of this section. 69574

       (2) Whoever violates division (B)(1) of this section shall be 69575
fined not more than one thousand dollars, or imprisoned not more 69576
than one year, or both. 69577

       (C) A corporation, a nonprofit corporation, or a labor 69578
organization may use its funds or property for or in aid of or 69579
opposition to a proposed or certified ballot issue. Such use of 69580
funds or property shall be reported on a form prescribed by the 69581
secretary of state. Reports of contributions in connection with 69582
statewide ballot issues shall be filed with the secretary of 69583
state. Reports of contributions in connection with local issues 69584
shall be filed with the board of elections of the most populous 69585
county of the district in which the issue is submitted or to be 69586
submitted to the electors. Reports made pursuant to this division 69587
shall be filed by the times specified in divisions (A)(1) and (2) 69588
of section 3517.10 of the Revised Code. 69589

       (D)(1) Any gift made pursuant to section 3517.101 of the 69590
Revised Code does not constitute a violation of this section or of 69591
any other section of the Revised Code. 69592

       (2) Any gift made pursuant to division (A)(2) of section 69593
3517.1012 of the Revised Code does not constitute a violation of 69594
this section. 69595

       (3) Any gift made pursuant to division (B) of section 69596
3517.1013 of the Revised Code does not constitute a violation of 69597
this section. 69598

       (4) Any donation made pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 69599
3517.1014 of the Revised Code does not constitute a violation of 69600
this section. 69601

       (E) Any compensation or fees paid by a financial institution 69602
to a state political party for services rendered pursuant to 69603
division (B) of section 3517.19 of the Revised Code do not 69604
constitute a violation of this section or of any other section of 69605
the Revised Code. 69606

       (F)(1) The use by a nonprofit corporation of its money or 69607
property for communicating information for a purpose specified in 69608
division (A) of this section is not a violation of that division 69609
if the stockholders, members, donors, trustees, or officers of the 69610
nonprofit corporation are the predominant recipients of the 69611
communication. 69612

       (2) The placement of a campaign sign on the property of a 69613
corporation, nonprofit corporation, or labor organization is not a 69614
use of property in violation of division (A) of this section by 69615
that corporation, nonprofit corporation, or labor organization. 69616

       (3) The use by a corporation or labor organization of its 69617
money or property for communicating information for a purpose 69618
specified in division (A) of this section is not a violation of 69619
that division if it is not a communication made by mass broadcast 69620
such as radio or television or made by advertising in a newspaper 69621
of general circulation but is a communication sent exclusively to 69622
members, employees, officers, or trustees of that labor 69623
organization or shareholders, employees, officers, or directors of 69624
that corporation or to members of the immediate families of any 69625
such individuals or if the communication intended to be so sent 69626
exclusively is unintentionally sent as well to a de minimis number 69627
of other individuals. 69628

       (G) In addition to the laws listed in division (A) of section 69629
4117.10 of the Revised Code that prevail over conflicting 69630
agreements between employee organizations and public employers, 69631
this section prevails over any conflicting provisions of 69632
agreements between labor organizations and public employers that 69633
are entered into on or after March 31, 2005, pursuant to Chapter 69634
4117. of the Revised Code. 69635

       (H) As used in this section, "labor organization" has the 69636
same meaning as in section 3517.01 of the Revised Code. 69637

       Sec. 3599.45.  (A) As used in this section:69638

       "Candidate," "campaign committee," and "contribution" have 69639
the same meanings as in section 3517.01 of the Revised Code.69640

       "Medicaid provider" has the same meaning as in section 69641
5164.01 of the Revised Code.69642

       (B) No candidate for the office of attorney general or county 69643
prosecutor or such a candidate's campaign committee shall 69644
knowingly accept any contribution from a medicaid provider of 69645
services or goods under contract with the department of job and 69646
family services pursuant to the medicaid program of Title XIX of 69647
the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as 69648
amended, or from any person having an ownership interest in the 69649
medicaid provider.69650

       As used in this section "candidate," "campaign committee," 69651
and "contribution" have the same meaning as in section 3517.01 of 69652
the Revised Code.69653

       (B)(C) Whoever violates this section is guilty of a 69654
misdemeanor of the first degree.69655

       Sec. 3701.023.  (A) The department of health shall review 69656
applications for eligibility for the program for medically 69657
handicapped children that are submitted to the department by city 69658
and general health districts and physician providers approved in 69659
accordance with division (C) of this section. The department shall 69660
determine whether the applicants meet the medical and financial 69661
eligibility requirements established by the director of health 69662
pursuant to division (A)(1) of section 3701.021 of the Revised 69663
Code, and by the department in the manual of operational 69664
procedures and guidelines for the program for medically 69665
handicapped children developed pursuant to division (B) of that 69666
section. Referrals of potentially eligible children for the 69667
program may be submitted to the department on behalf of the child 69668
by parents, guardians, public health nurses, or any other 69669
interested person. The department of health may designate other 69670
agencies to refer applicants to the department of health.69671

       (B) In accordance with the procedures established in rules 69672
adopted under division (A)(4) of section 3701.021 of the Revised 69673
Code, the department of health shall authorize a provider or 69674
providers to provide to any Ohio resident under twenty-one years 69675
of age, without charge to the resident or the resident's family 69676
and without restriction as to the economic status of the resident 69677
or the resident's family, diagnostic services necessary to 69678
determine whether the resident has a medically handicapping or 69679
potentially medically handicapping condition.69680

       (C) The department of health shall review the applications of 69681
health professionals, hospitals, medical equipment suppliers, and 69682
other individuals, groups, or agencies that apply to become 69683
providers. The department shall enter into a written agreement 69684
with each applicant who is determined, pursuant to the 69685
requirements set forth in rules adopted under division (A)(2) of 69686
section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, to be eligible to be a 69687
provider in accordance with the provider agreement required by the 69688
medical assistancemedicaid program established under section 69689
5111.01 of the Revised Code. No provider shall charge a medically 69690
handicapped child or the child's parent or guardian for services 69691
authorized by the department under division (B) or (D) of this 69692
section.69693

       The department, in accordance with rules adopted under 69694
division (A)(3) of section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, may 69695
disqualify any provider from further participation in the program 69696
for violating any requirement set forth in rules adopted under 69697
division (A)(2) of that section. The disqualification shall not 69698
take effect until a written notice, specifying the requirement 69699
violated and describing the nature of the violation, has been 69700
delivered to the provider and the department has afforded the 69701
provider an opportunity to appeal the disqualification under 69702
division (H) of this section.69703

       (D) The department of health shall evaluate applications from 69704
city and general health districts and approved physician providers 69705
for authorization to provide treatment services, service 69706
coordination, and related goods to children determined to be 69707
eligible for the program for medically handicapped children 69708
pursuant to division (A) of this section. The department shall 69709
authorize necessary treatment services, service coordination, and 69710
related goods for each eligible child in accordance with an 69711
individual plan of treatment for the child. As an alternative, the 69712
department may authorize payment of health insurance premiums on 69713
behalf of eligible children when the department determines, in 69714
accordance with criteria set forth in rules adopted under division 69715
(A)(9) of section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, that payment of 69716
the premiums is cost-effective.69717

       (E) The department of health shall pay, from appropriations 69718
to the department, any necessary expenses, including but not 69719
limited to, expenses for diagnosis, treatment, service 69720
coordination, supportive services, transportation, and accessories 69721
and their upkeep, provided to medically handicapped children, 69722
provided that the provision of the goods or services is authorized 69723
by the department under division (B) or (D) of this section. Money 69724
appropriated to the department of health may also be expended for 69725
reasonable administrative costs incurred by the program. The 69726
department of health also may purchase liability insurance 69727
covering the provision of services under the program for medically 69728
handicapped children by physicians and other health care 69729
professionals.69730

       Payments made to providers by the department of health 69731
pursuant to this division for inpatient hospital care, outpatient 69732
care, and all other medical assistance furnished to eligible 69733
recipients shall be made in accordance with rules adopted by the 69734
director of health pursuant to division (A) of section 3701.021 of 69735
the Revised Code.69736

       The departments of health and job and family services69737
medicaid shall jointly implement procedures to ensure that 69738
duplicate payments are not made under the program for medically 69739
handicapped children and the medical assistancemedicaid program 69740
established under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code and to 69741
identify and recover duplicate payments.69742

       (F) At the time of applying for participation in the program 69743
for medically handicapped children, a medically handicapped child 69744
or the child's parent or guardian shall disclose the identity of 69745
any third party against whom the child or the child's parent or 69746
guardian has or may have a right of recovery for goods and 69747
services provided under division (B) or (D) of this section. The 69748
department of health shall require a medically handicapped child 69749
who receives services from the program or the child's parent or 69750
guardian to apply for all third-party benefits for which the child 69751
may be eligible and require the child, parent, or guardian to 69752
apply all third-party benefits received to the amount determined 69753
under division (E) of this section as the amount payable for goods 69754
and services authorized under division (B) or (D) of this section. 69755
The department is the payer of last resort and shall pay for 69756
authorized goods or services, up to the amount determined under 69757
division (E) of this section for the authorized goods or services, 69758
only to the extent that payment for the authorized goods or 69759
services is not made through third-party benefits. When a third 69760
party fails to act on an application or claim for benefits by a 69761
medically handicapped child or the child's parent or guardian, the 69762
department shall pay for the goods or services only after ninety 69763
days have elapsed since the date the child, parents, or guardians 69764
made an application or claim for all third-party benefits. 69765
Third-party benefits received shall be applied to the amount 69766
determined under division (E) of this section. Third-party 69767
payments for goods and services not authorized under division (B) 69768
or (D) of this section shall not be applied to payment amounts 69769
determined under division (E) of this section. Payment made by the 69770
department shall be considered payment in full of the amount 69771
determined under division (E) of this section. Medicaid payments 69772
for persons eligible for the medical assistancemedicaid program 69773
established under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code shall be 69774
considered payment in full of the amount determined under division 69775
(E) of this section.69776

       (G) The department of health shall administer a program to 69777
provide services to Ohio residents who are twenty-one or more 69778
years of age who have cystic fibrosis and who meet the eligibility 69779
requirements established in rules adopted by the director of 69780
health pursuant to division (A)(7) of section 3701.021 of the 69781
Revised Code, subject to all provisions of this section, but not 69782
subject to section 3701.024 of the Revised Code.69783

       (H) The department of health shall provide for appeals, in 69784
accordance with rules adopted under section 3701.021 of the 69785
Revised Code, of denials of applications for the program for 69786
medically handicapped children under division (A) or (D) of this 69787
section, disqualification of providers, or amounts paid under 69788
division (E) of this section. Appeals under this division are not 69789
subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.69790

       The department may designate ombudspersons to assist 69791
medically handicapped children or their parents or guardians, upon 69792
the request of the children, parents, or guardians, in filing 69793
appeals under this division and to serve as children's, parents', 69794
or guardians' advocates in matters pertaining to the 69795
administration of the program for medically handicapped children 69796
and eligibility for program services. The ombudspersons shall 69797
receive no compensation but shall be reimbursed by the department, 69798
in accordance with rules of the office of budget and management, 69799
for their actual and necessary travel expenses incurred in the 69800
performance of their duties.69801

       (I) The department of health, and city and general health 69802
districts providing service coordination pursuant to division 69803
(A)(2) of section 3701.024 of the Revised Code, shall provide 69804
service coordination in accordance with the standards set forth in 69805
the rules adopted under section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, 69806
without charge, and without restriction as to economic status.69807

       (J)(1) The department of health may establish a manufacturer 69808
discount program under which a manufacturer of a drug or 69809
nutritional formula is permitted to enter into an agreement with 69810
the department to provide a discount on the price of the drug or 69811
nutritional formula distributed to medically handicapped children 69812
participating in the program for medically handicapped children. 69813
The program shall be administered in accordance with rules adopted 69814
under section 3701.021 of the Revised Code.69815

       (2) If a manufacturer enters into an agreement with the 69816
department as described in division (J)(1) of this section, the 69817
manufacturer and the department may negotiate the amount and terms 69818
of the discount.69819

       (3) In lieu of establishing a discount program as described 69820
in division (J)(1) of this section, the department and a 69821
manufacturer of a drug or nutritional formula may discuss a 69822
donation of drugs, nutritional formulas, or money by the 69823
manufacturer to the department.69824

       Sec. 3701.024.  (A)(1) Under a procedure established in rules 69825
adopted under section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, the department 69826
of health shall determine the amount each county shall provide 69827
annually for the program for medically handicapped children, based 69828
on a proportion of the county's total general property tax 69829
duplicate, not to exceed one-tenth of a mill, and charge the 69830
county for any part of expenses incurred under the program for 69831
treatment services on behalf of medically handicapped children 69832
having legal settlement in the county that is not paid from 69833
federal funds or through the medical assistancemedicaid program 69834
established under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code. The 69835
department shall not charge the county for expenses exceeding the 69836
difference between the amount determined under division (A)(1) of 69837
this section and any amounts retained under divisions (A)(2) and 69838
(3) of this section.69839

       All amounts collected by the department under division (A)(1) 69840
of this section shall be deposited into the state treasury to the 69841
credit of the medically handicapped children-county assessment 69842
fund, which is hereby created. The fund shall be used by the 69843
department to comply with sections 3701.021 to 3701.028 of the 69844
Revised Code.69845

       (2) The department, in accordance with rules adopted under 69846
section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, may allow each county to 69847
retain up to ten per cent of the amount determined under division 69848
(A)(1) of this section to provide funds to city or general health 69849
districts of the county with which the districts shall provide 69850
service coordination, public health nursing, or transportation 69851
services for medically handicapped children.69852

       (3) In addition to any amount retained under division (A)(2) 69853
of this section, the department, in accordance with rules adopted 69854
under section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, may allow counties 69855
that it determines have significant numbers of potentially 69856
eligible medically handicapped children to retain an amount equal 69857
to the difference between:69858

       (a) Twenty-five per cent of the amount determined under 69859
division (A)(1) of this section;69860

       (b) Any amount retained under division (A)(2) of this 69861
section.69862

       Counties shall use amounts retained under division (A)(3) of 69863
this section to provide funds to city or general health districts 69864
of the county with which the districts shall conduct outreach 69865
activities to increase participation in the program for medically 69866
handicapped children.69867

       (4) Prior to any increase in the millage charged to a county, 69868
the director of health shall hold a public hearing on the proposed 69869
increase and shall give notice of the hearing to each board of 69870
county commissioners that would be affected by the increase at 69871
least thirty days prior to the date set for the hearing. Any 69872
county commissioner may appear and give testimony at the hearing. 69873
Any increase in the millage any county is required to provide for 69874
the program for medically handicapped children shall be 69875
determined, and notice of the amount of the increase shall be 69876
provided to each affected board of county commissioners, no later 69877
than the first day of June of the fiscal year next preceding the 69878
fiscal year in which the increase will take effect.69879

       (B) Each board of county commissioners shall establish a 69880
medically handicapped children's fund and shall appropriate 69881
thereto an amount, determined in accordance with division (A)(1) 69882
of this section, for the county's share in providing medical, 69883
surgical, and other aid to medically handicapped children residing 69884
in such county and for the purposes specified in divisions (A)(2) 69885
and (3) of this section. Each county shall use money retained 69886
under divisions (A)(2) and (3) of this section only for the 69887
purposes specified in those divisions.69888

       Sec. 3701.027.  The department of health shall administer 69889
funds received from the "Maternal and Child Health Block Grant," 69890
Title V of the "Social Security Act," 95 Stat. 818 (1981), 42 69891
U.S.C.A. 701, as amended, for programs including the program for 69892
medically handicapped children, and to provide technical 69893
assistance and consultation to city and general health districts 69894
and local health planning organizations in implementing local, 69895
community-based, family-centered, coordinated systems of care for 69896
medically handicapped children. The department may make grants to 69897
persons and other entities for the provision of services with the 69898
funds. In addition, the department may use the funds to purchase 69899
liability insurance covering the provision of services under the 69900
programs by physicians and other health care professionals, and to 69901
pay health insurance premiums on behalf of medically handicapped 69902
children participating in the program for medically handicapped 69903
children when the department determines, in accordance with 69904
criteria set forth in rules adopted under division (A)(9) of 69905
section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, that payment of the premiums 69906
is cost effective.69907

       In determining eligibility for services provided with funds 69908
received from the "Maternal and Child Health Block Grant," the 69909
department may use the application form established under section69910
5111.0135163.40 of the Revised Code. The department may require 69911
applicants to furnish their social security numbers. Funds from 69912
the "Maternal and Child Health Block Grant" that are administered 69913
for the purpose of providing family planning services shall be 69914
distributed in accordance with section 3701.033 of the Revised 69915
Code.69916

       Sec. 3701.033.  (A) This section establishes the order of 69917
priority to be followed by the department of health when 69918
distributing funds for the purpose of providing family planning 69919
services, including funds the department receives through the 69920
"Maternal and Child Health Block Grant," Title V of the "Social 69921
Security Act," 95 Stat. 818 (1981), 42 U.S.C. 701, as amended, and 69922
funds the department receives through Title X of the "Public 69923
Health Service Act," 84 Stat. 1504 (1970), 42 U.S.C. 300a, as 69924
amended. This section does not apply to grants awarded by the 69925
department under section 3701.046 of the Revised Code.69926

       (B) With respect to each period during which funds from a 69927
particular source are distributed for the purpose of providing 69928
family planning services, the department is subject to both of the 69929
following when distributing the funds to applicants seeking those 69930
funds:69931

        (1) Foremost priority shall be given to public entities that 69932
are operated by state or local government entities and that 69933
provide or are able to provide family planning services.69934

       (2) If any funds remain after the department distributes 69935
funds to public entities under division (B)(1) of this section, 69936
the department may distribute funds to nonpublic entities. If 69937
funds are distributed to nonpublic entities, the department shall 69938
distribute the funds in the following order of descending 69939
priority:69940

       (a) Nonpublic entities that are federally qualified health 69941
centers or federally qualified health center look-alikes, both as 69942
defined in section 3701.047 of the Revised Code, or community 69943
action agencies, as defined in section 122.66 of the Revised Code;69944

       (b) Nonpublic entities that provide comprehensive primary and 69945
preventive care services in addition to family planning services;69946

       (c) Nonpublic entities that provide family planning services, 69947
but do not provide comprehensive primary and preventive care 69948
services.69949

       Sec. 3701.13.  The department of health shall have 69950
supervision of all matters relating to the preservation of the 69951
life and health of the people and have ultimate authority in 69952
matters of quarantine and isolation, which it may declare and 69953
enforce, when neither exists, and modify, relax, or abolish, when 69954
either has been established. The department may approve methods of 69955
immunization against the diseases specified in section 3313.671 of 69956
the Revised Code for the purpose of carrying out the provisions of 69957
that section and take such actions as are necessary to encourage 69958
vaccination against those diseases.69959

       The department may make special or standing orders or rules 69960
for preventing the use of fluoroscopes for nonmedical purposes69961
whichthat emit doses of radiation likely to be harmful to any 69962
person, for preventing the spread of contagious or infectious 69963
diseases, for governing the receipt and conveyance of remains of 69964
deceased persons, and for such other sanitary matters as are best 69965
controlled by a general rule. Whenever possible, the department 69966
shall work in cooperation with the health commissioner of a 69967
general or city health district. ItThe department may make and 69968
enforce orders in local matters or reassign substantive authority 69969
for mandatory programs from a general or city health district to 69970
another general or city health district when an emergency exists, 69971
or when the board of health of a general or city health district 69972
has neglected or refused to act with sufficient promptness or 69973
efficiency, or when such board has not been established as 69974
provided by sections 3709.02, 3709.03, 3709.05, 3709.06, 3709.11, 69975
3709.12, and 3709.14 of the Revised Code. In such cases, the 69976
necessary expense incurred shall be paid by the general health 69977
district or city for which the services are rendered.69978

       The department of health may require general or city health 69979
districts to enter into agreements for shared services under 69980
section 9.482 of the Revised Code. The department shall prepare 69981
and offer to boards of health a model contract and memorandum of 69982
understanding that are easily adaptable for use by boards of 69983
health when entering into shared services agreements. The 69984
department also may offer financial and other technical assistance 69985
to boards of health to encourage the sharing of services.69986

       As a condition precedent to receiving funding from the 69987
department of health, the director of health may require general 69988
or city health districts to apply for accreditation by July 1, 69989
2018, and be accredited by July 1, 2020, by an accreditation body 69990
approved by the director. The director of health, by July 1, 2016, 69991
shall conduct an evaluation of general and city health district 69992
preparation for accreditation, including an evaluation of each 69993
district's reported public health quality indicators as provided 69994
for in section 3701.98 of the Revised Code.69995

       The department may make evaluative studies of the nutritional 69996
status of Ohio residents, and of the food and nutrition-related 69997
programs operating within the state. Every agency of the state, at 69998
the request of the department, shall provide information and 69999
otherwise assist in the execution of such studies.70000

       Sec. 3701.132.  The department of health is hereby designated 70001
as the state agency to administer the "special supplemental 70002
nutrition program for women, infants, and children" established 70003
under the "Child Nutrition Act of 1966," 80 Stat. 885, 42 U.S.C. 70004
1786, as amended. The director of health may adopt rules pursuant 70005
to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary for administering 70006
the program. The rules may include civil money penalties for 70007
violations of the rules.70008

       In determining eligibility for services provided under the 70009
program, the department may use the application form established 70010
under section 5111.0135163.40 of the Revised Code for the healthy 70011
start program. The department may require applicants to furnish 70012
their social security numbers.70013

       The department shall review and process an application for a 70014
new contract to act as a vendor under the program not later than 70015
forty-five days after the date it is received if on that date the 70016
applicant has a contract with the department to act as a vendor 70017
under the program.70018

       If the department determines that a vendor has committed an 70019
act with respect to the program that federal statutes or 70020
regulations or state statutes or rules prohibit, the department 70021
shall take action against the vendor in the manner required by 7 70022
C.F.R. part 246, including imposition of a civil money penalty in 70023
accordance with 7 C.F.R. 246.12, or rules adopted under this 70024
section.70025

       Sec. 3701.138.  (A) The director of health may determine that 70026
a dental assistant certified by the dental assisting national 70027
board or the Ohio commission on dental assistant certification may 70028
do either or both of the following without a dentist being 70029
physically present or a dentist examining a patient prior to the 70030
service:70031

       (1) Apply pit and fissure sealants through a program operated 70032
by a school district board of education or the governing board of 70033
an educational service center;70034

       (2) If the director establishes a school-based fluoride mouth 70035
rinse program under section 3701.136 of the Revised Code, 70036
administer fluoride mouth rinse to a student who receives services 70037
from the program.70038

       (B) The director may determine that an expanded function 70039
dental auxiliary registered under Chapter 4715. of the Revised 70040
Code may do either or both of the following without a dentist 70041
being physically present or a dentist examining a patient prior to 70042
the service:70043

       (1) Apply pit and fissure sealants through a program operated 70044
by a school district board of education or the governing board of 70045
an educational service center;70046

       (2) If the director establishes a school-based fluoride mouth 70047
rinse program under section 3701.136 of the Revised Code, 70048
administer fluoride mouth rinse to a student who receives services 70049
from the program.70050

       Sec. 3701.243.  (A) Except as provided in this section or 70051
section 3701.248 of the Revised Code, no person or agency of state 70052
or local government that acquires the information while providing 70053
any health care service or while in the employ of a health care 70054
facility or health care provider shall disclose or compel another 70055
to disclose any of the following:70056

       (1) The identity of any individual on whom an HIV test is 70057
performed;70058

       (2) The results of an HIV test in a form that identifies the 70059
individual tested;70060

       (3) The identity of any individual diagnosed as having AIDS 70061
or an AIDS-related condition.70062

       (B)(1) Except as provided in divisions (B)(2), (C), (D), and 70063
(F) of this section, the results of an HIV test or the identity of 70064
an individual on whom an HIV test is performed or who is diagnosed 70065
as having AIDS or an AIDS-related condition may be disclosed only 70066
to the following:70067

       (a) The individual who was tested or the individual's legal 70068
guardian, and the individual's spouse or any sexual partner;70069

       (b) A person to whom disclosure is authorized by a written 70070
release, executed by the individual tested or by the individual's 70071
legal guardian and specifying to whom disclosure of the test 70072
results or diagnosis is authorized and the time period during 70073
which the release is to be effective;70074

       (c) The individual's physician;70075

       (d) The department of health or a health commissioner to 70076
which reports are made under section 3701.24 of the Revised Code;70077

       (e) A health care facility or provider that procures, 70078
processes, distributes, or uses a human body part from a deceased 70079
individual, donated for a purpose specified in Chapter 2108. of 70080
the Revised Code, and that needs medical information about the 70081
deceased individual to ensure that the body part is medically 70082
acceptable for its intended purpose;70083

       (f) Health care facility staff committees or accreditation or 70084
oversight review organizations conducting program monitoring, 70085
program evaluation, or service reviews;70086

       (g) A health care provider, emergency medical services 70087
worker, or peace officer who sustained a significant exposure to 70088
the body fluids of another individual, if that individual was 70089
tested pursuant to division (E)(6) of section 3701.242 of the 70090
Revised Code, except that the identity of the individual tested 70091
shall not be revealed;70092

       (h) To law enforcement authorities pursuant to a search 70093
warrant or a subpoena issued by or at the request of a grand jury, 70094
a prosecuting attorney, a city director of law or similar chief 70095
legal officer of a municipal corporation, or a village solicitor, 70096
in connection with a criminal investigation or prosecution.70097

       (2) The results of an HIV test or a diagnosis of AIDS or an 70098
AIDS-related condition may be disclosed to a health care provider, 70099
or an authorized agent or employee of a health care facility or a 70100
health care provider, if the provider, agent, or employee has a 70101
medical need to know the information and is participating in the 70102
diagnosis, care, or treatment of the individual on whom the test 70103
was performed or who has been diagnosed as having AIDS or an 70104
AIDS-related condition.70105

       This division does not impose a standard of disclosure 70106
different from the standard for disclosure of all other specific 70107
information about a patient to health care providers and 70108
facilities. Disclosure may not be requested or made solely for the 70109
purpose of identifying an individual who has a positive HIV test 70110
result or has been diagnosed as having AIDS or an AIDS-related 70111
condition in order to refuse to treat the individual. Referral of 70112
an individual to another health care provider or facility based on 70113
reasonable professional judgment does not constitute refusal to 70114
treat the individual.70115

       (3) Not later than ninety days after November 1, 1989, each 70116
health care facility in this state shall establish a protocol to 70117
be followed by employees and individuals affiliated with the 70118
facility in making disclosures authorized by division (B)(2) of 70119
this section. A person employed by or affiliated with a health 70120
care facility who determines in accordance with the protocol 70121
established by the facility that a disclosure is authorized by 70122
division (B)(2) of this section is immune from liability to any 70123
person in a civil action for damages for injury, death, or loss to 70124
person or property resulting from the disclosure.70125

       (C)(1) Any person or government agency may seek access to or 70126
authority to disclose the HIV test records of an individual in 70127
accordance with the following provisions:70128

       (a) The person or government agency shall bring an action in 70129
a court of common pleas requesting disclosure of or authority to 70130
disclose the results of an HIV test of a specific individual, who 70131
shall be identified in the complaint by a pseudonym but whose name 70132
shall be communicated to the court confidentially, pursuant to a 70133
court order restricting the use of the name. The court shall 70134
provide the individual with notice and an opportunity to 70135
participate in the proceedings if the individual is not named as a 70136
party. Proceedings shall be conducted in chambers unless the 70137
individual agrees to a hearing in open court.70138

       (b) The court may issue an order granting the plaintiff 70139
access to or authority to disclose the test results only if the 70140
court finds by clear and convincing evidence that the plaintiff 70141
has demonstrated a compelling need for disclosure of the 70142
information that cannot be accommodated by other means. In 70143
assessing compelling need, the court shall weigh the need for 70144
disclosure against the privacy right of the individual tested and 70145
against any disservice to the public interest that might result 70146
from the disclosure, such as discrimination against the individual 70147
or the deterrence of others from being tested.70148

       (c) If the court issues an order, it shall guard against 70149
unauthorized disclosure by specifying the persons who may have 70150
access to the information, the purposes for which the information 70151
shall be used, and prohibitions against future disclosure.70152

       (2) A person or government agency that considers it necessary 70153
to disclose the results of an HIV test of a specific individual in 70154
an action in which it is a party may seek authority for the 70155
disclosure by filing an in camera motion with the court in which 70156
the action is being heard. In hearing the motion, the court shall 70157
employ procedures for confidentiality similar to those specified 70158
in division (C)(1) of this section. The court shall grant the 70159
motion only if it finds by clear and convincing evidence that a 70160
compelling need for the disclosure has been demonstrated.70161

       (3) Except for an order issued in a criminal prosecution or 70162
an order under division (C)(1) or (2) of this section granting 70163
disclosure of the result of an HIV test of a specific individual, 70164
a court shall not compel a blood bank, hospital blood center, or 70165
blood collection facility to disclose the result of HIV tests 70166
performed on the blood of voluntary donors in a way that reveals 70167
the identity of any donor.70168

       (4) In a civil action in which the plaintiff seeks to recover 70169
damages from an individual defendant based on an allegation that 70170
the plaintiff contracted the HIV virus as a result of actions of 70171
the defendant, the prohibitions against disclosure in this section 70172
do not bar discovery of the results of any HIV test given to the 70173
defendant or any diagnosis that the defendant suffers from AIDS or 70174
an AIDS-related condition.70175

       (D) The results of an HIV test or the identity of an 70176
individual on whom an HIV test is performed or who is diagnosed as 70177
having AIDS or an AIDS-related condition may be disclosed to a 70178
federal, state, or local government agency, or the official 70179
representative of such an agency, for purposes of the medical 70180
assistancemedicaid program established under section 5111.01 of 70181
the Revised Code, the medicare program established under Title 70182
XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935) 42 70183
U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, or any other public assistance program.70184

       (E) Any disclosure pursuant to this section shall be in 70185
writing and accompanied by a written statement that includes the 70186
following or substantially similar language: "This information has 70187
been disclosed to you from confidential records protected from 70188
disclosure by state law. You shall make no further disclosure of 70189
this information without the specific, written, and informed 70190
release of the individual to whom it pertains, or as otherwise 70191
permitted by state law. A general authorization for the release of 70192
medical or other information is not sufficient for the purpose of 70193
the release of HIV test results or diagnoses."70194

       (F) An individual who knows that the individual has received 70195
a positive result on an HIV test or has been diagnosed as having 70196
AIDS or an AIDS-related condition shall disclose this information 70197
to any other person with whom the individual intends to make 70198
common use of a hypodermic needle or engage in sexual conduct as 70199
defined in section 2907.01 of the Revised Code. An individual's 70200
compliance with this division does not prohibit a prosecution of 70201
the individual for a violation of division (B) of section 2903.11 70202
of the Revised Code.70203

       (G) Nothing in this section prohibits the introduction of 70204
evidence concerning an HIV test of a specific individual in a 70205
criminal proceeding.70206

       Sec. 3701.261.  (A) As used in this section, "state 70207
university" has the same meaning as in section 3345.011 of the 70208
Revised Code.70209

       (B) The director of health shall:70210

       (1) Establish a population-based cancer registry, which shall 70211
be known as the Ohio cancer incidence surveillance system, to 70212
monitor the incidence of various types of malignant diseases in 70213
Ohio, make appropriate epidemiologic studies to determine any 70214
causal relations of such diseases with occupational, nutritional, 70215
environmental, or infectious conditions, and alleviate or 70216
eliminate any such conditions;70217

       (2) Advise, consult, cooperate with, and assist, by contract 70218
or otherwise, agencies of the state and federal government, 70219
agencies of the governments of other states, agencies of political 70220
subdivisions of this state, universities, private organizations, 70221
corporations, and associations for the purposes of division 70222
(A)(B)(1) of this section;70223

       (3) Accept and administer grants from the federal government 70224
or other sources, public or private, for carrying out any of the 70225
functions enumerated in divisions (A)(B)(1) and (2) of this 70226
section.70227

       (B)(C) The Ohio cancer incidence surveillance system shall 70228
follow a model of cancer data collection as set forth by the 70229
survey epidemiology and end results system (SEERS). 70230

       (D) The department may, by contract, designate a state 70231
university as an agent to implement some or all of this section 70232
and section 3701.262 of the Revised Code and the rules adopted 70233
under those sections.70234

       Sec. 3701.262.  (A) As used in this section and section 70235
3701.263 of the Revised Code:70236

       (1) "Physician" means a person who holds a valid certificate 70237
issued under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code authorizing the 70238
person to practice medicine orand surgery or osteopathic medicine 70239
and surgery.70240

       (2) "Dentist" means a person who is licensed under Chapter 70241
4715. of the Revised Code to practice dentistry.70242

       (3) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of 70243
the Revised Code.70244

       (4) "Cancer" includes those diseases specified by rule of the 70245
director of health under division (B)(2) of this section.70246

       (B) The director of health shall adopt rules in accordance 70247
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to do all of the following:70248

       (1) Establish the Ohio cancer incidence surveillance system 70249
required by section 3701.261 of the Revised Code;70250

       (2) Specify the types of cancer and other tumorous and 70251
precancerous diseases to be reported to the department of health 70252
under division (D) of this section;70253

       (3) Establish reporting requirements for information 70254
concerning diagnosed cancer cases as the director considers 70255
necessary to conduct epidemiologic surveys of cancer in this 70256
state;70257

       (4) Establish standards that must be met by research projects 70258
to be eligible to receive information concerning individual cancer 70259
patients from the department of health under division (B) of 70260
section 3701.263 of the Revised Code.70261

       (C) The department of health shall record in the registry all 70262
reports of cancer received by it. In the development and 70263
administration of the cancer registry the department may use 70264
information compiled by public or private cancer registries and 70265
may contract for the collection and analysis of, and research 70266
related to, the information recorded under this section.70267

       (D)(1) Each physician, dentist, hospital, or person providing 70268
diagnostic or treatment services to patients with cancer shall 70269
report each case of cancer to the department. Any person required 70270
to report pursuant to this section may elect to report to the 70271
department through an existing cancer registry if the registry 70272
meets the reporting standards established by the director and 70273
reports to the department.70274

       (2) No person shall fail to make the cancer reports required 70275
by division (D)(1) of this section.70276

       (E) All physicians, dentists, hospitals, or persons providing 70277
diagnostic or treatment services to patients with cancer shall 70278
grant to the department or its authorized representative access to 70279
all records that identify cases of cancer or establish 70280
characteristics of cancer, the treatment of cancer, or the medical 70281
status of any identified cancer patient.70282

       (F) The Arthur G. James cancer hospital and Richard J. Solove 70283
research institute of the Ohio state university, shall analyze and 70284
evaluate the cancer reports collected pursuant to this section. 70285
The department shall publish and make available to the public 70286
reports summarizing the information collected. Reports shall be 70287
made on a calendar year basis and published not later than ninety 70288
days after the end of each calendar year.70289

       (G) Furnishing information, including records, reports, 70290
statements, notes, memoranda, or other information, to the 70291
department of health, either voluntarily or as required by this 70292
section, or to a person or governmental entity designated as a 70293
medical research project by the department, does not subject a 70294
physician, dentist, hospital, or person providing diagnostic or 70295
treatment services to patients with cancer to liability in an 70296
action for damages or other relief for furnishing the information.70297

       (H) This section does not affect the authority of any person 70298
or facility providing diagnostic or treatment services to patients 70299
with cancer to maintain facility-based tumor registries, in 70300
addition to complying with the reporting requirements of this 70301
section.70302

       (I) No person shall fail to make the cancer reports required 70303
by division (D) of this section.70304

       Sec. 3701.264.  There is hereby created the Ohio cancer 70305
incidence surveillance system advisory board. The board shall 70306
consist of the director of health, who shall serve as chair of the 70307
board, and one representative, appointed by the governor, from 70308
each medical school accredited by the liaison committee on medical 70309
education and each osteopathic medical school accredited by the 70310
American osteopathic association in Ohio. In addition, the 70311
director of health shall appoint up to three additional members of 70312
the board. Vacancies on the board shall be filled in the same 70313
manner as the initial appointments. Members shall serve without 70314
compensation.70315

       The board shall provide oversight of the collection and 70316
analysis of data by the Ohio cancer incidence surveillance system 70317
to the director of health and the Arthur G. James cancer hospital 70318
and Richard J. Solove research institute of the Ohio state 70319
university and advise in the implementation of sections 3701.261 70320
to 3701.263and 3701.262 of the Revised Code. The board shall meet 70321
and conduct its business as directed by the chair.70322

       The board shall report to the finance committees of both 70323
houses of the general assembly, not later than March 1, 2001, on 70324
the progress made in implementing sections 3701.261 to 3701.263 of 70325
the Revised Code.70326

       The board is not subject to sections 101.82 to 101.87 of the 70327
Revised Code.70328

       Sec. 3701.342. After consultation with the public health 70329
standards task force established under section 3701.343 of the 70330
Revised Code, theThe director of health shall adopt rules 70331
establishing minimum standards and optimum achievable standards 70332
for boards of health and local health departments. The minimum 70333
standards shall assure that boards of health and local health 70334
departments provide for:70335

       (A) Analysis and prevention of communicable disease;70336

       (B) Analysis of the causes of, and appropriate treatment for, 70337
the leading causes of morbidity and mortality;70338

       (C) The administration and management of the local health 70339
department;70340

       (D) Access to primary health care by medically underserved 70341
individuals;70342

       (E) Environmental health management programs;70343

       (F) Health promotion services designed to encourage 70344
individual and community wellness;70345

       (G) Annual completion of two hours of continuing education by 70346
each member of a board of health. The minimum standards shall 70347
provide that continuing education credits shall pertain to ethics, 70348
public health principles, and a member's responsibilities. Credits 70349
may be earned in these topics at pertinent presentations that may 70350
occur during regularly scheduled board meetings throughout the 70351
calendar year or at other programs available for continuing 70352
education credit. The director of health may assist local boards 70353
of health of general and city health districts in coordinating 70354
approved continuing education programs sponsored by health care 70355
licensing boards, commissions, or associations. The minimum 70356
standards also shall provide that continuing education credits 70357
earned for the purpose of license renewal or certification by 70358
licensed health professionals serving on boards of health may be 70359
counted to fulfill the two-hour continuing education requirement.70360

       The director shall adopt rules establishing a formula for 70361
distribution of state health district subsidy funds to boards of 70362
health and local health departments. The formula shall provide no 70363
subsidy funds to a board or department unless it meets minimum 70364
standards and shall provide higher funding levels for boards and 70365
districts that meet optimum achievable standards.70366

       Notwithstanding section 119.03 of the Revised Code, rules 70367
adopted under this section shall not take effect unless approved 70368
by concurrent resolution of the general assembly.70369

       Sec. 3701.344.  As used in this section and sections 70370
3701.345, 3701.346, and 3701.347 of the Revised Code:70371

       (A) "Private water system" means any water system for the 70372
provision of water for human consumption, if such system has fewer 70373
than fifteen service connections and does not regularly serve an 70374
average of at least twenty-five individuals daily at least sixty 70375
days out of the year. A private water system includes any well, 70376
spring, cistern, pond, or hauled water and any equipment for the 70377
collection, transportation, filtration, disinfection, treatment, 70378
or storage of such water extending from and including the source 70379
of the water to the point of discharge from any pressure tank or 70380
other storage vessel; to the point of discharge from the water 70381
pump where no pressure tank or other storage vessel is present; 70382
or, in the case of multiple service connections serving more than 70383
one dwelling, to the point of discharge from each service 70384
connection. "Private water system" does not include the water 70385
service line extending from the point of discharge to a structure.70386

       (B) Notwithstanding section 3701.347 of the Revised Code and 70387
subject to division (C) of this section, rules adopted by the 70388
director of health regarding private water systems shall provide 70389
for the following:70390

       (1) Except as otherwise provided in this division, boards of 70391
health of city or general health districts shall be given the 70392
exclusive power to establish fees in accordance with section 70393
3709.09 of the Revised Code for administering and enforcing such 70394
rules. Such fees shall establish a different rate for 70395
administering and enforcing the rules relative to private water 70396
systems serving single-family dwelling houses and nonsingle-family 70397
dwelling houses. Except for an amount established by the director, 70398
pursuant to division (B)(5) of this section, for each new private 70399
water system installation, no portion of any fee for administering 70400
and enforcing such rules shall be returned to the department of 70401
health. If the director of health determines that a board of 70402
health of a city or general health district is unable to 70403
administer and enforce a private water system program in the 70404
district, the director shall administer and enforce such a program 70405
in the district and establish fees for such administration and 70406
enforcement.70407

       (2) Boards of health of city or general health districts 70408
shall be given the exclusive power to determine the number of 70409
inspections necessary for determining the safe drinking 70410
characteristics of a private water system.70411

       (3) Private water systems contractors, as a condition of 70412
doing business in this state, shall annually register with, and 70413
comply with surety bonding requirements of, the department of 70414
health. No such contractor shall be permitted to register if the 70415
contractor fails to comply with all applicable rules adopted by 70416
the director and the board of health of the city or general health 70417
district. The annual registration fee for private water systems 70418
contractors shall be sixty-five dollars. The director, by rule 70419
adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, may 70420
increase the annual registration fee. 70421

       (4) Subject to rules adopted by the director, boards of 70422
health of city or general health districts shall have the option 70423
of determining whether bacteriological examinations shall be 70424
performed at approved laboratories of the state or at approved 70425
private laboratories.70426

       (5) The director may establish fees for each new private 70427
water system installation, which shall be collected by the 70428
appropriate board of health and transmitted to the director 70429
pursuant to section 3709.092 of the Revised Code.70430

       (6) All fees received by the director of health under 70431
divisions (B)(1), (3), and (5) of this section shall be deposited 70432
in the state treasury to the credit of the general operations fund 70433
created in section 3701.83 of the Revised Code for use in the 70434
administration and enforcement of sections 3701.344 to 3701.347 of 70435
the Revised Code and the rules pertaining to private water systems 70436
adopted under those sections. 70437

       (C) To the extent that rules adopted under division (B) of 70438
this section require health districts to follow specific 70439
procedures or use prescribed forms, no such procedure or form 70440
shall be implemented until it is approved by majority vote of an 70441
approval board of health commissioners, hereby created. Members of 70442
the board shall be the officers of the association of Ohio health 70443
commissioners, or any successor organization, and membership on 70444
the board shall be coterminous with holding an office of the 70445
association. No health district is required to follow a procedure 70446
or use a form required by a rule adopted under division (B) of 70447
this section without the approval of the board.70448

       (D) A board of health shall collect well log filing fees on 70449
behalf of the division of soil and water resources in the 70450
department of natural resources in accordance with section 1521.05 70451
of the Revised Code and rules adopted under it. The fees shall be 70452
submitted to the division quarterly as provided in those rules.70453

       (E) A water system that does not provide water for human 70454
consumption shall not be required to obtain a permit or license 70455
issued under, pay any fees assessed or levied under, or comply 70456
with any rule adopted under sections 3701.34 to 3701.347 of the 70457
Revised Code.70458

       Sec. 3701.507.  (A) To assist in implementing sections 70459
3701.503 to 3701.509 of the Revised Code, the medically 70460
handicapped children's medical advisory council created in section 70461
3701.025 of the Revised Code shall appoint a permanent infant 70462
hearing screening subcommittee. The subcommittee shall consist of 70463
the following members:70464

       (1) One otolaryngologist;70465

       (2) One neonatologist;70466

       (3) One pediatrician;70467

       (4) One neurologist;70468

       (5) One hospital administrator;70469

       (6) Two or more audiologists who are experienced in infant 70470
hearing screening and evaluation;70471

       (7) One speech-language pathologist licensed under section 70472
4753.07 of the Revised Code;70473

       (8) Two persons who are each a parent of a hearing-impaired 70474
child;70475

       (9) One geneticist;70476

       (10) One epidemiologist;70477

       (11) One adult who is deaf or hearing impaired;70478

       (12) One representative from an organization for the deaf or 70479
hearing impaired;70480

       (13) One family advocate;70481

       (14) One nurse from a well-baby neonatal nursery;70482

       (15) One nurse from a special care neonatal nursery;70483

       (16) One teacher of the deaf who works with infants and 70484
toddlers;70485

       (17) One representative of the health insurance industry;70486

       (18) One representative of the bureau for children with 70487
medical handicaps;70488

       (19) One representative of the department of education;70489

       (20) One representative of the Ohio department of job and 70490
family services who has responsibilities regarding medicaid;70491

       (21) Any other person the advisory council appoints.70492

       (B) The infant hearing subcommittee shall:70493

       (1) Consult with the director of health regarding the 70494
administration of sections 3701.503 to 3701.509 of the Revised 70495
Code;70496

       (2) Advise and make recommendations regarding proposed rules 70497
prior to their adoption by the director under section 3701.508 of 70498
the Revised Code;70499

       (3) Consult with the director of health and advise and make 70500
recommendations regarding program development and implementation 70501
under sections 3701.503 to 3701.509 of the Revised Code, including 70502
all of the following:70503

       (a) Establishment under section 3701.504 of the Revised Code 70504
of the statewide hearing screening, tracking, and early 70505
intervention program to identify newborn and infant hearing 70506
impairment;70507

       (b) Identification of locations where hearing evaluations may 70508
be conducted;70509

       (c) Recommendations for methods and techniques of hearing 70510
screening and hearing evaluation;70511

       (d) Referral, data recording and compilation, and procedures 70512
to encourage follow-up hearing care;70513

       (e) Maintenance of a register of newborns and infants who do 70514
not pass the hearing screening;70515

       (f) Preparation of the information required by section 70516
3701.506 of the Revised Code. 70517

       Sec. 3701.74.  (A) As used in this section and section 70518
3701.741 of the Revised Code:70519

       (1) "Ambulatory care facility" means a facility that provides 70520
medical, diagnostic, or surgical treatment to patients who do not 70521
require hospitalization, including a dialysis center, ambulatory 70522
surgical facility, cardiac catheterization facility, diagnostic 70523
imaging center, extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy center, home 70524
health agency, inpatient hospice, birthing center, radiation 70525
therapy center, emergency facility, and an urgent care center. 70526
"Ambulatory care facility" does not include the private office of 70527
a physician or dentist, whether the office is for an individual or 70528
group practice.70529

       (2) "Chiropractor" means an individual licensed under Chapter 70530
4734. of the Revised Code to practice chiropractic.70531

       (3) "Emergency facility" means a hospital emergency 70532
department or any other facility that provides emergency medical 70533
services.70534

       (4) "Health care practitioner" means all of the following:70535

       (a) A dentist or dental hygienist licensed under Chapter 70536
4715. of the Revised Code;70537

       (b) A registered or licensed practical nurse licensed under 70538
Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code;70539

       (c) An optometrist licensed under Chapter 4725. of the 70540
Revised Code;70541

       (d) A dispensing optician, spectacle dispensing optician, 70542
contact lens dispensing optician, or spectacle-contact lens 70543
dispensing optician licensed under Chapter 4725. of the Revised 70544
Code;70545

       (e) A pharmacist licensed under Chapter 4729. of the Revised 70546
Code;70547

       (f) A physician;70548

       (g) A physician assistant authorized under Chapter 4730. of 70549
the Revised Code to practice as a physician assistant;70550

       (h) A practitioner of a limited branch of medicine issued a 70551
certificate under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code;70552

       (i) A psychologist licensed under Chapter 4732. of the 70553
Revised Code;70554

       (j) A chiropractor;70555

       (k) A hearing aid dealer or fitter licensed under Chapter 70556
4747. of the Revised Code;70557

       (l) A speech-language pathologist or audiologist licensed 70558
under Chapter 4753. of the Revised Code;70559

       (m) An occupational therapist or occupational therapy 70560
assistant licensed under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code;70561

       (n) A physical therapist or physical therapy assistant 70562
licensed under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code;70563

       (o) A professional clinical counselor, professional 70564
counselor, social worker, or independent social worker licensed, 70565
or a social work assistant registered, under Chapter 4757. of the 70566
Revised Code;70567

       (p) A dietitian licensed under Chapter 4759. of the Revised 70568
Code;70569

       (q) A respiratory care professional licensed under Chapter 70570
4761. of the Revised Code;70571

       (r) An emergency medical technician-basic, emergency medical 70572
technician-intermediate, or emergency medical technician-paramedic 70573
certified under Chapter 4765. of the Revised Code.70574

       (5) "Health care provider" means a hospital, ambulatory care 70575
facility, long-term care facility, pharmacy, emergency facility, 70576
or health care practitioner.70577

       (6) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of 70578
the Revised Code.70579

       (7) "Long-term care facility" means a nursing home, 70580
residential care facility, or home for the aging, as those terms 70581
are defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code; a residential 70582
facility licensed under section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised 70583
Code that provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care 70584
services for three to sixteen unrelated adults; a nursing facility 70585
or intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded, as those 70586
terms are defined in section 5111.205165.01 of the Revised Code; 70587
a facility or portion of a facility certified as a skilled nursing 70588
facility under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 70589
286 (1965), 42 U.S.C.A. 1395, as amended, as defined in section 70590
5165.01 of the Revised Code; and an intermediate care facility for 70591
individuals with intellectual disabilities, as defined in section 70592
5124.01 of the Revised Code.70593

       (8) "Medical record" means data in any form that pertains to 70594
a patient's medical history, diagnosis, prognosis, or medical 70595
condition and that is generated and maintained by a health care 70596
provider in the process of the patient's health care treatment.70597

       (9) "Medical records company" means a person who stores, 70598
locates, or copies medical records for a health care provider, or 70599
is compensated for doing so by a health care provider, and charges 70600
a fee for providing medical records to a patient or patient's 70601
representative.70602

       (10) "Patient" means either of the following:70603

       (a) An individual who received health care treatment from a 70604
health care provider;70605

       (b) A guardian, as defined in section 1337.11 of the Revised 70606
Code, of an individual described in division (A)(10)(a) of this 70607
section.70608

       (11) "Patient's personal representative" means a minor 70609
patient's parent or other person acting in loco parentis, a 70610
court-appointed guardian, or a person with durable power of 70611
attorney for health care for a patient, the executor or 70612
administrator of the patient's estate, or the person responsible 70613
for the patient's estate if it is not to be probated. "Patient's 70614
personal representative" does not include an insurer authorized 70615
under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code to do the business of 70616
sickness and accident insurance in this state, a health insuring 70617
corporation holding a certificate of authority under Chapter 1751. 70618
of the Revised Code, or any other person not named in this 70619
division.70620

       (12) "Pharmacy" has the same meaning as in section 4729.01 of 70621
the Revised Code.70622

       (13) "Physician" means a person authorized under Chapter 70623
4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery, 70624
osteopathic medicine and surgery, or podiatric medicine and 70625
surgery.70626

       (14) "Authorized person" means a person to whom a patient has 70627
given written authorization to act on the patient's behalf 70628
regarding the patient's medical record.70629

       (B) A patient, a patient's personal representative or an 70630
authorized person who wishes to examine or obtain a copy of part 70631
or all of a medical record shall submit to the health care 70632
provider a written request signed by the patient, personal 70633
representative, or authorized person dated not more than one year 70634
before the date on which it is submitted. The request shall 70635
indicate whether the copy is to be sent to the requestor, 70636
physician or chiropractor, or held for the requestor at the office 70637
of the health care provider. Within a reasonable time after 70638
receiving a request that meets the requirements of this division 70639
and includes sufficient information to identify the record 70640
requested, a health care provider that has the patient's medical 70641
records shall permit the patient to examine the record during 70642
regular business hours without charge or, on request, shall 70643
provide a copy of the record in accordance with section 3701.741 70644
of the Revised Code, except that if a physician or chiropractor 70645
who has treated the patient determines for clearly stated 70646
treatment reasons that disclosure of the requested record is 70647
likely to have an adverse effect on the patient, the health care 70648
provider shall provide the record to a physician or chiropractor 70649
designated by the patient. The health care provider shall take 70650
reasonable steps to establish the identity of the person making 70651
the request to examine or obtain a copy of the patient's record.70652

       (C) If a health care provider fails to furnish a medical 70653
record as required by division (B) of this section, the patient, 70654
personal representative, or authorized person who requested the 70655
record may bring a civil action to enforce the patient's right of 70656
access to the record.70657

       (D)(1) This section does not apply to medical records whose 70658
release is covered by section 173.20 or 3721.13 of the Revised 70659
Code, by Chapter 1347. or 5122. of the Revised Code, by 42 C.F.R. 70660
part 2, "Confidentiality of Alcohol and Drug Abuse Patient 70661
Records," or by 42 C.F.R. 483.10.70662

       (2) Nothing in this section is intended to supersede the 70663
confidentiality provisions of sections 2305.24, 2305.25, 2305.251, 70664
and 2305.252 of the Revised Code.70665

       Sec. 3701.741.  (A) Each health care provider and medical 70666
records company shall provide copies of medical records in 70667
accordance with this section.70668

       (B) Except as provided in divisions (C) and (E) of this 70669
section, a health care provider or medical records company that 70670
receives a request for a copy of a patient's medical record shall 70671
charge not more than the amounts set forth in this section. 70672

       (1) If the request is made by the patient or the patient's 70673
personal representative, total costs for copies and all services 70674
related to those copies shall not exceed the sum of the following:70675

       (a) Except as provided in division (B)(1)(b) of this section, 70676
with respect to data recorded on paper or electronically, the 70677
following amounts adjusted in accordance with section 3701.742 of 70678
the Revised Code:70679

        (i) Two dollars and seventy-four cents per page for the first 70680
ten pages;70681

        (ii) Fifty-seven cents per page for pages eleven through 70682
fifty;70683

       (iii) Twenty-three cents per page for pages fifty-one and 70684
higher;70685

        (b) With respect to data resulting from an x-ray, magnetic 70686
resonance imaging (MRI), or computed axial tomography (CAT) scan 70687
and recorded on paper or film, one dollar and eighty-seven cents 70688
per page;70689

        (c) The actual cost of any related postage incurred by the 70690
health care provider or medical records company.70691

        (2) If the request is made other than by the patient or the 70692
patient's personal representative, total costs for copies and all 70693
services related to those copies shall not exceed the sum of the 70694
following:70695

       (a) An initial fee of sixteen dollars and eighty-four cents 70696
adjusted in accordance with section 3701.742 of the Revised Code, 70697
which shall compensate for the records search;70698

       (b) Except as provided in division (B)(2)(c) of this section, 70699
with respect to data recorded on paper or electronically, the 70700
following amounts adjusted in accordance with section 3701.742 of 70701
the Revised Code:70702

       (i) One dollar and eleven cents per page for the first ten 70703
pages;70704

       (ii) Fifty-seven cents per page for pages eleven through 70705
fifty;70706

       (iii) Twenty-three cents per page for pages fifty-one and 70707
higher.70708

       (c) With respect to data resulting from an x-ray, magnetic 70709
resonance imaging (MRI), or computed axial tomography (CAT) scan 70710
and recorded on paper or film, one dollar and eighty-seven cents 70711
per page;70712

       (d) The actual cost of any related postage incurred by the 70713
health care provider or medical records company.70714

       (C)(1) On request, a health care provider or medical records 70715
company shall provide one copy of the patient's medical record and 70716
one copy of any records regarding treatment performed subsequent 70717
to the original request, not including copies of records already 70718
provided, without charge to the following:70719

       (a) The bureau of workers' compensation, in accordance with 70720
Chapters 4121. and 4123. of the Revised Code and the rules adopted 70721
under those chapters;70722

       (b) The industrial commission, in accordance with Chapters 70723
4121. and 4123. of the Revised Code and the rules adopted under 70724
those chapters;70725

       (c) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or a 70726
county department of job and family services, in accordance with 70727
Chapters 5101.5160., 5161., 5162., 5163., 5164., 5165., 5166.,70728
and 5111.5167. of the Revised Code and the rules adopted under 70729
those chapters;70730

       (d) The attorney general, in accordance with sections 2743.51 70731
to 2743.72 of the Revised Code and any rules that may be adopted 70732
under those sections;70733

       (e) A patient, patient's personal representative, or 70734
authorized person if the medical record is necessary to support a 70735
claim under Title II or Title XVI of the "Social Security Act," 49 70736
Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 401 and 1381, as amended, and the 70737
request is accompanied by documentation that a claim has been 70738
filed.70739

       (2) Nothing in division (C)(1) of this section requires a 70740
health care provider or medical records company to provide a copy 70741
without charge to any person or entity not listed in division 70742
(C)(1) of this section.70743

       (D) Division (C) of this section shall not be construed to 70744
supersede any rule of the bureau of workers' compensation, the 70745
industrial commission, or the department of job and family 70746
servicesmedicaid.70747

       (E) A health care provider or medical records company may 70748
enter into a contract with either of the following for the copying 70749
of medical records at a fee other than as provided in division (B) 70750
of this section:70751

       (1) A patient, a patient's personal representative, or an 70752
authorized person;70753

       (2) An insurer authorized under Title XXXIX of the Revised 70754
Code to do the business of sickness and accident insurance in this 70755
state or health insuring corporations holding a certificate of 70756
authority under Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code.70757

       (F) This section does not apply to medical records the 70758
copying of which is covered by section 173.20 of the Revised Code 70759
or by 42 C.F.R. 483.10.70760

       Sec. 3701.742. Not later than January 31, 2006, theThe70761
amounts specified in division (B) of section 3701.741 of the 70762
Revised Code and, not later than the first day of January of each 70763
year thereafter,shall be adjusted annually in accordance with 70764
this section. These amounts plus any amounts previously computed 70765
by annual adjustments made under this section, shall be increased 70766
or decreased by the average percentage of increase or decrease in 70767
the consumer price index for all urban consumers (United States 70768
city average, all items), prepared by the United States department 70769
of labor, bureau of labor statistics, for the70770
twelve-calendar-month period prior to the immediately preceding 70771
first day of Januarycalendar year over the calendar year70772
immediately preceding twelve-calendar-month periodthat year, as 70773
reported by the bureau. The director of health shall make this 70774
determination and adjust the amounts accordingly. The director 70775
shall provide a list of the adjusted amounts to any party upon 70776
request and the department of health shall make thea list of the 70777
adjusted amounts available to the public on itsthe internet web 70778
site maintained by the department of health.70779

       Sec. 3701.78.  (A) There is hereby created the commission on 70780
minority health, consisting of twenty-one members. The governor 70781
shall appoint to the commission nine members from among health 70782
researchers, health planners, and health professionals. The 70783
governor also shall appoint two members who are representatives of 70784
the lupus awareness and education program. The speaker of the 70785
house of representatives shall appoint to the commission two 70786
members of the house of representatives, not more than one of whom 70787
is a member of the same political party, and the president of the 70788
senate shall appoint to the commission two members of the senate, 70789
not more than one of whom is a member of the same political party. 70790
The following shall be members of the commission: the directors of 70791
health, mental healthmental health and addiction services, 70792
developmental disabilities, alcohol and drug addiction services,70793
and job and family services, or their designees,; the medicaid 70794
director, or the director's designee; and the superintendent of 70795
public instruction, or the superintendent's designee, shall be 70796
members of the commission. The70797

       The commission shall elect a chairperson from among its 70798
members. Of70799

       Of the members appointed by the governor, five shall be 70800
appointed to initial terms of one year, and four shall be 70801
appointed to initial terms of two years. Thereafter, all members 70802
appointed by the governor shall be appointed to terms of two 70803
years. All members of the commission appointed by the speaker of 70804
the house of representatives or the president of the senate shall 70805
be nonvoting members of the commission and be appointed within 70806
thirty days after the commencement of the first regular session of 70807
each general assembly, and shall serve until the expiration of the 70808
session of the general assembly during which they were appointed. 70809
Members70810

       Members of the commission shall serve without compensation, 70811
but shall be reimbursed for the actual and necessary expenses they 70812
incur in the performance of their official duties.70813

       (B) The commission shall promote health and the prevention of 70814
disease among members of minority groups. Each year the commission 70815
shall distribute grants from available funds to community-based 70816
health groups to be used to promote health and the prevention of 70817
disease among members of minority groups. As used in this 70818
division, "minority group" means any of the following economically 70819
disadvantaged groups: Blacks, American Indians, Hispanics, and 70820
Orientals. The commission shall adopt and maintain rules pursuant 70821
to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to provide for the 70822
distribution of these grants. No group shall qualify to receive a 70823
grant from the commission unless it receives at least twenty per 70824
cent of its funds from sources other than grants distributed under 70825
this section.70826

       (C) The commission may appoint such employees as it considers 70827
necessary to carry out its duties under this section. The 70828
department of health shall provide office space for the 70829
commission.70830

       (D) The commission shall meet at the call of its chairperson 70831
to conduct its official business. A majority of the voting members 70832
of the commission constitute a quorum. The votes of at least eight 70833
voting members of the commission are necessary for the commission 70834
to take any official action or to approve the distribution of 70835
grants under this section.70836

       Sec. 3701.881.  (A) As used in this section:70837

       (1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 70838
consideration for employment with a home health agency in a 70839
full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves 70840
providing direct care to an individual or is referred to a home 70841
health agency by an employment service for such a position. 70842

       (2) "Community-based long-term care agencyprovider" has the 70843
same meaningmeans a provider as defined in section 173.39 of the 70844
Revised Code.70845

       (3) "Community-based long-term care subcontractor" means a 70846
subcontractor as defined in section 173.38 of the Revised Code.70847

       (4) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 70848
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.70849

       (4)(5) "Direct care" means any of the following:70850

       (a) Any service identified in divisions (A)(7)(8)(a) to (f) 70851
of this section that is provided in a patient's place of residence 70852
used as the patient's home;70853

       (b) Any activity that requires the person performing the 70854
activity to be routinely alone with a patient or to routinely have 70855
access to a patient's personal property or financial documents 70856
regarding a patient;70857

       (c) For each home health agency individually, any other 70858
routine service or activity that the chief administrator of the 70859
home health agency designates as direct care.70860

       (5)(6) "Disqualifying offense" means any of the offenses 70861
listed or described in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (e) of section 70862
109.572 of the Revised Code.70863

       (6)(7) "Employee" means a person employed by a home health 70864
agency in a full-time, part-time, or temporary position that 70865
involves providing direct care to an individual and a person who 70866
works in such a position due to being referred to a home health 70867
agency by an employment service.70868

       (7)(8) "Home health agency" means a person or government 70869
entity, other than a nursing home, residential care facility, 70870
hospice care program, or pediatric respite care program, that has 70871
the primary function of providing any of the following services to 70872
a patient at a place of residence used as the patient's home:70873

       (a) Skilled nursing care;70874

       (b) Physical therapy;70875

       (c) Speech-language pathology;70876

       (d) Occupational therapy;70877

       (e) Medical social services;70878

       (f) Home health aide services.70879

       (8)(9) "Home health aide services" means any of the following 70880
services provided by an employee of a home health agency:70881

       (a) Hands-on bathing or assistance with a tub bath or shower;70882

       (b) Assistance with dressing, ambulation, and toileting;70883

       (c) Catheter care but not insertion;70884

       (d) Meal preparation and feeding.70885

       (9)(10) "Hospice care program" and "pediatric respite care 70886
program" have the same meanings as in section 3712.01 of the 70887
Revised Code.70888

       (10)(11) "Medical social services" means services provided by 70889
a social worker under the direction of a patient's attending 70890
physician.70891

       (11)(12) "Minor drug possession offense" has the same meaning 70892
as in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.70893

       (12)(13) "Nursing home," "residential care facility," and 70894
"skilled nursing care" have the same meanings as in section 70895
3721.01 of the Revised Code.70896

       (13)(14) "Occupational therapy" has the same meaning as in 70897
section 4755.04 of the Revised Code.70898

       (14)(15) "Physical therapy" has the same meaning as in 70899
section 4755.40 of the Revised Code.70900

       (15)(16) "Social worker" means a person licensed under 70901
Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code to practice as a social worker 70902
or independent social worker.70903

       (16)(17) "Speech-language pathology" has the same meaning as 70904
in section 4753.01 of the Revised Code.70905

       (17)(18) "Waiver agency" has the same meaning as in section 70906
5111.0335164.342 of the Revised Code.70907

       (B) No home health agency shall employ an applicant or 70908
continue to employ an employee in a position that involves 70909
providing direct care to an individual if any of the following 70910
apply:70911

       (1) A review of the databases listed in division (D) of this 70912
section reveals any of the following:70913

       (a) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 70914
of the databases listed in divisions (D)(1) to (5) of this 70915
section;70916

       (b) That there is in the state nurse aide registry 70917
established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code a statement 70918
detailing findings by the director of health that the applicant or 70919
employee neglected or abused a long-term care facility or 70920
residential care facility resident or misappropriated property of 70921
such a resident;70922

       (c) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 70923
of the databases, if any, specified in rules adopted under this 70924
section and the rules prohibit the home health agency from 70925
employing an applicant or continuing to employ an employee 70926
included in such a database in a position that involves providing 70927
direct care to an individual.70928

       (2) After the applicant or employee is provided, pursuant to 70929
division (E)(2)(a) of this section, a copy of the form prescribed 70930
pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 70931
and the standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division 70932
(C)(2) of that section, the applicant or employee fails to 70933
complete the form or provide the applicant's or employee's 70934
fingerprint impressions on the standard impression sheet.70935

       (3) Except as provided in rules adopted under this section, 70936
the applicant or employee is found by a criminal records check 70937
required by this section to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty 70938
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 70939
for a disqualifying offense.70940

       (C) Except as provided by division (F) of this section, the 70941
chief administrator of a home health agency shall inform each 70942
applicant of both of the following at the time of the applicant's 70943
initial application for employment or referral to the home health 70944
agency by an employment service for a position that involves 70945
providing direct care to an individual:70946

       (1) That a review of the databases listed in division (D) of 70947
this section will be conducted to determine whether the home 70948
health agency is prohibited by division (B)(1) of this section 70949
from employing the applicant in the position;70950

       (2) That, unless the database review reveals that the 70951
applicant may not be employed in the position, a criminal records 70952
check of the applicant will be conducted and the applicant is 70953
required to provide a set of the applicant's fingerprint 70954
impressions as part of the criminal records check.70955

       (D) As a condition of employing any applicant in a position 70956
that involves providing direct care to an individual, the chief 70957
administrator of a home health agency shall conduct a database 70958
review of the applicant in accordance with rules adopted under 70959
this section. If rules adopted under this section so require, the 70960
chief administrator of a home health agency shall conduct a 70961
database review of an employee in accordance with the rules as a 70962
condition of continuing to employ the employee in a position that 70963
involves providing direct care to an individual. However, the 70964
chief administrator is not required to conduct a database review 70965
of an applicant or employee if division (F) of this section 70966
applies. A database review shall determine whether the applicant 70967
or employee is included in any of the following:70968

       (1) The excluded parties list system that is maintained by 70969
the United States general services administration pursuant to 70970
subpart 9.4 of the federal acquisition regulation and available at 70971
the federal web site known as the system for award management;70972

       (2) The list of excluded individuals and entities maintained 70973
by the office of inspector general in the United States department 70974
of health and human services pursuant to section 1128 of the 70975
"Social Security Act," 94 Stat. 2619 (1980)sections 1128 and 70976
1156, 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7, as amended, and section 1156 of the 70977
"Social Security Act," 96 Stat. 388 (1982), 42 U.S.C.and 1320c-5, 70978
as amended;70979

       (3) The registry of MR/DD employees established under section 70980
5123.52 of the Revised Code;70981

       (4) The internet-based sex offender and child-victim offender 70982
database established under division (A)(11) of section 2950.13 of 70983
the Revised Code;70984

       (5) The internet-based database of inmates established under 70985
section 5120.66 of the Revised Code;70986

       (6) The state nurse aide registry established under section 70987
3721.32 of the Revised Code;70988

       (7) Any other database, if any, specified in rules adopted 70989
under this section.70990

       (E)(1) As a condition of employing any applicant in a 70991
position that involves providing direct care to an individual, the 70992
chief administrator of a home health agency shall request the 70993
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 70994
investigation to conduct a criminal records check of the 70995
applicant. If rules adopted under this section so require, the 70996
chief administrator of a home health agency shall request the 70997
superintendent to conduct a criminal records check of an employee 70998
at times specified in the rules as a condition of continuing to 70999
employ the employee in a position that involves providing direct 71000
care to an individual. However, the chief administrator is not 71001
required to request the criminal records check of the applicant or 71002
the employee if division (F) of this section applies or the home 71003
health agency is prohibited by division (B)(1) of this section 71004
from employing the applicant or continuing to employ the employee 71005
in a position that involves providing direct care to an 71006
individual. If an applicant or employee for whom a criminal 71007
records check request is required by this section does not present 71008
proof of having been a resident of this state for the five-year 71009
period immediately prior to the date upon which the criminal 71010
records check is requested or does not provide evidence that 71011
within that five-year period the superintendent has requested 71012
information about the applicant from the federal bureau of 71013
investigation in a criminal records check, the chief administrator 71014
shall request that the superintendent obtain information from the 71015
federal bureau of investigation as a part of the criminal records 71016
check. Even if an applicant or employee for whom a criminal 71017
records check request is required by this section presents proof 71018
that the applicant or employee has been a resident of this state 71019
for that five-year period, the chief administrator may request 71020
that the superintendent include information from the federal 71021
bureau of investigation in the criminal records check.71022

       (2) The chief administrator shall do all of the following:71023

       (a) Provide to each applicant and employee for whom a 71024
criminal records check request is required by this section a copy 71025
of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 71026
109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard impression sheet 71027
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section;71028

       (b) Obtain the completed form and standard impression sheet 71029
from each applicant and employee;71030

       (c) Forward the completed form and standard impression sheet 71031
to the superintendent at the time the chief administrator requests 71032
the criminal records check. 71033

       (3) A home health agency shall pay to the bureau of criminal 71034
identification and investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to 71035
division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each 71036
criminal records check the agency requests under this section. A 71037
home health agency may charge an applicant a fee not exceeding the 71038
amount the agency pays to the bureau under this section if both of 71039
the following apply:71040

       (a) The home health agency notifies the applicant at the time 71041
of initial application for employment of the amount of the fee and 71042
that, unless the fee is paid, the applicant will not be considered 71043
for employment.71044

       (b) The medicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of 71045
the Revised Code does not reimburse the home health agency for the 71046
fee it pays to the bureau under this section.71047

       (F) Divisions (C) to (E) of this section do not apply with 71048
regard to an applicant or employee if the applicant or employee is 71049
referred to a home health agency by an employment service that 71050
supplies full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for positions 71051
that involve providing direct care to an individual and both of 71052
the following apply:71053

       (1) The chief administrator of the home health agency 71054
receives from the employment service confirmation that a review of 71055
the databases listed in division (D) of this section was conducted 71056
with regard to the applicant or employee.71057

       (2) The chief administrator of the home health agency 71058
receives from the employment service, applicant, or employee a 71059
report of the results of a criminal records check of the applicant 71060
or employee that has been conducted by the superintendent within 71061
the one-year period immediately preceding the following:71062

       (a) In the case of an applicant, the date of the applicant's 71063
referral by the employment service to the home health agency;71064

       (b) In the case of an employee, the date by which the home 71065
health agency would otherwise have to request a criminal records 71066
check of the employee under division (E) of this section.71067

       (G)(1) A home health agency may employ conditionally an 71068
applicant for whom a criminal records check request is required by 71069
this section before obtaining the results of the criminal records 71070
check if the agency is not prohibited by division (B) of this 71071
section from employing the applicant in a position that involves 71072
providing direct care to an individual and either of the following 71073
applies:71074

       (a) The chief administrator of the home health agency 71075
requests the criminal records check in accordance with division 71076
(E) of this section not later than five business days after the 71077
applicant begins conditional employment.71078

       (b) The applicant is referred to the home health agency by an 71079
employment service, the employment service or the applicant 71080
provides the chief administrator of the agency a letter that is on 71081
the letterhead of the employment service, the letter is dated and 71082
signed by a supervisor or another designated official of the 71083
employment service, and the letter states all of the following:71084

       (i) That the employment service has requested the 71085
superintendent to conduct a criminal records check regarding the 71086
applicant;71087

       (ii) That the requested criminal records check is to include 71088
a determination of whether the applicant has been convicted of, 71089
pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu 71090
of conviction for a disqualifying offense;71091

       (iii) That the employment service has not received the 71092
results of the criminal records check as of the date set forth on 71093
the letter;71094

       (iv) That the employment service promptly will send a copy of 71095
the results of the criminal records check to the chief 71096
administrator of the home health agency when the employment 71097
service receives the results.71098

       (2) If a home health agency employs an applicant 71099
conditionally pursuant to division (G)(1)(b) of this section, the 71100
employment service, on its receipt of the results of the criminal 71101
records check, promptly shall send a copy of the results to the 71102
chief administrator of the agency. 71103

       (3) A home health agency that employs an applicant 71104
conditionally pursuant to division (G)(1)(a) or (b) of this 71105
section shall terminate the applicant's employment if the results 71106
of the criminal records check, other than the results of any 71107
request for information from the federal bureau of investigation, 71108
are not obtained within the period ending sixty days after the 71109
date the request for the criminal records check is made. 71110
Regardless of when the results of the criminal records check are 71111
obtained, if the results indicate that the applicant has been 71112
convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for 71113
intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense, 71114
the home health agency shall terminate the applicant's employment 71115
unless circumstances specified in rules adopted under this section 71116
that permit the agency to employ the applicant exist and the 71117
agency chooses to employ the applicant. Termination of employment 71118
under this division shall be considered just cause for discharge 71119
for purposes of division (D)(2) of section 4141.29 of the Revised 71120
Code if the applicant makes any attempt to deceive the home health 71121
agency about the applicant's criminal record.71122

       (H) The report of any criminal records check conducted by the 71123
bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance 71124
with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant to a request 71125
made under this section is not a public record for the purposes of 71126
section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not be made available 71127
to any person other than the following:71128

       (1) The applicant or employee who is the subject of the 71129
criminal records check or the applicant's or employee's 71130
representative;71131

       (2) The home health agency requesting the criminal records 71132
check or its representative;71133

       (3) The administrator of any other facility, agency, or 71134
program that provides direct care to individuals that is owned or 71135
operated by the same entity that owns or operates the home health 71136
agency that requested the criminal records check;71137

       (4) The employment service that requested the criminal 71138
records check;71139

       (5) The director of health and the staff of the department of 71140
health who monitor a home health agency's compliance with this 71141
section;71142

       (6) The director of aging or the director's designee if 71143
either of the following apply:71144

       (a) In the case of a criminal records check requested by a 71145
home health agency, the home health agency also is a 71146
community-based long-term care agencyprovider or community-based 71147
long-term care subcontractor;71148

       (b) In the case of a criminal records check requested by an 71149
employment service, the employment service makes the request for 71150
an applicant or employee the employment service refers to a home 71151
health agency that also is a community-based long-term care 71152
agencyprovider or community-based long-term care subcontractor.71153

       (7) The medicaid director of job and family services and the 71154
staff of the department of job and family servicesmedicaid who 71155
are involved in the administration of the medicaid program if 71156
either of the following apply:71157

       (a) In the case of a criminal records check requested by a 71158
home health agency, the home health agency also is a waiver 71159
agency;71160

       (b) In the case of a criminal records check requested by an 71161
employment service, the employment service makes the request for 71162
an applicant or employee the employment service refers to a home 71163
health agency that also is a waiver agency.71164

        (8) Any court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 71165
involved in a case dealing with any of the following:71166

       (a) A denial of employment of the applicant or employee;71167

       (b) Employment or unemployment benefits of the applicant or 71168
employee;71169

        (c) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid 71170
program.71171

       (I) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is 71172
brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or 71173
property caused by an applicant or employee who a home health 71174
agency employs in a position that involves providing direct care 71175
to an individual, all of the following shall apply:71176

       (1) If the home health agency employed the applicant or 71177
employee in good faith and reasonable reliance on the report of a 71178
criminal records check requested under this section, the agency 71179
shall not be found negligent solely because of its reliance on the 71180
report, even if the information in the report is determined later 71181
to have been incomplete or inaccurate.71182

       (2) If the home health agency employed the applicant in good 71183
faith on a conditional basis pursuant to division (G) of this 71184
section, the agency shall not be found negligent solely because it 71185
employed the applicant prior to receiving the report of a criminal 71186
records check requested under this section.71187

       (3) If the home health agency in good faith employed the 71188
applicant or employee according to the personal character 71189
standards established in rules adopted under this section, the 71190
agency shall not be found negligent solely because the applicant 71191
or employee had been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been 71192
found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 71193
disqualifying offense. 71194

       (J) The director of health shall adopt rules in accordance 71195
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. 71196

       (1) The rules may do the following:71197

       (a) Require employees to undergo database reviews and 71198
criminal records checks under this section;71199

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 71200
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, exempt one 71201
or more classes of employees from the requirements;71202

       (c) For the purpose of division (D)(7) of this section, 71203
specify other databases that are to be checked as part of a 71204
database review conducted under this section.71205

       (2) The rules shall specify all of the following:71206

       (a) The procedures for conducting database reviews under this 71207
section;71208

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 71209
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, the times 71210
at which the database reviews and criminal records checks are to 71211
be conducted;71212

       (c) If the rules specify other databases to be checked as 71213
part of the database reviews, the circumstances under which a home 71214
health agency is prohibited from employing an applicant or 71215
continuing to employ an employee who is found by a database review 71216
to be included in one or more of those databases;71217

       (d) Circumstances under which a home health agency may employ 71218
an applicant or employee who is found by a criminal records check 71219
required by this section to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty 71220
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 71221
for a disqualifying offense but meets personal character 71222
standards.71223

       Sec. 3701.921.  There is hereby established the patient 71224
centered medical home education program in the department of 71225
health. For the purpose of advancing education in the patient 71226
centered medical home model of care, the director of health may 71227
implement and administer the program pursuant to sections 3701.922 71228
to 3701.929 of the Revised Code. The patient centered medical home 71229
model of care is an enhanced model of primary care in which care 71230
teams attend to the multifaceted needs of patients, providing 71231
whole person comprehensive and coordinate patient centered care.71232

       To the extent that funds are available, the program shall 71233
include the patient centered medical home education pilot project 71234
and may include any other pilot projects the director establishes 71235
pursuant to division (A)(3) of section 3701.922 of the Revised 71236
Code.71237

       Sec. 3701.922.  (A) The director of health may do any of the 71238
following to implement and administer the patient centered medical 71239
home education program:71240

       (1) Develop and implement programs of education or training 71241
on the patient centered medical home model of care or other 71242
similar enhanced models of coordinated patient centered care that 71243
are intended to address the multifaceted needs of patients and 71244
provide whole person comprehensive and coordinated patient 71245
centered care;71246

       (2) Advise, consult, cooperate with, and assist, by contract 71247
or other arrangement, government agencies or institutions or 71248
private organizations, corporations, or associations in the 71249
development and promotion of programs pertaining to the evaluation 71250
and implementation of the patient centered medical home model of 71251
care or other similar enhanced models of coordinated patient 71252
centered care;71253

       (3) Establish pilot projects that do any of the following:71254

       (a) Evaluate or implement the patient centered medical home 71255
model of care or other similar enhanced models of coordinated 71256
patient centered care;71257

       (b) Provideprovide education or training on the patient 71258
centered medical home model of care or other similar enhanced 71259
models of coordinated patient centered care.71260

       (4) Seek and administer state funds or grants from other 71261
sources to carry out any functions of the patient centered medical 71262
home education program.71263

        Any funds or grants received by the director for purposes of 71264
the program shall be used for the program.71265

       (B) The director may adopt rules as necessary to implement 71266
and administer the patient centered medical home education 71267
program, including rules that define what constitutes a "patient 71268
centered medical home" for purposes of an entity authorized to 71269
provide care coordination services. The rules shall be adopted in 71270
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.71271

       Sec. 3701.94. There is hereby established the patient 71272
centered medical home program in the department of health. The 71273
patient centered medical home model of care is an advanced model 71274
of primary care in which care teams attend to the multifaceted 71275
needs of patients, providing whole person comprehensive and 71276
coordinated patient centered care.71277

       Sec. 3701.941. (A) As part of the patient centered medical 71278
home program established under section 3701.94 of the Revised 71279
Code, the department of health shall establish a voluntary patient 71280
centered medical home certification program.71281

       (B) Each primary care practice, that seeks a patient centered 71282
medical home certificate shall submit an application on a form 71283
prepared by the department. The department may require an 71284
application fee and annual renewal fee as determined by the 71285
department. If the department establishes a fee under this 71286
section, the fee shall be in an amount that is sufficient to cover 71287
the cost of any on-site evaluations conducted by the department or 71288
an entity under contract with the department pursuant to section 71289
3701.942 of the Revised Code.71290

       (C) A practice certified under this section shall do all of 71291
the following:71292

       (1) Meet any standards developed by national independent 71293
accrediting and medical home organizations, as determined by the 71294
department;71295

       (2) Develop a systematic follow-up procedure for patients, 71296
including the use of health information technology and patient 71297
registries;71298

       (3) Implement and maintain health information technology that 71299
meets the requirements of 42 U.S.C. 300jj;71300

       (4) Comply with the reporting requirements of section 71301
3701.942 of the Revised Code;71302

       (5) Meet any process, outcome, and quality standards 71303
specified by the department of health;71304

       (6) Meet any other requirements established by the 71305
department.71306

       (D) The department shall seek to do all of the following 71307
through the certification of patient centered medical homes:71308

       (1) Expand, enhance, and encourage the use of primary care 71309
providers, including primary care physicians, advanced practice 71310
registered nurses, and physician assistants, as personal 71311
clinicians;71312

       (2) Develop a focus on delivering high-quality, efficient, 71313
and effective health care services;71314

       (3) Encourage patient centered care and the provision of care 71315
that is appropriate for a patient's race, ethnicity, and language;71316

       (4) Encourage the education and active participation of 71317
patients and patients' families or legal guardians, as 71318
appropriate, in decision making and care plan development;71319

       (5) Provide patients with consistent, ongoing contact with a 71320
personal clinician or team of clinical professionals to ensure 71321
continuous and appropriate care;71322

       (6) Ensure that patient centered medical homes develop and 71323
maintain appropriate comprehensive care plans for patients with 71324
complex or chronic conditions, including an assessment of health 71325
risks and chronic conditions;71326

       (7) Ensure that patient centered medical homes plan for 71327
transition of care from youth to adult to senior;71328

       (8) Enable and encourage use of a range of qualified health 71329
care professionals, including dedicated care coordinators, in a 71330
manner that enables those professionals to practice to the fullest 71331
extent of their professional licenses.71332

       Sec. 3701.942. (A) Each certified patient centered medical 71333
home shall report health care quality and performance information 71334
to the department of health, including any data necessary for 71335
monitoring compliance with certification standards and for 71336
evaluating the impact of patient centered medical homes on health 71337
care quality, cost, and outcomes.71338

       (B) The department may contract with a private entity to 71339
evaluate the effectiveness of certified patient centered medical 71340
homes. The department may provide the entity with data collected 71341
under division (A) of this section.71342

       (C) The department may contract with national independent 71343
accrediting and medical home organizations to provide on-site 71344
evaluation of primary care practices and verification of data 71345
collected under division (A) of this section.71346

       (D) Data collected under this section is not a public record 71347
under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.71348

       Sec. 3701.943. (A) The department of health shall submit a 71349
report to the governor and, in accordance with section 101.68 of 71350
the Revised Code, the general assembly, evaluating the patient 71351
centered medical home program not later than three years after 71352
rules adopted pursuant to section 3701.944 of the Revised Code 71353
first become effective. The department shall submit a second 71354
report not later than five years after those rules first become 71355
effective.71356

       (B) The reports submitted under division (A) of this section 71357
shall include all of the following:71358

       (1) The number of patients receiving primary care services 71359
from certified patient centered medical homes and the number and 71360
characteristics of those patients with complex or chronic 71361
conditions. To the extent available, information regarding the 71362
income, race, ethnicity, and language of patients shall be 71363
included in the reports;71364

       (2) The number and geographic distribution of certified 71365
patient centered medical homes;71366

       (3) Performance of and quality of care measures implemented 71367
by certified patient centered medical homes;71368

       (4) Preventive care measures implemented by certified patient 71369
centered medical homes;71370

       (5) Payment arrangements of certified patient centered 71371
medical homes;71372

       (6) Costs related to implementation of the patient centered 71373
medical home program and payment of care coordination fees;71374

       (7) The estimated effect of certified patient centered 71375
medical homes on health disparities;71376

       (8) The estimated savings from establishing the patient 71377
centered medical home program, as those savings apply to the fee 71378
for service, managed care, and state-based purchasing sectors.71379

       Sec. 3701.944. The department of health shall adopt rules in 71380
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to do all of the 71381
following:71382

       (A) Considering the goals set forth in section 3701.941 of 71383
the Revised Code, establish standards and procedures for 71384
certifying a primary care practice as a patient centered medical 71385
home;71386

       (B) Specify the types of medical practices that constitute 71387
primary care practices for the purpose of certifying patient 71388
centered medical homes; 71389

       (C) Specify the health care quality and performance 71390
information that certified patient centered medical homes must 71391
report to the department pursuant to section 3701.942 of the 71392
Revised Code.71393

       Sec. 3701.96. As used in this section, "board of health" 71394
means a board of health of a city or general health district or an 71395
authority having the duties of a board of health under section 71396
3709.05 of the Revised Code.71397

        If a zoonotic disease program is administered by the 71398
department of health, the director of health may charge a board of 71399
health a fee for each service the program provides to the board. 71400
The fee amount shall be determined by the director and be 71401
commensurate with the department's cost to provide the service. 71402
The board shall pay the fee associated with a service at the time 71403
the service is provided.71404

       Sec. 3701.98. Not later than July 1, 2014, the director of 71405
health shall establish both of the following by rule adopted under 71406
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code:71407

        (A) A standardized process by which all general and city 71408
health districts shall collect and report to the director 71409
information regarding public health quality indicators.71410

        (B) A policy and procedures for the sharing of health data 71411
reported under this section with payers, providers, general and 71412
city health districts, and public health professionals.71413

        The rules shall identify the public health quality indicators 71414
that are to be a priority for general and city health districts 71415
and the information to be collected and reported regarding those 71416
indicators. The director of health shall work in conjunction with 71417
the association of county health commissioners in identifying the 71418
public health quality indicators.71419

       Sec. 3701.99.  (A) Whoever violates division (C) of section 71420
3701.23, division (C) of section 3701.232, division (C) of section 71421
3701.24, division (B) of section 3701.25, division (I)(D)(2) of 71422
section 3701.262, division (D) of section 3701.263, or sections 71423
3701.46 to 3701.55 of the Revised Code is guilty of a minor 71424
misdemeanor on a first offense; on each subsequent offense, the 71425
person is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.71426

       (B) Whoever violates section 3701.82 of the Revised Code is 71427
guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree.71428

       (C) Whoever violates section 3701.352 or 3701.81 of the 71429
Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the second degree.71430

       Sec. 3702.30.  (A) As used in this section:71431

       (1) "Ambulatory surgical facility" means a facility, whether 71432
or not part of the same organization as a hospital, that is 71433
located in a building distinct from another in which inpatient 71434
care is provided, and to which any of the following apply:71435

       (a) Outpatient surgery is routinely performed in the 71436
facility, and the facility functions separately from a hospital's 71437
inpatient surgical service and from the offices of private 71438
physicians, podiatrists, and dentists.71439

       (b) Anesthesia is administered in the facility by an 71440
anesthesiologist or certified registered nurse anesthetist, and 71441
the facility functions separately from a hospital's inpatient 71442
surgical service and from the offices of private physicians, 71443
podiatrists, and dentists.71444

       (c) The facility applies to be certified by the United States 71445
centers for medicare and medicaid services as an ambulatory 71446
surgical center for purposes of reimbursement under Part B of the 71447
medicare program, Part B of Title XVIII of the "Social Security 71448
Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C.A. 1395, as amended.71449

       (d) The facility applies to be certified by a national 71450
accrediting body approved by the centers for medicare and medicaid 71451
services for purposes of deemed compliance with the conditions for 71452
participating in the medicare program as an ambulatory surgical 71453
center.71454

       (e) The facility bills or receives from any third-party 71455
payer, governmental health care program, or other person or 71456
government entity any ambulatory surgical facility fee that is 71457
billed or paid in addition to any fee for professional services.71458

       (f) The facility is held out to any person or government 71459
entity as an ambulatory surgical facility or similar facility by 71460
means of signage, advertising, or other promotional efforts.71461

       "Ambulatory surgical facility" does not include a hospital 71462
emergency department.71463

       (2) "Ambulatory surgical facility fee" means a fee for 71464
certain overhead costs associated with providing surgical services 71465
in an outpatient setting. A fee is an ambulatory surgical facility 71466
fee only if it directly or indirectly pays for costs associated 71467
with any of the following:71468

       (a) Use of operating and recovery rooms, preparation areas, 71469
and waiting rooms and lounges for patients and relatives;71470

       (b) Administrative functions, record keeping, housekeeping, 71471
utilities, and rent;71472

       (c) Services provided by nurses, orderlies, technical 71473
personnel, and others involved in patient care related to 71474
providing surgery.71475

       "Ambulatory surgical facility fee" does not include any 71476
additional payment in excess of a professional fee that is 71477
provided to encourage physicians, podiatrists, and dentists to 71478
perform certain surgical procedures in their office or their group 71479
practice's office rather than a health care facility, if the 71480
purpose of the additional fee is to compensate for additional cost 71481
incurred in performing office-based surgery.71482

       (3) "Governmental health care program" has the same meaning 71483
as in section 4731.65 of the Revised Code.71484

       (4) "Health care facility" means any of the following:71485

       (a) An ambulatory surgical facility;71486

       (b) A freestanding dialysis center;71487

       (c) A freestanding inpatient rehabilitation facility;71488

       (d) A freestanding birthing center;71489

       (e) A freestanding radiation therapy center;71490

       (f) A freestanding or mobile diagnostic imaging center.71491

       (5) "Third-party payer" has the same meaning as in section 71492
3901.38 of the Revised Code.71493

       (B) By rule adopted in accordance with sections 3702.12 and 71494
3702.13 of the Revised Code, the director of health shall 71495
establish quality standards for health care facilities. The 71496
standards may incorporate accreditation standards or other quality 71497
standards established by any entity recognized by the director.71498

       In the case of an ambulatory surgical facility, the standards 71499
shall require the ambulatory surgical facility to maintain an 71500
infection control program. The purposes of the program are to 71501
minimize infections and communicable diseases and facilitate a 71502
functional and sanitary environment consistent with standards of 71503
professional practice. To achieve these purposes, ambulatory 71504
surgical facility staff managing the program shall create and 71505
administer a plan designed to prevent, identify, and manage 71506
infections and communicable diseases; ensure that the program is 71507
directed by a qualified professional trained in infection control; 71508
ensure that the program is an integral part of the ambulatory 71509
surgical facility's quality assessment and performance improvement 71510
program; and implement in an expeditious manner corrective and 71511
preventive measures that result in improvement. 71512

       (C) Every ambulatory surgical facility shall require that 71513
each physician who practices at the facility comply with all 71514
relevant provisions in the Revised Code that relate to the 71515
obtaining of informed consent from a patient.71516

       (D) The director shall issue a license to each health care 71517
facility that makes application for a license and demonstrates to 71518
the director that it meets the quality standards established by 71519
the rules adopted under division (B) of this section and satisfies 71520
the informed consent compliance requirements specified in division 71521
(C) of this section.71522

       (E)(1) Except as provided in division (H) of this section and 71523
in section 3702.301 of the Revised Code, no health care facility 71524
shall operate without a license issued under this section.71525

       (2) If the department of health finds that a physician who 71526
practices at a health care facility is not complying with any 71527
provision of the Revised Code related to the obtaining of informed 71528
consent from a patient, the department shall report its finding to 71529
the state medical board, the physician, and the health care 71530
facility.71531

       (3) This division does not create, and shall not be construed 71532
as creating, a new cause of action or substantive legal right 71533
against a health care facility and in favor of a patient who 71534
allegedly sustains harm as a result of the failure of the 71535
patient's physician to obtain informed consent from the patient 71536
prior to performing a procedure on or otherwise caring for the 71537
patient in the health care facility.71538

       (F) The rules adopted under division (B) of this section 71539
shall include all of the following:71540

       (1) Provisions governing application for, renewal, 71541
suspension, and revocation of a license under this section;71542

       (2) Provisions governing orders issued pursuant to section 71543
3702.32 of the Revised Code for a health care facility to cease 71544
its operations or to prohibit certain types of services provided 71545
by a health care facility;71546

       (3) Provisions governing the imposition under section 3702.32 71547
of the Revised Code of civil penalties for violations of this 71548
section or the rules adopted under this section, including a scale 71549
for determining the amount of the penalties;71550

       (4) Provisions specifying the form inspectors must use when 71551
conducting inspections of ambulatory surgical facilities.71552

       (G)(1) As used in this division:71553

       (a) "Political subdivision" means any body corporate and 71554
politic that is responsible for governmental activities in a 71555
geographic area smaller than the state.71556

        (b) "Public hospital" means a hospital registered with the 71557
department of health under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code 71558
that is owned, leased, or controlled by this state or any agency, 71559
institution, instrumentality, or political subdivision of this 71560
state. "Public hospital" includes any state university, state 71561
medical college, health district, joint hospital, or public 71562
hospital agency.71563

       (2) An ambulatory surgical facility that performs or induces 71564
abortions shall comply with section 3701.791 of the Revised Code. 71565
For purposes of complying with the written transfer agreement 71566
requirement described in section 3702.303 of the Revised Code, 71567
such an ambulatory surgical facility shall not have a written 71568
transfer agreement with a public hospital or enter into a contract 71569
or similar agreement with a physician who has been granted staff 71570
membership or professional privileges by the governing body of a 71571
public hospital.71572

       (H) The following entities are not required to obtain a 71573
license as a freestanding diagnostic imaging center issued under 71574
this section:71575

       (1) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the 71576
Revised Code that provides diagnostic imaging;71577

       (2) An entity that is reviewed as part of a hospital 71578
accreditation or certification program and that provides 71579
diagnostic imaging;71580

       (3) An ambulatory surgical facility that provides diagnostic 71581
imaging in conjunction with or during any portion of a surgical 71582
procedure.71583

       Sec. 3702.302.  In the case of an ambulatory surgical 71584
facility not certified by the centers for medicare and medicaid 71585
services as an ambulatory surgical center, the director of health 71586
shall conduct an inspection of the facility each time the facility 71587
submits an application for license renewal. The director shall not 71588
renew the license unless all of the following conditions are met:71589

       (A) The inspector conducting the inspection completes each 71590
item on the following, as applicable:71591

       (1) Until the director adopts rules under division (F) of 71592
section 3702.30 of the Revised Code, the form approved by the 71593
director on the effective date of this section;71594

       (2) The form specified by the director pursuant to rules 71595
adopted under division (F) of section 3702.30 of the Revised Code.71596

       (B) The inspection demonstrates that the ambulatory surgical 71597
facility complies with all quality standards established by the 71598
director in rules adopted under division (B) of section 3702.30 of 71599
the Revised Code.71600

       (C) The director determines that the most recent version of 71601
the updated written transfer agreement filed in accordance with 71602
division (B) of section 3702.303 of the Revised Code is 71603
satisfactory, unless the director has granted a variance from the 71604
written transfer agreement requirement as permitted by section 71605
3702.304 of the Revised Code.71606

       Sec. 3702.303. (A) Except as provided in division (C) of this 71607
section, an ambulatory surgical facility shall have a written 71608
transfer agreement with a local hospital that specifies an 71609
effective procedure for the safe and immediate transfer of 71610
patients from the facility to the hospital when medical care 71611
beyond the care that can be provided at the ambulatory surgical 71612
facility is necessary, including when emergency situations occur 71613
or medical complications arise. A copy of the agreement shall be 71614
filed with the director of health.71615

       (B) An ambulatory surgical facility shall update a written 71616
transfer agreement every two years and file a copy of the updated 71617
agreement with the director.71618

       (C) The requirement for a written transfer agreement between 71619
an ambulatory surgical facility and a hospital does not apply if 71620
either of the following is the case:71621

       (1) The facility is a provider-based entity, as defined in 42 71622
C.F.R. 413.65(a)(2), of a hospital and the facility's policies and 71623
procedures to address situations when care beyond the care that 71624
can be provided at the ambulatory surgical facility are approved 71625
by the governing body of the facility's parent hospital and 71626
implemented;71627

       (2) The director of health has, pursuant to the procedure 71628
specified in section 3702.304 of the Revised Code, granted the 71629
facility a variance from the requirement.71630

       Sec. 3702.304. (A) The director of health may grant a 71631
variance from the written transfer agreement requirement of 71632
section 3702.303 of the Revised Code if the ambulatory surgical 71633
facility submits to the director a complete variance application, 71634
prescribed by the director, and the director determines after 71635
reviewing the application that the facility is capable of 71636
achieving the purpose of a written transfer agreement in the 71637
absence of one. The director's determination is final.71638

       (B) A variance application is complete for purposes of 71639
division (A) of this section if it contains or includes as 71640
attachments all of the following:71641

       (1) A statement explaining why application of the requirement 71642
would cause the facility undue hardship and why the variance will 71643
not jeopardize the health and safety of any patient;71644

       (2) A letter, contract, or memorandum of understanding signed 71645
by the facility and one or more consulting physicians who have 71646
admitting privileges at a minimum of one local hospital, 71647
memorializing the physician or physicians' agreement to provide 71648
back-up coverage when medical care beyond the level the facility 71649
can provide is necessary;71650

       (3) For each consulting physician described in division 71651
(B)(2) of this section:71652

       (a) A signed statement in which the physician attests that 71653
the physician is familiar with the facility and its operations, 71654
and agrees to provide notice to the facility of any changes in the 71655
physician's ability to provide back-up coverage;71656

       (b) The estimated travel time from the physician's main 71657
residence or office to each local hospital where the physician has 71658
admitting privileges;71659

       (c) Written verification that the facility has a record of 71660
the name, telephone numbers, and practice specialties of the 71661
physician;71662

       (d) Written verification from the state medical board that 71663
the physician possesses a valid certificate to practice medicine 71664
and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery issued under 71665
Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code;71666

       (e) Documented verification that each hospital at which the 71667
physician has admitting privileges has been informed in writing by 71668
the physician that the physician is a consulting physician for the 71669
ambulatory surgical facility and has agreed to provide back-up 71670
coverage for the facility when medical care beyond the care the 71671
facility can provide is necessary.71672

       (4) A copy of the facility's operating procedures or 71673
protocols that, at a minimum, do all of the following: 71674

       (a) Address how back-up coverage by consulting physicians is 71675
to occur, including how back-up coverage is to occur when 71676
consulting physicians are temporarily unavailable;71677

       (b) Specify that each consulting physician is required to 71678
notify the facility, without delay, when the physician is unable 71679
to expeditiously admit patients to a local hospital and provide 71680
for continuity of patient care;71681

       (c) Specify that a patient's medical record maintained by the 71682
facility must be transferred contemporaneously with the patient 71683
when the patient is transferred from the facility to a hospital.71684

       (5) Any other information the director considers necessary.71685

       (C) The director's decision to grant, refuse, or rescind a 71686
variance is final.71687

       (D) The director shall consider each application for a 71688
variance independently without regard to any decision the director 71689
may have made on a prior occasion to grant or deny a variance to 71690
that ambulatory surgical facility or any other facility. 71691

       Sec. 3702.305. The director of health may impose conditions 71692
on any variance the director has granted under section 3702.304 of 71693
the Revised Code. The director may, at any time, rescind the 71694
variance for any reason, including a determination by the director 71695
that the facility is failing to meet one or more of the conditions 71696
or no longer adequately protects public health and safety. The 71697
director's decision to rescind a variance is final.71698

       Sec. 3702.306. A variance the director of health grants under 71699
section 3702.304 of the Revised Code is effective for the period 71700
of time specified by the director, except that it shall not be 71701
effective beyond the date the ambulatory surgical facility's 71702
license expires. If a variance is to expire on the date the 71703
facility's license expires, the facility may submit to the 71704
director an application for a new variance with its next license 71705
renewal application.71706

       Sec. 3702.307. An ambulatory surgical facility shall notify 71707
the director of health when any of the following occurs:71708

       (A) The facility modifies any provision of its most recent 71709
written transfer agreement filed with the director under section 71710
3702.303 of the Revised Code. Notification under these 71711
circumstances shall occur not later than the business day after 71712
the modification is finalized. As used in this division, "business 71713
day" means a day of the week excluding Saturday, Sunday, and a 71714
legal holiday as defined in section 1.14 of the Revised Code.71715

        (B) The facility modifies its operating procedures or 71716
protocols described in division (B)(4) of section 3702.304 of the 71717
Revised Code. Notification under these circumstances shall occur 71718
not later than forty-eight hours after the modification is made.71719

       (C) The ambulatory surgical facility becomes aware of an 71720
event, including disciplinary action by the state medical board 71721
pursuant to section 4731.22 of the Revised Code, that may affect a 71722
consulting physician's certificate to practice medicine and 71723
surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery or the physician's 71724
ability to admit patients to a hospital identified in a variance 71725
application, as described in division (B)(3)(e) of section 71726
3702.304 of the Revised Code. Notification under these 71727
circumstances shall occur not later than one week after the 71728
facility becomes aware of the event's occurrence.71729

       Sec. 3702.308. If any provision in sections 3702.302 to 71730
3702.307 of the Revised Code is enjoined, the injunction does not 71731
affect any remaining provision of those sections, any provision of 71732
section 3702.30 of the Revised Code, or any provision of the rules 71733
adopted under that section.71734

       Sec. 3702.51.  As used in sections 3702.51 to 3702.62 of the 71735
Revised Code:71736

       (A) "Applicant" means any person that submits an application 71737
for a certificate of need and who is designated in the application 71738
as the applicant.71739

       (B) "Person" means any individual, corporation, business 71740
trust, estate, firm, partnership, association, joint stock 71741
company, insurance company, government unit, or other entity.71742

       (C) "Certificate of need" means a written approval granted by 71743
the director of health to an applicant to authorize conducting a 71744
reviewable activity.71745

       (D) "Service area" means the current and projected primary 71746
and secondary service areas to which the long-term care facility 71747
is, or will be, providing long-term care services.71748

       (E) "Primary service area" means the geographic region, 71749
usually comprised of the Ohio zip code in which the long-term care 71750
facility is located and contiguous zip codes, from which 71751
approximately seventy-five to eighty per cent of the facility's 71752
residents currently originate or are expected to originate.71753

       (F) "Secondary service area" means the geographic region, 71754
usually comprised of Ohio zip codes not included in the primary 71755
service area, excluding isolated exceptions, from which the 71756
facility's remaining residents currently originate or are expected 71757
to originate.71758

       (G) "Third-party payer" means a health insuring corporation 71759
licensed under Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code, a health 71760
maintenance organization as defined in division (I) of this 71761
section, an insurance company that issues sickness and accident 71762
insurance in conformity with Chapter 3923. of the Revised Code, a 71763
state-financed health insurance program under Chapter 3701.,or71764
4123., or 5111. of the Revised Code, the medicaid program, or any 71765
self-insurance plan.71766

       (H) "Government unit" means the state and any county, 71767
municipal corporation, township, or other political subdivision of 71768
the state, or any department, division, board, or other agency of 71769
the state or a political subdivision.71770

       (I) "Health maintenance organization" means a public or 71771
private organization organized under the law of any state that is 71772
qualified under section 1310(d) of Title XIII of the "Public 71773
Health Service Act," 87 Stat. 931 (1973), 42 U.S.C. 300e-9.71774

       (J) "Existing long-term care facility" means either of the 71775
following:71776

       (1) A long-term care facility that is licensed or otherwise 71777
authorized to operate in this state in accordance with applicable 71778
law, including a county home or a county nursing home that is 71779
certified under Title XVIII or Title XIX of the "Social Security 71780
Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, is staffed 71781
and equipped to provide long-term care services, and is actively 71782
providing long-term care services;71783

       (2) A long-term care facility that is licensed or otherwise 71784
authorized to operate in this state in accordance with applicable 71785
law, including a county home or a county nursing home that is 71786
certified under Title XVIII or Title XIX of the "Social Security 71787
Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, or that has 71788
beds registered under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as 71789
skilled nursing beds or long-term care beds and has provided 71790
long-term care services for at least three hundred sixty-five 71791
consecutive days within the twenty-four months immediately 71792
preceding the date a certificate of need application is filed with 71793
the director of health.71794

       (K) "State" means the state of Ohio, including, but not 71795
limited to, the general assembly, the supreme court, the offices 71796
of all elected state officers, and all departments, boards, 71797
offices, commissions, agencies, institutions, and other 71798
instrumentalities of the state of Ohio. "State" does not include 71799
political subdivisions.71800

       (L) "Political subdivision" means a municipal corporation, 71801
township, county, school district, and all other bodies corporate 71802
and politic responsible for governmental activities only in 71803
geographic areas smaller than that of the state to which the 71804
sovereign immunity of the state attaches.71805

       (M) "Affected person" means:71806

       (1) An applicant for a certificate of need, including an 71807
applicant whose application was reviewed comparatively with the 71808
application in question;71809

       (2) The person that requested the reviewability ruling in 71810
question;71811

       (3) Any person that resides or regularly uses long-term care 71812
facilities within the service area served or to be served by the 71813
long-term care services that would be provided under the 71814
certificate of need or reviewability ruling in question;71815

       (4) Any long-term care facility that is located in the 71816
service area where the long-term care services would be provided 71817
under the certificate of need or reviewability ruling in question;71818

       (5) Third-party payers that reimburse long-term care 71819
facilities for services in the service area where the long-term 71820
care services would be provided under the certificate of need or 71821
reviewability ruling in question.71822

       (N) "Long-term care facility" means any of the following:71823

       (1) A nursing home licensed under section 3721.02 of the 71824
Revised Code or by a political subdivision certified under section 71825
3721.09 of the Revised Code;71826

       (2) The portion of any facility, including a county home or 71827
county nursing home, that is certified as a skilled nursing 71828
facility or a nursing facility under Title XVIII or XIX of the 71829
"Social Security Act";71830

       (3) The portion of any hospital that contains beds registered 71831
under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as skilled nursing beds 71832
or long-term care beds.71833

       (O) "Long-term care bed" or "bed" means a bed that is 71834
categorized as one of the following:71835

        (1) A bed that is located in a facility that is a nursing 71836
home licensed under section 3721.02 of the Revised Code or a 71837
facility licensed by a political subdivision certified under 71838
section 3721.09 of the Revised Code and is included in the 71839
authorized maximum licensed capacity of the facility;71840

       (2) A bed that is located in the portion of any facility, 71841
including a county home or county nursing home, that is certified 71842
as a skilled nursing facility under the medicare program or a 71843
nursing facility under the medicaid program and is included in the 71844
authorized maximum certified capacity of that portion of the 71845
facility;71846

       (3) A bed that is registered under section 3701.07 of the 71847
Revised Code as a skilled nursing bed, a long-term care bed, or a 71848
special skilled nursing bed;71849

       (4) A bed in a county home or county nursing home that has 71850
been certified under section 5155.38 of the Revised Code as having 71851
been in operation on July 1, 1993, and is eligible for licensure 71852
as a nursing home bed;71853

       (5) A bed held as an approved bed under a certificate of need 71854
approved by the director.71855

       A bed cannot simultaneously be both a bed described in 71856
division (O)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of this section and a bed 71857
described in division (O)(5) of this section.71858

       (P) "Reviewability ruling" means a ruling issued by the 71859
director of health under division (A) of section 3702.52 of the 71860
Revised Code as to whether a particular proposed project is or is 71861
not a reviewable activity.71862

       (Q) "County nursing home" has the same meaning as in section 71863
5155.31 of the Revised Code.71864

       (R) "Principal participant" means both of the following:71865

       (1) A person who has an ownership or controlling interest of 71866
at least five per cent in an applicant, in a long-term care 71867
facility that is the subject of an application for a certificate 71868
of need, or in the owner or operator of the applicant or such a 71869
facility;71870

       (2) An officer, director, trustee, or general partner of an 71871
applicant, of a long-term care facility that is the subject of an 71872
application for a certificate of need, or of the owner or operator 71873
of the applicant or such a facility.71874

       (S) "Actual harm but not immediate jeopardy deficiency" means 71875
a deficiency that, under 42 C.F.R. 488.404, either constitutes a 71876
pattern of deficiencies resulting in actual harm that is not 71877
immediate jeopardy or represents widespread deficiencies resulting 71878
in actual harm that is not immediate jeopardy.71879

       (T) "Immediate jeopardy deficiency" means a deficiency that, 71880
under 42 C.F.R. 488.404, either constitutes a pattern of 71881
deficiencies resulting in immediate jeopardy to resident health or 71882
safety or represents widespread deficiencies resulting in 71883
immediate jeopardy to resident health or safety.71884

       (U) "Existing bed" or "existing long-term care bed" means a 71885
bed from an existing long-term care facility, a bed described in 71886
division (O)(5) of this section, or a bed correctly reported as a 71887
long-term care bed pursuant to section 5155.38 of the Revised 71888
Code.71889

       Sec. 3702.521.  (A) Reviews of applications for certificates 71890
of need to recategorize hospital beds to skilled nursing beds 71891
shall be conducted in accordance with this division and rules 71892
adopted by the director of health. 71893

       (1) No hospital recategorizing beds shall apply for a 71894
certificate of need for more than twenty skilled nursing beds.71895

       (2) No beds for which a certificate of need is requested 71896
under this division shall be reviewed under or counted in any 71897
formula developed under rules adopted by the director for the 71898
purpose of determining the number of long-term care beds that may 71899
be needed within the state.71900

       (3) No beds shall be approved under this division unless the 71901
hospital certifies and demonstrates in the application that the 71902
beds will be dedicated to patients with a length of stay of no 71903
more than thirty days.71904

       (4) No beds shall be approved under this division unless the 71905
hospital can satisfactorily demonstrate in the application that it 71906
is routinely unable to place the patients planned for the beds in 71907
accessible skilled nursing facilities.71908

       (5) In developing rules to implement this division, the 71909
director shall give special attention to the required 71910
documentation of the need for such beds, including the efforts 71911
made by the hospital to place patients in suitable skilled nursing 71912
facilities, and special attention to the appropriate size of units 71913
with such beds given the historical pattern of the applicant 71914
hospital's documented difficulty in placing skilled nursing 71915
patients.71916

       (B) For assistance in monitoring the use of hospital beds 71917
recategorized as skilled nursing beds after August 5, 1989, the 71918
director shall adopt rules specifying appropriate quarterly 71919
procedures for reporting to the department of health.71920

       (C) A patient may stay in a hospital bed that, after August 71921
5, 1989, has been recategorized as a skilled nursing bed for more 71922
than thirty days if the hospital is able to demonstrate that it 71923
made a good faith effort to place the patient in an accessible 71924
skilled nursing facility acceptable to the patient within the 71925
thirty-day period, but was unable to do so.71926

       (D) No hospital bed recategorized after August 5, 1989, as a 71927
skilled nursing bed shall be covered by a provider agreement under 71928
the medical assistancemedicaid program established under Chapter 71929
5111. of the Revised Code.71930

       (E) Nothing in this section requires a hospital to place a 71931
patient in any nursing home if the patient does not wish to be 71932
placed in the nursing home. Nothing in this section limits the 71933
ability of a hospital to file a certificate of need application 71934
for the addition of long-term care beds that meet the definition 71935
of "home" in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code. Nothing in this 71936
section limits the ability of the director to grant certificates 71937
of need necessary for hospitals to engage in demonstration 71938
projects authorized by the federal government for the purpose of 71939
enhancing long-term quality of care and cost containment. Nothing 71940
in this section limits the ability of hospitals to develop swing 71941
bed programs in accordance with federal regulations.71942

       No hospital that is granted a certificate of need after 71943
August 5, 1989, to recategorize hospital beds as skilled nursing 71944
beds is subject to sections 3721.01 to 3721.09 of the Revised 71945
Code. If the portion of the hospital in which the recategorized 71946
beds are located is certified as a skilled nursing facility under 71947
Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 71948
U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, that portion of the hospital is subject 71949
to sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 and sections 3721.21 to 3721.34 of 71950
the Revised Code. If the beds are registered pursuant to section 71951
3701.07 of the Revised Code as long-term care beds, the beds are 71952
subject to sections 3721.505168.40 to 3721.585168.56 of the 71953
Revised Code.71954

       Sec. 3702.55.  A person that the director of health 71955
determines has violated section 3702.53 of the Revised Code shall 71956
cease conducting the activity that constitutes the violation or 71957
utilizing the facility resulting from the violation not later than 71958
thirty days after the person receives the notice mailed under 71959
section 3702.532 of the Revised Code or, if the person appeals the 71960
director's determination under section 3702.60 of the Revised 71961
Code, thirty days after the person receives an order upholding the 71962
director's determination that is not subject to further appeal. 71963

       If any person determined to have violated section 3702.53 of 71964
the Revised Code fails to cease conducting an activity or using a 71965
facility as required by this section or if the person continues to 71966
seek payment or reimbursement for services rendered or costs 71967
incurred in conducting the activity as prohibited by section 71968
3702.56 of the Revised Code, in addition to the penalties imposed 71969
under section 3702.54 or 3702.541 of the Revised Code:71970

       (A) The director of health may refuse to include any beds 71971
involved in the activity in the bed capacity of a hospital for 71972
purposes of registration under section 3701.07 of the Revised 71973
Code;71974

       (B) The director of health may refuse to license, or may 71975
revoke a license or reduce bed capacity previously granted to, a 71976
hospice care program under section 3712.04 of the Revised Code; a 71977
nursing home, residential care facility, or home for the aging 71978
under section 3721.02 of the Revised Code; or any beds within any 71979
of those facilities that are involved in the activity;71980

       (C) A political subdivision certified under section 3721.09 71981
of the Revised Code may refuse to license, or may revoke a license 71982
or reduce bed capacity previously granted to, a nursing home, 71983
residential care facility, or home for the aging, or any beds 71984
within any of those facilities that are involved in the activity;71985

       (D) The director of mental healthmental health and addiction 71986
services may refuse to license under section 5119.205119.33 of 71987
the Revised Code, or may revoke a license or reduce bed capacity 71988
previously granted to, a hospital receiving mentally ill persons 71989
or beds within such a hospital that are involved in the activity;71990

       (E) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid may 71991
refuse to enter into a provider agreement that includes a 71992
facility, beds, or services that result from the activity.71993

       Sec. 3702.62.  Sections 3702.51 to 3702.61 of the Revised 71994
Code do not apply to any part of a long-term care facility's 71995
campus that is certified as an intermediate care facility for the 71996
mentally retarded under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 79 71997
Stat. 343 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396 et seq., as amendedindividuals 71998
with intellectual disabilities, as defined in section 5124.01 of 71999
the Revised Code.72000

       Sec. 3702.74.  (A) A primary care physician who has signed a 72001
letter of intent under section 3702.73 of the Revised Code and the 72002
director of health may enter into a contract for the physician's 72003
participation in the physician loan repayment program. The 72004
physician's employer or other funding source may also be a party 72005
to the contract.72006

       (B) The contract shall include all of the following 72007
obligations:72008

       (1) The primary care physician agrees to provide primary care 72009
services in the health resource shortage area identified in the 72010
letter of intent for at least two years;72011

       (2) When providing primary care services in the health 72012
resource shortage area, the primary care physician agrees to do 72013
all of the following:72014

       (a) Provide primary care services for a minimum of forty 72015
hours per week, of which at least twenty-one hours will be spent 72016
providing patient care in an outpatient or ambulatory setting;72017

       (b) Provide primary care services without regard to a 72018
patient's ability to pay;72019

       (c) Meet the conditions prescribed by the "Social Security 72020
Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, and the 72021
department of job and family servicesrequirements for 72022
participation in thea medicaid program established under Chapter 72023
5111. of the Revised Codeprovider agreement and enter into a 72024
contractthe agreement with the department of medicaid to provide 72025
primary care services to medicaid recipients of the medical 72026
assistance program.72027

       (3) The department of health agrees, as provided in section 72028
3702.75 of the Revised Code, to repay, so long as the primary care 72029
physician performs the service obligation agreed to under division 72030
(B)(1) of this section, all or part of the principal and interest 72031
of a government or other educational loan taken by the primary 72032
care physician for expenses described in section 3702.75 of the 72033
Revised Code;72034

       (4) The primary care physician agrees to pay the department 72035
of health an amount established by rules adopted under section 72036
3702.79 of the Revised Code if the physician fails to complete the 72037
service obligation agreed to under division (B)(1) of this 72038
section.72039

       (C) The contract may include any other terms agreed upon by 72040
the parties.72041

       Sec. 3702.91.  (A) An individual who has signed a letter of 72042
intent under section 3702.90 of the Revised Code may enter into a 72043
contract with the director of health for participation in the 72044
dentist loan repayment program. The dentist's employer or other 72045
funding source may also be a party to the contract.72046

       (B) The contract shall include all of the following 72047
obligations:72048

       (1) The individual agrees to provide dental services in the 72049
dental health resource shortage area identified in the letter of 72050
intent for at least two years.72051

       (2) When providing dental services in the dental health 72052
resource shortage area, the individual agrees to do all of the 72053
following:72054

       (a) Provide dental services for a minimum of forty hours per 72055
week;72056

       (b) Provide dental services without regard to a patient's 72057
ability to pay;72058

       (c) Meet the conditions prescribed by the "Social Security 72059
Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, and the 72060
department of job and family servicesrequirements for 72061
participation in thea medicaid program established under Chapter 72062
5111. of the Revised Codeprovider agreement and enter into a 72063
contractthe agreement with the department of medicaid to provide 72064
dental services to medicaid recipients.72065

       (3) The department of health agrees, as provided in section 72066
3702.85 of the Revised Code, to repay, so long as the individual 72067
performs the service obligation agreed to under division (B)(1) of 72068
this section, all or part of the principal and interest of a 72069
government or other educational loan taken by the individual for 72070
expenses described in section 3702.85 of the Revised Code.72071

       (4) The individual agrees to pay the department of health an 72072
amount established by rules adopted under section 3702.86 of the 72073
Revised Code, if the individual fails to complete the service 72074
obligation agreed to under division (B)(1) of this section.72075

       (C) The contract may include any other terms agreed upon by 72076
the parties.72077

       (D) Not later than the thirty-first day of January of each 72078
year, the department of health shall mail to each individual to 72079
whom or on whose behalf repayment is made under the dentist loan 72080
repayment program a statement showing the amount of principal and 72081
interest repaid by the department pursuant to the contract in the 72082
preceding year. The statement shall be sent by ordinary mail with 72083
address correction and forwarding requested in the manner 72084
prescribed by the United States postal service.72085

       Sec. 3704.144. (A) Gifts, grants, and contributions for the 72086
purpose of adding pollution control equipment to diesel-powered 72087
school buses and converting diesel-powered school buses to 72088
alternative fuels, including contributions that are made pursuant 72089
to the settlement of an administrative action or civil action that 72090
is brought at the request of the director of environmental 72091
protection pursuant to Chapter 3704., 3714., 3734., 6109., or 72092
6111. of the Revised Code, shall be credited to the clean diesel 72093
school bus fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury. 72094
The director shall use money credited to the fund to make grants 72095
to school districts in the state and to county boards of 72096
developmental disabilities for the purpose of adding pollution 72097
control equipment to diesel-powered school buses and converting 72098
diesel-powered school buses to alternative fuels by means of 72099
certified engine configurations and verified technologies that are 72100
consistent with the requirements of section 793 and any 72101
regulations adopted under that section and to pay the 72102
environmental protection agency's costs incurred in administering 72103
this section. In addition, the director may use money credited to 72104
the fund to make grants to school districts and to county boards 72105
of developmental disabilities for the purpose of maintaining 72106
pollution control equipment that is installed on diesel-powered 72107
school buses and to pay the additional cost incurred by a school 72108
district or a county board for using ultra-low sulfur diesel fuel 72109
instead of diesel fuel for the operation of diesel-powered school 72110
buses.72111

       (B) In making grants under this section, the director shall 72112
give priority to school districts and to county boards of 72113
developmental disabilities that are located in a county that is 72114
designated as nonattainment by the United States environmental 72115
protection agency for the fine particulate national ambient air 72116
quality standard under the federal Clean Air Act. In addition, the 72117
director may give a higher priority to a school district or a 72118
county board of developmental disabilities that employs additional 72119
measures that reduce air pollution from the district's or the 72120
county board's school bus fleet.72121

       (C) The director shall adopt rules establishing procedures 72122
and requirements that are necessary to implement this section, 72123
including procedures and requirements governing applications for 72124
grants.72125

       (D) As used in this section:72126

        (1) "Alternative fuel" has the same meaning as in section 72127
125.831 of the Revised Code.72128

        (2) "Certified engine configuration" and "section 793" have 72129
the same meanings as in section 122.861 of the Revised Code.72130

        (3) "Verified technology" means a pollution control 72131
technology, including retrofit technology and auxiliary power 72132
unit, that has been verified by the administrator of the United 72133
States environmental protection agency or the California air 72134
resources board.72135

       Sec. 3706.01.  As used in this chapter:72136

       (A) "Governmental agency" means a department, division, or 72137
other unit of state government, a municipal corporation, county, 72138
township, and other political subdivision, or any other public 72139
corporation or agency having the power to acquire, construct, or 72140
operate air quality facilities, the United States or any agency 72141
thereof, and any agency, commission, or authority established 72142
pursuant to an interstate compact or agreement.72143

       (B) "Person" means any individual, firm, partnership, 72144
association, or corporation, or any combination thereof.72145

       (C) "Air contaminant" means particulate matter, dust, fumes, 72146
gas, mist, smoke, noise, vapor, heat, radioactivity, radiation, or 72147
odorous substance, or any combination thereof.72148

       (D) "Air pollution" means the presence in the ambient air of 72149
one or more air contaminants in sufficient quantity and of such 72150
characteristics and duration as to injure human health or welfare, 72151
plant or animal life, or property, or that unreasonably interferes 72152
with the comfortable enjoyment of life or property.72153

       (E) "Ambient air" means that portion of the atmosphere 72154
outside of buildings and other enclosures, stacks, or ducts that 72155
surrounds human, plant, or animal life, or property.72156

       (F) "Emission" means the release into the outdoor atmosphere 72157
of an air contaminant.72158

       (G) "Air quality facility" means any of the following:72159

       (1) Any method, modification or replacement of property, 72160
process, device, structure, or equipment that removes, reduces, 72161
prevents, contains, alters, conveys, stores, disperses, or 72162
disposes of air contaminants or substances containing air 72163
contaminants, or that renders less noxious or reduces the 72164
concentration of air contaminants in the ambient air, including, 72165
without limitation, facilities and expenditures that qualify as 72166
air pollution control facilities under section 103 (C)(4)(F) of 72167
the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, as amended, and regulations 72168
adopted thereunder;72169

       (2) Motor vehicle inspection stations operated in accordance 72170
with, and any equipment used for motor vehicle inspections 72171
conducted under, section 3704.14 of the Revised Code and rules 72172
adopted under it;72173

       (3) Ethanol or other biofuel facilities, including any 72174
equipment used at the ethanol or other biofuel facility for the 72175
production of ethanol or other biofuels;72176

       (4) Any property or portion thereof used for the collection, 72177
storage, treatment, utilization, processing, or final disposal of 72178
a by-product or solid waste resulting from any method, process, 72179
device, structure, or equipment that removes, reduces, prevents, 72180
contains, alters, conveys, stores, disperses, or disposes of air 72181
contaminants, or that renders less noxious or reduces the 72182
concentration of air contaminants in the ambient air;72183

       (5) Any property, device, or equipment that promotes the 72184
reduction of emissions of air contaminants into the ambient air 72185
through improvements in the efficiency of energy utilization or 72186
energy conservation;72187

       (6) Any coal research and development project conducted under 72188
Chapter 1555. of the Revised Code;72189

        (7) As determined by the director of the Ohio coal 72190
development office, any property or portion thereof that is used 72191
for the collection, storage, treatment, utilization, processing, 72192
or final disposal of a by-product resulting from a coal research 72193
and development project as defined in section 1555.01 of the 72194
Revised Code or from the use of clean coal technology, excluding 72195
any property or portion thereof that is used primarily for other 72196
subsequent commercial purposes;72197

        (8) Any property or portion thereof that is part of the 72198
FutureGen project of the United States department of energy or 72199
related to the siting of the FutureGen project.;72200

       (9) Any property, device, or equipment that promotes the 72201
reduction of emissions of air contaminants into the ambient air 72202
through the generation of clean, renewable energy with renewable 72203
energy resources or advanced energy resources as defined in 72204
section 3706.25 of the Revised Code.;72205

        (10) Any property, device, structure or equipment necessary 72206
for the manufacture and production of equipment described as an 72207
air quality facility under this chapter;72208

       (11) Any property, device, or equipment related to the 72209
recharging or refueling of vehicles that promotes the reduction of 72210
emissions of air contaminants into the ambient air through the use 72211
of an alternative fuel as defined in section 125.831 of the 72212
Revised Code or the use of a renewable energy resource as defined 72213
in section 3706.25 of the Revised Code.72214

       "Air quality facility" further includes any property or 72215
system to be used in whole or in part for any of the purposes in 72216
divisions (G)(1) to (10)(11) of this section, whether another 72217
purpose is also served, and any property or system incidental to 72218
or that has to do with, or the end purpose of which is, any of the 72219
foregoing. Air quality facilities that are defined in this 72220
division for industry, commerce, distribution, or research, 72221
including public utility companies, are hereby determined to be 72222
those that qualify as facilities for the control of air pollution 72223
and thermal pollution related to air under Section 13 of Article 72224
VIII, Ohio Constitution.72225

       (H) "Project" or "air quality project" means any air quality 72226
facility, including undivided or other interests therein, acquired 72227
or to be acquired or constructed or to be constructed by the Ohio 72228
air quality development authority under this chapter, or acquired 72229
or to be acquired or constructed or to be constructed by a 72230
governmental agency or person with all or a part of the cost 72231
thereof being paid from a loan or grant from the authority under 72232
this chapter or otherwise paid from the proceeds of air quality 72233
revenue bonds, including all buildings and facilities that the 72234
authority determines necessary for the operation of the project, 72235
together with all property, rights, easements, and interests that 72236
may be required for the operation of the project.72237

       (I) "Cost" as applied to an air quality project means the 72238
cost of acquisition and construction, the cost of acquisition of 72239
all land, rights-of-way, property rights, easements, franchise 72240
rights, and interests required for such acquisition and 72241
construction, the cost of demolishing or removing any buildings or 72242
structures on land so acquired, including the cost of acquiring 72243
any lands to which such buildings or structures may be moved, the 72244
cost of acquiring or constructing and equipping a principal office 72245
and sub-offices of the authority, the cost of diverting highways, 72246
interchange of highways, and access roads to private property, 72247
including the cost of land or easements for such access roads, the 72248
cost of public utility and common carrier relocation or 72249
duplication, the cost of all machinery, furnishings, and 72250
equipment, financing charges, interest prior to and during 72251
construction and for no more than eighteen months after completion 72252
of construction, engineering, expenses of research and development 72253
with respect to air quality facilities, the cost of any commodity 72254
contract, including fees and expenses related thereto, legal 72255
expenses, plans, specifications, surveys, studies, estimates of 72256
cost and revenues, working capital, other expenses necessary or 72257
incident to determining the feasibility or practicability of 72258
acquiring or constructing such project, administrative expense, 72259
and such other expense as may be necessary or incident to the 72260
acquisition or construction of the project, the financing of such 72261
acquisition or construction, including the amount authorized in 72262
the resolution of the authority providing for the issuance of air 72263
quality revenue bonds to be paid into any special funds from the 72264
proceeds of such bonds, and the financing of the placing of such 72265
project in operation. Any obligation, cost, or expense incurred by 72266
any governmental agency or person for surveys, borings, 72267
preparation of plans and specifications, and other engineering 72268
services, or any other cost described above, in connection with 72269
the acquisition or construction of a project may be regarded as a 72270
part of the cost of that project and may be reimbursed out of the 72271
proceeds of air quality revenue bonds as authorized by this 72272
chapter.72273

       (J) "Owner" includes an individual, copartnership, 72274
association, or corporation having any title or interest in any 72275
property, rights, easements, or interests authorized to be 72276
acquired by this chapter.72277

       (K) "Revenues" means all rentals and other charges received 72278
by the authority for the use or services of any air quality 72279
project, any gift or grant received with respect to any air 72280
quality project, any moneys received with respect to the lease, 72281
sublease, sale, including installment sale or conditional sale, or 72282
other disposition of an air quality project, moneys received in 72283
repayment of and for interest on any loans made by the authority 72284
to a person or governmental agency, whether from the United States 72285
or any department, administration, or agency thereof, or 72286
otherwise, proceeds of such bonds to the extent that use thereof 72287
for payment of principal of, premium, if any, or interest on the 72288
bonds is authorized by the authority, amounts received or 72289
otherwise derived from a commodity contract or from the sale of 72290
the related commodity under such a contract, proceeds from any 72291
insurance, condemnation, or guaranty pertaining to a project or 72292
property mortgaged to secure bonds or pertaining to the financing 72293
of the project, and income and profit from the investment of the 72294
proceeds of air quality revenue bonds or of any revenues.72295

       (L) "Public roads" includes all public highways, roads, and 72296
streets in the state, whether maintained by the state, county, 72297
city, township, or other political subdivision.72298

       (M) "Public utility facilities" includes tracks, pipes, 72299
mains, conduits, cables, wires, towers, poles, and other equipment 72300
and appliances of any public utility.72301

       (N) "Construction," unless the context indicates a different 72302
meaning or intent, includes reconstruction, enlargement, 72303
improvement, or providing furnishings or equipment.72304

       (O) "Air quality revenue bonds," unless the context indicates 72305
a different meaning or intent, includes air quality revenue notes, 72306
air quality revenue renewal notes, and air quality revenue 72307
refunding bonds, except that notes issued in anticipation of the 72308
issuance of bonds shall have a maximum maturity of five years as 72309
provided in section 3706.05 of the Revised Code and notes or 72310
renewal notes issued as the definitive obligation may be issued 72311
maturing at such time or times with a maximum maturity of forty 72312
years from the date of issuance of the original note.72313

       (P) "Solid waste" means any garbage; refuse; sludge from a 72314
waste water treatment plant, water supply treatment plant, or air 72315
pollution control facility; and other discarded material, 72316
including solid, liquid, semisolid, or contained gaseous material 72317
resulting from industrial, commercial, mining, and agricultural 72318
operations, and from community activities, but not including solid 72319
or dissolved material in domestic sewage, or solid or dissolved 72320
material in irrigation return flows or industrial discharges that 72321
are point sources subject to permits under section 402 of the 72322
"Federal Water Pollution Control Act Amendments of 1972," 86 Stat. 72323
880, 33 U.S.C.A. 1342, as amended, or source, special nuclear, or 72324
byproduct material as defined by the "Atomic Energy Act of 1954," 72325
68 Stat. 921, 42 U.S.C.A. 2011, as amended.72326

       (Q) "Sludge" means any solid, semisolid, or liquid waste, 72327
other than a recyclable by-product, generated from a municipal, 72328
commercial, or industrial waste water treatment plant, water 72329
supply plant, or air pollution control facility or any other such 72330
wastes having similar characteristics and effects.72331

       (R) "Ethanol or other biofuel facility" means a plant at 72332
which ethanol or other biofuel is produced.72333

       (S) "Ethanol" means fermentation ethyl alcohol derived from 72334
agricultural products, including potatoes, cereal, grains, cheese 72335
whey, and sugar beets; forest products; or other renewable or 72336
biomass resources, including residue and waste generated from the 72337
production, processing, and marketing of agricultural products, 72338
forest products, and other renewable or biomass resources, that 72339
meets all of the specifications in the American society for 72340
testing and materials (ASTM) specification D 4806-88 and is 72341
denatured as specified in Parts 20 and 21 of Title 27 of the Code 72342
of Federal Regulations.72343

       (T) "Biofuel" means any fuel that is made from cellulosic 72344
biomass resources, including renewable organic matter, crop waste 72345
residue, wood, aquatic plants and other crops, animal waste, solid 72346
waste, or sludge, and that is used for the production of energy 72347
for transportation or other purposes.72348

       (U) "FutureGen project" means the buildings, equipment, and 72349
real property and functionally related buildings, equipment, and 72350
real property, including related research projects that support 72351
the development and operation of the buildings, equipment, and 72352
real property, designated by the United States department of 72353
energy and the FutureGen industrial alliance, inc., as the 72354
coal-fueled, zero-emissions power plant designed to prove the 72355
technical and economic feasibility of producing electricity and 72356
hydrogen from coal and nearly eliminating carbon dioxide emissions 72357
through capture and permanent storage.72358

       (V) "Commodity contract" means a contract or series of 72359
contracts entered into in connection with the acquisition or 72360
construction of air quality facilities for the purchase or sale of 72361
a commodity that is eligible for prepayment with the proceeds of 72362
federally tax exempt bonds under sections 103, 141, and 148 of the 72363
Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended, and regulations adopted 72364
under it.72365

       Sec. 3707.511.  (A) As used in this section, "physician":72366

       "Physician" means a person authorized under Chapter 4731. of 72367
the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic 72368
medicine and surgery.72369

       "Chiropractor" means a person licensed under Chapter 4734. of 72370
the Revised Code to practice chiropractic.72371

        (B) A youth sports organization shall provide to the parent, 72372
guardian, or other person having care or charge of an individual 72373
who wishes to practice for or compete in an athletic activity 72374
organized by a youth sports organization the concussion and head 72375
injury information sheet required by section 3707.52 of the 72376
Revised Code. The organization shall provide the information sheet 72377
annually for each sport or other category of athletic activity for 72378
or in which the individual practices or competes.72379

        (C)(1) No individual shall act as a coach or referee for a 72380
youth sports organization unless the individual holds a 72381
pupil-activity program permit issued under section 3319.303 of the 72382
Revised Code for coaching interscholastic athletics or presents 72383
evidence that the individual has successfully completed, within 72384
the previous three years, a training program in recognizing the 72385
symptoms of concussions and head injuries to which the department 72386
of health has provided a link on its internet web site under 72387
section 3707.52 of the Revised Code.72388

       (2) The youth sports organization for which the individual 72389
intends to act as a coach or referee shall inform the individual 72390
of the requirement described in division (C)(1) of this section.72391

       (D) If an individual practicing for or competing in an 72392
athletic event organized by a youth sports organization exhibits 72393
signs, symptoms, or behaviors consistent with having sustained a 72394
concussion or head injury while participating in the practice or 72395
competition, the individual shall be removed from the practice or 72396
competition by one of the following:72397

       (1) The individual who is serving as the individual's coach 72398
during that practice or competition;72399

       (2) An individual who is serving as a referee during that 72400
practice or competition;72401

       (3) An official of the youth sports organization who is 72402
supervising that practice or competition.72403

       (E)(1) If an individual is removed from practice or 72404
competition under division (D) of this section, the coach, 72405
referee, or official who removed the individual shall not allow 72406
the individual, on the same day the individual is removed, to 72407
return to that practice or competition or to participate in any 72408
other practice or competition for which the coach, referee, or 72409
official is responsible. Thereafter, the coach, referee, or 72410
official shall not allow the student to return to that practice or 72411
competition or to participate in any other practice or competition 72412
for which the coach, referee, or official is responsible until 72413
both of the following conditions are satisfied:72414

       (a) The individual's condition is assessed by eitherany of 72415
the following:72416

       (i) A physician;72417

        (ii) A chiropractor;72418

       (iii) Any other licensed health care provider the youth 72419
sports organization, pursuant to division (E)(2) of this section, 72420
authorizes to assess an individual who has been removed from 72421
practice or competition under division (D) of this section.72422

       (b) The individual receives written clearance that it is safe 72423
for the individual to return to practice or competition from a 72424
physician, chiropractor, or from another licensed health care 72425
provider authorized pursuant to division (E)(2) of this section to 72426
grant the clearance.72427

       (2) A youth sports organization may authorize a licensed 72428
health care provider who is not a physician or a chiropractor to 72429
make an assessment or grant a clearance for purposes of division 72430
(E)(1) of this section only if the provider is acting in 72431
accordance with one of the following, as applicable to the 72432
provider's authority to practice in this state:72433

       (a) In consultation with a physician;72434

       (b) Pursuant to the referral of a physician;72435

       (c) In collaboration with a physician;72436

       (d) Under the supervision of a physician.72437

       (3) A physician, chiropractor, or other licensed health care 72438
provider who makes an assessment or grants a clearance for 72439
purposes of division (E)(1) of this section may be a volunteer.72440

       (F)(1) A youth sports organization or official, employee, or 72441
volunteer of a youth sports organization, including a coach or 72442
referee, is not liable in damages in a civil action for injury, 72443
death, or loss to person or property allegedly arising from 72444
providing services or performing duties under this section, unless 72445
the act or omission constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.72446

       (2) This section does not eliminate, limit, or reduce any 72447
other immunity or defense that a public entity, public official, 72448
or public employee may be entitled to under Chapter 2744. or any 72449
other provision of the Revised Code or under the common law of 72450
this state.72451

       Sec. 3709.01.  The state shall be divided into health 72452
districts. Each city constitutes a health district and shall be 72453
known as a "city health district."72454

       The townships and villages in each county shall be combined 72455
into a health district and shall be known as a "general health 72456
district."72457

       As provided for in sections 3709.051, 3709.07, 3709.071, and 72458
3709.10 of the Revised Code, there may be a union of two or more 72459
contiguous general health districts, not to exceed five, a union 72460
of two or more contiguous city health districts to form a single72461
city health district, or a union of a general health district and 72462
one or more city health districts located within or partially 72463
within such general health district.72464

       Sec. 3709.051.  Two or more contiguous city health districts 72465
may be united to form a single city health district by a majority 72466
affirmative vote of the legislative authority of each city 72467
affected by the union.72468

       If at least three per cent of the qualified electors residing 72469
within each of two or more contiguous city health districts sign a 72470
petition proposing a union into a single city health district, an 72471
election shall be held as provided in this section to determine 72472
whether a single city health district shall be formed. The 72473
petition for union may specify regarding the board of health of 72474
the new district:72475

       (A) The qualifications for membership;72476

       (B) The term of office;72477

       (C) The number of members or a method by which the number may 72478
be determined from time to time;72479

       (D) The method of appointment.72480

       Such petition shall be filed with the boards of county 72481
commissioners of the respective counties affected, subject to 72482
approval of the director of health, and such boards shall promptly 72483
certify the text of the proposal to the boards of election for the 72484
purpose of having the proposal placed on the ballot at the next 72485
general election occurring more than ninety days after such 72486
certification. The election procedures provided in Chapter 3505. 72487
of the Revised Code for questions and issues shall apply to the 72488
election. If a majority of the electors voting on the proposal in 72489
each of the health districts affected vote in favor thereof, the 72490
union of such districts into a single city health district shall 72491
be established on the second succeeding first day of January.72492

       Sec. 3709.10.  When it is proposed that two or more72493
contiguous general health districts, not to exceed five, unite in 72494
the formation of one general health district, the district 72495
advisory council of each general health district shall meet and 72496
vote on the question of union. An affirmative majority vote of the 72497
district advisory council shall be required for approval. When the 72498
district advisory councils have voted affirmatively on the 72499
question, they shall meet in joint session and shall elect a board 72500
of health for the combined districts. Each original general health 72501
district shall be entitled to at least one member on the board of 72502
health of the combined districts.72503

       When such union is completed, suchthe district shall 72504
constitute a general health district and shall be governed in the 72505
manner provided for general health districts. When two or more 72506
general health districts unite to form one district, the office of 72507
the board of health shall be located at the county seat of the 72508
county selected by the joint board of district advisory councils.72509

       When two or more general health districts have been combined 72510
into a single district, the county auditor of the county selected 72511
by the joint board of district advisory councils as the location 72512
of the central office of the board of health shall be the auditor 72513
of such district and the county treasurer of such county shall be 72514
the custodian of the health funds of such district. When the 72515
budget of such combined general health district is a matter for 72516
consideration, the members of the budget commissions of the 72517
counties constituting the district shall sit as a joint board for 72518
considering and acting on such budget.72519

       Sec. 3712.051.  (A) As used in this division, "person" does 72520
not include a member of an interdisciplinary team, as defined in 72521
section 3712.01 of the Revised Code, or any individual who is 72522
employed by a person or public agency licensed under section 72523
3712.041 of the Revised Code.72524

       Except as provided in division (B) of this section, no person 72525
or public agency, other than a person or public agency licensed 72526
pursuant to section 3712.041 of the Revised Code, shall hold 72527
itself out as providing a pediatric respite care program, or 72528
provide a pediatric respite care program, or use the term 72529
"pediatric respite care program" or any term containing "pediatric 72530
respite care" to describe or refer to a health program, facility, 72531
or agency.72532

       (B) Division (A) of this section does not apply to any of the 72533
following:72534

        (1) A hospital;72535

        (2) A nursing home or residential care facility, as those 72536
terms are defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;72537

       (3) A home health agency, if it provides services under 72538
contract with a person or public agency providing a pediatric 72539
respite care program licensed under section 3712.041 of the 72540
Revised Code;72541

        (4) A regional, state, or national nonprofit organization 72542
whose members are providers of pediatric respite care programs, 72543
individuals interested in pediatric respite care programs, or 72544
both, as long as the organization does not provide or represent 72545
that it provides pediatric respite care programs;72546

       (5) A person or government entity certified under section 72547
5123.161 of the Revised Code as a supported living provider;72548

       (6) A residential facility licensed under section 5123.19 of 72549
the Revised Code;72550

       (7) A respite care home certified under section 5126.05 of 72551
the Revised Code;72552

       (8) A person providing respite care under a family support 72553
services program established under section 5126.11 of the Revised 72554
Code;72555

       (9) A person or government entity providing respite care 72556
under a medicaid waiver component that the department of 72557
developmental disabilities administers pursuant to section 72558
5111.8715166.21 of the Revised Code.72559

       (C) The department of health shall petition the court of 72560
common pleas of any county in which a person or public agency, 72561
without a license granted under section 3712.041 of the Revised 72562
Code, is holding itself out as providing a pediatric respite care 72563
program, is providing a pediatric respite care program, or is 72564
representing a health program, facility, or agency as a pediatric 72565
respite care program, for an order enjoining that person or public 72566
agency from conducting those activities without a license. The 72567
court has jurisdiction to grant injunctive relief upon a showing 72568
that the respondent named in the petition is conducting those 72569
activities without a license.72570

       Any person or public agency may request the department to 72571
petition the court for injunctive relief under this division, and 72572
the department shall do so if it determines that the person or 72573
public agency named in the request is violating division (A) of 72574
this section.72575

       Sec. 3712.07.  (A) As used in this section, "terminal care 72576
facility for the homeless" means a facility that provides 72577
accommodations to homeless individuals who are terminally ill.72578

       (B) A person or public agency licensed under this chapter to 72579
provide a hospice care program may enter into an agreement with a 72580
terminal care facility for the homeless under which hospice care 72581
program services may be provided to individuals residing at the 72582
facility, if all of the following apply:72583

       (1) Each resident of the facility has been diagnosed by a 72584
physician as having a terminal condition and an anticipated life 72585
expectancy of six months or less;72586

       (2) No resident of the facility has a relative or other 72587
person willing or capable of providing the care necessary to cope 72588
with histhe resident's terminal illness or is financially capable 72589
of hiring a person to provide such care;72590

       (3) Each resident of the facility is under the direct care of 72591
a physician;72592

       (4) No resident of the facility requires the staff of the 72593
facility to administer medication by injection;72594

       (5) The facility does not receive any remuneration, directly 72595
or indirectly, from the residents;72596

       (6) The facility does not receive any remuneration, directly 72597
or indirectly, from the medical assistancemedicaid program72598
established under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code or the 72599
medicare program established under Title XVIII of the "Social 72600
Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended;72601

       (7) The facility meets all applicable state and federal 72602
health and safety standards, including standards for fire 72603
prevention, maintenance of safe and sanitary conditions, and 72604
proper preparation and storage of foods.72605

       (C) Hospice care program services may be provided at a 72606
terminal care facility for the homeless only by the personnel of 72607
the person or public agency that has entered into an agreement 72608
with the facility under this section.72609

       (D) A terminal care facility for the homeless that has 72610
entered into an agreement under this section may assist its 72611
residents with the self-administration of medication if the 72612
medication has been prescribed by a physician and is not 72613
administered by injection. In the event that a resident has 72614
entered the final stages of dying and is no longer mentally alert, 72615
the facility may administer medication to that resident if the 72616
medication has been prescribed by a physician and is not 72617
administered by injection. Determinations of whether an individual 72618
has entered the final stages of dying and is no longer mentally 72619
alert shall be based on directions from the personnel who provide 72620
hospice care program services at the facility.72621

       Sec. 3712.09.  (A) As used in this section:72622

       (1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 72623
consideration for employment with a hospice care program or 72624
pediatric respite care program in a full-time, part-time, or 72625
temporary position that involves providing direct care to an older 72626
adult or pediatric respite care patient. "Applicant" does not 72627
include a person who provides direct care as a volunteer without 72628
receiving or expecting to receive any form of remuneration other 72629
than reimbursement for actual expenses.72630

       (2) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 72631
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.72632

       (3) "Older adult" means a person age sixty or older.72633

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (I) of this section, 72634
the chief administrator of a hospice care program or pediatric 72635
respite care program shall request that the superintendent of the 72636
bureau of criminal identification and investigation conduct a 72637
criminal records check of each applicant. If an applicant for whom 72638
a criminal records check request is required under this division 72639
does not present proof of having been a resident of this state for 72640
the five-year period immediately prior to the date the criminal 72641
records check is requested or provide evidence that within that 72642
five-year period the superintendent has requested information 72643
about the applicant from the federal bureau of investigation in a 72644
criminal records check, the chief administrator shall request that 72645
the superintendent obtain information from the federal bureau of 72646
investigation as part of the criminal records check of the 72647
applicant. Even if an applicant for whom a criminal records check 72648
request is required under this division presents proof of having 72649
been a resident of this state for the five-year period, the chief 72650
administrator may request that the superintendent include 72651
information from the federal bureau of investigation in the 72652
criminal records check.72653

       (2) A person required by division (B)(1) of this section to 72654
request a criminal records check shall do both of the following:72655

       (a) Provide to each applicant for whom a criminal records 72656
check request is required under that division a copy of the form 72657
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the 72658
Revised Code and a standard fingerprint impression sheet 72659
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section, and obtain 72660
the completed form and impression sheet from the applicant;72661

       (b) Forward the completed form and impression sheet to the 72662
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 72663
investigation.72664

       (3) An applicant provided the form and fingerprint impression 72665
sheet under division (B)(2)(a) of this section who fails to 72666
complete the form or provide fingerprint impressions shall not be 72667
employed in any position for which a criminal records check is 72668
required by this section.72669

       (C)(1) Except as provided in rules adopted by the director of 72670
health in accordance with division (F) of this section and subject 72671
to division (C)(2) of this section, no hospice care program or 72672
pediatric respite care program shall employ a person in a position 72673
that involves providing direct care to an older adult or pediatric 72674
respite care patient if the person has been convicted of or 72675
pleaded guilty to any of the following:72676

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 72677
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 72678
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 72679
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 72680
2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 72681
2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 72682
2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 72683
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 72684
2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code.72685

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 72686
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 72687
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (C)(1)(a) of 72688
this section.72689

       (2)(a) A hospice care program or pediatric respite care 72690
program may employ conditionally an applicant for whom a criminal 72691
records check request is required under division (B) of this 72692
section prior to obtaining the results of a criminal records check 72693
regarding the individual, provided that the program shall request 72694
a criminal records check regarding the individual in accordance 72695
with division (B)(1) of this section not later than five business 72696
days after the individual begins conditional employment. In the 72697
circumstances described in division (I)(2) of this section, a 72698
hospice care program or pediatric respite care program may employ 72699
conditionally an applicant who has been referred to the hospice 72700
care program or pediatric respite care program by an employment 72701
service that supplies full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for 72702
positions involving the direct care of older adults or pediatric 72703
respite care patients and for whom, pursuant to that division, a 72704
criminal records check is not required under division (B) of this 72705
section.72706

       (b) A hospice care program or pediatric respite care program 72707
that employs an individual conditionally under authority of 72708
division (C)(2)(a) of this section shall terminate the 72709
individual's employment if the results of the criminal records 72710
check requested under division (B) of this section or described in 72711
division (I)(2) of this section, other than the results of any 72712
request for information from the federal bureau of investigation, 72713
are not obtained within the period ending thirty days after the 72714
date the request is made. Regardless of when the results of the 72715
criminal records check are obtained, if the results indicate that 72716
the individual has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of 72717
the offenses listed or described in division (C)(1) of this 72718
section, the program shall terminate the individual's employment 72719
unless the program chooses to employ the individual pursuant to 72720
division (F) of this section. Termination of employment under this 72721
division shall be considered just cause for discharge for purposes 72722
of division (D)(2) of section 4141.29 of the Revised Code if the 72723
individual makes any attempt to deceive the program about the 72724
individual's criminal record.72725

       (D)(1) Each hospice care program or pediatric respite care 72726
program shall pay to the bureau of criminal identification and 72727
investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of 72728
section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each criminal records 72729
check conducted pursuant to a request made under division (B) of 72730
this section.72731

       (2) A hospice care program or pediatric respite care program 72732
may charge an applicant a fee not exceeding the amount the program 72733
pays under division (D)(1) of this section. A program may collect 72734
a fee only if both of the following apply:72735

       (a) The program notifies the person at the time of initial 72736
application for employment of the amount of the fee and that, 72737
unless the fee is paid, the person will not be considered for 72738
employment;72739

       (b) The medical assistancemedicaid program established under 72740
Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code does not reimburse the program 72741
the fee it pays under division (D)(1) of this section.72742

       (E) The report of a criminal records check conducted pursuant 72743
to a request made under this section is not a public record for 72744
the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not 72745
be made available to any person other than the following:72746

       (1) The individual who is the subject of the criminal records 72747
check or the individual's representative;72748

       (2) The chief administrator of the program requesting the 72749
criminal records check or the administrator's representative;72750

       (3) The administrator of any other facility, agency, or 72751
program that provides direct care to older adults or pediatric 72752
respite care patients that is owned or operated by the same entity 72753
that owns or operates the hospice care program or pediatric 72754
respite care program;72755

       (4) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 72756
involved in a case dealing with a denial of employment of the 72757
applicant or dealing with employment or unemployment benefits of 72758
the applicant;72759

       (5) Any person to whom the report is provided pursuant to, 72760
and in accordance with, division (I)(1) or (2) of this section.72761

       (F) The director of health shall adopt rules in accordance 72762
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. 72763
The rules shall specify circumstances under which a hospice care 72764
program or pediatric respite care program may employ a person who 72765
has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense listed or 72766
described in division (C)(1) of this section but meets personal 72767
character standards set by the director.72768

       (G) The chief administrator of a hospice care program or 72769
pediatric respite care program shall inform each individual, at 72770
the time of initial application for a position that involves 72771
providing direct care to an older adult or pediatric respite care 72772
patient, that the individual is required to provide a set of 72773
fingerprint impressions and that a criminal records check is 72774
required to be conducted if the individual comes under final 72775
consideration for employment.72776

       (H) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is 72777
brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or 72778
property caused by an individual who a hospice care program or 72779
pediatric respite care program employs in a position that involves 72780
providing direct care to older adults or pediatric respite care 72781
patients, all of the following shall apply:72782

       (1) If the program employed the individual in good faith and 72783
reasonable reliance on the report of a criminal records check 72784
requested under this section, the program shall not be found 72785
negligent solely because of its reliance on the report, even if 72786
the information in the report is determined later to have been 72787
incomplete or inaccurate;72788

       (2) If the program employed the individual in good faith on a 72789
conditional basis pursuant to division (C)(2) of this section, the 72790
program shall not be found negligent solely because it employed 72791
the individual prior to receiving the report of a criminal records 72792
check requested under this section;72793

       (3) If the program in good faith employed the individual 72794
according to the personal character standards established in rules 72795
adopted under division (F) of this section, the program shall not 72796
be found negligent solely because the individual prior to being 72797
employed had been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense 72798
listed or described in division (C)(1) of this section.72799

       (I)(1) The chief administrator of a hospice care program or 72800
pediatric respite care program is not required to request that the 72801
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 72802
investigation conduct a criminal records check of an applicant if 72803
the applicant has been referred to the program by an employment 72804
service that supplies full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for 72805
positions involving the direct care of older adults or pediatric 72806
respite care patients and both of the following apply:72807

       (a) The chief administrator receives from the employment 72808
service or the applicant a report of the results of a criminal 72809
records check regarding the applicant that has been conducted by 72810
the superintendent within the one-year period immediately 72811
preceding the applicant's referral;72812

       (b) The report of the criminal records check demonstrates 72813
that the person has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an 72814
offense listed or described in division (C)(1) of this section, or 72815
the report demonstrates that the person has been convicted of or 72816
pleaded guilty to one or more of those offenses, but the hospice 72817
care program or pediatric respite care program chooses to employ 72818
the individual pursuant to division (F) of this section.72819

       (2) The chief administrator of a hospice care program or 72820
pediatric respite care program is not required to request that the 72821
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 72822
investigation conduct a criminal records check of an applicant and 72823
may employ the applicant conditionally as described in this 72824
division, if the applicant has been referred to the program by an 72825
employment service that supplies full-time, part-time, or 72826
temporary staff for positions involving the direct care of older 72827
adults or pediatric respite care patients and if the chief 72828
administrator receives from the employment service or the 72829
applicant a letter from the employment service that is on the 72830
letterhead of the employment service, dated, and signed by a 72831
supervisor or another designated official of the employment 72832
service and that states that the employment service has requested 72833
the superintendent to conduct a criminal records check regarding 72834
the applicant, that the requested criminal records check will 72835
include a determination of whether the applicant has been 72836
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense listed or described 72837
in division (C)(1) of this section, that, as of the date set forth 72838
on the letter, the employment service had not received the results 72839
of the criminal records check, and that, when the employment 72840
service receives the results of the criminal records check, it 72841
promptly will send a copy of the results to the hospice care 72842
program or pediatric respite care program. If a hospice care 72843
program or pediatric respite care program employs an applicant 72844
conditionally in accordance with this division, the employment 72845
service, upon its receipt of the results of the criminal records 72846
check, promptly shall send a copy of the results to the hospice 72847
care program or pediatric respite care program, and division 72848
(C)(2)(b) of this section applies regarding the conditional 72849
employment.72850

       Sec. 3713.06. (A) Any person required to register under 72851
division (A) of section 3713.02 of the Revised Code who imports 72852
bedding or stuffed toys into this state for retail sale or use in 72853
this state and any person required to register under division (A) 72854
of section 3713.02 of the Revised Code who manufactures bedding or 72855
stuffed toys in this state for retail sale or use in this state 72856
shall submit a report to the superintendent of industrial 72857
compliance, in a form and manner prescribed by the superintendent. 72858
The form shall be submitted once every six monthsper year and 72859
shall show the total number of items of bedding or stuffed toys 72860
imported into this state or manufactured in this state. Each 72861
report shall be accompanied by a fee of four cents for each item 72862
of bedding or stuffed toy imported into this state or manufactured 72863
in this state.72864

       (B) Every importer, manufacturer, or wholesaler of stuffed 72865
toys or articles of bedding, and every mobile home and 72866
recreational vehicle dealer, conversion van dealer, secondhand 72867
dealer, and auction house shall retain records, designated by the 72868
superintendent in rule, for the time period established in rule.72869

       (C) Every importer, manufacturer, or wholesaler of stuffed 72870
toys or articles of bedding, and every mobile home and 72871
recreational vehicle dealer, conversion van dealer, secondhand 72872
dealer, and auction house shall make sufficient investigation of 72873
its records to ensure that the information reported to the 72874
superintendent under division (A) of this section is accurate.72875

       Sec. 3714.03. (A) As used in this section:72876

       (1) "Aquifer system" means one or more geologic units or 72877
formations that are wholly or partially saturated with water and 72878
are capable of storing, transmitting, and yielding significant 72879
amounts of water to wells or springs.72880

       (2) "Category 3 wetland" means a wetland that supports 72881
superior habitat or hydrological or recreational functions as 72882
determined by an appropriate wetland evaluation methodology 72883
acceptable to the director of environmental protection. "Category 72884
3 wetland" includes a wetland with high levels of diversity, a 72885
high proportion of native species, and high functional values and 72886
includes, but is not limited to, a wetland that contains or 72887
provides habitat for threatened or endangered species. "Category 3 72888
wetland" may include high quality forested wetlands, including old 72889
growth forested wetlands, mature forested riparian wetlands, 72890
vernal pools, bogs, fens, and wetlands that are scarce regionally.72891

       (3) "Natural area" means either of the following:72892

        (a) An area designated by the director of natural resources 72893
as a wild, scenic, or recreational river under section 1547.81 of 72894
the Revised Code;72895

       (b) An area designated by the United States department of the 72896
interior as a national wild, scenic, or recreational river.72897

       (4) "Occupied dwelling" means a residential dwelling and also 72898
includes a place of worship as defined in section 5104.01 of the 72899
Revised Code, a child day-care center as defined in that section, 72900
a hospital as defined in section 3727.01 of the Revised Code, a 72901
nursing home as defined in that section, a school, and a 72902
restaurant or other eating establishment. "Occupied dwelling" does 72903
not include a dwelling owned or controlled by the owner or 72904
operator of a construction and demolition debris facility to which 72905
the siting criteria established under this section are being 72906
applied.72907

       (5) "Residential dwelling" means a building used or intended 72908
to be used in whole or in part as a personal residence by the 72909
owner, part-time owner, or lessee of the building or any person 72910
authorized by the owner, part-time owner, or lessee to use the 72911
building as a personal residence.72912

       (B) Neither the director of environmental protection nor any 72913
board of health shall issue a permit to install under section 72914
3714.051 of the Revised Code to establish a new construction and 72915
demolition debris facility when any portion of the facility is 72916
proposed to be located in either of the following locations:72917

       (1) Within the boundaries of a one-hundred-year flood plain, 72918
as those boundaries are shown on the applicable maps prepared 72919
under the "National Flood Insurance Act of 1968," 82 Stat. 572, 42 72920
U.S.C.A. 4001, as amended, unless the owner or operator has 72921
obtained an exemption from division (B)(1) of this section in 72922
accordance with section 3714.04 of the Revised Code. If no such 72923
maps have been prepared, the boundaries of a one-hundred-year 72924
flood plain shall be determined by the applicant for a permit 72925
based upon standard methodologies set forth in "urban hydrology 72926
for small watersheds" (soil conservation service technical release 72927
number 55) and section 4 of the "national engineering hydrology 72928
handbook" of the soil conservation service of the United States 72929
department of agriculture.72930

       (2) Within the boundaries of a sole source aquifer designated 72931
by the administrator of the United States environmental protection 72932
agency under the "Safe Drinking Water Act," 88 Stat. 1660 (1974), 72933
42 U.S.C.A. 300f, as amended.72934

       (C) Neither the director nor any board shall issue a permit 72935
to install under section 3714.051 of the Revised Code to establish 72936
a new construction and demolition debris facility when the 72937
horizontal limits of construction and demolition debris placement 72938
at the new facility are proposed to be located in any of the 72939
following locations:72940

       (1) Within one hundred feet of a perennial stream as defined 72941
by the United States geological survey seven and one-half minute 72942
quadrangle map or a category 3 wetland;72943

       (2) Within one hundred feet of the facility's property line;72944

       (3)(a) Except as provided in division (C)(3)(b) of this 72945
section, within five hundred feet of a residential or public water 72946
supply well.72947

       (b) Division (C)(3)(a) of this section does not apply to a 72948
residential well under any of the circumstances specified in 72949
divisions (C)(3)(b)(i) to (iii) of this section as follows:72950

        (i) The well is controlled by the owner or operator of the 72951
construction and demolition debris facility.72952

        (ii) The well is hydrologically separated from the horizontal 72953
limits of construction and demolition debris placement.72954

        (iii) The well is at least three hundred feet upgradient from 72955
the horizontal limits of construction and demolition debris 72956
placement and division (D) of this section does not prohibit the 72957
issuance of the permit to install.72958

       (4) Within five hundred feet of a park created or operated 72959
pursuant to section 301.26, 511.18, 755.08, 1545.04, or 1545.041 72960
of the Revised Code, a state park established or dedicated under 72961
Chapter 1541. of the Revised Code, a state park purchase area 72962
established under section 1541.02 of the Revised Code, a national 72963
recreation area, any unit of the national park system, or any 72964
property that lies within the boundaries of a national park or 72965
recreation area, but that has not been acquired or is not 72966
administered by the secretary of the United States department of 72967
the interior, located in this state, or any area located in this 72968
state that is recommended by the secretary for study for potential 72969
inclusion in the national park system in accordance with "The Act 72970
of August 18, 1970," 84 Stat. 825, 16 U.S.C.A. 1a-5, as amended;72971

       (5) Within five hundred feet of a natural area, any area 72972
established by the department of natural resources as a state 72973
wildlife area under Chapter 1531. of the Revised Code and rules 72974
adopted under it, any area that is formally dedicated as a nature 72975
preserve under section 1517.05 of the Revised Code, or any area 72976
designated by the United States department of the interior as a 72977
national wildlife refuge;72978

       (6) Within five hundred feet of a lake or reservoir of one 72979
acre or more that is hydrogeologically connected to ground water. 72980
For purposes of division (C)(6) of this section, a lake or 72981
reservoir does not include a body of water constructed and used 72982
for purposes of surface water drainage or sediment control.72983

        (7) Within five hundred feet of a state forest purchased or 72984
otherwise acquired under Chapter 1503. of the Revised Code;72985

       (8) Within five hundred feet of land that is placed on the 72986
state registry of historic landmarks under section 149.55 of the 72987
Revised Code;72988

       (9) Within five hundred feet of an occupied dwelling unless 72989
written permission is given by the owner of the dwelling.72990

       (D) Neither the director nor any board shall issue a permit 72991
to install under section 3714.051 of the Revised Code to establish 72992
a new construction and demolition debris facility when the limits 72993
of construction and demolition debris placement at the new 72994
facility are proposed to have an isolation distance of less than 72995
five feet from the uppermost aquifer system that consists of 72996
material that has a maximum hydraulic conductivity of 1 x 10-572997
cm/sec and all of the geologic material comprising the isolation 72998
distance has a hydraulic conductivity equivalent to or less than 1 72999
x 10-6 cm/sec.73000

       (E) Neither the director nor any board shall issue a permit 73001
to install under section 3714.051 of the Revised Code to establish 73002
a new construction and demolition debris facility when the road 73003
that is designated by the owner or operator as the main hauling 73004
road at the facility to and from the limits of construction and 73005
demolition debris placement is proposed to be located within five 73006
hundred feet of an occupied dwelling unless written permission is 73007
given by the owner of the occupied dwelling.73008

       (F) Neither the director nor any board shall issue a permit 73009
to install under section 3714.051 of the Revised Code to establish 73010
a new construction and demolition debris facility unless the new 73011
facility will have all of the following:73012

        (1) Access roads that shall be constructed in a manner that 73013
allows use in all weather conditions and will withstand the 73014
anticipated degree of use and minimize erosion and generation of 73015
dust;73016

        (2) Surface water drainage and sediment controls that are 73017
required by the director;73018

        (3) If the facility is proposed to be located in an area in 73019
which an applicable zoning resolution allows residential 73020
construction, vegetated earthen berms or an equivalent barrier 73021
with a minimum height of six feet separating the facility from 73022
adjoining property.73023

       (G)(1) The siting criteria established in this section shall 73024
be applied to an application for a permit to install at the time 73025
that the application is submitted to the director or a board of 73026
health, as applicable. Circumstances related to the siting 73027
criteria that change after the application is submitted shall not 73028
be considered in approving or disapproving the application.73029

       (2) The siting criteria established in this section by this 73030
amendment do not apply to an expansion of a construction and 73031
demolition debris facility that was in operation prior to December 73032
22, 2005, onto property within the property boundaries identified 73033
in the application for the initial license for that facility or 73034
any subsequent license issued for that facility up to and 73035
including the license issued for that facility for calendar year 73036
2005. The siting criteria established in this section prior to 73037
December 22, 2005, apply to such an expansion.73038

       Sec. 3714.07.  (A)(1) For the purpose of assisting boards of 73039
health and the environmental protection agency in administering 73040
and enforcing this chapter and rules adopted under it, there is 73041
hereby levied a fee of thirty cents per cubic yard or sixty cents 73042
per ton, as applicable, on both of the following:73043

       (a) The disposal of construction and demolition debris at a 73044
construction and demolition debris facility that is licensed under 73045
this chapter or at a solid waste facility that is licensed under 73046
Chapter 3734. of the Revised Code;73047

       (b) The disposal of asbestos or asbestos-containing materials 73048
or products at a construction and demolition debris facility that 73049
is licensed under this chapter or at a solid waste facility that 73050
is licensed under Chapter 3734. of the Revised Code.73051

       (2) The owner or operator of a construction and demolition 73052
debris facility or a solid waste facility shall determine if cubic 73053
yards or tons will be used as the unit of measurement. If basing 73054
the fee on cubic yards, the owner or operator shall utilize either 73055
the maximum cubic yard capacity of the container, or the hauling 73056
volume of the vehicle, that transports the construction and 73057
demolition debris to the facility or the cubic yards actually 73058
logged for disposal by the owner or operator in accordance with 73059
rules adopted under section 3714.02 of the Revised Code. If basing 73060
the fee on tonnage, the owner or operator shall use certified 73061
scales to determine the tonnage of construction and demolition 73062
debris that is disposed of.73063

       (3) The owner or operator of a construction and demolition 73064
debris facility or a solid waste facility shall calculate the 73065
amount of money generated from the fee levied under division 73066
(A)(1) of this section and shall hold that amount as a trustee for 73067
the health district having jurisdiction over the facility, if that 73068
district is on the approved list under section 3714.09 of the 73069
Revised Code, or for the state. The owner or operator shall 73070
prepare and file with the appropriate board of health or the 73071
director of environmental protection monthly returns indicating 73072
the total volume or weight, as applicable, of construction and 73073
demolition debris and asbestos or asbestos-containing materials or 73074
products disposed of at the facility and the total amount of money 73075
generated during that month from the fee levied under division 73076
(A)(1) of this section on the disposal of construction and 73077
demolition debris and asbestos or asbestos-containing materials or 73078
products. Not later than thirty days after the last day of the 73079
month to which the return applies, the owner or operator shall 73080
mail to the board of health or the director the return for that 73081
month together with the amount of money calculated under division 73082
(A)(3) of this section on the disposal of construction and 73083
demolition debris and asbestos or asbestos-containing materials or 73084
products during that month or may submit the return and money 73085
electronically in a manner approved by the director. The owner or 73086
operator may request, in writing, an extension of not more than 73087
thirty days after the last day of the month to which the return 73088
applies. A request for extension may be denied. If the owner or 73089
operator submits the money late, the owner or operator shall pay a 73090
penalty of ten per cent of the amount of the money due for each 73091
month that it is late.73092

       (4) Of the money that is submitted by a construction and 73093
demolition debris facility or a solid waste facility on a per 73094
cubic yard or per ton basis under this section, a board of health 73095
shall transmit three cents per cubic yard or six cents per ton, as 73096
applicable, to the director not later than forty-five days after 73097
the receipt of the money. The money retained by a board of health 73098
under this section shall be paid into a special fund, which is 73099
hereby created in each health district, and used solely tofor the 73100
following purposes:73101

       (a) To administer and enforce this chapter and rules adopted 73102
under it;73103

       (b) To abate abandoned accumulations of construction and 73104
demolition debris as provided in section 3714.074 of the Revised 73105
Code.73106

       The director shall transmit all money received under this 73107
section to the treasurer of state to be credited to the 73108
construction and demolition debris facility oversight fund, which 73109
is hereby created in the state treasury. The fund shall be 73110
administered by the director, and money credited to the fund shall 73111
be used exclusively for the administration and enforcement of this 73112
chapter and rules adopted under it.73113

       (B) The board of health of a health district or the director 73114
may enter into an agreement with the owner or operator of a 73115
construction and demolition debris facility or a solid waste 73116
facility for the quarterly payment of money generated from the 73117
disposal fee as calculated in division (A)(3) of this section. The 73118
board of health shall notify the director of any such agreement. 73119
Not later than forty-five days after receipt of the quarterly 73120
payment, the board of health shall transmit the amount established 73121
in division (A)(4) of this section to the director. The money 73122
retained by the board of health shall be deposited in the special 73123
fund of the district as required under that division. Upon receipt 73124
of the money from a board of health, the director shall transmit 73125
the money to the treasurer of state to be credited to the 73126
construction and demolition debris facility oversight fund.73127

       (C) If a construction and demolition debris facility or a 73128
solid waste facility is located within the territorial boundaries 73129
of a municipal corporation or the unincorporated area of a 73130
township, the municipal corporation or township may appropriate up 73131
to four cents per cubic yard or up to eight cents per ton of the 73132
disposal fee required to be paid by the facility under division 73133
(A)(1) of this section for the same purposes that a municipal 73134
corporation or township may levy a fee under division (C) of 73135
section 3734.57 of the Revised Code.73136

       The legislative authority of the municipal corporation or 73137
township may appropriate the money from the fee by enacting an 73138
ordinance or adopting a resolution establishing the amount of the 73139
fee to be appropriated. Upon doing so, the legislative authority 73140
shall mail a certified copy of the ordinance or resolution to the 73141
board of health of the health district in which the construction 73142
and demolition debris facility or the solid waste facility is 73143
located or, if the facility is located in a health district that 73144
is not on the approved list under section 3714.09 of the Revised 73145
Code, to the director. Upon receipt of the copy of the ordinance 73146
or resolution and not later than forty-five days after receipt of 73147
money generated from the fee, the board or the director, as 73148
applicable, shall transmit to the treasurer or other appropriate 73149
officer of the municipal corporation or clerk of the township that 73150
portion of the money generated from the disposal fee by the owner 73151
or operator of the facility that is required by the ordinance or 73152
resolution to be paid to that municipal corporation or township.73153

       Money received by the treasurer or other appropriate officer 73154
of a municipal corporation under this division shall be paid into 73155
the general fund of the municipal corporation. Money received by 73156
the clerk of a township under this division shall be paid into the 73157
general fund of the township. The treasurer or other officer of 73158
the municipal corporation or the clerk of the township, as 73159
appropriate, shall maintain separate records of the money received 73160
under this division.73161

       The legislative authority of a municipal corporation or 73162
township may cease appropriating money under this division by 73163
repealing the ordinance or resolution that was enacted or adopted 73164
under this division.73165

       The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 73166
119. of the Revised Code establishing requirements for prorating 73167
the amount of the fee that may be appropriated under this division 73168
by a municipal corporation or township in which only a portion of 73169
a construction and demolition debris facility is located within 73170
the territorial boundaries of the municipal corporation or 73171
township.73172

       (D) The board of county commissioners of a county in which a 73173
construction and demolition debris facility or a solid waste 73174
facility is located may appropriate up to three cents per cubic 73175
yard or up to six cents per ton of the disposal fee required to be 73176
paid by the facility under division (A)(1) of this section for the 73177
same purposes that a solid waste management district may levy a 73178
fee under division (B) of section 3734.57 of the Revised Code.73179

        The board of county commissioners may appropriate the money 73180
from the fee by adopting a resolution establishing the amount of 73181
the fee to be appropriated. Upon doing so, the board of county 73182
commissioners shall mail a certified copy of the resolution to the 73183
board of health of the health district in which the construction 73184
and demolition debris facility or the solid waste facility is 73185
located or, if the facility is located in a health district that 73186
is not on the approved list under section 3714.09 of the Revised 73187
Code, to the director. Upon receipt of the copy of the resolution 73188
and not later than forty-five days after receipt of money 73189
generated from the fee, the board of health or the director, as 73190
applicable, shall transmit to the treasurer of the county that 73191
portion of the money generated from the disposal fee by the owner 73192
or operator of the facility that is required by the resolution to 73193
be paid to that county.73194

        Money received by a county treasurer under this division 73195
shall be paid into the general fund of the county. The county 73196
treasurer shall maintain separate records of the money received 73197
under this division.73198

        A board of county commissioners may cease appropriating money 73199
under this division by repealing the resolution that was adopted 73200
under this division.73201

       (E)(1) This section does not apply to the disposal of 73202
construction and demolition debris at a solid waste facility that 73203
is licensed under Chapter 3734. of the Revised Code if there is no 73204
construction and demolition debris facility licensed under this 73205
chapter within thirty-five miles of the solid waste facility as 73206
determined by a facility's property boundaries.73207

        (2) This section does not apply to the disposal of 73208
construction and demolition debris at a solid waste facility that 73209
is licensed under Chapter 3734. of the Revised Code if the owner 73210
or operator of the facility chooses to collect fees on the 73211
disposal of the construction and demolition debris and asbestos or 73212
asbestos-containing materials or products that are identical to 73213
the fees that are collected under Chapters 343. and 3734. of the 73214
Revised Code on the disposal of solid wastes at that facility.73215

       (3) This section does not apply to the disposal of source 73216
separated materials that are exclusively composed of reinforced or 73217
nonreinforced concrete, asphalt, clay tile, building or paving 73218
brick, or building or paving stone at a construction and 73219
demolition debris facility that is licensed under this chapter 73220
when either of the following applies:73221

        (a) The materials are placed within the limits of 73222
construction and demolition debris placement at the facility as 73223
specified in the license issued to the facility under section 73224
3714.06 of the Revised Code, are not placed within the unloading 73225
zone of the facility, and are used as a fire prevention measure in 73226
accordance with rules adopted by the director under section 73227
3714.02 of the Revised Code.73228

       (b) The materials are not placed within the unloading zone of 73229
the facility or within the limits of construction and demolition 73230
debris placement at the facility as specified in the license 73231
issued to the facility under section 3714.06 of the Revised Code, 73232
but are used as fill material, either alone or in conjunction with 73233
clean soil, sand, gravel, or other clean aggregates, in legitimate 73234
fill operations for construction purposes at the facility or to 73235
bring the facility up to a consistent grade.73236

       Sec. 3714.074.  (A) A board of health may use money in the 73237
board's special fund created in section 3714.07 of the Revised 73238
Code for the purpose specified in division (B) of this section if 73239
both of the following apply:73240

       (1) It is the end of the fiscal year.73241

       (2) The board determines that it has more money in the fund 73242
than is necessary for the board to administer and enforce this 73243
chapter and rules adopted under it for the following fiscal year.73244

       (B) A board of health may use excess money as described in 73245
division (A) of this section to abate abandoned accumulations of 73246
construction and demolition debris at a location for which a 73247
license has not been issued pursuant to section 3714.05 of the 73248
Revised Code if the board has reason to believe that there is a 73249
substantial threat to public health or safety or the environment 73250
and all of the following apply to the property on which the 73251
accumulations are located:73252

       (1) The construction and demolition debris was placed on the 73253
property under either of the following circumstances:73254

       (a) After the owner of the property acquired title to it; 73255

       (b) Before the owner of the property acquired title to it if 73256
the owner acquired title to the property by bequest or devise.73257

       (2) The owner of the property did not have knowledge that the 73258
construction and demolition debris was being placed on the 73259
property, or the owner posted on the property signs prohibiting 73260
dumping or took other action to prevent the placing of 73261
construction and demolition debris on the property.73262

       (3) The owner of the property did not participate in or 73263
consent to the placement of the construction and demolition debris 73264
on the property.73265

       (4) The owner of the property did not receive any financial 73266
benefit from the placement of the construction and demolition 73267
debris on the property or from having the construction and 73268
demolition debris on the property.73269

       (5) Title to the property was not transferred to the owner of 73270
that property for the purpose of avoiding liability for violations 73271
of this chapter or rules adopted under it.73272

       (6) The person responsible for the placement of the 73273
construction and demolition debris on the property, in placing the 73274
construction and demolition debris on the property, was not acting 73275
as an agent for the owner of the property.73276

       Sec. 3717.08.  (A) The director of agriculture and director 73277
of health shall strive to increase consumer confidence in the 73278
state's food supply by promoting food safety awareness and 73279
education. The efforts of the director of agriculture and director 73280
of health shall be made, when appropriate and available, through 73281
partnerships with representatives of retail food establishments, 73282
representatives of food service operations, and representatives of 73283
the academic community, including the Ohio state universityOSU73284
extension service.73285

       (B) As part of their promotion of food safety awareness, the 73286
director of agriculture and the director of health shall do the 73287
following:73288

       (1) Develop training programs regarding the Ohio uniform food 73289
safety code. The directors may offer the training programs 73290
separately but shall coordinate the content of the programs to the 73291
greatest extent practicable. The training programs shall be made 73292
available to the employees of the department of agriculture, 73293
employees of the department of health, representatives of boards 73294
of health and the health officials employed by the boards, 73295
representatives of retail food establishments, and representatives 73296
of food service operations.73297

       (2) Co-sponsor a biennial statewide food safety conference. 73298
Additional statewide food safety conferences may be held as 73299
considered appropriate by the director of agriculture and director 73300
of health.73301

       Sec. 3718.06. (A) A board of health shall establish fees in 73302
accordance with section 3709.09 of the Revised Code for the 73303
purpose of carrying out its duties under this chapter and rules 73304
adopted under it, including fees for installation permits, 73305
operation permits, and alteration permits issued by the board. All 73306
fees so established and collected by the board shall be deposited 73307
in a special fund of the district to be used exclusively by the 73308
board in carrying out those duties.73309

        (B) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 73310
director of health may establish by rule a fee to be collected 73311
from applicants for installation permits and alteration permits 73312
issued under rules adopted under this chapter. The director of 73313
health shall use not more than seventy-fiveninety per cent of the 73314
proceeds from that fee for administering and enforcing this 73315
chapter and the rules adopted under it by the director. The 73316
director shall use not less than twenty-fiveten per cent of the 73317
proceeds from that fee to establish a program in cooperation with 73318
boards of health to fund installation and evaluation of sewage 73319
treatment system new technology pilot projects through grants or 73320
other agreements. In the selection of pilot projects, the director 73321
shall consult with the sewage treatment system technical advisory 73322
committee. A board of health shall collect and transmit the fee to 73323
the director pursuant to section 3709.092 of the Revised Code. 73324

       Sec. 3719.61.  Nothing in the laws dealing with drugs of 73325
abuse shall be construed to prohibit treatment of narcotic drug 73326
dependent persons by the continuing maintenance of their 73327
dependence through the administration of methadone in accordance 73328
with the rules adopted by the department of alcohol and drug 73329
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services under 73330
section 3793.115119.39 of the Revised Code, when all of the 73331
following apply:73332

       (A) The likelihood that any person undergoing maintenance 73333
treatment will be cured of dependence on narcotic drugs is remote, 73334
the treatment is prescribed for the purpose of alleviating or 73335
controlling the patient's drug dependence, and the patient's 73336
prognosis while undergoing treatment is at least a partial 73337
improvement in the patient's asocial or antisocial behavior 73338
patterns;73339

       (B) In the case of an inpatient in a hospital or clinic, the 73340
amount of the maintenance drug dispensed at any one time does not 73341
exceed the quantity necessary for a single dose, and the dose is 73342
administered to the patient immediately;73343

       (C) In the case of an outpatient, the amount of the 73344
maintenance drug dispensed at any one time shall be determined by 73345
the patient's treatment provider taking into account the patient's 73346
progress in the treatment program and the patient's needs for 73347
gainful employment, education, and responsible homemaking, except 73348
that in no event shall the dosage be greater than the amount 73349
permitted by federal law and rules adopted by the department 73350
pursuant to section 3793.115119.39 of the Revised Code;73351

       (D) The drug is not dispensed in any case to replace or 73352
supplement any part of a supply of the drug previously dispensed, 73353
or when there is reasonable cause to believe it will be used or 73354
disposed of unlawfully;73355

       (E) The drug is dispensed through a program licensed and 73356
operated in accordance with section 3793.115119.39 of the Revised 73357
Code.73358

       Sec. 3721.01.  (A) As used in sections 3721.01 to 3721.09 and 73359
3721.99 of the Revised Code:73360

       (1)(a) "Home" means an institution, residence, or facility 73361
that provides, for a period of more than twenty-four hours, 73362
whether for a consideration or not, accommodations to three or 73363
more unrelated individuals who are dependent upon the services of 73364
others, including a nursing home, residential care facility, home 73365
for the aging, and a veterans' home operated under Chapter 5907. 73366
of the Revised Code.73367

       (b) "Home" also means both of the following:73368

       (i) Any facility that a person, as defined in section 3702.51 73369
of the Revised Code, proposes for certification as a skilled 73370
nursing facility or nursing facility under Title XVIII or XIX of 73371
the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, 73372
as amended, and for which a certificate of need, other than a 73373
certificate to recategorize hospital beds as described in section 73374
3702.521 of the Revised Code or division (R)(7)(d) of the version 73375
of section 3702.51 of the Revised Code in effect immediately prior 73376
to April 20, 1995, has been granted to the person under sections 73377
3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code after August 5, 1989;73378

       (ii) A county home or district home that is or has been 73379
licensed as a residential care facility.73380

       (c) "Home" does not mean any of the following:73381

       (i) Except as provided in division (A)(1)(b) of this section, 73382
a public hospital or hospital as defined in section 3701.01 or 73383
5122.01 of the Revised Code;73384

       (ii) A residential facility as defined in section 5119.2273385
5119.34 of the Revised Code;73386

       (iii) A residential facility as defined in section 5123.19 of 73387
the Revised Code;73388

       (iv) An alcohol or drugA community addiction program73389
services provider as defined in section 3793.015119.01 of the 73390
Revised Code;73391

       (v) A facility licensed to provide methadone treatment under 73392
section 3793.115119.39 of the Revised Code;73393

       (vi) A facility providing services under contract with the 73394
department of developmental disabilities under section 5123.18 of 73395
the Revised Code;73396

       (vii) A facility operated by a hospice care program licensed 73397
under section 3712.04 of the Revised Code that is used exclusively 73398
for care of hospice patients;73399

       (viii) A facility operated by a pediatric respite care 73400
program licensed under section 3712.041 of the Revised Code that 73401
is used exclusively for care of pediatric respite care patients;73402

       (ix) A facility, infirmary, or other entity that is operated 73403
by a religious order, provides care exclusively to members of 73404
religious orders who take vows of celibacy and live by virtue of 73405
their vows within the orders as if related, and does not 73406
participate in the medicare program established under Title XVIII 73407
of the "Social Security Act" or the medical assistancemedicaid73408
program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code and 73409
Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," if on January 1, 1994, the 73410
facility, infirmary, or entity was providing care exclusively to 73411
members of the religious order;73412

       (x) A county home or district home that has never been 73413
licensed as a residential care facility.73414

       (2) "Unrelated individual" means one who is not related to 73415
the owner or operator of a home or to the spouse of the owner or 73416
operator as a parent, grandparent, child, grandchild, brother, 73417
sister, niece, nephew, aunt, uncle, or as the child of an aunt or 73418
uncle.73419

       (3) "Mental impairment" does not mean mental illness as 73420
defined in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code or mental 73421
retardation as defined in section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.73422

       (4) "Skilled nursing care" means procedures that require 73423
technical skills and knowledge beyond those the untrained person 73424
possesses and that are commonly employed in providing for the 73425
physical, mental, and emotional needs of the ill or otherwise 73426
incapacitated. "Skilled nursing care" includes, but is not limited 73427
to, the following:73428

       (a) Irrigations, catheterizations, application of dressings, 73429
and supervision of special diets;73430

       (b) Objective observation of changes in the patient's 73431
condition as a means of analyzing and determining the nursing care 73432
required and the need for further medical diagnosis and treatment;73433

       (c) Special procedures contributing to rehabilitation;73434

       (d) Administration of medication by any method ordered by a 73435
physician, such as hypodermically, rectally, or orally, including 73436
observation of the patient after receipt of the medication;73437

       (e) Carrying out other treatments prescribed by the physician 73438
that involve a similar level of complexity and skill in 73439
administration.73440

       (5)(a) "Personal care services" means services including, but 73441
not limited to, the following:73442

       (i) Assisting residents with activities of daily living;73443

       (ii) Assisting residents with self-administration of 73444
medication, in accordance with rules adopted under section 3721.04 73445
of the Revised Code;73446

       (iii) Preparing special diets, other than complex therapeutic 73447
diets, for residents pursuant to the instructions of a physician 73448
or a licensed dietitian, in accordance with rules adopted under 73449
section 3721.04 of the Revised Code.73450

       (b) "Personal care services" does not include "skilled 73451
nursing care" as defined in division (A)(4) of this section. A 73452
facility need not provide more than one of the services listed in 73453
division (A)(5)(a) of this section to be considered to be 73454
providing personal care services.73455

       (6) "Nursing home" means a home used for the reception and 73456
care of individuals who by reason of illness or physical or mental 73457
impairment require skilled nursing care and of individuals who 73458
require personal care services but not skilled nursing care. A 73459
nursing home is licensed to provide personal care services and 73460
skilled nursing care.73461

       (7) "Residential care facility" means a home that provides 73462
either of the following:73463

       (a) Accommodations for seventeen or more unrelated 73464
individuals and supervision and personal care services for three 73465
or more of those individuals who are dependent on the services of 73466
others by reason of age or physical or mental impairment;73467

       (b) Accommodations for three or more unrelated individuals, 73468
supervision and personal care services for at least three of those 73469
individuals who are dependent on the services of others by reason 73470
of age or physical or mental impairment, and, to at least one of 73471
those individuals, any of the skilled nursing care authorized by 73472
section 3721.011 of the Revised Code.73473

       (8) "Home for the aging" means a home that provides services 73474
as a residential care facility and a nursing home, except that the 73475
home provides its services only to individuals who are dependent 73476
on the services of others by reason of both age and physical or 73477
mental impairment.73478

       The part or unit of a home for the aging that provides 73479
services only as a residential care facility is licensed as a 73480
residential care facility. The part or unit that may provide 73481
skilled nursing care beyond the extent authorized by section 73482
3721.011 of the Revised Code is licensed as a nursing home.73483

       (9) "County home" and "district home" mean a county home or 73484
district home operated under Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code.73485

       (B) The director of health may further classify homes. For 73486
the purposes of this chapter, any residence, institution, hotel, 73487
congregate housing project, or similar facility that meets the 73488
definition of a home under this section is such a home regardless 73489
of how the facility holds itself out to the public.73490

       (C) For purposes of this chapter, personal care services or 73491
skilled nursing care shall be considered to be provided by a 73492
facility if they are provided by a person employed by or 73493
associated with the facility or by another person pursuant to an 73494
agreement to which neither the resident who receives the services 73495
nor the resident's sponsor is a party.73496

       (D) Nothing in division (A)(4) of this section shall be 73497
construed to permit skilled nursing care to be imposed on an 73498
individual who does not require skilled nursing care.73499

       Nothing in division (A)(5) of this section shall be construed 73500
to permit personal care services to be imposed on an individual 73501
who is capable of performing the activity in question without 73502
assistance.73503

       (E) Division (A)(1)(c)(ix) of this section does not prohibit 73504
a facility, infirmary, or other entity described in that division 73505
from seeking licensure under sections 3721.01 to 3721.09 of the 73506
Revised Code or certification under Title XVIII or XIX of the 73507
"Social Security Act." However, such a facility, infirmary, or 73508
entity that applies for licensure or certification must meet the 73509
requirements of those sections or titles and the rules adopted 73510
under them and obtain a certificate of need from the director of 73511
health under section 3702.52 of the Revised Code.73512

       (F) Nothing in this chapter, or rules adopted pursuant to it, 73513
shall be construed as authorizing the supervision, regulation, or 73514
control of the spiritual care or treatment of residents or 73515
patients in any home who rely upon treatment by prayer or 73516
spiritual means in accordance with the creed or tenets of any 73517
recognized church or religious denomination.73518

       Sec. 3721.011.  (A) In addition to providing accommodations, 73519
supervision, and personal care services to its residents, a 73520
residential care facility may do the following:73521

       (1) Provide the following skilled nursing care to its 73522
residents:73523

       (a) Supervision of special diets;73524

       (b) Application of dressings, in accordance with rules 73525
adopted under section 3721.04 of the Revised Code;73526

       (c) Subject to division (B)(1) of this section, 73527
administration of medication.73528

       (2) Subject to division (C) of this section, provide other 73529
skilled nursing care on a part-time, intermittent basis for not 73530
more than a total of one hundred twenty days in a twelve-month 73531
period;73532

        (3) Provide skilled nursing care for more than one hundred 73533
twenty days in a twelve-month period to a resident when the 73534
requirements of division (D) of this section are met.73535

       A residential care facility may not admit or retain an 73536
individual requiring skilled nursing care that is not authorized 73537
by this section. A residential care facility may not provide 73538
skilled nursing care beyond the limits established by this 73539
section.73540

       (B)(1) A residential care facility may admit or retain an 73541
individual requiring medication, including biologicals, only if 73542
the individual's personal physician has determined in writing that 73543
the individual is capable of self-administering the medication or 73544
the facility provides for the medication to be administered to the 73545
individual by a home health agency certified under Title XVIII of 73546
the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 620 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395, as 73547
amended; a hospice care program licensed under Chapter 3712. of 73548
the Revised Code; or a member of the staff of the residential care 73549
facility who is qualified to perform medication administration. 73550
Medication may be administered in a residential care facility only 73551
by the following persons authorized by law to administer 73552
medication:73553

       (a) A registered nurse licensed under Chapter 4723. of the 73554
Revised Code;73555

       (b) A licensed practical nurse licensed under Chapter 4723. 73556
of the Revised Code who holds proof of successful completion of a 73557
course in medication administration approved by the board of 73558
nursing and who administers the medication only at the direction 73559
of a registered nurse or a physician authorized under Chapter 73560
4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or 73561
osteopathic medicine and surgery;73562

       (c) A medication aide certified under Chapter 4723. of the 73563
Revised Code;73564

       (d) A physician authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised 73565
Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and 73566
surgery.73567

       (2) In assisting a resident with self-administration of 73568
medication, any member of the staff of a residential care facility 73569
may do the following:73570

       (a) Remind a resident when to take medication and watch to 73571
ensure that the resident follows the directions on the container;73572

       (b) Assist a resident by taking the medication from the 73573
locked area where it is stored, in accordance with rules adopted 73574
pursuant to section 3721.04 of the Revised Code, and handing it to 73575
the resident. If the resident is physically unable to open the 73576
container, a staff member may open the container for the resident.73577

       (c) Assist a physically impaired but mentally alert resident, 73578
such as a resident with arthritis, cerebral palsy, or Parkinson's 73579
disease, in removing oral or topical medication from containers 73580
and in consuming or applying the medication, upon request by or 73581
with the consent of the resident. If a resident is physically 73582
unable to place a dose of medicine to the resident's mouth without 73583
spilling it, a staff member may place the dose in a container and 73584
place the container to the mouth of the resident.73585

       (C) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, a 73586
residential care facility may admit or retain individuals who 73587
require skilled nursing care beyond the supervision of special 73588
diets, application of dressings, or administration of medication, 73589
only if the care will be provided on a part-time, intermittent 73590
basis for not more than a total of one hundred twenty days in any 73591
twelve-month period. In accordance with Chapter 119. of the 73592
Revised Code, the director of health shall adopt rules specifying 73593
what constitutes the need for skilled nursing care on a part-time, 73594
intermittent basis. The director shall adopt rules that are 73595
consistent with rules pertaining to home health care adopted by 73596
the medicaid director of job and family services for the medicaid 73597
program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code. 73598
Skilled nursing care provided pursuant to this division may be 73599
provided by a home health agency certified under Title XVIII of 73600
the "Social Security Actfor participation in the medicare 73601
program," a hospice care program licensed under Chapter 3712. of 73602
the Revised Code, or a member of the staff of a residential care 73603
facility who is qualified to perform skilled nursing care.73604

       A residential care facility that provides skilled nursing 73605
care pursuant to this division shall do both of the following:73606

       (1) Evaluate each resident receiving the skilled nursing care 73607
at least once every seven days to determine whether the resident 73608
should be transferred to a nursing home;73609

       (2) Meet the skilled nursing care needs of each resident 73610
receiving the care.73611

       (D)(1) A residential care facility may admit or retain an 73612
individual who requires skilled nursing care for more than one 73613
hundred twenty days in any twelve-month period only if the 73614
facility has entered into a written agreement with each of the 73615
following:73616

        (a) The individual or individual's sponsor;73617

        (b) The individual's personal physician;73618

        (c) Unless the individual's personal physician oversees the 73619
skilled nursing care, the provider of the skilled nursing care;73620

        (d) If the individual is a hospice patient as defined in 73621
section 3712.01 of the Revised Code, a hospice care program 73622
licensed under Chapter 3712. of the Revised Code. 73623

       (2) The agreement required by division (D)(1) of this section 73624
shall include all of the following provisions:73625

        (a) That the individual will be provided skilled nursing care 73626
in the facility only if a determination has been made that the 73627
individual's needs can be met at the facility;73628

       (b) That the individual will be retained in the facility only 73629
if periodic redeterminations are made that the individual's needs 73630
are being met at the facility;73631

       (c) That the redeterminations will be made according to a 73632
schedule specified in the agreement;73633

        (d) If the individual is a hospice patient, that the 73634
individual has been given an opportunity to choose the hospice 73635
care program that best meets the individual's needs;73636

       (e) Unless the individual is a hospice patient, that the 73637
individual's personal physician has determined that the skilled 73638
nursing care the individual needs is routine.73639

       (E) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, a 73640
residential care facility in which residents receive skilled 73641
nursing care pursuant to this section is not a nursing home.73642

       Sec. 3721.02. (A) As used in this section, "residential 73643
facility" means a residential facility licensed under section 73644
5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 73645
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 73646
unrelated adults.73647

        (B) The director of health shall license homes and establish 73648
procedures to be followed in inspecting and licensing homes. The 73649
director may inspect a home at any time. Each home shall be 73650
inspected by the director at least once prior to the issuance of a 73651
license and at least once every fifteen months thereafter. The 73652
state fire marshal or a township, municipal, or other legally 73653
constituted fire department approved by the marshal shall also 73654
inspect a home prior to issuance of a license, at least once every 73655
fifteen months thereafter, and at any other time requested by the 73656
director. A home does not have to be inspected prior to issuance 73657
of a license by the director, state fire marshal, or a fire 73658
department if ownership of the home is assigned or transferred to 73659
a different person and the home was licensed under this chapter 73660
immediately prior to the assignment or transfer. The director may 73661
enter at any time, for the purposes of investigation, any 73662
institution, residence, facility, or other structure that has been 73663
reported to the director or that the director has reasonable cause 73664
to believe is operating as a nursing home, residential care 73665
facility, or home for the aging without a valid license required 73666
by section 3721.05 of the Revised Code or, in the case of a county 73667
home or district home, is operating despite the revocation of its 73668
residential care facility license. The director may delegate the 73669
director's authority and duties under this chapter to any 73670
division, bureau, agency, or official of the department of health.73671

       (C) A single facility may be licensed both as a nursing home 73672
pursuant to this chapter and as a residential facility pursuant to 73673
section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code if the director 73674
determines that the part or unit to be licensed as a nursing home 73675
can be maintained separate and discrete from the part or unit to 73676
be licensed as a residential facility.73677

       (D) In determining the number of residents in a home for the 73678
purpose of licensing, the director shall consider all the 73679
individuals for whom the home provides accommodations as one group 73680
unless one of the following is the case:73681

       (1) The home is a home for the aging, in which case all the 73682
individuals in the part or unit licensed as a nursing home shall 73683
be considered as one group, and all the individuals in the part or 73684
unit licensed as a rest home shall be considered as another group.73685

       (2) The home is both a nursing home and a residential 73686
facility. In that case, all the individuals in the part or unit 73687
licensed as a nursing home shall be considered as one group, and 73688
all the individuals in the part or unit licensed as an adult care 73689
facility shall be considered as another group.73690

       (3) The home maintains, in addition to a nursing home or 73691
residential care facility, a separate and discrete part or unit 73692
that provides accommodations to individuals who do not require or 73693
receive skilled nursing care and do not receive personal care 73694
services from the home, in which case the individuals in the 73695
separate and discrete part or unit shall not be considered in 73696
determining the number of residents in the home if the separate 73697
and discrete part or unit is in compliance with the Ohio basic 73698
building code established by the board of building standards under 73699
Chapters 3781. and 3791. of the Revised Code and the home permits 73700
the director, on request, to inspect the separate and discrete 73701
part or unit and speak with the individuals residing there, if 73702
they consent, to determine whether the separate and discrete part 73703
or unit meets the requirements of this division.73704

       (E)(1) The director of health shall charge the following 73705
application fee and annual renewal licensing and inspection fee 73706
for each fifty persons or part thereof of a home's licensed 73707
capacity:73708

       (a) For state fiscal year 2010, two hundred twenty dollars;73709

       (b) For state fiscal year 2011, two hundred seventy dollars;73710

       (c) For each state fiscal year thereafter, three hundred 73711
twenty dollars. 73712

       (2) All fees collected by the director for the issuance or 73713
renewal of licenses shall be deposited into the state treasury to 73714
the credit of the general operations fund created in section 73715
3701.83 of the Revised Code for use only in administering and 73716
enforcing this chapter and rules adopted under it.73717

       (F)(1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, the 73718
results of an inspection or investigation of a home that is 73719
conducted under this section, including any statement of 73720
deficiencies and all findings and deficiencies cited in the 73721
statement on the basis of the inspection or investigation, shall 73722
be used solely to determine the home's compliance with this 73723
chapter or another chapter of the Revised Code in any action or 73724
proceeding other than an action commenced under division (I) of 73725
section 3721.17 of the Revised Code. Those results of an 73726
inspection or investigation, that statement of deficiencies, and 73727
the findings and deficiencies cited in that statement shall not be 73728
used in any court or in any action or proceeding that is pending 73729
in any court and are not admissible in evidence in any action or 73730
proceeding unless that action or proceeding is an appeal of an 73731
action by the department of health under this chapter or is an 73732
action by any department or agency of the state to enforce this 73733
chapter or another chapter of the Revised Code.73734

       (2) Nothing in division (E)(1) of this section prohibits the 73735
results of an inspection or investigation conducted under this 73736
section from being used in a criminal investigation or 73737
prosecution.73738

       Sec. 3721.022.  (A) As used in this section:73739

       (1) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 73740
5111.205165.01 of the Revised Code.73741

       (2) "Deficiency" and "survey" have the same meanings as in 73742
section 5111.355165.60 of the Revised Code.73743

       (3) "Title XIX" and "Title XVIII" have the same meanings as 73744
in section 5165.01 of the Revised Code.73745

       (B) The department of health is hereby designated the state 73746
agency responsible for establishing and maintaining health 73747
standards and serving as the state survey agency for the purposes 73748
of TitlesTitle XVIII and Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 73749
49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended. The department 73750
shall carry out these functions in accordance with the 73751
regulations, guidelines, and procedures issued under TitlesTitle73752
XVIII and Title XIX by the United States secretary of health and 73753
human services and with sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.6273754
5165.89 of the Revised Code. The director of health shall enter 73755
into agreements with regard to these functions with the department 73756
of job and family servicesmedicaid and the United States 73757
department of health and human services. The director may also 73758
enter into agreements with the department of job and family 73759
servicesmedicaid under which the department of health is 73760
designated to perform functions under sections 5111.355165.60 to 73761
5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code.73762

       The director, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 73763
Code, shall adopt rules necessary to implement the survey and 73764
certification requirements for skilled nursing facilities and 73765
nursing facilities established by the United States secretary of 73766
health and human services under TitlesTitle XVIII and Title XIX 73767
of the "Social Security Act," and the survey requirements 73768
established under sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of 73769
the Revised Code. The rules shall include an informal process by 73770
which a facility may obtain up to two reviews of any deficiencies 73771
that have been cited on a statement of deficiencies made by the 73772
department of health under 42 C.F.R. Part 488 and cause the 73773
facility to be in noncompliance as defined in 42 C.F.R. 488.301. 73774
The first review shall be conducted by an employee of the 73775
department who did not participate in and was not otherwise 73776
involved in any way with the survey. A facility that is not 73777
satisfied with the results of a first review may receive a second 73778
review on payment of a fee to the department. The amount of the 73779
fee shall be specified in rules adopted under this section. The 73780
fee shall be deposited into the state treasury to the credit of 73781
the general operations fund created in section 3701.83 of the 73782
Revised Code for use in the implementation of this section. The 73783
second review shall be conducted by either of the following as 73784
selected by the facility: a hearing officer employed by the 73785
department or a hearing officer included on a list the department 73786
shall provide the facility. A final determination that any 73787
deficiency citation is unjustified shall be reflected clearly in 73788
all records relating to the survey.73789

       The director need not adopt as rules any of the regulations, 73790
guidelines, or procedures issued under TitlesTitle XVIII and 73791
Title XIX of the "Social Security Act" by the United States 73792
secretary of health and human services.73793

       Sec. 3721.024.  As used in this section, "nursing facility" 73794
has the same meaning as in section 5111.205165.01 of the Revised 73795
Code.73796

       The department of health may establish a program of 73797
recognition of nursing facilities that provide the highest quality 73798
care to residents who are medicaid recipients of medical 73799
assistance under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code. The program 73800
may be funded with public funds appropriated by the general 73801
assembly for the purpose of the program or any funds appropriated 73802
for nursing home licensure.73803

       Sec. 3721.027. (A) As used in this section, "survey" has the 73804
same meaning as in section 5165.60 of the Revised Code.73805

       (B) The department of health shall investigate within ten 73806
working days after referral, in accordance with procedures and 73807
criteria to be established by the department of health and the 73808
department of aging, any unresolved complaint that the office of 73809
the state long-term care ombudspersonombudsman has investigated 73810
and found to be valid and refers to the department of health. This 73811
requirement does not supersede federal requirements for survey 73812
agency complaint investigations.73813

       Sec. 3721.042.  The director of health may not deny a nursing 73814
home license to a facility seeking a license under this chapter as 73815
a nursing home on the grounds that the facility does not satisfy a 73816
requirement established in rules adopted under section 3721.04 of 73817
the Revised Code regarding the toilet rooms and dining and 73818
recreational areas of nursing homes if all of the following 73819
requirements are met:73820

       (A) The facility seeks a license under this chapter because 73821
it is a county home or district home being sold under section 73822
5155.31 of the Revised Code to a person who may not operate the 73823
facility without a nursing home license under this chapter.73824

       (B) The requirement would not have applied to the facility 73825
had the facility been a nursing home first licensed under this 73826
chapter before October 20, 2001.73827

       (C) The facility was a nursing facility, as defined in 73828
section 5111.205165.01 of the Revised Code, on the date 73829
immediately preceding the date the facility is sold to the person 73830
seeking the license.73831

       Sec. 3721.071.  The buildings in which a home is housed shall 73832
be equipped with both an automatic fire extinguishing system and 73833
fire alarm system. Such systems shall conform to standards set 73834
forth in the regulations of the board of building standards and 73835
the state fire marshal.73836

       The time for compliance with the requirements imposed by this 73837
section shall be January 1, 1975, except that the date for 73838
compliance with the automatic fire extinguishing requirements is 73839
extended to January 1, 1976, provided the buildings of the home 73840
are otherwise in compliance with fire safety laws and regulations 73841
and:73842

       (A) The home within thirty days after August 4, 1975, files a 73843
written plan with the state fire marshal's office that:73844

       (1) Outlines the interim safety procedures which shall be 73845
carried out to reduce the possibility of a fire;73846

       (2) Provides evidence that the home has entered into an 73847
agreement for a fire safety inspection to be conducted not less 73848
than monthly by a qualified independent safety engineer consultant 73849
or a township, municipal, or other legally constituted fire 73850
department, or by a township or municipal fire prevention officer;73851

       (3) Provides verification that the home has entered into a 73852
valid contract for the installation of an automatic fire 73853
extinguishing system or fire alarm system, or both, as required to 73854
comply with this section;73855

       (4) Includes a statement regarding the expected date for the 73856
completion of the fire extinguishing system or fire alarm system, 73857
or both.73858

       (B) Inspections by a qualified independent safety engineer 73859
consultant or a township, municipal, or other legally constituted 73860
fire department, or by a township or municipal fire prevention 73861
officer are initiated no later than sixty days after August 4, 73862
1975, and are conducted no less than monthly thereafter, and 73863
reports of the consultant, fire department, or fire prevention 73864
officer identifying existing hazards and recommended corrective 73865
actions are submitted to the state fire marshal, the division of 73866
industrial compliance in the department of commerce, and the 73867
department of health.73868

       It is the express intent of the general assembly that the 73869
department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall terminate 73870
payments under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 73871
620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, tothe medicaid provider 73872
agreements of those homes whichthat do not comply with the 73873
requirements of this section for the submission of a written fire 73874
safety plan and the deadline for entering into contracts for the 73875
installation of systems.73876

       Sec. 3721.08.  (A) As used in this section, "real and present 73877
danger" means imminent danger of serious physical or 73878
life-threatening harm to one or more occupants of a home.73879

       (B) The director of health may petition the court of common 73880
pleas of the county in which the home is located for an order 73881
enjoining any person from operating a home without a license or 73882
enjoining a county home or district home that has had its license 73883
revoked from continuing to operate. The court shall have 73884
jurisdiction to grant such injunctive relief upon a showing that 73885
the respondent named in the petition is operating a home without a 73886
license or that the county home or district home named in the 73887
petition is operating despite the revocation of its license. The 73888
court shall have jurisdiction to grant such injunctive relief 73889
against the operation of a home without a valid license regardless 73890
of whether the home meets essential licensing requirements.73891

       (C) Unless the department of job and family servicesmedicaid73892
or contracting agency has taken action under section 5111.5173893
5165.77 of the Revised Code to appoint a temporary manager or seek 73894
injunctive relief, if, in the judgment of the director of health, 73895
real and present danger exists at any home, the director may 73896
petition the court of common pleas of the county in which the home 73897
is located for such injunctive relief as is necessary to close the 73898
home, transfer one or more occupants to other homes or other 73899
appropriate care settings, or otherwise eliminate the real and 73900
present danger. The court shall have the jurisdiction to grant 73901
such injunctive relief upon a showing that there is real and 73902
present danger.73903

       (D)(1) If the director determines that real and present 73904
danger exists at a home and elects not to immediately seek 73905
injunctive relief under division (C) of this section, the director 73906
may give written notice of proposed action to the home. The notice 73907
shall specify all of the following:73908

       (a) The nature of the conditions giving rise to the real and 73909
present danger;73910

       (b) The measures that the director determines the home must 73911
take to respond to the conditions;73912

       (c) The date on which the director intends to seek injunctive 73913
relief under division (C) of this section if the director 73914
determines that real and present danger exists at the home.73915

       (2) If the home notifies the director, within the time 73916
specified pursuant to division (D)(1)(c) of this section, that it 73917
believes the conditions giving rise to the real and present danger 73918
have been substantially corrected, the director shall conduct an 73919
inspection to determine whether real and present danger exists. If 73920
the director determines on the basis of the inspection that real 73921
and present danger exists, the director may petition under 73922
division (C) of this section for injunctive relief.73923

       (E)(1) If in the judgment of the director of health 73924
conditions exist at a home that will give rise to real and present 73925
danger if not corrected, the director shall give written notice of 73926
proposed action to the home. The notice shall specify all of the 73927
following:73928

       (a) The nature of the conditions giving rise to the 73929
director's judgment;73930

       (b) The measures that the director determines the home must 73931
take to respond to the conditions;73932

       (c) The date, which shall be no less than ten days after the 73933
notice is delivered, on which the director intends to seek 73934
injunctive relief under division (C) of this section if the 73935
conditions are not substantially corrected and the director 73936
determines that a real and present danger exists.73937

       (2) If the home notifies the director, within the period of 73938
time specified pursuant to division (E)(1)(c) of this section, 73939
that the conditions giving rise to the director's determination 73940
have been substantially corrected, the director shall conduct an 73941
inspection. If the director determines on the basis of the 73942
inspection that the conditions have not been corrected and a real 73943
and present danger exists, the director may petition under 73944
division (C) of this section for injunctive relief.73945

       (F)(1) A court that grants injunctive relief under division 73946
(C) of this section may also appoint a special master who, subject 73947
to division (F)(2) of this section, shall have such powers and 73948
authority over the home and length of appointment as the court 73949
considers necessary. Subject to division (F)(2) of this section, 73950
the salary of a special master and any costs incurred by a special 73951
master shall be the obligation of the home.73952

       (2) No special master shall enter into any employment 73953
contract on behalf of a home, or purchase with the home's funds 73954
any capital goods totaling more than ten thousand dollars, unless 73955
the special master has obtained approval for the contract or 73956
purchase from the home's operator or the court.73957

       (G) If the director takes action under division (C), (D), or 73958
(E) of this section, the director may also appoint employees of 73959
the department of health to conduct on-site monitoring of the 73960
home. Appointment of monitors is not subject to appeal under 73961
Chapter 119. or any other section of the Revised Code. No employee 73962
of a home for which monitors are appointed, no person employed by 73963
the home within the previous two years, and no person who 73964
currently has a consulting contract with the department or a home, 73965
shall be appointed under this division. Every monitor shall have 73966
the professional qualifications necessary to monitor correction of 73967
the conditions that give rise to or, in the director's judgment, 73968
will give rise to real and present danger. The number of monitors 73969
present at a home at any given time shall not exceed one for every 73970
fifty residents, or fraction thereof.73971

       (H) On finding that the real and present danger for which 73972
injunctive relief was granted under division (C) of this section 73973
has been eliminated and that the home's operator has demonstrated 73974
the capacity to prevent the real and present danger from 73975
recurring, the court shall terminate its jurisdiction over the 73976
home and return control and management of the home to the 73977
operator. If the real and present danger cannot be eliminated 73978
practicably within a reasonable time following appointment of a 73979
special master, the court may order the special master to close 73980
the home and transfer all residents to other homes or other 73981
appropriate care settings.73982

       (I) The director of health shall give notice of proposed 73983
action under divisions (D) and (E) of this section to both of the 73984
following:73985

       (1) The home's administrator;73986

       (2) If the home is operated by an organization described in 73987
subsection 501(c)(3) and tax exempt under subsection 501(a) of the 73988
"Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 1, as 73989
amended, the board of trustees of the organization; or, if the 73990
home is not operated by such an organization, the owner of the 73991
home.73992

       Notices shall be delivered by certified mail or hand 73993
delivery. If notices are mailed, they shall be addressed to the 73994
persons specified in divisions (I)(1) and (2) of this section, as 73995
indicated in the department of health's records. If they are hand 73996
delivered, they shall be delivered to persons who would reasonably 73997
appear to the average prudent person to have authority to accept 73998
them.73999

       (J) If ownership of a home is assigned or transferred to a 74000
different person, the new owner is responsible and liable for 74001
compliance with any notice of proposed action or order issued 74002
under this section prior to the effective date of the assignment 74003
or transfer.74004

       Sec. 3721.10.  As used in sections 3721.10 to 3721.18 of the 74005
Revised Code:74006

       (A) "Home" means all of the following:74007

       (1) A home as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;74008

       (2) Any facility or part of a facility not defined as a home 74009
under section 3721.01 of the Revised Code that is certified as a 74010
skilled nursing facility under Title XVIII of the "Social Security 74011
Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C.A. 1395 and 1396, as amended, 74012
or as aor nursing facility, both as defined in section 5111.2074013
5165.01 of the Revised Code;74014

       (3) A county home or district home operated pursuant to 74015
Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code.74016

       (B) "Resident" means a resident or a patient of a home.74017

       (C) "Administrator" means all of the following:74018

       (1) With respect to a home as defined in section 3721.01 of 74019
the Revised Code, a nursing home administrator as defined in 74020
section 4751.01 of the Revised Code;74021

       (2) With respect to a facility or part of a facility not 74022
defined as a home in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code that is 74023
authorized to provide skilled nursing facility or nursing facility 74024
services, the administrator of the facility or part of a facility;74025

       (3) With respect to a county home or district home, the 74026
superintendent appointed under Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code.74027

       (D) "Sponsor" means an adult relative, friend, or guardian of 74028
a resident who has an interest or responsibility in the resident's 74029
welfare.74030

       (E) "Residents' rights advocate" means:74031

       (1) An employee or representative of any state or local 74032
government entity that has a responsibility regarding residents 74033
and that has registered with the department of health under 74034
division (B) of section 3701.07 of the Revised Code;74035

       (2) An employee or representative of any private nonprofit 74036
corporation or association that qualifies for tax-exempt status 74037
under section 501(a) of the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 74038
Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 1, as amended, and that has registered 74039
with the department of health under division (B) of section 74040
3701.07 of the Revised Code and whose purposes include educating 74041
and counseling residents, assisting residents in resolving 74042
problems and complaints concerning their care and treatment, and 74043
assisting them in securing adequate services to meet their needs;74044

       (3) A member of the general assembly.74045

       (F) "Physical restraint" means, but is not limited to, any 74046
article, device, or garment that interferes with the free movement 74047
of the resident and that the resident is unable to remove easily, 74048
a geriatric chair, or a locked room door.74049

       (G) "Chemical restraint" means any medication bearing the 74050
American hospital formulary service therapeutic class 4.004:00, 74051
28:16:08, 28:24:08, or 28:24:92 that alters the functioning of the 74052
central nervous system in a manner that limits physical and 74053
cognitive functioning to the degree that the resident cannot 74054
attain the resident's highest practicable physical, mental, and 74055
psychosocial well-being.74056

       (H) "Ancillary service" means, but is not limited to, 74057
podiatry, dental, hearing, vision, physical therapy, occupational 74058
therapy, speech therapy, and psychological and social services.74059

       (I) "Facility" means a facility, or part of a facility, 74060
certified as a nursing facility or skilled nursing facility under 74061
Title XVIII or Title XIX of the "Social Security Act, both as 74062
defined in section 5165.01 of the Revised Code." "Facility" does 74063
not include an intermediate care facility for the mentally 74064
retardedindividuals with intellectual disabilities, as defined in 74065
section 5111.205124.01 of the Revised Code.74066

       (J) "Medicare" means the program established by Title XVIII 74067
of the "Social Security Act."74068

       (K) "Medicaid" means the program established by Title XIX of 74069
the "Social Security Act" and Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code.74070

       Sec. 3721.12.  (A) The administrator of a home shall:74071

       (1) With the advice of residents, their sponsors, or both, 74072
establish and review at least annually, written policies regarding 74073
the applicability and implementation of residents' rights under 74074
sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code, the 74075
responsibilities of residents regarding the rights, and the home's 74076
grievance procedure established under division (A)(2) of this 74077
section. The administrator is responsible for the development of, 74078
and adherence to, procedures implementing the policies.74079

       (2) Establish a grievance committee for review of complaints 74080
by residents. The grievance committee shall be comprised of the 74081
home's staff and residents, sponsors, or outside representatives 74082
in a ratio of not more than one staff member to every two 74083
residents, sponsors, or outside representatives.74084

       (3) Furnish to each resident and sponsor prior to or at the 74085
time of admission, and to each member of the home's staff, at 74086
least one of each of the following:74087

       (a) A copy of the rights established under sections 3721.10 74088
to 3721.17 of the Revised Code;74089

       (b) A written explanation of the provisions of sections 74090
3721.16 to 3721.162 of the Revised Code;74091

       (c) A copy of the home's policies and procedures established 74092
under this section;74093

       (d) A copy of the home's rules;74094

       (e) A copy of the addresses and telephone numbers of the 74095
board of health of the health district of the county in which the 74096
home is located, the county department of job and family services 74097
of the county in which the home is located, the state departments 74098
of health and job and family servicesmedicaid, the state and 74099
local offices of the department of aging, and any Ohio nursing 74100
home ombudspersonombudsman program.74101

       (B) Written acknowledgment of the receipt of copies of the 74102
materials listed in this section shall be made part of the 74103
resident's record and the staff member's personnel record.74104

       (C) The administrator shall post all of the following 74105
prominently within the home:74106

       (1) A copy of the rights of residents as listed in division 74107
(A) of section 3721.13 of the Revised Code;74108

       (2) A copy of the home's rules and its policies and 74109
procedures regarding the rights and responsibilities of residents;74110

       (3) A notice that a copy of this chapter, rules of the 74111
department of health applicable to the home, and federal 74112
regulations adopted under the medicare and medicaid programs, and 74113
the materials required to be available in the home under section 74114
3721.021 of the Revised Code, are available for inspection in the 74115
home at reasonable hours;74116

       (4) A list of residents' rights advocates;74117

       (5) A notice that the following are available in a place 74118
readily accessible to residents:74119

       (a) If the home is licensed under section 3721.02 of the 74120
Revised Code, a copy of the most recent licensure inspection 74121
report prepared for the home under that section;74122

       (b) If the home is a facility, a copy of the most recent 74123
statement of deficiencies issued to the home under section 5111.4274124
5165.68 of the Revised Code.74125

       (D) The administrator of a home may, with the advice of 74126
residents, their sponsors, or both, establish written policies 74127
regarding the applicability and administration of any additional 74128
residents' rights beyond those set forth in sections 3721.10 to 74129
3721.17 of the Revised Code, and the responsibilities of residents 74130
regarding the rights. Policies established under this division 74131
shall be reviewed, and procedures developed and adhered to as in 74132
division (A)(1) of this section.74133

       Sec. 3721.121.  (A) As used in this section:74134

       (1) "Adult day-care program" means a program operated 74135
pursuant to rules adopted by the director of health under section 74136
3721.04 of the Revised Code and provided by and on the same site 74137
as homes licensed under this chapter.74138

       (2) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 74139
consideration for employment with a home or adult day-care program 74140
in a full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves 74141
providing direct care to an older adult. "Applicant" does not 74142
include a person who provides direct care as a volunteer without 74143
receiving or expecting to receive any form of remuneration other 74144
than reimbursement for actual expenses.74145

       (3) "Community-based long-term care services provider" means 74146
a provider as defined in section 173.39 of the Revised Code.74147

       (4) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 74148
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.74149

       (4)(5) "Home" means a home as defined in section 3721.10 of 74150
the Revised Code.74151

       (5)(6) "Older adult" means a person age sixty or older.74152

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (I) of this section, 74153
the chief administrator of a home or adult day-care program shall 74154
request that the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 74155
identification and investigation conduct a criminal records check 74156
of each applicant. If an applicant for whom a criminal records 74157
check request is required under this division does not present 74158
proof of having been a resident of this state for the five-year 74159
period immediately prior to the date the criminal records check is 74160
requested or provide evidence that within that five-year period 74161
the superintendent has requested information about the applicant 74162
from the federal bureau of investigation in a criminal records 74163
check, the chief administrator shall request that the 74164
superintendent obtain information from the federal bureau of 74165
investigation as part of the criminal records check of the 74166
applicant. Even if an applicant for whom a criminal records check 74167
request is required under this division presents proof of having 74168
been a resident of this state for the five-year period, the chief 74169
administrator may request that the superintendent include 74170
information from the federal bureau of investigation in the 74171
criminal records check.74172

       (2) A person required by division (B)(1) of this section to 74173
request a criminal records check shall do both of the following:74174

       (a) Provide to each applicant for whom a criminal records 74175
check request is required under that division a copy of the form 74176
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the 74177
Revised Code and a standard fingerprint impression sheet 74178
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section, and obtain 74179
the completed form and impression sheet from the applicant;74180

       (b) Forward the completed form and impression sheet to the 74181
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 74182
investigation.74183

       (3) An applicant provided the form and fingerprint impression 74184
sheet under division (B)(2)(a) of this section who fails to 74185
complete the form or provide fingerprint impressions shall not be 74186
employed in any position for which a criminal records check is 74187
required by this section.74188

       (C)(1) Except as provided in rules adopted by the director of 74189
health in accordance with division (F) of this section and subject 74190
to division (C)(2) of this section, no home or adult day-care 74191
program shall employ a person in a position that involves 74192
providing direct care to an older adult if the person has been 74193
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:74194

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 74195
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 74196
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 74197
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 74198
2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 74199
2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 74200
2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 74201
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 74202
2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code.74203

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 74204
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 74205
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (C)(1)(a) of 74206
this section.74207

       (2)(a) A home or an adult day-care program may employ 74208
conditionally an applicant for whom a criminal records check 74209
request is required under division (B) of this section prior to 74210
obtaining the results of a criminal records check regarding the 74211
individual, provided that the home or program shall request a 74212
criminal records check regarding the individual in accordance with 74213
division (B)(1) of this section not later than five business days 74214
after the individual begins conditional employment. In the 74215
circumstances described in division (I)(2) of this section, a home 74216
or adult day-care program may employ conditionally an applicant 74217
who has been referred to the home or adult day-care program by an 74218
employment service that supplies full-time, part-time, or 74219
temporary staff for positions involving the direct care of older 74220
adults and for whom, pursuant to that division, a criminal records 74221
check is not required under division (B) of this section.74222

       (b) A home or adult day-care program that employs an 74223
individual conditionally under authority of division (C)(2)(a) of 74224
this section shall terminate the individual's employment if the 74225
results of the criminal records check requested under division (B) 74226
of this section or described in division (I)(2) of this section, 74227
other than the results of any request for information from the 74228
federal bureau of investigation, are not obtained within the 74229
period ending thirty days after the date the request is made. 74230
Regardless of when the results of the criminal records check are 74231
obtained, if the results indicate that the individual has been 74232
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the offenses listed or 74233
described in division (C)(1) of this section, the home or program 74234
shall terminate the individual's employment unless the home or 74235
program chooses to employ the individual pursuant to division (F) 74236
of this section. Termination of employment under this division 74237
shall be considered just cause for discharge for purposes of 74238
division (D)(2) of section 4141.29 of the Revised Code if the 74239
individual makes any attempt to deceive the home or program about 74240
the individual's criminal record.74241

       (D)(1) Each home or adult day-care program shall pay to the 74242
bureau of criminal identification and investigation the fee 74243
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the 74244
Revised Code for each criminal records check conducted pursuant to 74245
a request made under division (B) of this section.74246

       (2) A home or adult day-care program may charge an applicant 74247
a fee not exceeding the amount the home or program pays under 74248
division (D)(1) of this section. A home or program may collect a 74249
fee only if both of the following apply:74250

       (a) The home or program notifies the person at the time of 74251
initial application for employment of the amount of the fee and 74252
that, unless the fee is paid, the person will not be considered 74253
for employment;74254

       (b) The medical assistancemedicaid program established under 74255
Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code does not reimburse the home or 74256
program the fee it pays under division (D)(1) of this section.74257

       (E) The report of any criminal records check conducted 74258
pursuant to a request made under this section is not a public 74259
record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and 74260
shall not be made available to any person other than the 74261
following:74262

       (1) The individual who is the subject of the criminal records 74263
check or the individual's representative;74264

       (2) The chief administrator of the home or program requesting 74265
the criminal records check or the administrator's representative;74266

       (3) The administrator of any other facility, agency, or 74267
program that provides direct care to older adults that is owned or 74268
operated by the same entity that owns or operates the home or 74269
program;74270

       (4) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 74271
involved in a case dealing with a denial of employment of the 74272
applicant or dealing with employment or unemployment benefits of 74273
the applicant;74274

       (5) Any person to whom the report is provided pursuant to, 74275
and in accordance with, division (I)(1) or (2) of this section;74276

       (6) The board of nursing for purposes of accepting and 74277
processing an application for a medication aide certificate issued 74278
under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code;74279

       (7) The director of aging or the director's designee if the 74280
criminal records check is requested by the chief administrator of 74281
a home that is also a community-based long-term care services 74282
provider.74283

       (F) In accordance with section 3721.11 of the Revised Code, 74284
the director of health shall adopt rules to implement this 74285
section. The rules shall specify circumstances under which a home 74286
or adult day-care program may employ a person who has been 74287
convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense listed or described 74288
in division (C)(1) of this section but meets personal character 74289
standards set by the director.74290

       (G) The chief administrator of a home or adult day-care 74291
program shall inform each individual, at the time of initial 74292
application for a position that involves providing direct care to 74293
an older adult, that the individual is required to provide a set 74294
of fingerprint impressions and that a criminal records check is 74295
required to be conducted if the individual comes under final 74296
consideration for employment.74297

       (H) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is 74298
brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or 74299
property caused by an individual who a home or adult day-care 74300
program employs in a position that involves providing direct care 74301
to older adults, all of the following shall apply:74302

       (1) If the home or program employed the individual in good 74303
faith and reasonable reliance on the report of a criminal records 74304
check requested under this section, the home or program shall not 74305
be found negligent solely because of its reliance on the report, 74306
even if the information in the report is determined later to have 74307
been incomplete or inaccurate;74308

       (2) If the home or program employed the individual in good 74309
faith on a conditional basis pursuant to division (C)(2) of this 74310
section, the home or program shall not be found negligent solely 74311
because it employed the individual prior to receiving the report 74312
of a criminal records check requested under this section;74313

       (3) If the home or program in good faith employed the 74314
individual according to the personal character standards 74315
established in rules adopted under division (F) of this section, 74316
the home or program shall not be found negligent solely because 74317
the individual prior to being employed had been convicted of or 74318
pleaded guilty to an offense listed or described in division 74319
(C)(1) of this section.74320

       (I)(1) The chief administrator of a home or adult day-care 74321
program is not required to request that the superintendent of the 74322
bureau of criminal identification and investigation conduct a 74323
criminal records check of an applicant if the applicant has been 74324
referred to the home or program by an employment service that 74325
supplies full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for positions 74326
involving the direct care of older adults and both of the 74327
following apply:74328

       (a) The chief administrator receives from the employment 74329
service or the applicant a report of the results of a criminal 74330
records check regarding the applicant that has been conducted by 74331
the superintendent within the one-year period immediately 74332
preceding the applicant's referral;74333

       (b) The report of the criminal records check demonstrates 74334
that the person has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an 74335
offense listed or described in division (C)(1) of this section, or 74336
the report demonstrates that the person has been convicted of or 74337
pleaded guilty to one or more of those offenses, but the home or 74338
adult day-care program chooses to employ the individual pursuant 74339
to division (F) of this section.74340

       (2) The chief administrator of a home or adult day-care 74341
program is not required to request that the superintendent of the 74342
bureau of criminal identification and investigation conduct a 74343
criminal records check of an applicant and may employ the 74344
applicant conditionally as described in this division, if the 74345
applicant has been referred to the home or program by an 74346
employment service that supplies full-time, part-time, or 74347
temporary staff for positions involving the direct care of older 74348
adults and if the chief administrator receives from the employment 74349
service or the applicant a letter from the employment service that 74350
is on the letterhead of the employment service, dated, and signed 74351
by a supervisor or another designated official of the employment 74352
service and that states that the employment service has requested 74353
the superintendent to conduct a criminal records check regarding 74354
the applicant, that the requested criminal records check will 74355
include a determination of whether the applicant has been 74356
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense listed or described 74357
in division (C)(1) of this section, that, as of the date set forth 74358
on the letter, the employment service had not received the results 74359
of the criminal records check, and that, when the employment 74360
service receives the results of the criminal records check, it 74361
promptly will send a copy of the results to the home or adult 74362
day-care program. If a home or adult day-care program employs an 74363
applicant conditionally in accordance with this division, the 74364
employment service, upon its receipt of the results of the 74365
criminal records check, promptly shall send a copy of the results 74366
to the home or adult day-care program, and division (C)(2)(b) of 74367
this section applies regarding the conditional employment.74368

       Sec. 3721.13.  (A) The rights of residents of a home shall 74369
include, but are not limited to, the following:74370

       (1) The right to a safe and clean living environment pursuant 74371
to the medicare and medicaid programs and applicable state laws 74372
and rules adopted by the director of health;74373

       (2) The right to be free from physical, verbal, mental, and 74374
emotional abuse and to be treated at all times with courtesy, 74375
respect, and full recognition of dignity and individuality;74376

       (3) Upon admission and thereafter, the right to adequate and 74377
appropriate medical treatment and nursing care and to other 74378
ancillary services that comprise necessary and appropriate care 74379
consistent with the program for which the resident contracted. 74380
This care shall be provided without regard to considerations such 74381
as race, color, religion, national origin, age, or source of 74382
payment for care.74383

       (4) The right to have all reasonable requests and inquiries 74384
responded to promptly;74385

       (5) The right to have clothes and bed sheets changed as the 74386
need arises, to ensure the resident's comfort or sanitation;74387

       (6) The right to obtain from the home, upon request, the name 74388
and any specialty of any physician or other person responsible for 74389
the resident's care or for the coordination of care;74390

       (7) The right, upon request, to be assigned, within the 74391
capacity of the home to make the assignment, to the staff 74392
physician of the resident's choice, and the right, in accordance 74393
with the rules and written policies and procedures of the home, to 74394
select as the attending physician a physician who is not on the 74395
staff of the home. If the cost of a physician's services is to be 74396
met under a federally supported program, the physician shall meet 74397
the federal laws and regulations governing such services.74398

       (8) The right to participate in decisions that affect the 74399
resident's life, including the right to communicate with the 74400
physician and employees of the home in planning the resident's 74401
treatment or care and to obtain from the attending physician 74402
complete and current information concerning medical condition, 74403
prognosis, and treatment plan, in terms the resident can 74404
reasonably be expected to understand; the right of access to all 74405
information in the resident's medical record; and the right to 74406
give or withhold informed consent for treatment after the 74407
consequences of that choice have been carefully explained. When 74408
the attending physician finds that it is not medically advisable 74409
to give the information to the resident, the information shall be 74410
made available to the resident's sponsor on the resident's behalf, 74411
if the sponsor has a legal interest or is authorized by the 74412
resident to receive the information. The home is not liable for a 74413
violation of this division if the violation is found to be the 74414
result of an act or omission on the part of a physician selected 74415
by the resident who is not otherwise affiliated with the home.74416

       (9) The right to withhold payment for physician visitation if 74417
the physician did not visit the resident;74418

       (10) The right to confidential treatment of personal and 74419
medical records, and the right to approve or refuse the release of 74420
these records to any individual outside the home, except in case 74421
of transfer to another home, hospital, or health care system, as 74422
required by law or rule, or as required by a third-party payment 74423
contract;74424

       (11) The right to privacy during medical examination or 74425
treatment and in the care of personal or bodily needs;74426

       (12) The right to refuse, without jeopardizing access to 74427
appropriate medical care, to serve as a medical research subject;74428

       (13) The right to be free from physical or chemical 74429
restraints or prolonged isolation except to the minimum extent 74430
necessary to protect the resident from injury to self, others, or 74431
to property and except as authorized in writing by the attending 74432
physician for a specified and limited period of time and 74433
documented in the resident's medical record. Prior to authorizing 74434
the use of a physical or chemical restraint on any resident, the 74435
attending physician shall make a personal examination of the 74436
resident and an individualized determination of the need to use 74437
the restraint on that resident.74438

       Physical or chemical restraints or isolation may be used in 74439
an emergency situation without authorization of the attending 74440
physician only to protect the resident from injury to self or 74441
others. Use of the physical or chemical restraints or isolation 74442
shall not be continued for more than twelve hours after the onset 74443
of the emergency without personal examination and authorization by 74444
the attending physician. The attending physician or a staff 74445
physician may authorize continued use of physical or chemical 74446
restraints for a period not to exceed thirty days, and at the end 74447
of this period and any subsequent period may extend the 74448
authorization for an additional period of not more than thirty 74449
days. The use of physical or chemical restraints shall not be 74450
continued without a personal examination of the resident and the 74451
written authorization of the attending physician stating the 74452
reasons for continuing the restraint.74453

       If physical or chemical restraints are used under this 74454
division, the home shall ensure that the restrained resident 74455
receives a proper diet. In no event shall physical or chemical 74456
restraints or isolation be used for punishment, incentive, or 74457
convenience.74458

       (14) The right to the pharmacist of the resident's choice and 74459
the right to receive pharmaceutical supplies and services at 74460
reasonable prices not exceeding applicable and normally accepted 74461
prices for comparably packaged pharmaceutical supplies and 74462
services within the community;74463

       (15) The right to exercise all civil rights, unless the 74464
resident has been adjudicated incompetent pursuant to Chapter 74465
2111. of the Revised Code and has not been restored to legal 74466
capacity, as well as the right to the cooperation of the home's 74467
administrator in making arrangements for the exercise of the right 74468
to vote;74469

       (16) The right of access to opportunities that enable the 74470
resident, at the resident's own expense or at the expense of a 74471
third-party payer, to achieve the resident's fullest potential, 74472
including educational, vocational, social, recreational, and 74473
habilitation programs;74474

       (17) The right to consume a reasonable amount of alcoholic 74475
beverages at the resident's own expense, unless not medically 74476
advisable as documented in the resident's medical record by the 74477
attending physician or unless contradictory to written admission 74478
policies;74479

       (18) The right to use tobacco at the resident's own expense 74480
under the home's safety rules and under applicable laws and rules 74481
of the state, unless not medically advisable as documented in the 74482
resident's medical record by the attending physician or unless 74483
contradictory to written admission policies;74484

       (19) The right to retire and rise in accordance with the 74485
resident's reasonable requests, if the resident does not disturb 74486
others or the posted meal schedules and upon the home's request 74487
remains in a supervised area, unless not medically advisable as 74488
documented by the attending physician;74489

       (20) The right to observe religious obligations and 74490
participate in religious activities; the right to maintain 74491
individual and cultural identity; and the right to meet with and 74492
participate in activities of social and community groups at the 74493
resident's or the group's initiative;74494

       (21) The right upon reasonable request to private and 74495
unrestricted communications with the resident's family, social 74496
worker, and any other person, unless not medically advisable as 74497
documented in the resident's medical record by the attending 74498
physician, except that communications with public officials or 74499
with the resident's attorney or physician shall not be restricted. 74500
Private and unrestricted communications shall include, but are not 74501
limited to, the right to:74502

       (a) Receive, send, and mail sealed, unopened correspondence;74503

       (b) Reasonable access to a telephone for private 74504
communications;74505

       (c) Private visits at any reasonable hour.74506

       (22) The right to assured privacy for visits by the spouse, 74507
or if both are residents of the same home, the right to share a 74508
room within the capacity of the home, unless not medically 74509
advisable as documented in the resident's medical record by the 74510
attending physician;74511

       (23) The right upon reasonable request to have room doors 74512
closed and to have them not opened without knocking, except in the 74513
case of an emergency or unless not medically advisable as 74514
documented in the resident's medical record by the attending 74515
physician;74516

       (24) The right to retain and use personal clothing and a 74517
reasonable amount of possessions, in a reasonably secure manner, 74518
unless to do so would infringe on the rights of other residents or 74519
would not be medically advisable as documented in the resident's 74520
medical record by the attending physician;74521

       (25) The right to be fully informed, prior to or at the time 74522
of admission and during the resident's stay, in writing, of the 74523
basic rate charged by the home, of services available in the home, 74524
and of any additional charges related to such services, including 74525
charges for services not covered under the medicare or medicaid 74526
program. The basic rate shall not be changed unless thirty days' 74527
notice is given to the resident or, if the resident is unable to 74528
understand this information, to the resident's sponsor.74529

       (26) The right of the resident and person paying for the care 74530
to examine and receive a bill at least monthly for the resident's 74531
care from the home that itemizes charges not included in the basic 74532
rates;74533

       (27)(a) The right to be free from financial exploitation;74534

       (b) The right to manage the resident's own personal financial 74535
affairs, or, if the resident has delegated this responsibility in 74536
writing to the home, to receive upon written request at least a 74537
quarterly accounting statement of financial transactions made on 74538
the resident's behalf. The statement shall include:74539

       (i) A complete record of all funds, personal property, or 74540
possessions of a resident from any source whatsoever, that have 74541
been deposited for safekeeping with the home for use by the 74542
resident or the resident's sponsor;74543

       (ii) A listing of all deposits and withdrawals transacted, 74544
which shall be substantiated by receipts which shall be available 74545
for inspection and copying by the resident or sponsor.74546

       (28) The right of the resident to be allowed unrestricted 74547
access to the resident's property on deposit at reasonable hours, 74548
unless requests for access to property on deposit are so 74549
persistent, continuous, and unreasonable that they constitute a 74550
nuisance;74551

       (29) The right to receive reasonable notice before the 74552
resident's room or roommate is changed, including an explanation 74553
of the reason for either change.74554

       (30) The right not to be transferred or discharged from the 74555
home unless the transfer is necessary because of one of the 74556
following:74557

       (a) The welfare and needs of the resident cannot be met in 74558
the home.74559

       (b) The resident's health has improved sufficiently so that 74560
the resident no longer needs the services provided by the home.74561

       (c) The safety of individuals in the home is endangered.74562

       (d) The health of individuals in the home would otherwise be 74563
endangered.74564

       (e) The resident has failed, after reasonable and appropriate 74565
notice, to pay or to have the medicare or medicaid program pay on 74566
the resident's behalf, for the care provided by the home. A 74567
resident shall not be considered to have failed to have the 74568
resident's care paid for if the resident has applied for medicaid, 74569
unless both of the following are the case:74570

       (i) The resident's application, or a substantially similar 74571
previous application, has been denied by the county department of 74572
job and family services.74573

       (ii) If the resident appealed the denial pursuant to division 74574
(C) of section 5101.35 of the Revised Code, the director of job 74575
and family services has upheld the denial was upheld.74576

       (f) The home's license has been revoked, the home is being 74577
closed pursuant to section 3721.08, sections 5111.355165.60 to 74578
5111.625165.89, or section 5155.31 of the Revised Code, or the 74579
home otherwise ceases to operate.74580

       (g) The resident is a recipient of medicaid, and the home's 74581
participation in the medicaid program is involuntarily terminated 74582
or denied.74583

       (h) The resident is a beneficiary under the medicare program, 74584
and the home's participation in the medicare program is 74585
involuntarily terminated or denied.74586

       (31) The right to voice grievances and recommend changes in 74587
policies and services to the home's staff, to employees of the 74588
department of health, or to other persons not associated with the 74589
operation of the home, of the resident's choice, free from 74590
restraint, interference, coercion, discrimination, or reprisal. 74591
This right includes access to a residents' rights advocate, and 74592
the right to be a member of, to be active in, and to associate 74593
with persons who are active in organizations of relatives and 74594
friends of nursing home residents and other organizations engaged 74595
in assisting residents.74596

       (32) The right to have any significant change in the 74597
resident's health status reported to the resident's sponsor. As 74598
soon as such a change is known to the home's staff, the home shall 74599
make a reasonable effort to notify the sponsor within twelve 74600
hours.74601

       (B) A sponsor may act on a resident's behalf to assure that 74602
the home does not deny the residents' rights under sections 74603
3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code.74604

       (C) Any attempted waiver of the rights listed in division (A) 74605
of this section is void.74606

       Sec. 3721.14.  To assist in the implementation of the rights 74607
granted in division (A) of section 3721.13 of the Revised Code, 74608
each home shall provide:74609

       (A) Appropriate staff training to implement each resident's 74610
rights under division (A) of section 3721.13 of the Revised Code, 74611
including, but not limited to, explaining:74612

       (1) The resident's rights and the staff's responsibility in 74613
the implementation of the rights;74614

       (2) The staff's obligation to provide all residents who have 74615
similar needs with comparable service.74616

       (B) Arrangements for a resident's needed ancillary services;74617

       (C) Protected areas outside the home for residents to enjoy 74618
outdoor activity, within the capacity of the facility, consistent 74619
with applicable laws and rules;74620

       (D) Adequate indoor space, which need not be dedicated to 74621
that purpose, for families of residents to meet privately with 74622
families of other residents;74623

       (E) Access to the following persons to enter the home during 74624
reasonable hours, except where such access would interfere with 74625
resident care or the privacy of residents:74626

       (1) Employees of the department of health, department of 74627
mental healthmental health and addiction services, department of 74628
developmental disabilities, department of aging, department of job 74629
and family services, and county departments of job and family 74630
services;74631

       (2) Prospective residents and their sponsors;74632

       (3) A resident's sponsors;74633

       (4) Residents' rights advocates;74634

       (5) A resident's attorney;74635

       (6) A minister, priest, rabbi, or other person ministering to 74636
a resident's religious needs.74637

       (F) In writing, a description of the home's grievance 74638
procedures.74639

       Sec. 3721.15.  (A) Authorization from a resident or a sponsor 74640
with a power of attorney for a home to manage the resident's 74641
financial affairs shall be in writing and shall be attested to by 74642
a witness who is not connected in any manner whatsoever with the 74643
home or its administrator. The home shall maintain accounts 74644
pursuant to division (A)(27) of section 3721.13 of the Revised 74645
Code. Upon the resident's transfer, discharge, or death, the 74646
account shall be closed and a final accounting made. All remaining 74647
funds shall be returned to the resident or resident's sponsor, 74648
except in the case of death, when all remaining funds shall be 74649
transferred or used in accordance with section 5111.1135162.22 of 74650
the Revised Code.74651

       (B) A home that manages a resident's financial affairs shall 74652
deposit the resident's funds in excess of one hundredthousand74653
dollars, and may deposit the resident's funds that are one hundred74654
thousand dollars or less, in an interest-bearing account separate 74655
from any of the home's operating accounts. Interest earned on the 74656
resident's funds shall be credited to the resident's account. A 74657
resident's funds that are one hundredthousand dollars or less and 74658
have not been deposited in an interest-bearing account may be 74659
deposited in a noninterest-bearing account or petty cash fund.74660

       (C) Each resident whose financial affairs are managed by a 74661
home shall be promptly notified by the home when the total of the 74662
amount of funds in the resident's accounts and the petty cash fund 74663
plus other nonexempt resources reaches two hundred dollars less 74664
than the maximum amount permitted a recipient of medicaid. The 74665
notice shall include an explanation of the potential effect on the 74666
resident's eligibility for medicaid if the amount in the 74667
resident's accounts and the petty cash fund, plus the value of 74668
other nonexempt resources, exceeds the maximum assets a medicaid 74669
recipient may retain.74670

       (D) Each home that manages the financial affairs of residents 74671
shall purchase a surety bond or otherwise provide assurance 74672
satisfactory to the director of health, or, in the case of a home 74673
that participates in the medicaid program, to the medicaid74674
director of job and family services, to assure the security of all 74675
residents' funds managed by the home.74676

       Sec. 3721.16. For each resident of a home, notice of a 74677
proposed transfer or discharge shall be in accordance with this 74678
section.74679

       (A)(1) The administrator of a home shall notify a resident in 74680
writing, and the resident's sponsor in writing by certified mail, 74681
return receipt requested, in advance of any proposed transfer or 74682
discharge from the home. The administrator shall send a copy of 74683
the notice to the state department of health. The notice shall be 74684
provided at least thirty days in advance of the proposed transfer 74685
or discharge, unless any of the following applies:74686

       (a) The resident's health has improved sufficiently to allow 74687
a more immediate discharge or transfer to a less skilled level of 74688
care;74689

       (b) The resident has resided in the home less than thirty 74690
days;74691

       (c) An emergency arises in which the safety of individuals in 74692
the home is endangered;74693

       (d) An emergency arises in which the health of individuals in 74694
the home would otherwise be endangered;74695

       (e) An emergency arises in which the resident's urgent 74696
medical needs necessitate a more immediate transfer or discharge.74697

       In any of the circumstances described in divisions (A)(1)(a) 74698
to (e) of this section, the notice shall be provided as many days 74699
in advance of the proposed transfer or discharge as is 74700
practicable.74701

       (2) The notice required under division (A)(1) of this section 74702
shall include all of the following:74703

       (a) The reasons for the proposed transfer or discharge;74704

       (b) The proposed date the resident is to be transferred or 74705
discharged;74706

       (c) Subject to division (A)(3) of this section, a proposed 74707
location to which the resident may relocate and a notice that the 74708
resident and resident's sponsor may choose another location to 74709
which the resident will relocate;74710

       (d) Notice of the right of the resident and the resident's 74711
sponsor to an impartial hearing at the home on the proposed 74712
transfer or discharge, and of the manner in which and the time 74713
within which the resident or sponsor may request a hearing 74714
pursuant to section 3721.161 of the Revised Code;74715

       (e) A statement that the resident will not be transferred or 74716
discharged before the date specified in the notice unless the home 74717
and the resident or, if the resident is not competent to make a 74718
decision, the home and the resident's sponsor, agree to an earlier 74719
date;74720

       (f) The address of the legal services office of the 74721
department of health;74722

       (g) The name, address, and telephone number of a 74723
representative of the state long-term care ombudspersonombudsman74724
program and, if the resident or patient has a developmental 74725
disability or mental illness, the name, address, and telephone 74726
number of the Ohio protection and advocacy system.74727

       (3) The proposed location to which a resident may relocate as 74728
specified pursuant to division (A)(2)(c) of this section in the 74729
proposed transfer or discharge notice shall be capable of meeting 74730
the resident's health-care and safety needs. The proposed location 74731
for relocation need not have accepted the resident at the time the 74732
notice is issued to the resident and resident's sponsor.74733

       (B) No home shall transfer or discharge a resident before the 74734
date specified in the notice required by division (A) of this 74735
section unless the home and the resident or, if the resident is 74736
not competent to make a decision, the home and the resident's 74737
sponsor, agree to an earlier date.74738

       (C) Transfer or discharge actions shall be documented in the 74739
resident's medical record by the home if there is a medical basis 74740
for the action.74741

       (D) A resident or resident's sponsor may challenge a transfer 74742
or discharge by requesting an impartial hearing pursuant to 74743
section 3721.161 of the Revised Code, unless the transfer or 74744
discharge is required because of one of the following reasons:74745

       (1) The home's license has been revoked under this chapter;74746

       (2) The home is being closed pursuant to section 3721.08, 74747
sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89, or section 5155.31 of 74748
the Revised Code;74749

       (3) The resident is a recipient of medicaid and the home's 74750
participation in the medicaid program has been involuntarily 74751
terminated or denied by the federal government;74752

       (4) The resident is a beneficiary under the medicare program 74753
and the home's certification under the medicare program has been 74754
involuntarily terminated or denied by the federal government.74755

       (E) If a resident is transferred or discharged pursuant to 74756
this section, the home from which the resident is being 74757
transferred or discharged shall provide the resident with adequate 74758
preparation prior to the transfer or discharge to ensure a safe 74759
and orderly transfer or discharge from the home, and the home or 74760
alternative setting to which the resident is to be transferred or 74761
discharged shall have accepted the resident for transfer or 74762
discharge.74763

       (F) At the time of a transfer or discharge of a resident who 74764
is a recipient of medicaid from a home to a hospital or for 74765
therapeutic leave, the home shall provide notice in writing to the 74766
resident and in writing by certified mail, return receipt 74767
requested, to the resident's sponsor, specifying the number of 74768
days, if any, during which the resident will be permitted under 74769
the medicaid program to return and resume residence in the home 74770
and specifying the medicaid program's coverage of the days during 74771
which the resident is absent from the home. An individual who is 74772
absent from a home for more than the number of days specified in 74773
the notice and continues to require the services provided by the 74774
facility shall be given priority for the first available bed in a 74775
semi-private room.74776

       Sec. 3721.17.  (A) Any resident who believes that the 74777
resident's rights under sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised 74778
Code have been violated may file a grievance under procedures 74779
adopted pursuant to division (A)(2) of section 3721.12 of the 74780
Revised Code.74781

       When the grievance committee determines a violation of 74782
sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code has occurred, it 74783
shall notify the administrator of the home. If the violation 74784
cannot be corrected within ten days, or if ten days have elapsed 74785
without correction of the violation, the grievance committee shall 74786
refer the matter to the department of health.74787

       (B) Any person who believes that a resident's rights under 74788
sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code have been violated 74789
may report or cause reports to be made of the information directly 74790
to the department of health. No person who files a report is 74791
liable for civil damages resulting from the report.74792

       (C)(1) Within thirty days of receiving a complaint under this 74793
section, the department of health shall investigate any complaint 74794
referred to it by a home's grievance committee and any complaint 74795
from any source that alleges that the home provided substantially 74796
less than adequate care or treatment, or substantially unsafe 74797
conditions, or, within seven days of receiving a complaint, refer 74798
it to the attorney general, if the attorney general agrees to 74799
investigate within thirty days.74800

       (2) Within thirty days of receiving a complaint under this 74801
section, the department of health may investigate any alleged 74802
violation of sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code, or 74803
of rules, policies, or procedures adopted pursuant to those 74804
sections, not covered by division (C)(1) of this section, or it 74805
may, within seven days of receiving a complaint, refer the 74806
complaint to the grievance committee at the home where the alleged 74807
violation occurred, or to the attorney general if the attorney 74808
general agrees to investigate within thirty days.74809

       (D) If, after an investigation, the department of health 74810
finds probable cause to believe that a violation of sections 74811
3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code, or of rules, policies, or 74812
procedures adopted pursuant to those sections, has occurred at a 74813
home that is certified under the medicare or medicaid program, it 74814
shall cite one or more findings or deficiencies under sections 74815
5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code. If the 74816
home is not so certified, the department shall hold an 74817
adjudicative hearing within thirty days under Chapter 119. of the 74818
Revised Code.74819

       (E) Upon a finding at an adjudicative hearing under division 74820
(D) of this section that a violation of sections 3721.10 to 74821
3721.17 of the Revised Code, or of rules, policies, or procedures 74822
adopted pursuant thereto, has occurred, the department of health 74823
shall make an order for compliance, set a reasonable time for 74824
compliance, and assess a fine pursuant to division (F) of this 74825
section. The fine shall be paid to the general revenue fund only 74826
if compliance with the order is not shown to have been made within 74827
the reasonable time set in the order. The department of health may 74828
issue an order prohibiting the continuation of any violation of 74829
sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code.74830

       Findings at the hearings conducted under this section may be 74831
appealed pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, except that 74832
an appeal may be made to the court of common pleas of the county 74833
in which the home is located.74834

       The department of health shall initiate proceedings in court 74835
to collect any fine assessed under this section that is unpaid 74836
thirty days after the violator's final appeal is exhausted.74837

       (F) Any home found, pursuant to an adjudication hearing under 74838
division (D) of this section, to have violated sections 3721.10 to 74839
3721.17 of the Revised Code, or rules, policies, or procedures 74840
adopted pursuant to those sections may be fined not less than one 74841
hundred nor more than five hundred dollars for a first offense. 74842
For each subsequent offense, the home may be fined not less than 74843
two hundred nor more than one thousand dollars.74844

       A violation of sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised 74845
Code is a separate offense for each day of the violation and for 74846
each resident who claims the violation.74847

       (G) No home or employee of a home shall retaliate against any 74848
person who:74849

       (1) Exercises any right set forth in sections 3721.10 to 74850
3721.17 of the Revised Code, including, but not limited to, filing 74851
a complaint with the home's grievance committee or reporting an 74852
alleged violation to the department of health;74853

       (2) Appears as a witness in any hearing conducted under this 74854
section or section 3721.162 of the Revised Code;74855

       (3) Files a civil action alleging a violation of sections 74856
3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code, or notifies a county 74857
prosecuting attorney or the attorney general of a possible 74858
violation of sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code.74859

       If, under the procedures outlined in this section, a home or 74860
its employee is found to have retaliated, the violator may be 74861
fined up to one thousand dollars.74862

       (H) When legal action is indicated, any evidence of criminal 74863
activity found in an investigation under division (C) of this 74864
section shall be given to the prosecuting attorney in the county 74865
in which the home is located for investigation.74866

       (I)(1)(a) Any resident whose rights under sections 3721.10 to 74867
3721.17 of the Revised Code are violated has a cause of action 74868
against any person or home committing the violation.74869

       (b) An action under division (I)(1)(a) of this section may be 74870
commenced by the resident or by the resident's legal guardian or 74871
other legally authorized representative on behalf of the resident 74872
or the resident's estate. If the resident or the resident's legal 74873
guardian or other legally authorized representative is unable to 74874
commence an action under that division on behalf of the resident, 74875
the following persons in the following order of priority have the 74876
right to and may commence an action under that division on behalf 74877
of the resident or the resident's estate:74878

       (i) The resident's spouse;74879

       (ii) The resident's parent or adult child;74880

       (iii) The resident's guardian if the resident is a minor 74881
child;74882

       (iv) The resident's brother or sister;74883

       (v) The resident's niece, nephew, aunt, or uncle.74884

       (c) Notwithstanding any law as to priority of persons 74885
entitled to commence an action, if more than one eligible person 74886
within the same level of priority seeks to commence an action on 74887
behalf of a resident or the resident's estate, the court shall 74888
determine, in the best interest of the resident or the resident's 74889
estate, the individual to commence the action. A court's 74890
determination under this division as to the person to commence an 74891
action on behalf of a resident or the resident's estate shall bar 74892
another person from commencing the action on behalf of the 74893
resident or the resident's estate.74894

       (d) The result of an action commenced pursuant to division 74895
(I)(1)(a) of this section by a person authorized under division 74896
(I)(1)(b) of this section shall bind the resident or the 74897
resident's estate that is the subject of the action.74898

       (e) A cause of action under division (I)(1)(a) of this 74899
section shall accrue, and the statute of limitations applicable to 74900
that cause of action shall begin to run, based upon the violation 74901
of a resident's rights under sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the 74902
Revised Code, regardless of the party commencing the action on 74903
behalf of the resident or the resident's estate as authorized 74904
under divisions (I)(1)(b) and (c) of this section.74905

       (2)(a) The plaintiff in an action filed under division (I)(1) 74906
of this section may obtain injunctive relief against the violation 74907
of the resident's rights. The plaintiff also may recover 74908
compensatory damages based upon a showing, by a preponderance of 74909
the evidence, that the violation of the resident's rights resulted 74910
from a negligent act or omission of the person or home and that 74911
the violation was the proximate cause of the resident's injury, 74912
death, or loss to person or property.74913

       (b) If compensatory damages are awarded for a violation of 74914
the resident's rights, section 2315.21 of the Revised Code shall 74915
apply to an award of punitive or exemplary damages for the 74916
violation.74917

       (c) The court, in a case in which only injunctive relief is 74918
granted, may award to the prevailing party reasonable attorney's 74919
fees limited to the work reasonably performed.74920

       (3) Division (I)(2) (b) of this section shall be considered 74921
to be purely remedial in operation and shall be applied in a 74922
remedial manner in any civil action in which this section is 74923
relevant, whether the action is pending in court or commenced on 74924
or after July 9, 1998.74925

       (4) Within thirty days after the filing of a complaint in an 74926
action for damages brought against a home under division (I)(1)(a) 74927
of this section by or on behalf of a resident or former resident 74928
of the home, the plaintiff or plaintiff's counsel shall send 74929
written notice of the filing of the complaint to the department of 74930
job and family servicesmedicaid if the department has a right of 74931
recovery under section 5101.585160.37 of the Revised Code against 74932
the liability of the home for the cost of medicalmedicaid74933
services and care arising out of injury, disease, or disability of 74934
the resident or former resident.74935

       Sec. 3721.19.  (A) As used in this section:74936

       (1) "Home" and "residential care facility" have the same 74937
meanings as in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;74938

       (2) "Provider agreement" has the same meaning as in section 74939
5165.01 of the Revised Code.74940

       (3) "Sponsor" and "residents' rights advocate" have the same 74941
meanings as in section 3721.10 of the Revised Code.74942

       A home licensed under this chapter that is not a party to a 74943
provider agreement, as defined in section 5111.20 of the Revised 74944
Code, shall provide each prospective resident, before admission, 74945
with the following information, orally and in a separate written 74946
notice on which is printed in a conspicuous manner: "This home is 74947
not a participant in the medical assistancemedicaid program 74948
administered by the Ohio department of job and family services74949
medicaid. Consequently, you may be discharged from this home if 74950
you are unable to pay for the services provided by this home."74951

       If the prospective resident has a sponsor whose identity is 74952
made known to the home, the home shall also inform the sponsor, 74953
before admission of the resident, of the home's status relative to 74954
the medical assistancemedicaid program. Written acknowledgement 74955
of the receipt of the information shall be provided by the 74956
resident and, if the prospective resident has a sponsor who has 74957
been identified to the home, by the sponsor. The written 74958
acknowledgement shall be made part of the resident's record by the 74959
home.74960

       No home shall terminate its status as a provider under the 74961
medicaid programagreement unless it has complied with section 74962
5111.665165.50 of the Revised Code and, at least ninety days 74963
prior to such termination, provided written notice to the 74964
residents of the home and their sponsors of such action. This 74965
requirement shall not apply in cases where the department of job 74966
and family servicesmedicaid terminates a home's provider 74967
agreement or provider status.74968

       (B) A home licensed under this chapter as a residential care 74969
facility shall provide notice to each prospective resident or the 74970
individual's sponsor of the services offered by the facility and 74971
the types of skilled nursing care that the facility may provide. A 74972
residential care facility that, pursuant to section 3721.012 of 74973
the Revised Code, has a policy of entering into risk agreements 74974
with residents or their sponsors shall provide each prospective 74975
resident or the individual's sponsor a written explanation of the 74976
policy and the provisions that may be contained in a risk 74977
agreement. At the time the information is provided, the facility 74978
shall obtain a statement signed by the individual receiving the 74979
information acknowledging that the individual received the 74980
information. The facility shall maintain on file the individual's 74981
signed statement.74982

       (C) A resident has a cause of action against a home for 74983
breach of any duty imposed by this section. The action may be 74984
commenced by the resident, or on the resident's behalf by the 74985
resident's sponsor or a residents' rights advocate, by the filing 74986
of a civil action in the court of common pleas of the county in 74987
which the home is located, or in the court of common pleas of 74988
Franklin county.74989

       If the court finds that a breach of any duty imposed by this 74990
section has occurred, the court shall enjoin the home from 74991
discharging the resident from the home until arrangements 74992
satisfactory to the court are made for the orderly transfer of the 74993
resident to another mode of health care including, but not limited 74994
to, another home, and may award the resident and a person or 74995
public agency that brings an action on behalf of a resident 74996
reasonable attorney's fees. If a home discharges a resident to 74997
whom or to whose sponsor information concerning its status 74998
relative to the medical assistancemedicaid program was not 74999
provided as required under this section, the court shall grant any 75000
appropriate relief including, but not limited to, actual damages, 75001
reasonable attorney's fees, and costs.75002

       Sec. 3727.01. (A) As used in this section, "health 75003
maintenance organization" means a public or private organization 75004
organized under the law of any state that is qualified under 75005
section 1310(d) of Title XIII of the "Public Health Service Act," 75006
87 Stat. 931 (1973), 42 U.S.C. 300e-9, or that does all of the 75007
following:75008

       (1) Provides or otherwise makes available to enrolled 75009
participants health care services including at least the following 75010
basic health care services: usual physician services, 75011
hospitalization, laboratory, x-ray, emergency and preventive 75012
service, and out-of-area coverage;75013

       (2) Is compensated, except for copayments, for the provision 75014
of basic health care services to enrolled participants by a 75015
payment that is paid on a periodic basis without regard to the 75016
date the health care services are provided and that is fixed 75017
without regard to the frequency, extent, or kind of health service 75018
actually provided;75019

       (3) Provides physician services primarily in either of the 75020
following ways:75021

       (a) Directly through physicians who are either employees or 75022
partners of the organization;75023

       (b) Through arrangements with individual physicians or one or 75024
more groups of physicians organized on a group-practice or 75025
individual-practice basis.75026

       (B) As used in this chapter:75027

       (1) "Children's hospital" means any of the following:75028

       (a) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the 75029
Revised Code that provides general pediatric medical and surgical 75030
care, and in which at least seventy-five per cent of annual 75031
inpatient discharges for the preceding two calendar years were 75032
individuals less than eighteen years of age; 75033

       (b) A distinct portion of a hospital registered under section 75034
3701.07 of the Revised Code that provides general pediatric 75035
medical and surgical care, has a total of at least one hundred 75036
fifty registered pediatric special care and pediatric acute care 75037
beds, and in which at least seventy-five per cent of annual 75038
inpatient discharges for the preceding two calendar years were 75039
individuals less than eighteen years of age; 75040

       (c) A distinct portion of a hospital, if the hospital is 75041
registered under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as a 75042
children's hospital and the children's hospital meets all the 75043
requirements of division (B)(1)(a) of this section.75044

        (2) "Hospital" means an institution classified as a hospital 75045
under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code in which are provided to 75046
inpatients diagnostic, medical, surgical, obstetrical, 75047
psychiatric, or rehabilitation care for a continuous period longer 75048
than twenty-four hours or a hospital operated by a health 75049
maintenance organization. "Hospital" does not include a facility 75050
licensed under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, a health care 75051
facility operated by the department of mental healthmental health 75052
and addiction services or the department of developmental 75053
disabilities, a health maintenance organization that does not 75054
operate a hospital, the office of any private licensed health care 75055
professional, whether organized for individual or group practice, 75056
or a clinic that provides ambulatory patient services and where 75057
patients are not regularly admitted as inpatients. "Hospital" also 75058
does not include an institution for the sick that is operated 75059
exclusively for patients who use spiritual means for healing and 75060
for whom the acceptance of medical care is inconsistent with their 75061
religious beliefs, accredited by a national accrediting 75062
organization, exempt from federal income taxation under section 75063
501 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, 100 Stat. 2085, 26 75064
U.S.C.A. 1, as amended, and providing twenty-four hour nursing 75065
care pursuant to the exemption in division (E) of section 4723.32 75066
of the Revised Code from the licensing requirements of Chapter 75067
4723. of the Revised Code.75068

       (3) "Joint commission" means the commission formerly known as 75069
the joint commission on accreditation of healthcare organizations 75070
or the joint commission on accreditation of hospitals.75071

       Sec. 3734.01.  As used in this chapter:75072

       (A) "Board of health" means the board of health of a city or 75073
general health district or the authority having the duties of a 75074
board of health in any city as authorized by section 3709.05 of 75075
the Revised Code.75076

       (B) "Director" means the director of environmental 75077
protection.75078

       (C) "Health district" means a city or general health district 75079
as created by or under authority of Chapter 3709. of the Revised 75080
Code.75081

       (D) "Agency" means the environmental protection agency.75082

       (E) "Solid wastes" means such unwanted residual solid or 75083
semisolid material as results from industrial, commercial, 75084
agricultural, and community operations, excluding earth or 75085
material from construction, mining, or demolition operations, or 75086
other waste materials of the type that normally would be included 75087
in demolition debris, nontoxic fly ash and bottom ash, including 75088
at least ash that results from the combustion of coal and ash that 75089
results from the combustion of coal in combination with scrap 75090
tires where scrap tires comprise not more than fifty per cent of 75091
heat input in any month, spent nontoxic foundry sand, and slag and 75092
other substances that are not harmful or inimical to public 75093
health, and includes, but is not limited to, garbage, scrap tires, 75094
combustible and noncombustible material, street dirt, and debris. 75095
"Solid wastes" does not include any material that is an infectious 75096
waste or a hazardous waste.75097

       (F) "Disposal" means the discharge, deposit, injection, 75098
dumping, spilling, leaking, emitting, or placing of any solid 75099
wastes or hazardous waste into or on any land or ground or surface 75100
water or into the air, except if the disposition or placement 75101
constitutes storage or treatment or, if the solid wastes consist 75102
of scrap tires, the disposition or placement constitutes a 75103
beneficial use or occurs at a scrap tire recovery facility 75104
licensed under section 3734.81 of the Revised Code.75105

       (G) "Person" includes the state, any political subdivision 75106
and other state or local body, the United States and any agency or 75107
instrumentality thereof, and any legal entity defined as a person 75108
under section 1.59 of the Revised Code.75109

       (H) "Open burning" means the burning of solid wastes in an 75110
open area or burning of solid wastes in a type of chamber or 75111
vessel that is not approved or authorized in rules adopted by the 75112
director under section 3734.02 of the Revised Code or, if the 75113
solid wastes consist of scrap tires, in rules adopted under 75114
division (V) of this section or section 3734.73 of the Revised 75115
Code, or the burning of treated or untreated infectious wastes in 75116
an open area or in a type of chamber or vessel that is not 75117
approved in rules adopted by the director under section 3734.021 75118
of the Revised Code.75119

       (I) "Open dumping" means the depositing of solid wastes into 75120
a body or stream of water or onto the surface of the ground at a 75121
site that is not licensed as a solid waste facility under section 75122
3734.05 of the Revised Code or, if the solid wastes consist of 75123
scrap tires, as a scrap tire collection, storage, monocell, 75124
monofill, or recovery facility under section 3734.81 of the 75125
Revised Code; the depositing of solid wastes that consist of scrap 75126
tires onto the surface of the ground at a site or in a manner not 75127
specifically identified in divisions (C)(2) to (5), (7), or (10) 75128
of section 3734.85 of the Revised Code; the depositing of 75129
untreated infectious wastes into a body or stream of water or onto 75130
the surface of the ground; or the depositing of treated infectious 75131
wastes into a body or stream of water or onto the surface of the 75132
ground at a site that is not licensed as a solid waste facility 75133
under section 3734.05 of the Revised Code.75134

       (J) "Hazardous waste" means any waste or combination of 75135
wastes in solid, liquid, semisolid, or contained gaseous form that 75136
in the determination of the director, because of its quantity, 75137
concentration, or physical or chemical characteristics, may do 75138
either of the following:75139

       (1) Cause or significantly contribute to an increase in 75140
mortality or an increase in serious irreversible or incapacitating 75141
reversible illness;75142

       (2) Pose a substantial present or potential hazard to human 75143
health or safety or to the environment when improperly stored, 75144
treated, transported, disposed of, or otherwise managed.75145

       "Hazardous waste" includes any substance identified by 75146
regulation as hazardous waste under the "Resource Conservation and 75147
Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2806, 42 U.S.C.A. 6921, as 75148
amended, and does not include any substance that is subject to the 75149
"Atomic Energy Act of 1954," 68 Stat. 919, 42 U.S.C.A. 2011, as 75150
amended.75151

       (K) "Treat" or "treatment," when used in connection with 75152
hazardous waste, means any method, technique, or process designed 75153
to change the physical, chemical, or biological characteristics or 75154
composition of any hazardous waste; to neutralize the waste; to 75155
recover energy or material resources from the waste; to render the 75156
waste nonhazardous or less hazardous, safer to transport, store, 75157
or dispose of, or amenable for recovery, storage, further 75158
treatment, or disposal; or to reduce the volume of the waste. When 75159
used in connection with infectious wastes, "treat" or "treatment" 75160
means any method, technique, or process that renders the wastes 75161
noninfectious so that it is no longer an infectious waste and is 75162
no longer an infectious substance as defined in applicable federal 75163
law, including, without limitation, steam sterilization and 75164
incineration, and, in the instance of wastes identified in 75165
division (R)(7) of this section, to substantially reduce or 75166
eliminate the potential for the wastes to cause lacerations or 75167
puncture wounds.75168

       (L) "Manifest" means the form used for identifying the 75169
quantity, composition, origin, routing, and destination of 75170
hazardous waste during its transportation from the point of 75171
generation to the point of disposal, treatment, or storage.75172

       (M) "Storage," when used in connection with hazardous waste, 75173
means the holding of hazardous waste for a temporary period in 75174
such a manner that it remains retrievable and substantially 75175
unchanged physically and chemically and, at the end of the period, 75176
is treated; disposed of; stored elsewhere; or reused, recycled, or 75177
reclaimed in a beneficial manner. When used in connection with 75178
solid wastes that consist of scrap tires, "storage" means the 75179
holding of scrap tires for a temporary period in such a manner 75180
that they remain retrievable and, at the end of that period, are 75181
beneficially used; stored elsewhere; placed in a scrap tire 75182
monocell or monofill facility licensed under section 3734.81 of 75183
the Revised Code; processed at a scrap tire recovery facility 75184
licensed under that section or a solid waste incineration or 75185
energy recovery facility subject to regulation under this chapter; 75186
or transported to a scrap tire monocell, monofill, or recovery 75187
facility, any other solid waste facility authorized to dispose of 75188
scrap tires, or a facility that will beneficially use the scrap 75189
tires, that is located in another state and is operating in 75190
compliance with the laws of the state in which the facility is 75191
located.75192

       (N) "Facility" means any site, location, tract of land, 75193
installation, or building used for incineration, composting, 75194
sanitary landfilling, or other methods of disposal of solid wastes 75195
or, if the solid wastes consist of scrap tires, for the 75196
collection, storage, or processing of the solid wastes; for the 75197
transfer of solid wastes; for the treatment of infectious wastes; 75198
or for the storage, treatment, or disposal of hazardous waste.75199

       (O) "Closure" means the time at which a hazardous waste 75200
facility will no longer accept hazardous waste for treatment, 75201
storage, or disposal, the time at which a solid waste facility 75202
will no longer accept solid wastes for transfer or disposal or, if 75203
the solid wastes consist of scrap tires, for storage or 75204
processing, or the effective date of an order revoking the permit 75205
for a hazardous waste facility or the registration certificate, 75206
permit, or license for a solid waste facility, as applicable. 75207
"Closure" includes measures performed to protect public health or 75208
safety, to prevent air or water pollution, or to make the facility 75209
suitable for other uses, if any, including, but not limited to, 75210
the removal of processing residues resulting from solid wastes 75211
that consist of scrap tires; the establishment and maintenance of 75212
a suitable cover of soil and vegetation over cells in which 75213
hazardous waste or solid wastes are buried; minimization of 75214
erosion, the infiltration of surface water into such cells, the 75215
production of leachate, and the accumulation and runoff of 75216
contaminated surface water; the final construction of facilities 75217
for the collection and treatment of leachate and contaminated 75218
surface water runoff, except as otherwise provided in this 75219
division; the final construction of air and water quality 75220
monitoring facilities, except as otherwise provided in this 75221
division; the final construction of methane gas extraction and 75222
treatment systems; or the removal and proper disposal of hazardous 75223
waste or solid wastes from a facility when necessary to protect 75224
public health or safety or to abate or prevent air or water 75225
pollution. With regard to a solid waste facility that is a scrap 75226
tire facility, "closure" includes the final construction of 75227
facilities for the collection and treatment of leachate and 75228
contaminated surface water runoff and the final construction of 75229
air and water quality monitoring facilities only if those actions 75230
are determined to be necessary.75231

       (P) "Premises" means either of the following:75232

       (1) Geographically contiguous property owned by a generator;75233

       (2) Noncontiguous property that is owned by a generator and 75234
connected by a right-of-way that the generator controls and to 75235
which the public does not have access. Two or more pieces of 75236
property that are geographically contiguous and divided by public 75237
or private right-of-way or rights-of-way are a single premises.75238

       (Q) "Post-closure" means that period of time following 75239
closure during which a hazardous waste facility is required to be 75240
monitored and maintained under this chapter and rules adopted 75241
under it, including, without limitation, operation and maintenance 75242
of methane gas extraction and treatment systems, or the period of 75243
time after closure during which a scrap tire monocell or monofill 75244
facility licensed under section 3734.81 of the Revised Code is 75245
required to be monitored and maintained under this chapter and 75246
rules adopted under it.75247

       (R) "Infectious wastes" means any wastes or combination of 75248
wastes that include cultures and stocks of infectious agents and 75249
associated biologicals, human blood and blood products, and 75250
substances that were or are likely to have been exposed to or 75251
contaminated with or are likely to transmit an infectious agent or 75252
zoonotic agent, including all of the following:75253

       (1) Laboratory wastes;75254

       (2) Pathological wastes;75255

       (3) Animal blood and blood products;75256

       (4) Animal carcasses and parts;75257

       (5) Waste materials from the rooms of humans, or the 75258
enclosures of animals, that have been isolated because of 75259
diagnosed communicable disease that are likely to transmit 75260
infectious agents. Such waste materials from the rooms of humans 75261
do not include any wastes of patients who have been placed on 75262
blood and body fluid precautions under the universal precaution 75263
system established by the centers for disease control in the 75264
public health service of the United States department of health 75265
and human services, except to the extent specific wastes generated 75266
under the universal precautions system have been identified as 75267
infectious wastes by rules adopted under division (R)(7) of this 75268
section.75269

       (6) Sharp wastes used in the treatment, diagnosis, or 75270
inoculation of human beings or animals;75271

       (7) Any other waste materials generated in the diagnosis, 75272
treatment, or immunization of human beings or animals, in research 75273
pertaining thereto, or in the production or testing of 75274
biologicals, that the director of health, by rules adopted in 75275
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, identifies as 75276
infectious wastes after determining that the wastes present a 75277
substantial threat to human health when improperly managed because 75278
they are contaminated with, or are likely to be contaminated with, 75279
infectious agents.75280

       As used in this division, "blood products" does not include 75281
patient care waste such as bandages or disposable gowns that are 75282
lightly soiled with blood or other body fluids unless those wastes 75283
are soiled to the extent that the generator of the wastes 75284
determines that they should be managed as infectious wastes.75285

       (S) "Infectious agent" means a type of microorganism, 75286
pathogen, virus, or proteinaceous infectious particle that can 75287
cause or significantly contribute to disease in or death of human 75288
beings.75289

       (T) "Zoonotic agent" means a type of microorganism, pathogen, 75290
or virus that causes disease in vertebrate animals, is 75291
transmissible to human beings, and can cause or significantly 75292
contribute to disease in or death of human beings.75293

       (U) "Solid waste transfer facility" means any site, location, 75294
tract of land, installation, or building that is used or intended 75295
to be used primarily for the purpose of transferring solid wastes 75296
that were generated off the premises of the facility from vehicles 75297
or containers into other vehicles for transportation to a solid 75298
waste disposal facility. "Solid waste transfer facility" does not 75299
include any facility that consists solely of portable containers 75300
that have an aggregate volume of fifty cubic yards or less nor any 75301
facility where legitimate recycling activities are conducted.75302

       (V) "Beneficially use" means:75303

       (1) With regard to scrap tires, to use a scrap tire in a 75304
manner that results in a commodity for sale or exchange or in any 75305
other manner authorized as a beneficial use in rules adopted by 75306
the director in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code;75307

       (2) With regard to material from a horizontal well that has 75308
come in contact with a refined oil-based substance and that is not 75309
technologically enhanced naturally occurring radioactive material, 75310
to use the material in any manner authorized as a beneficial use 75311
in rules adopted by the director under section 3734.125 of the 75312
Revised Code.75313

       (W) "Commercial car," "commercial tractor," "farm machinery," 75314
"motor bus," "vehicles," "motor vehicle," and "semitrailer" have 75315
the same meanings as in section 4501.01 of the Revised Code.75316

       (X) "Construction equipment" means road rollers, traction 75317
engines, power shovels, power cranes, and other equipment used in 75318
construction work, or in mining or producing or processing 75319
aggregates, and not designed for or used in general highway 75320
transportation.75321

       (Y) "Motor vehicle salvage dealer" has the same meaning as in 75322
section 4738.01 of the Revised Code.75323

       (Z) "Scrap tire" means an unwanted or discarded tire.75324

       (AA) "Scrap tire collection facility" means any facility that 75325
meets all of the following qualifications:75326

       (1) The facility is used for the receipt and storage of whole 75327
scrap tires from the public prior to their transportation to a 75328
scrap tire storage, monocell, monofill, or recovery facility 75329
licensed under section 3734.81 of the Revised Code; a solid waste 75330
incineration or energy recovery facility subject to regulation 75331
under this chapter; a premises within the state where the scrap 75332
tires will be beneficially used; or a scrap tire storage, 75333
monocell, monofill, or recovery facility, any other solid waste 75334
disposal facility authorized to dispose of scrap tires, or a 75335
facility that will beneficially use the scrap tires, that is 75336
located in another state, and that is operating in compliance with 75337
the laws of the state in which the facility is located.75338

       (2) The facility exclusively stores scrap tires in portable 75339
containers.75340

       (3) The aggregate storage of the portable containers in which 75341
the scrap tires are stored does not exceed five thousand cubic 75342
feet.75343

       (BB) "Scrap tire monocell facility" means an individual site 75344
within a solid waste landfill that is used exclusively for the 75345
environmentally sound storage or disposal of whole scrap tires or 75346
scrap tires that have been shredded, chipped, or otherwise 75347
mechanically processed.75348

       (CC) "Scrap tire monofill facility" means an engineered 75349
facility used or intended to be used exclusively for the storage 75350
or disposal of scrap tires, including at least facilities for the 75351
submergence of whole scrap tires in a body of water.75352

       (DD) "Scrap tire recovery facility" means any facility, or 75353
portion thereof, for the processing of scrap tires for the purpose 75354
of extracting or producing usable products, materials, or energy 75355
from the scrap tires through a controlled combustion process, 75356
mechanical process, or chemical process. "Scrap tire recovery 75357
facility" includes any facility that uses the controlled 75358
combustion of scrap tires in a manufacturing process to produce 75359
process heat or steam or any facility that produces usable heat or 75360
electric power through the controlled combustion of scrap tires in 75361
combination with another fuel, but does not include any solid 75362
waste incineration or energy recovery facility that is designed, 75363
constructed, and used for the primary purpose of incinerating 75364
mixed municipal solid wastes and that burns scrap tires in 75365
conjunction with mixed municipal solid wastes, or any tire 75366
retreading business, tire manufacturing finishing center, or tire 75367
adjustment center having on the premises of the business a single, 75368
covered scrap tire storage area at which not more than four 75369
thousand scrap tires are stored.75370

       (EE) "Scrap tire storage facility" means any facility where 75371
whole scrap tires are stored prior to their transportation to a 75372
scrap tire monocell, monofill, or recovery facility licensed under 75373
section 3734.81 of the Revised Code; a solid waste incineration or 75374
energy recovery facility subject to regulation under this chapter; 75375
a premises within the state where the scrap tires will be 75376
beneficially used; or a scrap tire storage, monocell, monofill, or 75377
recovery facility, any other solid waste disposal facility 75378
authorized to dispose of scrap tires, or a facility that will 75379
beneficially use the scrap tires, that is located in another 75380
state, and that is operating in compliance with the laws of the 75381
state in which the facility is located.75382

       (FF) "Used oil" means any oil that has been refined from 75383
crude oil, or any synthetic oil, that has been used and, as a 75384
result of that use, is contaminated by physical or chemical 75385
impurities. "Used oil" includes only those substances identified 75386
as used oil by the United States environmental protection agency 75387
under the "Used Oil Recycling Act of 1980," 94 Stat. 2055, 42 75388
U.S.C.A. 6901a, as amended.75389

       (GG) "Accumulated speculatively" has the same meaning as in 75390
rules adopted by the director under section 3734.12 of the Revised 75391
Code.75392

       (HH) "Horizontal well" has the same meaning as in section 75393
1509.01 of the Revised Code.75394

       (II) "Technologically enhanced naturally occurring 75395
radioactive material" has the same meaning as in section 3748.01 75396
of the Revised Code.75397

       Sec. 3734.02.  (A) The director of environmental protection, 75398
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt 75399
and may amend, suspend, or rescind rules having uniform 75400
application throughout the state governing solid waste facilities 75401
and the inspections of and issuance of permits and licenses for 75402
all solid waste facilities in order to ensure that the facilities 75403
will be located, maintained, and operated, and will undergo 75404
closure and post-closure care, in a sanitary manner so as not to 75405
create a nuisance, cause or contribute to water pollution, create 75406
a health hazard, or violate 40 C.F.R. 257.3-2 or 40 C.F.R. 75407
257.3-8, as amended. The rules may include, without limitation, 75408
financial assurance requirements for closure and post-closure care 75409
and corrective action and requirements for taking corrective 75410
action in the event of the surface or subsurface discharge or 75411
migration of explosive gases or leachate from a solid waste 75412
facility, or of ground water contamination resulting from the 75413
transfer or disposal of solid wastes at a facility, beyond the 75414
boundaries of any area within a facility that is operating or is 75415
undergoing closure or post-closure care where solid wastes were 75416
disposed of or are being disposed of. The rules shall not concern 75417
or relate to personnel policies, salaries, wages, fringe benefits, 75418
or other conditions of employment of employees of persons owning 75419
or operating solid waste facilities. The director, in accordance 75420
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt and may amend, 75421
suspend, or rescind rules governing the issuance, modification, 75422
revocation, suspension, or denial of variances from the director's 75423
solid waste rules, including, without limitation, rules adopted 75424
under this chapter governing the management of scrap tires.75425

       Variances shall be issued, modified, revoked, suspended, or 75426
rescinded in accordance with this division, rules adopted under 75427
it, and Chapter 3745. of the Revised Code. The director may order 75428
the person to whom a variance is issued to take such action within 75429
such time as the director may determine to be appropriate and 75430
reasonable to prevent the creation of a nuisance or a hazard to 75431
the public health or safety or the environment. Applications for 75432
variances shall contain such detail plans, specifications, and 75433
information regarding objectives, procedures, controls, and other 75434
pertinent data as the director may require. The director shall 75435
grant a variance only if the applicant demonstrates to the 75436
director's satisfaction that construction and operation of the 75437
solid waste facility in the manner allowed by the variance and any 75438
terms or conditions imposed as part of the variance will not 75439
create a nuisance or a hazard to the public health or safety or 75440
the environment. In granting any variance, the director shall 75441
state the specific provision or provisions whose terms are to be 75442
varied and also shall state specific terms or conditions imposed 75443
upon the applicant in place of the provision or provisions. The 75444
director may hold a public hearing on an application for a 75445
variance or renewal of a variance at a location in the county 75446
where the operations that are the subject of the application for 75447
the variance are conducted. The director shall give not less than 75448
twenty days' notice of the hearing to the applicant by certified 75449
mail or by another type of mail accompanied by a receipt and shall 75450
publish at least one notice of the hearing in a newspaper with 75451
general circulation in the county where the hearing is to be held. 75452
The director shall make available for public inspection at the 75453
principal office of the environmental protection agency a current 75454
list of pending applications for variances and a current schedule 75455
of pending variance hearings. The director shall make a complete 75456
stenographic record of testimony and other evidence submitted at 75457
the hearing. Within ten days after the hearing, the director shall 75458
make a written determination to issue, renew, or deny the variance 75459
and shall enter the determination and the basis for it into the 75460
record of the hearing. The director shall issue, renew, or deny an 75461
application for a variance or renewal of a variance within six 75462
months of the date upon which the director receives a complete 75463
application with all pertinent information and data required. No 75464
variance shall be issued, revoked, modified, or denied until the 75465
director has considered the relative interests of the applicant, 75466
other persons and property affected by the variance, and the 75467
general public. Any variance granted under this division shall be 75468
for a period specified by the director and may be renewed from 75469
time to time on such terms and for such periods as the director 75470
determines to be appropriate. No application shall be denied and 75471
no variance shall be revoked or modified without a written order 75472
stating the findings upon which the denial, revocation, or 75473
modification is based. A copy of the order shall be sent to the 75474
applicant or variance holder by certified mail or by another type 75475
of mail accompanied by a receipt.75476

       (B) The director shall prescribe and furnish the forms 75477
necessary to administer and enforce this chapter. The director may 75478
cooperate with and enter into agreements with other state, local, 75479
or federal agencies to carry out the purposes of this chapter. The 75480
director may exercise all incidental powers necessary to carry out 75481
the purposes of this chapter.75482

       The director may use moneys in the infectious waste 75483
management fund created in section 3734.021 of the Revised Code 75484
exclusively for administering and enforcing the provisions of this 75485
chapter governing the management of infectious wastes. 75486

       (C) Except as provided in this division and divisions (N)(2) 75487
and (3) of this section, no person shall establish a new solid 75488
waste facility or infectious waste treatment facility, or modify 75489
an existing solid waste facility or infectious waste treatment 75490
facility, without submitting an application for a permit with 75491
accompanying detail plans, specifications, and information 75492
regarding the facility and method of operation and receiving a 75493
permit issued by the director, except that no permit shall be 75494
required under this division to install or operate a solid waste 75495
facility for sewage sludge treatment or disposal when the 75496
treatment or disposal is authorized by a current permit issued 75497
under Chapter 3704. or 6111. of the Revised Code.75498

       No person shall continue to operate a solid waste facility 75499
for which the director has denied a permit for which an 75500
application was required under division (A)(3) of section 3734.05 75501
of the Revised Code, or for which the director has disapproved 75502
plans and specifications required to be filed by an order issued 75503
under division (A)(5) of that section, after the date prescribed 75504
for commencement of closure of the facility in the order issued 75505
under division (A)(6) of section 3734.05 of the Revised Code 75506
denying the permit application or approval.75507

       On and after the effective date of the rules adopted under 75508
division (A) of this section and division (D) of section 3734.12 75509
of the Revised Code governing solid waste transfer facilities, no 75510
person shall establish a new, or modify an existing, solid waste 75511
transfer facility without first submitting an application for a 75512
permit with accompanying engineering detail plans, specifications, 75513
and information regarding the facility and its method of operation 75514
to the director and receiving a permit issued by the director.75515

       No person shall establish a new compost facility or continue 75516
to operate an existing compost facility that accepts exclusively 75517
source separated yard wastes without submitting a completed 75518
registration for the facility to the director in accordance with 75519
rules adopted under divisions (A) and (N)(3) of this section.75520

       This division does not apply to a generator of infectious 75521
wastes that does any of the following:75522

       (1) Treats, by methods, techniques, and practices established 75523
by rules adopted under division (B)(2)(a) of section 3734.021 of 75524
the Revised Code, any of the following:75525

       (a) Infectious wastes that are generated on any premises that 75526
are owned or operated by the generator;75527

       (b) Infectious wastes that are generated by a generator who 75528
has staff privileges at a hospital as defined in section 3727.01 75529
of the Revised Code;75530

       (c) Infectious wastes that are generated in providing care to 75531
a patient by an emergency medical services organization as defined 75532
in section 4765.01 of the Revised Code.75533

       (2) Holds a license or renewal of a license to operate a 75534
crematory facility issued under Chapter 4717. and a permit issued 75535
under Chapter 3704. of the Revised Code;75536

       (3) Treats or disposes of dead animals or parts thereof, or 75537
the blood of animals, and is subject to any of the following:75538

       (a) Inspection under the "Federal Meat Inspection Act," 81 75539
Stat. 584 (1967), 21 U.S.C.A. 603, as amended;75540

       (b) Chapter 918. of the Revised Code;75541

       (c) Chapter 953. of the Revised Code.75542

       (D) Neither this chapter nor any rules adopted under it apply 75543
to single-family residential premises; to infectious wastes 75544
generated by individuals for purposes of their own care or 75545
treatment; to the temporary storage of solid wastes, other than 75546
scrap tires, prior to their collection for disposal; to the 75547
storage of one hundred or fewer scrap tires unless they are stored 75548
in such a manner that, in the judgment of the director or the 75549
board of health of the health district in which the scrap tires 75550
are stored, the storage causes a nuisance, a hazard to public 75551
health or safety, or a fire hazard; or to the collection of solid 75552
wastes, other than scrap tires, by a political subdivision or a 75553
person holding a franchise or license from a political subdivision 75554
of the state; to composting, as defined in section 1511.01 of the 75555
Revised Code, conducted in accordance with section 1511.022 of the 75556
Revised Code; or to any person who is licensed to transport raw 75557
rendering material to a compost facility pursuant to section 75558
953.23 of the Revised Code.75559

       (E)(1) As used in this division:75560

       (a) "On-site facility" means a facility that stores, treats, 75561
or disposes of hazardous waste that is generated on the premises 75562
of the facility.75563

       (b) "Off-site facility" means a facility that stores, treats, 75564
or disposes of hazardous waste that is generated off the premises 75565
of the facility and includes such a facility that is also an 75566
on-site facility.75567

       (c) "Satellite facility" means any of the following:75568

       (i) An on-site facility that also receives hazardous waste 75569
from other premises owned by the same person who generates the 75570
waste on the facility premises;75571

       (ii) An off-site facility operated so that all of the 75572
hazardous waste it receives is generated on one or more premises 75573
owned by the person who owns the facility;75574

       (iii) An on-site facility that also receives hazardous waste 75575
that is transported uninterruptedly and directly to the facility 75576
through a pipeline from a generator who is not the owner of the 75577
facility.75578

       (2) Except as provided in division (E)(3) of this section, no 75579
person shall establish or operate a hazardous waste facility, or 75580
use a solid waste facility for the storage, treatment, or disposal 75581
of any hazardous waste, without a hazardous waste facility 75582
installation and operation permit issued in accordance with 75583
section 3734.05 of the Revised Code and subject to the payment of 75584
an application fee not to exceed one thousand five hundred 75585
dollars, payable upon application for a hazardous waste facility 75586
installation and operation permit and upon application for a 75587
renewal permit issued under division (H) of section 3734.05 of the 75588
Revised Code, to be credited to the hazardous waste facility 75589
management fund created in section 3734.18 of the Revised Code. 75590
The term of a hazardous waste facility installation and operation 75591
permit shall not exceed ten years.75592

       In addition to the application fee, there is hereby levied an 75593
annual permit fee to be paid by the permit holder upon the 75594
anniversaries of the date of issuance of the hazardous waste 75595
facility installation and operation permit and of any subsequent 75596
renewal permits and to be credited to the hazardous waste facility 75597
management fund. Annual permit fees totaling forty thousand 75598
dollars or more for any one facility may be paid on a quarterly 75599
basis with the first quarterly payment each year being due on the 75600
anniversary of the date of issuance of the hazardous waste 75601
facility installation and operation permit and of any subsequent 75602
renewal permits. The annual permit fee shall be determined for 75603
each permit holder by the director in accordance with the 75604
following schedule:75605

TYPE OF BASIC 75606
MANAGEMENT UNIT TYPE OF FACILITY FEE 75607
Storage facility using: 75608
Containers On-site, off-site, and 75609
satellite $ 500 75610
Tanks On-site, off-site, and 75611
satellite 500 75612
Waste pile On-site, off-site, and 75613
satellite 3,000 75614
Surface impoundment On-site and satellite 8,000 75615
Off-site 10,000 75616
Disposal facility using: 75617
Deep well injection On-site and satellite 15,000 75618
Off-site 25,000 75619
Landfill On-site and satellite 25,000 75620
Off-site 40,000 75621
Land application On-site and satellite 2,500 75622
Off-site 5,000 75623
Surface impoundment On-site and satellite 10,000 75624
Off-site 20,000 75625
Treatment facility using: 75626
Tanks On-site, off-site, and 75627
satellite 700 75628
Surface impoundment On-site and satellite 8,000 75629
Off-site 10,000 75630
Incinerator On-site and satellite 5,000 75631
Off-site 10,000 75632
Other forms 75633
of treatment On-site, off-site, and 75634
satellite 1,000 75635

       A hazardous waste disposal facility that disposes of 75636
hazardous waste by deep well injection and that pays the annual 75637
permit fee established in section 6111.046 of the Revised Code is 75638
not subject to the permit fee established in this division for 75639
disposal facilities using deep well injection unless the director 75640
determines that the facility is not in compliance with applicable 75641
requirements established under this chapter and rules adopted 75642
under it.75643

       In determining the annual permit fee required by this 75644
section, the director shall not require additional payments for 75645
multiple units of the same method of storage, treatment, or 75646
disposal or for individual units that are used for both storage 75647
and treatment. A facility using more than one method of storage, 75648
treatment, or disposal shall pay the permit fee indicated by the 75649
schedule for each such method.75650

       The director shall not require the payment of that portion of 75651
an annual permit fee of any permit holder that would apply to a 75652
hazardous waste management unit for which a permit has been 75653
issued, but for which construction has not yet commenced. Once 75654
construction has commenced, the director shall require the payment 75655
of a part of the appropriate fee indicated by the schedule that 75656
bears the same relationship to the total fee that the number of 75657
days remaining until the next anniversary date at which payment of 75658
the annual permit fee is due bears to three hundred sixty-five.75659

       The director, by rules adopted in accordance with Chapters 75660
119. and 3745. of the Revised Code, shall prescribe procedures for 75661
collecting the annual permit fee established by this division and 75662
may prescribe other requirements necessary to carry out this 75663
division.75664

       (3) The prohibition against establishing or operating a 75665
hazardous waste facility without a hazardous waste facility 75666
installation and operation permit does not apply to either of the 75667
following:75668

       (a) A facility that is operating in accordance with a permit 75669
renewal issued under division (H) of section 3734.05 of the 75670
Revised Code, a revision issued under division (I) of that section 75671
as it existed prior to August 20, 1996, or a modification issued 75672
by the director under division (I) of that section on and after 75673
August 20, 1996;75674

       (b) Except as provided in division (J) of section 3734.05 of 75675
the Revised Code, a facility that will operate or is operating in 75676
accordance with a permit by rule, or that is not subject to permit 75677
requirements, under rules adopted by the director. In accordance 75678
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the director shall adopt, 75679
and subsequently may amend, suspend, or rescind, rules for the 75680
purposes of division (E)(3)(b) of this section. Any rules so 75681
adopted shall be consistent with and equivalent to regulations 75682
pertaining to interim status adopted under the "Resource 75683
Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2806, 42 U.S.C.A. 75684
6921, as amended, except as otherwise provided in this chapter.75685

       If a modification is requested or proposed for a facility 75686
described in division (E)(3)(a) or (b) of this section, division 75687
(I)(7) of section 3734.05 of the Revised Code applies.75688

       (F) No person shall store, treat, or dispose of hazardous 75689
waste identified or listed under this chapter and rules adopted 75690
under it, regardless of whether generated on or off the premises 75691
where the waste is stored, treated, or disposed of, or transport 75692
or cause to be transported any hazardous waste identified or 75693
listed under this chapter and rules adopted under it to any other 75694
premises, except at or to any of the following:75695

       (1) A hazardous waste facility operating under a permit 75696
issued in accordance with this chapter;75697

       (2) A facility in another state operating under a license or 75698
permit issued in accordance with the "Resource Conservation and 75699
Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2806, 42 U.S.C.A. 6921, as 75700
amended;75701

       (3) A facility in another nation operating in accordance with 75702
the laws of that nation;75703

       (4) A facility holding a permit issued pursuant to Title I of 75704
the "Marine Protection, Research, and Sanctuaries Act of 1972," 86 75705
Stat. 1052, 33 U.S.C.A. 1401, as amended;75706

       (5) A hazardous waste facility as described in division 75707
(E)(3)(a) or (b) of this section.75708

       (G) The director, by order, may exempt any person generating, 75709
collecting, storing, treating, disposing of, or transporting solid 75710
wastes, infectious wastes, or hazardous waste, or processing solid 75711
wastes that consist of scrap tires, in such quantities or under 75712
such circumstances that, in the determination of the director, are 75713
unlikely to adversely affect the public health or safety or the 75714
environment from any requirement to obtain a registration 75715
certificate, permit, or license or comply with the manifest system 75716
or other requirements of this chapter. Such an exemption shall be 75717
consistent with and equivalent to any regulations adopted by the 75718
administrator of the United States environmental protection agency 75719
under the "Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976," 90 75720
Stat. 2806, 42 U.S.C.A. 6921, as amended, except as otherwise 75721
provided in this chapter.75722

       (H) No person shall engage in filling, grading, excavating, 75723
building, drilling, or mining on land where a hazardous waste 75724
facility, or a solid waste facility, was operated without prior 75725
authorization from the director, who shall establish the procedure 75726
for granting such authorization by rules adopted in accordance 75727
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.75728

       A public utility that has main or distribution lines above or 75729
below the land surface located on an easement or right-of-way 75730
across land where a solid waste facility was operated may engage 75731
in any such activity within the easement or right-of-way without 75732
prior authorization from the director for purposes of performing 75733
emergency repair or emergency replacement of its lines; of the 75734
poles, towers, foundations, or other structures supporting or 75735
sustaining any such lines; or of the appurtenances to those 75736
structures, necessary to restore or maintain existing public 75737
utility service. A public utility may enter upon any such easement 75738
or right-of-way without prior authorization from the director for 75739
purposes of performing necessary or routine maintenance of those 75740
portions of its existing lines; of the existing poles, towers, 75741
foundations, or other structures sustaining or supporting its 75742
lines; or of the appurtenances to any such supporting or 75743
sustaining structure, located on or above the land surface on any 75744
such easement or right-of-way. Within twenty-four hours after 75745
commencing any such emergency repair, replacement, or maintenance 75746
work, the public utility shall notify the director or the 75747
director's authorized representative of those activities and shall 75748
provide such information regarding those activities as the 75749
director or the director's representative may request. Upon 75750
completion of the emergency repair, replacement, or maintenance 75751
activities, the public utility shall restore any land of the solid 75752
waste facility disturbed by those activities to the condition 75753
existing prior to the commencement of those activities.75754

       (I) No owner or operator of a hazardous waste facility, in 75755
the operation of the facility, shall cause, permit, or allow the 75756
emission therefrom of any particulate matter, dust, fumes, gas, 75757
mist, smoke, vapor, or odorous substance that, in the opinion of 75758
the director, unreasonably interferes with the comfortable 75759
enjoyment of life or property by persons living or working in the 75760
vicinity of the facility, or that is injurious to public health. 75761
Any such action is hereby declared to be a public nuisance.75762

       (J) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, in 75763
the event the director finds an imminent and substantial danger to 75764
public health or safety or the environment that creates an 75765
emergency situation requiring the immediate treatment, storage, or 75766
disposal of hazardous waste, the director may issue a temporary 75767
emergency permit to allow the treatment, storage, or disposal of 75768
the hazardous waste at a facility that is not otherwise authorized 75769
by a hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit to 75770
treat, store, or dispose of the waste. The emergency permit shall 75771
not exceed ninety days in duration and shall not be renewed. The 75772
director shall adopt, and may amend, suspend, or rescind, rules in 75773
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code governing the 75774
issuance, modification, revocation, and denial of emergency 75775
permits.75776

       (K) Except for infectious wastes generated by a person who 75777
produces fewer than fifty pounds of infectious wastes at a 75778
premises during any one month, no owner or operator of a sanitary 75779
landfill shall knowingly accept for disposal, or dispose of, any 75780
infectious wastes that have not been treated to render them 75781
noninfectious. 75782

       (L) The director, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 75783
Revised Code, shall adopt, and may amend, suspend, or rescind, 75784
rules having uniform application throughout the state establishing 75785
a training and certification program that shall be required for 75786
employees of boards of health who are responsible for enforcing 75787
the solid waste and infectious waste provisions of this chapter 75788
and rules adopted under them and for persons who are responsible 75789
for the operation of solid waste facilities or infectious waste 75790
treatment facilities. The rules shall provide all of the 75791
following, without limitation:75792

       (1) The program shall be administered by the director and 75793
shall consist of a course on new solid waste and infectious waste 75794
technologies, enforcement procedures, and rules;75795

       (2) The course shall be offered on an annual basis;75796

       (3) Those persons who are required to take the course under 75797
division (L) of this section shall do so triennially;75798

       (4) Persons who successfully complete the course shall be 75799
certified by the director;75800

       (5) Certification shall be required for all employees of 75801
boards of health who are responsible for enforcing the solid waste 75802
or infectious waste provisions of this chapter and rules adopted 75803
under them and for all persons who are responsible for the 75804
operation of solid waste facilities or infectious waste treatment 75805
facilities;75806

       (6)(a) All employees of a board of health who, on the 75807
effective date of the rules adopted under this division, are 75808
responsible for enforcing the solid waste or infectious waste 75809
provisions of this chapter and the rules adopted under them shall 75810
complete the course and be certified by the director not later 75811
than January 1, 1995;75812

       (b) All employees of a board of health who, after the 75813
effective date of the rules adopted under division (L) of this 75814
section, become responsible for enforcing the solid waste or 75815
infectious waste provisions of this chapter and rules adopted 75816
under them and who do not hold a current and valid certification 75817
from the director at that time shall complete the course and be 75818
certified by the director within two years after becoming 75819
responsible for performing those activities.75820

       No person shall fail to obtain the certification required 75821
under this division.75822

       (M) The director shall not issue a permit under section 75823
3734.05 of the Revised Code to establish a solid waste facility, 75824
or to modify a solid waste facility operating on December 21, 75825
1988, in a manner that expands the disposal capacity or geographic 75826
area covered by the facility, that is or is to be located within 75827
the boundaries of a state park established or dedicated under 75828
Chapter 1541. of the Revised Code, a state park purchase area 75829
established under section 1541.02 of the Revised Code, any unit of 75830
the national park system, or any property that lies within the 75831
boundaries of a national park or recreation area, but that has not 75832
been acquired or is not administered by the secretary of the 75833
United States department of the interior, located in this state, 75834
or any candidate area located in this state and identified for 75835
potential inclusion in the national park system in the edition of 75836
the "national park system plan" submitted under paragraph (b) of 75837
section 8 of "The Act of August 18, 1970," 84 Stat. 825, 16 75838
U.S.C.A. 1a-5, as amended, current at the time of filing of the 75839
application for the permit, unless the facility or proposed 75840
facility is or is to be used exclusively for the disposal of solid 75841
wastes generated within the park or recreation area and the 75842
director determines that the facility or proposed facility will 75843
not degrade any of the natural or cultural resources of the park 75844
or recreation area. The director shall not issue a variance under 75845
division (A) of this section and rules adopted under it, or issue 75846
an exemption order under division (G) of this section, that would 75847
authorize any such establishment or expansion of a solid waste 75848
facility within the boundaries of any such park or recreation 75849
area, state park purchase area, or candidate area, other than a 75850
solid waste facility exclusively for the disposal of solid wastes 75851
generated within the park or recreation area when the director 75852
determines that the facility will not degrade any of the natural 75853
or cultural resources of the park or recreation area.75854

       (N)(1) The rules adopted under division (A) of this section, 75855
other than those governing variances, do not apply to scrap tire 75856
collection, storage, monocell, monofill, and recovery facilities. 75857
Those facilities are subject to and governed by rules adopted 75858
under sections 3734.70 to 3734.73 of the Revised Code, as 75859
applicable.75860

       (2) Division (C) of this section does not apply to scrap tire 75861
collection, storage, monocell, monofill, and recovery facilities. 75862
The establishment and modification of those facilities are subject 75863
to sections 3734.75 to 3734.78 and section 3734.81 of the Revised 75864
Code, as applicable.75865

       (3) The director may adopt, amend, suspend, or rescind rules 75866
under division (A) of this section creating an alternative system 75867
for authorizing the establishment, operation, or modification of a 75868
solid waste compost facility in lieu of the requirement that a 75869
person seeking to establish, operate, or modify a solid waste 75870
compost facility apply for and receive a permit under division (C) 75871
of this section and section 3734.05 of the Revised Code and a 75872
license under division (A)(1) of that section. The rules may 75873
include requirements governing, without limitation, the 75874
classification of solid waste compost facilities, the submittal of 75875
operating records for solid waste compost facilities, and the 75876
creation of a registration or notification system in lieu of the 75877
issuance of permits and licenses for solid waste compost 75878
facilities. The rules shall specify the applicability of divisions 75879
(A)(1), (2)(a), (3), and (4) of section 3734.05 of the Revised 75880
Code to a solid waste compost facility.75881

       (O)(1) As used in this division, "secondary aluminum waste" 75882
means waste material or byproducts, when disposed of, containing 75883
aluminum generated from secondary aluminum smelting operations and 75884
consisting of dross, salt cake, baghouse dust associated with 75885
aluminum recycling furnace operations, or dry-milled wastes.75886

       (2) The owner or operator of a sanitary landfill shall not 75887
dispose of municipal solid waste that has been commingled with 75888
secondary aluminum waste.75889

        (3) The owner or operator of a sanitary landfill may dispose 75890
of secondary aluminum waste, but only in a monocell or monofill 75891
that has been permitted for that purpose in accordance with this 75892
chapter and rules adopted under it.75893

       (P)(1) As used in divisions (P) and (Q) of this section:75894

       (a) "Natural background" means two picocuries per gram or the 75895
actual number of picocuries per gram as measured at an individual 75896
solid waste facility, subject to verification by the director of 75897
health. 75898

       (b) "Drilling operation" includes a production operation as 75899
defined in section 1509.01 of the Revised Code.75900

       (2) The owner or operator of a solid waste facility shall not 75901
accept for transfer or disposal technologically enhanced naturally 75902
occurring radioactive material if that material contains or is 75903
contaminated with radium-226, radium-228, or any combination of 75904
radium-226 and radium-228 at concentrations equal to or greater 75905
than five picocuries per gram above natural background.75906

       (3) The owner or operator of a solid waste facility may 75907
receive and process for purposes other than transfer or disposal 75908
technologically enhanced naturally occurring radioactive material 75909
that contains or is contaminated with radium-226, radium-228, or 75910
any combination of radium-226 and radium-228 at concentrations 75911
equal to or greater than five picocuries per gram above natural 75912
background, provided that the owner or operator has obtained and 75913
maintains all other necessary authorizations, including any 75914
authorization required by rules adopted by the director of health 75915
under section 3748.04 of the Revised Code.75916

       (4) The director of environmental protection may adopt rules 75917
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code governing the 75918
receipt, acceptance, processing, handling, management, and 75919
disposal by solid waste facilities of material that contains or is 75920
contaminated with radioactive material, including, without 75921
limitation, technologically enhanced naturally occurring 75922
radioactive material that contains or is contaminated with 75923
radium-226, radium-228, or any combination of radium-226 and 75924
radium-228 at concentrations less than five picocuries per gram 75925
above natural background. Rules adopted by the director may 75926
include at a minimum both of the following:75927

       (a) Requirements in accordance with which the owner or 75928
operator of a solid waste facility must monitor leachate and 75929
ground water for radium-226, radium-228, and other radionuclides;75930

       (b) Requirements in accordance with which the owner or 75931
operator of a solid waste facility must develop procedures to 75932
ensure that technologically enhanced naturally occurring 75933
radioactive material accepted at the facility neither contains nor 75934
is contaminated with radium-226, radium-228, or any combination of 75935
radium-226 and radium-228 at concentrations equal to or greater 75936
than five picocuries per gram above natural background.75937

       (Q) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, the 75938
owner or operator of a solid waste facility shall not receive, 75939
accept, process, handle, manage, or dispose of technologically 75940
enhanced naturally occurring radioactive material associated with 75941
drilling operations without first obtaining representative 75942
analytical results to determine compliance with divisions (P)(2) 75943
and (3) of this section and rules adopted under it.75944

       Sec. 3734.125.  The director of environmental protection may 75945
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 75946
establishing requirements governing the beneficial use of material 75947
from a horizontal well that has come in contact with a refined 75948
oil-based substance and that is not technologically enhanced 75949
naturally occurring radioactive material.75950

       Sec. 3734.28.  Except as otherwise provided in sections 75951
3734.281 and 3734.282 of the Revised Code, moneys collected under 75952
sections 3734.122, 3734.13, 3734.20, 3734.22, 3734.24, and 3734.26 75953
of the Revised Code and under the "Comprehensive Environmental 75954
Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980," 94 Stat. 2767, 75955
42 U.S.C.A. 9601, et seq., as amended, including moneys recovered 75956
under division (B)(1) of this section, shall be paid into the 75957
state treasury to the credit of the hazardous waste clean-up fund, 75958
which is hereby created. In addition, both of the following shall 75959
be credited to the fund:75960

       (A) Moneys recovered for costs paid from the fund for 75961
activities described in divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 75962
3745.12 of the Revised Code;75963

       (B) Natural resource damage assessment costs recovered under 75964
any of the following:75965

       (1) The "Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, 75966
and Liability Act of 1980," 94 Stat. 2767, 42 U.S.C. 9601, et 75967
seq., as amended;75968

       (2) The "Oil Pollution Act of 1990," 104 Stat. 484, 33 U.S.C. 75969
2701, et seq., as amended;75970

       (3) The Federal Water Pollution Control Act as defined in 75971
section 6111.01 of the Revised Code"Clean Water Act of 1977," 91 75972
Stat. 1566, 33 U.S.C. 1321, et seq., as amended;75973

       (4) Any other applicable federal or state law. 75974

       The environmental protection agency shall use the moneys in 75975
the fund for the purposes set forth in division (D) of section 75976
3734.122, sections 3734.19, 3734.20, 3734.21, 3734.23, 3734.25, 75977
3734.26, and 3734.27, divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 3745.12, 75978
and Chapter 3746. of the Revised Code, including any related 75979
enforcement expenses and administrative expenses of any related 75980
closure or corrective action program. In addition, the agency 75981
shall use the moneys in the fund to pay the state's long-term 75982
operation and maintenance costs or matching share for actions 75983
taken under the "Comprehensive Environmental Response, 75984
Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980," as amended. If those 75985
moneys are reimbursed by grants or other moneys from the United 75986
States or any other person, the moneys shall be placed in the fund 75987
and not in the general revenue fund.75988

       The director of environmental protection may enter into 75989
contracts and grant agreements with federal, state, or local 75990
government agencies, nonprofit organizations, and colleges and 75991
universities for the purpose of carrying out the responsibilities 75992
of the environmental protection agency for which money may be 75993
expended from the fund.75994

       Sec. 3734.57.  (A) The following fees are hereby levied on 75995
the transfer or disposal of solid wastes in this state:75996

       (1) One dollar per ton through June 30, 20142016, one-half75997
thirty per cent of the proceeds of which shall be deposited in the 75998
state treasury to the credit of the hazardous waste facility 75999
management fund created in section 3734.18 of the Revised Code and 76000
one-halfseventy per cent of the proceeds of which shall be 76001
deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the hazardous 76002
waste clean-up fund created in section 3734.28 of the Revised 76003
Code;76004

       (2) An additional one dollar per ton through June 30, 201476005
2016, the proceeds of which shall be deposited in the state 76006
treasury to the credit of the solid waste fund, which is hereby 76007
created. The environmental protection agency shall use money in 76008
the solid waste fund to pay the costs of administering and 76009
enforcing the laws pertaining to solid wastes, infectious wastes, 76010
and construction and demolition debris, including, without 76011
limitation, ground water evaluations related to solid wastes, 76012
infectious wastes, and construction and demolition debris, under 76013
this chapter and Chapter 3714. of the Revised Code and any rules 76014
adopted under them, providing compliance assistance to small 76015
businesses, and paying a share of the administrative costs of the 76016
environmental protection agency pursuant to section 3745.014 of 76017
the Revised Code.76018

        (3) An additional two dollars and fifty cents per ton through 76019
June 30, 20142016, the proceeds of which shall be deposited in 76020
the state treasury to the credit of the environmental protection 76021
fund created in section 3745.015 of the Revised Code;76022

       (4) An additional twenty-five cents per ton through June 30, 76023
20132016, the proceeds of which shall be deposited in the state 76024
treasury to the credit of the soil and water conservation district 76025
assistance fund created in section 1515.14 of the Revised Code.76026

       In the case of solid wastes that are taken to a solid waste 76027
transfer facility located in this state prior to being transported 76028
for disposal at a solid waste disposal facility located in this 76029
state or outside of this state, the fees levied under this 76030
division shall be collected by the owner or operator of the 76031
transfer facility as a trustee for the state. The amount of fees 76032
required to be collected under this division at such a transfer 76033
facility shall equal the total tonnage of solid wastes received at 76034
the facility multiplied by the fees levied under this division. In 76035
the case of solid wastes that are not taken to a solid waste 76036
transfer facility located in this state prior to being transported 76037
to a solid waste disposal facility, the fees shall be collected by 76038
the owner or operator of the solid waste disposal facility as a 76039
trustee for the state. The amount of fees required to be collected 76040
under this division at such a disposal facility shall equal the 76041
total tonnage of solid wastes received at the facility that was 76042
not previously taken to a solid waste transfer facility located in 76043
this state multiplied by the fees levied under this division. Fees 76044
levied under this division do not apply to materials separated 76045
from a mixed waste stream for recycling by a generator or 76046
materials removed from the solid waste stream through recycling, 76047
as "recycling" is defined in rules adopted under section 3734.02 76048
of the Revised Code.76049

       The owner or operator of a solid waste transfer facility or 76050
disposal facility, as applicable, shall prepare and file with the 76051
director of environmental protection each month a return 76052
indicating the total tonnage of solid wastes received at the 76053
facility during that month and the total amount of the fees 76054
required to be collected under this division during that month. In 76055
addition, the owner or operator of a solid waste disposal facility 76056
shall indicate on the return the total tonnage of solid wastes 76057
received from transfer facilities located in this state during 76058
that month for which the fees were required to be collected by the 76059
transfer facilities. The monthly returns shall be filed on a form 76060
prescribed by the director. Not later than thirty days after the 76061
last day of the month to which a return applies, the owner or 76062
operator shall mail to the director the return for that month 76063
together with the fees required to be collected under this 76064
division during that month as indicated on the return or may 76065
submit the return and fees electronically in a manner approved by 76066
the director. If the return is filed and the amount of the fees 76067
due is paid in a timely manner as required in this division, the 76068
owner or operator may retain a discount of three-fourths of one 76069
per cent of the total amount of the fees that are required to be 76070
paid as indicated on the return.76071

        The owner or operator may request an extension of not more 76072
than thirty days for filing the return and remitting the fees, 76073
provided that the owner or operator has submitted such a request 76074
in writing to the director together with a detailed description of 76075
why the extension is requested, the director has received the 76076
request not later than the day on which the return is required to 76077
be filed, and the director has approved the request. If the fees 76078
are not remitted within thirty days after the last day of the 76079
month to which the return applies or are not remitted by the last 76080
day of an extension approved by the director, the owner or 76081
operator shall not retain the three-fourths of one per cent 76082
discount and shall pay an additional ten per cent of the amount of 76083
the fees for each month that they are late. For purposes of 76084
calculating the late fee, the first month in which fees are late 76085
begins on the first day after the deadline has passed for timely 76086
submitting the return and fees, and one additional month shall be 76087
counted every thirty days thereafter.76088

       The owner or operator of a solid waste facility may request a 76089
refund or credit of fees levied under this division and remitted 76090
to the director that have not been paid to the owner or operator. 76091
Such a request shall be made only if the fees have not been 76092
collected by the owner or operator, have become a debt that has 76093
become worthless or uncollectable for a period of six months or 76094
more, and may be claimed as a deduction, including a deduction 76095
claimed if the owner or operator keeps accounts on an accrual 76096
basis, under the "Internal Revenue Code of 1954," 68A Stat. 50, 26 76097
U.S.C. 166, as amended, and regulations adopted under it. Prior to 76098
making a request for a refund or credit, an owner or operator 76099
shall make reasonable efforts to collect the applicable fees. A 76100
request for a refund or credit shall not include any costs 76101
resulting from those efforts to collect unpaid fees.76102

       A request for a refund or credit of fees shall be made in 76103
writing, on a form prescribed by the director, and shall be 76104
supported by evidence that may be required in rules adopted by the 76105
director under this chapter. After reviewing the request, and if 76106
the request and evidence submitted with the request indicate that 76107
a refund or credit is warranted, the director shall grant a refund 76108
to the owner or operator or shall permit a credit to be taken by 76109
the owner or operator on a subsequent monthly return submitted by 76110
the owner or operator. The amount of a refund or credit shall not 76111
exceed an amount that is equal to ninety days' worth of fees owed 76112
to an owner or operator by a particular debtor of the owner or 76113
operator. A refund or credit shall not be granted by the director 76114
to an owner or operator more than once in any twelve-month period 76115
for fees owed to the owner or operator by a particular debtor.76116

       If, after receiving a refund or credit from the director, an 76117
owner or operator receives payment of all or part of the fees, the 76118
owner or operator shall remit the fees with the next monthly 76119
return submitted to the director together with a written 76120
explanation of the reason for the submittal.76121

        For purposes of computing the fees levied under this division 76122
or division (B) of this section, any solid waste transfer or 76123
disposal facility that does not use scales as a means of 76124
determining gate receipts shall use a conversion factor of three 76125
cubic yards per ton of solid waste or one cubic yard per ton for 76126
baled waste, as applicable.76127

       The fees levied under this division and divisions (B) and (C) 76128
of this section are in addition to all other applicable fees and 76129
taxes and shall be paid by the customer or a political subdivision 76130
to the owner or operator of a solid waste transfer or disposal 76131
facility. In the alternative, the fees shall be paid by a customer 76132
or political subdivision to a transporter of waste who 76133
subsequently transfers the fees to the owner or operator of such a 76134
facility. The fees shall be paid notwithstanding the existence of 76135
any provision in a contract that the customer or a political 76136
subdivision may have with the owner or operator or with a 76137
transporter of waste to the facility that would not require or 76138
allow such payment regardless of whether the contract was entered 76139
prior to or after October 16, 2009. For those purposes, "customer" 76140
means a person who contracts with, or utilizes the solid waste 76141
services of, the owner or operator of a solid waste transfer or 76142
disposal facility or a transporter of solid waste to such a 76143
facility.76144

       (B) For the purposes specified in division (G) of this 76145
section, the solid waste management policy committee of a county 76146
or joint solid waste management district may levy fees upon the 76147
following activities:76148

       (1) The disposal at a solid waste disposal facility located 76149
in the district of solid wastes generated within the district;76150

       (2) The disposal at a solid waste disposal facility within 76151
the district of solid wastes generated outside the boundaries of 76152
the district, but inside this state;76153

       (3) The disposal at a solid waste disposal facility within 76154
the district of solid wastes generated outside the boundaries of 76155
this state.76156

        The solid waste management plan of the county or joint 76157
district approved under section 3734.521 or 3734.55 of the Revised 76158
Code and any amendments to it, or the resolution adopted under 76159
this division, as appropriate, shall establish the rates of the 76160
fees levied under divisions (B)(1), (2), and (3) of this section, 76161
if any, and shall specify whether the fees are levied on the basis 76162
of tons or cubic yards as the unit of measurement. A solid waste 76163
management district that levies fees under this division on the 76164
basis of cubic yards shall do so in accordance with division (A) 76165
of this section.76166

        The fee levied under division (B)(1) of this section shall be 76167
not less than one dollar per ton nor more than two dollars per 76168
ton, the fee levied under division (B)(2) of this section shall be 76169
not less than two dollars per ton nor more than four dollars per 76170
ton, and the fee levied under division (B)(3) of this section 76171
shall be not more than the fee levied under division (B)(1) of 76172
this section.76173

       Prior to the approval of the solid waste management plan of a 76174
district under section 3734.55 of the Revised Code, the solid 76175
waste management policy committee of a district may levy fees 76176
under this division by adopting a resolution establishing the 76177
proposed amount of the fees. Upon adopting the resolution, the 76178
committee shall deliver a copy of the resolution to the board of 76179
county commissioners of each county forming the district and to 76180
the legislative authority of each municipal corporation and 76181
township under the jurisdiction of the district and shall prepare 76182
and publish the resolution and a notice of the time and location 76183
where a public hearing on the fees will be held. Upon adopting the 76184
resolution, the committee shall deliver written notice of the 76185
adoption of the resolution; of the amount of the proposed fees; 76186
and of the date, time, and location of the public hearing to the 76187
director and to the fifty industrial, commercial, or institutional 76188
generators of solid wastes within the district that generate the 76189
largest quantities of solid wastes, as determined by the 76190
committee, and to their local trade associations. The committee 76191
shall make good faith efforts to identify those generators within 76192
the district and their local trade associations, but the 76193
nonprovision of notice under this division to a particular 76194
generator or local trade association does not invalidate the 76195
proceedings under this division. The publication shall occur at 76196
least thirty days before the hearing. After the hearing, the 76197
committee may make such revisions to the proposed fees as it 76198
considers appropriate and thereafter, by resolution, shall adopt 76199
the revised fee schedule. Upon adopting the revised fee schedule, 76200
the committee shall deliver a copy of the resolution doing so to 76201
the board of county commissioners of each county forming the 76202
district and to the legislative authority of each municipal 76203
corporation and township under the jurisdiction of the district. 76204
Within sixty days after the delivery of a copy of the resolution 76205
adopting the proposed revised fees by the policy committee, each 76206
such board and legislative authority, by ordinance or resolution, 76207
shall approve or disapprove the revised fees and deliver a copy of 76208
the ordinance or resolution to the committee. If any such board or 76209
legislative authority fails to adopt and deliver to the policy 76210
committee an ordinance or resolution approving or disapproving the 76211
revised fees within sixty days after the policy committee 76212
delivered its resolution adopting the proposed revised fees, it 76213
shall be conclusively presumed that the board or legislative 76214
authority has approved the proposed revised fees. The committee 76215
shall determine if the resolution has been ratified in the same 76216
manner in which it determines if a draft solid waste management 76217
plan has been ratified under division (B) of section 3734.55 of 76218
the Revised Code.76219

       The committee may amend the schedule of fees levied pursuant 76220
to a resolution adopted and ratified under this division by 76221
adopting a resolution establishing the proposed amount of the 76222
amended fees. The committee may repeal the fees levied pursuant to 76223
such a resolution by adopting a resolution proposing to repeal 76224
them. Upon adopting such a resolution, the committee shall proceed 76225
to obtain ratification of the resolution in accordance with this 76226
division.76227

       Not later than fourteen days after declaring the new fees to 76228
be ratified or the fees to be repealed under this division, the 76229
committee shall notify by certified mail the owner or operator of 76230
each solid waste disposal facility that is required to collect the 76231
fees of the ratification and the amount of the fees or of the 76232
repeal of the fees. Collection of any fees shall commence or 76233
collection of repealed fees shall cease on the first day of the 76234
second month following the month in which notification is sent to 76235
the owner or operator.76236

       Fees levied under this division also may be established, 76237
amended, or repealed by a solid waste management policy committee 76238
through the adoption of a new district solid waste management 76239
plan, the adoption of an amended plan, or the amendment of the 76240
plan or amended plan in accordance with sections 3734.55 and 76241
3734.56 of the Revised Code or the adoption or amendment of a 76242
district plan in connection with a change in district composition 76243
under section 3734.521 of the Revised Code.76244

       Not later than fourteen days after the director issues an 76245
order approving a district's solid waste management plan, amended 76246
plan, or amendment to a plan or amended plan that establishes, 76247
amends, or repeals a schedule of fees levied by the district, the 76248
committee shall notify by certified mail the owner or operator of 76249
each solid waste disposal facility that is required to collect the 76250
fees of the approval of the plan or amended plan, or the amendment 76251
to the plan, as appropriate, and the amount of the fees, if any. 76252
In the case of an initial or amended plan approved under section 76253
3734.521 of the Revised Code in connection with a change in 76254
district composition, other than one involving the withdrawal of a 76255
county from a joint district, the committee, within fourteen days 76256
after the change takes effect pursuant to division (G) of that 76257
section, shall notify by certified mail the owner or operator of 76258
each solid waste disposal facility that is required to collect the 76259
fees that the change has taken effect and of the amount of the 76260
fees, if any. Collection of any fees shall commence or collection 76261
of repealed fees shall cease on the first day of the second month 76262
following the month in which notification is sent to the owner or 76263
operator.76264

       If, in the case of a change in district composition involving 76265
the withdrawal of a county from a joint district, the director 76266
completes the actions required under division (G)(1) or (3) of 76267
section 3734.521 of the Revised Code, as appropriate, forty-five 76268
days or more before the beginning of a calendar year, the policy 76269
committee of each of the districts resulting from the change that 76270
obtained the director's approval of an initial or amended plan in 76271
connection with the change, within fourteen days after the 76272
director's completion of the required actions, shall notify by 76273
certified mail the owner or operator of each solid waste disposal 76274
facility that is required to collect the district's fees that the 76275
change is to take effect on the first day of January immediately 76276
following the issuance of the notice and of the amount of the fees 76277
or amended fees levied under divisions (B)(1) to (3) of this 76278
section pursuant to the district's initial or amended plan as so 76279
approved or, if appropriate, the repeal of the district's fees by 76280
that initial or amended plan. Collection of any fees set forth in 76281
such a plan or amended plan shall commence on the first day of 76282
January immediately following the issuance of the notice. If such 76283
an initial or amended plan repeals a schedule of fees, collection 76284
of the fees shall cease on that first day of January.76285

       If, in the case of a change in district composition involving 76286
the withdrawal of a county from a joint district, the director 76287
completes the actions required under division (G)(1) or (3) of 76288
section 3734.521 of the Revised Code, as appropriate, less than 76289
forty-five days before the beginning of a calendar year, the 76290
director, on behalf of each of the districts resulting from the 76291
change that obtained the director's approval of an initial or 76292
amended plan in connection with the change proceedings, shall 76293
notify by certified mail the owner or operator of each solid waste 76294
disposal facility that is required to collect the district's fees 76295
that the change is to take effect on the first day of January 76296
immediately following the mailing of the notice and of the amount 76297
of the fees or amended fees levied under divisions (B)(1) to (3) 76298
of this section pursuant to the district's initial or amended plan 76299
as so approved or, if appropriate, the repeal of the district's 76300
fees by that initial or amended plan. Collection of any fees set 76301
forth in such a plan or amended plan shall commence on the first 76302
day of the second month following the month in which notification 76303
is sent to the owner or operator. If such an initial or amended 76304
plan repeals a schedule of fees, collection of the fees shall 76305
cease on the first day of the second month following the month in 76306
which notification is sent to the owner or operator.76307

        If the schedule of fees that a solid waste management 76308
district is levying under divisions (B)(1) to (3) of this section 76309
is amended or repealed, the fees in effect immediately prior to 76310
the amendment or repeal shall continue to be collected until 76311
collection of the amended fees commences or collection of the 76312
repealed fees ceases, as applicable, as specified in this 76313
division. In the case of a change in district composition, money 76314
so received from the collection of the fees of the former 76315
districts shall be divided among the resulting districts in 76316
accordance with division (B) of section 343.012 of the Revised 76317
Code and the agreements entered into under division (B) of section 76318
343.01 of the Revised Code to establish the former and resulting 76319
districts and any amendments to those agreements.76320

       For the purposes of the provisions of division (B) of this 76321
section establishing the times when newly established or amended 76322
fees levied by a district are required to commence and the 76323
collection of fees that have been amended or repealed is required 76324
to cease, "fees" or "schedule of fees" includes, in addition to 76325
fees levied under divisions (B)(1) to (3) of this section, those 76326
levied under section 3734.573 or 3734.574 of the Revised Code.76327

       (C) For the purposes of defraying the added costs to a 76328
municipal corporation or township of maintaining roads and other 76329
public facilities and of providing emergency and other public 76330
services, and compensating a municipal corporation or township for 76331
reductions in real property tax revenues due to reductions in real 76332
property valuations resulting from the location and operation of a 76333
solid waste disposal facility within the municipal corporation or 76334
township, a municipal corporation or township in which such a 76335
solid waste disposal facility is located may levy a fee of not 76336
more than twenty-five cents per ton on the disposal of solid 76337
wastes at a solid waste disposal facility located within the 76338
boundaries of the municipal corporation or township regardless of 76339
where the wastes were generated.76340

       The legislative authority of a municipal corporation or 76341
township may levy fees under this division by enacting an 76342
ordinance or adopting a resolution establishing the amount of the 76343
fees. Upon so doing the legislative authority shall mail a 76344
certified copy of the ordinance or resolution to the board of 76345
county commissioners or directors of the county or joint solid 76346
waste management district in which the municipal corporation or 76347
township is located or, if a regional solid waste management 76348
authority has been formed under section 343.011 of the Revised 76349
Code, to the board of trustees of that regional authority, the 76350
owner or operator of each solid waste disposal facility in the 76351
municipal corporation or township that is required to collect the 76352
fee by the ordinance or resolution, and the director of 76353
environmental protection. Although the fees levied under this 76354
division are levied on the basis of tons as the unit of 76355
measurement, the legislative authority, in its ordinance or 76356
resolution levying the fees under this division, may direct that 76357
the fees be levied on the basis of cubic yards as the unit of 76358
measurement based upon a conversion factor of three cubic yards 76359
per ton generally or one cubic yard per ton for baled wastes.76360

       Not later than five days after enacting an ordinance or 76361
adopting a resolution under this division, the legislative 76362
authority shall so notify by certified mail the owner or operator 76363
of each solid waste disposal facility that is required to collect 76364
the fee. Collection of any fee levied on or after March 24, 1992, 76365
shall commence on the first day of the second month following the 76366
month in which notification is sent to the owner or operator.76367

       (D)(1) The fees levied under divisions (A), (B), and (C) of 76368
this section do not apply to the disposal of solid wastes that:76369

       (a) Are disposed of at a facility owned by the generator of 76370
the wastes when the solid waste facility exclusively disposes of 76371
solid wastes generated at one or more premises owned by the 76372
generator regardless of whether the facility is located on a 76373
premises where the wastes are generated;76374

       (b) Are generated from the combustion of coal, or from the 76375
combustion of primarily coal, regardless of whether the disposal 76376
facility is located on the premises where the wastes are 76377
generated;76378

       (c) Are asbestos or asbestos-containing materials or products 76379
disposed of at a construction and demolition debris facility that 76380
is licensed under Chapter 3714. of the Revised Code or at a solid 76381
waste facility that is licensed under this chapter.76382

       (2) Except as provided in section 3734.571 of the Revised 76383
Code, any fees levied under division (B)(1) of this section apply 76384
to solid wastes originating outside the boundaries of a county or 76385
joint district that are covered by an agreement for the joint use 76386
of solid waste facilities entered into under section 343.02 of the 76387
Revised Code by the board of county commissioners or board of 76388
directors of the county or joint district where the wastes are 76389
generated and disposed of.76390

       (3) When solid wastes, other than solid wastes that consist 76391
of scrap tires, are burned in a disposal facility that is an 76392
incinerator or energy recovery facility, the fees levied under 76393
divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this section shall be levied upon 76394
the disposal of the fly ash and bottom ash remaining after burning 76395
of the solid wastes and shall be collected by the owner or 76396
operator of the sanitary landfill where the ash is disposed of.76397

       (4) When solid wastes are delivered to a solid waste transfer 76398
facility, the fees levied under divisions (B) and (C) of this 76399
section shall be levied upon the disposal of solid wastes 76400
transported off the premises of the transfer facility for disposal 76401
and shall be collected by the owner or operator of the solid waste 76402
disposal facility where the wastes are disposed of.76403

       (5) The fees levied under divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this 76404
section do not apply to sewage sludge that is generated by a waste 76405
water treatment facility holding a national pollutant discharge 76406
elimination system permit and that is disposed of through 76407
incineration, land application, or composting or at another 76408
resource recovery or disposal facility that is not a landfill.76409

       (6) The fees levied under divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this 76410
section do not apply to solid wastes delivered to a solid waste 76411
composting facility for processing. When any unprocessed solid 76412
waste or compost product is transported off the premises of a 76413
composting facility and disposed of at a landfill, the fees levied 76414
under divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this section shall be 76415
collected by the owner or operator of the landfill where the 76416
unprocessed waste or compost product is disposed of.76417

       (7) When solid wastes that consist of scrap tires are 76418
processed at a scrap tire recovery facility, the fees levied under 76419
divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this section shall be levied upon 76420
the disposal of the fly ash and bottom ash or other solid wastes 76421
remaining after the processing of the scrap tires and shall be 76422
collected by the owner or operator of the solid waste disposal 76423
facility where the ash or other solid wastes are disposed of.76424

       (8) The director of environmental protection may issue an 76425
order exempting from the fees levied under this section solid 76426
wastes, including, but not limited to, scrap tires, that are 76427
generated, transferred, or disposed of as a result of a contract 76428
providing for the expenditure of public funds entered into by the 76429
administrator or regional administrator of the United States 76430
environmental protection agency, the director of environmental 76431
protection, or the director of administrative services on behalf 76432
of the director of environmental protection for the purpose of 76433
remediating conditions at a hazardous waste facility, solid waste 76434
facility, or other location at which the administrator or regional 76435
administrator or the director of environmental protection has 76436
reason to believe that there is a substantial threat to public 76437
health or safety or the environment or that the conditions are 76438
causing or contributing to air or water pollution or soil 76439
contamination. An order issued by the director of environmental 76440
protection under division (D)(8) of this section shall include a 76441
determination that the amount of the fees not received by a solid 76442
waste management district as a result of the order will not 76443
adversely impact the implementation and financing of the 76444
district's approved solid waste management plan and any approved 76445
amendments to the plan. Such an order is a final action of the 76446
director of environmental protection.76447

       (E) The fees levied under divisions (B) and (C) of this 76448
section shall be collected by the owner or operator of the solid 76449
waste disposal facility where the wastes are disposed of as a 76450
trustee for the county or joint district and municipal corporation 76451
or township where the wastes are disposed of. Moneys from the fees 76452
levied under division (B) of this section shall be forwarded to 76453
the board of county commissioners or board of directors of the 76454
district in accordance with rules adopted under division (H) of 76455
this section. Moneys from the fees levied under division (C) of 76456
this section shall be forwarded to the treasurer or such other 76457
officer of the municipal corporation as, by virtue of the charter, 76458
has the duties of the treasurer or to the fiscal officer of the 76459
township, as appropriate, in accordance with those rules.76460

       (F) Moneys received by the treasurer or other officer of the 76461
municipal corporation under division (E) of this section shall be 76462
paid into the general fund of the municipal corporation. Moneys 76463
received by the fiscal officer of the township under that division 76464
shall be paid into the general fund of the township. The treasurer 76465
or other officer of the municipal corporation or the township 76466
fiscal officer, as appropriate, shall maintain separate records of 76467
the moneys received from the fees levied under division (C) of 76468
this section.76469

       (G) Moneys received by the board of county commissioners or 76470
board of directors under division (E) of this section or section 76471
3734.571, 3734.572, 3734.573, or 3734.574 of the Revised Code 76472
shall be paid to the county treasurer, or other official acting in 76473
a similar capacity under a county charter, in a county district or 76474
to the county treasurer or other official designated by the board 76475
of directors in a joint district and kept in a separate and 76476
distinct fund to the credit of the district. If a regional solid 76477
waste management authority has been formed under section 343.011 76478
of the Revised Code, moneys received by the board of trustees of 76479
that regional authority under division (E) of this section shall 76480
be kept by the board in a separate and distinct fund to the credit 76481
of the district. Moneys in the special fund of the county or joint 76482
district arising from the fees levied under division (B) of this 76483
section and the fee levied under division (A) of section 3734.573 76484
of the Revised Code shall be expended by the board of county 76485
commissioners or directors of the district in accordance with the 76486
district's solid waste management plan or amended plan approved 76487
under section 3734.521, 3734.55, or 3734.56 of the Revised Code 76488
exclusively for the following purposes:76489

       (1) Preparation of the solid waste management plan of the 76490
district under section 3734.54 of the Revised Code, monitoring 76491
implementation of the plan, and conducting the periodic review and 76492
amendment of the plan required by section 3734.56 of the Revised 76493
Code by the solid waste management policy committee;76494

       (2) Implementation of the approved solid waste management 76495
plan or amended plan of the district, including, without 76496
limitation, the development and implementation of solid waste 76497
recycling or reduction programs;76498

       (3) Providing financial assistance to boards of health within 76499
the district, if solid waste facilities are located within the 76500
district, for enforcement of this chapter and rules, orders, and 76501
terms and conditions of permits, licenses, and variances adopted 76502
or issued under it, other than the hazardous waste provisions of 76503
this chapter and rules adopted and orders and terms and conditions 76504
of permits issued under those provisions;76505

       (4) Providing financial assistance to each county within the 76506
district to defray the added costs of maintaining roads and other 76507
public facilities and of providing emergency and other public 76508
services resulting from the location and operation of a solid 76509
waste facility within the county under the district's approved 76510
solid waste management plan or amended plan;76511

       (5) Pursuant to contracts entered into with boards of health 76512
within the district, if solid waste facilities contained in the 76513
district's approved plan or amended plan are located within the 76514
district, for paying the costs incurred by those boards of health 76515
for collecting and analyzing samples from public or private water 76516
wells on lands adjacent to those facilities;76517

       (6) Developing and implementing a program for the inspection 76518
of solid wastes generated outside the boundaries of this state 76519
that are disposed of at solid waste facilities included in the 76520
district's approved solid waste management plan or amended plan;76521

       (7) Providing financial assistance to boards of health within 76522
the district for the enforcement of section 3734.03 of the Revised 76523
Code or to local law enforcement agencies having jurisdiction 76524
within the district for enforcing anti-littering laws and 76525
ordinances;76526

       (8) Providing financial assistance to boards of health of 76527
health districts within the district that are on the approved list 76528
under section 3734.08 of the Revised Code to defray the costs to 76529
the health districts for the participation of their employees 76530
responsible for enforcement of the solid waste provisions of this 76531
chapter and rules adopted and orders and terms and conditions of 76532
permits, licenses, and variances issued under those provisions in 76533
the training and certification program as required by rules 76534
adopted under division (L) of section 3734.02 of the Revised Code;76535

       (9) Providing financial assistance to individual municipal 76536
corporations and townships within the district to defray their 76537
added costs of maintaining roads and other public facilities and 76538
of providing emergency and other public services resulting from 76539
the location and operation within their boundaries of a 76540
composting, energy or resource recovery, incineration, or 76541
recycling facility that either is owned by the district or is 76542
furnishing solid waste management facility or recycling services 76543
to the district pursuant to a contract or agreement with the board 76544
of county commissioners or directors of the district;76545

       (10) Payment of any expenses that are agreed to, awarded, or 76546
ordered to be paid under section 3734.35 of the Revised Code and 76547
of any administrative costs incurred pursuant to that section. In 76548
the case of a joint solid waste management district, if the board 76549
of county commissioners of one of the counties in the district is 76550
negotiating on behalf of affected communities, as defined in that 76551
section, in that county, the board shall obtain the approval of 76552
the board of directors of the district in order to expend moneys 76553
for administrative costs incurred.76554

       Prior to the approval of the district's solid waste 76555
management plan under section 3734.55 of the Revised Code, moneys 76556
in the special fund of the district arising from the fees shall be 76557
expended for those purposes in the manner prescribed by the solid 76558
waste management policy committee by resolution.76559

       Notwithstanding division (G)(6) of this section as it existed 76560
prior to October 29, 1993, or any provision in a district's solid 76561
waste management plan prepared in accordance with division 76562
(B)(2)(e) of section 3734.53 of the Revised Code as it existed 76563
prior to that date, any moneys arising from the fees levied under 76564
division (B)(3) of this section prior to January 1, 1994, may be 76565
expended for any of the purposes authorized in divisions (G)(1) to 76566
(10) of this section.76567

       (H) The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 76568
119. of the Revised Code prescribing procedures for collecting and 76569
forwarding the fees levied under divisions (B) and (C) of this 76570
section to the boards of county commissioners or directors of 76571
county or joint solid waste management districts and to the 76572
treasurers or other officers of municipal corporations and the 76573
fiscal officers of townships. The rules also shall prescribe the 76574
dates for forwarding the fees to the boards and officials and may 76575
prescribe any other requirements the director considers necessary 76576
or appropriate to implement and administer divisions (A), (B), and 76577
(C) of this section.76578

       Sec. 3734.901.  (A)(1) For the purpose of providing revenue 76579
to defray the cost of administering and enforcing the scrap tire 76580
provisions of this chapter, rules adopted under those provisions, 76581
and terms and conditions of orders, variances, and licenses issued 76582
under those provisions; to abate accumulations of scrap tires; to 76583
make grants supporting market development activities for scrap 76584
tires and synthetic rubber from tire manufacturing processes and 76585
tire recycling processes and to support scrap tire amnesty and 76586
cleanup events; to make loans to promote the recycling or recovery 76587
of energy from scrap tires; and to defray the costs of 76588
administering and enforcing sections 3734.90 to 3734.9014 of the 76589
Revised Code, a fee of fifty cents per tire is hereby levied on 76590
the sale of tires. The proceeds of the fee shall be deposited in 76591
the state treasury to the credit of the scrap tire management fund 76592
created in section 3734.82 of the Revised Code. The fee is levied 76593
from the first day of the calendar month that begins next after 76594
thirty days from October 29, 1993, through June 30, 20132016.76595

       (2) Beginning on July 1, 2011, and ending on June 30, 201376596
2016, there is hereby levied an additional fee of fifty cents per 76597
tire on the sale of tires the proceeds of which shall be deposited 76598
in the state treasury to the credit of the soil and water 76599
conservation district assistance fund created in section 1515.14 76600
of the Revised Code.76601

       (B) Only one sale of the same article shall be used in 76602
computing the amount of the fee due.76603

       Sec. 3734.907.  (A) Any person required to pay the fee 76604
imposed by section 3734.901 of the Revised Code is personally 76605
liable for the fee. The tax commissioner may make an assessment, 76606
based upon any information in the commissioner's possession, 76607
against any person who fails to file a return or pay any fee, 76608
interest, or additional charge as required by sections 3734.90 to 76609
3734.9014 of the Revised Code. The commissioner shall give the 76610
person assessed written notice of the assessment in the manner 76611
provided in section 5703.37 of the Revised Code. With the notice, 76612
the commissioner shall provide instructions on how to petition for 76613
reassessment and request a hearing on the petition.76614

       (B) When the information in the possession of the tax 76615
commissioner indicates that a person liable for the fee imposed by 76616
section 3734.901 of the Revised Code has not paid the full amount 76617
of fee due, the commissioner may audit a representative sample of 76618
the person's business and may issue an assessment based on the 76619
audit.76620

       (C) A penalty of up to fifteen per cent may be added to all 76621
amounts assessed under this section. The commissioner may adopt 76622
rules providing for the imposition and remission of the penalties.76623

       (D) Unless the person assessed files with the tax 76624
commissioner within sixty days after service of the notice of 76625
assessment, either personally or by certified mail, a written 76626
petition for reassessment signed by the person assessed or that 76627
person's authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the 76628
assessment becomes final and the amount of the assessment is due 76629
and payable from the person assessed to the treasurer of state. 76630
The petition shall indicate the objections of the person assessed, 76631
but additional objections may be raised in writing if received by 76632
the commissioner prior to the date shown on the final 76633
determination. If the petition has been properly filed, the 76634
commissioner shall proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised 76635
Code.76636

       (E) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 76637
assessment, including accrued interest, remains unpaid, a 76638
certified copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the 76639
assessment final may be filed in the office of the clerk of the 76640
court of common pleas in the county in which the person assessed 76641
resides or in which the person's business is conducted. If the 76642
person assessed maintains no place of business in this state and 76643
is not a resident of this state, the certified copy of the entry 76644
may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common 76645
pleas of Franklin county.76646

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 76647
enter a judgment for the state against the person assessed in the 76648
amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk 76649
in a loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for state tire 76650
fee," and shall have the same effect as other judgments. Execution 76651
shall issue upon the judgment upon the request of the tax 76652
commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales on execution shall 76653
apply to sales made under the judgment.76654

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety76655
within sixty days after the day the assessment was issued, the 76656
portion of the assessment consisting of the fee due shall bear 76657
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 76658
the Revised Code from the day the commissioner issues the 76659
assessment until the day the assessment is paid or until it is 76660
certified to the attorney general for collection under section 76661
131.02 of the Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid 76662
portion of the assessment is certified to the attorney general for 76663
collection, the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear 76664
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 76665
the Revised Code from the date of certification until the date it 76666
is paid in its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner 76667
as the fee and may be collected by the issuance of an assessment 76668
under this section.76669

       (F) If the tax commissioner believes that collection of the 76670
fee will be jeopardized unless proceedings to collect or secure 76671
collection of the fee are instituted without delay, the 76672
commissioner may issue a jeopardy assessment against the person 76673
liable for the fee. Immediately upon the issuance of the jeopardy 76674
assessment, the commissioner shall file an entry with the clerk of 76675
the court of common pleas in the manner prescribed by division (E) 76676
of this section. Notice of the jeopardy assessment shall be served 76677
on the person assessed or the person's legal representative, as 76678
provided in section 5703.37 of the Revised Code, within five days 76679
of the filing of the entry with the clerk. The total amount 76680
assessed is immediately due and payable, unless the person 76681
assessed files a petition for reassessment in accordance with 76682
division (D) of this section and provides security in a form 76683
satisfactory to the commissioner and in an amount sufficient to 76684
satisfy the unpaid balance of the assessment. Full or partial 76685
payment of the assessment does not prejudice the commissioner's 76686
consideration of the petition for reassessment.76687

       (G) All money collected by the tax commissioner under this 76688
section shall be paid to the treasurer of state as revenue arising 76689
from the fee imposed by section 3734.901 of the Revised Code.76690

       Sec. 3735.58.  (A) The director of mental healthmental 76691
health and addiction services, the director of developmental 76692
disabilities, or the director of rehabilitation and correction may 76693
enter into contracts for the sale of land not needed by their 76694
departments and under their jurisdiction or supervision to 76695
metropolitan housing authorities for use by such an authority for 76696
a housing project or projects. Such contract may contain such 76697
conditions and terms as are, in the discretion of the directors, 76698
in the best interests of the state and the welfare of the 76699
residents of the state.76700

       (B) The director may, upon receipt of a request from a 76701
metropolitan housing authority, request the approval of the 76702
governor to sell and convey land not needed by the director's 76703
department and under the director's jurisdiction or supervision to 76704
an authority, subject to such terms and conditions consistent with 76705
the public interest and welfare of the residents of the state as 76706
the director considers necessary. The governor, with the approval 76707
of the controlling board, may approve the request. Such property 76708
shall be appraised at its fair market value before it is conveyed. 76709
The director of administrative services shall cause it to be 76710
appraised by three disinterested persons and shall determine the 76711
fee which each appraiser shall receive, not to exceed fifty 76712
dollars. All appraisal fees shall be paid by the authority which 76713
shall deposit with the director one hundred fifty dollars before 76714
the appraisal is made. If the deposit exceeds the appraisal fee, 76715
the balance shall be returned to the authority. The appraisal 76716
value, when approved by the director, is the purchase price. If 76717
the purchase price is not paid within ninety days after notice to 76718
the authority of the approved appraisal value, the director shall 76719
withdraw approval of the appraisal value and no deed shall be 76720
delivered to the authority without the written approval of the 76721
director of the purchase price. If the purchase price is paid 76722
within ninety days, a deed shall be prepared and recorded pursuant 76723
to section 5301.13 of the Revised Code.76724

       (C) Moneys received from sales of land to a metropolitan 76725
housing authority shall be placed in the state treasury in special 76726
funds, to be used for such purposes of the department of mental 76727
healthmental health and addiction services, the department of 76728
developmental disabilities, or the department of rehabilitation 76729
and correction as is appropriate.76730

       Sec. 3735.661.  (A) For the purpose of determining the "first 76731
two amendments" referenced in division (B) of Section 3 of Am. 76732
Sub. S.B. 19 of the 120th general assembly, an amendment means any 76733
modification to an ordinance or resolution adopted under section 76734
3735.66 of the Revised Code that does any of the following:76735

       (1) Expands the geographic size of a community reinvestment 76736
area;76737

       (2) Increases a property's or category of property's exempted 76738
percentage of assessed valuation, notwithstanding the requirements 76739
of section 3735.66 of the Revised Code as that section existed on 76740
July 21, 1994. Division (A)(2) of this section does not authorize 76741
a municipal corporation or county to increase a property's or 76742
category of property's exempted percentage of assessed valuation 76743
pursuant to that section. 76744

       (3) Increases the term of any tax exemption or category of 76745
tax exemptions;76746

       (4) Extends the duration of a community reinvestment area;76747

       (5) Changes eligibility requirements for receiving tax 76748
exemptions.76749

       (B) For the purpose of determining the "first two amendments" 76750
in division (B) of Section 3 of Am. Sub. S.B. 19 of the 120th 76751
general assembly, an amendment does not include any modification 76752
to an ordinance or resolution adopted under section 3735.66 of the 76753
Revised Code that does any of the following:76754

       (1) Restricts the availability of tax exemptions, including 76755
any of the following:76756

       (a) Removes area from or decreases the geographic size of a 76757
community reinvestment area;76758

       (b) Decreases a property's or category of property's exempted 76759
percentage of assessed valuation, notwithstanding the requirements 76760
of section 3735.66 of the Revised Code as that section existed on 76761
July 21, 1994. Division (B)(1)(b) of this section does not 76762
authorize a municipal corporation or county to decrease a 76763
property's or category of property's exempted percentage of 76764
assessed valuation pursuant to that section.76765

       (c) Decreases the term of any tax exemption or category of 76766
exemption;76767

       (d) Shortens the period of time after which the granting of 76768
tax exemptions may be terminated.76769

       (2) Recognizes or confirms the continuing existence of a 76770
community reinvestment area, including by providing a date after 76771
which the area may be terminated;76772

       (3) Recognizes or confirms a previously granted tax 76773
exemption;76774

       (4) Clarifies ambiguities or corrects defects in previously 76775
enacted ordinances or resolutions;76776

       (5) Makes modifications that are procedural or 76777
administrative, including changing the designation of a housing 76778
officer, the process for approving or appealing a tax exemption, 76779
or the amount of any application fee, or modifying a community 76780
reinvestment area housing council created under section 3735.69 of 76781
the Revised Code or a tax incentive review council under section 76782
5709.85 of the Revised Code.76783

       Sec. 3737.02.  (A) The fire marshal may collect fees to cover 76784
the costs of performing inspections and other duties that the fire 76785
marshal is authorized or required by law to perform. Except as 76786
provided in division (B) of this section, all fees collected by 76787
the fire marshal shall be deposited to the credit of the fire 76788
marshal's fund.76789

       (B) All of the following shall be credited to the underground 76790
storage tank administration fund, which is hereby created in the 76791
state treasury:76792

       (1) Fees collected under sections 3737.88 and 3737.881 of the 76793
Revised Code for operation of the underground storage tank and 76794
underground storage tank installer certification programs, moneys;76795

       (2) Moneys recovered under section 3737.89 of the Revised 76796
Code for the state's costs of undertaking corrective or 76797
enforcement actions under that section or section 3737.882 of the 76798
Revised Code, and fines;76799

       (3) Fines and penalties collected under section 3737.882 of 76800
the Revised Code shall be credited to the underground storage tank 76801
administration fund, which is hereby created in the state 76802
treasury. All;76803

       (4) Amounts repaid for underground storage tank revolving 76804
loans under section 3737.883 of the Revised Code.76805

       (C) All interest earned on moneys credited to the underground 76806
storage tank administration fund shall be credited to the fund. 76807
Moneys credited to the underground storage tank administration 76808
fund shall be used by the fire marshal for implementation and 76809
enforcement of underground storage tank, corrective action, and 76810
installer certification programs under sections 3737.88 to 3737.89 76811
of the Revised Code. Only moneys described in divisions (B)(3) and 76812
(4) of this section may be used by the fire marshal to make 76813
underground storage tank revolving loans under section 3737.883 of 76814
the Revised Code, and no other moneys may be used to make those 76815
loans.76816

       (C)(D) The fire marshal shall take all actions necessary to 76817
obtain any federal funding available to carry out the fire 76818
marshal's responsibilities under sections 3737.88 to 3737.89 of 76819
the Revised Code and federal laws regarding the cleaning up of 76820
releases of petroleum, as "release" is defined in section 3737.87 76821
of the Revised Code, including, without limitation, any federal 76822
funds that are available to reimburse the state for the costs of 76823
undertaking corrective actions for such releases of petroleum. The 76824
state may, when appropriate, return to the United States any 76825
federal funds recovered under sections 3737.882 and 3737.89 of the 76826
Revised Code.76827

       Sec. 3737.83.  The fire marshal shall, as part of the state 76828
fire code, adopt rules to:76829

       (A) Establish minimum standards of performance for fire 76830
protection equipment and fire fighting equipment;76831

       (B) Establish minimum standards of training, fix minimum 76832
qualifications, and require certificates for all persons who 76833
engage in the business for profit of installing, testing, 76834
repairing, or maintaining fire protection equipment;76835

       (C) Provide for the issuance of certificates required under 76836
division (B) of this section and establish the fees to be charged 76837
for such certificates. A certificate shall be granted, renewed, or 76838
revoked according to rules the fire marshal shall adopt.76839

       (D) Establish minimum standards of flammability for consumer 76840
goods in any case where the federal government or any department 76841
or agency thereof has established, or may from time to time 76842
establish standards of flammability for consumer goods. The 76843
standards established by the fire marshal shall be identical to 76844
the minimum federal standards.76845

       In any case where the federal government or any department or 76846
agency thereof, establishes standards of flammability for consumer 76847
goods subsequent to the adoption of a flammability standard by the 76848
fire marshal, standards previously adopted by the fire marshal 76849
shall not continue in effect to the extent such standards are not 76850
identical to the minimum federal standards.76851

       With respect to the adoption of minimum standards of 76852
flammability, this division shall supersede any authority granted 76853
a political subdivision by any other section of the Revised Code.76854

       (E) Establish minimum standards pursuant to section 5104.05 76855
of the Revised Code for fire prevention and fire safety in child 76856
day-care centers and in type A family day-care homes, as defined 76857
in section 5104.01 of the Revised Code.76858

       (F) Establish minimum standards for fire prevention and 76859
safety in a residential facility licensed under section 5119.2276860
5119.34 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 76861
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 76862
unrelated adults. The fire marshal shall adopt the rules under 76863
this division in consultation with the director of mental health76864
mental health and addiction services and interested parties 76865
designated by the director of mental healthmental health and 76866
addiction services. 76867

       Sec. 3737.841.  As used in this section and section 3737.842 76868
of the Revised Code:76869

       (A) "Public occupancy" means all of the following:76870

       (1) Any state correctional institution as defined in section 76871
2967.01 of the Revised Code and any county, multicounty, 76872
municipal, or municipal-county jail or workhouse;76873

       (2) Any hospital as defined in section 3727.01 of the Revised 76874
Code, any hospital licensed by the department of mental health76875
mental health and addiction services under section 5119.205119.3376876
of the Revised Code, and any institution, hospital, or other place 76877
established, controlled, or supervised by the department of mental 76878
healthmental health and addiction services under Chapter 5119. of 76879
the Revised Code;76880

       (3) Any nursing home, residential care facility, or home for 76881
the aging as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code and 76882
any residential facility licensed under section 5119.225119.34 of 76883
the Revised Code that provides accommodations, supervision, and 76884
personal care services for three to sixteen unrelated adults;76885

       (4) Any child day-care center and any type A family day-care 76886
home as defined in section 5104.01 of the Revised Code;76887

       (5) Any public auditorium or stadium;76888

       (6) Public assembly areas of hotels and motels containing 76889
more than ten articles of seating furniture.76890

       (B) "Sell" includes sell, offer or expose for sale, barter, 76891
trade, deliver, give away, rent, consign, lease, possess for sale, 76892
or dispose of in any other commercial manner.76893

       (C) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, 76894
"seating furniture" means any article of furniture, including 76895
children's furniture, that can be used as a support for an 76896
individual, or an individual's limbs or feet, when sitting or 76897
resting in an upright or reclining position and that either:76898

       (1) Is made with loose or attached cushions or pillows;76899

       (2) Is stuffed or filled in whole or in part with any filling 76900
material;76901

       (3) Is or can be stuffed or filled in whole or in part with 76902
any substance or material, concealed by fabric or any other 76903
covering.76904

       "Seating furniture" includes the cushions or pillows 76905
belonging to or forming a part of the furniture, the structural 76906
unit, and the filling material and its container or covering.76907

       (D) "Seating furniture" does not include, except if intended 76908
for use by children or in facilities designed for the care or 76909
treatment of humans, any of the following:76910

       (1) Cushions or pads intended solely for outdoor use;76911

       (2) Any article with a smooth surface that contains no more 76912
than one-half inch of filling material, if that article does not 76913
have an upholstered horizontal surface meeting an upholstered 76914
vertical surface;76915

       (3) Any article manufactured solely for recreational use or 76916
physical fitness purposes, including weight-lifting benches, 76917
gymnasium mats or pads, and sidehorses.76918

       (E) "Filling material" means cotton, wool, kapok, feathers, 76919
down, hair, liquid, or any other natural or artificial material or 76920
substance that is used or can be used as stuffing in seating 76921
furniture.76922

       Sec. 3737.88.  (A)(1) The fire marshal shall have 76923
responsibility for implementation of the underground storage tank 76924
program and corrective action program for releases of petroleum 76925
from underground storage tanks established by the "Resource 76926
Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2795, 42 U.S.C.A. 76927
6901, as amended. To implement the programs, the fire marshal may 76928
adopt, amend, and rescind such rules, conduct such inspections, 76929
require annual registration of underground storage tanks, issue 76930
such citations and orders to enforce those rules, enter into 76931
environmental covenants in accordance with sections 5301.80 to 76932
5301.92 of the Revised Code, and perform such other duties, as are 76933
consistent with those programs. The fire marshal, by rule, may 76934
delegate the authority to conduct inspections of underground 76935
storage tanks to certified fire safety inspectors.76936

       (2) In the place of any rules regarding release containment 76937
and release detection for underground storage tanks adopted under 76938
division (A)(1) of this section, the fire marshal, by rule, shall 76939
designate areas as being sensitive for the protection of human 76940
health and the environment and adopt alternative rules regarding 76941
release containment and release detection methods for new and 76942
upgraded underground storage tank systems located in those areas. 76943
In designating such areas, the fire marshal shall take into 76944
consideration such factors as soil conditions, hydrogeology, water 76945
use, and the location of public and private water supplies. Not 76946
later than July 11, 1990, the fire marshal shall file the rules 76947
required under this division with the secretary of state, director 76948
of the legislative service commission, and joint committee on 76949
agency rule review in accordance with divisions (B) and (H) of 76950
section 119.03 of the Revised Code.76951

       (3) Notwithstanding sections 3737.87 to 3737.89 of the 76952
Revised Code, a person who is not a responsible person, as 76953
determined by the fire marshal pursuant to this chapter, may 76954
conduct a voluntary action in accordance with Chapter 3746. of the 76955
Revised Code and rules adopted under it for either of the 76956
following:76957

       (a) A class C release;76958

       (b) A release, other than a class C release, that is subject 76959
to the rules adopted by the fire marshal under division (B) of 76960
section 3737.882 of the Revised Code pertaining to a corrective 76961
action, provided that both of the following apply:76962

       (i) The voluntary action also addresses hazardous substances 76963
or petroleum that is not subject to the rules adopted under 76964
division (B) of section 3737.882 of the Revised Code pertaining to 76965
a corrective action.76966

       (ii) The fire marshal has not issued an administrative order 76967
concerning the release or referred the release to the attorney 76968
general for enforcement. 76969

       The director of environmental protection, pursuant to section 76970
3746.12 of the Revised Code, may issue a covenant not to sue to 76971
any person who properly completes a voluntary action with respect 76972
to any such release in accordance with Chapter 3746. of the 76973
Revised Code and rules adopted under it.76974

       (B) Before adopting any rule under this section or section 76975
3737.881 or 3737.882 of the Revised Code, the fire marshal shall 76976
file written notice of the proposed rule with the chairperson of 76977
the state fire council, and, within sixty days after notice is 76978
filed, the council may file responses to or comments on and may 76979
recommend alternative or supplementary rules to the fire marshal. 76980
At the end of the sixty-day period or upon the filing of 76981
responses, comments, or recommendations by the council, the fire 76982
marshal may adopt the rule filed with the council or any 76983
alternative or supplementary rule recommended by the council.76984

       (C) The state fire council may recommend courses of action to 76985
be taken by the fire marshal in carrying out the fire marshal's 76986
duties under this section. The council shall file its 76987
recommendations in the office of the fire marshal, and, within 76988
sixty days after the recommendations are filed, the fire marshal 76989
shall file with the chairperson of the council comments on, and 76990
proposed action in response to, the recommendations.76991

       (D) For the purpose of sections 3737.87 to 3737.89 of the 76992
Revised Code, the fire marshal shall adopt, and may amend and 76993
rescind, rules identifying or listing hazardous substances. The 76994
rules shall be consistent with and equivalent in scope, coverage, 76995
and content to regulations identifying or listing hazardous 76996
substances adopted under the "Comprehensive Environmental 76997
Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980," 94 Stat. 2779, 76998
42 U.S.C.A. 9602, as amended, except that the fire marshal shall 76999
not identify or list as a hazardous substance any hazardous waste 77000
identified or listed in rules adopted under division (A) of 77001
section 3734.12 of the Revised Code.77002

       (E) Except as provided in division (A)(3) of this section, 77003
the fire marshal shall have exclusive jurisdiction to regulate the 77004
storage, treatment, and disposal of petroleum contaminated soil 77005
generated from corrective actions undertaken in response to 77006
releases of petroleum from underground storage tank systems. The 77007
fire marshal may adopt, amend, or rescind such rules as the fire 77008
marshal considers to be necessary or appropriate to regulate the 77009
storage, treatment, or disposal of petroleum contaminated soil so 77010
generated.77011

       (F) The fire marshal shall adopt, amend, and rescind rules 77012
under sections 3737.88 to 3737.8823737.883 of the Revised Code in 77013
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.77014

       Sec. 3737.882.  (A) If, after an examination or inspection, 77015
the fire marshal or an assistant fire marshal finds that a release 77016
of petroleum is suspected, the fire marshal shall take such action 77017
as the fire marshal considers necessary to ensure that a suspected 77018
release is confirmed or disproved and, if the occurrence of a 77019
release is confirmed, to correct the release. These actions may 77020
include one or more of the following:77021

       (1) Issuance of a citation and order requiring the 77022
responsible person to undertake, in a manner consistent with the 77023
requirements of section 9003 of the "Resource Conservation and 77024
Recovery Act of 1976," 98 Stat. 3279, 42 U.S.C.A. 6991b, as 77025
amended, applicable regulations adopted thereunder, and rules 77026
adopted under division (B) of this section, such actions as are 77027
necessary to protect human health and the environment, including, 77028
without limitation, the investigation of a suspected release;77029

       (2) Requesting the attorney general to bring a civil action 77030
for appropriate relief, including a temporary restraining order or 77031
preliminary or permanent injunction, in the court of common pleas 77032
of the county in which a suspected release is located or in which 77033
the release occurred, to obtain the corrective action necessary to 77034
protect human health and the environment. In granting any such 77035
relief, the court shall ensure that the terms of the temporary 77036
restraining order or injunction are sufficient to provide 77037
comprehensive corrective action to protect human health and the 77038
environment.77039

       (3) Entry onto premises and undertaking corrective action 77040
with respect to a release of petroleum if, in the fire marshal's 77041
judgment, such action is necessary to protect human health and the 77042
environment. Any corrective action undertaken by the fire marshal 77043
or assistant fire marshal under division (A)(3) of this section 77044
shall be consistent with the requirements of sections 9003 and 77045
9005 of the "Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976," 98 77046
Stat. 3279, 42 U.S.C.A. 6991b, and 98 Stat. 3284, 42 U.S.C.A. 77047
6991e, respectively, as amended, applicable regulations adopted 77048
thereunder, and rules adopted under division (B) of this section.77049

       (B) The fire marshal shall adopt, and may amend and rescind, 77050
such rules as the fire marshal considers necessary to establish 77051
standards for corrective actions for suspected and confirmed 77052
releases of petroleum and standards for the recovery of costs 77053
incurred for undertaking corrective or enforcement actions with 77054
respect to such releases. The rules also shall include 77055
requirements for financial responsibility for the cost of 77056
corrective actions for and compensation of bodily injury and 77057
property damage incurred by third parties that are caused by 77058
releases of petroleum. Rules regarding financial responsibility 77059
shall, without limitation, require responsible persons to provide 77060
evidence that the parties guaranteeing payment of the deductible 77061
amount established under division (E) or (F) of section 3737.91 of 77062
the Revised Code are, at a minimum, secondarily liable for all 77063
corrective action and third-party liability costs incurred within 77064
the scope of the deductible amount. The rules shall be consistent 77065
with sections 9003 and 9005 of the "Resource Conservation and 77066
Recovery Act of 1976," 98 Stat. 3279, 42 U.S.C.A. 6991b, and 98 77067
Stat. 3284, 42 U.S.C.A. 6991e, respectively, as amended, and 77068
applicable regulations adopted thereunder.77069

       (C)(1) No person shall violate or fail to comply with a rule 77070
adopted under division (A) of section 3737.88 of the Revised Code 77071
or division (B) of this section, and no person shall violate or 77072
fail to comply with the terms of any order issued under division 77073
(A) of section 3737.88 of the Revised Code or division (A)(1) of 77074
this section.77075

       (2) Whoever violates division (C)(1) of this section or 77076
division (F) of section 3737.881 of the Revised Code shall pay a 77077
civil penalty of not more than ten thousand dollars for each day 77078
that the violation continues. The fire marshal may, by order, 77079
assess a civil penalty under this division, or the fire marshal 77080
may request the attorney general to bring a civil action for 77081
imposition of the civil penalty in the court of common pleas of 77082
the county in which the violation occurred. If the fire marshal 77083
determines that a responsible person is in violation of division 77084
(C)(1) of this section or division (F) of section 3737.881 of the 77085
Revised Code, the fire marshal may request the attorney general to 77086
bring a civil action for appropriate relief, including a temporary 77087
restraining order or preliminary or permanent injunction, in the 77088
court of common pleas of the county in which the underground 77089
storage tank or, in the case of a violation of division (F)(3) of 77090
section 3737.881 of the Revised Code, the training program that is 77091
the subject of the violation is located. The court shall issue a 77092
temporary restraining order or an injunction upon a demonstration 77093
that a violation of division (C)(1) of this section or division 77094
(F) of section 3737.881 of the Revised Code has occurred or is 77095
occurring.77096

       Any action brought by the attorney general under this 77097
division is a civil action, governed by the Rules of Civil 77098
Procedure and other rules of practice and procedure applicable to 77099
civil actions.77100

       Nothing in section 3737.883 of the Revised Code limits the 77101
powers of the fire marshal or the attorney general under this 77102
division.77103

       (D) Orders issued under division (A) of section 3737.88 of 77104
the Revised Code and divisions (A)(1) and (C) of this section, and 77105
appeals thereof, are subject to and governed by Chapter 3745. of 77106
the Revised Code. Such orders shall be issued without the 77107
necessity for issuance of a proposed action under that chapter. 77108
For purposes of appeals of any such orders, the term "director" as 77109
used in Chapter 3745. of the Revised Code includes the fire 77110
marshal and an assistant fire marshal.77111

       (E) Any restrictions on the use of real property for the 77112
purpose of the achievement by an owner or operator of applicable 77113
standards pursuant to rules adopted under division (B) of this 77114
section shall be contained in a deed or in another instrument that 77115
is signed and acknowledged by the property owner in the same 77116
manner as a deed or an environmental covenant that is entered into 77117
in accordance with sections 5301.80 to 5301.92 of the Revised 77118
Code. The deed, other instrument containing the restrictions, or 77119
environmental covenant shall be filed and recorded in the office 77120
of the county recorder of the county in which the property is 77121
located. Pursuant to Chapter 5309. of the Revised Code, if the use 77122
restrictions or environmental covenant are connected with 77123
registered land, as defined in section 5309.01 of the Revised 77124
Code, the restrictions or environmental covenant shall be entered 77125
as a memorial on the page of the register where the title of the 77126
owner is registered.77127

       (F) Any restrictions on the use of real property for the 77128
purpose of the achievement by a person that is not a responsible 77129
person, or by a person undertaking a voluntary action of 77130
applicable standards pursuant to rules adopted under division (B) 77131
of this section shall be contained in an environmental covenant 77132
that is entered into in accordance with sections 5301.80 to 77133
5301.92 of the Revised Code. The environmental covenant shall be 77134
filed and recorded in the office of the county recorder of the 77135
county in which the property is located. Pursuant to Chapter 5309. 77136
of the Revised Code, if the environmental covenant is connected 77137
with registered land, as defined in section 5309.01 of the Revised 77138
Code, the environmental covenant shall be entered as a memorial on 77139
the page of the register where the title of the owner is 77140
registered.77141

       Sec. 3737.883.  (A) As used in this section, "political 77142
subdivision" has the same meaning as in section 2744.01 of the 77143
Revised Code, but includes a community improvement corporation as 77144
that term is defined in section 1724.01 of the Revised Code.77145

       (B)(1) A political subdivision may do any of the following 77146
for an underground storage tank located within its territorial 77147
boundaries if the political subdivision is the tank owner but not 77148
the operator:77149

       (a) Initiate, continue, or properly complete the closure in 77150
place or removal of an underground storage tank system;77151

       (b) Initiate, continue, or properly complete an assessment of 77152
the site of an underground storage tank or the site of an 77153
underground storage tank system;77154

       (c) Initiate, continue, or properly complete a corrective 77155
action.77156

       (2) A political subdivision may take any of the actions 77157
described in divisions (B)(1)(a) to (c) of this section for the 77158
site of a previously existing release to which all of the 77159
following apply:77160

       (a) The political subdivision is not the responsible person.77161

       (b) The release has not received a no-further-action 77162
determination from the state fire marshal.77163

       (c) The site of the release is located within the political 77164
subdivision's territorial boundaries.77165

       (d) The responsible person is not identifiable or the state 77166
fire marshal determines that an identified responsible person is 77167
unable to pay the costs of the action to be taken by the political 77168
subdivision.77169

       (C) The state fire marshal or the state fire marshal's 77170
designee shall administer an underground storage tank revolving 77171
loan program under which the state fire marshal issues loans to 77172
assist with the costs of actions taken under divisions (B)(1) and 77173
(2) of this section. The state fire marshal shall issue a loan 77174
under the program to a political subdivision that meets the 77175
application requirements of division (D) of this section and 77176
agrees to written terms and conditions of the loan with the state 77177
fire marshal.77178

       (D) A political subdivision shall apply to the state fire 77179
marshal for a loan under this section on a form prescribed by the 77180
state fire marshal. In the application, the political subdivision 77181
shall do all of the following:77182

       (1) Describe the action for which it is requesting a loan;77183

        (2) State the requested loan amount;77184

       (3) Explain how the political subdivision plans to spend, of 77185
its own funds, in undertaking the action for which the loan is 77186
requested, an amount equal to at least five per cent of the 77187
requested loan amount;77188

       (4) Provide any other information requested by the state fire 77189
marshal.77190

       (E) The state fire marshal shall consult with the director of 77191
development services before issuing any loan under this section.77192

       (F) A loan issued under this section shall not carry 77193
interest. No loan issued under this section shall have a term of 77194
more than ten years. The political subdivision shall repay a loan 77195
issued under this section to the state fire marshal.77196

       (G) If, at any time after the expenditure of loan funds by a 77197
political subdivision under division (B)(2) of this section, the 77198
state fire marshal or any law enforcement agency identifies the 77199
responsible person or determines, for any reason, that the 77200
previously identified responsible person was or is able to pay the 77201
costs of the action for which the loan was issued, the political 77202
subdivision may bring any appropriate proceedings against the 77203
responsible person to recover the costs incurred by the political 77204
subdivision. The proceedings may be brought in either the court of 77205
common pleas having jurisdiction where the underground storage 77206
tank is located or the court of common pleas of Franklin county.77207

       (H)(1) The state fire marshal shall adopt and may amend and 77208
rescind rules as necessary for the administration and operation of 77209
the underground storage tank revolving loan program. The rules may 77210
do any of the following:77211

       (a) Further define the entities considered "political 77212
subdivisions" eligible to receive loans;77213

       (b) Establish qualifying criteria for loan recipients;77214

       (c) Establish criteria for awarding loans, loan amounts, loan 77215
payment terms, and permissible expenditures of loan funds, 77216
including methods that the state fire marshal may use to verify 77217
the proper use of loan funds or to obtain reimbursement for or the 77218
return of improperly used loan funds.77219

       (2) The state fire marshal may adopt and may amend and 77220
rescind rules for the issuance of emergency underground storage 77221
tank revolving loans to qualifying entities during a natural 77222
disaster or another similar event as defined in the rules.77223

       Sec. 3737.883.        Sec. 3737.884.  On receipt of a notice pursuant to 77224
section 3123.43 of the Revised Code, the state fire marshal shall 77225
comply with sections 3123.41 to 3123.50 of the Revised Code and 77226
any applicable rules adopted under section 3123.63 of the Revised 77227
Code with respect to a certificate issued pursuant to section 77228
3737.34, 3737.65, 3737.83, or 3737.881 of the Revised Code.77229

       Sec. 3742.30. Each child at risk of lead poisoning shall 77230
undergo a blood lead screening test to determine whether the child 77231
has lead poisoning. The at-risk children shall undergo the test at 77232
times determined by rules the director of health shall adopt in 77233
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that are 77234
consistent with the guidelines established by the centers for 77235
disease control and prevention in the public health service of the 77236
United States department of health and human services. The rules 77237
shall specify which children are at risk of lead poisoning.77238

       Neither this section nor the rules adopted under it affect 77239
the coverage of blood lead screening tests by any publicly funded 77240
health program, including the medicaid program established by 77241
Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code. Neither this section nor the 77242
rules adopted under it apply to a child if a parent of the child 77243
objects to the test on the grounds that the test conflicts with 77244
the parent's religious tenets and practices.77245

       Sec. 3742.31.  (A) The director of health shall establish, 77246
promote, and maintain a child lead poisoning prevention program. 77247
The program shall provide statewide coordination of screening, 77248
diagnosis, and treatment services for children under age six, 77249
including both of the following:77250

       (1) Collecting the social security numbers of all children 77251
screened, diagnosed, or treated as part of the program's case 77252
management system;77253

       (2) Disclosing to the office of medical assistance in the77254
department of job and family servicesmedicaid on at least an 77255
annual basis the identity and lead screening test results of each 77256
child screened pursuant to section 3742.30 of the Revised Code. 77257
The director shall collect and disseminate information relating to 77258
child lead poisoning and controlling lead hazards.77259

       (B) The director of health shall operate the child lead 77260
poisoning prevention program in accordance with rules adopted 77261
under section 3742.50 of the Revised Code. The director may enter 77262
into an interagency agreement with one or more other state 77263
agencies to perform one or more of the program's duties. The 77264
director shall supervise and direct an agency's performance of 77265
such a duty.77266

       Sec. 3742.32. (A) The director of health shall appoint an 77267
advisory council to assist in the ongoing development and 77268
implementation of the child lead poisoning prevention program 77269
created under section 3742.31 of the Revised Code. The advisory 77270
council shall consist of the following members:77271

       (1) A representative of the office of medical assistance in 77272
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid;77273

       (2) A representative of the bureau of child care in the 77274
department of job and family services;77275

       (3) A representative of the department of environmental 77276
protection;77277

       (4) A representative of the department of education;77278

       (5) A representative of the department of development 77279
services agency;77280

       (6) A representative of the Ohio apartment owner's 77281
association;77282

       (7) A representative of the Ohio help end lead poisoning 77283
coalition;77284

       (8) A representative of the Ohio environmental health 77285
association;77286

        (9) An Ohio representative of the national paint and coatings 77287
association.77288

       (B) The advisory council shall do both of the following:77289

       (1) Provide the director with advice regarding the policies 77290
the child lead poisoning prevention program should emphasize, 77291
preferred methods of financing the program, and any other matter 77292
relevant to the program's operation;77293

       (2) Submit a report of the state's activities to the 77294
governor, president of the senate, and speaker of the house of 77295
representatives on or before the first day of March each year.77296

       (C) The advisory council is not subject to sections 101.82 to 77297
101.87 of the Revised Code.77298

       Sec. 3742.51. (A) There is hereby created in the state 77299
treasury the lead poisoning prevention fund. The fund shall 77300
include all moneys appropriated to the department of health for 77301
the administration and enforcement of sections 3742.31 to 3742.50 77302
of the Revised Code and the rules adopted under those sections. 77303
Any grants, contributions, or other moneys collected by the 77304
department for purposes of preventing lead poisoning shall be 77305
deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the fund.77306

       (B) Moneys in the fund shall be used solely for the purposes 77307
of the child lead poisoning prevention program established under 77308
section 3742.31 of the Revised Code, including providing financial 77309
assistance to individuals who are unable to pay for the following:77310

       (1) Costs associated with obtaining lead tests and lead 77311
poisoning treatment for children under six years of age who are 77312
not covered by private medical insurance or are underinsured, are 77313
not eligible for the medicaid program established under Chapter 77314
5111. of the Revised Code or any other government health program, 77315
and do not have access to another source of funds to cover the 77316
cost of lead tests and any indicated treatments;77317

       (2) Costs associated with having lead abatement performed or 77318
having the preventive treatments specified in section 3742.41 of 77319
the Revised Code performed.77320

       Sec. 3745.11.  (A) Applicants for and holders of permits, 77321
licenses, variances, plan approvals, and certifications issued by 77322
the director of environmental protection pursuant to Chapters 77323
3704., 3734., 6109., and 6111. of the Revised Code shall pay a fee 77324
to the environmental protection agency for each such issuance and 77325
each application for an issuance as provided by this section. No 77326
fee shall be charged for any issuance for which no application has 77327
been submitted to the director.77328

       (B) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(2) of this 77329
section, beginning July 1, 1994, each person who owns or operates 77330
an air contaminant source and who is required to apply for and 77331
obtain a Title V permit under section 3704.036 of the Revised Code 77332
shall pay the fees set forth in this division. For the purposes of 77333
this division, total emissions of air contaminants may be 77334
calculated using engineering calculations, emissions factors, 77335
material balance calculations, or performance testing procedures, 77336
as authorized by the director.77337

       The following fees shall be assessed on the total actual 77338
emissions from a source in tons per year of the regulated 77339
pollutants particulate matter, sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, 77340
organic compounds, and lead:77341

       (1) Fifteen dollars per ton on the total actual emissions of 77342
each such regulated pollutant during the period July through 77343
December 1993, to be collected no sooner than July 1, 1994;77344

       (2) Twenty dollars per ton on the total actual emissions of 77345
each such regulated pollutant during calendar year 1994, to be 77346
collected no sooner than April 15, 1995;77347

       (3) Twenty-five dollars per ton on the total actual emissions 77348
of each such regulated pollutant in calendar year 1995, and each 77349
subsequent calendar year, to be collected no sooner than the 77350
fifteenth day of April of the year next succeeding the calendar 77351
year in which the emissions occurred.77352

       The fees levied under this division do not apply to that 77353
portion of the emissions of a regulated pollutant at a facility 77354
that exceed four thousand tons during a calendar year.77355

       (C)(1) The fees assessed under division (B) of this section 77356
are for the purpose of providing funding for the Title V permit 77357
program.77358

       (2) The fees assessed under division (B) of this section do 77359
not apply to emissions from any electric generating unit 77360
designated as a Phase I unit under Title IV of the federal Clean 77361
Air Act prior to calendar year 2000. Those fees shall be assessed 77362
on the emissions from such a generating unit commencing in 77363
calendar year 2001 based upon the total actual emissions from the 77364
generating unit during calendar year 2000 and shall continue to be 77365
assessed each subsequent calendar year based on the total actual 77366
emissions from the generating unit during the preceding calendar 77367
year.77368

       (3) The director shall issue invoices to owners or operators 77369
of air contaminant sources who are required to pay a fee assessed 77370
under division (B) or (D) of this section. Any such invoice shall 77371
be issued no sooner than the applicable date when the fee first 77372
may be collected in a year under the applicable division, shall 77373
identify the nature and amount of the fee assessed, and shall 77374
indicate that the fee is required to be paid within thirty days 77375
after the issuance of the invoice.77376

       (D)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(3) of this section, 77377
from January 1, 1994, through December 31, 2003, each person who 77378
owns or operates an air contaminant source; who is required to 77379
apply for a permit to operate pursuant to rules adopted under 77380
division (G), or a variance pursuant to division (H), of section 77381
3704.03 of the Revised Code; and who is not required to apply for 77382
and obtain a Title V permit under section 3704.036 of the Revised 77383
Code shall pay a single fee based upon the sum of the actual 77384
annual emissions from the facility of the regulated pollutants 77385
particulate matter, sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, organic 77386
compounds, and lead in accordance with the following schedule:77387

Total tons per year 77388
of regulated pollutants Annual fee 77389
emitted per facility 77390
More than 0, but less than 50    $ 75 77391
50 or more, but less than 100     300 77392
100 or more     700 77393

       (2) Except as provided in division (D)(3) of this section, 77394
beginning January 1, 2004, each person who owns or operates an air 77395
contaminant source; who is required to apply for a permit to 77396
operate pursuant to rules adopted under division (G), or a 77397
variance pursuant to division (H), of section 3704.03 of the 77398
Revised Code; and who is not required to apply for and obtain a 77399
Title V permit under section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall pay 77400
a single fee based upon the sum of the actual annual emissions 77401
from the facility of the regulated pollutants particulate matter, 77402
sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, organic compounds, and lead in 77403
accordance with the following schedule:77404

Total tons per year 77405
of regulated pollutants Annual fee 77406
emitted per facility 77407
More than 0, but less than 10    $ 100 77408
10 or more, but less than 50      200 77409
50 or more, but less than 100      300 77410
100 or more      700 77411

       (3)(a) As used in division (D) of this section, "synthetic 77412
minor facility" means a facility for which one or more permits to 77413
install or permits to operate have been issued for the air 77414
contaminant sources at the facility that include terms and 77415
conditions that lower the facility's potential to emit air 77416
contaminants below the major source thresholds established in 77417
rules adopted under section 3704.036 of the Revised Code.77418

       (b) Beginning January 1, 2000, through June 30, 20142016, 77419
each person who owns or operates a synthetic minor facility shall 77420
pay an annual fee based on the sum of the actual annual emissions 77421
from the facility of particulate matter, sulfur dioxide, nitrogen 77422
dioxide, organic compounds, and lead in accordance with the 77423
following schedule:77424

Combined total tons 77425
per year of all regulated Annual fee 77426
pollutants emitted per facility 77427

Less than 10 $ 170 77428
10 or more, but less than 20   340 77429
20 or more, but less than 30   670 77430
30 or more, but less than 40 1,010 77431
40 or more, but less than 50 1,340 77432
50 or more, but less than 60 1,680 77433
60 or more, but less than 70 2,010 77434
70 or more, but less than 80 2,350 77435
80 or more, but less than 90 2,680 77436
90 or more, but less than 100 3,020 77437
100 or more 3,350 77438

       (4) The fees assessed under division (D)(1) of this section 77439
shall be collected annually no sooner than the fifteenth day of 77440
April, commencing in 1995. The fees assessed under division (D)(2) 77441
of this section shall be collected annually no sooner than the 77442
fifteenth day of April, commencing in 2005. The fees assessed 77443
under division (D)(3) of this section shall be collected no sooner 77444
than the fifteenth day of April, commencing in 2000. The fees 77445
assessed under division (D) of this section in a calendar year 77446
shall be based upon the sum of the actual emissions of those 77447
regulated pollutants during the preceding calendar year. For the 77448
purpose of division (D) of this section, emissions of air 77449
contaminants may be calculated using engineering calculations, 77450
emission factors, material balance calculations, or performance 77451
testing procedures, as authorized by the director. The director, 77452
by rule, may require persons who are required to pay the fees 77453
assessed under division (D) of this section to pay those fees 77454
biennially rather than annually.77455

       (E)(1) Consistent with the need to cover the reasonable costs 77456
of the Title V permit program, the director annually shall 77457
increase the fees prescribed in division (B) of this section by 77458
the percentage, if any, by which the consumer price index for the 77459
most recent calendar year ending before the beginning of a year 77460
exceeds the consumer price index for calendar year 1989. Upon 77461
calculating an increase in fees authorized by division (E)(1) of 77462
this section, the director shall compile revised fee schedules for 77463
the purposes of division (B) of this section and shall make the 77464
revised schedules available to persons required to pay the fees 77465
assessed under that division and to the public.77466

       (2) For the purposes of division (E)(1) of this section:77467

       (a) The consumer price index for any year is the average of 77468
the consumer price index for all urban consumers published by the 77469
United States department of labor as of the close of the 77470
twelve-month period ending on the thirty-first day of August of 77471
that year.77472

       (b) If the 1989 consumer price index is revised, the director 77473
shall use the revision of the consumer price index that is most 77474
consistent with that for calendar year 1989.77475

       (F) Each person who is issued a permit to install pursuant to 77476
rules adopted under division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised 77477
Code on or after July 1, 2003, shall pay the fees specified in the 77478
following schedules:77479

       (1) Fuel-burning equipment (boilers, furnaces, or process 77480
heaters used in the process of burning fuel for the primary 77481
purpose of producing heat or power by indirect heat transfer)77482

Input capacity (maximum) 77483
(million British thermal units per hour) Permit to install 77484
Greater than 0, but less than 10    $ 200 77485
10 or more, but less than 100      400 77486
100 or more, but less than 300     1000 77487
300 or more, but less than 500     2250 77488
500 or more, but less than 1000     3750 77489
1000 or more, but less than 5000     6000 77490
5000 or more     9000 77491

       Units burning exclusively natural gas, number two fuel oil, 77492
or both shall be assessed a fee that is one-half the applicable 77493
amount shown in division (F)(1) of this section.77494

       (2) Combustion turbines and stationary internal combustion 77495
engines designed to generate electricity77496

Generating capacity (mega watts) Permit to install 77497
0 or more, but less than 10    $  25 77498
10 or more, but less than 25      150 77499
25 or more, but less than 50      300 77500
50 or more, but less than 100      500 77501
100 or more, but less than 250     1000 77502
250 or more     2000 77503

       (3) Incinerators77504

Input capacity (pounds per hour) Permit to install 77505
0 to 100    $ 100 77506
101 to 500      500 77507
501 to 2000     1000 77508
2001 to 20,000     1500 77509
more than 20,000     3750 77510

       (4)(a) Process77511

Process weight rate (pounds per hour) Permit to install 77512
0 to 1000    $ 200 77513
1001 to 5000      500 77514
5001 to 10,000      750 77515
10,001 to 50,000     1000 77516
more than 50,000     1250 77517

       In any process where process weight rate cannot be 77518
ascertained, the minimum fee shall be assessed. A boiler, furnace, 77519
combustion turbine, stationary internal combustion engine, or 77520
process heater designed to provide direct heat or power to a 77521
process not designed to generate electricity shall be assessed a 77522
fee established in division (F)(4)(a) of this section. A 77523
combustion turbine or stationary internal combustion engine 77524
designed to generate electricity shall be assessed a fee 77525
established in division (F)(2) of this section.77526

       (b) Notwithstanding division (F)(4)(a) of this section, any 77527
person issued a permit to install pursuant to rules adopted under 77528
division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall pay the 77529
fees set forth in division (F)(4)(c) of this section for a process 77530
used in any of the following industries, as identified by the 77531
applicable two-digit, three-digit, or four-digit standard 77532
industrial classification code according to the Standard 77533
Industrial Classification Manual published by the United States 77534
office of management and budget in the executive office of the 77535
president, 1987, as revised:77536

        Major group 10, metal mining;77537

       Major group 12, coal mining;77538

       Major group 14, mining and quarrying of nonmetallic minerals;77539

       Industry group 204, grain mill products;77540

       2873 Nitrogen fertilizers;77541

       2874 Phosphatic fertilizers;77542

       3281 Cut stone and stone products;77543

       3295 Minerals and earth, ground or otherwise treated;77544

       4221 Grain elevators (storage only);77545

       5159 Farm related raw materials;77546

       5261 Retail nurseries and lawn and garden supply stores.77547

       (c) The fees set forth in the following schedule apply to the 77548
issuance of a permit to install pursuant to rules adopted under 77549
division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code for a process 77550
identified in division (F)(4)(b) of this section:77551

Process weight rate (pounds per hour) Permit to install 77552
0 to 10,000   $  200 77553
10,001 to 50,000      400 77554
50,001 to 100,000      500 77555
100,001 to 200,000      600 77556
200,001 to 400,000      750 77557
400,001 or more      900 77558

       (5) Storage tanks77559

Gallons (maximum useful capacity) Permit to install 77560
0 to 20,000   $  100 77561
20,001 to 40,000      150 77562
40,001 to 100,000      250 77563
100,001 to 500,000      400 77564
500,001 or greater      750 77565

       (6) Gasoline/fuel dispensing facilities77566

For each gasoline/fuel 77567
dispensing facility (includes all Permit to install 77568
units at the facility)     $ 100 77569

       (7) Dry cleaning facilities77570

For each dry cleaning 77571
facility (includes all units Permit to install 77572
at the facility)     $ 100 77573

       (8) Registration status77574

For each source covered Permit to install 77575
by registration status     $  75 77576

       (G) An owner or operator who is responsible for an asbestos 77577
demolition or renovation project pursuant to rules adopted under 77578
section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall pay the fees set forth 77579
in the following schedule:77580

Action Fee 77581
Each notification $75 77582
Asbestos removal $3/unit 77583
Asbestos cleanup $4/cubic yard 77584

For purposes of this division, "unit" means any combination of 77585
linear feet or square feet equal to fifty.77586

       (H) A person who is issued an extension of time for a permit 77587
to install an air contaminant source pursuant to rules adopted 77588
under division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall 77589
pay a fee equal to one-half the fee originally assessed for the 77590
permit to install under this section, except that the fee for such 77591
an extension shall not exceed two hundred dollars.77592

       (I) A person who is issued a modification to a permit to 77593
install an air contaminant source pursuant to rules adopted under 77594
section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall pay a fee equal to 77595
one-half of the fee that would be assessed under this section to 77596
obtain a permit to install the source. The fee assessed by this 77597
division only applies to modifications that are initiated by the 77598
owner or operator of the source and shall not exceed two thousand 77599
dollars.77600

       (J) Notwithstanding division (F) of this section, a person 77601
who applies for or obtains a permit to install pursuant to rules 77602
adopted under division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code 77603
after the date actual construction of the source began shall pay a 77604
fee for the permit to install that is equal to twice the fee that 77605
otherwise would be assessed under the applicable division unless 77606
the applicant received authorization to begin construction under 77607
division (W) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code. This division 77608
only applies to sources for which actual construction of the 77609
source begins on or after July 1, 1993. The imposition or payment 77610
of the fee established in this division does not preclude the 77611
director from taking any administrative or judicial enforcement 77612
action under this chapter, Chapter 3704., 3714., 3734., or 6111. 77613
of the Revised Code, or a rule adopted under any of them, in 77614
connection with a violation of rules adopted under division (F) of 77615
section 3704.03 of the Revised Code.77616

       As used in this division, "actual construction of the source" 77617
means the initiation of physical on-site construction activities 77618
in connection with improvements to the source that are permanent 77619
in nature, including, without limitation, the installation of 77620
building supports and foundations and the laying of underground 77621
pipework.77622

       (K)(1) Money received under division (B) of this section 77623
shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the 77624
Title V clean air fund created in section 3704.035 of the Revised 77625
Code. Annually, fifty cents per ton of each fee assessed under 77626
division (B) of this section on actual emissions from a source and 77627
received by the environmental protection agency pursuant to that 77628
division shall be transferred using an interstate transfer voucher 77629
to the state treasury to the credit of the small business 77630
assistance fund created in section 3706.19 of the Revised Code. In 77631
addition, annually, the amount of money necessary for the 77632
operation of the office of ombudsperson as determined under 77633
division (B) of that section shall be transferred to the state 77634
treasury to the credit of the small business ombudsperson fund 77635
created by that section.77636

       (2) Money received by the agency pursuant to divisions (D), 77637
(F), (G), (H), (I), and (J) of this section shall be deposited in 77638
the state treasury to the credit of the non-Title V clean air fund 77639
created in section 3704.035 of the Revised Code.77640

       (L)(1)(a) Except as otherwise provided in division (L)(1)(b) 77641
or (c) of this section, a person issued a water discharge permit 77642
or renewal of a water discharge permit pursuant to Chapter 6111. 77643
of the Revised Code shall pay a fee based on each point source to 77644
which the issuance is applicable in accordance with the following 77645
schedule:77646

Design flow discharge (gallons per day) Fee  77647
0 to 1000 $  0 77648
1,001 to 5000 100 77649
5,001 to 50,000 200 77650
50,001 to 100,000 300 77651
100,001 to 300,000 525 77652
over 300,000 750 77653

       (b) Notwithstanding the fee schedule specified in division 77654
(L)(1)(a) of this section, the fee for a water discharge permit 77655
that is applicable to coal mining operations regulated under 77656
Chapter 1513. of the Revised Code shall be two hundred fifty 77657
dollars per mine.77658

       (c) Notwithstanding the fee schedule specified in division 77659
(L)(1)(a) of this section, the fee for a water discharge permit 77660
for a public discharger identified by I in the third character of 77661
the permittee's NPDES permit number shall not exceed seven hundred 77662
fifty dollars.77663

       (2) A person applying for a plan approval for a wastewater 77664
treatment works pursuant to section 6111.44, 6111.45, or 6111.46 77665
of the Revised Code shall pay a fee of one hundred dollars plus 77666
sixty-five one-hundredths of one per cent of the estimated project 77667
cost through June 30, 20142016, and one hundred dollars plus 77668
two-tenths of one per cent of the estimated project cost on and 77669
after July 1, 20142016, except that the total fee shall not 77670
exceed fifteen thousand dollars through June 30, 20142016, and 77671
five thousand dollars on and after July 1, 20142016. The fee 77672
shall be paid at the time the application is submitted.77673

       (3) A person issued a modification of a water discharge 77674
permit shall pay a fee equal to one-half the fee that otherwise 77675
would be charged for a water discharge permit, except that the fee 77676
for the modification shall not exceed four hundred dollars.77677

       (4) A person who has entered into an agreement with the 77678
director under section 6111.14 of the Revised Code shall pay an 77679
administrative service fee for each plan submitted under that 77680
section for approval that shall not exceed the minimum amount 77681
necessary to pay administrative costs directly attributable to 77682
processing plan approvals. The director annually shall calculate 77683
the fee and shall notify all persons who have entered into 77684
agreements under that section, or who have applied for agreements, 77685
of the amount of the fee.77686

       (5)(a)(i) Not later than January 30, 20122014, and January 77687
30, 20132015, a person holding an NPDES discharge permit issued 77688
pursuant to Chapter 6111. of the Revised Code with an average 77689
daily discharge flow of five thousand gallons or more shall pay a 77690
nonrefundable annual discharge fee. Any person who fails to pay 77691
the fee at that time shall pay an additional amount that equals 77692
ten per cent of the required annual discharge fee.77693

       (ii) The billing year for the annual discharge fee 77694
established in division (L)(5)(a)(i) of this section shall consist 77695
of a twelve-month period beginning on the first day of January of 77696
the year preceding the date when the annual discharge fee is due. 77697
In the case of an existing source that permanently ceases to 77698
discharge during a billing year, the director shall reduce the 77699
annual discharge fee, including the surcharge applicable to 77700
certain industrial facilities pursuant to division (L)(5)(c) of 77701
this section, by one-twelfth for each full month during the 77702
billing year that the source was not discharging, but only if the 77703
person holding the NPDES discharge permit for the source notifies 77704
the director in writing, not later than the first day of October 77705
of the billing year, of the circumstances causing the cessation of 77706
discharge.77707

       (iii) The annual discharge fee established in division 77708
(L)(5)(a)(i) of this section, except for the surcharge applicable 77709
to certain industrial facilities pursuant to division (L)(5)(c) of 77710
this section, shall be based upon the average daily discharge flow 77711
in gallons per day calculated using first day of May through 77712
thirty-first day of October flow data for the period two years 77713
prior to the date on which the fee is due. In the case of NPDES 77714
discharge permits for new sources, the fee shall be calculated 77715
using the average daily design flow of the facility until actual 77716
average daily discharge flow values are available for the time 77717
period specified in division (L)(5)(a)(iii) of this section. The 77718
annual discharge fee may be prorated for a new source as described 77719
in division (L)(5)(a)(ii) of this section.77720

       (b) An NPDES permit holder that is a public discharger shall 77721
pay the fee specified in the following schedule:77722

Average daily Fee due by 77723
discharge flow January 30, 77724
2012 2014, and 77725
January 30, 2013 2015 77726

5,000 to 49,999 $ 200 77727
50,000 to 100,000 500 77728
100,001 to 250,000 1,050 77729
250,001 to 1,000,000 2,600 77730
1,000,001 to 5,000,000 5,200 77731
5,000,001 to 10,000,000 10,350 77732
10,000,001 to 20,000,000 15,550 77733
20,000,001 to 50,000,000 25,900 77734
50,000,001 to 100,000,000 41,400 77735
100,000,001 or more 62,100 77736

       Public dischargers owning or operating two or more publicly 77737
owned treatment works serving the same political subdivision, as 77738
"treatment works" is defined in section 6111.01 of the Revised 77739
Code, and that serve exclusively political subdivisions having a 77740
population of fewer than one hundred thousand shall pay an annual 77741
discharge fee under division (L)(5)(b) of this section that is 77742
based on the combined average daily discharge flow of the 77743
treatment works.77744

       (c) An NPDES permit holder that is an industrial discharger, 77745
other than a coal mining operator identified by P in the third 77746
character of the permittee's NPDES permit number, shall pay the 77747
fee specified in the following schedule:77748

Average daily Fee due by 77749
discharge flow January 30, 77750
2012 2014, and 77751
January 30, 2013 2015 77752

5,000 to 49,999 $ 250 77753
50,000 to 250,000 1,200 77754
250,001 to 1,000,000 2,950 77755
1,000,001 to 5,000,000 5,850 77756
5,000,001 to 10,000,000 8,800 77757
10,000,001 to 20,000,000 11,700 77758
20,000,001 to 100,000,000 14,050 77759
100,000,001 to 250,000,000 16,400 77760
250,000,001 or more 18,700 77761

       In addition to the fee specified in the above schedule, an 77762
NPDES permit holder that is an industrial discharger classified as 77763
a major discharger during all or part of the annual discharge fee 77764
billing year specified in division (L)(5)(a)(ii) of this section 77765
shall pay a nonrefundable annual surcharge of seven thousand five 77766
hundred dollars not later than January 30, 20122014, and not 77767
later than January 30, 20132015. Any person who fails to pay the 77768
surcharge at that time shall pay an additional amount that equals 77769
ten per cent of the amount of the surcharge.77770

       (d) Notwithstanding divisions (L)(5)(b) and (c) of this 77771
section, a public discharger identified by I in the third 77772
character of the permittee's NPDES permit number and an industrial 77773
discharger identified by I, J, L, V, W, X, Y, or Z in the third 77774
character of the permittee's NPDES permit number shall pay a 77775
nonrefundable annual discharge fee of one hundred eighty dollars 77776
not later than January 30, 20122014, and not later than January 77777
30, 20132015. Any person who fails to pay the fee at that time 77778
shall pay an additional amount that equals ten per cent of the 77779
required fee.77780

       (6) Each person obtaining a national pollutant discharge 77781
elimination system general or individual permit for municipal 77782
storm water discharge shall pay a nonrefundable storm water 77783
discharge fee of one hundred dollars per square mile of area 77784
permitted. The fee shall not exceed ten thousand dollars and shall 77785
be payable on or before January 30, 2004, and the thirtieth day of 77786
January of each year thereafter. Any person who fails to pay the 77787
fee on the date specified in division (L)(6) of this section shall 77788
pay an additional amount per year equal to ten per cent of the 77789
annual fee that is unpaid.77790

       (7) The director shall transmit all moneys collected under 77791
division (L) of this section to the treasurer of state for deposit 77792
into the state treasury to the credit of the surface water 77793
protection fund created in section 6111.038 of the Revised Code.77794

       (8) As used in division (L) of this section:77795

       (a) "NPDES" means the federally approved national pollutant 77796
discharge elimination system program for issuing, modifying, 77797
revoking, reissuing, terminating, monitoring, and enforcing 77798
permits and imposing and enforcing pretreatment requirements under 77799
Chapter 6111. of the Revised Code and rules adopted under it.77800

       (b) "Public discharger" means any holder of an NPDES permit 77801
identified by P in the second character of the NPDES permit number 77802
assigned by the director.77803

       (c) "Industrial discharger" means any holder of an NPDES 77804
permit identified by I in the second character of the NPDES permit 77805
number assigned by the director.77806

       (d) "Major discharger" means any holder of an NPDES permit 77807
classified as major by the regional administrator of the United 77808
States environmental protection agency in conjunction with the 77809
director.77810

       (M) Through June 30, 20142016, a person applying for a 77811
license or license renewal to operate a public water system under 77812
section 6109.21 of the Revised Code shall pay the appropriate fee 77813
established under this division at the time of application to the 77814
director. Any person who fails to pay the fee at that time shall 77815
pay an additional amount that equals ten per cent of the required 77816
fee. The director shall transmit all moneys collected under this 77817
division to the treasurer of state for deposit into the drinking 77818
water protection fund created in section 6109.30 of the Revised 77819
Code.77820

        Except as provided in divisiondivisions (M)(4) and (5) of 77821
this section, fees required under this division shall be 77822
calculated and paid in accordance with the following schedule:77823

       (1) For the initial license required under section 6109.21 of 77824
the Revised Code for any public water system that is a community 77825
water system as defined in section 6109.01 of the Revised Code, 77826
and for each license renewal required for such a system prior to 77827
January 31, 20142016, the fee is:77828

Number of service connections Fee amount 77829
Not more than 49    $ 112 77830
50 to 99      176 77831

Number of service connections Average cost per connection 77832
100 to 2,499 $ 1.92 77833
2,500 to 4,999   1.48 77834
5,000 to 7,499   1.42 77835
7,500 to 9,999   1.34 77836
10,000 to 14,999   1.16 77837
15,000 to 24,999   1.10 77838
25,000 to 49,999   1.04 77839
50,000 to 99,999   .92 77840
100,000 to 149,999   .86 77841
150,000 to 199,999   .80 77842
200,000 or more   .76 77843

       A public water system may determine how it will pay the total 77844
amount of the fee calculated under division (M)(1) of this 77845
section, including the assessment of additional user fees that may 77846
be assessed on a volumetric basis.77847

       As used in division (M)(1) of this section, "service 77848
connection" means the number of active or inactive pipes, 77849
goosenecks, pigtails, and any other fittings connecting a water 77850
main to any building outlet.77851

       (2) For the initial license required under section 6109.21 of 77852
the Revised Code for any public water system that is not a 77853
community water system and serves a nontransient population, and 77854
for each license renewal required for such a system prior to 77855
January 31, 20142016, the fee is:77856

Population served Fee amount 77857
Fewer than 150 $    112 77858
150 to 299      176 77859
300 to 749      384 77860
750 to 1,499      628 77861
1,500 to 2,999    1,268 77862
3,000 to 7,499    2,816 77863
7,500 to 14,999    5,510 77864
15,000 to 22,499    9,048 77865
22,500 to 29,999   12,430 77866
30,000 or more   16,820 77867

       As used in division (M)(2) of this section, "population 77868
served" means the total number of individuals having access to the 77869
water supply during a twenty-four-hour period for at least sixty 77870
days during any calendar year. In the absence of a specific 77871
population count, that number shall be calculated at the rate of 77872
three individuals per service connection.77873

       (3) For the initial license required under section 6109.21 of 77874
the Revised Code for any public water system that is not a 77875
community water system and serves a transient population, and for 77876
each license renewal required for such a system prior to January 77877
31, 20142016, the fee is:77878

  Number of wells or sources, other than surface water, supplying system Fee amount 77879
1 $112 77880
2  112 77881
3  176 77882
4  278 77883
5  568 77884
System designated as using a 77885
surface water source  792 77886

       As used in division (M)(3) of this section, "number of wells 77887
or sources, other than surface water, supplying system" means 77888
those wells or sources that are physically connected to the 77889
plumbing system serving the public water system.77890

       (4) A public water system designated as using a surface water 77891
source shall pay a fee of seven hundred ninety-two dollars or the 77892
amount calculated under division (M)(1) or (2) of this section, 77893
whichever is greater.77894

       (5) An applicant for an initial license who is proposing to 77895
operate a new public water supply system shall submit a fee that 77896
equals a prorated amount of the appropriate fee for the remainder 77897
of the licensing year.77898

       (N)(1) A person applying for a plan approval for a public 77899
water supply system under section 6109.07 of the Revised Code 77900
shall pay a fee of one hundred fifty dollars plus thirty-five 77901
hundredths of one per cent of the estimated project cost, except 77902
that the total fee shall not exceed twenty thousand dollars 77903
through June 30, 20142016, and fifteen thousand dollars on and 77904
after July 1, 20142016. The fee shall be paid at the time the 77905
application is submitted.77906

       (2) A person who has entered into an agreement with the 77907
director under division (A)(2) of section 6109.07 of the Revised 77908
Code shall pay an administrative service fee for each plan 77909
submitted under that section for approval that shall not exceed 77910
the minimum amount necessary to pay administrative costs directly 77911
attributable to processing plan approvals. The director annually 77912
shall calculate the fee and shall notify all persons that have 77913
entered into agreements under that division, or who have applied 77914
for agreements, of the amount of the fee.77915

       (3) Through June 30, 20142016, the following fee, on a per 77916
survey basis, shall be charged any person for services rendered by 77917
the state in the evaluation of laboratories and laboratory 77918
personnel for compliance with accepted analytical techniques and 77919
procedures established pursuant to Chapter 6109. of the Revised 77920
Code for determining the qualitative characteristics of water:77921

microbiological 77922
MMO-MUG $2,000 77923
MF 2,100 77924
MMO-MUG and MF 2,550 77925
organic chemical 5,400 77926
trace metals 5,400 77927
standard chemistry 2,800 77928
limited chemistry 1,550 77929

       On and after July 1, 20142016, the following fee, on a per 77930
survey basis, shall be charged any such person:77931

microbiological $ 1,650 77932
organic chemicals 3,500 77933
trace metals 3,500 77934
standard chemistry 1,800 77935
limited chemistry 1,000 77936

The fee for those services shall be paid at the time the request 77937
for the survey is made. Through June 30, 2014 2016, an individual 77938
laboratory shall not be assessed a fee under this division more 77939
than once in any three-year period unless the person requests the 77940
addition of analytical methods or analysts, in which case the 77941
person shall pay eighteen hundred dollars for each additional 77942
survey requested.77943

       As used in division (N)(3) of this section:77944

        (a) "MF" means microfiltration.77945

        (b) "MMO" means minimal medium ONPG.77946

        (c) "MUG" means 4-methylumbelliferyl-beta-D-glucuronide.77947

        (d) "ONPG" means o-nitrophenyl-beta-D-galactopyranoside.77948

       The director shall transmit all moneys collected under this 77949
division to the treasurer of state for deposit into the drinking 77950
water protection fund created in section 6109.30 of the Revised 77951
Code.77952

        (O) Any person applying to the director to take an 77953
examination for certification as an operator of a water supply 77954
system or wastewater system under Chapter 6109. or 6111. of the 77955
Revised Code that is administered by the director, at the time the 77956
application is submitted, shall pay a fee in accordance with the 77957
following schedule through November 30, 20142016:77958

Class A operator $ 80 77959
Class I operator   105 77960
Class II operator   120 77961
Class III operator   130 77962
Class IV operator   145 77963

       On and after December 1, 20142016, the applicant shall pay a 77964
fee in accordance with the following schedule:77965

Class A operator $ 50 77966
Class I operator   70 77967
Class II operator   80 77968
Class III operator   90 77969
Class IV operator   100 77970

       Any person applying to the director for certification as an 77971
operator of a water supply system or wastewater system who has 77972
passed an examination administered by an examination provider 77973
approved by the director shall pay a certification fee of 77974
forty-five dollars.77975

       A person shall pay a biennial certification renewal fee for 77976
each applicable class of certification in accordance with the 77977
following schedule:77978

Class A operator $25 77979
Class I operator  35 77980
Class II operator  45 77981
Class III operator  55 77982
Class IV operator  65 77983

        If a certification renewal fee is received by the director 77984
more than thirty days, but not more than one year after the 77985
expiration date of the certification, the person shall pay a 77986
certification renewal fee in accordance with the following 77987
schedule:77988

Class A operator $45 77989
Class I operator  55 77990
Class II operator  65 77991
Class III operator  75 77992
Class IV operator  85 77993

       A person who requests a replacement certificate shall pay a 77994
fee of twenty-five dollars at the time the request is made.77995

       Any person applying to be a water supply system or wastewater 77996
treatment system examination provider shall pay an application fee 77997
of five hundred dollars. Any person approved by the director as a 77998
water supply system or wastewater treatment system examination 77999
provider shall pay an annual fee that is equal to ten per cent of 78000
the fees that the provider assesses and collects for administering 78001
water supply system or wastewater treatment system certification 78002
examinations in this state for the calendar year. The fee shall be 78003
paid not later than forty-five days after the end of a calendar 78004
year.78005

       The director shall transmit all moneys collected under this 78006
division to the treasurer of state for deposit into the drinking 78007
water protection fund created in section 6109.30 of the Revised 78008
Code.78009

       (P) Any person submitting an application for an industrial 78010
water pollution control certificate under section 6111.31 of the 78011
Revised Code, as that section existed before its repeal by H.B. 95 78012
of the 125th general assembly, shall pay a nonrefundable fee of 78013
five hundred dollars at the time the application is submitted. The 78014
director shall transmit all moneys collected under this division 78015
to the treasurer of state for deposit into the surface water 78016
protection fund created in section 6111.038 of the Revised Code. A 78017
person paying a certificate fee under this division shall not pay 78018
an application fee under division (S)(1) of this section. On and 78019
after June 26, 2003, persons shall file such applications and pay 78020
the fee as required under sections 5709.20 to 5709.27 of the 78021
Revised Code, and proceeds from the fee shall be credited as 78022
provided in section 5709.212 of the Revised Code.78023

       (Q) Except as otherwise provided in division (R) of this 78024
section, a person issued a permit by the director for a new solid 78025
waste disposal facility other than an incineration or composting 78026
facility, a new infectious waste treatment facility other than an 78027
incineration facility, or a modification of such an existing 78028
facility that includes an increase in the total disposal or 78029
treatment capacity of the facility pursuant to Chapter 3734. of 78030
the Revised Code shall pay a fee of ten dollars per thousand cubic 78031
yards of disposal or treatment capacity, or one thousand dollars, 78032
whichever is greater, except that the total fee for any such 78033
permit shall not exceed eighty thousand dollars. A person issued a 78034
modification of a permit for a solid waste disposal facility or an 78035
infectious waste treatment facility that does not involve an 78036
increase in the total disposal or treatment capacity of the 78037
facility shall pay a fee of one thousand dollars. A person issued 78038
a permit to install a new, or modify an existing, solid waste 78039
transfer facility under that chapter shall pay a fee of two 78040
thousand five hundred dollars. A person issued a permit to install 78041
a new or to modify an existing solid waste incineration or 78042
composting facility, or an existing infectious waste treatment 78043
facility using incineration as its principal method of treatment, 78044
under that chapter shall pay a fee of one thousand dollars. The 78045
increases in the permit fees under this division resulting from 78046
the amendments made by Amended Substitute House Bill 592 of the 78047
117th general assembly do not apply to any person who submitted an 78048
application for a permit to install a new, or modify an existing, 78049
solid waste disposal facility under that chapter prior to 78050
September 1, 1987; any such person shall pay the permit fee 78051
established in this division as it existed prior to June 24, 1988. 78052
In addition to the applicable permit fee under this division, a 78053
person issued a permit to install or modify a solid waste facility 78054
or an infectious waste treatment facility under that chapter who 78055
fails to pay the permit fee to the director in compliance with 78056
division (V) of this section shall pay an additional ten per cent 78057
of the amount of the fee for each week that the permit fee is 78058
late.78059

       Permit and late payment fees paid to the director under this 78060
division shall be credited to the general revenue fund.78061

       (R)(1) A person issued a registration certificate for a scrap 78062
tire collection facility under section 3734.75 of the Revised Code 78063
shall pay a fee of two hundred dollars, except that if the 78064
facility is owned or operated by a motor vehicle salvage dealer 78065
licensed under Chapter 4738. of the Revised Code, the person shall 78066
pay a fee of twenty-five dollars.78067

       (2) A person issued a registration certificate for a new 78068
scrap tire storage facility under section 3734.76 of the Revised 78069
Code shall pay a fee of three hundred dollars, except that if the 78070
facility is owned or operated by a motor vehicle salvage dealer 78071
licensed under Chapter 4738. of the Revised Code, the person shall 78072
pay a fee of twenty-five dollars.78073

       (3) A person issued a permit for a scrap tire storage 78074
facility under section 3734.76 of the Revised Code shall pay a fee 78075
of one thousand dollars, except that if the facility is owned or 78076
operated by a motor vehicle salvage dealer licensed under Chapter 78077
4738. of the Revised Code, the person shall pay a fee of fifty 78078
dollars.78079

       (4) A person issued a permit for a scrap tire monocell or 78080
monofill facility under section 3734.77 of the Revised Code shall 78081
pay a fee of ten dollars per thousand cubic yards of disposal 78082
capacity or one thousand dollars, whichever is greater, except 78083
that the total fee for any such permit shall not exceed eighty 78084
thousand dollars.78085

       (5) A person issued a registration certificate for a scrap 78086
tire recovery facility under section 3734.78 of the Revised Code 78087
shall pay a fee of one hundred dollars.78088

       (6) A person issued a permit for a scrap tire recovery 78089
facility under section 3734.78 of the Revised Code shall pay a fee 78090
of one thousand dollars.78091

       (7) In addition to the applicable registration certificate or 78092
permit fee under divisions (R)(1) to (6) of this section, a person 78093
issued a registration certificate or permit for any such scrap 78094
tire facility who fails to pay the registration certificate or 78095
permit fee to the director in compliance with division (V) of this 78096
section shall pay an additional ten per cent of the amount of the 78097
fee for each week that the fee is late.78098

       (8) The registration certificate, permit, and late payment 78099
fees paid to the director under divisions (R)(1) to (7) of this 78100
section shall be credited to the scrap tire management fund 78101
created in section 3734.82 of the Revised Code.78102

       (S)(1) Except as provided by divisions (L), (M), (N), (O), 78103
(P), and (S)(2) of this section, division (A)(2) of section 78104
3734.05 of the Revised Code, section 3734.79 of the Revised Code, 78105
and rules adopted under division (T)(1) of this section, any 78106
person applying for a registration certificate under section 78107
3734.75, 3734.76, or 3734.78 of the Revised Code or a permit, 78108
variance, or plan approval under Chapter 3734. of the Revised Code 78109
shall pay a nonrefundable fee of fifteen dollars at the time the 78110
application is submitted.78111

       Except as otherwise provided, any person applying for a 78112
permit, variance, or plan approval under Chapter 6109. or 6111. of 78113
the Revised Code shall pay a nonrefundable fee of one hundred 78114
dollars at the time the application is submitted through June 30, 78115
20142016, and a nonrefundable fee of fifteen dollars at the time 78116
the application is submitted on and after July 1, 20142016. 78117
Except as provided in division (S)(3) of this section, through 78118
June 30, 20142016, any person applying for a national pollutant 78119
discharge elimination system permit under Chapter 6111. of the 78120
Revised Code shall pay a nonrefundable fee of two hundred dollars 78121
at the time of application for the permit. On and after July 1, 78122
20142016, such a person shall pay a nonrefundable fee of fifteen 78123
dollars at the time of application.78124

       In addition to the application fee established under division 78125
(S)(1) of this section, any person applying for a national 78126
pollutant discharge elimination system general storm water 78127
construction permit shall pay a nonrefundable fee of twenty 78128
dollars per acre for each acre that is permitted above five acres 78129
at the time the application is submitted. However, the per acreage 78130
fee shall not exceed three hundred dollars. In addition, any 78131
person applying for a national pollutant discharge elimination 78132
system general storm water industrial permit shall pay a 78133
nonrefundable fee of one hundred fifty dollars at the time the 78134
application is submitted.78135

       The director shall transmit all moneys collected under 78136
division (S)(1) of this section pursuant to Chapter 6109. of the 78137
Revised Code to the treasurer of state for deposit into the 78138
drinking water protection fund created in section 6109.30 of the 78139
Revised Code.78140

       The director shall transmit all moneys collected under 78141
division (S)(1) of this section pursuant to Chapter 6111. of the 78142
Revised Code and under division (S)(3) of this section to the 78143
treasurer of state for deposit into the surface water protection 78144
fund created in section 6111.038 of the Revised Code.78145

       If a registration certificate is issued under section 78146
3734.75, 3734.76, or 3734.78 of the Revised Code, the amount of 78147
the application fee paid shall be deducted from the amount of the 78148
registration certificate fee due under division (R)(1), (2), or 78149
(5) of this section, as applicable.78150

       If a person submits an electronic application for a 78151
registration certificate, permit, variance, or plan approval for 78152
which an application fee is established under division (S)(1) of 78153
this section, the person shall pay the applicable application fee 78154
as expeditiously as possible after the submission of the 78155
electronic application. An application for a registration 78156
certificate, permit, variance, or plan approval for which an 78157
application fee is established under division (S)(1) of this 78158
section shall not be reviewed or processed until the applicable 78159
application fee, and any other fees established under this 78160
division, are paid.78161

       (2) Division (S)(1) of this section does not apply to an 78162
application for a registration certificate for a scrap tire 78163
collection or storage facility submitted under section 3734.75 or 78164
3734.76 of the Revised Code, as applicable, if the owner or 78165
operator of the facility or proposed facility is a motor vehicle 78166
salvage dealer licensed under Chapter 4738. of the Revised Code.78167

       (3) A person applying for coverage under a national pollutant 78168
discharge elimination system general discharge permit for 78169
household sewage treatment systems shall pay the following fees:78170

       (a) A nonrefundable fee of two hundred dollars at the time of 78171
application for initial permit coverage;78172

       (b) A nonrefundable fee of one hundred dollars at the time of 78173
application for a renewal of permit coverage.78174

       (T) The director may adopt, amend, and rescind rules in 78175
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that do all of 78176
the following:78177

       (1) Prescribe fees to be paid by applicants for and holders 78178
of any license, permit, variance, plan approval, or certification 78179
required or authorized by Chapter 3704., 3734., 6109., or 6111. of 78180
the Revised Code that are not specifically established in this 78181
section. The fees shall be designed to defray the cost of 78182
processing, issuing, revoking, modifying, denying, and enforcing 78183
the licenses, permits, variances, plan approvals, and 78184
certifications.78185

       The director shall transmit all moneys collected under rules 78186
adopted under division (T)(1) of this section pursuant to Chapter 78187
6109. of the Revised Code to the treasurer of state for deposit 78188
into the drinking water protection fund created in section 6109.30 78189
of the Revised Code.78190

       The director shall transmit all moneys collected under rules 78191
adopted under division (T)(1) of this section pursuant to Chapter 78192
6111. of the Revised Code to the treasurer of state for deposit 78193
into the surface water protection fund created in section 6111.038 78194
of the Revised Code.78195

       (2) Exempt the state and political subdivisions thereof, 78196
including education facilities or medical facilities owned by the 78197
state or a political subdivision, or any person exempted from 78198
taxation by section 5709.07 or 5709.12 of the Revised Code, from 78199
any fee required by this section;78200

       (3) Provide for the waiver of any fee, or any part thereof, 78201
otherwise required by this section whenever the director 78202
determines that the imposition of the fee would constitute an 78203
unreasonable cost of doing business for any applicant, class of 78204
applicants, or other person subject to the fee;78205

       (4) Prescribe measures that the director considers necessary 78206
to carry out this section.78207

       (U) When the director reasonably demonstrates that the direct 78208
cost to the state associated with the issuance of a permit to 78209
install, license, variance, plan approval, or certification 78210
exceeds the fee for the issuance or review specified by this 78211
section, the director may condition the issuance or review on the 78212
payment by the person receiving the issuance or review of, in 78213
addition to the fee specified by this section, the amount, or any 78214
portion thereof, in excess of the fee specified under this 78215
section. The director shall not so condition issuances for which a 78216
fee is prescribed in division (L)(1)(b) of this section.78217

       (V) Except as provided in divisions (L), (M), and (P) of this 78218
section or unless otherwise prescribed by a rule of the director 78219
adopted pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, all fees 78220
required by this section are payable within thirty days after the 78221
issuance of an invoice for the fee by the director or the 78222
effective date of the issuance of the license, permit, variance, 78223
plan approval, or certification. If payment is late, the person 78224
responsible for payment of the fee shall pay an additional ten per 78225
cent of the amount due for each month that it is late.78226

       (W) As used in this section, "fuel-burning equipment," 78227
"fuel-burning equipment input capacity," "incinerator," 78228
"incinerator input capacity," "process," "process weight rate," 78229
"storage tank," "gasoline dispensing facility," "dry cleaning 78230
facility," "design flow discharge," and "new source treatment 78231
works" have the meanings ascribed to those terms by applicable 78232
rules or standards adopted by the director under Chapter 3704. or 78233
6111. of the Revised Code.78234

       (X) As used in divisions (B), (D), (E), (F), (H), (I), and 78235
(J) of this section, and in any other provision of this section 78236
pertaining to fees paid pursuant to Chapter 3704. of the Revised 78237
Code:78238

       (1) "Facility," "federal Clean Air Act," "person," and "Title 78239
V permit" have the same meanings as in section 3704.01 of the 78240
Revised Code.78241

       (2) "Title V permit program" means the following activities 78242
as necessary to meet the requirements of Title V of the federal 78243
Clean Air Act and 40 C.F.R. part 70, including at least:78244

       (a) Preparing and adopting, if applicable, generally 78245
applicable rules or guidance regarding the permit program or its 78246
implementation or enforcement;78247

       (b) Reviewing and acting on any application for a Title V 78248
permit, permit revision, or permit renewal, including the 78249
development of an applicable requirement as part of the processing 78250
of a permit, permit revision, or permit renewal;78251

       (c) Administering the permit program, including the 78252
supporting and tracking of permit applications, compliance 78253
certification, and related data entry;78254

       (d) Determining which sources are subject to the program and 78255
implementing and enforcing the terms of any Title V permit, not 78256
including any court actions or other formal enforcement actions;78257

       (e) Emission and ambient monitoring;78258

       (f) Modeling, analyses, or demonstrations;78259

       (g) Preparing inventories and tracking emissions;78260

       (h) Providing direct and indirect support to small business 78261
stationary sources to determine and meet their obligations under 78262
the federal Clean Air Act pursuant to the small business 78263
stationary source technical and environmental compliance 78264
assistance program required by section 507 of that act and 78265
established in sections 3704.18, 3704.19, and 3706.19 of the 78266
Revised Code.78267

       (3) "Organic compound" means any chemical compound of carbon, 78268
excluding carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide, carbonic acid, metallic 78269
carbides or carbonates, and ammonium carbonate.78270

       (Y)(1) Except as provided in divisions (Y)(2), (3), and (4) 78271
of this section, each sewage sludge facility shall pay a 78272
nonrefundable annual sludge fee equal to three dollars and fifty 78273
cents per dry ton of sewage sludge, including the dry tons of 78274
sewage sludge in materials derived from sewage sludge, that the 78275
sewage sludge facility treats or disposes of in this state. The 78276
annual volume of sewage sludge treated or disposed of by a sewage 78277
sludge facility shall be calculated using the first day of January 78278
through the thirty-first day of December of the calendar year 78279
preceding the date on which payment of the fee is due.78280

       (2)(a) Except as provided in division (Y)(2)(d) of this 78281
section, each sewage sludge facility shall pay a minimum annual 78282
sewage sludge fee of one hundred dollars.78283

       (b) The annual sludge fee required to be paid by a sewage 78284
sludge facility that treats or disposes of exceptional quality 78285
sludge in this state shall be thirty-five per cent less per dry 78286
ton of exceptional quality sludge than the fee assessed under 78287
division (Y)(1) of this section, subject to the following 78288
exceptions:78289

       (i) Except as provided in division (Y)(2)(d) of this section, 78290
a sewage sludge facility that treats or disposes of exceptional 78291
quality sludge shall pay a minimum annual sewage sludge fee of one 78292
hundred dollars.78293

       (ii) A sewage sludge facility that treats or disposes of 78294
exceptional quality sludge shall not be required to pay the annual 78295
sludge fee for treatment or disposal in this state of exceptional 78296
quality sludge generated outside of this state and contained in 78297
bags or other containers not greater than one hundred pounds in 78298
capacity.78299

       A thirty-five per cent reduction for exceptional quality 78300
sludge applies to the maximum annual fees established under 78301
division (Y)(3) of this section.78302

       (c) A sewage sludge facility that transfers sewage sludge to 78303
another sewage sludge facility in this state for further treatment 78304
prior to disposal in this state shall not be required to pay the 78305
annual sludge fee for the tons of sewage sludge that have been 78306
transferred. In such a case, the sewage sludge facility that 78307
disposes of the sewage sludge shall pay the annual sludge fee. 78308
However, the facility transferring the sewage sludge shall pay the 78309
one-hundred-dollar minimum fee required under division (Y)(2)(a) 78310
of this section.78311

       In the case of a sewage sludge facility that treats sewage 78312
sludge in this state and transfers it out of this state to another 78313
entity for disposal, the sewage sludge facility in this state 78314
shall be required to pay the annual sludge fee for the tons of 78315
sewage sludge that have been transferred.78316

       (d) A sewage sludge facility that generates sewage sludge 78317
resulting from an average daily discharge flow of less than five 78318
thousand gallons per day is not subject to the fees assessed under 78319
division (Y) of this section.78320

       (3) No sewage sludge facility required to pay the annual 78321
sludge fee shall be required to pay more than the maximum annual 78322
fee for each disposal method that the sewage sludge facility uses. 78323
The maximum annual fee does not include the additional amount that 78324
may be charged under division (Y)(5) of this section for late 78325
payment of the annual sludge fee. The maximum annual fee for the 78326
following methods of disposal of sewage sludge is as follows:78327

       (a) Incineration: five thousand dollars;78328

       (b) Preexisting land reclamation project or disposal in a 78329
landfill: five thousand dollars;78330

       (c) Land application, land reclamation, surface disposal, or 78331
any other disposal method not specified in division (Y)(3)(a) or 78332
(b) of this section: twenty thousand dollars.78333

       (4)(a) In the case of an entity that generates sewage sludge 78334
or a sewage sludge facility that treats sewage sludge and 78335
transfers the sewage sludge to an incineration facility for 78336
disposal, the incineration facility, and not the entity generating 78337
the sewage sludge or the sewage sludge facility treating the 78338
sewage sludge, shall pay the annual sludge fee for the tons of 78339
sewage sludge that are transferred. However, the entity or 78340
facility generating or treating the sewage sludge shall pay the 78341
one-hundred-dollar minimum fee required under division (Y)(2)(a) 78342
of this section.78343

       (b) In the case of an entity that generates sewage sludge and 78344
transfers the sewage sludge to a landfill for disposal or to a 78345
sewage sludge facility for land reclamation or surface disposal, 78346
the entity generating the sewage sludge, and not the landfill or 78347
sewage sludge facility, shall pay the annual sludge fee for the 78348
tons of sewage sludge that are transferred.78349

       (5) Not later than the first day of April of the calendar 78350
year following March 17, 2000, and each first day of April 78351
thereafter, the director shall issue invoices to persons who are 78352
required to pay the annual sludge fee. The invoice shall identify 78353
the nature and amount of the annual sludge fee assessed and state 78354
the first day of May as the deadline for receipt by the director 78355
of objections regarding the amount of the fee and the first day of 78356
July as the deadline for payment of the fee.78357

       Not later than the first day of May following receipt of an 78358
invoice, a person required to pay the annual sludge fee may submit 78359
objections to the director concerning the accuracy of information 78360
regarding the number of dry tons of sewage sludge used to 78361
calculate the amount of the annual sludge fee or regarding whether 78362
the sewage sludge qualifies for the exceptional quality sludge 78363
discount established in division (Y)(2)(b) of this section. The 78364
director may consider the objections and adjust the amount of the 78365
fee to ensure that it is accurate.78366

       If the director does not adjust the amount of the annual 78367
sludge fee in response to a person's objections, the person may 78368
appeal the director's determination in accordance with Chapter 78369
119. of the Revised Code.78370

       Not later than the first day of June, the director shall 78371
notify the objecting person regarding whether the director has 78372
found the objections to be valid and the reasons for the finding. 78373
If the director finds the objections to be valid and adjusts the 78374
amount of the annual sludge fee accordingly, the director shall 78375
issue with the notification a new invoice to the person 78376
identifying the amount of the annual sludge fee assessed and 78377
stating the first day of July as the deadline for payment.78378

       Not later than the first day of July, any person who is 78379
required to do so shall pay the annual sludge fee. Any person who 78380
is required to pay the fee, but who fails to do so on or before 78381
that date shall pay an additional amount that equals ten per cent 78382
of the required annual sludge fee.78383

       (6) The director shall transmit all moneys collected under 78384
division (Y) of this section to the treasurer of state for deposit 78385
into the surface water protection fund created in section 6111.038 78386
of the Revised Code. The moneys shall be used to defray the costs 78387
of administering and enforcing provisions in Chapter 6111. of the 78388
Revised Code and rules adopted under it that govern the use, 78389
storage, treatment, or disposal of sewage sludge.78390

       (7) Beginning in fiscal year 2001, and every two years 78391
thereafter, the director shall review the total amount of moneys 78392
generated by the annual sludge fees to determine if that amount 78393
exceeded six hundred thousand dollars in either of the two 78394
preceding fiscal years. If the total amount of moneys in the fund 78395
exceeded six hundred thousand dollars in either fiscal year, the 78396
director, after review of the fee structure and consultation with 78397
affected persons, shall issue an order reducing the amount of the 78398
fees levied under division (Y) of this section so that the 78399
estimated amount of moneys resulting from the fees will not exceed 78400
six hundred thousand dollars in any fiscal year.78401

       If, upon review of the fees under division (Y)(7) of this 78402
section and after the fees have been reduced, the director 78403
determines that the total amount of moneys collected and 78404
accumulated is less than six hundred thousand dollars, the 78405
director, after review of the fee structure and consultation with 78406
affected persons, may issue an order increasing the amount of the 78407
fees levied under division (Y) of this section so that the 78408
estimated amount of moneys resulting from the fees will be 78409
approximately six hundred thousand dollars. Fees shall never be 78410
increased to an amount exceeding the amount specified in division 78411
(Y)(7) of this section.78412

       Notwithstanding section 119.06 of the Revised Code, the 78413
director may issue an order under division (Y)(7) of this section 78414
without the necessity to hold an adjudicatory hearing in 78415
connection with the order. The issuance of an order under this 78416
division is not an act or action for purposes of section 3745.04 78417
of the Revised Code.78418

       (8) As used in division (Y) of this section:78419

       (a) "Sewage sludge facility" means an entity that performs 78420
treatment on or is responsible for the disposal of sewage sludge.78421

       (b) "Sewage sludge" means a solid, semi-solid, or liquid 78422
residue generated during the treatment of domestic sewage in a 78423
treatment works as defined in section 6111.01 of the Revised Code. 78424
"Sewage sludge" includes, but is not limited to, scum or solids 78425
removed in primary, secondary, or advanced wastewater treatment 78426
processes. "Sewage sludge" does not include ash generated during 78427
the firing of sewage sludge in a sewage sludge incinerator, grit 78428
and screenings generated during preliminary treatment of domestic 78429
sewage in a treatment works, animal manure, residue generated 78430
during treatment of animal manure, or domestic septage.78431

       (c) "Exceptional quality sludge" means sewage sludge that 78432
meets all of the following qualifications:78433

       (i) Satisfies the class A pathogen standards in 40 C.F.R. 78434
503.32(a);78435

       (ii) Satisfies one of the vector attraction reduction 78436
requirements in 40 C.F.R. 503.33(b)(1) to (b)(8);78437

       (iii) Does not exceed the ceiling concentration limitations 78438
for metals listed in table one of 40 C.F.R. 503.13;78439

       (iv) Does not exceed the concentration limitations for metals 78440
listed in table three of 40 C.F.R. 503.13.78441

       (d) "Treatment" means the preparation of sewage sludge for 78442
final use or disposal and includes, but is not limited to, 78443
thickening, stabilization, and dewatering of sewage sludge.78444

       (e) "Disposal" means the final use of sewage sludge, 78445
including, but not limited to, land application, land reclamation, 78446
surface disposal, or disposal in a landfill or an incinerator.78447

       (f) "Land application" means the spraying or spreading of 78448
sewage sludge onto the land surface, the injection of sewage 78449
sludge below the land surface, or the incorporation of sewage 78450
sludge into the soil for the purposes of conditioning the soil or 78451
fertilizing crops or vegetation grown in the soil.78452

       (g) "Land reclamation" means the returning of disturbed land 78453
to productive use.78454

       (h) "Surface disposal" means the placement of sludge on an 78455
area of land for disposal, including, but not limited to, 78456
monofills, surface impoundments, lagoons, waste piles, or 78457
dedicated disposal sites.78458

       (i) "Incinerator" means an entity that disposes of sewage 78459
sludge through the combustion of organic matter and inorganic 78460
matter in sewage sludge by high temperatures in an enclosed 78461
device.78462

       (j) "Incineration facility" includes all incinerators owned 78463
or operated by the same entity and located on a contiguous tract 78464
of land. Areas of land are considered to be contiguous even if 78465
they are separated by a public road or highway.78466

       (k) "Annual sludge fee" means the fee assessed under division 78467
(Y)(1) of this section.78468

       (l) "Landfill" means a sanitary landfill facility, as defined 78469
in rules adopted under section 3734.02 of the Revised Code, that 78470
is licensed under section 3734.05 of the Revised Code.78471

       (m) "Preexisting land reclamation project" means a 78472
property-specific land reclamation project that has been in 78473
continuous operation for not less than five years pursuant to 78474
approval of the activity by the director and includes the 78475
implementation of a community outreach program concerning the 78476
activity.78477

       Sec. 3745.113. (A) A person that applies for a state isolated 78478
wetland permit under Chapter 6111. of the Revised Code and rules 78479
adopted under it shall pay an application fee of two hundred 78480
dollars at the time of application.78481

       In addition, that person shall pay, at the time of 78482
application, a review fee of five hundred dollars per acre of the 78483
wetlands to be impacted.78484

       However, the review fee shall not exceed five thousand 78485
dollars per application. In addition, if an application is denied, 78486
the director of environmental protection shall refund to the 78487
applicant one-half of the amount of the review fee paid by the 78488
applicant under division (A) of this section.78489

       (B) If a person conducts any activities for which an 78490
individual state isolated wetland permit is required under Chapter 78491
6111. of the Revised Code and rules adopted under it without first 78492
obtaining such a permit, the person shall pay twice the amount of 78493
the application and review fees that the person otherwise would 78494
have been required to pay under division (A) of this section, not 78495
to exceed ten thousand dollars.78496

       (C) All moneys collected under this section shall be 78497
deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the dredge and 78498
fillsurface water protection fund created in section 6111.02978499
6111.038 of the Revised Code.78500

       (D) Fees established under this section shall not apply to 78501
any agency or department of the state or to any county, township, 78502
or municipal corporation in this state.78503

       Sec. 3745.72.  (A) The owner or operator of a facility or 78504
property who conducts an environmental audit of the facility or 78505
property and promptly and voluntarily discloses information 78506
contained in or derived from an audit report that is based on the 78507
audit and concerns an alleged violation of environmental laws to 78508
the director of the state agency that has jurisdiction over the 78509
alleged violation is immune from any administrative and civil 78510
penalties for the specific violation disclosed, except that where 78511
the disclosed violation has resulted in significant economic 78512
benefit to the owner or operator of the facility or property, 78513
there is no immunity for the economic benefit component of the 78514
administrative and civil penalties for that violation. An owner or 78515
operator asserting entitlement to such immunity has the burden of 78516
proving that entitlement by a preponderance of the evidence.78517

       (B) For the purposes of this section, a disclosure of 78518
information is voluntary with respect to an alleged violation of 78519
environmental laws only if all of the following apply:78520

       (1) The disclosure is made promptly after the information is 78521
obtained through the environmental audit by the owner or operator 78522
who conducts the environmental audit.78523

       (2) A reasonable, good faith effort is made to achieve 78524
compliance as quickly as practicable with environmental laws 78525
applicable to the information disclosed.78526

       (3) Compliance with environmental laws applicable to the 78527
information disclosed is achieved as quickly as practicable or 78528
within such period as is reasonably ordered by the director of the 78529
state agency that has jurisdiction over the alleged violation.78530

       (4) The owner or operator cooperates with the director of the 78531
state agency that has jurisdiction over the alleged violation in 78532
investigating the cause, nature, extent, and effects of the 78533
noncompliance.78534

       (5) The disclosure is not required by law, prior litigation, 78535
or an order by a court or a government agency.78536

       (6) The owner or operator who makes the disclosure does not 78537
know or have reason to know that a government agency charged with 78538
enforcing environmental laws has commenced an investigation or 78539
enforcement action that concerns a violation of such laws 78540
involving the activity.78541

       (C) For the purposes of this section, a disclosure shall be 78542
in writing, dated, and hand delivered or sent by certified mail to 78543
the director of the state agency that has jurisdiction over the 78544
alleged violation, and shall contain all of the following in a 78545
printed letter attached to the front of the disclosure:78546

       (1) The name, address, and telephone number of the owner or 78547
operator making the disclosure;78548

       (2) The name, title, address, and telephone number of one or 78549
more persons associated with the owner or operator who may be 78550
contacted regarding the disclosure;78551

       (3) A brief summary of the alleged violation of environmental 78552
laws, including, without limitation, the nature, date, and 78553
location of the alleged violation to the extent that the 78554
information is known by the owner or operator;78555

       (4) A statement that the information is part of an 78556
environmental audit report and is being disclosed under section 78557
3745.72 of the Revised Code in order to obtain the immunity 78558
provided by that section.78559

       (D) This section does not provide immunity from the payment 78560
of damages for harm to persons, property, or the environment; the 78561
payment of reasonable costs incurred by a government agency in 78562
responding to a disclosure; or responsibility for the remediation 78563
or cleanup of environmental harm under environmental laws.78564

       (E) The immunity provided by this section does not apply 78565
under any of the following circumstances:78566

       (1) Within the three-year period prior to disclosure, the 78567
owner or operator of a facility or property has committed 78568
significant violations that constitute a pattern of continuous or 78569
repeated violations of environmental laws, environmental related 78570
settlement agreements, or environmental related judicial orders 78571
and that arose from separate and distinct events. For the purposes 78572
of division (E)(1) of this section, a pattern of continuous or 78573
repeated violations also may be demonstrated by multiple 78574
settlement agreements related to substantially the same alleged 78575
significant violations that occurred within the three-year period 78576
immediately prior to the voluntary disclosure. Determination of 78577
whether a person has a pattern of continuous or repeated 78578
violations under division (E)(1) of this section shall be based on 78579
the compliance history of the property or specific facility at 78580
issue.78581

       (2) With respect to a specific violation, the violation 78582
resulted in serious harm or in imminent and substantial 78583
endangerment to human health or the environment.78584

       (3) With respect to a specific violation, the violation is of 78585
a specific requirement of an administrative or judicial order.78586

       (F) The immunity provided by this section applies only to 78587
disclosures made concerning environmental audits initiated after 78588
March 13, 1997, and completed before January 1, 2014, in 78589
accordance with the time frames specified in division (A) of 78590
section 3745.70 of the Revised Code.78591

       (G) The immunity provided by this section applies to a person 78592
who makes a good faith disclosure to a state agency under this 78593
section even though another state agency is determined to have 78594
jurisdiction over an alleged violation of environmental laws 78595
indicated in the disclosure.78596

       (H) Each state agency that receives a disclosure under this 78597
section promptly shall record receipt of the disclosure, determine 78598
whether it has jurisdiction over the alleged violation of 78599
environmental laws indicated in the disclosure, and, if it does 78600
not have such jurisdiction, deliver the disclosure documents to 78601
the director of a state agency that has jurisdiction over the 78602
alleged violation. If a disclosure indicates alleged violations of 78603
environmental laws that are under the jurisdiction of more than 78604
one state agency, the state agency that first receives the 78605
disclosure and has jurisdiction over any of the alleged violations 78606
promptly shall notify the director of each state agency that has 78607
jurisdiction over any of such alleged violations. The director of 78608
each state agency that receives a disclosure under this section, 78609
or is notified by another state agency that the director's agency 78610
has jurisdiction over an alleged violation of environmental laws 78611
indicated in the disclosure, promptly shall deliver written notice 78612
of that fact by certified mail to the owner or operator who made 78613
the disclosure. The notice shall identify the state agency that 78614
sends the notice; state the name, title, address, and telephone 78615
number of a person in the agency whom the owner or operator may 78616
contact regarding the disclosure; and state the name, address, and 78617
telephone number of the director of any other state agency 78618
notified about the disclosure because that agency has jurisdiction 78619
over an alleged violation of environmental laws indicated in the 78620
disclosure.78621

       Sec. 3748.01.  As used in this chapter:78622

       (A) "Byproduct material" means either of the following:78623

       (1) Any radioactive material, except special nuclear 78624
material, yielded in or made radioactive by exposure to radiation 78625
incident to the process of producing or utilizing special nuclear 78626
material;78627

       (2) The tailings or wastes produced by the extraction or 78628
concentration of uranium or thorium from any ore processed 78629
primarily for its source material content.78630

       (B) "Certified radiation expert" means an individual who has 78631
complied with all of the following:78632

       (1) Applied to the director of health for certification as a 78633
radiation expert under section 3748.12 of the Revised Code;78634

       (2) Met minimum education and experience requirements 78635
established in rules adopted under division (C) of section 3748.04 78636
of the Revised Code;78637

       (3) Been granted a certificate as a radiation expert by the 78638
director under section 3748.12 of the Revised Code.78639

       (C) "Closure" or "site closure" refers to a facility for the 78640
disposal of low-level radioactive waste or a byproduct material 78641
site, as "byproduct material" is defined in division (A)(2) of 78642
this section, and means all activities performed at a licensed 78643
operation, such as stabilization and contouring, to ensure that 78644
the site where the operation occurred is in a stable condition so 78645
that only minor custodial care, surveillance, and monitoring are 78646
necessary at the site following the termination of the licensed 78647
operation.78648

       (D) "Decommissioning" means to safely remove any licensed 78649
operation from service and reduce residual radioactivity to a 78650
level that permits release of the licensee's property for 78651
unrestricted use. With regard to a facility for the disposal of 78652
low-level radioactive waste or a byproduct material site, as 78653
"byproduct material" is defined in division (A)(2) of this 78654
section, "decommissioning" does not include the reduction of 78655
residual radioactivity to a level that permits release of the 78656
facility for unrestricted use.78657

       (E) "Director of health" includes a designee or authorized 78658
representative of the director.78659

       (F) "Disposal," with regard to low-level radioactive waste, 78660
means the permanent isolation of that waste in accordance with 78661
requirements established by the United States nuclear regulatory 78662
commission or the licensing agreement state.78663

       (G) "Disposal site" means that portion of a facility that is 78664
used for the disposal of low-level radioactive waste and that 78665
consists of disposal units and a buffer zone. "Disposal unit" 78666
means a discrete portion of such a facility into which low-level 78667
radioactive waste is placed for disposal.78668

       (H)(1) Except as provided in division (H)(2) of this section, 78669
"facility" means the state, any political subdivision, person, 78670
public or private institution, or group, or any unit of one of 78671
those entities, but does not include the federal government or any 78672
of its agencies.78673

       (2) For the purposes of the disposal of low-level radioactive 78674
waste, "facility" has the same meaning as in section 3747.01 of 78675
the Revised Code.78676

       (I) "Handle" means receive, possess, use, store, transfer, 78677
install, service, or dispose of sources of radiation unless 78678
possession is solely for the purpose of transportation.78679

       (J) "Handler" means a facility that handles sources of 78680
radiation unless possession is solely for the purpose of 78681
transportation.78682

       (K) "Inspection" means an official review, examination, or 78683
observation, including, without limitation, tests, surveys, and 78684
monitoring, that is used to determine compliance with rules, 78685
orders, requirements, and conditions of the department of health 78686
and that is conducted by the director of health.78687

       (L) "Low-level radioactive waste" has the same meaning as in 78688
section 3747.01 of the Revised Code with regard to the disposal of 78689
low-level radioactive waste. In regard to regulatory control at 78690
locations other than a disposal facility, "low-level radioactive 78691
waste" has the same meaning as in 42 U.S.C.A. 2021b.78692

       (M) "Quality assurance program" means a program providing for 78693
verification by written procedures such as testing, auditing, and 78694
inspection to ensure that deficiencies, deviations, defective 78695
equipment, or unsafe practices, or a combination thereof, relating 78696
to the use, disposal, management, or manufacture of radiation 78697
sources are identified, promptly corrected, and reported to the 78698
appropriate regulatory authorities.78699

       (N) "Radiation" means ionizing and nonionizing radiation.78700

       (1) "Ionizing radiation" means gamma rays and X-rays, alpha 78701
and beta particles, high-speed electrons, neutrons, protons, and 78702
other nuclear particles, but does not include sound or radio waves 78703
or visible, infrared, or ultraviolet light.78704

       (2) "Nonionizing radiation" means any electromagnetic 78705
radiation, other than ionizing electromagnetic radiation, or any 78706
sonic, ultrasonic, or infrasonic wave.78707

       (O) "Radioactive material" means any solid, liquid, or 78708
gaseous material that emits ionizing radiation spontaneously. 78709
"Radioactive material" includes accelerator-produced and naturally 78710
occurring materials and byproduct, source, and special nuclear 78711
material.78712

       (P) "Radiation-generating equipment" means any manufactured 78713
product or device, or component of such a product or device, or 78714
any machine or system that during operation can generate or emit 78715
radiation, except those that emit radiation only from radioactive 78716
material. "Radiation-generating equipment" does not include either 78717
of the following:78718

       (1) Diathermy machines;78719

       (2) Microwave ovens, including food service microwave ovens 78720
used for commercial and industrial uses, television receivers, 78721
electric lamps, and other household appliances and products that 78722
generate very low levels of radiation.78723

       (Q) "Source material" means uranium, thorium, or any 78724
combination thereof in any physical or chemical form, or any ores 78725
that contain by weight at least one-twentieth of one per cent of 78726
uranium, thorium, or any combination thereof. "Source material" 78727
does not include special nuclear material.78728

       (R) "Source of radiation" means radioactive material or 78729
radiation-generating equipment.78730

       (S) "Special nuclear material" means either of the following:78731

       (1) Plutonium, uranium 233, uranium enriched in the isotope 78732
233 or in the isotope 235, and any other material that the United 78733
States nuclear regulatory commission determines to be special 78734
nuclear material, but does not include source material pursuant to 78735
section 51 of the "Atomic Energy Act of 1954," 68 Stat. 919, 42 78736
U.S.C.A. 2071."78737

       (2) Except for any source material, any material artificially 78738
enriched by any of the materials identified in division (S)(1) of 78739
this section.78740

       (T) "Storage" means the retention of radioactive materials, 78741
including low-level radioactive waste, prior to disposal in a 78742
manner that allows for surveillance, control, and subsequent 78743
retrieval.78744

       (U) "Medical practitioner" means a person who is authorized 78745
pursuant to Chapter 4715. of the Revised Code to practice 78746
dentistry; pursuant to Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to 78747
practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, 78748
or podiatric medicine and surgery; or pursuant to Chapter 4734. of 78749
the Revised Code to practice chiropractic.78750

       (V) "Medical-practitioner group" means a corporation, 78751
partnership, or other business entity, other than a hospital as 78752
defined in section 3727.01 of the Revised Code, consisting of 78753
medical practitioners.78754

       (W) "Naturally occurring radioactive material" means material 78755
that contains any nuclide that is radioactive in its natural 78756
physical state. "Naturally occurring radioactive material" does 78757
not include source material, byproduct material, or special 78758
nuclear material.78759

       (X) "Technologically enhanced naturally occurring radioactive 78760
material" means naturally occurring radioactive material with 78761
radionuclide concentrations that are increased by or as a result 78762
of past or present human activities. "Technologically enhanced 78763
naturally occurring radioactive material" does not include drill 78764
cuttings, natural background radiation, byproduct material, or 78765
source material.78766

       (Y) "Drill cuttings" means the soil, rock fragments, and 78767
pulverized material that are removed from a borehole and that may 78768
include a de minimus amount of fluid that results from a drilling 78769
process.78770

       Sec. 3748.04.  The director of health, in accordance with 78771
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt and may amend or 78772
rescind rules doing all of the following:78773

       (A) Listing types of radioactive material for which licensure 78774
by its handler is required and types of radiation-generating 78775
equipment for which registration by its handler is required, and 78776
establishing requirements governing them. Rules adopted under 78777
division (A) of this section shall be compatible with applicable 78778
federal regulations and shall establish all of the following, 78779
without limitation:78780

       (1) Requirements governing both of the following:78781

       (a) The licensing and inspection of handlers of radioactive 78782
material. Standards established in rules adopted under division 78783
(A)(1)(a) of this section regarding byproduct material or any 78784
activity that results in the production of that material, to the 78785
extent practicable, shall be equivalent to or more stringent than 78786
applicable standards established by the United States nuclear 78787
regulatory commission.78788

       (b) The registration and inspection of handlers of 78789
radiation-generating equipment. Standards established in rules 78790
adopted under division (A)(1)(b) of this section, to the extent 78791
practicable, shall be equivalent to applicable standards 78792
established by the food and drug administration in the United 78793
States department of health and human services.78794

       (2) Identification of and requirements governing possession 78795
and use of specifically licensed and generally licensed quantities 78796
of radioactive material as either sealed sources or unsealed 78797
sources;78798

       (3) A procedure for the issuance of and the frequency of 78799
renewal of the licenses of handlers of radioactive material, other 78800
than a license for a facility for the disposal of low-level 78801
radioactive waste, and of the certificates of registration of 78802
handlers of radiation-generating equipment;78803

       (4) Procedures for suspending and revoking the licenses of 78804
handlers of radioactive material and the certificates of 78805
registration of handlers of radiation-generating equipment;78806

       (5) Criteria to be used by the director of health in amending 78807
the license of a handler of radioactive material or the 78808
certificate of registration of a handler of radiation-generating 78809
equipment subsequent to its issuance;78810

       (6) Criteria for achieving and maintaining compliance with 78811
this chapter and rules adopted under it by licensees and 78812
registrants;78813

       (7) Criteria governing environmental monitoring of licensed 78814
and registered activities to assess compliance with this chapter 78815
and rules adopted under it;78816

       (8) Fees for both of the following:78817

       (a) The licensing of handlers, other than facilities for the 78818
disposal of low-level radioactive waste, of radioactive material;78819

       (b) The registration of handlers, other than facilities that 78820
are, or are operated by, medical practitioners or 78821
medical-practitioner groups, of radiation-generating equipment.78822

       (9) A fee schedule for both of the following that includes 78823
fees for reviews, conducted during an inspection, of shielding 78824
plans or the adequacy of shielding: 78825

       (a) The inspection of handlers of radioactive material; 78826

       (b) The inspection of handlers, other than facilities that 78827
are, or are operated by, medical practitioners or 78828
medical-practitioner groups, of radiation-generating equipment.78829

       (B)(1) Identifying sources of radiation, circumstances of 78830
possession, use, or disposal of sources of radiation, and levels 78831
of radiation that constitute an unreasonable or unnecessary risk 78832
to human health or the environment;78833

       (2) Establishing requirements for the achievement and 78834
maintenance of compliance with standards for the receipt, 78835
possession, use, storage, installation, transfer, servicing, and 78836
disposal of sources of radiation to prevent levels of radiation 78837
that constitute an unreasonable or unnecessary risk to human 78838
health or the environment;78839

       (3) Requiring the maintenance of records on the receipt, use, 78840
storage, transfer, and disposal of radioactive material, including 78841
technologically enhanced naturally occurring radioactive material,78842
and on the radiological safety aspects of the use and maintenance 78843
of radiation-generating equipment. The rules adopted under 78844
division (B)(3) of this section shall not require maintenance of 78845
records regarding naturally occurring radioactive material.78846

       In adopting rules under divisions (A) and (B) of this 78847
section, the director shall use standards no less stringent than 78848
the "suggested state regulations for control of radiation" 78849
prepared by the conference of radiation control program directors, 78850
inc., and regulations adopted by the United States nuclear 78851
regulatory commission, the United States environmental protection 78852
agency, and the United States department of health and human 78853
services and shall consider reports of the national council on 78854
radiation protection and measurement and the relevant standards of 78855
the American national standards institute.78856

       (C) Establishing fees, procedures, and requirements for 78857
certification as a radiation expert, including all of the 78858
following, without limitation:78859

       (1) Minimum training and experience requirements;78860

       (2) Procedures for applying for certification;78861

       (3) Procedures for review of applications and issuance of 78862
certificates;78863

       (4) Procedures for suspending and revoking certification.78864

       (D) Establishing a schedule for inspection of sources of 78865
radiation and their shielding and surroundings;78866

       (E) Establishing the responsibilities of a radiation expert;78867

       (F) Establishing criteria for quality assurance programs for 78868
licensees of radioactive material and registrants of 78869
radiation-generating equipment;78870

       (G) Establishing fees to be paid by any facility that, on 78871
September 8, 1995, holds a license from the United States nuclear 78872
regulatory commission in order to provide moneys necessary for the 78873
transfer of licensing and other regulatory authority from the 78874
commission to the state pursuant to section 3748.03 of the Revised 78875
Code. Rules adopted under this division shall stipulate that fees 78876
so established do not apply to any functions dealing specifically 78877
with a facility for the disposal of low-level radioactive waste. 78878
Fees collected under this division shall be deposited into the 78879
state treasury to the credit of the general operations fund 78880
created in section 3701.83 of the Revised Code. The fees shall be 78881
used solely to administer and enforce this chapter and rules 78882
adopted under it.78883

       (H) Establishing fees to be collected annually from 78884
generators of low-level radioactive waste, which shall be based 78885
upon the volume and radioactivity of the waste generated and the 78886
costs of administering low-level radioactive waste management 78887
activities under this chapter and rules adopted under it. All fees 78888
collected under this division shall be deposited into the state 78889
treasury to the credit of the general operations fund created in 78890
section 3701.83 of the Revised Code. The fees shall be used solely 78891
to administer and enforce this chapter and rules adopted under it. 78892
Any fee required under this division that remains unpaid on the 78893
ninety-first day after the original invoice date shall be assessed 78894
an additional amount equal to ten per cent of the original fee. 78895

       (I) Establishing requirements governing closure, 78896
decontamination, decommissioning, reclamation, and long-term 78897
surveillance and care of a facility licensed under this chapter 78898
and rules adopted under it. Rules adopted under division (I) of 78899
this section shall include, without limitation, all of the 78900
following:78901

       (1) Standards and procedures to ensure that a licensee 78902
prepares a decommissioning funding plan that provides an adequate 78903
financial guaranty to permit the completion of all requirements 78904
governing the closure, decontamination, decommissioning, and 78905
reclamation of sites, structures, and equipment used in 78906
conjunction with a licensed activity;78907

       (2) For licensed activities where radioactive material that 78908
will require surveillance or care is likely to remain at the site 78909
after the licensed activities cease, as indicated in the 78910
application for the license submitted under section 3748.07 of the 78911
Revised Code, standards and procedures to ensure that the licensee 78912
prepares an additional decommissioning funding plan for long-term 78913
surveillance and care, before termination of the license, that 78914
provides an additional adequate financial guaranty as necessary to 78915
provide for that surveillance and care;78916

       (3) For the purposes of the decommissioning funding plans 78917
required in rules adopted under divisions (I)(1) and (2) of this 78918
section, the types of acceptable financial guaranties, which shall 78919
include bonds issued by fidelity or surety companies authorized to 78920
do business in the state, certificates of deposit, deposits of 78921
government securities, irrevocable letters or lines of credit, 78922
trust funds, escrow accounts, or other similar types of 78923
arrangements, but shall not include any arrangement that 78924
constitutes self-insurance;78925

       (4) A requirement that the decommissioning funding plans 78926
required in rules adopted under divisions (I)(1) and (2) of this 78927
section contain financial guaranties in amounts sufficient to 78928
ensure compliance with any standards established by the United 78929
States nuclear regulatory commission, or by the state if it has 78930
become an agreement state pursuant to section 3748.03 of the 78931
Revised Code, pertaining to closure, decontamination, 78932
decommissioning, reclamation, and long-term surveillance and care 78933
of licensed activities and sites of licensees.78934

       Standards established in rules adopted under division (I) of 78935
this section regarding any activity that resulted in the 78936
production of byproduct material, as defined in division (A)(2) of 78937
section 3748.01 of the Revised Code, to the extent practicable, 78938
shall be equivalent to or more stringent than standards 78939
established by the United States nuclear regulatory commission for 78940
sites at which ores were processed primarily for their source 78941
material content and at which byproduct material, as defined in 78942
division (A)(2) of section 3748.01 of the Revised Code, is 78943
deposited.78944

       (J) Establishing criteria governing inspections of a facility 78945
for the disposal of low-level radioactive waste, including, 78946
without limitation, the establishment of a resident inspector 78947
program at such a facility;78948

       (K) Establishing requirements and procedures governing the 78949
filing of complaints under section 3748.16 of the Revised Code, 78950
including, without limitation, those governing intervention in a 78951
hearing held under division (B)(3) of that section;78952

       (L) Establishing requirements governing technologically 78953
enhanced naturally occurring radioactive material. Rules adopted 78954
under this division shall not apply to naturally occurring 78955
radioactive material.78956

       Sec. 3769.08.  (A) Any person holding a permit to conduct a 78957
horse-racing meeting may provide a place in the race meeting 78958
grounds or enclosure at which the permit holder may conduct and 78959
supervise the pari-mutuel system of wagering by patrons of legal 78960
age on the live racing programs and simulcast racing programs 78961
conducted by the permit holder.78962

       The pari-mutuel method of wagering upon the live racing 78963
programs and simulcast racing programs held at or conducted within 78964
such race track, and at the time of such horse-racing meeting, or 78965
at other times authorized by the state racing commission, shall 78966
not be unlawful. No other place, except that provided and 78967
designated by the permit holder and except as provided in section 78968
3769.26 of the Revised Code, nor any other method or system of 78969
betting or wagering on live racing programs and simulcast racing 78970
programs, except the pari-mutuel system, shall be used or 78971
permitted by the permit holder; nor, except as provided in section 78972
3769.089 or 3769.26 of the Revised Code, shall the pari-mutuel 78973
system of wagering be conducted by the permit holder on any races 78974
except the races at the race track, grounds, or enclosure for 78975
which the person holds a permit. Each permit holder may retain as 78976
a commission an amount not to exceed eighteen per cent of the 78977
total of all moneys wagered on live racing programs and simulcast 78978
racing programs.78979

       The pari-mutuel wagering authorized by this section is 78980
subject to sections 3769.25 to 3769.28 of the Revised Code.78981

       (B) At the close of each racing day, each permit holder 78982
authorized to conduct thoroughbred racing, out of the amount 78983
retained on that day by the permit holder, shall pay by check, 78984
draft, or money order to the tax commissioner, as a tax, a sum 78985
equal to the following percentages of the total of all moneys 78986
wagered on live racing programs on that day and shall separately 78987
compute and pay by check, draft, or money order to the tax 78988
commissioner, as a tax, a sum equal to the following percentages 78989
of the total of all money wagered on simulcast racing programs on 78990
that day:78991

       (1) One per cent of the first two hundred thousand dollars 78992
wagered, or any part of that amount;78993

       (2) Two per cent of the next one hundred thousand dollars 78994
wagered, or any part of that amount;78995

       (3) Three per cent of the next one hundred thousand dollars 78996
wagered, or any part of that amount;78997

       (4) Four per cent of all sums over four hundred thousand 78998
dollars wagered.78999

       Except as otherwise provided in section 3769.089 of the 79000
Revised Code, each permit holder authorized to conduct 79001
thoroughbred racing shall use for purse money a sum equal to fifty 79002
per cent of the pari-mutuel revenues retained by the permit holder 79003
as a commission after payment of the state tax. This fifty per 79004
cent payment shall be in addition to the purse distribution from 79005
breakage specified in this section.79006

       Subject to division (M) of this section, from the moneys paid 79007
to the tax commissioner by thoroughbred racing permit holders, 79008
one-half of one per cent of the total of all moneys so wagered on 79009
a racing day shall be paid into the Ohio fairs fund created by 79010
section 3769.082 of the Revised Code, one and one-eighth per cent 79011
of the total of all moneys so wagered on a racing day shall be 79012
paid into the Ohio thoroughbred race fund created by section 79013
3769.083 of the Revised Code, and one-quarter of one per cent of 79014
the total of all moneys wagered on a racing day by each permit 79015
holder shall be paid into the state racing commission operating 79016
fund created by section 3769.03 of the Revised Code. The required 79017
payment to the state racing commission operating fund does not 79018
apply to county and independent fairs and agricultural societies. 79019
The remaining moneys may be retained by the permit holder, except 79020
as provided in this section with respect to the odd cents 79021
redistribution. Amounts paid into the nursing home franchise 79022
permit fee fund pursuant to this section and section 3769.26 of 79023
the Revised Code shall be used solely for the support of the 79024
PASSPORT program as determined in appropriations made by the 79025
general assembly. If the PASSPORT program is abolished, the amount 79026
that would have been paid to the nursing home franchise permit fee 79027
fund under this chapter shall be paid to the general revenue fund 79028
of the state. As used in this chapter, "PASSPORT program" means 79029
the PASSPORT program created underhas the same meaning as in79030
section 173.40173.51 of the Revised Code.79031

       The total amount paid to the Ohio thoroughbred race fund 79032
under this section and division (A) of section 3769.087 of the 79033
Revised Code shall not exceed by more than six per cent the total 79034
amount paid to this fund under this section and division (A) of 79035
that section during the immediately preceding calendar year.79036

       Each year, the total amount calculated for payment into the 79037
Ohio fairs fund under this division, division (C) of this section, 79038
and division (A) of section 3769.087 of the Revised Code shall be 79039
an amount calculated using the percentages specified in this 79040
division, division (C) of this section, and division (A) of 79041
section 3769.087 of the Revised Code.79042

       A permit holder may contract with a thoroughbred horsemen's 79043
organization for the organization to act as a representative of 79044
all thoroughbred owners and trainers participating in a 79045
horse-racing meeting conducted by the permit holder. A 79046
"thoroughbred horsemen's organization" is any corporation or 79047
association that represents, through membership or otherwise, more 79048
than one-half of the aggregate of all thoroughbred owners and 79049
trainers who were licensed and actively participated in racing 79050
within this state during the preceding calendar year. Except as 79051
otherwise provided in this paragraph, any moneys received by a 79052
thoroughbred horsemen's organization shall be used exclusively for 79053
the benefit of thoroughbred owners and trainers racing in this 79054
state through the administrative purposes of the organization, 79055
benevolent activities on behalf of the horsemen, promotion of the 79056
horsemen's rights and interests, and promotion of equine research. 79057
A thoroughbred horsemen's organization may expend not more than an 79058
aggregate of five per cent of its annual gross receipts, or a 79059
larger amount as approved by the organization, for dues, 79060
assessments, and other payments to all other local, national, or 79061
international organizations having as their primary purposes the 79062
promotion of thoroughbred horse racing, thoroughbred horsemen's 79063
rights, and equine research.79064

       (C) Except as otherwise provided in division (B) of this 79065
section, at the close of each racing day, each permit holder 79066
authorized to conduct harness or quarter horse racing, out of the 79067
amount retained that day by the permit holder, shall pay by check, 79068
draft, or money order to the tax commissioner, as a tax, a sum 79069
equal to the following percentages of the total of all moneys 79070
wagered on live racing programs and shall separately compute and 79071
pay by check, draft, or money order to the tax commissioner, as a 79072
tax, a sum equal to the following percentages of the total of all 79073
money wagered on simulcast racing programs on that day:79074

       (1) One per cent of the first two hundred thousand dollars 79075
wagered, or any part of that amount;79076

       (2) Two per cent of the next one hundred thousand dollars 79077
wagered, or any part of that amount;79078

       (3) Three per cent of the next one hundred thousand dollars 79079
wagered, or any part of that amount;79080

       (4) Four per cent of all sums over four hundred thousand 79081
dollars wagered.79082

       Except as otherwise provided in division (B) and subject to 79083
division (M) of this section, from the moneys paid to the tax 79084
commissioner by permit holders authorized to conduct harness or 79085
quarter horse racing, one-half of one per cent of all moneys 79086
wagered on that racing day shall be paid into the Ohio fairs fund; 79087
from the moneys paid to the tax commissioner by permit holders 79088
authorized to conduct harness racing, five-eighths of one per cent 79089
of all moneys wagered on that racing day shall be paid into the 79090
Ohio standardbred development fund; and from the moneys paid to 79091
the tax commissioner by permit holders authorized to conduct 79092
quarter horse racing, five-eighths of one per cent of all moneys 79093
wagered on that racing day shall be paid into the Ohio quarter 79094
horse development fund.79095

       (D) In addition, subject to division (M) of this section, 79096
beginning on January 1, 1996, from the money paid to the tax 79097
commissioner as a tax under this section and division (A) of 79098
section 3769.087 of the Revised Code by harness horse permit 79099
holders, one-half of one per cent of the amount wagered on a 79100
racing day shall be paid into the Ohio standardbred development 79101
fund. Beginning January 1, 1998, the payment to the Ohio 79102
standardbred development fund required under this division does 79103
not apply to county agricultural societies or independent 79104
agricultural societies.79105

       The total amount paid to the Ohio standardbred development 79106
fund under this division, division (C) of this section, and 79107
division (A) of section 3769.087 of the Revised Code and the total 79108
amount paid to the Ohio quarter horse development fund under this 79109
division and division (A) of that section shall not exceed by more 79110
than six per cent the total amount paid into the fund under this 79111
division, division (C) of this section, and division (A) of 79112
section 3769.087 of the Revised Code in the immediately preceding 79113
calendar year.79114

       (E) Subject to division (M) of this section, from the money 79115
paid as a tax under this chapter by harness and quarter horse 79116
permit holders, one-quarter of one per cent of the total of all 79117
moneys wagered on a racing day by each permit holder shall be paid 79118
into the state racing commission operating fund created by section 79119
3769.03 of the Revised Code. This division does not apply to 79120
county and independent fairs and agricultural societies.79121

       (F) Except as otherwise provided in section 3769.089 of the 79122
Revised Code, each permit holder authorized to conduct harness 79123
racing shall pay to the harness horsemen's purse pool a sum equal 79124
to fifty per cent of the pari-mutuel revenues retained by the 79125
permit holder as a commission after payment of the state tax. This 79126
fifty per cent payment is to be in addition to the purse 79127
distribution from breakage specified in this section.79128

       (G) In addition, each permit holder authorized to conduct 79129
harness racing shall be allowed to retain the odd cents of all 79130
redistribution to be made on all mutual contributions exceeding a 79131
sum equal to the next lowest multiple of ten.79132

       Forty per cent of that portion of that total sum of such odd 79133
cents shall be used by the permit holder for purse money for Ohio 79134
sired, bred, and owned colts, for purse money for Ohio bred 79135
horses, and for increased purse money for horse races. Upon the 79136
formation of the corporation described in section 3769.21 of the 79137
Revised Code to establish a harness horsemen's health and 79138
retirement fund, twenty-five per cent of that portion of that 79139
total sum of odd cents shall be paid at the close of each racing 79140
day by the permit holder to that corporation to establish and fund 79141
the health and retirement fund. Until that corporation is formed, 79142
that twenty-five per cent shall be paid at the close of each 79143
racing day by the permit holder to the tax commissioner or the tax 79144
commissioner's agent in the county seat of the county in which the 79145
permit holder operates race meetings. The remaining thirty-five 79146
per cent of that portion of that total sum of odd cents shall be 79147
retained by the permit holder.79148

       (H) In addition, each permit holder authorized to conduct 79149
thoroughbred racing shall be allowed to retain the odd cents of 79150
all redistribution to be made on all mutuel contributions 79151
exceeding a sum equal to the next lowest multiple of ten. Twenty 79152
per cent of that portion of that total sum of such odd cents shall 79153
be used by the permit holder for increased purse money for horse 79154
races. Upon the formation of the corporation described in section 79155
3769.21 of the Revised Code to establish a thoroughbred horsemen's 79156
health and retirement fund, forty-five per cent of that portion of 79157
that total sum of odd cents shall be paid at the close of each 79158
racing day by the permit holder to that corporation to establish 79159
and fund the health and retirement fund. Until that corporation is 79160
formed, that forty-five per cent shall be paid by the permit 79161
holder to the tax commissioner or the tax commissioner's agent in 79162
the county seat of the county in which the permit holder operates 79163
race meetings, at the close of each racing day. The remaining 79164
thirty-five per cent of that portion of that total sum of odd 79165
cents shall be retained by the permit holder.79166

       (I) In addition, each permit holder authorized to conduct 79167
quarter horse racing shall be allowed to retain the odd cents of 79168
all redistribution to be made on all mutuel contributions 79169
exceeding a sum equal to the next lowest multiple of ten, subject 79170
to a tax of twenty-five per cent on that portion of the total sum 79171
of such odd cents that is in excess of two thousand dollars during 79172
a calendar year, which tax shall be paid at the close of each 79173
racing day by the permit holder to the tax commissioner or the tax 79174
commissioner's agent in the county seat of the county within which 79175
the permit holder operates race meetings. Forty per cent of that 79176
portion of that total sum of such odd cents shall be used by the 79177
permit holder for increased purse money for horse races. The 79178
remaining thirty-five per cent of that portion of that total sum 79179
of odd cents shall be retained by the permit holder.79180

       (J)(1) To encourage the improvement of racing facilities for 79181
the benefit of the public, breeders, and horse owners, and to 79182
increase the revenue to the state from the increase in pari-mutuel 79183
wagering resulting from those improvements, the taxes paid by a 79184
permit holder to the state as provided for in this chapter shall 79185
be reduced by three-fourths of one per cent of the total amount 79186
wagered for those permit holders who make capital improvements to 79187
existing race tracks or construct new race tracks. The percentage 79188
of the reduction that may be taken each racing day shall equal 79189
seventy-five per cent of the taxes levied under divisions (B) and 79190
(C) of this section and section 3769.087 of the Revised Code, and 79191
division (F)(2) of section 3769.26 of the Revised Code, as 79192
applicable, divided by the calculated amount each fund should 79193
receive under divisions (B) and (C) of this section and section 79194
3769.087 of the Revised Code, and division (F)(2) of section 79195
3769.26 of the Revised Code and the reduction provided for in this 79196
division. If the resulting percentage is less than one, that 79197
percentage shall be multiplied by the amount of the reduction 79198
provided for in this division. Otherwise, the permit holder shall 79199
receive the full reduction provided for in this division. The 79200
amount of the allowable reduction not received shall be carried 79201
forward and applied against future tax liability. After any 79202
reductions expire, any reduction carried forward shall be treated 79203
as a reduction as provided for in this division.79204

       If more than one permit holder is authorized to conduct 79205
racing at the facility that is being built or improved, the cost 79206
of the new race track or capital improvement shall be allocated 79207
between or among all the permit holders in the ratio that the 79208
permit holders' number of racing days bears to the total number of 79209
racing days conducted at the facility.79210

       A reduction for a new race track or a capital improvement 79211
shall start from the day racing is first conducted following the 79212
date actual construction of the new race track or each capital 79213
improvement is completed and the construction cost has been 79214
approved by the racing commission, unless otherwise provided in 79215
this section. A reduction for a new race track or a capital 79216
improvement shall continue for a period of twenty-five years for 79217
new race tracks and for fifteen years for capital improvements if 79218
the construction of the capital improvement or new race track 79219
commenced prior to March 29, 1988, and for a period of ten years 79220
for new race tracks or capital improvements if the construction of 79221
the capital improvement or new race track commenced on or after 79222
March 29, 1988, but before June 6, 2001, or until the total tax 79223
reduction reaches seventy per cent of the approved cost of the new 79224
race track or capital improvement, as allocated to each permit 79225
holder, whichever occurs first. A reduction for a new race track 79226
or a capital improvement approved after June 6, 2001, shall 79227
continue until the total tax reduction reaches one hundred per 79228
cent of the approved cost of the new race track or capital 79229
improvement, as allocated to each permit holder.79230

       A reduction granted for a new race track or a capital 79231
improvement, the application for which was approved by the racing 79232
commission after March 29, 1988, but before June 6, 2001, shall 79233
not commence nor shall the ten-year period begin to run until all 79234
prior tax reductions with respect to the same race track have 79235
ended. The total tax reduction because of capital improvements 79236
shall not during any one year exceed for all permit holders using 79237
any one track three-fourths of one per cent of the total amount 79238
wagered, regardless of the number of capital improvements made. 79239
Several capital improvements to a race track may be consolidated 79240
in an application if the racing commission approved the 79241
application prior to March 29, 1988. No permit holder may receive 79242
a tax reduction for a capital improvement approved by the racing 79243
commission on or after March 29, 1988, at a race track until all 79244
tax reductions have ended for all prior capital improvements 79245
approved by the racing commission under this section or section 79246
3769.20 of the Revised Code at that race track. If there are two 79247
or more permit holders operating meetings at the same track, they 79248
may consolidate their applications. The racing commission shall 79249
notify the tax commissioner when the reduction of tax begins and 79250
when it ends.79251

       Each fiscal year the racing commission shall submit a report 79252
to the tax commissioner, the office of budget and management, and 79253
the legislative service commission. The report shall identify each 79254
capital improvement project undertaken under this division and in 79255
progress at each race track, indicate the total cost of each 79256
project, state the tax reduction that resulted from each project 79257
during the immediately preceding fiscal year, estimate the tax 79258
reduction that will result from each project during the current 79259
fiscal year, state the total tax reduction that resulted from all 79260
such projects at all race tracks during the immediately preceding 79261
fiscal year, and estimate the total tax reduction that will result 79262
from all such projects at all race tracks during the current 79263
fiscal year.79264

       (2) In order to qualify for the reduction in tax, a permit 79265
holder shall apply to the racing commission in such form as the 79266
commission may require and shall provide full details of the new 79267
race track or capital improvement, including a schedule for its 79268
construction and completion, and set forth the costs and expenses 79269
incurred in connection with it. The racing commission shall not 79270
approve an application unless the permit holder shows that a 79271
contract for the new race track or capital improvement has been 79272
let under an unrestricted competitive bidding procedure, unless 79273
the contract is exempted by the controlling board because of its 79274
unusual nature. In determining whether to approve an application, 79275
the racing commission shall consider whether the new race track or 79276
capital improvement will promote the safety, convenience, and 79277
comfort of the racing public and horse owners and generally tend 79278
towards the improvement of racing in this state.79279

       (3) If a new race track or capital improvement is approved by 79280
the racing commission and construction has started, the tax 79281
reduction may be authorized by the commission upon presentation of 79282
copies of paid bills in excess of one hundred thousand dollars or 79283
ten per cent of the approved cost, whichever is greater. After the 79284
initial authorization, the permit holder shall present copies of 79285
paid bills. If the permit holder is in substantial compliance with 79286
the schedule for construction and completion of the new race track 79287
or capital improvement, the racing commission may authorize the 79288
continuation of the tax reduction upon the presentation of the 79289
additional paid bills. The total amount of the tax reduction 79290
authorized shall not exceed the percentage of the approved cost of 79291
the new race track or capital improvement specified in division 79292
(J)(1) of this section. The racing commission may terminate any 79293
tax reduction immediately if a permit holder fails to complete the 79294
new race track or capital improvement, or to substantially comply 79295
with the schedule for construction and completion of the new race 79296
track or capital improvement. If a permit holder fails to complete 79297
a new race track or capital improvement, the racing commission 79298
shall order the permit holder to repay to the state the total 79299
amount of tax reduced. The normal tax paid by the permit holder 79300
shall be increased by three-fourths of one per cent of the total 79301
amount wagered until the total amount of the additional tax 79302
collected equals the total amount of tax reduced.79303

       (4) As used in this section:79304

       (a) "Capital improvement" means an addition, replacement, or 79305
remodeling of a structural unit of a race track facility costing 79306
at least one hundred thousand dollars, including, but not limited 79307
to, the construction of barns used exclusively for the race track 79308
facility, backstretch facilities for horsemen, paddock facilities, 79309
new pari-mutuel and totalizator equipment and appurtenances to 79310
that equipment purchased by the track, new access roads, new 79311
parking areas, the complete reconstruction, reshaping, and 79312
leveling of the racing surface and appurtenances, the installation 79313
of permanent new heating or air conditioning, roof replacement or 79314
restoration, installations of a permanent nature forming a part of 79315
the track structure, and construction of buildings that are 79316
located on a permit holder's premises. "Capital improvement" does 79317
not include the cost of replacement of equipment that is not 79318
permanently installed, ordinary repairs, painting, and maintenance 79319
required to keep a race track facility in ordinary operating 79320
condition.79321

       (b) "New race track" includes the reconstruction of a race 79322
track damaged by fire or other cause that has been declared by the 79323
racing commission, as a result of the damage, to be an inadequate 79324
facility for the safe operation of horse racing.79325

       (c) "Approved cost" includes all debt service and interest 79326
costs that are associated with a capital improvement or new race 79327
track and that the racing commission approves for a tax reduction 79328
under division (J) of this section.79329

       (5) The racing commission shall not approve an application 79330
for a tax reduction under this section if it has reasonable cause 79331
to believe that the actions or negligence of the permit holder 79332
substantially contributed to the damage suffered by the track due 79333
to fire or other cause. The racing commission shall obtain any 79334
data or information available from a fire marshal, law enforcement 79335
official, or insurance company concerning any fire or other damage 79336
suffered by a track, prior to approving an application for a tax 79337
reduction.79338

       (6) The approved cost to which a tax reduction applies shall 79339
be determined by generally accepted accounting principles and 79340
verified by an audit of the permit holder's records upon 79341
completion of the project by the racing commission, or by an 79342
independent certified public accountant selected by the permit 79343
holder and approved by the commission.79344

       (K) No other license or excise tax or fee, except as provided 79345
in sections 3769.01 to 3769.14 of the Revised Code, shall be 79346
assessed or collected from such licensee by any county, township, 79347
district, municipal corporation, or other body having power to 79348
assess or collect a tax or fee. That portion of the tax paid under 79349
this section by permit holders for racing conducted at and during 79350
the course of an agricultural exposition or fair, and that portion 79351
of the tax that would have been paid by eligible permit holders 79352
into the nursing home franchise permit fee fund as a result of 79353
racing conducted at and during the course of an agricultural 79354
exposition or fair, shall be deposited into the state treasury to 79355
the credit of the horse racing tax fund, which is hereby created 79356
for the use of the agricultural societies of the several counties 79357
in which the taxes originate. The state racing commission shall 79358
determine eligible permit holders for purposes of the preceding 79359
sentence, taking into account the breed of horse, the racing 79360
dates, the geographic proximity to the fair, and the best 79361
interests of Ohio racing. On the first day of any month on which 79362
there is money in the fund, the tax commissioner shall provide for 79363
payment to the treasurer of each agricultural society the amount 79364
of the taxes collected under this section upon racing conducted at 79365
and during the course of any exposition or fair conducted by the 79366
society.79367

       (L) From the tax paid under this section by harness track 79368
permit holders, the tax commissioner shall pay into the Ohio 79369
thoroughbred race fund a sum equal to a percentage of the amount 79370
wagered upon which the tax is paid. The percentage shall be 79371
determined by the tax commissioner and shall be rounded to the 79372
nearest one-hundredth. The percentage shall be such that, when 79373
multiplied by the amount wagered upon which tax was paid by the 79374
harness track permit holders in the most recent year for which 79375
final figures are available, it results in a sum that 79376
substantially equals the same amount of tax paid by the tax 79377
commissioner during that year into the Ohio fairs fund from taxes 79378
paid by thoroughbred permit holders. This division does not apply 79379
to county and independent fairs and agricultural societies.79380

       (M) Twenty-five per cent of the taxes levied on thoroughbred 79381
racing permit holders, harness racing permit holders, and quarter 79382
horse racing permit holders under this section, division (A) of 79383
section 3769.087 of the Revised Code, and division (F)(2) of 79384
section 3769.26 of the Revised Code shall be paid into the nursing 79385
home franchise permit fee fund. The tax commissioner shall pay any 79386
money remaining, after the payment into the nursing home franchise 79387
permit fee fund and the reductions provided for in division (J) of 79388
this section and in section 3769.20 of the Revised Code, into the 79389
Ohio fairs fund, Ohio thoroughbred race fund, Ohio standardbred 79390
development fund, Ohio quarter horse fund, and state racing 79391
commission operating fund as prescribed in this section and 79392
division (A) of section 3769.087 of the Revised Code. The tax 79393
commissioner shall thereafter use and apply the balance of the 79394
money paid as a tax by any permit holder to cover any shortage in 79395
the accounts of such funds resulting from an insufficient payment 79396
as a tax by any other permit holder. The moneys received by the 79397
tax commissioner shall be deposited weekly and paid by the tax 79398
commissioner into the funds to cover the total aggregate amount 79399
due from all permit holders to the funds, as calculated under this 79400
section and division (A) of section 3769.087 of the Revised Code, 79401
as applicable. If, after the payment into the nursing home 79402
franchise permit fee fund, sufficient funds are not available from 79403
the tax deposited by the tax commissioner to pay the required 79404
amounts into the Ohio fairs fund, Ohio standardbred development 79405
fund, Ohio thoroughbred race fund, Ohio quarter horse fund, and 79406
the state racing commission operating fund, the tax commissioner 79407
shall prorate on a proportional basis the amount paid to each of 79408
the funds. Any shortage to the funds as a result of a proration 79409
shall be applied against future deposits for the same calendar 79410
year when funds are available. After this application, the tax 79411
commissioner shall pay any remaining money paid as a tax by all 79412
permit holders into the nursing home franchise permit fee fund. 79413
This division does not apply to permit holders conducting racing 79414
at the course of an agricultural exposition or fair as described 79415
in division (K) of this section.79416

       Sec. 3769.087.  (A) In addition to the commission of eighteen 79417
per cent retained by each permit holder as provided in section 79418
3769.08 of the Revised Code, each permit holder shall retain an 79419
additional amount equal to four per cent of the total of all 79420
moneys wagered on each racing day on all wagering pools other than 79421
win, place, and show, of which amount retained an amount equal to 79422
three per cent of the total of all moneys wagered on each racing 79423
day on those pools shall be paid by check, draft, or money order 79424
to the tax commissioner, as a tax. Subject to the restrictions 79425
contained in divisions (B), (C), and (M) of section 3769.08 of the 79426
Revised Code, from such additional moneys paid to the tax 79427
commissioner:79428

       (1) Four-sixths shall be allocated to fund distribution as 79429
provided in division (M) of section 3769.08 of the Revised Code.79430

       (2) One-twelfth shall be paid into the Ohio fairs fund 79431
created by section 3769.082 of the Revised Code.79432

       (3) One-twelfth of the additional moneys paid to the tax 79433
commissioner by thoroughbred racing permit holders shall be paid 79434
into the Ohio thoroughbred race fund created by section 3769.083 79435
of the Revised Code.79436

       (4) One-twelfth of the additional moneys paid to the tax 79437
commissioner by harness horse racing permit holders shall be paid 79438
to the Ohio standardbred development fund created by section 79439
3769.085 of the Revised Code.79440

       (5) One-twelfth of the additional moneys paid to the tax 79441
commissioner by quarter horse racing permit holders shall be paid 79442
to the Ohio quarter horse development fund created by section 79443
3769.086 of the Revised Code.79444

       (6) One-sixth shall be paid into the state racing commission 79445
operating fund created by section 3769.03 of the Revised Code.79446

       The remaining one per cent that is retained of the total of 79447
all moneys wagered on each racing day on all pools other than win, 79448
place, and show, shall be retained by racing permit holders, and, 79449
except as otherwise provided in section 3769.089 of the Revised 79450
Code, racing permit holders shall use one-half for purse money and 79451
retain one-half.79452

       (B) In addition to the commission of eighteen per cent 79453
retained by each permit holder as provided in section 3769.08 of 79454
the Revised Code and the additional amount retained by each permit 79455
holder as provided in division (A) of this section, each permit 79456
holder shall retain an additional amount equal to one-half of one 79457
per cent of the total of all moneys wagered on each racing day on 79458
all wagering pools other than win, place, and show. The additional 79459
amount retained under this division shall be paid by check, draft, 79460
or money order to the tax commissioner, as a tax. The tax 79461
commissioner shall pay the amount of the tax received under this 79462
division to the state racing commission operating fund created by 79463
section 3769.03 of the Revised Code.79464

       (C) Unless otherwise agreed to by the video lottery sales 79465
agent and the applicable horsemen's association recognized by the 79466
state racing commission to represent such persons, the state 79467
racing commission mayshall direct through rule that a percentage 79468
of the lottery sales agent's commission as determined by the state 79469
lottery commission for conducting video lottery terminal gaming on 79470
behalf of the state be paid to the state racing commission for the 79471
benefit of breeding and racing in this state. The percentage so 79472
determined shall not be less than nine per cent or more than 79473
eleven per cent of the video lottery terminal income, and shall be 79474
a sliding scale based upon capital expenditures necessary to build 79475
the video lottery sales agent's facility. The aggregate of one 79476
hundred per cent of video lottery terminal income minus the 79477
lottery sales agent's commission percentage as determined by the 79478
state lottery commission plus the percentage of the lottery sale 79479
agent's commission, as determined by the state racing commission 79480
or otherwise agreed to by the video lottery sales agent and the 79481
applicable horsemen's association recognized by the state racing 79482
commission to represent such persons, for the benefit of breeding 79483
and racing in this state shall not exceed forty-five per cent of 79484
the video lottery terminal income. In addition, beginning July 1, 79485
2013, the state lottery commission shall adopt a rule to require 79486
the lottery sales agent conducting video lottery terminal gaming 79487
on behalf of the state to disperse to the state lottery commission 79488
one-half of one per cent of such a lottery sales agent's 79489
commission for the purpose of providing funding support to 79490
appropriate state agencies for programs that provide for gambling 79491
addiction and other related addiction services. The state lottery 79492
commission's rule also may require the lottery sales agent 79493
conducting video lottery terminal gaming on behalf of the state to 79494
disperse to the state lottery commission an additional amount up 79495
to one-half of one per cent of such a lottery sales agent's 79496
commission for that purpose.79497

       Sec. 3769.088.  (A) If any permit holder required by this 79498
chapter to pay the taxes levied by sections 3769.08, 3769.087, 79499
3769.26, and 3769.28 of the Revised Code fails to pay the taxes, 79500
the tax commissioner may make an assessment against the permit 79501
holder based upon any information in the commissioner's 79502
possession.79503

       A penalty of up to fifteen per cent may be added to the 79504
amount of every assessment made under this section. The 79505
commissioner may adopt rules providing for the imposition and 79506
remission of penalties added to assessments made under this 79507
section.79508

       The commissioner shall give the party assessed written notice 79509
of the assessment in the manner provided in section 5703.37 of the 79510
Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner shall provide 79511
instructions on how to petition for reassessment and request a 79512
hearing on the petition.79513

       (B) Unless the party assessed files with the tax commissioner 79514
within sixty days after service of the notice of assessment, 79515
either personally or by certified mail, a written petition for 79516
reassessment signed by the party assessed or that party's 79517
authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the assessment 79518
becomes final and the amount of the assessment is due and payable 79519
from the party assessed to the commissioner. The petition shall 79520
indicate the objections of the party assessed, but additional 79521
objections may be raised in writing if received by the 79522
commissioner prior to the date shown on the final determination. 79523
If the petition has been properly filed, the commissioner shall 79524
proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised Code.79525

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 79526
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 79527
copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the assessment final 79528
may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common 79529
pleas in the county in which the place, track, or enclosure for 79530
which the permit was issued is located or the county in which the 79531
party assessed resides or has its principal place of business. If 79532
the party assessed maintains no place of business in this state 79533
and is not a resident of this state, the certified copy of the 79534
entry may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of 79535
common pleas of Franklin county.79536

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 79537
enter a judgment for the state against the party assessed in the 79538
amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk 79539
in a loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for state horse 79540
racing tax," and shall have the same effect as other judgments. 79541
Execution shall issue upon the judgment upon the request of the 79542
tax commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales on execution 79543
shall apply to sales made under the judgment.79544

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety79545
within sixty days after the day the assessment was issued, the 79546
portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall bear 79547
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 79548
the Revised Code from the day the tax commissioner issues the 79549
assessment until the day the assessment is paid or until it is 79550
certified to the attorney general for collection under section 79551
131.02 of the Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid 79552
portion of the assessment is certified to the attorney general for 79553
collection, the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear 79554
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 79555
the Revised Code from the date of certification until the date it 79556
is paid in its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner 79557
as the tax and may be collected by the issuance of an assessment 79558
under this section.79559

       (D) All money collected by the tax commissioner under this 79560
section shall be treated as revenue arising from the taxes imposed 79561
by sections 3769.08, 3769.087, 3769.26, and 3769.28 of the Revised 79562
Code.79563

       Sec. 3770.02.  (A) Subject to the advice and consent of the 79564
senate, the governor shall appoint a director of the state lottery 79565
commission who shall serve at the pleasure of the governor. The 79566
director shall devote full time to the duties of the office and 79567
shall hold no other office or employment. The director shall meet 79568
all requirements for appointment as a member of the commission and 79569
shall, by experience and training, possess management skills that 79570
equip the director to administer an enterprise of the nature of a 79571
state lottery. The director shall receive an annual salary in 79572
accordance with pay range 48 of section 124.152 of the Revised 79573
Code.79574

       (B)(1) The director shall attend all meetings of the 79575
commission and shall act as its secretary. The director shall keep 79576
a record of all commission proceedings and shall keep the 79577
commission's records, files, and documents at the commission's 79578
principal office. All records of the commission's meetings shall 79579
be available for inspection by any member of the public, upon a 79580
showing of good cause and prior notification to the director.79581

       (2) The director shall be the commission's executive officer 79582
and shall be responsible for keeping all commission records and 79583
supervising and administering the state lottery in accordance with 79584
this chapter, and carrying out all commission rules adopted under 79585
section 3770.03 of the Revised Code.79586

       (C)(1) The director shall appoint an assistant director, 79587
deputy directors of marketing, operations, sales, finance, public 79588
relations, security, and administration, and as many regional 79589
managers as are required. The director may also appoint necessary 79590
professional, technical, and clerical assistants. All such 79591
officers and employees shall be appointed and compensated pursuant 79592
to Chapter 124. of the Revised Code. Regional and assistant 79593
regional managers, sales representatives, and any lottery 79594
executive account representatives shall remain in the unclassified 79595
service.79596

       (2) The director, in consultation with the director of 79597
administrative services, may establish standards of proficiency 79598
and productivity for commission field representatives.79599

       (D) The director shall request the bureau of criminal 79600
identification and investigation, the department of public safety, 79601
or any other state, local, or federal agency to supply the 79602
director with the criminal records of any job applicant and may 79603
periodically request the criminal records of commission employees. 79604
At or prior to the time of making such a request, the director 79605
shall require a job applicant or commission employee to obtain 79606
fingerprint cards prescribed by the superintendent of the bureau 79607
of criminal identification and investigation at a qualified law 79608
enforcement agency, and the director shall cause these fingerprint 79609
cards to be forwarded to the bureau of criminal identification and 79610
investigation and the federal bureau of investigation. The 79611
commission shall assume the cost of obtaining the fingerprint 79612
cards and shall pay to each agency supplying criminal records for 79613
each investigation under this division a reasonable fee, as 79614
determined by the agency.79615

       (E) The director shall license lottery sales agents pursuant 79616
to section 3770.05 of the Revised Code and, when it is considered 79617
necessary, may revoke or suspend the license of any lottery sales 79618
agent. The director may license video lottery technology 79619
providers, independent testing laboratories, and gaming employees, 79620
and promulgate rules relating thereto. When the director considers 79621
it necessary, the director may suspend or revoke the license of a 79622
video lottery technology provider, independent testing laboratory, 79623
or gaming employee, including suspension or revocation without 79624
affording an opportunity for a prior hearing under section 119.07 79625
of the Revised Code when the public safety, convenience, or trust 79626
requires immediate action.79627

       (F) The director shall confer at least once each month with 79628
the commission, at which time the director shall advise it 79629
regarding the operation and administration of the lottery. The 79630
director shall make available at the request of the commission all 79631
documents, files, and other records pertaining to the operation 79632
and administration of the lottery. The director shall prepare and 79633
make available to the commission each month a complete and 79634
accurate accounting of lottery revenues, prize money disbursements 79635
and the cost of goods and services awarded as prizes, operating 79636
expenses, and all other relevant financial information, including 79637
an accounting of all transfers made from any lottery funds in the 79638
custody of the treasurer of state to benefit education.79639

       (G) The director may enter into contracts for the operation 79640
or promotion of the lottery pursuant to Chapter 125. of the 79641
Revised Code. 79642

       (H)(1) Pursuant to rules adopted by the commission under 79643
section 3770.03 of the Revised Code, the director shall require 79644
any lottery sales agents to either mail directly to the commission 79645
or deposit to the credit of the state lottery fund, in banking 79646
institutions designated by the treasurer of state, net proceeds 79647
due the commission as determined by the director, and to file with 79648
the director or the director's designee reports of their receipts 79649
and transactions in the sale of lottery tickets in the form 79650
required by the director.79651

       (2) Pursuant to rules adopted by the commission under Chapter 79652
119. of the Revised Code, the director may impose penalties for 79653
the failure of a sales agent to transfer funds to the commission 79654
in a timely manner. Penalties may include monetary penalties, 79655
immediate suspension or revocation of a license, or any other 79656
penalty the commission adopts by rule.79657

       (I) The director may arrange for any person, or any banking 79658
institution, to perform functions and services in connection with 79659
the operation of the lottery as the director may consider 79660
necessary to carry out this chapter.79661

       (J)(1) As used in this chapter, "statewide joint lottery 79662
game" means a lottery game that the commission sells solely within 79663
this state under an agreement with other lottery jurisdictions to 79664
sell the same lottery game solely within their statewide or other 79665
jurisdictional boundaries.79666

       (2) If the governor directs the director to do so, the 79667
director shall enter into an agreement with other lottery 79668
jurisdictions to conduct statewide joint lottery games. If the 79669
governor signs the agreement personally or by means of an 79670
authenticating officer pursuant to section 107.15 of the Revised 79671
Code, the director then may conduct statewide joint lottery games 79672
under the agreement.79673

       (3) The entire net proceeds from any statewide joint lottery 79674
games shall be used to fund elementary, secondary, vocational, and 79675
special education programs in this state.79676

       (4) The commission shall conduct any statewide joint lottery 79677
games in accordance with rules it adopts under division (B)(5) of 79678
section 3770.03 of the Revised Code.79679

       (K)(1) The director shall enter into an agreement with the 79680
department of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health 79681
and addiction services under which the department shall provide a 79682
program of gambling addiction services on behalf of the 79683
commission. The commission shall pay the costs of the program 79684
provided pursuant to the agreement.79685

        (2) As used in this section, "gambling addiction services" 79686
has the same meaning as in section 3793.015119.01 of the Revised 79687
Code.79688

       Sec. 3770.06.  (A) There is hereby created the state lottery 79689
gross revenue fund, which shall be in the custody of the treasurer 79690
of state but shall not be part of the state treasury. All gross 79691
revenues received from sales of lottery tickets, fines, fees, and 79692
related proceeds in connection with the statewide lottery and all 79693
gross proceeds from statewide joint lottery games shall be 79694
deposited into the fund. The treasurer of state shall invest any 79695
portion of the fund not needed for immediate use in the same 79696
manner as, and subject to all provisions of law with respect to 79697
the investment of, state funds. The treasurer of state shall 79698
disburse money from the fund on order of the director of the state 79699
lottery commission or the director's designee.79700

       Except for gross proceeds from statewide joint lottery games, 79701
all revenues of the state lottery gross revenue fund that are not 79702
paid to holders of winning lottery tickets, that are not required 79703
to meet short-term prize liabilities, that are not credited to 79704
lottery sales agents in the form of bonuses, commissions, or 79705
reimbursements, that are not paid to financial institutions to 79706
reimburse those institutions for sales agent nonsufficient funds, 79707
and that are collected from sales agents for remittance to 79708
insurers under contract to provide sales agent bonding services 79709
shall be transferred to the state lottery fund, which is hereby 79710
created in the state treasury. In addition, all revenues of the 79711
state lottery gross revenue fund that represent the gross proceeds 79712
from the statewide joint lottery games and that are not paid to 79713
holders of winning lottery tickets, that are not required to meet 79714
short-term prize liabilities, that are not credited to lottery 79715
sales agents in the form of bonuses, commissions, or 79716
reimbursements, and that are not necessary to cover operating 79717
expenses associated with those games or to otherwise comply with 79718
the agreements signed by the governor that the director enters 79719
into under division (J) of section 3770.02 of the Revised Code or 79720
the rules the commission adopts under division (B)(5) of section 79721
3770.03 of the Revised Code shall be transferred to the state 79722
lottery fund. All investment earnings of the fund shall be 79723
credited to the fund. Moneys shall be disbursed from the fund 79724
pursuant to vouchers approved by the director. Total disbursements 79725
for monetary prize awards to holders of winning lottery tickets in 79726
connection with the statewide lottery and purchases of goods and 79727
services awarded as prizes to holders of winning lottery tickets 79728
shall be of an amount equal to at least fifty per cent of the 79729
total revenue accruing from the sale of lottery tickets.79730

       (B) Pursuant to Section 6 of Article XV, Ohio Constitution, 79731
there is hereby established in the state treasury the lottery 79732
profits education fund. Whenever, in the judgment of the director 79733
of the state lottery commission, the amount to the credit of the 79734
state lottery fund that does not represent proceeds from statewide 79735
joint lottery games is in excess of that needed to meet the 79736
maturing obligations of the commission and as working capital for 79737
its further operations, the director of the state lottery 79738
commission shall recommend the amount of the excess to be 79739
transferred to the lottery profits education fund, and the 79740
director of budget and management may transfer the excess to the 79741
lottery profits education fund in connection with the statewide 79742
lottery. In addition, whenever, in the judgment of the director of 79743
the state lottery commission, the amount to the credit of the 79744
state lottery fund that represents proceeds from statewide joint 79745
lottery games equals the entire net proceeds of those games as 79746
described in division (B)(5) of section 3770.03 of the Revised 79747
Code and the rules adopted under that division, the director of 79748
the state lottery commission shall recommend the amount of the 79749
proceeds to be transferred to the lottery profits education fund, 79750
and the director of budget and management may transfer those 79751
proceeds to the lottery profits education fund. Investment 79752
earnings of the lottery profits education fund shall be credited 79753
to the fund.79754

       The lottery profits education fund shall be used solely for 79755
the support of elementary, secondary, vocational, and special 79756
education programs as determined in appropriations made by the 79757
general assembly, or as provided in applicable bond proceedings 79758
for the payment of debt service on obligations issued to pay costs 79759
of capital facilities, including those for a system of common 79760
schools throughout the state pursuant to section 2n of Article 79761
VIII, Ohio Constitution. When determining the availability of 79762
money in the lottery profits education fund, the director of 79763
budget and management may consider all balances and estimated 79764
revenues of the fund.79765

        (C) There is hereby established in the state treasury the 79766
deferred prizes trust fund. With the approval of the director of 79767
budget and management, an amount sufficient to fund annuity prizes 79768
shall be transferred from the state lottery fund and credited to 79769
the trust fund. The treasurer of state shall credit all earnings 79770
arising from investments purchased under this division to the 79771
trust fund. Within sixty days after the end of each fiscal year, 79772
the treasurer of state shall certify to the director of budget and 79773
management whether the actuarial amount of the trust fund is 79774
sufficient over the fund's life for continued funding of all 79775
remaining deferred prize liabilities as of the last day of the 79776
fiscal year just ended. Also, within that sixty days, the director 79777
of budget and management shall certify the amount of investment 79778
earnings necessary to have been credited to the trust fund during 79779
the fiscal year just ending to provide for such continued funding 79780
of deferred prizes. Any earnings credited in excess of the latter 79781
certified amount shall be transferred to the lottery profits 79782
education fund.79783

       To provide all or a part of the amounts necessary to fund 79784
deferred prizes awarded by the commission in connection with the 79785
statewide lottery, the treasurer of state, in consultation with 79786
the commission, may invest moneys contained in the deferred prizes 79787
trust fund which represents proceeds from the statewide lottery in 79788
obligations of the type permitted for the investment of state 79789
funds but whose maturities are thirty years or less. 79790
Notwithstanding the requirements of any other section of the 79791
Revised Code, to provide all or part of the amounts necessary to 79792
fund deferred prizes awarded by the commission in connection with 79793
statewide joint lottery games, the treasurer of state, in 79794
consultation with the commission, may invest moneys in the trust 79795
fund which represent proceeds derived from the statewide joint 79796
lottery games in accordance with the rules the commission adopts 79797
under division (B)(5) of section 3770.03 of the Revised Code. 79798
Investments of the trust fund are not subject to the provisions of 79799
division (A)(10) of section 135.143 of the Revised Code limiting 79800
to twenty-five per cent the amount of the state's total average 79801
portfolio that may be invested in debt interests and limiting to 79802
one-half of one per cent the amount that may be invested in debt 79803
interests of a single issuer.79804

       All purchases made under this division shall be effected on a 79805
delivery versus payment method and shall be in the custody of the 79806
treasurer of state.79807

       The treasurer of state may retain an investment advisor, if 79808
necessary. The commission shall pay any costs incurred by the 79809
treasurer of state in retaining an investment advisor.79810

       (D) The auditor of state shall conduct annual audits of all 79811
funds and any other audits as the auditor of state or the general 79812
assembly considers necessary. The auditor of state may examine all 79813
records, files, and other documents of the commission, and records 79814
of lottery sales agents that pertain to their activities as 79815
agents, for purposes of conducting authorized audits.79816

       (E) The state lottery commission shall establish an internal 79817
audit programplan before the beginning of each fiscal year, 79818
subject to the approval of the auditoroffice of stateinternal 79819
audit in the office of budget and management. At the end of each 79820
fiscal year, the commission shall prepare and submit an annual 79821
report to the auditoroffice of stateinternal audit for the 79822
auditor of state'soffice's review and approval, specifying the 79823
internal audit work completed by the end of that fiscal year and 79824
reporting on compliance with the annual internal audit program. 79825
The form and content of the report shall be prescribed by the 79826
auditor of state under division (C) of section 117.20 of the 79827
Revised Codeplan.79828

       (E)(F) Whenever, in the judgment of the director of budget 79829
and management, an amount of net state lottery proceeds is 79830
necessary to be applied to the payment of debt service on 79831
obligations, all as defined in sections 151.01 and 151.03 of the 79832
Revised Code, the director shall transfer that amount directly 79833
from the state lottery fund or from the lottery profits education 79834
fund to the bond service fund defined in those sections. The 79835
provisions of this division are subject to any prior pledges or 79836
obligation of those amounts to the payment of bond service charges 79837
as defined in division (C) of section 3318.21 of the Revised Code, 79838
as referred to in division (B) of this section.79839

       Sec. 3770.21. (A) As used in this section:79840

       (1) "Video lottery terminal" means any electronic device 79841
approved by the state lottery commission that provides immediate 79842
prize determinations for participants on an electronic display 79843
that is located at a facility owned by a holder of a permit as 79844
defined in rule 3769-1-05 of the Administrative Code.79845

       (2) "Video lottery terminal promotional gaming credit" means 79846
a video lottery terminal game credit, discount, or other similar 79847
item issued to a patron to enable the placement of, or increase 79848
in, a wager at a video lottery terminal.79849

       (3) "Video lottery terminal income" means credits played, 79850
minus approved video lottery terminal promotional gaming credits, 79851
minus video lottery prize awards.79852

       (B)(1) The state lottery commission shall include, in 79853
conjunction with the state racing commission, in any rules adopted 79854
concerning video lottery terminals, the level of minimum 79855
investments that must be made by video lottery terminal sales 79856
agents in the buildings, fixtures, equipment, facilities-related 79857
preparation, and grounds at the facilities, including temporary 79858
facilities, in which the terminals will be located, along with any 79859
standards and timetables for such investments.79860

       (2) The state lottery commission may include, in consultation 79861
with the Ohio casino control commission, in rules adopted 79862
concerning video lottery terminals, standards and requirements for 79863
security and surveillance equipment that shall require a licensed 79864
video lottery sales agent to install security and surveillance 79865
equipment where any chips, tokens, tickets, electronic cards, or 79866
similar objects may be redeemed for cash, whether by an employee 79867
or by electronic means, that shall capture, for law enforcement 79868
purposes, facial feature pattern characteristics, including a 79869
computerized facial image, and that shall require such records to 79870
be retained for at least five years. The commission may secure, by 79871
agreement, information and services as the commission considers 79872
necessary from any state agency or other unit of state government. 79873
All costs related to the installation of security and surveillance 79874
equipment shall be the responsibility of the licensed video 79875
lottery sales agent.79876

       (C) A licensed video lottery sales agent may provide video 79877
lottery terminal promotional gaming credits to patrons for video 79878
lottery terminal gaming. Video lottery terminal promotional gaming 79879
credits shall be subject to approval by the director of the state 79880
lottery commission.79881

       (D) Video lottery terminal sales agents shall develop 79882
internal guidelines and controls for the purpose of giving 79883
minority business enterprises the ability to compete for the 79884
awarding of contracts to provide goods and services to those sales 79885
agents. As used in this division, "minority business enterprise" 79886
has the meaning defined in section 122.71 of the Revised Code. 79887

       (E) No license or excise tax or fee not in effect on the 79888
effective date of this section shall be assessed upon or collected 79889
from a video lottery terminal sales agent by any county, township, 79890
municipal corporation, school district, or other political 79891
subdivision of the state that has authority to assess or collect a 79892
tax or fee by reason of the video lottery terminal related conduct 79893
authorized by section 3770.03 of the Revised Code. This division 79894
does not prohibit the imposition of taxes under Chapter 718. or 79895
3769. of the Revised Code.79896

        (F)(1) Any action asserting that this section or section 79897
3770.03 of the Revised Code or any portion of those sections or 79898
any rule adopted under those sections violates any provision of 79899
the Ohio Constitution shall be brought in the court of common 79900
pleas of Franklin county within ninety days after the effective 79901
date of the amendment of this section by Am. Sub. H.B. 386 of the 79902
129th general assembly, June 11, 2012, or within ninety days after 79903
the effective day of any rule, as applicable.79904

        (2) Any claim asserting that any action taken by the governor 79905
or the lottery commission pursuant to those sections violates any 79906
provision of the Ohio Constitution or any provision of the Revised 79907
Code shall be brought in the court of common pleas of Franklin 79908
county within sixty days after the action is taken.79909

       (3) Divisions (F)(1) and (2) of this section do not apply to 79910
any claim within the original jurisdiction of the supreme court or 79911
a court of appeals under Article IV of the Ohio Constitution.79912

       (G) The court of common pleas of Franklin county shall give 79913
any claim filed under division (F)(1) or (2) of this section 79914
priority over all other civil cases before the court, irrespective 79915
of position on the court's calendar, and shall make a 79916
determination on the claim expeditiously. A court of appeals shall 79917
give any appeal from a final order issued in a case brought 79918
pursuant to division (F) of this section priority over all other 79919
civil cases before the court, irrespective of position on the 79920
court's calendar, and shall make a determination on the appeal 79921
expeditiously.79922

       Sec. 3772.03. (A) To ensure the integrity of casino gaming, 79923
the commission shall have authority to complete the functions of 79924
licensing, regulating, investigating, and penalizing casino 79925
operators, management companies, holding companies, key employees, 79926
casino gaming employees, and gaming-related vendors. The 79927
commission also shall have jurisdiction over all persons 79928
participating in casino gaming authorized by Section 6(C) of 79929
Article XV, Ohio Constitution, and this chapter.79930

       (B) All rules adopted by the commission under this chapter 79931
shall be adopted under procedures established in Chapter 119. of 79932
the Revised Code. The commission may contract for the services of 79933
experts and consultants to assist the commission in carrying out 79934
its duties under this section.79935

       (C) Within six months of September 10, 2010, the commission 79936
shall adopt initial rules as are necessary for completing the 79937
functions stated in division (A) of this section and for 79938
addressing the subjects enumerated in division (D) of this 79939
section.79940

       (D) The commission shall adopt, and as advisable and 79941
necessary shall amend or repeal, rules that include all of the 79942
following:79943

       (1) The prevention of practices detrimental to the public 79944
interest;79945

       (2) Prescribing the method of applying, and the form of 79946
application, that an applicant for a license under this chapter 79947
must follow as otherwise described in this chapter;79948

       (3) Prescribing the information to be furnished by an 79949
applicant or licensee as described in section 3772.11 of the 79950
Revised Code;79951

       (4) Describing the certification standards and duties of an 79952
independent testing laboratory certified under section 3772.31 of 79953
the Revised Code and the relationship between the commission, the 79954
laboratory, the gaming-related vendor, and the casino operator;79955

        (5) The minimum amount of insurance that must be maintained 79956
by a casino operator, management company, holding company, or 79957
gaming-related vendor;79958

       (6) The approval process for a significant change in 79959
ownership or transfer of control of a licensee as provided in 79960
section 3772.091 of the Revised Code;79961

       (7) The design of gaming supplies, devices, and equipment to 79962
be distributed by gaming-related vendors;79963

       (8) Identifying the casino gaming that is permitted, 79964
identifying the gaming supplies, devices, and equipment, that are 79965
permitted, defining the area in which the permitted casino gaming 79966
may be conducted, and specifying the method of operation according 79967
to which the permitted casino gaming is to be conducted as 79968
provided in section 3772.20 of the Revised Code, and requiring 79969
gaming devices and equipment to meet the standards of this state;79970

       (9) Tournament play in any casino facility;79971

       (10) Establishing and implementing a voluntary exclusion 79972
program that provides all of the following:79973

       (a) Except as provided by commission rule, a person who 79974
participates in the program shall agree to refrain from entering a 79975
casino facility.79976

       (b) The name of a person participating in the program shall 79977
be included on a list of persons excluded from all casino 79978
facilities.79979

       (c) Except as provided by commission rule, no person who 79980
participates in the program shall petition the commission for 79981
admittance into a casino facility.79982

       (d) The list of persons participating in the program and the 79983
personal information of those persons shall be confidential and 79984
shall only be disseminated by the commission to a casino operator 79985
and the agents and employees of the casino operator for purposes 79986
of enforcement and to other entities, upon request of the 79987
participant and agreement by the commission.79988

       (e) A casino operator shall make all reasonable attempts as 79989
determined by the commission to cease all direct marketing efforts 79990
to a person participating in the program.79991

       (f) A casino operator shall not cash the check of a person 79992
participating in the program or extend credit to the person in any 79993
manner. However, the program shall not exclude a casino operator 79994
from seeking the payment of a debt accrued by a person before 79995
participating in the program.79996

       (g) Any and all locations at which a person may register as a 79997
participant in the program shall be published.79998

       (11) Requiring the commission to adopt standards regarding 79999
the marketing materials of a licensed casino operator, including 80000
allowing the commission to prohibit marketing materials that are 80001
contrary to the adopted standards;80002

       (12) Requiring that the records, including financial 80003
statements, of any casino operator, management company, holding 80004
company, and gaming-related vendor be maintained in the manner 80005
prescribed by the commission and made available for inspection 80006
upon demand by the commission, but shall be subject to section 80007
3772.16 of the Revised Code;80008

       (13) Permitting a licensed casino operator, management 80009
company, key employee, or casino gaming employee to question a 80010
person suspected of violating this chapter;80011

       (14) The chips, tokens, tickets, electronic cards, or similar 80012
objects that may be purchased by means of an agreement under which 80013
credit is extended to a wagerer by a casino operator;80014

       (15) Establishing standards for provisional key employee 80015
licenses for a person who is required to be licensed as a key 80016
employee and is in exigent circumstances and standards for 80017
provisional licenses for casino gaming employees who submit 80018
complete applications and are compliant under an instant 80019
background check. A provisional license shall be valid not longer 80020
than three months. A provisional license may be renewed one time, 80021
at the commission's discretion, for an additional three months. In 80022
establishing standards with regard to instant background checks 80023
the commission shall take notice of criminal records checks as 80024
they are conducted under section 311.41 of the Revised Code using 80025
electronic fingerprint reading devices.80026

       (16) Establishing approval procedures for third-party 80027
engineering or accounting firms, as described in section 3772.09 80028
of the Revised Code;80029

       (17) Prescribing the manner in which winnings, compensation 80030
from casino gaming, and gross revenue must be computed and 80031
reported by a licensee as described in Chapter 5753. of the 80032
Revised Code;80033

       (18) Prescribing conditions under which a licensee's license 80034
may be suspended or revoked as described in section 3772.04 of the 80035
Revised Code;80036

       (19) Prescribing the manner and procedure of all hearings to 80037
be conducted by the commission or by any hearing examiner;80038

       (20) Prescribing technical standards and requirements that 80039
are to be met by security and surveillance equipment that is used 80040
at and standards and requirements to be met by personnel who are 80041
employed at casino facilities, and standards and requirements for 80042
the provision of security at and surveillance of casino 80043
facilities;. Such standards and requirements may require the 80044
casino operator, holding company, or management company to install 80045
security and surveillance equipment where any chips, tokens, 80046
tickets, electronic cards, or similar objects may be redeemed for 80047
cash, whether by a casino gaming employee or by electronic means, 80048
that shall capture, for law enforcement purposes, facial feature 80049
pattern characteristics, including a computerized facial image, 80050
and that shall require such records to be retained for at least 80051
five years. The commission may secure, by agreement, information 80052
and services as the commission considers necessary from any state 80053
agency or other unit of state government. All costs related to the 80054
installation of security and surveillance equipment shall be the 80055
responsibility of the casino operator, holding company, or 80056
management company.80057

       (21) Prescribing requirements for a casino operator to 80058
provide unarmed security services at a casino facility by licensed 80059
casino employees, and the training that shall be completed by 80060
these employees;80061

       (22) Prescribing standards according to which casino 80062
operators shall keep accounts and standards according to which 80063
casino accounts shall be audited, and establish means of assisting 80064
the tax commissioner in levying and collecting the gross casino 80065
revenue tax levied under section 5753.02 of the Revised Code;80066

       (23) Defining penalties for violation of commission rules and 80067
a process for imposing such penalties subject to the review of the 80068
joint committee on gaming and wagering;80069

       (24) Establishing standards for decertifying contractors that 80070
violate statutes or rules of this state or the federal government;80071

       (25) Establishing standards for the repair of casino gaming 80072
equipment;80073

       (26) Establishing procedures to ensure that casino operators, 80074
management companies, and holding companies are compliant with the 80075
compulsive and problem gambling plan submitted under section 80076
3772.18 of the Revised Code;80077

       (27) Prescribing, for institutional investors in or holding 80078
companies of a casino operator, management company, holding 80079
company, or gaming-related vendor that fall below the threshold 80080
needed to be considered an institutional investor or a holding 80081
company, standards regarding what any employees, members, or 80082
owners of those investors or holding companies may do and shall 80083
not do in relation to casino facilities and casino gaming in this 80084
state, which standards shall rationally relate to the need to 80085
proscribe conduct that is inconsistent with passive institutional 80086
investment status;80087

       (28) Providing for any other thing necessary and proper for 80088
successful and efficient regulation of casino gaming under this 80089
chapter.80090

       (E) The commission shall employ and assign gaming agents as 80091
necessary to assist the commission in carrying out the duties of 80092
this chapter. In order to maintain employment as a gaming agent, 80093
the gaming agent shall successfully complete all continuing 80094
training programs required by the commission and shall not have 80095
been convicted of or pleaded guilty or no contest to a 80096
disqualifying offense as defined in section 3772.07 of the Revised 80097
Code.80098

       (F) The commission, as a law enforcement agency, and its 80099
gaming agents, as law enforcement officers as defined in section 80100
2901.01 of the Revised Code, shall have authority with regard to 80101
the detection and investigation of, the seizure of evidence 80102
allegedly relating to, and the apprehension and arrest of persons 80103
allegedly committing gaming offenses, and shall have access to 80104
casino facilities to carry out the requirements of this chapter.80105

       (G) The commission may eject or exclude or authorize the 80106
ejection or exclusion of and a gaming agent may eject a person 80107
from a casino facility for any of the following reasons:80108

       (1) The person's name is on the list of persons voluntarily 80109
excluding themselves from all casinos in a program established 80110
according to rules adopted by the commission;80111

       (2) The person violates or conspires to violate this chapter 80112
or a rule adopted thereunder; or80113

       (3) The commission determines that the person's conduct or 80114
reputation is such that the person's presence within a casino 80115
facility may call into question the honesty and integrity of the 80116
casino gaming operations or interfere with the orderly conduct of 80117
the casino gaming operations.80118

       (H) A person, other than a person participating in a 80119
voluntary exclusion program, may petition the commission for a 80120
public hearing on the person's ejection or exclusion under this 80121
chapter.80122

       (I) A casino operator or management company shall have the 80123
same authority to eject or exclude a person from the management 80124
company's casino facilities as authorized in division (G) of this 80125
section. The licensee shall immediately notify the commission of 80126
an ejection or exclusion.80127

       (J) The commission shall submit a written annual report with 80128
the governor, president and minority leader of the senate, speaker 80129
and minority leader of the house of representatives, and joint 80130
committee on gaming and wagering before the first day of September 80131
each year. The annual report shall include a statement describing 80132
the receipts and disbursements of the commission, relevant 80133
financial data regarding casino gaming, including gross revenues 80134
and disbursements made under this chapter, actions taken by the 80135
commission, an update on casino operators', management companies', 80136
and holding companies' compulsive and problem gambling plans and 80137
the voluntary exclusion program and list, and any additional 80138
information that the commission considers useful or that the 80139
governor, president or minority leader of the senate, speaker or 80140
minority leader of the house of representatives, or joint 80141
committee on gaming and wagering requests.80142

        (K) Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, beginning on 80143
July 1, 2011, the commission shall assume jurisdiction over and 80144
oversee the regulation of skill-based amusement machines as is 80145
provided in the law of this state.80146

       Sec. 3772.062. (A) The executive director of the commission 80147
shall enter into an agreement with the department of alcohol and 80148
drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction services under 80149
which the department provides a program of gambling and addiction 80150
services on behalf of the commission.80151

       (B) The executive director of the commission, in conjunction 80152
with the department of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental 80153
health and addiction services and the state lottery commission, 80154
shall establish, operate, and publicize an in-state, toll-free 80155
telephone number Ohio residents may call to obtain basic 80156
information about problem gambling, the gambling addiction 80157
services available to problem gamblers, and how a problem gambler 80158
may obtain help. The telephone number shall be staffed twenty-four 80159
hours per day, seven days a week, to respond to inquiries and 80160
provide that information. The costs of establishing, operating, 80161
and publicizing the telephone number shall be paid for with money 80162
in the problem casino gambling and addictions fund.80163

       Sec. 3772.24. (A) An employee of a casino facility who is 80164
between eighteen and twenty-one years of age may be present in the 80165
area of a casino facility where casino gaming is being conducted, 80166
as long as the employee's duties are related solely to nongaming 80167
activities. An individual who is less than twenty-one years of age 80168
may enter a designated area of a casino facility where casino 80169
gaming is being conducted, as established by the commission, to 80170
pass to another area where casino gaming is not being conducted, 80171
but only if the individual is personally escorted by licensed 80172
casino personnel, as approved by the commission, who at all times 80173
remain in close proximity to the individual. An individual who is 80174
less than twenty-one years of age shall not make a wager under 80175
this chapter.80176

       (B) Casino operators shall notify the commission of the days 80177
and hours during which casino gaming will be conducted.80178

       Sec. 3772.36.  (A) There is hereby created in the state 80179
treasury the casino control commission enforcement fund. All 80180
moneys that are derived from any fines, mandatory fines, or 80181
forfeited bail to which the commission may be entitled under this 80182
chapter and all moneys that are derived from forfeitures of 80183
property to which the commission may be entitled under this 80184
chapter or Chapter 2981. of the Revised Code, any other provision 80185
of the Revised Code, or federal law shall be deposited into the 80186
fund. Subject to division (B) of this section and divisions (B), 80187
(C), and (D) of section 2981.13 of the Revised Code, the moneys in 80188
the fund shall be used solely to subsidize the commission's 80189
division of enforcement and its efforts to ensure the integrity of 80190
casino gaming.80191

       (B) Notwithstanding any contrary provision in the Revised 80192
Code, moneys that are derived from forfeitures of property under 80193
federal law and that are deposited into the casino control 80194
commission enforcement fund in accordance with division (A) of 80195
this section shall be used and accounted for in accordance with 80196
the applicable federal law, and the commission otherwise shall 80197
comply with federal law in connection with that money.80198

       Sec. 3781.112. (A) As used in this section, "secured 80199
facility" means any of the following:80200

        (1) A maternity unit, newborn care nursery, or maternity home 80201
licensed under Chapter 3711. of the Revised Code;80202

        (2) A pediatric intensive care unit subject to rules adopted 80203
by the director of health pursuant to section 3702.11 of the 80204
Revised Code;80205

        (3) A children's hospital, as defined in section 3727.01 of 80206
the Revised Code;80207

        (4) A hospital that is licensed under section 5119.205119.3380208
of the Revised Code to receive mentally ill persons;80209

       (5) The portion of a nursing home licensed under section 80210
3721.02 of the Revised Code or in accordance with section 3721.09 80211
of the Revised Code in which specialized care is provided to 80212
residents of the nursing home who have physical or mental 80213
conditions that require a resident to be restricted in the 80214
resident's freedom of movement for the health and safety of the 80215
resident, the staff attending the resident, or the general public.80216

        (B) A secured facility may take reasonable steps in 80217
accordance with rules the board of building standards adopts under 80218
division (A) of section 3781.10 of the Revised Code and in 80219
accordance with the state fire code the fire marshal adopts under 80220
section 3737.82 of the Revised Code, to deny egress to confine and 80221
protect patients or residents of the secured facility who are not 80222
capable of self-preservation. A secured facility that wishes to 80223
deny egress to those patients or residents may use delayed-egress 80224
doors and electronically coded doors to deny egress, on the 80225
condition that those doors are installed and used in accordance 80226
with rules the board of building standards adopts under division 80227
(A) of section 3781.10 of the Revised Code and in accordance with 80228
the state fire code the fire marshal adopts under section 3737.82 80229
of the Revised Code. A secured facility also may install 80230
controlled-egress locks, in compliance with rules the board of 80231
building standards adopts under division (A) of section 3781.10 of 80232
the Revised Code and in compliance with the state fire code the 80233
fire marshal adopts under section 3737.82 of the Revised Code, in 80234
areas of the secured facility where patients or residents who have 80235
physical or mental conditions that would endanger the patients or 80236
residents, the staff attending the patients or residents, or the 80237
general public if those patients or residents are not restricted 80238
in their freedom of movement. A secured facility that uses 80239
delayed-egress doors and electronically coded doors, 80240
controlled-egress locks, or both, shall do both of the following:80241

        (1) Provide continuous, twenty-four-hour custodial care to 80242
the patients or residents of the facility;80243

        (2) Establish a system to evacuate patients or residents in 80244
the event of fire or other emergency.80245

       Sec. 3795.01. As used in sections 3795.01, 3795.02, and 80246
3795.03 of the Revised Code:80247

       (A) "Assist suicide" or "assisting suicide" means knowingly 80248
doing either of the following, with the purpose of helping another 80249
person to commit or attempt suicide:80250

       (1) Providing the physical means by which the person commits 80251
or attempts to commit suicide;80252

       (2) Participating in a physical act by which the person 80253
commits or attempts to commit suicide.80254

       (B) "Certified nurse practitioner," "certified 80255
nurse-midwife," and "clinical nurse specialist" have the same 80256
meanings as in section 4723.01 of the Revised Code.80257

       (C) "CPR" has the same meaning as in section 2133.21 of the 80258
Revised Code.80259

       (D) "Health care" means any care, treatment, service, or 80260
procedure to maintain, diagnose, or treat a person's physical or 80261
mental condition.80262

       (E) "Health care decision" means informed consent, refusal to 80263
give informed consent, or withdrawal of informed consent to health 80264
care.80265

       (F) "Health care facility" means any of the following:80266

       (1) A hospital;80267

       (2) A hospice care program or pediatric respite care program 80268
as defined in section 3712.01 of the Revised Code;80269

       (3) A nursing home;80270

       (4) A home health agency;80271

       (5) An intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded80272
individuals with intellectual disabilities.80273

       (G) "Health care personnel" means physicians, nurses, 80274
physician assistants, emergency medical technicians-basic, 80275
emergency medical technicians-intermediate, emergency medical 80276
technicians-paramedic, medical technicians, dietitians, other 80277
authorized persons acting under the direction of an attending 80278
physician, and administrators of health care facilities.80279

       (H) "Physician" means a person who is authorized under 80280
Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery 80281
or osteopathic medicine and surgery.80282

       Sec. 3798.01. As used in this chapter:80283

       (A) "Administrative safeguards," "physical safeguards," and 80284
"technical safeguards" have the same meanings as in 45 C.F.R. 80285
164.304.80286

       (B) "Approved health information exchange" means a health 80287
information exchange that has been approved or reapproved by the 80288
medicaid director of job and family services pursuant to the 80289
approval or reapproval process, as applicable, the director 80290
establishes in rules adopted under division (A) of section 3798.15 80291
of the Revised Code or that has been certified by the office of 80292
the national coordinator for health information technology in the 80293
United States department of health and human services.80294

       (C) "Covered entity," "disclosure," "health care provider," 80295
"health information," "individually identifiable health 80296
information," "protected health information," and "use" have the 80297
same meanings as in 45 C.F.R. 160.103.80298

       (D) "Designated record set" has the same meaning as in 45 80299
C.F.R. 164.501.80300

       (E) "Direct exchange" means the activity of electronic 80301
transmission of health information through a direct connection 80302
between the electronic record systems of health care providers 80303
without the use of a health information exchange. 80304

       (F) "Health care component" and "hybrid entity" have the same 80305
meanings as in 45 C.F.R. 164.103.80306

       (G) "Health information exchange" means any person or 80307
governmental entity that provides in this state a technical 80308
infrastructure to connect computer systems or other electronic 80309
devices used by covered entities to facilitate the secure 80310
transmission of health information. "Health information exchange" 80311
excludes health care providers engaged in direct exchange, 80312
including direct exchange through the use of a health information 80313
service provider.80314

       (H) "HIPAA privacy rule" means the standards for privacy of 80315
individually identifiable health information in 45 C.F.R. part 160 80316
and in 45 C.F.R. part 164, subparts A and E.80317

       (I) "Interoperability" means the capacity of two or more 80318
information systems to exchange information in an accurate, 80319
effective, secure, and consistent manner.80320

       (J) "Minor" means an unemancipated person under eighteen 80321
years of age or a mentally or physically disabled person under 80322
twenty-one years of age who meets criteria specified in rules 80323
adopted by the medicaid director of job and family services under 80324
section 3798.13 of the Revised Code.80325

       (K) "More stringent" has the same meaning as in 45 C.F.R. 80326
160.202.80327

        (L) "Office of health transformation" means the office of 80328
health transformation created by executive order 2011-02K or a 80329
successor governmental entity responsible for health system 80330
oversight in this state.80331

       (M) "Personal representative" means a person who has 80332
authority under applicable law to make decisions related to health 80333
care on behalf of an adult or emancipated minor, or the parent, 80334
legal guardian, or other person acting in loco parentis who is 80335
authorized under law to make health care decisions on behalf of an 80336
unemancipated minor. "Personal representative" does not include 80337
the parent or legal guardian of, or another person acting in loco 80338
parentis to, a minor who consents to the minor's own receipt of 80339
health care or a minor who makes medical decisions on the minor's 80340
own behalf pursuant to law, court approval, or because the minor's 80341
parent, legal guardian, or other person acting in loco parentis 80342
has assented to an agreement of confidentiality between the 80343
provider and the minor.80344

       (N) "Political subdivision" means a municipal corporation, 80345
township, county, school district, or other body corporate and 80346
politic responsible for governmental activities in a geographic 80347
area smaller than that of the state.80348

       (O) "State agency" means any one or more of the following:80349

       (1) The department of administrative services;80350

       (2) The department of aging;80351

       (2)(3) The department of alcohol and drug addiction services80352
mental health and addiction services;80353

       (3)(4) The department of developmental disabilities;80354

       (4)(5) The department of education;80355

       (5)(6) The department of health;80356

       (6)(7) The department of insurance;80357

       (7)(8) The department of job and family services;80358

       (8)(9) The department of mental healthmedicaid;80359

       (9)(10) The department of rehabilitation and correction;80360

       (10)(11) The department of youth services;80361

       (11)(12) The bureau of workers' compensation;80362

       (12)(13) The rehabilitation services commissionopportunities 80363
for Ohioans with disabilities agency;80364

       (13)(14) The office of the attorney general;80365

       (14)(15) A health care licensing board created under Title 80366
XLVII of the Revised Code that possesses individually identifiable 80367
health information.80368

       Sec. 3798.10.  (A) Not later than six months after the 80369
effective date of this sectionSeptember 10, 2012, the medicaid80370
director of job and family services, in consultation with the 80371
office of health transformation, shall prescribe by rules adopted 80372
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code a standard 80373
authorization form for the use and disclosure of protected health 80374
information by covered entities in this state. The form shall meet 80375
all requirements specified in 45 C.F.R. 164.508 and, where 80376
applicable, 42 C.F.R. part 2. 80377

       (B) If a form the medicaid director prescribes under division 80378
(A) of this section is properly executed by an individual or the 80379
individual's personal representative, it shall be accepted by any 80380
person or governmental entity in this state as valid authorization 80381
for the use or disclosure of the individual's protected health 80382
information to the persons or governmental entities specified in 80383
the form.80384

       (C) This section does not preclude a person or governmental 80385
entity from accepting as valid authorization for the use or 80386
disclosure of protected health information a form other than the 80387
form prescribed under division (A) of this section if the other 80388
form meets all requirements specified in 45 C.F.R. 164.508 and, if 80389
applicable, 42 C.F.R. part 2.80390

       Sec. 3798.13. The medicaid director of job and family 80391
services shall adopt rules for purposes of specifying the criteria 80392
a person who is mentally or physically disabled and who is under 80393
twenty-one years of age must meet to be considered a minor for 80394
purposes of sections 3798.07 and 3798.12 of the Revised Code.80395

       Sec. 3798.14. (A) The medicaid director of job and family 80396
services, in consultation with the office of health 80397
transformation, shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. 80398
of the Revised Code for the purpose of establishing standards the 80399
director must use to approve health information exchanges 80400
operating in this state. The rules shall not be adopted until the 80401
earlier of sixty days following the adoption of a federal 80402
certification process for health information exchanges by the 80403
office of the national coordinator for health information 80404
technology in the United States department of health and human 80405
services or January 1, 2013. Subject to division (B) of this 80406
section, the rules may include standards and procedures to be 80407
followed by a health information exchange regarding the following:80408

       (1) Access to and use and disclosure of protected health 80409
information maintained by or on an approved health information 80410
exchange;80411

       (2) Demonstration of adequate financial resources to sustain 80412
continued operations in compliance with the rules adopted under 80413
this section;80414

       (3) Participation in outreach activities for individuals and 80415
covered entities;80416

       (4) Conduct of operations in a transparent manner to promote 80417
consumer confidence;80418

       (5) Implementation of security breach notification 80419
procedures.80420

       (B) The rules the medicaid director adopts pursuant to 80421
division (A) of this section shall be consistent with 80422
certification standards for health information exchanges 80423
established in federal statutes and regulations, including 80424
nationally recognized standards for interoperability.80425

       Sec. 3798.15.  (A) The medicaid director of job and family 80426
services, in consultation with the office of health 80427
transformation, shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. 80428
of the Revised Code for the purpose of establishing processes for 80429
all of the following:80430

       (1) A health information exchange to obtain approval to 80431
operate as an approved health information exchange in this state 80432
and, at times specified by the director, obtain reapproval of such 80433
status;80434

       (2) The director to investigate and resolve concerns and 80435
complaints submitted to the director regarding an approved health 80436
information exchange;80437

       (3) A health information exchange to apply for 80438
reconsideration of a decision the director makes under a process 80439
established under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section;80440

       (4) Covered entities and approved health information 80441
exchanges to enter into participation agreements and enforce the 80442
terms of such agreements.80443

       (B) Any decision the medicaid director makes in relation to a 80444
request for reconsideration made in accordance with rules adopted 80445
under division (A)(3) of this section is not subject to appeal 80446
under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.80447

       Sec. 3798.16.  (A) The medicaid director of job and family 80448
services, in consultation with the office of health 80449
transformation, shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. 80450
of the Revised Code for the purpose of specifying the content of 80451
agreements governing covered entities' participation in approved 80452
health information exchanges. At a minimum, the rules shall 80453
require the content of such participation agreements to include 80454
all of the following: 80455

       (1) Procedures for a covered entity to disclose an 80456
individual's protected health information to an approved health 80457
information exchange;80458

       (2) Procedures for a covered entity to access an individual's 80459
protected health information from an approved health information 80460
exchange;80461

       (3) Subject to division (B) of this section, a written notice 80462
to be provided by a covered entity to an individual or the 80463
individual's personal representative prior to the covered entity's 80464
disclosure of the individual's protected health information to an 80465
approved health information exchange; 80466

       (4) Documentation the covered entity must use to verify that 80467
a notice described in division (A)(3) of this section has been 80468
provided by the covered entity to an individual or the 80469
individual's personal representative prior to the disclosure of 80470
the individual's protected health information to an approved 80471
health information exchange;80472

       (5) Procedures for an individual or the individual's personal 80473
representative to submit to the covered entity a written request 80474
to place restrictions on the covered entity's disclosure of 80475
protected health information to the approved health information 80476
exchange;80477

       (6) The standards a covered entity must use to determine 80478
whether, and to what extent, to comply with a written request 80479
described in division (A)(5) of this section;80480

       (7) The purposes for which a covered entity may access and 80481
use protected health information from the approved health 80482
information exchange.80483

       (B) With respect to the written notice described in division 80484
(A)(3) of this section, the rules may specify that the notice can 80485
be incorporated into the covered entity's notice of privacy 80486
practices required by 45 C.F.R. 164.520 and shall specify that the 80487
notice include the following statements:80488

       (1) The individual's protected health information will be 80489
disclosed to the approved health information exchange to 80490
facilitate the provision of health care to the individual.80491

       (2) The approved health information exchange maintains 80492
appropriate administrative, physical, and technical safeguards to 80493
protect the privacy and security of protected health information.80494

       (3) Only authorized individuals may access and use protected 80495
health information from the approved health information exchange.80496

       (4) The individual or the individual's personal 80497
representative has the right to request in writing that the 80498
covered entity do either or both of the following:80499

       (a) Not disclose any of the individual's protected health 80500
information to the approved health information exchange;80501

       (b) Not disclose specific categories of the individual's 80502
protected health information to the approved health information 80503
exchange.80504

       (5) Any restrictions on the disclosure of protected health 80505
information an individual requests as described in either division 80506
(B)(4)(a) or (b) of this section may result in a health care 80507
provider not having access to information that is necessary for 80508
the provider to render appropriate care to the individual.80509

       (6) Any restrictions on the disclosure of protected health 80510
information an individual requests as described in division 80511
(B)(4)(a) of this section must be honored by the covered entity.80512

       (7) Any restrictions on the disclosure of protected health 80513
information an individual requests as described in division 80514
(B)(4)(b) of this section must be honored if the restriction is 80515
consistent with rules adopted under this chapter. 80516

       (C) In adopting standards under division (A)(6) of this 80517
section, the medicaid director shall take into consideration the 80518
technical capabilities of software available to health information 80519
exchanges."80520

       Sec. 3901.3814. Sections 3901.38 and 3901.381 to 3901.3813 of 80521
the Revised Code do not apply to the following:80522

       (A) Policies offering coverage that is regulated under 80523
Chapters 3935. and 3937. of the Revised Code;80524

       (B) An employer's self-insurance plan and any of its 80525
administrators, as defined in section 3959.01 of the Revised Code, 80526
to the extent that federal law supersedes, preempts, prohibits, or 80527
otherwise precludes the application of any provisions of those 80528
sections to the plan and its administrators;80529

       (C) A third-party payer for coverage provided under the 80530
medicare advantage program operated under Title XVIII of the 80531
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as 80532
amended;80533

       (D) A third-party payer for coverage provided under the 80534
medicaid program operated under Title XIX of the "Social Security 80535
Act," except that if a federal waiver applied for under section 80536
5111.1785167.25 of the Revised Code is granted or the medicaid80537
director of job and family services determines that this provision 80538
can be implemented without a waiver, sections 3901.38 and 3901.381 80539
to 3901.3813 of the Revised Code apply to claims submitted 80540
electronically or non-electronically that are made with respect to 80541
coverage of medicaid recipients by health insuring corporations 80542
licensed under Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code, instead of the 80543
prompt payment requirements of 42 C.F.R. 447.46;80544

       (E) A third-party payer for coverage provided under the 80545
tricare program offered by the United States department of 80546
defense.80547

       Sec. 3903.14.  (A) The superintendent of insurance as 80548
rehabilitator may appoint one or more special deputies, who shall 80549
have all the powers and responsibilities of the rehabilitator 80550
granted under this section, and the superintendent may employ such 80551
clerks and assistants as considered necessary. The compensation of 80552
the special deputies, clerks, and assistants and all expenses of 80553
taking possession of the insurer and of conducting the proceedings 80554
shall be fixed by the superintendent, with the approval of the 80555
court and shall be paid out of the funds or assets of the insurer. 80556
The persons appointed under this section shall serve at the 80557
pleasure of the superintendent. In the event that the property of 80558
the insurer does not contain sufficient cash or liquid assets to 80559
defray the costs incurred, the superintendent may advance the 80560
costs so incurred out of any appropriation for the maintenance of 80561
the department of insurance. Any amounts so advanced for expenses 80562
of administration shall be repaid to the superintendent for the 80563
use of the department out of the first available money of the 80564
insurer.80565

       (B) The rehabilitator may take such action as the 80566
rehabilitator considers necessary or appropriate to reform and 80567
revitalize the insurer. The rehabilitator shall have all the 80568
powers of the directors, officers, and managers, whose authority 80569
shall be suspended, except as they are redelegated by the 80570
rehabilitator. The rehabilitator shall have full power to direct 80571
and manage, to hire and discharge employees subject to any 80572
contract rights they may have, and to deal with the property and 80573
business of the insurer.80574

       (C) If it appears to the rehabilitator that there has been 80575
criminal or tortious conduct, or breach of any contractual or 80576
fiduciary obligation detrimental to the insurer by any officer, 80577
manager, agent, director, trustee, broker, employee, or other 80578
person, the rehabilitator may pursue all appropriate legal 80579
remedies on behalf of the insurer.80580

       (D) If the rehabilitator determines that reorganization, 80581
consolidation, conversion, reinsurance, merger, or other 80582
transformation of the insurer is appropriate, the rehabilitator 80583
shall prepare a plan to effect such changes. Upon application of 80584
the rehabilitator for approval of the plan, and after such notice 80585
and hearings as the court may prescribe, the court may either 80586
approve or disapprove the plan proposed, or may modify it and 80587
approve it as modified. Any plan approved under this section shall 80588
be, in the judgment of the court, fair and equitable to all 80589
parties concerned. If the plan is approved, the rehabilitator 80590
shall carry out the plan. In the case of a life insurer, the plan 80591
proposed may include the imposition of liens upon the policies of 80592
the company, if all rights of shareholders are first relinquished. 80593
A plan for a life insurer may also propose imposition of a 80594
moratorium upon loan and cash surrender rights under policies, for 80595
such period and to such an extent as may be necessary.80596

       (E) In the case of a medicaid health insuring corporation 80597
that has posted a bond or deposited securities in accordance with 80598
section 1751.271 of the Revised Code, the plan proposed under 80599
division (D) of this section may include the use of the proceeds 80600
of the bond or securities to first pay the claims of contracted 80601
providers for covered health care services provided to medicaid 80602
recipients, then next to pay other claimants with any remaining 80603
funds, consistent with the priorities set forth in sections 80604
3903.421 and 3903.42 of the Revised Code.80605

       (F) The rehabilitator shall have the power under sections 80606
3903.26 and 3903.27 of the Revised Code to avoid fraudulent 80607
transfers.80608

       (G) As used in this section:80609

        (1) "Contracted provider" means a provider with a contract 80610
with a medicaid health insuring corporation to provide covered 80611
health care services to medicaid recipients.80612

        (2) "Medicaid recipient" means a person eligible for 80613
assistance underenrolled in the medicaid program operated 80614
pursuant to Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code.80615

       Sec. 3905.40.  There shall be paid to the superintendent of 80616
insurance the following fees:80617

       (A) Each insurance company doing business in this state shall 80618
pay:80619

       (1) For filing a copy of its charter or deed of settlement, 80620
two hundred fifty dollars;80621

       (2) For filing each statement, one hundred seventy-five 80622
dollars;80623

       (3) For each certificate of authority or license, one hundred 80624
seventy-five, and for each certified copy thereof, five dollars;80625

       (4) For each copy of a paper filed in the superintendent's 80626
office, twenty cents per page;80627

       (5) For issuing certificates of deposits or certified copies 80628
thereof, five dollars for the first certificate or copy and one 80629
dollar for each additional certificate or copy;80630

       (6) For issuing certificates of compliance or certified 80631
copies thereof, sixty dollars;80632

       (7) For affixing the seal of office and certifying documents, 80633
other than those enumerated herein, two dollars;80634

       (8) For each agent appointment and each annual renewal of an 80635
agent appointment, not more than twenty dollars;80636

       (9) For each termination of an agent appointment, five 80637
dollars.80638

       (B) Each domestic life insurance company doing business in 80639
this state shall pay for annual valuation of its policies, one 80640
cent on every one thousand dollars of insurance.80641

       (C) Each applicant for licensure as an insurance agent except 80642
applicants for licensure as surety bail bond agents, surplus line 80643
brokers, and portable electronics insurance vendors shall pay ten 80644
dollars for each line of authority requested. Fees collected under 80645
this division shall be credited to the department of insurance 80646
operating fund created in section 3901.021 of the Revised Code.80647

       (D) Each domestic mutual life insurance company shall pay for 80648
verifying that any amendment to its articles of incorporation was 80649
regularly adopted, two hundred fifty dollars with each application 80650
for verification. Any such amendment shall be considered to have 80651
been regularly adopted when approved by the affirmative vote of 80652
two-thirds of the policyholders present in person or by proxy at 80653
any annual meeting of policyholders or at a special meeting of 80654
policyholders called for that purpose.80655

       (E) Each insurance agent doing business in this state shall 80656
pay a biennial license renewal fee of twenty-five dollars, except 80657
the following insurance agents are not required to pay that 80658
license renewal fee:80659

       (1) Individual resident agents who have met their continuing 80660
education requirements under section 3905.481 of the Revised Code;80661

       (2) Surety bail bond agents;80662

       (3) Surplus line brokers;80663

       (4) Portable electronics insurance vendors.80664

       (F) Each applicant for licensure as a portable electronics 80665
insurance vendor with a portable electronics insurance limited 80666
lines license and each licensed vendor doing business in this 80667
state shall pay the following fees prescribed by the 80668
superintendent: 80669

       (1) For vendors engaged in portable electronic transactions 80670
at more than ten locations in this state, an application fee not 80671
to exceed five thousand dollars for an initial license and a 80672
biennial license renewal fee not to exceed two thousand five 80673
hundred dollars for each renewal thereafter;80674

       (2) For vendors engaged in portable electronic transactions 80675
at ten or fewer locations in this state, an application fee not to 80676
exceed three thousand dollars for an initial license and a 80677
biennial license renewal fee not to exceed one thousand dollars 80678
for each renewal thereafter.80679

       (G) All fees collected by the superintendent under this 80680
section except any fees collected under divisions (A)(2), (3), and 80681
(6) of this section shall be credited to the department of 80682
insurance operating fund created under section 3901.021 of the 80683
Revised Code.80684

       Sec. 3905.483.  (A) There is hereby created the insurance 80685
agent education advisory council to advise the superintendent of 80686
insurance in carrying out the duties imposed under sections 80687
3905.04 and 3905.481 to 3905.486 of the Revised Code.80688

       (B) The council shall be composed of the superintendent, or 80689
the superintendent's designee, and twelve members appointed by the 80690
superintendent, as follows:80691

       (1) One representative of the association of Ohio life 80692
insurance companies;80693

       (2) One representative of the independent insurance agents of 80694
Ohio;80695

       (3) One representative of the Ohio association of health 80696
underwriters;80697

       (4) One representative of the national association of 80698
insurance and financial advisors-Ohio;80699

       (5) One representative of the Ohio insurance institute;80700

       (6) One representative of the professional insurance agents 80701
association of Ohio;80702

       (7) One representative of the Ohio land title association;80703

       (8) Two insurance agents each of whom has been licensed 80704
continuously during the five-year period immediately preceding the 80705
agent's appointment;80706

       (9) One representative of an insurance company admitted to 80707
transact business in this state;80708

       (10) Two representatives of consumers, one of whom shall be 80709
at least sixtyfifty years of age.80710

       (C)(1) Of the initial eleven appointments made by the 80711
superintendent, three shall be for terms ending December 31, 1994, 80712
four shall be for terms ending December 31, 1995, and four shall 80713
be for terms ending December 31, 1996. Thereafter, terms of office 80714
shall be for three years, each term ending on the thirty-first day 80715
of December of the third year.80716

       (2) The initial appointment of the twelfth member made by the 80717
superintendent under division (B)(7) of this section, pursuant to 80718
Am. Sub. S.B. 129 of the 124th general assembly, shall be for a 80719
term ending December 31, 2003. Thereafter, the term of office 80720
shall be for three years, ending on the thirty-first day of 80721
December of the third year.80722

       (D) Each member shall hold office from the date of 80723
appointment until the end of the term for which the member was 80724
appointed. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior 80725
to the expiration of the term for which the member's predecessor 80726
was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of such term. 80727
Any member shall continue in office subsequent to the expiration 80728
date of the member's term until the member's successor takes 80729
office, or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, whichever 80730
occurs first. A vacancy shall be filled in the same manner as the 80731
original appointment.80732

       (E) Initial appointments to the council shall be made no 80733
later than thirty days after April 16, 1993. The initial 80734
appointment of the twelfth member to the council under division 80735
(B)(7) of this section, pursuant to Am. Sub. S.B. 129 of the 124th 80736
general assembly, shall be made no later than December 31, 2002.80737

       (F) Any member is eligible for reappointment. The 80738
superintendent, after notice and opportunity for a hearing, may 80739
remove for cause any member the superintendent appoints.80740

       (G) The superintendent or the superintendent's designee shall 80741
serve as chairperson of the council. Meetings shall be held upon 80742
the call of the chairperson and as may be provided by procedures 80743
adopted by the superintendent. Seven members of the council 80744
constitute a quorum.80745

       (H) Each member shall receive mileage and necessary and 80746
actual expenses while engaged in the business of the council.80747

       Sec. 3905.862.  Upon the expiration or cancellation of a 80748
surety bail bond agent's appointment, the agent shall not engage 80749
or attempt to engage in any activity requiring such an 80750
appointment. However, an insurer that cancels the appointment of a 80751
surety bail bond agent may authorize the agent to continue to 80752
attempt the arrest and surrender of a defendant for whom a bail 80753
bond had been written prior to the cancellation and to seek 80754
discharge of forfeitures and judgments.80755

       An insurer that cancels the appointment of a surety bail bond 80756
agent or allows that appointment to expire shall pay to the 80757
superintendent of insurance a fee pursuant to division (A)(9) of 80758
section 3905.40 of the Revised Code.80759

       Sec. 3916.06.  (A)(1) With each application for a viatical 80760
settlement, a viatical settlement provider or viatical settlement 80761
broker shall disclose at least the following to a viator no later 80762
than the time all parties sign the application for the viatical 80763
settlement contract:80764

       (a) That there are possible alternatives to viatical 80765
settlement contracts, including any accelerated death benefits 80766
offered under the viator's policy;80767

       (b) That some or all of the proceeds of the viatical 80768
settlement may be subject to federal income taxation and state 80769
franchise and income taxation, and that assistance should be 80770
sought from a professional tax advisor;80771

       (c) That the proceeds of the viatical settlement could be 80772
subject to the claims of creditors;80773

       (d) That receipt of the proceeds of the viatical settlement 80774
may adversely affect the viator's eligibility for medical 80775
assistance under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Codethe medicaid 80776
program or other government benefits or entitlements, and that 80777
advice should be obtained from the appropriate government 80778
agencies;80779

       (e) That the viator has a right to rescind the viatical 80780
settlement contract for at least fifteen calendar days after the 80781
viator receives the viatical settlement proceeds, as provided in 80782
section 3916.08 of the Revised Code. If the insured dies during 80783
the rescission period, the viatical settlement contract shall be 80784
deemed to have been rescinded, subject to repayment of all 80785
viatical settlement proceeds to the viatical settlement company.80786

       (f) That funds will be sent to the viator within three 80787
business days after the viatical settlement provider has received 80788
written acknowledgment from the insurer or group administrator 80789
that ownership of the policy or interest in the certificate has 80790
been transferred and that the beneficiary has been designated 80791
pursuant to the viatical settlement contract;80792

       (g) That entering into a viatical settlement contract may 80793
cause other rights or benefits, including conversion rights and 80794
waiver of premium benefits that may exist under the policy, to be 80795
forfeited by the viator and that assistance should be sought from 80796
a financial advisor.80797

       (h) That following execution of the viatical settlement 80798
contract, the viatical settlement provider or the authorized 80799
representative of the viatical settlement provider may contact the 80800
insured for the purpose of determining the insured's health status 80801
and to confirm the insured's residential or business address and 80802
telephone number or for other purposes permitted by law. Any such 80803
contact shall be limited to once in any three-month period if the 80804
insured has a life expectancy of more than one year or to once per 80805
month if the insured has a life expectancy of one year or less.80806

       (2) The viatical settlement provider or viatical settlement 80807
broker shall provide the disclosures under division (A)(1) of this 80808
section in a separate document that is signed by the viator and 80809
the viatical settlement provider or viatical settlement broker.80810

       (3) Disclosure to a viator under division (A)(1) of this 80811
section shall include distribution of a brochure describing the 80812
process of viatical settlements. The viatical settlement provider 80813
or viatical settlement broker shall use the NAIC's form for the 80814
brochure unless another form is developed or approved by the 80815
superintendent.80816

       (4) The disclosure document under division (A)(1) of this 80817
section shall contain the following language:80818

       "All medical, financial, or personal information solicited or 80819
obtained by a viatical settlement provider or viatical settlement 80820
broker about an insured, including the insured's identity or the 80821
identity of family members, a spouse, or a significant other may 80822
be disclosed as necessary to effect the viatical settlement 80823
between the viator and the viatical settlement provider. If you 80824
are asked to provide this information, you will be asked to 80825
consent to the disclosure. The information may be provided to 80826
someone who buys the policy or provides funds for the purchase. 80827
You may be asked to renew your permission to share information 80828
every two years."80829

       (B)(1) A viatical settlement provider shall disclose at least 80830
the following to a viator prior to the date the viatical 80831
settlement contract is signed by all the necessary parties:80832

       (a) The affiliation, if any, between the viatical settlement 80833
provider and the issuer of the policy to be viaticated;80834

       (b) The name, business address, and telephone number of the 80835
viatical settlement provider;80836

       (c) Regarding a viatical settlement broker, the amount and 80837
method of calculating the broker's compensation. As used in this 80838
division, "compensation" includes anything of value paid or given 80839
to a viatical settlement broker for the placement of a policy or 80840
certificate.80841

       (d) Any affiliations or contractual arrangements between the 80842
viatical settlement provider and the viatical settlement broker;80843

       (e) If a policy to be viaticated has been issued as a joint 80844
policy or involves family riders or any coverage of a life other 80845
than the insured under the policy to be viaticated, the possible 80846
loss of coverage on the other lives under the policy and that 80847
advice should be sought from the viator's insurance agent or the 80848
company issuing the policy;80849

       (f) The dollar amount of the current death benefit payable to 80850
the viatical settlement provider under the policy, and, if known, 80851
the availability of any additional guaranteed insurance benefits, 80852
the dollar amount of any accidental death and dismemberment 80853
benefits under the policy, and the extent to which the viator's 80854
interest in those benefits will be transferred as a result of the 80855
viatical settlement contract.80856

        (g) That an escrow agent shall provide escrow services to the 80857
parties pursuant to a written agreement, signed by the viatical 80858
settlement provider, the viatical settlement broker, and the 80859
viator. At the close of escrow, the escrow agent will distribute 80860
the proceeds of the sale to the viator, minus any compensation to 80861
be paid to any other persons who provided services and to whom the 80862
viator has agreed to compensate out of the gross amount offered by 80863
the viatical settlement purchaser. All persons receiving any form 80864
of compensation under the escrow agreement shall be clearly 80865
identified, including name, business address, telephone number, 80866
and tax identification number.80867

       (2) The viatical settlement broker shall disclose at least 80868
the following to a viator prior to the execution of the viatical 80869
settlement contract:80870

       (a) The name, business address, and telephone number of the 80871
viatical settlement broker;80872

       (b) A full, complete, and accurate description of all offers, 80873
counteroffers, acceptances, and rejections relating to the 80874
proposed viatical settlement contract;80875

       (c) Any affiliations or contractual agreements between the 80876
viatical settlement broker and any person making an offer in 80877
connection with the proposed viatical settlement contract;80878

       (d) The amount and method of calculating the viatical 80879
settlement broker's compensation and, if any portion of the 80880
viatical settlement broker's compensation is taken from the 80881
viatical settlement offer, the total amount of the viatical 80882
settlement offer and the viatical settlement broker's compensation 80883
as a percentage of that total. As used in this division, 80884
"compensation" includes anything of value paid or given to a 80885
viatical settlement broker related to the settlement of a policy.80886

       (3) The viatical settlement provider or viatical settlement 80887
broker shall conspicuously display the disclosures required under 80888
divisions (B)(1) and (2) of this section in the viatical 80889
settlement contract or in a separate document signed by the viator 80890
and the viatical settlement provider or viatical settlement 80891
broker, as appropriate.80892

       (C) If the viatical settlement provider transfers ownership 80893
or changes the beneficiary of the policy, the viatical settlement 80894
provider shall communicate in writing the change in ownership or 80895
beneficiary to the insured within twenty days after the change.80896

       Sec. 3923.24.  (A) Notwithstanding section 3901.71 of the 80897
Revised Code, every certificate furnished by an insurer in 80898
connection with, or pursuant to any provision of, any group 80899
sickness and accident insurance policy delivered, issued for 80900
delivery, renewed, or used in this state on or after January 1, 80901
1972, every policy of sickness and accident insurance delivered, 80902
issued for delivery, renewed, or used in this state on or after 80903
January 1, 1972, and every multiple employer welfare arrangement 80904
offering an insurance program, which provides that coverage of an 80905
unmarried dependent child of a parent or legal guardian will 80906
terminate upon attainment of the limiting age for dependent 80907
children specified in the contract shall also provide in substance 80908
both of the following:80909

        (1) Once an unmarried child has attained the limiting age for 80910
dependent children, as provided in the policy, upon the request of 80911
the insured, the insurer shall offer to cover the unmarried child 80912
until the child attains twenty-eight years of age if all of the 80913
following are true:80914

        (a) The child is the natural child, stepchild, or adopted 80915
child of the insured.80916

       (b) The child is a resident of this state or a full-time 80917
student at an accredited public or private institution of higher 80918
education.80919

        (c) The child is not employed by an employer that offers any 80920
health benefit plan under which the child is eligible for 80921
coverage.80922

       (d) The child is not eligible for coverage under the medicaid 80923
program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code or the 80924
medicare program established under Title XVIII of the "Social 80925
Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1395.80926

        (2) That attainment of the limiting age for dependent 80927
children shall not operate to terminate the coverage of a 80928
dependent child if the child is and continues to be both of the 80929
following:80930

       (a) Incapable of self-sustaining employment by reason of 80931
mental retardation or physical handicap;80932

       (b) Primarily dependent upon the policyholder or certificate 80933
holder for support and maintenance.80934

       (B) Proof of such incapacity and dependence for purposes of 80935
division (A)(2) of this section shall be furnished by the 80936
policyholder or by the certificate holder to the insurer within 80937
thirty-one days of the child's attainment of the limiting age. 80938
Upon request, but not more frequently than annually after the 80939
two-year period following the child's attainment of the limiting 80940
age, the insurer may require proof satisfactory to it of the 80941
continuance of such incapacity and dependency.80942

       (C) Nothing in this section shall require an insurer to cover 80943
a dependent child who is mentally retarded or physically 80944
handicapped if the contract is underwritten on evidence of 80945
insurability based on health factors set forth in the application, 80946
or if such dependent child does not satisfy the conditions of the 80947
contract as to any requirement for evidence of insurability or 80948
other provision of the contract, satisfaction of which is required 80949
for coverage thereunder to take effect. In any such case, the 80950
terms of the contract shall apply with regard to the coverage or 80951
exclusion of the dependent from such coverage. Nothing in this 80952
section shall apply to accidental death or dismemberment benefits 80953
provided by any such policy of sickness and accident insurance.80954

       (D) Nothing in this section shall do any of the following:80955

       (1) Require that any policy offer coverage for dependent 80956
children or provide coverage for an unmarried dependent child's 80957
children as dependents on the policy;80958

       (2) Require an employer to pay for any part of the premium 80959
for an unmarried dependent child that has attained the limiting 80960
age for dependents, as provided in the policy;80961

       (3) Require an employer to offer health insurance coverage to 80962
the dependents of any employee.80963

        (E) This section does not apply to any policies or 80964
certificates covering only accident, credit, dental, disability 80965
income, long-term care, hospital indemnity, medicare supplement, 80966
specified disease, or vision care; coverage under a 80967
one-time-limited-duration policy of not longer than six months; 80968
coverage issued as a supplement to liability insurance; insurance 80969
arising out of a workers' compensation or similar law; automobile 80970
medical-payment insurance; or insurance under which benefits are 80971
payable with or without regard to fault and that is statutorily 80972
required to be contained in any liability insurance policy or 80973
equivalent self-insurance.80974

       (F) As used in this section, "health benefit plan" has the 80975
same meaning as in section 3924.01 of the Revised Code and also 80976
includes both of the following:80977

        (1) A public employee benefit plan;80978

        (2) A health benefit plan as regulated under the "Employee 80979
Retirement Income Security Act of 1974," 29 U.S.C. 1001, et seq.80980

       Sec. 3923.241. (A) Notwithstanding section 3901.71 of the 80981
Revised Code, any public employee benefit plan that provides that 80982
coverage of an unmarried dependent child will terminate upon 80983
attainment of the limiting age for dependent children specified in 80984
the plan shall also provide in substance both of the following:80985

        (1) Once an unmarried child has attained the limiting age for 80986
dependent children, as provided in the plan, upon the request of 80987
the employee, the public employee benefit plan shall offer to 80988
cover the unmarried child until the child attains twenty-eight 80989
years of age if all of the following are true:80990

        (a) The child is the natural child, stepchild, or adopted 80991
child of the employee.80992

       (b) The child is a resident of this state or a full-time 80993
student at an accredited public or private institution of higher 80994
education.80995

        (c) The child is not employed by an employer that offers any 80996
health benefit plan under which the child is eligible for 80997
coverage.80998

       (d) The child is not eligible for coverage under the medicaid 80999
program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code or the 81000
medicare program established under Title XVIII of the "Social 81001
Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1395.81002

       (2) That attainment of the limiting age for dependent 81003
children shall not operate to terminate the coverage of a 81004
dependent child if the child is and continues to be both of the 81005
following:81006

       (a) Incapable of self-sustaining employment by reason of 81007
mental retardation or physical handicap;81008

       (b) Primarily dependent upon the plan member for support and 81009
maintenance.81010

       (B) Proof of incapacity and dependence for purposes of 81011
division (A)(2) of this section shall be furnished to the public 81012
employee benefit plan within thirty-one days of the child's 81013
attainment of the limiting age. Upon request, but not more 81014
frequently than annually, the public employee benefit plan may 81015
require proof satisfactory to it of the continuance of such 81016
incapacity and dependency.81017

       (C) Nothing in this section shall do any of the following:81018

       (1) Require that any public employee benefit plan offer 81019
coverage for dependent children or provide coverage for an 81020
unmarried dependent child's children as dependents on the public 81021
employee benefit plan;81022

       (2) Require an employer to pay for any part of the premium 81023
for an unmarried dependent child that has attained the limiting 81024
age for dependents, as provided in the plan;81025

       (3) Require an employer to offer health insurance coverage to 81026
the dependents of any employee.81027

       (D) This section does not apply to any public employee 81028
benefit plan covering only accident, credit, dental, disability 81029
income, long-term care, hospital indemnity, medicare supplement, 81030
specified disease, or vision care; coverage under a 81031
one-time-limited-duration policy of not longer than six months; 81032
coverage issued as a supplement to liability insurance; insurance 81033
arising out of a workers' compensation or similar law; automobile 81034
medical-payment insurance; or insurance under which benefits are 81035
payable with or without regard to fault and which is statutorily 81036
required to be contained in any liability insurance policy or 81037
equivalent self-insurance.81038

       (E) As used in this section, "health benefit plan" has the 81039
same meaning as in section 3924.01 of the Revised Code and also 81040
includes both of the following:81041

        (1) A public employee benefit plan;81042

        (2) A health benefit plan as regulated under the "Employee 81043
Retirement Income Security Act of 1974," 29 U.S.C. 1001, et seq.81044

       Sec. 3923.281.  (A) As used in this section:81045

       (1) "Biologically based mental illness" means schizophrenia, 81046
schizoaffective disorder, major depressive disorder, bipolar 81047
disorder, paranoia and other psychotic disorders, 81048
obsessive-compulsive disorder, and panic disorder, as these terms 81049
are defined in the most recent edition of the diagnostic and 81050
statistical manual of mental disorders published by the American 81051
psychiatric association.81052

       (2) "Policy of sickness and accident insurance" has the same 81053
meaning as in section 3923.01 of the Revised Code, but excludes 81054
any hospital indemnity, medicare supplement, long-term care, 81055
disability income, one-time-limited-duration policy of not longer 81056
than six months, supplemental benefit, or other policy that 81057
provides coverage for specific diseases or accidents only; any 81058
policy that provides coverage for workers' compensation claims 81059
compensable pursuant to Chapters 4121. and 4123. of the Revised 81060
Code; and any policy that provides coverage to beneficiaries 81061
enrolled in Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 81062
(1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, known as the medical 81063
assistance program or medicaid, as provided by the Ohio department 81064
of job and family services under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code81065
recipients.81066

       (B) Notwithstanding section 3901.71 of the Revised Code, and 81067
subject to division (E) of this section, every policy of sickness 81068
and accident insurance shall provide benefits for the diagnosis 81069
and treatment of biologically based mental illnesses on the same 81070
terms and conditions as, and shall provide benefits no less 81071
extensive than, those provided under the policy of sickness and 81072
accident insurance for the treatment and diagnosis of all other 81073
physical diseases and disorders, if both of the following apply:81074

       (1) The biologically based mental illness is clinically 81075
diagnosed by a physician authorized under Chapter 4731. of the 81076
Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic 81077
medicine and surgery; a psychologist licensed under Chapter 4732. 81078
of the Revised Code; a professional clinical counselor, 81079
professional counselor, or independent social worker licensed 81080
under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code; or a clinical nurse 81081
specialist licensed under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code whose 81082
nursing specialty is mental health.81083

       (2) The prescribed treatment is not experimental or 81084
investigational, having proven its clinical effectiveness in 81085
accordance with generally accepted medical standards.81086

       (C) Division (B) of this section applies to all coverages and 81087
terms and conditions of the policy of sickness and accident 81088
insurance, including, but not limited to, coverage of inpatient 81089
hospital services, outpatient services, and medication; maximum 81090
lifetime benefits; copayments; and individual and family 81091
deductibles.81092

       (D) Nothing in this section shall be construed as prohibiting 81093
a sickness and accident insurance company from taking any of the 81094
following actions:81095

       (1) Negotiating separately with mental health care providers 81096
with regard to reimbursement rates and the delivery of health care 81097
services;81098

       (2) Offering policies that provide benefits solely for the 81099
diagnosis and treatment of biologically based mental illnesses;81100

       (3) Managing the provision of benefits for the diagnosis or 81101
treatment of biologically based mental illnesses through the use 81102
of pre-admission screening, by requiring beneficiaries to obtain 81103
authorization prior to treatment, or through the use of any other 81104
mechanism designed to limit coverage to that treatment determined 81105
to be necessary;81106

       (4) Enforcing the terms and conditions of a policy of 81107
sickness and accident insurance.81108

       (E) An insurer that offers any policy of sickness and 81109
accident insurance is not required to provide benefits for the 81110
diagnosis and treatment of biologically based mental illnesses 81111
pursuant to division (B) of this section if all of the following 81112
apply:81113

       (1) The insurer submits documentation certified by an 81114
independent member of the American academy of actuaries to the 81115
superintendent of insurance showing that incurred claims for 81116
diagnostic and treatment services for biologically based mental 81117
illnesses for a period of at least six months independently caused 81118
the insurer's costs for claims and administrative expenses for the 81119
coverage of all other physical diseases and disorders to increase 81120
by more than one per cent per year. 81121

       (2) The insurer submits a signed letter from an independent 81122
member of the American academy of actuaries to the superintendent 81123
of insurance opining that the increase described in division 81124
(E)(1) of this section could reasonably justify an increase of 81125
more than one per cent in the annual premiums or rates charged by 81126
the insurer for the coverage of all other physical diseases and 81127
disorders.81128

       (3) The superintendent of insurance makes the following 81129
determinations from the documentation and opinion submitted 81130
pursuant to divisions (E)(1) and (2) of this section:81131

       (a) Incurred claims for diagnostic and treatment services for 81132
biologically based mental illnesses for a period of at least six 81133
months independently caused the insurer's costs for claims and 81134
administrative expenses for the coverage of all other physical 81135
diseases and disorders to increase by more than one per cent per 81136
year.81137

       (b) The increase in costs reasonably justifies an increase of 81138
more than one per cent in the annual premiums or rates charged by 81139
the insurer for the coverage of all other physical diseases and 81140
disorders.81141

       Any determination made by the superintendent under this 81142
division is subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.81143

       Sec. 3923.443. (A)(1) No agent shall sell, solicit, or 81144
negotiate long-term care insurance on or after September 1, 2008, 81145
without completing an initial eight-hour partnership program 81146
training course as described in division (B) of this section.81147

        (2)(a) Any agent that sells, solicits, or negotiates any 81148
long-term care insurance shall complete at least four hours of 81149
continuing education in every twenty-four-month period commencing 81150
on the first day of January of the year immediately following the 81151
year of the issuance of the agent's license.81152

       (b) No agent shall fail to complete the continuing education 81153
requirements in division (A)(2)(a) of this section in the 81154
twenty-four-month period described in that division.81155

       (B) The initial training course and continuing education 81156
required under division (A) of this section may be approved by the 81157
superintendent of insurance as continuing education courses under 81158
sections 3905.481 to 3905.486 of the Revised Code and shall 81159
consist of combined topics related to long-term care insurance, 81160
long-term care services, and state long-term care insurance 81161
partnership programs, including all of the following:81162

       (1) State and federal regulations and requirements and the 81163
relationship between state long-term care insurance partnership 81164
programs and other public and private coverage of long-term care 81165
services, including medicaid;81166

       (2) Available long-term care services and providers;81167

       (3) Changes or improvements in long-term care services or 81168
providers;81169

       (4) Alternatives to the purchase of private long-term care 81170
insurance;81171

       (5) The effect of inflation on benefits and the importance of 81172
inflation protection;81173

       (6) Consumer suitability standards and guidelines;81174

       (7) Any other topics required by the superintendent.81175

       (C) The initial training and continuing education required by 81176
division (A) of this section shall not include training that is 81177
specific to a particular insurer or company product or that 81178
includes any sales or marketing information, materials, or 81179
training other than those required by state or federal law.81180

       (D) A resident agent shall satisfy the training and 81181
continuing education required by division (A) of this section by 81182
completing long-term care courses that are approved by the 81183
superintendent. A nonresident agent may satisfy the training and 81184
continuing education required by division (A) of this section by 81185
completing the training requirements in any other state, provided 81186
that the course is approved for credit by the insurance department 81187
of that state prior to the agent taking the course.81188

       (E) Each insurer shall obtain records of the initial training 81189
and continuing education completed by agents of that insurer 81190
pursuant to division (A) of this section as well as the training 81191
completed by the insurer's agents concerning the distribution of 81192
the insurer's partnership program policies and shall make those 81193
records available to the superintendent upon request.81194

       (F) Each insurer shall maintain records with respect to the 81195
training of its agents concerning the distribution of the 81196
insurer's partnership program policies. Each insurer shall provide 81197
documentation to the superintendent that will allow the 81198
superintendent to provide assurance to the medicaid director of 81199
job and family services that agents have received the training 81200
required by this section and that agents have demonstrated an 81201
understanding of the partnership program policies and their 81202
relationship to public and private coverage of long-term care in 81203
this state, including medicaid. The superintendent may audit each 81204
insurer's records annually to verify that the insurer is 81205
maintaining the records required by this division. The 81206
superintendent shall make the records provided to the 81207
superintendent pursuant to division (E) of this section available 81208
to the director.81209

       Sec. 3923.49.  The department of insurance shall establish an 81210
outreach program to educate consumers about the following:81211

       (A) The need for long-term care insurance;81212

       (B) Mechanisms for financing long-term care;81213

       (C) The availability of long-term care insurance;81214

       (D) The resource protection provided by the Ohio long-term 81215
care insurance program under section 5111.185164.86 of the 81216
Revised Code;81217

       (E) That a consumer who purchased a long-term care insurance 81218
policy that does not meet the requirements of section 3923.50 of 81219
the Revised Code may purchase a policy that meets those 81220
requirements.81221

       The department shall develop and make available to consumers 81222
information to assist them in choosing long-term care insurance 81223
coverage.81224

       Sec. 3923.50.  For the purposes of the Ohio long-term care 81225
insurance program established under section 5111.185164.86 of the 81226
Revised Code, the department of insurance shall notify the 81227
department of job and family servicesmedicaid of all long-term 81228
care insurance policies that meet all of the following 81229
requirements:81230

       (A) Comply with sections 3923.41 to 3923.48 of the Revised 81231
Code and the rules adopted under section 3923.47 of the Revised 81232
Code;81233

       (B) Provide benefits for home and community-based services in 81234
addition to nursing home care;81235

       (C) Include case management services in its coverage of home 81236
and community-based services;81237

       (D) Provide five per cent inflation protection compounded 81238
annually;81239

       (E) Provide for the keeping of records and 81240
explanation-of-benefit reports on insurance payments that count 81241
toward resource exclusion for the medical assistancemedicaid81242
program;81243

       (F) Provide the information the medicaid director of job and 81244
family services determines is necessary to document the extent of 81245
resource exclusion and to evaluate the Ohio long-term care 81246
insurance program;81247

       (G) Comply with other requirements established in rules 81248
adopted under this section.81249

       The superintendent of insurance shall adopt rules in 81250
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing 81251
requirements under division (G) of this section that policies must 81252
meet to qualify under the Ohio long-term care insurance program. 81253
The superintendent shall consult with the departments of aging and 81254
job and family servicesmedicaid in adopting those rules.81255

       Sec. 3923.601. (A)(1) This section applies to both of the 81256
following:81257

       (a) A sickness and accident insurer that issues or requires 81258
the use of a standardized identification card or an electronic 81259
technology for submission and routing of prescription drug claims 81260
pursuant to a policy, contract, or agreement for health care 81261
services;81262

        (b) A person that a sickness and accident insurer contracts 81263
with to issue a standardized identification card or an electronic 81264
technology described in division (A)(1)(a) of this section.81265

       (2) Notwithstanding division (A)(1) of this section, this 81266
section does not apply to the issuance or required use of a 81267
standardized identification card or an electronic technology for 81268
the submission and routing of prescription drug claims in 81269
connection with any of the following:81270

       (a) Any individual or group policy of sickness and accident 81271
insurance covering only accident, credit, dental, disability 81272
income, long-term care, hospital indemnity, medicare supplement, 81273
medicare, tricare, specified disease, or vision care; coverage 81274
under a one-time-limited-duration policy of not longer than six 81275
months; coverage issued as a supplement to liability insurance; 81276
insurance arising out of workers' compensation or similar law; 81277
automobile medical payment insurance; or insurance under which 81278
benefits are payable with or without regard to fault and which is 81279
statutorily required to be contained in any liability insurance 81280
policy or equivalent self-insurance.81281

       (b) Coverage provided under the medicaid, as defined in 81282
section 5111.01 of the Revised Codeprogram.81283

       (c) Coverage provided under an employer's self-insurance plan 81284
or by any of its administrators, as defined in section 3959.01 of 81285
the Revised Code, to the extent that federal law supersedes, 81286
preempts, prohibits, or otherwise precludes the application of 81287
this section to the plan and its administrators.81288

       (B) A standardized identification card or an electronic 81289
technology issued or required to be used as provided in division 81290
(A)(1) of this section shall contain uniform prescription drug 81291
information in accordance with either division (B)(1) or (2) of 81292
this section.81293

        (1) The standardized identification card or the electronic 81294
technology shall be in a format and contain information fields 81295
approved by the national council for prescription drug programs or 81296
a successor organization, as specified in the council's or 81297
successor organization's pharmacy identification card 81298
implementation guide in effect on the first day of October most 81299
immediately preceding the issuance or required use of the 81300
standardized identification card or the electronic technology.81301

        (2) If the insurer or person under contract with the insurer 81302
to issue a standardized identification card or an electronic 81303
technology requires the information for the submission and routing 81304
of a claim, the standardized identification card or the electronic 81305
technology shall contain any of the following information:81306

        (a) The insurer's name;81307

        (b) The insured's name, group number, and identification 81308
number;81309

       (c) A telephone number to inquire about pharmacy-related 81310
issues;81311

        (d) The issuer's international identification number, labeled 81312
as "ANSI BIN" or "RxBIN";81313

        (e) The processor's control number, labeled as "RxPCN";81314

        (f) The insured's pharmacy benefits group number if different 81315
from the insured's medical group number, labeled as "RxGrp."81316

        (C) If the standardized identification card or the electronic 81317
technology issued or required to be used as provided in division 81318
(A)(1) of this section is also used for submission and routing of 81319
nonpharmacy claims, the designation "Rx" is required to be 81320
included as part of the labels identified in divisions (B)(2)(d) 81321
and (e) of this section if the issuer's international 81322
identification number or the processor's control number is 81323
different for medical and pharmacy claims.81324

        (D) Each sickness and accident insurer described in division 81325
(A) of this section shall annually file a certificate with the 81326
superintendent of insurance certifying that it or any person it 81327
contracts with to issue a standardized identification card or 81328
electronic technology for submission and routing of prescription 81329
drug claims complies with this section.81330

       (E)(1) Except as provided in division (E)(2) of this section, 81331
if there is a change in the information contained in the 81332
standardized identification card or the electronic technology 81333
issued to an insured, the insurer or person under contract with 81334
the insurer to issue a standardized identification card or an 81335
electronic technology shall issue a new card or electronic 81336
technology to the insured.81337

        (2) An insurer or person under contract with the insurer is 81338
not required under division (E)(1) of this section to issue a new 81339
card or electronic technology to an insured more than once during 81340
a twelve-month period.81341

        (F) Nothing in this section shall be construed as requiring 81342
an insurer to produce more than one standardized identification 81343
card or one electronic technology for use by insureds accessing 81344
health care benefits provided under a policy of sickness and 81345
accident insurance.81346

       Sec. 3923.83. (A)(1) This section applies to both of the 81347
following:81348

       (a) A public employee benefit plan that issues or requires 81349
the use of a standardized identification card or an electronic 81350
technology for submission and routing of prescription drug claims 81351
pursuant to a policy, contract, or agreement for health care 81352
services;81353

        (b) A person or entity that a public employee benefit plan 81354
contracts with to issue a standardized identification card or an 81355
electronic technology described in division (A)(1)(a) of this 81356
section.81357

       (2) Notwithstanding division (A)(1) of this section, this 81358
section does not apply to the issuance or required use of a 81359
standardized identification card or an electronic technology for 81360
the submission and routing of prescription drug claims in 81361
connection with either of the following:81362

       (a) Any individual or group policy of insurance covering only 81363
accident, credit, dental, disability income, long-term care, 81364
hospital indemnity, medicare supplement, medicare, tricare, 81365
specified disease, or vision care; coverage under a 81366
one-time-limited-duration policy of not longer than six months; 81367
coverage issued as a supplement to liability insurance; insurance 81368
arising out of workers' compensation or similar law; automobile 81369
medical payment insurance; or insurance under which benefits are 81370
payable with or without regard to fault and which is statutorily 81371
required to be contained in any liability insurance policy or 81372
equivalent self-insurance.81373

       (b) Coverage provided under the medicaid, as defined in 81374
section 5111.01 of the Revised Codeprogram.81375

       (B) A standardized identification card or an electronic 81376
technology issued or required to be used as provided in division 81377
(A)(1) of this section shall contain uniform prescription drug 81378
information in accordance with either division (B)(1) or (2) of 81379
this section.81380

        (1) The standardized identification card or the electronic 81381
technology shall be in a format and contain information fields 81382
approved by the national council for prescription drug programs or 81383
a successor organization, as specified in the council's or 81384
successor organization's pharmacy identification card 81385
implementation guide in effect on the first day of October most 81386
immediately preceding the issuance or required use of the 81387
standardized identification card or the electronic technology.81388

        (2) If the public employee benefit plan or person under 81389
contract with the plan to issue a standardized identification card 81390
or an electronic technology requires the information for the 81391
submission and routing of a claim, the standardized identification 81392
card or the electronic technology shall contain any of the 81393
following information:81394

        (a) The plan's name;81395

        (b) The insured's name, group number, and identification 81396
number;81397

       (c) A telephone number to inquire about pharmacy-related 81398
issues;81399

        (d) The issuer's international identification number, labeled 81400
as "ANSI BIN" or "RxBIN";81401

        (e) The processor's control number, labeled as "RxPCN";81402

        (f) The insured's pharmacy benefits group number if different 81403
from the insured's medical group number, labeled as "RxGrp."81404

        (C) If the standardized identification card or the electronic 81405
technology issued or required to be used as provided in division 81406
(A)(1) of this section is also used for submission and routing of 81407
nonpharmacy claims, the designation "Rx" is required to be 81408
included as part of the labels identified in divisions (B)(2)(d) 81409
and (e) of this section if the issuer's international 81410
identification number or the processor's control number is 81411
different for medical and pharmacy claims.81412

        (D)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(2) of this section, 81413
if there is a change in the information contained in the 81414
standardized identification card or the electronic technology 81415
issued to an insured, the public employee benefit plan or person 81416
under contract with the plan to issue a standardized 81417
identification card or electronic technology shall issue a new 81418
card or electronic technology to the insured. 81419

       (2) A public employee benefit plan or person under contract 81420
with the plan is not required under division (D)(1) of this 81421
section to issue a new card or electronic technology to an insured 81422
more than once during a twelve-month period.81423

       (F)(E) Nothing in this section shall be construed as 81424
requiring a public employee benefit plan to produce more than one 81425
standardized identification card or one electronic technology for 81426
use by insureds accessing health care benefits provided under a 81427
health benefit plan.81428

       Sec. 3924.41.  (A) As used in sections 3924.41 and 3924.42 of 81429
the Revised Code, "health insurer" means any sickness and accident 81430
insurer or health insuring corporation. "Health insurer" also 81431
includes any group health plan as defined in section 607 of the 81432
federal "Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974," 88 81433
Stat. 832, 29 U.S.C.A. 1167.81434

       (B) Notwithstanding any other provision of the Revised Code, 81435
no health insurer shall take into consideration the availability 81436
of, or eligibility for, medical assistancethe medicaid program in 81437
this state under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code or in any other 81438
state pursuant to Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 81439
620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, when determining an 81440
individual's eligibility for coverage or when making payments to 81441
or on behalf of an enrollee, subscriber, policyholder, or 81442
certificate holder.81443

       Sec. 3924.42.  No health insurer shall impose requirements on 81444
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid, when it has 81445
been assigned the rights of an individual who is eligible for 81446
medical assistance under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code81447
medicaid and who is covered under a health care policy, contract, 81448
or plan issued by the health insurer, that are different from the 81449
requirements applicable to an agent or assignee of any other 81450
individual so covered.81451

       Sec. 3963.01. As used in this chapter:81452

       (A) "Affiliate" means any person or entity that has ownership 81453
or control of a contracting entity, is owned or controlled by a 81454
contracting entity, or is under common ownership or control with a 81455
contracting entity.81456

       (B) "Basic health care services" has the same meaning as in 81457
division (A) of section 1751.01 of the Revised Code, except that 81458
it does not include any services listed in that division that are 81459
provided by a pharmacist or nursing home.81460

       (C) "Contracting entity" means any person that has a primary 81461
business purpose of contracting with participating providers for 81462
the delivery of health care services.81463

       (D) "Credentialing" means the process of assessing and 81464
validating the qualifications of a provider applying to be 81465
approved by a contracting entity to provide basic health care 81466
services, specialty health care services, or supplemental health 81467
care services to enrollees.81468

       (E) "Edit" means adjusting one or more procedure codes billed 81469
by a participating provider on a claim for payment or a practice 81470
that results in any of the following:81471

       (1) Payment for some, but not all of the procedure codes 81472
originally billed by a participating provider;81473

       (2) Payment for a different procedure code than the procedure 81474
code originally billed by a participating provider;81475

       (3) A reduced payment as a result of services provided to an 81476
enrollee that are claimed under more than one procedure code on 81477
the same service date.81478

       (F) "Electronic claims transport" means to accept and 81479
digitize claims or to accept claims already digitized, to place 81480
those claims into a format that complies with the electronic 81481
transaction standards issued by the United States department of 81482
health and human services pursuant to the "Health Insurance 81483
Portability and Accountability Act of 1996," 110 Stat. 1955, 42 81484
U.S.C. 1320d, et seq., as those electronic standards are 81485
applicable to the parties and as those electronic standards are 81486
updated from time to time, and to electronically transmit those 81487
claims to the appropriate contracting entity, payer, or 81488
third-party administrator.81489

       (G) "Enrollee" means any person eligible for health care 81490
benefits under a health benefit plan, including an eligible 81491
recipient of medicaid under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code, and 81492
includes all of the following terms:81493

       (1) "Enrollee" and "subscriber" as defined by section 1751.01 81494
of the Revised Code;81495

       (2) "Member" as defined by section 1739.01 of the Revised 81496
Code;81497

       (3) "Insured" and "plan member" pursuant to Chapter 3923. of 81498
the Revised Code;81499

       (4) "Beneficiary" as defined by section 3901.38 of the 81500
Revised Code.81501

       (H) "Health care contract" means a contract entered into, 81502
materially amended, or renewed between a contracting entity and a 81503
participating provider for the delivery of basic health care 81504
services, specialty health care services, or supplemental health 81505
care services to enrollees.81506

       (I) "Health care services" means basic health care services, 81507
specialty health care services, and supplemental health care 81508
services.81509

       (J) "Material amendment" means an amendment to a health care 81510
contract that decreases the participating provider's payment or 81511
compensation, changes the administrative procedures in a way that 81512
may reasonably be expected to significantly increase the 81513
provider's administrative expenses, or adds a new product. A 81514
material amendment does not include any of the following:81515

       (1) A decrease in payment or compensation resulting solely 81516
from a change in a published fee schedule upon which the payment 81517
or compensation is based and the date of applicability is clearly 81518
identified in the contract;81519

       (2) A decrease in payment or compensation that was 81520
anticipated under the terms of the contract, if the amount and 81521
date of applicability of the decrease is clearly identified in the 81522
contract;81523

       (3) An administrative change that may significantly increase 81524
the provider's administrative expense, the specific applicability 81525
of which is clearly identified in the contract;81526

       (4) Changes to an existing prior authorization, 81527
precertification, notification, or referral program that do not 81528
substantially increase the provider's administrative expense;81529

       (5) Changes to an edit program or to specific edits if the 81530
participating provider is provided notice of the changes pursuant 81531
to division (A)(1) of section 3963.04 of the Revised Code and the 81532
notice includes information sufficient for the provider to 81533
determine the effect of the change;81534

       (6) Changes to a health care contract described in division 81535
(B) of section 3963.04 of the Revised Code.81536

       (K) "Participating provider" means a provider that has a 81537
health care contract with a contracting entity and is entitled to 81538
reimbursement for health care services rendered to an enrollee 81539
under the health care contract.81540

       (L) "Payer" means any person that assumes the financial risk 81541
for the payment of claims under a health care contract or the 81542
reimbursement for health care services provided to enrollees by 81543
participating providers pursuant to a health care contract.81544

       (M) "Primary enrollee" means a person who is responsible for 81545
making payments for participation in a health care plan or an 81546
enrollee whose employment or other status is the basis of 81547
eligibility for enrollment in a health care plan.81548

       (N) "Procedure codes" includes the American medical 81549
association's current procedural terminology code, the American 81550
dental association's current dental terminology, and the centers 81551
for medicare and medicaid services health care common procedure 81552
coding system.81553

       (O) "Product" means one of the following types of categories 81554
of coverage for which a participating provider may be obligated to 81555
provide health care services pursuant to a health care contract:81556

       (1) A health maintenance organization or other product 81557
provided by a health insuring corporation;81558

       (2) A preferred provider organization;81559

       (3) Medicare;81560

       (4) Medicaid;81561

       (5) Workers' compensation.81562

       (P) "Provider" means a physician, podiatrist, dentist, 81563
chiropractor, optometrist, psychologist, physician assistant, 81564
advanced practice registered nurse, occupational therapist, 81565
massage therapist, physical therapist, professional counselor, 81566
professional clinical counselor, hearing aid dealer, orthotist, 81567
prosthetist, home health agency, hospice care program, pediatric 81568
respite care program, or hospital, or a provider organization or 81569
physician-hospital organization that is acting exclusively as an 81570
administrator on behalf of a provider to facilitate the provider's 81571
participation in health care contracts. "Provider" does not mean a 81572
pharmacist, pharmacy, nursing home, or a provider organization or 81573
physician-hospital organization that leases the provider 81574
organization's or physician-hospital organization's network to a 81575
third party or contracts directly with employers or health and 81576
welfare funds.81577

       (Q) "Specialty health care services" has the same meaning as 81578
in section 1751.01 of the Revised Code, except that it does not 81579
include any services listed in division (B) of section 1751.01 of 81580
the Revised Code that are provided by a pharmacist or a nursing 81581
home.81582

       (R) "Supplemental health care services" has the same meaning 81583
as in division (B) of section 1751.01 of the Revised Code, except 81584
that it does not include any services listed in that division that 81585
are provided by a pharmacist or nursing home.81586

       Sec. 3963.04. (A)(1) If an amendment to a health care 81587
contract is not a material amendment, the contracting entity shall 81588
provide the participating provider notice of the amendment at 81589
least fifteen days prior to the effective date of the amendment. 81590
The contracting entity shall provide all other notices to the 81591
participating provider pursuant to the health care contract.81592

       (2) A material amendment to a health care contract shall 81593
occur only if the contracting entity provides to the participating 81594
provider the material amendment in writing and notice of the 81595
material amendment not later than ninety days prior to the 81596
effective date of the material amendment. The notice shall be 81597
conspicuously entitled "Notice of Material Amendment to Contract."81598

       (3) If within fifteen days after receiving the material 81599
amendment and notice described in division (A)(2) of this section, 81600
the participating provider objects in writing to the material 81601
amendment, and there is no resolution of the objection, either 81602
party may terminate the health care contract upon written notice 81603
of termination provided to the other party not later than sixty 81604
days prior to the effective date of the material amendment.81605

       (4) If the participating provider does not object to the 81606
material amendment in the manner described in division (A)(3) of 81607
this section, the material amendment shall be effective as 81608
specified in the notice described in division (A)(2) of this 81609
section.81610

       (B)(1) Division (A) of this section does not apply if the 81611
delay caused by compliance with that division could result in 81612
imminent harm to an enrollee, if the material amendment of a 81613
health care contract is required by state or federal law, rule, or 81614
regulation, or if the provider affirmatively accepts the material 81615
amendment in writing and agrees to an earlier effective date than 81616
otherwise required by division (A)(2) of this section.81617

       (2) This section does not apply under any of the following 81618
circumstances:81619

       (a) The participating provider's payment or compensation is 81620
based on the current medicaid or medicare physician fee schedule, 81621
and the change in payment or compensation results solely from a 81622
change in that physician fee schedule.81623

       (b) A routine change or update of the health care contract is 81624
made in response to any addition, deletion, or revision of any 81625
service code, procedure code, or reporting code, or a pricing 81626
change is made by any third party source.81627

        For purposes of division (B)(2)(b) of this section:81628

        (i) "Service code, procedure code, or reporting code" means 81629
the current procedural terminology (CPT), current dental 81630
terminology (CDT), the healthcare common procedure coding system 81631
(HCPCS), the international classification of diseases (ICD), or 81632
the drug topics redbook average wholesale price (AWP).81633

        (ii) "Third party source" means the American medical 81634
association, American dental association, the centers for medicare 81635
and medicaid services, the national center for health statistics, 81636
the department of health and human services office of the 81637
inspector general, the Ohio department of insurance, or the Ohio 81638
department of job and family servicesmedicaid.81639

       (C) Notwithstanding divisions (A) and (B) of this section, a 81640
health care contract may be amended by operation of law as 81641
required by any applicable state or federal law, rule, or 81642
regulation. Nothing in this section shall be construed to require 81643
the renegotiation of a health care contract that is in existence 81644
before the effective date of this sectionJune 25, 2008, until the 81645
time that the contract is renewed or materially amended.81646

       Sec. 4104.33. There is hereby created the historical boilers 81647
licensing board consisting of seven members, three of whom shall 81648
be appointed by the governor with the advice and consent of the 81649
senate. The governor shall make initial appointments to the board 81650
within ninety days after October 24, 2002. Of the initial members 81651
appointed by the governor, one shall be for a term ending three 81652
years after October 24, 2002, one shall be for a term ending four 81653
years after October 24, 2002, and one shall be for a term ending 81654
five years after October 24, 2002. Thereafter, terms of office 81655
shall be for five years, each term ending on the same day of the 81656
same month of the year as did the term that it succeeds. Of the 81657
three members the governor appoints, one member shall be an 81658
employee of the division of boiler inspection in the department of 81659
commerce; one member shall be an independent mechanical engineer 81660
who is not involved in selling or inspecting historical boilers; 81661
and one shall be an active member of an association that 81662
represents managers of fairs or festivals.81663

       Two members of the board shall be appointed by the president 81664
of the senate and two members of the board shall be appointed by 81665
the speaker of the house of representatives. The president and 81666
speaker shall make initial appointments to the board within ninety 81667
days after October 24, 2002. Of the initial members appointed by 81668
the president, one shall be for a term ending four years after 81669
October 24, 2002 and one shall be for a term ending five years 81670
after October 24, 2002. Of the initial members appointed by the 81671
speaker, one shall be for a term ending three years after October 81672
24, 2002 and one shall be for a term ending five years after 81673
October 24, 2002. Thereafter, terms of office shall be for five 81674
years, each term ending on the same day of the same month of the 81675
year as did the term that it succeeds. Of the four members 81676
appointed by the president and speaker, each shall own a 81677
historical boiler and also have at least ten years of experience 81678
in the operation of historical boilers, and each of these four 81679
members shall reside in a different region of the state.81680

       Each member shall hold office from the date of the member's 81681
appointment until the end of the term for which the member was 81682
appointed. Members may be reappointed. Vacancies shall be filled 81683
in the manner provided for initial appointmentsby the director of 81684
commerce, and shall not require the advice and consent of the 81685
senate. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to 81686
the expiration date of the term for which the member's predecessor 81687
was appointed shall hold office as a member for the remainder of 81688
that term. A member shall continue in office subsequent to the 81689
expiration date of the member's term until the successor takes 81690
office or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, whichever 81691
occurs first.81692

       The members of the board, annually, shall elect, by majority 81693
vote, a chairperson from among their members. The board shall meet 81694
at least once annually and at other times at the call of the 81695
chairperson. Board members shall receive their actual and 81696
necessary expenses incurred in the discharge of their duties as 81697
board members.81698

       The superintendent of industrial compliance shall furnish 81699
office space, staff, and supplies to the board as the 81700
superintendent determines are necessary for the board to carry out 81701
its official duties under sections 4104.33 to 4104.37 of the 81702
Revised Code.81703

       Sec. 4112.02.  It shall be an unlawful discriminatory 81704
practice:81705

       (A) For any employer, because of the race, color, religion, 81706
sex, military status, national origin, disability, age, or 81707
ancestry of any person, to discharge without just cause, to refuse 81708
to hire, or otherwise to discriminate against that person with 81709
respect to hire, tenure, terms, conditions, or privileges of 81710
employment, or any matter directly or indirectly related to 81711
employment.81712

       (B) For an employment agency or personnel placement service, 81713
because of race, color, religion, sex, military status, national 81714
origin, disability, age, or ancestry, to do any of the following:81715

       (1) Refuse or fail to accept, register, classify properly, or 81716
refer for employment, or otherwise discriminate against any 81717
person;81718

       (2) Comply with a request from an employer for referral of 81719
applicants for employment if the request directly or indirectly 81720
indicates that the employer fails to comply with the provisions of 81721
sections 4112.01 to 4112.07 of the Revised Code.81722

       (C) For any labor organization to do any of the following:81723

       (1) Limit or classify its membership on the basis of race, 81724
color, religion, sex, military status, national origin, 81725
disability, age, or ancestry;81726

       (2) Discriminate against, limit the employment opportunities 81727
of, or otherwise adversely affect the employment status, wages, 81728
hours, or employment conditions of any person as an employee 81729
because of race, color, religion, sex, military status, national 81730
origin, disability, age, or ancestry.81731

       (D) For any employer, labor organization, or joint 81732
labor-management committee controlling apprentice training 81733
programs to discriminate against any person because of race, 81734
color, religion, sex, military status, national origin, 81735
disability, or ancestry in admission to, or employment in, any 81736
program established to provide apprentice training.81737

       (E) Except where based on a bona fide occupational 81738
qualification certified in advance by the commission, for any 81739
employer, employment agency, personnel placement service, or labor 81740
organization, prior to employment or admission to membership, to 81741
do any of the following:81742

       (1) Elicit or attempt to elicit any information concerning 81743
the race, color, religion, sex, military status, national origin, 81744
disability, age, or ancestry of an applicant for employment or 81745
membership;81746

       (2) Make or keep a record of the race, color, religion, sex, 81747
military status, national origin, disability, age, or ancestry of 81748
any applicant for employment or membership;81749

       (3) Use any form of application for employment, or personnel 81750
or membership blank, seeking to elicit information regarding race, 81751
color, religion, sex, military status, national origin, 81752
disability, age, or ancestry; but an employer holding a contract 81753
containing a nondiscrimination clause with the government of the 81754
United States, or any department or agency of that government, may 81755
require an employee or applicant for employment to furnish 81756
documentary proof of United States citizenship and may retain that 81757
proof in the employer's personnel records and may use photographic 81758
or fingerprint identification for security purposes;81759

       (4) Print or publish or cause to be printed or published any 81760
notice or advertisement relating to employment or membership 81761
indicating any preference, limitation, specification, or 81762
discrimination, based upon race, color, religion, sex, military 81763
status, national origin, disability, age, or ancestry;81764

       (5) Announce or follow a policy of denying or limiting, 81765
through a quota system or otherwise, employment or membership 81766
opportunities of any group because of the race, color, religion, 81767
sex, military status, national origin, disability, age, or 81768
ancestry of that group;81769

       (6) Utilize in the recruitment or hiring of persons any 81770
employment agency, personnel placement service, training school or 81771
center, labor organization, or any other employee-referring source 81772
known to discriminate against persons because of their race, 81773
color, religion, sex, military status, national origin, 81774
disability, age, or ancestry.81775

       (F) For any person seeking employment to publish or cause to 81776
be published any advertisement that specifies or in any manner 81777
indicates that person's race, color, religion, sex, military 81778
status, national origin, disability, age, or ancestry, or 81779
expresses a limitation or preference as to the race, color, 81780
religion, sex, military status, national origin, disability, age, 81781
or ancestry of any prospective employer.81782

       (G) For any proprietor or any employee, keeper, or manager of 81783
a place of public accommodation to deny to any person, except for 81784
reasons applicable alike to all persons regardless of race, color, 81785
religion, sex, military status, national origin, disability, age, 81786
or ancestry, the full enjoyment of the accommodations, advantages, 81787
facilities, or privileges of the place of public accommodation.81788

       (H) For any person to do any of the following:81789

       (1) Refuse to sell, transfer, assign, rent, lease, sublease, 81790
or finance housing accommodations, refuse to negotiate for the 81791
sale or rental of housing accommodations, or otherwise deny or 81792
make unavailable housing accommodations because of race, color, 81793
religion, sex, military status, familial status, ancestry, 81794
disability, or national origin;81795

       (2) Represent to any person that housing accommodations are 81796
not available for inspection, sale, or rental, when in fact they 81797
are available, because of race, color, religion, sex, military 81798
status, familial status, ancestry, disability, or national origin;81799

       (3) Discriminate against any person in the making or 81800
purchasing of loans or the provision of other financial assistance 81801
for the acquisition, construction, rehabilitation, repair, or 81802
maintenance of housing accommodations, or any person in the making 81803
or purchasing of loans or the provision of other financial 81804
assistance that is secured by residential real estate, because of 81805
race, color, religion, sex, military status, familial status, 81806
ancestry, disability, or national origin or because of the racial 81807
composition of the neighborhood in which the housing 81808
accommodations are located, provided that the person, whether an 81809
individual, corporation, or association of any type, lends money 81810
as one of the principal aspects or incident to the person's 81811
principal business and not only as a part of the purchase price of 81812
an owner-occupied residence the person is selling nor merely 81813
casually or occasionally to a relative or friend;81814

       (4) Discriminate against any person in the terms or 81815
conditions of selling, transferring, assigning, renting, leasing, 81816
or subleasing any housing accommodations or in furnishing 81817
facilities, services, or privileges in connection with the 81818
ownership, occupancy, or use of any housing accommodations, 81819
including the sale of fire, extended coverage, or homeowners 81820
insurance, because of race, color, religion, sex, military status, 81821
familial status, ancestry, disability, or national origin or 81822
because of the racial composition of the neighborhood in which the 81823
housing accommodations are located;81824

       (5) Discriminate against any person in the terms or 81825
conditions of any loan of money, whether or not secured by 81826
mortgage or otherwise, for the acquisition, construction, 81827
rehabilitation, repair, or maintenance of housing accommodations 81828
because of race, color, religion, sex, military status, familial 81829
status, ancestry, disability, or national origin or because of the 81830
racial composition of the neighborhood in which the housing 81831
accommodations are located;81832

       (6) Refuse to consider without prejudice the combined income 81833
of both husband and wife for the purpose of extending mortgage 81834
credit to a married couple or either member of a married couple;81835

       (7) Print, publish, or circulate any statement or 81836
advertisement, or make or cause to be made any statement or 81837
advertisement, relating to the sale, transfer, assignment, rental, 81838
lease, sublease, or acquisition of any housing accommodations, or 81839
relating to the loan of money, whether or not secured by mortgage 81840
or otherwise, for the acquisition, construction, rehabilitation, 81841
repair, or maintenance of housing accommodations, that indicates 81842
any preference, limitation, specification, or discrimination based 81843
upon race, color, religion, sex, military status, familial status, 81844
ancestry, disability, or national origin, or an intention to make 81845
any such preference, limitation, specification, or discrimination;81846

       (8) Except as otherwise provided in division (H)(8) or (17) 81847
of this section, make any inquiry, elicit any information, make or 81848
keep any record, or use any form of application containing 81849
questions or entries concerning race, color, religion, sex, 81850
military status, familial status, ancestry, disability, or 81851
national origin in connection with the sale or lease of any 81852
housing accommodations or the loan of any money, whether or not 81853
secured by mortgage or otherwise, for the acquisition, 81854
construction, rehabilitation, repair, or maintenance of housing 81855
accommodations. Any person may make inquiries, and make and keep 81856
records, concerning race, color, religion, sex, military status, 81857
familial status, ancestry, disability, or national origin for the 81858
purpose of monitoring compliance with this chapter.81859

       (9) Include in any transfer, rental, or lease of housing 81860
accommodations any restrictive covenant, or honor or exercise, or 81861
attempt to honor or exercise, any restrictive covenant;81862

       (10) Induce or solicit, or attempt to induce or solicit, a 81863
housing accommodations listing, sale, or transaction by 81864
representing that a change has occurred or may occur with respect 81865
to the racial, religious, sexual, military status, familial 81866
status, or ethnic composition of the block, neighborhood, or other 81867
area in which the housing accommodations are located, or induce or 81868
solicit, or attempt to induce or solicit, a housing accommodations 81869
listing, sale, or transaction by representing that the presence or 81870
anticipated presence of persons of any race, color, religion, sex, 81871
military status, familial status, ancestry, disability, or 81872
national origin, in the block, neighborhood, or other area will or 81873
may have results including, but not limited to, the following:81874

       (a) The lowering of property values;81875

       (b) A change in the racial, religious, sexual, military 81876
status, familial status, or ethnic composition of the block, 81877
neighborhood, or other area;81878

       (c) An increase in criminal or antisocial behavior in the 81879
block, neighborhood, or other area;81880

       (d) A decline in the quality of the schools serving the 81881
block, neighborhood, or other area.81882

       (11) Deny any person access to or membership or participation 81883
in any multiple-listing service, real estate brokers' 81884
organization, or other service, organization, or facility relating 81885
to the business of selling or renting housing accommodations, or 81886
discriminate against any person in the terms or conditions of that 81887
access, membership, or participation, on account of race, color, 81888
religion, sex, military status, familial status, national origin, 81889
disability, or ancestry;81890

       (12) Coerce, intimidate, threaten, or interfere with any 81891
person in the exercise or enjoyment of, or on account of that 81892
person's having exercised or enjoyed or having aided or encouraged 81893
any other person in the exercise or enjoyment of, any right 81894
granted or protected by division (H) of this section;81895

       (13) Discourage or attempt to discourage the purchase by a 81896
prospective purchaser of housing accommodations, by representing 81897
that any block, neighborhood, or other area has undergone or might 81898
undergo a change with respect to its religious, racial, sexual, 81899
military status, familial status, or ethnic composition;81900

       (14) Refuse to sell, transfer, assign, rent, lease, sublease, 81901
or finance, or otherwise deny or withhold, a burial lot from any 81902
person because of the race, color, sex, military status, familial 81903
status, age, ancestry, disability, or national origin of any 81904
prospective owner or user of the lot;81905

       (15) Discriminate in the sale or rental of, or otherwise make 81906
unavailable or deny, housing accommodations to any buyer or renter 81907
because of a disability of any of the following:81908

       (a) The buyer or renter;81909

       (b) A person residing in or intending to reside in the 81910
housing accommodations after they are sold, rented, or made 81911
available;81912

       (c) Any individual associated with the person described in 81913
division (H)(15)(b) of this section.81914

       (16) Discriminate in the terms, conditions, or privileges of 81915
the sale or rental of housing accommodations to any person or in 81916
the provision of services or facilities to any person in 81917
connection with the housing accommodations because of a disability 81918
of any of the following:81919

       (a) That person;81920

       (b) A person residing in or intending to reside in the 81921
housing accommodations after they are sold, rented, or made 81922
available;81923

       (c) Any individual associated with the person described in 81924
division (H)(16)(b) of this section.81925

       (17) Except as otherwise provided in division (H)(17) of this 81926
section, make an inquiry to determine whether an applicant for the 81927
sale or rental of housing accommodations, a person residing in or 81928
intending to reside in the housing accommodations after they are 81929
sold, rented, or made available, or any individual associated with 81930
that person has a disability, or make an inquiry to determine the 81931
nature or severity of a disability of the applicant or such a 81932
person or individual. The following inquiries may be made of all 81933
applicants for the sale or rental of housing accommodations, 81934
regardless of whether they have disabilities:81935

       (a) An inquiry into an applicant's ability to meet the 81936
requirements of ownership or tenancy;81937

       (b) An inquiry to determine whether an applicant is qualified 81938
for housing accommodations available only to persons with 81939
disabilities or persons with a particular type of disability;81940

       (c) An inquiry to determine whether an applicant is qualified 81941
for a priority available to persons with disabilities or persons 81942
with a particular type of disability;81943

       (d) An inquiry to determine whether an applicant currently 81944
uses a controlled substance in violation of section 2925.11 of the 81945
Revised Code or a substantively comparable municipal ordinance;81946

       (e) An inquiry to determine whether an applicant at any time 81947
has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense, an element 81948
of which is the illegal sale, offer to sell, cultivation, 81949
manufacture, other production, shipment, transportation, delivery, 81950
or other distribution of a controlled substance.81951

       (18)(a) Refuse to permit, at the expense of a person with a 81952
disability, reasonable modifications of existing housing 81953
accommodations that are occupied or to be occupied by the person 81954
with a disability, if the modifications may be necessary to afford 81955
the person with a disability full enjoyment of the housing 81956
accommodations. This division does not preclude a landlord of 81957
housing accommodations that are rented or to be rented to a 81958
disabled tenant from conditioning permission for a proposed 81959
modification upon the disabled tenant's doing one or more of the 81960
following:81961

       (i) Providing a reasonable description of the proposed 81962
modification and reasonable assurances that the proposed 81963
modification will be made in a workerlike manner and that any 81964
required building permits will be obtained prior to the 81965
commencement of the proposed modification;81966

       (ii) Agreeing to restore at the end of the tenancy the 81967
interior of the housing accommodations to the condition they were 81968
in prior to the proposed modification, but subject to reasonable 81969
wear and tear during the period of occupancy, if it is reasonable 81970
for the landlord to condition permission for the proposed 81971
modification upon the agreement;81972

       (iii) Paying into an interest-bearing escrow account that is 81973
in the landlord's name, over a reasonable period of time, a 81974
reasonable amount of money not to exceed the projected costs at 81975
the end of the tenancy of the restoration of the interior of the 81976
housing accommodations to the condition they were in prior to the 81977
proposed modification, but subject to reasonable wear and tear 81978
during the period of occupancy, if the landlord finds the account 81979
reasonably necessary to ensure the availability of funds for the 81980
restoration work. The interest earned in connection with an escrow 81981
account described in this division shall accrue to the benefit of 81982
the disabled tenant who makes payments into the account.81983

       (b) A landlord shall not condition permission for a proposed 81984
modification upon a disabled tenant's payment of a security 81985
deposit that exceeds the customarily required security deposit of 81986
all tenants of the particular housing accommodations.81987

       (19) Refuse to make reasonable accommodations in rules, 81988
policies, practices, or services when necessary to afford a person 81989
with a disability equal opportunity to use and enjoy a dwelling 81990
unit, including associated public and common use areas;81991

       (20) Fail to comply with the standards and rules adopted 81992
under division (A) of section 3781.111 of the Revised Code;81993

       (21) Discriminate against any person in the selling, 81994
brokering, or appraising of real property because of race, color, 81995
religion, sex, military status, familial status, ancestry, 81996
disability, or national origin;81997

       (22) Fail to design and construct covered multifamily 81998
dwellings for first occupancy on or after June 30, 1992, in 81999
accordance with the following conditions:82000

       (a) The dwellings shall have at least one building entrance 82001
on an accessible route, unless it is impractical to do so because 82002
of the terrain or unusual characteristics of the site.82003

       (b) With respect to dwellings that have a building entrance 82004
on an accessible route, all of the following apply:82005

       (i) The public use areas and common use areas of the 82006
dwellings shall be readily accessible to and usable by persons 82007
with a disability.82008

       (ii) All the doors designed to allow passage into and within 82009
all premises shall be sufficiently wide to allow passage by 82010
persons with a disability who are in wheelchairs.82011

       (iii) All premises within covered multifamily dwelling units 82012
shall contain an accessible route into and through the dwelling; 82013
all light switches, electrical outlets, thermostats, and other 82014
environmental controls within such units shall be in accessible 82015
locations; the bathroom walls within such units shall contain 82016
reinforcements to allow later installation of grab bars; and the 82017
kitchens and bathrooms within such units shall be designed and 82018
constructed in a manner that enables an individual in a wheelchair 82019
to maneuver about such rooms.82020

       For purposes of division (H)(22) of this section, "covered 82021
multifamily dwellings" means buildings consisting of four or more 82022
units if such buildings have one or more elevators and ground 82023
floor units in other buildings consisting of four or more units.82024

       (I) For any person to discriminate in any manner against any 82025
other person because that person has opposed any unlawful 82026
discriminatory practice defined in this section or because that 82027
person has made a charge, testified, assisted, or participated in 82028
any manner in any investigation, proceeding, or hearing under 82029
sections 4112.01 to 4112.07 of the Revised Code.82030

       (J) For any person to aid, abet, incite, compel, or coerce 82031
the doing of any act declared by this section to be an unlawful 82032
discriminatory practice, to obstruct or prevent any person from 82033
complying with this chapter or any order issued under it, or to 82034
attempt directly or indirectly to commit any act declared by this 82035
section to be an unlawful discriminatory practice.82036

       (K)(1) Nothing in division (H) of this section shall bar any 82037
religious or denominational institution or organization, or any 82038
nonprofit charitable or educational organization that is operated, 82039
supervised, or controlled by or in connection with a religious 82040
organization, from limiting the sale, rental, or occupancy of 82041
housing accommodations that it owns or operates for other than a 82042
commercial purpose to persons of the same religion, or from giving 82043
preference in the sale, rental, or occupancy of such housing 82044
accommodations to persons of the same religion, unless membership 82045
in the religion is restricted on account of race, color, or 82046
national origin.82047

       (2) Nothing in division (H) of this section shall bar any 82048
bona fide private or fraternal organization that, incidental to 82049
its primary purpose, owns or operates lodgings for other than a 82050
commercial purpose, from limiting the rental or occupancy of the 82051
lodgings to its members or from giving preference to its members.82052

       (3) Nothing in division (H) of this section limits the 82053
applicability of any reasonable local, state, or federal 82054
restrictions regarding the maximum number of occupants permitted 82055
to occupy housing accommodations. Nothing in that division 82056
prohibits the owners or managers of housing accommodations from 82057
implementing reasonable occupancy standards based on the number 82058
and size of sleeping areas or bedrooms and the overall size of a 82059
dwelling unit, provided that the standards are not implemented to 82060
circumvent the purposes of this chapter and are formulated, 82061
implemented, and interpreted in a manner consistent with this 82062
chapter and any applicable local, state, or federal restrictions 82063
regarding the maximum number of occupants permitted to occupy 82064
housing accommodations.82065

       (4) Nothing in division (H) of this section requires that 82066
housing accommodations be made available to an individual whose 82067
tenancy would constitute a direct threat to the health or safety 82068
of other individuals or whose tenancy would result in substantial 82069
physical damage to the property of others.82070

       (5) Nothing in division (H) of this section pertaining to 82071
discrimination on the basis of familial status shall be construed 82072
to apply to any of the following:82073

       (a) Housing accommodations provided under any state or 82074
federal program that have been determined under the "Fair Housing 82075
Amendments Act of 1988," 102 Stat. 1623, 42 U.S.C.A. 3607, as 82076
amended, to be specifically designed and operated to assist 82077
elderly persons;82078

       (b) Housing accommodations intended for and solely occupied 82079
by persons who are sixty-two years of age or older;82080

       (c) Housing accommodations intended and operated for 82081
occupancy by at least one person who is fifty-five years of age or 82082
older per unit, as determined under the "Fair Housing Amendments 82083
Act of 1988," 102 Stat. 1623, 42 U.S.C.A. 3607, as amended.82084

       (L) Nothing in divisions (A) to (E) of this section shall be 82085
construed to require a person with a disability to be employed or 82086
trained under circumstances that would significantly increase the 82087
occupational hazards affecting either the person with a 82088
disability, other employees, the general public, or the facilities 82089
in which the work is to be performed, or to require the employment 82090
or training of a person with a disability in a job that requires 82091
the person with a disability routinely to undertake any task, the 82092
performance of which is substantially and inherently impaired by 82093
the person's disability.82094

       (M) Nothing in divisions (H)(1) to (18) of this section shall 82095
be construed to require any person selling or renting property to 82096
modify the property in any way or to exercise a higher degree of 82097
care for a person with a disability, to relieve any person with a 82098
disability of any obligation generally imposed on all persons 82099
regardless of disability in a written lease, rental agreement, or 82100
contract of purchase or sale, or to forbid distinctions based on 82101
the inability to fulfill the terms and conditions, including 82102
financial obligations, of the lease, agreement, or contract.82103

       (N) An aggrieved individual may enforce the individual's 82104
rights relative to discrimination on the basis of age as provided 82105
for in this section by instituting a civil action, within one 82106
hundred eighty days after the alleged unlawful discriminatory 82107
practice occurred, in any court with jurisdiction for any legal or 82108
equitable relief that will effectuate the individual's rights.82109

       A person who files a civil action under this division is 82110
barred, with respect to the practices complained of, from 82111
instituting a civil action under section 4112.14 of the Revised 82112
Code and from filing a charge with the commission under section 82113
4112.05 of the Revised Code.82114

       (O) With regard to age, it shall not be an unlawful 82115
discriminatory practice and it shall not constitute a violation of 82116
division (A) of section 4112.14 of the Revised Code for any 82117
employer, employment agency, joint labor-management committee 82118
controlling apprenticeship training programs, or labor 82119
organization to do any of the following:82120

       (1) Establish bona fide employment qualifications reasonably 82121
related to the particular business or occupation that may include 82122
standards for skill, aptitude, physical capability, intelligence, 82123
education, maturation, and experience;82124

       (2) Observe the terms of a bona fide seniority system or any 82125
bona fide employee benefit plan, including, but not limited to, a 82126
retirement, pension, or insurance plan, that is not a subterfuge 82127
to evade the purposes of this section. However, no such employee 82128
benefit plan shall excuse the failure to hire any individual, and 82129
no such seniority system or employee benefit plan shall require or 82130
permit the involuntary retirement of any individual, because of 82131
the individual's age except as provided for in the "Age 82132
Discrimination in Employment Act Amendment of 1978," 92 Stat. 189, 82133
29 U.S.C.A. 623, as amended by the "Age Discrimination in 82134
Employment Act Amendments of 1986," 100 Stat. 3342, 29 U.S.C.A. 82135
623, as amended.82136

       (3) Retire an employee who has attained sixty-five years of 82137
age who, for the two-year period immediately before retirement, is 82138
employed in a bona fide executive or a high policymaking position, 82139
if the employee is entitled to an immediate nonforfeitable annual 82140
retirement benefit from a pension, profit-sharing, savings, or 82141
deferred compensation plan, or any combination of those plans, of 82142
the employer of the employee, which equals, in the aggregate, at 82143
least forty-four thousand dollars, in accordance with the 82144
conditions of the "Age Discrimination in Employment Act Amendment 82145
of 1978," 92 Stat. 189, 29 U.S.C.A. 631, as amended by the "Age 82146
Discrimination in Employment Act Amendments of 1986," 100 Stat. 82147
3342, 29 U.S.C.A. 631, as amended;82148

       (4) Observe the terms of any bona fide apprenticeship program 82149
if the program is registered with the Ohio apprenticeship council 82150
pursuant to sections 4139.01 to 4139.06 of the Revised Code and is 82151
approved by the federal committee on apprenticeship of the United 82152
States department of labor.82153

       (P) Nothing in this chapter prohibiting age discrimination 82154
and nothing in division (A) of section 4112.14 of the Revised Code 82155
shall be construed to prohibit the following:82156

       (1) The designation of uniform age the attainment of which is 82157
necessary for public employees to receive pension or other 82158
retirement benefits pursuant to Chapter 145., 742., 3307., 3309., 82159
or 5505. of the Revised Code;82160

       (2) The mandatory retirement of uniformed patrol officers of 82161
the state highway patrol as provided in section 5505.16 of the 82162
Revised Code;82163

       (3) The maximum age requirements for appointment as a patrol 82164
officer in the state highway patrol established by section 5503.01 82165
of the Revised Code;82166

       (4) The maximum age requirements established for original 82167
appointment to a police department or fire department in sections 82168
124.41 and 124.42 of the Revised Code;82169

       (5) Any maximum age not in conflict with federal law that may 82170
be established by a municipal charter, municipal ordinance, or 82171
resolution of a board of township trustees for original 82172
appointment as a police officer or firefighter;82173

       (6) Any mandatory retirement provision not in conflict with 82174
federal law of a municipal charter, municipal ordinance, or 82175
resolution of a board of township trustees pertaining to police 82176
officers and firefighters;82177

       (7) Until January 1, 1994, the mandatory retirement of any 82178
employee who has attained seventy years of age and who is serving 82179
under a contract of unlimited tenure, or similar arrangement 82180
providing for unlimited tenure, at an institution of higher 82181
education as defined in the "Education Amendments of 1980," 94 82182
Stat. 1503, 20 U.S.C.A. 1141(a).82183

       (Q)(1)(a) Except as provided in division (Q)(1)(b) of this 82184
section, for purposes of divisions (A) to (E) of this section, a 82185
disability does not include any physiological disorder or 82186
condition, mental or psychological disorder, or disease or 82187
condition caused by an illegal use of any controlled substance by 82188
an employee, applicant, or other person, if an employer, 82189
employment agency, personnel placement service, labor 82190
organization, or joint labor-management committee acts on the 82191
basis of that illegal use.82192

       (b) Division (Q)(1)(a) of this section does not apply to an 82193
employee, applicant, or other person who satisfies any of the 82194
following:82195

       (i) The employee, applicant, or other person has successfully 82196
completed a supervised drug rehabilitation program and no longer 82197
is engaging in the illegal use of any controlled substance, or the 82198
employee, applicant, or other person otherwise successfully has 82199
been rehabilitated and no longer is engaging in that illegal use.82200

       (ii) The employee, applicant, or other person is 82201
participating in a supervised drug rehabilitation program and no 82202
longer is engaging in the illegal use of any controlled substance.82203

       (iii) The employee, applicant, or other person is erroneously 82204
regarded as engaging in the illegal use of any controlled 82205
substance, but the employee, applicant, or other person is not 82206
engaging in that illegal use.82207

       (2) Divisions (A) to (E) of this section do not prohibit an 82208
employer, employment agency, personnel placement service, labor 82209
organization, or joint labor-management committee from doing any 82210
of the following:82211

       (a) Adopting or administering reasonable policies or 82212
procedures, including, but not limited to, testing for the illegal 82213
use of any controlled substance, that are designed to ensure that 82214
an individual described in division (Q)(1)(b)(i) or (ii) of this 82215
section no longer is engaging in the illegal use of any controlled 82216
substance;82217

       (b) Prohibiting the illegal use of controlled substances and 82218
the use of alcohol at the workplace by all employees;82219

       (c) Requiring that employees not be under the influence of 82220
alcohol or not be engaged in the illegal use of any controlled 82221
substance at the workplace;82222

       (d) Requiring that employees behave in conformance with the 82223
requirements established under "The Drug-Free Workplace Act of 82224
1988," 102 Stat. 4304, 41 U.S.C.A. 701, as amended;82225

       (e) Holding an employee who engages in the illegal use of any 82226
controlled substance or who is an alcoholic to the same 82227
qualification standards for employment or job performance, and the 82228
same behavior, to which the employer, employment agency, personnel 82229
placement service, labor organization, or joint labor-management 82230
committee holds other employees, even if any unsatisfactory 82231
performance or behavior is related to an employee's illegal use of 82232
a controlled substance or alcoholism;82233

       (f) Exercising other authority recognized in the "Americans 82234
with Disabilities Act of 1990," 104 Stat. 327, 42 U.S.C.A. 12101, 82235
as amended, including, but not limited to, requiring employees to 82236
comply with any applicable federal standards.82237

       (3) For purposes of this chapter, a test to determine the 82238
illegal use of any controlled substance does not include a medical 82239
examination.82240

       (4) Division (Q) of this section does not encourage, 82241
prohibit, or authorize, and shall not be construed as encouraging, 82242
prohibiting, or authorizing, the conduct of testing for the 82243
illegal use of any controlled substance by employees, applicants, 82244
or other persons, or the making of employment decisions based on 82245
the results of that type of testing.82246

       (R) This section does not apply to a religious corporation, 82247
association, educational institution, or society with respect to 82248
the employment of an individual of a particular religion to 82249
perform work connected with the carrying on by that religious 82250
corporation, association, educational institution, or society of 82251
its activities.82252

       The unlawful discriminatory practices defined in this section 82253
do not make it unlawful for a person or an appointing authority 82254
administering an examination under section 124.23 of the Revised 82255
Code to obtain information about an applicant's military status 82256
for the purpose of determining if the applicant is eligible for 82257
the additional credit that is available under that section.82258

       Sec. 4112.12.  (A) There is hereby created the commission on 82259
African-American males, which shall consist of not more than 82260
twenty-five members as follows: the directors or their designees 82261
of the departments of health, development, alcohol and drug 82262
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services, and job 82263
and family services; the equal employment opportunity officer of 82264
the department of administrative services or the equal employment 82265
opportunity officer's designee; the executive director or the 82266
executive director's designee of the Ohio civil rights commission; 82267
the executive director or the executive director's designee of the 82268
division of criminal justice services in the department of public 82269
safety; the superintendent of public instruction; the chancellor 82270
or the chancellor's designee of the Ohio board of regents; two 82271
members of the house of representatives appointed by the speaker 82272
of the house of representatives each of whom shall be members of 82273
different political parties; and two members of the senate 82274
appointed by the president of the senate each of whom shall be 82275
members of different political parties. The members who are 82276
members of the general assembly shall be nonvoting members. The 82277
Ohio state university African American and African studies 82278
community extension center, in consultation with the governor, 82279
shall appoint four members from the private corporate sector, at 82280
least four members from the public sector, and two members from 82281
the nonprofit sector.82282

       (B) Terms of office shall be for three years, except that 82283
members of the general assembly appointed to the commission shall 82284
be members only so long as they are members of the general 82285
assembly. Each term ends on the same day of the same month as did 82286
the term that it succeeds. Each member shall hold office from the 82287
date of appointment until the end of the term for which the member 82288
was appointed. Members may be reappointed. Vacancies shall be 82289
filled in the manner provided for original appointments. Any 82290
member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the 82291
expiration date of the term for which the member's predecessor was 82292
appointed shall hold office as a member for the remainder of that 82293
term. A member shall continue in office subsequent to the 82294
expiration date of the member's term until the member's successor 82295
takes office or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, 82296
whichever occurs first.82297

       The commission annually shall elect a chairperson from among 82298
its members.82299

       (C) Members of the commission and members of subcommittees 82300
appointed under division (B) of section 4112.13 of the Revised 82301
Code shall not be compensated, but shall be reimbursed for their 82302
necessary and actual expenses incurred in the performance of their 82303
official duties.82304

       (D) The Ohio state university African American and African 82305
studies community extension center, in consultation with the 82306
governor, shall appoint an executive director of the commission on 82307
African-American males, who shall be in the unclassified civil 82308
service. The executive director shall supervise the commission's 82309
activities and report to the commission and to the Ohio state 82310
university African American and African studies community 82311
extension center on the progress of those activities. The 82312
executive director shall do all things necessary for the efficient 82313
and effective implementation of the duties of the commission.82314

       The responsibilities assigned to the executive director do 82315
not relieve the members of the commission from final 82316
responsibility for the proper performance of the requirements of 82317
this division.82318

       (E) The commission on African-American males shall do all of 82319
the following:82320

       (1) Employ, promote, supervise, and remove all employees, as 82321
needed, in connection with the performance of its duties under 82322
this section;82323

       (2) Maintain its office in Columbus;82324

       (3) Acquire facilities, equipment, and supplies necessary to 82325
house the commission, its employees, and files and records under 82326
its control, and to discharge any duty imposed upon it by law. The 82327
expense of these acquisitions shall be audited and paid for in the 82328
same manner as other state expenses.82329

       (4) Establish the overall policy and management of the 82330
commission in accordance with this chapter;82331

       (5) Follow all state procurement requirements;82332

        (6) Implement the policies and plans of the Ohio state 82333
university African American and African studies community 82334
extension center as those policies and plans are formulated and 82335
adopted by the Ohio state university African American and African 82336
studies community extension center;82337

        (7) Report to the Ohio state university African American and 82338
African studies community extension center on the progress of the 82339
commission on African-American males in implementing the policies 82340
and plans of the Ohio state university African American and 82341
African studies community extension center.82342

       (F) The commission on African-American males may:82343

       (1) Hold sessions at any place within the state, except that 82344
the commission on African-American males shall meet at least 82345
quarterly;82346

       (2) Establish, change, or abolish positions, and assign and 82347
reassign duties and responsibilities of any employee of the 82348
commission on African-American males as necessary to achieve the 82349
most efficient performance of its functions.82350

       (G) The Ohio state university African American and African 82351
studies community extension center shall establish the overall 82352
policy and management of the commission on African-American males 82353
and shall direct, manage, and oversee the commission. The Ohio 82354
state university African American and African studies community 82355
extension center shall develop overall policies and plans, and the 82356
commission on African-American males shall implement those 82357
policies and plans. The commission on African-American males, 82358
through its executive director, shall keep the Ohio state 82359
university African American and African studies community 82360
extension center informed as to the activities of the commission 82361
on African-American males in such manner and at such times as the 82362
Ohio state university African American and African studies 82363
community extension center shall determine.82364

        The Ohio state university African American and African 82365
studies community extension center may prescribe duties and 82366
responsibilities of the commission on African-American males in 82367
addition to those prescribed in section 4112.13 of the Revised 82368
Code.82369

        (H) The Ohio state university African American and African 82370
studies community extension center annually shall contract for a 82371
report on the status of African Americans in this state. Issues to 82372
be evaluated in the report shall include the criminal justice 82373
system, education, employment, health care, and housing, and such 82374
other issues as the Ohio state university African American and 82375
African studies community extension center may specify. The report 82376
shall include policy recommendations relating to the issues 82377
covered in the report.82378

       Sec. 4112.31.  The new African immigrants commission shall do 82379
all of the following:82380

       (A) Gather and disseminate information and conduct hearings, 82381
conferences, investigations, and special studies on problems and 82382
programs concerning sub-Saharan African people;82383

       (B) Secure appropriate recognition of the accomplishments and 82384
contributions of sub-Saharan African people to this state;82385

       (C) Stimulate public awareness of the problems of sub-Saharan 82386
African people by conducting a program of public education;82387

       (D) Develop, coordinate, and assist other public and private 82388
organizations that serve sub-Saharan African people, including the 82389
conducting of training programs for community leadership and 82390
service project staff;82391

       (E) Advise the governor, general assembly, and state 82392
departments and agencies of the nature, magnitude, and priorities 82393
of the problems of sub-Saharan African people;82394

       (F) Advise the governor, general assembly, and state 82395
departments and agencies on, and assist in the development and 82396
implementation of, comprehensive and coordinated policies, 82397
programs, and procedures focusing on the special problems and 82398
needs of sub-Saharan African people, especially in the fields of 82399
education, employment, energy, health, housing, welfare, and 82400
recreation;82401

       (G) Propose new programs concerning sub-Saharan African 82402
people to public and private agencies and evaluate for such 82403
agencies existing programs or prospective legislation concerning 82404
sub-Saharan African people;82405

       (H) Review and approve grants to be made from federal, state, 82406
or private funds that are administered or subcontracted by the 82407
commission;82408

       (I) Prepare, review, and approve an annual report;82409

       (J) Serve as a clearinghouse to review and comment on all 82410
proposals to meet the needs of sub-Saharan African people that are 82411
submitted to it by public and private agencies;82412

       (K) Apply for and accept grants and gifts from governmental 82413
and private sources to be administered by the commission or 82414
subcontracted to local agencies;82415

       (L) Monitor and evaluate all programs subcontracted to local 82416
agencies by the commission;82417

       (M) Endeavor to assure that sub-Saharan African people have 82418
access to decision-making bodies in all state and local 82419
governmental departments and agencies;82420

       (N) Establish advisory committees on special subjects as 82421
needed to facilitate and maximize community participation in the 82422
operation of the commission;82423

       (O) Establish with state and local governments and private 82424
business and industry relationships that promote and assure equal 82425
opportunity for sub-Saharan African people in government, 82426
education, and employment.82427

       (P) Create an interagency council consisting of the following 82428
persons or their authorized representatives: one member of the 82429
senate appointed by the president of the senate; one member of the 82430
house of representatives appointed by the speaker of the house of 82431
representatives; the directors of administrative services, 82432
agriculture, education, development services, health, highway 82433
safety, job and family services, liquor control, mental health82434
mental health and addiction services, mental retardation and 82435
developmental disabilities, natural resources, rehabilitation and 82436
correction, youth services, transportation, environmental 82437
protection, and budget and management; the chairperson of the Ohio 82438
civil rights commission, the administratorsadministrator of the 82439
bureau of workers' compensation and, the rehabilitation services 82440
commissionexecutive director of the opportunities for Ohioans 82441
with disabilities agency, and an additional member of the 82442
governor's cabinet appointed by the governor. The new African 82443
immigrants commission, by rule, may designate other state officers 82444
or their representatives to be members of the council. The 82445
director of the commission shall be the chairperson of the 82446
council.82447

       The interagency council shall provide and coordinate the 82448
exchange of information relative to the needs of sub-Saharan 82449
African people and promote the delivery of state services to such 82450
people. The council shall meet at the call of the chairperson.82451

       Advisory committees shall be composed of persons representing 82452
community organizations and charitable institutions, public 82453
officials, and such other persons as the commission determines.82454

       Sec. 4115.034.  On January 1, 1996, and the first day of 82455
January of every even-numbered year thereafter, the director of 82456
commerce shall adjust the threshold levels for which public 82457
improvement projects are subject to sections 4115.03 to 4115.16 of 82458
the Revised Code as set forth in divisions (B)(3) and (4) of 82459
section 4115.03 of the Revised Code. The director shall adjust 82460
those amounts according to the average increase or decrease for 82461
each of the two years immediately preceding the adjustment as set 82462
forth in the United States department of commerce, bureau of the 82463
census implicit price deflator forthe construction cost index 82464
published by the engineering news-record or, should that index 82465
cease to be published, a similar recognized industry index chosen 82466
by the director, provided that no increase or decrease for any 82467
year shall exceed three per cent of the threshold level in 82468
existence at the time of the adjustment.82469

       Sec. 4115.32.  (A) Subject to section 4115.36 of the Revised 82470
Code, there is hereby created the state committee for the purchase 82471
of products and services provided by persons with severe 82472
disabilities. The committee shall be composed ex officio of the 82473
following persons, or their designees:82474

       (1) The directors of administrative services, mental health82475
mental health and addiction services, developmental disabilities, 82476
transportation, natural resources, and commerce;82477

       (2) The administratorsadministrator of the rehabilitation 82478
services commission and the bureau of workers' compensation and 82479
the executive director of the opportunities for Ohioans with 82480
disabilities agency;82481

       (3) The secretary of state;82482

       (4) One representative of a purchasing department of a 82483
political subdivision who is designated by the governor.82484

       The governor shall appoint two representatives of a qualified 82485
nonprofit agency for persons with severe disabilities, and a 82486
person with a severe disability to the committee.82487

       (B) Within thirty days after September 29, 1995, the governor 82488
shall appoint the representatives of a qualified nonprofit agency 82489
for persons with severe disabilities to the committee for a term 82490
ending August 31, 1996. Thereafter, terms for such representatives 82491
are for three years, each term ending on the same day of the same 82492
month of the year as did the term that it succeeds. Each committee 82493
member shall serve from the date of the member's appointment until 82494
the end of the term for which the member was appointed. Vacancies 82495
shall be filled in the same manner provided for original 82496
appointments. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring 82497
prior to the expiration date of the term for which the member's 82498
predecessor was appointed shall serve as a member for the 82499
remainder of that term. A member shall serve subsequent to the 82500
expiration of the member's term and shall continue to serve until 82501
the member's successor takes office.82502

       (C) Members of the committee shall serve without 82503
compensation. Except as otherwise provided in divisions (C)(1) and 82504
(2) of this section, members shall be reimbursed for actual and 82505
necessary expenses, including travel expenses, incurred while away 82506
from their homes or regular places of business and incurred while 82507
performing services for the committee.82508

       (1) The members listed in divisions (A)(1) to (3) of this 82509
section, or their designees, shall not be reimbursed for any 82510
expenses.82511

       (2) No member of the committee who is entitled to receive 82512
reimbursement for the performance of services for the committee 82513
from another agency or entity shall receive reimbursement from the 82514
committee.82515

       (D) The committee shall elect from among its members a 82516
chairperson. The committee may request from any agency of the 82517
state, political subdivision, or instrumentality of the state any 82518
information necessary to enable it to carry out the intent of 82519
sections 4115.31 to 4115.35 of the Revised Code. Upon request of 82520
the committee, the agency, subdivision, or instrumentality shall 82521
furnish the information to the chairperson of the committee.82522

       (E) The committee shall not later than one hundred eighty 82523
days following the close of each fiscal year transmit to the 82524
governor, the general assembly, and each qualified nonprofit 82525
agency for persons with severe disabilities a report that includes 82526
the names of the committee members serving during the preceding 82527
fiscal year, the dates of committee meetings in that year, and any 82528
recommendations for changes in sections 4115.31 to 4115.35 of the 82529
Revised Code that the committee determines are necessary.82530

       (F) The director of administrative services shall designate a 82531
subordinate to act as executive director of the committee and 82532
shall furnish other staff and clerical assistance, office space, 82533
and supplies required by the committee.82534

       Sec. 4117.06.  (A) The state employment relations board shall 82535
decide in each case the unit appropriate for the purposes of 82536
collective bargaining. The determination is final and conclusive 82537
and not appealable to the court.82538

       (B) The board shall determine the appropriateness of each 82539
bargaining unit and shall consider among other relevant factors: 82540
the desires of the employees; the community of interest; wages, 82541
hours, and other working conditions of the public employees; the 82542
effect of over-fragmentation; the efficiency of operations of the 82543
public employer; the administrative structure of the public 82544
employer; and the history of collective bargaining.82545

       (C) The board may determine a unit to be the appropriate unit 82546
in a particular case, even though some other unit might also be 82547
appropriate.82548

       (D) In addition, in determining the appropriate unit, the 82549
board shall not:82550

       (1) Decide that any unit is appropriate if the unit includes 82551
both professional and nonprofessional employees, unless a majority 82552
of the professional employees and a majority of the 82553
nonprofessional employees first vote for inclusion in the unit;82554

       (2) Include guards or correction officers at correctional or 82555
mental institutions, special police officers appointed in 82556
accordance with sections 5119.145119.08 and 5123.13 of the 82557
Revised Code, psychiatric attendants employed at mental health 82558
forensic facilities, youth leaders employed at juvenile correction 82559
facilities, or any public employee employed as a guard to enforce 82560
against other employees rules to protect property of the employer 82561
or to protect the safety of persons on the employer's premises in 82562
a unit with other employees;82563

       (3) Include members of a police or fire department or members 82564
of the state highway patrol in a unit with other classifications 82565
of public employees of the department;82566

       (4) Designate as appropriate a bargaining unit that contains 82567
more than one institution of higher education; nor shall it within 82568
any such institution of higher education designate as appropriate 82569
a unit where such designation would be inconsistent with the 82570
accreditation standards or interpretations of such standards, 82571
governing such institution of higher education or any department, 82572
school, or college thereof. For the purposes of this division, any 82573
branch or regional campus of a public institution of higher 82574
education is part of that institution of higher education.82575

       (5) Designate as appropriate a bargaining unit that contains 82576
employees within the jurisdiction of more than one elected county 82577
office holder, unless the county-elected office holder and the 82578
board of county commissioners agree to such other designation;82579

       (6) With respect to members of a police department, designate 82580
as appropriate a unit that includes rank and file members of the 82581
department with members who are of the rank of sergeant or above;82582

       (7) Except as otherwise provided by division (A)(3) of 82583
section 3314.10 or division (B) of section 3326.18 of the Revised 82584
Code, designate as appropriate a bargaining unit that contains 82585
employees from multiple community schools established under 82586
Chapter 3314. or multiple science, technology, engineering, and 82587
mathematics schools established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised 82588
Code. For purposes of this division, more than one unit may be 82589
designated within a single community school or science, 82590
technology, engineering, and mathematics school.82591

       This section shall not be deemed to prohibit multiunit 82592
bargaining.82593

       Sec. 4117.14.  (A) The procedures contained in this section 82594
govern the settlement of disputes between an exclusive 82595
representative and a public employer concerning the termination or 82596
modification of an existing collective bargaining agreement or 82597
negotiation of a successor agreement, or the negotiation of an 82598
initial collective bargaining agreement.82599

       (B)(1) In those cases where there exists a collective 82600
bargaining agreement, any public employer or exclusive 82601
representative desiring to terminate, modify, or negotiate a 82602
successor collective bargaining agreement shall:82603

       (a) Serve written notice upon the other party of the proposed 82604
termination, modification, or successor agreement. The party must 82605
serve the notice not less than sixty days prior to the expiration 82606
date of the existing agreement or, in the event the existing 82607
collective bargaining agreement does not contain an expiration 82608
date, not less than sixty days prior to the time it is proposed to 82609
make the termination or modifications or to make effective a 82610
successor agreement.82611

       (b) Offer to bargain collectively with the other party for 82612
the purpose of modifying or terminating any existing agreement or 82613
negotiating a successor agreement;82614

       (c) Notify the state employment relations board of the offer 82615
by serving upon the board a copy of the written notice to the 82616
other party and a copy of the existing collective bargaining 82617
agreement.82618

       (2) In the case of initial negotiations between a public 82619
employer and an exclusive representative, where a collective 82620
bargaining agreement has not been in effect between the parties, 82621
any party may serve notice upon the board and the other party 82622
setting forth the names and addresses of the parties and offering 82623
to meet, for a period of ninety days, with the other party for the 82624
purpose of negotiating a collective bargaining agreement.82625

       If the settlement procedures specified in divisions (B), (C), 82626
and (D) of this section govern the parties, where those procedures 82627
refer to the expiration of a collective bargaining agreement, it 82628
means the expiration of the sixty-day period to negotiate a 82629
collective bargaining agreement referred to in this subdivision, 82630
or in the case of initial negotiations, it means the ninety-day 82631
period referred to in this subdivision.82632

       (3) The parties shall continue in full force and effect all 82633
the terms and conditions of any existing collective bargaining 82634
agreement, without resort to strike or lock-out, for a period of 82635
sixty days after the party gives notice or until the expiration 82636
date of the collective bargaining agreement, whichever occurs 82637
later, or for a period of ninety days where applicable.82638

       (4) Upon receipt of the notice, the parties shall enter into 82639
collective bargaining.82640

       (C) In the event the parties are unable to reach an 82641
agreement, they may submit, at any time prior to forty-five days 82642
before the expiration date of the collective bargaining agreement, 82643
the issues in dispute to any mutually agreed upon dispute 82644
settlement procedure which supersedes the procedures contained in 82645
this section.82646

       (1) The procedures may include:82647

       (a) Conventional arbitration of all unsettled issues;82648

       (b) Arbitration confined to a choice between the last offer 82649
of each party to the agreement as a single package;82650

       (c) Arbitration confined to a choice of the last offer of 82651
each party to the agreement on each issue submitted;82652

       (d) The procedures described in division (C)(1)(a), (b), or 82653
(c) of this section and including among the choices for the 82654
arbitrator, the recommendations of the fact finder, if there are 82655
recommendations, either as a single package or on each issue 82656
submitted;82657

       (e) Settlement by a citizens' conciliation council composed 82658
of three residents within the jurisdiction of the public employer. 82659
The public employer shall select one member and the exclusive 82660
representative shall select one member. The two members selected 82661
shall select the third member who shall chair the council. If the 82662
two members cannot agree upon a third member within five days 82663
after their appointments, the board shall appoint the third 82664
member. Once appointed, the council shall make a final settlement 82665
of the issues submitted to it pursuant to division (G) of this 82666
section.82667

       (f) Any other dispute settlement procedure mutually agreed to 82668
by the parties.82669

       (2) If, fifty days before the expiration date of the 82670
collective bargaining agreement, the parties are unable to reach 82671
an agreement, any party may request the state employment relations 82672
board to intervene. The request shall set forth the names and 82673
addresses of the parties, the issues involved, and, if applicable, 82674
the expiration date of any agreement.82675

       The board shall intervene and investigate the dispute to 82676
determine whether the parties have engaged in collective 82677
bargaining.82678

       If an impasse exists or forty-five days before the expiration 82679
date of the collective bargaining agreement if one exists, the 82680
board shall appoint a mediator to assist the parties in the 82681
collective bargaining process.82682

       (3) Any time after the appointment of a mediator, either 82683
party may request the appointment of a fact-finding panel. Within 82684
fifteen days after receipt of a request for a fact-finding panel, 82685
the board shall appoint a fact-finding panel of not more than 82686
three members who have been selected by the parties in accordance 82687
with rules established by the board, from a list of qualified 82688
persons maintained by the board.82689

       (a) The fact-finding panel shall, in accordance with rules 82690
and procedures established by the board that include the 82691
regulation of costs and expenses of fact-finding, gather facts and 82692
make recommendations for the resolution of the matter. The board 82693
shall by its rules require each party to specify in writing the 82694
unresolved issues and its position on each issue to the 82695
fact-finding panel. The fact-finding panel shall make final 82696
recommendations as to all the unresolved issues.82697

       (b) The board may continue mediation, order the parties to 82698
engage in collective bargaining until the expiration date of the 82699
agreement, or both.82700

       (4) The following guidelines apply to fact-finding:82701

       (a) The fact-finding panel may establish times and place of 82702
hearings which shall be, where feasible, in the jurisdiction of 82703
the state.82704

       (b) The fact-finding panel shall conduct the hearing pursuant 82705
to rules established by the board.82706

       (c) Upon request of the fact-finding panel, the board shall 82707
issue subpoenas for hearings conducted by the panel.82708

       (d) The fact-finding panel may administer oaths.82709

       (e) The board shall prescribe guidelines for the fact-finding 82710
panel to follow in making findings. In making its recommendations, 82711
the fact-finding panel shall take into consideration the factors 82712
listed in divisions (G)(7)(a) to (f) of this section.82713

       (f) The fact-finding panel may attempt mediation at any time 82714
during the fact-finding process. From the time of appointment 82715
until the fact-finding panel makes a final recommendation, it 82716
shall not discuss the recommendations for settlement of the 82717
dispute with parties other than the direct parties to the dispute.82718

       (5) The fact-finding panel, acting by a majority of its 82719
members, shall transmit its findings of fact and recommendations 82720
on the unresolved issues to the public employer and employee 82721
organization involved and to the board no later than fourteen days 82722
after the appointment of the fact-finding panel, unless the 82723
parties mutually agree to an extension. The parties shall share 82724
the cost of the fact-finding panel in a manner agreed to by the 82725
parties.82726

       (6)(a) Not later than seven days after the findings and 82727
recommendations are sent, the legislative body, by a three-fifths 82728
vote of its total membership, and in the case of the public 82729
employee organization, the membership, by a three-fifths vote of 82730
the total membership, may reject the recommendations; if neither 82731
rejects the recommendations, the recommendations shall be deemed 82732
agreed upon as the final resolution of the issues submitted and a 82733
collective bargaining agreement shall be executed between the 82734
parties, including the fact-finding panel's recommendations, 82735
except as otherwise modified by the parties by mutual agreement. 82736
If either the legislative body or the public employee organization 82737
rejects the recommendations, the board shall publicize the 82738
findings of fact and recommendations of the fact-finding panel. 82739
The board shall adopt rules governing the procedures and methods 82740
for public employees to vote on the recommendations of the 82741
fact-finding panel.82742

        (b) As used in division (C)(6)(a) of this section, 82743
"legislative body" means the controlling board when the state or 82744
any of its agencies, authorities, commissions, boards, or other 82745
branch of public employment is party to the fact-finding process.82746

       (D) If the parties are unable to reach agreement within seven 82747
days after the publication of findings and recommendations from 82748
the fact-finding panel or the collective bargaining agreement, if 82749
one exists, has expired, then the:82750

       (1) Public employees, who are members of a police or fire 82751
department, members of the state highway patrol, deputy sheriffs, 82752
dispatchers employed by a police, fire, or sheriff's department or 82753
the state highway patrol or civilian dispatchers employed by a 82754
public employer other than a police, fire, or sheriff's department 82755
to dispatch police, fire, sheriff's department, or emergency 82756
medical or rescue personnel and units, an exclusive nurse's unit, 82757
employees of the state school for the deaf or the state school for 82758
the blind, employees of any public employee retirement system, 82759
corrections officers, guards at penal or mental institutions, 82760
special police officers appointed in accordance with sections82761
5119.145119.08 and 5123.13 of the Revised Code, psychiatric 82762
attendants employed at mental health forensic facilities, youth 82763
leaders employed at juvenile correctional facilities, or members 82764
of a law enforcement security force that is established and 82765
maintained exclusively by a board of county commissioners and 82766
whose members are employed by that board, shall submit the matter 82767
to a final offer settlement procedure pursuant to a board order 82768
issued forthwith to the parties to settle by a conciliator 82769
selected by the parties. The parties shall request from the board 82770
a list of five qualified conciliators and the parties shall select 82771
a single conciliator from the list by alternate striking of names. 82772
If the parties cannot agree upon a conciliator within five days 82773
after the board order, the board shall on the sixth day after its 82774
order appoint a conciliator from a list of qualified persons 82775
maintained by the board or shall request a list of qualified 82776
conciliators from the American arbitration association and appoint 82777
therefrom.82778

       (2) Public employees other than those listed in division 82779
(D)(1) of this section have the right to strike under Chapter 82780
4117. of the Revised Code provided that the employee organization 82781
representing the employees has given a ten-day prior written 82782
notice of an intent to strike to the public employer and to the 82783
board, and further provided that the strike is for full, 82784
consecutive work days and the beginning date of the strike is at 82785
least ten work days after the ending date of the most recent prior 82786
strike involving the same bargaining unit; however, the board, at 82787
its discretion, may attempt mediation at any time.82788

       (E) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit 82789
the parties, at any time, from voluntarily agreeing to submit any 82790
or all of the issues in dispute to any other alternative dispute 82791
settlement procedure. An agreement or statutory requirement to 82792
arbitrate or to settle a dispute pursuant to a final offer 82793
settlement procedure and the award issued in accordance with the 82794
agreement or statutory requirement is enforceable in the same 82795
manner as specified in division (B) of section 4117.09 of the 82796
Revised Code.82797

       (F) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit a 82798
party from seeking enforcement of a collective bargaining 82799
agreement or a conciliator's award as specified in division (B) of 82800
section 4117.09 of the Revised Code.82801

       (G) The following guidelines apply to final offer settlement 82802
proceedings under division (D)(1) of this section:82803

       (1) The parties shall submit to final offer settlement those 82804
issues that are subject to collective bargaining as provided by 82805
section 4117.08 of the Revised Code and upon which the parties 82806
have not reached agreement and other matters mutually agreed to by 82807
the public employer and the exclusive representative; except that 82808
the conciliator may attempt mediation at any time.82809

       (2) The conciliator shall hold a hearing within thirty days 82810
of the board's order to submit to a final offer settlement 82811
procedure, or as soon thereafter as is practicable.82812

       (3) The conciliator shall conduct the hearing pursuant to 82813
rules developed by the board. The conciliator shall establish the 82814
hearing time and place, but it shall be, where feasible, within 82815
the jurisdiction of the state. Not later than five calendar days 82816
before the hearing, each of the parties shall submit to the 82817
conciliator, to the opposing party, and to the board, a written 82818
report summarizing the unresolved issues, the party's final offer 82819
as to the issues, and the rationale for that position.82820

       (4) Upon the request by the conciliator, the board shall 82821
issue subpoenas for the hearing.82822

       (5) The conciliator may administer oaths.82823

       (6) The conciliator shall hear testimony from the parties and 82824
provide for a written record to be made of all statements at the 82825
hearing. The board shall submit for inclusion in the record and 82826
for consideration by the conciliator the written report and 82827
recommendation of the fact-finders.82828

       (7) After hearing, the conciliator shall resolve the dispute 82829
between the parties by selecting, on an issue-by-issue basis, from 82830
between each of the party's final settlement offers, taking into 82831
consideration the following:82832

       (a) Past collectively bargained agreements, if any, between 82833
the parties;82834

       (b) Comparison of the issues submitted to final offer 82835
settlement relative to the employees in the bargaining unit 82836
involved with those issues related to other public and private 82837
employees doing comparable work, giving consideration to factors 82838
peculiar to the area and classification involved;82839

       (c) The interests and welfare of the public, the ability of 82840
the public employer to finance and administer the issues proposed, 82841
and the effect of the adjustments on the normal standard of public 82842
service;82843

       (d) The lawful authority of the public employer;82844

       (e) The stipulations of the parties;82845

       (f) Such other factors, not confined to those listed in this 82846
section, which are normally or traditionally taken into 82847
consideration in the determination of the issues submitted to 82848
final offer settlement through voluntary collective bargaining, 82849
mediation, fact-finding, or other impasse resolution procedures in 82850
the public service or in private employment.82851

       (8) Final offer settlement awards made under Chapter 4117. of 82852
the Revised Code are subject to Chapter 2711. of the Revised Code.82853

       (9) If more than one conciliator is used, the determination 82854
must be by majority vote.82855

       (10) The conciliator shall make written findings of fact and 82856
promulgate a written opinion and order upon the issues presented 82857
to the conciliator, and upon the record made before the 82858
conciliator and shall mail or otherwise deliver a true copy 82859
thereof to the parties and the board.82860

       (11) Increases in rates of compensation and other matters 82861
with cost implications awarded by the conciliator may be effective 82862
only at the start of the fiscal year next commencing after the 82863
date of the final offer settlement award; provided that if a new 82864
fiscal year has commenced since the issuance of the board order to 82865
submit to a final offer settlement procedure, the awarded 82866
increases may be retroactive to the commencement of the new fiscal 82867
year. The parties may, at any time, amend or modify a 82868
conciliator's award or order by mutual agreement.82869

       (12) The parties shall bear equally the cost of the final 82870
offer settlement procedure.82871

       (13) Conciliators appointed pursuant to this section shall be 82872
residents of the state.82873

       (H) All final offer settlement awards and orders of the 82874
conciliator made pursuant to Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code are 82875
subject to review by the court of common pleas having jurisdiction 82876
over the public employer as provided in Chapter 2711. of the 82877
Revised Code. If the public employer is located in more than one 82878
court of common pleas district, the court of common pleas in which 82879
the principal office of the chief executive is located has 82880
jurisdiction.82881

       (I) The issuance of a final offer settlement award 82882
constitutes a binding mandate to the public employer and the 82883
exclusive representative to take whatever actions are necessary to 82884
implement the award.82885

       Sec. 4117.15.  (A) Whenever a strike by members of a police 82886
or fire department, members of the state highway patrol, deputy 82887
sheriffs, dispatchers employed by a police, fire, or sheriff's 82888
department or the state highway patrol or civilian dispatchers 82889
employed by a public employer other than a police, fire, or 82890
sheriff's department to dispatch police, fire, sheriff's 82891
department, or emergency medical or rescue personnel and units, an 82892
exclusive nurse's unit, employees of the state school for the deaf 82893
or the state school for the blind, employees of any public 82894
employee retirement system, correction officers, guards at penal 82895
or mental institutions, or special police officers appointed in 82896
accordance with sections 5119.145119.08 and 5123.13 of the 82897
Revised Code, psychiatric attendants employed at mental health 82898
forensic facilities, youth leaders employed at juvenile 82899
correctional facilities, or members of a law enforcement security 82900
force that is established and maintained exclusively by a board of 82901
county commissioners and whose members are employed by that board, 82902
a strike by other public employees during the pendency of the 82903
settlement procedures set forth in section 4117.14 of the Revised 82904
Code, or a strike during the term or extended term of a collective 82905
bargaining agreement occurs, the public employer may seek an 82906
injunction against the strike in the court of common pleas of the 82907
county in which the strike is located.82908

       (B) An unfair labor practice by a public employer is not a 82909
defense to the injunction proceeding noted in division (A) of this 82910
section. Allegations of unfair labor practices during the 82911
settlement procedures set forth in section 4117.14 of the Revised 82912
Code shall receive priority by the state employment relations 82913
board.82914

       (C) No public employee is entitled to pay or compensation 82915
from the public employer for the period engaged in any strike.82916

       Sec. 4121.44.  (A) The administrator of workers' compensation 82917
shall oversee the implementation of the Ohio workers' compensation 82918
qualified health plan system as established under section 4121.442 82919
of the Revised Code.82920

       (B) The administrator shall direct the implementation of the 82921
health partnership program administered by the bureau as set forth 82922
in section 4121.441 of the Revised Code. To implement the health 82923
partnership program and to ensure the efficiency and effectiveness 82924
of the public services provided through the program, the bureau:82925

       (1) Shall certify one or more external vendors, which shall 82926
be known as "managed care organizations," to provide medical 82927
management and cost containment services in the health partnership 82928
program for a period of two years beginning on the date of 82929
certification, consistent with the standards established under 82930
this section;82931

       (2) May recertify external vendorsmanaged care organizations82932
for additional periods of two years; and82933

       (3) May integrate the certified vendorsmanaged care 82934
organizations with bureau staff and existing bureau services for 82935
purposes of operation and training to allow the bureau to assume 82936
operation of the health partnership program at the conclusion of 82937
the certification periods set forth in division (B)(1) or (2) of 82938
this section;82939

       (4) May enter into a contract with any managed care 82940
organization that is certified by the bureau, pursuant to division 82941
(B)(1) or (2) of this section, to provide medical management and 82942
cost containment services in the health partnership program.82943

       (C) A contract entered into pursuant to division (B)(4) of 82944
this section shall include both of the following:82945

       (1) Incentives that may be awarded by the administrator, at 82946
the administrator's discretion, based on compliance and 82947
performance of the managed care organization;82948

       (2) Penalties that may be imposed by the administrator, at 82949
the administrator's discretion, based on the failure of the 82950
managed care organization to reasonably comply with or perform 82951
terms of the contract, which may include termination of the 82952
contract.82953

       (D) Notwithstanding section 119.061 of the Revised Code, a 82954
contract entered into pursuant to division (B)(4) of this section 82955
may include provisions limiting, restricting, or regulating any 82956
marketing or advertising by the managed care organization, or by 82957
any individual or entity that is affiliated with or acting on 82958
behalf of the managed care organization, under the health 82959
partnership program.82960

       (E) No managed care organization shall receive compensation 82961
under the health partnership program unless the managed care 82962
organization has entered into a contract with the bureau pursuant 82963
to division (B)(4) of this section.82964

       (F) Any vendormanaged care organization selected shall 82965
demonstrate all of the following:82966

       (1) Arrangements and reimbursement agreements with a 82967
substantial number of the medical, professional and pharmacy 82968
providers currently being utilized by claimants.82969

       (2) Ability to accept a common format of medical bill data in 82970
an electronic fashion from any provider who wishes to submit 82971
medical bill data in that form.82972

       (3) A computer system able to handle the volume of medical 82973
bills and willingness to customize that system to the bureau's 82974
needs and to be operated by the vendor'smanaged care 82975
organization's staff, bureau staff, or some combination of both 82976
staffs.82977

       (4) A prescription drug system where pharmacies on a 82978
statewide basis have access to the eligibility and pricing, at a 82979
discounted rate, of all prescription drugs.82980

       (5) A tracking system to record all telephone calls from 82981
claimants and providers regarding the status of submitted medical 82982
bills so as to be able to track each inquiry.82983

       (6) Data processing capacity to absorb all of the bureau's 82984
medical bill processing or at least that part of the processing 82985
which the bureau arranges to delegate.82986

       (7) Capacity to store, retrieve, array, simulate, and model 82987
in a relational mode all of the detailed medical bill data so that 82988
analysis can be performed in a variety of ways and so that the 82989
bureau and its governing authority can make informed decisions.82990

       (8) Wide variety of software programs which translate medical 82991
terminology into standard codes, and which reveal if a provider is 82992
manipulating the procedures codes, commonly called "unbundling."82993

       (9) Necessary professional staff to conduct, at a minimum, 82994
authorizations for treatment, medical necessity, utilization 82995
review, concurrent review, post-utilization review, and have the 82996
attendant computer system which supports such activity and 82997
measures the outcomes and the savings.82998

       (10) Management experience and flexibility to be able to 82999
react quickly to the needs of the bureau in the case of required 83000
change in federal or state requirements.83001

       (D)(G)(1) The administrator may decertify a managed care 83002
organization if the managed care organization does any of the 83003
following:83004

       (a) Fails to maintain any of the requirements set forth in 83005
division (F) of this section;83006

       (b) Fails to reasonably comply with or to perform in 83007
accordance with the terms of a contract entered into under 83008
division (B)(4) of this section;83009

       (c) Violates a rule adopted under section 4121.441 of the 83010
Revised Code.83011

       (2) The administrator shall provide each managed care 83012
organization that is being decertified pursuant to division (G)(1) 83013
of this section with written notice of the pending decertification 83014
and an opportunity for a hearing pursuant to rules adopted by the 83015
administrator.83016

       (H)(1) Information contained in a vendor'smanaged care 83017
organization's application for certification in the health 83018
partnership program, and other information furnished to the bureau 83019
by a vendormanaged care organization for purposes of obtaining 83020
certification or to comply with performance and financial auditing 83021
requirements established by the administrator, is for the 83022
exclusive use and information of the bureau in the discharge of 83023
its official duties, and shall not be open to the public or be 83024
used in any court in any proceeding pending therein, unless the 83025
bureau is a party to the action or proceeding, but the information 83026
may be tabulated and published by the bureau in statistical form 83027
for the use and information of other state departments and the 83028
public. No employee of the bureau, except as otherwise authorized 83029
by the administrator, shall divulge any information secured by the 83030
employee while in the employ of the bureau in respect to a 83031
vendor'smanaged care organization's application for certification 83032
or in respect to the business or other trade processes of any 83033
vendormanaged care organization to any person other than the 83034
administrator or to the employee's superior.83035

       (2) Notwithstanding the restrictions imposed by division 83036
(D)(H)(1) of this section, the governor, members of select or 83037
standing committees of the senate or house of representatives, the 83038
auditor of state, the attorney general, or their designees, 83039
pursuant to the authority granted in this chapter and Chapter 83040
4123. of the Revised Code, may examine any vendormanaged care 83041
organization application or other information furnished to the 83042
bureau by the vendormanaged care organization. None of those 83043
individuals shall divulge any information secured in the exercise 83044
of that authority in respect to a vendor'smanaged care 83045
organization's application for certification or in respect to the 83046
business or other trade processes of any vendormanaged care 83047
organization to any person.83048

       (E)(I) On and after January 1, 2001, a vendormanaged care 83049
organization shall not be anyan insurance company holding a 83050
certificate of authority issued pursuant to Title XXXIX of the 83051
Revised Code or anya health insuring corporation holding a 83052
certificate of authority under Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code.83053

       (F)(J) The administrator may limit freedom of choice of 83054
health care provider or supplier by requiring, beginning with the 83055
period set forth in division (B)(1) or (2) of this section, that 83056
claimants shall pay an appropriate out-of-plan copayment for 83057
selecting a medical provider not within the health partnership 83058
program as provided for in this section.83059

       (G)(K) The administrator, six months prior to the expiration 83060
of the bureau's certification or recertification of the vendor or 83061
vendorsmanaged care organizations as set forth in division (B)(1) 83062
or (2) of this section, may certify and provide evidence to the 83063
governor, the speaker of the house of representatives, and the 83064
president of the senate that the existing bureau staff is able to 83065
match or exceed the performance and outcomes of the external 83066
vendor or vendorsmanaged care organizations and that the bureau 83067
should be permitted to internally administer the health 83068
partnership program upon the expiration of the certification or 83069
recertification as set forth in division (B)(1) or (2) of this 83070
section.83071

       (H)(L) The administrator shall establish and operate a bureau 83072
of workers' compensation health care data program. The 83073
administrator shall develop reporting requirements from all 83074
employees, employers and, medical providers, medical vendors83075
managed care organizations, and plans that participate in the 83076
workers' compensation system. The administrator shall do all of 83077
the following:83078

       (1) Utilize the collected data to measure and perform 83079
comparison analyses of costs, quality, appropriateness of medical 83080
care, and effectiveness of medical care delivered by all 83081
components of the workers' compensation system.83082

       (2) Compile data to support activities of the selected vendor 83083
or vendorsmanaged care organizations and to measure the outcomes 83084
and savings of the health partnership program.83085

       (3) Publish and report compiled data on the measures of 83086
outcomes and savings of the health partnership program and submit 83087
the report to the president of the senate, the speaker of the 83088
house of representatives, and the governor with the annual report 83089
prepared under division (F)(3) of section 4121.12 of the Revised 83090
Code. The administrator shall protect the confidentiality of all 83091
proprietary pricing data.83092

       (I)(M) Any rehabilitation facility the bureau operates is 83093
eligible for inclusion in the Ohio workers' compensation qualified 83094
health plan system or the health partnership program under the 83095
same terms as other providers within health care plans or the 83096
program.83097

       (J)(N) In areas outside the state or within the state where 83098
no qualified health plan or an inadequate number of providers 83099
within the health partnership program exist, the administrator 83100
shall permit employees to use a nonplan or nonprogram health care 83101
provider and shall pay the provider for the services or supplies 83102
provided to or on behalf of an employee for an injury or 83103
occupational disease that is compensable under this chapter or 83104
Chapter 4123., 4127., or 4131. of the Revised Code on a fee 83105
schedule the administrator adopts.83106

       (K)(O) No health care provider, whether certified or not, 83107
shall charge, assess, or otherwise attempt to collect from an 83108
employee, employer, a managed care organization, or the bureau any 83109
amount for covered services or supplies that is in excess of the 83110
allowed amount paid by a managed care organization, the bureau, or 83111
a qualified health plan.83112

       (L)(P) The administrator shall permit any employer or group 83113
of employers who agree to abide by the rules adopted under this 83114
section and sections 4121.441 and 4121.442 of the Revised Code to 83115
provide services or supplies to or on behalf of an employee for an 83116
injury or occupational disease that is compensable under this 83117
chapter or Chapter 4123., 4127., or 4131. of the Revised Code 83118
through qualified health plans of the Ohio workers' compensation 83119
qualified health plan system pursuant to section 4121.442 of the 83120
Revised Code or through the health partnership program pursuant to 83121
section 4121.441 of the Revised Code. No amount paid under the 83122
qualified health plan system pursuant to section 4121.442 of the 83123
Revised Code by an employer who is a state fund employer shall be 83124
charged to the employer's experience or otherwise be used in 83125
merit-rating or determining the risk of that employer for the 83126
purpose of the payment of premiums under this chapter, and if the 83127
employer is a self-insuring employer, the employer shall not 83128
include that amount in the paid compensation the employer reports 83129
under section 4123.35 of the Revised Code.83130

       Sec. 4121.441.  (A) The administrator of workers' 83131
compensation, with the advice and consent of the bureau of 83132
workers' compensation board of directors, shall adopt rules under 83133
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for the health care partnership 83134
program administered by the bureau of workers' compensation to 83135
provide medical, surgical, nursing, drug, hospital, and 83136
rehabilitation services and supplies to an employee for an injury 83137
or occupational disease that is compensable under this chapter or 83138
Chapter 4123., 4127., or 4131. of the Revised Code, and to 83139
regulate contracts with managed care organizations pursuant to 83140
this chapter.83141

       (1) The rules shall include, but are not limited to, the 83142
following:83143

       (1)(a) Procedures for the resolution of medical disputes 83144
between an employer and an employee, an employee and a provider, 83145
or an employer and a provider, prior to an appeal under section 83146
4123.511 of the Revised Code. Rules the administrator adopts 83147
pursuant to division (A)(1)(a) of this section may specify that 83148
the resolution procedures shall not be used to resolve disputes 83149
concerning medical services rendered that have been approved 83150
through standard treatment guidelines, pathways, or presumptive 83151
authorization guidelines.83152

       (2)(b) Prohibitions against discrimination against any 83153
category of health care providers;83154

       (3)(c) Procedures for reporting injuries to employers and the 83155
bureau by providers;83156

       (4)(d) Appropriate financial incentives to reduce service 83157
cost and insure proper system utilization without sacrificing the 83158
quality of service;83159

       (5)(e) Adequate methods of peer review, utilization review, 83160
quality assurance, and dispute resolution to prevent, and provide 83161
sanctions for, inappropriate, excessive or not medically necessary 83162
treatment;83163

       (6)(f) A timely and accurate method of collection of 83164
necessary information regarding medical and health care service 83165
and supply costs, quality, and utilization to enable the 83166
administrator to determine the effectiveness of the program;83167

       (7)(g) Provisions for necessary emergency medical treatment 83168
for an injury or occupational disease provided by a health care 83169
provider who is not part of the program;83170

       (8)(h) Discounted pricing for all in-patient and out-patient 83171
medical services, all professional services, and all 83172
pharmaceutical services;83173

       (9)(i) Provisions for provider referrals, pre-admission and 83174
post-admission approvals, second surgical opinions, and other cost 83175
management techniques;83176

       (10)(j) Antifraud mechanisms;83177

       (11)(k) Standards and criteria for the bureau to utilize in 83178
certifying or recertifying a health care provider or a vendor83179
managed care organization for participation in the health 83180
partnership program;83181

       (12)(l) Standards and criteria for the bureau to utilize in 83182
penalizing or decertifying a health care provider or a vendor from 83183
participation in the health partnership program.83184

       (2) Notwithstanding section 119.061 of the Revised Code, the 83185
rules may include provisions limiting, restricting, or regulating 83186
any marketing or advertising by a managed care organization, or by 83187
any individual or entity that is affiliated with or acting on 83188
behalf of the managed care organization, under the health 83189
partnership program.83190

       (B) The administrator shall implement the health partnership 83191
program according to the rules the administrator adopts under this 83192
section for the provision and payment of medical, surgical, 83193
nursing, drug, hospital, and rehabilitation services and supplies 83194
to an employee for an injury or occupational disease that is 83195
compensable under this chapter or Chapter 4123., 4127., or 4131. 83196
of the Revised Code."83197

       Sec. 4121.50. Not later than July 1, 2012, the administrator 83198
of workers' compensation shall adopt rules in accordance with 83199
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement a coordinated 83200
services program for claimants under this chapter or Chapter 83201
4123., 4127., or 4131. of the Revised Code who are found to have 83202
obtained prescription drugs that were reimbursed pursuant to an 83203
order of the administrator or of the industrial commission or by a 83204
self-insuring employer but were obtained at a frequency or in an 83205
amount that is not medically necessary. The program shall be 83206
implemented in a manner that is substantially similar to the 83207
coordinated services programs established for the medicaid program 83208
under section 5111.085sections 5164.758 and 5111.1795167.13 of 83209
the Revised Code.83210

       Sec. 4121.69.  (A) The administrator of workers' compensation 83211
may establish compensation plans, including schedules of hourly 83212
rates, for the compensation of professional, administrative, and 83213
managerial employees who are employed to fulfill the duties placed 83214
upon the bureau of workers' compensation pursuant to sections 83215
4121.61 to 4121.69 of the Revised Code. The administrator may 83216
establish rules or policies for the administration of the 83217
respective compensation plans.83218

       This division does not apply to employees for whom the state 83219
employment relations board establishes appropriate bargaining 83220
units pursuant to section 4117.06 of the Revised Code.83221

       (B) The administrator may employ the services and resources 83222
of any public entity or private person, business, or association 83223
in fulfilling the duties placed upon the bureau of workers' 83224
compensation by sections 4121.61 to 4121.69 of the Revised Code. 83225
The rehabilitation services commissionopportunities for Ohioans 83226
with disabilities agency, the director of job and family services, 83227
and any other public officer, employee, or agency shall give to 83228
the bureau of workers' compensation full cooperation and, at the 83229
request of the administrator, enter into a written agreement 83230
stating the procedures and criteria for referring, accepting, and 83231
providing services to claimants in the job placement and 83232
rehabilitation efforts of the bureau of workers' compensation on 83233
behalf of a claimant when referred by the bureau of workers' 83234
compensation.83235

       (C) In appropriate cases, the bureau may refer a candidate to 83236
the rehabilitation services commissionopportunities for Ohioans 83237
with disabilities agency for participation in a program of the 83238
commissionagency. For that purpose, the bureau of workers' 83239
compensation shall compensate the commissionagency for the 83240
nonfederal portion of its services.83241

       Sec. 4123.32.  The administrator of workers' compensation, 83242
with the advice and consent of the bureau of workers' compensation 83243
board of directors, shall adopt rules with respect to the 83244
collection, maintenance, and disbursements of the state insurance 83245
fund including all of the following:83246

       (A) A rule providing that the premium security deposit 83247
collected from any employer entitles the employer to the benefits 83248
of this chapter for the remainder of the six months and also for 83249
an additional adjustment period of two months, and, thereafter, if 83250
the employer pays the premium due at the close of any six-month 83251
period, coverage shall be extended for an additional eight-month 83252
period beginning from the end of the six-month period for which 83253
the employer pays the premium due;83254

       (B) A rule providing for ascertaining the correctness of any 83255
employer's report of estimated or actual expenditure of wages and 83256
the determination and adjustment of proper premiums and the 83257
payment of those premiums by the employer for or during any period 83258
less than eight months and notwithstanding any payment or 83259
determination of premium made when exceptional conditions or 83260
circumstances in the judgment of the administrator justify the 83261
action;83262

       (C) Such special rules as the administrator considers 83263
necessary to safeguard the fund and that are just in the 83264
circumstances, covering the rates to be applied where one employer 83265
takes over the occupation or industry of another or where an 83266
employer first makes application for state insurance, and the 83267
administrator may require that if any employer transfers a 83268
business in whole or in part or otherwise reorganizes the 83269
business, the successor in interest shall assume, in proportion to 83270
the extent of the transfer, as determined by the administrator, 83271
the employer's account and shall continue the payment of all 83272
contributions due under this chapter;83273

       (D) A rule providing that an employer who employs an employee 83274
covered under the federal "Longshore and Harbor Workers' 83275
Compensation Act," 98 Stat. 1639, 33 U.S.C. 901 et seq., and this 83276
chapter and Chapter 4121. of the Revised Code shall be assessed a 83277
premium in accordance with the expenditure of wages, payroll, or 83278
both attributable to only labor performed and services provided by 83279
such an employee when the employee performs labor and provides 83280
services for which the employee is not eligible to receive 83281
compensation and benefits under that federal act.83282

       (E) A rule providing for all of the following:83283

       (1) If, within two months immediately after the expiration of 83284
the six-month period, an employer fails to file a report of the 83285
employer's actual payroll expenditures for the period, the premium 83286
found to be due from the employer for the period shall be 83287
increased in an amount equal to one per cent of the premium, but 83288
the increase shall not be less than three nor more than fifteen 83289
dollars;83290

       (2) The premium determined by the administrator to be due 83291
from an employer shall be payable on or before the end of the 83292
coverage period established by the premium security deposit, or 83293
within the time specified by the administrator if the period for 83294
which the advance premium has been paid is less than eight months. 83295
If an employer fails to pay the premium when due, the 83296
administrator may add a late fee penalty of not more than thirty 83297
dollars to the premium plus an additional penalty amount as 83298
follows:83299

       (a) For a premium from sixty-one to ninety days past due, the 83300
prime interest rate, multiplied by the premium due;83301

       (b) For a premium from ninety-one to one hundred twenty days 83302
past due, the prime interest rate plus two per cent, multiplied by 83303
the premium due;83304

       (c) For a premium from one hundred twenty-one to one hundred 83305
fifty days past due, the prime interest rate plus four per cent, 83306
multiplied by the premium due;83307

       (d) For a premium from one hundred fifty-one to one hundred 83308
eighty days past due, the prime interest rate plus six per cent, 83309
multiplied by the premium due;83310

       (e) For a premium from one hundred eighty-one to two hundred 83311
ten days past due, the prime interest rate plus eight per cent, 83312
multiplied by the premium due;83313

       (f) For each additional thirty-day period or portion thereof 83314
that a premium remains past due after it has remained past due for 83315
more than two hundred ten days, the prime interest rate plus eight 83316
per cent, multiplied by the premium due.83317

       (3) Notwithstanding the interest rates specified in division 83318
(E)(2) of this section, at no time shall the additional penalty 83319
amount assessed under division (E)(2) of this section exceed 83320
fifteen per cent of the premium due.83321

        (4) An employer may appeal a late fee penalty or additional 83322
penalty to an adjudicating committee pursuant to section 4123.291 83323
of the Revised Code.83324

       For purposes of division (E) of this section, "prime interest 83325
rate" means the average bank prime rate, and the administrator 83326
shall determine the prime interest rate in the same manner as a 83327
county auditor determines the average bank prime rate under 83328
section 929.02 of the Revised Code.83329

       (5) If the employer files an appropriate payroll report, 83330
within the time provided by law or within the time specified by 83331
the administrator if the period for which the employer paid an 83332
estimated premium is less than eight months, the employer shall 83333
not be in default and division (E)(2) of this section shall not 83334
apply if the employer pays the premiums within fifteen days after 83335
being first notified by the administrator of the amount due.83336

       (6) Any deficiencies in the amounts of the premium security 83337
deposit paid by an employer for any period shall be subject to an 83338
interest charge of six per cent per annum from the date the 83339
premium obligation is incurred. In determining the interest due on 83340
deficiencies in premium security deposit payments, a charge in 83341
each case shall be made against the employer in an amount equal to 83342
interest at the rate of six per cent per annum on the premium 83343
security deposit due but remaining unpaid sixty days after notice 83344
by the administrator.83345

       (7) Any interest charges or penalties provided for in 83346
divisions (E)(2) and (6) of this section shall be credited to the 83347
employer's account for rating purposes in the same manner as 83348
premiums.83349

       (F) A rule providing that each employer, on the occasion of 83350
instituting coverage under this chapter, shall submit a premium 83351
security deposit. The deposit shall be calculated equivalent to 83352
thirty per cent of the semiannual premium obligation of the 83353
employer based upon the employer's estimated expenditure for wages 83354
for the ensuing six-month period plus thirty per cent of an 83355
additional adjustment period of two months but only up to a 83356
maximum of one thousand dollars and not less than ten dollars. The 83357
administrator shall review the security deposit of every employer 83358
who has submitted a deposit which is less than the 83359
one-thousand-dollar maximum. The administrator may require any 83360
such employer to submit additional money up to the maximum of one 83361
thousand dollars that, in the administrator's opinion, reflects 83362
the employer's current payroll expenditure for an eight-month 83363
period.83364

       (G) A rule providing that each employer, on the occasion of 83365
instituting coverage under this chapter, shall submit an 83366
application for coverage that completely provides all of the 83367
information required for the administrator to establish coverage 83368
for that employer, and that the employer's failure to provide all 83369
of the information completely may be grounds for the administrator 83370
to deny coverage for that employer.83371

       (H) A rule providing that, in addition to any other remedies 83372
permitted in this chapter, the administrator may discontinue an 83373
employer's coverage if the employer fails to pay the premium due 83374
on or before the premium's due date.83375

       (I) A rule providing that if after a final adjudication it is 83376
determined that an employer has failed to pay an obligation, 83377
billing, account, or assessment that is greater than one thousand 83378
dollars on or before its due date, the administrator may 83379
discontinue the employer's coverage in addition to any other 83380
remedies permitted in this chapter, and that the administrator 83381
shall not discontinue an employer's coverage pursuant to this 83382
division prior to a final adjudication regarding the employer's 83383
failure to pay such obligation, billing, account, or assessment on 83384
or before its due date.83385

       (J) As used in divisions (H) and (I) of this section:83386

        (1) "Employer" has the same meaning as in division (B) of 83387
section 4123.01 of the Revised Code except that "employer" does 83388
not include the state, a state hospital, or a state university or 83389
college.83390

        (2) "State university or college" has the same meaning as in 83391
section 3345.12 of the Revised Code and also includes the Ohio 83392
agricultural research and development center and the Ohio state 83393
university cooperativeOSU extension service.83394

        (3) "State hospital" means the Ohio state university hospital 83395
and its ancillary facilities and the medical university of Ohio at 83396
Toledo hospital.83397

       Sec. 4123.322. (A) Notwithstanding any provision to the 83398
contrary in section 4123.32 or 4123.41 of the Revised Code, the 83399
administrator of workers' compensation, with the advice and 83400
consent of the bureau of workers' compensation board of directors, 83401
may adopt rules with respect to the collection, maintenance, and 83402
disbursements of the state insurance fund to provide for a system 83403
of prospective payment of workers' compensation premiums. If the 83404
administrator elects to adopt rules establishing a prospective 83405
payment system, those rules shall include all of the following:83406

        (1) A requirement that, notwithstanding section 4123.26 of 83407
the Revised Code, on or before the thirtieth day of June of each 83408
year, or such other date as the administrator establishes, every 83409
employer mentioned in division (B)(2) of section 4123.01 of the 83410
Revised Code shall file with the bureau of workers' compensation 83411
an estimate of the employer's payroll for the immediately 83412
following twelve-month period or other period as the administrator 83413
establishes;83414

        (2) A requirement that upon an initial application for 83415
coverage, an employer mentioned in division (B)(2) of section 83416
4123.01 of the Revised Code shall file with the application an 83417
estimate of the employer's payroll for the unexpired period from 83418
the date of application to the period ending on the following 83419
thirtieth day of June or other date as established by the 83420
administrator pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section, and 83421
shall pay the amount the administrator determines by rule in order 83422
to establish coverage for the employer as described in division 83423
(B)(12) of section 4121.121 of the Revised Code;83424

        (3) A requirement that, notwithstanding section 4123.26 or 83425
4123.41 of the Revised Code, on or before the first day of January 83426
of each year, or such other date as the administrator establishes, 83427
every employer mentioned in division (B)(1) of section 4123.01 of 83428
the Revised Code, except for a state agency or a state university 83429
or college, shall file with the bureau an estimate of the 83430
employer's payroll for the immediately following twelve-month 83431
period or other period as the administrator establishes;83432

        (4) A requirement that upon an initial application for 83433
coverage, an employer mentioned in division (B)(1) of section 83434
4123.01 of the Revised Code, except for a state agency or state 83435
university or college, shall file with the application an estimate 83436
of the employer's payroll for the unexpired period from the date 83437
of application to the period ending on the following thirty-first 83438
day of December or other date as established by the administrator 83439
pursuant to division (A)(3) of this section, and shall pay the 83440
amount the administrator determines by rule in order to establish 83441
coverage for the employer as described in division (B)(12) of 83442
section 4121.121 of the Revised Code;83443

        (5) The assessment of a penalty if an employer fails to 83444
timely file the estimates of payroll required by the rules adopted 83445
pursuant to this section;83446

        (6) A requirement that an employer complete periodic payroll 83447
reports of actual expenditures for previous coverage periods for 83448
reconciliation with estimated payroll reports;83449

        (7) The assessment of a penalty for late payroll 83450
reconciliation reports and for late payment of any reconciliation 83451
premium;83452

        (8) The establishment of a transition period during which 83453
time the bureau shall determine the adequacy of existing premium 83454
security deposits of employers, the establishment of provisions 83455
for additional premium payments during that transition, the 83456
provision of a credit of those deposits toward the first premium 83457
due from an employer under the rules adopted under divisions 83458
(A)(1) to (7) of this section, and the establishment of penalties 83459
for late payment or failure to comply with the rules.83460

        (B) For purposes of division (A)(6) of this section, an 83461
employer shall make timely payment of any premium owed when actual 83462
payroll expenditures exceeded estimated payroll, and the employer 83463
shall receive premium credit when the estimated payroll exceeded 83464
the actual payroll.83465

        (C) For purposes of division (A)(7) of this section, if the 83466
employer's actual payroll substantially exceeds the estimated 83467
payroll, the administrator may assess additional penalties 83468
specified in rules the administrator adopts on the reconciliation 83469
premium.83470

        (D) As used in this section, "state university or college" 83471
has the same meaning as in section 4123.32 of the Revised Code.83472

       Sec. 4123.35.  (A) Except as provided in this section, every 83473
employer mentioned in division (B)(2) of section 4123.01 of the 83474
Revised Code, and every publicly owned utility shall pay 83475
semiannually in the months of January and July into the state 83476
insurance fund the amount of annual premium the administrator of 83477
workers' compensation fixes for the employment or occupation of 83478
the employer, the amount of which premium to be paid by each 83479
employer to be determined by the classifications, rules, and rates 83480
made and published by the administrator. The employer shall pay 83481
semiannually a further sum of money into the state insurance fund 83482
as may be ascertained to be due from the employer by applying the 83483
rules of the administrator, and a receipt or certificate 83484
certifying that payment has been made, along with a written notice 83485
as is required in section 4123.54 of the Revised Code, shall be 83486
mailed immediately to the employer by the bureau of workers' 83487
compensation. The receipt or certificate is prima-facie evidence 83488
of the payment of the premium, and the proper posting of the 83489
notice constitutes the employer's compliance with the notice 83490
requirement mandated in section 4123.54 of the Revised Code.83491

       If the administrator adopts rules to establish a prospective 83492
payment of premium under section 4123.322 of the Revised Code, 83493
every employer mentioned in division (B)(2) of section 4123.01 of 83494
the Revised Code and every publicly owned utility shall pay into 83495
the state insurance fund the amount of premium the administrator 83496
fixes for the employment or occupation of the employer, the amount 83497
of which premium to be paid by each employer to be determined by 83498
the classifications, rules, and rates made and published by the 83499
administrator and based upon the estimates and reconciliations 83500
required by the rules the administrator adopts under section 83501
4123.322 of the Revised Code.83502

       The bureau of workers' compensation shall verify with the 83503
secretary of state the existence of all corporations and 83504
organizations making application for workers' compensation 83505
coverage and shall require every such application to include the 83506
employer's federal identification number.83507

       An employer as defined in division (B)(2) of section 4123.01 83508
of the Revised Code who has contracted with a subcontractor is 83509
liable for the unpaid premium due from any subcontractor with 83510
respect to that part of the payroll of the subcontractor that is 83511
for work performed pursuant to the contract with the employer.83512

       Division (A) of this section providing for the payment of 83513
premiums semiannually does not apply to any employer who was a 83514
subscriber to the state insurance fund prior to January 1, 1914, 83515
or who may first become a subscriber to the fund in any month 83516
other than January or July. Instead, the semiannual premiums shall 83517
be paid by those employers from time to time upon the expiration 83518
of the respective periods for which payments into the fund have 83519
been made by them.83520

       The administrator shall adopt rules to permit employers to 83521
make periodic payments of the semiannual premium due under this 83522
division. The rules shall include provisions for the assessment of 83523
interest charges, where appropriate, and for the assessment of 83524
penalties when an employer fails to make timely premium payments. 83525
An employer who timely pays the amounts due under this division is 83526
entitled to all of the benefits and protections of this chapter. 83527
Upon receipt of payment, the bureau immediately shall mail a 83528
receipt or certificate to the employer certifying that payment has 83529
been made, which receipt is prima-facie evidence of payment. 83530
Workers' compensation coverage under this chapter continues 83531
uninterrupted upon timely receipt of payment under this division.83532

       Every public employer, except public employers that are 83533
self-insuring employers under this section, shall comply with 83534
sections 4123.38 to 4123.41, and 4123.48 of the Revised Code in 83535
regard to the contribution of moneys to the public insurance fund.83536

       (B) Employers who will abide by the rules of the 83537
administrator and who may be of sufficient financial ability to 83538
render certain the payment of compensation to injured employees or 83539
the dependents of killed employees, and the furnishing of medical, 83540
surgical, nursing, and hospital attention and services and 83541
medicines, and funeral expenses, equal to or greater than is 83542
provided for in sections 4123.52, 4123.55 to 4123.62, and 4123.64 83543
to 4123.67 of the Revised Code, and who do not desire to insure 83544
the payment thereof or indemnify themselves against loss sustained 83545
by the direct payment thereof, upon a finding of such facts by the 83546
administrator, may be granted the privilege to pay individually 83547
compensation, and furnish medical, surgical, nursing, and hospital 83548
services and attention and funeral expenses directly to injured 83549
employees or the dependents of killed employees, thereby being 83550
granted status as a self-insuring employer. The administrator may 83551
charge employers who apply for the status as a self-insuring 83552
employer a reasonable application fee to cover the bureau's costs 83553
in connection with processing and making a determination with 83554
respect to an application.83555

       All employers granted status as self-insuring employers shall 83556
demonstrate sufficient financial and administrative ability to 83557
assure that all obligations under this section are promptly met. 83558
The administrator shall deny the privilege where the employer is 83559
unable to demonstrate the employer's ability to promptly meet all 83560
the obligations imposed on the employer by this section.83561

       (1) The administrator shall consider, but is not limited to, 83562
the following factors, where applicable, in determining the 83563
employer's ability to meet all of the obligations imposed on the 83564
employer by this section:83565

       (a) The employer employs a minimum of five hundred employees 83566
in this state;83567

       (b) The employer has operated in this state for a minimum of 83568
two years, provided that an employer who has purchased, acquired, 83569
or otherwise succeeded to the operation of a business, or any part 83570
thereof, situated in this state that has operated for at least two 83571
years in this state, also shall qualify;83572

       (c) Where the employer previously contributed to the state 83573
insurance fund or is a successor employer as defined by bureau 83574
rules, the amount of the buyout, as defined by bureau rules;83575

       (d) The sufficiency of the employer's assets located in this 83576
state to insure the employer's solvency in paying compensation 83577
directly;83578

       (e) The financial records, documents, and data, certified by 83579
a certified public accountant, necessary to provide the employer's 83580
full financial disclosure. The records, documents, and data 83581
include, but are not limited to, balance sheets and profit and 83582
loss history for the current year and previous four years.83583

       (f) The employer's organizational plan for the administration 83584
of the workers' compensation law;83585

       (g) The employer's proposed plan to inform employees of the 83586
change from a state fund insurer to a self-insuring employer, the 83587
procedures the employer will follow as a self-insuring employer, 83588
and the employees' rights to compensation and benefits; and83589

       (h) The employer has either an account in a financial 83590
institution in this state, or if the employer maintains an account 83591
with a financial institution outside this state, ensures that 83592
workers' compensation checks are drawn from the same account as 83593
payroll checks or the employer clearly indicates that payment will 83594
be honored by a financial institution in this state.83595

       The administrator may waive the requirements of divisions 83596
(B)(1)(a) and (b) of this section and the requirement of division 83597
(B)(1)(e) of this section that the financial records, documents, 83598
and data be certified by a certified public accountant. The 83599
administrator shall adopt rules establishing the criteria that an 83600
employer shall meet in order for the administrator to waive the 83601
requirementrequirements of divisiondivisions (B)(1)(a), (b), and83602
(e) of this section. Such rules may require additional security of 83603
that employer pursuant to division (E) of section 4123.351 of the 83604
Revised Code.83605

       The administrator shall not grant the status of self-insuring 83606
employer to the state, except that the administrator may grant the 83607
status of self-insuring employer to a state institution of higher 83608
education, including its hospitals, that meets the requirements of 83609
division (B)(2) of this section.83610

       (2) When considering the application of a public employer, 83611
except for a board of county commissioners described in division 83612
(G) of section 4123.01 of the Revised Code, a board of a county 83613
hospital, or a publicly owned utility, the administrator shall 83614
verify that the public employer satisfies all of the following 83615
requirements as the requirements apply to that public employer:83616

       (a) For the two-year period preceding application under this 83617
section, the public employer has maintained an unvoted debt 83618
capacity equal to at least two times the amount of the current 83619
annual premium established by the administrator under this chapter 83620
for that public employer for the year immediately preceding the 83621
year in which the public employer makes application under this 83622
section.83623

       (b) For each of the two fiscal years preceding application 83624
under this section, the unreserved and undesignated year-end fund 83625
balance in the public employer's general fund is equal to at least 83626
five per cent of the public employer's general fund revenues for 83627
the fiscal year computed in accordance with generally accepted 83628
accounting principles.83629

       (c) For the five-year period preceding application under this 83630
section, the public employer, to the extent applicable, has 83631
complied fully with the continuing disclosure requirements 83632
established in rules adopted by the United States securities and 83633
exchange commission under 17 C.F.R. 240.15c 2-12.83634

       (d) For the five-year period preceding application under this 83635
section, the public employer has not had its local government fund 83636
distribution withheld on account of the public employer being 83637
indebted or otherwise obligated to the state.83638

       (e) For the five-year period preceding application under this 83639
section, the public employer has not been under a fiscal watch or 83640
fiscal emergency pursuant to section 118.023, 118.04, or 3316.03 83641
of the Revised Code.83642

       (f) For the public employer's fiscal year preceding 83643
application under this section, the public employer has obtained 83644
an annual financial audit as required under section 117.10 of the 83645
Revised Code, which has been released by the auditor of state 83646
within seven months after the end of the public employer's fiscal 83647
year.83648

       (g) On the date of application, the public employer holds a 83649
debt rating of Aa3 or higher according to Moody's investors 83650
service, inc., or a comparable rating by an independent rating 83651
agency similar to Moody's investors service, inc.83652

       (h) The public employer agrees to generate an annual 83653
accumulating book reserve in its financial statements reflecting 83654
an actuarially generated reserve adequate to pay projected claims 83655
under this chapter for the applicable period of time, as 83656
determined by the administrator.83657

       (i) For a public employer that is a hospital, the public 83658
employer shall submit audited financial statements showing the 83659
hospital's overall liquidity characteristics, and the 83660
administrator shall determine, on an individual basis, whether the 83661
public employer satisfies liquidity standards equivalent to the 83662
liquidity standards of other public employers.83663

       (j) Any additional criteria that the administrator adopts by 83664
rule pursuant to division (E) of this section.83665

       The administrator may adopt rules establishing the criteria 83666
that a public employer shall satisfy in order for the 83667
administrator to waive any of the requirements listed in divisions 83668
(B)(2)(a) to (j) of this section. The rules may require additional 83669
security from that employer pursuant to division (E) of section 83670
4123.351 of the Revised Code. The administrator shall not waive 83671
any of the requirements listed in divisions (B)(2)(a) to (j) of 83672
this section for a public employer who does not satisfy the 83673
criteria established in the rules the administrator adopts.83674

       (C) A board of county commissioners described in division (G) 83675
of section 4123.01 of the Revised Code, as an employer, that will 83676
abide by the rules of the administrator and that may be of 83677
sufficient financial ability to render certain the payment of 83678
compensation to injured employees or the dependents of killed 83679
employees, and the furnishing of medical, surgical, nursing, and 83680
hospital attention and services and medicines, and funeral 83681
expenses, equal to or greater than is provided for in sections 83682
4123.52, 4123.55 to 4123.62, and 4123.64 to 4123.67 of the Revised 83683
Code, and that does not desire to insure the payment thereof or 83684
indemnify itself against loss sustained by the direct payment 83685
thereof, upon a finding of such facts by the administrator, may be 83686
granted the privilege to pay individually compensation, and 83687
furnish medical, surgical, nursing, and hospital services and 83688
attention and funeral expenses directly to injured employees or 83689
the dependents of killed employees, thereby being granted status 83690
as a self-insuring employer. The administrator may charge a board 83691
of county commissioners described in division (G) of section 83692
4123.01 of the Revised Code that applies for the status as a 83693
self-insuring employer a reasonable application fee to cover the 83694
bureau's costs in connection with processing and making a 83695
determination with respect to an application. All employers 83696
granted such status shall demonstrate sufficient financial and 83697
administrative ability to assure that all obligations under this 83698
section are promptly met. The administrator shall deny the 83699
privilege where the employer is unable to demonstrate the 83700
employer's ability to promptly meet all the obligations imposed on 83701
the employer by this section. The administrator shall consider, 83702
but is not limited to, the following factors, where applicable, in 83703
determining the employer's ability to meet all of the obligations 83704
imposed on the board as an employer by this section:83705

       (1) The board as an employer employs a minimum of five 83706
hundred employees in this state;83707

       (2) The board has operated in this state for a minimum of two 83708
years;83709

       (3) Where the board previously contributed to the state 83710
insurance fund or is a successor employer as defined by bureau 83711
rules, the amount of the buyout, as defined by bureau rules;83712

       (4) The sufficiency of the board's assets located in this 83713
state to insure the board's solvency in paying compensation 83714
directly;83715

       (5) The financial records, documents, and data, certified by 83716
a certified public accountant, necessary to provide the board's 83717
full financial disclosure. The records, documents, and data 83718
include, but are not limited to, balance sheets and profit and 83719
loss history for the current year and previous four years.83720

       (6) The board's organizational plan for the administration of 83721
the workers' compensation law;83722

       (7) The board's proposed plan to inform employees of the 83723
proposed self-insurance, the procedures the board will follow as a 83724
self-insuring employer, and the employees' rights to compensation 83725
and benefits;83726

       (8) The board has either an account in a financial 83727
institution in this state, or if the board maintains an account 83728
with a financial institution outside this state, ensures that 83729
workers' compensation checks are drawn from the same account as 83730
payroll checks or the board clearly indicates that payment will be 83731
honored by a financial institution in this state;83732

       (9) The board shall provide the administrator a surety bond 83733
in an amount equal to one hundred twenty-five per cent of the 83734
projected losses as determined by the administrator.83735

       (D) The administrator shall require a surety bond from all 83736
self-insuring employers, issued pursuant to section 4123.351 of 83737
the Revised Code, that is sufficient to compel, or secure to 83738
injured employees, or to the dependents of employees killed, the 83739
payment of compensation and expenses, which shall in no event be 83740
less than that paid or furnished out of the state insurance fund 83741
in similar cases to injured employees or to dependents of killed 83742
employees whose employers contribute to the fund, except when an 83743
employee of the employer, who has suffered the loss of a hand, 83744
arm, foot, leg, or eye prior to the injury for which compensation 83745
is to be paid, and thereafter suffers the loss of any other of the 83746
members as the result of any injury sustained in the course of and 83747
arising out of the employee's employment, the compensation to be 83748
paid by the self-insuring employer is limited to the disability 83749
suffered in the subsequent injury, additional compensation, if 83750
any, to be paid by the bureau out of the surplus created by 83751
section 4123.34 of the Revised Code.83752

       (E) In addition to the requirements of this section, the 83753
administrator shall make and publish rules governing the manner of 83754
making application and the nature and extent of the proof required 83755
to justify a finding of fact by the administrator as to granting 83756
the status of a self-insuring employer, which rules shall be 83757
general in their application, one of which rules shall provide 83758
that all self-insuring employers shall pay into the state 83759
insurance fund such amounts as are required to be credited to the 83760
surplus fund in division (B) of section 4123.34 of the Revised 83761
Code. The administrator may adopt rules establishing requirements 83762
in addition to the requirements described in division (B)(2) of 83763
this section that a public employer shall meet in order to qualify 83764
for self-insuring status.83765

       Employers shall secure directly from the bureau central 83766
offices application forms upon which the bureau shall stamp a 83767
designating number. Prior to submission of an application, an 83768
employer shall make available to the bureau, and the bureau shall 83769
review, the information described in division (B)(1) of this 83770
section, and public employers shall make available, and the bureau 83771
shall review, the information necessary to verify whether the 83772
public employer meets the requirements listed in division (B)(2) 83773
of this section. An employer shall file the completed application 83774
forms with an application fee, which shall cover the costs of 83775
processing the application, as established by the administrator, 83776
by rule, with the bureau at least ninety days prior to the 83777
effective date of the employer's new status as a self-insuring 83778
employer. The application form is not deemed complete until all 83779
the required information is attached thereto. The bureau shall 83780
only accept applications that contain the required information.83781

       (F) The bureau shall review completed applications within a 83782
reasonable time. If the bureau determines to grant an employer the 83783
status as a self-insuring employer, the bureau shall issue a 83784
statement, containing its findings of fact, that is prepared by 83785
the bureau and signed by the administrator. If the bureau 83786
determines not to grant the status as a self-insuring employer, 83787
the bureau shall notify the employer of the determination and 83788
require the employer to continue to pay its full premium into the 83789
state insurance fund. The administrator also shall adopt rules 83790
establishing a minimum level of performance as a criterion for 83791
granting and maintaining the status as a self-insuring employer 83792
and fixing time limits beyond which failure of the self-insuring 83793
employer to provide for the necessary medical examinations and 83794
evaluations may not delay a decision on a claim.83795

       (G) The administrator shall adopt rules setting forth 83796
procedures for auditing the program of self-insuring employers. 83797
The bureau shall conduct the audit upon a random basis or whenever 83798
the bureau has grounds for believing that a self-insuring employer 83799
is not in full compliance with bureau rules or this chapter.83800

       The administrator shall monitor the programs conducted by 83801
self-insuring employers, to ensure compliance with bureau 83802
requirements and for that purpose, shall develop and issue to 83803
self-insuring employers standardized forms for use by the 83804
self-insuring employer in all aspects of the self-insuring 83805
employers' direct compensation program and for reporting of 83806
information to the bureau.83807

       The bureau shall receive and transmit to the self-insuring 83808
employer all complaints concerning any self-insuring employer. In 83809
the case of a complaint against a self-insuring employer, the 83810
administrator shall handle the complaint through the 83811
self-insurance division of the bureau. The bureau shall maintain a 83812
file by employer of all complaints received that relate to the 83813
employer. The bureau shall evaluate each complaint and take 83814
appropriate action.83815

       The administrator shall adopt as a rule a prohibition against 83816
any self-insuring employer from harassing, dismissing, or 83817
otherwise disciplining any employee making a complaint, which rule 83818
shall provide for a financial penalty to be levied by the 83819
administrator payable by the offending self-insuring employer.83820

       (H) For the purpose of making determinations as to whether to 83821
grant status as a self-insuring employer, the administrator may 83822
subscribe to and pay for a credit reporting service that offers 83823
financial and other business information about individual 83824
employers. The costs in connection with the bureau's subscription 83825
or individual reports from the service about an applicant may be 83826
included in the application fee charged employers under this 83827
section.83828

       (I) The administrator, notwithstanding other provisions of 83829
this chapter, may permit a self-insuring employer to resume 83830
payment of premiums to the state insurance fund with appropriate 83831
credit modifications to the employer's basic premium rate as such 83832
rate is determined pursuant to section 4123.29 of the Revised 83833
Code.83834

       (J) On the first day of July of each year, the administrator 83835
shall calculate separately each self-insuring employer's 83836
assessments for the safety and hygiene fund, administrative costs 83837
pursuant to section 4123.342 of the Revised Code, and for the 83838
portion of the surplus fund under division (B) of section 4123.34 83839
of the Revised Code that is not used for handicapped 83840
reimbursement, on the basis of the paid compensation attributable 83841
to the individual self-insuring employer according to the 83842
following calculation:83843

       (1) The total assessment against all self-insuring employers 83844
as a class for each fund and for the administrative costs for the 83845
year that the assessment is being made, as determined by the 83846
administrator, divided by the total amount of paid compensation 83847
for the previous calendar year attributable to all amenable 83848
self-insuring employers;83849

       (2) Multiply the quotient in division (J)(1) of this section 83850
by the total amount of paid compensation for the previous calendar 83851
year that is attributable to the individual self-insuring employer 83852
for whom the assessment is being determined. Each self-insuring 83853
employer shall pay the assessment that results from this 83854
calculation, unless the assessment resulting from this calculation 83855
falls below a minimum assessment, which minimum assessment the 83856
administrator shall determine on the first day of July of each 83857
year with the advice and consent of the bureau of workers' 83858
compensation board of directors, in which event, the self-insuring 83859
employer shall pay the minimum assessment.83860

       In determining the total amount due for the total assessment 83861
against all self-insuring employers as a class for each fund and 83862
the administrative assessment, the administrator shall reduce 83863
proportionately the total for each fund and assessment by the 83864
amount of money in the self-insurance assessment fund as of the 83865
date of the computation of the assessment.83866

       The administrator shall calculate the assessment for the 83867
portion of the surplus fund under division (B) of section 4123.34 83868
of the Revised Code that is used for handicapped reimbursement in 83869
the same manner as set forth in divisions (J)(1) and (2) of this 83870
section except that the administrator shall calculate the total 83871
assessment for this portion of the surplus fund only on the basis 83872
of those self-insuring employers that retain participation in the 83873
handicapped reimbursement program and the individual self-insuring 83874
employer's proportion of paid compensation shall be calculated 83875
only for those self-insuring employers who retain participation in 83876
the handicapped reimbursement program. The administrator, as the 83877
administrator determines appropriate, may determine the total 83878
assessment for the handicapped portion of the surplus fund in 83879
accordance with sound actuarial principles.83880

       The administrator shall calculate the assessment for the 83881
portion of the surplus fund under division (B) of section 4123.34 83882
of the Revised Code that under division (D) of section 4121.66 of 83883
the Revised Code is used for rehabilitation costs in the same 83884
manner as set forth in divisions (J)(1) and (2) of this section, 83885
except that the administrator shall calculate the total assessment 83886
for this portion of the surplus fund only on the basis of those 83887
self-insuring employers who have not made the election to make 83888
payments directly under division (D) of section 4121.66 of the 83889
Revised Code and an individual self-insuring employer's proportion 83890
of paid compensation only for those self-insuring employers who 83891
have not made that election.83892

       The administrator shall calculate the assessment for the 83893
portion of the surplus fund under division (B) of section 4123.34 83894
of the Revised Code that is used for reimbursement to a 83895
self-insuring employer under division (H) of section 4123.512 of 83896
the Revised Code in the same manner as set forth in divisions 83897
(J)(1) and (2) of this section except that the administrator shall 83898
calculate the total assessment for this portion of the surplus 83899
fund only on the basis of those self-insuring employers that 83900
retain participation in reimbursement to the self-insuring 83901
employer under division (H) of section 4123.512 of the Revised 83902
Code and the individual self-insuring employer's proportion of 83903
paid compensation shall be calculated only for those self-insuring 83904
employers who retain participation in reimbursement to the 83905
self-insuring employer under division (H) of section 4123.512 of 83906
the Revised Code.83907

       An employer who no longer is a self-insuring employer in this 83908
state or who no longer is operating in this state, shall continue 83909
to pay assessments for administrative costs and for the portion of 83910
the surplus fund under division (B) of section 4123.34 of the 83911
Revised Code that is not used for handicapped reimbursement, based 83912
upon paid compensation attributable to claims that occurred while 83913
the employer was a self-insuring employer within this state.83914

       (K) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 83915
self-insurance assessment fund. All investment earnings of the 83916
fund shall be deposited in the fund. The administrator shall use 83917
the money in the self-insurance assessment fund only for 83918
administrative costs as specified in section 4123.341 of the 83919
Revised Code.83920

       (L) Every self-insuring employer shall certify, in affidavit 83921
form subject to the penalty for perjury, to the bureau the amount 83922
of the self-insuring employer's paid compensation for the previous 83923
calendar year. In reporting paid compensation paid for the 83924
previous year, a self-insuring employer shall exclude from the 83925
total amount of paid compensation any reimbursement the 83926
self-insuring employer receives in the previous calendar year from 83927
the surplus fund pursuant to section 4123.512 of the Revised Code 83928
for any paid compensation. The self-insuring employer also shall 83929
exclude from the paid compensation reported any amount recovered 83930
under section 4123.931 of the Revised Code and any amount that is 83931
determined not to have been payable to or on behalf of a claimant 83932
in any final administrative or judicial proceeding. The 83933
self-insuring employer shall exclude such amounts from the paid 83934
compensation reported in the reporting period subsequent to the 83935
date the determination is made. The administrator shall adopt 83936
rules, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, that 83937
provide for all of the following:83938

       (1) Establishing the date by which self-insuring employers 83939
must submit such information and the amount of the assessments 83940
provided for in division (J) of this section for employers who 83941
have been granted self-insuring status within the last calendar 83942
year;83943

       (2) If an employer fails to pay the assessment when due, the 83944
administrator may add a late fee penalty of not more than five 83945
hundred dollars to the assessment plus an additional penalty 83946
amount as follows:83947

       (a) For an assessment from sixty-one to ninety days past due, 83948
the prime interest rate, multiplied by the assessment due;83949

       (b) For an assessment from ninety-one to one hundred twenty 83950
days past due, the prime interest rate plus two per cent, 83951
multiplied by the assessment due;83952

       (c) For an assessment from one hundred twenty-one to one 83953
hundred fifty days past due, the prime interest rate plus four per 83954
cent, multiplied by the assessment due;83955

       (d) For an assessment from one hundred fifty-one to one 83956
hundred eighty days past due, the prime interest rate plus six per 83957
cent, multiplied by the assessment due;83958

       (e) For an assessment from one hundred eighty-one to two 83959
hundred ten days past due, the prime interest rate plus eight per 83960
cent, multiplied by the assessment due;83961

       (f) For each additional thirty-day period or portion thereof 83962
that an assessment remains past due after it has remained past due 83963
for more than two hundred ten days, the prime interest rate plus 83964
eight per cent, multiplied by the assessment due.83965

        (3) An employer may appeal a late fee penalty and penalty 83966
assessment to the administrator.83967

        For purposes of division (L)(2) of this section, "prime 83968
interest rate" means the average bank prime rate, and the 83969
administrator shall determine the prime interest rate in the same 83970
manner as a county auditor determines the average bank prime rate 83971
under section 929.02 of the Revised Code.83972

       The administrator shall include any assessment and penalties 83973
that remain unpaid for previous assessment periods in the 83974
calculation and collection of any assessments due under this 83975
division or division (J) of this section.83976

       (M) As used in this section, "paid compensation" means all 83977
amounts paid by a self-insuring employer for living maintenance 83978
benefits, all amounts for compensation paid pursuant to sections 83979
4121.63, 4121.67, 4123.56, 4123.57, 4123.58, 4123.59, 4123.60, and 83980
4123.64 of the Revised Code, all amounts paid as wages in lieu of 83981
such compensation, all amounts paid in lieu of such compensation 83982
under a nonoccupational accident and sickness program fully funded 83983
by the self-insuring employer, and all amounts paid by a 83984
self-insuring employer for a violation of a specific safety 83985
standard pursuant to Section 35 of Article II, Ohio Constitution 83986
and section 4121.47 of the Revised Code.83987

       (N) Should any section of this chapter or Chapter 4121. of 83988
the Revised Code providing for self-insuring employers' 83989
assessments based upon compensation paid be declared 83990
unconstitutional by a final decision of any court, then that 83991
section of the Revised Code declared unconstitutional shall revert 83992
back to the section in existence prior to November 3, 1989, 83993
providing for assessments based upon payroll.83994

       (O) The administrator may grant a self-insuring employer the 83995
privilege to self-insure a construction project entered into by 83996
the self-insuring employer that is scheduled for completion within 83997
six years after the date the project begins, and the total cost of 83998
which is estimated to exceed one hundred million dollars or, for 83999
employers described in division (R) of this section, if the 84000
construction project is estimated to exceed twenty-five million 84001
dollars. The administrator may waive such cost and time criteria 84002
and grant a self-insuring employer the privilege to self-insure a 84003
construction project regardless of the time needed to complete the 84004
construction project and provided that the cost of the 84005
construction project is estimated to exceed fifty million dollars. 84006
A self-insuring employer who desires to self-insure a construction 84007
project shall submit to the administrator an application listing 84008
the dates the construction project is scheduled to begin and end, 84009
the estimated cost of the construction project, the contractors 84010
and subcontractors whose employees are to be self-insured by the 84011
self-insuring employer, the provisions of a safety program that is 84012
specifically designed for the construction project, and a 84013
statement as to whether a collective bargaining agreement 84014
governing the rights, duties, and obligations of each of the 84015
parties to the agreement with respect to the construction project 84016
exists between the self-insuring employer and a labor 84017
organization.84018

       A self-insuring employer may apply to self-insure the 84019
employees of either of the following:84020

       (1) All contractors and subcontractors who perform labor or 84021
work or provide materials for the construction project;84022

       (2) All contractors and, at the administrator's discretion, a 84023
substantial number of all the subcontractors who perform labor or 84024
work or provide materials for the construction project.84025

       Upon approval of the application, the administrator shall 84026
mail a certificate granting the privilege to self-insure the 84027
construction project to the self-insuring employer. The 84028
certificate shall contain the name of the self-insuring employer 84029
and the name, address, and telephone number of the self-insuring 84030
employer's representatives who are responsible for administering 84031
workers' compensation claims for the construction project. The 84032
self-insuring employer shall post the certificate in a conspicuous 84033
place at the site of the construction project.84034

       The administrator shall maintain a record of the contractors 84035
and subcontractors whose employees are covered under the 84036
certificate issued to the self-insured employer. A self-insuring 84037
employer immediately shall notify the administrator when any 84038
contractor or subcontractor is added or eliminated from inclusion 84039
under the certificate.84040

       Upon approval of the application, the self-insuring employer 84041
is responsible for the administration and payment of all claims 84042
under this chapter and Chapter 4121. of the Revised Code for the 84043
employees of the contractor and subcontractors covered under the 84044
certificate who receive injuries or are killed in the course of 84045
and arising out of employment on the construction project, or who 84046
contract an occupational disease in the course of employment on 84047
the construction project. For purposes of this chapter and Chapter 84048
4121. of the Revised Code, a claim that is administered and paid 84049
in accordance with this division is considered a claim against the 84050
self-insuring employer listed in the certificate. A contractor or 84051
subcontractor included under the certificate shall report to the 84052
self-insuring employer listed in the certificate, all claims that 84053
arise under this chapter and Chapter 4121. of the Revised Code in 84054
connection with the construction project for which the certificate 84055
is issued.84056

       A self-insuring employer who complies with this division is 84057
entitled to the protections provided under this chapter and 84058
Chapter 4121. of the Revised Code with respect to the employees of 84059
the contractors and subcontractors covered under a certificate 84060
issued under this division for death or injuries that arise out 84061
of, or death, injuries, or occupational diseases that arise in the 84062
course of, those employees' employment on that construction 84063
project, as if the employees were employees of the self-insuring 84064
employer, provided that the self-insuring employer also complies 84065
with this section. No employee of the contractors and 84066
subcontractors covered under a certificate issued under this 84067
division shall be considered the employee of the self-insuring 84068
employer listed in that certificate for any purposes other than 84069
this chapter and Chapter 4121. of the Revised Code. Nothing in 84070
this division gives a self-insuring employer authority to control 84071
the means, manner, or method of employment of the employees of the 84072
contractors and subcontractors covered under a certificate issued 84073
under this division.84074

       The contractors and subcontractors included under a 84075
certificate issued under this division are entitled to the 84076
protections provided under this chapter and Chapter 4121. of the 84077
Revised Code with respect to the contractor's or subcontractor's 84078
employees who are employed on the construction project which is 84079
the subject of the certificate, for death or injuries that arise 84080
out of, or death, injuries, or occupational diseases that arise in 84081
the course of, those employees' employment on that construction 84082
project.84083

       The contractors and subcontractors included under a 84084
certificate issued under this division shall identify in their 84085
payroll records the employees who are considered the employees of 84086
the self-insuring employer listed in that certificate for purposes 84087
of this chapter and Chapter 4121. of the Revised Code, and the 84088
amount that those employees earned for employment on the 84089
construction project that is the subject of that certificate. 84090
Notwithstanding any provision to the contrary under this chapter 84091
and Chapter 4121. of the Revised Code, the administrator shall 84092
exclude the payroll that is reported for employees who are 84093
considered the employees of the self-insuring employer listed in 84094
that certificate, and that the employees earned for employment on 84095
the construction project that is the subject of that certificate, 84096
when determining those contractors' or subcontractors' premiums or 84097
assessments required under this chapter and Chapter 4121. of the 84098
Revised Code. A self-insuring employer issued a certificate under 84099
this division shall include in the amount of paid compensation it 84100
reports pursuant to division (L) of this section, the amount of 84101
paid compensation the self-insuring employer paid pursuant to this 84102
division for the previous calendar year.84103

       Nothing in this division shall be construed as altering the 84104
rights of employees under this chapter and Chapter 4121. of the 84105
Revised Code as those rights existed prior to September 17, 1996. 84106
Nothing in this division shall be construed as altering the rights 84107
devolved under sections 2305.31 and 4123.82 of the Revised Code as 84108
those rights existed prior to September 17, 1996.84109

       As used in this division, "privilege to self-insure a 84110
construction project" means privilege to pay individually 84111
compensation, and to furnish medical, surgical, nursing, and 84112
hospital services and attention and funeral expenses directly to 84113
injured employees or the dependents of killed employees.84114

       (P) A self-insuring employer whose application is granted 84115
under division (O) of this section shall designate a safety 84116
professional to be responsible for the administration and 84117
enforcement of the safety program that is specifically designed 84118
for the construction project that is the subject of the 84119
application.84120

       A self-insuring employer whose application is granted under 84121
division (O) of this section shall employ an ombudsperson for the 84122
construction project that is the subject of the application. The 84123
ombudsperson shall have experience in workers' compensation or the 84124
construction industry, or both. The ombudsperson shall perform all 84125
of the following duties:84126

       (1) Communicate with and provide information to employees who 84127
are injured in the course of, or whose injury arises out of 84128
employment on the construction project, or who contract an 84129
occupational disease in the course of employment on the 84130
construction project;84131

       (2) Investigate the status of a claim upon the request of an 84132
employee to do so;84133

       (3) Provide information to claimants, third party 84134
administrators, employers, and other persons to assist those 84135
persons in protecting their rights under this chapter and Chapter 84136
4121. of the Revised Code.84137

       A self-insuring employer whose application is granted under 84138
division (O) of this section shall post the name of the safety 84139
professional and the ombudsperson and instructions for contacting 84140
the safety professional and the ombudsperson in a conspicuous 84141
place at the site of the construction project.84142

       (Q) The administrator may consider all of the following when 84143
deciding whether to grant a self-insuring employer the privilege 84144
to self-insure a construction project as provided under division 84145
(O) of this section:84146

       (1) Whether the self-insuring employer has an organizational 84147
plan for the administration of the workers' compensation law;84148

       (2) Whether the safety program that is specifically designed 84149
for the construction project provides for the safety of employees 84150
employed on the construction project, is applicable to all 84151
contractors and subcontractors who perform labor or work or 84152
provide materials for the construction project, and has as a 84153
component, a safety training program that complies with standards 84154
adopted pursuant to the "Occupational Safety and Health Act of 84155
1970," 84 Stat. 1590, 29 U.S.C.A. 651, and provides for continuing 84156
management and employee involvement;84157

       (3) Whether granting the privilege to self-insure the 84158
construction project will reduce the costs of the construction 84159
project;84160

       (4) Whether the self-insuring employer has employed an 84161
ombudsperson as required under division (P) of this section;84162

       (5) Whether the self-insuring employer has sufficient surety 84163
to secure the payment of claims for which the self-insuring 84164
employer would be responsible pursuant to the granting of the 84165
privilege to self-insure a construction project under division (O) 84166
of this section.84167

       (R) As used in divisions (O), (P), and (Q), "self-insuring 84168
employer" includes the following employers, whether or not they 84169
have been granted the status of being a self-insuring employer 84170
under division (B) of this section:84171

        (1) A state institution of higher education;84172

        (2) A school district;84173

        (3) A county school financing district;84174

        (4) An educational service center;84175

        (5) A community school established under Chapter 3314. of the 84176
Revised Code;84177

       (6) A municipal power agency as defined in section 3734.058 84178
of the Revised Code.84179

        (S) As used in this section:84180

       (1) "Unvoted debt capacity" means the amount of money that a 84181
public employer may borrow without voter approval of a tax levy;84182

       (2) "State institution of higher education" means the state 84183
universities listed in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, 84184
community colleges created pursuant to Chapter 3354. of the 84185
Revised Code, university branches created pursuant to Chapter 84186
3355. of the Revised Code, technical colleges created pursuant to 84187
Chapter 3357. of the Revised Code, and state community colleges 84188
created pursuant to Chapter 3358. of the Revised Code.84189

       Sec. 4123.41.  (A) By the first day of January of each year, 84190
the bureau of workers' compensation shall furnish to the county 84191
auditor of each county and the chief fiscal officer of each taxing 84192
district in a county and of each district activity and institution 84193
mentioned in section 4123.39 of the Revised Code forms containing 84194
the premium rates applicable to the county, district, district 84195
activity, or institution as an employer, on which to report the 84196
amount of money expended by the county, district, district 84197
activity, or institution during the previous twelve calendar 84198
months for the services of employees under this chapter.84199

       (B) Each county auditor and each fiscal officer of a 84200
district, district activity, and institution shall calculate on 84201
the form it receives from the bureau under division (A) of this 84202
section the premium due as its proper contribution to the public 84203
insurance fund and issue a warrant in favor of the bureau for the 84204
amount due from the county, district, district activity, or 84205
institution to the public insurance fund according to the 84206
following schedule:84207

       (1) On or before the fifteenth day of May of each year, no 84208
less than forty-five per cent of the amount due;84209

       (2) On or before the first day of September of each year, no 84210
less than the total amount due.84211

       (C) The legislative body of any county, district, district 84212
activity, or institution may reimburse the fund from which the 84213
workers' compensation payments are made by transferring to the 84214
fund from any other fund of the county, district, district 84215
activity, or institution, the proportionate amount of the payments 84216
that should be chargeable to the fund, whether the fund is derived 84217
from taxation or otherwise. The proportionate amount of the 84218
payments chargeable to the fund may be based on payroll, relative 84219
exposure, relative loss experience, or any combination of these 84220
factors, as determined by the legislative body. 84221

       (1) The workers' compensation program payments of any county, 84222
district, district activity, or institution may include all 84223
payments required by any bureau of workers' compensation rating 84224
plan.84225

       (2) The workers' compensation program payments of any county, 84226
district, district activity, or institution, except for a county 84227
board of developmental disabilities, a board of alcohol, drug 84228
addiction, and mental health services, a board of mental health 84229
services, and a board of alcohol and drug addiction services, also 84230
may include any of the following:84231

       (a) Direct administrative costs incurred in the management of 84232
the county, district, district activity, or institution's workers' 84233
compensation program;84234

       (b) Indirect costs that are necessary and reasonable for the 84235
proper and efficient administration of the workers' compensation 84236
program as documented in a cost allocation plan. The indirect cost 84237
plan shall conform to the United States office of management and 84238
budget circular A-87 "cost principles for state and local 84239
governments," 2 C.F.R. 225, as most recently amended on May 10, 84240
2004. The plan shall not authorize payment from the fund of any 84241
general government expense required to carry out the overall 84242
governmental responsibilities.84243

       (3) Within sixty days before a legislative body changes the 84244
method used for calculating the proportionate amount of the 84245
payments chargeable to the fund, it shall notify, consult with, 84246
and give information supporting the change to any elected official 84247
affected by the change. A transfer made pursuant to division 84248
(B)(2) of this section is not subject to section 5705.16 of the 84249
Revised Code.84250

       (D) Any county board of developmental disabilities, board of 84251
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, board of 84252
mental health services, or board of alcohol and drug addiction 84253
services whose workers' compensation payments, on or before the 84254
effective date of this sectionSeptember 28, 2012, includes costs 84255
referred to in division (C)(2) of this section may continue to do 84256
so on and after the effective date of this amendmentSeptember 84257
28, 2012.84258

       (E) The bureau may investigate the correctness of the 84259
information provided by the county auditor and chief fiscal 84260
officer under division (B) of this section, and if the bureau 84261
determines at any time that the county, district, district 84262
activity, or institution has not reported the correct information, 84263
the administrator of workers' compensation may make deductions or 84264
additions as the facts warrant and take those facts into 84265
consideration in determining the current or future contributions 84266
to be made by the county, district, district activity, or 84267
institution. If the county, district, district activity, or 84268
institution does not furnish the report in the time required by 84269
this section, the administrator may fix the amount of contribution 84270
the county, district, district activity, or institution must make 84271
and certify that amount for payment.84272

       (F) The administrator shall provide a discount to any county, 84273
district, district activity, or institution that pays its total 84274
amount due to the public insurance fund on or before the fifteenth 84275
day of May of each year as its proper contribution for premiums. 84276
The administrator shall base the discount provided under this 84277
division on the savings generated by the early payment to the 84278
public insurance fund. The administrator may provide the discount 84279
through a refund to the county, district, district activity, or 84280
institution or an offset against the future contributions due to 84281
the public insurance fund from the county, district, district 84282
activity, or institution.84283

       (G) The administrator may impose an interest penalty for late 84284
payment of any amount due from a county, district, district 84285
activity, and institution at the interest rate established by the 84286
state tax commissioner pursuant to section 5703.47 of the Revised 84287
Code.84288

       (H) If the administrator adopts rules for the prospective 84289
payment of premium as permitted under section 4123.322 of the 84290
Revised Code, every employer mentioned in division (B)(1) of 84291
section 4123.01 of the Revised Code, except for a state agency or 84292
a state university or college as defined in section 4123.32 of the 84293
Revised Code, shall pay into the state insurance fund the amount 84294
of premium the administrator fixes for the employment or 84295
occupation of the employer, the amount of which premium to be paid 84296
by each employer to be determined by the classifications, rules, 84297
and rates made and published by the administrator and based upon 84298
the estimates and reconciliations required by the rules the 84299
administrator adopts under section 4123.322 of the Revised Code.84300

       Sec. 4123.57.  Partial disability compensation shall be paid 84301
as follows.84302

       Except as provided in this section, not earlier than 84303
twenty-six weeks after the date of termination of the latest 84304
period of payments under section 4123.56 of the Revised Code, or 84305
not earlier than twenty-six weeks after the date of the injury or 84306
contraction of an occupational disease in the absence of payments 84307
under section 4123.56 of the Revised Code, the employee may file 84308
an application with the bureau of workers' compensation for the 84309
determination of the percentage of the employee's permanent 84310
partial disability resulting from an injury or occupational 84311
disease.84312

       Whenever the application is filed, the bureau shall send a 84313
copy of the application to the employee's employer or the 84314
employer's representative and shall schedule the employee for a 84315
medical examination by the bureau medical section. The bureau 84316
shall send a copy of the report of the medical examination to the 84317
employee, the employer, and their representatives. Thereafter, the 84318
administrator of workers' compensation shall review the employee's 84319
claim file and make a tentative order as the evidence before the 84320
administrator at the time of the making of the order warrants. If 84321
the administrator determines that there is a conflict of evidence, 84322
the administrator shall send the application, along with the 84323
claimant's file, to the district hearing officer who shall set the 84324
application for a hearing.84325

       The administrator shall notify the employee, the employer, 84326
and their representatives, in writing, of the tentative order and 84327
of the parties' right to request a hearing. Unless the employee, 84328
the employer, or their representative notifies the administrator, 84329
in writing, of an objection to the tentative order within twenty 84330
days after receipt of the notice thereof, the tentative order 84331
shall go into effect and the employee shall receive the 84332
compensation provided in the order. In no event shall there be a 84333
reconsideration of a tentative order issued under this division.84334

       If the employee, the employer, or their representatives 84335
timely notify the administrator of an objection to the tentative 84336
order, the matter shall be referred to a district hearing officer 84337
who shall set the application for hearing with written notices to 84338
all interested persons. Upon referral to a district hearing 84339
officer, the employer may obtain a medical examination of the 84340
employee, pursuant to rules of the industrial commission.84341

       (A) The district hearing officer, upon the application, shall 84342
determine the percentage of the employee's permanent disability, 84343
except as is subject to division (B) of this section, based upon 84344
that condition of the employee resulting from the injury or 84345
occupational disease and causing permanent impairment evidenced by 84346
medical or clinical findings reasonably demonstrable. The employee 84347
shall receive sixty-six and two-thirds per cent of the employee's 84348
average weekly wage, but not more than a maximum of thirty-three 84349
and one-third per cent of the statewide average weekly wage as 84350
defined in division (C) of section 4123.62 of the Revised Code, 84351
per week regardless of the average weekly wage, for the number of 84352
weeks which equals the percentage of two hundred weeks. Except on 84353
application for reconsideration, review, or modification, which is 84354
filed within ten days after the date of receipt of the decision of 84355
the district hearing officer, in no instance shall the former 84356
award be modified unless it is found from medical or clinical 84357
findings that the condition of the claimant resulting from the 84358
injury has so progressed as to have increased the percentage of 84359
permanent partial disability. A staff hearing officer shall hear 84360
an application for reconsideration filed and the staff hearing 84361
officer's decision is final. An employee may file an application 84362
for a subsequent determination of the percentage of the employee's 84363
permanent disability. If such an application is filed, the bureau 84364
shall send a copy of the application to the employer or the 84365
employer's representative. No sooner than sixty days from the date 84366
of the mailing of the application to the employer or the 84367
employer's representative, the administrator shall review the 84368
application. The administrator may require a medical examination 84369
or medical review of the employee. The administrator shall issue a 84370
tentative order based upon the evidence before the administrator, 84371
provided that if the administrator requires a medical examination 84372
or medical review, the administrator shall not issue the tentative 84373
order until the completion of the examination or review.84374

       The employer may obtain a medical examination of the employee 84375
and may submit medical evidence at any stage of the process up to 84376
a hearing before the district hearing officer, pursuant to rules 84377
of the commission. The administrator shall notify the employee, 84378
the employer, and their representatives, in writing, of the nature 84379
and amount of any tentative order issued on an application 84380
requesting a subsequent determination of the percentage of an 84381
employee's permanent disability. An employee, employer, or their 84382
representatives may object to the tentative order within twenty 84383
days after the receipt of the notice thereof. If no timely 84384
objection is made, the tentative order shall go into effect. In no 84385
event shall there be a reconsideration of a tentative order issued 84386
under this division. If an objection is timely made, the 84387
application for a subsequent determination shall be referred to a 84388
district hearing officer who shall set the application for a 84389
hearing with written notice to all interested persons. No 84390
application for subsequent percentage determinations on the same 84391
claim for injury or occupational disease shall be accepted for 84392
review by the district hearing officer unless supported by 84393
substantial evidence of new and changed circumstances developing 84394
since the time of the hearing on the original or last 84395
determination.84396

       No award shall be made under this division based upon a 84397
percentage of disability which, when taken with all other 84398
percentages of permanent disability, exceeds one hundred per cent. 84399
If the percentage of the permanent disability of the employee 84400
equals or exceeds ninety per cent, compensation for permanent 84401
partial disability shall be paid for two hundred weeks.84402

       Compensation payable under this division accrues and is 84403
payable to the employee from the date of last payment of 84404
compensation, or, in cases where no previous compensation has been 84405
paid, from the date of the injury or the date of the diagnosis of 84406
the occupational disease.84407

       When an award under this division has been made prior to the 84408
death of an employee, all unpaid installments accrued or to accrue 84409
under the provisions of the award are payable to the surviving 84410
spouse, or if there is no surviving spouse, to the dependent 84411
children of the employee, and if there are no children surviving, 84412
then to other dependents as the administrator determines.84413

       (B) For purposes of this division, "payable per week" means 84414
the seven-consecutive-day period in which compensation is paid in 84415
installments according to the schedule associated with the 84416
applicable injury as set forth in this division.84417

        Compensation paid in weekly installments according to the 84418
schedule described in this division may only be commuted to one or 84419
more lump-sumlump sum payments pursuant to the procedure set 84420
forth in section 4123.64 of the Revised Code. 84421

       In cases included in the following schedule the compensation 84422
payable per week to the employee is the statewide average weekly 84423
wage as defined in division (C) of section 4123.62 of the Revised 84424
Code per week and shall be paid in installments according to the 84425
following schedule:84426

       For the loss of a first finger, commonly known as a thumb, 84427
sixty weeks.84428

       For the loss of a second finger, commonly called index 84429
finger, thirty-five weeks.84430

       For the loss of a third finger, thirty weeks.84431

       For the loss of a fourth finger, twenty weeks.84432

       For the loss of a fifth finger, commonly known as the little 84433
finger, fifteen weeks.84434

       The loss of a second, or distal, phalange of the thumb is 84435
considered equal to the loss of one half of such thumb; the loss 84436
of more than one half of such thumb is considered equal to the 84437
loss of the whole thumb.84438

       The loss of the third, or distal, phalange of any finger is 84439
considered equal to the loss of one-third of the finger.84440

       The loss of the middle, or second, phalange of any finger is 84441
considered equal to the loss of two-thirds of the finger.84442

       The loss of more than the middle and distal phalanges of any 84443
finger is considered equal to the loss of the whole finger. In no 84444
case shall the amount received for more than one finger exceed the 84445
amount provided in this schedule for the loss of a hand.84446

       For the loss of the metacarpal bone (bones of the palm) for 84447
the corresponding thumb, or fingers, add ten weeks to the number 84448
of weeks under this division.84449

       For ankylosis (total stiffness of) or contractures (due to 84450
scars or injuries) which makes any of the fingers, thumbs, or 84451
parts of either useless, the same number of weeks apply to the 84452
members or parts thereof as given for the loss thereof.84453

       If the claimant has suffered the loss of two or more fingers 84454
by amputation or ankylosis and the nature of the claimant's 84455
employment in the course of which the claimant was working at the 84456
time of the injury or occupational disease is such that the 84457
handicap or disability resulting from the loss of fingers, or loss 84458
of use of fingers, exceeds the normal handicap or disability 84459
resulting from the loss of fingers, or loss of use of fingers, the 84460
administrator may take that fact into consideration and increase 84461
the award of compensation accordingly, but the award made shall 84462
not exceed the amount of compensation for loss of a hand.84463

       For the loss of a hand, one hundred seventy-five weeks.84464

       For the loss of an arm, two hundred twenty-five weeks.84465

       For the loss of a great toe, thirty weeks.84466

       For the loss of one of the toes other than the great toe, ten 84467
weeks.84468

       The loss of more than two-thirds of any toe is considered 84469
equal to the loss of the whole toe.84470

       The loss of less than two-thirds of any toe is considered no 84471
loss, except as to the great toe; the loss of the great toe up to 84472
the interphalangeal joint is co-equal to the loss of one-half of 84473
the great toe; the loss of the great toe beyond the 84474
interphalangeal joint is considered equal to the loss of the whole 84475
great toe.84476

       For the loss of a foot, one hundred fifty weeks.84477

       For the loss of a leg, two hundred weeks.84478

       For the loss of the sight of an eye, one hundred twenty-five 84479
weeks.84480

       For the permanent partial loss of sight of an eye, the 84481
portion of one hundred twenty-five weeks as the administrator in 84482
each case determines, based upon the percentage of vision actually 84483
lost as a result of the injury or occupational disease, but, in no 84484
case shall an award of compensation be made for less than 84485
twenty-five per cent loss of uncorrected vision. "Loss of 84486
uncorrected vision" means the percentage of vision actually lost 84487
as the result of the injury or occupational disease.84488

       For the permanent and total loss of hearing of one ear, 84489
twenty-five weeks; but in no case shall an award of compensation 84490
be made for less than permanent and total loss of hearing of one 84491
ear.84492

       For the permanent and total loss of hearing, one hundred 84493
twenty-five weeks; but, except pursuant to the next preceding 84494
paragraph, in no case shall an award of compensation be made for 84495
less than permanent and total loss of hearing.84496

       In case an injury or occupational disease results in serious 84497
facial or head disfigurement which either impairs or may in the 84498
future impair the opportunities to secure or retain employment, 84499
the administrator shall make an award of compensation as it deems 84500
proper and equitable, in view of the nature of the disfigurement, 84501
and not to exceed the sum of ten thousand dollars. For the purpose 84502
of making the award, it is not material whether the employee is 84503
gainfully employed in any occupation or trade at the time of the 84504
administrator's determination.84505

       When an award under this division has been made prior to the 84506
death of an employee all unpaid installments accrued or to accrue 84507
under the provisions of the award shall be payable to the 84508
surviving spouse, or if there is no surviving spouse, to the 84509
dependent children of the employee and if there are no such 84510
children, then to such dependents as the administrator determines.84511

       When an employee has sustained the loss of a member by 84512
severance, but no award has been made on account thereof prior to 84513
the employee's death, the administrator shall make an award in 84514
accordance with this division for the loss which shall be payable 84515
to the surviving spouse, or if there is no surviving spouse, to 84516
the dependent children of the employee and if there are no such 84517
children, then to such dependents as the administrator determines.84518

       (C) Compensation for partial impairment under divisions (A) 84519
and (B) of this section is in addition to the compensation paid 84520
the employee pursuant to section 4123.56 of the Revised Code. A 84521
claimant may receive compensation under divisions (A) and (B) of 84522
this section.84523

       In all cases arising under division (B) of this section, if 84524
it is determined by any one of the following: (1) the amputee 84525
clinic at University hospital, Ohio state university; (2) the 84526
rehabilitation services commissionopportunities for Ohioans with 84527
disabilities agency; (3) an amputee clinic or prescribing 84528
physician approved by the administrator or the administrator's 84529
designee, that an injured or disabled employee is in need of an 84530
artificial appliance, or in need of a repair thereof, regardless 84531
of whether the appliance or its repair will be serviceable in the 84532
vocational rehabilitation of the injured employee, and regardless 84533
of whether the employee has returned to or can ever again return 84534
to any gainful employment, the bureau shall pay the cost of the 84535
artificial appliance or its repair out of the surplus created by 84536
division (B) of section 4123.34 of the Revised Code.84537

       In those cases where a rehabilitation services commissionan 84538
opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities agency recommendation 84539
that an injured or disabled employee is in need of an artificial 84540
appliance would conflict with their state plan, adopted pursuant 84541
to the "Rehabilitation Act of 1973," 87 Stat. 355, 29 U.S.C.A. 84542
701, the administrator or the administrator's designee or the 84543
bureau may obtain a recommendation from an amputee clinic or 84544
prescribing physician that they determine appropriate.84545

       (D) If an employee of a state fund employer makes application 84546
for a finding and the administrator finds that the employee has 84547
contracted silicosis as defined in division (X), or coal miners' 84548
pneumoconiosis as defined in division (Y), or asbestosis as 84549
defined in division (AA) of section 4123.68 of the Revised Code, 84550
and that a change of such employee's occupation is medically 84551
advisable in order to decrease substantially further exposure to 84552
silica dust, asbestos, or coal dust and if the employee, after the 84553
finding, has changed or shall change the employee's occupation to 84554
an occupation in which the exposure to silica dust, asbestos, or 84555
coal dust is substantially decreased, the administrator shall 84556
allow to the employee an amount equal to fifty per cent of the 84557
statewide average weekly wage per week for a period of thirty 84558
weeks, commencing as of the date of the discontinuance or change, 84559
and for a period of one hundred weeks immediately following the 84560
expiration of the period of thirty weeks, the employee shall 84561
receive sixty-six and two-thirds per cent of the loss of wages 84562
resulting directly and solely from the change of occupation but 84563
not to exceed a maximum of an amount equal to fifty per cent of 84564
the statewide average weekly wage per week. No such employee is 84565
entitled to receive more than one allowance on account of 84566
discontinuance of employment or change of occupation and benefits 84567
shall cease for any period during which the employee is employed 84568
in an occupation in which the exposure to silica dust, asbestos, 84569
or coal dust is not substantially less than the exposure in the 84570
occupation in which the employee was formerly employed or for any 84571
period during which the employee may be entitled to receive 84572
compensation or benefits under section 4123.68 of the Revised Code 84573
on account of disability from silicosis, asbestosis, or coal 84574
miners' pneumoconiosis. An award for change of occupation for a 84575
coal miner who has contracted coal miners' pneumoconiosis may be 84576
granted under this division even though the coal miner continues 84577
employment with the same employer, so long as the coal miner's 84578
employment subsequent to the change is such that the coal miner's 84579
exposure to coal dust is substantially decreased and a change of 84580
occupation is certified by the claimant as permanent. The 84581
administrator may accord to the employee medical and other 84582
benefits in accordance with section 4123.66 of the Revised Code.84583

       (E) If a firefighter or police officer makes application for 84584
a finding and the administrator finds that the firefighter or 84585
police officer has contracted a cardiovascular and pulmonary 84586
disease as defined in division (W) of section 4123.68 of the 84587
Revised Code, and that a change of the firefighter's or police 84588
officer's occupation is medically advisable in order to decrease 84589
substantially further exposure to smoke, toxic gases, chemical 84590
fumes, and other toxic vapors, and if the firefighter, or police 84591
officer, after the finding, has changed or changes occupation to 84592
an occupation in which the exposure to smoke, toxic gases, 84593
chemical fumes, and other toxic vapors is substantially decreased, 84594
the administrator shall allow to the firefighter or police officer 84595
an amount equal to fifty per cent of the statewide average weekly 84596
wage per week for a period of thirty weeks, commencing as of the 84597
date of the discontinuance or change, and for a period of 84598
seventy-five weeks immediately following the expiration of the 84599
period of thirty weeks the administrator shall allow the 84600
firefighter or police officer sixty-six and two-thirds per cent of 84601
the loss of wages resulting directly and solely from the change of 84602
occupation but not to exceed a maximum of an amount equal to fifty 84603
per cent of the statewide average weekly wage per week. No such 84604
firefighter or police officer is entitled to receive more than one 84605
allowance on account of discontinuance of employment or change of 84606
occupation and benefits shall cease for any period during which 84607
the firefighter or police officer is employed in an occupation in 84608
which the exposure to smoke, toxic gases, chemical fumes, and 84609
other toxic vapors is not substantially less than the exposure in 84610
the occupation in which the firefighter or police officer was 84611
formerly employed or for any period during which the firefighter 84612
or police officer may be entitled to receive compensation or 84613
benefits under section 4123.68 of the Revised Code on account of 84614
disability from a cardiovascular and pulmonary disease. The 84615
administrator may accord to the firefighter or police officer 84616
medical and other benefits in accordance with section 4123.66 of 84617
the Revised Code.84618

       (F) An order issued under this section is appealable pursuant 84619
to section 4123.511 of the Revised Code but is not appealable to 84620
court under section 4123.512 of the Revised Code.84621

       Sec. 4123.93.  As used in sections 4123.93 and 4123.931 of 84622
the Revised Code:84623

       (A) "Claimant" means a person who is eligible to receive 84624
compensation, medical benefits, or death benefits under this 84625
chapter or Chapter 4121., 4127., or 4131. of the Revised Code.84626

       (B) "Statutory subrogee" means the administrator of workers' 84627
compensation, a self-insuring employer, or an employer that 84628
contracts for the direct payment of medical services pursuant to 84629
division (L)(P) of section 4121.44 of the Revised Code.84630

       (C) "Third party" means an individual, private insurer, 84631
public or private entity, or public or private program that is or 84632
may be liable to make payments to a person without regard to any 84633
statutory duty contained in this chapter or Chapter 4121., 4127., 84634
or 4131. of the Revised Code.84635

       (D) "Subrogation interest" includes past, present, and 84636
estimated future payments of compensation, medical benefits, 84637
rehabilitation costs, or death benefits, and any other costs or 84638
expenses paid to or on behalf of the claimant by the statutory 84639
subrogee pursuant to this chapter or Chapter 4121., 4127., or 84640
4131. of the Revised Code.84641

       (E) "Net amount recovered" means the amount of any award, 84642
settlement, compromise, or recovery by a claimant against a third 84643
party, minus the attorney's fees, costs, or other expenses 84644
incurred by the claimant in securing the award, settlement, 84645
compromise, or recovery. "Net amount recovered" does not include 84646
any punitive damages that may be awarded by a judge or jury.84647

       (F) "Uncompensated damages" means the claimant's demonstrated 84648
or proven damages minus the statutory subrogee's subrogation 84649
interest.84650

       Sec. 4131.03.  (A) For the relief of persons who are entitled 84651
to receive benefits by virtue of the federal act, there is hereby 84652
established a coal-workers pneumoconiosis fund, which shall be 84653
separate from the funds established and administered pursuant to 84654
Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code. The fund shall consist of 84655
premiums and other payments thereto by subscribers who elect to 84656
subscribe to the fund to insure the payment of benefits required 84657
by the federal act.84658

       (B)(1) The coal-workers pneumoconiosis fund shall be in the 84659
custody of the treasurer of state. The bureau of workers' 84660
compensation shall make disbursements from the fund to those 84661
persons entitled to payment therefrom and in the amounts required 84662
pursuant to sections 4131.01 to 4131.06 of the Revised Code. All 84663
investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund.84664

       (2) Beginning July 1, 2011, and ending June 30, 2013, the 84665
director of natural resources annually may request the 84666
administrator of workers' compensation to transfer a portion of 84667
the investment earnings credited to the coal-workers 84668
pneumoconiosis fund as provided in this division. If the 84669
administrator receives a request from the director, the 84670
administrator, on the first day of July, or as soon as possible 84671
after that date, shall transfer from the investment earnings 84672
credited to the coal-workers pneumoconiosis fund an amount not to 84673
exceed three million dollars to the mine safety fund created in 84674
section 1561.24 of the Revised Code for the purposes specified in 84675
that section and an amount not to exceed one million five hundred 84676
thousand dollars to the coal mining administration and reclamation 84677
reserve fund created in section 1513.181 of the Revised Code for 84678
the purposes specified in that section. The administrator, with 84679
the advice and consent of the bureau of workers' compensation 84680
board of directors, shall adopt rules governing the transfer in 84681
order to ensure the solvency of the coal-workers pneumoconiosis 84682
fund. For that purpose, the rules may establish tests based on 84683
measures of net assets, liabilities, expenses, interest, dividend 84684
income, or other factors that the administrator determines 84685
appropriate that may be applied prior to a transfer. 84686

       (C) The administrator shall have the same powers to invest 84687
any of the surplus or reserve belonging to the coal-workers 84688
pneumoconiosis fund as are delegated to the administrator under 84689
section 4123.44 of the Revised Code with respect to the state 84690
insurance fund.84691

       (D) If the administrator determines that reinsurance of the 84692
risks of the coal-workers pneumoconiosis fund is necessary to 84693
assure solvency of the fund, the administrator may:84694

       (1) Enter into contracts for the purchase of reinsurance 84695
coverage of the risks of the fund with any company or agency 84696
authorized by law to issue contracts of reinsurance;84697

       (2) Pay the cost of reinsurance from the fund;84698

       (3) Include the costs of reinsurance as a liability and 84699
estimated liability of the fund.84700

       Sec. 4141.162.  (A) The director of job and family services 84701
shall establish an income and eligibility verification system that 84702
complies with section 1137 of the "Social Security Act." The 84703
programs included in the system are all of the following:84704

       (1) Unemployment compensation pursuant to section 3304 of the 84705
"Internal Revenue Code of 1954";84706

       (2) The state programs funded in part under part A of Title 84707
IV of the "Social Security Act" and administered under Chapters 84708
5107. and 5108. of the Revised Code;84709

       (3) Medicaid pursuant to Title XIX of the "Social Security 84710
Act"The medicaid program;84711

       (4) The supplemental nutrition assistance program pursuant to 84712
the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008 (7 U.S.C. 2011 et seq.;84713

       (5) Any Ohio program under a plan approved under Title I, X, 84714
XIV, or XVI of the "Social Security Act."84715

       Wage information provided by employers to the director shall 84716
be furnished to the income and eligibility verification system. 84717
Such information shall be used by the director to determine 84718
eligibility of individuals for unemployment compensation benefits 84719
and the amount of those benefits and used by the agencies that 84720
administer the programs identified in divisions (A)(2) to (5) of 84721
this section to determine or verify eligibility for or the amount 84722
of benefits under those programs.84723

       The director shall fully implement the use of wage 84724
information to determine eligibility for and the amount of 84725
unemployment compensation benefits by September 30, 1988.84726

       Information furnished under the system shall also be made 84727
available to the appropriate state or local child support 84728
enforcement agency for the purposes of an approved plan under 84729
Title IV-D of the "Social Security Act" and to the appropriate 84730
federal agency for the purposes of Titles II and XVI of the 84731
"Social Security Act."84732

       (B) The director shall adopt rules as necessary under which 84733
the department of job and family services and other state agencies 84734
that the director determines must participate in order to ensure 84735
compliance with section 1137 of the "Social Security Act" exchange 84736
information with each other or authorized federal agencies about 84737
individuals who are applicants for or recipients of benefits under 84738
any of the programs enumerated in division (A) of this section. 84739
The rules shall extend to all of the following:84740

       (1) A requirement for standardized formats and procedures for 84741
a participating agency to request and receive information about an 84742
individual, which information shall include the individual's 84743
social security number;84744

       (2) A requirement that all applicants for and recipients of 84745
benefits under any program enumerated in division (A) of this 84746
section be notified at the time of application, and periodically 84747
thereafter, that information available through the system may be 84748
shared with agencies that administer other benefit programs and 84749
utilized in establishing or verifying eligibility or benefit 84750
amounts under the other programs enumerated in division (A) of 84751
this section;84752

       (3) A requirement that information is made available only to 84753
the extent necessary to assist in the valid administrative needs 84754
of the program receiving the information and is targeted for use 84755
in ways which are most likely to be productive in identifying and 84756
preventing ineligibility and incorrect payments;84757

       (4) A requirement that information is adequately protected 84758
against unauthorized disclosures for purposes other than to 84759
establish or verify eligibility or benefit amounts under the 84760
programs enumerated in division (A) of this section;84761

       (5) A requirement that a program providing information is 84762
reimbursed by the program using the information for the actual 84763
costs of furnishing the information and that the director be 84764
reimbursed by the participating programs for any actual costs 84765
incurred in operating the system;84766

       (6) Requirements for any other matters necessary to ensure 84767
the effective, efficient, and timely exchange of necessary 84768
information or that the director determines must be addressed in 84769
order to ensure compliance with the requirements of section 1137 84770
of the "Social Security Act."84771

       (C) Each participating agency shall furnish to the income and 84772
eligibility verification system established in division (A) of 84773
this section that information, which the director, by rule, 84774
determines is necessary in order to comply with section 1137 of 84775
the "Social Security Act."84776

       (D) Notwithstanding the information disclosure requirements 84777
of this section and section 4141.21 and division (A) of section 84778
4141.284 of the Revised Code, the director shall administer those 84779
provisions of law so as to comply with section 1137 of the "Social 84780
Security Act."84781

       (E) Requirements in section 4141.21 of the Revised Code with 84782
respect to confidentiality of information obtained in the 84783
administration of Chapter 4141. of the Revised Code and any 84784
sanctions imposed for improper disclosure of such information 84785
shall apply to the redisclosure of information disclosed under 84786
this section.84787

       (F) The director of job and family services shall consult 84788
with the medicaid director and the director of administrative 84789
services regarding the implementation of this section.84790

       Sec. 4141.29.  Each eligible individual shall receive 84791
benefits as compensation for loss of remuneration due to 84792
involuntary total or partial unemployment in the amounts and 84793
subject to the conditions stipulated in this chapter.84794

       (A) No individual is entitled to a waiting period or benefits 84795
for any week unless the individual:84796

       (1) Has filed a valid application for determination of 84797
benefit rights in accordance with section 4141.28 of the Revised 84798
Code;84799

       (2) Has made a claim for benefits in accordance with section 84800
4141.28 of the Revised Code;84801

       (3) Has registered at an employment office or other 84802
registration place maintained or designated by the director of job 84803
and family services. Registration shall be made in accordance with 84804
the time limits, frequency, and manner prescribed by the director.84805

       (4)(a)(i) Is able to work and available for suitable work 84806
and, except as provided in division (A)(4)(a)(ii) of this section, 84807
is actively seeking suitable work either in a locality in which 84808
the individual has earned wages subject to this chapter during the 84809
individual's base period, or if the individual leaves that 84810
locality, then in a locality where suitable work normally is 84811
performed.84812

       (ii) The director may waive the requirement that a claimant 84813
be actively seeking work when the director finds that the 84814
individual has been laid off and the employer who laid the 84815
individual off has notified the director within ten days after the 84816
layoff, that work is expected to be available for the individual 84817
within a specified number of days not to exceed forty-five 84818
calendar days following the last day the individual worked. In the 84819
event the individual is not recalled within the specified period, 84820
this waiver shall cease to be operative with respect to that 84821
layoff.84822

       (b) The individual shall be instructed as to the efforts that 84823
the individual must make in the search for suitable work, except 84824
where the active search for work requirement has been waived under 84825
division (A)(4)(a) of this section, and shall keep a record of 84826
where and when the individual has sought work in complying with 84827
those instructions and, upon request, shall produce that record 84828
for examination by the director.84829

       (c) An individual who is attending a training course approved 84830
by the director meets the requirement of this division, if 84831
attendance was recommended by the director and the individual is 84832
regularly attending the course and is making satisfactory 84833
progress. An individual also meets the requirements of this 84834
division if the individual is participating and advancing in a 84835
training program, as defined in division (P) of section 5709.61 of 84836
the Revised Code, and if an enterprise, defined in division (B) of 84837
section 5709.61 of the Revised Code, is paying all or part of the 84838
cost of the individual's participation in the training program 84839
with the intention of hiring the individual for employment as a 84840
new employee, as defined in division (L) of section 5709.61 of the 84841
Revised Code, for at least ninety days after the individual's 84842
completion of the training program.84843

       (d) An individual who becomes unemployed while attending a 84844
regularly established school and whose base period qualifying 84845
weeks were earned in whole or in part while attending that school, 84846
meets the availability and active search for work requirements of 84847
division (A)(4)(a) of this section if the individual regularly 84848
attends the school during weeks with respect to which the 84849
individual claims unemployment benefits and makes self available 84850
on any shift of hours for suitable employment with the 84851
individual's most recent employer or any other employer in the 84852
individual's base period, or for any other suitable employment to 84853
which the individual is directed, under this chapter.84854

       (e) The director shall adopt any rules that the director 84855
deems necessary for the administration of division (A)(4) of this 84856
section.84857

       (f) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this section, no 84858
otherwise eligible individual shall be denied benefits for any 84859
week because the individual is in training approved under section 84860
236(a)(1) of the "Trade Act of 1974," 88 Stat. 1978, 19 U.S.C.A. 84861
2296, nor shall that individual be denied benefits by reason of 84862
leaving work to enter such training, provided the work left is not 84863
suitable employment, or because of the application to any week in 84864
training of provisions in this chapter, or any applicable federal 84865
unemployment compensation law, relating to availability for work, 84866
active search for work, or refusal to accept work.84867

       For the purposes of division (A)(4)(f) of this section, 84868
"suitable employment" means with respect to an individual, work of 84869
a substantially equal or higher skill level than the individual's 84870
past adversely affected employment, as defined for the purposes of 84871
the "Trade Act of 1974," 88 Stat. 1978, 19 U.S.C.A. 2101, and 84872
wages for such work at not less than eighty per cent of the 84873
individual's average weekly wage as determined for the purposes of 84874
that federal act.84875

       (5) Is unable to obtain suitable work. An individual who is 84876
provided temporary work assignments by the individual's employer 84877
under agreed terms and conditions of employment, and who is 84878
required pursuant to those terms and conditions to inquire with 84879
the individual's employer for available work assignments upon the 84880
conclusion of each work assignment, is not considered unable to 84881
obtain suitable employment if suitable work assignments are 84882
available with the employer but the individual fails to contact 84883
the employer to inquire about work assignments.84884

       (6) Participates in reemployment services, such as job search 84885
assistance services, if the individual has been determined to be 84886
likely to exhaust benefits under this chapter, including 84887
compensation payable pursuant to 5 U.S.C.A. Chapter 85, other than 84888
extended compensation, and needs reemployment services pursuant to 84889
the profiling system established by the director under division 84890
(K) of this section, unless the director determines that:84891

       (a) The individual has completed such services; or84892

       (b) There is justifiable cause for the claimant's failure to 84893
participate in such services.84894

       (B) An individual suffering total or partial unemployment is 84895
eligible for benefits for unemployment occurring subsequent to a 84896
waiting period of one week and no benefits shall be payable during 84897
this required waiting period. Not more than one week of waiting 84898
period shall be required of any individual in any benefit year in 84899
order to establish the individual's eligibility for total or 84900
partial unemployment benefits.84901

       (C) The waiting period for total or partial unemployment 84902
shall commence on the first day of the first week with respect to 84903
which the individual first files a claim for benefits at an 84904
employment office or other place of registration maintained or 84905
designated by the director or on the first day of the first week 84906
with respect to which the individual has otherwise filed a claim 84907
for benefits in accordance with the rules of the department of job 84908
and family services, provided such claim is allowed by the 84909
director.84910

       (D) Notwithstanding division (A) of this section, no 84911
individual may serve a waiting period or be paid benefits under 84912
the following conditions:84913

       (1) For any week with respect to which the director finds 84914
that:84915

       (a) The individual's unemployment was due to a labor dispute 84916
other than a lockout at any factory, establishment, or other 84917
premises located in this or any other state and owned or operated 84918
by the employer by which the individual is or was last employed; 84919
and for so long as the individual's unemployment is due to such 84920
labor dispute. No individual shall be disqualified under this 84921
provision if either of the following applies:84922

       (i) The individual's employment was with such employer at any 84923
factory, establishment, or premises located in this state, owned 84924
or operated by such employer, other than the factory, 84925
establishment, or premises at which the labor dispute exists, if 84926
it is shown that the individual is not financing, participating 84927
in, or directly interested in such labor dispute;84928

       (ii) The individual's employment was with an employer not 84929
involved in the labor dispute but whose place of business was 84930
located within the same premises as the employer engaged in the 84931
dispute, unless the individual's employer is a wholly owned 84932
subsidiary of the employer engaged in the dispute, or unless the 84933
individual actively participates in or voluntarily stops work 84934
because of such dispute. If it is established that the claimant 84935
was laid off for an indefinite period and not recalled to work 84936
prior to the dispute, or was separated by the employer prior to 84937
the dispute for reasons other than the labor dispute, or that the 84938
individual obtained a bona fide job with another employer while 84939
the dispute was still in progress, such labor dispute shall not 84940
render the employee ineligible for benefits.84941

       (b) The individual has been given a disciplinary layoff for 84942
misconduct in connection with the individual's work.84943

       (2) For the duration of the individual's unemployment if the 84944
director finds that:84945

       (a) The individual quit work without just cause or has been 84946
discharged for just cause in connection with the individual's 84947
work, provided division (D)(2) of this section does not apply to 84948
the separation of a person under any of the following 84949
circumstances:84950

       (i) Separation from employment for the purpose of entering 84951
the armed forces of the United States if the individual is 84952
inducted into the armed forces within one of the following 84953
periods:84954

       (I) Thirty days after separation;84955

       (II) One hundred eighty days after separation if the 84956
individual's date of induction is delayed solely at the discretion 84957
of the armed forces.84958

       (ii) Separation from employment pursuant to a 84959
labor-management contract or agreement, or pursuant to an 84960
established employer plan, program, or policy, which permits the 84961
employee, because of lack of work, to accept a separation from 84962
employment;84963

       (iii) The individual has left employment to accept a recall 84964
from a prior employer or, except as provided in division 84965
(D)(2)(a)(iv) of this section, to accept other employment as 84966
provided under section 4141.291 of the Revised Code, or left or 84967
was separated from employment that was concurrent employment at 84968
the time of the most recent separation or within six weeks prior 84969
to the most recent separation where the remuneration, hours, or 84970
other conditions of such concurrent employment were substantially 84971
less favorable than the individual's most recent employment and 84972
where such employment, if offered as new work, would be considered 84973
not suitable under the provisions of divisions (E) and (F) of this 84974
section. Any benefits that would otherwise be chargeable to the 84975
account of the employer from whom an individual has left 84976
employment or was separated from employment that was concurrent 84977
employment under conditions described in division (D)(2)(a)(iii) 84978
of this section, shall instead be charged to the mutualized 84979
account created by division (B) of section 4141.25 of the Revised 84980
Code, except that any benefits chargeable to the account of a 84981
reimbursing employer under division (D)(2)(a)(iii) of this section 84982
shall be charged to the account of the reimbursing employer and 84983
not to the mutualized account, except as provided in division 84984
(D)(2) of section 4141.24 of the Revised Code.84985

       (iv) When an individual has been issued a definite layoff 84986
date by the individual's employer and before the layoff date, the 84987
individual quits to accept other employment, the provisions of 84988
division (D)(2)(a)(iii) of this section apply and no 84989
disqualification shall be imposed under division (D) of this 84990
section. However, if the individual fails to meet the employment 84991
and earnings requirements of division (A)(2) of section 4141.291 84992
of the Revised Code, then the individual, pursuant to division 84993
(A)(5) of this section, shall be ineligible for benefits for any 84994
week of unemployment that occurs prior to the layoff date.84995

       (v) The individual's spouse is a member of the armed forces 84996
of the United States who is on active duty as defined in 10 U.S.C. 84997
101(d)(1), the spouse is the subject of a military transfer, the 84998
individual left employment to accompany the individual's spouse to 84999
a location from which it is impractical to commute to the 85000
individual's place of employment, and upon arrival at the new 85001
place of residence, the individual is in all respects able and 85002
available for suitable work.85003

       (b) The individual has refused without good cause to accept 85004
an offer of suitable work when made by an employer either in 85005
person or to the individual's last known address, or has refused 85006
or failed to investigate a referral to suitable work when directed 85007
to do so by a local employment office of this state or another 85008
state, provided that this division shall not cause a 85009
disqualification for a waiting week or benefits under the 85010
following circumstances:85011

       (i) When work is offered by the individual's employer and the 85012
individual is not required to accept the offer pursuant to the 85013
terms of the labor-management contract or agreement; or85014

       (ii) When the individual is attending a training course 85015
pursuant to division (A)(4) of this section except, in the event 85016
of a refusal to accept an offer of suitable work or a refusal or 85017
failure to investigate a referral, benefits thereafter paid to 85018
such individual shall not be charged to the account of any 85019
employer and, except as provided in division (B)(1)(b) of section 85020
4141.241 of the Revised Code, shall be charged to the mutualized 85021
account as provided in division (B) of section 4141.25 of the 85022
Revised Code.85023

       (c) Such individual quit work to marry or because of marital, 85024
parental, filial, or other domestic obligations.85025

       (d) The individual became unemployed by reason of commitment 85026
to any correctional institution.85027

       (e) The individual became unemployed because of dishonesty in 85028
connection with the individual's most recent or any base period 85029
work. Remuneration earned in such work shall be excluded from the 85030
individual's total base period remuneration and qualifying weeks 85031
that otherwise would be credited to the individual for such work 85032
in the individual's base period shall not be credited for the 85033
purpose of determining the total benefits to which the individual 85034
is eligible and the weekly benefit amount to be paid under section 85035
4141.30 of the Revised Code. Such excluded remuneration and 85036
noncredited qualifying weeks shall be excluded from the 85037
calculation of the maximum amount to be charged, under division 85038
(D) of section 4141.24 and section 4141.33 of the Revised Code, 85039
against the accounts of the individual's base period employers. In 85040
addition, no benefits shall thereafter be paid to the individual 85041
based upon such excluded remuneration or noncredited qualifying 85042
weeks.85043

       For purposes of division (D)(2)(e) of this section, 85044
"dishonesty" means the commission of substantive theft, fraud, or 85045
deceitful acts.85046

       (E) No individual otherwise qualified to receive benefits 85047
shall lose the right to benefits by reason of a refusal to accept 85048
new work if:85049

       (1) As a condition of being so employed the individual would 85050
be required to join a company union, or to resign from or refrain 85051
from joining any bona fide labor organization, or would be denied 85052
the right to retain membership in and observe the lawful rules of 85053
any such organization.85054

       (2) The position offered is vacant due directly to a strike, 85055
lockout, or other labor dispute.85056

       (3) The work is at an unreasonable distance from the 85057
individual's residence, having regard to the character of the work 85058
the individual has been accustomed to do, and travel to the place 85059
of work involves expenses substantially greater than that required 85060
for the individual's former work, unless the expense is provided 85061
for.85062

       (4) The remuneration, hours, or other conditions of the work 85063
offered are substantially less favorable to the individual than 85064
those prevailing for similar work in the locality.85065

       (F) Subject to the special exceptions contained in division 85066
(A)(4)(f) of this section and section 4141.301 of the Revised 85067
Code, in determining whether any work is suitable for a claimant 85068
in the administration of this chapter, the director, in addition 85069
to the determination required under division (E) of this section, 85070
shall consider the degree of risk to the claimant's health, 85071
safety, and morals, the individual's physical fitness for the 85072
work, the individual's prior training and experience, the length 85073
of the individual's unemployment, the distance of the available 85074
work from the individual's residence, and the individual's 85075
prospects for obtaining local work.85076

       (G) The "duration of unemployment" as used in this section 85077
means the full period of unemployment next ensuing after a 85078
separation from any base period or subsequent work and until an 85079
individual has become reemployed in employment subject to this 85080
chapter, or the unemployment compensation act of another state, or 85081
of the United States, and until such individual has worked six 85082
weeks and for those weeks has earned or been paid remuneration 85083
equal to six times an average weekly wage of not less than: 85084
eighty-five dollars and ten cents per week beginning on June 26, 85085
1990; and beginning on and after January 1, 1992, twenty-seven and 85086
one-half per cent of the statewide average weekly wage as computed 85087
each first day of January under division (B)(3) of section 4141.30 85088
of the Revised Code, rounded down to the nearest dollar, except 85089
for purposes of division (D)(2)(c) of this section, such term 85090
means the full period of unemployment next ensuing after a 85091
separation from such work and until such individual has become 85092
reemployed subject to the terms set forth above, and has earned 85093
wages equal to one-half of the individual's average weekly wage or 85094
sixty dollars, whichever is less.85095

       (H) If a claimant is disqualified under division (D)(2)(a), 85096
(c), or (d) of this section or found to be qualified under the 85097
exceptions provided in division (D)(2)(a)(i), (iii), or (iv), or 85098
(v) of this section or division (A)(2) of section 4141.291 of the 85099
Revised Code, then benefits that may become payable to such 85100
claimant, which are chargeable to the account of the employer from 85101
whom the individual was separated under such conditions, shall be 85102
charged to the mutualized account provided in section 4141.25 of 85103
the Revised Code, provided that no charge shall be made to the 85104
mutualized account for benefits chargeable to a reimbursing 85105
employer, except as provided in division (D)(2) of section 4141.24 85106
of the Revised Code. In the case of a reimbursing employer, the 85107
director shall refund or credit to the account of the reimbursing 85108
employer any over-paid benefits that are recovered under division 85109
(B) of section 4141.35 of the Revised Code. Amounts chargeable to 85110
other states, the United States, or Canada that are subject to 85111
agreements and arrangements that are established pursuant to 85112
section 4141.43 of the Revised Code shall be credited or 85113
reimbursed according to the agreements and arrangements to which 85114
the chargeable amounts are subject.85115

       (I)(1) Benefits based on service in employment as provided in 85116
divisions (B)(2)(a) and (b) of section 4141.01 of the Revised Code 85117
shall be payable in the same amount, on the same terms, and 85118
subject to the same conditions as benefits payable on the basis of 85119
other service subject to this chapter; except that after December 85120
31, 1977:85121

       (a) Benefits based on service in an instructional, research, 85122
or principal administrative capacity in an institution of higher 85123
education, as defined in division (Y) of section 4141.01 of the 85124
Revised Code; or for an educational institution as defined in 85125
division (CC) of section 4141.01 of the Revised Code, shall not be 85126
paid to any individual for any week of unemployment that begins 85127
during the period between two successive academic years or terms, 85128
or during a similar period between two regular but not successive 85129
terms or during a period of paid sabbatical leave provided for in 85130
the individual's contract, if the individual performs such 85131
services in the first of those academic years or terms and has a 85132
contract or a reasonable assurance that the individual will 85133
perform services in any such capacity for any such institution in 85134
the second of those academic years or terms.85135

       (b) Benefits based on service for an educational institution 85136
or an institution of higher education in other than an 85137
instructional, research, or principal administrative capacity, 85138
shall not be paid to any individual for any week of unemployment 85139
which begins during the period between two successive academic 85140
years or terms of the employing educational institution or 85141
institution of higher education, provided the individual performed 85142
those services for the educational institution or institution of 85143
higher education during the first such academic year or term and, 85144
there is a reasonable assurance that such individual will perform 85145
those services for any educational institution or institution of 85146
higher education in the second of such academic years or terms.85147

       If compensation is denied to any individual for any week 85148
under division (I)(1)(b) of this section and the individual was 85149
not offered an opportunity to perform those services for an 85150
institution of higher education or for an educational institution 85151
for the second of such academic years or terms, the individual is 85152
entitled to a retroactive payment of compensation for each week 85153
for which the individual timely filed a claim for compensation and 85154
for which compensation was denied solely by reason of division 85155
(I)(1)(b) of this section. An application for retroactive benefits 85156
shall be timely filed if received by the director or the 85157
director's deputy within or prior to the end of the fourth full 85158
calendar week after the end of the period for which benefits were 85159
denied because of reasonable assurance of employment. The 85160
provision for the payment of retroactive benefits under division 85161
(I)(1)(b) of this section is applicable to weeks of unemployment 85162
beginning on and after November 18, 1983. The provisions under 85163
division (I)(1)(b) of this section shall be retroactive to 85164
September 5, 1982, only if, as a condition for full tax credit 85165
against the tax imposed by the "Federal Unemployment Tax Act," 53 85166
Stat. 183 (1939), 26 U.S.C.A. 3301 to 3311, the United States 85167
secretary of labor determines that retroactivity is required by 85168
federal law.85169

       (c) With respect to weeks of unemployment beginning after 85170
December 31, 1977, benefits shall be denied to any individual for 85171
any week which commences during an established and customary 85172
vacation period or holiday recess, if the individual performs any 85173
services described in divisions (I)(1)(a) and (b) of this section 85174
in the period immediately before the vacation period or holiday 85175
recess, and there is a reasonable assurance that the individual 85176
will perform any such services in the period immediately following 85177
the vacation period or holiday recess.85178

       (d) With respect to any services described in division 85179
(I)(1)(a), (b), or (c) of this section, benefits payable on the 85180
basis of services in any such capacity shall be denied as 85181
specified in division (I)(1)(a), (b), or (c) of this section to 85182
any individual who performs such services in an educational 85183
institution or institution of higher education while in the employ 85184
of an educational service agency. For this purpose, the term 85185
"educational service agency" means a governmental agency or 85186
governmental entity that is established and operated exclusively 85187
for the purpose of providing services to one or more educational 85188
institutions or one or more institutions of higher education.85189

       (e) Any individual employed by a county board of 85190
developmental disabilities shall be notified by the thirtieth day 85191
of April each year if the individual is not to be reemployed the 85192
following academic year.85193

       (f) Any individual employed by a school district, other than 85194
a municipal school district as defined in section 3311.71 of the 85195
Revised Code, shall be notified by the first day of June each year 85196
if the individual is not to be reemployed the following academic 85197
year.85198

       (2) No disqualification will be imposed, between academic 85199
years or terms or during a vacation period or holiday recess under 85200
this division, unless the director or the director's deputy has 85201
received a statement in writing from the educational institution 85202
or institution of higher education that the claimant has a 85203
contract for, or a reasonable assurance of, reemployment for the 85204
ensuing academic year or term.85205

       (3) If an individual has employment with an educational 85206
institution or an institution of higher education and employment 85207
with a noneducational employer, during the base period of the 85208
individual's benefit year, then the individual may become eligible 85209
for benefits during the between-term, or vacation or holiday 85210
recess, disqualification period, based on employment performed for 85211
the noneducational employer, provided that the employment is 85212
sufficient to qualify the individual for benefit rights separately 85213
from the benefit rights based on school employment. The weekly 85214
benefit amount and maximum benefits payable during a 85215
disqualification period shall be computed based solely on the 85216
nonschool employment.85217

       (J) Benefits shall not be paid on the basis of employment 85218
performed by an alien, unless the alien had been lawfully admitted 85219
to the United States for permanent residence at the time the 85220
services were performed, was lawfully present for purposes of 85221
performing the services, or was otherwise permanently residing in 85222
the United States under color of law at the time the services were 85223
performed, under section 212(d)(5) of the "Immigration and 85224
Nationality Act," 66 Stat. 163, 8 U.S.C.A. 1101:85225

       (1) Any data or information required of individuals applying 85226
for benefits to determine whether benefits are not payable to them 85227
because of their alien status shall be uniformly required from all 85228
applicants for benefits.85229

       (2) In the case of an individual whose application for 85230
benefits would otherwise be approved, no determination that 85231
benefits to the individual are not payable because of the 85232
individual's alien status shall be made except upon a 85233
preponderance of the evidence that the individual had not, in 85234
fact, been lawfully admitted to the United States.85235

       (K) The director shall establish and utilize a system of 85236
profiling all new claimants under this chapter that:85237

       (1) Identifies which claimants will be likely to exhaust 85238
regular compensation and will need job search assistance services 85239
to make a successful transition to new employment;85240

       (2) Refers claimants identified pursuant to division (K)(1) 85241
of this section to reemployment services, such as job search 85242
assistance services, available under any state or federal law;85243

       (3) Collects follow-up information relating to the services 85244
received by such claimants and the employment outcomes for such 85245
claimant's subsequent to receiving such services and utilizes such 85246
information in making identifications pursuant to division (K)(1) 85247
of this section; and85248

       (4) Meets such other requirements as the United States 85249
secretary of labor determines are appropriate.85250

       Sec. 4301.01.  (A) As used in the Revised Code:85251

       (1) "Intoxicating liquor" and "liquor" include all liquids 85252
and compounds, other than beer, containing one-half of one per 85253
cent or more of alcohol by volume which are fit to use for 85254
beverage purposes, from whatever source and by whatever process 85255
produced, by whatever name called, and whether they are medicated, 85256
proprietary, or patented. "Intoxicating liquor" and "liquor" 85257
include wine even if it contains less than four per cent of 85258
alcohol by volume, mixed beverages even if they contain less than 85259
four per cent of alcohol by volume, cider,and alcohol, and all 85260
solids and confections which contain any alcoholone-half of one 85261
per cent or more of alcohol by volume.85262

       (2) Except as used in sections 4301.01 to 4301.20, 4301.22 to 85263
4301.52, 4301.56, 4301.70, 4301.72, and 4303.01 to 4303.36 of the 85264
Revised Code, "sale" and "sell" include exchange, barter, gift, 85265
offer for sale, sale, distribution and delivery of any kind, and 85266
the transfer of title or possession of beer and intoxicating 85267
liquor either by constructive or actual delivery by any means or 85268
devices whatever, including the sale of beer or intoxicating 85269
liquor by means of a controlled access alcohol and beverage 85270
cabinet pursuant to section 4301.21 of the Revised Code. "Sale" 85271
and "sell" do not include the mere solicitation of orders for beer 85272
or intoxicating liquor from the holders of permits issued by the 85273
division of liquor control authorizing the sale of the beer or 85274
intoxicating liquor, but no solicitor shall solicit any such 85275
orders until the solicitor has been registered with the division 85276
pursuant to section 4303.25 of the Revised Code.85277

       (3) "Vehicle" includes all means of transportation by land, 85278
by water, or by air, and everything made use of in any way for 85279
such transportation.85280

       (B) As used in this chapter:85281

       (1) "Alcohol" means ethyl alcohol, whether rectified or 85282
diluted with water or not, whatever its origin may be, and 85283
includes synthetic ethyl alcohol. "Alcohol" does not include 85284
denatured alcohol and wood alcohol.85285

       (2) "Beer" includes all beverages brewed or fermented wholly 85286
or in part from malt products and containing one-half of one per 85287
cent or more, but not more than twelve per cent, of alcohol by 85288
volume.85289

       (3) "Wine" includes all liquids fit to use for beverage 85290
purposes containing not less than one-half of one per cent of 85291
alcohol by volume and not more than twenty-one per cent of alcohol 85292
by volume, which is made from the fermented juices of grapes, 85293
fruits, or other agricultural products, except that as used in 85294
sections 4301.13, 4301.421, 4301.422, 4301.432, and 4301.44 of the 85295
Revised Code, and, for purposes of determining the rate of the tax 85296
that applies, division (B) of section 4301.43 of the Revised Code, 85297
"wine" does not include cider.85298

       (4) "Mixed beverages," such asinclude bottled and prepared 85299
cordials, cocktails, and highballs, and solids and confections 85300
that are products obtained by mixing any type of whiskey, neutral 85301
spirits, brandy, gin, or other distilled spirits with, or over, 85302
carbonated or plain water, pure juices from flowers and plants, 85303
and other flavoring materials. The completed product shall contain 85304
not less than one-half of one per cent of alcohol by volume and 85305
not more than twenty-one per cent of alcohol by volume.85306

       (5) "Spirituous liquor" includes all intoxicating liquors 85307
containing more than twenty-one per cent of alcohol by volume.85308

       (6) "Sealed container" means any container having a capacity 85309
of not more than one hundred twenty-eight fluid ounces, the 85310
opening of which is closed to prevent the entrance of air.85311

       (7) "Person" includes firms and corporations.85312

       (8) "Manufacture" includes all processes by which beer or 85313
intoxicating liquor is produced, whether by distillation, 85314
rectifying, fortifying, blending, fermentation, or brewing, or in 85315
any other manner.85316

       (9) "Manufacturer" means any person engaged in the business 85317
of manufacturing beer or intoxicating liquor.85318

       (10) "Wholesale distributor" and "distributor" means a person 85319
engaged in the business of selling to retail dealers for purposes 85320
of resale.85321

       (11) "Hotel" has the same meaning as in section 3731.01 of 85322
the Revised Code, subject to the exceptions mentioned in section 85323
3731.03 of the Revised Code.85324

       (12) "Restaurant" means a place located in a permanent 85325
building provided with space and accommodations wherein, in 85326
consideration of the payment of money, hot meals are habitually 85327
prepared, sold, and served at noon and evening, as the principal 85328
business of the place. "Restaurant" does not include pharmacies, 85329
confectionery stores, lunch stands, night clubs, and filling 85330
stations.85331

       (13) "Club" means a corporation or association of individuals 85332
organized in good faith for social, recreational, benevolent, 85333
charitable, fraternal, political, patriotic, or athletic purposes, 85334
which is the owner, lessor, or occupant of a permanent building or 85335
part of a permanent building operated solely for those purposes, 85336
membership in which entails the prepayment of regular dues, and 85337
includes the place so operated.85338

       (14) "Night club" means a place operated for profit, where 85339
food is served for consumption on the premises and one or more 85340
forms of amusement are provided or permitted for a consideration 85341
that may be in the form of a cover charge or may be included in 85342
the price of the food and beverages, or both, purchased by 85343
patrons.85344

       (15) "At retail" means for use or consumption by the 85345
purchaser and not for resale.85346

       (16) "Pharmacy" means an establishment, as defined in section 85347
4729.01 of the Revised Code, that is under the management or 85348
control of a licensed pharmacist in accordance with section 85349
4729.27 of the Revised Code.85350

       (17) "Enclosed shopping center" means a group of retail sales 85351
and service business establishments that face into an enclosed 85352
mall, share common ingress, egress, and parking facilities, and 85353
are situated on a tract of land that contains an area of not less 85354
than five hundred thousand square feet. "Enclosed shopping center" 85355
also includes not more than one business establishment that is 85356
located within a free-standing building on such a tract of land, 85357
so long as the sale of beer and intoxicating liquor on the tract 85358
of land was approved in an election held under former section 85359
4301.353 of the Revised Code.85360

       (18) "Controlled access alcohol and beverage cabinet" means a 85361
closed container, either refrigerated, in whole or in part, or 85362
nonrefrigerated, access to the interior of which is restricted by 85363
means of a device that requires the use of a key, magnetic card, 85364
or similar device and from which beer, intoxicating liquor, other 85365
beverages, or food may be sold.85366

       (19) "Community facility" means either of the following:85367

       (a) Any convention, sports, or entertainment facility or 85368
complex, or any combination of these, that is used by or 85369
accessible to the general public and that is owned or operated in 85370
whole or in part by the state, a state agency, or a political 85371
subdivision of the state or that is leased from, or located on 85372
property owned by or leased from, the state, a state agency, a 85373
political subdivision of the state, or a convention facilities 85374
authority created pursuant to section 351.02 of the Revised Code;85375

       (b) An area designated as a community entertainment district 85376
pursuant to section 4301.80 of the Revised Code.85377

       (20) "Low-alcohol beverage" means any brewed or fermented 85378
malt product, or any product made from the fermented juices of 85379
grapes, fruits, or other agricultural products, that contains 85380
either no alcohol or less than one-half of one per cent of alcohol 85381
by volume. The beverages described in division (B)(20) of this 85382
section do not include a soft drink such as root beer, birch beer, 85383
or ginger beer.85384

       (21) "Cider" means all liquids fit to use for beverage 85385
purposes that contain one-half of one per cent of alcohol by 85386
volume, but not more than six per cent of alcohol by weight, and 85387
that are made through the normal alcoholic fermentation of the 85388
juice of sound, ripe apples, including, without limitation, 85389
flavored, sparkling, or carbonated cider and cider made from pure 85390
condensed apple must.85391

       (22) "Sales area or territory" means an exclusive geographic 85392
area or territory that is assigned to a particular A or B permit 85393
holder and that either has one or more political subdivisions as 85394
its boundaries or consists of an area of land with readily 85395
identifiable geographic boundaries. "Sales area or territory" does 85396
not include, however, any particular retail location in an 85397
exclusive geographic area or territory that had been assigned to 85398
another A or B permit holder before April 9, 2001.85399

       Sec. 4301.10.  (A) The division of liquor control shall do 85400
all of the following:85401

       (1) Control the traffic in beer and intoxicating liquor in 85402
this state, including the manufacture, importation, and sale of 85403
beer and intoxicating liquor;85404

       (2) Grant or refuse permits for the manufacture, 85405
distribution, transportation, and sale of beer and intoxicating 85406
liquor and the sale of alcohol, as authorized or required by this 85407
chapter and Chapter 4303. of the Revised Code. A certificate, 85408
signed by the superintendent of liquor control and to which is 85409
affixed the official seal of the division, stating that it appears 85410
from the records of the division that no permit has been issued to 85411
the person specified in the certificate, or that a permit, if 85412
issued, has been revoked, canceled, or suspended, shall be 85413
received as prima-facie evidence of the facts recited in the 85414
certificate in any court or before any officer of this state.85415

       (3) Put into operation, manage, and control a system of state 85416
liquor stores for the sale of spirituous liquor at retail and to 85417
holders of permits authorizing the sale of spirituous liquor; 85418
however, the division shall not establish any drive-in state 85419
liquor stores; and by means of those types of stores, and any 85420
manufacturing plants, distributing and bottling plants, 85421
warehouses, and other facilities that it considers expedient, 85422
establish and maintain a state monopoly of the distribution of 85423
spirituous liquor and its sale in packages or containers; and for 85424
that purpose, manufacture, buy, import, possess, and sell 85425
spirituous liquors as provided in this chapter and Chapter 4303. 85426
of the Revised Code, and in the rules promulgated by the 85427
superintendent of liquor control pursuant to those chapters; lease 85428
or in any manner acquire the use of any land or building required 85429
for any of those purposes; purchase any equipment that is 85430
required; and borrow money to carry on its business, and issue, 85431
sign, endorse, and accept notes, checks, and bills of exchange; 85432
but all obligations of the division created under authority of 85433
this division shall be a charge only upon the moneys received by 85434
the division from the sale of spirituous liquor and its other 85435
business transactions in connection with the sale of spirituous 85436
liquor, and shall not be general obligations of the state;85437

       (4) Enforce the administrative provisions of this chapter and 85438
Chapter 4303. of the Revised Code, and the rules and orders of the 85439
liquor control commission and the superintendent relating to the 85440
manufacture, importation, transportation, distribution, and sale 85441
of beer or intoxicating liquor. The attorney general, any 85442
prosecuting attorney, and any prosecuting officer of a municipal 85443
corporation or a municipal court shall, at the request of the 85444
division of liquor control or the department of public safety, 85445
prosecute any person charged with the violation of any provision 85446
in those chapters or of any section of the Revised Code relating 85447
to the manufacture, importation, transportation, distribution, and 85448
sale of beer or intoxicating liquor.85449

       (5) Determine the locations of all state liquor stores and 85450
manufacturing, distributing, and bottling plants required in 85451
connection with those stores, subject to this chapter and Chapter 85452
4303. of the Revised Code;85453

       (6) Conduct inspections of liquor permit premises to 85454
determine compliance with the administrative provisions of this 85455
chapter and Chapter 4303. of the Revised Code and the rules 85456
adopted under those provisions by the liquor control commission.85457

       Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(6) of this 85458
section, those inspections may be conducted only during those 85459
hours in which the permit holder is open for business and only by 85460
authorized agents or employees of the division or by any peace 85461
officer, as defined in section 2935.01 of the Revised Code. 85462
Inspections may be conducted at other hours only to determine 85463
compliance with laws or commission rules that regulate the hours 85464
of sale of beer or intoxicating liquor and only if the 85465
investigator has reasonable cause to believe that those laws or 85466
rules are being violated. Any inspection conducted pursuant to 85467
division (A)(6) of this section is subject to all of the following 85468
requirements:85469

       (a) The only property that may be confiscated is contraband, 85470
as defined in section 2901.01 of the Revised Code, or property 85471
that is otherwise necessary for evidentiary purposes.85472

       (b) A complete inventory of all property confiscated from the 85473
premises shall be given to the permit holder or the permit 85474
holder's agent or employee by the confiscating agent or officer at 85475
the conclusion of the inspection. At that time, the inventory 85476
shall be signed by the confiscating agent or officer, and the 85477
agent or officer shall give the permit holder or the permit 85478
holder's agent or employee the opportunity to sign the inventory.85479

       (c) Inspections conducted pursuant to division (A)(6) of this 85480
section shall be conducted in a reasonable manner. A finding by 85481
any court of competent jurisdiction that an inspection was not 85482
conducted in a reasonable manner in accordance with this section 85483
or any rules adopted by the commission may be considered grounds 85484
for suppression of evidence. A finding by the commission that an 85485
inspection was not conducted in a reasonable manner in accordance 85486
with this section or any rules adopted by it may be considered 85487
grounds for dismissal of the commission case.85488

       If any court of competent jurisdiction finds that property 85489
confiscated as the result of an administrative inspection is not 85490
necessary for evidentiary purposes and is not contraband, as 85491
defined in section 2901.01 of the Revised Code, the court shall 85492
order the immediate return of the confiscated property, provided 85493
that property is not otherwise subject to forfeiture, to the 85494
permit holder. However, the return of this property is not grounds 85495
for dismissal of the case. The commission likewise may order the 85496
return of confiscated property if no criminal prosecution is 85497
pending or anticipated.85498

       (7) Delegate to any of its agents or employees any power of 85499
investigation that the division possesses with respect to the 85500
enforcement of any of the administrative laws relating to beer or 85501
intoxicating liquor, provided that this division does not 85502
authorize the division to designate any agent or employee to serve 85503
as an enforcement agent. The employment and designation of 85504
enforcement agents shall be within the exclusive authority of the 85505
director of public safety pursuant to sections 5502.13 to 5502.19 85506
of the Revised Code.85507

       (8) Collect the following fees:85508

       (a) A biennial fifty-dollar registration fee for each agent, 85509
solicitor, trade marketing professional, or salesperson, 85510
registered pursuant to section 4303.25 of the Revised Code, of a 85511
beer or intoxicating liquor manufacturer, supplier, broker, trade 85512
marketing company, or wholesale distributor doing business in this 85513
state;85514

       (b) A fifty-dollar product registration fee for each new beer 85515
or intoxicating liquor product sold in this state. The product 85516
registration fee also applies to products sold in this state by 85517
B-2a and S permit holders. The product registration fee shall be 85518
accompanied by a copy of the federal label and product approval 85519
for the new product.85520

       (c) An annual three-hundred-dollar supplier registration fee 85521
from each manufacturer or supplier that produces and ships into 85522
this state, or ships into this state, intoxicating liquor or beer, 85523
in addition to an initial application fee of one hundred dollars. 85524
A manufacturer that produces and ships beer or wine into this 85525
state and that holds only an S permit is exempt from the supplier 85526
registration fee. A manufacturer that produces and ships wine into 85527
this state and that holds a B-2a permit shall pay an annual 85528
seventy-six-dollar supplier registration fee. A manufacturer that 85529
produces and ships wine into this state and that does not hold 85530
either an S or a B-2a permit, but that produces less than two 85531
hundred fifty thousand gallons of wine per year and that is 85532
entitled to a tax credit under 27 C.F.R. 24.278 shall pay an 85533
annual seventy-six-dollar supplier registration fee. A B-2a or S 85534
permit holder that does not sell its wine to wholesale 85535
distributors of wine in this state and an S permit holder that 85536
does not sell its beer to wholesale distributors of beer in this 85537
state shall not be required to submit to the division territory 85538
designation forms.85539

       Each supplier, agent, solicitor, trade marketing 85540
professional, or salesperson registration issued under this 85541
division shall authorize the person named to carry on the activity 85542
specified in the registration. Each agent, solicitor, trade 85543
marketing professional, or salesperson registration is valid for 85544
two years or for the unexpired portion of a two-year registration 85545
period. Each supplier registration is valid for one year or for 85546
the unexpired portion of a one-year registration period. 85547
Registrations shall end on their respective uniform expiration 85548
date, which shall be designated by the division, and are subject 85549
to suspension, revocation, cancellation, or fine as authorized by 85550
this chapter and Chapter 4303. of the Revised Code.85551

       As used in this division, "trade marketing company" and 85552
"trade marketing professional" have the same meanings as in 85553
section 4301.171 of the Revised Code.85554

       (9) Establish a system of electronic data interchange within 85555
the division and regulate the electronic transfer of information 85556
and funds among persons and governmental entities engaged in the 85557
manufacture, distribution, and retail sale of alcoholic beverages;85558

       (10) Notify all holders of retail permits of the forms of 85559
permissible identification for purposes of division (A) of section 85560
4301.639 of the Revised Code;85561

       (11) Exercise all other powers expressly or by necessary 85562
implication conferred upon the division by this chapter and 85563
Chapter 4303. of the Revised Code, and all powers necessary for 85564
the exercise or discharge of any power, duty, or function 85565
expressly conferred or imposed upon the division by those 85566
chapters.85567

       (B) The division may do all of the following:85568

       (1) Sue, but may be sued only in connection with the 85569
execution of leases of real estate and the purchases and contracts 85570
necessary for the operation of the state liquor stores that are 85571
made under this chapter and Chapter 4303. of the Revised Code;85572

       (2) Enter into leases and contracts of all descriptions and 85573
acquire and transfer title to personal property with regard to the 85574
sale, distribution, and storage of spirituous liquor within the 85575
state;85576

       (3) Terminate at will any lease entered into pursuant to 85577
division (B)(2) of this section upon first giving ninety days' 85578
notice in writing to the lessor of its intention to do so;85579

       (4) Fix the wholesale and retail prices at which the various 85580
classes, varieties, and brands of spirituous liquor shall be sold 85581
by the division. Those retail prices shall be the same at all 85582
state liquor stores, except to the extent that a price 85583
differential is required to collect a county sales tax levied 85584
pursuant to section 5739.021 of the Revised Code and for which tax 85585
the tax commissioner has authorized prepayment pursuant to section 85586
5739.05 of the Revised Code. In fixing selling prices, the 85587
division shall compute an anticipated gross profit at least 85588
sufficient to provide in each calendar year all costs and expenses 85589
of the division and also an adequate working capital reserve for 85590
the division. The gross profit shall not exceed forty per cent of 85591
the retail selling price based on costs of the division, and in 85592
addition the sum required by section 4301.12 of the Revised Code 85593
to be paid into the state treasury. An amount equal to one and 85594
one-half per cent of that gross profit shall be paid into the 85595
statewide treatment and prevention fund created by section 4301.30 85596
of the Revised Code and be appropriated by the general assembly 85597
from the fund to the department of alcohol and drug addiction 85598
servicesmental health and addiction services as provided in 85599
section 4301.30 of the Revised Code.85600

       On spirituous liquor manufactured in this state from the 85601
juice of grapes or fruits grown in this state, the division shall 85602
compute an anticipated gross profit of not to exceed ten per cent. 85603

       The wholesale prices fixed under this division shall be at a 85604
discount of not less than six per cent of the retail selling 85605
prices as determined by the division in accordance with this 85606
section.85607

       (C) The division may approve the expansion or diminution of a 85608
premises to which a liquor permit has been issued and may adopt 85609
standards governing such an expansion or diminution.85610

       Sec. 4301.171. (A) As used in this section:85611

       (1) "Agency store" includes an area that is immediately 85612
adjacent to an agency store if beer and other intoxicating liquor 85613
are sold in the area and if the area and the agency store are 85614
located on the same premises.85615

       (2) "Broker" and "solicitor" have the same meanings as in 85616
rules adopted by the superintendent of liquor control under 85617
section 4303.25 of the Revised Code.85618

       (2)(3) "Tasting sample" means a small amount of spirituous 85619
liquor that is provided in a serving of not more than a quarter 85620
ounce of spirituous liquor and, if provided, not more than one 85621
ounce of nonalcoholic mixer to an authorized purchaser and that 85622
allows the purchaser to determine, by tasting only, the quality 85623
and character of the beverage.85624

       (3)(4) "Trade marketing company" means a company that 85625
solicits the purchase of beer and intoxicating liquor and educates 85626
the public about beer and intoxicating liquor.85627

       (4)(5) "Trade marketing professional" means an individual who 85628
is an employee of, or is under contract with, a trade marketing 85629
company and who has successfully completed a training program 85630
described in section 4301.253 of the Revised Code.85631

       (B) Notwithstanding section 4301.24 of the Revised Code, an 85632
agency store to which a D-8 permit has been issued may allow a 85633
trade marketing professional, broker, or solicitor to offer for 85634
sale tasting samples of spirituous liquor when conducted in 85635
accordance with this section. A tasting sample shall not be sold 85636
for the purpose of general consumption. 85637

       (C) Tasting samples of spirituous liquor may be offered for 85638
sale at an agency store by a trade marketing professional, broker, 85639
or solicitor if all of the following apply:85640

       (1) The tasting samples are sold only in the area of the 85641
agency store in which spirituous liquor is sold and that areathat85642
is open to the public.85643

       (2) The tasting samples are sold only by the trade marketing 85644
professional, broker, or solicitor.85645

       (3) The spirituous liquor is registered under division (A)(8) 85646
of section 4301.10 of the Revised Code.85647

       (4) Not less than fiveten business days prior to the sale, 85648
the trade marketing professional, broker, or solicitor has 85649
provided written notice to the division of liquor control of the 85650
date and time of the sampling, and of the type and brand of 85651
spirituous liquor to be sampled at the agency store.85652

       (D) A sale of tasting samples of spirituous liquor is subject 85653
to rules adopted by the superintendent of liquor control or the 85654
liquor control commission.85655

       (E) An offering for sale of tasting samples of spirituous 85656
liquor shall be limited to a period of not more than two hours.85657

       (F) For purposes of offering for sale tasting samples of 85658
spirituous liquor, ana trade marketing professional, broker, or 85659
solicitor shall purchase the spirituous liquor from the agency 85660
store shall purchase the spirituous liquor at the current retail 85661
price. An authorized purchaser shall be charged not less than 85662
fifty cents for each tasting sample of spirituous liquor. However, 85663
the aggregate amount charged for the sale of tasting samples shall 85664
be sufficient to cover the wholesale price of the spirituous 85665
liquor being tasted as that price is fixed under division (B)(4) 85666
of section 4301.10 of the Revised Code. Of the amount collected 85667
from the sale of tasting samples of spirituous liquor, the trade 85668
marketing professional, broker, or solicitor shall reimburse the 85669
agency store for the amount of the retail price of the spirituous 85670
liquor. When the sale of tasting samples of spirituous liquor at 85671
an agency store is completed, any bottles of spirituous liquor 85672
used to provide tasting samples that are not empty shall be marked 85673
as "sample" and removed from the agency store by the trade 85674
marketing professional, broker, or solicitor, as applicable.85675

       (G) No trade marketing professional, broker, or solicitor 85676
shall do any of the following:85677

       (1) Advertise the offering for sale of tasting samples of 85678
spirituous liquor other than at the agency store where the tasting 85679
samples will be offered;85680

       (2) Solicit orders or make sales of tasting samples of 85681
spirituous liquor for quantities greater than those specified in 85682
division (G)(3) of this section;85683

       (3) Allow any authorized purchaser to consume more than four 85684
tasting samples of spirituous liquor per day.85685

       (H) The purchase of a tasting sample of spirituous liquor 85686
shall not be contingent upon the purchase of any other product 85687
from an agency store.85688

       (I) No employee of an agency store that allows the sale of 85689
tasting samples of spirituous liquor shall purchase or consume a 85690
tasting sample while on duty.85691

       (J) If an employee of an agency store that allows the sale of 85692
tasting samples of spirituous liquor consumes a tasting sample of 85693
spirituous liquor, the employee shall not perform the employee's 85694
duties and responsibilities at the agency store on the day the 85695
tasting sample is consumed.85696

       (K) No person under twenty-one years of age shall consume a 85697
tasting sample of spirituous liquor.85698

       (L) Not more than fivethree events at which the sale of 85699
tasting samples of spirituous liquor are offered shall occur at an 85700
agency store in a calendar monthweek provided that:85701

       (1) Not more than two events shall occur in the same day; and85702

       (2) There is not less than one hour between the end of one 85703
event and the beginning of the next event.85704

       (M) No trade marketing professional, trade marketing company, 85705
broker, solicitor, owner or operator of an agency store, or an 85706
agent or employee of the owner or operator shall violate this 85707
section or any rules adopted by the superintendent or the 85708
commission for the purposes of this section.85709

       Sec. 4301.30.  (A) All fees collected by the division of 85710
liquor control shall be deposited in the state treasury to the 85711
credit of the undivided liquor permit fund, which is hereby 85712
created, at the time prescribed under section 4301.12 of the 85713
Revised Code. Each payment shall be accompanied by a statement 85714
showing separately the amount collected for each class of permits 85715
in each municipal corporation and in each township outside the 85716
limits of any municipal corporation in such township. 85717

       (B)(1) An amount equal to forty-five per cent of the fund 85718
shall be paid from the fund into the state liquor regulatory fund, 85719
which is hereby created in the state treasury. The state liquor 85720
regulatory fund shall be used to pay the operating expenses of the 85721
division of liquor control in administering and enforcing Title 85722
XLIII of the Revised Code and the operating expenses of the liquor 85723
control commission. Investment earnings of the fund shall be 85724
credited to the fund.85725

       (2) Whenever, in the judgment of the director of budget and 85726
management, the amount of money that is in the state liquor 85727
regulatory fund is in excess of the amount that is needed to pay 85728
the operating expenses of the division in administering and 85729
enforcing Title XLIII of the Revised Code and the operating 85730
expenses of the commission, the director shall credit the excess 85731
amount to the general revenue fund.85732

        (C) Twenty per cent of the undivided liquor permit fund shall 85733
be paid into the statewide treatment and prevention fund, which is 85734
hereby created in the state treasury. This amount shall be 85735
appropriated by the general assembly, together with an amount 85736
equal to one and one-half per cent of the gross profit of the 85737
division of liquor control derived under division (B)(4) of 85738
section 4301.10 of the Revised Code, to the department of alcohol 85739
and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction services. 85740
In planning for the allocation of and in allocating these amounts 85741
for the purposes of Chapter 3793.5119. of the Revised Code, the 85742
department of alcohol and drug addiction services shall comply 85743
with the nondiscrimination provisions of Title VI of the Civil 85744
Rights Act of 1964, and any rules adopted under that act.85745

        (D) Thirty-five per cent of the undivided liquor permit fund 85746
shall be distributed by the superintendent of liquor control at 85747
quarterly calendar periods as follows:85748

       (1) To each municipal corporation, the aggregate amount shown 85749
by the statements to have been collected from permits in the 85750
municipal corporation, for the use of the general fund of the 85751
municipal corporation;85752

       (2) To each township, the aggregate amount shown by the 85753
statements to have been collected from permits in its territory, 85754
outside the limits of any municipal corporation located in the 85755
township, for the use of the general fund of the township, or for 85756
fire protection purposes, including buildings and equipment in the 85757
township or in an established fire district within the township, 85758
to the extent that the funds are derived from liquor permits 85759
within the territory comprising such fire district.85760

       (E) For the purpose of the distribution required by this 85761
section, E, H, and D permits covering boats or vessels are deemed 85762
to have been issued in the municipal corporation or township 85763
wherein the owner or operator of the vehicle, boat, vessel, or 85764
dining car equipment to which the permit relates has the owner's 85765
or operator's principal office or place of business within the 85766
state.85767

        (F) If the liquor control commission determines that the 85768
police or other officers of any municipal corporation or township 85769
entitled to share in distributions under this section are refusing 85770
or culpably neglecting to enforce this chapter and Chapter 4303. 85771
of the Revised Code, or the penal laws of this state relating to 85772
the manufacture, importation, transportation, distribution, and 85773
sale of beer and intoxicating liquors, or if the prosecuting 85774
officer of a municipal corporation or a municipal court fails to 85775
comply with the request of the commission authorized by division 85776
(A)(4) of section 4301.10 of the Revised Code, the commission, by 85777
certified mail, may notify the chief executive officer of the 85778
municipal corporation or the board of township trustees of the 85779
township of the failure and require the immediate cooperation of 85780
the responsible officers of the municipal corporation or township 85781
with the division of liquor control in the enforcement of those 85782
chapters and penal laws. Within thirty days after the notice is 85783
served, the commission shall determine whether the requirement has 85784
been complied with. If the commission determines that the 85785
requirement has not been complied with, it may issue an order to 85786
the superintendent to withhold the distributive share of the 85787
municipal corporation or township until further order of the 85788
commission. This action of the commission is reviewable within 85789
thirty days thereafter in the court of common pleas of Franklin 85790
county.85791

       (G) All fees collected by the division of liquor control from 85792
the issuance or renewal of B-2a and S permits, and paid by B-2a 85793
and S permit holders who do not also hold A-2 permits, shall be 85794
deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the state liquor 85795
regulatory fund. Once during each fiscal year, an amount equal to 85796
fifty per cent of the fees collected shall be paid from the state 85797
liquor regulatory fund into the general revenue fund.85798

       Sec. 4301.43.  (A) As used in sections 4301.43 to 4301.50 of 85799
the Revised Code:85800

       (1) "Gallon" or "wine gallon" means one hundred twenty-eight 85801
fluid ounces.85802

       (2) "Sale" or "sell" includes exchange, barter, gift, 85803
distribution, and, except with respect to A-4 permit holders, 85804
offer for sale.85805

       (B) For the purposes of providing revenues for the support of 85806
the state and encouraging the grape industries in the state, a tax 85807
is hereby levied on the sale or distribution of wine in Ohio, 85808
except for known sacramental purposes, at the rate of thirty cents 85809
per wine gallon for wine containing not less than four per cent of 85810
alcohol by volume and not more than fourteen per cent of alcohol 85811
by volume, ninety-eight cents per wine gallon for wine containing 85812
more than fourteen per cent but not more than twenty-one per cent 85813
of alcohol by volume, one dollar and eight cents per wine gallon 85814
for vermouth, and one dollar and forty-eight cents per wine gallon 85815
for sparkling and carbonated wine and champagne, the tax to be 85816
paid by the holders of A-2 and B-5 permits or by any other person 85817
selling or distributing wine upon which no tax has been paid. From 85818
the tax paid under this section on wine, vermouth, and sparkling 85819
and carbonated wine and champagne, the treasurer of state shall 85820
credit to the Ohio grape industries fund created under section 85821
924.54 of the Revised Code a sum equal to one cent per gallon for 85822
each gallon upon which the tax is paid.85823

       (C) For the purpose of providing revenues for the support of 85824
the state, there is hereby levied a tax on prepared and bottled 85825
highballs, cocktails, cordials, and other mixed beverages at the 85826
rate of one dollar and twenty cents per wine gallon to be paid by 85827
holders of A-4 permits or by any other person selling or 85828
distributing those products upon which no tax has been paid. Only 85829
one sale of the same article shall be used in computing the amount 85830
of tax due. The tax on mixed beverages to be paid by holders of 85831
A-4 permits under this section shall not attach until the 85832
ownership of the mixed beverage is transferred for valuable 85833
consideration to a wholesaler or retailer, and no payment of the 85834
tax shall be required prior to that time.85835

       (D) During the period of July 1, 20112013, through June 30, 85836
20132015, from the tax paid under this section on wine, vermouth, 85837
and sparkling and carbonated wine and champagne, the treasurer of 85838
state shall credit to the Ohio grape industries fund created under 85839
section 924.54 of the Revised Code a sum equal to two cents per 85840
gallon upon which the tax is paid. The amount credited under this 85841
division is in addition to the amount credited to the Ohio grape 85842
industries fund under division (B) of this section.85843

       (E) For the purpose of providing revenues for the support of 85844
the state, there is hereby levied a tax on cider at the rate of 85845
twenty-four cents per wine gallon to be paid by the holders of A-2 85846
and B-5 permits or by any other person selling or distributing 85847
cider upon which no tax has been paid. Only one sale of the same 85848
article shall be used in computing the amount of the tax due.85849

       Sec. 4301.62.  (A) As used in this section:85850

       (1) "Chauffeured limousine" means a vehicle registered under 85851
section 4503.24 of the Revised Code.85852

       (2) "Street," "highway," and "motor vehicle" have the same 85853
meanings as in section 4511.01 of the Revised Code.85854

       (B) No person shall have in the person's possession an opened 85855
container of beer or intoxicating liquor in any of the following 85856
circumstances:85857

       (1) Except as provided in division (C)(1)(e) of this section, 85858
in an agency store;85859

       (2) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, on 85860
the premises of the holder of any permit issued by the division of 85861
liquor control;85862

       (3) In any other public place;85863

       (4) Except as provided in division (D) or (E) of this 85864
section, while operating or being a passenger in or on a motor 85865
vehicle on any street, highway, or other public or private 85866
property open to the public for purposes of vehicular travel or 85867
parking;85868

       (5) Except as provided in division (D) or (E) of this 85869
section, while being in or on a stationary motor vehicle on any 85870
street, highway, or other public or private property open to the 85871
public for purposes of vehicular travel or parking.85872

       (C)(1) A person may have in the person's possession an opened 85873
container of any of the following:85874

       (a) Beer or intoxicating liquor that has been lawfully 85875
purchased for consumption on the premises where bought from the 85876
holder of an A-1-A, A-2, A-3a, D-1, D-2, D-3, D-3a, D-4, D-4a, 85877
D-5, D-5a, D-5b, D-5c, D-5d, D-5e, D-5f, D-5g, D-5h, D-5i, D-5j, 85878
D-5k, D-5l, D-5m, D-5n, D-5o, D-7, D-8, E, F, F-2, F-5, F-7, or 85879
F-8 permit;85880

       (b) Beer, wine, or mixed beverages served for consumption on 85881
the premises by the holder of an F-3 permit or wine served for 85882
consumption on the premises by the holder of an F-4 or F-6 permit;85883

       (c) Beer or intoxicating liquor consumed on the premises of a 85884
convention facility as provided in section 4303.201 of the Revised 85885
Code;85886

       (d) Beer or intoxicating liquor to be consumed during 85887
tastings and samplings approved by rule of the liquor control 85888
commission;85889

       (e) Spirituous liquor to be consumed for purposes of a 85890
tasting sample, as defined in section 4301.171 of the Revised 85891
Code.85892

       (2) A person may have in the person's possession on an F 85893
liquor permit premises an opened container of beer or intoxicating 85894
liquor that was not purchased from the holder of the F permit if 85895
the premises for which the F permit is issued is a music festival 85896
and the holder of the F permit grants permission for that 85897
possession on the premises during the period for which the F 85898
permit is issued. As used in this division, "music festival" means 85899
a series of outdoor live musical performances, extending for a 85900
period of at least three consecutive days and located on an area 85901
of land of at least forty acres.85902

       (3)(a) A person may have in the person's possession on a D-2 85903
liquor permit premises an opened or unopened container of wine 85904
that was not purchased from the holder of the D-2 permit if the 85905
premises for which the D-2 permit is issued is an outdoor 85906
performing arts center, the person is attending an orchestral 85907
performance, and the holder of the D-2 permit grants permission 85908
for the possession and consumption of wine in certain 85909
predesignated areas of the premises during the period for which 85910
the D-2 permit is issued.85911

        (b) As used in division (C)(3)(a) of this section:85912

        (i) "Orchestral performance" means a concert comprised of a 85913
group of not fewer than forty musicians playing various musical 85914
instruments.85915

        (ii) "Outdoor performing arts center" means an outdoor 85916
performing arts center that is located on not less than one 85917
hundred fifty acres of land and that is open for performances from 85918
the first day of April to the last day of October of each year.85919

       (4) A person may have in the person's possession an opened or 85920
unopened container of beer or intoxicating liquor at an outdoor 85921
location at which the person is attending an orchestral 85922
performance as defined in division (C)(3)(b)(i) of this section if 85923
the person with supervision and control over the performance 85924
grants permission for the possession and consumption of beer or 85925
intoxicating liquor in certain predesignated areas of that outdoor 85926
location.85927

       (5) A person may have in the person's possession on an F-9 85928
liquor permit premises an opened or unopened container of beer or 85929
intoxicating liquor that was not purchased from the holder of the 85930
F-9 permit if the person is attending an orchestral performance 85931
and the holder of the F-9 permit grants permission for the 85932
possession and consumption of beer or intoxicating liquor in 85933
certain predesignated areas of the premises during the period for 85934
which the F-9 permit is issued.85935

       As used in division (C)(5) of this section, "orchestral 85936
performance" has the same meaning as in division (C)(3)(b) of this 85937
section.85938

       (6)(a) A person may have in the person's possession on the 85939
property of an outdoor motorsports facility an opened or unopened 85940
container of beer or intoxicating liquor that was not purchased 85941
from the owner of the facility if both of the following apply:85942

       (i) The person is attending a racing event at the facility; 85943
and85944

       (ii) The owner of the facility grants permission for the 85945
possession and consumption of beer or intoxicating liquor on the 85946
property of the facility.85947

       (b) As used in division (C)(6)(a) of this section:85948

       (i) "Racing event" means a motor vehicle racing event 85949
sanctioned by one or more motor racing sanctioning organizations.85950

       (ii) "Outdoor motorsports facility" means an outdoor 85951
racetrack to which all of the following apply:85952

       (I) It is two and four-tenths miles or more in length.85953

       (II) It is located on two hundred acres or more of land.85954

       (III) The primary business of the owner of the facility is 85955
the hosting and promoting of racing events.85956

       (IV) The holder of a D-1, D-2, or D-3 permit is located on 85957
the property of the facility.85958

       (D) This section does not apply to a person who pays all or a 85959
portion of the fee imposed for the use of a chauffeured limousine 85960
pursuant to a prearranged contract, or the guest of the person, 85961
when all of the following apply:85962

       (1) The person or guest is a passenger in the limousine.85963

       (2) The person or guest is located in the limousine, but is 85964
not occupying a seat in the front compartment of the limousine 85965
where the operator of the limousine is located.85966

       (3) The limousine is located on any street, highway, or other 85967
public or private property open to the public for purposes of 85968
vehicular travel or parking.85969

       (E) An opened bottle of wine that was purchased from the 85970
holder of a permit that authorizes the sale of wine for 85971
consumption on the premises where sold is not an opened container 85972
for the purposes of this section if both of the following apply:85973

       (1) The opened bottle of wine is securely resealed by the 85974
permit holder or an employee of the permit holder before the 85975
bottle is removed from the premises. The bottle shall be secured 85976
in such a manner that it is visibly apparent if the bottle has 85977
been subsequently opened or tampered with.85978

       (2) The opened bottle of wine that is resealed in accordance 85979
with division (E)(1) of this section is stored in the trunk of a 85980
motor vehicle or, if the motor vehicle does not have a trunk, 85981
behind the last upright seat or in an area not normally occupied 85982
by the driver or passengers and not easily accessible by the 85983
driver.85984

       Sec. 4303.181.  (A) Permit D-5a may be issued either to the 85985
owner or operator of a hotel or motel that is required to be 85986
licensed under section 3731.03 of the Revised Code, that contains 85987
at least fifty rooms for registered transient guests or is owned 85988
by a state institution of higher education as defined in section 85989
3345.011 of the Revised Code or a private college or university, 85990
and that qualifies under the other requirements of this section, 85991
or to the owner or operator of a restaurant specified under this 85992
section, to sell beer and any intoxicating liquor at retail, only 85993
by the individual drink in glass and from the container, for 85994
consumption on the premises where sold, and to registered guests 85995
in their rooms, which may be sold by means of a controlled access 85996
alcohol and beverage cabinet in accordance with division (B) of 85997
section 4301.21 of the Revised Code; and to sell the same products 85998
in the same manner and amounts not for consumption on the premises 85999
as may be sold by holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. The premises of 86000
the hotel or motel shall include a retail food establishment or a 86001
food service operation licensed pursuant to Chapter 3717. of the 86002
Revised Code that operates as a restaurant for purposes of this 86003
chapter and that is affiliated with the hotel or motel and within 86004
or contiguous to the hotel or motel, and that serves food within 86005
the hotel or motel, but the principal business of the owner or 86006
operator of the hotel or motel shall be the accommodation of 86007
transient guests. In addition to the privileges authorized in this 86008
division, the holder of a D-5a permit may exercise the same 86009
privileges as the holder of a D-5 permit.86010

       The owner or operator of a hotel, motel, or restaurant who 86011
qualified for and held a D-5a permit on August 4, 1976, may, if 86012
the owner or operator held another permit before holding a D-5a 86013
permit, either retain a D-5a permit or apply for the permit 86014
formerly held, and the division of liquor control shall issue the 86015
permit for which the owner or operator applies and formerly held, 86016
notwithstanding any quota.86017

       A D-5a permit shall not be transferred to another location. 86018
No quota restriction shall be placed on the number of D-5a permits 86019
that may be issued.86020

       The fee for this permit is two thousand three hundred 86021
forty-four dollars.86022

       (B) Permit D-5b may be issued to the owner, operator, tenant, 86023
lessee, or occupant of an enclosed shopping center to sell beer 86024
and intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in 86025
glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises 86026
where sold; and to sell the same products in the same manner and 86027
amount not for consumption on the premises as may be sold by 86028
holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. In addition to the privileges 86029
authorized in this division, the holder of a D-5b permit may 86030
exercise the same privileges as a holder of a D-5 permit.86031

       A D-5b permit shall not be transferred to another location.86032

       One D-5b permit may be issued at an enclosed shopping center 86033
containing at least two hundred twenty-five thousand, but less 86034
than four hundred thousand, square feet of floor area.86035

       Two D-5b permits may be issued at an enclosed shopping center 86036
containing at least four hundred thousand square feet of floor 86037
area. No more than one D-5b permit may be issued at an enclosed 86038
shopping center for each additional two hundred thousand square 86039
feet of floor area or fraction of that floor area, up to a maximum 86040
of five D-5b permits for each enclosed shopping center. The number 86041
of D-5b permits that may be issued at an enclosed shopping center 86042
shall be determined by subtracting the number of D-3 and D-5 86043
permits issued in the enclosed shopping center from the number of 86044
D-5b permits that otherwise may be issued at the enclosed shopping 86045
center under the formulas provided in this division. Except as 86046
provided in this section, no quota shall be placed on the number 86047
of D-5b permits that may be issued. Notwithstanding any quota 86048
provided in this section, the holder of any D-5b permit first 86049
issued in accordance with this section is entitled to its renewal 86050
in accordance with section 4303.271 of the Revised Code.86051

       The holder of a D-5b permit issued before April 4, 1984, 86052
whose tenancy is terminated for a cause other than nonpayment of 86053
rent, may return the D-5b permit to the division of liquor 86054
control, and the division shall cancel that permit. Upon 86055
cancellation of that permit and upon the permit holder's payment 86056
of taxes, contributions, premiums, assessments, and other debts 86057
owing or accrued upon the date of cancellation to this state and 86058
its political subdivisions and a filing with the division of a 86059
certification of that payment, the division shall issue to that 86060
person either a D-5 permit, or a D-1, a D-2, and a D-3 permit, as 86061
that person requests. The division shall issue the D-5 permit, or 86062
the D-1, D-2, and D-3 permits, even if the number of D-1, D-2, 86063
D-3, or D-5 permits currently issued in the municipal corporation 86064
or in the unincorporated area of the township where that person's 86065
proposed premises is located equals or exceeds the maximum number 86066
of such permits that can be issued in that municipal corporation 86067
or in the unincorporated area of that township under the 86068
population quota restrictions contained in section 4303.29 of the 86069
Revised Code. Any D-1, D-2, D-3, or D-5 permit so issued shall not 86070
be transferred to another location. If a D-5b permit is canceled 86071
under the provisions of this paragraph, the number of D-5b permits 86072
that may be issued at the enclosed shopping center for which the 86073
D-5b permit was issued, under the formula provided in this 86074
division, shall be reduced by one if the enclosed shopping center 86075
was entitled to more than one D-5b permit under the formula.86076

       The fee for this permit is two thousand three hundred 86077
forty-four dollars.86078

       (C) Permit D-5c may be issued to the owner or operator of a 86079
retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed 86080
pursuant to Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as a 86081
restaurant for purposes of this chapter and that qualifies under 86082
the other requirements of this section to sell beer and any 86083
intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in 86084
glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises 86085
where sold, and to sell the same products in the same manner and 86086
amounts not for consumption on the premises as may be sold by 86087
holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. In addition to the privileges 86088
authorized in this division, the holder of a D-5c permit may 86089
exercise the same privileges as the holder of a D-5 permit.86090

       To qualify for a D-5c permit, the owner or operator of a 86091
retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed 86092
pursuant to Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as a 86093
restaurant for purposes of this chapter, shall have operated the 86094
restaurant at the proposed premises for not less than twenty-four 86095
consecutive months immediately preceding the filing of the 86096
application for the permit, have applied for a D-5 permit no later 86097
than December 31, 1988, and appear on the division's quota waiting 86098
list for not less than six months immediately preceding the filing 86099
of the application for the permit. In addition to these 86100
requirements, the proposed D-5c permit premises shall be located 86101
within a municipal corporation and further within an election 86102
precinct that, at the time of the application, has no more than 86103
twenty-five per cent of its total land area zoned for residential 86104
use.86105

       A D-5c permit shall not be transferred to another location. 86106
No quota restriction shall be placed on the number of such permits 86107
that may be issued.86108

       Any person who has held a D-5c permit for at least two years 86109
may apply for a D-5 permit, and the division of liquor control 86110
shall issue the D-5 permit notwithstanding the quota restrictions 86111
contained in section 4303.29 of the Revised Code or in any rule of 86112
the liquor control commission.86113

       The fee for this permit is one thousand five hundred 86114
sixty-three dollars.86115

       (D) Permit D-5d may be issued to the owner or operator of a 86116
retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed 86117
pursuant to Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as a 86118
restaurant for purposes of this chapter and that is located at an 86119
airport operated by a board of county commissioners pursuant to 86120
section 307.20 of the Revised Code, at an airport operated by a 86121
port authority pursuant to Chapter 4582. of the Revised Code, or 86122
at an airport operated by a regional airport authority pursuant to 86123
Chapter 308. of the Revised Code. The holder of a D-5d permit may 86124
sell beer and any intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the 86125
individual drink in glass and from the container, for consumption 86126
on the premises where sold, and may sell the same products in the 86127
same manner and amounts not for consumption on the premises where 86128
sold as may be sold by the holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. In 86129
addition to the privileges authorized in this division, the holder 86130
of a D-5d permit may exercise the same privileges as the holder of 86131
a D-5 permit.86132

       A D-5d permit shall not be transferred to another location. 86133
No quota restrictions shall be placed on the number of such 86134
permits that may be issued.86135

       The fee for this permit is two thousand three hundred 86136
forty-four dollars.86137

       (E) Permit D-5e may be issued to any nonprofit organization 86138
that is exempt from federal income taxation under the "Internal 86139
Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 501(c)(3), as 86140
amended, or that is a charitable organization under any chapter of 86141
the Revised Code, and that owns or operates a riverboat that meets 86142
all of the following:86143

       (1) Is permanently docked at one location;86144

       (2) Is designated as an historical riverboat by the Ohio 86145
historical society;86146

       (3) Contains not less than fifteen hundred square feet of 86147
floor area;86148

       (4) Has a seating capacity of fifty or more persons.86149

       The holder of a D-5e permit may sell beer and intoxicating 86150
liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in glass and from 86151
the container, for consumption on the premises where sold.86152

       A D-5e permit shall not be transferred to another location. 86153
No quota restriction shall be placed on the number of such permits 86154
that may be issued. The population quota restrictions contained in 86155
section 4303.29 of the Revised Code or in any rule of the liquor 86156
control commission shall not apply to this division, and the 86157
division shall issue a D-5e permit to any applicant who meets the 86158
requirements of this division. However, the division shall not 86159
issue a D-5e permit if the permit premises or proposed permit 86160
premises are located within an area in which the sale of 86161
spirituous liquor by the glass is prohibited.86162

       The fee for this permit is one thousand two hundred nineteen 86163
dollars.86164

       (F) Permit D-5f may be issued to the owner or operator of a 86165
retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed 86166
under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as a 86167
restaurant for purposes of this chapter and that meets all of the 86168
following:86169

       (1) It contains not less than twenty-five hundred square feet 86170
of floor area.86171

       (2) It is located on or in, or immediately adjacent to, the 86172
shoreline of, a navigable river.86173

       (3) It provides docking space for twenty-five boats.86174

       (4) It provides entertainment and recreation, provided that 86175
not less than fifty per cent of the business on the permit 86176
premises shall be preparing and serving meals for a consideration.86177

       In addition, each application for a D-5f permit shall be 86178
accompanied by a certification from the local legislative 86179
authority that the issuance of the D-5f permit is not inconsistent 86180
with that political subdivision's comprehensive development plan 86181
or other economic development goal as officially established by 86182
the local legislative authority.86183

       The holder of a D-5f permit may sell beer and intoxicating 86184
liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in glass and from 86185
the container, for consumption on the premises where sold.86186

       A D-5f permit shall not be transferred to another location.86187

       The division of liquor control shall not issue a D-5f permit 86188
if the permit premises or proposed permit premises are located 86189
within an area in which the sale of spirituous liquor by the glass 86190
is prohibited.86191

       A fee for this permit is two thousand three hundred 86192
forty-four dollars.86193

       As used in this division, "navigable river" means a river 86194
that is also a "navigable water" as defined in the "Federal Power 86195
Act," 94 Stat. 770 (1980), 16 U.S.C. 796.86196

       (G) Permit D-5g may be issued to a nonprofit corporation that 86197
is either the owner or the operator of a national professional 86198
sports museum. The holder of a D-5g permit may sell beer and any 86199
intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in 86200
glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises 86201
where sold. The holder of a D-5g permit shall sell no beer or 86202
intoxicating liquor for consumption on the premises where sold 86203
after two-thirty a.m. A D-5g permit shall not be transferred to 86204
another location. No quota restrictions shall be placed on the 86205
number of D-5g permits that may be issued. The fee for this permit 86206
is one thousand eight hundred seventy-five dollars.86207

       (H)(1) Permit D-5h may be issued to any nonprofit 86208
organization that is exempt from federal income taxation under the 86209
"Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 86210
501(c)(3), as amended, that owns or operates any of the following:86211

       (a) A fine arts museum, provided that the nonprofit 86212
organization has no less than one thousand five hundred bona fide 86213
members possessing full membership privileges;86214

       (b) A community arts center. As used in division (H)(1)(b) of 86215
this section, "community arts center" means a facility that 86216
provides arts programming to the community in more than one arts 86217
discipline, including, but not limited to, exhibits of works of 86218
art and performances by both professional and amateur artists.86219

       (c) A community theater, provided that the nonprofit 86220
organization is a member of the Ohio arts council and the American 86221
community theatre association and has been in existence for not 86222
less than ten years. As used in division (H)(1)(c) of this 86223
section, "community theater" means a facility that contains at 86224
least one hundred fifty seats and has a primary function of 86225
presenting live theatrical performances and providing recreational 86226
opportunities to the community.86227

        (2) The holder of a D-5h permit may sell beer and any 86228
intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in 86229
glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises 86230
where sold. The holder of a D-5h permit shall sell no beer or 86231
intoxicating liquor for consumption on the premises where sold 86232
after one a.m. A D-5h permit shall not be transferred to another 86233
location. No quota restrictions shall be placed on the number of 86234
D-5h permits that may be issued.86235

       (3) The fee for a D-5h permit is one thousand eight hundred 86236
seventy-five dollars.86237

       (I) Permit D-5i may be issued to the owner or operator of a 86238
retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed 86239
under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as a 86240
restaurant for purposes of this chapter and that meets all of the 86241
following requirements:86242

       (1) It is located in a municipal corporation or a township 86243
with a population of one hundred thousand or less.86244

       (2) It has inside seating capacity for at least one hundred 86245
forty persons.86246

       (3) It has at least four thousand square feet of floor area.86247

       (4) It offers full-course meals, appetizers, and sandwiches.86248

       (5) Its receipts from beer and liquor sales, excluding wine 86249
sales, do not exceed twenty-five per cent of its total gross 86250
receipts.86251

       (6) It has at least one of the following characteristics:86252

       (a) The value of its real and personal property exceeds seven 86253
hundred twenty-five thousand dollars.86254

       (b) It is located on property that is owned or leased by the 86255
state or a state agency, and its owner or operator has 86256
authorization from the state or the state agency that owns or 86257
leases the property to obtain a D-5i permit.86258

       The holder of a D-5i permit may sell beer and any 86259
intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in 86260
glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises 86261
where sold, and may sell the same products in the same manner and 86262
amounts not for consumption on the premises where sold as may be 86263
sold by the holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. The holder of a D-5i 86264
permit shall sell no beer or intoxicating liquor for consumption 86265
on the premises where sold after two-thirty a.m. In addition to 86266
the privileges authorized in this division, the holder of a D-5i 86267
permit may exercise the same privileges as the holder of a D-5 86268
permit.86269

       A D-5i permit shall not be transferred to another location. 86270
The division of liquor control shall not renew a D-5i permit 86271
unless the retail food establishment or food service operation for 86272
which it is issued continues to meet the requirements described in 86273
divisions (I)(1) to (6) of this section. No quota restrictions 86274
shall be placed on the number of D-5i permits that may be issued. 86275
The fee for the D-5i permit is two thousand three hundred 86276
forty-four dollars.86277

       (J) Permit D-5j may be issued to the owner or the operator of 86278
a retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed 86279
under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code to sell beer and 86280
intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in 86281
glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises 86282
where sold and to sell beer and intoxicating liquor in the same 86283
manner and amounts not for consumption on the premises where sold 86284
as may be sold by the holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. The holder 86285
of a D-5j permit may exercise the same privileges, and shall 86286
observe the same hours of operation, as the holder of a D-5 86287
permit.86288

        The D-5j permit shall be issued only within a community 86289
entertainment district that is designated under section 4301.80 of 86290
the Revised Code and that meets one of the following 86291
qualifications:86292

       (1) It is located in a municipal corporation with a 86293
population of at least one hundred thousand.86294

       (2) It is located in a municipal corporation with a 86295
population of at least twenty thousand, and either of the 86296
following applies:86297

       (a) It contains an amusement park the rides of which have 86298
been issued a permit by the department of agriculture under 86299
Chapter 1711. of the Revised Code.86300

       (b) Not less than fifty million dollars will be invested in 86301
development and construction in the community entertainment 86302
district's area located in the municipal corporation.86303

       (3) It is located in a township with a population of at least 86304
forty thousand.86305

       (4) It is located in a township with a population of at least 86306
twenty thousand, and not less than seventy million dollars will be 86307
invested in development and construction in the community 86308
entertainment district's area located in the township.86309

       (5) It is located in a municipal corporation with a 86310
population between ten thousand and twenty thousand, and both of 86311
the following apply:86312

       (a) The municipal corporation was incorporated as a village 86313
prior to calendar year 18401860 and currently has a historic 86314
downtown business district.86315

       (b) The municipal corporation is located in the same county 86316
as another municipal corporation with at least one community 86317
entertainment district.86318

       (6) It is located in a municipal corporation with a 86319
population of at least ten thousand, and not less than seventy 86320
million dollars will be invested in development and construction 86321
in the community entertainment district's area located in the 86322
municipal corporation.86323

       (7) It is located in a municipal corporation with a 86324
population of at least five thousand, and not less than one 86325
hundred million dollars will be invested in development and 86326
construction in the community entertainment district's area 86327
located in the municipal corporation.86328

        The location of a D-5j permit may be transferred only within 86329
the geographic boundaries of the community entertainment district 86330
in which it was issued and shall not be transferred outside the 86331
geographic boundaries of that district.86332

        Not more than one D-5j permit shall be issued within each 86333
community entertainment district for each five acres of land 86334
located within the district. Not more than fifteen D-5j permits 86335
may be issued within a single community entertainment district. 86336
Except as otherwise provided in division (J)(4) of this section, 86337
no quota restrictions shall be placed upon the number of D-5j 86338
permits that may be issued.86339

        The fee for a D-5j permit is two thousand three hundred 86340
forty-four dollars.86341

       (K)(1) Permit D-5k may be issued to any nonprofit 86342
organization that is exempt from federal income taxation under the 86343
"Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 86344
501(c)(3), as amended, that is the owner or operator of a 86345
botanical garden recognized by the American association of 86346
botanical gardens and arboreta, and that has not less than 86347
twenty-five hundred bona fide members.86348

       (2) The holder of a D-5k permit may sell beer and any 86349
intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in 86350
glass and from the container, on the premises where sold.86351

       (3) The holder of a D-5k permit shall sell no beer or 86352
intoxicating liquor for consumption on the premises where sold 86353
after one a.m.86354

       (4) A D-5k permit shall not be transferred to another 86355
location.86356

       (5) No quota restrictions shall be placed on the number of 86357
D-5k permits that may be issued.86358

       (6) The fee for the D-5k permit is one thousand eight hundred 86359
seventy-five dollars.86360

       (L)(1) Permit D-5l may be issued to the owner or the operator 86361
of a retail food establishment or a food service operation 86362
licensed under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code to sell beer and 86363
intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in 86364
glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises 86365
where sold and to sell beer and intoxicating liquor in the same 86366
manner and amounts not for consumption on the premises where sold 86367
as may be sold by the holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. The holder 86368
of a D-5l permit may exercise the same privileges, and shall 86369
observe the same hours of operation, as the holder of a D-5 86370
permit.86371

       (2) The D-5l permit shall be issued only to a premises to 86372
which all of the following apply:86373

       (a) The premises has gross annual receipts from the sale of 86374
food and meals that constitute not less than seventy-five per cent 86375
of its total gross annual receipts.86376

       (b) The premises is located within a revitalization district 86377
that is designated under section 4301.81 of the Revised Code.86378

       (c) The premises is located in a municipal corporation or 86379
township in which the number of D-5 permits issued equals or 86380
exceeds the number of those permits that may be issued in that 86381
municipal corporation or township under section 4303.29 of the 86382
Revised Code.86383

       (d) The premises meets any of the following qualifications:86384

       (i) It is located in a county with a population of one 86385
hundred twenty-five thousand or less according to the population 86386
estimates certified by the development services agency for 86387
calendar year 2006.86388

       (ii) It is located in the municipal corporation that has the 86389
largest population in a county when the county has a population 86390
between two hundred fifteen thousand and two hundred twenty-five 86391
thousand according to the population estimates certified by the 86392
development services agency for calendar year 2006. Division 86393
(L)(2)(d)(ii) of this section applies only to a municipal 86394
corporation that is wholly located in a county.86395

       (iii) It is located in the municipal corporation that has the 86396
largest population in a county when the county has a population 86397
between one hundred forty thousand and one hundred forty-one 86398
thousand according to the population estimates certified by the 86399
development services agency for calendar year 2006. Division 86400
(L)(2)(d)(iii) of this section applies only to a municipal 86401
corporation that is wholly located in a county.86402

       (3) The location of a D-5l permit may be transferred only 86403
within the geographic boundaries of the revitalization district in 86404
which it was issued and shall not be transferred outside the 86405
geographic boundaries of that district.86406

       (4) Not more than one D-5l permit shall be issued within each 86407
revitalization district for each five acres of land located within 86408
the district. Not more than fifteen D-5l permits may be issued 86409
within a single revitalization district. Except as otherwise 86410
provided in division (L)(4) of this section, no quota restrictions 86411
shall be placed upon the number of D-5l permits that may be 86412
issued.86413

       (5) No D-5l permit shall be issued to an adult entertainment 86414
establishment as defined in section 2907.39 of the Revised Code.86415

       (6) The fee for a D-5l permit is two thousand three hundred 86416
forty-four dollars.86417

       (M) Permit D-5m may be issued to either the owner or the 86418
operator of a retail food establishment or food service operation 86419
licensed under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as 86420
a restaurant for purposes of this chapter and that is located in, 86421
or affiliated with, a center for the preservation of wild animals 86422
as defined in section 4301.404 of the Revised Code, to sell beer 86423
and any intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the glass and from 86424
the container, for consumption on the premises where sold, and to 86425
sell the same products in the same manner and amounts not for 86426
consumption on the premises as may be sold by the holders of D-1 86427
and D-2 permits. In addition to the privileges authorized by this 86428
division, the holder of a D-5m permit may exercise the same 86429
privileges as the holder of a D-5 permit.86430

       A D-5m permit shall not be transferred to another location. 86431
No quota restrictions shall be placed on the number of D-5m 86432
permits that may be issued. The fee for a permit D-5m is two 86433
thousand three hundred forty-four dollars.86434

       (N) Permit D-5n shall be issued to either a casino operator 86435
or a casino management company licensed under Chapter 3772. of the 86436
Revised Code that operates a casino facility under that chapter, 86437
to sell beer and any intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the 86438
individual drink in glass and from the container, for consumption 86439
on the premises where sold, and to sell the same products in the 86440
same manner and amounts not for consumption on the premises as may 86441
be sold by the holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. In addition to the 86442
privileges authorized by this division, the holder of a D-5n 86443
permit may exercise the same privileges as the holder of a D-5 86444
permit. A D-5n permit shall not be transferred to another 86445
location. Only one D-5n permit may be issued per casino facility 86446
and not more than four D-5n permits shall be issued in this state. 86447
The fee for a permit D-5n shall be twenty thousand dollars. The 86448
holder of a D-5n permit may conduct casino gaming on the permit 86449
premises notwithstanding any provision of the Revised Code or 86450
Administrative Code.86451

       (O) Permit D-5o may be issued to the owner or operator of a 86452
retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed 86453
under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as a 86454
restaurant for purposes of this chapter and that is located within 86455
a casino facility for which a D-5n permit has been issued. The 86456
holder of a D-5o permit may sell beer and any intoxicating liquor 86457
at retail, only by the individual drink in glass and from the 86458
container, for consumption on the premises where sold, and may 86459
sell the same products in the same manner and amounts not for 86460
consumption on the premises where sold as may be sold by the 86461
holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. In addition to the privileges 86462
authorized by this division, the holder of a D-5o permit may 86463
exercise the same privileges as the holder of a D-5 permit. A D-5o 86464
permit shall not be transferred to another location. No quota 86465
restrictions shall be placed on the number of such permits that 86466
may be issued. The fee for this permit is two thousand three 86467
hundred forty-four dollars. 86468

       (P) Permit D-5p may be issued to the owner or operator of a 86469
retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed 86470
under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as a 86471
restaurant for purposes of this chapter and that is located within 86472
a park district. The holder of a D-5p permit may sell beer and any 86473
intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in 86474
glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises 86475
where sold, and may sell the same products in the same manner and 86476
amounts not for consumption on the premises where sold as may be 86477
sold by the holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. In addition to the 86478
privileges authorized by this division, the holder of a D-5p 86479
permit may exercise the same privileges as the holder of a D-5 86480
permit. A D-5p permit shall not be transferred to another 86481
location. No quota restrictions shall be placed on the number of 86482
such permits that may be issued. The fee for a D-5p permit is two 86483
thousand three hundred forty-four dollars.86484

       As used in this division, "park district" means a park 86485
district that is created under Chapter 1545. of the Revised Code 86486
consisting of not less than twenty-two thousand acres of land, a 86487
portion of which is adjacent to Lake Erie.86488

       Sec. 4305.131.  (A) If any permit holder fails to pay the 86489
taxes levied by section 4301.42, 4301.43, 4301.432, or 4305.01 of 86490
the Revised Code in the manner prescribed by section 4303.33 of 86491
the Revised Code, or by section 4301.421 or 4301.424 of the 86492
Revised Code in the manner prescribed in section 4301.422 of the 86493
Revised Code, and by the rules of the tax commissioner, the 86494
commissioner may make an assessment against the permit holder 86495
based upon any information in the commissioner's possession.86496

       No assessment shall be made against any permit holder for any 86497
taxes imposed by section 4301.42, 4301.421, 4301.424, 4301.43, 86498
4301.432, or 4305.01 of the Revised Code more than three years 86499
after the last day of the calendar month in which the sale was 86500
made or more than three years after the return for that period is 86501
filed, whichever is later. This section does not bar an assessment 86502
against any permit holder or registrant as provided in section 86503
4303.331 of the Revised Code who fails to file a return as 86504
required by section 4301.422 or 4303.33 of the Revised Code, or 86505
who files a fraudulent return.86506

       A penalty of up to thirty per cent may be added to the amount 86507
of every assessment made under this section. The commissioner may 86508
adopt rules providing for the imposition and remission of 86509
penalties added to assessments made under this section.86510

       The commissioner shall give the party assessed written notice 86511
of the assessment in the manner provided in section 5703.37 of the 86512
Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner shall provide 86513
instructions on how to petition for reassessment and request a 86514
hearing on the petition.86515

       (B) Unless the party assessed files with the tax commissioner 86516
within sixty days after service of the notice of assessment, 86517
either personally or by certified mail, a written petition for 86518
reassessment, signed by the party assessed or that party's 86519
authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the assessment 86520
becomes final and the amount of the assessment is due and payable 86521
from the party assessed to the treasurer of state. The petition 86522
shall indicate the objections of the party assessed, but 86523
additional objections may be raised in writing if received by the 86524
commissioner prior to the date shown on the final determination. 86525
If the petition has been properly filed, the commissioner shall 86526
proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised Code.86527

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 86528
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 86529
copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the assessment final 86530
may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common 86531
pleas in the county in which the permit holder's place of business 86532
is located or the county in which the party assessed resides. If 86533
the party assessed maintains no place of business in this state 86534
and is not a resident of this state, the certified copy of the 86535
entry may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of 86536
common pleas of Franklin county.86537

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 86538
enter a judgment for the state against the party assessed in the 86539
amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk 86540
in a loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for state beer 86541
and liquor sales taxes," and shall have the same effect as other 86542
judgments. Execution shall issue upon the judgment upon the 86543
request of the commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales on 86544
execution shall apply to sales made under the judgment, except as 86545
otherwise provided in this chapter and Chapters 4301. and 4307. of 86546
the Revised Code.86547

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety86548
within sixty days after the day the assessment was issued, the 86549
portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall bear 86550
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 86551
the Revised Code from the day the commissioner issues the 86552
assessment until it is paid or until it is certified to the 86553
attorney general for collection under section 131.02 of the 86554
Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid portion of the 86555
assessment is certified to the attorney general for collection, 86556
the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear interest at 86557
the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised 86558
Code from the date of certification until the date it is paid in 86559
its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner as the tax 86560
and may be collected by the issuance of an assessment under this 86561
section.86562

       (D) All money collected under this section shall be 86563
considered as revenue arising from the taxes imposed by sections 86564
4301.42, 4301.421, 4301.424, 4301.43, 4301.432, and 4305.01 of the 86565
Revised Code.86566

       Sec. 4501.01.  As used in this chapter and Chapters 4503., 86567
4505., 4507., 4509., 4510., 4511., 4513., 4515., and 4517. of the 86568
Revised Code, and in the penal laws, except as otherwise provided:86569

       (A) "Vehicles" means everything on wheels or runners, 86570
including motorized bicycles, but does not mean electric personal 86571
assistive mobility devices, vehicles that are operated exclusively 86572
on rails or tracks or from overhead electric trolley wires, and 86573
vehicles that belong to any police department, municipal fire 86574
department, or volunteer fire department, or that are used by such 86575
a department in the discharge of its functions.86576

       (B) "Motor vehicle" means any vehicle, including mobile homes 86577
and recreational vehicles, that is propelled or drawn by power 86578
other than muscular power or power collected from overhead 86579
electric trolley wires. "Motor vehicle" does not include utility 86580
vehicles as defined in division (VV) of this section, motorized 86581
bicycles, road rollers, traction engines, power shovels, power 86582
cranes, and other equipment used in construction work and not 86583
designed for or employed in general highway transportation, 86584
well-drilling machinery, ditch-digging machinery, farm machinery, 86585
and trailers that are designed and used exclusively to transport a 86586
boat between a place of storage and a marina, or in and around a 86587
marina, when drawn or towed on a public road or highway for a 86588
distance of no more than ten miles and at a speed of twenty-five 86589
miles per hour or less.86590

       (C) "Agricultural tractor" and "traction engine" mean any 86591
self-propelling vehicle that is designed or used for drawing other 86592
vehicles or wheeled machinery, but has no provisions for carrying 86593
loads independently of such other vehicles, and that is used 86594
principally for agricultural purposes.86595

       (D) "Commercial tractor," except as defined in division (C) 86596
of this section, means any motor vehicle that has motive power and 86597
either is designed or used for drawing other motor vehicles, or is 86598
designed or used for drawing another motor vehicle while carrying 86599
a portion of the other motor vehicle or its load, or both.86600

       (E) "Passenger car" means any motor vehicle that is designed 86601
and used for carrying not more than nine persons and includes any 86602
motor vehicle that is designed and used for carrying not more than 86603
fifteen persons in a ridesharing arrangement.86604

       (F) "Collector's vehicle" means any motor vehicle or 86605
agricultural tractor or traction engine that is of special 86606
interest, that has a fair market value of one hundred dollars or 86607
more, whether operable or not, and that is owned, operated, 86608
collected, preserved, restored, maintained, or used essentially as 86609
a collector's item, leisure pursuit, or investment, but not as the 86610
owner's principal means of transportation. "Licensed collector's 86611
vehicle" means a collector's vehicle, other than an agricultural 86612
tractor or traction engine, that displays current, valid license 86613
tags issued under section 4503.45 of the Revised Code, or a 86614
similar type of motor vehicle that displays current, valid license 86615
tags issued under substantially equivalent provisions in the laws 86616
of other states.86617

       (G) "Historical motor vehicle" means any motor vehicle that 86618
is over twenty-five years old and is owned solely as a collector's 86619
item and for participation in club activities, exhibitions, tours, 86620
parades, and similar uses, but that in no event is used for 86621
general transportation.86622

       (H) "Noncommercial motor vehicle" means any motor vehicle, 86623
including a farm truck as defined in section 4503.04 of the 86624
Revised Code, that is designed by the manufacturer to carry a load 86625
of no more than one ton and is used exclusively for purposes other 86626
than engaging in business for profit.86627

       (I) "Bus" means any motor vehicle that has motor power and is 86628
designed and used for carrying more than nine passengers, except 86629
any motor vehicle that is designed and used for carrying not more 86630
than fifteen passengers in a ridesharing arrangement.86631

       (J) "Commercial car" or "truck" means any motor vehicle that 86632
has motor power and is designed and used for carrying merchandise 86633
or freight, or that is used as a commercial tractor.86634

       (K) "Bicycle" means every device, other than a device that is 86635
designed solely for use as a play vehicle by a child, that is 86636
propelled solely by human power upon which a person may ride, and 86637
that has two or more wheels, any of which is more than fourteen 86638
inches in diameter.86639

       (L) "Motorized bicycle" means any vehicle that either has two 86640
tandem wheels or one wheel in the front and two wheels in the 86641
rear, that is capable of being pedaled, and that is equipped with 86642
a helper motor of not more than fifty cubic centimeters piston 86643
displacement that produces no more than one brake horsepower and 86644
is capable of propelling the vehicle at a speed of no greater than 86645
twenty miles per hour on a level surface.86646

       (M) "Trailer" means any vehicle without motive power that is 86647
designed or used for carrying property or persons wholly on its 86648
own structure and for being drawn by a motor vehicle, and includes 86649
any such vehicle that is formed by or operated as a combination of 86650
a semitrailer and a vehicle of the dolly type such as that 86651
commonly known as a trailer dolly, a vehicle used to transport 86652
agricultural produce or agricultural production materials between 86653
a local place of storage or supply and the farm when drawn or 86654
towed on a public road or highway at a speed greater than 86655
twenty-five miles per hour, and a vehicle that is designed and 86656
used exclusively to transport a boat between a place of storage 86657
and a marina, or in and around a marina, when drawn or towed on a 86658
public road or highway for a distance of more than ten miles or at 86659
a speed of more than twenty-five miles per hour. "Trailer" does 86660
not include a manufactured home or travel trailer.86661

       (N) "Noncommercial trailer" means any trailer, except a 86662
travel trailer or trailer that is used to transport a boat as 86663
described in division (B) of this section, but, where applicable, 86664
includes a vehicle that is used to transport a boat as described 86665
in division (M) of this section, that has a gross weight of no 86666
more than ten thousand pounds, and that is used exclusively for 86667
purposes other than engaging in business for a profit, such as the 86668
transportation of personal items for personal or recreational 86669
purposes.86670

       (O) "Mobile home" means a building unit or assembly of closed 86671
construction that is fabricated in an off-site facility, is more 86672
than thirty-five body feet in length or, when erected on site, is 86673
three hundred twenty or more square feet, is built on a permanent 86674
chassis, is transportable in one or more sections, and does not 86675
qualify as a manufactured home as defined in division (C)(4) of 86676
section 3781.06 of the Revised Code or as an industrialized unit 86677
as defined in division (C)(3) of section 3781.06 of the Revised 86678
Code.86679

       (P) "Semitrailer" means any vehicle of the trailer type that 86680
does not have motive power and is so designed or used with another 86681
and separate motor vehicle that in operation a part of its own 86682
weight or that of its load, or both, rests upon and is carried by 86683
the other vehicle furnishing the motive power for propelling 86684
itself and the vehicle referred to in this division, and includes, 86685
for the purpose only of registration and taxation under those 86686
chapters, any vehicle of the dolly type, such as a trailer dolly, 86687
that is designed or used for the conversion of a semitrailer into 86688
a trailer.86689

       (Q) "Recreational vehicle" means a vehicular portable 86690
structure that meets all of the following conditions:86691

       (1) It is designed for the sole purpose of recreational 86692
travel.86693

       (2) It is not used for the purpose of engaging in business 86694
for profit.86695

       (3) It is not used for the purpose of engaging in intrastate 86696
commerce.86697

       (4) It is not used for the purpose of commerce as defined in 86698
49 C.F.R. 383.5, as amended.86699

       (5) It is not regulated by the public utilities commission 86700
pursuant to Chapter 4905., 4921., or 4923. of the Revised Code.86701

       (6) It is classed as one of the following:86702

       (a) "Travel trailer" means a nonself-propelled recreational 86703
vehicle that does not exceed an overall length of thirty-five 86704
feet, exclusive of bumper and tongue or coupling, and contains 86705
less than three hundred twenty square feet of space when erected 86706
on site. "Travel trailer" includes a tent-type fold-out camping 86707
trailer as defined in section 4517.01 of the Revised Code.86708

       (b) "Motor home" means a self-propelled recreational vehicle 86709
that has no fifth wheel and is constructed with permanently 86710
installed facilities for cold storage, cooking and consuming of 86711
food, and for sleeping.86712

       (c) "Truck camper" means a nonself-propelled recreational 86713
vehicle that does not have wheels for road use and is designed to 86714
be placed upon and attached to a motor vehicle. "Truck camper" 86715
does not include truck covers that consist of walls and a roof, 86716
but do not have floors and facilities enabling them to be used as 86717
a dwelling.86718

       (d) "Fifth wheel trailer" means a vehicle that is of such 86719
size and weight as to be movable without a special highway permit, 86720
that has a gross trailer area of four hundred square feet or less, 86721
that is constructed with a raised forward section that allows a 86722
bi-level floor plan, and that is designed to be towed by a vehicle 86723
equipped with a fifth-wheel hitch ordinarily installed in the bed 86724
of a truck.86725

       (e) "Park trailer" means a vehicle that is commonly known as 86726
a park model recreational vehicle, meets the American national 86727
standard institute standard A119.5 (1988) for park trailers, is 86728
built on a single chassis, has a gross trailer area of four 86729
hundred square feet or less when set up, is designed for seasonal 86730
or temporary living quarters, and may be connected to utilities 86731
necessary for the operation of installed features and appliances.86732

       (R) "Pneumatic tires" means tires of rubber and fabric or 86733
tires of similar material, that are inflated with air.86734

       (S) "Solid tires" means tires of rubber or similar elastic 86735
material that are not dependent upon confined air for support of 86736
the load.86737

       (T) "Solid tire vehicle" means any vehicle that is equipped 86738
with two or more solid tires.86739

       (U) "Farm machinery" means all machines and tools that are 86740
used in the production, harvesting, and care of farm products, and 86741
includes trailers that are used to transport agricultural produce 86742
or agricultural production materials between a local place of 86743
storage or supply and the farm, agricultural tractors, threshing 86744
machinery, hay-baling machinery, corn shellers, hammermills, and 86745
machinery used in the production of horticultural, agricultural, 86746
and vegetable products.86747

       (V) "Owner" includes any person or firm, other than a 86748
manufacturer or dealer, that has title to a motor vehicle, except 86749
that, in sections 4505.01 to 4505.19 of the Revised Code, "owner" 86750
includes in addition manufacturers and dealers.86751

       (W) "Manufacturer" and "dealer" include all persons and firms 86752
that are regularly engaged in the business of manufacturing, 86753
selling, displaying, offering for sale, or dealing in motor 86754
vehicles, at an established place of business that is used 86755
exclusively for the purpose of manufacturing, selling, displaying, 86756
offering for sale, or dealing in motor vehicles. A place of 86757
business that is used for manufacturing, selling, displaying, 86758
offering for sale, or dealing in motor vehicles shall be deemed to 86759
be used exclusively for those purposes even though snowmobiles or 86760
all-purpose vehicles are sold or displayed for sale thereat, even 86761
though farm machinery is sold or displayed for sale thereat, or 86762
even though repair, accessory, gasoline and oil, storage, parts, 86763
service, or paint departments are maintained thereat, or, in any 86764
county having a population of less than seventy-five thousand at 86765
the last federal census, even though a department in a place of 86766
business is used to dismantle, salvage, or rebuild motor vehicles 86767
by means of used parts, if such departments are operated for the 86768
purpose of furthering and assisting in the business of 86769
manufacturing, selling, displaying, offering for sale, or dealing 86770
in motor vehicles. Places of business or departments in a place of 86771
business used to dismantle, salvage, or rebuild motor vehicles by 86772
means of using used parts are not considered as being maintained 86773
for the purpose of assisting or furthering the manufacturing, 86774
selling, displaying, and offering for sale or dealing in motor 86775
vehicles.86776

       (X) "Operator" includes any person who drives or operates a 86777
motor vehicle upon the public highways.86778

       (Y) "Chauffeur" means any operator who operates a motor 86779
vehicle, other than a taxicab, as an employee for hire; or any 86780
operator whether or not the owner of a motor vehicle, other than a 86781
taxicab, who operates such vehicle for transporting, for gain, 86782
compensation, or profit, either persons or property owned by 86783
another. Any operator of a motor vehicle who is voluntarily 86784
involved in a ridesharing arrangement is not considered an 86785
employee for hire or operating such vehicle for gain, 86786
compensation, or profit.86787

       (Z) "State" includes the territories and federal districts of 86788
the United States, and the provinces of Canada.86789

       (AA) "Public roads and highways" for vehicles includes all 86790
public thoroughfares, bridges, and culverts.86791

       (BB) "Manufacturer's number" means the manufacturer's 86792
original serial number that is affixed to or imprinted upon the 86793
chassis or other part of the motor vehicle.86794

       (CC) "Motor number" means the manufacturer's original number 86795
that is affixed to or imprinted upon the engine or motor of the 86796
vehicle.86797

       (DD) "Distributor" means any person who is authorized by a 86798
motor vehicle manufacturer to distribute new motor vehicles to 86799
licensed motor vehicle dealers at an established place of business 86800
that is used exclusively for the purpose of distributing new motor 86801
vehicles to licensed motor vehicle dealers, except when the 86802
distributor also is a new motor vehicle dealer, in which case the 86803
distributor may distribute at the location of the distributor's 86804
licensed dealership.86805

       (EE) "Ridesharing arrangement" means the transportation of 86806
persons in a motor vehicle where the transportation is incidental 86807
to another purpose of a volunteer driver and includes ridesharing 86808
arrangements known as carpools, vanpools, and buspools.86809

       (FF) "Apportionable vehicle" means any vehicle that is used 86810
or intended for use in two or more international registration plan 86811
member jurisdictions that allocate or proportionally register 86812
vehicles, that is used for the transportation of persons for hire 86813
or designed, used, or maintained primarily for the transportation 86814
of property, and that meets any of the following qualifications:86815

       (1) Is a power unit having a gross vehicle weight in excess 86816
of twenty-six thousand pounds;86817

       (2) Is a power unit having three or more axles, regardless of 86818
the gross vehicle weight;86819

       (3) Is a combination vehicle with a gross vehicle weight in 86820
excess of twenty-six thousand pounds.86821

       "Apportionable vehicle" does not include recreational 86822
vehicles, vehicles displaying restricted plates, city pick-up and 86823
delivery vehicles, buses used for the transportation of chartered 86824
parties, or vehicles owned and operated by the United States, this 86825
state, or any political subdivisions thereof.86826

       (GG) "Chartered party" means a group of persons who contract 86827
as a group to acquire the exclusive use of a passenger-carrying 86828
motor vehicle at a fixed charge for the vehicle in accordance with 86829
the carrier's tariff, lawfully on file with the United States 86830
department of transportation, for the purpose of group travel to a 86831
specified destination or for a particular itinerary, either agreed 86832
upon in advance or modified by the chartered group after having 86833
left the place of origin.86834

       (HH) "International registration plan" means a reciprocal 86835
agreement of member jurisdictions that is endorsed by the American 86836
association of motor vehicle administrators, and that promotes and 86837
encourages the fullest possible use of the highway system by 86838
authorizing apportioned registration of fleets of vehicles and 86839
recognizing registration of vehicles apportioned in member 86840
jurisdictions.86841

       (II) "Restricted plate" means a license plate that has a 86842
restriction of time, geographic area, mileage, or commodity, and 86843
includes license plates issued to farm trucks under division (J) 86844
of section 4503.04 of the Revised Code.86845

       (JJ) "Gross vehicle weight," with regard to any commercial 86846
car, trailer, semitrailer, or bus that is taxed at the rates 86847
established under section 4503.042 or 4503.65 of the Revised Code, 86848
means the unladen weight of the vehicle fully equipped plus the 86849
maximum weight of the load to be carried on the vehicle.86850

       (KK) "Combined gross vehicle weight" with regard to any 86851
combination of a commercial car, trailer, and semitrailer, that is 86852
taxed at the rates established under section 4503.042 or 4503.65 86853
of the Revised Code, means the total unladen weight of the 86854
combination of vehicles fully equipped plus the maximum weight of 86855
the load to be carried on that combination of vehicles.86856

       (LL) "Chauffeured limousine" means a motor vehicle that is 86857
designed to carry nine or fewer passengers and is operated for 86858
hire on an hourly basis pursuant to a prearranged contract for the 86859
transportation of passengers on public roads and highways along a 86860
route under the control of the person hiring the vehicle and not 86861
over a defined and regular route. "Prearranged contract" means an 86862
agreement, made in advance of boarding, to provide transportation 86863
from a specific location in a chauffeured limousine at a fixed 86864
rate per hour or trip. "Chauffeured limousine" does not include 86865
any vehicle that is used exclusively in the business of funeral 86866
directing.86867

       (MM) "Manufactured home" has the same meaning as in division 86868
(C)(4) of section 3781.06 of the Revised Code.86869

       (NN) "Acquired situs," with respect to a manufactured home or 86870
a mobile home, means to become located in this state by the 86871
placement of the home on real property, but does not include the 86872
placement of a manufactured home or a mobile home in the inventory 86873
of a new motor vehicle dealer or the inventory of a manufacturer, 86874
remanufacturer, or distributor of manufactured or mobile homes.86875

       (OO) "Electronic" includes electrical, digital, magnetic, 86876
optical, electromagnetic, or any other form of technology that 86877
entails capabilities similar to these technologies.86878

       (PP) "Electronic record" means a record generated, 86879
communicated, received, or stored by electronic means for use in 86880
an information system or for transmission from one information 86881
system to another.86882

       (QQ) "Electronic signature" means a signature in electronic 86883
form attached to or logically associated with an electronic 86884
record.86885

       (RR) "Financial transaction device" has the same meaning as 86886
in division (A) of section 113.40 of the Revised Code.86887

       (SS) "Electronic motor vehicle dealer" means a motor vehicle 86888
dealer licensed under Chapter 4517. of the Revised Code whom the 86889
registrar of motor vehicles determines meets the criteria 86890
designated in section 4503.035 of the Revised Code for electronic 86891
motor vehicle dealers and designates as an electronic motor 86892
vehicle dealer under that section.86893

       (TT) "Electric personal assistive mobility device" means a 86894
self-balancing two non-tandem wheeled device that is designed to 86895
transport only one person, has an electric propulsion system of an 86896
average of seven hundred fifty watts, and when ridden on a paved 86897
level surface by an operator who weighs one hundred seventy pounds 86898
has a maximum speed of less than twenty miles per hour.86899

       (UU) "Limited driving privileges" means the privilege to 86900
operate a motor vehicle that a court grants under section 4510.021 86901
of the Revised Code to a person whose driver's or commercial 86902
driver's license or permit or nonresident operating privilege has 86903
been suspended.86904

       (VV) "Utility vehicle" means a self-propelled vehicle 86905
designed with a bed, principally for the purpose of transporting 86906
material or cargo in connection with construction, agricultural, 86907
forestry, grounds maintenance, lawn and garden, materials 86908
handling, or similar activities. "Utility vehicle" includes a 86909
vehicle with a maximum attainable speed of twenty miles per hour 86910
or less that is used exclusively within the boundaries of state 86911
parks by state park employees or volunteers for the operation or 86912
maintenance of state park facilities.86913

       Sec. 4501.21.  (A) There is hereby created in the state 86914
treasury the license plate contribution fund. The fund shall 86915
consist of all contributions paid by motor vehicle registrants and 86916
collected by the registrar of motor vehicles pursuant to sections 86917
4503.491, 4503.493, 4503.494, 4503.496, 4503.498, 4503.499, 86918
4503.50, 4503.501, 4503.502, 4503.505, 4503.51, 4503.522, 86919
4503.523, 4503.524, 4503.526, 4503.531, 4503.545, 4503.55, 86920
4503.551, 4503.552, 4503.553, 4503.561, 4503.562, 4503.564, 86921
4503.591, 4503.67, 4503.68, 4503.69, 4503.701, 4503.71, 4503.711, 86922
4503.712, 4503.713, 4503.72, 4503.73, 4503.732, 4503.74, 4503.75, 86923
4503.751, 4503.85, 4503.89, 4503.92, and 4503.94 of the Revised 86924
Code. 86925

       (B) The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 86926
collects in the fund as follows: 86927

        The registrar shall pay the contributions received pursuant 86928
to section 4503.491 of the Revised Code to the breast cancer fund 86929
of Ohio, which shall use that money only to pay for programs that 86930
provide assistance and education to Ohio breast cancer patients 86931
and that improve access for such patients to quality health care 86932
and clinical trials and shall not use any of the money for 86933
abortion information, counseling, services, or other 86934
abortion-related activities. 86935

        The registrar shall pay the contributions received pursuant 86936
to section 4503.493 of the Revised Code to the autism society of 86937
Ohio, which shall use the contributions for programs and autism 86938
awareness efforts throughout the state. 86939

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 86940
receives pursuant to section 4503.494 of the Revised Code to the 86941
national multiple sclerosis society for distribution in equal 86942
amounts to the northwestern Ohio, Ohio buckeye, and Ohio valley 86943
chapters of the national multiple sclerosis society. These 86944
chapters shall use the money they receive under this section to 86945
assist in paying the expenses they incur in providing services 86946
directly to their clients.86947

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 86948
receives pursuant to section 4503.496 of the Revised Code to the 86949
Ohio sickle cell and health association, which shall use the 86950
contributions to help support educational, clinical, and social 86951
support services for adults who have sickle cell disease.86952

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 86953
receives pursuant to section 4503.498 of the Revised Code to 86954
special olympics Ohio, inc., which shall use the contributions for 86955
its programs, charitable efforts, and other activities. 86956

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 86957
receives pursuant to section 4503.499 of the Revised Code to the 86958
children's glioma cancer foundation, which shall use the 86959
contributions for its research and other programs. 86960

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 86961
receives pursuant to section 4503.50 of the Revised Code to the 86962
future farmers of America foundation, which shall deposit the 86963
contributions into its general account to be used for educational 86964
and scholarship purposes of the future farmers of America 86965
foundation. 86966

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 86967
receives pursuant to section 4503.501 of the Revised Code to the 86968
4-H youth development program of the Ohio state university 86969
extension program, which shall use those contributions to pay the 86970
expenses it incurs in conducting its educational activities. 86971

        The registrar shall pay the contributions received pursuant 86972
to section 4503.502 of the Revised Code to the Ohio cattlemen's 86973
foundation, which shall use those contributions for scholarships 86974
and other educational activities. 86975

       The registrar shall pay the contributions received pursuant 86976
to section 4503.505 of the Revised Code to the organization Ohio 86977
region phi theta kappa, which shall use those contributions for 86978
scholarships for students who are members of that organization. 86979

        The registrar shall pay each contribution the registrar 86980
receives pursuant to section 4503.51 of the Revised Code to the 86981
university or college whose name or marking or design appears on 86982
collegiate license plates that are issued to a person under that 86983
section. A university or college that receives contributions from 86984
the fund shall deposit the contributions into its general 86985
scholarship fund. 86986

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 86987
receives pursuant to section 4503.522 of the Revised Code to the 86988
"friends of Perry's victory and international peace memorial, 86989
incorporated," a nonprofit corporation organized under the laws of 86990
this state, to assist that organization in paying the expenses it 86991
incurs in sponsoring or holding charitable, educational, and 86992
cultural events at the monument. 86993

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 86994
receives pursuant to section 4503.523 of the Revised Code to the 86995
fairport lights foundation, which shall use the money to pay for 86996
the restoration, maintenance, and preservation of the lighthouses 86997
of fairport harbor. 86998

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 86999
receives pursuant to section 4503.524 of the Revised Code to the 87000
Massillon tiger football booster club, which shall use the 87001
contributions only to promote and support the football team of 87002
Washington high school of the Massillon city school district.87003

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 87004
receives pursuant to section 4503.526 of the Revised Code to the 87005
Ohio district Kiwanis foundation of the Ohio district of Kiwanis 87006
international, which shall use the money it receives under this 87007
section to pay the costs of its educational and humanitarian 87008
activities.87009

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 87010
receives pursuant to section 4503.531 of the Revised Code to the 87011
thank you foundation, incorporated, a nonprofit corporation 87012
organized under the laws of this state, to assist that 87013
organization in paying for the charitable activities and programs 87014
it sponsors in support of United States military personnel, 87015
veterans, and their families.87016

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 87017
receives pursuant to section 4503.55 of the Revised Code to the 87018
pro football hall of fame, which shall deposit the contributions 87019
into a special bank account that it establishes and which shall be 87020
separate and distinct from any other account the pro football hall 87021
of fame maintains, to be used exclusively for the purpose of 87022
promoting the pro football hall of fame as a travel destination. 87023

        The registrar shall pay the contributions that are paid to 87024
the registrar pursuant to section 4503.545 of the Revised Code to 87025
the national rifle association foundation, which shall use the 87026
money to pay the costs of the educational activities and programs 87027
the foundation holds or sponsors in this state. 87028

        The registrar shall pay to the Ohio pet fund the 87029
contributions the registrar receives pursuant to section 4503.551 87030
of the Revised Code and any other money from any other source, 87031
including donations, gifts, and grants, that is designated by the 87032
source to be paid to the Ohio pet fund. The Ohio pet fund shall 87033
use the moneys it receives under this section to support programs 87034
for the sterilization of dogs and cats and for educational 87035
programs concerning the proper veterinary care of those animals, 87036
and for expenses of the Ohio pet fund that are reasonably 87037
necessary for it to obtain and maintain its tax-exempt status and 87038
to perform its duties. 87039

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 87040
receives pursuant to section 4503.552 of the Revised Code to the 87041
rock and roll hall of fame and museum, incorporated. 87042

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 87043
receives pursuant to section 4503.553 of the Revised Code to the 87044
Ohio coalition for animals, incorporated, a nonprofit corporation. 87045
Except as provided in division (B) of this section, the coalition 87046
shall distribute the money to its members, and the members shall 87047
use the money only to pay for educational, charitable, and other 87048
programs of each coalition member that provide care for unwanted, 87049
abused, and neglected horses. The Ohio coalition for animals may 87050
use a portion of the money to pay for reasonable marketing costs 87051
incurred in the design and promotion of the license plate and for 87052
administrative costs incurred in the disbursement and management 87053
of funds received under this section. 87054

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 87055
receives pursuant to section 4503.561 of the Revised Code to the 87056
state of Ohio chapter of ducks unlimited, inc., which shall 87057
deposit the contributions into a special bank account that it 87058
establishes. The special bank account shall be separate and 87059
distinct from any other account the state of Ohio chapter of ducks 87060
unlimited, inc., maintains and shall be used exclusively for the 87061
purpose of protecting, enhancing, restoring, and managing wetlands 87062
and conserving wildlife habitat. The state of Ohio chapter of 87063
ducks unlimited, inc., annually shall notify the registrar in 87064
writing of the name, address, and account to which such payments 87065
are to be made. 87066

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 87067
receives pursuant to section 4503.562 of the Revised Code to the 87068
Mahoning river consortium, which shall use the money to pay the 87069
expenses it incurs in restoring and maintaining the Mahoning river 87070
watershed. 87071

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 87072
receives pursuant to section 4503.564 of the Revised Code to 87073
Antioch college for the use of the Glen Helen ecology institute to 87074
pay expenses related to the Glen Helen nature preserve.87075

        The registrar shall pay to a sports commission created 87076
pursuant to section 4503.591 of the Revised Code each contribution 87077
the registrar receives under that section that an applicant pays 87078
to obtain license plates that bear the logo of a professional 87079
sports team located in the county of that sports commission and 87080
that is participating in the license plate program pursuant to 87081
division (E) of that section, irrespective of the county of 87082
residence of an applicant. 87083

        The registrar shall pay to a community charity each 87084
contribution the registrar receives under section 4503.591 of the 87085
Revised Code that an applicant pays to obtain license plates that 87086
bear the logo of a professional sports team that is participating 87087
in the license plate program pursuant to division (G) of that 87088
section. 87089

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 87090
receives pursuant to section 4503.67 of the Revised Code to the 87091
Dan Beard council of the boy scouts of America. The council shall 87092
distribute all contributions in an equitable manner throughout the 87093
state to regional councils of the boy scouts. 87094

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 87095
receives pursuant to section 4503.68 of the Revised Code to the 87096
great river council of the girl scouts of the United States of 87097
America. The council shall distribute all contributions in an 87098
equitable manner throughout the state to regional councils of the 87099
girl scouts. 87100

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 87101
receives pursuant to section 4503.69 of the Revised Code to the 87102
Dan Beard council of the boy scouts of America. The council shall 87103
distribute all contributions in an equitable manner throughout the 87104
state to regional councils of the boy scouts. 87105

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 87106
receives pursuant to section 4503.701 of the Revised Code to the 87107
Prince Hall grand lodge of free and accepted masons of Ohio, which 87108
shall use the contributions for scholarship purposes.87109

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 87110
receives pursuant to section 4503.71 of the Revised Code to the 87111
fraternal order of police of Ohio, incorporated, which shall 87112
deposit the fees into its general account to be used for purposes 87113
of the fraternal order of police of Ohio, incorporated. 87114

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 87115
receives pursuant to section 4503.711 of the Revised Code to the 87116
fraternal order of police of Ohio, incorporated, which shall 87117
deposit the contributions into an account that it creates to be 87118
used for the purpose of advancing and protecting the law 87119
enforcement profession, promoting improved law enforcement 87120
methods, and teaching respect for law and order. 87121

       The registrar shall pay the contributions received pursuant 87122
to section 4503.712 of the Revised Code to Ohio concerns of police 87123
survivors, which shall use those contributions to provide whatever 87124
assistance may be appropriate to the families of Ohio law 87125
enforcement officers who are killed in the line of duty. 87126

       The registrar shall pay the contributions received pursuant 87127
to section 4503.713 of the Revised Code to the greater Cleveland 87128
peace officers memorial society, which shall use those 87129
contributions to honor law enforcement officers who have died in 87130
the line of duty and support its charitable purposes.87131

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 87132
receives pursuant to section 4503.72 of the Revised Code to the 87133
organization known on March 31, 2003, as the Ohio CASA/GAL 87134
association, a private, nonprofit corporation organized under 87135
Chapter 1702. of the Revised Code. The Ohio CASA/GAL association 87136
shall use these contributions to pay the expenses it incurs in 87137
administering a program to secure the proper representation in the 87138
courts of this state of abused, neglected, and dependent children, 87139
and for the training and supervision of persons participating in 87140
that program. 87141

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 87142
receives pursuant to section 4503.73 of the Revised Code to Wright 87143
B. Flyer, incorporated, which shall deposit the contributions into 87144
its general account to be used for purposes of Wright B. Flyer, 87145
incorporated. 87146

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 87147
receives pursuant to section 4503.732 of the Revised Code to the 87148
Siegel & Shuster society, a nonprofit organization dedicated to 87149
commemorating and celebrating the creation of Superman in 87150
Cleveland, Ohio.87151

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 87152
receives pursuant to section 4503.74 of the Revised Code to the 87153
Columbus zoological park association, which shall disburse the 87154
moneys to Ohio's major metropolitan zoos, as defined in section 87155
4503.74 of the Revised Code, in accordance with a written 87156
agreement entered into by the major metropolitan zoos. 87157

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 87158
receives pursuant to section 4503.75 of the Revised Code to the 87159
rotary foundation, located on March 31, 2003, in Evanston, 87160
Illinois, to be placed in a fund known as the permanent fund and 87161
used to endow educational and humanitarian programs of the rotary 87162
foundation. 87163

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 87164
receives pursuant to section 4503.751 of the Revised Code to the 87165
Ohio association of realtors, which shall deposit the 87166
contributions into a property disaster relief fund maintained 87167
under the Ohio realtors charitable and education foundation.87168

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 87169
receives pursuant to section 4503.85 of the Revised Code to the 87170
Ohio sea grant college program to be used for Lake Erie area 87171
research projects. 87172

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 87173
receives pursuant to section 4503.89 of the Revised Code to the 87174
American red cross of greater Columbus on behalf of the Ohio 87175
chapters of the American red cross, which shall use the 87176
contributions for disaster readiness, preparedness, and response 87177
programs on a statewide basis.87178

       The registrar shall pay the contributions received pursuant 87179
to section 4503.92 of the Revised Code to support our troops, 87180
incorporated, a national nonprofit corporation, which shall use 87181
those contributions in accordance with its articles of 87182
incorporation and for the benefit of servicemembers of the armed 87183
forces of the United States and their families when they are in 87184
financial need. 87185

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 87186
receives pursuant to section 4503.94 of the Revised Code to the 87187
Michelle's leading star foundation, which shall use the money 87188
solely to fund the rental, lease, or purchase of the simulated 87189
driving curriculum of the Michelle's leading star foundation by 87190
boards of education of city, exempted village, local, and joint 87191
vocational school districts.87192

       (C) All investment earnings of the license plate contribution 87193
fund shall be credited to the fund. Not later than the first day 87194
of May of every year, the registrar shall distribute to each 87195
entity described in division (B) of this section the investment 87196
income the fund earned the previous calendar year. The amount of 87197
such a distribution paid to an entity shall be proportionate to 87198
the amount of money the entity received from the fund during the 87199
previous calendar year.87200

       Sec. 4503.03.  (A)(1)(a) TheExcept as provided in division 87201
(B) of this section, the registrar of motor vehicles may designate 87202
the county auditor in each countyany of the following persons as87203
a deputy registrar. If the population of a county is forty 87204
thousand or less according to the last federal census and if the 87205
county auditor is designated by the registrar as a deputy 87206
registrar, no other person need be designated in the county to act 87207
as a deputy registrar:87208

       (i) The county auditor in any county;87209

       (ii) The clerk of a court of common pleas in any county 87210
subject to division (A)(1)(b) of this section;87211

       (iii) An individual;87212

        (iv) A nonprofit corporation as defined in division (C) of 87213
section 1702.01 of the Revised Code.87214

       (b) The registrar may designate a clerk of a court of common 87215
pleas as a deputy registrar if the population of thea county is 87216
forty thousand or less according to the last federal census. In a 87217
county with a population greater than forty thousand but not more 87218
than fifty thousand according to the last federal census, the 87219
clerk of a court of common pleas is eligible to act as a deputy 87220
registrar and may participate in the competitive selection process 87221
for the award of a deputy registrar contract by applying in the 87222
same manner as any other person. All fees collected and retained 87223
by a clerk for conducting deputy registrar services shall be paid 87224
into the county treasury to the credit of the certificate of title 87225
administration fund created under section 325.33 of the Revised 87226
Code.87227

       (c) In all other instances, the registrar shall contract with 87228
one or more other persons in each county to act as deputy 87229
registrars. As part of the selection process in awarding a deputy 87230
registrar contract, the registrar shall consider the customer 87231
service performance record of any person previously awarded a 87232
deputy registrar contract.87233

       Notwithstanding the county population restrictions in 87234
division (A)(1)(b) of this section, if no person applies to act 87235
under contract as a deputy registrar in a county and the county 87236
auditor is not designated as a deputy registrar, the registrar may 87237
ask the clerk of a court of common pleas to serve as the deputy 87238
registrar for that county.87239

       (c) The registrar shall determine the need for a deputy 87240
registrar in each county. If the registrar determines that deputy 87241
registrar services are adequately provided either by a deputy 87242
registrar in that county or a deputy registrar in an adjoining 87243
county, no additional person shall be designated pursuant to 87244
division (A)(1) of this section to act as deputy registrar. If the 87245
registrar determines that deputy registrar services are not 87246
adequately provided in that county, the registrar may appoint one 87247
or more deputy registrars as are necessary to provide adequate 87248
services.87249

       As part of the selection process in awarding a deputy 87250
registrar contract, the registrar shall consider the customer 87251
service performance record of any person previously awarded a 87252
deputy registrar contract pursuant to division (A)(1) of this 87253
section.87254

       (2) Deputy registrars shall accept applications for the 87255
annual license tax for any vehicle not taxed under section 4503.63 87256
of the Revised Code and shall assign distinctive numbers in the 87257
same manner as the registrar. Such deputies shall be located in 87258
such locations in the county as the registrar sees fit. There 87259
shall be at least one deputy registrar in each county.87260

       Deputy registrar contracts are subject to the provisions of 87261
division (B) of section 125.081 of the Revised Code.87262

       (B)(1) The registrar shall not contract withdesignate any 87263
person to act as a deputy registrar under division (A)(1) of this 87264
section if the person or, where applicable, the person's spouse or 87265
a member of the person's immediate family has made, within the 87266
current calendar year or any one of the previous three calendar 87267
years, one or more contributions totaling in excess of one hundred 87268
dollars to any person or entity included in division (A)(2) of 87269
section 4503.033 of the Revised Code. As used in this division, 87270
"immediate family" has the same meaning as in division (D) of 87271
section 102.01 of the Revised Code, and "entity" includes any 87272
political party and any "continuing association" as defined in 87273
division (B)(4) of section 3517.01 of the Revised Code or 87274
"political action committee" as defined in division (B)(8) of that 87275
section that is primarily associated with that political party. 87276
For purposes of this division, contributions to any continuing 87277
association or any political action committee that is primarily 87278
associated with a political party shall be aggregated with 87279
contributions to that political party.87280

       The contribution limitations contained in this division do 87281
not apply to any county auditor or clerk of a court of common 87282
pleas. A county auditor or clerk of a court of common pleas is not 87283
required to file the disclosure statement or pay the filing fee 87284
required under section 4503.033 of the Revised Code. The 87285
limitations of this division also do not apply to a deputy 87286
registrar who, subsequent to being awarded a deputy registrar 87287
contract, is elected to an office of a political subdivision.87288

       (2) The registrar shall not contract withdesignate either of 87289
the following to act as a deputy registrar:87290

       (1)(a) Any elected public official other than a county 87291
auditor or, as authorized by division (A)(1)(b) of this section, a 87292
clerk of a court of common pleas, acting in an official capacity, 87293
except that, the registrar shall continue and may renew a contract 87294
with any deputy registrar who, subsequent to being awarded a 87295
deputy registrar contract, is elected to an office of a political 87296
subdivision;87297

       (2)(b) Any person holding a current, valid contract to 87298
conduct motor vehicle inspections under section 3704.14 of the 87299
Revised Code.87300

       (3) As used in division (B) of this section, "political 87301
subdivision" has the same meaning as in section 3501.01 of the 87302
Revised Code.87303

       (C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section, 87304
deputy registrars are independent contractors and neither they nor 87305
their employees are employees of this state, except that nothing 87306
in this section shall affect the status of county auditors or 87307
clerks of courts of common pleas as public officials, nor the 87308
status of their employees as employees of any of the counties of 87309
this state, which are political subdivisions of this state. Each 87310
deputy registrar shall be responsible for the payment of all 87311
unemployment compensation premiums, all workers' compensation 87312
premiums, social security contributions, and any and all taxes for 87313
which the deputy registrar is legally responsible. Each deputy 87314
registrar shall comply with all applicable federal, state, and 87315
local laws requiring the withholding of income taxes or other 87316
taxes from the compensation of the deputy registrar's employees. 87317
Each deputy registrar shall maintain during the entire term of the 87318
deputy registrar's contract a policy of business liability 87319
insurance satisfactory to the registrar and shall hold the 87320
department of public safety, the director of public safety, the 87321
bureau of motor vehicles, and the registrar harmless upon any and 87322
all claims for damages arising out of the operation of the deputy 87323
registrar agency.87324

       (2) For purposes of Chapter 4141. of the Revised Code, 87325
determinations concerning the employment of deputy registrars and 87326
their employees shall be made under Chapter 4141. of the Revised 87327
Code.87328

       (D)(1) With the approval of the director, the registrar shall 87329
adopt rules governing thedeputy registrars. The rules shall do 87330
all of the following:87331

       (a) Establish requirements governing the terms of the 87332
contract between the registrar and each deputy registrar and 87333
specifications for the services to be performed. The rules shall 87334
include specifications relating to the;87335

       (b) Establish requirements governing the amount of bond to be 87336
given as provided in this section; the87337

       (c) Establish requirements governing the size and location of 87338
the deputy's office; and87339

       (d) Establish requirements governing the leasing of equipment 87340
necessary to conduct the vision screenings required under section 87341
4507.12 of the Revised Code and training in the use of the 87342
equipment. The specifications shall permit and encourage;87343

       (e) Encourage every deputy registrar to inform the public of 87344
the location of the deputy registrar's office and hours of 87345
operation by means of public service announcements and allow;87346

       (f) Allow any deputy registrar to advertise in regard to the 87347
operation of the deputy registrar's office. The rules also shall 87348
include specifications for;87349

       (g) Specify the hours the deputy's office is to be open to 87350
the public and shall require as a minimum that one deputy's 87351
office in each county containing a deputy registrar's office be 87352
open to the public for at least four hours each weekend, provided 87353
that if only one deputy's office is located within the boundary of 87354
the county seat, that office is the office that shall be open for 87355
the four-hour period each weekend. The rules also shall include 87356
specifications providing;87357

       (h) Specify that every deputy in each countyregistrar, upon 87358
request, provide any person with information about the location 87359
and office hours of all deputy registrars in the county and that 87360
every deputy prominently display within the deputy's office, the 87361
toll-free telephone number of the bureau. The rules shall not 87362
prohibit the award of;87363

       (i) Allow a deputy registrar contract to be awarded to a 87364
nonprofit corporation formed under the laws of this state. The 87365
rules shall;87366

       (j) Except as provided in division (D)(2) of this section,87367
prohibit any deputy registrar from operating more than one such87368
deputy registrar's office at any time, except that the rules may 87369
permit a nonprofit corporation formed for the purposes of 87370
providing automobile-related services to its members or the public 87371
and that provides such services from more than one location in 87372
this state to operate a deputy registrar office at any such 87373
location, provided that the nonprofit corporation operates no more 87374
than one deputy registrar office in any one county. The rules may 87375
include such other specifications as the registrar and director 87376
consider necessary to provide a high level of service.87377

       The rules shall establish;87378

       (k) For the duration of any deputy registrar contract, 87379
require that the deputy registrar occupy a primary residence in a 87380
location that is within a one-hour commute time from the deputy 87381
registrar's office or offices. The rules shall require the 87382
registrar to determine commute time by using multiple established 87383
internet-based mapping services.87384

       (l) Establish procedures for a deputy registrar who requests 87385
suchto request the authority to collect reinstatement fees under 87386
sections 4507.1612, 4507.45, 4509.101, 4509.81, 4510.10, 4510.22, 87387
4510.72, and 4511.191 of the Revised Code and to transmit the 87388
reinstatement fees and two dollars of the service fee collected 87389
under those sections. The registrar shall ensure that, not later 87390
than January 1, 2012, at least one deputy registrar in each county 87391
containing a deputy registrar's office has the necessary equipment 87392
and is able to accept reinstatement fees. The registrar shall 87393
deposit the service fees received from a deputy registrar under 87394
those sections into the state bureau of motor vehicles fund 87395
created in section 4501.25 of the Revised Code and shall use the 87396
money for deputy registrar equipment necessary in connection with 87397
accepting reinstatement fees.87398

       (m) Establish such other requirements as the registrar and 87399
director consider necessary to provide a high level of service.87400

       (2) Notwithstanding division (D)(1)(j) of this section, the 87401
rules may allow both of the following:87402

       (a) The registrar to award a contract to a deputy registrar 87403
to operate more than one deputy registrar's office if determined 87404
by the registrar to be practical;87405

       (b) A nonprofit corporation formed for the purposes of 87406
providing automobile-related services to its members or the public 87407
and that provides such services from more than one location in 87408
this state to operate a deputy registrar office at any location.87409

       (3) As a daily adjustment, the bureau of motor vehicles shall 87410
credit to a deputy registrar three dollars and fifty cents for 87411
each damaged license plate or validation sticker the deputy 87412
registrar replaces as a service to a member of the public.87413

       (3)(4)(a) With the prior approval of the registrar, each 87414
deputy registrar may conduct at the location of the deputy 87415
registrar's office any business that is consistent with the 87416
functions of a deputy registrar and that is not specifically 87417
mandated or authorized by this or another chapter of the Revised 87418
Code or by implementing rules of the registrar.87419

       (b) In accordance with guidelines the director of public 87420
safety shall establish, a deputy registrar may operate or contract 87421
for the operation of a vending machine at a deputy registrar 87422
location if products of the vending machine are consistent with 87423
the functions of a deputy registrar.87424

       (c) A deputy registrar may enter into an agreement with the 87425
Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission pursuant to division 87426
(A)(11) of section 5537.04 of the Revised Code for the purpose of 87427
allowing the general public to acquire from the deputy registrar 87428
the electronic toll collection devices that are used under the 87429
multi-jurisdiction electronic toll collection agreement between 87430
the Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission and any other 87431
entities or agencies that participate in such an agreement. The 87432
approval of the registrar is not necessary if a deputy registrar 87433
engages in this activity.87434

       (4)(5) As used in this section and in section 4507.01 of the 87435
Revised Code, "nonprofit corporation" has the same meaning as in 87436
section 1702.01 of the Revised Code.87437

       (E)(1) Unless otherwise terminated and except for interim 87438
contracts of lesslasting not longer than one year, contracts with 87439
deputy registrars shall be for a term of at least two years, but 87440
no more than three years, and all contracts effective on or after87441
entered into through a competitive selection process and shall be 87442
limited in duration as follows: 87443

       (a) For contracts entered into between July 1, 1996, shall be 87444
for a term of moreand June 29, 2014, for a period of not less87445
than two years, but not more than three years. All;87446

        (b) For contracts entered into on or after June 29, 2014, for 87447
a period of five years, unless the registrar determines that a 87448
shorter contract term is appropriate for a particular deputy 87449
registrar.87450

       (2) All contracts with deputy registrars shall expire on the 87451
last Saturday of June in the year of their expiration. ThePrior 87452
to the expiration of any deputy registrar contract, the registrar, 87453
with the approval of the director, may award a one-year contract 87454
extension to any deputy registrar who has provided exemplary 87455
service based upon objective performance evaluations.87456

       (3)(a) The auditor of state may examine the accounts, 87457
reports, systems, and other data of each deputy registrar at least 87458
every two years. The registrar, with the approval of the director, 87459
shall immediately remove a deputy who violates any provision of 87460
the Revised Code related to the duties as a deputy, any rule 87461
adopted by the registrar, or a term of the deputy's contract with 87462
the registrar. The registrar also may remove a deputy who, in the 87463
opinion of the registrar, has engaged in any conduct that is 87464
either unbecoming to one representing this state or is 87465
inconsistent with the efficient operation of the deputy's office.87466

       (b) If the registrar, with the approval of the director, 87467
determines that there is good cause to believe that a deputy 87468
registrar or a person proposing for a deputy registrar contract 87469
has engaged in any conduct that would require the denial or 87470
termination of the deputy registrar contract, the registrar may 87471
require the production of books, records, and papers as the 87472
registrar determines are necessary, and may take the depositions 87473
of witnesses residing within or outside the state in the same 87474
manner as is prescribed by law for the taking of depositions in 87475
civil actions in the court of common pleas, and for that purpose 87476
the registrar may issue a subpoena for any witness or a subpoena 87477
duces tecum to compel the production of any books, records, or 87478
papers, directed to the sheriff of the county where the witness 87479
resides or is found. Such a subpoena shall be served and returned 87480
in the same manner as a subpoena in a criminal case is served and 87481
returned. The fees of the sheriff shall be the same as that 87482
allowed in the court of common pleas in criminal cases. Witnesses 87483
shall be paid the fees and mileage provided for under section 87484
119.094 of the Revised Code. The fees and mileage shall be paid 87485
from the fund in the state treasury for the use of the agency in 87486
the same manner as other expenses of the agency are paid.87487

       In any case of disobedience or neglect of any subpoena served 87488
on any person or the refusal of any witness to testify to any 87489
matter regarding which the witness lawfully may be interrogated, 87490
the court of common pleas of any county where the disobedience, 87491
neglect, or refusal occurs or any judge of that court, on 87492
application by the registrar, shall compel obedience by attachment 87493
proceedings for contempt, as in the case of disobedience of the 87494
requirements of a subpoena issued from that court, or a refusal to 87495
testify in that court.87496

       (4) Nothing in this division (E) of this section shall be 87497
construed to require a hearing of any nature prior to the 87498
termination of any deputy registrar contract by the registrar, 87499
with the approval of the director, for cause.87500

       (F) Except as provided in section 2743.03 of the Revised 87501
Code, no court, other than the court of common pleas of Franklin 87502
county, has jurisdiction of any action against the department of 87503
public safety, the director, the bureau, or the registrar to 87504
restrain the exercise of any power or authority, or to entertain 87505
any action for declaratory judgment, in the selection and 87506
appointment of, or contracting with, deputy registrars. Neither 87507
the department, the director, the bureau, nor the registrar is 87508
liable in any action at law for damages sustained by any person 87509
because of any acts of the department, the director, the bureau, 87510
or the registrar, or of any employee of the department or bureau, 87511
in the performance of official duties in the selection and 87512
appointment of, and contracting with, deputy registrars.87513

       (G) The registrar shall assign to each deputy registrar a 87514
series of numbers sufficient to supply the demand at all times in 87515
the area the deputy registrar serves, and the registrar shall keep 87516
a record in the registrar's office of the numbers within the 87517
series assigned. Each deputy shall be required to give bond in the 87518
amount of at least twenty-five thousand dollars, or in such higher 87519
amount as the registrar determines necessary, based on a uniform 87520
schedule of bond amounts established by the registrar and 87521
determined by the volume of registrations handled by the deputy. 87522
The form of the bond shall be prescribed by the registrar. The 87523
bonds required of deputy registrars, in the discretion of the 87524
registrar, may be individual or schedule bonds or may be included 87525
in any blanket bond coverage carried by the department.87526

       (H) Each deputy registrar shall keep a file of each 87527
application received by the deputy and shall register that motor 87528
vehicle with the name and address of its owner.87529

       (I) Upon request, a deputy registrar shall make the physical 87530
inspection of a motor vehicle and issue the physical inspection 87531
certificate required in section 4505.061 of the Revised Code.87532

       (J) Each deputy registrar shall file a report semiannually 87533
with the registrar of motor vehicles listing the number of 87534
applicants for licenses the deputy has served, the number of voter 87535
registration applications the deputy has completed and transmitted 87536
to the board of elections, and the number of voter registration 87537
applications declined.87538

       Sec. 4503.0610.  (A) As used in this section:87539

       (1) "Eligible manufactured home" means a manufactured home or 87540
mobile home that is not an ineligible manufactured home.87541

       (2) "Ineligible manufactured home" means either of the 87542
following:87543

       (a) A manufactured home or mobile home against which 87544
foreclosure or other proceedings to take possession of the 87545
manufactured home or mobile home have been initiated based on a 87546
mortgage, lien, or security interest on or in the manufactured 87547
home or mobile home. A manufactured home or mobile home is an 87548
"ineligible manufactured home" for any tax year during which such 87549
proceedings against the manufactured home or mobile home remain 87550
pending.87551

       (b) A manufactured home that is listed on the delinquent 87552
manufactured home tax list. A manufactured home is an "ineligible 87553
manufactured home" for any tax year during which the manufactured 87554
home is listed on the delinquent manufactured home tax list.87555

       (B) If a board of county commissioners adopts a resolution 87556
granting a partial real property tax exemption under section 87557
323.158 of the Revised Code, it also shall adopt a resolution 87558
under this section granting a partial manufactured home tax 87559
exemption. The partial exemption shall take the form of a 87560
reduction each year in the manufactured home tax charged against 87561
each eligible manufactured home in the county under section 87562
4503.06 of the Revised Code, by the same percentage by which real 87563
property taxes were reduced for the preceding year in the 87564
resolution adopted under section 323.158 of the Revised Code. Upon 87565
adopting the resolution under this section, the board shall 87566
certify copies of it to the county auditor and the tax 87567
commissioner.87568

       (B)(C) After complying with sections 4503.06 and 4503.065 of 87569
the Revised Code, the county auditor shall reduce the remaining 87570
sum to be levied against aan eligible manufactured home by the 87571
percentage called for in the resolution adopted under division (A) 87572
of this section. The auditor shall certify the amount of tax 87573
remaining after the reduction to the county treasurer for 87574
collection as the manufactured home tax charged and payable on the87575
eligible manufactured home.87576

       (C)(D) For each tax year, the county auditor shall certify to 87577
the board of county commissioners the total amount by which 87578
manufactured home taxes are reduced under this section. At the 87579
time of each semi-annual distribution of manufactured home taxes 87580
in the county, the board shall pay to the auditor one-half of that 87581
total amount. Upon receipt of the payment, the auditor shall 87582
distribute it among the various taxing districts in the county as 87583
though it had been levied and collected as manufactured home 87584
taxes. The board shall make the payment from the county general 87585
fund or from any other county revenue that may be used for that 87586
purpose.87587

       (D)(E) If a board of county commissioners repeals a 87588
resolution adopted under section 323.158 of the Revised Code, it 87589
also shall repeal the resolution adopted under this section.87590

       Sec. 4503.44.  (A) As used in this section and in section 87591
4511.69 of the Revised Code:87592

       (1) "Person with a disability that limits or impairs the 87593
ability to walk" means any person who, as determined by a health 87594
care provider, meets any of the following criteria:87595

       (a) Cannot walk two hundred feet without stopping to rest;87596

       (b) Cannot walk without the use of, or assistance from, a 87597
brace, cane, crutch, another person, prosthetic device, 87598
wheelchair, or other assistive device;87599

       (c) Is restricted by a lung disease to such an extent that 87600
the person's forced (respiratory) expiratory volume for one 87601
second, when measured by spirometry, is less than one liter, or 87602
the arterial oxygen tension is less than sixty millimeters of 87603
mercury on room air at rest;87604

       (d) Uses portable oxygen;87605

       (e) Has a cardiac condition to the extent that the person's 87606
functional limitations are classified in severity as class III or 87607
class IV according to standards set by the American heart 87608
association;87609

       (f) Is severely limited in the ability to walk due to an 87610
arthritic, neurological, or orthopedic condition;87611

       (g) Is blind.87612

       (2) "Organization" means any private organization or 87613
corporation, or any governmental board, agency, department, 87614
division, or office, that, as part of its business or program, 87615
transports persons with disabilities that limit or impair the 87616
ability to walk on a regular basis in a motor vehicle that has not 87617
been altered for the purpose of providing it with special 87618
equipment for use by handicapped persons with disabilities. This 87619
definition does not apply to division (J) of this section.87620

       (3) "Health care provider" means a physician, physician 87621
assistant, advanced practice registered nurse, or chiropractor as 87622
defined in this section.87623

       (4) "Physician" means a person licensed to practice medicine 87624
or surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery under Chapter 4731. 87625
of the Revised Code.87626

       (5) "Chiropractor" means a person licensed to practice 87627
chiropractic under Chapter 4734. of the Revised Code.87628

       (6) "Advanced practice registered nurse" means a certified 87629
nurse practitioner, clinical nurse specialist, certified 87630
registered nurse anesthetist, or certified nurse-midwife who holds 87631
a certificate of authority issued by the board of nursing under 87632
Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code.87633

       (7) "Physician assistant" means a person who holds a 87634
certificate to practice as a physician assistant issued under 87635
Chapter 4730. of the Revised Code.87636

       (B) Any organization or person with a disability that limits 87637
or impairs the ability to walk may apply to the registrar of motor 87638
vehicles for a removable windshield placard or, if the person owns 87639
or leases a motor vehicle, the person may apply for the 87640
registration of any motor vehicle the person owns or leases. In 87641
addition to one or more sets of license plates or one placard, a 87642
person with a disability that limits or impairs the ability to 87643
walk is entitled to one additional placard, but only if the person 87644
applies separately for the additional placard, states the reasons 87645
why the additional placard is needed, and the registrar, in the 87646
registrar's discretion, determines that good and justifiable cause 87647
exists to approve the request for the additional placard. When a 87648
motor vehicle has been altered for the purpose of providing it 87649
with special equipment for a person with a disability that limits 87650
or impairs the ability to walk, but is owned or leased by someone 87651
other than such a person, the owner or lessee may apply to the 87652
registrar or a deputy registrar for registration under this 87653
section. The application for registration of a motor vehicle owned 87654
or leased by a person with a disability that limits or impairs the 87655
ability to walk shall be accompanied by a signed statement from 87656
the applicant's health care provider certifying that the applicant 87657
meets at least one of the criteria contained in division (A)(1) of 87658
this section and that the disability is expected to continue for 87659
more than six consecutive months. The application for a removable 87660
windshield placard made by a person with a disability that limits 87661
or impairs the ability to walk shall be accompanied by a 87662
prescription from the applicant's health care provider prescribing 87663
such a placard for the applicant, provided that the applicant 87664
meets at least one of the criteria contained in division (A)(1) of 87665
this section. The health care provider shall state on the 87666
prescription the length of time the health care provider expects 87667
the applicant to have the disability that limits or impairs the 87668
applicant's ability to walk. The application for a removable 87669
windshield placard made by an organization shall be accompanied by 87670
such documentary evidence of regular transport of persons with 87671
disabilities that limit or impair the ability to walk by the 87672
organization as the registrar may require by rule and shall be 87673
completed in accordance with procedures that the registrar may 87674
require by rule. The application for registration of a motor 87675
vehicle that has been altered for the purpose of providing it with 87676
special equipment for a person with a disability that limits or 87677
impairs the ability to walk but is owned by someone other than 87678
such a person shall be accompanied by such documentary evidence of 87679
vehicle alterations as the registrar may require by rule.87680

       (C) When an organization, a person with a disability that 87681
limits or impairs the ability to walk, or a person who does not 87682
have a disability that limits or impairs the ability to walk but 87683
owns a motor vehicle that has been altered for the purpose of 87684
providing it with special equipment for a person with a disability 87685
that limits or impairs the ability to walk first submits an 87686
application for registration of a motor vehicle under this section 87687
and every fifth year thereafter, the organization or person shall 87688
submit a signed statement from the applicant's health care 87689
provider, a completed application, and any required documentary 87690
evidence of vehicle alterations as provided in division (B) of 87691
this section, and also a power of attorney from the owner of the 87692
motor vehicle if the applicant leases the vehicle. Upon submission 87693
of these items, the registrar or deputy registrar shall issue to 87694
the applicant appropriate vehicle registration and a set of 87695
license plates and validation stickers, or validation stickers 87696
alone when required by section 4503.191 of the Revised Code. In 87697
addition to the letters and numbers ordinarily inscribed thereon, 87698
the license plates shall be imprinted with the international 87699
symbol of access. The license plates and validation stickers shall 87700
be issued upon payment of the regular license fee as prescribed 87701
under section 4503.04 of the Revised Code and any motor vehicle 87702
tax levied under Chapter 4504. of the Revised Code, and the 87703
payment of a service fee equal to the amount specified in division 87704
(D) or (G) of section 4503.10 of the Revised Code.87705

       (D)(1) Upon receipt of a completed and signed application for 87706
a removable windshield placard, a prescription as described in 87707
division (B) of this section, documentary evidence of regular 87708
transport of persons with disabilities that limit or impair the 87709
ability to walk, if required, and payment of a service fee equal 87710
to the amount specified in division (D) or (G) of section 4503.10 87711
of the Revised Code, the registrar or deputy registrar shall issue 87712
to the applicant a removable windshield placard, which shall bear 87713
the date of expiration on both sides of the placard and shall be 87714
valid until expired, revoked, or surrendered. Every removable 87715
windshield placard expires as described in division (D)(2) of this 87716
section, but in no case shall a removable windshield placard be 87717
valid for a period of less than sixty days. Removable windshield 87718
placards shall be renewable upon application as provided in 87719
division (B) of this section, and a service fee equal to the 87720
amount specified in division (D) or (G) of section 4503.10 of the 87721
Revised Code shall be charged for the renewal of a removable 87722
windshield placard. The registrar shall provide the application 87723
form and shall determine the information to be included thereon. 87724
The registrar also shall determine the form and size of the 87725
removable windshield placard, the material of which it is to be 87726
made, and any other information to be included thereon, and shall 87727
adopt rules relating to the issuance, expiration, revocation, 87728
surrender, and proper display of such placards. Any placard issued 87729
after October 14, 1999, shall be manufactured in a manner that 87730
allows the expiration date of the placard to be indicated on it 87731
through the punching, drilling, boring, or creation by any other 87732
means of holes in the placard.87733

       (2) At the time a removable windshield placard is issued to a 87734
person with a disability that limits or impairs the ability to 87735
walk, the registrar or deputy registrar shall enter into the 87736
records of the bureau of motor vehicles the last date on which the 87737
person will have that disability, as indicated on the accompanying 87738
prescription. Not less than thirty days prior to that date and all 87739
removable windshield placard renewal dates, the bureau shall send 87740
a renewal notice to that person at the person's last known address 87741
as shown in the records of the bureau, informing the person that 87742
the person's removable windshield placard will expire on the 87743
indicated date not to exceed five years from the date of issuance, 87744
and that the person is required to renew the placard by submitting 87745
to the registrar or a deputy registrar another prescription, as 87746
described in division (B) of this section, and by complying with 87747
the renewal provisions prescribed in division (D)(1) of this 87748
section. If such a prescription is not received by the registrar 87749
or a deputy registrar by that date, the placard issued to that 87750
person expires and no longer is valid, and this fact shall be 87751
recorded in the records of the bureau.87752

       (3) At least once every year, on a date determined by the 87753
registrar, the bureau shall examine the records of the office of 87754
vital statistics, located within the department of health, that 87755
pertain to deceased persons, and also the bureau's records of all 87756
persons who have been issued removable windshield placards and 87757
temporary removable windshield placards. If the records of the 87758
office of vital statistics indicate that a person to whom a 87759
removable windshield placard or temporary removable windshield 87760
placard has been issued is deceased, the bureau shall cancel that 87761
placard, and note the cancellation in its records.87762

       The office of vital statistics shall make available to the 87763
bureau all information necessary to enable the bureau to comply 87764
with division (D)(3) of this section.87765

       (4) Nothing in this section shall be construed to require a 87766
person or organization to apply for a removable windshield placard 87767
or special license plates if the parking card or special license 87768
plates issued to the person or organization under prior law have 87769
not expired or been surrendered or revoked.87770

       (E)(1)(a) Any person with a disability that limits or impairs 87771
the ability to walk may apply to the registrar or a deputy 87772
registrar for a temporary removable windshield placard. The 87773
application for a temporary removable windshield placard shall be 87774
accompanied by a prescription from the applicant's health care 87775
provider prescribing such a placard for the applicant, provided 87776
that the applicant meets at least one of the criteria contained in 87777
division (A)(1) of this section and that the disability is 87778
expected to continue for six consecutive months or less. The 87779
health care provider shall state on the prescription the length of 87780
time the health care provider expects the applicant to have the 87781
disability that limits or impairs the applicant's ability to walk, 87782
which cannot exceed six months from the date of the prescription. 87783
Upon receipt of an application for a temporary removable 87784
windshield placard, presentation of the prescription from the 87785
applicant's health care provider, and payment of a service fee 87786
equal to the amount specified in division (D) or (G) of section 87787
4503.10 of the Revised Code, the registrar or deputy registrar 87788
shall issue to the applicant a temporary removable windshield 87789
placard.87790

       (b) Any active-duty member of the armed forces of the United 87791
States, including the reserve components of the armed forces and 87792
the national guard, who has an illness or injury that limits or 87793
impairs the ability to walk may apply to the registrar or a deputy 87794
registrar for a temporary removable windshield placard. With the 87795
application, the person shall present evidence of the person's 87796
active-duty status and the illness or injury. Evidence of the 87797
illness or injury may include a current department of defense 87798
convalescent leave statement, any department of defense document 87799
indicating that the person currently has an ill or injured 87800
casualty status or has limited duties, or a prescription from any 87801
health care provider prescribing the placard for the applicant. 87802
Upon receipt of the application and the necessary evidence, the 87803
registrar or deputy registrar shall issue the applicant the 87804
temporary removable windshield placard without the payment of any 87805
service fee.87806

       (2) The temporary removable windshield placard shall be of 87807
the same size and form as the removable windshield placard, shall 87808
be printed in white on a red-colored background, and shall bear 87809
the word "temporary" in letters of such size as the registrar 87810
shall prescribe. A temporary removable windshield placard also 87811
shall bear the date of expiration on the front and back of the 87812
placard, and shall be valid until expired, surrendered, or 87813
revoked, but in no case shall such a placard be valid for a period 87814
of less than sixty days. The registrar shall provide the 87815
application form and shall determine the information to be 87816
included on it, provided that the registrar shall not require a 87817
health care provider's prescription or certification for a person 87818
applying under division (E)(1)(b) of this section. The registrar 87819
also shall determine the material of which the temporary removable 87820
windshield placard is to be made and any other information to be 87821
included on the placard and shall adopt rules relating to the 87822
issuance, expiration, surrender, revocation, and proper display of 87823
those placards. Any temporary removable windshield placard issued 87824
after October 14, 1999, shall be manufactured in a manner that 87825
allows for the expiration date of the placard to be indicated on 87826
it through the punching, drilling, boring, or creation by any 87827
other means of holes in the placard.87828

       (F) If an applicant for a removable windshield placard is a 87829
veteran of the armed forces of the United States whose disability, 87830
as defined in division (A)(1) of this section, is 87831
service-connected, the registrar or deputy registrar, upon receipt 87832
of the application, presentation of a signed statement from the 87833
applicant's health care provider certifying the applicant's 87834
disability, and presentation of such documentary evidence from the 87835
department of veterans affairs that the disability of the 87836
applicant meets at least one of the criteria identified in 87837
division (A)(1) of this section and is service-connected as the 87838
registrar may require by rule, but without the payment of any 87839
service fee, shall issue the applicant a removable windshield 87840
placard that is valid until expired, surrendered, or revoked.87841

       (G) Upon a conviction of a violation of division (I), (J), or 87842
(K) of this section, the court shall report the conviction, and 87843
send the placard or parking card, if available, to the registrar, 87844
who thereupon shall revoke the privilege of using the placard or 87845
parking card and send notice in writing to the placardholder or 87846
cardholder at that holder's last known address as shown in the 87847
records of the bureau, and the placardholder or cardholder shall 87848
return the placard or card if not previously surrendered to the 87849
court, to the registrar within ten days following mailing of the 87850
notice.87851

       Whenever a person to whom a removable windshield placard or 87852
parking card has been issued moves to another state, the person 87853
shall surrender the placard or card to the registrar; and whenever 87854
an organization to which a placard or card has been issued changes 87855
its place of operation to another state, the organization shall 87856
surrender the placard or card to the registrar.87857

       (H) Subject to division (F) of section 4511.69 of the Revised 87858
Code, the operator of a motor vehicle displaying a removable 87859
windshield placard, temporary removable windshield placard, 87860
parking card, or the special license plates authorized by this 87861
section is entitled to park the motor vehicle in any special 87862
parking location reserved for persons with disabilities that limit 87863
or impair the ability to walk, also known as handicapped parking 87864
spaces or disability parking spaces.87865

       (I) No person or organization that is not eligible under 87866
division (B) or (E) of this section shall willfully and falsely 87867
represent that the person or organization is so eligible.87868

       No person or organization shall display license plates issued 87869
under this section unless the license plates have been issued for 87870
the vehicle on which they are displayed and are valid.87871

       (J) No person or organization to which a removable windshield 87872
placard or temporary removable windshield placard is issued shall 87873
do either of the following:87874

       (1) Display or permit the display of the placard on any motor 87875
vehicle when having reasonable cause to believe the motor vehicle 87876
is being used in connection with an activity that does not include 87877
providing transportation for persons with disabilities that limit 87878
or impair the ability to walk;87879

       (2) Refuse to return or surrender the placard, when required.87880

       (K)(1) No person or organization to which a parking card is 87881
issued shall do either of the following:87882

       (a) Display or permit the display of the parking card on any 87883
motor vehicle when having reasonable cause to believe the motor 87884
vehicle is being used in connection with an activity that does not 87885
include providing transportation for a handicapped person with a 87886
disability;87887

       (b) Refuse to return or surrender the parking card, when 87888
required.87889

       (2) As used in division (K) of this section:87890

       (a) "Handicapped personPerson with a disability" means any 87891
person who has lost the use of one or both legs or one or both 87892
arms, who is blind, deaf, or so severely handicappeddisabled as 87893
to be unable to move about without the aid of crutches or a 87894
wheelchair, or whose mobility is restricted by a permanent 87895
cardiovascular, pulmonary, or other handicappingdisabling87896
condition.87897

       (b) "Organization" means any private organization or 87898
corporation, or any governmental board, agency, department, 87899
division, or office, that, as part of its business or program, 87900
transports handicapped persons with disabilities on a regular 87901
basis in a motor vehicle that has not been altered for the 87902
purposes of providing it with special equipment for use by 87903
handicapped persons with disabilities.87904

       (L) If a removable windshield placard, temporary removable 87905
windshield placard, or parking card is lost, destroyed, or 87906
mutilated, the placardholder or cardholder may obtain a duplicate 87907
by doing both of the following:87908

       (1) Furnishing suitable proof of the loss, destruction, or 87909
mutilation to the registrar;87910

       (2) Paying a service fee equal to the amount specified in 87911
division (D) or (G) of section 4503.10 of the Revised Code.87912

       Any placardholder or cardholder who loses a placard or card 87913
and, after obtaining a duplicate, finds the original, immediately 87914
shall surrender the original placard or card to the registrar.87915

       (M) The registrar shall pay all fees received under this 87916
section for the issuance of removable windshield placards or 87917
temporary removable windshield placards or duplicate removable 87918
windshield placards or cards into the state treasury to the credit 87919
of the state bureau of motor vehicles fund created in section 87920
4501.25 of the Revised Code.87921

       (N) In addition to the fees collected under this section, the 87922
registrar or deputy registrar shall ask each person applying for a 87923
removable windshield placard or temporary removable windshield 87924
placard or duplicate removable windshield placard or license plate 87925
issued under this section, whether the person wishes to make a 87926
two-dollar voluntary contribution to support rehabilitation 87927
employment services. The registrar shall transmit the 87928
contributions received under this division to the treasurer of 87929
state for deposit into the rehabilitation employment fund, which 87930
is hereby created in the state treasury. A deputy registrar shall 87931
transmit the contributions received under this division to the 87932
registrar in the time and manner prescribed by the registrar. The 87933
contributions in the fund shall be used by the rehabilitation 87934
services commissionopportunities for Ohioans with disabilities 87935
agency to purchase services related to vocational evaluation, work 87936
adjustment, personal adjustment, job placement, job coaching, and 87937
community-based assessment from accredited community 87938
rehabilitation program facilities.87939

       (O) For purposes of enforcing this section, every peace 87940
officer is deemed to be an agent of the registrar. Any peace 87941
officer or any authorized employee of the bureau of motor vehicles 87942
who, in the performance of duties authorized by law, becomes aware 87943
of a person whose placard or parking card has been revoked 87944
pursuant to this section, may confiscate that placard or parking 87945
card and return it to the registrar. The registrar shall prescribe 87946
any forms used by law enforcement agencies in administering this 87947
section.87948

       No peace officer, law enforcement agency employing a peace 87949
officer, or political subdivision or governmental agency employing 87950
a peace officer, and no employee of the bureau is liable in a 87951
civil action for damages or loss to persons arising out of the 87952
performance of any duty required or authorized by this section. As 87953
used in this division, "peace officer" has the same meaning as in 87954
division (B) of section 2935.01 of the Revised Code.87955

       (P) All applications for registration of motor vehicles, 87956
removable windshield placards, and temporary removable windshield 87957
placards issued under this section, all renewal notices for such 87958
items, and all other publications issued by the bureau that relate 87959
to this section shall set forth the criminal penalties that may be 87960
imposed upon a person who violates any provision relating to 87961
special license plates issued under this section, the parking of 87962
vehicles displaying such license plates, and the issuance, 87963
procurement, use, and display of removable windshield placards and 87964
temporary removable windshield placards issued under this section.87965

       (Q) Whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor 87966
of the fourth degree.87967

       Sec. 4503.524.  (A) The owner or lessee of any passenger car, 87968
noncommercial motor vehicle, recreational vehicle, or other 87969
vehicle of a class approved by the registrar of motor vehicles may 87970
apply to the registrar for the registration of the vehicle and 87971
issuance of "Massillon tiger football booster club" license 87972
plates. The application for "Massillon tiger football booster 87973
club" license plates may be combined with a request for a special 87974
reserved license plate under section 4503.40 or 4503.42 of the 87975
Revised Code. Upon receipt of the completed application and 87976
compliance with division (B) of this section, the registrar shall 87977
issue to the applicant the appropriate vehicle registration and a 87978
set of "Massillon tiger football booster club" license plates with 87979
a validation sticker or a validation sticker alone when required 87980
by section 4503.191 of the Revised Code. In addition to the 87981
letters and numbers ordinarily inscribed thereon, "Massillon tiger 87982
football booster club" license plates shall be inscribed with 87983
words and markings selected and designed by the Massillon tiger 87984
football booster club and approved by the registrar. "Massillon 87985
tiger football booster club" license plates shall bear county 87986
identification stickers that identify the county of registration 87987
by name or number.87988

       (B) "Massillon tiger football booster club" license plates 87989
and validation stickers shall be issued upon payment of the 87990
regular license tax as prescribed under section 4503.04 of the 87991
Revised Code, any applicable motor vehicle tax levied under 87992
Chapter 4504. of the Revised Code, a bureau of motor vehicles 87993
administrative fee of ten dollars, the contribution specified in 87994
division (C) of this section, and compliance with all other 87995
applicable laws relating to the registration of motor vehicles. If 87996
the application for "Massillon tiger football booster club" 87997
license plates is combined with a request for a special reserved 87998
license plate under section 4503.40 or 4503.42 of the Revised 87999
Code, the license plates and validation sticker shall be issued 88000
upon payment of the contribution, fees, and taxes contained in 88001
this division and the additional fee prescribed under section 88002
4503.40 or 4503.42 of the Revised Code.88003

       (C) For each application for registration and registration 88004
renewal submitted under this section, the registrar shall collect 88005
a contribution of twenty-five dollars. The registrar shall 88006
transmit this contribution to the treasurer of state for deposit 88007
into the license plate contribution fund created in section 88008
4501.21 of the Revised Code.88009

       The registrar shall deposit the ten-dollar bureau 88010
administrative fee, the purpose of which is to compensate the 88011
bureau for additional services required in issuing "Massillon 88012
tiger football booster club" license plates, into the state bureau 88013
of motor vehicles fund created in section 4501.25 of the Revised 88014
Code.88015

       Sec. 4503.526.  (A) The owner or lessee of any passenger car, 88016
noncommercial motor vehicle, recreational vehicle, or other 88017
vehicle of a class approved by the registrar of motor vehicles may 88018
apply to the registrar for the registration of the vehicle and 88019
issuance of Kiwanis club license plates. The application for 88020
Kiwanis club license plates may be combined with a request for a 88021
special reserved license plate under section 4503.40 or 4503.42 of 88022
the Revised Code. Upon receipt of the completed application and 88023
compliance with division (B) of this section, the registrar shall 88024
issue to the applicant the appropriate vehicle registration and a 88025
set of Kiwanis club license plates with a validation sticker or a 88026
validation sticker alone when required by section 4503.191 of the 88027
Revised Code.88028

       In addition to the letters and numbers ordinarily inscribed 88029
thereon, Kiwanis club license plates shall be inscribed with words 88030
and markings selected and designed by the Ohio district of Kiwanis 88031
international. The registrar shall approve the final design. 88032
Kiwanis club license plates shall bear county identification 88033
stickers that identify the county of registration by name or 88034
number.88035

       (B) Kiwanis club license plates and validation stickers shall 88036
be issued upon payment of the regular license tax as prescribed 88037
under section 4503.04 of the Revised Code, any applicable motor 88038
vehicle tax levied under Chapter 4504. of the Revised Code, a 88039
bureau of motor vehicles administrative fee of ten dollars, the 88040
contribution specified under division (C) of this section, and 88041
compliance with all other applicable laws relating to the 88042
registration of motor vehicles. If the application for Kiwanis 88043
club license plates is combined with a request for a special 88044
reserved license plate under section 4503.40 or 4503.42 of the 88045
Revised Code, the license plates and validation sticker shall be 88046
issued upon payment of the fees and taxes contained in this 88047
division and the additional fee prescribed by section 4503.40 or 88048
4503.42 of the Revised Code.88049

       (C) For each application for registration and registration 88050
renewal received under this section, the registrar shall collect a 88051
contribution of twenty-five dollars. The registrar shall pay this 88052
contribution into the state treasury to the credit of the license 88053
plate contribution fund created in section 4501.21 of the Revised 88054
Code.88055

       The registrar shall deposit the ten-dollar bureau 88056
administrative fee, the purpose of which is to compensate the 88057
bureau for the additional services required in issuing Kiwanis 88058
club license plates, into the state treasury to the credit of the 88059
state bureau of motor vehicles fund created in section 4501.25 of 88060
the Revised Code.88061

       Sec. 4503.62.  (A) Application for the registration of an 88062
apportionable vehicle shall be made to the registrar of motor 88063
vehicles in accordance with division (J) of section 4503.10 of the 88064
Revised Code.88065

       (B) Any person applying to register a vehicle or combination 88066
vehicle that has a gross vehicle weight of twenty-six thousand 88067
pounds or less or two axles, or that is a bus used in charter 88068
party service, also may register the vehicle in accordance with 88069
division (J) of section 4503.10 of the Revised Code if the vehicle 88070
is used or intended for use in two or more international 88071
registration plan member jurisdictions.88072

       (C) No later than December 31, 2011, the registrar shall 88073
adopt rules under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to establish a 88074
program to accept applications for vehicle registration 88075
transactions of apportionable vehicles electronically over the 88076
internet. The program also may provide for vehicle registration 88077
transactions of nonapportionable commercial motor vehicles over 88078
the internet.88079

       (D) The internet registration program shall provide an option 88080
for the payment of all registration taxes and fees by use of a 88081
financial transaction device. In providing for payment by the use 88082
of a financial transaction device, the registrar may, but is not 88083
required to,shall comply with section 113.40 of the Revised Code. 88084
The registrar, with the approval of the director of public safety, 88085
may contract with a third party to accept and process payments 88086
made by use of a financial transaction device on behalf of the 88087
bureau of motor vehicles. All fees associated with payment by use 88088
of a financial transaction device shall be borne by the applicants 88089
seeking the registration of apportionable or other vehicles under 88090
the program established pursuant to division (C) of this section. 88091
The bureau shall not pay any costs, and shall not retain any 88092
additional fees, associated with the use of a financial 88093
transaction device.88094

       (E) As used in this section, "financial transaction device" 88095
has the same meaning as in section 113.40 of the Revised Code.88096

       Sec. 4503.732.  (A) The owner or lessee of any passenger car, 88097
noncommercial motor vehicle, recreational vehicle, or other 88098
vehicle of a class approved by the registrar of motor vehicles may 88099
apply to the registrar for the registration of the vehicle and 88100
issuance of "Truth, Justice, and the American Way" license plates. 88101
The application may be combined with a request for a special 88102
reserved license plate under section 4503.40 or 4503.42 of the 88103
Revised Code. Upon receipt of an application for registration of a 88104
motor vehicle under this section, the registrar shall issue to the 88105
applicant the appropriate motor vehicle registration and a set of 88106
"Truth, Justice, and the American Way" license plates and a 88107
validation sticker, or a validation sticker alone when required by 88108
section 4503.191 of the Revised Code.88109

       In addition to the letters and numbers ordinarily inscribed 88110
on the license plates, "Truth, Justice, and the American Way" 88111
license plates shall be inscribed with the words "Truth, Justice, 88112
and the American Way" and a design, logo, or marking selected by 88113
the entity that owns the Superman name. The registrar shall 88114
approve the final design after entering into a license agreement 88115
with that entity for appropriate use of the Superman name and 88116
associated logo or marking, as applicable. The license plates 88117
shall bear county identification stickers that identify the county 88118
of registration by name or number.88119

       (B) "Truth, Justice, and the American Way" license plates and 88120
validation stickers shall be issued upon receipt of a contribution 88121
as provided in division (C)(1) of this section and upon payment of 88122
the regular license tax as prescribed under section 4503.04 of the 88123
Revised Code, any applicable motor vehicle license tax levied 88124
under Chapter 4504. of the Revised Code, and a bureau of motor 88125
vehicles administrative fee of ten dollars. The applicant shall 88126
comply with all other applicable laws relating to the registration 88127
of motor vehicles. If the application for "Truth, Justice, and the 88128
American Way" license plates is combined with a request for a 88129
special reserved license plate under section 4503.40 or 4503.42 of 88130
the Revised Code, the license plates and validation sticker shall 88131
be issued upon payment of the fees and taxes specified in this 88132
division and the additional fee prescribed under section 4503.40 88133
or 4503.42 of the Revised Code.88134

       (C)(1) For each application for registration and registration 88135
renewal notice the registrar receives under this section, the 88136
registrar shall collect a contribution of ten dollars. The 88137
registrar shall pay this contribution into the state treasury to 88138
the credit of the license plate contribution fund created in 88139
section 4501.21 of the Revised Code.88140

       (2) The registrar shall pay into the state treasury the 88141
ten-dollar bureau administrative fee, the purpose of which is to 88142
compensate the bureau for additional services required in issuing 88143
"Truth, Justice, and the American Way" license plates, to the 88144
credit of the state bureau of motor vehicles fund created in 88145
section 4501.25 of Revised Code.88146

       Sec. 4503.95.  (A) The owner or lessee of any passenger car, 88147
noncommercial motor vehicle, recreational vehicle, or other 88148
vehicle of a class approved by the registrar of motor vehicles may 88149
apply to the registrar for the registration of the vehicle and 88150
issuance of "Ohio history" license plates. The application for 88151
"Ohio history" license plates may be combined with a request for a 88152
special reserved license plate under section 4503.40 or 4503.42 of 88153
the Revised Code. Upon receipt of the completed application and 88154
compliance with division (B) of this section, the registrar shall 88155
issue to the applicant the appropriate vehicle registration and a 88156
set of "Ohio history" license plates with a validation sticker or 88157
a validation sticker alone when required by section 4503.191 of 88158
the Revised Code. In addition to the letters and numbers 88159
ordinarily inscribed thereon, "Ohio history" license plates shall 88160
be inscribed with words and markings selected and designed by the 88161
Ohio historical society and approved by the registrar. "Ohio 88162
history" license plates shall bear county identification stickers 88163
that identify the county of registration by name or number.88164

       (B) "Ohio history" license plates and validation stickers 88165
shall be issued upon payment of the regular license tax as 88166
prescribed under section 4503.04 of the Revised Code, any 88167
applicable motor vehicle tax levied under Chapter 4504. of the 88168
Revised Code, a bureau of motor vehicles administrative fee of ten 88169
dollars, the contribution specified in division (C) of this 88170
section, and compliance with all other applicable laws relating to 88171
the registration of motor vehicles. If the application for "Ohio 88172
history" license plates is combined with a request for a special 88173
reserved license plate under section 4503.40 or 4503.42 of the 88174
Revised Code, the license plates and validation sticker shall be 88175
issued upon payment of the contribution, fees, and taxes contained 88176
in this division and the additional fee prescribed under section 88177
4503.40 or 4503.42 of the Revised Code.88178

       (C) For each application for registration and registration 88179
renewal submitted under this section, the registrar shall collect 88180
a contribution of twenty dollars. The registrar shall transmit 88181
this contribution to the treasurer of state for deposit in the 88182
Ohio history license plate contribution fund created in section 88183
149.307 of the Revised Code.88184

       The registrar shall deposit the ten-dollar bureau 88185
administrative fee, the purpose of which is to compensate the 88186
bureau for additional services required in issuing "Ohio history" 88187
license plates, in the state bureau of motor vehicles fund created 88188
in section 4501.25 of the Revised Code.88189

       Sec. 4503.96.  (A) The owner or lessee of any passenger car, 88190
noncommercial motor vehicle, recreational vehicle, or other 88191
vehicle of a class approved by the registrar of motor vehicles may 88192
apply to the registrar for the registration of the vehicle and 88193
issuance of Ohio coal license plates. An application made under 88194
this section may be combined with a request for a special reserved 88195
license plate under section 4503.40 or 4503.42 of the Revised 88196
Code. Upon receipt of the completed application and compliance by 88197
the applicant with divisions (B) and (C) of this section, the 88198
registrar shall issue to the applicant the appropriate vehicle 88199
registration and a set of Ohio coal license plates and a 88200
validation sticker, or a validation sticker alone when required by 88201
section 4503.191 of the Revised Code.88202

       In addition to the letters and numbers ordinarily inscribed 88203
on the license plates, Ohio coal license plates shall be inscribed 88204
with identifying words or markings that are designed by the Ohio 88205
coal association and approved by the registrar. Ohio coal license 88206
plates shall display county identification stickers that identify 88207
the county of registration by name or number.88208

       (B) Ohio coal license plates and validation stickers shall be 88209
issued upon payment of the regular license tax as prescribed under 88210
section 4503.04 of the Revised Code, any applicable motor vehicle 88211
license tax levied under Chapter 4504. of the Revised Code, and a 88212
bureau of motor vehicles administrative fee of ten dollars. The 88213
applicant shall comply with all other applicable laws relating to 88214
the registration of motor vehicles. If the application for Ohio 88215
coal license plates is combined with a request for a special 88216
reserved license plate under section 4503.40 or 4503.42 of the 88217
Revised Code, the license plates and validation sticker shall be 88218
issued upon payment of the fees and taxes specified in this 88219
division and the additional fee prescribed under section 4503.40 88220
or 4503.42 of the Revised Code.88221

       (C) The registrar shall deposit into the state treasury the 88222
ten-dollar bureau administrative fee, the purpose of which is to 88223
compensate the bureau for additional services required in issuing 88224
Ohio coal license plates, to the credit of the state bureau of 88225
motor vehicles fund created in section 4501.25 of Revised Code.88226

       Sec. 4505.02.  The registrar of motor vehicles shall issue 88227
rules as the registrar determines necessary to ensure uniform and 88228
orderly operation of this chapter and to ensure that the 88229
identification of each applicant for a certificate of title is 88230
reasonably accurate. The clerks of the courts of common pleas 88231
shall conform thereto. The clerks shall provide the forms as 88232
prescribed by the registrar, except the manufacturers' or 88233
importers' certificates. The clerks shall provide, from moneys in 88234
the automated title processing fund, certificates of title and 88235
ribbons, cartridges, or other devices necessary for the operation 88236
of the certificate of title processing equipment as determined by 88237
the automated title processing board pursuant to division (C) of 88238
section 4505.09 of the Revised Code. All other automated title 88239
processing system supplies shall be provided by the clerks.88240

       If it appears that any certificate of title has been 88241
improperly issued, the registrar shall cancel the certificate. 88242
Upon the cancellation of any certificate of title, the registrar 88243
shall notify the clerk who issued it, and the clerk thereupon 88244
shall enter the cancellation upon the clerk's records. The 88245
registrar also shall notify the person to whom such certificate of 88246
title was issued, as well as any lienholders appearing thereon, of 88247
the cancellation and shall demand the surrender of the certificate 88248
of title immediately, but the cancellation shall not affect the 88249
validity of any lien noted thereon. The holder of such certificate 88250
of title immediately shall return it to the registrar. If a 88251
certificate of registration has been issued to the holder of a 88252
certificate of title so canceled the registrar immediately shall 88253
cancel it and demand the return of such certificate of 88254
registration and license plates, and the holder of such 88255
certificate of registration and license plates shall return the 88256
same to the registrar forthwith. The clerks shall keep on hand a 88257
sufficient supply of blank forms, which, except for certificate of 88258
title and memorandum certificate forms, shall be furnished and 88259
distributed without charge to registered manufacturers or dealers, 88260
or other persons residing within the county.88261

       Sec. 4505.09.  (A)(1) The clerk of a court of common pleas 88262
shall charge and retain fees as follows:88263

       (a) Five dollars for each certificate of title that is not 88264
applied for within thirty days after the later of the assignment 88265
or delivery of the motor vehicle described in it. The entire fee 88266
shall be retained by the clerk.88267

        (b) Fifteen dollars for each certificate of title or 88268
duplicate certificate of title including the issuance of a 88269
memorandum certificate of title, or authorization to print a 88270
non-negotiable evidence of ownership described in division (G) of 88271
section 4505.08 of the Revised Code, non-negotiable evidence of 88272
ownership printed by the clerk under division (H) of that section, 88273
and notation of any lien on a certificate of title that is applied 88274
for at the same time as the certificate of title. The clerk shall 88275
retain eleven dollars and fifty cents of that fee for each 88276
certificate of title when there is a notation of a lien or 88277
security interest on the certificate of title, twelve dollars and 88278
twenty-five cents when there is no lien or security interest noted 88279
on the certificate of title, and eleven dollars and fifty cents 88280
for each duplicate certificate of title.88281

       (c) Four dollars and fifty cents for each certificate of 88282
title with no security interest noted that is issued to a licensed 88283
motor vehicle dealer for resale purposes and, in addition, a 88284
separate fee of fifty cents. The clerk shall retain two dollars 88285
and twenty-five cents of that fee.88286

       (d) Five dollars for each memorandum certificate of title or 88287
non-negotiable evidence of ownership that is applied for 88288
separately. The clerk shall retain that entire fee.88289

       (2) The fees that are not retained by the clerk shall be paid 88290
to the registrar of motor vehicles by monthly returns, which shall 88291
be forwarded to the registrar not later than the fifth day of the 88292
month next succeeding that in which the certificate is issued or 88293
that in which the registrar is notified of a lien or cancellation 88294
of a lien.88295

       (B)(1) The registrar shall pay twenty-five cents of the 88296
amount received for each certificate of title issued to a motor 88297
vehicle dealer for resale, one dollar for certificates of title 88298
issued with a lien or security interest noted on the certificate 88299
of title, and twenty-five cents for each certificate of title with 88300
no lien or security interest noted on the certificate of title 88301
into the state bureau of motor vehicles fund established in 88302
section 4501.25 of the Revised Code.88303

       (2) Fifty cents of the amount received for each certificate 88304
of title shall be paid by the registrar as follows:88305

       (a) Four cents shall be paid into the state treasury to the 88306
credit of the motor vehicle dealers board fund, which is hereby 88307
created. All investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to 88308
the fund. The moneys in the motor vehicle dealers board fund shall 88309
be used by the motor vehicle dealers board created under section 88310
4517.30 of the Revised Code, together with other moneys 88311
appropriated to it, in the exercise of its powers and the 88312
performance of its duties under Chapter 4517. of the Revised Code, 88313
except that the director of budget and management may transfer 88314
excess money from the motor vehicle dealers board fund to the 88315
bureau of motor vehicles fund if the registrar determines that the 88316
amount of money in the motor vehicle dealers board fund, together 88317
with other moneys appropriated to the board, exceeds the amount 88318
required for the exercise of its powers and the performance of its 88319
duties under Chapter 4517. of the Revised Code and requests the 88320
director to make the transfer.88321

       (b) Twenty-one cents shall be paid into the highway operating 88322
fund.88323

       (c) Twenty-five cents shall be paid into the state treasury 88324
to the credit of the motor vehicle sales audit fund, which is 88325
hereby created. The moneys in the fund shall be used by the tax 88326
commissioner together with other funds available to the 88327
commissioner to conduct a continuing investigation of sales and 88328
use tax returns filed for motor vehicles in order to determine if 88329
sales and use tax liability has been satisfied. The commissioner 88330
shall refer cases of apparent violations of section 2921.13 of the 88331
Revised Code made in connection with the titling or sale of a 88332
motor vehicle and cases of any other apparent violations of the 88333
sales or use tax law to the appropriate county prosecutor whenever 88334
the commissioner considers it advisable.88335

       (3) Two dollars of the amount received by the registrar under 88336
divisions (A)(1)(a), (b), and (d) of this section and one dollar 88337
and fifty cents of the amount received by the registrar under 88338
division (A)(1)(c) of this section for each certificate of title 88339
shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the 88340
automated title processing fund, which is hereby created and which 88341
shall consist of moneys collected under division (B)(3) of this 88342
section and under sections 1548.10 and 4519.59 of the Revised 88343
Code. All investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the 88344
fund. The moneys in the fund shall be used as follows:88345

       (a) Except for moneys collected under section 1548.10 of the 88346
Revised Code and as provided in division (B)(3)(c) of this 88347
section, moneys collected under division (B)(3) of this section 88348
shall be used to implement and maintain an automated title 88349
processing system for the issuance of motor vehicle, off-highway 88350
motorcycle, and all-purpose vehicle certificates of title in the 88351
offices of the clerks of the courts of common pleas.88352

       (b) Moneys collected under section 1548.10 of the Revised 88353
Code shall be used to issue marine certificates of title in the 88354
offices of the clerks of the courts of common pleas as provided in 88355
Chapter 1548. of the Revised Code.88356

       (c) Moneys collected under division (B)(3) of this section 88357
shall be used in accordance with section 4505.25 of the Revised 88358
Code to implement Sub. S.B. 59 of the 124th general assembly.88359

       (4) The registrar shall pay the fifty-cent separate fee 88360
collected from a licensed motor vehicle dealer under division 88361
(A)(1)(c) of this section into the title defect recision fund 88362
created by section 1345.52 of the Revised Code.88363

       (C)(1) The automated title processing board is hereby created 88364
consisting of the registrar or the registrar's representative, a 88365
person selected by the registrar, the president of the Ohio clerks 88366
of court association or the president's representative, and two 88367
clerks of courts of common pleas appointed by the governor. The 88368
director of budget and management or the director's designee, the 88369
chief of the division of watercraft in the department of natural 88370
resources or the chief's designee, and the tax commissioner or the 88371
commissioner's designee shall be nonvoting members of the board. 88372
The purpose of the board is to facilitate the operation and 88373
maintenance of an automated title processing system and approve 88374
the procurement of automated title processing system equipment and 88375
ribbons, cartridges, or other devices necessary for the operation 88376
of that equipment. Voting members of the board, excluding the 88377
registrar or the registrar's representative, shall serve without 88378
compensation, but shall be reimbursed for travel and other 88379
necessary expenses incurred in the conduct of their official 88380
duties. The registrar or the registrar's representative shall 88381
receive neither compensation nor reimbursement as a board member.88382

       (2) The automated title processing board shall determine each 88383
of the following:88384

       (a) The automated title processing equipment and certificates 88385
of title requirements for each county;88386

       (b) The payment of expenses that may be incurred by the 88387
counties in implementing an automated title processing system;88388

       (c) The repayment to the counties for existing title 88389
processing equipment.88390

       (3) The registrar shall purchase, lease, or otherwise acquire 88391
any automated title processing equipment and certificates of title 88392
that the board determines are necessary from moneys in the 88393
automated title processing fund established by division (B)(3) of 88394
this section.88395

       (D) All counties shall conform to the requirements of the 88396
registrar regarding the operation of their automated title 88397
processing system for motor vehicle titles, certificates of title 88398
for off-highway motorcycles and all-purpose vehicles, and 88399
certificates of title for watercraft and outboard motors.88400

       Sec. 4506.07.  (A) Every application for a commercial 88401
driver's license, restricted commercial driver's license, or a 88402
commercial driver's temporary instruction permit, or a duplicate 88403
of such a license, shall be made upon a form approved and 88404
furnished by the registrar of motor vehicles. Except as provided 88405
in section 4506.24 of the Revised Code in regard to a restricted 88406
commercial driver's license, the application shall be signed by 88407
the applicant and shall contain the following information:88408

       (1) The applicant's name, date of birth, social security 88409
account number, sex, general description including height, weight, 88410
and color of hair and eyes, current residence, duration of 88411
residence in this state, country of citizenship, and occupation;88412

       (2) Whether the applicant previously has been licensed to 88413
operate a commercial motor vehicle or any other type of motor 88414
vehicle in another state or a foreign jurisdiction and, if so, 88415
when, by what state, and whether the license or driving privileges 88416
currently are suspended or revoked in any jurisdiction, or the 88417
applicant otherwise has been disqualified from operating a 88418
commercial motor vehicle, or is subject to an out-of-service order 88419
issued under this chapter or any similar law of another state or a 88420
foreign jurisdiction and, if so, the date of, locations involved, 88421
and reason for the suspension, revocation, disqualification, or 88422
out-of-service order;88423

       (3) Whether the applicant is afflicted with or suffering from 88424
any physical or mental disability or disease that prevents the 88425
applicant from exercising reasonable and ordinary control over a 88426
motor vehicle while operating it upon a highway or is or has been 88427
subject to any condition resulting in episodic impairment of 88428
consciousness or loss of muscular control and, if so, the nature 88429
and extent of the disability, disease, or condition, and the names 88430
and addresses of the physicians attending the applicant;88431

       (4) Whether the applicant has obtained a medical examiner's 88432
certificate as required by this chapter and, beginning January 30, 88433
2012, the applicant, prior to or at the time of applying, has 88434
self-certified to the registrar the applicable status of the 88435
applicant under division (A)(2) of section 4506.10 of the Revised 88436
Code;88437

       (5) Whether the applicant has pending a citation for 88438
violation of any motor vehicle law or ordinance except a parking 88439
violation and, if so, a description of the citation, the court 88440
having jurisdiction of the offense, and the date when the offense 88441
occurred;88442

       (6) WhetherIf an applicant has not certified the applicant's 88443
willingness to make an anatomical gift under section 2108.05 of 88444
the Revised Code, whether the applicant wishes to certify 88445
willingness to make such an anatomical gift under section 2108.05 88446
of the Revised Code, which shall be given no consideration in the 88447
issuance of a license;88448

       (7) On and after May 1, 1993, whether the applicant has 88449
executed a valid durable power of attorney for health care 88450
pursuant to sections 1337.11 to 1337.17 of the Revised Code or has 88451
executed a declaration governing the use or continuation, or the 88452
withholding or withdrawal, of life-sustaining treatment pursuant 88453
to sections 2133.01 to 2133.15 of the Revised Code and, if the 88454
applicant has executed either type of instrument, whether the 88455
applicant wishes the license issued to indicate that the applicant 88456
has executed the instrument;88457

       (8) On and after October 7, 2009, whether the applicant is a 88458
veteran, active duty, or reservist of the armed forces of the 88459
United States and, if the applicant is such, whether the applicant 88460
wishes the license issued to indicate that the applicant is a 88461
veteran, active duty, or reservist of the armed forces of the 88462
United States by a military designation on the license.88463

       (B) Every applicant shall certify, on a form approved and 88464
furnished by the registrar, all of the following:88465

       (1) That the motor vehicle in which the applicant intends to 88466
take the driving skills test is representative of the type of 88467
motor vehicle that the applicant expects to operate as a driver;88468

       (2) That the applicant is not subject to any disqualification 88469
or out-of-service order, or license suspension, revocation, or 88470
cancellation, under the laws of this state, of another state, or 88471
of a foreign jurisdiction and does not have more than one driver's 88472
license issued by this or another state or a foreign jurisdiction;88473

       (3) Any additional information, certification, or evidence 88474
that the registrar requires by rule in order to ensure that the 88475
issuance of a commercial driver's license to the applicant is in 88476
compliance with the law of this state and with federal law.88477

       (C) Every applicant shall execute a form, approved and 88478
furnished by the registrar, under which the applicant consents to 88479
the release by the registrar of information from the applicant's 88480
driving record.88481

       (D) The registrar or a deputy registrar, in accordance with 88482
section 3503.11 of the Revised Code, shall register as an elector 88483
any applicant for a commercial driver's license or for a renewal 88484
or duplicate of such a license under this chapter, if the 88485
applicant is eligible and wishes to be registered as an elector. 88486
The decision of an applicant whether to register as an elector 88487
shall be given no consideration in the decision of whether to 88488
issue the applicant a license or a renewal or duplicate.88489

       (E) The registrar or a deputy registrar, in accordance with 88490
section 3503.11 of the Revised Code, shall offer the opportunity 88491
of completing a notice of change of residence or change of name to 88492
any applicant for a commercial driver's license or for a renewal 88493
or duplicate of such a license who is a resident of this state, if 88494
the applicant is a registered elector who has changed the 88495
applicant's residence or name and has not filed such a notice.88496

       (F) In considering any application submitted pursuant to this 88497
section, the bureau of motor vehicles may conduct any inquiries 88498
necessary to ensure that issuance or renewal of a commercial 88499
driver's license would not violate any provision of the Revised 88500
Code or federal law.88501

       (G) In addition to any other information it contains, on and 88502
after October 7, 2009, the form approved and furnished by the 88503
registrar of motor vehicles for an application for a commercial 88504
driver's license, restricted commercial driver's license, or a 88505
commercial driver's temporary instruction permit or an application 88506
for a duplicate of such a license shall inform applicants that the 88507
applicant must present a copy of the applicant's DD-214 or an 88508
equivalent document in order to qualify to have the license or 88509
duplicate indicate that the applicant is a veteran, active duty, 88510
or reservist of the armed forces of the United States based on a 88511
request made pursuant to division (A)(8) of this section.88512

       Sec. 4507.01.  (A) As used in this chapter, "motor vehicle," 88513
"motorized bicycle," "state," "owner," "operator," "chauffeur," 88514
and "highways" have the same meanings as in section 4501.01 of the 88515
Revised Code.88516

       "Driver's license" means a class D license issued to any 88517
person to operate a motor vehicle or motor-driven cycle, other 88518
than a commercial motor vehicle, and includes "probationary 88519
license," "restricted license," and any operator's or chauffeur's 88520
license issued before January 1, 1990.88521

       "Probationary license" means the license issued to any person 88522
between sixteen and eighteen years of age to operate a motor 88523
vehicle.88524

       "Restricted license" means the license issued to any person 88525
to operate a motor vehicle subject to conditions or restrictions 88526
imposed by the registrar of motor vehicles.88527

       "Commercial driver's license" means the license issued to a 88528
person under Chapter 4506. of the Revised Code to operate a 88529
commercial motor vehicle.88530

       "Commercial motor vehicle" has the same meaning as in section 88531
4506.01 of the Revised Code.88532

       "Motorized bicycle license" means the license issued under 88533
section 4511.521 of the Revised Code to any person to operate a 88534
motorized bicycle including a "probationary motorized bicycle 88535
license."88536

       "Probationary motorized bicycle license" means the license 88537
issued under section 4511.521 of the Revised Code to any person 88538
between fourteen and sixteen years of age to operate a motorized 88539
bicycle.88540

       "Identification card" means a card issued under sections 88541
4507.50 and 4507.51 of the Revised Code.88542

       "Resident" means a person who, in accordance with standards 88543
prescribed in rules adopted by the registrar, resides in this 88544
state on a permanent basis.88545

       "Temporary resident" means a person who, in accordance with 88546
standards prescribed in rules adopted by the registrar, resides in 88547
this state on a temporary basis.88548

       (B) In the administration of this chapter and Chapter 4506. 88549
of the Revised Code, the registrar has the same authority as is 88550
conferred on the registrar by section 4501.02 of the Revised Code. 88551
Any act of an authorized deputy registrar of motor vehicles under 88552
direction of the registrar is deemed the act of the registrar.88553

       To carry out this chapter, the registrar shall appoint such 88554
deputy registrars in each county as are necessary.88555

       The registrar also shall provide at each place where an 88556
application for a driver's or commercial driver's license or 88557
identification card may be made the necessary equipment to take a 88558
color photograph of the applicant for such license or card as 88559
required under section 4506.11 or 4507.06 of the Revised Code, and 88560
to conduct the vision screenings required by section 4507.12 of 88561
the Revised Code, and equipment to laminate licenses, motorized 88562
bicycle licenses, and identification cards as required by sections 88563
4507.13, 4507.52, and 4511.521 of the Revised Code.88564

       The registrar shall assign one or more deputy registrars to 88565
any driver's license examining station operated under the 88566
supervision of the director of public safety, whenever the 88567
registrar considers such assignment possible. Space shall be 88568
provided in the driver's license examining station for any such 88569
deputy registrar so assigned. The deputy registrars shall not 88570
exercise the powers conferred by such sections upon the registrar, 88571
unless they are specifically authorized to exercise such powers by 88572
such sections.88573

       (C) No agent for any insurance company, writing automobile 88574
insurance, shall be appointed deputy registrar, and any such 88575
appointment is void. No deputy registrar shall in any manner 88576
solicit any form of automobile insurance, nor in any manner 88577
advise, suggest, or influence any licensee or applicant for 88578
license for or against any kind or type of automobile insurance, 88579
insurance company, or agent, nor have the deputy registrar's 88580
office directly connected with the office of any automobile 88581
insurance agent, nor impart any information furnished by any 88582
applicant for a license or identification card to any person, 88583
except the registrar. This division shall not apply to any 88584
nonprofit corporation appointed deputy registrar.88585

       (D) The registrar shall immediately remove a deputy registrar 88586
who violates the requirements of this chapter.88587

       (E) The registrar shall periodically solicit bids and enter 88588
into a contract for the provision of laminating equipment and 88589
laminating materials to the registrar and all deputy registrars. 88590
The registrar shall not consider any bid that does not provide for 88591
the supplying of both laminating equipment and laminating 88592
materials. The laminating materials selected shall contain a 88593
security feature so that any tampering with the laminating 88594
material covering a license or identification card is readily 88595
apparent. In soliciting bids and entering into a contract for the 88596
provision of laminating equipment and laminating materials, the 88597
registrar shall observe all procedures required by law.88598

       Sec. 4507.06.  (A)(1) Every application for a driver's 88599
license or motorcycle operator's license or endorsement, or 88600
duplicate of any such license or endorsement, shall be made upon 88601
the approved form furnished by the registrar of motor vehicles and 88602
shall be signed by the applicant.88603

       Every application shall state the following:88604

       (a) The applicant's name, date of birth, social security 88605
number if such has been assigned, sex, general description, 88606
including height, weight, color of hair, and eyes, residence 88607
address, including county of residence, duration of residence in 88608
this state, and country of citizenship;88609

       (b) Whether the applicant previously has been licensed as an 88610
operator, chauffeur, driver, commercial driver, or motorcycle 88611
operator and, if so, when, by what state, and whether such license 88612
is suspended or canceled at the present time and, if so, the date 88613
of and reason for the suspension or cancellation;88614

       (c) Whether the applicant is now or ever has been afflicted 88615
with epilepsy, or whether the applicant now is suffering from any 88616
physical or mental disability or disease and, if so, the nature 88617
and extent of the disability or disease, giving the names and 88618
addresses of physicians then or previously in attendance upon the 88619
applicant;88620

       (d) Whether an applicant for a duplicate driver's license, or 88621
duplicate license containing a motorcycle operator endorsement has 88622
pending a citation for violation of any motor vehicle law or 88623
ordinance, a description of any such citation pending, and the 88624
date of the citation;88625

       (e) WhetherIf an applicant has not certified the applicant's 88626
willingness to make an anatomical gift under section 2108.05 of 88627
the Revised Code, whether the applicant wishes to certify 88628
willingness to make such an anatomical gift under section 2108.05 88629
of the Revised Code, which shall be given no consideration in the 88630
issuance of a license or endorsement;88631

       (f) Whether the applicant has executed a valid durable power 88632
of attorney for health care pursuant to sections 1337.11 to 88633
1337.17 of the Revised Code or has executed a declaration 88634
governing the use or continuation, or the withholding or 88635
withdrawal, of life-sustaining treatment pursuant to sections 88636
2133.01 to 2133.15 of the Revised Code and, if the applicant has 88637
executed either type of instrument, whether the applicant wishes 88638
the applicant's license to indicate that the applicant has 88639
executed the instrument;88640

       (g) On and after October 7, 2009, whether the applicant is a 88641
veteran, active duty, or reservist of the armed forces of the 88642
United States and, if the applicant is such, whether the applicant 88643
wishes the applicant's license to indicate that the applicant is a 88644
veteran, active duty, or reservist of the armed forces of the 88645
United States by a military designation on the license.88646

       (2) Every applicant for a driver's license shall be 88647
photographed in color at the time the application for the license 88648
is made. The application shall state any additional information 88649
that the registrar requires.88650

       (B) The registrar or a deputy registrar, in accordance with 88651
section 3503.11 of the Revised Code, shall register as an elector 88652
any person who applies for a driver's license or motorcycle 88653
operator's license or endorsement under division (A) of this 88654
section, or for a renewal or duplicate of the license or 88655
endorsement, if the applicant is eligible and wishes to be 88656
registered as an elector. The decision of an applicant whether to 88657
register as an elector shall be given no consideration in the 88658
decision of whether to issue the applicant a license or 88659
endorsement, or a renewal or duplicate.88660

       (C) The registrar or a deputy registrar, in accordance with 88661
section 3503.11 of the Revised Code, shall offer the opportunity 88662
of completing a notice of change of residence or change of name to 88663
any applicant for a driver's license or endorsement under division 88664
(A) of this section, or for a renewal or duplicate of the license 88665
or endorsement, if the applicant is a registered elector who has 88666
changed the applicant's residence or name and has not filed such a 88667
notice.88668

       (D) In addition to any other information it contains, on and 88669
after October 7, 2009, the approved form furnished by the 88670
registrar of motor vehicles for an application for a driver's 88671
license or motorcycle operator's license or endorsement or an 88672
application for a duplicate of any such license or endorsement 88673
shall inform applicants that the applicant must present a copy of 88674
the applicant's DD-214 or an equivalent document in order to 88675
qualify to have the license or duplicate indicate that the 88676
applicant is a veteran, active duty, or reservist of the armed 88677
forces of the United States based on a request made pursuant to 88678
division (A)(1)(g) of this section.88679

       Sec. 4507.51.  (A)(1) Every application for an identification 88680
card or duplicate shall be made on a form furnished by the 88681
registrar of motor vehicles, shall be signed by the applicant, and 88682
by the applicant's parent or guardian if the applicant is under 88683
eighteen years of age, and shall contain the following information 88684
pertaining to the applicant: name, date of birth, sex, general 88685
description including the applicant's height, weight, hair color, 88686
and eye color, address, and social security number. The 88687
application also shall stateinclude, for an applicant who has not 88688
already certified the applicant's willingness to make an 88689
anatomical gift under section 2108.05 of the Revised Code, whether 88690
anthe applicant wishes to certify willingness to make such an 88691
anatomical gift under section 2108.05 of the Revised Code and 88692
shall include information about the requirements of sections 88693
2108.01 to 2108.29 of the Revised Code that apply to persons who 88694
are less than eighteen years of age. The statement regarding 88695
willingness to make such a donation shall be given no 88696
consideration in the decision of whether to issue an 88697
identification card. Each applicant shall be photographed in color 88698
at the time of making application. 88699

       (2)(a) The application also shall state whether the applicant 88700
has executed a valid durable power of attorney for health care 88701
pursuant to sections 1337.11 to 1337.17 of the Revised Code or has 88702
executed a declaration governing the use or continuation, or the 88703
withholding or withdrawal, of life-sustaining treatment pursuant 88704
to sections 2133.01 to 2133.15 of the Revised Code and, if the 88705
applicant has executed either type of instrument, whether the 88706
applicant wishes the identification card issued to indicate that 88707
the applicant has executed the instrument. 88708

       (b) On and after October 7, 2009, the application also shall 88709
state whether the applicant is a veteran, active duty, or 88710
reservist of the armed forces of the United States and, if the 88711
applicant is such, whether the applicant wishes the identification 88712
card issued to indicate that the applicant is a veteran, active 88713
duty, or reservist of the armed forces of the United States by a 88714
military designation on the identification card. 88715

       (3) The registrar or deputy registrar, in accordance with 88716
section 3503.11 of the Revised Code, shall register as an elector 88717
any person who applies for an identification card or duplicate if 88718
the applicant is eligible and wishes to be registered as an 88719
elector. The decision of an applicant whether to register as an 88720
elector shall be given no consideration in the decision of whether 88721
to issue the applicant an identification card or duplicate. 88722

       (B) The application for an identification card or duplicate 88723
shall be filed in the office of the registrar or deputy registrar. 88724
Each applicant shall present documentary evidence as required by 88725
the registrar of the applicant's age and identity, and the 88726
applicant shall swear that all information given is true. An 88727
identification card issued by the department of rehabilitation and 88728
correction under section 5120.59 of the Revised Code or an 88729
identification card issued by the department of youth services 88730
under section 5139.511 of the Revised Code shall be sufficient 88731
documentary evidence under this division upon verification of the 88732
applicant's social security number by the registrar or a deputy 88733
registrar. Upon issuing an identification card under this section 88734
for a person who has been issued an identification card under 88735
section 5120.59 or section 5139.511 of the Revised Code, the 88736
registrar or deputy registrar shall destroy the identification 88737
card issued under section 5120.59 or section 5139.511 of the 88738
Revised Code. 88739

       All applications for an identification card or duplicate 88740
shall be filed in duplicate, and if submitted to a deputy 88741
registrar, a copy shall be forwarded to the registrar. The 88742
registrar shall prescribe rules for the manner in which a deputy 88743
registrar is to file and maintain applications and other records. 88744
The registrar shall maintain a suitable, indexed record of all 88745
applications denied and cards issued or canceled. 88746

       (C) In addition to any other information it contains, on and 88747
after the date that is fifteen months after April 7, 2009, the 88748
form furnished by the registrar of motor vehicles for an 88749
application for an identification card or duplicate shall inform 88750
applicants that the applicant must present a copy of the 88751
applicant's DD-214 or an equivalent document in order to qualify 88752
to have the card or duplicate indicate that the applicant is an 88753
honorably discharged veteran of the armed forces of the United 88754
States based on a request made pursuant to division (A)(2)(b) of 88755
this section.88756

       Sec. 4510.038. (A) Any person whose driver's or commercial 88757
driver's license or permit is suspended or who is granted limited 88758
driving privileges under section 4510.037, under division (H) of 88759
section 4511.19, or under section 4510.07 of the Revised Code for 88760
a violation of a municipal ordinance that is substantially 88761
equivalent to division (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code 88762
is not eligible to retain the license, or to have the driving 88763
privileges reinstated, until each of the following has occurred:88764

       (1) The person successfully completes a course of remedial 88765
driving instruction approved by the director of public safety. A 88766
minimum of twenty-five per cent of the number of hours of 88767
instruction included in the course shall be devoted to instruction 88768
on driver attitude.88769

       The course also shall devote a number of hours to instruction 88770
in the area of alcohol and drugs and the operation of vehicles. 88771
The instruction shall include, but not be limited to, a review of 88772
the laws governing the operation of a vehicle while under the 88773
influence of alcohol, drugs, or a combination of them, the dangers 88774
of operating a vehicle while under the influence of alcohol, 88775
drugs, or a combination of them, and other information relating to 88776
the operation of vehicles and the consumption of alcoholic 88777
beverages and use of drugs. The director, in consultation with the 88778
director of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and 88779
addiction services, shall prescribe the content of the 88780
instruction. The number of hours devoted to the area of alcohol 88781
and drugs and the operation of vehicles shall comprise a minimum 88782
of twenty-five per cent of the number of hours of instruction 88783
included in the course.88784

       (2) The person is examined in the manner provided for in 88785
section 4507.20 of the Revised Code, and found by the registrar of 88786
motor vehicles to be qualified to operate a motor vehicle;88787

       (3) The person gives and maintains proof of financial 88788
responsibility, in accordance with section 4509.45 of the Revised 88789
Code.88790

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section, 88791
any course of remedial driving instruction the director of public 88792
safety approves under this section shall require its students to 88793
attend at least fifty per cent of the course in person and the 88794
director shall not approve any course of remedial driving 88795
instruction that permits its students to take more than fifty per 88796
cent of the course in any other manner, including via video 88797
teleconferencing or the internet.88798

       (2) The director may approve a course of remedial instruction 88799
that permits students to take the entire course via video 88800
teleconferencing or the internet.88801

       Sec. 4510.45.  (A)(1) A manufacturer of ignition interlock 88802
devices that desires for its devices to be certified under section 88803
4510.43 of the Revised Code and then to be included on the list of 88804
certified devices that the department of public safety compiles 88805
and makes available to courts pursuant to that section first shall 88806
obtain a license from the department under this section. The 88807
department, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 88808
shall adopt any rules that are necessary to implement this 88809
licensing requirement.88810

       (2) A manufacturer shall apply to the department for the 88811
license and shall include all information the department may 88812
require by rule. Each application, including an application for 88813
license renewal, shall be accompanied by an application fee of one 88814
hundred dollars, which the department shall deposit into the state 88815
treasury to the credit of the indigent drivers alcohol treatment 88816
fund created by section 4511.191 of the Revised Code.88817

       (3) Upon receipt of a completed application, if the 88818
department finds that a manufacturer has complied with all 88819
application requirements, the department shall issue a license to 88820
the manufacturer. A manufacturer that has been issued a license 88821
under this section is eligible immediately to have the models of 88822
ignition interlock devices it produces certified under section 88823
4510.43 of the Revised Code and then included on the list of 88824
certified devices that the department compiles and makes available 88825
to courts pursuant to that section.88826

       (4)(a) A license issued under this section shall expire 88827
annually on a date selected by the department. The department 88828
shall reject the license application of a manufacturer if any of 88829
the following apply:88830

       (i) The application is not accompanied by the application 88831
fee.88832

       (ii) The department finds that the manufacturer has not 88833
complied with all application requirements.88834

        (iii) The license application is a renewal application and 88835
the manufacturer failed to file the annual report or failed to pay 88836
the fee as required by division (B) of this section.88837

       (b) A manufacturer whose license application is rejected by 88838
the department may appeal the decision to the director of public 88839
safety. The director or the director's designee shall hold a 88840
hearing on the matter not more than thirty days from the date of 88841
the manufacturer's appeal. If the director or the director's 88842
designee upholds the denial of the manufacturer's application for 88843
a license, the manufacturer may appeal the decision to the 88844
Franklin county court of common pleas. If the director or the 88845
director's designee reverses the denial of the manufacturer's 88846
application for a license, the director or the director's designee 88847
shall issue a written order directing that the department issue a 88848
license to the manufacturer.88849

       (B) Every manufacturer of ignition interlock devices that is 88850
issued a license under this section shall file an annual report 88851
with the department on a form the department prescribes on or 88852
before a date the department prescribes. The annual report shall 88853
state the amount of net profit the manufacturer earned during a 88854
twelve-month period specified by the department that is 88855
attributable to the sales of that manufacturer's certified 88856
ignition interlock devices to purchasers in this state. Each 88857
manufacturer shall pay a fee equal to five per cent of the amount 88858
of the net profit described in this division.88859

       The department may permit annual reports to be filed via 88860
electronic means.88861

       (C) The department shall deposit all fees it receives from 88862
manufacturers under this section into the state treasury to the 88863
credit of the indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund created by 88864
section 4511.191 of the Revised Code. All money so deposited into 88865
that fund that is paid by the department of alcohol and drug 88866
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services to county 88867
indigent drivers alcohol treatment funds, county juvenile indigent 88868
drivers alcohol treatment funds, and municipal indigent drivers 88869
alcohol treatment funds shall be used only as described in 88870
division (H)(3) of section 4511.191 of the Revised Code.88871

       (D)(1) The director may make an assessment, based on any 88872
information in the director's possession, against any manufacturer 88873
that fails to file an annual report or pay the fee required by 88874
division (B) of this section. The director, in accordance with 88875
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt rules governing 88876
assessments and assessment procedures and related provisions. In 88877
adopting these rules, the director shall incorporate the 88878
provisions of section 5751.09 of the Revised Code to the greatest 88879
extent possible, except that the director is not required to 88880
incorporate any provisions of that section that by their nature 88881
are not applicable, appropriate, or necessary to assessments made 88882
by the director under this section.88883

       (2) A manufacturer may appeal the final determination of the 88884
director regarding an assessment made by the director under this 88885
section. The director, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 88886
Revised Code, shall adopt rules governing such appeals. In 88887
adopting these rules, the director shall incorporate the 88888
provisions of section 5717.02 of the Revised Code to the greatest 88889
extent possible, except that the director is not required to 88890
incorporate any provisions of that section that by their nature 88891
are not applicable, appropriate, or necessary to appeals of 88892
assessments made by the director under this section.88893

       (E) The director, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 88894
Revised Code, shall adopt a penalty schedule setting forth the 88895
monetary penalties to be imposed upon a manufacturer that is 88896
issued a license under this section and fails to file an annual 88897
report or pay the fee required by division (B) of this section in 88898
a timely manner. The penalty amounts shall not exceed the maximum 88899
penalty amounts established in section 5751.06 of the Revised Code 88900
for similar or equivalent facts or circumstances.88901

       (F)(1) No manufacturer of ignition interlock devices that is 88902
required by division (B) of this section to file an annual report 88903
with the department or to pay a fee shall fail to do so as 88904
required by that division.88905

       (2) No manufacturer of ignition interlock devices that is 88906
required by division (B) of this section to file an annual report 88907
with the department shall file a report that contains incorrect or 88908
erroneous information.88909

       (G) Whoever violates division (F)(2) of this section is 88910
guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree. The department shall 88911
remove from the list of certified devices described in division 88912
(A)(1) of this section the ignition interlock devices manufactured 88913
by a manufacturer that violates division (F)(1) or (2) of this 88914
section.88915

       Sec. 4511.19.  (A)(1) No person shall operate any vehicle, 88916
streetcar, or trackless trolley within this state, if, at the time 88917
of the operation, any of the following apply:88918

       (a) The person is under the influence of alcohol, a drug of 88919
abuse, or a combination of them.88920

       (b) The person has a concentration of eight-hundredths of one 88921
per cent or more but less than seventeen-hundredths of one per 88922
cent by weight per unit volume of alcohol in the person's whole 88923
blood.88924

       (c) The person has a concentration of ninety-six-thousandths 88925
of one per cent or more but less than two hundred four-thousandths 88926
of one per cent by weight per unit volume of alcohol in the 88927
person's blood serum or plasma.88928

       (d) The person has a concentration of eight-hundredths of one 88929
gram or more but less than seventeen-hundredths of one gram by 88930
weight of alcohol per two hundred ten liters of the person's 88931
breath.88932

       (e) The person has a concentration of eleven-hundredths of 88933
one gram or more but less than two hundred 88934
thirty-eight-thousandths of one gram by weight of alcohol per one 88935
hundred milliliters of the person's urine.88936

       (f) The person has a concentration of seventeen-hundredths of 88937
one per cent or more by weight per unit volume of alcohol in the 88938
person's whole blood.88939

       (g) The person has a concentration of two hundred 88940
four-thousandths of one per cent or more by weight per unit volume 88941
of alcohol in the person's blood serum or plasma.88942

       (h) The person has a concentration of seventeen-hundredths of 88943
one gram or more by weight of alcohol per two hundred ten liters 88944
of the person's breath.88945

       (i) The person has a concentration of two hundred 88946
thirty-eight-thousandths of one gram or more by weight of alcohol 88947
per one hundred milliliters of the person's urine.88948

       (j) Except as provided in division (K) of this section, the 88949
person has a concentration of any of the following controlled 88950
substances or metabolites of a controlled substance in the 88951
person's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, or urine that equals 88952
or exceeds any of the following:88953

       (i) The person has a concentration of amphetamine in the 88954
person's urine of at least five hundred nanograms of amphetamine 88955
per milliliter of the person's urine or has a concentration of 88956
amphetamine in the person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma 88957
of at least one hundred nanograms of amphetamine per milliliter of 88958
the person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma.88959

       (ii) The person has a concentration of cocaine in the 88960
person's urine of at least one hundred fifty nanograms of cocaine 88961
per milliliter of the person's urine or has a concentration of 88962
cocaine in the person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma of at 88963
least fifty nanograms of cocaine per milliliter of the person's 88964
whole blood or blood serum or plasma.88965

       (iii) The person has a concentration of cocaine metabolite in 88966
the person's urine of at least one hundred fifty nanograms of 88967
cocaine metabolite per milliliter of the person's urine or has a 88968
concentration of cocaine metabolite in the person's whole blood or 88969
blood serum or plasma of at least fifty nanograms of cocaine 88970
metabolite per milliliter of the person's whole blood or blood 88971
serum or plasma.88972

       (iv) The person has a concentration of heroin in the person's 88973
urine of at least two thousand nanograms of heroin per milliliter 88974
of the person's urine or has a concentration of heroin in the 88975
person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma of at least fifty 88976
nanograms of heroin per milliliter of the person's whole blood or 88977
blood serum or plasma.88978

       (v) The person has a concentration of heroin metabolite 88979
(6-monoacetyl morphine) in the person's urine of at least ten 88980
nanograms of heroin metabolite (6-monoacetyl morphine) per 88981
milliliter of the person's urine or has a concentration of heroin 88982
metabolite (6-monoacetyl morphine) in the person's whole blood or 88983
blood serum or plasma of at least ten nanograms of heroin 88984
metabolite (6-monoacetyl morphine) per milliliter of the person's 88985
whole blood or blood serum or plasma.88986

       (vi) The person has a concentration of L.S.D. in the person's 88987
urine of at least twenty-five nanograms of L.S.D. per milliliter 88988
of the person's urine or a concentration of L.S.D. in the person's 88989
whole blood or blood serum or plasma of at least ten nanograms of 88990
L.S.D. per milliliter of the person's whole blood or blood serum 88991
or plasma.88992

       (vii) The person has a concentration of marihuana in the 88993
person's urine of at least ten nanograms of marihuana per 88994
milliliter of the person's urine or has a concentration of 88995
marihuana in the person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma of 88996
at least two nanograms of marihuana per milliliter of the person's 88997
whole blood or blood serum or plasma.88998

       (viii) Either of the following applies:88999

        (I) The person is under the influence of alcohol, a drug of 89000
abuse, or a combination of them, and, as measured by gas 89001
chromatography mass spectrometry, the person has a concentration 89002
of marihuana metabolite in the person's urine of at least fifteen 89003
nanograms of marihuana metabolite per milliliter of the person's 89004
urine or has a concentration of marihuana metabolite in the 89005
person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma of at least five 89006
nanograms of marihuana metabolite per milliliter of the person's 89007
whole blood or blood serum or plasma.89008

       (II) As measured by gas chromatography mass spectrometry, the 89009
person has a concentration of marihuana metabolite in the person's 89010
urine of at least thirty-five nanograms of marihuana metabolite 89011
per milliliter of the person's urine or has a concentration of 89012
marihuana metabolite in the person's whole blood or blood serum or 89013
plasma of at least fifty nanograms of marihuana metabolite per 89014
milliliter of the person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma.89015

       (ix) The person has a concentration of methamphetamine in the 89016
person's urine of at least five hundred nanograms of 89017
methamphetamine per milliliter of the person's urine or has a 89018
concentration of methamphetamine in the person's whole blood or 89019
blood serum or plasma of at least one hundred nanograms of 89020
methamphetamine per milliliter of the person's whole blood or 89021
blood serum or plasma.89022

       (x) The person has a concentration of phencyclidine in the 89023
person's urine of at least twenty-five nanograms of phencyclidine 89024
per milliliter of the person's urine or has a concentration of 89025
phencyclidine in the person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma 89026
of at least ten nanograms of phencyclidine per milliliter of the 89027
person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma.89028

       (xi) The state board of pharmacy has adopted a rule pursuant 89029
to section 4729.041 of the Revised Code that specifies the amount 89030
of salvia divinorum and the amount of salvinorin A that constitute 89031
concentrations of salvia divinorum and salvinorin A in a person's 89032
urine, in a person's whole blood, or in a person's blood serum or 89033
plasma at or above which the person is impaired for purposes of 89034
operating any vehicle, streetcar, or trackless trolley within this 89035
state, the rule is in effect, and the person has a concentration 89036
of salvia divinorum or salvinorin A of at least that amount so 89037
specified by rule in the person's urine, in the person's whole 89038
blood, or in the person's blood serum or plasma.89039

       (2) No person who, within twenty years of the conduct 89040
described in division (A)(2)(a) of this section, previously has 89041
been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of this 89042
division, a violation of division (A)(1) or (B) of this section, 89043
or any other equivalent offense shall do both of the following:89044

       (a) Operate any vehicle, streetcar, or trackless trolley 89045
within this state while under the influence of alcohol, a drug of 89046
abuse, or a combination of them;89047

       (b) Subsequent to being arrested for operating the vehicle, 89048
streetcar, or trackless trolley as described in division (A)(2)(a) 89049
of this section, being asked by a law enforcement officer to 89050
submit to a chemical test or tests under section 4511.191 of the 89051
Revised Code, and being advised by the officer in accordance with 89052
section 4511.192 of the Revised Code of the consequences of the 89053
person's refusal or submission to the test or tests, refuse to 89054
submit to the test or tests.89055

       (B) No person under twenty-one years of age shall operate any 89056
vehicle, streetcar, or trackless trolley within this state, if, at 89057
the time of the operation, any of the following apply:89058

       (1) The person has a concentration of at least two-hundredths 89059
of one per cent but less than eight-hundredths of one per cent by 89060
weight per unit volume of alcohol in the person's whole blood.89061

       (2) The person has a concentration of at least 89062
three-hundredths of one per cent but less than 89063
ninety-six-thousandths of one per cent by weight per unit volume 89064
of alcohol in the person's blood serum or plasma.89065

       (3) The person has a concentration of at least two-hundredths 89066
of one gram but less than eight-hundredths of one gram by weight 89067
of alcohol per two hundred ten liters of the person's breath.89068

       (4) The person has a concentration of at least twenty-eight 89069
one-thousandths of one gram but less than eleven-hundredths of one 89070
gram by weight of alcohol per one hundred milliliters of the 89071
person's urine.89072

       (C) In any proceeding arising out of one incident, a person 89073
may be charged with a violation of division (A)(1)(a) or (A)(2) 89074
and a violation of division (B)(1), (2), or (3) of this section, 89075
but the person may not be convicted of more than one violation of 89076
these divisions.89077

       (D)(1)(a) In any criminal prosecution or juvenile court 89078
proceeding for a violation of division (A)(1)(a) of this section 89079
or for an equivalent offense that is vehicle-related, the result 89080
of any test of any blood or urine withdrawn and analyzed at any 89081
health care provider, as defined in section 2317.02 of the Revised 89082
Code, may be admitted with expert testimony to be considered with 89083
any other relevant and competent evidence in determining the guilt 89084
or innocence of the defendant.89085

       (b) In any criminal prosecution or juvenile court proceeding 89086
for a violation of division (A) or (B) of this section or for an 89087
equivalent offense that is vehicle-related, the court may admit 89088
evidence on the concentration of alcohol, drugs of abuse, 89089
controlled substances, metabolites of a controlled substance, or a 89090
combination of them in the defendant's whole blood, blood serum or 89091
plasma, breath, urine, or other bodily substance at the time of 89092
the alleged violation as shown by chemical analysis of the 89093
substance withdrawn within three hours of the time of the alleged 89094
violation. The three-hour time limit specified in this division 89095
regarding the admission of evidence does not extend or affect the 89096
two-hour time limit specified in division (A) of section 4511.192 89097
of the Revised Code as the maximum period of time during which a 89098
person may consent to a chemical test or tests as described in 89099
that section. The court may admit evidence on the concentration of 89100
alcohol, drugs of abuse, or a combination of them as described in 89101
this division when a person submits to a blood, breath, urine, or 89102
other bodily substance test at the request of a law enforcement 89103
officer under section 4511.191 of the Revised Code or a blood or 89104
urine sample is obtained pursuant to a search warrant. Only a 89105
physician, a registered nurse, an emergency medical 89106
technician-intermediate, an emergency medical 89107
technician-paramedic, or a qualified technician, chemist, or 89108
phlebotomist shall withdraw a blood sample for the purpose of 89109
determining the alcohol, drug, controlled substance, metabolite of 89110
a controlled substance, or combination content of the whole blood, 89111
blood serum, or blood plasma. This limitation does not apply to 89112
the taking of breath or urine specimens. A person authorized to 89113
withdraw blood under this division may refuse to withdraw blood 89114
under this division, if in that person's opinion, the physical 89115
welfare of the person would be endangered by the withdrawing of 89116
blood.89117

       The bodily substance withdrawn under division (D)(1)(b) of 89118
this section shall be analyzed in accordance with methods approved 89119
by the director of health by an individual possessing a valid 89120
permit issued by the director pursuant to section 3701.143 of the 89121
Revised Code.89122

       (c) As used in division (D)(1)(b) of this section, "emergency 89123
medical technician-intermediate" and "emergency medical 89124
technician-paramedic" have the same meanings as in section 4765.01 89125
of the Revised Code.89126

       (2) In a criminal prosecution or juvenile court proceeding 89127
for a violation of division (A) of this section or for an 89128
equivalent offense that is vehicle-related, if there was at the 89129
time the bodily substance was withdrawn a concentration of less 89130
than the applicable concentration of alcohol specified in 89131
divisions (A)(1)(b), (c), (d), and (e) of this section or less 89132
than the applicable concentration of a listed controlled substance 89133
or a listed metabolite of a controlled substance specified for a 89134
violation of division (A)(1)(j) of this section, that fact may be 89135
considered with other competent evidence in determining the guilt 89136
or innocence of the defendant. This division does not limit or 89137
affect a criminal prosecution or juvenile court proceeding for a 89138
violation of division (B) of this section or for an equivalent 89139
offense that is substantially equivalent to that division.89140

       (3) Upon the request of the person who was tested, the 89141
results of the chemical test shall be made available to the person 89142
or the person's attorney, immediately upon the completion of the 89143
chemical test analysis.89144

        If the chemical test was obtained pursuant to division 89145
(D)(1)(b) of this section, the person tested may have a physician, 89146
a registered nurse, or a qualified technician, chemist, or 89147
phlebotomist of the person's own choosing administer a chemical 89148
test or tests, at the person's expense, in addition to any 89149
administered at the request of a law enforcement officer. If the 89150
person was under arrest as described in division (A)(5) of section 89151
4511.191 of the Revised Code, the arresting officer shall advise 89152
the person at the time of the arrest that the person may have an 89153
independent chemical test taken at the person's own expense. If 89154
the person was under arrest other than described in division 89155
(A)(5) of section 4511.191 of the Revised Code, the form to be 89156
read to the person to be tested, as required under section 89157
4511.192 of the Revised Code, shall state that the person may have 89158
an independent test performed at the person's expense. The failure 89159
or inability to obtain an additional chemical test by a person 89160
shall not preclude the admission of evidence relating to the 89161
chemical test or tests taken at the request of a law enforcement 89162
officer.89163

       (4)(a) As used in divisions (D)(4)(b) and (c) of this 89164
section, "national highway traffic safety administration" means 89165
the national highway traffic safety administration established as 89166
an administration of the United States department of 89167
transportation under 96 Stat. 2415 (1983), 49 U.S.C.A. 105.89168

       (b) In any criminal prosecution or juvenile court proceeding 89169
for a violation of division (A) or (B) of this section, of a 89170
municipal ordinance relating to operating a vehicle while under 89171
the influence of alcohol, a drug of abuse, or alcohol and a drug 89172
of abuse, or of a municipal ordinance relating to operating a 89173
vehicle with a prohibited concentration of alcohol, a controlled 89174
substance, or a metabolite of a controlled substance in the whole 89175
blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, or urine, if a law 89176
enforcement officer has administered a field sobriety test to the 89177
operator of the vehicle involved in the violation and if it is 89178
shown by clear and convincing evidence that the officer 89179
administered the test in substantial compliance with the testing 89180
standards for any reliable, credible, and generally accepted field 89181
sobriety tests that were in effect at the time the tests were 89182
administered, including, but not limited to, any testing standards 89183
then in effect that were set by the national highway traffic 89184
safety administration, all of the following apply:89185

       (i) The officer may testify concerning the results of the 89186
field sobriety test so administered.89187

       (ii) The prosecution may introduce the results of the field 89188
sobriety test so administered as evidence in any proceedings in 89189
the criminal prosecution or juvenile court proceeding.89190

       (iii) If testimony is presented or evidence is introduced 89191
under division (D)(4)(b)(i) or (ii) of this section and if the 89192
testimony or evidence is admissible under the Rules of Evidence, 89193
the court shall admit the testimony or evidence and the trier of 89194
fact shall give it whatever weight the trier of fact considers to 89195
be appropriate.89196

       (c) Division (D)(4)(b) of this section does not limit or 89197
preclude a court, in its determination of whether the arrest of a 89198
person was supported by probable cause or its determination of any 89199
other matter in a criminal prosecution or juvenile court 89200
proceeding of a type described in that division, from considering 89201
evidence or testimony that is not otherwise disallowed by division 89202
(D)(4)(b) of this section.89203

       (E)(1) Subject to division (E)(3) of this section, in any 89204
criminal prosecution or juvenile court proceeding for a violation 89205
of division (A)(1)(b), (c), (d), (e), (f), (g), (h), (i), or (j) 89206
or (B)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of this section or for an equivalent 89207
offense that is substantially equivalent to any of those 89208
divisions, a laboratory report from any laboratory personnel 89209
issued a permit by the department of health authorizing an 89210
analysis as described in this division that contains an analysis 89211
of the whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, urine, or other 89212
bodily substance tested and that contains all of the information 89213
specified in this division shall be admitted as prima-facie 89214
evidence of the information and statements that the report 89215
contains. The laboratory report shall contain all of the 89216
following:89217

       (a) The signature, under oath, of any person who performed 89218
the analysis;89219

       (b) Any findings as to the identity and quantity of alcohol, 89220
a drug of abuse, a controlled substance, a metabolite of a 89221
controlled substance, or a combination of them that was found;89222

       (c) A copy of a notarized statement by the laboratory 89223
director or a designee of the director that contains the name of 89224
each certified analyst or test performer involved with the report, 89225
the analyst's or test performer's employment relationship with the 89226
laboratory that issued the report, and a notation that performing 89227
an analysis of the type involved is part of the analyst's or test 89228
performer's regular duties;89229

       (d) An outline of the analyst's or test performer's 89230
education, training, and experience in performing the type of 89231
analysis involved and a certification that the laboratory 89232
satisfies appropriate quality control standards in general and, in 89233
this particular analysis, under rules of the department of health.89234

       (2) Notwithstanding any other provision of law regarding the 89235
admission of evidence, a report of the type described in division 89236
(E)(1) of this section is not admissible against the defendant to 89237
whom it pertains in any proceeding, other than a preliminary 89238
hearing or a grand jury proceeding, unless the prosecutor has 89239
served a copy of the report on the defendant's attorney or, if the 89240
defendant has no attorney, on the defendant.89241

       (3) A report of the type described in division (E)(1) of this 89242
section shall not be prima-facie evidence of the contents, 89243
identity, or amount of any substance if, within seven days after 89244
the defendant to whom the report pertains or the defendant's 89245
attorney receives a copy of the report, the defendant or the 89246
defendant's attorney demands the testimony of the person who 89247
signed the report. The judge in the case may extend the seven-day 89248
time limit in the interest of justice.89249

       (F) Except as otherwise provided in this division, any 89250
physician, registered nurse, emergency medical 89251
technician-intermediate, emergency medical technician-paramedic, 89252
or qualified technician, chemist, or phlebotomist who withdraws 89253
blood from a person pursuant to this section or section 4511.191 89254
or 4511.192 of the Revised Code, and any hospital, first-aid 89255
station, or clinic at which blood is withdrawn from a person 89256
pursuant to this section or section 4511.191 or 4511.192 of the 89257
Revised Code, is immune from criminal liability and civil 89258
liability based upon a claim of assault and battery or any other 89259
claim that is not a claim of malpractice, for any act performed in 89260
withdrawing blood from the person. The immunity provided in this 89261
division also extends to an emergency medical service organization 89262
that employs an emergency medical technician-intermediate or 89263
emergency medical technician-paramedic who withdraws blood under 89264
this section. The immunity provided in this division is not 89265
available to a person who withdraws blood if the person engages in 89266
willful or wanton misconduct.89267

       As used in this division, "emergency medical 89268
technician-intermediate" and "emergency medical 89269
technician-paramedic" have the same meanings as in section 4765.01 89270
of the Revised Code.89271

       (G)(1) Whoever violates any provision of divisions (A)(1)(a) 89272
to (i) or (A)(2) of this section is guilty of operating a vehicle 89273
under the influence of alcohol, a drug of abuse, or a combination 89274
of them. Whoever violates division (A)(1)(j) of this section is 89275
guilty of operating a vehicle while under the influence of a 89276
listed controlled substance or a listed metabolite of a controlled 89277
substance. The court shall sentence the offender for either 89278
offense under Chapter 2929. of the Revised Code, except as 89279
otherwise authorized or required by divisions (G)(1)(a) to (e) of 89280
this section:89281

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (G)(1)(b), (c), 89282
(d), or (e) of this section, the offender is guilty of a 89283
misdemeanor of the first degree, and the court shall sentence the 89284
offender to all of the following:89285

       (i) If the sentence is being imposed for a violation of 89286
division (A)(1)(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), or (j) of this section, a 89287
mandatory jail term of three consecutive days. As used in this 89288
division, three consecutive days means seventy-two consecutive 89289
hours. The court may sentence an offender to both an intervention 89290
program and a jail term. The court may impose a jail term in 89291
addition to the three-day mandatory jail term or intervention 89292
program. However, in no case shall the cumulative jail term 89293
imposed for the offense exceed six months.89294

       The court may suspend the execution of the three-day jail 89295
term under this division if the court, in lieu of that suspended 89296
term, places the offender under a community control sanction 89297
pursuant to section 2929.25 of the Revised Code and requires the 89298
offender to attend, for three consecutive days, a drivers' 89299
intervention program certified under section 3793.105119.38 of 89300
the Revised Code. The court also may suspend the execution of any 89301
part of the three-day jail term under this division if it places 89302
the offender under a community control sanction pursuant to 89303
section 2929.25 of the Revised Code for part of the three days, 89304
requires the offender to attend for the suspended part of the term 89305
a drivers' intervention program so certified, and sentences the 89306
offender to a jail term equal to the remainder of the three 89307
consecutive days that the offender does not spend attending the 89308
program. The court may require the offender, as a condition of 89309
community control and in addition to the required attendance at a 89310
drivers' intervention program, to attend and satisfactorily 89311
complete any treatment or education programs that comply with the 89312
minimum standards adopted pursuant to Chapter 3793.5119. of the 89313
Revised Code by the director of alcohol and drug addiction 89314
servicesmental health and addiction services that the operators 89315
of the drivers' intervention program determine that the offender 89316
should attend and to report periodically to the court on the 89317
offender's progress in the programs. The court also may impose on 89318
the offender any other conditions of community control that it 89319
considers necessary.89320

       (ii) If the sentence is being imposed for a violation of 89321
division (A)(1)(f), (g), (h), or (i) or division (A)(2) of this 89322
section, except as otherwise provided in this division, a 89323
mandatory jail term of at least three consecutive days and a 89324
requirement that the offender attend, for three consecutive days, 89325
a drivers' intervention program that is certified pursuant to 89326
section 3793.105119.38 of the Revised Code. As used in this 89327
division, three consecutive days means seventy-two consecutive 89328
hours. If the court determines that the offender is not conducive 89329
to treatment in a drivers' intervention program, if the offender 89330
refuses to attend a drivers' intervention program, or if the jail 89331
at which the offender is to serve the jail term imposed can 89332
provide a driver's intervention program, the court shall sentence 89333
the offender to a mandatory jail term of at least six consecutive 89334
days.89335

       The court may require the offender, under a community control 89336
sanction imposed under section 2929.25 of the Revised Code, to 89337
attend and satisfactorily complete any treatment or education 89338
programs that comply with the minimum standards adopted pursuant 89339
to Chapter 3793.5119. of the Revised Code by the director of 89340
alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 89341
services, in addition to the required attendance at drivers' 89342
intervention program, that the operators of the drivers' 89343
intervention program determine that the offender should attend and 89344
to report periodically to the court on the offender's progress in 89345
the programs. The court also may impose any other conditions of 89346
community control on the offender that it considers necessary.89347

       (iii) In all cases, a fine of not less than three hundred 89348
seventy-five and not more than one thousand seventy-five dollars;89349

       (iv) In all cases, a class five license suspension of the 89350
offender's driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or 89351
nonresident operating privilege from the range specified in 89352
division (A)(5) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code. The court 89353
may grant limited driving privileges relative to the suspension 89354
under sections 4510.021 and 4510.13 of the Revised Code.89355

       (b) Except as otherwise provided in division (G)(1)(e) of 89356
this section, an offender who, within six years of the offense, 89357
previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one 89358
violation of division (A) or (B) of this section or one other 89359
equivalent offense is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree. 89360
The court shall sentence the offender to all of the following:89361

       (i) If the sentence is being imposed for a violation of 89362
division (A)(1)(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), or (j) of this section, a 89363
mandatory jail term of ten consecutive days. The court shall 89364
impose the ten-day mandatory jail term under this division unless, 89365
subject to division (G)(3) of this section, it instead imposes a 89366
sentence under that division consisting of both a jail term and a 89367
term of house arrest with electronic monitoring, with continuous 89368
alcohol monitoring, or with both electronic monitoring and 89369
continuous alcohol monitoring. The court may impose a jail term in 89370
addition to the ten-day mandatory jail term. The cumulative jail 89371
term imposed for the offense shall not exceed six months.89372

       In addition to the jail term or the term of house arrest with 89373
electronic monitoring or continuous alcohol monitoring or both 89374
types of monitoring and jail term, the court shall require the 89375
offender to be assessed by an alcohol and drug treatment programa 89376
community addiction services provider that is authorized by 89377
section 3793.025119.21 of the Revised Code, subject to division 89378
(I) of this section, and shall order the offender to follow the 89379
treatment recommendations of the programservices provider. The 89380
purpose of the assessment is to determine the degree of the 89381
offender's alcohol usage and to determine whether or not treatment 89382
is warranted. Upon the request of the court, the programservices 89383
provider shall submit the results of the assessment to the court, 89384
including all treatment recommendations and clinical diagnoses 89385
related to alcohol use.89386

       (ii) If the sentence is being imposed for a violation of 89387
division (A)(1)(f), (g), (h), or (i) or division (A)(2) of this 89388
section, except as otherwise provided in this division, a 89389
mandatory jail term of twenty consecutive days. The court shall 89390
impose the twenty-day mandatory jail term under this division 89391
unless, subject to division (G)(3) of this section, it instead 89392
imposes a sentence under that division consisting of both a jail 89393
term and a term of house arrest with electronic monitoring, with 89394
continuous alcohol monitoring, or with both electronic monitoring 89395
and continuous alcohol monitoring. The court may impose a jail 89396
term in addition to the twenty-day mandatory jail term. The 89397
cumulative jail term imposed for the offense shall not exceed six 89398
months.89399

       In addition to the jail term or the term of house arrest with 89400
electronic monitoring or continuous alcohol monitoring or both 89401
types of monitoring and jail term, the court shall require the 89402
offender to be assessed by an alcohol and drug treatment programa 89403
community addiction service provider that is authorized by section 89404
3793.025119.21 of the Revised Code, subject to division (I) of 89405
this section, and shall order the offender to follow the treatment 89406
recommendations of the programservices provider. The purpose of 89407
the assessment is to determine the degree of the offender's 89408
alcohol usage and to determine whether or not treatment is 89409
warranted. Upon the request of the court, the programservices 89410
provider shall submit the results of the assessment to the court, 89411
including all treatment recommendations and clinical diagnoses 89412
related to alcohol use.89413

       (iii) In all cases, notwithstanding the fines set forth in 89414
Chapter 2929. of the Revised Code, a fine of not less than five 89415
hundred twenty-five and not more than one thousand six hundred 89416
twenty-five dollars;89417

       (iv) In all cases, a class four license suspension of the 89418
offender's driver's license, commercial driver's license, 89419
temporary instruction permit, probationary license, or nonresident 89420
operating privilege from the range specified in division (A)(4) of 89421
section 4510.02 of the Revised Code. The court may grant limited 89422
driving privileges relative to the suspension under sections 89423
4510.021 and 4510.13 of the Revised Code.89424

       (v) In all cases, if the vehicle is registered in the 89425
offender's name, immobilization of the vehicle involved in the 89426
offense for ninety days in accordance with section 4503.233 of the 89427
Revised Code and impoundment of the license plates of that vehicle 89428
for ninety days.89429

       (c) Except as otherwise provided in division (G)(1)(e) of 89430
this section, an offender who, within six years of the offense, 89431
previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to two 89432
violations of division (A) or (B) of this section or other 89433
equivalent offenses is guilty of a misdemeanor. The court shall 89434
sentence the offender to all of the following:89435

       (i) If the sentence is being imposed for a violation of 89436
division (A)(1)(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), or (j) of this section, a 89437
mandatory jail term of thirty consecutive days. The court shall 89438
impose the thirty-day mandatory jail term under this division 89439
unless, subject to division (G)(3) of this section, it instead 89440
imposes a sentence under that division consisting of both a jail 89441
term and a term of house arrest with electronic monitoring, with 89442
continuous alcohol monitoring, or with both electronic monitoring 89443
and continuous alcohol monitoring. The court may impose a jail 89444
term in addition to the thirty-day mandatory jail term. 89445
Notwithstanding the jail terms set forth in sections 2929.21 to 89446
2929.28 of the Revised Code, the additional jail term shall not 89447
exceed one year, and the cumulative jail term imposed for the 89448
offense shall not exceed one year.89449

       (ii) If the sentence is being imposed for a violation of 89450
division (A)(1)(f), (g), (h), or (i) or division (A)(2) of this 89451
section, a mandatory jail term of sixty consecutive days. The 89452
court shall impose the sixty-day mandatory jail term under this 89453
division unless, subject to division (G)(3) of this section, it 89454
instead imposes a sentence under that division consisting of both 89455
a jail term and a term of house arrest with electronic monitoring, 89456
with continuous alcohol monitoring, or with both electronic 89457
monitoring and continuous alcohol monitoring. The court may impose 89458
a jail term in addition to the sixty-day mandatory jail term. 89459
Notwithstanding the jail terms set forth in sections 2929.21 to 89460
2929.28 of the Revised Code, the additional jail term shall not 89461
exceed one year, and the cumulative jail term imposed for the 89462
offense shall not exceed one year.89463

       (iii) In all cases, notwithstanding the fines set forth in 89464
Chapter 2929. of the Revised Code, a fine of not less than eight 89465
hundred fifty and not more than two thousand seven hundred fifty 89466
dollars;89467

       (iv) In all cases, a class three license suspension of the 89468
offender's driver's license, commercial driver's license, 89469
temporary instruction permit, probationary license, or nonresident 89470
operating privilege from the range specified in division (A)(3) of 89471
section 4510.02 of the Revised Code. The court may grant limited 89472
driving privileges relative to the suspension under sections 89473
4510.021 and 4510.13 of the Revised Code.89474

       (v) In all cases, if the vehicle is registered in the 89475
offender's name, criminal forfeiture of the vehicle involved in 89476
the offense in accordance with section 4503.234 of the Revised 89477
Code. Division (G)(6) of this section applies regarding any 89478
vehicle that is subject to an order of criminal forfeiture under 89479
this division.89480

       (vi) In all cases, the court shall order the offender to 89481
participate in an alcohol and drugwith a community addiction 89482
programservices provider authorized by section 3793.025119.21 of 89483
the Revised Code, subject to division (I) of this section, and 89484
shall order the offender to follow the treatment recommendations 89485
of the programservices provider. The operator of the program89486
services provider shall determine and assess the degree of the 89487
offender's alcohol dependency and shall make recommendations for 89488
treatment. Upon the request of the court, the programservices 89489
provider shall submit the results of the assessment to the court, 89490
including all treatment recommendations and clinical diagnoses 89491
related to alcohol use.89492

       (d) Except as otherwise provided in division (G)(1)(e) of 89493
this section, an offender who, within six years of the offense, 89494
previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to three or 89495
four violations of division (A) or (B) of this section or other 89496
equivalent offenses or an offender who, within twenty years of the 89497
offense, previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to 89498
five or more violations of that nature is guilty of a felony of 89499
the fourth degree. The court shall sentence the offender to all of 89500
the following:89501

       (i) If the sentence is being imposed for a violation of 89502
division (A)(1)(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), or (j) of this section, a 89503
mandatory prison term of one, two, three, four, or five years as 89504
required by and in accordance with division (G)(2) of section 89505
2929.13 of the Revised Code if the offender also is convicted of 89506
or also pleads guilty to a specification of the type described in 89507
section 2941.1413 of the Revised Code or, in the discretion of the 89508
court, either a mandatory term of local incarceration of sixty 89509
consecutive days in accordance with division (G)(1) of section 89510
2929.13 of the Revised Code or a mandatory prison term of sixty 89511
consecutive days in accordance with division (G)(2) of that 89512
section if the offender is not convicted of and does not plead 89513
guilty to a specification of that type. If the court imposes a 89514
mandatory term of local incarceration, it may impose a jail term 89515
in addition to the sixty-day mandatory term, the cumulative total 89516
of the mandatory term and the jail term for the offense shall not 89517
exceed one year, and, except as provided in division (A)(1) of 89518
section 2929.13 of the Revised Code, no prison term is authorized 89519
for the offense. If the court imposes a mandatory prison term, 89520
notwithstanding division (A)(4) of section 2929.14 of the Revised 89521
Code, it also may sentence the offender to a definite prison term 89522
that shall be not less than six months and not more than thirty 89523
months and the prison terms shall be imposed as described in 89524
division (G)(2) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code. If the 89525
court imposes a mandatory prison term or mandatory prison term and 89526
additional prison term, in addition to the term or terms so 89527
imposed, the court also may sentence the offender to a community 89528
control sanction for the offense, but the offender shall serve all 89529
of the prison terms so imposed prior to serving the community 89530
control sanction.89531

       (ii) If the sentence is being imposed for a violation of 89532
division (A)(1)(f), (g), (h), or (i) or division (A)(2) of this 89533
section, a mandatory prison term of one, two, three, four, or five 89534
years as required by and in accordance with division (G)(2) of 89535
section 2929.13 of the Revised Code if the offender also is 89536
convicted of or also pleads guilty to a specification of the type 89537
described in section 2941.1413 of the Revised Code or, in the 89538
discretion of the court, either a mandatory term of local 89539
incarceration of one hundred twenty consecutive days in accordance 89540
with division (G)(1) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code or a 89541
mandatory prison term of one hundred twenty consecutive days in 89542
accordance with division (G)(2) of that section if the offender is 89543
not convicted of and does not plead guilty to a specification of 89544
that type. If the court imposes a mandatory term of local 89545
incarceration, it may impose a jail term in addition to the one 89546
hundred twenty-day mandatory term, the cumulative total of the 89547
mandatory term and the jail term for the offense shall not exceed 89548
one year, and, except as provided in division (A)(1) of section 89549
2929.13 of the Revised Code, no prison term is authorized for the 89550
offense. If the court imposes a mandatory prison term, 89551
notwithstanding division (A)(4) of section 2929.14 of the Revised 89552
Code, it also may sentence the offender to a definite prison term 89553
that shall be not less than six months and not more than thirty 89554
months and the prison terms shall be imposed as described in 89555
division (G)(2) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code. If the 89556
court imposes a mandatory prison term or mandatory prison term and 89557
additional prison term, in addition to the term or terms so 89558
imposed, the court also may sentence the offender to a community 89559
control sanction for the offense, but the offender shall serve all 89560
of the prison terms so imposed prior to serving the community 89561
control sanction.89562

       (iii) In all cases, notwithstanding section 2929.18 of the 89563
Revised Code, a fine of not less than one thousand three hundred 89564
fifty nor more than ten thousand five hundred dollars;89565

       (iv) In all cases, a class two license suspension of the 89566
offender's driver's license, commercial driver's license, 89567
temporary instruction permit, probationary license, or nonresident 89568
operating privilege from the range specified in division (A)(2) of 89569
section 4510.02 of the Revised Code. The court may grant limited 89570
driving privileges relative to the suspension under sections 89571
4510.021 and 4510.13 of the Revised Code.89572

       (v) In all cases, if the vehicle is registered in the 89573
offender's name, criminal forfeiture of the vehicle involved in 89574
the offense in accordance with section 4503.234 of the Revised 89575
Code. Division (G)(6) of this section applies regarding any 89576
vehicle that is subject to an order of criminal forfeiture under 89577
this division.89578

       (vi) In all cases, the court shall order the offender to 89579
participate in an alcohol and drugwith a community addiction 89580
programservices provider authorized by section 3793.025119.21 of 89581
the Revised Code, subject to division (I) of this section, and 89582
shall order the offender to follow the treatment recommendations 89583
of the programservices provider. The operator of the program89584
services provider shall determine and assess the degree of the 89585
offender's alcohol dependency and shall make recommendations for 89586
treatment. Upon the request of the court, the programservices 89587
provider shall submit the results of the assessment to the court, 89588
including all treatment recommendations and clinical diagnoses 89589
related to alcohol use.89590

       (vii) In all cases, if the court sentences the offender to a 89591
mandatory term of local incarceration, in addition to the 89592
mandatory term, the court, pursuant to section 2929.17 of the 89593
Revised Code, may impose a term of house arrest with electronic 89594
monitoring. The term shall not commence until after the offender 89595
has served the mandatory term of local incarceration.89596

       (e) An offender who previously has been convicted of or 89597
pleaded guilty to a violation of division (A) of this section that 89598
was a felony, regardless of when the violation and the conviction 89599
or guilty plea occurred, is guilty of a felony of the third 89600
degree. The court shall sentence the offender to all of the 89601
following:89602

       (i) If the offender is being sentenced for a violation of 89603
division (A)(1)(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), or (j) of this section, a 89604
mandatory prison term of one, two, three, four, or five years as 89605
required by and in accordance with division (G)(2) of section 89606
2929.13 of the Revised Code if the offender also is convicted of 89607
or also pleads guilty to a specification of the type described in 89608
section 2941.1413 of the Revised Code or a mandatory prison term 89609
of sixty consecutive days in accordance with division (G)(2) of 89610
section 2929.13 of the Revised Code if the offender is not 89611
convicted of and does not plead guilty to a specification of that 89612
type. The court may impose a prison term in addition to the 89613
mandatory prison term. The cumulative total of a sixty-day 89614
mandatory prison term and the additional prison term for the 89615
offense shall not exceed five years. In addition to the mandatory 89616
prison term or mandatory prison term and additional prison term 89617
the court imposes, the court also may sentence the offender to a 89618
community control sanction for the offense, but the offender shall 89619
serve all of the prison terms so imposed prior to serving the 89620
community control sanction.89621

       (ii) If the sentence is being imposed for a violation of 89622
division (A)(1)(f), (g), (h), or (i) or division (A)(2) of this 89623
section, a mandatory prison term of one, two, three, four, or five 89624
years as required by and in accordance with division (G)(2) of 89625
section 2929.13 of the Revised Code if the offender also is 89626
convicted of or also pleads guilty to a specification of the type 89627
described in section 2941.1413 of the Revised Code or a mandatory 89628
prison term of one hundred twenty consecutive days in accordance 89629
with division (G)(2) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code if the 89630
offender is not convicted of and does not plead guilty to a 89631
specification of that type. The court may impose a prison term in 89632
addition to the mandatory prison term. The cumulative total of a 89633
one hundred twenty-day mandatory prison term and the additional 89634
prison term for the offense shall not exceed five years. In 89635
addition to the mandatory prison term or mandatory prison term and 89636
additional prison term the court imposes, the court also may 89637
sentence the offender to a community control sanction for the 89638
offense, but the offender shall serve all of the prison terms so 89639
imposed prior to serving the community control sanction.89640

       (iii) In all cases, notwithstanding section 2929.18 of the 89641
Revised Code, a fine of not less than one thousand three hundred 89642
fifty nor more than ten thousand five hundred dollars;89643

       (iv) In all cases, a class two license suspension of the 89644
offender's driver's license, commercial driver's license, 89645
temporary instruction permit, probationary license, or nonresident 89646
operating privilege from the range specified in division (A)(2) of 89647
section 4510.02 of the Revised Code. The court may grant limited 89648
driving privileges relative to the suspension under sections 89649
4510.021 and 4510.13 of the Revised Code.89650

       (v) In all cases, if the vehicle is registered in the 89651
offender's name, criminal forfeiture of the vehicle involved in 89652
the offense in accordance with section 4503.234 of the Revised 89653
Code. Division (G)(6) of this section applies regarding any 89654
vehicle that is subject to an order of criminal forfeiture under 89655
this division.89656

       (vi) In all cases, the court shall order the offender to 89657
participate in an alcohol and drugwith a community addiction 89658
programservices provider authorized by section 3793.025119.21 of 89659
the Revised Code, subject to division (I) of this section, and 89660
shall order the offender to follow the treatment recommendations 89661
of the programservices provider. The operator of the program89662
services provider shall determine and assess the degree of the 89663
offender's alcohol dependency and shall make recommendations for 89664
treatment. Upon the request of the court, the programservices 89665
provider shall submit the results of the assessment to the court, 89666
including all treatment recommendations and clinical diagnoses 89667
related to alcohol use.89668

       (2) An offender who is convicted of or pleads guilty to a 89669
violation of division (A) of this section and who subsequently 89670
seeks reinstatement of the driver's or occupational driver's 89671
license or permit or nonresident operating privilege suspended 89672
under this section as a result of the conviction or guilty plea 89673
shall pay a reinstatement fee as provided in division (F)(2) of 89674
section 4511.191 of the Revised Code.89675

       (3) If an offender is sentenced to a jail term under division 89676
(G)(1)(b)(i) or (ii) or (G)(1)(c)(i) or (ii) of this section and 89677
if, within sixty days of sentencing of the offender, the court 89678
issues a written finding on the record that, due to the 89679
unavailability of space at the jail where the offender is required 89680
to serve the term, the offender will not be able to begin serving 89681
that term within the sixty-day period following the date of 89682
sentencing, the court may impose an alternative sentence under 89683
this division that includes a term of house arrest with electronic 89684
monitoring, with continuous alcohol monitoring, or with both 89685
electronic monitoring and continuous alcohol monitoring.89686

       As an alternative to a mandatory jail term of ten consecutive 89687
days required by division (G)(1)(b)(i) of this section, the court, 89688
under this division, may sentence the offender to five consecutive 89689
days in jail and not less than eighteen consecutive days of house 89690
arrest with electronic monitoring, with continuous alcohol 89691
monitoring, or with both electronic monitoring and continuous 89692
alcohol monitoring. The cumulative total of the five consecutive 89693
days in jail and the period of house arrest with electronic 89694
monitoring, continuous alcohol monitoring, or both types of 89695
monitoring shall not exceed six months. The five consecutive days 89696
in jail do not have to be served prior to or consecutively to the 89697
period of house arrest.89698

       As an alternative to the mandatory jail term of twenty 89699
consecutive days required by division (G)(1)(b)(ii) of this 89700
section, the court, under this division, may sentence the offender 89701
to ten consecutive days in jail and not less than thirty-six 89702
consecutive days of house arrest with electronic monitoring, with 89703
continuous alcohol monitoring, or with both electronic monitoring 89704
and continuous alcohol monitoring. The cumulative total of the ten 89705
consecutive days in jail and the period of house arrest with 89706
electronic monitoring, continuous alcohol monitoring, or both 89707
types of monitoring shall not exceed six months. The ten 89708
consecutive days in jail do not have to be served prior to or 89709
consecutively to the period of house arrest.89710

       As an alternative to a mandatory jail term of thirty 89711
consecutive days required by division (G)(1)(c)(i) of this 89712
section, the court, under this division, may sentence the offender 89713
to fifteen consecutive days in jail and not less than fifty-five 89714
consecutive days of house arrest with electronic monitoring, with 89715
continuous alcohol monitoring, or with both electronic monitoring 89716
and continuous alcohol monitoring. The cumulative total of the 89717
fifteen consecutive days in jail and the period of house arrest 89718
with electronic monitoring, continuous alcohol monitoring, or both 89719
types of monitoring shall not exceed one year. The fifteen 89720
consecutive days in jail do not have to be served prior to or 89721
consecutively to the period of house arrest.89722

       As an alternative to the mandatory jail term of sixty 89723
consecutive days required by division (G)(1)(c)(ii) of this 89724
section, the court, under this division, may sentence the offender 89725
to thirty consecutive days in jail and not less than one hundred 89726
ten consecutive days of house arrest with electronic monitoring, 89727
with continuous alcohol monitoring, or with both electronic 89728
monitoring and continuous alcohol monitoring. The cumulative total 89729
of the thirty consecutive days in jail and the period of house 89730
arrest with electronic monitoring, continuous alcohol monitoring, 89731
or both types of monitoring shall not exceed one year. The thirty 89732
consecutive days in jail do not have to be served prior to or 89733
consecutively to the period of house arrest.89734

       (4) If an offender's driver's or occupational driver's 89735
license or permit or nonresident operating privilege is suspended 89736
under division (G) of this section and if section 4510.13 of the 89737
Revised Code permits the court to grant limited driving 89738
privileges, the court may grant the limited driving privileges in 89739
accordance with that section. If division (A)(7) of that section 89740
requires that the court impose as a condition of the privileges 89741
that the offender must display on the vehicle that is driven 89742
subject to the privileges restricted license plates that are 89743
issued under section 4503.231 of the Revised Code, except as 89744
provided in division (B) of that section, the court shall impose 89745
that condition as one of the conditions of the limited driving 89746
privileges granted to the offender, except as provided in division 89747
(B) of section 4503.231 of the Revised Code.89748

       (5) Fines imposed under this section for a violation of 89749
division (A) of this section shall be distributed as follows:89750

       (a) Twenty-five dollars of the fine imposed under division 89751
(G)(1)(a)(iii), thirty-five dollars of the fine imposed under 89752
division (G)(1)(b)(iii), one hundred twenty-three dollars of the 89753
fine imposed under division (G)(1)(c)(iii), and two hundred ten 89754
dollars of the fine imposed under division (G)(1)(d)(iii) or 89755
(e)(iii) of this section shall be paid to an enforcement and 89756
education fund established by the legislative authority of the law 89757
enforcement agency in this state that primarily was responsible 89758
for the arrest of the offender, as determined by the court that 89759
imposes the fine. The agency shall use this share to pay only 89760
those costs it incurs in enforcing this section or a municipal OVI 89761
ordinance and in informing the public of the laws governing the 89762
operation of a vehicle while under the influence of alcohol, the 89763
dangers of the operation of a vehicle under the influence of 89764
alcohol, and other information relating to the operation of a 89765
vehicle under the influence of alcohol and the consumption of 89766
alcoholic beverages.89767

       (b) Fifty dollars of the fine imposed under division 89768
(G)(1)(a)(iii) of this section shall be paid to the political 89769
subdivision that pays the cost of housing the offender during the 89770
offender's term of incarceration. If the offender is being 89771
sentenced for a violation of division (A)(1)(a), (b), (c), (d), 89772
(e), or (j) of this section and was confined as a result of the 89773
offense prior to being sentenced for the offense but is not 89774
sentenced to a term of incarceration, the fifty dollars shall be 89775
paid to the political subdivision that paid the cost of housing 89776
the offender during that period of confinement. The political 89777
subdivision shall use the share under this division to pay or 89778
reimburse incarceration or treatment costs it incurs in housing or 89779
providing drug and alcohol treatment to persons who violate this 89780
section or a municipal OVI ordinance, costs of any immobilizing or 89781
disabling device used on the offender's vehicle, and costs of 89782
electronic house arrest equipment needed for persons who violate 89783
this section.89784

       (c) Twenty-five dollars of the fine imposed under division 89785
(G)(1)(a)(iii) and fifty dollars of the fine imposed under 89786
division (G)(1)(b)(iii) of this section shall be deposited into 89787
the county or municipal indigent drivers' alcohol treatment fund 89788
under the control of that court, as created by the county or 89789
municipal corporation under division (F) of section 4511.191 of 89790
the Revised Code.89791

       (d) One hundred fifteen dollars of the fine imposed under 89792
division (G)(1)(b)(iii), two hundred seventy-seven dollars of the 89793
fine imposed under division (G)(1)(c)(iii), and four hundred forty 89794
dollars of the fine imposed under division (G)(1)(d)(iii) or 89795
(e)(iii) of this section shall be paid to the political 89796
subdivision that pays the cost of housing the offender during the 89797
offender's term of incarceration. The political subdivision shall 89798
use this share to pay or reimburse incarceration or treatment 89799
costs it incurs in housing or providing drug and alcohol treatment 89800
to persons who violate this section or a municipal OVI ordinance, 89801
costs for any immobilizing or disabling device used on the 89802
offender's vehicle, and costs of electronic house arrest equipment 89803
needed for persons who violate this section.89804

       (e) Fifty dollars of the fine imposed under divisions 89805
(G)(1)(a)(iii), (G)(1)(b)(iii), (G)(1)(c)(iii), (G)(1)(d)(iii), 89806
and (G)(1)(e)(iii) of this section shall be deposited into the 89807
special projects fund of the court in which the offender was 89808
convicted and that is established under division (E)(1) of section 89809
2303.201, division (B)(1) of section 1901.26, or division (B)(1) 89810
of section 1907.24 of the Revised Code, to be used exclusively to 89811
cover the cost of immobilizing or disabling devices, including 89812
certified ignition interlock devices, and remote alcohol 89813
monitoring devices for indigent offenders who are required by a 89814
judge to use either of these devices. If the court in which the 89815
offender was convicted does not have a special projects fund that 89816
is established under division (E)(1) of section 2303.201, division 89817
(B)(1) of section 1901.26, or division (B)(1) of section 1907.24 89818
of the Revised Code, the fifty dollars shall be deposited into the 89819
indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund under 89820
division (I) of section 4511.191 of the Revised Code.89821

       (f) Seventy-five dollars of the fine imposed under division 89822
(G)(1)(a)(iii), one hundred twenty-five dollars of the fine 89823
imposed under division (G)(1)(b)(iii), two hundred fifty dollars 89824
of the fine imposed under division (G)(1)(c)(iii), and five 89825
hundred dollars of the fine imposed under division (G)(1)(d)(iii) 89826
or (e)(iii) of this section shall be transmitted to the treasurer 89827
of state for deposit into the indigent defense support fund 89828
established under section 120.08 of the Revised Code.89829

       (g) The balance of the fine imposed under division 89830
(G)(1)(a)(iii), (b)(iii), (c)(iii), (d)(iii), or (e)(iii) of this 89831
section shall be disbursed as otherwise provided by law.89832

       (6) If title to a motor vehicle that is subject to an order 89833
of criminal forfeiture under division (G)(1)(c), (d), or (e) of 89834
this section is assigned or transferred and division (B)(2) or (3) 89835
of section 4503.234 of the Revised Code applies, in addition to or 89836
independent of any other penalty established by law, the court may 89837
fine the offender the value of the vehicle as determined by 89838
publications of the national automobile dealers association. The 89839
proceeds of any fine so imposed shall be distributed in accordance 89840
with division (C)(2) of that section.89841

       (7) In all cases in which an offender is sentenced under 89842
division (G) of this section, the offender shall provide the court 89843
with proof of financial responsibility as defined in section 89844
4509.01 of the Revised Code. If the offender fails to provide that 89845
proof of financial responsibility, the court, in addition to any 89846
other penalties provided by law, may order restitution pursuant to 89847
section 2929.18 or 2929.28 of the Revised Code in an amount not 89848
exceeding five thousand dollars for any economic loss arising from 89849
an accident or collision that was the direct and proximate result 89850
of the offender's operation of the vehicle before, during, or 89851
after committing the offense for which the offender is sentenced 89852
under division (G) of this section.89853

       (8) As used in division (G) of this section, "electronic 89854
monitoring," "mandatory prison term," and "mandatory term of local 89855
incarceration" have the same meanings as in section 2929.01 of the 89856
Revised Code.89857

       (H) Whoever violates division (B) of this section is guilty 89858
of operating a vehicle after underage alcohol consumption and 89859
shall be punished as follows:89860

       (1) Except as otherwise provided in division (H)(2) of this 89861
section, the offender is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth 89862
degree. In addition to any other sanction imposed for the offense, 89863
the court shall impose a class six suspension of the offender's 89864
driver's license, commercial driver's license, temporary 89865
instruction permit, probationary license, or nonresident operating 89866
privilege from the range specified in division (A)(6) of section 89867
4510.02 of the Revised Code.89868

       (2) If, within one year of the offense, the offender 89869
previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one or more 89870
violations of division (A) or (B) of this section or other 89871
equivalent offenses, the offender is guilty of a misdemeanor of 89872
the third degree. In addition to any other sanction imposed for 89873
the offense, the court shall impose a class four suspension of the 89874
offender's driver's license, commercial driver's license, 89875
temporary instruction permit, probationary license, or nonresident 89876
operating privilege from the range specified in division (A)(4) of 89877
section 4510.02 of the Revised Code.89878

       (3) If the offender also is convicted of or also pleads 89879
guilty to a specification of the type described in section 89880
2941.1416 of the Revised Code and if the court imposes a jail term 89881
for the violation of division (B) of this section, the court shall 89882
impose upon the offender an additional definite jail term pursuant 89883
to division (E) of section 2929.24 of the Revised Code.89884

       (4) The offender shall provide the court with proof of 89885
financial responsibility as defined in section 4509.01 of the 89886
Revised Code. If the offender fails to provide that proof of 89887
financial responsibility, then, in addition to any other penalties 89888
provided by law, the court may order restitution pursuant to 89889
section 2929.28 of the Revised Code in an amount not exceeding 89890
five thousand dollars for any economic loss arising from an 89891
accident or collision that was the direct and proximate result of 89892
the offender's operation of the vehicle before, during, or after 89893
committing the violation of division (B) of this section.89894

       (I)(1) No court shall sentence an offender to an alcohol 89895
treatment program under this section unless the treatment program 89896
complies with the minimum standards for alcohol treatment programs 89897
adopted under Chapter 3793.5119. of the Revised Code by the 89898
director of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and 89899
addiction services.89900

       (2) An offender who stays in a drivers' intervention program 89901
or in an alcohol treatment program under an order issued under 89902
this section shall pay the cost of the stay in the program. 89903
However, if the court determines that an offender who stays in an 89904
alcohol treatment program under an order issued under this section 89905
is unable to pay the cost of the stay in the program, the court 89906
may order that the cost be paid from the court's indigent drivers' 89907
alcohol treatment fund.89908

       (J) If a person whose driver's or commercial driver's license 89909
or permit or nonresident operating privilege is suspended under 89910
this section files an appeal regarding any aspect of the person's 89911
trial or sentence, the appeal itself does not stay the operation 89912
of the suspension.89913

       (K) Division (A)(1)(j) of this section does not apply to a 89914
person who operates a vehicle, streetcar, or trackless trolley 89915
while the person has a concentration of a listed controlled 89916
substance or a listed metabolite of a controlled substance in the 89917
person's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, or urine that equals 89918
or exceeds the amount specified in that division, if both of the 89919
following apply:89920

       (1) The person obtained the controlled substance pursuant to 89921
a prescription issued by a licensed health professional authorized 89922
to prescribe drugs.89923

       (2) The person injected, ingested, or inhaled the controlled 89924
substance in accordance with the health professional's directions.89925

       (L) The prohibited concentrations of a controlled substance 89926
or a metabolite of a controlled substance listed in division 89927
(A)(1)(j) of this section also apply in a prosecution of a 89928
violation of division (D) of section 2923.16 of the Revised Code 89929
in the same manner as if the offender is being prosecuted for a 89930
prohibited concentration of alcohol.89931

       (M) All terms defined in section 4510.01 of the Revised Code 89932
apply to this section. If the meaning of a term defined in section 89933
4510.01 of the Revised Code conflicts with the meaning of the same 89934
term as defined in section 4501.01 or 4511.01 of the Revised Code, 89935
the term as defined in section 4510.01 of the Revised Code applies 89936
to this section.89937

       (N)(1) The Ohio Traffic Rules in effect on January 1, 2004, 89938
as adopted by the supreme court under authority of section 2937.46 89939
of the Revised Code, do not apply to felony violations of this 89940
section. Subject to division (N)(2) of this section, the Rules of 89941
Criminal Procedure apply to felony violations of this section.89942

       (2) If, on or after January 1, 2004, the supreme court 89943
modifies the Ohio Traffic Rules to provide procedures to govern 89944
felony violations of this section, the modified rules shall apply 89945
to felony violations of this section.89946

       Sec. 4511.191.  (A)(1) As used in this section:89947

        (a) "Physical control" has the same meaning as in section 89948
4511.194 of the Revised Code.89949

       (b) "Alcohol monitoring device" means any device that 89950
provides for continuous alcohol monitoring, any ignition interlock 89951
device, any immobilizing or disabling device other than an 89952
ignition interlock device that is constantly available to monitor 89953
the concentration of alcohol in a person's system, or any other 89954
device that provides for the automatic testing and periodic 89955
reporting of alcohol consumption by a person and that a court 89956
orders a person to use as a sanction imposed as a result of the 89957
person's conviction of or plea of guilty to an offense.89958

       (2) Any person who operates a vehicle, streetcar, or 89959
trackless trolley upon a highway or any public or private property 89960
used by the public for vehicular travel or parking within this 89961
state or who is in physical control of a vehicle, streetcar, or 89962
trackless trolley shall be deemed to have given consent to a 89963
chemical test or tests of the person's whole blood, blood serum or 89964
plasma, breath, or urine to determine the alcohol, drug of abuse, 89965
controlled substance, metabolite of a controlled substance, or 89966
combination content of the person's whole blood, blood serum or 89967
plasma, breath, or urine if arrested for a violation of division 89968
(A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, section 89969
4511.194 of the Revised Code or a substantially equivalent 89970
municipal ordinance, or a municipal OVI ordinance.89971

       (3) The chemical test or tests under division (A)(2) of this 89972
section shall be administered at the request of a law enforcement 89973
officer having reasonable grounds to believe the person was 89974
operating or in physical control of a vehicle, streetcar, or 89975
trackless trolley in violation of a division, section, or 89976
ordinance identified in division (A)(2) of this section. The law 89977
enforcement agency by which the officer is employed shall 89978
designate which of the tests shall be administered.89979

       (4) Any person who is dead or unconscious, or who otherwise 89980
is in a condition rendering the person incapable of refusal, shall 89981
be deemed to have consented as provided in division (A)(2) of this 89982
section, and the test or tests may be administered, subject to 89983
sections 313.12 to 313.16 of the Revised Code.89984

       (5)(a) If a law enforcement officer arrests a person for a 89985
violation of division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised 89986
Code, section 4511.194 of the Revised Code or a substantially 89987
equivalent municipal ordinance, or a municipal OVI ordinance and 89988
if the person if convicted would be required to be sentenced under 89989
division (G)(1)(c), (d), or (e) of section 4511.19 of the Revised 89990
Code, the law enforcement officer shall request the person to 89991
submit, and the person shall submit, to a chemical test or tests 89992
of the person's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, or 89993
urine for the purpose of determining the alcohol, drug of abuse, 89994
controlled substance, metabolite of a controlled substance, or 89995
combination content of the person's whole blood, blood serum or 89996
plasma, breath, or urine. A law enforcement officer who makes a 89997
request pursuant to this division that a person submit to a 89998
chemical test or tests is not required to advise the person of the 89999
consequences of submitting to, or refusing to submit to, the test 90000
or tests and is not required to give the person the form described 90001
in division (B) of section 4511.192 of the Revised Code, but the 90002
officer shall advise the person at the time of the arrest that if 90003
the person refuses to take a chemical test the officer may employ 90004
whatever reasonable means are necessary to ensure that the person 90005
submits to a chemical test of the person's whole blood or blood 90006
serum or plasma. The officer shall also advise the person at the 90007
time of the arrest that the person may have an independent 90008
chemical test taken at the person's own expense. Divisions (A)(3) 90009
and (4) of this section apply to the administration of a chemical 90010
test or tests pursuant to this division.90011

       (b) If a person refuses to submit to a chemical test upon a 90012
request made pursuant to division (A)(5)(a) of this section, the 90013
law enforcement officer who made the request may employ whatever 90014
reasonable means are necessary to ensure that the person submits 90015
to a chemical test of the person's whole blood or blood serum or 90016
plasma. A law enforcement officer who acts pursuant to this 90017
division to ensure that a person submits to a chemical test of the 90018
person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma is immune from 90019
criminal and civil liability based upon a claim for assault and 90020
battery or any other claim for the acts, unless the officer so 90021
acted with malicious purpose, in bad faith, or in a wanton or 90022
reckless manner.90023

       (B)(1) Upon receipt of the sworn report of a law enforcement 90024
officer who arrested a person for a violation of division (A) or 90025
(B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, section 4511.194 of 90026
the Revised Code or a substantially equivalent municipal 90027
ordinance, or a municipal OVI ordinance that was completed and 90028
sent to the registrar of motor vehicles and a court pursuant to 90029
section 4511.192 of the Revised Code in regard to a person who 90030
refused to take the designated chemical test, the registrar shall 90031
enter into the registrar's records the fact that the person's 90032
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or nonresident 90033
operating privilege was suspended by the arresting officer under 90034
this division and that section and the period of the suspension, 90035
as determined under this section. The suspension shall be subject 90036
to appeal as provided in section 4511.197 of the Revised Code. The 90037
suspension shall be for whichever of the following periods 90038
applies:90039

       (a) Except when division (B)(1)(b), (c), or (d) of this 90040
section applies and specifies a different class or length of 90041
suspension, the suspension shall be a class C suspension for the 90042
period of time specified in division (B)(3) of section 4510.02 of 90043
the Revised Code.90044

       (b) If the arrested person, within six years of the date on 90045
which the person refused the request to consent to the chemical 90046
test, had refused one previous request to consent to a chemical 90047
test or had been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one violation 90048
of division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or 90049
one other equivalent offense, the suspension shall be a class B 90050
suspension imposed for the period of time specified in division 90051
(B)(2) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code.90052

       (c) If the arrested person, within six years of the date on 90053
which the person refused the request to consent to the chemical 90054
test, had refused two previous requests to consent to a chemical 90055
test, had been convicted of or pleaded guilty to two violations of 90056
division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or 90057
other equivalent offenses, or had refused one previous request to 90058
consent to a chemical test and also had been convicted of or 90059
pleaded guilty to one violation of division (A) or (B) of section 90060
4511.19 of the Revised Code or other equivalent offenses, which 90061
violation or offense arose from an incident other than the 90062
incident that led to the refusal, the suspension shall be a class 90063
A suspension imposed for the period of time specified in division 90064
(B)(1) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code.90065

       (d) If the arrested person, within six years of the date on 90066
which the person refused the request to consent to the chemical 90067
test, had refused three or more previous requests to consent to a 90068
chemical test, had been convicted of or pleaded guilty to three or 90069
more violations of division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the 90070
Revised Code or other equivalent offenses, or had refused a number 90071
of previous requests to consent to a chemical test and also had 90072
been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a number of violations of 90073
division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or 90074
other equivalent offenses that cumulatively total three or more 90075
such refusals, convictions, and guilty pleas, the suspension shall 90076
be for five years.90077

       (2) The registrar shall terminate a suspension of the 90078
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit of a resident or 90079
of the operating privilege of a nonresident, or a denial of a 90080
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit, imposed 90081
pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section upon receipt of notice 90082
that the person has entered a plea of guilty to, or that the 90083
person has been convicted after entering a plea of no contest to, 90084
operating a vehicle in violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised 90085
Code or in violation of a municipal OVI ordinance, if the offense 90086
for which the conviction is had or the plea is entered arose from 90087
the same incident that led to the suspension or denial.90088

       The registrar shall credit against any judicial suspension of 90089
a person's driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or 90090
nonresident operating privilege imposed pursuant to section 90091
4511.19 of the Revised Code, or pursuant to section 4510.07 of the 90092
Revised Code for a violation of a municipal OVI ordinance, any 90093
time during which the person serves a related suspension imposed 90094
pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section.90095

       (C)(1) Upon receipt of the sworn report of the law 90096
enforcement officer who arrested a person for a violation of 90097
division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or a 90098
municipal OVI ordinance that was completed and sent to the 90099
registrar and a court pursuant to section 4511.192 of the Revised 90100
Code in regard to a person whose test results indicate that the 90101
person's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, or urine 90102
contained at least the concentration of alcohol specified in 90103
division (A)(1)(b), (c), (d), or (e) of section 4511.19 of the 90104
Revised Code or at least the concentration of a listed controlled 90105
substance or a listed metabolite of a controlled substance 90106
specified in division (A)(1)(j) of section 4511.19 of the Revised 90107
Code, the registrar shall enter into the registrar's records the 90108
fact that the person's driver's or commercial driver's license or 90109
permit or nonresident operating privilege was suspended by the 90110
arresting officer under this division and section 4511.192 of the 90111
Revised Code and the period of the suspension, as determined under 90112
divisions (C)(1)(a) to (d) of this section. The suspension shall 90113
be subject to appeal as provided in section 4511.197 of the 90114
Revised Code. The suspension described in this division does not 90115
apply to, and shall not be imposed upon, a person arrested for a 90116
violation of section 4511.194 of the Revised Code or a 90117
substantially equivalent municipal ordinance who submits to a 90118
designated chemical test. The suspension shall be for whichever of 90119
the following periods applies:90120

       (a) Except when division (C)(1)(b), (c), or (d) of this 90121
section applies and specifies a different period, the suspension 90122
shall be a class E suspension imposed for the period of time 90123
specified in division (B)(5) of section 4510.02 of the Revised 90124
Code.90125

       (b) The suspension shall be a class C suspension for the 90126
period of time specified in division (B)(3) of section 4510.02 of 90127
the Revised Code if the person has been convicted of or pleaded 90128
guilty to, within six years of the date the test was conducted, 90129
one violation of division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the 90130
Revised Code or one other equivalent offense.90131

       (c) If, within six years of the date the test was conducted, 90132
the person has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to two 90133
violations of a statute or ordinance described in division 90134
(C)(1)(b) of this section, the suspension shall be a class B 90135
suspension imposed for the period of time specified in division 90136
(B)(2) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code.90137

       (d) If, within six years of the date the test was conducted, 90138
the person has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to more than 90139
two violations of a statute or ordinance described in division 90140
(C)(1)(b) of this section, the suspension shall be a class A 90141
suspension imposed for the period of time specified in division 90142
(B)(1) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code.90143

       (2) The registrar shall terminate a suspension of the 90144
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit of a resident or 90145
of the operating privilege of a nonresident, or a denial of a 90146
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit, imposed 90147
pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section upon receipt of notice 90148
that the person has entered a plea of guilty to, or that the 90149
person has been convicted after entering a plea of no contest to, 90150
operating a vehicle in violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised 90151
Code or in violation of a municipal OVI ordinance, if the offense 90152
for which the conviction is had or the plea is entered arose from 90153
the same incident that led to the suspension or denial.90154

       The registrar shall credit against any judicial suspension of 90155
a person's driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or 90156
nonresident operating privilege imposed pursuant to section 90157
4511.19 of the Revised Code, or pursuant to section 4510.07 of the 90158
Revised Code for a violation of a municipal OVI ordinance, any 90159
time during which the person serves a related suspension imposed 90160
pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section.90161

       (D)(1) A suspension of a person's driver's or commercial 90162
driver's license or permit or nonresident operating privilege 90163
under this section for the time described in division (B) or (C) 90164
of this section is effective immediately from the time at which 90165
the arresting officer serves the notice of suspension upon the 90166
arrested person. Any subsequent finding that the person is not 90167
guilty of the charge that resulted in the person being requested 90168
to take the chemical test or tests under division (A) of this 90169
section does not affect the suspension.90170

       (2) If a person is arrested for operating a vehicle, 90171
streetcar, or trackless trolley in violation of division (A) or 90172
(B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or a municipal OVI 90173
ordinance, or for being in physical control of a vehicle, 90174
streetcar, or trackless trolley in violation of section 4511.194 90175
of the Revised Code or a substantially equivalent municipal 90176
ordinance, regardless of whether the person's driver's or 90177
commercial driver's license or permit or nonresident operating 90178
privilege is or is not suspended under division (B) or (C) of this 90179
section or Chapter 4510. of the Revised Code, the person's initial 90180
appearance on the charge resulting from the arrest shall be held 90181
within five days of the person's arrest or the issuance of the 90182
citation to the person, subject to any continuance granted by the 90183
court pursuant to section 4511.197 of the Revised Code regarding 90184
the issues specified in that division.90185

       (E) When it finally has been determined under the procedures 90186
of this section and sections 4511.192 to 4511.197 of the Revised 90187
Code that a nonresident's privilege to operate a vehicle within 90188
this state has been suspended, the registrar shall give 90189
information in writing of the action taken to the motor vehicle 90190
administrator of the state of the person's residence and of any 90191
state in which the person has a license.90192

       (F) At the end of a suspension period under this section, 90193
under section 4511.194, section 4511.196, or division (G) of 90194
section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, or under section 4510.07 of 90195
the Revised Code for a violation of a municipal OVI ordinance and 90196
upon the request of the person whose driver's or commercial 90197
driver's license or permit was suspended and who is not otherwise 90198
subject to suspension, cancellation, or disqualification, the 90199
registrar shall return the driver's or commercial driver's license 90200
or permit to the person upon the occurrence of all of the 90201
conditions specified in divisions (F)(1) and (2) of this section:90202

       (1) A showing that the person has proof of financial 90203
responsibility, a policy of liability insurance in effect that 90204
meets the minimum standards set forth in section 4509.51 of the 90205
Revised Code, or proof, to the satisfaction of the registrar, that 90206
the person is able to respond in damages in an amount at least 90207
equal to the minimum amounts specified in section 4509.51 of the 90208
Revised Code.90209

       (2) Subject to the limitation contained in division (F)(3) of 90210
this section, payment by the person to the registrar or an 90211
eligible deputy registrar of a license reinstatement fee of four 90212
hundred seventy-five dollars, which fee shall be deposited in the 90213
state treasury and credited as follows:90214

       (a) One hundred twelve dollars and fifty cents shall be 90215
credited to the statewide treatment and prevention fund created by 90216
section 4301.30 of the Revised Code. Money credited to the fund 90217
under this section shall be used for purposes identified in the 90218
comprehensive statewide alcohol and drug addiction services plan 90219
developed under section 3793.045119.22 of the Revised Code. 90220

       (b) Seventy-five dollars shall be credited to the reparations 90221
fund created by section 2743.191 of the Revised Code.90222

       (c) Thirty-seven dollars and fifty cents shall be credited to 90223
the indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, which is hereby 90224
established in the state treasury. Except as otherwise provided in 90225
division (F)(2)(c) of this section, moneys in the fund shall be 90226
distributed by the department of alcohol and drug addiction 90227
servicesmental health and addiction services to the county 90228
indigent drivers alcohol treatment funds, the county juvenile 90229
indigent drivers alcohol treatment funds, and the municipal 90230
indigent drivers alcohol treatment funds that are required to be 90231
established by counties and municipal corporations pursuant to 90232
division (H) of this section, and shall be used only to pay the 90233
cost of an alcohol and drug addiction treatment program attended 90234
by an offender or juvenile traffic offender who is ordered to 90235
attend an alcohol and drug addiction treatment program by a 90236
county, juvenile, or municipal court judge and who is determined 90237
by the county, juvenile, or municipal court judge not to have the 90238
means to pay for the person's attendance at the program or to pay 90239
the costs specified in division (H)(4) of this section in 90240
accordance with that division. In addition, a county, juvenile, or 90241
municipal court judge may use moneys in the county indigent 90242
drivers alcohol treatment fund, county juvenile indigent drivers 90243
alcohol treatment fund, or municipal indigent drivers alcohol 90244
treatment fund to pay for the cost of the continued use of an 90245
alcohol monitoring device as described in divisions (H)(3) and (4) 90246
of this section. Moneys in the fund that are not distributed to a 90247
county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, a county juvenile 90248
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, or a municipal indigent 90249
drivers alcohol treatment fund under division (H) of this section 90250
because the director of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental 90251
health and addiction services does not have the information 90252
necessary to identify the county or municipal corporation where 90253
the offender or juvenile offender was arrested may be transferred 90254
by the director of budget and management to the statewide 90255
treatment and prevention fund created by section 4301.30 of the 90256
Revised Code, upon certification of the amount by the director of 90257
alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 90258
services.90259

       (d) Seventy-five dollars shall be credited to the Ohio 90260
rehabilitation services commissionopportunities for Ohioans with 90261
disabilities agency established by section 3304.123304.15 of the 90262
Revised Code, to the services for rehabilitation fund, which is 90263
hereby established. The fund shall be used to match available 90264
federal matching funds where appropriate, and for any other 90265
purpose or program of the commissionagency to rehabilitate people90266
persons with disabilities to help them become employed and 90267
independent.90268

       (e) Seventy-five dollars shall be deposited into the state 90269
treasury and credited to the drug abuse resistance education 90270
programs fund, which is hereby established, to be used by the 90271
attorney general for the purposes specified in division (F)(4) of 90272
this section.90273

       (f) Thirty dollars shall be credited to the state bureau of 90274
motor vehicles fund created by section 4501.25 of the Revised 90275
Code.90276

       (g) Twenty dollars shall be credited to the trauma and 90277
emergency medical services fund created by section 4513.263 of the 90278
Revised Code.90279

       (h) Fifty dollars shall be credited to the indigent drivers 90280
interlock and alcohol monitoring fund, which is hereby established 90281
in the state treasury. Moneys in the fund shall be distributed by 90282
the department of public safety to the county indigent drivers 90283
interlock and alcohol monitoring funds, the county juvenile 90284
indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring funds, and the 90285
municipal indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring funds 90286
that are required to be established by counties and municipal 90287
corporations pursuant to this section, and shall be used only to 90288
pay the cost of an immobilizing or disabling device, including a 90289
certified ignition interlock device, or an alcohol monitoring 90290
device used by an offender or juvenile offender who is ordered to 90291
use the device by a county, juvenile, or municipal court judge and 90292
who is determined by the county, juvenile, or municipal court 90293
judge not to have the means to pay for the person's use of the 90294
device.90295

       (3) If a person's driver's or commercial driver's license or 90296
permit is suspended under this section, under section 4511.196 or 90297
division (G) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, under section 90298
4510.07 of the Revised Code for a violation of a municipal OVI 90299
ordinance or under any combination of the suspensions described in 90300
division (F)(3) of this section, and if the suspensions arise from 90301
a single incident or a single set of facts and circumstances, the 90302
person is liable for payment of, and shall be required to pay to 90303
the registrar or an eligible deputy registrar, only one 90304
reinstatement fee of four hundred seventy-five dollars. The 90305
reinstatement fee shall be distributed by the bureau in accordance 90306
with division (F)(2) of this section.90307

       (4) The attorney general shall use amounts in the drug abuse 90308
resistance education programs fund to award grants to law 90309
enforcement agencies to establish and implement drug abuse 90310
resistance education programs in public schools. Grants awarded to 90311
a law enforcement agency under this section shall be used by the 90312
agency to pay for not more than fifty per cent of the amount of 90313
the salaries of law enforcement officers who conduct drug abuse 90314
resistance education programs in public schools. The attorney 90315
general shall not use more than six per cent of the amounts the 90316
attorney general's office receives under division (F)(2)(e) of 90317
this section to pay the costs it incurs in administering the grant 90318
program established by division (F)(2)(e) of this section and in 90319
providing training and materials relating to drug abuse resistance 90320
education programs.90321

       The attorney general shall report to the governor and the 90322
general assembly each fiscal year on the progress made in 90323
establishing and implementing drug abuse resistance education 90324
programs. These reports shall include an evaluation of the 90325
effectiveness of these programs.90326

       (5) In addition to the reinstatement fee under this section, 90327
if the person pays the reinstatement fee to a deputy registrar, 90328
the deputy registrar shall collect a service fee of ten dollars to 90329
compensate the deputy registrar for services performed under this 90330
section. The deputy registrar shall retain eight dollars of the 90331
service fee and shall transmit the reinstatement fee, plus two 90332
dollars of the service fee, to the registrar in the manner the 90333
registrar shall determine.90334

       (G) Suspension of a commercial driver's license under 90335
division (B) or (C) of this section shall be concurrent with any 90336
period of disqualification under section 3123.611 or 4506.16 of 90337
the Revised Code or any period of suspension under section 3123.58 90338
of the Revised Code. No person who is disqualified for life from 90339
holding a commercial driver's license under section 4506.16 of the 90340
Revised Code shall be issued a driver's license under Chapter 90341
4507. of the Revised Code during the period for which the 90342
commercial driver's license was suspended under division (B) or 90343
(C) of this section. No person whose commercial driver's license 90344
is suspended under division (B) or (C) of this section shall be 90345
issued a driver's license under Chapter 4507. of the Revised Code 90346
during the period of the suspension.90347

       (H)(1) Each county shall establish an indigent drivers 90348
alcohol treatment fund, each county shall establish a juvenile 90349
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, and each municipal 90350
corporation in which there is a municipal court shall establish an 90351
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund. All revenue that the 90352
general assembly appropriates to the indigent drivers alcohol 90353
treatment fund for transfer to a county indigent drivers alcohol 90354
treatment fund, a county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol 90355
treatment fund, or a municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment 90356
fund, all portions of fees that are paid under division (F) of 90357
this section and that are credited under that division to the 90358
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund in the state treasury for 90359
a county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, a county 90360
juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, or a municipal 90361
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, all portions of 90362
additional costs imposed under section 2949.094 of the Revised 90363
Code that are specified for deposit into a county, county 90364
juvenile, or municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund by 90365
that section, and all portions of fines that are specified for 90366
deposit into a county or municipal indigent drivers alcohol 90367
treatment fund by section 4511.193 of the Revised Code shall be 90368
deposited into that county indigent drivers alcohol treatment 90369
fund, county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, or 90370
municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund. The portions of 90371
the fees paid under division (F) of this section that are to be so 90372
deposited shall be determined in accordance with division (H)(2) 90373
of this section. Additionally, all portions of fines that are paid 90374
for a violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or of any 90375
prohibition contained in Chapter 4510. of the Revised Code, and 90376
that are required under section 4511.19 or any provision of 90377
Chapter 4510. of the Revised Code to be deposited into a county 90378
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund or municipal indigent 90379
drivers alcohol treatment fund shall be deposited into the 90380
appropriate fund in accordance with the applicable division of the 90381
section or provision.90382

       (2) That portion of the license reinstatement fee that is 90383
paid under division (F) of this section and that is credited under 90384
that division to the indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund shall 90385
be deposited into a county indigent drivers alcohol treatment 90386
fund, a county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, 90387
or a municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund as follows:90388

       (a) Regarding a suspension imposed under this section, that 90389
portion of the fee shall be deposited as follows:90390

       (i) If the fee is paid by a person who was charged in a 90391
county court with the violation that resulted in the suspension or 90392
in the imposition of the court costs, the portion shall be 90393
deposited into the county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund 90394
under the control of that court;90395

       (ii) If the fee is paid by a person who was charged in a 90396
juvenile court with the violation that resulted in the suspension 90397
or in the imposition of the court costs, the portion shall be 90398
deposited into the county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol 90399
treatment fund established in the county served by the court;90400

       (iii) If the fee is paid by a person who was charged in a 90401
municipal court with the violation that resulted in the suspension 90402
or in the imposition of the court costs, the portion shall be 90403
deposited into the municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment 90404
fund under the control of that court.90405

       (b) Regarding a suspension imposed under section 4511.19 of 90406
the Revised Code or under section 4510.07 of the Revised Code for 90407
a violation of a municipal OVI ordinance, that portion of the fee 90408
shall be deposited as follows:90409

       (i) If the fee is paid by a person whose license or permit 90410
was suspended by a county court, the portion shall be deposited 90411
into the county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund under the 90412
control of that court;90413

       (ii) If the fee is paid by a person whose license or permit 90414
was suspended by a municipal court, the portion shall be deposited 90415
into the municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund under 90416
the control of that court.90417

       (3) Expenditures from a county indigent drivers alcohol 90418
treatment fund, a county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol 90419
treatment fund, or a municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment 90420
fund shall be made only upon the order of a county, juvenile, or 90421
municipal court judge and only for payment of the cost of an 90422
assessment or the cost of the attendance at an alcohol and drug 90423
addiction treatment program of a person who is convicted of, or 90424
found to be a juvenile traffic offender by reason of, a violation 90425
of division (A) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or a 90426
substantially similar municipal ordinance, who is ordered by the 90427
court to attend the alcohol and drug addiction treatment program, 90428
and who is determined by the court to be unable to pay the cost of 90429
the assessment or the cost of attendance at the treatment program 90430
or for payment of the costs specified in division (H)(4) of this 90431
section in accordance with that division. The alcohol and drug 90432
addiction services board or the board of alcohol, drug addiction, 90433
and mental health services established pursuant to section 340.02 90434
or 340.021 of the Revised Code and serving the alcohol, drug 90435
addiction, and mental health service district in which the court 90436
is located shall administer the indigent drivers alcohol treatment 90437
program of the court. When a court orders an offender or juvenile 90438
traffic offender to obtain an assessment or attend an alcohol and 90439
drug addiction treatment program, the board shall determine which 90440
program is suitable to meet the needs of the offender or juvenile 90441
traffic offender, and when a suitable program is located and space 90442
is available at the program, the offender or juvenile traffic 90443
offender shall attend the program designated by the board. A 90444
reasonable amount not to exceed five per cent of the amounts 90445
credited to and deposited into the county indigent drivers alcohol 90446
treatment fund, the county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol 90447
treatment fund, or the municipal indigent drivers alcohol 90448
treatment fund serving every court whose program is administered 90449
by that board shall be paid to the board to cover the costs it 90450
incurs in administering those indigent drivers alcohol treatment 90451
programs.90452

       In addition, upon exhaustion of moneys in the indigent 90453
drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund for the use of an 90454
alcohol monitoring device, a county, juvenile, or municipal court 90455
judge may use moneys in the county indigent drivers alcohol 90456
treatment fund, county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment 90457
fund, or municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund in the 90458
following manners:90459

       (a) If the source of the moneys was an appropriation of the 90460
general assembly, a portion of a fee that was paid under division 90461
(F) of this section, a portion of a fine that was specified for 90462
deposit into the fund by section 4511.193 of the Revised Code, or 90463
a portion of a fine that was paid for a violation of section 90464
4511.19 of the Revised Code or of a provision contained in Chapter 90465
4510. of the Revised Code that was required to be deposited into 90466
the fund, to pay for the continued use of an alcohol monitoring 90467
device by an offender or juvenile traffic offender, in conjunction 90468
with a treatment program approved by the department of alcohol and 90469
drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction services, when 90470
such use is determined clinically necessary by the treatment 90471
program and when the court determines that the offender or 90472
juvenile traffic offender is unable to pay all or part of the 90473
daily monitoring or cost of the device;90474

       (b) If the source of the moneys was a portion of an 90475
additional court cost imposed under section 2949.094 of the 90476
Revised Code, to pay for the continued use of an alcohol 90477
monitoring device by an offender or juvenile traffic offender when 90478
the court determines that the offender or juvenile traffic 90479
offender is unable to pay all or part of the daily monitoring or 90480
cost of the device. The moneys may be used for a device as 90481
described in this division if the use of the device is in 90482
conjunction with a treatment program approved by the department of 90483
alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 90484
services, when the use of the device is determined clinically 90485
necessary by the treatment program, but the use of a device is not 90486
required to be in conjunction with a treatment program approved by 90487
the department in order for the moneys to be used for the device 90488
as described in this division.90489

       (4) If a county, juvenile, or municipal court determines, in 90490
consultation with the alcohol and drug addiction services board or 90491
the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 90492
established pursuant to section 340.02 or 340.021 of the Revised 90493
Code and serving the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 90494
district in which the court is located, that the funds in the 90495
county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, the county 90496
juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, or the municipal 90497
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund under the control of the 90498
court are more than sufficient to satisfy the purpose for which 90499
the fund was established, as specified in divisions (H)(1) to (3) 90500
of this section, the court may declare a surplus in the fund. If 90501
the court declares a surplus in the fund, the court may expend the 90502
amount of the surplus in the fund for:90503

       (a) Alcohol and drug abuse assessment and treatment of 90504
persons who are charged in the court with committing a criminal 90505
offense or with being a delinquent child or juvenile traffic 90506
offender and in relation to whom both of the following apply:90507

       (i) The court determines that substance abuse was a 90508
contributing factor leading to the criminal or delinquent activity 90509
or the juvenile traffic offense with which the person is charged.90510

       (ii) The court determines that the person is unable to pay 90511
the cost of the alcohol and drug abuse assessment and treatment 90512
for which the surplus money will be used.90513

       (b) All or part of the cost of purchasing alcohol monitoring 90514
devices to be used in conjunction with division (H)(3) of this 90515
section, upon exhaustion of moneys in the indigent drivers 90516
interlock and alcohol monitoring fund for the use of an alcohol 90517
monitoring device.90518

       (5) For the purpose of determining as described in division 90519
(F)(2)(c) of this section whether an offender does not have the 90520
means to pay for the offender's attendance at an alcohol and drug 90521
addiction treatment program or whether an alleged offender or 90522
delinquent child is unable to pay the costs specified in division 90523
(H)(4) of this section, the court shall use the indigent client 90524
eligibility guidelines and the standards of indigency established 90525
by the state public defender to make the determination.90526

       (6) The court shall identify and refer any alcohol and drug90527
community addiction programservices provider that is not 90528
certified under section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code and 90529
that is interested in receiving amounts from the surplus in the 90530
fund declared under division (H)(4) of this section to the 90531
department of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health 90532
and addiction services in order for the programservices provider90533
to become a certified alcohol and drugcommunity addiction 90534
programservices provider. The department shall keep a record of 90535
applicant referrals received pursuant to this division and shall 90536
submit a report on the referrals each year to the general 90537
assembly. If a programservices provider interested in becoming 90538
certified makes an application to become certified pursuant to 90539
section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code, the programservices 90540
provider is eligible to receive surplus funds as long as the 90541
application is pending with the department. The department of 90542
alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 90543
services must offer technical assistance to the applicant. If the 90544
interested programservices provider withdraws the certification 90545
application, the department must notify the court, and the court 90546
shall not provide the interested programservices provider with 90547
any further surplus funds.90548

       (7)(a) Each alcohol and drug addiction services board and 90549
board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 90550
established pursuant to section 340.02 or 340.021 of the Revised 90551
Code shall submit to the department of alcohol and drug addiction 90552
servicesmental health and addiction services an annual report for 90553
each indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund in that board's area. 90554

       (b) The report, which shall be submitted not later than sixty 90555
days after the end of the state fiscal year, shall provide the 90556
total payment that was made from the fund, including the number of 90557
indigent consumers that received treatment services and the number 90558
of indigent consumers that received an alcohol monitoring device. 90559
The report shall identify the treatment program and expenditure 90560
for an alcohol monitoring device for which that payment was made. 90561
The report shall include the fiscal year balance of each indigent 90562
drivers alcohol treatment fund located in that board's area. In 90563
the event that a surplus is declared in the fund pursuant to 90564
division (H)(4) of this section, the report also shall provide the 90565
total payment that was made from the surplus moneys and identify 90566
the treatment program and expenditure for an alcohol monitoring 90567
device for which that payment was made. The department may require 90568
additional information necessary to complete the comprehensive 90569
statewide alcohol and drug addiction services plan as required by 90570
section 3793.04 of the Revised Code.90571

       (c) If a board is unable to obtain adequate information to 90572
develop the report to submit to the department for a particular 90573
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, the board shall submit a 90574
report detailing the effort made in obtaining the information.90575

       (I)(1) Each county shall establish an indigent drivers 90576
interlock and alcohol monitoring fund and a juvenile indigent 90577
drivers interlock and alcohol treatment fund, and each municipal 90578
corporation in which there is a municipal court shall establish an 90579
indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund. All 90580
revenue that the general assembly appropriates to the indigent 90581
drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund for transfer to a 90582
county indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund, a 90583
county juvenile indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring 90584
fund, or a municipal indigent drivers interlock and alcohol 90585
monitoring fund, all portions of license reinstatement fees that 90586
are paid under division (F)(2) of this section and that are 90587
credited under that division to the indigent drivers interlock and 90588
alcohol monitoring fund in the state treasury, and all portions of 90589
fines that are paid under division (G) of section 4511.19 of the 90590
Revised Code and that are credited by division (G)(5)(e) of that 90591
section to the indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring 90592
fund in the state treasury shall be deposited in the appropriate 90593
fund in accordance with division (I)(2) of this section.90594

       (2) That portion of the license reinstatement fee that is 90595
paid under division (F) of this section and that portion of the 90596
fine paid under division (G) of section 4511.19 of the Revised 90597
Code and that is credited under either division to the indigent 90598
drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund shall be deposited 90599
into a county indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring 90600
fund, a county juvenile indigent drivers interlock and alcohol 90601
monitoring fund, or a municipal indigent drivers interlock and 90602
alcohol monitoring fund as follows:90603

       (a) If the fee or fine is paid by a person who was charged in 90604
a county court with the violation that resulted in the suspension 90605
or fine, the portion shall be deposited into the county indigent 90606
drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund under the control of 90607
that court.90608

       (b) If the fee or fine is paid by a person who was charged in 90609
a juvenile court with the violation that resulted in the 90610
suspension or fine, the portion shall be deposited into the county 90611
juvenile indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund 90612
established in the county served by the court.90613

       (c) If the fee or fine is paid by a person who was charged in 90614
a municipal court with the violation that resulted in the 90615
suspension, the portion shall be deposited into the municipal 90616
indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund under the 90617
control of that court.90618

       Sec. 4511.21.  (A) No person shall operate a motor vehicle, 90619
trackless trolley, or streetcar at a speed greater or less than is 90620
reasonable or proper, having due regard to the traffic, surface, 90621
and width of the street or highway and any other conditions, and 90622
no person shall drive any motor vehicle, trackless trolley, or 90623
streetcar in and upon any street or highway at a greater speed 90624
than will permit the person to bring it to a stop within the 90625
assured clear distance ahead.90626

       (B) It is prima-facie lawful, in the absence of a lower limit 90627
declared or established pursuant to this section by the director 90628
of transportation or local authorities, for the operator of a 90629
motor vehicle, trackless trolley, or streetcar to operate the same 90630
at a speed not exceeding the following:90631

       (1)(a) Twenty miles per hour in school zones during school 90632
recess and while children are going to or leaving school during 90633
the opening or closing hours, and when twenty miles per hour 90634
school speed limit signs are erected; except that, on 90635
controlled-access highways and expressways, if the right-of-way 90636
line fence has been erected without pedestrian opening, the speed 90637
shall be governed by division (B)(4) of this section and on 90638
freeways, if the right-of-way line fence has been erected without 90639
pedestrian opening, the speed shall be governed by divisions 90640
(B)(9) and (10) of this section. The end of every school zone may 90641
be marked by a sign indicating the end of the zone. Nothing in 90642
this section or in the manual and specifications for a uniform 90643
system of traffic control devices shall be construed to require 90644
school zones to be indicated by signs equipped with flashing or 90645
other lights, or giving other special notice of the hours in which 90646
the school zone speed limit is in effect.90647

       (b) As used in this section and in section 4511.212 of the 90648
Revised Code, "school" means any school chartered under section 90649
3301.16 of the Revised Code and any nonchartered school that 90650
during the preceding year filed with the department of education 90651
in compliance with rule 3301-35-08 of the Ohio Administrative 90652
Code, a copy of the school's report for the parents of the 90653
school's pupils certifying that the school meets Ohio minimum 90654
standards for nonchartered, nontax-supported schools and presents 90655
evidence of this filing to the jurisdiction from which it is 90656
requesting the establishment of a school zone. "School" also 90657
includes a special elementary school that in writing requests the 90658
county engineer of the county in which the special elementary 90659
school is located to create a school zone at the location of that 90660
school. Upon receipt of such a written request, the county 90661
engineer shall create a school zone at that location by erecting 90662
the appropriate signs.90663

       (c) As used in this section, "school zone" means that portion 90664
of a street or highway passing a school fronting upon the street 90665
or highway that is encompassed by projecting the school property 90666
lines to the fronting street or highway, and also includes that 90667
portion of a state highway. Upon request from local authorities 90668
for streets and highways under their jurisdiction and that portion 90669
of a state highway under the jurisdiction of the director of 90670
transportation or a request from a county engineer in the case of 90671
a school zone for a special elementary school, the director may 90672
extend the traditional school zone boundaries. The distances in 90673
divisions (B)(1)(c)(i), (ii), and (iii) of this section shall not 90674
exceed three hundred feet per approach per direction and are 90675
bounded by whichever of the following distances or combinations 90676
thereof the director approves as most appropriate:90677

       (i) The distance encompassed by projecting the school 90678
building lines normal to the fronting highway and extending a 90679
distance of three hundred feet on each approach direction;90680

       (ii) The distance encompassed by projecting the school 90681
property lines intersecting the fronting highway and extending a 90682
distance of three hundred feet on each approach direction;90683

       (iii) The distance encompassed by the special marking of the 90684
pavement for a principal school pupil crosswalk plus a distance of 90685
three hundred feet on each approach direction of the highway.90686

       Nothing in this section shall be construed to invalidate the 90687
director's initial action on August 9, 1976, establishing all 90688
school zones at the traditional school zone boundaries defined by 90689
projecting school property lines, except when those boundaries are 90690
extended as provided in divisions (B)(1)(a) and (c) of this 90691
section.90692

       (d) As used in this division, "crosswalk" has the meaning 90693
given that term in division (LL)(2) of section 4511.01 of the 90694
Revised Code.90695

       The director may, upon request by resolution of the 90696
legislative authority of a municipal corporation, the board of 90697
trustees of a township, or a county board of developmental 90698
disabilities created pursuant to Chapter 5126. of the Revised 90699
Code, and upon submission by the municipal corporation, township, 90700
or county board of such engineering, traffic, and other 90701
information as the director considers necessary, designate a 90702
school zone on any portion of a state route lying within the 90703
municipal corporation, lying within the unincorporated territory 90704
of the township, or lying adjacent to the property of a school 90705
that is operated by such county board, that includes a crosswalk 90706
customarily used by children going to or leaving a school during 90707
recess and opening and closing hours, whenever the distance, as 90708
measured in a straight line, from the school property line nearest 90709
the crosswalk to the nearest point of the crosswalk is no more 90710
than one thousand three hundred twenty feet. Such a school zone 90711
shall include the distance encompassed by the crosswalk and 90712
extending three hundred feet on each approach direction of the 90713
state route.90714

       (e) As used in this section, "special elementary school" 90715
means a school that meets all of the following criteria:90716

       (i) It is not chartered and does not receive tax revenue from 90717
any source.90718

       (ii) It does not educate children beyond the eighth grade.90719

       (iii) It is located outside the limits of a municipal 90720
corporation.90721

       (iv) A majority of the total number of students enrolled at 90722
the school are not related by blood.90723

       (v) The principal or other person in charge of the special 90724
elementary school annually sends a report to the superintendent of 90725
the school district in which the special elementary school is 90726
located indicating the total number of students enrolled at the 90727
school, but otherwise the principal or other person in charge does 90728
not report any other information or data to the superintendent.90729

       (2) Twenty-five miles per hour in all other portions of a 90730
municipal corporation, except on state routes outside business 90731
districts, through highways outside business districts, and 90732
alleys;90733

       (3) Thirty-five miles per hour on all state routes or through 90734
highways within municipal corporations outside business districts, 90735
except as provided in divisions (B)(4) and (6) of this section;90736

       (4) Fifty miles per hour on controlled-access highways and 90737
expressways within municipal corporations;90738

       (5) Fifty-five miles per hour on highways outside municipal 90739
corporations, other than highways within island jurisdictions as 90740
provided in division (B)(8) of this section, highways as provided 90741
in division (B)(9) of this section, and freeways as provided in 90742
divisions (B)(12), (13), (14), (16), and (17) of this section;90743

       (6) Fifty miles per hour on state routes within municipal 90744
corporations outside urban districts unless a lower prima-facie 90745
speed is established as further provided in this section;90746

       (7) Fifteen miles per hour on all alleys within the municipal 90747
corporation;90748

       (8) Thirty-five miles per hour on highways outside municipal 90749
corporations that are within an island jurisdiction;90750

       (9) Sixty miles per hour on two-lane state routes outside 90751
municipal corporations as established by the director under 90752
division (H)(2) of this section.90753

        (10) Fifty-five miles per hour at all times on freeways with 90754
paved shoulders inside municipal corporations, other than freeways 90755
as provided in divisions (B)(12), (13), (14), (16), and (17) of 90756
this section;90757

       (11) Fifty-five miles per hour at all times on freeways 90758
outside municipal corporations, other than freeways as provided in 90759
divisions (B)(12), (13), (14), (16), and (17) of this section;90760

       (12) Fifty-fiveSixty miles per hour at all times on all 90761
portions of freeways that are not part of the interstate system, 90762
but are built to the standards and specifications that are 90763
applicable to freeways that are part of the interstate system and 90764
that had a speed limit of fifty-five miles per hour immediately 90765
prior to the effective date of this amendment, for operators of 90766
any motor vehicle weighing in excess of eight thousand pounds 90767
empty weight and any noncommercial bus;90768

       (13) Fifty-fiveSixty miles per hour for operators of any 90769
motor vehicle weighing eight thousand pounds or less empty weight 90770
and any commercial bus at all times on all portions of freeways 90771
that are not part of the interstate system, but are built to the 90772
standards and specifications that are applicable to freeways that 90773
are part of the interstate system and that had such a speed limit 90774
establishedof fifty-five miles per hour immediately prior to 90775
October 1, 1995, unless a higher speed limit is established under 90776
division (L)the effective date of this sectionamendment;90777

       (14) Sixty-fiveSeventy miles per hour for operators of any 90778
motor vehicle weighing eight thousand pounds or less empty weight 90779
and any commercial bus at all times on all portions of both of the 90780
following:90781

       (a) Freeways that are not part of the interstate system, but 90782
are built to the standards and specifications that are applicable 90783
to freeways that are part of the interstate system and that had 90784
such a speed limit establishedof sixty-five miles per hour 90785
immediately prior to October 1, 1995the effective date of this 90786
amendment;90787

       (b) Freeways that are not part of the interstate system but 90788
are built to the standards and specifications that are applicable 90789
to freeways that are part of the interstate system, and that had 90790
such a speed limit established under division (L) of this section;90791

       (c) Rural, divided, multi-lane highways that are designated 90792
as part of the national highway system under the "National Highway 90793
System Designation Act of 1995," 109 Stat. 568, 23 U.S.C.A. 103, 90794
and that had such a speed limit established under division (M)of 90795
sixty-five miles per hour immediately prior to the effective date90796
of this sectionamendment.90797

        (15) Fifty-five miles per hour for operators of any motor 90798
vehicle at all times on all portions of freeways in congested 90799
areas as determined by the director and that are part of the 90800
interstate system and are located within a municipal corporation 90801
or within an interstate freeway outerbelt;90802

       (16) Sixty-five miles per hour for operators of any motor 90803
vehicle at all times on all portions of freeways in urban areas as 90804
determined by the director and that are part of the interstate 90805
system and are part of an interstate freeway outerbelt;90806

       (17) Seventy miles per hour at all times on all portions of 90807
freeways that are part of the interstate system and are outside 90808
urbanized areas, as designated in accordance with 23 U.S.C. 101, 90809
for operators of all motor vehicles.90810

       (C) It is prima-facie unlawful for any person to exceed any 90811
of the speed limitations in divisions (B)(1)(a), (2), (3), (4), 90812
(6), (7), and (8) of this section, or any declared or established 90813
pursuant to this section by the director or local authorities and 90814
it is unlawful for any person to exceed any of the speed 90815
limitations in division (D) of this section. No person shall be 90816
convicted of more than one violation of this section for the same 90817
conduct, although violations of more than one provision of this 90818
section may be charged in the alternative in a single affidavit.90819

       (D) No person shall operate a motor vehicle, trackless 90820
trolley, or streetcar upon a street or highway as follows:90821

       (1) At a speed exceeding fifty-five miles per hour, except 90822
upon a two-lane state route as provided in division (B)(9) of this 90823
section and upon a freeway as provided in divisions (B)(12), (13), 90824
(14), (16), and (17) of this section;90825

       (2) At a speed exceeding sixty miles per hour upon a two-lane 90826
state route as provided in division (B)(9) of this section.and 90827
upon a freeway as provided in divisions (B)(12) and (13) of this 90828
section;90829

        (3) At a speed exceeding sixty-five miles per hour upon a 90830
freeway as provided in division (B)(16) of this section, except 90831
upon a freeway as provided in divisiondivisions (B)(14) and (17) 90832
of this section;90833

       (4) At a speed exceeding seventy miles per hour upon a 90834
freeway as provided in divisiondivisions (B)(14) and (17) of this 90835
section;90836

       (5) If a motor vehicle weighing in excess of eight thousand 90837
pounds empty weight or a noncommercial bus as prescribed in 90838
division (B)(11)(12) of this section, at a speed exceeding 90839
fifty-fivesixty miles per hour, except upon a freeway as provided 90840
in divisions (B)(14), (16), and (17) of this section;90841

       (6) At a speed exceeding the posted speed limit upon a 90842
freeway for which the director has determined and declared a speed 90843
limit of not more than sixty-five miles per hour pursuant to 90844
division (L)(2) or (M) of this section;90845

       (7) At a speed exceeding sixty-five miles per hour upon a 90846
freeway for which such a speed limit has been established through 90847
the operation of division (L)(3) of this section;90848

       (8) At a speed exceeding the posted speed limit upon a 90849
freeway for which the director has determined and declared a speed 90850
limit pursuant to division (I)(2) of this section.90851

       (E) In every charge of violation of this section the 90852
affidavit and warrant shall specify the time, place, and speed at 90853
which the defendant is alleged to have driven, and in charges made 90854
in reliance upon division (C) of this section also the speed which 90855
division (B)(1)(a), (2), (3), (4), (6), (7), or (8) of, or a limit 90856
declared or established pursuant to, this section declares is 90857
prima-facie lawful at the time and place of such alleged 90858
violation, except that in affidavits where a person is alleged to 90859
have driven at a greater speed than will permit the person to 90860
bring the vehicle to a stop within the assured clear distance 90861
ahead the affidavit and warrant need not specify the speed at 90862
which the defendant is alleged to have driven.90863

       (F) When a speed in excess of both a prima-facie limitation 90864
and a limitation in division (D) of this section is alleged, the 90865
defendant shall be charged in a single affidavit, alleging a 90866
single act, with a violation indicated of both division (B)(1)(a), 90867
(2), (3), (4), (6), (7), or (8) of this section, or of a limit 90868
declared or established pursuant to this section by the director 90869
or local authorities, and of the limitation in division (D) of 90870
this section. If the court finds a violation of division 90871
(B)(1)(a), (2), (3), (4), (6), (7), or (8) of, or a limit declared 90872
or established pursuant to, this section has occurred, it shall 90873
enter a judgment of conviction under such division and dismiss the 90874
charge under division (D) of this section. If it finds no 90875
violation of division (B)(1)(a), (2), (3), (4), (6), (7), or (8) 90876
of, or a limit declared or established pursuant to, this section, 90877
it shall then consider whether the evidence supports a conviction 90878
under division (D) of this section.90879

       (G) Points shall be assessed for violation of a limitation 90880
under division (D) of this section in accordance with section 90881
4510.036 of the Revised Code.90882

       (H)(1) Whenever the director determines upon the basis of a 90883
geometric and traffic characteristic study that any speed limit 90884
set forth in divisions (B)(1)(a) to (D) of this section is greater 90885
or less than is reasonable or safe under the conditions found to 90886
exist at any portion of a street or highway under the jurisdiction 90887
of the director, the director shall determine and declare a 90888
reasonable and safe prima-facie speed limit, which shall be 90889
effective when appropriate signs giving notice of it are erected 90890
at the location.90891

       (2) Whenever the director determines upon the basis of a 90892
geometric and traffic characteristic study that the speed limit of 90893
fifty-five miles per hour on a two-lane state route outside a 90894
municipal corporation is less than is reasonable or safe under the 90895
conditions found to exist at that portion of the state route, the 90896
director may determine and declare a speed limit of sixty miles 90897
per hour for that portion of the state route, which shall be 90898
effective when appropriate signs giving notice of it are erected 90899
at the location.90900

       (I)(1) Except as provided in divisions (I)(2) and (K) of this 90901
section, whenever local authorities determine upon the basis of an 90902
engineering and traffic investigation that the speed permitted by 90903
divisions (B)(1)(a) to (D) of this section, on any part of a 90904
highway under their jurisdiction, is greater than is reasonable 90905
and safe under the conditions found to exist at such location, the 90906
local authorities may by resolution request the director to 90907
determine and declare a reasonable and safe prima-facie speed 90908
limit. Upon receipt of such request the director may determine and 90909
declare a reasonable and safe prima-facie speed limit at such 90910
location, and if the director does so, then such declared speed 90911
limit shall become effective only when appropriate signs giving 90912
notice thereof are erected at such location by the local 90913
authorities. The director may withdraw the declaration of a 90914
prima-facie speed limit whenever in the director's opinion the 90915
altered prima-facie speed becomes unreasonable. Upon such 90916
withdrawal, the declared prima-facie speed shall become 90917
ineffective and the signs relating thereto shall be immediately 90918
removed by the local authorities.90919

       (2) A local authority may determine on the basis of a 90920
geometric and traffic characteristic study that the speed limit of 90921
sixty-five miles per hour on a portion of a freeway under its 90922
jurisdiction that was established through the operation of 90923
division (L)(3) of this section is greater than is reasonable or 90924
safe under the conditions found to exist at that portion of the 90925
freeway. If the local authority makes such a determination, the 90926
local authority by resolution may request the director to 90927
determine and declare a reasonable and safe speed limit of not 90928
less than fifty-five miles per hour for that portion of the 90929
freeway. If the director takes such action, the declared speed 90930
limit becomes effective only when appropriate signs giving notice 90931
of it are erected at such location by the local authority.90932

       (J) Local authorities in their respective jurisdictions may 90933
authorize by ordinance higher prima-facie speeds than those stated 90934
in this section upon through highways, or upon highways or 90935
portions thereof where there are no intersections, or between 90936
widely spaced intersections, provided signs are erected giving 90937
notice of the authorized speed, but local authorities shall not 90938
modify or alter the basic rule set forth in division (A) of this 90939
section or in any event authorize by ordinance a speed in excess 90940
of fifty miles per hour.90941

       Alteration of prima-facie limits on state routes by local 90942
authorities shall not be effective until the alteration has been 90943
approved by the director. The director may withdraw approval of 90944
any altered prima-facie speed limits whenever in the director's 90945
opinion any altered prima-facie speed becomes unreasonable, and 90946
upon such withdrawal, the altered prima-facie speed shall become 90947
ineffective and the signs relating thereto shall be immediately 90948
removed by the local authorities.90949

       (K)(1) As used in divisions (K)(1), (2), (3), and (4) of this 90950
section, "unimproved highway" means a highway consisting of any of 90951
the following:90952

       (a) Unimproved earth;90953

       (b) Unimproved graded and drained earth;90954

       (c) Gravel.90955

       (2) Except as otherwise provided in divisions (K)(4) and (5) 90956
of this section, whenever a board of township trustees determines 90957
upon the basis of an engineering and traffic investigation that 90958
the speed permitted by division (B)(5) of this section on any part 90959
of an unimproved highway under its jurisdiction and in the 90960
unincorporated territory of the township is greater than is 90961
reasonable or safe under the conditions found to exist at the 90962
location, the board may by resolution declare a reasonable and 90963
safe prima-facie speed limit of fifty-five but not less than 90964
twenty-five miles per hour. An altered speed limit adopted by a 90965
board of township trustees under this division becomes effective 90966
when appropriate traffic control devices, as prescribed in section 90967
4511.11 of the Revised Code, giving notice thereof are erected at 90968
the location, which shall be no sooner than sixty days after 90969
adoption of the resolution.90970

       (3)(a) Whenever, in the opinion of a board of township 90971
trustees, any altered prima-facie speed limit established by the 90972
board under this division becomes unreasonable, the board may 90973
adopt a resolution withdrawing the altered prima-facie speed 90974
limit. Upon the adoption of such a resolution, the altered 90975
prima-facie speed limit becomes ineffective and the traffic 90976
control devices relating thereto shall be immediately removed.90977

       (b) Whenever a highway ceases to be an unimproved highway and 90978
the board has adopted an altered prima-facie speed limit pursuant 90979
to division (K)(2) of this section, the board shall, by 90980
resolution, withdraw the altered prima-facie speed limit as soon 90981
as the highway ceases to be unimproved. Upon the adoption of such 90982
a resolution, the altered prima-facie speed limit becomes 90983
ineffective and the traffic control devices relating thereto shall 90984
be immediately removed.90985

       (4)(a) If the boundary of two townships rests on the 90986
centerline of an unimproved highway in unincorporated territory 90987
and both townships have jurisdiction over the highway, neither of 90988
the boards of township trustees of such townships may declare an 90989
altered prima-facie speed limit pursuant to division (K)(2) of 90990
this section on the part of the highway under their joint 90991
jurisdiction unless the boards of township trustees of both of the 90992
townships determine, upon the basis of an engineering and traffic 90993
investigation, that the speed permitted by division (B)(5) of this 90994
section is greater than is reasonable or safe under the conditions 90995
found to exist at the location and both boards agree upon a 90996
reasonable and safe prima-facie speed limit of less than 90997
fifty-five but not less than twenty-five miles per hour for that 90998
location. If both boards so agree, each shall follow the procedure 90999
specified in division (K)(2) of this section for altering the 91000
prima-facie speed limit on the highway. Except as otherwise 91001
provided in division (K)(4)(b) of this section, no speed limit 91002
altered pursuant to division (K)(4)(a) of this section may be 91003
withdrawn unless the boards of township trustees of both townships 91004
determine that the altered prima-facie speed limit previously 91005
adopted becomes unreasonable and each board adopts a resolution 91006
withdrawing the altered prima-facie speed limit pursuant to the 91007
procedure specified in division (K)(3)(a) of this section.91008

       (b) Whenever a highway described in division (K)(4)(a) of 91009
this section ceases to be an unimproved highway and two boards of 91010
township trustees have adopted an altered prima-facie speed limit 91011
pursuant to division (K)(4)(a) of this section, both boards shall, 91012
by resolution, withdraw the altered prima-facie speed limit as 91013
soon as the highway ceases to be unimproved. Upon the adoption of 91014
the resolution, the altered prima-facie speed limit becomes 91015
ineffective and the traffic control devices relating thereto shall 91016
be immediately removed.91017

       (5) As used in division (K)(5) of this section:91018

       (a) "Commercial subdivision" means any platted territory 91019
outside the limits of a municipal corporation and fronting a 91020
highway where, for a distance of three hundred feet or more, the 91021
frontage is improved with buildings in use for commercial 91022
purposes, or where the entire length of the highway is less than 91023
three hundred feet long and the frontage is improved with 91024
buildings in use for commercial purposes.91025

       (b) "Residential subdivision" means any platted territory 91026
outside the limits of a municipal corporation and fronting a 91027
highway, where, for a distance of three hundred feet or more, the 91028
frontage is improved with residences or residences and buildings 91029
in use for business, or where the entire length of the highway is 91030
less than three hundred feet long and the frontage is improved 91031
with residences or residences and buildings in use for business.91032

       Whenever a board of township trustees finds upon the basis of 91033
an engineering and traffic investigation that the prima-facie 91034
speed permitted by division (B)(5) of this section on any part of 91035
a highway under its jurisdiction that is located in a commercial 91036
or residential subdivision, except on highways or portions thereof 91037
at the entrances to which vehicular traffic from the majority of 91038
intersecting highways is required to yield the right-of-way to 91039
vehicles on such highways in obedience to stop or yield signs or 91040
traffic control signals, is greater than is reasonable and safe 91041
under the conditions found to exist at the location, the board may 91042
by resolution declare a reasonable and safe prima-facie speed 91043
limit of less than fifty-five but not less than twenty-five miles 91044
per hour at the location. An altered speed limit adopted by a 91045
board of township trustees under this division shall become 91046
effective when appropriate signs giving notice thereof are erected 91047
at the location by the township. Whenever, in the opinion of a 91048
board of township trustees, any altered prima-facie speed limit 91049
established by it under this division becomes unreasonable, it may 91050
adopt a resolution withdrawing the altered prima-facie speed, and 91051
upon such withdrawal, the altered prima-facie speed shall become 91052
ineffective, and the signs relating thereto shall be immediately 91053
removed by the township.91054

       (L)(1) Within one hundred twenty days of February 29, 1996, 91055
the director of transportation, based upon a geometric and traffic 91056
characteristic study of a freeway that is part of the interstate 91057
system or that is not part of the interstate system, but is built 91058
to the standards and specifications that are applicable to 91059
freeways that are part of the interstate system, in consultation 91060
with the director of public safety and, if applicable, the local 91061
authority having jurisdiction over a portion of such freeway, may 91062
determine and declare that the speed limit of less than sixty-five 91063
miles per hour established on such freeway or portion of freeway 91064
either is reasonable and safe or is less than that which is 91065
reasonable and safe.91066

       (2) If the established speed limit for such a freeway or 91067
portion of freeway is determined to be less than that which is 91068
reasonable and safe, the director of transportation, in 91069
consultation with the director of public safety and, if 91070
applicable, the local authority having jurisdiction over the 91071
portion of freeway, shall determine and declare a reasonable and 91072
safe speed limit of not more than sixty-five miles per hour for 91073
that freeway or portion of freeway.91074

       The director of transportation or local authority having 91075
jurisdiction over the freeway or portion of freeway shall erect 91076
appropriate signs giving notice of the speed limit at such 91077
location within one hundred fifty days of February 29, 1996. Such 91078
speed limit becomes effective only when such signs are erected at 91079
the location.91080

       (3) If, within one hundred twenty days of February 29, 1996, 91081
the director of transportation does not make a determination and 91082
declaration of a reasonable and safe speed limit for a freeway or 91083
portion of freeway that is part of the interstate system or that 91084
is not part of the interstate system, but is built to the 91085
standards and specifications that are applicable to freeways that 91086
are part of the interstate system and that has a speed limit of 91087
less than sixty-five miles per hour, the speed limit on that 91088
freeway or portion of a freeway shall be sixty-five miles per 91089
hour. The director of transportation or local authority having 91090
jurisdiction over the freeway or portion of the freeway shall 91091
erect appropriate signs giving notice of the speed limit of 91092
sixty-five miles per hour at such location within one hundred 91093
fifty days of February 29, 1996. Such speed limit becomes 91094
effective only when such signs are erected at the location. A 91095
speed limit established through the operation of division (L)(3) 91096
of this section is subject to reduction under division (I)(2) of 91097
this section.91098

       (M) Within three hundred sixty days after February 29, 1996, 91099
the director of transportation, based upon a geometric and traffic 91100
characteristic study of a rural, divided, multi-lane highway that 91101
has been designated as part of the national highway system under 91102
the "National Highway System Designation Act of 1995," 109 Stat. 91103
568, 23 U.S.C.A. 103, in consultation with the director of public 91104
safety and, if applicable, the local authority having jurisdiction 91105
over a portion of the highway, may determine and declare that the 91106
speed limit of less than sixty-five miles per hour established on 91107
the highway or portion of highway either is reasonable and safe or 91108
is less than that which is reasonable and safe.91109

       If the established speed limit for the highway or portion of 91110
highway is determined to be less than that which is reasonable and 91111
safe, the director of transportation, in consultation with the 91112
director of public safety and, if applicable, the local authority 91113
having jurisdiction over the portion of highway, shall determine 91114
and declare a reasonable and safe speed limit of not more than 91115
sixty-five miles per hour for that highway or portion of highway. 91116
The director of transportation or local authority having 91117
jurisdiction over the highway or portion of highway shall erect 91118
appropriate signs giving notice of the speed limit at such 91119
location within three hundred ninety days after February 29, 1996. 91120
The speed limit becomes effective only when such signs are erected 91121
at the location.91122

       (N)(1)(a) If the boundary of two local authorities rests on 91123
the centerline of a highway and both authorities have jurisdiction 91124
over the highway, the speed limit for the part of the highway 91125
within their joint jurisdiction shall be either one of the 91126
following as agreed to by both authorities:91127

       (i) Either prima-facie speed limit permitted by division (B) 91128
of this section;91129

       (ii) An altered speed limit determined and posted in 91130
accordance with this section.91131

       (b) If the local authorities are unable to reach an 91132
agreement, the speed limit shall remain as established and posted 91133
under this section.91134

       (2) Neither local authority may declare an altered 91135
prima-facie speed limit pursuant to this section on the part of 91136
the highway under their joint jurisdiction unless both of the 91137
local authorities determine, upon the basis of an engineering and 91138
traffic investigation, that the speed permitted by this section is 91139
greater than is reasonable or safe under the conditions found to 91140
exist at the location and both authorities agree upon a uniform 91141
reasonable and safe prima-facie speed limit of less than 91142
fifty-five but not less than twenty-five miles per hour for that 91143
location. If both authorities so agree, each shall follow the 91144
procedure specified in this section for altering the prima-facie 91145
speed limit on the highway, and the speed limit for the part of 91146
the highway within their joint jurisdiction shall be uniformly 91147
altered. No altered speed limit may be withdrawn unless both local 91148
authorities determine that the altered prima-facie speed limit 91149
previously adopted becomes unreasonable and each adopts a 91150
resolution withdrawing the altered prima-facie speed limit 91151
pursuant to the procedure specified in this section.91152

       (O) As used in this section:91153

       (1) "Interstate system" has the same meaning as in 23 91154
U.S.C.A. 101.91155

       (2) "Commercial bus" means a motor vehicle designed for 91156
carrying more than nine passengers and used for the transportation 91157
of persons for compensation.91158

       (3) "Noncommercial bus" includes but is not limited to a 91159
school bus or a motor vehicle operated solely for the 91160
transportation of persons associated with a charitable or 91161
nonprofit organization.91162

       (4) "Outerbelt" means a portion of a freeway that is part of 91163
the interstate system and is located in the outer vicinity of a 91164
major municipal corporation or group of municipal corporations, as 91165
designated by the director.91166

       (P)(1) A violation of any provision of this section is one of 91167
the following:91168

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in divisions (P)(1)(b), 91169
(1)(c), (2), and (3) of this section, a minor misdemeanor;91170

       (b) If, within one year of the offense, the offender 91171
previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to two 91172
violations of any provision of this section or of any provision of 91173
a municipal ordinance that is substantially similar to any 91174
provision of this section, a misdemeanor of the fourth degree;91175

       (c) If, within one year of the offense, the offender 91176
previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to three or 91177
more violations of any provision of this section or of any 91178
provision of a municipal ordinance that is substantially similar 91179
to any provision of this section, a misdemeanor of the third 91180
degree.91181

       (2) If the offender has not previously been convicted of or 91182
pleaded guilty to a violation of any provision of this section or 91183
of any provision of a municipal ordinance that is substantially 91184
similar to this section and operated a motor vehicle faster than 91185
thirty-five miles an hour in a business district of a municipal 91186
corporation, faster than fifty miles an hour in other portions of 91187
a municipal corporation, or faster than thirty-five miles an hour 91188
in a school zone during recess or while children are going to or 91189
leaving school during the school's opening or closing hours, a 91190
misdemeanor of the fourth degree.91191

       (3) Notwithstanding division (P)(1) of this section, if the 91192
offender operated a motor vehicle in a construction zone where a 91193
sign was then posted in accordance with section 4511.98 of the 91194
Revised Code, the court, in addition to all other penalties 91195
provided by law, shall impose upon the offender a fine of two 91196
times the usual amount imposed for the violation. No court shall 91197
impose a fine of two times the usual amount imposed for the 91198
violation upon an offender if the offender alleges, in an 91199
affidavit filed with the court prior to the offender's sentencing, 91200
that the offender is indigent and is unable to pay the fine 91201
imposed pursuant to this division and if the court determines that 91202
the offender is an indigent person and unable to pay the fine.91203

       Sec. 4511.69.  (A) Every vehicle stopped or parked upon a 91204
roadway where there is an adjacent curb shall be stopped or parked 91205
with the right-hand wheels of the vehicle parallel with and not 91206
more than twelve inches from the right-hand curb, unless it is 91207
impossible to approach so close to the curb; in such case the stop 91208
shall be made as close to the curb as possible and only for the 91209
time necessary to discharge and receive passengers or to load or 91210
unload merchandise. Local authorities by ordinance may permit 91211
angle parking on any roadway under their jurisdiction, except that 91212
angle parking shall not be permitted on a state route within a 91213
municipal corporation unless an unoccupied roadway width of not 91214
less than twenty-five feet is available for free-moving traffic.91215

       (B) Local authorities by ordinance may permit parking of 91216
vehicles with the left-hand wheels adjacent to and within twelve 91217
inches of the left-hand curb of a one-way roadway.91218

       (C)(1)(a) Except as provided in division (C)(2)(1)(b) of this 91219
section, no vehicle or trackless trolley shall be stopped or 91220
parked on a road or highway with the vehicle or trackless trolley 91221
facing in a direction other than the direction of travel on that 91222
side of the road or highway.91223

       (2)(b) The operator of a motorcycle may back the motorcycle 91224
into an angled parking space so that when the motorcycle is parked 91225
it is facing in a direction other than the direction of travel on 91226
the side of the road or highway.91227

       (2) The operator of a motorcycle may back the motorcycle into 91228
a parking space that is located on the side of, and parallel to, a 91229
road or highway. The motorcycle may face any direction when so 91230
parked. Not more than two motorcycles at a time shall be parked in 91231
a parking space as described in division (C)(2) of this section 91232
irrespective of whether or not the space is metered.91233

       (D) Notwithstanding any statute or any rule, resolution, or 91234
ordinance adopted by any local authority, air compressors, 91235
tractors, trucks, and other equipment, while being used in the 91236
construction, reconstruction, installation, repair, or removal of 91237
facilities near, on, over, or under a street or highway, may stop, 91238
stand, or park where necessary in order to perform such work, 91239
provided a flagperson is on duty or warning signs or lights are 91240
displayed as may be prescribed by the director of transportation.91241

       (E) Special parking locations and privileges for persons with 91242
disabilities that limit or impair the ability to walk, also known 91243
as handicapped parking spaces or disability parking spaces, shall 91244
be provided and designated by all political subdivisions and by 91245
the state and all agencies and instrumentalities thereof at all 91246
offices and facilities, where parking is provided, whether owned, 91247
rented, or leased, and at all publicly owned parking garages. The 91248
locations shall be designated through the posting of an elevated 91249
sign, whether permanently affixed or movable, imprinted with the 91250
international symbol of access and shall be reasonably close to 91251
exits, entrances, elevators, and ramps. All elevated signs posted 91252
in accordance with this division and division (C) of section 91253
3781.111 of the Revised Code shall be mounted on a fixed or 91254
movable post, and the distance from the ground to the bottom edge 91255
of the sign shall measure not less than five feet. If a new sign 91256
or a replacement sign designating a special parking location is 91257
posted on or after October 14, 1999, there also shall be affixed 91258
upon the surface of that sign or affixed next to the designating 91259
sign a notice that states the fine applicable for the offense of 91260
parking a motor vehicle in the special designated parking location 91261
if the motor vehicle is not legally entitled to be parked in that 91262
location.91263

       (F)(1) No person shall stop, stand, or park any motor vehicle 91264
at special parking locations provided under division (E) of this 91265
section or at special clearly marked parking locations provided in 91266
or on privately owned parking lots, parking garages, or other 91267
parking areas and designated in accordance with that division, 91268
unless one of the following applies:91269

       (a) The motor vehicle is being operated by or for the 91270
transport of a person with a disability that limits or impairs the 91271
ability to walk and is displaying a valid removable windshield 91272
placard or special license plates;91273

       (b) The motor vehicle is being operated by or for the 91274
transport of a handicapped person and is displaying a parking card 91275
or special handicapped license plates.91276

       (2) Any motor vehicle that is parked in a special marked 91277
parking location in violation of division (F)(1)(a) or (b) of this 91278
section may be towed or otherwise removed from the parking 91279
location by the law enforcement agency of the political 91280
subdivision in which the parking location is located. A motor 91281
vehicle that is so towed or removed shall not be released to its 91282
owner until the owner presents proof of ownership of the motor 91283
vehicle and pays all towing and storage fees normally imposed by 91284
that political subdivision for towing and storing motor vehicles. 91285
If the motor vehicle is a leased vehicle, it shall not be released 91286
to the lessee until the lessee presents proof that that person is 91287
the lessee of the motor vehicle and pays all towing and storage 91288
fees normally imposed by that political subdivision for towing and 91289
storing motor vehicles.91290

       (3) If a person is charged with a violation of division 91291
(F)(1)(a) or (b) of this section, it is an affirmative defense to 91292
the charge that the person suffered an injury not more than 91293
seventy-two hours prior to the time the person was issued the 91294
ticket or citation and that, because of the injury, the person 91295
meets at least one of the criteria contained in division (A)(1) of 91296
section 4503.44 of the Revised Code.91297

       (G) When a motor vehicle is being operated by or for the 91298
transport of a person with a disability that limits or impairs the 91299
ability to walk and is displaying a removable windshield placard 91300
or a temporary removable windshield placard or special license 91301
plates, or when a motor vehicle is being operated by or for the 91302
transport of a handicapped person and is displaying a parking card 91303
or special handicapped license plates, the motor vehicle is 91304
permitted to park for a period of two hours in excess of the legal 91305
parking period permitted by local authorities, except where local 91306
ordinances or police rules provide otherwise or where the vehicle 91307
is parked in such a manner as to be clearly a traffic hazard.91308

       (H) No owner of an office, facility, or parking garage where 91309
special parking locations are required to be designated in 91310
accordance with division (E) of this section shall fail to 91311
properly mark the special parking locations in accordance with 91312
that division or fail to maintain the markings of the special 91313
locations, including the erection and maintenance of the fixed or 91314
movable signs.91315

       (I) Nothing in this section shall be construed to require a 91316
person or organization to apply for a removable windshield placard 91317
or special license plates if the parking card or special license 91318
plates issued to the person or organization under prior law have 91319
not expired or been surrendered or revoked.91320

       (J)(1) Whoever violates division (A) or (C) of this section 91321
is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.91322

       (2)(a) Whoever violates division (F)(1)(a) or (b) of this 91323
section is guilty of a misdemeanor and shall be punished as 91324
provided in division (J)(2)(a) and (b) of this section. Except as 91325
otherwise provided in division (J)(2)(a) of this section, an 91326
offender who violates division (F)(1)(a) or (b) of this section 91327
shall be fined not less than two hundred fifty nor more than five 91328
hundred dollars. An offender who violates division (F)(1)(a) or 91329
(b) of this section shall be fined not more than one hundred 91330
dollars if the offender, prior to sentencing, proves either of the 91331
following to the satisfaction of the court:91332

       (i) At the time of the violation of division (F)(1)(a) of 91333
this section, the offender or the person for whose transport the 91334
motor vehicle was being operated had been issued a removable 91335
windshield placard that then was valid or special license plates 91336
that then were valid but the offender or the person neglected to 91337
display the placard or license plates as described in division 91338
(F)(1)(a) of this section.91339

       (ii) At the time of the violation of division (F)(1)(b) of 91340
this section, the offender or the person for whose transport the 91341
motor vehicle was being operated had been issued a parking card 91342
that then was valid or special handicapped license plates that 91343
then were valid but the offender or the person neglected to 91344
display the card or license plates as described in division 91345
(F)(1)(b) of this section.91346

       (b) In no case shall an offender who violates division 91347
(F)(1)(a) or (b) of this section be sentenced to any term of 91348
imprisonment.91349

       An arrest or conviction for a violation of division (F)(1)(a) 91350
or (b) of this section does not constitute a criminal record and 91351
need not be reported by the person so arrested or convicted in 91352
response to any inquiries contained in any application for 91353
employment, license, or other right or privilege, or made in 91354
connection with the person's appearance as a witness.91355

       The clerk of the court shall pay every fine collected under 91356
division (J)(2) of this section to the political subdivision in 91357
which the violation occurred. Except as provided in division 91358
(J)(2) of this section, the political subdivision shall use the 91359
fine moneys it receives under division (J)(2) of this section to 91360
pay the expenses it incurs in complying with the signage and 91361
notice requirements contained in division (E) of this section. The 91362
political subdivision may use up to fifty per cent of each fine it 91363
receives under division (J)(2) of this section to pay the costs of 91364
educational, advocacy, support, and assistive technology programs 91365
for persons with disabilities, and for public improvements within 91366
the political subdivision that benefit or assist persons with 91367
disabilities, if governmental agencies or nonprofit organizations 91368
offer the programs.91369

       (3) Whoever violates division (H) of this section shall be 91370
punished as follows:91371

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (J)(3) of this 91372
section, the offender shall be issued a warning.91373

       (b) If the offender previously has been convicted of or 91374
pleaded guilty to a violation of division (H) of this section or 91375
of a municipal ordinance that is substantially similar to that 91376
division, the offender shall not be issued a warning but shall be 91377
fined not more than twenty-five dollars for each parking location 91378
that is not properly marked or whose markings are not properly 91379
maintained.91380

       (K) As used in this section:91381

       (1) "Handicapped person" means any person who has lost the 91382
use of one or both legs or one or both arms, who is blind, deaf, 91383
or so severely handicapped as to be unable to move without the aid 91384
of crutches or a wheelchair, or whose mobility is restricted by a 91385
permanent cardiovascular, pulmonary, or other handicapping 91386
condition.91387

       (2) "Person with a disability that limits or impairs the 91388
ability to walk" has the same meaning as in section 4503.44 of the 91389
Revised Code.91390

       (3) "Special license plates" and "removable windshield 91391
placard" mean any license plates or removable windshield placard 91392
or temporary removable windshield placard issued under section 91393
4503.41 or 4503.44 of the Revised Code, and also mean any 91394
substantially similar license plates or removable windshield 91395
placard or temporary removable windshield placard issued by a 91396
state, district, country, or sovereignty.91397

       Sec. 4511.85.  (A) The operator of a chauffeured limousine 91398
shall accept passengers only on the basis of prearranged 91399
contracts, as defined in division (LL) of section 4501.01 of the 91400
Revised Code, and shall not cruise in search of patronage unless 91401
the limousine is in compliance with any statute or ordinance 91402
governing the operation of taxicabs or other similar vehicles for 91403
hire.91404

       (B) The operator of a chauffeured limousine may provide 91405
transportation to passengers who arrange for the transportation 91406
through an intermediary, including a digital dispatching service. 91407
Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, when providing 91408
transportation arranged through an intermediary, the operator of a 91409
chauffeured limousine may establish the fare and method of fare 91410
calculation, so long as the method of fare calculation is provided 91411
to the passenger upon request.91412

        (C) No person shall advertise or hold self out as doing 91413
business as a limousine service or livery service or other similar 91414
designation unless each vehicle used by the person to provide the 91415
service is registered in accordance with section 4503.24 of the 91416
Revised Code and is in compliance with section 4509.80 of the 91417
Revised Code.91418

       (C)(D) Whoever violates this section is guilty of a 91419
misdemeanor of the first degree.91420

       Sec. 4513.34.  (A)(1) The director of transportation with 91421
respect to all highways that are a part of the state highway 91422
system and local authorities with respect to highways under their 91423
jurisdiction, upon application in writing, shall issue a special 91424
regional heavy hauling permit authorizing the applicant to operate 91425
or move a vehicle or combination of vehicles as follows:91426

       (a) At a size or weight of vehicle or load exceeding the 91427
maximum specified in sections 5577.01 to 5577.09 of the Revised 91428
Code, or otherwise not in conformity with sections 4513.01 to 91429
4513.37 of the Revised Code;91430

        (b) Upon any highway under the jurisdiction of the authority 91431
granting the permit except those highways with a condition 91432
insufficient to bear the weight of the vehicle or combination of 91433
vehicles as stated in the application;91434

        (c) For regional trips at distances of one hundred fifty 91435
miles or less from a facility stated on the application as the 91436
applicant's point of origin.91437

        Issuance of a special regional heavy hauling permit is 91438
subject to the payment of a fee established by the director or 91439
local authority in accordance with this section.91440

       (2) In circumstances where a person is not eligible to 91441
receive a permit under division (A)(1) of this section, the 91442
director of transportation with respect to all highways that are a 91443
part of the state highway system and local authorities with 91444
respect to highways under their jurisdiction, upon application in 91445
writing and for good cause shown, may issue a special permit in 91446
writing authorizing the applicant to operate or move a vehicle or 91447
combination of vehicles of a size or weight of vehicle or load 91448
exceeding the maximum specified in sections 5577.01 to 5577.09 of 91449
the Revised Code, or otherwise not in conformity with sections 91450
4513.01 to 4513.37 of the Revised Code, upon any highway under the 91451
jurisdiction of the authority granting the permit.91452

       (3) For purposes of this section, the director may designate 91453
certain state highways or portions of state highways as special 91454
economic development highways. If an application submitted to the 91455
director under this section involves travel of a nonconforming 91456
vehicle or combination of vehicles upon a special economic 91457
development highway, the director, in determining whether good 91458
cause has been shown that issuance of a permit is justified, shall 91459
consider the effect the travel of the vehicle or combination of 91460
vehicles will have on the economic development in the area in 91461
which the designated highway or portion of highway is located.91462

       (B) Notwithstanding sections 715.22 and 723.01 of the Revised 91463
Code, the holder of a permit issued by the director under this 91464
section may move the vehicle or combination of vehicles described 91465
in the permit on any highway that is a part of the state highway 91466
system when the movement is partly within and partly without the 91467
corporate limits of a municipal corporation. No local authority 91468
shall require any other permit or license or charge any license 91469
fee or other charge against the holder of a permit for the 91470
movement of a vehicle or combination of vehicles on any highway 91471
that is a part of the state highway system. The director shall not 91472
require the holder of a permit issued by a local authority to 91473
obtain a special permit for the movement of vehicles or 91474
combination of vehicles on highways within the jurisdiction of the 91475
local authority. Permits may be issued for any period of time not 91476
to exceed one year, as the director in the director's discretion 91477
or a local authority in its discretion determines advisable, or 91478
for the duration of any public construction project.91479

       (C)(1) The application for a permit issued under this section 91480
shall be in the form that the director or local authority 91481
prescribes. The director or local authority may prescribe a permit 91482
fee to be imposed and collected when any permit described in this 91483
section is issued. The permit fee may be in an amount sufficient 91484
to reimburse the director or local authority for the 91485
administrative costs incurred in issuing the permit, and also to 91486
cover the cost of the normal and expected damage caused to the 91487
roadway or a street or highway structure as the result of the 91488
operation of the nonconforming vehicle or combination of vehicles. 91489
The director, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 91490
shall establish a schedule of fees for permits issued by the 91491
director under this section; however, the fee to operate a triple 91492
trailer unit, at locations authorized under federal law, shall be 91493
one hundred dollars.91494

       (2) For the purposes of this section and of rules adopted by 91495
the director under this section, milk transported in bulk by 91496
vehicle is deemed a nondivisible load.91497

       (3) For purposes of this section and of rules adopted by the 91498
director under this section, three or fewer aluminum coils, 91499
transported by a vehicle, are deemed a nondivisible load. The 91500
director shall adopt rules establishing requirements for an 91501
aluminum coil permit that are substantially similar to the 91502
requirements for a steel coil permit under Chapter 5501:2-1 of the 91503
Administrative Code.91504

       (D) The director or a local authority shall issue a special 91505
regional heavy hauling permit under division (A)(1) of this 91506
section upon application and payment of the applicable fee. 91507
However, the director or local authority may issue or withhold a 91508
special permit specified in division (A)(2) of this section. If a 91509
permit is to be issued, the director or local authority may limit 91510
or prescribe conditions of operation for the vehicle and may 91511
require the posting of a bond or other security conditioned upon 91512
the sufficiency of the permit fee to compensate for damage caused 91513
to the roadway or a street or highway structure. In addition, a 91514
local authority, as a condition of issuance of an overweight 91515
permit, may require the applicant to develop and enter into a 91516
mutual agreement with the local authority to compensate for or to 91517
repair excess damage caused to the roadway by travel under the 91518
permit.91519

       For a permit that will allow travel of a nonconforming 91520
vehicle or combination of vehicles on a special economic 91521
development highway, the director, as a condition of issuance, may 91522
require the applicant to agree to make periodic payments to the 91523
department to compensate for damage caused to the roadway by 91524
travel under the permit.91525

       (E) Every permit issued under this section shall be carried 91526
in the vehicle or combination of vehicles to which it refers and 91527
shall be open to inspection by any police officer or authorized 91528
agent of any authority granting the permit. No person shall 91529
violate any of the terms of a permit.91530

       (F) The director may debar an applicant from applying for a 91531
permit under this section upon a finding based on a reasonable 91532
belief that the applicant has done any of the following:91533

       (1) Abused the process by repeatedly submitting false 91534
information or false travel plans or by using another company or 91535
individual's name, insurance, or escrow account without proper 91536
authorization;91537

       (2) Failed to comply with or substantially perform under a 91538
previously issued permit according to its terms, conditions, and 91539
specifications within specified time limits;91540

       (3) Failed to cooperate in the application process for the 91541
permit or in any other procedures that are related to the issuance 91542
of the permit by refusing to provide information or documents 91543
required in a permit or by failing to respond to and correct 91544
matters related to the permit;91545

       (4) Accumulated repeated justified complaints regarding 91546
performance under a permit that was previously issued to the 91547
applicant or previously failed to obtain a permit when such a 91548
permit was required;91549

       (5) Attempted to influence a public employee to breach 91550
ethical conduct standards;91551

       (6) Been convicted of a criminal offense related to the 91552
application for, or performance under, a permit, including, but 91553
not limited to, bribery, falsification, fraud or destruction of 91554
records, receiving stolen property, and any other offense that 91555
directly reflects on the applicant's integrity or commercial 91556
driver's license;91557

       (7) Accumulated repeated convictions under a state or federal 91558
safety law governing commercial motor vehicles or a rule or 91559
regulation adopted under such a law;91560

       (8) Accumulated repeated convictions under a law, rule, or 91561
regulation governing the movement of traffic over the public 91562
streets and highways;91563

       (9) Failed to pay any fees associated with any permitted 91564
operation or move;91565

       (10) Deliberately or willfully submitted false or misleading 91566
information in connection with the application for, or performance 91567
under, a permit issued under this section.91568

       If the applicant is a partnership, association, or 91569
corporation, the director also may debar from consideration for 91570
permits any partner of the partnership, or the officers, 91571
directors, or employees of the association or corporation being 91572
debarred.91573

       The director may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. 91574
of the Revised Code governing the debarment of an applicant.91575

       (G) When the director reasonably believes that grounds for 91576
debarment exist, the director shall send the person that is 91577
subject to debarment a notice of the proposed debarment. A notice 91578
of proposed debarment shall indicate the grounds for the debarment 91579
of the person and the procedure for requesting a hearing. The 91580
notice and hearing shall be in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 91581
Revised Code. If the person does not respond with a request for a 91582
hearing in the manner specified in that chapter, the director 91583
shall issue the debarment decision without a hearing and shall 91584
notify the person of the decision by certified mail, return 91585
receipt requested. The debarment period may be of any length 91586
determined by the director, and the director may modify or rescind 91587
the debarment at any time. During the period of debarment, the 91588
director shall not issue, or consider issuing, a permit under this 91589
section to any partnership, association, or corporation that is 91590
affiliated with a debarred person. After the debarment period 91591
expires, the person, and any partnership, association, or 91592
corporation affiliated with the person, may reapply for a permit.91593

       (H)(1) No person shall violate the terms of a permit issued 91594
under this section that relate to gross load limits.91595

        (2) No person shall violate the terms of a permit issued 91596
under this section that relate to axle load by more than two 91597
thousand pounds per axle or group of axles.91598

        (3) No person shall violate the terms of a permit issued 91599
under this section that relate to an approved route except upon 91600
order of a law enforcement officer or authorized agent of the 91601
issuing authority.91602

        (I) Whoever violates division (H) of this section shall be 91603
punished as provided in section 4513.99 of the Revised Code.91604

       (J) A permit issued by the department of transportation or a 91605
local authority under this section for the operation of a vehicle 91606
or combination of vehicles is valid for the purposes of the 91607
vehicle operation in accordance with the conditions and 91608
limitations specified on the permit. Such a permit is voidable by 91609
law enforcement only for operation of a vehicle or combination of 91610
vehicles in violation of the weight, dimension, or route 91611
provisions of the permit. However, a permit is not voidable for 91612
operation in violation of a route provision of a permit if the 91613
operation is upon the order of a law enforcement officer.91614

       Sec. 4519.11.  One dollar and twenty-five cents of each fee 91615
collected under sections 4519.04 and 4519.09 of the Revised Code 91616
shall be paid into the state bureau of motor vehicles fund created 91617
by section 4501.25 of the Revised Code. All other fees, and all 91618
taxes and fines levied, charged, or referred to in this chapter, 91619
unless otherwise designated by law, shall be deposited into the 91620
state treasury to the credit of the state recreational vehicle 91621
fund, which is hereby created. The state recreational vehicle fund 91622
shall be used for the purpose of enforcing and administering the 91623
law relative to the registration and operation of snowmobiles, 91624
off-highway motorcycles, and all-purpose vehicles within the 91625
state,. In addition, subject to controlling board approval, the 91626
fund shall be used for the purpose of expanding the activities of 91627
the department of natural resources to provide trails and other 91628
areas for the operation of such vehicles on state-controlled land 91629
and waters, for the purchase of additional land to be used for 91630
such purposes, and for the development and implementation by the 91631
department of programs relating to the safe use and enjoyment of 91632
snowmobiles, off-highway motorcycles, and all-purpose vehicles.91633

       All investment earnings of the state recreational vehicle 91634
fund shall be credited to the fund.91635

       Notwithstanding section 1501.01 of the Revised Code, nothing 91636
in this section authorizes the appropriation of property to 91637
provide trails and other areas for the operation of snowmobiles, 91638
off-highway motorcycles, and all-purpose vehicles.91639

       Sec. 4701.03.  (A) The accountancy board annually shall elect 91640
a president, secretary, and treasurer from its members. The board 91641
may adopt and amend rules for the orderly conduct of its affairs 91642
and for the administration of this chapter. The board may adopt 91643
and amend rules defining the practice of public accounting, rules 91644
of professional conduct appropriate to establish and maintain a 91645
high standard of integrity and dignity in registrants and 91646
certificate holders under this chapter, and rules regulating the 91647
sole proprietorship, partnership, limited liability company, 91648
professional association, corporation-for-profit, or other legal 91649
entity practice of public accounting. A majority of the board 91650
shall constitute a quorum for the transaction of business.91651

       (B) The board shall keep and hold open for public inspection 91652
all records of its proceedings.91653

       (C) The board may employ any clerks that are necessary to 91654
assist it in the performance of its duties and the keeping of its 91655
records. If the board employs an executive director, the board 91656
shall pay the executive director shall be paid in accordance with 91657
pay range 18 of schedule E-1 of section 124.152 of the Revised 91658
Code, or, if the director was employed and being paid on June 28, 91659
2003, in accordance with step 7 in pay range 18 of schedule E-1 of 91660
former section 124.152 of the Revised Code and continued to be so 91661
paid on June 29, 2003, the executive director shall be paid in 91662
accordance with pay range 18 of salary schedule E-1 for step seven 91663
only of section 124.152 of the Revised Code.91664

       Sec. 4707.02. (A) No person shall act as an auction firm, 91665
auctioneer, apprentice auctioneer, or special auctioneer within 91666
this state without a license issued by the department of 91667
agriculture. No auction shall be conducted in this state except by 91668
an auctioneer licensed by the department.91669

       The department shall not issue or renew a license if the 91670
applicant or licensee has been convicted of a felony or crime 91671
involving fraud or theft in this or another state at any time 91672
during the ten years immediately preceding application or renewal.91673

        (B) Division (A) of this section does not apply to any of the 91674
following:91675

       (1) Sales at auction that either are required by law to be at 91676
auction, other than sales pursuant to a judicial order or decree, 91677
or are conducted by or under the direction of a public authority;91678

       (2) The owner of any real or personal property desiring to 91679
sell the property at auction, provided that the property was not 91680
acquired for the purpose of resale;91681

       (3) An auction mediation company;91682

       (4) An auction that is conducted in a course of study for 91683
auctioneers that is approved by the state auctioneers commission 91684
created under section 4707.03 of the Revised Code for purposes of 91685
student training and is supervised by a licensed auctioneer;91686

       (5)(a) An auction that is sponsored by a nonprofit or 91687
charitable organization that is registered in this state under 91688
Chapter 1702. or Chapter 1716. of the Revised Code, respectively, 91689
if the auction only involves the property of the members of the 91690
organization and the auction is part of a fair that is organized 91691
by an agricultural society under Chapter 1711. of the Revised Code 91692
or by the Ohio expositions commission under Chapter 991. of the 91693
Revised Code at which an auctioneer who is licensed under this 91694
chapter physically conducts the auction; or91695

       (b) Sales at an auction sponsored by a charitable, religious, 91696
or civic organization that is tax exempt under subsection 91697
501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code, or by a public school, 91698
chartered nonpublic school, or community school, if no person in 91699
the business of organizing, arranging, or conducting an auction 91700
for compensation and no consignor of consigned items sold at the 91701
auction, except such organization or school, receives compensation 91702
from the proceeds of the auction. As used in division (B)(5)(b) of 91703
this section, "compensation" means money, a thing of value other 91704
than participation in a charitable event, or a financial benefit.91705

       (6) A person licensed as a livestock dealer under Chapter 91706
943. of the Revised Code who exclusively sells livestock and uses 91707
an auctioneer who is licensed under this chapter to conduct the 91708
auction;91709

       (7) A person licensed as a motor vehicle auction owner under 91710
Chapter 4517. of the Revised Code who exclusively sells motor 91711
vehicles to a person licensed under Chapter 4517. of the Revised 91712
Code and who uses an auctioneer who is licensed under this chapter 91713
to conduct the auction;91714

       (8) A person who sells real or personal property by means of 91715
the internet;91716

       (9) A bid calling contest that is approved by the commission 91717
and that is conducted for the purposes of the advancement or 91718
promotion of the auction profession in this state, provided that 91719
no compensation is paid to the sponsor of or participants in the 91720
contest other than a prize or award for winning the contest;91721

        (10) An auction at which the champion of a national or 91722
international bid calling contest appears, provided that both of 91723
the following apply:91724

        (a) The champion is not paid a commission.91725

        (b) The auction is conducted under the direct supervision of 91726
an auctioneer licensed under this chapter in order to ensure that 91727
the champion complies with this chapter and rules adopted under 91728
it.91729

       (C)(1) No person shall advertise or hold oneself out as an 91730
auction firm, auctioneer, apprentice auctioneer, or special 91731
auctioneer without a license issued by the department of 91732
agriculture.91733

       (2) Division (C)(1) of this section does not apply to an 91734
individual who is the subject of an advertisement regarding an 91735
auction conducted under division (B)(5)(b) of this section.91736

       Sec. 4707.073. (A) No corporation, limited liability company,91737
general or limited partnership, or unincorporated association 91738
shall act or hold itself out as an auctioneer without a valid 91739
auctioneer's license issued under this section. This section does 91740
not apply to a person who is issued a license under section 91741
4707.071 of the Revised Code.91742

       (B) The department of agriculture may grant an auctioneer's 91743
license to a corporation, limited liability company, general or 91744
limited partnership, or unincorporated association that is 91745
determined to be qualified by the department. Every applicant for 91746
a license under this section shall furnish to the department, on 91747
forms provided by the department, satisfactory proof that the 91748
applicant:91749

       (1) Is in good standing with the secretary of state if the 91750
applicant is a corporation;91751

       (2) Is of trustworthy character;91752

       (3) Has provided proof of financial responsibility as 91753
required in section 4707.11 of the Revised Code;91754

       (4) Is registered with the secretary of state or a local 91755
authority, as applicable, to do business in this state;91756

       (5) Has complied with any other requirement that the director 91757
establishes in rules adopted under section 4707.19 of the Revised 91758
Code.91759

       (C) An application submitted under this section shall list 91760
the names of all of the owners, directors, partners, or members of 91761
the applicant, as applicable, and shall indicate those that have 91762
an auctioneer's license issued under section 4707.07 of the 91763
Revised Code.91764

       (D)(1) The department shall not issue a license under this 91765
section unless one of the following applies, as applicable:91766

       (a)(1) If the applicant is a limited liability company or a91767
general or limited partnership, not less than fifty per cent of 91768
the members or general partners have a current license issued 91769
under section 4707.07 of the Revised Code.91770

       (b)(2) If the applicant is a corporation, not less than fifty 91771
per cent of the directors and the president or chief executive 91772
have a current license issued under section 4707.07 of the Revised 91773
Code.91774

       (c)(3) If the applicant is an unincorporated association, not 91775
less than fifty per cent of the members have a current license 91776
issued under section 4707.07 of the Revised Code.91777

       Failure of a corporation, limited liability company,91778
partnership, or unincorporated association to maintain the 91779
applicable requirements of this division after the issuance of a 91780
license under this section may be sufficient cause for the 91781
revocation of the license under section 4707.15 of the Revised 91782
Code.91783

       (2) Not later than two years after the effective date of this 91784
section, a corporation, partnership, or unincorporated association 91785
that was issued a license under section 4707.07 of the Revised 91786
Code on or before the effective date of this section shall comply 91787
with the requirements established in division (D)(1) of this 91788
section. If such a corporation, partnership, or unincorporated 91789
association fails to comply with those requirements, the license 91790
of the corporation, partnership, or unincorporated association 91791
immediately shall terminate.91792

       (E) Upon the issuance of a license under this section, a 91793
corporation, limited liability company, partnership, or 91794
unincorporated association shall designate an individual from 91795
among its directors, partners, or members who is licensed under 91796
section 4707.07 of the Revised Code as its agent for purposes of 91797
communication with the department. If that individual ceases to be 91798
the agent, the corporation, limited liability company,91799
partnership, or unincorporated association shall notify the 91800
department not later than ten days after the day on which the 91801
individual ceases to be the agent. Upon notification to the 91802
department, the license of the corporation, limited liability 91803
company, partnership, or unincorporated association, as 91804
applicable, immediately shall terminate. If the corporation, 91805
limited liability company, partnership, or unincorporated 91806
association notifies the department of the designation of a new 91807
agent in accordance with the requirements of this division and 91808
pays a fee in the amount of ten dollars, the department shall 91809
issue the corporation, limited liability company, partnership, or 91810
unincorporated association a new license.91811

       (F) This section does not preclude a corporation, limited 91812
liability company, partnership, or unincorporated association from 91813
selling real property at auction, provided that the requirements 91814
of this section and section 4707.021 and Chapter 4735. of the 91815
Revised Code are satisfied.91816

       (G) A person licensed as a real estate broker under Chapter 91817
4735. of the Revised Code shall not be required to obtain a 91818
license under this section if the person complies with sections 91819
4707.021 and 4707.22 of the Revised Code.91820

       Sec. 4707.10.  (A) The fee for each apprentice auctioneer's 91821
or auction firm license issued by the department of agriculture is 91822
one hundred dollars, and the annual renewal fee for any such 91823
license is one hundred dollars. All licenses expire annually on 91824
the last day of June of each year and shall be renewed according 91825
to the standard renewal procedures of Chapter 4745. of the Revised 91826
Code, or the procedures of this section. Any licensee under this 91827
chapter who wishes to renew the licensee's license, but fails to 91828
do so before the first day of July shall reapply for licensure in 91829
the same manner and pursuant to the same requirements as for 91830
initial licensure, unless before the first day of September of the 91831
year of expiration, the former licensee pays to the department, in 91832
addition to the regular renewal fee, a late renewal penalty of one 91833
hundred dollars.91834

       (B)(1) Each person to whom the department issues an 91835
auctioneer's license or special auctioneer's license shall pay a 91836
licensure fee. Those licenses are biennial and expire in 91837
accordance with the schedule established in division (B)(2) of 91838
this section. If such a license is issued during the first year of 91839
a biennium, the licensee shall pay a fee in the amount of two 91840
hundred dollars. If the license is issued during the second year 91841
of a biennium, the licensee shall pay a fee in the amount of one 91842
hundred dollars. With respect to an auctioneer's license, the fees 91843
apply regardless of whether the license is issued to an individual 91844
under section 4707.07 of the Revised Code or to a corporation, 91845
limited liability company, partnership, or association under 91846
section 4707.073 of the Revised Code.91847

       All auctioneer's licenses and special auctioneer's licenses 91848
expire on the last day of June of the biennium. The licenses shall 91849
be renewed in accordance with the standard renewal procedures of 91850
Chapter 4745. of the Revised Code or the procedures in this 91851
section and upon the licensee's payment to the department of a 91852
renewal fee of two hundred dollars. A licensee who wishes to renew 91853
the licensee's license, but who fails to do so before the first 91854
day of July following the license's expiration, shall reapply for 91855
licensure in the same manner and pursuant to the same requirements 91856
as for the initial licensure unless before the first day of 91857
September following the expiration, the former licensee pays to 91858
the department, in addition to the regular renewal fee, a late 91859
renewal penalty of one hundred dollars.91860

       (2) The biennial expiration of an auctioneer's license or 91861
special auctioneer's license shall occur in accordance with the 91862
following schedule:91863

       (a) The license shall expire in odd-numbered years if the 91864
business name or last name, as applicable, of the licensee begins 91865
with the letters "A" through "J" or with the letters "X" through 91866
"Z."91867

       (b) The license shall expire in even-numbered years if the 91868
business name or last name, as applicable, of the licensee begins 91869
with the letters "K" through "W."91870

       (C) Any person who fails to renew the person's license before 91871
the first day of July is prohibited from engaging in any activity 91872
specified or comprehended in section 4707.01 of the Revised Code 91873
until such time as the person's license is renewed or a new 91874
license is issued. Renewal of a license between the first day of 91875
July and the first day of September does not relieve any person 91876
from complying with this division. The department may refuse to 91877
renew the license of or issue a new license to any person who 91878
violates this division.91879

       (D) The department shall prepare and deliver to each licensee 91880
a permanent license certificate and an identification card, the 91881
appropriate portion of which shall be carried on the person of the 91882
licensee at all times when engaged in any type of auction 91883
activity, and part of which shall be posted with the permanent 91884
certificate in a conspicuous location at the licensee's place of 91885
business.91886

       (E) Notice in writing shall be given to the department by 91887
each auctioneer or apprentice auctioneer licensee of any change of 91888
principal business location or any change or addition to the name 91889
or names under which business is conducted, whereupon the 91890
department shall issue a new license for the unexpired period. Any 91891
change of business location or change or addition of names without 91892
notification to the department shall automatically cancel any 91893
license previously issued. For each new auctioneerauctioneer's or 91894
apprentice auctioneerauctioneer's license issued upon the 91895
occasion of a change in business location or a change in or an 91896
addition of names under which business is conducted, the 91897
department may collect a fee of ten dollars for each change in 91898
location, or name or each added name unless the notification of 91899
the change occurs concurrently with the renewal application or 91900
unless otherwise provided in section 4707.07 of the Revised Code.91901

       Sec. 4709.11.  Every license issued pursuant to this chapter 91902
expires on the thirty-first day of August of each even-numbered 91903
year. Each licensee desiring to do so shall, on or before the 91904
first day of September of each even-numbered year, renew histhe 91905
licensee's license pursuant to the standard renewal procedure of 91906
Chapter 4745. of the Revised Code. Any holder of an expired 91907
license shall restore histhe holder's license before continuing 91908
the practice of barbering or the activity for which hethe holder91909
is licensed under this chapter and pay the appropriate restoration 91910
fee. If the person fails to restore histhe person's license 91911
within threesix years, hethe person shall pay any required 91912
restoration fee and take any examination required for the license 91913
under this chapter.91914

       Sec. 4713.08. (A) The state board of cosmetology shall adopt 91915
rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as 91916
necessary to implement this chapter. The rules shall do all of the 91917
following:91918

       (1) Govern the practice of the branches of cosmetology and 91919
management of salons;91920

       (2) Specify conditions a person must satisfy to qualify for a 91921
temporary pre-examination work permit under section 4713.22 of the 91922
Revised Code and the conditions and method of renewing a temporary 91923
pre-examination work permit under that section;91924

       (3) Provide for the conduct of examinations under section 91925
4713.24 of the Revised Code;91926

       (4) Specify conditions under which the board will take into 91927
account, under section 4713.32 of the Revised Code, instruction an 91928
applicant for a license under section 4713.28, 4713.30, or 4713.31 91929
of the Revised Code received more than five years before the date 91930
of application for the license;91931

       (5) Provide for the granting of waivers under section 4713.29 91932
of the Revised Code;91933

       (6) Specify conditions an applicant must satisfy for the 91934
board to issue the applicant a license under section 4713.34 of 91935
the Revised Code without the applicant taking an examination 91936
conducted under section 4713.24 of the Revised Code;91937

       (7) Specify locations in which glamour photography services 91938
in which a branch of cosmetology is practiced may be provided;91939

       (8) Establish conditions and the fee for a temporary special 91940
occasion work permit under section 4713.37 of the Revised Code and 91941
specify the amount of time such a permit is valid;91942

       (9) Specify conditions an applicant must satisfy for the 91943
board to issue the applicant an independent contractor license 91944
under section 4713.39 of the Revised Code and the fee for issuance 91945
and renewal of the license;91946

       (10) Establish conditions under which food may be sold at a 91947
salon;91948

       (11) Specify which professions regulated by a professional 91949
regulatory board of this state may be practiced in a salon under 91950
section 4713.42 of the Revised Code;91951

       (12) Establish standards for the provision of cosmetic 91952
therapy, massage therapy, or other professional service in a salon 91953
pursuant to section 4713.42 of the Revised Code;91954

       (13) Establish standards for board approval of, and the 91955
granting of credits for, training in branches of cosmetology at 91956
schools of cosmetology licensed in this state;91957

       (14) Establish the manner in which a school of cosmetology 91958
licensed under section 4713.44 of the Revised Code may offer 91959
post-secondary and advanced practice programs;91960

       (15) Establish sanitary standards for the practice of the 91961
branches of cosmetology, salons, and schools of cosmetology;91962

       (15)(16) Establish the application process for obtaining a 91963
tanning facility permit under section 4713.48 of the Revised Code, 91964
including the amount of the fee for an initial or renewed permit;91965

       (16)(17) Establish standards for installing and operating a 91966
tanning facility in a manner that ensures the health and safety of 91967
consumers, including standards that do all of the following:91968

       (a) Establish a maximum safe time of exposure to radiation 91969
and a maximum safe temperature at which sun lamps may be operated;91970

       (b) Require consumers to wear protective eyeglasses and be 91971
supervised as to the length of time consumers use the facility;91972

       (c) Require the operator to prohibit consumers from standing 91973
too close to sun lamps and to post signs warning consumers of the 91974
potential effects of radiation on persons taking certain 91975
medications and of the possible relationship of the radiation to 91976
skin cancer;91977

       (d) Require the installation of protective shielding for sun 91978
lamps and handrails for consumers;91979

       (e) Require floors to be dry during operation of lamps;91980

       (f) Require a consumer who is under the age of eighteen to 91981
obtain written consent from the consumer's parent or legal 91982
guardian prior to receiving tanning services.91983

       (17)(18)(a) If the board, under section 4713.61 of the 91984
Revised Code, develops a procedure for classifying licenses 91985
inactive, do both of the following:91986

       (i) Establish a fee for having a license classified inactive 91987
that reflects the cost to the board of providing the inactive 91988
license service;91989

       (ii) Specify the continuing education that a person whose 91990
license has been classified inactive must complete to have the 91991
license restored. The continuing education shall be sufficient to 91992
ensure the minimum competency in the use or administration of a 91993
new procedure or product required by a licensee necessary to 91994
protect public health and safety. The requirement shall not exceed 91995
the cumulative number of hours of continuing education that the 91996
person would have been required to complete had the person 91997
retained an active license.91998

       (b) In addition, the board may specify the conditions and 91999
method for granting a temporary work permit to practice a branch 92000
of cosmetology to a person whose license has been classified 92001
inactive.92002

       (18)(19) Establish a fee for approval of a continuing 92003
education program under section 4713.62 of the Revised Code that 92004
is adequate to cover any expense the board incurs in the approval 92005
process;92006

       (19)(20) Anything else necessary to implement this chapter.92007

       (B)(1) The rules adopted under division (A)(2) of this 92008
section may establish additional conditions for a temporary 92009
pre-examination work permit under section 4713.22 of the Revised 92010
Code that are applicable to persons who practice a branch of 92011
cosmetology in another state or country.92012

       (2) The rules adopted under division (A)(17)(18)(b) of this 92013
section may establish additional conditions for a temporary work 92014
permit that are applicable to persons who practice a branch of 92015
cosmetology in another state.92016

       (C) The conditions specified in rules adopted under division 92017
(A)(6) of this section may include that an applicant is applying 92018
for a license to practice a branch of cosmetology for which the 92019
board determines an examination is unnecessary.92020

       (D) The rules adopted under division (A)(11) of this section 92021
shall not include a profession if practice of the profession in a 92022
salon is a violation of a statute or rule governing the 92023
profession.92024

       (E) The sanitary standards established under division 92025
(A)(14)(15) of this section shall focus in particular on 92026
precautions to be employed to prevent infectious or contagious 92027
diseases being created or spread. The board shall consult with the 92028
Ohio department of health when establishing the sanitary 92029
standards.92030

       (F) The fee established by rules adopted under division 92031
(A)(15)(16) of this section shall cover the cost the board incurs 92032
in inspecting tanning facilities and enforcing the board's rules 92033
but may not exceed one hundred dollars per location of such 92034
facilities.92035

       Sec. 4713.44. (A) The state board of cosmetology shall issue 92036
a license to operate a school of cosmetology to an applicant who 92037
pays the applicable fee and satisfies all of the following 92038
requirements:92039

       (A)(1) Maintains a course of practical training and technical 92040
instruction for the branch or branches of cosmetology to be taught 92041
at the school equal to the requirements for admission to an 92042
examination under section 4713.24 of the Revised Code that a 92043
person must pass to obtain a license to practice that branch or 92044
those branches of cosmetology;92045

       (B)(2) Possesses or makes available apparatus and equipment 92046
sufficient for the ready and full teaching of all subjects of the 92047
curriculum;92048

       (C)(3) Maintains persons licensed under section 4713.31 or 92049
4713.34 of the Revised Code to teach the theory and practice of 92050
the branches of cosmetology;92051

       (D)(4) Notifies the board of the enrollment of each new 92052
student, keeps a record devoted to the different practices, 92053
establishes grades, and holds examinations in order to certify the 92054
students' completion of the prescribed course of study before the 92055
issuance of certificates of completion;92056

       (E)(5) In the case of a school of cosmetology that offers 92057
clock hours for the purpose of satisfying minimum hours of 92058
training and instruction, keeps a daily record of the attendance 92059
of each student;92060

       (F)(6) On the date that an apprentice cosmetology instructor 92061
begins cosmetology instructor training at the school, certifies 92062
the name of the apprentice cosmetology instructor to the board 92063
along with the date on which the apprentice's instructor training 92064
began;92065

       (G)(7) Instructs not more than six apprentice cosmetology 92066
instructors at any one time;92067

       (H)(8) Files with the board a good and sufficient surety bond 92068
executed by the person, firm, or corporation operating the school 92069
of cosmetology as principal and by a surety company as surety in 92070
the amount of ten thousand dollars; provided, that this 92071
requirement does not apply to a vocational program conducted by a 92072
city, exempted village, local, or joint vocational school 92073
district. The bond shall be in the form prescribed by the board 92074
and be conditioned upon the school's continued instruction in the 92075
theory and practice of the branches of cosmetology. Every bond 92076
shall continue in effect until notice of its termination is given 92077
to the board by registered mail and every bond shall so provide.92078

       (9) Establishes and maintains an internal procedure for 92079
processing complaints filed against the school and for providing 92080
students with instructions on how to file a complaint directly 92081
with the board pursuant to section 4713.641 of the Revised Code.92082

       (B) A school of cosmetology holding a license issued under 92083
division (A) of this section is an educational institution and is 92084
authorized to offer educational programs beyond secondary 92085
education, advanced practice programs, or both in accordance with 92086
rules adopted by the board pursuant to section 4713.08 of the 92087
Revised Code.92088

       (C) A school of cosmetology holding a license to operate a 92089
school of cosmetology on the effective date of this amendment 92090
shall establish and maintain an internal procedure for processing 92091
complaints filed against the school and shall provide each of the 92092
school's students with instructions on how to file a complaint 92093
directly with the board pursuant to section 4713.641 of the 92094
Revised Code.92095

       Sec. 4713.641.  Any student or former student of a school of 92096
cosmetology licensed under division (A) of section 4713.44 of the 92097
Revised Code may file a complaint with the state board of 92098
cosmetology alleging that the school has violated division (A) of 92099
section 4713.64 of the Revised Code. The complaint shall be in 92100
writing and signed by the person bringing the complaint. Upon 92101
receiving a complaint, the board shall initiate a preliminary 92102
investigation to determine whether it is probable that a violation 92103
was committed. If the board determines after preliminary 92104
investigation that it is not probable that a violation was 92105
committed, the board shall notify the person who filed the 92106
complaint of the board's findings and that the board will not 92107
issue a formal complaint in the matter. If the board determines 92108
after a preliminary investigation that it is probable that a 92109
violation was committed, the board shall proceed against the 92110
school pursuant to the board's authority under section 4713.64 of 92111
the Revised Code and in accordance with the hearing and notice 92112
requirements prescribed in Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.92113

       Sec. 4715.22.  (A)(1) This section applies only when a 92114
licensed dental hygienist is not practicing under a permit issued 92115
pursuant to section 4715.363 of the Revised Code authorizing 92116
practice under the oral health access supervision of a dentist.92117

       (2) As used in this section, "health care facility" means 92118
either of the following:92119

       (a) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the 92120
Revised Code;92121

       (b) A "home" as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised 92122
Code.92123

       (B) A licensed dental hygienist shall practice under the 92124
supervision, order, control, and full responsibility of a dentist 92125
licensed under this chapter. A dental hygienist may practice in a 92126
dental office, public or private school, health care facility, 92127
dispensary, or public institution. Except as provided in division 92128
(C) or (D) of this section, a dental hygienist may not provide 92129
dental hygiene services to a patient when the supervising dentist 92130
is not physically present at the location where the dental 92131
hygienist is practicing. 92132

       (C) A dental hygienist may provide, for not more than fifteen 92133
consecutive business days, dental hygiene services to a patient 92134
when the supervising dentist is not physically present at the 92135
location at which the services are provided if all of the 92136
following requirements are met:92137

       (1) The dental hygienist has at least two years and a minimum 92138
of three thousand hours of experience in the practice of dental 92139
hygiene.92140

       (2) The dental hygienist has successfully completed a course 92141
approved by the state dental board in the identification and 92142
prevention of potential medical emergencies.92143

       (3) The dental hygienist complies with written protocols for 92144
emergencies the supervising dentist establishes.92145

       (4) The dental hygienist does not perform, while the 92146
supervising dentist is absent from the location, procedures while 92147
the patient is anesthetized, definitive root planing, definitive 92148
subgingival curettage, or other procedures identified in rules the 92149
state dental board adopts.92150

       (5) The supervising dentist has evaluated the dental 92151
hygienist's skills.92152

       (6) The supervising dentist examined the patient not more 92153
than seven months prior to the date the dental hygienist provides 92154
the dental hygiene services to the patient.92155

       (7) The dental hygienist complies with written protocols or 92156
written standing orders that the supervising dentist establishes.92157

       (8) The supervising dentist completed and evaluated a medical 92158
and dental history of the patient not more than one year prior to 92159
the date the dental hygienist provides dental hygiene services to 92160
the patient and, except when the dental hygiene services are 92161
provided in a health care facility, the supervising dentist 92162
determines that the patient is in a medically stable condition.92163

       (9) If the dental hygiene services are provided in a health 92164
care facility, a doctor of medicine and surgery or osteopathic 92165
medicine and surgery who holds a current certificate issued under 92166
Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code or a registered nurse licensed 92167
under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code is present in the health 92168
care facility when the services are provided.92169

       (10) In advance of the appointment for dental hygiene 92170
services, the patient is notified that the supervising dentist 92171
will be absent from the location and that the dental hygienist 92172
cannot diagnose the patient's dental health care status.92173

       (11) The dental hygienist is employed by, or under contract 92174
with, one of the following:92175

       (a) The supervising dentist;92176

       (b) A dentist licensed under this chapter who is one of the 92177
following:92178

       (i) The employer of the supervising dentist;92179

       (ii) A shareholder in a professional association formed under 92180
Chapter 1785. of the Revised Code of which the supervising dentist 92181
is a shareholder;92182

       (iii) A member or manager of a limited liability company 92183
formed under Chapter 1705. of the Revised Code of which the 92184
supervising dentist is a member or manager;92185

       (iv) A shareholder in a corporation formed under division (B) 92186
of section 1701.03 of the Revised Code of which the supervising 92187
dentist is a shareholder;92188

       (v) A partner or employee of a partnership or a limited 92189
liability partnership formed under Chapter 1775. or 1776. of the 92190
Revised Code of which the supervising dentist is a partner or 92191
employee. 92192

       (c) A government entity that employs the dental hygienist to 92193
provide dental hygiene services in a public school or in 92194
connection with other programs the government entity administers. 92195

       (D) A dental hygienist may provide dental hygiene services to 92196
a patient when the supervising dentist is not physically present 92197
at the location at which the services are provided if the services 92198
are provided as part of a dental hygiene program that is approved 92199
by the state dental board and all of the following requirements 92200
are met:92201

       (1) The program is operated through a school district board 92202
of education or the governing board of an educational service 92203
center; the board of health of a city or general health district 92204
or the authority having the duties of a board of health under 92205
section 3709.05 of the Revised Code; a national, state, district, 92206
or local dental association; or any other public or private entity 92207
recognized by the state dental board.92208

       (2) The supervising dentist is employed by or a volunteer 92209
for, and the patients are referred by, the entity through which 92210
the program is operated.92211

       (3) The(a) Except as provided in division (D)(3)(b) of this 92212
section, the services are performed after examination and 92213
diagnosis by the dentist and in accordance with the dentist's 92214
written treatment plan.92215

       (b) The requirement in division (D)(3)(a) of this section 92216
does not apply when the only service to be provided by the dental 92217
hygienist is the placement of pit and fissure sealants, the 92218
administration of fluoride mouth rinse through a school-based 92219
fluoride mouth rinse program authorized by section 3701.136 of the 92220
Revised Code, or both.92221

       (E) No person shall do either of the following:92222

       (1) Practice dental hygiene in a manner that is separate or 92223
otherwise independent from the dental practice of a supervising 92224
dentist;92225

       (2) Establish or maintain an office or practice that is 92226
primarily devoted to the provision of dental hygiene services. 92227

       (F) The state dental board shall adopt rules under division 92228
(C) of section 4715.03 of the Revised Code identifying procedures 92229
a dental hygienist may not perform when practicing in the absence 92230
of the supervising dentist pursuant to division (C) or (D) of this 92231
section.92232

       Sec. 4715.36. As used in this section and sections 4715.361 92233
to 4715.374 of the Revised Code:92234

       (A) "Accredited dental hygiene school" means a dental hygiene 92235
school accredited by the American dental association commission on 92236
dental accreditation or a dental hygiene school whose educational 92237
standards are recognized by the American dental association 92238
commission on dental accreditation and approved by the state 92239
dental board.92240

       (B) "Authorizing dentist" means a dentist who authorizes a 92241
dental hygienist to perform dental hygiene services under section 92242
4715.365 of the Revised Code.92243

       (C) "Clinical evaluation" means a diagnosis and treatment 92244
plan formulated for an individual patient by a dentist.92245

       (D) "Dentist" means an individual licensed under this chapter 92246
to practice dentistry.92247

       (E) "Dental hygienist" means an individual licensed under 92248
this chapter to practice as a dental hygienist.92249

       (F) "Dental hygiene services" means the prophylactic, 92250
preventive, and other procedures that dentists are authorized by 92251
this chapter and rules of the state dental board to assign to 92252
dental hygienists, except for procedures while a patient is 92253
anesthetized, definitive root planing, definitive subgingival 92254
curettage, the administration of local anesthesia, and the 92255
procedures specified in rules adopted by the board as described in 92256
division (C)(4) of section 4715.22 of the Revised Code.92257

       (G) "Facility" means any of the following:92258

       (1) A health care facility, as defined in section 4715.22 of 92259
the Revised Code;92260

       (2) A state correctional institution, as defined in section 92261
2967.01 of the Revised Code;92262

       (3) A comprehensive child development program that receives 92263
funds distributed under the "Head Start Act," 95 Stat. 499 (1981), 92264
42 U.S.C. 9831, as amended, and is licensed as a child day-care 92265
center;92266

       (4) A residential facility licensed under section 5123.19 of 92267
the Revised Code;92268

        (5) A public school, as defined in section 3701.93 of the 92269
Revised Code, located in an area designated as a dental health 92270
resource shortage area pursuant to section 3702.87 of the Revised 92271
Code;92272

        (6) A nonpublic school, as defined in section 3701.93 of the 92273
Revised Code, located in an area designated as a dental health 92274
resource shortage area pursuant to section 3702.87 of the Revised 92275
Code;92276

        (7) A federally qualified health center or federally 92277
qualified health center look-alike, as defined in section 3701.047 92278
of the Revised Code;92279

        (8) A shelter for victims of domestic violence, as defined in 92280
section 3113.33 of the Revised Code;92281

        (9) A facility operated by the department of youth services 92282
under Chapter 5139. of the Revised Code;92283

        (10) A shelter for runaways, as defined in section 5119.64 of 92284
the Revised Code;92285

       (11) A foster home, as defined in section 5103.02 of the 92286
Revised Code;92287

       (12)(11) A nonprofit clinic, as defined in section 3715.87 of 92288
the Revised Code;92289

       (13)(12) The residence of one or more individuals receiving 92290
services provided by a home health agency, as defined in section 92291
5101.61 of the Revised Code;92292

       (14)(13) A dispensary;92293

       (15)(14) A health care facility, such as a clinic or 92294
hospital, of the United States department of veterans affairs;92295

       (16)(15) The residence of one or more individuals enrolled in 92296
a home and community-based services medicaid waiver component, as 92297
defined in section 5111.8515166.01 of the Revised Code;92298

       (17)(16) A facility operated by the board of health of a city 92299
or general health district or the authority having the duties of a 92300
board of health under section 3709.05 of the Revised Code;92301

       (18)(17) A women, infants, and children clinic;92302

       (19)(18) A mobile dental unit located at any location listed 92303
in divisions (G)(1) to (18)(17) of this section;92304

       (20)(19) Any other location, as specified by the state dental 92305
board in rules adopted under section 4715.372 of the Revised Code, 92306
that is in an area designated as a dental health resource shortage 92307
area pursuant to section 3702.87 of the Revised Code and provides 92308
health care services to individuals who are medicaid recipients of 92309
medical assistance under the medicaid program established pursuant 92310
to Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code and to indigent and uninsured 92311
persons, as defined in section 2305.234 of the Revised Code.92312

       Sec. 4715.372. (A) The state dental board shall adopt rules 92313
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary 92314
to implement the oral health access supervision program, including 92315
rules that do all of the following:92316

       (1) For the purpose of division (G)(20)(19) of section 92317
4715.36 of the Revised Code, designate additional facilities at 92318
which a dental hygienist may be authorized to perform dental 92319
hygiene services under the oral health access supervision program;92320

       (2) For the purpose of section 4715.362 of the Revised Code, 92321
prescribe the application form and requirements for obtaining an 92322
oral health access supervision permit;92323

       (3) For the purpose of section 4715.363 of the Revised Code, 92324
prescribe the application form for a permit to practice as a 92325
dental hygienist under the oral health access supervision of a 92326
dentist;92327

       (4) For the purpose of division (B)(3) of section 4715.363 of 92328
the Revised Code and subject to division (B) of this section, 92329
establish standards for the course in the practice of dental 92330
hygiene under oral health access supervision;92331

       (5) For the purpose of section 4715.369 of the Revised Code, 92332
prescribe the form for renewal of an oral health access 92333
supervision permit;92334

       (6) For the purpose of section 4715.37 of the Revised Code, 92335
prescribe the form for renewal of a permit to practice as a dental 92336
hygienist under the oral health access supervision of a dentist.92337

       (B) The course in the practice of dental hygiene under oral 92338
health access supervision for which the board establishes 92339
standards under division (A)(4) of this section shall meet all of 92340
the following requirements:92341

       (1) Be eight hours in length;92342

       (2) Include, at a minimum, instruction in both of the 92343
following:92344

       (a) The treatment of geriatric patients, medically 92345
compromised patients, developmentally disabled patients, and 92346
pediatric patients;92347

       (b) Recordkeeping practices.92348

       (3) Be developed and offered by an institution accredited by 92349
the American dental association commission on dental accreditation 92350
or a program provided by a sponsor of continuing education 92351
approved by the board;92352

       (4) Include content that is separate and independent from the 92353
course content required for the completion of dental hygiene 92354
education from an accredited dental hygiene school.92355

       Sec. 4715.39.  (A) The state dental board may define the 92356
duties that may be performed by dental assistants and other 92357
individuals designated by the board as qualified personnel. If 92358
defined, the duties shall be defined in rules adopted in 92359
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. The rules may 92360
include training and practice standards for dental assistants and 92361
other qualified personnel. The standards may include examination 92362
and issuance of a certificate. If the board issues a certificate, 92363
the recipient shall display the certificate in a conspicuous 92364
location in any office in which the recipient is employed to 92365
perform the duties authorized by the certificate.92366

        (B) A dental assistant may polish the clinical crowns of 92367
teeth if all of the following requirements are met:92368

       (1) The dental assistant's polishing activities are limited 92369
to the use of a rubber cup attached to a slow-speed rotary dental 92370
hand piece to remove soft deposits that build up over time on the 92371
crowns of teeth.92372

       (2) The polishing is performed only after a dentist has 92373
evaluated the patient and any calculus detected on the teeth to be 92374
polished has been removed by a dentist or dental hygienist.92375

       (3) The dentist supervising the assistant supervises not more 92376
than two dental assistants engaging in polishing activities at any 92377
given time.92378

       (4) The dental assistant is certified by the dental assisting 92379
national board or the Ohio commission on dental assistant 92380
certification.92381

       (5) The dental assistant receives a certificate from the 92382
board authorizing the assistant to engage in the polishing 92383
activities. The board shall issue the certificate if the 92384
individual has successfully completed training in the polishing of 92385
clinical crowns through a program accredited by the American 92386
dental association commission on dental accreditation or 92387
equivalent training approved by the board. The training shall 92388
include courses in basic dental anatomy and infection control, 92389
followed by a course in coronal polishing that includes didactic, 92390
preclinical, and clinical training; any other training required by 92391
the board; and a skills assessment that includes successful 92392
completion of standardized testing. The board shall adopt rules 92393
pursuant to division (A) of this section establishing standards 92394
for approval of this training.92395

       (C) A dental assistant may apply pit and fissure sealants if 92396
all of the following requirements are met:92397

        (1) A(a) Except as provided in division (C)(1)(b) of this 92398
section, a dentist evaluates the patient and designates the teeth 92399
and surfaces that will benefit from the application of sealant on 92400
the day the application is to be performed;92401

       (b) The requirement in division (C)(1)(a) of this section 92402
does not apply if the director of health makes a determination 92403
authorized by division (A)(1) of section 3701.138 of the Revised 92404
Code.92405

        (2) The dental assistant is certified by the dental assisting 92406
national board or the Ohio commission on dental assistant 92407
certification.92408

        (3) The dental assistant has successfully completed a course 92409
in the application of sealants consisting of at least two hours of 92410
didactic instruction and six hours of clinical instruction through 92411
a program provided by an institution accredited by the American 92412
dental association commission on dental accreditation or a program 92413
provided by a sponsor of continuing education approved by the 92414
board.92415

        (4) The dentist supervising the assistant has observed the 92416
assistant successfully apply at least six sealants.92417

       (5) The dentist supervising the assistant checks and approves 92418
the application of all sealants placed by the assistant before the 92419
patient leaves the location where the sealant application 92420
procedure is performed.92421

       (D) If the director of health establishes a school-based 92422
fluoride mouth rinse program under section 3701.136 of the Revised 92423
Code and makes a determination authorized by division (A)(2) of 92424
section 3701.138 of the Revised Code, a dental assistant who is 92425
certified by the dental assisting national board or the Ohio 92426
commission on dental assistant certification may administer 92427
fluoride mouth rinse to a student under the program when a dentist 92428
is not present and without a dentist first examining the student.92429

        (E) Subject to this section and the applicable rules of the 92430
board, licensed dentists may assign to dental assistants and other 92431
qualified personnel dental procedures that do not require the 92432
professional competence or skill of the licensed dentist, a dental 92433
hygienist, or an expanded function dental auxiliary as this 92434
section or the board by rule authorizes dental assistants and 92435
other qualified personnel to perform. The performance of dental 92436
procedures by dental assistants and other qualified personnel 92437
shall be under direct supervision and full responsibility of the 92438
licensed dentist.92439

       (E)(F) Nothing in this section shall be construed by rule of 92440
the state dental board or otherwise to do the following:92441

       (1) Authorize dental assistants or other qualified personnel 92442
to engage in the practice of dental hygiene as defined by sections 92443
4715.22 and 4715.23 of the Revised Code or to perform the duties 92444
of a dental hygienist, including the removal of calcarious 92445
deposits, dental cement, or accretions on the crowns and roots of 92446
teeth other than as authorized pursuant to this section;92447

       (2) Authorize dental assistants or other qualified personnel 92448
to engage in the practice of an expanded function dental auxiliary 92449
as specified in section 4715.64 of the Revised Code or to perform 92450
the duties of an expanded function dental auxiliary other than as 92451
authorized pursuant to this section.92452

        (3) Authorize the assignment of any of the following:92453

       (a) Diagnosis;92454

       (b) Treatment planning and prescription, including 92455
prescription for drugs and medicaments or authorization for 92456
restorative, prosthodontic, or orthodontic appliances;92457

       (c) Surgical procedures on hard or soft tissue of the oral 92458
cavity, or any other intraoral procedure that contributes to or 92459
results in an irremediable alteration of the oral anatomy;92460

       (d) The making of final impressions from which casts are made 92461
to construct any dental restoration.92462

       (F)(G) No dentist shall assign any dental assistant or other 92463
individual acting in the capacity of qualified personnel to 92464
perform any dental procedure that the assistant or other 92465
individual is not authorized by this section or by board rule to 92466
perform. No dental assistant or other individual acting in the 92467
capacity of qualified personnel shall perform any dental procedure 92468
other than in accordance with this section and any applicable 92469
board rule or any dental procedure that the assistant or other 92470
individual is not authorized by this section or by board rule to 92471
perform.92472

       Sec. 4715.64. (A) The practice of an expanded function dental 92473
auxiliary shall consist of the following:92474

       (1) The procedures involved in the placement of restorative 92475
materials limited to amalgam restorative materials and 92476
non-metallicnonmetallic restorative materials, including 92477
direct-bonded restorative materials;92478

       (2) The procedures involved in the placement of sealants;92479

       (3) Any additional procedures authorized by the state dental 92480
board in rules adopted under section 4715.66 of the Revised Code.92481

       (B)(1) An expanded function dental auxiliary shall practice 92482
under the direct supervision, order, control, and full 92483
responsibility of a dentist licensed under this chapter. At no 92484
time shall more than two expanded function dental auxiliaries be 92485
practicing as expanded function dental auxiliaries under the 92486
direct supervision of the same dentist. AnExcept as provided in 92487
division (B)(2) of this section, an expanded function dental 92488
auxiliary shall not practice as an expanded function dental 92489
auxiliary when the supervising dentist is not physically present 92490
at the location where the expanded function dental auxiliary is 92491
practicing.92492

       (2)(a) If the director of health makes a determination 92493
authorized by division (B)(1) of section 3701.138 of the Revised 92494
Code, an expanded function dental auxiliary may perform the 92495
procedures described in division (A)(2) of this section through a 92496
program operated by a school district board of education or the 92497
governing board of an educational service center if the 92498
supervising dentist is not physically present at the location 92499
where the expanded function dental auxiliary is practicing or a 92500
dentist has not first examined the patient. 92501

       (b) If the director of health establishes a school-based 92502
fluoride mouth rinse program under section 3701.136 of the Revised 92503
Code and makes a determination authorized by division (B)(2) of 92504
section 3701.138 of the Revised Code, an expanded function dental 92505
auxiliary may administer fluoride mouth rinse to a student under 92506
the program when the supervising dentist is not physically present 92507
at the location where the expanded function dental auxiliary is 92508
practicing or a dentist has not first examined the patient.92509

        (C) Nothing in this section shall be construed by rule of the 92510
board or otherwise to authorize an expanded function dental 92511
auxiliary to engage in the practice of dental hygiene as defined 92512
by sections 4715.22 and 4715.23 of the Revised Code.92513

       Sec. 4717.03.  (A) Members of the board of embalmers and 92514
funeral directors shall annually in July, or within thirty days 92515
after the senate's confirmation of the new members appointed in 92516
that year, meet and organize by selecting from among its members a 92517
president, vice-president, and secretary-treasurer. The board may 92518
hold other meetings as it determines necessary. A quorum of the 92519
board consists of four members, of whom at least three shall be 92520
members who are embalmers and funeral directors. The concurrence 92521
of at least four members is necessary for the board to take any 92522
action. The president and secretary-treasurer shall sign all 92523
licenses issued under this chapter and affix the board's seal to 92524
each license.92525

       (B) The board may appoint an individual who is not a member 92526
of the board to serve as executive director of the board. The 92527
board shall fix the compensation of the executive director. The 92528
executive director serves at the pleasure of the board and shall 92529
do all of the following:92530

       (1) Serve as the board's chief administrative officer;92531

       (2) Act as custodian of the board's records;92532

       (3) Execute all of the board's orders;92533

       (4) Employ staff who are not members of the board and who 92534
serve at the pleasure of the executive director to provide any 92535
assistance that the board considers necessary;92536

       (5) Fix the compensation of staff employed pursuant to 92537
division (B)(4) of this section.92538

       (C) In executing the board's orders as required by division 92539
(B)(3) of this section, the executive director may enter the 92540
premises, establishment, office, or place of business of any 92541
embalmer, funeral director, or operator of a crematory facility in 92542
this state. The executive director may serve and execute any 92543
process issued by any court under this chapter.92544

       (C) The board may employ clerical or technical staff who are 92545
not members of the board and who serve at the pleasure of the 92546
board to provide any clerical or technical assistance the board 92547
considers necessary.(D) The boardexecutive director may employ 92548
necessary inspectors, who shall be licensed embalmers and funeral 92549
directors. AnyAn inspector employed by the boardexecutive 92550
director may enter the premises, establishment, office, or place 92551
of business of any embalmer, funeral director, or operator of a 92552
crematory facility in this state, for the purposes of inspecting 92553
the facility and premises; the license and registration of 92554
embalmers and funeral directors operating in the facility; and the 92555
license of the funeral home, embalming facility, or crematory. The 92556
inspector shall serve and execute any process issued by any court 92557
under this chapter, serve and execute any papers or process issued 92558
by the board or any officer or member of the board,facility and 92559
perform any other duties delegated to the inspector by the board 92560
or assigned to the inspector by the executive director. The 92561
executive director may enter the facility or premises of a funeral 92562
home, embalming facility, or crematory for the purpose of an 92563
inspection if accompanied by an inspector or, if an inspector is 92564
not available, when a situation presents a danger of immediate and 92565
serious harm to the public.92566

       (D)(E) The president of the board shall designate three of 92567
itsthe board's members to serve on the crematory review board, 92568
which is hereby created, for such time as the president finds 92569
appropriate to carry out the provisions of this chapter. Those 92570
members of the crematory review board designated by the president 92571
to serve and three members designated by the cemetery dispute 92572
resolution commission shall designate, by a majority vote, one 92573
person who is experienced in the operation of a crematory facility 92574
and who is not affiliated with a cemetery or a funeral home to 92575
serve on the crematory review board for such time as the crematory 92576
review board finds appropriate. Members serving on the crematory 92577
review board shall not receive any additional compensation for 92578
serving on the board, but may be reimbursed for their actual and 92579
necessary expenses incurred in the performance of official duties 92580
as members of the board. Members of the crematory review board 92581
shall designate one from among its members to serve as a 92582
chairperson for such time as the board finds appropriate. Costs 92583
associated with conducting an adjudicatory hearing in accordance 92584
with division (E)(F) of this section shall be paid from funds 92585
available to the board of embalmers and funeral directors.92586

       (E)(F) Upon receiving written notice from the board of 92587
embalmers and funeral directors of any of the following, the 92588
crematory review board shall conduct an adjudicatory hearing on 92589
the matter in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 92590
except as otherwise provided in this section or division (C) of 92591
section 4717.14 of the Revised Code:92592

       (1) Notice provided under division (H)(I) of this section of 92593
an alleged violation of any provision of this chapter or any rules 92594
adopted under this chapter governing or in connection with 92595
crematory facilities or cremation;92596

       (2) Notice provided under division (B) of section 4717.14 of 92597
the Revised Code that the board of embalmers and funeral directors 92598
proposes to refuse to grant or renew, or to suspend or revoke, a 92599
license to operate a crematory facility;92600

       (3) Notice provided under division (C) of section 4717.14 of 92601
the Revised Code that the board of embalmers and funeral directors 92602
has issued an order summarily suspending a license to operate a 92603
crematory facility;92604

       (4) Notice provided under division (B) of section 4717.15 of 92605
the Revised Code that the board of embalmers and funeral directors 92606
proposes to issue a notice of violation and order requiring 92607
payment of a forfeiture for any violation described in divisions 92608
(A)(9)(a) to (g) of section 4717.04 of the Revised Code alleged in 92609
connection with a crematory facility or cremation.92610

       Nothing in division (E)(F) of this section precludes the 92611
crematory review board from appointing an independent examiner in 92612
accordance with section 119.09 of the Revised Code to conduct any 92613
adjudication hearing required under division (E)(F) of this 92614
section.92615

       The crematory review board shall submit a written report of 92616
findings and advisory recommendations, and a written transcript of 92617
its proceedings, to the board of embalmers and funeral directors. 92618
The board of embalmers and funeral directors shall serve a copy of 92619
the written report of the crematory review board's findings and 92620
advisory recommendations on the party to the adjudication or the 92621
party's attorney, by certified mail, within five days after 92622
receiving the report and advisory recommendations. A party may 92623
file objections to the written report with the board of embalmers 92624
and funeral directors within ten days after receiving the report. 92625
No written report is final or appealable until it is issued as a 92626
final order by the board of embalmers and funeral directors and 92627
entered on the record of the proceedings. The board of embalmers 92628
and funeral directors shall consider objections filed by the party 92629
prior to issuing a final order. After reviewing the findings and 92630
advisory recommendations of the crematory review board, the 92631
written transcript of the crematory review board's proceedings, 92632
and any objections filed by a party, the board of embalmers and 92633
funeral directors shall issue a final order in the matter. Any 92634
party may appeal the final order issued by the board of embalmers 92635
and funeral directors in a matter described in divisions (E)(F)(1) 92636
to (4) of this section in accordance with section 119.12 of the 92637
Revised Code, except that the appeal may be made to the court of 92638
common pleas in the county in which is located the crematory 92639
facility to which the final order pertains, or in the county in 92640
which the party resides.92641

       (F)(G) On its own initiative or on receiving a written 92642
complaint from any person whose identity is made known to the 92643
board of embalmers and funeral directors, the board shall 92644
investigate the acts or practices of any person holding or 92645
claiming to hold a license or registration under this chapter 92646
that, if proven to have occurred, would violate this chapter or 92647
any rules adopted under it. The board may compel witnesses by 92648
subpoena to appear and testify in relation to investigations 92649
conducted under this chapter and may require by subpoena duces 92650
tecum the production of any book, paper, or document pertaining to 92651
an investigation. If a person does not comply with a subpoena or 92652
subpoena duces tecum, the board may apply to the court of common 92653
pleas of any county in this state for an order compelling the 92654
person to comply with the subpoena or subpoena duces tecum, or for 92655
failure to do so, to be held in contempt of court.92656

       (G)(H) If, as a result of its investigation conducted under 92657
division (F)(G) of this section, the board of embalmers and 92658
funeral directors has reasonable cause to believe that the person 92659
investigated is violating any provision of this chapter or any 92660
rules adopted under this chapter governing or in connection with 92661
embalming, funeral directing, funeral homes, embalming facilities, 92662
or the operation of funeral homes or embalming facilities, it may, 92663
after providing the opportunity for an adjudicatory hearing, issue 92664
an order directing the person to cease the acts or practices that 92665
constitute the violation. The board shall conduct the adjudicatory 92666
hearing in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code except 92667
that, notwithstanding the provisions of that chapter, the 92668
following shall apply:92669

       (1) The board shall send the notice informing the person of 92670
the person's right to a hearing by certified mail.92671

       (2) The person is entitled to a hearing only if the person 92672
requests a hearing and if the board receives the request within 92673
thirty days after the mailing of the notice described in division 92674
(G)(H)(1) of this section.92675

       (3) A stenographic record shall be taken, in the manner 92676
prescribed in section 119.09 of the Revised Code, at every 92677
adjudicatory hearing held under this section, regardless of 92678
whether the record may be the basis of an appeal to a court.92679

       (H)(I) If, as a result of its investigation conducted under 92680
division (F)(G) of this section, the board of embalmers and 92681
funeral directors has reasonable cause to believe that the person 92682
investigated is violating any provision of this chapter or any 92683
rules adopted under this chapter governing or in connection with 92684
crematory facilities or cremation, the board shall send written 92685
notice of the alleged violation to the crematory review board. If, 92686
after the conclusion of the adjudicatory hearing in the matter 92687
conducted under division (E)(F) of this section, the board of 92688
embalmers and funeral directors finds that a person is in 92689
violation of any provision of this chapter or any rules adopted 92690
under this chapter governing or in connection with crematory 92691
facilities or cremation, the board may issue a final order under 92692
that division directing the person to cease the acts or practices 92693
that constitute the violation.92694

       (I)(J) The board of embalmers and funeral directors may bring 92695
a civil action to enjoin any violation or threatened violation of 92696
sections 4717.01 to 4717.15 of the Revised Code or a rule adopted 92697
under any of those sections; division (A) or (B) of section 92698
4717.23; division (B)(1) or (2), (C)(1) or (2), (D), (E), or 92699
(F)(1) or (2), or divisions (H) to (K) of section 4717.26; 92700
division (D)(1) of section 4717.27; divisions (A) to (C) of 92701
section 4717.28, or division (D) or (E) of section 4717.31 of the 92702
Revised Code. The action shall be brought in the county where the 92703
violation occurred or the threatened violation is expected to 92704
occur. At the request of the board, the attorney general shall 92705
represent the board in any matter arising under this chapter.92706

       (J)(K) The board of embalmers and funeral directors and the 92707
crematory review board may issue subpoenas for funeral directors 92708
and embalmers or persons holding themselves out as such, for 92709
operators of crematory facilities or persons holding themselves 92710
out as such, or for any other person whose testimony, in the 92711
opinion of either board, is necessary. The subpoena shall require 92712
the person to appear before the appropriate board or any 92713
designated member of either board, upon any hearing conducted 92714
under this chapter. The penalty for disobedience to the command of 92715
such a subpoena is the same as for refusal to answer such a 92716
process issued under authority of the court of common pleas.92717

       (K)(L) All moneys received by the board of embalmers and 92718
funeral directors from any source shall be deposited in the state 92719
treasury to the credit of the occupational licensing and 92720
regulatory fund created in section 4743.05 of the Revised Code.92721

       (L)(M) The board of embalmers and funeral directors shall 92722
submit a written report to the governor on or before the first 92723
Monday of July of each year. This report shall contain a detailed 92724
statement of the nature and amount of the board's receipts and the 92725
amount and manner of its expenditures.92726

       Sec. 4717.06.  (A)(1) Any person who desires to obtain a 92727
license to operate a funeral home, embalming facility, or 92728
crematory facility shall apply to the board of embalmers and 92729
funeral directors on a form provided by the board. The application 92730
shall include the initial license fee set forth in section 4717.07 92731
of the Revised Code and proof satisfactory to the board that the 92732
funeral home, embalming facility, or crematory facility is in 92733
compliance with rules adopted by the board under section 4717.04 92734
of the Revised Code, rules adopted by the board of building 92735
standards under Chapter 3781. of the Revised Code, and all other 92736
federal, state, and local requirements relating to the safety of 92737
the premises.92738

       (2) If the funeral home, embalming facility, or crematory 92739
facility to which the license application pertains is owned by a 92740
corporation or limited liability company, the application shall 92741
include the name and address of the corporation's or limited 92742
liability company's statutory agent appointed under section 92743
1701.07 or 1705.06 of the Revised Code or, in the case of a 92744
foreign corporation, the corporation's designated agent appointed 92745
under section 1703.041 of the Revised Code. If the funeral home, 92746
embalming facility, or crematory facility to which the application 92747
pertains is owned by a partnership, the application shall include 92748
the name and address of each of the partners. If, at any time 92749
after the submission of a license application or issuance of a 92750
license, the statutory or designated agent of a corporation or 92751
limited liability company owning a funeral home, embalming 92752
facility, or crematory facility or the address of the statutory or 92753
designated agent changes or, in the case of a partnership, any of 92754
the partners of the funeral home, embalming facility, or crematory 92755
facility or the address of any of the partners changes, the 92756
applicant for or holder of the license to operate the funeral 92757
home, embalming facility, or crematory facility shall submit 92758
written notice to the board, within thirty days after the change, 92759
informing the board of the change and of any name or address of a 92760
statutory or designated agent or partner that has changed from 92761
that contained in the application for the license or the most 92762
recent notice submitted under division (A)(2) of this section.92763

       (B)(1) The board shall issue a license to operate a funeral 92764
home only for the address at which the funeral home is operated. 92765
The funeral home license and licenses of the embalmers and funeral 92766
directors employed by the funeral home shall be displayed in a 92767
conspicuous place within the funeral home.92768

       (2) The funeral home shall have on the premises one of the 92769
following:92770

       (a) If embalming will take place at the funeral home, an 92771
embalming room that is adequately equipped and maintained. The 92772
embalming room shall be kept in a clean and sanitary manner and 92773
used only for the embalming, preparation, or holding of dead human 92774
bodies. The embalming room shall contain only the articles, 92775
facilities, and instruments necessary for those purposes.92776

       (b) If embalming will not take place at the funeral home, a 92777
holding room that is adequately equipped and maintained. The 92778
holding room shall be kept in a clean and sanitary manner and used 92779
only for the preparation, other than embalming, and holding of 92780
dead human bodies. The holding room shall contain only the 92781
articles and facilities necessary for those purposes.92782

       (3) Except as provided in division (B) of section 4717.11 of 92783
the Revised Code, a funeral home shall be established and operated 92784
only under the name of a holder of a funeral director's license 92785
issued by the board who is actually in charge of and ultimately 92786
responsible for the funeral home, and a funeral home license shall 92787
not include directional or geographical references in the name of 92788
the funeral home. The holder of the funeral home license shall be 92789
a funeral director licensed under this chapter who is actually in 92790
charge of and ultimately responsible for the funeral home. Nothing 92791
in division (B)(3) of this section prohibits the holder of a 92792
funeral home license from including directional or geographical 92793
references in promotional or advertising materials identifying the 92794
location of the funeral home.92795

       (4) Each funeral home shall be directly supervised by a 92796
funeral director licensed under this chapter, who shallmay92797
supervise onlymore than one funeral home.92798

       (C)(1) The board shall issue a license to operate an 92799
embalming facility only for the address at which the embalming 92800
facility is operated. The license shall be displayed in a 92801
conspicuous place within the facility.92802

       (2) The embalming facility shall be adequately equipped and 92803
maintained in a sanitary manner. The embalming room at such a 92804
facility shall contain only the articles, facilities, and 92805
instruments necessary for its stated purpose. The embalming room 92806
shall be kept in a clean and sanitary condition and used only for 92807
the care and preparation of dead human bodies.92808

       (3) An embalming facility license shall be issued only to an 92809
embalmer licensed under division (B) of section 4717.05 of the 92810
Revised Code, who is actually in charge of the facility.92811

       (D)(1) The board shall issue a license to operate a crematory 92812
facility only for the address at which the crematory facility is 92813
located and operated. The license shall be displayed in a 92814
conspicuous place within the crematory facility.92815

       (2) The crematory facility shall be adequately equipped and 92816
maintained in a clean and sanitary manner. The crematory facility 92817
may be located in a funeral home, embalming facility, cemetery 92818
building, or other building in which the crematory facility may 92819
lawfully operate. If a crematory facility engages in the cremation 92820
of animals, the crematory facility shall cremate animals in a 92821
cremation chamber that also is not used to cremate dead human 92822
bodies or human body parts and shall not cremate animals in a 92823
cremation chamber used for the cremation of dead human bodies and 92824
human body parts. Cremation chambers that are used for the 92825
cremation of dead human bodies or human body parts and cremation 92826
chambers used for the cremation of animals may be located in the 92827
same area. 92828

       (3) A license to operate a crematory facility shall be issued 92829
to the person actually in charge of the crematory facility. This 92830
section does not require the individual who is actually in charge 92831
of the crematory facility to be an embalmer or funeral director 92832
licensed under this chapter.92833

       (4) Nothing in this section or rules adopted under section 92834
4717.04 of the Revised Code precludes the establishment and 92835
operation of a crematory facility on or adjacent to the property 92836
on which a cemetery, funeral home, or embalming facility is 92837
located.92838

       Sec. 4717.07.  (A) The board of embalmers and funeral 92839
directors shall charge and collect the following fees:92840

       (1) For the initial issuance or biennial renewal of an 92841
embalmer's or funeral director's license, one hundred fortyfifty92842
dollars;92843

       (2) For the issuance of an embalmer or funeral director 92844
registration, twenty-five dollars;92845

       (3) For filing an embalmer or funeral director certificate of 92846
apprenticeship, ten dollars;92847

       (4) For the application to take the examination for a license 92848
to practice as an embalmer or funeral director, or to retake a 92849
section of the examination, thirty-five dollars;92850

       (5) For the initial issuance of a license to operate a 92851
funeral home, twothree hundred fifty dollars and biennial renewal 92852
of a license to operate a funeral home, twothree hundred fifty 92853
dollars;92854

       (6) For the reinstatement of a lapsed embalmer's or funeral 92855
director's license, the renewal fee prescribed in division (A)(1) 92856
of this section plus fifty dollars for each month or portion of a 92857
month the license is lapsed until reinstatement, but not more than 92858
one thousand dollars;92859

       (7) For the reinstatement of a lapsed license to operate a 92860
funeral home, the renewal fee prescribed in division (A)(5) of 92861
this section plus fifty dollars for each month or portion of a 92862
month the license is lapsed until reinstatement;92863

       (8) For the initial issuance of a license to operate an 92864
embalming facility, twothree hundred fifty dollars and biennial 92865
renewal of a license to operate an embalming facility, twothree92866
hundred fifty dollars;92867

       (9) For the reinstatement of a lapsed license to operate an 92868
embalming facility, the renewal fee prescribed in division (A)(8) 92869
of this section plus fifty dollars for each month or portion of a 92870
month the license is lapsed until reinstatement;92871

       (10) For the initial issuance of a license to operate a 92872
crematory facility, twothree hundred fifty dollars and biennial 92873
renewal of a license to operate a crematory facility, twothree92874
hundred fifty dollars;92875

       (11) For the reinstatement of a lapsed license to operate a 92876
crematory facility, the renewal fee prescribed in division (A)(10) 92877
of this section plus fifty dollars for each month or portion of a 92878
month the license is lapsed until reinstatement;92879

       (12) For the issuance of a duplicate of a license issued 92880
under this chapter, fourten dollars.92881

       (B) In addition to the fees set forth in division (A) of this 92882
section, an applicant shall pay the examination fee assessed by 92883
any examining agency the board uses for any section of an 92884
examination required under this chapter.92885

       (C) Subject to the approval of the controlling board, the 92886
board of embalmers and funeral directors may establish fees in 92887
excess of the amounts set forth in this section, provided that 92888
these fees do not exceed the amounts set forth in this section by 92889
more than fifty per cent.92890

       Sec. 4717.10.  (A) The board of embalmers and funeral 92891
directors may recognize licenses issued to embalmers and funeral 92892
directors by other states, and upon presentation of such licenses, 92893
may issue to the holder an embalmer's or funeral director's 92894
license under this chapter. The board shall charge the same fee as 92895
prescribed in section 4717.07 of the Revised Code to issue or 92896
renew such an embalmer's or funeral director's license. Such 92897
licenses shall be renewed annuallybiennially as provided in 92898
section 4717.08 of the Revised Code. The board shall not issue a 92899
license to any person under this section unless the applicant 92900
proves that the applicant, in the state in which the applicant is 92901
licensed, has complied with requirements substantially equal to 92902
those established in section 4717.05 of the Revised Code.92903

       (B) The board of embalmers and funeral directors may issue 92904
courtesy cards. A courtesy cardholder shall be authorized to 92905
undertake both the following acts in this state:92906

       (1) Prepare and complete those sections of a death 92907
certificate and other permits needed for disposition of deceased 92908
human remains in this state and sign and file such death 92909
certificates and permits;92910

       (2) Supervise and conduct funeral ceremonies and interments 92911
in this state.92912

       (C) The board of embalmers and funeral directors may 92913
determine under what conditions a courtesy card may be issued to 92914
funeral directors in bordering states after taking into account 92915
whether and under what conditions and fees such border states 92916
issue similar courtesy cards to funeral directors licensed in this 92917
state. Applicants for courtesy cards shall apply on forms 92918
prescribed by the board, pay an annuala biennial fee set by the 92919
board for initial applications and renewals, and adhere to such 92920
other requirements imposed by the board on courtesy cardholders.92921

       (D) No courtesy cardholder shall be authorized to undertake 92922
any of the following activities in this state:92923

       (1) Arranging funerals or disposition services with members 92924
of the public in this state;92925

       (2) Be employed by or under contract to a funeral home 92926
licensed in this state to perform funeral services in this state;92927

       (3) Advertise funeral or disposition services in this state;92928

       (4) Enter into or execute funeral or disposition contracts in 92929
this state;92930

       (5) Prepare or embalm deceased human remains in this state;92931

       (6) Arrange for or carry out the disinterment of human 92932
remains in this state.92933

       (E) As used in this section, "courtesy card" means a special 92934
permit that may be issued to a funeral director licensed in a 92935
state that borders this state and who does not hold a funeral 92936
director's license under this chapter.92937

       Sec. 4717.14.  (A) The board of embalmers and funeral 92938
directors may refuse to grant or renew, or may suspend or revoke, 92939
any license issued under this chapter or may require the holder of 92940
a license to take corrective action courses for any of the 92941
following reasons:92942

       (1) The license was obtained by fraud or misrepresentation 92943
either in the application or in passing the examination.92944

       (2) The applicant or licensee has been convicted of or has 92945
pleaded guilty to a felony or of any crime involving moral 92946
turpitude.92947

       (3) The applicant or licensee has purposely violated any 92948
provision of sections 4717.01 to 4717.15 or a rule adopted under 92949
any of those sections; division (A) or (B) of section 4717.23; 92950
division (B)(1) or (2), (C)(1) or (2), (D), (E), or (F)(1) or (2), 92951
or divisions (H) to (K) of section 4717.26; division (D)(1) of 92952
section 4717.27; or divisions (A) to (C) of section 4717.28 of the 92953
Revised Code; any rule or order of the department of health or a 92954
board of health of a health district governing the disposition of 92955
dead human bodies; or any other rule or order applicable to the 92956
applicant or licensee.92957

       (4) The applicant or licensee has committed immoral or 92958
unprofessional conduct.92959

       (5) The applicant or licensee knowingly permitted an 92960
unlicensed person, other than a person serving an apprenticeship, 92961
to engage in the profession or business of embalming or funeral 92962
directing under the applicant's or licensee's supervision.92963

       (6) The applicant or licensee has been habitually 92964
intoxicated, or is addicted to the use of morphine, cocaine, or 92965
other habit-forming or illegal drugs.92966

       (7) The applicant or licensee has refused to promptly submit 92967
the custody of a dead human body upon the express order of the 92968
person legally entitled to the body.92969

       (8) The licensee loaned the licensee's own license, or the 92970
applicant or licensee borrowed or used the license of another 92971
person, or knowingly aided or abetted the granting of an improper 92972
license.92973

       (9) The applicant or licensee transferred a license to 92974
operate a funeral home, embalming facility, or crematory from one 92975
owner or operator to another, or from one location to another, 92976
without notifying the board.92977

       (10) The applicant or licensee misled the public by using 92978
false or deceptive advertising.92979

       (B)(1) The board of embalmers and funeral directors shall 92980
refuse to grant or renew, or shall suspend or revoke, an 92981
embalmer's, funeral director's, funeral home, or embalming 92982
facility license only in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 92983
Revised Code.92984

       (2) The board shall send to the crematory review board 92985
written notice that it proposes to refuse to issue or renew, or 92986
proposes to suspend or revoke, a license to operate a crematory 92987
facility. If, after the conclusion of the adjudicatory hearing on 92988
the matter conducted under division (E)(F) of section 4717.03 of 92989
the Revised Code, the board of embalmers and funeral directors 92990
finds that any of the circumstances described in divisions (A)(1) 92991
to (10) of this section apply to the person named in its proposed 92992
action, the board may issue a final order under division (E)(F) of 92993
section 4717.03 of the Revised Code refusing to issue or renew, or 92994
suspending or revoking, the person's license to operate a 92995
crematory facility.92996

       (C) If the board of embalmers and funeral directors 92997
determines that there is clear and convincing evidence that any of 92998
the circumstances described in divisions (A)(1) to (10) of this 92999
section apply to the holder of a license issued under this chapter 93000
and that the licensee's continued practice presents a danger of 93001
immediate and serious harm to the public, the board may suspend 93002
the licensee's license without a prior adjudicatory hearing. The 93003
executive director of the board shall prepare written allegations 93004
for consideration by the board.93005

       The board, after reviewing the written allegations, may 93006
suspend a license without a prior hearing.93007

       The board shall issue a written order of suspension by a 93008
delivery system or in person in accordance with section 119.07 of 93009
the Revised Code. Such an order is not subject to suspension by 93010
the court during the pendency of any appeal filed under section 93011
119.12 of the Revised Code. If the holder of an embalmer's, 93012
funeral director's, funeral home, or embalming facility license 93013
requests an adjudicatory hearing by the board, the date set for 93014
the hearing shall be within fifteen days, but not earlier than 93015
seven days, after the licensee has requested a hearing, unless the 93016
board and the licensee agree to a different time for holding the 93017
hearing.93018

       Upon issuing a written order of suspension to the holder of a 93019
license to operate a crematory facility, the board of embalmers 93020
and funeral directors shall send written notice of the issuance of 93021
the order to the crematory review board. The crematory review 93022
board shall hold an adjudicatory hearing on the order under 93023
division (E)(F) of section 4717.03 of the Revised Code within 93024
fifteen days, but not earlier than seven days, after the issuance 93025
of the order, unless the crematory review board and the licensee 93026
agree to a different time for holding the adjudicatory hearing.93027

       Any summary suspension imposed under this division shall 93028
remain in effect, unless reversed on appeal, until a final 93029
adjudicatory order issued by the board of embalmers and funeral 93030
directors pursuant to this division and Chapter 119. of the 93031
Revised Code, or division (E)(F) of section 4717.03 of the Revised 93032
Code, as applicable, becomes effective. The board of embalmers and 93033
funeral directors shall issue its final adjudicatory order within 93034
sixty days after the completion of its hearing or, in the case of 93035
the summary suspension of a license to operate a crematory 93036
facility, within sixty days after completion of the adjudicatory 93037
hearing by the crematory review board. A failure to issue the 93038
order within that time results in the dissolution of the summary 93039
suspension order, but does not invalidate any subsequent final 93040
adjudicatory order.93041

       (D) If the board of embalmers and funeral directors suspends 93042
or revokes a license held by a funeral director or a funeral home 93043
for any reason identified in division (A) of this section, the 93044
board may file a complaint with the court of common pleas in the 93045
county where the violation occurred requesting appointment of a 93046
receiver and the sequestration of the assets of the funeral home 93047
that held the suspended or revoked license or the licensed funeral 93048
home that employs the funeral director that held the suspended or 93049
revoked license. If the court of common pleas is satisfied with 93050
the application for a receivership, the court may appoint a 93051
receiver.93052

       The board or a receiver may employ and procure whatever 93053
assistance or advice is necessary in the receivership or 93054
liquidation and distribution of the assets of the funeral home, 93055
and, for that purpose, may retain officers or employees of the 93056
funeral home as needed. All expenses of the receivership or 93057
liquidation shall be paid from the assets of the funeral home and 93058
shall be a lien on those assets, and that lien shall be a priority 93059
to any other lien.93060

       (E) Any holder of a license issued under this chapter who has 93061
pleaded guilty to, has been found by a judge or jury to be guilty 93062
of, or has had a judicial finding of eligibility for treatment in 93063
lieu of conviction entered against the individual in this state 93064
for aggravated murder, murder, voluntary manslaughter, felonious 93065
assault, kidnapping, rape, sexual battery, gross sexual 93066
imposition, aggravated arson, aggravated robbery, or aggravated 93067
burglary, or who has pleaded guilty to, has been found by a judge 93068
or jury to be guilty of, or has had a judicial finding of 93069
eligibility for treatment in lieu of conviction entered against 93070
the individual in another jurisdiction for any substantially 93071
equivalent criminal offense, is hereby suspended from practice 93072
under this chapter by operation of law, and any license issued to 93073
the individual under this chapter is hereby suspended by operation 93074
of law as of the date of the guilty plea, verdict or finding of 93075
guilt, or judicial finding of eligibility for treatment in lieu of 93076
conviction, regardless of whether the proceedings are brought in 93077
this state or another jurisdiction. The board shall notify the 93078
suspended individual of the suspension of the individual's license 93079
by the operation of this division by a delivery system or in 93080
person in accordance with section 119.07 of the Revised Code. If 93081
an individual whose license is suspended under this division fails 93082
to make a timely request for an adjudicatory hearing, the board 93083
shall enter a final order revoking the license.93084

       (F) No person whose license has been suspended or revoked 93085
under or by the operation of this section shall practice embalming 93086
or funeral directing or operate a funeral home, embalming 93087
facility, or crematory facility until the board has reinstated the 93088
person's license.93089

       Sec. 4717.15.  (A) The board of embalmers and funeral 93090
directors, without the necessity for conducting a prior 93091
adjudication hearing, may issue a notice of violation to the 93092
holder of an embalmer's, funeral director's, funeral home, or 93093
embalming facility license issued under this chapter who the board 93094
finds has committed any of the violations described in divisions 93095
(A)(9)(a) to (g) of section 4717.04 of the Revised Code. The 93096
notice shall set forth the specific violation committed by the 93097
licensee and shall be sent by certified mail. The notice shall be 93098
accompanied by an order requiring the payment of the appropriate 93099
forfeiture prescribed in rules adopted under division (A)(9) of 93100
section 4717.04 of the Revised Code and by a notice informing the 93101
licensee that the licensee is entitled to an adjudicatory hearing 93102
on the notice of violation and order if the licensee requests a 93103
hearing and if the board receives the request within thirty days 93104
after the mailing of the notice of violation and order. The board 93105
shall conduct any such adjudicatory hearing in accordance with 93106
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, except as otherwise provided in 93107
this division.93108

       A licensee who receives a notice of violation and order under 93109
this division shall pay to the executive director of the board the 93110
full amount of the forfeiture by certified check within thirty 93111
days after the notice of violation and order were mailed to the 93112
licensee unless, within that time, the licensee submits a request 93113
for an adjudicatory hearing on the notice of violation and order. 93114
If such a request for an adjudicatory hearing is timely filed, the 93115
licensee need not pay the forfeiture to the executive director 93116
until after a final, nonappealable administrative or judicial 93117
decision is rendered on the order requiring payment of the 93118
forfeiture. If a final nonappealable administrative or judicial 93119
decision is rendered affirming the board's order, the licensee 93120
shall pay to the executive director of the board the full amount 93121
of the forfeiture by certified check within thirty days after 93122
notice of the decision was sent to the licensee. A forfeiture is 93123
considered to be paid when the licensee's certified check is 93124
received by the executive director in Columbus. If the licensee 93125
fails to so pay the full amount of the forfeiture to the executive 93126
director within that time, the board shall issue an order 93127
suspending or revoking the individual's license, as the board 93128
considers appropriate.93129

       (B) The board shall send to the crematory review board 93130
written notice that it proposes to issue to the holder of a 93131
license to operate a crematory facility issued under this chapter 93132
a notice of violation and order requiring payment of a forfeiture 93133
specified in rules adopted under division (A)(9) of section 93134
4717.04 of the Revised Code. If, after the conclusion of the 93135
adjudicatory hearing on the matter conducted under division (E)(F)93136
of section 4717.03 of the Revised Code, the board of embalmers and 93137
funeral directors finds that the licensee has committed any of the 93138
violations described in divisions (A)(9)(a) to (g) of section 93139
4717.04 of the Revised Code in connection with the operation of a 93140
crematory facility or cremation, the board of embalmers and 93141
funeral directors may issue a final order under division (E)(F) of 93142
section 4717.03 of the Revised Code requiring payment of the 93143
appropriate forfeiture specified in rules adopted under division 93144
(A)(9) of section 4717.04 of the Revised Code. A licensee who 93145
receives such an order shall pay the full amount of the forfeiture 93146
to the executive director by certified check within thirty days 93147
after the order was sent to the licensee unless, within that time, 93148
the licensee files a notice of appeal in accordance with division93149
(E)(F) of section 4717.03 and section 119.12 of the Revised Code. 93150
If such a notice of appeal is timely filed, the licensee need not 93151
pay the forfeiture to the executive director until after a final, 93152
nonappealable judicial decision is rendered in the appeal. If a 93153
final, nonappealable judicial decision is rendered affirming the 93154
board's order, the licensee shall pay to the executive director 93155
the full amount of the forfeiture by certified check within thirty 93156
days after notice of the decision was sent to the licensee. A 93157
forfeiture is considered paid when the licensee's certified check 93158
is received by the executive director in Columbus. If the licensee 93159
fails to so pay the full amount of the forfeiture to the executive 93160
director within that time, the board shall issue an order 93161
suspending or revoking the individual's license, as the board 93162
considers appropriate.93163

       Sec. 4719.01.  (A) As used in sections 4719.01 to 4719.18 of 93164
the Revised Code:93165

       (1) "Affiliate" means a business entity that is owned by, 93166
operated by, controlled by, or under common control with another 93167
business entity.93168

       (2) "Communication" means a written or oral notification or 93169
advertisement that meets both of the following criteria, as 93170
applicable:93171

       (a) The notification or advertisement is transmitted by or on 93172
behalf of the seller of goods or services and by or through any 93173
printed, audio, video, cinematic, telephonic, or electronic means.93174

       (b) In the case of a notification or advertisement other than 93175
by telephone, either of the following conditions is met:93176

       (i) The notification or advertisement is followed by a 93177
telephone call from a telephone solicitor or salesperson.93178

       (ii) The notification or advertisement invites a response by 93179
telephone, and, during the course of that response, a telephone 93180
solicitor or salesperson attempts to make or makes a sale of goods 93181
or services. As used in division (A)(2)(b)(ii) of this section, 93182
"invites a response by telephone" excludes the mere listing or 93183
inclusion of a telephone number in a notification or 93184
advertisement.93185

       (3) "Gift, award, or prize" means anything of value that is 93186
offered or purportedly offered, or given or purportedly given by 93187
chance, at no cost to the receiver and with no obligation to 93188
purchase goods or services. As used in this division, "chance" 93189
includes a situation in which a person is guaranteed to receive an 93190
item and, at the time of the offer or purported offer, the 93191
telephone solicitor does not identify the specific item that the 93192
person will receive.93193

       (4) "Goods or services" means any real property or any 93194
tangible or intangible personal property, or services of any kind 93195
provided or offered to a person. "Goods or services" includes, but 93196
is not limited to, advertising; labor performed for the benefit of 93197
a person; personal property intended to be attached to or 93198
installed in any real property, regardless of whether it is so 93199
attached or installed; timeshare estates or licenses; and extended 93200
service contracts.93201

       (5) "Purchaser" means a person that is solicited to become or 93202
does become financially obligated as a result of a telephone 93203
solicitation.93204

       (6) "Salesperson" means an individual who is employed, 93205
appointed, or authorized by a telephone solicitor to make 93206
telephone solicitations but does not mean any of the following:93207

       (a) An individual who comes within one of the exemptions in 93208
division (B) of this section;93209

       (b) An individual employed, appointed, or authorized by a 93210
person who comes within one of the exemptions in division (B) of 93211
this section;93212

       (c) An individual under a written contract with a person who 93213
comes within one of the exemptions in division (B) of this 93214
section, if liability for all transactions with purchasers is 93215
assumed by the person so exempted.93216

       (7) "Telephone solicitation" means a communication to a 93217
person that meets both of the following criteria:93218

       (a) The communication is initiated by or on behalf of a 93219
telephone solicitor or by a salesperson.93220

       (b) The communication either represents a price or the 93221
quality or availability of goods or services or is used to induce 93222
the person to purchase goods or services, including, but not 93223
limited to, inducement through the offering of a gift, award, or 93224
prize.93225

       (8) "Telephone solicitor" means a person that engages in 93226
telephone solicitation directly or through one or more 93227
salespersons either from a location in this state, or from a 93228
location outside this state to persons in this state. "Telephone 93229
solicitor" includes, but is not limited to, any such person that 93230
is an owner, operator, officer, or director of, partner in, or 93231
other individual engaged in the management activities of, a 93232
business.93233

       (B) A telephone solicitor is exempt from the provisions of 93234
sections 4719.02 to 4719.18 and section 4719.99 of the Revised 93235
Code if the telephone solicitor is any one of the following:93236

       (1) A person engaging in a telephone solicitation that is a 93237
one-time or infrequent transaction not done in the course of a 93238
pattern of repeated transactions of a like nature;93239

       (2) A person engaged in telephone solicitation solely for 93240
religious or political purposes; a charitable organization, 93241
fund-raising counsel, or professional solicitor in compliance with 93242
the registration and reporting requirements of Chapter 1716. of 93243
the Revised Code; or any person or other entity exempt under 93244
section 1716.03 of the Revised Code from filing a registration 93245
statement under section 1716.02 of the Revised Code;93246

       (3) A person, making a telephone solicitation involving a 93247
home solicitation sale as defined in section 1345.21 of the 93248
Revised Code, that makes the sales presentation and completes the 93249
sale at a later, face-to-face meeting between the seller and the 93250
purchaser rather than during the telephone solicitation. However, 93251
if the person, following the telephone solicitation, causes 93252
another person to collect the payment of any money, this exemption 93253
does not apply.93254

       (4) A licensed securities, commodities, or investment broker, 93255
dealer, investment advisor, or associated person when making a 93256
telephone solicitation within the scope of the person's license. 93257
As used in division (B)(4) of this section, "licensed securities, 93258
commodities, or investment broker, dealer, investment advisor, or 93259
associated person" means a person subject to licensure or 93260
registration as such by the securities and exchange commission; 93261
the National Association of Securities Dealers or other 93262
self-regulatory organization, as defined by 15 U.S.C.A. 78c; by 93263
the division of securities under Chapter 1707. of the Revised 93264
Code; or by an official or agency of any other state of the United 93265
States.93266

       (5)(a) A person primarily engaged in soliciting the sale of a 93267
newspaper of general circulation;93268

       (b) As used in division (B)(5)(a) of this section, "newspaper 93269
of general circulation" includes, but is not limited to, both of 93270
the following:93271

       (i) A newspaper that is a daily law journal designated as an 93272
official publisher of court calendars pursuant to section 2701.09 93273
of the Revised Code;93274

       (ii) A newspaper or publication that has at least twenty-five 93275
per cent editorial, non-advertising content, exclusive of inserts, 93276
measured relative to total publication space, and an audited 93277
circulation to at least fifty per cent of the households in the 93278
newspaper's retail trade zone as defined by the audit.93279

       (6)(a) An issuer, or its subsidiary, that has a class of 93280
securities to which all of the following apply:93281

       (i) The class of securities is subject to section 12 of the 93282
"Securities Exchange Act of 1934," 15 U.S.C.A. 78l, and is 93283
registered or is exempt from registration under 15 U.S.C.A. 93284
78l(g)(2)(A), (B), (C), (E), (F), (G), or (H);93285

       (ii) The class of securities is listed on the New York stock 93286
exchange, the American stock exchange, or the NASDAQ national 93287
market system;93288

       (iii) The class of securities is a reported security as 93289
defined in 17 C.F.R. 240.11Aa3-1(a)(4).93290

       (b) An issuer, or its subsidiary, that formerly had a class 93291
of securities that met the criteria set forth in division 93292
(B)(6)(a) of this section if the issuer, or its subsidiary, has a 93293
net worth in excess of one hundred million dollars, files or its 93294
parent files with the securities and exchange commission an S.E.C. 93295
form 10-K, and has continued in substantially the same business 93296
since it had a class of securities that met the criteria in 93297
division (B)(6)(a) of this section. As used in division (B)(6)(b) 93298
of this section, "issuer" and "subsidiary" include the successor 93299
to an issuer or subsidiary.93300

       (7) A person soliciting a transaction regulated by the 93301
commodity futures trading commission, if the person is registered 93302
or temporarily registered for that activity with the commission 93303
under 7 U.S.C.A. 1 et. seq. and the registration or temporary 93304
registration has not expired or been suspended or revoked;93305

       (8) A person soliciting the sale of any book, record, audio 93306
tape, compact disc, or video, if the person allows the purchaser 93307
to review the merchandise for at least seven days and provides a 93308
full refund within thirty days to a purchaser who returns the 93309
merchandise or if the person solicits the sale on behalf of a 93310
membership club operating in compliance with regulations adopted 93311
by the federal trade commission in 16 C.F.R. 425;93312

       (9) A supervised financial institution or its subsidiary. As 93313
used in division (B)(9) of this section, "supervised financial 93314
institution" means a bank, trust company, savings and loan 93315
association, savings bank, credit union, industrial loan company, 93316
consumer finance lender, commercial finance lender, or institution 93317
described in section 2(c)(2)(F) of the "Bank Holding Company Act 93318
of 1956," 12 U.S.C.A. 1841(c)(2)(F), as amended, supervised by an 93319
official or agency of the United States, this state, or any other 93320
state of the United States; or a licensee or registrant under 93321
sections 1321.01 to 1321.19, 1321.51 to 1321.60, or 1321.71 to 93322
1321.83 of the Revised Code.93323

       (10)(a) An insurance company, association, or other 93324
organization that is licensed or authorized to conduct business in 93325
this state by the superintendent of insurance pursuant to Title 93326
XXXIX of the Revised Code or Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code, 93327
when soliciting within the scope of its license or authorization.93328

       (b) A licensed insurance broker, agent, or solicitor when 93329
soliciting within the scope of the person's license. As used in 93330
division (B)(10)(b) of this section, "licensed insurance broker, 93331
agent, or solicitor" means any person licensed as an insurance 93332
broker, agent, or solicitor by the superintendent of insurance 93333
pursuant to Title XXXIX of the Revised Code.93334

       (11) A person soliciting the sale of services provided by a 93335
cable television system operating under authority of a 93336
governmental franchise or permit;93337

       (12) A person soliciting a business-to-business sale under 93338
which any of the following conditions are met:93339

       (a) The telephone solicitor has been operating continuously 93340
for at least three years under the same business name under which 93341
it solicits purchasers, and at least fifty-one per cent of its 93342
gross dollar volume of sales consists of repeat sales to existing 93343
customers to whom it has made sales under the same business name.93344

       (b) The purchaser business intends to resell the goods 93345
purchased.93346

       (c) The purchaser business intends to use the goods or 93347
services purchased in a recycling, reuse, manufacturing, or 93348
remanufacturing process.93349

       (d) The telephone solicitor is a publisher of a periodical or 93350
of magazines distributed as controlled circulation publications as 93351
defined in division (CC) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code 93352
and is soliciting sales of advertising, subscriptions, reprints, 93353
lists, information databases, conference participation or 93354
sponsorships, trade shows or media products related to the 93355
periodical or magazine, or other publishing services provided by 93356
the controlled circulation publication.93357

       (13) A person that, not less often than once each year, 93358
publishes and delivers to potential purchasers a catalog that 93359
complies with both of the following:93360

       (a) It includes all of the following:93361

       (i) The business address of the seller;93362

       (ii) A written description or illustration of each good or 93363
service offered for sale;93364

       (iii) A clear and conspicuous disclosure of the sale price of 93365
each good or service; shipping, handling, and other charges; and 93366
return policy.93367

       (b) One of the following applies:93368

       (i) The catalog includes at least twenty-four pages of 93369
written material and illustrations, is distributed in more than 93370
one state, and has an annual postage-paid mail circulation of not 93371
less than two hundred fifty thousand households;93372

       (ii) The catalog includes at least ten pages of written 93373
material or an equivalent amount of material in electronic form on 93374
the internet or an on-line computer service, the person does not 93375
solicit customers by telephone but solely receives telephone calls 93376
made in response to the catalog, and during the calls the person 93377
takes orders but does not engage in further solicitation of the 93378
purchaser. As used in division (B)(13)(b)(ii) of this section, 93379
"further solicitation" does not include providing the purchaser 93380
with information about, or attempting to sell, any other item in 93381
the catalog that prompted the purchaser's call or in a 93382
substantially similar catalog issued by the seller.93383

       (14) A political subdivision or instrumentality of the United 93384
States, this state, or any state of the United States;93385

       (15) A college or university or any other public or private 93386
institution of higher education in this state;93387

       (16) A public utility as defined in section 4905.02 of the 93388
Revised Code or a retail natural gas supplier as defined in 93389
section 4929.01 of the Revised Code, if the utility or supplier is 93390
subject to regulation by the public utilities commission, or the 93391
affiliate of the utility or supplier;93392

       (17) A person that solicits sales through a television 93393
program or advertisement that is presented in the same market area 93394
no fewer than twenty days per month or offers for sale no fewer 93395
than ten distinct items of goods or services; and offers to the 93396
purchaser an unconditional right to return any good or service 93397
purchased within a period of at least seven days and to receive a 93398
full refund within thirty days after the purchaser returns the 93399
good or cancels the service;93400

       (18)(a) A person that, for at least one year, has been 93401
operating a retail business under the same name as that used in 93402
connection with telephone solicitation and both of the following 93403
occur on a continuing basis:93404

       (i) The person either displays goods and offers them for 93405
retail sale at the person's business premises or offers services 93406
for sale and provides them at the person's business premises.93407

       (ii) At least fifty-one per cent of the person's gross dollar 93408
volume of retail sales involves purchases of goods or services at 93409
the person's business premises.93410

       (b) An affiliate of a person that meets the requirements in 93411
division (B)(18)(a) of this section if the affiliate meets all of 93412
the following requirements:93413

       (i) The affiliate has operated a retail business for a period 93414
of less than one year;93415

       (ii) The affiliate either displays goods and offers them for 93416
retail sale at the affiliate's business premises or offers 93417
services for sale and provides them at the affiliate's business 93418
premises;93419

       (iii) At least fifty-one per cent of the affiliate's gross 93420
dollar volume of retail sales involves purchases of goods or 93421
services at the affiliate's business premises.93422

       (c) A person that, for a period of less than one year, has 93423
been operating a retail business in this state under the same name 93424
as that used in connection with telephone solicitation, as long as 93425
all of the following requirements are met:93426

       (i) The person either displays goods and offers them for 93427
retail sale at the person's business premises or offers services 93428
for sale and provides them at the person's business premises;93429

       (ii) The goods or services that are the subject of telephone 93430
solicitation are sold at the person's business premises, and at 93431
least sixty-five per cent of the person's gross dollar volume of 93432
retail sales involves purchases of goods or services at the 93433
person's business premises;93434

       (iii) The person conducts all telephone solicitation 93435
activities according to sections 310.3, 310.4, and 310.5 of the 93436
telemarketing sales rule adopted by the federal trade commission 93437
in 16 C.F.R. part 310.93438

       (19) A person who performs telephone solicitation sales 93439
services on behalf of other persons and to whom one of the 93440
following applies:93441

       (a) The person has operated under the same ownership, 93442
control, and business name for at least five years, and the person 93443
receives at least seventy-five per cent of its gross revenues from 93444
written telephone solicitation contracts with persons who come 93445
within one of the exemptions in division (B) of this section.93446

       (b) The person is an affiliate of one or more exempt persons 93447
and makes telephone solicitations on behalf of only the exempt 93448
persons of which it is an affiliate.93449

       (c) The person makes telephone solicitations on behalf of 93450
only exempt persons, the person and each exempt person on whose 93451
behalf telephone solicitations are made have entered into a 93452
written contract that specifies the manner in which the telephone 93453
solicitations are to be conducted and that at a minimum requires 93454
compliance with the telemarketing sales rule adopted by the 93455
federal trade commission in 16 C.F.R. part 310, and the person 93456
conducts the telephone solicitations in the manner specified in 93457
the written contract.93458

       (d) The person performs telephone solicitation for religious 93459
or political purposes, a charitable organization, a fund-raising 93460
council, or a professional solicitor in compliance with the 93461
registration and reporting requirements of Chapter 1716. of the 93462
Revised Code; and meets all of the following requirements:93463

       (i) The person has operated under the same ownership, 93464
control, and business name for at least five years, and the person 93465
receives at least fifty-one per cent of its gross revenues from 93466
written telephone solicitation contracts with persons who come 93467
within the exemption in division (B)(2) of this section;93468

       (ii) The person does not conduct a prize promotion or offer 93469
the sale of an investment opportunity; 93470

       (iii) The person conducts all telephone solicitation 93471
activities according to sections 310.3, 310.4, and 310.5 of the 93472
telemarketing sales rules adopted by the federal trade commission 93473
in 16 C.F.R. part 310.93474

       (20) A person that is a licensed real estate salesperson or 93475
broker under Chapter 4735. of the Revised Code when soliciting 93476
within the scope of the person's license;93477

       (21)(a) Either of the following:93478

       (i) A publisher that solicits the sale of the publisher's 93479
periodical or magazine of general, paid circulation, or a person 93480
that solicits a sale of that nature on behalf of a publisher under 93481
a written agreement directly between the publisher and the person.93482

       (ii) A publisher that solicits the sale of the publisher's 93483
periodical or magazine of general, paid circulation, or a person 93484
that solicits a sale of that nature as authorized by a publisher 93485
under a written agreement directly with a publisher's 93486
clearinghouse provided the person is a resident of Ohio for more 93487
than three years and initiates all telephone solicitations from 93488
Ohio and the person conducts the solicitation and sale in 93489
compliance with 16 C.F.R. part 310, as adopted by the federal 93490
trade commission.93491

       (b) As used in division (B)(21) of this section, "periodical 93492
or magazine of general, paid circulation" excludes a periodical or 93493
magazine circulated only as part of a membership package or given 93494
as a free gift or prize from the publisher or person.93495

       (22) A person that solicits the sale of food, as defined in 93496
section 3715.01 of the Revised Code, or the sale of products of 93497
horticulture, as defined in section 5739.01 of the Revised Code, 93498
if the person does not intend the solicitation to result in, or 93499
the solicitation actually does not result in, a sale that costs 93500
the purchaser an amount greater than five hundred dollars.93501

       (23) A funeral director licensed pursuant to Chapter 4717. of 93502
the Revised Code when soliciting within the scope of that license, 93503
if both of the following apply:93504

       (a) The solicitation and sale are conducted in compliance 93505
with 16 C.F.R. part 453, as adopted by the federal trade 93506
commission, and with sections 1107.33 and 1345.21 to 1345.28 of 93507
the Revised Code;93508

       (b) The person provides to the purchaser of any preneed 93509
funeral contract a notice that clearly and conspicuously sets 93510
forth the cancellation rights specified in division (G) of section 93511
1107.33 of the Revised Code, and retains a copy of the notice 93512
signed by the purchaser.93513

       (24) A person, or affiliate thereof, licensed to sell or 93514
issue Ohio instruments designated as travelers checks pursuant to 93515
sections 1315.01 to 1315.18 of the Revised Code.93516

       (25) A person that solicits sales from its previous 93517
purchasers and meets all of the following requirements:93518

       (a) The solicitation is made under the same business name 93519
that was previously used to sell goods or services to the 93520
purchaser;93521

       (b) The person has, for a period of not less than three 93522
years, operated a business under the same business name as that 93523
used in connection with telephone solicitation;93524

       (c) The person does not conduct a prize promotion or offer 93525
the sale of an investment opportunity;93526

       (d) The person conducts all telephone solicitation activities 93527
according to sections 310.3, 310.4, and 310.5 of the telemarketing 93528
sales rules adopted by the federal trade commission in 16 C.F.R. 93529
part 310;93530

       (e) Neither the person nor any of its principals has been 93531
convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or has entered a plea of no 93532
contest for a felony or a theft offense as defined in sections 93533
2901.02 and 2913.01 of the Revised Code or similar law of another 93534
state or of the United States;93535

       (f) Neither the person nor any of its principals has had 93536
entered against them an injunction or a final judgment or order, 93537
including an agreed judgment or order, an assurance of voluntary 93538
compliance, or any similar instrument, in any civil or 93539
administrative action involving engaging in a pattern of corrupt 93540
practices, fraud, theft, embezzlement, fraudulent conversion, or 93541
misappropriation of property; the use of any untrue, deceptive, or 93542
misleading representation; or the use of any unfair, unlawful, 93543
deceptive, or unconscionable trade act or practice.93544

       (26) An institution defined as a home health agency in 93545
section 3701.881 of the Revised Code, that conducts all telephone 93546
solicitation activities according to sections 310.3, 310.4, and 93547
310.5 of the telemarketing sales rules adopted by the federal 93548
trade commission in 16 C.F.R. part 310, and engages in telephone 93549
solicitation only within the scope of the institution's 93550
certification, accreditation, contract with the department of 93551
aging, or status as a home health agency; and that meets one of 93552
the following requirements:93553

       (a) The institution is certified as a provider of home health 93554
services under Title XVIII of the Social Security Act, 49 Stat. 93555
620, 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended;93556

       (b) The institution is accredited by either the joint 93557
commission on accreditation of health care organizations or the 93558
community health accreditation program;93559

       (c) The institution is providing passportPASSPORT services 93560
under the direction of the Ohio department of aging under section 93561
173.40sections 173.52 to 173.523 of the Revised Code;93562

       (d) An affiliate of an institution that meets the 93563
requirements of division (B)(26)(a), (b), or (c) of this section 93564
when offering for sale substantially the same goods and services 93565
as those that are offered by the institution that meets the 93566
requirements of division (B)(26)(a), (b), or (c) of this section.93567

       (27) A person licensed by the department of health pursuant 93568
to section 3712.04 or 3712.041 of the Revised Code to provide a 93569
hospice care program or pediatric respite care program when 93570
conducting telephone solicitations within the scope of the 93571
person's license and according to sections 310.3, 310.4, and 310.5 93572
of the telemarketing sales rules adopted by the federal trade 93573
commission in 16 C.F.R. part 310.93574

       Sec. 4723.18.  (A) The board of nursing shall authorize a 93575
licensed practical nurse to administer to an adult intravenous 93576
therapy if the nurse supplies evidence satisfactory to the board 93577
that all of the following are the case:93578

       (1) The nurse holds a current, valid license issued under 93579
this chapter to practice nursing as a licensed practical nurse.93580

       (2) The nurse has been authorized under section 4723.18 of 93581
the Revised Code to administer medications.93582

        (3) The nurse successfully completed a course of study in the 93583
safe performance of intravenous therapy approved by the board 93584
pursuant to section 4723.19 of the Revised Code or by an agency in 93585
another jurisdiction that regulates the practice of nursing and 93586
has requirements for intravenous therapy course approval that are 93587
substantially similar to the requirements in division (B) of 93588
section 4723.19 of the Revised Code, as determined by the board.93589

       (4) The nurse has successfully completed a minimum of forty 93590
hours of training that includes all of the following:93591

       (a) The curriculum established by rules adopted by the board;93592

       (b) Training in the anatomy and physiology of the 93593
cardiovascular system, signs and symptoms of local and systemic 93594
complications in the administration of fluids and antibiotic 93595
additives, and guidelines for management of these complications;93596

       (c) Any other training or instruction the board considers 93597
appropriate;93598

       (d) A testing component that requires the nurse to perform a 93599
successful demonstration of the intravenous procedures, including 93600
all skills needed to perform them safely.93601

       (B) Except as provided in section 4723.181 of the Revised 93602
Code and subject to the restrictions in division (D) of this 93603
section, a licensed practical nurse may perform intravenous 93604
therapy on an adult patient only if authorized by the board 93605
pursuant to division (A) of this section and only at the direction 93606
of one of the following:93607

       (1) A licensed physician, dentist, optometrist, or podiatrist 93608
who, except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section, is 93609
present and readily available at the facility where the 93610
intravenous therapy procedure is performed;93611

       (2) A registered nurse in accordance with division (C) of 93612
this section.93613

       (C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section 93614
and section 4723.181 of the Revised Code, when a licensed 93615
practical nurse authorized by the board to perform intravenous 93616
therapy performs an intravenous therapy procedure at the direction 93617
of a registered nurse, the registered nurse or another registered 93618
nurse shall be readily available at the site where the intravenous 93619
therapy is performed, and before the licensed practical nurse 93620
initiates the intravenous therapy, the registered nurse shall 93621
personally perform an on-site assessment of the adult patient who 93622
is to receive the intravenous therapy.93623

       (2) When a licensed practical nurse authorized by the board 93624
to perform intravenous therapy performs an intravenous therapy 93625
procedure in a home as defined in section 3721.10 of the Revised 93626
Code, or in an intermediate care facility for the mentally 93627
retardedindividuals with intellectual disabilities as defined in 93628
section 5111.205124.01 of the Revised Code, at the direction of a 93629
registered nurse or licensed physician, dentist, optometrist, or 93630
podiatrist, a registered nurse shall be on the premises of the 93631
home or facility or accessible by some form of telecommunication.93632

       (D) No licensed practical nurse shall perform any of the 93633
following intravenous therapy procedures:93634

       (1) Initiating or maintaining any of the following:93635

       (a) Blood or blood components;93636

       (b) Solutions for total parenteral nutrition;93637

       (c) Any cancer therapeutic medication including, but not 93638
limited to, cancer chemotherapy or an anti-neoplastic agent;93639

       (d) Solutions administered through any central venous line or 93640
arterial line or any other line that does not terminate in a 93641
peripheral vein, except that a licensed practical nurse authorized 93642
by the board to perform intravenous therapy may maintain the 93643
solutions specified in division (D)(6)(a) of this section that are 93644
being administered through a central venous line or peripherally 93645
inserted central catheter;93646

       (e) Any investigational or experimental medication.93647

       (2) Initiating intravenous therapy in any vein, except that a 93648
licensed practical nurse authorized by the board to perform 93649
intravenous therapy may initiate intravenous therapy in accordance 93650
with this section in a vein of the hand, forearm, or antecubital 93651
fossa;93652

       (3) Discontinuing a central venous, arterial, or any other 93653
line that does not terminate in a peripheral vein;93654

       (4) Initiating or discontinuing a peripherally inserted 93655
central catheter;93656

       (5) Mixing, preparing, or reconstituting any medication for 93657
intravenous therapy, except that a licensed practical nurse 93658
authorized by the board to perform intravenous therapy may prepare 93659
or reconstitute an antibiotic additive;93660

       (6) Administering medication via the intravenous route, 93661
including all of the following activities:93662

       (a) Adding medication to an intravenous solution or to an 93663
existing infusion, except that a licensed practical nurse 93664
authorized by the board to perform intravenous therapy may do any 93665
of the following:93666

       (i) Initiate an intravenous infusion containing one or more 93667
of the following elements: dextrose 5%, normal saline, lactated 93668
ringers, sodium chloride .45%, sodium chloride 0.2%, sterile 93669
water;93670

       (ii) Hang subsequent containers of the intravenous solutions 93671
specified in division (D)(6)(a)(i) of this section that contain 93672
vitamins or electrolytes, if a registered nurse initiated the 93673
infusion of that same intravenous solution;93674

       (iii) Initiate or maintain an intravenous infusion containing 93675
an antibiotic additive.93676

       (b) Injecting medication via a direct intravenous route, 93677
except that a licensed practical nurse authorized by the board to 93678
perform intravenous therapy may inject heparin or normal saline to 93679
flush an intermittent infusion device or heparin lock including, 93680
but not limited to, bolus or push.93681

       (7) Changing tubing on any line including, but not limited 93682
to, an arterial line or a central venous line, except that a 93683
licensed practical nurse authorized by the board to perform 93684
intravenous therapy may change tubing on an intravenous line that 93685
terminates in a peripheral vein;93686

       (8) Programming or setting any function of a patient 93687
controlled infusion pump.93688

       (E) Notwithstanding divisions (A) and (D) of this section, at 93689
the direction of a physician or a registered nurse, a licensed 93690
practical nurse authorized by the board to perform intravenous 93691
therapy may perform the following activities for the purpose of 93692
performing dialysis:93693

       (1) The routine administration and regulation of saline 93694
solution for the purpose of maintaining an established fluid plan;93695

       (2) The administration of a heparin dose intravenously;93696

       (3) The administration of a heparin dose peripherally via a 93697
fistula needle;93698

       (4) The loading and activation of a constant infusion pump;93699

       (5) The intermittent injection of a dose of medication that 93700
is administered via the hemodialysis blood circuit and through the 93701
patient's venous access.93702

       (F) No person shall employ or direct a licensed practical 93703
nurse to perform an intravenous therapy procedure without first 93704
verifying that the licensed practical nurse is authorized by the 93705
board to perform intravenous therapy.93706

       Sec. 4723.35.  (A) As used in this section, "chemical 93707
dependency" means either of the following:93708

       (1) The chronic and habitual use of alcoholic beverages to 93709
the extent that the user no longer can control the use of alcohol 93710
or endangers the user's health, safety, or welfare or that of 93711
others;93712

       (2) The use of a controlled substance as defined in section 93713
3719.01 of the Revised Code, a harmful intoxicant as defined in 93714
section 2925.01 of the Revised Code, or a dangerous drug as 93715
defined in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code, to the extent that 93716
the user becomes physically or psychologically dependent on the 93717
substance, intoxicant, or drug or endangers the user's health, 93718
safety, or welfare or that of others.93719

       (B) The board of nursing may abstain from taking disciplinary 93720
action under section 4723.28 or 4723.86 of the Revised Code 93721
against an individual with a chemical dependency if it finds that 93722
the individual can be treated effectively and there is no 93723
impairment of the individual's ability to practice according to 93724
acceptable and prevailing standards of safe care. The board shall 93725
establish a chemical dependency monitoring program to monitor the 93726
registered nurses, licensed practical nurses, dialysis 93727
technicians, and certified community health workers against whom 93728
the board has abstained from taking action. The board shall 93729
develop the program, select the program's name, and designate a 93730
coordinator to administer the program.93731

       (C) Determinations regarding an individual's eligibility for 93732
admission to, continued participation in, and successful 93733
completion of the monitoring program shall be made by the board's 93734
supervising member for disciplinary matters in accordance with 93735
rules adopted under division (D) of this section.93736

       (D) The board shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 93737
119. of the Revised Code that establish the following:93738

       (1) Eligibility requirements for admission to and continued 93739
participation in the monitoring program;93740

       (2) Terms and conditions that must be met to participate in 93741
and successfully complete the program;93742

       (3) Procedures for keeping confidential records regarding 93743
participants;93744

       (4) Any other requirements or procedures necessary to 93745
establish and administer the program.93746

       (E)(1) As a condition of being admitted to the monitoring 93747
program, an individual shall surrender to the program coordinator 93748
the license or certificate that the individual holds. While the 93749
surrender is in effect, the individual is prohibited from engaging 93750
in the practice of nursing, engaging in the provision of dialysis 93751
care, or engaging in the provision of services that were being 93752
provided as a certified community health worker.93753

       If the board's supervising member for disciplinary matters 93754
determines that a participant is capable of resuming practice 93755
according to acceptable and prevailing standards of safe care, the 93756
program coordinator shall return the participant's license or 93757
certificate. If the participant violates the terms and conditions 93758
of resumed practice, the coordinator shall require the participant 93759
to surrender the license or certificate as a condition of 93760
continued participation in the program. The coordinator may 93761
require the surrender only on the approval of the board's 93762
supervising member for disciplinary matters.93763

       The surrender of a license or certificate on admission to the 93764
monitoring program or while participating in the program does not 93765
constitute an action by the board under section 4723.28 or 4723.86 93766
of the Revised Code. The participant may rescind the surrender at 93767
any time and the board may proceed by taking action under section 93768
4723.28 or 4723.86 of the Revised Code.93769

       (2) If the program coordinator determines that a participant 93770
is significantly out of compliance with the terms and conditions 93771
for participation, the coordinator shall notify the board's 93772
supervising member for disciplinary matters and the supervising 93773
member shall determine whether to temporarily suspend the 93774
participant's license or certificate. The board shall notify the 93775
participant of the suspension by certified mail sent to the 93776
participant's last known address and shall refer the matter to the 93777
board for formal action under section 4723.28 or 4723.86 of the 93778
Revised Code.93779

       (F) All of the following apply with respect to the receipt, 93780
release, and maintenance of records and information by the 93781
monitoring program:93782

       (1) The program coordinator shall maintain all program 93783
records in the board's office, and for each participant, shall 93784
retain the records for a period of two years following the 93785
participant's date of successful completion of the program.93786

       (2) When applying to participate in the monitoring program, 93787
the applicant shall sign a waiver permitting the board to receive 93788
and release information necessary to determine whether the 93789
individual is eligible for admission. After being admitted, the 93790
participant shall sign a waiver permitting the board to receive 93791
and release information necessary to determine whether the 93792
individual is eligible for continued participation in the program. 93793
Information that may be necessary for the board's supervising 93794
member for disciplinary matters to determine eligibility for 93795
admission or continued participation in the monitoring program 93796
includes, but is not limited to, information provided to and by 93797
employers, probation officers, law enforcement agencies, peer 93798
assistance programs, health professionals, and treatment 93799
providers. No entity with knowledge that the information has been 93800
provided to the monitoring program shall divulge that knowledge to 93801
any other person.93802

       (3) Except as provided in division (F)(4) of this section, 93803
all records pertaining to an individual's application for or 93804
participation in the monitoring program, including medical 93805
records, treatment records, and mental health records, shall be 93806
confidential. The records are not public records for the purposes 93807
of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and are not subject to 93808
discovery by subpoena or admissible as evidence in any judicial 93809
proceeding.93810

       (4) The board may disclose information regarding a 93811
participant's progress in the program to any person or government 93812
entity that the participant authorizes in writing to be given the 93813
information. In disclosing information under this division, the 93814
board shall not include any information that is protected under 93815
section 3793.135119.27 of the Revised Code or any federal statute 93816
or regulation that provides for the confidentiality of medical, 93817
mental health, or substance abuse records.93818

       (G) In the absence of fraud or bad faith, the board as a 93819
whole, its individual members, and its employees and 93820
representatives are not liable for damages in any civil action as 93821
a result of disclosing information in accordance with division 93822
(F)(4) of this section. In the absence of fraud or bad faith, any 93823
person reporting to the program with regard to an individual's 93824
chemical dependence, or the progress or lack of progress of that 93825
individual with regard to treatment, is not liable for damages in 93826
any civil action as a result of the report.93827

       Sec. 4723.481.  This section establishes standards and 93828
conditions regarding the authority of a clinical nurse specialist, 93829
certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner to 93830
prescribe drugs and therapeutic devices under a certificate to 93831
prescribe issued under section 4723.4814723.48 of the Revised 93832
Code.93833

       (A) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or 93834
certified nurse practitioner shall not prescribe any drug or 93835
therapeutic device that is not included in the types of drugs and 93836
devices listed on the formulary established in rules adopted under 93837
section 4723.50 of the Revised Code.93838

       (B) The prescriptive authority of a clinical nurse 93839
specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse 93840
practitioner shall not exceed the prescriptive authority of the 93841
collaborating physician or podiatrist, including the collaborating 93842
physician's authority to treat chronic pain with controlled 93843
substances and products containing tramadol as described in 93844
section 4731.052 of the Revised Code.93845

       (C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) or (3) of this 93846
section, a clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or 93847
certified nurse practitioner may prescribe to a patient a schedule 93848
II controlled substance only if all of the following are the case: 93849

       (a) The patient has a terminal condition, as defined in 93850
section 2133.01 of the Revised Code.93851

       (b) The collaborating physician of the clinical nurse 93852
specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse 93853
practitioner initially prescribed the substance for the patient.93854

       (c) The prescription is for an amount that does not exceed 93855
the amount necessary for the patient's use in a single, 93856
twenty-four-hour period. 93857

       (2) The restrictions on prescriptive authority in division 93858
(C)(1) of this section do not apply if a clinical nurse 93859
specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse 93860
practitioner issues the prescription to the patient from any of 93861
the following locations:93862

        (a) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the 93863
Revised Code;93864

       (b) An entity owned or controlled, in whole or in part, by a 93865
hospital or by an entity that owns or controls, in whole or in 93866
part, one or more hospitals;93867

        (c) A health care facility operated by the department of 93868
mental healthmental health and addiction services or the 93869
department of developmental disabilities;93870

        (d) A nursing home licensed under section 3721.02 of the 93871
Revised Code or by a political subdivision certified under section 93872
3721.09 of the Revised Code;93873

       (e) A county home or district home operated under Chapter 93874
5155. of the Revised Code that is certified under the medicare or 93875
medicaid program;93876

        (f) A hospice care program, as defined in section 3712.01 of 93877
the Revised Code;93878

       (g) A community mental health agencyservices provider, as 93879
defined in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code;93880

        (h) An ambulatory surgical facility, as defined in section 93881
3702.30 of the Revised Code;93882

       (i) A freestanding birthing center, as defined in section 93883
3702.513702.141 of the Revised Code;93884

       (j) A federally qualified health center, as defined in 93885
section 3701.047 of the Revised Code;93886

       (k) A federally qualified health center look-alike, as 93887
defined in section 3701.047 of the Revised Code;93888

        (l) A health care office or facility operated by the board of 93889
health of a city or general health district or the authority 93890
having the duties of a board of health under section 3709.05 of 93891
the Revised Code;93892

       (m) A site where a medical practice is operated, but only if 93893
the practice is comprised of one or more physicians who also are 93894
owners of the practice; the practice is organized to provide 93895
direct patient care; and the clinical nurse specialist, certified 93896
nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner providing services 93897
at the site has a standard care arrangement and collaborates with 93898
at least one of the physician owners who practices primarily at 93899
that site.93900

       (3) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or 93901
certified nurse practitioner shall not issue to a patient a 93902
prescription for a schedule II controlled substance from a 93903
convenience care clinic even if the clinic is owned or operated by 93904
an entity specified in division (C)(2) of this section.93905

       (D) A pharmacist who acts in good faith reliance on a 93906
prescription issued by a clinical nurse specialist, certified 93907
nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner under division 93908
(C)(2) of this section is not liable for or subject to any of the 93909
following for relying on the prescription: damages in any civil 93910
action, prosecution in any criminal proceeding, or professional 93911
disciplinary action by the state board of pharmacy under Chapter 93912
4729. of the Revised Code.93913

       (E) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or 93914
certified nurse practitioner may personally furnish to a patient a 93915
sample of any drug or therapeutic device included in the types of 93916
drugs and devices listed on the formulary, except that all of the 93917
following conditions apply:93918

       (1) The amount of the sample furnished shall not exceed a 93919
seventy-two-hour supply, except when the minimum available 93920
quantity of the sample is packaged in an amount that is greater 93921
than a seventy-two-hour supply, in which case the packaged amount 93922
may be furnished.93923

       (2) No charge may be imposed for the sample or for furnishing 93924
it.93925

       (3) Samples of controlled substances may not be personally 93926
furnished.93927

        (F) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or 93928
certified nurse practitioner may personally furnish to a patient a 93929
complete or partial supply of a drug or therapeutic device 93930
included in the types of drugs and devices listed on the 93931
formulary, except that all of the following conditions apply:93932

       (1) The clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, 93933
or certified nurse practitioner shall personally furnish only 93934
antibiotics, antifungals, scabicides, contraceptives, prenatal 93935
vitamins, antihypertensives, drugs and devices used in the 93936
treatment of diabetes, drugs and devices used in the treatment of 93937
asthma, and drugs used in the treatment of dyslipidemia.93938

       (2) The clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, 93939
or certified nurse practitioner shall not furnish the drugs and 93940
devices in locations other than a health department operated by 93941
the board of health of a city or general health district or the 93942
authority having the duties of a board of health under section 93943
3709.05 of the Revised Code, a federally funded comprehensive 93944
primary care clinic, or a nonprofit health care clinic or program.93945

       (3) The clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, 93946
or certified nurse practitioner shall comply with all safety 93947
standards for personally furnishing supplies of drugs and devices, 93948
as established in rules adopted under section 4723.50 of the 93949
Revised Code.93950

       Sec. 4725.03.  The governor, with the advice and consent of 93951
the senate, shall appoint a state board of optometry consisting of 93952
six nonmedical residents of this state, five of whom shall be 93953
persons actually engaged in the practice of optometry for five 93954
years preceding appointment and one of whom shall be a member of 93955
the public at least sixtyfifty years of age. Terms of office 93956
shall be five years, commencing on the twenty-sixth day of 93957
September and ending on the twenty-fifth day of September. Each 93958
member shall hold office from the date of appointment until the 93959
end of the term for which appointed. Any member appointed to fill 93960
a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which 93961
the member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the 93962
remainder of the term. A member shall continue in office 93963
subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term until the 93964
member's successor takes office, or until a period of sixty days 93965
has elapsed, whichever occurs first. No person shall serve as a 93966
member for more than two terms.93967

       Sec. 4725.16.  (A) Each certificate of licensure, topical 93968
ocular pharmaceutical agents certificate, and therapeutic 93969
pharmaceutical agents certificate issued by the state board of 93970
optometry shall expire annually on the last day of December, and 93971
may be renewed in accordance with this section and the standard 93972
renewal procedure established under Chapter 4745. of the Revised 93973
Code.93974

       An optometrist seeking to continue to practice optometry 93975
shall file with the board an application for license renewal. The 93976
application shall be in such form and require such pertinent 93977
professional biographical data as the board may require.93978

       (B) All licensed optometrists shall annually complete 93979
continuing education in subjects relating to the practice of 93980
optometry, to the end that the utilization and application of new 93981
techniques, scientific and clinical advances, and the achievements 93982
of research will assure comprehensive care to the public. The 93983
board shall prescribe by rule the continuing optometric education 93984
that licensed optometrists must complete. The length of study 93985
shall be twenty-five clock hours each year, including ten clock 93986
hours of instruction in pharmacology to be completed by all 93987
licensed optometrists.93988

       Unless the continuing education required under this division 93989
is waived or deferred under division (D) of this section, the 93990
continuing education must be completed during the twelve-month 93991
period beginning on the first day of October and ending on the 93992
last day of September. If the board receives notice from a 93993
continuing education program indicating that an optometrist 93994
completed the program after the last day of September, and the 93995
optometrist wants to use the continuing education completed after 93996
that day to renew the license that expires on the last day of 93997
December of that year, the optometrist shall pay the penalty 93998
specified under section 4725.34 of the Revised Code for late 93999
completion of continuing education.94000

       At least once annually, the board shall post on its web site 94001
and shall mail, or send by electronic mail, to each licensed 94002
optometrist a list of courses approved in accordance with 94003
standards prescribed by board rule. Upon the request of a licensed 94004
optometrist, the executive director of the board shall supply a 94005
list of additional courses that the board has approved subsequent 94006
to the most recent web site posting, electronic mail transmission, 94007
or mailing of the list of approved courses.94008

       (C)(1) Annually, not later than the first day of November, 94009
the board shall mail or send by electronic mail a notice regarding 94010
license renewal to each licensed optometrist who may be eligible 94011
for renewal. The notice shall be sent to the optometrist's last94012
most recent electronic mail or mailing address shown in the 94013
board's records. If the board knows that the optometrist has 94014
completed the required continuing optometric education for the 94015
year, the board may include with the notice an application for 94016
license renewal. 94017

       (2) Filing a license renewal application with the board shall 94018
serve as notice by the optometrist that the continuing optometric 94019
education requirement has been successfully completed. If the 94020
board finds that an optometrist has not completed the required 94021
continuing optometric education, the board shall disapprove the 94022
optometrist's application. The board's disapproval of renewal is 94023
effective without a hearing, unless a hearing is requested 94024
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. 94025

       (3) The board shall refuse to accept an application for 94026
renewal from any applicant whose license is not in good standing 94027
or who is under disciplinary review pursuant to section 4725.19 of 94028
the Revised Code. 94029

       (4) Notice of an applicant's failure to qualify for renewal 94030
shall be served upon the applicant by mail. The notice shall be 94031
sent not later than the fifteenth day of November to the 94032
applicant's last address shown in the board's records.94033

       (D) In cases of certified illness or undue hardship, the 94034
board may waive or defer for up to twelve months the requirement 94035
of continuing optometric education, except that in such cases the 94036
board may not waive or defer the continuing education in 94037
pharmacology required to be completed by optometrists who hold 94038
topical ocular pharmaceutical agents certificates or therapeutic 94039
pharmaceutical agents certificates. The board shall waive the 94040
requirement of continuing optometric education for any optometrist 94041
who is serving in the armed forces of the United States or who has 94042
received an initial certificate of licensure during the nine-month 94043
period which ended on the last day of September.94044

       (E) An optometrist whose renewal application has been 94045
approved may renew each certificate held by paying to the 94046
treasurer of state the fees for renewal specified under section 94047
4725.34 of the Revised Code. On payment of all applicable fees, 94048
the board shall issue a renewal of the optometrist's certificate 94049
of licensure, topical ocular pharmaceutical agents certificate, 94050
and therapeutic pharmaceutical agents certificate, as appropriate. 94051

       (F) Not later than the fifteenth day of December, the board 94052
shall mail or send by electronic mail a second notice regarding 94053
license renewal to each licensed optometrist who may be eligible 94054
for renewal but did not respond to the notice sent under division 94055
(C)(1) of this section. The notice shall be sent to the 94056
optometrist's lastmost recent electronic mail or mailing address 94057
shown in the board's records. If an optometrist fails to file a 94058
renewal application after the second notice is sent, the board 94059
shall send a third notice regarding license renewal prior to any 94060
action under division (I) of this section to classify the 94061
optometrist's certificates as delinquent. 94062

       (G) The failure of an optometrist to apply for license 94063
renewal or the failure to pay the applicable annual renewal fees 94064
on or before the date of expiration, shall automatically work a 94065
forfeiture of the optometrist's authority to practice optometry in 94066
this state. 94067

       (H) The board shall accept renewal applications and renewal 94068
fees that are submitted from the first day of January to the last 94069
day of April of the year next succeeding the date of expiration. 94070
An individual who submits such a late renewal application or fee 94071
shall pay the late renewal fee specified in section 4725.34 of the 94072
Revised Code.94073

       (I)(1) If the certificates issued by the board to an 94074
individual have expired and the individual has not filed a 94075
complete application during the late renewal period, the 94076
individual's certificates shall be classified in the board's 94077
records as delinquent.94078

       (2) Any optometrist subject to delinquent classification may 94079
submit a written application to the board for reinstatement. For 94080
reinstatement to occur, the applicant must meet all of the 94081
following conditions:94082

       (a) Submit to the board evidence of compliance with board 94083
rules requiring continuing optometric education in a sufficient 94084
number of hours to make up for any delinquent compliance;94085

       (b) Pay the renewal fees for the year in which application 94086
for reinstatement is made and the reinstatement fee specified 94087
under division (A)(8) of section 4725.34 of the Revised Code;94088

       (c) Pass all or part of the licensing examination accepted by 94089
the board under section 4725.11 of the Revised Code as the board 94090
considers appropriate to determine whether the application for 94091
reinstatement should be approved;94092

       (d) If the applicant has been practicing optometry in another 94093
state or country, submit evidence that the applicant's license to 94094
practice optometry in the other state or country is in good 94095
standing.94096

       (3) The board shall approve an application for reinstatement 94097
if the conditions specified in division (I)(2) of this section are 94098
met. An optometrist who receives reinstatement is subject to the 94099
continuing education requirements specified under division (B) of 94100
this section for the year in which reinstatement occurs.94101

       Sec. 4729.01. As used in this chapter:94102

       (A) "Pharmacy," except when used in a context that refers to 94103
the practice of pharmacy, means any area, room, rooms, place of 94104
business, department, or portion of any of the foregoing where the 94105
practice of pharmacy is conducted.94106

       (B) "Practice of pharmacy" means providing pharmacist care 94107
requiring specialized knowledge, judgment, and skill derived from 94108
the principles of biological, chemical, behavioral, social, 94109
pharmaceutical, and clinical sciences. As used in this division, 94110
"pharmacist care" includes the following:94111

       (1) Interpreting prescriptions;94112

       (2) Dispensing drugs and drug therapy related devices;94113

       (3) Compounding drugs;94114

       (4) Counseling individuals with regard to their drug therapy, 94115
recommending drug therapy related devices, and assisting in the 94116
selection of drugs and appliances for treatment of common diseases 94117
and injuries and providing instruction in the proper use of the 94118
drugs and appliances;94119

       (5) Performing drug regimen reviews with individuals by 94120
discussing all of the drugs that the individual is taking and 94121
explaining the interactions of the drugs;94122

       (6) Performing drug utilization reviews with licensed health 94123
professionals authorized to prescribe drugs when the pharmacist 94124
determines that an individual with a prescription has a drug 94125
regimen that warrants additional discussion with the prescriber;94126

       (7) Advising an individual and the health care professionals 94127
treating an individual with regard to the individual's drug 94128
therapy;94129

       (8) Acting pursuant to a consult agreement with a physician 94130
authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice 94131
medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery, if an 94132
agreement has been established with the physician;94133

       (9) Engaging in the administration of immunizations to the 94134
extent authorized by section 4729.41 of the Revised Code;94135

       (10) Electronic supervision and control of and communication 94136
with a remote dispensing system operated under section 4729.542 of 94137
the Revised Code.94138

       (C) "Compounding" means the preparation, mixing, assembling, 94139
packaging, and labeling of one or more drugs in any of the 94140
following circumstances:94141

       (1) Pursuant to a prescription issued by a licensed health 94142
professional authorized to prescribe drugs;94143

       (2) Pursuant to the modification of a prescription made in 94144
accordance with a consult agreement;94145

       (3) As an incident to research, teaching activities, or 94146
chemical analysis;94147

       (4) In anticipation of orders for drugs pursuant to 94148
prescriptions, based on routine, regularly observed dispensing 94149
patterns;94150

       (5) Pursuant to a request made by a licensed health 94151
professional authorized to prescribe drugs for a drug that is to 94152
be used by the professional for the purpose of direct 94153
administration to patients in the course of the professional's 94154
practice, if all of the following apply:94155

       (a) At the time the request is made, the drug is not 94156
commercially available regardless of the reason that the drug is 94157
not available, including the absence of a manufacturer for the 94158
drug or the lack of a readily available supply of the drug from a 94159
manufacturer.94160

       (b) A limited quantity of the drug is compounded and provided 94161
to the professional.94162

       (c) The drug is compounded and provided to the professional 94163
as an occasional exception to the normal practice of dispensing 94164
drugs pursuant to patient-specific prescriptions.94165

       (D) "Consult agreement" means an agreement to manage an 94166
individual's drug therapy that has been entered into by a 94167
pharmacist and a physician authorized under Chapter 4731. of the 94168
Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic 94169
medicine and surgery.94170

       (E) "Drug" means:94171

       (1) Any article recognized in the United States pharmacopoeia 94172
and national formulary, or any supplement to them, intended for 94173
use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention 94174
of disease in humans or animals;94175

       (2) Any other article intended for use in the diagnosis, 94176
cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in humans or 94177
animals;94178

       (3) Any article, other than food, intended to affect the 94179
structure or any function of the body of humans or animals;94180

       (4) Any article intended for use as a component of any 94181
article specified in division (E)(1), (2), or (3) of this section; 94182
but does not include devices or their components, parts, or 94183
accessories.94184

       (F) "Dangerous drug" means any of the following:94185

       (1) Any drug to which either of the following applies:94186

       (a) Under the "Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act," 52 94187
Stat. 1040 (1938), 21 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, the drug is 94188
required to bear a label containing the legend "Caution: Federal 94189
law prohibits dispensing without prescription" or "Caution: 94190
Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a 94191
licensed veterinarian" or any similar restrictive statement, or 94192
the drug may be dispensed only upon a prescription;94193

       (b) Under Chapter 3715. or 3719. of the Revised Code, the 94194
drug may be dispensed only upon a prescription.94195

       (2) Any drug that contains a schedule V controlled substance 94196
and that is exempt from Chapter 3719. of the Revised Code or to 94197
which that chapter does not apply;94198

       (3) Any drug intended for administration by injection into 94199
the human body other than through a natural orifice of the human 94200
body.94201

       (G) "Federal drug abuse control laws" has the same meaning as 94202
in section 3719.01 of the Revised Code.94203

       (H) "Prescription" means a written, electronic, or oral order 94204
for drugs or combinations or mixtures of drugs to be used by a 94205
particular individual or for treating a particular animal, issued 94206
by a licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs.94207

       (I) "Licensed health professional authorized to prescribe 94208
drugs" or "prescriber" means an individual who is authorized by 94209
law to prescribe drugs or dangerous drugs or drug therapy related 94210
devices in the course of the individual's professional practice, 94211
including only the following:94212

       (1) A dentist licensed under Chapter 4715. of the Revised 94213
Code;94214

        (2) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or 94215
certified nurse practitioner who holds a certificate to prescribe 94216
issued under section 4723.48 of the Revised Code;94217

       (3) An optometrist licensed under Chapter 4725. of the 94218
Revised Code to practice optometry under a therapeutic 94219
pharmaceutical agents certificate;94220

       (4) A physician authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised 94221
Code to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and 94222
surgery, or podiatric medicine and surgery;94223

       (5) A physician assistant who holds a certificate to 94224
prescribe issued under Chapter 4730. of the Revised Code;94225

       (6) A veterinarian licensed under Chapter 4741. of the 94226
Revised Code.94227

       (J) "Sale" and "sell" include delivery, transfer, barter, 94228
exchange, or gift, or offer therefor, and each such transaction 94229
made by any person, whether as principal proprietor, agent, or 94230
employee.94231

       (K) "Wholesale sale" and "sale at wholesale" mean any sale in 94232
which the purpose of the purchaser is to resell the article 94233
purchased or received by the purchaser.94234

       (L) "Retail sale" and "sale at retail" mean any sale other 94235
than a wholesale sale or sale at wholesale.94236

       (M) "Retail seller" means any person that sells any dangerous 94237
drug to consumers without assuming control over and responsibility 94238
for its administration. Mere advice or instructions regarding 94239
administration do not constitute control or establish 94240
responsibility.94241

       (N) "Price information" means the price charged for a 94242
prescription for a particular drug product and, in an easily 94243
understandable manner, all of the following:94244

       (1) The proprietary name of the drug product;94245

       (2) The established (generic) name of the drug product;94246

       (3) The strength of the drug product if the product contains 94247
a single active ingredient or if the drug product contains more 94248
than one active ingredient and a relevant strength can be 94249
associated with the product without indicating each active 94250
ingredient. The established name and quantity of each active 94251
ingredient are required if such a relevant strength cannot be so 94252
associated with a drug product containing more than one 94253
ingredient.94254

       (4) The dosage form;94255

       (5) The price charged for a specific quantity of the drug 94256
product. The stated price shall include all charges to the 94257
consumer, including, but not limited to, the cost of the drug 94258
product, professional fees, handling fees, if any, and a statement 94259
identifying professional services routinely furnished by the 94260
pharmacy. Any mailing fees and delivery fees may be stated 94261
separately without repetition. The information shall not be false 94262
or misleading.94263

       (O) "Wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs" means a person 94264
engaged in the sale of dangerous drugs at wholesale and includes 94265
any agent or employee of such a person authorized by the person to 94266
engage in the sale of dangerous drugs at wholesale.94267

       (P) "Manufacturer of dangerous drugs" means a person, other 94268
than a pharmacist, who manufactures dangerous drugs and who is 94269
engaged in the sale of those dangerous drugs within this state.94270

       (Q) "Terminal distributor of dangerous drugs" means a person 94271
who is engaged in the sale of dangerous drugs at retail, or any 94272
person, other than a wholesale distributor or a pharmacist, who 94273
has possession, custody, or control of dangerous drugs for any 94274
purpose other than for that person's own use and consumption, and 94275
includes pharmacies, hospitals, nursing homes, and laboratories 94276
and all other persons who procure dangerous drugs for sale or 94277
other distribution by or under the supervision of a pharmacist or 94278
licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs.94279

       (R) "Promote to the public" means disseminating a 94280
representation to the public in any manner or by any means, other 94281
than by labeling, for the purpose of inducing, or that is likely 94282
to induce, directly or indirectly, the purchase of a dangerous 94283
drug at retail.94284

       (S) "Person" includes any individual, partnership, 94285
association, limited liability company, or corporation, the state, 94286
any political subdivision of the state, and any district, 94287
department, or agency of the state or its political subdivisions.94288

       (T) "Finished dosage form" has the same meaning as in section 94289
3715.01 of the Revised Code.94290

       (U) "Generically equivalent drug" has the same meaning as in 94291
section 3715.01 of the Revised Code.94292

       (V) "Animal shelter" means a facility operated by a humane 94293
society or any society organized under Chapter 1717. of the 94294
Revised Code or a dog pound operated pursuant to Chapter 955. of 94295
the Revised Code.94296

       (W) "Food" has the same meaning as in section 3715.01 of the 94297
Revised Code.94298

       (X) "Pain management clinic" has the same meaning as in 94299
section 4731.054 of the Revised Code.94300

       (Y) "Institutional facility" means any of the following at 94301
which medical care is provided and a medical record documenting 94302
episodes of care, including dangerous drugs prescribed, dispensed, 94303
or administered, is maintained:94304

        (1) A hospital classified by the department of health under 94305
section 3701.07 of Revised Code or licensed by the department of 94306
mental health under section 5119.20 of the Revised Code;94307

        (2) A facility licensed by the department of health, 94308
including a health care facility as defined in section 3702.30 of 94309
the Revised Code, a home as defined in section 3721.01 of the 94310
Revised Code, or any other facility licensed by the department at 94311
which medical care is provided;94312

        (3) A facility maintained or operated by the department of 94313
rehabilitation and correction or the department of developmental 94314
disabilities at which medical care is provided.94315

       Sec. 4729.51.  (A) No person other than a registered 94316
wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs shall possess for sale, 94317
sell, distribute, or deliver, at wholesale, dangerous drugs, 94318
except as follows:94319

       (1) A pharmacist who is a licensed terminal distributor of 94320
dangerous drugs or who is employed by a licensed terminal 94321
distributor of dangerous drugs may make occasional sales of 94322
dangerous drugs at wholesale;94323

       (2) A licensed terminal distributor of dangerous drugs having 94324
more than one establishment or place may transfer or deliver 94325
dangerous drugs from one establishment or place for which a 94326
license has been issued to the terminal distributor to another 94327
establishment or place for which a license has been issued to the 94328
terminal distributor if the license issued for each establishment 94329
or place is in effect at the time of the transfer or delivery.94330

       (B)(1) No registered wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs 94331
shall possess for sale, or sell, at wholesale, dangerous drugs to 94332
any person other than the following:94333

       (a) Except as provided in division (B)(2)(a) of this section, 94334
a licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs;94335

       (b) An optometrist licensed under Chapter 4725. of the 94336
Revised Code who holds a topical ocular pharmaceutical agents 94337
certificate;94338

       (c) A registered wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs;94339

       (d) A manufacturer of dangerous drugs;94340

       (e) Subject to division (B)(3) of this section, a licensed 94341
terminal distributor of dangerous drugs;94342

       (f) Carriers or warehouses for the purpose of carriage or 94343
storage;94344

       (g) Terminal or wholesale distributors of dangerous drugs who 94345
are not engaged in the sale of dangerous drugs within this state;94346

       (h) An individual who holds a current license, certificate, 94347
or registration issued under Title 47XLVII of the Revised Code 94348
and has been certified to conduct diabetes education by a national 94349
certifying body specified in rules adopted by the state board of 94350
pharmacy under section 4729.68 of the Revised Code, but only with 94351
respect to insulin that will be used for the purpose of diabetes 94352
education and only if diabetes education is within the 94353
individual's scope of practice under statutes and rules regulating 94354
the individual's profession;94355

       (i) An individual who holds a valid certificate issued by a 94356
nationally recognized S.C.U.B.A. diving certifying organization 94357
approved by the state board of pharmacy in rule, but only with 94358
respect to medical oxygen that will be used for the purpose of 94359
emergency care or treatment at the scene of a diving emergency;94360

       (j) Except as provided in division (B)(2)(b) of this section, 94361
a business entity that is a corporation formed under division (B) 94362
of section 1701.03 of the Revised Code, a limited liability 94363
company formed under Chapter 1705. of the Revised Code, or a 94364
professional association formed under Chapter 1785. of the Revised 94365
Code if the entity has a sole shareholder who is a licensed health 94366
professional authorized to prescribe drugs and is authorized to 94367
provide the professional services being offered by the entity;94368

        (k) Except as provided in division (B)(2)(c) of this section, 94369
a business entity that is a corporation formed under division (B) 94370
of section 1701.03 of the Revised Code, a limited liability 94371
company formed under Chapter 1705. of the Revised Code, a 94372
partnership or a limited liability partnership formed under 94373
Chapter 1775. of the Revised Code, or a professional association 94374
formed under Chapter 1785. of the Revised Code, if, to be a 94375
shareholder, member, or partner, an individual is required to be 94376
licensed, certified, or otherwise legally authorized under Title 94377
XLVII of the Revised Code to perform the professional service 94378
provided by the entity and each such individual is a licensed 94379
health professional authorized to prescribe drugs.94380

       (2) No registered wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs 94381
shall possess for sale, or sell, at wholesale, dangerous drugs to 94382
any of the following:94383

       (a) A prescriber who is employed by a pain management clinic 94384
that is not licensed as a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs 94385
with a pain management clinic classification issued under section 94386
4729.552 of the Revised Code;94387

       (b) A business entity described in division (B)(1)(j) of this 94388
section that is, or is operating, a pain management clinic without 94389
a license as a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs with a pain 94390
management clinic classification issued under section 4729.552 of 94391
the Revised Code;94392

       (c) A business entity described in division (B)(1)(k) of this 94393
section that is, or is operating, a pain management clinic without 94394
a license as a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs with a pain 94395
management clinic classification issued under section 4729.552 of 94396
the Revised Code.94397

        (3) No registered wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs 94398
shall possess dangerous drugs for sale at wholesale, or sell such 94399
drugs at wholesale, to a licensed terminal distributor of 94400
dangerous drugs, except as follows:94401

       (a) In the case of a terminal distributor with a category I 94402
license, only dangerous drugs described in category I, as defined 94403
in division (A)(1) of section 4729.54 of the Revised Code;94404

       (b) In the case of a terminal distributor with a category II 94405
license, only dangerous drugs described in category I and category 94406
II, as defined in divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 4729.54 of 94407
the Revised Code;94408

       (c) In the case of a terminal distributor with a category III 94409
license, dangerous drugs described in category I, category II, and 94410
category III, as defined in divisions (A)(1), (2), and (3) of 94411
section 4729.54 of the Revised Code;94412

       (d) In the case of a terminal distributor with a limited 94413
category I, II, or III license, only the dangerous drugs specified 94414
in the certificate furnished by the terminal distributor in 94415
accordance with section 4729.60 of the Revised Code.94416

       (C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(4) of this section, 94417
no person shall sell, at retail, dangerous drugs.94418

       (2) Except as provided in division (C)(4) of this section, no 94419
person shall possess for sale, at retail, dangerous drugs.94420

       (3) Except as provided in division (C)(4) of this section, no 94421
person shall possess dangerous drugs.94422

       (4) Divisions (C)(1), (2), and (3) of this section do not 94423
apply to a registered wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs, a 94424
licensed terminal distributor of dangerous drugs, or a person who 94425
possesses, or possesses for sale or sells, at retail, a dangerous 94426
drug in accordance with Chapters 3719., 4715., 4723., 4725., 94427
4729., 4730., 4731., and 4741. of the Revised Code.94428

       Divisions (C)(1), (2), and (3) of this section do not apply 94429
to an individual who holds a current license, certificate, or 94430
registration issued under Title XLVII of the Revised Code and has 94431
been certified to conduct diabetes education by a national 94432
certifying body specified in rules adopted by the state board of 94433
pharmacy under section 4729.68 of the Revised Code, but only to 94434
the extent that the individual possesses insulin or personally 94435
supplies insulin solely for the purpose of diabetes education and 94436
only if diabetes education is within the individual's scope of 94437
practice under statutes and rules regulating the individual's 94438
profession.94439

       Divisions (C)(1), (2), and (3) of this section do not apply 94440
to an individual who holds a valid certificate issued by a 94441
nationally recognized S.C.U.B.A. diving certifying organization 94442
approved by the state board of pharmacy in rule, but only to the 94443
extent that the individual possesses medical oxygen or personally 94444
supplies medical oxygen for the purpose of emergency care or 94445
treatment at the scene of a diving emergency.94446

       (D) No licensed terminal distributor of dangerous drugs shall 94447
purchase for the purpose of resale dangerous drugs from any person 94448
other than a registered wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs, 94449
except as follows:94450

       (1) A licensed terminal distributor of dangerous drugs may 94451
make occasional purchases of dangerous drugs for resale from a 94452
pharmacist who is a licensed terminal distributor of dangerous 94453
drugs or who is employed by a licensed terminal distributor of 94454
dangerous drugs;94455

       (2) A licensed terminal distributor of dangerous drugs having 94456
more than one establishment or place may transfer or receive 94457
dangerous drugs from one establishment or place for which a 94458
license has been issued to the terminal distributor to another 94459
establishment or place for which a license has been issued to the 94460
terminal distributor if the license issued for each establishment 94461
or place is in effect at the time of the transfer or receipt.94462

       (E) A pharmacy that is a licensed terminal distributor of 94463
dangerous drugs may operate a remote dispensing system in an 94464
institutional facility in accordance with section 4729.542 of the 94465
Revised Code.94466

        (F) No licensed terminal distributor of dangerous drugs shall 94467
engage in the sale or other distribution of dangerous drugs at 94468
retail or maintain possession, custody, or control of dangerous 94469
drugs for any purpose other than the distributor's personal use or 94470
consumption, at any establishment or place other than that or 94471
those described in the license issued by the state board of 94472
pharmacy to such terminal distributor.94473

       (F)(G) Nothing in this section shall be construed to 94474
interfere with the performance of official duties by any law 94475
enforcement official authorized by municipal, county, state, or 94476
federal law to collect samples of any drug, regardless of its 94477
nature or in whose possession it may be.94478

       Sec. 4729.54.  (A) As used in this section and section 94479
4729.541 of the Revised Code:94480

       (1) "Category I" means single-dose injections of intravenous 94481
fluids, including saline, Ringer's lactate, five per cent dextrose 94482
and distilled water, and other intravenous fluids or parenteral 94483
solutions included in this category by rule of the state board of 94484
pharmacy, that have a volume of one hundred milliliters or more 94485
and that contain no added substances, or single-dose injections of 94486
epinephrine to be administered pursuant to sections 4765.38 and 94487
4765.39 of the Revised Code.94488

       (2) "Category II" means any dangerous drug that is not 94489
included in category I or III.94490

       (3) "Category III" means any controlled substance that is 94491
contained in schedule I, II, III, IV, or V.94492

       (4) "Emergency medical service organization" has the same 94493
meaning as in section 4765.01 of the Revised Code.94494

       (5) "Person" includes an emergency medical service 94495
organization.94496

       (6) "Schedule I, schedule II, schedule III, schedule IV, and 94497
schedule V" mean controlled substance schedules I, II, III, IV, 94498
and V, respectively, as established pursuant to section 3719.41 of 94499
the Revised Code and as amended.94500

       (B)(1) A person who desires to be licensed as a terminal 94501
distributor of dangerous drugs shall file with the executive 94502
director of the state board of pharmacy a verified application. 94503
After it is filed, the application may not be withdrawn without 94504
approval of the board.94505

       (2) An application shall contain all the following that apply 94506
in the applicant's case:94507

       (a) Information that the board requires relative to the 94508
qualifications of a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs set 94509
forth in section 4729.55 of the Revised Code;94510

       (b) A statement that the person wishes to be licensed as a 94511
category I, category II, category III, limited category I, limited 94512
category II, or limited category III terminal distributor of 94513
dangerous drugs;94514

       (c) If the person wishes to be licensed as a limited category 94515
I, limited category II, or limited category III terminal 94516
distributor of dangerous drugs, a notarized list of the dangerous 94517
drugs that the person wishes to possess, have custody or control 94518
of, and distribute, which list shall also specify the purpose for 94519
which those drugs will be used and their source;94520

       (d) If the person is an emergency medical service 94521
organization, the information that is specified in division (C)(1) 94522
of this section;94523

       (e) Except for an emergency medical service organization, the 94524
identity of the one establishment or place at which the person 94525
intends to engage in the sale or other distribution of dangerous 94526
drugs at retail, and maintain possession, custody, or control of 94527
dangerous drugs for purposes other than the person's own use or 94528
consumption and any institutional facility at which the person 94529
intends to operate a remote dispensing system in accordance with 94530
section 4729.542 of the Revised Code;94531

       (f) If the application pertains to a pain management clinic, 94532
information that demonstrates, to the satisfaction of the board, 94533
compliance with division (A) of section 4729.552 of the Revised 94534
Code.94535

       (C)(1) An emergency medical service organization that wishes 94536
to be licensed as a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs shall 94537
list in its application for licensure the following additional 94538
information:94539

       (a) The units under its control that the organization 94540
determines will possess dangerous drugs for the purpose of 94541
administering emergency medical services in accordance with 94542
Chapter 4765. of the Revised Code;94543

       (b) With respect to each such unit, whether the dangerous 94544
drugs that the organization determines the unit will possess are 94545
in category I, II, or III.94546

       (2) An emergency medical service organization that is 94547
licensed as a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs shall file a 94548
new application for such licensure if there is any change in the 94549
number, or location of, any of its units or any change in the 94550
category of the dangerous drugs that any unit will possess.94551

       (3) A unit listed in an application for licensure pursuant to 94552
division (C)(1) of this section may obtain the dangerous drugs it 94553
is authorized to possess from its emergency medical service 94554
organization or, on a replacement basis, from a hospital pharmacy. 94555
If units will obtain dangerous drugs from a hospital pharmacy, the 94556
organization shall file, and maintain in current form, the 94557
following items with the pharmacist who is responsible for the 94558
hospital's terminal distributor of dangerous drugs license:94559

       (a) A copy of its standing orders or protocol;94560

       (b) A list of the personnel employed or used by the 94561
organization to provide emergency medical services in accordance 94562
with Chapter 4765. of the Revised Code, who are authorized to 94563
possess the drugs, which list also shall indicate the personnel 94564
who are authorized to administer the drugs.94565

       (D) Each emergency medical service organization that applies 94566
for a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs license shall submit 94567
with its application the following:94568

       (1) A notarized copy of its standing orders or protocol, 94569
which orders or protocol shall be signed by a physician and 94570
specify the dangerous drugs that its units may carry, expressed in 94571
standard dose units;94572

       (2) A list of the personnel employed or used by the 94573
organization to provide emergency medical services in accordance 94574
with Chapter 4765. of the Revised Code.94575

       An emergency medical service organization that is licensed as 94576
a terminal distributor shall notify the board immediately of any 94577
changes in its standing orders or protocol.94578

       (E) There shall be six categories of terminal distributor of 94579
dangerous drugs licenses, which categories shall be as follows:94580

       (1) Category I license. A person who obtains this license may 94581
possess, have custody or control of, and distribute only the 94582
dangerous drugs described in category I.94583

       (2) Limited category I license. A person who obtains this 94584
license may possess, have custody or control of, and distribute 94585
only the dangerous drugs described in category I that were listed 94586
in the application for licensure.94587

       (3) Category II license. A person who obtains this license 94588
may possess, have custody or control of, and distribute only the 94589
dangerous drugs described in category I and category II.94590

       (4) Limited category II license. A person who obtains this 94591
license may possess, have custody or control of, and distribute 94592
only the dangerous drugs described in category I or category II 94593
that were listed in the application for licensure.94594

       (5) Category III license, which may include a pain management 94595
clinic classification issued under section 4729.552 of the Revised 94596
Code. A person who obtains this license may possess, have custody 94597
or control of, and distribute the dangerous drugs described in 94598
category I, category II, and category III. If the license includes 94599
a pain management clinic classification, the person may operate a 94600
pain management clinic.94601

       (6) Limited category III license. A person who obtains this 94602
license may possess, have custody or control of, and distribute 94603
only the dangerous drugs described in category I, category II, or 94604
category III that were listed in the application for licensure.94605

       (F) Except for an application made on behalf of an animal 94606
shelter, if an applicant for licensure as a limited category I, 94607
II, or III terminal distributor of dangerous drugs intends to 94608
administer dangerous drugs to a person or animal, the applicant 94609
shall submit, with the application, a notarized copy of its 94610
protocol or standing orders, which protocol or orders shall be 94611
signed by a licensed health professional authorized to prescribe 94612
drugs, specify the dangerous drugs to be administered, and list 94613
personnel who are authorized to administer the dangerous drugs in 94614
accordance with federal law or the law of this state. An 94615
application made on behalf of an animal shelter shall include a 94616
notarized list of the dangerous drugs to be administered to 94617
animals and the personnel who are authorized to administer the 94618
drugs to animals in accordance with section 4729.532 of the 94619
Revised Code. After obtaining a terminal distributor license, a 94620
licensee shall notify the board immediately of any changes in its 94621
protocol or standing orders, or in such personnel.94622

       (G)(1) Except as provided in division (G)(2) of this section, 94623
each applicant for licensure as a terminal distributor of 94624
dangerous drugs shall submit, with the application, a license fee 94625
determined as follows:94626

       (a) For a category I or limited category I license, 94627
forty-five dollars;94628

       (b) For a category II or limited category II license, one 94629
hundred twelve dollars and fifty cents;94630

       (c) For a category III license, including a license with a 94631
pain management clinic classification issued under section 94632
4729.552 of the Revised Code, or a limited category III license, 94633
one hundred fifty dollars.94634

       (2) For a professional association, corporation, partnership, 94635
or limited liability company organized for the purpose of 94636
practicing veterinary medicine, the fee shall be forty dollars.94637

       (3) Fees assessed under divisions (G)(1) and (2) of this 94638
section shall not be returned if the applicant fails to qualify 94639
for registration.94640

       (H)(1) The board shall issue a terminal distributor of 94641
dangerous drugs license to each person who submits an application 94642
for such licensure in accordance with this section, pays the 94643
required license fee, is determined by the board to meet the 94644
requirements set forth in section 4729.55 of the Revised Code, and 94645
satisfies any other applicable requirements of this section.94646

       (2) The license of a person other than an emergency medical 94647
service organization shall describe the one establishment or place 94648
at which the licensee may engage in the sale or other distribution 94649
of dangerous drugs at retail and maintain possession, custody, or 94650
control of dangerous drugs for purposes other than the licensee's 94651
own use or consumption and any institutional facility at which the 94652
person intends to operate a remote dispensing system in accordance 94653
with section 4729.542 of the Revised Code. The one establishment 94654
or place and any institutional facility at which the person 94655
intends to operate a remote dispensing system shall be that which 94656
isthose described in the application for licensure.94657

       No such license shall authorize or permit the terminal 94658
distributor of dangerous drugs named in it to engage in the sale 94659
or other distribution of dangerous drugs at retail or to maintain 94660
possession, custody, or control of dangerous drugs for any purpose 94661
other than the distributor's own use or consumption, at any 94662
establishment or place other than thatthose described in the 94663
license, except that an agent or employee of an animal shelter may 94664
possess and use dangerous drugs in the course of business as 94665
provided in division (D) of section 4729.532 of the Revised Code.94666

       (3) The license of an emergency medical service organization 94667
shall cover and describe all the units of the organization listed 94668
in its application for licensure.94669

       (4) The license of every terminal distributor of dangerous 94670
drugs shall indicate, on its face, the category of licensure. If 94671
the license is a limited category I, II, or III license, it shall 94672
specify, and shall authorize the licensee to possess, have custody 94673
or control of, and distribute only, the dangerous drugs that were 94674
listed in the application for licensure.94675

       (I) All licenses issued pursuant to this section shall be 94676
effective for a period of twelve months from the first day of 94677
January of each year. A license shall be renewed by the board for 94678
a like period, annually, according to the provisions of this 94679
section, and the standard renewal procedure of Chapter 4745. of 94680
the Revised Code. A person who desires to renew a license shall 94681
submit an application for renewal and pay the required fee on or 94682
before the thirty-first day of December each year. The fee 94683
required for the renewal of a license shall be the same as the fee 94684
paid for the license being renewed, and shall accompany the 94685
application for renewal.94686

       A license that has not been renewed during December in any 94687
year and by the first day of February of the following year may be 94688
reinstated only upon payment of the required renewal fee and a 94689
penalty fee of fifty-five dollars.94690

       (J)(1) No emergency medical service organization that is 94691
licensed as a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs shall fail 94692
to comply with division (C)(2) or (3) of this section.94693

       (2) No emergency medical service organization that is 94694
licensed as a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs shall fail 94695
to comply with division (D) of this section.94696

       (3) No licensed terminal distributor of dangerous drugs shall 94697
possess, have custody or control of, or distribute dangerous drugs 94698
that the terminal distributor is not entitled to possess, have 94699
custody or control of, or distribute by virtue of its category of 94700
licensure.94701

       (4) No licensee that is required by division (F) of this 94702
section to notify the board of changes in its protocol or standing 94703
orders, or in personnel, shall fail to comply with that division.94704

       Sec. 4729.542.  (A) As used in this section, "remote 94705
dispensing system" means a mechanical system for dispensing drugs 94706
that is installed in an institutional facility and communicates 94707
electronically with a pharmacy.94708

       (B) A pharmacy licensed under this chapter as a terminal 94709
distributor of dangerous drugs may use a remote dispensing system 94710
to assist in the distribution of dangerous drugs at an 94711
institutional facility if all of the following requirements are 94712
met:94713

       (1) The system has a documented and ongoing quality assurance 94714
program that monitors total system performance and requires one 94715
hundred per cent accuracy in drugs dispensed and their strength.94716

       (2) The system has security adequate to prevent unauthorized 94717
access to dangerous drugs.94718

       (3) Records kept by the system comply with requirements of 94719
the state board of pharmacy.94720

       (C) A pharmacist licensed under this chapter shall maintain 94721
supervision and control of a remote dispensing system but is not 94722
required to be physically present at the facility where the system 94723
is used to dispense drugs.94724

       (D) As part of the quality assurance program required by 94725
division (B)(1) of this section, the facility where the remote 94726
dispensing system is located shall complete periodic audits of 94727
controlled substances dispensed through the system.94728

       Sec. 4729.69. (A) The state board of pharmacy, in 94729
collaboration with the director of alcohol and drug addiction 94730
servicesmental health and addiction services and attorney 94731
general, shall establish and administer a drug take-back program 94732
under which drugs are collected from the community for the purpose 94733
of destruction or disposal of the drugs.94734

       (B) The program shall be established and administered in such 94735
a manner that it does both of the following:94736

       (1) Complies with any state or federal laws regarding the 94737
collection, destruction, or disposal of drugs;94738

       (2) Maintains the confidentiality of individuals who submit 94739
or otherwise provide drugs under the program.94740

       (C) In consultation with the director of alcohol and drug 94741
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services and 94742
attorney general, the board shall adopt rules governing the 94743
program. The rules shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 94744
119. of the Revised Code. In adopting the rules, the board shall 94745
specify all of the following:94746

       (1) The entities that may participate;94747

       (2) Guidelines and responsibilities for accepting drugs by 94748
participating entities;94749

       (3) Drugs that may be collected;94750

       (4) Record-keeping requirements;94751

       (5) Proper methods to destroy unused drugs;94752

       (6) Privacy protocols and security standards;94753

       (7) Drug transportation procedures;94754

       (8) The schedule, duration, and frequency of the collections 94755
of drugs, except that the first collection shall occur not later 94756
than one year after the effective date of this sectionMay 20, 94757
2011;94758

       (9) Any other standards and procedures the board considers 94759
necessary for purposes of governing the program.94760

       (D) In accordance with state and federal law, the board may 94761
adopt rules to allow an entity participating in the program to 94762
return any unused drugs to the pharmacy that originally dispensed 94763
the drug. The rules shall include procedures to be followed to 94764
maintain the confidentiality of the person for whom the drug was 94765
dispensed.94766

       (E) Rules adopted under this section may not do any of the 94767
following:94768

       (1) Require any entity to establish, fund, or operate a drug 94769
take-back program;94770

       (2) Establish any new licensing requirement or fee to 94771
participate in the program;94772

       (3) Require any entity to compile data on drugs collected.94773

       (F) The board may compile data on the amount and type of 94774
drugs collected under the program. For purposes of this division, 94775
the board may cooperate with a public or private entity in 94776
obtaining assistance in the compilation of data. An entity 94777
providing the assistance shall not be reimbursed under the program 94778
for any costs incurred in providing the assistance.94779

       (G) If the board compiles data under division (F) of this 94780
section, the board shall submit a report to the governor and, in 94781
accordance with section 101.68 of the Revised Code, the general 94782
assembly. The report, to the extent possible, shall include the 94783
following information:94784

       (1) Total weight of drugs collected, both with and without 94785
packaging;94786

       (2) The weight of controlled substances;94787

       (3) The amount of all of the following as a per cent of total 94788
drugs collected:94789

       (a) Controlled substances;94790

       (b) Brand name drugs;94791

       (c) Generic drugs;94792

       (d) Prescription drugs;94793

       (e) Non-prescription drugs.94794

       (4) The amount of vitamins, herbal supplements, and personal 94795
care products collected;94796

       (5) If provided by the person who submitted or otherwise 94797
donated drugs to the program, the reasons why the drugs were 94798
returned or unused.94799

       (H) No entity is required to participate in a drug take-back 94800
program established under this section, and no entity shall be 94801
subject to civil liability or professional disciplinary action for 94802
declining to participate.94803

       (I) The board may accept grants, gifts, or donations for 94804
purposes of the program. Money received under this division shall 94805
be deposited into the drug take-back program fund established 94806
under section 109.90 of the Revised Code.94807

       Sec. 4729.77. (A) If the state board of pharmacy establishes 94808
and maintains a drug database pursuant to section 4729.75 of the 94809
Revised Code, each pharmacy licensed as a terminal distributor of 94810
dangerous drugs that dispenses drugs to patients in this state and 94811
is included in the types of pharmacies specified in rules adopted 94812
under section 4729.84 of the Revised Code shall submit to the 94813
board the following prescription information:94814

       (1) Terminal distributor identification;94815

        (2) Patient identification;94816

        (3) Prescriber identification;94817

        (4) Date prescription was issued by prescriber;94818

        (5) Date drug was dispensed;94819

        (6) Indication of whether the drug dispensed is new or a 94820
refill;94821

        (7) Name, strength, and national drug code of the drug 94822
dispensed;94823

        (8) Quantity of drug dispensed;94824

        (9) Number of days' supply of drug dispensed;94825

        (10) Serial or prescription number assigned by the terminal 94826
distributor;94827

        (11) Source of payment for the drug dispensed.94828

       (B)(1) The information shall be transmitted as specified by 94829
the board in rules adopted under section 4729.84 of the Revised 94830
Code.94831

       (2) The information shall be submitted electronically in the 94832
format specified by the board, except that the board may grant a 94833
waiver allowing the distributor to submit the information in 94834
another format.94835

       (3) The information shall be submitted in accordance with any 94836
time limits specified by the boardnot less than once each day 94837
that the distributor conducts business, except that the board may 94838
grant an extension if either of the following occurs:94839

       (a) The distributor suffers a mechanical or electronic 94840
failure, or cannot meet the deadline for other reasons beyond the 94841
distributor's control.94842

       (b) The board is unable to receive electronic submissions.94843

       (C) This section does not apply to a prescriber personally 94844
furnishing or administering dangerous drugs to the prescriber's 94845
patient.94846

       Sec. 4729.78. (A) If the state board of pharmacy establishes 94847
and maintains a drug database pursuant to section 4729.75 of the 94848
Revised Code, each wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs that 94849
delivers drugs in this state to prescribers or terminal 94850
distributors of dangerous drugs shall submit to the board the 94851
following purchase information:94852

       (1) Purchaser identification;94853

       (2) Identification of the drug sold;94854

       (3) Quantity of the drug sold;94855

       (4) Date of sale;94856

       (5) The wholesale distributor's license number issued by the 94857
board.94858

       (B)(1) The information shall be transmitted as specified by 94859
the board in rules adopted under section 4729.84 of the Revised 94860
Code.94861

       (2) The information shall be submitted electronically in the 94862
format specified by the board, except that the board may grant a 94863
waiver allowing the distributor to submit the information in 94864
another format.94865

       (3) The information shall be submitted in accordance with any 94866
time limits specified by the boardnot less than once each day 94867
that the distributor conducts business, except that the board may 94868
grant an extension if either of the following occurs:94869

       (a) The distributor suffers a mechanical or electronic 94870
failure, or cannot meet the deadline for other reasons beyond the 94871
distributor's control.94872

       (b) The board is unable to receive electronic submissions.94873

       Sec. 4729.79.  (A) If the state board of pharmacy establishes 94874
and maintains a drug database pursuant to section 4729.75 of the 94875
Revised Code, each licensed health professional authorized to 94876
prescribe drugs, except as provided in division (C) of this 94877
section, who personally furnishes to a patient a controlled 94878
substance or other dangerous drug the board includes in the 94879
database pursuant to rules adopted under section 4729.84 of the 94880
Revised Code shall submit to the board the following information:94881

       (1) Prescriber identification;94882

       (2) Patient identification;94883

       (3) Date drug was furnished by the prescriber;94884

       (4) Indication of whether the drug furnished is new or a 94885
refill;94886

       (5) Name, strength, and national drug code of drug furnished;94887

       (6) Quantity of drug furnished;94888

       (7) Number of days' supply of drug furnished;94889

       (8) Source of payment for the drug furnished;94890

       (9) Identification of the owner of the drug furnished.94891

       (B)(1) The information shall be transmitted as specified by 94892
the board in rules adopted under section 4729.84 of the Revised 94893
Code.94894

       (2) The information shall be submitted electronically in the 94895
format specified by the board, except that the board may grant a 94896
waiver allowing the prescriber to submit the information in 94897
another format.94898

       (3) The information shall be submitted in accordance with any 94899
time limits specified by the boardnot less than once each day 94900
that the prescriber conducts business, except that the board may 94901
grant an extension if either of the following occurs:94902

       (a) The prescriber's transmission system suffers a mechanical 94903
or electronic failure, or the prescriber cannot meet the deadline 94904
for other reasons beyond the prescriber's control.94905

       (b) The board is unable to receive electronic submissions.94906

       (C)(1) The information required to be submitted under 94907
division (A) of this section may be submitted on behalf of the 94908
prescriber by the owner of the drug being personally furnished or 94909
by a delegate approved by that owner.94910

        (2) The requirements of this section to submit information to 94911
the board do not apply to a prescriber who is a veterinarian.94912

        (D) If the board becomes aware of a prescriber's failure to 94913
comply with this section, the board shall notify the government 94914
entity responsible for licensing the prescriber.94915

       Sec. 4729.80. (A) If the state board of pharmacy establishes 94916
and maintains a drug database pursuant to section 4729.75 of the 94917
Revised Code, the board is authorized or required to provide 94918
information from the database in accordance with the following:94919

       (1) On receipt of a request from a designated representative 94920
of a government entity responsible for the licensure, regulation, 94921
or discipline of health care professionals with authority to 94922
prescribe, administer, or dispense drugs, the board may provide to 94923
the representative information from the database relating to the 94924
professional who is the subject of an active investigation being 94925
conducted by the government entity.94926

       (2) On receipt of a request from a federal officer, or a 94927
state or local officer of this or any other state, whose duties 94928
include enforcing laws relating to drugs, the board shall provide 94929
to the officer information from the database relating to the 94930
person who is the subject of an active investigation of a drug 94931
abuse offense, as defined in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code, 94932
being conducted by the officer's employing government entity.94933

       (3) Pursuant to a subpoena issued by a grand jury, the board 94934
shall provide to the grand jury information from the database 94935
relating to the person who is the subject of an investigation 94936
being conducted by the grand jury.94937

       (4) Pursuant to a subpoena, search warrant, or court order in 94938
connection with the investigation or prosecution of a possible or 94939
alleged criminal offense, the board shall provide information from 94940
the database as necessary to comply with the subpoena, search 94941
warrant, or court order.94942

       (5) On receipt of a request from a prescriber or the 94943
prescriber's delegate approved by the board, the board may provide 94944
to the prescriber information from the database relating to a 94945
patient who is either of the following, if the prescriber 94946
certifies in a form specified by the board that it is for the 94947
purpose of providing medical treatment to the patient who is the 94948
subject of the request;94949

       (a) A current patient of the prescriber;94950

       (b) A potential patient of the prescriber based on a referral 94951
of the patient to the prescriber.94952

       (6) On receipt of a request from a pharmacist or the 94953
pharmacist's delegate approved by the board, the board may provide 94954
to the pharmacist information from the database relating to a 94955
current patient of the pharmacist, if the pharmacist certifies in 94956
a form specified by the board that it is for the purpose of the 94957
pharmacist's practice of pharmacy involving the patient who is the 94958
subject of the request.94959

       (7) On receipt of a request from an individual seeking the 94960
individual's own database information in accordance with the 94961
procedure established in rules adopted under section 4729.84 of 94962
the Revised Code, the board may provide to the individual the 94963
individual's own database information.94964

       (8) On receipt of a request from the medical director of a 94965
managed care organization that has entered into a data security 94966
agreement with the board required by section 5111.17105167.14 of 94967
the Revised Code, the board mayshall provide to the medical 94968
director information from the database relating to a medicaid 94969
recipient enrolled in the managed care organization, including 94970
information in the database related to prescriptions for the 94971
recipient that were not covered or reimbursed under a program 94972
administered by the department of medicaid.94973

       (9) On receipt of a request from the medicaid director of job 94974
and family services, the board mayshall provide to the director 94975
information from the database relating to a recipient of a program 94976
administered by the department of job and family services94977
medicaid, including information in the database related to 94978
prescriptions for the recipient that were not covered or paid by a 94979
program administered by the department. 94980

       (10) On receipt of a request from the administrator of 94981
workers' compensation, the board may provide to the administrator 94982
information from the database relating to a claimant under Chapter 94983
4121., 4123., 4127., or 4131. of the Revised Code.94984

        (11) On receipt of a request from a requestor described in 94985
division (A)(1), (2), (5), or (6) of this section who is from or 94986
participating with another state's prescription monitoring 94987
program, the board may provide to the requestor information from 94988
the database, but only if there is a written agreement under which 94989
the information is to be used and disseminated according to the 94990
laws of this state.94991

       (B) The state board of pharmacy shall maintain a record of 94992
each individual or entity that requests information from the 94993
database pursuant to this section. In accordance with rules 94994
adopted under section 4729.84 of the Revised Code, the board may 94995
use the records to document and report statistics and law 94996
enforcement outcomes.94997

        The board may provide records of an individual's requests for 94998
database information to the following:94999

        (1) A designated representative of a government entity that 95000
is responsible for the licensure, regulation, or discipline of 95001
health care professionals with authority to prescribe, administer, 95002
or dispense drugs who is involved in an active investigation being 95003
conducted by the government entity of the individual who submitted 95004
the requests for database information;95005

        (2) A federal officer, or a state or local officer of this or 95006
any other state, whose duties include enforcing laws relating to 95007
drugs and who is involved in an active investigation being 95008
conducted by the officer's employing government entity of the 95009
individual who submitted the requests for database information.95010

       (C) Information contained in the database and any information 95011
obtained from it is not a public record. Information contained in 95012
the records of requests for information from the database is not a 95013
public record. Information that does not identify a person may be 95014
released in summary, statistical, or aggregate form.95015

       (D) A pharmacist or prescriber shall not be held liable in 95016
damages to any person in any civil action for injury, death, or 95017
loss to person or property on the basis that the pharmacist or 95018
prescriber did or did not seek or obtain information from the 95019
database.95020

       Sec. 4729.81. If the state board of pharmacy establishes and 95021
maintains a drug database pursuant to section 4729.75 of the 95022
Revised Code, the board shall review the information in the drug 95023
database. If the board determines from the review that a violation 95024
of law may have occurred, it shall notify the appropriate law 95025
enforcement agency or a government entity responsible for the 95026
licensure, regulation, or discipline of licensed health 95027
professionals authorized to prescribe drugs and supply information 95028
required by the agency or entity for an investigation of the 95029
violation of law that may have occurred. The board also shall 95030
notify the medicaid director if the board determines that the 95031
violation may have been committed by a provider of services under 95032
a program administered by the department of medicaid.95033

       Sec. 4729.99.  (A) Whoever violates section 4729.16, division 95034
(A) or (B) of section 4729.38, or section 4729.57 of the Revised 95035
Code is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. Each day's violation 95036
constitutes a separate offense.95037

       (B) Whoever violates section 4729.27, 4729.28, or 4729.36 of 95038
the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree. 95039
Each day's violation constitutes a separate offense. If the 95040
offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a 95041
violation of this chapter, that person is guilty of a misdemeanor 95042
of the second degree.95043

       (C) Whoever violates section 4729.32, 4729.33, or 4729.34 of 95044
the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor.95045

       (D) Whoever violates division (A), (B), (D), or (E)(F) of 95046
section 4729.51 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of 95047
the first degree.95048

       (E)(1) Whoever violates section 4729.37, division (C)(2) of 95049
section 4729.51, division (J) of section 4729.54, or section 95050
4729.61 of the Revised Code is guilty of a felony of the fifth 95051
degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of or 95052
pleaded guilty to a violation of this chapter or a violation of 95053
Chapter 2925. or 3719. of the Revised Code, that person is guilty 95054
of a felony of the fourth degree.95055

       (2) If an offender is convicted of or pleads guilty to a 95056
violation of section 4729.37, division (C) of section 4729.51, 95057
division (J) of section 4729.54, or section 4729.61 of the Revised 95058
Code, if the violation involves the sale, offer to sell, or 95059
possession of a schedule I or II controlled substance, with the 95060
exception of marihuana, and if the court imposing sentence upon 95061
the offender finds that the offender as a result of the violation 95062
is a major drug offender, as defined in section 2929.01 of the 95063
Revised Code, and is guilty of a specification of the type 95064
described in section 2941.1410 of the Revised Code, the court, in 95065
lieu of the prison term authorized or required by division (E)(1) 95066
of this section and sections 2929.13 and 2929.14 of the Revised 95067
Code and in addition to any other sanction imposed for the offense 95068
under sections 2929.11 to 2929.18 of the Revised Code, shall 95069
impose upon the offender, in accordance with division (B)(3) of 95070
section 2929.14 of the Revised Code, the mandatory prison term 95071
specified in that division.95072

       (3) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of section 3719.21 95073
of the Revised Code, the clerk of court shall pay any fine imposed 95074
for a violation of section 4729.37, division (C) of section 95075
4729.51, division (J) of section 4729.54, or section 4729.61 of 95076
the Revised Code pursuant to division (A) of section 2929.18 of 95077
the Revised Code in accordance with and subject to the 95078
requirements of division (F) of section 2925.03 of the Revised 95079
Code. The agency that receives the fine shall use the fine as 95080
specified in division (F) of section 2925.03 of the Revised Code.95081

       (F) Whoever violates section 4729.531 of the Revised Code or 95082
any rule adopted thereunder or section 4729.532 of the Revised 95083
Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree.95084

       (G) Whoever violates division (C)(1) of section 4729.51 of 95085
the Revised Code is guilty of a felony of the fourth degree. If 95086
the offender has previously been convicted of or pleaded guilty to 95087
a violation of this chapter, or of a violation of Chapter 2925. or 95088
3719. of the Revised Code, that person is guilty of a felony of 95089
the third degree.95090

       (H) Whoever violates division (C)(3) of section 4729.51 of 95091
the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree. 95092
If the offender has previously been convicted of or pleaded guilty 95093
to a violation of this chapter, or of a violation of Chapter 2925. 95094
or 3719. of the Revised Code, that person is guilty of a felony of 95095
the fifth degree.95096

       (I)(1) Whoever violates division (B) of section 4729.42 of 95097
the Revised Code is guilty of unauthorized pharmacy-related drug 95098
conduct. Except as otherwise provided in this section, 95099
unauthorized pharmacy-related drug conduct is a misdemeanor of the 95100
second degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of or 95101
pleaded guilty to a violation of division (B), (C), (D), or (E) of 95102
that section, unauthorized pharmacy-related drug conduct is a 95103
misdemeanor of the first degree on a second offense and a felony 95104
of the fifth degree on a third or subsequent offense.95105

       (2) Whoever violates division (C) or (D) of section 4729.42 95106
of the Revised Code is guilty of permitting unauthorized 95107
pharmacy-related drug conduct. Except as otherwise provided in 95108
this section, permitting unauthorized pharmacy-related drug 95109
conduct is a misdemeanor of the second degree. If the offender 95110
previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation 95111
of division (B), (C), (D), or (E) of that section, permitting 95112
unauthorized pharmacy-related drug conduct is a misdemeanor of the 95113
first degree on a second offense and a felony of the fifth degree 95114
on a third or subsequent offense.95115

       (3) Whoever violates division (E) of section 4729.42 of the 95116
Revised Code is guilty of the offense of falsification under 95117
section 2921.13 of the Revised Code. In addition to any other 95118
sanction imposed for the violation, the offender is forever 95119
disqualified from engaging in any activity specified in division 95120
(B)(1), (2), or (3) of section 4729.42 of the Revised Code and 95121
from performing any function as a health care professional or 95122
health care worker. As used in this division, "health care 95123
professional" and "health care worker" have the same meanings as 95124
in section 2305.234 of the Revised Code.95125

       (4) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of section 3719.21 95126
of the Revised Code or any other provision of law that governs the 95127
distribution of fines, the clerk of the court shall pay any fine 95128
imposed pursuant to division (I)(1), (2), or (3) of this section 95129
to the state board of pharmacy if the board has adopted a written 95130
internal control policy under division (F)(2) of section 2925.03 95131
of the Revised Code that addresses fine moneys that it receives 95132
under Chapter 2925. of the Revised Code and if the policy also 95133
addresses fine moneys paid under this division. The state board of 95134
pharmacy shall use the fines so paid in accordance with the 95135
written internal control policy to subsidize the board's law 95136
enforcement efforts that pertain to drug offenses.95137

       (J)(1) Whoever violates division (A)(1) of section 4729.86 of 95138
the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree. 95139
If the offender has previously been convicted of or pleaded guilty 95140
to a violation of division (A)(1), (2), or (3) of section 4729.86 95141
of the Revised Code, that person is guilty of a misdemeanor of the 95142
first degree.95143

       (2) Whoever violates division (A)(2) of section 4729.86 of 95144
the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree. 95145
If the offender has previously been convicted of or pleaded guilty 95146
to a violation of division (A)(1), (2), or (3) of section 4729.86 95147
of the Revised Code, that person is guilty of a felony of the 95148
fifth degree.95149

       (3) Whoever violates division (A)(3) of section 4729.86 of 95150
the Revised Code is guilty of a felony of the fifth degree. If the 95151
offender has previously been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a 95152
violation of division (A)(1), (2), or (3) of section 4729.86 of 95153
the Revised Code, that person is guilty of a felony of the fourth 95154
degree.95155

       (K) A person who violates division (C) of section 4729.552 of 95156
the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree. 95157
If the person previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty 95158
to a violation of division (C) of section 4729.552 of the Revised 95159
Code, that person is guilty of a felony of the fifth degree.95160

       Sec. 4730.411. (A) Except as provided in division (B) or (C) 95161
of this section, a physician assistant may prescribe to a patient 95162
a schedule II controlled substance only if all of the following 95163
are the case:95164

       (1) The patient is in a terminal condition, as defined in 95165
section 2133.01 of the Revised Code.95166

        (2) The physician assistant's supervising physician initially 95167
prescribed the substance for the patient.95168

        (3) The prescription is for an amount that does not exceed 95169
the amount necessary for the patient's use in a single, 95170
twenty-four-hour period.95171

        (B) The restrictions on prescriptive authority in division 95172
(A) of this section do not apply if a physician assistant issues 95173
the prescription to the patient from any of the following 95174
locations:95175

        (1) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the 95176
Revised Code;95177

       (2) An entity owned or controlled, in whole or in part, by a 95178
hospital or by an entity that owns or controls, in whole or in 95179
part, one or more hospitals;95180

       (3) A health care facility operated by the department of 95181
mental healthmental health and addiction services or the 95182
department of developmental disabilities;95183

        (4) A nursing home licensed under section 3721.02 of the 95184
Revised Code or by a political subdivision certified under section 95185
3721.09 of the Revised Code;95186

       (5) A county home or district home operated under Chapter 95187
5155. of the Revised Code that is certified under the medicare or 95188
medicaid program;95189

        (6) A hospice care program, as defined in section 3712.01 of 95190
the Revised Code;95191

       (7) A community mental health agencyservices provider, as 95192
defined in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code;95193

        (8) An ambulatory surgical facility, as defined in section 95194
3702.30 of the Revised Code;95195

       (9) A freestanding birthing center, as defined in section 95196
3702.513702.141 of the Revised Code;95197

       (10) A federally qualified health center, as defined in 95198
section 3701.047 of the Revised Code;95199

       (11) A federally qualified health center look-alike, as 95200
defined in section 3701.047 of the Revised Code;95201

       (12) A health care office or facility operated by the board 95202
of health of a city or general health district or the authority 95203
having the duties of a board of health under section 3709.05 of 95204
the Revised Code;95205

       (13) A site where a medical practice is operated, but only if 95206
the practice is comprised of one or more physicians who also are 95207
owners of the practice; the practice is organized to provide 95208
direct patient care; and the physician assistant has entered into 95209
a supervisory agreement with at least one of the physician owners 95210
who practices primarily at that site.95211

       (C) A physician assistant shall not issue to a patient a 95212
prescription for a schedule II controlled substance from a 95213
convenience care clinic even if the convenience care clinic is 95214
owned or operated by an entity specified in division (B) of this 95215
section.95216

       (D) A pharmacist who acts in good faith reliance on a 95217
prescription issued by a physician assistant under division (B) of 95218
this section is not liable for or subject to any of the following 95219
for relying on the prescription: damages in any civil action, 95220
prosecution in any criminal proceeding, or professional 95221
disciplinary action by the state board of pharmacy under Chapter 95222
4729. of the Revised Code.95223

       Sec. 4731.05.  (A) The state medical board shall adopt rules 95224
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to carry out 95225
the purposes of this chapter. All adjudicative proceedings of the 95226
state medical board shall be conducted in accordance with Chapter 95227
119. of the Revised Code.95228

       (B) The state medical board shall appoint an executive 95229
director who shall be in the unclassified service of the state. 95230
The board may appoint other employees of the board as are 95231
necessary and shall prescribe their titles and duties.95232

       (C) The state medical board shall develop requirements for 95233
and provide appropriate initial and continuing training for 95234
investigators employed by the board to carry out its duties under 95235
Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code. The training and continuing 95236
education may include enrollment in courses operated or approved 95237
by the Ohio peace officer training commission that the board 95238
considers appropriate under conditions set forth in section 109.79 95239
of the Revised Code.95240

       (D)(1) The state medical board shall adopt internal 95241
management rules pursuant to section 111.15 of the Revised Code. 95242
The rules shall set forth criteria for assessing the board's 95243
accomplishments, activities, and performance data, including 95244
metrics detailing the board's revenues and reimbursements; budget 95245
distribution; investigation and licensing activity, including 95246
processing time frames; and enforcement data, including processing 95247
time frames. The board shall include the assessment in the annual 95248
report required by section 149.01 of the Revised Code.95249

        (2) The state medical board shall cause the internal 95250
management rules and annual report described in division (D)(1) of 95251
this section to be publicly accessible on the state medical 95252
board's web site.95253

       Sec. 4731.151.  (A) Naprapaths who received a certificate to 95254
practice from the board prior to March 2, 1992, may continue to 95255
practice naprapathy, as defined in rules adopted by the board. 95256
Such naprapaths shall practice in accordance with rules adopted by 95257
the board.95258

       (B)(1) As used in this division:95259

       (a) "Mechanotherapy" means all of the following:95260

       (i) Examining patients by verbal inquiry;95261

       (ii) Examination of the musculoskeletal system by hand;95262

       (iii) Visual inspection and observation;95263

       (iv) Diagnosing a patient's condition only as to whether the 95264
patient has a disorder of the musculoskeletal system;95265

       (v) In the treatment of patients, employing the techniques of 95266
advised or supervised exercise; electrical neuromuscular 95267
stimulation; massage or manipulation; or air, water, heat, cold, 95268
sound, or infrared ray therapy only to those disorders of the 95269
musculoskeletal system that are amenable to treatment by such 95270
techniques and that are identifiable by examination performed in 95271
accordance with division (B)(1)(a)(i) of this section and 95272
diagnosable in accordance with division (B)(1)(a)(ii) of this 95273
section.95274

       (b) "Educational requirements" means the completion of a 95275
course of study appropriate for certification to practice 95276
mechanotherapy on or before November 3, 1985, as determined by 95277
rules adopted under this chapter.95278

       (2) Mechanotherapists who received a certificate to practice 95279
from the board prior to March 2, 1992, may continue to practice 95280
mechanotherapy, as defined in rules adopted by the board. Such 95281
mechanotherapists shall practice in accordance with rules adopted 95282
by the board.95283

       A person authorized by this division to practice as a 95284
mechanotherapist may examine, diagnose, and assume responsibility 95285
for the care of patients with due regard for first aid and the 95286
hygienic and nutritional care of the patients. Roentgen rays shall 95287
be used by a mechanotherapist only for diagnostic purposes.95288

       (3) A person who holds a certificate to practice 95289
mechanotherapy and completed educational requirements in 95290
mechanotherapy on or before November 3, 1985, is entitled to use 95291
the title "doctor of mechanotherapy" and is a "physician" who 95292
performs "medical services" for the purposes of Chapters 4121. and 95293
4123. of the Revised Code and the medicaid program established 95294
under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code, and shall receive 95295
payment or reimbursement as provided under those chapters and that 95296
sectionprogram.95297

       Sec. 4731.23.  (A)(1)(a) The state medical board shall 95298
designate one or more attorneys at law who have been admitted to 95299
the practice of law, and who are classified as either 95300
administrative law attorney examiners or as administrative law 95301
attorney examiner administrators under the state job 95302
classification plan adopted under section 124.14 of the Revised 95303
Code, as hearing examiners, subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised 95304
Code, to conduct any hearing which the medical board is empowered 95305
to hold or undertake pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. 95306

       (b) Notwithstanding the requirement of division (A)(1)(a) of 95307
this section that the board designate as a hearing examiner an 95308
attorney who is classified as either an administrative law 95309
attorney examiner or an administrative law attorney examiner 95310
administrator, the board may, subject to controlling board 95311
approvalsection 127.16 of the Revised Code, enter into a personal 95312
service contract with an attorney admitted to the practice of law 95313
in this state to serve on a temporary basis as a hearing examiner.95314

       (2) The hearing examiner shall hear and consider the oral and 95315
documented evidence introduced by the parties and issue in writing 95316
proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law to the board for 95317
their consideration within thirty days following the close of the 95318
hearing.95319

       (B) The board shall be given copies of the transcript of the 95320
record hearing and all exhibits and documents presented by the 95321
parties at the hearing.95322

       (C) The board shall, upon the favorable vote of three 95323
members, allow the parties or their counsel the opportunity to 95324
present oral arguments on the proposed findings of fact and 95325
conclusions of law of the hearing examiner prior to the board's 95326
final action.95327

       (D) The board shall render a decision and take action within 95328
sixty days following the receipt of the hearing examiner's 95329
proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law or within any 95330
longer period mutually agreed upon by the board and the 95331
certificate holder.95332

       (E) The final decision of the board in any hearing which the 95333
board is empowered to undertake shall be in writing and contain 95334
findings of fact and conclusions of law. Copies of the decision 95335
shall be delivered to the parties personally or by certified mail. 95336
The decision shall be final upon delivery or mailing, except that 95337
the certificate holder may appeal in the manner provided by 95338
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.95339

       Sec. 4731.299.  (A) The state medical board may issue, 95340
without examination, to an applicant who meets all of the 95341
requirements of this section an expedited certificate to practice 95342
medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery by 95343
endorsement.95344

        (B) An individual who seeks an expedited certificate to 95345
practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery 95346
by endorsement shall file with the board a written application on 95347
a form prescribed and supplied by the board. The application shall 95348
include all of the information the board considers necessary to 95349
process it.95350

       (C) To be eligible to receive an expedited certificate by 95351
endorsement, an applicant shall do both of the following:95352

       (1) Provide evidence satisfactory to the board that the 95353
applicant meets all of the following requirements:95354

       (a) Has passed one of the following:95355

       (i) Steps one, two, and three of the United States medical 95356
licensing examination;95357

       (ii) Levels one, two, and three of the comprehensive 95358
osteopathic medical licensing examination of the United States;95359

       (iii) Any other medical licensing examination recognized by 95360
the board.95361

       (b) For at least five years immediately preceding the date of 95362
application, has held a current, unrestricted license to practice 95363
medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery issued by 95364
the licensing authority of another state or a Canadian province;95365

       (c) For at least two years immediately preceding the date of 95366
application, has actively practiced medicine and surgery or 95367
osteopathic medicine and surgery in a clinical setting.95368

       (2) Certify to the board that all of the following are the 95369
case:95370

       (a) Not more than two malpractice claims have been filed 95371
against the applicant within a period of ten years and no 95372
malpractice claim against the applicant has resulted in total 95373
payment of more than five hundred thousand dollars.95374

       (b) The applicant does not have a criminal record according 95375
to the criminal records check required by section 4731.081 of the 95376
Revised Code.95377

       (c) The applicant does not have a medical condition that 95378
could affect the applicant's ability to practice according to 95379
acceptable and prevailing standards of care.95380

       (d) No adverse action has been taken against the applicant by 95381
a health care institution.95382

       (e) To the applicant's knowledge, no federal agency, medical 95383
society, medical association, or branch of the United States 95384
military has investigated or taken action against the applicant.95385

       (f) No professional licensing or regulatory authority has 95386
filed a complaint against, investigated, or taken action against 95387
the applicant and the applicant has not withdrawn a professional 95388
license application.95389

       (g) The applicant has not been suspended or expelled from any 95390
institution of higher education or school, including a medical 95391
school.95392

       (D) An applicant for an expedited certificate by endorsement 95393
shall comply with section 4731.081 of the Revised Code.95394

       (E) At the time of application, the applicant shall pay to 95395
the board a fee of one thousand dollars, no part of which shall be 95396
returned. No application shall be considered filed until the board 95397
receives the fee.95398

       (F) The board shall review all applications received under 95399
this section. If the board determines that an applicant meets the 95400
requirements for an expedited certificate to practice medicine and 95401
surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery by endorsement, the 95402
board shall issue the certificate to the applicant. Each 95403
certificate issued by the board under this section shall be signed 95404
by the president and secretary of the board and attested by its 95405
seal.95406

       Sec. 4731.65.  As used in sections 4731.65 to 4731.71 of the 95407
Revised Code:95408

       (A)(1) "Clinical laboratory services" means either of the 95409
following:95410

       (a) Any examination of materials derived from the human body 95411
for the purpose of providing information for the diagnosis, 95412
prevention, or treatment of any disease or impairment or for the 95413
assessment of health;95414

       (b) Procedures to determine, measure, or otherwise describe 95415
the presence or absence of various substances or organisms in the 95416
body.95417

       (2) "Clinical laboratory services" does not include the mere 95418
collection or preparation of specimens.95419

       (B) "Designated health services" means any of the following:95420

       (1) Clinical laboratory services;95421

       (2) Home health care services;95422

       (3) Outpatient prescription drugs.95423

       (C) "Fair market value" means the value in arms-length 95424
transactions, consistent with general market value and:95425

       (1) With respect to rentals or leases, the value of rental 95426
property for general commercial purposes, not taking into account 95427
its intended use;95428

       (2) With respect to a lease of space, not adjusted to reflect 95429
the additional value the prospective lessee or lessor would 95430
attribute to the proximity or convenience to the lessor if the 95431
lessor is a potential source of referrals to the lessee.95432

       (D) "Governmental health care program" means any program 95433
providing health care benefits that is administered by the federal 95434
government, this state, or a political subdivision of this state, 95435
including the medicare program established under Title XVIII of 95436
the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, 95437
as amended, health care coverage for public employees, health care 95438
benefits administered by the bureau of workers' compensation, and 95439
the medicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of the 95440
Revised Code.95441

       (E)(1) "Group practice" means a group of two or more holders 95442
of certificates under this chapter legally organized as a 95443
partnership, professional corporation or association, limited 95444
liability company, foundation, nonprofit corporation, faculty 95445
practice plan, or similar group practice entity, including an 95446
organization comprised of a nonprofit medical clinic that 95447
contracts with a professional corporation or association of 95448
physicians to provide medical services exclusively to patients of 95449
the clinic in order to comply with section 1701.03 of the Revised 95450
Code and including a corporation, limited liability company, 95451
partnership, or professional association described in division (B) 95452
of section 4731.226 of the Revised Code formed for the purpose of 95453
providing a combination of the professional services of 95454
optometrists who are licensed, certificated, or otherwise legally 95455
authorized to practice optometry under Chapter 4725. of the 95456
Revised Code, chiropractors who are licensed, certificated, or 95457
otherwise legally authorized to practice chiropractic or 95458
acupuncture under Chapter 4734. of the Revised Code, psychologists 95459
who are licensed, certificated, or otherwise legally authorized to 95460
practice psychology under Chapter 4732. of the Revised Code, 95461
registered or licensed practical nurses who are licensed, 95462
certificated, or otherwise legally authorized to practice nursing 95463
under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code, pharmacists who are 95464
licensed, certificated, or otherwise legally authorized to 95465
practice pharmacy under Chapter 4729. of the Revised Code, 95466
physical therapists who are licensed, certificated, or otherwise 95467
legally authorized to practice physical therapy under sections 95468
4755.40 to 4755.56 of the Revised Code, occupational therapists 95469
who are licensed, certificated, or otherwise legally authorized to 95470
practice occupational therapy under sections 4755.04 to 4755.13 of 95471
the Revised Code, mechanotherapists who are licensed, 95472
certificated, or otherwise legally authorized to practice 95473
mechanotherapy under section 4731.151 of the Revised Code, and 95474
doctors of medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, 95475
or podiatric medicine and surgery who are licensed, certificated, 95476
or otherwise legally authorized for their respective practices 95477
under this chapter, to which all of the following apply:95478

       (a) Each physician who is a member of the group practice 95479
provides substantially the full range of services that the 95480
physician routinely provides, including medical care, 95481
consultation, diagnosis, or treatment, through the joint use of 95482
shared office space, facilities, equipment, and personnel.95483

       (b) Substantially all of the services of the members of the 95484
group are provided through the group and are billed in the name of 95485
the group and amounts so received are treated as receipts of the 95486
group.95487

       (c) The overhead expenses of and the income from the practice 95488
are distributed in accordance with methods previously determined 95489
by members of the group.95490

       (d) The group practice meets any other requirements that the 95491
state medical board applies in rules adopted under section 4731.70 95492
of the Revised Code.95493

       (2) In the case of a faculty practice plan associated with a 95494
hospital with a medical residency training program in which 95495
physician members may provide a variety of specialty services and 95496
provide professional services both within and outside the group, 95497
as well as perform other tasks such as research, the criteria in 95498
division (E)(1) of this section apply only with respect to 95499
services rendered within the faculty practice plan.95500

       (F) "Home health care services" and "immediate family" have 95501
the same meanings as in the rules adopted under section 4731.70 of 95502
the Revised Code.95503

       (G) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of 95504
the Revised Code.95505

       (H) A "referral" includes both of the following:95506

       (1) A request by a holder of a certificate under this chapter 95507
for an item or service, including a request for a consultation 95508
with another physician and any test or procedure ordered by or to 95509
be performed by or under the supervision of the other physician;95510

       (2) A request for or establishment of a plan of care by a 95511
certificate holder that includes the provision of designated 95512
health services.95513

       (I) "Third-party payer" has the same meaning as in section 95514
3901.38 of the Revised Code.95515

       Sec. 4731.71.  The auditor of state may implement procedures 95516
to detect violations of section 4731.66 or 4731.69 of the Revised 95517
Code within governmental health care programs administered by the 95518
state. The auditor of state shall report any violation of either 95519
section to the state medical board and shall certify to the 95520
attorney general in accordance with section 131.02 of the Revised 95521
Code the amount of any refund owed to a state-administered 95522
governmental health care program under section 4731.69 of the 95523
Revised Code as a result of a violation. If a refund is owed to 95524
the medicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of the 95525
Revised Code, the auditor of state also shall report the amount to 95526
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid.95527

       The state medical board also may implement procedures to 95528
detect violations of section 4731.66 or 4731.69 of the Revised 95529
Code.95530

       Sec. 4732.06.  The principal office of the state board of 95531
psychology shall be in Columbus, but it may meet or conduct 95532
business at any place in this state. The board may empower any one 95533
or more of its members to conduct any proceeding, hearing, or 95534
investigation necessary to its purposes, including the 95535
administration and enforcement of Chapter 4783. of the Revised 95536
Code. The board shall meet at least twice annually and at such 95537
other times as it determines. Special meetings may be called by 95538
the president and shall be called by the secretary upon the 95539
written request of two members.95540

       The board shall make such rules as are necessary to conduct 95541
its business.95542

       The board may employ such assistants and clerical help as are 95543
necessary to administer and enforce this chapter and Chapter 4783. 95544
of the Revised Code.95545

       Sec. 4732.07.  The state board of psychology shall keep a 95546
record of its proceedings and a register of applicants for 95547
licenses under this chapter and applicants for certificates under 95548
Chapter 4783. of the Revised Code. The books and records of the 95549
board shall be prima-facie evidence of the matters therein 95550
contained. Such recordsThe records regarding licensure 95551
applications shall include applicants' written examination papers.95552

       Sec. 4732.08.  All receipts of the state board of psychology 95553
from any source, including moneys collected under Chapter 4783. of 95554
the Revised Code, shall be deposited in the state treasury to the 95555
credit of the occupational licensing and regulatory fund."95556

       Sec. 4734.41.  (A) As used in this section:95557

       (1) "Chemical dependency" means either of the following:95558

       (a) The chronic and habitual use of alcoholic beverages to 95559
the extent that the user no longer can control the use of alcohol 95560
or endangers the user's health, safety, or welfare or that of 95561
others;95562

       (b) The use of a controlled substance as defined in section 95563
3719.01 of the Revised Code, a harmful intoxicant as defined in 95564
section 2925.01 of the Revised Code, or a dangerous drug as 95565
defined in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code, to the extent that 95566
the user becomes physically or psychologically dependent on the 95567
substance, intoxicant, or drug or endangers the user's health, 95568
safety, or welfare or that of others.95569

       (2) "Mental illness" means a recognized psychiatric or 95570
psychological condition, disorder, or syndrome that has been 95571
diagnosed by a psychiatrist, psychologist, professional clinical 95572
counselor, or independent social worker as a condition, disorder, 95573
or syndrome that may pose a danger to the person diagnosed or 95574
others or may prevent the person from practicing the person's 95575
profession according to acceptable and prevailing standards of 95576
care.95577

       (B) The state chiropractic board shall establish a chemical 95578
dependency and mental illness monitoring program. The program 95579
shall be made available to any individual under the board's 95580
jurisdiction who has a chemical dependency or mental illness and 95581
meets the board's eligibility requirements for admission to and 95582
continued participation in the program. The board shall develop 95583
the program and may designate a coordinator to administer it or 95584
enter into a contract for the program to be administered by 95585
another entity through a coordinator. The board shall adopt rules 95586
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that establish 95587
standards and procedure for operating the program.95588

       (C) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, all 95589
records of an individual's participation in the monitoring 95590
program, including medical records, chemical dependency records, 95591
and mental health records, shall be confidential, are not public 95592
records for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code, 95593
and are not subject to discovery by subpoena or admissble95594
admissible as evidence in any judicial proceeding. The program 95595
coordinator shall maintain all records as directed by the board.95596

       (D) The monitoring program's coordinator may disclose records 95597
or information regarding an individual's progress and status of 95598
participation in the program to the disciplinary section of the 95599
board and to any person or government entity that the program 95600
participant authorizes in writing to be given the records or 95601
information.95602

       In disclosing records or information under this division, the 95603
coordinator shall not include any record or information that is 95604
protected under section 3793.135119.27 of the Revised Code or any 95605
federal statute or regulation that provides for the 95606
confidentiality of mental health or substance abuse records.95607

       (E) In the absence of fraud or bad faith, the monitoring 95608
program's coordinator, the board and the board's employees and 95609
representatives are not liable for damages in any civil action as 95610
a result of disclosing records or information in accordance with 95611
division (D) of this section. In the absence of fraud or bad 95612
faith, any person reporting to the program an individual's 95613
chemical dependency or mental illness, or the progress or lack of 95614
progress of that individual with regard to treatment, is not 95615
liable for damages in any civil action as a result of the report.95616

       (F) The board may abstain from taking formal disciplinary 95617
action under section 4734.31 of the Revised Code against an 95618
individual because of the individual's chemical dependency or 95619
mental illness, if the individual meets the eligibility 95620
requirements for admission into the monitoring program and all of 95621
the following occur:95622

       (1) The individual enters into a monitoring agreement with 95623
the coordinator of the program;95624

       (2) The individual complies with the terms and conditions for 95625
continued participation in the program, as specified in the 95626
monitoring agreement;95627

       (3) The individual successfully completes the terms and 95628
conditions of the monitoring agreement, including the condition 95629
that the individual attain the ability to practice in accordance 95630
with acceptable and prevailing standards of care applicable to the 95631
practice of chiropractic.95632

       Sec. 4735.07.  (A) The superintendent of real estate, with 95633
the consent of the Ohio real estate commission, may enter into 95634
agreements with recognized national testing services to administer 95635
the real estate broker's examination under the superintendent's 95636
supervision and control, consistent with the requirements of this 95637
chapter as to the contents of such examination.95638

       (B) No applicant for a real estate broker's license shall 95639
take the broker's examination who has not established to the 95640
satisfaction of the superintendent that the applicant:95641

       (1) Is honest, truthful, and of good reputation;95642

       (2)(a) Has not been convicted of a felony or crime of moral 95643
turpitude, or if the applicant has been so convicted, the 95644
superintendent has disregarded the conviction because the 95645
applicant has proven to the superintendent, by a preponderance of 95646
the evidence, that the applicant's activities and employment 95647
record since the conviction show that the applicant is honest, 95648
truthful, and of good reputation, and there is no basis in fact 95649
for believing that the applicant again will violate the laws 95650
involved;95651

       (b) Has not been finally adjudged by a court to have violated 95652
any municipal, state, or federal civil rights laws relevant to the 95653
protection of purchasers or sellers of real estate or, if the 95654
applicant has been so adjudged, at least two years have passed 95655
since the court decision and the superintendent has disregarded 95656
the adjudication because the applicant has proven, by a 95657
preponderance of the evidence, that the applicant's activities and 95658
employment record since the adjudication show that the applicant 95659
is honest, truthful, and of good reputation, and there is no basis 95660
in fact for believing that the applicant will again violate the 95661
laws involved.95662

       (3) Has not, during any period in which the applicant was 95663
licensed under this chapter, violated any provision of, or any 95664
rule adopted pursuant to, this chapter, or, if the applicant has 95665
violated any such provision or rule, has established to the 95666
satisfaction of the superintendent that the applicant will not 95667
again violate such provision or rule;95668

       (4) Is at least eighteen years of age;95669

       (5) Has been a licensed real estate broker or salesperson for 95670
at least two years; during at least two of the five years 95671
preceding the person's application, has worked as a licensed real 95672
estate broker or salesperson for an average of at least thirty 95673
hours per week; and has completed one of the following:95674

       (a) At least twenty real estate transactions, in which 95675
property was sold for another by the applicant while acting in the 95676
capacity of a real estate broker or salesperson;95677

       (b) Such equivalent experience as is defined by rules adopted 95678
by the commission.95679

       (6)(a) If licensed as a real estate salesperson prior to 95680
August 1, 2001, successfully has completed at an institution of 95681
higher education all of the following:95682

       (i) Thirty hours of classroom instruction in real estate 95683
practice;95684

       (ii) Thirty hours of classroom instruction that includes the 95685
subjects of Ohio real estate law, municipal, state, and federal 95686
civil rights law, new case law on housing discrimination, 95687
desegregation issues, and methods of eliminating the effects of 95688
prior discrimination. If feasible, the classroom instruction in 95689
Ohio real estate law shall be taught by a member of the faculty of 95690
an accredited law school. If feasible, the classroom instruction 95691
in municipal, state, and federal civil rights law, new case law on 95692
housing discrimination, desegregation issues, and methods of 95693
eliminating the effects of prior discrimination shall be taught by 95694
a staff member of the Ohio civil rights commission who is 95695
knowledgeable with respect to those subjects. The requirements of 95696
this division do not apply to an applicant who is admitted to 95697
practice before the supreme court.95698

       (iii) Thirty hours of classroom instruction in real estate 95699
appraisal;95700

       (iv) Thirty hours of classroom instruction in real estate 95701
finance;95702

       (v) Three quarter hours, or its equivalent in semester hours, 95703
in financial management;95704

       (vi) Three quarter hours, or its equivalent in semester 95705
hours, in human resource or personnel management;95706

       (vii) Three quarter hours, or its equivalent in semester 95707
hours, in applied business economics;95708

       (viii) Three quarter hours, or its equivalent in semester 95709
hours, in business law.95710

       (b) If licensed as a real estate salesperson on or after 95711
August 1, 2001, successfully has completed at an institution of 95712
higher education all of the following:95713

       (i) Forty hours of classroom instruction in real estate 95714
practice;95715

       (ii) Forty hours of classroom instruction that includes the 95716
subjects of Ohio real estate law, municipal, state, and federal 95717
civil rights law, new case law on housing discrimination, 95718
desegregation issues, and methods of eliminating the effects of 95719
prior discrimination. If feasible, the classroom instruction in 95720
Ohio real estate law shall be taught by a member of the faculty of 95721
an accredited law school. If feasible, the classroom instruction 95722
in municipal, state, and federal civil rights law, new case law on 95723
housing discrimination, desegregation issues, and methods of 95724
eliminating the effects of prior discrimination shall be taught by 95725
a staff member of the Ohio civil rights commission who is 95726
knowledgeable with respect to those subjects. The requirements of 95727
this division do not apply to an applicant who is admitted to 95728
practice before the supreme court.95729

       (iii) Twenty hours of classroom instruction in real estate 95730
appraisal;95731

       (iv) Twenty hours of classroom instruction in real estate 95732
finance;95733

       (v) The training in the amount of hours specified under 95734
divisions (B)(6)(a)(v), (vi), (vii), and (viii) of this section.95735

       (c) Division (B)(6)(a) or (b) of this section does not apply 95736
to any applicant who holds a valid real estate salesperson's 95737
license issued prior to January 2, 1972. Divisions (B)(6)(a)(v), 95738
(vi), (vii), and (viii) or division (B)(6)(b)(v) of this section 95739
do not apply to any applicant who holds a valid real estate 95740
salesperson's license issued prior to January 3, 1984.95741

       (d) Divisions (B)(6)(a)(iii) and (B)(6)(b)(iii) of this 95742
section do not apply to any new applicant who holds a valid Ohio 95743
real estate appraiser license or certificate issued prior to the 95744
date of application for a real estate broker's license.95745

       (7) If licensed as a real estate salesperson on or after 95746
January 3, 1984, satisfactorily has completed a minimum of two 95747
years of post-secondary education, or its equivalent in semester 95748
or quarter hours, at an institution of higher education, and has 95749
fulfilled the requirements of division (B)(6)(a) or (b) of this 95750
section. The requirements of division (B)(6)(a) or (b) of this 95751
section may be included in the two years of post-secondary 95752
education, or its equivalent in semester or quarter hours, that is 95753
required by this division.95754

       (C) Each applicant for a broker's license shall be examined 95755
in the principles of real estate practice, Ohio real estate law, 95756
and financing and appraisal, and as to the duties of real estate 95757
brokers and real estate salespersons, the applicant's knowledge of 95758
real estate transactions and instruments relating to them, and the 95759
canons of business ethics pertaining to them. The commission from 95760
time to time shall promulgate such canons and cause them to be 95761
published in printed form.95762

       (D) Examinations shall be administered with reasonable 95763
accommodations in accordance with the requirements of the 95764
"Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990," 104 Stat. 327, 42 95765
U.S.C. 12101. The contents of an examination shall be consistent 95766
with the requirements of division (B)(6) of this section and with 95767
the other specific requirements of this section. An applicant who 95768
has completed the requirements of division (B)(6) of this section 95769
at the time of application shall be examined no later than twelve 95770
months after the applicant is notified of admission to the 95771
examination.95772

       (E) The superintendent may waive one or more of the 95773
requirements of this section in the case of an application from a 95774
nonresident real estate broker pursuant to a reciprocity agreement 95775
with the licensing authority of the state from which the 95776
nonresident applicant holds a valid real estate broker license.95777

       (F) There shall be no limit placed on the number of times an 95778
applicant may retake the examination.95779

       (G)(1) Not earlier than the date of issue of a real estate 95780
broker's license to a licensee, but not later than twelve months 95781
after the date of issue of a real estate broker's license to a 95782
licensee, the licensee shall submit proof satisfactory to the 95783
superintendent, on forms made available by the superintendent, of 95784
the completion of ten hours of classroom instruction that shall be 95785
completed in schools, seminars, and educational institutions that 95786
are approved by the commission. Approval of the curriculum and 95787
providers shall be granted according to rules adopted pursuant to 95788
section 4735.10 of the Revised Code.95789

       If the required proof of completion is not submitted to the 95790
superintendent within twelve months of the date a license is 95791
issued under this section, the license of the real estate broker 95792
is suspended automatically without the taking of any action by the 95793
superintendent. The broker's license shall not be reactivated by 95794
the superintendent until it is established, to the satisfaction of 95795
the superintendent, that the requirements of this division have 95796
been met and that the licensee is in compliance with this chapter. 95797
A licensee's license is revoked automatically without the taking 95798
of any action by the superintendent if the licensee fails to 95799
submit proof of completion of the education requirements specified 95800
under division (G)(1) of this section within twelve months of the 95801
date the license is suspended.95802

       (2) If the license of a real estate broker is suspended 95803
pursuant to division (G)(1) of this section, the license of a real 95804
estate salesperson associated with that broker correspondingly is 95805
suspended pursuant to division (H) of section 4735.20 of the 95806
Revised Code. However, the suspended license of the associated 95807
real estate salesperson shall be reactivated and no fee shall be 95808
charged or collected for that reactivation if all of the following 95809
occur:95810

       (a) That broker subsequently submits satisfactory proof to 95811
the superintendent that the broker has complied with the 95812
requirements of division (G)(1) of this section and requests that 95813
the broker's license as a real estate broker be reactivated;95814

       (b) The superintendent then reactivates the broker's license 95815
as a real estate broker;95816

       (c) The associated real estate salesperson intends to 95817
continue to be associated with that broker and otherwise is in 95818
compliance with this chapter.95819

       Sec. 4735.09.  (A) Application for a license as a real estate 95820
salesperson shall be made to the superintendent of real estate on 95821
forms furnished by the superintendent and signed by the applicant. 95822
The application shall be in the form prescribed by the 95823
superintendent and shall contain such information as is required 95824
by this chapter and the rules of the Ohio real estate commission. 95825
The application shall be accompanied by the recommendation of the 95826
real estate broker with whom the applicant is associated or with 95827
whom the applicant intends to be associated, certifying that the 95828
applicant is honest, truthful, and of good reputation, has not 95829
been convicted of a felony or a crime involving moral turpitude, 95830
and has not been finally adjudged by a court to have violated any 95831
municipal, state, or federal civil rights laws relevant to the 95832
protection of purchasers or sellers of real estate, which 95833
conviction or adjudication the applicant has not disclosed to the 95834
superintendent, and recommending that the applicant be admitted to 95835
the real estate salesperson examination.95836

       (B) A fee of sixty dollars shall accompany the application, 95837
which fee includes the fee for the initial year of the licensing 95838
period, if a license is issued. The initial year of the licensing 95839
period commences at the time the license is issued and ends on the 95840
applicant's first birthday thereafter. The application fee shall 95841
be nonrefundable. A fee of sixty dollars shall be charged by the 95842
superintendent for each successive application made by the 95843
applicant. One dollar of each application fee shall be credited to 95844
the real estate education and research fund.95845

       (C) There shall be no limit placed on the number of times an 95846
applicant may retake the examination.95847

       (D) The superintendent, with the consent of the commission, 95848
may enter into an agreement with a recognized national testing 95849
service to administer the real estate salesperson's examination 95850
under the superintendent's supervision and control, consistent 95851
with the requirements of this chapter as to the contents of the 95852
examination.95853

       If the superintendent, with the consent of the commission, 95854
enters into an agreement with a national testing service to 95855
administer the real estate salesperson's examination, the 95856
superintendent may require an applicant to pay the testing 95857
service's examination fee directly to the testing service. If the 95858
superintendent requires the payment of the examination fee 95859
directly to the testing service, each applicant shall submit to 95860
the superintendent a processing fee in an amount determined by the 95861
Ohio real estate commission pursuant to division (A)(1) of section 95862
4735.10 of the Revised Code.95863

       (E) The superintendent shall issue a real estate 95864
salesperson's license when satisfied that the applicant has 95865
received a passing score on each portion of the salesperson's 95866
examination as determined by rule by the real estate commission, 95867
except that the superintendent may waive one or more of the 95868
requirements of this section in the case of an applicant who is a 95869
licensed real estate salesperson in another state pursuant to a 95870
reciprocity agreement with the licensing authority of the state 95871
from which the applicant holds a valid real estate salesperson's 95872
license.95873

       (F) No applicant for a salesperson's license shall take the 95874
salesperson's examination who has not established to the 95875
satisfaction of the superintendent that the applicant:95876

       (1) Is honest, truthful, and of good reputation;95877

       (2)(a) Has not been convicted of a felony or crime of moral 95878
turpitude or, if the applicant has been so convicted, the 95879
superintendent has disregarded the conviction because the 95880
applicant has proven to the superintendent, by a preponderance of 95881
the evidence, that the applicant's activities and employment 95882
record since the conviction show that the applicant is honest, 95883
truthful, and of good reputation, and there is no basis in fact 95884
for believing that the applicant again will violate the laws 95885
involved;95886

       (b) Has not been finally adjudged by a court to have violated 95887
any municipal, state, or federal civil rights laws relevant to the 95888
protection of purchasers or sellers of real estate or, if the 95889
applicant has been so adjudged, at least two years have passed 95890
since the court decision and the superintendent has disregarded 95891
the adjudication because the applicant has proven, by a 95892
preponderance of the evidence, that the applicant is honest, 95893
truthful, and of good reputation, and there is no basis in fact 95894
for believing that the applicant again will violate the laws 95895
involved.95896

       (3) Has not, during any period in which the applicant was 95897
licensed under this chapter, violated any provision of, or any 95898
rule adopted pursuant to this chapter, or, if the applicant has 95899
violated such provision or rule, has established to the 95900
satisfaction of the superintendent that the applicant will not 95901
again violate such provision or rule;95902

       (4) Is at least eighteen years of age;95903

       (5) If born after the year 1950, has a high school diploma or 95904
its equivalent as recognized by the state department of education;95905

       (6) Has successfully completed at an institution of higher 95906
education all of the following:95907

       (a) Forty hours of classroom instruction in real estate 95908
practice;95909

       (b) Forty hours of classroom instruction that includes the 95910
subjects of Ohio real estate law, municipal, state, and federal 95911
civil rights law, new case law on housing discrimination, 95912
desegregation issues, and methods of eliminating the effects of 95913
prior discrimination. If feasible, the classroom instruction in 95914
Ohio real estate law shall be taught by a member of the faculty of 95915
an accredited law school. If feasible, the classroom instruction 95916
in municipal, state, and federal civil rights law, new case law on 95917
housing discrimination, desegregation issues, and methods of 95918
eliminating the effects of prior discrimination shall be taught by 95919
a staff member of the Ohio civil rights commission who is 95920
knowledgeable with respect to those subjects. The requirements of 95921
this division do not apply to an applicant who is admitted to 95922
practice before the supreme court.95923

       (c) Twenty hours of classroom instruction in real estate 95924
appraisal;95925

       (d) Twenty hours of classroom instruction in real estate 95926
finance.95927

       (G) Division (F)(6)(c) of this section does not apply to any 95928
new applicant who holds a valid Ohio real estate appraiser license 95929
or certificate issued prior to the date of application for a real 95930
estate salesperson's license.95931

       (H) Any person who has not been licensed as a real estate 95932
salesperson or broker within a four-year period immediately 95933
preceding the person's current application for the salesperson's 95934
examination shall have successfully completed the prelicensure 95935
classroom instruction required by division (F)(6) of this section 95936
within a ten-year period immediately preceding the person's 95937
current application for the salesperson's examination.95938

       (H)(I) Not earlier than the date of issue of a real estate 95939
salesperson's license to a licensee, but not later than twelve 95940
months after the date of issue of a real estate salesperson 95941
license to a licensee, the licensee shall submit proof 95942
satisfactory to the superintendent, on forms made available by the 95943
superintendent, of the completion of ten hours of classroom 95944
instruction that shall be completed in schools, seminars, and 95945
educational institutions approved by the commission. Approval of 95946
the curriculum and providers shall be granted according to rules 95947
adopted pursuant to section 4735.10 of the Revised Code.95948

       If proof of completion of the required instruction is not 95949
submitted within twelve months of the date a license is issued 95950
under this section, the licensee's license is suspended 95951
automatically without the taking of any action by the 95952
superintendent. The superintendent immediately shall notify the 95953
broker with whom such salesperson is associated of the suspension 95954
of the salesperson's license. A salesperson whose license has been 95955
suspended under this division shall have twelve months after the 95956
date of the suspension of the salesperson's license to submit 95957
proof of successful completion of the instruction required under 95958
this division. No such license shall be reactivated by the 95959
superintendent until it is established, to the satisfaction of the 95960
superintendent, that the requirements of this division have been 95961
met and that the licensee is in compliance with this chapter. A 95962
licensee's license is revoked automatically without the taking of 95963
any action by the superintendent when the licensee fails to submit 95964
the required proof of completion of the education requirements 95965
under division (H)(I) of this section within twelve months of the 95966
date the license is suspended.95967

       (I)(J) Examinations shall be administered with reasonable 95968
accommodations in accordance with the requirements of the 95969
"Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990," 104 Stat. 327, 42 95970
U.S.C. 12189. The contents of an examination shall be consistent 95971
with the classroom instructional requirements of division (F)(6) 95972
of this section. An applicant who has completed the classroom 95973
instructional requirements of division (F)(6) of this section at 95974
the time of application shall be examined no later than twelve 95975
months after the applicant is notified of the applicant's 95976
admission to the examination.95977

       Sec. 4735.10.  (A)(1) The Ohio real estate commission may 95978
adopt reasonable rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 95979
Revised Code, necessary for implementing the provisions of this 95980
chapter relating, but not limited to, the following:95981

       (a) The form and manner of filing applications for licensure;95982

       (b) Times and form of examination for license;95983

       (c) Placing an existing broker's license on deposit or a 95984
salesperson's license on an inactive status for an indefinite 95985
period;95986

       (d) Specifying the process by which a licensee may resign the 95987
licensee's license;95988

       (e) Defining any additional license status that the 95989
commission determines is necessary and that is not otherwise 95990
defined in this chapter and establishing the process by which a 95991
licensee places the licensee's license in a status defined by the 95992
commission in the rules the commission adopts;95993

       (f) Clarification of the activities that require a license 95994
under this chapter.95995

       (2) The commission shall adopt reasonable rules in accordance 95996
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, for implementing the 95997
provisions of this chapter relating to the following:95998

       (a) The issuance, renewal, suspension, and revocation of 95999
licenses, other sanctions that may be imposed for violations of 96000
this chapter, the conduct of hearings related to these actions, 96001
and the process of reactivating a license;96002

       (b) A three-year license and a three-year license renewal 96003
system;96004

       (c) Standards for the approval of the ten-hour postlicensure 96005
courses as required by division (G) of section 4735.07 and 96006
division (H)(I) of section 4735.09 of the Revised Code, courses of 96007
study required for licenses, courses offered in preparation for 96008
license examinations, or courses required as continuing education 96009
for licenses. 96010

       (d) Guidelines to ensure that continuing education classes 96011
are open to all persons licensed under this chapter. The rules 96012
shall specify that an organization that sponsors a continuing 96013
education class may offer its members a reasonable reduction in 96014
the fees charged for the class.96015

       (e) Requirements for trust accounts and property management 96016
accounts. The rules shall specify that:96017

       (i) Brokerages engaged in the management of property for 96018
another may, pursuant to a written contract with the property 96019
owner, exercise signatory authority for withdrawals from property 96020
management accounts maintained in the name of the property owner. 96021
The exercise of authority for withdrawals does not constitute a 96022
violation of any provision of division (A) of section 4735.18 of 96023
the Revised Code.96024

       (ii) The interest earned on property management trust 96025
accounts maintained in the name of the property owner or the 96026
broker shall be payable to the property owner unless otherwise 96027
specified in a written contract.96028

       (f) Notice of renewal forms and filing deadlines;96029

       (g) Special assessments under division (A) of section 4735.12 96030
of the Revised Code.96031

       (B) The commission may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 96032
119. of the Revised Code establishing standards and guidelines 96033
with which the superintendent of real estate shall comply in the 96034
exercise of the following powers:96035

       (1) Appointment and recommendation of ancillary trustees 96036
under section 4735.05 of the Revised Code;96037

       (2) Rejection of names proposed to be used by partnerships, 96038
associations, limited liability companies, limited liability 96039
partnerships, and corporations, under division (A) of section 96040
4735.06 of the Revised Code;96041

       (3) Acceptance and rejection of applications to take the 96042
broker and salesperson examinations and licensure, with 96043
appropriate waivers pursuant to division (E) of section 4735.07 96044
and section 4735.09 of the Revised Code;96045

       (4) Approval of applications of brokers to place their 96046
licenses in an inactive status and to become salespersons under 96047
section 4735.13 of the Revised Code;96048

       (5) Appointment of hearing examiners under section 119.09 of 96049
the Revised Code;96050

       (6) Acceptance and rejection of applications to take the 96051
foreign real estate dealer and salesperson examinations and 96052
licensure, with waiver of examination, under sections 4735.27 and 96053
4735.28 of the Revised Code;96054

       (7) Qualification of foreign real estate under section 96055
4735.25 of the Revised Code.96056

       If at any time there is no rule in effect establishing a 96057
guideline or standard required by this division, the 96058
superintendent may adopt a rule in accordance with Chapter 119. of 96059
the Revised Code for such purpose.96060

       (C) The commission or superintendent may hear testimony in 96061
matters relating to the duties imposed upon them, and the 96062
president of the commission and superintendent may administer 96063
oaths. The commission or superintendent may require other proof of 96064
the honesty, truthfulness, and good reputation of any person named 96065
in an application for a real estate broker's or real estate 96066
salesperson's license before admitting the applicant to the 96067
examination or issuing a license.96068

       Sec. 4735.142.  (A) Any person licensed under section 4735.07 96069
or 4735.09 of the Revised Code, at any time prior to the date the 96070
licensee is required to file a notice of renewal pursuant to 96071
division (B) of section 4735.14 of the Revised Code may apply to 96072
the superintendent of real estate and professional licensing to 96073
place the licensee's license in a permanently resigned status.96074

       (B) A licensee, at any time during which a license has been 96075
suspended pursuant to division (G) of section 4735.07, division 96076
(H)(I) of section 4735.09, division (E) of section 4735.12, 96077
division (C) of section 4735.14, division (C) of section 4735.141, 96078
or section 4735.182 of the Revised Code, may apply to the 96079
superintendent on a form prescribed by the superintendent to 96080
permanently resign the licensee's license voluntarily. The 96081
resignation of a license is considered to be final without the 96082
taking of any action by the superintendent. 96083

       (C) If a person whose license is in a permanently resigned 96084
status pursuant to a request made under this section wishes to 96085
obtain an active or inactive license, the person shall apply for 96086
such a license in accordance with the requirements specified in 96087
section 4735.07 or 4735.09 of the Revised Code, as applicable, or 96088
in the rules adopted by the commission pursuant to division (A) of 96089
section 4735.10 of the Revised Code.96090

       (D) If placing a broker's license in a permanently resigned 96091
status will result in the closure of the broker's brokerage, the 96092
broker, within three days after applying to the superintendent to 96093
place the license in a permanently resigned status, shall provide 96094
to each salesperson associated with that broker a written notice 96095
stating that fact.96096

       (E) This section does not apply to any licensee whose license 96097
has been suspended pursuant to division (F) of section 4735.181 of 96098
the Revised Code or due to disciplinary action ordered by the 96099
commission pursuant to section 4735.051 of the Revised Code.96100

       Sec. 4735.56. (A) Each brokerage shall develop a written 96101
brokerage policy on agency to be given to prospective sellers and 96102
purchasers in accordance with divisions (C) and (D) of this 96103
section.96104

       (B) The brokerage policy on agency described in division (A) 96105
of this section shall include all of the following information:96106

       (1) An explanation of the permissible agency relationships 96107
available under section 4735.53 of the Revised Code and the duties 96108
that the agent owes the agent's client;96109

       (2) The brokerage's policy on representation of purchasers or 96110
sellers;96111

       (3) Whether at some time during the agency relationship the 96112
brokerage and its licensee may act as a dual agent, and the 96113
options and consequences for the client if a dual agency situation 96114
arises including the right of the client to terminate the agency 96115
relationship and seek representation from another source;96116

       (4) Whether at some time during the agency relationship, 96117
another licensee affiliated with the same brokerage as the 96118
licensee may become the exclusive agent for the other party in the 96119
transaction and whether each licensee will represent only the 96120
interests of that licensee's client;96121

       (5) The brokerage's policy on cooperation with other 96122
brokerages, including whether the brokerage offers compensation to 96123
other brokerages or will seek compensation from other brokerages;96124

       (6) That a brokerage that has a purchaser as a client 96125
represents the purchaser's interests even though the seller's 96126
agent or the seller may compensate that purchaser's brokerage;96127

       (7) That the signature of the purchaser or the seller 96128
indicates acknowledgement of receipt of the brokerage policy on 96129
agency.96130

       (C) A licensee acting as a seller's agent shall provide the 96131
seller with the brokerage policy on agency described in this 96132
section prior to marketing or showing the seller's real estate and 96133
shall obtain a signature from the seller acknowledging receipt 96134
unless the seller refuses to provide a signature. If the seller 96135
refuses to provide a signature, the licensee shall note this on 96136
the policy.96137

       (D) A licensee working directly with a purchaser in a real 96138
estate transaction, whether as the purchaser's agent, the seller's 96139
agent, or the seller's subagent, shall provide the purchaser with 96140
the brokerage policy on agency described in this section and 96141
obtain a signature from the purchaser acknowledging receipt of the 96142
policy unless the purchaser refuses to provide a signature. If the 96143
purchaser refuses to provide a signature, the licensee shall note 96144
this on the policy. Except as provided in division (E) of this 96145
section, the licensee shall provide the brokerage policy on agency 96146
to a purchaser prior to the earliest of the following actions of 96147
the licensee:96148

       (1) Initiating a prequalification evaluation to determine 96149
whether the purchaser has the financial ability to purchase or 96150
lease a particular real estate property;96151

       (2) Requesting specific financial information from the 96152
purchaser to determine the purchaser's ability to purchase or 96153
finance real estate in a particular price range;96154

       (3) Showing the real estate to the purchaser other than at an 96155
open house;96156

       (4) Discussing, with the purchaser, the making of an offer to 96157
purchase or lease real estate;96158

       (5) Submitting an offer to purchase or lease real estate on 96159
behalf of the purchaser.96160

       (E) If the earliest event described in division (D) of this 96161
section is by telephone or electronic mail, the licensee shall 96162
disclose by that same medium the nature of the agency relationship 96163
that the licensee has with both the seller and the purchaser. The 96164
licensee shall provide the purchaser with the brokerage policy on 96165
agency described in this section at the first meeting with the 96166
purchaser following this disclosure of the agency relationship.96167

       (F) A licensee acting as a seller's agent is not required to 96168
provide a purchaser with the brokerage policy on agency described 96169
in this section except in the case of an event described in 96170
division (D) of this section.96171

       (G) The requirements of this section regarding provision of a 96172
brokerage policy on agency do not apply only in any of the 96173
following situations:96174

       (1) The sale or lease of vacant land;96175

       (2) The sale of a parcel of real estate containing one to 96176
four residential units;96177

       (3) The rental or leasing of residential premises as defined 96178
in section 5321.01 of the Revised Code, if the rental or lease 96179
agreement can be performed inis for a term of more than eighteen 96180
months or less;96181

       (2) The referral of a prospective purchaser or seller to 96182
another licensee;96183

       (3) Transactions involving the sale, lease, or exchange of 96184
foreign real estate as defined in division (E) of section 4735.01 96185
of the Revised Code;96186

       (4) Transactions involving the sale of a cemetery lot or a 96187
cemetery interment right.96188

       Sec. 4742.01.  As used in this chapter:96189

       (A) "Emergency service provider" has the same meaning as in 96190
section 5507.01128.01 of the Revised Code.96191

       (B) "Emergency service telecommunicator" means an individual 96192
employed by an emergency service provider, whose primary 96193
responsibility is to be an operator for the receipt or processing 96194
of calls for emergency services made by telephone, radio, or other 96195
electronic means.96196

       Sec. 4751.01.  As used in sections 4751.01 to 4751.114751.1396197
of the Revised Code:96198

       (A) "Long-term services and supports settings" means any 96199
institutional or community-based setting in which medical, health, 96200
psycho-social, habilitative, rehabilitative, or personal care 96201
services are provided to individuals on a post-acute care basis.96202

       (B) "Nursing home administrator" means any individual 96203
responsible for planning, organizing, directing, and managing the 96204
operation of a nursing home, or who in fact performs such 96205
function, whether or not such functions and duties are shared by 96206
one or more other persons.96207

       (B)(C) "Nursing home" means a nursing home as defined by or 96208
under the authority of section 3721.01 of the Revised Code, or a 96209
nursing home operated by a governmental agency.96210

       (C)(D) "Temporary license" means a license for a period not 96211
to exceed one hundred eighty days issued pursuant to division (B) 96212
of section 4751.06 of the Revised Code.96213

       (D)(E) "Valid license" means a license which is current and 96214
in good standing.96215

       Sec. 4751.02.  (A) No person shall operate a nursing home 96216
unless it is under the supervision of an administrator whose 96217
principal occupation is nursing home administration or hospital 96218
administration and who holds a valid nursing home administrator's 96219
license and registration, or a temporary license, issued pursuant 96220
to Chapter 4751. of the Revised Code.96221

       (B) No person other than a licensed and registered nursing 96222
home administrator or person holding a temporary license as 96223
required by Chapter 4751. of the Revised Code shall practice or 96224
offer to practice nursing home administration in this state. All 96225
nursing home administrators and temporary licensees shall comply 96226
with Chapter 4751. of the Revised Code and the regulations adopted 96227
thereunder.96228

       (C) Every operator of a nursing home shall report to the 96229
board of examinersexecutives of nursing home administrators96230
long-term services and supports the name and license number of 96231
each nursing home administrator for said home within ten days 96232
after the operator engages a nursing home administrator, and 96233
within ten days after a nursing home administrator is no longer 96234
engaged as such by such operator for said home.96235

       (D) Each individual who holds a nursing home administrator 96236
license or temporary license shall report histhe individual's96237
residence mailing address and the name and address of each place 96238
of employment to the board within ten days after any change.96239

       Sec. 4751.03.  (A) There is hereby established in the 96240
department of health a board of examinersexecutives of nursing 96241
home administratorslong-term services and supports, which board 96242
shall be composed of ninethe following eleven members, eight of 96243
whom shall be representative of the professions and institutions 96244
concerned with care and treatment of chronically ill or infirm 96245
aged patients, and one of whom shall be a public member at least 96246
sixty years of age, provided that less than a majority of the 96247
board members shall be representative of a single profession or 96248
institutional category, and provided further that a person 96249
appointed as a noninstitutional member shall neither have nor 96250
acquire any direct financial interest in a nursing home. For 96251
purposes of this section, nursing home administrators are 96252
considered representatives of institutions.96253

       Four members shall be nursing home administrators, owners of 96254
nursing homes or an officer of a corporation owning a nursing 96255
home. The director of health or his designated representative 96256
shall be a member. All:96257

       (1) Four members who are nursing home administrators, owners 96258
of nursing homes, or officers of corporations owning nursing 96259
homes, and who shall have an understanding of person-centered 96260
care, and experience with a range of long-term services and 96261
supports settings;96262

       (2) Three members who work in long-term services and supports 96263
settings that are not nursing homes, and who shall have an 96264
understanding of person-centered care, and experience with a range 96265
of long-term services and supports settings;96266

       (3) One member who is a member of the academic community;96267

       (4) One member who is a consumer of services offered in a 96268
long-term services and supports setting;96269

       (5) One member who is a representative of the department of 96270
health, designated by the director of health, who is involved in 96271
the nursing home survey and certification process;96272

       (6) One member who is a representative of the office of the 96273
state long-term care, designated by the state long-term care 96274
ombudsman.96275

       All members of the board shall be citizens of the United 96276
States and residents of this state. No member of the board who is 96277
appointed under divisions (A)(3) to (6) of this section may have 96278
or acquire any direct financial interest in a nursing home or 96279
long-term services and supports settings.96280

       (B) The term of office for each appointed member of the board 96281
shall be for three years, commencing on the twenty-eighth day of 96282
May and ending on the twenty-seventh day of May. Each member shall 96283
serve from the date of his appointment until the end of the term 96284
for which he was appointed. No member shall serve more than two 96285
consecutive full terms.96286

       (C) Appointments to the board shall be made by the governor. 96287
Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the 96288
expiration of the term for which histhe member's predecessor was 96289
appointed shall hold office for the remainder of such term. Any 96290
appointed member shall continue in office subsequent to the 96291
expiration date of histhe member's term until histhe member's96292
successor takes office, or until a period of sixty days has 96293
elapsed, whichever occurs first.96294

       (D) The governor may remove any member of the board for 96295
misconduct, incapacity, incompetence, or neglect of duty after the 96296
member so charged has been served with a written statement of 96297
charges and has been given an opportunity to be heard.96298

       (E) Each member of the board, except the member designated by 96299
the director of health or hisand the member designated 96300
representativeby the ombudsman, shall be paid in accordance with 96301
section 124.15 of the Revised Code and each member shall be 96302
reimbursed for histhe member's actual and necessary expenses 96303
incurred in the discharge of such duties.96304

       (F) The board shall elect annually from its membership a96305
chairmanchairperson and a vice-chairmanvice-chairperson.96306

       (G) The board shall hold and conduct meetings quarterly and 96307
at such other times as its business requires. A majority of the 96308
board shall constitute a quorum. The affirmative vote of a 96309
majority of the members of the board is necessary for the board to 96310
act.96311

       (H) The board shall appoint a secretary who has no financial 96312
interest in a nursing homelong-term services and supports 96313
setting, and may employ and prescribe the powers and duties of 96314
such employees and consultants as are necessary to carry out this 96315
chapter and the rules adopted under it. Administrative, technical, 96316
or other services shall be performed, insofar as practicable, by 96317
personnel of the department of health.96318

       Sec. 4751.04.  (A) The board of examinersexecutives of 96319
nursing home administratorslong-term services and supports shall:96320

       (1) Develop, adopt, impose, and enforce regulations 96321
prescribing standards which must be met by individuals in order to 96322
receive a license as a nursing home administrator, which standards 96323
shall be designed to ensure that nursing home administrators are 96324
of good character and are otherwise suitable, and who, by training 96325
and experience, are qualified to serve as nursing home 96326
administrators;96327

       (2) Develop and apply appropriate techniques, including 96328
examinations and investigations, for determining whether an 96329
individual meets such standards;96330

       (3) Issue licenses and registrations to individuals 96331
determined, after application of such techniques, to meet such 96332
standards, and revoke or suspend licenses or registrations 96333
previously issued by the board in any case where the individual 96334
holding such license or registration is determined to have failed 96335
substantially to conform to the requirements of such standards;96336

       (4) Develop, adopt, impose, and enforce regulations and 96337
procedures designed to ensure that individuals holding a temporary 96338
license, or licensed as nursing home administrators will, during 96339
any period that they serve as such, comply with Chapter 4751. of 96340
the Revised Code and the regulations adopted thereunder;96341

       (5) Receive, investigate, and take appropriate action with 96342
respect to any charge or complaint filed with the board to the 96343
effect that any individual licensed as a nursing home 96344
administrator has failed to comply with Chapter 4751. of the 96345
Revised Code and the regulations adopted thereunder;96346

       (6) Take such other actions as may be necessary to enable the 96347
state to meet the requirements set forth in the "Social Security 96348
Amendments of 1967," 81 Stat. 908 (1968), 42 U.S.C. 1396 g;96349

       (7) Pay all license and registration fees collected under 96350
Chapter 4751. of the Revised Code into the general operations fund 96351
created by section 3701.83 of the Revised Code to be used in 96352
administering and enforcing this chapter and the rules adopted 96353
under it;96354

       (8) Administer, or contract with a government or private 96355
entity to administer, examinations for licensure as a nursing home 96356
administrator. If the board contracts with a government or private 96357
entity to administer the examinations, the contract may authorize 96358
the entity to collect and keep, as all or part of the entity's 96359
compensation under the contract, any fee an applicant for 96360
licensure pays to take an examination. The entity is not required 96361
to deposit the fee into the state treasury;96362

       (9) Enter into a contract with the department of health as 96363
required under section 4751.042 of the Revised Code;96364

       (10) Create opportunities for the education, training, and 96365
credentialing of nursing home administrators and others in 96366
leadership positions who practice in long-term services and 96367
supports settings or who direct the practices of others in those 96368
settings. In carrying out this function, the board shall do the 96369
following:96370

       (a) Identify core competencies and areas of knowledge that 96371
are appropriate for nursing home administrators and others working 96372
within the long-term services and supports settings system, with 96373
an emphasis on all of the following:96374

       (i) Leadership;96375

       (ii) Person-centered care;96376

       (iii) Principles of management within both the business and 96377
regulatory environments;96378

       (iv) An understanding of all post-acute settings, including 96379
transitions from acute settings and between post-acute settings.96380

       (b) Assist in the development of a strong, competitive market 96381
in Ohio for training, continuing education, and degree programs in 96382
long-term services and supports settings administration.96383

       (B) In the administration and enforcement of Chapter 4751. of 96384
the Revised Code, and the regulations adopted thereunder, the 96385
board is subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and sections 96386
4743.01 and 4743.02 of the Revised Code except that a notice of 96387
appeal of an order of the board adopting, amending, or rescinding 96388
a rule or regulation does not operate as a stay of the effective 96389
date of such order as provided in section 119.11 of the Revised 96390
Code. The court, at its discretion, may grant a stay of any 96391
regulation in its application against the person filing the notice 96392
of appeal.96393

       Sec. 4751.041.  Except when the board of examinersexecutives96394
of nursing home administratorslong-term services and supports96395
considers it necessary, the board shall not disclose test 96396
materials, examinations, or evaluation tools used in an 96397
examination for licensure as a nursing home administrator that the 96398
board administers under section 4751.04 of the Revised Code or 96399
contracts under that section with a private or government entity 96400
to administer.96401

       Sec. 4751.042.  (A) The board of executives of long-term 96402
services and supports shall enter into a written agreement with 96403
the department of health for the department to serve as the 96404
board's fiscal agent. The fiscal agent shall be responsible for 96405
all the board's fiscal matters and financial transactions, as 96406
specified in the agreement. The written agreement shall specify 96407
the fees that the board shall pay to the fiscal agent for services 96408
performed under the agreement, and such fees shall be in 96409
proportion to the services performed for the board.96410

       (1) The agreement shall require the fiscal agent to provide 96411
the following services:96412

       (a) Preparation and processing of payroll and other personnel 96413
documents that the board approves;96414

       (b) Maintenance of ledgers of accounts and reports of account 96415
balances, and monitoring of budgets and allotment plans in 96416
consultation with the board;96417

       (c) Performance of other routine support services, specified 96418
in the agreement, that the fiscal agent considers appropriate to 96419
achieve efficiency.96420

       (2) The agreement may require the fiscal agent to provide the 96421
following services:96422

       (a) Any shared services between the board and the fiscal 96423
agent;96424

       (b) Any other services agreed to by the board and the 96425
department, including administrative or technical services.96426

       (B) The board has sole authority to expend funds from the 96427
board's accounts for programs and any other necessary expenses the 96428
board may incur. The board shall inform the fiscal agent fully of 96429
any financial transactions to ensure compliance with fiscal 96430
regulations.96431

       (C) The board shall follow all state procurement, fiscal, 96432
human resources, information technology, statutory, and 96433
administrative rule requirements.96434

       (D) In its role as fiscal agent for the board, the department 96435
shall serve as a contractor of the board, and does not assume 96436
responsibility for the debts or fiscal obligations of the board.96437

       Sec. 4751.05.  (A) The board of examinersexecutives of 96438
nursing home administratorslong-term services and supports, or a 96439
government or private entity under contract with the board to 96440
administer examinations for licensure as a nursing home 96441
administrator, shall admit to an examination any candidate who:96442

       (1) Pays the application fee of fifty dollars;96443

       (2) Submits evidence of good moral character and suitability;96444

       (3) Is at least eighteen years of age;96445

       (4) Has completed educational requirements and work 96446
experience satisfactory to the board;96447

       (5) Submits an application on forms prescribed by the board;96448

       (6) Pays the examination fee charged by the board or 96449
government or private entity.96450

       (B) Nothing in Chapter 4751. of the Revised Code or the rules 96451
adopted thereunder shall be construed to require an applicant for 96452
licensure or a temporary license, who is employed by an 96453
institution for the care and treatment of the sick to demonstrate 96454
proficiency in any medical techniques or to meet any medical 96455
educational qualifications or medical standards not in accord with 96456
the remedial care and treatment provided by the institution if the 96457
institution is all of the following:96458

       (1) Operated exclusively for patients who use spiritual means 96459
for healing and for whom the acceptance of medical care is 96460
inconsistent with their religious beliefs;96461

       (2) Accredited by a national accrediting organization;96462

       (3) Exempt from federal income taxation under section 501 of 96463
the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 1, 96464
as amended;96465

       (4) Providing twenty-four hour nursing care pursuant to the 96466
exemption in division (E) of section 4723.32 of the Revised Code 96467
from the licensing requirements of Chapter 4723. of the Revised 96468
Code.96469

       (C) If a person fails three times to attain a passing grade 96470
on the examination, said person, before the person may again be 96471
admitted to examination, shall meet such additional education or 96472
experience requirements, or both, as may be prescribed by the 96473
board.96474

       Sec. 4751.06.  (A) An applicant for licensure as a nursing 96475
home administrator who has successfully completed the requirements 96476
of section 4751.05 of the Revised Code, passed the examination 96477
administered by the board of examinersexecutives of nursing home 96478
administratorslong-term services and supports or a government or 96479
private entity under contract with the board, and paid to the 96480
board an original license fee of two hundred fifty dollars shall 96481
be issued a license on a form provided by the board. Such license 96482
shall certify that the applicant has met the licensure 96483
requirements of Chapter 4751. of the Revised Code and is entitled 96484
to practice as a licensed nursing home administrator.96485

       (B) A temporary license for a period not to exceed one 96486
hundred eighty days may be issued to an individual temporarily 96487
filling the position of a nursing home administrator vacated by 96488
reason of death, illness, or other unexpected cause, pursuant to 96489
regulations adopted by the board.96490

       (C) The fee for a temporary license is one hundred dollars. 96491
Said fee must accompany the application for the temporary license.96492

       (D) Any license or temporary license issued by the board 96493
pursuant to this section shall be under the hand of the 96494
chairperson and the secretary of the board.96495

       (E) A duplicate of the original certificate of registration 96496
or license may be secured to replace one that has been lost or 96497
destroyed by submitting to the board a notarized statement 96498
explaining the conditions of the loss, mutilation, or destruction 96499
of the certificate or license and by paying a fee of twenty-five 96500
dollars.96501

       (F) A duplicate certificate of registration and license may 96502
be issued in the event of a legal change of name by submitting to 96503
the board a certified copy of the court order or marriage license 96504
establishing the change of name, by returning at the same time the 96505
original license and certificate of registration, and by paying a 96506
fee of twenty-five dollars.96507

       Sec. 4751.07.  (A) Every individual who holds a valid license 96508
as a nursing home administrator issued under division (A) of 96509
section 4751.06 of the Revised Code, shall immediately upon 96510
issuance thereof be registered with the board of examiners96511
executives of nursing home administratorslong-term services and 96512
supports and be issued a certificate of registration. Such 96513
individual shall annually apply to the board for a new certificate 96514
of registration on forms provided for such purpose prior to the 96515
expiration of the certificate of registration and shall at the 96516
same time submit satisfactory evidence to the board of having 96517
attended such continuing education programs or courses of study as 96518
may be prescribed in rules adopted by the board.96519

       (B) Upon making an application for a new certificate of 96520
registration such individual shall pay the annual registration fee 96521
of three hundred dollars.96522

       (C) Upon receipt of such application for registration and the 96523
registration fee required by divisions (A) and (B) of this 96524
section, the board shall issue a certificate of registration to 96525
such nursing home administrator.96526

       (D) The license of a nursing home administrator who fails to 96527
comply with this section shall automatically lapse.96528

       (E) A nursing home administrator who has been licensed and 96529
registered in this state who determines to temporarily abandon the 96530
practice of nursing home administration shall notify the board in 96531
writing immediately; provided, that such individual may thereafter 96532
register to resume the practice of nursing home administration 96533
within the state upon complying with the requirements of this 96534
section regarding annual registration.96535

       (F) Only an individual who has qualified as a licensed and 96536
registered nursing home administrator under Chapter 4751. of the 96537
Revised Code and the rules adopted thereunder, and who holds a 96538
valid current registration certificate pursuant to this section, 96539
may use the title "nursing home administrator," or the 96540
abbreviation "N.H.A." after the individual's name. No other person 96541
shall use such title or such abbreviation or any other words, 96542
letters, sign, card, or device tending to indicate or to imply 96543
that the person is a licensed and registered nursing home 96544
administrator.96545

       (G) Every person holding a valid license entitling the person 96546
to practice nursing home administration in this state shall 96547
display said license in the nursing home which is the person's 96548
principal place of employment, and while engaged in the practice 96549
of nursing home administration shall have at hand the current 96550
registration certificate.96551

       (H) Every person holding a valid temporary license shall have 96552
such license at hand while engaged in the practice of nursing home 96553
administration.96554

       Sec. 4751.08.  The board of examinersexecutives of nursing 96555
home administratorslong-term services and supports, in its 96556
discretion, and otherwise subject to Chapter 4751. of the Revised 96557
Code and the rules adopted by the board thereunder prescribing the 96558
qualifications for a nursing home administrator license, may 96559
license a nursing home administrator without examination if hethe 96560
nursing home administrator has a valid license issued by the 96561
proper authorities of any other state, upon payment of a fee of 96562
one hundred fifty dollars, and upon submission of evidence 96563
satisfactory to the board both:96564

       (A) That such other state maintained a system and standard of 96565
qualifications and examinations for a nursing home administrator 96566
license which were substantially equivalent to those required in 96567
this state at the time such other license was issued by such other 96568
state;96569

       (B) That such other state gives similar recognition to 96570
nursing home administrators licensed in this state.96571

       Sec. 4751.10.  The license or registration, or both, or the 96572
temporary license of any person practicing or offering to practice 96573
nursing home administration, shall be revoked or suspended by the 96574
board of examinersexecutives of nursing home administrators96575
long-term services and supports if such licensee or temporary 96576
licensee:96577

       (A) Is unfit or incompetent by reason of negligence, habits, 96578
or other causes;96579

       (B) Has willfully or repeatedly violated any of the 96580
provisions of Chapter 4751. of the Revised Code or the regulations 96581
adopted thereunder; or willfully or repeatedly acted in a manner 96582
inconsistent with the health and safety of the patients of the 96583
nursing home in which hethe licensee or temporary licensee is the 96584
administrator;96585

       (C) Is guilty of fraud or deceit in the practice of nursing 96586
home administration or in histhe licensee's or temporary 96587
licensee's admission to such practice;96588

       (D) Has been convicted in a court of competent jurisdiction, 96589
either within or without this state, of a felony.96590

       Proceedings under this section shall be instituted by the 96591
board or shall be begun by filing with the board charges in 96592
writing and under oath.96593

       Sec. 4751.11.  (A) The board of examinersexecutives of 96594
nursing home administratorslong-term services and supports may, 96595
in its discretion, reissue a license or registration, or both, to 96596
any person whose license or registration, or both, has been 96597
revoked.96598

       (B) Application for the reissuance of a license or 96599
registration, or both, shall not be made prior to one year after 96600
revocation and shall be made in such manner as the board may 96601
direct.96602

       (C) If a person convicted of a felony is subsequently 96603
pardoned by the governor of the state where such conviction was 96604
had or by the president of the United States, or receives a final 96605
release granted by the adult parole authority of this state or its 96606
equivalent agency of another state, the board may, in its 96607
discretion, on application of such person and on the submission of 96608
evidence satisfactory to the board restore to such person the 96609
nursing home administrator's license or registration, or both.96610

       Sec. 4751.12.  On receipt of a notice pursuant to section 96611
3123.43 of the Revised Code, the board of examinersexecutives of96612
nursing home administratorslong-term services and supports shall 96613
comply with sections 3123.41 to 3123.50 of the Revised Code and 96614
any applicable rules adopted under section 3123.63 of the Revised 96615
Code with respect to a license issued pursuant to this chapter.96616

       Sec. 4751.13.  The board of examinersexecutives of nursing 96617
home administratorslong-term services and supports shall comply 96618
with section 4776.20 of the Revised Code.96619

       Sec. 4753.071.  A person who is required to meet the 96620
supervised professional experience requirement of division (F) of 96621
section 4753.06 of the Revised Code shall submit to the board of 96622
speech-language pathology and audiology an application for a 96623
conditional license. The application shall include a plan for the 96624
content of the supervised professional experience on a form the 96625
board shall prescribe. The board shall issue the conditional 96626
license to the applicant if the applicant meets the requirements 96627
of section 4753.06 of the Revised Code, other than the requirement 96628
to have obtained the supervised professional experience, and pays 96629
to the board the appropriate fee for a conditional license. An 96630
applicant may not begin employment until the conditional license 96631
has been issued.96632

       A conditional license authorizes an individual to practice 96633
speech-language pathology or audiology while completing the 96634
supervised professional experience as required by division (F) of 96635
section 4753.06 of the Revised Code. A person holding a 96636
conditional license may practice speech-language pathology or 96637
audiology while working under the supervision of a person fully 96638
licensed in accordance with this chapter. A conditional license is 96639
valid for eighteen months unless suspended or revoked pursuant to 96640
section 3123.47 or 4753.10 of the Revised Code.96641

       A person holding a conditional license may perform services 96642
for which reimbursementpayment will be sought under the medicare 96643
program established under Title XVIII of the "Social Security 96644
Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395, as amended, or the 96645
medicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised 96646
Code but all requests for reimbursementpayment for such services 96647
shall be made by the person who supervises the person performing 96648
the services.96649

       Sec. 4755.11.  (A) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the 96650
Revised Code, the occupational therapy section of the Ohio 96651
occupational therapy, physical therapy, and athletic trainers 96652
board may suspend, revoke, or refuse to issue or renew an 96653
occupational therapist license, occupational therapy assistant 96654
license, occupational therapist limited permit, occupational 96655
therapy assistant limited permit, or reprimand, fine, place a 96656
license or limited permit holder on probation, or require the 96657
license or limited permit holder to take corrective action 96658
courses, for any of the following:96659

       (1) Conviction of an offense involving moral turpitude or a 96660
felony, regardless of the state or country in which the conviction 96661
occurred;96662

       (2) Violation of any provision of sections 4755.04 to 4755.13 96663
of the Revised Code;96664

       (3) Violation of any lawful order or rule of the occupational 96665
therapy section;96666

       (4) Obtaining or attempting to obtain a license or limited 96667
permit issued by the occupational therapy section by fraud or 96668
deception, including the making of a false, fraudulent, deceptive, 96669
or misleading statements in relation to these activities;96670

       (5) Negligence, unprofessional conduct, or gross misconduct 96671
in the practice of the profession of occupational therapy;96672

       (6) Accepting commissions or rebates or other forms of 96673
remuneration for referring persons to other professionals;96674

       (7) Communicating, without authorization, information 96675
received in professional confidence;96676

       (8) Using controlled substances, habit forming drugs, or 96677
alcohol to an extent that it impairs the ability to perform the 96678
work of an occupational therapist, occupational therapy assistant, 96679
occupational therapist limited permit holder, or occupational 96680
therapy assistant limited permit holder;96681

       (9) Practicing in an area of occupational therapy for which 96682
the individual is untrained or incompetent;96683

       (10) Failing the licensing or Ohio jurisprudence examination;96684

       (11) Aiding, abetting, directing, or supervising the 96685
unlicensed practice of occupational therapy;96686

       (12) Denial, revocation, suspension, or restriction of 96687
authority to practice a health care occupation, including 96688
occupational therapy, for any reason other than a failure to 96689
renew, in Ohio or another state or jurisdiction;96690

       (13) Except as provided in division (B) of this section:96691

       (a) Waiving the payment of all or any part of a deductible or 96692
copayment that a patient, pursuant to a health insurance or health 96693
care policy, contract, or plan that covers occupational therapy, 96694
would otherwise be required to pay if the waiver is used as an 96695
enticement to a patient or group of patients to receive health 96696
care services from that provider;96697

       (b) Advertising that the individual will waive the payment of 96698
all or any part of a deductible or copayment that a patient, 96699
pursuant to a health insurance or health care policy, contract, or 96700
plan that covers occupational therapy, would otherwise be required 96701
to pay.96702

       (14) Working or representing oneself as an occupational 96703
therapist, occupational therapy assistant, occupational therapist 96704
limited permit holder, or occupational therapy assistant limited 96705
permit holder without a current and valid license or limited 96706
permit issued by the occupational therapy section;96707

        (15) Engaging in a deceptive trade practice, as defined in 96708
section 4165.02 of the Revised Code;96709

        (16) Violation of the standards of ethical conduct in the 96710
practice of occupational therapy as identified by the occupational 96711
therapy section;96712

        (17) A departure from, or the failure to conform to, minimal 96713
standards of care required of licensees or limited permit holders, 96714
whether or not actual injury to a patient is established;96715

        (18) An adjudication by a court that the applicant, licensee, 96716
or limited permit holder is incompetent for the purpose of holding 96717
a license or limited permit and has not thereafter been restored 96718
to legal capacity for that purpose;96719

        (19)(a) Except as provided in division (A)(19)(b) of this 96720
section, failure to cooperate with an investigation conducted by 96721
the occupational therapy section, including failure to comply with 96722
a subpoena or orders issued by the section or failure to answer 96723
truthfully a question presented by the section at a deposition or 96724
in written interrogatories.96725

        (b) Failure to cooperate with an investigation does not 96726
constitute grounds for discipline under this section if a court of 96727
competent jurisdiction issues an order that either quashes a 96728
subpoena or permits the individual to withhold the testimony or 96729
evidence at issue.96730

        (20) Conviction of a misdemeanor reasonably related to the 96731
practice of occupational therapy, regardless of the state or 96732
country in which the conviction occurred;96733

        (21) Inability to practice according to acceptable and 96734
prevailing standards of care because of mental or physical 96735
illness, including physical deterioration that adversely affects 96736
cognitive, motor, or perception skills;96737

        (22) Violation of conditions, limitations, or agreements 96738
placed by the occupational therapy section on a license or limited 96739
permit to practice;96740

        (23) Making a false, fraudulent, deceptive, or misleading 96741
statement in the solicitation of or advertising for patients in 96742
relation to the practice of occupational therapy;96743

        (24) Failure to complete continuing education requirements as 96744
prescribed in rules adopted by the occupational therapy section 96745
under section 4755.06 of the Revised Code.96746

       (B) Sanctions shall not be imposed under division (A)(13) of 96747
this section against any individual who waives deductibles and 96748
copayments as follows:96749

       (1) In compliance with the health benefit plan that expressly 96750
allows such a practice. Waiver of the deductibles or copayments 96751
shall be made only with the full knowledge and consent of the plan 96752
purchaser, payer, and third-party administrator. Documentation of 96753
the consent shall be made available to the section upon request.96754

       (2) For professional services rendered to any other person 96755
licensed pursuant to sections 4755.04 to 4755.13 of the Revised 96756
Code to the extent allowed by those sections and the rules of the 96757
occupational therapy section.96758

       (C) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, the 96759
suspension or revocation of a license or limited permit under this 96760
section is not effective until either the order for suspension or 96761
revocation has been affirmed following an adjudication hearing, or 96762
the time for requesting a hearing has elapsed.96763

       When a license or limited permit is revoked under this 96764
section, application for reinstatement may not be made sooner than 96765
one year after the date of revocation. The occupational therapy 96766
section may accept or refuse an application for reinstatement and 96767
may require that the applicant pass an examination as a condition 96768
of reinstatement.96769

       When a license or limited permit holder is placed on 96770
probation under this section, the occupational therapy section's 96771
probation order shall be accompanied by a statement of the 96772
conditions under which the individual may be removed from 96773
probation and restored to unrestricted practice.96774

       (D) On receipt of a complaint that a person who holds a 96775
license or limited permit issued by the occupational therapy 96776
section has committed any of the prohibited actions listed in 96777
division (A) of this section, the section may immediately suspend 96778
the license or limited permit prior to holding a hearing in 96779
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code if it determines, 96780
based on the complaint, that the licensee or limited permit holder 96781
poses an immediate threat to the public. The section may review 96782
the allegations and vote on the suspension by telephone conference 96783
call. If the section votes to suspend a license or limited permit 96784
under this division, the section shall notifyissue a written 96785
order of summary suspension to the licensee or limited permit 96786
holder of the suspension in accordance with section 119.07 of the 96787
Revised Code. If the individual whose license or limited permit is 96788
suspended fails to make a timely request for an adjudication under 96789
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the section shall enter a final 96790
order permanently revoking the individual's license or limited 96791
permit. Notwithstanding section 119.12 of the Revised Code, a 96792
court of common pleas shall not grant a suspension of the 96793
section's order of summary suspension pending the determination of 96794
an appeal filed under that section. Any order of summary 96795
suspension issued under this division shall remain in effect, 96796
unless reversed on appeal, until a final adjudication order issued 96797
by the section pursuant to division (A) of this section becomes 96798
effective. The section shall issue its final adjudication order 96799
regarding an order of summary suspension issued under this 96800
division not later than ninety days after completion of its 96801
hearing. Failure to issue the order within ninety days shall 96802
result in immediate dissolution of the suspension order, but shall 96803
not invalidate any subsequent, final adjudication order.96804

       (E) If any person other than a person who holds a license or 96805
limited permit issued under section 4755.08 of the Revised Code 96806
has engaged in any practice that is prohibited under sections 96807
4755.04 to 4755.13 of the Revised Code or the rules of the 96808
occupational therapy section, the section may apply to the court 96809
of common pleas of the county in which the violation occurred, for 96810
an injunction or other appropriate order restraining this conduct, 96811
and the court shall issue this order.96812

       Sec. 4755.47.  (A) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the 96813
Revised Code, the physical therapy section of the Ohio 96814
occupational therapy, physical therapy, and athletic trainers 96815
board may refuse to grant a license to an applicant for an initial 96816
or renewed license as a physical therapist or physical therapist 96817
assistant or, by an affirmative vote of not less than five 96818
members, may limit, suspend, or revoke the license of a physical 96819
therapist or physical therapist assistant or reprimand, fine, 96820
place a license holder on probation, or require the license holder 96821
to take corrective action courses, on any of the following 96822
grounds:96823

       (1) Habitual indulgence in the use of controlled substances, 96824
other habit-forming drugs, or alcohol to an extent that affects 96825
the individual's professional competency;96826

       (2) Conviction of a felony or a crime involving moral 96827
turpitude, regardless of the state or country in which the 96828
conviction occurred;96829

       (3) Obtaining or attempting to obtain a license issued by the 96830
physical therapy section by fraud or deception, including the 96831
making of a false, fraudulent, deceptive, or misleading statement;96832

       (4) An adjudication by a court, as provided in section 96833
5122.301 of the Revised Code, that the applicant or licensee is 96834
incompetent for the purpose of holding the license and has not 96835
thereafter been restored to legal capacity for that purpose;96836

       (5) Subject to section 4755.471 of the Revised Code, 96837
violation of the code of ethics adopted by the physical therapy 96838
section;96839

       (6) Violating or attempting to violate, directly or 96840
indirectly, or assisting in or abetting the violation of or 96841
conspiring to violate sections 4755.40 to 4755.56 of the Revised 96842
Code or any order issued or rule adopted under those sections;96843

       (7) Failure of one or both of the examinations required under 96844
section 4755.43 or 4755.431 of the Revised Code;96845

       (8) Permitting the use of one's name or license by a person, 96846
group, or corporation when the one permitting the use is not 96847
directing the treatment given;96848

       (9) Denial, revocation, suspension, or restriction of 96849
authority to practice a health care occupation, including physical 96850
therapy, for any reason other than a failure to renew, in Ohio or 96851
another state or jurisdiction;96852

       (10) Failure to maintain minimal standards of practice in the 96853
administration or handling of drugs, as defined in section 4729.01 96854
of the Revised Code, or failure to employ acceptable scientific 96855
methods in the selection of drugs, as defined in section 4729.01 96856
of the Revised Code, or other modalities for treatment;96857

       (11) Willful betrayal of a professional confidence;96858

       (12) Making a false, fraudulent, deceptive, or misleading 96859
statement in the solicitation of or advertising for patients in 96860
relation to the practice of physical therapy;96861

       (13) A departure from, or the failure to conform to, minimal 96862
standards of care required of licensees when under the same or 96863
similar circumstances, whether or not actual injury to a patient 96864
is established;96865

       (14) Obtaining, or attempting to obtain, money or anything of 96866
value by fraudulent misrepresentations in the course of practice;96867

       (15) Violation of the conditions of limitation or agreements 96868
placed by the physical therapy section on a license to practice;96869

       (16) Failure to renew a license in accordance with section 96870
4755.46 of the Revised Code;96871

       (17) Except as provided in section 4755.471 of the Revised 96872
Code, engaging in the division of fees for referral of patients or 96873
receiving anything of value in return for a specific referral of a 96874
patient to utilize a particular service or business;96875

       (18) Inability to practice according to acceptable and 96876
prevailing standards of care because of mental illness or physical 96877
illness, including physical deterioration that adversely affects 96878
cognitive, motor, or perception skills;96879

       (19) The revocation, suspension, restriction, or termination 96880
of clinical privileges by the United States department of defense 96881
or department of veterans affairs;96882

       (20) Termination or suspension from participation in the 96883
medicare or medicaid program established under Title XVIII and 96884
Title XIX, respectively, of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 96885
620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, for an act or acts that 96886
constitute a violation of sections 4755.40 to 4755.56 of the 96887
Revised Code;96888

       (21) Failure of a physical therapist to maintain supervision 96889
of a student, physical therapist assistant, unlicensed support 96890
personnel, other assistant personnel, or a license applicant in 96891
accordance with the requirements of sections 4755.40 to 4755.56 of 96892
the Revised Code and rules adopted under those sections;96893

       (22) Failure to complete continuing education requirements as 96894
prescribed in section 4755.51 or 4755.511 of the Revised Code or 96895
to satisfy any rules applicable to continuing education 96896
requirements that are adopted by the physical therapy section;96897

       (23) Conviction of a misdemeanor when the act that 96898
constitutes the misdemeanor occurs during the practice of physical 96899
therapy;96900

        (24)(a) Except as provided in division (A)(24)(b) of this 96901
section, failure to cooperate with an investigation conducted by 96902
the physical therapy section, including failure to comply with a 96903
subpoena or orders issued by the section or failure to answer 96904
truthfully a question presented by the section at a deposition or 96905
in written interrogatories.96906

       (b) Failure to cooperate with an investigation does not 96907
constitute grounds for discipline under this section if a court of 96908
competent jurisdiction issues an order that either quashes a 96909
subpoena or permits the individual to withhold the testimony or 96910
evidence at issue.96911

       (25) Regardless of whether the contact or verbal behavior is 96912
consensual, engaging with a patient other than the spouse of the 96913
physical therapist or physical therapist assistant, in any of the 96914
following:96915

       (a) Sexual contact, as defined in section 2907.01 of the 96916
Revised Code;96917

       (b) Verbal behavior that is sexually demeaning to the patient 96918
or may be reasonably interpreted by the patient as sexually 96919
demeaning.96920

       (26) Failure to notify the physical therapy section of a 96921
change in name, business address, or home address within thirty 96922
days after the date of change;96923

       (27) Except as provided in division (B) of this section:96924

       (a) Waiving the payment of all or any part of a deductible or 96925
copayment that a patient, pursuant to a health insurance or health 96926
care policy, contract, or plan that covers physical therapy, would 96927
otherwise be required to pay if the waiver is used as an 96928
enticement to a patient or group of patients to receive health 96929
care services from that provider;96930

       (b) Advertising that the individual will waive the payment of 96931
all or any part of a deductible or copayment that a patient, 96932
pursuant to a health insurance or health care policy, contract, or 96933
plan that covers physical therapy, would otherwise be required to 96934
pay;96935

       (28) Violation of any section of this chapter or rule adopted 96936
under it.96937

       (B) Sanctions shall not be imposed under division (A)(27) of 96938
this section against any individual who waives deductibles and 96939
copayments as follows:96940

       (1) In compliance with the health benefit plan that expressly 96941
allows such a practice. Waiver of the deductibles or copayments 96942
shall be made only with the full knowledge and consent of the plan 96943
purchaser, payer, and third-party administrator. Documentation of 96944
the consent shall be made available to the physical therapy 96945
section upon request.96946

       (2) For professional services rendered to any other person 96947
licensed pursuant to sections 4755.40 to 4755.56 of the Revised 96948
Code to the extent allowed by those sections and the rules of the 96949
physical therapy section.96950

       (C) When a license is revoked under this section, application 96951
for reinstatement may not be made sooner than one year after the 96952
date of revocation. The physical therapy section may accept or 96953
refuse an application for reinstatement and may require that the 96954
applicant pass an examination as a condition for reinstatement.96955

       When a license holder is placed on probation under this 96956
section, the physical therapy section's order for placement on 96957
probation shall be accompanied by a statement of the conditions 96958
under which the individual may be removed from probation and 96959
restored to unrestricted practice.96960

       (D) When an application for an initial or renewed license is 96961
refused under this section, the physical therapy section shall 96962
notify the applicant in writing of the section's decision to 96963
refuse issuance of a license and the reason for its decision.96964

       (E) On receipt of a complaint that a person licensed by the 96965
physical therapy section has committed any of the actions listed 96966
in division (A) of this section, the physical therapy section may 96967
immediately suspend the license of the physical therapist or 96968
physical therapist assistant prior to holding a hearing in 96969
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code if it determines, 96970
based on the complaint, that the person poses an immediate threat 96971
to the public. The physical therapy section may review the 96972
allegations and vote on the suspension by telephone conference 96973
call. If the physical therapy section votes to suspend a license 96974
under this division, the physical therapy section shall notify96975
issue a written order of summary suspension to the person of the 96976
suspension in accordance with section 119.07 of the Revised Code. 96977
If the person fails to make a timely request for an adjudication 96978
under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the physical therapy 96979
section shall enter a final order permanently revoking the 96980
person's license. Notwithstanding section 119.12 of the Revised 96981
Code, a court of common pleas shall not grant a suspension of the 96982
physical therapy section's order of summary suspension pending the 96983
determination of an appeal filed under that section. Any order of 96984
summary suspension issued under this division shall remain in 96985
effect, unless reversed on appeal, until a final adjudication 96986
order issued by the physical therapy section pursuant to division 96987
(A) of this section becomes effective. The physical therapy 96988
section shall issue its final adjudication order regarding an 96989
order of summary suspension issued under this division not later 96990
than ninety days after completion of its hearing. Failure to issue 96991
the order within ninety days shall result in immediate dissolution 96992
of the suspension order, but shall not invalidate any subsequent, 96993
final adjudication order.96994

       Sec. 4755.481. (A) If a physical therapist evaluates and 96995
treats a patient without the prescription of, or the referral of 96996
the patient by, a person described in division (G)(1) of section 96997
4755.48 of the Revised Code, all of the following apply:96998

       (1) The physical therapist shall, upon consent of the 96999
patient, inform the relevant person described in division (G)(1) 97000
of section 4755.48 of the Revised Code of the evaluation not later 97001
than five business days after the evaluation is made.97002

        (2) If the physical therapist determines, based on reasonable 97003
evidence, that no substantial progress has been made with respect 97004
to that patient during the thirty-day period immediately following 97005
the date of the patient's initial visit with the physical 97006
therapist, the physical therapist shall consult with or refer the 97007
patient to a person described in division (G)(1) of section 97008
4755.48 of the Revised Code, unless either of the following 97009
applies:97010

        (a) The evaluation, treatment, or services are being provided 97011
for fitness, wellness, or prevention purposes.97012

        (b) The patient previously was diagnosed with chronic, 97013
neuromuscular, or developmental conditions and the evaluation, 97014
treatment, or services are being provided for problems or symptoms 97015
associated with one or more of those previously diagnosed 97016
conditions.97017

        (3) If the physical therapist determines that orthotic 97018
devices are necessary to treat the patient, the physical therapist 97019
shall be limited to the application of the following orthotic 97020
devices:97021

        (a) Upper extremity adaptive equipment used to facilitate the 97022
activities of daily living;97023

        (b) Finger splints;97024

        (c) Wrist splints;97025

        (d) Prefabricated elastic or fabric abdominal supports with 97026
or without metal or plastic reinforcing stays and other 97027
prefabricated soft goods requiring minimal fitting;97028

        (e) Nontherapeutic accommodative inlays;97029

        (f) Shoes that are not manufactured or modified for a 97030
particular individual;97031

        (g) Prefabricated foot care products;97032

       (h) Custom foot orthotics;97033

        (i) Durable medical equipment.97034

        (4) If, at any time, the physical therapist has reason to 97035
believe that the patient has symptoms or conditions that require 97036
treatment or services beyond the scope of practice of a physical 97037
therapist, the physical therapist shall refer the patient to a 97038
licensed health care practitioner acting within the practitioner's 97039
scope of practice.97040

        (B) Nothing in sections 4755.40 to 4755.56 of the Revised 97041
Code shall be construed to require reimbursement under any health 97042
insuring corporation policy, contract, or agreement, any sickness 97043
and accident insurance policy, the medical assistancemedicaid97044
program as defined in section 5111.01 of the Revised Code, or the 97045
health partnership program or qualified health plans established 97046
pursuant to sections 4121.44 to 4121.442 of the Revised Code, for 97047
any physical therapy service rendered without the prescription of, 97048
or the referral of the patient by, a person described in division 97049
(G)(1) of section 4755.48 of the Revised Code.97050

       (C) For purposes of this section, "business day" means any 97051
calendar day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday. 97052
"Legal holiday" has the same meaning as in section 1.14 of the 97053
Revised Code.97054

       Sec. 4755.64.  (A) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the 97055
Revised Code, the athletic trainers section of the Ohio 97056
occupational therapy, physical therapy, and athletic trainers 97057
board may suspend, revoke, or refuse to issue or renew an athletic 97058
trainers license, or reprimand, fine, or place a licensee on 97059
probation, for any of the following:97060

       (1) Conviction of a felony or offense involving moral 97061
turpitude, regardless of the state or country in which the 97062
conviction occurred;97063

       (2) Violation of sections 4755.61 to 4755.65 of the Revised 97064
Code or any order issued or rule adopted thereunder;97065

       (3) Obtaining a license through fraud, false or misleading 97066
representation, or concealment of material facts;97067

       (4) Negligence or gross misconduct in the practice of 97068
athletic training;97069

       (5) Violating the standards of ethical conduct in the 97070
practice of athletic training as adopted by the athletic trainers 97071
section under section 4755.61 of the Revised Code;97072

       (6) Using any controlled substance or alcohol to the extent 97073
that the ability to practice athletic training at a level of 97074
competency is impaired;97075

       (7) Practicing in an area of athletic training for which the 97076
individual is untrained, incompetent, or practicing without the 97077
referral of a practitioner licensed under Chapter 4731. of the 97078
Revised Code, a dentist licensed under Chapter 4715. of the 97079
Revised Code, a chiropractor licensed under Chapter 4734. of the 97080
Revised Code, or a physical therapist licensed under this chapter;97081

       (8) Employing, directing, or supervising a person in the 97082
performance of athletic training procedures who is not authorized 97083
to practice as a licensed athletic trainer under this chapter;97084

       (9) Misrepresenting educational attainments or the functions 97085
the individual is authorized to perform for the purpose of 97086
obtaining some benefit related to the individual's athletic 97087
training practice;97088

       (10) Failing the licensing examination;97089

       (11) Aiding or abetting the unlicensed practice of athletic 97090
training;97091

       (12) Denial, revocation, suspension, or restriction of 97092
authority to practice a health care occupation, including athletic 97093
training, for any reason other than a failure to renew, in Ohio or 97094
another state or jurisdiction.97095

       (B) If the athletic trainers section places a licensee on 97096
probation under division (A) of this section, the section's order 97097
for placement on probation shall be accompanied by a written 97098
statement of the conditions under which the person may be removed 97099
from probation and restored to unrestricted practice.97100

       (C) A licensee whose license has been revoked under division 97101
(A) of this section may apply to the athletic trainers section for 97102
reinstatement of the license one year following the date of 97103
revocation. The athletic trainers section may accept or deny the 97104
application for reinstatement and may require that the applicant 97105
pass an examination as a condition for reinstatement.97106

       (D) On receipt of a complaint that a person licensed by the 97107
athletic trainers section has committed any of the prohibited 97108
actions listed in division (A) of this section, the section may 97109
immediately suspend the license of a licensed athletic trainer 97110
prior to holding a hearing in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 97111
Revised Code if it determines, based on the complaint, that the 97112
licensee poses an immediate threat to the public. The section may 97113
review the allegations and vote on the suspension by telephone 97114
conference call. If the section votes to suspend a license under 97115
this division, the section shall notifyissue a written order of 97116
summary suspension to the licensed athletic trainer of the 97117
suspension in accordance with section 119.07 of the Revised Code. 97118
If the individual whose license is suspended fails to make a 97119
timely request for an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the 97120
Revised Code, the section shall enter a final order permanently 97121
revoking the individual's license. Notwithstanding section 119.12 97122
of the Revised Code, a court of common pleas shall not grant a 97123
suspension of the section's order of summary suspension pending 97124
the determination of an appeal filed under that section. Any order 97125
of summary suspension issued under this division shall remain in 97126
effect, unless reversed on appeal, until a final adjudication 97127
order issued by the section pursuant to division (A) of this 97128
section becomes effective. The section shall issue its final 97129
adjudication order regarding an order of summary suspension issued 97130
under this division not later than ninety days after completion of 97131
its hearing. Failure to issue the order within ninety days shall 97132
result in immediate dissolution of the suspension order, but shall 97133
not invalidate any subsequent, final adjudication order.97134

       Sec. 4758.10. (A) There is hereby created the chemical 97135
dependency professionals board.97136

       (B) The governor shall appoint all of the following voting 97137
members of the board with the advice and consent of the senate:97138

       (1) Four individuals who hold a valid independent chemical 97139
dependency counselor-clinical supervisor license or independent 97140
chemical dependency counselor license issued under this chapter, 97141
including at least two of whom have received at least a master's 97142
degree in a field related to chemical dependency counseling from 97143
an accredited educational institution;97144

       (2) Two individuals who hold a valid chemical dependency 97145
counselor III license issued under this chapter;97146

       (3) One individual who holds a valid chemical dependency 97147
counselor II license issued under this chapter;97148

       (4) Two individuals who hold a valid prevention specialist II 97149
certificate or prevention specialist I certificate issued under 97150
this chapter;97151

       (5) One individual who is authorized under Chapter 4731. of 97152
the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic 97153
medicine and surgery and has experience practicing in a field 97154
related to chemical dependency counseling;97155

       (6) Two individuals who represent the public and have not 97156
practiced chemical dependency counseling or alcohol and other drug 97157
prevention services and have not been involved in the delivery of 97158
chemical dependency counseling services or alcohol and other drug 97159
prevention services. At least one of these individuals shall be at 97160
least sixtyfifty years of age. During their terms, the public 97161
members shall not practice chemical dependency counseling or 97162
alcohol and other drug prevention services or be involved in the 97163
delivery of chemical dependency counseling services or alcohol and 97164
other drug prevention services.97165

       (C) Not later than ninety days after December 23, 2002, the 97166
director of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and 97167
addiction services shall appoint an individual who represents the 97168
department of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health 97169
and addiction services to serve as an ex officio member of the 97170
chemical dependency professionals board.97171

       (D) Not more than one-half of the voting members of the board 97172
may be of the same gender or members of the same political party. 97173
At least two voting members of the board shall be of African, 97174
Native American, Hispanic, or Asian descent.97175

       Sec. 4758.11. Of the initial appointees to the chemical 97176
dependency professionals board appointed by the governor under 97177
division (B) of section 4758.10 of the Revised Code, four shall be 97178
appointed for terms ending one year after the effective date of 97179
this sectionDecember 23, 2002, four shall be appointed for terms 97180
ending two years after the effective date of this sectionDecember 97181
23, 2002, and four shall be appointed for terms ending three years 97182
after the effective date of this sectionDecember 23, 2002. After 97183
the initial appointments, terms of office shall be three years, 97184
each term ending on the same day of the same month of the year as 97185
the term it succeeds.97186

       A voting member of the board shall hold office from the date 97187
of appointment until the end of the term for which the member was 97188
appointed. A voting member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring 97189
prior to the expiration of the term for which the member's 97190
predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of 97191
that term. A voting member shall continue in office after the 97192
expiration date of the member's term until the member's successor 97193
takes office or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, 97194
whichever occurs first. Voting members may be reappointed, except 97195
that an individual who has held office for two consecutive full 97196
terms shall not be reappointed sooner than one year after the 97197
expiration of the second full term.97198

       The ex officio member of the board appointed by the director 97199
of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 97200
services under division (C) of section 4758.10 of the Revised Code 97201
shall serve at the pleasure of the director.97202

       Sec. 4761.01.  As used in this chapter:97203

       (A) "Respiratory care" means rendering or offering to render 97204
to individuals, groups, organizations, or the public any service 97205
involving the evaluation of cardiopulmonary function, the 97206
treatment of cardiopulmonary impairment, the assessment of 97207
treatment effectiveness, and the care of patients with 97208
deficiencies and abnormalities associated with the cardiopulmonary 97209
system. The practice of respiratory care includes:97210

       (1) Obtaining, analyzing, testing, measuring, and monitoring 97211
blood and gas samples in the determination of cardiopulmonary 97212
parameters and related physiologic data, including flows, 97213
pressures, and volumes, and the use of equipment employed for this 97214
purpose;97215

       (2) Administering, monitoring, recording the results of, and 97216
instructing in the use of medical gases, aerosols, and 97217
bronchopulmonary hygiene techniques, including drainage, 97218
aspiration, and sampling, and applying, maintaining, and 97219
instructing in the use of artificial airways, ventilators, and 97220
other life support equipment employed in the treatment of 97221
cardiopulmonary impairment and provided in collaboration with 97222
other licensed health care professionals responsible for providing 97223
care;97224

       (3) Performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation and respiratory 97225
rehabilitation techniques;97226

       (4) Administering medications for the testing or treatment of 97227
cardiopulmonary impairment.97228

       (B) "Respiratory care professional" means a person who is 97229
licensed under this chapter to practice the full range of 97230
respiratory care services as defined in division (A) of this 97231
section.97232

       (C) "Physician" means an individual authorized under Chapter 97233
4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or 97234
osteopathic medicine and surgery.97235

       (D) "Registered nurse" means an individual licensed under 97236
Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code to engage in the practice of 97237
nursing as a registered nurse.97238

       (E) "Hospital" means a facility that meets the operating 97239
standards of section 3727.02 of the Revised Code.97240

       (F) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 97241
5111.205165.01 of the Revised Code.97242

       Sec. 4776.01. As used in this chapter:97243

       (A) "License" means an authorization evidenced by a license, 97244
certificate, registration, permit, card, or other authority that 97245
is issued or conferred by a licensing agency to a licensee or to 97246
an applicant for an initial license by which the licensee or 97247
initial license applicant has or claims the privilege to engage in 97248
a profession, occupation, or occupational activity, or, except in 97249
the case of the state dental board, to have control of and operate 97250
certain specific equipment, machinery, or premises, over which the 97251
licensing agency has jurisdiction.97252

       (B) Except as provided in section 4776.20 of the Revised 97253
Code, "licensee" means the person to whom the license is issued by 97254
a licensing agency.97255

       (C) Except as provided in section 4776.20 of the Revised 97256
Code, "licensing agency" means any of the following:97257

       (1) The board authorized by Chapters 4701., 4717., 4725., 97258
4729., 4730., 4731., 4732., 4734., 4740., 4741., 4755., 4757., 97259
4759., 4760., 4761., 4762., and 4779., and 4783. of the Revised 97260
Code to issue a license to engage in a specific profession, 97261
occupation, or occupational activity, or to have charge of and 97262
operate certain specified equipment, machinery, or premises.97263

       (2) The state dental board, relative to its authority to 97264
issue a license pursuant to section 4715.12, 4715.16, 4715.21, or 97265
4715.27 of the Revised Code.97266

       (D) "Applicant for an initial license" includes persons 97267
seeking a license for the first time and persons seeking a license 97268
by reciprocity, endorsement, or similar manner of a license issued 97269
in another state.97270

       (E) "Applicant for a restored license" includes persons 97271
seeking restoration of a certificate under section 4730.14, 97272
4731.281, 4760.06, or 4762.06 of the Revised Code.97273

       (F) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 97274
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.97275

       Sec. 4778.02.  (A)(1) Except as provided in division (B) of 97276
this section, no person shall practice as a genetic counselor 97277
unless the person holds a current, valid license to practice as a 97278
genetic counselor issued under this chapter.97279

       (2) No person shall use the title "genetic counselor," or 97280
otherwise hold the person out as a genetic counselor, unless the 97281
person holds a current, valid license to practice as a genetic 97282
counselor issued under this chapter.97283

       (B) Division (A)(1) of this section does not apply to either 97284
of the following:97285

       (1) A student performing an activity as part of a genetic 97286
counseling graduate program described in division (B)(2)(1)(b) of 97287
section 4778.03 of the Revised Code;97288

       (2) A person who is authorized pursuant to another provision 97289
of the Revised Code to perform any of the activities that a 97290
genetic counselor is authorized to perform.97291

       Sec. 4778.03.  (A) An individual seeking a license to 97292
practice as a genetic counselor shall file with the state medical 97293
board an application in a manner prescribed by the board. The 97294
application shall include all the information the board considers 97295
necessary to process the application, including evidence 97296
satisfactory to the board that the applicant meets the 97297
requirements specified in division (B) of this section.97298

       At the time an application is submitted, the applicant shall 97299
pay the board an application fee of two hundred dollars. No part 97300
of the fee shall be returned to the applicant or transferred for 97301
purposes of another application.97302

       (B)(1) To be eligible to receive a license to practice as a 97303
genetic counselor, an applicant shall demonstrate to the board 97304
that the applicant meets all of the following requirements:97305

       (1)(a) Is at least eighteen years of age and of good moral 97306
character;97307

       (2) Has(b) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this 97308
section, has attained a master's degree or higher degree from a 97309
genetic counseling graduate program accredited by the American 97310
board of genetic counseling, inc.;97311

       (3)(c) Is a certified genetic counselor;97312

       (4)(d) Has satisfied any other requirements established by 97313
the board in rules adopted under section 4778.12 of the Revised 97314
Code.97315

       (2) In the case of an applicant who files an application not 97316
later than December 31, 2013, and meets all eligibility 97317
requirements other than the requirement specified in division 97318
(B)(1)(b) of this section, the applicant is eligible for a license 97319
to practice as a genetic counselor if the applicant has attained a 97320
master's or higher degree in education or in a field that the 97321
state medical board considers to be closely related to genetic 97322
counseling.97323

       (C) The board shall review all applications received under 97324
this section. Not later than sixty days after receiving an 97325
application it considers complete, the board shall determine 97326
whether the applicant meets the requirements for a license to 97327
practice as a genetic counselor. The affirmative vote of not fewer 97328
than six members of the board is required to determine that the 97329
applicant meets the requirements for the license.97330

       Sec. 4781.121. (A) The manufactured homes commission, 97331
pursuant to section 4781.04 of the Revised Code, may investigate 97332
any person who allegedly has committed a violation. If, after an 97333
investigation the commission determines that reasonable evidence 97334
exists that a person has committed a violation, within seven days 97335
after that determination, the commission shall send a written 97336
notice to that person in the same manner as prescribed in section 97337
119.07 of the Revised Code for licensees, except that the notice 97338
shall specify that a hearing will be held and specify the date, 97339
time, and place of the hearing.97340

       (B) The commission shall hold a hearing regarding the alleged 97341
violation in the same manner prescribed for an adjudication 97342
hearing under section 119.09 of the Revised Code. If the 97343
commission, after the hearing, determines that a violation has 97344
occurred, the commission, upon an affirmative vote of five of its 97345
members, may impose a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars per 97346
violation per day. The commission's determination is an order that 97347
the person may appeal in accordance with section 119.12 of the 97348
Revised Code.97349

       (C) If the person who allegedly committed a violation fails 97350
to appear for a hearing, the commission may request the court of 97351
common pleas of the county where the alleged violation occurred to 97352
compel the person to appear before the commission for a hearing.97353

       (D) If the commission assesses a person a civil penalty for a 97354
violation and the person fails to pay that civil penalty within 97355
the time period prescribed by the commission pursuant to section 97356
131.02 of the Revised Code, the commission shall forward to the 97357
attorney general the name of the person and the amount of the 97358
civil penalty for the purpose of collecting that civil penalty. In 97359
addition to the civil penalty assessed pursuant to this section, 97360
the person also shall pay any fee assessed by the attorney general 97361
for collection of the civil penalty.97362

       (E) The authority provided to the commission pursuant to this 97363
section, and any fine imposed under this section, shall be in 97364
addition to, and not in lieu of, all penalties and other remedies 97365
provided in this chapter. Any fines collected pursuant to this 97366
section shall be used solely to administer and enforce this 97367
chapter and rules adopted under it. Any fees collected pursuant to 97368
this section shall be transmitted to the treasurer of state and 97369
shall be credited to the manufactured homes commission regulatory 97370
fund created in section 4781.54 of the Revised Code and the rules 97371
adopted thereunder. The fees shall be used only for the purpose of 97372
administering and enforcing sections 4781.26 to 4781.35 of the 97373
Revised Code and the rules adopted thereunder.97374

       (F) As used in this section, "violation" means a violation of 97375
section 4781.11, 4781.16, or 4781.27 of the Revised Code, or any 97376
rule adopted pursuant to section 4781.04, of the Revised Codethis 97377
chapter.97378

       Sec. 4781.28.  The manufactured homes commission may charge a 97379
fee for an annual license to operate a manufactured home park. The 97380
fee for a license shall be determined in accordance with section 97381
4781.264781.27 of the Revised Code and shall include the cost of 97382
licensing and all inspections.97383

        Any fees collected shall be transmitted to the treasurer of 97384
state and shall be credited to the manufactured homes commission 97385
regulatory fund created in section 4781.54 of the Revised Code and 97386
used only for the purpose of administering and enforcing sections 97387
4781.26 to 4781.35 of the Revised Code and the rules adopted 97388
thereunder.97389

       Sec. 4781.29.  The manufactured homes commission may refuse 97390
to grant, may suspend, or may revoke any license granted to any 97391
person for failure to comply with sections 4781.26 to 4781.35 of 97392
the Revised Codethis chapter or with any rule adopted under 97393
section 4781.26 of the Revised Codethis chapter.97394

       Sec. 4783.01.  As used in this chapter:97395

       (A) "Certified Ohio behavior analyst" means an individual 97396
holding a current, valid certificate issued under section 4783.04 97397
of the Revised Code.97398

       (B)(1) "Practice of applied behavior analysis" means the 97399
design, implementation, and evaluation of instructional and 97400
environmental modifications to produce socially significant 97401
improvements in human behavior and includes the following:97402

       (a) The empirical identification of functional relations 97403
between behavior and environmental factors, known as functional 97404
assessment and analysis;97405

       (b) Interventions based on scientific research and the direct 97406
observation and measurement of behavior and the environment; 97407

       (c) Utilization of contextual factors, motivating operations, 97408
antecedent stimuli, positive reinforcement, and other consequences 97409
to help people develop new behaviors, increase or decrease 97410
existing behaviors, and emit behaviors under specific 97411
environmental conditions.97412

       (2) "Practice of applied behavior analysis" does not include 97413
psychological testing, diagnosis of a mental or physical disorder, 97414
neuropsychology, psychotherapy, cognitive therapy, sex therapy, 97415
psychoanalysis, hypnotherapy, and long-term counseling as 97416
treatment modalities.97417

       Sec. 4783.02.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in division 97418
(B) of this section, no person shall do either of the following:97419

       (1) Engage in the practice of applied behavior analysis in 97420
this state without holding a certificate issued under section 97421
4783.04 of the Revised Code;97422

       (2) Hold the person's self out to be a certified Ohio 97423
behavior analyst unless the person holds a certificate issued 97424
under section 4783.04 of the Revised Code.97425

       (B) This chapter does not apply to any of the following:97426

       (1) An individual licensed under Chapter 4732. of the Revised 97427
Code to practice psychology, if the practice of applied behavior 97428
analysis engaged in by the licensed psychologist is within the 97429
licensed psychologist's education, training, and experience;97430

       (2) An individual acting under the authority and direction of 97431
an individual described in division (B)(1) of this section;97432

       (3) An individual practicing applied behavior analysis who is 97433
supervised by a certified Ohio behavior analyst and acting under 97434
the authority and direction of that certified Ohio behavior 97435
analyst;97436

       (4) The delivery of interventions by a direct care provider 97437
or family member to implement components of an applied behavior 97438
analysis treatment plan.97439

       (5) A behavior analyst who practices with nonhuman or 97440
nonpatient clients or consumers, including applied animal 97441
behaviorists and practitioners of organizational behavior 97442
management;97443

       (6) A licensed professional authorized to practice in this 97444
state who, in the offering or rendering of services, does not 97445
represent oneself in any printed materials or verbally by 97446
incorporating the term "applied behavior analyst," if the services 97447
of the licensed professional are within the scope of practice of 97448
the licensing law governing the licensed professional and the 97449
services performed are commensurate with the licensed 97450
professional's education, training, and experience;97451

       (7) A matriculated graduate student or postdoctoral trainee 97452
whose activities are part of a defined program of study or 97453
professional training;97454

       (8) An individual employed by an agency that falls under the 97455
jurisdiction of the department of developmental disabilities when 97456
the individual is acting in the scope of that employment;97457

       (9) A professional employed in a school or other setting that 97458
falls under the regulation of the state board of education when 97459
the professional is acting within the scope of that employment.97460

       (C) For purposes of division (B)(2) or (3) of this section, 97461
an individual is not subject to this chapter only if the licensed 97462
psychologist or the certified Ohio behavior analyst under whose 97463
authority and direction the individual is acting pursuant to 97464
division (B)(2) or (3) of this section signs an attestation 97465
stating that the licensed psychologist or certified Ohio behavior 97466
analyst is responsible for the care provided by the individual.97467

       Sec. 4783.03.  (A) The state board of psychology shall 97468
administer and enforce this chapter. The board shall adopt rules 97469
under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing all of the 97470
following:97471

       (1) Procedures and requirements for applying for a 97472
certificate issued under section 4783.04 of the Revised Code;97473

       (2) Fees for issuance of a certificate;97474

       (3) Reductions of the hours of continuing education required 97475
by section 4783.05 of the Revised Code for persons in their first 97476
certificate period.97477

       (B) The board may adopt additional rules in accordance with 97478
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as the board determines are 97479
necessary to implement and enforce this chapter.97480

       Sec. 4783.04.  (A) An individual seeking a certificate to 97481
practice as a certified Ohio behavior analyst shall file with the 97482
state board of psychology a written application on a form 97483
prescribed and supplied by the board. To be eligible for a 97484
certificate, the individual shall do all of the following:97485

       (1) Demonstrate that the applicant is of good moral character 97486
and conducts the applicant's professional activities in accordance 97487
with accepted professional and ethical standards;97488

       (2) Comply with sections 4776.01 to 4776.04 of the Revised 97489
Code;97490

       (3) Demonstrate an understanding of the law regarding 97491
behavioral health practice;97492

       (4) Demonstrate current certification as a board certified 97493
behavior analyst by the behavior analyst certification board or 97494
its successor organization or demonstrate completion of equivalent 97495
requirements and passage of a psychometrically valid examination 97496
administered by a nationally accredited credentialing 97497
organization;97498

       (5) Pay the fee established by the state board of psychology.97499

       (B) The state board of psychology shall review all 97500
applications received under this section. The state board of 97501
psychology shall not grant a certificate to an applicant for an 97502
initial certificate unless the applicant complies with sections 97503
4776.01 to 4776.04 of the Revised Code and the state board of 97504
psychology, in its discretion, decides that the results of the 97505
criminal records check do not make the applicant ineligible for a 97506
certificate issued pursuant to section 4783.09 of the Revised 97507
Code. If the state board of psychology determines that an 97508
applicant satisfies the requirements for a certificate to practice 97509
as a certified Ohio behavior analyst, the state board of 97510
psychology shall issue the applicant a certificate.97511

       Sec. 4783.05.  (A)(1) Except as otherwise provided in this 97512
division, a certificate issued under this chapter is valid for a 97513
period of two years. On or before the thirty-first day of August 97514
of each even-numbered year, each certified Ohio behavior analyst 97515
shall do both of the following:97516

       (a) Register with the state board of psychology on a form 97517
prescribed by the board, giving the certified Ohio behavior 97518
analyst's name, address, certificate number, the continuing 97519
education information required under division (B) of this section, 97520
and any other reasonable information as the board requires;97521

       (b) Pay to the board secretary a biennial registration fee in 97522
an amount of one hundred fifty dollars.97523

       (2) An individual who is issued a certificate under section 97524
4783.04 of the Revised Code for the first time on or before the 97525
thirty-first day of August of an even-numbered year shall next be 97526
required to register on or before the thirty-first day of August 97527
of the next even-numbered year.97528

       (B) Every two years a certified Ohio behavior analyst who 97529
wishes to renew the certified Ohio behavior analyst's certificate 97530
issued under this chapter shall produce proof of not less than 97531
twenty-three hours of continuing education, including not less 97532
than four hours in ethics, professional conduct, or cultural 97533
competency. Continuing education hours may be earned through 97534
providers of continuing education approved by the behavior analyst 97535
certification board or its successor organization or other 97536
organizations approved by the state board of psychology as 97537
providers of continuing education. 97538

       Sec. 4783.09.  (A) The state board of psychology may refuse 97539
to issue a certificate to any applicant, may issue a reprimand, or 97540
suspend or revoke the certificate of any certified Ohio behavior 97541
analyst, on any of the following grounds:97542

       (1) Conviction of a felony, or of any offense involving moral 97543
turpitude, in a court of this or any other state or in a federal 97544
court;97545

       (2) Using fraud or deceit in the procurement of the 97546
certificate to practice applied behavior analysis or knowingly 97547
assisting another in the procurement of such a certificate through 97548
fraud or deceit;97549

       (3) Accepting commissions or rebates or other forms of 97550
remuneration for referring persons to other professionals;97551

       (4) Willful, unauthorized communication of information 97552
received in professional confidence;97553

       (5) Being negligent in the practice of applied behavior 97554
analysis;97555

       (6) Using any controlled substance or alcoholic beverage to 97556
an extent that such use impairs the person's ability to perform 97557
the work of a certified Ohio behavior analyst with safety to the 97558
public;97559

       (7) Violating any rule of professional conduct promulgated by 97560
the board;97561

       (8) Practicing in an area of applied behavior analysis for 97562
which the person is clearly untrained or incompetent;97563

       (9) An adjudication by a court, as provided in section 97564
5122.301 of the Revised Code, that the person is incompetent for 97565
the purpose of holding the certificate;97566

       (10) Waiving the payment of all or any part of a deductible 97567
or copayment that a patient, pursuant to a health insurance or 97568
health care policy, contract, or plan that covers applied behavior 97569
analysis services, would otherwise be required to pay if the 97570
waiver is used as an enticement to a patient or group of patients 97571
to receive health care services from that provider;97572

       (11) Advertising that the person will waive the payment of 97573
all or any part of a deductible or copayment that a patient, 97574
pursuant to a health insurance or health care policy, contract, or 97575
plan that covers applied behavior analysis services, would 97576
otherwise be required to pay.97577

       (B) For purposes of division (A)(9) of this section, a person 97578
may have the person's certificate issued or restored only upon 97579
determination by a court that the person is competent for the 97580
purpose of holding the certificate and upon the decision by the 97581
board that the certificate be issued or restored. The board may 97582
require an examination prior to such issuance or restoration.97583

       (C) Notwithstanding divisions (A)(10) and (11) of this 97584
section, sanctions shall not be imposed against any certificate 97585
holder who waives deductibles and copayments:97586

       (1) In compliance with the health benefit plan that expressly 97587
allows such a practice. Waiver of the deductibles or copays shall 97588
be made only with the full knowledge and consent of the plan 97589
purchaser, payer, and third-party administrator. Such consent 97590
shall be made available to the board upon request.97591

       (2) For professional services rendered to any other person 97592
holding a certificate issued pursuant to this chapter to the 97593
extent allowed by this chapter and the rules of the board.97594

       (D) Except as provided in section 4783.10 of the Revised 97595
Code, before the board may deny, suspend, or revoke a certificate 97596
under this section, or otherwise discipline the holder of a 97597
certificate, written charges shall be filed with the board by the 97598
secretary and a hearing shall be had thereon in accordance with 97599
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.97600

       Sec. 4783.10.  On receipt of a complaint that any of the 97601
grounds listed in division (A) of section 4783.09 of the Revised 97602
Code exist, the state board of psychology may suspend the 97603
certificate of the certified Ohio behavior analyst prior to 97604
holding a hearing in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 97605
Code if it determines, based on the complaint, that an immediate 97606
threat to the public exists.97607

       After suspending a certificate pursuant to this section, the 97608
board shall notify the certified Ohio behavior analyst of the 97609
suspension in accordance with section 119.07 of the Revised Code. 97610
If the individual whose certificate is suspended fails to make a 97611
timely request for an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the 97612
Revised Code, the board shall enter a final order permanently 97613
revoking the individual's certificate.97614

       Sec. 4783.11.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this 97615
section, if, at the conclusion of a hearing required by section 97616
4783.09 of the Revised Code, the state board of psychology 97617
determines that a certified Ohio behavior analyst has engaged in 97618
sexual conduct or had sexual contact with the certified Ohio 97619
behavior analyst's patient or client in violation of any 97620
prohibition contained in Chapter 2907. of the Revised Code, the 97621
board shall do one of the following:97622

       (1) Suspend the certified Ohio behavior analyst's 97623
certificate;97624

       (2) Permanently revoke the certified Ohio behavior analyst's 97625
certificate.97626

       (B) If the board determines at the conclusion of the hearing 97627
that neither of the sanctions described in division (A) of this 97628
section is appropriate, the board shall impose another sanction it 97629
considers appropriate and issue a written finding setting forth 97630
the reasons for the sanction imposed and the reason that neither 97631
of the sanctions described in division (A) of this section is 97632
appropriate.97633

       Sec. 4783.12.  On receipt of a notice pursuant to section 97634
3123.43 of the Revised Code, the state board of psychology shall 97635
comply with sections 3123.41 to 3123.50 of the Revised Code and 97636
any applicable rules adopted under section 3123.63 of the Revised 97637
Code with respect to a certificate issued pursuant to this 97638
chapter.97639

       Sec. 4783.13.  The state board of psychology shall comply 97640
with section 4776.20 of the Revised Code.97641

       Sec. 4783.99.  Whoever violates division (A) of section 97642
4783.02 of the Revised Code shall be fined not less than one 97643
hundred dollars nor more than five hundred dollars or imprisoned 97644
for not less than six months nor more than one year, or both. Each 97645
violation shall be a separate offense.97646

       Sec. 4906.20. (A) No person shall commence to construct an 97647
economically significant wind farm in this state without first 97648
having obtained a certificate from the power siting board. An 97649
economically significant wind farm with respect to which such a 97650
certificate is required shall be constructed, operated, and 97651
maintained in conformity with that certificate and any terms, 97652
conditions, and modifications it contains. A certificate shall be 97653
issued only pursuant to this section. The certificate may be 97654
transferred, subject to the approval of the board, to a person 97655
that agrees to comply with those terms, conditions, and 97656
modifications.97657

       (B) The board shall adopt rules governing the certificating 97658
of economically significant wind farms under this section. Initial 97659
rules shall be adopted within one hundred twenty days after June 97660
24, 2008.97661

       (1) The rules shall provide for an application process for 97662
certificating economically significant wind farms that is 97663
identical to the extent practicable to the process applicable to 97664
certificating major utility facilities under sections 4906.06, 97665
4906.07, 4906.08, 4906.09, 4906.10, 4906.11, and 4906.12 of the 97666
Revised Code and shall prescribe a reasonable schedule of 97667
application filing fees structured in the manner of the schedule 97668
of filing fees required for major utility facilities.97669

       (2) Additionally, the rules shall prescribe reasonable 97670
regulations regarding any wind turbines and associated facilities 97671
of an economically significant wind farm, including, but not 97672
limited to, their location, erection, construction, 97673
reconstruction, change, alteration, maintenance, removal, use, or 97674
enlargement and including erosion control, aesthetics, 97675
recreational land use, wildlife protection, interconnection with 97676
power lines and with regional transmission organizations, 97677
independent transmission system operators, or similar 97678
organizations, ice throw, sound and noise levels, blade shear, 97679
shadow flicker, decommissioning, and necessary cooperation for 97680
site visits and enforcement investigations. The rules also shall 97681
prescribe a minimum setback for a wind turbine of an economically 97682
significant wind farm. That minimum shall be equal to a horizontal 97683
distance, from the turbine's base to the property line of the wind 97684
farm property, equal to one and one-tenth times the total height 97685
of the turbine structure as measured from its base to the tip of 97686
its highest blade and be at least sevenone thousand one hundred 97687
fiftytwenty-five feet in horizontal distance from the tip of the 97688
turbine's nearest blade at ninety degrees to the exterior of the 97689
nearest, habitable, residential structure, if any, located on 97690
adjacent property at the time of the certification application. 97691
For any existing certificates and amendments thereto, and existing 97692
certification applications that have been found by the chairperson 97693
to be in compliance with division (A) of section 4906.06 of the 97694
Revised Code before the effective date of the amendment of this 97695
section by H.B. 59 of the 130th general assembly, the distance 97696
shall be seven hundred fifty feet instead of one thousand one 97697
hundred twenty-five feet. The setback shall apply in all cases 97698
except those in which all owners of property adjacent to the wind 97699
farm property waive application of the setback to that property 97700
pursuant to a procedure the board shall establish by rule and 97701
except in which, in a particular case, the board determines that a 97702
setback greater than the minimum is necessary.97703

       Sec. 4906.201. An electric generating plant that consists of 97704
wind turbines and associated facilities with a single 97705
interconnection to the electrical grid that is designed for, or 97706
capable of, operation at an aggregate capacity of fifty megawatts 97707
or more is subject to the minimum setback requirements established 97708
in rules adopted by the power siting board under division (B)(2) 97709
of section 4906.20 of the Revised Code. For any existing 97710
certificates and amendments thereto, and existing certification 97711
applications that have been found by the chairperson to be in 97712
compliance with division (A) of section 4906.06 of the Revised 97713
Code before the effective date of the amendment of this section by 97714
H.B. 59 of the 130th general assembly, the distance shall be seven 97715
hundred fifty feet instead of one thousand one hundred twenty-five 97716
feet.97717

       Sec. 4909.157. (A) The public utilities commission may 97718
authorize a natural gas company or gas company to recover 97719
environmental remediation costs to which both of the following 97720
apply:97721

        (1) They are prudently incurred before January 1, 2025.97722

        (2) They are related to real property that, at the time 97723
recovery is authorized, is or was used for the provision of public 97724
utility service.97725

        (B) Recovery under division (A) of this section may be 97726
provided for through the establishment of a mechanism by the 97727
commission. Any such mechanism shall set forth the specific terms 97728
of the recovery. The mechanism shall cause recovery to occur 97729
through a uniform percentage applied to base distribution revenue.97730

        (C) If the commission authorizes recovery under this section, 97731
the company, upon the sale of the property described in division 97732
(A)(2) of this section, shall return to the company's customers 97733
the difference between the sale price of the property, minus any 97734
reasonable expenses related to the sale, and the fair market value 97735
of the property prior to remediation.97736

        (D) Divisions (A)(1) and (4) of section 4909.15 of the 97737
Revised Code do not preclude the recovery of environmental 97738
remediation costs as described in this section.97739

       Sec. 4955.32.  (A) Every company shall attach to each 97740
locomotive engine passing upon its railroad a bell of the ordinary 97741
size in use on such engines and a steam or compressed air whistle97742
As used in this section, "lite locomotive consist" means a consist 97743
of locomotives not attached to any piece of equipment or attached 97744
only to a caboose. 97745

       (B) When an enginethe locomotive in motion andthe lead of a 97746
train, when a lite locomotive consist, or when an individual 97747
locomotive is approaching a turnpike,public highway, or street 97748
crossing or privatea grade crossing where the view of such 97749
crossing is obstructed by embankment, trees, curve, or other 97750
obstruction to view, upon the same line with the crossing, and in 97751
like manner where the railroad crosses any other traveled place, 97752
by bridge or otherwise, either of the following shall occur:97753

       (1) The engineer or person in charge of such enginethe 97754
locomotive shall sound such whistle at a distance of at least 97755
eighty and not further than one hundred rods from such crossing 97756
and ring such bell continuously until the engine passes the 97757
crossingthe locomotive horn in accordance with 49 C.F.R. part 97758
222;97759

       (2) An alternative audible warning system approved by the 97760
public utilities commission under section 4955.321 of the Revised 97761
Code shall be activated in accordance with guidelines established 97762
by the public utilities commission.97763

       (C) This section shall not interfere with the proper 97764
observance of an ordinance passed by the legislative authority of 97765
a municipal corporation regulating the management of railroads, 97766
locomotives, and steam whistles on locomotives, within the limits 97767
of such municipal corporation.97768

       (D) The establishment of an alternative audible warning 97769
system does not preclude the sounding of a whistlelocomotive horn97770
by an engineer or other person in charge of an enginea locomotive97771
in an emergency situation, as determined by the sole judgment of 97772
the engineer or other person.97773

       Sec. 4955.321.  The public utilities commission may evaluate 97774
alternative systems for providing an audible warning of an 97775
approaching locomotive engine. The commission may approve the use 97776
of an audible warning system as an alternative to the whistle and 97777
bellhorn sounding required under division (B)(1) of section 97778
4955.32 of the Revised Code only if it determines that the 97779
alternative audible warning system complies with applicable 97780
federal requirements for an audible warning of an approaching 97781
train and only if train-activated warning devices also are present 97782
at any public highway or grade crossing at which the alternative 97783
audible warning system is installed. The commission shall 97784
establish guidelines for the use and operation of any alternative 97785
audible warning system it approves.97786

       Sec. 4955.322.  The sounding of a locomotive horn at a 97787
private crossing or the failure to sound a locomotive horn at a 97788
private crossing is not a basis for a civil action against the 97789
railroad company that operated the locomotive, a board of county 97790
commissioners, or any local authority, or against the employees or 97791
agents of the company, board, or authority.97792

       Sec. 4955.34.  Every engineer or person in charge of an 97793
enginea locomotive who fails to comply with section 4955.32 of 97794
the Revised Code is personally liable to a penalty of not less 97795
than fifty nor more than one hundred dollars, to be recovered by 97796
civil action at the suit of the state in the court of common pleas 97797
of a county in which the public highway or grade crossing is 97798
located.97799

       The company in whose employ such engineer or person in charge 97800
of an enginea locomotive is, as well as the engineer or person 97801
himselfin charge, is liable in damages to a person or company 97802
injured in person or property by such neglect or act of such 97803
engineer or person in charge.97804

       Sec. 4955.44.  (A) On and after the date of first operation 97805
of a railroad quiet zone established pursuant to section 4955.42 97806
of the Revised Code, divisions (B)(1) and (2) of section 4955.32 97807
and division (A)(2) of section 4999.04 of the Revised Code do not 97808
apply with respect to a public or private grade crossing included 97809
in the zone.97810

       (B) The establishment of a railroad quiet zone pursuant to 97811
sections 4955.41 to 4955.47 of the Revised Code does not preclude 97812
the sounding of a locomotive whistle, horn, bell, or other audible 97813
device by an engineer or other person in charge of the locomotive 97814
to address a perceived potential for injury, death, or loss to 97815
person or property, as determined by the sole judgment of the 97816
engineer or other person.97817

       (C) The commission may suspend summarily the operation of a 97818
quiet zone established pursuant to section 4955.42 of the Revised 97819
Code if the commission, through any source, obtains sufficient, 97820
credible evidence showing that a condition at a public grade 97821
crossing located within a quiet zone has changed to such an extent 97822
that, even with the continuing existence of the supplemental 97823
safety measures at the crossing, the quiet zone no longer 97824
qualifies as such under federal law or the commission determines 97825
that public safety is otherwise compromised at the crossing. 97826
Within fifteen days following the quiet zone suspension date 97827
described in this division, the commission shall hold a hearing in 97828
the general vicinity of the quiet zone in question to determine 97829
whether the quiet zone suspension should be lifted or continued, 97830
or whether commission approval of the quiet zone should be 97831
rescinded and the quiet zone eliminated.97832

       Sec. 4955.47. No railroad company and no employee or agent of 97833
the company shall be charged, or is liable in damages to person or 97834
property, for any failure to sound an audible warning by whistle, 97835
horn, bell, or other audible warning device at a public or private97836
railroad grade crossing to which any of the following apply:97837

       (A) The crossing is equipped in accordance with division 97838
(B)(2) of section 4955.32 of the Revised Code or.97839

       (B) The crossing is located in a railroad quiet zone 97840
established pursuant to section 4955.42 of the Revised Code or.97841

       (C) The crossing is located in a jurisdiction in which such 97842
sounding is restricted or prohibited by law.97843

       Sec. 4999.04.  (A) No person in charge of a locomotive shall 97844
do the following:97845

       (1) Failfail to bring the locomotive to a full stop at least 97846
two hundred feet before arriving at a crossing with another track, 97847
or proceed through the crossing before signaled to do so or before 97848
the way is clear;97849

       (2) When approaching a grade crossing, fail to sound the 97850
locomotive whistle at frequent intervals, beginning not less than 97851
thirteen hundred twenty feet from such crossing and continuing 97852
until the locomotive has passed the crossing.97853

       (B)(1) Whoever violates this section or fails to comply with 97854
division (B)(1) of section 4955.32 of the Revised Code is guilty 97855
of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If the violation of this 97856
sectionor failure to comply causes physical harm to any person, 97857
whoever violates this section or fails to comply with division 97858
(B)(1) of section 4955.32 of the Revised Code is guilty of a 97859
misdemeanor of the third degree.97860

       (2) With respect to a charge of violating division (B)(1) of 97861
this section for a failure to comply with division (B)(1) of 97862
section 4955.32 of the Revised Code, it is an affirmative defense 97863
that an alternative audible warning system described in division 97864
(B)(2) of that section was activated.97865

       Sec. 5101.01. (A) As used in the Revised Code, the 97866
"department of public welfare" and the "department of human 97867
services" mean the department of job and family services and the 97868
"director of public welfare" and the "director of human services" 97869
mean the director of job and family services. WheneverExcept as 97870
provided in section 5160.011 of the Revised Code, whenever the 97871
department or director of public welfare or the department or 97872
director of human services is referred to or designated in any 97873
statute, rule, contract, grant, or other document, the reference 97874
or designation shall be deemed to refer to the department or 97875
director of job and family services, as the case may be.97876

       (B) As used in this chapter:97877

        (1) References to a county department of job and family 97878
services include a joint county department of job and family 97879
services established under section 329.40 of the Revised Code.97880

        (2) References to a board of county commissioners include the 97881
board of directors of a joint county department of job and family 97882
services established under section 329.40 of the Revised Code.97883

       Sec. 5101.101.  (A) This section establishes the order of 97884
priority to be followed by the department of job and family 97885
services when distributing funds for the purpose of providing 97886
family planning services, including funds the department receives 97887
through Title XX of the "Social Security Act," 88 Stat. 2337 97888
(1974), 42 U.S.C. 1397, as amended, and funds the department 97889
receives through Title IV-A of the "Social Security Act," 110 97890
Stat. 2113 (1996), 42 U.S.C. 601, as amended, to be used for 97891
purposes of providing Title XX social services. This section does 97892
not apply to payments made under the medicaid program.97893

       (B) With respect to each period during which funds from a 97894
particular source are distributed for the purpose of providing 97895
family planning services, the department is subject to both of the 97896
following when distributing the funds to applicants seeking those 97897
funds:97898

       (1) Foremost priority shall be given to public entities that 97899
are operated by state or local government entities and that 97900
provide or are able to provide family planning services.97901

       (2) If any funds remain after the department distributes 97902
funds to public entities under division (B)(1) of this section, 97903
the department may distribute funds to nonpublic entities. If 97904
funds are distributed to nonpublic entities, the department shall 97905
distribute the funds in the following order of descending 97906
priority:97907

       (a) Nonpublic entities that are federally qualified health 97908
centers or federally qualified health center look-alikes, both as 97909
defined in section 3701.047 of the Revised Code, or community 97910
action agencies, as defined in section 122.66 of the Revised Code;97911

       (b) Nonpublic entities that provide comprehensive primary and 97912
preventive care services in addition to family planning services;97913

       (c) Nonpublic entities that provide family planning services, 97914
but do not provide comprehensive primary and preventive care 97915
services.97916

       Sec. 5101.11. This section does not apply to contracts 97917
entered into under section 5111.90 or 5111.91 of the Revised Code.97918

       (A) As used in this section:97919

       (1) "Entity" includes an agency, board, commission, or 97920
department of the state or a political subdivision of the state; a 97921
private, nonprofit entity; a school district; a private school; or 97922
a public or private institution of higher education.97923

       (2) "Federal financial participation" means the federal 97924
government's share of expenditures made by an entity in 97925
implementing a program administered by the department of job and 97926
family services.97927

       (B) At the request of any public entity having authority to 97928
implement a program administered by the department of job and 97929
family services or any private entity under contract with a public 97930
entity to implement a program administered by the department, the 97931
department may seek to obtain federal financial participation for 97932
costs incurred by the entity. Federal financial participation may 97933
be sought from programs operated pursuant to Title IV-A,of the 97934
"Social Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 601 et seq.; Title IV-E, and 97935
Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 97936
U.S.C. 301, as amended670 et seq.; the Food and Nutrition Act of 97937
2008 (,7 U.S.C. 2011 et seq.); and any other statute or regulation 97938
under which federal financial participation may be available, 97939
except that federal financial participation may be sought only for 97940
expenditures made with funds for which federal financial 97941
participation is available under federal law.97942

       (C) All funds collected by the department of job and family 97943
services pursuant to division (B) of this section shall be 97944
distributed to the entities that incurred the costs, except for 97945
any amounts retained by the department pursuant to division (D)(3) 97946
of this section.97947

       (D) In distributing federal financial participation pursuant 97948
to this section, the department may either enter into an agreement 97949
with the entity that is to receive the funds or distribute the 97950
funds in accordance with rules adopted under division (F) of this 97951
section. If the department decides to enter into an agreement to 97952
distribute the funds, the agreement may include terms that do any 97953
of the following:97954

       (1) Provide for the whole or partial reimbursement of any 97955
cost incurred by the entity in implementing the program;97956

       (2) In the event that federal financial participation is 97957
disallowed or otherwise unavailable for any expenditure, require 97958
the department of job and family services or the entity, whichever 97959
party caused the disallowance or unavailability of federal 97960
financial participation, to assume responsibility for the 97961
expenditures;97962

       (3) Permit the department to retain not more than five per 97963
cent of the amount of the federal financial participation to be 97964
distributed to the entity;97965

       (4) Require the public entity to certify the availability of 97966
sufficient unencumbered funds to match the federal financial 97967
participation it receives under this section;97968

       (5) Establish the length of the agreement, which may be for a 97969
fixed or a continuing period of time;97970

       (6) Establish any other requirements determined by the 97971
department to be necessary for the efficient administration of the 97972
agreement.97973

       (E) An entity that receives federal financial participation 97974
pursuant to this section for a program aiding children and their 97975
families shall establish a process for collaborative planning with 97976
the department of job and family services for the use of the funds 97977
to improve and expand the program.97978

       (F) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 97979
as necessary to implement this section, including rules for the 97980
distribution of federal financial participation pursuant to this 97981
section. The rules shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 97982
119. of the Revised Code. The director may adopt or amend any 97983
statewide plan required by the federal government for a program 97984
administered by the department, as necessary to implement this 97985
section.97986

       (G) Federal financial participation received pursuant to this 97987
section shall not be included in any calculation made under 97988
section 5101.16 or 5101.161 of the Revised Code.97989

       Sec. 5101.141.  (A) As used in sections 5101.141 to 5101.1410 97990
of the Revised Code, "Title IV-E" means Title IV-E of the "Social 97991
Security Act," 94 Stat. 501, 42 U.S.C. 670 (1980), as amended.97992

       (B) The department of job and family services shall act as 97993
the single state agency to administer federal payments for foster 97994
care and adoption assistance made pursuant to Title IV-E. The 97995
director of job and family services shall adopt rules to implement 97996
this authority. Rules governing financial and administrative 97997
requirements applicable to public children services agencies and 97998
government entities that provide Title IV-E reimbursable placement 97999
services to children shall be adopted in accordance with section 98000
111.15 of the Revised Code, as if they were internal management 98001
rules. Rules governing requirements applicable to private child 98002
placing agencies and private noncustodial agencies and rules 98003
establishing eligibility, program participation, and other 98004
requirements concerning Title IV-E shall be adopted in accordance 98005
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. A public children services 98006
agency to which the department distributes Title IV-E funds shall 98007
administer the funds in accordance with those rules.98008

       (C)(1) The county, on behalf of each child eligible for 98009
foster care maintenance payments under Title IV-E, shall make 98010
payments to cover the cost of providing all of the following:98011

       (a) The child's food, clothing, shelter, daily supervision, 98012
and school supplies;98013

       (b) The child's personal incidentals;98014

       (c) Reasonable travel to the child's home for visitation.98015

       (2) In addition to payments made under division (C)(1) of 98016
this section, the county may, on behalf of each child eligible for 98017
foster care maintenance payments under Title IV-E, make payments 98018
to cover the cost of providing the following:98019

       (a) Liability insurance with respect to the child;98020

       (b) If the county is participating in the demonstration 98021
project established under division (A) of section 5101.142 of the 98022
Revised Code, services provided under the project.98023

       (3) With respect to a child who is in a child-care 98024
institution, including any type of group home designed for the 98025
care of children or any privately operated program consisting of 98026
two or more certified foster homes operated by a common 98027
administrative unit, the foster care maintenance payments made by 98028
the county on behalf of the child shall include the reasonable 98029
cost of the administration and operation of the institution, group 98030
home, or program, as necessary to provide the items described in 98031
divisions (C)(1) and (2) of this section.98032

       (D) To the extent that either foster care maintenance 98033
payments under division (C) of this section or Title IV-E adoption 98034
assistance payments for maintenance costs require the expenditure 98035
of county funds, the board of county commissioners shall report 98036
the nature and amount of each expenditure of county funds to the 98037
department.98038

       (E) The department shall distribute to public children 98039
services agencies that incur and report expenditures of the type 98040
described in division (D) of this section federal financial 98041
participation received for administrative and training costs 98042
incurred in the operation of foster care maintenance and adoption 98043
assistance programs. The department may withhold not more than 98044
three per cent of the federal financial participation received. 98045
The funds withheld may be used only to fund the following:98046

       (1) The Ohio child welfare training program established under 98047
section 5103.30 of the Revised Code;98048

       (2) The university partnership program for college and 98049
university students majoring in social work who have committed to 98050
work for a public children services agency upon graduation;98051

       (3) Efforts supporting organizational excellence, including 98052
voluntary activities to be accredited by a nationally recognized 98053
accreditation organization.98054

       The funds withheld shall be in addition to any administration 98055
and training cost for which the department is reimbursed through 98056
its own cost allocation plan.98057

       (F) All federal financial participation funds received by a 98058
county pursuant to this section shall be deposited into the 98059
county's children services fund created pursuant to section 98060
5101.144 of the Revised Code.98061

       (G) The department shall periodically publish and distribute 98062
the maximum amounts that the department will reimburse public 98063
children services agencies for making payments on behalf of 98064
children eligible for foster care maintenance payments.98065

       (H) The department, by and through its director, is hereby 98066
authorized to develop, participate in the development of, 98067
negotiate, and enter into one or more interstate compacts on 98068
behalf of this state with agencies of any other states, for the 98069
provision of medical assistance and other social services to 98070
children in relation to whom all of the following apply:98071

       (1) They have special needs.98072

       (2) This state or another state that is a party to the 98073
interstate compact is providing adoption assistance on their 98074
behalf.98075

       (3) They move into this state from another state or move out 98076
of this state to another state.98077

       Sec. 5101.16.  (A) As used in this section and sections 98078
5101.161 and 5101.162 of the Revised Code:98079

       (1) "Disability financial assistance" means the financial 98080
assistance program established under Chapter 5115. of the Revised 98081
Code.98082

       (2) "Supplemental nutrition assistance program" means the 98083
program administered by the department of job and family services 98084
pursuant to section 5101.54 of the Revised Code.98085

       (3) "Medicaid" means the medical assistance program 98086
established by Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code, excluding 98087
transportation services provided under that chapter.98088

       (4) "Ohio works first" means the program established by 98089
Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code.98090

       (5)(4) "Prevention, retention, and contingency" means the 98091
program established by Chapter 5108. of the Revised Code.98092

       (6)(5) "Public assistance expenditures" means expenditures 98093
for all of the following:98094

       (a) Ohio works first;98095

       (b) County administration of Ohio works first;98096

       (c) Prevention, retention, and contingency;98097

       (d) County administration of prevention, retention, and 98098
contingency;98099

       (e) Disability financial assistance;98100

       (f) County administration of disability financial assistance;98101

       (g) County administration of the supplemental nutrition 98102
assistance program;98103

       (h) County administration of medicaid, excluding 98104
administrative expenditures for transportation services covered by 98105
the medicaid program.98106

       (7) "Title IV-A program" has the same meaning as in section 98107
5101.80 of the Revised Code.98108

       (B) Each board of county commissioners shall pay the county 98109
share of public assistance expenditures in accordance with section 98110
5101.161 of the Revised Code. Except as provided in division (C) 98111
of this section, a county's share of public assistance 98112
expenditures is the sum of all of the following for state fiscal 98113
year 1998 and each state fiscal year thereafter:98114

       (1) The amount that is twenty-five per cent of the county's 98115
total expenditures for disability financial assistance and county 98116
administration of that program during the state fiscal year ending 98117
in the previous calendar year that the department of job and 98118
family services determines are allowable.98119

       (2) The amount that is ten per cent, or other percentage 98120
determined under division (D) of this section, of the county's 98121
total expenditures for county administration of the supplemental 98122
nutrition assistance program and medicaid (excluding 98123
administrative expenditures for transportation services covered by 98124
the medicaid program) during the state fiscal year ending in the 98125
previous calendar year that the department determines are 98126
allowable, less the amount of federal reimbursement credited to 98127
the county under division (E) of this section for the state fiscal 98128
year ending in the previous calendar year;98129

       (3) A percentage of the actual amount of the county share of 98130
program and administrative expenditures during federal fiscal year 98131
1994 for assistance and services, other than child care, provided 98132
under Titles IV-A and IV-F of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 98133
620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as those titles existed prior to the 98134
enactment of the "Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity 98135
Reconciliation Act of 1996," 110 Stat. 2105. The department of job 98136
and family services shall determine the actual amount of the 98137
county share from expenditure reports submitted to the United 98138
States department of health and human services. The percentage 98139
shall be the percentage established in rules adopted under 98140
division (F) of this section.98141

       (C)(1) If a county's share of public assistance expenditures 98142
determined under division (B) of this section for a state fiscal 98143
year exceeds one hundred five per cent of the county's share for 98144
those expenditures for the immediately preceding state fiscal 98145
year, the department of job and family services shall reduce the 98146
county's share for expenditures under divisions (B)(1) and (2) of 98147
this section so that the total of the county's share for 98148
expenditures under division (B) of this section equals one hundred 98149
five per cent of the county's share of those expenditures for the 98150
immediately preceding state fiscal year.98151

       (2) A county's share of public assistance expenditures 98152
determined under division (B) of this section may be increased 98153
pursuant to section 5101.163 of the Revised Code and a sanction 98154
under section 5101.24 of the Revised Code. An increase made 98155
pursuant to section 5101.163 of the Revised Code may cause the 98156
county's share to exceed the limit established by division (C)(1) 98157
of this section.98158

       (D)(1) If the per capita tax duplicate of a county is less 98159
than the per capita tax duplicate of the state as a whole and 98160
division (D)(2) of this section does not apply to the county, the 98161
percentage to be used for the purpose of division (B)(2) of this 98162
section is the product of ten multiplied by a fraction of which 98163
the numerator is the per capita tax duplicate of the county and 98164
the denominator is the per capita tax duplicate of the state as a 98165
whole. The department of job and family services shall compute the 98166
per capita tax duplicate for the state and for each county by 98167
dividing the tax duplicate for the most recent available year by 98168
the current estimate of population prepared by the department of98169
development services agency.98170

       (2) If the percentage of families in a county with an annual 98171
income of less than three thousand dollars is greater than the 98172
percentage of such families in the state and division (D)(1) of 98173
this section does not apply to the county, the percentage to be 98174
used for the purpose of division (B)(2) of this section is the 98175
product of ten multiplied by a fraction of which the numerator is 98176
the percentage of families in the state with an annual income of 98177
less than three thousand dollars a year and the denominator is the 98178
percentage of such families in the county. The department of job 98179
and family services shall compute the percentage of families with 98180
an annual income of less than three thousand dollars for the state 98181
and for each county by multiplying the most recent estimate of 98182
such families published by the department of development services 98183
agency, by a fraction, the numerator of which is the estimate of 98184
average annual personal income published by the bureau of economic 98185
analysis of the United States department of commerce for the year 98186
on which the census estimate is based and the denominator of which 98187
is the most recent such estimate published by the bureau.98188

       (3) If the per capita tax duplicate of a county is less than 98189
the per capita tax duplicate of the state as a whole and the 98190
percentage of families in the county with an annual income of less 98191
than three thousand dollars is greater than the percentage of such 98192
families in the state, the percentage to be used for the purpose 98193
of division (B)(2) of this section shall be determined as follows:98194

       (a) Multiply ten by the fraction determined under division 98195
(D)(1) of this section;98196

       (b) Multiply the product determined under division (D)(3)(a) 98197
of this section by the fraction determined under division (D)(2) 98198
of this section.98199

       (4) The department of job and family services shall 98200
determine, for each county, the percentage to be used for the 98201
purpose of division (B)(2) of this section not later than the 98202
first day of July of the year preceding the state fiscal year for 98203
which the percentage is used.98204

       (E) The department of job and family services shall credit to 98205
a county the amount of federal reimbursement the department 98206
receives from the United States departments of agriculture and 98207
health and human services for the county's expenditures for 98208
administration of the supplemental nutrition assistance program 98209
and medicaid (excluding administrative expenditures for 98210
transportation services covered by the medicaid program) that the 98211
department determines are allowable administrative expenditures.98212

       (F)(1) The director of job and family services shall adopt 98213
rules in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code to 98214
establish all of the following:98215

       (a) The method the department is to use to change a county's 98216
share of public assistance expenditures determined under division 98217
(B) of this section as provided in division (C) of this section;98218

       (b) The allocation methodology and formula the department 98219
will use to determine the amount of funds to credit to a county 98220
under this section;98221

       (c) The method the department will use to change the payment 98222
of the county share of public assistance expenditures from a 98223
calendar-year basis to a state fiscal year basis;98224

       (d) The percentage to be used for the purpose of division 98225
(B)(3) of this section, which shall, except as provided in section 98226
5101.163 of the Revised Code, meet both of the following 98227
requirements:98228

       (i) The percentage shall not be less than seventy-five per 98229
cent nor more than eighty-two per cent;98230

       (ii) The percentage shall not exceed the percentage that the 98231
state's qualified state expenditures is of the state's historic 98232
state expenditures as those terms are defined in 42 U.S.C. 98233
609(a)(7).98234

       (e) Other procedures and requirements necessary to implement 98235
this section.98236

       (2) The director of job and family services may amend the 98237
rule adopted under division (F)(1)(d) of this section to modify 98238
the percentage on determination that the amount the general 98239
assembly appropriates for Title IV-A programs makes the 98240
modification necessary. The rule shall be adopted and amended as 98241
if an internal management rule and in consultation with the 98242
director of budget and management.98243

       Sec. 5101.162.  Subject to available federal funds and 98244
appropriations made by the general assembly, the department of job 98245
and family services may, at its sole discretion, use available 98246
federal funds to reimburse county expenditures for county 98247
administration of the supplemental nutrition assistance program or 98248
medicaid (excluding administrative expenditures for transportation 98249
services covered by the medicaid program) even though the county 98250
expenditures meet or exceed the maximum allowable reimbursement 98251
amount established by rules adopted under section 5101.161 of the 98252
Revised Code. The director of job and family services may adopt 98253
internal management rules in accordance with section 111.15 of the 98254
Revised Code to implement this section.98255

       Sec. 5101.18. (A) When the director of job and family 98256
services adopts rules under section 5107.05 regarding income 98257
requirements for the Ohio works first program and under section 98258
5115.03 of the Revised Code regarding income and resource 98259
requirements for the disability financial assistance program, the 98260
director shall determine what payments shall be regarded or 98261
disregarded. In making this determination, the director shall 98262
consider:98263

       (1)(A) The source of the payment;98264

       (2)(B) The amount of the payment;98265

       (3)(C) The purpose for which the payment was made;98266

       (4)(D) Whether regarding the payment as income would be in 98267
the public interest;98268

       (5)(E) Whether treating the payment as income would be 98269
detrimental to any of the programs administered in whole or in 98270
part by the department of job and family services and whether such 98271
determination would jeopardize the receipt of any federal grant or 98272
payment by the state or any receipt of aid under Chapter 5107. of 98273
the Revised Code.98274

       (B) Any recipient of aid under Title XVI of the "Social 98275
Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, 98276
whose money payment is discontinued as the result of a general 98277
increase in old-age, survivors, and disability insurance benefits 98278
under such act, shall remain a recipient for the purpose of 98279
receiving medical assistance through the medical assistance 98280
program established under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code.98281

       Sec. 5101.181.  (A) As used in this section and section 98282
5101.182 of the Revised Code:98283

       (1) "Public, "public assistance" means any or all of the 98284
following:98285

       (a)(1) Ohio works first;98286

       (b)(2) Prevention, retention, and contingency; 98287

       (c)(3) Disability financial assistance;98288

       (d)(4) General assistance provided prior to July 17, 1995, 98289
under former Chapter 5113. of the Revised Code.98290

       (2) "Medical assistance" means medical assistance provided 98291
pursuant to, or under programs established by, section 5101.49, 98292
sections 5101.50 to 5101.529, Chapter 5111., or any other 98293
provision of the Revised Code.98294

       (B) As part of the procedure for the determination of 98295
overpayment to a recipient of public assistance under Chapter 98296
5107., 5108., or 5115. of the Revised Code, the director of job 98297
and family services may furnish quarterly the name and social 98298
security number of each individual who receives public assistance 98299
to the director of administrative services, the administrator of 98300
the bureau of workers' compensation, and each of the state's 98301
retirement boards. Within fourteen days after receiving the name 98302
and social security number of an individual who receives public 98303
assistance, the director of administrative services, 98304
administrator, or board shall inform the auditor of state as to 98305
whether such individual is receiving wages or benefits, the amount 98306
of any wages or benefits being received, the social security 98307
number, and the address of the individual. The director of 98308
administrative services, administrator, boards, and any agent or 98309
employee of those officials and boards shall comply with the rules 98310
of the director of job and family services restricting the 98311
disclosure of information regarding recipients of public 98312
assistance. Any person who violates this provision shall 98313
thereafter be disqualified from acting as an agent or employee or 98314
in any other capacity under appointment or employment of any state 98315
board, commission, or agency.98316

       (C) The auditor of state may enter into a reciprocal 98317
agreement with the director of job and family services or 98318
comparable officer of any other state for the exchange of names, 98319
current or most recent addresses, or social security numbers of 98320
persons receiving public assistance under Title IV-A of the 98321
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as 98322
amended601 et seq.98323

       (D) The auditor of state shall retain, for not less than two 98324
years, at least one copy of all information received under this 98325
section and sections 145.27, 742.41, 3307.20, 3309.22, 4123.27, 98326
5101.182, and 5505.04 of the Revised Code. 98327

        (E) On the request of the director of job and family 98328
services, the auditor of state may conduct an audit of an 98329
individual who receives medical assistance. If the auditor decides 98330
to conduct an audit, the auditor shall enter into an interagency 98331
agreement with the department of job and family services that 98332
specifies that the auditor agrees to comply with section 5101.271 98333
of the Revised Code with respect to any information the auditor 98334
receives pursuant to the audit.98335

       (F) The auditor shall review the information described in 98336
division (D) of this section to determine whether overpayments 98337
were made to recipients of public assistance under Chapters 5107., 98338
5108., and 5115. of the Revised Code. The auditor of state shall 98339
initiate action leading to prosecution, where warranted, of 98340
recipients who received overpayments by forwarding the name of 98341
each recipient who received overpayment, together with other 98342
pertinent information, to the director of job and family services, 98343
the attorney general, and the county director of job and family 98344
services and county prosecutor of the county through which public 98345
assistance was received.98346

       (G)(F) The auditor of state and the attorney general or their 98347
designees may examine any records, whether in computer or printed 98348
format, in the possession of the director of job and family 98349
services or any county director of job and family services. They 98350
shall provide safeguards which restrict access to such records to 98351
purposes directly connected with an audit or investigation, 98352
prosecution, or criminal or civil proceeding conducted in 98353
connection with the administration of the programs and shall 98354
comply with sectionssection 5101.27 and 5101.271 of the Revised 98355
Code and adopts rules ofadopted by the director of job and family 98356
services restricting the disclosure of information regarding 98357
recipients of public assistance or medical assistance. Any person 98358
who violates this provision shall thereafter be disqualified from 98359
acting as an agent or employee or in any other capacity under 98360
appointment or employment of any state board, commission, or 98361
agency.98362

       (H)(G) Costs incurred by the auditor of state in carrying out 98363
the auditor of state's duties under this section shall be borne by 98364
the auditor of state.98365

       Sec. 5101.183.  (A) Except as provided in section 5111.12 of 98366
the Revised Code, theThe director of job and family services, in 98367
accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code, may adopt 98368
rules under which county family services agencies shall take 98369
action to recover the cost of the following benefits and services 98370
available under programs administered by the department of job and 98371
family services:98372

       (1) Benefits or services provided to any of the following:98373

       (a) Persons who were not eligible for the benefits or 98374
services but who secured the benefits or services through fraud or 98375
misrepresentation;98376

       (b) Persons who were eligible for the benefits or services 98377
but who intentionally diverted the benefits or services to other 98378
persons who were not eligible for the benefits or services.98379

       (2) Any benefits or services provided by a county family 98380
services agency for which recovery is required or permitted by 98381
federal law for the federal programs administered by the agency.98382

       (B) A county family services agency may bring a civil action 98383
against a recipient of benefits or services to recover any costs 98384
described in division (A) of this section.98385

       (C) A county family services agency shall retain any money it 98386
recovers under division (A) of this section and shall use the 98387
money to meet a family services duty, except that, if federal law 98388
requires the department of job and family services to return any 98389
portion of the money so recovered to the federal government, the 98390
county family services agency shall pay that portion to the 98391
department of job and family services.98392

       Sec. 5101.184.  (A) The director of job and family services 98393
shall work with the tax commissioner to collect overpayments of 98394
assistance under Chapter 5107., 5111., or 5115., former Chapter 98395
5113., or section 5101.54 of the Revised Code from refunds of 98396
state income taxes for taxable year 1992 and thereafter that are 98397
payable to the recipients of such overpayments.98398

       Any overpayment of assistance, whether obtained by fraud or 98399
misrepresentation, as the result of an error by the recipient or 98400
by the agency making the payment, or in any other manner, may be 98401
collected under this section. Any reduction under section 5747.12 98402
or 5747.121 of the Revised Code to an income tax refund shall be 98403
made before a reduction under this section. No reduction shall be 98404
made under this section if the amount of the refund is less than 98405
twenty-five dollars after any reduction under section 5747.12 of 98406
the Revised Code. A reduction under this section shall be made 98407
before any part of the refund is contributed under section 98408
5747.113 of the Revised Code, or is credited under section 5747.12 98409
of the Revised Code against tax due in any subsequent year.98410

       The director and the tax commissioner, by rules adopted in 98411
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall establish 98412
procedures to implement this division. The procedures shall 98413
provide for notice to a recipient of assistance and an opportunity 98414
for the recipient to be heard before the recipient's income tax 98415
refund is reduced.98416

       (B) The director of job and family services may enter into 98417
agreements with the federal government to collect overpayments of 98418
assistance from refunds of federal income taxes that are payable 98419
to recipients of the overpayments.98420

       Sec. 5101.26.  As used in this section and in sections 98421
5101.27 to 5101.30 of the Revised Code:98422

       (A) "County agency" means a county department of job and 98423
family services or a public children services agency.98424

       (B) "Fugitive felon" means an individual who is fleeing to 98425
avoid prosecution, or custody or confinement after conviction, 98426
under the laws of the place from which the individual is fleeing, 98427
for a crime or an attempt to commit a crime that is a felony under 98428
the laws of the place from which the individual is fleeing or, in 98429
the case of New Jersey, a high misdemeanor, regardless of whether 98430
the individual has departed from the individual's usual place of 98431
residence.98432

       (C) "Information" means records as defined in section 149.011 98433
of the Revised Code, any other documents in any format, and data 98434
derived from records and documents that are generated, acquired, 98435
or maintained by the department of job and family services, a 98436
county agency, or an entity performing duties on behalf of the 98437
department or a county agency.98438

       (D) "Law enforcement agency" means the state highway patrol, 98439
an agency that employs peace officers as defined in section 109.71 98440
of the Revised Code, the adult parole authority, a county 98441
department of probation, a prosecuting attorney, the attorney 98442
general, similar agencies of other states, federal law enforcement 98443
agencies, and postal inspectors. "Law enforcement agency" includes 98444
the peace officers and other law enforcement officers employed by 98445
the agency.98446

       (E) "Medical assistance" means medical assistance provided 98447
pursuant to, or under programs established by, section 5101.49, 98448
sections 5101.50 to 5101.529, Chapter 5111., or any other 98449
provision of the Revised Code.98450

        (F) "Medical assistance recipient" means an applicant for or 98451
recipient or former recipient of medical assistance.98452

       (G) "Public assistance" means financial assistance or social 98453
services that are not medical assistance provided under a program 98454
administered by the department of job and family services or a 98455
county agency pursuant to Chapter 329., 5101., 5104., 5107., 98456
5108., or 5115. of the Revised Code or an executive order issued 98457
under section 107.17 of the Revised Code. "Public assistance" does 98458
not mean medical assistance provided under a medical assistance 98459
program, as defined in section 5160.01 of the Revised Code.98460

       (H)(F) "Public assistance recipient" means an applicant for 98461
or recipient or former recipient of public assistance.98462

       Sec. 5101.272. (A) For the purposes of sectionssection98463
5101.27 and 5101.271 of the Revised Code, an authorization shall 98464
be made on a form that uses language understandable to the average 98465
person and contains all of the following:98466

       (1) A description of the information to be used or disclosed 98467
that identifies the information in a specific and meaningful 98468
fashion;98469

       (2) The name or other specific identification of the person 98470
or class of persons authorized to make the requested use or 98471
disclosure;98472

       (3) The name or other specific identification of the person 98473
or governmental entity to which the information may be released;98474

       (4) A description of each purpose of the requested use or 98475
disclosure of the information;98476

       (5) The date on which the authorization expires or an event 98477
related either to the individual who is the subject of the request 98478
or to the purposes of the requested use or disclosure, the 98479
occurrence of which will cause the authorization to expire;98480

       (6) A statement that the information used or disclosed 98481
pursuant to the authorization may be disclosed by the recipient of 98482
the information and may no longer be protected from disclosure;98483

       (7) The signature of the individual or the individual's 98484
authorized representative and the date on which the authorization 98485
was signed;98486

       (8) If signed by an authorized representative, a description 98487
of the representative's authority to act for the individual;98488

       (9) A statement of the individual or authorized 98489
representative's right to prospectively revoke the written 98490
authorization in writing, along with one of the following:98491

       (a) A description of how the individual or authorized 98492
representative may revoke the authorization;98493

       (b) If the department of job and family services' privacy 98494
notice contains a description of how the individual or authorized 98495
representative may revoke the authorization, a reference to that 98496
privacy notice.98497

       (10) A statement that treatment, payment, enrollment, or 98498
eligibility for public assistance or medical assistance cannot be 98499
conditioned on signing the authorization unless the authorization 98500
is necessary for determining eligibility for the public assistance 98501
or medical assistance program.98502

       (B) An authorization for the release of information regarding 98503
a medical assistance recipient to the recipient's attorney under 98504
division (C)(3) of section 5101.271 of the Revised Code may 98505
include a provision specifically authorizing the release of the 98506
recipient's electronic health records, if any, in accordance with 98507
rules the director of job and family services adopts under section 98508
5101.30 of the Revised Code.98509

       (C) When an individual requests information pursuant to 98510
section 5101.27 or 5101.271 of the Revised Code regarding the 98511
individual's receipt of public assistance or medical assistance98512
and does not wish to provide a statement of purpose, the statement 98513
"at request of the individual" is a sufficient description for 98514
purposes of division (A)(4) of this section.98515

       Sec. 5101.273.  The department of job and family services 98516
shall enter into any necessary agreements with the United States 98517
department of health and human services and neighboring states to 98518
join and participate as an active member in the public assistance 98519
reporting information system. The department may disclose 98520
information regarding a public assistance recipient or medical 98521
assistance recipient to the extent necessary to participate as an 98522
active member in the public assistance reporting information 98523
system.98524

       Sec. 5101.30.  (A) The director of job and family services 98525
shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 98526
Code implementing sections 5101.26 to 5101.30 of the Revised Code 98527
and governing the custody, use, disclosure, and preservation of 98528
the information generated or received by the department of job and 98529
family services, county agencies, other state and county entities, 98530
contractors, grantees, private entities, or officials 98531
participating in the administration of public assistance or 98532
medical assistance programs. The rules shall comply with 98533
applicable federal statutes and regulations. 98534

       (1) The rules shall specify conditions and procedures for the 98535
release of information which may include, among other conditions 98536
and procedures, both of the following:98537

        (a) Permitting providers of services or assistance under 98538
public assistance programs limited access to information that is 98539
essential for the providers to render services or assistance or to 98540
bill for services or assistance rendered. The department of aging, 98541
when investigating a complaint under section 173.20 of the Revised 98542
Code, shall be granted any limited access permitted in the rules 98543
pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section.98544

        (b) Permitting a contractor, grantee, or other state or 98545
county entity limited access to information that is essential for 98546
the contractor, grantee, or entity to perform administrative or 98547
other duties on behalf of the department or county agency. A 98548
contractor, grantee, or entity given access to information 98549
pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section is bound by the 98550
director's rules, and disclosure of the information by the 98551
contractor, grantee, or entity in a manner not authorized by the 98552
rules is a violation of section 5101.27 of the Revised Code.98553

       (2) The rules may define who is an "authorized 98554
representative" for purposes of sections 5101.27, 5101.271, and 98555
5101.272 of the Revised Code.98556

       (B) Whenever names, addresses, or other information relating 98557
to public assistance recipients is held by any agency other than 98558
the department or a county agency, that other agency shall adopt 98559
rules consistent with sections 5101.26 to 5101.30 of the Revised 98560
Code to prevent the publication or disclosure of names, lists, or 98561
other information concerning those recipients.98562

       Sec. 5101.34.  (A) There is hereby created in the department 98563
of job and family services the Ohio commission on fatherhood. The 98564
commission shall consist of the following members:98565

       (1)(a) Four members of the house of representatives appointed 98566
by the speaker of the house, not more than two of whom are members 98567
of the same political party. Two of the members must be from 98568
legislative districts that include a county or part of a county 98569
that is among the one-third of counties in this state with the 98570
highest number per capita of households headed by females.98571

       (b) Two members of the senate appointed by the president of 98572
the senate, each from a different political party. One of the 98573
members must be from a legislative district that includes a county 98574
or part of a county that is among the one-third of counties in 98575
this state with the highest number per capita of households headed 98576
by females.98577

       (2) The governor, or the governor's designee;98578

       (3) One representative of the judicial branch of government 98579
appointed by the chief justice of the supreme court;98580

       (4) The directors of health, job and family services, 98581
rehabilitation and correction, alcohol and drug addiction services98582
mental health and addiction services, and youth services and the 98583
superintendent of public instruction, or their designees;98584

       (5) One representative of the Ohio family and children first 98585
cabinet council created under section 121.37 of the Revised Code 98586
appointed by the chairperson of the council;98587

       (6) Five representatives of the general public appointed by 98588
the governor. These members shall have extensive experience in 98589
issues related to fatherhood. 98590

       (B) The appointing authorities of the Ohio commission on 98591
fatherhood shall make initial appointments to the commission 98592
within thirty days after September 29, 1999. Of the initial 98593
appointments to the commission made pursuant to divisions (A)(3), 98594
(5), and (6) of this section, three of the members shall serve a 98595
term of one year and four shall serve a term of two years. Members 98596
so appointed subsequently shall serve two-year terms. A member 98597
appointed pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section shall serve 98598
on the commission until the end of the general assembly from which 98599
the member was appointed or until the member ceases to serve in 98600
the chamber of the general assembly in which the member serves at 98601
the time of appointment, whichever occurs first. The governor or 98602
the governor's designee shall serve on the commission until the 98603
governor ceases to be governor. The directors and superintendent 98604
or their designees shall serve on the commission until they cease, 98605
or the director or superintendent a designee represents ceases, to 98606
be director or superintendent. Each member shall serve on the 98607
commission from the date of appointment until the end of the term 98608
for which the member was appointed. Members may be reappointed.98609

       Vacancies shall be filled in the manner provided for original 98610
appointments. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring 98611
prior to the expiration date of the term for which the member's 98612
predecessor was appointed shall serve on the commission for the 98613
remainder of that term. A member shall continue to serve on the 98614
commission subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term 98615
until the member's successor is appointed or until a period of 98616
sixty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first. Members shall 98617
serve without compensation but shall be reimbursed for necessary 98618
expenses.98619

       Sec. 5101.35.  (A) As used in this section:98620

       (1)(a) "Agency" means the following entities that administer 98621
a family services program:98622

       (a)(i) The department of job and family services;98623

       (b)(ii) A county department of job and family services;98624

       (c)(iii) A public children services agency;98625

       (d)(iv) A private or government entity administering, in 98626
whole or in part, a family services program for or on behalf of 98627
the department of job and family services or a county department 98628
of job and family services or public children services agency.98629

       (b) If the department of medicaid contracts with the 98630
department of job and family services to hear appeals authorized 98631
by section 5160.31 of the Revised Code regarding medical 98632
assistance programs, "agency" includes the department of medicaid.98633

       (2) "Appellant" means an applicant, participant, former 98634
participant, recipient, or former recipient of a family services 98635
program who is entitled by federal or state law to a hearing 98636
regarding a decision or order of the agency that administers the 98637
program.98638

       (3)(a) "Family services program" means assistance provided 98639
under aall of the following:98640

       (i) A Title IV-A program as defined in section 5101.80 of the 98641
Revised Code or;98642

       (ii) Programs that provide assistance under Chapter 5104., 98643
5111., or 5115. orof the Revised Code;98644

       (iii) Programs that provide assistance under section 5119.69,98645
5101.141, 5101.46, 5101.461, 5101.54, 5119.41, 5153.163, or 98646
5153.165 of the Revised Code,;98647

       (iv) Title XX social services provided under section 5101.46 98648
of the Revised Code, other than assistancesuch services provided 98649
under section 5101.46 of the Revised Code by the department of 98650
mental healthmental health and addiction services, the department 98651
of developmental disabilities, a board of alcohol, drug addiction, 98652
and mental health services, or a county board of developmental 98653
disabilities.98654

       (b) If the department of medicaid contracts with the 98655
department of job and family services to hear appeals authorized 98656
by section 5160.31 of the Revised Code regarding medical 98657
assistance programs, "family services program" includes medical 98658
assistance programs.98659

        (4) "Medical assistance program" has the same meaning as in 98660
section 5160.01 of the Revised Code.98661

       (B) Except as provided by divisions (G) and (H) of this 98662
section, an appellant who appeals under federal or state law a 98663
decision or order of an agency administering a family services 98664
program shall, at the appellant's request, be granted a state 98665
hearing by the department of job and family services. This state 98666
hearing shall be conducted in accordance with rules adopted under 98667
this section. The state hearing shall be recorded, but neither the 98668
recording nor a transcript of the recording shall be part of the 98669
official record of the proceeding. AExcept as provided in section 98670
5160.31 of the Revised Code, a state hearing decision is binding 98671
upon the agency and department, unless it is reversed or modified 98672
on appeal to the director of job and family services or a court of 98673
common pleas.98674

       (C) Except as provided by division (G) of this section, an 98675
appellant who disagrees with a state hearing decision may make an 98676
administrative appeal to the director of job and family services 98677
in accordance with rules adopted under this section. This 98678
administrative appeal does not require a hearing, but the director 98679
or the director's designee shall review the state hearing decision 98680
and previous administrative action and may affirm, modify, remand, 98681
or reverse the state hearing decision. An administrative appeal 98682
decision is the final decision of the department and, except as 98683
provided in section 5160.31 of the Revised Code, is binding upon 98684
the department and agency, unless it is reversed or modified on 98685
appeal to the court of common pleas.98686

       (D) An agency shall comply with a decision issued pursuant to 98687
division (B) or (C) of this section within the time limits 98688
established by rules adopted under this section. If a county 98689
department of job and family services or a public children 98690
services agency fails to comply within these time limits, the 98691
department may take action pursuant to section 5101.24 of the 98692
Revised Code. If another agency, other than the department of 98693
medicaid, fails to comply within the time limits, the department 98694
may force compliance by withholding funds due the agency or 98695
imposing another sanction established by rules adopted under this 98696
section.98697

       (E) An appellant who disagrees with an administrative appeal 98698
decision of the director of job and family services or the 98699
director's designee issued under division (C) of this section may 98700
appeal from the decision to the court of common pleas pursuant to 98701
section 119.12 of the Revised Code. The appeal shall be governed 98702
by section 119.12 of the Revised Code except that:98703

       (1) The person may appeal to the court of common pleas of the 98704
county in which the person resides, or to the court of common 98705
pleas of Franklin county if the person does not reside in this 98706
state.98707

       (2) The person may apply to the court for designation as an 98708
indigent and, if the court grants this application, the appellant 98709
shall not be required to furnish the costs of the appeal.98710

       (3) The appellant shall mail the notice of appeal to the 98711
department of job and family services and file notice of appeal 98712
with the court within thirty days after the department mails the 98713
administrative appeal decision to the appellant. For good cause 98714
shown, the court may extend the time for mailing and filing notice 98715
of appeal, but such time shall not exceed six months from the date 98716
the department mails the administrative appeal decision. Filing 98717
notice of appeal with the court shall be the only act necessary to 98718
vest jurisdiction in the court.98719

       (4) The department shall be required to file a transcript of 98720
the testimony of the state hearing with the court only if the 98721
court orders the department to file the transcript. The court 98722
shall make such an order only if it finds that the department and 98723
the appellant are unable to stipulate to the facts of the case and 98724
that the transcript is essential to a determination of the appeal. 98725
The department shall file the transcript not later than thirty 98726
days after the day such an order is issued.98727

       (F) The department of job and family services shall adopt 98728
rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to 98729
implement this section, including rules governing the following:98730

       (1) State hearings under division (B) of this section. The 98731
rules shall include provisions regarding notice of eligibility 98732
termination and the opportunity of an appellant appealing a 98733
decision or order of a county department of job and family 98734
services to request a county conference with the county department 98735
before the state hearing is held.98736

       (2) Administrative appeals under division (C) of this 98737
section;98738

       (3) Time limits for complying with a decision issued under 98739
division (B) or (C) of this section;98740

       (4) Sanctions that may be applied against an agency under 98741
division (D) of this section.98742

       (G) The department of job and family services may adopt rules 98743
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing 98744
an appeals process for an appellant who appeals a decision or 98745
order regarding a Title IV-A program identified under division 98746
(A)(4)(c), (d), (e), or (f), or (g) of section 5101.80 of the 98747
Revised Code that is different from the appeals process 98748
established by this section. The different appeals process may 98749
include having a state agency that administers the Title IV-A 98750
program pursuant to an interagency agreement entered into under 98751
section 5101.801 of the Revised Code administer the appeals 98752
process.98753

       (H) If an appellant receiving medicaid through a health 98754
insuring corporation that holds a certificate of authority under 98755
Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code is appealing a denial of 98756
medicaid services based on lack of medical necessity or other 98757
clinical issues regarding coverage by the health insuring 98758
corporation, the person hearing the appeal may order an 98759
independent medical review if that person determines that a review 98760
is necessary. The review shall be performed by a health care 98761
professional with appropriate clinical expertise in treating the 98762
recipient's condition or disease. The department shall pay the 98763
costs associated with the review.98764

       A review ordered under this division shall be part of the 98765
record of the hearing and shall be given appropriate evidentiary 98766
consideration by the person hearing the appeal.98767

       (I) The requirements of Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 98768
apply to a state hearing or administrative appeal under this 98769
section only to the extent, if any, specifically provided by rules 98770
adopted under this section.98771

       Sec. 5101.36.  Any application for public assistance gives a 98772
right of subrogation to the department of job and family services 98773
for any workers' compensation benefits payable to a person who is 98774
subject to a support order, as defined in section 3119.01 of the 98775
Revised Code, on behalf of the applicant, to the extent of any 98776
public assistance payments made on the applicant's behalf. If the 98777
director of job and family services, in consultation with a child 98778
support enforcement agency and the administrator of the bureau of 98779
workers' compensation, determines that a person responsible for 98780
support payments to a recipient of public assistance is receiving 98781
workers' compensation, the director shall notify the administrator 98782
of the amount of the benefit to be paid to the department of job 98783
and family services.98784

       For purposes of this section, "public assistance" means 98785
medical assistance provided through the medical assistance program 98786
established under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code; Ohio works 98787
first provided under Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code; 98788
prevention, retention, and contingency benefits and services 98789
provided under Chapter 5108. of the Revised Code; or disability 98790
financial assistance provided under Chapter 5115. of the Revised 98791
Code.98792

       Sec. 5101.46.  (A) As used in this section:98793

       (1) "Title XX" means Title XX of the "Social Security Act," 98794
88 Stat. 2337 (1974), 42 U.S.C.A. 1397, as amended.98795

       (2) "Respective local agency" means, with respect to the 98796
department of job and family services, a county department of job 98797
and family services; with respect to the department of mental 98798
healthmental health and addiction services, a board of alcohol, 98799
drug addiction, and mental health services; and with respect to 98800
the department of developmental disabilities, a county board of 98801
developmental disabilities.98802

       (3) "Federal poverty guidelines" means the poverty guidelines 98803
as revised annually by the United States department of health and 98804
human services in accordance with section 673(2) of the "Omnibus 98805
Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981," 95 Stat. 511, 42 U.S.C.A. 98806
9902, as amended, for a family size equal to the size of the 98807
family of the person whose income is being determined.98808

       (B) The departments of job and family services, mental 98809
health, and developmental disabilities, with their respective 98810
local agencies, shall administer the provision of social services 98811
funded through grants made under Title XX. The social services 98812
furnished with Title XX funds shall be directed at the following 98813
goals:98814

       (1) Achieving or maintaining economic self-support to 98815
prevent, reduce, or eliminate dependency;98816

       (2) Achieving or maintaining self-sufficiency, including 98817
reduction or prevention of dependency;98818

       (3) Preventing or remedying neglect, abuse, or exploitation 98819
of children and adults unable to protect their own interests, or 98820
preserving, rehabilitating, or reuniting families;98821

       (4) Preventing or reducing inappropriate institutional care 98822
by providing for community-based care, home-based care, or other 98823
forms of less intensive care;98824

       (5) Securing referral or admission for institutional care 98825
when other forms of care are not appropriate, or providing 98826
services to individuals in institutions.98827

       (C)(1) All federal funds received under Title XX shall be 98828
appropriated as follows:98829

       (a) Seventy-two and one-half per cent to the department of 98830
job and family services;98831

       (b) Twelve and ninety-three one-hundredths per cent to the 98832
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services;98833

       (c) Fourteen and fifty-seven one-hundredths per cent to the 98834
department of developmental disabilities.98835

       (2) Each of the state departments shall, subject to the 98836
approval of the controlling board, develop a formula for the 98837
distribution of the Title XX funds appropriated to the department 98838
to its respective local agencies. The formula developed by each 98839
state department shall take into account all of the following for 98840
each of its respective local agencies:98841

       (a) The total population of the area that is served by the 98842
respective local agency;98843

       (b) The percentage of the population in the area served that 98844
falls below the federal poverty guidelines;98845

       (c) The respective local agency's history of and ability to 98846
utilize Title XX funds.98847

       (3) Each of the state departments shall expend for state 98848
administrative costs not more than three per cent of the Title XX 98849
funds appropriated to the department. 98850

       Each state department shall establish for each of its 98851
respective local agencies the maximum percentage of the Title XX 98852
funds distributed to the respective local agency that the 98853
respective local agency may expend for local administrative costs. 98854
The percentage shall be established by rule and shall comply with 98855
federal law governing the use of Title XX funds. The rules shall 98856
be adopted in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code 98857
as if they were internal management rules.98858

       (4) The department of job and family services shall expend 98859
for the training of the following not more than two per cent of 98860
the Title XX funds appropriated to the department:98861

       (a) Employees of county departments of job and family 98862
services;98863

       (b) Providers of services under contract with the state 98864
departments' respective local agencies;98865

       (c) Employees of a public children services agency directly 98866
engaged in providing Title XX services. 98867

       (5) Title XX funds distributed for the purpose of providing 98868
family planning services shall be distributed by the respective 98869
local agencies according to the same order of priority that 98870
applies to the department of job and family services under section 98871
5101.101 of the Revised Code.98872

       (D) The department of job and family services shall prepare 98873
an annual comprehensive Title XX social services plan on the 98874
intended use of Title XX funds. The department shall develop a 98875
method for obtaining public comment during the development of the 98876
plan and following its completion.98877

       For each federal fiscal year, the department of job and 98878
family services shall prepare a report on the actual use of Title 98879
XX funds. The department shall make the annual report available 98880
for public inspection.98881

       The departments of mental healthmental health and addiction 98882
services and developmental disabilities shall prepare and submit 98883
to the department of job and family services the portions of each 98884
annual plan and report that apply to services for mental health 98885
and mental retardation and developmental disabilities. Each 98886
respective local agency of the three state departments shall 98887
submit information as necessary for the preparation of annual 98888
plans and reports.98889

       (E) Each county department of job and family services shall 98890
adopt a county profile for the administration and provision of 98891
Title XX social services in the county. In developing its county 98892
profile, the county department shall take into consideration the 98893
comments and recommendations received from the public by the 98894
county family services planning committee pursuant to section 98895
329.06 of the Revised Code. As part of its preparation of the 98896
county profile, the county department may prepare a local needs 98897
report analyzing the need for Title XX social services.98898

       The county department shall submit the county profile to the 98899
board of county commissioners for its review. Once the county 98900
profile has been approved by the board, the county department 98901
shall file a copy of the county profile with the department of job 98902
and family services. The department shall approve the county 98903
profile if the department determines the profile provides for the 98904
Title XX social services to meet the goals specified in division 98905
(B) of this section.98906

       (F) Any of the three state departments and their respective 98907
local agencies may require that an entity under contract to 98908
provide social services with Title XX funds submit to an audit on 98909
the basis of alleged misuse or improper accounting of funds. If an 98910
audit is required, the social services provider shall reimburse 98911
the state department or respective local agency for the cost it 98912
incurred in conducting the audit or having the audit conducted.98913

        If an audit demonstrates that a social services provider is 98914
responsible for one or more adverse findings, the provider shall 98915
reimburse the appropriate state department or its respective local 98916
agency the amount of the adverse findings. The amount shall not be 98917
reimbursed with Title XX funds received under this section. The 98918
three state departments and their respective local agencies may 98919
terminate or refuse to enter into a Title XX contract with a 98920
social services provider if there are adverse findings in an audit 98921
that are the responsibility of the provider. 98922

       (G) Except with respect to the matters for which each of the 98923
state departments must adopt rules under division (C)(3) of this 98924
section, the department of job and family services may adopt any 98925
rules it considers necessary to implement and carry out the 98926
purposes of this section. Rules governing financial and 98927
operational matters of the department or matters between the 98928
department and county departments of job and family services shall 98929
be adopted as internal management rules in accordance with section 98930
111.15 of the Revised Code. Rules governing eligibility for 98931
services, program participation, and other matters pertaining to 98932
applicants and participants shall be adopted in accordance with 98933
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.98934

       Sec. 5101.461. (A) As used in this section:98935

        (1) "Title IV-A" means Title IV-A of the "Social Security 98936
Act," 110 Stat. 2113 (1996), 42 U.S.C. 601, as amended.98937

        (2) "Title XX" has the same meaning as in section 5101.46 of 98938
the Revised Code.98939

        (B) To the extent authorized by federal law, the department 98940
of job and family services may use funds received through the 98941
Title IV-A temporary assistance for needy families block grant for 98942
purposes of providing Title XX social services. The amount used 98943
under this section shall not exceed the maximum amount permitted 98944
by federal law. The funds and provision of Title XX social 98945
services with the funds are not subject to section 5101.46 of the 98946
Revised Code.98947

       Funds distributed under this section for the purpose of 98948
providing family planning services shall be distributed by a 98949
county department of job and family services according to the same 98950
order of priority that applies to the department of job and family 98951
services under section 5101.101 of the Revised Code.98952

        (C) The department and any county department of job and 98953
family services may require an entity under contract to provide 98954
Title XX social services with funds used under this section to 98955
submit to an audit on the basis of alleged misuse or improper 98956
accounting of funds. If an audit is required, the social services 98957
provider shall reimburse the state department or county department 98958
for the cost it incurred in conducting the audit or having the 98959
audit conducted.98960

        If an audit demonstrates that a social services provider is 98961
responsible for one or more adverse findings, the provider shall 98962
reimburse the state department or county department the amount of 98963
the adverse findings. The amount shall not be reimbursed with 98964
funds received under this section. The state department and county 98965
departments may terminate or refuse to enter into a contract with 98966
a social services provider to provide services with funds 98967
available pursuant to this section if there are adverse findings 98968
in an audit that are the responsibility of the provider.98969

        (D) The state department of job and family services may adopt 98970
rules to implement and carry out the purposes of this section. 98971
Rules governing financial and operational matters of the 98972
department or matters between the department and county 98973
departments of job and family services shall be adopted as 98974
internal management rules in accordance with section 111.15 of the 98975
Revised Code. Rules governing eligibility for services, program 98976
participation, and other matters pertaining to applicants and 98977
participants shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of 98978
the Revised Code.98979

       Sec. 5101.47.  (A) Except as provided in divisions (B) and 98980
(C) of this section, the department of job and family services may 98981
accept applications, determine eligibility, redetermine 98982
eligibility, and perform related administrative activities for one 98983
or more of the following:98984

       (1) The medicaid program established by Chapter 5111. of the 98985
Revised Code;98986

       (2) The children's health insurance program parts I, II, and 98987
III provided for under sections 5101.50 to 5101.529 of the Revised 98988
Code;98989

       (3) Publicly funded child care provided under Chapter 5104. 98990
of the Revised Code;98991

       (4)(2) The supplemental nutrition assistance program 98992
administered by the department pursuant to section 5101.54 of the 98993
Revised Code;98994

       (5)(3) Other programs administered by the department that the 98995
director of job and family services determines are supportive of 98996
children, adults, or families;98997

       (6)(4) Other programs administered by the department98998
regarding which the director determines administrative cost 98999
savings and efficiency may be achieved through the department 99000
accepting applications, determining eligibility, redetermining 99001
eligibility, or performing related administrative activities.99002

       (B) To the extent permitted by federal law, the department 99003
may enter into agreements with one or more other state agencies, 99004
local government entities, or political subdivisions to accept 99005
applications, determine eligibility, redetermine eligibility, and 99006
perform related administrative activities on behalf of the 99007
department with respect to the medicaid program and the children's 99008
health insurance program.99009

       (C) If federal law requires a face-to-face interview to 99010
complete an eligibility determination for a program specified in 99011
or pursuant to division (A) of this section, the face-to-face 99012
interview shall not be conducted by the department of job and 99013
family services.99014

       (D)(C) Subject to division (C)(B) of this section, if the 99015
department elects to accept applications, determine eligibility, 99016
redetermine eligibility, and perform related administrative 99017
activities for a program specified in or pursuant to division (A) 99018
of this section, both of the following apply:99019

       (1) An individual seeking services under the program may 99020
apply for the program to the department or to the entity that 99021
state law governing the program authorizes to accept applications 99022
for the program.99023

       (2) The department is subject to federal statutes and 99024
regulations and state statutes and rules that require, permit, or 99025
prohibit an action regarding accepting applications, determining 99026
or redetermining eligibility, and performing related 99027
administrative activities for the program.99028

       (E)(D) The director may adopt rules as necessary to implement 99029
this section.99030

       Sec. 5101.49.  The department of job and family services 99031
shall administer funds received under the "Refugee Act of 1980," 99032
94 Stat. 102, 8 U.S.C.A. 1521, as amended. In administering the 99033
funds, the department may establish a refugee cash assistance 99034
program and a state legalization impact assistance program. The 99035
director of job and family services may adopt rules in accordance 99036
with section 111.15 of the Revised Code and issue appropriate 99037
orders as necessary for administration of these funds and 99038
programs.99039

       Sec. 5101.60.  As used in sections 5101.60 to 5101.71 of the 99040
Revised Code:99041

       (A) "Abuse" means the infliction upon an adult by self or 99042
others of injury, unreasonable confinement, intimidation, or cruel 99043
punishment with resulting physical harm, pain, or mental anguish.99044

       (B) "Adult" means any person sixty years of age or older 99045
within this state who is handicapped by the infirmities of aging 99046
or who has a physical or mental impairment which prevents the 99047
person from providing for the person's own care or protection, and 99048
who resides in an independent living arrangement. An "independent 99049
living arrangement" is a domicile of a person's own choosing, 99050
including, but not limited to, a private home, apartment, trailer, 99051
or rooming house. An "independent living arrangement" includes a 99052
residential facility licensed under section 5119.225119.34 of the 99053
Revised Code that provides accommodations, supervision, and 99054
personal care services for three to sixteen unrelated adults, but 99055
does not include other institutions or facilities licensed by the 99056
state or facilities in which a person resides as a result of 99057
voluntary, civil, or criminal commitment. 99058

       (C) "Caretaker" means the person assuming the responsibility 99059
for the care of an adult on a voluntary basis, by contract, 99060
through receipt of payment for care, as a result of a family 99061
relationship, or by order of a court of competent jurisdiction.99062

       (D) "Court" means the probate court in the county where an 99063
adult resides.99064

       (E) "Emergency" means that the adult is living in conditions 99065
which present a substantial risk of immediate and irreparable 99066
physical harm or death to self or any other person.99067

       (F) "Emergency services" means protective services furnished 99068
to an adult in an emergency.99069

       (G) "Exploitation" means the unlawful or improper act of a 99070
caretaker using an adult or an adult's resources for monetary or 99071
personal benefit, profit, or gain.99072

       (H) "In need of protective services" means an adult known or 99073
suspected to be suffering from abuse, neglect, or exploitation to 99074
an extent that either life is endangered or physical harm, mental 99075
anguish, or mental illness results or is likely to result.99076

       (I) "Incapacitated person" means a person who is impaired for 99077
any reason to the extent that the person lacks sufficient 99078
understanding or capacity to make and carry out reasonable 99079
decisions concerning the person's self or resources, with or 99080
without the assistance of a caretaker. Refusal to consent to the 99081
provision of services shall not be the sole determinative that the 99082
person is incapacitated. "Reasonable decisions" are decisions made 99083
in daily living which facilitate the provision of food, shelter, 99084
clothing, and health care necessary for life support.99085

       (J) "Mental illness" means a substantial disorder of thought, 99086
mood, perception, orientation, or memory that grossly impairs 99087
judgment, behavior, capacity to recognize reality, or ability to 99088
meet the ordinary demands of life.99089

       (K) "Neglect" means the failure of an adult to provide for 99090
self the goods or services necessary to avoid physical harm, 99091
mental anguish, or mental illness or the failure of a caretaker to 99092
provide such goods or services.99093

       (L) "Peace officer" means a peace officer as defined in 99094
section 2935.01 of the Revised Code.99095

       (M) "Physical harm" means bodily pain, injury, impairment, or 99096
disease suffered by an adult.99097

       (N) "Protective services" means services provided by the 99098
county department of job and family services or its designated 99099
agency to an adult who has been determined by evaluation to 99100
require such services for the prevention, correction, or 99101
discontinuance of an act of as well as conditions resulting from 99102
abuse, neglect, or exploitation. Protective services may include, 99103
but are not limited to, case work services, medical care, mental 99104
health services, legal services, fiscal management, home health 99105
care, homemaker services, housing-related services, guardianship 99106
services, and placement services as well as the provision of such 99107
commodities as food, clothing, and shelter.99108

       (O) "Working day" means Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, 99109
and Friday, except when such day is a holiday as defined in 99110
section 1.14 of the Revised Code.99111

       Sec. 5101.61.  (A) As used in this section:99112

       (1) "Senior service provider" means any person who provides 99113
care or services to a person who is an adult as defined in 99114
division (B) of section 5101.60 of the Revised Code.99115

       (2) "Ambulatory health facility" means a nonprofit, public or 99116
proprietary freestanding organization or a unit of such an agency 99117
or organization that:99118

       (a) Provides preventive, diagnostic, therapeutic, 99119
rehabilitative, or palliative items or services furnished to an 99120
outpatient or ambulatory patient, by or under the direction of a 99121
physician or dentist in a facility which is not a part of a 99122
hospital, but which is organized and operated to provide medical 99123
care to outpatients;99124

       (b) Has health and medical care policies which are developed 99125
with the advice of, and with the provision of review of such 99126
policies, an advisory committee of professional personnel, 99127
including one or more physicians, one or more dentists, if dental 99128
care is provided, and one or more registered nurses;99129

       (c) Has a medical director, a dental director, if dental care 99130
is provided, and a nursing director responsible for the execution 99131
of such policies, and has physicians, dentists, nursing, and 99132
ancillary staff appropriate to the scope of services provided;99133

       (d) Requires that the health care and medical care of every 99134
patient be under the supervision of a physician, provides for 99135
medical care in a case of emergency, has in effect a written 99136
agreement with one or more hospitals and other centers or clinics, 99137
and has an established patient referral system to other resources, 99138
and a utilization review plan and program;99139

       (e) Maintains clinical records on all patients;99140

       (f) Provides nursing services and other therapeutic services 99141
in accordance with programs and policies, with such services 99142
supervised by a registered professional nurse, and has a 99143
registered professional nurse on duty at all times of clinical 99144
operations;99145

       (g) Provides approved methods and procedures for the 99146
dispensing and administration of drugs and biologicals;99147

       (h) Has established an accounting and record keeping system 99148
to determine reasonable and allowable costs;99149

       (i) "Ambulatory health facilities" also includes an 99150
alcoholism treatment facility approved by the joint commission on 99151
accreditation of healthcare organizations as an alcoholism 99152
treatment facility or certified by the department of alcohol and 99153
drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction services, and 99154
such facility shall comply with other provisions of this division 99155
not inconsistent with such accreditation or certification.99156

       (3) "Community mental health facility" means a facility which 99157
provides community mental health services and is included in the 99158
comprehensive mental health plan for the alcohol, drug addiction, 99159
and mental health service district in which it is located.99160

       (4) "Community mental health service" means services, other 99161
than inpatient services, provided by a community mental health 99162
facility.99163

       (5) "Home health agency" means an institution or a distinct 99164
part of an institution operated in this state which:99165

       (a) Is primarily engaged in providing home health services;99166

       (b) Has home health policies which are established by a group 99167
of professional personnel, including one or more duly licensed 99168
doctors of medicine or osteopathy and one or more registered 99169
professional nurses, to govern the home health services it 99170
provides and which includes a requirement that every patient must 99171
be under the care of a duly licensed doctor of medicine or 99172
osteopathy;99173

       (c) Is under the supervision of a duly licensed doctor of 99174
medicine or doctor of osteopathy or a registered professional 99175
nurse who is responsible for the execution of such home health 99176
policies;99177

       (d) Maintains comprehensive records on all patients;99178

       (e) Is operated by the state, a political subdivision, or an 99179
agency of either, or is operated not for profit in this state and 99180
is licensed or registered, if required, pursuant to law by the 99181
appropriate department of the state, county, or municipality in 99182
which it furnishes services; or is operated for profit in this 99183
state, meets all the requirements specified in divisions (A)(5)(a) 99184
to (d) of this section, and is certified under Title XVIII of the 99185
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as 99186
amended.99187

       (6) "Home health service" means the following items and 99188
services, provided, except as provided in division (A)(6)(g) of 99189
this section, on a visiting basis in a place of residence used as 99190
the patient's home:99191

       (a) Nursing care provided by or under the supervision of a 99192
registered professional nurse;99193

       (b) Physical, occupational, or speech therapy ordered by the 99194
patient's attending physician;99195

       (c) Medical social services performed by or under the 99196
supervision of a qualified medical or psychiatric social worker 99197
and under the direction of the patient's attending physician;99198

       (d) Personal health care of the patient performed by aides in 99199
accordance with the orders of a doctor of medicine or osteopathy 99200
and under the supervision of a registered professional nurse;99201

       (e) Medical supplies and the use of medical appliances;99202

       (f) Medical services of interns and residents-in-training 99203
under an approved teaching program of a nonprofit hospital and 99204
under the direction and supervision of the patient's attending 99205
physician;99206

       (g) Any of the foregoing items and services which:99207

       (i) Are provided on an outpatient basis under arrangements 99208
made by the home health agency at a hospital or skilled nursing 99209
facility;99210

       (ii) Involve the use of equipment of such a nature that the 99211
items and services cannot readily be made available to the patient 99212
in the patient's place of residence, or which are furnished at the 99213
hospital or skilled nursing facility while the patient is there to 99214
receive any item or service involving the use of such equipment.99215

       Any attorney, physician, osteopath, podiatrist, chiropractor, 99216
dentist, psychologist, any employee of a hospital as defined in 99217
section 3701.01 of the Revised Code, any nurse licensed under 99218
Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code, any employee of an ambulatory 99219
health facility, any employee of a home health agency, any 99220
employee of a residential facility licensed under section 5119.2299221
5119.34 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 99222
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 99223
unrelated adults, any employee of a nursing home, residential care 99224
facility, or home for the aging, as defined in section 3721.01 of 99225
the Revised Code, any senior service provider, any peace officer, 99226
coroner, member of the clergy, any employee of a community mental 99227
health facility, and any person engaged in social work or 99228
counseling having reasonable cause to believe that an adult is 99229
being abused, neglected, or exploited, or is in a condition which 99230
is the result of abuse, neglect, or exploitation shall immediately 99231
report such belief to the county department of job and family 99232
services. This section does not apply to employees of any hospital 99233
or public hospital as defined in section 5122.01 of the Revised 99234
Code.99235

       (B) Any person having reasonable cause to believe that an 99236
adult has suffered abuse, neglect, or exploitation may report, or 99237
cause reports to be made of such belief to the department.99238

       (C) The reports made under this section shall be made orally 99239
or in writing except that oral reports shall be followed by a 99240
written report if a written report is requested by the department. 99241
Written reports shall include:99242

       (1) The name, address, and approximate age of the adult who 99243
is the subject of the report;99244

       (2) The name and address of the individual responsible for 99245
the adult's care, if any individual is, and if the individual is 99246
known;99247

       (3) The nature and extent of the alleged abuse, neglect, or 99248
exploitation of the adult;99249

       (4) The basis of the reporter's belief that the adult has 99250
been abused, neglected, or exploited.99251

       (D) Any person with reasonable cause to believe that an adult 99252
is suffering abuse, neglect, or exploitation who makes a report 99253
pursuant to this section or who testifies in any administrative or 99254
judicial proceeding arising from such a report, or any employee of 99255
the state or any of its subdivisions who is discharging 99256
responsibilities under section 5101.62 of the Revised Code shall 99257
be immune from civil or criminal liability on account of such 99258
investigation, report, or testimony, except liability for perjury, 99259
unless the person has acted in bad faith or with malicious 99260
purpose.99261

       (E) No employer or any other person with the authority to do 99262
so shall discharge, demote, transfer, prepare a negative work 99263
performance evaluation, or reduce benefits, pay, or work 99264
privileges, or take any other action detrimental to an employee or 99265
in any way retaliate against an employee as a result of the 99266
employee's having filed a report under this section.99267

       (F) Neither the written or oral report provided for in this 99268
section nor the investigatory report provided for in section 99269
5101.62 of the Revised Code shall be considered a public record as 99270
defined in section 149.43 of the Revised Code. Information 99271
contained in the report shall upon request be made available to 99272
the adult who is the subject of the report, to agencies authorized 99273
by the department to receive information contained in the report, 99274
and to legal counsel for the adult.99275

       Sec. 5101.80. (A) As used in this section and in section 99276
5101.801 of the Revised Code:99277

       (1) "County family services agency" has the same meaning as 99278
in section 307.981 of the Revised Code.99279

       (2) "State agency" has the same meaning as in section 9.82 of 99280
the Revised Code.99281

       (3) "Title IV-A administrative agency" means both of the 99282
following:99283

       (a) A county family services agency or state agency 99284
administering a Title IV-A program under the supervision of the 99285
department of job and family services;99286

       (b) A government agency or private, not-for-profit entity 99287
administering a project funded in whole or in part with funds 99288
provided under the Title IV-A demonstration program created under 99289
section 5101.803 of the Revised Code.99290

        (4) "Title IV-A program" means all of the following that are 99291
funded in part with funds provided under the temporary assistance 99292
for needy families block grant established by Title IV-A of the 99293
"Social Security Act," 110 Stat. 2113 (1996), 42 U.S.C. 601, as 99294
amended:99295

       (a) The Ohio works first program established under Chapter 99296
5107. of the Revised Code;99297

       (b) The prevention, retention, and contingency program 99298
established under Chapter 5108. of the Revised Code;99299

       (c) A program established by the general assembly or an 99300
executive order issued by the governor that is administered or 99301
supervised by the department of job and family services pursuant 99302
to section 5101.801 of the Revised Code;99303

       (d) The kinship permanency incentive program created under 99304
section 5101.802 of the Revised Code;99305

       (e) The Title IV-A demonstration program created under 99306
section 5101.803 of the Revised Code;99307

       (f) The Ohio parenting and pregnancy program created under 99308
section 5101.804 of the Revised Code;99309

       (g) A component of a Title IV-A program identified under 99310
divisions (A)(4)(a) to (e)(f) of this section that the Title IV-A 99311
state plan prepared under division (C)(1) of this section 99312
identifies as a component.99313

       (B) The department of job and family services shall act as 99314
the single state agency to administer and supervise the 99315
administration of Title IV-A programs. The Title IV-A state plan 99316
and amendments to the plan prepared under division (C) of this 99317
section are binding on Title IV-A administrative agencies. No 99318
Title IV-A administrative agency may establish, by rule or 99319
otherwise, a policy governing a Title IV-A program that is 99320
inconsistent with a Title IV-A program policy established, in rule 99321
or otherwise, by the director of job and family services.99322

       (C) The department of job and family services shall do all of 99323
the following:99324

       (1) Prepare and submit to the United States secretary of 99325
health and human services a Title IV-A state plan for Title IV-A 99326
programs;99327

       (2) Prepare and submit to the United States secretary of 99328
health and human services amendments to the Title IV-A state plan 99329
that the department determines necessary, including amendments 99330
necessary to implement Title IV-A programs identified in divisions 99331
(A)(4)(c) to (f)(g) of this section;99332

       (3) Prescribe forms for applications, certificates, reports, 99333
records, and accounts of Title IV-A administrative agencies, and 99334
other matters related to Title IV-A programs;99335

       (4) Make such reports, in such form and containing such 99336
information as the department may find necessary to assure the 99337
correctness and verification of such reports, regarding Title IV-A 99338
programs;99339

       (5) Require reports and information from each Title IV-A 99340
administrative agency as may be necessary or advisable regarding a 99341
Title IV-A program;99342

       (6) Afford a fair hearing in accordance with section 5101.35 99343
of the Revised Code to any applicant for, or participant or former 99344
participant of, a Title IV-A program aggrieved by a decision 99345
regarding the program;99346

       (7) Administer and expend, pursuant to Chapters 5104., 5107., 99347
and 5108. of the Revised Code and sections 5101.801, 5101.802, and99348
5101.803, and 5101.804 of the Revised Code, any sums appropriated 99349
by the general assembly for the purpose of those chapters and 99350
sections and all sums paid to the state by the secretary of the 99351
treasury of the United States as authorized by Title IV-A of the 99352
"Social Security Act," 110 Stat. 2113 (1996), 42 U.S.C. 601, as 99353
amended;99354

       (8) Conduct investigations and audits as are necessary 99355
regarding Title IV-A programs;99356

       (9) Enter into reciprocal agreements with other states 99357
relative to the provision of Ohio works first and prevention, 99358
retention, and contingency to residents and nonresidents;99359

       (10) Contract with a private entity to conduct an independent 99360
on-going evaluation of the Ohio works first program and the 99361
prevention, retention, and contingency program. The contract must 99362
require the private entity to do all of the following:99363

       (a) Examine issues of process, practice, impact, and 99364
outcomes;99365

       (b) Study former participants of Ohio works first who have 99366
not participated in Ohio works first for at least one year to 99367
determine whether they are employed, the type of employment in 99368
which they are engaged, the amount of compensation they are 99369
receiving, whether their employer provides health insurance, 99370
whether and how often they have received benefits or services 99371
under the prevention, retention, and contingency program, and 99372
whether they are successfully self sufficient;99373

       (c) Provide the department with reports at times the 99374
department specifies.99375

       (11) Not later than the last day of each January and July, 99376
prepare a report containing information on the following:99377

       (a) Individuals exhausting the time limits for participation 99378
in Ohio works first set forth in section 5107.18 of the Revised 99379
Code.99380

       (b) Individuals who have been exempted from the time limits 99381
set forth in section 5107.18 of the Revised Code and the reasons 99382
for the exemption.99383

       (D) The department shall provide copies of the reports it 99384
receives under division (C)(10) of this section and prepares under 99385
division (C)(11) of this section to the governor, the president 99386
and minority leader of the senate, and the speaker and minority 99387
leader of the house of representatives. The department shall 99388
provide copies of the reports to any private or government entity 99389
on request.99390

       (E) An authorized representative of the department or a 99391
county family services agency or state agency administering a 99392
Title IV-A program shall have access to all records and 99393
information bearing thereon for the purposes of investigations 99394
conducted pursuant to this section. An authorized representative 99395
of a government entity or private, not-for-profit entity 99396
administering a project funded in whole or in part with funds 99397
provided under the Title IV-A demonstration program shall have 99398
access to all records and information bearing on the project for 99399
the purpose of investigations conducted pursuant to this section.99400

       Sec. 5101.801.  (A) Except as otherwise provided by the law 99401
enacted by the general assembly or executive order issued by the 99402
governor establishing the Title IV-A program, a Title IV-A program 99403
identified under division (A)(4)(c), (d), (e), or (f), or (g) of 99404
section 5101.80 of the Revised Code shall provide benefits and 99405
services that are not "assistance" as defined in 45 C.F.R. 99406
260.31(a) and are benefits and services that 45 C.F.R. 260.31(b) 99407
excludes from the definition of assistance.99408

       (B)(1) Except as otherwise provided by the law enacted by the 99409
general assembly or executive order issued by the governor 99410
establishing the Title IV-A program, the department of job and 99411
family services shall do either of the following regarding a Title 99412
IV-A program identified under division (A)(4)(c), (d), (e), or99413
(f), or (g) of section 5101.80 of the Revised Code:99414

       (a) Administer the program or supervise a county family 99415
services agency's administration of the program;99416

       (b) Enter into an interagency agreement with a state agency 99417
for the state agency to administer the program under the 99418
department's supervision.99419

       (2) The department may enter into an agreement with a 99420
government entity and, to the extent permitted by federal law, a 99421
private, not-for-profit entity for the entity to receive funding 99422
for a project under the Title IV-A demonstration program created 99423
under section 5101.803 of the Revised Code.99424

       (3) To the extent permitted by federal law, the department 99425
may enter into an agreement with a private, not-for-profit entity 99426
for the entity to receive funds under the Ohio parenting and 99427
pregnancy program created under section 5101.804 of the Revised 99428
Code.99429

       (C) The department may adopt rules governing Title IV-A 99430
programs identified under divisions (A)(4)(c), (d), (e), and (f), 99431
and (g) of section 5101.80 of the Revised Code. Rules governing 99432
financial and operational matters of the department or between the 99433
department and county family services agencies shall be adopted as 99434
internal management rules adopted in accordance with section 99435
111.15 of the Revised Code. All other rules shall be adopted in 99436
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.99437

       (D) If the department enters into an agreement regarding a 99438
Title IV-A program identified under division (A)(4)(c), (e), or99439
(f), or (g) of section 5101.80 of the Revised Code pursuant to 99440
division (B)(1)(b) or (2) of this section, the agreement shall 99441
include at least all of the following:99442

       (1) A requirement that the state agency or entity comply with 99443
the requirements for the program or project, including all of the 99444
following requirements established by federal statutes and 99445
regulations, state statutes and rules, the United States office of 99446
management and budget, and the Title IV-A state plan prepared 99447
under section 5101.80 of the Revised Code:99448

       (a) Eligibility;99449

       (b) Reports;99450

       (c) Benefits and services;99451

       (d) Use of funds;99452

       (e) Appeals for applicants for, and recipients and former 99453
recipients of, the benefits and services;99454

       (f) Audits.99455

       (2) A complete description of all of the following:99456

       (a) The benefits and services that the program or project is 99457
to provide;99458

       (b) The methods of program or project administration;99459

       (c) The appeals process under section 5101.35 of the Revised 99460
Code for applicants for, and recipients and former recipients of, 99461
the program or project's benefits and services;99462

       (d) Other requirements that the department requires be 99463
included.99464

       (3) Procedures for the department to approve a policy, 99465
established by rule or otherwise, that the state agency or entity 99466
establishes for the program or project before the policy is 99467
established;99468

       (4) Provisions regarding how the department is to reimburse 99469
the state agency or entity for allowable expenditures under the 99470
program or project that the department approves, including all of 99471
the following:99472

       (a) Limitations on administrative costs;99473

       (b) The department, at its discretion, doing either of the 99474
following:99475

       (i) Withholding no more than five per cent of the funds that 99476
the department would otherwise provide to the state agency or 99477
entity for the program or project;99478

       (ii) Charging the state agency or entity for the costs to the 99479
department of performing, or contracting for the performance of, 99480
audits and other administrative functions associated with the 99481
program or project.99482

       (5) If the state agency or entity arranges by contract, 99483
grant, or other agreement for another entity to perform a function 99484
the state agency or entity would otherwise perform regarding the 99485
program or project, the state agency or entity's responsibilities 99486
for both of the following:99487

       (a) Ensuring that the other entity complies with the 99488
agreement between the state agency or entity and department and 99489
federal statutes and regulations and state statutes and rules 99490
governing the use of funds for the program or project;99491

       (b) Auditing the other entity in accordance with requirements 99492
established by the United States office of management and budget.99493

       (6) The state agency or entity's responsibilities regarding 99494
the prompt payment, including any interest assessed, of any 99495
adverse audit finding, final disallowance of federal funds, or 99496
other sanction or penalty imposed by the federal government, 99497
auditor of state, department, a court, or other entity regarding 99498
funds for the program or project;99499

       (7) Provisions for the department to terminate the agreement 99500
or withhold reimbursement from the state agency or entity if 99501
either of the following occur:99502

       (a) The federal government disapproves the program or project 99503
or reduces federal funds for the program or project;99504

       (b) The state agency or entity fails to comply with the terms 99505
of the agreement.99506

       (8) Provisions for both of the following:99507

       (a) The department and state agency or entity determining the 99508
performance outcomes expected for the program or project;99509

       (b) An evaluation of the program or project to determine its 99510
success in achieving the performance outcomes determined under 99511
division (D)(8)(a) of this section.99512

       (E) To the extent consistent with the law enacted by the 99513
general assembly or executive order issued by the governor 99514
establishing the Title IV-A program and subject to the approval of 99515
the director of budget and management, the director of job and 99516
family services may terminate a Title IV-A program identified 99517
under division (A)(4)(c), (d), (e), or (f), or (g) of section 99518
5101.80 of the Revised Code or reduce funding for the program if 99519
the director of job and family services determines that federal or 99520
state funds are insufficient to fund the program. If the director 99521
of budget and management approves the termination or reduction in 99522
funding for such a program, the director of job and family 99523
services shall issue instructions for the termination or funding 99524
reduction. If a Title IV-A administrative agency is administering 99525
the program, the agency is bound by the termination or funding 99526
reduction and shall comply with the director's instructions.99527

       (F) The director of job and family services may adopt 99528
internal management rules in accordance with section 111.15 of the 99529
Revised Code as necessary to implement this section. The rules are 99530
binding on each Title IV-A administrative agency.99531

       Sec. 5101.803.  (A) Subject to division (E) of section 99532
5101.801 of the Revised Code, there is hereby created the Title 99533
IV-A demonstration program to provide funding for innovative and 99534
promising prevention and intervention projects that meet one or 99535
more of the four purposes of the temporary assistance for needy 99536
families block grant as specified in 42 U.S.C. 601 and are for 99537
individuals with specific and multiple barriers to achieving or 99538
maintaining self-sufficiency and personal responsibility. The 99539
department of job and family services may provide funding for such 99540
projects to government entities and, to the extent permitted by 99541
federal law, private, not-for-profit entities with which the 99542
department enters into agreements under division (B)(2) of section 99543
5101.801 of the Revised Code.99544

       In accordance with criteria the department develops, the 99545
department may solicit proposals forfrom entities seeking to 99546
enter into an agreement with the department under division (B)(2) 99547
of section 5101.801 of the Revised Code. The department may enter 99548
into such agreements with entities that do both of the following:99549

       (1) Meet the proposals' criteria;99550

       (2) If the entity's proposed project does not potentially 99551
affect persons in each county of the state, provides the 99552
department evidence that the entity has notified, in writing, the 99553
county department of job and family services of each county where 99554
persons may be affected by the implementation of the project.99555

       (B) In developing the criteria, soliciting the proposals, and 99556
entering in the agreements, the department shall comply with all 99557
applicable federal and state laws, the Title IV-A state plan 99558
submitted to the United States secretary of health and human 99559
services under section 5101.80 of the Revised Code, amendments to 99560
the Title IV-A state plan submitted to the United States secretary 99561
under that section, and federal waivers the United States 99562
secretary grants.99563

       (C) The department shall begin implementation of the Title 99564
IV-A demonstration program no later than January 1, 2006.99565

       Sec. 5101.804.  (A) Subject to division (E) of section 99566
5101.801 of the Revised Code, there is hereby created the Ohio 99567
parenting and pregnancy program to provide services for pregnant 99568
women and parents or other relatives caring for children twelve 99569
months of age or younger that do both of the following:99570

       (1) Promote childbirth, parenting, and alternatives to 99571
abortion;99572

       (2) Meet one or more of the four purposes of the temporary 99573
assistance for needy families block grant as specified in 42 99574
U.S.C. 601. 99575

       (B) To the extent permitted by federal law, the department of 99576
job and family services may provide funds under the program to 99577
entities with which the department enters into agreements under 99578
division (B)(3) of section 5101.801 of the Revised Code. In 99579
accordance with criteria the department develops, the department 99580
may solicit proposals from entities seeking to provide services 99581
under the program. The department may enter into an agreement with 99582
an entity only if it meets all of the following conditions:99583

       (1) Is a private, not-for-profit entity;99584

       (2) Is an entity whose primary purpose is to promote 99585
childbirth, rather than abortion, through counseling and other 99586
services, including parenting and adoption support;99587

       (3) Provides services to pregnant women and parents or other 99588
relatives caring for children twelve months of age or younger, 99589
including clothing, counseling, diapers, food, furniture, health 99590
care, parenting classes, postpartum recovery, shelter, and any 99591
other supportive services, programs, or related outreach;99592

       (4) Does not charge pregnant women and parents or other 99593
relatives caring for children twelve months of age or younger a 99594
fee for any services received;99595

       (5) Is not involved in or associated with any abortion 99596
activities, including providing abortion counseling or referrals 99597
to abortion clinics, performing abortion-related medical 99598
procedures, or engaging in pro-abortion advertising;99599

       (6) Does not discriminate in its provision of services on the 99600
basis of race, religion, color, age, marital status, national 99601
origin, disability, or gender.99602

       (C) An entity that has entered into an agreement with the 99603
department under division (B)(3) of section 5101.801 of the 99604
Revised Code may enter into a subcontract with another entity 99605
under which the other entity provides all or part of the services 99606
described in division (B)(3) of this section. A subcontract may be 99607
entered into with another entity only if that entity meets all of 99608
the following conditions:99609

        (1) Is a private, not-for-profit entity;99610

        (2) Is physically and financially separate from any entity, 99611
or component of an entity, that engages in abortion activities;99612

        (3) Is not involved in or associated with any abortion 99613
activities, including providing abortion counseling or referrals 99614
to abortion clinics, performing abortion-related medical 99615
procedures, or engaging in pro-abortion advertising.99616

       (D) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 99617
under division (C) of section 5101.801 of the Revised Code as 99618
necessary to implement the Ohio parenting and pregnancy program.99619

       Sec. 5103.02.  As used in sections 5103.03 to 5103.17 of the 99620
Revised Code:99621

       (A)(1) "Association" or "institution" includes anyall of the 99622
following:99623

       (a) Any incorporated or unincorporated organization, society, 99624
association, or agency, public or private, that receives or cares 99625
for children for two or more consecutive weeks, including a 99626
therapeutic wilderness camp; any99627

       (b) Any individual, including the operator of a foster home, 99628
who, for hire, gain, or reward, receives or cares for children for 99629
two or more consecutive weeks, unless the individual is related to 99630
them by blood or marriage; and any99631

       (c) Any individual not in the regular employ of a court, or 99632
of an institution or association certified in accordance with 99633
section 5103.03 of the Revised Code, who in any manner becomes a 99634
party to the placing of children in foster homes, unless the 99635
individual is related to such children by blood or marriage, or is 99636
the appointed guardian of such children; provided, that any.99637

       (2) "Association" or "institution" does not include any of 99638
the following:99639

       (a) Any organization, society, association, school, agency, 99640
child guidance center, detention or rehabilitation facility, or 99641
children's clinic licensed, regulated, approved, operated under 99642
the direction of, or otherwise certified by the department of 99643
education, a local board of education, the department of youth 99644
services, the department of mental healthmental health and 99645
addiction services, or the department of developmental 99646
disabilities, or any;99647

       (b) Any individual who provides care for only a single-family 99648
group, placed there by their parents or other relative having 99649
custody, shall not be considered as being within the purview of 99650
these sections.99651

       (B) "Family foster home" means a foster home that is not a 99652
specialized foster home.99653

       (C) "Foster caregiver" means a person holding a valid foster 99654
home certificate issued under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code.99655

       (D) "Foster home" means a private residence in which children 99656
are received apart from their parents, guardian, or legal 99657
custodian, by an individual reimbursed for providing the children 99658
nonsecure care, supervision, or training twenty-four hours a day. 99659
"Foster home" does not include care provided for a child in the 99660
home of a person other than the child's parent, guardian, or legal 99661
custodian while the parent, guardian, or legal custodian is 99662
temporarily away. Family foster homes and specialized foster homes 99663
are types of foster homes.99664

       (E) "Medically fragile foster home" means a foster home that 99665
provides specialized medical services designed to meet the needs 99666
of children with intensive health care needs who meet all of the 99667
following criteria:99668

       (1) Under rules adopted by the department of job and family 99669
servicesmedicaid director governing payment under Chapter 5111. 99670
of the Revised Codemedicaid payments for long-term care services, 99671
the children require a skilled level of care.99672

       (2) The children require the services of a doctor of medicine 99673
or osteopathic medicine at least once a week due to the 99674
instability of their medical conditions.99675

       (3) The children require the services of a registered nurse 99676
on a daily basis.99677

       (4) The children are at risk of institutionalization in a 99678
hospital, skilled nursing facility, or intermediate care facility 99679
for the mentally retardedindividuals with intellectual 99680
disabilities.99681

       (F) "Recommending agency" means a public children services 99682
agency, private child placing agency, or private noncustodial 99683
agency that recommends that the department of job and family 99684
services take any of the following actions under section 5103.03 99685
of the Revised Code regarding a foster home:99686

       (1) Issue a certificate;99687

       (2) Deny a certificate;99688

       (3) Renew a certificate;99689

       (4) Deny renewal of a certificate;99690

       (5) Revoke a certificate.99691

       (G) "Specialized foster home" means a medically fragile 99692
foster home or a treatment foster home.99693

       (H) "Treatment foster home" means a foster home that 99694
incorporates special rehabilitative services designed to treat the 99695
specific needs of the children received in the foster home and 99696
that receives and cares for children who are emotionally or 99697
behaviorally disturbed, chemically dependent, mentally retarded, 99698
developmentally disabled, or who otherwise have exceptional needs.99699

       (I) "Therapeutic wilderness camp" means a structured, 99700
alternative residential setting for children who are experiencing 99701
emotional, behavioral, moral, social, or learning difficulties at 99702
home or school in which both of the following are the case:99703

       (1) The children spend the majority of their time, including 99704
overnight, either outdoors or in a primitive structure;99705

       (2) The children have been placed there by their parents or 99706
another relative having custody.99707

       Sec. 5103.0323.  (A) As used in this section, "government 99708
auditing standards" means the government auditing standards 99709
published by the comptroller general of the United States general 99710
accounting office"American institute of certified public 99711
accountants auditing standards" and "AICPA auditing standards" 99712
mean the auditing standards published by the American institute of 99713
certified public accountants.99714

       (B) The first time that a private child placing agency or 99715
private noncustodial agency seeks renewal of a certificate issued 99716
under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code, it shall provide the 99717
department of job and family services, as a condition of renewal, 99718
evidence of an independent financial statement audit of its first 99719
year of certification, unless the auditor of state has audited the 99720
agency during that year and the audit sets forth that no money has 99721
been illegally expended, converted, misappropriated, or is 99722
unaccounted for or sets forth findings that are inconsequential, 99723
as defined by governmentperformed by a licensed public accounting 99724
firm following applicable AICPA auditing standards for the most 99725
recent fiscal year. Thereafter, when an agency seeks renewal of 99726
its certificate, it shall provide the department evidence of an 99727
independent financial statement audit performed by a licensed 99728
public accounting firm following applicable AICPA auditing 99729
standards for the two most recent previous fiscal years it is 99730
possible for an independent audit to have been conducted, unless 99731
the auditor of state has audited the agency during those years and 99732
the audit sets forth that no money has been illegally expended, 99733
converted, misappropriated, or is unaccounted for or sets forth 99734
findings that are inconsequential, as defined by government 99735
auditing standards.99736

       (C) For an agency to be eligible for renewal, the independent 99737
audits must demonstrate that the agency operated in a fiscally 99738
accountable manner in accordance with state laws and rules and any 99739
agreement between the agency and a public children services 99740
agency.99741

       All audits required by this section shall be conducted in 99742
accordance with generally accepted government auditing standards99743
as determined by the department of job and family services.99744

       (D) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 99745
as necessary to implement this section. The director shall adopt 99746
the rules in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code.99747

       Sec. 5103.13.  (A) As used in this section and section 99748
5103.131 of the Revised Code:99749

       (1)(a) "Children's crisis care facility" means a facility 99750
that has as its primary purpose the provision of residential and 99751
other care to either or both of the following:99752

       (i) One or more preteens voluntarily placed in the facility 99753
by the preteen's parent or other caretaker who is facing a crisis 99754
that causes the parent or other caretaker to seek temporary care 99755
for the preteen and referral for support services;99756

       (ii) One or more preteens placed in the facility by a public 99757
children services agency or private child placing agency that has 99758
legal custody or permanent custody of the preteen and determines 99759
that an emergency situation exists necessitating the preteen's 99760
placement in the facility rather than an institution certified 99761
under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code or elsewhere.99762

       (b) "Children's crisis care facility" does not include either 99763
of the following:99764

        (i) Any organization, society, association, school, agency, 99765
child guidance center, detention or rehabilitation facility, or 99766
children's clinic licensed, regulated, approved, operated under 99767
the direction of, or otherwise certified by the department of 99768
education, a local board of education, the department of youth 99769
services, the department of mental healthmental health and 99770
addiction services, or the department of developmental 99771
disabilities;99772

        (ii) Any individual who provides care for only a 99773
single-family group, placed there by their parents or other 99774
relative having custody.99775

       (2) "Legal custody" and "permanent custody" have the same 99776
meanings as in section 2151.011 of the Revised Code.99777

       (3) "Preteen" means an individual under thirteen years of 99778
age.99779

       (B) No person shall operate a children's crisis care facility 99780
or hold a children's crisis care facility out as a certified 99781
children's crisis care facility unless there is a valid children's 99782
crisis care facility certificate issued under this section for the 99783
facility.99784

       (C) A person seeking to operate a children's crisis care 99785
facility shall apply to the director of job and family services to 99786
obtain a certificate for the facility. The director shall certify 99787
the person's children's crisis care facility if the facility meets 99788
all of the certification standards established in rules adopted 99789
under division (F) of this section and the person complies with 99790
all of the rules governing the certification of children's crisis 99791
care facilities adopted under that division. The issuance of a 99792
children's crisis care facility certificate does not exempt the 99793
facility from a requirement to obtain another certificate or 99794
license mandated by law.99795

       (D)(1) No certified children's crisis care facility shall do 99796
any of the following:99797

       (a) Provide residential care to a preteen for more than one 99798
hundred twenty days in a calendar year;99799

       (b) Subject to division (D)(1)(c) of this section and except 99800
as provided in division (D)(2) of this section, provide 99801
residential care to a preteen for more than sixty consecutive 99802
days;99803

       (c) Except as provided in division (D)(3) of this section, 99804
provide residential care to a preteen for more than seventy-two 99805
consecutive hours if a public children services agency or private 99806
child placing agency placed the preteen in the facility;99807

       (d) Fail to comply with section 2151.86 of the Revised Code.99808

       (2) A certified children's crisis care facility may provide 99809
residential care to a preteen for up to ninety consecutive days, 99810
other than a preteen placed in the facility by a public children 99811
services agency or private child placing agency, if any of the 99812
following are the case:99813

       (a) The preteen's parent or other caretaker is enrolled in an 99814
alcohol and drug addiction program certified under section 3793.06 99815
of the Revised Codeservice or a community mental health service 99816
certified under section 5119.6115119.36 of the Revised Code;99817

        (b) The preteen's parent or other caretaker is an inpatient 99818
in a hospital;99819

        (c) The preteen's parent or other caretaker is incarcerated;99820

        (d) A physician has diagnosed the preteen's parent or other 99821
caretaker as medically incapacitated.99822

       (3) A certified children's crisis care facility may provide 99823
residential care to a preteen placed in the facility by a public 99824
children services agency or private child placing agency for more 99825
than seventy-two consecutive hours if the director of job and 99826
family services or the director's designee issues the agency a 99827
waiver of the seventy-two consecutive hour limitation. The waiver 99828
may authorize the certified children's crisis care facility to 99829
provide residential care to the preteen for up to fourteen 99830
consecutive days.99831

       (E) The director of job and family services may suspend or 99832
revoke a children's crisis care facility's certificate pursuant to 99833
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code if the facility violates division 99834
(D) of this section or ceases to meet any of the certification 99835
standards established in rules adopted under division (F) of this 99836
section or the facility's operator ceases to comply with any of 99837
the rules governing the certification of children's crisis care 99838
facilities adopted under that division.99839

       (F) Not later than ninety days after September 21, 2006, the 99840
director of job and family services shall adopt rules pursuant to 99841
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for the certification of 99842
children's crisis care facilities. The rules shall specify that a 99843
certificate shall not be issued to an applicant if the conditions 99844
at the children's crisis care facility would jeopardize the health 99845
or safety of the preteens placed in the facility.99846

       Sec. 5103.42.  Prior to the beginning of the fiscal biennium 99847
that first follows October 5, 2000, the public children services 99848
agencies of Athens, Cuyahoga, Franklin, Greene, Guernsey, 99849
Hamilton, Lucas, and Summit counties shall each establish and 99850
maintain a regional training center. Prior to the beginning of the 99851
fiscal biennium that first follows the effective date of this 99852
amendment, the public children services agency of Butler county 99853
shall establish and maintain a regional training center. At any 99854
time after the beginning of thatthe specified biennium, the 99855
department of job and family services, on the recommendation of 99856
the Ohio child welfare training program steering committee, may 99857
direct a public children services agency to establish and maintain 99858
a training center to replace the center established by an agency 99859
under this section. There may be no more and no less than eight 99860
centers in existence at any time. The department may make a grant 99861
to a public children services agency that establishes and 99862
maintains a regional training center under this section for the 99863
purpose of wholly or partially subsidizing the operation of the 99864
center. The department shall specify in the grant all of the 99865
center's duties, including the duties specified in section 99866
5103.422 of the Revised Code.99867

       The regional training center established by the public 99868
children services agency of Butler county under this section 99869
replaces the regional training center previously established by 99870
the public children services agency of Hamilton county under this 99871
section. 99872

       Sec. 5104.012.  (A)(1) At the times specified in this 99873
division, the administrator of a child day-care center or a type A 99874
family day-care home shall request the superintendent of the 99875
bureau of criminal identification and investigation to conduct a 99876
criminal records check with respect to any applicant who has 99877
applied to the center or type A home for employment as a person 99878
responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child. 99879

        The administrator shall request a criminal records check 99880
pursuant to this division at the time of the applicant's initial 99881
application for employment and every fourfive years thereafter. 99882
When the administrator requests pursuant to this division a 99883
criminal records check for an applicant at the time of the 99884
applicant's initial application for employment, the administrator 99885
shall request that the superintendent obtain information from the 99886
federal bureau of investigation as a part of the criminal records 99887
check for the applicant, including fingerprint-based checks of 99888
national crime information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 99889
671, for the person subject to the criminal records check. In all 99890
other cases in which the administrator requests a criminal records 99891
check for an applicant pursuant to this division, the 99892
administrator may request that the superintendent include 99893
information from the federal bureau of investigation in the 99894
criminal records check, including fingerprint-based checks of 99895
national crime information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 99896
671.99897

       (2) A person required by division (A)(1) of this section to 99898
request a criminal records check shall provide to each applicant a 99899
copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 99900
109.572 of the Revised Code, provide to each applicant a standard 99901
impression sheet to obtain fingerprint impressions prescribed 99902
pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 109.572 of the Revised 99903
Code, obtain the completed form and impression sheet from each 99904
applicant, and forward the completed form and impression sheet to 99905
the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 99906
investigation at the time the person requests a criminal records 99907
check pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section. On and after 99908
August 14, 2008, the administrator of a child day-care center or a 99909
type A family day-care home shall review the results of the 99910
criminal records check before the applicant has sole 99911
responsibility for the care, custody, or control of any child.99912

       (3) An applicant who receives pursuant to division (A)(2) of 99913
this section a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division 99914
(C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a copy of an 99915
impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that 99916
section and who is requested to complete the form and provide a 99917
set of fingerprint impressions shall complete the form or provide 99918
all the information necessary to complete the form and shall 99919
provide the impression sheet with the impressions of the 99920
applicant's fingerprints. If an applicant, upon request, fails to 99921
provide the information necessary to complete the form or fails to 99922
provide impressions of the applicant's fingerprints, the center or 99923
type A home shall not employ that applicant for any position for 99924
which a criminal records check is required by division (A)(1) of 99925
this section.99926

       (B)(1) Except as provided in rules adopted under division (E) 99927
of this section, no child day-care center or type A family 99928
day-care home shall employ or contract with another entity for the 99929
services of a person as a person responsible for the care, 99930
custody, or control of a child if the person previously has been 99931
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the violations described 99932
in division (A)(5) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code.99933

       (2) A child day-care center or type A family day-care home 99934
may employ an applicant conditionally until the criminal records 99935
check required by this section is completed and the center or home 99936
receives the results of the criminal records check. If the results 99937
of the criminal records check indicate that, pursuant to division 99938
(B)(1) of this section, the applicant does not qualify for 99939
employment, the center or home shall release the applicant from 99940
employment.99941

       (C)(1) Each child day-care center and type A family day-care 99942
home shall pay to the bureau of criminal identification and 99943
investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of 99944
section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each criminal records 99945
check conducted in accordance with that section upon the request 99946
pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section of the administrator 99947
or provider of the center or home.99948

       (2) A child day-care center and type A family day-care home 99949
may charge an applicant a fee for the costs it incurs in obtaining 99950
a criminal records check under this section. A fee charged under 99951
this division shall not exceed the amount of fees the center or 99952
home pays under division (C)(1) of this section. If a fee is 99953
charged under this division, the center or home shall notify the 99954
applicant at the time of the applicant's initial application for 99955
employment of the amount of the fee and that, unless the fee is 99956
paid, the center or type A home will not consider the applicant 99957
for employment.99958

       (D) The report of any criminal records check conducted by the 99959
bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance 99960
with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant to a request 99961
under division (A)(1) of this section is not a public record for 99962
the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not 99963
be made available to any person other than the applicant who is 99964
the subject of the criminal records check or the applicant's 99965
representative; the center or type A home requesting the criminal 99966
records check or its representative; the department of job and 99967
family services or a county department of job and family services; 99968
and any court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 99969
involved in a case dealing with the denial of employment to the 99970
applicant.99971

       (E) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 99972
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this 99973
section, including rules specifying circumstances under which a 99974
center or home may hire a person who has been convicted of an 99975
offense listed in division (B)(1) of this section but who meets 99976
standards in regard to rehabilitation set by the department.99977

       (F) Any person required by division (A)(1) of this section to 99978
request a criminal records check shall inform each person, at the 99979
time of the person's initial application for employment, that the 99980
person is required to provide a set of impressions of the person's 99981
fingerprints and that a criminal records check is required to be 99982
conducted and satisfactorily completed in accordance with section 99983
109.572 of the Revised Code if the person comes under final 99984
consideration for appointment or employment as a precondition to 99985
employment for that position.99986

       (G) As used in this section:99987

       (1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 99988
consideration for appointment to or employment in a position with 99989
a child day-care center or a type A family day-care home as a 99990
person responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child; 99991
an in-home aide certified pursuant to section 5104.12 of the 99992
Revised Code; or any person who would serve in any position with a 99993
child day-care center or a type A family day-care home as a person 99994
responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child pursuant 99995
to a contract with another entity.99996

       (2) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 99997
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.99998

       Sec. 5104.013.  (A)(1) At the times specified in division 99999
(A)(3) of this section, the director of job and family services, 100000
as part of the process of licensure of child day-care centers and 100001
type A family day-care homes, shall request the superintendent of 100002
the bureau of criminal identification and investigation to conduct 100003
a criminal records check with respect to the following persons:100004

       (a) Any owner, licensee, or administrator of a child day-care 100005
center;100006

       (b) Any owner, licensee, or administrator of a type A family 100007
day-care home and any person eighteen years of age or older who 100008
resides in a type A family day-care home.100009

       (2) At the times specified in division (A)(3) of this 100010
section, the director of a county department of job and family 100011
services, as part of the process of certification of type B family 100012
day-care homes, shall request the superintendent of the bureau of 100013
criminal identification and investigation to conduct a criminal 100014
records check with respect to any authorized provider of a 100015
certified type B family day-care home and any person eighteen 100016
years of age or older who resides in a certified type B family 100017
day-care home.100018

       (3) The director of job and family services shall request a 100019
criminal records check pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section 100020
at the time of the initial application for licensure and every 100021
fourfive years thereafter. The director of a county department of 100022
job and family services shall request a criminal records check 100023
pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section at the time of the 100024
initial application for certification and every fourfive years 100025
thereafter at the time of a certification renewal. When the 100026
director of job and family services or the director of a county 100027
department of job and family services requests pursuant to 100028
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section a criminal records check 100029
for a person at the time of the person's initial application for 100030
licensure or certification, the director shall request that the 100031
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 100032
investigation obtain information from the federal bureau of 100033
investigation as a part of the criminal records check for the 100034
person, including fingerprint-based checks of national crime 100035
information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 671 for the person 100036
subject to the criminal records check. In all other cases in which 100037
the director of job and family services or the director of a 100038
county department of job and family services requests a criminal 100039
records check for an applicant pursuant to division (A)(1) or (2) 100040
of this section, the director may request that the superintendent 100041
include information from the federal bureau of investigation in 100042
the criminal records check, including fingerprint-based checks of 100043
national crime information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 100044
671. 100045

       (4) The director of job and family services shall review the 100046
results of a criminal records check subsequent to a request made 100047
pursuant to divisions (A)(1) and (3) of this section prior to 100048
approval of a license. The director of a county department of job 100049
and family services shall review the results of a criminal records 100050
check subsequent to a request made pursuant to divisions (A)(2) 100051
and (3) of this section prior to approval of certification.100052

       (B) The director of job and family services or the director 100053
of a county department of job and family services shall provide to 100054
each person for whom a criminal records check is required under 100055
this section a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division 100056
(C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard 100057
impression sheet to obtain fingerprint impressions prescribed 100058
pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section, obtain the completed 100059
form and impression sheet from that person, and forward the 100060
completed form and impression sheet to the superintendent of the 100061
bureau of criminal identification and investigation.100062

       (C) A person who receives pursuant to division (B) of this 100063
section a copy of the form and standard impression sheet described 100064
in that division and who is requested to complete the form and 100065
provide a set of fingerprint impressions shall complete the form 100066
or provide all the information necessary to complete the form and 100067
shall provide the impression sheet with the impressions of the 100068
person's fingerprints. If the person, upon request, fails to 100069
provide the information necessary to complete the form or fails to 100070
provide impressions of the person's fingerprints, the director may 100071
consider the failure as a reason to deny licensure or 100072
certification.100073

       (D) Except as provided in rules adopted under division (G) of 100074
this section, the director of job and family services shall not 100075
grant a license to a child day-care center or type A family 100076
day-care home and a county director of job and family services 100077
shall not certify a type B family day-care home if a person for 100078
whom a criminal records check was required in connection with the 100079
center or home previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty 100080
to any of the violations described in division (A)(5) of section 100081
109.572 of the Revised Code.100082

       (E) Each child day-care center, type A family day-care home, 100083
and type B family day-care home shall pay to the bureau of 100084
criminal identification and investigation the fee prescribed 100085
pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 100086
for each criminal records check conducted in accordance with that 100087
section upon a request made pursuant to division (A) of this 100088
section.100089

       (F) The report of any criminal records check conducted by the 100090
bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance 100091
with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant to a request 100092
made under division (A) of this section is not a public record for 100093
the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not 100094
be made available to any person other than the person who is the 100095
subject of the criminal records check or the person's 100096
representative, the director of job and family services, the 100097
director of a county department of job and family services, the 100098
center, type A home, or type B home involved, and any court, 100099
hearing officer, or other necessary individual involved in a case 100100
dealing with a denial of licensure or certification related to the 100101
criminal records check.100102

       (G) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 100103
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this 100104
section, including rules specifying exceptions to the prohibition 100105
in division (D) of this section for persons who have been 100106
convicted of an offense listed in that division but who meet 100107
standards in regard to rehabilitation set by the director.100108

       (H) As used in this section, "criminal records check" has the 100109
same meaning as in section 109.572 of the Revised Code.100110

       Sec. 5104.02.  (A) The director of job and family services is 100111
responsible for the licensing of child day-care centers and type A 100112
family day-care homes. Each entity operating a head start program 100113
shall meet the criteria for, and be licensed as, a child day-care 100114
center. The director is responsible for the enforcement of this 100115
chapter and of rules promulgated pursuant to this chapter.100116

       No person, firm, organization, institution, or agency shall 100117
operate, establish, manage, conduct, or maintain a child day-care 100118
center or type A family day-care home without a license issued 100119
under section 5104.03 of the Revised Code. The current license 100120
shall be posted in a conspicuous place in the center or type A 100121
home that is accessible to parents, custodians, or guardians and 100122
employees of the center or type A home at all times when the 100123
center or type A home is in operation.100124

       (B) A person, firm, institution, organization, or agency 100125
operating any of the following programs is exempt from the 100126
requirements of this chapter:100127

       (1) A program of child care that operates for two or less 100128
consecutive weeks;100129

       (2) Child care in places of worship during religious 100130
activities during which children are cared for while at least one 100131
parent, guardian, or custodian of each child is participating in 100132
such activities and is readily available;100133

       (3) Religious activities which do not provide child care;100134

       (4) Supervised training, instruction, or activities of 100135
children in specific areas, including, but not limited to: art; 100136
drama; dance; music; gymnastics, swimming, or another athletic 100137
skill or sport; computers; or an educational subject conducted on 100138
an organized or periodic basis no more than one day a week and for 100139
no more than six hours duration;100140

       (5) Programs in which the director determines that at least 100141
one parent, custodian, or guardian of each child is on the 100142
premises of the facility offering child care and is readily 100143
accessible at all times, except that child care provided on the 100144
premises at which a parent, custodian, or guardian is employed 100145
more than two and one-half hours a day shall be licensed in 100146
accordance with division (A) of this section;100147

       (6)(a) Programs that provide child care funded and regulated 100148
or operated and regulated by state departments other than the 100149
department of job and family services or the state board of 100150
education when the director of job and family services has 100151
determined that the rules governing the program are equivalent to 100152
or exceed the rules promulgated pursuant to this chapter.100153

       Notwithstanding any exemption from regulation under this 100154
chapter, each state department shall submit to the director of job 100155
and family services a copy of the rules that govern programs that 100156
provide child care and are regulated or operated and regulated by 100157
the department. Annually, each state department shall submit to 100158
the director a report for each such program it regulates or 100159
operates and regulates that includes the following information:100160

       (i) The site location of the program;100161

       (ii) The maximum number of infants, toddlers, preschool-age 100162
children, or school-age children served by the program at one 100163
time;100164

       (iii) The number of adults providing child care for the 100165
number of infants, toddlers, preschool-age children, or school-age 100166
children;100167

       (iv) Any changes in the rules made subsequent to the time 100168
when the rules were initially submitted to the director.100169

       The director shall maintain a record of the child care 100170
information submitted by other state departments and shall provide 100171
this information upon request to the general assembly or the 100172
public.100173

       (b) Child care programs conducted by boards of education or 100174
by chartered nonpublic schools that are conducted in school 100175
buildings and that provide child care to school-age children only 100176
shall be exempt from meeting or exceeding rules promulgated 100177
pursuant to this chapter.100178

       (7) Any preschool program or school child program, except a 100179
head start program, that is subject to licensure by the department 100180
of education under sections 3301.52 to 3301.59 of the Revised 100181
Code.100182

       (8) Any program providing child care that meets all of the 100183
following requirements and, on October 20, 1987, was being 100184
operated by a nonpublic school that holds a charter issued by the 100185
state board of education for kindergarten only:100186

       (a) The nonpublic school has given the notice to the state 100187
board and the director of job and family services required by 100188
Section 4 of Substitute House Bill No. 253 of the 117th general 100189
assembly;100190

       (b) The nonpublic school continues to be chartered by the 100191
state board for kindergarten, or receives and continues to hold a 100192
charter from the state board for kindergarten through grade five;100193

       (c) The program is conducted in a school building;100194

       (d) The program is operated in accordance with rules 100195
promulgated by the state board under sections 3301.52 to 3301.57 100196
of the Revised Code.100197

       (9) A youth development program operated outside of school 100198
hours by a community-based center to which all of the following 100199
apply:100200

       (a) The children enrolled in the program are under nineteen 100201
years of age and enrolled in or eligible to be enrolled in a grade 100202
of kindergarten or above.100203

       (b) The program provides informal child care and at least 100204
two, which is child care that does not require parental signature, 100205
permission, or notice for the child receiving the care to enter or 100206
leave the program;100207

       (c) The program provides any of the following supervised 100208
activities: educational, recreational, culturally enriching, 100209
social, and personal development activities.100210

       (c)(d) The program is eligible for participation in the child 100211
and adult care food program as an outside-school-hours care center 100212
pursuant to standards established under section 3313.813 of the 100213
Revised Code.100214

       (d)(e) The community-based center operating the program is 100215
exempt from federal income taxation pursuant to 26 U.S.C. 501(a) 100216
and (c)(3).100217

       (10) A preschool program operated by a nonchartered, 100218
nontax-supported school if the preschool program meets all of the 100219
following conditions:100220

       (a) The program complies with state and local health, fire, 100221
and safety laws.100222

       (b) The program annually certifies in a report to the parents 100223
of its pupils that the school is in compliance with division 100224
(B)(10)(a) of this section and files a copy of the report with the 100225
department of job and family services on or before the thirtieth 100226
day of September of each year.100227

       (c) The program complies with all applicable reporting 100228
requirements in the same manner as required by the state board of 100229
education for nonchartered, nonpublic primary and secondary 100230
schools.100231

       (d) The program is associated with a nonchartered, 100232
nontax-supported primary or secondary school. 100233

       Sec. 5104.021.  The director of job and family services may100234
not issue a child day-care center or type A family day-care home 100235
license to a youth development program that is exempted by 100236
division (B)(9) of section 5104.02 of the Revised Code from the 100237
requirements of this chapter if the youth development program 100238
applies for and meets all of the requirements for the license.100239

       Sec. 5104.03.  (A) Any person, firm, organization, 100240
institution, or agency desiring to establish a child day-care 100241
center or type A family day-care home shall apply for a license to 100242
the director of job and family services on such form as the 100243
director prescribes. The director shall provide at no charge to 100244
each applicant for licensure a copy of the child care license 100245
requirements in this chapter and a copy of the rules adopted 100246
pursuant to this chapter. The copies may be provided in paper or 100247
electronic form.100248

       Fees shall be set by the director pursuant to section 100249
5104.011 of the Revised Code and shall be paid at the time of 100250
application for a license to operate a center or type A home. Fees 100251
collected under this section shall be paid into the state treasury 100252
to the credit of the general revenue fund.100253

       (B) Upon filing of the application for a license, the 100254
director shall investigate and inspect the center or type A home 100255
to determine the license capacity for each age category of 100256
children of the center or type A home and to determine whether the 100257
center or type A home complies with this chapter and rules adopted 100258
pursuant to this chapter. When, after investigation and 100259
inspection, the director is satisfied that this chapter and rules 100260
adopted pursuant to it are complied with, subject to division (G) 100261
of this section, a provisional license shall be issued as soon as 100262
practicable in such form and manner as prescribed by the director. 100263
The provisional license shall be valid for twelve months from the 100264
date of issuance unless revoked.100265

       (C) The director shall investigate and inspect the center or 100266
type A home at least once during operation under the provisional 100267
license. If after the investigation and inspection the director 100268
determines that the requirements of this chapter and rules adopted 100269
pursuant to this chapter are met, subject to division (G) of this 100270
section, the director shall issue a license to the center or home.100271

       (D) The license or provisional license shall state the name 100272
of the licensee, the name of the administrator, the address of the 100273
center or type A home, and the license capacity for each age 100274
category of children. The license or provisional license shall 100275
include thereon, in accordance with section 5104.011 of the 100276
Revised Code, the toll-free telephone number to be used by persons 100277
suspecting that the center or type A home has violated a provision 100278
of this chapter or rules adopted pursuant to this chapter. A 100279
license or provisional license is valid only for the licensee, 100280
administrator, address, and license capacity for each age category 100281
of children designated on the license. The license capacity 100282
specified on the license or provisional license is the maximum 100283
number of children in each age category that may be cared for in 100284
the center or type A home at one time.100285

       The center or type A home licensee shall notify the director 100286
when the administrator of the center or home changes. The director 100287
shall amend the current license or provisional license to reflect 100288
a change in an administrator, if the administrator meets the 100289
requirements of Chapter 5104. of the Revised Code and rules 100290
adopted pursuant to Chapter 5104. of the Revised Code, or a change 100291
in license capacity for any age category of children as determined 100292
by the director of job and family services.100293

       (E) If the director revokes the license of a center or a type 100294
A home, the director shall not issue another license to the owner 100295
of the center or type A home until five years have elapsed from 100296
the date the license is revoked. 100297

        If the director denies an application for a license, the 100298
director shall not accept another application from the applicant 100299
until five years have elapsed from the date the application is 100300
denied.100301

        (F) If during the application for licensure process the 100302
director determines that the license of the owner has been 100303
revoked, the investigation of the center or type A home shall 100304
cease. This action does not constitute denial of the application 100305
and may not be appealed under division (G) of this section. 100306

       (G) All actions of the director with respect to licensing 100307
centers or type A homes, refusal to license, and revocation of a 100308
license shall be in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 100309
Code. Any applicant who is denied a license or any owner whose 100310
license is revoked may appeal in accordance with section 119.12 of 100311
the Revised Code.100312

       (H) In no case shall the director issue a license or 100313
provisional license under this section for a type A home or center 100314
if the director, based on documentation provided by the 100315
appropriate county department of job and family services, 100316
determines that the applicant previously had been certified as a 100317
type B family day-care home, that the county department revoked 100318
that certification within the immediately preceding five years, 100319
that the revocation was based on the applicant's refusal or 100320
inability to comply with the criteria for certification, and that 100321
the refusal or inability resulted in a risk to the health or 100322
safety of children.100323

       Sec. 5104.08. (A) There is hereby created in the department 100324
of job and family services a child care advisory council to advise 100325
and assist the department in the administration of this chapter 100326
and in the development of child care. The council shall consist of 100327
twenty-two voting members appointed by the director of job and 100328
family services with the approval of the governor. The director of 100329
job and family services, the director of developmental 100330
disabilities, the director of mental healthmental health and 100331
addiction services, the superintendent of public instruction, the 100332
director of health, the director of commerce, and the state fire 100333
marshal shall serve as nonvoting members of the council.100334

       Six members shall be representatives of child care centers 100335
subject to licensing, the members to represent a variety of 100336
centers, including nonprofit and proprietary, from different 100337
geographical areas of the state. At least three members shall be 100338
parents, guardians, or custodians of children receiving child care 100339
or publicly funded child care in the child's own home, a center, a 100340
type A home, a head start program, a certified type B home, or a 100341
type B home at the time of appointment. Three members shall be 100342
representatives of in-home aides, type A homes, certified type B 100343
homes, or type B homes or head start programs. At least six 100344
members shall represent county departments of job and family 100345
services. The remaining members shall be representatives of the 100346
teaching, child development, and health professions, and other 100347
individuals interested in the welfare of children. At least six 100348
members of the council shall not be employees or licensees of a 100349
child day-care center, head start program, or type A home, or 100350
providers operating a certified type B home or type B home, or 100351
in-home aides.100352

        Appointments shall be for three-year terms. Vacancies shall 100353
be filled for the unexpired terms. A member of the council is 100354
subject to removal by the director of job and family services for 100355
a willful and flagrant exercise of authority or power that is not 100356
authorized by law, for a refusal or willful neglect to perform any 100357
official duty as a member of the council imposed by law, or for 100358
being guilty of misfeasance, malfeasance, nonfeasance, or gross 100359
neglect of duty as a member of the council.100360

       There shall be two co-chairpersons of the council. One 100361
co-chairperson shall be the director of job and family services or 100362
the director's designee, and one co-chairperson shall be elected 100363
by the members of the council. The council shall meet as often as 100364
is necessary to perform its duties, provided that it shall meet at 100365
least once in each quarter of each calendar year and at the call 100366
of the co-chairpersons. The co-chairpersons or their designee 100367
shall send to each member a written notice of the date, time, and 100368
place of each meeting.100369

       Members of the council shall serve without compensation, but 100370
shall be reimbursed for necessary expenses.100371

       (B) The child care advisory council shall advise the director 100372
on matters affecting the licensing of centers and type A homes and 100373
the certification of type B homes and in-home aides. The council 100374
shall make an annual report to the director of job and family 100375
services that addresses the availability, affordability, 100376
accessibility, and quality of child care and that summarizes the 100377
recommendations and plans of action that the council has proposed 100378
to the director during the preceding fiscal year. The director of 100379
job and family services shall provide copies of the report to the 100380
governor, speaker and minority leader of the house of 100381
representatives, and the president and minority leader of the 100382
senate and, on request, shall make copies available to the public.100383

       (C) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 100384
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this 100385
section.100386

       Sec. 5104.11.  (A)(1) Every person desiring to receive 100387
certification for a type B family day-care home to provide 100388
publicly funded child care shall apply for certification to the 100389
county director of job and family services on such forms as the 100390
director of job and family services prescribes. The county 100391
director shall provide at no charge to each applicant a copy of 100392
rules for certifying type B family day-care homes adopted pursuant 100393
to this chapter.100394

       (2) Except as provided in division (G)(1) of section 5104.011 100395
of the Revised Code, after receipt of an application for 100396
certification from a type B family day-care home, the county 100397
director of job and family services shall inspect the home. If it 100398
complies with this chapter and any applicable rules adopted under 100399
this chapter, the county department shall certify the type B 100400
family day-care home to provide publicly funded child care 100401
pursuant to this chapter and any rules adopted under it. The 100402
director of job and family services or a county director of job 100403
and family services may contract with a government entity or a 100404
private nonprofit entity for that entity to inspect and certify 100405
type B family day-care homes pursuant to this section. The county 100406
department of job and family services, government entity, or 100407
nonprofit entity shall conduct the inspection prior to the 100408
issuance of a certificate for the type B home and, as part of that 100409
inspection, ensure that the type B home is safe and sanitary.100410

       (3)(a) On receipt of an application for certification for a 100411
type B family day-care home to provide publicly funded child care 100412
or for renewal of such certification, the county department shall 100413
request from both of the followingthe public children services 100414
agency information concerning any abuse or neglect report made 100415
pursuant to section 2151.421 of the Revised Code of which the 100416
applicant, any other adult residing in the applicant's home, or a 100417
person designated by the applicant to be an emergency or 100418
substitute caregiver for the applicant is the subject:100419

       (i) The public children services agency, until the county 100420
department is notified by the department of job and family 100421
services that the uniform statewide automated child welfare 100422
information system has been finalized statewide; 100423

       (ii) Upon receipt of notification under division (D) of 100424
section 5101.13 of the Revised Code that the uniform statewide 100425
automated child welfare information system has been implemented 100426
statewide, the uniform statewide automated child welfare 100427
information system via the department.100428

       (b) The county department shall consider any information 100429
provided by the agency or the department pursuant to section 100430
5153.175 of the Revised Code. If the county department determines 100431
that the information, when viewed within the totality of the 100432
circumstances, reasonably leads to the conclusion that the 100433
applicant may directly or indirectly endanger the health, safety, 100434
or welfare of children, the county department shall deny the 100435
application for certification or renewal of certification, or 100436
revoke the certification of an authorized provider.100437

       (c) As used in division (A)(3) of this section, "public 100438
children services agency" means either an entity separate from the 100439
county department or the part of the county department that serves 100440
as the county's public children services agency, as appropriate.100441

       (4) Except as provided in division (A)(5) of this section, an 100442
authorized provider of a type B family day-care home that receives 100443
a certificate pursuant to this section to provide publicly funded 100444
child care is an independent contractor and is not an employee of 100445
the county department of job and family services that issues the 100446
certificate.100447

       (5) For purposes of Chapter 4141. of the Revised Code, 100448
determinations concerning the employment of an authorized provider 100449
of a type B family day-care home that receives a certificate 100450
pursuant to this section shall be determined under Chapter 4141. 100451
of the Revised Code.100452

       (B)(1) If the county director of job and family services 100453
determines that the type B family day-care home complies with this 100454
chapter and any rules adopted under it, the county director shall 100455
issue to the provider a certificate to provide publicly funded 100456
child care, which. The certificate is valid for twelve months, 100457
unless revoked earlier. The county director may revoke the 100458
certificate after determining that revocation is necessary. The 100459
authorized provider shall post the certificate in a conspicuous 100460
place in the certified type B home that is accessible to parents, 100461
custodians, or guardians at all times. The certificate shall state 100462
the name and address of the authorized provider, the maximum 100463
number of children who may be cared for at any one time in the 100464
certified type B home, the expiration date of the certification, 100465
and the name and telephone number of the county director who 100466
issued the certificate.100467

       (2) The county director may revoke a certificate to provide 100468
publicly funded child care in either of the following 100469
circumstances:100470

        (a) The county director determines, pursuant to rules adopted 100471
under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, that revocation is 100472
necessary;100473

        (b) The authorized provider does not comply with division 100474
(D)(2) of section 5104.32 of the Revised Code.100475

       (C)(1) The county director shall inspect every certified type 100476
B family day-care home at least twice within each twelve-month 100477
period of the operation of the certified type B home. A minimum of 100478
one inspection shall be unannounced and all inspections may be 100479
unannounced. Upon receipt of a complaint, the county director 100480
shall investigate the certified type B home, and division (C)(2) 100481
of this section applies regarding the complaint. The authorized 100482
provider shall permit the county director to inspect any part of 100483
the certified type B home. The county director shall prepare a 100484
written inspection report and furnish one copy to the authorized 100485
provider within a reasonable time after the inspection.100486

       (2) Upon receipt of a complaint as described in division 100487
(C)(1) of this section, in addition to the investigation that is 100488
required under that division, both of the following apply:100489

       (a) If the complaint alleges that a child suffered physical 100490
harm while receiving child care at the certified type B family 100491
day-care home or that the noncompliance with law or act alleged in 100492
the complaint involved, resulted in, or poses a substantial risk 100493
of physical harm to a child receiving child care at the home, the 100494
county director shall inspect the home.100495

       (b) If division (C)(2)(a) of this section does not apply 100496
regarding the complaint, the county director may inspect the 100497
certified type B family day-care home.100498

       (3) Division (C)(2) of this section does not limit, restrict, 100499
or negate any duty of the county director to inspect a certified 100500
type B family day-care home that otherwise is imposed under this 100501
section, or any authority of the county director to inspect a home 100502
that otherwise is granted under this section when the county 100503
director believes the inspection is necessary and it is permitted 100504
under the grant.100505

       (D) The county director of job and family services, in 100506
accordance with rules adopted pursuant to section 5104.052 of the 100507
Revised Code regarding fire safety and fire prevention, shall 100508
inspect each type B home that applies to be certified that is 100509
providing or is to provide publicly funded child care.100510

       (E) All materials that are supplied by the department of job 100511
and family services to type A family day-care home providers, type 100512
B family day-care home providers, in-home aides, persons who 100513
desire to be type A family day-care home providers, type B family 100514
day-care home providers, or in-home aides, and caretaker parents 100515
shall be written at no higher than the sixth grade reading level. 100516
The department may employ a readability expert to verify its 100517
compliance with this division.100518

       Sec. 5104.12.  (A) The county director of job and family 100519
services may certify in-home aides to provide publicly funded 100520
child care pursuant to this chapter and any rules adopted under 100521
it. Any in-home aide who receives a certificate pursuant to this 100522
section to provide publicly funded child care is an independent 100523
contractor and is not an employee of the county department of job 100524
and family services that issues the certificate.100525

       (B) Every person desiring to receive certification as an 100526
in-home aide shall apply for certification to the county director 100527
of job and family services on such forms as the director of job 100528
and family services prescribes. The county director shall provide 100529
at no charge to each applicant a copy of rules for certifying 100530
in-home aides adopted pursuant to this chapter.100531

       (C)(1) If the county director of job and family services 100532
determines that public funds are available and that the person 100533
complies with this chapter and any rules adopted under it, the 100534
county director shall certify the person as an in-home aide and 100535
issue the person a certificate to provide publicly funded child 100536
care for twelve months. The county director may revoke the 100537
certificate after determining that revocation is necessary. The 100538
county director shall furnish a copy of the certificate to the 100539
parent, custodian, or guardian. The certificate shall state the 100540
name and address of the in-home aide, the expiration date of the 100541
certification, and the name and telephone number of the county 100542
director who issued the certificate.100543

       (2) The county director may revoke the certificate in either 100544
of the following circumstances:100545

        (a) The county director determines, pursuant to rules adopted 100546
under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, that revocation is 100547
necessary;100548

        (b) The in-home aide does not comply with division (D)(2) of 100549
section 5104.32 of the Revised Code.100550

       (D)(1) The county director of job and family services shall 100551
inspect every home of a child who is receiving publicly funded 100552
child care in the child's own home while the in-home aide is 100553
providing the services. Inspections may be unannounced. Upon 100554
receipt of a complaint, the county director shall investigate the 100555
in-home aide, shall investigate the home of a child who is 100556
receiving publicly funded child care in the child's own home, and 100557
division (D)(2) of this section applies regarding the complaint. 100558
The caretaker parent shall permit the county director to inspect 100559
any part of the child's home. The county director shall prepare a 100560
written inspection report and furnish one copy each to the in-home 100561
aide and the caretaker parent within a reasonable time after the 100562
inspection.100563

       (2) Upon receipt of a complaint as described in division 100564
(D)(1) of this section, in addition to the investigations that are 100565
required under that division, both of the following apply:100566

       (a) If the complaint alleges that a child suffered physical 100567
harm while receiving publicly funded child care in the child's own 100568
home from an in-home aide or that the noncompliance with law or 100569
act alleged in the complaint involved, resulted in, or poses a 100570
substantial risk of physical harm to a child receiving publicly 100571
funded child care in the child's own home from an in-home aide, 100572
the county director shall inspect the home of the child.100573

       (b) If division (D)(2)(a) of this section does not apply 100574
regarding the complaint, the county director may inspect the home 100575
of the child.100576

       (3) Division (D)(2) of this section does not limit, restrict, 100577
or negate any duty of the county director to inspect a home of a 100578
child who is receiving publicly funded child care from an in-home 100579
aide that otherwise is imposed under this section, or any 100580
authority of the county director to inspect such a home that 100581
otherwise is granted under this section when the county director 100582
believes the inspection is necessary and it is permitted under the 100583
grant.100584

       Sec. 5104.32.  (A) Except as provided in division (C) of this 100585
section, all purchases of publicly funded child care shall be made 100586
under a contract entered into by a licensed child day-care center, 100587
licensed type A family day-care home, certified type B family 100588
day-care home, certified in-home aide, approved child day camp, 100589
licensed preschool program, licensed school child program, or 100590
border state child care provider and the department of job and 100591
family services. All contracts for publicly funded child care 100592
shall be contingent upon the availability of state and federal 100593
funds. The department shall prescribe a standard form to be used 100594
for all contracts for the purchase of publicly funded child care, 100595
regardless of the source of public funds used to purchase the 100596
child care. To the extent permitted by federal law and 100597
notwithstanding any other provision of the Revised Code that 100598
regulates state contracts or contracts involving the expenditure 100599
of state or federal funds, all contracts for publicly funded child 100600
care shall be entered into in accordance with the provisions of 100601
this chapter and are exempt from any other provision of the 100602
Revised Code that regulates state contracts or contracts involving 100603
the expenditure of state or federal funds.100604

       (B) Each contract for publicly funded child care shall 100605
specify at least the following:100606

       (1) That the provider of publicly funded child care agrees to 100607
be paid for rendering services at the lower of the rate 100608
customarily charged by the provider for children enrolled for 100609
child care or the reimbursement ceiling or rate of payment 100610
established pursuant to section 5104.30 of the Revised Code;100611

       (2) That, if a provider provides child care to an individual 100612
potentially eligible for publicly funded child care who is 100613
subsequently determined to be eligible, the department agrees to 100614
pay for all child care provided between the date the county 100615
department of job and family services receives the individual's 100616
completed application and the date the individual's eligibility is 100617
determined;100618

       (3) Whether the county department of job and family services, 100619
the provider, or a child care resource and referral service 100620
organization will make eligibility determinations, whether the 100621
provider or a child care resource and referral service 100622
organization will be required to collect information to be used by 100623
the county department to make eligibility determinations, and the 100624
time period within which the provider or child care resource and 100625
referral service organization is required to complete required 100626
eligibility determinations or to transmit to the county department 100627
any information collected for the purpose of making eligibility 100628
determinations;100629

       (4) That the provider, other than a border state child care 100630
provider, shall continue to be licensed, approved, or certified 100631
pursuant to this chapter and shall comply with all standards and 100632
other requirements in this chapter and in rules adopted pursuant 100633
to this chapter for maintaining the provider's license, approval, 100634
or certification;100635

       (5) That, in the case of a border state child care provider, 100636
the provider shall continue to be licensed, certified, or 100637
otherwise approved by the state in which the provider is located 100638
and shall comply with all standards and other requirements 100639
established by that state for maintaining the provider's license, 100640
certificate, or other approval;100641

       (6) Whether the provider will be paid by the state department 100642
of job and family services or in some other manner as prescribed 100643
by rules adopted under section 5104.42 of the Revised Code;100644

       (7) That the contract is subject to the availability of state 100645
and federal funds.100646

       (C) Unless specifically prohibited by federal law or by rules 100647
adopted under section 5104.42 of the Revised Code, the county 100648
department of job and family services shall give individuals 100649
eligible for publicly funded child care the option of obtaining 100650
certificates that the individual may use to purchase services from 100651
any provider qualified to provide publicly funded child care under 100652
section 5104.31 of the Revised Code. Providers of publicly funded 100653
child care may present these certificates for payment in 100654
accordance with rules that the director of job and family services 100655
shall adopt. Only providers may receive payment for certificates. 100656
The value of the certificate shall be based on the lower of the 100657
rate customarily charged by the provider or the rate of payment 100658
established pursuant to section 5104.30 of the Revised Code. The 100659
county department may provide the certificates to the individuals 100660
or may contract with child care providers or child care resource 100661
and referral service organizations that make determinations of 100662
eligibility for publicly funded child care pursuant to contracts 100663
entered into under section 5104.34 of the Revised Code for the 100664
providers or resource and referral service organizations to 100665
provide the certificates to individuals whom they determine are 100666
eligible for publicly funded child care.100667

       For each six-month period a provider of publicly funded child 100668
care provides publicly funded child care to the child of an 100669
individual given certificates, the individual shall provide the 100670
provider certificates for days the provider would have provided 100671
publicly funded child care to the child had the child been 100672
present. The maximum number of days providers shall be provided 100673
certificates shall not exceed ten days in a six-month period 100674
during which publicly funded child care is provided to the child 100675
regardless of the number of providers that provide publicly funded 100676
child care to the child during that period.100677

       (D)(1) The department shall establish the Ohio electronic 100678
child care system to track attendance and calculate payments for 100679
publicly funded child care. The system shall include issuing an 100680
electronic child care card to each caretaker parent to swipe 100681
through a point-of-service device issued to an eligible provider, 100682
as described in section 5104.31 of the Revised Code.100683

        (2) Each eligible provider that provides publicly funded 100684
child care shall participate in the Ohio electronic child care 100685
system. A provider participating in the system shall not do any of 100686
the following:100687

        (a) Use or have possession of an electronic child care card 100688
issued to a caretaker parent;100689

        (b) Falsify attendance records;100690

        (c) Knowingly seek payment for publicly funded child care 100691
that was not provided;100692

        (d) Knowingly accept reimbursement for publicly funded child 100693
care that was not provided.100694

       Sec. 5107.10.  (A) As used in this section:100695

       (1) "Countable income," "gross earned income," and "gross 100696
unearned income" have the meanings established in rules adopted 100697
under section 5107.05 of the Revised Code.100698

       (2) "Federal poverty guidelines" has the same meaning as in 100699
section 5101.46 of the Revised Code, except that references to a 100700
person's family in the definition shall be deemed to be references 100701
to the person's assistance group.100702

       (3) "Gross income" means gross earned income and gross 100703
unearned income.100704

        (4) "Strike" means continuous concerted action in failing to 100705
report to duty; willful absence from one's position; or stoppage 100706
of work in whole from the full, faithful, and proper performance 100707
of the duties of employment, for the purpose of inducing, 100708
influencing, or coercing a change in wages, hours, terms, and 100709
other conditions of employment. "Strike" does not include a 100710
stoppage of work by employees in good faith because of dangerous 100711
or unhealthful working conditions at the place of employment that 100712
are abnormal to the place of employment.100713

       (B) Under the Ohio works first program, an assistance group 100714
shall receive, except as otherwise provided by this chapter, 100715
time-limited cash assistance. In the case of an assistance group 100716
that includes a minor head of household or adult, assistance shall 100717
be provided in accordance with the self-sufficiency contract 100718
entered into under section 5107.14 of the Revised Code.100719

       (C) To be eligible to participate in Ohio works first, an 100720
assistance group must meet all of the following requirements:100721

       (1) The assistance group, except as provided in division (E) 100722
of this section, must include at least one of the following:100723

       (a) A minor child who, except as provided in section 5107.24 100724
of the Revised Code, resides with a parent, or specified relative 100725
caring for the child, or, to the extent permitted by Title IV-A 100726
and federal regulations adopted until Title IV-A, resides with a 100727
guardian or custodian caring for the child;100728

       (b) A parent residing with and caring for the parent's minor 100729
child who receives supplemental security income under Title XVI of 100730
the "Social Security Act," 86 Stat. 1475 (1972), 42 U.S.C.A. 1383, 100731
as amended, or federal, state, or local adoption assistance;100732

       (c) A specified relative residing with and caring for a minor 100733
child who is related to the specified relative in a manner that 100734
makes the specified relative a specified relative and receives 100735
supplemental security income or federal, state, or local foster 100736
care or adoption assistance;100737

       (d) A woman at least six months pregnant.100738

       (2) The assistance group must meet the income requirements 100739
established by division (D) of this section.100740

       (3) No member of the assistance group may be involved in a 100741
strike.100742

       (4) The assistance group must satisfy the requirements for 100743
Ohio works first established by this chapter and sections 5101.58, 100744
5101.59, andsection 5101.83 of the Revised Code.100745

       (5) The assistance group must meet requirements for Ohio 100746
works first established by rules adopted under section 5107.05 of 100747
the Revised Code.100748

       (D)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(4) of this section, 100749
to determine whether an assistance group is initially eligible to 100750
participate in Ohio works first, a county department of job and 100751
family services shall do the following:100752

       (a) Determine whether the assistance group's gross income 100753
exceeds fifty per cent of the federal poverty guidelines. In 100754
making this determination, the county department shall disregard 100755
amounts that federal statutes or regulations and sections 5101.17 100756
and 5117.10 of the Revised Code require be disregarded. The 100757
assistance group is ineligible to participate in Ohio works first 100758
if the assistance group's gross income, less the amounts 100759
disregarded, exceeds fifty per cent of the federal poverty 100760
guidelines.100761

       (b) If the assistance group's gross income, less the amounts 100762
disregarded pursuant to division (D)(1)(a) of this section, does 100763
not exceed fifty per cent of the federal poverty guidelines, 100764
determine whether the assistance group's countable income is less 100765
than the payment standard. The assistance group is ineligible to 100766
participate in Ohio works first if the assistance group's 100767
countable income equals or exceeds the payment standard.100768

       (2) For the purpose of determining whether an assistance 100769
group meets the income requirement established by division 100770
(D)(1)(a) of this section, the annual revision that the United 100771
States department of health and human services makes to the 100772
federal poverty guidelines shall go into effect on the first day 100773
of July of the year for which the revision is made.100774

       (3) To determine whether an assistance group participating in 100775
Ohio works first continues to be eligible to participate, a county 100776
department of job and family services shall determine whether the 100777
assistance group's countable income continues to be less than the 100778
payment standard. In making this determination, the county 100779
department shall disregard the first two hundred fifty dollars and 100780
fifty per cent of the remainder of the assistance group's gross 100781
earned income. No amounts shall be disregarded from the assistance 100782
group's gross unearned income. The assistance group ceases to be 100783
eligible to participate in Ohio works first if its countable 100784
income, less the amounts disregarded, equals or exceeds the 100785
payment standard.100786

       (4) If an assistance group reapplies to participate in Ohio 100787
works first not more than four months after ceasing to 100788
participate, a county department of job and family services shall 100789
use the income requirement established by division (D)(3) of this 100790
section to determine eligibility for resumed participation rather 100791
than the income requirement established by division (D)(1) of this 100792
section.100793

       (E)(1) An assistance group may continue to participate in 100794
Ohio works first even though a public children services agency 100795
removes the assistance group's minor children from the assistance 100796
group's home due to abuse, neglect, or dependency if the agency 100797
does both of the following:100798

       (a) Notifies the county department of job and family services 100799
at the time the agency removes the children that it believes the 100800
children will be able to return to the assistance group within six 100801
months;100802

       (b) Informs the county department at the end of each of the 100803
first five months after the agency removes the children that the 100804
parent, guardian, custodian, or specified relative of the children 100805
is cooperating with the case plans prepared for the children under 100806
section 2151.412 of the Revised Code and that the agency is making 100807
reasonable efforts to return the children to the assistance group.100808

       (2) An assistance group may continue to participate in Ohio 100809
works first pursuant to division (E)(1) of this section for not 100810
more than six payment months. This division does not affect the 100811
eligibility of an assistance group that includes a woman at least 100812
six months pregnant.100813

       Sec. 5107.14.  (A) An assistance group is ineligible to 100814
participate in Ohio works first unless the following enter into a 100815
written self-sufficiency contract with the county department of 100816
job and family services:100817

       (1) Each adult member of the assistance group;100818

       (2) The assistance group's minor head of household.100819

       (B) A self-sufficiency contract shall set forth the rights 100820
and responsibilities of the assistance group as applicants for and 100821
participants of Ohio works first. Each self-sufficiency contract 100822
shall include, based on appraisals conducted under section 5107.41 100823
of the Revised Code and assessments conducted under section 100824
5107.70 of the Revised Code, the following:100825

       (1) The assistance group's plan, developed under section 100826
5107.41 of the Revised Code, to achieve the goal of self 100827
sufficiency and personal responsibility through unsubsidized 100828
employment within the time limit for participating in Ohio works 100829
first established by section 5107.18 of the Revised Code;100830

       (2) Work activities, developmental activities, and 100831
alternative work activities to which members of the assistance 100832
group are assigned under sections 5107.40 to 5107.69 of the 100833
Revised Code;100834

       (3) The responsibility of a caretaker member of the 100835
assistance group to cooperate in establishing a minor child's 100836
paternity and establishing, modifying, and enforcing a support 100837
order for the child in accordance with section 5107.22 of the 100838
Revised Code;100839

       (4) Other responsibilities that members of the assistance 100840
group must satisfy to participate in Ohio works first and the 100841
consequences for failure or refusal to satisfy the 100842
responsibilities;100843

       (5) An agreement that, except as otherwise provided in a 100844
waiver issued under section 5107.714 of the Revised Code, the 100845
assistance group will comply with the conditions of participating 100846
in Ohio works first established by this chapter and sections 100847
5101.58, 5101.59, andsection 5101.83 of the Revised Code;100848

       (6) Assistance and services the county department will 100849
provide to the assistance group;100850

       (7) Assistance and services the child support enforcement 100851
agency and public children services agency will provide to the 100852
assistance group pursuant to a plan of cooperation entered into 100853
under section 307.983 of the Revised Code;100854

       (8) Other provisions designed to assist the assistance group 100855
in achieving self sufficiency and personal responsibility;100856

       (9) Procedures for assessing whether responsibilities are 100857
being satisfied and whether the contract should be amended;100858

       (10) Procedures for amending the contract.100859

       (C) No self-sufficiency contract shall include provisions 100860
regarding the LEAP program.100861

       (D) The county department shall provide without charge a copy 100862
of the self-sufficiency contract to each assistance group member 100863
who signs it.100864

       Sec. 5107.16.  (A) If a member of an assistance group fails 100865
or refuses, without good cause, to comply in full with a provision 100866
of a self-sufficiency contract entered into under section 5107.14 100867
of the Revised Code, a county department of job and family 100868
services shall sanction the assistance group as follows:100869

       (1) For a first failure or refusal, the county department 100870
shall deny or terminate the assistance group's eligibility to 100871
participate in Ohio works first for one payment month or until the 100872
failure or refusal ceases, whichever is longer;100873

       (2) For a second failure or refusal, the county department 100874
shall deny or terminate the assistance group's eligibility to 100875
participate in Ohio works first for three payment months or until 100876
the failure or refusal ceases, whichever is longer;100877

       (3) For a third or subsequent failure or refusal, the county 100878
department shall deny or terminate the assistance group's 100879
eligibility to participate in Ohio works first for six payment 100880
months or until the failure or refusal ceases, whichever is 100881
longer.100882

       (B) The director of job and family services shall establish 100883
standards for the determination of good cause for failure or 100884
refusal to comply in full with a provision of a self-sufficiency 100885
contract in rules adopted under section 5107.05 of the Revised 100886
Code.100887

       (C) An assistance group member who fails or refuses, without 100888
good cause, to comply in full with a provision of a 100889
self-sufficiency contract must complete all compliance activities 100890
specified in rules adopted under section 5107.05 of the Revised 100891
Code in order for the failure or refusal to be considered to have 100892
ceased.100893

       (D) After sanctioning an assistance group under division (A) 100894
of this section, a county department of job and family services 100895
shall continue to work with the assistance group.100896

       (E) An adult eligible for medicaid pursuant to division 100897
(C)(1)(a) of section 5111.01 of the Revised Code who is sanctioned 100898
under division (A)(3) of this section for a failure or refusal, 100899
without good cause, to comply in full with a provision of a 100900
self-sufficiency contract related to work responsibilities under 100901
sections 5107.40 to 5107.69 of the Revised Code loses eligibility 100902
for medicaid unless the adult is otherwise eligible for medicaid 100903
pursuant to another division of section 5111.01 of the Revised 100904
Codean eligibility category other than the category associated 100905
with Title IV-A.100906

        An assistance group that would be participating in Ohio works 100907
first if not for a sanction under this section shall continue to 100908
be eligible for all of the following:100909

       (1) Publicly funded child care in accordance with division 100910
(A)(3) of section 5104.30 of the Revised Code;100911

       (2) Support services in accordance with section 5107.66 of 100912
the Revised Code;100913

       (3) To the extent permitted by the "Fair Labor Standards Act 100914
of 1938," 52 Stat. 1060, 29 U.S.C. 201, as amended, to participate 100915
in work activities, developmental activities, and alternative work 100916
activities in accordance with sections 5107.40 to 5107.69 of the 100917
Revised Code.100918

       Sec. 5107.20.  As used in this section, "support" means child 100919
support, spousal support, and support for a spouse or a former 100920
spouse.100921

       Participation in Ohio works first constitutes an assignment 100922
to the department of job and family services of any rights members 100923
of an assistance group have to support from any other person, 100924
excluding medical support assigned pursuant to section 5101.59 of 100925
the Revised Code. The rights to support assigned to the department 100926
pursuant to this section constitute an obligation of the person 100927
who is responsible for providing the support to the state for the 100928
amount of cash assistance provided to the assistance group.100929

       The office of child support in the department of job and 100930
family services shall collect and distribute support payments owed 100931
to Ohio works first participants, whether assigned to the 100932
department or unassigned, in accordance with 42 U.S.C. 654 B and 100933
657 and regulations adopted under those statutes, state statutes, 100934
and rules adopted under section 5107.05 of the Revised Code.100935

       Upon implementation of centralized collection and 100936
disbursement under Chapter 3121. of the Revised Code, in 100937
accordance with 42 U.S.C. 654 B and 657 and regulations adopted 100938
under those statutes, the department shall deposit support 100939
payments it receives pursuant to this section into the state 100940
treasury to the credit of the child support collections fund or 100941
the child support administrative fund, both of which are hereby 100942
created. Money credited to the funds shall be used to make cash 100943
assistance payments under Ohio works first.100944

       Sec. 5107.24.  (A) As used in this section:100945

       (1) "Adult-supervised living arrangement" means a family 100946
setting approved, licensed, or certified by the department of job 100947
and family services, the department of mental healthmental health 100948
and addiction services, the department of developmental 100949
disabilities, the department of youth services, a public children 100950
services agency, a private child placing agency, or a private 100951
noncustodial agency that is maintained by a person age eighteen or 100952
older who assumes responsibility for the care and control of a 100953
minor parent, pregnant minor, or child of a minor parent or 100954
provides the minor parent, pregnant minor, or child of a minor 100955
parent supportive services, including counseling, guidance, and 100956
supervision. "Adult-supervised living arrangement" does not mean a 100957
public institution.100958

       (2) "Child of a minor parent" means a child born to a minor 100959
parent, except that the child ceases to be considered a child of 100960
minor parent when the minor parent attains age eighteen.100961

       (3) "Minor parent" means a parent who is under age eighteen 100962
and is not married.100963

       (4) "Pregnant minor" means a pregnant person who is under age 100964
eighteen and not married.100965

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section 100966
and to the extent permitted by Title IV-A and federal regulations 100967
adopted under Title IV-A, a pregnant minor, minor parent, or child 100968
of a minor parent must reside in a place of residence maintained 100969
by a parent, guardian, custodian, or specified relative of the 100970
pregnant minor or minor parent as the parent's, guardian's, 100971
custodian's, or specified relative's own home to be eligible to 100972
participate in Ohio works first.100973

       (2) To the extent permitted by Title IV-A and federal 100974
regulations adopted under it, a pregnant minor, minor parent, or 100975
child of a minor parent is exempt from the requirement of division 100976
(B)(1) of this section if any of the following apply:100977

       (a) The minor parent or pregnant minor does not have a 100978
parent, guardian, custodian, or specified relative living or whose 100979
whereabouts are known.100980

       (b) No parent, guardian, custodian, or specified relative of 100981
the minor parent or pregnant minor will allow the pregnant minor, 100982
minor parent, or minor parent's child to live in the parent's, 100983
guardian's, custodian's, or specified relative's home.100984

       (c) The department of job and family services, a county 100985
department of job and family services, or a public children 100986
services agency determines that the physical or emotional health 100987
or safety of the pregnant minor, minor parent, or minor parent's 100988
child would be in jeopardy if the pregnant minor, minor parent, or 100989
minor parent's child lived in the same home as the parent, 100990
guardian, custodian, or specified relative.100991

       (d) The department of job and family services, a county 100992
department of job and family services, or a public children 100993
services agency otherwise determines that it is in the best 100994
interest of the pregnant minor, minor parent, or minor parent's 100995
child to waive the requirement of division (B)(1) of this section.100996

       (C) A pregnant minor, minor parent, or child of a minor 100997
parent exempt from the requirement of division (B)(1) of this 100998
section must reside in an adult-supervised living arrangement to 100999
be eligible to participate in Ohio works first.101000

       (D) The department of job and family services, whenever 101001
possible and to the extent permitted by Title IV-A and federal 101002
regulations adopted under it, shall provide cash assistance under 101003
Ohio works first to the parent, guardian, custodian, or specified 101004
relative of a pregnant minor or minor parent on behalf of the 101005
pregnant minor, minor parent, or minor parent's child.101006

       Sec. 5107.26.  (A) As used in this section:101007

       (1) "Transitional, "transitional child care" means publicly 101008
funded child care provided under division (A)(3) of section 101009
5104.34 of the Revised Code.101010

       (2) "Transitional medicaid" means the medical assistance 101011
provided under section 5111.0115 of the Revised Code.101012

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, each:101013

       (1) Each member of an assistance group participating in Ohio 101014
works first is ineligible to participate in the program for six 101015
payment months if a county department of job and family services 101016
determines that a member of the assistance group terminated the 101017
member's employment and each.101018

       (2) Each person who, on the day prior to the day a recipient 101019
begins to receive transitional child care or transitional 101020
medicaid, was a member of the recipient's assistance group is 101021
ineligible to participate in Ohio works first for six payment 101022
months if a county department determines that the recipient 101023
terminated the recipient's employment.101024

       (C) No assistance group member shall lose or be denied 101025
eligibility to participate in Ohio works first pursuant to 101026
division (B) of this section if the termination of employment was 101027
because an assistance group member or recipient of transitional 101028
child care or transitional medicaid secured comparable or better 101029
employment or the county department of job and family services 101030
certifies that the member or recipient terminated the employment 101031
with just cause.101032

       Just cause includes the following:101033

       (1) Discrimination by an employer based on age, race, sex, 101034
color, handicap, religious beliefs, or national origin;101035

       (2) Work demands or conditions that render continued 101036
employment unreasonable, such as working without being paid on 101037
schedule;101038

       (3) Employment that has become unsuitable due to any of the 101039
following:101040

       (a) The wage is less than the federal minimum wage;101041

       (b) The work is at a site subject to a strike or lockout, 101042
unless the strike has been enjoined under section 208 of the 101043
"Labor-Management Relations Act," 61 Stat. 155 (1947), 29 U.S.C.A. 101044
178, as amended, an injunction has been issued under section 10 of 101045
the "Railway Labor Act," 44 Stat. 586 (1926), 45 U.S.C.A. 160, as 101046
amended, or an injunction has been issued under section 4117.16 of 101047
the Revised Code;101048

       (c) The documented degree of risk to the member or 101049
recipient's health and safety is unreasonable;101050

       (d) The member or recipient is physically or mentally unfit 101051
to perform the employment, as documented by medical evidence or by 101052
reliable information from other sources.101053

       (4) Documented illness of the member or recipient or of 101054
another assistance group member of the member or recipient 101055
requiring the presence of the member or recipient;101056

       (5) A documented household emergency;101057

       (6) Lack of adequate child care for children of the member or 101058
recipient who are under six years of age.101059

       Sec. 5107.42.  (A) Except as provided in divisions (B) and 101060
(C) of this section, county departments of job and family services 101061
shall assign each minor head of household and adult participating 101062
in Ohio works first, other than a minor head of household 101063
participating in the LEAP program, to one or more work activities 101064
and developmental activities.101065

       If a county department assigns a minor head of household or 101066
adult to the work activity established under division (H) of 101067
section 5107.60 of the Revised Code, the county department shall 101068
make reasonable efforts to assign the minor head of household or 101069
adult to at least one other work activity at the same time. If a 101070
county department assigns a minor head of household or adult to 101071
the work activity established under section 5107.58 of the Revised 101072
Code, the county department shall assign the minor head of 101073
household or adult to at least one other work activity at the same 101074
time.101075

       A county department may not assign a minor head of household 101076
or adult to a work activity established under division (D) of 101077
section 5107.60 of the Revised Code for more than twelve months.101078

       (B) If a county department determines that a minor head of 101079
household or adult has a temporary or permanent barrier to 101080
participation in a work activity, it may assign the minor head of 101081
household or adult to one or more alternative work activities 101082
instead of assigning the minor head of household or adult to one 101083
or more work activities or developmental activities. A county 101084
department may not assign more than twenty per cent of minor heads 101085
of household and adults participating in Ohio works first to an 101086
alternative work activity. 101087

       County departments shall establish standards for determining 101088
whether a minor head of household or adult has a temporary or 101089
permanent barrier to participating in a work activity. The 101090
following are examples of circumstances that a county department 101091
may consider when it develops its standards:101092

       (1) A minor head of household or adult provides the county 101093
department documented evidence that one or more members of the 101094
assistance group have been the victim of domestic violence and are 101095
in imminent danger of suffering continued domestic violence;101096

       (2) A minor head of household or adult is actively 101097
participating in an alcohol or druga community addiction program101098
services provider certified by the department of alcohol and drug 101099
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services under 101100
section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code; 101101

       (3) An assistance group is homeless.101102

       (C) A county department may exempt a minor head of household 101103
or adult who is unmarried and caring for a minor child under 101104
twelve months of age from the work requirements of sections 101105
5107.40 to 5107.69 of the Revised Code for not more than twelve 101106
months. While exempt, the minor head of household or adult shall 101107
be disregarded in determining whether the county department is 101108
meeting the requirement of section 5107.44 of the Revised Code. 101109
The county department shall assign the exempt minor head of 101110
household or adult to at least one developmental activity for a 101111
number of hours a week the county department determines. The 101112
county department may assign the exempt minor head of household or 101113
adult to one or more work activities, in addition to developmental 101114
activities, for a number of hours the county department 101115
determines. Division (B) of section 5107.43 of the Revised Code 101116
does not apply to the exempt minor head of household or adult. 101117

       (D) A county department may reassign a minor head of 101118
household or adult when the county department determines 101119
reassignment will aid the assistance group in achieving self 101120
sufficiency and personal responsibility and shall make 101121
reassignments when circumstances requiring reassignment occur, 101122
including when a temporary barrier to participating in a work 101123
activity is eliminated. 101124

       A county department shall include assignments in the 101125
self-sufficiency contract entered into under section 5107.14 of 101126
the Revised Code and shall amend the contract when a reassignment 101127
is made to include the reassignment in the contract.101128

       Sec. 5107.64.  County departments of job and family services 101129
shall establish and administer alternative work activities for 101130
minor heads of households and adults participating in Ohio works 101131
first. In establishing alternative work activities, county 101132
departments are not limited by the restrictions Title IV-A imposes 101133
on work activities. The following are examples of alternative work 101134
activities that a county department may establish:101135

       (A) Parenting classes and life-skills training;101136

       (B) Participation in an alcohol or druga community addiction 101137
programservices provider certified by the department of alcohol 101138
and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction services101139
under section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code;101140

       (C) In the case of a homeless assistance group, finding a 101141
home;101142

       (D) In the case of a minor head of household or adult with a 101143
disability, active work in an individual written rehabilitation 101144
plan with the rehabilitation services commissionopportunities for 101145
Ohioans with disabilities agency;101146

       (E) In the case of a minor head of household or adult who has 101147
been the victim of domestic violence, residing in a domestic 101148
violence shelter, receiving counseling or treatment related to the 101149
domestic violence, or participating in criminal justice activities 101150
against the domestic violence offender;101151

       (F) An education program under which a participant who does 101152
not speak English attends English as a second language course.101153

       Sec. 5115.20.  (A) The department of job and family services 101154
shall establish a disability advocacy program and each county 101155
department of job and family services shall establish a disability 101156
advocacy program unit or join with other county departments of job 101157
and family services to establish a joint county disability 101158
advocacy program unit. Through the program the department and 101159
county departments shall cooperate in efforts to assist applicants 101160
for and recipients of assistance under the disability financial 101161
assistance program, who might be eligible for supplemental 101162
security income benefits under Title XVI of the "Social Security 101163
Act," 86 Stat. 1475 (1972), 42 U.S.C.A. 1383, as amended, in 101164
applying for those benefits. 101165

       As part of their disability advocacy programs, the state 101166
department and county departments may enter into contracts for the 101167
services of persons and government entities that in the judgment 101168
of the department or county department have demonstrated expertise 101169
in representing persons seeking supplemental security income 101170
benefits. Each contract shall require the person or entity with 101171
which a department contracts to assess each person referred to it 101172
by the department to determine whether the person appears to be 101173
eligible for supplemental security income benefits, and, if the 101174
person appears to be eligible, assist the person in applying and 101175
represent the person in any proceeding of the social security 101176
administration, including any appeal or reconsideration of a 101177
denial of benefits. The department or county department shall 101178
provide to the person or entity with which it contracts all 101179
records in its possession relevant to the application for 101180
supplemental security income benefits. The department shall 101181
require a county department with relevant records to submit them 101182
to the person or entity.101183

       (B) Each applicant for or recipient of disability financial 101184
assistance who, in the judgment of the department of job and 101185
family services or a county department of job and family services101186
might be eligible for supplemental security benefits, shall, as a 101187
condition of eligibility for assistance, apply for such benefits 101188
if directed to do so by the department or county department.101189

       (C) With regard to applicants for and recipients of 101190
disability financial assistance, each county department of job and 101191
family services shall do all of the following:101192

       (1) Identify applicants and recipients who might be eligible 101193
for supplemental security income benefits;101194

       (2) Assist applicants and recipients in securing 101195
documentation of disabling conditions or refer them for such 101196
assistance to a person or government entity with which the 101197
department of job and family services or county department has 101198
contracted under division (A) of this section;101199

       (3) Inform applicants and recipients of available sources of 101200
representation, which may include a person or government entity 101201
with which the department or county department has contracted 101202
under division (A) of this section, and of their right to 101203
represent themselves in reconsiderations and appeals of social 101204
security administration decisions that deny them supplemental 101205
security income benefits. The county department may require the 101206
applicants and recipients, as a condition of eligibility for 101207
assistance, to pursue reconsiderations and appeals of social 101208
security administration decisions that deny them supplemental 101209
security income benefits, and shall assist applicants and 101210
recipients as necessary to obtain such benefits or refer them to a 101211
person or government entity with which the department or county 101212
department has contracted under division (A) of this section.101213

       (4) Require applicants and recipients who, in the judgment of 101214
the county department, are or may be aged, blind, or disabled, to 101215
apply for medical assistance under Chapter 5111. of the Revised 101216
Codethe medicaid program, make determinations when appropriate as 101217
to eligibility for medical assistancemedicaid, and refer their 101218
applications when necessary to the disability determination unit 101219
established in accordance with division (F) of this section for 101220
expedited review;101221

       (5) Require each applicant and recipient who in the judgment 101222
of the department or the county department might be eligible for 101223
supplemental security income benefits, as a condition of 101224
eligibility for disability financial assistance, to execute a 101225
written authorization for the secretary of health and human 101226
services to withhold benefits due that individual and pay to the 101227
director of job and family services or the director's designee an 101228
amount sufficient to reimburse the state and county shares of 101229
interim assistance furnished to the individual. For the purposes 101230
of division (C)(5) of this section, "benefits" and "interim 101231
assistance" have the meanings given in Title XVI of the "Social 101232
Security Act."101233

       (D) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 101234
in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code for the 101235
effective administration of the disability advocacy program. The 101236
rules shall include all of the following:101237

       (1) Methods to be used in collecting information from and 101238
disseminating it to county departments, including the following:101239

       (a) The number of individuals in the county who are disabled 101240
recipients of disability financial assistance;101241

       (b) The final decision made either by the social security 101242
administration or by a court for each application or 101243
reconsideration in which an individual was assisted pursuant to 101244
this section.101245

       (2) The type and process of training to be provided by the 101246
department of job and family services to the employees of the 101247
county department of job and family services who perform duties 101248
under this section;101249

       (3) Requirements for the written authorization required by 101250
division (C)(5) of this section.101251

       (E) The department of job and family services shall provide 101252
basic and continuing training to employees of the county 101253
department of job and family services who perform duties under 101254
this section. Training shall include but not be limited to all 101255
processes necessary to obtain federal disability benefits, and 101256
methods of advocacy.101257

       (F) The department of medicaid shall establish a disability 101258
determination unit and develop guidelines for expediting reviews 101259
of applications for medical assistance under Chapter 5111. of the 101260
Revised Codethe medicaid program for persons who have been 101261
referred to the unit under division (C)(4) of this section. The 101262
department of medicaid shall make determinations of eligibility 101263
for medical assistancemedicaid for any such person within the 101264
time prescribed by federal regulations.101265

       (G) The department of job and family services may, under 101266
rules the director of job and family services adopts in accordance 101267
with section 111.15 of the Revised Code, pay a portion of the 101268
federal reimbursement described in division (C)(5) of this section 101269
to persons or government entities that assist or represent 101270
assistance recipients in reconsiderations and appeals of social 101271
security administration decisions denying them supplemental 101272
security income benefits.101273

       (H) The director of job and family services shall conduct 101274
investigations to determine whether disability advocacy programs 101275
are being administered in compliance with the Revised Code and the 101276
rules adopted by the director pursuant to this section.101277

       Sec. 5117.10.  (A) On or before the fifteenth day of January, 101278
the director of development shall pay each applicant determined 101279
eligible for a payment under divisions (A) and (B) of section 101280
5117.07 of the Revised Code one hundred twenty-five dollars.101281

       (B) The director may withhold from any payment to which a 101282
person would otherwise be entitled under division (A) of this 101283
section any amount that the director determines was erroneously 101284
received by such person in a preceding year under this or the 101285
program established under Am. Sub. H.B. 230, as amended by Am. 101286
H.B. 937, Am. Sub. H.B. 1073, Am. Sub. S.B. 493, and Am. Sub. S.B. 101287
523 of the 112th general assembly, provided the director has 101288
employed all other legal methods reasonably available to obtain 101289
reimbursement for the erroneous payment or credit prior to the 101290
commencement of the current program year.101291

       (C) Payments made under this section and credits granted 101292
under section 5117.09 of the Revised Code shall not be considered 101293
income for the purpose of determining eligibility or the level of 101294
benefits or assistance under section 329.042 or Chapters 5107., 101295
5111., and 5115. of the Revised Code; the medicaid program;101296
supplemental security income payments under Title XVI of the 101297
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as 101298
amended; or any other program under which eligibility or the level 101299
of benefits or assistance is based upon need measured by income.101300

       Sec. 3793.01.        Sec. 5119.01.  (A) As used in this chapter:101301

       (1) "Addiction" means the chronic and habitual use of 101302
alcoholic beverages, the use of a drug of abuse as defined in 101303
section 3719.011 of the Revised Code, or the use of gambling by an 101304
individual to the extent that the individual no longer can control 101305
the individual's use of alcohol, the individual becomes physically 101306
or psychologically dependent on the drug, the individual's use of 101307
alcohol or drugs endangers the health, safety, or welfare of the 101308
individual or others, or the individual's gambling causes 101309
psychological, financial, emotional, marital, legal, or other 101310
difficulties endangering the health, safety, or welfare of the 101311
individual or others.101312

        (2) "Addiction services" means services, including 101313
intervention, for the treatment of persons with alcohol, drug, or 101314
gambling addictions, and for the prevention of such addictions.101315

        (3) "Alcohol and drug addiction services" means services, 101316
including intervention, for the treatment of alcoholics or persons 101317
who abuse drugs of abuse and for the prevention of alcoholism and 101318
drug addiction.101319

        (4) "Alcoholic" means a person suffering from alcoholism.101320

        (5) "Alcoholism" means the chronic and habitual use of 101321
alcoholic beverages by an individual to the extent that the 101322
individual no longer can control the individual's use of alcohol 101323
or endangers the health, safety, or welfare of the individual or 101324
others.101325

       (2) "Alcoholic" means a person suffering from alcoholism.101326

       (3)(6) "Community addiction services provider" means an 101327
agency, association, corporation, individual, or program that 101328
provides community alcohol, drug addiction, or gambling addiction 101329
services that are certified by the department of mental health and 101330
addiction services under section 5119.36 of the Revised Code.101331

        (7) "Community mental health services provider" means an 101332
agency, association, corporation, individual, or program that 101333
provides community mental health services that are certified by 101334
the department of mental health and addiction services under 101335
section 5119.36 of the Revised Code.101336

       (8) "Drug addiction" means the use of a drug of abuse, as 101337
defined in section 3719.011 of the Revised Code, by an individual 101338
to the extent that the individual becomes physically or 101339
psychologically dependent on the drug or endangers the health, 101340
safety, or welfare of the individual or others.101341

       (4) "Alcohol and drug addiction services" means services, 101342
including intervention, for the treatment of alcoholics or persons 101343
who abuse drugs of abuse and for the prevention of alcoholism and 101344
drug addiction.101345

       (5) "Alcohol and drug addiction program" means a program that 101346
provides alcohol or drug addiction services and includes a 101347
facility or entity that operates such a program.101348

       (6)(9) "Gambling addiction" means the use of gambling by an 101349
individual to the extent that it causes psychological, financial, 101350
emotional, marital, legal, or other difficulties endangering the 101351
health, safety, or welfare of the individual or others.101352

        (7)(10) "Gambling addiction services" means services for the 101353
treatment of persons who have a gambling addiction and for the 101354
prevention of gambling addiction.101355

       (11) "Hospital" means a hospital or inpatient unit licensed 101356
by the department of mental health and addiction services under 101357
section 5119.33 of the Revised Code, and any institution, 101358
hospital, or other place established, controlled, or supervised by 101359
the department under Chapter 5119. of the Revised Code.101360

        (12) "Mental illness" means a substantial disorder of 101361
thought, mood, perception, orientation, or memory that grossly 101362
impairs judgment, behavior, capacity to recognize reality, or 101363
ability to meet the ordinary demands of life.101364

        (13) "Mental health services" means services for the 101365
assessment, care, or treatment of persons who have a mental 101366
illness as defined in this section.101367

        (14)(a) "Residence" means a person's physical presence in a 101368
county with intent to remain there, except in either of the 101369
following circumstances:101370

        (i) If a person is receiving a mental health service at a 101371
facility that includes nighttime sleeping accommodations, 101372
"residence" means that county in which the person maintained the 101373
person's primary place of residence at the time the person entered 101374
the facility;101375

        (ii) If a person is committed pursuant to section 2945.38, 101376
2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code, 101377
"residence" means the county where the criminal charges were 101378
filed.101379

        (b) When the residence of a person is disputed, the matter of 101380
residence shall be referred to the department of mental health and 101381
addiction services for investigation and determination. Residence 101382
shall not be a basis for a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 101383
mental health services to deny services to any person present in 101384
the board's service district, and the board shall provide services 101385
for a person whose residence is in dispute while residence is 101386
being determined and for a person in an emergency situation.101387

       (B) Any reference in this chapter to a board of alcohol, drug 101388
addiction, and mental health services also refers to an alcohol 101389
and drug addiction services board or a community mental health 101390
board in a service district in which an alcohol and drug addiction 101391
services board or a community mental health board has been 101392
established under section 340.021 or former section 340.02 of the 101393
Revised Code.101394

       Sec. 5119.04.  The department of mental healthmental health 101395
and addiction services and any institutions under its supervision 101396
or jurisdiction shall, where applicable, be in substantial 101397
compliance with standards set forth for psychiatric facilities by 101398
the joint commission on accreditation of healthcare organizations101399
or medical assistance standards under Title XIX of the "Social 101400
Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, or 101401
other applicable standards, except that the department and any 101402
institution under its supervision or jurisdiction shall be in 101403
substantial compliance with standards for physical facilities and 101404
equipment by July 1, 1989. The requirements of this section do not 101405
apply to any facility designated by the director of mental health 101406
for use as a psychiatric rehabilitation center.101407

       The requirements of this section are in addition to any other 101408
requirements established by the Revised Code and nothing in this 101409
section shall be construed to limit any rights, privileges, 101410
protections, or immunities which may exist under the constitution 101411
and laws of the United States or this state.101412

       Sec. 5119.27.        Sec. 5119.05.  Subject to the rules of the director 101413
of mental healthmental health and addiction services, each 101414
institution under the jurisdiction of the department shall be 101415
under the management and control of a managing officer to be known 101416
as a superintendentchief executive officer or by another 101417
appropriate title. Such managing officer shall be appointed by the 101418
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services, 101419
and shall be in the unclassified service and serve at the pleasure 101420
of the director. Each managing officer shall be of good moral 101421
character and have skill, ability, and experience in histhe 101422
managing officer's profession. Appointment to this position may be 101423
made from persons holding positions in the classified service in 101424
the department.101425

       The managing officer, under the director, shall have entire 101426
executive chargeserve as the appointing authority of the 101427
institution forto which such managing officer is appointed. 101428
Subject to civil service rules, the managing officer shall have 101429
the power to appoint the necessaryand remove employees and he or 101430
the director may remove such employees for causeof the 101431
institution. On behalf of the institution, the managing officer 101432
has the authority and responsibility for entering into contracts 101433
and other agreements for the efficient operations of the 101434
institution.101435

       Sec. 5119.44.        Sec. 5119.051.  The department of mental health101436
mental health and addiction services shall keep in its office a 101437
proper and complete set of books and accounts with each 101438
institution, which shall clearly show the nature and amount of 101439
every expenditure authorized and made at such institution, and 101440
which shall contain an account of all appropriations made by the 101441
general assembly and of all other funds, together with the 101442
disposition of such funds.101443

       The department shall prescribe the form of vouchers, records, 101444
and methods of keeping accounts at each of the institutions, which 101445
shall be as nearly uniform as possible. The department may examine 101446
the records of each institution at any time.101447

       The department may authorize any of its bookeepers101448
bookkeepers, accountants, or employees to examine and check the 101449
records, accounts, and vouchers or take an inventory of the 101450
property of any institution, or do whatever is necessary, and pay 101451
the actual and reasonable expenses incurred in such service when 101452
an itemized account is filed and approved.101453

       Sec. 5119.43.        Sec. 5119.06.  The department of mental healthmental 101454
health and addiction services shall keep in its office, accessible 101455
only to its employees, except by the consent of the department or 101456
the order of the judge of a court of record, a record showing the 101457
name, residence, sex, age, nativity, occupation, condition, and 101458
date of entrance or commitment of every patient in the 101459
institutions governed by it, the date, cause, and terms of 101460
discharge and the condition of such person at the time of leaving, 101461
and also a record of all transfers from one institution to 101462
another, and, if such person dies while in the care or custody of 101463
the department, the date and cause of death. These and such other 101464
facts as the department requires shall be furnished by the 101465
managing officer of each institution within twenty-four hours 101466
after the commitment, entrance, death, or discharge of a patient.101467

       In case of an accident or injury or peculiar death of a 101468
patient the managing officer shall make a special report to the 101469
department within twenty-four hours thereafter, giving the 101470
circumstances as fully as possible.101471

       Sec. 5119.42.        Sec. 5119.07.  A person, firm, or corporation may 101472
file a petition in the court of common pleas of the county in 101473
which a benevolent institution of the department of mental health 101474
and addiction services is located, in which petition the desire to 101475
erect or carry on at a less distance than that prescribed in 101476
section 3767.19 of the Revised Code shall be set forth, the 101477
business prohibited, the precise point of its establishment, and 101478
the reasons and circumstances, in its opinion, why the erection or 101479
carrying on thereofof the business would not annoy or endanger 101480
the health, convenience, or recovery of the patients of such 101481
institution. The petitioner shall give notice in a newspaper of 101482
general circulation in the county of the pendency and prayer of 101483
the petition for at least six consecutive weeks before the day set 101484
for hearing the petition and serve a written notice upon the 101485
superintendentmanaging officer of the institution at least thirty 101486
days before the day set for hearing the petition.101487

       If, upon the hearing of the petition, it appears that the 101488
notice has been given as required and the court is of the opinion 101489
that no good reason exists why such establishment may not be 101490
erected or such business carried on and that by the erection or 101491
carrying on thereofof the business at the point named, the 101492
institution will sustain no detriment, the court may issue an 101493
order granting the prayer of the petitioner. Thereafter the 101494
petitioner may locate such establishment or carry on such business 101495
at the point named in the petition.101496

       Sec. 5119.14.        Sec. 5119.08.  (A) As used in this section, "felony" 101497
has the same meaning as in section 109.511 of the Revised Code.101498

       (B)(1) Subject to division (C) of this section, upon the 101499
recommendation of the director of mental healthmental health and 101500
addiction services, the managing officer of an institution under 101501
the jurisdiction of the department of mental healthmental health 101502
and addiction services may designate one or more employees to be 101503
special police officers of the department. The special police 101504
officers shall take an oath of office, wear the badge of office, 101505
and give bond for the proper and faithful discharge of their 101506
duties in an amount that the director requires.101507

       (2) In accordance with section 109.77 of the Revised Code, 101508
the special police officers shall be required to complete 101509
successfully a peace officer basic training program approved by 101510
the Ohio peace officer training commission and to be certified by 101511
the commission. The cost of the training shall be paid by the 101512
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services.101513

       (3) Special police officers, on the premises of institutions 101514
under the jurisdiction of the department of mental healthmental 101515
health and addiction services and subject to the rules of the 101516
department, shall protect the property of the institutions and the 101517
persons and property of patients in the institutions, suppress 101518
riots, disturbances, and breaches of the peace, and enforce the 101519
laws of the state and the rules of the department for the 101520
preservation of good order. They may arrest any person without a 101521
warrant and detain the person until a warrant can be obtained 101522
under the circumstances described in division (F) of section 101523
2935.03 of the Revised Code.101524

       (C)(1) The managing officer of an institution under the 101525
jurisdiction of the department of mental healthmental health and 101526
addiction services shall not designate an employee as a special 101527
police officer of the department pursuant to division (B)(1) of 101528
this section on a permanent basis, on a temporary basis, for a 101529
probationary term, or on other than a permanent basis if the 101530
employee previously has been convicted of or has pleaded guilty to 101531
a felony.101532

       (2)(a) The managing officer of an institution under the 101533
jurisdiction of the department of mental healthmental health and 101534
addiction services shall terminate the employment as a special 101535
police officer of the department of an employee designated as a 101536
special police officer under division (B)(1) of this section if 101537
that employee does either of the following:101538

       (i) Pleads guilty to a felony;101539

       (ii) Pleads guilty to a misdemeanor pursuant to a negotiated 101540
plea agreement as provided in division (D) of section 2929.43 of 101541
the Revised Code in which the employee agrees to surrender the 101542
certificate awarded to that employee under section 109.77 of the 101543
Revised Code.101544

       (b) The managing officer shall suspend from employment as a 101545
special police officer of the department an employee designated as 101546
a special police officer under division (B)(1) of this section if 101547
that employee is convicted, after trial, of a felony. If the 101548
special police officer files an appeal from that conviction and 101549
the conviction is upheld by the highest court to which the appeal 101550
is taken or if the special police officer does not file a timely 101551
appeal, the managing officer shall terminate the employment of 101552
that special police officer. If the special police officer files 101553
an appeal that results in that special police officer's acquittal 101554
of the felony or conviction of a misdemeanor, or in the dismissal 101555
of the felony charge against that special police officer, the 101556
managing officer shall reinstate that special police officer. A 101557
special police officer of the department who is reinstated under 101558
division (C)(2)(b) of this section shall not receive any back pay 101559
unless that special police officer's conviction of the felony was 101560
reversed on appeal, or the felony charge was dismissed, because 101561
the court found insufficient evidence to convict the special 101562
police officer of the felony.101563

       (3) Division (C) of this section does not apply regarding an 101564
offense that was committed prior to January 1, 1997.101565

       (4) The suspension from employment, or the termination of the 101566
employment, of a special police officer under division (C)(2) of 101567
this section shall be in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 101568
Revised Codeapplicable collective bargaining agreements.101569

       Sec. 5119.30.        Sec. 5119.09.  The attorney general shall attend to 101570
all suitsclaims instituted on behalf of or against the department 101571
of mental health and addiction services or any institution under 101572
the jurisdiction of the department of mental health and the 101573
managing officer thereof, except such institutions as are 101574
privately owned or operated under a license from the department of 101575
mental healthmental health and addiction services, and shall 101576
represent the public hospital in proceedings under section 5122.15 101577
of the Revised Code. The department of mental healthmental health 101578
and addiction services shall reimburse the attorney general for 101579
the compensation of assistant attorneys general required to 101580
represent the public hospital in proceedings under section 5122.15 101581
of the Revised code and shall also pay the costs of litigation 101582
incurred by the attorney general under that section.101583

       If a writ of habeas corpus is applied for, the clerk of the 101584
court shall give notice of the time and place of hearing to the 101585
attorney general.101586

       Sec. 5119.01.        Sec. 5119.10. (A) The director of mental health101587
mental health and addiction services is the chief executive and 101588
administrative officerappointing authority of the department of 101589
mental healthmental health and addiction services. The director 101590
may organize the department for its efficient operation, including 101591
creating divisions or offices as necessary. The director may 101592
establish procedures for the governance of the department, conduct 101593
of its employees and officers, performance of its business, and 101594
custody, use, and preservation of departmental records, papers, 101595
books, documents, and property. Whenever the Revised Code imposes 101596
a duty upon or requires an action of the department or any of its 101597
institutions, the director or the director's designee shall 101598
perform the action or duty in the name of the department, except 101599
that the medical director appointed pursuant to section 5119.07101600
5119.11 of the Revised Code shall be responsible for decisions 101601
relating to medical diagnosis, treatment, rehabilitation, quality 101602
assurance, and the clinical aspects of the following: licensure of 101603
hospitals and residential facilities, research, community 101604
addiction and mental health services plans, and certification and101605
delivery of mental health and addiction services.101606

       (B) The director shall:101607

       (A)(1) Adopt rules for the proper execution of the powers and 101608
duties of the department with respect to the institutions under 101609
its control, and require the performance of additional duties by 101610
the officers of the institutions as necessary to fully meet the 101611
requirements, intents, and purposes of this chapter. In case of an 101612
apparent conflict between the powers conferred upon any managing 101613
officer and those conferred by such sections upon the department, 101614
the presumption shall be conclusive in favor of the department.101615

       (B)(2) Adopt rules for the nonpartisan management of the 101616
institutions under the department's control. An officer or 101617
employee of the department or any officer or employee of any 101618
institution under its control who, by solicitation or otherwise, 101619
exerts influence directly or indirectly to induce any other 101620
officer or employee of the department or any of its institutions 101621
to adopt the exerting officer's or employee's political views or 101622
to favor any particular person, issue, or candidate for office 101623
shall be removed from the exerting officer's or employee's office 101624
or position, by the department in case of an officer or employee, 101625
and by the governor in case of the director.101626

       (C)(3) Appoint such employees, including the medical 101627
director, as are necessary for the efficient conduct of the 101628
department, and prescribe their titles and duties;101629

       (D)(4) Prescribe the forms of affidavits, applications, 101630
medical certificates, orders of hospitalization and release, and 101631
all other forms, reports, and records that are required in the 101632
hospitalization or admission and release of all persons to the 101633
institutions under the control of the department, or are otherwise 101634
required under this chapter or Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code;101635

       (E) Contract with hospitals licensed by the department under 101636
section 5119.20 of the Revised Code for the care and treatment of 101637
mentally ill patients, or with persons, organizations, or agencies 101638
for the custody, evaluation, supervision, care, or treatment of 101639
mentally ill persons receiving services elsewhere than within the 101640
enclosure of a hospital operated under section 5119.02 of the 101641
Revised Code;101642

       (F)(5) Exercise the powers and perform the duties relating to 101643
community addiction and mental health facilities and services that 101644
are assigned to the director under this chapter and Chapter 340. 101645
of the Revised Code;101646

       (G)(6) Develop and implement clinical evaluation and 101647
monitoring of services that are operated by the department;101648

       (H)(7) Adopt rules establishing standards for the performance 101649
of evaluations by a forensic center or other psychiatric program 101650
or facility of the mental condition of defendants ordered by the 101651
court under section 2919.271, or 2945.371 of the Revised Code, and 101652
for the treatment of defendants who have been found incompetent to 101653
stand trial and ordered by the court under section 2945.38, 101654
2945.39, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code to receive 101655
treatment in facilities;101656

       (I)(8) On behalf of the department, have the authority and 101657
responsibility for entering into contracts and other agreements;101658
with providers, agencies, institutions, and other entities, both 101659
public and private, as necessary for the department to carry out 101660
its duties under this chapter and Chapters 340., 2919., 2945., and 101661
5122. of the Revised Code. Chapter 125. of the Revised Code does 101662
not apply to contracts the director enters into under this section 101663
for services provided to individuals with mental illness by 101664
providers, agencies, institutions, and other entities not owned or 101665
operated by the department.101666

       (J) Prepare and publish regularly a state mental health plan 101667
that describes the department's philosophy, current activities, 101668
and long-term and short-term goals and activities;101669

       (K)(9) Adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 101670
Revised Code specifying the supplemental services that may be 101671
provided through a trust authorized by section 5815.28 of the 101672
Revised Code;101673

       (L)(10) Adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 101674
Revised Code establishing standards for the maintenance and 101675
distribution to a beneficiary of assets of a trust authorized by 101676
section 5815.28 of the Revised Code.101677

       (C) The director may contract with hospitals licensed by the 101678
department under section 5119.33 of the Revised Code for the care 101679
and treatment of mentally ill patients, or with persons, 101680
organizations, or agencies for the custody, evaluation, 101681
supervision, care, or treatment of mentally ill persons receiving 101682
services elsewhere than within the enclosure of a hospital 101683
operated under section 5119.14 of the Revised Code.101684

       Sec. 5119.07.        Sec. 5119.11. (A) The director of mental health101685
mental health and addiction services shall appoint a medical 101686
director who is a psychiatrist as defined in division (E) of 101687
section 5122.01 of the Revised Code, is eligible or certified by 101688
the American board of psychiatry and neurology or the American 101689
osteopathic board of neurology and psychiatry, and has at least 101690
five years of clinical and two years of administrative experience. 101691
The medical director shall also have certification or substantial 101692
training and experience in the field of addiction medicine or 101693
addiction psychiatry. The medical director shall be responsible 101694
for decisions relating to medical diagnosis, treatment, 101695
prevention, rehabilitation, quality assurance, and the clinical 101696
aspects of mental health and addiction services involving all of101697
the following: licensure101698

       (1) Licensure of hospitals and, residential facilities, 101699
research, community mental healthand outpatient facilities;101700

       (2) Research;101701

       (3) Community addiction and mental health services plans,;101702

       (4) Certification and delivery of mental health and addiction101703
services. The101704

       (B) The medical director shall also exercise clinical 101705
supervision of the chief clinical officers of hospitals and 101706
institutions under the jurisdiction of the department and shall 101707
review and approve decisions relating to the employment of the 101708
chief clinical officers. The medical director or histhe medical 101709
director's designee shall advise the director on matters relating 101710
to licensure, research, community mental health plans, and the 101711
certification and delivery of mental health and addiction services 101712
and community plans. The medical director shall participate in the 101713
development of guidelines for community addiction and mental 101714
health services plans. The director of mental healthmental 101715
health and addiction services may establish other duties of the 101716
medical director. The medical director shall participate in the 101717
development of guidelines for community mental health plans.101718

       Sec. 5119.02.        Sec. 5119.14.  (A) The department of mental health101719
mental health and addiction services shall maintain, operate, 101720
manage, and govern state institutions and other services for the 101721
care and treatment of mentally ill persons.101722

       (B)(1) The department of mental healthmental health and 101723
addiction services may, with the approval of the governor,101724
designate allthe name and purpose of any institutions under its 101725
jurisdiction by appropriate respective names, regardless of 101726
present statutory designationand may change, with the approval of 101727
the governor, the designation and name when necessary.101728

       (C)(2) The department shall divide the state into districts 101729
for the purpose of designating the institution in which mentally 101730
ill persons are hospitalized and may change the districts.101731

       (3) Subject to section 5139.08 and pursuant to Chapter 5122. 101732
of the Revised Code and on the agreement of the departments of 101733
mental healthmental health and addiction services and youth 101734
services, the department of mental healthmental health and 101735
addiction services may receive from the department of youth 101736
services for psychiatric observation, diagnosis, or treatment any 101737
person eighteen years of age or older in the custody of the 101738
department of youth services. The departments shallmay enter into 101739
a written agreement specifying the procedures necessary to 101740
implement this division.101741

       (D)(C) The department of mental healthmental health and 101742
addiction services shall designate hospitals, facilities, and 101743
community mental health agenciesservices providers for the 101744
custody, care, and special treatment of, and authorize payment for 101745
such custody, care, and special treatment provided to, persons who 101746
are charged with a crime and who are found incompetent to stand 101747
trial or not guilty by reason of insanity.101748

       (E)(D) The department of mental healthmental health and 101749
addiction services may do allany of the following:101750

       (1) Require reports from the managing officer of any 101751
institution under the department's jurisdiction, relating to the 101752
admission, examination, comprehensive evaluation, diagnosis, 101753
release, or discharge of any patient;101754

       (2) Visit each institution regularly to review its operations 101755
and to investigate complaints made by any patient or by any person 101756
on behalf of a patient, provided these duties may be performed by 101757
a person designated by the director.101758

       (F) The department of mental health shall divide the state 101759
into districts for the purpose of designating the institution in 101760
which mentally ill persons are hospitalized, and may change the 101761
districts.101762

       (G)(E) The department of mental health and addiction services 101763
may provide or contract to provide addiction services for 101764
offenders incarcerated in the state prison system. 101765

       (F) In addition to the powers expressly conferred, the 101766
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services101767
shall have all powers and authority necessary for the full and 101768
efficient exercise of the executive, administrative, and fiscal 101769
supervision over the state institutions described in this section.101770

       (H) The department of mental health may provide for the 101771
custody, supervision, control, treatment, and training of mentally 101772
ill persons hospitalized elsewhere than within the enclosure of a 101773
hospital, if the department so determines with respect to any 101774
individual or group of individuals. In all such cases, the 101775
department shall ensure adequate and proper supervision for the 101776
protection of such persons and of the public.101777

       Sec. 5119.012.        Sec. 5119.141.  The department of mental health101778
mental health and addiction services has all the authority 101779
necessary to carry out its powers and duties under this chapter 101780
and Chapters 340., 2919., 2945., and 5122. of the Revised Code, 101781
including the authority to adopt rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of 101782
the Revised Code that may be necessary to carry out the purposes 101783
of this chapter and Chapters 340., 2919., 2945., and 5122. of the 101784
Revised Code.101785

       Sec. 5119.24.        Sec. 5119.15.  The department of mental healthmental 101786
health and addiction services may make such investigations as are 101787
necessary in the performance of its duties and to that end the 101788
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services101789
shall have the same power as a judge of a county court to 101790
administer oaths and to enforce the attendance and testimony of 101791
witnesses and the production of books or papers.101792

       The department shall keep a record of such investigations 101793
stating the time, place, charges or subject, witnesses summoned 101794
and examined, and its conclusions.101795

       In matters involving the conduct of an officer, a 101796
stenographic report of the evidence shall be taken and a copy of 101797
such report, with all documents introduced, kept on file at the 101798
office of the department.101799

       The fees of witnesses for attendance and travel shall be the 101800
same as in the court of common pleas, but no officer or employee 101801
of the institution under investigation is entitled to such fees.101802

       Any judge of the probate court or of the court of common 101803
pleas, upon application of the department, may compel the 101804
attendance of witnesses, the production of books or papers, and 101805
the giving of testimony before the department, by a judgment for 101806
contempt or otherwise, in the same manner as in cases before such 101807
courts.101808

       The department of mental healthmental health and addiction 101809
services may appoint and commission any competent agency or 101810
person, to serve without compensation, as a special agent, 101811
investigator, or representative to perform a designated duty for 101812
the department. Specific credentials shall be given by the 101813
department to each person so designated. Each credential shall 101814
state the:101815

       (A) Name of the agent, investigator, or representative;101816

       (B) Agency with which such person is connected;101817

       (C) Purpose of appointment;101818

       (D) Date of expiration of appointment;101819

       (E) Such information as the department considers proper.101820

       Sec. 3793.051.        Sec. 5119.161.  The department of alcohol and drug 101821
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services, in 101822
conjunction with the department of job and family services, shall 101823
develop a joint state plan to improve the accessibility and 101824
timeliness of alcohol and drug addiction services for individuals 101825
identified by a public children services agency as in need of 101826
those services. The plan shall address the fact that Ohio works 101827
first participants may be among the persons receiving services 101828
under section 340.15 of the Revised Code and shall require the 101829
department of job and family services to seek federal funds 101830
available under Title IV-A of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 101831
620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, for the provision of the 101832
services to Ohio works first participants who are receiving 101833
services under section 340.15 of the Revised Code.101834

       The plan shall address the need and manner for sharing 101835
information and include a request for the general assembly to 101836
appropriate an amount of funds specified in the report to be used 101837
by the departments to pay for services under section 340.15 of the 101838
Revised Code. The departments shall review and amend the plan as 101839
necessary.101840

       Not later than the first day of July of each even-numbered 101841
year, the departments shall submit a report on the progress made 101842
under the joint state plan to the governor, president of the 101843
senate, and speaker of the house of representatives. The report 101844
shall include information on treatment capacity, needs 101845
assessments, and number of individuals who received services 101846
pursuant to section 340.15 of the Revised Code.101847

       Sec. 3793.15.        Sec. 5119.17.  (A) The department of alcohol and drug 101848
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services, in 101849
accordance with division (B) of this section, shall give priority 101850
to developing, and promptly shall develop, with available public 101851
and private resources a program that does all of the following:101852

       (1) Provides a manner of identifying the aggregate number of 101853
pregnant women in this state who are addicted to a drug of abuse;101854

       (2) Provides for an effective means of intervention to 101855
eliminate the addiction of pregnant women to drugs of abuse prior 101856
to the birth of their children;101857

       (3) Provides for the continued monitoring of women who were 101858
addicted to a drug of abuse during their pregnancies, after the 101859
birth of their children, and for the availability of treatment and 101860
rehabilitation for those women;101861

       (4) Provides a manner of determining the aggregate number of 101862
children who are born in this state to women who are addicted, at 101863
the time of birth, to a drug of abuse, and of children who are 101864
born in this state with an addiction to or a dependency on a drug 101865
of abuse;101866

       (5) Provides for the continued monitoring of children who are 101867
born in this state to women who are addicted, at the time of 101868
birth, to a drug of abuse, or who are born in this state with an 101869
addiction to or dependency on a drug of abuse, after their birth;101870

       (6) Provides for the treatment and rehabilitation of any 101871
child who is born to a woman who is addicted, at the time of 101872
birth, to a drug of abuse, and of any child who is born with an 101873
addiction to or dependency on a drug of abuse.101874

       (B) In developing the program described in division (A) of 101875
this section, the department may obtain information from the 101876
department of health and the department of job and family 101877
services, and those departments shall cooperate with the 101878
department of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health 101879
and addiction services in its development and implementation of 101880
the program.101881

       (C) Immediately upon its development of the program described 101882
in division (A) of this section, the department shall implement 101883
the program.101884

       (D) Any record or information that is obtained or maintained 101885
by the department in connection with the program described in 101886
division (A) of this section and could enable the identification 101887
of any woman or child described in division (A)(1) or (4) of this 101888
section is not a public record subject to inspection or copying 101889
under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.101890

       Sec. 5119.071.        Sec. 5119.18.  An appointing authority may appoint a 101891
person who holds a certified or permanent position in the 101892
classified service within the department of mental healthmental 101893
health and addiction services to a position in the unclassified 101894
service within the department. A person appointed pursuant to this 101895
section to a position in the unclassified service shall retain the 101896
right to resume the position and status held by the person in the 101897
classified service immediately prior to the person's appointment 101898
to the position in the unclassified service, regardless of the 101899
number of positions the person held in the unclassified service. 101900
An employee's right to resume a position in the classified service 101901
may only be exercised when an appointing authority demotes the 101902
employee to a pay range lower than the employee's current pay 101903
range or revokes the employee's appointment to the unclassified 101904
service. An employee forfeits the right to resume a position in 101905
the classified service when the employee is removed from the 101906
position in the unclassified service due to incompetence, 101907
inefficiency, dishonesty, drunkenness, immoral conduct, 101908
insubordination, discourteous treatment of the public, neglect of 101909
duty, violation of this chapter or Chapter 124. of the Revised 101910
Code, violation of the rules of the director of administrative 101911
services or the director of mental health, any other failure of 101912
good behavior, any other acts of misfeasance, malfeasance, or 101913
nonfeasance in office, or conviction of a felony. An employee also 101914
forfeits the right to resume a position in the classified service 101915
upon transfer to a different agency.101916

       Reinstatement to a position in the classified service shall 101917
be to a position substantially equal to that position in the 101918
classified service held previously, as certified by the director 101919
of administrative services. If the position the person previously 101920
held in the classified service has been placed in the unclassified 101921
service or is otherwise unavailable, the person shall be appointed 101922
to a position in the classified service within the department that 101923
the director of administrative services certifies is comparable in 101924
compensation to the position the person previously held in the 101925
classified service. Service in the position in the unclassified 101926
service shall be counted as service in the position in the 101927
classified service held by the person immediately prior to the 101928
person's appointment to the position in the unclassified service. 101929
When a person is reinstated to a position in the classified 101930
service as provided in this section, the person is entitled to all 101931
rights, status, and benefits accruing to the position in the 101932
classified service during the person's time of service in the 101933
position in the unclassified servicepursuant to division (D) of 101934
section 124.11 of the Revised Code.101935

       Sec. 5119.072.        Sec. 5119.181.  (A) No appointing officer shall 101936
appoint a person to fill a position in either the classified or 101937
unclassified service of the department of mental healthmental 101938
health and addiction services if the person has been convicted of 101939
or pleaded guilty to a violation of the following:101940

       (1) Any felony contained in the Revised Code, if the felony 101941
bears a direct and substantial relationship to the position being 101942
filled;101943

       (2) Any crime contained in the Revised Code constituting a 101944
misdemeanor of the first degree on the first offense and a felony 101945
on subsequent offenses, if the crime bears a direct and 101946
substantial relationship to the position being filled;101947

       (3) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, 101948
or the United States, if the law violated is substantially 101949
equivalent to any of the offenses described in division (A)(1) or 101950
(2) of this section.101951

       (B) The director of mental healthmental health and addiction 101952
services shall adopt rules, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 101953
Revised Code, to implement this section.101954

       (C) The director or an appointing officer shall request the 101955
bureau of criminal identification and investigation created by 101956
section 109.51 of the Revised Code or, at histhe director's or 101957
appointing officer's discretion, any other state or federal 101958
agency, to supply himthe director or appointing officer with a 101959
written report regarding the criminal records of any applicant. 101960
For each investigation undertaken at the department's request 101961
under this section, the department shall pay a reasonable fee to 101962
the bureau or other state or federal agency conducting the 101963
investigation. The amount of the fee shall be determined by the 101964
bureau or other state or federal agency conducting the 101965
investigation and shall be sufficient to cover the costs of 101966
conducting the investigation. The report made by the bureau or 101967
other state or federal agency is not a public record for purposes 101968
of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not be made 101969
available to any person, except the applicant, the director, the 101970
appointing officer or his designeethe appointing officer's 101971
designees, or any hearing officer involved in a case denying 101972
employment.101973

       (D) As used in this section, "applicant" means a person who 101974
is under final consideration for appointment to a position in the 101975
classified or unclassified service of the department of mental 101976
healthmental health and addiction services.101977

       Sec. 5119.08.        Sec. 5119.182.  The department of mental health shall101978
mental health and addiction services may require any of its 101979
employees and each officer and employee of every institution under 101980
its control who may be charged with custody or control of any 101981
money or property belonging to the state or who is required to 101982
give bond, to give a surety company bond, properly conditioned, in 101983
a sum to be fixed by the department which when approved by the 101984
department, shall be filed in the office of the secretary of 101985
state. The cost of such bonds, when approved by the department, 101986
shall be paid from funds available for the department. The bonds 101987
required or authorized by this section may, in the discretion of 101988
the director of mental healthmental health and addiction 101989
services, be individual, schedule, or blanket bonds.101990

       Sec. 5119.10.        Sec. 5119.184.  The department of mental health101991
mental health and addiction services may provide educational 101992
grants or tuition reimbursements to upgrade the education, 101993
training, and professional achievement of its employees, whenever 101994
it determines that provision of such grants or reimbursements is 101995
essential to the achievement of its goals. The department may 101996
enter into agreements with its employees for the purposes of this 101997
section. The agreements may require, as a condition of each grant 101998
or reimbursement, that the employee continue employment with the 101999
department or with another federal, state, or local public agency 102000
designated by the department for a period of time stated in the 102001
agreement. If an employee does not fulfill the employment 102002
requirement stated in the agreement, the department may take 102003
action to recover the amount of all educational grants or tuition 102004
reimbursements paid to the employee under this section, plus 102005
interest at the rate of ten per cent per year calculated from the 102006
date of payment of each grant or reimbursement.102007

       Sec. 5119.101.        Sec. 5119.185.  (A) As used in this section, 102008
"physician" means an individual authorized under Chapter 4731. of 102009
the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic 102010
medicine and surgery.102011

       (B) The department of mental healthmental health and 102012
addiction services may establish a physician recruitment program 102013
under which the department agrees to repay all or part of the 102014
principal and interest of a government or other educational loan 102015
incurred by a physician who agrees to provide services to 102016
inpatients and outpatients of institutions under the department's 102017
administration. To be eligible to participate in the program, a 102018
physician must have attended a school that was, at the time of 102019
attendance, a medical school or osteopathic medical school in this 102020
country accredited by the liason committee on medical education or 102021
the American osteopathic association, or a medical school or 102022
osteopathic medical school located outside this country that was 102023
acknowledged by the world health organization and verified by a 102024
member state of that organization as operating within that state's 102025
jurisdiction.102026

       (C) The department shall enter into a contract with each 102027
physician it recruits under this section. Each contract shall 102028
include at least the following terms:102029

       (1) The physician agrees to provide a specified scope of 102030
medical or osteopathic medical services for a specified number of 102031
hours per week and a specified number of years to patients of one 102032
or more specified institutions administered by the department.102033

       (2) The department agrees to repay all or a specified portion 102034
of the principal and interest of a government or other educational 102035
loan taken by the physician for the following expenses if the 102036
physician meets the service obligation agreed to and the expenses 102037
were incurred while the physician was enrolled in, for up to a 102038
maximum of four years, a school that qualifies the physician to 102039
participate in the program:102040

       (a) Tuition;102041

       (b) Other educational expenses for specific purposes, 102042
including fees, books, and laboratory expenses, in amounts 102043
determined to be reasonable in accordance with rules adopted under 102044
division (D) of this section;102045

       (c) Room and board, in an amount determined to be reasonable 102046
in accordance with rules adopted under division (D) of this 102047
section.102048

       (3) The physician agrees to pay the department a specified 102049
amount, which shall be not less than the amount already paid by 102050
the department pursuant to its agreement, as damages if hethe 102051
physician fails to complete the service obligation agreed to or 102052
fails to comply with other specified terms of the contract. The 102053
contract may vary the amount of damages based on the portion of 102054
the physician's service obligation that remains uncompleted as 102055
determined by the department.102056

       (4) Other terms agreed upon by the parties.102057

       (D) If the department elects to implement the physician 102058
recruitment program, it shall adopt rules in accordance with 102059
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that establish all of the 102060
following:102061

       (1) Criteria for designating institutions for which 102062
physicians will be recruited;102063

       (2) Criteria for selecting physicians for participation in 102064
the program;102065

       (3) Criteria for determining the portion of a physician's 102066
loan that the department will agree to repay;102067

       (4) Criteria for determining reasonable amounts of the 102068
expenses described in divisions (C)(2)(b) and (c) of this section;102069

       (5) Procedures for monitoring compliance by physicians with 102070
the terms of their contracts;102071

       (6) Any other criteria or procedures necessary to implement 102072
the program.102073

       Sec. 5119.11.        Sec. 5119.186.  (A) The director of mental health102074
mental health and addiction services or the managing officer of an 102075
institution of the department may enter into an agreement with 102076
boards of trustees or boards of directors of one or more 102077
institutions of higher education or hospitals licensed pursuant to 102078
section 5119.205119.33 of the Revised Code to establish, manage, 102079
and conduct collaborative training efforts for students enrolled 102080
in courses of studies for occupations or professions which may be 102081
determined by the director upon the approval of the medical 102082
director to be in occupations or professions needed to provide 102083
adequatethat involve the care and treatment for persons receiving 102084
mental health or addiction services.102085

       (B) Such collaborative training efforts may include but are 102086
not limited to programs in psychiatry, psychology, nursing, social 102087
work, counseling professions, and others considered appropriate by 102088
the director of mental healthmental health and addiction 102089
services. Any such program shall be approved or accredited by its 102090
respective professional organization or state board having 102091
jurisdiction over the profession.102092

       (1) The department shall require that the following be 102093
provided for in agreements between the department and institutions 102094
of higher education or hospitals licensed pursuant to section 102095
5119.205119.33 of the Revised Code:102096

       (a) Establishment of inter-disciplinary committees to advise 102097
persons responsible for training programs. Each committee shall 102098
have representation drawn from the geographical community the 102099
institution of higher education or hospital serves and shall 102100
include representatives of agencies, boards, targeted populations 102101
as determined by the department, racial and ethnic minority 102102
groups, and publicly funded programs;102103

       (b) Funding procedures;102104

       (c) Specific outcomes and accomplishments that are expected 102105
or required of a program under such agreement;102106

       (d) The types of services to be provided under such 102107
agreement.102108

       (2) The department may require that the following be provided 102109
for in agreements between the department and institutions of 102110
higher education or hospitals licensed pursuant to section 5119.20102111
5119.33 of the Revised Code:102112

       (a) Special arrangements for individual residents or trainees 102113
to encourage their employment in publicly funded settings upon 102114
completion of their training;102115

       (b) Procedures for the selection of residents or trainees to 102116
promote the admission, retention, and graduation of women, 102117
minorities, and handicappeddisabled persons;102118

       (c) Cross-cultural training and other subjects considered 102119
necessary to enhance training efforts and the care and treatment 102120
of patients and clients;102121

       (d) Funding of faculty positions oriented toward meeting the 102122
needs of publicly funded programs.102123

       Subject to appropriations by the general assembly, the 102124
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services has 102125
final approval of the funding of these collaborative training 102126
efforts.102127

       Sec. 5119.12.        Sec. 5119.187.  The courses of study for the 102128
instruction and training of all persons in institutions under the 102129
control of the department of mental healthmental health and 102130
addiction services shall be subject to the approval of the 102131
superintendent of public instruction.102132

       All teachers employed in institutions under the control of 102133
the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 102134
services shall possess such educator licenses or have such 102135
qualifications and approval as the superintendent of public 102136
instruction, after consulting with the officers in charge of the 102137
institutions, prescribes for the various types of service in the 102138
institutions.102139

       Sec. 3793.16.        Sec. 5119.188.  (A) As used in this section, "state 102140
correctional institution" has the same meaning as in section 102141
2967.01 of the Revised Code.102142

       (B) The department of alcohol and drug addiction services102143
mental health and addiction services shall develop a program that 102144
is designed to educate and train the employees of each state 102145
correctional institution, the employees of each department of 102146
youth services institution, and other persons associated by 102147
contract or otherwise with each state correctional institution or 102148
each department of youth services institution, who will be 102149
responsible for the conduct of, or otherwise providing treatment 102150
or rehabilitation services pursuant to, a substance abuse 102151
treatment or rehabilitation program offered in the institution to 102152
adult prisoners or juvenile offenders. Upon the development of the 102153
educational and training program, the department of alcohol and 102154
drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction services102155
promptly shall commence its implementation. The department of102156
alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 102157
services may charge to the department of rehabilitation and 102158
correction and to the department of youth services a reasonable 102159
annual fee that reflects the expenses incurred by it during the 102160
immediately preceding calendar year in preparing and offering the 102161
educational and training program during that year to the 102162
respective employees and other associated persons described in 102163
this division.102164

       The director of rehabilitation and correction and the 102165
director of youth services shall require the respective employees 102166
and other associated persons described in this division to attend 102167
and successfully complete the educational and training program 102168
developed pursuant to this division as a condition of their 102169
continuing to have responsibility for the conduct of, or their 102170
continuing to provide treatment or rehabilitation services 102171
pursuant to, any treatment or rehabilitation program that is 102172
offered in a state correctional institution or in a department of 102173
youth services institution to adult prisoners or juvenile 102174
offenders. If the department of alcohol and drug addiction 102175
servicesmental health and addiction services charges a reasonable 102176
annual fee as described in this division, the director involved 102177
shall cause that fee to be paid from any available funds of the 102178
department of rehabilitation and correction or any available funds 102179
of the department of youth services.102180

       (C) The department of rehabilitation and correction and the 102181
department of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health 102182
and addiction services jointly shall develop program 102183
specifications for the alcohol and drug addiction treatment 102184
programs offered in state correctional institutions.102185

       Sec. 3793.031.        Sec. 5119.201. (A) The director of alcohol and drug 102186
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services may 102187
acquire by purchase, lease, or otherwise such real and personal 102188
property rights in the name of the state as are necessary for the 102189
purposes of the department. The102190

       (B) When it is necessary for a state institution under the 102191
jurisdiction of the department to acquire any real estate, 102192
right-of-way, or easement in real estate in order to accomplish 102193
the purposes for which it was organized or is being conducted, and 102194
the department is unable to agree with the owner of such property 102195
upon the price to be paid for the property, such property may be 102196
appropriated in the manner provided for the appropriation of 102197
property for other state purposes.102198

       (C) The director, with the approval of the governor and the 102199
attorney general, may work with the department of administrative 102200
services to sell, lease, or exchange portions of real and personal 102201
property of the department when the sale, lease, or exchange is 102202
advantageous to the state. Money received from such sales, leases, 102203
or exchanges shall be credited to the general revenuethe 102204
department of mental health and addiction services trust fund, 102205
created in section 5119.46 of the Revised Code.102206

       (D) Any instrument by which real property is acquired 102207
pursuant to this section shall identify the agency of the state 102208
that has the use and benefit of the real property as specified in 102209
section 5301.012 of the Revised Code.102210

       Sec. 5119.06.        Sec. 5119.21. (A) The department of mental health102211
mental health and addiction services shall:102212

       (A)(1) To the extent the department has available resources 102213
and in consultation with boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 102214
mental health services, support a community support system102215
continuum of care in accordance with section 340.03Chapter 340.102216
of the Revised Code on a district or multi-district basis. The 102217
department shall define the essential elements of a community 102218
support systemcontinuum of care, shall assist in identifying 102219
resources, and may prioritize support for one or more of the 102220
elements.102221

       (B) Operate inpatient and other mental health services;102222

       (C)(2) Provide training, consultation, and technical 102223
assistance regarding mental health programs and addiction services 102224
and appropriate prevention, recovery, and mental health promotion 102225
activities, including those that are culturally sensitive102226
competent, to employees of the department, community mental health 102227
agencies and addiction services providers, boards of alcohol, drug 102228
addiction, and mental health services, and other agencies 102229
providing mental health and addiction services;102230

       (D)(3) To the extent the department has available resources, 102231
promote and support a full range of mental health and addiction102232
services that are available and accessible to all residents of 102233
this state, especially for severely mentally disabled children, 102234
adolescents, and adults, pregnant women, parents, guardians or 102235
custodians of children at risk of abuse or neglect, and other 102236
special target populations, including racial and ethnic 102237
minorities, as determined by the department;102238

       (E)(4) Develop standards and measures for evaluating the 102239
effectiveness of mental health and addiction services, including 102240
services that use methadone treatment, of gambling addiction 102241
services, and for increasing the accountability of mental health 102242
and alcohol and addiction services providers and of gambling 102243
addiction services providers;102244

       (5) Design and set criteria for the determination of severe 102245
mental disabilitypriority populations;102246

       (F) Establish standards for evaluation of mental health 102247
programs;102248

       (G)(6) Promote, direct, conduct, and coordinate scientific 102249
research, taking ethnic and racial differences into consideration, 102250
concerning the causes and prevention of mental illness and 102251
addiction, methods of providing effective services and treatment, 102252
and means of enhancing the mental health of and recovery from 102253
addiction of all residents of this state;102254

       (H)(7) Foster the establishment and availability of 102255
vocational rehabilitation services and the creation of employment 102256
opportunities for consumers of mental health and addiction102257
services, including members of racial and ethnic minorities;102258

       (I)(8) Establish a program to protect and promote the rights 102259
of persons receiving mental health and addiction services, 102260
including the issuance of guidelines on informed consent and other 102261
rights;102262

       (J) Establish, in consultation with board of alcohol, drug 102263
addiction, and mental health services representatives and after 102264
consideration of the recommendations of the medical director, 102265
guidelines for the development of community mental health plans 102266
and the review and approval or disapproval of such plans submitted 102267
pursuant to section 340.03 of the Revised Code;102268

       (K)(9) Promote the involvement of persons who are receiving 102269
or have received mental health or addiction services, including 102270
families and other persons having a close relationship to a person 102271
receiving mental healththose services, in the planning, 102272
evaluation, delivery, and operation of mental health and addiction102273
services;102274

       (L)(10) Notify and consult with the relevant constituencies 102275
that may be affected by rules, standards, and guidelines issued by 102276
the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 102277
services. These constituencies shall include consumers of mental 102278
health and addiction services and their families, and may include 102279
public and private providers, employee organizations, and others 102280
when appropriate. Whenever the department proposes the adoption, 102281
amendment, or rescission of rules under Chapter 119. of the 102282
Revised Code, the notification and consultation required by this 102283
division shall occur prior to the commencement of proceedings 102284
under Chapter 119. The department shall adopt rules under Chapter 102285
119. of the Revised Code that establish procedures for the 102286
notification and consultation required by this division.102287

       (M) In cooperation with board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 102288
mental health services representatives, provide training regarding 102289
the provision of community-based mental health services to those 102290
department employees who are utilized in state-operated, 102291
community-based mental health services;102292

       (N)(11) Provide consultation to the department of 102293
rehabilitation and correction concerning the delivery of mental 102294
health and addiction services in state correctional institutions.102295

       (12) Promote and coordinate efforts in the provision of 102296
alcohol and drug addiction services and of gambling addiction 102297
services by other state agencies, as defined in section 1.60 of 102298
the Revised Code; courts; hospitals; clinics; physicians in 102299
private practice; public health authorities; boards of alcohol, 102300
drug addiction, and mental health services; alcohol and drug 102301
addiction services providers; law enforcement agencies; gambling 102302
addiction services providers; and related groups;102303

       (13) Provide to each court of record, and biennially update, 102304
a list of the treatment and education programs within that court's 102305
jurisdiction that the court may require an offender, sentenced 102306
pursuant to section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, to attend;102307

       (14) Make the warning sign described in sections 3313.752, 102308
3345.41, and 3707.50 of the Revised Code available on the 102309
department's internet web site;102310

       (15) Provide a program of gambling addiction services on 102311
behalf of the state lottery commission, pursuant to an agreement 102312
entered into with the director of the commission under division 102313
(K) of section 3770.02 of the Revised Code, and provide a program 102314
of gambling addiction services on behalf of the Ohio casino 102315
control commission, under an agreement entered into with the 102316
executive director of the commission under section 3772.062 of the 102317
Revised Code. Under Section 6(C)(3) of Article XV, Ohio 102318
Constitution, the department may enter into agreements with boards 102319
of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, including 102320
boards with districts in which a casino facility is not located, 102321
and nonprofit organizations to provide gambling addiction services 102322
and substance abuse services, and with state institutions of 102323
higher education or private nonprofit institutions that possess a 102324
certificate of authorization issued under Chapter 1713. of the 102325
Revised Code to perform related research.102326

       (B) The department may accept and administer grants from 102327
public or private sources for carrying out any of the duties 102328
enumerated in this section.102329

       (C) Pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 102330
department shall adopt a rule defining the term "intervention" as 102331
it is used in this chapter in connection with alcohol and drug 102332
addiction services and in connection with gambling addiction 102333
services. The department may adopt other rules as necessary to 102334
implement the requirements of this chapter.102335

       Sec. 5119.61.        Sec. 5119.22. Any provision in this chapter that 102336
refers to a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 102337
services also refers to the community mental health board in an 102338
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district that 102339
has a community mental health board.102340

       The director of mental healthmental health and addiction 102341
services with respect to all mental health and addiction102342
facilities and programsservices established and operated or 102343
provided under Chapter 340. of the Revised Code for mentally ill 102344
and emotionally disturbed persons, shall do all of the following:102345

       (A) Adopt rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 102346
that may be necessary to carry out the purposes of Chapterthis 102347
chapter and Chapters 340. and sections 5119.61 to 5119.635122. of 102348
the Revised Code.102349

       (1) The rules shall include the following:102350

       (a) Rules governing a community mental health agency's 102351
services under section 340.091 of the Revised Code to an 102352
individual referred to the agency under division (D)(2) of section 102353
5119.69 of the Revised Code;102354

       (b) For the purpose of division (A)(16) of section 340.03 of 102355
the Revised Code, rules governing the duties of mental health 102356
agencies and boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 102357
services regarding referrals of individuals with mental illness or 102358
severe mental disability to residential facilities as defined in 102359
division (A)(9)(b) of section 5119.22 of the Revised Code and 102360
effective arrangements for ongoing mental health services for the 102361
individuals. .102362

       (2) Rules may be adopted to govern the method of paying a 102363
community mental health facility, as defined in section 5111.023 102364
of the Revised Code, for providing services listed in division (B) 102365
of that section. Such rules must be consistent with the contract 102366
entered into between the departments of job and family services 102367
and mental health under section 5111.91 of the Revised Code and 102368
include requirements ensuring appropriate service utilization. 102369

       (B) Review and evaluate, andthe continuum of care in each 102370
service district, taking into account the findings and 102371
recommendations of the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 102372
mental health services of the district served by the program102373
submitted under division (A)(4) of section 340.03 of the Revised 102374
Code and the requirements and priorities and plans of the state 102375
mental health plandepartment, including the needs of residents of 102376
the district now residing in state mental institutionscurrently 102377
receiving services in state-operated hospitals, and make 102378
recommendations for needed improvements to boards of alcohol, drug 102379
addiction, and mental health services;102380

       (C) Provide consultative services to community mental health 102381
agencies with the knowledge and cooperation of the board of 102382
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services;102383

       (D) At the director's discretion, provide to boards of 102384
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services state or 102385
federal funds, in addition to those allocated under section 102386
5119.625119.23 of the Revised Code, for special programs or 102387
projects the director considers necessary but for which local 102388
funds are not available;102389

       (D) Establish, in consultation with board of alcohol, drug 102390
addiction, and mental health service representatives and after 102391
consideration of the recommendations of the medical director, 102392
guidelines for the development of community mental health and 102393
addiction services plans and the review and approval or 102394
disapproval of such plans submitted pursuant to section 340.03 of 102395
the Revised Code.102396

       (E) Establish criteria by which a board of alcohol, drug 102397
addiction, and mental health services reviews and evaluates the 102398
quality, effectiveness, and efficiency of its contracted services 102399
provided through its community mental health plan. The criteria 102400
shall include requirements ensuring appropriate service 102401
utilization. The department shall assess a board's evaluation of 102402
services and the compliance of each board with this section, 102403
Chapter 340. or section 5119.62 of the Revised Code, and other 102404
state or federal law and regulations. The department, in 102405
cooperation with the board, periodically shall review and evaluate 102406
the quality, effectiveness, and efficiency of services provided 102407
through each board. The department shall collect information that 102408
is necessary to perform these functions.102409

        (F) To the extent the director determines necessary and after 102410
consulting with boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 102411
health services, develop and operate, or contract for the 102412
operation of, a community mentalbehavioral health information 102413
system or systems. The department shall specify the information 102414
that must be provided by boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 102415
mental health services and by community addiction and mental 102416
health services providers for inclusion in the system or systems.102417

       Boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 102418
and community addiction and mental health services providers shall 102419
submit information requested by the department in the form and 102420
manner and in accordance with time frames prescribed by the 102421
department. Information collected by the department shallmay102422
include, but not be limited to, all of the following:102423

       (1) Information regarding units ofon services provided in 102424
whole or in part under contract with a board, including diagnosis 102425
and special needs, demographic information, the number of units of 102426
service provided, past treatment, financial status, and service 102427
dates in accordance with rules adopted by the department in 102428
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code;102429

       (2) Financial information other than price or price-related 102430
data regarding expenditures of boards and community mental health 102431
agencies, including units of service provided, budgeted and actual 102432
expenses by type, and sources offederal, state, or local funds;102433

       (3) Information about persons served.102434

       Boards shall submit the information specified in division 102435
(F)(1) of this section no less frequently than annually for each 102436
client, and each time the client's case is opened or closed. The 102437
department shall not collect any personal information from the 102438
boards except as required or permitted by state or federal law for 102439
purposes related to payment, health care operations, program and 102440
service evaluation, reporting activities, research, system 102441
administration, and oversight.102442

       (G)(1) Review each board's community mental health and 102443
addiction services plan, budget, and statement of services to be 102444
made available submitted pursuant to sectionsections 340.03 and 102445
340.08 of the Revised Code and approve or disapprove itthe plan, 102446
the budget, and the statement of services in whole or in part. 102447
Periodically, in consultation with representatives of boards and 102448
after considering the recommendations of the medical director, the 102449
director shall issue criteria for determining when a plan is 102450
complete, criteria for plan approval or disapproval, and 102451
provisions for conditional approval. The factors that the director 102452
considers may include, but are not limited to, the following:102453

       (1) The mental health needs of all persons residing within 102454
the board's service district, especially severely mentally 102455
disabled children, adolescents, and adults;102456

       (2) The demonstrated quality, effectiveness, efficiency, and 102457
cultural relevance of the services provided in each service 102458
district, the extent to which any services are duplicative of 102459
other available services, and whether the services meet the needs 102460
identified above;102461

       (3) The adequacy of the board's accounting for the 102462
expenditure of funds.102463

       If the director disapproves all or part of any plan, the 102464
director shall provide the board an opportunity to present its 102465
position. The director shall inform the board of the reasons for 102466
the disapproval and of the criteria that must be met before the 102467
plan may be approved. The director shall give the board a 102468
reasonable time within which to meet the criteria, and shall offer 102469
technical assistance to the board to help it meet the criteria.102470

       If the approval of a plan remains in dispute, the board or 102471
the director may request that the dispute be submitted to a 102472
mutually agreed upon third-party mediator with the cost to be 102473
shared by the board and the department. The mediator shall issue 102474
to the board and the department recommendations for resolution of 102475
the dispute. The director, taking into consideration the 102476
recommendations of the mediator, shall make a final determination 102477
and approve or disapprove the plan, in whole or in partThe 102478
department may withhold all or part of the funds allocated to a 102479
board if it disapproves all or part of a plan, budget, or 102480
statement of services. Prior to a final decision to disapprove a 102481
plan, budget, or statement of services, or to withhold funds from 102482
a board, a representative of the director of mental health and 102483
addiction services shall meet with the board and discuss the 102484
reason for the action the department proposes to take and any 102485
corrective action that should be taken to make the plan, budget, 102486
or statement of services acceptable to the department. In 102487
addition, the department shall offer technical assistance to the 102488
board to assist it to make the plan, budget, or statement of 102489
services acceptable. The department shall give the board a 102490
reasonable time in which to revise the plan, budget, or statement 102491
of services. The board thereafter shall submit a revised plan, 102492
budget, or statement of services, or a new plan, budget, or 102493
statement of services.102494

       (2) If a board determines that it is necessary to amend the 102495
plan, budget, or statement of services that has been approved 102496
under this section, the board shall submit the proposed amendment 102497
to the department. The department may approve or disapprove all or 102498
part of the amendment.102499

       (3) If the director disapproves of all or part of any 102500
proposed amendment, the director shall provide the board an 102501
opportunity to present its position. The director shall inform the 102502
board of the reasons for the disapproval and of the criteria that 102503
must be met before the proposed amendment may be approved. The 102504
director shall give the board a reasonable time within which to 102505
meet the criteria and shall offer technical assistance to the 102506
board to help it meet the criteria.102507

       (4) The department shall establish procedures for the review 102508
of plans, budgets, and statements of services, and a timetable for 102509
submission and review of plans, budgets, and statements of 102510
services and for corrective action and submission of new or 102511
revised plans, budgets, and statements of services.102512

       Sec. 5119.62.        Sec. 5119.23.  (A) The department of mental health102513
mental health and addiction services shall establish a methodology 102514
for allocating to boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 102515
health services the funds appropriated by the general assembly to 102516
the department for the purpose of local mental health systemsand 102517
addiction services continuums of care. The department shall 102518
establish the methodology after notifying and consulting with 102519
relevant constituencies as required by division (L)(A)(10) of 102520
section 5119.065119.21 of the Revised Code. The methodology may 102521
provide for the funds to be allocated to boards on a district or 102522
multi-district basis. Subject102523

       (B) Subject to sections 5119.622 and 5119.623section 102524
5119.25 of the Revised Code, and to required submissions and 102525
approvals under section 340.08 of the Revised Code, the department 102526
shall allocate the funds to the boards in a manner consistent with 102527
the methodology, this section, other state and federal laws, 102528
rules, and regulations.102529

       (B) The department may allocate to boards a portion of the 102530
funds appropriated by the general assembly to the department for 102531
the operation of state hospital services. If the department 102532
allocates the funds, the department shall do all of the following:102533

       (1) In consultation with the boards:102534

       (a) Annually determine the unit costs of providing state 102535
hospital services; and102536

       (b) Establish the methodology for allocating the funds to the 102537
boards.102538

       (2) Determine the type of unit costs of providing state 102539
hospital services to be included as a factor in the methodology 102540
and include that unit cost as a factor in the methodology;102541

       (3) Subject to sections 5119.622 and 5119.623 of the Revised 102542
Code, allocate the funds to the boards in a manner consistent with 102543
the methodology, this section, other state and federal laws, 102544
rules, and regulations.102545

       (c) Not later than the first day of April of each year, the 102546
department shall notify each board of the department's estimate of 102547
the amount of funds to be allocated to the board under this 102548
section during the fiscal year beginning on the next July first. 102549
If the department makes an allocation under division (B) of this 102550
section, the department shall also notify each board of the unit 102551
costs of providing state hospital services for the upcoming fiscal 102552
year as determined under that division. Not later than the first 102553
day of May of each year, each board shall notify the department as 102554
to which of the following options it has elected for the upcoming 102555
fiscal year:102556

       (1) The board elects to accept distribution of the amount 102557
allocated to it under this section. Funds distributed to each 102558
board shall be used to supplement and not to supplant other state, 102559
local, or federal funds that are being used to support 102560
community-based programs for severely mentally disabled children, 102561
adolescents, and adults, unless the funds have been specifically 102562
designated for the initiation of programs in accordance with the 102563
community mental health plan developed and submitted under section 102564
340.03 and approved under section 5119.61 of the Revised Code. 102565
Notwithstanding section 131.33 of the Revised Code, any board may 102566
expend unexpended funds distributed to the board from 102567
appropriations for the purpose of local management of mental 102568
health services in the fiscal year following the fiscal year for 102569
which the appropriations are made, in accordance with the approved 102570
community mental health plan.102571

       (2) Subject to division (D) of this section, the board elects 102572
not to accept the amount allocated to it under this section, 102573
authorizes the department to determine the use of its allocation, 102574
and agrees to provide the department with a statement of projected 102575
utilization of state hospitals and other state-operated services 102576
by residents of its service district during the fiscal year.102577

       (D) No board shall elect the option in division (C)(2) of 102578
this section unless all of the following apply:102579

       (1) Either the total funds estimated by the department to be 102580
allocated to the board under this section for the next fiscal year 102581
are reduced by a substantial amount, as defined in guidelines 102582
adopted by the director of mental health under division (E) of 102583
this section, in comparison to the amount allocated for the 102584
current fiscal year, for reasons not related to performance or the 102585
board has experienced other circumstances specified in the 102586
guidelines.102587

        (2) The board provides the department written confirmation 102588
that the board has received input about the impact that the 102589
board's election will have on the mental health system in the 102590
board's district from all of the following:102591

       (a) Individuals who receive mental health services and such 102592
individuals' families;102593

       (b) Boards of county commissioners;102594

       (c) Judges of juvenile and probate courts;102595

       (d) County sheriffs, jail administrators, and other local law 102596
enforcement officials.102597

       (3) Not later than seven days before notifying the department 102598
of its election and after providing the department the written 102599
confirmation required by division (D)(2) of this section, the 102600
board conducts a public hearing on the issue.102601

       (E) For the purpose of division (D)(1) of this section, the 102602
director of mental health shall consult with the boards and other 102603
relevant constituencies to develop guidelines for determining what 102604
constitutes a substantial reduction of funds and what other 102605
circumstances qualify a board to elect the option in division 102606
(C)(2) of this section.102607

       (F) No board shall use state funds for the purpose of 102608
discouraging employees from seeking collective bargaining 102609
representation or encouraging employees to decertify a recognized 102610
collective bargaining agent.102611

       (G) The department shall charge against the allocation made 102612
to a board under division (B) of this section, if any, any 102613
unreimbursed costs for services provided by the department.102614

       (H) A board's use of funds allocated under this section is 102615
subject to audit by county, state, and federal authorities.102616

       (C) In consultation with boards, community mental health and 102617
addiction services providers, and persons receiving services, the 102618
department shall establish guidelines for the use of funds 102619
allocated and distributed under this section.102620

       Sec. 5119.621.        Sec. 5119.24.  (A) As used in this section, 102621
"administrative function" means a function related to one or more 102622
of the following:102623

       (1) Continuous quality improvement;102624

       (2) Utilization review;102625

       (3) Resource development;102626

       (4) Fiscal administration;102627

       (5) General administration;102628

       (6) Any other function related to administration that is 102629
required by Chapter 340. of the Revised Code.102630

       (B) Each board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 102631
services shall submit an annual report to the department of mental 102632
healthmental health and addiction services specifying how the 102633
board used funds allocated to the board under section 5119.62102634
5119.23 of the Revised Code for administrative functions in the 102635
year preceding the report's submission. The director of mental 102636
healthmental health and addiction services shall establish the 102637
date by which the report must be submitted each year.102638

       Sec. 5119.622.        Sec. 5119.25. (A) The director of mental health102639
mental health and addiction services, in whole or in part, may 102640
withhold funds otherwise to be allocated to a board of alcohol, 102641
drug addiction, and mental health services under section 5119.62102642
5119.23 of the Revised Code if the board fails to comply with 102643
Chapter 340. or section 5119.61, 5119.611, 5119.612, or 5119.621102644
5119.22, 5119.24, 5119.36, or 5119.37 of the Revised Code or rules 102645
of the department of mental health regarding a community mental 102646
health servicemental health and addiction services. The102647

       (B) The director of mental health and addiction services may 102648
withhold funds otherwise to be allocated to a board of alcohol, 102649
drug addiction, and mental health services under section 5119.23 102650
of the Revised Code if the board denies available service on the 102651
basis of race, color, religion, creed, sex, age, national origin, 102652
disability as defined in section 4112.01 of the Revised Code, or 102653
developmental disability.102654

       (C) The director shall identifyissue a notice identifying102655
the areas of noncompliance and the action necessary to achieve 102656
compliance. The director shallmay offer technical assistance to 102657
the board to achieve compliance. The director shall give the board 102658
a reasonable time within which to comply orshall have ten days 102659
from receipt of the notice of noncompliance to present its 102660
position that it is in compliance. Before withholding funds, the 102661
director or the director's designee shall hold a hearing shall be 102662
conductedwithin ten days of receipt of the board's position to 102663
determine if there are continuing violations and that either 102664
assistance is rejected or the board is unable to achieve 102665
compliance. Subsequent to the hearing process, if it is determined 102666
that compliance has not been achieved, the director may allocate 102667
all or part of the withheld funds to a public or private agency to 102668
provide the community mental health or community addiction service 102669
for which the board is not in compliance until the time that there 102670
is compliance. The director shallmay adopt rules in accordance 102671
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section.102672

       Sec. 3793.14.        Sec. 5119.26.  Any person treated under this chapter 102673
or rules adopted under it shall retain histhe person's civil 102674
rights and liberties, including the right not to be experimented 102675
upon with treatment not accepted as good medical practice without 102676
histhe person's fully informed consent, the right as a patient102677
person receiving services to maintain the confidentiality of 102678
health and medical records, the right as a person detained for 102679
medical purposes to receive adequate and appropriate treatment, 102680
and the right to vote.102681

       Sec. 3793.13.        Sec. 5119.27.  (A) Records or information, other than 102682
court journal entries or court docket entries, pertaining to the 102683
identity, diagnosis, or treatment of any patientperson seeking or 102684
receiving services that are maintained in connection with the 102685
performance of any drug treatment program or services licensed by, 102686
or certified by, the director of alcohol and drug addiction 102687
services,mental health and addiction services under section 102688
3793.11 of the Revised Code,this chapter shall be kept 102689
confidential, may be disclosed only for the purposes and under the 102690
circumstances expressly authorized under this section, and may not 102691
otherwise be divulged in any civil, criminal, administrative, or 102692
legislative proceeding.102693

       (B) When the patientperson, with respect to whom any record 102694
or information referred to in division (A) of this section is 102695
maintained, gives consent in the form of a written release signed 102696
by the patientperson, the content of the record or information 102697
may be disclosed if the written release conforms to all of the 102698
following:102699

       (1) Specifically identifies the person, official, or entity 102700
to whom the information is to be provided;102701

       (2) Describes with reasonable specificity the record, 102702
records, or information to be disclosed; and102703

       (3) Describes with reasonable specificity the purposes of the 102704
disclosure and the intended use of the disclosed information.102705

       (C) A patientperson who is subject to a community control 102706
sanction, parole, or a post-release control sanction or who is 102707
ordered to rehabilitation in lieu of conviction, and who has 102708
agreed to participate in a drug treatment or rehabilitation 102709
program as a condition of the community control sanction, 102710
post-release control sanction, parole, or order to rehabilitation, 102711
shall be considered to have consented to the release of records 102712
and information relating to the progress of treatment, frequency 102713
of treatment, adherence to treatment requirements, and probable 102714
outcome of treatment. Release of information and records under 102715
this division shall be limited to the court or governmental 102716
personnel having the responsibility for supervising the patient's102717
person's community control sanction, post-release control 102718
sanction, parole, or order to rehabilitation. A patientperson, 102719
described in this division, who refuses to allow disclosure may be 102720
considered in violation of the conditions of the patient's102721
person's community control sanction, post-release control 102722
sanction, parole, or order to rehabilitation.102723

       (D) Disclosure of a patient'sperson's record may be made 102724
without the patient'sperson's consent to qualified personnel for 102725
the purpose of conducting scientific research, management, 102726
financial audits, or program evaluation, but these personnel may 102727
not identify, directly or indirectly, any individual patient102728
person in any report of the research, audit, or evaluation, or 102729
otherwise disclose a patient'sperson's identity in any manner.102730

       (E) Upon the request of a prosecuting attorney or the 102731
director of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and 102732
addiction services, a court of competent jurisdiction may order 102733
the disclosure of records or information referred to in division 102734
(A) of this section if the court has reason to believe that a 102735
treatment program or facility is being operated or used in a 102736
manner contrary to law. The use of any information or record so 102737
disclosed shall be limited to the prosecution of persons who are 102738
or may be charged with any offense related to the illegal 102739
operation or use of the drug treatment program or facility, or to 102740
the decision to withdraw the authority of a drug treatment program 102741
or facility to continue operation. For purposes of this division 102742
the court shall:102743

       (1) Limit disclosure to those parts of the patient'sperson's102744
record considered essential to fulfill the objective for which the 102745
order was granted;102746

       (2) Require, where appropriate, that all information be 102747
disclosed in chambers;102748

       (3) Include any other appropriate measures to keep disclosure 102749
to a minimum, consistent with the protection of the patients102750
persons seeking or receiving services, the physician-patient 102751
relationship, and the administration of the drug treatment and 102752
rehabilitation program.102753

       (F) As used in this section:102754

       (1) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 102755
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.102756

       (2) "Post-release control sanction" has the same meaning as 102757
in section 2967.01 of the Revised Code.102758

       Sec. 5119.28.  (A) All records, and reports, other than court 102759
journal entries or court docket entries, identifying a person and 102760
pertaining to the person's mental health condition, assessment, 102761
provision of care or treatment, or payment for assessment, care or 102762
treatment that are maintained in connection with any services 102763
certified by the department of mental health and addiction 102764
services, or any hospitals or facilities licensed or operated by 102765
the department, shall be kept confidential and shall not be 102766
disclosed by any person except:102767

       (1) If the person identified, or the person's legal guardian, 102768
if any, or if the person is a minor, the person's parent or legal 102769
guardian, consents;102770

       (2) When disclosure is provided for in this chapter or 102771
Chapter 340. or 5122., or Title XLVII of the Revised Code;102772

       (3) That hospitals, boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 102773
mental health services, licensed facilities, and community mental 102774
health services providers may release necessary information to 102775
insurers and other third-party payers, including government 102776
entities responsible for processing and authorizing payment, to 102777
obtain payment for goods and services furnished to the person;102778

       (4) Pursuant to a court order signed by a judge;102779

       (5) That a person shall be granted access to the person's own 102780
psychiatric and medical records, unless access specifically is 102781
restricted in a person's treatment plan for clear treatment 102782
reasons;102783

       (6) That the department of mental health and addiction 102784
services may exchange psychiatric records and other pertinent 102785
information with community mental health services providers and 102786
boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 102787
relating to the person's care or services. Records and information 102788
that may be exchanged pursuant to this division shall be limited 102789
to medication history, physical health status and history, 102790
financial status, summary of course of treatment, summary of 102791
treatment needs, and a discharge summary, if any.102792

       (7) That the department of mental health and addiction 102793
services, hospitals and community providers operated by the 102794
department, hospitals licensed by the department under section 102795
5119.33 of the Revised Code, and community mental health services 102796
providers may exchange psychiatric records and other pertinent 102797
information with payers and other providers of treatment and 102798
health services if the purpose of the exchange is to facilitate 102799
continuity of care for the person or for the emergency treatment 102800
of the person;102801

       (8) That the department of mental health and addiction 102802
services and community mental health services providers may 102803
exchange psychiatric records and other pertinent information with 102804
boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services for 102805
purposes of any board function set forth in Chapter 340. of the 102806
Revised Code. Boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 102807
services shall not access any personal information from the 102808
department or providers except as required or permitted by this 102809
section, or Chapter 340. or 5122. of the Revised Code for purposes 102810
related to payment, care coordination, health care operations, 102811
program and service evaluation, reporting activities, research, 102812
system administration, oversight, or other authorized purposes.102813

       (9) That a person's family member who is involved in the 102814
provision, planning, and monitoring of services to the person may 102815
receive medication information, a summary of the person's 102816
diagnosis and prognosis, and a list of the services and personnel 102817
available to assist the person and the person's family, if the 102818
person's treatment provider determines that the disclosure would 102819
be in the best interests of the person. No such disclosure shall 102820
be made unless the person is notified first and receives the 102821
information and does not object to the disclosure.102822

       (10) That community mental health services providers may 102823
exchange psychiatric records and certain other information with 102824
the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 102825
and other providers in order to provide services to a person 102826
involuntarily committed to a board. Release of records under this 102827
division shall be limited to medication history, physical health 102828
status and history, financial status, summary of course of 102829
treatment, summary of treatment needs, and discharge summary, if 102830
any.102831

       (11) That information may be disclosed to the executor or the 102832
administrator of an estate of a deceased person when the 102833
information is necessary to administer the estate;102834

       (12) That information may be disclosed to staff members of 102835
the appropriate board or to staff members designated by the 102836
director of mental health and addiction services for the purpose 102837
of evaluating the quality, effectiveness, and efficiency of 102838
services and determining if the services meet minimum standards. 102839
Information obtained during such evaluations shall not be retained 102840
with the name of any person.102841

       (13) That records pertaining to the person's diagnosis, 102842
course of treatment, treatment needs, and prognosis shall be 102843
disclosed and released to the appropriate prosecuting attorney if 102844
the person was committed pursuant to section 2945.38, 2945.39, 102845
2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code, or to the 102846
attorney designated by the board for proceedings pursuant to 102847
involuntary commitment under Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code.102848

       (14) That the department of mental health and addiction 102849
services may exchange psychiatric hospitalization records, other 102850
mental health treatment records, and other pertinent information 102851
with the department of rehabilitation and correction and with the 102852
department of youth services to ensure continuity of care for 102853
inmates and offenders who are receiving mental health services in 102854
an institution of the department of rehabilitation and correction 102855
or the department of youth services and may exchange psychiatric 102856
hospitalization records, other mental health treatment records, 102857
and other pertinent information with boards of alcohol, drug 102858
addiction, and mental health services and community mental health 102859
services providers to ensure continuity of care for inmates or 102860
offenders who are receiving mental health services in an 102861
institution and are scheduled for release within six months. The 102862
release of records under this division is limited to records 102863
regarding an inmate's or offender's medication history, physical 102864
health status and history, summary of course of treatment, summary 102865
of treatment needs, and a discharge summary, if any.102866

       (15) That a community mental health services provider that 102867
ceases to operate may transfer to either a community mental health 102868
services provider that assumes its caseload or to the board of 102869
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services of the service 102870
district in which the person resided at the time services were 102871
most recently provided any treatment records that have not been 102872
transferred elsewhere at the person's request.102873

       (B) Before records are disclosed pursuant to divisions 102874
(A)(3), (6), and (10) of this section, the custodian of the 102875
records shall attempt to obtain the person's consent for the 102876
disclosure.102877

       (C) No person shall reveal the content of a medical record of 102878
a person that is confidential pursuant to this section, except as 102879
authorized by law.102880

       Sec. 5119.57.        Sec. 5119.29. No later than January 1, 1998, theThe102881
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services, 102882
in conjunction with boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 102883
health services and community mental health boards, shall develop 102884
a coordinated system for tracking and monitoring persons found not 102885
guilty by reason of insanity and committed pursuant to section 102886
2945.40 of the Revised Code who have been granted a conditional 102887
release and persons found incompetent to stand trial and committed 102888
pursuant to section 2945.39 of the Revised Code who have been 102889
granted a conditional release. The system shall do all of the 102890
following:102891

       (A) Centralize responsibility for the tracking of those 102892
persons;102893

       (B) Develop uniformity in monitoring those persons;102894

       (C) Develop a mechanism to allow prompt rehospitalization, 102895
reinstitutionalization, or detention when a violation of the 102896
conditional release or decompensation occurs.102897

       Sec. 3793.18.        Sec. 5119.30.  The department of alcohol and drug 102898
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services promptly 102899
shall develop and maintain a program that continually provides the 102900
courts of this state with relevant information pertaining to 102901
alcohol and drug addiction services and programs available both 102902
within their jurisdictions and statewide in order to facilitate 102903
the ability of the courts to utilize treatment and rehabilitation 102904
alternatives in addition to or in lieu of imposing sentences of 102905
imprisonment upon appropriate offenders.102906

       Sec. 5119.23.        Sec. 5119.31.  The department of mental healthmental 102907
health and addiction services may examine into, with or without 102908
expert assistance, the question of the mental and physical 102909
condition of any person committed to or involuntarily confined in 102910
any hospital for the mentally ill, or restrained of his liberty at 102911
any place within this state by reason of alleged mental illness 102912
and may order and compel the discharge of any such person who is 102913
not a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 102914
order as defined in division (B) of section 5122.01 of the Revised 102915
Code and direct what disposition shall be made of himthe person. 102916
The order of discharge shall be signed by the director of mental 102917
healthmental health and addiction services. Upon receipt of such 102918
order by the superintendent or other person in charge of the 102919
building in which the person named in such order is confined, such 102920
person shall forthwith be discharged or otherwise disposed of 102921
according to the terms of said order, and any further or other 102922
detention of such person is unlawful. No such order shall be made 102923
in favor of any person committed and held for trial on a criminal 102924
charge, in confinement by an order of a judge or court made in a 102925
criminal proceeding, or in any case unless notice is given to the 102926
superintendent or other person having charge of the building in 102927
which the alleged mentally ill person is detained, and a 102928
reasonable opportunity is allowed the person in charge to justify 102929
further detention of the person confined.102930

       Sec. 5119.60.        Sec. 5119.32.  The department of mental healthmental 102931
health and addiction services is hereby designated as the state 102932
administrative agency for the alcohol, drug abuse and mental 102933
health servicessubstance abuse prevention treatment block grant 102934
and the community mental health services block grant authorized by 102935
the "Public Health Services Act," 95 Stat. 357, 543, 42 U.S.C. 102936
300x, as amended, and similar alcohol, drug abuse, or mental 102937
health programs that are specified in an appropriations act. The 102938
department shall establish and administer an annual plan to 102939
utilize federal block grant funds. The department shall consult 102940
with the department of alcohol and drug addiction services on the 102941
allocation of funds for alcohol and drug addiction services 102942
pursuant to Chapter 3793. of the Revised Code and shall notify the 102943
controlling board, which shall authorize the transfer of funds 102944
allocated to the department of alcohol and drug addiction 102945
services.102946

       Sec. 5119.20.        Sec. 5119.33.  The department of mental healthmental 102947
health and addiction services shall inspect and license all 102948
hospitals that receive mentally ill persons, except those 102949
hospitals managed by the department. No hospital may receive for 102950
care or treatment, either at public or private expense, any person 102951
who is or appears to be mentally ill, whether or not so 102952
adjudicated, unless the hospital has received a license from the 102953
department authorizing it to receive for care or treatment persons 102954
who are mentally ill or the hospital is managed by the department.102955

       No such license shall be granted to a hospital for the 102956
treatment of mentally ill persons unless the department is 102957
satisfied, after investigation, that the hospital is managed and 102958
operated by qualified persons and has on its staff one or more 102959
qualified physicians responsible for the medical care of the 102960
patients confined there. At least one such physician shall be a 102961
psychiatrist.102962

       The department shall adopt rules under Chapter 119. of the 102963
Revised Code prescribing minimum standards for the operation of 102964
hospitals for the care and treatment of mentally ill persons and 102965
establishing standards and procedures for the issuance, renewal, 102966
or revocation of full, probationary, and interim licenses. No 102967
license shall be granted to any hospital established or used for 102968
the care of mentally ill persons unless such hospital is operating 102969
in accordance with this section and rules adopted pursuant to this 102970
section. A full license shall expire one year after the date of 102971
issuance, a probationary license shall expire at the time 102972
prescribed by rule adopted pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised 102973
Code by the director of mental healthmental health and addiction 102974
services, and an interim license shall expire ninety days after 102975
the date of issuance. A full, probationary, or interim license may 102976
be renewed, except that an interim license may be renewed only 102977
twice. The department may fix reasonable fees for licenses and for 102978
license renewals. Such hospitals are subject to inspection and 102979
visitationon-site review by the department.102980

       Except as otherwise provided in Chapter 5122. of the Revised 102981
Code, neither the director of the department of mental health102982
mental health and addiction services; an employee of the 102983
department; a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 102984
services or agency employee of a community mental health services 102985
provider; nor any other public official shall hospitalize any 102986
mentally ill person for care or treatment in any hospital that is 102987
not licensed in accordance with this section.102988

       Any license issued by the department under this section may 102989
be revoked by the department for any of the following reasons:102990

       (A) The hospital is no longer a suitable place for the care 102991
or treatment of mentally ill persons.102992

       (B) The hospital refuses to be subject to inspection or 102993
visitationon-site review by the department.102994

       (C) The hospital has failed to furnish humane, kind, and 102995
adequate treatment and care.102996

       (D) The hospital fails to comply with the licensure rules of 102997
the department.102998

       The department may inspect, visitconduct an on-site review, 102999
and review the records of any hospital that the department has 103000
reason to believe is operating without a license.103001

       Sec. 5119.201.        Sec. 5119.331.  If the department of mental health103002
mental health and addiction services determines that a hospital 103003
not licensed by the department is receiving for care or treatment 103004
any person who is or appears to be mentally ill, the department 103005
may request in writing that the attorney general petition the 103006
court of common pleas in the county where the hospital is located 103007
to enjoin the hospital from continued operation in violation of 103008
section 5119.205119.33 of the Revised Code.103009

       Sec. 5119.202.        Sec. 5119.332.  No third-party payer shall directly 103010
or indirectly reimburse, nor shall any person be obligated to pay 103011
any hospital for psychiatric services for which a license is 103012
required under section 5119.205119.33 of the Revised Code unless 103013
the hospital is licensed by the department of mental healthmental 103014
health and addiction services.103015

       As used in this section, "third-party payer" means a health 103016
insuring corporation licensed under Chapter 1751. of the Revised 103017
Code, an insurance company that issues sickness and accident 103018
insurance in conformity with Chapter 3923. of the Revised Code, a 103019
state-financed health insurance program under Chapter 3701., 103020
4123., or 5101. of the Revised Code, or any self-insurance plan.103021

       Sec. 5119.21.        Sec. 5119.333.  No person shall keep or maintain a 103022
hospital for the care or treatment of mentally ill persons unless 103023
it is licensed by the department of mental healthmental health 103024
and addiction services, as provided by section 5119.205119.33 of 103025
the Revised Code.103026

       Sec. 5119.22.        Sec. 5119.34.  (A) As used in this section and 103027
section 5119.221sections 5119.341 and 5119.342 of the Revised 103028
Code:103029

       (1) "Accommodations" means housing, daily meal preparation, 103030
laundry, housekeeping, arranging for transportation, social and 103031
recreational activities, maintenance, security, and other services 103032
that do not constitute personal care services or skilled nursing 103033
care.103034

       (2) "ADAMHS board" means a board of alcohol, drug addiction, 103035
and mental health services.103036

       (3) "Adult" means a person who is eighteen years of age or 103037
older, other than a person described in division (A)(4) of this 103038
section who is between eighteen and twenty-one years of age.103039

       (4) "Child" means a person who is under eighteen years of age 103040
or a person with a mental disability who is under twenty-one years 103041
of age.103042

       (5) "Community mental health agencyservices provider" means 103043
a community mental health agencyservices provider as defined in 103044
division (H) of section 5122.015119.01 of the Revised Code.103045

       (6) "Community mental health services" means any of the103046
mental health services listed incertified by the department 103047
pursuant to section 340.095119.36 of the Revised Code.103048

       (7) "Operator" means the person or persons, firm, 103049
partnership, agency, governing body, association, corporation, or 103050
other entity that is responsible for the administration and 103051
management of a residential facility and that is the applicant for 103052
a residential facility license.103053

        (8) "Personal care services" means services including, but 103054
not limited to, the following:103055

       (a) Assisting residents with activities of daily living;103056

       (b) Assisting residents with self-administration of 103057
medication in accordance with rules adopted under this section;103058

       (c) Preparing special diets, other than complex therapeutic 103059
diets, for residents pursuant to the instructions of a physician 103060
or a licensed dietitian, in accordance with rules adopted under 103061
this section.103062

       "Personal care services" does not include "skilled nursing 103063
care" as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code. A 103064
facility need not provide more than one of the services listed in 103065
division (A)(8) of this section to be considered to be providing 103066
personal care services.103067

       (9) "Residential facility" means a publicly or privately 103068
operated home or facility that provides one of the following:103069

        (a) Accommodations, supervision, personal care services, and 103070
community mental health services for one or more of the following103071
unrelated personsadults with mental illness or severe mental 103072
disabilities or to one or more unrelated children and adolescents 103073
with a serious emotional disturbance or who are in need of mental 103074
health services who are referred by or are receiving community 103075
mental health services from a community mental health agency,103076
services provider, hospital, or practitioner:103077

       (i) Adults with mental illness;103078

       (ii) Persons of any age with severe mental disabilities;103079

       (iii) Children with serious emotional disturbances or in need 103080
of mental health services.103081

        (b) Accommodations, supervision, and personal care services 103082
for only one or two unrelated adults; accommodations, supervision, 103083
and personal care services for three to sixteen unrelated adults; 103084
or accommodations, supervision, and personal care services for one 103085
or two of the following unrelated persons:103086

       (i) Persons of any age with mental illness who are referred 103087
by or are receiving community mental health services from a 103088
community mental health agency, hospital, or practitioner;103089

        (ii) Persons of any age with severe mental disabilities who 103090
are referred by or are receiving community mental health services 103091
from a community mental health agency, hospital, or practitioner103092
to any of the following:103093

       (i) One or two unrelated persons with mental illness or 103094
persons with severe mental disabilities who are referred by or are 103095
receiving mental health services from a community mental health 103096
services provider, hospital, or practitioner;103097

       (ii) One or two unrelated adults who are receiving 103098
residential state supplement payments; 103099

       (iii) Three to sixteen unrelated adults.103100

       (c) Room and board for five or more of the following103101
unrelated persons:103102

       (i) Adultsadults with mental illness or severe mental 103103
disability who are referred by or are receiving community mental 103104
health services from a community mental health agency,services 103105
provider, hospital, or practitioner;103106

       (ii) Adults with severe mental disabilities who are referred 103107
by or are receiving community mental health services from a 103108
community mental health agency, hospital, or practitioner.103109

        (10) "Residential facility" does not include any of the 103110
following: 103111

       (a) A hospital subject to licensure under section 5119.20103112
5119.33 of the Revised Code;103113

       (b) A residential facility licensed under section 5123.19 of 103114
the Revised Code or otherwise regulated by the department of 103115
developmental disabilities;103116

       (c) An institution or association subject to certification 103117
under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code;103118

       (d) A facility operated by a hospice care program licensed 103119
under section 3712.04 of the Revised Code that is used exclusively 103120
for care of hospice patients;103121

       (e) A facility operated by a pediatric respite care program 103122
licensed under section 3712.041 of the Revised Code that is used 103123
exclusively for care of pediatric respite care patients;103124

       (f) A nursing home, residential care facility, or home for 103125
the aging as defined in section 3721.02 of the Revised Code;103126

       (g) An alcohol(f) Alcohol or drug addiction program as 103127
defined inservices certified pursuant to section 3793.015119.36103128
of the Revised Code;103129

       (h)(g) A facility licensed to provide methadone treatment 103130
under section 3793.115119.39 of the Revised Code;103131

       (i)(h) Any facility that receives funding for operating costs 103132
from the department of development services agency under any 103133
program established to provide emergency shelter housing or 103134
transitional housing for the homeless;103135

       (j)(i) A terminal care facility for the homeless that has 103136
entered into an agreement with a hospice care program under 103137
section 3712.07 of the Revised Code;103138

       (k)(j) A facility approved by the veterans administration 103139
under section 104(a) of the "Veterans Health Care Amendments of 103140
1983," 97 Stat. 993, 38 U.S.C. 630, as amended, and used 103141
exclusively for the placement and care of veterans.103142

       (11) "Room and board" means the provision of sleeping and 103143
living space, meals or meal preparation, laundry services, 103144
housekeeping services, or any combination thereof.103145

       (12) "Residential state supplement" means the program 103146
administered under section 5119.41 of the Revised Code and related 103147
provisions of the Administrative Code under which the state 103148
supplements the supplemental security income payments received by 103149
aged, blind, or disabled adults under Title XVI of the Social 103150
Security Act. Residential state supplement payments are used for 103151
the provision of accommodations, supervision, and personal care 103152
services to supplemental security income recipients the department 103153
of mental health and addition services determines are at risk of 103154
needing institutional care.103155

       (13) "Supervision" means any of the following:103156

       (a) Observing a resident to ensure the resident's health, 103157
safety, and welfare while the resident engages in activities of 103158
daily living or other activities;103159

       (b) Reminding a resident to perform or complete an activity, 103160
such as reminding a resident to engage in personal hygiene or 103161
other self-care activities; 103162

       (c) Assisting a resident in making or keeping an appointment. 103163

       (13)(14) "Unrelated" means that a resident is not related to 103164
the owner or operator of a residential facility or to the owner's 103165
or operator's spouse as a parent, grandparent, child, stepchild, 103166
grandchild, brother, sister, niece, nephew, aunt, or uncle, or as 103167
the child of an aunt or uncle.103168

       (B) Nothing in division (A)(9) of this section shall be 103169
construed to permit personal care services to be imposed on a 103170
resident who is capable of performing the activity in question 103171
without assistance.103172

       (C) Except in the case of a residential facility described in 103173
division (A)(9)(a) of this section, members of the staff of a 103174
residential facility shall not administer medication to the 103175
facility's residents, but may do any of the following:103176

       (1) Remind a resident when to take medication and watch to 103177
ensure that the resident follows the directions on the container;103178

       (2) Assist a resident in the self-administration of 103179
medication by taking the medication from the locked area where it 103180
is stored, in accordance with rules adopted pursuant to this 103181
section, and handing it to the resident. If the resident is 103182
physically unable to open the container, a staff member may open 103183
the container for the resident.103184

       (3) Assist a physically impaired but mentally alert resident, 103185
such as a resident with arthritis, cerebral palsy, or Parkinson's 103186
disease, in removing oral or topical medication from containers 103187
and in consuming or applying the medication, upon request by or 103188
with the consent of the resident. If a resident is physically 103189
unable to place a dose of medicine to the resident's mouth without 103190
spilling it, a staff member may place the dose in a container and 103191
place the container to the mouth of the resident.103192

        (D)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(2) of this section, 103193
a person operating or seeking to operate a residential facility 103194
shall apply for licensure of the facility to the department of 103195
mental healthmental health and addiction services. The 103196
application shall be submitted by the operator. When applying for 103197
the license, the applicant shall pay to the department the 103198
application fee specified in rules adopted under division (L)(K)103199
of this section. The fee is nonrefundable.103200

       The department shall send a copy of an application to the 103201
ADAMHS board serving the county in which the person operates or 103202
seeks to operate the facility. The ADAMHS board shall review the 103203
application and provide to the department any information about 103204
the applicant or the facility that the board would like the 103205
department to consider in reviewing the application.103206

       (2) A person may not apply for a license to operate a 103207
residential facility if the person is or has been the owner, 103208
operator, or manager of a residential facility for which a license 103209
to operate was revoked or for which renewal of a license was 103210
refused for any reason other than nonpayment of the license 103211
renewal fee, unless both of the following conditions are met:103212

       (a) A period of not less than two years has elapsed since the 103213
date the director of mental healthmental health and addiction 103214
services issued the order revoking or refusing to renew the 103215
facility's license.103216

       (b) The director's revocation or refusal to renew the license 103217
was not based on an act or omission at the facility that violated 103218
a resident's right to be free from abuse, neglect, or 103219
exploitation.103220

       (E)(1) Any person may operate a residential facility 103221
providing accommodations and personal care services for one to 103222
five unrelated persons and licensed as a residential facility that 103223
meets the criteria specified in division (A)(9)(b) of this section 103224
as a permitted use in any residential district or zone, including 103225
any single-family residential district or zone of any political 103226
subdivision. Such facilities may be required to comply with area, 103227
height, yard, and architectural compatibility requirements that 103228
are uniformly imposed upon all single-family residences within the 103229
district or zone.103230

       (2) Any person may operate a residential facility providing 103231
accommodations and personal care services for six to sixteen 103232
persons and licensed as a residential facility that meets the 103233
criteria specified in division (A)(9)(b) of this section as a 103234
permitted use in any multiple-family residential district or zone 103235
of any political subdivision, except that a political subdivision 103236
that has enacted a zoning ordinance or resolution establishing 103237
planned-unit development districts as defined in section 519.021 103238
of the Revised Code may exclude such facilities from such 103239
districts, and a political subdivision that has enacted a zoning 103240
ordinance or resolution may regulate such facilities in 103241
multiple-family residential districts or zones as a conditionally 103242
permitted use or special exception, in either case, under 103243
reasonable and specific standards and conditions set out in the 103244
zoning ordinance or resolution to:103245

       (a) Require the architectural design and site layout of the 103246
home and the location, nature, and height of any walls, screens, 103247
and fences to be compatible with adjoining land uses and the 103248
residential character of the neighborhood;103249

       (b) Require compliance with yard, parking, and sign 103250
regulation.103251

       (3) Divisions (E)(1) and (2) of this section do not affect 103252
any right of a political subdivision to permit a person to operate 103253
a residential facility licensed under this section in a 103254
single-family residential district or zone under conditions 103255
established by the political subdivision.103256

       (4)(a) Notwithstanding divisions (E)(1) and (2) of this 103257
section and except as provided in division (E)(4)(b) of this 103258
section, a political subdivision that has enacted a zoning 103259
ordinance or resolution may limit the excessive concentration of 103260
licensed residential facilities that meet the criteria specified 103261
in division (A)(9)(b) of this section.103262

       (b) Division (E)(4)(a) of this section does not authorize a 103263
political subdivision to prevent or limit the continued existence 103264
and operation of residential facilities existing and operating on 103265
September 10, 2012, and that meet the criteria specified in 103266
division (A)(9)(b) of this section. A political subdivision may 103267
consider the existence of such facilities for the purpose of 103268
limiting the excessive concentration of such facilities that meet 103269
the criteria specified in division (A)(9)(b) of this section that 103270
are not existing and operating on September 10, 2012.103271

        (F)(1) The department of mental healthmental health and 103272
addiction services shall inspect and license the operation of 103273
residential facilities. The department shall consider the past 103274
record of the facility and the applicant or licensee in arriving 103275
at its licensure decision. 103276

       The department may issue full, probationary, and interim 103277
licenses. A full license shall expire twoup to three years after 103278
the date of issuance, a probationary license shall expire in a 103279
shorter period of time as specified in rules adopted by the 103280
director of mental health under division (L)(K) of this section, 103281
and an interim license shall expire ninety days after the date of 103282
issuance. A license may be renewed in accordance with rules 103283
adopted by the director under division (L)(K) of this section. The 103284
renewal application shall be submitted by the operator. When 103285
applying for renewal of a license, the applicant shall pay to the 103286
department the renewal fee specified in rules adopted under 103287
division (L)(K) of this section. The fee is nonrefundable.103288

       (2) The department may issue an order suspending the 103289
admission of residents to the facility or refuse to issue or renew 103290
and may revoke a license if it finds the facility is not in 103291
compliance with rules adopted by the director pursuant to division 103292
(L)(K) of this section or if any facility operated by the 103293
applicant or licensee has been cited for repeated violations of 103294
statutes or rules during the period of previous licenses. 103295
Proceedings initiated to deny applications for full or 103296
probationary licenses or to revoke such licenses are governed by 103297
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.103298

       (G)(F) The department may issue an interim license to operate 103299
a residential facility if both of the following conditions are 103300
met:103301

       (1) The department determines that the closing of or the need 103302
to remove residents from another residential facility has created 103303
an emergency situation requiring immediate removal of residents 103304
and an insufficient number of licensed beds are available.103305

       (2) The residential facility applying for an interim license 103306
meets standards established for interim licenses in rules adopted 103307
by the director under division (L)(K) of this section.103308

       An interim license shall be valid for ninety days and may be 103309
renewed by the director no more than twice. Proceedings initiated 103310
to deny applications for or to revoke interim licenses under this 103311
division are not subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.103312

       (H)(G)(1) The department of mental healthmental health and 103313
addiction services may conduct an inspection of a residential 103314
facility as follows:103315

       (a) Prior to issuance of a license for the facility;103316

       (b) Prior to renewal of the license;103317

       (c) To determine whether the facility has completed a plan of 103318
correction required pursuant to division (H)(G)(2) of this section 103319
and corrected deficiencies to the satisfaction of the department 103320
and in compliance with this section and rules adopted pursuant to 103321
it;103322

       (d) Upon complaint by any individual or agency;103323

       (e) At any time the director considers an inspection to be 103324
necessary in order to determine whether the facility is in 103325
compliance with this section and rules adopted pursuant to this 103326
section.103327

       (2) In conducting inspections the department may conduct an 103328
on-site examination and evaluation of the residential facility and 103329
its personnel, activities, and services. The department shall have 103330
access to examine and copy all records, accounts, and any other 103331
documents relating to the operation of the residential facility, 103332
including records pertaining to residents, and shall have access 103333
to the facility in order to conduct interviews with the operator, 103334
staff, and residents. Following each inspection and review, the 103335
department shall complete a report listing any deficiencies, and 103336
including, when appropriate, a time table within which the 103337
operator shall correct the deficiencies. The department may 103338
require the operator to submit a plan of correction describing how 103339
the deficiencies will be corrected.103340

       (I)(H) No person shall do any of the following:103341

       (1) Operate a residential facility unless the facility holds 103342
a valid license;103343

       (2) Violate any of the conditions of licensure after having 103344
been granted a license;103345

       (3) Interfere with a state or local official's inspection or 103346
investigation of a residential facility;103347

       (4) Violate any of the provisions of this section or any 103348
rules adopted pursuant to this section.103349

       (J)(I) The following may enter a residential facility at any 103350
time:103351

       (1) Employees designated by the director of mental health103352
mental health and addiction services;103353

       (2) Employees of an ADAMHS board under either of the 103354
following circumstances:103355

       (a) When a resident of the facility is receiving services 103356
from a community mental health agencyservices provider under 103357
contract with that ADAMHS board or another ADAMHS board;103358

       (b) When authorized by section 340.05 of the Revised Code.103359

       (3) Employees of a community mental health agencyservices 103360
provider under either of the following circumstances:103361

       (a) When the agencyservices provider has a clientperson 103362
receiving services residing in the facility;103363

       (b) When the agencyservices provider is acting as an agent 103364
of an ADAMHS board other than the board with which it is under 103365
contract.103366

       (4) Representatives of the state long-term care ombudsperson103367
ombudsman program when the facility provides accommodations, 103368
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 103369
unrelated adults or to one or two unrelated adults who are 103370
recipients under the residential state supplement program.103371

       The persons specified in division (J)(I) of this section 103372
shall be afforded access to examine and copy all records, 103373
accounts, and any other documents relating to the operation of the 103374
residential facility, including records pertaining to residents. 103375

       (K)(J) Employees of the department of mental healthmental 103376
health and addiction services may enter, for the purpose of 103377
investigation, any institution, residence, facility, or other 103378
structure which has been reported to the department as, or that 103379
the department has reasonable cause to believe is, operating as a 103380
residential facility without a valid license.103381

        (L)(K) The director shall adopt and may amend and rescind 103382
rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code governing the 103383
licensing and operation of residential facilities. The rules shall 103384
establish all of the following:103385

       (1) Minimum standards for the health, safety, adequacy, and 103386
cultural competency of treatment of and services for persons in 103387
residential facilities; 103388

       (2) Procedures for the issuance, renewal, or revocation of 103389
the licenses of residential facilities; 103390

       (3) Procedures for conducting criminal records checks for 103391
prospective or current operators, staffemployees, and other 103392
individualsvolunteers who, if employed by a residential 103393
facility, wouldmay have unsuperviseddirect access to facility 103394
residents;103395

       (4) The fee to be paid when applying for a new residential 103396
facility license or renewing the license;103397

       (5) Procedures for the operator of a residential facility to 103398
follow when notifying the ADAMHS board serving the county in which 103399
the facility is located when the facility is serving residents 103400
with mental illness or severe mental disability, including the 103401
circumstances under which the operator is required to make such a 103402
notification;103403

       (6) Procedures for the issuance and termination of orders of 103404
suspension of admission of residents to a residential facility; 103405

       (7) Measures to be taken by residential facilities relative 103406
to residents' medication;103407

       (8) Requirements relating to preparation of special diets;103408

       (9) The maximum number of residents who may be served in a 103409
residential facility; 103410

       (10) The rights of residents of residential facilities and 103411
procedures to protect such rights; 103412

       (11) Procedures for obtaining an affiliation agreement 103413
approved by the board between a residential facility and a 103414
community mental health agencyservices provider;103415

       (12) Standards and procedures under which the director may 103416
waive the requirements of any of the rules adopted.103417

       (M)(L)(1) The department may withhold the source of any 103418
complaint reported as a violation of this section when the 103419
department determines that disclosure could be detrimental to the 103420
department's purposes or could jeopardize the investigation. The 103421
department may disclose the source of any complaint if the 103422
complainant agrees in writing to such disclosure and shall 103423
disclose the source upon order by a court of competent 103424
jurisdiction.103425

       (2) Any person who makes a complaint under division (M)(L)(1) 103426
of this section, or any person who participates in an 103427
administrative or judicial proceeding resulting from such a 103428
complaint, is immune from civil liability and is not subject to 103429
criminal prosecution, other than for perjury, unless the person 103430
has acted in bad faith or with malicious purpose.103431

       (N)(M)(1) The director of mental healthmental health and 103432
addiction services may petition the court of common pleas of the 103433
county in which a residential facility is located for an order 103434
enjoining any person from operating a residential facility without 103435
a license or from operating a licensed facility when, in the 103436
director's judgment, there is a present danger to the health or 103437
safety of any of the occupants of the facility. The court shall 103438
have jurisdiction to grant such injunctive relief upon a showing 103439
that the respondent named in the petition is operating a facility 103440
without a license or there is a present danger to the health or 103441
safety of any residents of the facility.103442

       (2) When the court grants injunctive relief in the case of a 103443
facility operating without a license, the court shall issue, at a 103444
minimum, an order enjoining the facility from admitting new 103445
residents to the facility and an order requiring the facility to 103446
assist with the safe and orderly relocation of the facility's 103447
residents. 103448

       (3) If injunctive relief is granted against a facility for 103449
operating without a license and the facility continues to operate 103450
without a license, the director shall refer the case to the 103451
attorney general for further action.103452

       (O)(N) The director may fine a person for violating division 103453
(I)(H) of this section. The fine shall be five hundred dollars for 103454
a first offense; for each subsequent offense, the fine shall be 103455
one thousand dollars. The director's actions in imposing a fine 103456
shall be taken in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 103457
Code.103458

       Sec. 5119.341. (A) Any person may operate a residential 103459
facility providing accommodations and personal care services for 103460
one to five unrelated persons and licensed as a residential 103461
facility that meets the criteria specified in division (A)(9)(b) 103462
of section 5119.34 of the Revised Code as a permitted use in any 103463
residential district or zone, including any single-family 103464
residential district or zone of any political subdivision. Such 103465
facilities may be required to comply with area, height, yard, and 103466
architectural compatibility requirements that are uniformly 103467
imposed upon all single-family residences within the district or 103468
zone.103469

       (B) Any person may operate a residential facility providing 103470
accommodations and personal care services for six to sixteen 103471
persons and licensed as a residential facility that meets the 103472
criteria specified in division (A)(9)(b) of section 5119.34 of the 103473
Revised Code as a permitted use in any multiple-family residential 103474
district or zone of any political subdivision, except that a 103475
political subdivision that has enacted a zoning ordinance or 103476
resolution establishing planned-unit developments as defined in 103477
section 519.021 of the Revised Code may exclude such facilities 103478
from such districts, and a political subdivision that has enacted 103479
a zoning ordinance or resolution may regulate such facilities in 103480
multiple-family residential districts or zones as a conditionally 103481
permitted use or special exception, in either case, under 103482
reasonable and specific standards and conditions set out in the 103483
zoning ordinance or resolution to: 103484

       (1) Require the architectural design and site layout of the 103485
home and the location, nature, and height of any walls, screens, 103486
and fences to be compatible with adjoining land uses and the 103487
residential character of the neighborhood;103488

       (2) Require compliance with yard, parking, and sign 103489
regulation.103490

       (C) Divisions (A) and (B) of this section do not affect any 103491
right of a political subdivision to permit a person to operate a 103492
residential facility licensed under section 5119.34 of the Revised 103493
Code in a single-family residential district or zone under 103494
conditions established by the political subdivision.103495

       (D)(1) Notwithstanding divisions (A) and (B) of this section 103496
and except as provided in division (D)(2) of this section, a 103497
political subdivision that has enacted a zoning ordinance or 103498
resolution may limit the excessive concentration of licensed 103499
residential facilities that meet the criteria specified in 103500
division (A)(9)(b) of section 5119.34 of the Revised Code.103501

       (2) Division (D)(1) of this section does not authorize a 103502
political subdivision to prevent or limit the continued existence 103503
and operation of residential facilities existing and operating on 103504
September 10, 2012, and that meet the criteria specified in 103505
division (A)(9)(b) of section 5119.34 of the Revised Code. A 103506
political subdivision may consider the existence of such 103507
facilities for the purpose of limiting the excessive concentration 103508
of such facilities that meet the criteria specified in division 103509
(A)(9)(b) of section 5119.34 of the Revised Code that are not 103510
existing and operating on September 10, 2012.103511

       Sec. 5119.221.        Sec. 5119.342.  (A) Upon petition by the director of 103512
mental healthmental health and addiction services, the court of 103513
common pleas or the probate court may appoint a receiver to take 103514
possession of and operate a residential facility licensed pursuant 103515
to section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code, when conditions 103516
existing at the residential facility present a substantial risk of 103517
physical or mental harm to residents and no other remedies at law 103518
are adequate to protect the health, safety, and welfare of the 103519
residents.103520

       Petitions filed pursuant to this section shall include:103521

       (1) A description of the specific conditions existing at the 103522
residential facility which present a substantial risk of physical 103523
or mental harm to residents;103524

       (2) A statement of the absence of other adequate remedies at 103525
law;103526

       (3) The number of individuals residing at the facility;103527

       (4) A statement that the facts have been brought to the 103528
attention of the owner or licensee and that conditions have not 103529
been remedied within a reasonable period of time or that the 103530
conditions, though remedied periodically, habitually exist at the 103531
residential facility as a pattern or practice; and103532

       (5) The name and address of the person holding the license 103533
for the residential facility.103534

       (B) A court in which a petition is filed pursuant to this 103535
section shall notify the person holding the license for the 103536
facility of the filing. The department shall send notice of the 103537
filing to the following, as appropriate: the Ohio protection and 103538
advocacy system as defined in section 5123.60 of the Revised Code; 103539
facility owner; facility operator; board of alcohol, drug 103540
addiction, and mental health services; board of health; department 103541
of developmental disabilities; department of job and family 103542
services; facility residents; and residents' families and 103543
guardians. The court shall provide a hearing on the petition 103544
within five court days of the time it was filed, except that the 103545
court may appoint a receiver prior to that time if it determines 103546
that the circumstances necessitate such action.103547

       Following a hearing on the petition, and upon a determination 103548
that the appointment of a receiver is warranted, the court shall 103549
appoint a receiver and notify the department of mental health103550
mental health and addiction services and appropriate persons of 103551
this action.103552

       In setting forth the powers of the receiver, the court may 103553
generally authorize the receiver to do all that is prudent and 103554
necessary to safely and efficiently operate the residential 103555
facility within the requirements of state and federal law, but 103556
shall require the receiver to obtain court approval prior to 103557
making any single expenditure of more than five thousand dollars 103558
to correct deficiencies in the structure or furnishings of a 103559
facility. The court shall closely review the conduct of the 103560
receiver and shall require regular and detailed reports.103561

       (C) A receivership established pursuant to this section shall 103562
be terminated, following notification of the appropriate parties 103563
and a hearing, if the court determines either of the following:103564

       (1) The residential facility has been closed and the former 103565
residents have been relocated to an appropriate facility;103566

       (2) Circumstances no longer exist at the residential facility 103567
which present a substantial risk of physical or mental harm to 103568
residents, and there is no deficiency in the residential facility 103569
that is likely to create a future risk of harm.103570

       Notwithstanding division (C)(2) of this section, the court 103571
shall not terminate a receivership for a residential facility that 103572
has previously operated under another receivership unless the 103573
responsibility for the operation of the facility is transferred to 103574
an operator approved by the court and the department of mental 103575
healthmental health and addiction services.103576

       (D) Except for the department of mental healthmental health 103577
and addiction services or appropriate board of alcohol, drug 103578
addiction, and mental health services, no party or person 103579
interested in an action shall be appointed a receiver pursuant to 103580
this section.103581

       To assist the court in identifying persons qualified to be 103582
named as receivers, the director of the department of mental 103583
healthmental health and addiction services shall maintain a list 103584
of the names of such persons. The department of mental health103585
mental health and addiction services, the department of job and 103586
family services, and the department of health shall provide 103587
technical assistance to any receiver appointed pursuant to this 103588
section.103589

       Before entering upon the duties of receiver, the receiver 103590
must be sworn to perform the duties faithfully, and, with surety 103591
approved by the court, judge, or clerk, execute a bond to such 103592
person, and in such sum as the court or judge directs, to the 103593
effect that such receiver will faithfully discharge the duties of 103594
receiver in the action, and obey the orders of the court therein.103595

       (1) Under the control of the appointing court, a receiver may 103596
do the following:103597

       (a) Bring and defend actions in the appointee's name as 103598
receiver;103599

       (b) Take and keep possession of property.103600

       (2) The court shall authorize the receiver to do the 103601
following:103602

       (a) Collect payment for all goods and services provided to 103603
the residents or others during the period of the receivership at 103604
the same rate as was charged by the licensee at the time the 103605
petition for receivership was filed, unless a different rate is 103606
set by the court;103607

       (b) Honor all leases, mortgages, and secured transactions 103608
governing all buildings, goods, and fixtures of which the receiver 103609
has taken possession, but, in the case of a rental agreement only 103610
to the extent of payments that are for the use of the property 103611
during the period of the receivership, or, in the case of a 103612
purchase agreement, only to the extent that payments come due 103613
during the period of the receivership;103614

       (c) If transfer of residents is necessary, provide for the 103615
orderly transfer of residents by:103616

       (i) Cooperating with all appropriate state and local agencies 103617
in carrying out the transfer of residents to alternative community 103618
placements;103619

       (ii) Providing for the transportation of residents' 103620
belongings and records;103621

       (iii) Helping to locate alternative placements and develop 103622
plans for transfer;103623

       (iv) Encouraging residents or guardians to participate in 103624
transfer planning except when an emergency exists and immediate 103625
transfer is necessary.103626

       (d) Make periodic reports on the status of the residential 103627
facility to the court; the appropriate state agencies; and the 103628
board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services. Each 103629
report shall be made available to residents, their guardians, and 103630
families.103631

       (e) Compromise demands or claims; and103632

       (f) Generally do such acts respecting the residential 103633
facility as the court authorizes.103634

       Notwithstanding any other provision of law, contracts which 103635
are necessary to carry out the powers and duties of the receiver 103636
need not be competitively bid.103637

       Sec. 5119.611.        Sec. 5119.36. (A) A community mental health agency103638
services provider applicant or community addiction services 103639
provider applicant that seeks certification of its community 103640
mental health services or community addiction services shall 103641
submit an application to the director of mental healthmental 103642
health and addiction services. On receipt of the application, the 103643
director may visitconduct an on-site review and shall evaluate 103644
the agencyprovider to determine whether its services satisfy the 103645
standards established by rules adopted under division (C)(E) of 103646
this section. The director shall make the evaluation, and, if the 103647
director visitsconducts an on-site review of the agency103648
provider, shallmay make the visitreview, in cooperation with 103649
the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 103650
with which the agencyprovider seeks to contract under division 103651
(A)(8)(a) of section 340.03 of the Revised Code.103652

       (B) Subject to section 5119.6125119.37 of the Revised Code, 103653
the director shall determine whether the services of an 103654
applicant's community mental health agencyapplicant satisfy the 103655
standards for certification of the services. If the director 103656
determines that a community mental health agency's services 103657
provider's or a community addiction services provider's services103658
satisfy the standards for certification and the agencyprovider103659
has paid the fee required under division (D) of this section, the 103660
director shall certify the services. No community mental health 103661
services provider or community addiction services provider shall 103662
be eligible to receive state or federal funds, or funds 103663
administered by a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 103664
health services unless its services have been certified by the 103665
department.103666

       (C) If the director determines that a community mental health 103667
agency's services provider's or a community addiction services 103668
provider's services do not satisfy the standards for 103669
certification, the director shall identify the areas of 103670
noncompliance, specify what action is necessary to satisfy the 103671
standards, and may offer technical assistance to the provider and103672
to the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 103673
services so that the board may assist the agencyprovider in 103674
satisfying the standards. The director shall give the agency103675
provider a reasonable time within which to demonstrate that its 103676
services satisfy the standards or to bring the services into 103677
compliance with the standards. If the director concludes that the 103678
services continue to fail to satisfy the standards, the director 103679
may request that the board reallocate theany funds for the 103680
community mental health or addiction services the agencyprovider103681
was to provide to another community mental health agencyor 103682
addiction services provider whose community mental health or 103683
community addiction services satisfy the standards. If the board 103684
does not reallocate thosesuch funds in a reasonable period of 103685
time, the director may withhold state and federal funds for the 103686
community mental health services and allocate those funds directly 103687
to a community mental health agencyor community addiction 103688
services provider whose community mental health services satisfy 103689
the standards.103690

       (D) Each community mental health agencyservices provider or 103691
community addiction services provider seeking certification of its 103692
community mental health or addiction services under this section 103693
shall pay a fee for the certification required by this section, 103694
unless the provider is exempt under rules adopted under division 103695
(E) of this section. Fees shall be paid into the state treasury to 103696
the credit of the sale of goods and services fund created pursuant 103697
to section 5119.1615119.45 of the Revised Code.103698

       (E) The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 103699
119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. The rules 103700
shall do all of the following:103701

       (1) Establish certification standards for community mental 103702
health services, including assertive community treatment and 103703
intensive home-based mental health services,and addiction 103704
services that are consistent with nationally recognized applicable 103705
standards and facilitate participation in federal assistance 103706
programs. The rules shall include as certification standards only 103707
requirements that improve the quality of services or the health 103708
and safety of clients ofpersons receiving community mental health 103709
and addiction services. The standards shall address at a minimum 103710
all of the following:103711

       (a) Reporting major unusual incidents to the director;103712

       (b) Procedures for applicants for and clients ofpersons 103713
receiving community mental health and addiction services to file 103714
grievances and complaints;103715

       (c) Seclusion;103716

       (d) Restraint;103717

       (e) Requirements regarding physical facilities of service 103718
delivery sites;103719

       (f) Requirements with regard to health, safety, adequacy, and 103720
cultural specificity and sensitivity;103721

       (g) Standards for evaluating services;103722

       (h) Standards and procedures for granting full or conditional 103723
certification to a service provider;103724

       (i) Standards and procedures for revoking the certification 103725
of a provider's services that do not continue to meet the minimum 103726
standards established pursuant to this section;103727

       (j) The limitations to be placed on a provider that is 103728
granted conditional certification;103729

       (k) Development of written policies addressing the rights of 103730
clientspersons receiving services, including all of the 103731
following:103732

       (i) The right to a copy of the written policies addressing 103733
clientthe rights of persons receiving services;103734

       (ii) The right at all times to be treated with consideration 103735
and respect for the client'sperson's privacy and dignity;103736

       (iii) The right to have access to the client'sperson's own 103737
psychiatric, medical, or other treatment records unless access is 103738
specifically restricted in the client'sperson's treatment plan 103739
for clear treatment reasons;103740

       (iv) The right to have a client rights officer provided by 103741
the agencyservices provider or board of alcohol, drug addiction, 103742
and mental health services advise the clientperson of the 103743
client'sperson's rights, including the client'sperson's rights 103744
under Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code if the clientperson is 103745
committed to the agencyprovider or board.103746

       (2) Establish standards for qualifications of mental health 103747
professionals as defined in section 340.02 of the Revised Code and 103748
personnel who provide the community mental health services;103749

       (3) Establish the process for certification of community 103750
mental health and addiction services;103751

       (4)(3) Set the amount of certification review fees based on a 103752
portion of the cost of performing the review;103753

       (5)(4) Specify the type of notice and hearing to be provided 103754
prior to a decision on whether to reallocate funds.103755

       (F) The department shall maintain a current list of providers 103756
whose addiction services are certified by the department under 103757
division (B) of this section and shall provide a copy of the list 103758
to a judge of a court of common pleas who requests a copy for the 103759
use of the judge under division (H) of section 2925.03 of the 103760
Revised Code. The list of certified addiction services shall 103761
identify each provider by its name, its address, and the county in 103762
which it is located.103763

       (G) No person shall represent in any manner that a provider 103764
is certified by the department if the provider is not certified at 103765
the time the representation is made.103766

       Sec. 5119.613.        Sec. 5119.361. The director of mental healthmental 103767
health and addiction services shall require that each board of 103768
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services ensure that 103769
each community mental health agencyservices provider and 103770
community addiction services provider with which it contracts 103771
under division (A)(8)(a) of section 340.03 of the Revised Code to 103772
provide community mental health or addiction services establish 103773
grievance procedures consistent with rules adopted under section 103774
5119.6115119.36 of the Revised Code that are available to all 103775
applicants for and clients of thepersons seeking or receiving 103776
services from a community mental health or addiction services 103777
provider.103778

       Sec. 5119.612.        Sec. 5119.37.  (A) In lieu of a determination by the 103779
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services of 103780
whether the services of a community mental health agencyservices 103781
provider or a community addiction services provider satisfy the 103782
standards for certification under section 5119.6115119.36 of the 103783
Revised Code, the director shall accept appropriate accreditation 103784
of an applicant's mental health services, alcohol and drug 103785
addiction services, integrated mental health and alcohol and other 103786
drug addiction services, or integrated mental health and physical 103787
health services, or integrated alcohol and other drug addiction 103788
and physical health services being provided in this state from any 103789
of the following national accrediting organizations as evidence 103790
that the applicant satisfies the standards for certification:103791

       (1) The joint commission;103792

       (2) The commission on accreditation of rehabilitation 103793
facilities;103794

       (3) The council on accreditation;103795

       (4) Other behavioral health accreditation as determined by 103796
the director.103797

       (B) If the director determines that an applicant's 103798
accreditation is current, is appropriate for the services for 103799
which the applicant is seeking certification, and the applicant 103800
meets any other requirements established under this section or in 103801
rules adopted under this section, the director shall certify the 103802
applicant's services that are accredited. Except as provided in 103803
division (C)(2) of this section, the director shall issue the 103804
certification without further evaluation of the services.103805

       (C) For purposes of this section, all of the following apply:103806

       (1) The director may review the accrediting organizations 103807
listed in division (A) of this section to evaluate whether the 103808
accreditation standards and processes used by the organizations 103809
are consistent with service delivery models the director considers 103810
appropriate for mental health services, alcohol or other drug 103811
addiction services, physical health services, or both. The 103812
director may communicate to an accrediting organization any 103813
identified concerns, trends, needs, and recommendations.103814

       (2) The director may visitconduct an on-site review or 103815
otherwise evaluate a community mental health agencyservices 103816
provider or a community addiction services provider at any time 103817
based on cause, including complaints made by or on behalf of 103818
consumerspersons receiving services and confirmed or alleged 103819
deficiencies brought to the attention of the director.103820

       (3) The director shall require a community mental health 103821
agencyservices provider and a community addiction services 103822
provider to notify the director not later than ten days after any 103823
change in the agency'sprovider's accreditation status. The agency103824
provider may notify the director by providing a copy of the 103825
relevant document the agencyprovider received from the 103826
accrediting organization.103827

       (4) The director shall require a community mental health 103828
agencyservices provider and a community addiction services 103829
provider to submit to the director reports of major unusual 103830
incidents.103831

       (5) The director may require a community mental health agency103832
services provider or a community addiction services provider to 103833
submit to the director cost reports pertaining to the agency103834
provider.103835

       (D) The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 103836
119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. In adopting 103837
the rules, the director shall do all of the following:103838

       (1) Specify the documentation that must be submitted as 103839
evidence of holding appropriate accreditation;103840

       (2) Establish a process by which the director may review the 103841
accreditation standards and processes used by the national 103842
accrediting organizations listed in division (A) of this section;103843

       (3) Specify the circumstances under which reports of major 103844
unusual incidents and agencyprovider cost reports must be 103845
submitted to the director;103846

       (4) Specify the circumstances under which the director may 103847
visitconduct an on-site review or otherwise evaluate a community 103848
mental health agencyservices provider and a community addiction 103849
services provider for cause;103850

       (5) Establish a process by which the director, based on 103851
deficiencies identified as a result of visitingconducting an 103852
on-site review or evaluating a community mental health agency103853
services provider or a community addiction services provider under 103854
division (C)(2) of this section, may take any of a range of 103855
corrective actions, with the most stringent being revocation of 103856
the certification of the agency'sprovider's services.103857

       Sec. 3793.10.        Sec. 5119.38.  A drivers' intervention program may be 103858
used as an alternative to a term of imprisonment for an offender 103859
sentenced pursuant to division (G)(1)(a) of section 4511.19 of the 103860
Revised Code, if it is certified by the director of alcohol and 103861
drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction services103862
pursuant to this section. No drivers' intervention program shall 103863
be used as an alternative to a term of imprisonment that is 103864
imposed pursuant to division (G)(1)(b), (c), (d), or (e) of 103865
section 4511.19 of the Revised Code.103866

       To qualify for certification by the director and to receive 103867
funds from the statewide treatment and prevention fund created by 103868
section 4301.30 of the Revised Code in any amounts and at any 103869
times that the director determines are appropriate, a drivers' 103870
intervention program shall meet state minimum standards that the 103871
director shall establish by rule. The rules shall include, but are 103872
not limited to, standards governing program course hours and 103873
content, qualifications of program personnel, methods of 103874
identifying and testing participants to isolate participants with 103875
alcohol and drug abuse problems, referral of such persons to 103876
alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programsservices providers, 103877
the prompt notification of courts by program operators of the 103878
completion of the programs by persons required by courts to attend 103879
them, and record keeping, including methods of tracking 103880
participants for a reasonable time after they have left the 103881
program.103882

       The director shall issue a certificate to any qualified 103883
drivers' intervention program. The certificate is valid for three 103884
years.103885

       Sec. 3793.11.        Sec. 5119.39.  (A) No alcohol and drugcommunity103886
addiction programservices provider shall employ methadone 103887
treatment or prescribe, dispense, or administer methadone unless 103888
the program is licensed under this section. No alcohol and drug103889
community addiction programservices provider licensed under this 103890
section shall maintain methadone treatment in a manner 103891
inconsistent with this section and the rules adopted under it.103892

       (B) An alcohol and drugA community addiction program103893
services provider may apply to the department of alcohol and drug 103894
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services for a 103895
license to maintain methadone treatment. The department shall 103896
review all applications received.103897

       (C) The department may issue a license to maintain methadone 103898
treatment to an alcohol and drugcommunity addiction program103899
services provider only if all of the following apply:103900

       (1) The programprovider is operated by a private, nonprofit 103901
organization or by a government entity;103902

       (2) For at least two years immediately preceding the date of 103903
application, the programprovider has been fully certified under 103904
section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code;103905

       (3) The programprovider has not been denied a license to 103906
maintain methadone treatment or had its license withdrawn or 103907
revoked within the five-year period immediately preceding the date 103908
of application;103909

       (4) It affirmatively appears to the department that the 103910
programprovider is adequately staffed and equipped to maintain 103911
methadone treatment;103912

       (5) It affirmatively appears to the department that the 103913
programprovider will maintain methadone treatment in strict 103914
compliance with section 3719.61 of the Revised Code, all other 103915
laws relating to drug abuse, and the rules adopted by the 103916
department;103917

       (6) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, there 103918
is no public or private school, licensed child day-care center, or 103919
other child-serving agency within a radius of five hundred feet of 103920
the location where the program is to maintain methadone treatment.103921

        (D) The department may waive the requirement of division 103922
(C)(6) of this section if it receives, from each public or private 103923
school, licensed child day-care center, or other child-serving 103924
agency that is within the applicable radius of the location where 103925
the program is to maintain methadone treatment, a letter of 103926
support for the location. The department shall determine whether a 103927
letter of support is satisfactory for purposes of waiving the 103928
requirement.103929

       (E) A license to maintain methadone treatment shall expire 103930
one year from the date of issuance. Licenses may be renewed.103931

       (F) The department shall establish procedures and adopt rules 103932
for licensing, inspection, and supervision of alcohol and drug103933
community addiction programsservices providers that maintain 103934
methadone treatment. The rules shall establish standards for the 103935
control, storage, furnishing, use, and dispensing of methadone, 103936
prescribe minimum standards for the operation of the methadone 103937
treatment component of the program,provider's operations and 103938
comply with federal laws and regulations.103939

       All rules adopted under this division shall be adopted in 103940
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. All actions 103941
taken by the department regarding the licensing of programs103942
providers to maintain methadone treatment shall be conducted in 103943
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, except as 103944
provided in division (L) of this section.103945

       (G) The department of alcohol and drug addiction services103946
mental health and addiction services shall inspect all alcohol and 103947
drugcommunity addiction programsservices providers licensed to 103948
maintain methadone treatment. Inspections shall be conducted at 103949
least annually and may be conducted more frequently. No person or 103950
government entity shall interfere with a state or local government 103951
official acting on behalf of the department while conducting an 103952
inspection.103953

       (H) An alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programservices 103954
provider shall not administer or dispense methadone in a tablet, 103955
powder, or intravenous form. Methadone shall be administered or 103956
dispensed only in a liquid form intended for ingestion. A program103957
services provider shall not administer or dispense methadone to an 103958
individual for pain or other medical reasons.103959

       (I) As used in this division, "program sponsor" means a 103960
person who assumes responsibility for the operation and employees 103961
of the methadone treatment component of an alcohol and druga 103962
community addiction programservices provider.103963

        An alcohol and drugA community addiction programservices 103964
provider shall not employ an individual who receives methadone 103965
treatment from that programservices provider. A program shall not 103966
permit an individual to act as a programprovider sponsor, 103967
medical director, or director of the programprovider if the 103968
individual is receiving methadone treatment from any alcohol and 103969
drugcommunity addiction programservices provider.103970

       (J) The department may issue orders to assure compliance with 103971
section 3719.61 of the Revised Code, all other laws relating to 103972
drug abuse, and the rules adopted under this section. Subject to 103973
section 3793.135119.27 of the Revised Code, the department may 103974
hold hearings, require the production of relevant matter, compel 103975
testimony, issue subpoenas, and make adjudications. Upon failure 103976
of a person without lawful excuse to obey a subpoena or to produce 103977
relevant matter, the department may apply to a court of common 103978
pleas for an order compelling compliance.103979

       (K) The department may refuse to issue, or may withdraw or 103980
revoke, a license to maintain methadone treatment. A license may 103981
be refused if an alcohol and druga community addiction program103982
services provider does not meet the requirements of division (C) 103983
of this section. A license may be withdrawn at any time the 103984
department determines that the program no longer meets the 103985
requirements for receiving the license. A license may be revoked 103986
in accordance with division (L) of this section.103987

        In the case of a license issued prior to the effective date 103988
of this amendmentDecember 20, 2012, the department shall not 103989
consider the requirement of division (C)(6) of this section in 103990
determining whether to renew, withdraw, or revoke the license.103991

        (L) If the department of alcohol and drug addiction services103992
mental health and addiction services finds reasonable cause to 103993
believe that an alcohol and druga community addiction program103994
services provider licensed under this section is in violation of 103995
any provision of section 3719.61 of the Revised Code, or of any 103996
other state or federal law or rule relating to drug abuse, the 103997
department may issue an order immediately revoking the license, 103998
subject to division (M) of this section. The department shall set 103999
a date not more than fifteen days later than the date of the order 104000
of revocation for a hearing on the continuation or cancellation of 104001
the revocation. For good cause, the department may continue the 104002
hearing on application of any interested party. In conducting 104003
hearings, the department has all the authority and power set forth 104004
in division (J) of this section. Following the hearing, the 104005
department shall either confirm or cancel the revocation. The 104006
hearing shall be conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 104007
Revised Code, except that the programprovider shall not be 104008
permitted to maintain methadone treatment pending the hearing or 104009
pending any appeal from an adjudication made as a result of the 104010
hearing. Notwithstanding any provision of Chapter 119. of the 104011
Revised Code to the contrary, a court shall not stay or suspend 104012
any order of revocation issued by the director under this division 104013
pending judicial appeal.104014

       (M) The department shall not revoke a license to maintain 104015
methadone treatment unless all clientsservices recipients104016
receiving methadone treatment from the alcohol and drugcommunity104017
addiction programservices provider are provided adequate 104018
substitute treatment. For purposes of this division, the 104019
department may transfer the clientsservices recipients to other 104020
programs licensed to maintain methadone treatment or replace any 104021
or all of the administrators and staff of the programprovider104022
with representatives of the department who shall continue on a 104023
provisional basis the methadone treatment component of the 104024
program.104025

       (N) Each time the department receives an application from an 104026
alcohol and druga community addiction programservices provider104027
for a license to maintain methadone treatment, issues or refuses 104028
to issue a license, or withdraws or revokes a license, the 104029
department shall notify the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 104030
mental health services of each alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 104031
health service district in which the program is operatedprovider 104032
operates.104033

       (O) Whenever it appears to the department from files, upon 104034
complaint, or otherwise, that an alcohol and druga community104035
addiction programservices provider has engaged in any practice 104036
declared to be illegal or prohibited by section 3719.61 of the 104037
Revised Code, or any other state or federal laws or regulations 104038
relating to drug abuse, or when the department believes it to be 104039
in the best interest of the public and necessary for the 104040
protection of the citizens of the state, the department may 104041
request criminal proceedings by laying before the prosecuting 104042
attorney of the proper county any evidence of criminality which 104043
may come to its knowledge.104044

       (P) The department shall maintain a current list of alcohol 104045
and drugcommunity addiction programsservices providers licensed 104046
by the department under this section and shall provide a copy of 104047
the current list to a judge of a court of common pleas who 104048
requests a copy for the use of the judge under division (H) of 104049
section 2925.03 of the Revised Code. The list of licensed alcohol 104050
and drugcommunity addiction programsservices providers shall 104051
identify each licensed programprovider by its name, its address, 104052
and the county in which it is located.104053

       Sec. 5119.061.        Sec. 5119.40.  (A) As used in this section, 104054
"mentally ill individual" and "specialized services" have the same 104055
meanings as in section 5111.2025165.03 of the Revised Code.104056

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section 104057
and rules adopted under division (E)(3) of this section, for 104058
purposes of section 5111.2025165.03 of the Revised Code, the 104059
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services104060
shall determine in accordance with section 1919(e)(7) of the 104061
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935)section 1919(e)(7), 42 104062
U.S.C.A. 3011396r(e)(7), as amended, and regulations adopted 104063
under section 1919(f)(8)(A) of that act, 42 U.S.C. 1396r(f)(8)(A),104064
whether, because of the individual's physical and mental 104065
condition, a mentally ill individual seeking admission to a 104066
nursing facility requires the level of services provided by a 104067
nursing facility and, if the individual requires that level of 104068
services, whether the individual requires specialized services for 104069
mental illness. The determination required by this division shall 104070
be based on an independent physical and mental evaluation 104071
performed by a person or entity other than the department.104072

       (2) AExcept as provided in division (B)(3) of this section, 104073
a determination under this division (B)(1) of this section is not 104074
required for any of the following:104075

       (a) An individual seeking readmission to a nursing facility 104076
after having been transferred from a nursing facility to a 104077
hospital for care;104078

       (b) An individual who meets all of the following conditions:104079

       (i) The individual is admitted to the nursing facility 104080
directly from a hospital after receiving inpatient care at the 104081
hospital;104082

       (ii) The individual requires nursing facility services for 104083
the condition for which care in the hospital was received;104084

       (iii) The individual's attending physician has certified, 104085
before admission to the nursing facility, that the individual is 104086
likely to require less than thirty days of nursing facility 104087
services.104088

       (c) An individual transferred from one nursing facility to 104089
another nursing facility, with or without an intervening hospital 104090
stay.104091

       (3) A determination under division (B)(1) of this section is 104092
required for an individual described in division (B)(2)(a) or (b) 104093
of this section if the hospital from which the individual is 104094
transferred or directly admitted to a nursing facility is either 104095
of the following:104096

        (a) A hospital that the department maintains, operates, 104097
manages, and governs under section 5119.14 of the Revised Code for 104098
the care and treatment of mentally ill persons;104099

        (b) A free-standing hospital, or unit of a hospital, licensed 104100
by the department under section 5119.33 of the Revised Code.104101

       (C) Except as provided in rules adopted under division 104102
(F)(E)(3) of this section, the department of mental healthmental 104103
health and addiction services shall review and determine for each 104104
resident of a nursing facility who is mentally ill, whether the 104105
resident, because of the resident's physical and mental condition, 104106
requires the level of services provided by a nursing facility and 104107
whether the resident requires specialized services for mental 104108
illness. The review and determination shall be conducted in 104109
accordance with section 1919(e)(7) of the "Social Security Act" 104110
and the regulations adopted under section 1919(f)(8)(A) of the act 104111
and based on an independent physical and mental evaluation 104112
performed by a person or entity other than the department. The 104113
review and determination shall be completed promptly after a 104114
nursing facility has notified the department that there has been a 104115
significant change in the resident's mental or physical condition.104116

       (D)(1) In the case of a nursing facility resident who has 104117
continuously resided in a nursing facility for at least thirty 104118
months before the date of a review and determination under 104119
division (C) of this section, if the resident is determined not to 104120
require the level of services provided by a nursing facility, but 104121
is determined to require specialized services for mental illness, 104122
the department, in consultation with the resident's family or 104123
legal representative and care givers, shall do all of the 104124
following:104125

       (a) Inform the resident of the institutional and 104126
noninstitutional alternatives covered under the state plan for 104127
medical assistance;104128

       (b) Offer the resident the choice of remaining in the nursing 104129
facility or receiving covered services in an alternative 104130
institutional or noninstitutional setting;104131

       (c) Clarify the effect on eligibility for services under the 104132
state plan for medical assistance if the resident chooses to leave 104133
the facility, including its effect on readmission to the facility;104134

       (d) Provide for or arrange for the provision of specialized 104135
services for the resident's mental illness in the setting chosen 104136
by the resident.104137

       (2) In the case of a nursing facility resident who has 104138
continuously resided in a nursing facility for less than thirty 104139
months before the date of the review and determination under 104140
division (C) of this section, if the resident is determined not to 104141
require the level of services provided by a nursing facility, but 104142
is determined to require specialized services for mental illness, 104143
or if the resident is determined to require neither the level of 104144
services provided by a nursing facility nor specialized services 104145
for mental illness, the department shall act in accordance with 104146
its alternative disposition plan approved by the United States 104147
department of health and human services under section 104148
1919(e)(7)(E) of the "Social Security Act."104149

       (3) In the case of an individual who is determined under 104150
division (B) or (C) of this section to require both the level of 104151
services provided by a nursing facility and specialized services 104152
for mental illness, the department of mental healthmental health 104153
and addiction services shall provide or arrange for the provision 104154
of the specialized services needed by the individual or resident 104155
while residing in a nursing facility.104156

       (E) The department of mental healthmental health and 104157
addiction services shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 104158
119. of the Revised Code that do all of the following:104159

       (1) Establish criteria to be used in making the 104160
determinations required by divisions (B) and (C) of this section. 104161
The criteria shall not exceed the criteria established by 104162
regulations adopted by the United States department of health and 104163
human services under section 1919(f)(8)(A) of the "Social Security 104164
Act."104165

       (2) Specify information to be provided by the individual or 104166
nursing facility resident being assessed;104167

       (3) Specify any circumstances, in addition to circumstances 104168
listed in division (B) of this section, under which determinations 104169
under divisions (B) and (C) of this section are not required to be 104170
made.104171

       Sec. 5119.69.        Sec. 5119.41.  (A) As used in this section and 104172
section 5119.6915119.411 of the Revised Code:104173

       (1) "Long-term care consultation program" means the program 104174
the department of aging is required to develop under section 104175
173.42 of the Revised Code.104176

       (2) "Long-term care consultation program administrator" or 104177
"administrator" means the department of aging or, if the 104178
department contracts with an area agency on aging or other entity 104179
to administer the long-term care consultation program for a 104180
particular area, that agency or entity.104181

       (3) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 104182
5111.205165.01 of the Revised Code.104183

       (4)(2) "Residential state supplement administrative agency" 104184
means the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 104185
services or, if the department designates an entity under division 104186
(C) of this section for a particular area, the designated entity.104187

       (5)(3) "Residential state supplement program" means the 104188
program administered pursuant to this section.104189

       (B) The department of mental healthmental health and 104190
addiction services shall implement the residential state 104191
supplement program under which the state supplements the 104192
supplemental security income payments received by aged, blind, or 104193
disabled adults under Title XVI of the "Social Security Act," 49 104194
Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A., as amended1381 et seq. Residential 104195
state supplement payments shall be used for the provision of 104196
accommodations, supervision, and personal care services to social 104197
security, supplemental security income, and social security 104198
disability insurance recipients who the department determines are 104199
at risk of needing institutional care.104200

       (C) In implementing the program, the department may designate 104201
one or more entities to be responsible for providing 104202
administrative services regarding the program. The department may 104203
designate an entity to be a residential state supplement 104204
administrative agency under this division either by entering into 104205
a contract with the entity to serve in that capacity or by 104206
otherwise delegating to the entity the responsibility to serve in 104207
that capacity.104208

       (D) For an individual to be eligible for residential state 104209
supplement payments, all of the following must be the case:104210

       (1) Except as provided by division (H) of this section, the 104211
individual must reside in one of the following:104212

       (a) A home orresidential care facility, other than a nursing 104213
home or nursing home unit of a home for the aging, licensed by the 104214
department of health under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code or an 104215
assisted living program as defined in section 5111.89 of the 104216
Revised Code;104217

       (b) A residential facility as defined in division (A)(9)(b) 104218
of section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code licensed by the 104219
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services;104220

       (c) An apartment or room used to provide community mental 104221
health housing services certified by the department of mental 104222
healthmental health and addiction services under section 5119.611104223
5119.36 of the Revised Code and approved by a board of alcohol, 104224
drug addiction, and mental health services under division (A)(14) 104225
of section 340.03 of the Revised Code.104226

       (2) A residential state supplement administrative agency must 104227
have determined that the environment in which the individual will 104228
be living while receiving the payments is appropriate for the 104229
individual's needs. If the individual is eligible for social 104230
security payments, supplemental security income payments, or 104231
social security disability insurance benefits because of a mental 104232
disability, the residential state supplement administrative agency 104233
shall refer the individual to a community mental health agency104234
services provider for an assessment under division (A) of section 104235
340.091 of the Revised Code. 104236

       (3) The individual satisfies all eligibility requirements 104237
established by rules adopted under division (E) of this section.104238

       (E) The directorsdirector of mental healthmental health and 104239
addiction services and job and family servicesmedicaid director104240
shall adopt rules in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised 104241
Code as necessary to implement the residential state supplement 104242
program.104243

       To the extent permitted by Title XVI of the "Social Security 104244
Act," and any other provision of federal law, the medicaid104245
director of job and family services may adopt rules establishing 104246
standards for adjusting the eligibility requirements concerning 104247
the level of impairment a person must have so that the amount 104248
appropriated for the program by the general assembly is adequate 104249
for the number of eligible individuals. The rules shall not limit 104250
the eligibility of disabled persons solely on a basis classifying 104251
disabilities as physical or mental. The medicaid director of job 104252
and family services also may adopt rules that establish 104253
eligibility standards for aged, blind, or disabled individuals who 104254
reside in one of the homes or facilities specified in division 104255
(D)(1) of this section but who, because of their income, do not 104256
receive supplemental security income payments. The rules may 104257
provide that these individuals may include individuals who receive 104258
other types of benefits, including, social security payments or104259
social security disability insurance benefits provided under Title 104260
II of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A.104261
401, as amendedet seq. Notwithstanding division (B) of this 104262
section, such payments may be made if funds are available for 104263
them.104264

       The director of mental healthmental health and addiction 104265
services may adopt rules establishing the method to be used to 104266
determine the amount an eligible individual will receive under the 104267
program. The amount the general assembly appropriates for the 104268
program may be a factor included in the method that director 104269
establishes. 104270

       (F) The county department of job and family services of the 104271
county in which an applicant for the residential state supplement 104272
program resides shall determine whether the applicant meets income 104273
and resource requirements for the program.104274

       (G) The department of mental healthmental health and 104275
addiction services shall maintain a waiting list of any 104276
individuals eligible for payments under this section but not 104277
receiving them because moneys appropriated to the department for 104278
the purposes of this section are insufficient to make payments to 104279
all eligible individuals. An individual may apply to be placed on 104280
the waiting list even though the individual does not reside in one 104281
of the homes or facilities specified in division (D)(1) of this 104282
section at the time of application. The director of mental health104283
mental health and addiction services, by rules adopted in 104284
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, may specify 104285
procedures and requirements for placing an individual on the 104286
waiting list and priorities for the order in which individuals 104287
placed on the waiting list are to begin to receive residential 104288
state supplement payments. The rules specifying priorities may 104289
give priority to individuals placed on the waiting list on or 104290
after July 1, 2006, who receive social security payments, social 104291
security disability insurance, or supplemental security income 104292
benefits under Title XVI of the "Social Security Act," 86 Stat. 104293
1475 (1972), 42 U.S.C. 1381, as amendedet seq. The rules shall 104294
not affect the place on the waiting list of any person who was on 104295
the list on July 1, 2006. The rules specifying priorities may also 104296
set additional priorities based on living arrangement, such as 104297
whether an individual resides in a facility listed in division 104298
(D)(1) of this section or has been admitted to a nursing facility.104299

       (H) An individual in a licensed or certified living 104300
arrangement receiving state supplementation on November 15, 1990, 104301
under former section 5101.531 of the Revised Code shall not become 104302
ineligible for payments under this section solely by reason of the 104303
individual's living arrangement as long as the individual remains 104304
in the living arrangement in which the individual resided on 104305
November 15, 1990.104306

       (I) The department of mental healthcounty department of job 104307
and family services from which the person is receiving benefits104308
shall notify each person denied approval for payments under this 104309
section of the person's right to a hearing. On request, the 104310
hearing shall be provided in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 104311
Revised Code.104312

       Sec. 5119.691.        Sec. 5119.411. On a periodic schedule determined by 104313
the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 104314
services, each residential state supplement administrative agency 104315
shall determine whether individuals who reside in the area that 104316
the agency serves and are on a waiting list for the residential 104317
state supplement program have been admitted to a nursing facility. 104318
IfThe department shall have a process in place to ensure that if104319
a residential state supplement administrative agency determines 104320
that such an individual has been admitted to a nursing facility, 104321
the agency shall notify the long-term care consultation program 104322
administrator serving the area in which the individual resides 104323
about the determination. The administrator shall determinethere 104324
shall be a determination whether the residential state supplement 104325
program is appropriate for the individual and whether the 104326
individual would rather participate in the program than continue 104327
residing in the nursing facility. If the administrator determines104328
it is determined that the residential state supplement program is 104329
appropriate for the individual and the individual would rather 104330
participate in the program than continue residing in the nursing 104331
facility, the administrator shall so notify the department of 104332
mental health. On receipt of the notice from the administrator, 104333
the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 104334
services shall approve the individual's enrollment in the 104335
residential state supplement program in accordance with the 104336
priorities specified in rules adopted under division (G) of 104337
section 5119.695119.41 of the Revised Code. Each quarter in which 104338
a waiting list is in place, the department of mental healthmental 104339
health and addiction services shall certify to the director of 104340
budget and management the estimated increase in costs of the 104341
residential state supplement program resulting from enrollment of 104342
individuals in the program pursuant to this section.104343

       Sec. 5119.63.        Sec. 5119.42.  (A) As used in this section, "private, 104344
nonprofit organization" means a private association, organization, 104345
corporation, or other entity that is tax exempt under section 104346
501(a) and described in section 501(c) of the "Internal Revenue 104347
Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 501.104348

       (B) To the extent funds are available and on application by 104349
boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, the 104350
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services may 104351
approve state reimbursement of, or state grants for, community 104352
mental health construction programs including residential housing 104353
for severely mentally disabled persons and persons with substance 104354
use disorders. The director may also approve an application for 104355
reimbursement or a grant for such programs submitted by other 104356
governmental entities or by private, nonprofit organizations, 104357
after the application has been reviewed and recommended for 104358
approval or disapproval by the board of alcohol, drug addiction, 104359
and mental health services for the district from which the 104360
application came, and the application is consistent with the plan 104361
submitted by the board under division (A) of section 340.03 of the 104362
Revised Code and the budget and statement of services submitted by 104363
the board under divisions (A) and (B) of section 340.08 of the 104364
Revised Code.104365

       (C)(1) The director of mental healthmental health and 104366
addiction services shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 104367
119. of the Revised Code that specify procedures for applying for 104368
state reimbursement of and state grants for community construction 104369
programs, including residential housing for severely mentally 104370
disabled persons and persons with substance use disorders and 104371
procedures and criteria for approval of such reimbursement and 104372
grants.104373

       (2) The director of mental healthmental health and addiction 104374
services shall not approve state reimbursement or a state grant 104375
unless all of the following conditions are met:104376

       (a) The applicant includes with the application a plan 104377
specifying the services, in addition to housing, that will be 104378
provided to persons who will reside in the residential housing. 104379
Services specified may include any of the services listed104380
described in section 340.09 of the Revised Code.104381

       (b) The director is satisfied that the residential housing 104382
for severely mentally disabled persons will be developed to 104383
promote the maximum practical integration of severely mentally 104384
disabled persons with persons at the same site who are not 104385
severely mentally disabled.104386

       (c) The use of any funds distributed pursuant to the 104387
reimbursement or grant will not subject any obligation from which 104388
the funds are derived to federal income taxation.104389

       (3) The director may enter into an agreement establishing 104390
terms for any reimbursement or grant approved under this division 104391
with the organization, board, or other government entity that is 104392
the recipient of the reimbursement or grant. Any such agreement is 104393
subject to any covenant or agreement pertaining to any obligation 104394
issued to provide funds for the reimbursement or grant.104395

       Sec. 5119.631.        Sec. 5119.421.  (A) This section applies to a board 104396
of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, another 104397
governmental entity, or a private, nonprofit organization that 104398
received a grant or reimbursement under section 5119.635119.42 of 104399
the Revised Code for a facility on which the department of mental 104400
healthmental health and addiction services holds a security 104401
interest.104402

       (B) A board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 104403
services, another governmental entity, or a private, nonprofit 104404
organization to which this section applies may apply to the 104405
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services for 104406
approval to sell its facility and acquire, construct, or renovate 104407
a replacement facility pursuant to this section. The director 104408
shall prescribe the form of the application. Before submitting an 104409
application to the director, a governmental entity or private, 104410
nonprofit organization must obtain approval of the application 104411
from the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 104412
services with jurisdiction over the service district in which the 104413
existing facility is located. The director shall approve an 104414
application for a replacement project upon determining that the 104415
project provides for the continuation of appropriate mental health 104416
and addiction services to the population served by the board, 104417
entity, or organization.104418

       (C) A board, entity, or organization that obtains approval 104419
for a project under division (B) of this section shall pay the 104420
proceeds of the sale of its facility to the director of mental 104421
healthmental health and addiction services. The director shall 104422
deposit the proceeds to the credit of the community capital 104423
replacement facilities fund.104424

       (D) When a board, entity, or organization that has sold its 104425
facility notifies the director of mental healthmental health and 104426
addiction services that it is ready to acquire, construct, or 104427
renovate a replacement facility, the director shall do one of the 104428
following:104429

       (1) If the replacement facility is located in the same 104430
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district as the 104431
original facility, and if the purposes for which the replacement 104432
facility will be used are the same as or similar to those for the 104433
original facility, the director shall pay to the board, entity, or 104434
organization from the community capital replacement facilities 104435
fund an amount equal to the lesser of an amount equal to the 104436
proceeds of the sale of the original facility or the amount of the 104437
state's agreed-upon participation (as a per cent of the total 104438
cost) in the cost of the replacement facility. If the amount of 104439
the state's agreed-upon participation in the cost of the 104440
replacement facility is less than the value of the state's 104441
security interest in the original facility, the difference between 104442
the state's agreed-upon participation in the cost of the 104443
replacement facility and the value of the state's security 104444
interest in the original facility shall be retained in the 104445
community capital replacement facilities fund, and any excess 104446
proceeds shall be paid to the board, entity, or organization.104447

       (2) If the replacement facility is located in a different 104448
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district than 104449
the original facility, or if the purposes for which the 104450
replacement facility will be used are not the same as or similar 104451
to those for the original facility, the director shall request 104452
controlling board approval for release of funds for the project. 104453
If the controlling board so approves, the director shall pay to 104454
the board, entity, or organization from the community capital 104455
replacement facilities fund the lesser of an amount equal to the 104456
proceeds of the sale of the original facility or the amount of the 104457
state's agreed-upon participation (as a per cent of the total 104458
cost) in the cost of the replacement facility. ifIf the amount of 104459
the state's agreed-upon participation in the cost of the 104460
replacement facility is less than the value of the state's 104461
security interest in the original facility, the difference between 104462
the state's agreed-upon participation in the cost of the 104463
replacement facility and the value of the state's security 104464
interest in the original facility shall be retained in the 104465
community capital replacement facilities fund, and any excess 104466
proceeds shall be paid to the board, entity, or organization.104467

       (E) The director of mental healthmental health and addiction 104468
services and a board, entity, or organization shall enter into an 104469
agreement specifying the terms of any payment made to the board, 104470
entity, or organization under division (D) of this section. The 104471
terms may include provision for the department of mental health104472
mental health and addiction services to hold a security interest 104473
in the facility.104474

       (F)(1) When approving an application under division (B) of 104475
this section, the director of mental healthmental health and 104476
addiction services shall establish a deadline by which the board, 104477
entity, or organization must notify the director that it is ready 104478
to acquire, construct, or renovate a replacement facility. If the 104479
board, entity, or organization does not notify the director on or 104480
before the deadline, the director may cancel the project. Upon 104481
canceling the project, the director shall pay to the board, 104482
entity, or organization from the community capital replacement 104483
facilities fund an amount equal to the portion of the proceeds of 104484
the sale of the original facility that exceeds the value of the 104485
state's security interest in the facility.104486

       (2) Notwithstanding the deadline established under division 104487
(F)(1) of this section, if at any time a board, entity, or 104488
organization notifies the director that it does not intend to 104489
acquire, construct, or renovate a replacement facility under this 104490
section, the director shall cancel the replacement project and pay 104491
to the board, entity, or organization from the community capital 104492
replacement facilities fund an amount equal to the portion of the 104493
proceeds of the sale of the original facility that exceeds the 104494
value of the state's security interest in the facility.104495

       (G) If a replacement project is canceled after the sale of 104496
the original facility, the director of mental healthmental health 104497
and addiction services shall use funds equal to the value of the 104498
state's security interest in the original facility for additional 104499
grants or reimbursements under section 5119.635119.42 of the 104500
Revised Code. The director shall obtain the approval of the 104501
controlling board before releasing the additional grants or 104502
reimbursements.104503

       (H) The community capital replacement facilities fund is 104504
hereby created in the state treasury. The director of mental 104505
healthmental health and addiction services shall use the fund for 104506
the purposes of this section.104507

       Sec. 5119.16.        Sec. 5119.44.  As used in this section, "free clinic" 104508
has the same meaning as in section 2305.2341 of the Revised Code.104509

       (A) The department of mental healthmental health and 104510
addiction services may provide certain goods and services for the 104511
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services, 104512
the department of developmental disabilities, the department of 104513
rehabilitation and correction, the department of youth services, 104514
and other state, county, or municipal agencies requesting such 104515
goods and services when the department of mental healthmental 104516
health and addiction services determines that it is in the public 104517
interest, and considers it advisable, to provide these goods and 104518
services. The department of mental healthmental health and 104519
addiction services also may provide goods and services to agencies 104520
operated by the United States government and to public or private 104521
nonprofit agencies, other than free clinics, that are funded in 104522
whole or in part by the state if the public or private nonprofit 104523
agencies are designated for participation in this program by the 104524
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services104525
for community addiction services providers and community mental 104526
health agenciesservices providers, the director of developmental 104527
disabilities for community mental retardation and developmental 104528
disabilities agencies, the director of rehabilitation and 104529
correction for community rehabilitation and correction agencies, 104530
or the director of youth services for community youth services 104531
agencies. 104532

       Designated community agencies or services providers shall 104533
receive goods and services through the department of mental health104534
mental health and addiction services only in those cases where the 104535
designating state agency certifies that providing such goods and 104536
services to the agency or services provider will conserve public 104537
resources to the benefit of the public and where the provision of 104538
such goods and services is considered feasible by the department 104539
of mental healthmental health and addiction services.104540

       (B) The department of mental healthmental health and 104541
addiction services may permit free clinics to purchase certain 104542
goods and services to the extent the purchases fall within the 104543
exemption to the Robinson-Patman Act, 15 U.S.C. 13 et seq., 104544
applicable to nonprofit institutions, in 15 U.S.C. 13c, as 104545
amended.104546

       (C) The goods and services that may be provided by the 104547
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services104548
under divisions (A) and (B) of this section may include:104549

       (1) Procurement, storage, processing, and distribution of 104550
food and professional consultation on food operations;104551

       (2) Procurement, storage, and distribution of medical and 104552
laboratory supplies, dental supplies, medical records, forms, 104553
optical supplies, and sundries, subject to section 5120.135 of the 104554
Revised Code;104555

       (3) Procurement, storage, repackaging, distribution, and 104556
dispensing of drugs, the provision of professional pharmacy 104557
consultation, and drug information services;104558

       (4) Other goods and services.104559

       (D) The department of mental healthmental health and 104560
addiction services may provide the goods and services designated 104561
in division (C) of this section to its institutions and to 104562
state-operated community-based mental health or addiction services 104563
providers.104564

       (E) After consultation with and advice from the director of 104565
developmental disabilities, the director of rehabilitation and 104566
correction, and the director of youth services, the department of 104567
mental healthmental health and addiction services may provide the 104568
goods and services designated in division (C) of this section to 104569
the department of developmental disabilities, the department of 104570
rehabilitation and correction, and the department of youth 104571
services.104572

       (F) The cost of administration of this section shall be 104573
determined by the department of mental healthmental health and 104574
addiction services and paid by the agencies, services providers,104575
or free clinics receiving the goods and services to the department 104576
for deposit in the state treasury to the credit of the mental 104577
healthoffice of support services fund, which is hereby created. 104578
The fund shall be used to pay the cost of administration of this 104579
section to the department.104580

       (G) Whenever a state agency fails to make a payment for goods 104581
and services provided under this section within thirty-one days 104582
after the date the payment was due, the office of budget and 104583
management may transfer moneys from the state agency to the 104584
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services. 104585
The amount transferred shall not exceed the amount of overdue 104586
payments. Prior to making a transfer under this division, the 104587
office of budget and management shall apply any credits the state 104588
agency has accumulated in payments for goods and services provided 104589
under this section.104590

       (H) Purchases of goods and services under this section are 104591
not subject to section 307.86 of the Revised Code.104592

       Sec. 5119.161.        Sec. 5119.45.  Unless otherwise specifically 104593
provided by law, all moneys received by the department of mental 104594
healthmental health and addiction services from the sale of goods 104595
and services, including, but not limited to, shared service 104596
agreements with other governmental entities and nongovernmental 104597
entities, employee housing and cafeteria receipts, fees for 104598
copying services, and sales of other tangible personal property 104599
under the department's control, shall be paid into the state 104600
treasury to the credit of the sale of goods and services fund, 104601
which is hereby created. Moneys received by the department 104602
pursuant to section 5119.165119.44 of the Revised Code shall not 104603
be paid into the fund. The department shall use the moneys in the 104604
fund for paying operating expenses of the department.104605

       Sec. 5119.18.        Sec. 5119.46.  There is hereby created in the state 104606
treasury the department of mental healthmental health and 104607
addiction services trust fund. Not later than the first day of 104608
September of each year, the director of mental healthmental 104609
health and addiction services shall certify to the director of 104610
budget and management the amount of all of the unexpended, 104611
unencumbered balances of general revenue fund appropriations made 104612
to the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 104613
services for the previous fiscal year, excluding funds 104614
appropriated for rental payments to the Ohio public facilities 104615
commission. On receipt of the certification, the director of 104616
budget and management shall transfer cash to the trust fund in an 104617
amount up to, but not exceeding, the total of the amounts 104618
certified by the director of mental healthmental health and 104619
addiction services.104620

       In addition, the trust fund shall receive all amounts, 104621
subject to any provisions in bond documents, received from the 104622
sale or lease of lands and facilities by the department.104623

       All moneys in the trust fund shall be used by the department 104624
of mental healthmental health and addiction services to pay for 104625
expenditures the department incurs in performing any of its duties 104626
under this chapter. The use of moneys in the trust fund pursuant 104627
to this section does not represent an ongoing commitment to the 104628
continuation of the trust fund or to the use of moneys in the 104629
trust fund.104630

       Sec. 3793.032.        Sec. 5119.47.  The director of alcohol and drug 104631
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services shall 104632
administer the problem casino gambling and addictions fund. The 104633
director shall use the money in the fund to support programs that 104634
provide gambling addiction services, alcohol and drug addiction 104635
programs that provide alcohol and drug addiction services, other 104636
programsservices that relate to gambling addiction and substance 104637
abuse, and research that relates to gambling addiction and 104638
substance abuse. Treatment and prevention services provided under 104639
programs supported by money in the fund under this section shall 104640
be services that are provided by alcohol and drug addiction 104641
treatment programs certified by the department of alcohol and 104642
drug addiction services or provided by counselors who are 104643
certified by the departmentmental health and addiction services. 104644
Prevention services provided under programssupported by money in 104645
the fund under this section shall be services that are provided by 104646
alcohol and drug addiction prevention programs certified by the 104647
department of alcohol and drug addiction services.104648

       The director shall prepare an annual report describing the 104649
use of the fund for these purposes. The director shall submit the 104650
report to the Ohio casino control commission, the speaker and 104651
minority leader of the house of representatives, the president and 104652
minority leader of the senate, the governor, and the joint 104653
committee on gaming and wagering.104654

       Sec. 3793.22.        Sec. 5119.49. (A) The director of alcohol and drug 104655
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services shall 104656
collaborate with the state board of pharmacy and attorney general 104657
in the establishment and administration of a drug take-back 104658
program, as provided under section 4729.69 of the Revised Code.104659

       (B) The department may accept grants, gifts, or donations for 104660
purposes of the program. Money received under this division shall 104661
be deposited into the drug take-back program fund established 104662
under section 109.90 of the Revised Code.104663

       Sec. 5119.34.        Sec. 5119.50.  The director of mental healthmental 104664
health and addiction services may accept, hold, and administer in 104665
trust on behalf of the state, if it is for the public interest, 104666
any grant, gift, devise, or bequest of money or property made to 104667
the state for the use or benefit of any institution described in 104668
section 5119.025119.14 of the Revised Code or for the use and 104669
benefit of mentally ill persons under its control. If the trust so 104670
provides, the money or property may be used for any work which the 104671
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services104672
is authorized to undertake.104673

       The department shall keep such gift, grant, devise, or 104674
bequest as a distinct property or fund and, if it is in money, 104675
shall invest it in the manner provided by law. The department may 104676
deposit in a proper trust company or savings bank any money left 104677
in trust during a specified life or lives and shall adopt rules 104678
governing the deposit, transfer, withdrawal, or investment of such 104679
money and the income thereof.104680

       The department shall, in the manner prescribed by the 104681
director of budget and management pursuant to section 126.21 of 104682
the Revised Code, account for all money or property received or 104683
expended under this section. The records, together with a 104684
statement certified by the depository showing the funds deposited 104685
there to the credit of the trust, shall be open to public 104686
inspection. The director of budget and management may require the 104687
department to file a report with himthe director on any 104688
particular portion, or the whole, of any trust property received 104689
or expended by it.104690

       The department shall, upon the expiration of any trust 104691
according to its terms, dispose of the funds or property held 104692
thereunder in the manner provided in the instrument creating the 104693
trust. If the instrument creating the trust failed to make any 104694
terms of disposition, or if no trust was in evidence, then the 104695
decedent patient's money, saving or commercial deposits, dividends 104696
or distributions, bonds, or any other interest-bearing debt 104697
certificate or stamp issued by the United States government shall 104698
escheat to the state. All such unclaimed intangible personal 104699
property of a former patient shall be retained by the managing 104700
officer in such institution for the period of one year, during 104701
which time every possible effort shall be made to find such former 104702
patient or histhe former patient's legal representative.104703

       If, after a period of one year from the time the patient has 104704
left the institution or has died, the managing officer has been 104705
unable to locate such person or histhe person's legal 104706
representative, then upon proper notice of such fact the director 104707
shall at that time formulate in writing a method of disposition on 104708
the minutes of the department authorizing the managing officer to 104709
convert such intangible personal property to cash to be paid into 104710
the state treasury to the credit of the general revenue fund.104711

       The department shall include in its annual report a statement 104712
of all money and property and the terms and conditions relating 104713
thereto.104714

       Sec. 5119.17.        Sec. 5119.51.  (A) As used in this section, 104715
"supplemental services" has the same meaning as in section 5815.28 104716
of the Revised Code.104717

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 104718
services fund for individuals with mental illness. On the death of 104719
the beneficiary of a trust created pursuant to section 5815.28 of 104720
the Revised Code, the portion of the remaining assets of the trust 104721
specified in the trust instrument shall be deposited to the credit 104722
of the fund. Money credited to the fund shall be used for 104723
individuals with mental illness.104724

       Supplemental services may be provided through the department 104725
or boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services. 104726
In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 104727
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services104728
may adopt any rules necessary to implement this section.104729

       Sec. 5119.36.        Sec. 5119.52.  Each managing officer of an 104730
institution under the jurisdiction of the department of mental 104731
healthmental health and addiction services as described in 104732
section 5119.025119.14 of the Revised Code, with the approval of 104733
the director of mental healthmental health and addiction 104734
services, may establish local institution funds designated as 104735
follows:104736

       (A) Industrial and entertainment fund created and maintained 104737
for the entertainment and welfare of the patients of the 104738
institution. The director shall establish rules for the operation 104739
of the industrial and entertainment fund.104740

       (B) Commissary fund created and maintained for the benefit of 104741
patients in the institution. Commissary revenue over and above 104742
operating costs and reserve shall be considered profits. All 104743
profits from the commissary fund operations shall be paid into the 104744
industrial and entertainment fund and used only for the 104745
entertainment and wel farewelfare of patients. The director shall 104746
establish rules for the operation of the commissary fund.104747

       Sec. 5119.33.        Sec. 5119.54.  The treasurer of state shall have 104748
charge of all funds under the jurisdiction of the department of 104749
mental healthmental health and addiction services and shall pay 104750
out the same only in accordance with this chapter.104751

       The department shall cause to be furnished a contract of 104752
indemnity to cover all funds received by it or by its managing 104753
officers, employees, or agents while the funds are in the 104754
possession of such managing officers, employees or agents. Such 104755
funds are designated as follows:104756

       (A) Funds which are due and payable to the treasurer of state 104757
as provided by Chapter 131. of the Revised Code;104758

       (B) Those funds which are held in trust by the managing 104759
officers, employees, or agents of the institution as local funds 104760
or accounts under the jurisdiction of the department.104761

       Such contract of indemnity shall be made payable to the state 104762
and the premium for such contract of indemnity may be paid from 104763
any of the moneys received for the use of the department under 104764
this chapter and Chapters 5121. and 5122. of the Revised Code.104765

       Funds collected from various sources, such as the sale of 104766
goods, and all miscellaneous articles, shall be transmitted on or 104767
before Monday of each week to the treasurer of state and a 104768
detailed statement of such collections shall be made to the 104769
department.104770

       Sec. 5119.351.        Sec. 5119.55.  The department of mental health104771
mental health and addiction services may pay an amount for 104772
personal use to each individual residing in a state institution as 104773
described in section 5119.025119.14 of the Revised Code who would 104774
be eligible for supplemental security income benefits at the 104775
reduced rate established by Title XVI of the "Social Security 104776
Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 1382, as amended1381 et 104777
seq., if the state plan for providing medical assistance under 104778
section 5111.01 of the Revised Code included reimbursement of104779
medicaid program covers services provided in such institutions. 104780
The amount paid by the department shall not exceed the reduced 104781
supplemental security income benefit rate established by Title XVI 104782
of the "Social Security Act."104783

       Sec. 5119.35.        Sec. 5119.56.  Money or property deposited with 104784
managing officers of institutions under the jurisdiction of the 104785
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services104786
by any patient under the department's control or by relatives, 104787
guardians, conservators, and others for the special benefit of 104788
such patient, as well as all other funds and all other income paid 104789
to the patient, histhe patient's estate, or on histhe patient's104790
behalf, or paid to the managing officer or to the institution as 104791
representative payee or otherwise paid on the patient's behalf, 104792
shall remain in the hands of such officers in appropriate accounts 104793
for use accordingly. The managing officer shall keep itemized book 104794
accounts of the receipt and disposition of such money and 104795
property, which book shall be open at all times to the inspection 104796
of the department. The director of mental healthmental health 104797
and addiction services shall adopt rules governing the deposit, 104798
transfer, withdrawal, or investment of the funds and the income 104799
thereof, as well as rules under which such funds and income shall 104800
be paid by managing officers for the support of the patients 104801
pursuant to Chapter 5121. of the Revised Code, or for their other 104802
needs.104803

       Whenever any patient confined in any state institution 104804
subject to the jurisdiction of the department dies, escapes, or is 104805
discharged from such institution, and any personal funds of such 104806
person remain in the hands of the managing officer thereof and no 104807
demand for such funds is made upon such managing officer by the 104808
owner of the funds or histhe owner's legally appointed 104809
representative, the managing officer shall hold the funds in the 104810
personal deposit fund for a period of at least one year during 104811
which time the managing officer shall make every effort possible 104812
to locate the owner or histhe owner's legally appointed 104813
representative.104814

       If at the end of this period no demand has been made for the 104815
funds, the managing officer shall dispose of the funds as follows:104816

       (A) All money in a personal deposit fund in excess of ten 104817
dollars due for the support of a patient shall be paid in 104818
accordance with the provisions of Chapter 5121. of the Revised 104819
Code.104820

       (B) All money in a personal deposit fund in excess of ten 104821
dollars not due for the support of a patient shall be placed to 104822
the credit of the institution's local account designated as the 104823
"industrial and entertainment" fund.104824

       (C) The first ten dollars to the credit of a patient shall be 104825
placed to the credit of the institution's local account designated 104826
as the "industrial and entertainment" fund.104827

       Whenever any patient in any state institution subject to the 104828
jurisdiction of the department dies, escapes, or is discharged 104829
from such institution, and any personal effects of such person 104830
remain in the hands of the managing officer thereof, and no demand 104831
is made upon such managing officer by the owner of the property or 104832
histhe owner's legally appointed representative, the managing 104833
officer shall hold and dispose of such property in the following 104834
manner.104835

       All the miscellaneous personal effects shall be held for a 104836
period of at least one year, during which time the managing 104837
officer shall make every effort possible to locate the owner or104838
histhe owner's legal representative. If at the end of this 104839
period, no demand has been made by the owner of the property or 104840
histhe owner's legal representative, the managing officer shall 104841
file with the county recorder of the county of commitment of such 104842
owner, all deeds, wills, contract mortgages, or assignments. The 104843
balance of the personal effects shall be sold at public auction 104844
after being duly advertised, and the funds turned over to the 104845
treasurer of state for credit to the general revenue fund. If any 104846
of the property is not of a type to be filed with the county 104847
recorder and is not salable at public auction, then the managing 104848
officer of the institution shall destroy such property.104849

       Sec. 5119.46.        Sec. 5119.60. In its annual report, theThe104850
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services104851
shall submit an annual report to the governor that shall describe 104852
the services the department offers and how appropriated funds have 104853
been spent. The report shall include theall of the following:104854

       (A) The utilization of state hospitals by each alcohol, drug 104855
addiction, and mental health service district, the;104856

       (B) The number of persons served by community addiction 104857
services providers that receive funds distributed by the 104858
department, with a breakdown into categories including age, sex, 104859
race, the type of drug to which the person is addicted, and any 104860
other categories the director of mental health and addiction 104861
services considers significant;104862

       (C) The number of severely mentally disabled persons served 104863
in each district, and the;104864

       (D) The number and types of services provided to severely 104865
mentally disabled persons through state-operated services and 104866
community mental health agenciesservices providers;104867

       (E) A report measuring the success of community addiction 104868
services providers, based on the measures for accountability 104869
developed by the department, including the percentage of persons 104870
served by such community addiction services providers who have not 104871
relapsed;104872

       (F) Any other information that the director considers 104873
significant or is requested by the governor.104874

       Sec. 3793.12.        Sec. 5119.61.  (A) The department of alcohol and drug 104875
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services shall 104876
collect and compile statistics and other information on the care 104877
and treatment of mentally disabled persons, and the care, 104878
treatment, and rehabilitation of alcoholics, drug dependent 104879
persons, and persons in danger of drug dependence in this state, 104880
including, without limitation, information on the number of such 104881
persons, the type of drug involved, the type of care, treatment, 104882
or rehabilitation prescribed or undertaken, and the success or 104883
failure of the care, treatment, or rehabilitation. The department 104884
shall collect information about services delivered and persons 104885
served as required for reporting and evaluation relating to state 104886
and federal funds expended for such purposes.104887

       (B) No alcohol or, drug addiction program, or mental health 104888
services provider shall fail to supply statistics and other 104889
information within its knowledge and with respect to its programs104890
services, upon request of the department.104891

       (C) Communications by a person seeking aid in good faith for 104892
alcoholism or drug dependence are confidential, and this section 104893
does not require the collection or permit the disclosure of 104894
information which reveals or comprises the identity of any person 104895
seeking aid.104896

       (D) Based on the information collected and compiled under 104897
division (A) of this section, the department shall develop a 104898
project to assess the outcomes of persons served by alcohol and 104899
drug addiction programsservices providers and mental health 104900
services providers that receive funds distributed by the 104901
department.104902

       Sec. 5119.50.        Sec. 5119.70.  The "interstate compact on mental 104903
health" is hereby ratified, enacted into law, and entered into by 104904
the state of Ohio as a party thereto with any other state which 104905
has legally joined in the compact as follows:104906

INTERSTATE COMPACT ON MENTAL HEALTH
104907

       The contracting states solemnly agree that:104908

Article I
104909

       The party states find that the proper and expeditious 104910
treatment of the mentally ill and mentally retarded can be 104911
facilitated by cooperative action, to the benefit of the patients, 104912
their families, and society as a whole. Further, the party states 104913
find that the necessity of and desirability for furnishing such 104914
care and treatment bears no primary relation to the residence or 104915
citizenship of the patient but that, on the contrary, the 104916
controlling factors of community safety and humanitarianism 104917
require that facilities and services be made available for all who 104918
are in need of them. Consequently, it is the purpose of this 104919
compact and of the party states to provide the necessary legal 104920
basis for the institutionalization or other appropriate care and 104921
treatment of the mentally ill and mentally retarded under a system 104922
that recognizes the paramount importance of patient welfare and to 104923
establish the responsibilities of the party states in terms of 104924
such welfare.104925

Article II
104926

       As used in this compact:104927

       (a) "Sending state" shall mean a party state from which a 104928
patient is transported pursuant to the provisions of the compact 104929
or from which it is contemplated that a patient may be so sent.104930

       (b) "Receiving state" shall mean a party state to which a 104931
patient is transported pursuant to the provisions of the compact 104932
or to which it is contemplated that a patient may be so sent.104933

       (c) "Institution" shall mean any hospital or other facility 104934
maintained by a party state or political subdivision thereof for 104935
the care and treatment of mental illness or mental retardation.104936

       (d) "Patient" shall mean any person subject to or eligible as 104937
determined by the laws of the sending state, for 104938
institutionalization or other care, treatment, or supervision 104939
pursuant to the provisions of this compact.104940

       (e) "After-care" shall mean care, treatment and services 104941
provided a patient, as defined herein, or convalescent status or 104942
conditional release.104943

       (f) "Mental illness" shall mean mental disease to such extent 104944
that a person so afflicted requires care and treatment for his own 104945
welfare, or the welfare of others, or of the community.104946

       (g) "Mental retardation" shall mean mental retardation as 104947
defined by appropriate clinical authorities to such extent that a 104948
person so afflicted is incapable of managing himself and his 104949
affairs, but shall not include mental illness as defined herein.104950

       (h) "State" shall mean any state, territory or possession of 104951
the United States, the District of Columbia, and the Commonwealth 104952
of Puerto Rico.104953

Article III
104954

       (a) Whenever a person physically present in any party state 104955
shall be in need of institutionalization by reason of mental 104956
illness or mental retardation, he shall be eligible for care and 104957
treatment in an institution in that state irrespective of his 104958
residence, settlement or citizenship qualifications.104959

       (b) The provisions of paragraph (a) of this article to the 104960
contrary notwithstanding, any patient may be transferred to an 104961
institution in another state whenever there are factors based upon 104962
clinical determinations indicating that the care and treatment of 104963
said patient would be facilitated or improved thereby. Any such 104964
institutionalization may be for the entire period of care and 104965
treatment or for any portion or portions thereof. The factors 104966
referred to in this paragraph shall include the patient's full 104967
record with due regard for the location of the patient's family, 104968
character of the illness and probable duration thereof, and such 104969
other factors as shall be considered appropriate.104970

       (c) No state shall be obliged to receive any patient pursuant 104971
to the provisions of paragraph (b) of this article unless the 104972
sending state has given advance notice of its intention to send 104973
the patient; furnished all available medical and other pertinent 104974
records concerning the patient; given the qualified medical or 104975
other appropriate clinical authorities of the receiving state an 104976
opportunity to examine the patient if said authorities so wish; 104977
and unless the receiving state shall agree to accept the patient.104978

       (d) In the event that the laws of the receiving state 104979
establish a system of priorities for the admission of patients, an 104980
interstate patient under this compact shall receive the same 104981
priority as a local patient and shall be taken in the same order 104982
and at the same time that he would be taken if he were a local 104983
patient.104984

       (e) Pursuant to this compact, the determination as to the 104985
suitable place of institutionalization for a patient may be 104986
reviewed at any time and such further transfer of the patient may 104987
be made as seems likely to be in the best interest of the patient.104988

Article IV
104989

       (a) Whenever, pursuant to the laws of the state in which a 104990
patient is physically present, it shall be determined that the 104991
patient should receive after-care or supervision, such care or 104992
supervision may be provided in a receiving state. If the medical 104993
or other appropriate clinical authorities having responsibility 104994
for the care and treatment of the patient in the sending state 104995
shall have reason to believe that after-care in another state 104996
would be in the best interest of the patient and would not 104997
jeopardize the public safety, they shall request the appropriate 104998
authorities in the receiving state to investigate the desirability 104999
of affording the patient such after-care in said receiving state, 105000
and such investigation shall be made with all reasonable speed. 105001
The request for investigation shall be accompanied by complete 105002
information concerning the patient's intended place of residence 105003
and the identity of the person in whose charge it is proposed to 105004
place the patient, the complete medical history of the patient, 105005
and such other documents as may be pertinent.105006

       (b) If the medical or other appropriate clinical authorities 105007
having responsibility for the care and treatment of the patient in 105008
the sending state and the appropriate authorities in the receiving 105009
state find that the best interest of the patient would be served 105010
thereby, and if the public safety would not be jeopardized 105011
thereby, the patient may receive after-care or supervision in the 105012
receiving state.105013

       (c) In supervising, treating, or caring for a patient on 105014
after-care pursuant to the terms of this article, a receiving 105015
state shall employ the same standards of visitation, examination, 105016
care, and treatment that it employs for similar local patients.105017

Article V
105018

       Whenever a dangerous or potentially dangerous patient escapes 105019
from an institution in any party state, that state shall promptly 105020
notify all appropriate authorities within and without the 105021
jurisdiction of the escape in a manner reasonably calculated to 105022
facilitate the speedy apprehension of the escapee. Immediately 105023
upon the apprehension and identification of any such dangerous or 105024
potentially dangerous patient, he shall be detained in the state 105025
where found pending disposition in accordance with law.105026

Article VI
105027

       The duly accredited officers of any state party to this 105028
compact, upon the establishment of their authority and the 105029
identity of the patient, shall be permitted to transport any 105030
patient being moved pursuant to this compact through any and all 105031
states party to this compact, without interference.105032

Article VII
105033

       (a) No person shall be deemed a patient of more than one 105034
institution at any given time. Completion of transfer of any 105035
patient to an institution in a receiving state shall have the 105036
effect of making the person a patient of the institution in the 105037
receiving state.105038

       (b) The sending state shall pay all costs of and incidental 105039
to the transportation of any patient pursuant to this compact, but 105040
any two or more party states may, by making a specific agreement 105041
for that purpose, arrange for a different allocation of costs as 105042
among themselves.105043

       (c) No provision of this compact shall be construed to alter 105044
or affect any internal relationships among the departments, 105045
agencies and officers of and in the government of a party state, 105046
or between a party state and its subdivisions, as to the payment 105047
of costs, or responsibilities therefor.105048

       (d) Nothing in this compact shall be construed to prevent any 105049
party state or subdivision thereof from asserting any right 105050
against any person, agency or other entity in regard to costs for 105051
which such party state or subdivision thereof may be responsible 105052
pursuant to any provision of this compact.105053

       (e) Nothing in this compact shall be construed to invalidate 105054
any reciprocal agreement between a party state and a nonparty 105055
state relating to institutionalization, care or treatment of the 105056
mentally ill or mentally retarded, or any statutory authority 105057
pursuant to which such agreements may be made.105058

Article VIII
105059

       (a) Nothing in this compact shall be construed to abridge, 105060
diminish, or in any way impair the rights, duties, and 105061
responsibilities of any patient's guardian on his own behalf or in 105062
respect of any patient for whom he may serve, except that where 105063
the transfer of any patient to another jurisdiction makes 105064
advisable the appointment of a supplemental or substitute 105065
guardian, any court of competent jurisdiction in the receiving 105066
state may make such supplemental or substitute appointment and the 105067
court which appointed the previous guardian shall upon being duly 105068
advised of the new appointment, and upon the satisfactory 105069
completion of such accounting and other acts as such court may by 105070
law require, relieve the previous guardian of power and 105071
responsibility to whatever extent shall be appropriate in the 105072
circumstances; provided, however, that in the case of any patient 105073
having settlement in the sending state, the court of competent 105074
jurisdiction in the sending state shall have the sole discretion 105075
to relieve a guardian appointed by it or continue his power and 105076
responsibility, whichever it shall deem advisable. The court in 105077
the receiving state may, in its discretion, confirm or reappoint 105078
the person or persons previously serving as guardian in the 105079
sending state in lieu of making a supplemental or substitute 105080
appointment.105081

       (b) The term "guardian" as used in paragraph (a) of this 105082
article shall include any guardian, trustee, legal committee, 105083
conservator, or other person or agency however denominated who is 105084
charged by law with power to act for or responsibility for the 105085
person or property of a patient.105086

Article IX
105087

       (a) No provision of this compact except Article V shall apply 105088
to any person institutionalized while under sentence in a penal or 105089
correctional institution or while subject to trial on a criminal 105090
charge, or whose institutionalization is due to the commission of 105091
an offense for which, in the absence of mental illness or mental 105092
retardation, said person would be subject to incarceration in a 105093
penal or correctional institution.105094

       (b) To every extent possible, it shall be the policy of 105095
states party to this compact that no patient shall be placed or 105096
detained in any prison, jail or lockup, but such patient shall, 105097
with all expedition, be taken to a suitable institutional facility 105098
for mental illlness or mental retardation.105099

Article X
105100

       (a) Each party state shall appoint a "compact administrator" 105101
who, on behalf of his state, shall act as general coordinator of 105102
activities under the compact in his state and who shall receive 105103
copies of all reports, correspondence, and other documents 105104
relating to any patient processed under the compact by his state 105105
either in the capacity of sending or receiving state. The compact 105106
administrator or his duly designated representative shall be the 105107
official with whom other party states shall deal in any matter 105108
relating to the compact or any patient processed thereunder.105109

       (b) The compact administrators of the respective party states 105110
shall have power to promulgate reasonable rules and regulations to 105111
carry out more effectively the terms and provisions of this 105112
compact.105113

Article XI
105114

       The duly constituted administrative authorities of any two or 105115
more party states may enter into supplementary agreements for the 105116
provision of any service or facility or for the maintenance of any 105117
institution on a joint or cooperative basis whenever the states 105118
concerned shall find that such agreements will improve services, 105119
facilities, or institutional care and treatment in the fields of 105120
mental illness or mental retardation. No such supplementary 105121
agreement shall be construed so as to relieve any party state of 105122
any obligation which it otherwise would have under other 105123
provisions of this compact.105124

Article XII
105125

       This compact shall enter into full force and effect as to any 105126
state when enacted by it into law and such states shall thereafter 105127
be a party thereto with any and all states legally joining 105128
therein.105129

Article XIII
105130

       (a) A state party to this compact may withdraw therefrom by 105131
enacting a statute repealing the same. Such withdrawal shall take 105132
effect one year after notice thereof has been communicated 105133
officially and in writing to the governors and compact 105134
administrators of all other party states. However, the withdrawal 105135
of any state shall not change the status of any patient who has 105136
been sent to said state or sent out of said state pursuant to the 105137
provisions of the compact.105138

       (b) Withdrawal from any agreement permitted by Article VII 105139
(b) as to costs or from any supplementary agreement made pursuant 105140
to Article XI shall be in accordance with the terms of such 105141
agreement.105142

Article XIV
105143

       This compact shall be liberally construed so as to effectuate 105144
the purposes thereof. The provisions of this compact shall be 105145
severable and if any phrase, clause, sentence or provision of this 105146
compact is declared to be contrary to the constitution of any 105147
party state or of the United States or the applicability thereof 105148
to any government, agency, person or circumstance is held invalid, 105149
the validity of the remainder of this compact and the 105150
applicability thereof to any government, agency, person or 105151
circumstance shall not be affected thereby. If this compact shall 105152
be held contrary to the constitution of any state party thereto, 105153
the compact shall remain in full force and effect as to the 105154
remaining states and in full force and effect as to the state 105155
affected as to all severable matters.105156

       Sec. 5119.51.        Sec. 5119.71.  Pursuant to Article X of the compact 105157
set forth in section 5119.505119.70 of the Revised Code, the 105158
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services and 105159
the director of developmental disabilities each shall designate an 105160
officer who shall be the compact administrator for the department 105161
and who, acting jointly with like officers of other party states, 105162
shall adopt rules to carry out more effectively the terms of the 105163
compact. The compact administrators of each department shall serve 105164
subject to the pleasure of the governor and shall cooperate with 105165
all departments, agencies, and officers of and in the government 105166
of this state and its subdivisions in facilitating the proper 105167
administration of the compact or of any supplementary agreements 105168
entered into by this state thereunder. 105169

       Sec. 5119.52.        Sec. 5119.72.  The compact administrator may enter 105170
into supplementary agreements with appropriate officials of other 105171
states pursuant to articles VII and XI of the compact set forth in 105172
section 5119.505119.70 of the Revised Code. In the event that 105173
such supplementary agreements require or contemplate the use of 105174
any institution or facility of this state or require or 105175
contemplate the provision of any service by this state, no such 105176
agreement shall have force or effect until approved by the head of 105177
the department or agency under whose jurisdiction the institution 105178
or facility is operated or whose department or agency will be 105179
charged with the rendering of such service.105180

       Sec. 5119.53.        Sec. 5119.73.  Any payments necessary to discharge 105181
any financial obligations imposed upon the state of Ohio by the 105182
compact or by any supplementary agreement entered into thereunder, 105183
as provided in sections 5119.505119.70 to 5119.525119.72 of the 105184
Revised Code, shall be made from appropriated funds upon 105185
presentation to the director of budget and management of itemized 105186
vouchers approved by the compact administrator.105187

       Sec. 3793.31.        Sec. 5119.90. As used in sections 3793.315119.90 to 105188
3793.395119.98 of the Revised Code:105189

       (A) "Alcohol and other drug abuse" means alcoholism or drug 105190
addiction.105191

       (B) "Another drug" means a controlled substance as defined in 105192
section 3719.01 of the Revised Code or a harmful intoxicant as 105193
defined in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.105194

       (C) "Board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 105195
services" means a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 105196
health services established under section 340.02 or 340.021 of the 105197
Revised Code.105198

       (D) "Danger" or "threat of danger to self, family, or others" 105199
means substantial physical harm or threat of substantial physical 105200
harm upon self, family, or others.105201

       (E) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3701.01 or 105202
3727.01 of the Revised Code but does not include either a hospital 105203
operated by the department of mental healthmental health and 105204
addiction services or an inpatient unit licensed by the 105205
department.105206

       (F) "Intoxicated" means being under the influence of alcohol, 105207
another drug, or both alcohol and another drug and, as a result, 105208
having a significantly impaired ability to function.105209

       (G) "Petitioner" means a person who institutes a proceeding 105210
under sections 3793.325119.91 to 3793.395119.98 of the Revised 105211
Code.105212

       (H) "Probate court" means the probate division of the court 105213
of common pleas.105214

       (I) "Qualified health professional" means a person that is 105215
properly credentialed or licensed to conduct a drug and alcohol 105216
assessment and diagnosis under Ohio law.105217

       (J) "Residence" means the legal residence of a person as 105218
determined by applicable principles governing conflicts of law.105219

       (K) "Respondent" means a person alleged in a petition filed 105220
or hearing under sections 3793.325119.91 to 3793.395119.98 of 105221
the Revised Code to be a person who is suffering from alcohol and 105222
other drug abuse and who may be ordered under those sections to 105223
undergo treatment.105224

       (L) "Treatment" means services and programs for the care and 105225
rehabilitation of intoxicated persons and persons suffering from 105226
alcohol and other drug abuse. "Treatment" includes residential 105227
treatment, a halfway house setting, and an intensive outpatient or 105228
outpatient level of care.105229

       Sec. 3793.32.        Sec. 5119.91. A probate court may order involuntary 105230
treatment for a person suffering from alcohol and other drug abuse 105231
pursuant to the procedures set forth in sections 3793.315119.90105232
to 3793.395119.98 of the Revised Code.105233

       Sec. 3793.33.        Sec. 5119.92. No person shall be ordered to undergo 105234
treatment under sections 3793.315119.90 to 3793.395119.98 of the 105235
Revised Code unless all of the following apply to that person:105236

       (A) The person suffers from alcohol and other drug abuse.105237

       (B) The person presents an imminent danger or imminent threat 105238
of danger to self, family, or others as a result of alcohol and 105239
other drug abuse, or there exists a substantial likelihood of such 105240
a threat in the near future.105241

       (C) The person can reasonably benefit from treatment.105242

       Sec. 3793.34.        Sec. 5119.93. (A) A person may initiate proceedings 105243
for treatment for an individual suffering from alcohol and other 105244
drug abuse by filing a verified petition in the probate court and 105245
paying a filing fee in the same amount, if any, that is charged 105246
for the filing under section 5122.11 of the Revised Code of an 105247
affidavit seeking the hospitalization of a person. The petition 105248
and all subsequent court documents shall be entitled: "In the 105249
interest of (name of respondent)." A spouse, relative, or guardian 105250
of the individual concerning whom the petition is filed shall file 105251
the petition.105252

       (B) A petition filed under division (A) of this section shall 105253
set forth all of the following:105254

       (1) The petitioner's relationship to the respondent;105255

       (2) The respondent's name, residence address, and current 105256
location, if known;105257

       (3) The name and residence of the respondent's parents, if 105258
living and if known, or of the respondent's legal guardian, if any 105259
and if known;105260

       (4) The name and residence of the respondent's spouse, if any 105261
and if known;105262

       (5) The name and residence of the person having custody of 105263
the respondent, if any, or if no such person is known, the name 105264
and residence of a near relative or a statement that the person is 105265
unknown;105266

       (6) The petitioner's belief, including the factual basis for 105267
the belief, that the respondent is suffering from alcohol and 105268
other drug abuse and presents an imminent danger or imminent 105269
threat of danger to self, family, or others if not treated for 105270
alcohol or other drug abuse.105271

       (C)(1) Any petition filed pursuant to divisions (A) and (B) 105272
of this section shall be accompanied by a certificate of a 105273
physician who has examined the respondent within two days prior to 105274
the day that the petition is filed in the probate court. The 105275
physician shall be authorized to practice medicine and surgery or 105276
osteopathic medicine and surgery under Chapter 4731. of the 105277
Revised Code. The physician's certificate shall set forth the 105278
physician's findings in support of the need to treat the 105279
respondent for alcohol or other drug abuse. The certificate shall 105280
indicate if the respondent presents an imminent danger or imminent 105281
threat of danger to self, family, or others if not treated. 105282
Further, the certificate shall indicate the type and length of 105283
treatment required and if the respondent can reasonably benefit 105284
from treatment. If the physician's certificate indicates that 105285
inpatient treatment is required, the certificate shall identify 105286
any inpatient facilities known to the physician that are able and 105287
willing to provide the recommended inpatient treatment.105288

        If the respondent refuses to undergo an examination with a 105289
physician concerning the respondent's possible need for treatment 105290
for alcohol or other drug abuse, the petition shall state that the 105291
respondent has refused all requests made by the petitioner to 105292
undergo a physician's examination. In that case, the petitioner 105293
shall not be required to provide a physician's certificate with 105294
the petition.105295

       (2) Any petition filed pursuant to divisions (A) and (B) of 105296
this section shall contain a statement that the petitioner has 105297
arranged for treatment of the respondent. Further, the petition 105298
shall be accompanied by a statement from the person or facility 105299
who has agreed to provide the treatment that verifies that the 105300
person or facility has agreed to provide the treatment and the 105301
estimated cost of the treatment.105302

        (D) Any petition filed pursuant to divisions (A) and (B) of 105303
this section shall be accompanied by both of the following:105304

       (1) A security deposit to be deposited with the clerk of the 105305
probate court that will cover half of the estimated cost of 105306
treatment of the respondent;105307

        (2) A guarantee, signed by the petitioner or another person 105308
authorized to file the petition obligating the guarantor to pay 105309
the costs of the examinations of the respondent conducted by the 105310
physician and qualified health professional under division (B)(5) 105311
of section 3793.355119.94 of the Revised Code, the costs of the 105312
respondent that are associated with a hearing conducted in 105313
accordance with section 3793.355119.94 of the Revised Code and 105314
that the court determines to be appropriate, and the costs of any 105315
treatment ordered by the court.105316

       Sec. 3793.35.        Sec. 5119.94. (A) Upon receipt of a petition filed 105317
under section 3793.345119.93 of the Revised Code and the payment 105318
of the appropriate filing fee, if any, the probate court shall 105319
examine the petitioner under oath as to the contents of the 105320
petition.105321

       (B) If, after reviewing the allegations contained in the 105322
petition and examining the petitioner under oath, it appears to 105323
the probate court that there is probable cause to believe the 105324
respondent may reasonably benefit from treatment, the court shall 105325
do all of the following:105326

       (1) Schedule a hearing to be held within seven days to 105327
determine if there is clear and convincing evidence that the 105328
respondent may reasonably benefit from treatment for alcohol and 105329
other drug abuse;105330

       (2) Notify the respondent, the legal guardian, if any and if 105331
known, and the spouse, parents, or nearest relative or friend of 105332
the respondent concerning the allegations and contents of the 105333
petition and of the date and purpose of the hearing;105334

       (3) Notify the respondent that the respondent may retain 105335
counsel and, if the person is unable to obtain an attorney, that 105336
the respondent may be represented by court-appointed counsel at 105337
public expense if the person is indigent. Upon the appointment of 105338
an attorney to represent an indigent respondent, the court shall 105339
notify the respondent of the name, address, and telephone number 105340
of the attorney appointed to represent the respondent.105341

        (4) Notify the respondent that the court shall cause the 105342
respondent to be examined not later than twenty-four hours before 105343
the hearing date by a physician for the purpose of a physical 105344
examination and by a qualified health professional for the purpose 105345
of a drug and alcohol addiction assessment and diagnosis. In 105346
addition, the court shall notify the respondent that the 105347
respondent may have an independent expert evaluation of the 105348
person's physical and mental condition conducted at the 105349
respondent's own expense.105350

        (5) Cause the respondent to be examined not later than 105351
twenty-four hours before the hearing date by a physician for the 105352
purpose of a physical examination and by a qualified health 105353
professional for the purpose of a drug and alcohol addiction 105354
assessment and diagnosis;105355

       (6) Conduct the hearing.105356

       (C) The physician and qualified health professional who 105357
examine the respondent pursuant to division (B)(5) of this section 105358
or who are obtained by the respondent at the respondent's own 105359
expense shall certify their findings to the court within 105360
twenty-four hours of the examinations. The findings of each 105361
qualified health professional shall include a recommendation for 105362
treatment if the qualified health professional determines that 105363
treatment is necessary.105364

       (D)(1) If upon completion of the hearing held under this 105365
section the probate court finds by clear and convincing evidence 105366
that the respondent may reasonably benefit from treatment, the 105367
court may order the treatment after considering the qualified 105368
health professionals' recommendations for treatment that have been 105369
submitted to the court under division (C) of this section. If the 105370
court orders the treatment under this division, the court shall 105371
order the treatment to be provided through an alcohol and druga 105372
community addiction programservices provider certified under 105373
section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code or by an individual 105374
licensed or certified by the state medical board under Chapter 105375
4731. of the Revised Code, the chemical dependency professionals 105376
board under Chapter 4758. of the Revised Code, the counselor, 105377
social worker, and marriage and family therapist board under 105378
Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code, or a similar board of another 105379
state authorized to provide substance abuse treatment.105380

        (2) Failure of a respondent to undergo and complete any 105381
treatment ordered pursuant to this division is contempt of court. 105382
Any alcohol and drug addiction program or person providing 105383
treatment under this division shall notify the probate court of a 105384
respondent's failure to undergo or complete the ordered treatment.105385

       (E) If, at any time after a petition is filed under section 105386
3793.345119.93 of the Revised Code, the probate court finds that 105387
there is not probable cause to continue treatment or if the 105388
petitioner withdraws the petition, then the court shall dismiss 105389
the proceedings against the respondent.105390

       Sec. 3793.36.        Sec. 5119.95. (A) Following an examination by a 105391
qualified health professional and a certification by that 105392
professional that the person meets the criteria specified in 105393
section 3793.335119.92 of the Revised Code, a probate court may 105394
order the person hospitalized for a period not to exceed 105395
seventy-two hours if the court finds by clear and convincing 105396
evidence that the person presents an imminent threat of danger to 105397
self, family, or others as a result of alcohol and other drug 105398
abuse. However, if the hearing to be held under section 3793.35105399
5119.94 of the Revised Code will not be held within seventy-two 105400
hours, the court may order the person hospitalized until the 105401
hearing. In making its order, the court shall inform the person 105402
that the person may immediately make a reasonable number of 105403
telephone calls or use other reasonable means to contact an 105404
attorney, a licensed physician, or a qualified health 105405
professional, to contact any other person or persons to secure 105406
representation by counsel, or to obtain medical or psychological 105407
assistance and that the person will be provided assistance in 105408
making calls if the assistance is needed and requested.105409

       (B) Any person who has been admitted to a hospital under 105410
division (A) of this section shall be released from the hospital 105411
immediately upon the expiration of the time period established by 105412
the court for the hospitalization.105413

       (C) No person ordered hospitalized under this section shall 105414
be held in jail pending transportation to the hospital or 105415
evaluation unless the probate court previously has found the 105416
person to be in contempt of court for either failure to undergo 105417
treatment or failure to appear at the evaluation ordered pursuant 105418
to section 3793.355119.94 of the Revised Code.105419

       Sec. 3793.37.        Sec. 5119.96. When a probate court is authorized to 105420
issue an order that the respondent be transported to a hospital, 105421
the court may issue a summons. If the respondent fails to attend 105422
an examination scheduled before the hearing under section 3793.35105423
5119.94 of the Revised Code, the court shall issue a summons. A 105424
summons so issued shall be directed to the respondent and shall 105425
command the respondent to appear at a time and place specified in 105426
the summons. If a respondent who has been summoned fails to appear 105427
at the hospital or the examination, the probate court may order 105428
the sheriff or any other peace officer to transport the respondent 105429
to a hospital on the list provided under section 3793.385119.97105430
of the Revised Code for treatment. The sheriff or any other peace 105431
officer, upon agreement of a person authorized by the peace 105432
officer, may authorize a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 105433
mental health services, a private agencyservices provider under 105434
contract with a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 105435
health services, or an ambulance service designated by a board of 105436
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services to transport 105437
the respondent to the hospital. The transportation costs of the 105438
sheriff, other peace officer, ambulance service, or other private 105439
agencyservices provider under contract with the board of alcohol, 105440
drug addiction, and mental health services shall be included in 105441
the costs of treatment for alcohol and other drug abuse to be paid 105442
by the petitioner.105443

       Sec. 3793.38.        Sec. 5119.97. Each board of alcohol, drug addiction, 105444
and mental health services on at least an annual basis shall 105445
submit each of the following lists to the clerk of the probate 105446
court in each county served by the board:105447

       (A) A list of all hospitals in the counties served by the 105448
board that are able and willing to take respondents ordered to 105449
undergo seventy-two hours of treatment and observation pursuant to 105450
section 3793.365119.95 of the Revised Code;105451

       (B) A list of hospitals and treatment providers in the 105452
counties served by the board that are able and willing to provide 105453
treatment for alcohol and other drug abuse ordered pursuant to 105454
section 3793.355119.94 of the Revised Code.105455

       Sec. 3793.39.        Sec. 5119.98. Sections 3793.12, 3793.135119.26, 105456
5119.27, and 3793.145119.61 of the Revised Code apply to a person 105457
who is ordered to undergo treatment under sections 3793.31 to 105458
3793.395119.90 to 5119.98 of the Revised Code.105459

       Sec. 5119.99. (A) Whoever violates section 5119.215119.333105460
of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first 105461
degree.105462

       (B) Whoever violates division (B) of section 5119.61 of the 105463
Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.105464

       (C) Whoever violates section 5119.27 or 5119.28 or division 105465
(G) of section 5119.36 of the Revised Code is guilty of a felony 105466
of the fifth degree.105467

       Sec. 5120.07.  (A) There is hereby created the ex-offender 105468
reentry coalition consisting of the following eighteenseventeen105469
members or their designees:105470

       (1) The director of rehabilitation and correction;105471

       (2) The director of aging;105472

       (3) The director of alcohol and drug addiction services105473
mental health and addiction services;105474

       (4) The director of development services;105475

       (5) The superintendent of public instruction;105476

       (6) The director of health;105477

       (7) The director of job and family services;105478

       (8) The director of mental health;105479

       (9) The director of developmental disabilities;105480

       (10)(9) The director of public safety;105481

       (11)(10) The director of youth services;105482

       (12)(11) The chancellor of the Ohio board of regents;105483

       (13)(12) A representative or member of the governor's staff;105484

       (14)(13) The executive director of the rehabilitation 105485
services commissionopportunities for Ohioans with disabilities 105486
agency;105487

       (15)(14) The director of the department of commerce;105488

       (16)(15) The executive director of a health care licensing 105489
board created under Title XLVII of the Revised Code, as appointed 105490
by the chairperson of the coalition;105491

       (17)(16) The director of veterans services;105492

       (18)(17) An ex-offender appointed by the director of 105493
rehabilitation and correction.105494

       (B) The members of the coalition shall serve without 105495
compensation. The director of rehabilitation and correction or the 105496
director's designee shall be the chairperson of the coalition.105497

       (C) In consultation with persons interested and involved in 105498
the reentry of ex-offenders into the community, including but not 105499
limited to, services providers, community-based organizations, and 105500
local governments, the coalition shall identify and examine social 105501
service barriers and other obstacles to the reentry of 105502
ex-offenders into the community. Not later than one year after 105503
April 7, 2009, and on or before the same date of each year 105504
thereafter, the coalition shall submit to the speaker of the house 105505
of representatives and the president of the senate a report, 105506
including recommendations for legislative action, the activities 105507
of the coalition, and the barriers affecting the successful 105508
reentry of ex-offenders into the community. The report shall 105509
analyze the effects of those barriers on ex-offenders and on their 105510
children and other family members in various areas, including but 105511
not limited to, the following:105512

       (1) Admission to public and other housing;105513

       (2) Child support obligations and procedures;105514

       (3) Parental incarceration and family reunification;105515

       (4) Social security benefits, veterans' benefits, food 105516
stamps, and other forms of public assistance;105517

       (5) Employment;105518

       (6) Education programs and financial assistance;105519

       (7) Substance abuse, mental health, and sex offender 105520
treatment programs and financial assistance and mental health 105521
services and financial assistance;105522

       (8) Civic and political participation;105523

       (9) Other collateral consequences under the Revised Code or 105524
the Ohio administrative code law that may result from a criminal 105525
conviction.105526

       (D)(1) The report shall also include the following 105527
information:105528

       (a) Identification of state appropriations for reentry 105529
programs;105530

       (b) Identification of other funding sources for reentry 105531
programs that are not funded by the state;105532

       (2) The coalition shall gather information about reentry 105533
programs in a repository maintained and made available by the 105534
coalition. Where available, the information shall include the 105535
following:105536

       (a) The amount of funding received;105537

       (b) The number of program participants;105538

       (c) The composition of the program, including program goals, 105539
methods for measuring success, and program success rate;105540

       (d) The type of post-program tracking that is utilized;105541

       (e) Information about employment rates and recidivism rates 105542
of ex-offenders.105543

       (E) The coalition shall cease to exist on December 31, 2014.105544

       Sec. 5120.09.  Under the supervision and control of the 105545
director of rehabilitation and correction, the division of 105546
business administration shall do all of the following:105547

       (A) Submit the budgets for the several divisions of the 105548
department of rehabilitation and correction, as prepared by the 105549
respective chiefs of those divisions, to the director. The 105550
director, with the assistance of the chief of the division of 105551
business administration, shall compile a departmental budget that 105552
contains all proposals submitted by the chiefs of the divisions 105553
and shall forward the departmental budget to the governor with 105554
comments and recommendations that the director considers 105555
necessary.105556

       (B) Maintain accounts and records and compile statistics that 105557
the director prescribes;105558

       (C) Under the control of the director, coordinate and make 105559
the necessary purchases and requisitions for the department and 105560
its divisions, except when goods and services are provided to the 105561
department as described in section 5119.165119.44 of the Revised 105562
Code;105563

       (D) Administer within this state federal criminal justice 105564
acts that the governor requires the department to administer. In 105565
order to improve the criminal justice system of this state, the 105566
division of business administration shall apply for, allocate, 105567
disburse, and account for grants that are made available pursuant 105568
to those federal criminal justice acts and grants that are made 105569
available from other federal government sources, state government 105570
sources, or private sources. As used in this division, "criminal 105571
justice system" and "federal criminal justice acts" have the same 105572
meanings as in section 5502.61 of the Revised Code.105573

       (E) Audit the activities of governmental entities, persons as 105574
defined in section 1.59 of the Revised Code, and other types of 105575
nongovernmental entities that are financed in whole or in part by 105576
funds that the department allocates or disburses and that are 105577
derived from grants described in division (D) of this section;105578

       (F) Enter into contracts, including contracts with federal, 105579
state, or local governmental entities, persons as defined in 105580
section 1.59 of the Revised Code, foundations, and other types of 105581
nongovernmental entities, that are necessary for the department to 105582
carry out its duties and that neither the director nor another 105583
section of the Revised Code authorizes another division of the 105584
department to enter;105585

       (G) Exercise other powers and perform other duties that the 105586
director may assign to the division of business administration.105587

       Sec. 5120.135.  (A) As used in this section, "laboratory 105588
services" includes the performance of medical laboratory analysis; 105589
professional laboratory and pathologist consultation; the 105590
procurement, storage, and distribution of laboratory supplies; and 105591
the performance of phlebotomy services.105592

       (B) The department of rehabilitation and correction may 105593
provide laboratory services to the departments of mental health105594
mental health and addiction services, developmental disabilities, 105595
youth services, and rehabilitation and correction. The department 105596
of rehabilitation and correction may also provide laboratory 105597
services to other state, county, or municipal agencies and to 105598
private persons that request laboratory services if the department 105599
of rehabilitation and correction determines that the provision of 105600
laboratory services is in the public interest and considers it 105601
advisable to provide such services. The department of 105602
rehabilitation and correction may also provide laboratory services 105603
to agencies operated by the United States government and to public 105604
and private entities funded in whole or in part by the state if 105605
the director of rehabilitation and correction designates them as 105606
eligible to receive such services.105607

       The department of rehabilitation and correction shall provide 105608
laboratory services from a laboratory that complies with the 105609
standards for certification set by the United States department of 105610
health and human services under the "Clinical Laboratory 105611
Improvement Amendments of 1988," 102 Stat. 293, 42 U.S.C.A. 263a. 105612
In addition, the laboratory shall maintain accreditation or 105613
certification with an appropriate accrediting or certifying 105614
organization as considered necessary by the recipients of its 105615
laboratory services and as authorized by the director of 105616
rehabilitation and correction.105617

       (C) The cost of administering this section shall be 105618
determined by the department of rehabilitation and correction and 105619
shall be paid by entities that receive laboratory services to the 105620
department for deposit in the state treasury to the credit of the 105621
laboratory services fund, which is hereby created. The fund shall 105622
be used to pay the costs the department incurs in administering 105623
this section.105624

       (D) Whenever a state agency fails to make a payment for 105625
laboratory services provided to it by the department of 105626
rehabilitation and correction under this section within thirty-one 105627
days after the date the payment was due, the office of budget and 105628
management may transfer moneys from that state agency to the 105629
department of rehabilitation and correction for deposit to the 105630
credit of the laboratory services fund. The amount transferred 105631
shall not exceed the amount of the overdue payments. Prior to 105632
making a transfer under this division, the office shall apply any 105633
credits the state agency has accumulated in payment for laboratory 105634
services provided under this section.105635

       Sec. 5120.17.  (A) As used in this section:105636

       (1) "Mental illness" means a substantial disorder of thought, 105637
mood, perception, orientation, or memory that grossly impairs 105638
judgment, behavior, capacity to recognize reality, or ability to 105639
meet the ordinary demands of life.105640

       (2) "Mentally ill person subject to hospitalization" means a 105641
mentally ill person to whom any of the following applies because 105642
of the person's mental illness:105643

       (a) The person represents a substantial risk of physical harm 105644
to the person as manifested by evidence of threats of, or attempts 105645
at, suicide or serious self-inflicted bodily harm.105646

       (b) The person represents a substantial risk of physical harm 105647
to others as manifested by evidence of recent homicidal or other 105648
violent behavior, evidence of recent threats that place another in 105649
reasonable fear of violent behavior and serious physical harm, or 105650
other evidence of present dangerousness.105651

       (c) The person represents a substantial and immediate risk of 105652
serious physical impairment or injury to the person as manifested 105653
by evidence that the person is unable to provide for and is not 105654
providing for the person's basic physical needs because of the 105655
person's mental illness and that appropriate provision for those 105656
needs cannot be made immediately available in the correctional 105657
institution in which the inmate is currently housed.105658

       (d) The person would benefit from treatment in a hospital for 105659
the person's mental illness and is in need of treatment in a 105660
hospital as manifested by evidence of behavior that creates a 105661
grave and imminent risk to substantial rights of others or the 105662
person.105663

       (3) "Psychiatric hospital" means all or part of a facility 105664
that is operated and managed by the department of mental health105665
mental health and addiction services to provide psychiatric 105666
hospitalization services in accordance with the requirements of 105667
this section pursuant to an agreement between the directors of 105668
rehabilitation and correction and mental healthmental health and 105669
addiction services or, is licensed by the department of mental 105670
healthmental health and addiction services pursuant to section 105671
5119.205119.33 of the Revised Code as a psychiatric hospital and 105672
is accredited by a healthcarehealth care accrediting organization 105673
approved by the department of mental healthmental health and 105674
addiction services and the psychiatric hospital is any of the 105675
following:105676

       (a) Operated and managed by the department of rehabilitation 105677
and correction within a facility that is operated by the 105678
department of rehabilitation and correction;105679

       (b) Operated and managed by a contractor for the department 105680
of rehabilitation and correction within a facility that is 105681
operated by the department of rehabilitation and correction;105682

       (c) Operated and managed in the community by an entity that 105683
has contracted with the department of rehabilitation and 105684
correction to provide psychiatric hospitalization services in 105685
accordance with the requirements of this section.105686

       (4) "Inmate patient" means an inmate who is admitted to a 105687
psychiatric hospital.105688

       (5) "Admitted" to a psychiatric hospital means being accepted 105689
for and staying at least one night at the psychiatric hospital.105690

       (6) "Treatment plan" means a written statement of reasonable 105691
objectives and goals for an inmate patient that is based on the 105692
needs of the inmate patient and that is established by the 105693
treatment team, with the active participation of the inmate 105694
patient and with documentation of that participation. "Treatment 105695
plan" includes all of the following:105696

       (a) The specific criteria to be used in evaluating progress 105697
toward achieving the objectives and goals;105698

       (b) The services to be provided to the inmate patient during 105699
the inmate patient's hospitalization;105700

       (c) The services to be provided to the inmate patient after 105701
discharge from the hospital, including, but not limited to, 105702
housing and mental health services provided at the state 105703
correctional institution to which the inmate patient returns after 105704
discharge or community mental health services.105705

       (7) "Mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization 105706
by court order" has the same meaning as in section 5123.01 of the 105707
Revised Code.105708

       (8) "Emergency transfer" means the transfer of a mentally ill 105709
inmate to a psychiatric hospital when the inmate presents an 105710
immediate danger to self or others and requires hospital-level 105711
care.105712

       (9) "Uncontested transfer" means the transfer of a mentally 105713
ill inmate to a psychiatric hospital when the inmate has the 105714
mental capacity to, and has waived, the hearing required by 105715
division (B) of this section.105716

       (10)(a) "Independent decision-maker" means a person who is 105717
employed or retained by the department of rehabilitation and 105718
correction and is appointed by the chief or chief clinical officer 105719
of mental health services as a hospitalization hearing officer to 105720
conduct due process hearings.105721

       (b) An independent decision-maker who presides over any 105722
hearing or issues any order pursuant to this section shall be a 105723
psychiatrist, psychologist, or attorney, shall not be specifically 105724
associated with the institution in which the inmate who is the 105725
subject of the hearing or order resides at the time of the hearing 105726
or order, and previously shall not have had any treatment 105727
relationship with nor have represented in any legal proceeding the 105728
inmate who is the subject of the order.105729

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, if 105730
the warden of a state correctional institution or the warden's 105731
designee believes that an inmate should be transferred from the 105732
institution to a psychiatric hospital, the department shall hold a 105733
hearing to determine whether the inmate is a mentally ill person 105734
subject to hospitalization. The department shall conduct the 105735
hearing at the state correctional institution in which the inmate 105736
is confined, and the department shall provide qualified 105737
independent assistance to the inmate for the hearing. An 105738
independent decision-maker provided by the department shall 105739
preside at the hearing and determine whether the inmate is a 105740
mentally ill person subject to hospitalization.105741

       (2) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, prior 105742
to the hearing held pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section, 105743
the warden or the warden's designee shall give written notice to 105744
the inmate that the department is considering transferring the 105745
inmate to a psychiatric hospital, that it will hold a hearing on 105746
the proposed transfer at which the inmate may be present, that at 105747
the hearing the inmate has the rights described in division (B)(3) 105748
of this section, and that the department will provide qualified 105749
independent assistance to the inmate with respect to the hearing. 105750
The department shall not hold the hearing until the inmate has 105751
received written notice of the proposed transfer and has had 105752
sufficient time to consult with the person appointed by the 105753
department to provide assistance to the inmate and to prepare for 105754
a presentation at the hearing.105755

       (3) At the hearing held pursuant to division (B)(1) of this 105756
section, the department shall disclose to the inmate the evidence 105757
that it relies upon for the transfer and shall give the inmate an 105758
opportunity to be heard. Unless the independent decision-maker 105759
finds good cause for not permitting it, the inmate may present 105760
documentary evidence and the testimony of witnesses at the hearing 105761
and may confront and cross-examine witnesses called by the 105762
department.105763

       (4) If the independent decision-maker does not find clear and 105764
convincing evidence that the inmate is a mentally ill person 105765
subject to hospitalization, the department shall not transfer the 105766
inmate to a psychiatric hospital but shall continue to confine the 105767
inmate in the same state correctional institution or in another 105768
state correctional institution that the department considers 105769
appropriate. If the independent decision-maker finds clear and 105770
convincing evidence that the inmate is a mentally ill person 105771
subject to hospitalization, the decision-maker shall order that 105772
the inmate be transported to a psychiatric hospital for 105773
observation and treatment for a period of not longer than thirty 105774
days. After the hearing, the independent decision-maker shall 105775
submit to the department a written decision that states one of the 105776
findings described in division (B)(4) of this section, the 105777
evidence that the decision-maker relied on in reaching that 105778
conclusion, and, if the decision is that the inmate should be 105779
transferred, the reasons for the transfer.105780

       (C)(1) The department may transfer an inmate to a psychiatric 105781
hospital under an emergency transfer order if the chief clinical 105782
officer of mental health services of the department or that 105783
officer's designee and either a psychiatrist employed or retained 105784
by the department or, in the absence of a psychiatrist, a 105785
psychologist employed or retained by the department determines 105786
that the inmate is mentally ill, presents an immediate danger to 105787
self or others, and requires hospital-level care.105788

       (2) The department may transfer an inmate to a psychiatric 105789
hospital under an uncontested transfer order if both of the 105790
following apply:105791

       (a) A psychiatrist employed or retained by the department 105792
determines all of the following apply:105793

       (i) The inmate has a mental illness or is a mentally ill 105794
person subject to hospitalization.105795

       (ii) The inmate requires hospital care to address the mental 105796
illness.105797

       (iii) The inmate has the mental capacity to make a reasoned 105798
choice regarding the inmate's transfer to a hospital.105799

       (b) The inmate agrees to a transfer to a hospital.105800

       (3) The written notice and the hearing required under 105801
divisions (B)(1) and (2) of this section are not required for an 105802
emergency transfer or uncontested transfer under division (C)(1) 105803
or (2) of this section.105804

       (4) After an emergency transfer under division (C)(1) of this 105805
section, the department shall hold a hearing for continued 105806
hospitalization within five working days after admission of the 105807
transferred inmate to the psychiatric hospital. The department 105808
shall hold subsequent hearings pursuant to division (F) of this 105809
section at the same intervals as required for inmate patients who 105810
are transported to a psychiatric hospital under division (B)(4) of 105811
this section.105812

       (5) After an uncontested transfer under division (C)(2) of 105813
this section, the inmate may withdraw consent to the transfer in 105814
writing at any time. Upon the inmate's withdrawal of consent, the 105815
hospital shall discharge the inmate, or, within five working days, 105816
the department shall hold a hearing for continued hospitalization. 105817
The department shall hold subsequent hearings pursuant to division 105818
(F) of this section at the same time intervals as required for 105819
inmate patients who are transported to a psychiatric hospital 105820
under division (B)(4) of this section.105821

       (D)(1) If an independent decision-maker, pursuant to division 105822
(B)(4) of this section, orders an inmate transported to a 105823
psychiatric hospital or if an inmate is transferred pursuant to 105824
division (C)(1) or (2) of this section, the staff of the 105825
psychiatric hospital shall examine the inmate patient when 105826
admitted to the psychiatric hospital as soon as practicable after 105827
the inmate patient arrives at the hospital and no later than 105828
twenty-four hours after the time of arrival. The attending 105829
physician responsible for the inmate patient's care shall give the 105830
inmate patient all information necessary to enable the patient to 105831
give a fully informed, intelligent, and knowing consent to the 105832
treatment the inmate patient will receive in the hospital. The 105833
attending physician shall tell the inmate patient the expected 105834
physical and medical consequences of any proposed treatment and 105835
shall give the inmate patient the opportunity to consult with 105836
another psychiatrist at the hospital and with the inmate advisor.105837

       (2) No inmate patient who is transported or transferred 105838
pursuant to division (B)(4) or (C)(1) or (2) of this section to a 105839
psychiatric hospital within a facility that is operated by the 105840
department of rehabilitation and correction shall be subjected to 105841
any of the following procedures:105842

       (a) Convulsive therapy;105843

       (b) Major aversive interventions;105844

       (c) Any unusually hazardous treatment procedures;105845

       (d) Psychosurgery.105846

       (E) The department of rehabilitation and correction shall 105847
ensure that an inmate patient hospitalized pursuant to this 105848
section receives or has all of the following:105849

       (1) Receives sufficient professional care within twenty days 105850
of admission to ensure that an evaluation of the inmate patient's 105851
current status, differential diagnosis, probable prognosis, and 105852
description of the current treatment plan have been formulated and 105853
are stated on the inmate patient's official chart;105854

       (2) Has a written treatment plan consistent with the 105855
evaluation, diagnosis, prognosis, and goals of treatment;105856

       (3) Receives treatment consistent with the treatment plan;105857

       (4) Receives periodic reevaluations of the treatment plan by 105858
the professional staff at intervals not to exceed thirty days;105859

       (5) Is provided with adequate medical treatment for physical 105860
disease or injury;105861

       (6) Receives humane care and treatment, including, without 105862
being limited to, the following:105863

       (a) Access to the facilities and personnel required by the 105864
treatment plan;105865

       (b) A humane psychological and physical environment;105866

       (c) The right to obtain current information concerning the 105867
treatment program, the expected outcomes of treatment, and the 105868
expectations for the inmate patient's participation in the 105869
treatment program in terms that the inmate patient reasonably can 105870
understand;105871

       (d) Opportunity for participation in programs designed to 105872
help the inmate patient acquire the skills needed to work toward 105873
discharge from the psychiatric hospital;105874

       (e) The right to be free from unnecessary or excessive 105875
medication and from unnecessary restraints or isolation;105876

       (f) All other rights afforded inmates in the custody of the 105877
department consistent with rules, policy, and procedure of the 105878
department.105879

       (F) The department shall hold a hearing for the continued 105880
hospitalization of an inmate patient who is transported or 105881
transferred to a psychiatric hospital pursuant to division (B)(4) 105882
or (C)(1) of this section prior to the expiration of the initial 105883
thirty-day period of hospitalization. The department shall hold 105884
any subsequent hearings, if necessary, not later than ninety days 105885
after the first thirty-day hearing and then not later than each 105886
one hundred and eighty days after the immediately prior hearing. 105887
An independent decision-maker shall conduct the hearings at the 105888
psychiatric hospital in which the inmate patient is confined. The 105889
inmate patient shall be afforded all of the rights set forth in 105890
this section for the hearing prior to transfer to the psychiatric 105891
hospital. The department may not waive a hearing for continued 105892
commitment. A hearing for continued commitment is mandatory for an 105893
inmate patient transported or transferred to a psychiatric 105894
hospital pursuant to division (B)(4) or (C)(1) of this section 105895
unless the inmate patient has the capacity to make a reasoned 105896
choice to execute a waiver and waives the hearing in writing. An 105897
inmate patient who is transferred to a psychiatric hospital 105898
pursuant to an uncontested transfer under division (C)(2) of this 105899
section and who has scheduled hearings after withdrawal of consent 105900
for hospitalization may waive any of the scheduled hearings if the 105901
inmate has the capacity to make a reasoned choice and executes a 105902
written waiver of the hearing.105903

       If upon completion of the hearing the independent 105904
decision-maker does not find by clear and convincing evidence that 105905
the inmate patient is a mentally ill person subject to 105906
hospitalization, the independent decision-maker shall order the 105907
inmate patient's discharge from the psychiatric hospital. If the 105908
independent decision-maker finds by clear and convincing evidence 105909
that the inmate patient is a mentally ill person subject to 105910
hospitalization, the independent decision-maker shall order that 105911
the inmate patient remain at the psychiatric hospital for 105912
continued hospitalization until the next required hearing.105913

       If at any time prior to the next required hearing for 105914
continued hospitalization, the medical director of the hospital or 105915
the attending physician determines that the treatment needs of the 105916
inmate patient could be met equally well in an available and 105917
appropriate less restrictive state correctional institution or 105918
unit, the medical director or attending physician may discharge 105919
the inmate to that facility.105920

       (G) An inmate patient is entitled to the credits toward the 105921
reduction of the inmate patient's stated prison term pursuant to 105922
Chapters 2967. and 5120. of the Revised Code under the same terms 105923
and conditions as if the inmate patient were in any other 105924
institution of the department of rehabilitation and correction.105925

       (H) The adult parole authority may place an inmate patient on 105926
parole or under post-release control directly from a psychiatric 105927
hospital.105928

       (I) If an inmate patient who is a mentally ill person subject 105929
to hospitalization is to be released from a psychiatric hospital 105930
because of the expiration of the inmate patient's stated prison 105931
term, the director of rehabilitation and correction or the 105932
director's designee, at least fourteen days before the expiration 105933
date, may file an affidavit under section 5122.11 or 5123.71 of 105934
the Revised Code with the probate court in the county where the 105935
psychiatric hospital is located or the probate court in the county 105936
where the inmate will reside, alleging that the inmate patient is 105937
a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court order or 105938
a mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization by 105939
court order, whichever is applicable. The proceedings in the 105940
probate court shall be conducted pursuant to Chapter 5122. or 105941
5123. of the Revised Code except as modified by this division.105942

       Upon the request of the inmate patient, the probate court 105943
shall grant the inmate patient an initial hearing under section 105944
5122.141 of the Revised Code or a probable cause hearing under 105945
section 5123.75 of the Revised Code before the expiration of the 105946
stated prison term. After holding a full hearing, the probate 105947
court shall make a disposition authorized by section 5122.15 or 105948
5123.76 of the Revised Code before the date of the expiration of 105949
the stated prison term. No inmate patient shall be held in the 105950
custody of the department of rehabilitation and correction past 105951
the date of the expiration of the inmate patient's stated prison 105952
term.105953

       (J) The department of rehabilitation and correction shall set 105954
standards for treatment provided to inmate patients.105955

       (K) A certificate, application, record, or report that is 105956
made in compliance with this section and that directly or 105957
indirectly identifies an inmate or former inmate whose 105958
hospitalization has been sought under this section is 105959
confidential. No person shall disclose the contents of any 105960
certificate, application, record, or report of that nature or any 105961
other psychiatric or medical record or report regarding a mentally 105962
ill inmate unless one of the following applies:105963

       (1) The person identified, or the person's legal guardian, if 105964
any, consents to disclosure, and the chief clinical officer or 105965
designee of mental health services of the department of 105966
rehabilitation and correction determines that disclosure is in the 105967
best interests of the person.105968

       (2) Disclosure is required by a court order signed by a 105969
judge.105970

       (3) An inmate patient seeks access to the inmate patient's 105971
own psychiatric and medical records, unless access is specifically 105972
restricted in the treatment plan for clear treatment reasons.105973

       (4) Hospitals and other institutions and facilities within 105974
the department of rehabilitation and correction may exchange 105975
psychiatric records and other pertinent information with other 105976
hospitals, institutions, and facilities of the department, but the 105977
information that may be released about an inmate patient is 105978
limited to medication history, physical health status and history, 105979
summary of course of treatment in the hospital, summary of 105980
treatment needs, and a discharge summary, if any.105981

       (5) An inmate patient's family member who is involved in 105982
planning, providing, and monitoring services to the inmate patient 105983
may receive medication information, a summary of the inmate 105984
patient's diagnosis and prognosis, and a list of the services and 105985
personnel available to assist the inmate patient and family if the 105986
attending physician determines that disclosure would be in the 105987
best interest of the inmate patient. No disclosure shall be made 105988
under this division unless the inmate patient is notified of the 105989
possible disclosure, receives the information to be disclosed, and 105990
does not object to the disclosure.105991

       (6) The department of rehabilitation and correction may 105992
exchange psychiatric hospitalization records, other mental health 105993
treatment records, and other pertinent information with county 105994
sheriffs' offices, hospitals, institutions, and facilities of the 105995
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services105996
and with community mental health agenciesservices providers and 105997
boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services with 105998
which the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 105999
services has a current agreement for patient care or services to 106000
ensure continuity of care. Disclosure under this division is 106001
limited to records regarding a mentally ill inmate's medication 106002
history, physical health status and history, summary of course of 106003
treatment, summary of treatment needs, and a discharge summary, if 106004
any. No office, department, agency, provider, or board shall 106005
disclose the records and other information unless one of the 106006
following applies:106007

       (a) The mentally ill inmate is notified of the possible 106008
disclosure and consents to the disclosure.106009

       (b) The mentally ill inmate is notified of the possible 106010
disclosure, an attempt to gain the consent of the inmate is made, 106011
and the office, department, agency, or board documents the attempt 106012
to gain consent, the inmate's objections, if any, and the reasons 106013
for disclosure in spite of the inmate's objections.106014

       (7) Information may be disclosed to staff members designated 106015
by the director of rehabilitation and correction for the purpose 106016
of evaluating the quality, effectiveness, and efficiency of 106017
services and determining if the services meet minimum standards.106018

       The name of an inmate patient shall not be retained with the 106019
information obtained during the evaluations.106020

       (L) The director of rehabilitation and correction may adopt 106021
rules setting forth guidelines for the procedures required under 106022
divisions (B), (C)(1), and (C)(2) of this section.106023

       Sec. 5120.171.  (A) The department of rehabilitation and 106024
correction shall have exclusive direction and control of the care 106025
and treatment of seriously mentally ill inmates who are in the 106026
department's custody. The department shall enter into any 106027
arrangements it considers desirable on such matters, including but 106028
not limited to both of the following:106029

       (1) The monitoring of such services by another state agency 106030
or agencies;106031

       (2) Adopting joint standards for the provision and monitoring 106032
of mental health services with the department of mental health106033
mental health and addiction services and other state agencies.106034

       (B) In order to implement its duties imposed by division (A) 106035
of this section, the department of rehabilitation and correction 106036
may enter into a contract for the provision of the mental health 106037
services described in that division.106038

       Sec. 5120.652.  To participate in the prison nursery program, 106039
each eligible inmate selected by the department shall do all the 106040
following:106041

       (A) Agree in writing to do all the following:106042

       (1) Comply with any program, educational, counseling, and 106043
other requirements established for the program by the department 106044
of rehabilitation and correction;106045

       (2) If eligible, have the child participate in the medicaid 106046
program or a health insurance program;106047

       (3) Accept the normal risks of childrearing;106048

       (4) Abide by any court decisions regarding the allocation of 106049
parental rights and responsibilities with respect to the child.106050

       (B) Assign to the department any rights to support from any 106051
other person, excluding support assigned pursuant to section 106052
5107.20 of the Revised Code and medical support assigned pursuant 106053
to section 5101.595160.38 of the Revised Code;106054

       (C) Specify with whom the child is to be placed in the event 106055
the inmate's participation in the program is terminated for a 106056
reason other than release from imprisonment.106057

       Sec. 5120.654.  (A) The rights to support assigned by an 106058
inmate pursuant to section 5120.652 of the Revised Code constitute 106059
an obligation of the person who is responsible for providing the 106060
support to the department of rehabilitation and correction for the 106061
support provided the inmate and child pursuant to the prison 106062
nursery program. The division of child support in the department 106063
of job and family services shall collect support payments made 106064
pursuant to the assignment and forward them to the department of 106065
rehabilitation and correction.106066

       (B) The department of rehabilitation and correction may 106067
receive the following:106068

       (1) Money that is assigned or donated on behalf of, and 106069
public assistance provided under Ohio works first to, a specific 106070
inmate or child participating in the prison nursery program;106071

       (2) Money assigned or donated to establish and maintain the 106072
prison nursery program.106073

       (C) The amounts described in division (B)(1) of this section 106074
shall be placed in the individual nursery account created and 106075
maintained under section 5120.655 of the Revised Code for the 106076
inmate and child for whom the money was received. The money 106077
described in division (B)(2) of this section shall be deposited in 106078
the appropriate prison nursery program fund.106079

       Sec. 5121.051.  All outstanding liability of relatives for 106080
the support of any patient or resident in a benevolent institution 106081
under the control of the department of mental healthmental health 106082
and addiction services or the department of developmental 106083
disabilities accrued prior to January 1, 1956, including the 106084
liability of the patient personally, is hereby canceled, provided 106085
that this section does not abrogate any written agreements or 106086
security arrangement for the payment of support charges entered 106087
into between the state and any patient or liable relative prior to 106088
such date.106089

       Sec. 5121.30. As used in sections 5121.30 to 5121.56 of the 106090
Revised Code:106091

       (A) "Community mental health services client" or "client" 106092
means a person receiving state-operated community mental health 106093
services.106094

       (B) "Countable assets" means all of the following:106095

       (1) Cash;106096

       (2) Bank deposits;106097

       (3) Securities;106098

       (4) Individual retirement accounts;106099

       (5) Qualified employer plans, including 401(k) and Keogh 106100
plans;106101

       (6) Annuities;106102

       (7) Funds in a trust created under section 5815.28 of the 106103
Revised Code;106104

       (8) Investment property and income;106105

       (9) The cash surrender values of life insurance policies;106106

       (10) Assets acquired by gift, bequest, devise, or 106107
inheritance;106108

       (11) Any other asset determined by the department of mental 106109
healthmental health and addiction services to be equivalent to 106110
the assets enumerated in this division.106111

       (C)(B) "Federal poverty level" or "FPL" means the income 106112
level represented by the poverty guidelines as revised annually by 106113
the United States department of health and human services in 106114
accordance with section 673(2) of the "Omnibus Reconciliation Act 106115
of 1981," 95 Stat. 511, 42 U.S.C. 9902, as amended, for a family 106116
size equal to the size of the family of the person whose income is 106117
being determined.106118

       (D)(C) "Federal poverty guidelines" means the poverty 106119
guidelines as revised annually by the United States department of 106120
health and human services in accordance with section 673(2) of the 106121
"Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981," 95 Stat. 511, 42 106122
U.S.C. 9902, as amended, for a family size equal to the size of 106123
the family of the person whose income is being determined.106124

       (E)(D) "Hospital" means an institution, hospital, or other 106125
place established, controlled, or supervised by the department of 106126
mental healthmental health and addiction services under Chapter 106127
5119. of the Revised Code.106128

       (F)(E) "Liable relative" means all of the following:106129

       (1) A patient's spouse;106130

       (2) A patient's mother or father, or both, if the patient is 106131
under eighteen years of age;106132

       (3) A patient's guardian.106133

       (G)(F) "Patient" means a person admitted to a hospital for 106134
inpatient care or treatment, including a person transferred to a 106135
hospital from a state correctional institution or a person under 106136
indictment or conviction who has been transferred to a hospital.106137

       Sec. 5121.32.  On an annual basis, the department of mental 106138
healthmental health and addiction services shall determine both 106139
of the following using generally accepted governmental accounting 106140
principles:106141

       (A) The applicable per diem charge for each hospital operated 106142
by the department; 106143

       (B) The ancillary per diem rate for each hospital operated by 106144
the department.106145

       In determining a hospital's applicable per diem charge and 106146
ancillary per diem rate, the department shall consider the average 106147
actual per diem cost of maintaining and treating a patient at the 106148
hospital or, at the department's discretion, the average actual 106149
per diem cost of maintaining and treating a patient in a unit of 106150
the hospital.106151

       Sec. 5121.33.  Except as provided in sections 5121.35, 106152
5121.43, 5121.46, 5121.47, 5121.49, and 5121.52 of the Revised 106153
Code, the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 106154
services shall, for each billing cycle, charge a patient, 106155
patient's estate, or liable relative an amount equal to the sum of 106156
the following:106157

       (A) The applicable per diem charge multiplied by the number 106158
of days the patient was admitted to the hospital;106159

       (B) An amount that was previously billed but not paid.106160

       Sec. 5121.34.  (A) A patient, patient's estate, and patient's 106161
liable relatives shall be jointly and severally liable for amounts 106162
charged by the department of mental healthmental health and 106163
addiction services in accordance with section 5121.33 or 5121.35 106164
of the Revised Code. In no case shall any of the foregoing persons 106165
be liable for more than one hundred per cent of the full sum 106166
charged under section 5121.33 of the Revised Code.106167

       (B) Collections of support payments shall be made by the 106168
department and, subject to meeting prior requirements for payment 106169
and crediting of such collections and other available receipts, in 106170
accordance with the bond proceedings applicable to obligations 106171
issued pursuant to section 154.20 of the Revised Code. The 106172
collections and other available receipts designated by the 106173
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services for 106174
deposit in the special accounts, together with insurance contract 106175
payments provided for in section 5121.43 of the Revised Code, 106176
shall be remitted to the treasurer of state for deposit in the 106177
state treasury to the credit of the mental health operating fund, 106178
which is hereby created, to be used for the general purposes of 106179
the department. The department shall make refunds of overpayment 106180
of support charges from the mental health operating fund.106181

       Sec. 5121.35.  The department of mental healthmental health 106182
and addiction services shall charge a patient, patient's estate, 106183
or liable relative an amount discounted from the amount the 106184
department charges under section 5121.33 of the Revised Code if 106185
the department determines through the application process 106186
described in section 5121.36 of the Revised Code or through the 106187
financial assessment process described in section 5121.37 of the 106188
Revised Code that the patient, estate, or relative is eligible for 106189
a discount.106190

       Sec. 5121.36. (A) A patient, patient's estate, or liable 106191
relative may apply for a discount by completing an application 106192
form prescribed by the director of mental healthmental health and 106193
addiction services. The department of mental healthmental health 106194
and addiction services may require a patient, estate, or relative 106195
to furnish any of the following with an application form:106196

       (1) A copy of the patient's, estate's, or liable relative's 106197
federal income tax return for the year preceding the date of 106198
application or, if that is not yet available, the preceding year;106199

       (2) A copy of the patient's, estate's, or liable relative's 106200
employee tax withholding return (form W-2) for the year preceding 106201
the date of application;106202

       (3) Any other relevant documents prescribed by the director 106203
of mental healthmental health and addiction services.106204

       (B) To be considered, an application must be submitted to the 106205
department not later than ninety days after the date the patient 106206
is admitted to a hospital.106207

       (C) From the information provided by a patient, estate, or 106208
relative, the department shall determine whether the department 106209
will charge the person a discounted amount in accordance with 106210
sections 5121.40 and 5121.41 of the Revised Code. In making this 106211
determination, the department shall consider whether the patient 106212
is covered by an insurance policy or other contract that provides 106213
for payment of expenses and treatment for mental illness. If the 106214
department determines that the patient has coverage, the 106215
department shall require payment in accordance with section 106216
5121.43 of the Revised Code.106217

       (D) The department shall notify the patient, executor or 106218
administrator of the patient's estate, or liable relative who 106219
submitted the application form in writing regarding whether that 106220
person will be charged a discounted amount and the per diem rate 106221
to be charged.106222

       (E) In accordance with section 5121.42 of the Revised Code, 106223
the department may, at any time, modify an amount charged or 106224
change the per diem rate to be charged if the department learns of 106225
countable assets or income that was not previously disclosed or 106226
was acquired after the application form was submitted. Within a 106227
reasonable time, the department shall notify in writing any person 106228
affected by a modification or change.106229

       Sec. 5121.37. After a patient's admittance to a hospital, the 106230
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services106231
shall conduct a financial assessment to determine whether the 106232
patient, patient's estate, or liable relative will be charged an 106233
amount discounted from the amount the department charges under 106234
section 5121.33 of the Revised Code. The department shall make the 106235
determination in accordance with sections 5121.40 and 5121.41 of 106236
the Revised Code.106237

       If a discounted rate is to be charged, the department shall 106238
notify the person whose financial condition was assessed. The 106239
notice shall specify the per diem rate to be charged.106240

       In accordance with section 5121.42 of the Revised Code, the 106241
department may, at any time, modify an amount charged or change 106242
the per diem rate to be charged if the department learns of 106243
countable assets or income that was not previously disclosed or 106244
was acquired after the assessment was conducted. Within a 106245
reasonable time, the department shall notify in writing any person 106246
affected by a modification or change.106247

       Sec. 5121.38.  The department of mental healthmental health 106248
and addiction services may subpoena witnesses, take testimony 106249
under oath, and examine any public records relating to the income 106250
and other assets of a patient or of a relative liable for such 106251
patient's support. All information, conclusions, and 106252
recommendations shall be submitted to the department by the 106253
investigating agent of the department.106254

       Sec. 5121.40. (A) A patient, patient's estate, or liable 106255
relative may be eligible to be charged an amount discounted from 106256
the amount the department of mental healthmental health and 106257
addiction services charges under section 5121.33 of the Revised 106258
Code if the patient, estate, or relative has countable assets with 106259
a total value that is not greater than an amount equal to fifty 106260
per cent of the difference between the following:106261

        (1) The gross annual income that corresponds with a family 106262
size of two persons at one hundred per cent of the federal poverty 106263
level for the state;106264

        (2) The gross annual income that corresponds with a family 106265
size of one person at one hundred per cent of the federal poverty 106266
level for the state. For purposes of determining family size, the 106267
patient is one dependent. One additional dependent shall be 106268
included for each of the following circumstances and persons:106269

       (a) The patient or liable relative is legally blind or deaf.106270

       (b) The patient or liable relative is of sixty-five years of 106271
age or older.106272

       (c) Each child under eighteen years of age for which the 106273
patient or liable relative has legal custody;106274

       (d) The patient's or liable relative's spouse. 106275

       (B) A patient, estate, or relative may, not later than ninety 106276
days after the patient's admission to a hospital, surrender the 106277
value of countable assets sufficient to reduce countable assets to 106278
not more than the limit described in division (A) of this section.106279

       Sec. 5121.42. (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this 106280
section, a patient, patient's estate, or liable relative shall 106281
cease to be eligible for a discount under sectionssection 5121.36 106282
or 5121.37 of the Revised Code on accumulation of countable assets 106283
in excess of an amount equal to fifty per cent of the difference 106284
between the following:106285

        (1) The gross annual income that corresponds with a family 106286
size of two persons at one hundred per cent of the federal poverty 106287
level for the state;106288

        (2) The gross annual income that corresponds with a family 106289
size of one person at one hundred per cent of the federal poverty 106290
level for the state.106291

       (B) Money needed to meet the patient's needs and burial fund 106292
as determined by a needs assessment conducted by the department of 106293
mental healthmental health and addiction services pursuant to 106294
rules adopted under section 5119.015119.10 of the Revised Code 106295
shall be excluded from any determination the department makes 106296
under division (A) of this section.106297

       Sec. 5121.43. If a patient is covered by an insurance policy 106298
or other contract that provides for payment of expenses for care 106299
and treatment for mental illness at or from a hospital under the 106300
jurisdiction of the department of mental healthmental health and 106301
addiction services, sections 5121.33 to 5121.55 of the Revised 106302
Code are inapplicable to the extent that the policy or contract is 106303
in force. Any insurance carrier or other third party payor 106304
providing coverage for such care and treatment shall pay for the 106305
patient's support obligation in amounts equal to the lesser of 106306
amounts charged by the department under section 5121.33 of the 106307
Revised Code or the benefits provided under the policy or other 106308
contract. Whether or not an insured, owner of, or other person 106309
having an interest in such policy or other contract is liable for 106310
support payments, the insured, policy owner, or other person shall 106311
assign payment directly to the department of all assignable 106312
benefits under the policy or other contract and shall pay to the 106313
department, within ten days of receipt, all insurance or other 106314
benefits received as reimbursement or payment for expenses 106315
incurred by the patient or for any other reason. If the insured, 106316
policy owner, or other person refuses to assign payment to the 106317
department or refuses to pay received reimbursements or payments 106318
to the department within ten days of receipt, the total liability 106319
of the insured, policy owner, or other person for the services is 106320
an amount equal to the per diem charge for the hospital where the 106321
patient was admitted multiplied by the number of days the patient 106322
was admitted.106323

       In no event shall this total liability exceed the 106324
department's actual cost of providing care and treatment to a 106325
patient. The department may disqualify patients and liable 106326
relatives who have retained third party funds from future 106327
discounts. The department may request that the attorney general 106328
petition a court of competent jurisdiction to compel the insured, 106329
owner of, or other person having an interest in the policy or 106330
contract to comply with the assignment requirements in this 106331
section.106332

       Sec. 5121.44. The department of mental healthmental health 106333
and addiction services may enter into an extended payment 106334
agreement with a patient, patient's estate, or liable relative who 106335
has notified the department that the patient, estate, or relative 106336
cannot reasonably pay an amount the department has charged. In no 106337
case shall the department take a security interest, mortgage, or 106338
lien against the principal family residence of a patient or liable 106339
relative.106340

       Sec. 5121.45. (A) For purposes of this section, "delinquent 106341
payment" means an amount owed by a patient, patient's estate, or 106342
liable relative to the department of mental healthmental health 106343
and addiction services for which the person has failed to do 106344
either of the following not later than ninety days after the 106345
service associated with the charge was incurred:106346

       (1) Make payment in full;106347

       (2) Make a payment in accordance with the terms of an 106348
agreement entered into under section 5121.44 of the Revised Code.106349

       (B) An action to enforce the collection of a delinquent 106350
payment shall be commenced not later than six years after the 106351
later of the following:106352

       (1) The last date the department received money to satisfy 106353
the delinquent payment;106354

       (2) The date the charge was due.106355

       (C) In all actions to enforce the collection of delinquent 106356
payments, a court of record shall receive into evidence the proof 106357
of claim document made by the state together with all debts and 106358
credits. The proof of claim document shall be prima-facie evidence 106359
of the facts stated in the document.106360

       Sec. 5121.46. The department of mental healthmental health 106361
and addiction services shall not charge a liable relative under 106362
sections 5121.33 and 5121.35 of the Revised Code who has done 106363
either of the following:106364

       (A) Paid all amounts charged by the department for the care 106365
and treatment of a particular patient for fifteen consecutive 106366
years;106367

       (B) Paid amounts charged by the department for the care and 106368
treatment of more than one patient for a total of fifteen 106369
consecutive years.106370

       Sec. 5121.47. Irrespective of the number of patients for 106371
which the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 106372
services may charge a liable relative under sections 5121.33 or106373
and 5121.35 of the Revised Code, the department shall not charge a 106374
liable relative or group of liable relatives who are members of 106375
the same family unit for the support of more than one patient 106376
during the same period of time.106377

       Sec. 5121.49. (A) Any person who has been charged under 106378
section 5121.33 or 5121.35 of the Revised Code may petition the 106379
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services106380
to do the following:106381

       (1) Release the person from a charge;106382

       (2) Modify or cancel a charge.106383

       (B) The department shall respond to a petition in writing and 106384
inform the petitioner of whether a release, modification, or 106385
cancellation has been approved.106386

       Sec. 5121.50. When a patient is committed to a hospital 106387
pursuant to judicial proceedings, the judge ordering the 106388
commitment shall:106389

       (A) Make a reliable report on the financial condition of the 106390
patient and of each liable relative, as provided in rules adopted 106391
by the director of mental healthmental health and addiction 106392
services;106393

       (B) Certify the report required under division (A) of this 106394
section to the managing officer of the hospital. The managing 106395
officer shall thereupon enter in the managing officer's records 106396
the name and address of any guardian appointed and of any relative 106397
liable for the patient's support.106398

       Sec. 5121.51.  In case the estate of any patient in a 106399
hospital is sufficient for the patient's support and no guardian 106400
has been appointed for such estate, the agent of the department of 106401
mental healthmental health and addiction services shall petition 106402
the probate court of the proper county to appoint a guardian.106403

       Sec. 5121.52.  On the death of a person who is a patient, or 106404
has been a patient in a hospital, or on the death of a person 106405
responsible under section 5121.34 of the Revised Code for the 106406
support of a patient, the department of mental healthmental 106407
health and addiction services may waive the presentation of any 106408
claim for support against the estate of such decedent, when in its 106409
judgment an otherwise dependent person will be directly benefited 106410
by the estate. Claims against an estate for support of a patient 106411
are subject to section 5815.28 and Chapter 2117. of the Revised 106412
Code, and shall be treated, and may be barred, the same as the 106413
claims of other creditors of the estate, pursuant to that section 106414
or chapter.106415

       The department of mental healthmental health and addiction 106416
services may accept from a guardian or trustee of a patient a 106417
contract agreeing to pay to the state from the property of the 106418
guardian's or trustee's ward before or at the death of the ward a 106419
fixed annual amount for the support of the ward while the ward is 106420
a patient, with interest at four per cent per annum. A copy of the 106421
contract shall be filed in the probate court of the proper county 106422
and duly entered as a part of the records concerning the ward.106423

       Sec. 5121.55. The cost for support of a client of 106424
state-operated community mental health services is an amount 106425
determined using guidelines the department of mental healthmental 106426
health and addiction services shall issue. The guidelines shall be 106427
based on cost findings and rate-settings applicable to such 106428
services.106429

       Sec. 5122.01.  As used in this chapter and Chapter 5119. of 106430
the Revised Code:106431

       (A) "Mental illness" means a substantial disorder of thought, 106432
mood, perception, orientation, or memory that grossly impairs 106433
judgment, behavior, capacity to recognize reality, or ability to 106434
meet the ordinary demands of life.106435

       (B) "Mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 106436
order" means a mentally ill person who, because of the person's 106437
illness:106438

       (1) Represents a substantial risk of physical harm to self as 106439
manifested by evidence of threats of, or attempts at, suicide or 106440
serious self-inflicted bodily harm;106441

       (2) Represents a substantial risk of physical harm to others 106442
as manifested by evidence of recent homicidal or other violent 106443
behavior, evidence of recent threats that place another in 106444
reasonable fear of violent behavior and serious physical harm, or 106445
other evidence of present dangerousness;106446

       (3) Represents a substantial and immediate risk of serious 106447
physical impairment or injury to self as manifested by evidence 106448
that the person is unable to provide for and is not providing for 106449
the person's basic physical needs because of the person's mental 106450
illness and that appropriate provision for those needs cannot be 106451
made immediately available in the community; or106452

       (4) Would benefit from treatment in a hospital for the 106453
person's mental illness and is in need of such treatment as 106454
manifested by evidence of behavior that creates a grave and 106455
imminent risk to substantial rights of others or the person.106456

       (C)(1) "Patient" means, subject to division (C)(2) of this 106457
section, a person who is admitted either voluntarily or 106458
involuntarily to a hospital or other place under section 2945.39, 106459
2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code subsequent to a 106460
finding of not guilty by reason of insanity or incompetence to 106461
stand trial or under this chapter, who is under observation or 106462
receiving treatment in such place.106463

       (2) "Patient" does not include a person admitted to a 106464
hospital or other place under section 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, 106465
or 2945.402 of the Revised Code to the extent that the reference 106466
in this chapter to patient, or the context in which the reference 106467
occurs, is in conflict with any provision of sections 2945.37 to 106468
2945.402 of the Revised Code.106469

       (D) "Licensed physician" means a person licensed under the 106470
laws of this state to practice medicine or a medical officer of 106471
the government of the United States while in this state in the 106472
performance of the person's official duties.106473

       (E) "Psychiatrist" means a licensed physician who has 106474
satisfactorily completed a residency training program in 106475
psychiatry, as approved by the residency review committee of the 106476
American medical association, the committee on post-graduate 106477
education of the American osteopathic association, or the American 106478
osteopathic board of neurology and psychiatry, or who on July 1, 106479
1989, has been recognized as a psychiatrist by the Ohio state 106480
medical association or the Ohio osteopathic association on the 106481
basis of formal training and five or more years of medical 106482
practice limited to psychiatry.106483

       (F) "Hospital" means a hospital or inpatient unit licensed by 106484
the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 106485
services under section 5119.205119.33 of the Revised Code, and 106486
any institution, hospital, or other place established, controlled, 106487
or supervised by the department under Chapter 5119. of the Revised 106488
Code.106489

       (G) "Public hospital" means a facility that is tax-supported 106490
and under the jurisdiction of the department of mental health106491
mental health and addiction services.106492

       (H) "Community mental health agencyservices provider" means 106493
an agency, association, corporation, individual, or program that 106494
provides community mental health services that are certified by 106495
the director of mental healthmental health and addiction services106496
under section 5119.6115119.36 of the Revised Code.106497

       (I) "Licensed clinical psychologist" means a person who holds 106498
a current valid psychologist license issued under section 4732.12 106499
or 4732.15 of the Revised Code, and in addition, meets either of 106500
the following criteria:106501

       (1) Meets the educational requirements set forth in division 106502
(B) of section 4732.10 of the Revised Code and has a minimum of 106503
two years' full-time professional experience, or the equivalent as 106504
determined by rule of the state board of psychology, at least one 106505
year of which shall be a predoctoral internship, in clinical 106506
psychological work in a public or private hospital or clinic or in 106507
private practice, diagnosing and treating problems of mental 106508
illness or mental retardation under the supervision of a 106509
psychologist who is licensed or who holds a diploma issued by the 106510
American board of professional psychology, or whose qualifications 106511
are substantially similar to those required for licensure by the 106512
state board of psychology when the supervision has occurred prior 106513
to enactment of laws governing the practice of psychology;106514

       (2) Meets the educational requirements set forth in division 106515
(B) of section 4732.15 of the Revised Code and has a minimum of 106516
four years' full-time professional experience, or the equivalent 106517
as determined by rule of the state board of psychology, in 106518
clinical psychological work in a public or private hospital or 106519
clinic or in private practice, diagnosing and treating problems of 106520
mental illness or mental retardation under supervision, as set 106521
forth in division (I)(1) of this section.106522

       (J) "Health officer" means any public health physician; 106523
public health nurse; or other person authorized by or designated 106524
by a city health district; a general health district; or a board 106525
of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services to perform 106526
the duties of a health officer under this chapter.106527

       (K) "Chief clinical officer" means the medical director of a 106528
hospital, or a community mental health agencyservices provider, 106529
or a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, 106530
or, if there is no medical director, the licensed physician 106531
responsible for the treatment a hospital or community mental 106532
health agencyservices provider provides. The chief clinical 106533
officer may delegate to the attending physician responsible for a 106534
patient's care the duties imposed on the chief clinical officer by 106535
this chapter. Within a community mental health agencyservices 106536
provider, the chief clinical officer shall be designated by the 106537
governing body of the agencyservices provider and shall be a 106538
licensed physician or licensed clinical psychologist who 106539
supervises diagnostic and treatment services. A licensed physician 106540
or licensed clinical psychologist designated by the chief clinical 106541
officer may perform the duties and accept the responsibilities of 106542
the chief clinical officer in the chief clinical officer's 106543
absence.106544

       (L) "Working day" or "court day" means Monday, Tuesday, 106545
Wednesday, Thursday, and Friday, except when such day is a 106546
holiday.106547

       (M) "Indigent" means unable without deprivation of 106548
satisfaction of basic needs to provide for the payment of an 106549
attorney and other necessary expenses of legal representation, 106550
including expert testimony.106551

       (N) "Respondent" means the person whose detention, 106552
commitment, hospitalization, continued hospitalization or 106553
commitment, or discharge is being sought in any proceeding under 106554
this chapter.106555

       (O) "Ohio protection and advocacy system" has the same 106556
meaning as in section 5123.60 of the Revised Code.106557

       (P) "Independent expert evaluation" means an evaluation 106558
conducted by a licensed clinical psychologist, psychiatrist, or 106559
licensed physician who has been selected by the respondent or the 106560
respondent's counsel and who consents to conducting the 106561
evaluation.106562

       (Q) "Court" means the probate division of the court of common 106563
pleas.106564

       (R) "Expunge" means:106565

       (1) The removal and destruction of court files and records, 106566
originals and copies, and the deletion of all index references;106567

       (2) The reporting to the person of the nature and extent of 106568
any information about the person transmitted to any other person 106569
by the court;106570

       (3) Otherwise insuring that any examination of court files 106571
and records in question shall show no record whatever with respect 106572
to the person;106573

       (4) That all rights and privileges are restored, and that the 106574
person, the court, and any other person may properly reply that no 106575
such record exists, as to any matter expunged.106576

       (S) "Residence" means a person's physical presence in a 106577
county with intent to remain there, except that:106578

       (1) If a person is receiving a mental health service at a 106579
facility that includes nighttime sleeping accommodations, 106580
residence means that county in which the person maintained the 106581
person's primary place of residence at the time the person entered 106582
the facility;106583

       (2) If a person is committed pursuant to section 2945.38, 106584
2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code, 106585
residence means the county where the criminal charges were filed.106586

       When the residence of a person is disputed, the matter of 106587
residence shall be referred to the department of mental health106588
mental health and addiction services for investigation and 106589
determination. Residence shall not be a basis for a board's 106590
denying services to any person present in the board's service 106591
district, and the board shall provide services for a person whose 106592
residence is in dispute while residence is being determined and 106593
for a person in an emergency situation.106594

       (T) "Admission" to a hospital or other place means that a 106595
patient is accepted for and stays at least one night at the 106596
hospital or other place.106597

       (U) "Prosecutor" means the prosecuting attorney, village 106598
solicitor, city director of law, or similar chief legal officer 106599
who prosecuted a criminal case in which a person was found not 106600
guilty by reason of insanity, who would have had the authority to 106601
prosecute a criminal case against a person if the person had not 106602
been found incompetent to stand trial, or who prosecuted a case in 106603
which a person was found guilty.106604

       (V) "Treatment plan" means a written statement of reasonable 106605
objectives and goals for an individual established by the 106606
treatment team, with specific criteria to evaluate progress 106607
towards achieving those objectives. The active participation of 106608
the patient in establishing the objectives and goals shall be 106609
documented. The treatment plan shall be based on patient needs and 106610
include services to be provided to the patient while the patient 106611
is hospitalized and after the patient is discharged. The treatment 106612
plan shall address services to be provided upon discharge, 106613
including but not limited to housing, financial, and vocational 106614
services.106615

       (W) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 106616
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.106617

       (X) "Post-release control sanction" has the same meaning as 106618
in section 2967.01 of the Revised Code.106619

       Sec. 5122.03.  A patient admitted under section 5122.02 of 106620
the Revised Code who requests release in writing, or whose release 106621
is requested in writing by the patient's counsel, legal guardian, 106622
parent, spouse, or adult next of kin shall be released forthwith, 106623
except that when:106624

       (A) The patient was admitted on the patient's own application 106625
and the request for release is made by a person other than the 106626
patient, release may be conditional upon the agreement of the 106627
patient; or106628

       (B) The chief clinical officer of the hospital, within three 106629
court days from the receipt of the request for release, files or 106630
causes to be filed with the court of the county where the patient 106631
is hospitalized or of the county where the patient is a resident, 106632
an affidavit under section 5122.11 of the Revised Code. Release 106633
may be postponed until the hearing held under section 5122.141 of 106634
the Revised Code. A telephone communication within three court 106635
days from the receipt of the request for release from the chief 106636
clinical officer to the court, indicating that the required 106637
affidavit has been mailed, is sufficient compliance with the time 106638
limit for filing such affidavit.106639

       Unless the patient is released within three days from the 106640
receipt of the request by the chief clinical officer, the request 106641
shall serve as a request for an initial hearing under section 106642
5122.141 of the Revised Code. If the court finds that the patient 106643
is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 106644
order, all provisions of this chapter with respect to involuntary 106645
hospitalization apply to such person.106646

       Judicial proceedings for hospitalization shall not be 106647
commenced with respect to a voluntary patient except pursuant to 106648
this section.106649

       Sections 5121.30 to 5121.56 of the Revised Code apply to 106650
persons received in a hospital operated by the department of106651
mental healthmental health and addiction services on a voluntary 106652
application.106653

       The chief clinical officer of the hospital shall provide 106654
reasonable means and arrangements for informing patients of their 106655
rights to release as provided in this section and for assisting 106656
them in making and presenting requests for release or for a 106657
hearing under section 5122.141 of the Revised Code.106658

       Before a patient is released from a public hospital, the 106659
chief clinical officer shall, when possible, notify the board of 106660
the patient's county of residence of the patient's pending release 106661
after the chief clinical officer has informed the patient that the 106662
board will be so notified.106663

       Sec. 5122.10.  Any psychiatrist, licensed clinical 106664
psychologist, licensed physician, health officer, parole officer, 106665
police officer, or sheriff may take a person into custody, or the 106666
chief of the adult parole authority or a parole or probation 106667
officer with the approval of the chief of the authority may take a 106668
parolee, an offender under a community control sanction or a 106669
post-release control sanction, or an offender under transitional 106670
control into custody and may immediately transport the parolee, 106671
offender on community control or post-release control, or offender 106672
under transitional control to a hospital or, notwithstanding 106673
section 5119.205119.33 of the Revised Code, to a general hospital 106674
not licensed by the department of mental healthmental health and 106675
addiction services where the parolee, offender on community 106676
control or post-release control, or offender under transitional 106677
control may be held for the period prescribed in this section, if 106678
the psychiatrist, licensed clinical psychologist, licensed 106679
physician, health officer, parole officer, police officer, or 106680
sheriff has reason to believe that the person is a mentally ill 106681
person subject to hospitalization by court order under division 106682
(B) of section 5122.01 of the Revised Code, and represents a 106683
substantial risk of physical harm to self or others if allowed to 106684
remain at liberty pending examination.106685

       A written statement shall be given to such hospital by the 106686
transporting psychiatrist, licensed clinical psychologist, 106687
licensed physician, health officer, parole officer, police 106688
officer, chief of the adult parole authority, parole or probation 106689
officer, or sheriff stating the circumstances under which such 106690
person was taken into custody and the reasons for the 106691
psychiatrist's, licensed clinical psychologist's, licensed 106692
physician's, health officer's, parole officer's, police officer's, 106693
chief of the adult parole authority's, parole or probation 106694
officer's, or sheriff's belief. This statement shall be made 106695
available to the respondent or the respondent's attorney upon 106696
request of either.106697

       Every reasonable and appropriate effort shall be made to take 106698
persons into custody in the least conspicuous manner possible. A 106699
person taking the respondent into custody pursuant to this section 106700
shall explain to the respondent: the name,and professional 106701
designation, and agency affiliation of the person taking the 106702
respondent into custody; that the custody-taking is not a criminal 106703
arrest; and that the person is being taken for examination by 106704
mental health professionals at a specified mental health facility 106705
identified by name.106706

       If a person taken into custody under this section is 106707
transported to a general hospital, the general hospital may admit 106708
the person, or provide care and treatment for the person, or both, 106709
notwithstanding section 5119.205119.33 of the Revised Code, but 106710
by the end of twenty-four hours after arrival at the general 106711
hospital, the person shall be transferred to a hospital as defined 106712
in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.106713

       A person transported or transferred to a hospital or 106714
community mental health agencyservices provider under this 106715
section shall be examined by the staff of the hospital or agency106716
services provider within twenty-four hours after arrival at the 106717
hospital or agencyservices provider. If to conduct the 106718
examination requires that the person remain overnight, the 106719
hospital or agencyservices provider shall admit the person in an 106720
unclassified status until making a disposition under this section. 106721
After the examination, if the chief clinical officer of the 106722
hospital or agencyservices provider believes that the person is 106723
not a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 106724
order, the chief clinical officer shall release or discharge the 106725
person immediately unless a court has issued a temporary order of 106726
detention applicable to the person under section 5122.11 of the 106727
Revised Code. After the examination, if the chief clinical officer 106728
believes that the person is a mentally ill person subject to 106729
hospitalization by court order, the chief clinical officer may 106730
detain the person for not more than three court days following the 106731
day of the examination and during such period admit the person as 106732
a voluntary patient under section 5122.02 of the Revised Code or 106733
file an affidavit under section 5122.11 of the Revised Code. If 106734
neither action is taken and a court has not otherwise issued a 106735
temporary order of detention applicable to the person under 106736
section 5122.11 of the Revised Code, the chief clinical officer 106737
shall discharge the person at the end of the three-day period 106738
unless the person has been sentenced to the department of 106739
rehabilitation and correction and has not been released from the 106740
person's sentence, in which case the person shall be returned to 106741
that department.106742

       Sec. 5122.11.  Proceedings for the hospitalization of a 106743
person pursuant to sections 5122.11 to 5122.15 of the Revised Code 106744
shall be commenced by the filing of an affidavit in the manner and 106745
form prescribed by the department of mental healthmental health 106746
and addiction services, by any person or persons with the court, 106747
either on reliable information or actual knowledge, whichever is 106748
determined to be proper by the court. This section does not apply 106749
to the hospitalization of a person pursuant to section 2945.39, 106750
2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code.106751

       The affidavit shall contain an allegation setting forth the 106752
specific category or categories under division (B) of section 106753
5122.01 of the Revised Code upon which the jurisdiction of the 106754
court is based and a statement of alleged facts sufficient to 106755
indicate probable cause to believe that the person is a mentally 106756
ill person subject to hospitalization by court order. The 106757
affidavit may be accompanied, or the court may require that the 106758
affidavit be accompanied, by a certificate of a psychiatrist, or a 106759
certificate signed by a licensed clinical psychologist and a 106760
certificate signed by a licensed physician stating that the person 106761
who issued the certificate has examined the person and is of the 106762
opinion that the person is a mentally ill person subject to 106763
hospitalization by court order, or shall be accompanied by a 106764
written statement by the applicant, under oath, that the person 106765
has refused to submit to an examination by a psychiatrist, or by a 106766
licensed clinical psychologist and licensed physician.106767

       Upon receipt of the affidavit, if a judge of the court or a 106768
referee who is an attorney at law appointed by the court has 106769
probable cause to believe that the person named in the affidavit 106770
is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 106771
order, the judge or referee may issue a temporary order of 106772
detention ordering any health or police officer or sheriff to take 106773
into custody and transport the person to a hospital or other place 106774
designated in section 5122.17 of the Revised Code, or may set the 106775
matter for further hearing.106776

       The person may be observed and treated until the hearing 106777
provided for in section 5122.141 of the Revised Code. If no such 106778
hearing is held, the person may be observed and treated until the 106779
hearing provided for in section 5122.15 of the Revised Code.106780

       Sec. 5122.12.  After receipt of the affidavit required by 106781
section 5122.11 of the Revised Code, the court shall cause written 106782
notice by mail or otherwise of any hearing as the court directs to 106783
be given to the following persons:106784

       (A) The respondent;106785

       (B) The respondent's legal guardian, if any, the respondent's 106786
spouse, if any, and the respondent's parents, if the respondent is 106787
a minor, if these persons' addresses are known to the court or can 106788
be obtained through exercise of reasonable diligence;106789

       (C) The person who filed the affidavit;106790

       (D) Any one person designated by the respondent; but if the 106791
respondent does not make a selection, the notice shall be sent to 106792
the adult next of kin other than the person who filed the 106793
affidavit if that person's address is known to the court or can be 106794
obtained through exercise of reasonable diligence;106795

       (E) The respondent's counsel;106796

       (F) The director, chief clinical officer, or the respective 106797
designee of the hospital, board, agencycommunity mental health 106798
services provider, or facility to which the person has been 106799
committed;106800

       (G) The board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 106801
services serving the respondent's county of residence or an agency106802
a services provider the board designates.106803

       Any person entitled to notice under this section, with the 106804
exception of the respondent, may waive the notice.106805

       A copy of the affidavit and temporary order of detention 106806
shall be served with the notice to the parties and to respondent's 106807
counsel, if counsel has been appointed or retained.106808

       Sec. 5122.13.  Upon receipt of the affidavit required by 106809
section 5122.11 of the Revised Code, the court shall refer the 106810
affidavit to the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 106811
health services or an agencycommunity mental health services 106812
provider the board designates to assist the court in determining 106813
whether the respondent is subject to hospitalization and whether 106814
alternative services are available, unless the agencyservices 106815
provider or board has already performed such screening. The board 106816
or agencyservices provider shall review the allegations of the 106817
affidavit and other information relating to whether or not the 106818
person named in the affidavit or statement is a mentally ill 106819
person subject to hospitalization by court order, and the 106820
availability of appropriate treatment alternatives.106821

       The person who conducts the investigation shall promptly make 106822
a report to the court, in writing, in open court or in chambers, 106823
as directed by the court and a full record of the report shall be 106824
made by the court. The report is not admissible as evidence for 106825
the purpose of establishing whether or not the respondent is a 106826
mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court order, but 106827
shall be considered by the court in its determination of an 106828
appropriate placement for any person after that person is found to 106829
be a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization.106830

       The court, prior to the hearing under section 5122.141 of the 106831
Revised Code, shall release a copy of the investigative report to 106832
the respondent's counsel.106833

       Nothing in this section precludes a judge or referee from 106834
issuing a temporary order of detention pursuant to section 5122.11 106835
of the Revised Code.106836

       Sec. 5122.15.  (A) Full hearings shall be conducted in a 106837
manner consistent with this chapter and with due process of law. 106838
The hearings shall be conducted by a judge of the probate court or 106839
a referee designated by a judge of the probate court and may be 106840
conducted in or out of the county in which the respondent is held. 106841
Any referee designated under this division shall be an attorney.106842

       (1) With the consent of the respondent, the following shall 106843
be made available to counsel for the respondent:106844

       (a) All relevant documents, information, and evidence in the 106845
custody or control of the state or prosecutor;106846

       (b) All relevant documents, information, and evidence in the 106847
custody or control of the hospital in which the respondent 106848
currently is held, or in which the respondent has been held 106849
pursuant to this chapter;106850

       (c) All relevant documents, information, and evidence in the 106851
custody or control of any hospital, facility, or person not 106852
included in division (A)(1)(a) or (b) of this section.106853

       (2) The respondent has the right to attend the hearing and to 106854
be represented by counsel of the respondent's choice. The right to 106855
attend the hearing may be waived only by the respondent or counsel 106856
for the respondent after consultation with the respondent.106857

       (3) If the respondent is not represented by counsel, is 106858
absent from the hearing, and has not validly waived the right to 106859
counsel, the court shall appoint counsel immediately to represent 106860
the respondent at the hearing, reserving the right to tax costs of 106861
appointed counsel to the respondent, unless it is shown that the 106862
respondent is indigent. If the court appoints counsel, or if the 106863
court determines that the evidence relevant to the respondent's 106864
absence does not justify the absence, the court shall continue the 106865
case.106866

       (4) The respondent shall be informed that the respondent may 106867
retain counsel and have independent expert evaluation. If the 106868
respondent is unable to obtain an attorney, the respondent shall 106869
be represented by court-appointed counsel. If the respondent is 106870
indigent, court-appointed counsel and independent expert 106871
evaluation shall be provided as an expense under section 5122.43 106872
of the Revised Code.106873

       (5) The hearing shall be closed to the public, unless counsel 106874
for the respondent, with the permission of the respondent, 106875
requests that the hearing be open to the public.106876

       (6) If the hearing is closed to the public, the court, for 106877
good cause shown, may admit persons who have a legitimate interest 106878
in the proceedings. If the respondent, the respondent's counsel, 106879
or the designee of the director or of the chief clinical officer 106880
objects to the admission of any person, the court shall hear the 106881
objection and any opposing argument and shall rule upon the 106882
admission of the person to the hearing.106883

       (7) The affiant under section 5122.11 of the Revised Code 106884
shall be subject to subpoena by either party.106885

       (8) The court shall examine the sufficiency of all documents 106886
filed and shall inform the respondent, if present, and the 106887
respondent's counsel of the nature and content of the documents 106888
and the reason for which the respondent is being detained, or for 106889
which the respondent's placement is being sought.106890

       (9) The court shall receive only reliable, competent, and 106891
material evidence.106892

       (10) Unless proceedings are initiated pursuant to section 106893
5120.17 or 5139.08 of the Revised Code or proceedings are 106894
initiated regarding a resident of the service district of a board 106895
of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services that elects 106896
under division (C)(2) of section 5119.62 of the Revised Code not 106897
to accept the amount allocated to it under that section, an 106898
attorney that the board designates shall present the case 106899
demonstrating that the respondent is a mentally ill person subject 106900
to hospitalization by court order. The attorney shall offer 106901
evidence of the diagnosis, prognosis, record of treatment, if any, 106902
and less restrictive treatment plans, if any. In proceedings 106903
pursuant to section 5120.17 or 5139.08 of the Revised Code and in 106904
proceedings in which the respondent is a resident of a service 106905
district of a board that elects under division (C)(2) of section 106906
5119.62 of the Revised Code not to accept the amount allocated to 106907
it under that section, the attorney general shall designate an 106908
attorney who shall present the case demonstrating that the 106909
respondent is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by 106910
court order. The attorney shall offer evidence of the diagnosis, 106911
prognosis, record of treatment, if any, and less restrictive 106912
treatment plans, if any.106913

       (11) The respondent or the respondent's counsel has the right 106914
to subpoena witnesses and documents and to examine and 106915
cross-examine witnesses.106916

       (12) The respondent has the right, but shall not be 106917
compelled, to testify, and shall be so advised by the court.106918

       (13) On motion of the respondent or the respondent's counsel 106919
for good cause shown, or on the court's own motion, the court may 106920
order a continuance of the hearing.106921

       (14) If the respondent is represented by counsel and the 106922
respondent's counsel requests a transcript and record, or if the 106923
respondent is not represented by counsel, the court shall make and 106924
maintain a full transcript and record of the proceeding. If the 106925
respondent is indigent and the transcript and record is made, a 106926
copy shall be provided to the respondent upon request and be 106927
treated as an expense under section 5122.43 of the Revised Code.106928

       (15) To the extent not inconsistent with this chapter, the 106929
Rules of Civil Procedure are applicable.106930

       (B) Unless, upon completion of the hearing the court finds by 106931
clear and convincing evidence that the respondent is a mentally 106932
ill person subject to hospitalization by court order, it shall 106933
order the respondent's discharge immediately.106934

       (C) If, upon completion of the hearing, the court finds by 106935
clear and convincing evidence that the respondent is a mentally 106936
ill person subject to hospitalization by court order, the court 106937
shall order the respondent for a period not to exceed ninety days 106938
to any of the following:106939

       (1) A hospital operated by the department of mental health106940
mental health and addiction services if the respondent is 106941
committed pursuant to section 5139.08 of the Revised Code;106942

       (2) A nonpublic hospital;106943

       (3) The veterans' administration or other agency of the 106944
United States government;106945

       (4) A board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 106946
services or agencyservices provider the board designates;106947

       (5) Receive private psychiatric or psychological care and 106948
treatment;106949

       (6) Any other suitable facility or person consistent with the 106950
diagnosis, prognosis, and treatment needs of the respondent.106951

       (D) Any order made pursuant to division (C)(2), (3), (5), or 106952
(6) of this section shall be conditioned upon the receipt by the 106953
court of consent by the hospital, facility, agency, or person to 106954
accept the respondent.106955

       (E) In determining the place to which, or the person with 106956
whom, the respondent is to be committed, the court shall consider 106957
the diagnosis, prognosis, preferences of the respondent and the 106958
projected treatment plan for the respondent and shall order the 106959
implementation of the least restrictive alternative available and 106960
consistent with treatment goals. If the court determines that the 106961
least restrictive alternative available that is consistent with 106962
treatment goals is inpatient hospitalization, the court's order 106963
shall so state.106964

       (F) During such ninety-day period the hospital; facility; 106965
board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services; 106966
agencyservices provider the board designates; or person shall 106967
examine and treat the individual. If, at any time prior to the 106968
expiration of the ninety-day period, it is determined by the 106969
hospital, facility, board, agencyservices provider, or person 106970
that the respondent's treatment needs could be equally well met in 106971
an available and appropriate less restrictive environment, both of 106972
the following apply:106973

       (1) The respondent shall be released from the care of the 106974
hospital, agencyservices provider, facility, or person 106975
immediately and shall be referred to the court together with a 106976
report of the findings and recommendations of the hospital, agency106977
services provider, facility, or person; and106978

       (2) The hospital, agencyservices provider, facility, or 106979
person shall notify the respondent's counsel or the attorney 106980
designated by a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 106981
health services or, if the respondent was committed to a board or 106982
an agencya services provider designated by the board, it shall 106983
place the respondent in the least restrictive environment 106984
available consistent with treatment goals and notify the court and 106985
the respondent's counsel of the placement.106986

       The court shall dismiss the case or order placement in the 106987
least restrictive environment.106988

       (G)(1) Except as provided in divisions (G)(2) and (3) of this 106989
section, any person who has been committed under this section, or 106990
for whom proceedings for hospitalization have been commenced 106991
pursuant to section 5122.11 of the Revised Code, may apply at any 106992
time for voluntary admission to the hospital, facility, agencyor 106993
services provider that the board designates, or person to which 106994
the person was committed. Upon admission as a voluntary patient 106995
the chief clinical officer of the hospital, agencyservices 106996
provider, or other facility, or the person immediately shall 106997
notify the court, the patient's counsel, and the attorney 106998
designated by the board, if the attorney has entered the 106999
proceedings, in writing of that fact, and, upon receipt of the 107000
notice, the court shall dismiss the case. 107001

       (2) A person who is found incompetent to stand trial or not 107002
guilty by reason of insanity and who is committed pursuant to 107003
section 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised 107004
Code shall not voluntarily commit the person pursuant to this 107005
section until after the final termination of the commitment, as 107006
described in division (J) of section 2945.401 of the Revised Code.107007

       (H) If, at the end of the first ninety-day period or any 107008
subsequent period of continued commitment, there has been no 107009
disposition of the case, either by discharge or voluntary 107010
admission, the hospital, facility, board, agencyservices 107011
provider, or person shall discharge the patient immediately, 107012
unless at least ten days before the expiration of the period the 107013
attorney the board designates or the prosecutor files with the 107014
court an application for continued commitment. The application of 107015
the attorney or the prosecutor shall include a written report 107016
containing the diagnosis, prognosis, past treatment, a list of 107017
alternative treatment settings and plans, and identification of 107018
the treatment setting that is the least restrictive consistent 107019
with treatment needs. The attorney the board designates or the 107020
prosecutor shall file the written report at least three days prior 107021
to the full hearing. A copy of the application and written report 107022
shall be provided to the respondent's counsel immediately.107023

       The court shall hold a full hearing on applications for 107024
continued commitment at the expiration of the first ninety-day 107025
period and at least every two years after the expiration of the 107026
first ninety-day period.107027

       Hearings following any application for continued commitment 107028
are mandatory and may not be waived.107029

       Upon request of a person who is involuntarily committed under 107030
this section, or the person's counsel, that is made more than one 107031
hundred eighty days after the person's last full hearing, 107032
mandatory or requested, the court shall hold a full hearing on the 107033
person's continued commitment. Upon the application of a person 107034
involuntarily committed under this section, supported by an 107035
affidavit of a psychiatrist or licensed clinical psychologist, 107036
alleging that the person no longer is a mentally ill person 107037
subject to hospitalization by court order, the court for good 107038
cause shown may hold a full hearing on the person's continued 107039
commitment prior to the expiration of one hundred eighty days 107040
after the person's last full hearing. Section 5122.12 of the 107041
Revised Code applies to all hearings on continued commitment.107042

       If the court, after a hearing for continued commitment finds 107043
by clear and convincing evidence that the respondent is a mentally 107044
ill person subject to hospitalization by court order, the court 107045
may order continued commitment at places specified in division (C) 107046
of this section.107047

       (I) Unless the admission is pursuant to section 5120.17 or 107048
5139.08 of the Revised Code, the chief clinical officer of the 107049
hospital or agencyservices provider admitting a respondent 107050
pursuant to a judicial proceeding, within ten working days of the 107051
admission, shall make a report of the admission to the board of 107052
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services serving the 107053
respondent's county of residence.107054

       (J) A referee appointed by the court may make all orders that 107055
a judge may make under this section and sections 5122.11 and 107056
5122.141 of the Revised Code, except an order of contempt of 107057
court. The orders of a referee take effect immediately. Within 107058
fourteen days of the making of an order by a referee, a party may 107059
file written objections to the order with the court. The filed 107060
objections shall be considered a motion, shall be specific, and 107061
shall state their grounds with particularity. Within ten days of 107062
the filing of the objections, a judge of the court shall hold a 107063
hearing on the objections and may hear and consider any testimony 107064
or other evidence relating to the respondent's mental condition. 107065
At the conclusion of the hearing, the judge may ratify, rescind, 107066
or modify the referee's order.107067

       (K) An order of the court under division (C), (H), or (J) of 107068
this section is a final order.107069

       (L) Before a board, or an agencya services provider the 107070
board designates, may place an unconsenting respondent in an 107071
inpatient setting from a less restrictive placement, the board or 107072
agencyservices provider shall do all of the following:107073

       (1) Determine that the respondent is in immediate need of 107074
treatment in an inpatient setting because the respondent 107075
represents a substantial risk of physical harm to the respondent 107076
or others if allowed to remain in a less restrictive setting;107077

       (2) On the day of placement in the inpatient setting or on 107078
the next court day, file with the court a motion for transfer to 107079
an inpatient setting or communicate to the court by telephone that 107080
the required motion has been mailed;107081

       (3) Ensure that every reasonable and appropriate effort is 107082
made to take the respondent to the inpatient setting in the least 107083
conspicuous manner possible;107084

       (4) Immediately notify the board's designated attorney and 107085
the respondent's attorney.107086

       At the respondent's request, the court shall hold a hearing 107087
on the motion and make a determination pursuant to division (E) of 107088
this section within five days of the placement.107089

       (M) Before a board, or an agencya services provider the 107090
board designates, may move a respondent from one residential 107091
placement to another, the board or agencyservices provider shall 107092
consult with the respondent about the placement. If the respondent 107093
objects to the placement, the proposed placement and the need for 107094
it shall be reviewed by a qualified mental health professional who 107095
otherwise is not involved in the treatment of the respondent.107096

       Sec. 5122.17.  Pending his removal to a hospital, a person 107097
taken into custody or ordered to be hospitalized pursuant to this 107098
chapter may be detained for not more than forty-eight hours in a 107099
licensed rest or nursing home, a licensed or unlicensed hospital, 107100
a community mental health agencyservices provider, or a county 107101
home, but hethe person shall not be detained in a nonmedical 107102
facility used for detention of persons charged with or convicted 107103
of penal offenses unless the court finds that a less restrictive 107104
alternative cannot be made available.107105

       Sec. 5122.18.  Whenever a person has been involuntarily 107106
detained at or admitted to a hospital, community mental health 107107
agencyservices provider, or other facility at the request of 107108
anyone other than the person's legal guardian, spouse, or next of 107109
kin under this chapter, the chief clinical officer of the 107110
hospital, agencyservices provider, or other facility in which the 107111
person is temporarily detained under section 5122.17 of the 107112
Revised Code shall immediately notify the person's legal guardian, 107113
spouse or next of kin, and counsel, if these persons can be 107114
ascertained through exercise of reasonable diligence. If a person 107115
voluntarily remains at or is admitted to a hospital, agency107116
services provider, or other facility, such notification shall not 107117
be given without histhe person's consent. The chief clinical 107118
officer of the hospital, agencyservices provider, or other 107119
facility shall inform a person voluntarily remaining at or 107120
admitted to a hospital, agencyservices provider, or other 107121
facility that hethe person may authorize such notification.107122

       Sec. 5122.19.  Every person transported to a hospital or 107123
community mental health agencyservices provider pursuant to 107124
sections 5122.11 to 5122.16 of the Revised Code, shall be examined 107125
by the staff of the hospital or agencyservices provider as soon 107126
as practicable after his arrival at the hospital or agency107127
services provider. Such an examination shall be held within 107128
twenty-four hours after the time of arrival, and if the chief 107129
clinical officer fails after such an examination to certify that 107130
in histhe chief clinical officer's opinion the person is a 107131
mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court order, the 107132
person shall be immediately released.107133

       Sec. 5122.20.  The director of mental healthmental health 107134
and addiction services or the director's designee may transfer, or 107135
authorize the transfer of, an involuntary patient, or a consenting 107136
voluntary patient hospitalized pursuant to section 5122.02 or 107137
sections 5122.11 to 5122.15 of the Revised Code, from one public 107138
hospital to another, or to a hospital, community mental health 107139
agencyservices provider, or other facility offering treatment or 107140
other services for mental illness, if the medical director of the 107141
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services107142
determines that it would be consistent with the medical needs of 107143
the patient to do so. If such a transfer is made to a private 107144
facility, the transfer shall be conditioned upon the consent of 107145
the facility.107146

       Before an involuntary patient may be transferred to a more 107147
restrictive setting, the chief clinical officer shall file a 107148
motion with the court requesting the court to amend its order of 107149
placement issued under section 5122.15 of the Revised Code. At the 107150
patient's request, the court shall hold a hearing on the motion at 107151
which the patient has the same rights as at a full hearing under 107152
section 5122.15 of the Revised Code. The hearing shall be held 107153
within ten days after the date on which the respondent was 107154
transferred to the more restrictive setting or on which the motion 107155
was filed, whichever is earlier. On the motion of the respondent, 107156
the respondent's counsel, or the chief clinical officer, or on its 107157
own motion, and for good cause shown, the court may order a 107158
continuance of the hearing for up to ten days.107159

       Whenever an involuntary patient is transferred, written 107160
notice of the transfer shall be given to the patient's legal 107161
guardian, parents, spouse, and counsel, or, if none is known, to 107162
the patient's nearest known relative or friend. If the patient is 107163
a minor, the department, before making such a transfer, shall make 107164
a minute of the order for the transfer and the reason for it upon 107165
its record and shall send a certified copy at least seven days 107166
prior to the transfer to the person shown by its record to have 107167
had the care or custody of the minor immediately prior to the 107168
minor's commitment. Whenever a consenting voluntary patient is 107169
transferred, the notification shall be given only at the patient's 107170
request. The chief clinical officer shall advise a voluntary 107171
patient who is being transferred that the patient may decide if 107172
the notification shall be given. In all such transfers, due 107173
consideration shall be given to the wishes of the patient, and the 107174
relationship of the patient to the patient's family, legal 107175
guardian, or friends, so as to maintain the relationship and 107176
encourage visits beneficial to the patient.107177

       When a voluntary patient whose medical or psychological needs 107178
are found by the chief clinical officer to warrant a transfer 107179
refuses to be transferred to an alternate facility, the chief 107180
clinical officer may file an affidavit for a hearing under section 107181
5122.11 of the Revised Code.107182

       Sec. 5122.21.  (A) The chief clinical officer shall as 107183
frequently as practicable, and at least once every thirty days, 107184
examine or cause to be examined every patient, and, whenever the 107185
chief clinical officer determines that the conditions justifying 107186
involuntary hospitalization or commitment no longer obtain, shall 107187
discharge the patient not under indictment or conviction for crime 107188
and immediately make a report of the discharge to the department 107189
of mental healthmental health and addiction services. The chief 107190
clinical officer may discharge a patient who is under an 107191
indictment, a sentence of imprisonment, a community control 107192
sanction, or a post-release control sanction or on parole ten days 107193
after written notice of intent to discharge the patient has been 107194
given by personal service or certified mail, return receipt 107195
requested, to the court having criminal jurisdiction over the 107196
patient. Except when the patient was found not guilty by reason of 107197
insanity and the defendant's commitment is pursuant to section 107198
2945.40 of the Revised Code, the chief clinical officer has final 107199
authority to discharge a patient who is under an indictment, a 107200
sentence of imprisonment, a community control sanction, or a 107201
post-release control sanction or on parole.107202

       (B) After a finding pursuant to section 5122.15 of the 107203
Revised Code that a person is a mentally ill person subject to 107204
hospitalization by court order, the chief clinical officer of the 107205
hospital or agencycommunity mental health services provider to 107206
which the person is ordered or to which the person is transferred 107207
under section 5122.20 of the Revised Code, may grant a discharge 107208
without the consent or authorization of any court.107209

       Upon discharge, the chief clinical officer shall notify the 107210
court that caused the judicial hospitalization of the discharge 107211
from the hospital.107212

       Sec. 5122.23.  The chief clinical officer of a public 107213
hospital shall immediately report to the department of mental 107214
healthmental health and addiction services and the board of 107215
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services serving the 107216
patient's county of residence the removal, death, escape, 107217
discharge, or trial visit of any patient hospitalized under 107218
section 5122.15 of the Revised Code, or the return of such an 107219
escaped or visiting patient to the department, the probate judge 107220
of the county from which such patient was hospitalized, and the 107221
probate judge of the county of residence of such patient. In case 107222
of death, the chief clinical officer also shall notify one or more 107223
of the nearest relatives of the deceased patient, if known to him107224
the chief clinical officer, by letter, telegram, or telephone. If 107225
the place of residence of such relative is unknown to the chief 107226
clinical officer, immediately upon receiving notification the 107227
probate judge shall in the speediest manner possible notify such 107228
relatives, if known to himthe probate judge.107229

       The chief clinical officer of a public hospital, upon the 107230
request of the probate judge of the county from which a patient 107231
was hospitalized or the probate judge of the county of residence 107232
of such a patient, shall make a report to the judge of the 107233
condition of any patient under the care, treatment, custody, or 107234
control of the chief clinical officer.107235

       Sec. 5122.25.  Upon the request of a hospital, person, board,107236
agencycommunity mental health services provider, or facility who 107237
has custody of a patient hospitalized pursuant to section 5122.15 107238
of the Revised Code, or on the order of the court, such patient 107239
may be called for a rehearing at such place within the county of 107240
histhe patient's residence or the county where such patient is 107241
hospitalized as the court designates. The hearing shall be 107242
conducted pursuant to section 5122.15 of the Revised Code.107243

       Sec. 5122.26.  (A) If a patient is absent without leave, on a 107244
verbal or written order issued within five days of the time of the 107245
unauthorized absence by the department of mental healthmental 107246
health and addiction services, the chief clinical officer of the 107247
hospital from which the patient is absent without leave, or the 107248
court of either the county from which the patient was committed or 107249
in which the patient is found, any health or police officer or 107250
sheriff may take the patient into custody and transport the 107251
patient to the hospital in which the patient was hospitalized or 107252
to a place that is designated in the order. The officer 107253
immediately shall report such fact to the agencyentity that 107254
issued the order.107255

       The chief clinical officer of a hospital may discharge a 107256
patient who is under an indictment, a sentence of imprisonment, a 107257
community control sanction, or a post-release control sanction or 107258
on parole and who has been absent without leave for more than 107259
thirty days but shall give written notice of the discharge to the 107260
court with criminal jurisdiction over the patient. The chief 107261
clinical officer of a hospital may discharge any other patient who 107262
has been absent without leave for more than fourteen days.107263

       The chief clinical officer shall take all proper measures for 107264
the apprehension of an escaped patient. The expense of the return 107265
of an escaped patient shall be borne by the hospital where the 107266
patient is hospitalized.107267

       (B)(1) Subject to division (B)(2) of this section, no patient 107268
hospitalized under Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code whose absence 107269
without leave was caused or contributed to by the patient's mental 107270
illness shall be subject to a charge of escape.107271

       (2) Division (B)(1) of this section does not apply to any 107272
person who was hospitalized, institutionalized, or confined in a 107273
facility under an order made pursuant to or under authority of 107274
section 2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 107275
2945.402 of the Revised Code and who escapes from the facility, 107276
from confinement in a vehicle for transportation to or from the 107277
facility, or from supervision by an employee of the facility that 107278
is incidental to hospitalization, institutionalization, or 107279
confinement in the facility and that occurs outside the facility, 107280
in violation of section 2921.34 of the Revised Code.107281

       Sec. 5122.27.  The chief clinical officer of the hospital or 107282
the chief clinical officer's designee shall assure that all 107283
patients hospitalized or committed pursuant to this chapter shall:107284

       (A) Receive, within twenty days of their admission sufficient 107285
professional care to assure that an evaluation of current status, 107286
differential diagnosis, probable prognosis, and description of the 107287
current treatment plan is stated on the official chart;107288

       (B) Have a written treatment plan consistent with the 107289
evaluation, diagnosis, prognosis, and goals which shall be 107290
provided, upon request of the patient or patient's counsel, to the 107291
patient's counsel and to any private physician or licensed 107292
clinical psychologist designated by the patient or the patient's 107293
counsel or to the Ohio protection and advocacy system;107294

       (C) Receive treatment consistent with the treatment plan. The 107295
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services107296
shall set standards for treatment provided to such patients, 107297
consistent wherever possible with standards set by the joint 107298
commission on accreditation of healthcare organizations.107299

       (D) Receive periodic reevaluations of the treatment plan by 107300
the professional staff at intervals not to exceed ninety days;107301

       (E) Be provided with adequate medical treatment for physical 107302
disease or injury;107303

       (F) Receive humane care and treatment, including without 107304
limitation, the following:107305

       (1) The least restrictive environment consistent with the 107306
treatment plan;107307

       (2) The necessary facilities and personnel required by the 107308
treatment plan;107309

       (3) A humane psychological and physical environment;107310

       (4) The right to obtain current information concerning the 107311
patient's treatment program and expectations in terms that the 107312
patient can reasonably understand;107313

       (5) Participation in programs designed to afford the patient 107314
substantial opportunity to acquire skills to facilitate return to 107315
the community or to terminate an involuntary commitment;107316

       (6) The right to be free from unnecessary or excessive 107317
medication;107318

       (7) Freedom from restraints or isolation unless it is stated 107319
in a written order by the chief clinical officer or the chief 107320
clinical officer's designee, or the patient's individual physician 107321
or psychologist in a private or general hospital.107322

       If the chief clinical officer of the hospital is unable to 107323
provide the treatment required by divisions (C), (E), and (F) of 107324
this section for any patient hospitalized pursuant to Chapter 107325
5122. of the Revised Code, the chief clinical officer shall 107326
immediately notify the patient, the court, the Ohio protection and 107327
advocacy system, the director of mental healthmental health and 107328
addiction services, and the patient's counsel and legal guardian, 107329
if known. If within ten days after receipt of such notification by 107330
the director, the director is unable to effect a transfer of the 107331
patient, pursuant to section 5122.20 of the Revised Code, to a 107332
hospital, community mental health agencyservices provider, or 107333
other medical facility where treatment is available, or has not 107334
received an order of the court to the contrary, the involuntary 107335
commitment of any patient hospitalized pursuant to Chapter 5122. 107336
of the Revised Code and defined as a mentally ill person subject 107337
to hospitalization by court order under division (B)(4) of section 107338
5122.01 of the Revised Code shall automatically be terminated.107339

       Sec. 5122.271.  (A) Except as provided in divisions (C), (D), 107340
and (E) of this section, the chief clinical officer or, in a 107341
nonpublic hospital, the attending physician responsible for a 107342
patient's care shall provide all information, including expected 107343
physical and medical consequences, necessary to enable any patient 107344
of a hospital for the mentally ill to give a fully informed, 107345
intelligent, and knowing consent, the opportunity to consult with 107346
independent specialists and counsel, and the right to refuse 107347
consent for any of the following:107348

       (1) Surgery;107349

       (2) Convulsive therapy;107350

       (3) Major aversive interventions;107351

       (4) Sterilizations;107352

       (5) Any unusually hazardous treatment procedures;107353

       (6) Psycho-surgery.107354

       (B) No patient shall be subjected to any of the procedures 107355
listed in divisions (A)(4) to (6) of this section until both the 107356
patient's informed, intelligent, and knowing consent and the 107357
approval of the court have been obtained, except that court 107358
approval is not required for a legally competent and voluntary 107359
patient in a nonpublic hospital.107360

       (C) If, after providing the information required under 107361
division (A) of this section to the patient, the chief clinical 107362
officer or attending physician concludes that a patient is 107363
physically or mentally unable to receive the information required 107364
for surgery under division (A)(1) of this section, or has been 107365
adjudicated incompetent, the information may be provided to the 107366
patient's natural or court-appointed guardian, who may give an 107367
informed, intelligent, and knowing written consent.107368

       If a patient is physically or mentally unable to receive the 107369
information required for surgery under division (A)(1) of this 107370
section and has no guardian, the information, the recommendation 107371
of the chief clinical officer, and the concurring judgment of a 107372
licensed physician who is not a full-time employee of the state 107373
may be provided to the court in the county in which the hospital 107374
is located, which may approve the surgery. Before approving the 107375
surgery, the court shall notify the Ohio protection and advocacy 107376
system created by section 5123.60 of the Revised Code, and shall 107377
notify the patient of the rights to consult with counsel, to have 107378
counsel appointed by the court if the patient is indigent, and to 107379
contest the recommendation of the chief clinical officer.107380

       (D) If, in a medical emergency, and after providing the 107381
information required under division (A) of this section to the 107382
patient, it is the judgment of one licensed physician that delay 107383
in obtaining surgery would create a grave danger to the health of 107384
the patient, it may be administered without the consent of the 107385
patient or the patient's guardian if the necessary information is 107386
provided to the patient's spouse or next of kin to enable that 107387
person to give informed, intelligent, and knowing written consent. 107388
If no spouse or next of kin can reasonably be contacted, or if the 107389
spouse or next of kin is contacted, but refuses to consent, the 107390
surgery may be performed upon the written authorization of the 107391
chief clinical officer or, in a nonpublic hospital, upon the 107392
written authorization of the attending physician responsible for 107393
the patient's care, and after the approval of the court has been 107394
obtained. However, if delay in obtaining court approval would 107395
create a grave danger to the life of the patient, the chief 107396
clinical officer or, in a nonpublic hospital, the attending 107397
physician responsible for the patient's care may authorize 107398
surgery, in writing, without court approval. If the surgery is 107399
authorized without court approval, the chief clinical officer or 107400
the attending physician who made the authorization and the 107401
physician who performed the surgery shall each execute an 107402
affidavit describing the circumstances constituting the emergency 107403
and warranting the surgery and the circumstances warranting their 107404
not obtaining prior court approval. The affidavit shall be filed 107405
with the court with which the request for prior approval would 107406
have been filed within five court days after the surgery, and a 107407
copy of the affidavit shall be placed in the patient's file and be 107408
given to the guardian, spouse, or next of kin of the patient, to 107409
the hospital at which the surgery was performed, and to the Ohio 107410
protection and advocacy system as defined in section 5123.60 of 107411
the Revised Code.107412

       (E) Major aversive interventions shall not be used unless a 107413
patient continues to engage in behavior destructive to self or 107414
others after other forms of therapy have been attempted. Major 107415
aversive interventions may be applied if approved by the director 107416
of mental healthmental health and addiction services. Major 107417
aversive interventions shall not be applied to a voluntary patient 107418
without the informed, intelligent, and knowing written consent of 107419
the patient or the patient's guardian.107420

       (F) Unless there is substantial risk of physical harm to self 107421
or others, or other than under division (D) of this section, this 107422
chapter does not authorize any form of compulsory medical, 107423
psychological, or psychiatric treatment of any patient who is 107424
being treated by spiritual means through prayer alone in 107425
accordance with a recognized religious method of healing without 107426
specific court authorization.107427

       (G) For purposes of this section, "convulsive therapy" does 107428
not include defibrillation.107429

       Sec. 5122.31.  (A) All certificates, applications, records, 107430
and reports made for the purpose of this chapter and sections 107431
2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, and 2945.402 of the Revised 107432
Code, other than court journal entries or court docket entries, 107433
and directly or indirectly identifying a patient or former patient 107434
or person whose hospitalization has been sought under this 107435
chapter, shall be kept confidential and shall not be disclosed by 107436
any person except:107437

       (1) If the person identified, or the person's legal guardian, 107438
if any, or if the person is a minor, the person's parent or legal 107439
guardian, consents, and if the disclosure is in the best interests 107440
of the person, as may be determined by the court for judicial 107441
records and by the chief clinical officer for medical records;107442

       (2) When disclosure is provided for in this chapter, Chapters 107443
340. or 5119., Title XLVII, or section 5123.601 of the Revised 107444
Code;107445

       (3) That hospitals, boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 107446
mental health services, and community mental health agencies107447
services providers may release necessary medical information to 107448
insurers and other third-party payers, including government 107449
entities responsible for processing and authorizing payment, to 107450
obtain payment for goods and services furnished to the patient;107451

       (4) Pursuant to a court order signed by a judge;107452

       (5) That a patient shall be granted access to the patient's 107453
own psychiatric and medical records, unless access specifically is 107454
restricted in a patient's treatment plan for clear treatment 107455
reasons;107456

       (6) That hospitals and other institutions and facilities 107457
within the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 107458
services may exchange psychiatric records and other pertinent 107459
information with other hospitals, institutions, and facilities of 107460
the department, and with community mental health agenciesservices 107461
providers and boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 107462
services with which the department has a current agreement for 107463
patient care or services. Records and information that may be 107464
released pursuant to this division shall be limited to medication 107465
history, physical health status and history, financial status, 107466
summary of course of treatment in the hospital, summary of 107467
treatment needs, and a discharge summary, if any.107468

       (7) That hospitals within the department,and other 107469
institutions and facilities within the department, hospitals 107470
licensed by the department under section 5119.20 of the Revised 107471
Code, and community mental health agencies may exchange 107472
psychiatric records and other pertinent information with payers 107473
and other providers of treatment and health services if the 107474
purpose of the exchange is to facilitate continuity of care for a 107475
patient or for the emergency treatment of an individual;107476

       (8) That a patient's family member who is involved in the 107477
provision, planning, and monitoring of services to the patient may 107478
receive medication information, a summary of the patient's 107479
diagnosis and prognosis, and a list of the services and personnel 107480
available to assist the patient and the patient's family, if the 107481
patient's treating physician determines that the disclosure would 107482
be in the best interests of the patient. No such disclosure shall 107483
be made unless the patient is notified first and receives the 107484
information and does not object to the disclosure.107485

       (9) That community mental health agenciesservices providers107486
may exchange psychiatric records and certain other information 107487
with the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 107488
services and other agenciesservices providers in order to 107489
provide services to a person involuntarily committed to a board. 107490
Release of records under this division shall be limited to 107491
medication history, physical health status and history, financial 107492
status, summary of course of treatment, summary of treatment 107493
needs, and discharge summary, if any.107494

       (10) That information may be disclosed to the executor or the 107495
administrator of an estate of a deceased patient when the 107496
information is necessary to administer the estate;107497

       (11) That records in the possession of the Ohio historical 107498
society may be released to the closest living relative of a 107499
deceased patient upon request of that relative;107500

       (12) That information may be disclosed to staff members of 107501
the appropriate board or to staff members designated by the 107502
director of mental health for the purpose of evaluating the 107503
quality, effectiveness, and efficiency of services and determining 107504
if the services meet minimum standards. Information obtained 107505
during such evaluations shall not be retained with the name of any 107506
patient.107507

       (13) That records pertaining to the patient's diagnosis, 107508
course of treatment, treatment needs, and prognosis shall be 107509
disclosed and released to the appropriate prosecuting attorney if 107510
the patient was committed pursuant to section 2945.38, 2945.39, 107511
2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code, or to the 107512
attorney designated by the board for proceedings pursuant to 107513
involuntary commitment under this chapter.107514

       (14)(13) That the department of mental healthmental health 107515
and addiction services may exchange psychiatric hospitalization 107516
records, other mental health treatment records, and other 107517
pertinent information with the department of rehabilitation and 107518
correction and with the department of youth services to ensure 107519
continuity of care for inmates or offenders who are receiving 107520
mental health services in an institution of the department of 107521
rehabilitation and correction or the department of youth services 107522
and may exchange psychiatric hospitalization records, other mental 107523
health treatment records, and other pertinent information with 107524
boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services and 107525
community mental health services providers to ensure continuity of 107526
care for inmates or offenders who are receiving mental health 107527
services in an institution and are scheduled for release within 107528
six months. The department shall not disclose those records unless 107529
the inmate or offender is notified, receives the information, and 107530
does not object to the disclosure. The release of records under 107531
this division is limited to records regarding an inmate's or 107532
offender's medication history, physical health status and history, 107533
summary of course of treatment, summary of treatment needs, and a 107534
discharge summary, if any.107535

       (15) That a community mental health agency that ceases to 107536
operate may transfer to either a community mental health agency 107537
that assumes its caseload or to the board of alcohol, drug 107538
addiction, and mental health services of the service district in 107539
which the patient resided at the time services were most recently 107540
provided any treatment records that have not been transferred 107541
elsewhere at the patient's request.107542

       (B) Before records are disclosed pursuant to divisions 107543
(A)(3), (6), and (9) of this section, the custodian of the records 107544
shall attempt to obtain the patient's consent for the disclosure. 107545
No person shall reveal the contents of a medical record of a 107546
patient except as authorized by law.107547

       (C) The managing officer of a hospital who releases necessary 107548
medical information under division (A)(3) of this section to allow 107549
an insurance carrier or other third party payor to comply with 107550
section 5121.43 of the Revised Code shall neither be subject to 107551
criminal nor civil liability.107552

       Sec. 5122.311. (A) Notwithstanding any provision of the 107553
Revised Code to the contrary, if, on or after the effective date 107554
of this sectionApril 8, 2004, an individual is found by a court 107555
to be a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 107556
order or becomes an involuntary patient other than one who is a 107557
patient only for purposes of observation, the probate judge who 107558
made the adjudication or the chief clinical officer of the 107559
hospital, agencycommunity mental health services provider, or 107560
facility in which the person is an involuntary patient shall 107561
notify the bureau of criminal identification and investigation, on 107562
the form described in division (C) of this section, of the 107563
identity of the individual. The notification shall be transmitted 107564
by the judge or the chief clinical officer not later than seven 107565
days after the adjudication or commitment.107566

       (B) The bureau of criminal identification and investigation 107567
shall compile and maintain the notices it receives under division 107568
(A) of this section and shall use them for the purpose of 107569
conducting incompetency records checks pursuant to section 311.41 107570
of the Revised Code. The notices and the information they contain 107571
are confidential, except as provided in this division, and are not 107572
public records.107573

       (C) The attorney general, by rule adopted under Chapter 119. 107574
of the Revised Code, shall prescribe and make available to all 107575
probate judges and all chief clinical officers a form to be used 107576
by them for the purpose of making the notifications required by 107577
division (A) of this section.107578

       Sec. 5122.32.  (A) As used in this section:107579

       (1) "Quality assurance committee" means a committee that is 107580
appointed in the central office of the department of mental health107581
mental health and addiction services by the director of mental 107582
healthmental health and addiction services, a committee of a 107583
hospital or community setting program, a committee established 107584
pursuant to section 5119.47 of the Revised Code of the department 107585
of mental health appointed by the managing officer of the hospital 107586
or program, or a duly authorized subcommittee of a committee of 107587
that nature and that is designated to carry out quality assurance 107588
program activities.107589

       (2) "Quality assurance program" means a comprehensive program 107590
within the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 107591
services to systematically review and improve the quality of 107592
medical and mental health services within the department and its 107593
hospitals and community setting programs, the safety and security 107594
of persons receiving medical and mental health services within the 107595
department and its hospitals and community setting programs, and 107596
the efficiency and effectiveness of the utilization of staff and 107597
resources in the delivery of medical and mental health services 107598
within the department and its hospitals and community setting 107599
programs. "Quality assurance program" includes the central office 107600
quality assurance committees, morbidity and mortality review 107601
committees, quality assurance programs of community setting 107602
programs, quality assurance committees of hospitals operated by 107603
the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 107604
services, and the office of licensure and certification of the 107605
department.107606

       (3) "Quality assurance program activities" include collecting 107607
or compiling information and reports required by a quality 107608
assurance committee, receiving, reviewing, or implementing the 107609
recommendations made by a quality assurance committee, and 107610
credentialing, privileging, infection control, tissue review, peer 107611
review, utilization review including access to patient care 107612
records, patient care assessment records, and medical and mental 107613
health records, medical and mental health resource management, 107614
mortality and morbidity review, and identification and prevention 107615
of medical or mental health incidents and risks, whether performed 107616
by a quality assurance committee or by persons who are directed by 107617
a quality assurance committee.107618

       (4) "Quality assurance records" means the proceedings, 107619
discussion, records, findings, recommendations, evaluations, 107620
opinions, minutes, reports, and other documents or actions that 107621
emanate from quality assurance committees, quality assurance 107622
programs, or quality assurance program activities. "Quality 107623
assurance records" does not include aggregate statistical 107624
information that does not disclose the identity of persons 107625
receiving or providing medical or mental health services in 107626
department of mental health institutionsmental health and 107627
addiction services hospitals or community setting programs .107628

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (E) of this section, 107629
quality assurance records are confidential and are not public 107630
records under section 149.43 of the Revised Code, and shall be 107631
used only in the course of the proper functions of a quality 107632
assurance program. 107633

       (2) Except as provided in division (E) of this section, no 107634
person who possesses or has access to quality assurance records 107635
and who knows that the records are quality assurance records shall 107636
willfully disclose the contents of the records to any person or 107637
entity.107638

       (C)(1) Except as provided in division (E) of this section, no 107639
quality assurance record shall be subject to discovery in, and is 107640
not admissible in evidence, in any judicial or administrative 107641
proceeding.107642

       (2) Except as provided in division (E) of this section, no 107643
member of a quality assurance committee or a person who is 107644
performing a function that is part of a quality assurance program 107645
shall be permitted or required to testify in a judicial or 107646
administrative proceeding with respect to quality assurance 107647
records or with respect to any finding, recommendation, 107648
evaluation, opinion, or other action taken by the committee, 107649
member, or person.107650

       (3) Information, documents, or records otherwise available 107651
from original sources are not to be construed as being unavailable 107652
for discovery or admission in evidence in a judicial or 107653
administrative proceeding merely because they were presented to a 107654
quality assurance committee. No person testifying before a quality 107655
assurance committee or person who is a member of a quality 107656
assurance committee shall be prevented from testifying as to 107657
matters within the person's knowledge, but the witness cannot be 107658
asked about the witness' testimony before the quality assurance 107659
committee or about an opinion formed by the person as a result of 107660
the quality assurance committee proceedings.107661

       (D)(1) A person who, without malice and in the reasonable 107662
belief that the information is warranted by the facts known to the 107663
person, provides information to a person engaged in quality 107664
assurance program activities is not liable for damages in a civil 107665
action for injury, death, or loss to person or property to any 107666
person as a result of providing the information.107667

       (2) A member of a quality assurance committee, a person 107668
engaged in quality assurance program activities, and an employee 107669
of the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 107670
services shall not be liable in damages in a civil action for 107671
injury, death, or loss to person or property to any person for any 107672
acts, omissions, decisions, or other conduct within the scope of 107673
the functions of the quality assurance program.107674

       (3) Nothing in this section shall relieve any institution or 107675
individual from liability arising from the treatment of a patient.107676

       (E) Quality assurance records may be disclosed, and testimony 107677
may be provided concerning quality assurance records, only to the 107678
following persons or entities:107679

       (1) Persons who are employed or retained by the department of 107680
mental healthmental health and addiction services and who have 107681
authority to evaluate or implement the recommendations of a 107682
state-operated hospital, community setting program, or central 107683
office quality assurance committee;107684

       (2) Public or private agencies or organizations if needed to 107685
perform a licensing or accreditation function related to 107686
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services107687
hospitals or community setting programs, or to perform monitoring 107688
of a hospital or program of that nature as required by law.107689

       (F) A disclosure of quality assurance records pursuant to 107690
division (E) of this section does not otherwise waive the 107691
confidential and privileged status of the disclosed quality 107692
assurance records.107693

       (G) Nothing in this section shall limit the access of the 107694
Ohio protection and advocacy system to records or personnel as 107695
required under section 5123.601 of the Revised Code. Nothing in 107696
this section shall limit the admissibility of documentary or 107697
testimonial evidence in an action brought by the Ohio protection 107698
and advocacy system in its own name or on behalf of a client.107699

       Sec. 5122.33.  The department of mental healthmental health 107700
and addiction services may prescribe the form of applications, 107701
reports, records, and medical certificates provided for under this 107702
chapter, and the information required to be contained therein; 107703
require reports from the chief clinical officer of any public 107704
hospital relating to the admission, examination, diagnosis, 107705
release, or discharge of any patient; visit each such hospital 107706
regularly to review the admission procedures of all new patients 107707
admitted between visits; investigate by personal visit complaints 107708
made by any patient or by any person on behalf of a patient; and 107709
adopt such rules as are reasonably necessary to effectuate the 107710
provisions of this chapter.107711

       Sec. 5122.34.  (A) Persons, including, but not limited to, 107712
boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services and 107713
community mental health agenciesservices providers, acting in 107714
good faith, either upon actual knowledge or information thought by 107715
them to be reliable, who procedurally or physically assist in the 107716
hospitalization or discharge, determination of appropriate 107717
placement, or in judicial proceedings of a person under this 107718
chapter, do not come within any criminal provisions, and are free 107719
from any liability to the person hospitalized or to any other 107720
person. 107721

       (B) Regardless of whether any affirmative action has been 107722
taken under this chapter with respect to a mental health client or 107723
patient and except as otherwise provided in section 2305.51 of the 107724
Revised Code, no person shall be liable for any harm that results 107725
to any other person as a result of failing to disclose any 107726
confidential information about the mental health client or 107727
patient, or failing to otherwise attempt to protect such other 107728
person from harm by such client or patient. 107729

       (C) This section applies to expert witnesses who testify at 107730
hearings under this chapter.107731

       (D) The immunity from liability conferred by this section is 107732
in addition to and not in limitation of any immunity conferred by 107733
any other section of the Revised Code or by judicial precedent.107734

       Sec. 5122.341.  (A) As used in this section:107735

       (1) "Facility or agencyprovider" means, in the context of a 107736
person committed to the department of mental healthmental health 107737
and addiction services under sections 2945.37 to 2945.402 of the 107738
Revised Code, any entity in which the department of mental health107739
mental health and addiction services places such a person. 107740

       (2) "Person committed to the department" means a person 107741
committed to the department of mental healthmental health and 107742
addiction services under sections 2945.37 to 2945.402 of the 107743
Revised Code.107744

       (B) No member of a board of directors, or employee, of a 107745
facility or agencyprovider in which the department of mental 107746
healthmental health and addiction services places a person 107747
committed to the department is liable for injury or damages caused 107748
by any action or inaction taken within the scope of the board 107749
member's official duties or employee's employment relating to the 107750
commitment of, and services provided to, the person committed to 107751
the department, unless the action or inaction constitutes willful 107752
or wanton misconduct. A board member's or employee's action or 107753
inaction does not constitute willful or wanton misconduct if the 107754
board member or employee acted in good faith and reasonably under 107755
the circumstances and with the knowledge reasonably attributable 107756
to the board member or employee.107757

       The immunity from liability conferred by this section is in 107758
addition to and not in limitation of any immunity conferred by any 107759
other section of the Revised Code or by judicial precedent.107760

       Sec. 5122.39.  (A) Mentally ill minors shall remain under the 107761
natural guardianship of their parents, notwithstanding 107762
hospitalization pursuant to this chapter, unless parental rights 107763
have been terminated pursuant to a court finding that the minor is 107764
neglected or dependent. Where a mentally ill minor is found to be 107765
dependent or neglected, the public children's services agency in 107766
the county of residence has final guardianship authority and 107767
responsibility.107768

       (B) In no case shall the guardianship of a mentally ill 107769
person be assigned to the chief medical officer or any staff 107770
member of a hospital, board, or agencyprovider from which the 107771
person is receiving mental health services.107772

       Sec. 5122.43.  (A) Costs, fees, and expenses of all 107773
proceedings held under this chapter shall be paid as follows:107774

       (1) To police and health officers, other than sheriffs or 107775
their deputies, the same fees allowed to constables, to be paid 107776
upon the approval of the probate judge;107777

       (2) To sheriffs or their deputies, the same fees allowed for 107778
similar services in the court of common pleas;107779

       (3) To physicians or licensed clinical psychologists acting 107780
as expert witnesses and to other expert witnesses designated by 107781
the court, an amount determined by the court;107782

       (4) To other witnesses, the same fees and mileage as for 107783
attendance at the court of common pleas, to be paid upon the 107784
approval of the probate judge;107785

       (5) To a person, other than the sheriff or the sheriff's 107786
deputies, for taking a mentally ill person to a hospital or 107787
removing a mentally ill person from a hospital, the actual 107788
necessary expenses incurred, specifically itemized, and approved 107789
by the probate judge;107790

       (6) To assistants who convey mentally ill persons to the 107791
hospital when authorized by the probate judge, a fee set by the 107792
probate court, provided the assistants are not drawing a salary 107793
from the state or any political subdivision of the state, and 107794
their actual necessary expenses incurred, provided that the 107795
expenses are specifically itemized and approved by the probate 107796
judge;107797

       (7) To an attorney appointed by the probate division for an 107798
indigent who allegedly is a mentally ill person pursuant to any 107799
section of this chapter, the fees that are determined by the 107800
probate division. When those indigent persons are before the 107801
court, all filing and recording fees shall be waived.107802

       (8) To a referee who is appointed to conduct proceedings 107803
under this chapter that involve a respondent whose domicile is or, 107804
before the respondent's hospitalization, was not the county in 107805
which the proceedings are held, compensation as fixed by the 107806
probate division, but not more than the compensation paid for 107807
similar proceedings for respondents whose domicile is in the 107808
county in which the proceedings are held;107809

       (9) To a court reporter appointed to make a transcript of 107810
proceedings under this chapter, the compensation and fees allowed 107811
in other cases under section 2101.08 of the Revised Code.107812

       (B) A county shall pay for the costs, fees, and expenses 107813
described in division (A) of this section with money appropriated 107814
pursuant to section 2101.11 of the Revised Code. A county may seek 107815
reimbursement from the department of mental healthmental health 107816
and addiction services by submitting a request and certification 107817
by the county auditor of the costs, fees, and expenses to the 107818
department within two months of the date the costs, fees, and 107819
expenses are incurred by the county.107820

       Each fiscal year, based on past allocations, historical 107821
utilization, and other factors the department considers 107822
appropriate, the department shall allocate for each county an 107823
amount for reimbursements under this section. The total of all the 107824
allocations shall equal the amount appropriated for the fiscal 107825
year to the department specifically for the purposes of this 107826
section.107827

       On receipt, the department shall review each request for 107828
reimbursement and prepare a voucher for the amount of the costs, 107829
fees, and expenses incurred by the county, provided that the total 107830
amount of money paid to all counties in each fiscal year shall not 107831
exceed the total amount of moneys specifically appropriated to the 107832
department for these purposes. 107833

       The department's total reimbursement to each county shall be 107834
the lesser of the full amount requested or the amount allocated 107835
for the county under this division. In addition, the department 107836
shall distribute any surplus remaining from the money appropriated 107837
for the fiscal year to the department for the purposes of this 107838
section as follows to counties whose full requests exceed their 107839
allocations:107840

       (1) If the surplus is sufficient to reimburse such counties 107841
the full amount of their requests, each such county shall receive 107842
the full amount of its request;107843

       (2) If the surplus is insufficient, each such county shall 107844
receive a percentage of the surplus determined by dividing the 107845
difference between the county's full request and its allocation by 107846
the difference between the total of the full requests of all such 107847
counties and the total of the amounts allocated for all such 107848
counties. 107849

       The department may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 107850
119. of the Revised Code to implement the payment of costs, fees, 107851
and expenses under this section.107852

       Sec. 5122.44.  As used in sections 5122.44 to 5122.47 of the 107853
Revised Code:107854

       (A) "Compilation" means a written list of the following 107855
information, as the department of mental healthmental health and 107856
addiction services is able to reasonably ascertain, for every 107857
patient who was buried, entombed, or inurned prior to the 107858
effective date of this sectionMarch 31, 2005, in a cemetery 107859
located on the grounds of or adjacent to the grounds of a public 107860
hospital:107861

       (1) Name;107862

       (2) Date of birth;107863

       (3) Date of death or burial;107864

       (4) Specific physical location of the burial, entombment, or 107865
inurnment, including the plot or grave site number if available.107866

       (B) "Patient" means an individual who died while admitted to 107867
a public hospital that was under the control of the department of 107868
mental healthmental health and addiction services.107869

       (C) "Record" has the same meaning as in section 149.011 of 107870
the Revised Code.107871

       (D) "State agency" means every organized body, office, or 107872
agency established by the laws of the state for the exercise of 107873
any function of state government.107874

       Sec. 5122.45.  The department of mental healthmental health 107875
and addiction services shall create a separate compilation for 107876
each cemetery located on the grounds of or adjacent to the grounds 107877
of a public hospital that is under the control of the department 107878
on the effective date of this sectionMarch 31, 2005. The 107879
compilation shall be created within a reasonable time not 107880
exceeding three years after the effective date of this section107881
March 31, 2005. The department shall use its best efforts to 107882
create the most complete compilations possible using records in 107883
the department's possession and records obtained in accordance 107884
with section 5122.46 of the Revised Code.107885

       Sec. 5122.46.  The Ohio historical society and each state 107886
agency shall, at the request of the department of mental health107887
mental health and addiction services, provide the department 107888
access to records and information in the possession of the 107889
historical society or state agency for purposes of creating 107890
compilations.107891

       Sec. 5122.47.  The department of mental healthmental health 107892
and addiction services shall deposit a copy of each compilation 107893
with the Ohio historical society and the state library as soon as 107894
a compilation is completed. The department shall not disclose any 107895
record or information used to create a compilation except as 107896
provided in sections 149.43 and 5122.31 of the Revised Code.107897

       Sec. 5123.01.  As used in this chapter:107898

       (A) "Chief medical officer" means the licensed physician 107899
appointed by the managing officer of an institution for the 107900
mentally retarded with the approval of the director of 107901
developmental disabilities to provide medical treatment for 107902
residents of the institution.107903

       (B) "Chief program director" means a person with special 107904
training and experience in the diagnosis and management of the 107905
mentally retarded, certified according to division (C) of this 107906
section in at least one of the designated fields, and appointed by 107907
the managing officer of an institution for the mentally retarded 107908
with the approval of the director to provide habilitation and care 107909
for residents of the institution.107910

       (C) "Comprehensive evaluation" means a study, including a 107911
sequence of observations and examinations, of a person leading to 107912
conclusions and recommendations formulated jointly, with 107913
dissenting opinions if any, by a group of persons with special 107914
training and experience in the diagnosis and management of persons 107915
with mental retardation or a developmental disability, which group 107916
shall include individuals who are professionally qualified in the 107917
fields of medicine, psychology, and social work, together with 107918
such other specialists as the individual case may require.107919

       (D) "Education" means the process of formal training and 107920
instruction to facilitate the intellectual and emotional 107921
development of residents.107922

       (E) "Habilitation" means the process by which the staff of 107923
the institution assists the resident in acquiring and maintaining 107924
those life skills that enable the resident to cope more 107925
effectively with the demands of the resident's own person and of 107926
the resident's environment and in raising the level of the 107927
resident's physical, mental, social, and vocational efficiency. 107928
Habilitation includes but is not limited to programs of formal, 107929
structured education and training.107930

       (F) "Health officer" means any public health physician, 107931
public health nurse, or other person authorized or designated by a 107932
city or general health district.107933

       (G) "Home and community-based services" means medicaid-funded 107934
home and community-based services specified in division (B)(A)(1) 107935
of section 5111.875166.20 of the Revised Code provided under the 107936
medicaid waiver components the department of developmental 107937
disabilities administers pursuant to section 5111.8715166.21 of 107938
the Revised Code. Except as provided in section 5123.0412 of the 107939
Revised Code, home and community-based services provided under the 107940
medicaid waiver component known as the transitions developmental 107941
disabilities waiver are to be considered to be home and 107942
community-based services for the purposes of this chapter, and 107943
Chapters 5124. and 5126. of the Revised Code, only to the extent, 107944
if any, provided by the contract required by section 5111.871107945
5166.21 of the Revised Code regarding the waiver.107946

       (H) "ICF/IID" has the same meaning as in section 5124.01 of 107947
the Revised Code.107948

       (I) "Indigent person" means a person who is unable, without 107949
substantial financial hardship, to provide for the payment of an 107950
attorney and for other necessary expenses of legal representation, 107951
including expert testimony.107952

       (I)(J) "Institution" means a public or private facility, or a 107953
part of a public or private facility, that is licensed by the 107954
appropriate state department and is equipped to provide 107955
residential habilitation, care, and treatment for the mentally 107956
retarded.107957

       (J)(K) "Licensed physician" means a person who holds a valid 107958
certificate issued under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code 107959
authorizing the person to practice medicine and surgery or 107960
osteopathic medicine and surgery, or a medical officer of the 107961
government of the United States while in the performance of the 107962
officer's official duties.107963

       (K)(L) "Managing officer" means a person who is appointed by 107964
the director of developmental disabilities to be in executive 107965
control of an institution for the mentally retarded under the 107966
jurisdiction of the department.107967

       (L) "Medicaid" has the same meaning as in section 5111.01 of 107968
the Revised Code.107969

       (M) "Medicaid case management services" means case management 107970
services provided to an individual with mental retardation or 107971
other developmental disability that the state medicaid plan 107972
requires.107973

       (N) "Mentally retarded person" means a person having 107974
significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning existing 107975
concurrently with deficiencies in adaptive behavior, manifested 107976
during the developmental period.107977

       (O) "Mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization 107978
by court order" means a person eighteen years of age or older who 107979
is at least moderately mentally retarded and in relation to whom, 107980
because of the person's retardation, either of the following 107981
conditions exist:107982

       (1) The person represents a very substantial risk of physical 107983
impairment or injury to self as manifested by evidence that the 107984
person is unable to provide for and is not providing for the 107985
person's most basic physical needs and that provision for those 107986
needs is not available in the community;107987

       (2) The person needs and is susceptible to significant 107988
habilitation in an institution.107989

       (P) "A person who is at least moderately mentally retarded" 107990
means a person who is found, following a comprehensive evaluation, 107991
to be impaired in adaptive behavior to a moderate degree and to be 107992
functioning at the moderate level of intellectual functioning in 107993
accordance with standard measurements as recorded in the most 107994
current revision of the manual of terminology and classification 107995
in mental retardation published by the American association on 107996
mental retardation.107997

       (Q) As used in this division, "substantial functional 107998
limitation," "developmental delay," and "established risk" have 107999
the meanings established pursuant to section 5123.011 of the 108000
Revised Code.108001

       "Developmental disability" means a severe, chronic disability 108002
that is characterized by all of the following:108003

       (1) It is attributable to a mental or physical impairment or 108004
a combination of mental and physical impairments, other than a 108005
mental or physical impairment solely caused by mental illness as 108006
defined in division (A) of section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.108007

       (2) It is manifested before age twenty-two.108008

       (3) It is likely to continue indefinitely.108009

       (4) It results in one of the following:108010

       (a) In the case of a person under three years of age, at 108011
least one developmental delay or an established risk;108012

       (b) In the case of a person at least three years of age but 108013
under six years of age, at least two developmental delays or an 108014
established risk;108015

       (c) In the case of a person six years of age or older, a 108016
substantial functional limitation in at least three of the 108017
following areas of major life activity, as appropriate for the 108018
person's age: self-care, receptive and expressive language, 108019
learning, mobility, self-direction, capacity for independent 108020
living, and, if the person is at least sixteen years of age, 108021
capacity for economic self-sufficiency.108022

       (5) It causes the person to need a combination and sequence 108023
of special, interdisciplinary, or other type of care, treatment, 108024
or provision of services for an extended period of time that is 108025
individually planned and coordinated for the person.108026

       (R) "Developmentally disabled person" means a person with a 108027
developmental disability.108028

       (S) "State institution" means an institution that is 108029
tax-supported and under the jurisdiction of the department.108030

       (T) "Residence" and "legal residence" have the same meaning 108031
as "legal settlement," which is acquired by residing in Ohio for a 108032
period of one year without receiving general assistance prior to 108033
July 17, 1995, under former Chapter 5113. of the Revised Code, 108034
financial assistance under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code, or 108035
assistance from a private agency that maintains records of 108036
assistance given. A person having a legal settlement in the state 108037
shall be considered as having legal settlement in the assistance 108038
area in which the person resides. No adult person coming into this 108039
state and having a spouse or minor children residing in another 108040
state shall obtain a legal settlement in this state as long as the 108041
spouse or minor children are receiving public assistance, care, or 108042
support at the expense of the other state or its subdivisions. For 108043
the purpose of determining the legal settlement of a person who is 108044
living in a public or private institution or in a home subject to 108045
licensing by the department of job and family services, the 108046
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services, 108047
or the department of developmental disabilities, the residence of 108048
the person shall be considered as though the person were residing 108049
in the county in which the person was living prior to the person's 108050
entrance into the institution or home. Settlement once acquired 108051
shall continue until a person has been continuously absent from 108052
Ohio for a period of one year or has acquired a legal residence in 108053
another state. A woman who marries a man with legal settlement in 108054
any county immediately acquires the settlement of her husband. The 108055
legal settlement of a minor is that of the parents, surviving 108056
parent, sole parent, parent who is designated the residential 108057
parent and legal custodian by a court, other adult having 108058
permanent custody awarded by a court, or guardian of the person of 108059
the minor, provided that:108060

       (1) A minor female who marries shall be considered to have 108061
the legal settlement of her husband and, in the case of death of 108062
her husband or divorce, she shall not thereby lose her legal 108063
settlement obtained by the marriage.108064

       (2) A minor male who marries, establishes a home, and who has 108065
resided in this state for one year without receiving general 108066
assistance prior to July 17, 1995, under former Chapter 5113. of 108067
the Revised Code, financial assistance under Chapter 5115. of the 108068
Revised Code, or assistance from a private agency that maintains 108069
records of assistance given shall be considered to have obtained a 108070
legal settlement in this state.108071

       (3) The legal settlement of a child under eighteen years of 108072
age who is in the care or custody of a public or private child 108073
caring agency shall not change if the legal settlement of the 108074
parent changes until after the child has been in the home of the 108075
parent for a period of one year.108076

       No person, adult or minor, may establish a legal settlement 108077
in this state for the purpose of gaining admission to any state 108078
institution.108079

       (U)(1) "Resident" means, subject to division (R)(U)(2) of 108080
this section, a person who is admitted either voluntarily or 108081
involuntarily to an institution or other facility pursuant to 108082
section 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised 108083
Code subsequent to a finding of not guilty by reason of insanity 108084
or incompetence to stand trial or under this chapter who is under 108085
observation or receiving habilitation and care in an institution.108086

       (2) "Resident" does not include a person admitted to an 108087
institution or other facility under section 2945.39, 2945.40, 108088
2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code to the extent that the 108089
reference in this chapter to resident, or the context in which the 108090
reference occurs, is in conflict with any provision of sections 108091
2945.37 to 2945.402 of the Revised Code.108092

       (V) "Respondent" means the person whose detention, 108093
commitment, or continued commitment is being sought in any 108094
proceeding under this chapter.108095

       (W) "Working day" and "court day" mean Monday, Tuesday, 108096
Wednesday, Thursday, and Friday, except when such day is a legal 108097
holiday.108098

       (X) "Prosecutor" means the prosecuting attorney, village 108099
solicitor, city director of law, or similar chief legal officer 108100
who prosecuted a criminal case in which a person was found not 108101
guilty by reason of insanity, who would have had the authority to 108102
prosecute a criminal case against a person if the person had not 108103
been found incompetent to stand trial, or who prosecuted a case in 108104
which a person was found guilty.108105

       (Y) "Court" means the probate division of the court of common 108106
pleas.108107

       (Z) "Supported living" and "residential services" have the 108108
same meanings as in section 5126.01 of the Revised Code.108109

       Sec. 5123.021.  (A) As used in this section, "mentally 108110
retarded individual" and "specialized services" have the same 108111
meanings as in section 5111.2025165.03 of the Revised Code.108112

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section 108113
and rules adopted under division (E)(3) of this section, for 108114
purposes of section 5111.2025165.03 of the Revised Code, the 108115
department of developmental disabilities shall determine in 108116
accordance with section 1919(e)(7) of the "Social Security Act," 108117
49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, and regulations 108118
adopted under section 1919(f)(8)(A) of that act whether, because 108119
of the individual's physical and mental condition, a mentally 108120
retarded individual seeking admission to a nursing facility 108121
requires the level of services provided by a nursing facility and, 108122
if the individual requires that level of services, whether the 108123
individual requires specialized services for mental retardation.108124

       (2) A determination under this division is not required for 108125
any of the following:108126

       (a) An individual seeking readmission to a nursing facility 108127
after having been transferred from a nursing facility to a 108128
hospital for care;108129

       (b) An individual who meets all of the following conditions:108130

       (i) The individual is admitted to the nursing facility 108131
directly from a hospital after receiving inpatient care at the 108132
hospital;108133

       (ii) The individual requires nursing facility services for 108134
the condition for which the individual received care in the 108135
hospital;108136

       (iii) The individual's attending physician has certified, 108137
before admission to the nursing facility, that the individual is 108138
likely to require less than thirty days of nursing facility 108139
services.108140

       (c) An individual transferred from one nursing facility to 108141
another nursing facility, with or without an intervening hospital 108142
stay.108143

       (C) Except as provided in rules adopted under division (F)(3) 108144
of this section, the department of developmental disabilities 108145
shall review and determine, for each resident of a nursing 108146
facility who is mentally retarded, whether the resident, because 108147
of the resident's physical and mental condition, requires the 108148
level of services provided by a nursing facility and whether the 108149
resident requires specialized services for mental retardation. The 108150
review and determination shall be conducted in accordance with 108151
section 1919(e)(7) of the "Social Security Act" and the 108152
regulations adopted under section 1919(f)(8)(A) of the act. The 108153
review and determination shall be completed promptly after a 108154
nursing facility has notified the department that there has been a 108155
significant change in the resident's mental or physical condition.108156

       (D)(1) In the case of a nursing facility resident who has 108157
continuously resided in a nursing facility for at least thirty 108158
months before the date of a review and determination under 108159
division (C) of this section, if the resident is determined not to 108160
require the level of services provided by a nursing facility, but 108161
is determined to require specialized services for mental 108162
retardation, the department, in consultation with the resident's 108163
family or legal representative and care givers, shall do all of 108164
the following:108165

       (a) Inform the resident of the institutional and 108166
noninstitutional alternatives covered under the state plan for 108167
medical assistance;108168

       (b) Offer the resident the choice of remaining in the nursing 108169
facility or receiving covered services in an alternative 108170
institutional or noninstitutional setting;108171

       (c) Clarify the effect on eligibility for services under the 108172
state plan for medical assistance if the resident chooses to leave 108173
the facility, including its effect on readmission to the facility;108174

       (d) Provide for or arrange for the provision of specialized 108175
services for the resident's mental retardation in the setting 108176
chosen by the resident.108177

       (2) In the case of a nursing facility resident who has 108178
continuously resided in a nursing facility for less than thirty 108179
months before the date of the review and determination under 108180
division (C) of this section, if the resident is determined not to 108181
require the level of services provided by a nursing facility, but 108182
is determined to require specialized services for mental 108183
retardation, or if the resident is determined to require neither 108184
the level of services provided by a nursing facility nor 108185
specialized services for mental retardation, the department shall 108186
act in accordance with its alternative disposition plan approved 108187
by the United States department of health and human services under 108188
section 1919(e)(7)(E) of the "Social Security Act."108189

       (3) In the case of an individual who is determined under 108190
division (B) or (C) of this section to require both the level of 108191
services provided by a nursing facility and specialized services 108192
for mental retardation, the department of developmental 108193
disabilities shall provide or arrange for the provision of the 108194
specialized services needed by the individual or resident while 108195
residing in a nursing facility.108196

       (E) The department of developmental disabilities shall adopt 108197
rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that do 108198
all of the following:108199

       (1) Establish criteria to be used in making the 108200
determinations required by divisions (B) and (C) of this section. 108201
The criteria shall not exceed the criteria established by 108202
regulations adopted by the United States department of health and 108203
human services under section 1919(f)(8)(A) of the "Social Security 108204
Act."108205

       (2) Specify information to be provided by the individual or 108206
nursing facility resident being assessed;108207

       (3) Specify any circumstances, in addition to circumstances 108208
listed in division (B) of this section, under which determinations 108209
under divisions (B) and (C) of this section are not required to be 108210
made.108211

       Sec. 5123.022. It(A) As used in this section:108212

       (1) "Community employment" means competitive employment that 108213
takes place in an integrated setting.108214

       (2) "Competitive employment" means full-time or part-time 108215
work in the competitive labor market in which payment is at or 108216
above the minimum wage but not less than the customary wage and 108217
level of benefits paid by the employer for the same or similar 108218
work performed by persons who are not disabled.108219

       (3) "Integrated setting" means a setting typically found in 108220
the community where individuals with developmental disabilities 108221
interact with individuals who do not have disabilities to the same 108222
extent that individuals in comparable positions who are not 108223
disabled interact with other individuals, including in employment 108224
settings in which employees interact with the community through 108225
technology.108226

       (B) It is hereby declared to be the policy of this state that 108227
employment services for individuals with developmental 108228
disabilities be directed at placement whenever possible of each 108229
individual in a position in the community in which the individual 108230
is integrated with the employer's other workers who are not 108231
developmentally disabledemployment. TheEvery individual with a 108232
developmental disability is presumed capable of community 108233
employment.108234

       The departments of developmental disabilities, education, 108235
medicaid, job and family services, and mental healthmental health 108236
and addiction services; the rehabilitation services commission108237
opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities agency; and each other 108238
state agency that provides employment services to individuals with 108239
developmental disabilities shall implement thisthe policy of 108240
this state and ensure that it is followed whenever employment 108241
services are provided to individuals with developmental 108242
disabilities.108243

       The department of developmental disabilities shall coordinate 108244
the actions taken by state agencies to comply with the state's 108245
policy. Agencies shall collaborate within their divisions and with 108246
each other to ensure that state programs, policies, procedures, 108247
and funding support competitive and integrated employment of 108248
individuals with developmental disabilities. State agencies shall 108249
share information with the department, and the department shall 108250
track progress toward full implementation of the policy. The 108251
department, in coordination with any task force established by the 108252
governor, shall compile data and annually submit to the governor a 108253
report on implementation of the policy.108254

       The department and state agencies may adopt rules to 108255
implement the state's policy.108256

       (C) The state's policy articulated in this section is 108257
intended to promote the right of each individual with a 108258
developmental disability to informed choice; however, nothing in 108259
this section requires any employer to give preference in hiring to 108260
an individual because the individual has a disability.108261

       Sec. 5123.023.  (A) The director of developmental 108262
disabilities may establish an employment first task force 108263
consisting of the departments of developmental disabilities, 108264
education, medicaid, job and family services, and mental health 108265
and addiction services; and the opportunities for Ohioans with 108266
disabilities agency. The purpose of the task force shall be to 108267
improve the coordination of the state's efforts to address the 108268
needs of individuals with developmental disabilities who seek 108269
community employment as defined in section 5123.022 of the Revised 108270
Code.108271

       (B) The department of developmental disabilities may enter 108272
into interagency agreements with any of the government entities on 108273
the task force. The interagency agreements may specify either or 108274
both of the following:108275

       (1) The roles and responsibilities of the government entities 108276
that are members of the task force, including any money to be 108277
contributed by those entities;108278

       (2) The projects and activities of the task force.108279

       (C) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 108280
employment first taskforce fund. Any money received by the task 108281
force from its members shall be credited to the fund. The 108282
department of developmental disabilities shall use the fund to 108283
support the work of the task force.108284

       (D) The task force shall cease to exist on January 1, 2020. 108285
Any money, assets, or employees of the department of developmental 108286
disabilities that on that date are dedicated to the work of the 108287
task force shall be reallocated by the department for employment 108288
services for individuals with developmental disabilities.108289

       Sec. 5123.03.  (A) The department of developmental 108290
disabilities shall do all of the following:108291

       (1) Maintain, operate, manage, and govern all state 108292
institutions for the care, treatment, and training of the mentally 108293
retarded;108294

       (2) Designate all such institutions by appropriate names;108295

       (3) Provide and designate facilities for the custody, care, 108296
and special treatment of persons of the following classes:108297

       (a) Dangerous persons in state institutions for the mentally 108298
retarded who represent a serious threat to the safety of the other 108299
patients of the institution;108300

       (b) Persons charged with crimes who are found incompetent to 108301
stand trial or not guilty by reason of insanity and who are also 108302
mentally retarded persons subject to institutionalization by court 108303
order.108304

       (4) Have control of all institutions maintained in part by 108305
the state for the care, treatment, and training of the mentally 108306
retarded;108307

       (5) Administer the laws relative to persons in such 108308
institutions in an efficient, economical, and humane manner;108309

       (6) Ascertain by actual examinations and inquiry whether 108310
institutionalizations are made according to law.108311

       (B) The department may do any of the following:108312

       (1) Subject to section 5139.08 of the Revised Code, receive 108313
from the department of youth services for observation, diagnosis, 108314
care, habilitation, or placement any children in the custody of 108315
the department of youth services;108316

       (2) Receive for observation any minor from a public 108317
institution other than an institution under the jurisdiction of 108318
the department of developmental disabilities, from a private 108319
charitable institution, or from a person having legal custody of 108320
such a minor, upon such terms as are proper;108321

       (3) Receive from the department of mental healthmental 108322
health and addiction services any patient in the custody of the 108323
department who is transferred to the department of developmental 108324
disabilities upon such terms and conditions as may be agreed upon 108325
by the two departments.108326

       (C) In addition to the powers and duties expressly conferred 108327
by this section, the department may take any other action 108328
necessary for the full and efficient executive, administrative, 108329
and fiscal supervision of the state institutions described in this 108330
section.108331

       Sec. 5123.0412. (A) The department of developmental 108332
disabilities shall charge each county board of developmental 108333
disabilities an annual fee equal to one and one-quarter per cent 108334
of the total value of all medicaid paid claims for home and 108335
community-based services provided during the year to an individual 108336
eligible for services from the county board. However, the 108337
department shall not charge the fee for home and community-based 108338
services provided under the medicaid waiver component known as the 108339
transitions developmental disabilities waiver. No county board 108340
shall pass the cost of a fee charged to the county board under 108341
this section on to another provider of these services.108342

       (B) The fees collected under this section shall be deposited 108343
into the ODDD administration and oversight fund and the ODJFS 108344
administration and oversight fund, both of , which areis hereby 108345
created in the state treasury. The portion of the fees to be 108346
deposited into the ODDD administration and oversight fund and the 108347
portion of the fees to be deposited into the ODJFS administration 108348
and oversight fund shall be the portion specified in an 108349
interagency agreement entered into under division (C) of this 108350
section. The department of developmental disabilities shall use 108351
the money in the ODDD administration and oversight fund and the 108352
department of job and family services shall use the money in the 108353
ODJFS administration and oversight fund for both of the following 108354
purposes:108355

       (1) Medicaid administrative costs, including administrative 108356
and oversight costs of medicaid case management services and home 108357
and community-based services. The administrative and oversight 108358
costs of medicaid case management services and home and 108359
community-based services shall include costs for staff, systems, 108360
and other resources the departments needdepartment needs and 108361
dedicatededicates solely to the following duties associated with 108362
the services:108363

       (a) Eligibility determinations;108364

       (b) Training;108365

       (c) Fiscal management;108366

       (d) Claims processing;108367

       (e) Quality assurance oversight;108368

       (f) Other duties the departments identifydepartment 108369
identifies.108370

       (2) Providing technical support to county boards' local 108371
administrative authority under section 5126.055 of the Revised 108372
Code for the services.108373

       (C) The departments of developmental disabilities and job and 108374
family services shall enter into an interagency agreement to do 108375
both of the following: 108376

       (1) Specify which portion of the fees collected under this 108377
section is to be deposited into the ODDD administration and 108378
oversight fund and which portion is to be deposited into the ODJFS 108379
administration and oversight fund; 108380

       (2) Provide for the departments to coordinate the staff whose 108381
costs are paid for with money in the ODDD administration and 108382
oversight fund and the ODJFS administration and oversight fund. 108383

       (D) The departmentsdepartment shall submit an annual report 108384
to the director of budget and management certifying how the 108385
departmentsdepartment spent the money in the ODDD administration 108386
and oversight fund and the ODJFS administration and oversight fund108387
for the purposes specified in division (B) of this section.108388

       Sec. 5123.0417. (A) The director of developmental 108389
disabilities shall establish one or more programs for individuals 108390
under twenty-two years of age who have intensive behavioral needs, 108391
including such individuals with a primary diagnosis of autism 108392
spectrum disorder. The programs may include one or more medicaid 108393
waiver components that the director administers pursuant to 108394
section 5111.8715166.21 of the Revised Code. The programs may do 108395
one or more of the following:108396

        (1) Establish models that incorporate elements common to 108397
effective intervention programs and evidence-based practices in 108398
services for children with intensive behavioral needs;108399

       (2) Design a template for individualized education plans and 108400
individual service plans that provide consistent intervention 108401
programs and evidence-based practices for the care and treatment 108402
of children with intensive behavioral needs;108403

        (3) Disseminate best practice guidelines for use by families 108404
of children with intensive behavioral needs and professionals 108405
working with such families;108406

       (4) Develop a transition planning model for effectively 108407
mainstreaming school-age children with intensive behavioral needs 108408
to their public school district;108409

        (5) Contribute to the field of early and effective 108410
identification and intervention programs for children with 108411
intensive behavioral needs by providing financial support for 108412
scholarly research and publication of clinical findings.108413

        (B) The director of developmental disabilities shall 108414
collaborate with the medicaid director of job and family services108415
and consult with the executive director of the Ohio center for 108416
autism and low incidence and university-based programs that 108417
specialize in services for individuals with developmental 108418
disabilities when establishing programs under this section.108419

       Sec. 5123.09.  Subject to the rules of the department of 108420
developmental disabilities, each institution under the 108421
jurisdiction of the department shall be under the control of a 108422
managing officer to be known as a superintendent or by other 108423
appropriate title. The managing officer shall be appointed by the 108424
director of developmental disabilities and shall be in the 108425
unclassified service and serve at the pleasure of the director. 108426
Each managing officer shall be of good moral character and have 108427
skill, ability, and experience in the managing officer's 108428
profession. Appointment to the position of managing officer of an 108429
institution may be made from persons holding positions in the 108430
classified service in the department.108431

       The managing officer, under the director, shall have entire 108432
executive charge of the institution for which the managing officer 108433
is appointed, except as provided in section 5119.165119.44 of the 108434
Revised Code. Subject to civil service rules and rules adopted by 108435
the department, the managing officer shall appoint the necessary 108436
employees, and the managing officer or the director may remove 108437
those employees for cause. A report of all appointments, 108438
resignations, and discharges shall be filed with the appropriate 108439
division at the close of each month.108440

       After conference with the managing officer of each 108441
institution, the director shall determine the number of employees 108442
to be appointed to the various institutions and clinics.108443

       Sec. 5123.171.  As used in this section, "respite care" means 108444
appropriate, short-term, temporary care provided to a mentally 108445
retarded or developmentally disabled person to sustain the family 108446
structure or to meet planned or emergency needs of the family.108447

       The department of developmental disabilities shall provide 108448
respite care services to persons with mental retardation or a 108449
developmental disability for the purpose of promoting 108450
self-sufficiency and normalization, preventing or reducing 108451
inappropriate institutional care, and furthering the unity of the 108452
family by enabling the family to meet the special needs of a 108453
mentally retarded or developmentally disabled person.108454

       In order to be eligible for respite care services under this 108455
section, the mentally retarded or developmentally disabled person 108456
must be in need of habilitation services as defined in section 108457
5126.01 of the Revised Code.108458

       Respite care may be provided in a residential facility 108459
licensed under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code (, including a 108460
residential facility certified as an intermediate care facility 108461
for the mentally retarded under Title XIX of the "Social Security 108462
Act," 79 Stat. 344 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396, et seq., as amended)108463
ICF/IID, and a respite care home certified under section 5126.05 108464
of the Revised Code.108465

       The department shall develop a system for locating vacant 108466
beds that are available for respite care and for making 108467
information on vacant beds available to users of respite care 108468
services. Facilities certified as intermediate care facilities for 108469
the mentally retardedICFs/IID shall report vacant beds to the 108470
department but shall not be required to accept respite care 108471
clients.108472

       The director of developmental disabilities shall adopt, and 108473
may amend or rescind, rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 108474
Revised Code for both of the following:108475

       (A) Certification by county boards of developmental 108476
disabilities of respite care homes;108477

       (B) Provision of respite care services authorized by this 108478
section. Rules adopted under this division shall establish all of 108479
the following:108480

       (1) A formula for distributing funds appropriated for respite 108481
care services;108482

       (2) Standards for supervision, training and quality control 108483
in the provision of respite care services;108484

       (3) Eligibility criteria for emergency respite care services.108485

       Sec. 5123.19.  (A) As used in sections 5123.19 to 5123.20 of 108486
the Revised Code:108487

       (1) "Independent living arrangement" means an arrangement in 108488
which a mentally retarded or developmentally disabled person 108489
resides in an individualized setting chosen by the person or the 108490
person's guardian, which is not dedicated principally to the 108491
provision of residential services for mentally retarded or 108492
developmentally disabled persons, and for which no financial 108493
support is received for rendering such service from any 108494
governmental agency by a provider of residential services.108495

        (2) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 108496
has the same meaning as in section 1905(d) of the "Social Security 108497
Act," 101 Stat. 1330-204 (1987), 42 U.S.C. 1396d(d), as amended.108498

        (3) "Licensee" means the person or government agency that has 108499
applied for a license to operate a residential facility and to 108500
which the license was issued under this section.108501

       (4)(3) "Political subdivision" means a municipal corporation, 108502
county, or township.108503

       (5)(4) "Related party" has the same meaning as in section 108504
5123.16 of the Revised Code except that "provider" as used in the 108505
definition of "related party" means a person or government entity 108506
that held or applied for a license to operate a residential 108507
facility, rather than a person or government entity certified to 108508
provide supported living.108509

       (6)(5)(a) Except as provided in division (A)(6)(5)(b) of this 108510
section, "residential facility" means a home or facility, 108511
including a facility certified as an intermediate care facility 108512
for the mentally retardedan ICF/IID, in which an individual with 108513
mental retardation or a developmental disability resides.108514

        (b) "Residential facility" does not mean any of the 108515
following:108516

        (i) The home of a relative or legal guardian in which an 108517
individual with mental retardation or a developmental disability 108518
resides;108519

        (ii) A respite care home certified under section 5126.05 of 108520
the Revised Code;108521

        (iii) A county home or district home operated pursuant to 108522
Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;108523

        (iv) A dwelling in which the only residents with mental 108524
retardation or developmental disabilities are in independent 108525
living arrangements or are being provided supported living.108526

       (B) Every person or government agency desiring to operate a 108527
residential facility shall apply for licensure of the facility to 108528
the director of developmental disabilities unless the residential 108529
facility is subject to section 3721.02, 5103.03, 5119.205119.33, 108530
or division (A)(9)(b) of section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised 108531
Code. 108532

       (C) Subject to section 5123.196 of the Revised Code, the 108533
director of developmental disabilities shall license the operation 108534
of residential facilities. An initial license shall be issued for 108535
a period that does not exceed one year, unless the director denies 108536
the license under division (D) of this section. A license shall be 108537
renewed for a period that does not exceed three years, unless the 108538
director refuses to renew the license under division (D) of this 108539
section. The director, when issuing or renewing a license, shall 108540
specify the period for which the license is being issued or 108541
renewed. A license remains valid for the length of the licensing 108542
period specified by the director, unless the license is 108543
terminated, revoked, or voluntarily surrendered.108544

       (D) If it is determined that an applicant or licensee is not 108545
in compliance with a provision of this chapter that applies to 108546
residential facilities or the rules adopted under such a 108547
provision, the director may deny issuance of a license, refuse to 108548
renew a license, terminate a license, revoke a license, issue an 108549
order for the suspension of admissions to a facility, issue an 108550
order for the placement of a monitor at a facility, issue an order 108551
for the immediate removal of residents, or take any other action 108552
the director considers necessary consistent with the director's 108553
authority under this chapter regarding residential facilities. In 108554
the director's selection and administration of the sanction to be 108555
imposed, all of the following apply:108556

       (1) The director may deny, refuse to renew, or revoke a 108557
license, if the director determines that the applicant or licensee 108558
has demonstrated a pattern of serious noncompliance or that a 108559
violation creates a substantial risk to the health and safety of 108560
residents of a residential facility.108561

       (2) The director may terminate a license if more than twelve 108562
consecutive months have elapsed since the residential facility was 108563
last occupied by a resident or a notice required by division (K) 108564
of this section is not given.108565

       (3) The director may issue an order for the suspension of 108566
admissions to a facility for any violation that may result in 108567
sanctions under division (D)(1) of this section and for any other 108568
violation specified in rules adopted under division (H)(2) of this 108569
section. If the suspension of admissions is imposed for a 108570
violation that may result in sanctions under division (D)(1) of 108571
this section, the director may impose the suspension before 108572
providing an opportunity for an adjudication under Chapter 119. of 108573
the Revised Code. The director shall lift an order for the 108574
suspension of admissions when the director determines that the 108575
violation that formed the basis for the order has been corrected.108576

       (4) The director may order the placement of a monitor at a 108577
residential facility for any violation specified in rules adopted 108578
under division (H)(2) of this section. The director shall lift the 108579
order when the director determines that the violation that formed 108580
the basis for the order has been corrected.108581

       (5) If the director determines that two or more residential 108582
facilities owned or operated by the same person or government 108583
entity are not being operated in compliance with a provision of 108584
this chapter that applies to residential facilities or the rules 108585
adopted under such a provision, and the director's findings are 108586
based on the same or a substantially similar action, practice, 108587
circumstance, or incident that creates a substantial risk to the 108588
health and safety of the residents, the director shall conduct a 108589
survey as soon as practicable at each residential facility owned 108590
or operated by that person or government entity. The director may 108591
take any action authorized by this section with respect to any 108592
facility found to be operating in violation of a provision of this 108593
chapter that applies to residential facilities or the rules 108594
adopted under such a provision.108595

       (6) When the director initiates license revocation 108596
proceedings, no opportunity for submitting a plan of correction 108597
shall be given. The director shall notify the licensee by letter 108598
of the initiation of the proceedings. The letter shall list the 108599
deficiencies of the residential facility and inform the licensee 108600
that no plan of correction will be accepted. The director shall 108601
also send a copy of the letter to the county board of 108602
developmental disabilities. The county board shall send a copy of 108603
the letter to each of the following:108604

        (a) Each resident who receives services from the licensee;108605

        (b) The guardian of each resident who receives services from 108606
the licensee if the resident has a guardian;108607

        (c) The parent or guardian of each resident who receives 108608
services from the licensee if the resident is a minor.108609

       (7) Pursuant to rules which shall be adopted in accordance 108610
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the director may order the 108611
immediate removal of residents from a residential facility 108612
whenever conditions at the facility present an immediate danger of 108613
physical or psychological harm to the residents.108614

       (8) In determining whether a residential facility is being 108615
operated in compliance with a provision of this chapter that 108616
applies to residential facilities or the rules adopted under such 108617
a provision, or whether conditions at a residential facility 108618
present an immediate danger of physical or psychological harm to 108619
the residents, the director may rely on information obtained by a 108620
county board of developmental disabilities or other governmental 108621
agencies.108622

       (9) In proceedings initiated to deny, refuse to renew, or 108623
revoke licenses, the director may deny, refuse to renew, or revoke 108624
a license regardless of whether some or all of the deficiencies 108625
that prompted the proceedings have been corrected at the time of 108626
the hearing.108627

       (E) The director shall establish a program under which public 108628
notification may be made when the director has initiated license 108629
revocation proceedings or has issued an order for the suspension 108630
of admissions, placement of a monitor, or removal of residents. 108631
The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of 108632
the Revised Code to implement this division. The rules shall 108633
establish the procedures by which the public notification will be 108634
made and specify the circumstances for which the notification must 108635
be made. The rules shall require that public notification be made 108636
if the director has taken action against the facility in the 108637
eighteen-month period immediately preceding the director's latest 108638
action against the facility and the latest action is being taken 108639
for the same or a substantially similar violation of a provision 108640
of this chapter that applies to residential facilities or the 108641
rules adopted under such a provision. The rules shall specify a 108642
method for removing or amending the public notification if the 108643
director's action is found to have been unjustified or the 108644
violation at the residential facility has been corrected.108645

       (F)(1) Except as provided in division (F)(2) of this section, 108646
appeals from proceedings initiated to impose a sanction under 108647
division (D) of this section shall be conducted in accordance with 108648
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.108649

       (2) Appeals from proceedings initiated to order the 108650
suspension of admissions to a facility shall be conducted in 108651
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, unless the order 108652
was issued before providing an opportunity for an adjudication, in 108653
which case all of the following apply:108654

       (a) The licensee may request a hearing not later than ten 108655
days after receiving the notice specified in section 119.07 of the 108656
Revised Code.108657

       (b) If a timely request for a hearing that includes the 108658
licensee's current address is made, the hearing shall commence not 108659
later than thirty days after the department receives the request.108660

       (c) After commencing, the hearing shall continue 108661
uninterrupted, except for Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays, 108662
unless other interruptions are agreed to by the licensee and the 108663
director.108664

       (d) If the hearing is conducted by a hearing examiner, the 108665
hearing examiner shall file a report and recommendations not later 108666
than ten days after the last of the following:108667

       (i) The close of the hearing;108668

       (ii) If a transcript of the proceedings is ordered, the 108669
hearing examiner receives the transcript;108670

        (iii) If post-hearing briefs are timely filed, the hearing 108671
examiner receives the briefs.108672

       (e) A copy of the written report and recommendation of the 108673
hearing examiner shall be sent, by certified mail, to the licensee 108674
and the licensee's attorney, if applicable, not later than five 108675
days after the report is filed.108676

        (f) Not later than five days after the hearing examiner files 108677
the report and recommendations, the licensee may file objections 108678
to the report and recommendations.108679

       (g) Not later than fifteen days after the hearing examiner 108680
files the report and recommendations, the director shall issue an 108681
order approving, modifying, or disapproving the report and 108682
recommendations.108683

       (h) Notwithstanding the pendency of the hearing, the director 108684
shall lift the order for the suspension of admissions when the 108685
director determines that the violation that formed the basis for 108686
the order has been corrected.108687

       (G) Neither a person or government agency whose application 108688
for a license to operate a residential facility is denied nor a 108689
related party of the person or government agency may apply for a 108690
license to operate a residential facility before the date that is 108691
one year after the date of the denial. Neither a licensee whose 108692
residential facility license is revoked nor a related party of the 108693
licensee may apply for a residential facility license before the 108694
date that is five years after the date of the revocation.108695

        (H) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 108696
director shall adopt and may amend and rescind rules for licensing 108697
and regulating the operation of residential facilities. The rules 108698
for residential facilities that are intermediate care facilities 108699
for the mentally retardedICFs/IID may differ from those for other 108700
residential facilities. The rules shall establish and specify the 108701
following:108702

       (1) Procedures and criteria for issuing and renewing 108703
licenses, including procedures and criteria for determining the 108704
length of the licensing period that the director must specify for 108705
each license when it is issued or renewed;108706

       (2) Procedures and criteria for denying, refusing to renew, 108707
terminating, and revoking licenses and for ordering the suspension 108708
of admissions to a facility, placement of a monitor at a facility, 108709
and the immediate removal of residents from a facility;108710

       (3) Fees for issuing and renewing licenses, which shall be 108711
deposited into the program fee fund created under section 5123.033 108712
of the Revised Code;108713

       (4) Procedures for surveying residential facilities;108714

       (5) Requirements for the training of residential facility 108715
personnel;108716

       (6) Classifications for the various types of residential 108717
facilities;108718

       (7) Certification procedures for licensees and management 108719
contractors that the director determines are necessary to ensure 108720
that they have the skills and qualifications to properly operate 108721
or manage residential facilities;108722

       (8) The maximum number of persons who may be served in a 108723
particular type of residential facility;108724

       (9) Uniform procedures for admission of persons to and 108725
transfers and discharges of persons from residential facilities;108726

       (10) Other standards for the operation of residential 108727
facilities and the services provided at residential facilities;108728

       (11) Procedures for waiving any provision of any rule adopted 108729
under this section.108730

       (I) Before issuing a license, the director of the department 108731
or the director's designee shall conduct a survey of the 108732
residential facility for which application is made. The director 108733
or the director's designee shall conduct a survey of each licensed 108734
residential facility at least once during the period the license 108735
is valid and may conduct additional inspections as needed. A 108736
survey includes but is not limited to an on-site examination and 108737
evaluation of the residential facility, its personnel, and the 108738
services provided there.108739

       In conducting surveys, the director or the director's 108740
designee shall be given access to the residential facility; all 108741
records, accounts, and any other documents related to the 108742
operation of the facility; the licensee; the residents of the 108743
facility; and all persons acting on behalf of, under the control 108744
of, or in connection with the licensee. The licensee and all 108745
persons on behalf of, under the control of, or in connection with 108746
the licensee shall cooperate with the director or the director's 108747
designee in conducting the survey.108748

       Following each survey, unless the director initiates a 108749
license revocation proceeding, the director or the director's 108750
designee shall provide the licensee with a report listing any 108751
deficiencies, specifying a timetable within which the licensee 108752
shall submit a plan of correction describing how the deficiencies 108753
will be corrected, and, when appropriate, specifying a timetable 108754
within which the licensee must correct the deficiencies. After a 108755
plan of correction is submitted, the director or the director's 108756
designee shall approve or disapprove the plan. A copy of the 108757
report and any approved plan of correction shall be provided to 108758
any person who requests it.108759

       The director shall initiate disciplinary action against any 108760
department employee who notifies or causes the notification to any 108761
unauthorized person of an unannounced survey of a residential 108762
facility by an authorized representative of the department.108763

       (J) In addition to any other information which may be 108764
required of applicants for a license pursuant to this section, the 108765
director shall require each applicant to provide a copy of an 108766
approved plan for a proposed residential facility pursuant to 108767
section 5123.042 of the Revised Code. This division does not apply 108768
to renewal of a license or to an applicant for an initial or 108769
modified license who meets the requirements of section 5123.197 of 108770
the Revised Code.108771

       (K) A licensee shall notify the owner of the building in 108772
which the licensee's residential facility is located of any 108773
significant change in the identity of the licensee or management 108774
contractor before the effective date of the change if the licensee 108775
is not the owner of the building.108776

       Pursuant to rules which shall be adopted in accordance with 108777
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the director may require 108778
notification to the department of any significant change in the 108779
ownership of a residential facility or in the identity of the 108780
licensee or management contractor. If the director determines that 108781
a significant change of ownership is proposed, the director shall 108782
consider the proposed change to be an application for development 108783
by a new operator pursuant to section 5123.042 of the Revised Code 108784
and shall advise the applicant within sixty days of the 108785
notification that the current license shall continue in effect or 108786
a new license will be required pursuant to this section. If the 108787
director requires a new license, the director shall permit the 108788
facility to continue to operate under the current license until 108789
the new license is issued, unless the current license is revoked, 108790
refused to be renewed, or terminated in accordance with Chapter 108791
119. of the Revised Code.108792

       (L) A county board of developmental disabilities and any 108793
interested person may file complaints alleging violations of 108794
statute or department rule relating to residential facilities with 108795
the department. All complaints shall be in writing and shall state 108796
the facts constituting the basis of the allegation. The department 108797
shall not reveal the source of any complaint unless the 108798
complainant agrees in writing to waive the right to 108799
confidentiality or until so ordered by a court of competent 108800
jurisdiction.108801

       The department shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 108802
119. of the Revised Code establishing procedures for the receipt, 108803
referral, investigation, and disposition of complaints filed with 108804
the department under this division.108805

       (M) The department shall establish procedures for the 108806
notification of interested parties of the transfer or interim care 108807
of residents from residential facilities that are closing or are 108808
losing their license.108809

       (N) Before issuing a license under this section to a 108810
residential facility that will accommodate at any time more than 108811
one mentally retarded or developmentally disabled individual, the 108812
director shall, by first class mail, notify the following:108813

       (1) If the facility will be located in a municipal 108814
corporation, the clerk of the legislative authority of the 108815
municipal corporation;108816

       (2) If the facility will be located in unincorporated 108817
territory, the clerk of the appropriate board of county 108818
commissioners and the fiscal officer of the appropriate board of 108819
township trustees.108820

       The director shall not issue the license for ten days after 108821
mailing the notice, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal 108822
holidays, in order to give the notified local officials time in 108823
which to comment on the proposed issuance.108824

       Any legislative authority of a municipal corporation, board 108825
of county commissioners, or board of township trustees that 108826
receives notice under this division of the proposed issuance of a 108827
license for a residential facility may comment on it in writing to 108828
the director within ten days after the director mailed the notice, 108829
excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays. If the director 108830
receives written comments from any notified officials within the 108831
specified time, the director shall make written findings 108832
concerning the comments and the director's decision on the 108833
issuance of the license. If the director does not receive written 108834
comments from any notified local officials within the specified 108835
time, the director shall continue the process for issuance of the 108836
license.108837

       (O) Any person may operate a licensed residential facility 108838
that provides room and board, personal care, habilitation 108839
services, and supervision in a family setting for at least six but 108840
not more than eight persons with mental retardation or a 108841
developmental disability as a permitted use in any residential 108842
district or zone, including any single-family residential district 108843
or zone, of any political subdivision. These residential 108844
facilities may be required to comply with area, height, yard, and 108845
architectural compatibility requirements that are uniformly 108846
imposed upon all single-family residences within the district or 108847
zone.108848

       (P) Any person may operate a licensed residential facility 108849
that provides room and board, personal care, habilitation 108850
services, and supervision in a family setting for at least nine 108851
but not more than sixteen persons with mental retardation or a 108852
developmental disability as a permitted use in any multiple-family 108853
residential district or zone of any political subdivision, except 108854
that a political subdivision that has enacted a zoning ordinance 108855
or resolution establishing planned unit development districts may 108856
exclude these residential facilities from those districts, and a 108857
political subdivision that has enacted a zoning ordinance or 108858
resolution may regulate these residential facilities in 108859
multiple-family residential districts or zones as a conditionally 108860
permitted use or special exception, in either case, under 108861
reasonable and specific standards and conditions set out in the 108862
zoning ordinance or resolution to:108863

       (1) Require the architectural design and site layout of the 108864
residential facility and the location, nature, and height of any 108865
walls, screens, and fences to be compatible with adjoining land 108866
uses and the residential character of the neighborhood;108867

       (2) Require compliance with yard, parking, and sign 108868
regulation;108869

       (3) Limit excessive concentration of these residential 108870
facilities.108871

       (Q) This section does not prohibit a political subdivision 108872
from applying to residential facilities nondiscriminatory 108873
regulations requiring compliance with health, fire, and safety 108874
regulations and building standards and regulations.108875

       (R) Divisions (O) and (P) of this section are not applicable 108876
to municipal corporations that had in effect on June 15, 1977, an 108877
ordinance specifically permitting in residential zones licensed 108878
residential facilities by means of permitted uses, conditional 108879
uses, or special exception, so long as such ordinance remains in 108880
effect without any substantive modification.108881

       (S)(1) The director may issue an interim license to operate a 108882
residential facility to an applicant for a license under this 108883
section if either of the following is the case:108884

       (a) The director determines that an emergency exists 108885
requiring immediate placement of persons in a residential 108886
facility, that insufficient licensed beds are available, and that 108887
the residential facility is likely to receive a permanent license 108888
under this section within thirty days after issuance of the 108889
interim license.108890

       (b) The director determines that the issuance of an interim 108891
license is necessary to meet a temporary need for a residential 108892
facility.108893

       (2) To be eligible to receive an interim license, an 108894
applicant must meet the same criteria that must be met to receive 108895
a permanent license under this section, except for any differing 108896
procedures and time frames that may apply to issuance of a 108897
permanent license.108898

       (3) An interim license shall be valid for thirty days and may 108899
be renewed by the director for a period not to exceed one hundred 108900
fifty days.108901

       (4) The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 108902
119. of the Revised Code as the director considers necessary to 108903
administer the issuance of interim licenses.108904

       (T) Notwithstanding rules adopted pursuant to this section 108905
establishing the maximum number of persons who may be served in a 108906
particular type of residential facility, a residential facility 108907
shall be permitted to serve the same number of persons being 108908
served by the facility on the effective date of the rules or the 108909
number of persons for which the facility is authorized pursuant to 108910
a current application for a certificate of need with a letter of 108911
support from the department of developmental disabilities and 108912
which is in the review process prior to April 4, 1986.108913

       (U) The director or the director's designee may enter at any 108914
time, for purposes of investigation, any home, facility, or other 108915
structure that has been reported to the director or that the 108916
director has reasonable cause to believe is being operated as a 108917
residential facility without a license issued under this section.108918

       The director may petition the court of common pleas of the 108919
county in which an unlicensed residential facility is located for 108920
an order enjoining the person or governmental agency operating the 108921
facility from continuing to operate without a license. The court 108922
may grant the injunction on a showing that the person or 108923
governmental agency named in the petition is operating a 108924
residential facility without a license. The court may grant the 108925
injunction, regardless of whether the residential facility meets 108926
the requirements for receiving a license under this section.108927

       Sec. 5123.192. (A) A person or government agency operating, 108928
on the effective date of this sectionSeptember 10, 2012, an 108929
intermediate care facility for the mentally retardedICF/IID108930
pursuant to a nursing home license issued under Chapter 3721. of 108931
the Revised Code shall do both of the following as a condition of 108932
continuing to operate the facilityICF/IID on and after July 1, 108933
2013:108934

        (1) Not later than February 1, 2013, apply to the director of 108935
developmental disabilities for a residential facility license 108936
under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code for the facility108937
ICF/IID;108938

        (2) Not later than July 1, 2013, obtain the residential 108939
facility license for the facilityICF/IID.108940

        (B) The nursing home license of an intermediate care facility 108941
for the mentally retardedICF/IID shall cease to be valid at the 108942
earliest of the following:108943

        (1) The date that the facility'sICF/IID's nursing home 108944
license is revoked or voided under section 3721.07 of the Revised 108945
Code;108946

        (2) The date that a residential facility license is obtained 108947
for the facilityICF/IID under section 5123.19 of the Revised 108948
Code;108949

        (3) July 1, 2013.108950

        (C) Except for existing nursing home beds not certified as 108951
intermediate care facility for the mentally retardedICF/IID beds 108952
and relocated in accordance with a move authorized by a 108953
certificate of need under Chapter 3702. of the Revised Code, no 108954
bed that is part of an intermediate care facility for the mentally 108955
retardedICF/IID that is licensed as a nursing home on the 108956
effective date of this sectionSeptember 10, 2012, may be used as 108957
part of a nursing home on and after the earlier of the following:108958

        (1) The date that a residential facility license is obtained 108959
for the facilityICF/IID under section 5123.19 of the Revised 108960
Code;108961

        (2) July 1, 2013.108962

       Sec. 5123.197.  Neither an applicant for an initial 108963
residential facility license under section 5123.19 of the Revised 108964
Code nor an applicant for a modification of an existing 108965
residential facility license under that section is required to 108966
obtain approval of a plan for the proposed new residential 108967
facility or modification to the existing residential facility 108968
pursuant to section 5123.042 of the Revised Code if all of the 108969
following apply:108970

       (A) The new residential facility or modification to the 108971
existing residential facility is to serve individuals who have 108972
diagnoses or special care needs for which a medicaid reimbursement108973
payment rate is set pursuant to section 5111.2585124.152 of the 108974
Revised Code;108975

       (B) The directors of job and family servicesmedicaid 108976
director and director of developmental disabilities determine that 108977
there is a need under the medicaid program for the proposed new 108978
residential facility or modification to the existing residential 108979
facility and that approving the application for the initial 108980
residential facility license or modification to the existing 108981
residential facility license is fiscally prudent for the medicaid 108982
program;108983

       (C) The director of budget and management notifies the 108984
directors of job and family servicesmedicaid director and 108985
director of developmental disabilities that the director of budget 108986
and management agrees with the directors' determination under 108987
division (B) of this section.108988

       Sec. 5123.198. (A) As used in this section, "date of the 108989
commitment" means the date that an individual specified in 108990
division (B) of this section begins to reside in a state-operated 108991
intermediate care facility for the mentally retardedICF/IID after 108992
being committed to the facilityICF/IID pursuant to sections 108993
5123.71 to 5123.76 of the Revised Code.108994

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, 108995
whenever a resident of a residential facility is committed to a 108996
state-operated intermediate care facility for the mentally 108997
retardedICF/IID pursuant to sections 5123.71 to 5123.76 of the 108998
Revised Code, the department of developmental disabilities, 108999
pursuant to an adjudication order issued in accordance with 109000
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall reduce by one the number 109001
of residents for which the residential facility in which the 109002
resident resided is licensed. 109003

       (C) The department shall not reduce under division (B) of 109004
this section the number of residents for which a residential 109005
facility is licensed if any of the following are the case:109006

       (1) The resident of the residential facility who is committed 109007
to a state-operated intermediate care facility for the mentally 109008
retardedICF/IID resided in the residential facility because of 109009
the closure, on or after June 26, 2003, of another state-operated 109010
intermediate care facility for the mentally retardedICF/IID;109011

       (2) The residential facility admits within ninety days of the 109012
date of the commitment an individual who resides on the date of 109013
the commitment in a state-operated intermediate care facility for 109014
the mentally retardedICF/IID or another residential facility;109015

       (3) The department fails to do either of the following within 109016
ninety days of the date of the commitment:109017

       (a) Identify an individual to whom all of the following 109018
applies:109019

       (i) Resides on the date of the commitment in a state-operated 109020
intermediate care facility for the mentally retardedICF/IID or 109021
another residential facility;109022

       (ii) Has indicated to the department an interest in 109023
relocating to the residential facility or has a parent or guardian 109024
who has indicated to the department an interest for the individual 109025
to relocate to the residential facility;109026

       (iii) The department determines the individual has needs that 109027
the residential facility can meet.109028

       (b) Provide the residential facility with information about 109029
the individual identified under division (C)(2)(a) of this section 109030
that the residential facility needs in order to determine whether 109031
the facility can meet the individual's needs.109032

       (4) If the department completes the actions specified in 109033
divisions (C)(3)(a) and (b) of this section not later than ninety 109034
days after the date of the commitment and except as provided in 109035
division (D) of this section, the residential facility does all of 109036
the following not later than ninety days after the date of the 109037
commitment:109038

       (a) Evaluates the information provided by the department;109039

       (b) Assesses the identified individual's needs;109040

       (c) Determines that the residential facility cannot meet the 109041
identified individual's needs.109042

       (5) If the department completes the actions specified in 109043
divisions (C)(3)(a) and (b) of this section not later than ninety 109044
days after the date of the commitment and the residential facility 109045
determines that the residential facility can meet the identified 109046
individual's needs, the individual, or a parent or guardian of the 109047
individual, refuses placement in the residential facility.109048

       (D) The department may reduce under division (B) of this 109049
section the number of residents for which a residential facility 109050
is licensed even though the residential facility completes the 109051
actions specified in division (C)(4) of this section not later 109052
than ninety days after the date of the commitment if all of the 109053
following are the case:109054

       (1) The department disagrees with the residential facility's 109055
determination that the residential facility cannot meet the 109056
identified individual's needs.109057

       (2) The department issues a written decision pursuant to the 109058
uniform procedures for admissions, transfers, and discharges 109059
established by rules adopted under division (H)(9) of section 109060
5123.19 of the Revised Code that the residential facility should 109061
admit the identified individual.109062

       (3) After the department issues the written decision 109063
specified in division (D)(2) of this section, the residential 109064
facility refuses to admit the identified individual.109065

       (E) A residential facility that admits, refuses to admit, 109066
transfers, or discharges a resident under this section shall 109067
comply with the uniform procedures for admissions, transfers, and 109068
discharges established by rules adopted under division (H)(9) of 109069
section 5123.19 of the Revised Code.109070

       (F) The department of developmental disabilities may notify 109071
the department of job and family services of any reduction under 109072
this section in the number of residents for which a residential 109073
facility that is an intermediate care facility for the mentally 109074
retarded is licensed. On receiving the notice, the department of 109075
job and family services may transfer to the department of 109076
developmental disabilities the savings in the nonfederal share of 109077
medicaid expenditures for each fiscal year after the year of the 109078
commitment to be used for costs of the resident's care in the 109079
state-operated intermediate care facility for the mentally 109080
retarded. In determining the amount saved, the department of job 109081
and family services shall consider medicaid payments for the 109082
remaining residents of the facility in which the resident resided.109083

       Sec. 5123.38. (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this 109084
section, if an individual receiving supported living or home and 109085
community-based services funded by a county board of developmental 109086
disabilities is committed to a state-operated intermediate care 109087
facility for the mentally retardedICF/IID pursuant to sections 109088
5123.71 to 5123.76 of the Revised Code, the county board is 109089
responsible for the nonfederal share of medicaid expenditures for 109090
the individual's care in the state-operated facilityICF/IID. The 109091
department of developmental disabilities shall collect the amount 109092
of the nonfederal share from the county board by either 109093
withholding that amount from funds the department has otherwise 109094
allocated to the county board or submitting an invoice for payment 109095
of that amount to the county board.109096

       (B) Division (A) of this section does not apply under any of 109097
the following circumstances:109098

       (1) The county board, not later than ninety days after the 109099
date of the commitment of a person receiving supported living, 109100
commences funding of supported living for an individual who 109101
resides in a state-operated intermediate care facility for the 109102
mentally retardedICF/IID on the date of the commitment or another 109103
eligible individual designated by the department.109104

        (2) The county board, not later than ninety days after the 109105
date of the commitment of a person receiving home and 109106
community-based services, commences funding of home and 109107
community-based services for an individual who resides in a 109108
state-operated intermediate care facility for the mentally 109109
retardedICF/IID on the date of the commitment or another eligible 109110
individual designated by the department.109111

       (3) The director of developmental disabilities, after 109112
determining that circumstances warrant granting a waiver in an 109113
individual's case, grants the county board a waiver that exempts 109114
the county board from responsibility for the nonfederal share for 109115
that case.109116

       Sec. 5123.61.  (A) As used in this section:109117

       (1) "Law enforcement agency" means the state highway patrol, 109118
the police department of a municipal corporation, or a county 109119
sheriff.109120

       (2) "Abuse" has the same meaning as in section 5123.50 of the 109121
Revised Code, except that it includes a misappropriation, as 109122
defined in that section.109123

       (3) "Neglect" has the same meaning as in section 5123.50 of 109124
the Revised Code.109125

       (B) The department of developmental disabilities shall 109126
establish a registry office for the purpose of maintaining reports 109127
of abuse, neglect, and other major unusual incidents made to the 109128
department under this section and reports received from county 109129
boards of developmental disabilities under section 5126.31 of the 109130
Revised Code. The department shall establish committees to review 109131
reports of abuse, neglect, and other major unusual incidents.109132

       (C)(1) Any person listed in division (C)(2) of this section, 109133
having reason to believe that a person with mental retardation or 109134
a developmental disability has suffered or faces a substantial 109135
risk of suffering any wound, injury, disability, or condition of 109136
such a nature as to reasonably indicate abuse or neglect of that 109137
person, shall immediately report or cause reports to be made of 109138
such information to the entity specified in this division. Except 109139
as provided in section 5120.173 of the Revised Code or as 109140
otherwise provided in this division, the person making the report 109141
shall make it to a law enforcement agency or to the county board 109142
of developmental disabilities. If the report concerns a resident 109143
of a facility operated by the department of developmental 109144
disabilities the report shall be made either to a law enforcement 109145
agency or to the department. If the report concerns any act or 109146
omission of an employee of a county board of developmental 109147
disabilities, the report immediately shall be made to the 109148
department and to the county board.109149

       (2) All of the following persons are required to make a 109150
report under division (C)(1) of this section:109151

       (a) Any physician, including a hospital intern or resident, 109152
any dentist, podiatrist, chiropractor, practitioner of a limited 109153
branch of medicine as specified in section 4731.15 of the Revised 109154
Code, hospital administrator or employee of a hospital, nurse 109155
licensed under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code, employee of an 109156
ambulatory health facility as defined in section 5101.61 of the 109157
Revised Code, employee of a home health agency, employee of a 109158
residential facility licensed under section 5119.225119.34 of the 109159
Revised Code that provides accommodations, supervision, and person 109160
care services for three to sixteen unrelated adults, or employee 109161
of a community mental health facility;109162

       (b) Any school teacher or school authority, social worker, 109163
psychologist, attorney, peace officer, coroner, or residents' 109164
rights advocate as defined in section 3721.10 of the Revised Code;109165

       (c) A superintendent, board member, or employee of a county 109166
board of developmental disabilities; an administrator, board 109167
member, or employee of a residential facility licensed under 109168
section 5123.19 of the Revised Code; an administrator, board 109169
member, or employee of any other public or private provider of 109170
services to a person with mental retardation or a developmental 109171
disability, or any MR/DD employee, as defined in section 5123.50 109172
of the Revised Code;109173

       (d) A member of a citizen's advisory council established at 109174
an institution or branch institution of the department of 109175
developmental disabilities under section 5123.092 of the Revised 109176
Code;109177

       (e) A member of the clergy who is employed in a position that 109178
includes providing specialized services to an individual with 109179
mental retardation or another developmental disability, while 109180
acting in an official or professional capacity in that position, 109181
or a person who is employed in a position that includes providing 109182
specialized services to an individual with mental retardation or 109183
another developmental disability and who, while acting in an 109184
official or professional capacity, renders spiritual treatment 109185
through prayer in accordance with the tenets of an organized 109186
religion.109187

       (3)(a) The reporting requirements of this division do not 109188
apply to employees of the Ohio protection and advocacy system.109189

       (b) An attorney or physician is not required to make a report 109190
pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section concerning any 109191
communication the attorney or physician receives from a client or 109192
patient in an attorney-client or physician-patient relationship, 109193
if, in accordance with division (A) or (B) of section 2317.02 of 109194
the Revised Code, the attorney or physician could not testify with 109195
respect to that communication in a civil or criminal proceeding, 109196
except that the client or patient is deemed to have waived any 109197
testimonial privilege under division (A) or (B) of section 2317.02 109198
of the Revised Code with respect to that communication and the 109199
attorney or physician shall make a report pursuant to division 109200
(C)(1) of this section, if both of the following apply:109201

       (i) The client or patient, at the time of the communication, 109202
is a person with mental retardation or a developmental disability.109203

       (ii) The attorney or physician knows or suspects, as a result 109204
of the communication or any observations made during that 109205
communication, that the client or patient has suffered or faces a 109206
substantial risk of suffering any wound, injury, disability, or 109207
condition of a nature that reasonably indicates abuse or neglect 109208
of the client or patient.109209

       (4) Any person who fails to make a report required under 109210
division (C) of this section and who is an MR/DD employee, as 109211
defined in section 5123.50 of the Revised Code, shall be eligible 109212
to be included in the registry regarding misappropriation, abuse, 109213
neglect, or other specified misconduct by MR/DD employees 109214
established under section 5123.52 of the Revised Code.109215

       (D) The reports required under division (C) of this section 109216
shall be made forthwith by telephone or in person and shall be 109217
followed by a written report. The reports shall contain the 109218
following:109219

       (1) The names and addresses of the person with mental 109220
retardation or a developmental disability and the person's 109221
custodian, if known;109222

       (2) The age of the person with mental retardation or a 109223
developmental disability;109224

       (3) Any other information that would assist in the 109225
investigation of the report.109226

       (E) When a physician performing services as a member of the 109227
staff of a hospital or similar institution has reason to believe 109228
that a person with mental retardation or a developmental 109229
disability has suffered injury, abuse, or physical neglect, the 109230
physician shall notify the person in charge of the institution or 109231
that person's designated delegate, who shall make the necessary 109232
reports.109233

       (F) Any person having reasonable cause to believe that a 109234
person with mental retardation or a developmental disability has 109235
suffered or faces a substantial risk of suffering abuse or neglect 109236
may report or cause a report to be made of that belief to the 109237
entity specified in this division. Except as provided in section 109238
5120.173 of the Revised Code or as otherwise provided in this 109239
division, the person making the report shall make it to a law 109240
enforcement agency or the county board of developmental 109241
disabilities. If the person is a resident of a facility operated 109242
by the department of developmental disabilities, the report shall 109243
be made to a law enforcement agency or to the department. If the 109244
report concerns any act or omission of an employee of a county 109245
board of developmental disabilities, the report immediately shall 109246
be made to the department and to the county board.109247

       (G)(1) Upon the receipt of a report concerning the possible 109248
abuse or neglect of a person with mental retardation or a 109249
developmental disability, the law enforcement agency shall inform 109250
the county board of developmental disabilities or, if the person 109251
is a resident of a facility operated by the department of 109252
developmental disabilities, the director of the department or the 109253
director's designee.109254

       (2) On receipt of a report under this section that includes 109255
an allegation of action or inaction that may constitute a crime 109256
under federal law or the law of this state, the department of 109257
developmental disabilities shall notify the law enforcement 109258
agency.109259

       (3) When a county board of developmental disabilities 109260
receives a report under this section that includes an allegation 109261
of action or inaction that may constitute a crime under federal 109262
law or the law of this state, the superintendent of the board or 109263
an individual the superintendent designates under division (H) of 109264
this section shall notify the law enforcement agency. The 109265
superintendent or individual shall notify the department of 109266
developmental disabilities when it receives any report under this 109267
section.109268

       (4) When a county board of developmental disabilities 109269
receives a report under this section and believes that the degree 109270
of risk to the person is such that the report is an emergency, the 109271
superintendent of the board or an employee of the board the 109272
superintendent designates shall attempt a face-to-face contact 109273
with the person with mental retardation or a developmental 109274
disability who allegedly is the victim within one hour of the 109275
board's receipt of the report.109276

       (H) The superintendent of the board may designate an 109277
individual to be responsible for notifying the law enforcement 109278
agency and the department when the county board receives a report 109279
under this section.109280

       (I) An adult with mental retardation or a developmental 109281
disability about whom a report is made may be removed from the 109282
adult's place of residence only by law enforcement officers who 109283
consider that the adult's immediate removal is essential to 109284
protect the adult from further injury or abuse or in accordance 109285
with the order of a court made pursuant to section 5126.33 of the 109286
Revised Code.109287

       (J) A law enforcement agency shall investigate each report of 109288
abuse or neglect it receives under this section. In addition, the 109289
department, in cooperation with law enforcement officials, shall 109290
investigate each report regarding a resident of a facility 109291
operated by the department to determine the circumstances 109292
surrounding the injury, the cause of the injury, and the person 109293
responsible. The investigation shall be in accordance with the 109294
memorandum of understanding prepared under section 5126.058 of the 109295
Revised Code. The department shall determine, with the registry 109296
office which shall be maintained by the department, whether prior 109297
reports have been made concerning an adult with mental retardation 109298
or a developmental disability or other principals in the case. If 109299
the department finds that the report involves action or inaction 109300
that may constitute a crime under federal law or the law of this 109301
state, it shall submit a report of its investigation, in writing, 109302
to the law enforcement agency. If the person with mental 109303
retardation or a developmental disability is an adult, with the 109304
consent of the adult, the department shall provide such protective 109305
services as are necessary to protect the adult. The law 109306
enforcement agency shall make a written report of its findings to 109307
the department.109308

       If the person is an adult and is not a resident of a facility 109309
operated by the department, the county board of developmental 109310
disabilities shall review the report of abuse or neglect in 109311
accordance with sections 5126.30 to 5126.33 of the Revised Code 109312
and the law enforcement agency shall make the written report of 109313
its findings to the county board.109314

       (K) Any person or any hospital, institution, school, health 109315
department, or agency participating in the making of reports 109316
pursuant to this section, any person participating as a witness in 109317
an administrative or judicial proceeding resulting from the 109318
reports, or any person or governmental entity that discharges 109319
responsibilities under sections 5126.31 to 5126.33 of the Revised 109320
Code shall be immune from any civil or criminal liability that 109321
might otherwise be incurred or imposed as a result of such actions 109322
except liability for perjury, unless the person or governmental 109323
entity has acted in bad faith or with malicious purpose.109324

       (L) No employer or any person with the authority to do so 109325
shall discharge, demote, transfer, prepare a negative work 109326
performance evaluation, reduce pay or benefits, terminate work 109327
privileges, or take any other action detrimental to an employee or 109328
retaliate against an employee as a result of the employee's having 109329
made a report under this section. This division does not preclude 109330
an employer or person with authority from taking action with 109331
regard to an employee who has made a report under this section if 109332
there is another reasonable basis for the action.109333

       (M) Reports made under this section are not public records as 109334
defined in section 149.43 of the Revised Code. Information 109335
contained in the reports on request shall be made available to the 109336
person who is the subject of the report, to the person's legal 109337
counsel, and to agencies authorized to receive information in the 109338
report by the department or by a county board of developmental 109339
disabilities.109340

       (N) Notwithstanding section 4731.22 of the Revised Code, the 109341
physician-patient privilege shall not be a ground for excluding 109342
evidence regarding the injuries or physical neglect of a person 109343
with mental retardation or a developmental disability or the cause 109344
thereof in any judicial proceeding resulting from a report 109345
submitted pursuant to this section.109346

       Sec. 5123.86.  (A) Except as provided in divisions (C), (D), 109347
(E), and (F) of this section, the chief medical officer shall 109348
provide all information, including expected physical and medical 109349
consequences, necessary to enable any resident of an institution 109350
for the mentally retarded to give a fully informed, intelligent, 109351
and knowing consent if any of the following procedures are 109352
proposed:109353

       (1) Surgery;109354

       (2) Convulsive therapy;109355

       (3) Major aversive interventions;109356

       (4) Sterilization;109357

       (5) Experimental procedures;109358

       (6) Any unusual or hazardous treatment procedures.109359

       (B) No resident shall be subjected to any of the procedures 109360
listed in division (A)(4), (5), or (6) of this section without the 109361
resident's informed consent.109362

       (C) If a resident is physically or mentally unable to receive 109363
the information required for surgery under division (A)(1) of this 109364
section, or has been adjudicated incompetent, the information may 109365
be provided to the resident's natural or court-appointed guardian, 109366
including an agency providing guardianship services under contract 109367
with the department of developmental disabilities under sections 109368
5123.55 to 5123.59 of the Revised Code, who may give the informed, 109369
intelligent, and knowing written consent for surgery. Consent for 109370
surgery shall not be provided by a guardian who is an officer or 109371
employee of the department of mental healthmental health and 109372
addiction services or the department of developmental 109373
disabilities.109374

       If a resident is physically or mentally unable to receive the 109375
information required for surgery under division (A)(1) of this 109376
section and has no guardian, then the information, the 109377
recommendation of the chief medical officer, and the concurring 109378
judgment of a licensed physician who is not a full-time employee 109379
of the state may be provided to the court in the county in which 109380
the institution is located, which may approve the surgery. Before 109381
approving the surgery, the court shall notify the Ohio protection 109382
and advocacy system created by section 5123.60 of the Revised 109383
Code, and shall notify the resident of the resident's rights to 109384
consult with counsel, to have counsel appointed by the court if 109385
the resident is indigent, and to contest the recommendation of the 109386
chief medical officer.109387

       (D) If, in the judgment of two licensed physicians, delay in 109388
obtaining consent for surgery would create a grave danger to the 109389
health of a resident, emergency surgery may be performed without 109390
the consent of the resident if the necessary information is 109391
provided to the resident's guardian, including an agency providing 109392
guardianship services under contract with the department of 109393
developmental disabilities under sections 5123.55 to 5123.59 of 109394
the Revised Code, or to the resident's spouse or next of kin to 109395
enable that person or agency to give an informed, intelligent, and 109396
knowing written consent.109397

       If the guardian, spouse, or next of kin cannot be contacted 109398
through exercise of reasonable diligence, or if the guardian, 109399
spouse, or next of kin is contacted, but refuses to consent, then 109400
the emergency surgery may be performed upon the written 109401
authorization of the chief medical officer and after court 109402
approval has been obtained. However, if delay in obtaining court 109403
approval would create a grave danger to the life of the resident, 109404
the chief medical officer may authorize surgery, in writing, 109405
without court approval. If the surgery is authorized without court 109406
approval, the chief medical officer who made the authorization and 109407
the physician who performed the surgery shall each execute an 109408
affidavit describing the circumstances constituting the emergency 109409
and warranting the surgery and the circumstances warranting their 109410
not obtaining prior court approval. The affidavit shall be filed 109411
with the court with which the request for prior approval would 109412
have been filed within five court days after the surgery, and a 109413
copy of the affidavit shall be placed in the resident's file and 109414
shall be given to the guardian, spouse, or next of kin of the 109415
resident, to the hospital at which the surgery was performed, and 109416
to the Ohio protection and advocacy system created by section 109417
5123.60 of the Revised Code.109418

       (E)(1) If it is the judgment of two licensed physicians, as 109419
described in division (E)(2) of this section, that a medical 109420
emergency exists and delay in obtaining convulsive therapy creates 109421
a grave danger to the life of a resident who is both mentally 109422
retarded and mentally ill, convulsive therapy may be administered 109423
without the consent of the resident if the resident is physically 109424
or mentally unable to receive the information required for 109425
convulsive therapy and if the necessary information is provided to 109426
the resident's natural or court-appointed guardian, including an 109427
agency providing guardianship services under contract with the 109428
department of developmental disabilities under sections 5123.55 to 109429
5123.59 of the Revised Code, or to the resident's spouse or next 109430
of kin to enable that person or agency to give an informed, 109431
intelligent, and knowing written consent. If neither the 109432
resident's guardian, spouse, nor next of kin can be contacted 109433
through exercise of reasonable diligence, or if the guardian, 109434
spouse, or next of kin is contacted, but refuses to consent, then 109435
convulsive therapy may be performed upon the written authorization 109436
of the chief medical officer and after court approval has been 109437
obtained.109438

       (2) The two licensed physicians referred to in division 109439
(E)(1) of this section shall not be associated with each other in 109440
the practice of medicine or surgery by means of a partnership or 109441
corporate arrangement, other business arrangement, or employment. 109442
At least one of the physicians shall be a psychiatrist as defined 109443
in division (E) of section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.109444

       (F) Major aversive interventions shall not be used unless a 109445
resident continues to engage in behavior destructive to self or 109446
others after other forms of therapy have been attempted. Major 109447
aversive interventions shall not be applied to a voluntary 109448
resident without the informed, intelligent, and knowing written 109449
consent of the resident or the resident's guardian, including an 109450
agency providing guardianship services under contract with the 109451
department of developmental disabilities under sections 5123.55 to 109452
5123.59 of the Revised Code.109453

       (G)(1) This chapter does not authorize any form of compulsory 109454
medical or psychiatric treatment of any resident who is being 109455
treated by spiritual means through prayer alone in accordance with 109456
a recognized religious method of healing.109457

       (2) For purposes of this section, "convulsive therapy" does 109458
not include defibrillation.109459

       Sec. 5124.01.  As used in this chapter:109460

       (A) "Affiliated operator" means an operator affiliated with 109461
either of the following:109462

       (1) The exiting operator for whom the affiliated operator is 109463
to assume liability for the entire amount of the exiting 109464
operator's debt under the medicaid program or the portion of the 109465
debt that represents the franchise permit fee the exiting operator 109466
owes;109467

       (2) The entering operator involved in the change of operator 109468
with the exiting operator specified in division (A)(1) of this 109469
section.109470

       (B) "Allowable costs" means an ICF/IID's costs that the 109471
department of developmental disabilities determines are 109472
reasonable. Fines paid under section 5124.99 of the Revised Code 109473
are not allowable costs.109474

       (C) "Capital costs" means an ICF/IID's costs of ownership and 109475
costs of nonextensive renovation.109476

       (D) "Case-mix score" means the measure determined under 109477
section 5124.192 of the Revised Code of the relative direct-care 109478
resources needed to provide care and habilitation to an ICF/IID 109479
resident.109480

       (E) "Change of operator" means an entering operator becoming 109481
the operator of an ICF/IID in the place of the exiting operator.109482

       (1) Actions that constitute a change of operator include the 109483
following:109484

       (a) A change in an exiting operator's form of legal 109485
organization, including the formation of a partnership or 109486
corporation from a sole proprietorship;109487

       (b) A transfer of all the exiting operator's ownership 109488
interest in the operation of the ICF/IID to the entering operator, 109489
regardless of whether ownership of any or all of the real property 109490
or personal property associated with the ICF/IID is also 109491
transferred;109492

       (c) A lease of the ICF/IID to the entering operator or the 109493
exiting operator's termination of the exiting operator's lease;109494

       (d) If the exiting operator is a partnership, dissolution of 109495
the partnership;109496

       (e) If the exiting operator is a partnership, a change in 109497
composition of the partnership unless both of the following apply:109498

       (i) The change in composition does not cause the 109499
partnership's dissolution under state law.109500

       (ii) The partners agree that the change in composition does 109501
not constitute a change in operator.109502

       (f) If the operator is a corporation, dissolution of the 109503
corporation, a merger of the corporation into another corporation 109504
that is the survivor of the merger, or a consolidation of one or 109505
more other corporations to form a new corporation.109506

       (2) The following, alone, do not constitute a change of 109507
operator:109508

       (a) A contract for an entity to manage an ICF/IID as the 109509
operator's agent, subject to the operator's approval of daily 109510
operating and management decisions;109511

       (b) A change of ownership, lease, or termination of a lease 109512
of real property or personal property associated with an ICF/IID 109513
if an entering operator does not become the operator in place of 109514
an exiting operator;109515

       (c) If the operator is a corporation, a change of one or more 109516
members of the corporation's governing body or transfer of 109517
ownership of one or more shares of the corporation's stock, if the 109518
same corporation continues to be the operator.109519

       (F) "Cost center" means the following:109520

       (1) Capital costs;109521

       (2) Direct care costs;109522

       (3) Indirect care costs;109523

       (4) Other protected costs.109524

       (G) "Costs of nonextensive renovations" means the actual 109525
expense incurred by an ICF/IID for depreciation or amortization 109526
and interest on renovations that are not extensive renovations.109527

       (H)(1) "Costs of ownership" means the actual expenses 109528
incurred by an ICF/IID for all of the following:109529

       (a) Subject to division (H)(2) of this section, depreciation 109530
and interest on any capital assets that cost five hundred dollars 109531
or more per item, including the following:109532

       (i) Buildings;109533

       (ii) Building improvements that are not approved as 109534
nonextensive renovations under section 5124.17 of the Revised 109535
Code;109536

       (iii) Equipment;109537

       (iv) Extensive renovations;109538

       (v) Transportation equipment.109539

       (b) Amortization and interest on land improvements and 109540
leasehold improvements;109541

       (c) Amortization of financing costs;109542

       (d) Except as provided in division (Z) of this section, lease 109543
and rent of land, building, and equipment.109544

       (2) The costs of capital assets of less than five hundred 109545
dollars per item may be considered costs of ownership in 109546
accordance with an ICF/IID provider's practice.109547

       (I)(1) "Date of licensure" means the following:109548

       (a) In the case of an ICF/IID that was originally licensed as 109549
a nursing home under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, the date 109550
that it was originally so licensed, regardless that it was 109551
subsequently licensed as a residential facility under section 109552
5123.19 of the Revised Code;109553

       (b) In the case of an ICF/IID that was originally licensed as 109554
a residential facility under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code, 109555
the date it was originally so licensed;109556

       (c) In the case of an ICF/IID that was not required by law to 109557
be licensed as a nursing home or residential facility when it was 109558
originally operated as a residential facility, the date it first 109559
was operated as a residential facility, regardless of the date the 109560
ICF/IID was first licensed as a nursing home or residential 109561
facility.109562

       (2) If, after an ICF/IID's original date of licensure, more 109563
residential facility beds are added to the ICF/IID or all or part 109564
of the ICF/IID undergoes an extensive renovation, the ICF/IID has 109565
a different date of licensure for the additional beds or 109566
extensively renovated portion of the ICF/IID. This does not apply, 109567
however, to additional beds when both of the following apply:109568

       (a) The additional beds are located in a part of the ICF/IID 109569
that was constructed at the same time as the continuing beds 109570
already located in that part of the ICF/IID;109571

       (b) The part of the ICF/IID in which the additional beds are 109572
located was constructed as part of the ICF/IID at a time when the 109573
ICF/IID was not required by law to be licensed as a nursing home 109574
or residential facility.109575

       (3) The definition of "date of licensure" in this section 109576
applies in determinations of ICFs/IID's medicaid payment rates but 109577
does not apply in determinations of ICFs/IID's franchise permit 109578
fees under sections 5168.60 to 5168.71 of the Revised Code.109579

       (J) "Desk-reviewed" means that an ICF/IID's costs as reported 109580
on a cost report filed under section 5124.10 or 5124.101 of the 109581
Revised Code have been subjected to a desk review under section 109582
5124.108 of the Revised Code and preliminarily determined to be 109583
allowable costs.109584

       (K) "Developmental center" means a residential facility that 109585
is maintained and operated by the department of developmental 109586
disabilities.109587

       (L) "Direct care costs" means all of the following costs 109588
incurred by an ICF/IID:109589

       (1) Costs for registered nurses, licensed practical nurses, 109590
and nurse aides employed by the ICF/IID;109591

       (2) Costs for direct care staff, administrative nursing 109592
staff, medical directors, respiratory therapists, physical 109593
therapists, physical therapy assistants, occupational therapists, 109594
occupational therapy assistants, speech therapists, audiologists, 109595
habilitation staff (including habilitation supervisors), qualified 109596
intellectual disability professionals, program directors, social 109597
services staff, activities staff, off-site day programming, 109598
psychologists, psychology assistants, social workers, counselors, 109599
and other persons holding degrees qualifying them to provide 109600
therapy;109601

       (3) Costs of purchased nursing services;109602

       (4) Costs of training and staff development, employee 109603
benefits, payroll taxes, and workers' compensation premiums or 109604
costs for self-insurance claims and related costs as specified in 109605
rules adopted under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code, for 109606
personnel listed in divisions (L)(1), (2), and (3) of this 109607
section;109608

       (5) Costs of quality assurance;109609

       (6) Costs of consulting and management fees related to direct 109610
care;109611

       (7) Allocated direct care home office costs;109612

       (8) Costs of other direct-care resources that are specified 109613
as direct care costs in rules adopted under section 5124.03 of the 109614
Revised Code.109615

       (M) "Downsized ICF/IID" means an ICF/IID that permanently 109616
reduced its medicaid-certified capacity pursuant to a plan 109617
approved by the department of developmental disabilities under 109618
section 5123.042 of the Revised Code.109619

       (N) "Effective date of a change of operator" means the day 109620
the entering operator becomes the operator of the ICF/IID.109621

       (O) "Effective date of a facility closure" means the last day 109622
that the last of the residents of the ICF/IID resides in the 109623
ICF/IID.109624

       (P) "Effective date of an involuntary termination" means the 109625
date the department of medicaid terminates the operator's provider 109626
agreement for the ICF/IID or the last day that such a provider 109627
agreement is in effect when the department cancels or refuses to 109628
revalidate it.109629

       (Q) "Effective date of a voluntary termination" means the day 109630
the ICF/IID ceases to accept medicaid recipients.109631

       (R) "Entering operator" means the person or government entity 109632
that will become the operator of an ICF/IID when a change of 109633
operator occurs or following an involuntary termination.109634

       (S) "Exiting operator" means any of the following:109635

       (1) An operator that will cease to be the operator of an 109636
ICF/IID on the effective date of a change of operator;109637

       (2) An operator that will cease to be the operator of an 109638
ICF/IID on the effective date of a facility closure;109639

       (3) An operator of an ICF/IID that is undergoing or has 109640
undergone a voluntary termination;109641

       (4) An operator of an ICF/IID that is undergoing or has 109642
undergone an involuntary termination.109643

       (T)(1) "Extensive renovation" means the following:109644

       (a) An ICF/IID's betterment, improvement, or restoration to 109645
which both of the following apply:109646

       (i) It was started before July 1, 1993;109647

       (ii) It meets the definition of "extensive renovation" 109648
established in rules that were adopted by the director of job and 109649
family services and in effect on December 22, 1992.109650

       (b) An ICF/IID's betterment, improvement, or restoration to 109651
which all of the following apply:109652

       (i) It was started on or after July 1, 1993;109653

       (ii) Except as provided in division (T)(2) of this section, 109654
it costs more than sixty-five per cent and not more than 109655
eighty-five per cent of the cost of constructing a new bed;109656

       (iii) It extends the useful life of the assets for at least 109657
ten years.109658

       (2) The department of developmental disabilities may treat a 109659
renovation that costs more than eighty-five per cent of the cost 109660
of constructing new beds as an extensive renovation if the 109661
department determines that the renovation is more prudent than 109662
construction of new beds.109663

       (3) For the purpose of division (T)(1)(b)(ii) of this 109664
section, the cost of constructing a new bed shall be considered to 109665
be forty thousand dollars, adjusted for the estimated rate of 109666
inflation from January 1, 1993, to the end of the calendar year 109667
during which the extensive renovation is completed, using the 109668
consumer price index for shelter costs for all urban consumers for 109669
the north central region, as published by the United States bureau 109670
of labor statistics.109671

       (U)(1) Subject to divisions (U)(2) and (3) of this section, 109672
"facility closure" means either of the following:109673

       (a) Discontinuance of the use of the building, or part of the 109674
building, that houses the facility as an ICF/IID that results in 109675
the relocation of all of the facility's residents;109676

       (b) Conversion of the building, or part of the building, that 109677
houses an ICF/IID to a different use with any necessary license or 109678
other approval needed for that use being obtained and one or more 109679
of the facility's residents remaining in the facility to receive 109680
services under the new use. 109681

       (2) A facility closure occurs regardless of any of the 109682
following:109683

       (a) The operator completely or partially replacing the 109684
ICF/IID by constructing a new ICF/IID or transferring the 109685
ICF/IID's license to another ICF/IID;109686

       (b) The ICF/IID's residents relocating to another of the 109687
operator's ICFs/IID;109688

       (c) Any action the department of health takes regarding the 109689
ICF/IID's medicaid certification that may result in the transfer 109690
of part of the ICF/IID's survey findings to another of the 109691
operator's ICFs/IID;109692

       (d) Any action the department of developmental disabilities 109693
takes regarding the ICF/IID's license under section 5123.19 of the 109694
Revised Code.109695

       (3) A facility closure does not occur if all of the ICF/IID's 109696
residents are relocated due to an emergency evacuation and one or 109697
more of the residents return to a medicaid-certified bed in the 109698
ICF/IID not later than thirty days after the evacuation occurs.109699

       (V) "Fiscal year" means the fiscal year of this state, as 109700
specified in section 9.34 of the Revised Code.109701

       (W) "Franchise permit fee" means the fee imposed by sections 109702
5168.60 to 5168.71 of the Revised Code.109703

       (X) "Home and community-based services" has the same meaning 109704
as in section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.109705

       (Y) "ICF/IID services" has the same meaning as in 42 C.F.R. 109706
440.150.109707

       (Z)(1) "Indirect care costs" means all reasonable costs 109708
incurred by an ICF/IID other than capital costs, direct care 109709
costs, and other protected costs. "Indirect care costs" includes 109710
costs of habilitation supplies, pharmacy consultants, medical and 109711
habilitation records, program supplies, incontinence supplies, 109712
food, enterals, dietary supplies and personnel, laundry, 109713
housekeeping, security, administration, liability insurance, 109714
bookkeeping, purchasing department, human resources, 109715
communications, travel, dues, license fees, subscriptions, home 109716
office costs not otherwise allocated, legal services, accounting 109717
services, minor equipment, maintenance and repair expenses, 109718
help-wanted advertising, informational advertising, start-up 109719
costs, organizational expenses, other interest, property 109720
insurance, employee training and staff development, employee 109721
benefits, payroll taxes, and workers' compensation premiums or 109722
costs for self-insurance claims and related costs, as specified in 109723
rules adopted under section 5124.03of the Revised Code, for 109724
personnel listed in this division. Notwithstanding division (H) of 109725
this section, "indirect care costs" also means the cost of 109726
equipment, including vehicles, acquired by operating lease 109727
executed before December 1, 1992, if the costs are reported as 109728
administrative and general costs on the ICF/IID's cost report for 109729
the cost reporting period ending December 31, 1992.109730

       (2) For the purpose of division (Z)(1) of this section, an 109731
operating lease shall be construed in accordance with generally 109732
accepted accounting principles.109733

       (AA) "Inpatient days" means both of the following:109734

       (1) All days during which a resident, regardless of payment 109735
source, occupies a bed in an ICF/IID that is included in the 109736
ICF/IID's medicaid-certified capacity;109737

       (2) All days for which payment is made under section 5124.34 109738
of the Revised Code.109739

       (BB) "Intermediate care facility for individuals with 109740
disabilities" and "ICF/IID" mean an intermediate care facility for 109741
the mentally retarded as defined in the "Social Security Act," 109742
section 1905(d), 42 U.S.C. 1396d(d).109743

       (CC) "Involuntary termination" means the department of 109744
medicaid's termination of, cancellation of, or refusal to 109745
revalidate the operator's provider agreement for the ICF/IID when 109746
such action is not taken at the operator's request.109747

       (DD) "Maintenance and repair expenses" means, except as 109748
provided in division (TT)(2)(b) of this section, expenditures that 109749
are necessary and proper to maintain an asset in a normally 109750
efficient working condition and that do not extend the useful life 109751
of the asset two years or more. "Maintenance and repair expenses" 109752
includes the costs of ordinary repairs such as painting and 109753
wallpapering.109754

       (EE) "Medicaid-certified capacity" means the number of an 109755
ICF/IID's beds that are certified for participation in medicaid as 109756
ICF/IID beds.109757

       (FF) "Medicaid days" means both of the following:109758

       (1) All days during which a resident who is a medicaid 109759
recipient eligible for ICF/IID services occupies a bed in an 109760
ICF/IID that is included in the ICF/IID's medicaid-certified 109761
capacity;109762

       (2) All days for which payment is made under section 5124.34 109763
of the Revised Code. 109764

       (GG)(1) "New ICF/IID" means an ICF/IID for which the provider 109765
obtains an initial provider agreement following the director of 109766
health's medicaid certification of the ICF/IID, including such an 109767
ICF/IID that replaces one or more ICFs/IID for which a provider 109768
previously held a provider agreement.109769

       (2) "New ICF/IID" does not mean either of the following:109770

       (a) An ICF/IID for which the entering operator seeks a 109771
provider agreement pursuant to section 5124.511 or 5124.512 or 109772
(pursuant to section 5124.515) section 5124.07 of the Revised 109773
Code;109774

       (b) A downsized ICF/IID or partially converted ICF/IID.109775

       (HH) "Nursing home" has the same meaning as in section 109776
3721.01 of the Revised Code.109777

       (II) "Operator" means the person or government entity 109778
responsible for the daily operating and management decisions for 109779
an ICF/IID.109780

       (JJ) "Other protected costs" means costs incurred by an 109781
ICF/MR for medical supplies; real estate, franchise, and property 109782
taxes; natural gas, fuel oil, water, electricity, sewage, and 109783
refuse and hazardous medical waste collection; allocated other 109784
protected home office costs; and any additional costs defined as 109785
other protected costs in rules adopted under section 5124.03 of 109786
the Revised Code.109787

       (KK)(1) "Owner" means any person or government entity that 109788
has at least five per cent ownership or interest, either directly, 109789
indirectly, or in any combination, in any of the following 109790
regarding an ICF/IID:109791

       (a) The land on which the ICF/IID is located;109792

       (b) The structure in which the ICF/IID is located;109793

       (c) Any mortgage, contract for deed, or other obligation 109794
secured in whole or in part by the land or structure on or in 109795
which the ICF/IID is located;109796

       (d) Any lease or sublease of the land or structure on or in 109797
which the ICF/IID is located.109798

       (2) "Owner" does not mean a holder of a debenture or bond 109799
related to an ICF/IID and purchased at public issue or a regulated 109800
lender that has made a loan related to the ICF/IID unless the 109801
holder or lender operates the ICF/IID directly or through a 109802
subsidiary.109803

       (LL) "Partially converted ICF/IID" means an ICF/IID that 109804
converted some, but not all, of its beds to providing home and 109805
community-based services under the individual options waiver 109806
pursuant to section 5124.60 or 5124.61 of the Revised Code. 109807

       (MM)(1) Except as provided in divisions (MM)(2) and (3) of 109808
this section, "per diem" means an ICF/IID's desk-reviewed, actual, 109809
allowable costs in a given cost center in a cost reporting period, 109810
divided by the facility's inpatient days for that cost reporting 109811
period.109812

       (2) When determining capital costs for the purpose of section 109813
5124.17 of the Revised Code, "per diem" means an ICF/IID's actual, 109814
allowable capital costs in a cost-reporting period divided by the 109815
greater of the facility's inpatient days for that period or the 109816
number of inpatient days the ICF/IID would have had during that 109817
period if its occupancy rate had been ninety-five per cent.109818

       (3) When determining indirect care costs for the purpose of 109819
section 5124.21 of the Revised Code, "per diem" means an ICF/IID's 109820
actual, allowable indirect care costs in a cost-reporting period 109821
divided by the greater of the ICF/IID's inpatient days for that 109822
period or the number of inpatient days the ICF/IID would have had 109823
during that period if its occupancy rate had been eighty-five per 109824
cent.109825

       (NN) "Provider" means an operator with a valid provider 109826
agreement.109827

       (OO) "Provider agreement" means a provider agreement, as 109828
defined in section 5164.01 of the Revised Code, that is between 109829
the department of medicaid and the operator of an ICF/IID for the 109830
provision of ICF/IID services under the medicaid program.109831

       (PP) "Purchased nursing services" means services that are 109832
provided in an ICF/IID by registered nurses, licensed practical 109833
nurses, or nurse aides who are not employees of the ICF/IID.109834

       (QQ) "Reasonable" means that a cost is an actual cost that is 109835
appropriate and helpful to develop and maintain the operation of 109836
resident care facilities and activities, including normal standby 109837
costs, and that does not exceed what a prudent buyer pays for a 109838
given item or services. Reasonable costs may vary from provider to 109839
provider and from time to time for the same provider.109840

       (RR) "Related party" means an individual or organization 109841
that, to a significant extent, has common ownership with, is 109842
associated or affiliated with, has control of, or is controlled 109843
by, a provider.109844

       (1) An individual who is a relative of an owner is a related 109845
party.109846

       (2) Common ownership exists when an individual or individuals 109847
possess significant ownership or equity in both the provider and 109848
the other organization. Significant ownership or equity exists 109849
when an individual or individuals possess five per cent ownership 109850
or equity in both the provider and a supplier. Significant 109851
ownership or equity is presumed to exist when an individual or 109852
individuals possess ten per cent ownership or equity in both the 109853
provider and another organization from which the provider 109854
purchases or leases real property.109855

       (3) Control exists when an individual or organization has the 109856
power, directly or indirectly, to significantly influence or 109857
direct the actions or policies of an organization.109858

       (4) An individual or organization that supplies goods or 109859
services to a provider shall not be considered a related party if 109860
all of the following conditions are met:109861

       (a) The supplier is a separate bona fide organization.109862

       (b) A substantial part of the supplier's business activity of 109863
the type carried on with the provider is transacted with others 109864
than the provider and there is an open, competitive market for the 109865
types of goods or services the supplier furnishes.109866

       (c) The types of goods or services are commonly obtained by 109867
other ICFs/IID from outside organizations and are not a basic 109868
element of resident care ordinarily furnished directly to 109869
residents by the ICFs/IID.109870

       (d) The charge to the provider is in line with the charge for 109871
the goods or services in the open market and no more than the 109872
charge made under comparable circumstances to others by the 109873
supplier.109874

       (SS) "Relative of owner" means an individual who is related 109875
to an owner of an ICF/IID by one of the following relationships:109876

       (1) Spouse;109877

       (2) Natural parent, child, or sibling;109878

       (3) Adopted parent, child, or sibling;109879

       (4) Stepparent, stepchild, stepbrother, or stepsister;109880

       (5) Father-in-law, mother-in-law, son-in-law, 109881
daughter-in-law, brother-in-law, or sister-in-law;109882

       (6) Grandparent or grandchild;109883

       (7) Foster caregiver, foster child, foster brother, or foster 109884
sister.109885

       (TT)(1) "Renovation" means the following:109886

       (a) An ICF/IID's betterment, improvement, or restoration to 109887
which both of the following apply:109888

       (i) It was started before July 1, 1993;109889

       (ii) It meets the definition of "renovation" established in 109890
rules that were adopted by the director of job and family services 109891
and in effect on December 22, 1992.109892

       (b) An ICF/IID's betterment, improvement, or restoration to 109893
which both of the following apply:109894

       (i) It was started on or after July 1, 1993;109895

       (ii) It betters, improves, or restores the ICF/IID beyond its 109896
current functional capacity through a structural change that costs 109897
at least five hundred dollars per bed.109898

       (2) A renovation started on or after July 1, 1993, may 109899
include both of the following:109900

       (a) A betterment, improvement, restoration, or replacement of 109901
assets that are affixed to a building and have a useful life of at 109902
least five years;109903

       (b) Costs that otherwise would be considered maintenance and 109904
repair expenses if they are an integral part of the structural 109905
change that makes up the renovation project.109906

       (3) "Renovation" does not mean construction of additional 109907
space for beds that will be added to an ICF/IID's licensed 109908
capacity or medicaid-certified capacity.109909

       (UU) "Residential facility" has the same meaning as in 109910
section 5123.19 of the Revised Code.109911

       (VV) "Sponsor" means an adult relative, friend, or guardian 109912
of an ICF/IID resident who has an interest or responsibility in 109913
the resident's welfare.109914

       (WW) "Title XIX" means Title XIX of the "Social Security 109915
Act," 42 U.S.C. 1396, et seq.109916

       (XX) "Title XVIII" means Title XVIII of the "Social Security 109917
Act," 42 U.S.C. 1395, et seq.109918

       (YY) "Voluntary termination" means an operator's voluntary 109919
election to terminate the participation of an ICF/IID in the 109920
medicaid program but to continue to provide service of the type 109921
provided by a residential facility as defined in section 5123.19 109922
of the Revised Code.109923

       Sec. 5111.226.        Sec. 5124.02. Subject, if needed, to the approval 109924
of the United States secretary of health and human services, the109925
The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall enter 109926
into a contract with the department of developmental disabilities 109927
under section 5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code that provides 109928
for the department of developmental disabilities to assume the 109929
powers and duties of the department of job and family services109930
medicaid with regard to the medicaid program's coverage of 109931
ICF/IID services provided by intermediate care facilities for the 109932
mentally retarded. The contract shall include a schedule for the 109933
assumption of the powers and duties. The contract may provide for 109934
the department of medicaid to perform one or more duties of the 109935
department of developmental disabilities under sections 5124.50 to 109936
5124.53 of the Revised Code. Except as otherwise authorized by the 109937
United States secretary of health and human services, no provision 109938
of the contract may violate a federal law or regulation governing 109939
the medicaid program. Once the contract goes into effect, all 109940
references to the department of job and family services, and all 109941
references to the director of job and family services, with regard 109942
to intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded that are 109943
in law enacted by the general assembly shall be deemed to be 109944
references to the department of developmental disabilities and 109945
director of developmental disabilities, respectively, to the 109946
extent necessary to implement the terms of the contract.109947

       Sec. 5124.03.  To the extent authorized by rules authorized 109948
by section 5162.021 of the Revised Code, the director of 109949
developmental disabilities shall adopt rules in accordance with 109950
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this 109951
chapter.109952

       Sec. 5124.05.  The medicaid program shall cover ICF/IID 109953
services when all of the following apply:109954

       (A) The ICF/IID services are provided to a medicaid recipient 109955
eligible for the services.109956

       (B) The ICF/IID services are provided by an ICF/IID for which 109957
the provider has a valid provider agreement.109958

       (C) Federal financial participation is available for the 109959
ICF/IID services.109960

       Sec. 5124.06.  (A) Subject to section 5124.072 of the Revised 109961
Code, an ICF/IID operator is eligible to enter into a provider 109962
agreement for an ICF/IID if all of the following apply:109963

       (1) The ICF/IID is certified by the director of health for 109964
participation in medicaid;109965

       (2) The ICF/IID is licensed by the director of developmental 109966
disabilities as a residential facility;109967

       (3) Subject to division (B) of this section, the operator and 109968
ICF/IID comply with all applicable state and federal statutes and 109969
rules.109970

       (B) A state rule that requires an ICF/IID operator to have 109971
received approval of a plan for the proposed ICF/IID pursuant to 109972
section 5123.042 of the Revised Code as a condition of the 109973
operator being eligible to receive medicaid payments for ICF/IID 109974
services the ICF/IID provides does not apply if, under former 109975
section 5123.193 of the Revised Code as enacted by Am. Sub. H.B. 1 109976
of the 128th general assembly or section 5123.197 of the Revised 109977
Code, a residential facility license was obtained or modified for 109978
the ICF/IID without obtaining approval of such a plan.109979

       Sec. 5124.07.  (A) Except as provided in section 5124.072 of 109980
the Revised Code, the department of medicaid shall enter into a 109981
provider agreement with an ICF/IID operator who applies, and is 109982
eligible, for the provider agreement.109983

       (B) A provider agreement shall require the department of 109984
developmental disabilities, pursuant to its agreement with the 109985
department of medicaid under section 5124.02 of the Revised Code, 109986
to make medicaid payments to the provider in accordance with this 109987
chapter for ICF/IID services the ICF/IID provides to its residents 109988
who are medicaid recipients eligible for ICF/IID services.109989

       (C) A provider agreement shall require the provider to do all 109990
of the following:109991

       (1) Maintain eligibility for the provider agreement as 109992
provided in section 5124.06 of the Revised Code;109993

       (2) Keep records relating to a cost reporting period for the 109994
greater of seven years after the cost report is filed or, if the 109995
department of developmental disabilities issues an audit report in 109996
accordance with section 5124.109 of the Revised Code, six years 109997
after all appeal rights relating to the audit report are 109998
exhausted;109999

       (3) File reports as the department of developmental 110000
disabilities requires;110001

       (4) Open all records relating to the costs of the ICF/IID's 110002
services for inspection and audit by the department of 110003
developmental disabilities;110004

       (5) Open its premises for inspection by the department of 110005
developmental disabilities, department of health, and any other 110006
state or local authority having authority to inspect;110007

       (6) Supply to the department of developmental disabilities 110008
such information as it requires concerning the ICF/IID's services 110009
to residents who are, or are eligible to be, medicaid recipients;110010

       (7) Comply with section 5124.08 of the Revised Code.110011

       (D) A provider agreement may contain other provisions that 110012
are consistent with law and considered necessary by the department 110013
of medicaid or the department of developmental disabilities.110014

       Sec. 5124.071.  An ICF/IID operator may enter into provider 110015
agreements for more than one ICF/IID.110016

       Sec. 5124.072.  The department of medicaid shall not 110017
revalidate an ICF/IID provider agreement if the provider fails to 110018
maintain eligibility for the provider agreement as provided in 110019
section 5124.06 of the Revised Code.110020

       Sec. 5124.08.  (A) Every provider agreement with an ICF/IID 110021
provider shall do both of the following:110022

       (1) Except as provided by division (B) of this section, 110023
include any part of the ICF/IID that meets federal and state 110024
standards for medicaid certification;110025

       (2) Prohibit the provider from doing either of the following:110026

       (a) Discriminating against a resident on the basis of race, 110027
color, sex, creed, or national origin;110028

       (b) Subject to division (D) of this section, failing or 110029
refusing to do either of the following:110030

       (i) Admit as a resident of the ICF/IID an individual because 110031
the individual is, or may (as a resident of the ICF/IID) become, a 110032
medicaid recipient if less than eighty per cent of the ICF/IID's 110033
residents are medicaid recipients;110034

       (ii) Retain as a resident of the ICF/IID an individual 110035
because the individual is, or may (as a resident of the ICF/IID) 110036
become, a medicaid recipient.110037

       (B) Unless otherwise required by federal law, an ICF/IID bed 110038
is not required to be included in a provider agreement if the bed 110039
is designated for respite care under a medicaid waiver component 110040
operated pursuant to a waiver sought under section 5166.20 of the 110041
Revised Code.110042

       (C) For the purpose of division (A)(2)(b)(ii) of this 110043
section, a medicaid recipient who is a resident of an ICF/IID 110044
shall be considered a resident of the ICF/IID during any hospital 110045
stays totaling less than twenty-five days during any twelve-month 110046
period. A medicaid recipient identified by the department of 110047
developmental disabilities or its designee as requiring the level 110048
of care of an ICF/IID shall not be subject to a maximum period of 110049
absences during which the recipient is considered to be an ICF/IID 110050
resident if prior authorization of the department for visits with 110051
relatives and friends and participation in therapeutic programs is 110052
obtained in accordance with rules adopted under section 5124.03 of 110053
the Revised Code.110054

       (D) Nothing in this section shall bar a provider from doing 110055
any of the following:110056

       (1) If the provider is a religious organization operating a 110057
religious or denominational ICF/IID, giving preference to persons 110058
of the same religion or denomination;110059

       (2) Giving preference to persons with whom the provider has 110060
contracted to provide continuing care;110061

       (3) Retaining residents who have resided in the provider's 110062
ICF/IID for not less than one year as private pay residents and 110063
who subsequently become medicaid recipients but refusing to admit 110064
as a resident an individual who is, or may (as a resident of the 110065
ICF/IID) become, a medicaid recipient, if all of the following 110066
apply:110067

       (a) The provider does not refuse to retain a resident who has 110068
resided in the provider's ICF/IID for not less than one year as a 110069
private pay resident because the resident becomes a medicaid 110070
recipient, except as necessary to comply with division (D)(3)(b) 110071
of this section.110072

       (b) The number of medicaid recipients retained under division 110073
(D)(3) of this section does not at any time exceed ten per cent of 110074
all the ICF/IID's residents.110075

       (c) On July 1, 1980, all the ICF/IID's residents were private 110076
pay residents.110077

       (E) No provider shall violate the provider agreement 110078
obligations imposed by this section.110079

       Sec. 5124.081.  An ICF/IID resident has a cause of action 110080
against the provider of the ICF/IID for breach of the provider 110081
agreement obligations or other duties imposed by section 5124.08 110082
of the Revised Code. The action may be commenced by the resident, 110083
or on the resident's behalf by the resident's sponsor, by the 110084
filing of a civil action in the court of common pleas of the 110085
county in which the ICF/IID is located or in the court of common 110086
pleas of Franklin county.110087

       If a court of common pleas finds that a provider has breached 110088
a provider agreement obligation or other duty imposed by section 110089
5124.08 of the Revised Code, the court may do one or more of the 110090
following:110091

       (A) Enjoin the provider from engaging in the practice;110092

       (B) Order such affirmative relief as may be necessary;110093

       (C) Award to a resident and a sponsor that brings the action 110094
on behalf of a resident actual damages, costs, and reasonable 110095
attorney's fees.110096

       Sec. 5124.10.  (A) Except as provided in division (D) of this 110097
section and division (E)(2) of section 5124.101 of the Revised 110098
Code, each ICF/IID provider shall file with the department of 110099
developmental disabilities an annual cost report for each of the 110100
provider's ICFs/IID for which the provider has a valid provider 110101
agreement. The cost report for a year shall cover the calendar 110102
year or portion of the calendar year during which the ICF/IID 110103
participated in the medicaid program. Except as provided in 110104
division (E) of this section, the cost report is due not later 110105
than ninety days after the end of the calendar year, or portion of 110106
the calendar year, that the cost report covers.110107

       (B)(1) If an ICF/IID undergoes a change of provider that the 110108
department determines, in accordance with rules adopted under 110109
section 5124.03 of the Revised Code, is not an arms length 110110
transaction, the new provider shall file the ICF/IID's cost report 110111
in accordance with division (A) of this section and the cost 110112
report shall cover the portion of the calendar year during which 110113
the new provider operated the ICF/IID and the portion of the 110114
calendar year during which the previous provider operated the 110115
ICF/IID.110116

       (2) If an ICF/IID undergoes a change of provider that the 110117
department determines, in accordance with rules adopted under 110118
section 5124.03 of the Revised Code, is an arms length 110119
transaction, the new provider shall file with the department a 110120
cost report for the ICF/IID not later than, except as provided in 110121
division (E) of this section, ninety days after the end of the 110122
ICF/IID's first three full calendar months of operation under the 110123
new provider. The cost report shall cover the period that begins 110124
with the ICF/IID's first day of operation under the new provider 110125
and ends on the first day of the month immediately following the 110126
first three full months of operation under the new provider.110127

       (C) If the medicaid payment rate for a new ICF/IID was most 110128
recently determined in accordance with section 5124.151 of the 110129
Revised Code, the provider shall file with the department a cost 110130
report for the new ICF/IID not later than, except as provided in 110131
division (E) of this section, ninety days after the end of the new 110132
ICF/IID's first three full calendar months of operation. The cost 110133
report shall cover the period that begins with the ICF/IID's first 110134
day of operation and ends on the first day of the month 110135
immediately following the first three full months of operation.110136

       (D) An ICF/IID provider is not required to file a cost report 110137
for an ICF/IID for a calendar year in accordance with division (A) 110138
of this section if the provider files a cost report for the 110139
ICF/IID under division (B)(2) or (C) of this section and that cost 110140
report covers a period that begins after the first day of October 110141
of that calendar year. The provider shall file a cost report for 110142
the ICF/IID in accordance with division (A) of this section for 110143
the immediately following calendar year.110144

       (E) The department may grant to a provider a fourteen-day 110145
extension to file a cost report under this section or section 110146
5124.101 of the Revised Code if the provider provides the 110147
department a written request for the extension and the department 110148
determines that there is good cause for the extension.110149

       Sec. 5124.101. (A) The provider of an ICF/IID that becomes a 110150
downsized ICF/IID or partially converted ICF/IID or is a new 110151
ICF/IID on or after July 1, 2013, may file with the department of 110152
developmental disabilities a cost report covering the period 110153
specified in division (B) of this section if the following applies 110154
to the ICF/IID:110155

       (1) In the case of an ICF/IID that becomes a downsized 110156
ICF/IID or partially converted ICF/IID, the ICF/IID has either of 110157
the following on the day it becomes a downsized ICF/IID or 110158
partially converted ICF/IID:110159

       (a) A medicaid-certified capacity that is at least ten per 110160
cent less than its medicaid-certified capacity on the day 110161
immediately preceding the day it becomes a downsized ICF/IID or 110162
partially converted ICF/IID;110163

       (b) At least five fewer beds certified as ICF/IID beds than 110164
it has on the day immediately preceding the day it becomes a 110165
downsized ICF/IID or partially converted ICF/IID.110166

       (2) In the case of a new ICF/IID, the ICF/IID's beds are from 110167
a downsized ICF/IID and the downsized ICF/IID has either of the 110168
following on the day it becomes a downsized ICF/IID:110169

       (a) A medicaid-certified capacity that is at least ten per 110170
cent less than its medicaid-certified capacity on the day 110171
immediately preceding the day it becomes a downsized ICF/IID;110172

       (b) At least five fewer beds certified as ICF/IID beds than 110173
it has on the day immediately preceding the day it becomes a 110174
downsized ICF/IID.110175

       (B) A cost report filed under division (A) of this section 110176
shall cover the period that begins and ends as follows:110177

       (1) In the case of an ICF/IID that becomes a downsized 110178
ICF/IID or partially converted ICF/IID:110179

       (a) The period begins with the day that the ICF/IID becomes a 110180
downsized ICF/IID or partially converted ICF/IID.110181

       (b) The period ends on the last day of the last month of the 110182
first three full months of operation as a downsized ICF/IID or 110183
partially converted ICF/IID.110184

       (2) In the case of a new ICF/IID:110185

       (a) The period begins with the day that the provider 110186
agreement for the ICF/IID takes effect.110187

       (b) The period ends on the last day of the last month of the 110188
first three full months that the provider agreement is in effect.110189

       (C) The department shall refuse to accept a cost report filed 110190
under division (A) of this section if either of the following 110191
apply:110192

       (1) Except as provided in division (E) of section 5124.10 of 110193
the Revised Code, the provider fails to file the cost report with 110194
the department not later than ninety days after the last day of 110195
the period the cost report covers;110196

       (2) The cost report is incomplete or inadequate.110197

       (D) If the department accepts a cost report filed under 110198
division (A) of this section, the department shall use that cost 110199
report, rather than the cost report that otherwise would be used 110200
pursuant to section 5124.17, 5124.19, 5124.21, or 5124.23 of the 110201
Revised Code, to determine the ICF/IID's medicaid payment rate in 110202
accordance with this chapter for ICF/IID services the ICF/IID 110203
provides during the period that begins and ends as follows:110204

       (1) The period begins on the following:110205

       (a) In the case of an ICF/IID that becomes a downsized 110206
ICF/IID or partially converted ICF/IID:110207

       (i) The day that the ICF/IID becomes a downsized ICF/IID or 110208
partially converted ICF/IID if that day is the first day of a 110209
month;110210

       (ii) The first day of the month immediately following the 110211
month that the ICF/IID becomes a downsized ICF/IID or partially 110212
converted ICF/IID if division (D)(1)(a)(i) of this section does 110213
not apply.110214

       (b) In the case of a new ICF/IID, the day that the ICF/IID's 110215
provider agreement takes effect.110216

       (2) The period ends on the last day of the fiscal year that 110217
immediately precedes the fiscal year for which the ICF/IID begins 110218
to be paid a rate determined using a cost report that division (E) 110219
of this section requires be filed in accordance with division (A) 110220
of section 5124.10 of the Revised Code.110221

       (E)(1) If the department accepts a cost report filed under 110222
division (A) of this section for an ICF/IID that becomes a 110223
downsized ICF/IID or partially converted ICF/IID on or before the 110224
first day of October of a calendar year, or for a new ICF/IID that 110225
has a provider agreement that takes effect on or before that date, 110226
the provider also shall file a cost report for the ICF/IID in 110227
accordance with division (A) of section 5124.10 of the Revised 110228
Code for the portion of that calendar year that the ICF/IID 110229
operated as a downsized ICF/IID or partially converted ICF/IID or, 110230
in the case of a new ICF/IID, for the portion that the provider 110231
agreement was in effect.110232

       (2) If the department accepts a cost report filed under 110233
division (A) of this section for an ICF/IID that becomes a 110234
downsized ICF/IID or partially converted ICF/IID after the first 110235
day of October of a calendar year, or for a new ICF/IID that has a 110236
provider agreement that takes effect on or after that date, the 110237
provider is not required to file a cost report for that calendar 110238
year in accordance with division (A) of section 5124.10 of the 110239
Revised Code. The provider shall file a cost report for the 110240
ICF/IID in accordance with division (A) of section 5124.10 of the 110241
Revised Code for the immediately following calendar year.110242

       Sec. 5124.102.  No ICF/IID provider shall report fines paid 110243
under section 5124.99 of the Revised Code in a cost report filed 110244
under section 5124.10, 5124.101, or 5124.522 of the Revised Code.110245

       Sec. 5124.103.  Cost reports shall be completed using the 110246
form prescribed under section 5124.104 of the Revised Code and in 110247
accordance with the guidelines established under that section.110248

       Sec. 5124.104.  The department of developmental disabilities 110249
shall do all of the following:110250

       (A) Prescribe the form to be used for completing a cost 110251
report and a uniform chart of accounts for the purpose of 110252
reporting costs on the form;110253

       (B) Distribute a paper copy of the form, or computer software 110254
for electronic submission of the form, to each provider at least 110255
sixty days before the date the cost report is due;110256

       (C) Establish guidelines for completing the form.110257

       Sec. 5124.105.  The department of developmental disabilities 110258
shall develop an addendum to the cost report form that an ICF/IID 110259
provider may use to set forth costs that the provider believes the 110260
department may dispute. The department may consider such costs in 110261
determining an ICF/IID's medicaid payment rate. If the department 110262
does not consider such costs in determining an ICF/IID's medicaid 110263
payment rate, the provider may seek reconsideration of the 110264
determination in accordance with section 5124.38 of the Revised 110265
Code. If the department subsequently includes such costs in an 110266
ICF/IID's medicaid payment rate, the department shall pay the 110267
provider interest at a reasonable rate established in rules 110268
adopted under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code for the period 110269
that the rate excluded the costs.110270

       Sec. 5124.106.  If an ICF/IID provider required by section 110271
5124.10 of the Revised Code to file a cost report for the ICF/IID 110272
fails to file the cost report by the date it is due or the date, 110273
if any, to which the due date is extended pursuant to division (E) 110274
of that section, or files an incomplete or inadequate report for 110275
the ICF/IID under that section, the department of developmental 110276
disabilities shall provide immediate written notice to the 110277
provider that the provider agreement for the ICF/IID will be 110278
terminated in thirty days unless the provider submits a complete 110279
and adequate cost report for the ICF/IID within thirty days. 110280
During the thirty-day termination period or any additional time 110281
allowed for an appeal of the proposed termination of a provider 110282
agreement, the provider shall be paid the ICF/IID's then current 110283
per medicaid day payment rate, minus the dollar amount by which 110284
ICFs/IID's per medicaid day payment rates are reduced during 110285
fiscal year 2013 in accordance with division (A)(2) of section 110286
5111.26 of the Revised Code (renumbered as section 5165.10 of the 110287
Revised Code by H.B. 59 of the 130th general assembly) as that 110288
section existed on the day immediately preceding the effective 110289
date of this section. On the first day of each July, the 110290
department shall adjust the amount of the reduction in effect 110291
during the previous twelve months to reflect the rate of inflation 110292
during the preceding twelve months, as shown in the consumer price 110293
index for all items for all urban consumers for the midwest 110294
region, published by the United States bureau of labor statistics.110295

       Sec. 5124.107.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) of 110296
this section and not later than three years after an ICF/IID 110297
provider files a cost report with the department of developmental 110298
disabilities under section 5124.10 or 5124.101 of the Revised 110299
Code, the provider may amend the cost report if the provider 110300
discovers a material error in the cost report or additional 110301
information to be included in the cost report. The department 110302
shall review the amended cost report for accuracy and notify the 110303
provider of its determination.110304

       (B) An ICF/IID provider may not amend a cost report if the 110305
department has notified the provider that an audit of the cost 110306
report or a cost report of the provider for a subsequent cost 110307
reporting period is to be conducted under section 5124.109 of the 110308
Revised Code. The provider may, however, provide the department 110309
information that affects the costs included in the cost report. 110310
Such information may not be provided after the adjudication of the 110311
final settlement of the cost report.110312

       Sec. 5124.108.  The department of developmental disabilities 110313
shall conduct a desk review of all cost reports it receives under 110314
sections 5124.10, 5124.101, and 5124.522 of the Revised Code. 110315
Based on the desk review, the department shall make a preliminary 110316
determination of whether the reported costs are allowable costs. 110317
The department shall notify each ICF/IID provider of whether any 110318
of the reported costs are preliminarily determined not to be 110319
allowable costs, the medicaid payment rate determined under this 110320
chapter as a result of the determination regarding allowable 110321
costs, and the reasons for the determination and resulting rate. 110322
The department shall allow the provider to verify the calculation 110323
and submit additional information.110324

       Sec. 5124.109.  (A) The department of developmental 110325
disabilities may conduct an audit, as defined in rules adopted 110326
under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code, of any cost report 110327
filed under section 5124.10, 5124.101, or 5124.522 of the Revised 110328
Code. The decision whether to conduct an audit and the scope of 110329
the audit, which may be a desk or field audit, may be determined 110330
based on prior performance of the provider, a risk analysis, or 110331
other evidence that gives the department reason to believe that 110332
the provider has reported costs improperly. A desk or field audit 110333
may be performed annually, but is required whenever a provider 110334
does not pass the risk analysis tolerance factors.110335

       (B) Audits shall be conducted by auditors under contract with 110336
the department, auditors working for firms under contract with the 110337
department, or auditors employed by the department.110338

        The department may establish a contract for the auditing of 110339
ICFs/IID by outside firms. Each contract entered into by bidding 110340
shall be effective for one to two years.110341

       (C) The department shall notify a provider of the findings of 110342
an audit of a cost report by issuing an audit report. The 110343
department shall issue the audit report not later than three years 110344
after the earlier of the following:110345

       (1) The date the cost report is filed;110346

       (2) The date a desk or field audit of the cost report or a 110347
cost report for a subsequent cost reporting period is completed.110348

       (D) The department shall prepare a written summary of any 110349
audit disallowance that is made after the effective date of the 110350
rate that is based on the cost. Where the provider is pursuing 110351
judicial or administrative remedies in good faith regarding the 110352
disallowance, the department shall not withhold from the 110353
provider's current payments any amounts the department claims to 110354
be due from the provider pursuant to section 5124.41 of the 110355
Revised Code.110356

       (E)(1) The department shall establish an audit manual and 110357
program for field audits conducted under this section. Each 110358
auditor conducting a field audit under this section shall follow 110359
the audit manual and program, regardless of whether the auditor is 110360
under contract with the department, works for a firm under 110361
contract with the department, or is employed by the department. 110362
The manual and program shall do both of the following:110363

       (a) Require each field audit to be conducted by an auditor to 110364
whom all of the following apply:110365

       (i) During the period of the auditor's contract, firm's 110366
contract, or auditor's employment with the department, the auditor 110367
or firm does not have and is not committed to acquire any direct 110368
or indirect financial interest in the ownership, financing, or 110369
operation of ICFs/IID in this state.110370

       (ii) The auditor does not audit any provider that has been a 110371
client of the auditor or the auditor's firm.110372

       (iii) The auditor is otherwise independent as determined by 110373
the standards of independence included in the government auditing 110374
standards produced by the United States government accountability 110375
office.110376

       (b) Require each auditor conducting a field audit to do all 110377
of the following:110378

       (i) Comply with applicable rules prescribed pursuant to Title 110379
XIX;110380

       (ii) Consider generally accepted auditing standards 110381
prescribed by the American institute of certified public 110382
accountants;110383

       (iii) Include a written summary as to whether the costs 110384
included in the cost report examined during the audit are 110385
allowable and are presented in accordance with state and federal 110386
laws and regulations, and whether, in all material respects, 110387
allowable costs are documented, reasonable, and related to patient 110388
care;110389

       (iv) Complete the audit within the time period specified by 110390
the department;110391

       (v) Provide to the provider complete written interpretations 110392
that explain in detail the application of all relevant contract 110393
provisions, regulations, auditing standards, rate formulae, and 110394
departmental policies, with explanations and examples, that are 110395
sufficient to permit the provider to calculate with reasonable 110396
certainty those costs that are allowable and the rate to which the 110397
provider's ICF/IID is entitled.110398

       (2) For the purpose of division (E)(1)(a)(i) of this section, 110399
employment of a member of an auditor's family by an ICF/IID that 110400
the auditor does not audit does not constitute a direct or 110401
indirect financial interest in the ownership, financing, or 110402
operation of the ICF/IID.110403

       Sec. 5111.224.        Sec. 5124.15.  (A) Except as otherwise provided by 110404
sections 5111.205124.151 to 5111.3315124.154 of the Revised Code 110405
and by division (B) of this section, the paymentstotal per 110406
medicaid day payment rate that the department of job and family 110407
servicesdevelopmental disabilities shall agree to makepay to the110408
an ICF/IID provider of an intermediate care facility for the 110409
mentally retarded pursuant to a provider agreementfor ICF/IID 110410
services the provider's ICF/IID provides during a fiscal year110411
shall equal the sum of all of the following:110412

       (1) The per medicaid day payment rate for capital costs 110413
determined for the ICF/IID under section 5124.17 of the Revised 110414
Code;110415

       (2) The per medicaid day payment rate for direct care costs 110416
determined for the facilityICF/IID under section 5111.235124.19110417
of the Revised Code;110418

       (2)(3) The per medicaid day payment rate for indirect care 110419
costs determined for the ICF/IID under section 5124.21 of the 110420
Revised Code;110421

       (4) The per medicaid day payment rate for other protected 110422
costs determined for the facilityICF/IID under section 5111.235110423
5124.23 of the Revised Code;110424

       (3) The rate for indirect care costs determined for the 110425
facility under section 5111.241 of the Revised Code;110426

       (4) The rate for capital costs determined for the facility 110427
under section 5111.251 of the Revised Code.110428

       (B) The department shall adjust the total rate otherwise 110429
determined under division (A) of this section as directed by the 110430
general assembly through the enactment of law governing medicaid 110431
payments to ICF/IID providers of intermediate care facilities for 110432
the mentally retarded.110433

       (C) In addition to paying an ICF/IID provider the total rate 110434
determined for the provider's ICF/IID under divisions (A) and (B) 110435
of this section for a fiscal year, the department, in accordance 110436
with section 5124.25 of the Revised Code, may pay the provider a 110437
rate add-on for pediatric ventilator-dependent outlier ICF/IID 110438
services if the rate add-on is to be paid under that section and 110439
the department approves the provider's application for the rate 110440
add-on. The rate add-on is not to be part of the ICF/IID's total 110441
rate.110442

       Sec. 5111.255.        Sec. 5124.151.  (A) The department of job and family 110443
services shall establish initial rates for an intermediate care 110444
facility for the mentally retarded with a first date of licensure 110445
that is on or after January 1, 1993, including a facility that 110446
replaces one or more existing facilities, or for an intermediate 110447
care facility for the mentally retarded with a first date of 110448
licensure before that date that was initially certified for the 110449
medicaid program on or after that date,total per medicaid day 110450
payment rate determined under section 5124.15 of the Revised Code 110451
shall not be the initial rate for ICF/IID services provided by a 110452
new ICF/IID. Instead, the initial total per medicaid day payment 110453
rate for ICF/IID services provided by a new ICF/IID shall be 110454
determined in the following manner:110455

       (1) The initial rate for capital costs shall be determined 110456
under section 5124.17 of the Revised Code using the greater of the 110457
new ICF/IID's actual inpatient days or an imputed occupancy rate 110458
of eighty per cent. 110459

       (2) The initial rate for direct care costs shall be 110460
determined as follows:110461

       (a) If there are no cost or resident assessment data for the 110462
new ICF/IID as necessary to calculatedetermine a rate under 110463
section 5111.235124.19 of the Revised Code, the rate shall be 110464
determined as follows:110465

       (i) Determine the median cost per case-mix unit calculated110466
under division (B)(1) of that section 5124.19 of the Revised Code110467
for the relevantnew ICF/IID's peer group for the calendar year 110468
immediately preceding the fiscal year in which the rate will be 110469
paid, multiplied;110470

       (ii) Multiply the amount determined under division 110471
(A)(2)(a)(i) of this section by the median annual average case-mix 110472
score for the new ICF/IID's peer group for that period and;110473

       (iii) Adjust the product determined under division 110474
(A)(2)(a)(ii) of this section by the rate of inflation estimated 110475
under division (B)(3)(D) of that section 5124.19 of the Revised 110476
Code. This rate shall be recalculated to reflect the facility's 110477
actual quarterly average case-mix score, in accordance with that 110478
section, after it submits its first quarterly assessment data that 110479
qualifies for use in calculating a case-mix score in accordance 110480
with rules authorized by division (E) of section 5111.232 of the 110481
Revised Code. If the facility's first two quarterly submissions do 110482
not contain assessment data that qualifies for use in calculating 110483
a case-mix score, the department shall continue to calculate the 110484
rate using the median annual case-mix score for the peer group in 110485
lieu of an assigned quarterly case-mix score. The department shall 110486
assign a case-mix score or, if necessary, a cost per case-mix unit 110487
under division (D) of section 5111.232 of the Revised Code for any 110488
subsequent submissions that do not contain assessment data that 110489
qualifies for use in calculating a case-mix score.110490

       (b) If the facilitynew ICF/IID is a replacement facility110491
ICF/IID and the facilityICF/IID or facilitiesICFs/IID that are 110492
being replaced are in operation immediately before the replacement 110493
facilitynew ICF/IID opens, the rate shall be the same as the rate 110494
for the replaced facilityICF/IID or facilitiesICFs/IID, 110495
proportionate to the number of ICF/IID beds in each replaced 110496
facilityICF/IID. If one or more of the replaced facilities is110497

       (c) If the new ICF/IID is a replacement ICF/IID and the 110498
ICF/IID or ICFs/IID that are being replaced are not in operation 110499
immediately before the replacement facilitynew ICF/IID opens, its 110500
proportionthe rate shall be determined under division 110501
(A)(1)(2)(a) of this section.110502

       (2)(3) The initial rate for indirect care costs shall be the 110503
maximum rate for the new ICF/IID's peer group as determined for 110504
the fiscal year in accordance with division (C) of section 5124.21 110505
of the Revised Code.110506

       (4) The initial rate for other protected costs shall be one 110507
hundred fifteen per cent of the median rate for intermediate care 110508
facilities for the mentally retarded calculatedICFs/IID 110509
determined for the fiscal year under section 5111.2355124.23 of 110510
the Revised Code.110511

       (3) The rate for indirect care costs shall be the applicable 110512
maximum rate for the facility's peer group as specified in 110513
division (B) of section 5111.241 of the Revised Code.110514

       (4) The rate for capital costs shall be determined under 110515
section 5111.251 of the Revised Code using the greater of actual 110516
inpatient days or an imputed occupancy rate of eighty per cent. 110517

       (B) The(1) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this 110518
section, the department shall adjust the rates establisheda new 110519
ICF/IID's initial total per medicaid day payment rate determined110520
under division (A) of this section at both of the following 110521
times:110522

       (1) Effectiveeffective the first day of July, to reflect new 110523
rate calculationsdeterminations for all facilitiesICFs/IID110524
under sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Code;110525

       (2) Following the provider's submission of the facility's 110526
cost report under division (A)(1)(b) of section 5111.26 of the 110527
Revised Code this chapter.110528

       The department shall pay the rate adjusted based on the cost 110529
report beginning the first day of the calendar quarter that begins 110530
more than ninety days after the department receives the cost 110531
report.110532

       (2) If the department accepts, under division (A) of section 110533
5124.101 of the Revised Code, a cost report filed by the provider 110534
of a new ICF/IID, the department shall adjust the ICF/IID's 110535
initial total per medicaid day payment rate in accordance with 110536
divisions (D) and (E) of that section rather than division (B)(1) 110537
of this section.110538

       Sec. 5124.152.  (A) The total per medicaid day payment rate 110539
determined under section 5124.15 of the Revised Code shall not be 110540
paid for ICF/IID services provided by an ICF/IID, or discrete unit 110541
of an ICF/IID, designated by the department of developmental 110542
disabilities as an outlier ICF/IID or unit. Instead, the provider 110543
of a designated outlier ICF/IID or unit shall be paid each fiscal 110544
year a total per medicaid day payment rate that the department 110545
shall prospectively determine in accordance with a methodology 110546
established in rules authorized by this section.110547

       (B) The department may designate an ICF/IID, or discrete unit 110548
of an ICF/IID, as an outlier ICF/IID or unit if the ICF/IID or 110549
unit serves residents who have either of the following:110550

       (1) Diagnoses or special care needs that require direct care 110551
resources that are not measured adequately by the resident 110552
assessment instrument specified in rules authorized by section 110553
5124.191 of the Revised Code;110554

       (2) Diagnoses or special care needs that are specified in 110555
rules authorized by this section as otherwise qualifying for 110556
consideration under this section.110557

       (C) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, the 110558
costs incurred by a designated outlier ICF/IID or unit shall not 110559
be considered in establishing medicaid payment rates for other 110560
ICFs/IID or units.110561

       (D) The director of developmental disabilities shall adopt 110562
rules under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code as necessary to 110563
implement this section.110564

       (1)(a) The rules shall do both of the following:110565

       (i) Specify the criteria and procedures the department will 110566
apply when designating an ICF/IID, or discrete unit of an ICF/IID, 110567
as an outlier ICF/IID or unit;110568

       (ii) Establish a methodology for prospectively determining 110569
the total per medicaid day payment rate that will be paid each 110570
fiscal year for ICF/IID services provided by a designated outlier 110571
ICF/IID or unit.110572

       (b) The rules adopted under division (D)(1)(a)(i) of this 110573
section regarding the criteria for designating outlier ICFs/IID 110574
and units shall do both of the following:110575

       (i) Provide for consideration of whether all of the allowable 110576
costs of an ICF/IID, or discrete unit of an ICF/IID, would be paid 110577
by the rate determined under section 5124.15 of the Revised Code;110578

       (ii) Specify the minimum number of ICF/IID beds that an 110579
ICF/IID, or discrete unit of an ICF/IID, must have to be 110580
designated an outlier ICF/IID or unit.110581

       (c) The rules authorized by division (D)(1)(a)(i) of this 110582
section regarding the criteria for designating outlier ICFs/IID 110583
and units shall not limit the designation to ICFs/IID, or discrete 110584
units of ICFs/IID, located in large cities.110585

       (d) The rules authorized by division (D)(1)(a)(ii) of this 110586
section regarding the methodology for prospectively determining 110587
the rates of designated outlier ICFs/IID and units shall provide 110588
for the methodology to consider the historical costs of providing 110589
ICF/IID services to the residents of designated outlier ICFs/IID 110590
and units.110591

       (2)(a) The rules may do both of the following:110592

       (i) Include for designation as an outlier ICF/IID or unit, an 110593
ICF/IID, or discrete unit of an ICF/IID, that serves residents who 110594
have complex medical conditions or severe behavioral problems;110595

       (ii) Require that a designated outlier ICF/IID or unit 110596
receive authorization from the department before admitting or 110597
retaining a resident.110598

       (b) If the director adopts rules authorized by division 110599
(D)(2)(a)(ii) of this section regarding the authorization of a 110600
designated outlier ICF/IID or unit to admit or retain a resident, 110601
the rules shall specify the criteria and procedures the department 110602
will apply when granting the authorization.110603

       Sec. 5124.153.  (A) To the extent, if any, provided for in 110604
rules authorized by this section, the total per medicaid day 110605
payment rate determined under section 5124.15 of the Revised Code 110606
shall not be paid for ICF/IID services that an ICF/IID not 110607
designated as an outlier ICF/IID or unit provides to a resident 110608
who meets the criteria for admission to a designated outlier 110609
ICF/IID or unit, as specified in rules authorized by section 110610
5124.152 of the Revised Code. Instead, the provider of an ICF/IID 110611
providing ICF/IID services to such a resident shall be paid each 110612
fiscal year a total per medicaid day payment rate that the 110613
department shall prospectively determine in accordance with a 110614
methodology established in rules authorized by this section.110615

       (B) The director of developmental disabilities may adopt 110616
rules under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code to implement this 110617
section. The rules may require that an ICF/IID receive 110618
authorization from the department before admitting or retaining a 110619
resident who meets the criteria for admission to a designated 110620
outlier ICF/IID or unit. If the director adopts such rules, the 110621
rules shall specify the criteria and procedures the department 110622
will apply when granting the authorization.110623

       Sec. 5111.291.        Sec. 5124.154. Notwithstanding sections 5111.20 to 110624
5111.331 of the Revised CodeThe department of developmental 110625
disabilities is not required to pay the total per medicaid day 110626
payment rates determined under section 5124.15 of the Revised Code 110627
for ICF/IID services provided by developmental centers. Instead, 110628
the department of job and family services may computedetermine110629
the ratemedicaid payment rates for intermediate care facilities 110630
for the mentally retarded operated by the department of110631
developmental disabilities or the department of mental health110632
centers according to the reasonable cost principles of Title 110633
XVIII.110634

       Sec. 5111.251.        Sec. 5124.17.  (A) TheFor each fiscal year, the110635
department of job and family servicesdevelopmental disabilities110636
shall pay a provider fordetermine each of the provider's eligible 110637
intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded for its 110638
reasonable capital costs, aICF/IID's per resident permedicaid110639
day payment rate established prospectively each fiscal year for 110640
each intermediate care facility for the mentally retardedfor 110641
reasonable capital costs. Except as otherwise provided in 110642
sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Codethis chapter, the110643
an ICF/IID's rate shall be determined prospectively and based on 110644
the facility'sICF/IID's capital costs for the calendar year 110645
preceding the fiscal year in which the rate will be paid. The110646
Subject to section 5124.28, an ICF/IID's rate shall equal the sum 110647
of the following:110648

       (1) The facility'sICF/IID's desk-reviewed, actual, 110649
allowable, per diem costcosts of ownership for the immediately110650
preceding cost reporting period, limited as provided in divisions 110651
(B) and (C) and (F) of this section;110652

       (2) Any efficiency incentive determined under division (B) of 110653
this section;110654

       (3) Any amounts forThe ICF/IID's per medicaid day payment 110655
for the ICF/IID's per diem capitalized costs of nonextensive110656
renovations determined under division (D)(1) of this section if 110657
the ICF/IID qualifies for a payment for such costs as specified in 110658
division (D)(2) of this section;110659

       (4) Any amounts for(3) The ICF/IID's per medicaid day 110660
efficiency incentive determined under division (E) of this 110661
section;110662

       (4) Until fiscal year 2015, the ICF/IID's return on net110663
equity determined under division (H)(F) of this section.110664

       Buildings shall be depreciated using the straight line method 110665
over forty years or over a different period approved by the 110666
department. Components and equipment shall be depreciated using 110667
the straight line method over a period designated by the director 110668
of job and family services in rules adopted under section 5111.02 110669
of the Revised Code, consistent with the guidelines of the 110670
American hospital association, or over a different period approved 110671
by the department of job and family services. Any rules authorized 110672
by this division that specify useful lives of buildings, 110673
components, or equipment apply only to assets acquired on or after 110674
July 1, 1993. Depreciation for costs paid or reimbursed by any 110675
government agency shall not be included in costs of ownership or 110676
renovation unless that part of the payment under sections 5111.20 110677
to 5111.331 of the Revised Code is used to reimburse the 110678
government agency. 110679

       (B) The department of job and family services shall pay to a 110680
provider for each of the provider's eligible intermediate care 110681
facilities for the mentally retarded an efficiency incentive equal 110682
to fifty per cent of the difference between any desk-reviewed, 110683
actual, allowable cost of ownership and the applicable limit on 110684
cost of ownership payments under division (C) of this section. For 110685
purposes of computing the efficiency incentive, depreciation for 110686
costs paid or reimbursed by any government agency shall be 110687
considered as a cost of ownership, and the applicable limit under 110688
division (C) of this section shall apply both to facilities with 110689
more than eight beds and facilities with eight or fewer beds. The 110690
efficiency incentive paid to a provider for a facility with eight 110691
or fewer beds shall not exceed three dollars per patient day, 110692
adjusted annually for the inflation rate for the twelve-month 110693
period beginning on the first day of July of the calendar year 110694
preceding the calendar year that precedes the fiscal year for 110695
which the efficiency incentive is determined and ending on the 110696
thirtieth day of the following June, using the consumer price 110697
index for shelter costs for all urban consumers for the north 110698
central region, as published by the United States bureau of labor 110699
statistics.110700

       (C) CostThe costs of ownership paymentsper diem payment 110701
rates for intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded110702
ICFs/IID with more than eight beds shall not exceed the following 110703
limits:110704

       (1) For facilitiesICFs/IID with dates of licensure prior to 110705
January 1, l958, not exceeding two dollars and fifty cents per 110706
patient day;110707

       (2) For facilitiesICFs/IID with dates of licensure after 110708
December 31, l957, but prior to January 1, l968, not exceeding:110709

       (a) Three dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 110710
of construction was three thousand five hundred dollars or more 110711
per bed;110712

       (b) Two dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 110713
of construction was less than three thousand five hundred dollars 110714
per bed.110715

       (3) For facilitiesICFs/IID with dates of licensure after 110716
December 31, l967, but prior to January 1, l976, not exceeding:110717

       (a) Four dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 110718
of construction was five thousand one hundred fifty dollars or 110719
more per bed;110720

       (b) Three dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 110721
of construction was less than five thousand one hundred fifty 110722
dollars per bed, but exceeds three thousand five hundred dollars 110723
per bed;110724

       (c) Two dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 110725
of construction was three thousand five hundred dollars or less 110726
per bed.110727

       (4) For facilitiesICFs/IID with dates of licensure after 110728
December 31, l975, but prior to January 1, l979, not exceeding:110729

       (a) Five dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 110730
of construction was six thousand eight hundred dollars or more per 110731
bed;110732

       (b) Four dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 110733
of construction was less than six thousand eight hundred dollars 110734
per bed but exceeds five thousand one hundred fifty dollars per 110735
bed;110736

       (c) Three dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 110737
of construction was five thousand one hundred fifty dollars or 110738
less per bed, but exceeds three thousand five hundred dollars per 110739
bed;110740

       (d) Two dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 110741
of construction was three thousand five hundred dollars or less 110742
per bed.110743

       (5) For facilitiesICFs/IID with dates of licensure after 110744
December 31, l978, but prior to January 1, l980, not exceeding:110745

       (a) Six dollars per patient day if the cost of construction 110746
was seven thousand six hundred twenty-five dollars or more per 110747
bed;110748

       (b) Five dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 110749
of construction was less than seven thousand six hundred 110750
twenty-five dollars per bed but exceeds six thousand eight hundred 110751
dollars per bed;110752

       (c) Four dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 110753
of construction was six thousand eight hundred dollars or less per 110754
bed but exceeds five thousand one hundred fifty dollars per bed;110755

       (d) Three dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 110756
of construction was five thousand one hundred fifty dollars or 110757
less but exceeds three thousand five hundred dollars per bed;110758

       (e) Two dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 110759
of construction was three thousand five hundred dollars or less 110760
per bed.110761

       (6) For facilitiesICFs/IID with dates of licensure after 110762
December 31, 1979, but prior to January 1, 1981, not exceeding:110763

       (a) Twelve dollars per patient day if the beds were 110764
originally licensed as residential facility beds by the department 110765
of developmental disabilities;110766

       (b) Six dollars per patient day if the beds were originally 110767
licensed as nursing home beds by the department of health.110768

       (7) For facilitiesICFs/IID with dates of licensure after 110769
December 31, 1980, but prior to January 1, 1982, not exceeding:110770

       (a) Twelve dollars per patient day if the beds were 110771
originally licensed as residential facility beds by the department 110772
of developmental disabilities;110773

       (b) Six dollars and forty-five cents per patient day if the 110774
beds were originally licensed as nursing home beds by the 110775
department of health.110776

       (8) For facilitiesICFs/IID with dates of licensure after 110777
December 31, 1981, but prior to January 1, 1983, not exceeding:110778

       (a) Twelve dollars per patient day if the beds were 110779
originally licensed as residential facility beds by the department 110780
of developmental disabilities;110781

       (b) Six dollars and seventy-nine cents per patient day if the 110782
beds were originally licensed as nursing home beds by the 110783
department of health.110784

       (9) For facilitiesICFs/IID with dates of licensure after 110785
December 31, 1982, but prior to January 1, 1984, not exceeding:110786

       (a) Twelve dollars per patient day if the beds were 110787
originally licensed as residential facility beds by the department 110788
of developmental disabilities;110789

       (b) Seven dollars and nine cents per patient day if the beds 110790
were originally licensed as nursing home beds by the department of 110791
health.110792

       (10) For facilitiesICFs/IID with dates of licensure after 110793
December 31, 1983, but prior to January 1, 1985, not exceeding:110794

       (a) Twelve dollars and twenty-four cents per patient day if 110795
the beds were originally licensed as residential facility beds by 110796
the department of developmental disabilities;110797

       (b) Seven dollars and twenty-three cents per patient day if 110798
the beds were originally licensed as nursing home beds by the 110799
department of health.110800

       (11) For facilitiesICFs/IID with dates of licensure after 110801
December 31, 1984, but prior to January 1, 1986, not exceeding:110802

       (a) Twelve dollars and fifty-three cents per patient day if 110803
the beds were originally licensed as residential facility beds by 110804
the department of developmental disabilities;110805

       (b) Seven dollars and forty cents per patient day if the beds 110806
were originally licensed as nursing home beds by the department of 110807
health.110808

       (12) For facilitiesICFs/IID with dates of licensure after 110809
December 31, 1985, but prior to January 1, 1987, not exceeding:110810

       (a) Twelve dollars and seventy cents per patient day if the 110811
beds were originally licensed as residential facility beds by the 110812
department of developmental disabilities;110813

       (b) Seven dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the beds 110814
were originally licensed as nursing home beds by the department of 110815
health.110816

       (13) For facilitiesICFs/IID with dates of licensure after 110817
December 31, 1986, but prior to January 1, 1988, not exceeding:110818

       (a) Twelve dollars and ninety-nine cents per patient day if 110819
the beds were originally licensed as residential facility beds by 110820
the department of developmental disabilities;110821

       (b) Seven dollars and sixty-seven cents per patient day if 110822
the beds were originally licensed as nursing home beds by the 110823
department of health.110824

       (14) For facilitiesICFs/IID with dates of licensure after 110825
December 31, 1987, but prior to January 1, 1989, not exceeding 110826
thirteen dollars and twenty-six cents per patient day;110827

       (15) For facilitiesICFs/IID with dates of licensure after 110828
December 31, 1988, but prior to January 1, 1990, not exceeding 110829
thirteen dollars and forty-six cents per patient day;110830

       (16) For facilitiesICFs/IID with dates of licensure after 110831
December 31, 1989, but prior to January 1, 1991, not exceeding 110832
thirteen dollars and sixty cents per patient day;110833

       (17) For facilitiesICFs/IID with dates of licensure after 110834
December 31, 1990, but prior to January 1, 1992, not exceeding 110835
thirteen dollars and forty-nine cents per patient day;110836

       (18) For facilitiesICFs/IID with dates of licensure after 110837
December 31, 1991, but prior to January 1, 1993, not exceeding 110838
thirteen dollars and sixty-seven cents per patient day;110839

       (19) For facilitiesICFs/IID with dates of licensure after 110840
December 31, 1992, not exceeding fourteen dollars and twenty-eight 110841
cents per patient day.110842

       (C)(1) The costs of ownership per diem payment rate for an 110843
ICF/IID with eight or fewer beds shall not exceed the following 110844
limits:110845

       (a) Eighteen dollars and thirty cents as adjusted for 110846
inflation pursuant to division (C)(2) of this section if any of 110847
the following apply to the ICF/IID:110848

       (i) The ICF/IID has a date of licensure, or was granted 110849
project authorization by the department of developmental 110850
disabilities, before July 1, 1993.110851

       (ii) The ICF/IID has a date of licensure, or was granted 110852
project authorization by the department, on or after July 1, 1993, 110853
and the provider demonstrates that the provider made substantial 110854
commitments of funds for the ICF/IID before that date.110855

       (iii) The ICF/IID has a date of licensure, or was granted 110856
project authorization by the department, on or after July 1, 1993, 110857
the provider made no substantial commitment of funds for the 110858
ICF/IID before that date, and the department of job and family 110859
services or department of developmental disabilities gave prior 110860
approval for the ICF/IID's construction.110861

       (b) If division (C)(1)(a) of this section does not apply to 110862
the ICF/IID, the amount that would apply to the ICF/IID under 110863
division (B) of this section if it had more than eight beds.110864

       (2) The eighteen-dollar and thirty-cent payment rate 110865
specified in division (C)(1)(a) of this section shall be increased 110866
as follows:110867

       (a) For the period beginning June 30, 1990, and ending July 110868
1, 1993, by the change in the "Dodge building cost indexes, 110869
northeastern and north central states," published by Marshall and 110870
Swift;110871

       (b) For each fiscal year thereafter, in accordance with 110872
division (G) of this section.110873

       (D)(1) Beginning January 1, 1981, regardless of the original 110874
date of licensure, the department of job and family services shall 110875
pay apayment rate for the per diem capitalized costs of 110876
nonextensive renovations to intermediate care facilities for the 110877
mentally retarded made after January 1, l981, to a qualifying 110878
ICF/IID, shall not exceedingexceed six dollars per patient110879
medicaid day using 1980 as the base year and adjusting the amount 110880
annually until June 30, 1993, for fluctuations in construction 110881
costs calculated by the department using the "Dodge building cost 110882
indexes, northeastern and north central states," published by 110883
Marshall and Swift. The payment rate shall be further adjusted in 110884
accordance with division (G) of this section. The payment provided 110885
for in this division is the only payment that shall be made for 110886
thean ICF/IID's capitalized costs of a nonextensive renovation 110887
of an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded110888
renovations. Nonextensive renovation costsCosts of nonextensive 110889
renovations shall not be included in costcosts of ownership, and 110890
a nonextensive renovation shall not affect the date of licensure 110891
for purposes of division (B) or (C) of this section. This division 110892
applies to nonextensive renovations regardless of whether they are 110893
made by an owner or a lessee. If the tenancy of a lessee that has 110894
made nonextensive renovations ends before the depreciation expense 110895
for the renovation costs of nonextensive renovations has been 110896
fully reported, the former lessee shall not report the 110897
undepreciated balance as an expense.110898

       For a nonextensive renovation to qualify(2) An ICF/IID 110899
qualifies for a payment under this division, bothfor costs of 110900
nonextensive renovations if all of the following conditions must 110901
be metapply:110902

       (1)(a) Either of the following applies:110903

       (i) The ICF/IID has more than eight beds and either the 110904
department approved the nonextensive renovation before July 1, 110905
2013, or the nonextensive renovation is part of a project that 110906
results in the ICF/IID becoming a downsized ICF/IID or partially 110907
converted ICF/IID.110908

       (ii) The ICF/IID has eight or fewer beds.110909

       (b) At least five years have elapsed since the ICF/IID's date 110910
of licensure or date of an extensive renovation of the portion of 110911
the facilityICF/IID that is proposed to be nonextensively110912
renovated, except that this condition does not apply ifunless the 110913
nonextensive renovation is necessary to meet the requirements of 110914
federal, state, or local statutes, ordinances, rules, or policies.110915

       (2)(c) The provider has obtained prior approval from the 110916
department of job and family services. The provider shall submit110917
of the ICF/IID does both of the following:110918

       (i) Submits to the department a plan that describes in detail 110919
the changes in capital assets to be accomplished by means of the 110920
nonextensive renovation and the timetable for completing the 110921
project. The time for completion of the project, which shall be no110922
not more than eighteen months after the nonextensive renovation 110923
begins;110924

       (ii) Obtains prior approval from the department for the 110925
nonextensive renovation. The110926

       (3) The director of job and family servicesdevelopmental 110927
disabilities shall adopt rules under section 5111.025124.03 of 110928
the Revised Code that specify criteria and procedures for prior 110929
approval of nonextensive renovation and extensive renovation110930
projects. No provider shall separate a project with the intent to 110931
evade the characterization of the project as a nonextensive110932
renovation or as an extensive renovation. No provider shall 110933
increase the scope of a project after it is approved by the 110934
department of job and family services unless the increase in scope 110935
is approved by the department.110936

       (E)(1) Subject to division (E)(2) of this section, an 110937
ICF/IID's per medicaid day efficiency incentive payment rate shall 110938
equal the following percentage of the difference between the 110939
ICF/IID's desk-reviewed, actual, allowable per diem costs of 110940
ownership and the applicable limit on costs of ownership payment 110941
rates established by division (B) of this section:110942

       (a) In the case of an ICF/IID with more than eight beds, the 110943
following percentage:110944

       (i) Fifty per cent for fiscal year 2014;110945

       (ii) Fifty per cent for fiscal year 2015 and each fiscal year 110946
thereafter if the provider of the ICF/IID obtains the department's 110947
approval to become a downsized ICF/IID and the approval is 110948
conditioned on the downsizing being completed not later than July 110949
1, 2018;110950

        (iii) Twenty-five per cent;110951

       (b) In the case of an ICF/IID with eight or fewer beds, fifty 110952
per cent.110953

       (2) The efficiency incentive payment rate for an ICF/IID with 110954
eight or fewer beds shall not exceed three dollars per medicaid 110955
day, adjusted annually in accordance with division (G) of this 110956
section. For the purpose of determining an ICF/IID's efficiency 110957
incentive payment rate, both of the following apply:110958

       (a) Depreciation for costs paid or reimbursed by any 110959
government agency shall be considered as a cost of ownership;110960

       (b) The applicable limit under division (B) of this section 110961
shall apply both to ICFs/IID with more than eight beds and 110962
ICFs/IID with eight or fewer beds.110963

       (F) An ICF/IID's return on net equity shall be determined at 110964
the rate of one and one-half times the average of interest rates 110965
on special issues of public debt obligations issued to the federal 110966
hospital insurance trust fund for the cost reporting period. In 110967
determining an ICF/IID's rate for return on net equity, the 110968
department shall use the greater of the ICF/IID's inpatient days 110969
during the applicable cost reporting period or the number of 110970
inpatient days the ICF/IID would have had during that period if 110971
the ICF/IID's occupancy rate had been ninety-five per cent. No 110972
ICF/IID's rate for return on net equity shall exceed one dollar 110973
per medicaid day. No ICF/IID's rate for capital costs shall 110974
include a rate for return on net equity beginning July 1, 2014.110975

       (G) The amounts specified in divisions (B), (C) and, (D), and 110976
(E) of this section shall be adjusted beginning July 1, 1993, for 110977
the estimated inflation rate for the twelve-month period beginning 110978
on the first day of July of the calendar year immediately110979
preceding the calendar year that immediately precedes the fiscal 110980
year for which rate will be paid and ending on the thirtieth day 110981
of the following June, using the consumer price index for shelter 110982
costs for all urban consumers for the north centralmidwest110983
region, as published by the United States bureau of labor 110984
statistics.110985

       (F)(1) For facilities of eight or fewer beds that have dates 110986
of licensure or have been granted project authorization by the 110987
department of developmental disabilities before July 1, 1993, and 110988
for facilities of eight or fewer beds that have dates of licensure 110989
or have been granted project authorization after that date if the 110990
providers of the facilities demonstrate that they made substantial 110991
commitments of funds on or before that date, cost of ownership 110992
shall not exceed eighteen dollars and thirty cents per resident 110993
per day. The eighteen-dollar and thirty-cent amount shall be 110994
increased by the change in the "Dodge building cost indexes, 110995
northeastern and north central states," published by Marshall and 110996
Swift, during the period beginning June 30, 1990, and ending July 110997
1, 1993, and by the change in the consumer price index for shelter 110998
costs for all urban consumers for the north central region, as 110999
published by the United States bureau of labor statistics, 111000
annually thereafter.111001

       (2) For facilities with eight or fewer beds that have dates 111002
of licensure or have been granted project authorization by the 111003
department of developmental disabilities on or after July 1, 1993, 111004
for which substantial commitments of funds were not made before 111005
that date, cost of ownership payments shall not exceed the 111006
applicable amount calculated under division (F)(1) of this 111007
section, if the department of job and family services gives prior 111008
approval for construction of the facility. If the department does 111009
not give prior approval, cost of ownership payments shall not 111010
exceed the amount specified in division (C) of this section.111011

       (3)(H) Notwithstanding divisions (C) and (D) and (F)(1) and 111012
(2) of this section, the total payment rate for costcosts of 111013
ownership, cost of ownership efficiency incentive, and capitalized 111014
costs of nonextensive renovations, and the efficiency incentive111015
for an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded111016
ICF/IID with eight or fewer beds shall not exceed the sum of the 111017
limitations specified in divisions (C) and (D) of this section.111018

       (G) Notwithstanding any provision of this section or section 111019
5111.241 of the Revised Code, the director of job and family 111020
services may adopt rules under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code 111021
that provide for a calculation of a combined maximum payment limit 111022
for indirect care costs and cost of ownership for intermediate 111023
care facilities for the mentally retarded with eight or fewer 111024
beds.111025

       (H) The department of job and family services shall pay a 111026
provider for each of the provider's eligible proprietary 111027
intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded a return on 111028
the facility's net equity computed at the rate of one and one-half 111029
times the average of interest rates on special issues of public 111030
debt obligations issued to the federal hospital insurance trust 111031
fund for the cost reporting period. No facility's return on net 111032
equity paid under this division shall exceed one dollar per 111033
patient day. 111034

       In calculating the rate for return on net equity, the 111035
department shall use the greater of the facility's inpatient days 111036
during the applicable cost reporting period or the number of 111037
inpatient days the facility would have had during that period if 111038
its occupancy rate had been ninety-five per cent.111039

       (I)(1) For the purpose of determining ICFs/IID's medicaid 111040
payment rates for capital costs:111041

       (a) Buildings shall be depreciated using the straight line 111042
method over forty years or over a different period approved by the 111043
department.111044

       (b) Components and equipment shall be depreciated using the 111045
straight line method over a period designated by the director of 111046
developmental disabilities in rules adopted under section 5124.03 111047
of the Revised Code, consistent with the guidelines of the 111048
American hospital association, or over a different period approved 111049
by the department.111050

       (2) Any rules authorized by division (I)(1) of this section 111051
that specify useful lives of buildings, components, or equipment 111052
apply only to assets acquired on or after July 1, 1993. 111053
Depreciation for costs paid or reimbursed by any government agency 111054
shall not be included in costs of ownership or costs of 111055
nonextensive renovations unless that part of the payment under 111056
this chapter is used to reimburse the government agency.111057

       (J)(1) Except as provided in division (I)(J)(2) of this 111058
section, if a provider leases or transfers an interest in a 111059
facilityan ICF/IID to another provider who is a related party, 111060
the related party's allowable costcosts of ownership shall 111061
include the lesser of the following:111062

       (a) The annual lease expense or actual cost of ownership, 111063
whichever is applicable;111064

       (b) The reasonable cost to the lessor or provider making the 111065
transfer.111066

       (2) If a provider leases or transfers an interest in a 111067
facilityan ICF/IID to another provider who is a related party, 111068
regardless of the date of the lease or transfer, the related 111069
party's allowable cost of ownership shall include the annual lease 111070
expense or actual cost of ownership, whichever is applicable, 111071
subject to the limitations specified in divisions (B) to (H)(I) of 111072
this section, if all of the following conditions are met:111073

       (a) The related party is a relative of owner;111074

       (b) In the case of a lease, if the lessor retains any 111075
ownership interest, it is, except as provided in division 111076
(I)(J)(2)(d)(ii) of this section, in only the real property and 111077
any improvements on the real property;111078

       (c) In the case of a transfer, the provider making the 111079
transfer retains, except as provided in division (I)(J)(2)(d)(iv) 111080
of this section, no ownership interest in the facilityICF/IID;111081

       (d) The department of job and family services determines that 111082
the lease or transfer is an arm's length transaction pursuant to 111083
rules adopted under section 5111.025124.03 of the Revised Code. 111084
The rules shall provide that a lease or transfer is an arm's 111085
length transaction if all of the following, as applicable, apply:111086

       (i) In the case of a lease, once the lease goes into effect, 111087
the lessor has no direct or indirect interest in the lessee or, 111088
except as provided in division (I)(J)(2)(b) of this section, the 111089
facilityICF/IID itself, including interest as an owner, officer, 111090
director, employee, independent contractor, or consultant, but 111091
excluding interest as a lessor.111092

       (ii) In the case of a lease, the lessor does not reacquire an 111093
interest in the facilityICF/IID except through the exercise of a 111094
lessor's rights in the event of a default. If the lessor 111095
reacquires an interest in the facilityICF/IID in this manner, the 111096
department shall treat the facilityICF/IID as if the lease never 111097
occurred when the department calculatesdetermines its 111098
reimbursement ratespayment rate for capital costs.111099

       (iii) In the case of a transfer, once the transfer goes into 111100
effect, the provider that made the transfer has no direct or 111101
indirect interest in the provider that acquires the facility111102
ICF/IID or the facilityICF/IID itself, including interest as an 111103
owner, officer, director, employee, independent contractor, or 111104
consultant, but excluding interest as a creditor.111105

       (iv) In the case of a transfer, the provider that made the 111106
transfer does not reacquire an interest in the facilityICF/IID111107
except through the exercise of a creditor's rights in the event of 111108
a default. If the provider reacquires an interest in the facility111109
ICF/IID in this manner, the department shall treat the facility111110
ICF/IID as if the transfer never occurred when the department 111111
calculatesdetermines its reimbursement ratespayment rate for 111112
capital costs.111113

       (v) The lease or transfer satisfies any other criteria 111114
specified in the rules.111115

       (e) Except in the case of hardship caused by a catastrophic 111116
event, as determined by the department, or in the case of a lessor 111117
or provider making the transfer who is at least sixty-five years 111118
of age, not less than twenty years have elapsed since, for the 111119
same facilityICF/IID, allowable cost of ownership was determined 111120
most recently under this division.111121

       Sec. 5111.23.        Sec. 5124.19.  (A) The(1) For each fiscal year, the111122
department of job and family servicesdevelopmental disabilities111123
shall pay a provider fordetermine each of the provider's eligible 111124
intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded aICF/IID's111125
per resident permedicaid day payment rate for direct care costs 111126
established prospectively for each facility. The department shall 111127
establish each facility's rate for direct care costs quarterlyas 111128
follows:111129

       (a) Multiply the lesser of the following by the ICF/IID's 111130
annual average case-mix score determined or assigned under section 111131
5124.192 of the Revised Code for the calendar year immediately 111132
preceding the fiscal year for which the rate will be paid:111133

       (i) The ICF/IID's cost per case-mix unit for the calendar 111134
year immediately preceding the fiscal year for which the rate will 111135
be paid, as determined under division (B) of this section;111136

       (ii) The maximum cost per case-mix unit for the ICF/IID's 111137
peer group for the fiscal year for which the rate will be paid, as 111138
set under division (C) of this section;111139

       (b) Adjust the product determined under division (A)(1)(a) of 111140
this section by the inflation rate estimated under division (D)(1) 111141
of this section and modified under division (D)(2) of this 111142
section.111143

       (2) Except as otherwise directed by law enacted by the 111144
general assembly, the department shall determine each ICF/IID's 111145
rate for direct care costs prospectively.111146

       (B) Each facility's rate for direct care costs shall be based 111147
on the facility's cost per case-mix unit, subject to the maximum 111148
costs per case-mix unit established under division (B)(2) of this 111149
section, from the calendar year preceding the fiscal year in which 111150
the rate is paid. To determine the rate, the department shall do 111151
all of the following:111152

       (1) Determine each facility'san ICF/IID's cost per case-mix 111153
unit for the calendar year immediately preceding the fiscal year 111154
in which the rate will be paid by dividing, the facility's111155
department shall divide the ICF/IID's desk-reviewed, actual, 111156
allowable, per diem direct care costs for that calendar year by 111157
its annual average case-mix score determined under section 111158
5111.2325124.192 of the Revised Code for the same calendar year.111159

       (2)(a) Set(C)(1) For each fiscal year for which a rate will 111160
be paid, the department shall set the maximum cost per case-mix 111161
unit for each peer group of intermediate care facilities for the 111162
mentally retardedICFs/IID with more than eight beds specified in 111163
rules adopted under division (F) of this section at a percentage 111164
above the cost per case-mix unit ofdetermined under division (B) 111165
of this section for the facilityICF/IID in the peer group that 111166
has the peer group's median number of medicaid daydays for the 111167
calendar year immediately preceding the fiscal year in which the 111168
rate will be paid, as calculated under division (B)(1) of this 111169
section, that is. The percentage shall be no less than the 111170
percentage calculated under division (E)(2) of this sectionabove 111171
the cost per case-mix unit determined under division (B) of this 111172
section for the ICF/IID that has the median number of medicaid 111173
days for calendar year 1992 for all ICFs/IID with more than eight 111174
beds that would result in payment of all desk-reviewed, actual, 111175
allowable direct care costs for eighty and one-half per cent of 111176
the medicaid days for such ICFs/IID for calendar year 1992.111177

       (b) Set(2) For each fiscal year for which a rate will be 111178
paid, the department shall set the maximum cost per case-mix unit 111179
for each peer group of intermediate care facilities for the 111180
mentally retardedICFs/IID with eight or fewer beds specified in 111181
rules adopted under division (F) of this section at a percentage 111182
above the cost per case-mix unit ofdetermined under division (B) 111183
of this section for the facilityICF/IID in the peer group that 111184
has the peer group's median number of medicaid daydays for the 111185
calendar year immediately preceding the fiscal year in which the 111186
rate will be paid, as calculated under division (B)(1) of this 111187
section, that is. The percentage shall be no less than the 111188
percentage calculated under division (E)(3) of this sectionabove 111189
the cost per case-mix unit determined under division (B) of this 111190
section for the ICF/IID that has the median number of medicaid 111191
days for calendar year 1992 for all ICFs/IID with eight or fewer 111192
beds that would result in payment of all desk-reviewed, actual, 111193
allowable direct care costs for eighty and one-half per cent of 111194
the medicaid days for such ICFs/IID for calendar year 1992.111195

       (c)(3) In calculatingdetermining the maximum cost per 111196
case-mix unit under divisions (B)(2)(a)(C)(1) and (b)(2) of this 111197
section for each peer group, the department shall exclude from its 111198
calculationsdeterminations the cost per case-mix unit of any 111199
facilityICF/IID in the peer group that participated in the 111200
medicaid program under the same operatorprovider for less than 111201
twelve months during the calendar year immediately preceding the 111202
fiscal year in which the rate will be paid.111203

       (3) Estimate(4) The department shall not reset a peer 111204
group's maximum cost per case-mix unit for a fiscal year under 111205
division (C)(1) or (2) of this section based on additional 111206
information that it receives after it sets the maximum for that 111207
fiscal year. The department shall reset a peer group's maximum 111208
cost per case-mix unit for a fiscal year only if it made an error 111209
in setting the maximum for that fiscal year based on information 111210
available to the department at the time it originally sets the 111211
maximum for that fiscal year.111212

       (D)(1) The department shall estimate the rate of inflation 111213
for the eighteen-month period beginning on the first day of July 111214
of the calendar year preceding the fiscal year in which thea rate 111215
will be paid and ending on the thirty-first day of December of the 111216
fiscal year in which the rate will be paid, using the index 111217
specified in division (C) of this section. If the estimated 111218
inflation rate for the eighteen-month period is different from the 111219
actual inflation rate for that period, as measured using the same 111220
index, the difference shall be added to or subtracted from the 111221
inflation rate estimated under division (B)(3) of this section for 111222
the following fiscal year.111223

       (4) The department shall not recalculate a maximum cost per 111224
case-mix unit under division (B)(2) of this section or a 111225
percentage under division (E) of this section based on additional 111226
information that it receives after the maximum costs per case-mix 111227
unit or percentages are set. The department shall recalculate a 111228
maximum cost per case-mix units or percentage only if it made an 111229
error in computing the maximum cost per case-mix unit or 111230
percentage based on information available at the time of the 111231
original calculation.111232

       (C) The department shall use the following index for the 111233
purpose of division (B)(3) of this section:111234

       (1) The(a) Subject to division (D)(1)(b) of this section, 111235
the employment cost index for total compensation, health services111236
care and social assistance component, published by the United 111237
States bureau of labor statistics;111238

       (2)(b) If the United States bureau of labor statistics ceases 111239
to publish the index specified in division (C)(D)(1)(a) of this 111240
section, the index that is subsequently published by the bureau 111241
and covers nursing facilities'the staff costs of ICFs/IID.111242

       (D) Each facility's rate for direct care costs shall be 111243
determined as follows for each calendar quarter within a fiscal 111244
year:111245

       (1) Multiply the lesser of the following by the facility's 111246
average case-mix score determined under section 5111.232 of the 111247
Revised Code for the calendar quarter that preceded the 111248
immediately preceding calendar quarter: 111249

       (a) The facility's cost per case-mix unit for the calendar 111250
year preceding the fiscal year in which the rate will be paid, as 111251
determined under division (B)(1) of this section;111252

       (b) The maximum cost per case-mix unit established for the 111253
fiscal year in which the rate will be paid for the facility's peer 111254
group under division (B)(2) of this section; 111255

       (2) Adjust the product determined under division (D)(1) of 111256
this section by the inflation rate estimated under division (B)(3) 111257
of this section.111258

       (E)(1) The department shall calculate the percentage above 111259
the median cost per case-mix unit determined under division (B)(1) 111260
of this section for the facility that has the median medicaid day 111261
for calendar year 1992 for all intermediate care facilities for 111262
the mentally retarded with more than eight beds that would result 111263
in payment of all desk-reviewed, actual, allowable direct care 111264
costs for eighty and one-half per cent of the medicaid days for 111265
such facilities for calendar year 1992.111266

       (2) The department shall calculate the percentage above the 111267
median cost per case-mix unit determined under division (B)(1) of 111268
this section for the facility that has the median medicaid day for 111269
calendar year 1992 for all intermediate care facilities for the 111270
mentally retarded with eight or fewer beds that would result in 111271
payment of all desk-reviewed, actual, allowable direct care costs 111272
for eighty and one-half per cent of the medicaid days for such 111273
facilities for calendar year 1992.111274

       (F)(2) If the estimated inflation rate for the eighteen-month 111275
period specified in division (D)(1) of this section is different 111276
from the actual inflation rate for that period, as measured using 111277
the same index, the difference shall be added to or subtracted 111278
from the inflation rate estimated under division (D)(1) of this 111279
section for the following fiscal year.111280

       (E) The director of job and family servicesdevelopmental 111281
disabilities shall adopt rules under section 5111.025124.03 of 111282
the Revised Code that specify peer groups of intermediate care 111283
facilities for the mentally retardedICFs/IID with more than eight 111284
beds and intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded111285
peer groups of ICFs/IID with eight or fewer beds, based on 111286
findings of significant per diem direct care cost differences due 111287
to geography and facility bed-size. The rules also may specify 111288
peer groups based on findings of significant per diem direct care 111289
cost differences due to other factors which may include case-mix.111290

       (G) The department, in accordance with division (D) of 111291
section 5111.232 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under 111292
division (F) of that section, may assign case-mix scores or costs 111293
per case-mix unit if a provider fails to submit assessment data 111294
necessary to calculate an intermediate care facility for the 111295
mentally retarded's case-mix score in accordance with that 111296
section.111297

       Sec. 5124.191.  Each calendar quarter, each ICF/IID provider 111298
shall compile complete assessment data for each resident of each 111299
of the provider's ICFs/IID, regardless of payment source, who is 111300
in the ICF/IID, or on hospital or therapeutic leave from the 111301
ICF/IID, on the last day of the quarter. A resident assessment 111302
instrument specified in rules adopted under section 5124.03 of the 111303
Revised Code shall be used to compile the resident assessment 111304
data. Each provider shall submit the resident assessment data to 111305
the department of developmental disabilities not later than 111306
fifteen days after the end of the calendar quarter for which the 111307
data is compiled. The resident assessment data shall be submitted 111308
to the department through the medium or media specified in rules 111309
adopted under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code.111310

       Sec. 5124.192.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) of 111311
this section, the department of developmental disabilities shall 111312
do both of the following:111313

       (1) For each calendar quarter, determine a case-mix score for 111314
each ICF/IID using the resident assessment data submitted to the 111315
department under section 5124.191 of the Revised Code and the 111316
grouper methodology prescribed in rules authorized by this 111317
section;111318

       (2) After the end of each calendar year and in accordance 111319
with rules authorized by this section, determine an annual average 111320
case-mix score for each ICF/IID using the ICF/IID's quarterly 111321
case-mix scores for that calendar year.111322

       (B)(1) Subject to division (B)(2) of this section, the 111323
department, for one or more months of a calendar quarter, may 111324
assign to an ICF/IID a case-mix score that is five per cent less 111325
than the ICF/IID's case-mix score for the immediately preceding 111326
calendar quarter if any of the following apply:111327

       (a) The provider does not timely submit complete and accurate 111328
resident assessment data necessary to determine the ICF/IID's 111329
case-mix score for the calendar quarter;111330

       (b) The ICF/IID was subject to an exception review under 111331
section 5124.193 of the Revised Code for the immediately preceding 111332
calendar quarter;111333

       (c) The ICF/IID was assigned a case-mix score for the 111334
immediately preceding calendar quarter.111335

       (2) Before assigning a case-mix score to an ICF/IID due to 111336
the submission of incorrect resident assessment data, the 111337
department shall permit the provider to correct the data. The 111338
department may assign the case-mix score if the provider fails to 111339
submit the corrected resident assessment data not later than 111340
forty-five days after the end of the calendar quarter to which the 111341
data pertains or later due date specified in rules authorized by 111342
this section.111343

       (3) If, for more than six months during a calendar year, a 111344
provider is paid a rate determined for an ICF/IID using a case-mix 111345
score assigned to the ICF/IID under division (B)(1) of this 111346
section, the department may assign the ICF/IID a cost per case-mix 111347
unit that is five per cent less than the ICF/IID's actual or 111348
assigned cost per case-mix unit for the immediately preceding 111349
calendar year. The department may use the assigned cost per 111350
case-mix unit, instead of determining the ICF/IID's actual cost 111351
per case-mix unit in accordance with section 5124.19 of the 111352
Revised Code, to establish the ICF/IID's rate for direct care 111353
costs for the fiscal year immediately following the calendar year 111354
for which the cost per case-mix unit is assigned.111355

       (4) The department shall take action under division (B)(1), 111356
(2), or (3) of this section only in accordance with rules 111357
authorized by this section. The department shall not take an 111358
action that affects medicaid payment rates for prior payment 111359
periods except in accordance with sections 5124.41 and 5124.42 of 111360
the Revised Code.111361

       (C) The director of developmental disabilities shall adopt 111362
rules under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code as necessary to 111363
implement this section.111364

       (1) The rules shall do all of the following:111365

       (a) Prescribe a grouper methodology to be used when 111366
determining the case-mix scores for ICFs/IID;111367

       (b) Specify the process for determining the annual average 111368
case-mix scores for ICFs/IID;111369

       (c) Establish procedures under which resident assessment data 111370
is to be reviewed for accuracy and providers are to be notified of 111371
any data that requires correction;111372

       (d) Establish procedures for providers to correct resident 111373
assessment data and, if necessary, specify a due date for 111374
corrections that is later than the due date specified in division 111375
(B)(2) of this section.111376

       (e) Specify when and how the department will assign a 111377
case-mix score or cost per case-mix unit to an ICF/IID under 111378
division (B) of this section if information necessary to calculate 111379
the ICF/IID's case-mix score is not provided or corrected in 111380
accordance with the procedures established by the rules.111381

       (2) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, the 111382
rules may provide for excluding case-mix scores assigned to an 111383
ICF/IID under division (B) of this section from the determination 111384
of the ICF/IID's annual average case-mix score and the maximum 111385
cost per case-mix unit for the ICF/IID's peer group.111386

       Sec. 5124.193.  (A) The department of developmental 111387
disabilities may, pursuant to rules authorized by this section, 111388
conduct an exception review of resident assessment data submitted 111389
by an ICF/IID provider under section 5124.191 of the Revised Code. 111390
The department may conduct an exception review based on the 111391
findings of a medicaid certification survey conducted by the 111392
department of health, a risk analysis, or prior performance of the 111393
provider.111394

       Exception reviews shall be conducted at the ICF/IID by 111395
appropriate health professionals under contract with or employed 111396
by the department. The professionals may review resident 111397
assessment forms and supporting documentation, conduct interviews, 111398
and observe residents to identify any patterns or trends of 111399
inaccurate resident assessments and resulting inaccurate case-mix 111400
scores.111401

       (B) If an exception review is conducted before the effective 111402
date of an ICF/IID's rate for direct care costs that is based on 111403
the resident assessment data being reviewed and the review results 111404
in findings that exceed tolerance levels specified in the rules 111405
authorized by this section, the department, in accordance with the 111406
rules authorized by this section, may use the findings to 111407
redetermine individual resident case-mix scores, the ICF/IID's 111408
case-mix score for the quarter, and the ICF/IID's annual average 111409
case-mix score. The department may use the ICF/IID's redetermined 111410
quarterly and annual average case-mix scores to determine the 111411
ICF/IID's rate for direct care costs for the appropriate calendar 111412
quarter or quarters.111413

       (C) The department shall prepare a written summary of any 111414
exception review finding that is made after the effective date of 111415
an ICF/IID's rate for direct care costs that is based on the 111416
resident assessment data that was reviewed. Where the provider is 111417
pursuing judicial or administrative remedies in good faith 111418
regarding the finding, the department shall not withhold from the 111419
provider's current payments any amounts the department claims to 111420
be due from the provider pursuant to section 5124.41 of the 111421
Revised Code.111422

       (D)(1) The director of developmental disabilities shall adopt 111423
rules under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code as necessary to 111424
implement this section. The rules shall establish an exception 111425
review program that does all of the following:111426

       (a) Requires each exception review to comply with Title XIX;111427

       (b) Requires a written summary for each exception review that 111428
states whether resident assessment forms have been completed 111429
accurately;111430

       (c) Prohibits each health professional who conducts an 111431
exception review from doing either of the following:111432

       (i) During the period of the professional's contract or 111433
employment with the department, having or being committed to 111434
acquire any direct or indirect financial interest in the 111435
ownership, financing, or operation of ICFs/IID in this state;111436

       (ii) Reviewing any provider that has been a client of the 111437
professional.111438

       (2) For the purposes of division (D)(1)(c)(i) of this 111439
section, employment of a member of a health professional's family 111440
by an ICF/IID that the professional does not review does not 111441
constitute a direct or indirect financial interest in the 111442
ownership, financing, or operation of the ICF/IID.111443

       Sec. 5111.233.        Sec. 5124.194.  The costs of day programming shall 111444
be part of the direct care costs of an intermediate care facility 111445
for the mentally retardedICF/IID as off-site day programming if 111446
the area in which the day programming is provided is not certified 111447
by the director of health as an intermediate care facility for the 111448
mentally retardedICF/IID under Title XIX and regardless of either 111449
of the following:111450

       (A) Whether or not the area in which the day programming is 111451
provided is less than two hundred feet away from the intermediate 111452
care facility for the mentally retardedICF/IID;111453

       (B) Whether or not the day programming is provided by an 111454
individual who, or organization that, is a related party to the 111455
provider of the intermediate care facility for the mentally 111456
retardedICF/IID.111457

       Sec. 5111.241.        Sec. 5124.21.  (A) TheFor each fiscal year, the111458
department of job and family servicesdevelopmental disabilities111459
shall pay a provider fordetermine each of the provider's eligible 111460
intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded aICF/IID's111461
per resident permedicaid day payment rate for indirect care 111462
costs established prospectively each fiscal year for each 111463
facility. TheExcept as otherwise provided in this chapter, an 111464
ICF/IID's rate shall be determined prospectively. Subject to 111465
section 5124.28 of the Revised Code, an ICF/IID's rate for each 111466
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded shall be the 111467
sum of the following, but shall not exceedlesser of the 111468
individual rate determined under division (B) of this section and111469
the maximum rate establisheddetermined for the facility's111470
ICF/IID's peer group under division (B)(C) of this section.111471

       (B) An ICF/IID's individual rate is the sum of the following:111472

       (1) The facility'sICF/IID's desk-reviewed, actual, 111473
allowable, per diem indirect care costs from the calendar year 111474
immediately preceding the fiscal year in which the rate will be 111475
paid, adjusted for the inflation rate estimated under division 111476
(C)(D)(1) of this section;111477

       (2) AnIf the ICF/IID has more than eight beds, an efficiency 111478
incentive in the following amount:111479

       (a) For fiscal years ending in even-numbered calendar years:111480

       (i) In the case of intermediate care facilities for the 111481
mentally retarded withmore than eight beds,year 2014, seven and 111482
one-tenth per cent of the maximum rate established for the 111483
facility'sICF/IID's peer group under division (B)(C) of this 111484
section;111485

       (ii) In the case of intermediate care facilities for the 111486
mentally retarded with(b) For fiscal year 2015, the following 111487
amount:111488

       (i) The amount calculated for fiscal year 2014 under division 111489
(B)(2)(a) of this section if the provider of the ICF/IID obtains 111490
the department's approval to become a downsized ICF/IID and the 111491
approval is conditioned on the downsizing being completed not 111492
later than July 1, 2018;111493

       (ii) One-half of the amount calculated for fiscal year 2014 111494
under division (B)(2)(a) of this section if division (B)(2)(b)(i) 111495
of this section does not apply to the ICF/IID.111496

       (c) For fiscal year 2016 and each fiscal year thereafter 111497
ending in an even-numbered calendar year, the following 111498
percentages of the maximum rate established for the ICF/IID's peer 111499
group under division (C) of this section:111500

       (i) Seven and one-tenth per cent if the provider of the 111501
ICF/IID obtains the department's approval to become a downsized 111502
ICF/IID and the approval is conditioned on the downsizing being 111503
completed not later than July 1, 2018;111504

       (ii) Three and fifty-five hundredths per cent if division 111505
(B)(2)(c)(i) of this section does not apply to the ICF/IID.111506

        (d) For fiscal year 2017 and each fiscal year thereafter 111507
ending in an odd-numbered calendar year, the amount calculated for 111508
the immediately preceding fiscal year under division (B)(2)(c) of 111509
this section.111510

       (3) If the ICF/IID has eight or fewer beds, an efficiency 111511
incentive in the following amount:111512

       (a) For each fiscal year ending in an even-numbered calendar 111513
year, seven per cent of the maximum rate established for the 111514
facility'sICF/IID's peer group under division (B)(C) of this 111515
section;111516

       (b) For each fiscal yearsyear ending in an odd-numbered 111517
calendar yearsyear, the amount calculated for the immediately111518
preceding fiscal year under division (A)(2)(B)(3)(a) of this 111519
section.111520

       (B)(C)(1) The maximum rate for indirect care costs for each 111521
peer group of intermediate care facilities for the mentally 111522
retardedICFs/IID with more than eight beds specified in rules 111523
adopted under division (D) of this section shall be determined as 111524
follows:111525

       (a) For each fiscal yearsyear ending in an even-numbered 111526
calendar yearsyear, the maximum rate for each such peer group 111527
shall be the rate that is no less than twelve and four-tenths per 111528
cent above the median desk-reviewed, actual, allowable, per diem 111529
indirect care cost for all intermediate care facilities for the 111530
mentally retarded with more than eight bedsICFs/IID in the peer111531
group,(excluding facilitiesICFs/IID in the peer group whose 111532
indirect care costs for that period are more than three standard 111533
deviations from the mean desk-reviewed, actual, allowable, per 111534
diem indirect care cost for all intermediate care facilities for 111535
the mentally retardedICFs/IID with more than eight beds,) for the 111536
calendar year immediately preceding the fiscal year in which the 111537
rate will be paid, adjusted by the inflation rate estimated under 111538
division (C)(D)(1) of this section.111539

       (b) For each fiscal yearsyear ending in an odd-numbered 111540
calendar yearsyear, the maximum rate for each such peer group is 111541
the peer group's maximum rate for the previous fiscal year, 111542
adjusted for the inflation rate estimated under division (C)(D)(2) 111543
of this section.111544

       (2) The maximum rate for indirect care costs for each peer 111545
group of intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded111546
ICFs/IID with eight or fewer beds specified in rules adopted under 111547
division (D) of this section shall be determined as follows:111548

       (a) For each fiscal yearsyear ending in an even-numbered 111549
calendar yearsyear, the maximum rate for each such peer group 111550
shall be the rate that is no less than ten and three-tenths per 111551
cent above the median desk-reviewed, actual, allowable, per diem 111552
indirect care cost for all intermediate care facilities for the 111553
mentally retarded with eight or fewer bedsICFs/IID in the peer111554
group,(excluding facilitiesICFs/IID in the peer group whose 111555
indirect care costs are more than three standard deviations from 111556
the mean desk-reviewed, actual, allowable, per diem indirect care 111557
cost for all intermediate care facilities for the mentally 111558
retardedICFs/IID with eight or fewer beds,) for the calendar year 111559
immediately preceding the fiscal year in which the rate will be 111560
paid, adjusted by the inflation rate estimated under division 111561
(C)(D)(1) of this section.111562

       (b) For each fiscal years that endyear ending in an111563
odd-numbered calendar yearsyear, the maximum rate for each such111564
peer group is the peer group's maximum rate for the previous 111565
fiscal year, adjusted for the inflation rate estimated under 111566
division (C)(D)(2) of this section.111567

       (3) The department shall not recalculateredetermine a 111568
maximum rate for indirect care costs under division (B)(C)(1) or 111569
(2) of this section based on additional information that it 111570
receives after the maximum rate is set. The department shall 111571
recalculateredetermine the maximum rate for indirect care costs 111572
only if it made an error in computing the maximum rate based on 111573
the information available to the department at the time of the 111574
original calculation.111575

       (C)(D)(1) When adjusting rates for inflation under divisions 111576
(A)(B)(1), (B)(C)(1)(a), and (B)(C)(2)(a) of this section, the 111577
department shall estimate the rate of inflation for the 111578
eighteen-month period beginning on the first day of July of the 111579
calendar year immediately preceding the fiscal year in which the 111580
rate will be paid and ending on the thirty-first day of December 111581
of the fiscal year in which the rate will be paid. To estimate the 111582
rate of inflation, the department shall use the following:111583

       (a) TheSubject to division (D)(1)(b) of this section, the111584
consumer price index for all items for all urban consumers for the 111585
north centralmidwest region, published by the United States 111586
bureau of labor statistics;111587

       (b) If the United States bureau of labor statistics ceases to 111588
publish the index specified in division (C)(D)(1)(a) of this 111589
section, a comparable index that the bureau publishes and the 111590
department determines is appropriate.111591

       (2) When adjusting rates for inflation under divisions 111592
(B)(C)(1)(b) and (B)(C)(2)(b) of this section, the department 111593
shall estimate the rate of inflation for the twelve-month period 111594
beginning on the first day of January of the fiscal year 111595
immediately preceding the fiscal year in which the rate will be 111596
paid and ending on the thirty-first day of December of the fiscal 111597
year in which the rate will be paid. To estimate the rate of 111598
inflation, the department shall use the following:111599

       (a) TheSubject to division (D)(2)(b) of this section, the111600
consumer price index for all items for all urban consumers for the 111601
north centralmidwest region, published by the United States 111602
bureau of labor statistics;111603

       (b) If the United States bureau of labor statistics ceases to 111604
publish the index specified in division (C)(D)(2)(a) of this 111605
section, a comparable index that the bureau publishes and the 111606
department determines is appropriate.111607

       (3) If an inflation rate estimated under division (C)(D)(1) 111608
or (2) of this section is different from the actual inflation rate 111609
for the relevant time period, as measured using the same index, 111610
the difference shall be added to or subtracted from the inflation 111611
rate estimated pursuant to this division for the following fiscal 111612
year.111613

       (D)(E) The director of job and family servicesdevelopmental 111614
disabilities shall adopt rules under section 5111.025124.03 of 111615
the Revised Code that specify peer groups of intermediate care 111616
facilities for the mentally retardedICFs/IID with more than eight 111617
beds, and peer groups of intermediate care facilities for the 111618
mentally retardedICFs/IID with eight or fewer beds, based on 111619
findings of significant per diem indirect care cost differences 111620
due to geography and facility bed-size. The rules also may specify 111621
peer groups based on findings of significant per diem indirect 111622
care cost differences due to other factors, including case-mix.111623

       Sec. 5111.235.        Sec. 5124.23. (A) TheFor each fiscal year, the111624
department of job and family servicesdevelopmental disabilities111625
shall pay a provider fordetermine each of the provider's eligible 111626
intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded aICF/IID's111627
per resident permedicaid day payment rate for other protected 111628
costs established prospectively each fiscal year for each 111629
facility. TheExcept as otherwise provided in this chapter, an 111630
ICF/IID's rate shall be determined prospectively. An ICF/IID's111631
rate for each facility shall be the facility'sICF/IID's111632
desk-reviewed, actual, allowable, per diem other protected costs 111633
from the calendar year immediately preceding the fiscal year in 111634
which the rate will be paid, all adjusted for the estimated 111635
inflation rate for the eighteen-month period beginning on the 111636
first day of July of the calendar year immediately preceding the 111637
fiscal year in which the rate will be paid and ending on the 111638
thirty-first day of December of that fiscal year. The department 111639
shall estimate inflation using the index specified in division (B) 111640
of this section. If the estimated inflation rate for the 111641
eighteen-month period is different from the actual inflation rate 111642
for that period, the difference shall be added to or subtracted 111643
from the inflation rate estimated for the following year.111644

       (B) The department shall use the following index for the 111645
purpose of division (A) of this section:111646

       (1) TheSubject to division (B)(2) of this section, the111647
consumer price index for all urban consumers for nonprescription 111648
drugs and medical supplies, as published by the United States 111649
bureau of labor statistics;111650

       (2) If the United States bureau of labor statistics ceases to 111651
publish the index specified in division (B)(1) of this section, 111652
the index that is subsequently published by the bureau and covers 111653
nonprescription drugs and medical supplies.111654

       Sec. 5124.25.  (A) Subject to division (D) of this section, 111655
the department of developmental disabilities may pay a medicaid 111656
rate add-on to an ICF/IID provider for outlier ICF/IID services 111657
the ICF/IID provides to qualifying ventilator-dependent residents 111658
on or after the effective date of this section, if the provider 111659
applies to the department of developmental disabilities to receive 111660
the rate add-on and the department approves the application. The 111661
department of developmental disabilities may approve a provider's 111662
application if all of the following apply:111663

       (1) The provider submits to the department of developmental 111664
disabilities a best practices protocol for providing outlier 111665
ICF/IID services under this section and the department of 111666
developmental disabilities determines that the protocol is 111667
acceptable;111668

       (2) The provider executes with the department of medicaid an 111669
addendum to its provider agreement for the ICF/IID regarding the 111670
outlier ICF/IID services;111671

       (3) The provider and ICF/IID meet all other eligibility 111672
requirements for the rate add-on established in rules authorized 111673
by this section. 111674

       (B) An ICF/IID that has been approved by the department of 111675
developmental disabilities to provider outlier ICF/IID services 111676
under this section shall provide the services in accordance with 111677
both of the following:111678

       (1) The best practices protocol the department of 111679
developmental disabilities determined is acceptable;111680

       (2) Requirements regarding the services established in rules 111681
authorized by this section.111682

       (C) To qualify to receive outlier ICF/IID services from an 111683
ICF/IID under this section, a resident of the ICF/IID must be a 111684
medicaid recipient, be under twenty-two years of age, be dependent 111685
on a ventilator, and meet all other eligibility requirements 111686
established in rules authorized by this section.111687

       (D) The department of developmental disabilities shall 111688
negotiate the amount of the medicaid payment rate add-on, if any, 111689
to be paid under this section, or the method by which that amount 111690
is to be determined, with the department of medicaid. The 111691
department of developmental disabilities shall not pay the rate 111692
add-on unless the department has approved the amount of the rate 111693
add-on or method by which the amount is to be determined.111694

       Sec. 5124.28.  Notwithstanding any provision of section 111695
5124.17 or 5124.21 of the Revised Code, the director of 111696
developmental disabilities may adopt rules under section 5124.03 111697
of the Revised Code that provide for the determination of a 111698
combined maximum payment limit for indirect care costs and costs 111699
of ownership for ICFs/IID with eight or fewer beds.111700

       Sec. 5111.263.        Sec. 5124.29.  Except as otherwise provided in 111701
section 5111.2645124.30 of the Revised Code, the department of 111702
job and family servicesdevelopmental disabilities, in determining 111703
whether an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded's111704
ICF/IID's direct care costs and indirect care costs are allowable, 111705
shall place no limit on specific categories of reasonable costs 111706
other than compensation of owners, compensation of relatives of 111707
owners, and compensation of administrators.111708

       Compensation cost limits for owners and relatives of owners 111709
shall be based on compensation costs for individuals who hold 111710
comparable positions but who are not owners or relatives of 111711
owners, as reported on facilityICFs/IID's cost reports. As used 111712
in this section, "comparable position" means the position that is 111713
held by the owner or the owner's relative, if that position is 111714
listed separately on the cost report form, or if the position is 111715
not listed separately, the group of positions that is listed on 111716
the cost report form and that includes the position held by the 111717
owner or the owner's relative. In the case of an owner or owner's 111718
relative who serves the facilityICFs/IID in a capacity such as 111719
corporate officer, proprietor, or partner for which no comparable 111720
position or group of positions is listed on the cost report form, 111721
the compensation cost limit shall be based on civil service 111722
equivalents and shall be specified in rules adopted under section 111723
5111.025124.03 of the Revised Code.111724

       Compensation cost limits for administrators shall be based on 111725
compensation costs for administrators who are not owners or 111726
relatives of owners, as reported on facilityICFs/IID's cost 111727
reports. Compensation cost limits for administrators of four or 111728
more intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded111729
ICFs/IID shall be the same as the limits for administrators of 111730
intermediate care facilities for the mentally retardedICFs/IID111731
with one hundred fifty or more beds.111732

       Sec. 5124.30.  Except as provided in section 5124.17 of the 111733
Revised Code, the costs of goods, services, and facilities, 111734
furnished to an ICF/IID provider by a related party are includable 111735
in the allowable costs of the provider at the reasonable cost to 111736
the related party.111737

       Sec. 5124.31.  The department of developmental disabilities 111738
shall adjust medicaid payment rates determined under this chapter 111739
to account for reasonable additional costs that must be incurred 111740
by ICFs/IID to comply with requirements of federal or state 111741
statutes, rules, or policies enacted or amended after January 1, 111742
1992, or with orders issued by state or local fire authorities.111743

       Sec. 5124.32.  The department of developmental disabilities 111744
shall not reduce an ICF/IID's medicaid payment rate determined 111745
under this chapter on the basis that the provider charges a lower 111746
rate to any resident who is not eligible for medicaid.111747

       Sec. 5124.33.  No medicaid payment shall be made to an 111748
ICF/IID provider for the day a medicaid recipient is discharged 111749
from the ICF/IID.111750

       Sec. 5111.33.        Sec. 5124.34. Reimbursement to a(A) The department 111751
of developmental disabilities shall pay an ICF/IID provider of an 111752
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded under 111753
sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Code shall include 111754
payments to the provider, at a rate equal to the percentageone 111755
hundred per cent of the per residenttotal per medicaid day rates 111756
that the department of job and family services has established111757
payment rate determined for the provider's facilityICF/IID under 111758
sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Code for the fiscal 111759
year for which the cost of services is reimbursed,this chapter to 111760
reserve a bed for a resident who is a medicaid recipient during a 111761
temporary absence under conditions prescribed by the department, 111762
to include hospitalization for an acute condition, visits with 111763
relatives and friends, and participation in therapeutic programs 111764
outside the facility, when theif all of the following apply:111765

       (1) The recipient is temporarily absent from the ICF/IID for 111766
a reason that makes the absence qualified for payments under this 111767
section as specified in rules authorized by this section;111768

       (2) The resident's plan of care provides for suchthe absence 111769
and federal;111770

       (3) Federal financial participation in the payments is 111771
available for the payments. The111772

       (B) The maximum period during which medicaid payments may be 111773
made to reserve a bed shall not exceed the maximum period 111774
specified underin federal regulations, and shall not be more 111775
than thirty days during any calendar year for hospital stays, 111776
visits with relatives and friends, and participation in 111777
therapeutic programs.111778

       Recipientsprograms. However, a resident shall not be subject 111779
to a maximum period during which payments may be made to reserve a 111780
bed in an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded if 111781
prior authorization of the department is obtained for hospital 111782
stays, visits with relatives and friends, and participation in 111783
therapeutic programs. The111784

       (C)(1) The director of job and family servicesdevelopmental 111785
disabilities shall adopt rules under section 5111.025124.03 of 111786
the Revised Code establishingas necessary to implement this 111787
section, including rules that do the following:111788

       (a) Specify the reasons for which a temporary absence from an 111789
ICF/IID makes the absence qualify for payments under this section;111790

       (b) Establish conditions under which prior authorization may 111791
be obtained for the purpose of division (B) of this section.111792

       (2) The rules authorized by division (C)(1)(a) of this 111793
section shall include the following as reasons for which a 111794
temporary absence from an ICF/IID qualifies for payments under 111795
this section:111796

       (a) Hospitalization for acute conditions;111797

       (b) Visits with relatives and friends;111798

       (c) Participation in therapeutic programs outside the 111799
ICF/IID.111800

       Sec. 5124.35.  Medicaid payments may be made for ICF/IID 111801
services provided not later than thirty days after the effective 111802
date of an involuntary termination of the ICF/IID that provides 111803
the services if the services are provided to a medicaid recipient 111804
who is eligible for the services and resided in the ICF/IID before 111805
the effective date of the involuntary termination.111806

       Sec. 5124.37.  The department of developmental disabilities 111807
shall make its best efforts each year to determine ICFs/IID's 111808
medicaid payment rates under this chapter in time to pay the rates 111809
by August fifteenth of each fiscal year. If the department is 111810
unable to calculate the rates so that they can be paid by that 111811
date, the department shall pay each provider the rate calculated 111812
for the provider's ICFs/IID under those sections at the end of the 111813
previous fiscal year. If the department also is unable to 111814
calculate the rates to make the payments due by the fifteenth day 111815
of September and the fifteenth day of October, the department 111816
shall pay the previous fiscal year's rate to make those payments. 111817
The department may increase by five per cent the previous fiscal 111818
year's rate paid for any ICF/IID pursuant to this section at the 111819
request of the provider. The department shall use rates calculated 111820
for the current fiscal year to make the payments due by the 111821
fifteenth day of November.111822

       If an ICF/IID's medicaid payment rate paid under this section 111823
is lower than the rate calculated for it for the current fiscal 111824
year, the department shall pay the provider the difference between 111825
the two rates for the number of days for which the provider is 111826
paid the lower rate. If an ICF/IID's medicaid payment rate paid 111827
under this section is higher than the rate calculated for it for 111828
the current fiscal year, the provider shall refund to the 111829
department the difference between the two rates for the number of 111830
days for which the provider is paid the higher rate.111831

       Sec. 5124.38.  (A) The director of developmental disabilities 111832
shall establish a process under which an ICF/IID provider, or a 111833
group or association of ICF/IID providers, may seek 111834
reconsideration of medicaid payment rates established under this 111835
chapter, including a rate for direct care costs redetermined 111836
before the effective date of the rate as a result of an exception 111837
review conducted under section 5124.193 of the Revised Code. 111838
Except as provided in divisions (B) to (D) of this section, the 111839
only issue that a provider, group, or association may raise in the 111840
rate reconsideration is whether the rate was calculated in 111841
accordance with this chapter and the rules adopted under section 111842
5124.03 of the Revised Code. The provider, group, or association 111843
may submit written arguments or other materials that support its 111844
position. The provider, group, or association and department shall 111845
take actions regarding the rate reconsideration within time frames 111846
specified in rules authorized by this section.111847

       If the department determines, as a result of the rate 111848
reconsideration, that the rate established for one or more 111849
ICFs/IID is less than the rate to which the ICF/IID is entitled, 111850
the department shall increase the rate. If the department has paid 111851
the incorrect rate for a period of time, the department shall pay 111852
the provider of the ICF/IID the difference between the amount the 111853
provider was paid for that period for the ICF/IID and the amount 111854
the provider should have been paid for the ICF/IID.111855

       (B)(1) The department, through the rate reconsideration 111856
process, may increase during a fiscal year the medicaid payment 111857
rate determined for an ICF/IID under this chapter if the provider 111858
demonstrates that the ICF/IID's actual, allowable costs have 111859
increased because of any of the following extreme circumstances:111860

       (a) A natural disaster;111861

       (b) A nonextensive renovation approved under division (D) of 111862
section 5124.17 of the Revised Code;111863

       (c) If the ICF/IID has an appropriate claims management 111864
program, an increase in the ICF/IID's workers' compensation 111865
experience rating of greater than five per cent;111866

       (d) If the ICF/IID is an inner-city ICF/IID, increased 111867
security costs;111868

       (e) A change of ownership that results from bankruptcy, 111869
foreclosure, or findings by the department of health of violations 111870
of medicaid certification requirements;111871

       (f) Other extreme circumstances specified in rules authorized 111872
by this section.111873

       (2) An ICF/IID may qualify for a rate increase under this 111874
division only if its per diem, actual, allowable costs have 111875
increased to a level that exceeds its total rate. An increase 111876
under this division is subject to any rate limitations or maximum 111877
rates established by this chapter for specific cost centers. Any 111878
rate increase granted under this division shall take effect on the 111879
first day of the first month after the department receives the 111880
request.111881

       (C) The department, through the rate reconsideration process, 111882
may increase an ICF/IID's rate as determined under this chapter if 111883
the department, in the department's sole discretion, determines 111884
that the rate as determined under those sections works an extreme 111885
hardship on the ICF/IID.111886

       (D) When beds certified for the medicaid program are added to 111887
an existing ICF/IID or replaced at the same site, the department, 111888
through the rate reconsideration process, may increase the 111889
ICF/IID's rate for capital costs proportionately, as limited by 111890
any applicable limitation under section 5124.17 of the Revised 111891
Code, to account for the costs of the beds that are added or 111892
replaced. If the department makes this increase, it shall make the 111893
increase one month after the first day of the month after the 111894
department receives sufficient documentation of the costs. Any 111895
rate increase granted under this division after June 30, 1993, 111896
shall remain in effect until the effective date of a rate for 111897
capital costs determined under section 5124.17 of the Revised Code 111898
that includes costs incurred for a full calendar year for the bed 111899
addition or bed replacement. The ICF/IID shall report double 111900
accumulated depreciation in an amount equal to the depreciation 111901
included in the rate adjustment on its cost report for the first 111902
year of operation. During the term of any loan used to finance a 111903
project for which a rate adjustment is granted under this 111904
division, if the ICF/IID is operated by the same provider, the 111905
provider shall subtract from the interest costs it reports on its 111906
cost report an amount equal to the difference between the 111907
following:111908

       (1) The actual, allowable interest costs for the loan during 111909
the calendar year for which the costs are being reported;111910

       (2) The actual, allowable interest costs attributable to the 111911
loan that were used to calculate the rates paid to the provider 111912
for the ICF/IID during the same calendar year.111913

       (E) The department's decision at the conclusion of the 111914
reconsideration process is not subject to any administrative 111915
proceedings under Chapter 119. or any other provision of the 111916
Revised Code.111917

       (F) The director of developmental disabilities shall adopt 111918
rules under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code as necessary to 111919
implement this section.111920

       Sec. 5124.40.  If an ICF/IID provider properly amends a cost 111921
report for an ICF/IID under section 5124.107 of the Revised Code 111922
and the amended report shows that the provider received a lower 111923
medicaid payment rate under the original cost report than the 111924
provider was entitled to receive, the department of developmental 111925
disabilities shall adjust the provider's rate for the ICF/IID 111926
prospectively to reflect the corrected information. The department 111927
shall pay the adjusted rate beginning two months after the first 111928
day of the month after the provider files the amended cost report.111929

       If the department finds, from an exception review of resident 111930
assessment data conducted pursuant to section 5124.193 of the 111931
Revised Code after the effective date of an ICF/IID's rate for 111932
direct care costs that is based on the resident assessment data, 111933
that inaccurate resident assessment data resulted in the provider 111934
receiving a lower rate for the ICF/IID than the provider was 111935
entitled to receive, the department prospectively shall adjust the 111936
provider's rate for the ICF/IID accordingly. The department shall 111937
make payments to the provider using the adjusted rate for the 111938
remainder of the calendar quarter for which the resident 111939
assessment data is used to determine the rate, beginning one month 111940
after the first day of the month after the exception review is 111941
completed.111942

       Sec. 5124.41.  (A) The department of developmental 111943
disabilities shall redetermine a provider's medicaid payment rate 111944
for an ICF/IID using revised information if any of the following 111945
results in a determination that the provider received a higher 111946
medicaid payment rate for the ICF/IID than the provider was 111947
entitled to receive:111948

       (1) The provider properly amends a cost report for the 111949
ICF/IID under section 5124.107 of the Revised Code;111950

       (2) The department makes a finding based on an audit under 111951
section 5124.109 of the Revised Code;111952

       (3) The department makes a finding based on an exception 111953
review of resident assessment data conducted under section 111954
5124.193 of the Revised Code after the effective date of the 111955
ICF/IID's rate for direct care costs that is based on the resident 111956
assessment data.111957

       (B) The department shall apply the redetermined rate to the 111958
periods when the provider received the incorrect rate to determine 111959
the amount of the overpayment. The provider shall refund the 111960
amount of the overpayment. The department may charge the provider 111961
the following amount of interest from the time the overpayment was 111962
made:111963

       (1) If the overpayment resulted from costs reported for 111964
calendar year 1993, the interest shall be not greater than one and 111965
one-half times the current average bank prime rate.111966

       (2) If the overpayment resulted from costs reported for a 111967
subsequent calendar year:111968

       (a) The interest shall be not greater than two times the 111969
current average bank prime rate if the overpayment was not more 111970
than one per cent of the total medicaid payments to the provider 111971
for the fiscal year for which the incorrect information was used 111972
to determine a rate.111973

       (b) The interest shall be not greater than two and one-half 111974
times the current average bank prime rate if the overpayment was 111975
more than one per cent of the total medicaid payments to the 111976
provider for the fiscal year for which the incorrect information 111977
was used to determine a rate.111978

       Sec. 5124.42.  In addition to the other penalties authorized 111979
by this chapter, the department of developmental disabilities may 111980
impose the following penalties on an ICF/IID provider:111981

       (A) If the provider does not furnish invoices or other 111982
documentation that the department requests during an audit within 111983
sixty days after the request, a fine of not more than the greater 111984
of the following:111985

       (1) One thousand dollars per audit;111986

       (2) Twenty-five per cent of the cumulative amount by which 111987
the costs for which documentation was not furnished increased the 111988
total medicaid payments to the provider during the fiscal year for 111989
which the costs were used to determine a rate.111990

       (B) If an exiting operator or owner fails to provide notice 111991
of a facility closure or voluntary termination as required by 111992
section 5124.50 of the Revised Code, or an exiting operator or 111993
owner and entering operator fail to provide notice of a change of 111994
operator as required by section 5124.51 of the Revised Code, a 111995
fine of not more than the current average bank prime rate plus 111996
four per cent of the last two monthly payments.111997

       Sec. 5124.43.  For the purposes of sections 5124.41 and 111998
5124.42 of the Revised Code, the department of developmental 111999
disabilities shall determine the current average bank prime rate 112000
using statistical release H.15, "selected interest rates," a 112001
weekly publication of the federal reserve board, or any successor 112002
publication. If statistical release H.15, or its successor, ceases 112003
to contain the bank prime rate information or ceases to be 112004
published, the department shall request a written statement of the 112005
average bank prime rate from the federal reserve bank of Cleveland 112006
or the federal reserve board.112007

       Sec. 5124.44.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this 112008
section, the department of developmental disabilities shall deduct 112009
the following from the next available medicaid payment the 112010
department makes to an ICF/IID provider who continues to 112011
participate in medicaid:112012

       (1) Any amount the provider is required to refund, and any 112013
interest charged, under section 5124.41 of the Revised Code;112014

       (2) The amount of any penalty imposed on the provider under 112015
section 5124.42 of the Revised Code.112016

       (B) The department and an ICF/IID provider may enter into an 112017
agreement under which a deduction required by division (A) of this 112018
section is taken in installments from payments the department 112019
makes to the provider.112020

       Sec. 5124.45.  The department of developmental disabilities 112021
shall transmit to the treasurer of state for deposit in the 112022
general revenue fund amounts collected from the following:112023

       (A) Refunds required by, and interest charged under, section 112024
5124.41 of the Revised Code;112025

       (B) Amounts collected from penalties imposed under section 112026
5124.42 of the Revised Code.112027

       Sec. 5124.46.  All of the following are subject to an 112028
adjudication conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 112029
Revised Code:112030

       (A) Any audit disallowance that the department of 112031
developmental disabilities makes as the result of an audit under 112032
section 5124.109 of the Revised Code;112033

       (B) Any adverse finding that results from an exception review 112034
of resident assessment data conducted for an ICF/IID under section 112035
5124.193 of the Revised Code after the effective date of the 112036
ICF/IID's medicaid payment rate for direct care costs that is 112037
based on the resident assessment data;112038

       (C) Any medicaid payment deemed an overpayment under section 112039
5124.523 of the Revised Code;112040

       (D) Any penalty the department imposes under section 5124.42 112041
of the Revised Code or section 5124.523 of the Revised Code.112042

       Sec. 5124.50.  An exiting operator or owner of an ICF/IID 112043
participating in the medicaid program shall provide the department 112044
of developmental disabilities and department of medicaid written 112045
notice of a facility closure or voluntary termination not less 112046
than ninety days before the effective date of the facility closure 112047
or voluntary termination. The written notice shall be provided to 112048
the department of developmental disabilities and department of 112049
medicaid in accordance with the method specified in rules 112050
authorized by section 5124.53 of the Revised Code.112051

       The written notice shall include all of the following:112052

       (A) The name of the exiting operator and, if any, the exiting 112053
operator's authorized agent;112054

       (B) The name of the ICF/IID that is the subject of the 112055
written notice;112056

       (C) The exiting operator's medicaid provider agreement number 112057
for the ICF/IID that is the subject of the written notice;112058

       (D) The effective date of the facility closure or voluntary 112059
termination;112060

       (E) The signature of the exiting operator's or owner's 112061
representative.112062

       Sec. 5124.51.  (A) An exiting operator or owner and entering 112063
operator shall provide the department of developmental 112064
disabilities and department of medicaid written notice of a change 112065
of operator if the ICF/IID participates in the medicaid program 112066
and the entering operator seeks to continue the ICF/IID's 112067
participation. The written notice shall be provided to the 112068
department of developmental disabilities and department of 112069
medicaid in accordance with the method specified in rules 112070
authorized by section 5124.53 of the Revised Code. The written 112071
notice shall be provided to the department of developmental 112072
disabilities and department of medicaid not later than forty-five 112073
days before the effective date of the change of operator if the 112074
change of operator does not entail the relocation of residents. 112075
The written notice shall be provided to the department of 112076
developmental disabilities and department of medicaid not later 112077
than ninety days before the effective date of the change of 112078
operator if the change of operator entails the relocation of 112079
residents. 112080

       The written notice shall include all of the following:112081

       (1) The name of the exiting operator and, if any, the exiting 112082
operator's authorized agent;112083

       (2) The name of the ICF/IID that is the subject of the change 112084
of operator;112085

       (3) The exiting operator's seven-digit medicaid legacy number 112086
and ten-digit national provider identifier number for the ICF/IID 112087
that is the subject of the change of operator;112088

       (4) The name of the entering operator;112089

       (5) The effective date of the change of operator;112090

       (6) The manner in which the entering operator becomes the 112091
ICF/IID's operator, including through sale, lease, merger, or 112092
other action;112093

       (7) If the manner in which the entering operator becomes the 112094
ICF/IID's operator involves more than one step, a description of 112095
each step;112096

       (8) Written authorization from the exiting operator or owner 112097
and entering operator for the department of medicaid to process a 112098
provider agreement for the entering operator;112099

       (9) The names and addresses of the persons to whom the 112100
department of developmental disabilities and department of 112101
medicaid should send initial correspondence regarding the change 112102
of operator;112103

       (10) The signature of the exiting operator's or owner's 112104
representative.112105

       (B) An exiting operator or owner and entering operator 112106
immediately shall provide the department of developmental 112107
disabilities and department of medicaid notice of any changes to 112108
information included in a written notice of a change of operator 112109
that occur after that notice is provided to the department of 112110
developmental disabilities and department of medicaid. The notice 112111
of the changes shall be provided to the department of 112112
developmental disabilities and department of medicaid in 112113
accordance with the method specified in rules authorized by 112114
section 5124.53 of the Revised Code.112115

       Sec. 5124.511.  The department of medicaid may enter into a 112116
provider agreement with an entering operator that goes into effect 112117
at 12:01 a.m. on the effective date of the change of operator if 112118
all of the following requirements are met:112119

       (A) The department receives a properly completed written 112120
notice required by section 5124.51 of the Revised Code on or 112121
before the date required by that section.112122

       (B) The department receives both of the following in 112123
accordance with the method specified in rules authorized by 112124
section 5124.53 of the Revised Code and not later than ten days 112125
after the effective date of the change of operator:112126

       (1) From the entering operator, a completed application for a 112127
provider agreement and all other forms and documents specified in 112128
rules authorized by section 5124.53 of the Revised Code;112129

       (2) From the exiting operator or owner, all forms and 112130
documents specified in rules authorized by section 5124.53 of the 112131
Revised Code.112132

       (C) The entering operator is eligible to enter into a 112133
provider agreement for the ICF/IID as provided in section 5124.06 112134
of the Revised Code.112135

       Sec. 5124.512.  (A) The department of medicaid may enter into 112136
a provider agreement with an entering operator that goes into 112137
effect at 12:01 a.m. on the date determined under division (B) of 112138
this section if all of the following are the case:112139

       (1) The department receives a properly completed written 112140
notice required by section 5124.51 of the Revised Code.112141

       (2) The department receives, from the entering operator and 112142
in accordance with the method specified in rules authorized by 112143
section 5124.53 of the Revised Code, a completed application for a 112144
provider agreement and all other forms and documents specified in 112145
rules adopted under that section.112146

       (3) The department receives, from the exiting operator or 112147
owner and in accordance with the method specified in rules 112148
authorized by section 5124.53 of the Revised Code, all forms and 112149
documents specified in rules adopted under that section.112150

       (4) One or more of the following apply:112151

       (a) The requirement of division (A)(1) of this section is met 112152
after the time required by section 5124.51 of the Revised Code;112153

       (b) The requirement of division (A)(2) of this section is met 112154
more than ten days after the effective date of the change of 112155
operator;112156

       (c) The requirement of division (A)(3) of this section is met 112157
more than ten days after the effective date of the change of 112158
operator.112159

       (5) The entering operator is eligible to enter into a 112160
provider agreement for the ICF/IID as provided in section 5124.06 112161
of the Revised Code.112162

       (B) The department shall determine the date a provider 112163
agreement entered into under this section is to go into effect as 112164
follows:112165

       (1) The effective date shall give the department sufficient 112166
time to process the change of operator and give the department 112167
sufficient time to assure no duplicate payments are made and make 112168
the withholding required by section 5124.521 of the Revised Code.112169

       (2) The effective date shall be not earlier than the latest 112170
of the following:112171

       (a) The effective date of the change of operator;112172

       (b) The date that the entering operator complies with section 112173
5124.51 of the Revised Code and division (A)(2) of this section;112174

       (c) The date that the exiting operator or owner complies with 112175
section 5124.51 of the Revised Code and division (A)(3) of this 112176
section.112177

       (3) The effective date shall be not later than the following 112178
after the later of the dates specified in division (B)(2) of this 112179
section:112180

       (a) Forty-five days if the change of operator does not entail 112181
the relocation of residents;112182

       (b) Ninety days if the change of operator entails the 112183
relocation of residents.112184

       Sec. 5124.513.  A provider that enters into a provider 112185
agreement with the department of medicaid under section 5124.511 112186
or 5124.512 of the Revised Code shall do all of the following:112187

       (A) Comply with all applicable federal statutes and 112188
regulations;112189

       (B) Comply with section 5124.07 of the Revised Code and all 112190
other applicable state statutes and rules;112191

       (C) Comply with all the terms and conditions of the exiting 112192
operator's provider agreement, including all of the following:112193

       (1) Any plan of correction;112194

       (2) Compliance with health and safety standards;112195

       (3) Compliance with the ownership and financial interest 112196
disclosure requirements of 42 C.F.R. 455.104, 455.105, and 1002.3;112197

       (4) Compliance with the civil rights requirements of 45 112198
C.F.R. parts 80, 84, and 90;112199

       (5) Compliance with additional requirements imposed by the 112200
department;112201

       (6) Any sanctions relating to remedies for violation of the 112202
provider agreement, including deficiencies, compliance periods, 112203
accountability periods, monetary penalties, notification for 112204
correction of contract violations, and history of deficiencies.112205

       Sec. 5124.514.  In the case of a change of operator, the 112206
exiting operator shall be considered to be the operator of the 112207
ICF/IID for purposes of the medicaid program, including medicaid 112208
payments, until the effective date of the entering operator's 112209
provider agreement if the provider agreement is entered into under 112210
section 5124.511 or 5124.512 of the Revised Code.112211

       Sec. 5124.515.  The department of medicaid may enter into a 112212
provider agreement as provided in section 5124.07 of the Revised 112213
Code, rather than section 5124.511 or 5124.512 of the Revised 112214
Code, with an entering operator if the entering operator does not 112215
agree to a provider agreement that satisfies the requirements of 112216
division (C) of section 5124.513 of the Revised Code. The 112217
department may not enter into the provider agreement unless the 112218
department of health certifies the ICF/IID under Title XIX. The 112219
effective date of the provider agreement shall not precede any of 112220
the following:112221

       (A) The date that the department of health certifies the 112222
ICF/IID;112223

       (B) The effective date of the change of operator;112224

       (C) The date the requirement of section 5124.51 of the 112225
Revised Code is satisfied.112226

       Sec. 5124.516.  The director of developmental disabilities 112227
may adopt rules under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code 112228
governing adjustments to the medicaid reimbursement rate for an 112229
ICF/IID that undergoes a change of operator. No rate adjustment 112230
resulting from a change of operator shall be effective before the 112231
effective date of the entering operator's provider agreement. This 112232
is the case regardless of whether the provider agreement is 112233
entered into under section 5124.511, section 5124.512, or, 112234
pursuant to section 5124.515, section 5124.07 of the Revised Code.112235

       Sec. 5124.517.  The department of developmental disabilities' 112236
determination that a change of operator has or has not occurred 112237
for purposes of licensure under section 5123.19 of the Revised 112238
Code shall not affect either of the following:112239

       (A) A determination by the department of developmental 112240
disabilities or department of medicaid of whether or when a change 112241
of operator occurs;112242

       (B) The department of medicaid's determination of the 112243
effective date of an entering operator's provider agreement under 112244
section 5124.511, section 5124.512, or, pursuant to section 112245
5124.515, section 5124.07 of the Revised Code.112246

       Sec. 5124.52.  (A) On receipt of a written notice under 112247
section 5124.50 of the Revised Code of a facility closure or 112248
voluntary termination, on receipt of a written notice under 112249
section 5124.51 of the Revised Code of a change of operator, or on 112250
the effective date of an involuntary termination, the department 112251
of developmental disabilities shall estimate the amount of any 112252
overpayments made under the medicaid program to the exiting 112253
operator, including overpayments the exiting operator disputes, 112254
and other actual and potential debts the exiting operator owes or 112255
may owe to the department and United States centers for medicare 112256
and medicaid services under the medicaid program, including a 112257
franchise permit fee.112258

       (B) In estimating the exiting operator's other actual and 112259
potential debts to the department and the United States centers 112260
for medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid program, the 112261
department shall use a debt estimation methodology the director of 112262
developmental disabilities shall establish in rules authorized by 112263
section 5124.53 of the Revised Code. The methodology shall provide 112264
for estimating all of the following that the department determines 112265
are applicable:112266

       (1) Refunds due the department under section 5124.41 of the 112267
Revised Code;112268

       (2) Interest owed to the department and United States centers 112269
for medicare and medicaid services;112270

       (3) Final civil monetary and other penalties for which all 112271
right of appeal has been exhausted;112272

       (4) Money owed the department and United States centers for 112273
medicare and medicaid services from any outstanding final fiscal 112274
audit, including a final fiscal audit for the last fiscal year or 112275
portion thereof in which the exiting operator participated in the 112276
medicaid program;112277

       (5) Other amounts the department determines are applicable.112278

       (C) The department shall provide the exiting operator written 112279
notice of the department's estimate under division (A) of this 112280
section not later than thirty days after the department receives 112281
the notice under section 5124.50 of the Revised Code of the 112282
facility closure or voluntary termination; the department receives 112283
the notice under section 5124.51 of the Revised Code of the change 112284
of operator; or the effective date of the involuntary termination. 112285
The department's written notice shall include the basis for the 112286
estimate.112287

       Sec. 5124.521.  (A) Except as provided in divisions (B), (C), 112288
and (D) of this section, the department of developmental 112289
disabilities may withhold from payment due an exiting operator 112290
under the medicaid program the total amount specified in the 112291
notice provided under division (C) of section 5124.52 of the 112292
Revised Code that the exiting operator owes or may owe to the 112293
department and United States centers for medicare and medicaid 112294
services under the medicaid program.112295

       (B) In the case of a change of operator and subject to 112296
division (E) of this section, the following shall apply regarding 112297
a withholding under division (A) of this section if the exiting 112298
operator or entering operator or an affiliated operator executes a 112299
successor liability agreement meeting the requirements of division 112300
(F) of this section:112301

       (1) If the exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated 112302
operator assumes liability for the total, actual amount of debt 112303
the exiting operator owes the department and the United States 112304
centers for medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid 112305
program as determined under section 5124.525 of the Revised Code, 112306
the department shall not make the withholding.112307

       (2) If the exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated 112308
operator assumes liability for only the portion of the amount 112309
specified in division (B)(1) of this section that represents the 112310
franchise permit fee the exiting operator owes, the department 112311
shall withhold not more than the difference between the total 112312
amount specified in the notice provided under division (C) of 112313
section 5124.52 of the Revised Code and the amount for which the 112314
exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated operator 112315
assumes liability.112316

       (C) In the case of a voluntary termination or facility 112317
closure and subject to division (E) of this section, the following 112318
shall apply regarding a withholding under division (A) of this 112319
section if the exiting operator or an affiliated operator executes 112320
a successor liability agreement meeting the requirements of 112321
division (F) of this section:112322

       (1) If the exiting operator or affiliated operator assumes 112323
liability for the total, actual amount of debt the exiting 112324
operator owes the department and the United States centers for 112325
medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid program as 112326
determined under section 5124.525 of the Revised Code, the 112327
department shall not make the withholding.112328

       (2) If the exiting operator or affiliated operator assumes 112329
liability for only the portion of the amount specified in division 112330
(C)(1) of this section that represents the franchise permit fee 112331
the exiting operator owes, the department shall withhold not more 112332
than the difference between the total amount specified in the 112333
notice provided under division (C) of section 5124.52 of the 112334
Revised Code and the amount for which the exiting operator or 112335
affiliated operator assumes liability.112336

       (D) In the case of an involuntary termination and subject to 112337
division (E) of this section, the following shall apply regarding 112338
a withholding under division (A) of this section if the exiting 112339
operator, the entering operator, or an affiliated operator 112340
executes a successor liability agreement meeting the requirements 112341
of division (F) of this section and the department approves the 112342
successor liability agreement:112343

       (1) If the exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated 112344
operator assumes liability for the total, actual amount of debt 112345
the exiting operator owes the department and the United States 112346
centers for medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid 112347
program as determined under section 5124.525 of the Revised Code, 112348
the department shall not make the withholding.112349

       (2) If the exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated 112350
operator assumes liability for only the portion of the amount 112351
specified in division (D)(1) of this section that represents the 112352
franchise permit fee the exiting operator owes, the department 112353
shall withhold not more than the difference between the total 112354
amount specified in the notice provided under division (C) of 112355
section 5124.52 of the Revised Code and the amount for which the 112356
exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated operator 112357
assumes liability.112358

       (E) For an exiting operator or affiliated operator to be 112359
eligible to enter into a successor liability agreement under 112360
division (B), (C), or (D) of this section, both of the following 112361
must apply:112362

       (1) The exiting operator or affiliated operator must have one 112363
or more valid provider agreements, other than the provider 112364
agreement for the ICF/IID that is the subject of the involuntary 112365
termination, voluntary termination, facility closure, or change of 112366
operator;112367

       (2) During the twelve-month period preceding either the 112368
effective date of the involuntary termination or the month in 112369
which the department receives the notice of the voluntary 112370
termination or facility closure under section 5124.50 of the 112371
Revised Code or the notice of the change of operator under section 112372
5124.51 of the Revised Code, the average monthly medicaid payment 112373
made to the exiting operator or affiliated operator pursuant to 112374
the exiting operator's or affiliated operator's one or more 112375
provider agreements, other than the provider agreement for the 112376
ICF/IID that is the subject of the involuntary termination, 112377
voluntary termination, facility closure, or change of operator, 112378
must equal at least ninety per cent of the sum of the following:112379

       (a) The average monthly medicaid payment made to the exiting 112380
operator pursuant to the exiting operator's provider agreement for 112381
the ICF/IID that is the subject of the involuntary termination, 112382
voluntary termination, facility closure, or change of operator;112383

       (b) Whichever of the following apply:112384

       (i) If the exiting operator or affiliated operator has 112385
assumed liability under one or more other successor liability 112386
agreements, the total amount for which the exiting operator or 112387
affiliated operator has assumed liability under the other 112388
successor liability agreements;112389

       (ii) If the exiting operator or affiliated operator has not 112390
assumed liability under any other successor liability agreements, 112391
zero.112392

       (F) A successor liability agreement executed under this 112393
section must comply with all of the following:112394

       (1) It must provide for the operator who executes the 112395
successor liability agreement to assume liability for either of 112396
the following as specified in the agreement:112397

       (a) The total, actual amount of debt the exiting operator 112398
owes the department and the United States centers for medicare and 112399
medicaid services under the medicaid program as determined under 112400
section 5124.525 of the Revised Code;112401

       (b) The portion of the amount specified in division (F)(1)(a) 112402
of this section that represents the franchise permit fee the 112403
exiting operator owes.112404

       (2) It may not require the operator who executes the 112405
successor liability agreement to furnish a surety bond.112406

       (3) It must provide that the department, after determining 112407
under section 5124.525 of the Revised Code the actual amount of 112408
debt the exiting operator owes the department and United States 112409
centers for medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid 112410
program, may deduct the lesser of the following from medicaid 112411
payments made to the operator who executes the successor liability 112412
agreement:112413

       (a) The total, actual amount of debt the exiting operator 112414
owes the department and the United States centers for medicare and 112415
medicaid services under the medicaid program as determined under 112416
section 5124.525 of the Revised Code;112417

       (b) The amount for which the operator who executes the 112418
successor liability agreement assumes liability under the 112419
agreement.112420

       (4) It must provide that the deductions authorized by 112421
division (F)(3) of this section are to be made for a number of 112422
months, not to exceed six, agreed to by the operator who executes 112423
the successor liability agreement and the department or, if the 112424
operator who executes the successor liability agreement and 112425
department cannot agree on a number of months that is less than 112426
six, a greater number of months determined by the attorney general 112427
pursuant to a claims collection process authorized by statute of 112428
this state.112429

       (5) It must provide that, if the attorney general determines 112430
the number of months for which the deductions authorized by 112431
division (F)(3) of this section are to be made, the operator who 112432
executes the successor liability agreement shall pay, in addition 112433
to the amount collected pursuant to the attorney general's claims 112434
collection process, the part of the amount so collected that, if 112435
not for division (H) of this section, would be required by section 112436
109.081 of the Revised Code to be paid into the attorney general 112437
claims fund.112438

       (G) Execution of a successor liability agreement does not 112439
waive an exiting operator's right to contest the amount specified 112440
in the notice the department provides the exiting operator under 112441
division (C) of section 5124.52 of the Revised Code.112442

       (H) Notwithstanding section 109.081 of the Revised Code, the 112443
entire amount that the attorney general, whether by employees or 112444
agents of the attorney general or by special counsel appointed 112445
pursuant to section 109.08 of the Revised Code, collects under a 112446
successor liability agreement, other than the additional amount 112447
the operator who executes the agreement is required by division 112448
(F)(5) of this section to pay, shall be paid to the department of 112449
developmental disabilities for deposit into the appropriate fund. 112450
The additional amount that the operator is required to pay shall 112451
be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the attorney 112452
general claims fund created under section 109.081 of the Revised 112453
Code.112454

       Sec. 5124.522.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) of 112455
this section, an exiting operator shall file with the department 112456
of developmental disabilities a cost report not later than ninety 112457
days after the last day the exiting operator's provider agreement 112458
is in effect. The cost report shall cover the period that begins 112459
with the day after the last day covered by the operator's most 112460
recent previous cost report filed under section 5124.10 or 112461
5124.101 of the Revised Code and ends on the last day the exiting 112462
operator's provider agreement is in effect. The cost report shall 112463
include, as applicable, all of the following:112464

       (1) The sale price of the ICF/IID;112465

       (2) A final depreciation schedule that shows which assets are 112466
transferred to the buyer and which assets are not transferred to 112467
the buyer;112468

       (3) Any other information the department requires.112469

       (B) The department, at its sole discretion, may waive the 112470
requirement that an exiting operator file a cost report in 112471
accordance with division (A) of this section.112472

       Sec. 5124.523.  If an exiting operator required by section 112473
5124.522 of the Revised Code to file a cost report with the 112474
department of developmental disabilities fails to file the cost 112475
report in accordance with that section, all payments under the 112476
medicaid program for the period the cost report is required to 112477
cover are deemed overpayments until the date the department 112478
receives the properly completed cost report. The department may 112479
impose on the exiting operator a penalty of one hundred dollars 112480
for each calendar day the properly completed cost report is late.112481

       Sec. 5124.524.  The department of developmental disabilities 112482
may not provide an exiting operator final payment under the 112483
medicaid program until the department receives all properly 112484
completed cost reports the exiting operator is required to file 112485
under sections 5124.10 and 5124.522 of the Revised Code.112486

       Sec. 5124.525.  The department of developmental disabilities 112487
shall determine the actual amount of debt an exiting operator owes 112488
the department and the United States centers for medicare and 112489
medicaid services under the medicaid program by completing all 112490
final fiscal audits not already completed and performing all other 112491
appropriate actions the department determines to be necessary. The 112492
department shall issue an initial debt summary report on this 112493
matter not later than sixty days after the date the exiting 112494
operator files the properly completed cost report required by 112495
section 5124.522 of the Revised Code with the department or, if 112496
the department waives the cost report requirement for the exiting 112497
operator, sixty days after the date the department waives the cost 112498
report requirement. The initial debt summary report becomes the 112499
final debt summary report thirty-one days after the department 112500
issues the initial debt summary report unless the exiting 112501
operator, or an affiliated operator who executes a successor 112502
liability agreement under section 5124.521 of the Revised Code, 112503
requests a review before that date.112504

       The exiting operator, and an affiliated operator who executes 112505
a successor liability agreement under section 5124.521 of the 112506
Revised Code, may request a review to contest any of the 112507
department's findings included in the initial debt summary report. 112508
The request for the review must be submitted to the department not 112509
later than thirty days after the date the department issues the 112510
initial debt summary report. The department shall conduct the 112511
review on receipt of a timely request and issue a revised debt 112512
summary report. If the department has withheld money from payment 112513
due the exiting operator under division (A) of section 5124.521 of 112514
the Revised Code, the department shall issue the revised debt 112515
summary report not later than ninety days after the date the 112516
department receives the timely request for the review unless the 112517
department and exiting operator or affiliated operator agree to a 112518
later date. The exiting operator or affiliated operator may submit 112519
information to the department explaining what the operator 112520
contests before and during the review, including documentation of 112521
the amount of any debt the department owes the operator. The 112522
exiting operator or affiliated operator may submit additional 112523
information to the department not later than thirty days after the 112524
department issues the revised debt summary report. The revised 112525
debt summary report becomes the final debt summary report 112526
thirty-one days after the department issues the revised debt 112527
summary report unless the exiting operator or affiliated operator 112528
timely submits additional information to the department. If the 112529
exiting operator or affiliated operator timely submits additional 112530
information to the department, the department shall consider the 112531
additional information and issue a final debt summary report not 112532
later than sixty days after the department issues the revised debt 112533
summary report unless the department and exiting operator or 112534
affiliated operator agree to a later date.112535

       Each debt summary report the department issues under this 112536
section shall include the department's findings and the amount of 112537
debt the department determines the exiting operator owes the 112538
department and United States centers for medicare and medicaid 112539
services under the medicaid program. The department shall explain 112540
its findings and determination in each debt summary report.112541

       The exiting operator, and an affiliated operator who executes 112542
a successor liability agreement under section 5124.521 of the 112543
Revised Code, may request, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 112544
Revised Code, an adjudication regarding a finding in a final debt 112545
summary report that pertains to an audit or alleged overpayment 112546
made under the medicaid program to the exiting operator. The 112547
adjudication shall be consolidated with any other uncompleted 112548
adjudication that concerns a matter addressed in the final debt 112549
summary report.112550

       Sec. 5124.526.  The department of developmental disabilities 112551
shall release the actual amount withheld under division (A) of 112552
section 5124.521 of the Revised Code, less any amount the exiting 112553
operator owes the department and United States centers for 112554
medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid program, as 112555
follows:112556

       (A) Unless the department issues the initial debt summary 112557
report required by section 5124.525 of the Revised Code not later 112558
than sixty days after the date the exiting operator files the 112559
properly completed cost report required by section 5124.522 of the 112560
Revised Code, sixty-one days after the date the exiting operator 112561
files the properly completed cost report;112562

       (B) If the department issues the initial debt summary report 112563
required by section 5124.525 of the Revised Code not later than 112564
sixty days after the date the exiting operator files a properly 112565
completed cost report required by section 5124.522 of the Revised 112566
Code, not later than the following:112567

       (1) Thirty days after the deadline for requesting an 112568
adjudication under section 5124.525 of the Revised Code regarding 112569
the final debt summary report if the exiting operator, and an 112570
affiliated operator who executes a successor liability agreement 112571
under section 5124.521 of the Revised Code, fail to request the 112572
adjudication on or before the deadline;112573

       (2) Thirty days after the completion of an adjudication of 112574
the final debt summary report if the exiting operator, or an 112575
affiliated operator who executes a successor liability agreement 112576
under section 5124.521 of the Revised Code, requests the 112577
adjudication on or before the deadline for requesting the 112578
adjudication.112579

       (C) Unless the department issues the initial debt summary 112580
report required by section 5124.525 of the Revised Code not later 112581
than sixty days after the date the department waives the cost 112582
report requirement of section 5124.522 of the Revised Code, 112583
sixty-one days after the date the department waives the cost 112584
report requirement;112585

       (D) If the department issues the initial debt summary report 112586
required by section 5124.525 of the Revised Code not later than 112587
sixty days after the date the department waives the cost report 112588
requirement of section 5124.522 of the Revised Code, not later 112589
than the following:112590

       (1) Thirty days after the deadline for requesting an 112591
adjudication under section 5124.525 of the Revised Code regarding 112592
the final debt summary report if the exiting operator, and an 112593
affiliated operator who executes a successor liability agreement 112594
under section 5124.521 of the Revised Code, fail to request the 112595
adjudication on or before the deadline;112596

       (2) Thirty days after the completion of an adjudication of 112597
the final debt summary report if the exiting operator, or an 112598
affiliated operator who executes a successor liability agreement 112599
under section 5124.521 of the Revised Code, requests the 112600
adjudication on or before the deadline for requesting the 112601
adjudication.112602

       Sec. 5124.527.  The department of developmental disabilities, 112603
at its sole discretion, may release the amount withheld under 112604
division (A) of section 5124.521 of the Revised Code if the 112605
exiting operator submits to the department written notice of a 112606
postponement of a change of operator, facility closure, or 112607
voluntary termination and the transactions leading to the change 112608
of operator, facility closure, or voluntary termination are 112609
postponed for at least thirty days but less than ninety days after 112610
the date originally proposed for the change of operator, facility 112611
closure, or voluntary termination as reported in the written 112612
notice required by section 5124.50 or 5124.51 of the Revised Code. 112613
The department shall release the amount withheld if the exiting 112614
operator submits to the department written notice of a 112615
cancellation or postponement of a change of operator, facility 112616
closure, or voluntary termination and the transactions leading to 112617
the change of operator, facility closure, or voluntary termination 112618
are canceled or postponed for more than ninety days after the date 112619
originally proposed for the change of operator, facility closure, 112620
or voluntary termination as reported in the written notice 112621
required by section 5124.50 or 5124.51 of the Revised Code. A 112622
written notice shall be provided to the department in accordance 112623
with the method specified in rules authorized by section 5124.53 112624
of the Revised Code.112625

       After the department receives a written notice regarding a 112626
cancellation or postponement of a facility closure or voluntary 112627
termination, the exiting operator or owner shall provide new 112628
written notice to the department under section 5124.50 of the 112629
Revised Code regarding any transactions leading to a facility 112630
closure or voluntary termination at a future time. After the 112631
department receives a written notice regarding a cancellation or 112632
postponement of a change of operator, the exiting operator or 112633
owner and entering operator shall provide new written notice to 112634
the department under section 5124.51 of the Revised Code regarding 112635
any transactions leading to a change of operator at a future time.112636

       Sec. 5124.528.  (A) All amounts withheld under section 112637
5124.521 of the Revised Code from payment due an exiting operator 112638
under the medicaid program shall be deposited into the medicaid 112639
payment withholding fund created by the controlling board pursuant 112640
to section 131.35 of the Revised Code. Money in the fund shall be 112641
used as follows:112642

       (1) To pay an exiting operator when a withholding is released 112643
to the exiting operator under section 5124.526 or 5124.527 of the 112644
Revised Code;112645

       (2) To pay the department of medicaid or department of 112646
developmental disabilities, and United States centers for medicare 112647
and medicaid services, the amount an exiting operator owes the 112648
department of medicaid or department of developmental disabilities 112649
and United States centers under the medicaid program.112650

       (B) Amounts paid from the medicaid payment withholding fund 112651
pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section shall be deposited 112652
into the appropriate fund.112653

       Sec. 5124.53.  The director of developmental disabilities 112654
shall adopt rules under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code to 112655
implement sections 5124.50 to 5124.53 of the Revised Code. The 112656
rules shall specify all of the following:112657

       (A) The method by which written notices to the department 112658
required by sections 5124.50 to 5124.53 of the Revised Code are to 112659
be provided;112660

       (B) The forms and documents that are to be provided to the 112661
department under sections 5124.511 and 5124.512 of the Revised 112662
Code, which shall include, in the case of such forms and documents 112663
provided by entering operators, all the fully executed leases, 112664
management agreements, merger agreements and supporting documents, 112665
and fully executed sales contracts and any other supporting 112666
documents culminating in the change of operator;112667

       (C) The method by which the forms and documents identified in 112668
division (B) of this section are to be provided to the department.112669

       Sec. 5111.874.        Sec. 5124.60.  (A) As used in sections 5111.874 to 112670
5111.8710 of the Revised Code:112671

       "Home and community-based services" has the same meaning as 112672
in section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.112673

       "ICF/MR services" means intermediate care facility for the 112674
mentally retarded services covered by the medicaid program that an 112675
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded provides to a 112676
resident of the facility who is a medicaid recipient eligible for 112677
medicaid-covered intermediate care facility for the mentally 112678
retarded services.112679

       "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" means 112680
an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded that is 112681
certified as in compliance with applicable standards for the 112682
medicaid program by the director of health in accordance with 112683
Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 112684
U.S.C. 1396, as amended, and licensed as a residential facility 112685
under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code.112686

       "Residential facility" has the same meaning as in section 112687
5123.19 of the Revised Code.112688

       (B) For the purpose of increasing the number of slots 112689
available for home and community-based services and subject to 112690
sections 5111.8775124.63 and 5111.8785124.64 of the Revised 112691
Code, the operator of an intermediate care facility for the 112692
mentally retardedICF/IID may convert some or all of the beds in 112693
the facilityICF/IID from providing ICF/MRICF/IID services to 112694
providing home and community-based services if all of the 112695
following requirements are met:112696

       (1) The operator provides the directors of health and 112697
developmental disabilities at least ninety days' notice of the 112698
operator's intent to make the conversion.112699

       (2) The operator complies with the requirements of sections 112700
5111.655124.50 to 5111.6895124.53 of the Revised Code regarding 112701
a voluntary termination as defined in section 5111.65 of the 112702
Revised Code if those requirements are applicable.112703

       (3) If the operator intends to convert all of the facility's112704
ICF/IID's beds, the operator notifies each of the facility's112705
ICF/IID's residents that the facilityICF/IID is to cease 112706
providing ICF/MRICF/IID services and inform each resident that 112707
the resident may do either of the following:112708

       (a) Continue to receive ICF/MRICF/IID services by 112709
transferring to another facilityICF/IID that is an intermediate 112710
care facility for the mentally retarded willing and able to accept 112711
the resident if the resident continues to qualify for ICF/MR112712
ICF/IID services;112713

       (b) Begin to receive home and community-based services 112714
instead of ICF/MRICF/IID services from any provider of home and 112715
community-based services that is willing and able to provide the 112716
services to the resident if the resident is eligible for the 112717
services and a slot for the services is available to the resident.112718

       (4) If the operator intends to convert some but not all of 112719
the facility'sICF/IID's beds, the operator notifies each of the 112720
facility'sICF/IID's residents that the facilityICF/IID is to 112721
convert some of its beds from providing ICF/MRICF/IID services to 112722
providing home and community-based services and inform each 112723
resident that the resident may do either of the following:112724

       (a) Continue to receive ICF/MRICF/IID services from any 112725
provider of services ICF/MRICF/IID that is willing and able to 112726
provide the services to the resident if the resident continues to 112727
qualify for ICF/MRICF/IID services;112728

       (b) Begin to receive home and community-based services 112729
instead of ICF/MRICF/IID services from any provider of home and 112730
community-based services that is willing and able to provide the 112731
services to the resident if the resident is eligible for the 112732
services and a slot for the services is available to the resident.112733

       (5) The operator meets the requirements for providing home 112734
and community-based services, including the following:112735

       (a) Such requirements applicable to a residential facility if 112736
the operator maintains the facility's license as a residential 112737
facility;112738

       (b) Such requirements applicable to a facility that is not 112739
licensed as a residential facility if the operator surrenders the 112740
facility's license as a residential facility under section 5123.19 112741
of the Revised Code.112742

       (6) The director of developmental disabilities approves the 112743
conversion.112744

       (C)(B) A decision by the director of developmental 112745
disabilities to approve or refuse to approve a proposed conversion 112746
of beds is final. In making a decision, the director shall 112747
consider all of the following:112748

       (1) The fiscal impact on the facilityICF/IID if some but not 112749
all of the beds are converted;112750

       (2) The fiscal impact on the medical assistancemedicaid112751
program;112752

       (3) The availability of home and community-based services.112753

       (D)(C) The notice provided to the directors under division 112754
(B)(A)(1) of this section shall specify whether some or all of the 112755
facility'sICF/IID's beds are to be converted. If some but not all 112756
of the beds are to be converted, the notice shall specify how many 112757
of the facility'sICF/IID's beds are to be converted and how many 112758
of the beds are to continue to provide ICF/MRICF/IID services. 112759
The notice to the director of developmental disabilities shall 112760
specify whether the operator wishes to surrender the facility's112761
ICF/IID's license as a residential facility under section 5123.19 112762
of the Revised Code.112763

       (E)(D)(1) If the director of developmental disabilities 112764
approves a conversion under division (C)(B) of this section, the 112765
director of health shall do the following:112766

       (a) Terminate the ICF/IID's medicaid certification of the 112767
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded if the notice 112768
specifies that all of the facility'sICF/IID's beds are to be 112769
converted;112770

       (b) Reduce the facility's certifiedICF/IID's 112771
medicaid-certified capacity by the number of beds being converted 112772
if the notice specifies that some but not all of the beds are to 112773
be converted. 112774

       (2) The director of health shall notify the medicaid director 112775
of job and family services of the termination or reduction. On 112776
receipt of the director of health's notice, the medicaid director 112777
of job and family services shall do the following:112778

       (a) Terminate the operator's medicaid provider agreement that 112779
authorizes the operator to provide ICF/MRICF/IID services at the 112780
facilityICF/IID if the facility'sICF/IID's certification was 112781
terminated;112782

       (b) Amend the operator's medicaid provider agreement to 112783
reflect the facility'sICF/IID's reduced certified112784
medicaid-certified capacity if the facility's certifiedICF/IID's 112785
medicaid-certified capacity is reduced. 112786

       (3) In the case of action taken under division (E)(D)(2)(a) 112787
of this section, the operator is not entitled to notice or a 112788
hearing under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code before the medicaid112789
director of job and family services terminates the medicaid 112790
provider agreement.112791

       Sec. 5111.875.        Sec. 5124.61. (A) For the purpose of increasing the 112792
number of slots available for home and community-based services 112793
and subject to sections 5111.8775124.63 and 5111.8785124.64 of 112794
the Revised Code, a person who acquires, through a request for 112795
proposals issued by the director of developmental disabilities, a 112796
residential facility that is an intermediate care facility for the 112797
mentally retarded andan ICF/IID for which thea residential 112798
facility license as a residential facility was previously 112799
surrendered or revoked may convert some or all of the facility's112800
ICF/IID's beds from providing ICF/MRICF/IID services to providing 112801
home and community-based services if all of the following 112802
requirements are met:112803

       (1) The person provides the directors of health, job and 112804
family services, and developmental disabilities and medicaid 112805
director at least ninety days' notice of the person's intent to 112806
make the conversion.112807

       (2) The person complies with the requirements of sections 112808
5111.655124.50 to 5111.6895124.53 of the Revised Code regarding 112809
a voluntary termination as defined in section 5111.65 of the 112810
Revised Code if those requirements are applicable.112811

       (3) If the person intends to convert all of the facility's112812
ICF/IID's beds, the person notifies each of the facility's112813
ICF/IID's residents that the facilityICF/IID is to cease 112814
providing ICF/MRICF/IID services and informs each resident that 112815
the resident may do either of the following:112816

       (a) Continue to receive ICF/MRICF/IID services by 112817
transferring to another facility that is an intermediate care 112818
facility for the mentally retardedICF/IID willing and able to 112819
accept the resident if the resident continues to qualify for 112820
ICF/MRICF/IID services;112821

       (b) Begin to receive home and community-based services 112822
instead of ICF/MRICF/IID services from any provider of home and 112823
community-based services that is willing and able to provide the 112824
services to the resident if the resident is eligible for the 112825
services and a slot for the services is available to the resident.112826

       (4) If the person intends to convert some but not all of the 112827
facility'sICF/IID's beds, the person notifies each of the 112828
facility'sICF/IID's residents that the facilityICF/IID is to 112829
convert some of its beds from providing ICF/MRICF/IID services to 112830
providing home and community-based services and inform each 112831
resident that the resident may do either of the following:112832

       (a) Continue to receive ICF/MRICF/IID services from any 112833
provider of ICF/MR services that is willing and able to provide 112834
the services to the resident if the resident continues to qualify 112835
for ICF/MRICF/IID services;112836

       (b) Begin to receive home and community-based services 112837
instead of ICF/MRICF/IID services from any provider of home and 112838
community-based services that is willing and able to provide the 112839
services to the resident if the resident is eligible for the 112840
services and a slot for the services is available to the resident.112841

       (5) The person meets the requirements for providing home and 112842
community-based services at a residential facility.112843

       (B) The notice provided to the directors under division 112844
(A)(1) of this section shall specify whether some or all of the 112845
facility'sICF/IID's beds are to be converted. If some but not all 112846
of the beds are to be converted, the notice shall specify how many 112847
of the facility'sICF/IID's beds are to be converted and how many 112848
of the beds are to continue to provide ICF/MRICF/IID services.112849

       (C) On receipt of a notice under division (A)(1) of this 112850
section, the director of health shall do the following:112851

       (1) Terminate the ICF/IID's medicaid certification of the 112852
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded if the notice 112853
specifies that all of the facility's beds are to be converted;112854

       (2) Reduce the facility's certifiedICF/IID's 112855
medicaid-certified capacity by the number of beds being converted 112856
if the notice specifies that some but not all of the beds are to 112857
be converted.112858

       (D) The director of health shall notify the medicaid director 112859
of job and family services of the termination or reduction under 112860
division (C) of this section. On receipt of the director of 112861
health's notice, the medicaid director of job and family services112862
shall do the following:112863

       (1) Terminate the person's medicaid provider agreement that 112864
authorizes the person to provide ICF/MRICF/IID services at the 112865
facilityICF/IID if the facility'sICF/IID's medicaid112866
certification was terminated;112867

       (2) Amend the person's medicaid provider agreement to reflect 112868
the facility'sICF/IID's reduced certifiedmedicaid-certified112869
capacity if the facility's certifiedICF/IID's medicaid-certified112870
capacity is reduced.112871

       The person is not entitled to notice or a hearing under 112872
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code before the medicaid director of 112873
job and family services terminates or amends the medicaid provider 112874
agreement.112875

       Sec. 5111.876.        Sec. 5124.62.  Subject to section 5111.8775124.63112876
of the Revised Code, the director of developmental disabilities 112877
may request that the medicaid director of job and family services112878
seek the approval of the United States secretary of health and 112879
human services to increase the number of slots available for home 112880
and community-based services by a number not exceeding the number 112881
of beds that were part of the licensed capacity of a residential 112882
facility that had its license revoked or surrendered under section 112883
5123.19 of the Revised Code if the residential facility was an 112884
intermediate care facility for the mentally retardedICF/IID at 112885
the time of the license revocation or surrender. The revocation or 112886
surrender may have occurred before, or may occur on or after, June 112887
24, 2008. The request may include beds the director of 112888
developmental disabilities removed from such a residential 112889
facility's licensed capacity before transferring ownership or 112890
operation of the residential facility pursuant to a request for 112891
proposals.112892

       Sec. 5111.877.        Sec. 5124.63. The medicaid director of job and 112893
family services may seek approval from the United States secretary 112894
of health and human services for not more than a total of fivesix112895
hundred slots for home and community-based services for the 112896
purposes of sections 5111.8745124.60, 5111.8755124.61, and 112897
5111.8765124.62 of the Revised Code.112898

       Sec. 5111.878.        Sec. 5124.64. Not more than a total of fivesix112899
hundred beds may be converted from providing ICF/MRICF/IID112900
services to providing home and community-based services under 112901
sections 5111.8745124.60 and 5111.8755124.61 of the Revised 112902
Code.112903

       Sec. 5111.879.        Sec. 5124.65. No person or government entity may 112904
reconvert a bed to be used for ICF/MRICF/IID services if the bed 112905
was converted to use for home and community-based services under 112906
section 5111.8745124.60 or 5111.8755124.61 of the Revised Code. 112907
This prohibition applies regardless of either of the following:112908

       (A) The bed is part of the licensed capacity of a residential 112909
facility.112910

       (B) The bed has been sold, leased, or otherwise transferred 112911
to another person or government entity.112912

       Sec. 5124.67.  (A) The department of developmental 112913
disabilities shall strive to achieve, not later than July 1, 2018, 112914
the following statewide reductions in ICF/IID beds:112915

       (1) At least five hundred and not more than six hundred beds 112916
in ICFs/IID that, before becoming downsized ICFs/IID, have sixteen 112917
or more beds;112918

       (2) At least five hundred and not more than six hundred beds 112919
in ICFs/IID with any number of beds that convert some or all of 112920
their beds from providing ICF/IID services to providing home and 112921
community-based services pursuant to section 5124.60 or 5124.61 of 112922
the Revised Code.112923

       (B) In its efforts to achieve the reductions under division 112924
(A) of this section, the department shall collaborate with the 112925
Ohio association of county boards serving people with 112926
developmental disabilities, the Ohio provider resource 112927
association, the Ohio centers for intellectual disabilities formed 112928
by the Ohio health care association, and the values and faith 112929
alliance. The collaboration efforts may include the following:112930

       (1) Identifying ICFs/IID that may reduce the number of their 112931
beds to help achieve the reductions under division (A) of this 112932
section;112933

       (2) Encouraging ICF/IID providers to reduce the number of 112934
their ICFs/IID's beds;112935

       (3) Establishing interim time frames for making progress in 112936
achieving the reductions;112937

       (4) Creating incentives for, and removing impediments to, the 112938
reductions;112939

       (5) In the case of ICF/IID beds that are converted to 112940
providing home and community-based services, developing a 112941
mechanism to compensate providers for beds that permanently cease 112942
to provide ICF/IID services.112943

       (C) The department shall meet not less than twice each year 112944
with the organizations specified in division (B) of this section 112945
to do all of the following:112946

       (1) Review the progress being made in achieving the 112947
reductions under division (A) of this section;112948

       (2) Prepare written reports on the progress;112949

       (3) Identify additional measures needed to achieve the 112950
reductions.112951

       Sec. 5124.99.  Whoever violates section 5124.102 or division 112952
(E) of section 5124.08 of the Revised Code shall be fined not less 112953
than five hundred dollars nor more than one thousand dollars for 112954
the first offense and not less than one thousand dollars nor more 112955
than five thousand dollars for each subsequent offense.112956

       Fines paid under this section shall be deposited in the state 112957
treasury to the credit of the general revenue fund.112958

       Sec. 5126.01.  As used in this chapter:112959

       (A) As used in this division, "adult" means an individual who 112960
is eighteen years of age or over and not enrolled in a program or 112961
service under Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code and an individual 112962
sixteen or seventeen years of age who is eligible for adult 112963
services under rules adopted by the director of developmental 112964
disabilities pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.112965

       (1) "Adult services" means services provided to an adult 112966
outside the home, except when they are provided within the home 112967
according to an individual's assessed needs and identified in an 112968
individual service plan, that support learning and assistance in 112969
the area of self-care, sensory and motor development, 112970
socialization, daily living skills, communication, community 112971
living, social skills, or vocational skills.112972

       (2) "Adult services" includes all of the following:112973

       (a) Adult day habilitation services;112974

       (b) Adult day care;112975

       (c) Prevocational services;112976

       (d) Sheltered employment;112977

       (e) Educational experiences and training obtained through 112978
entities and activities that are not expressly intended for 112979
individuals with mental retardation and developmental 112980
disabilities, including trade schools, vocational or technical 112981
schools, adult education, job exploration and sampling, unpaid 112982
work experience in the community, volunteer activities, and 112983
spectator sports;112984

       (f) Community employment services and supported employment 112985
services.112986

       (B)(1) "Adult day habilitation services" means adult services 112987
that do the following:112988

       (a) Provide access to and participation in typical activities 112989
and functions of community life that are desired and chosen by the 112990
general population, including such activities and functions as 112991
opportunities to experience and participate in community 112992
exploration, companionship with friends and peers, leisure 112993
activities, hobbies, maintaining family contacts, community 112994
events, and activities where individuals without disabilities are 112995
involved;112996

       (b) Provide supports or a combination of training and 112997
supports that afford an individual a wide variety of opportunities 112998
to facilitate and build relationships and social supports in the 112999
community.113000

       (2) "Adult day habilitation services" includes all of the 113001
following:113002

       (a) Personal care services needed to ensure an individual's 113003
ability to experience and participate in vocational services, 113004
educational services, community activities, and any other adult 113005
day habilitation services;113006

       (b) Skilled services provided while receiving adult day 113007
habilitation services, including such skilled services as behavior 113008
management intervention, occupational therapy, speech and language 113009
therapy, physical therapy, and nursing services;113010

       (c) Training and education in self-determination designed to 113011
help the individual do one or more of the following: develop 113012
self-advocacy skills, exercise the individual's civil rights, 113013
acquire skills that enable the individual to exercise control and 113014
responsibility over the services received, and acquire skills that 113015
enable the individual to become more independent, integrated, or 113016
productive in the community;113017

       (d) Recreational and leisure activities identified in the 113018
individual's service plan as therapeutic in nature or assistive in 113019
developing or maintaining social supports;113020

       (e) Counseling and assistance provided to obtain housing, 113021
including such counseling as identifying options for either rental 113022
or purchase, identifying financial resources, assessing needs for 113023
environmental modifications, locating housing, and planning for 113024
ongoing management and maintenance of the housing selected;113025

       (f) Transportation necessary to access adult day habilitation 113026
services;113027

       (g) Habilitation management, as described in section 5126.14 113028
of the Revised Code.113029

       (3) "Adult day habilitation services" does not include 113030
activities that are components of the provision of residential 113031
services, family support services, or supported living services.113032

       (C) "Appointing authority" means the following:113033

       (1) In the case of a member of a county board of 113034
developmental disabilities appointed by, or to be appointed by, a 113035
board of county commissioners, the board of county commissioners;113036

       (2) In the case of a member of a county board appointed by, 113037
or to be appointed by, a senior probate judge, the senior probate 113038
judge.113039

       (D) "Community employment," "competitive employment," and 113040
"integrated setting" have the same meanings as in section 5123.022 113041
of the Revised Code.113042

       (E) "Community employment services" or "supportedSupported113043
employment services" means vocational assessment, job training and 113044
coaching, job development and placement, worksite accessibility,113045
and other services related to employment outside a sheltered 113046
workshop. "Community employment services" or "supportedSupported113047
employment services" include allincludes both of the following:113048

       (1) Job training resulting in the attainment of competitive 113049
workcommunity employment, supported work in a typical work 113050
environment, or self-employment;113051

       (2) Supervised work experience through an employer paid to 113052
provide the supervised work experience;113053

       (3) Ongoing work in a competitive work environment at a wage 113054
commensurate with workers without disabilities;113055

       (4) Ongoing supervision by an employer paid to provide the 113056
supervisionSupport for ongoing community employment, supported 113057
work at community-based sites, or self-employment.113058

       (E)(F) As used in this division, "substantial functional 113059
limitation," "developmental delay," and "established risk" have 113060
the meanings established pursuant to section 5123.011 of the 113061
Revised Code.113062

       "Developmental disability" means a severe, chronic disability 113063
that is characterized by all of the following:113064

       (1) It is attributable to a mental or physical impairment or 113065
a combination of mental and physical impairments, other than a 113066
mental or physical impairment solely caused by mental illness as 113067
defined in division (A) of section 5122.01 of the Revised Code;113068

       (2) It is manifested before age twenty-two;113069

       (3) It is likely to continue indefinitely;113070

       (4) It results in one of the following:113071

       (a) In the case of a person under age three, at least one 113072
developmental delay or an established risk;113073

       (b) In the case of a person at least age three but under age 113074
six, at least two developmental delays or an established risk;113075

       (c) In the case of a person age six or older, a substantial 113076
functional limitation in at least three of the following areas of 113077
major life activity, as appropriate for the person's age: 113078
self-care, receptive and expressive language, learning, mobility, 113079
self-direction, capacity for independent living, and, if the 113080
person is at least age sixteen, capacity for economic 113081
self-sufficiency.113082

       (5) It causes the person to need a combination and sequence 113083
of special, interdisciplinary, or other type of care, treatment, 113084
or provision of services for an extended period of time that is 113085
individually planned and coordinated for the person.113086

       (F)(G) "Early childhood services" means a planned program of 113087
habilitation designed to meet the needs of individuals with mental 113088
retardation or other developmental disabilities who have not 113089
attained compulsory school age.113090

       (G)(H) "Employment services" means prevocational services or 113091
supported employment services.113092

       (I)(1) "Environmental modifications" means the physical 113093
adaptations to an individual's home, specified in the individual's 113094
service plan, that are necessary to ensure the individual's 113095
health, safety, and welfare or that enable the individual to 113096
function with greater independence in the home, and without which 113097
the individual would require institutionalization.113098

       (2) "Environmental modifications" includes such adaptations 113099
as installation of ramps and grab-bars, widening of doorways, 113100
modification of bathroom facilities, and installation of 113101
specialized electric and plumbing systems necessary to accommodate 113102
the individual's medical equipment and supplies.113103

       (3) "Environmental modifications" does not include physical 113104
adaptations or improvements to the home that are of general 113105
utility or not of direct medical or remedial benefit to the 113106
individual, including such adaptations or improvements as 113107
carpeting, roof repair, and central air conditioning.113108

       (H)(J) "Family support services" means the services provided 113109
under a family support services program operated under section 113110
5126.11 of the Revised Code.113111

       (I)(K) "Habilitation" means the process by which the staff of 113112
the facility or agency assists an individual with mental 113113
retardation or other developmental disability in acquiring and 113114
maintaining those life skills that enable the individual to cope 113115
more effectively with the demands of the individual's own person 113116
and environment, and in raising the level of the individual's 113117
personal, physical, mental, social, and vocational efficiency. 113118
Habilitation includes, but is not limited to, programs of formal, 113119
structured education and training.113120

       (J)(L) "Home and community-based services" means 113121
medicaid-funded home and community-based services specified in 113122
division (B)(1) of section 5111.87 of the Revised Code and 113123
provided under the medicaid waiver components the department of 113124
developmental disabilities administers pursuant tohas the same 113125
meaning as in section 5111.8715123.01 of the Revised Code. 113126
However, home and community-based services provided under the 113127
medicaid waiver component known as the transitions developmental 113128
disabilities waiver are to be considered to be home and 113129
community-based services for the purposes of this chapter only to 113130
the extent, if any, provided by the contract required by section 113131
5111.871 of the Revised Code regarding the waiver.113132

       (K)(M) "ICF/IID" has the same meaning as in section 5124.01 113133
of the Revised Code.113134

       (N) "Immediate family" means parents, grandparents, brothers, 113135
sisters, spouses, sons, daughters, aunts, uncles, mothers-in-law, 113136
fathers-in-law, brothers-in-law, sisters-in-law, sons-in-law, and 113137
daughters-in-law.113138

       (L) "Medicaid" has the same meaning as in section 5111.01 of 113139
the Revised Code.113140

       (M)(O) "Medicaid case management services" means case 113141
management services provided to an individual with mental 113142
retardation or other developmental disability that the state 113143
medicaid plan requires.113144

       (N)(P) "Mental retardation" means a mental impairment 113145
manifested during the developmental period characterized by 113146
significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning existing 113147
concurrently with deficiencies in the effectiveness or degree with 113148
which an individual meets the standards of personal independence 113149
and social responsibility expected of the individual's age and 113150
cultural group.113151

       (O)(Q) "Prevocational services" means services, including 113152
services as a volunteer, that provide learning and work 113153
experiences from which an individual can develop general strengths 113154
and skills that are not specific to a particular task or job but 113155
contribute to employability in community employment, supported 113156
work at community-based sites, or self-employment.113157

       (R) "Residential services" means services to individuals with 113158
mental retardation or other developmental disabilities to provide 113159
housing, food, clothing, habilitation, staff support, and related 113160
support services necessary for the health, safety, and welfare of 113161
the individuals and the advancement of their quality of life. 113162
"Residential services" includes program management, as described 113163
in section 5126.14 of the Revised Code.113164

       (P)(S) "Resources" means available capital and other assets, 113165
including moneys received from the federal, state, and local 113166
governments, private grants, and donations; appropriately 113167
qualified personnel; and appropriate capital facilities and 113168
equipment.113169

       (Q)(T) "Senior probate judge" means the current probate judge 113170
of a county who has served as probate judge of that county longer 113171
than any of the other current probate judges of that county. If a 113172
county has only one probate judge, "senior probate judge" means 113173
that probate judge.113174

       (R)(U) "Service and support administration" means the duties 113175
performed by a service and support administrator pursuant to 113176
section 5126.15 of the Revised Code.113177

       (S)(V)(1) "Specialized medical, adaptive, and assistive 113178
equipment, supplies, and supports" means equipment, supplies, and 113179
supports that enable an individual to increase the ability to 113180
perform activities of daily living or to perceive, control, or 113181
communicate within the environment.113182

       (2) "Specialized medical, adaptive, and assistive equipment, 113183
supplies, and supports" includes the following:113184

       (a) Eating utensils, adaptive feeding dishes, plate guards, 113185
mylatex straps, hand splints, reaches, feeder seats, adjustable 113186
pointer sticks, interpreter services, telecommunication devices 113187
for the deaf, computerized communications boards, other 113188
communication devices, support animals, veterinary care for 113189
support animals, adaptive beds, supine boards, prone boards, 113190
wedges, sand bags, sidelayers, bolsters, adaptive electrical 113191
switches, hand-held shower heads, air conditioners, humidifiers, 113192
emergency response systems, folding shopping carts, vehicle lifts, 113193
vehicle hand controls, other adaptations of vehicles for 113194
accessibility, and repair of the equipment received.113195

       (b) Nondisposable items not covered by medicaid that are 113196
intended to assist an individual in activities of daily living or 113197
instrumental activities of daily living.113198

       (T)(W) "Supportive home services" means a range of services 113199
to families of individuals with mental retardation or other 113200
developmental disabilities to develop and maintain increased 113201
acceptance and understanding of such persons, increased ability of 113202
family members to teach the person, better coordination between 113203
school and home, skills in performing specific therapeutic and 113204
management techniques, and ability to cope with specific 113205
situations.113206

       (U)(X)(1) "Supported living" means services provided for as 113207
long as twenty-four hours a day to an individual with mental 113208
retardation or other developmental disability through any public 113209
or private resources, including moneys from the individual, that 113210
enhance the individual's reputation in community life and advance 113211
the individual's quality of life by doing the following:113212

       (a) Providing the support necessary to enable an individual 113213
to live in a residence of the individual's choice, with any number 113214
of individuals who are not disabled, or with not more than three 113215
individuals with mental retardation and developmental disabilities 113216
unless the individuals are related by blood or marriage;113217

       (b) Encouraging the individual's participation in the 113218
community;113219

       (c) Promoting the individual's rights and autonomy;113220

       (d) Assisting the individual in acquiring, retaining, and 113221
improving the skills and competence necessary to live successfully 113222
in the individual's residence.113223

       (2) "Supported living" includes the provision of all of the 113224
following:113225

       (a) Housing, food, clothing, habilitation, staff support, 113226
professional services, and any related support services necessary 113227
to ensure the health, safety, and welfare of the individual 113228
receiving the services;113229

       (b) A combination of lifelong or extended-duration 113230
supervision, training, and other services essential to daily 113231
living, including assessment and evaluation and assistance with 113232
the cost of training materials, transportation, fees, and 113233
supplies;113234

       (c) Personal care services and homemaker services;113235

       (d) Household maintenance that does not include modifications 113236
to the physical structure of the residence;113237

       (e) Respite care services;113238

       (f) Program management, as described in section 5126.14 of 113239
the Revised Code.113240

       Sec. 5126.026.  Except as otherwise provided in this section 113241
and section 5126.0218 of the Revised Code, a member of a county 113242
board of developmental disabilities may be reappointed to the 113243
county board. Prior to making a reappointment, the appointing 113244
authority shall ascertain, through written communication with the 113245
board, that the member being considered for reappointment meets 113246
the requirements of sections 5126.022 and 5126.0218 of the Revised 113247
Code.113248

        A member who has served during each of three consecutive 113249
terms shall not be reappointed for a subsequent term until two 113250
years after ceasing to be a member of the county board, except 113251
that a member who has served for ten years or less within three 113252
consecutive terms may be reappointed for a subsequent term before 113253
becoming ineligible for reappointment for two years.113254

       If, however, a county board experiences extenuating 113255
circumstances that would severely restrict the board from being 113256
able to fill a pending vacancy of a board member who will become 113257
ineligible for service on the board after serving three 113258
consecutive terms, the appointing authority may request a waiver 113259
from the director of developmental disabilities to allow that 113260
member to serve an additional four-year term subsequent to serving 113261
three consecutive four-year terms. The director shall determine if 113262
the extenuating circumstances associated with the board warrant 113263
the granting of such a waiver.113264

       Sec. 5126.043.  (A) Unless a guardian has been appointed for 113265
the individual, when a decision regarding receipt of a service or 113266
participation in a program provided for or funded under this 113267
chapter or Chapter 5123. or 5124. of the Revised Code by an 113268
individual with mental retardation or other developmental 113269
disability must be made, the individual shall be permitted to make 113270
the decision. The individual may obtain support and guidance from 113271
an adult family member or other person, but doing so does not 113272
affect the right of the individual to make the decision.113273

       (B) An individual with mental retardation or other 113274
developmental disability may authorize an adult to make a decision 113275
described in division (A) of this section on the individual's 113276
behalf, as long as the adult does not have a financial interest in 113277
the decision. The authorization shall be made in writing.113278

       (C) If a guardian has been appointed for an individual with 113279
mental retardation or other developmental disability, the guardian 113280
shall make any decision described in division (A) of this section 113281
on behalf of the individual. This section does not require 113282
appointment of a guardian.113283

       (D) Individuals with mental retardation and other 113284
developmental disabilities, including those who have been 113285
adjudicated incompetent pursuant to Chapter 2111. of the Revised 113286
Code, have the right to participate in decisions that affect their 113287
lives and to have their needs, desires, and preferences 113288
considered. An adult or guardian who makes a decision pursuant to 113289
division (B) or (C) of this section shall make a decision that is 113290
in the best interests of the individual on whose behalf the 113291
decision is made and that is consistent with the needs, desires, 113292
and preferences of that individual.113293

       Sec. 5126.05.  (A) Subject to the rules established by the 113294
director of developmental disabilities pursuant to Chapter 119. of 113295
the Revised Code for programs and services offered pursuant to 113296
this chapter, and subject to the rules established by the state 113297
board of education pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 113298
for programs and services offered pursuant to Chapter 3323. of the 113299
Revised Code, the county board of developmental disabilities 113300
shall:113301

       (1) Administer and operate facilities, programs, and services 113302
as provided by this chapter and Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code 113303
and establish policies for their administration and operation;113304

       (2) Coordinate, monitor, and evaluate existing services and 113305
facilities available to individuals with mental retardation and 113306
developmental disabilities;113307

       (3) Provide early childhood services, supportive home 113308
services, and adult services, according to the plan and priorities 113309
developed under section 5126.04 of the Revised Code;113310

       (4) Provide or contract for special education services 113311
pursuant to Chapters 3317. and 3323. of the Revised Code and 113312
ensure that related services, as defined in section 3323.01 of the 113313
Revised Code, are available according to the plan and priorities 113314
developed under section 5126.04 of the Revised Code;113315

       (5) Adopt a budget, authorize expenditures for the purposes 113316
specified in this chapter and do so in accordance with section 113317
319.16 of the Revised Code, approve attendance of board members 113318
and employees at professional meetings and approve expenditures 113319
for attendance, and exercise such powers and duties as are 113320
prescribed by the director;113321

       (6) Submit annual reports of its work and expenditures, 113322
pursuant to sections 3323.09 and 5126.12 of the Revised Code, to 113323
the director, the superintendent of public instruction, and the 113324
board of county commissioners at the close of the fiscal year and 113325
at such other times as may reasonably be requested;113326

       (7) Authorize all positions of employment, establish 113327
compensation, including but not limited to salary schedules and 113328
fringe benefits for all board employees, approve contracts of 113329
employment for management employees that are for a term of more 113330
than one year, employ legal counsel under section 309.10 of the 113331
Revised Code, and contract for employee benefits;113332

       (8) Provide service and support administration in accordance 113333
with section 5126.15 of the Revised Code;113334

       (9) Certify respite care homes pursuant to rules adopted 113335
under section 5123.171 of the Revised Code by the director of 113336
developmental disabilities;113337

       (10) Implement an employment first policy that clearly 113338
identifies community employment as the desired outcome for every 113339
individual of working age who receives services from the board;113340

       (11) Set benchmarks for improving community employment 113341
outcomes.113342

       (B) To the extent that rules adopted under this section apply 113343
to the identification and placement of children with disabilities 113344
under Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code, they shall be consistent 113345
with the standards and procedures established under sections 113346
3323.03 to 3323.05 of the Revised Code.113347

       (C) Any county board may enter into contracts with other such 113348
boards and with public or private, nonprofit, or profit-making 113349
agencies or organizations of the same or another county, to 113350
provide the facilities, programs, and services authorized or 113351
required, upon such terms as may be agreeable, and in accordance 113352
with this chapter and Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code and rules 113353
adopted thereunder and in accordance with sections 307.86 and 113354
5126.071 of the Revised Code.113355

       (D) A county board may combine transportation for children 113356
and adults enrolled in programs and services offered under Chapter 113357
5126. of the Revised Code with transportation for children 113358
enrolled in classes funded under sectionsections 3317.0213 and113359
3317.20 or units approved under section 3317.05 of the Revised 113360
Code.113361

       (E) A county board may purchase all necessary insurance 113362
policies, may purchase equipment and supplies through the 113363
department of administrative services or from other sources, and 113364
may enter into agreements with public agencies or nonprofit 113365
organizations for cooperative purchasing arrangements.113366

       (F) A county board may receive by gift, grant, devise, or 113367
bequest any moneys, lands, or property for the benefit of the 113368
purposes for which the board is established and hold, apply, and 113369
dispose of the moneys, lands, and property according to the terms 113370
of the gift, grant, devise, or bequest. All money received by 113371
gift, grant, bequest, or disposition of lands or property received 113372
by gift, grant, devise, or bequest shall be deposited in the 113373
county treasury to the credit of such board and shall be available 113374
for use by the board for purposes determined or stated by the 113375
donor or grantor, but may not be used for personal expenses of the 113376
board members. Any interest or earnings accruing from such gift, 113377
grant, devise, or bequest shall be treated in the same manner and 113378
subject to the same provisions as such gift, grant, devise, or 113379
bequest.113380

       (G) The board of county commissioners shall levy taxes and 113381
make appropriations sufficient to enable the county board of 113382
developmental disabilities to perform its functions and duties, 113383
and may utilize any available local, state, and federal funds for 113384
such purpose.113385

       Sec. 5126.051.  (A) To the extent that resources are 113386
available, a county board of developmental disabilities shall 113387
provide for or arrange residential services and supported living 113388
for individuals with mental retardation and developmental 113389
disabilities.113390

       A county board may acquire, convey, lease, or sell property 113391
for residential services and supported living and enter into loan 113392
agreements, including mortgages, for the acquisition of such 113393
property. A county board is not required to comply with 113394
provisions of Chapter 307. of the Revised Code providing for 113395
competitive bidding or sheriff sales in the acquisition, lease, 113396
conveyance, or sale of property under this division, but the 113397
acquisition, lease, conveyance, or sale must be at fair market 113398
value determined by appraisal of one or more disinterested persons 113399
appointed by the board.113400

       Any action taken by a county board under this division that 113401
will incur debt on the part of the county shall be taken in 113402
accordance with Chapter 133. of the Revised Code. A county board 113403
shall not incur any debt on the part of the county without the 113404
prior approval of the board of county commissioners.113405

       (B)(1) To the extent that resources are available, in 113406
addition to sheltered employment and work activities provided asa 113407
county board shall provide or arrange for the provision of adult 113408
services pursuant to division (A)(3) of section 5126.05 of the 113409
Revised Code, a county board of developmental disabilities may 113410
provide or arrange for job training, vocational evaluation, and 113411
community employment services to mentally retarded and 113412
developmentally disabled individuals who are age eighteen and 113413
older and not enrolled in a program or service under Chapter 3323. 113414
of the Revised Code or age sixteen or seventeen and eligible for 113415
adult services under rules adopted by the director of 113416
developmental disabilities under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. 113417
These services shall be provided in accordance with the 113418
individual's individual service or habilitation plan and shall 113419
include support services specified in the plan.113420

       (2) Any prevocational services shall be provided in 113421
accordance with the individual's individual service plan and occur 113422
over a specified period of time with specific outcomes sought to 113423
be achieved.113424

       (3) A county board may, in cooperation with the Ohio 113425
rehabilitation services commissionopportunities for Ohioans with 113426
disabilities agency, seek federal funds for job training andor 113427
other services directly at helping individuals obtain community 113428
employment.113429

       (3)(4) A county board may contract with any agency, board, or 113430
other entity that is accredited by the commission on accreditation 113431
of rehabilitation facilities to provide services. A county board 113432
that is accredited by the commission on accreditation of 113433
rehabilitation facilities may provide services for which it is 113434
certified by the commission.113435

       (C) To the extent that resources are available, a county 113436
board may provide services to an individual with mental 113437
retardation or other developmental disability in addition to those 113438
provided pursuant to this section, section 5126.05 of the Revised 113439
Code, or any other section of this chapter. The services shall be 113440
provided in accordance with the individual's habilitation or113441
individual service plan and may be provided in collaboration with 113442
other entities of state or local government.113443

       Sec. 5126.054.  (A) Each county board of developmental 113444
disabilities shall, by resolution, develop a three-calendar year 113445
plan that includes the following three components:113446

       (1) An assessment component that includes all of the 113447
following:113448

       (a) The number of individuals with mental retardation or 113449
other developmental disability residing in the county who need the 113450
level of care provided by an intermediate care facility for the 113451
mentally retardedICF/IID, may seek home and community-based 113452
services, and are given priority on a waiting list established for 113453
the services pursuant to section 5126.042 of the Revised Code; the 113454
service needs of those individuals; and the projected annualized 113455
cost for services;113456

       (b) The source of funds available to the county board to pay 113457
the nonfederal share of medicaid expenditures that the county 113458
board is required by sections 5126.059 and 5126.0510 of the 113459
Revised Code to pay;113460

       (c) Any other applicable information or conditions that the 113461
department of developmental disabilities requires as a condition 113462
of approving the component under section 5123.046 of the Revised 113463
Code.113464

       (2) A preliminary implementation component that specifies the 113465
number of individuals to be provided, during the first year that 113466
the plan is in effect, home and community-based services pursuant 113467
to the waiting list priority given to them under section 5126.042 113468
of the Revised Code and the types of home and community-based 113469
services the individuals are to receive;113470

       (3) A component that provides for the implementation of 113471
medicaid case management services and home and community-based 113472
services for individuals who begin to receive the services on or 113473
after the date the plan is approved under section 5123.046 of the 113474
Revised Code. A county board shall include all of the following in 113475
the component:113476

       (a) If the department of developmental disabilities or 113477
department of job and family servicesmedicaid requires, an 113478
agreement to pay the nonfederal share of medicaid expenditures 113479
that the county board is required by sections 5126.059 and 113480
5126.0510 of the Revised Code to pay;113481

       (b) How the services are to be phased in over the period the 113482
plan covers, including how the county board will serve individuals 113483
who have priority on a waiting list established under section 113484
5126.042 of the Revised Code;113485

       (c) Any agreement or commitment regarding the county board's 113486
funding of home and community-based services that the county board 113487
has with the department at the time the county board develops the 113488
component;113489

       (d) Assurances adequate to the department that the county 113490
board will comply with all of the following requirements:113491

       (i) To provide the types of home and community-based services 113492
specified in the preliminary implementation component required by 113493
division (A)(2) of this section to at least the number of 113494
individuals specified in that component;113495

       (ii) To use any additional funds the county board receives 113496
for the services to improve the county board's resource 113497
capabilities for supporting such services available in the county 113498
at the time the component is developed and to expand the services 113499
to accommodate the unmet need for those services in the county;113500

       (iii) To employ or contract with a business manager or enter 113501
into an agreement with another county board of developmental 113502
disabilities that employs or contracts with a business manager to 113503
have the business manager serve both county boards. No 113504
superintendent of a county board may serve as the county board's 113505
business manager.113506

       (iv) To employ or contract with a medicaid services manager 113507
or enter into an agreement with another county board of 113508
developmental disabilities that employs or contracts with a 113509
medicaid services manager to have the medicaid services manager 113510
serve both county boards. No superintendent of a county board may 113511
serve as the county board's medicaid services manager.113512

       (e) Programmatic and financial accountability measures and 113513
projected outcomes expected from the implementation of the plan;113514

       (f) Any other applicable information or conditions that the 113515
department requires as a condition of approving the component 113516
under section 5123.046 of the Revised Code.113517

       (B) A county board whose plan developed under division (A) of 113518
this section is approved by the department under section 5123.046 113519
of the Revised Code shall update and renew the plan in accordance 113520
with a schedule the department shall develop.113521

       Sec. 5126.055.  (A) Except as provided in section 5126.056 of 113522
the Revised Code, a county board of developmental disabilities has 113523
medicaid local administrative authority to, and shall, do all of 113524
the following for an individual with mental retardation or other 113525
developmental disability who resides in the county that the county 113526
board serves and seeks or receives home and community-based 113527
services:113528

       (1) Perform assessments and evaluations of the individual. As 113529
part of the assessment and evaluation process, the county board 113530
shall do all of the following:113531

       (a) Make a recommendation to the department of developmental 113532
disabilities on whether the department should approve or deny the 113533
individual's application for the services, including on the basis 113534
of whether the individual needs the level of care an intermediate 113535
care facility for the mentally retardedICF/IID provides;113536

       (b) If the individual's application is denied because of the 113537
county board's recommendation and the individual requests a 113538
hearing underappeals pursuant to section 5101.355160.31 of the 113539
Revised Code, present, with the department of developmental 113540
disabilities or department of job and family servicesmedicaid, 113541
whichever denies the application, the reasons for the 113542
recommendation and denial at the hearing;113543

       (c) If the individual's application is approved, recommend to 113544
the departments of developmental disabilities and job and family 113545
servicesmedicaid the services that should be included in the 113546
individual's individualized service plan and, if either department 113547
approves, reduces, denies, or terminates a service included in the 113548
individual's individualized service plan under section 5111.871113549
5166.20 of the Revised Code because of the county board's 113550
recommendation, present, with the department that made the 113551
approval, reduction, denial, or termination, the reasons for the 113552
recommendation and approval, reduction, denial, or termination at 113553
a hearing held pursuant to an appeal made under section 5101.35113554
5160.31 of the Revised Code.113555

       (2) Perform any duties assigned to the county board in rules 113556
adopted under section 5126.046 of the Revised Code regarding the 113557
individual's right to choose a qualified and willing provider of 113558
the services and, at a hearing held pursuant to an appeal made113559
under section 5101.355160.31 of the Revised Code, present 113560
evidence of the process for appropriate assistance in choosing 113561
providers;113562

       (3) If the county board is certified under section 5123.161 113563
of the Revised Code to provide the services and agrees to provide 113564
the services to the individual and the individual chooses the 113565
county board to provide the services, furnish, in accordance with 113566
the county board's medicaid provider agreement and for the 113567
authorized reimbursement rate, the services the individual 113568
requires;113569

       (4) Monitor the services provided to the individual and 113570
ensure the individual's health, safety, and welfare. The 113571
monitoring shall include quality assurance activities. If the 113572
county board provides the services, the department of 113573
developmental disabilities shall also monitor the services.113574

       (5) Develop, with the individual and the provider of the 113575
individual's services, an effective individualized service plan 113576
that includes coordination of services, recommend that the 113577
departments of developmental disabilities and job and family 113578
servicesmedicaid approve the plan, and implement the plan unless 113579
either department disapproves it. The individualized service plan 113580
shall include a summary page, agreed to by the county board, 113581
provider, and individual receiving services, that clearly outlines 113582
the amount, duration, and scope of services to be provided under 113583
the plan.113584

       (6) Have an investigative agent conduct investigations under 113585
section 5126.313 of the Revised Code that concern the individual;113586

       (7) Have a service and support administrator perform the 113587
duties under division (B)(9) of section 5126.15 of the Revised 113588
Code that concern the individual.113589

       (B) A county board shall perform its medicaid local 113590
administrative authority under this section in accordance with all 113591
of the following:113592

       (1) The county board's plan that the department of 113593
developmental disabilities approves under section 5123.046 of the 113594
Revised Code;113595

       (2) All applicable federal and state laws;113596

       (3) All applicable policies of the departments of 113597
developmental disabilities and job and family servicesmedicaid113598
and the United States department of health and human services;113599

       (4) The department of job and family services'medicaid's113600
supervision under its authority under section 5111.01 of the 113601
Revised Code to act as the single state medicaid agency;113602

       (5) The department of developmental disabilities' oversight.113603

       (C) The departments of developmental disabilities and job and 113604
family servicesmedicaid shall communicate with and provide 113605
training to county boards regarding medicaid local administrative 113606
authority granted by this section. The communication and training 113607
shall include issues regarding audit protocols and other standards 113608
established by the United States department of health and human 113609
services that the departments determine appropriate for 113610
communication and training. County boards shall participate in the 113611
training. The departments shall assess the county board's 113612
compliance against uniform standards that the departments shall 113613
establish.113614

       (D) A county board may not delegate its medicaid local 113615
administrative authority granted under this section but may 113616
contract with a person or government entity, including a council 113617
of governments, for assistance with its medicaid local 113618
administrative authority. A county board that enters into such a 113619
contract shall notify the director of developmental disabilities. 113620
The notice shall include the tasks and responsibilities that the 113621
contract gives to the person or government entity. The person or 113622
government entity shall comply in full with all requirements to 113623
which the county board is subject regarding the person or 113624
government entity's tasks and responsibilities under the contract. 113625
The county board remains ultimately responsible for the tasks and 113626
responsibilities.113627

       (E) A county board that has medicaid local administrative 113628
authority under this section shall, through the departments of 113629
developmental disabilities and job and family servicesmedicaid, 113630
reply to, and cooperate in arranging compliance with, a program or 113631
fiscal audit or program violation exception that a state or 113632
federal audit or review discovers. The department of job and 113633
family servicesmedicaid shall timely notify the department of 113634
developmental disabilities and the county board of any adverse 113635
findings. After receiving the notice, the county board, in 113636
conjunction with the department of developmental disabilities, 113637
shall cooperate fully with the department of job and family 113638
servicesmedicaid and timely prepare and send to the department a 113639
written plan of correction or response to the adverse findings. 113640
The county board is liable for any adverse findings that result 113641
from an action it takes or fails to take in its implementation of 113642
medicaid local administrative authority.113643

       (F) If the department of developmental disabilities or 113644
department of job and family servicesmedicaid determines that a 113645
county board's implementation of its medicaid local administrative 113646
authority under this section is deficient, the department that 113647
makes the determination shall require that county board do the 113648
following:113649

       (1) If the deficiency affects the health, safety, or welfare 113650
of an individual with mental retardation or other developmental 113651
disability, correct the deficiency within twenty-four hours;113652

       (2) If the deficiency does not affect the health, safety, or 113653
welfare of an individual with mental retardation or other 113654
developmental disability, receive technical assistance from the 113655
department or submit a plan of correction to the department that 113656
is acceptable to the department within sixty days and correct the 113657
deficiency within the time required by the plan of correction.113658

       Sec. 5126.131.  (A)(1) Each regional council established 113659
under section 5126.13 of the Revised Code shall file with the 113660
department of developmental disabilities an annual cost report 113661
detailing the regional council's income and expenditures.113662

       (2) Each county board of developmental disabilities shall 113663
file with the department an annual cost report detailing the 113664
board's income and expenditures.113665

       (B)(1)(a) Unless the department establishes a later date for 113666
all regional council cost reports, each council shall file its 113667
cost report not later than the last day of April. At the written 113668
request of a regional council, the department may grant a 113669
fourteen-day extension for filing the cost report.113670

       (b) Unless the department establishes a later date for all 113671
county board cost reports, each board shall file its cost report 113672
not later than the last day of May. At the written request of a 113673
board, the department may grant a fourteen-day extension for 113674
filing the board's cost report.113675

       (2) The cost report shall contain information on the previous 113676
calendar year's income and expenditures. Once filed by a regional 113677
council or board, no changes may be made to the cost report, 113678
including the submission of additional documentation, except as 113679
otherwise provided in this section.113680

       (C) Each cost report filed under this section by a regional 113681
council or board shall be audited by the department or an entity 113682
designated by the department. The department or designated entity 113683
shall notify the regional council or board of the date on which 113684
the audit is to begin. The department may permit a regional 113685
council or board to submit changes to the cost report before the 113686
audit begins.113687

       If the department or designated entity determines that a 113688
filed cost report is not auditable, it shall provide written 113689
notification to the regional council or board of the cost report's 113690
deficiencies and may request additional documentation. If the 113691
department or designated entity requests additional documentation, 113692
the regional council or board shall be given sixty days after the 113693
request is made to provide the additional documentation. After 113694
sixty days, the department or designated entity shall determine 113695
whether the cost report is auditable with any additional 113696
documentation provided and shall notify the regional council or 113697
board of its determination. The determination of the department or 113698
designated entity is final.113699

       (D) The department or designated entity shall certify its 113700
audit as complete and file a copy of the certified audit in the 113701
office of the clerk of the governing body, executive officer of 113702
the governing body, and chief fiscal officer of the audited 113703
regional council or board. Changes may not be made to a cost 113704
report once the department or designated entity files the 113705
certified audit. The cost report is not a public record under 113706
section 149.43 of the Revised Code until copies of the cost report 113707
are filed pursuant to this section.113708

       (E) The department may withhold any funds that it distributes 113709
to a regional council or board as subsidy payments if either of 113710
the following is the case:113711

       (1) The cost report is not timely filed by the regional 113712
council or board with the department in accordance with division 113713
(B) of this section.113714

       (2) The cost report is determined not auditable under 113715
division (C) of this section after the department or designated 113716
entity gives the regional council or board sixty days to provide 113717
additional documentation.113718

       (F) Cost reports shall be retained by regional councils and 113719
boards for seven years. The department shall provide annual 113720
training to regional council and board employees regarding cost 113721
reports required by this section.113722

       (G) The department, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 113723
Revised Code, may adopt any rules necessary to implement this 113724
section.113725

       Sec. 5139.03.  The department of youth services shall control 113726
and manage all state institutions or facilities established or 113727
created for the training or rehabilitation of delinquent children 113728
committed to the department, except where the control and 113729
management of an institution or facility is vested by law in 113730
another agency. The department shall employ, in addition to other 113731
personnel authorized under Chapter 5139. of the Revised Code, 113732
sufficient personnel to maintain food service and buildings and 113733
grounds operations.113734

       The department of youth services shall, insofar as 113735
practicable, purchase foods and other commodities incident to food 113736
service operations from the department of mental healthmental 113737
health and addiction services. The department of youth services 113738
may enter into agreements with the department of mental health113739
mental health and addiction services providing for assistance and 113740
consultation in the construction of, or major modifications to, 113741
capital facilities of the department of youth services.113742

       The directors of mental healthmental health and addiction 113743
services and of youth services shall enter into written agreements 113744
to implement this section. Such directors may, from time to time, 113745
amend any agreements entered into under this section for the 113746
purposes of making more efficient use of personnel, taking 113747
advantage of economies in quantity purchasing, or for any other 113748
purpose which is mutually advantageous to both the department of 113749
youth services and the department of mental healthmental health 113750
and addiction services.113751

       The department of youth services may transfer any of its 113752
excess or surplus supplies to a community corrections facility. 113753
These supplies shall remain the property of the department for a 113754
period of five years from the date of the transfer. After the 113755
five-year period, the supplies shall become the property of the 113756
facility.113757

       Sec. 5139.04.  The department of youth services shall do all 113758
of the following:113759

       (A) Support service districts through a central 113760
administrative office that shall have as its administrative head a 113761
deputy director who shall be appointed by the director of the 113762
department. When a vacancy occurs in the office of that deputy 113763
director, an assistant deputy director shall act as that deputy 113764
director until the vacancy is filled. The position of deputy 113765
director and assistant deputy director described in this division 113766
shall be in the unclassified civil service of the state.113767

       (B) Receive custody of all children committed to it under 113768
Chapter 2152. of the Revised Code, cause a study to be made of 113769
those children, and issue any orders, as it considers best suited 113770
to the needs of any of those children and the interest of the 113771
public, for the treatment of each of those children;113772

       (C) Obtain personnel necessary for the performance of its 113773
duties;113774

       (D) Adopt rules that regulate its organization and operation, 113775
that implement sections 5139.34 and 5139.41 to 5139.43 of the 113776
Revised Code, and that pertain to the administration of other 113777
sections of this chapter;113778

       (E) Submit reports of its operations to the governor and the 113779
general assembly by the thirty-first day of January of each 113780
odd-numbered year;113781

       (F) Conduct a program of research in diagnosis, training, and 113782
treatment of delinquent children to evaluate the effectiveness of 113783
the department's services and to develop more adequate methods;113784

       (G) Develop a standard form for the disposition investigation 113785
report that a juvenile court is required pursuant to section 113786
2152.18 of the Revised Code to complete and provide to the 113787
department when the court commits a child to the legal custody of 113788
the department;113789

       (H) Provide the state public defender the reasonable access 113790
authorized under division (I) of section 120.06 of the Revised 113791
Code in order to fulfill the department's constitutional 113792
obligation to provide juveniles who have been committed to the 113793
department's care access to the courts.113794

        (I) Do all other acts necessary or desirable to carry out 113795
this chapter.113796

       Sec. 5139.08.  The department of youth services may enter 113797
into an agreement with the director of rehabilitation and 113798
correction pursuant to which the department of youth services, in 113799
accordance with division (C)(2) of section 5139.06 and section 113800
5120.162 of the Revised Code, may transfer to a correctional 113801
medical center established by the department of rehabilitation and 113802
correction, children who are within its custody for diagnosis or 113803
treatment of an illness, physical condition, or other medical 113804
problem. The department of youth services may enter into any other 113805
agreements with the director of job and family services, the 113806
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services, 113807
the director of developmental disabilities, the director of 113808
rehabilitation and correction, with the courts having probation 113809
officers or other public officials, and with private agencies or 113810
institutions for separate care or special treatment of children 113811
subject to the control of the department of youth services. The 113812
department of youth services may, upon the request of a juvenile 113813
court not having a regular probation officer, provide probation 113814
services for such court.113815

       Upon request by the department of youth services, any public 113816
agency or group care facility established or administered by the 113817
state for the care and treatment of children and youth shall, 113818
consistent with its functions, accept and care for any child whose 113819
custody is vested in the department in the same manner as it would 113820
be required to do if custody had been vested by a court in such 113821
agency or group care facility. If the department has reasonable 113822
grounds to believe that any child or youth whose custody is vested 113823
in it is mentally ill or mentally retarded, the department may 113824
file an affidavit under section 5122.11 or 5123.76 of the Revised 113825
Code. The department's affidavit for admission of a child or youth 113826
to such institution shall be filed with the probate court of the 113827
county from which the child was committed to the department. Such 113828
court may request the probate court of the county in which the 113829
child is held to conduct the hearing on the application, in which 113830
case the court making such request shall bear the expenses of the 113831
proceeding. If the department files such an affidavit, the child 113832
or youth may be kept in such institution until a final decision on 113833
the affidavit is made by the appropriate court.113834

       Sec. 5139.34.  (A) Funds may be appropriated to the 113835
department of youth services for the purpose of granting state 113836
subsidies to counties. A county or the juvenile court that serves 113837
a county shall use state subsidies granted to the county pursuant 113838
to this section only in accordance with divisions (B)(2)(a) and 113839
(3)(a) of section 5139.43 of the Revised Code and the rules 113840
pertaining to the state subsidy funds that the department adopts 113841
pursuant to division (D) of section 5139.04 of the Revised Code. 113842
The department shall not grant financial assistance pursuant to 113843
this section for the provision of care and services for children 113844
in a placement facility unless the facility has been certified, 113845
licensed, or approved by a state or national agency with 113846
certification, licensure, or approval authority, including, but 113847
not limited to, the department of job and family services, 113848
department of education, department of mental healthmental health 113849
and addiction services, department of developmental disabilities, 113850
or American correctional association. For the purposes of this 113851
section, placement facilities do not include a state institution 113852
or a county or district children's home.113853

       The department also shall not grant financial assistance 113854
pursuant to this section for the provision of care and services 113855
for children, including, but not limited to, care and services in 113856
a detention facility, in another facility, or in out-of-home 113857
placement, unless the minimum standards applicable to the care and 113858
services that the department prescribes in rules adopted pursuant 113859
to division (D) of section 5139.04 of the Revised Code have been 113860
satisfied.113861

       (B) The department of youth services shall apply the 113862
following formula to determine the amount of the annual grant that 113863
each county is to receive pursuant to division (A) of this 113864
section, subject to the appropriation for this purpose to the 113865
department made by the general assembly:113866

       (1) Each county shall receive a basic annual grant of fifty 113867
thousand dollars.113868

       (2) The sum of the basic annual grants provided under 113869
division (B)(1) of this section shall be subtracted from the total 113870
amount of funds appropriated to the department of youth services 113871
for the purpose of making grants pursuant to division (A) of this 113872
section to determine the remaining portion of the funds 113873
appropriated. The remaining portion of the funds appropriated 113874
shall be distributed on a per capita basis to each county that has 113875
a population of more than twenty-five thousand for that portion of 113876
the population of the county that exceeds twenty-five thousand.113877

       (C)(1) Prior to a county's receipt of an annual grant 113878
pursuant to this section, the juvenile court that serves the 113879
county shall prepare, submit, and file in accordance with division 113880
(B)(3)(a) of section 5139.43 of the Revised Code an annual grant 113881
agreement and application for funding that is for the combined 113882
purposes of, and that satisfies the requirements of, this section 113883
and section 5139.43 of the Revised Code. In addition to the 113884
subject matters described in division (B)(3)(a) of section 5139.43 113885
of the Revised Code or in the rules that the department adopts to 113886
implement that division, the annual grant agreement and 113887
application for funding shall address fiscal accountability and 113888
performance matters pertaining to the programs, care, and services 113889
that are specified in the agreement and application and for which 113890
state subsidy funds granted pursuant to this section will be used.113891

       (2) The county treasurer of each county that receives an 113892
annual grant pursuant to this section shall deposit the state 113893
subsidy funds so received into the county's felony delinquent care 113894
and custody fund created pursuant to division (B)(1) of section 113895
5139.43 of the Revised Code. Subject to exceptions prescribed in 113896
section 5139.43 of the Revised Code that may apply to the 113897
disbursement, the department shall disburse the state subsidy 113898
funds to which a county is entitled in a lump sum payment that 113899
shall be made in July of each calendar year.113900

       (3) Upon an order of the juvenile court that serves a county 113901
and subject to appropriation by the board of county commissioners 113902
of that county, a county treasurer shall disburse from the 113903
county's felony delinquent care and custody fund the state subsidy 113904
funds granted to the county pursuant to this section for use only 113905
in accordance with this section, the applicable provisions of 113906
section 5139.43 of the Revised Code, and the county's approved 113907
annual grant agreement and application for funding.113908

       (4) The moneys in a county's felony delinquent care and 113909
custody fund that represent state subsidy funds granted pursuant 113910
to this section are subject to appropriation by the board of 113911
county commissioners of the county; shall be disbursed by the 113912
county treasurer as required by division (C)(3) of this section; 113913
shall be used in the manners referred to in division (C)(3) of 113914
this section; shall not revert to the county general fund at the 113915
end of any fiscal year; shall carry over in the felony delinquent 113916
care and custody fund from the end of any fiscal year to the next 113917
fiscal year; shall be in addition to, and shall not be used to 113918
reduce, any usual annual increase in county funding that the 113919
juvenile court is eligible to receive or the current level of 113920
county funding of the juvenile court and of any programs, care, or 113921
services for alleged or adjudicated delinquent children, unruly 113922
children, or juvenile traffic offenders or for children who are at 113923
risk of becoming delinquent children, unruly children, or juvenile 113924
traffic offenders; and shall not be used to pay for the care and 113925
custody of felony deliquentsdelinquents who are in the care and 113926
custody of an institution pursuant to a commitment, recommitment, 113927
or revocation of a release on parole by the juvenile court of that 113928
county or who are in the care and custody of a community 113929
corrections facility pursuant to a placement by the department 113930
with the consent of the juvenile court as described in division 113931
(E) of section 5139.36 of the Revised Code.113932

       (5) As a condition of the continued receipt of state subsidy 113933
funds pursuant to this section, each county and the juvenile court 113934
that serves each county that receives an annual grant pursuant to 113935
this section shall comply with divisions (B)(3)(b), (c), and (d) 113936
of section 5139.43 of the Revised Code.113937

       Sec. 5145.162.  (A) There is hereby created the office of 113938
enterprise development advisory council of directors for prison 113939
labor consistingboard to advise and assist the department of 113940
rehabilitation and correction with the creation of training 113941
programs and jobs for inmates and releasees through partnerships 113942
with private sector businesses. The board shall consist of at 113943
least five appointed members and the executive director of the 113944
office of the correctional institution inspection committee, who 113945
shall serve as an ex officio member. Each member shall have 113946
experience in labor relations, marketing, business management, or 113947
business. The members and chairperson shall be appointed by the 113948
governordirector of the department of rehabilitation and 113949
correction. Within thirty days after April 9, 1981, the governor 113950
shall make the initial appointments to the council of directors. 113951
Of the initial appointments made to the council of directors, two 113952
shall be for a term ending one year after April 9, 1981, two shall 113953
be for a term ending two years after that date, and one shall be 113954
for a term ending three years after that date. After the 113955
expiration of the initial terms, the terms of office for the 113956
members shall be for three years, each term ending on the same day 113957
of the same month of the year as did the term that it succeeds. 113958
Each member shall hold office from the date of appointment until 113959
the end of the term for which the member was appointed. Any 113960
vacancy on the advisory council shall be filled by the governor. 113961
Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the 113962
expiration of the term for which the member's predecessor was 113963
appointed shall hold office for the remainder of the predecessor's 113964
term. Any member shall continue in office subsequent to the 113965
expiration date of the member's term until a successor takes 113966
office, or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, whichever 113967
occurs first.113968

       (B) Each member of the advisory council, while engaged in the 113969
performance of the business of the advisory council,board shall 113970
receive no compensation but may be reimbursed for expenses 113971
actually and necessarily incurred in the performance of official 113972
duties of the board. Members of the board who are state employees 113973
shall be reimbursed for expenses pursuant to travel rules 113974
promulgated by the office of budget and management.113975

       (C) The advisory councilboard shall adopt procedures for the 113976
conduct of the board's meetings. The board shall meet within two 113977
weeks after the initial members have been appointed at a time and 113978
place determined by the governor. At its first meeting, the 113979
advisory council shall elect a chairperson and shall adopt rules 113980
for its procedures. The advisory council shall elect a new 113981
chairperson annually at its January meeting. The advisory council 113982
shall meet at least once every January and at least once every two 113983
months thereafterquarter, and otherwise shall meet at the call of 113984
the chairperson or upon the written request of at least a quorum 113985
of the members. Threedirector of the department of rehabilitation 113986
and correction. Sixty per cent of the members constitutesshall 113987
constitute a quorum, and no action. No transaction of the board's 113988
business shall be taken without the concurrence of a quorum of the 113989
members. The board may have committees with persons who are not 113990
members of the board but whose experience and expertise is 113991
relevant and useful to the work of the committee.113992

       (D) The advisory councilboard shall advise and assist the 113993
department of rehabilitation and correction when the department 113994
adopts rules pursuant to division (B) of section 5145.03 of the 113995
Revised Code, establishes prices for goods, products, services, or 113996
labor produced or supplied by prisoners, and otherwise establishes 113997
and administers the program for employment of prisoners 113998
established by the department pursuant to division (A) of section 113999
5145.16 of the Revised Code. The department shall consider the 114000
advice and assistance of the advisory council that is provided 114001
pursuant to this section, and shall cooperate with the advisory 114002
council. The advisory council may recommendhave the following 114003
duties:114004

       (1) Solicit business proposals offering job training, 114005
apprenticeship, education programs, and employment opportunities 114006
for inmates and releasees;114007

       (2) Provide information and input to the office of enterprise 114008
development to support the job training and employment program of 114009
inmates and releasees and any additional, related duties as 114010
requested by the director of the department of rehabilitation and 114011
correction;114012

       (3) Recommend to the general assemblyoffice of enterprise 114013
development any further legislation, administrative rule, or 114014
department policy change that itthe board believes is necessary 114015
to implement the department's program of employment of prisoners;114016

       (4) Promote public awareness of the office of enterprise 114017
development and the office's employment program;114018

       (5) Familiarize itself and the public with avenues to access 114019
the office of enterprise development on employment program 114020
concerns;114021

       (6) Advocate for the needs and concerns of the office of 114022
enterprise development in local communities, counties, and the 114023
state;114024

       (7) Play an active role in the office of enterprise 114025
development's efforts to reduce recidivism in the state by doing 114026
all of the following:114027

       (a) Providing input and making recommendations for the 114028
office's consideration in monitoring employment program compliance 114029
and effectiveness;114030

       (b) Making suggestions on the appropriate priorities for the 114031
office's grant award criteria;114032

       (c) Being a liaison between the office and constituents of 114033
the board's members;114034

       (d) Working to develop constituent groups interested in 114035
employment program issues;114036

       (8) Aid in the employment program development process by 114037
playing a leadership role in professional associations by 114038
discussing employment program issues.114039

       (E) The department of rehabilitation and correction shall 114040
initially screen each proposal obtained under division (D)(1) of 114041
this section to ensure that the proposal is a viable venture to 114042
pursue. If the department determines that a proposal is a viable 114043
venture to pursue, the department shall submit the proposal to the 114044
board for objective review against established guidelines. The 114045
board shall determine whether to recommend the implementation of 114046
the program to the department.114047

       Sec. 5145.18.  Any printing or binding performed in a state 114048
correctional institution may be performed for the use of the 114049
institution, the departments of mental healthmental health and 114050
addiction services, developmental disabilities, and rehabilitation 114051
and correction, the department of public safety in connection with 114052
the registration of motor vehicles, and for any other purpose 114053
authorized by division (B) of section 5145.03 and by sections 114054
5145.16 and 5145.161 of the Revised Code.114055

       Sec. 5149.22. There is hereby established the Ohio council 114056
for interstate adult offender supervision pursuant to Article IV 114057
of the interstate compact for adult offender supervision. The 114058
council shall be comprised of sevenat least twelve members. One 114059
member shall be the compact administrator for this state for the 114060
interstate compact for adult offender supervision, or the 114061
administrator's designee. The speaker of the house of 114062
representatives shall appoint one member, shall be of the house of 114063
representatives. The president of the senate shall appoint one 114064
member, who shall be a member of the senate. The chief justice of 114065
the supreme court shall appoint one memberthree members, whotwo 114066
of whom shall be a membermembers of the judiciary. The governor 114067
shall appoint threefive members, one of whom shall beincluding a 114068
representative of a crime victim's organization, and one of whom 114069
shall be froma member of the executive branch, a prosecuting 114070
attorney, a member of the state public defender's office, and a 114071
chief probation officer. The attorney general shall appoint one 114072
member, who shall be from the bureau of criminal identification 114073
and investigation. The director of rehabilitation and correction 114074
shall appoint as many additional members as the director considers 114075
necessary to fulfill the mission of the compact. The Ohio council 114076
for interstate adult offender supervision is not subject to 114077
section 101.84 of the Revised Code.114078

       Each appointee to the state council shall be appointed in 114079
consultation with the department of rehabilitation and correction 114080
and shall serve at the pleasure of the appointing authority. The 114081
members of the council shall serve without compensation, but each 114082
member shall be reimbursed for the member's actual and necessary 114083
expenses incurred in the performance of the member's official 114084
duties on the council.114085

       The compact administrator for this state for the interstate 114086
compact for adult offender supervision, or the administrator's 114087
designee, shall serve as commissioner of the state council and as 114088
this state's representative to the interstate commission 114089
established under Article III of that compact.114090

       Sec. 5153.16.  (A) Except as provided in section 2151.422 of 114091
the Revised Code, in accordance with rules adopted under section 114092
5153.166 of the Revised Code, and on behalf of children in the 114093
county whom the public children services agency considers to be in 114094
need of public care or protective services, the public children 114095
services agency shall do all of the following:114096

       (1) Make an investigation concerning any child alleged to be 114097
an abused, neglected, or dependent child;114098

       (2) Enter into agreements with the parent, guardian, or other 114099
person having legal custody of any child, or with the department 114100
of job and family services, department of mental healthmental 114101
health and addiction services, department of developmental 114102
disabilities, other department, any certified organization within 114103
or outside the county, or any agency or institution outside the 114104
state, having legal custody of any child, with respect to the 114105
custody, care, or placement of any child, or with respect to any 114106
matter, in the interests of the child, provided the permanent 114107
custody of a child shall not be transferred by a parent to the 114108
public children services agency without the consent of the 114109
juvenile court;114110

       (3) Accept custody of children committed to the public 114111
children services agency by a court exercising juvenile 114112
jurisdiction;114113

       (4) Provide such care as the public children services agency 114114
considers to be in the best interests of any child adjudicated to 114115
be an abused, neglected, or dependent child the agency finds to be 114116
in need of public care or service;114117

       (5) Provide social services to any unmarried girl adjudicated 114118
to be an abused, neglected, or dependent child who is pregnant 114119
with or has been delivered of a child;114120

       (6) Make available to the bureau for children with medical 114121
handicaps of the department of health at its request any 114122
information concerning a crippled child found to be in need of 114123
treatment under sections 3701.021 to 3701.028 of the Revised Code 114124
who is receiving services from the public children services 114125
agency;114126

       (7) Provide temporary emergency care for any child considered 114127
by the public children services agency to be in need of such care, 114128
without agreement or commitment;114129

       (8) Find certified foster homes, within or outside the 114130
county, for the care of children, including handicapped children 114131
from other counties attending special schools in the county;114132

       (9) Subject to the approval of the board of county 114133
commissioners and the state department of job and family services, 114134
establish and operate a training school or enter into an agreement 114135
with any municipal corporation or other political subdivision of 114136
the county respecting the operation, acquisition, or maintenance 114137
of any children's home, training school, or other institution for 114138
the care of children maintained by such municipal corporation or 114139
political subdivision;114140

       (10) Acquire and operate a county children's home, establish, 114141
maintain, and operate a receiving home for the temporary care of 114142
children, or procure certified foster homes for this purpose;114143

       (11) Enter into an agreement with the trustees of any 114144
district children's home, respecting the operation of the district 114145
children's home in cooperation with the other county boards in the 114146
district;114147

       (12) Cooperate with, make its services available to, and act 114148
as the agent of persons, courts, the department of job and family 114149
services, the department of health, and other organizations within 114150
and outside the state, in matters relating to the welfare of 114151
children, except that the public children services agency shall 114152
not be required to provide supervision of or other services 114153
related to the exercise of parenting time rights granted pursuant 114154
to section 3109.051 or 3109.12 of the Revised Code or 114155
companionship or visitation rights granted pursuant to section 114156
3109.051, 3109.11, or 3109.12 of the Revised Code unless a 114157
juvenile court, pursuant to Chapter 2151. of the Revised Code, or 114158
a common pleas court, pursuant to division (E)(6) of section 114159
3113.31 of the Revised Code, requires the provision of supervision 114160
or other services related to the exercise of the parenting time 114161
rights or companionship or visitation rights;114162

       (13) Make investigations at the request of any superintendent 114163
of schools in the county or the principal of any school concerning 114164
the application of any child adjudicated to be an abused, 114165
neglected, or dependent child for release from school, where such 114166
service is not provided through a school attendance department;114167

       (14) Administer funds provided under Title IV-E of the 114168
"Social Security Act," 94 Stat. 501 (1980), 42 U.S.C.A. 671, as 114169
amended, in accordance with rules adopted under section 5101.141 114170
of the Revised Code;114171

       (15) In addition to administering Title IV-E adoption 114172
assistance funds, enter into agreements to make adoption 114173
assistance payments under section 5153.163 of the Revised Code;114174

       (16) Implement a system of safety and risk assessment, in 114175
accordance with rules adopted by the director of job and family 114176
services, to assist the public children services agency in 114177
determining the risk of abuse or neglect to a child;114178

       (17) Enter into a plan of cooperation with the board of 114179
county commissioners under section 307.983 of the Revised Code and 114180
comply with each fiscal agreement the board enters into under 114181
section 307.98 of the Revised Code that include family services 114182
duties of public children services agencies and contracts the 114183
board enters into under sections 307.981 and 307.982 of the 114184
Revised Code that affect the public children services agency;114185

       (18) Make reasonable efforts to prevent the removal of an 114186
alleged or adjudicated abused, neglected, or dependent child from 114187
the child's home, eliminate the continued removal of the child 114188
from the child's home, or make it possible for the child to return 114189
home safely, except that reasonable efforts of that nature are not 114190
required when a court has made a determination under division 114191
(A)(2) of section 2151.419 of the Revised Code;114192

       (19) Make reasonable efforts to place the child in a timely 114193
manner in accordance with the permanency plan approved under 114194
division (E) of section 2151.417 of the Revised Code and to 114195
complete whatever steps are necessary to finalize the permanent 114196
placement of the child;114197

       (20) Administer a Title IV-A program identified under 114198
division (A)(4)(c) or (f)(g) of section 5101.80 of the Revised 114199
Code that the department of job and family services provides for 114200
the public children services agency to administer under the 114201
department's supervision pursuant to section 5101.801 of the 114202
Revised Code;114203

       (21) Administer the kinship permanency incentive program 114204
created under section 5101.802 of the Revised Code under the 114205
supervision of the director of job and family services;114206

       (22) Provide independent living services pursuant to sections 114207
2151.81 to 2151.84 of the Revised Code;114208

       (23) File a missing child report with a local law enforcement 114209
agency upon becoming aware that a child in the custody of the 114210
public children services agency is or may be missing.114211

       (B) The public children services agency shall use the system 114212
implemented pursuant to division (A)(16) of this section in 114213
connection with an investigation undertaken pursuant to division 114214
(F)(1) of section 2151.421 of the Revised Code to assess both of 114215
the following:114216

       (1) The ongoing safety of the child;114217

       (2) The appropriateness of the intensity and duration of the 114218
services provided to meet child and family needs throughout the 114219
duration of a case.114220

       (C) Except as provided in section 2151.422 of the Revised 114221
Code, in accordance with rules of the director of job and family 114222
services, and on behalf of children in the county whom the public 114223
children services agency considers to be in need of public care or 114224
protective services, the public children services agency may do 114225
the following:114226

       (1) Provide or find, with other child serving systems, 114227
specialized foster care for the care of children in a specialized 114228
foster home, as defined in section 5103.02 of the Revised Code, 114229
certified under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code;114230

       (2)(a) Except as limited by divisions (C)(2)(b) and (c) of 114231
this section, contract with the following for the purpose of 114232
assisting the agency with its duties:114233

       (i) County departments of job and family services;114234

       (ii) Boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 114235
services;114236

       (iii) County boards of developmental disabilities;114237

       (iv) Regional councils of political subdivisions established 114238
under Chapter 167. of the Revised Code;114239

       (v) Private and government providers of services;114240

       (vi) Managed care organizations and prepaid health plans.114241

       (b) A public children services agency contract under division 114242
(C)(2)(a) of this section regarding the agency's duties under 114243
section 2151.421 of the Revised Code may not provide for the 114244
entity under contract with the agency to perform any service not 114245
authorized by the department's rules.114246

       (c) Only a county children services board appointed under 114247
section 5153.03 of the Revised Code that is a public children 114248
services agency may contract under division (C)(2)(a) of this 114249
section. If an entity specified in division (B) or (C) of section 114250
5153.02 of the Revised Code is the public children services agency 114251
for a county, the board of county commissioners may enter into 114252
contracts pursuant to section 307.982 of the Revised Code 114253
regarding the agency's duties.114254

       Sec. 5160.01.  As used in this chapter:114255

       (A) "Dual eligible individual" has the same meaning as in the 114256
"Social Security Act," section 1915(h)(2)(B), 42 U.S.C. 114257
1396n(h)(2)(B). A dual eligible individual is a medicare-medicaid 114258
enrollee (MME).114259

       (B) "Exchange" has the same meaning as in 45 C.F.R. 155.20.114260

       (C) "Federal financial participation" means the federal 114261
government's share of expenditures made by an entity in 114262
implementing a medical assistance program.114263

       (D) "Medical assistance program" means all of the following:114264

       (1) The medicaid program;114265

       (2) The children's health insurance program;114266

       (3) The refugee medical assistance program;114267

       (4) Any other program that provides medical assistance and 114268
state statutes authorize the department of medicaid to administer.114269

       (E) "Medical assistance recipient" means a recipient of a 114270
medical assistance program. To the extent appropriate in the 114271
context, "medical assistance recipient" includes an individual 114272
applying for a medical assistance program, a former medical 114273
assistance recipient, or both.114274

       (F) "Medicaid managed care organization" has the same meaning 114275
as in section 5167.01 of the Revised Code.114276

       (G) "Refugee medical assistance program" means the program 114277
that the department of medicaid administers pursuant to section 114278
5160.50 of the Revised Code.114279

       Sec. 5160.011.  References to the department or director of 114280
public welfare, department or director of human services, 114281
department or director of job and family services, office of 114282
medical assistance, or medical assistance director in any statute, 114283
rule, contract, grant, or other document is deemed to refer to the 114284
department of medicaid or medicaid director, as the case may be, 114285
to the extent the reference is about a duty or authority of the 114286
department of medicaid or medicaid director regarding a medical 114287
assistance program.114288

       Sec. 5160.02.  The medicaid director shall adopt rules as 114289
necessary to implement this chapter.114290

       Sec. 5160.021.  (A) When the medicaid director is authorized 114291
by a statute to adopt a rule, the director shall adopt the rule in 114292
accordance with the following:114293

       (1) Chapter 119. of the Revised Code if either of the 114294
following applies:114295

       (a) The statute authorizing the rule requires that the rule 114296
be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.114297

       (b) Unless division (A)(2)(b) of this section applies, the 114298
statute authorizing the rule does not specify the procedure for 114299
the rule's adoption.114300

       (2) Section 111.15 of the Revised Code, excluding divisions 114301
(D) and (E) of that section, if either of the following applies:114302

       (a) The statute authorizing the rule requires that the rule 114303
be adopted in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code 114304
and, by the terms of division (D) of that section, division (D) of 114305
that section does not apply to the rule.114306

       (b) The statute authorizing the rule does not specify the 114307
procedure for the rule's adoption and the rule concerns the 114308
day-to-day staff procedures and operations of the department of 114309
medicaid or financial and operational matters between the 114310
department and a person or government entity receiving a grant 114311
from the department.114312

       (3) Section 111.15 of the Revised Code, including divisions 114313
(D) and (E) of that section, if the statute authorizing the rule 114314
requires that the rule be adopted in accordance with that section 114315
and the rule is not exempt from the application of division (D) of 114316
that section.114317

       (B) Except as otherwise required by a statute, the adoption 114318
of a rule in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code does 114319
not make the department of medicaid subject to the notice, 114320
hearing, or other requirements of sections 119.06 to 119.13 of the 114321
Revised Code.114322

       Sec. 5160.03.  The medicaid director is the executive head of 114323
the department of medicaid. All duties conferred on the department 114324
by law or order of the director are under the director's control 114325
and shall be performed in accordance with rules the director 114326
adopts.114327

       Sec. 5160.04.  The medicaid director shall appoint one 114328
assistant director for the department of medicaid. The assistant 114329
director shall exercise powers, and perform duties, as ordered by 114330
the medicaid director. The assistant director shall act as the 114331
medicaid director in the medicaid director's absence or disability 114332
and when the position of medicaid director is vacant.114333

       Sec. 5160.05.  The medicaid director may appoint such 114334
employees as are necessary for the efficient operation of the 114335
department of medicaid. The director may prescribe the title and 114336
duties of the employees.114337

       Sec. 5160.051.  If the medicaid director determines that a 114338
position with the department of medicaid can best be filled in 114339
accordance with division (A)(2) of section 124.30 of the Revised 114340
Code or without regard to a residency requirement established by a 114341
rule adopted by the director of administrative services, the 114342
medicaid director shall provide the director of administrative 114343
services certification of the determination.114344

       Sec. 5160.052.  The department of medicaid shall collaborate 114345
with the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification 114346
and investigation to develop procedures and formats necessary to 114347
produce the notices described in division (C) of section 109.5721 114348
of the Revised Code in a format that is acceptable for use by the 114349
department. The medicaid director may adopt rules under section 114350
5160.02 of the Revised Code necessary for such collaboration. Any 114351
such rules shall be adopted in accordance with section 111.15 of 114352
the Revised Code as if they were internal management rules.114353

       The medicaid director may adopt rules under section 5160.02 114354
of the Revised Code necessary for utilizing the information 114355
received pursuant to section 109.5721 of the Revised Code. The 114356
rules shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 114357
Revised Code.114358

       Sec. 5160.06.  The medicaid director may require any of the 114359
employees of the department of medicaid who may be charged with 114360
custody or control of any public money or property or who is 114361
required to give bond, to give a bond, properly conditioned, in a 114362
sum to be fixed by the director which when approved by the 114363
director, shall be filed in the office of the secretary of state. 114364
The cost of such bonds, when approved by the director, shall be 114365
paid from funds available for the department. The bonds required 114366
or authorized by this section may, in the discretion of the 114367
director, be individual, schedule, or blanket bonds.114368

       Sec. 5160.10.  The medicaid director may expend funds 114369
appropriated or available to the department of medicaid from 114370
persons and government entities. For purposes of this section, the 114371
director may enter into contracts or agreements with persons and 114372
government entities and make grants to persons and government 114373
entities. To the extent permitted by federal law, the director may 114374
advance funds to a grantee when necessary for the grantee to 114375
perform duties under the grant as specified by the director.114376

       The director may adopt rules under section 5160.02 of the 114377
Revised Code as necessary to define terms and adopt procedures and 114378
other provisions necessary to implement this section.114379

       Sec. 5160.11.  The state health care grants fund is hereby 114380
created in the state treasury. Money the department of medicaid 114381
receives from private foundations in support of pilot projects 114382
that promote exemplary programs that enhance programs the 114383
department administers shall be credited to the fund. The 114384
department may expend the money on such projects, may use the 114385
money, to the extent allowable, to match federal financial 114386
participation in support of such projects, and shall comply with 114387
requirements the foundations have stipulated in their agreements 114388
with the department as to the purposes for which the money may be 114389
expended.114390

       Sec. 5160.12.  (A) As used in this section, "entity" includes 114391
an agency, board, commission, or department of the state or a 114392
political subdivision of the state; a private, nonprofit entity; a 114393
school district; a private school; or a public or private 114394
institution of higher education.114395

       (B) This section does not apply to contracts entered into 114396
under section 5162.32 or 5162.35 of the Revised Code.114397

       (C) At the request of any public entity having authority to 114398
implement a program administered by the department of medicaid or 114399
any private entity under contract with a public entity to 114400
implement a program administered by the department, the department 114401
may seek to obtain federal financial participation for costs 114402
incurred by the entity. Federal financial participation may be 114403
sought from programs operated pursuant to Title XIX of the "Social 114404
Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1396, et seq., and any other statute or 114405
regulation under which federal financial participation may be 114406
available, except that federal financial participation may be 114407
sought only for expenditures made with funds for which federal 114408
financial participation is available under federal law.114409

       (D) All funds collected by the department pursuant to 114410
division (C) of this section shall be distributed to the entities 114411
that incurred the costs.114412

       (E) In distributing federal financial participation pursuant 114413
to this section, the department may either enter into an agreement 114414
with the entity that is to receive the funds or distribute the 114415
funds in accordance with rules authorized by division (H) of this 114416
section. If the department decides to enter into an agreement to 114417
distribute the funds, the agreement may include terms that do any 114418
of the following:114419

       (1) Provide for the whole or partial reimbursement of any 114420
cost incurred by the entity in implementing the program;114421

       (2) In the event that federal financial participation is 114422
disallowed or otherwise unavailable for any expenditure, require 114423
the department or the entity, whichever party caused the 114424
disallowance or unavailability of federal financial participation, 114425
to assume responsibility for the expenditures;114426

       (3) Require the entity to certify to the department the 114427
availability of sufficient unencumbered funds to match the federal 114428
financial participation the entity receives under this section;114429

       (4) Establish the length of the agreement, which may be for a 114430
fixed or a continuing period of time;114431

       (5) Establish any other requirements determined by the 114432
department to be necessary for the efficient administration of the 114433
agreement.114434

       (F) An entity that receives federal financial participation 114435
pursuant to this section for a program aiding children and their 114436
families shall establish a process for collaborative planning with 114437
the department for the use of the funds to improve and expand the 114438
program.114439

       (G) Federal financial participation received pursuant to this 114440
section shall not be included in any calculation made under 114441
section 5101.16 or 5101.161 of the Revised Code.114442

       (H) The medicaid director may adopt rules under section 114443
5160.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this 114444
section, including rules for the distribution of federal financial 114445
participation pursuant to this section. The rules shall be adopted 114446
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.114447

       Sec. 5160.13.  The department of medicaid may enter into 114448
contracts with private entities to maximize federal revenue 114449
without the expenditure of state money. In selecting private 114450
entities with which to contract, the department shall engage in a 114451
request for proposals process. The department, subject to the 114452
approval of the controlling board, may also directly enter into 114453
contracts with public entities providing revenue maximization 114454
services.114455

       Sec. 5160.16.  The department of medicaid may appoint and 114456
commission any competent person to serve as a special agent, 114457
investigator, or representative to perform a designated duty for 114458
and on behalf of the department. Specific credentials shall be 114459
given by the department to each person so designated, and each 114460
credential shall state the following:114461

       (A) The person's name;114462

       (B) The agency with which the person is connected;114463

       (C) The purpose of the appointment;114464

       (D) The date the appointment expires, if appropriate;114465

       (E) Such information as the department considers proper.114466

       Sec. 5160.20.  (A) The department of medicaid may conduct any 114467
audits or investigations that are necessary in the performance of 114468
the department's duties, and to that end, the department has the 114469
same power as a judge of a county court to administer oaths and to 114470
enforce the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the 114471
production of books or papers.114472

       The department shall keep a record of the department's audits 114473
and investigations stating the time, place, charges, or subject; 114474
witnesses summoned and examined; and the department's conclusions.114475

       Witnesses shall be paid the fees and mileage provided for 114476
under section 119.094 of the Revised Code.114477

       (B) Any judge of any division of the court of common pleas, 114478
on application of the department, may compel the attendance of 114479
witnesses, the production of books or papers, and the giving of 114480
testimony before the department, by a judgment for contempt or 114481
otherwise, in the same manner as in cases before those courts.114482

       (C) Until an audit report is formally released by the 114483
department, the audit report or any working paper or other 114484
document or record prepared by the department and related to the 114485
audit that is the subject of the audit report is not a public 114486
record under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.114487

       (D) The medicaid director may adopt rules under section 114488
5160.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this 114489
section. The rules shall be adopted in accordance with section 114490
111.15 of the Revised Code as if they were internal management 114491
rules.114492

       Sec. 5160.21.  On the request of the medicaid director, the 114493
auditor of state may conduct an audit of any medical assistance 114494
recipient. If the auditor decides to conduct an audit under this 114495
section, the auditor shall enter into an interagency agreement 114496
with the department of medicaid that specifies that the auditor 114497
agrees to comply with section 5160.45 of the Revised Code with 114498
respect to any information the auditor receives pursuant to the 114499
audit.114500

       Sec. 5160.22.  (A) The auditor of state and attorney general, 114501
or their designees, may examine any records, whether in computer 114502
or printed format, in the possession of the medicaid director or 114503
any county director of job and family services, regarding medical 114504
assistance programs. The auditor of state and attorney general 114505
shall do both of the following regarding the records:114506

       (1) Provide safeguards that restrict access to the records to 114507
purposes directly connected with an audit or investigation, 114508
prosecution, or criminal or civil proceeding conducted in 114509
connection with the administration of the programs;114510

       (2) Comply, and ensure that their designees comply, with 114511
section 5160.45 of the Revised Code and rules of the medicaid 114512
director restricting the disclosure of information regarding 114513
medical assistance recipients.114514

       (B) Any person who fails to comply with the restriction 114515
specified in division (A) of this section is disqualified from 114516
acting as an agent or employee or in any other capacity under 114517
appointment or employment of any state board, commission, or 114518
agency.114519

       Sec. 5160.23.  The auditor of state is responsible for the 114520
costs the auditor incurs in carrying out the auditor's duties 114521
under sections 5160.21 and 5160.22 of the Revised Code.114522

       Sec. 5160.30.  (A) Except as provided in divisions (B) and 114523
(C) of this section, the department of medicaid may accept 114524
applications, determine eligibility, redetermine eligibility, and 114525
perform related administrative activities for medical assistance 114526
programs.114527

       (B) The department may enter into agreements with one or more 114528
agencies of the federal government, the state, other states, and 114529
local governments of this or other states to accept applications, 114530
determine eligibility, redetermine eligibility, and perform 114531
related administrative activities on behalf of the department with 114532
respect to medical assistance programs.114533

       (C) If federal law requires a face-to-face interview to 114534
complete an eligibility determination for a medical assistance 114535
program, the department shall not conduct the face-to-face 114536
interview.114537

       (D) Subject to division (C) of this section, if the 114538
department elects to accept applications, determine eligibility, 114539
redetermine eligibility, and perform related administrative 114540
activities for a medical assistance program, both of the following 114541
apply:114542

       (1) An individual may apply for the medical assistance 114543
program to the department or an agency authorized by an agreement 114544
entered into under division (B) of this section to accept the 114545
individual's application;114546

       (2) The department is subject to federal statutes and 114547
regulations and state statutes and rules that require, permit, or 114548
prohibit an action regarding accepting applications, determining 114549
or redetermining eligibility, and performing related 114550
administrative activities for the medical assistance program.114551

       Sec. 5160.31.  (A) A medical assistance recipient may appeal 114552
a decision regarding the recipient's eligibility for a medical 114553
assistance program or services available to the recipient under a 114554
medical assistance program.114555

       (B) Regarding appeals authorized by this section, the 114556
department of medicaid shall do one or more of the following:114557

       (1) Administer an appeals process similar to the appeals 114558
process established under section 5101.35 of the Revised Code;114559

        (2) Contract with the department of job and family services 114560
pursuant to section 5162.35 of the Revised Code to provide for the 114561
department of job and family services to hear the appeals in 114562
accordance with section 5101.35 of the Revised Code;114563

        (3) Delegate authority to hear appeals to an exchange or 114564
exchange appeals entity.114565

       (C) If a medical assistance recipient files an appeal as 114566
authorized by this section, the department of medicaid may do 114567
either or both of the following:114568

       (1) Take corrective action regarding the matter being 114569
appealed before a hearing decision regarding the matter is issued;114570

       (2) If a hearing decision, administrative appeal decision, or 114571
court ruling is against the recipient, take action in favor of the 114572
recipient despite the contrary decision or ruling, unless, in the 114573
case of a court's ruling, the ruling prohibits the department from 114574
taking the action.114575

       Sec. 5101.571.        Sec. 5160.35.  As used in sections 5101.5715160.35114576
to 5101.5915160.43 of the Revised Code:114577

       (A) "Information" means all of the following:114578

       (1) An individual's name, address, date of birth, and social 114579
security number;114580

       (2) The group or plan number, or other identifier, assigned 114581
by a third party to a policy held by an individual or a plan in 114582
which the individual participates and the nature of the coverage;114583

       (3) Any other data the medicaid director of job and family 114584
services specifies in rules adopted underauthorized by section 114585
5101.5915160.43 of the Revised Code.114586

       (B) "Medical assistance" means medical items or services 114587
provided under any of the following:114588

       (1) Medicaid, as defined in section 5111.01 of the Revised 114589
Code;114590

       (2) The children's health insurance program part I, part II, 114591
and part III established under sections 5101.50, 5101.51, and 114592
5101.52 of the Revised Code.114593

       (C) "Medical support" means support specified as support for 114594
the purpose of medical care by order of a court or administrative 114595
agency.114596

       (D) "Public assistance" means medical assistance or 114597
assistance under the Ohio works first program established under 114598
Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code.114599

       (E)(C)(1) Subject to division (E)(C)(2) of this section, and 114600
except as provided in division (E)(C)(3) of this section, "third 114601
party" means all of the following:114602

       (a) A person authorized to engage in the business of sickness 114603
and accident insurance under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code;114604

       (b) A person or governmental entity providing coverage for 114605
medical services or items to individuals on a self-insurance 114606
basis;114607

       (c) A health insuring corporation as defined in section 114608
1751.01 of the Revised Code;114609

       (d) A group health plan as defined in 29 U.S.C. 1167;114610

       (e) A service benefit plan as referenced in 42 U.S.C. 114611
1396a(a)(25);114612

       (f) A managed care organization;114613

       (g) A pharmacy benefit manager;114614

       (h) A third party administrator;114615

       (i) Any other person or governmental entity that is, by law, 114616
contract, or agreement, responsible for the payment or processing 114617
of a claim for a medical item or service for a publicmedical114618
assistance recipient or participant.114619

       (2) Except when otherwise provided by the "Social Security 114620
Act," section 1862(b), 42 U.S.C. 1395y(b), a person or 114621
governmental entity listed in division (E)(C)(1) of this section 114622
is a third party even if the person or governmental entity limits 114623
or excludes payments for a medical item or service in the case of 114624
a public assistance recipient.114625

       (3) "Third party" does not include the program for medically 114626
handicapped children established under section 3701.023 of the 114627
Revised Code.114628

       Sec. 5101.58.        Sec. 5160.37. (A) The acceptance of publicA medical 114629
assistance recipient's enrollment in a medical assistance program114630
gives an automatic right of recovery to the department of job and 114631
family servicesmedicaid and a county department of job and family 114632
services against the liability of a third party for the cost of 114633
medical assistance paid on behalf of the public assistance114634
recipient or participant. When an action or claim is brought 114635
against a third party by a publicmedical assistance recipient or 114636
participant, any payment, settlement or compromise of the action 114637
or claim, or any court award or judgment, is subject to the 114638
recovery right of the department of job and family services114639
medicaid or county department of job and family services. Except 114640
in the case of a medical assistance recipient or participant who 114641
receives medical assistance through a medicaid managed care 114642
organization, the department's or county department's claim shall 114643
not exceed the amount of medical assistance paid by athe 114644
department or county department on behalf of the recipient or 114645
participant. A payment, settlement, compromise, judgment, or award 114646
that excludes the cost of medical assistance paid for by athe 114647
department or county department shall not preclude a department 114648
from enforcing its rights under this section.114649

       (B) In the case of a medical assistance recipient or 114650
participant who receives medical assistance through a medicaid114651
managed care organization, the amount of the department's or 114652
county department's claim shall be the amount the medicaid managed 114653
care organization pays for medical assistance rendered to the 114654
recipient or participant, even if that amount is more than the 114655
amount athe department or county department pays to the medicaid114656
managed care organization for the recipient's or participant's114657
medical assistance.114658

        (C) A medical assistance recipient or participant, and the 114659
recipient's or participant's attorney, if any, shall cooperate 114660
with the departments. In furtherance of this requirement, the 114661
medical assistance recipient or participant, or the recipient's or 114662
participant's attorney, if any, shall, not later than thirty days 114663
after initiating informal recovery activity or filing a legal 114664
recovery action against a third party, provide written notice of 114665
the activity or action to the department of job and family 114666
services whenmedicaid or county department if it has paid for114667
medical assistance under medicaid has been paida medical 114668
assistance program.114669

       (D) The written notice that must be given under division (C) 114670
of this section shall disclose the identity and address of any 114671
third party against whom the medical assistance recipient or 114672
participant has or may have a right of recovery.114673

       (E) No settlement, compromise, judgment, or award or any 114674
recovery in any action or claim by a medical assistance recipient 114675
or participant where the departments havedepartment or county 114676
department has a right of recovery shall be made final without 114677
first giving the appropriate departmentsdepartment or county 114678
department written notice as described in division (C) of this 114679
section and a reasonable opportunity to perfect theirits rights 114680
of recovery. If the departments aredepartment or county 114681
department is not given the appropriate written notice, the 114682
medical assistance recipient or participant and, if there is one, 114683
the recipient's or participant's attorney, are liable to reimburse 114684
the departmentsdepartment or county department for the recovery 114685
received to the extent of medical assistance payments made by the 114686
departmentsdepartment or county department.114687

       (F) The departmentsdepartment or county department shall be 114688
permitted to enforce theirits recovery rights against the third 114689
party even though theyit accepted prior payments in discharge of 114690
theirits rights under this section if, at the time the 114691
departmentsdepartment or county department received such 114692
payments, they wereit was not aware that additional medical 114693
expenses had been incurred but had not yet been paid by the 114694
departmentsdepartment or county department. The third party 114695
becomes liable to the department of job and family services or 114696
county department of job and family services as soon as the third 114697
party is notified in writing of the valid claims for recovery 114698
under this section.114699

        (G)(1) Subject to division (G)(2) of this section, the right 114700
of recovery of athe department or county department does not 114701
apply to that portion of any judgment, award, settlement, or 114702
compromise of a claim, to the extent of attorneys' fees, costs, or 114703
other expenses incurred by a medical assistance recipient or 114704
participant in securing the judgment, award, settlement, or 114705
compromise, or to the extent of medical, surgical, and hospital 114706
expenses paid by such recipient or participant from the 114707
recipient's or participant's own resources.114708

        (2) Reasonable attorneys' fees, not to exceed one-third of 114709
the total judgment, award, settlement, or compromise, plus costs 114710
and other expenses incurred by the medical assistance recipient or 114711
participant in securing the judgment, award, settlement, or 114712
compromise, shall first be deducted from the total judgment, 114713
award, settlement, or compromise. After fees, costs, and other 114714
expenses are deducted from the total judgment, award, settlement, 114715
or compromise, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid114716
or appropriate county department of job and family services shall 114717
receive no less than one-half of the remaining amount, or the 114718
actual amount of medical assistance paid, whichever is less.114719

       (H) A right of recovery created by this section may be 114720
enforced separately or jointly by the department of job and family 114721
servicesmedicaid or the appropriate county department of job and 114722
family services. To enforce theirits recovery rights, the 114723
departmentsdepartment or county department may do any of the 114724
following:114725

       (1) Intervene or join in any action or proceeding brought by 114726
the medical assistance recipient or participant or on the 114727
recipient's or participant's behalf against any third party who 114728
may be liable for the cost of medical assistance paid;114729

       (2) Institute and pursue legal proceedings against any third 114730
party who may be liable for the cost of medical assistance paid;114731

       (3) Initiate legal proceedings in conjunction with any 114732
injured, diseased, or disabled medical assistance recipient or 114733
participant or the recipient's or participant's attorney or 114734
representative.114735

       (I) A medical assistance recipient or participant shall not 114736
assess attorney fees, costs, or other expenses against the 114737
department of job and family servicesmedicaid or a county 114738
department of job and family services when the department or 114739
county department enforces its right of recovery created by this 114740
section.114741

       (J) The right of recovery given to the department under this 114742
section does not include rights to support from any other person 114743
assigned to the state under sections 5107.20 and 5115.07 of the 114744
Revised Code, but includes payments made by a third party under 114745
contract with a person having a duty to support.114746

       (K) The department of medicaid may assign to a medical 114747
assistance provider the right of recovery given to the department 114748
under this section with respect to any claim for which the 114749
department has notified the provider that the department intends 114750
to recoup the department's prior payment for the claim.114751

       Sec. 5160.371.  In addition to the requirement of division 114752
(C) of section 5160.37 of the Revised Code to cooperate with the 114753
department of medicaid and county department of job and family 114754
services, a medical assistance recipient and the recipient's 114755
attorney, if any, shall cooperate with each medical provider of 114756
the recipient. Cooperation with a medical provider shall consist 114757
of disclosing to the provider all information the recipient and 114758
attorney, if any, possess that would assist the provider in 114759
determining each third party that is responsible for the payment 114760
or processing of a claim for medical assistance provided to the 114761
recipient. If disclosure is not made in accordance with this 114762
section, the recipient and the recipient's attorney, if any, are 114763
liable to reimburse the department or county department for the 114764
amount that would have been paid by a third party had the third 114765
party been disclosed to the provider by the recipient or the 114766
recipient's attorney.114767

       Sec. 5101.59.        Sec. 5160.38.  (A) The application for, or acceptance 114768
ofenrollment in, publica medical assistance program constitutes 114769
an automatic assignment of certain rights specified in division 114770
(B) of this section to the department of job and family services114771
medicaid. This assignment includes the rights of the applicant,114772
medical assistance recipient, or participant and also the rights 114773
of any other member of the assistance group for whom the 114774
applicant, recipient, or participant can legally make an 114775
assignment.114776

       (B) Pursuant to this section, the applicant,a medical 114777
assistance recipient, or participant assigns to the department any 114778
rights to medical support available to the applicant, recipient, 114779
or participant or for other members of the recipient's assistance 114780
group under an order of a court or administrative agency, and any 114781
rights to payments by a liable third party for the cost of medical 114782
assistance paid on behalf of a public assistancethe recipient or 114783
participantor other members of the assistance group. The 114784
recipient or participant shall cooperate with the department in 114785
obtaining such payments.114786

       Medicare benefits shall not be assigned pursuant to this 114787
section. Benefits assigned to the department by operation of this 114788
section are directly reimbursable to the department by liable 114789
third parties.114790

       (C) Refusal by the applicant,a medical assistance recipient, 114791
or participant to cooperate in obtaining medical assistance paid 114792
for self or any other member of the recipient's assistance group 114793
renders the applicant, recipient, or participant ineligible for 114794
publica medical assistance program, unless cooperation is waived 114795
by the department. Eligibility shall continue for any individual 114796
who cannot legally assign the individual's own rights and who 114797
would have been eligible for publica medical assistance program114798
but for the refusal to assign the individual's rights or to 114799
cooperate as required by this section by another person legally 114800
able to assign the individual's rights.114801

       (D) If the applicant,a medical assistance recipient, or 114802
participant or any member of the recipient's assistance group 114803
becomes ineligible for publica medical assistance program, the 114804
department shall restore to the applicant, recipient, participant,114805
or member of the assistance group member any future rights to 114806
benefits assigned under this section.114807

       (E) The rights of assignment given to the department under 114808
this section do not include rights to support assigned under 114809
section 5107.20 or 5115.07 of the Revised Code.114810

       Sec. 5101.572.        Sec. 5160.39.  (A) A third party shall cooperate 114811
with the department of job and family servicesmedicaid in 114812
identifying individuals for the purpose of establishing third 114813
party liability pursuant to Title XIX of the Social Security Act, 114814
as amendedregarding medical assistance programs.114815

       (B) In furtherance of the requirement in division (A) of this 114816
section and to allow the department to determine any period that 114817
the individual or the individual's spouse or dependent may have 114818
been covered by the third party and the nature of the coverage, a 114819
third party shall provide, as the department so chooses, 114820
information or access to information, or both, in the third 114821
party's electronic data system on the department's request and in 114822
accordance with division (C) of this section.114823

       (C)(1) If the department chooses to receive information 114824
directly, the third party shall provide the information under all 114825
of the following circumstances:114826

       (a) In a medium, format, and manner prescribed by the 114827
director of job and family services in rules adopted under114828
authorized by section 5101.5915160.43 of the Revised Code;114829

       (b) Free of charge;114830

       (c) Not later than the end of the thirtieth day after the 114831
department makes its request, unless a different time is agreed to 114832
by the director in writing.114833

       (2) If the department chooses to receive access to 114834
information, the third party shall provide access by a method 114835
prescribed by the director of job and family services in rules 114836
adopted underauthorized by section 5101.5915160.43 of the 114837
Revised Code. In facilitating access, the department may enter 114838
into a trading partner agreement with the third party to permit 114839
the exchange of information via "ASC X 12N 270/271 Health Care 114840
Eligibility Benefit Inquiry and Response" transactions.114841

       (D) All of the following apply with respect to information 114842
provided by a third party to the department under this section:114843

       (1) The information is confidential and not a public record 114844
under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.114845

       (2) The release of information to the department is not to be 114846
considered a violation of any right of confidentiality or contract 114847
that the third party may have with covered persons including, but 114848
not limited to, contractees, beneficiaries, heirs, assignees, and 114849
subscribers.114850

       (3) The third party is immune from any liability that it may 114851
otherwise incur through its release of information to the 114852
department.114853

       The department of job and family services shall limit its use 114854
of information gained from third parties to purposes directly 114855
connected with the administration of the medicaid program and the 114856
child support program authorized by Title IV-D of the "Social 114857
Security Act.," 42 U.S.C. 651 et seq.114858

       (E) No third party shall disclose to other parties or make 114859
use of any information regarding medical assistance recipients of 114860
aid under Chapter 5107. or 5111. of the Revised Code that it 114861
obtains from the department, except in the manner provided for by 114862
the director of job and family services in administrative rules 114863
authorized by section 5160.43 of the Revised Code.114864

       Sec. 5101.573.        Sec. 5160.40. (A) Subject to divisions (B) and (C) 114865
of this section, a third party shall do all of the following:114866

       (1) Accept the department of job and family services'114867
medicaid's right of recovery under section 5101.585160.37 of the 114868
Revised Code and the assignment of rights to the department that 114869
are described in section 5101.595160.38 of the Revised Code;114870

       (2) Respond to an inquiry by the department regarding a claim 114871
for payment of a medical item or service that was submitted to the 114872
third party not later than six years after the date of the 114873
provision of such medical item or service;114874

       (3) Not charge a fee to do either of the following for a 114875
claim described in division (A)(2) of this section:114876

       (a) Determine whether the claim should be paid;114877

       (b) Process the claim.114878

       (4) Pay a claim described in division (A)(2) of this section;114879

       (5) Not deny a claim submitted by the department solely on 114880
the basis of the date of submission of the claim, type or format 114881
of the claim form, or a failure by the medical assistance 114882
recipient who is the subject of the claim to present proper 114883
documentation of coverage at the time of service, if both of the 114884
following are truehave occurred:114885

       (a) The claim was submitted by the department not later than 114886
six years after the date of the provision of the medical item or 114887
service.114888

       (b) An action by the department to enforce its right of 114889
recovery under section 5101.585160.37 of the Revised Code on the 114890
claim was commenced not later than six years after the 114891
department's submission of the claim.114892

       (6) Consider the department's payment of a claim for a 114893
medical item or service to be the equivalent of the medical 114894
assistance recipient having obtained prior authorization for the 114895
item or service from the third party;114896

       (7) Not deny a claim described in division (A)(6) of this 114897
section that is submitted by the department solely on the basis of 114898
the medical assistance recipient's failure to obtain prior 114899
authorization for the medical item or service.114900

       (B) For purposes of the requirements in division (A) of this 114901
section, a third party shall treat a medicaid managed care 114902
organization as the department for a claim in which both of the 114903
following are true:114904

       (1) Theif the individual who is the subject of the claim 114905
received a medical item or service through a medicaid managed care 114906
organization that has entered into a contract with the department 114907
of job and family services under section 5111.17 of the Revised 114908
Code;114909

       (2) Theand the department has assigned its right of recovery 114910
for the claim to the medicaid managed care organization.114911

       (C) If the department of medicaid, as permitted by division 114912
(K) of section 5160.37 of the Revised Code, assigns to a medical 114913
assistance provider the department's right of recovery for a claim 114914
for which it has notified the provider that it intends to recoup 114915
its prior payment for a claim, a third party shall treat the 114916
provider as the department and shall pay the provider the greater 114917
of the following:114918

        (1) The amount the department intends to recoup from the 114919
provider for the claim.114920

        (2) If the third party and the provider have an agreement 114921
that requires the third party to pay the provider at the time the 114922
provider presents the claim to the third party, the amount that is 114923
to be paid under that agreement.114924

        (D) The time limitations associated with the requirements in 114925
divisions (A)(2) and (5) of this section apply only to submissions 114926
of claims to, and payments of claims by, a health insurer to which 114927
the "Social Security Act," section 1902(a)(25)(I), 42 U.S.C. 114928
1396a(a)(25)(I), applies.114929

       Sec. 5101.574.        Sec. 5160.41.  No third party shall consider whether 114930
an individual is eligible for or receivesenrolled in a medical 114931
assistance program when either of the following applies:114932

       (A) The individual seeks to obtain a policy or enroll in a 114933
plan or program operated or administered by the third party;114934

       (B) The individual, or a person or governmental entity on the 114935
individual's behalf, seeks payment for a medical item or service 114936
provided to the individual.114937

       Sec. 5101.575.        Sec. 5160.42. (A) If a third party violates section 114938
5101.5725160.39, 5101.5735160.40, or 5101.5745160.41 of the 114939
Revised Code, a governmental entity that is responsible for 114940
issuing a license, certificate of authority, registration, or 114941
approval that authorizes the third party to do business in this 114942
state may impose a fine against the third party or deny, revoke, 114943
or terminate the third party's license, certificate, registration, 114944
or approval to do business in this state. The governmental entity 114945
shall determine which sanction is to be imposed. All actions to 114946
impose the sanction shall be taken in accordance with Chapter 119. 114947
of the Revised Code.114948

       (B) In addition to the sanctions that may be imposed under 114949
division (A) of this section for a violation of section 5101.572114950
5160.39, 5101.5735160.40, or 5101.5745160.41 of the Revised 114951
Code, the attorney general may petition a court of common pleas to 114952
enjoin the violation.114953

       Sec. 5101.591.        Sec. 5160.43. (A) Except as provided in division (B) 114954
of this section, theThe medicaid director of job and family 114955
services may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119.under 114956
section 5160.02 of the Revised Code to implement sections 5101.571114957
5160.35 to 5101.595160.43 of the Revised Code, including rules 114958
that specify what constitutes cooperating with efforts to obtain 114959
support or payments, or medical assistance payments, and when 114960
cooperation may be waived. 114961

       (B) The department shall adopt rules in accordance with 114962
Chapter 119.under section 5160.02 of the Revised Code to do all 114963
of the following:114964

       (1) For purposes of the definition of "information" in 114965
division (A) of section 5101.5715160.35 of the Revised Code, any 114966
data other than the data specified in that division that should be 114967
included in the definition.114968

       (2) For purposes of division (C)(1)(a) of section 5101.572114969
5160.39 of the Revised Code, the medium, format, and manner in 114970
which a third party must provide information to the department.114971

       (3) For purposes of division (C)(2) of section 5101.572114972
5160.39 of the Revised Code, the method by which a third party 114973
must provide the department with access to information.114974

       (C) Rules authorized by division (A) of this section may be 114975
adopted in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code. 114976
Rules authorized by division (B) of this section shall be adopted 114977
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.114978

       Sec. 5101.271.        Sec. 5160.45. (A) As used in sections 5160.45 to 114979
5160.481 of the Revised Code, "information" means all of the 114980
following:114981

       (1) Records, as defined in section 149.011 of the Revised 114982
Code;114983

       (2) Any other documents in any format;114984

       (3) Data derived from records and documents that are 114985
generated, acquired, or maintained by the department of medicaid, 114986
a county department of job and family services, or an entity 114987
performing duties on behalf of the department or a county 114988
department.114989

       (B) Except as permitted by this section, section 5101.273114990
5160.47, or rules adopted underauthorized by section 5101.30114991
5160.48 or 5160.481 of the Revised Code, or when required by 114992
federal law, no person or government entity shall use or disclose 114993
information regarding a medical assistance recipient for any 114994
purpose not directly connected with the administration of thea114995
medical assistance program.114996

       (B)(C) Both of the following shall be considered to be 114997
purposes directly connected with the administration of thea114998
medical assistance program:114999

       (1) Treatment, payment, or other operations or activities 115000
authorized by 42 C.F.R. Chapter IV;115001

       (2) Any administrative function or duty the department of job 115002
and family servicesmedicaid performs alone or jointly with a 115003
federal government entity, another state government entity, or a 115004
local government entity implementing a provision of federal law.115005

       (C)(D) The department or a county agencydepartment of job 115006
and family services may disclose information regarding a medical 115007
assistance recipient to any of the following:115008

       (1) The recipient or the recipient's authorized 115009
representative;115010

       (2) The recipient's legal guardian in accordance with 115011
division (C) of section 2111.13 of the Revised Code;115012

       (3) The attorney of the recipient, if the department or 115013
county agencydepartment has obtained authorization from the 115014
recipient,or the recipient's authorized representative, or the 115015
recipient's legal guardian that meets all requirements of the 115016
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, Pub. 115017
L. 104-191, 110 Stat. 1955, 42 U.S.C. 1320d et seq., as amended,115018
regulations promulgated by the United States department of health 115019
and human services to implement the act, section 5101.2725160.46115020
of the Revised Code, and any rules the director of job and family 115021
services adopts underauthorized by section 5101.305160.48 of the 115022
Revised Code;115023

       (4) A health information or health records management entity 115024
that has executed with the department a business associate 115025
agreement required by 45 C.F.R 164.502(e)(2) and has been 115026
authorized by the recipient,or the recipient's authorized 115027
representative, or the recipient's legal guardian to receive the 115028
recipient's electronic health records in accordance with rules the 115029
director of job and family services adopts underauthorized by115030
section 5101.305160.48 of the Revised Code;115031

       (5) A court if pursuant to a written order of the court. 115032

       (D)(E) The department may receive from county departments of 115033
job and family services information regarding any medical 115034
assistance recipient for purposes of training and verifying the 115035
accuracy of eligibility determinations for a medical assistance 115036
program. The department may assemble information received under 115037
this division into a report if the report is in a form specified 115038
by the department. Information received and assembled into a 115039
report under this division shall remain confidential and not be 115040
subject to disclosure pursuant to section 149.43 or 1347.08 of the 115041
Revised Code.115042

       (E)(F) The department shall notify courts in this state 115043
regarding its authority, under division (C)(D)(5) of this section, 115044
to disclose information regarding a medical assistance recipient 115045
pursuant to a written court order.115046

       Sec. 5160.46.  (A) For the purposes of section 5160.45 of the 115047
Revised Code, an authorization shall be made on a form that uses 115048
language understandable to the average person and contains all of 115049
the following:115050

       (1) A description of the information to be used or disclosed 115051
that identifies the information in a specific and meaningful 115052
fashion;115053

       (2) The name or other specific identification of the person 115054
or class of persons authorized to make the requested use or 115055
disclosure;115056

       (3) The name or other specific identification of the person 115057
or government entity to which the information may be released;115058

       (4) A description of each purpose of the requested use or 115059
disclosure of the information;115060

       (5) The date on which the authorization expires or an event 115061
related either to the individual who is the subject of the request 115062
or to the purposes of the requested use or disclosure, the 115063
occurrence of which will cause the authorization to expire;115064

       (6) A statement that the information used or disclosed 115065
pursuant to the authorization may be disclosed by the recipient of 115066
the information and may no longer be protected from disclosure;115067

       (7) The signature of the individual or the individual's 115068
authorized representative and the date on which the authorization 115069
was signed;115070

       (8) If signed by an authorized representative, a description 115071
of the representative's authority to act for the individual;115072

       (9) A statement of the individual or authorized 115073
representative's right to prospectively revoke the written 115074
authorization in writing, along with either of the following:115075

       (a) A description of how the individual or authorized 115076
representative may revoke the authorization;115077

       (b) If the department of medicaid has established a privacy 115078
notice that contains a description of how the individual or 115079
authorized representative may revoke the authorization, a 115080
reference to the privacy notice.115081

       (10) A statement that treatment, payment, enrollment, or 115082
eligibility for a medical assistance program cannot be conditioned 115083
on signing the authorization unless the authorization is necessary 115084
for determining eligibility for the program.115085

       (B) An authorization for the release of information regarding 115086
a medical assistance recipient to the recipient's attorney under 115087
division (D)(3) of section 5160.45 of the Revised Code may include 115088
a provision specifically authorizing the release of the 115089
recipient's electronic health records, if any, in accordance with 115090
rules authorized by section 5160.48 or 5160.481 of the Revised 115091
Code.115092

       (C) When an individual requests information pursuant to 115093
section 5160.45 of the Revised Code regarding the individual's 115094
enrollment in a medical assistance program and does not wish to 115095
provide a statement of purpose, the statement "at request of the 115096
individual" is a sufficient description for purposes of division 115097
(A)(4) of this section.115098

       Sec. 5160.47.  The department of medicaid shall enter into 115099
any necessary agreements with the United States department of 115100
health and human services and neighboring states to join and 115101
participate as an active member in the public assistance reporting 115102
information system. The department may disclose information 115103
regarding a medical assistance recipient to the extent necessary 115104
to participate as an active member in the system.115105

       Sec. 5160.48.  (A) The medicaid director shall adopt rules 115106
under section 5160.02 of the Revised Code implementing sections 115107
5160.45 to 5160.481 of the Revised Code and governing the custody, 115108
use, disclosure, and preservation of the information generated or 115109
received by the department of medicaid, county departments of job 115110
and family services, other state and county entities, contractors, 115111
grantees, private entities, or officials participating in the 115112
administration of medical assistance programs. The rules shall be 115113
adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. The 115114
rules may define who is an "authorized representative" for 115115
purposes of sections 5160.45 and 5160.46 of the Revised Code. The 115116
rules shall specify conditions and procedures for the release of 115117
information, which may include both of the following:115118

       (1) Permitting a provider of a service under a medical 115119
assistance program limited access to information that is essential 115120
for the provider to render the service or to bill for the service 115121
rendered;115122

       (2) Permitting a contractor, grantee, or other state or 115123
county entity limited access to information that is essential for 115124
the contractor, grantee, or entity to perform administrative or 115125
other duties on behalf of the department or a county department.115126

       (B) The department of aging, when investigating a complaint 115127
under section 173.20 of the Revised Code, shall be granted any 115128
limited access permitted in the rules authorized by division 115129
(A)(1) of this section.115130

       A contractor, grantee, or entity given access to information 115131
pursuant to the rules authorized by division (A)(2) of this 115132
section is bound by the director's rules. Disclosure of the 115133
information by the contractor, grantee, or entity in a manner not 115134
authorized by the rules is a violation of section 5160.45 of the 115135
Revised Code. 115136

       Sec. 5160.481.  Whenever names, addresses, or other 115137
information relating to medical assistance recipients is held by 115138
any agency other than the department of medicaid or a county 115139
department of job and family services, that other agency shall 115140
adopt rules consistent with sections 5160.45 to 5160.481 of the 115141
Revised Code to prevent the publication or disclosure of names, 115142
lists, or other information concerning those recipients.115143

       Sec. 5160.50.  The department of medicaid shall administer 115144
the refugee medical assistance program authorized by the 115145
"Immigration and Nationality Act," section 412(e), 8 U.S.C. 115146
1522(e).115147

       Sec. 5160.52.  The medicaid director may provide for the 115148
department of medicaid to develop, participate in the development 115149
of, negotiate, and enter into one or more interstate compacts on 115150
behalf of this state with agencies of any other states, for the 115151
provision of medical assistance to children in relation to whom 115152
all of the following apply:115153

       (A) They have special needs.115154

       (B) This state or another state that is a party to the 115155
interstate compact is providing adoption assistance on their 115156
behalf.115157

       (C) They move into this state from another state or move out 115158
of this state to another state.115159

       Sec. 5160.99.  Whoever violates division (B) of section 115160
5160.45 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the 115161
first degree.115162

       Sec. 5161.01.  (A) As used in the Revised Code, "children's 115163
health insurance program" and, when used as an acronym for the 115164
children's health insurance program, "CHIP" mean the program of 115165
child health assistance authorized by Title XXI of the "Social 115166
Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1397aa et seq. CHIP part I, CHIP part II, 115167
and CHIP part III, as authorized by this chapter, are components 115168
of CHIP. Any reference in statute enacted by the general assembly 115169
to medicaid or the medicaid program also means CHIP to the extent, 115170
if any, that CHIP is provided under the medicaid program.115171

       (B) As used in this chapter, "federal poverty line" means the 115172
official poverty line defined by the United States office of 115173
management and budget based on the most recent data available from 115174
the United States bureau of the census and revised by the United 115175
States secretary of health and human services pursuant to the 115176
"Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981," section 673(2), 42 115177
U.S.C. 9902(2).115178

       Sec. 5101.502.        Sec. 5161.02.  The medicaid director of job and 115179
family services may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of 115180
the Revised Code as necessary for the efficient administration of 115181
the children's health insurance program part I, including rules 115182
that establish all of the following:115183

       (A) The conditions under which health assistance services115184
the program will be reimbursedpay for health benefits coverage;115185

       (B) The method of reimbursement applicable to services 115186
reimbursable under the programpayment;115187

       (C) The amount of reimbursementpayment, or the method by 115188
which the amount is to be determined, for each reimbursable115189
service included in the health benefits coverage.115190

       Sec. 5101.50.        Sec. 5161.05. (A) As used in sections 5101.50 to 115191
5101.529 of the Revised Code:115192

       (1) "Children's health insurance program" means the program 115193
authorized by Title XXI of the "Social Security Act," 111 Stat. 115194
552 (1997), 42 U.S.C.A. 1397aa.115195

       (2) "Federal poverty guidelines" has the same meaning as in 115196
section 5101.46 of the Revised Code.115197

       (B) The medicaid director of job and family services may 115198
continue to operate the component of the children's health 115199
insurance program initially authorized by an executive order 115200
issued under section 107.17 of the Revised Code as long as federal 115201
financial participation is available for the program. If operated, 115202
the programcomponent shall provide health assistance topay for 115203
part or all of the cost of health benefits coverage for uninsured 115204
individuals under nineteen years of age with family incomes not 115205
exceeding one hundred fifty per cent of the federal poverty 115206
guidelinesline. In accordance with 42 U.S.C.A. 1397aa, the 115207
director may provide for the health assistance to meet the 115208
requirements of 42 U.S.C.A. 1397cc, to be provided under the 115209
medicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised 115210
Code, or to be a combination of both.115211

       Sec. 5101.501.        Sec. 5161.06. Health assistance provided underThe 115212
component of the children's health insurance program authorized by115213
section 5101.505161.05 of the Revised Code shall be known as the 115214
children's health insurance programCHIP part I.115215

       Sec. 5101.51.        Sec. 5161.10.  In accordance with federal law 115216
governing the children's health insurance program, the medicaid115217
director of job and family services may submit a state child 115218
health plan to the United States secretary of health and human 115219
services to providepay, except as provided in section 5101.516115220
5161.22 of the Revised Code, health assistance tofor part or all 115221
of the cost of health benefits coverage for uninsured individuals 115222
under nineteen years of age with family incomes above one hundred 115223
fifty per cent of the federal poverty guidelinesline but not 115224
exceeding two hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines115225
line. If the director submits the plan, the director shall include 115226
both of the followingstipulate in the plan:115227

       (A) The health assistance will not begin before January 1, 115228
2000.115229

       (B) The health assistancethat the payments will be available 115230
only while federal financial participation is available for it115231
them. 115232

       Sec. 5101.511.        Sec. 5161.11. Health assistance provided underThe 115233
component of the children's health insurance program authorized by115234
section 5101.515161.10 of the Revised Code shall be known as the 115235
children's health insurance programCHIP part II. 115236

       Sec. 5101.512.        Sec. 5161.12.  If the medicaid director of job and 115237
family services submits a state child health plan to the United 115238
States secretary of health and human services under section 115239
5101.515161.10 of the Revised Code and the secretary approves the 115240
plan, the director shall implement the children's health insurance 115241
programCHIP part II in accordance with the plan. The director may 115242
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as 115243
necessary for the efficient administration of the program, 115244
including rules that establish all of the following:115245

       (A) The conditions under which health assistance services 115246
will be reimbursed;115247

       (B) The method of reimbursement applicable to services 115248
reimbursable under the program;115249

       (C) The amount of reimbursement, or the method by which the 115250
amount is to be determined, for each reimbursable service.115251

       Sec. 5101.52.        Sec. 5161.15.  In accordance with federal law 115252
governing the children's health insurance program, the medicaid115253
director of job and family services may submit a request for a 115254
federal waiver to the United States secretary of health and human 115255
services to providepay, except as provided in section 5101.526115256
5161.22 of the Revised Code, health assistance tofor part or all 115257
of the cost of health benefits coverage for individuals under 115258
nineteen years of age with family incomes above two hundred per 115259
cent of the federal poverty guidelinesline but not exceeding 115260
three hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelinesline. If 115261
the director submits the planwaiver request, the director shall 115262
stipulate in the planrequest that the health assistancepayments115263
will be available only while federal financial participation is 115264
available for it and that health assistance shall not begin before 115265
January 1, 2008them.115266

       Sec. 5101.521.        Sec. 5161.16. Health assistance provided underThe 115267
component of the children's health insurance program authorized by115268
section 5101.525161.15 of the Revised Code shall be known as the 115269
children's health insurance programCHIP part III.115270

       Sec. 5101.522.        Sec. 5161.17.  If the medicaid director of job and 115271
family services submits a waiver request to the United States 115272
secretary of health and human services under section 5101.52115273
5161.15 of the Revised Code and the secretary grants the waiver, 115274
the director shall implement the children's health insurance 115275
programCHIP part III in accordance with the waiver. The director 115276
may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 115277
Code as necessary for the efficient administration of the program, 115278
including rules that establish all of the following:115279

       (A) The conditions under which health assistance services 115280
will be reimbursed;115281

       (B) The method of reimbursement applicable to services 115282
reimbursable under the program;115283

       (C) The amount of reimbursement, or the method by which the 115284
amount is to be determined, for each reimbursable service.115285

       Sec. 5101.524.        Sec. 5161.20.  In accordance with the "Social 115286
Security Act," section 2101, 42 U.S.C. 1397aa, the director of job 115287
and family services shall provide for health assistance under the 115288
children's health insurance program part III to meetshall 115289
provide payments for obtaining health benefits coverage through 115290
any of the following:115291

       (A) Obtaining coverage that meets the requirements the 115292
"Social Security Act," section 2103, of 42 U.S.C. 1397cc, to be 115293
provided;115294

       (B) Providing benefits under the medicaid program established 115295
under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code, or to be a;115296

       (C) A combination of bothdivisions (A) and (B) of this 115297
section.115298

       Sec. 5101.516.        Sec. 5161.22.  If the medicaid director of job and 115299
family services determines that federal financial participation 115300
for the children's health insurance programCHIP part II, part 115301
III, or both parts is insufficient to provide health assistance 115302
topay for part or all of the costs of health benefits coverage 115303
for all the individuals the director anticipates are eligible for 115304
the programpart or parts, the director may refuse to accept new 115305
applications for the programpart or parts or may make the 115306
program's eligibility requirements more restrictive for the part 115307
or parts.115308

       Sec. 5101.517.        Sec. 5161.24.  To the extent permitted by the 115309
"Social Security Act," section 2103(e), 42 U.S.C.A. 1397cc(e), the 115310
medicaid director of job and family services may require an 115311
individual receiving health assistance under the children's health 115312
insurance programseeking to enroll, or who is enrolled, in CHIP115313
part II to pay a premium, deductible, coinsurance payment, or 115314
other cost-sharing expense. 115315

       Sec. 5101.527.        Sec. 5161.25. To the extent permitted by the "Social 115316
Security Act," section 2103(e), 42 U.S.C. 1397cc(e), the medicaid115317
director of job and family services shall require an individual 115318
receiving health assistance under the children's health insurance 115319
programseeking to enroll, or who is enrolled, in CHIP part III to 115320
pay the following as a term of participation in the program115321
enrollment:115322

       (A) A premium of not less than forty dollars per month for a 115323
family with one individual receiving health assistance under115324
seeking to enroll, or who is enrolled, in the programpart;115325

       (B) A premium of not less than eighty dollars per month for a 115326
family with two individuals receiving health assistance under115327
seeking to enroll, or who is enrolled, in the programpart;115328

       (C) A premium of not less than one hundred twenty dollars per 115329
month for a family with three or more individuals receiving health 115330
assistance underseeking to enroll, or who are enrolled, in the 115331
programpart.115332

       Sec. 5101.519.        Sec. 5161.27.  A completed application for medical 115333
assistance under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Codemedicaid shall 115334
be treated as an application for health assistance under the 115335
children's health insurance program part II if the application is 115336
for an assistance group that includes a child under nineteen years 115337
of age and is denied.115338

       Sec. 5101.513.        Sec. 5161.30.  The medicaid director of job and 115339
family services may contract with a government entity or person to 115340
perform the director's administrative duties regarding the 115341
children's health insurance programCHIP part I, part II, part 115342
III, two of the parts, or all three parts, other than the duty to 115343
submit a state child health plan to the United States secretary of 115344
health and human services under section 5101.515161.10 of the 115345
Revised Code, the duty to submit a waiver request under section 115346
5161.15 of the Revised Code, and the duty to adopt rules under 115347
section 5101.5125161.02 of the Revised Code.115348

       Sec. 5101.5110.        Sec. 5161.35.  (A) The medicaid director of job and 115349
family services may submit a waiver request to the United States 115350
secretary of health and human services to provide health 115351
assistance to any individual who meets all of the following 115352
requirements:115353

       (1) Is the parent of a child who is under nineteen years of 115354
age who, resides with the parent, and is eligible for health 115355
assistance underenrolled in the children's health insurance 115356
program part I or II or the medicaid program established under 115357
Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code;115358

       (2) Is uninsured;115359

       (3) Has a family income that does not exceed one hundred per 115360
cent of the federal poverty guidelinesline.115361

       (B) A waiver request the director submits under division (A) 115362
of this section may seek federal funds allotted to the state under 115363
Title XXI of the "Social Security Act," 111 Stat. 558 (1997)115364
section 2104, 42 U.S.C.A. 1397dd, as amended, that are not 115365
otherwise used to fund the children's health insurance program 115366
parts I and II.115367

       (C) If a waiver request the director submits under division 115368
(A) of this section is granted, the director may adopt rules in 115369
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary for 115370
the efficient administration of the program authorization by the 115371
waiver.115372

       Sec. 5162.01.  (A) As used in the Revised Code:115373

       (1) "Medicaid" and "medicaid program" mean the program of 115374
medical assistance established by Title XIX of the "Social 115375
Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1396 et seq., including any medical 115376
assistance provided under the medicaid state plan or a federal 115377
medicaid waiver granted by the United States secretary of health 115378
and human services.115379

       (2) "Medicare" and "medicare program" mean the federal health 115380
insurance program established by Title XVIII of the "Social 115381
Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1395 et seq.115382

       (B) As used in this chapter:115383

       (1) "Dual eligible individual" has the same meaning as in 115384
section 5160.01 of the Revised Code.115385

       (2) "Federal financial participation" has the same meaning as 115386
in section 5160.01 of the Revised Code.115387

       (3) "Federal poverty line" means the official poverty line 115388
defined by the United States office of management and budget based 115389
on the most recent data available from the United States bureau of 115390
the census and revised by the United States secretary of health 115391
and human services pursuant to the "Omnibus Budget Reconciliation 115392
Act of 1981," section 673(2), 42 U.S.C. 9902(2).115393

       (4) "Healthy start component" means the component of the 115394
medicaid program that covers pregnant women and children and is 115395
identified in rules adopted under section 5162.02 of the Revised 115396
Code as the healthy start component.115397

       (5) "ICF/IID" has the same meaning as in section 5124.01 of 115398
the Revised Code.115399

       (6) "Medicaid managed care organization" has the same meaning 115400
as in section 5167.01 of the Revised Code.115401

       (7) "Medicaid provider" has the same meaning as in section 115402
5164.01 of the Revised Code.115403

       (8) "Medicaid services" has the same meaning as in section 115404
5164.01 of the Revised Code.115405

       (9) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 115406
5165.01 of the Revised Code.115407

       (10) "Political subdivision" means a municipal corporation, 115408
township, county, school district, or other body corporate and 115409
politic responsible for governmental activities only in a 115410
geographical area smaller than that of the state.115411

       (11) "Prescribed drug" has the same meaning as in section 115412
5164.01 of the Revised Code.115413

       (12) "Provider agreement" has the same meaning as in section 115414
5164.01 of the Revised Code.115415

       (13) "Qualified medicaid school provider" means the board of 115416
education of a city, local, or exempted village school district, 115417
the governing authority of a community school established under 115418
Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, the state school for the deaf, 115419
and the state school for the blind to which both of the following 115420
apply:115421

       (a) It holds a valid provider agreement.115422

       (b) It meets all other conditions for participation in the 115423
medicaid school component of the medicaid program established in 115424
rules authorized by section 5162.364 of the Revised Code.115425

       (14) "State agency" means every organized body, office, or 115426
agency, other than the department of medicaid, established by the 115427
laws of the state for the exercise of any function of state 115428
government.115429

       (15) "Vendor offset" means a reduction of a medicaid payment 115430
to a medicaid provider to correct a previous, incorrect medicaid 115431
payment to that provider.115432

       Sec. 5162.02.  The medicaid director shall adopt rules as 115433
necessary to implement this chapter.115434

       Sec. 5162.021.  The medicaid director shall adopt rules under 115435
sections 5160.02, 5162.02, 5163.03, 5164.04, 5165.05, 5166.02, and 115436
5167.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to authorize the 115437
directors of other state agencies to adopt rules regarding 115438
medicaid components, or aspects of medicaid components, the other 115439
state agencies administer pursuant to contracts entered into under 115440
section 5162.35 of the Revised Code.115441

       Sec. 5162.022.  The medicaid director's rules governing 115442
medicaid are binding on other state agencies and political 115443
subdivisions that administer one or more components of the 115444
medicaid program, or one or more aspects of a component, pursuant 115445
to contracts entered into under section 5162.35 of the Revised 115446
Code. No state agency or political subdivision may establish, by 115447
rule or otherwise, a policy governing medicaid that is 115448
inconsistent with a medicaid policy established, in rule or 115449
otherwise, by the director.115450

       Sec. 5111.01.        Sec. 5162.03. (A) As used in this chapter:115451

       "Children's health insurance program" means the children's 115452
health insurance program part I, children's health insurance 115453
program part II, and children's health insurance program part III 115454
authorized by sections 5101.50 to 5101.529 of the Revised Code.115455

       "Medical assistance program" or "medicaid" means the program 115456
that is authorized by this chapter and provided by the office of 115457
medical assistance under this chapter, Title XIX of the "Social 115458
Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396, et seq., as 115459
amended, and the waivers of Title XIX requirements granted to the 115460
office by the centers for medicare and medicaid services of the 115461
United States department of health and human services.115462

       (B) There is hereby established the office of medical 115463
assistance as a work unit within the department of job and family 115464
services. The chief of the office shall hold the title of medical 115465
assistance director. Notwithstanding section 5101.06 of the 115466
Revised Code, the governor shall appoint the medical assistance 115467
director and the medical assistance director shall serve at the 115468
governor's pleasure. The medical assistance director is not an 115469
assistant director of the department of job and family services 115470
for purposes of section 121.05 or 5101.03 of the Revised Code or 115471
any other purpose.115472

       Subject to appropriations for the medicaid program and 115473
children's health insurance program, the department of job and 115474
family services shall provide staff and support services as 115475
necessary for the operation of the office of medical assistance.115476

       If a statute, rule, contract, or other legal authority 115477
requires the director of job and family services or department of 115478
job and family services to take an action regarding the medicaid 115479
program or children's health insurance program, the medical 115480
assistance director or office of medical assistance shall take the 115481
action in place of the director of job and family services or 115482
department of job and family services. If a statute, rule, 115483
contract, or other legal authority permits the director of job and 115484
family services or department of job and family services to take 115485
an action regarding the medicaid program or children's health 115486
insurance program, the medical assistance director or office of 115487
medical assistance shall take the action in place of the director 115488
of job and family services or department of job and family 115489
services if the action is to be taken.115490

       The officeFor the purpose of the "Social Security Act," 115491
section 1902(a)(5), 42 U.S.C. 1396a(a)(5), the department of 115492
medical assistancemedicaid shall act as the single state agency 115493
to supervise the administration of the medicaid program. As the 115494
single state agency, the officedepartment shall comply with 42 115495
C.F.R. 431.10(e) and all other federal requirements applicable to 115496
the single state agency. The office's rules governing medicaid are 115497
binding on other agencies that administer components of the 115498
medicaid program. No agency may establish, by rule or otherwise, a 115499
policy governing medicaid that is inconsistent with a medicaid 115500
policy established, in rule or otherwise, by the medical 115501
assistance director.115502

       (C) The office of medical assistance may provide medical 115503
assistance under the medicaid program as long as federal funds are 115504
provided for such assistance, to the following:115505

       (1) Families with children that meet either of the following 115506
conditions:115507

       (a) The family meets the income, resource, and family 115508
composition requirements in effect on July 16, 1996, for the 115509
former aid to dependent children program as those requirements 115510
were established by Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code, federal 115511
waivers granted pursuant to requests made under former section 115512
5101.09 of the Revised Code, and rules adopted by the department 115513
or any changes the department makes to those requirements in 115514
accordance with paragraph (a)(2) of section 114 of the "Personal 115515
Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act of 1996," 115516
110 Stat. 2177, 42 U.S.C.A. 1396u-1, for the purpose of 115517
implementing section 5111.0120 of the Revised Code. An adult loses 115518
eligibility for medicaid under division (C)(1)(a) of this section 115519
pursuant to division (E) of section 5107.16 of the Revised Code.115520

       (b) The family does not meet the requirements specified in 115521
division (C)(1)(a) of this section but is eligible for medicaid 115522
pursuant to section 5101.18 of the Revised Code.115523

       (2) Aged, blind, and disabled persons who meet the following 115524
conditions:115525

       (a) Receive federal aid under Title XVI of the "Social 115526
Security Act," or are eligible for but are not receiving such aid, 115527
provided that the income from all other sources for individuals 115528
with independent living arrangements shall not exceed one hundred 115529
seventy-five dollars per month. The income standards hereby 115530
established shall be adjusted annually at the rate that is used by 115531
the United States department of health and human services to 115532
adjust the amounts payable under Title XVI.115533

       (b) Do not receive aid under Title XVI, but meet any of the 115534
following criteria:115535

       (i) Would be eligible to receive such aid, except that their 115536
income, other than that excluded from consideration as income 115537
under Title XVI, exceeds the maximum under division (C)(2)(a) of 115538
this section, and incurred expenses for medical care, as 115539
determined under federal regulations applicable to section 209(b) 115540
of the "Social Security Amendments of 1972," 86 Stat. 1381, 42 115541
U.S.C. 1396a(f), as amended, equal or exceed the amount by which 115542
their income exceeds the maximum under division (C)(2)(a) of this 115543
section;115544

       (ii) Received aid for the aged, aid to the blind, or aid for 115545
the permanently and totally disabled prior to January 1, 1974, and 115546
continue to meet all the same eligibility requirements;115547

       (iii) Are eligible for medicaid pursuant to section 5101.18 115548
of the Revised Code.115549

       (3) Persons to whom federal law requires, as a condition of 115550
state participation in the medicaid program, that medicaid be 115551
provided;115552

       (4) Persons under age twenty-one who meet the income 115553
requirements for the Ohio works first program established under 115554
Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code but do not meet other 115555
eligibility requirements for the program. The medical assistance 115556
director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 115557
Revised Code specifying which Ohio works first requirements shall 115558
be waived for the purpose of providing medicaid eligibility under 115559
division (C)(4) of this section.115560

       (D) If sufficient funds are appropriated for the medicaid 115561
program, the office of medical assistance may provide medical 115562
assistance under the medicaid program to persons in groups 115563
designated by federal law as groups to which a state, at its 115564
option, may provide medical assistance under the medicaid program.115565

       (E) The office of medical assistance may expand eligibility 115566
for the medicaid program to include individuals under age nineteen 115567
with family incomes at or below one hundred fifty per cent of the 115568
federal poverty guidelines, except that the eligibility expansion 115569
shall not occur unless the office receives the approval of the 115570
federal government. The office may implement the eligibility 115571
expansion authorized under this division on any date selected by 115572
the office, but not sooner than January 1, 1998.115573

       (F) In addition to any other authority or requirement to 115574
adopt rules under this chapter, the medical assistance director 115575
may adopt rules in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised 115576
Code as the director considers necessary to establish standards, 115577
procedures, and other requirements regarding the provision of 115578
medical assistance under the medicaid program. The rules may 115579
establish requirements to be followed in applying for medicaid, 115580
making determinations of eligibility for medicaid, and verifying 115581
eligibility for medicaid. The rules may include special conditions 115582
as the office determines appropriate for making applications, 115583
determining eligibility, and verifying eligibility for any medical 115584
assistance that the office may provide under the medicaid program 115585
pursuant to division (E) of this section and section 5111.014 or 115586
5111.0120 of the Revised Code.115587

       Sec. 5111.98.        Sec. 5162.031.  (A) The medicaid director of job and 115588
family services may do all of the following as necessary for the 115589
department of job and family servicesmedicaid to fulfill the 115590
duties it has, as the single state agency for the medicaid 115591
program, under the "Medicare Prescription Drug, Improvement, and 115592
Modernization Act of 2003" Pub. L. No. 108-173, 117 Stat. 2066:115593

       (1) Adopt rules in accordance with division (B) of this 115594
section;115595

       (2) Assign duties to county departments of job and family 115596
services;115597

       (3) Make payments to the United States department of health 115598
and human services from appropriations made to the department of 115599
job and family servicesmedicaid for this purpose.115600

       (B) Rules adopted underauthorized by division (A)(1) of this 115601
section shall be adopted as follows:115602

       (1) If the rules concern the department's duties regarding 115603
servicemedicaid providers, in accordance with Chapter 119.under 115604
sections 5164.02 and 5165.02 of the Revised Code, as appropriate;115605

       (2) If the rules concern the department's duties concerning 115606
individuals' eligibility for medicaid services, in accordance with115607
under section 111.155163.02 of the Revised Code;115608

       (3) If the rules concern the department's duties concerning 115609
financial and operational matters between the department and 115610
county departments of job and family services, in accordance with115611
under section 111.155162.02 of the Revised Code as if the rules 115612
were internal management rules.115613

       Sec. 5111.102.        Sec. 5162.04. As used in this section, "state 115614
agency" has the same meaning as in section 9.23 of the Revised 115615
Code.115616

       No provision of Title LI of the Revised Code or any other law 115617
of this state that incorporates any provision of federal Medicaid115618
medicaid law, Title XIX of the Social Security Act, 79 Stat. 286 115619
(1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396, or that may be construed as requiring the 115620
state, a state agency, or any state official or employee to comply 115621
with that federal provision, shall be construed as creating a 115622
cause of action to enforce such state law beyond the causes of 115623
action available under federal law for enforcement of the 115624
provision of federal law.115625

       Sec. 5162.05.  The medicaid program shall be implemented in 115626
accordance with all of the following:115627

       (A) The medicaid state plan approved by the United States 115628
secretary of health and human services, including amendments to 115629
the plan approved by the United States secretary;115630

       (B) Federal medicaid waivers granted by the United States 115631
secretary, including amendments to waivers approved by the United 115632
States secretary;115633

       (C) Other types of federal approval, including demonstration 115634
grants, that establish requirements for components of the medicaid 115635
program;115636

       (D) Except as otherwise authorized by a federal medicaid 115637
waiver granted by the United States secretary, all applicable 115638
federal statutes, regulations, and policy guidances;115639

       (E) All applicable state statutes.115640

       Sec. 5162.06.  (A) Notwithstanding any other state statute, 115641
no component, or aspect of a component, of the medicaid program 115642
shall be implemented without all of the following:115643

       (1) Subject to division (B) of this section, if the 115644
component, or aspect of the component, requires federal approval, 115645
receipt of the federal approval;115646

       (2) Sufficient federal financial participation for the 115647
component or aspect of the component;115648

       (3) Sufficient nonfederal funds for the component or aspect 115649
of the component that qualify as funds needed to obtain the 115650
federal financial participation.115651

        (B) A component, or aspect of a component, of the medicaid 115652
program that requires federal approval may begin to be implemented 115653
before receipt of the federal approval if federal law authorizes 115654
implementation to begin before receipt of the federal approval. 115655
Implementation shall cease if the federal approval is ultimately 115656
denied.115657

       Sec. 5162.07.  The medicaid director shall seek federal 115658
approval for all components, and aspects of components, of the 115659
medicaid program for which federal approval is needed, except that 115660
the director is permitted rather than required to seek federal 115661
approval for components, and aspects of components, that state 115662
statutes permit rather than require be implemented. Federal 115663
approval shall be sought in the following forms as appropriate:115664

       (A) The medicaid state plan;115665

       (B) Amendments to the medicaid state plan;115666

       (C) Federal medicaid waivers;115667

       (D) Amendments to federal medicaid waivers;115668

       (E) Other types of federal approval, including demonstration 115669
grants.115670

       Sec. 5111.10.        Sec. 5162.10.  The medicaid director of job and 115671
family services may conduct reviews of the medicaid program. The 115672
reviews may include physical inspections of records and sites 115673
where medicaid-fundedmedicaid services are provided and 115674
interviews of medicaid providers and medicaid recipients of the 115675
services. If the director determines pursuant to a review that a 115676
person or government entity has violated a rule governing the 115677
medicaid program, the director may establish a corrective action 115678
plan for the violator and impose fiscal, administrative, or both 115679
types of sanctions on the violator in accordance with rules 115680
governing the medicaid programadopted under section 5162.02 of 115681
the Revised Code. 115682

       Sec. 5111.915.        Sec. 5162.11.  (A) The department of job and family 115683
servicesmedicaid shall enter into an agreement with the 115684
department of administrative services for the department of 115685
administrative services to contract through competitive selection 115686
pursuant to section 125.07 of the Revised Code with a vendor to 115687
perform an assessment of the data collection and data warehouse 115688
functions of the medicaid data warehouse system, including the 115689
ability to link the data sets of all agencies serving medicaid 115690
recipients. 115691

       The assessment of the data system shall include functions 115692
related to fraud and abuse detection, program management and 115693
budgeting, and performance measurement capabilities of all 115694
agencies serving medicaid recipients, including the departments of 115695
aging, alcohol and drug addiction services, health, job and family 115696
services, medicaid, mental healthmental health and addiction 115697
services, and developmental disabilities.115698

       The department of administrative services shall enter into 115699
this contract within thirty days after September 29, 2005. The 115700
contract shall require the vendor to complete the assessment 115701
within ninety days after September 29, 2005.115702

       A qualified vendor with whom the department of administrative 115703
services contracts to assess the data system shall also assist the 115704
medicaid agencies in the definition of the requirements for an 115705
enhanced data system or a new data system and assist the 115706
department of administrative services in the preparation of a 115707
request for proposalproposals to enhance or develop a data 115708
system.115709

       (B) Based on the assessment performed pursuant to division 115710
(A) of this section, the department of administrative services 115711
shall seek a qualified vendor through competitive selection 115712
pursuant to section 125.07 of the Revised Code to develop or 115713
enhance a data collection and data warehouse system for the 115714
department of job and family servicesmedicaid and all agencies 115715
serving medicaid recipients.115716

       Within ninety days after September 29, 2005, theThe115717
department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall seek enhanced 115718
federal fundingfinancial participation for ninety per cent of 115719
the funds required to establish or enhance the data system. The 115720
department of administrative services shall not award a contract 115721
for establishing or enhancing the data system until the department 115722
of job and family servicesmedicaid receives approval from the 115723
secretary of the United States departmentsecretary of health and 115724
human services for the ninety per cent federal matchfinancial 115725
participation.115726

       Sec. 5162.12.  (A) The medicaid director may enter into a 115727
contract with one or more persons to receive and process, on the 115728
director's behalf, requests for medicaid recipient or claims 115729
payment data, data from reports of audits conducted under section 115730
5165.109 of the Revised Code, or extracts or analyses of any of 115731
the foregoing data made by persons who intend to use the items for 115732
commercial or academic purposes. 115733

       (B) At a minimum, a contract entered into under this section 115734
shall do both of the following:115735

       (1) Authorize the contracting person to engage in the 115736
activities described in division (A) of this section for 115737
compensation, which must be stated as a percentage of the fees 115738
paid by persons who are provided the items;115739

       (2) Specify the schedule of fees the contracting person is to 115740
charge for the items.115741

       (C) Except as required by federal or state law and subject to 115742
division (E) of this section, both of the following conditions 115743
apply with respect to a request for data described in division (A) 115744
of this section:115745

       (1) The request shall be made through a person who has 115746
entered into a contract with the medicaid director under this 115747
section. 115748

       (2) An item prepared pursuant to the request may be provided 115749
to the department of medicaid and is confidential and not subject 115750
to disclosure under section 149.43 or 1347.08 of the Revised Code.115751

       (D) The medicaid director shall use fees the director 115752
receives pursuant to a contract entered into under this section to 115753
pay obligations specified in contracts entered under this section. 115754
Any money remaining after the obligations are paid shall be 115755
deposited in the health care services administration fund created 115756
under section 5162.54 of the Revised Code. 115757

       (E) This section does not apply to requests for medicaid 115758
recipient or claims payment data, data from reports of audits 115759
conducted under section 5165.109 of the Revised Code, or extracts 115760
or analyses of any of the foregoing data that are for any of the 115761
following purposes:115762

       (1) Treatment of medicaid recipients;115763

       (2) Payment of medicaid claims; 115764

       (3) Establishment or management of medicaid third party 115765
liability pursuant to sections 5160.35 to 5160.43 of the Revised 115766
Code;115767

       (4) Compliance with the terms of an agreement the medicaid 115768
director enters into for purposes of administering the medicaid 115769
program;115770

       (5) Compliance with an operating protocol the executive 115771
director of the office of health transformation or the executive 115772
director's designee adopts under division (D) of section 191.06 of 115773
the Revised Code.115774

       Sec. 5111.09.        Sec. 5162.13.  On or before the first day of January 115775
of each year, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid115776
shall submit to the speaker and minority leader of the house of 115777
representatives and the president and minority leader of the 115778
senate, and shall make available to the public, a report on the 115779
effectiveness of the Ohio works first program established under 115780
Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code and the medical assistance115781
medicaid program established under this chapter in meeting the 115782
health care needs of low-income pregnant women, infants, and 115783
children. The report shall include: the estimated number of 115784
persons eligible for health care services to pregnant women, 115785
infants, and children under the programseligible for the 115786
program; the actual number of eligible persons servedenrolled in 115787
the program; the number of prenatal, postpartum, and child health 115788
visits; a report on birth outcomes, including a comparison of 115789
low-birthweight births and infant mortality rates of program 115790
participantsmedicaid recipients with the general female 115791
child-bearing and infant population in this state; and a 115792
comparison of the prenatal, delivery, and child health costs of 115793
the programsprogram with such costs of similar programs in other 115794
states, where available.115795

       Sec. 5111.091.        Sec. 5162.131.  Semiannually, the medicaid director 115796
of job and family services shall submit to the president and 115797
minority leader of the senate, speaker and minority leader of the 115798
house of representatives, and the chairpersons of the standing 115799
committees of the senate and house of representatives with primary 115800
responsibility for legislation making biennial appropriations a 115801
report on the establishment and implementation of programs 115802
designed to control the increase of the cost of the medicaid 115803
program, increase the efficiency of the medicaid program, and 115804
promote better health outcomes. In each calendar year, one report 115805
shall be submitted not later than the last day of June and the 115806
subsequent report shall be submitted not later than the last day 115807
of December.115808

       Sec. 5111.092.        Sec. 5162.132. (A) Not later than January 1, 2010, 115809
and each year thereafterAnnually, the department of job and 115810
family servicesmedicaid shall prepare a report on the 115811
department's efforts to minimize fraud, waste, and abuse in the 115812
medicaid program.115813

       (B) Each report shall be made available on the department's 115814
web site. The department shall submit a copy of each report to the 115815
governor and, in accordance with section 101.68 of the Revised 115816
Code, the general assembly. Copies of the report also shall be 115817
made available to the public on request.115818

       Sec. 5111.101.        Sec. 5162.15. (A) As used in this section;115819

        "Agent" and "contractor" include any agent, contractor, 115820
subcontractor, or other person who, on behalf of an entity, 115821
furnishes or authorizes the furnishing of health care items or115822
medicaid services under the medicaid program, performs billing or 115823
coding functions, or is involved in monitoring of health care that 115824
an entity provides.115825

       "Employee" includes any officer or employee (including 115826
management employees) of an entity.115827

       "Entity" includes a governmental entity or an organization, 115828
unit, corporation, partnership, or other business arrangement, 115829
including any medicaid managed care organization, irrespective of 115830
the form of business structure or arrangement by which it exists, 115831
whether for-profit or not-for-profit. "Entity" does not include a 115832
government entity that administers one or more components of the 115833
medicaid program, unless the government entity receives medicaid 115834
payments for providing items ormedicaid services.115835

       "Federal health care programs" has the same meaning as in the 115836
"Social Security Act," section 1128B, 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7b(f).115837

       (B) Each entity that receives or makes in a federal fiscal 115838
year payments under the medicaid program, either through the 115839
medicaid state medicaid plan or a federal medicaid waiver, 115840
totaling at least five million dollars shall, as a condition of 115841
receiving such payments, do all of the following not later than 115842
the first day of the succeeding calendar year:115843

       (1) Establish written policies for all of the entity's 115844
employees, contractors, and agents that provide detailed 115845
information about the role of all of the following in preventing 115846
and detecting fraud, waste, and abuse in federal health care 115847
programs:115848

       (a) Federal false claims law under 31 U.S.C. 3729 to 3733;115849

       (b) Federal administrative remedies for false claims and 115850
statements available under 31 U.S.C. 3801 to 3812;115851

       (c) Sections 124.341, 2913.40, 2913.401, and 2921.13 of the 115852
Revised Code and any other state laws pertaining to civil or 115853
criminal penalties for false claims and statements;115854

       (d) Whistleblower protections under the laws specified in 115855
divisions (B)(1)(a) to (c) of this section.115856

       (2) Include as part of the written policies required by 115857
division (B)(1) of this section detailed provisions regarding the 115858
entity's policies and procedures for preventing and detecting 115859
fraud, waste, and abuse.115860

       (3) Disseminate the written policies required by division 115861
(B)(1) of this section to each of the entity's employees, 115862
contractors, and agents in a paper or electronic form and make the 115863
written policies readily available to the entity's employees, 115864
contractors, and agents.115865

       (4) If the entity has an employee handbook, include in the 115866
employee handbook a specific discussion of the laws specified in 115867
division (B)(1) of this section, the rights of employees to be 115868
protected as whistleblowers, and the entity's policies and 115869
procedures for preventing and detecting fraud, waste, and abuse.115870

       (5) Require the entity's contractors and agents to adopt the 115871
entity's written policies required by division (B)(1) of this 115872
section.115873

       (C) An entity that furnishes items ormedicaid services at 115874
multiple locations or under multiple contractual or other payment 115875
arrangements is required to comply with division (B) of this 115876
section if the entity receives in a federal fiscal year medicaid 115877
payments totaling in the aggregate at least five million dollars. 115878
This applies regardless of whether the entity submits claims for 115879
medicaid payments using multiple provider identification or tax 115880
identification numbers.115881

       Sec. 5111.0112.        Sec. 5162.20.  (A) The directordepartment of job 115882
and family servicesmedicaid shall institute a cost-sharing 115883
program underrequirements for the medicaid program. In 115884
instituting the cost-sharing program, the director shall comply 115885
with federal law. The cost-sharing programrequirements shall 115886
establishinclude a copayment requirement for at least dental 115887
services, vision services, nonemergency emergency department 115888
services, and prescriptionprescribed drugs, other than generic 115889
drugs. The cost-sharing programrequirements also shall establish115890
include requirements regarding premiums, enrollment fees, 115891
deductions, and similar charges. The director shall adopt rules 115892
under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code governing the 115893
cost-sharing program.115894

       (B) The cost-sharing program shall, to the extent permitted 115895
by federal law, provide for all of the following with regard to 115896
any providers participating in the medicaid program:115897

        (1) No provider shall refuse to provide a service to a 115898
medicaid recipient who is unable to pay a required copayment for 115899
the service.115900

        (2) Division (B)(1) of this section shall not be considered 115901
to do either of the following with regard to a medicaid recipient 115902
who is unable to pay a required copayment:115903

       (a) Relieve the medicaid recipient from the obligation to pay 115904
a copayment;115905

        (b) Prohibit the provider from attempting to collect an 115906
unpaid copayment.115907

       (3)(C) Except as provided in division (C)(F) of this section, 115908
no provider shall waive a medicaid recipient's obligation to pay 115909
the provider a copayment.115910

       (4)(D) No provider or drug manufacturer, including the 115911
manufacturer's representative, employee, independent contractor, 115912
or agent, shall pay any copayment on behalf of a medicaid 115913
recipient.115914

       (5)(E) If it is the routine business practice of thea115915
provider to refuse service to any individual who owes an 115916
outstanding debt to the provider, the provider may consider an 115917
unpaid copayment imposed by the cost-sharing programrequirements115918
as an outstanding debt and may refuse service to a medicaid 115919
recipient who owes the provider an outstanding debt. If the 115920
provider intends to refuse service to a medicaid recipient who 115921
owes the provider an outstanding debt, the provider shall notify 115922
the individualrecipient of the provider's intent to refuse 115923
servicesservice.115924

       (C)(F) In the case of a provider that is a hospital, the 115925
cost-sharing program shall permit the hospital to take action to 115926
collect a copayment by providing, at the time services are 115927
rendered to a medicaid recipient, notice that a copayment may be 115928
owed. If the hospital provides the notice and chooses not to take 115929
any further action to pursue collection of the copayment, the 115930
prohibition against waiving copayments specified in division 115931
(B)(3)(C) of this section does not apply.115932

       (D)(G) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid may 115933
workcollaborate with a state agency that is administering, 115934
pursuant to a contract entered into under section 5111.915162.35115935
of the Revised Code, one or more components of the medicaid 115936
program, or one or more aspects of a component, of the medicaid 115937
program as necessary for the state agency to apply the 115938
cost-sharing programrequirements to the components or aspects of 115939
the medicaid programa component that the state agency 115940
administers.115941

       Sec. 5111.11.        Sec. 5162.21.  (A) As used in this section and 115942
section 5111.1115162.211 of the Revised Code:115943

       (1) "Estate" includes both of the following:115944

       (a) All real and personal property and other assets to be 115945
administered under Title XXI of the Revised Code and property that 115946
would be administered under that title if not for section 2113.03 115947
or 2113.031 of the Revised Code;115948

        (b) Any other real and personal property and other assets in 115949
which an individual had any legal title or interest at the time of 115950
death (to the extent of the interest), including assets conveyed 115951
to a survivor, heir, or assign of the individual through joint 115952
tenancy, tenancy in common, survivorship, life estate, living 115953
trust, or other arrangement.115954

        (2) "Institution" means a nursing facility, intermediate care 115955
facility for the mentally retardedICF/IID, or a medical 115956
institution.115957

        (3) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 115958
and "nursing facility" have the same meanings as in section 115959
5111.20 of the Revised Code.115960

       (4) "Permanently institutionalized individual" means an 115961
individual to whom all of the following apply:115962

        (a) Is an inpatient in an institution;115963

        (b) Is required, as a condition of the medicaid program 115964
paying for the individual's services in the institution, to spend 115965
for costs of medical or nursing care all of the individual's 115966
income except for an amount for personal needs specified by the 115967
department of job and family servicesmedicaid;115968

        (c) Cannot reasonably be expected to be discharged from the 115969
institution and return home as determined by the department of job 115970
and family servicesmedicaid.115971

       (5)(4) "Qualified state long-term care insurance partnership 115972
program" means the program established under section 5111.18115973
5164.86 of the Revised Code.115974

       (6)(5) "Time of death" shall not be construed to mean a time 115975
after which a legal title or interest in real or personal property 115976
or other asset may pass by survivorship or other operation of law 115977
due to the death of the decedent or terminate by reason of the 115978
decedent's death.115979

       (B) To the extent permitted by federal law, the department of 115980
job and family servicesmedicaid shall institute a medicaid estate 115981
recovery program under which the department shall, except as 115982
provided in divisions (C) and (E) of this section, and subject to 115983
division (D) of this section, do all of the following:115984

        (1) For the costs of medicaid services the medicaid program 115985
correctly paid or will pay on behalf of a permanently 115986
institutionalized individual of any age, seek adjustment or 115987
recovery from the individual's estate or on the sale of property 115988
of the individual or spouse that is subject to a lien imposed 115989
under section 5111.1115162.211 of the Revised Code;115990

        (2) For the costs of medicaid services the medicaid program 115991
correctly paid or will pay on behalf of an individual fifty-five 115992
years of age or older who is not a permanently institutionalized 115993
individual, seek adjustment or recovery from the individual's 115994
estate;115995

       (3) Seek adjustment or recovery from the estate of other 115996
individuals as permitted by federal law.115997

        (C)(1) No adjustment or recovery may be made under division 115998
(B)(1) of this section from a permanently institutionalized 115999
individual's estate or on the sale of property of a permanently 116000
institutionalized individual that is subject to a lien imposed 116001
under section 5111.1115162.211 of the Revised Code or under 116002
division (B)(2) or (3) of this section from an individual's estate 116003
while either of the following are alive:116004

        (a) The spouse of the permanently institutionalized 116005
individual or individual;116006

        (b) The son or daughter of a permanently institutionalized 116007
individual or individual if the son or daughter is under age 116008
twenty-one or, under the "Social Security Act," section 1614, 42 116009
U.S.C. 1382c, is considered blind or disabled.116010

        (2) No adjustment or recovery may be made under division 116011
(B)(1) of this section from a permanently institutionalized 116012
individual's home that is subject to a lien imposed under section 116013
5111.1115162.211 of the Revised Code while either of the 116014
following lawfully reside in the home:116015

        (a) The permanently institutionalized individual's sibling 116016
who resided in the home for at least one year immediately before 116017
the date of the permanently institutionalized individual's 116018
admission to the institution and on a continuous basis since that 116019
time;116020

        (b) The permanently institutionalized individual's son or 116021
daughter who provided care to the permanently institutionalized 116022
individual that delayed the permanently institutionalized 116023
individual's institutionalization and resided in the home for at 116024
least two years immediately before the date of the permanently 116025
institutionalized individual's admission to the institution and on 116026
a continuous basis since that time.116027

        (D) In the case of a participant of the qualified state 116028
long-term care insurance partnership program, adjustment or 116029
recovery required by this section may be reduced in accordance 116030
with rules adopted underauthorized by division (G) of this 116031
section.116032

        (E) The department shall, in accordance with procedures and 116033
criteria established in rules adopted underauthorized by division 116034
(G) of this section, waive seeking an adjustment or recovery 116035
otherwise required by this section if the medicaid director of job 116036
and family services determines that adjustment or recovery would 116037
work an undue hardship. The department may limit the duration of 116038
the waiver to the period during which the undue hardship exists.116039

       (F) For the purpose of determining whether an individual 116040
meets the definition of "permanently institutionalized individual" 116041
established for this section, a rebuttable presumption exists that 116042
the individual cannot reasonably be expected to be discharged from 116043
an institution and return home if either of the following is the 116044
case:116045

       (1) The individual declares that he or she does not intend to 116046
return home.116047

       (2) The individual has been an inpatient in an institution 116048
for at least six months.116049

       (G) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 116050
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code regarding the 116051
medicaid estate recovery program, including rules thatRules 116052
adopted under section 5162.02 of the Revised Code shall do both of 116053
the following: 116054

        (1) For the purpose of division (D) of this section and 116055
consistent with the "Social Security Act," section 1917(b)(1)(C),116056
42 U.S.C. 1396p(b)(1)(C), provide for reducing an adjustment or 116057
recovery in the case of a participant of the qualified state 116058
long-term care insurance partnership program;116059

        (2) For the purpose of division (E) of this section and 116060
consistent with the standards specified by the United States 116061
secretary of health and human services under the "Social Security 116062
Act," section 1917(b)(3), 42 U.S.C. 1396p(b)(3), establish 116063
procedures and criteria for waiving adjustment or recovery due to 116064
an undue hardship.116065

       Sec. 5111.111.        Sec. 5162.211.  (A) Except as provided in division 116066
(B) of this section and section 5111.125162.23 of the Revised 116067
Code, no lien may be imposed against the property of an individual 116068
before the individual's death on account of medicaid services 116069
correctly paid or to be paid on the individual's behalf.116070

        (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, the 116071
department of job and family servicesmedicaid may impose a lien 116072
against the real property of a medicaid recipient who is a 116073
permanently institutionalized individual and against the real 116074
property of the recipient's spouse, including any real property 116075
that is jointly held by the recipient and spouse. The lien may be 116076
imposed on account of medicaid paid or to be paid on the 116077
recipient's behalf.116078

        (C) No lien may be imposed under division (B) of this section 116079
against the home of a medicaid recipient if any of the following 116080
lawfully resides in the home:116081

        (1) The recipient's spouse;116082

        (2) The recipient's son or daughter who is under twenty-one 116083
years of age or, under the "Social Security Act," section 1614, 42 116084
U.S.C. 1382c, considered to be blind or disabled;116085

        (3) The recipient's sibling who has an equity interest in the 116086
home and resided in the home for at least one year immediately 116087
before the date of the recipient's admission to the institution.116088

        (D) The medicaid director of job and family services or a 116089
person designated by the director shall sign a certificate to 116090
effectuate a lien required to be imposed under this section. The 116091
county department of job and family services shall file for 116092
recording and indexing the certificate, or a certified copy, in 116093
the real estate mortgage records in the office of the county 116094
recorder in every county in which real property of the recipient 116095
or spouse is situated. From the time of filing the certificate in 116096
the office of the county recorder, the lien attaches to all real 116097
property of the recipient or spouse described in the certificate 116098
for all amounts for which adjustment or recovery may be made under 116099
section 5111.115162.21 of the Revised Code and, except as 116100
provided in division (E) of this section, shall remain a lien 116101
until satisfied.116102

       Upon filing the certificate in the office of the recorder, 116103
all persons are charged with notice of the lien and the rights of 116104
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid thereunder.116105

       The county recorder shall keep a record of every certificate 116106
filed showing its date, the time of filing, the name and residence 116107
of the recipient or spouse, and any release, waivers, or 116108
satisfaction of the lien.116109

       The priority of the lien shall be established in accordance 116110
with state and federal law.116111

       The department may waive the priority of its lien to provide 116112
for the costs of the last illness as determined by the department, 116113
administration, attorney fees, administrator fees, a sum for the 116114
payment of the costs of burial, which shall be computed by 116115
deducting from five hundred dollars whatever amount is available 116116
for the same purpose from all other sources, and a similar sum for 116117
the spouse of the decedent.116118

       (E) A lien imposed with respect to a medicaid recipient under 116119
this section shall dissolve on the recipient's discharge from the 116120
institution and return home.116121

       Sec. 5111.112.        Sec. 5162.212.  The department of job and family 116122
servicesmedicaid shall certify amounts due under the medicaid 116123
estate recovery program instituted under section 5111.115162.21116124
of the Revised Code to the attorney general pursuant to section 116125
131.02 of the Revised Code. The attorney general may enter into a 116126
contract with any person or government entity to collect the 116127
amounts due on behalf of the attorney general.116128

        The attorney general, in entering into a contract under this 116129
section, shall comply with all of the requirements that must be 116130
met for the state to receive federal financial participation for 116131
the costs incurred in entering into the contract and carrying out 116132
actions under the contract. The contract may provide for the 116133
person or government entity with which the attorney general 116134
contracts to be compensated from the property recovered under the 116135
medicaid estate recovery program or may provide for another manner 116136
of compensation agreed to by the parties to the contract.116137

        Regardless of whether the attorney general collects the 116138
amounts due under the medicaid estate recovery program or 116139
contracts with a person or government entity to collect the 116140
amounts due on behalf of the attorney general, the amounts due 116141
shall be collected in accordance with applicable requirements of 116142
federal statutes and regulations and state statutes and rules.116143

       Sec. 5111.113.        Sec. 5162.22.  (A) As used in this section:116144

       (1) "Commissioner" means a person appointed by a probate 116145
court under division (E) of section 2113.03 of the Revised Code to 116146
act as a commissioner.116147

       (2) "Home" has the same meaning as in section 3721.10 of the 116148
Revised Code.116149

       (3) "Personal needs allowance account" means an account or 116150
petty cash fund that holds the money of a resident of an adult 116151
carea residential facility or home and that the facility or home 116152
manages for the resident.116153

       (4) "Residential facility" means a residential facility 116154
licensed under section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code that 116155
provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care services 116156
for three to sixteen unrelated adults.116157

       (B) Except as provided in divisions (C) and (D) of this 116158
section, the owner or operator of a home or residential facility 116159
shall transfer to the department of job and family services116160
medicaid the money in the personal needs allowance account of a 116161
resident of the home or facility who was a medicaid recipient of 116162
the medical assistance program no earlier than sixty days but not 116163
later than ninety days after the resident dies. The home or 116164
facility shall transfer the money even though the owner or 116165
operator of the facility or home has not been issued letters 116166
testamentary or letters of administration concerning the 116167
resident's estate.116168

       (C) If funeral or burial expenses for a resident of a home or 116169
residential facility who has died have not been paid and the only 116170
resource the resident had that could be used to pay for the 116171
expenses is the money in the resident's personal needs allowance 116172
account, or all other resources of the resident are inadequate to 116173
pay the full cost of the expenses, the money in the resident's 116174
personal needs allowance account shall be used to pay for the 116175
expenses rather than being transferred to the department of job 116176
and family servicesmedicaid pursuant to division (B) of this 116177
section.116178

       (D) If, not later than sixty days after a resident of a home 116179
or residential facility dies, letters testamentary or letters of 116180
administration are issued, or an application for release from 116181
administration is filed under section 2113.03 of the Revised Code, 116182
concerning the resident's estate, the owner or operator of the 116183
home or facility shall transfer the money in the resident's 116184
personal needs allowance account to the administrator, executor, 116185
commissioner, or person who filed the application for release from 116186
administration.116187

       (E) The transfer or use of money in a resident's personal 116188
needs allowance account in accordance with division (B), (C), or 116189
(D) of this section discharges and releases the home or 116190
residential facility, and the owner or operator of the home, from 116191
any claim for the money from any source.116192

       (F) If, sixty-one or more days after a resident of a home or 116193
residential facility dies, letters testamentary or letters of 116194
administration are issued, or an application for release from 116195
administration under section 2113.03 of the Revised Code is filed, 116196
concerning the resident's estate, the department of job and family 116197
servicesmedicaid shall transfer the funds to the administrator, 116198
executor, commissioner, or person who filed the application, 116199
unless the department is entitled to recover the money under the 116200
medicaid estate recovery program instituted under section 5111.11116201
5162.21 of the Revised Code.116202

       Sec. 5111.12.        Sec. 5162.23.  (A) The medicaid director of job and 116203
family services shall establishadopt rules under whichsection 116204
5162.02 of the Revised Code permitting county departments of job 116205
and family services mayto take action to recover benefits 116206
incorrectly paid on behalf of medicaid recipients of medical 116207
assistance. The rules shall provide for recovery by the following 116208
methods:116209

       (1) Soliciting voluntary payments from recipients or from 116210
persons holding property in which a recipient has a legal or 116211
equitable interest;116212

       (2) Obtaining a lien on property pursuant to division (B) of 116213
this section.116214

       (B) A county department of job and family services may bring 116215
a civil action in a court of common pleas against a medicaid116216
recipient of medical assistance for the recovery of any medical 116217
assistance benefitsmedicaid payments determined by the court to 116218
have been paid incorrectly on behalf of the recipient. All persons 116219
holding property in which the recipient has a legal or equitable 116220
interest may be joined as parties. The court may issue 116221
pre-judgment orders, including injunctive relief or attachment 116222
under Chapter 2715. of the Revised Code, for the preservation of 116223
real or personal property in which the recipient may have a legal 116224
or equitable interest. If the court determines that benefits116225
medicaid payments were paidmade incorrectly and issues a judgment 116226
to that effect, the county department may obtain a lien upon 116227
property of the recipient in accordance with Chapter 2329. of the 116228
Revised Code.116229

       (C) The county department of job and family services shall 116230
retain fifty per cent of the balance remaining after deduction 116231
from the recovery of the amount required to be returned to the 116232
federal government and shall pay the other fifty per cent of the 116233
balance to the department of job and family servicesmedicaid.116234

       (D) Recovery of medical assistance benefitsmedicaid payments116235
incorrectly paid tomade on behalf of a medicaid recipient may not 116236
be accomplished by reducing the amount of benefits the recipient 116237
is entitled to receive under another government assistance 116238
program.116239

       (E) The remedies provided pursuant to this section do not 116240
affect any other remedies county departments of job and family 116241
services may have to recover benefits incorrectly paid on behalf 116242
of medicaid recipients of medical assistance.116243

       Sec. 5111.121.        Sec. 5162.24.  (A) As used in this section, "third 116244
party" has the same meaning as in section 5101.5715160.35 of the 116245
Revised Code.116246

       (B) In addition to the authority granted under section 116247
5101.595160.38 of the Revised Code, the department of job and 116248
family servicesmedicaid may, to the extent necessary to reimburse 116249
its costs, garnish the wages, salary, or other employment income 116250
of, and withhold amounts from state tax refunds to, any person to 116251
whom both of the following apply:116252

       (1) The person is required by a court or administrative order 116253
to provide coverage of the cost of health care services to a child 116254
eligible for medical assistance under this chaptermedicaid.116255

       (2) The person has received payment from a third party for 116256
the costs of such services but has not used the payment to 116257
reimburse either the other parent or guardian of the child or the 116258
provider of the services.116259

       (C) Claims for current and past due child support shall take 116260
priority over claims under division (B) of this section.116261

       Sec. 5111.83.        Sec. 5162.30.  (A) Not later than January 1, 2012, 116262
theThe medicaid director of job and family services shall apply 116263
to the United States secretary of health and human services for 116264
approval ofcreate a medicaid administrative claiming program 116265
under which federal financial participation is received as 116266
reimbursement for the administrative costs incurred by the 116267
department of health and the Arthur G. James cancer hospital and 116268
Richard J. Solove research institute of the Ohio state university 116269
in analyzing and evaluating both of the following pursuant to 116270
sections 3701.261 to 3701.236and 3701.262 of the Revised Code:116271

       (1) Cancer reports under the Ohio cancer incidence 116272
surveillance system;116273

       (2) The incidence, prevalence, costs, and medical 116274
consequences of cancer on medicaid recipients and other low-income 116275
populations. 116276

       (B) The medicaid director of job and family services shall 116277
consult with the director of health in seeking approval of116278
creating the medicaid administrative claiming program. The 116279
directors shall cooperate in seeking the approval to the extent 116280
they find the approval necessary for the effective and efficient 116281
administration of the medicaid program.116282

       Sec. 5162.31.  Local funds, whether from public or private 116283
sources, expended by a county department of job and family 116284
services for administration of the healthy start component shall 116285
be considered to have been expended by the state for the purpose 116286
of determining the extent to which the state has complied with any 116287
federal requirement that the state provide funds to match federal 116288
financial participation for the medicaid program. This section 116289
does not affect the amount of funds a county is entitled to 116290
receive under sections 5101.16 and 5101.161 of the Revised Code.116291

       Sec. 5111.90.        Sec. 5162.32. (A) As used in sections 5111.90 to 116292
5111.93 of the Revised Code:116293

       (1) "Political subdivision" means a municipal corporation, 116294
township, county, school district, or other body corporate and 116295
politic responsible for governmental activities only in a 116296
geographical area smaller than that of the state.116297

       (2) "State agency" means every organized body, office, or 116298
agency, other than the department of job and family services, 116299
established by the laws of the state for the exercise of any 116300
function of state government.116301

       (B) To the extent permitted by Title XIX of the "Social 116302
Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C.A. 1396, as amended, 116303
and regulations adopted under that title, theThe department of 116304
job and family servicesmedicaid may enter into contracts with 116305
political subdivisions to use funds of the political subdivision 116306
to pay the nonfederal share of expenditures under the medicaid 116307
program. The determination and provision of federal financial 116308
reimbursementparticipation to a subdivision entering into a 116309
contract under this section shall be determined by the department, 116310
subject to section 5111.925162.40 of the Revised Code, approval 116311
by the United States secretary of health and human services, and 116312
the availability of federal financial participation.116313

       Sec. 5111.91.        Sec. 5162.35. The department of job and family 116314
servicesmedicaid may enter into contracts with one or more other 116315
state agencies or political subdivisions to have the state agency 116316
or political subdivision administer one or more components of the 116317
medicaid program, or one or more aspects of a component, under the 116318
department's supervision. A state agency or political subdivision 116319
that enters into such a contract shall comply with the terms of 116320
the contract and any rules the medicaid director of job and family 116321
services has adopted governing the component, or aspect of the 116322
component, that the state agency or political subdivision is to 116323
administer, including any rules establishing review, audit, and 116324
corrective action plan requirements. A contract with a state 116325
agency shall be in the form of an interagency agreement.116326

       A state agency or political subdivision that enters into a 116327
contract with the department under this section shall reimburse 116328
the department for the nonfederal share of the cost to the 116329
department of performing, or contracting for the performance of, a 116330
fiscal audit of the component of the medicaid program, or aspect 116331
of the component, that the state agency or political subdivision 116332
administers if rules governing the component, or aspect of the 116333
component, require that a fiscal audit be conducted.116334

       There is hereby created in the state treasury the medicaid 116335
administrative reimbursement fund. The department shall use money 116336
in the fund to pay for the nonfederal share of the cost of a 116337
fiscal audit for which a state agency or political subdivision is 116338
required by this section to reimburse the department. The 116339
department shall deposit the reimbursements into the fund.116340

       Sec. 5111.71.        Sec. 5162.36. (A) As used in sections 5111.71 to 116341
5111.715 of the Revised Code, "qualified medicaid school provider" 116342
means the board of education of a city, local, or exempted village 116343
school district, the governing authority of a community school 116344
established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, the state 116345
school for the deaf, and the state school for the blind to which 116346
both of the following apply:116347

       (1) It holds a valid medicaid provider agreement.116348

       (2) It meets all other conditions for participation in the 116349
medicaid school component of the medicaid program established in 116350
rules adopted under section 5111.715 of the Revised Code.116351

        (B) The medicaid director of job and family services shall 116352
submit a state medicaid plan amendment to the United States 116353
secretary of health and human services for the purpose of creating116354
create, in accordance with sections 5111.715162.36 to 5111.715116355
5162.364 of the Revised Code, the medicaid school component of the 116356
medicaid program. The director shall create the medicaid school 116357
component on receipt of the United States secretary's approval of 116358
the amendment.116359

       Sec. 5111.711.        Sec. 5162.361.  A qualified medicaid school provider 116360
participating in the medicaid school component of the medicaid 116361
program may submit a claim to the department of job and family 116362
servicesmedicaid for federal financial participation for 116363
providing, in schools, services covered by the medicaid school 116364
component to medicaid recipients who are eligible for the 116365
services. No qualified medicaid school provider may submit such a 116366
claim before the provider incurs the cost of providing the 116367
service.116368

       The claim shall include certification of the qualified 116369
medicaid school provider's expenditures for the service. The 116370
certification shall show that the money the qualified medicaid 116371
school provider used for the expenditures was nonfederal money the 116372
provider may legally use for providing the service and that the 116373
amount of the expenditures was sufficient to pay the full cost of 116374
the service.116375

       Except as otherwise provided in sections 5111.715162.36 to 116376
5111.7155162.364 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under116377
authorized by sections 5111.7135162.363 and 5111.7155162.364 of 116378
the Revised Code, a qualified medicaid school provider is subject 116379
to all conditions of participation in the medicaid program that 116380
generally apply to providers of goods and services under the 116381
medicaid program, including conditions regarding audits and 116382
recovery of overpayments.116383

       Sec. 5111.712.        Sec. 5162.362.  The department of job and family 116384
servicesmedicaid shall seek federal financial participation for 116385
each claim a qualified medicaid school provider properly submits 116386
to the department under section 5111.7115162.361 of the Revised 116387
Code. The department shall disburse the federal financial 116388
participation the department receives from the federal government 116389
for such a claim to the qualified medicaid school provider that 116390
submitted the claim. The department may not pay the qualified 116391
medicaid school provider the nonfederal share of the cost of the 116392
services for which the claim was submitted.116393

       Sec. 5111.713.        Sec. 5162.363.  The department of job and family 116394
servicesmedicaid shall enter into an interagency agreement with 116395
the department of education under section 5111.915162.35 of the 116396
Revised Code that provides for the department of education to 116397
administer the medicaid school component of the medicaid program 116398
other than the aspects of the component that sections 5111.71116399
5162.36 to 5111.7155162.364 of the Revised Code require the 116400
department of job and family servicesmedicaid to administer. The 116401
interagency agreement may include a provision that provides for 116402
the department of education to pay to the department of job and 116403
family servicesmedicaid the nonfederal share of a portion of the 116404
administrative expenses the department of job and family services116405
medicaid incurs in administering the aspects of the component that 116406
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid administers.116407

       TheTo the extent authorized by rules authorized by section 116408
5162.021 of the Revised Code, the department of education shall 116409
establish, in rules adopted under Chapter 119.section 5162.02 of 116410
the Revised Code, a process by which qualified medicaid school 116411
providers participating in the medicaid school component pay to 116412
the department of education the nonfederal share of the 116413
department's expenses incurred in administering the component. The 116414
rules shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 116415
Revised Code.116416

       Sec. 5111.715.        Sec. 5162.364.  The medicaid director of job and 116417
family services shall adopt rules under Chapter 119.section 116418
5162.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to implement the medicaid 116419
school component of the medicaid program, including rules that 116420
establish or specify all of the following:116421

       (A) Conditions a board of education of a city, local, or 116422
exempted school district, governing authority of a community 116423
school established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, the 116424
state school for the deaf, and the state school for the blind must 116425
meet to participate in the component;116426

       (B) Services the component covers;116427

       (C) ReimbursementPayment rates for the services the 116428
component covers.116429

       The rules shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of 116430
the Revised Code.116431

       Sec. 5111.911.        Sec. 5162.37. Any contract the department of job and 116432
family servicesmedicaid enters into with the department of mental 116433
health or department of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental 116434
health and addiction services under section 5111.915162.35 of the 116435
Revised Code is subject to the approval of the director of budget 116436
and management and shall require or specify all of the following:116437

        (A) In the case of a contract with the department of mental 116438
health, thatThat section 5111.9125162.371 of the Revised Code 116439
be complied with;116440

        (B) In the case of a contract with the department of alcohol 116441
and drug addiction services, that section 5111.913 of the Revised 116442
Code be complied with;116443

       (C) How providers will be paid for providing the services;116444

        (D)(C) The department of mental health's or department of 116445
alcohol and drug addiction services' responsibilities of the 116446
department of mental health and addiction services with regard to 116447
providers, including program oversight and quality assurance.116448

       Sec. 5111.912.        Sec. 5162.371. If the department of job and family 116449
servicesmedicaid enters into a contract with the department of 116450
mental healthmental health and addiction services under section 116451
5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code, the department of job and 116452
family servicesmedicaid shall pay the nonfederal share of any 116453
medicaid payment to a provider for services under the component, 116454
or aspect of the component, the department of mental healthmental 116455
health and addiction services administers. If necessary, the 116456
director of job and family services shall submit a medicaid state 116457
plan amendment to the United States secretary of health and human 116458
services regarding the department of job and family services' duty 116459
under this section.116460

       Sec. 5111.92.        Sec. 5162.40.  (A)(1) Except as provided in division 116461
(B) of this section, if a state agency or political subdivision 116462
administers one or more components of the medicaid program that 116463
the United States department of health and human services 116464
approved, and for which federal financial participation was 116465
initially obtained, prior to January 1, 2002, or administers one 116466
or more aspects of such a component, the department of job and 116467
family servicesmedicaid may retain or collect not more than ten 116468
per cent of the federal financial participation the state agency 116469
or political subdivision obtains through an approved, 116470
administrative claim regarding the component or aspect of the 116471
component. If the department retains or collects a percentage of 116472
such federal financial participation, the percentage the 116473
department retains or collects shall be specified in a contract 116474
the department enters into with the state agency or political 116475
subdivision under section 5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code.116476

       (2) Except as provided in division (B) of this section, if a 116477
state agency or political subdivision administers one or more 116478
components of the medicaid program that the United States 116479
department of health and human services approved on or after 116480
January 1, 2002, or administers one or more aspects of such a 116481
component, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid116482
shall retain or collect not less than three and not more than ten 116483
per cent of the federal financial participation the state agency 116484
or political subdivision obtains through an approved, 116485
administrative claim regarding the component or aspect of the 116486
component. The percentage the department retains or collects shall 116487
be specified in a contract the department enters into with the 116488
state agency or political subdivision under section 5111.91116489
5162.35 of the Revised Code.116490

       (B) The department of job and family services may retain or 116491
collect a percentage of federal financial participation under 116492
divisions (A)(1) and (2) of this section only to the extent 116493
permitted by federal statutes and regulations.116494

       (C) All amounts the department retains or collects under this 116495
section shall be deposited into the health care services 116496
administration fund created under section 5111.945162.54 of the 116497
Revised Code.116498

       Sec. 5111.93.        Sec. 5162.41.  The department of job and family 116499
servicesmedicaid may retain or collect a percentage of the 116500
federal financial participation included in a supplemental 116501
medicaid payment to one or more medicaid providers owned or 116502
operated by a state agency or political subdivision that brings 116503
the payment to such provider or providers to the upper payment 116504
limit established by 42 C.F.R. 447.272. If the department retains 116505
or collects a percentage of that federal financial participation, 116506
the departmentmedicaid director shall adopt a rule under Chapter 116507
119.section 5162.02 of the Revised Code specifying the percentage 116508
the department is to retain or collect. All amounts the department 116509
retains or collects under this section shall be deposited into the 116510
health care services administration fund created under section 116511
5111.945162.54 of the Revised Code.116512

       Sec. 5111.943.        Sec. 5162.50. (A) The health care - federal fund is 116513
hereby created in the state treasury. All of the following shall 116514
be credited to the fund:116515

       (1) Funds that division (B) of section 5112.185168.11 of the 116516
Revised Code requires be credited to the fund;116517

       (2) The federal share of all rebates paid by drug 116518
manufacturers to the department of job and family services116519
medicaid in accordance with a rebate agreement required by the 116520
"Social Security Act," section 1927, 42 U.S.C. 1396r-8;116521

       (3) The federal share of all supplemental rebates paid by 116522
drug manufacturers to the department of job and family services116523
medicaid in accordance with the supplemental drug rebate program 116524
established under section 5111.0815164.755 of the Revised Code;116525

       (4) Except as otherwise provided by statute or as authorized 116526
by the controlling board, the federal share of all other 116527
medicaid-related revenues, collections, and recoveries.116528

       (B) All money credited to the health care - federal fund 116529
pursuant to division (B) of section 5112.185168.11 of the Revised 116530
Code shall be used solely for distributing funds to hospitals 116531
under section 5112.085168.09 of the Revised Code. The department 116532
of job and family servicesmedicaid shall use all other money 116533
credited to the fund to pay for other medicaid services and 116534
contracts.116535

       Sec. 5111.941.        Sec. 5162.52.  (A) The health care/medicaid support 116536
and recoveries fund is hereby created in the state treasury. All 116537
of the following shall be credited to the fund:116538

       (1) Except as otherwise provided by statute or as authorized 116539
by the controlling board, the nonfederal share of all 116540
medicaid-related revenues, collections, and recoveries;116541

       (2) Federal reimbursement received for payment adjustments 116542
made pursuant to section 1923 of the "Social Security Act," 101 116543
Stat. 1330-148 (1987)section 1923, 42 U.S.C. 1396r-4, as amended,116544
under the medicaid program to state mental health hospitals 116545
maintained and operated by the department of mental healthmental 116546
health and addiction services under division (A) of section 116547
5119.025119.14 of the Revised Code;116548

       (3) Revenues the department of job and family services116549
medicaid receives from another state agency for medicaid services 116550
pursuant to an interagency agreement, other than such revenues 116551
required to be deposited into the health care services 116552
administration fund created under section 5111.945162.54 of the 116553
Revised Code;116554

       (4) The first seven hundred fifty thousand dollars the 116555
department receives in a fiscal year for performing eligibility 116556
verification services necessary for compliance with the 116557
independent, certified audit requirement of 42 C.F.R. 455.304;116558

       (5) The nonfederal share of all rebates paid by drug 116559
manufacturers to the department of medicaid in accordance with a 116560
rebate agreement required by the "Social Security Act," section 116561
1927, 42 U.S.C. 1396r-8;116562

       (6) The nonfederal share of all supplemental rebates paid by 116563
drug manufacturers to the department of medicaid in accordance 116564
with the supplemental drug rebate program established under 116565
section 5164.755 of the Revised Code.116566

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 116567
use money credited to the health care/medicaid support and 116568
recoveries fund to pay for medicaid services and contracts.116569

       Sec. 5111.94.        Sec. 5162.54.  (A) As used in this section, "vendor 116570
offset" means a reduction of a medicaid payment to a medicaid 116571
provider to correct a previous, incorrect medicaid payment to that 116572
provider.116573

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the health 116574
care services administration fund. Except as provided in division 116575
(C) of this section, all the following shall be deposited into the 116576
fund:116577

       (1) Amounts deposited into the fund pursuant to sections 116578
5111.925162.12, 5162.40, and 5111.935162.41 of the Revised Code;116579

       (2) The amount of the state share of all money the department 116580
of job and family services, in fiscal year 2003 and each fiscal 116581
year thereafter,medicaid recovers each fiscal year pursuant to a 116582
tort action under the department's right of recovery under section 116583
5101.585160.37 of the Revised Code that exceeds the state share 116584
of all money the department, in fiscal year 2002, recovers 116585
pursuant to a tort action under that right of recovery;116586

       (3) Subject to division (D)(B) of this section, the amount of 116587
the state share of all money the department of job and family 116588
servicesmedicaid, in fiscal year 2003 and each fiscal year 116589
thereafter, recovers through audits of medicaid providers that 116590
exceeds the state share of all money the department, in fiscal 116591
year 2002, recovers through such audits;116592

       (4) Amounts from assessments on hospitals under section 116593
5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code and intergovernmental 116594
transfers by governmental hospitals under section 5112.075168.07116595
of the Revised Code that are deposited into the fund in accordance 116596
with the law;116597

       (5) Amounts that the department of education pays to the 116598
department of job and family servicesmedicaid, if any, pursuant 116599
to an interagency agreement entered into underauthorized by116600
section 5111.7135162.363 of the Revised Code;116601

       (6) The application fees charged to providers under section 116602
5111.0635164.31 of the Revised Code;116603

       (7) The fines collected under section 5111.2715165.1010 of 116604
the Revised Code;116605

       (8) Money the department receives in a fiscal year for 116606
performing eligibility verification services necessary for 116607
compliance with the independent, certified audit requirement of 42 116608
C.F.R. 455.304, other than the amounts of such money that are to 116609
be credited to the health care/medicaid support and recoveries 116610
fund under section 5162.52 of the Revised Code.116611

       (C) No funds shall be deposited into the health care services 116612
administration fund in violation of federal statutes or 116613
regulations.116614

       (D)(B) In determining under division (B)(A)(3) of this 116615
section the amount of money the department, in a fiscal year, 116616
recovers through audits of medicaid providers, the amount 116617
recovered in the form of vendor offset shall be excluded.116618

       (E)(C) The directordepartment of job and family services116619
medicaid shall use funds available in the health care services 116620
administration fund to pay for costs associated with the 116621
administration of the medicaid program.116622

       Sec. 5111.945.        Sec. 5162.56. There is created in the state treasury 116623
the health care special activities fund. The department of job and 116624
family servicesmedicaid shall deposit all funds it receives 116625
pursuant to the administration of the medicaid program into the 116626
fund, other than any such funds that are required by law to be 116627
deposited into another fund. The department shall use the money in 116628
the fund to pay for expenses related to the services provided 116629
under, and the administration of, the medicaid program.116630

       Sec. 5111.944.        Sec. 5162.58. (A) As used in this section:116631

       "Dual eligible individual" has the same meaning as in section 116632
1915(h)(2)(B) of the "Social Security Act," 124 Stat. 315 (2010), 116633
42 U.S.C. 1396n(h)(2)(B).116634

       "Dual eligible integrated care demonstration project" means 116635
the demonstration project authorized by section 5111.981 of the 116636
Revised Code.116637

       "Medicare program" means the program created under Title 116638
XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 116639
1395, as amended.116640

       (B) There is created in the state treasury the integrated 116641
care delivery systems fund. If the terms of the federal approval 116642
for the dual eligible integrated care demonstration project 116643
authorized by section 5164.91 of the Revised Code provide for the 116644
state to receive a portion of the amounts that the demonstration 116645
project saves the medicare program, such amounts shall be 116646
deposited into the fund. The department of job and family services116647
medicaid shall use the money in the fund to further develop 116648
integrated delivery systems and improved care coordination for 116649
dual eligible individuals.116650

       Sec. 5162.60.  (A) There is hereby created in the state 116651
treasury the managed care performance payment fund. The fund shall 116652
consist of all of the following:116653

       (1) Amounts transferred to it by the director of budget and 116654
management for the purpose of the managed care performance payment 116655
program established under section 5167.30 of the Revised Code;116656

       (2) All fines imposed on and collected from medicaid managed 116657
care organizations for failure to meet performance standards or 116658
other requirements specified in provider agreements or rules 116659
adopted under section 5167.02 of the Revised Code;116660

       (3) All investment earnings of the fund.116661

       (B) Amounts in the fund may be used for the following:116662

        (1) To make performance payments to medicaid managed care 116663
organizations in accordance with section 5167.30 of the Revised 116664
Code;116665

       (2) To meet obligations specified in the provider agreements;116666

       (3) To pay for medicaid services provided by a medicaid 116667
managed care organization;116668

       (4) To reimburse a medicaid managed care organization that 116669
has paid a fine for failure to meet performance standards or other 116670
requirements specified in provider agreements or rules adopted 116671
under section 5167.02 of the Revised Code if that organization 116672
comes into compliance with those standards or requirements.116673

       Sec. 5162.62.  There is hereby created in the state treasury 116674
the medicaid administrative reimbursement fund. The department of 116675
medicaid shall use money in the fund to pay for the nonfederal 116676
share of the cost of a fiscal audit for which a state agency or 116677
political subdivision is required by section 5162.35 of the 116678
Revised Code to reimburse the department. The department shall 116679
deposit the reimbursements into the fund.116680

       Sec. 5111.714.        Sec. 5162.64.  (A) There is hereby created in the 116681
state treasury the medicaid school program administrative fund. 116682

       (B) Both of the following shall be deposited into the 116683
medicaid school program administrative fund:116684

       (1) The federal funds the department of education receives 116685
for the expenses the department incurs in administering the 116686
medicaid school component of the medicaid program created under 116687
section 5162.36 of the Revised Code;116688

       (2) The money the department collects from qualified medicaid 116689
school providers in the process established in rules adopted under116690
authorized by section 5111.7135162.363 of the Revised Code.116691

       (C) No funds shall be deposited into the medicaid school 116692
program administrative fund in violation of federal statutes or 116693
regulations.116694

       (D) The department of education shall use money in the 116695
medicaid school program administrative fund for both of the 116696
following purposes:116697

       (1) Paying for the expenses the department incurs in 116698
administering the medicaid school component of the medicaid 116699
program;116700

       (2) Paying a qualified medicaid school provider a refund for 116701
any overpayment the provider makes to the department under the 116702
process established in rules adopted underauthorized by section 116703
5111.7135162.363 of the Revised Code if the process results in an 116704
overpayment.116705

       Sec. 5111.62.        Sec. 5162.66. TheAs used in this section, 116706
"deficiency" has the same meaning as in section 5165.60 of the 116707
Revised Code.116708

       The proceeds of all fines, including interest, collected 116709
under sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised 116710
Code shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the 116711
residents protection fund, which is hereby created. The proceeds 116712
of all fines, including interest, collected under section 173.42 116713
of the Revised Code shall be deposited in the state treasury to 116714
the credit of the residents protection fund.116715

        Money in the fund shall be used for the protection of the 116716
health or property of residents of nursing facilities in which the 116717
department of health finds deficiencies, including payment for the 116718
costs of relocation of residents to other facilities, maintenance 116719
of operation of a facility pending correction of deficiencies or 116720
closure, and reimbursement of residents for the loss of money 116721
managed by the facility under section 3721.15 of the Revised Code. 116722
Money in the fund may also be used to make payments under section 116723
5111.5115165.78 of the Revised Code.116724

       The fund shall be maintained and administered by the 116725
department of job and family servicesmedicaid under rules 116726
developed in consultation with the departments of health and aging 116727
and adopted by the director of job and family services under 116728
Chapter 119.section 5162.02 of the Revised Code. The rules shall 116729
be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.116730

       Sec. 5163.01. As used in this chapter:116731

       "Federal financial participation" has the same meaning as in 116732
section 5160.01 of the Revised Code.116733

       "Federal poverty line" has the same meaning as in section 116734
5162.01 of the Revised Code.116735

       "Healthy start component" has the same meaning as in section 116736
5162.01 of the Revised Code.116737

       "Home and community-based services medicaid waiver component" 116738
has the same meaning as in section 5166.01 of the Revised Code.116739

       "Intermediate care facility for individuals with intellectual 116740
disabilities" and "ICF/IID" have the same meanings as in section 116741
5124.01 of the Revised Code.116742

       "Mandatory eligibility groups" means the groups of 116743
individuals that must be covered by the medicaid state plan as a 116744
condition of the state receiving federal financial participation 116745
for the medicaid program.116746

       "Medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities program" means 116747
the component of the medicaid program established under sections 116748
5163.09 to 5163.0910 of the Revised Code.116749

       "Medicaid services" has the same meaning as in section 116750
5164.01 of the Revised Code.116751

       "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 116752
section 5166.01 of the Revised Code.116753

       "Nursing facility" and "nursing facility services" have the 116754
same meanings as in section 5165.01 of the Revised Code.116755

       "Optional eligibility groups" means the groups of individuals 116756
who may be covered by the medicaid state plan or a federal 116757
medicaid waiver and for whom the medicaid program receives federal 116758
financial participation.116759

       "Other medicaid-funded long-term care services" has the 116760
meaning specified in rules adopted under section 5163.02 of the 116761
Revised Code.116762

       "Supplemental security income program" means the program 116763
established by Title XVI of the "Social Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 116764
1381 et seq.116765

       Sec. 5111.011.        Sec. 5163.02. (A) The medicaid director of job and 116766
family services shall adopt rules establishingas necessary to 116767
implement this chapter. The rules shall establish eligibility 116768
requirements for the medicaid program. The rules may establish 116769
requirements for applying for medicaid and determining and 116770
verifying eligibility for medicaid. The rules shall be adopted 116771
pursuant toin accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code 116772
and shall be consistent with federal and state law. The rules 116773
shall include rules that do all of the following:116774

       (1) Establish standards consistent with federal law for 116775
allocating income and resources as income and resources of the 116776
spouse, children, parents, or stepparents of a recipient of or 116777
applicant for medicaid;116778

       (2) Define the term "resources" as used in division (A)(1) of 116779
this section;116780

       (3) Specify the number of months that is to be used for the 116781
purpose of the term "look-back date" used in section 5111.0116 of 116782
the Revised Code;116783

       (4) Establish processes to be used to determine both of the 116784
following:116785

       (a) The date an institutionalized individual's ineligibility 116786
for services under section 5111.0116 of the Revised Code is to 116787
begin;116788

       (b) The number of months an institutionalized individual's 116789
ineligibility for such services is to continue.116790

       (5) For the purpose of division (C) of section 5111.0116 of 116791
the Revised Code, establish procedures for granting waivers of all 116792
or a portion of the period of ineligibility that an 116793
institutionalized individual would otherwise be subject to under 116794
that section and additional reasons for which such waivers may be 116795
granted;116796

       (6) Define the term "other medicaid-funded long-term care 116797
services" as used in sections 5111.0117 and 5111.0118 of the 116798
Revised Code;116799

       (7) For the purpose of division (C)(2)(c) of section 116800
5111.0117 of the Revised Code, establish the process to determine 116801
whether the child of an aged, blind, or disabled individual is 116802
financially dependent on the individual for housing.116803

       (B) Notwithstanding any provision of state law, including 116804
statutes, administrative rules, common law, and court rules, 116805
regarding real or personal property or domestic relations, the 116806
standards established under rules adopted under division (A)(1) of116807
this section shall be used to determine eligibility for medicaid.116808

       Sec. 5163.03.  (A) Subject to sections 5163.04 and 5163.05 of 116809
the Revised Code, the medicaid program shall cover all mandatory 116810
eligibility groups.116811

       (B) The medicaid program shall cover all of the optional 116812
eligibility groups that state statutes require the medicaid 116813
program to cover.116814

       (C) The medicaid program may cover any of the optional 116815
eligibility groups to which either of the following applies:116816

       (1) State statutes expressly permit the medicaid program to 116817
cover the optional eligibility group.116818

       (2) State statutes do not address whether the medicaid 116819
program may cover the optional eligibility group.116820

       (D) The medicaid program shall not cover any eligibility 116821
group that state statutes prohibit the medicaid program from 116822
covering.116823

       Sec. 5163.04.  The medicaid program shall not cover the group 116824
described in the "Social Security Act," section 116825
1902(a)(10)(A)(i)(VIII), 42 U.S.C. 1396a(a)(10)(A)(i)(VIII).116826

       This section does not affect the medicaid eligibility of any 116827
individual who begins to participate in the metrohealth care plus 116828
medicaid waiver component on or after February 5, 2013.116829

       Sec. 5163.05.  The medicaid program's eligibility 116830
requirements for aged, blind, and disabled individuals may be more 116831
restrictive than the eligibility requirements for the supplemental 116832
security income program. Any such more restrictive eligibility 116833
requirements shall be consistent with the 209(b) option described 116834
in the "Social Security Act," section 1902(f), 42 U.S.C. 1396a(f).116835

       Sec. 5163.06.  Beginning January 1, 2014, the medicaid 116836
director may alter the eligibility requirements for, and terminate 116837
the medicaid program's coverage of, one or more optional 116838
eligibility groups or subgroups, including the following:116839

       (A) Children placed with adoptive parents who may be covered 116840
by medicaid pursuant to the "Social Security Act," section 116841
1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(VIII), 42 U.S.C. 1396a(a)(10)(A)(ii)(VIII);116842

       (B) Low income women and children who may be covered by 116843
medicaid pursuant to the "Social Security Act," section 116844
1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(IX), 42 U.S.C. 1396a(a)(10)(A)(ii)(IX);116845

       (C) Independent foster care adolescents who may be covered by 116846
medicaid pursuant to the "Social Security Act," section 116847
1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(XVII), 42 U.S.C. 1396a(a)(10)(A)(ii)(XVII);116848

       (D) Women in need of treatment for breast or cervical cancer 116849
who may be covered by medicaid pursuant to the "Social Security 116850
Act," section 1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(XVIII), 42 U.S.C. 116851
1396a(a)(10)(A)(ii)(XVIII);116852

        (E) Low income, nonpregnant individuals who may receive 116853
family planning services and supplies under medicaid pursuant to 116854
the "Social Security Act," section 1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(XXI), 42 116855
U.S.C. 1396a(a)(10)(A)(ii)(XXI);116856

        (F) Pregnant women who may be determined presumptively 116857
eligible for medicaid pursuant to the "Social Security Act," 116858
section 1920, 42 U.S.C. 1396r-1;116859

       (G) Children who may be determined presumptively eligible for 116860
medicaid pursuant to the "Social Security Act," section 1920A, 42 116861
U.S.C. 1396r-1a;116862

        (H) Low income parents who may be covered by medicaid 116863
pursuant to the "Social Security Act," section 1931, 42 U.S.C. 116864
1396u-1.116865

       Sec. 5163.061.  If the medicaid director alters the 116866
eligibility requirements for, or terminates the medicaid program's 116867
coverage of, an optional eligibility group or subgroup pursuant to 116868
section 5163.06 of the Revised Code, all of the following apply:116869

       (A) In the case of an optional eligibility group or subgroup 116870
for which the eligibility requirements are altered:116871

       (1) No individual enrolled, before the effective date of the 116872
altered eligibility requirements, in medicaid as part of the group 116873
or subgroup shall remain enrolled in medicaid on and after that 116874
effective date unless the individual meets the altered eligibility 116875
requirements for the group or subgroup or meets the eligibility 116876
requirements for another eligibility group or subgroup.116877

       (2) Beginning on the effective date of the altered 116878
eligibility requirements, no individual may enroll in medicaid as 116879
part of the group or subgroup unless the individual meets the 116880
altered eligibility requirements for the group or subgroup or 116881
meets the eligibility requirements for another eligibility group 116882
or subgroup.116883

       (B) In the case of an optional eligibility group or subgroup 116884
whose medicaid coverage is terminated:116885

       (1) No individual enrolled, before the effective date of the 116886
termination, in medicaid as part of the group or subgroup shall 116887
remain enrolled in medicaid on and after that effective date 116888
unless the individual meets the eligibility requirements for 116889
another eligibility group or subgroup.116890

       (2) Beginning on the effective date of the termination, no 116891
individual may enroll in medicaid as part of the group or subgroup 116892
but may enroll in medicaid as part of another group or subgroup 116893
for which the individual meets the eligibility requirements.116894

       (C) The department of medicaid shall take actions as the 116895
department determines necessary, including requiring actions from 116896
county departments of job and family services, to do both of the 116897
following:116898

       (1) Inform medicaid recipients about the altered eligibility 116899
requirements or termination of the medicaid program's coverage of 116900
the group or subgroup;116901

       (2) In the case of medicaid recipients who will cease to be 116902
eligible for medicaid as part of the group or subgroup because of 116903
the altered eligibility requirements or termination of the group's 116904
or subgroup's coverage, offer to assist the recipients with the 116905
following:116906

       (a) To continue to be enrolled in medicaid as part of another 116907
eligibility group or subgroup for which they meet the eligibility 116908
requirements;116909

       (b) Transition to other health coverage options available to 116910
them.116911

       (D) Regarding appeals authorized by section 5160.31 of the 116912
Revised Code:116913

       (1) No individual may appeal a denial of medicaid eligibility 116914
as part of a group or subgroup whose medicaid coverage is 116915
terminated if the denial is for medicaid eligibility that would 116916
begin or continue on or after the effective date of the 116917
termination.116918

       (2) An individual may initiate or continue, on or after the 116919
effective date of the termination, an appeal concerning the 116920
individual's eligibility for medicaid as part of the group or 116921
subgroup if the decision being appealed concerns the individual's 116922
eligibility for medicaid as part of the group or subgroup before 116923
the effective date of the termination.116924

       (3) An appeal initiated or continued pursuant to division 116925
(D)(2) of this section may not result in the appellant being 116926
enrolled, or continuing to be enrolled, in medicaid as part of the 116927
group or subgroup on or after the effective date of the 116928
termination.116929

       (E) The altered eligibility requirements or termination of 116930
the medicaid program's coverage of the group or subgroup has no 116931
effect on either of the following:116932

       (1) An automatic right of recovery given under section 116933
5160.37 of the Revised Code;116934

       (2) An automatic assignment of rights under section 5160.38 116935
of the Revised Code.116936

       (F) All rules, standards, guidelines, or orders regarding the 116937
group or subgroup issued by the medicaid director before the 116938
effective date of the altered eligibility requirements or 116939
termination of the medicaid program's coverage of the group or 116940
subgroup shall be used for the purpose of determining the state's 116941
legal obligations for claims related to the group or subgroup that 116942
arise from any of the following:116943

       (1) Eligibility determinations regarding enrollment in 116944
medicaid before that effective date;116945

       (2) Claims for payment for medicaid services provided before 116946
that effective date;116947

       (3) Recoveries of erroneous medicaid payments.116948

       Sec. 5163.08.  The medicaid director shall implement the 116949
option authorized by the "Social Security Act," section 116950
1925(a)(5), 42 U.S.C. 1396r-6(a)(5), regarding the single 116951
twelve-month eligibility period for transitional medicaid.116952

       Sec. 5111.70.        Sec. 5163.09.  (A) As used in sections 5111.70116953
5163.09 to 5111.70115163.0910 of the Revised Code:116954

       "Applicant" means an individual who applies to participate in 116955
the medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities program.116956

       "Earned income" has the meaning established by rules adopted 116957
underauthorized by section 5111.7085163.098 of the Revised Code.116958

       "Employed individual with a medically improved disability" 116959
has the same meaning as in the "Social Security Act," section 116960
1905(v), 42 U.S.C. 1396d(v).116961

       "Family" means an applicant or participant and the spouse and 116962
dependent children of the applicant or participant. If an 116963
applicant or participant is under eighteen years of age, "family" 116964
also means the parents of the applicant or participant.116965

       "Federal poverty guidelines" has the same meaning as in 116966
section 5101.46 of the Revised Code.116967

       "Health insurance" has the meaning established by rules 116968
adopted underauthorized by section 5111.7085163.098 of the 116969
Revised Code.116970

       "Income" means earned income and unearned income.116971

       "Participant" means an individual who has been determined 116972
eligible for the medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities 116973
program and is participating in the program.116974

       "Resources" has the meaning established by rules adopted 116975
underauthorized by section 5111.7085163.098 of the Revised Code.116976

       "Spouse" has the meaning established in rules adopted under116977
authorized by section 5111.7085163.098 of the Revised Code.116978

       "Supplemental security income program" means the program 116979
established under Title XVI of the "Social Security Act," 86 Stat. 116980
1329 (1972), 42 U.S.C. 1381, as amended.116981

       "Medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities program" means 116982
the component of the medicaid program established under sections 116983
5111.70 to 5111.7011 of the Revised Code.116984

       "Unearned income" has the meaning established by rules 116985
adopted underauthorized by section 5111.7085163.098 of the 116986
Revised Code.116987

       (B) Not later than one hundred eighty days after the 116988
effective date of this section, the director of job and family 116989
services shall submit to the United States secretary of health and 116990
human services an amendment to the state medicaid plan and any 116991
federal waiver necessary to establish the medicaid buy-in for 116992
workers with disabilities program in accordance withThe medicaid 116993
program shall cover the optional eligibility groups specified in 116994
the "Social Security Act," section 1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(XV) and 116995
(XVI), 42 U.S.C. 1396a(a) (10)(A)(ii)(XV) and (XVI) andin 116996
accordance with sections 5111.705163.09 to 5111.70115163.0910116997
of the Revised Code. The director shall implement sections 116998
5111.701 to 5111.7011 of the Revised Code if the amendment and, if 116999
needed, federal waiver are approved.The medicaid program's 117000
coverage of these optional eligibility groups shall be known as 117001
the medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities program.117002

       Sec. 5111.701.        Sec. 5163.091.  Under the medicaid buy-in for 117003
workers with disabilities program, an individual who does all of 117004
the following in accordance with rules adopted underauthorized by117005
section 5111.7085163.098 of the Revised Code qualifies for 117006
medical assistance under the medicaid program:117007

       (A) Applies for the medicaid buy-in for workers with 117008
disabilities program;117009

       (B) Provides satisfactory evidence of all of the following:117010

       (1) That the individual is at least sixteen years of age and 117011
under sixty-five years of age;117012

       (2) Except as provided in section 5111.7065163.096 of the 117013
Revised Code, that one of the following applies to the individual:117014

       (a) The individual is considered disabled for the purpose of 117015
the supplemental security income program, regardless of whether 117016
the individual receives supplemental security income benefits, and 117017
the individual has earnings from employment.117018

       (b) The individual is an employed individual with a medically 117019
improved disability.117020

       (3) That the value of the individual's resources, less 117021
amounts disregarded pursuant to rules adopted underauthorized by117022
section 5111.7085163.098 of the Revised Code, does not exceed the 117023
amount provided for by section 5111.7025163.092 of the Revised 117024
Code;117025

       (4) That the individual's income, less amounts disregarded 117026
pursuant to section 5111.7035163.093 of the Revised Code, does 117027
not exceed two hundred fifty per cent of the federal poverty 117028
guidelinesline;117029

       (5) That the individual meets the additional eligibility 117030
requirements for the medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities 117031
program that the director of job and family services establishes117032
established in rules adopted underauthorized by section 5111.708117033
5163.098 of the Revised Code.117034

       (C) To the extent required by section 5111.7045163.094 of 117035
the Revised Code, pays the premium established under that section.117036

       Sec. 5111.702.        Sec. 5163.092.  (A) Except as provided in division 117037
(B) of this section, the maximum value of resources, less amounts 117038
disregarded pursuant to rules adopted underauthorized by section 117039
5111.7085163.098 of the Revised Code, that an individual may have 117040
without the individual exceeding the resource eligibility limit 117041
for the medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities program 117042
shall not exceed ten thousand dollars.117043

       (B) Each calendar year, the medicaid director of job and 117044
family services shall adjust the resource eligibility limit 117045
specified in division (A) of this section by the change in the 117046
consumer price index for all items for all urban consumers for the 117047
previous calendar year, as published by the United States bureau 117048
of labor statistics. The annual adjustment shall go into effect on 117049
the earliest date possible.117050

       Sec. 5111.703.        Sec. 5163.093.  For the purpose of determining 117051
whether an individual is within the income eligibility limit for 117052
the medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities program, all of 117053
the following apply:117054

       (A) Twenty thousand dollars of the individual's earned income 117055
shall be disregarded.117056

       (B) No amount that the individual's employer pays to obtain 117057
health insurance for one or more members of the individual's 117058
family, including any amount of a premium established under 117059
section 5111.7045163.094 of the Revised Code that the employer 117060
pays, shall be treated as the individual's income.117061

       (C) Any other amounts, if any, specified in rules adopted 117062
underauthorized by section 5111.7085163.098 of the Revised Code 117063
shall be disregarded from the individual's earned income, unearned 117064
income, or both.117065

       Sec. 5111.704.        Sec. 5163.094. An individual whose income exceeds 117066
one hundred fifty per cent of the federal poverty guidelinesline117067
shall pay an annual premium as a condition of qualifying for the 117068
medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities program. The amount 117069
of the premium shall be determined as follows:117070

       (A) Subtract one hundred fifty per cent of the federal 117071
poverty guidelinesline, as applicable for a family size equal to 117072
the size of the individual's family, from the amount of the income 117073
of the individual's family;117074

       (B) Subtract an amount specified in rules adopted under117075
authorized by section 5111.7085163.098 of the Revised Code from 117076
the difference determined under division (A) of this section;117077

       (C) Multiply the difference determined under division (B) of 117078
this section by one tenth.117079

       Sec. 5111.705.        Sec. 5163.095. No individual shall be denied 117080
eligibility for the medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities 117081
program on the basis that the individual receives services under a 117082
home and community-based services medicaid waiver component as 117083
defined in section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.117084

       Sec. 5111.706.        Sec. 5163.096. An individual participating in the 117085
medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities program may continue 117086
to participate in the program for up to six months even though the 117087
individual ceases to have earnings from employment or to be an 117088
employed individual with a medically improved disability due to 117089
ceasing to be employed if the individual continues to meet all 117090
other eligibility requirements for the program.117091

       Sec. 5111.707.        Sec. 5163.097.  If the United States secretary of 117092
health and human services requires that a provision in the 117093
amendment to the state medicaid plan or the federal waiver request 117094
submitted under section 5111.70 of the Revised Codeof the 117095
medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities program be changed 117096
or removed in order for the secretary to approve the amendment or 117097
waiverprogram or to avoid an extended delay in the secretary's 117098
approval, the medicaid director of job and family services shall 117099
make the change or removal. The change or removal may cause the 117100
medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities program to include a 117101
provision that is inconsistent with sections 5111.705163.09 to 117102
5111.7065163.096 of the Revised Code. Such a change or removal 117103
shall be made only to the extent necessary to obtain the United 117104
States secretary's approval or avoid an extended delay in the 117105
secretary's approval and shall be reflected in rules adopted 117106
underauthorized by section 5111.7085163.098 of the Revised Code.117107

       Sec. 5111.708.        Sec. 5163.098. (A) The medicaid director of job and 117108
family services shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119.117109
under section 5163.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to 117110
implement the medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities 117111
program. The rules shall do all of the following:117112

       (1) Specify assets, asset values, and amounts to be 117113
disregarded in determining asset and income eligibility limits for 117114
the program;117115

       (2) Establish meanings for the terms "earned income," "health 117116
insurance," "resources," "spouse," and "unearned income";117117

       (3) Establish additional eligibility requirements for the 117118
program that must be established for the United States secretary 117119
of health and human services to approve the program;117120

       (4) For the purpose of division (B) of section 5111.704117121
5163.094 of the Revised Code, specify an amount to be subtracted 117122
from the difference determined under division (A) of that section.117123

       (B) The director may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 117124
119.under section 5163.02 of the Revised Code to specify amounts 117125
to be disregarded from an individual's earned income, unearned 117126
income, or both under division (C) of section 5111.7035163.093 of 117127
the Revised Code for the purpose of determining whether the 117128
individual is within the income eligibility limit for the medicaid 117129
buy-in for workers with disabilities program.117130

       Sec. 5111.709.        Sec. 5163.099. (A) There is hereby created the 117131
medicaid buy-in advisory council. The council shall consist of all 117132
of the following:117133

       (1) The following voting members:117134

       (a) The executive director of assistive technology of Ohio or 117135
the executive director's designee;117136

       (b) The director of the axis center for public awareness of 117137
people with disabilities or the director's designee;117138

       (c) The executive director of the cerebral palsy association 117139
of Ohio or the executive director's designee;117140

       (d) The chief executive officer of Ohio advocates for mental 117141
health or the chief executive officer's designee;117142

       (e) The state director of the Ohio chapter of AARP or the 117143
state director's designee;117144

       (f) The director of the Ohio developmental disabilities 117145
council created under section 5123.35 of the Revised Code or the 117146
director's designee;117147

       (g) The executive director of the governor's council on 117148
people with disabilities created under section 3303.41 of the 117149
Revised Code or the executive director's designee;117150

       (h) The chairperson of the Ohio Olmstead task force or the 117151
chairperson's designee;117152

       (i) The executive director of the Ohio statewide independent 117153
living council or the executive director's designee;117154

       (j) The president of the Ohio chapter of the national 117155
multiple sclerosis society or the president's designee;117156

       (k) The executive director of the arc of Ohio or the 117157
executive director's designee;117158

       (l) The executive director of the commission on minority 117159
health or the executive director's designee;117160

       (m) The executive director of the brain injury association of 117161
Ohio or the executive director's designee;117162

       (n) The executive officer of any other advocacy organization 117163
who volunteers to serve on the council, or such an executive 117164
officer's designee, if the other voting members, at a meeting 117165
called by the chairperson elected under division (C) of this 117166
section, determine it is appropriate for the advocacy organization 117167
to be represented on the council;117168

       (o) One or more participants who volunteer to serve on the 117169
council and are selected by the other voting members at a meeting 117170
the chairperson calls after the medicaid buy-in for workers with 117171
disabilities program is implemented.117172

       (2) The following non-voting members:117173

       (a) The medicaid director of job and family services or the 117174
director's designee;117175

       (b) The administratorexecutive director of the 117176
rehabilitation services commissionopportunities for Ohioans with 117177
disabilities agency or the administrator'sexecutive director's117178
designee;117179

       (c) The director of alcohol and drug addiction services or 117180
the director's designee;117181

       (d) The director of developmental disabilities or the 117182
director's designee;117183

       (e)(d) The director of mental health and addiction services117184
or the director's designee;117185

       (f)(e) The executive officer of any other government entity, 117186
or the executive officer's designee, if the voting members, at a 117187
meeting called by the chairperson, determine it is appropriate for 117188
the government entity to be represented on the council.117189

       (B) All members of the medicaid buy-in advisory council shall 117190
serve without compensation or reimbursement, except as serving on 117191
the council is considered part of their usual job duties.117192

       (C) The voting members of the medicaid buy-in advisory 117193
council shall elect one of the members of the council to serve as 117194
the council's chairperson for a two-year term. The chairperson may 117195
be re-elected to successive terms.117196

       (D) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 117197
provide the Ohio medicaid buy-in advisory council with 117198
accommodations for the council to hold its meetings and shall 117199
provide the council with other administrative assistance the 117200
council needs to perform its duties.117201

       Sec. 5111.7011.        Sec. 5163.0910.  Not less than once each year, the 117202
medicaid director of job and family services shall submit a 117203
report on the medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities 117204
program to the governor, speaker and minority leader of the house 117205
of representatives, president and minority leader of the senate, 117206
and chairpersons of the house and senate committees to which the 117207
biennial operating budget bill is referred. The report shall 117208
include all of the following information:117209

       (A) The number of individuals who participated in the 117210
medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities program;117211

       (B) The cost of the program;117212

       (C) The amount of revenue generated by premiums that 117213
participants pay under section 5111.7045163.094 of the Revised 117214
Code;117215

       (D) The average amount of earned income of participants' 117216
families;117217

       (E) The average amount of time participants have participated 117218
in the program;117219

       (F) The types of other health insurance participants have 117220
been able to obtain.117221

       Sec. 5111.15.        Sec. 5163.20.  If a medicaid recipient of medical 117222
assistance is the beneficiary of a trust created pursuant to 117223
section 5815.28 of the Revised Code, then, notwithstanding any 117224
contrary provision of this chapter or of a rule adopted pursuant 117225
to this chapterunder section 5163.02 of the Revised Code, 117226
divisions (C) and (D) of that section shall apply in determining 117227
the assets or resources of the recipient, the recipient's estate, 117228
the settlor, or the settlor's estate and to claims arising under 117229
this chapter against the recipient, the recipient's estate, the 117230
settlor, or the settlor's estate.117231

       Sec. 5111.151.        Sec. 5163.21. (A)(1) This section applies only to 117232
either of the following:117233

       (a) Initial eligibility determinations for the medicaid 117234
program made by the department of job and family services pursuant 117235
to section 5101.47 of the Revised Code or by a county department 117236
of job and family services pursuant to section 5111.012 of the 117237
Revised Code;117238

       (b) An appeal from aan initial eligibility determination 117239
described in division (A)(1)(a) of this section pursuant to 117240
section 5101.355160.31 of the Revised Code. 117241

       (2)(a) Except as provided in division (A)(2)(b) of this 117242
section, this section shall not be used by a court to determine 117243
the effect of a trust on an individual's initial eligibility for 117244
the medicaid program. 117245

       (b) The prohibition in division (A)(2)(a) of this section 117246
does not apply to an appeal described in division (A)(1)(b) of 117247
this section.117248

        (B) As used in this section:117249

        (1) "Trust" means any arrangement in which a grantor 117250
transfers real or personal property to a trust with the intention 117251
that it be held, managed, or administered by at least one trustee 117252
for the benefit of the grantor or beneficiaries. "Trust" includes 117253
any legal instrument or device similar to a trust.117254

        (2) "Legal instrument or device similar to a trust" includes, 117255
but is not limited to, escrow accounts, investment accounts, 117256
partnerships, contracts, and other similar arrangements that are 117257
not called trusts under state law but are similar to a trust and 117258
to which all of the following apply:117259

        (a) The property in the trust is held, managed, retained, or 117260
administered by a trustee.117261

        (b) The trustee has an equitable, legal, or fiduciary duty to 117262
hold, manage, retain, or administer the property for the benefit 117263
of the beneficiary.117264

        (c) The trustee holds identifiable property for the 117265
beneficiary.117266

        (3) "Grantor" is a person who creates a trust, including all 117267
of the following:117268

        (a) An individual;117269

        (b) An individual's spouse;117270

        (c) A person, including a court or administrative body, with 117271
legal authority to act in place of or on behalf of an individual 117272
or an individual's spouse;117273

        (d) A person, including a court or administrative body, that 117274
acts at the direction or on request of an individual or the 117275
individual's spouse.117276

        (4) "Beneficiary" is a person or persons, including a 117277
grantor, who benefits in some way from a trust.117278

        (5) "Trustee" is a person who manages a trust's principal and 117279
income for the benefit of the beneficiaries.117280

        (6) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 1.59 of the 117281
Revised Code and includes an individual, corporation, business 117282
trust, estate, trust, partnership, and association.117283

        (7) "Applicant" is an individual who applies for medicaid or 117284
the individual's spouse.117285

        (8) "Recipient" is an individual who receives medicaid or the 117286
individual's spouse.117287

        (9) "Revocable trust" is a trust that can be revoked by the 117288
grantor or the beneficiary, including all of the following, even 117289
if the terms of the trust state that it is irrevocable:117290

        (a) A trust that provides that the trust can be terminated 117291
only by a court;117292

        (b) A trust that terminates on the happening of an event, but 117293
only if the event occurs at the direction or control of the 117294
grantor, beneficiary, or trustee.117295

        (10) "Irrevocable trust" is a trust that cannot be revoked by 117296
the grantor or terminated by a court and that terminates only on 117297
the occurrence of an event outside of the control or direction of 117298
the beneficiary or grantor.117299

        (11) "Payment" is any disbursal from the principal or income 117300
of the trust, including actual cash, noncash or property 117301
disbursements, or the right to use and occupy real property.117302

        (12) "Payments to or for the benefit of the applicant or 117303
recipient" is a payment to any person resulting in a direct or 117304
indirect benefit to the applicant or recipient.117305

        (13) "Testamentary trust" is a trust that is established by a 117306
will and does not take effect until after the death of the person 117307
who created the trust.117308

        (C)(1) If an applicant or recipient is a beneficiary of a 117309
trust, the applicant or recipient shall submit a complete copy of 117310
the trust instrument to the county department of job and family 117311
services and the department of medicaid. A copy shall be 117312
considered complete if it contains all pages of the trust 117313
instrument and all schedules, attachments, and accounting 117314
statements referenced in or associated with the trust. The copy is 117315
confidential and is not subject to disclosure under section 149.43 117316
of the Revised Code.117317

        (2) On receipt of a copy of a trust instrument or otherwise 117318
determining that an applicant or recipient is a beneficiary of a 117319
trust, the county department of job and family services shall 117320
determine what type of trust it is and shall treat the trust in 117321
accordance with the appropriate provisions of this section and 117322
rules adopted by the department of job and family servicesunder 117323
section 5163.02 of the Revised Code governing trusts. The county 117324
department of job and family services may determine that any of 117325
the following is the case regarding the trust or portion of the 117326
trust:117327

        (a) IsIt is a resource available to the applicant or 117328
recipient;117329

        (b) ContainsIt contains income available to the applicant or 117330
recipient;117331

        (c) Constitutes both items described in divisionsDivisions117332
(C)(1)(2)(a) and (b) of this section are both applicable;117333

        (d) Is neither an item described inNeither division 117334
(C)(1)(2)(a) nor (C)(1)(b) of this section is applicable.117335

       (2)(3) Except as provided in division (F) of this section, a 117336
trust or portion of a trust that is a resource available to the 117337
applicant or recipient or contains income available to the 117338
applicant or recipient shall be counted for purposes of 117339
determining medicaid eligibility.117340

        (D)(1) A trust or legal instrument or device similar to a 117341
trust shall be considered a medicaid qualifying trust if all of 117342
the following apply:117343

       (a) The trust was established on or prior to August 10, 1993.117344

       (b) The trust was not established by a will.117345

       (c) The trust was established by an applicant or recipient.117346

       (d) The applicant or recipient is or may become the 117347
beneficiary of all or part of the trust.117348

       (e) Payment from the trust is determined by one or more 117349
trustees who are permitted to exercise any discretion with respect 117350
to the distribution to the applicant or recipient.117351

       (2) If a trust meets the requirement of division (D)(1) of 117352
this section, the amount of the trust that is considered by the 117353
county department of job and family services to be a resource 117354
available to the applicant or recipient shall be the maximum 117355
amount of payments permitted under the terms of the trust to be 117356
distributed to the applicant or recipient, assuming the full 117357
exercise of discretion by the trustee or trustees. The maximum 117358
amount shall include only amounts that are permitted to be 117359
distributed but are not distributed from either the income or 117360
principal of the trust.117361

       (3) Amounts that are actually distributed from a medicaid 117362
qualifying trust to a beneficiary for any purpose shall be treated 117363
in accordance with rules adopted by the department of job and 117364
family servicesunder section 5163.02 of the Revised Code117365
governing income.117366

       (4) Availability of a medicaid qualifying trust shall be 117367
considered without regard to any of the following:117368

       (a) Whether or not the trust is irrevocable or was 117369
established for purposes other than to enable a grantor to qualify 117370
for medicaid, medical assistance for covered families and 117371
children, or as a qualified medicare beneficiary, specified 117372
low-income medicare beneficiary, qualifying individual-1, or 117373
qualifying individual-2;117374

       (b) Whether or not the trustee actually exercises discretion.117375

       (5) If any real or personal property is transferred to a 117376
medicaid qualifying trust that is not distributable to the 117377
applicant or recipient, the transfer shall be considered an 117378
improper disposition of assets and shall be subject to section 117379
5111.01165163.30 of the Revised Code and rules to implement that 117380
section adopted under section 5111.0115163.02 of the Revised 117381
Code.117382

       (6) The baseline date for the look-back period for 117383
disposition of assets involving a medicaid qualifying trust shall 117384
be the date on which the applicant or recipient is both 117385
institutionalized and first applies for medicaid.117386

       (E)(1) A trust or legal instrument or device similar to a 117387
trust shall be considered a self-settled trust if all of the 117388
following apply:117389

        (a) The trust was established on or after August 11, 1993.117390

        (b) The trust was not established by a will.117391

        (c) The trust was established by an applicant or recipient, 117392
spouse of an applicant or recipient, or a person, including a 117393
court or administrative body, with legal authority to act in place 117394
of or on behalf of an applicant, recipient, or spouse, or acting 117395
at the direction or on request of an applicant, recipient, or 117396
spouse.117397

        (2) A trust that meets the requirements of division (E)(1) of 117398
this section and is a revocable trust shall be treated by the 117399
county department of job and family services as follows:117400

        (a) The corpus of the trust shall be considered a resource 117401
available to the applicant or recipient.117402

        (b) Payments from the trust to or for the benefit of the 117403
applicant or recipient shall be considered unearned income of the 117404
applicant or recipient.117405

        (c) Any other payments from the trust shall be considered an 117406
improper disposition of assets and shall be subject to section 117407
5111.01165163.30 of the Revised Code and rules to implement that 117408
section adopted under section 5111.0115163.02 of the Revised 117409
Code.117410

        (3) A trust that meets the requirements of division (E)(1) of 117411
this section and is an irrevocable trust shall be treated by the 117412
county department of job and family services as follows:117413

        (a) If there are any circumstances under which payment from 117414
the trust could be made to or for the benefit of the applicant or 117415
recipient, including a payment that can be made only in the 117416
future, the portion from which payments could be made shall be 117417
considered a resource available to the applicant or recipient. The 117418
county department of job and family services shall not take into 117419
account when payments can be made.117420

        (b) Any payment that is actually made to or for the benefit 117421
of the applicant or recipient from either the corpus or income 117422
shall be considered unearned income.117423

        (c) If a payment is made to someone other than to the 117424
applicant or recipient and the payment is not for the benefit of 117425
the applicant or recipient, the payment shall be considered an 117426
improper disposition of assets and shall be subject to section 117427
5111.01165163.30 of the Revised Code and rules to implement that 117428
section adopted under section 5111.0115163.02 of the Revised 117429
Code.117430

        (d) The date of the disposition shall be the later of the 117431
date of establishment of the trust or the date of the occurrence 117432
of the event.117433

        (e) When determining the value of the disposed asset under 117434
this provision, the value of the trust shall be its value on the 117435
date payment to the applicant or recipient was foreclosed.117436

        (f) Any income earned or other resources added subsequent to 117437
the foreclosure date shall be added to the total value of the 117438
trust.117439

        (g) Any payments to or for the benefit of the applicant or 117440
recipient after the foreclosure date but prior to the application 117441
date shall be subtracted from the total value. Any other payments 117442
shall not be subtracted from the value.117443

        (h) Any addition of assets after the foreclosure date shall 117444
be considered a separate disposition.117445

        (4) If a trust is funded with assets of another person or 117446
persons in addition to assets of the applicant or recipient, the 117447
applicable provisions of this section and rules adopted by the 117448
department of job and family servicesunder section 5163.02 of the 117449
Revised Code governing trusts shall apply only to the portion of 117450
the trust attributable to the applicant or recipient.117451

        (5) The availability of a self-settled trust shall be 117452
considered without regard to any of the following:117453

        (a) The purpose for which the trust is established;117454

        (b) Whether the trustees have exercised or may exercise 117455
discretion under the trust;117456

        (c) Any restrictions on when or whether distributions may be 117457
made from the trust;117458

        (d) Any restrictions on the use of distributions from the 117459
trust.117460

        (6) The baseline date for the look-back period for 117461
dispositions of assets involving a self-settled trust shall be the 117462
date on which the applicant or recipient is both institutionalized 117463
and first applies for medicaid.117464

        (F) The principal or income from any of the following shall 117465
not be a resource available to the applicant or recipient:117466

        (1)(a) A special needs trust that meets all of the following 117467
requirements:117468

        (i) The trust contains assets of an applicant or recipient 117469
under sixty-five years of age and may contain the assets of other 117470
individuals.117471

        (ii) The applicant or recipient is disabled as defined in 117472
rules adopted by the department of job and family servicesunder 117473
section 5163.02 of the Revised Code.117474

        (iii) The trust is established for the benefit of the 117475
applicant or recipient by a parent, grandparent, legal guardian, 117476
or a court.117477

        (iv) The trust requires that on the death of the applicant or 117478
recipient the state will receive all amounts remaining in the 117479
trust up to an amount equal to the total amount of medicaid paid117480
payments made on behalf of the applicant or recipient.117481

        (b) If a special needs trust meets the requirements of 117482
division (F)(1)(a) of this section and has been established for a 117483
disabled applicant or recipient under sixty-five years of age, the 117484
exemption for the trust granted pursuant to division (F) of this 117485
section shall continue after the disabled applicant or recipient 117486
becomes sixty-five years of age if the applicant or recipient 117487
continues to be disabled as defined in rules adopted by the 117488
department of job and family servicesunder section 5163.02 of the 117489
Revised Code. Except for income earned by the trust, the grantor 117490
shall not add to or otherwise augment the trust after the 117491
applicant or recipient attains sixty-five years of age. An 117492
addition or augmentation of the trust by the applicant or 117493
recipient with the applicant's own assets after the applicant or 117494
recipient attains sixty-five years of age shall be treated as an 117495
improper disposition of assets.117496

        (c) Cash distributions to the applicant or recipient shall be 117497
counted as unearned income. All other distributions from the trust 117498
shall be treated as provided in rules adopted by the department of 117499
job and family servicesunder section 5163.02 of the Revised Code117500
governing in-kind income.117501

        (d) Transfers of assets to a special needs trust shall not be 117502
treated as an improper transfer of resources. An asset held prior 117503
to the transfer to the trust shall be considered as a resource 117504
available to the applicant or recipient, income available to the 117505
applicant or recipient, or both a resource and income available to 117506
the individual.117507

        (2)(a) A qualifying income trust that meets all of the 117508
following requirements:117509

        (i) The trust is composed only of pension, social security, 117510
and other income to the applicant or recipient, including 117511
accumulated interest in the trust.117512

        (ii) The income is received by the individual and the right 117513
to receive the income is not assigned or transferred to the trust.117514

        (iii) The trust requires that on the death of the applicant 117515
or recipient the state will receive all amounts remaining in the 117516
trust up to an amount equal to the total amount of medicaid paid117517
payments made on behalf of the applicant or recipient.117518

        (b) No resources shall be used to establish or augment the 117519
trust.117520

        (c) If an applicant or recipient has irrevocably transferred 117521
or assigned the applicant's or recipient's right to receive income 117522
to the trust, the trust shall not be considered a qualifying 117523
income trust by the county department of job and family services.117524

        (d) Income placed in a qualifying income trust shall not be 117525
counted in determining an applicant's or recipient's eligibility 117526
for medicaid. The recipient of the funds may place any income 117527
directly into a qualifying income trust without those funds 117528
adversely affecting the applicant's or recipient's eligibility for 117529
medicaid. Income generated by the trust that remains in the trust 117530
shall not be considered as income to the applicant or recipient.117531

        (e) All income placed in a qualifying income trust shall be 117532
combined with any income available to the individual that is not 117533
placed in the trust to arrive at a base income figure to be used 117534
for spend down calculations.117535

        (f) The base income figure shall be used for post-eligibility 117536
deductions, including personal needs allowance, monthly income 117537
allowance, family allowance, and medical expenses not subject to 117538
third party payment. Any income remaining shall be used toward 117539
payment of patient liability. Payments made from a qualifying 117540
income trust shall not be combined with the base income figure for 117541
post-eligibility calculations.117542

        (g) The base income figure shall be used when determining the 117543
spend down budget for the applicant or recipient. Any income 117544
remaining after allowable deductions are permitted as provided 117545
under rules adopted by the department of job and family services117546
under section 5163.02 of the Revised Code shall be considered the 117547
applicant's or recipient's spend down liability.117548

        (3)(a) A pooled trust that meets all of the following 117549
requirements:117550

        (i) The trust contains the assets of the applicant or 117551
recipient of any age who is disabled as defined in rules adopted 117552
by the department of job and family servicesunder section 5163.02 117553
of the Revised Code.117554

        (ii) The trust is established and managed by a nonprofit 117555
organization.117556

        (iii) A separate account is maintained for each beneficiary 117557
of the trust but, for purposes of investment and management of 117558
funds, the trust pools the funds in these accounts.117559

        (iv) Accounts in the trust are established by the applicant 117560
or recipient, the applicant's or recipient's parent, grandparent, 117561
or legal guardian, or a court solely for the benefit of 117562
individuals who are disabled.117563

        (v) The trust requires that, to the extent that any amounts 117564
remaining in the beneficiary's account on the death of the 117565
beneficiary are not retained by the trust, the trust pay to the 117566
state the amounts remaining in the trust up to an amount equal to 117567
the total amount of medicaid paidpayments made on behalf of the 117568
beneficiary.117569

        (b) Cash distributions to the applicant or recipient shall be 117570
counted as unearned income. All other distributions from the trust 117571
shall be treated as provided in rules adopted by the department of 117572
job and family servicesunder section 5163.02 of the Revised Code117573
governing in-kind income.117574

        (c) Transfers of assets to a pooled trust shall not be 117575
treated as an improper disposition of assets. An asset held prior 117576
to the transfer to the trust shall be considered as a resource 117577
available to the applicant or recipient, income available to the 117578
applicant or recipient, or both a resource and income available to 117579
the applicant or recipient.117580

        (4) A supplemental services trust that meets the requirements 117581
of section 5815.28 of the Revised Code and to which all of the 117582
following apply:117583

        (a) A person may establish a supplemental services trust 117584
pursuant to section 5815.28 of the Revised Code only for another 117585
person who is eligible to receive services through one of the 117586
following agencies:117587

        (i) The department of developmental disabilities;117588

        (ii) A county board of developmental disabilities;117589

        (iii) The department of mental healthmental health and 117590
addiction services;117591

        (iv) A board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 117592
services.117593

        (b) A county department of job and family services shall not 117594
determine eligibility for another agency's program. An applicant 117595
or recipient shall do one of the following:117596

        (i) Provide documentation from one of the agencies listed in 117597
division (F)(4)(a) of this section that establishes that the 117598
applicant or recipient was determined to be eligible for services 117599
from the agency at the time of the creation of the trust;117600

        (ii) Provide an order from a court of competent jurisdiction 117601
that states that the applicant or recipient was eligible for 117602
services from one of the agencies listed in division (F)(4)(a) of 117603
this section at the time of the creation of the trust.117604

        (c) At the time the trust is created, the trust principal 117605
does not exceed the maximum amount permitted. The maximum amount 117606
permitted in calendar year 2006 is two hundred twenty-two thousand 117607
dollars. Each year thereafter, the maximum amount permitted is the 117608
prior year's amount plus two thousand dollars.117609

        (d) A county department of job and family services shall 117610
review the trust to determine whether it complies with the 117611
provisions of section 5815.28 of the Revised Code.117612

        (e) Payments from supplemental services trusts shall be 117613
exempt as long as the payments are for supplemental services as 117614
defined in rules adopted by the department of job and family 117615
servicesunder section 5163.02 of the Revised Code. All 117616
supplemental services shall be purchased by the trustee and shall 117617
not be purchased through direct cash payments to the beneficiary.117618

        (f) If a trust is represented as a supplemental services 117619
trust and a county department of job and family services 117620
determines that the trust does not meet the requirements provided 117621
in division (F)(4) of this section and section 5815.28 of the 117622
Revised Code, the county department of job and family services 117623
shall not consider it an exempt trust.117624

        (G)(1) A trust or legal instrument or device similar to a 117625
trust shall be considered a trust established by an individual for 117626
the benefit of the applicant or recipient if all of the following 117627
apply:117628

        (a) The trust is created by a person other than the applicant 117629
or recipient.117630

        (b) The trust names the applicant or recipient as a 117631
beneficiary.117632

        (c) The trust is funded with assets or property in which the 117633
applicant or recipient has never held an ownership interest prior 117634
to the establishment of the trust.117635

        (2) Any portion of a trust that meets the requirements of 117636
division (G)(1) of this section shall be a resource available to 117637
the applicant or recipient only if the trust permits the trustee 117638
to expend principal, corpus, or assets of the trust for the 117639
applicant's or recipient's medical care, care, comfort, 117640
maintenance, health, welfare, general well being, or any 117641
combination of these purposes.117642

        (3) A trust that meets the requirements of division (G)(1) of 117643
this section shall be considered a resource available to the 117644
applicant or recipient even if the trust contains any of the 117645
following types of provisions:117646

        (a) A provision that prohibits the trustee from making 117647
payments that would supplant or replace medicaid or other public 117648
assistance;117649

        (b) A provision that prohibits the trustee from making 117650
payments that would impact or have an effect on the applicant's or 117651
recipient's right, ability, or opportunity to receive medicaid or 117652
other public assistance;117653

        (c) A provision that attempts to prevent the trust or its 117654
corpus or principal from being a resource available to the 117655
applicant or recipient.117656

        (4) A trust that meets the requirements of division (G)(1) of 117657
this section shall not be counted as a resource available to the 117658
applicant or recipient if at least one of the following 117659
circumstances applies:117660

        (a) If a trust contains a clear statement requiring the 117661
trustee to preserve a portion of the trust for another beneficiary 117662
or remainderman, that portion of the trust shall not be counted as 117663
a resource available to the applicant or recipient. Terms of a 117664
trust that grant discretion to preserve a portion of the trust 117665
shall not qualify as a clear statement requiring the trustee to 117666
preserve a portion of the trust.117667

        (b) If a trust contains a clear statement requiring the 117668
trustee to use a portion of the trust for a purpose other than 117669
medical care, care, comfort, maintenance, welfare, or general well 117670
being of the applicant or recipient, that portion of the trust 117671
shall not be counted as a resource available to the applicant or 117672
recipient. Terms of a trust that grant discretion to limit the use 117673
of a portion of the trust shall not qualify as a clear statement 117674
requiring the trustee to use a portion of the trust for a 117675
particular purpose.117676

        (c) If a trust contains a clear statement limiting the 117677
trustee to making fixed periodic payments, the trust shall not be 117678
counted as a resource available to the applicant or recipient and 117679
payments shall be treated in accordance with rules adopted by the 117680
department of job and family servicesunder section 5163.02 of the 117681
Revised Code governing income. Terms of a trust that grant 117682
discretion to limit payments shall not qualify as a clear 117683
statement requiring the trustee to make fixed periodic payments.117684

        (d) If a trust contains a clear statement that requires the 117685
trustee to terminate the trust if it is counted as a resource 117686
available to the applicant or recipient, the trust shall not be 117687
counted as such. Terms of a trust that grant discretion to 117688
terminate the trust do not qualify as a clear statement requiring 117689
the trustee to terminate the trust.117690

        (e) If a person obtains a judgment from a court of competent 117691
jurisdiction that expressly prevents the trustee from using part 117692
or all of the trust for the medical care, care, comfort, 117693
maintenance, welfare, or general well being of the applicant or 117694
recipient, the trust or that portion of the trust subject to the 117695
court order shall not be counted as a resource available to the 117696
applicant or recipient.117697

        (f) If a trust is specifically exempt from being counted as a 117698
resource available to the applicant or recipient by a provision of 117699
the Revised Code, rules, or federal law, the trust shall not be 117700
counted as such.117701

        (g) If an applicant or recipient presents a final judgment 117702
from a court demonstrating that the applicant or recipient was 117703
unsuccessful in a civil action against the trustee to compel 117704
payments from the trust, the trust shall not be counted as a 117705
resource available to the applicant or recipient.117706

        (h) If an applicant or recipient presents a final judgment 117707
from a court demonstrating that in a civil action against the 117708
trustee the applicant or recipient was only able to compel limited 117709
or periodic payments, the trust shall not be counted as a resource 117710
available to the applicant or recipient and payments shall be 117711
treated in accordance with rules adopted by the department of job 117712
and family servicesunder section 5163.02 of the Revised Code117713
governing income.117714

        (i) If an applicant or recipient provides written 117715
documentation showing that the cost of a civil action brought to 117716
compel payments from the trust would be cost prohibitive, the 117717
trust shall not be counted as a resource available to the 117718
applicant or recipient.117719

        (5) Any actual payments to the applicant or recipient from a 117720
trust that meet the requirements of division (G)(1) of this 117721
section, including trusts that are not counted as a resource 117722
available to the applicant or recipient, shall be treated as 117723
provided in rules adopted by the department of job and family 117724
servicesunder section 5163.02 of the Revised Code governing 117725
income. Payments to any person other than the applicant or 117726
recipient shall not be considered income to the applicant or 117727
recipient. Payments from the trust to a person other than the 117728
applicant or recipient shall not be considered an improper 117729
disposition of assets.117730

       Sec. 5111.181.        Sec. 5163.22.  (A) The general assembly hereby finds 117731
that the state has an insurable interest in medical assistance117732
medicaid recipients because of the state's statutory right to 117733
recover from the estate of a recipient state funds used to provide 117734
the recipient with medical care andmedicaid services.117735

       (B) As used in this section:117736

       (1) "Beneficiary" means the person or entity designated in a 117737
life insurance policy to receive the proceeds of the policy on the 117738
death of the insured or maturity of the policy.117739

       (2) "Owner" means the person who has the right to designate 117740
the beneficiary of a life insurance policy and to change the 117741
designation.117742

       (C) Notwithstanding section 5111.011 of the Revised Code, the117743
The value of a life insurance policy that would otherwise be 117744
considered a resource in determining eligibility for the medical 117745
assistancemedicaid program shall be excluded from any 117746
determination of a person's eligibility for the medical assistance117747
medicaid program if the owner designates the department of job and 117748
family servicesmedicaid as beneficiary of the policy. The 117749
department may pay premiums to keep the policy in force. Premiums 117750
paid by the department are medical assistancemedicaid payments 117751
correctly paid on behalf of a medical assistancemedicaid117752
recipient and subject to recovery under section 5111.115162.21 of 117753
the Revised Code.117754

       (D) The medicaid director of job and family services shall 117755
deposit the proceeds of a life insurance policy that do not exceed 117756
the amount the department may recover against the property and 117757
estate of the owner under section 5111.115162.21 of the Revised 117758
Code into the general revenue fund. The director shall pay any 117759
remaining proceeds to the person designated by the owner. If the 117760
owner failed to designate a person, the director shall pay the 117761
remaining proceeds to the surviving spouse, or, if there is no 117762
surviving spouse, to the estate of the owner.117763

       (E) If the owner designates the department of job and family 117764
servicesmedicaid as the policy's beneficiary, the department 117765
shall notify the owner that the owner may designate a person to 117766
receive proceeds of the policy that exceed the amount the 117767
department may recover against the owner's property and estate 117768
under section 5111.115162.21 of the Revised Code. The designation 117769
shall be made on a form provided by the department.117770

       (F) The department of job and family services shall not 117771
implement this section if implementation would violate any federal 117772
requirement unless the department receives a waiver of the 117773
requirement from the United States department of health and human 117774
services.117775

       Sec. 5111.0116.        Sec. 5163.30.  (A) As used in this section:117776

       (1) "Assets" include all of an individual's income and 117777
resources and those of the individual's spouse, including any 117778
income or resources the individual or spouse is entitled to but 117779
does not receive because of action by any of the following:117780

       (a) The individual or spouse;117781

       (b) A person or government entity, including a court or 117782
administrative agency, with legal authority to act in place of or 117783
on behalf of the individual or spouse;117784

       (c) A person or government entity, including a court or 117785
administrative agency, acting at the direction or on the request 117786
of the individual or spouse.117787

       (2) "Home and community-based services" means home and 117788
community-based services furnished under a medicaid waiver granted 117789
by the United States secretary of health and human services under 117790
the "Social Security Act," section 1915(c) or (d), 42 U.S.C. 117791
1396n(c) or (d).117792

       (3) "Institutionalized individual" means a resident of a 117793
nursing facility, an inpatient in a medical institution for whom a 117794
payment is made based on a level of care provided in a nursing 117795
facility, or an individual described in the "Social Security Act," 117796
section 1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(VI), 42 U.S.C. 1396a(a)(10)(A)(ii)(VI).117797

       (4) "Look-back date" means the date that is a number of 117798
months specified in rules adopted under section 5111.0115163.02117799
of the Revised Code immediately before either of the following:117800

       (a) The date an individual becomes an institutionalized 117801
individual if the individual is eligible for medicaid on that 117802
date;117803

       (b) The date an individual applies for medicaid while an 117804
institutionalized individual.117805

       (5) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 117806
5111.20 of the Revised Code.117807

       (6) "Nursing facility equivalent services" means services 117808
that are covered by the medicaid program, equivalent to nursing 117809
facility services, provided by an institution that provides the 117810
same level of care as a nursing facility, and provided to an 117811
inpatient of the institution who is a medicaid recipient eligible 117812
for medicaid-covered nursing facility equivalent services.117813

       (7) "Nursing facility services" means nursing facility 117814
services covered by the medicaid program that a nursing facility 117815
provides to a resident of the nursing facility who is a medicaid 117816
recipient eligible for medicaid-covered nursing facility services.117817

       (8)(6) "Undue hardship" means being deprived of either of the 117818
following:117819

       (a) Medical care such that an individual's health or life is 117820
endangered;117821

       (b) Food, clothing, shelter, or other necessities of life.117822

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section and 117823
rules adopted under section 5111.0115163.02 of the Revised Code, 117824
an institutionalized individual is ineligible for nursing facility 117825
services, nursing facility equivalent services, and home and 117826
community-based services if the individual or individual's spouse 117827
disposes of assets for less than fair market value on or after the 117828
look-back date. The institutionalized individual's ineligibility 117829
shall begin on a date determined in accordance with rules adopted 117830
under section 5111.0115163.02 of the Revised Code and shall 117831
continue for a number of months determined in accordance with such 117832
rules.117833

       (C) An institutionalized individual may be granted a waiver 117834
of all or a portion of the period of ineligibility to which the 117835
individual would otherwise be subjected under division (B) of this 117836
section if the ineligibility would cause an undue hardship for the 117837
individual. An institutionalized individual shall be granted a 117838
waiver of all or a portion of the period of ineligibility if the 117839
administrator of the nursing facility in which the individual 117840
resides has notified the individual of a proposed transfer or 117841
discharge under section 3721.16 of the Revised Code due to failure 117842
to pay for the care the nursing facility has provided to the 117843
individual, the individual or the individual's sponsor requests a 117844
hearing on the proposed transfer or discharge in accordance with 117845
section 3721.161 of the Revised Code, and the transfer or 117846
discharge is upheld by a final determination that is not subject 117847
to further appeal. Waivers shall be granted in accordance with 117848
rules adopted under section 5111.0115163.02 of the Revised Code.117849

       (D) To secure compliance with this section, the medicaid117850
director of job and family services may require an individual, as 117851
a condition of initial or continued eligibility for medicaid, to 117852
provide documentation of the individual's assets up to five years 117853
before the date the individual becomes an institutionalized 117854
individual if the individual is eligible for medicaid on that date 117855
or the date the individual applies for medicaid while an 117856
institutionalized individual. Documentation may include tax 117857
returns, records from financial institutions, and real property 117858
records.117859

       Sec. 5111.0117.        Sec. 5163.31.  (A) As used in this section and 117860
section 5111.0118 of the Revised Code:117861

       (1) "ICF/MR services" means intermediate care facility for 117862
the mentally retarded services covered by the medicaid program 117863
that an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded 117864
provides to a resident of the facility who is a medicaid recipient 117865
eligible for medicaid-covered intermediate care facility for the 117866
mentally retarded services.117867

       (2) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 117868
has the same meaning as in section 5111.20 of the Revised Code.117869

       (3) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 117870
5111.20 of the Revised Code.117871

       (4) "Nursing facility services" means nursing facility 117872
services covered by the medicaid program that a nursing facility 117873
provides to a resident of the nursing facility who is a medicaid 117874
recipient eligible for medicaid-covered nursing facility services.117875

       (5) "Other medicaid-funded long-term care services" has the 117876
meaning specified in rules adopted under section 5111.011 of the 117877
Revised Code.117878

       (B) Except as provided by division (C)(A) of this section and 117879
for the purpose of determining whether an aged, blind, or disabled 117880
individual is eligible for nursing facility services, ICF/MR117881
ICF/IID services, or other medicaid-funded long-term care 117882
services, the medicaid director of job and family services may 117883
consider an aged, blind, or disabled individual's real property to 117884
not be the individual's homestead or principal place of residence 117885
once the individual has resided in a nursing facility, 117886
intermediate care facility for the mentally retardedICF/IID, or 117887
other medical institution for at least thirteen months.117888

       (C)(B) Division (B)(A) of this section does not apply to an 117889
individual if any of the following reside in the individual's real 117890
property that, because of this division, continues to be 117891
considered the individual's homestead or principal place of 117892
residence:117893

       (1) The individual's spouse;117894

       (2) The individual's child if any of the following apply:117895

       (a) The child is under twenty-one years of age.117896

       (b) The child is considered blind or disabled under the 117897
"Social Security Act," section 1614, 42 U.S.C. 1382c.117898

       (c) The child is financially dependent on the individual for 117899
housing as determined in accordance with rules adopted under 117900
section 5111.0115163.02 of the Revised Code.117901

       (3) The individual's sibling if the sibling has a verified 117902
equity interest in the real property and resided in the real 117903
property for at least one year immediately before the date the 117904
individual was admitted to the nursing facility, intermediate care 117905
facility for the mentally retardedICF/IID, or other medical 117906
institution.117907

       Sec. 5111.0118.        Sec. 5163.32.  (A) Except as otherwise provided by 117908
this section, no individual shall qualify for nursing facility 117909
services or other medicaid-funded long-term care services if the 117910
individual's equity interest in the individual's home exceeds five 117911
hundred thousand dollars. The medicaid director of job and family 117912
services shall increase this amount effective January 1, 2011, and 117913
the first day of each year thereafter, by the percentage increase 117914
in the consumer price index for all urban consumers (all items; 117915
United States city average), rounded to the nearest one thousand 117916
dollars.117917

       (B) This section does not apply to an individual if either of 117918
the following applies:117919

       (1) Either of the following lawfully reside in the 117920
individual's home:117921

       (a) The individual's spouse;117922

       (b) The individual's child if the child is under twenty-one 117923
years of age or, under the "Social Security Act," section 1614, 42 117924
U.S.C. 1382c, considered blind or disabled.117925

       (2) The individual qualifies, pursuant to the process 117926
established under division (C) of this section, for a waiver of 117927
this section due to a demonstrated hardship.117928

       (C) The director shall establish a process by which 117929
individuals may obtain a waiver of this section due to a 117930
demonstrated hardship. The process shall be consistent with the 117931
process for such waivers established by the United States 117932
secretary of health and human services under the "Social Security 117933
Act," section 1917(f)(4), 42 U.S.C. 1396p(f)(4).117934

       (D) Nothing in this section shall be construed as preventing 117935
an individual from using a reverse mortgage or home equity loan to 117936
reduce the individual's total equity interest in the home.117937

       Sec. 5111.114.        Sec. 5163.33. As used in this section, "nursing 117938
facility" and "intermediate care facility for the mentally 117939
retarded" have the same meanings as in section 5111.20 of the 117940
Revised Code.117941

       (A) In determining the amount of income that a medicaid117942
recipient of medical assistance must apply monthly toward payment 117943
of the cost of care in a nursing facility or intermediate care 117944
facility for the mentally retardedICF/IID, thea county 117945
department of job and family services shall deduct from the 117946
recipient's monthly income a monthly personal needs allowance in 117947
accordance with section 1902 of the "Social Security Act," 49 117948
Stat. 620 (1935)section 1902(q), 42 U.S.C.A. 1396a, as amended117949
1396a(q).117950

       For(B) In the case of a resident of a nursing facility, the 117951
monthly personal needs allowance shall be as follows:117952

       (1) Prior to January 1, 2014, not less than forty dollars for 117953
an individual resident and not less than eighty dollars for a 117954
married couple if both spouses are residents of a nursing facility 117955
and their incomes are considered available to each other in 117956
determining eligibility;117957

       (2) For calendar year 2014, not less than forty-five dollars 117958
for an individual resident and not less than ninety dollars for a 117959
married couple if both spouses are residents of a nursing facility 117960
and their incomes are considered available to each other in 117961
determining eligibility;117962

       (3) For calendar year 2015 and each calendar year thereafter, 117963
not less than fifty dollars for an individual resident and not 117964
less than one hundred dollars for a married couple if both spouses 117965
are residents of a nursing facility and their incomes are 117966
considered available to each other in determining eligibility.117967

       For(C) In the case of a resident of an intermediate care 117968
facility for the mentally retardedICF/IID, the monthly personal 117969
needs allowance shall be forty dollars unless the resident has 117970
earned income, in which case the monthly personal needs allowance 117971
shall be determined by the state department of job and family 117972
servicesmedicaid, or the department's designee, but shall not 117973
exceed one hundred five dollars.117974

       Sec. 5111.013.        Sec. 5163.40.  (A) The provision of medical 117975
assistance to pregnant women and young children who are eligible 117976
for medical assistance under division (C)(3) of section 5111.01 of 117977
the Revised Code, but who are not otherwise eligible for medical 117978
assistance under that section, shall be known as the healthy start 117979
program.117980

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 117981
do all of the following with regard to the application procedures 117982
for the healthy start component of the medicaid program:117983

       (1) Establish a short application form for the program117984
component that requires the applicant to provide no more 117985
information than is necessary for making determinations of 117986
eligibility for the healthy start programcomponent, except that 117987
the form may require applicants to provide their social security 117988
numbers. The form shall include a statement, which must be signed 117989
by the applicant, indicating that she does not choose at the time 117990
of making application for the programcomponent to apply for 117991
assistance provided under any other program administered by the 117992
department or the department of job and family services and that 117993
she understands that she is permitted at any other time to apply 117994
at the county department of job and family services of the county 117995
in which she resides for any other assistance administered by the 117996
department or the department of job and family services.117997

       (2) To the extent permitted by federal law, doDo one or both 117998
of the following:117999

       (a) Distribute the application form for the programcomponent118000
to each public or private entity that serves as a women, infants, 118001
and children clinic or as a child and family health clinic and to 118002
each administrative body for such clinics and train employees of 118003
each such agencyclinic or entityadministrative body to provide 118004
applicants assistance in completing the form;118005

       (b) In cooperation with the department of health, develop 118006
arrangements under which employees of county departments of job 118007
and family services are stationed at public or private agencies or118008
entities selected by the department of job and family services118009
medicaid that serve as women, infants, and children clinics; child 118010
and family health clinics; or administrative bodies for such 118011
clinics for the purpose both of assisting applicants for the 118012
programcomponent in completing the application form and of making 118013
determinations at that location of eligibility for the program118014
component.118015

       (3) Establish performance standards by which a county 118016
department of job and family services' level of enrollment of 118017
persons potentially eligible for the programcomponent can be 118018
measured, and establish acceptable levels of enrollment for each 118019
county department.118020

       (4) Direct any county department of job and family services 118021
whose rate of enrollment of potentially eligible enrollees in the 118022
programcomponent is below acceptable levels established under 118023
division (B)(A)(3) of this section to implement corrective 118024
action. Corrective action may include but is not limited to any 118025
one or more of the following to the extent permitted by federal 118026
law:118027

       (a) Establishing formal referral and outreach methods with 118028
local health departments and local entities receiving funding 118029
through the bureau of maternal and child health;118030

       (b) Designating a specialized intake unit within the county 118031
department for healthy start applicants;118032

       (c) Establishing abbreviated timeliness requirements to 118033
shorten the time between receipt of an application and the 118034
scheduling of an initial application interview;118035

       (d) Establishing a system for telephone scheduling of intake 118036
interviews for applicants;118037

       (e) Establishing procedures to minimize the time an applicant 118038
must spend in completing the application and eligibility 118039
determination process, including permitting applicants to complete 118040
the process at times other than the regular business hours of the 118041
county department and at locations other than the offices of the 118042
county department.118043

       (C) To the extent permitted by federal law, local funds, 118044
whether from public or private sources, expended by a county 118045
department for administration of the healthy start program shall 118046
be considered to have been expended by the state for the purpose 118047
of determining the extent to which the state has complied with any 118048
federal requirement that the state provide funds to match federal 118049
funds for medical assistance, except that this division shall not 118050
affect the amount of funds the county is entitled to receive under 118051
section 5101.16, 5101.161, or 5111.012 of the Revised Code.118052

       (D)(B) A county department of job and family services that 118053
maintains offices at more than one location shall accept 118054
applications for the healthy start programcomponent at all of 118055
those locations.118056

       (E) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 118057
in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code as necessary 118058
to implement this section.118059

       Sec. 5111.0119.        Sec. 5163.45.  (A)(1) As used in this section, 118060
subject to division (A)(2) of this section, "state or local 118061
correctional facility" means any of the following:118062

       (a) A "state correctional institution," as defined in section 118063
2967.01 of the Revised Code;118064

       (b) A "local correctional facility," as defined in section 118065
2903.13 of the Revised Code;118066

       (c) A correctional facility that is privately operated and 118067
managed pursuant to section 9.06 of the Revised Code.118068

       (2) "State or local correctional facility" does not include 118069
any facility operated directly by or at the direction of the 118070
department of youth services.118071

       (B) If a person who is confined in a state or local 118072
correctional facility was a medicaid recipient immediately prior 118073
to being confined in the facility, all of the following apply:118074

       (1) The person's eligibility for medicaid while so confined 118075
shall be suspended due to the confinement.118076

       (2) No medicaid payment shall be made for any care, services, 118077
or supplies provided to the person during the suspension described 118078
in division (B)(1) of this section. 118079

       (3) The suspension described in division (B)(1) of this 118080
section shall end upon the release of the person from the 118081
confinement.118082

       (4) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, the 118083
person shall not be required to reapply or undergo a 118084
redetermination of eligibility for medicaid when the suspension 118085
described in division (B)(1) of this section ends. 118086

       (C) A person may be disenrolled from medicaid any time after 118087
the suspension described in division (B)(1) of this section ends 118088
if the person is no longer eligible for medicaid. A person may be 118089
required to undergo a redetermination of eligibility for medicaid 118090
any time after the suspension described in division (B)(1) of this 118091
section ends if it is time or past time for the person's 118092
eligibility redetermination or the person's circumstances have 118093
changed in a manner warranting a redetermination.118094

       (D) The department of job and family services shall take the 118095
steps necessary to begin implementation of this section not later 118096
than September 1, 2009.118097

       Sec. 5164.01.  As used in this chapter:118098

       (A) "Early and periodic screening, diagnostic, and treatment 118099
services" has the same meaning as in the "Social Security Act," 118100
section 1905(r), 42 U.S.C. 1396d(r).118101

       (B) "Federal financial participation" has the same meaning as 118102
in section 5160.01 of the Revised Code.118103

       (C) "Healthcheck" means the component of the medicaid program 118104
that provides early and periodic screening, diagnostic, and 118105
treatment services.118106

       (D) "Home and community-based services medicaid waiver 118107
component" has the same meaning as in section 5166.01 of the 118108
Revised Code.118109

       (E) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of 118110
the Revised Code. 118111

       (F) "ICDS participant" means a dual eligible individual who 118112
participates in the integrated care delivery system.118113

        (G) "ICF/IID" has the same meaning as in section 5124.01 of 118114
the Revised Code.118115

       (H) "Integrated care delivery system" and "ICDS" mean the 118116
demonstration project authorized by section 5164.91 of the Revised 118117
Code.118118

       (I) "Mandatory services" means the health care services and 118119
items that must be covered by the medicaid state plan as a 118120
condition of the state receiving federal financial participation 118121
for the medicaid program.118122

       (J) "Medicaid managed care organization" has the same meaning 118123
as in section 5167.01 of the Revised Code.118124

       (K) "Medicaid provider" means a person or government entity 118125
with a valid provider agreement to provide medicaid services to 118126
medicaid recipients. To the extent appropriate in the context, 118127
"medicaid provider" includes a person or government entity 118128
applying for a provider agreement, a former medicaid provider, or 118129
both.118130

       (L) "Medicaid services" means either or both of the 118131
following:118132

       (1) Mandatory services;118133

       (2) Optional services that the medicaid program covers.118134

       (M) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 118135
5165.01 of the Revised Code.118136

       (N) "Optional services" means the health care services and 118137
items that may be covered by the medicaid state plan or a federal 118138
medicaid waiver and for which the medicaid program receives 118139
federal financial participation.118140

       (O) "Prescribed drug" has the same meaning as in 42 C.F.R. 118141
440.120.118142

       (P) "Provider agreement" means an agreement to which all of 118143
the following apply:118144

       (1) It is between a medicaid provider and the department of 118145
medicaid;118146

       (2) It provides for the medicaid provider to provide medicaid 118147
services to medicaid recipients;118148

       (3) It complies with 42 C.F.R. 431.107(b).118149

       (Q) "Terminal distributor of dangerous drugs" has the same 118150
meaning as in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code.118151

       Sec. 5111.02.        Sec. 5164.02. (A) The director of job and family 118152
services shall adopt, and may amend or rescind, rules under118153
medicaid director shall adopt rules as necessary to implement this 118154
chapter. The rules shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 118155
119. of the Revised Code establishing the amount, duration, and 118156
scope of medicaid services. The rules shall be consistent with 118157
federal and state law. The rules may be different for different 118158
medicaid services. The118159

       (B) The rules shall establish all of the following:118160

        (A) The conditions under which the medicaid program shall 118161
cover and reimburse medicaid services;118162

        (B) The method of reimbursement applicable to each medicaid 118163
service(1) The amount, duration, and scope of the medicaid 118164
services covered by the medicaid program;118165

       (C)(2) The payment amount of reimbursementfor each medicaid 118166
service or, in lieu of amountsthe payment amount, methodsthe 118167
method by which amounts arethe payment amount is to be determined 118168
for each medicaid service;118169

        (D)(3) Procedures for enforcing the rules adopted under this 118170
section that provide due process protections, including procedures 118171
for corrective action plans for, and imposing financial and 118172
administrative sanctions on, persons and government entities that 118173
violate the rules.118174

       (C) The rules may be different for different medicaid 118175
services.118176

       (D) The medicaid director is not required to adopt a rule 118177
establishing the payment amount for a medicaid service if the 118178
director adopts a rule establishing the method by which the 118179
payment amount is to be determined for the medicaid service and 118180
makes the payment amount available on the internet web site 118181
maintained by the department of medicaid.118182

       Sec. 5164.03.  (A) The medicaid program shall cover all 118183
mandatory services.118184

       (B) The medicaid program shall cover all of the optional 118185
services that state statutes require the medicaid program to 118186
cover.118187

       (C) The medicaid program may cover any of the optional 118188
services to which either of the following applies:118189

       (1) State statutes expressly permit the medicaid program to 118190
cover the optional service;118191

       (2) State statutes do not address whether the medicaid 118192
program may cover the optional service.118193

       (D) The medicaid program shall not cover any optional 118194
services that state statutes prohibit the medicaid program from 118195
covering.118196

       Sec. 5111.04.        Sec. 5164.05.  (A) As used in this section:118197

       (1) "Outpatient health facility" means a facility that 118198
provides comprehensive primary health services by or under the 118199
direction of a physician at least five days per week on a 118200
forty-hour per week basis to outpatients, is operated by the board 118201
of health of a city or general health district or another public 118202
agency or by a nonprofit private agency or organization under the 118203
direction and control of a governing board that has no 118204
health-related responsibilities other than the direction and 118205
control of one or more such outpatient health facilities, and 118206
receives at least seventy-five per cent of its operating funds 118207
from public sources, except that it does not include an outpatient 118208
hospital facility or a federally qualified health center as 118209
defined in Sec. 1905(l) (2)(B) of the "Social Security Act," 103 118210
Stat. 2264 (1989)section 1905(l)(2)(B), 42 U.S.C.A.118211
1396d(l)(2)(B).118212

       (2) "Comprehensive primary health services" means preventive, 118213
diagnostic, therapeutic, rehabilitative, or palliative items or 118214
services that include all of the following:118215

       (a) Services of physicians, physician assistants, and 118216
certified nurse practitioners;118217

       (b) Diagnostic laboratory and radiological services;118218

       (c) Preventive health services, such as children's eye and 118219
ear examinations, perinatal services, well child services, and 118220
family planning services;118221

       (d) Arrangements for emergency medical services;118222

       (e) Transportation services.118223

       (3) "Certified nurse practitioner" has the same meaning as in 118224
section 4723.01 of the Revised Code.118225

       (B) OutpatientSubject to division (C) of this section, the 118226
medicaid program shall cover comprehensive primary health services 118227
provided by outpatient health facilities are a separate category 118228
of medical care provider under the rules governing the 118229
administration of the medical assistance program established under 118230
section 5111.01 of the Revised Codewith valid provider 118231
agreements. Rates of reimbursement for items and services provided 118232
by an outpatient health facility under this section shall be 118233
prospectively determined by theThe department of job and family 118234
servicesmedicaid shall prospectively determine the medicaid 118235
payment rates for such comprehensive primary health services not 118236
less often than once each year,. The rates shall not be subject to 118237
retroactive adjustment based on actual costs incurred, and. The 118238
rates shall not exceed the maximum fee schedule or rates of 118239
payment, limitations based on reasonable costs or customary 118240
charges, and limitations based on combined payments received for 118241
furnishing comparable services, as are applicable to outpatient 118242
hospital facilities under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act118243
medicare program." In determining rates of reimbursementan 118244
outpatient health facility's rate prospectively, the department 118245
shall take into account the historic expenses of the facility, the 118246
operating requirements and services offered by the facility, and 118247
the geographical location of the facility, shall provide 118248
incentives for the efficient and economical utilization of the 118249
facility's resources, and shall ensure that the facility does not 118250
discriminate between classes of persons for whom or by whom 118251
payment for items andthe services is made.118252

       (C) AAn outpatient health facility does not qualify for 118253
classification as an outpatient health facilitymedicaid payments118254
under this section unless it:118255

       (1) Has health and medical care policies developed with the 118256
advice of and subject to review by an advisory committee of 118257
professional personnel, including one or more physicians, one or 118258
more dentists if dental care is provided, and one or more 118259
registered nurses;118260

       (2) Has a medical director, a dental director, if dental care 118261
is provided, and a nursing director responsible for the execution 118262
of such policies, and has physicians, dentists, nursing, and 118263
ancillary staff appropriate to the scope of services provided;118264

       (3) Requires that the care of every patient be under the 118265
supervision of a physician, provides for medical care in case of 118266
emergency, has in effect a written agreement with one or more 118267
hospitals and one or more other outpatient facilities, and has an 118268
established system for the referral of patients to other resources 118269
and a utilization review plan and program;118270

       (4) Maintains clinical records on all patients;118271

       (5) Provides nursing services and other therapeutic services 118272
in compliance with applicable laws and rules and under the 118273
supervision of a registered nurse, and has a registered nurse on 118274
duty at all times when the facility is in operation;118275

       (6) Follows approved methods and procedures for the 118276
dispensing and administration of drugs and biologicals;118277

       (7) Maintains the accounting and record-keeping system 118278
required under federal laws and regulations for the determination 118279
of reasonable and allowable costs.118280

       Sec. 5111.029.        Sec. 5164.06. The medicaid program shall cover 118281
occupational therapy services provided by an occupational 118282
therapist licensed under section 4755.08 of the Revised Code. 118283
Coverage shall not be limited to services provided in a hospital 118284
or nursing facility. Any licensed occupational therapist may enter 118285
into a medicaid provider agreement with the department of job and 118286
family servicesmedicaid to provide occupational therapy services 118287
under the medicaid program.118288

       Sec. 5111.018.        Sec. 5164.07.  (A) The provision of medical 118289
assistance under this chaptermedicaid program shall include 118290
coverage of inpatient care and follow-up care for a mother and her 118291
newborn as follows:118292

       (1) The medical assistance medicaid program shall cover a 118293
minimum of forty-eight hours of inpatient care following a normal 118294
vaginal delivery and a minimum of ninety-six hours of inpatient 118295
care following a cesarean delivery. Services covered as inpatient 118296
care shall include medical, educational, and any other services 118297
that are consistent with the inpatient care recommended in the 118298
protocols and guidelines developed by national organizations that 118299
represent pediatric, obstetric, and nursing professionals.118300

       (2) The medical assistancemedicaid program shall cover a 118301
physician-directed source of follow-up care. Services covered as 118302
follow-up care shall include physical assessment of the mother and 118303
newborn, parent education, assistance and training in breast or 118304
bottle feeding, assessment of the home support system, performance 118305
of any medically necessary and appropriate clinical tests, and any 118306
other services that are consistent with the follow-up care 118307
recommended in the protocols and guidelines developed by national 118308
organizations that represent pediatric, obstetric, and nursing 118309
professionals. The coverage shall apply to services provided in a 118310
medical setting or through home health care visits. The coverage 118311
shall apply to a home health care visit only if the health care 118312
professional who conducts the visit is knowledgeable and 118313
experienced in maternity and newborn care.118314

       When a decision is made in accordance with division (B) of 118315
this section to discharge a mother or newborn prior to the 118316
expiration of the applicable number of hours of inpatient care 118317
required to be covered, the coverage of follow-up care shall apply 118318
to all follow-up care that is provided within forty-eight hours 118319
after discharge. When a mother or newborn receives at least the 118320
number of hours of inpatient care required to be covered, the 118321
coverage of follow-up care shall apply to follow-up care that is 118322
determined to be medically necessary by the health care 118323
professionals responsible for discharging the mother or newborn.118324

       (B) Any decision to shorten the length of inpatient stay to 118325
less than that specified under division (A)(1) of this section 118326
shall be made by the physician attending the mother or newborn, 118327
except that if a nurse-midwife is attending the mother in 118328
collaboration with a physician, the decision may be made by the 118329
nurse-midwife. Decisions regarding early discharge shall be made 118330
only after conferring with the mother or a person responsible for 118331
the mother or newborn. For purposes of this division, a person 118332
responsible for the mother or newborn may include a parent, 118333
guardian, or any other person with authority to make medical 118334
decisions for the mother or newborn.118335

       (C) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid, in 118336
administering the medical assistancemedicaid program, may not do 118337
either of the following:118338

       (1) Terminate the participationprovider agreement of a 118339
health care professional or health care facility as a provider 118340
under the program solely for making recommendations for inpatient 118341
or follow-up care for a particular mother or newborn that are 118342
consistent with the care required to be covered by this section;118343

       (2) Establish or offer monetary or other financial incentives 118344
for the purpose of encouraging a person to decline the inpatient 118345
or follow-up care required to be covered by this section.118346

       (D) This section does not do any of the following:118347

       (1) Require the medical assistancemedicaid program to cover 118348
inpatient or follow-up care that is not received in accordance 118349
with the program's terms pertaining to the health care 118350
professionals and facilities from which an individuala medicaid 118351
recipient is authorized to receive health care services.118352

       (2) Require a mother or newborn to stay in a hospital or 118353
other inpatient setting for a fixed period of time following 118354
delivery;118355

       (3) Require a child to be delivered in a hospital or other 118356
inpatient setting;118357

       (4) Authorize a nurse-midwife to practice beyond the 118358
authority to practice nurse-midwifery in accordance with Chapter 118359
4723. of the Revised Code;118360

       (5) Establish minimum standards of medical diagnosis, care, 118361
or treatment for inpatient or follow-up care for a mother or 118362
newborn. A deviation from the care required to be covered under 118363
this section shall not, on the basis of this section, give rise to 118364
a medical claim or derivative medical claim, as those terms are 118365
defined in section 2305.113 of the Revised Code.118366

       Sec. 5111.024.        Sec. 5164.08.  (A) As used in this section, 118367
"screening mammography" means a radiologic examination utilized to 118368
detect unsuspected breast cancer at an early stage in asymptomatic 118369
women and includes the x-ray examination of the breast using 118370
equipment that is dedicated specifically for mammography, 118371
including the x-ray tube, filter, compression device, screens, 118372
film, and cassettes, and that has an average radiation exposure 118373
delivery of less than one rad mid-breast. "Screening mammography" 118374
includes two views for each breast. The term also includes the 118375
professional interpretation of the film.118376

       "Screening mammography" does not include diagnostic 118377
mammography.118378

       (B) In addition to any other services required to be included 118379
in the program or for which federal approval is received, the 118380
medical assistanceThe medicaid program shall includecover both 118381
of the following if approval for use of federal funds is granted 118382
to the department by the federal agency responsible for 118383
distributing funds under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 118384
49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended:118385

       (1) Effective July 1, 1993, screeningScreening mammography 118386
to detect the presence of breast cancer in adult women;118387

       (2) Effective January 1, 1993, cytologicCytologic screening 118388
for the presence of cervical cancer.118389

       (C) The service provided undermedicaid program's coverage of 118390
screening mammography pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section 118391
shall be provided in accordance with all of the following:118392

       (1) If a woman is at least thirty-five years of age but under 118393
forty years of age, one screening mammography;118394

       (2) If a woman is at least forty years of age but under fifty 118395
years of age, either of the following:118396

       (a) One screening mammography every two years;118397

       (b) If a licensed physician has determined that the woman has 118398
risk factors to breast cancer, one screening mammography every 118399
year.118400

       (3) If a woman is at least fifty years of age but under 118401
sixty-five years of age, one screening mammography every year.118402

       (D) The service provided undermedicaid program's coverage of 118403
screening mammographies pursuant to division (B)(1) of this 118404
section shall be provided only for screening mammographies that 118405
are performed in a facility or mobile mammography screening unit 118406
that is accredited under the American college of radiology 118407
mammography accreditation program or in a hospital as defined in 118408
section 3727.01 of the Revised Code.118409

       (E) The service provided undermedicaid program's coverage of 118410
cytologic screenings pursuant to division (B)(2) of this section 118411
shall be provided only for cytologic screenings that are processed 118412
and interpreted in a laboratory certified by the college of 118413
American pathologists or in a hospital as defined in section 118414
3727.01 of the Revised Code.118415

       Sec. 5111.023.        Sec. 5164.15.  (A) As used in this section:118416

       (1) "Community mental health agencyservices provider or 118417
facility" means a community mental health agencyservices provider118418
or facility that has its community mental health services 118419
certified by the department of mental healthmental health and 118420
addiction services under section 5119.6115119.36 of the Revised 118421
Code or by the department of job and family services under section 118422
5103.03 of the Revised Code.118423

        (2) "Mental health professional" means a person qualified to 118424
work with mentally ill persons under the standards established by 118425
the director of mental healthmental health and addiction services118426
pursuant to section 5119.6115119.36 of the Revised Code.118427

        (B) The state medicaid planprogram may include provision of118428
cover the following mental health services when provided by 118429
community mental health agenciesservices providers or facilities:118430

       (1) Outpatient mental health services, including, but not 118431
limited to, preventive, diagnostic, therapeutic, rehabilitative, 118432
and palliative interventions rendered to individuals in an 118433
individual or group setting by a mental health professional in 118434
accordance with a plan of treatment appropriately established, 118435
monitored, and reviewed;118436

       (2) Partial-hospitalization mental health services rendered 118437
by persons directly supervised by a mental health professional;118438

       (3) Unscheduled, emergency mental health services of a kind 118439
ordinarily provided to persons in crisis when rendered by persons 118440
supervised by a mental health professional;118441

       (4) Subject to receipt of federal approval, assertive118442
Assertive community treatment and intensive home-based mental 118443
health services.118444

       (C) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 118445
enter into a separate contract with the department of mental 118446
healthmental health and addiction services under section 5111.91118447
5162.35 of the Revised Code with regard to the component ofmental 118448
health services the medicaid program provided for bycovers 118449
pursuant to this section.118450

       Sec. 5111.027.        Sec. 5164.20. If the medicaid program provides 118451
prescription drug services to medicaid recipients, theThe 118452
medicaid program shall not provide reimbursement for prescription118453
cover prescribed drugs for treatment of erectile dysfunction.118454

       Sec. 5111.042.        Sec. 5164.25.  The departments of developmental 118455
disabilities and job and family servicesmedicaid may approve, 118456
reduce, deny, or terminate a medicaid service included in the 118457
individualized service plan developed for a medicaid recipient 118458
with mental retardation or other developmental disability who is 118459
eligible for medicaid case management services. If either 118460
department approves, reduces, denies, or terminates a service, 118461
that department shall timely notify the medicaid recipient that 118462
the recipient may request a hearing underappeal pursuant to118463
section 5101.355160.31 of the Revised Code.118464

       Sec. 5111.016.        Sec. 5164.26. (A) As used in this section, 118465
"healthcheck" has the same meaning as in section 3313.714 of the 118466
Revised Code.118467

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 118468
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 118469
establishingestablish a combination of written and oral methods 118470
designed to provide information about healthcheck to all persons 118471
eligible for the program or their parents or guardians. The 118472
department shall ensure that its methods of providing information 118473
are effective. The methods shall comply with federal law and 118474
regulations.118475

       Each county department of job and family services or other118476
entity that distributes or accepts applications for medical 118477
assistancemedicaid shall prominently display a notice that 118478
complies with the rules adoptedmethods of providing information 118479
about healthcheck established under this divisionsection.118480

       Sec. 5164.30.  No person or government entity may participate 118481
in the medicaid program as a medicaid provider without a valid 118482
provider agreement with the department of medicaid.118483

       Sec. 5111.053.        Sec. 5164.301. (A) As used in this section, "group 118484
practice" has the same meaning as in section 4731.65 of the 118485
Revised Code.118486

        (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 118487
establish a process by which a physician assistant may enter into 118488
a medicaid provider agreement.118489

       (C)(1) Subject to division (C)(2) of this section, a claim 118490
for reimbursementmedicaid payment for a medicaid service provided 118491
by a physician assistant to a medicaid recipient may be submitted 118492
by the physician assistant who provided the service or the 118493
physician, group practice, clinic, or other health care facility 118494
that employs the physician assistant.118495

       (2) A claim for reimbursementmedicaid payment may be 118496
submitted by the physician assistant who provided the service only 118497
if the physician assistant has a valid provider agreement. When 118498
submitting the claim, the physician assistant shall use only the 118499
medicaid provider number the department has assigned to the 118500
physician assistant.118501

       (D) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 118502
under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code to implement this 118503
section.118504

       Sec. 5111.063.        Sec. 5164.31. (A) For the purpose of raising funds 118505
necessary to pay the expenses of implementing the provider 118506
screening requirements of subpart E of 42 C.F.R. Part 455 and 118507
except as provided in division (B) of this section, the department 118508
of job and family servicesmedicaid shall chargecollect an 118509
application fee tofrom a medicaid provider seeking to enter into 118510
or renew a medicaid provider agreement, unless the provider is 118511
exempt from paying the application fee under 42 C.F.R. 455.460(a)118512
before doing any of the following:118513

       (1) Entering into a provider agreement with a medicaid 118514
provider that seeks initial enrollment as a provider;118515

       (2) Entering into a provider agreement with a former medicaid 118516
provider that seeks re-enrollment as a provider;118517

       (3) Revalidating a medicaid provider's continued enrollment 118518
as a provider. The118519

       (B) The department is not to collect an application fee from 118520
a medicaid provider that is exempt from paying the fee under 42 118521
C.F.R. 455.460(a).118522

       (C) The application fees shall be deposited into the health 118523
care services administration fund created under section 5111.94118524
5162.54 of the Revised Code. Application fees are nonrefundable 118525
when collected in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 455.460(a).118526

       (D) The medicaid director of job and family services shall 118527
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119.under section 5164.02118528
of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this section, 118529
including a rule establishing the amount of the application fee 118530
that is chargedto be collected under this section. The amount of 118531
the application fee shall not be set at an amount that is more 118532
than necessary to pay for the expenses of implementing the 118533
provider screening requirements.118534

       Sec. 5111.028.        Sec. 5164.32.  (A) Pursuant to section 5111.02 of 118535
the Revised Code, the director of job and family services shall 118536
adopt rules establishing procedures for the use of time-limited 118537
provider agreements under the medicaid program. Except as provided 118538
in division (E) of this section, all provider agreements shall be 118539
time-limited in accordance with the procedures established in the 118540
rules.118541

       The department of job and family services shall phase-in the 118542
use of time-limited provider agreements pursuant to this section 118543
during a period commencing not later than January 1, 2008, and 118544
ending January 1, 2015.118545

       (B) In the use of time-limited provider agreements pursuant 118546
to this section, all of the following apply:118547

       (1) Each medicaid provider agreement shall expire not later 118548
than sevenfive years from theits effective date of the 118549
agreement.118550

       (2) During the phase-in period specified in division (A) of 118551
this section, the department may provide for the conversion of. If118552
a provider agreement without a time limitentered into before the 118553
effective date of this amendment does not have a time limit, the 118554
department of medicaid shall convert the agreement to a provider 118555
agreement with a time limit. The department may take an action to 118556
convert the provider agreement by sending a notice by regular mail 118557
to the address of the provider on record with the department 118558
advising the provider of the conversion.118559

       (3) The department may make the effective date of a provider 118560
agreement retroactive for a period not to exceed one year from the 118561
date of the provider's application for the agreement, as long as 118562
the provider met all medicaid program requirements during that 118563
period.118564

       (C)(B) The medicaid director shall adopt rules under section 118565
5164.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this 118566
section. The rules for use of time-limited provider agreements 118567
pursuant to this section shall be consistent with subpart E of 42 118568
C.F.R. Part 455 and include a process for re-enrollment of 118569
providersrevalidating medicaid providers' continued enrollments 118570
as providers. All of the following apply to the re-enrollment118571
revalidation process:118572

       (1) The department of job and family services may terminate a 118573
time-limited provider agreement or deny re-enrollmentshall refuse 118574
to revalidate a provider's provider agreement when athe provider 118575
fails to file ana complete application for re-enrollment118576
revalidation within the time and in the manner required under the 118577
re-enrollmentrevalidation process.118578

       (2) If a provider files ana complete application for 118579
re-enrollmentrevalidation within the time and in the manner 118580
required under the re-enrollmentrevalidation process, but the 118581
provider agreement expires before the department acts on the 118582
application or before the effective date of the department's 118583
decision on the application, the provider, subject to division 118584
(B)(3) of this section, may continue operating under the terms of 118585
the expired provider agreement until the effective date of the 118586
department's decision.118587

       (3) A decision by the department to approve an application 118588
for re-enrollment becomes effective on the date of the 118589
department's decision. A decision by the department to deny 118590
re-enrollment shall take effect not sooner than thirty days after 118591
the date the department mails written notice of the decision to 118592
the provider. The department shall specify in the notice the date 118593
on which the provider is required to cease operating under the 118594
provider agreementIf a provider continues operating under the 118595
terms of an expired provider agreement pursuant to division (B)(2) 118596
of this section and the department denies the provider's 118597
application for revalidation, medicaid payments shall not be made 118598
for services or items the provider provides during the period 118599
beginning on the date the provider agreement expired and ending on 118600
the effective date of a subsequent provider agreement, if any, the 118601
department enters into with the provider.118602

       (D) Pursuant to section 5111.06 of the Revised Code, the 118603
department is not required to take the actions specified in 118604
division (C)(1) of this section by issuing an order pursuant to an 118605
adjudication conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 118606
Revised Code.118607

       (E) The use of time-limited provider agreements pursuant to 118608
this section does not apply to provider agreements issued to the 118609
following, including any provider agreements issued to the 118610
following that are otherwise time-limited under the medicaid 118611
program:118612

       (1) A managed care organization under contract with the 118613
department pursuant to section 5111.17 of the Revised Code;118614

       (2) A nursing facility, as defined in section 5111.20 of the 118615
Revised Code;118616

       (3) An intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded, 118617
as defined in section 5111.20 of the Revised Code;118618

       (4) A hospital.118619

       Sec. 5164.33.  (A) The medicaid director may do the following 118620
for any reason permitted or required by federal law and when the 118621
director determines that the action is in the best interests of 118622
medicaid recipients or the state:118623

       (1) Deny, refuse to revalidate, suspend, or terminate a 118624
provider agreement;118625

       (2) Exclude an individual, provider of services or goods, or 118626
other entity from participation in the medicaid program.118627

       (B) No individual, provider, or entity excluded from 118628
participation in the medicaid program under this section shall do 118629
any of the following:118630

       (1) Own, or provide services to, any other medicaid provider 118631
or risk contractor;118632

       (2) Arrange for, render, or order services for medicaid 118633
recipients during the period of exclusion;118634

       (3) During the period of exclusion, receive direct payments 118635
under the medicaid program or indirect payments of medicaid funds 118636
in the form of salary, shared fees, contracts, kickbacks, or 118637
rebates from or through any other medicaid provider or risk 118638
contractor.118639

       (C) An individual, provider, or entity excluded from 118640
participation in the medicaid program under this section may 118641
request a reconsideration of the exclusion. The director shall 118642
adopt rules under section 5164.02 of the Revised Code governing 118643
the process for requesting a reconsideration.118644

       (D) Nothing in this section limits the applicability of 118645
section 5164.38 of the Revised Code to a medicaid provider.118646

       Sec. 5111.032.        Sec. 5164.34. (A) As used in this section:118647

       (1) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 118648
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.118649

       (2) "Disqualifying offense" means any of the offenses listed 118650
or described in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (e) of section 109.572 of 118651
the Revised Code.118652

       (3) "Owner" means a person who has an ownership interest in a 118653
medicaid provider or applicant to be a provider in an amount 118654
designated in rules adopted underauthorized by this section.118655

       (4) "Person subject to the criminal records check 118656
requirement" means the following:118657

       (a) A medicaid provider or applicant to be a provider who is 118658
notified under division (E)(1) of this section that the provider 118659
or applicant is subject to a criminal records check;118660

       (b) An owner or prospective owner, officer or prospective 118661
officer, or board member or prospective board member of a medicaid118662
provider or applicant to be a provider if, pursuant to division 118663
(E)(1)(a) of this section, the owner or prospective owner, officer 118664
or prospective officer, or board member or prospective board 118665
member is specified in information given to the provider or 118666
applicant under division (E)(1) of this section;118667

       (c) An employee or prospective employee of a medicaid118668
provider or applicant to be a provider if both of the following 118669
apply:118670

       (i) The employee or prospective employee is specified, 118671
pursuant to division (E)(1)(b) of this section, in information 118672
given to the provider or applicant under division (E)(1) of this 118673
section.118674

       (ii) The provider or applicant is not prohibited by division 118675
(D)(3)(b) of this section from employing the employee or 118676
prospective employee.118677

        (5) "Provider" means a person, institution, or entity that 118678
has a medicaid provider agreement with the department of job and 118679
family services.118680

       (6) "Responsible entity" means the following:118681

       (a) With respect to a criminal records check required under 118682
this section for a medicaid provider or applicant to be a 118683
provider, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 118684
the department's designee;118685

       (b) With respect to a criminal records check required under 118686
this section for an owner or prospective owner, officer or 118687
prospective officer, board member or prospective board member, or 118688
employee or prospective employee of a medicaid provider or 118689
applicant to be a provider, the provider or applicant.118690

       (B) This section does not apply to any individual who is 118691
subject to a criminal records check under section 3712.09, 118692
3721.121, 5111.034, 5123.081, or 5123.169, or 5164.341 of the 118693
Revised Code or any individual who is subject to a database review 118694
or criminal records check under section 173.394173.38, 3701.881, 118695
or 5111.0335164.342 of the Revised Code.118696

       (C) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid may do 118697
any of the following:118698

       (1) Require that any medicaid provider or applicant to be a 118699
provider submit to a criminal records check as a condition of 118700
havingobtaining or maintaining a medicaid provider agreement;118701

       (2) Require that any medicaid provider or applicant to be a 118702
provider require an owner or prospective owner, officer or 118703
prospective officer, or board member or prospective board member 118704
of the provider or applicant submit to a criminal records check as 118705
a condition of being an owner, officer, or board member of the 118706
provider or applicant;118707

       (3) Require that any medicaid provider or applicant to be a 118708
provider do the following:118709

       (a) If so required by rules adopted underauthorized by this 118710
section, determine pursuant to a database review conducted under 118711
division (F)(1)(a) of this section whether any employee or 118712
prospective employee of the provider or applicant is included in a 118713
database;118714

       (b) Unless the provider or applicant is prohibited by 118715
division (D)(3)(b) of this section from employing the employee or 118716
prospective employee, require the employee or prospective employee 118717
to submit to a criminal records check as a condition of being an 118718
employee of the provider or applicant.118719

       (D)(1) The department or the department's designee shall deny 118720
or terminate a medicaid provider's medicaid provider agreement or 118721
deny an applicant's application for a medicaid provider agreement118722
if the provider or applicant is a person subject to the criminal 118723
records check requirement and either of the following applies:118724

       (a) The provider or applicant fails to obtain the criminal 118725
records check after being given the information specified in 118726
division (G)(1) of this section.118727

       (b) Except as provided in rules adopted underauthorized by118728
this section, the provider or applicant is found by the criminal 118729
records check to have been convicted of,or have pleaded guilty 118730
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 118731
for a disqualifying offense, regardless of the date of the 118732
conviction,or the date of entry of the guilty plea, or the date 118733
the applicant or provider was found eligible for intervention in 118734
lieu of conviction.118735

       (2) No medicaid provider or applicant to be a provider shall 118736
permit a person to be an owner, officer, or board member of the 118737
provider or applicant if the person is a person subject to the 118738
criminal records check requirement and either of the following 118739
applies:118740

       (a) The person fails to obtain the criminal records check 118741
after being given the information specified in division (G)(1) of 118742
this section.118743

       (b) Except as provided in rules adopted underauthorized by118744
this section, the person is found by the criminal records check to 118745
have been convicted of,or have pleaded guilty to, or been found 118746
eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 118747
disqualifying offense, regardless of the date of the conviction,118748
or the date of entry of the guilty plea, or the date the person 118749
was found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction.118750

       (3) No medicaid provider or applicant to be a provider shall 118751
employ a person if any of the following apply:118752

       (a) The person has been excluded from providing services or 118753
items under thebeing a medicaid programprovider, thea medicare 118754
program operated pursuant to Title XVIII of the "Social Security 118755
Actprovider," or provider for any other federal health care 118756
program.118757

       (b) If the person is subject to a database review conducted 118758
under division (F)(1)(a) of this section, the person is found by 118759
the database review to be included in a database and the rules 118760
adopted underauthorized by this section regarding the database 118761
review prohibit the provider or applicant from employing a person 118762
included in the database.118763

       (c) If the person is a person subject to the criminal records 118764
check requirement, either of the following applies:118765

       (i) The person fails to obtain the criminal records check 118766
after being given the information specified in division (G)(1) of 118767
this section.118768

       (ii) Except as provided in rules adopted underauthorized by118769
this section, the person is found by the criminal records check to 118770
have been convicted of,or have pleaded guilty to, or been found 118771
eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 118772
disqualifying offense, regardless of the date of the conviction,118773
or the date of entry of the guilty plea, or the date the person 118774
was found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction.118775

       (E)(1) The department or the department's designee shall 118776
inform each medicaid provider or applicant to be a provider118777
whether the provider or applicant is subject to a criminal records 118778
check. For providers with valid provider agreements, the 118779
information shall be given at times designated in rules adopted 118780
underauthorized by this section. For applicantsproviders 118781
applying to be medicaid providers, the information shall be given 118782
at the time of initial application. When the information is given, 118783
the department or the department's designee shall specify the 118784
following:118785

       (a) Which of the provider's or applicant's owners or 118786
prospective owners, officers or prospective officers, or board 118787
members or prospective board members are subject to a criminal 118788
records check;118789

       (b) Which of the provider's or applicant's employees or 118790
prospective employees are subject to division (C)(3) of this 118791
section.118792

       (2) At times designated in rules adopted underauthorized by118793
this section, a medicaid provider or applicant to be a provider118794
that is a person subject to the criminal records check requirement 118795
shall do the following:118796

       (a) Inform each person specified under division (E)(1)(a) of 118797
this section that the person is required to submit to a criminal 118798
records check as a condition of being an owner, officer, or board 118799
member of the provider or applicant;118800

       (b) Inform each person specified under division (E)(1)(b) of 118801
this section that the person is subject to division (C)(3) of this 118802
section.118803

       (F)(1) If a medicaid provider or applicant to be a provider118804
is a person subject to the criminal records check requirement, the 118805
department or the department's designee shall require the conduct 118806
of a criminal records check by the superintendent of the bureau of 118807
criminal identification and investigation. A medicaid provider or 118808
applicant to be a provider shall require the conduct of a criminal 118809
records check by the superintendent with respect to each of the 118810
persons specified under division (E)(1)(a) of this section. With 118811
respect to each employee and prospective employee specified under 118812
division (E)(1)(b) of this section, a medicaid provider or 118813
applicant to be a provider shall do the following:118814

       (a) If rules adopted underauthorized by this section require 118815
the provider or applicant to conduct a database review to 118816
determine whether the employee or prospective employee is included 118817
in a database, conduct the database review in accordance with the 118818
rules;118819

       (b) Unless the provider or applicant is prohibited by 118820
division (D)(3)(b) of this section from employing the employee or 118821
prospective employee, require the conduct of a criminal records 118822
check of the employee or prospective employee by the 118823
superintendent.118824

       (2) If a person subject to the criminal records check 118825
requirement does not present proof of having been a resident of 118826
this state for the five-year period immediately prior to the date 118827
the criminal records check is requested or provide evidence that 118828
within that five-year period the superintendent has requested 118829
information about the person from the federal bureau of 118830
investigation in a criminal records check, the responsible entity 118831
shall require the person to request that the superintendent obtain 118832
information from the federal bureau of investigation as part of 118833
the criminal records check of the person. Even if the person 118834
presents proof of having been a resident of this state for the 118835
five-year period, the responsible entity may require that the 118836
person request that the superintendent obtain information from the 118837
federal bureau of investigation and include it in the criminal 118838
records check of the person.118839

       (G) Criminal records checks required by this section shall be 118840
obtained as follows:118841

       (1) The responsible entity shall provide each person subject 118842
to the criminal records check requirement information about 118843
accessing and completing the form prescribed pursuant to division 118844
(C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and the standard 118845
impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that 118846
section.118847

       (2) The person subject to the criminal records check 118848
requirement shall submit the required form and one complete set of 118849
the person's fingerprint impressions directly to the 118850
superintendent for purposes of conducting the criminal records 118851
check using the applicable methods prescribed by division (C) of 118852
section 109.572 of the Revised Code. The person shall pay all fees 118853
associated with obtaining the criminal records check.118854

       (3) The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records 118855
check in accordance with section 109.572 of the Revised Code. The 118856
person subject to the criminal records check requirement shall 118857
instruct the superintendent to submit the report of the criminal 118858
records check directly to the responsible entity. If the 118859
department or the department's designee is not the responsible 118860
entity, the department or designee may require the responsible 118861
entity to submit the report to the department or designee.118862

       (H)(1) A medicaid provider or applicant to be a provider may 118863
employ conditionally a person for whom a criminal records check is 118864
required by this section prior to obtaining the results of the 118865
criminal records check if both of the following apply:118866

       (a) The provider or applicant is not prohibited by division 118867
(D)(3)(b) of this section from employing the person.118868

        (b) The person submits a request for the criminal records 118869
check not later than five business days after the person begins 118870
conditional employment.118871

       (2) A medicaid provider or applicant to be a provider that 118872
employs a person conditionally under division (H)(1) of this 118873
section shall terminate the person's employment if the results of 118874
the criminal records check request are not obtained within the 118875
period ending sixty days after the date the request is made. 118876
Regardless of when the results of the criminal records check are 118877
obtained, if the results indicate that the person has been 118878
convicted of,or has pleaded guilty to, or has been found eligible 118879
for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying 118880
offense, the provider or applicant shall terminate the person's 118881
employment unless circumstances specified in rules adopted under118882
authorized by this section exist that permit the provider or 118883
applicant to employ the person and the provider or applicant118884
chooses to employ the person.118885

       (I) The report of a criminal records check conducted pursuant 118886
to this section is not a public record for the purposes of section 118887
149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not be made available to any 118888
person other than the following:118889

       (1) The person who is the subject of the criminal records 118890
check or the person's representative;118891

       (2) The medicaid director of job and family services and the 118892
staff of the department who are involved in the administration of 118893
the medicaid program;118894

       (3) The department's designee;118895

       (4) The medicaid provider or applicant to be a provider who 118896
required the person who is the subject of the criminal records 118897
check to submit to the criminal records check;118898

        (5) An individual receiving or deciding whether to receive, 118899
from the subject of the criminal records check, home and 118900
community-based services available under the medicaid state plan;118901

       (6) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 118902
involved in a case dealing with any of the following:118903

       (a) The denial or termination of a medicaid provider 118904
agreement;118905

        (b) A person's denial of employment, termination of 118906
employment, or employment or unemployment benefits;118907

       (c) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid 118908
program.118909

       (J) The medicaid director of job and family services may 118910
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119.under section 5164.02118911
of the Revised Code to implement this section. If the director 118912
adopts such rules, the rules shall designate the times at which a 118913
criminal records check must be conducted under this section. The 118914
rules may do any of the following:118915

       (1) Designate the categories of persons who are subject to a 118916
criminal records check under this section;118917

        (2) Specify circumstances under which the department or the 118918
department's designee may continue a medicaid provider agreement 118919
or issue a medicaid provider agreement to an applicant when the 118920
medicaid provider or applicant is found by a criminal records 118921
check to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found 118922
eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 118923
disqualifying offense;118924

       (3) Specify circumstances under which a medicaid provider or 118925
applicant to be a provider may permit a person to be an employee, 118926
owner, officer, or board member of the provider or applicant, when 118927
the person is found by a criminal records check conducted pursuant 118928
to this section to have been convicted of,or have pleaded guilty 118929
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 118930
for a disqualifying offense;118931

       (4) Specify all of the following:118932

       (a) The circumstances under which a database review must be 118933
conducted under division (F)(1)(a) of this section to determine 118934
whether an employee or prospective employee of a medicaid provider 118935
or applicant to be a provider is included in a database;118936

       (b) The procedures for conducting the database review;118937

       (c) The databases that are to be checked;118938

       (d) The circumstances under which a medicaid provider or 118939
applicant to be a provider is prohibited from employing a person 118940
who is found by the database review to be included in a database.118941

       Sec. 5111.034.        Sec. 5164.341.  (A) As used in this section:118942

        "Anniversary date" means the later of the effective date of 118943
the provider agreement relating to the independent provider or 118944
sixty days after September 26, 2003.118945

        "Applicant" means a person who has applied for a medicaid118946
provider agreement to provide home and community-based services as 118947
an independent provider under a home and community-based medicaid 118948
waiver component administered by the department of job and family 118949
servicesmedicaid.118950

       "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in section 118951
109.572 of the Revised Code.118952

        "Disqualifying offense" means any of the offenses listed or 118953
described in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (e) of section 109.572 of the 118954
Revised Code.118955

       "Independent provider" means a person who has a medicaid118956
provider agreement to provide home and community-based services as 118957
an independent provider in a home and community-based services 118958
medicaid waiver component administered by the department of job 118959
and family servicesmedicaid. 118960

        "Home and community-based services medicaid waiver component" 118961
has the same meaning as in section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.118962

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or the 118963
department's designee shall deny an applicant's application for a 118964
medicaid provider agreement and shall terminate an independent 118965
provider's medicaid provider agreement if either of the following 118966
applies:118967

       (1) After the applicant or independent provider is given the 118968
information and notification required by divisions (D)(2)(a) and 118969
(b) of this section, the applicant or independent provider fails 118970
to do either of the following:118971

       (a) Access, complete, or forward to the superintendent of the 118972
bureau of criminal identification and investigation the form 118973
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the 118974
Revised Code or the standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant 118975
to division (C)(2) of that section;118976

       (b) Instruct the superintendent to submit the completed 118977
report of the criminal records check required by this section 118978
directly to the department or the department's designee.118979

       (2) Except as provided in rules adopted underauthorized by118980
this section, the applicant or independent provider is found by a 118981
criminal records check required by this section to have been 118982
convicted of,or have pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible 118983
for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying 118984
offense, regardless of the date of the conviction,or the date of 118985
entry of the guilty plea, or the date the applicant or independent 118986
provider was found eligible for intervention in lieu of 118987
conviction.118988

       (C)(1) The department or the department's designee shall 118989
inform each applicant, at the time of initial application for a 118990
medicaid provider agreement, that the applicant is required to 118991
provide a set of the applicant's fingerprint impressions and that 118992
a criminal records check is required to be conducted as a 118993
condition of the department's approving the application.118994

       (2) Beginning on September 26, 2003, the department or the 118995
department's designee shall inform each independent provider on or 118996
before the time of the anniversary date of the medicaid provider 118997
agreement that the independent provider is required to provide a 118998
set of the independent provider's fingerprint impressions and that 118999
a criminal records check is required to be conducted.119000

       (D)(1) The department or the department's designee shall 119001
require an applicant to complete a criminal records check prior to 119002
entering into a medicaid provider agreement with the applicant. 119003
The department or the department's designee shall require an 119004
independent provider to complete a criminal records check at least 119005
annually. If an applicant or independent provider for whom a 119006
criminal records check is required by this section does not 119007
present proof of having been a resident of this state for the 119008
five-year period immediately prior to the date the criminal 119009
records check is requested or provide evidence that within that 119010
five-year period the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 119011
identification and investigation has requested information about 119012
the applicant or independent provider from the federal bureau of 119013
investigation in a criminal records check, the department or the 119014
department's designee shall request that the applicant or 119015
independent provider obtain through the superintendent a criminal 119016
records request from the federal bureau of investigation as part 119017
of the criminal records check of the applicant or independent 119018
provider. Even if an applicant or independent provider for whom a 119019
criminal records check request is required by this section 119020
presents proof of having been a resident of this state for the 119021
five-year period, the department or the department's designee may 119022
request that the applicant or independent provider obtain 119023
information through the superintendent from the federal bureau of 119024
investigation in the criminal records check.119025

       (2) The department or the department's designee shall provide 119026
the following to each applicant and independent provider for whom 119027
a criminal records check is required by this section:119028

       (a) Information about accessing, completing, and forwarding 119029
to the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 119030
investigation the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of 119031
section 109.572 of the Revised Code and the standard impression 119032
sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section;119033

       (b) Written notification that the applicant or independent 119034
provider is to instruct the superintendent to submit the completed 119035
report of the criminal records check directly to the department or 119036
the department's designee.119037

       (3) Each applicant and independent provider for whom a 119038
criminal records check is required by this section shall pay to 119039
the bureau of criminal identification and investigation the fee 119040
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the 119041
Revised Code for the criminal records check conducted of the 119042
applicant or independent provider.119043

       (E) The report of any criminal records check conducted by the 119044
bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance 119045
with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant to a request 119046
made under this section is not a public record for the purposes of 119047
section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not be made available 119048
to any person other than the following:119049

       (1) The person who is the subject of the criminal records 119050
check or the person's representative;119051

       (2) The medicaid director of job and family services and the 119052
staff of the department who are involved in the administration of 119053
the medicaid program;119054

       (3) The department's designee;119055

       (4) An individual who receivesreceiving or deciding whether 119056
to receive home and community-based services from the person who 119057
is the subject of the criminal records check;119058

        (5) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 119059
involved in a case dealing with either of the following:119060

       (a) A denial or termination of a provider agreement related 119061
to the criminal records check;119062

       (b) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid 119063
program.119064

       (F) The medicaid director of job and family services shall 119065
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119.under section 5164.02119066
of the Revised Code to implement this section. The rules shall 119067
specify circumstances under which the department or the 119068
department's designee may either approve an applicant's 119069
application or allow an independent provider to maintain an 119070
existing medicaid provider agreement even though the applicant or 119071
independent provider is found by a criminal records check required 119072
by this section to have been convicted of,or have pleaded guilty 119073
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 119074
for a disqualifying offense.119075

       Sec. 5111.033.        Sec. 5164.342.  (A) As used in this section:119076

        "Applicant" means a person who is under final consideration 119077
for employment with a waiver agency in a full-time, part-time, or 119078
temporary position that involves providing home and 119079
community-based services..119080

        "Community-based long-term care agencyprovider" has the same 119081
meaningmeans a provider as defined in section 173.39 of the 119082
Revised Code.119083

       "Community-based long-term care subcontractor" means a 119084
subcontractor as defined in section 173.38 of the Revised Code.119085

        "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in section 119086
109.572 of the Revised Code.119087

        "Disqualifying offense" means any of the offenses listed or 119088
described in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (e) of section 109.572 of the 119089
Revised Code.119090

       "Employee" means a person employed by a waiver agency in a 119091
full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves 119092
providing home and community-based services.119093

       "Home and community-based services medicaid waiver component" 119094
has the same meaning as in section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.119095

       "Waiver agency" means a person or government entity that 119096
provides home and community-based services under a home and 119097
community-based services medicaid waiver component administered by 119098
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid, other than 119099
such a person or government entity that is certified under the 119100
medicare program. "Waiver agency" does not mean an independent 119101
provider as defined in section 5111.0345164.341 of the Revised 119102
Code.119103

       (B) This section does not apply to any individual who is 119104
subject to a database review or criminal records check under 119105
section 3701.881 of the Revised Code. If a waiver agency also is a 119106
community-based long-term care agencyprovider or community-based 119107
long-term care subcontractor, the waiver agency may provide for 119108
applicants and employees to undergo database reviews and criminal 119109
records checks in accordance with section 173.394173.38 of the 119110
Revised Code rather than this section.119111

        (C) No waiver agency shall employ an applicant or continue to 119112
employ an employee in a position that involves providing home and 119113
community-based services if any of the following apply:119114

       (1) A review of the databases listed in division (E) of this 119115
section reveals any of the following:119116

       (a) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 119117
of the databases listed in divisions (E)(1) to (5) of this 119118
section;119119

       (b) That there is in the state nurse aide registry 119120
established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code a statement 119121
detailing findings by the director of health that the applicant or 119122
employee neglected or abused a long-term care facility or 119123
residential care facility resident or misappropriated property of 119124
such a resident;119125

       (c) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 119126
of the databases, if any, specified in rules adopted under119127
authorized by this section and the rules prohibit the waiver 119128
agency from employing an applicant or continuing to employ an 119129
employee included in such a database in a position that involves 119130
providing home and community-based services.119131

       (2) After the applicant or employee is given the information 119132
and notification required by divisions (F)(2)(a) and (b) of this 119133
section, the applicant or employee fails to do either of the 119134
following:119135

       (a) Access, complete, or forward to the superintendent of the 119136
bureau of criminal identification and investigation the form 119137
prescribed to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised 119138
Code or the standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to 119139
division (C)(2) of that section;119140

       (b) Instruct the superintendent to submit the completed 119141
report of the criminal records check required by this section 119142
directly to the chief administrator of the waiver agency.119143

       (3) Except as provided in rules adopted underauthorized by119144
this section, the applicant or employee is found by a criminal 119145
records check required by this section to have been convicted of,119146
or have pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention 119147
in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense, regardless of 119148
the date of the conviction,or date of entry of the guilty plea, 119149
or the date the applicant or employee was found eligible for 119150
intervention in lieu of conviction.119151

       (D) At the time of each applicant's initial application for 119152
employment in a position that involves providing home and 119153
community-based services, the chief administrator of a waiver 119154
agency shall inform the applicant of both of the following:119155

       (1) That a review of the databases listed in division (E) of 119156
this section will be conducted to determine whether the waiver 119157
agency is prohibited by division (C)(1) of this section from 119158
employing the applicant in the position;119159

       (2) That, unless the database review reveals that the 119160
applicant may not be employed in the position, a criminal records 119161
check of the applicant will be conducted and the applicant is 119162
required to provide a set of the applicant's fingerprint 119163
impressions as part of the criminal records check.119164

       (E) As a condition of employing any applicant in a position 119165
that involves providing home and community-based services, the 119166
chief administrator of a waiver agency shall conduct a database 119167
review of the applicant in accordance with rules adopted under119168
authorized by this section. If rules adopted underauthorized by119169
this section so require, the chief administrator of a waiver 119170
agency shall conduct a database review of an employee in 119171
accordance with the rules as a condition of continuing to employ 119172
the employee in a position that involves providing home and 119173
community-based services. A database review shall determine 119174
whether the applicant or employee is included in any of the 119175
following:119176

       (1) The excluded parties list system that is maintained by 119177
the United States general services administration pursuant to 119178
subpart 9.4 of the federal acquisition regulation and available at 119179
the federal web site known as the system for award management;119180

       (2) The list of excluded individuals and entities maintained 119181
by the office of inspector general in the United States department 119182
of health and human services pursuant to section 1128 of the 119183
"Social Security Act," 94 Stat. 2619 (1980)sections 1128 and 119184
1156, 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7, as amended, and section 1156 of the 119185
"Social Security Act," 96 Stat. 388 (1982), 42 U.S.C. 1320c-5, as 119186
amended;119187

       (3) The registry of MR/DD employees established under section 119188
5123.52 of the Revised Code;119189

       (4) The internet-based sex offender and child-victim offender 119190
database established under division (A)(11) of section 2950.13 of 119191
the Revised Code;119192

       (5) The internet-based database of inmates established under 119193
section 5120.66 of the Revised Code;119194

       (6) The state nurse aide registry established under section 119195
3721.32 of the Revised Code;119196

       (7) Any other database, if any, specified in rules adopted 119197
underauthorized by this section.119198

       (F)(1) As a condition of employing any applicant in a 119199
position that involves providing home and community-based 119200
services, the chief administrator of a waiver agency shall require 119201
the applicant to request that the superintendent of the bureau of 119202
criminal identification and investigation conduct a criminal 119203
records check of the applicant. If rules adopted underauthorized 119204
by this section so require, the chief administrator of a waiver 119205
agency shall require an employee to request that the 119206
superintendent conduct a criminal records check of the employee at 119207
times specified in the rules as a condition of continuing to 119208
employ the employee in a position that involves providing home and 119209
community-based services. However, a criminal records check is not 119210
required for an applicant or employee if the waiver agency is 119211
prohibited by division (C)(1) of this section from employing the 119212
applicant or continuing to employ the employee in a position that 119213
involves providing home and community-based services. If an 119214
applicant or employee for whom a criminal records check request is 119215
required by this section does not present proof of having been a 119216
resident of this state for the five-year period immediately prior 119217
to the date the criminal records check is requested or provide 119218
evidence that within that five-year period the superintendent has 119219
requested information about the applicant or employee from the 119220
federal bureau of investigation in a criminal records check, the 119221
chief administrator shall require the applicant or employee to 119222
request that the superintendent obtain information from the 119223
federal bureau of investigation as part of the criminal records 119224
check. Even if an applicant or employee for whom a criminal 119225
records check request is required by this section presents proof 119226
of having been a resident of this state for the five-year period, 119227
the chief administrator may require the applicant or employee to 119228
request that the superintendent include information from the 119229
federal bureau of investigation in the criminal records check.119230

       (2) The chief administrator shall provide the following to 119231
each applicant and employee for whom a criminal records check is 119232
required by this section:119233

       (a) Information about accessing, completing, and forwarding 119234
to the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 119235
investigation the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of 119236
section 109.572 of the Revised Code and the standard impression 119237
sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section;119238

       (b) Written notification that the applicant or employee is to 119239
instruct the superintendent to submit the completed report of the 119240
criminal records check directly to the chief administrator.119241

       (3) A waiver agency shall pay to the bureau of criminal 119242
identification and investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to 119243
division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code for any 119244
criminal records check required by this section. However, a waiver 119245
agency may require an applicant to pay to the bureau the fee for a 119246
criminal records check of the applicant. If the waiver agency pays 119247
the fee for an applicant, it may charge the applicant a fee not 119248
exceeding the amount the waiver agency pays to the bureau under 119249
this section if the waiver agency notifies the applicant at the 119250
time of initial application for employment of the amount of the 119251
fee and that, unless the fee is paid, the applicant will not be 119252
considered for employment.119253

       (G)(1) A waiver agency may employ conditionally an applicant 119254
for whom a criminal records check is required by this section 119255
prior to obtaining the results of the criminal records check if 119256
both of the following apply:119257

       (a) The waiver agency is not prohibited by division (C)(1) of 119258
this section from employing the applicant in a position that 119259
involves providing home and community-based services.119260

        (b) The chief administrator of the waiver agency requires the 119261
applicant to request a criminal records check regarding the 119262
applicant in accordance with division (F)(1) of this section not 119263
later than five business days after the applicant begins 119264
conditional employment.119265

       (2) A waiver agency that employs an applicant conditionally 119266
under division (G)(1) of this section shall terminate the 119267
applicant's employment if the results of the criminal records 119268
check, other than the results of any request for information from 119269
the federal bureau of investigation, are not obtained within the 119270
period ending sixty days after the date the request for the 119271
criminal records check is made. Regardless of when the results of 119272
the criminal records check are obtained, if the results indicate 119273
that the applicant has been convicted of,or has pleaded guilty 119274
to, or has been found eligible for intervention in lieu of 119275
conviction for a disqualifying offense, the waiver agency shall 119276
terminate the applicant's employment unless circumstances 119277
specified in rules adopted underauthorized by this section exist 119278
that permit the waiver agency to employ the applicant and the 119279
waiver agency chooses to employ the applicant.119280

       (H) The report of any criminal records check conducted 119281
pursuant to a request made under this section is not a public 119282
record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and 119283
shall not be made available to any person other than the 119284
following:119285

       (1) The applicant or employee who is the subject of the 119286
criminal records check or the representative of the applicant or 119287
employee;119288

       (2) The chief administrator of the waiver agency that 119289
requires the applicant or employee to request the criminal records 119290
check or the administrator's representative;119291

       (3) The medicaid director of job and family services and the 119292
staff of the department who are involved in the administration of 119293
the medicaid program;119294

       (4) The director of aging or the director's designee if the 119295
waiver agency also is a community-based long-term care agency119296
provider or community-based long-term care subcontractor;119297

        (5) An individual receiving or deciding whether to receive 119298
home and community-based services from the subject of the criminal 119299
records check;119300

       (6) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 119301
involved in a case dealing with any of the following:119302

       (a) A denial of employment of the applicant or employee;119303

       (b) Employment or unemployment benefits of the applicant or 119304
employee;119305

       (c) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid 119306
program.119307

       (I) The medicaid director of job and family services shall 119308
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119.under section 5164.02119309
of the Revised Code to implement this section. 119310

       (1) The rules may do the following:119311

       (a) Require employees to undergo database reviews and 119312
criminal records checks under this section;119313

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 119314
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, exempt one 119315
or more classes of employees from the requirements;119316

       (c) For the purpose of division (E)(7) of this section, 119317
specify other databases that are to be checked as part of a 119318
database review conducted under this section.119319

       (2) The rules shall specify all of the following:119320

       (a) The procedures for conducting a database review under 119321
this section;119322

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 119323
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, the times 119324
at which the database reviews and criminal records checks are to 119325
be conducted;119326

       (c) If the rules specify other databases to be checked as 119327
part of a database review, the circumstances under which a waiver 119328
agency is prohibited from employing an applicant or continuing to 119329
employ an employee who is found by the database review to be 119330
included in one or more of those databases;119331

        (d) The circumstances under which a waiver agency may employ 119332
an applicant or employee who is found by a criminal records check 119333
required by this section to have been convicted of,or have119334
pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu 119335
of conviction for a disqualifying offense.119336

       (J) The amendments made by H.B. 487 of the 129th general 119337
assembly to this section do not preclude the department of job 119338
and family servicesmedicaid from taking action against a person 119339
for failure to comply with former division (H) of this section as 119340
that division existed on the day preceding the effective date of 119341
this amendmentJanuary 1, 2013.119342

       Sec. 5111.03.        Sec. 5164.35.  (A) As used in this section, "owner" 119343
means any person having at least five per cent ownership in a 119344
medicaid provider.119345

       (B)(1) No medicaid provider of services or goods contracting 119346
with the department of job and family services pursuant to the 119347
medicaid program shall, bydo any of the following:119348

       (a) By deception, obtain or attempt to obtain payments under 119349
this chapterthe medicaid program to which the provider is not 119350
entitled pursuant to the provider's provider agreement, or the 119351
rules of the federal government or the department of job and 119352
family servicesmedicaid director relating to the program. No 119353
provider shall willfully;119354

       (b) Willfully receive payments to which the provider is not 119355
entitled, or willfully;119356

       (c) Willfully receive payments in a greater amount than that 119357
to which the provider is entitled; nor shall any provider falsify119358

       (d) Falsify any report or document required by state or 119359
federal law, rule, or provider agreement relating to medicaid 119360
payments. As used in this section, a119361

       (2) A medicaid provider engages in "deception" for the 119362
purpose of this section when the provider, acting with actual 119363
knowledge of the representation or information involved, acting in 119364
deliberate ignorance of the truth or falsity of the representation 119365
or information involved, or acting in reckless disregard of the 119366
truth or falsity of the representation or information involved, 119367
deceives another or causes another to be deceived by any false or 119368
misleading representation, by withholding information, by 119369
preventing another from acquiring information, or by any other 119370
conduct, act, or omission that creates, confirms, or perpetuates a 119371
false impression in another, including a false impression as to 119372
law, value, state of mind, or other objective or subjective fact. 119373
No proof of specific intent to defraud is required to show, for 119374
purposes of this section, that a medicaid provider has engaged in 119375
deception.119376

       (B)(C) Any medicaid provider who violates division (A)(B) of 119377
this section shall be liable, in addition to any other penalties 119378
provided by law, for all of the following civil penalties:119379

       (1) Payment of interest on the amount of the excess payments 119380
at the maximum interest rate allowable for real estate mortgages 119381
under section 1343.01 of the Revised Code on the date the payment 119382
was made to the provider for the period from the date upon which 119383
payment was made, to the date upon which repayment is made to the 119384
state;119385

       (2) Payment of an amount equal to three times the amount of 119386
any excess payments;119387

       (3) Payment of a sum of not less than five thousand dollars 119388
and not more than ten thousand dollars for each deceptive claim or 119389
falsification;119390

       (4) All reasonable expenses which the court determines have 119391
been necessarily incurred by the state in the enforcement of this 119392
section.119393

       (C) As used in this division, "intermediate care facility for 119394
the mentally retarded" and "nursing facility" have the same 119395
meanings given in section 5111.20 of the Revised Code.119396

       (D) In addition to the civil penalties provided in division 119397
(B)(C) of this section, the medicaid director of job and family 119398
services, upon the conviction of, or the entry of a judgment in 119399
either a criminal or civil action against, a medicaid provider or 119400
its owner, officer, authorized agent, associate, manager, or 119401
employee in an action brought pursuant to section 109.85 of the 119402
Revised Code, shall terminate the provider's provider agreement 119403
between the department and the provider and stop reimbursement119404
payment to the provider for medicaid services rendered from the 119405
date of conviction or entry of judgment. As used in this division, 119406
"owner" means any person having at least five per cent ownership 119407
in the medicaid provider. No such medicaid provider, owner, 119408
officer, authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee shall 119409
own or provide medicaid services to any other medicaid provider or 119410
risk contractor or arrange for, render, or order medicaid services 119411
for medicaid recipients, nor shall such provider, owner, officer, 119412
authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee receive 119413
reimbursement in the form of direct payments from the department119414
under the medicaid program or indirect payments of medicaid funds 119415
in the form of salary, shared fees, contracts, kickbacks, or 119416
rebates from or through any participatingother medicaid provider 119417
or risk contractor. The provider agreement shall not be terminated 119418
or reimbursement, and payment shall not be terminated, if the 119419
medicaid provider or owner can demonstrate that the provider or 119420
owner did not directly or indirectly sanction the action of its 119421
authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee that resulted in 119422
the conviction or entry of a judgment in a criminal or civil 119423
action brought pursuant to section 109.85 of the Revised Code. 119424
Nothing in this division prohibits any owner, officer, authorized 119425
agent, associate, manager, or employee of a medicaid provider from 119426
entering into a medicaid provider agreement if the person can 119427
demonstrate that the person had no knowledge of an action of the 119428
medicaid provider the person was formerly associated with that 119429
resulted in the conviction or entry of a judgment in a criminal or 119430
civil action brought pursuant to section 109.85 of the Revised 119431
Code.119432

        Nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the 119433
mentally retardedand ICF/IID providers whose provider agreements 119434
are terminated pursuant to this section may continue to receive 119435
reimbursementmedicaid payments for up to thirty days after the 119436
effective date of the termination if the provider makes reasonable 119437
efforts to transfer medicaid recipients to another facility or to 119438
alternate care and if federal funds arefinancial participation is119439
provided for such reimbursementthe payments.119440

       (D) For any reason permitted or required by federal law, the 119441
director of job and family services may deny a provider agreement 119442
or terminate a provider agreement.119443

       For any reason permitted or required by federal law, the 119444
director may exclude an individual, provider of services or goods, 119445
or other entity from participation in the medicaid program. No 119446
individual, provider, or entity excluded under this division shall 119447
own or provide services to any other medicaid provider or risk 119448
contractor or arrange for, render, or order services for medicaid 119449
recipients during the period of exclusion, nor, during the period 119450
of exclusion, shall such individual, provider, or entity receive 119451
reimbursement in the form of direct payments from the department 119452
or indirect payments of medicaid funds in the form of salary, 119453
shared fees, contracts, kickbacks, or rebates from or through any 119454
participating provider or risk contractor. An excluded individual, 119455
provider, or entity may request a reconsideration of the 119456
exclusion. The director shall adopt rules in accordance with 119457
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code governing the process for 119458
requesting a reconsideration.119459

       Nothing in this division limits the applicability of section 119460
5111.06 of the Revised Code to a medicaid provider.119461

       (E) Any provider of services or goods contracting with the 119462
department of job and family services pursuant to Title XIX of the 119463
"Social Security Act," who, without intent, obtains payments under 119464
this chapter in excess of the amount to which the provider is 119465
entitled, thereby becomes liable for payment of interest on the 119466
amount of the excess payments at the maximum real estate mortgage 119467
rate on the date the payment was made to the provider for the 119468
period from the date upon which payment was made to the date upon 119469
which repayment is made to the state.119470

       (F)(E) The attorney general on behalf of the state may 119471
commence proceedings to enforce this section in any court of 119472
competent jurisdiction; and the attorney general may settle or 119473
compromise any case brought under this section with the approval 119474
of the department of job and family servicesmedicaid. 119475
Notwithstanding any other provision of law providing a shorter 119476
period of limitations, the attorney general may commence a 119477
proceeding to enforce this section at any time within six years 119478
after the conduct in violation of this section terminates.119479

       (G) The authority, under state and federal law, of the 119480
department of job and family services or a county department of 119481
job and family services to recover excess payments made to a 119482
provider is not limited by the availability of remedies under 119483
sections 5111.11 and 5111.12 of the Revised Code for recovering 119484
benefits paid on behalf of recipients of medical assistance.119485

       The penalties under this chapter apply to any overpayment, 119486
billing, or falsification occurring on and after April 24, 1978.119487
(F) All moneys collected by the state pursuant to this section 119488
shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the 119489
general revenue fund.119490

       Sec. 5111.035.        Sec. 5164.36.  (A) As used in this section:119491

       (1) "CreditableCredible allegation of fraud" has the same 119492
meaning as in 42 C.F.R. 455.2, except that for purposes of this 119493
section any reference in that regulation to the "state" or the 119494
"state medicaid agency" means the department of job and family 119495
servicesmedicaid.119496

       (2) "Provider" has the same meaning as in section 5111.032 of 119497
the Revised Code.119498

       (3) "Owner" has the same meaning as in section 5111.031119499
5164.37 of the Revised Code.119500

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (C) of this section and 119501
in rules adoptedauthorized by the department of job and family 119502
services under division (J) of this section, on determining there 119503
is a creditablecredible allegation of fraud for which an 119504
investigation is pending under the medicaid program against a 119505
medicaid provider, the department of medicaid shall suspend the 119506
provider agreement held by the provider. Subject to division (C) 119507
of this section, the department shall also terminate medicaid 119508
reimbursementpayments to the provider for services rendered.119509

       (2)(a) The suspension shall continue in effect until either 119510
of the following is the case:119511

       (i) The department or a prosecuting authority determines that 119512
there is insufficient evidence of fraud by the medicaid provider;119513

       (ii) The proceedings in any related criminal case are 119514
completed through dismissal of the indictment or through 119515
conviction, entry of a guilty plea, or finding of not guilty.119516

       (b) If the department commences a process to terminate the 119517
suspended provider agreement, the suspension shall also continue 119518
in effect until the termination process is concluded.119519

       (3) Pursuant to section 5111.06 of the Revised Code, the 119520
department is not required to take action under division (B)(1) of 119521
this section by issuing an order pursuant to an adjudication in 119522
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.119523

       (4) When subject to a suspension under this section, a 119524
medicaid provider, owner, officer, authorized agent, associate, 119525
manager, or employee shall not own or provide services to any 119526
other medicaid provider or risk contractor or arrange for, render, 119527
or order services to any other medicaid provider or risk 119528
contractor or arrange for, render, or order services for medicaid 119529
recipients during the period of suspension. During the period of 119530
suspension, the provider, owner, officer, authorized agent, 119531
associate, manager, or employee shall not receive reimbursement in 119532
the form of direct payments from the departmentunder the medicaid 119533
program or indirect payments of medicaid funds in the form of 119534
salary, shared fees, contracts, kickbacks, or rebates from or 119535
through any participatingother medicaid provider or risk 119536
contractor.119537

       (C) The department shall not suspend a provider agreement or 119538
terminate medicaid reimbursementpayments under division (B) of 119539
this section if the medicaid provider or owner can demonstrate 119540
through the submission of written evidence that the provider or 119541
owner did not directly or indirectly sanction the action of its 119542
authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee that resulted in 119543
the creditablecredible allegation of fraud. 119544

       (D) The termination of medicaid reimbursementpayment under 119545
division (B) of this section applies only to payments for medicaid 119546
services rendered subsequent to the date on which the notice 119547
required by division (E) of this section is sent. Claims for 119548
reimbursementpayment of medicaid services rendered by the 119549
medicaid provider prior to the issuance of the notice may be 119550
subject to prepayment review procedures whereby the department 119551
reviews claims to determine whether they are supported by 119552
sufficient documentation, are in compliance with state and federal 119553
statutes and rules, and are otherwise complete.119554

       (E) After suspending a provider agreement under division (B) 119555
of this section, the department shall, as specified in 42 C.F.R. 119556
455.23(b), send notice of the suspension to the affected medicaid119557
provider or owner in accordance with the following timeframes:119558

       (1) Not later than five days after the suspension, unless a 119559
law enforcement agency makes a written request to temporarily 119560
delay the notice;119561

       (2) If a law enforcement agency makes a written request to 119562
temporarily delay the notice, not later than thirty days after the 119563
suspension occurs subject to the conditions specified in division 119564
(F) of this section. 119565

       (F) A written request for a temporary delay described in 119566
division (E)(2) of this section may be renewed in writing by a law 119567
enforcement agency not more than two times except that under no 119568
circumstances shall the notice be issued more than ninety days 119569
after the suspension occurs.119570

       (G) The notice required by division (E) of this section shall 119571
do all of the following:119572

       (1) State that payments are being suspended in accordance 119573
with this section and 42 C.F.R. 455.23;119574

       (2) Set forth the general allegations related to the nature 119575
of the conduct leading to the suspension, except that it is not 119576
necessary to disclose any specific information concerning an 119577
ongoing investigation;119578

       (3) State that the suspension continues to be in effect until 119579
either of the following is the case:119580

       (a) The department or a prosecuting authority determines that 119581
there is insufficient evidence of fraud by the provider;119582

       (b) The proceedings in any related criminal case are 119583
completed through dismissal of the indictment or through 119584
conviction, entry of a guilty plea, or finding of not guilty and, 119585
if the department commences a process to terminate the suspended 119586
provider agreement, until the termination process is concluded.119587

       (4) Specify, if applicable, the type or types of medicaid 119588
claims or business units of the medicaid provider that are 119589
affected by the suspension;119590

       (5) Inform the medicaid provider or owner of the opportunity 119591
to submit to the department, not later than thirty days after 119592
receiving the notice, a request for reconsideration of the 119593
suspension in accordance with division (H) of this section.119594

       (H)(1) Pursuant to the procedure specified in division (H)(2) 119595
of this section, a medicaid provider or owner subject to a 119596
suspension under this section may request a reconsideration of the 119597
suspension. The request shall be made not later than thirty days 119598
after receipt of a notice required by division (E) of this 119599
section. The reconsideration is not subject to an adjudication 119600
hearing pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.119601

       (2) In requesting a reconsideration, the medicaid provider or 119602
owner shall submit written information and documents to the 119603
department. The information and documents may pertain to any of 119604
the following issues:119605

       (a) Whether the determination to suspend the provider 119606
agreement was based on a mistake of fact, other than the validity 119607
of an indictment in a related criminal case.119608

       (b) If there has been an indictment in a related criminal 119609
case, whether any offense charged in the indictment resulted from 119610
an offense specified in division (E) of section 5111.0315164.37119611
of the Revised Code. 119612

       (c) Whether the provider or owner can demonstrate that the 119613
provider or owner did not directly or indirectly sanction the 119614
action of its authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee 119615
that resulted in the suspension under this section or an 119616
indictment in a related criminal case.119617

       (I) The department shall review the information and documents 119618
submitted in a request made under division (H) of this section for 119619
reconsideration of a suspension. After the review, the suspension 119620
may be affirmed, reversed, or modified, in whole or in part. The 119621
department shall notify the affected provider or owner of the 119622
results of the review. The review and notification of its results 119623
shall be completed not later than forty-five days after receiving 119624
the information and documents submitted in a request for 119625
reconsideration.119626

       (J) The department may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119627
119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. The rules119628
Rules adopted under section 5164.02 of the Revised Code may 119629
specify circumstances under which the department would not suspend 119630
a provider agreement pursuant to this section.119631

       Sec. 5111.031.        Sec. 5164.37. (A) As used in this section:119632

       (1) "Independent provider" has the same meaning as in section 119633
5111.0345164.341 of the Revised Code.119634

       (2) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 119635
and "nursing facility" have the same meanings as in section 119636
5111.20 of the Revised Code.119637

       (3) "Noninstitutional medicaid provider" means any person or 119638
entity with a medicaid provider agreement other than a hospital, 119639
nursing facility, or intermediate care facility for the mentally 119640
retardedICF/IID.119641

       (4)(3) "Owner" means any person having at least five per cent 119642
ownership in a noninstitutional medicaid provider.119643

       (B) Notwithstanding any provision of this chapter to the 119644
contrary, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 119645
take action under this section against a noninstitutional medicaid 119646
provider or its owner, officer, authorized agent, associate, 119647
manager, or employee.119648

       (C) Except as provided in division (D) of this section and in 119649
rules adoptedauthorized by the department under division (H) of119650
this section, on receiving notice and a copy of an indictment that 119651
is issued on or after September 29, 2007, and charges a 119652
noninstitutional medicaid provider or its owner, officer, 119653
authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee with committing 119654
an offense specified in division (E) of this section, the 119655
department shall suspend the provider agreement held by the 119656
noninstitutional medicaid provider. Subject to division (D) of 119657
this section, the department shall also terminate medicaid 119658
reimbursementpayments to the provider for medicaid services 119659
rendered.119660

       The suspension shall continue in effect until the proceedings 119661
in the criminal case are completed through dismissal of the 119662
indictment or through conviction, entry of a guilty plea, or 119663
finding of not guilty. If the department commences a process to 119664
terminate the suspended provider agreement, the suspension shall 119665
also continue in effect until the termination process is 119666
concluded. 119667

       Pursuant to section 5111.06 of the Revised Code, the 119668
department is not required to take action under this division by 119669
issuing an order pursuant to an adjudication conducted in 119670
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.119671

       When subject to a suspension under this division, a provider, 119672
owner, officer, authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee 119673
shall not own or provide medicaid services to any other medicaid 119674
provider or risk contractor or arrange for, render, or order 119675
medicaid services for medicaid recipients during the period of 119676
suspension. During the period of suspension, the provider, owner, 119677
officer, authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee shall 119678
not receive reimbursement in the form of direct payments from119679
under the departmentmedicaid program or indirect payments of 119680
medicaid funds in the form of salary, shared fees, contracts, 119681
kickbacks, or rebates from or through any participatingother 119682
medicaid provider or risk contractor.119683

       (D)(1) The department shall not suspend a provider agreement 119684
or terminate medicaid reimbursementpayments under division (C) of 119685
this section if the provider or owner can demonstrate through the 119686
submission of written evidence that the provider or owner did not 119687
directly or indirectly sanction the action of its authorized 119688
agent, associate, manager, or employee that resulted in the 119689
indictment.119690

       (2) The termination of medicaid reimbursementpayments119691
applies only to payments for medicaid services rendered subsequent 119692
to the date on which the notice required under division (F) of 119693
this section is sent. Claims for reimbursementpayment for 119694
medicaid services rendered by the provider prior to the issuance 119695
of the notice may be subject to prepayment review procedures 119696
whereby the department reviews claims to determine whether they 119697
are supported by sufficient documentation, are in compliance with 119698
state and federal statutes and rules, and are otherwise complete.119699

       (E)(1) In the case of a noninstitutional medicaid provider 119700
that is not an independent provider, the suspension of a provider 119701
agreement under division (C) of this section applies when an 119702
indictment charges a person with committing an act that would be a 119703
felony or misdemeanor under the laws of this state and the act 119704
relates to or results from either of the following:119705

       (a) Furnishing or billing for medical care,medicaid119706
services, or supplies under the medicaid program;119707

       (b) Participating in the performance of management or 119708
administrative services relating to furnishing medical care,119709
medicaid services, or supplies under the medicaid program.119710

       (2) In the case of a noninstitutional medicaid provider that 119711
is an independent provider, the suspension of a provider agreement 119712
under division (C) of this section applies when an indictment 119713
charges a person with committing an act that would constitute a 119714
disqualifying offense as defined in section 5111.0325164.34 of 119715
the Revised Code.119716

       (F) Not later than five days after suspending a provider 119717
agreement under division (C) of this section, the department shall 119718
send notice of the suspension to the affected provider or owner. 119719
In providing the notice, the department shall do all of the 119720
following:119721

       (1) Describe the indictment that was the cause of the 119722
suspension, without necessarily disclosing specific information 119723
concerning any ongoing civil or criminal investigation;119724

       (2) State that the suspension will continue in effect until 119725
the proceedings in the criminal case are completed through 119726
dismissal of the indictment or through conviction, entry of a 119727
guilty plea, or finding of not guilty and, if the department 119728
commences a process to terminate the suspended provider agreement, 119729
until the termination process is concluded;119730

       (3) Inform the provider or owner of the opportunity to submit 119731
to the department, not later than thirty days after receiving the 119732
notice, a request for a reconsideration pursuant to division (G) 119733
of this section. 119734

       (G)(1) Pursuant to the procedure specified in division (G)(2) 119735
of this section, a noninstitutional medicaid provider or owner 119736
subject to a suspension under this section may request a 119737
reconsideration. The request shall be made not later than thirty 119738
days after receipt of the notice provided under division (F) of 119739
this section. The reconsideration is not subject to an 119740
adjudication hearing pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.119741

       (2) In requesting a reconsideration, the provider or owner 119742
shall submit written information and documents to the department. 119743
The information and documents may pertain to any of the following 119744
issues:119745

       (a) Whether the determination to suspend the provider 119746
agreement was based on a mistake of fact, other than the validity 119747
of the indictment;119748

       (b) Whether any offense charged in the indictment resulted 119749
from an offense specified in division (E) of this section;119750

       (c) Whether the provider or owner can demonstrate that the 119751
provider or owner did not directly or indirectly sanction the 119752
action of its authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee 119753
that resulted in the indictment.119754

       (3) The department shall review the information and documents 119755
submitted in a request for reconsideration. After the review, the 119756
suspension may be affirmed, reversed, or modified, in whole or in 119757
part. The department shall notify the affected provider or owner 119758
of the results of the review. The review and notification of its 119759
results shall be completed not later than forty-five days after 119760
receiving the information and documents submitted in a request for 119761
reconsideration.119762

       (H) The department may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119763
119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. The rules119764
Rules adopted under section 5164.02 of the Revised Code may 119765
specify circumstances under which the department would not suspend 119766
a provider agreement pursuant to this section.119767

       Sec. 5111.06.        Sec. 5164.38.  (A)(1) As used in this section and in 119768
sections 5111.061 and 5111.063 of the Revised Code:119769

       (a) "Provider" means any person, institution, or entity that 119770
furnishes medicaid services under a provider agreement with the 119771
department of job and family services pursuant to Title XIX of the 119772
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as 119773
amended.119774

       (b) "Party" has the same meaning as in division (G) of 119775
section 119.01 of the Revised Code.119776

       (c)(1) "Adjudication" has the same meaning as in division (D) 119777
of section 119.01 of the Revised Code.119778

       (2) "Party" has the same meaning as in division (G) of 119779
section 119.01 of the Revised Code.119780

       (3) "Revalidate" means to approve a medicaid provider's 119781
continued enrollment as a medicaid provider in accordance with the 119782
revalidation process established in rules authorized by section 119783
5164.32 of the Revised Code.119784

       (B) This section does not apply to either of the following:119785

       (a)(1) Any action taken or decision made by the department of 119786
job and family servicesmedicaid with respect to entering into or 119787
refusing to enter into a contract with a managed care organization 119788
pursuant to section 5111.175167.10 of the Revised Code;119789

       (b)(2) Any action taken by the department under sections 119790
5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code.119791

       (B)(C) Except as provided in division (D)(E) of this section 119792
and section 5111.9145164.58 of the Revised Code, the department 119793
shall do eitherany of the following by issuing an order pursuant 119794
to an adjudication conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of 119795
the Revised Code:119796

       (1) Enter into or refuseRefuse to enter into a provider 119797
agreement with a medicaid provider, or suspend,;119798

       (2) Refuse to revalidate a medicaid provider's provider 119799
agreement;119800

       (3) Suspend or terminate, renew, or refuse to renew an 119801
existinga medicaid provider's provider agreement with a provider;119802

       (2)(4) Take any action based upon a final fiscal audit of a 119803
medicaid provider.119804

       (C)(D) Any party who is adversely affected by the issuance of 119805
an adjudication order under division (B)(C) of this section may 119806
appeal to the court of common pleas of Franklin county in 119807
accordance with section 119.12 of the Revised Code.119808

       (D)(E) The department is not required to comply with division 119809
(B)(C)(1), (2), or (3) of this section whenever any of the 119810
following occur:119811

       (1) The terms of a provider agreement require the medicaid119812
provider to hold a license, permit, or certificate or maintain a 119813
certification issued by an official, board, commission, 119814
department, division, bureau, or other agency of state or federal 119815
government other than the department of job and family services119816
medicaid, and the license, permit, certificate, or certification 119817
has been denied, revoked, not renewed, suspended, or otherwise 119818
limited.119819

       (2) The terms of a provider agreement require the medicaid119820
provider to hold a license, permit, or certificate or maintain 119821
certification issued by an official, board, commission, 119822
department, division, bureau, or other agency of state or federal 119823
government other than the department of job and family services119824
medicaid, and the provider has not obtained the license, permit, 119825
certificate, or certification.119826

       (3) The medicaid provider's application for a provider 119827
agreement is denied, or the provider's provider agreement is119828
terminated, or not renewed duerevalidated, because of or 119829
pursuant to theany of the following:119830

       (a) The termination, refusal to renew, or denial of a 119831
license, permit, certificate, or certification by an official, 119832
board, commission, department, division, bureau, or other agency 119833
of this state other than the department of job and family services119834
medicaid, notwithstanding the fact that the provider may hold a 119835
license, permit, certificate, or certification from an official, 119836
board, commission, department, division, bureau, or other agency 119837
of another state.119838

       (4) The provider agreement is denied, terminated, or not 119839
renewed pursuant to division (C);119840

       (b) Division (D) or (F)(E) of section 5111.035164.35 of the 119841
Revised Code.119842

       (5) The provider agreement is denied, terminated, or not 119843
renewed due to the;119844

       (c) The provider's termination, suspension, or exclusion from 119845
the medicare program established under Title XVIII of the "Social 119846
Security Act" or from another state's medicaid program and, in 119847
either case, the termination, suspension, or exclusion is binding 119848
on the provider's participation in the medicaid program in this 119849
state.119850

       (6) The provider agreement is denied, terminated, or not 119851
renewed due to the;119852

       (d) The provider's pleading guilty to or being convicted of a 119853
criminal activity materially related to either the medicare or 119854
medicaid program;119855

       (e) The provider or its owner, officer, authorized agent, 119856
associate, manager, or employee having been convicted of one of 119857
the offenses that caused the provider's provider agreement to be 119858
suspended pursuant to section 5164.36 of the Revised Code;119859

       (f) The provider's failure to provide the department the 119860
national provider identifier assigned the provider by the national 119861
provider system pursuant to 45 C.F.R. 162.408.119862

       (7)(4) The medicaid provider's application for a provider 119863
agreement is denied, or the provider's provider agreement is119864
terminated, or suspended, as a result of action by the United 119865
States department of health and human services and that action is 119866
binding on the provider's medicaid participation in the medicaid 119867
program.119868

       (8)(5) Pursuant to either section 5111.0315164.36 or 119869
5111.0355164.37 of the Revised Code, the medicaid provider's119870
provider agreement is suspended and payments to the provider are 119871
suspended pending indictment of the provider.119872

       (9) The provider agreement is denied, terminated, or not 119873
renewed because the provider or its owner, officer, authorized 119874
agent, associate, manager, or employee has been convicted of one 119875
of the offenses that caused the provider agreement to be suspended 119876
pursuant to section 5111.031 of the Revised Code.119877

       (10)(6) The medicaid provider's application for a provider 119878
agreement is denied because the provider's application was not 119879
complete;119880

       (7) The medicaid provider's provider agreement is converted 119881
under section 5111.0285164.32 of the Revised Code from a 119882
provider agreement that is not time-limited to a provider 119883
agreement that is time-limited.119884

       (11) The provider agreement is terminated or an application 119885
for re-enrollment is denied because the provider has failed to 119886
apply for re-enrollment within the time or in the manner specified 119887
for re-enrollment(8) Unless the medicaid provider is a nursing 119888
facility or ICF/IID, the provider's provider agreement is not 119889
revalidated pursuant to division (B)(1) of section 5111.028119890
5164.32 of the Revised Code.119891

       (12)(9) The medicaid provider's provider agreement is 119892
suspended or, terminated, or an application for enrollment or 119893
re-enrollment is denied, for anynot revalidated because of either 119894
of the following:119895

       (a) Any reason authorized or required by one or more of the 119896
following: 42 C.F.R. 455.106, 455.23, 455.416, 455.434, or 119897
455.450.119898

       (13) The provider agreement is terminated or not renewed 119899
because the;119900

       (b) The provider has not billed or otherwise submitted a 119901
medicaid claim to the department for two years or longer.119902

       (14) The provider agreement is denied, terminated, or not 119903
renewed because the provider fails to provide to the department 119904
the national provider identifier assigned the provider by the 119905
national provider system pursuant to 45 C.F.R. 162.408.119906

       (F) In the case of a medicaid provider described in division 119907
(D)(13)(E)(3)(f), (6), (7), or (14)(9)(b) of this section, the 119908
department may take its proposed action against a provider 119909
agreement by sending a notice explaining the proposed action to 119910
the provider. The notice shall be sent to the medicaid provider's 119911
address on record with the department. The notice may be sent by 119912
regular mail.119913

       (E)(G) The department may withhold payments for medicaid119914
services rendered by a medicaid provider under the medicaid 119915
program during the pendency of proceedings initiated under 119916
division (B)(C)(1), (2), or (3) of this section. If the 119917
proceedings are initiated under division (B)(2)(C)(4) of this 119918
section, the department may withhold payments only to the extent 119919
that they equal amounts determined in a final fiscal audit as 119920
being due the state. This division does not apply if the 119921
department fails to comply with section 119.07 of the Revised 119922
Code, requests a continuance of the hearing, or does not issue a 119923
decision within thirty days after the hearing is completed. This 119924
division does not apply to nursing facilities and intermediate 119925
care facilities for the mentally retarded as defined in section 119926
5111.20 of the Revised CodeICFs/IID.119927

       Sec. 5111.062.        Sec. 5164.39. In any action taken by the department 119928
of job and family servicesmedicaid under section 5111.065164.38119929
or 5111.0615164.57 of the Revised Code or any other provision of 119930
this chapterstate statute governing the medicaid program that 119931
requires the department to give notice of an opportunity for a 119932
hearing in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, if 119933
the department gives notice of the opportunity for a hearing but 119934
the medicaid provider or other entity subject to the notice does 119935
not request a hearing or timely request a hearing in accordance 119936
with section 119.07 of the Revised Code, the department is not 119937
required to hold a hearing. The medicaid director of job and 119938
family service may proceed by issuing a final adjudication order 119939
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.119940

       Sec. 5111.05.        Sec. 5164.45.  (A) The department of job and family 119941
servicesmedicaid may contract with any person or persons as a 119942
fiscal agent for the examination, processing, and determination of 119943
medical assistancemedicaid claims under this chapter. The 119944
contracting party may provide any of the following services, as 119945
required by the contract:119946

       (1) Design and operate medicaid management information 119947
systems, including the provision of data processing services;119948

       (2) Determine the amounts of payments to be made upon claims 119949
for medical assistancemedicaid;119950

       (3) Prepare and furnish to the department lists and computer 119951
tapes of such claims for payment;119952

       (4) In addition to audits which may be conducted by the 119953
department and by the auditor of state, make audits of providers 119954
and the claims of medicaid providers of medical assistance119955
according to the standards set forth in the contract;119956

       (5) Assist medicaid providers of medical assistance in the 119957
development of procedures relating to utilization practices, make 119958
studies of the effectiveness of such procedures and methods for 119959
their improvement, implement and enforce standards of medical 119960
policy, and assist in the application of safeguards against 119961
unnecessary utilization;119962

       (6) Assist any institution, facility, or agency to qualify as 119963
a medicaid provider of medical assistance;119964

       (7) Establish and maintain fiscal records for the medical 119965
assistancemedicaid program;119966

       (8) Perform statistical and research studies;119967

       (9) Develop and implement programs for medical assistance119968
medicaid cost containment;119969

       (10) Perform such other duties as are necessary to carry out 119970
the medical assistancemedicaid program.119971

       (B) The department of job and family services may contract 119972
with any person or persons as an insuring agent for the 119973
examination, processing, and determination of medical assistance119974
medicaid claims, as provided in division (A) of this section, and 119975
for the payment of medical assistancemedicaid claims through an 119976
underwritten program in which the state pays the insuring agent a 119977
monthly premium and the insuring agent pays for medicalmedicaid119978
services authorized under the state's medical assistance program. 119979
The person with whom the department contracts, with respect to the 119980
awarding, provisions, and performance of such contract, shall not 119981
be subject to the provisions of Title XXXIX of the Revised Code or 119982
to regulation by the department of insurance, nor to taxation as 119983
an insurance company pursuant to section 5725.18 or 5729.03 of the 119984
Revised Code. A contract with an insuring agent shall specify the 119985
qualifications, including capital and surplus requirements, and 119986
other conditions with which the insuring agent must comply.119987

       (C) In entering into a contract under this section, the 119988
department, in cooperation with the director of budget and 119989
management, shall determine that the contracting party is 119990
qualified to perform the required services and shall follow 119991
applicable procedures required of the department of administrative 119992
services in sections 125.07 to 125.11 of the Revised Code. A 119993
contract shall be awarded to the bidder who, with due 119994
consideration to the bidder's experience and financial capability, 119995
offers the lowest and best bid to the state for control of the 119996
costs of the medical assistancemedicaid program consistent with 119997
meeting the obligations under that program for fair and equitable 119998
treatment of medicaid recipients and medicaid providers of medical 119999
services. Any arrangement whereby funds are paid to an insuring or 120000
fiscal agent for administrative functions under this section 120001
shall, for the purposes of section 125.081 of the Revised Code, be 120002
deemed to be a contract or purchase by the department of 120003
administrative services; however, money to be used by an insuring 120004
agent to pay for medicalmedicaid services authorized under the 120005
state's medical assistance program shall not be deemed a contract 120006
or purchase within the meaning of such section.120007

       Sec. 5111.052.        Sec. 5164.46.  (A) As used in this section, 120008
"electronic claims submission process" means any of the following:120009

       (1) Electronic interchange of data;120010

       (2) Direct entry of data through an internet-based mechanism 120011
implemented by the department of job and family servicesmedicaid;120012

       (3) Any other process for the electronic submission of claims 120013
that is specified in rules adopted under this section 5162.02 of 120014
the Revised Code.120015

       (B) Not later than January 1, 2013, and except as provided in 120016
division (C) of this section, each medicaid provider of services 120017
to medicaid recipients shall do both of the following:120018

       (1) Use only an electronic claims submission process to 120019
submit to the department of job and family servicesmedicaid120020
claims for medicaid reimbursementpayment for medicaid services 120021
provided to medicaid recipients;120022

       (2) Arrange to receive medicaid reimbursementpayment from 120023
the department by means of electronic funds transfer.120024

       (C) Division (B) of this section does not apply to any of the 120025
following:120026

       (1) A nursing facility, as defined in section 5111.20 of the 120027
Revised Code;120028

       (2) An intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded, 120029
as defined in section 5111.20 of the Revised CodeICF/IID;120030

       (3) A medicaid managed care organization under contract with 120031
the department pursuant to section 5111.17 of the Revised Code;120032

       (4) Any other medicaid provider or type of medicaid provider 120033
designated in rules adopted under this section 5162.02 of the 120034
Revised Code.120035

       (D) The department shall not process a medicaid claim 120036
submitted on or after January 1, 2013, unless the claim is 120037
submitted through an electronic claims submission process in 120038
accordance with this section.120039

       (E) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 120040
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as the 120041
director considers necessary to implement this section.120042

       Sec. 5111.054.        Sec. 5164.47.  (A) As used in this section:120043

       (1) "Federal financial participation" means the federal 120044
government's share of expenditures made by an entity in 120045
implementing the medicaid program.120046

       (2), "OCHSPS" means the private, not-for-profit corporation 120047
known as the Ohio children's hospital solutions for patient 120048
safety, which was formed for the purpose of improving pediatric 120049
patient care in this state, which performs functions that are 120050
included within the functions of a peer review committee as 120051
defined in section 2305.25 of the Revised Code, and which consists 120052
of all of the following members: Akron children's hospital, 120053
Cincinnati children's hospital medical center, Cleveland clinic 120054
children's hospital, Dayton children's medical center, mercy 120055
children's hospital, nationwide children's hospital, rainbow 120056
babies & children's hospital, and Toledo children's hospital.120057

       (B) If, as authorized by section 5101.105160.10 of the 120058
Revised Code, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid 120059
director chooses to contract with a person to perform either or 120060
both of the following services, itthe director may contract with 120061
any qualified person, including OCHSPS, to perform the service or 120062
services on the department's behalf of the department of medicaid:120063

       (1) Review and analyze claims for medical assistance made 120064
under this chaptermedicaid services provided to children in 120065
accordance with all state and federal laws governing the 120066
confidentiality of patient-identifying information;120067

       (2) Perform quality assurance and quality review functions, 120068
other than those described in division (B)(1) of this section, 120069
related to medical assistance made under this chaptermedicaid 120070
services provided to children. 120071

       The functions specified in division (B)(2) of this section 120072
may include those recommended by the best evidence for advancing 120073
child health in Ohio now (BEACON) council. 120074

       (C) If the departmentdirector enters into a contract with 120075
OCHSPS for OCHSPS to perform either or both of the services 120076
described in division (B) of this section, OCHSPS shall, only for 120077
purposes of section 5101.115160.12 of the Revised Code, be 120078
considered a public entity and the departmentdirector shall seek 120079
federal financial participation for costs incurred by OCHSPS in 120080
performing the service or services.120081

       Sec. 5111.051.        Sec. 5164.48.  The medicaid director of job and 120082
family services may submit a medicaid state plan amendment or 120083
request for a federal waiver to the United States secretary of 120084
health and human services as necessary to implement, at the 120085
director's discretion, a system under which medicaid payments for 120086
medical assistance provided under the medicaid programservices120087
are made to an organization on behalf of themedicaid providers of 120088
the medical assistance. The system may not provide for an 120089
organization to receive an amount that exceeds, in aggregate, the 120090
amount the departmentmedicaid program would have paid directly to 120091
themedicaid providers if not for this section.120092

       Sec. 5164.55.  The department of medicaid may conduct final 120093
fiscal audits of medicaid providers in accordance with the 120094
applicable requirements set forth in federal laws and regulations 120095
and determine any amounts the provider may owe the state. When 120096
conducting final fiscal audits, the department shall consider 120097
generally accepted auditing standards, which include the use of 120098
statistical sampling.120099

       Sec. 5111.022.        Sec. 5164.56.  Under the medicaid program, any 120100
amount determined to be owed the state by a final fiscal audit 120101
conducted pursuant to division (D) of section 5111.0215164.55 of 120102
the Revised Code, upon the issuance of an adjudication order 120103
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that contains a 120104
finding that there is a preponderance of the evidence that thea 120105
medicaid provider will liquidate assets or file bankruptcy in 120106
order to prevent payment of the amount determined to be owed the 120107
state, becomes a lien upon the real and personal property of the 120108
provider. Upon failure of the provider to pay the amount to the 120109
state, the medicaid director of job and family services shall file 120110
notice of the lien, for which there shall be no charge, in the 120111
office of the county recorder of the county in which it is 120112
ascertained that the provider owns real or personal property. The 120113
director shall notify the provider by mail of the lien, but 120114
absence of proof that the notice was sent does not affect the 120115
validity of the lien. The lien is not valid as against the claim 120116
of any mortgagee, pledgee, purchaser, judgment creditor, or other 120117
lienholder of record at the time the notice is filed.120118

       If the provider acquires real or personal property after 120119
notice of the lien is filed, the lien shall not be valid as 120120
against the claim of any mortgagee, pledgee, subsequent bona fide 120121
purchaser for value, judgment creditor, or other lienholder of 120122
record to such after-acquired property unless the notice of lien 120123
is refiled after the property is acquired by the provider and 120124
before the competing lien attaches to the after-acquired property 120125
or before the conveyance to the subsequent bona fide purchaser for 120126
value.120127

       When the amount has been paid, the provider may record with 120128
the recorder notice of the payment. For recording such notice of 120129
payment, the recorder shall charge and receive from the provider a 120130
base fee of one dollar for services and a housing trust fund fee 120131
of one dollar pursuant to section 317.36 of the Revised Code.120132

       In the event of a distribution of athe provider's assets 120133
pursuant to an order of any court under the law of this state 120134
including any receivership, assignment for benefit of creditors, 120135
adjudicated insolvency, or similar proceedings, amounts then or 120136
thereafter due the state under this chapterthe medicaid program120137
have the same priority as provided by law for the payment of taxes 120138
due the state and shall be paid out of the receivership trust fund 120139
or other such trust fund in the same manner as provided for claims 120140
for unpaid taxes due the state.120141

       If the attorney general finds after investigation that any 120142
amount due the state under this chapterthe medicaid program is 120143
uncollectable, in whole or in part, the attorney general shall 120144
recommend to the director the cancellation of all or part of the 120145
claim. The director may thereupon effect the cancellation.120146

       Sec. 5111.061.        Sec. 5164.57. (A) As used in this section, 120147
"adjudication" has the same meaning as in section 119.01 of the 120148
Revised Code.120149

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (A)(B)(2) of this 120150
section, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid may 120151
recover a medicaid payment or portion of a payment made to a 120152
medicaid provider to which the provider is not entitled if the 120153
department notifies the provider of the overpayment during the 120154
five-year period immediately following the end of the state fiscal 120155
year in which the overpayment was made.120156

       (2) In the case of a hospital medicaid provider, if the 120157
department determines as a result of a medicare or medicaid cost 120158
report settlement that the provider received an amount under the 120159
medicaid program to which the provider is not entitled, the 120160
department may recover the overpayment if the department notifies 120161
the provider of the overpayment during the later of the following:120162

       (a) The five-year period immediately following the end of the 120163
state fiscal year in which the overpayment was made;120164

       (b) The one-year period immediately following the date the 120165
department receives from the United States centers for medicare 120166
and medicaid services a completed, audited, medicare cost report 120167
for the provider that applies to the state fiscal year in which 120168
the overpayment was made.120169

       (B)(C) Among the overpayments that may be recovered under 120170
this section are the following:120171

       (1) Payment for a medicaid service, or a day of service, not 120172
rendered;120173

       (2) Payment for a day of service at a full per diem rate that 120174
should have been paid at a percentage of the full per diem rate;120175

       (3) Payment for a medicaid service, or day of service, that 120176
was paid by, or partially paid by, a third party, as defined in 120177
section 5101.5715160.35 of the Revised Code, and the third 120178
party's payment or partial payment was not offset against the 120179
amount paid by the medicaid program to reduce or eliminate the 120180
amount that was paid by the medicaid program;120181

       (4) Payment when a medicaid recipient's responsibility for 120182
payment was understated and resulted in an overpayment to the 120183
provider.120184

       (C)(D) The department may recover an overpayment under this 120185
section prior to or after any of the following:120186

       (1) Adjudication of a final fiscal audit that section 5111.06120187
5164.38 of the Revised Code requires to be conducted in accordance 120188
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code;120189

       (2) Adjudication of a finding under any other provision of 120190
this chapterstate statutes governing the medicaid program or the 120191
rules adopted under itthose statutes;120192

       (3) Expiration of the time to issue a final fiscal audit that 120193
section 5111.065164.38 of the Revised Code requires to be 120194
conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code;120195

       (4) Expiration of the time to issue a finding under any other 120196
provision of this chapterstate statutes governing the medicaid 120197
program or the rules adopted under itthose statutes.120198

       (D)(E)(1) Subject to division (D)(E)(2) of this section, the 120199
recovery of an overpayment under this section does not preclude 120200
the department from subsequently doing the following:120201

       (a) Issuing a final fiscal audit in accordance with Chapter 120202
119. of the Revised Code, as required under section 5111.06120203
5164.38 of the Revised Code;120204

       (b) Issuing a finding under any other provision of this 120205
chapterstate statutes governing the medicaid program or the rules 120206
adopted under itthose statutes.120207

       (2) A final fiscal audit or finding issued subsequent to the 120208
recovery of an overpayment under this section shall be reduced by 120209
the amount of the prior recovery, as appropriate.120210

       (E)(F) Nothing in this section limits the department's 120211
authority to recover overpayments pursuant to any other provision 120212
of the Revised Code.120213

       Sec. 5111.914.        Sec. 5164.58. (A) As used in this section, 120214
"provider" has the same meaning as in section 5111.06 of the 120215
Revised Code.120216

       (B) If a state agency that enters into a contract with the 120217
department of job and family servicesmedicaid under section 120218
5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code identifies that a medicaid 120219
overpayment has been made to a medicaid provider, the state agency 120220
may commence actions to recover the overpayment on behalf of the 120221
department.120222

       (C)(B) In recovering an overpayment pursuant to this section, 120223
a state agency shall comply with the following procedures:120224

       (1) The state agency shall attempt to recover the overpayment 120225
by notifying the medicaid provider of the overpayment and 120226
requesting voluntary repayment. Not later than five business days 120227
after notifying the medicaid provider, the state agency shall 120228
notify the department in writing of the overpayment. The state 120229
agency may negotiate a settlement of the overpayment and notify 120230
the department of the settlement. A settlement negotiated by the 120231
state agency is not valid and shall not be implemented until the 120232
department has given its written approval of the settlement.120233

       (2) If the state agency is unable to obtain voluntary 120234
repayment of an overpayment, the agency shall give the medicaid120235
provider notice of an opportunity for a hearing in accordance with 120236
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. If the medicaid provider timely 120237
requests a hearing in accordance with section 119.07 of the 120238
Revised Code, the state agency shall conduct the hearing to 120239
determine the legal and factual validity of the overpayment. On 120240
completion of the hearing, the state agency shall submit its 120241
hearing officer's report and recommendation and the complete 120242
record of proceedings, including all transcripts, to the medicaid120243
director of job and family services for final adjudication. The 120244
director may issue a final adjudication order in accordance with 120245
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. The state agency shall pay any 120246
attorney's fees imposed under section 119.092 of the Revised Code. 120247
The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall pay any 120248
attorney's fees imposed under section 2335.39 of the Revised Code.120249

       (D)(C) In any action taken by a state agency under this 120250
section that requires the agency to give notice of an opportunity 120251
for a hearing in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 120252
if the agency gives notice of the opportunity for a hearing but 120253
the medicaid provider subject to the notice does not request a 120254
hearing or timely request a hearing in accordance with section 120255
119.07 of the Revised Code, the agency is not required to hold a 120256
hearing. The agency may request that the medicaid director of job 120257
and family services issue a final adjudication order in accordance 120258
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.120259

       (E)(D) This section does not preclude the department of job 120260
and family servicesmedicaid from adjudicating a final fiscal 120261
audit under section 5111.065164.38 of the Revised Code, 120262
recovering overpayments under section 5111.0615164.57 of the 120263
Revised Code, or making findings or taking other actions 120264
authorized by this chapterstate statutes governing the medicaid 120265
program.120266

       Sec. 5164.59.  The department of medicaid may deduct from 120267
medicaid payments for medicaid services rendered by a medicaid 120268
provider any amounts the provider owes the state as the result of 120269
incorrect medicaid payments the department has made to the 120270
provider.120271

       Sec. 5164.60. (A) As used in this section, "recovery audit 120272
contractor program" means the program that must be established 120273
under the "Social Security Act," section 1902(a)(42)(B), 42 U.S.C. 120274
1396a(a)(42)(B).120275

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, any 120276
medicaid provider who, without intent, obtains payments under the 120277
medicaid program in excess of the amount to which the provider is 120278
entitled is liable for payment of interest on the amount of the 120279
excess payments at the maximum interest rate allowable for real 120280
estate mortgages under section 1343.01 of the Revised Code on the 120281
date the payment was made to the provider for the period from the 120282
date on which payment was made to the date on which repayment is 120283
made to the state.120284

       (C) Division (B) of this section does not apply to an excess 120285
payment identified under the recovery audit contractor program if 120286
the medicaid provider who obtains the excess payment repays the 120287
excess payment in full not later than thirty days after receiving 120288
notice of the excess payment.120289

       Sec. 5164.61.  The authority, under state and federal law, of 120290
the department of medicaid or a county department of job and 120291
family services to recover excess medicaid payments made to a 120292
medicaid provider is not limited by the availability of remedies 120293
under sections 5162.21 and 5162.23 of the Revised Code for 120294
recovering benefits paid on behalf of medicaid recipients.120295

       Sec. 5111.021.        Sec. 5164.70. Under the medicaid program:120296

       (A) Except as otherwise required by federal statute or 120297
regulation, the department of job and family services shall not 120298
reimburse a medical providerno medicaid payment for any medical 120299
assistance rendered under the program an amount that exceeds120300
medicaid service shall exceed the following:120301

       (1)(A) If the medicaid provider is a hospital, nursing 120302
facility, or intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded120303
ICF/IID, the limits established under Subpart C of 42 C.F.R. Part 120304
447;120305

       (2)(B) If the medicaid provider is other than a provider 120306
described in division (A)(1) of this section, the authorized 120307
reimbursementpayment limits for the same service under the 120308
medicare program established under Title XVIII of the "Social 120309
Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395, as amended.120310

       (B) Reimbursement for freestanding medical laboratory charges 120311
shall not exceed the customary and usual fee for laboratory 120312
profiles.120313

       (C) The department may deduct from payments for services 120314
rendered by a medicaid provider under the medicaid program any 120315
amounts the provider owes the state as the result of incorrect 120316
medicaid payments the department has made to the provider.120317

       (D) The department may conduct final fiscal audits in 120318
accordance with the applicable requirements set forth in federal 120319
laws and regulations and determine any amounts the provider may 120320
owe the state. When conducting final fiscal audits, the department 120321
shall consider generally accepted auditing standards, which 120322
include the use of statistical sampling.120323

       (E) The number of days of inpatient hospital care for which 120324
reimbursement is made on behalf of a medicaid recipient to a 120325
hospital that is not paid under a diagnostic-related-group 120326
prospective payment system shall not exceed thirty days during a 120327
period beginning on the day of the recipient's admission to the 120328
hospital and ending sixty days after the termination of that 120329
hospital stay, except that the department may make exceptions to 120330
this limitation. The limitation does not apply to children 120331
participating in the program for medically handicapped children 120332
established under section 3701.023 of the Revised Code.120333

       (F) The division of any reimbursement between a collaborating 120334
physician or podiatrist and a clinical nurse specialist, certified 120335
nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner for services 120336
performed by the nurse shall be determined and agreed on by the 120337
nurse and collaborating physician or podiatrist. In no case shall 120338
reimbursement exceed the payment that the physician or podiatrist 120339
would have received had the physician or podiatrist provided the 120340
entire service.120341

       Sec. 5164.71.  Medicaid payments for freestanding medical 120342
laboratory charges shall not exceed the customary and usual fee 120343
for laboratory profiles.120344

       Sec. 5164.72.  The number of days of inpatient hospital care 120345
for which a medicaid payment is made on behalf of a medicaid 120346
recipient to a hospital that is not paid under a 120347
diagnostic-related-group prospective payment system shall not 120348
exceed thirty days during a period beginning on the day of the 120349
recipient's admission to the hospital and ending sixty days after 120350
the termination of that hospital stay, except that the department 120351
of medicaid may make exceptions to this limitation. The limitation 120352
does not apply to children participating in the program for 120353
medically handicapped children established under section 3701.023 120354
of the Revised Code.120355

       Sec. 5164.73.  The division of any medicaid payment between a 120356
collaborating physician or podiatrist and a clinical nurse 120357
specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse 120358
practitioner for services performed by the nurse shall be 120359
determined and agreed on by the nurse and collaborating physician 120360
or podiatrist. In no case shall the medicaid payment exceed the 120361
medicaid payment that the physician or podiatrist would have 120362
received had the physician or podiatrist provided the entire 120363
service.120364

       Sec. 5111.19.        Sec. 5164.74.  The medicaid director of job and 120365
family services shall adopt rules under section 5164.02 of the 120366
Revised Code governing the calculation and payment of, and the 120367
allocation of payments for, graduate medical education costs 120368
associated with medicaid services rendered to medicaid recipients 120369
after June 30, 1994. Subject to section 5111.1915164.741 of the 120370
Revised Code, the rules shall provide for reimbursementpayment120371
of graduate medical education costs associated with medicaid120372
services rendered to medicaid recipients, including recipients 120373
enrolled in a medicaid managed care organization under contract 120374
with the department office under section 5111.17 of the Revised 120375
Code, that the department of medicaid determines are allowable and 120376
reasonable.120377

       If the department requires a managed care organization to pay 120378
a provider for graduate medical education costs associated with 120379
the delivery of services to medicaid recipients enrolled in the 120380
organization, the department shall include in its payment to the 120381
organization an amount sufficient for the organization to pay such 120382
costs. If the department does not include in its payments to the 120383
managed care organization amounts for graduate medical education 120384
costs of providers, all of the following apply:120385

       (A) Except as provided in section 5111.191 of the Revised 120386
Code, the department shall pay the provider for graduate medical 120387
education costs associated with the delivery of services to 120388
medicaid recipients enrolled in the organization;120389

       (B) No provider shall seek reimbursement from the 120390
organization for such costs;120391

       (C) The organization is not required to pay providers for 120392
such costs.120393

       Sec. 5111.191.        Sec. 5164.741.  (A) Except as provided in division 120394
(B) of this section, the department of job and family services120395
medicaid may deny medicaid payment to a hospital for direct 120396
graduate medical education costs associated with the delivery of 120397
medicaid services to any medicaid recipient if the hospital 120398
refuses without good cause to contract with a medicaid managed 120399
care organization that serves participants in the care management 120400
system established under section 5111.16 of the Revised Code who 120401
are required to be enrolled in a managed care organization and the 120402
managed care organization serves the area in which the hospital is 120403
located.120404

       (B) A hospital is not subject to division (A) of this section 120405
if all of the following are the case:120406

        (1) The hospital is located in a county in which participants 120407
in the care management system are required before January 1, 2006, 120408
to be enrolled in a medicaid managed care organization that is a 120409
health insuring corporation.120410

        (2) The hospital has entered into a contract before January 120411
1, 2006, with at least one health insuring corporation serving the 120412
participants specified in division (B)(1) of this section.120413

        (3) The hospital remains under contract with at least one 120414
health insuring corporation serving participants in the care 120415
management system who are required to be enrolled in a health 120416
insuring corporation.120417

       (C) The medicaid director of job and family services shall 120418
specify in the rules adopted under section 5111.195164.02 of the 120419
Revised Code what constitutes good cause for a hospital to refuse 120420
to contract with a medicaid managed care organization.120421

       Sec. 5111.086.        Sec. 5164.75.  As used in this section, "federal 120422
upper reimbursement limit" means the limit established pursuant to 120423
section 1927(e) of the "Social Security Act," 104 Stat. 1388-151 120424
(1990)section 1927(e), 42 U.S.C. 1396r-8(e), as amended.120425

       The medicaid payment for a drug that is subject to a federal 120426
upper reimbursement limit shall not exceed, in the aggregate, the 120427
federal upper reimbursement limit for the drug. The director of 120428
job and family services shall adopt rules under section 5111.02 of 120429
the Revised Code as necessary to implement this section.120430

       Sec. 5111.082.        Sec. 5164.751. (A) As used in this section:120431

       (1) "State, "state maximum allowable cost" means the per unit 120432
amount the department of job and family services reimburses120433
medicaid program pays a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs 120434
for a prescriptionprescribed drug included in the state maximum 120435
allowable cost program established under division (B) of this 120436
section. "State maximum allowable cost" excludes dispensing fees 120437
and copayments, coinsurance, or other cost-sharing charges, if 120438
any.120439

        (2) "Terminal distributor of dangerous drugs" has the same 120440
meaning as in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code.120441

        (B) The medicaid director of job and family services shall 120442
establish a state maximum allowable cost program for purposes of 120443
managing reimbursementmedicaid payments to terminal distributors 120444
of dangerous drugs for prescriptionprescribed drugs identified by 120445
the director pursuant to this division. The director shall do all 120446
of the following with respect to the program:120447

        (1) Identify and create a list of prescription prescribed120448
drugs to be included in the program.120449

        (2) Update the list of prescriptionprescribed drugs 120450
described in division (B)(1) of this section on a weekly basis.120451

        (3) Review the state maximum allowable cost for each 120452
prescribed drug included on the list described in division (B)(1) 120453
of this section on a weekly basis.120454

       (C) The director may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 120455
119. of the Revised Code to implement this section.120456

       Sec. 5111.07.        Sec. 5164.752. Commencing inIn July, 1986, andof120457
every second July thereaftereven-numbered year, the department 120458
of job and family servicesmedicaid shall initiate a private120459
confidential survey of retail pharmacy operationsthe cost of 120460
dispensing drugs incurred by terminal distributors of dangerous 120461
drugs in thethis state. The survey shall be used as the basis for 120462
establishing a current maximumthe medicaid program's dispensing 120463
fee for licensed pharmacists who are providers of drugs under this 120464
chapter. Theterminal distributors in accordance with section 120465
5164.753 of the Revised Code. The survey shall be completed and 120466
its results published not later than the last day of October of 120467
the year in which it is conducted.120468

        Each terminal distributor that is a provider of drugs under 120469
the medicaid program shall participate in the survey. Except as 120470
necessary to publish the survey's results, a terminal 120471
distributor's responses to the survey are confidential and not a 120472
public record under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.120473

        The survey shall be conducted in conformance with the 120474
requirements set forth in 42 C.F.R. 447.331 through 447.333, as 120475
amended or superseded, and447.500 to 447.518. The survey shall 120476
include operational data and direct prescription expenses, 120477
professional services and personnel costs, and usual and 120478
customary overhead expenses, and profit data of the retail 120479
pharmaciesterminal distributors surveyed. The survey shall be 120480
completed and its results published no later than the last day of 120481
October of the year in which the survey is conducted, and the120482
survey shall compute and report the cost of dispensing fees on a 120483
basis of the usual and customary charges by retail pharmacies120484
terminal distributors to their customers for dispensing drugs. The 120485
director of job and family services shall take into account the 120486
results of the survey in establishing a dispensing fee.120487

       Sec. 5111.071.        Sec. 5164.753. Commencing inIn December, 1986, and120488
of every second December thereaftereven-numbered year, the 120489
medicaid director of job and family services shall establish a 120490
dispensing fee, effective the following JanuaryJuly, for licensed 120491
pharmacists whoterminal distributors of dangerous drugs that are 120492
providers of drugs under this chapterthe medicaid program. TheIn 120493
establishing the dispensing fee, the director shall take into 120494
consideration the results of the survey conducted under section 120495
5111.075164.752 of the Revised Code.120496

       The director may reduce the amount of the dispensing fee 120497
provided to a terminal distributor that fails to fully comply with 120498
the requirement of section 5164.752 of the Revised Code that the 120499
distributor participate in the survey. In establishing the amount 120500
of the reduction, the director may take into account the extent to 120501
which the terminal distributor failed to fully participated in the 120502
survey.120503

       Sec. 5111.0114.        Sec. 5164.754. (A) As used in this section, 120504
"dangerous drug" and "manufacturer of dangerous drugs" have the 120505
same meaning as in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code.120506

        (B) The medicaid director of job and family services may 120507
enter into or administer an agreement or cooperative arrangement 120508
with other states to create or join a multiple-state prescription 120509
drug purchasing program for the purpose of negotiating with 120510
manufacturers of dangerous drugs to receive discounts or rebates 120511
for dangerous drugs dispensed undercovered by the medicaid 120512
program.120513

       Sec. 5111.081.        Sec. 5164.755.  The medicaid director of job and 120514
family services, in rules adopted under section 5111.025164.02 of 120515
the Revised Code, may establish and implement a supplemental drug 120516
rebate program under which drug manufacturers may be required to 120517
provide the department of job and family servicesmedicaid a 120518
supplemental rebate as a condition of having the drug 120519
manufacturers' drug products covered by the medicaid program 120520
without prior approval. The department may receive a supplemental 120521
rebate negotiated under the program for a drug dispensed to a 120522
medicaid recipient pursuant to a prescription or a drug purchased 120523
by a medicaid provider for administration to a medicaid recipient 120524
in the provider's primary place of business. If necessary, the 120525
director may apply to the United States secretary of health and 120526
human services for a waiver of federal statutes and regulations to 120527
establish the supplemental drug rebate program.120528

       If the director establishes a supplemental drug rebate 120529
program, the director shall consult with drug manufacturers 120530
regarding the establishment and implementation of the program.120531

       Sec. 5101.31.        Sec. 5164.756. Any record, data, pricing information, 120532
or other information regarding a drug rebate agreement or a 120533
supplemental drug rebate agreement for the medicaid program 120534
established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code that the 120535
department of job and family servicesmedicaid receives from a 120536
pharmaceutical manufacturer or creates pursuant to negotiation of 120537
the agreement is not a public record under section 149.43 of the 120538
Revised Code and shall be treated by the department as 120539
confidential information.120540

       Sec. 5111.083.        Sec. 5164.757. (A) As used in this section, 120541
"licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs" has 120542
the same meaning as in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code.120543

        (B) The medicaid director of job and family services may 120544
establish anacquire or specify technologies to provide 120545
information regarding medicaid recipient eligibility, claims 120546
history, and drug coverage to medicaid providers through 120547
electronic health record and e-prescribing system for the 120548
medicaid program under whichapplications.120549

        If such technologies are acquired or specified, the 120550
e-prescribing applications shall enable a medicaid provider who 120551
is a licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs 120552
shallto use an electronic system to prescribe a drug for a 120553
medicaid recipient when required to do so by division (C) of this 120554
section. The e-prescribingpurpose of the electronic system shall120555
is to eliminate the need for such medicaid providers to makeissue120556
prescriptions for medicaid recipients by handwriting or telephone. 120557
The e-prescribing systemtechnologies acquired or specified by the 120558
director also shall provide such medicaid providers with an 120559
up-to-date, clinically relevant drug information database and a 120560
system of electronically monitoring medicaid recipients' medical 120561
history, drug regimen compliance, and fraud and abuse.120562

       (C) If the director establishes an e-prescribing system under 120563
division (B) of this section, the director shall do all of the 120564
following:120565

       (1) Require that a medicaid provider who is a licensed health 120566
professional authorized to prescribe drugs use the e-prescribing 120567
system during a fiscal year if the medicaid provider was one of 120568
the ten medicaid providers who, during the calendar year that 120569
precedes that fiscal year, issued the most prescriptions for 120570
medicaid recipients receiving hospital services;120571

       (2) Before the beginning of each fiscal year, determine the 120572
ten medicaid providers that issued the most prescriptions for 120573
medicaid recipients receiving hospital services during the 120574
calendar year that precedes the upcoming fiscal year and notify 120575
those medicaid providers that they must use the e-prescribing 120576
system for the upcoming fiscal year;120577

       (3) Seek the most federal financial participation available 120578
for the development and implementation of the e-prescribing 120579
system.120580

       Sec. 5111.085.        Sec. 5164.758. Not later than July 1, 2012, the 120581
department of job and family servicesThe medicaid director shall 120582
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119.under section 5164.02120583
of the Revised Code to implement a coordinated services program 120584
for medicaid recipients who are found to have obtained 120585
prescriptionprescribed drugs under the medicaid program at a 120586
frequency or in an amount that is not medically necessary. The 120587
program shall be implemented in a manner that is consistent with 120588
section 1915(a)(2) of the "Social Security Act," 95 Stat. 810 120589
(1981)section 1915(a)(2), 42 U.S.C. 1396n(a)(2), as amended, and 120590
42 C.F.R. 431.54(e).120591

       Sec. 5111.08.        Sec. 5164.759.  In accordance with subsection (g) of 120592
section 1927 of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 320 (1935)120593
section 1927(g), 42 U.S.C.A. 1396r-8(g), as amended, the 120594
department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall establish an 120595
outpatient drug use review program to assure that prescriptions 120596
obtained by medicaid recipients of medical assistance under this 120597
chapter are appropriate, medically necessary, and unlikely to 120598
cause adverse medical results.120599

       Sec. 5111.084.        Sec. 5164.7510.  (A) There is hereby established the 120600
pharmacy and therapeutics committee of the department of job and 120601
family servicesmedicaid. The committee shall assist the 120602
department with developing and maintaining a preferred drug list 120603
for the medicaid program.120604

       The committee shall review and recommend to the medicaid120605
director of job and family services the drugs that should be 120606
included on the preferred drug list. The recommendations shall be 120607
made based on the evaluation of competent evidence regarding the 120608
relative safety, efficacy, and effectiveness of prescription120609
prescribed drugs within a class or classes of prescription120610
prescribed drugs.120611

       (B) The committee shall consist of ten members and shall be 120612
appointed by the medicaid director of job and family services. The 120613
director shall seek recommendations for membership from relevant 120614
professional organizations. A candidate for membership recommended 120615
by a professional organization shall have professional experience 120616
working with medicaid recipients.120617

       The membership of the committee shall include:120618

       (1) Three pharmacists licensed under Chapter 4729. of the 120619
Revised Code;120620

       (2) Two doctors of medicine and two doctors of osteopathy who 120621
hold certificates to practice issued under Chapter 4731. of the 120622
Revised Code, one of whom is a family practice physician;120623

       (3) A registered nurse licensed under Chapter 4723. of the 120624
Revised Code;120625

       (4) A pharmacologist who has a doctoral degree;120626

       (5) A psychiatrist who holds a certificate to practice issued 120627
under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code and specializes in 120628
psychiatry.120629

       (C) The committee shall elect from among its members a 120630
chairperson. Five committee members constitute a quorum.120631

       The committee shall establish guidelines necessary for the 120632
committee's operation.120633

       The committee may establish one or more subcommittees to 120634
investigate and analyze issues consistent with the duties of the 120635
committee under this section. The subcommittees may submit 120636
proposals regarding the issues to the committee and the committee 120637
may adopt, reject, or modify the proposals.120638

       A vote by a majority of a quorum is necessary to make 120639
recommendations to the director. In the case of a tie, the 120640
chairperson shall decide the outcome.120641

       (D) The director shall act on the committee's recommendations 120642
not later than thirty days after the recommendation is posted on 120643
the department's web site under division (F) of this section. If 120644
the director does not accept a recommendation of the committee, 120645
the director shall present the basis for this determination not 120646
later than fourteen days after making the determination or at the 120647
next scheduled meeting of the committee, whichever is sooner. 120648

       (E) An interested party may request, and shall be permitted, 120649
to make a presentation or submit written materials to the 120650
committee during a committee meeting. The presentation or other 120651
materials shall be relevant to an issue under consideration by the 120652
committee and any written material, including a transcript of 120653
testimony to be given on the day of the meeting, may be submitted 120654
to the committee in advance of the meeting.120655

       (F) The department shall post the following on the 120656
department's web site:120657

       (1) Guidelines established by the committee under division 120658
(C) of this section;120659

       (2) A detailed committee agenda not later than fourteen days 120660
prior to the date of a regularly scheduled meeting and not later 120661
than seventy-two hours prior to the date of a special meeting 120662
called by the committee;120663

       (3) Committee recommendations not later than seven days after 120664
the meeting at which the recommendation was approved;120665

       (4) The director's final determination as to the 120666
recommendations made by the committee under this section.120667

       Sec. 5111.025.        Sec. 5164.76. (A) In rules adopted under section 120668
5111.025164.02 of the Revised Code, the medicaid director of job 120669
and family services shall modify the manner or establish a new 120670
manner in which the following are paid under medicaid:120671

        (1) Community mental health agenciesservice providers or 120672
facilities for providing community mental health services included 120673
incovered by the state medicaid planprogram pursuant to section 120674
5111.0235164.15 of the Revised Code;120675

        (2) Providers of alcohol and drug addiction services for 120676
providing alcohol and drug addiction services included incovered 120677
by the medicaid program pursuant to rules adopted under section 120678
5111.02 of the Revised Code.120679

       (B) The director's authority to modify the manner, or to 120680
establish a new manner, for medicaid to pay for the services 120681
specified in division (A) of this section is not limited by any 120682
rules adopted under section 5111.02 or 5119.615119.22 or 5164.02120683
of the Revised Code that are in effect on June 26, 2003, and 120684
govern the way medicaid pays for those services. This is the case 120685
regardless of what state agency adopted the rules.120686

       Sec. 5111.0213.        Sec. 5164.77.  (A) As used in this section:120687

       (1) "Aide services" means all of the following:120688

       (a) Home health aide services available under the home health 120689
services benefit pursuant to 42 C.F.R. 440.70(b)(2);120690

       (b) Home care attendant services available under a home and 120691
community-based services medicaid waiver component;120692

       (c) Personal care aide services available under a home and 120693
community-based services medicaid waiver component.120694

       (2) "Home and community-based services medicaid waiver 120695
component" has the same meaning as in section 5111.85 of the 120696
Revised Code.120697

       (3) "Independent provider" means an individual who personally 120698
provides aide services or nursing services and is not employed by, 120699
under contract with, or affiliated with another entity that 120700
provides those services.120701

       (4)(3) "Nursing services" means all of the following:120702

       (a) Nursing services available under the home health services 120703
benefit pursuant to 42 C.F.R. 440.70(b)(1);120704

       (b) Private duty nursing services as defined in 42 C.F.R. 120705
440.80;120706

       (c) Nursing services available under a home and 120707
community-based services medicaid waiver component.120708

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 120709
do bothall of the following:120710

       (1) Effective October 1, 2011, reduce the medicaid program's 120711
first-hour-unit price for aide services to ninety-seven per cent 120712
of the price paid on June 30, 2011, and for nursing services to 120713
ninety-five per cent of the price paid on June 30, 2011;120714

       (2) Effective October 1, 2011, pay for a service that is an 120715
aide service or a nursing service provided by an independent 120716
provider eighty per cent of the price it pays for the same service 120717
provided by a provider that is not an independent provider;120718

       (3) Not sooner than July 1, 2012, adjust the medicaid 120719
reimbursementpayment rates for aide services and nursing services 120720
in a manner that reflects, at a minimum, labor market data, 120721
education and licensure status, home health agency and independent 120722
provider status, and length of service visit.120723

       (C) The department shall strive to have the adjustment made 120724
under division (B)(3) of this section go into effect on July 1, 120725
2012. The reductions made under divisions (B)(1) and (2) of this 120726
section shall remain in effect until the adjustment made under 120727
division (B)(3) of this section goes into effect.120728

       (D) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 120729
under sections 5111.02 and 5111.85 of the Revised Code as 120730
necessary to implement this section.120731

       Sec. 5164.78. (A) The medicaid payment rates for physician, 120732
pregnancy-related, evaluation, and management services provided by 120733
a physician group practice meeting the requirements of division 120734
(B) of this section shall be determined in accordance with rule 120735
5101:3-1-60.1 of the Administrative Code as the rule is in effect 120736
on the day immediately preceding the effective date of this 120737
section.120738

        (B) A physician group practice meets the requirements of this 120739
division if both of the following apply to the practice:120740

        (1) The practice is physically attached to a hospital that 120741
does not provide physician clinic outpatient services and the 120742
practice and hospital have signed a letter of agreement providing 120743
for the practice to provide outpatient hospital clinic services 120744
for the hospital.120745

        (2) The medicaid provider utilization summary for calendar 120746
year 1990 establishes that the practice provided both of the 120747
following that year:120748

        (a) At least forty per cent of the total number of medicaid 120749
physician visits provided in the county in which the practice is 120750
located;120751

        (b) An aggregate total of at least ten per cent of medicaid 120752
physician visits provided in the contiguous counties. 120753

       (C) Not later than four years after the effective date of 120754
this section, the department of medicaid shall submit a report 120755
regarding this section to the general assembly in accordance with 120756
section 101.68 of the Revised Code.120757

       Sec. 5111.0212.        Sec. 5164.80.  As necessary to comply with section 120758
1902(a)(13)(A) of the "Social Security Act," 111 Stat. 507 (1997)120759
section 1902(a)(13)(A), 42 U.S.C. 1396a(a)(13)(A), as amended, and 120760
any other federal law that requires public notice of proposed 120761
changes to reimbursementpayment rates for medical assistance 120762
provided under the medicaid programservices, the medicaid120763
director of job and family services shall give public notice in 120764
the register of Ohio of any change to a method or standard used to 120765
determine the medicaid reimbursementpayment rate for medical 120766
assistancea medicaid service.120767

       Sec. 5111.0214.        Sec. 5164.82. The department of job and family 120768
servicesmedicaid shall not knowingly make a medicaid payment for 120769
a provider-preventable condition for which federal financial 120770
participation is prohibited by regulations adopted under section 120771
2702 of the "Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act," 124 120772
Stat. 318 (2010)section 2702, 42 U.S.C. 1396b-1. The director of 120773
job and family services shall adopt rules under section 5111.02 of 120774
the Revised Code as necessary to implement this section.120775

       Sec. 5111.13.        Sec. 5164.85.  (A) As used in this section, 120776
"cost-effective" and "group health plan" have the same meanings as 120777
in section 1906 of the "Social Security Act," 104 Stat. 1388-161 120778
(1990)section 1906, 42 U.S.C. 1396e, as amended, and any 120779
regulations adopted under that section.120780

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid may 120781
submit a medicaid state plan amendment to the United States 120782
secretary of health and human services for the purpose of 120783
implementingimplement a program pursuant to section 1906 of the 120784
"Social Security Act," 104 Stat. 1388-161 (1990)section 1906, 42 120785
U.S.C. 1396e, as amended, for the enrollment of medicaid-eligible 120786
individuals in group health plans when the department determines 120787
that enrollment is cost-effective.120788

       (C) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 120789
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary 120790
to implement this section.120791

       Sec. 5111.18.        Sec. 5164.86. Not later than September 1, 2007, the120792
The medicaid director of job and family services shall establish 120793
a qualified state long-term care insurance partnership program 120794
consistent with the definition of that term in the "Social 120795
Security Act," section 1917(b)(1)(C)(iii), 42 U.S.C. 120796
1396p(b)(1)(C)(iii). An individual participating in the program 120797
who is subject to the medicaid estate recovery program instituted 120798
under section 5111.115162.21 of the Revised Code shall be 120799
eligible for the reduced adjustment or recovery under division (D) 120800
of that section.120801

        The director of job and family services may adopt rules in 120802
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary to 120803
implement this section.120804

       Sec. 5111.14.        Sec. 5164.88. The medicaid director of job and family 120805
services may submit to the United States secretary of health and 120806
human services an amendment to the medicaid state plan in order to120807
implement within the medicaid program a system under which 120808
medicaid recipients with chronic conditions are provided with 120809
coordinated care through health homes, as authorized by section 120810
1945 of the "Social Security Act," 124 Stat. 319 (2010)section 120811
1945, 42 U.S.C. 1396w-4.120812

       The director may adopt rules under section 5111.02 of the 120813
Revised Code to implement this section.120814

       Sec. 5164.881.  The medicaid director, in consultation with 120815
the director of developmental disabilities, may develop and 120816
implement within the medicaid program a system under which 120817
eligible individuals with chronic conditions, as defined in the 120818
"Social Security Act," section 1945, 42 U.S.C. 1396w-4(h)(1), who 120819
also have mental retardation or other developmental disabilities 120820
may receive health home services, as defined in the "Social 120821
Security Act," section 1945, 42 U.S.C. 1396w-4(h)(4). Any such 120822
system shall focus on the needs of individuals and have as its 120823
goal improving services and outcomes under the medicaid program by 120824
improving integration of long-term care services and supportive 120825
services with primary and acute health care services.120826

       In developing any system under this section, the directors 120827
shall consult with representatives of county boards of 120828
developmental disabilities, the Ohio provider resource 120829
association, and the arc of Ohio. The directors may consult with 120830
any other individuals or entities that have an interest in the 120831
well being of individuals with developmental disabilities.120832

       Sec. 5111.141.        Sec. 5164.89.  The department of job and family 120833
servicesmedicaid may require county departments of job and 120834
family services to provide case management of nonemergency 120835
transportation services provided under the medical assistance120836
medicaid program. County departments shall provide the case 120837
management if required by the department in accordance with rules 120838
adopted by the director of job and family servicesunder section 120839
5164.02 of the Revised Code.120840

       The department shall determine, for the purposes of claiming 120841
federal reimbursement under the medical assistance program120842
financial participation, whether it will claim expenditures for 120843
nonemergency transportation services as administrative or program 120844
expenditures.120845

       Sec. 5111.96.        Sec. 5164.90.  (A) As used in this section, "MFP 120846
demonstration project" means a money follows the person 120847
demonstration project that the United States secretary of health 120848
and human services is authorized to award under section 6071 of 120849
the "Deficit Reduction Act of 2005" (Pub. L. No. 109-171, as 120850
amended).120851

        (B) To the extent funds are available under an MFP 120852
demonstration project awarded to the department of job and family 120853
servicesmedicaid, the director of job and family services120854
medicaid may operate the helping Ohioans move, expanding (HOME) 120855
choice demonstration component of the medicaid program to 120856
transition medicaid recipients who qualify for the demonstration 120857
component to community settings. The director may adopt rules in 120858
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for the 120859
administration and operation of the demonstration component.120860

       Sec. 5111.981.        Sec. 5164.91. (A) As used in this section and 120861
section 5111.982 of the Revised Code:120862

       "Dual eligible individual" has the same meaning as in the 120863
"Social Security Act," section 1915(h)(2)(B), 42 U.S.C. 120864
1396n(h)(2)(B).120865

       "Medicare" means the program created in the "Social Security 120866
Act," Title XVIII, 42 U.S.C. 1395 et seq., as amended.120867

       (B) Subject to division (C) of this section, the medical 120868
assistanceThe medicaid director may implement a demonstration 120869
project called the integrated care delivery system to test and 120870
evaluate the integration of the care that dual eligible 120871
individuals receive under medicare and medicaid. No provision of 120872
Title LI of the Revised Code applies to the integrated care 120873
delivery system if that provision implements or incorporates a 120874
provision of federal law governing medicaid and that provision of 120875
federal law does not apply to the system.120876

       (C) Before implementing the integrated care delivery system 120877
under division (B) of this section, the director shall obtain the 120878
approval of the United States secretary of health and human 120879
services in the form of a federal medicaid waiver, medicaid state 120880
plan amendment, or demonstration grant. The director is required 120881
to seek the federal approval only if the director seeks to 120882
implement the integrated care delivery system. The director shall 120883
implement the integrated care delivery system in accordance with 120884
the terms of the federal approval, including the terms regarding 120885
the duration of the system.120886

       Sec. 5164.911. (A) If the medicaid director implements the 120887
integrated care delivery system and except as provided in division 120888
(D) of this section, the director shall annually evaluate all of 120889
the following:120890

        (1) The health outcomes of ICDS participants;120891

        (2) How changes to the administration of the ICDS affect all 120892
of the following:120893

        (a) Claims processing;120894

        (b) The appeals process;120895

        (c) The number of reassessments requested; 120896

       (d) Prior authorization requests for services. 120897

       (3) The provider panel selection process used by medicaid 120898
managed care organizations participating in the ICDS. 120899

       (B) When conducting an evaluation under division (A) of this 120900
section, the director shall do all of the following: 120901

       (1) For the purpose of division (A)(1) of this section, do 120902
both of the following:120903

        (a) Compare the health outcomes of ICDS participants to the 120904
health outcomes of individuals who are not ICDS participants;120905

        (b) Use both of the following:120906

       (i) A control group consisting of ICDS participants who 120907
receive health care services from providers not participating in 120908
ICDS;120909

        (ii) A control group consisting of ICDS participants who 120910
receive health care services from alternative providers that are 120911
not part of a participating medicaid managed care organization's 120912
provider panel but provide health care services in the geographic 120913
service area in which ICDS participants receive health care 120914
services.120915

        (2) For the purpose of division (A)(2) of this section, do 120916
all of the following:120917

        (a) To the extent the data is available, use data from all of 120918
the following: 120919

       (i) The fee-for-service component of the medicaid program;120920

        (ii) Medicaid managed care organizations;120921

        (iii) Managed care organizations participating in the 120922
medicare advantage program established under Part C of Title XVIII 120923
of the "Social Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1395w-21 et seq.120924

        (b) Identify all of the following: 120925

       (i) Changes in the amount of time it takes to process claims 120926
and the number of claims denied and the reasons for the changes;120927

        (ii) The impact that changes to the administration of the 120928
ICDS had on the appeals process and number of reassessments 120929
requested; 120930

       (iii) The number of prior authorization denials that were 120931
overturned and the reasons for the overturned denials. 120932

       (3) Require medicaid managed care organizations participating 120933
in the ICDS to submit to the director any data the director needs 120934
for the evaluation.120935

        (C) Not later than the first day of each July, the director 120936
shall complete a report of the evaluation conducted under this 120937
section. The director shall provide a copy of the report to the 120938
general assembly in accordance with section 101.68 of the Revised 120939
Code and make the report available to the public.120940

        (D) The director is not required to conduct an evaluation 120941
under this section for a year if the same evaluation is conducted 120942
for that year by an organization under contract with the United 120943
States department of health and human services.120944

       Sec. 5111.0210.        Sec. 5164.92.  As used in this section, "advanced 120945
diagnostic imaging services" means magnetic resonance imaging 120946
services, computed tomography services, positron emission 120947
tomography services, cardiac nuclear medicine services, and 120948
similar imaging services.120949

       Not later than January 1, 2010, theThe department of job and 120950
family servicesmedicaid shall implement evidence-based, best 120951
practice guidelines or protocols and decision support tools for 120952
advanced diagnostic imaging services available undercovered by120953
the fee-for-service component of the medicaid program.120954

       Sec. 5111.0215.        Sec. 5164.93. (A) The department of job and family 120955
servicesmedicaid may establish a program under which it provides 120956
incentive payments, as authorized by the "Health Information 120957
Technology for Economic and Clinical HealthSocial Security Act," 120958
123 Stat. 489 (2009)section 1903(a)(3)(F) and (t), 42 U.S.C. 120959
1396b(a)(3)(F) and 1396b(t), as amended, to encourage the adoption 120960
and use of electronic health record technology by medicaid 120961
providers who are identified under that federal law as eligible 120962
professionals.120963

       (B) After the department has made a determination regarding 120964
the amount of a medicaid provider's electronic health record 120965
incentive payment or the denial of an incentive payment, the 120966
department shall notify the provider. The provider may request 120967
that the department reconsider its determination.120968

       A request for reconsideration shall be submitted in writing 120969
to the department not later than fifteen days after the provider 120970
receives notification of the determination. The request shall be 120971
accompanied by written materials setting forth the basis for, and 120972
supporting, the reconsideration request.120973

       On receipt of a timely request, the department shall 120974
reconsider the determination. On the basis of the written 120975
materials accompanying the request, the department may uphold, 120976
reverse, or modify its original determination. The department 120977
shall mail to the provider by certified mail a written notice of 120978
the reconsideration decision.120979

       In accordance with Chapter 2505. of the Revised Code, the 120980
medicaid provider may appeal the reconsideration decision by 120981
filing a notice of appeal with the court of common pleas of 120982
Franklin county. The notice shall identify the decision being 120983
appealed and the specific grounds for the appeal. The notice of 120984
appeal shall be filed not later than fifteen days after the 120985
department mails its notice of the reconsideration decision. A 120986
copy of the notice of appeal shall be filed with the department 120987
not later than three days after the notice is filed with the 120988
court.120989

       (C) The medicaid director of job and family services may 120990
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119.under section 5162.02120991
of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this section. The 120992
rules, if any, shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of 120993
the Revised Code.120994

       Sec. 5111.20.        Sec. 5165.01.  As used in sections 5111.20 to 120995
5111.331 of the Revised Codethis chapter:120996

       (A) "Affiliated operator" means an operator affiliated with 120997
either of the following:120998

       (1) The exiting operator for whom the affiliated operator is 120999
to assume liability for the entire amount of the exiting 121000
operator's debt under the medicaid program or the portion of the 121001
debt that represents the franchise permit fee the exiting operator 121002
owes;121003

       (2) The entering operator involved in the change of operator 121004
with the exiting operator specified in division (A)(1) of this 121005
section.121006

       (B) "Allowable costs" are thosea nursing facility's costs 121007
determined bythat the department of job and family services to be121008
medicaid determines are reasonable and do not include fines. Fines121009
paid under sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.615165.89 and section 121010
5111.995165.99 of the Revised Code are not allowable costs.121011

       (B)(C) "Ancillary and support costs" means all reasonable 121012
costs incurred by a nursing facility other than direct care costs, 121013
tax costs, or capital costs. "Ancillary and support costs" 121014
includes, but is not limited to, costs of activities, social 121015
services, pharmacy consultants, habilitation supervisors, 121016
qualified mental retardation professionals, program directors, 121017
medical and habilitation records, program supplies, incontinence 121018
supplies, food, enterals, dietary supplies and personnel, laundry, 121019
housekeeping, security, administration, medical equipment, 121020
utilities, liability insurance, bookkeeping, purchasing 121021
department, human resources, communications, travel, dues, license 121022
fees, subscriptions, home office costs not otherwise allocated, 121023
legal services, accounting services, minor equipment, maintenance 121024
and repairs, help-wanted advertising, informational advertising, 121025
start-up costs, organizational expenses, other interest, property 121026
insurance, employee training and staff development, employee 121027
benefits, payroll taxes, and workers' compensation premiums or 121028
costs for self-insurance claims and related costs as specified in 121029
rules adopted by the director of job and family services under 121030
section 5111.025165.02 of the Revised Code, for personnel listed 121031
in this division. "Ancillary and support costs" also means the 121032
cost of equipment, including vehicles, acquired by operating lease 121033
executed before December 1, 1992, if the costs are reported as 121034
administrative and general costs on the nursing facility's cost 121035
report for the cost reporting period ending December 31, 1992.121036

       (C)(D)(1) "Capital costs" means costs of ownership and, in 121037
the case of an intermediate care facility for the mentally 121038
retarded, costs of nonextensive renovationthe actual expense 121039
incurred by a nursing facility for all of the following:121040

        (a) Depreciation and interest on any capital assets that cost 121041
five hundred dollars or more per item, including the following:121042

        (i) Buildings;121043

        (ii) Building improvements;121044

        (iii) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, 121045
equipment;121046

        (iv) Transportation equipment.121047

        (b) Amortization and interest on land improvements and 121048
leasehold improvements;121049

        (c) Amortization of financing costs;121050

        (d) Lease and rent of land, buildings, and equipment.121051

        (2) The costs of capital assets of less than five hundred 121052
dollars per item may be considered capital costs in accordance 121053
with a provider's practice.121054

       (1) "Cost of ownership" means the actual expense incurred for 121055
all of the following:121056

       (a) Depreciation and interest on any capital assets that cost 121057
five hundred dollars or more per item, including the following:121058

       (i) Buildings;121059

       (ii) Building improvements that are not approved as 121060
nonextensive renovations under section 5111.251 of the Revised 121061
Code;121062

       (iii) Except as provided in division (B) of this section, 121063
equipment;121064

       (iv) In the case of an intermediate care facility for the 121065
mentally retarded, extensive renovations;121066

       (v) Transportation equipment.121067

       (b) Amortization and interest on land improvements and 121068
leasehold improvements;121069

       (c) Amortization of financing costs;121070

       (d) Except as provided in division (K) of this section, lease 121071
and rent of land, building, and equipment.121072

        The costs of capital assets of less than five hundred dollars 121073
per item may be considered capital costs in accordance with a 121074
provider's practice.121075

       (2) "Costs of nonextensive renovation" means the actual 121076
expense incurred by an intermediate care facility for the mentally 121077
retarded for depreciation or amortization and interest on 121078
renovations that are not extensive renovations.121079

       (D)(E) "Capital lease" and "operating lease" shall be 121080
construed in accordance with generally accepted accounting 121081
principles.121082

       (E) "Case-mix score" means the measure determined under 121083
section 5111.232 of the Revised Code of the relative direct-care 121084
resources needed to provide care and habilitation to a resident of 121085
a nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 121086
retarded.121087

       (F) "Case-mix score" means a measure determined under section 121088
5165.192 of the Revised Code of the relative direct-care resources 121089
needed to provide care and habilitation to a nursing facility 121090
resident.121091

       (G) "Change of operator" means an entering operator becoming 121092
the operator of a nursing facility in the place of the exiting 121093
operator.121094

       (1) Actions that constitute a change of operator include the 121095
following:121096

       (a) A change in an exiting operator's form of legal 121097
organization, including the formation of a partnership or 121098
corporation from a sole proprietorship;121099

       (b) A transfer of all the exiting operator's ownership 121100
interest in the operation of the nursing facility to the entering 121101
operator, regardless of whether ownership of any or all of the 121102
real property or personal property associated with the nursing 121103
facility is also transferred;121104

       (c) A lease of the nursing facility to the entering operator 121105
or the exiting operator's termination of the exiting operator's 121106
lease;121107

       (d) If the exiting operator is a partnership, dissolution of 121108
the partnership;121109

       (e) If the exiting operator is a partnership, a change in 121110
composition of the partnership unless both of the following apply:121111

       (i) The change in composition does not cause the 121112
partnership's dissolution under state law.121113

       (ii) The partners agree that the change in composition does 121114
not constitute a change in operator.121115

       (f) If the operator is a corporation, dissolution of the 121116
corporation, a merger of the corporation into another corporation 121117
that is the survivor of the merger, or a consolidation of one or 121118
more other corporations to form a new corporation.121119

       (2) The following, alone, do not constitute a change of 121120
operator:121121

       (a) A contract for an entity to manage a nursing facility as 121122
the operator's agent, subject to the operator's approval of daily 121123
operating and management decisions;121124

       (b) A change of ownership, lease, or termination of a lease 121125
of real property or personal property associated with a nursing 121126
facility if an entering operator does not become the operator in 121127
place of an exiting operator;121128

       (c) If the operator is a corporation, a change of one or more 121129
members of the corporation's governing body or transfer of 121130
ownership of one or more shares of the corporation's stock, if the 121131
same corporation continues to be the operator.121132

       (H) "Cost center" means the following:121133

       (1) Ancillary and support costs;121134

       (2) Capital costs;121135

       (3) Direct care costs;121136

       (4) Tax costs.121137

       (I) "Custom wheelchair" means a wheelchair to which both of 121138
the following apply:121139

       (1) It has been measured, fitted, or adapted in consideration 121140
of either of the following:121141

       (a) The body size or disability of the individual who is to 121142
use the wheelchair;121143

       (b) The individual's period of need for, or intended use of, 121144
the wheelchair.121145

       (2) It has customized features, modifications, or components, 121146
such as adaptive seating and positioning systems, that the 121147
supplier who assembled the wheelchair, or the manufacturer from 121148
which the wheelchair was ordered, added or made in accordance with 121149
the instructions of the physician of the individual who is to use 121150
the wheelchair.121151

       (J)(1) "Date of licensure," for ameans the following:121152

       (a) In the case of a nursing facility originallythat was 121153
required by law to be licensed as a nursing home under Chapter 121154
3721. of the Revised Code when it originally began to be operated 121155
as a nursing home, means the date specific beds werethe nursing 121156
facility was originally so licensed as nursing home beds under 121157
that chapter, regardless of whether they were subsequently 121158
licensed as residential facility beds under section 5123.19 of the 121159
Revised Code. For a facility originally licensed as a residential 121160
facility under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code, "date of 121161
licensure" means the date specific beds were originally licensed 121162
as residential facility beds under that section.;121163

       If(b) In the case of a nursing home beds licensed under 121164
Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code or residential facility beds 121165
licensed under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code werefacility 121166
that was not required by law to be licensed as a nursing home when 121167
they wereit originally used to providebegan to be operated as a121168
nursing home or residential facility services, "date of licensure" 121169
means the date the bedsit first were used to providebegan to be 121170
operated as a nursing home or residential facility services, 121171
regardless of the date the present provider obtained licensure121172
nursing facility was first licensed as a nursing home.121173

       (2) If a facility adds, after a nursing facility's original 121174
date of licensure, more nursing home beds or residential facility 121175
beds or extensively renovatesall or part of the facility after 121176
its original date of licensureare added to the nursing facility, 121177
it will havethe nursing facility has a different date of 121178
licensure for the additional beds or extensively renovated portion 121179
of the facility, unless the beds are added in a space. This does 121180
not apply, however, to additional beds when both of the following 121181
apply:121182

       (a) The additional beds are located in a part of the nursing 121183
facility that was constructed at the same time as the previously 121184
licensedcontinuing beds butalready located in that part of the 121185
nursing facility;121186

       (b) The part of the nursing facility in which the additional 121187
beds are located was constructed as part of the nursing facility 121188
at a time when the nursing facility was not required by law to be121189
licensed under Chapter 3721. or section 5123.19 of the Revised 121190
Code at that timeas a nursing home.121191

       (2)(3) The definition of "date of licensure" in this section 121192
applies in determinations of thenursing facilities' medicaid 121193
reimbursement rate for a nursing facility or intermediate care 121194
facility for the mentally retardedpayment rates but does not 121195
apply in determinations of thenursing facilities' franchise 121196
permit fee for a nursing facility or intermediate care facility 121197
for the mentally retardedfees.121198

       (G)(K) "Desk-reviewed" means that a nursing facility's costs 121199
as reported on a cost report submitted under section 5111.26121200
5165.10 of the Revised Code have been subjected to a desk review 121201
under division (A) of section 5111.275165.108 of the Revised Code 121202
and preliminarily determined to be allowable costs.121203

       (H)(L) "Direct care costs" means all of the following costs 121204
incurred by a nursing facility:121205

       (1)(a) Costs for registered nurses, licensed practical 121206
nurses, and nurse aides employed by the nursing facility;121207

       (b)(2) Costs for direct care staff, administrative nursing 121208
staff, medical directors, respiratory therapists, and except as 121209
provided in division (H)(2)(L)(8) of this section, other persons 121210
holding degrees qualifying them to provide therapy;121211

       (c)(3) Costs of purchased nursing services;121212

       (d)(4) Costs of quality assurance;121213

       (e)(5) Costs of training and staff development, employee 121214
benefits, payroll taxes, and workers' compensation premiums or 121215
costs for self-insurance claims and related costs as specified in 121216
rules adopted by the director of job and family services in 121217
accordance with Chapter 119.under section 5165.02 of the Revised 121218
Code, for personnel listed in divisions (H)(L)(1)(a), (b)(2), and 121219
(d)(4), and (8) of this section;121220

       (f)(6) Costs of consulting and management fees related to 121221
direct care;121222

       (g)(7) Allocated direct care home office costs.121223

       (2) In addition to the costs specified in division (H)(1) of 121224
this section, for nursing facilities only, direct care costs 121225
include costs;121226

       (8) Costs of habilitation staff (other than habilitation 121227
supervisors), medical supplies, emergency oxygen, over-the-counter 121228
pharmacy products, behavioral and mental health services, physical 121229
therapists, physical therapy assistants, occupational therapists, 121230
occupational therapy assistants, speech therapists, audiologists, 121231
habilitation supplies, wheelchairs, resident transportation, and 121232
universal precautions supplies.;121233

       (3) In addition to the costs specified in division (H)(1) of 121234
this section, for intermediate care facilities for the mentally 121235
retarded only, direct care costs include both of the following:121236

       (a) Costs for physical therapists and physical therapy 121237
assistants, occupational therapists and occupational therapy 121238
assistants, speech therapists, audiologists, habilitation staff 121239
(including habilitation supervisors), qualified mental retardation 121240
professionals, program directors, social services staff, 121241
activities staff, off-site day programming, psychologists and 121242
psychology assistants, and social workers and counselors;121243

       (b) Costs of training and staff development, employee 121244
benefits, payroll taxes, and workers' compensation premiums or 121245
costs for self-insurance claims and related costs as specified in 121246
rules adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code, for 121247
personnel listed in division (H)(3)(a) of this section. 121248

       (4)(9) Until January 1, 2014, costs of oxygen, wheelchairs, 121249
and resident transportation;121250

        (10) Beginning January 1, 2014, costs of both of the 121251
following:121252

        (a) Emergency oxygen;121253

        (b) Wheelchairs other than the following:121254

       (i) Custom wheelchairs;121255

       (ii) Repairs to and replacements of custom wheelchairs and 121256
parts that are made in accordance with the instructions of the 121257
physician of the individual who uses the custom wheelchair.121258

       (11) Costs of other direct-care resources that are specified 121259
as direct care costs in rules adopted under section 5111.02121260
5165.02 of the Revised Code.121261

       (I)(M) "Dual eligible individual" has the same meaning as in 121262
section 5160.01 of the Revised Code.121263

       (N) "Effective date of a change of operator" means the day 121264
the entering operator becomes the operator of the nursing 121265
facility.121266

       (O) "Effective date of a facility closure" means the last day 121267
that the last of the residents of the nursing facility resides in 121268
the nursing facility.121269

       (P) "Effective date of an involuntary termination" means the 121270
date the department of medicaid terminates the operator's provider 121271
agreement for the nursing facility.121272

       (Q) "Effective date of a voluntary withdrawal of 121273
participation" means the day the nursing facility ceases to accept 121274
new medicaid residents other than the individuals who reside in 121275
the nursing facility on the day before the effective date of the 121276
voluntary withdrawal of participation.121277

       (R) "Entering operator" means the person or government entity 121278
that will become the operator of a nursing facility when a change 121279
of operator occurs or following an involuntary termination.121280

       (S) "Exiting operator" means any of the following:121281

       (1) An operator that will cease to be the operator of a 121282
nursing facility on the effective date of a change of operator;121283

       (2) An operator that will cease to be the operator of a 121284
nursing facility on the effective date of a facility closure;121285

       (3) An operator of a nursing facility that is undergoing or 121286
has undergone a voluntary withdrawal of participation;121287

       (4) An operator of a nursing facility that is undergoing or 121288
has undergone an involuntary termination.121289

       (T)(1) Subject to divisions (T)(2) and (3) of this section, 121290
"facility closure" means either of the following:121291

       (a) Discontinuance of the use of the building, or part of the 121292
building, that houses the facility as a nursing facility that 121293
results in the relocation of all of the nursing facility's 121294
residents;121295

       (b) Conversion of the building, or part of the building, that 121296
houses a nursing facility to a different use with any necessary 121297
license or other approval needed for that use being obtained and 121298
one or more of the nursing facility's residents remaining in the 121299
building, or part of the building, to receive services under the 121300
new use.121301

       (2) A facility closure occurs regardless of any of the 121302
following:121303

       (a) The operator completely or partially replacing the 121304
nursing facility by constructing a new nursing facility or 121305
transferring the nursing facility's license to another nursing 121306
facility;121307

       (b) The nursing facility's residents relocating to another of 121308
the operator's nursing facilities;121309

       (c) Any action the department of health takes regarding the 121310
nursing facility's medicaid certification that may result in the 121311
transfer of part of the nursing facility's survey findings to 121312
another of the operator's nursing facilities;121313

       (d) Any action the department of health takes regarding the 121314
nursing facility's license under Chapter 3721. of the Revised 121315
Code.121316

       (3) A facility closure does not occur if all of the nursing 121317
facility's residents are relocated due to an emergency evacuation 121318
and one or more of the residents return to a medicaid-certified 121319
bed in the nursing facility not later than thirty days after the 121320
evacuation occurs.121321

       (U) "Fiscal year" means the fiscal year of this state, as 121322
specified in section 9.34 of the Revised Code.121323

       (J)(V) "Franchise permit fee" means the following: 121324

       (1) In the context of nursing facilities, the fee imposed by 121325
sections 3721.505168.40 to 3721.585168.56 of the Revised Code;121326

       (2) In the context of intermediate care facilities for the 121327
mentally retarded, the fee imposed by sections 5112.30 to 5112.39 121328
of the Revised Code.121329

        (K) "Indirect care costs" means all reasonable costs incurred 121330
by an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded other 121331
than direct care costs, other protected costs, or capital costs. 121332
"Indirect care costs" includes but is not limited to costs of 121333
habilitation supplies, pharmacy consultants, medical and 121334
habilitation records, program supplies, incontinence supplies, 121335
food, enterals, dietary supplies and personnel, laundry, 121336
housekeeping, security, administration, liability insurance, 121337
bookkeeping, purchasing department, human resources, 121338
communications, travel, dues, license fees, subscriptions, home 121339
office costs not otherwise allocated, legal services, accounting 121340
services, minor equipment, maintenance and repairs, help-wanted 121341
advertising, informational advertising, start-up costs, 121342
organizational expenses, other interest, property insurance, 121343
employee training and staff development, employee benefits, 121344
payroll taxes, and workers' compensation premiums or costs for 121345
self-insurance claims and related costs as specified in rules 121346
adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code, for personnel 121347
listed in this division. Notwithstanding division (C)(1) of this 121348
section, "indirect care costs" also means the cost of equipment, 121349
including vehicles, acquired by operating lease executed before 121350
December 1, 1992, if the costs are reported as administrative and 121351
general costs on the facility's cost report for the cost reporting 121352
period ending December 31, 1992. 121353

       (L)(W) "Inpatient days" means the following: 121354

       (1) In the context of a nursing facility, both of the 121355
following:121356

       (a)(1) All days during which a resident, regardless of 121357
payment source, occupies a bed in a nursing facility that is 121358
included in the nursing facility's certifiedmedicaid-certified121359
capacity under Title XIX;121360

       (b)(2) Fifty per cent of the days for which payment is made 121361
under section 5111.3315165.34 of the Revised Code. 121362

       (2) In the context of an intermediate care facility for the 121363
mentally retarded, both of the following:121364

       (a) All days during which a resident, regardless of payment 121365
source, occupies a bed in an intermediate care facility for the 121366
mentally retarded that is included in the facility's certified 121367
capacity under Title XIX;121368

       (b) All days for which payment is made under section 5111.33 121369
of the Revised Code. 121370

       (M) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 121371
means an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded 121372
certified as in compliance with applicable standards for the 121373
medicaid program by the director of health in accordance with 121374
Title XIX.121375

       (N)(X) "Involuntary termination" means the department of 121376
medicaid's termination of the operator's provider agreement for 121377
the nursing facility when the termination is not taken at the 121378
operator's request.121379

       (Y) "Low resource utilization resident" means a medicaid 121380
recipient residing in a nursing facility who, for purposes of 121381
calculating the nursing facility's medicaid payment rate for 121382
direct care costs, is placed in either of the two lowest resource 121383
utilization groups, excluding any resource utilization group that 121384
is a default group used for residents with incomplete assessment 121385
data.121386

       (Z) "Maintenance and repair expenses" means, except as 121387
provided in division (BB)(2) of this section,a nursing facility's121388
expenditures that are necessary and proper to maintain an asset in 121389
a normally efficient working condition and that do not extend the 121390
useful life of the asset two years or more. "Maintenance and 121391
repair expenses" includes but is not limited to the costcosts of 121392
ordinary repairs such as painting and wallpapering.121393

       (O)(AA) "Medicaid-certified capacity" means the number of a 121394
nursing facility's beds that are certified for participation in 121395
medicaid as nursing facility beds.121396

       (BB) "Medicaid days" means the following: 121397

       (1) In the context of a nursing facility, both of the 121398
following:121399

       (a)(1) All days during which a resident who is a medicaid 121400
recipient eligible for nursing facility services occupies a bed in 121401
a nursing facility that is included in the nursing facility's 121402
certifiedmedicaid-certified capacity under Title XIX;121403

       (b)(2) Fifty per cent of the days for which payment is made 121404
under section 5111.3315165.34 of the Revised Code. 121405

       (2) In the context of an intermediate care facility for the 121406
mentally retarded, both of the following: 121407

       (a) All days during which a resident who is a medicaid 121408
recipient eligible for intermediate care facility for the mentally 121409
retarded services occupies a bed in an intermediate care facility 121410
for the mentally retarded that is included in the facility's 121411
certified capacity under Title XIX; 121412

       (b) All days for which payment is made under section 5111.33 121413
of the Revised Code. 121414

       (P)(CC)(1) "New nursing facility" means a nursing facility 121415
for which the provider obtains an initial provider agreement 121416
following medicaid certification of the nursing facility by the 121417
director of health, including such a nursing facility that 121418
replaces one or more nursing facilities for which a provider 121419
previously held a provider agreement.121420

       (2) "New nursing facility" does not mean a nursing facility 121421
for which the entering operator seeks a provider agreement 121422
pursuant to section 5165.511 or 5165.512 or (pursuant to section 121423
5165.515) section 5165.07 of the Revised Code.121424

       (DD) "Nursing facility" means a facility, or a distinct part 121425
of a facility, that is certified as a nursing facility by the 121426
director of health in accordance with Title XIX and is not an 121427
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded. "Nursing 121428
facility" includes a facility, or a distinct part of a facility, 121429
that is certified as a nursing facility by the director of health 121430
in accordance with Title XIX and is certified as a skilled nursing 121431
facility by the director in accordance with Title XVIIIhas the 121432
same meaning as in the "Social Security Act," section 1919(a), 42 121433
U.S.C. 1396r(a).121434

       (Q)(EE) "Nursing facility services" has the same meaning as 121435
in the "Social Security Act," section 1905(f), 42 U.S.C. 1396d(f).121436

       (FF) "Nursing home" has the same meaning as in section 121437
3721.01 of the Revised Code.121438

       (GG) "Operator" means the person or government entity 121439
responsible for the daily operating and management decisions for a 121440
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 121441
retarded.121442

       (R) "Other protected costs" means costs incurred by an 121443
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded for medical 121444
supplies; real estate, franchise, and property taxes; natural gas, 121445
fuel oil, water, electricity, sewage, and refuse and hazardous 121446
medical waste collection; allocated other protected home office 121447
costs; and any additional costs defined as other protected costs 121448
in rules adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code.121449

       (S)(HH)(1) "Owner" means any person or government entity that 121450
has at least five per cent ownership or interest, either directly, 121451
indirectly, or in any combination, in any of the following 121452
regarding a nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the 121453
mentally retarded:121454

       (a) The land on which the nursing facility is located;121455

       (b) The structure in which the nursing facility is located;121456

       (c) Any mortgage, contract for deed, or other obligation 121457
secured in whole or in part by the land or structure on or in 121458
which the nursing facility is located;121459

       (d) Any lease or sublease of the land or structure on or in 121460
which the nursing facility is located.121461

       (2) "Owner" does not mean a holder of a debenture or bond 121462
related to the nursing facility or intermediate care facility for 121463
the mentally retarded and purchased at public issue or a regulated 121464
lender that has made a loan related to the nursing facility unless 121465
the holder or lender operates the nursing facility directly or 121466
through a subsidiary.121467

       (T) "Patient" includes "resident."121468

       (U) Except as provided in divisions (U)(1) and (2) of this 121469
section, "per(II) "Per diem" means a nursing facility's or 121470
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded's actual, 121471
allowable costs in a given cost center in a cost reporting period, 121472
divided by the nursing facility's inpatient days for that cost 121473
reporting period.121474

       (1) When calculating indirect care costs for the purpose of 121475
establishing rates under section 5111.241 of the Revised Code, 121476
"per diem" means an intermediate care facility for the mentally 121477
retarded's actual, allowable indirect care costs in a cost 121478
reporting period divided by the greater of the facility's 121479
inpatient days for that period or the number of inpatient days the 121480
facility would have had during that period if its occupancy rate 121481
had been eighty-five per cent. 121482

       (2) When calculating capital costs for the purpose of 121483
establishing rates under section 5111.251 of the Revised Code, 121484
"per diem" means a facility's actual, allowable capital costs in a 121485
cost reporting period divided by the greater of the facility's 121486
inpatient days for that period or the number of inpatient days the 121487
facility would have had during that period if its occupancy rate 121488
had been ninety-five per cent.121489

       (V)(JJ) "Provider" means an operator with a provider 121490
agreement.121491

       (W)(KK) "Provider agreement" means a contractprovider 121492
agreement, as defined in section 5164.01 of the Revised Code, that 121493
is between the department of job and family servicesmedicaid and 121494
the operator of a nursing facility or intermediate care facility 121495
for the mentally retarded for the provision of nursing facility 121496
services or intermediate care facility services for the mentally 121497
retarded under the medicaid program.121498

       (X)(LL) "Purchased nursing services" means services that are 121499
provided in a nursing facility by registered nurses, licensed 121500
practical nurses, or nurse aides who are not employees of the 121501
nursing facility.121502

       (Y)(MM) "Reasonable" means that a cost is an actual cost that 121503
is appropriate and helpful to develop and maintain the operation 121504
of patient care facilities and activities, including normal 121505
standby costs, and that does not exceed what a prudent buyer pays 121506
for a given item or services. Reasonable costs may vary from 121507
provider to provider and from time to time for the same provider.121508

       (Z)(NN) "Related party" means an individual or organization 121509
that, to a significant extent, has common ownership with, is 121510
associated or affiliated with, has control of, or is controlled 121511
by, the provider.121512

       (1) An individual who is a relative of an owner is a related 121513
party.121514

       (2) Common ownership exists when an individual or individuals 121515
possess significant ownership or equity in both the provider and 121516
the other organization. Significant ownership or equity exists 121517
when an individual or individuals possess five per cent ownership 121518
or equity in both the provider and a supplier. Significant 121519
ownership or equity is presumed to exist when an individual or 121520
individuals possess ten per cent ownership or equity in both the 121521
provider and another organization from which the provider 121522
purchases or leases real property.121523

       (3) Control exists when an individual or organization has the 121524
power, directly or indirectly, to significantly influence or 121525
direct the actions or policies of an organization.121526

       (4) An individual or organization that supplies goods or 121527
services to a provider shall not be considered a related party if 121528
all of the following conditions are met:121529

       (a) The supplier is a separate bona fide organization.121530

       (b) A substantial part of the supplier's business activity of 121531
the type carried on with the provider is transacted with others 121532
than the provider and there is an open, competitive market for the 121533
types of goods or services the supplier furnishes.121534

       (c) The types of goods or services are commonly obtained by 121535
other nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities for the 121536
mentally retarded from outside organizations and are not a basic 121537
element of patient care ordinarily furnished directly to patients 121538
by thenursing facilities.121539

       (d) The charge to the provider is in line with the charge for 121540
the goods or services in the open market and no more than the 121541
charge made under comparable circumstances to others by the 121542
supplier.121543

       (AA)(OO) "Relative of owner" means an individual who is 121544
related to an owner of a nursing facility or intermediate care 121545
facility for the mentally retarded by one of the following 121546
relationships:121547

       (1) Spouse;121548

       (2) Natural parent, child, or sibling;121549

       (3) Adopted parent, child, or sibling;121550

       (4) Stepparent, stepchild, stepbrother, or stepsister;121551

       (5) Father-in-law, mother-in-law, son-in-law, 121552
daughter-in-law, brother-in-law, or sister-in-law;121553

       (6) Grandparent or grandchild;121554

       (7) Foster caregiver, foster child, foster brother, or foster 121555
sister.121556

       (BB) "Renovation" and "extensive renovation" mean:121557

       (1) Any betterment, improvement, or restoration of an 121558
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded started 121559
before July 1, 1993, that meets the definition of a renovation or 121560
extensive renovation established in rules adopted by the director 121561
of job and family services in effect on December 22, 1992.121562

       (2) In the case of betterments, improvements, and 121563
restorations of intermediate care facilities for the mentally 121564
retarded started on or after July 1, 1993: 121565

       (a) "Renovation" means the betterment, improvement, or 121566
restoration of an intermediate care facility for the mentally 121567
retarded beyond its current functional capacity through a 121568
structural change that costs at least five hundred dollars per 121569
bed. A renovation may include betterment, improvement, 121570
restoration, or replacement of assets that are affixed to the 121571
building and have a useful life of at least five years. A 121572
renovation may include costs that otherwise would be considered 121573
maintenance and repair expenses if they are an integral part of 121574
the structural change that makes up the renovation project. 121575
"Renovation" does not mean construction of additional space for 121576
beds that will be added to a facility's licensed or certified 121577
capacity. 121578

       (b) "Extensive renovation" means a renovation that costs more 121579
than sixty-five per cent and no more than eighty-five per cent of 121580
the cost of constructing a new bed and that extends the useful 121581
life of the assets for at least ten years. 121582

       For the purposes of division (BB)(2) of this section, the 121583
cost of constructing a new bed shall be considered to be forty 121584
thousand dollars, adjusted for the estimated rate of inflation 121585
from January 1, 1993, to the end of the calendar year during which 121586
the renovation is completed, using the consumer price index for 121587
shelter costs for all urban consumers for the north central 121588
region, as published by the United States bureau of labor 121589
statistics. 121590

       The department of job and family services may treat a 121591
renovation that costs more than eighty-five per cent of the cost 121592
of constructing new beds as an extensive renovation if the 121593
department determines that the renovation is more prudent than 121594
construction of new beds.121595

       (CC)(PP) "Residents' rights advocate" has the same meaning as 121596
in section 3721.10 of the Revised Code.121597

       (QQ) "Skilled nursing facility" has the same meaning as in 121598
the "Social Security Act," section 1819(a), 42 U.S.C. 1395i-3(a).121599

       (RR) "Sponsor" has the same meaning as in section 3721.10 of 121600
the Revised Code.121601

       (SS) "Tax costs" means the costs of taxes imposed under 121602
Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code, real estate taxes, personal 121603
property taxes, and corporate franchise taxes.121604

       (DD)(TT) "Title XIX" means Title XIX of the "Social Security 121605
Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396, as amendedet seq.121606

       (EE)(UU) "Title XVIII" means Title XVIII of the "Social 121607
Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395, as amendedet 121608
seq.121609

       (VV) "Voluntary withdrawal of participation" means an 121610
operator's voluntary election to terminate the participation of a 121611
nursing facility in the medicaid program but to continue to 121612
provide service of the type provided by a nursing facility.121613

       Sec. 5111.201.        Sec. 5165.011. Whenever(A) Except as provided in 121614
division (B) of this section, whenever "skilled nursing facility," 121615
"intermediate care facility," or "dual skilled nursing and 121616
intermediate care facility" is referred to or designated in any 121617
statute, rule, contract, provider agreement, or other document 121618
pertaining to the medical assistancemedicaid program, the 121619
reference or designation is deemed to refer to a nursing facility, 121620
except that a.121621

       (B) A reference to or designation of an "intermediate care 121622
facility for the mentally retardedindividuals with intellectual 121623
disabilities" or "ICF/IID" is not deemed to refer to a nursing 121624
facility.121625

       Sec. 5165.02.  The medicaid director shall adopt rules as 121626
necessary to implement this chapter. The rules shall be adopted in 121627
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.121628

       Sec. 5111.202.        Sec. 5165.03.  (A) As used in this section:121629

       (1) "Dementia" includes Alzheimer's disease or a related 121630
disorder.121631

       (2) "Serious mental illness" means "serious mental illness," 121632
as defined by the United States department of health and human 121633
services in regulations adopted under section 1919(e)(7)(G)(i) of121634
the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935)section 121635
1919(e)(7)(G)(i), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended1396r(e)(7)(G)(i).121636

       (3) "Mentally ill individual" means an individual who has a 121637
serious mental illness other than either of the following:121638

       (a) A primary diagnosis of dementia;121639

       (b) A primary diagnosis that is not a primary diagnosis of 121640
dementia and a primary diagnosis of something other than a serious 121641
mental illness.121642

       (4) "Mentally retarded individual" means an individual who is 121643
mentally retarded or has a related condition, as described in 121644
section 1905(d) of the "Social Security Act.," section 1905(d), 42 121645
U.S.C. 1396d(d).121646

       (5) "Specialized services" means the services specified by 121647
the United States department of health and human services in 121648
regulations adopted under section 1919(e)(7)(G)(iii) of the 121649
"Social Security Act.," section 1919(e)(7)(G)(iii), 42 U.S.C. 121650
1396r(e)(7)(G)(iii).121651

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, no 121652
nursing facility shall admit as a resident any mentally ill 121653
individual unless the facility has received evidence that the 121654
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services121655
has determined both of the following under section 5119.061121656
5119.40 of the Revised Code:121657

       (a) That the individual requires the level of services 121658
provided by a nursing facility because of the individual's 121659
physical and mental condition;121660

       (b) Whether the individual requires specialized services for 121661
mental illness.121662

       (2) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, no 121663
nursing facility shall admit as a resident any mentally retarded 121664
individual unless the facility has received evidence that the 121665
department of developmental disabilities has determined both of 121666
the following under section 5123.021 of the Revised Code:121667

       (a) That the individual requires the level of services 121668
provided by a nursing facility because of the individual's 121669
physical and mental condition;121670

       (b) Whether the individual requires specialized services for 121671
mental retardation.121672

       (C) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 121673
not make medicaid payments under the medical assistance program to 121674
a nursing facility on behalf of any individual who is admitted to 121675
the facility in violation of division (B) of this section for the 121676
period beginning on the date of admission and ending on the date 121677
the requirements of division (B) of this section are met.121678

       (D) A determination under division (B) of this section is not 121679
required for any individual who is exempted from the requirement 121680
that a determination be made by division (B)(2) of section 121681
5119.0615119.40 of the Revised Code or rules adopted by the 121682
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services121683
under division (E)(3) of that section, or by division (B)(2) of 121684
section 5123.021 of the Revised Code or rules adopted by the 121685
department of developmental disabilities under division (E)(3) of 121686
that section.121687

       Sec. 5111.203.        Sec. 5165.031. Regardless of whether or not an 121688
applicantAn individual who applies for admission to a nursing 121689
facility or resident ofresides in a nursing facility is an 121690
applicant for or recipient of medical assistance, the department 121691
of job and family services shall provide notice and an opportunity 121692
for a hearing to any applicant for admission to a nursing facility 121693
or resident of a nursing facility who ismay appeal if adversely 121694
affected by a determination made by the department of mental 121695
healthmental health and addiction services under section 121696
5119.0615119.40 of the Revised Code or by the department of 121697
developmental disabilities under section 5123.021 of the Revised 121698
Code. The hearing shall be conducted in the same manner as 121699
hearings conducted underIf the individual is an applicant for or 121700
recipient of medicaid, the individual may appeal pursuant to 121701
section 5160.31 of the Revised Code. If the individual is not an 121702
applicant for or recipient of medicaid, the individual may appeal 121703
pursuant to a process the department of medicaid shall establish, 121704
which shall be similar to the appeals process established by121705
section 5101.35 of the Revised Code. The department of medicaid 121706
shall provide notice of the right to appeal to individuals 121707
adversely affected by determinations made under sections 5119.40 121708
and 5123.021 of the Revised Code. Any decision made by the 121709
department of job and family services on the basis of the hearing121710
such an appeal is binding on the department of mental health121711
mental health and addiction services and the department of 121712
developmental disabilities.121713

       Sec. 5111.204.        Sec. 5165.04.  (A) As used in this section, 121714
"representative" means a person acting on behalf of an applicant 121715
for or recipient of medicaid. A representative may be a family 121716
member, attorney, hospital social worker, or any other person 121717
chosen to act on behalf of an applicant or recipient.121718

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid may 121719
require each applicant for or recipient of medicaid who applies or 121720
intends to apply for admission to a nursing facility or resides in 121721
a nursing facility to undergo an assessment to determine whether 121722
the applicant or recipient needs the level of care provided by a 121723
nursing facility. The assessment may be performed concurrently 121724
with a long-term care consultation provided under section 173.42 121725
of the Revised Code.121726

       To the maximum extent possible, the assessment shall be based 121727
on information from the resident assessment instrument specified 121728
in rules adoptedauthorized by the director of job and family 121729
services under division (E) of section 5111.2325165.191 of the 121730
Revised Code. The assessment shall also be based on criteria and 121731
procedures established in rules adopted underauthorized by121732
division (F) of this section and information provided by the 121733
person being assessed or the person's representative. 121734

       The department of job and family servicesmedicaid, or if the 121735
assessment is performed by an agency under contract with the 121736
department pursuant to division (G) of this section, the agency, 121737
shall, not later than the time the level of care determination 121738
based on the assessment is required to be provided under division 121739
(C) of this section, give written notice of its conclusions and 121740
the basis for them to the person assessed and, if the department 121741
of job and family services or agency under contract with the 121742
department has been informed that the person has a representative, 121743
to the representative.121744

       (C) The department of job and family services or agency under 121745
contract with the department, whichever performs the assessment, 121746
shall provide a level of care determination based on the 121747
assessment as follows:121748

       (1) In the case of a person applying or intending to apply 121749
for admission to a nursing facility while hospitalized, not later 121750
than one of the following:121751

       (a) One working day after the person or the person's 121752
representative submits the application or notifies the department 121753
of the person's intention to apply and submits all information 121754
required for providing the level of care determination, as 121755
specified in rules adopted underauthorized by division (F)(2) of 121756
this section;121757

       (b) A later date requested by the person or the person's 121758
representative.121759

       (2) In the case of a person applying or intending to apply 121760
for admission to a nursing facility who is not hospitalized, not 121761
later than one of the following:121762

       (a) Five calendar days after the person or the person's 121763
representative submits the application or notifies the department 121764
of the person's intention to apply and submits all information 121765
required for providing the level of care determination, as 121766
specified in rules adopted underauthorized by division (F)(2) of 121767
this section;121768

       (b) A later date requested by the person or the person's 121769
representative.121770

       (3) In the case of a person who resides in a nursing 121771
facility, not later than one of the following:121772

        (a) Five calendar days after the person or the person's 121773
representative submits an application for medical assistance121774
medicaid and submits all information required for providing the 121775
level of care determination, as specified in rules adopted under121776
authorized by division (F)(2) of this section;121777

        (b) A later date requested by the person or the person's 121778
representative.121779

        (4) In the case of an emergency, as specified in rules 121780
adopted underauthorized by division (F)(4) of this section, 121781
within the number of days specified in the rules.121782

       (D) A person assessed under this section or the person's 121783
representative may request a state hearing to disputeappeal the 121784
conclusions reached by the department of job and family services121785
or agency under contract with the department on the basis of the 121786
assessment. The request for a state hearingappeal shall be made 121787
in accordance withpursuant to section 5101.355160.31 of the 121788
Revised Code. The department of job and family services or agency 121789
under contract with the department shall provide to the person or 121790
the person's representative and the nursing facility written 121791
notice of the person's right to request a state hearing. The 121792
notice shall include an explanation of the procedure for 121793
requesting a state hearing. If a state hearing is requested, the 121794
state shall be represented in the hearing by the department of job 121795
and family services or the agency under contract with the 121796
department, whichever performed the assessment.121797

       (E) A nursing facility that admits or retains a person 121798
determined pursuant to an assessment required under this section 121799
not to need the level of care provided by the nursing facility 121800
shall not be reimbursedpaid under the medicaid program for the 121801
person's care.121802

       (F) The medicaid director of job and family services shall 121803
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119.under section 5165.02121804
of the Revised Code to implement and administer this section. The 121805
rules shall include all of the following:121806

       (1) Criteria and procedures to be used in determining whether 121807
admission to a nursing facility or continued stay in a nursing 121808
facility is appropriate for the person being assessed;121809

       (2) Information the person being assessed or the person's 121810
representative must provide to the department or agency under 121811
contract with the department for purposes of the assessment and 121812
providing a level of care determination based on the assessment;121813

       (3) Circumstances under which a person is not required to be 121814
assessed;121815

       (4) Circumstances that constitute an emergency for purposes 121816
of division (C)(4) of this section and the number of days within 121817
which a level of care determination must be provided in the case 121818
of an emergency.121819

       (G) Pursuant to section 5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code, 121820
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid may enter into 121821
contracts in the form of interagency agreements with one or more 121822
other state agencies to perform the assessments required under 121823
this section. The interagency agreements shall specify the 121824
responsibilities of each agency in the performance of the 121825
assessments.121826

       Sec. 5111.21.        Sec. 5165.06. (A) In order to beSubject to section 121827
5165.072 of the Revised Code, an operator is eligible for medicaid 121828
payments, the operator ofto enter into a provider agreement for a 121829
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 121830
retarded shall doif all of the following apply:121831

       (1) Enter into a provider agreement with the department as 121832
provided in section 5111.22, 5111.671, or 5111.672 of the Revised 121833
Code(A) The nursing facility is certified by the director of 121834
health for participation in medicaid;121835

       (2) Apply for and maintain a valid license to operate(B) The 121836
nursing facility is licensed by the director of health as a 121837
nursing home if so required by law;121838

       (3) Subject to division (B) of this section,(C) The operator 121839
and nursing facility comply with all applicable state and federal 121840
laws and rules.121841

       (B) A state rule that requires the operator of an 121842
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded to have 121843
received approval of a plan for the proposed facility pursuant to 121844
section 5123.042 of the Revised Code as a condition of the 121845
operator being eligible for medicaid payments for the facility 121846
does not apply if, under former section 5123.193 of the Revised 121847
Code as enacted by Am. Sub. H.B. 1 of the 128th general assembly 121848
or section 5123.197 of the Revised Code, a residential facility 121849
license was obtained or modified for the facility without 121850
obtaining approval of such a plan.121851

       (C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section, 121852
the operator of a nursing facility that elects to obtain and 121853
maintain eligibility for payments under the medicaid program shall 121854
qualify all of the facility's medicaid-certified beds in the 121855
medicare program established by Title XVIII. The director of job 121856
and family services may adopt rules under section 5111.02 of the 121857
Revised Code to establish the time frame in which a nursing 121858
facility must comply with this requirement.121859

       (2) The department of veterans services is not required to 121860
qualify all of the medicaid-certified beds in a nursing facility 121861
the agency maintains and operates under section 5907.01 of the 121862
Revised Code in the medicare program.121863

       Sec. 5111.22.        Sec. 5165.07. (A) Except as provided in section 121864
5165.072 of the Revised Code, the department of medicaid shall 121865
enter into a provider agreement with a nursing facility operator 121866
who applies, and is eligible, for the provider agreement.121867

       (B) A provider agreement between the department of job and 121868
family services and the provider of a nursing facility or 121869
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded shall contain121870
require the following provisions:121871

       (A) The department agrees to make medicaid payments to the 121872
provider, as provided in sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the 121873
Revised Code,in accordance with this chapter for medicaid-covered121874
nursing facility services the nursing facility provides to a 121875
resident of theits residents who are medicaid recipients eligible 121876
for nursing facility who is a medicaid recipientservices. No 121877
payment shall be made for the day a medicaid recipient is 121878
discharged from the facility.121879

       (B) The(C) A provider agreement shall require the provider 121880
agrees to do all of the following:121881

       (1) Maintain eligibility for the provider agreement as 121882
provided in section 5111.215165.06 of the Revised Code;121883

       (2) Keep records relating to a cost reporting period for the 121884
greater of seven years after the cost report is filed or, if the 121885
department issues an audit report in accordance with division (B) 121886
of section 5111.275165.109 of the Revised Code, six years after 121887
all appeal rights relating to the audit report are exhausted;121888

       (3) File reports as required by the department;121889

       (4) Open all records relating to the costs of itsthe nursing 121890
facility's services for inspection and audit by the department;121891

       (5) Open its premises for inspection by the department, the 121892
department of health, and any other state or local authority 121893
having authority to inspect;121894

       (6) Supply to the department such information as it requires 121895
concerning the nursing facility's services to residents who are,121896
or are eligible to be, medicaid recipients;121897

       (7) Comply with section 5111.315165.08 of the Revised Code.121898

       The(D) A provider agreement may contain other provisions 121899
that are consistent with law and considered necessary by the 121900
department.121901

       A provider agreement shall be effective for no longer than 121902
twelve months, except that if federal statute or regulations 121903
authorize a longer term, it may be effective for a longer term so 121904
authorized. A provider agreement may be renewed only if the 121905
facility is certified by the department of health for 121906
participation in the medicaid program.121907

       The department of job and family services, in accordance with 121908
rules adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code, may elect 121909
not to enter into, not to renew, or to terminate a provider 121910
agreement when the department determines that such an agreement 121911
would not be in the best interests of medicaid recipients or of 121912
the state.121913

       Sec. 5111.223.        Sec. 5165.071. TheA nursing facility operator of a 121914
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 121915
retarded may enter into provider agreements for more than one 121916
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 121917
retarded.121918

       Sec. 5165.072.  The department of medicaid shall not 121919
revalidate a nursing facility provider agreement if the provider 121920
fails to maintain eligibility for the provider agreement as 121921
provided in section 5165.06 of the Revised Code.121922

       Sec. 5111.30.        Sec. 5165.073.  The department of job and family 121923
servicesmedicaid shall terminate the provider agreement with a 121924
nursing facility provider that does not comply with the 121925
requirements of section 3721.071 of the Revised Code for the 121926
installation of fire extinguishing and fire alarm systems.121927

       Sec. 5111.31.        Sec. 5165.08.  (A) As used in this section:121928

        "Bed need" means the number of long-term care beds a county 121929
needs as determined by the director of health pursuant to division 121930
(B)(3) of section 3702.593 of the Revised Code.121931

        "Bed need excess" means that a county's bed need is such that 121932
one or more long-term care beds may be relocated from the county 121933
according to the director's determination of the county's bed 121934
need.121935

        (B) Every provider agreement with thea nursing facility121936
provider of a nursing facility or intermediate care facility for 121937
the mentally retarded shall do both of the following:121938

       (1) Permit the provider to exclude one or more parts of the 121939
nursing facility from the provider agreement, even though those 121940
parts meet federal and state standards for medicaid certification, 121941
if all of the following apply:121942

        (a) The nursing facility initially obtained both its nursing 121943
home license under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code and medicaid 121944
certification on or after January 1, 2008.121945

        (b) The nursing facility is located in a county that has a 121946
bed need excess at the time the provider excludes the parts from 121947
the provider agreement.121948

        (c) Federal law permits the provider to exclude the parts 121949
from the provider agreement.121950

        (d) The provider gives the department of medicaid written 121951
notice of the exclusion not less than forty-five days before the 121952
first day of the calendar quarter in which the exclusion is to 121953
occur.121954

       (2) Prohibit the provider from doing either of the following:121955

       (a) Discriminating against a resident on the basis of race, 121956
color, sex, creed, or national origin;121957

       (b) Subject to division (D) of this section, failing or 121958
refusing to retaindo either of the following:121959

       (i) Except as otherwise prohibited under section 5165.82 of 121960
the Revised Code, admit as a resident of the nursing facility an 121961
individual because the individual is, or may (as a resident of the 121962
nursing facility) become, a medicaid recipient unless at least 121963
twenty-five per cent of the nursing facility's medicaid-certified 121964
beds are occupied by medicaid recipients at the time the person 121965
would otherwise be admitted;121966

       (ii) Retain as a patient any personresident of the nursing 121967
facility an individual because the personindividual is, becomes,121968
or may (as a resident of the nursing facility) become, as a 121969
patient in the facility, become a medicaid recipient. For the 121970
purposes of this division, a medicaid recipient who is a patient 121971
in a facility shall be considered a patient in the facility during 121972
any hospital stays totaling less than twenty-five days during any 121973
twelve-month period. Recipients who have been identified by the 121974
department of job and family services or its designee as requiring 121975
the level of care of an intermediate care facility for the 121976
mentally retarded shall not be subject to a maximum period of 121977
absences during which they are considered patients if prior 121978
authorization of the department for visits with relatives and 121979
friends and participation in therapeutic programs is obtained 121980
under rules adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code.121981

       (2) Except as provided by division (B)(1) of this section, 121982
include any part of the facility that meets standards for 121983
certification of compliance with federal and state laws and rules 121984
for participation in the medicaid program.121985

       (3) Prohibit the provider from discriminating against any 121986
patient on the basis of race, color, sex, creed, or national 121987
origin.121988

       (4) Except as otherwise prohibited under section 5111.55 of 121989
the Revised Code, prohibit the provider from failing or refusing 121990
to accept a patient because the patient is, becomes, or may, as a 121991
patient in the facility, become a medicaid recipient if less than 121992
eighty per cent of the patients in the facility are medicaid 121993
recipients.121994

       (B)(1) Except as provided by division (B)(2) of this section, 121995
the following are not required to be included in a provider 121996
agreement unless otherwise required by federal law:121997

       (a) Beds added during the period beginning July 1, 1987, and 121998
ending July 1, 1993, to a nursing home licensed under Chapter 121999
3721. of the Revised Code;122000

       (b) Beds in an intermediate care facility for the mentally 122001
retarded that are designated for respite care under a medicaid 122002
waiver component operated pursuant to a waiver sought under 122003
section 5111.87 of the Revised Code.122004

        (2) If a provider chooses to include a bed specified in 122005
division (B)(1)(a) of this section in a provider agreement, the 122006
bed may not be removed from the provider agreement unless the 122007
provider withdraws the facility in which the bed is located from 122008
the medicaid program.122009

       (C) For the purpose of division (B)(2)(b)(ii) of this 122010
section, a medicaid recipient who is a resident of a nursing 122011
facility shall be considered a resident of the nursing facility 122012
during any hospital stays totaling less than twenty-five days 122013
during any twelve-month period.122014

       (D) Nothing in this section shall bar a provider thatfrom 122015
doing any of the following:122016

       (1) If the provider is a religious organization operating a 122017
religious or denominational nursing facility or intermediate care 122018
facility for the mentally retarded from giving preference to 122019
persons of the same religion or denomination. Nothing in this 122020
section shall bar any provider from giving;122021

       (2) Giving preference to persons with whom the provider has 122022
contracted to provide continuing care.122023

       (D) Nothing in this section shall bar the provider of;122024

       (3) If the nursing facility is a county home organized under 122025
Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code from, admitting residents 122026
exclusively from the county in which the county home is located.122027

       (E) No provider of a nursing facility or intermediate care 122028
facility for the mentally retarded for which a provider agreement 122029
is in effect shall violate the provider contract obligations 122030
imposed under this section.122031

       (F) Nothing in divisions (A) and (C) of this section shall 122032
bar a provider from retaining patients;122033

       (4) Retaining residents who have resided in the provider's 122034
nursing facility for not less than one year as private pay 122035
patients and who subsequently become medicaid recipients, but 122036
refusing to accept as a patientresident any person who is, or 122037
may,(as a patient inresident of the nursing facility,) become a 122038
medicaid recipient, if all of the following apply:122039

       (1)(a) The provider does not refuse to retain any patient122040
resident who has resided in the provider's nursing facility for 122041
not less than one year as a private pay patientresident because 122042
the patientresident becomes a medicaid recipient, except as 122043
necessary to comply with division (F)(2)(D)(4)(b) of this section;122044

       (2)(b) The number of medicaid recipients retained under this122045
division (D)(4) of this section does not at any time exceed ten 122046
per cent of all the patientsresidents in the nursing facility;122047

       (3)(c) On July 1, 1980, all the patientsresidents in the 122048
nursing facility were private pay patientsresidents.122049

       (E) No provider shall violate the provider agreement 122050
obligations imposed by this section.122051

       (F) A nursing facility provider who excludes one or more 122052
parts of the nursing facility from a provider agreement pursuant 122053
to division (B)(1) of this section does not violate division (C) 122054
of section 3702.53 of the Revised Code.122055

       Sec. 5111.32.        Sec. 5165.081. Any patientA nursing facility 122056
resident has a cause of action against thea nursing facility122057
provider of a nursing facility or intermediate care facility for 122058
the mentally retarded for breach of the provider agreement 122059
obligations or other duties imposed by section 5111.315165.08 of 122060
the Revised Code. The action may be commenced by the patient122061
resident, or on the patient'sresident's behalf by the patient's122062
resident's sponsor or a residents' rights advocate, as either is 122063
defined under section 3721.10 of the Revised Code, by the filing 122064
of a civil action in the court of common pleas of the county in 122065
which the nursing facility is located, or in the court of common 122066
pleas of Franklin county.122067

       If thea court of common pleas finds that a breach of the122068
provider has breached a provider agreement obligationsobligation 122069
or other duty imposed by section 5111.315165.08 of the Revised 122070
Code has occurred, the court may enjoindo one or more of the 122071
following:122072

       (A) Enjoin the provider from engaging in the practice, order;122073

       (B) Order such affirmative relief as may be necessary, and 122074
award;122075

       (C) Award to the patienta resident and a personsponsor or 122076
public agencygovernment entity that brings anthe action on 122077
behalf of a patientresident actual damages, costs, and reasonable 122078
attorney's fees.122079

       Sec. 5165.082.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) of 122080
this section, the operator of a nursing facility that elects to 122081
have the nursing facility participate in the medicaid program 122082
shall qualify all of the nursing facility's medicaid-certified 122083
beds in the medicare program. The medicaid director may adopt 122084
rules under section 5165.02 of the Revised Code to establish the 122085
time frame in which a nursing facility must comply with this 122086
requirement.122087

       (B) The department of veterans services is not required to 122088
qualify all of the medicaid-certified beds in a nursing facility 122089
the department maintains and operates under section 5907.01 of the 122090
Revised Code in the medicare program.122091

       Sec. 5111.26.        Sec. 5165.10.  (A)(1)(a) Except as provided in 122092
division (A)(1)(b)(D) of this section, each nursing facility122093
provider shall file with the department of job and family services122094
medicaid an annual cost report for each of the provider's nursing 122095
facilities and intermediate care facilities for the mentally 122096
retarded that participate in the medicaid program. A provider 122097
shall prepare the reports in accordance with guidelines 122098
established by the department. AThe cost report for a year shall 122099
cover athe calendar year or the portion of athe calendar year 122100
during which the nursing facility participated in the medicaid 122101
program. A provider shall file the reports withinExcept as 122102
provided in division (E) of this section, the cost report is due 122103
not later than ninety days after the end of the calendar year, or 122104
portion of the calendar year, that the cost report covers. The 122105
department, for good cause, may grant a fourteen-day extension of 122106
the time for filing cost reports upon written request from a 122107
provider. The director of job and family services shall prescribe, 122108
in rules adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code, the 122109
cost reporting form and a uniform chart of accounts for the 122110
purpose of cost reporting, and shall distribute cost reporting 122111
forms or computer software for electronic submission of the cost 122112
report to each provider at least sixty days before the reporting 122113
date.122114

       (b) If rates for a provider's nursing facility or 122115
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded were most 122116
recently established under section 5111.254 or 5111.255 of the 122117
Revised Code, the provider shall submit a cost report for that 122118
facility no later than ninety days after the end of the facility's 122119
first three full calendar months of operation. If a nursing 122120
facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded 122121
undergoes a change of provider that the department determines, in 122122
accordance with rules adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised 122123
Code, is an arm's length transaction, the new provider shall 122124
submit a cost report for that facility not later than ninety days 122125
after the end of the facility's first three full calendar months 122126
of operation under the new provider. The provider of a facility 122127
that opens or undergoes a change of provider that is an arm's 122128
length transaction after the first day of October in any calendar 122129
year is not required to file a cost report for that calendar year.122130

       (c)(B) If a nursing facility undergoes a change of provider 122131
that the department determines, in accordance with rules adopted 122132
under section 5111.025165.02 of the Revised Code, is not an arms122133
arm's length transaction, the new provider shall file athe 122134
nursing facility's cost report underin accordance with division 122135
(A)(1)(a) of this section for the facility. Theand the cost 122136
report shall cover the portion of the calendar year during which 122137
the new provider operated the nursing facility and the portion of 122138
the calendar year during which the previous provider operated the 122139
nursing facility.122140

       (2) If a provider required to submit a cost report for a 122141
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 122142
retarded does not file the report within the required time period 122143
or within fourteen days thereafter if an extension is granted 122144
under division (A)(1)(a) of this section, or files an incomplete 122145
or inadequate report for the facility, the department shall 122146
provide immediate written notice to the provider that the provider 122147
agreement for the facility will be terminated in thirty days 122148
unless the provider submits a complete and adequate cost report 122149
for the facility within thirty days. During the thirty-day 122150
termination period or any additional time allowed for an appeal of 122151
the proposed termination of a provider agreement, the provider 122152
shall be paid the facility's then current per resident per day 122153
rate, minus two dollars. On July 1, 1994, the department shall 122154
adjust the two-dollar reduction to reflect the rate of inflation 122155
during the preceding twelve months, as shown in the consumer price 122156
index for all items for all urban consumers for the north central 122157
region, published by the United States bureau of labor statistics. 122158
On July 1, 1995, and the first day of July of each year 122159
thereafter, the department shall adjust the amount of the 122160
reduction in effect during the previous twelve months to reflect 122161
the rate of inflation during the preceding twelve months, as shown 122162
in the same index.122163

       (B) No provider shall report fines paid under sections 122164
5111.35 to 5111.62 or section 5111.99 of the Revised Code in any 122165
cost report filed under this section.122166

       (C) The department shall develop an addendum to the cost 122167
report form that a provider may use to set forth costs that the 122168
provider believes may be disputed by the department. Any costs 122169
reported by the provider on the addendum may be considered by the 122170
department in setting the facility's rate. If the department does 122171
not consider the costs listed on the addendum in setting the 122172
facility's rate, the provider may seek reconsideration of that 122173
determination under section 5111.29 of the Revised Code. If the 122174
department subsequently includes the costs listed in the addendum 122175
in the facility's rate, the department shall pay the provider 122176
interest at a reasonable rate established in rules adopted under 122177
section 5111.02 of the Revised Code for the time that the rate 122178
paid excluded the costs.If the medicaid payment rate for a new 122179
nursing facility was most recently determined in accordance with 122180
section 5165.151 of the Revised Code, the provider shall file with 122181
the department a cost report for the new nursing facility not 122182
later than, except as provided in division (E) of this section, 122183
ninety days after the end of the new nursing facility's first 122184
three full calendar months of operation. The cost report shall 122185
cover the period that begins with the nursing facility's first day 122186
of operation and ends on the first day of the month immediately 122187
following the first three full months of operation.122188

       (D) A nursing facility provider is not required to file a 122189
cost report for a nursing facility for a calendar year in 122190
accordance with division (A) of this section if the provider files 122191
a cost report for the nursing facility under division (C) of this 122192
section and that cost report covers a period that begins after the 122193
first day of October of that calendar year. The provider shall 122194
file a cost report for the nursing facility in accordance with 122195
division (A) of this section for the immediately following 122196
calendar year.122197

       (E) The department may grant to a provider a fourteen-day 122198
extension to file a cost report under this section if the provider 122199
provides the department a written request for the extension and 122200
the department determines that there is good cause for the 122201
extension.122202

       Sec. 5111.266.        Sec. 5165.101.  A nursing facility provider of a 122203
nursing facility filing the nursing facility's cost report with 122204
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid under section 122205
5111.265165.10 or 5165.522 of the Revised Code shall report as a 122206
nonreimbursable expense the cost of the nursing facility's 122207
franchise permit fee.122208

       Sec. 5165.102.  No nursing facility provider shall report 122209
fines paid under sections 5165.60 to 5165.89 or section 5165.99 of 122210
the Revised Code in a cost report filed under section 5165.10 or 122211
5165.522 of the Revised Code.122212

       Sec. 5165.103.  Cost reports shall be completed using the 122213
form prescribed under section 5165.104 of the Revised Code and in 122214
accordance with the guidelines established under that section.122215

       Sec. 5165.104.  The department of medicaid shall do all of 122216
the following:122217

       (A) Prescribe the form to be used for completing a cost 122218
report and a uniform chart of accounts for the purpose of 122219
reporting costs on the form;122220

       (B) Distribute a paper copy of the form, or computer software 122221
for electronic submission of the form, to each provider at least 122222
sixty days before the date the cost report is due;122223

       (C) Establish guidelines for completing the form.122224

       Sec. 5165.105.  The department of medicaid shall develop an 122225
addendum to the cost report form that a nursing facility provider 122226
may use to set forth costs that the provider believes the 122227
department may dispute. The department may consider such costs in 122228
determining a nursing facility's medicaid payment rate. If the 122229
department does not consider such costs in determining a nursing 122230
facility's medicaid payment rate, the provider may seek 122231
reconsideration of the determination in accordance with section 122232
5165.38 of the Revised Code. If the department subsequently 122233
includes such costs in a nursing facility's medicaid payment rate, 122234
the department shall pay the provider interest at a reasonable 122235
rate established in rules adopted under section 5165.02 of the 122236
Revised Code for the period that the rate excluded the costs.122237

       Sec. 5165.106.  If a nursing facility provider required by 122238
section 5165.10 of the Revised Code to file a cost report for the 122239
nursing facility fails to file the cost report by the date it is 122240
due or the date, if any, to which the due date is extended 122241
pursuant to division (E) of that section, or files an incomplete 122242
or inadequate report for the nursing facility under that section, 122243
the department of medicaid shall provide immediate written notice 122244
to the provider that the provider agreement for the nursing 122245
facility will be terminated in thirty days unless the provider 122246
submits a complete and adequate cost report for the nursing 122247
facility within thirty days. During the thirty-day termination 122248
period or any additional time allowed for an appeal of the 122249
proposed termination of a provider agreement, the provider shall 122250
be paid the nursing facility's then current per medicaid day 122251
payment rate, minus the dollar amount by which nursing facility's 122252
per medicaid day payment rates are reduced during fiscal year 2013 122253
in accordance with division (A)(2) of section 5111.26 of the 122254
Revised Code (renumbered as section 5165.10 of the Revised Code by 122255
H.B. 59 of the 130th general assembly) as that section existed on 122256
the day immediately preceding the effective date of this section. 122257
On the first day of each July, the department shall adjust the 122258
amount of the reduction in effect during the previous twelve 122259
months to reflect the rate of inflation during the preceding 122260
twelve months, as shown in the consumer price index for all items 122261
for all urban consumers for the north central region, published by 122262
the United States bureau of labor statistics.122263

       Sec. 5111.261.        Sec. 5165.107.  (A) Except as provided in division 122264
(B) of this section and not later than three years after a nursing 122265
facility provider files a cost report with the department of job 122266
and family servicesmedicaid under section 5111.265165.10 of the 122267
Revised Code, the provider may amend the cost report if the 122268
provider discovers a material error in the cost report or 122269
additional information to be included in the cost report. The 122270
department shall review the amended cost report for accuracy and 122271
notify the provider of its determination.122272

       (B) A provider may not amend a cost report if the department 122273
has notified the provider that an audit of the cost report or a 122274
cost report of the provider for a subsequent cost reporting period 122275
is to be conducted under section 5111.275165.109 of the Revised 122276
Code. The provider may, however, provide the department 122277
information that affects the costs included in the cost report. 122278
Such information may not be provided after the adjudication of the 122279
final settlement of the cost report.122280

       Sec. 5111.27.        Sec. 5165.108.  (A) The department of job and family 122281
servicesmedicaid shall conduct a desk review of each cost report 122282
it receives under section 5111.265165.10 or 5165.522 of the 122283
Revised Code. Based on the desk review, the department shall make 122284
a preliminary determination of whether the reported costs are 122285
allowable costs. The department shall notify each nursing facility122286
provider of whether any of the reported costs are preliminarily 122287
determined not to be allowable, the medicaid payment rate 122288
calculationdetermined under sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the 122289
Revised Codethis chapter that results from that determination, 122290
and the reasons for the determination and resulting rate. The 122291
department shall allow the provider to verify the calculation and 122292
submit additional information.122293

       (B) The department may conduct an audit, as defined by rule 122294
adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code, of any cost 122295
report. The decision whether to conduct an audit and the scope of 122296
the audit, which may be a desk or field audit, may be determined 122297
based on prior performance of the provider, a risk analysis, or 122298
other evidence that gives the department reason to believe that 122299
the provider has reported costs improperly. A desk or field audit 122300
may be performed annually, but is required whenever a provider 122301
does not pass the risk analysis tolerance factors. An audit shall 122302
be conducted by auditors under contract with or employed by the 122303
department. The department shall notify a provider of the findings 122304
of an audit by issuing an audit report. An audit report regarding 122305
a nursing facility shall include notice of any fine imposed under 122306
section 5111.271 of the Revised Code. The department shall issue 122307
the audit report no later than three years after the cost report 122308
is filed, or upon the completion of a desk or field audit on the 122309
report or a report for a subsequent cost reporting period, 122310
whichever is earlier.122311

       The department may establish a contract for the auditing of 122312
facilities by outside firms. Each contract entered into by bidding 122313
shall be effective for one to two years. The department shall 122314
establish an audit manual and program which shall require that all 122315
field audits, conducted either pursuant to a contract or by 122316
department employees:122317

       (1) Comply with the applicable rules prescribed pursuant to 122318
Titles XVIII and XIX;122319

       (2) Consider generally accepted auditing standards prescribed 122320
by the American institute of certified public accountants;122321

       (3) Include a written summary as to whether the costs 122322
included in the report examined during the audit are allowable and 122323
are presented in accordance with state and federal laws and 122324
regulations, and whether, in all material respects, allowable 122325
costs are documented, reasonable, and related to patient care;122326

       (4) Are conducted by accounting firms or auditors who, during 122327
the period of the auditors' professional engagement or employment 122328
and during the period covered by the cost reports, do not have nor 122329
are committed to acquire any direct or indirect financial interest 122330
in the ownership, financing, or operation of a nursing facility or 122331
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded in this 122332
state;122333

       (5) Are conducted by accounting firms or auditors who, as a 122334
condition of the contract or employment, shall not audit any 122335
facility that has been a client of the firm or auditor;122336

       (6) Are conducted by auditors who are otherwise independent 122337
as determined by the standards of independence included in the 122338
government auditing standards produced by the United States 122339
government accountability office;122340

       (7) Are completed within the time period specified by the 122341
department;122342

       (8) Provide to the provider complete written interpretations 122343
that explain in detail the application of all relevant contract 122344
provisions, regulations, auditing standards, rate formulae, and 122345
departmental policies, with explanations and examples, that are 122346
sufficient to permit the provider to calculate with reasonable 122347
certainty those costs that are allowable and the rate to which the 122348
provider's facility is entitled.122349

       For the purposes of division (B)(4) of this section, 122350
employment of a member of an auditor's family by a nursing 122351
facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded 122352
that the auditor does not review does not constitute a direct or 122353
indirect financial interest in the ownership, financing, or 122354
operation of the facility.122355

       (C) The department, pursuant to rules adopted under section 122356
5111.02 of the Revised Code, may conduct an exception review of 122357
assessment data submitted under section 5111.232 of the Revised 122358
Code. The department may conduct an exception review based on the 122359
findings of a certification survey conducted by the department of 122360
health, a risk analysis, or prior performance of the provider.122361

       Exception reviews shall be conducted at the facility by 122362
appropriate health professionals under contract with or employed 122363
by the department of job and family services. The professionals 122364
may review resident assessment forms and supporting documentation, 122365
conduct interviews, and observe residents to identify any patterns 122366
or trends of inaccurate assessments and resulting inaccurate 122367
case-mix scores.122368

       The rules shall establish an exception review program that 122369
requires that exception reviews do all of the following:122370

       (1) Comply with Titles XVIII and XIX;122371

       (2) Provide a written summary that states whether the 122372
resident assessment forms have been completed accurately;122373

       (3) Are conducted by health professionals who, during the 122374
period of their professional engagement or employment with the 122375
department, neither have nor are committed to acquire any direct 122376
or indirect financial interest in the ownership, financing, or 122377
operation of a nursing facility or intermediate care facility for 122378
the mentally retarded in this state;122379

       (4) Are conducted by health professionals who, as a condition 122380
of their engagement or employment with the department, shall not 122381
review any provider that has been a client of the professional.122382

       For the purposes of division (C)(3) of this section, 122383
employment of a member of a health professional's family by a 122384
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 122385
retarded that the professional does not review does not constitute 122386
a direct or indirect financial interest in the ownership, 122387
financing, or operation of the facility.122388

       If an exception review is conducted before the effective date 122389
of the rate that is based on the case-mix data subject to the 122390
review and the review results in findings that exceed tolerance 122391
levels specified in the rules adopted under this division, the 122392
department, in accordance with those rules, may use the findings 122393
to recalculate individual resident case-mix scores, quarterly 122394
average facility case-mix scores, and annual average facility 122395
case-mix scores. The department may use the recalculated quarterly 122396
and annual facility average case-mix scores to calculate the 122397
facility's rate for direct care costs for the appropriate calendar 122398
quarter or quarters.122399

       (D) The department shall prepare a written summary of any 122400
audit disallowance or exception review finding that is made after 122401
the effective date of the rate that is based on the cost or 122402
case-mix data. Where the provider is pursuing judicial or 122403
administrative remedies in good faith regarding the disallowance 122404
or finding, the department shall not withhold from the provider's 122405
current payments any amounts the department claims to be due from 122406
the provider pursuant to section 5111.28 of the Revised Code.122407

       (E) The department shall not reduce rates calculated under 122408
sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Code on the basis that 122409
the provider charges a lower rate to any resident who is not 122410
eligible for the medicaid program.122411

       (F) The department shall adjust the rates calculated under 122412
sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Code to account for 122413
reasonable additional costs that must be incurred by intermediate 122414
care facilities for the mentally retarded to comply with 122415
requirements of federal or state statutes, rules, or policies 122416
enacted or amended after January 1, 1992, or with orders issued by 122417
state or local fire authorities.122418

       Sec. 5165.109.  (A) The department of medicaid may conduct an 122419
audit, as defined in rules adopted under section 5165.02 of the 122420
Revised Code, of any cost report filed under section 5165.10 or 122421
5165.522 of the Revised Code. The decision whether to conduct an 122422
audit and the scope of the audit, which may be a desk or field 122423
audit, may be determined based on prior performance of the 122424
provider, a risk analysis, or other evidence that gives the 122425
department reason to believe that the provider has reported costs 122426
improperly. A desk or field audit may be performed annually, but 122427
is required whenever a provider does not pass the risk analysis 122428
tolerance factors.122429

       (B) Audits shall be conducted by auditors under contract with 122430
the department, auditors working for firms under contract with the 122431
department, or auditors employed by the department. 122432

       The department may establish a contract for the auditing of 122433
nursing facilities by outside firms. Each contract entered into by 122434
bidding shall be effective for one to two years.122435

       (C) The department shall notify a provider of the findings of 122436
an audit of a cost report by issuing an audit report. The audit 122437
report shall include notice of any fine imposed under section 122438
5165.1010 of the Revised Code. The department shall issue the 122439
audit report not later than three years after the earlier of the 122440
following:122441

       (1) The date the cost report is filed;122442

       (2) The date a desk or field audit of the cost report or a 122443
cost report for a subsequent cost reporting period is completed.122444

       (D) The department shall prepare a written summary of any 122445
audit disallowance that is made after the effective date of the 122446
rate that is based on the cost. Where the provider is pursuing 122447
judicial or administrative remedies in good faith regarding the 122448
disallowance, the department shall not withhold from the 122449
provider's current payments any amounts the department claims to 122450
be due from the provider pursuant to section 5165.41 of the 122451
Revised Code.122452

       (E)(1) The department shall establish an audit manual and 122453
program for field audits conducted under this section. Each 122454
auditor conducting a field audit under this section shall follow 122455
the audit manual and program, regardless of whether the auditor is 122456
under contract with the department, works for a firm under 122457
contract with the department, or is employed by the department. 122458
The manual and program shall do both of the following:122459

       (a) Require each field audit to be conducted by an auditor to 122460
whom all of the following apply:122461

       (i) During the period of the auditor's contract, firm's 122462
contract, or auditor's employment with the department, the auditor 122463
or firm does not have and is not committed to acquire any direct 122464
or indirect financial interest in the ownership, financing, or 122465
operation of nursing facilities in this state.122466

       (ii) The auditor does not audit any provider that has been a 122467
client of the auditor or the auditor's firm.122468

       (iii) The auditor is otherwise independent as determined by 122469
the standards of independence included in the government auditing 122470
standards produced by the United States government accountability 122471
office.122472

       (b) Require each auditor conducting a field audit to do all 122473
of the following:122474

       (i) Comply with applicable rules prescribed pursuant to Title 122475
XVIII and Title XIX;122476

       (ii) Consider generally accepted auditing standards 122477
prescribed by the American institute of certified public 122478
accountants;122479

       (iii) Include a written summary as to whether the costs 122480
included in the cost report examined during the audit are 122481
allowable and are presented in accordance with state and federal 122482
laws and regulations, and whether, in all material respects, 122483
allowable costs are documented, reasonable, and related to patient 122484
care;122485

       (iv) Complete the audit within the time period specified by 122486
the department;122487

       (v) Provide to the provider complete written interpretations 122488
that explain in detail the application of all relevant contract 122489
provisions, regulations, auditing standards, rate formulae, and 122490
departmental policies, with explanations and examples, that are 122491
sufficient to permit the provider to calculate with reasonable 122492
certainty those costs that are allowable and the rate to which the 122493
provider's nursing facility is entitled.122494

       (2) For the purpose of division (E)(1)(a)(i) of this section, 122495
employment of a member of an auditor's family by a nursing 122496
facility that the auditor does not audit does not constitute a 122497
direct or indirect financial interest in the ownership, financing, 122498
or operation of the nursing facility.122499

       Sec. 5111.271.        Sec. 5165.1010.  (A) Subject to division (D) of this 122500
section, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 122501
fine the provider of a nursing facility if the report of an audit 122502
conducted under division (B) of section 5111.275165.109 of the 122503
Revised Code regarding a cost report for the nursing facility 122504
includes either of the following:122505

       (1) Adverse findings that exceed three per cent of the total 122506
amount of medicaid-reimbursablemedicaid-allowable costs reported 122507
in the cost report;122508

       (2) Adverse findings that exceed twenty per cent of 122509
medicaid-reimbursablemedicaid-allowable costs for a particular 122510
cost center reported in the cost report.122511

       (B) A fine issued under this section shall equal the greatest 122512
of the following:122513

       (1) If the adverse findings exceed three per cent but do not 122514
exceed ten per cent of the total amount of medicaid-reimbursable122515
medicaid-allowable costs reported in the cost report, the greater 122516
of three per cent of those reported costs or ten thousand dollars;122517

       (2) If the adverse findings exceed ten per cent but do not 122518
exceed twenty per cent of the total amount of 122519
medicaid-reimbursablemedicaid-allowable costs reported in the 122520
cost report, the greater of six per cent of those reported costs 122521
or twenty-five thousand dollars;122522

       (3) If the adverse findings exceed twenty per cent of the 122523
total amount of medicaid-reimbursablemedicaid-allowable costs 122524
reported in the cost report, the greater of ten per cent of those 122525
reported costs or fifty thousand dollars;122526

       (4) If the adverse findings exceed twenty per cent but do not 122527
exceed twenty-five per cent of medicaid-reimbursable122528
medicaid-allowable costs for a particular cost center reported in 122529
the cost report, the greater of three per cent of the total amount 122530
of medicaid-reimbursablemedicaid-allowable costs reported in the 122531
cost report or ten thousand dollars;122532

       (5) If the adverse findings exceed twenty-five per cent but 122533
do not exceed thirty per cent of medicaid-reimbursable122534
medicaid-allowable costs for a particular cost center reported in 122535
the cost report, the greater of six per cent of the total amount 122536
of medicaid-reimbursablemedicaid-allowable costs reported in the 122537
cost report or twenty-five thousand dollars;122538

       (6) If the adverse findings exceed thirty per cent of 122539
medicaid-reimbursablemedicaid-allowable costs for a particular 122540
cost center reported in the cost report, the greater of ten per 122541
cent of the total amount of medicaid-reimbursable122542
medicaid-allowable costs reported in the cost report or fifty 122543
thousand dollars.122544

       (C) Fines paid under this section shall be deposited into the 122545
health care services administration fund created under section 122546
5111.945162.54 of the Revised Code.122547

       (D) The department may not collect a fine under this section 122548
until all appeal rights relating to the audit report that is the 122549
basis for the fine are exhausted.122550

       Sec. 5111.222.        Sec. 5165.15.  (A) As used in this section, "low 122551
resource utilization resident" means a medicaid recipient residing 122552
in a nursing facility who, for purposes of calculating the nursing 122553
facility's medicaid reimbursement rate for direct care costs, is 122554
placed in either of the two lowest resource utilization groups, 122555
excluding any resource utilization group that is a default group 122556
used for residents with incomplete assessment data.122557

       (B) Except as otherwise provided by sections 5111.205165.151122558
to 5111.3315165.156 and 5165.34 of the Revised Code and by 122559
division (C) of this section, the total per medicaid day payment122560
rate that the department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 122561
agree to pay for a fiscal year to the provider of a nursing 122562
facility pursuant to a provider agreementprovider for nursing 122563
facility services the provider's nursing facility provides during 122564
a fiscal year shall equal the sum of all of the following:122565

        (1) The rate for direct care costs determined for the nursing 122566
facility under section 5111.231 of the Revised Code;122567

       (2) The per medicaid day payment rate for ancillary and 122568
support costs determined for the nursing facility's ancillary and 122569
support cost peer groupfacility under section 5111.245165.16 of 122570
the Revised Code;122571

        (3)(2) The per medicaid day payment rate for capital costs 122572
determined for the nursing facility under section 5165.17 of the 122573
Revised Code;122574

       (3) The per medicaid day payment rate for direct care costs 122575
determined for the nursing facility under section 5165.19 of the 122576
Revised Code;122577

       (4) The per medicaid day payment rate for tax costs 122578
determined for the nursing facility under section 5111.2425165.21122579
of the Revised Code;122580

       (4) The quality incentive payment paid to the nursing 122581
facility under section 5111.244 of the Revised Code;122582

        (5) If the nursing facility qualifies as a critical access 122583
nursing facility, the nursing facility's critical access incentive 122584
payment paid to the nursing facility under section 5111.246122585
5165.23 of the Revised Code;122586

       (6) The rate for capital costs determined for the nursing 122587
facility's capital costs peer group under section 5111.25quality 122588
incentive payment paid to the nursing facility under section 122589
5165.25 of the Revised Code.122590

       (C) The total rate determined under division (B) of this 122591
section shall not be paid for nursing facility services provided 122592
to low resource utilization residents. Instead, the total rate for 122593
nursing facility services that a nursing facility provides to low 122594
resource utilization residents shall be one hundred thirty dollars 122595
per medicaid day.122596

       (D)(B) In addition to paying a nursing facility provider the 122597
nursing facility's total rate determined under division (B) or 122598
(C)(A) of this section for a fiscal year, the department shall pay 122599
the provider a quality bonus under section 5111.2455165.26 of the 122600
Revised Code for that fiscal year if the provider's nursing 122601
facility is a qualifying nursing facility, as defined in that 122602
section, for that fiscal year. The quality bonus shall not be part 122603
of the total rate.122604

       Sec. 5111.254.        Sec. 5165.151.  (A) The department of job and family 122605
services shall establish initial rates for a nursing facility with 122606
a first date of licensure that is on or after July 1, 2006, 122607
including a facility that replaces one or more existing 122608
facilities, or for a nursing facility with a first date of 122609
licensure before that date that was initially certified for the 122610
medicaid program on or after that date,total per medicaid day 122611
payment rate determined under section 5165.15 of the Revised Code 122612
shall not be the initial rate for nursing facility services 122613
provided by a new nursing facility. Instead, the initial total per 122614
medicaid day payment rate for nursing facility services provided 122615
by a new nursing facility shall be determined in the following 122616
manner:122617

       (1) The initial rate for ancillary and support costs shall be 122618
the rate for the new nursing facility's peer group determined 122619
under division (D) of section 5165.16 of the Revised Code.122620

       (2) The initial rate for capital costs shall be the rate for 122621
the new nursing facility's peer group determined under division 122622
(D) of section 5165.17 of the Revised Code;122623

       (3) The initial rate for direct care costs shall be the 122624
product of the cost per case-mix unit determined under division 122625
(D) of section 5111.2315165.19 of the Revised Code for the new 122626
nursing facility's peer group and the new nursing facility's 122627
case-mix score determined under division (B) of this section. For 122628
the purpose of division (A)(1) of this section, the nursing 122629
facility's case-mix score shall be the following:122630

       (a) Unless the nursing facility replaces an existing nursing 122631
facility that participated in the medicaid program immediately 122632
before the replacement nursing facility begins participating in 122633
the medicaid program, the median annual average case-mix score for 122634
the nursing facility's peer group;122635

        (b) If the nursing facility replaces an existing nursing 122636
facility that participated in the medicaid program immediately 122637
before the replacement nursing facility begins participating in 122638
the medicaid program, the semiannual case-mix score most recently 122639
determined under section 5111.232 of the Revised Code for the 122640
replaced nursing facility as adjusted, if necessary, to reflect 122641
any difference in the number of beds in the replaced and 122642
replacement nursing facilities.122643

       (2) The rate for ancillary and support costs shall be the 122644
rate for the facility's peer group determined under division (D) 122645
of section 5111.24 of the Revised Code.122646

       (3) The rate for capital costs shall be the rate for the 122647
facility's peer group determined under division (D) of section 122648
5111.25 of the Revised Code.122649

       (4) The initial rate for tax costs shall be the median rate 122650
for tax costs for the new nursing facility's peer group in which 122651
the nursing facility is placed under division (C) of section 122652
5111.245165.16 of the Revised Code.122653

       (5) The quality incentive payment shall be the mean payment 122654
made to nursing facilities under section 5111.2445165.25 of the 122655
Revised Code.122656

       (B) For the purpose of division (A)(3) of this section, a new 122657
nursing facility's case-mix score shall be the following:122658

       (1) Unless the new nursing facility replaces an existing 122659
nursing facility that participated in the medicaid program 122660
immediately before the new nursing facility begins participating 122661
in the medicaid program, the median annual average case-mix score 122662
for the new nursing facility's peer group;122663

       (2) If the nursing facility replaces an existing nursing 122664
facility that participated in the medicaid program immediately 122665
before the new nursing facility begins participating in the 122666
medicaid program, the semiannual case-mix score most recently 122667
determined under section 5165.192 of the Revised Code for the 122668
replaced nursing facility as adjusted, if necessary, to reflect 122669
any difference in the number of beds in the replaced and new 122670
nursing facilities.122671

       (C) Subject to division (C)(D) of this section, the 122672
department shall adjust the rates established under division (A) 122673
of this section effective the first day of July, to reflect new 122674
rate calculations for all nursing facilities under sections 122675
5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Codethis chapter.122676

       (C)(D) If a rate for direct care costs is determined under 122677
this section for a new nursing facility using the median annual 122678
average case-mix score for the new nursing facility's peer group, 122679
the rate shall be redetermined to reflect the replacementnew122680
nursing facility's actual semiannual average case-mix score 122681
determined under section 5111.2325165.192 of the Revised Code 122682
after the new nursing facility submits its first two quarterly 122683
assessment data that qualify for use in calculating a case-mix 122684
score in accordance with rules authorized by division (E) of122685
section 5111.2325165.192 of the Revised Code. If the new nursing 122686
facility's quarterly submissions do not qualify for use in 122687
calculating a case-mix score, the department shall continue to use 122688
the median annual average case-mix score for the new nursing 122689
facility's peer group in lieu of the new nursing facility's 122690
semiannual case-mix score until the new nursing facility submits 122691
two consecutive quarterly assessment data that qualify for use in 122692
calculating a case-mix score.122693

       Sec. 5165.152.  The total per medicaid day payment rate 122694
determined under section 5165.15 of the Revised Code shall not be 122695
paid for nursing facility services provided to low resource 122696
utilization residents. Instead, the total rate for such nursing 122697
facility services shall be one hundred thirty dollars per medicaid 122698
day.122699

       Sec. 5111.258.        Sec. 5165.153.  (A) Notwithstanding sections 5111.20 122700
to 5111.331 of the Revised Code (except section 5111.259 of the 122701
Revised Code), the director of job and family services shall adopt 122702
rules under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code that establish a 122703
methodology for calculating the prospective rates that will be 122704
paid each fiscal year to a provider for each of the provider's 122705
eligible nursing facilities and intermediate care facilities for 122706
the mentally retarded, and discrete units of the provider's 122707
nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities for the 122708
mentally retarded, that serve residents who have diagnosesThe 122709
total per medicaid day payment rate determined under section 122710
5165.15 of the Revised Code shall not be paid for nursing facility 122711
services provided by a nursing facility, or discrete unit of a 122712
nursing facility, designated by the department of medicaid as an 122713
outlier nursing facility or unit. Instead, the provider of a 122714
designated outlier nursing facility or unit shall be paid each 122715
fiscal year a total per medicaid day payment rate that the 122716
department shall prospectively determine in accordance with a 122717
methodology established in rules authorized by this section.122718

       (B) The department may designate a nursing facility, or 122719
discrete unit of a nursing facility, as an outlier nursing 122720
facility or unit if the nursing facility or unit serves residents 122721
who have either of the following:122722

       (1) Diagnoses or special care needs that require direct care 122723
resources that are not measured adequately by the applicable122724
resident assessment instrument specified in rules authorized by 122725
section 5111.2325165.191 of the Revised Code, or who have 122726
diagnoses;122727

       (2) Diagnoses or special care needs specified in the rules 122728
authorized by this section as otherwise qualifying for 122729
consideration under this section. The facilities and units of 122730
facilities whose rates are established under this division may 122731
include, but shall not be limited to, any of the following:122732

       (1) In the case of nursing facilities, facilities and units 122733
of facilities that serve medically fragile pediatric residents, 122734
residents who are dependent on ventilators, or residents who have 122735
severe traumatic brain injury, end-stage Alzheimer's disease, or 122736
end-stage acquired immunodeficiency syndrome;122737

       (2) In the case of intermediate care facilities for the 122738
mentally retarded, facilities and units of facilities that serve 122739
residents who have complex medical conditions or severe behavioral 122740
problems.122741

       The department shall use the methodology established under 122742
this division to pay for services rendered by such facilities and 122743
units after June 30, 1993.122744

       (C) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter 122745
(except section 5165.156 of the Revised Code), the costs incurred 122746
by a designated outlier nursing facility or unit shall not be 122747
considered in establishing medicaid payment rates for other 122748
nursing facilities or units.122749

       (D) The medicaid director shall adopt rules under section 122750
5165.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this 122751
section.122752

       (1)(a) The rules authorized by this division shall specifydo 122753
both of the following:122754

       (i) Specify the criteria and procedures the department will 122755
apply when designating facilities and units that qualify for 122756
calculation of rates under this divisiona nursing facility, or 122757
discrete unit of a nursing facility, as an outlier nursing 122758
facility or unit;122759

       (ii) Establish a methodology for prospectively determining 122760
the total per medicaid day payment rate that will be paid each 122761
fiscal year for nursing facility services provided by a designated 122762
outlier nursing facility or unit. The criteria shall include122763

       (b) The rules authorized by division (D)(1)(a)(i) of this 122764
section regarding the criteria for designating outlier nursing 122765
facilities and units shall do both of the following:122766

       (i) Provide for consideration of whether all of the allowable 122767
costs of thea nursing facility, or discrete unit of a nursing 122768
facility, would be paid by rates establisheda rate determined122769
under sections 5111.20 to 5111.331section 5165.15 of the Revised 122770
Code, and shall establish a;122771

       (ii) Specify the minimum bed size for anumber of nursing 122772
facility beds that a nursing facility, or discrete unit to qualify 122773
toof a nursing facility, must have its rates established under 122774
this divisionto be designated an outlier nursing facility or 122775
unit, which may vary based on the diagnoses or special care needs 122776
of the residents served by the nursing facility or unit. The 122777
criteria shall not be designed to require that residents be served 122778
only in122779

       (c) The rules authorized by division (D)(1)(a)(i) of this 122780
section regarding the criteria for designating outlier nursing 122781
facilities and units shall not limit the designation to nursing122782
facilities, or discrete units of nursing facilities, located in 122783
large cities. The122784

       (d) The rules authorized by division (D)(1)(a)(ii) of this 122785
section regarding the methodology for prospectively determining 122786
the rates of designated outlier nursing facilities and units shall 122787
provide for the methodology established by the rules shallto122788
consider the historical costs of providing carenursing facility 122789
services to the residents of thedesignated outlier nursing122790
facilities orand units.122791

       (2)(a) The rules may requiredo both of the following:122792

       (i) Include for designation as an outlier nursing facility or 122793
unit, a nursing facility, or discrete unit of a nursing facility, 122794
that serves medically fragile pediatric residents; residents who 122795
are dependent on ventilators; residents who have severe traumatic 122796
brain injury, end-stage Alzheimer's disease, or end-stage acquired 122797
immunodeficiency syndrome; or residents with other diagnoses or 122798
special care needs specified in the rules;122799

       (ii) Require that a designated outlier nursing facility 122800
designated under this division or containing a unit designated 122801
under this division receive authorization from the department to 122802
admitbefore admitting or retainretaining a resident to the 122803
facility or unit and.122804

       (b) If the director adopts rules authorized by division 122805
(D)(2)(a)(ii) of this section regarding the authorization of a 122806
designated outlier nursing facility or unit to admit or retain a 122807
resident, the rules shall specify the criteria and procedures the 122808
department will apply when granting that authorization.122809

       Notwithstanding any other provision of sections 5111.20 to 122810
5111.331 of the Revised Code (except section 5111.259 of the 122811
Revised Code), the costs incurred by facilities or units whose 122812
rates are established under this division shall not be considered 122813
in establishing payment rates for other facilities or units.122814

       (B) The director may adopt rules under section 5111.02 of the 122815
Revised Code under which the department, notwithstanding any other 122816
provision of sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Code 122817
(except section 5111.259 of the Revised Code), may adjust the 122818
rates determined under sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised 122819
Code for a facility that serves a resident who has a diagnosis or 122820
special care need that, in the rules authorized by division (A) of 122821
this section, would qualify a facility or unit of a facility to 122822
have its rate determined under that division, but who is not in 122823
such a unit. The rules may require that a facility that qualifies 122824
for a rate adjustment under this division receive authorization 122825
from the department to admit or retain a resident who qualifies 122826
the facility for the rate adjustment and shall specify the 122827
criteria and procedures the department will apply when granting 122828
that authorization.122829

       Sec. 5165.154.  (A) To the extent, if any, provided for in 122830
rules authorized by this section, the total per medicaid day 122831
payment rate determined under section 5165.15 of the Revised Code 122832
shall not be paid for nursing facility services that a nursing 122833
facility not designated as an outlier nursing facility or unit 122834
provides to a resident who meets the criteria for admission to a 122835
designated outlier nursing facility or unit, as specified in rules 122836
authorized by section 5165.153 of the Revised Code. Instead, the 122837
provider of a nursing facility providing nursing facility services 122838
to such a resident shall be paid each fiscal year a total per 122839
medicaid day payment rate that the department of medicaid shall 122840
prospectively determine in accordance with a methodology 122841
established in rules authorized by this section.122842

       (B) The medicaid director may adopt rules under section 122843
5165.02 of the Revised Code to implement this section. The rules 122844
may require that a nursing facility receive authorization from the 122845
department before admitting or retaining a resident who meets the 122846
criteria for admission to a designated outlier nursing facility or 122847
unit. If the director adopts such rules, the rules shall specify 122848
the criteria and procedures the department will apply when 122849
granting the authorization.122850

       Sec. 5111.225.        Sec. 5165.155.  (A) As used in this section:122851

       "Dual eligible individual" has the same meaning as in section 122852
1915(h)(2)(B) of the "Social Security Act," 124 Stat. 315 (2010), 122853
42 U.S.C. 1396n(h)(2)(B).122854

       "Medicaid, "medicaid maximum allowable amount" means one 122855
hundred per cent of a nursing facility's total per diemmedicaid 122856
day payment rate for a medicaid day.122857

       (B) TheInstead of paying the total per medicaid day payment 122858
rate determined under section 5165.15 of the Revised Code, the122859
department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall pay the 122860
provider of a nursing facility the lesser of the following for 122861
nursing facility services the nursing facility provides on or 122862
after January 1, 2012, to a dual eligible individual who is 122863
eligible for nursing facility services under the medicaid program 122864
and post-hospital extended care services under Part A of Title 122865
XVIII:122866

       (1) The coinsurance amount for the services as provided under 122867
Part A of Title XVIII;122868

       (2) The medicaid maximum allowable amount for the services, 122869
less the amount paid under Part A of Title XVIII for the services.122870

       Sec. 5111.259.        Sec. 5165.156. The medicaid director of job and 122871
family services may submit a request to the United States 122872
secretary of health and human services for approval to establish a 122873
centers of excellence component of the medicaid program. The 122874
purpose of the centers of excellence component is to increase the 122875
efficiency and quality of nursing facility services provided to 122876
medicaid recipients with complex nursing facility service needs. 122877
If federal approval for the centers of excellence component is 122878
granted, theThe director may adopt rules under section 5111.02122879
5165.02 of the Revised Code governing the component, including 122880
rules that establish a method of determining the medicaid 122881
reimbursementpayment rates for nursing facilities providing 122882
nursing facility services to medicaid recipients participating in 122883
the component. The rules may specify the extent to which, if any, 122884
of the provisions of section 5111.258sections 5165.153 and 122885
5165.154 of the Revised Code are to apply to the centers of 122886
excellence component. If such rules are adopted, the nursing 122887
facilities that provide nursing facility services to medicaid 122888
recipients participating in the centers of excellence component 122889
shall be paid for those services in accordance with the method 122890
established in the rules notwithstanding anything to the contrary 122891
in sections 5111.20 to 5111.331instead of the total per medicaid 122892
day payment rate determined under section 5165.15 of the Revised 122893
Code.122894

       Sec. 5111.24.        Sec. 5165.16. (A) As used in this section:122895

       (1) "Applicable calendar year" means the following:122896

       (a) For the purpose of the department of job and family 122897
services'medicaid's initial determination under division (D) of 122898
this section of each peer group's rate for ancillary and support 122899
costs, calendar year 2003;122900

       (b) For the purpose of the department's rebasings, the 122901
calendar year the department selects.122902

       (2) "Rebasing" means a redetermination under division (D) of 122903
this section of each peer groups'group's rate for ancillary and 122904
support costs using information from cost reports for an 122905
applicable calendar year that is later than the applicable 122906
calendar year used for the previous determination of such rates.122907

        (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 122908
pay a provider fordetermine each of the provider's eligible122909
nursing facilities afacility's per resident permedicaid day 122910
payment rate for ancillary and support costs determined for the. 122911
A nursing facility's peer grouprate shall be the rate determined122912
under division (D) of this section for the nursing facility's peer 122913
group. However, for the period beginning October 1, 2013, and 122914
ending on the first day of the first rebasing, the rate for a 122915
nursing facility located in Mahoning or Stark county shall be the 122916
rate determined for the following:122917

        (1) If the nursing facility has fewer than one hundred beds, 122918
the nursing facilities in peer group three;122919

        (2) If the nursing facility has one hundred or more beds, the 122920
nursing facilities in peer group four. 122921

        (C) For the purpose of determining nursing facilities' rate122922
rates for ancillary and support costs, the department shall 122923
establish six peer groups.122924

       Each(1) Until the first rebasing occurs, the peer groups 122925
shall be composed as follows:122926

       (a) Each nursing facility located in any of the following 122927
counties shall be placed in peer group one or two: Brown, Butler, 122928
Clermont, Clinton, Hamilton, and Warren. Each nursing facility 122929
located in any of those counties that has fewer than one hundred 122930
beds shall be placed in peer group one. Each nursing facility 122931
located in any of those counties that has one hundred or more beds 122932
shall be placed in peer group two.122933

       (b) Each nursing facility located in any of the following 122934
counties shall be placed in peer group three or four: Ashtabula, 122935
Champaign, Clark, Cuyahoga, Darke, Delaware, Fairfield, Fayette, 122936
Franklin, Fulton, Geauga, Greene, Hancock, Knox, Lake, Licking, 122937
Lorain, Lucas, Madison, Marion, Medina, Miami, Montgomery, Morrow, 122938
Ottawa, Pickaway, Portage, Preble, Ross, Sandusky, Seneca, Summit, 122939
Union, and Wood. Each nursing facility located in any of those 122940
counties that has fewer than one hundred beds shall be placed in 122941
peer group three. Each nursing facility located in any of those 122942
counties that has one hundred or more beds shall be placed in peer 122943
group four.122944

       (c) Each nursing facility located in any of the following 122945
counties shall be placed in peer group five or six: Adams, Allen, 122946
Ashland, Athens, Auglaize, Belmont, Carroll, Columbiana, 122947
Coshocton, Crawford, Defiance, Erie, Gallia, Guernsey, Hardin, 122948
Harrison, Henry, Highland, Hocking, Holmes, Huron, Jackson, 122949
Jefferson, Lawrence, Logan, Mahoning, Meigs, Mercer, Monroe, 122950
Morgan, Muskingum, Noble, Paulding, Perry, Pike, Putnam, Richland, 122951
Scioto, Shelby, Stark, Trumbull, Tuscarawas, Van Wert, Vinton, 122952
Washington, Wayne, Williams, and Wyandot. Each nursing facility 122953
located in any of those counties that has fewer than one hundred 122954
beds shall be placed in peer group five. Each nursing facility 122955
located in any of those counties that has one hundred or more beds 122956
shall be placed in peer group six.122957

       (2) Beginning with the first rebasing, the peer groups shall 122958
be composed as they are under division (C)(1) of this section 122959
except as follows:122960

        (a) Each nursing facility that has fewer than one hundred 122961
beds and is located in Mahoning or Stark county shall be placed in 122962
peer group three rather than peer group five.122963

        (b) Each nursing facility that has one hundred or more beds 122964
and is located in Mahoning or Stark county shall be placed in peer 122965
group four rather than peer group six. 122966

        (D)(1) The department shall determine the rate for ancillary 122967
and support costs for each peer group established under division 122968
(C) of this section. The department is not required to conduct a 122969
rebasing more than once every ten years. Except as necessary to 122970
implement the amendments made to this section by Am. Sub. H.B. 153 122971
and Sub. H.B. 303, both of the 129th general assembly, the rate 122972
for ancillary and support costs determined under this division for 122973
a peer group shall be used for subsequent years until the 122974
department conducts a rebasing. To determine a peer group's rate 122975
for ancillary and support costs, the department shall do all of 122976
the following:122977

        (a) Subject to division (D)(2) of this section, determine the 122978
rate for ancillary and support costs for each nursing facility in 122979
the peer group for the applicable calendar year by using the 122980
greater of the nursing facility's actual inpatient days for the 122981
applicable calendar year or the inpatient days the nursing 122982
facility would have had for the applicable calendar year if its 122983
occupancy rate had been ninety per cent;122984

        (b) Subject to division (D)(3) of this section, identify 122985
which nursing facility in the peer group is at the twenty-fifth 122986
percentile of the rate for ancillary and support costs for the 122987
applicable calendar year determined under division (D)(1)(a) of 122988
this section;122989

        (c) Multiply the rate for ancillary and support costs 122990
determined under division (D)(1)(a) of this section for the 122991
nursing facility identified under division (D)(1)(b) of this 122992
section by the rate of inflation for the eighteen-month period 122993
beginning on the first day of July of the applicable calendar year 122994
and ending the last day of December of the calendar year 122995
immediately following the applicable calendar year using the 122996
following:122997

       (i) Until the first rebasing occurs, the consumer price index 122998
for all items for all urban consumers for the north central 122999
region, published by the United States bureau of labor statistics, 123000
as that index existed on July 1, 2005;123001

       (ii) Effective with the first rebasing and except as provided 123002
in division (D)(1)(c)(iii) of this section, the consumer price 123003
index for all items for all urban consumers for the midwest 123004
region, published by the United States bureau of labor statistics;123005

       (iii) If the United States bureau of labor statistics ceases 123006
to publish the index specified in division (D)(1)(c)(ii) of this 123007
section, the index the bureau subsequently publishes that covers 123008
urban consumers' prices for items for the region that includes 123009
this state.123010

       (d) Until the first rebasing occurs, increase the amount 123011
calculated under division (D)(1)(c) of this section by five and 123012
eight hundredths per cent.123013

        (2) For the purpose of determining a nursing facility's 123014
occupancy rate under division (D)(1)(a) of this section, the 123015
department shall include any beds that the nursing facility 123016
removes from its medicaid-certified capacity unless the nursing 123017
facility also removes the beds from its licensed bed capacity.123018

       (3) In making the identification under division (D)(1)(b) of 123019
this section, the department shall exclude both of the following:123020

        (a) Nursing facilities that participated in the medicaid 123021
program under the same provider for less than twelve months in the 123022
applicable calendar year;123023

        (b) Nursing facilities whose ancillary and support costs are 123024
more than one standard deviation from the mean desk-reviewed, 123025
actual, allowable, per diem ancillary and support cost for all 123026
nursing facilities in the nursing facility's peer group for the 123027
applicable calendar year.123028

        (4) The department shall not redetermine a peer group's rate 123029
for ancillary and support costs under this division based on 123030
additional information that it receives after the rate is 123031
determined. The department shall redetermine a peer group's rate 123032
for ancillary and support costs only if the department made an 123033
error in determining the rate based on information available to 123034
the department at the time of the original determination.123035

       Sec. 5111.25.        Sec. 5165.17.  (A) As used in this section:123036

       (1) "Applicable calendar year" means the following:123037

       (a) For the purpose of the department of job and family 123038
services'medicaid's initial determination under division (D) of 123039
this section of each peer group's rate for capital costs, calendar 123040
year 2003;123041

       (b) For the purpose of the department's rebasings, the 123042
calendar year the department selects.123043

       (2) "Rebasing" means a redetermination under division (D) of 123044
this section of each peer groups'group's rate for capital costs 123045
using information from cost reports for an applicable calendar 123046
year that is later than the applicable calendar year used for the 123047
previous determination of such rates.123048

        (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 123049
pay a provider fordetermine each of the provider's eligible123050
nursing facilities afacility's per resident permedicaid day 123051
payment rate for capital costs determined for the. A nursing 123052
facility's peer grouprate shall be the rate determined under 123053
division (D) of this section. However, for the period beginning 123054
October 1, 2013, and ending on the first day of the first 123055
rebasing, the rate for a nursing facility located in Mahoning or 123056
Stark county shall be the rate determined for the following:123057

        (1) If the nursing facility has fewer than one hundred beds, 123058
the nursing facilities in peer group three;123059

        (2) If the nursing facility has one hundred or more beds, the 123060
nursing facilities in peer group four. 123061

        (C) For the purpose of determining nursing facilities' rate123062
rates for capital costs, the department shall establish six peer 123063
groups.123064

       Each(1) Until the first rebasing occurs, the peer groups 123065
shall be composed as follows:123066

       (a) Each nursing facility located in any of the following 123067
counties shall be placed in peer group one or two: Brown, Butler, 123068
Clermont, Clinton, Hamilton, and Warren. Each nursing facility 123069
located in any of those counties that has fewer than one hundred 123070
beds shall be placed in peer group one. Each nursing facility 123071
located in any of those counties that has one hundred or more beds 123072
shall be placed in peer group two.123073

       (b) Each nursing facility located in any of the following 123074
counties shall be placed in peer group three or four: Ashtabula, 123075
Champaign, Clark, Cuyahoga, Darke, Delaware, Fairfield, Fayette, 123076
Franklin, Fulton, Geauga, Greene, Hancock, Knox, Lake, Licking, 123077
Lorain, Lucas, Madison, Marion, Medina, Miami, Montgomery, Morrow, 123078
Ottawa, Pickaway, Portage, Preble, Ross, Sandusky, Seneca, Summit, 123079
Union, and Wood. Each nursing facility located in any of those 123080
counties that has fewer than one hundred beds shall be placed in 123081
peer group three. Each nursing facility located in any of those 123082
counties that has one hundred or more beds shall be placed in peer 123083
group four.123084

       (c) Each nursing facility located in any of the following 123085
counties shall be placed in peer group five or six: Adams, Allen, 123086
Ashland, Athens, Auglaize, Belmont, Carroll, Columbiana, 123087
Coshocton, Crawford, Defiance, Erie, Gallia, Guernsey, Hardin, 123088
Harrison, Henry, Highland, Hocking, Holmes, Huron, Jackson, 123089
Jefferson, Lawrence, Logan, Mahoning, Meigs, Mercer, Monroe, 123090
Morgan, Muskingum, Noble, Paulding, Perry, Pike, Putnam, Richland, 123091
Scioto, Shelby, Stark, Trumbull, Tuscarawas, Van Wert, Vinton, 123092
Washington, Wayne, Williams, and Wyandot. Each nursing facility 123093
located in any of those counties that has fewer than one hundred 123094
beds shall be placed in peer group five. Each nursing facility 123095
located in any of those counties that has one hundred or more beds 123096
shall be placed in peer group six.123097

       (2) Beginning with the first rebasing, the peer groups shall 123098
be composed as they are under division (C)(1) of this section 123099
except as follows:123100

        (a) Each nursing facility that has fewer than one hundred 123101
beds and is located in Mahoning or Stark county shall be placed in 123102
peer group three rather than peer group five.123103

        (b) Each nursing facility that has one hundred or more beds 123104
and is located in Mahoning or Stark county shall be placed in peer 123105
group four rather than peer group six. 123106

        (D)(1) The department shall determine the rate for capital 123107
costs for each peer group established under division (C) of this 123108
section. The department is not required to conduct a rebasing more 123109
than once every ten years. Except as necessary to implement the 123110
amendments made to this section by Am. Sub. H.B. 153 and Sub. H.B. 123111
303, both of the 129th general assembly, the rate for capital 123112
costs determined under this division for a peer group shall be 123113
used for subsequent years until the department conducts a 123114
rebasing. To determine a peer group's rate for capital costs, the 123115
department shall do both of the following:123116

       (a) Determine the rate for capital costs for the nursing 123117
facility in the peer group that is at the twenty-fifth percentile 123118
of the rate for capital costs for the applicable calendar year;123119

       (b) Until the first rebasing occurs, increase the amount 123120
calculated under division (D)(1)(a) of this section by five and 123121
eight hundredths per cent. 123122

       (2) To identify the nursing facility in a peer group that is 123123
at the twenty-fifth percentile of the rate for capital costs for 123124
the applicable calendar year, the department shall do both of the 123125
following:123126

        (a) Subject to division (D)(3) of this section, use the 123127
greater of each nursing facility's actual inpatient days for the 123128
applicable calendar year or the inpatient days the nursing 123129
facility would have had for the applicable calendar year if its 123130
occupancy rate had been one hundred per cent;123131

        (b) Exclude both of the following:123132

        (i) Nursing facilities that participated in the medicaid 123133
program under the same provider for less than twelve months in the 123134
applicable calendar year;123135

        (ii) Nursing facilities whose capital costs are more than one 123136
standard deviation from the mean desk-reviewed, actual, allowable, 123137
per diem capital cost for all nursing facilities in the nursing 123138
facility's peer group for the applicable calendar year.123139

       (3) For the purpose of determining a nursing facility's 123140
occupancy rate under division (D)(2)(a) of this section, the 123141
department shall include any beds that the nursing facility 123142
removes from its medicaid-certified capacity after June 30, 2005, 123143
unless the nursing facility also removes the beds from its 123144
licensed bed capacity.123145

       (4) The department shall not redetermine a peer group's rate 123146
for capital costs under this division based on additional 123147
information that it receives after the rate is determined. The 123148
department shall redetermine a peer group's rate for capital costs 123149
only if the department made an error in determining the rate based 123150
on information available to the department at the time of the 123151
original determination.123152

       (E) Buildings shall be depreciated using the straight line 123153
method over forty years or over a different period approved by the 123154
department. Components and equipment shall be depreciated using 123155
the straight-line method over a period designated in rules adopted 123156
under section 5111.025165.02 of the Revised Code, consistent with 123157
the guidelines of the American hospital association, or over a 123158
different period approved by the department. Any rules authorized 123159
by this division that specify useful lives of buildings, 123160
components, or equipment apply only to assets acquired on or after 123161
July 1, 1993. Depreciation for costs paid or reimbursed by any 123162
government agency shall not be included in capital costs unless 123163
that part of the payment under sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the 123164
Revised Codethis chapter is used to reimburse the government 123165
agency.123166

       (F) The capital cost basis of nursing facility assets shall 123167
be determined in the following manner:123168

        (1) Except as provided in division (F)(3) of this section, 123169
for purposes of calculating the rates to be paid for facilities 123170
with dates of licensure on or before June 30, 1993, the capital 123171
cost basis of each asset shall be equal to the desk-reviewed, 123172
actual, allowable, capital cost basis that is listed on the 123173
facility's cost report for the calendar year preceding the fiscal 123174
year during which the rate will be paid.123175

       (2) For facilities with dates of licensure after June 30, 123176
1993, the capital cost basis shall be determined in accordance 123177
with the principles of the medicare program established under 123178
Title XVIII, except as otherwise provided in sections 5111.20 to 123179
5111.331 of the Revised Codethis chapter.123180

       (3) Except as provided in division (F)(4) of this section, if 123181
a provider transfers an interest in a facility to another provider 123182
after June 30, 1993, there shall be no increase in the capital 123183
cost basis of the asset if the providers are related parties or 123184
the provider to which the interest is transferred authorizes the 123185
provider that transferred the interest to continue to operate the 123186
facility under a lease, management agreement, or other 123187
arrangement. If the previous sentence does not prohibit the 123188
adjustment of the capital cost basis under this division, the 123189
basis of the asset shall be adjusted by one-half of the change in 123190
the consumer price index for all items for all urban consumers, as 123191
published by the United States bureau of labor statistics, during 123192
the time that the transferor held the asset.123193

       (4) If a provider transfers an interest in a facility to 123194
another provider who is a related party, the capital cost basis of 123195
the asset shall be adjusted as specified in division (F)(3) of 123196
this section if all of the following conditions are met:123197

       (a) The related party is a relative of owner;123198

       (b) Except as provided in division (F)(4)(c)(ii) of this 123199
section, the provider making the transfer retains no ownership 123200
interest in the facility;123201

       (c) The department of job and family services determines that 123202
the transfer is an arm's length transaction pursuant to rules 123203
adopted under section 5111.025165.02 of the Revised Code. The 123204
rules shall provide that a transfer is an arm's length transaction 123205
if all of the following apply:123206

       (i) Once the transfer goes into effect, the provider that 123207
made the transfer has no direct or indirect interest in the 123208
provider that acquires the facility or the facility itself, 123209
including interest as an owner, officer, director, employee, 123210
independent contractor, or consultant, but excluding interest as a 123211
creditor.123212

       (ii) The provider that made the transfer does not reacquire 123213
an interest in the facility except through the exercise of a 123214
creditor's rights in the event of a default. If the provider 123215
reacquires an interest in the facility in this manner, the 123216
department shall treat the facility as if the transfer never 123217
occurred when the department calculates its reimbursement rates 123218
for capital costs.123219

       (iii) The transfer satisfies any other criteria specified in 123220
the rules.123221

       (d) Except in the case of hardship caused by a catastrophic 123222
event, as determined by the department, or in the case of a 123223
provider making the transfer who is at least sixty-five years of 123224
age, not less than twenty years have elapsed since, for the same 123225
facility, the capital cost basis was adjusted most recently under 123226
division (F)(4) of this section or actual, allowable cost of 123227
ownershipcapital costs was determined most recently under 123228
division (G)(9) of this section.123229

       (G) As used in this division:123230

       "Imputed interest" means the lesser of the prime rate plus 123231
two per cent or ten per cent.123232

       "Lease expense" means lease payments in the case of an 123233
operating lease and depreciation expense and interest expense in 123234
the case of a capital lease. 123235

       "New lease" means a lease, to a different lessee, of a 123236
nursing facility that previously was operated under a lease.123237

       (1) Subject to division (B) of this section, for a lease of a 123238
facility that was effective on May 27, 1992, the entire lease 123239
expense is an actual, allowable capital cost during the term of 123240
the existing lease. The entire lease expense also is an actual, 123241
allowable capital cost if a lease in existence on May 27, 1992, is 123242
renewed under either of the following circumstances:123243

       (a) The renewal is pursuant to a renewal option that was in 123244
existence on May 27, 1992;123245

       (b) The renewal is for the same lease payment amount and 123246
between the same parties as the lease in existence on May 27, 123247
1992.123248

       (2) Subject to division (B) of this section, for a lease of a 123249
facility that was in existence but not operated under a lease on 123250
May 27, 1992, actual, allowable capital costs shall include the 123251
lesser of the annual lease expense or the annual depreciation 123252
expense and imputed interest expense that would be calculated at 123253
the inception of the lease using the lessor's entire historical 123254
capital asset cost basis, adjusted by one-half of the change in 123255
the consumer price index for all items for all urban consumers, as 123256
published by the United States bureau of labor statistics, during 123257
the time the lessor held each asset until the beginning of the 123258
lease.123259

       (3) Subject to division (B) of this section, for a lease of a 123260
facility with a date of licensure on or after May 27, 1992, that 123261
is initially operated under a lease, actual, allowable capital 123262
costs shall include the annual lease expense if there was a 123263
substantial commitment of money for construction of the facility 123264
after December 22, 1992, and before July 1, 1993. If there was not 123265
a substantial commitment of money after December 22, 1992, and 123266
before July 1, 1993, actual, allowable capital costs shall include 123267
the lesser of the annual lease expense or the sum of the 123268
following:123269

       (a) The annual depreciation expense that would be calculated 123270
at the inception of the lease using the lessor's entire historical 123271
capital asset cost basis;123272

       (b) The greater of the lessor's actual annual amortization of 123273
financing costs and interest expense at the inception of the lease 123274
or the imputed interest expense calculated at the inception of the 123275
lease using seventy per cent of the lessor's historical capital 123276
asset cost basis.123277

       (4) Subject to division (B) of this section, for a lease of a 123278
facility with a date of licensure on or after May 27, 1992, that 123279
was not initially operated under a lease and has been in existence 123280
for ten years, actual, allowable capital costs shall include the 123281
lesser of the annual lease expense or the annual depreciation 123282
expense and imputed interest expense that would be calculated at 123283
the inception of the lease using the entire historical capital 123284
asset cost basis of one-half of the change in the consumer price 123285
index for all items for all urban consumers, as published by the 123286
United States bureau of labor statistics, during the time the 123287
lessor held each asset until the beginning of the lease.123288

       (5) Subject to division (B) of this section, for a new lease 123289
of a facility that was operated under a lease on May 27, 1992, 123290
actual, allowable capital costs shall include the lesser of the 123291
annual new lease expense or the annual old lease payment. If the 123292
old lease was in effect for ten years or longer, the old lease 123293
payment from the beginning of the old lease shall be adjusted by 123294
one-half of the change in the consumer price index for all items 123295
for all urban consumers, as published by the United States bureau 123296
of labor statistics, from the beginning of the old lease to the 123297
beginning of the new lease.123298

       (6) Subject to division (B) of this section, for a new lease 123299
of a facility that was not in existence or that was in existence 123300
but not operated under a lease on May 27, 1992, actual, allowable 123301
capital costs shall include the lesser of annual new lease expense 123302
or the annual amount calculated for the old lease under division 123303
(G)(2), (3), (4), or (6) of this section, as applicable. If the 123304
old lease was in effect for ten years or longer, the lessor's 123305
historical capital asset cost basis shall be, for purposes of 123306
calculating the annual amount under division (G)(2), (3), (4), or 123307
(6) of this section, adjusted by one-half of the change in the 123308
consumer price index for all items for all urban consumers, as 123309
published by the United States bureau of labor statistics, from 123310
the beginning of the old lease to the beginning of the new lease.123311

       In the case of a lease under division (G)(3) of this section 123312
of a facility for which a substantial commitment of money was made 123313
after December 22, 1992, and before July 1, 1993, the old lease 123314
payment shall be adjusted for the purpose of determining the 123315
annual amount.123316

       (7) For any revision of a lease described in division (G)(1), 123317
(2), (3), (4), (5), or (6) of this section, or for any subsequent 123318
lease of a facility operated under such a lease, other than 123319
execution of a new lease, the portion of actual, allowable capital 123320
costs attributable to the lease shall be the same as before the 123321
revision or subsequent lease.123322

       (8) Except as provided in division (G)(9) of this section, if 123323
a provider leases an interest in a facility to another provider 123324
who is a related party or previously operated the facility, the 123325
related party's or previous operator's actual, allowable capital 123326
costs shall include the lesser of the annual lease expense or the 123327
reasonable cost to the lessor.123328

       (9) If a provider leases an interest in a facility to another 123329
provider who is a related party, regardless of the date of the 123330
lease, the related party's actual, allowable capital costs shall 123331
include the annual lease expense, subject to the limitations 123332
specified in divisions (G)(1) to (7) of this section, if all of 123333
the following conditions are met:123334

       (a) The related party is a relative of owner;123335

       (b) If the lessor retains an ownership interest, it is, 123336
except as provided in division (G)(9)(c)(ii) of this section, in 123337
only the real property and any improvements on the real property;123338

       (c) The department of job and family services determines that 123339
the lease is an arm's length transaction pursuant to rules adopted 123340
under section 5111.025165.02 of the Revised Code. The rules shall 123341
provide that a lease is an arm's length transaction if all of the 123342
following apply:123343

       (i) Once the lease goes into effect, the lessor has no direct 123344
or indirect interest in the lessee or, except as provided in 123345
division (G)(9)(b) of this section, the facility itself, including 123346
interest as an owner, officer, director, employee, independent 123347
contractor, or consultant, but excluding interest as a lessor.123348

       (ii) The lessor does not reacquire an interest in the 123349
facility except through the exercise of a lessor's rights in the 123350
event of a default. If the lessor reacquires an interest in the 123351
facility in this manner, the department shall treat the facility 123352
as if the lease never occurred when the department calculates its 123353
reimbursement rates for capital costs.123354

       (iii) The lease satisfies any other criteria specified in the 123355
rules.123356

       (d) Except in the case of hardship caused by a catastrophic 123357
event, as determined by the department, or in the case of a lessor 123358
who is at least sixty-five years of age, not less than twenty 123359
years have elapsed since, for the same facility, the capital cost 123360
basis was adjusted most recently under division (F)(4) of this 123361
section or actual, allowable capital costs were determined most 123362
recently under division (G)(9) of this section.123363

       (10) This division does not apply to leases of specific items 123364
of equipment.123365

       Sec. 5111.231.        Sec. 5165.19. (A) As used in this section:123366

       (1) "Applicable calendar year" means the following:123367

       (a) For the purpose of the department of job and family 123368
services'medicaid's initial determination under division (D) of 123369
this section of each peer group's cost per case-mix unit, calendar 123370
year 2003;123371

        (b) For the purpose of the department's rebasings, the 123372
calendar year the department selects.123373

       (2) "Rebasing" means a redetermination under division (D) of 123374
this section of each peer groups'group's cost per case-mix unit 123375
using information from cost reports for an applicable calendar 123376
year that is later than the applicable calendar year used for the 123377
previous determination of such costs.123378

        (B) TheSemiannually, the department of job and family 123379
servicesmedicaid shall pay a provider fordetermine each of the 123380
provider's eligible nursing facilities afacility's per resident 123381
permedicaid day payment rate for direct care costs determined 123382
semiannually by multiplying the cost per case-mix unit determined 123383
under division (D) of this section for the facility's peer group 123384
by the facility's semiannual case-mix score determined under 123385
section 5111.2325165.192 of the Revised Code by the cost per 123386
case-mix unit determined under division (D) of this section for 123387
the facility's peer group. However, for the period beginning 123388
October 1, 2013, and ending on the first day of the first 123389
rebasing, the rate for a nursing facility located in Mahoning or 123390
Stark county shall be determined semiannually by multiplying the 123391
facility's semiannual case-mix score determined under section 123392
5165.192 of the Revised Code by the cost per case-mix unit 123393
determined under division (D) of this section for the nursing 123394
facilities in peer group two.123395

        (C) For the purpose of determining nursing facilities' rate123396
rates for direct care costs, the department shall establish three 123397
peer groups.123398

       Each(1) Until the first rebasing occurs, the peer groups 123399
shall be composed as follows:123400

       (a) Each nursing facility located in any of the following 123401
counties shall be placed in peer group one: Brown, Butler, 123402
Clermont, Clinton, Hamilton, and Warren.123403

       (b) Each nursing facility located in any of the following 123404
counties shall be placed in peer group two: Ashtabula, Champaign, 123405
Clark, Cuyahoga, Darke, Delaware, Fairfield, Fayette, Franklin, 123406
Fulton, Geauga, Greene, Hancock, Knox, Lake, Licking, Lorain, 123407
Lucas, Madison, Marion, Medina, Miami, Montgomery, Morrow, Ottawa, 123408
Pickaway, Portage, Preble, Ross, Sandusky, Seneca, Summit, Union, 123409
and Wood.123410

       (c) Each nursing facility located in any of the following 123411
counties shall be placed in peer group three: Adams, Allen, 123412
Ashland, Athens, Auglaize, Belmont, Carroll, Columbiana, 123413
Coshocton, Crawford, Defiance, Erie, Gallia, Guernsey, Hardin, 123414
Harrison, Henry, Highland, Hocking, Holmes, Huron, Jackson, 123415
Jefferson, Lawrence, Logan, Mahoning, Meigs, Mercer, Monroe, 123416
Morgan, Muskingum, Noble, Paulding, Perry, Pike, Putnam, Richland, 123417
Scioto, Shelby, Stark, Trumbull, Tuscarawas, Van Wert, Vinton, 123418
Washington, Wayne, Williams, and Wyandot.123419

       (2) Beginning with the first rebasing, the peer groups shall 123420
be composed as they are under division (C)(1) of this section 123421
except that each nursing facility located in Mahoning or Stark 123422
county shall be placed in peer group two rather than peer group 123423
three.123424

        (D)(1) The department shall determine a cost per case-mix 123425
unit for each peer group established under division (C) of this 123426
section. The department is not required to conduct a rebasing more 123427
than once every ten years. Except as necessary to implement the 123428
amendments made to this section by Am. Sub. H.B. 153 and Sub. H.B. 123429
303, both of the 129th general assembly, and H.B. 59 of the 130th 123430
general assembly, the cost per case-mix unit determined under this 123431
division for a peer group shall be used for subsequent years until 123432
the department conducts a rebasing. To determine a peer group's 123433
cost per case-mix unit, the department shall do all of the 123434
following:123435

        (a) Determine the cost per case-mix unit for each nursing 123436
facility in the peer group for the applicable calendar year by 123437
dividing each facility's desk-reviewed, actual, allowable, per 123438
diem direct care costs for the applicable calendar year by the 123439
facility's annual average case-mix score determined under section 123440
5111.2325165.192 of the Revised Code for the applicable calendar 123441
year;123442

        (b) Subject to division (D)(2) of this section, identify 123443
which nursing facility in the peer group is at the twenty-fifth 123444
percentile of the cost per case-mix units determined under 123445
division (D)(1)(a) of this section;123446

        (c) Calculate the amount that is two per cent above the cost 123447
per case-mix unit determined under division (D)(1)(a) of this 123448
section for the nursing facility identified under division 123449
(D)(1)(b) of this section;123450

        (d) Using the index specified in division (D)(3) of this 123451
section, multiply the rate of inflation for the eighteen-month 123452
period beginning on the first day of July of the applicable 123453
calendar year and ending the last day of December of the calendar 123454
year immediately following the applicable calendar year by the 123455
amount calculated under division (D)(1)(c) of this section;123456

       (e) Add the following to the amount calculated under division 123457
(D)(1)(d) of this section:123458

        (i) Until the earlier of January 1, 2014, or when the first 123459
rebasing occurs, add one dollar and eighty-eight cents to the 123460
amount calculated under division (D)(1)(d) of this section;123461

       (ii) Unless the first rebasing occurs before January 1, 2014, 123462
beginning January 1, 2014, and until the first rebasing occurs, 123463
eighty-six cents.123464

       (f) Until the first rebasing occurs, increase the amount 123465
calculated under division (D)(1)(e) of this section by five and 123466
eight hundredths per cent.123467

        (2) In making the identification under division (D)(1)(b) of 123468
this section, the department shall exclude both of the following:123469

        (a) Nursing facilities that participated in the medicaid 123470
program under the same provider for less than twelve months in the 123471
applicable calendar year;123472

        (b) Nursing facilities whose cost per case-mix unit is more 123473
than one standard deviation from the mean cost per case-mix unit 123474
for all nursing facilities in the nursing facility's peer group 123475
for the applicable calendar year.123476

        (3) The following index shall be used for the purpose of the 123477
calculation made under division (D)(1)(d) of this section:123478

       (a) Until the first rebasing occurs, the employment cost 123479
index for total compensation, health services component, published 123480
by the United States bureau of labor statistics, as the index 123481
existed on July 1, 2005;123482

       (b) Effective with the first rebasing and except as provided 123483
in division (D)(3)(c) of this section, the employment cost index 123484
for total compensation, nursing and residential care facilities 123485
occupational group, published by the United States bureau of labor 123486
statistics;123487

       (c) If the United States bureau of labor statistics ceases to 123488
publish the index specified in division (D)(3)(b) of this section, 123489
the index the bureau subsequently publishes that covers nursing 123490
facilities' staff costs.123491

        (4) The department shall not redetermine a peer group's cost 123492
per case-mix unit under this division based on additional 123493
information that it receives after the peer group's per case-mix 123494
unit is determined. The department shall redetermine a peer 123495
group's cost per case-mix unit only if it made an error in 123496
determining the peer group's cost per case-mix unit based on 123497
information available to the department at the time of the 123498
original determination.123499

       Sec. 5165.191.  Each calendar quarter, each nursing facility 123500
provider shall compile complete assessment data for each resident 123501
of each of the provider's nursing facilities, regardless of 123502
payment source, who is in the nursing facility, or on hospital or 123503
therapeutic leave from the nursing facility, on the last day of 123504
the quarter. A resident assessment instrument specified in rules 123505
authorized by this section shall be used to compile the resident 123506
assessment data. Each provider shall submit the resident 123507
assessment data to the department of health and, if required by 123508
the rules, the department of medicaid. The resident assessment 123509
data shall be submitted not later than fifteen days after the end 123510
of the calendar quarter for which the data is compiled. If the 123511
resident assessment data is to be submitted to the department of 123512
medicaid, it shall be submitted to the department through the 123513
medium or media specified in the rules.123514

       Rules adopted under section 5165.02 of the Revised Code shall 123515
do all of the following:123516

       (A) In a manner consistent with the "Social Security Act," 123517
section 1919(e)(5), 42 U.S.C. 1396r(e)(5), specify a resident 123518
assessment instrument to be used by nursing facility providers 123519
under this section;123520

       (B) Specify whether nursing facility providers must submit 123521
the resident assessment data to the department of medicaid;123522

       (C) If the rules specify that nursing facility providers must 123523
submit the resident assessment data to the department, specify the 123524
medium or media through which the data is to be submitted.123525

       Sec. 5111.232.        Sec. 5165.192.  (A)(1) TheExcept as provided in 123526
division (B) of this section and in accordance with the process 123527
specified in rules authorized by this section, the department of 123528
job and family servicesmedicaid shall do all of the following:123529

       (a) Every quarter, determine the following two case-mix 123530
scores for each nursing facility:123531

       (i) A quarterly case-mix score that includes each resident 123532
who is a medicaid recipient and is not a low resource utilization 123533
resident;123534

        (ii) A quarterly case-mix score that includes each resident 123535
regardless of payment source.123536

       (b) Every six months, determine a semiannual and annual123537
average case-mix scoresscore for each nursing facilitiesfacility123538
by using all of the following:quarterly case-mix scores 123539
determined for the nursing facility pursuant to division 123540
(A)(1)(a)(i) of this section;123541

        (c) After the end of each calendar year, determine an annual 123542
average case-mix score for each nursing facility by using the 123543
quarterly case-mix scores determined for the nursing facility 123544
pursuant to division (A)(1)(a)(ii) of this section.123545

        (2) When determining case-mix scores under division (A)(1) of 123546
this section, the department shall use all of the following:123547

        (a) Data from a resident assessment instrument specified in 123548
rules adopted underauthorized by section 5111.025165.191 of the 123549
Revised Code pursuant to section 1919(e)(5) of the "Social 123550
Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 1396r(e)(5), as 123551
amended, for the following residents:123552

        (i) When determining semiannual case-mix scores for fiscal 123553
year 2012, each resident who is a medicaid recipient;123554

        (ii) When determining semiannual case-mix scores for fiscal 123555
year 2013 and thereafter, each resident who is a medicaid 123556
recipient and not placed in either of the two lowest resource 123557
utilization groups, excluding any resource utilization group that 123558
is a default group used for residents with incomplete assessment 123559
data;123560

       (iii) When determining annual average case-mix scores, each 123561
resident regardless of payment source.123562

        (b) Except as provided in rules authorized by divisions 123563
(A)(2)(a) and (b) of this section, the case-mix values established 123564
by the United States department of health and human services;123565

       (c) Except as modified in rules authorized by division 123566
(A)(2)(c) of this section, the grouper methodology used on June 123567
30, 1999, by the United States department of health and human 123568
services for prospective payment of skilled nursing facilities 123569
under the medicare program established by Title XVIII.123570

       (2) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 123571
under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code that do any of the 123572
following:123573

       (a) Adjust the case-mix values specified in division 123574
(A)(1)(b) of this section to reflect changes in relative wage 123575
differentials that are specific to this state;123576

       (b) Express all of those case-mix values in numeric terms 123577
that are different from the terms specified by the United States 123578
department of health and human services but that do not alter the 123579
relationship of the case-mix values to one another;123580

       (c) Modify the grouper methodology specified in division 123581
(A)(1)(c) of this section as follows:123582

       (i) Establish a different hierarchy for assigning residents 123583
to case-mix categories under the methodology;123584

       (ii) Prohibit the use of the index maximizer element of the 123585
methodology;123586

       (iii) Incorporate changes to the methodology the United 123587
States department of health and human services makes after June 123588
30, 1999;123589

       (iv) Make other changes the department determines are 123590
necessary.123591

       (B) The department shall determine case-mix scores for 123592
intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded using data 123593
for each resident, regardless of payment source, from a resident 123594
assessment instrument and grouper methodology prescribed in rules 123595
adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code and expressed in 123596
case-mix values established by the department in those rules.123597

       (C) Each calendar quarter, each provider shall compile 123598
complete assessment data, from the resident assessment instrument 123599
specified in rules authorized by division (A) or (B) of this 123600
section, for each resident of each of the provider's facilities, 123601
regardless of payment source, who was in the facility or on 123602
hospital or therapeutic leave from the facility on the last day of 123603
the quarter. Providers of a nursing facility shall submit the data 123604
to the department of health and, if required by rules, the 123605
department of job and family services. Providers of an 123606
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded shall submit 123607
the data to the department of job and family services. The data 123608
shall be submitted not later than fifteen days after the end of 123609
the calendar quarter for which the data is compiled.123610

       Except as provided in division (D) of this section, the 123611
department, every six months and after the end of each calendar 123612
year, shall calculate a semiannual and annual average case-mix 123613
score for each nursing facility using the facility's quarterly 123614
case-mix scores for that six-month period or calendar year. Also 123615
except as provided in division (D) of this section, the 123616
department, after the end of each calendar year, shall calculate 123617
an annual average case-mix score for each intermediate care 123618
facility for the mentally retarded using the facility's quarterly 123619
case-mix scores for that calendar year. The department shall make 123620
the calculations pursuant to procedures specified in rules adopted 123621
under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code.123622

       (D)(1) If aSubject to division (B)(2) of this section, the 123623
department, for one or more months of a calendar quarter, may 123624
assign to a nursing facility a case-mix score that is five per 123625
cent less than the nursing facility's case-mix score for the 123626
immediately preceding calendar quarter if any of the following 123627
apply:123628

       (a) The provider does not timely submit informationcomplete 123629
and accurate resident assessment data necessary to determine the 123630
nursing facility's case-mix score for athe calendar quarter 123631
necessary to calculate a facility's case-mix score, or submits 123632
incomplete or inaccurate information for a calendar quarter, the 123633
department may assign the facility a quarterly average case-mix 123634
score that is five per cent less than the facility's quarterly 123635
average case-mix score for the preceding calendar quarter. If the;123636

       (b) The nursing facility was subject to an exception review 123637
under division (C) of section 5111.275165.193 of the Revised Code 123638
for the immediately preceding calendar quarter, the department may 123639
assign a quarterly average case-mix score that is five per cent 123640
less than the score determined by the exception review. If the;123641

       (c) The nursing facility was assigned a quarterly average123642
case-mix score for the immediately preceding calendar quarter, the 123643
department may assign a quarterly average case-mix score that is 123644
five per cent less than that score assigned for the preceding 123645
quarter.123646

       The department may use a quarterly average case-mix score 123647
assigned under division (D)(1) of this section, instead of a 123648
quarterly average case-mix score calculated based on the 123649
provider's submitted information, to calculate the facility's rate 123650
for direct care costs being established under section 5111.23 or123651
5111.231 of the Revised Code for one or more months, as specified 123652
in rules authorized by division (E) of this section, of the 123653
quarter for which the rate established under section 5111.23 or123654
5111.231 of the Revised Code will be paid.123655

       (2) Before taking action under division (D)(1) of this 123656
sectionassigning a case-mix score to a nursing facility due to 123657
the submission of incorrect resident assessment data, the 123658
department shall permit the provider a reasonable period of time, 123659
specified in rules authorized by division (E) of this section, to 123660
correct the informationdata. In the case of an intermediate care 123661
facility for the mentally retarded, the department shall not 123662
assign a quarterly average case-mix score due to late submission 123663
of corrections to assessment information unless the provider fails 123664
to submit corrected information prior to the eighty-first day 123665
after the end of the calendar quarter to which the information 123666
pertains. In the case of a nursing facility, theThe department 123667
shall notmay assign a quarterly averagethe case-mix score due to 123668
late submission of corrections to assessment information unlessif123669
the provider fails to submit the corrected information prior to123670
resident assessment data not later than the earlier of the 123671
forty-sixthforty-fifth day after the end of the calendar quarter 123672
to which the informationdata pertains or the deadline for 123673
submission of such corrections established by regulations adopted 123674
by the United States department of health and human services under 123675
TitlesTitle XVIII and Title XIX.123676

       (2)(3) If, for more than six months in a calendar year, a 123677
provider is paid a rate determined for a nursing facility 123678
calculated using a quarterly average case-mix score assigned to 123679
the nursing facility under division (D)(B)(1) of this section for 123680
more than six months in a calendar year, the department may assign 123681
the nursing facility a cost per case-mix unit that is five per 123682
cent less than the nursing facility's actual or assigned cost per 123683
case-mix unit for the immediately preceding calendar year. The 123684
department may use the assigned cost per case-mix unit, instead of 123685
calculatingdetermining the nursing facility's actual cost per 123686
case-mix unit in accordance with section 5111.23 or 5111.231123687
5165.19 of the Revised Code, to establish the nursing facility's 123688
rate for direct care costs for the following fiscal year 123689
immediately following the calendar year for which the cost per 123690
case-mix unit is assigned.123691

       (3)(4) The department shall take action under division 123692
(D)(B)(1) or, (2), or (3) of this section only in accordance with 123693
rules authorized by division (E) of this section. The department 123694
shall not take an action that affects rates for prior payment 123695
periods except in accordance with sections 5111.275165.41 and 123696
5111.285165.42 of the Revised Code.123697

       (E)(C) The medicaid director shall adopt rules under section 123698
5111.025165.02 of the Revised Code thatas necessary to implement 123699
this section.123700

       (1) The rules shall do all of the following:123701

       (1) Specify whether providers of a nursing facility must 123702
submit the assessment data to the department of job and family 123703
services;123704

       (2) Specify the medium or media through which the completed 123705
assessment data shall be submitted;123706

       (3)(a) Specify the process for determining the semiannual and 123707
annual average case-mix scores for nursing facilities;123708

       (b) Adjust the case-mix values specified in division 123709
(A)(2)(b) of this section to reflect changes in relative wage 123710
differentials that are specific to this state;123711

       (c) Express all of those case-mix values in numeric terms 123712
that are different from the terms specified by the United States 123713
department of health and human services but that do not alter the 123714
relationship of the case-mix values to one another;123715

       (d) Modify the grouper methodology specified in division 123716
(A)(2)(c) of this section as follows:123717

       (i) Establish a different hierarchy for assigning residents 123718
to case-mix categories under the methodology;123719

       (ii) Prohibit the use of the index maximizer element of the 123720
methodology;123721

       (iii) Incorporate changes to the methodology the United 123722
States department of health and human services makes after June 123723
30, 1999;123724

       (iv) Make other changes the department determines are 123725
necessary.123726

       (e) Establish procedures under which theresident assessment 123727
data shall be reviewed for accuracy and providers shall be 123728
notified of any data that requires correction;123729

       (4)(f) Establish procedures for providers to correct resident123730
assessment data and specify a reasonable period of time by which 123731
providers shall submit the corrections. The procedures may limit 123732
the content of corrections by providers of nursing facilities in 123733
the manner required by regulations adopted by the United States 123734
department of health and human services under TitlesTitle XVIII 123735
and Title XIX.123736

       (5)(g) Specify when and how the department will assign 123737
case-mix scores or costs per case-mix unit to a nursing facility123738
under division (D)(B) of this section if information necessary to 123739
calculate the nursing facility's case-mix score is not provided or 123740
corrected in accordance with the procedures established by the 123741
rules. Notwithstanding123742

       (2) Notwithstanding any other provision of sections 5111.20 123743
to 5111.331 of the Revised Codethis chapter, the rules also may 123744
provide for the following:123745

       (a) Exclusion of case-mix scores assigned under division (D) 123746
of this section from calculation of an intermediate care facility 123747
for the mentally retarded's annual average case-mix score and the 123748
maximum cost per case-mix unit for the facility's peer group;123749

       (b) Exclusionexclusion of case-mix scores assigned to a 123750
nursing facility under division (D)(B) of this section from 123751
calculationthe determination of athe nursing facility's 123752
semiannual or annual average case-mix score and the cost per 123753
case-mix unit for the nursing facility's peer group.123754

       Sec. 5165.193.  (A) The department of medicaid may, pursuant 123755
to rules authorized by this section, conduct an exception review 123756
of resident assessment data submitted by a nursing facility 123757
provider under section 5165.191 of the Revised Code. The 123758
department may conduct an exception review based on the findings 123759
of a medicaid certification survey conducted by the department of 123760
health, a risk analysis, or prior performance of the provider.123761

       Exception reviews shall be conducted at the nursing facility 123762
by appropriate health professionals under contract with or 123763
employed by the department. The professionals may review resident 123764
assessment forms and supporting documentation, conduct interviews, 123765
and observe residents to identify any patterns or trends of 123766
inaccurate resident assessments and resulting inaccurate case-mix 123767
scores.123768

       (B) If an exception review is conducted before the effective 123769
date of a nursing facility's rate for direct care costs that is 123770
based on the resident assessment data being reviewed and the 123771
review results in findings that exceed tolerance levels specified 123772
in the rules authorized by this section, the department, in 123773
accordance with those rules, may use the findings to redetermine 123774
individual resident case-mix scores, the nursing facility's 123775
case-mix score for the quarter, and the nursing facility's annual 123776
average case-mix score. The department may use the nursing 123777
facility's redetermined quarterly and annual average case-mix 123778
scores to determine the nursing facility's rate for direct care 123779
costs for the appropriate calendar quarter or quarters.123780

       (C) The department shall prepare a written summary of any 123781
exception review finding that is made after the effective date of 123782
a nursing facility's rate for direct care costs that is based on 123783
the resident assessment data that was reviewed. Where the provider 123784
is pursuing judicial or administrative remedies in good faith 123785
regarding the finding, the department shall not withhold from the 123786
provider's current payments any amounts the department claims to 123787
be due from the provider pursuant to section 5165.41 of the 123788
Revised Code.123789

       (D)(1) The medicaid director shall adopt rules under section 123790
5165.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this 123791
section. The rules shall establish an exception review program 123792
that does all of the following:123793

       (a) Requires each exception review to comply with Title XVIII 123794
and Title XIX;123795

       (b) Requires a written summary for each exception review that 123796
states whether resident assessment forms have been completed 123797
accurately;123798

       (c) Prohibits each health professional who conducts an 123799
exception review from doing either of the following:123800

       (i) During the period of the professional's contract or 123801
employment with the department, having or being committed to 123802
acquire any direct or indirect financial interest in the 123803
ownership, financing, or operation of nursing facilities in this 123804
state;123805

       (ii) Reviewing any provider that has been a client of the 123806
professional.123807

       (2) For the purposes of division (D)(1)(c)(i) of this 123808
section, employment of a member of a health professional's family 123809
by a nursing facility that the professional does not review does 123810
not constitute a direct or indirect financial interest in the 123811
ownership, financing, or operation of the nursing facility.123812

       Sec. 5111.242.        Sec. 5165.21. (A) As used in this section:123813

       (1) "Applicable calendar year" means the following:123814

       (a) For the purpose of the department of job and family 123815
services'medicaid's initial determination under this section of 123816
nursing facilities' rate for tax costs, calendar year 2003;123817

       (b) For the purpose of the department's rebasings, the 123818
calendar year the department selects.123819

       (2) "Rebasing" means a redetermination under division (C)(B)123820
of this section of each nursing facility's rate for tax costs 123821
using information from cost reports for an applicable calendar 123822
year that is later than the applicable calendar year used for the 123823
previous determination of such rates.123824

        (B) The department of job and family services shall pay a 123825
provider for each of the provider's eligible nursing facilities a 123826
per resident per day rate for tax costs determined under division 123827
(C) of this section.123828

        (C) The department of medicaid shall determine theeach 123829
nursing facility's per medicaid day payment rate for tax costs for 123830
each nursing facility. The department is not required to conduct a 123831
rebasing more than once every ten years. Except as necessary to 123832
implement the amendments made to this section by Sub. H.B. 303 of 123833
the 129th general assembly, the rate for tax costs determined 123834
under this division for a nursing facility shall be used for 123835
subsequent years until the department conducts a rebasing. To 123836
determine a nursing facility's rate for tax costs and except as 123837
provided in division (D)(C) of this section, the department shall 123838
do both of the following:123839

       (1) Divide the nursing facility's desk-reviewed, actual, 123840
allowable tax costs paid for the applicable calendar year by the 123841
number of inpatient days the nursing facility would have had if 123842
its occupancy rate had been one hundred per cent during the 123843
applicable calendar year;123844

       (2) Until the first rebasing occurs, increase the amount 123845
calculated under division (C)(B)(1) of this section by five and 123846
eight hundredths per cent.123847

       (D)(C) If a nursing facility had a credit regarding its real 123848
estate taxes reflected on its cost report for calendar year 2003, 123849
the department shall determine, as follows, its rate for tax costs 123850
for the period beginning on July 1, 2010, and ending on the first 123851
day of the fiscal year for which the department first conducts a 123852
rebasing:123853

       (1) Divide the nursing facility's desk-reviewed, actual, 123854
allowable tax costs paid for calendar year 2004 by the number of 123855
inpatient days the nursing facility would have had if its 123856
occupancy rate had been one hundred per cent during calendar year 123857
2004;123858

        (2) Until the first rebasing occurs, increase the amount 123859
calculated under division (D)(C)(1) of this section by five and 123860
eight hundredths per cent.123861

       Sec. 5111.246.        Sec. 5165.23.  (A) Each fiscal year, the department 123862
of job and family servicesmedicaid shall pay adetermine the123863
critical access incentive payment to the provider offor each 123864
nursing facility that qualifies as a critical access nursing 123865
facility. To qualify as a critical access nursing facility for a 123866
fiscal year, a nursing facility must meet all of the following 123867
requirements:123868

       (1) The nursing facility must be located in an area that, on 123869
December 31, 2011, was designated an empowerment zone under 123870
section 1391 of the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 107 Stat. 543123871
section 1391, 26 U.S.C. 1391, as amended.123872

       (2) The nursing facility must have an occupancy rate of at 123873
least eighty-five per cent as of the last day of the calendar year 123874
immediately preceding the fiscal year.123875

       (3) The nursing facility must have a medicaid utilization 123876
rate of at least sixty-five per cent as of the last day of the 123877
calendar year immediately preceding the fiscal year.123878

       (4) The nursing facility must have been awarded at least five 123879
points for meeting accountability measures under section 5165.25 123880
of the Revised Code for the fiscal year and at least one of the 123881
five points must have been awarded for meeting the following:123882

       (a) For fiscal year 2014, the accountability measures 123883
identified in divisions (C)(10), (11), (12), and (13) of section 123884
5165.25 of the Revised Code;123885

       (b) For fiscal year 2015 and each fiscal year thereafter, the 123886
accountability measures identified in divisions (D)(9), (10), 123887
(11), (12), and (14) of section 5165.25 of the Revised Code.123888

       (B) A critical access nursing facility's critical access 123889
incentive payment for a fiscal year shall equal five per cent of 123890
the portion of the nursing facility's total rate for the fiscal 123891
year that is the sum of the rates and payment identified in 123892
divisions (B)(A)(1) to (4) and (6) of section 5111.2225165.15 of 123893
the Revised Code.123894

       Sec. 5111.244.        Sec. 5165.25.  (A) As used in this section:123895

       (1) "Applicable percentage" means, for the accountability 123896
measures identified in divisions (C)(10) to (13) of this section, 123897
the following: 123898

       (a) For fiscal year 2013, whichever of the following applies: 123899

       (i) The percentage that the department of job and family 123900
services specifies for an accountability measure pursuant to 123901
division (E)(1)(b) or (E)(2)(a)(ii) of this section; 123902

       (ii) The percentage specified for an accountability measure 123903
in division (E)(2)(b), (ii), (iii), (iv), or (v) of this section. 123904

       (b) For fiscal year 2014, whichever of the following applies: 123905

       (i) The percentage used pursuant to division (F)(2) of this 123906
section; 123907

       (ii) The percentage that the department specifies for an 123908
accountability measure pursuant to division (F)(3)(a) of this 123909
section. 123910

       (c) For fiscal year 2015 and thereafter, whichever of the 123911
following applies:123912

       (i) The percentage used pursuant to division (F)(2) of this 123913
section;123914

       (ii) The percentage used pursuant to division (F)(3)(b) of 123915
this section.123916

       (2) "Complaint surveys" has the same meaning as in 42 C.F.R. 123917
488.30.123918

       (3)(2) "Customer satisfaction survey" means the annual survey 123919
of long-term care facilities required by section 173.47 of the 123920
Revised Code.123921

       (4)(3) "Deficiency" has the same meaning as in 42 C.F.R. 123922
488.301.123923

       (4) "Exempted hospital discharge" has the same meaning as in 123924
42 C.F.R. 483.106(b)(2)(i).123925

       (5) "Family satisfaction survey" means a customer 123926
satisfaction survey, or part of a customer satisfaction survey, 123927
that contains the results of information obtained from the 123928
families of a nursing facility's residents.123929

       (6) "Minimum data set" means the standardized, uniform 123930
comprehensive assessment of nursing facility residents that is 123931
used to identify potential problems, strengths, and preferences of 123932
residents and is part of the resident assessment instrument 123933
required by section 1919(e)(5) of the "Social Security Act," 101 123934
Stat. 1330-197 (1987)section 1919(e)(5), 42 U.S.C. 1396r(e)(5), 123935
as amended.123936

       (7) "National voluntary consensus standards for nursing 123937
homes" means measures used to determine the quality of care 123938
provided by nursing facilities as endorsed by the national quality 123939
forum.123940

       (8) "Nurse aide" has the same meaning as in section 3721.21 123941
of the Revised Code.123942

       (9)(8) "Resident satisfaction survey" means a customer 123943
satisfaction survey, or part of a customer satisfaction survey, 123944
that contains the results of information obtained from a nursing 123945
facility's residents.123946

       (10)(9) "Room mirror" means a mirror that is located in 123947
either of the following rooms:123948

       (a) A resident bathroom if the sink used by a resident after 123949
the resident uses the resident bathroom is in the resident 123950
bathroom;123951

       (b) A resident's room if the sink used by a resident after 123952
the resident uses the resident bathroom is in the resident's room.123953

       (11)(10) "Room sink" means a sink that is located in either 123954
of the following rooms:123955

       (a) A resident bathroom if the sink used by a resident after 123956
the resident uses the resident bathroom is in the resident 123957
bathroom;123958

       (b) A resident's room if the sink used by a resident after 123959
the resident uses the resident bathroom is in the resident's room.123960

       (12)(11) "Standard survey" has the same meaning as in 42 123961
C.F.R. 488.301.123962

       (12) "Special focus facility list" means the list of nursing 123963
facilities that the United States department of health and human 123964
services creates under the special focus facility program required 123965
by the "Social Security Act," section 1919(f)(10), 42 U.S.C. 123966
1396r(f)(10).123967

       (13) "Substantial wall" means a permanent structure that 123968
reaches from floor to ceiling and divides a semiprivate room into 123969
two distinct living spaces, each with its own window.123970

       (14) "Table B of the special focus facility list" means the 123971
table included in the special focus facility list that identifies 123972
nursing facilities that have not improved.123973

       (B)(1) Each fiscal year, the department of job and family 123974
servicesmedicaid shall pay adetermine each nursing facility's123975
quality incentive payment to the provider of each nursing facility 123976
that is awarded one or more points for meeting accountability 123977
measures under division (C) of this section. Subject to division123978
divisions (B)(2) and (3) of this section, the per medicaid day 123979
amount of a quality incentive payment paid to a nursing facility123980
provider shall be the product of the following:123981

       (a) The number of points the provider's nursing facility is 123982
awarded for meeting accountability measures under division (C) of123983
this section;123984

       (b) Three dollars and twenty-nine cents. 123985

       (2) The maximum quality incentive payment that may be paid to 123986
the provider of a nursing facility provider for a fiscal year 2014123987
shall be sixteen dollars and forty-four cents per medicaid day.123988

       (3) The maximum quality incentive payment that may be paid to 123989
a nursing facility provider for fiscal year 2015 and each fiscal 123990
year thereafter shall be the following:123991

       (a) Sixteen dollars and forty-four cents if at least one of 123992
the points awarded to the nursing facility for meeting 123993
accountability measures is for an accountability measure 123994
identified in division (D)(9), (10), (11), (12), or (14) of this 123995
section;123996

       (b) Thirteen dollars and sixteen cents if division (B)(3)(a) 123997
of this section does not apply.123998

        (C) SubjectFor fiscal year 2014 only and subject to 123999
divisions (D),division (E), and (F) of this section, the 124000
department shall award each nursing facility participating in the 124001
medicaid program one point for each of the following 124002
accountability measures the facility meets:124003

       (1) The facility's overall score on its resident satisfaction 124004
survey is at least eighty-six.124005

       (2) The facility's overall score on its family satisfaction 124006
survey is at least eighty-eight.124007

       (3) The facility satisfies the requirements for participation 124008
in the advancing excellence in America's nursing homes campaign.124009

       (4) The facility had neither of the following on the 124010
facility's most recent standard survey conducted not later than 124011
the last day of the calendar year immediately preceding the fiscal 124012
year for which the point is to be awarded or any complaint surveys 124013
conducted in the calendar year immediately preceding the fiscal 124014
year for which the point is to be awarded:124015

       (a) A health deficiency with a scope and severity level 124016
greater than F;124017

       (b) A deficiency that constitutes a substandard quality of 124018
care.124019

       (5) The facility offers at least fifty per cent of its 124020
residents at least one of the following dining choices for at 124021
least one meal each day:124022

       (a) Restaurant-style dining in which food is brought from the 124023
food preparation area to residents per the residents' orders;124024

       (b) Buffet-style dining in which residents obtain their own 124025
food, or have the facility's staff bring food to them per the 124026
residents' directions, from the buffet;124027

       (c) Family-style dining in which food is customarily served 124028
on a serving dish and shared by residents;124029

       (d) Open dining in which residents have at least a two-hour 124030
period to choose when to have a meal;124031

       (e) Twenty-four-hour dining in which residents may order 124032
meals from the facility any time of the day.124033

       (6) At least fifty per cent of the facility's residents are 124034
able to take a bath or shower as often as they choose.124035

       (7) The facility has at least both of the following scores on 124036
its resident satisfaction survey:124037

       (a) With regard to the question in the survey regarding 124038
residents' ability to choose when to go to bed in the evening, at 124039
least eighty-nine;124040

       (b) With regard to the question in the survey regarding 124041
residents' ability to choose when to get out of bed in the 124042
morning, at least seventy-six.124043

       (8) The facility has at least both of the following scores on 124044
its family satisfaction survey:124045

       (a) With regard to the question in the survey regarding 124046
residents' ability to choose when to go to bed in the evening, at 124047
least eighty-eight;124048

       (b) With regard to the question in the survey regarding 124049
residents' ability to choose when to get out of bed in the 124050
morning, at least seventy-five.124051

       (9) All of the following apply to the facility:124052

       (a) At least seventy-five per cent of the facility's 124053
residents have the opportunity, following admission to the 124054
facility and before completing or quarterly updating their 124055
individual plans of care, to discuss their goals for the care they 124056
are to receive at the facility, including their preferences for 124057
advance care planning, with a member of the residents' healthcare124058
health care teams that the facility, residents, and residents' 124059
sponsors consider appropriate.124060

       (b) The facility records the residents' care goals, including 124061
the residents' advance care planning preferences, in their medical 124062
records.124063

       (c) The facility uses the residents' care goals, including 124064
the residents' advance care planning preferences, in the 124065
development of the residents' individual plans of care.124066

       (10) Not more than the applicable percentagethirteen and 124067
thirty-five hundredths per cent of the facility's long-stay 124068
residents report severe to moderate pain during the minimum data 124069
set assessment process.124070

       (11) Not more than the applicable percentagefive and 124071
seventy-three hundredths per cent of the facility's long-stay, 124072
high-risk residents have been assessed as having one or more stage 124073
two, three, or four pressure ulcers during the minimum data set 124074
assessment process.124075

       (12) Not more than the applicable percentageone and 124076
fifty-two hundredths per cent of the facility's long-stay 124077
residents were physically restrained as reported during the 124078
minimum data set assessment process.124079

       (13) Less than the applicable percentageseven and 124080
seventy-eight hundredths per cent of the facility's long-stay 124081
residents had a urinary tract infection as reported during the 124082
minimum data set assessment process.124083

       (14) The facility uses a tool for tracking residents' 124084
admissions to hospitals.124085

       (15) An average of at least fifty per cent of the facility's 124086
medicaid-certified beds are in private rooms.124087

       (16) The facility has accessible resident bathrooms, all of 124088
which meet at least two of the following standards and at least 124089
some of which meet all of the following standards:124090

       (a) There are room mirrors that are accessible to residents 124091
in wheelchairs, can be adjusted so as to be visible to residents 124092
who are seated or standing, or both.124093

       (b) There are room sinks that are accessible to residents in 124094
wheelchairs and have clearance for wheelchairs.124095

       (c) There are room sinks that have faucets with adaptive or 124096
easy-to-use lever or paddle handles.124097

       (17) The facility does both of the following:124098

       (a) Maintains a written policy that prohibits the use of 124099
overhead paging systems or limits the use of overhead paging 124100
systems to emergencies, as defined in the policy;124101

       (b) Communicates the policy to its staff, residents, and 124102
families of residents.124103

       (18) The facility has a score of at least ninety on its 124104
resident satisfaction survey with regard to the question in the 124105
survey regarding residents' ability to personalize their rooms 124106
with personal belongings.124107

       (19) The facility has a score of at least ninety-five on its 124108
family satisfaction survey with regard to the question in the 124109
survey regarding residents' ability to personalize their rooms 124110
with personal belongings.124111

       (20) The facility does both of the following:124112

       (a) Maintains a written policy that requires consistent 124113
assignment of nurse aides and specifies the goal of having a 124114
resident receive nurse aide care from not more than eight 124115
different nurse aides during a thirty-day period;124116

       (b) Communicates the policy to its staff, residents, and 124117
families of residents.124118

       (21) The facility's staff retention rate is at least 124119
seventy-five per cent.124120

       (22) The facility's turnover rate for nurse aides is not 124121
higher than sixty-five per cent.124122

       (23) For at least fifty per cent of the resident care 124123
conferences in the facility, a nurse aide who is a primary 124124
caregiver for the resident attends and participates in the 124125
conference.124126

       (D) For fiscal year 2015 and each fiscal year thereafter and 124127
subject to division (E) of this section, the department shall 124128
award each nursing facility participating in the medicaid program 124129
one point for each of the following accountability measures the 124130
facility meets:124131

       (1) The facility's overall score on its resident satisfaction 124132
survey is at least eighty-seven and five-tenths.124133

       (2) The facility's overall score on its family satisfaction 124134
survey is at least eighty-five and nine-tenths.124135

       (3) The facility satisfies the requirements for participation 124136
in the advancing excellence in America's nursing homes campaign.124137

       (4) Both of the following apply to the facility:124138

       (a) The facility had not been listed on table B of the 124139
special focus facility list for eighteen or more consecutive 124140
months during any time during the calendar year immediately 124141
preceding the fiscal year for which the point is to be awarded.124142

       (b) The facility had neither of the following on the 124143
facility's most recent standard survey conducted not later than 124144
the last day of the calendar year immediately preceding the fiscal 124145
year for which the point is to be awarded or any complaint surveys 124146
conducted in the calendar year immediately preceding the fiscal 124147
year for which the point is to be awarded:124148

       (i) A health deficiency with a scope and severity level 124149
greater than F;124150

       (ii) A deficiency that constitutes a substandard quality of 124151
care.124152

       (5) The facility does all of the following:124153

       (a) Offers at least fifty per cent of its residents at least 124154
one of the following dining choices for at least two meals each 124155
day:124156

       (i) Restaurant-style dining in which food is brought from the 124157
food preparation area to residents per the residents' orders;124158

       (ii) Buffet-style dining in which residents obtain their own 124159
food, or have the facility's staff bring food to them per the 124160
residents' directions, from the buffet;124161

       (iii) Family-style dining in which food is customarily served 124162
on a serving dish and shared by residents;124163

       (iv) Open dining in which residents have at least a two-hour 124164
period to choose when to have a meal;124165

       (v) Twenty-four-hour dining in which residents may order 124166
meals from the facility any time of the day.124167

       (b) Maintains a written policy specifying the manner or 124168
manners in which residents' dining choices for meals are offered;124169

       (c) Communicates the policy to its staff, residents, and 124170
families of residents.124171

       (6) The facility does all of the following:124172

       (a) Enables at least fifty per cent of the facility's 124173
residents to take a bath or shower when they choose;124174

       (b) Maintains a written policy regarding residents' choices 124175
in bathing;124176

       (c) Communicates the policy to its staff, residents, and 124177
families of residents.124178

       (7) The facility has at least both of the following scores on 124179
its resident satisfaction survey:124180

       (a) With regard to the question in the survey regarding 124181
residents' ability to choose when to go to bed in the evening, at 124182
least eighty-nine;124183

       (b) With regard to the question in the survey regarding 124184
residents' ability to choose when to get out of bed in the 124185
morning, at least seventy-six.124186

       (8) The facility has at least both of the following scores on 124187
its family satisfaction survey:124188

       (a) With regard to the question in the survey regarding 124189
residents' ability to choose when to go to bed in the evening, at 124190
least eighty-eight;124191

       (b) With regard to the question in the survey regarding 124192
residents' ability to choose when to get out of bed in the 124193
morning, at least seventy-five.124194

       (9) Not more than thirteen and thirty-five hundredths per 124195
cent of the facility's long-stay residents report severe to 124196
moderate pain during the minimum data set assessment process.124197

       (10) Not more than five and sixteen hundredths per cent of 124198
the facility's long-stay, high-risk residents have been assessed 124199
as having one or more stage two, three, or four pressure ulcers 124200
during the minimum data set assessment process.124201

       (11) Not more than one and fifty-two hundredths per cent of 124202
the facility's long-stay residents were physically restrained as 124203
reported during the minimum data set assessment process.124204

       (12) Less than seven per cent of the facility's long-stay 124205
residents had a urinary tract infection as reported during the 124206
minimum data set assessment process.124207

       (13) The facility does both of the following:124208

       (a) Uses a tool for tracking residents' admissions to 124209
hospitals;124210

       (b) Annually reports to the department data on hospital 124211
admissions by month for all residents.124212

       (14) Both of the following apply:124213

       (a) At least ninety-five per cent of the facility's long-stay 124214
residents are vaccinated against pneumococcal pneumonia, decline 124215
the vaccination, or are not vaccinated because the vaccination is 124216
medically contraindicated.124217

       (b) At least ninety-three per cent of the facility's 124218
long-stay residents are vaccinated against seasonal influenza, 124219
decline the vaccination, or are not vaccinated because the 124220
vaccination is medically contraindicated.124221

       (15) An average of at least fifty per cent of the facility's 124222
medicaid-certified beds are in either, or in a combination of 124223
both, of the following:124224

       (a) Private rooms;124225

       (b) Semiprivate rooms to which all of the following apply:124226

       (i) Each room provides a distinct territory for each resident 124227
occupying the room.124228

       (ii) Each distinct territory has a window and is separated by 124229
a substantial wall from the other distinct territories in the 124230
room.124231

       (iii) Each resident is able to enter and exit the distinct 124232
territory of the resident's room without entering or exiting 124233
another resident's distinct territory.124234

       (iv) Complete visual privacy for each distinct territory may 124235
be obtained by drawing a curtain or other screen.124236

       (16) The facility obtains at least a ninety-five per cent 124237
compliance rate with requesting resident reviews required by 42 124238
C.F.R. 483.106(b)(2)(ii) for individuals who are exempted hospital 124239
discharges.124240

       (17) The facility does both of the following:124241

       (a) Maintains a written policy that requires consistent 124242
assignment of nurse aides and specifies the goal of having a 124243
resident receive nurse aide care from not more than twelve 124244
different nurse aides during a thirty-day period;124245

       (b) Communicates the policy to its staff, residents, and 124246
families of residents.124247

       (18) The facility's staff retention rate is at least 124248
seventy-five per cent.124249

       (19) The facility's turnover rate for nurse aides is not 124250
higher than sixty-five per cent.124251

       (20) For at least fifty per cent of the resident care 124252
conferences in the facility, a nurse aide who is a primary 124253
caregiver for the resident attends and participates in the 124254
conference.124255

       (21) All of the following apply to the facility:124256

       (a) At least seventy-five per cent of the facility's 124257
residents have the opportunity, following admission to the 124258
facility and before completing or quarterly updating their 124259
individual plans of care, to discuss their goals for the care they 124260
are to receive at the facility, including their preferences for 124261
advance care planning, with a member of the residents' health care 124262
teams that the facility, residents, and residents' sponsors 124263
consider appropriate.124264

       (b) The facility records the residents' care goals, including 124265
the residents' advance care planning preferences, in their medical 124266
records.124267

       (c) The facility uses the residents' care goals, including 124268
the residents' advance care planning preferences, in the 124269
development of the residents' individual plans of care.124270

       (22) The facility does both of the following:124271

       (a) Maintains a written policy that prohibits the use of 124272
overhead paging systems or limits the use of overhead paging 124273
systems to emergencies, as defined in the policy;124274

       (b) Communicates the policy to its staff, residents, and 124275
families of residents.124276

       (E)(1) To be awarded a point for meeting an accountability 124277
measure under division (C) or (D) of this section other than the 124278
accountability measure identified in divisiondivisions (C)(4) and 124279
(D)(4)(b) of this section, a nursing facility must meet the 124280
accountability measure in the calendar year immediately preceding 124281
the fiscal year for which the point is to be awarded. However, a 124282
nursing facility must meet the accountability measures specified 124283
in divisions (C)(3), (5), (6), (9), (14) to (17), (20), (22), and 124284
(23) of this section in the period beginning January 1, 2012, and 124285
ending March 31, 2012, to be awarded points for those 124286
accountability measures for fiscal year 2013.124287

       (2) The department shall award points pursuant to division124288
divisions (C)(1), (7), orand (18) and (D)(1) and (7) of this 124289
section to a nursing facility only if a resident satisfaction 124290
survey was initiated under section 173.47 of the Revised Code for 124291
the nursing facility in the calendar year immediately preceding 124292
the fiscal year for which the points are to be awarded.124293

       (3) The department shall award points pursuant to division124294
divisions (C)(2), (8), orand (19) and (D)(2) and (8) of this 124295
section to a nursing facility only if a family satisfaction survey 124296
was initiated under section 173.47 of the Revised Code for the 124297
nursing facility in the calendar year immediately preceding the 124298
fiscal year for which the points are to be awarded.124299

       (4) The department shall award points pursuant to divisions 124300
(D)(21) and (22) of this section only for fiscal year 2015.124301

       (5) Not later than July 1, 2013, the department shall adjust 124302
the score used for the purpose of division (C)(8)(b) of this 124303
section in a manner that causes at least fifty per cent of nursing 124304
facilities to meet division (C)(8)(b) of this section.124305

       (E) For the purposes of awarding points under divisions 124306
(C)(10) to (13) of this section for fiscal year 2013, the 124307
following apply:124308

       (1) If, by July 1, 2012, the United States centers for 124309
medicare and medicaid services makes calculations using the 3.0 124310
version of the minimum data set that indicate whether nursing 124311
facilities meet those accountability measures, the department 124312
shall do both of the following: 124313

       (a) Rely on those calculations; 124314

       (b) Specify the percentages to be used for the purposes of 124315
those accountability measures and, in specifying the percentages, 124316
provide for at least fifty per cent of nursing facilities to earn 124317
points for meeting those accountability measures.124318

       (2) If, by July 1, 2012, the United States centers for 124319
medicare and medicaid services does not make calculations using 124320
the 3.0 version of the minimum data set that indicate whether 124321
nursing facilities meet those accountability measures, the 124322
department shall do either of the following: 124323

       (a) Do both of the following:124324

       (i) Make the calculations using the 3.0 version of the 124325
minimum data set in accordance with the national voluntary 124326
consensus standards for nursing homes;124327

       (ii) Specify the percentages to be used for the purposes of 124328
those accountability measures and, in specifying the percentages, 124329
provide for at least fifty per cent of nursing facilities to earn 124330
points for meeting those accountability measures. 124331

       (b) Do all of the following:124332

       (i) Rely on the most recent calculations the United States 124333
centers for medicare and medicaid services made using the 2.0 124334
version of the minimum data set that indicate whether nursing 124335
facilities meet those accountability measures;124336

       (ii) Use four per cent as the applicable percentage for the 124337
accountability measure identified in division (C)(10) of this 124338
section;124339

       (iii) Use nine per cent as the applicable percentage for the 124340
accountability measure identified in division (C)(11) of this 124341
section; 124342

       (iv) Use two per cent as the applicable percentage for the 124343
accountability measure identified in division (C)(12) of this 124344
section;124345

       (v) Use ten per cent as the applicable percentage for the 124346
accountability measure identified in division (C)(13) of this 124347
section.124348

       (F) For the purposes of awarding points under divisions 124349
(C)(10) to (13) of this section for fiscal year 2014 and 124350
thereafter, the department shall do the following: 124351

       (1) Rely on calculations the United States centers for 124352
medicare and medicaid services makes using the 3.0 version of the 124353
minimum data set that indicate whether nursing facilities meet 124354
those accountability measures; 124355

       (2) If the department takes action pursuant to division 124356
(E)(1) of this section for fiscal year 2013, continue to use the 124357
percentages the department specifies pursuant to division 124358
(E)(1)(b) of this section for the purposes of those accountability 124359
measures; 124360

       (3) If the department takes action pursuant to division 124361
(E)(2) of this section for fiscal year 2013, do the following:124362

       (a) For fiscal year 2014, specify the percentages to be used 124363
for the purposes of those accountability measures and, in 124364
specifying the percentages, provide for at least fifty per cent of 124365
nursing facilities to earn points for meeting those accountability 124366
measures; 124367

       (b) For fiscal year 2015 and thereafter, continue to use the 124368
percentages the department specifies pursuant to division 124369
(F)(3)(a) of this section for the purposes of those accountability 124370
measures.Not later than July 1, 2014, the department shall 124371
submit, in accordance with section 101.68 of the Revised Code, 124372
recommendations to the general assembly for accountability 124373
measures to replace the accountability measures identified in 124374
divisions (D)(21) and (22) of this section.124375

       (G) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 124376
under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to 124377
implement this section.124378

       The rulesRules adopted under section 5165.02 of the Revised 124379
Code may specify what is meant by "some" as that word is used in 124380
division (C)(16) of this section.124381

       Sec. 5111.245.        Sec. 5165.26.  (A) As used in this section:124382

       (1) "Budgeted amount for quality incentive payments for a 124383
fiscal year" means the amount determined for a fiscal year as 124384
follows:124385

        (a) Multiply the total number of medicaid days in the 124386
immediately preceding fiscal year by sixteen dollars and 124387
forty-four cents;124388

        (b) Determine the total amount of quality incentive payments 124389
that was paid under section 5165.25 of the Revised Code to all 124390
nursing facility providers for the immediately preceding fiscal 124391
year;124392

        (c) Subtract the amount determined under division (A)(1)(b) 124393
of this section from the product calculated under division 124394
(A)(1)(a) of this section;124395

        (d) Add thirty million dollars to the difference calculated 124396
under division (A)(1)(c) of this section.124397

        (2) "Point days for a fiscal year" means the product of the 124398
following:124399

       (a) A qualifying nursing facility's quality bonus points for 124400
the fiscal year;124401

       (b) The number of the qualifying nursing facility's medicaid 124402
days in the immediately preceding fiscal year.124403

       (2)(3) "Qualifying nursing facility" means a nursing facility 124404
that qualifies for a quality bonus for a fiscal year as determined 124405
under division (B) of this section.124406

       (3)(4) "Quality bonus points for a fiscal year" means the 124407
amount determined by subtracting five from the number of points 124408
awarded to a qualifying nursing facility for meeting 124409
accountability measures under division (C) of section 5111.244124410
5165.25 of the Revised Code for a fiscal year.124411

       (4) "Residual budgeted amount for quality incentive payments 124412
for a fiscal year" means the amount determined for a fiscal year 124413
as follows:124414

       (a) Multiply the total number of medicaid days in the fiscal 124415
year by sixteen dollars and forty-four cents;124416

       (b) Determine the total amount of quality incentive payments 124417
that was paid under section 5111.244 of the Revised Code to all 124418
nursing facility providers for the fiscal year;124419

       (c) Subtract the amount determined under division (A)(4)(b) 124420
of this section from the product calculated under division 124421
(A)(4)(a) of this section.124422

       (B) TheNot later than the first day of November of each 124423
fiscal year, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid124424
shall pay a nursing facility provider a quality bonus for athe124425
fiscal year if both of the following apply:124426

       (1) The provider's nursing facility is awarded more than five 124427
points for meeting accountability measures under division (C) of124428
section 5111.2445165.25 of the Revised Code for the fiscal year 124429
and the following applies:124430

        (1) For fiscal year 2014, at least two of the points are 124431
awarded to the nursing facility pursuant to division (C)(10), 124432
(11), (12), (13), or (14) of section 5165.25 of the Revised Code.124433

        (2) For fiscal year 2015 and each fiscal year thereafter, at 124434
least two of the points are awarded to the nursing facility 124435
pursuant to division (D)(9), (10), (11), (12), (13), or (14) of 124436
section 5165.25 of the Revised Code.124437

       (2) The residual budgeted amount for quality incentive 124438
payments for the fiscal year is greater than zero.124439

       (C) The total quality bonus to be paid to the provider of a 124440
qualifying nursing facility for a fiscal year shall equal the 124441
product of the following:124442

       (1) The quality bonus per medicaid day for the fiscal year 124443
determined for the provider's qualifying nursing facility under 124444
division (D) of this section;124445

       (2) The number of the qualifying nursing facility's medicaid 124446
days in the immediately preceding fiscal year.124447

       (D) A qualifying nursing facility's quality bonus per 124448
medicaid day for a fiscal year shall be the product of the 124449
following: 124450

       (1) The nursing facility's quality bonus points for the 124451
fiscal year;124452

       (2) The quality bonus per point for the fiscal year 124453
determined under division (E) of this section.124454

       (E) The quality bonus per point for a fiscal year shall be 124455
determined as follows:124456

       (1) Determine the number of each qualifying nursing 124457
facility's point days for the fiscal year;124458

       (2) Determine the sum of all qualifying nursing facilities' 124459
point days for the fiscal year;124460

       (3) Divide the residual budgeted amount for quality incentive 124461
payments for the fiscal year by the sum determined under division 124462
(E)(2) of this section.124463

       (F) The calculation of a qualifying nursing facility's bonus 124464
payment is not subject to appeal under Chapter 119. of the Revised 124465
Code.124466

       (G) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 124467
under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to 124468
implement this section.124469

       Sec. 5111.257.        Sec. 5165.28.  If a provider of a nursing facility 124470
adds or replaces one or more medicaid certified beds to or at the 124471
nursing facility, or renovates one or more of the nursing 124472
facility's beds, the medicaid payment rate for the added, 124473
replaced, or renovated beds shall be the same as the medicaid 124474
payment rate for the nursing facility's existing beds.124475

       Sec. 5111.265.        Sec. 5165.29.  If one or more medicaid-certified 124476
beds are relocated from one nursing facility to another nursing 124477
facility owned by a different person or government entity and the 124478
application for the certificate of need authorizing the relocation 124479
is filed with the director of health on or after the effective 124480
date of this sectionJuly 1, 2005, amortization of the cost of 124481
acquiring operating rights for the relocated beds is not an 124482
allowable cost for the purpose of determining the nursing 124483
facility's medicaid reimbursementpayment rate.124484

       Sec. 5111.264.        Sec. 5165.30.  Except as provided in section 5111.25 124485
or 5111.2515165.17 of the Revised Code, the costs of goods, 124486
services, and facilities, furnished to a nursing facility provider 124487
by a related party are includable in the allowable costs of the 124488
provider at the reasonable cost to the related party.124489

       Sec. 5165.32.  The department of medicaid shall not reduce a 124490
nursing facility's medicaid payment rate determined under this 124491
chapter on the basis that the provider charges a lower rate to any 124492
resident who is not eligible for medicaid.124493

       Sec. 5165.33.  No medicaid payment shall be made to a nursing 124494
facility provider for the day a medicaid recipient is discharged 124495
from the nursing facility.124496

       Sec. 5111.331.        Sec. 5165.34.  (A) The department of job and family 124497
servicesmedicaid may make medicaid payments to a nursing 124498
facility provider of a nursing facility under sections 5111.20 to 124499
5111.331 of the Revised Codethis chapter to reserve a bed for a 124500
recipient during a temporary absence under conditions prescribed 124501
by the department, to include hospitalization for an acute 124502
condition, visits with relatives and friends, and participation in 124503
therapeutic programs outside the facility, when the resident's 124504
plan of care provides for such absence and federal financial124505
participation infor the payments is available.124506

       (B) The maximum period for which payments may be made to 124507
reserve a bed in a nursing facility shall not exceed thirty days 124508
in a calendar year.124509

       (C) The department shall establish the per diemmedicaid day 124510
payment rates to be paid to providers of nursing facilities for 124511
reserving beds under this section. In establishing the per diem124512
medicaid day payment rates, the department shall do the following:124513

       (1) In the case of a payment to reserve a bed for a day 124514
during calendar year 2011, set the per diem rate at an amount not 124515
exceeding fifty per cent of the per diem rate the provider would 124516
be paid if the recipient were not absent from the nursing facility 124517
that day;124518

       (2) In the case of a payment to reserve a bed for a day 124519
during calendar year 2012 and each calendar year thereafter, set 124520
the per diemmedicaid day payment rate at an amount equal to the 124521
following:124522

       (a)(1) In the case of a nursing facility that had an 124523
occupancy rate in the preceding calendar year exceeding 124524
ninety-five per cent, an amount not exceeding fifty per cent of 124525
the per diemmedicaid day payment rate the provider would be paid 124526
if the recipient were not absent from the nursing facility that 124527
day;124528

       (b)(2) In the case of a nursing facility that had an 124529
occupancy rate in the preceding calendar year not exceeding 124530
ninety-five per cent, an amount not exceeding eighteen per cent of 124531
the per diemmedicaid day payment rate the provider would be paid 124532
if the recipient were not absent from the nursing facility that 124533
day.124534

       (D) For the purpose of setting a nursing facility's per 124535
medicaid day payment rate to reserve a bed for a day during the 124536
period beginning on the effective date of this amendment and 124537
ending December 31, 2013, the department shall determine the 124538
nursing facility's occupancy rate by using information reported on 124539
the nursing facility's cost report for calendar year 2012. For the 124540
purpose of setting a nursing facility's per medicaid day payment 124541
rate to reserve a bed for January 1, 2014, or thereafter, the 124542
department shall determine the nursing facility's occupancy rate 124543
by using information reported on the nursing facility's cost 124544
report for the calendar year preceding the fiscal year in which 124545
the reservation falls.124546

       Sec. 5111.212.        Sec. 5165.35. As used in this section, "effective 124547
date of an involuntary termination" and "involuntary termination" 124548
have the same meanings as in section 5111.65 of the Revised Code.124549

       Medicaid payments may be made for nursing facility services 124550
and intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded services124551
provided not later than thirty days after the effective date of an 124552
involuntary termination of the nursing facility that provides the 124553
services if the services are provided to a medicaid recipient who 124554
is eligible for the services and resided in the nursing facility 124555
before the effective date of the involuntary termination.124556

       Sec. 5111.221.        Sec. 5165.37.  The department of job and family 124557
servicesmedicaid shall make its best efforts each year to 124558
calculate nursing facilities' medicaid payment rates under 124559
sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Codethis chapter in 124560
time to use them to makepay the payments due to providersrates124561
by the fifteenth day of August of each fiscal year. If the 124562
department is unable to calculate the rates so that they can be 124563
paid by that date, the department shall pay each provider the rate 124564
calculated for the provider's nursing facilities and intermediate 124565
care facilities for the mentally retarded under those sections124566
this chapter at the end of the previous fiscal year. If the 124567
department also is unable to calculate the rates to make the 124568
payments duepay the rates by the fifteenth day of September and 124569
the fifteenth day of October, the department shall pay the 124570
previous fiscal year's rate to make those payments. The department 124571
may increase by five per cent the previous fiscal year's rate paid 124572
for any nursing facility pursuant to this section at the request 124573
of the provider. The department shall use rates calculated for the 124574
current fiscal year to make the payments due by the fifteenth day 124575
of November.124576

       If the rate paid to a provider for a nursing facility 124577
pursuant to this section is lower than the rate calculated for the 124578
nursing facility for the current fiscal year, the department shall 124579
pay the provider the difference between the two rates for the 124580
number of days for which the provider was paid for the nursing124581
facility pursuant to this section. If the rate paid for a nursing124582
facility pursuant to this section is higher than the rate 124583
calculated for it for the current fiscal year, the provider shall 124584
refund to the department the difference between the two rates for 124585
the number of days for which the provider was paid for the nursing124586
facility pursuant to this section.124587

       Sec. 5111.29.        Sec. 5165.38. (A) The medicaid director of job and 124588
family services shall adopt rules under section 5111.025165.02 of 124589
the Revised Code that establish a process under which a nursing 124590
facility provider, or a group or association of nursing facility124591
providers, may seek reconsideration of medicaid payment rates 124592
established under sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised 124593
Codethis chapter, including a rate for direct care costs 124594
recalculated before the effective date of the rate as a result of 124595
an exception review of resident assessment informationdata124596
conducted under section 5111.275165.193 of the Revised Code. The124597

       (1) Except as provided in divisions (A)(2) to (4) of this 124598
section, the only issue that a provider, group, or association may 124599
raise in the rate reconsideration shall be whether the rate was 124600
calculated in accordance with sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the 124601
Revised Codethis chapter and the rules adopted under section 124602
5111.025165.02 of the Revised Code. The rules shall permit a124603
provider, group, or association tomay submit written arguments or 124604
other materials that support its position. The rules shall specify124605
provider, group, or association and department of medicaid shall 124606
take actions regarding the rate reconsideration within time frames 124607
within which the provider, group, or association and the 124608
department must actspecified in rules authorized by this section. 124609
If124610

       If the department determines, as a result of the rate 124611
reconsideration, that the rate establisheddetermined for one or 124612
more nursing facilities of a provider is less than the rate to 124613
which the nursing facility is entitled, the department shall 124614
increase the rate. If the department has paid the incorrect rate 124615
for a period of time, the department shall pay the provider the 124616
difference between the amount the provider was paid for that 124617
period for the nursing facility and the amount the provider should 124618
have been paid for the nursing facility.124619

       (2) The rules shall provide that during a fiscal year, the 124620
department, by means of the rate reconsideration process, may 124621
increase the rate determined for an intermediate care facility for 124622
the mentally retarded as calculated under sections 5111.20 to 124623
5111.331 of the Revised Code if the provider of the facility 124624
demonstrates that the facility's actual, allowable costs have 124625
increased because of extreme circumstances. A facility may qualify 124626
for a rate increase only if the facility's per diem, actual, 124627
allowable costs have increased to a level that exceeds its total 124628
rate. The rules shall specify the circumstances that would justify 124629
a rate increase under division (A)(2) of this section. The rules 124630
shall provide that the extreme circumstances include natural 124631
disasters, renovations approved under division (D) of section 124632
5111.251 of the Revised Code, an increase in workers' compensation 124633
experience rating of greater than five per cent for a facility 124634
that has an appropriate claims management program, increased 124635
security costs for an inner-city facility, and a change of 124636
ownership that results from bankruptcy, foreclosure, or findings 124637
of violations of certification requirements by the department of 124638
health. An increase under division (A)(2) of this section is 124639
subject to any rate limitations or maximum rates established by 124640
sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Code for specific cost 124641
centers. Any rate increase granted under division (A)(2) of this 124642
section shall take effect on the first day of the first month 124643
after the department receives the request.124644

       (3) The rules shall provide that the department, through the 124645
rate reconsideration process, may increase an intermediate care 124646
facility for the mentally retarded's rate as calculated under 124647
sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Code if the 124648
department, in the department's sole discretion, determines that 124649
the rate as calculated under those sections works an extreme 124650
hardship on the facility.124651

       (4) The rules shall provide that when beds certified for the 124652
medicaid program are added to an existing intermediate care 124653
facility for the mentally retarded or replaced at the same site, 124654
the department, through the rate reconsideration process, shall 124655
increase the intermediate care facility for the mentally 124656
retarded's rate for capital costs proportionately, as limited by 124657
any applicable limitation under section 5111.251 of the Revised 124658
Code, to account for the costs of the beds that are added or 124659
replaced. The department shall make this increase one month after 124660
the first day of the month after the department receives 124661
sufficient documentation of the costs. Any rate increase granted 124662
under division (A)(4) of this section after June 30, 1993, shall 124663
remain in effect until the effective date of a rate calculated 124664
under section 5111.251 of the Revised Code that includes costs 124665
incurred for a full calendar year for the bed addition or bed 124666
replacement. The facility shall report double accumulated 124667
depreciation in an amount equal to the depreciation included in 124668
the rate adjustment on its cost report for the first year of 124669
operation. During the term of any loan used to finance a project 124670
for which a rate adjustment is granted under division (A)(4) of 124671
this section, if the facility is operated by the same provider, 124672
the provider shall subtract from the interest costs it reports on 124673
its cost report an amount equal to the difference between the 124674
following:124675

       (a) The actual, allowable interest costs for the loan during 124676
the calendar year for which the costs are being reported;124677

       (b) The actual, allowable interest costs attributable to the 124678
loan that were used to calculate the rates paid to the provider 124679
for the facility during the same calendar year.124680

       (5) The department's decision at the conclusion of the 124681
reconsideration process shall not be subject to any administrative 124682
proceedings under Chapter 119. or any other provision of the 124683
Revised Code.124684

       (B) All of the following are subject to an adjudication 124685
conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code:124686

       (1) Any audit disallowance that the department makes as the 124687
result of an audit under section 5111.27 of the Revised Code;124688

       (2) Any adverse finding that results from an exception review 124689
of resident assessment information conducted under section 5111.27 124690
of the Revised Code after the effective date of the facility's 124691
rate that is based on the assessment information;124692

       (3) Any medicaid payment deemed an overpayment under section 124693
5111.683 of the Revised Code;124694

       (4) Any penalty the department imposes under division (C) of 124695
section 5111.28 of the Revised Code or section 5111.683 of the 124696
Revised Code.124697

       Sec. 5111.28.        Sec. 5165.40. (A) If a nursing facility provider 124698
properly amends itsa cost report for the nursing facility under 124699
section 5111.2615165.107 of the Revised Code and the amended 124700
report shows that the provider received a lower medicaid payment124701
rate under the original cost report than itthe provider was 124702
entitled to receive, the department of job and family services124703
medicaid shall adjust the provider's rate for the nursing facility124704
prospectively to reflect the corrected information. The department 124705
shall pay the adjusted rate beginning two months after the first 124706
day of the month after the provider files the amended cost report. 124707
If124708

       If the department finds, from an exception review of resident 124709
assessment informationdata conducted pursuant to section 5165.193 124710
of the Revised Code after the effective date of thea nursing 124711
facility's rate for direct care costs that is based on the 124712
resident assessment informationdata, that inaccurate resident124713
assessment informationdata resulted in the provider receiving a 124714
lower rate for the nursing facility than it was entitled to 124715
receive, the department prospectively shall adjust the provider's 124716
rate accordingly and. The department shall make payments to the 124717
provider using the adjusted rate for the remainder of the calendar 124718
quartersix-month period for which the resident assessment 124719
informationdata is used to determine the rate, beginning one 124720
month after the first day of the month after the exception review 124721
is completed.124722

       (B) If the provider properly amends its cost report under 124723
section 5111.261 of the Revised Code, the department makes a 124724
finding based on an audit under section 5111.27 of the Revised 124725
Code, or the department makes a finding based on an exception 124726
review of resident assessment information conducted under section 124727
5111.27 of the Revised Code after the effective date of the rate 124728
for direct care costs that is based on the assessment information, 124729
any of which results in a determination that the provider has 124730
received a higher rate than it was entitled to receive, the 124731
department shall recalculate the provider's rate using the revised 124732
information. The department shall apply the recalculated rate to 124733
the periods when the provider received the incorrect rate to 124734
determine the amount of the overpayment. The provider shall refund 124735
the amount of the overpayment.124736

       In addition to requiring a refund under this division, the 124737
department may charge the provider interest at the applicable rate 124738
specified in this division from the time the overpayment was made.124739

       (1) If the overpayment resulted from costs reported for 124740
calendar year 1993, the interest shall be no greater than one and 124741
one-half times the average bank prime rate.124742

       (2) If the overpayment resulted from costs reported for 124743
subsequent calendar years:124744

       (a) The interest shall be no greater than two times the 124745
average bank prime rate if the overpayment was equal to or less 124746
than one per cent of the total medicaid payments to the provider 124747
for the fiscal year for which the incorrect information was used 124748
to establish a rate.124749

       (b) The interest shall be no greater than two and one-half 124750
times the current average bank prime rate if the overpayment was 124751
greater than one per cent of the total medicaid payments to the 124752
provider for the fiscal year for which the incorrect information 124753
was used to establish a rate.124754

       (C) The department also may impose the following penalties:124755

       (1) If a provider does not furnish invoices or other 124756
documentation that the department requests during an audit within 124757
sixty days after the request, no more than the greater of one 124758
thousand dollars per audit or twenty-five per cent of the 124759
cumulative amount by which the costs for which documentation was 124760
not furnished increased the total medicaid payments to the 124761
provider during the fiscal year for which the costs were used to 124762
establish a rate;124763

       (2) If an exiting operator or owner fails to provide notice 124764
of a facility closure, voluntary termination, or voluntary 124765
withdrawal of participation in the medicaid program as required by 124766
section 5111.66 of the Revised Code, or an exiting operator or 124767
owner and entering operator fail to provide notice of a change of 124768
operator as required by section 5111.67 of the Revised Code, no 124769
more than the current average bank prime rate plus four per cent 124770
of the last two monthly payments.124771

       (D) If the provider continues to participate in the medicaid 124772
program, the department shall deduct any amount that the provider 124773
is required to refund under this section, and the amount of any 124774
interest charged or penalty imposed under this section, from the 124775
next available payment from the department to the provider. The 124776
department and the provider may enter into an agreement under 124777
which the amount, together with interest, is deducted in 124778
installments from payments from the department to the provider. 124779

       (E) The department shall transmit refunds and penalties to 124780
the treasurer of state for deposit in the general revenue fund.124781

       (F) For the purpose of this section, the department shall 124782
determine the average bank prime rate using statistical release 124783
H.15, "selected interest rates," a weekly publication of the 124784
federal reserve board, or any successor publication. If 124785
statistical release H.15, or its successor, ceases to contain the 124786
bank prime rate information or ceases to be published, the 124787
department shall request a written statement of the average bank 124788
prime rate from the federal reserve bank of Cleveland or the 124789
federal reserve board.124790

       Sec. 5165.41.  (A) The department of medicaid shall 124791
redetermine a provider's medicaid payment rate for a nursing 124792
facility using revised information if any of the following results 124793
in a determination that the provider received a higher medicaid 124794
payment rate for the nursing facility than the provider was 124795
entitled to receive:124796

       (1) The provider properly amends a cost report for the 124797
nursing facility under section 5165.107 of the Revised Code;124798

       (2) The department makes a finding based on an audit under 124799
section 5165.109 of the Revised Code;124800

       (3) The department makes a finding based on an exception 124801
review of resident assessment data conducted under section 124802
5165.193 of the Revised Code after the effective date of the 124803
nursing facility's rate for direct care costs that is based on the 124804
resident assessment data;124805

       (4) The department makes a finding based on a post-payment 124806
review conducted under section 5165.49 of the Revised Code.124807

       (B) The department shall apply the redetermined rate to the 124808
periods when the provider received the incorrect rate to determine 124809
the amount of the overpayment. The provider shall refund the 124810
amount of the overpayment. The department may charge the provider 124811
the following amount of interest from the time the overpayment was 124812
made:124813

       (1) If the overpayment resulted from costs reported for 124814
calendar year 1993, the interest shall be no greater than one and 124815
one-half times the current average bank prime rate.124816

       (2) If the overpayment resulted from costs reported for a 124817
subsequent calendar year:124818

       (a) The interest shall be no greater than two times the 124819
current average bank prime rate if the overpayment was no more 124820
than one per cent of the total medicaid payments to the provider 124821
for the fiscal year for which the overpayment was made.124822

       (b) The interest shall be no greater than two and one-half 124823
times the current average bank prime rate if the overpayment was 124824
more than one per cent of the total medicaid payments to the 124825
provider for the fiscal year for which the overpayment was made.124826

       Sec. 5165.42.  In addition to the other penalties authorized 124827
by this chapter, the department of medicaid may impose the 124828
following penalties on a nursing facility provider:124829

       (A) If the provider does not furnish invoices or other 124830
documentation that the department requests during an audit within 124831
sixty days after the request, a fine of no more than the greater 124832
of the following:124833

       (1) One thousand dollars per audit;124834

       (2) Twenty-five per cent of the cumulative amount by which 124835
the costs for which documentation was not furnished increased the 124836
total medicaid payments to the provider during the fiscal year for 124837
which the costs were used to determine a rate.124838

       (B) If an exiting operator or owner fails to provide notice 124839
of a facility closure or voluntary withdrawal of participation in 124840
the medicaid program as required by section 5165.50 of the Revised 124841
Code, or an exiting operator or owner and entering operator fail 124842
to provide notice of a change of operator as required by section 124843
5165.51 of the Revised Code, a fine of not more than the current 124844
average bank prime rate plus four per cent of the last two monthly 124845
payments.124846

       Sec. 5165.43.  For the purposes of sections 5165.41 and 124847
5165.42 of the Revised Code, the department of medicaid shall 124848
determine the current average bank prime rate using statistical 124849
release H.15, "selected interest rates," a weekly publication of 124850
the federal reserve board, or any successor publication. If 124851
statistical release H.15, or its successor, ceases to contain the 124852
bank prime rate information or ceases to be published, the 124853
department shall request a written statement of the average bank 124854
prime rate from the federal reserve bank of Cleveland or the 124855
federal reserve board.124856

       Sec. 5165.44.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this 124857
section, the department of medicaid shall deduct the following 124858
from the next available medicaid payment the department makes to a 124859
nursing facility provider who continues to participate in 124860
medicaid:124861

       (1) Any amount the provider is required to refund, and any 124862
interest charged, under section 5165.41 of the Revised Code;124863

       (2) The amount of any penalty imposed on the provider under 124864
section 5165.42 of the Revised Code.124865

       (B) The department and a nursing facility provider may enter 124866
into an agreement under which a deduction required by division (A) 124867
of this section is taken in installments from payments the 124868
department makes to the provider.124869

       Sec. 5165.45.  The department of medicaid shall transmit to 124870
the treasurer of state for deposit in the general revenue fund 124871
amounts collected from the following:124872

       (A) Refunds required by, and interest charged under, section 124873
5165.41 of the Revised Code;124874

       (B) Amounts collected from penalties imposed under section 124875
5165.42 of the Revised Code.124876

       Sec. 5165.46.  All of the following are subject to an 124877
adjudication conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 124878
Revised Code:124879

       (A) Any audit disallowance that the department of medicaid 124880
makes as the result of an audit under section 5165.109 of the 124881
Revised Code;124882

       (B) Any adverse finding that results from an exception review 124883
of resident assessment data conducted for a nursing facility under 124884
section 5165.193 of the Revised Code after the effective date of 124885
the nursing facility's medicaid payment rate for direct care costs 124886
that is based on the resident assessment data;124887

       (C) Any medicaid payment deemed an overpayment under section 124888
5165.523 of the Revised Code;124889

       (D) Any penalty the department imposes under section 5165.42 124890
of the Revised Code or section 5165.523 of the Revised Code.124891

       Sec. 5111.262.        Sec. 5165.47. No person, other than thea nursing 124892
facility provider of a nursing facility, shall submit a claim for 124893
medicaid reimbursementpayment for a service provided to a 124894
nursing facility resident if the service is included in a medicaid 124895
payment made to the nursing facility provider of a nursing 124896
facility under sections 5111.20 to 5111.33 of the Revised Code124897
this chapter or in the reimbursableallowable expenses reported 124898
on a provider's cost report for a nursing facility. No nursing 124899
facility provider of a nursing facility shall submit a separate 124900
claim for medicaid reimbursementpayment for a service provided 124901
to a resident of the nursing facility if the service is included 124902
in a medicaid payment made to the provider under sections 5111.20 124903
to 5111.331 of the Revised Codethis chapter or in the 124904
reimbursableallowable expenses on the provider's cost report for 124905
the nursing facility.124906

       Sec. 5111.0211.        Sec. 5165.48. As used in this section, "nursing 124907
facility" and "provider" have the same meanings as in section 124908
5111.20 of the Revised Code.124909

       The provider of a nursing facility is not required to submit 124910
a claim to the department of job and family servicesmedicaid124911
regarding the medicare cost-sharing expenses of a resident of the 124912
nursing facility who, under federal law, is eligible to have the 124913
medicaid program pay for a part of the cost-sharing expenses if 124914
the provider determines that, under rules adopted under section 124915
5111.025165.02 of the Revised Code, the nursing facility would 124916
not receive a medicaid payment for any part of the medicare 124917
cost-sharing expenses. In such a situation, a claim for the 124918
medicare cost-sharing expenses shall be considered to have been 124919
adjudicated at no payment.124920

       Sec. 5165.49.  The department of medicaid may conduct a 124921
post-payment review of a claim submitted by a nursing facility 124922
provider and paid by the medicaid program to determine whether the 124923
provider was overpaid. The department shall provide the provider a 124924
written summary of the review's results. The review's results are 124925
not subject to an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the Revised 124926
Code; however, the provider may request that the medicaid director 124927
reconsider the review's results. The director shall reconsider the 124928
review's results on receipt of a request made in good faith. The 124929
department shall not deduct any amounts the department claims to 124930
be due from the provider as a result of the review from the 124931
provider's medicaid payments pursuant to section 5165.44 of the 124932
Revised Code until the conclusion of the director's 124933
reconsideration, if any, of the review.124934

       Sec. 5111.66.        Sec. 5165.50. An exiting operator or owner of a 124935
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 124936
retarded participating in the medicaid program shall provide the 124937
department of job and family servicesmedicaid written notice of a 124938
facility closure, voluntary termination, or voluntary withdrawal 124939
of participation not less than ninety days before the effective 124940
date of the facility closure, voluntary termination, or voluntary 124941
withdrawal of participation. The written notice shall be provided 124942
to the department in accordance with the method specified in rules 124943
adopted underauthorized by section 5111.6895165.53 of the 124944
Revised Code.124945

       The written notice shall include all of the following:124946

        (A) The name of the exiting operator and, if any, the exiting 124947
operator's authorized agent;124948

        (B) The name of the nursing facility or intermediate care 124949
facility for the mentally retarded that is the subject of the 124950
written notice;124951

        (C) The exiting operator's medicaid provider agreement number 124952
for the nursing facility that is the subject of the written 124953
notice;124954

        (D) The effective date of the facility closure, voluntary 124955
termination, or voluntary withdrawal of participation;124956

        (E) The signature of the exiting operator's or owner's 124957
representative.124958

       Sec. 5111.661.        Sec. 5165.501. An operator shall comply with section 124959
1919(c)(2)(F) of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965)124960
section 1919(c)(2)(F), 42 U.S.C. 1396r(c)(2)(F) if the operator's 124961
nursing facility undergoes a voluntary withdrawal of 124962
participation.124963

       Sec. 5111.67.        Sec. 5165.51. (A) An exiting operator or owner and 124964
entering operator shall provide the department of job and family 124965
servicesmedicaid written notice of a change of operator if the 124966
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 124967
retarded participates in the medicaid program and the entering 124968
operator seeks to continue the nursing facility's participation. 124969
The written notice shall be provided to the department in 124970
accordance with the method specified in rules adopted under124971
authorized by section 5111.6895165.53 of the Revised Code. The 124972
written notice shall be provided to the department not later than 124973
forty-five days before the effective date of the change of 124974
operator if the change of operator does not entail the relocation 124975
of residents. The written notice shall be provided to the 124976
department not later than ninety days before the effective date of 124977
the change of operator if the change of operator entails the 124978
relocation of residents. 124979

       The written notice shall include all of the following:124980

        (1) The name of the exiting operator and, if any, the exiting 124981
operator's authorized agent;124982

        (2) The name of the nursing facility or intermediate care 124983
facility for the mentally retarded that is the subject of the 124984
change of operator;124985

        (3) The exiting operator's seven-digit medicaid legacy number 124986
and ten-digit national provider identifier number for the nursing124987
facility that is the subject of the change of operator;124988

        (4) The name of the entering operator;124989

        (5) The effective date of the change of operator;124990

        (6) The manner in which the entering operator becomes the 124991
nursing facility's operator, including through sale, lease, 124992
merger, or other action;124993

        (7) If the manner in which the entering operator becomes the 124994
nursing facility's operator involves more than one step, a 124995
description of each step;124996

        (8) Written authorization from the exiting operator or owner 124997
and entering operator for the department to process a provider 124998
agreement for the entering operator;124999

        (9) The names and addresses of the persons to whom the 125000
department should send initial correspondence regarding the change 125001
of operator;125002

       (10) If the nursing facility also participates in the 125003
medicare program, notification of whether the entering operator 125004
intends to accept assignment of the exiting operator's medicare 125005
provider agreement;125006

       (11) The signature of the exiting operator's or owner's 125007
representative.125008

        (B) An exiting operator or owner and entering operator 125009
immediately shall provide the department written notice of any 125010
changes to information included in a written notice of a change of 125011
operator that occur after that notice is provided to the 125012
department. The notice of the changes shall be provided to the 125013
department in accordance with the method specified in rules 125014
adopted underauthorized by section 5111.6895165.53 of the 125015
Revised Code.125016

       Sec. 5111.671.        Sec. 5165.511. The department of job and family 125017
servicesmedicaid may enter into a provider agreement with an 125018
entering operator that goes into effect at 12:01 a.m. on the 125019
effective date of the change of operator if all of the following 125020
requirements are met:125021

       (A) The department receives a properly completed written 125022
notice required by section 5111.675165.51 of the Revised Code on 125023
or before the date required by that section.125024

        (B) The department receives both of the following in 125025
accordance with the method specified in rules adopted under125026
authorized by section 5111.6895165.53 of the Revised Code and not 125027
later than ten days after the effective date of the change of 125028
operator:125029

        (1) From the entering operator, a completed application for a 125030
provider agreement and all other forms and documents specified in 125031
rules adopted underauthorized by section 5111.6895165.53 of the 125032
Revised Code;125033

       (2) From the exiting operator or owner, all forms and 125034
documents specified in rules adopted underauthorized by section 125035
5111.6895165.53 of the Revised Code.125036

        (C) The entering operator is eligible for medicaid payments 125037
as provided in section 5111.215165.06 of the Revised Code.125038

       Sec. 5111.672.        Sec. 5165.512. (A) The department of job and family 125039
servicesmedicaid may enter into a provider agreement with an 125040
entering operator that goes into effect at 12:01 a.m. on the date 125041
determined under division (B) of this section if all of the 125042
following are the case:125043

        (1) The department receives a properly completed written 125044
notice required by section 5111.675165.51 of the Revised Code.125045

        (2) The department receives, from the entering operator and 125046
in accordance with the method specified in rules adopted under125047
authorized by section 5111.6895165.53 of the Revised Code, a 125048
completed application for a provider agreement and all other forms 125049
and documents specified in rules adopted under that section. 125050

       (3) The department receives, from the exiting operator or 125051
owner and in accordance with the method specified in rules adopted 125052
underauthorized by section 5111.6895165.53 of the Revised Code, 125053
all forms and documents specified in rules adopted under that 125054
section.125055

        (4) One or more of the following apply:125056

       (a) The requirement of division (A)(1) of this section is met 125057
after the time required by section 5111.675165.51 of the Revised 125058
Code;125059

       (b) The requirement of division (A)(2) of this section is met 125060
more than ten days after the effective date of the change of 125061
operator;125062

       (c) The requirement of division (A)(3) of this section is met 125063
more than ten days after the effective date of the change of 125064
operator.125065

        (5) The entering operator is eligible for medicaid payments 125066
as provided in section 5111.215165.06 of the Revised Code.125067

        (B) The department shall determine the date a provider 125068
agreement entered into under this section is to go into effect as 125069
follows:125070

        (1) The effective date shall give the department sufficient 125071
time to process the change of operator, assure no duplicate 125072
payments are made, and make the withholding required by section 125073
5111.6815165.521 of the Revised Code.125074

        (2) The effective date shall be not earlier than the latest 125075
of the following:125076

       (a) The effective date of the change of operator;125077

       (b) The date that the entering operator complies with section 125078
5111.675165.51 of the Revised Code and division (A)(2) of this 125079
section;125080

       (c) The date that the exiting operator or owner complies with 125081
section 5111.675165.51 of the Revised Code and division (A)(3) of 125082
this section.125083

        (3) The effective date shall be not later than the following 125084
after the later of the dates specified in division (B)(2) of this 125085
section:125086

        (a) Forty-five days if the change of operator does not entail 125087
the relocation of residents;125088

        (b) Ninety days if the change of operator entails the 125089
relocation of residents.125090

       Sec. 5111.673.        Sec. 5165.513. (A) A provider that enters into a 125091
provider agreement with the department of job and family services125092
medicaid under section 5111.6715165.511 or 5111.6725165.512 of 125093
the Revised Code shall do all of the following:125094

       (A)(1) Comply with all applicable federal statutes and 125095
regulations;125096

       (B)(2) Comply with section 5111.225165.07 of the Revised 125097
Code and all other applicable state statutes and rules;125098

        (C) Comply(3) Subject to division (B) of this section, 125099
comply with all the terms and conditions of the exiting operator's 125100
provider agreement, including, but not limited to, all of the 125101
following:125102

       (1)(a) Any plan of correction;125103

        (2)(b) Compliance with health and safety standards;125104

        (3)(c) Compliance with the ownership and financial interest 125105
disclosure requirements of 42 C.F.R. 455.104, 455.105, and 1002.3;125106

        (4)(d) Compliance with the civil rights requirements of 45 125107
C.F.R. parts 80, 84, and 90;125108

        (5)(e) Compliance with additional requirements imposed by the 125109
department;125110

        (6)(f) Any sanctions relating to remedies for violation of 125111
the provider agreement, including deficiencies, compliance 125112
periods, accountability periods, monetary penalties, notification 125113
for correction of contract violations, and history of 125114
deficiencies.125115

       (B) Division (A)(3) of this section does not prohibit a 125116
nursing facility provider from excluding one or more parts of the 125117
nursing facility from the provider agreement pursuant to division 125118
(B)(1) of section 5165.08 of the Revised Code.125119

       Sec. 5111.674.        Sec. 5165.514. In the case of a change of operator, 125120
the exiting operator shall be considered to be the operator of the 125121
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 125122
retarded for purposes of the medicaid program, including medicaid 125123
payments, until the effective date of the entering operator's 125124
provider agreement if the provider agreement is entered into under 125125
section 5111.6715165.511 or 5111.6725165.512 of the Revised 125126
Code.125127

       Sec. 5111.675.        Sec. 5165.515. The department of job and family 125128
servicesmedicaid may enter into a provider agreement as provided 125129
in section 5111.225165.07 of the Revised Code, rather than 125130
section 5111.6715165.511 or 5111.6725165.512 of the Revised 125131
Code, with an entering operator if the entering operator does not 125132
agree to a provider agreement that satisfies the requirements of 125133
division (C)(A)(3) of section 5111.6735165.513 of the Revised 125134
Code. The department may not enter into the provider agreement 125135
unless the department of health certifies the nursing facility or 125136
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded under Title 125137
XIX of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 125138
1396, as amendedfor participation in medicaid. The effective date 125139
of the provider agreement shall not precede any of the following:125140

        (A) The date that the department of health certifies the 125141
nursing facility;125142

        (B) The effective date of the change of operator;125143

        (C) The date the requirement of section 5111.675165.51 of 125144
the Revised Code is satisfied.125145

       Sec. 5111.676.        Sec. 5165.516. The medicaid director of job and 125146
family services may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119.125147
under section 5165.02 of the Revised Code governing adjustments 125148
to the medicaid reimbursementpayment rate for a nursing facility 125149
or intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded that 125150
undergoes a change of operator. No rate adjustment resulting from 125151
a change of operator shall be effective before the effective date 125152
of the entering operator's provider agreement. This is the case 125153
regardless of whether the provider agreement is entered into under 125154
section 5111.6715165.511, section 5111.6725165.512, or, pursuant 125155
to section 5111.6755165.515, section 5111.225165.07 of the 125156
Revised Code.125157

       Sec. 5111.677.        Sec. 5165.517. Neither of the followingThe 125158
department of health's determination that a change of operator has 125159
or has not occurred for purposes of licensure under Chapter 3721. 125160
of the Revised Code shall not affect the department of job and 125161
family services'medicaid's determination of whether or when a 125162
change of operator occurs or the effective date of an entering 125163
operator's provider agreement under section 5111.6715165.511, 125164
section 5111.6725165.512, or, pursuant to section 5111.675125165
5165.515, section 5111.225165.07 of the Revised Code:125166

       (A) The department of health's determination that a change of 125167
operator has or has not occurred for purposes of licensure under 125168
Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code;125169

        (B) The department of developmental disabilities' 125170
determination that a change of operator has or has not occurred 125171
for purposes of licensure under section 5123.19 of the Revised 125172
Code.125173

       Sec. 5111.68.        Sec. 5165.52. (A) On receipt of a written notice 125174
under section 5111.665165.50 of the Revised Code of a facility 125175
closure, voluntary termination, or voluntary withdrawal of 125176
participation, on receipt of a written notice under section 125177
5111.675165.51 of the Revised Code of a change of operator, or on 125178
the effective date of an involuntary termination, the department 125179
of job and family servicesmedicaid shall estimate the amount of 125180
any overpayments made under the medicaid program to the exiting 125181
operator, including overpayments the exiting operator disputes, 125182
and other actual and potential debts the exiting operator owes or 125183
may owe to the department and United States centers for medicare 125184
and medicaid services under the medicaid program, including a 125185
franchise permit fee. 125186

       (B) In estimating the exiting operator's other actual and 125187
potential debts to the department and the United States centers 125188
for medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid program, the 125189
department shall use a debt estimation methodology the medicaid125190
director of job and family services shall establish in rules 125191
adopted underauthorized by section 5111.6895165.53 of the 125192
Revised Code. The methodology shall provide for estimating all of 125193
the following that the department determines are applicable:125194

        (1) Refunds due the department under section 5111.275165.41125195
of the Revised Code;125196

        (2) Interest owed to the department and United States centers 125197
for medicare and medicaid services;125198

        (3) Final civil monetary and other penalties for which all 125199
right of appeal has been exhausted;125200

        (4) Money owed the department and United States centers for 125201
medicare and medicaid services from any outstanding final fiscal 125202
audit, including a final fiscal audit for the last fiscal year or 125203
portion thereof in which the exiting operator participated in the 125204
medicaid program;125205

       (5) Other amounts the department determines are applicable.125206

       (C) The department shall provide the exiting operator written 125207
notice of the department's estimate under division (A) of this 125208
section not later than thirty days after the department receives 125209
the notice under section 5111.665165.50 of the Revised Code of 125210
the facility closure, voluntary termination, or voluntary 125211
withdrawal of participation; the department receives the notice 125212
under section 5111.675165.51 of the Revised Code of the change 125213
of operator; or the effective date of the involuntary termination. 125214
The department's written notice shall include the basis for the 125215
estimate.125216

       Sec. 5111.681.        Sec. 5165.521. (A) Except as provided in divisions 125217
(B), (C), and (D) of this section, the department of job and 125218
family servicesmedicaid may withhold from payment due an exiting 125219
operator under the medicaid program the total amount specified in 125220
the notice provided under division (C) of section 5111.685165.52125221
of the Revised Code that the exiting operator owes or may owe to 125222
the department and United States centers for medicare and medicaid 125223
services under the medicaid program.125224

       (B) In the case of a change of operator and subject to 125225
division (E) of this section, the following shall apply regarding 125226
a withholding under division (A) of this section if the exiting 125227
operator or entering operator or an affiliated operator executes a 125228
successor liability agreement meeting the requirements of division 125229
(F) of this section:125230

        (1) If the exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated 125231
operator assumes liability for the total, actual amount of debt 125232
the exiting operator owes the department and the United States 125233
centers for medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid 125234
program as determined under section 5111.6855165.525 of the 125235
Revised Code, the department shall not make the withholding.125236

       (2) If the exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated 125237
operator assumes liability for only the portion of the amount 125238
specified in division (B)(1) of this section that represents the 125239
franchise permit fee the exiting operator owes, the department 125240
shall withhold not more than the difference between the total 125241
amount specified in the notice provided under division (C) of 125242
section 5111.685165.52 of the Revised Code and the amount for 125243
which the exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated 125244
operator assumes liability.125245

        (C) In the case of a voluntary termination, voluntary 125246
withdrawal of participation, or facility closure and subject to 125247
division (E) of this section, the following shall apply regarding 125248
a withholding under division (A) of this section if the exiting 125249
operator or an affiliated operator executes a successor liability 125250
agreement meeting the requirements of division (F) of this 125251
section:125252

        (1) If the exiting operator or affiliated operator assumes 125253
liability for the total, actual amount of debt the exiting 125254
operator owes the department and the United States centers for 125255
medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid program as 125256
determined under section 5111.6855165.525 of the Revised Code, 125257
the department shall not make the withholding.125258

        (2) If the exiting operator or affiliated operator assumes 125259
liability for only the portion of the amount specified in division 125260
(C)(1) of this section that represents the franchise permit fee 125261
the exiting operator owes, the department shall withhold not more 125262
than the difference between the total amount specified in the 125263
notice provided under division (C) of section 5111.685165.52 of 125264
the Revised Code and the amount for which the exiting operator or 125265
affiliated operator assumes liability.125266

        (D) In the case of an involuntary termination and subject to 125267
division (E) of this section, the following shall apply regarding 125268
a withholding under division (A) of this section if the exiting 125269
operator, the entering operator, or an affiliated operator 125270
executes a successor liability agreement meeting the requirements 125271
of division (F) of this section and the department approves the 125272
successor liability agreement:125273

       (1) If the exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated 125274
operator assumes liability for the total, actual amount of debt 125275
the exiting operator owes the department and the United States 125276
centers for medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid 125277
program as determined under section 5111.6855165.525 of the 125278
Revised Code, the department shall not make the withholding.125279

       (2) If the exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated 125280
operator assumes liability for only the portion of the amount 125281
specified in division (D)(1) of this section that represents the 125282
franchise permit fee the exiting operator owes, the department 125283
shall withhold not more than the difference between the total 125284
amount specified in the notice provided under division (C) of 125285
section 5111.685165.52 of the Revised Code and the amount for 125286
which the exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated 125287
operator assumes liability.125288

       (E) For an exiting operator or affiliated operator to be 125289
eligible to enter into a successor liability agreement under 125290
division (B), (C), or (D) of this section, both of the following 125291
must apply:125292

        (1) The exiting operator or affiliated operator must have one 125293
or more valid provider agreements, other than the provider 125294
agreement for the nursing facility or intermediate care facility 125295
for the mentally retarded that is the subject of the involuntary 125296
termination, voluntary termination, voluntary withdrawal of 125297
participation, facility closure, or change of operator;125298

        (2) During the twelve-month period preceding either the 125299
effective date of the involuntary termination or the month in 125300
which the department receives the notice of the voluntary 125301
termination, voluntary withdrawal of participation, or facility 125302
closure under section 5111.665165.50 of the Revised Code or the 125303
notice of the change of operator under section 5111.675165.51 of 125304
the Revised Code, the average monthly medicaid payment made to the 125305
exiting operator or affiliated operator pursuant to the exiting 125306
operator's or affiliated operator's one or more provider 125307
agreements, other than the provider agreement for the nursing 125308
facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded125309
that is the subject of the involuntary termination, voluntary 125310
termination, voluntary withdrawal of participation, facility 125311
closure, or change of operator, must equal at least ninety per 125312
cent of the sum of the following:125313

        (a) The average monthly medicaid payment made to the exiting 125314
operator pursuant to the exiting operator's provider agreement for 125315
the nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the 125316
mentally retarded that is the subject of the involuntary 125317
termination, voluntary termination, voluntary withdrawal of 125318
participation, facility closure, or change of operator;125319

        (b) Whichever of the following apply:125320

       (i) If the exiting operator or affiliated operator has 125321
assumed liability under one or more other successor liability 125322
agreements, the total amount for which the exiting operator or 125323
affiliated operator has assumed liability under the other 125324
successor liability agreements;125325

       (ii) If the exiting operator or affiliated operator has not 125326
assumed liability under any other successor liability agreements, 125327
zero.125328

        (F) A successor liability agreement executed under this 125329
section must comply with all of the following:125330

        (1) It must provide for the operator who executes the 125331
successor liability agreement to assume liability for either of 125332
the following as specified in the agreement:125333

        (a) The total, actual amount of debt the exiting operator 125334
owes the department and the United States centers for medicare and 125335
medicaid services under the medicaid program as determined under 125336
section 5111.6855165.525 of the Revised Code;125337

        (b) The portion of the amount specified in division (F)(1)(a) 125338
of this section that represents the franchise permit fee the 125339
exiting operator owes.125340

        (2) It may not require the operator who executes the 125341
successor liability agreement to furnish a surety bond.125342

        (3) It must provide that the department, after determining 125343
under section 5111.6855165.525 of the Revised Code the actual 125344
amount of debt the exiting operator owes the department and United 125345
States centers for medicare and medicaid services under the 125346
medicaid program, may deduct the lesser of the following from 125347
medicaid payments made to the operator who executes the successor 125348
liability agreement:125349

        (a) The total, actual amount of debt the exiting operator 125350
owes the department and the United States centers for medicare and 125351
medicaid services under the medicaid program as determined under 125352
section 5111.6855165.525 of the Revised Code;125353

        (b) The amount for which the operator who executes the 125354
successor liability agreement assumes liability under the 125355
agreement.125356

        (4) It must provide that the deductions authorized by 125357
division (F)(3) of this section are to be made for a number of 125358
months, not to exceed six, agreed to by the operator who executes 125359
the successor liability agreement and the department or, if the 125360
operator who executes the successor liability agreement and 125361
department cannot agree on a number of months that is less than 125362
six, a greater number of months determined by the attorney general 125363
pursuant to a claims collection process authorized by statute of 125364
this state.125365

        (5) It must provide that, if the attorney general determines 125366
the number of months for which the deductions authorized by 125367
division (F)(3) of this section are to be made, the operator who 125368
executes the successor liability agreement shall pay, in addition 125369
to the amount collected pursuant to the attorney general's claims 125370
collection process, the part of the amount so collected that, if 125371
not for division (H) of this section, would be required by section 125372
109.081 of the Revised Code to be paid into the attorney general 125373
claims fund.125374

        (G) Execution of a successor liability agreement does not 125375
waive an exiting operator's right to contest the amount specified 125376
in the notice the department provides the exiting operator under 125377
division (C) of section 5111.685165.52 of the Revised Code. 125378

       (H) Notwithstanding section 109.081 of the Revised Code, the 125379
entire amount that the attorney general, whether by employees or 125380
agents of the attorney general or by special counsel appointed 125381
pursuant to section 109.08 of the Revised Code, collects under a 125382
successor liability agreement, other than the additional amount 125383
the operator who executes the agreement is required by division 125384
(F)(5) of this section to pay, shall be paid to the department of 125385
job and family servicesmedicaid for deposit into the appropriate 125386
fund. The additional amount that the operator is required to pay 125387
shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the 125388
attorney general claims fund created under section 109.081 of the 125389
Revised Code.125390

       Sec. 5111.682.        Sec. 5165.522. (A) Except as provided in division 125391
(B) of this section, an exiting operator shall file with the 125392
department of job and family servicesmedicaid a cost report not 125393
later than ninety days after the last day the exiting operator's 125394
provider agreement is in effect or, in the case of a voluntary 125395
withdrawal of participation, the effective date of the voluntary 125396
withdrawal of participation. The cost report shall cover the 125397
period that begins with the day after the last day covered by the 125398
operator's most recent previous cost report required by section 125399
5111.265165.10 of the Revised Code and ends on the last day the 125400
exiting operator's provider agreement is in effect or, in the case 125401
of a voluntary withdrawal of participation, the effective date of 125402
the voluntary withdrawal of participation. The cost report shall 125403
include, as applicable, all of the following:125404

        (1) The sale price of the nursing facility or intermediate 125405
care facility for the mentally retarded;125406

        (2) A final depreciation schedule that shows which assets are 125407
transferred to the buyer and which assets are not transferred to 125408
the buyer;125409

        (3) Any other information the department requires.125410

        (B) The department, at its sole discretion, may waive the 125411
requirement that an exiting operator file a cost report in 125412
accordance with division (A) of this section.125413

       Sec. 5111.683.        Sec. 5165.523. If an exiting operator required by 125414
section 5111.6825165.522 of the Revised Code to file a cost 125415
report with the department of job and family servicesmedicaid125416
fails to file the cost report in accordance with that section, all 125417
payments under the medicaid program for the period the cost report 125418
is required to cover are deemed overpayments until the date the 125419
department receives the properly completed cost report. The 125420
department may impose on the exiting operator a penalty of one 125421
hundred dollars for each calendar day the properly completed cost 125422
report is late.125423

       Sec. 5111.684.        Sec. 5165.524. The department of job and family 125424
servicesmedicaid may not provide an exiting operator final 125425
payment under the medicaid program until the department receives 125426
all properly completed cost reports the exiting operator is 125427
required to file under sections 5111.265165.10 and 5111.682125428
5165.522 of the Revised Code.125429

       Sec. 5111.685.        Sec. 5165.525. The department of job and family 125430
servicesmedicaid shall determine the actual amount of debt an 125431
exiting operator owes the department and the United States centers 125432
for medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid program by 125433
completing all final fiscal audits not already completed and 125434
performing all other appropriate actions the department determines 125435
to be necessary. The department shall issue an initial debt 125436
summary report on this matter not later than sixty days after the 125437
date the exiting operator files the properly completed cost report 125438
required by section 5111.6825165.522 of the Revised Code with the 125439
department or, if the department waives the cost report 125440
requirement for the exiting operator, sixty days after the date 125441
the department waives the cost report requirement. The initial 125442
debt summary report becomes the final debt summary report 125443
thirty-one days after the department issues the initial debt 125444
summary report unless the exiting operator, or an affiliated 125445
operator who executes a successor liability agreement under 125446
section 5111.6815165.521 of the Revised Code, requests a review 125447
before that date.125448

        The exiting operator, and an affiliated operator who executes 125449
a successor liability agreement under section 5111.6815165.521 of 125450
the Revised Code, may request a review to contest any of the 125451
department's findings included in the initial debt summary report. 125452
The request for the review must be submitted to the department not 125453
later than thirty days after the date the department issues the 125454
initial debt summary report. The department shall conduct the 125455
review on receipt of a timely request and issue a revised debt 125456
summary report. If the department has withheld money from payment 125457
due the exiting operator under division (A) of section 5111.681125458
5165.521 of the Revised Code, the department shall issue the 125459
revised debt summary report not later than ninety days after the 125460
date the department receives the timely request for the review 125461
unless the department and exiting operator or affiliated operator 125462
agree to a later date. The exiting operator or affiliated operator 125463
may submit information to the department explaining what the 125464
operator contests before and during the review, including 125465
documentation of the amount of any debt the department owes the 125466
operator. The exiting operator or affiliated operator may submit 125467
additional information to the department not later than thirty 125468
days after the department issues the revised debt summary report. 125469
The revised debt summary report becomes the final debt summary 125470
report thirty-one days after the department issues the revised 125471
debt summary report unless the exiting operator or affiliated 125472
operator timely submits additional information to the department. 125473
If the exiting operator or affiliated operator timely submits 125474
additional information to the department, the department shall 125475
consider the additional information and issue a final debt summary 125476
report not later than sixty days after the department issues the 125477
revised debt summary report unless the department and exiting 125478
operator or affiliated operator agree to a later date.125479

       Each debt summary report the department issues under this 125480
section shall include the department's findings and the amount of 125481
debt the department determines the exiting operator owes the 125482
department and United States centers for medicare and medicaid 125483
services under the medicaid program. The department shall explain 125484
its findings and determination in each debt summary report.125485

       The exiting operator, and an affiliated operator who executes 125486
a successor liability agreement under section 5111.6815165.521 of 125487
the Revised Code, may request, in accordance with Chapter 119. of 125488
the Revised Code, an adjudication regarding a finding in a final 125489
debt summary report that pertains to an audit or alleged 125490
overpayment made under the medicaid program to the exiting 125491
operator. The adjudication shall be consolidated with any other 125492
uncompleted adjudication that concerns a matter addressed in the 125493
final debt summary report.125494

       Sec. 5111.686.        Sec. 5165.526. The department of job and family 125495
servicesmedicaid shall release the actual amount withheld under 125496
division (A) of section 5111.6815165.521 of the Revised Code, 125497
less any amount the exiting operator owes the department and 125498
United States centers for medicare and medicaid services under the 125499
medicaid program, as follows:125500

        (A) Unless the department issues the initial debt summary 125501
report required by section 5111.6855165.525 of the Revised Code 125502
not later than sixty days after the date the exiting operator 125503
files the properly completed cost report required by section 125504
5111.6825165.522 of the Revised Code, sixty-one days after the 125505
date the exiting operator files the properly completed cost 125506
report;125507

        (B) If the department issues the initial debt summary report 125508
required by section 5111.6855165.525 of the Revised Code not 125509
later than sixty days after the date the exiting operator files a 125510
properly completed cost report required by section 5111.682125511
5165.522 of the Revised Code, not later than the following:125512

        (1) Thirty days after the deadline for requesting an 125513
adjudication under section 5111.6855165.525 of the Revised Code 125514
regarding the final debt summary report if the exiting operator, 125515
and an affiliated operator who executes a successor liability 125516
agreement under section 5111.6815165.521 of the Revised Code, 125517
fail to request the adjudication on or before the deadline;125518

       (2) Thirty days after the completion of an adjudication of 125519
the final debt summary report if the exiting operator, or an 125520
affiliated operator who executes a successor liability agreement 125521
under section 5111.6815165.521 of the Revised Code, requests the 125522
adjudication on or before the deadline for requesting the 125523
adjudication.125524

        (C) Unless the department issues the initial debt summary 125525
report required by section 5111.6855165.525 of the Revised Code 125526
not later than sixty days after the date the department waives the 125527
cost report requirement of section 5111.6825165.522 of the 125528
Revised Code, sixty-one days after the date the department waives 125529
the cost report requirement;125530

        (D) If the department issues the initial debt summary report 125531
required by section 5111.6855165.525 of the Revised Code not 125532
later than sixty days after the date the department waives the 125533
cost report requirement of section 5111.6825165.522 of the 125534
Revised Code, not later than the following:125535

        (1) Thirty days after the deadline for requesting an 125536
adjudication under section 5111.6855165.525 of the Revised Code 125537
regarding the final debt summary report if the exiting operator, 125538
and an affiliated operator who executes a successor liability 125539
agreement under section 5111.6815165.521 of the Revised Code, 125540
fail to request the adjudication on or before the deadline;125541

        (2) Thirty days after the completion of an adjudication of 125542
the final debt summary report if the exiting operator, or an 125543
affiliated operator who executes a successor liability agreement 125544
under section 5111.6815165.521 of the Revised Code, requests the 125545
adjudication on or before the deadline for requesting the 125546
adjudication.125547

       Sec. 5111.687.        Sec. 5165.527. The department of job and family 125548
servicesmedicaid, at its sole discretion, may release the amount 125549
withheld under division (A) of section 5111.6815165.521 of the 125550
Revised Code if the exiting operator submits to the department 125551
written notice of a postponement of a change of operator, facility 125552
closure, voluntary termination, or voluntary withdrawal of 125553
participation and the transactions leading to the change of 125554
operator, facility closure, voluntary termination, or voluntary 125555
withdrawal of participation are postponed for at least thirty days 125556
but less than ninety days after the date originally proposed for 125557
the change of operator, facility closure, voluntary termination,125558
or voluntary withdrawal of participation as reported in the 125559
written notice required by section 5111.665165.50 or 5111.67125560
5165.51 of the Revised Code. The department shall release the 125561
amount withheld if the exiting operator submits to the department 125562
written notice of a cancellation or postponement of a change of 125563
operator, facility closure, voluntary termination, or voluntary 125564
withdrawal of participation and the transactions leading to the 125565
change of operator, facility closure, voluntary termination, or 125566
voluntary withdrawal of participation are canceled or postponed 125567
for more than ninety days after the date originally proposed for 125568
the change of operator, facility closure, voluntary termination,125569
or voluntary withdrawal of participation as reported in the 125570
written notice required by section 5111.665165.50 or 5111.67125571
5165.51 of the Revised Code. A written notice shall be provided to 125572
the department in accordance with the method specified in rules 125573
adopted underauthorized by section 5111.6895165.53 of the 125574
Revised Code.125575

        After the department receives a written notice regarding a 125576
cancellation or postponement of a facility closure, voluntary 125577
termination, or voluntary withdrawal of participation, the exiting 125578
operator or owner shall provide new written notice to the 125579
department under section 5111.665165.50 of the Revised Code 125580
regarding any transactions leading to a facility closure, 125581
voluntary termination, or voluntary withdrawal of participation at 125582
a future time. After the department receives a written notice 125583
regarding a cancellation or postponement of a change of operator, 125584
the exiting operator or owner and entering operator shall provide 125585
new written notice to the department under section 5111.675165.51125586
of the Revised Code regarding any transactions leading to a change 125587
of operator at a future time.125588

       Sec. 5111.688.        Sec. 5165.528. (A) All amounts withheld under 125589
section 5111.6815165.521 of the Revised Code from payment due an 125590
exiting operator under the medicaid program shall be deposited 125591
into the medicaid payment withholding fund created by the 125592
controlling board pursuant to section 131.35 of the Revised Code. 125593
Money in the fund shall be used as follows:125594

       (1) To pay an exiting operator when a withholding is released 125595
to the exiting operator under section 5111.6865165.526 or 125596
5111.6875165.527 of the Revised Code;125597

       (2) To pay the department of job and family servicesmedicaid125598
and United States centers for medicare and medicaid services the 125599
amount an exiting operator owes the department and United States 125600
centers under the medicaid program.125601

       (B) Amounts paid from the medicaid payment withholding fund 125602
pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section shall be deposited 125603
into the appropriate department fund.125604

       Sec. 5111.689.        Sec. 5165.53.  The medicaid director of job and 125605
family services shall adopt rules under section 5111.025165.02 of 125606
the Revised Code to implement sections 5111.655165.50 to 5111.689125607
5165.53 of the Revised Code, including rules applicable to an 125608
exiting operator that provides written notification under section 125609
5111.665165.50 of the Revised Code of a voluntary withdrawal of 125610
participation. Rules adopted under this section shall comply with 125611
section 1919(c)(2)(F) of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 125612
(1965)section 1919(c)(2)(F), 42 U.S.C. 1396r(c)(2)(F), regarding 125613
restrictions on transfers or discharges of nursing facility 125614
residents in the case of a voluntary withdrawal of participation. 125615
The rules may prescribe a medicaid reimbursementpayment125616
methodology and other procedures that are applicable after the 125617
effective date of a voluntary withdrawal of participation that 125618
differ from the reimbursementpayment methodology and other 125619
procedures that would otherwise apply. The rules shall specify all 125620
of the following: 125621

       (A) The method by which written notices to the department 125622
required by sections 5111.655165.50 to 5111.6895165.53 of the 125623
Revised Code are to be provided;125624

       (B) The forms and documents that are to be provided to the 125625
department of medicaid under sections 5111.6715165.511 and 125626
5111.6725165.512 of the Revised Code, which shall include, in the 125627
case of such forms and documents provided by entering operators, 125628
all the fully executed leases, management agreements, merger 125629
agreements and supporting documents, and fully executed sales 125630
contracts and any other supporting documents culminating in the 125631
change of operator;125632

       (C) The method by which the forms and documents identified in 125633
division (B) of this section are to be provided to the department.125634

       Sec. 5111.35.        Sec. 5165.60.  As used in this section, "a resident's 125635
rights" means the rights of a nursing facility resident under 125636
sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code and subsection (c) 125637
of section 1819 or 1919 of, the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 125638
620 (1935)sections 1819(c) and 1919(c), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as 125639
amended1395i-3(c) and 1396r(c), and federal regulations issued 125640
under those subsectionssections of the "Social Security Act."125641

       As used in sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the 125642
Revised Code:125643

       (A) "Certification requirements" means the requirements for 125644
nursing facilities established under sections 1819 and 1919 of the 125645
"Social Security Act.," sections 1819 and 1919, 42 U.S.C. 1395i-3 125646
and 1396r.125647

       (B) "Compliance" means substantially meeting all applicable 125648
certification requirements.125649

       (C) "Contracting agency" means a state agency that has 125650
entered into a contract with the department of job and family 125651
servicesmedicaid under section 5111.385165.63 of the Revised 125652
Code.125653

       (D)(1) "Deficiency" means a finding cited by the department 125654
of health during a survey, on the basis of one or more actions, 125655
practices, situations, or incidents occurring at a nursing 125656
facility, that constitutes a severity level three finding, 125657
severity level four finding, scope level three finding, or scope 125658
level four finding. Whenever the finding is a repeat finding, 125659
"deficiency" also includes any finding that is a severity level 125660
two and scope level one finding, a severity level two and scope 125661
level two finding, or a severity level one and scope level two 125662
finding.125663

       (2) "Cluster of deficiencies" means deficiencies that result 125664
from noncompliance with two or more certification requirements and 125665
are causing or resulting from the same action, practice, 125666
situation, or incident.125667

       (E) "Emergency" means either of the following:125668

       (1) A deficiency or cluster of deficiencies that creates a 125669
condition of immediate jeopardy;125670

       (2) An unexpected situation or sudden occurrence of a serious 125671
or urgent nature that creates a substantial likelihood that one or 125672
more residents of a nursing facility may be seriously harmed if 125673
allowed to remain in the facility, including the following:125674

       (a) A flood or other natural disaster, civil disaster, or 125675
similar event;125676

       (b) A labor strike that suddenly causes the number of staff 125677
members in a nursing facility to be below that necessary for 125678
resident care.125679

       (F) "Finding" means a finding of noncompliance with 125680
certification requirements determined by the department of health 125681
under section 5111.415165.66 of the Revised Code.125682

       (G) "Immediate jeopardy" means that one or more residents of 125683
a nursing facility are in imminent danger of serious physical or 125684
life-threatening harm.125685

       (H) "Medicaid eligible resident" means a person who is a 125686
resident of a nursing facility, or is applying for admission to a 125687
nursing facility, and is eligible to receive financial assistance125688
for nursing facility services under the medical assistance125689
medicaid program for the care the person receives in such a 125690
facility.125691

       (I) "Noncompliance" means failure to substantially meet all 125692
applicable certification requirements.125693

       (J) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 125694
5111.20 of the Revised Codeincludes a skilled nursing facility to 125695
the extent the context requires.125696

       (K) "Provider" means a person, institution, or entity that 125697
furnishes nursing facility services under a medical assistance 125698
program provider agreement.125699

       (L) "Provider agreement" means a contract between the 125700
department of job and family services and a provider for the 125701
provision of nursing facility services under the medicaid program.125702

       (M) "Repeat finding" or "repeat deficiency" means a finding 125703
or deficiency cited pursuant to a survey, to which both of the 125704
following apply:125705

       (1) The finding or deficiency involves noncompliance with the 125706
same certification requirement, and the same kind of actions, 125707
practices, situations, or incidents caused by or resulting from 125708
the noncompliance, as were cited in the immediately preceding 125709
standard survey or another survey conducted subsequent to the 125710
immediately preceding standard survey of the facility. For 125711
purposes of this division, actions, practices, situations, or 125712
incidents may be of the same kind even though they involve 125713
different residents, staff, or parts of the facility.125714

       (2) The finding or deficiency is cited subsequent to a 125715
determination by the department of health that the finding or 125716
deficiency cited on the immediately preceding standard survey, or 125717
another survey conducted subsequent to the immediately preceding 125718
standard survey, had been corrected.125719

       (N)(L)(1) "Scope level one finding" means a finding of 125720
noncompliance by a nursing facility in which the actions, 125721
situations, practices, or incidents causing or resulting from the 125722
noncompliance affect one or a very limited number of facility 125723
residents and involve one or a very limited number of facility 125724
staff members.125725

       (2) "Scope level two finding" means a finding of 125726
noncompliance by a nursing facility in which the actions, 125727
situations, practices, or incidents causing or resulting from the 125728
noncompliance affect more than a limited number of facility 125729
residents or involve more than a limited number of facility staff 125730
members, but the number or percentage of facility residents 125731
affected or staff members involved and the number or frequency of 125732
the actions, situations, practices, or incidents in short 125733
succession does not establish any reasonable degree of 125734
predictability of similar actions, situations, practices, or 125735
incidents occurring in the future.125736

       (3) "Scope level three finding" means a finding of 125737
noncompliance by a nursing facility in which the actions, 125738
situations, practices, or incidents causing or resulting from the 125739
noncompliance affect more than a limited number of facility 125740
residents or involve more than a limited number of facility staff 125741
members, and the number or percentage of facility residents 125742
affected or staff members involved or the number or frequency of 125743
the actions, situations, practices, or incidents in short 125744
succession establishes a reasonable degree of predictability of 125745
similar actions, situations, practices, or incidents occurring in 125746
the future.125747

       (4) "Scope level four finding" means a finding of 125748
noncompliance by a nursing facility causing or resulting from 125749
actions, situations, practices, or incidents that involve a 125750
sufficient number or percentage of facility residents or staff 125751
members or occur with sufficient regularity over time that the 125752
noncompliance can be considered systemic or pervasive in the 125753
facility.125754

       (O)(M)(1) "Severity level one finding" means a finding of 125755
noncompliance by a nursing facility that has not caused and, if 125756
continued, is unlikely to cause physical harm to a facility 125757
resident, mental or emotional harm to a resident, or a violation 125758
of a resident's rights that results in physical, mental, or 125759
emotional harm to the resident.125760

       (2) "Severity level two finding" means a finding of 125761
noncompliance by a nursing facility that, if continued over time, 125762
will cause, or is likely to cause, physical harm to a facility 125763
resident, mental or emotional harm to a resident, or a violation 125764
of a resident's rights that results in physical, mental, or 125765
emotional harm to the resident.125766

       (3) "Severity level three finding" means a finding of 125767
noncompliance by a nursing facility that has caused physical harm 125768
to a facility resident, mental or emotional harm to a resident, or 125769
a violation of a resident's rights that results in physical, 125770
mental, or emotional harm to the resident.125771

       (4) "Severity level four finding" means a finding of 125772
noncompliance by a nursing facility that has caused 125773
life-threatening harm to a facility resident or caused a 125774
resident's death.125775

       (P)(N) "State agency" has the same meaning as in section 1.60 125776
of the Revised Code.125777

       (Q)(O) "Substandard care" means care furnished in a facility 125778
in which the department of health has cited a deficiency or 125779
deficiencies that constitute one of the following:125780

       (1) A severity level four finding, regardless of scope;125781

       (2) A severity level three and scope level four finding, in 125782
the quality of care provided to residents;125783

       (3) A severity level three and scope level three finding, in 125784
the quality of care provided to residents.125785

       (R)(P)(1) "Survey" means a survey of a nursing facility 125786
conducted under section 5111.395165.64 of the Revised Code.125787

       (2) "Standard survey" means a survey conducted by the 125788
department of health under division (A) of section 5111.395165.64125789
of the Revised Code and includes an extended survey.125790

       (3) "Follow-up survey" means a survey conducted by the 125791
department of health to determine whether a nursing facility has 125792
substantially corrected deficiencies cited in a previous survey.125793

       Sec. 5111.36.        Sec. 5165.61.  The medicaid director of job and 125794
family services may adopt rules under Chapter 119.section 5165.02125795
of the Revised Code that are consistent with regulations, 125796
guidelines, and procedures issued by the United States secretary 125797
of health and human services under sections 1819 and 1919 of the 125798
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935)sections 1819 and 1919, 125799
42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended1395i-3 and 1396r, and necessary for 125800
administration and enforcement of sections 5111.355165.60 to 125801
5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code. If the secretary does not 125802
issue appropriate regulations for enforcement of those sections 125803
1819 and 1919 of the "Social Security Act" on or before December 125804
13, 1990, the medicaid director of job and family services may 125805
adopt, under Chapter 119.section 5165.02 of the Revised Code, 125806
rules that are consistent with those sections and with sections 125807
5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code.125808

       Sec. 5111.37.        Sec. 5165.62.  The department of job and family 125809
servicesmedicaid is hereby authorized to enforce sections 125810
5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code. The 125811
department may enforce the sections directly or through 125812
contracting agencies. The department and agencies shall enforce 125813
the sections in accordance with the requirements of sections 1819 125814
and 1919 of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935)125815
sections 1819 and 1919, 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended1395i-3 and 125816
1396r, that apply to nursing facilities; with regulations, 125817
guidelines, and procedures adopted by the United States secretary 125818
of health and human services for the enforcement of those sections 125819
1819 and 1919 of the "Social Security Act"; and with the rules 125820
adopted underauthorized by section 5111.365165.61 of the Revised 125821
Code. The department and agencies shall enforce sections 5111.35125822
5165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code for purposes of the 125823
medicare program, Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," only 125824
to the extent prescribed by the regulations, guidelines, and 125825
procedures issued by the secretary under section 1819 of that act125826
the "Social Security Act," section 1819, 42 U.S.C. 1395i-3.125827

       Sec. 5111.38.        Sec. 5165.63.  The department of job and family 125828
servicesmedicaid may enter into contracts with other state 125829
agencies pursuant to section 5162.35 of the Revised Code that 125830
authorize the agencies to perform all or part of the duties 125831
assigned to the department of job and family servicesmedicaid125832
under sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised 125833
Code. Each contract shall specify the duties the agency is 125834
authorized to perform and the sections of the Revised Code under 125835
which the agency is authorized to perform those duties.125836

       Sec. 5111.39.        Sec. 5165.64.  (A) The department of health shall 125837
conduct a survey, titled a standard survey, of every nursing 125838
facility in this state on a statewide average of not more than 125839
once every twelve months. Each nursing facility shall undergo a 125840
standard survey at least once every fifteen months as a condition 125841
of meeting certification requirements. The department may extend a 125842
standard survey; such a survey is titled an extended survey.125843

       (B) The department may conduct surveys in addition to 125844
standard surveys when it considers them necessary.125845

       (C) The department shall conduct surveys in accordance with 125846
the regulations, guidelines, and procedures issued by the United 125847
States secretary of health and human services under TitlesTitle125848
XVIII and Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 125849
(1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, sections 5111.405165.65 to 125850
5111.425165.68 of the Revised Code, and rules adopted under 125851
section 3721.022 of the Revised Code.125852

       Sec. 5111.40.        Sec. 5165.65.  (A) At the conclusion of each survey, 125853
the department of health survey team shall conduct an exit 125854
interview with the administrator or other person in charge of the 125855
nursing facility and any other facility staff members designated 125856
by the administrator or person in charge of the facility. During 125857
the exit interview, at the request of the administrator or other 125858
person in charge of the facility, the survey team shall provide 125859
one of the following, as selected by the survey team:125860

       (1) Copies of all survey notes and any other written 125861
materials created during the survey;125862

       (2) A written summary of the survey team's recommendations 125863
regarding findings of noncompliance with certification 125864
requirements;125865

       (3) An audio or audiovisual recording of the interview. If 125866
the survey team selects this option, at least two copies of the 125867
recording shall be made and the survey team shall select one copy 125868
to be kept by the survey team for use by the department of health.125869

       (B) All expenses of copying under division (A)(1) of this 125870
section or recording under division (A)(3) of this section, 125871
including the cost of the copy of the recording kept by the survey 125872
team, shall be paid by the facility.125873

       Sec. 5111.41.        Sec. 5165.66.  (A) Except as provided in section 125874
3721.17 of the Revised Code, a finding shall be cited only on the 125875
basis of a survey and a determination that one or more actions, 125876
practices, situations, or incidents at a nursing facility caused 125877
or resulted from the facility's failure to comply with one or more 125878
certification requirements. The department of health shall 125879
determine whether the actions, practices, situations, or incidents 125880
can be justified by either of the following:125881

       (1) The actions, practices, situations, or incidents resulted 125882
from a resident exercising the resident's rights guaranteed under 125883
the laws of the United States or of this state;125884

       (2) The actions, practices, situations, or incidents resulted 125885
from a facility following the orders of a person licensed under 125886
Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine or surgery 125887
or osteopathic medicine and surgery.125888

       (B) If the department of health determines both that the 125889
actions, practices, situations, or incidents cannot be justified 125890
by the factors identified in division (A) of this section and that 125891
one or more of the following are applicable, the department shall 125892
declare that the actions, practices, situations, or incidents 125893
constitute a finding:125894

       (1) The actions, practices, situations, or incidents could 125895
have been prevented by one or more persons involved in the 125896
facility's operation;125897

       (2) No person involved in the facility's operation identified 125898
the actions, practices, situations, or incidents prior to the 125899
survey;125900

       (3) Prior to the survey, no person involved in the facility's 125901
operation initiated action to correct the noncompliance caused by 125902
or resulting in the actions, practices, situations, or incidents;125903

       (4) The facility does not have in effect, if needed, a 125904
contingency plan that is reasonably calculated to prevent 125905
physical, mental, or emotional harm to residents while permanent 125906
corrective action is being taken.125907

       (C) The department of health shall determine the severity 125908
level and scope level of each finding.125909

       (D) A deficiency that is substantially corrected within the 125910
time limits specified in sections 5111.525165.79 to 125911
5111.565165.83 of the Revised Code and for which no remedy is 125912
imposed, shall be counted as a deficiency for the purpose of 125913
determining whether a deficiency is a repeat deficiency.125914

       (E) Whenever the department of health determines that during 125915
the period between two surveys a finding existed at the facility, 125916
but the facility substantially corrected it prior to the second 125917
survey, the department shall cite it. However, the department of 125918
job and family servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency shall 125919
impose a remedy only as provided in division (C) of section 125920
5111.465165.72 of the Revised Code.125921

       (F) Immediately upon determining the severity and scope of a 125922
finding at a nursing facility, the department of health shall 125923
notify the department of job and family servicesmedicaid and any 125924
contracting agency of the finding, the severity and scope of the 125925
finding, and whether the finding creates immediate jeopardy. 125926
Immediately upon determining that an emergency exists at a 125927
facility that does not result from a deficiency that creates 125928
immediate jeopardy, the department of health shall notify the 125929
department of job and family servicesmedicaid and any contracting 125930
agency.125931

       Sec. 5111.411.        Sec. 5165.67.  The results of a survey of a nursing 125932
facility that is conducted under section 5111.395165.64 of the 125933
Revised Code, including any statement of deficiencies and all 125934
findings and deficiencies cited in the statement on the basis of 125935
the survey, shall be used solely to determine the nursing 125936
facility's compliance with certification requirements or with this 125937
chapter or another chapter of the Revised Code. Those results of a 125938
survey, that statement of deficiencies, and the findings and 125939
deficiencies cited in that statement shall not be used in any 125940
court or in any action or proceeding that is pending in any court 125941
and are not admissible in evidence in any action or proceeding 125942
unless that action or proceeding is an appeal of an administrative 125943
action by the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 125944
contracting agency under this chapter or is an action by any 125945
department or agency of the state to enforce this chapter or 125946
another chapter of the Revised Code.125947

       Nothing in this section prohibits the results of a survey, a 125948
statement of deficiencies, or the findings and deficiencies cited 125949
in that statement on the basis of the survey under this section 125950
from being used in a criminal investigation or prosecution.125951

       Sec. 5111.42.        Sec. 5165.68.  (A) Not later than ten days after an 125952
exit interview, the department of health shall deliver to the 125953
nursing facility a detailed statement, titled a statement of 125954
deficiencies, setting forth all findings and deficiencies cited on 125955
the basis of the survey, including any finding cited pursuant to 125956
division (E) of section 5111.415165.66 of the Revised Code. The 125957
statement shall indicate the severity and scope level of each 125958
finding and fully describe the incidents or other facts that form 125959
the basis of the department's determination of the existence of 125960
each finding and deficiency. A failure by the survey team to 125961
completely disclose in the exit interview every finding that may 125962
result from the survey does not affect the validity of any finding 125963
or deficiency cited in the statement of deficiencies. On request 125964
of the facility, the department shall provide a copy of any 125965
written worksheet or other document produced by the survey team in 125966
making recommendations regarding scope and severity levels of 125967
findings and deficiencies.125968

       (B) At the same time the department of health delivers a 125969
statement of deficiencies, it also shall deliver to the facility a 125970
separate written notice that states all of the following:125971

       (1) That the department of job and family servicesmedicaid125972
or a contracting agency will issue an order under section 5111.57125973
5165.84 of the Revised Code denying payment for any medicaid 125974
eligible residents admitted on and after the effective date of the 125975
order if the facility does not substantially correct, within 125976
ninety days after the exit interview, the deficiency or 125977
deficiencies cited in the statement of deficiencies in accordance 125978
with the plan of correction it submitted under section 5111.43125979
5165.69 of the Revised Code;125980

       (2) If a condition of substandard care has been cited on the 125981
basis of a standard survey and a condition of substandard care was 125982
also cited on the immediately preceding standard survey, that the 125983
department of job and family servicesmedicaid or a contracting 125984
agency will issue an order under section 5111.575165.84 of the 125985
Revised Code denying payment for any medicaid eligible residents 125986
admitted on and after the effective date of the order if a 125987
condition of substandard care is cited on the basis of the next 125988
standard survey;125989

       (3) That the department of job and family servicesmedicaid125990
or a contracting agency will issue an order under section 5111.58125991
5165.88 of the Revised Code terminating the facility's 125992
participation in the medical assistancemedicaid program if either 125993
of the following applies:125994

       (a) The facility does not substantially correct the 125995
deficiency or deficiencies in accordance with the plan of 125996
correction it submitted under section 5111.435165.69 of the 125997
Revised Code within six months after the exit interview.125998

       (b) The facility substantially corrects the deficiency or 125999
deficiencies within the six-month period, but after correcting it, 126000
the department of health, based on a follow-up survey conducted 126001
during the remainder of the six-month period, determines that the 126002
facility has failed to maintain compliance with certification 126003
requirements.126004

       Sec. 5111.43.        Sec. 5165.69. (A) Whenever a nursing facility 126005
receives a statement of deficiencies under section 5111.425165.68126006
of the Revised Code, the facility shall submit to the department 126007
of health for its approval a plan of correction for each finding 126008
cited in the statement. The plan shall describeinclude all of the 126009
following:126010

       (1) Detailed descriptions of the actions the facility will 126011
take to correct each finding and specify the date by which each 126012
finding will be corrected. In;126013

       (2) In the case of a finding cited pursuant to division (E) 126014
of section 5111.415165.66 of the Revised Code, the plan shall 126015
describea description of the actions the facility took to correct 126016
the finding and the date on which it was corrected;126017

       (3) Beginning one year after the effective date of the first 126018
federal regulation promulgated under the "Social Security Act," 126019
section 1128l(c), 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7j(c), regarding the quality 126020
assurance and performance improvement program and in the case of a 126021
finding assigned a severity level indicating that a resident was 126022
harmed or immediate jeopardy exists, an explanation of how the 126023
actions described in the components of the plan required by 126024
divisions (A)(1) and (2) of this section are part of the 126025
facility's actions to meet the standards and implement the best 126026
practices established under the quality assurance and performance 126027
improvement program.126028

       (B)(1) The department shall approve any plan, and any 126029
modification of an existing plan a nursing facility submits to the 126030
department, that conformsdoes both of the following:126031

       (a) Conforms to the requirements for approval of plans of 126032
corrections, and modifications, established in the regulations, 126033
guidelines, and procedures issued by the United States secretary 126034
of health and human services under TitlesTitle XVIII and Title126035
XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 126036
301, as amended;126037

       (b) Includes all the information required by division (A) of 126038
this section. The department also shall approve any modification 126039
of an existing plan submitted by a facility, if the plan as 126040
modified conforms to those regulations, guidelines, and 126041
procedures. The126042

       (2) The department shall not reject a facility's plan of 126043
correction or modification on the ground that the facility 126044
disputes the finding, if the plan or modification is reasonably 126045
calculated to correct the finding.126046

       (C) A facility that complies with this section shall not be 126047
considered to have admitted the existence of a finding cited by 126048
the department.126049

       Sec. 5111.44.        Sec. 5165.70.  The department of health may appoint 126050
employees of the department to conduct on-site monitoring of a 126051
nursing facility whenever a finding is cited, including any 126052
finding cited pursuant to division (E) of section 5111.415165.66126053
of the Revised Code, or an emergency is found to exist. 126054
Appointment of monitors under this section is not subject to 126055
appeal under section 5111.605165.87 or any other section of the 126056
Revised Code. No employee of a facility for which monitors are 126057
appointed, no person employed by the facility within the previous 126058
two years, and no person who currently has a consulting or other 126059
contract with the department or the facility, shall be appointed 126060
as a monitor under this section. Every monitor appointed under 126061
this section shall have the professional qualifications necessary 126062
to monitor correction of the finding or elimination of the 126063
emergency.126064

       Sec. 5111.45.        Sec. 5165.71.  (A) If the department of health cites 126065
a deficiency or deficiencies that was not substantially corrected 126066
before a survey and that does not constitute a severity level four 126067
finding or create immediate jeopardy, the department of job and 126068
family servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency shall permit the 126069
nursing facility to continue participating in the medical 126070
assistancemedicaid program for up to six months after the exit 126071
interview, if all of the following apply:126072

       (1) The facility meets the requirements, established in 126073
regulations issued by the United States secretary of health and 126074
human services under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 126075
Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, for certification 126076
of nursing facilities that have a deficiency.126077

       (2) The department of health has approved a plan of 126078
correction submitted by the facility under section 5111.435165.69126079
of the Revised Code for each deficiency.126080

       (3) The provider agrees to repay the department of job and 126081
family servicesmedicaid, in accordance with section 5111.58126082
5165.85 of the Revised Code, the federal share of all payments 126083
made by the department to the facility during the six-month period 126084
following the exit interview if the facility does not within the 126085
six-month period substantially correct the deficiency or 126086
deficiencies in accordance with the plan of correction submitted 126087
under section 5111.435165.69 of the Revised Code.126088

       (B) If any of the conditions in divisions (A)(1) to (3) of 126089
this section do not apply, the department of job and family 126090
servicesmedicaid or contracting agency shall issue an order 126091
terminating the facility's participation in the medical assistance126092
medicaid program. An order issued under this division is subject 126093
to appeal under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. The order shall 126094
not take effect prior to the later of the thirtieth day after it 126095
is delivered to the facility or, if the order is appealed, the 126096
date on which a final adjudication order upholding the termination 126097
becomes effective pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.126098

       (C) At the time the department of job and family services126099
medicaid or contracting agency issues an order under division (B) 126100
of this section terminating a nursing facility's participation in 126101
the medical assistancemedicaid program, it may also impose, 126102
subject to section 5111.505165.76 of the Revised Code, other 126103
remedies under sections 5111.465165.72 to 5111.485165.74 of the 126104
Revised Code.126105

       Sec. 5111.46.        Sec. 5165.72.  (A) If the department of health cites 126106
a deficiency, or cluster of deficiencies, that was not 126107
substantially corrected before a survey and constitutes a severity 126108
level four finding, the department of job and family services126109
medicaid or contracting agency shall, subject to sections 5111.52126110
5165.79 to 5111.565165.83 of the Revised Code, impose a remedy 126111
for the deficiency or cluster of deficiencies. The department or 126112
agency may act under either division (A)(1) or (2) of this 126113
section:126114

       (1) The department or agency may impose one or more of the 126115
following remedies:126116

       (a) Issue an order terminating the nursing facility's 126117
participation in the medical assistancemedicaid program.126118

       (b) Do either of the following:126119

       (i) Regardless of whether the provider consents, appoint a 126120
temporary manager of the facility.126121

       (ii) Apply to the common pleas court of the county in which 126122
the facility is located for such injunctive or other equitable 126123
relief as is necessary for the appointment of a special master 126124
with such powers and authority over the facility and length of 126125
appointment as the court considers necessary.126126

       (c) Do either of the following:126127

       (i) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 126128
facility under the medical assistance program for all medicaid 126129
eligible residents admitted after the effective date of the order;126130

       (ii) Impose a fine.126131

       (d) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 126132
facility under the medical assistance program for medicaid 126133
eligible residents admitted after the effective date of the order 126134
who have certain diagnoses or special care needs specified by the 126135
department or agency.126136

       (2) The department or agency may impose one or more of the 126137
following remedies:126138

       (a) Appoint, subject to the continuing consent of the 126139
provider, a temporary manager of the facility;126140

       (b) Do either of the following:126141

       (i) Regardless of whether the provider consents, appoint a 126142
temporary manager of the facility;126143

       (ii) Apply to the common pleas court of the county in which 126144
the facility is located for such injunctive or other equitable 126145
relief as is necessary for the appointment of a special master 126146
with such powers and authority over the facility and length of 126147
appointment as the court considers necessary.126148

       (c) Do either of the following:126149

       (i) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 126150
facility under the medical assistance program for all medicaid 126151
eligible residents admitted after the effective date of the order;126152

       (ii) Impose a fine.126153

       (d) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 126154
facility under the medical assistance program for medicaid 126155
eligible residents admitted after the effective date of the order 126156
who have certain diagnoses or special care needs specified by the 126157
department or agency;126158

       (e) Issue an order requiring the facility to correct the 126159
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies under the plan of correction 126160
submitted by the facility and approved by the department of health 126161
under section 5111.435165.69 of the Revised Code.126162

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 126163
contracting agency shall deliver a written order issued under 126164
division (A)(1) of this section terminating a nursing facility's 126165
participation in the medical assistancemedicaid program to the 126166
facility within five days after the exit interview. If the 126167
facility alleges, at any time prior to the later of the twentieth 126168
day after the exit interview or the fifteenth day after it 126169
receives the order, that the deficiency or cluster of deficiencies 126170
for which the order was issued has been substantially corrected, 126171
the department of health shall conduct a follow-up survey to 126172
determine whether the deficiency or cluster of deficiencies has 126173
been substantially corrected. The order shall take effect and the 126174
facility's participation shall terminate on the twentieth day 126175
after the exit interview, unless the facility has substantially 126176
corrected the deficiency or cluster of deficiencies that 126177
constituted a severity level four finding or did not receive 126178
notice from the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 126179
contracting agency within five days after the exit interview. In 126180
the latter case, the order shall take effect and the facility's 126181
participation shall terminate on the fifteenth day after the 126182
facility received the order.126183

       (C) If the department of health cites a deficiency or cluster 126184
of deficiencies pursuant to division (E) of section 5111.41126185
5165.66 of the Revised Code that constituted a severity level four 126186
finding, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or a 126187
contracting agency shall, subject to section 5111.565165.83 of 126188
the Revised Code, impose a fine. The fine shall be in effect for a 126189
period equal to the number of days the deficiency or cluster of 126190
deficiencies existed at the facility.126191

       Sec. 5111.47.        Sec. 5165.73.  If the department of health cites a 126192
deficiency, or cluster of deficiencies, that was not substantially 126193
corrected before a survey and constitutes a severity level three 126194
and scope level three or four finding, the department of job and 126195
family servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency may, subject to 126196
sections 5111.555165.82 and 5111.565165.83 of the Revised Code, 126197
impose one or more of the following remedies:126198

       (A) Do either of the following:126199

       (1) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 126200
facility under the medical assistance program for all medicaid 126201
eligible residents admitted after the effective date of the order;126202

       (2) Impose a fine.126203

       (B) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 126204
facility under the medical assistance program for medicaid 126205
eligible residents admitted after the effective date of the order 126206
who have certain diagnoses or special care needs specified by the 126207
department or agency;126208

       (C) Issue an order requiring the facility to correct the 126209
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies under the plan of correction 126210
submitted by the facility and approved by the department of health 126211
under section 5111.435165.69 of the Revised Code.126212

       Sec. 5111.48.        Sec. 5165.74.  (A) If the department of health cites 126213
a deficiency, or cluster of deficiencies, that was not 126214
substantially corrected before a survey and constitutes a severity 126215
level three and scope level two finding, the department of job and 126216
family servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency may, subject to 126217
sections 5111.555165.82 and 5111.565165.83 of the Revised Code, 126218
impose one or more of the following remedies:126219

       (1) Do either of the following:126220

       (a) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 126221
facility under the medical assistance program for all medicaid 126222
eligible residents admitted after the effective date of the order;126223

       (b) Impose a fine.126224

       (2) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 126225
facility under the medical assistance program for medicaid 126226
eligible residents admitted after the effective date of the order 126227
who have certain diagnoses or special care needs specified by the 126228
department or agency;126229

       (3) Issue an order requiring the facility to correct the 126230
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies under the plan of correction 126231
proposed by the facility and approved by the department of health 126232
under section 5111.435165.69 of the Revised Code.126233

       (B) If the department of health cites a deficiency, or 126234
cluster of deficiencies, that was not substantially corrected 126235
before a survey and constitutes a severity level three and scope 126236
level one finding, the department of job and family services126237
medicaid or a contracting agency may, subject to sections 5111.55126238
5165.82 and 5111.565165.83 of the Revised Code, impose one or 126239
more of the following remedies:126240

       (1) Impose a fine;126241

       (2) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 126242
facility under the medical assistance program for medicaid 126243
eligible residents admitted after the effective date of the order 126244
who have certain diagnoses or special care needs specified by the 126245
department or agency;126246

       (3) Issue an order requiring the facility to correct the 126247
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies under the plan of correction 126248
proposed by the facility and approved by the department of health 126249
under section 5111.435165.69 of the Revised Code.126250

       (C) If the department of health cites a deficiency, or 126251
cluster of deficiencies, that was not substantially corrected 126252
before a survey and constitutes a severity level two and a scope 126253
level three or four finding, the department of job and family 126254
servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency may, subject to sections 126255
5111.555165.82 and 5111.565165.83 of the Revised Code, impose 126256
one or more of the following remedies:126257

       (1) Impose a fine;126258

       (2) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 126259
facility under the medical assistance program for medicaid 126260
eligible residents admitted after the effective date of the order 126261
who have certain diagnoses or special care needs specified by the 126262
department or agency;126263

       (3) Issue an order requiring the facility to correct the 126264
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies under the plan of correction 126265
submitted by the facility and approved by the department of health 126266
under section 5111.435165.69 of the Revised Code.126267

       (D) If the department of health cites a deficiency, or 126268
cluster of deficiencies, that was not substantially corrected 126269
before a survey, constitutes a severity level two and scope level 126270
one or two finding, and is a repeat finding, the department of job 126271
and family servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency may issue an 126272
order requiring the facility to correct the deficiency or cluster 126273
of deficiencies under the plan of correction submitted by the 126274
facility and approved by the department of health under section 126275
5111.435165.69 of the Revised Code.126276

       (E) If the department of health cites a deficiency, or 126277
cluster of deficiencies, that was not substantially corrected 126278
before a survey and constitutes a severity level one and scope 126279
level three or four finding, the department of job and family 126280
servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency may issue an order 126281
requiring the facility to correct the deficiency or cluster of 126282
deficiencies under the plan of correction submitted by the 126283
facility and approved by the department of health under section 126284
5111.435165.69 of the Revised Code.126285

       (F) If the department of health cites a deficiency, or 126286
cluster of deficiencies, that was not substantially corrected 126287
before a survey, constitutes a severity level one and scope level 126288
two finding, and is a repeat finding, the department of job and 126289
family servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency may issue an 126290
order requiring the facility to correct the deficiency or cluster 126291
of deficiencies under the plan of correction submitted by the 126292
facility and approved by the department of health under section 126293
5111.435165.69 of the Revised Code.126294

       Sec. 5111.49.        Sec. 5165.75.  (A) In determining which remedies to 126295
impose under section 5111.465165.72, 5111.475165.73, or 5111.48126296
5165.74 of the Revised Code, including whether a fine should be 126297
imposed, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or a 126298
contracting agency shall do both of the following:126299

       (1) Impose the remedies that are most likely to achieve 126300
correction of deficiencies, encourage sustained compliance with 126301
certification requirements, and protect the health, safety, and 126302
rights of facility residents, but that are not directed at 126303
punishment of the facility;126304

       (2) Consider all of the following:126305

       (a) The presence or absence of immediate jeopardy;126306

       (b) The relationships of groups of deficiencies to each 126307
other;126308

       (c) The facility's history of compliance with certification 126309
requirements generally and in the specific area of the deficiency 126310
or deficiencies;126311

       (d) Whether the deficiency or deficiencies are directly 126312
related to resident care;126313

       (e) The corrective, long-term compliance, resident 126314
protective, and nonpunitive outcomes sought by the department or 126315
agency;126316

       (f) The nature, scope, and duration of the noncompliance with 126317
certification requirements;126318

       (g) The existence of repeat deficiencies;126319

       (h) The category of certification requirements with which the 126320
facility is out of compliance;126321

       (i) Any period of noncompliance with certification 126322
requirements that occurred between two certifications by the 126323
department of health that the facility was in compliance with 126324
certification requirements;126325

       (j) The facility's degree of culpability;126326

       (k) The accuracy, extent, and availability of facility 126327
records;126328

       (l) The facility's financial condition, exclusive of any 126329
moneys donated to a facility that is an organization described in 126330
subsection 501(c)(3) and is tax exempt under subsection 501(a) of 126331
the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 126332
1;126333

       (m) Any adverse effect that the action or fine would have on 126334
the health and safety of facility residents;126335

       (n) If the noncompliance that resulted in the citation of a 126336
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies existed before a change in 126337
ownership of the facility, whether the new owner or owners have 126338
had sufficient time to correct the noncompliance.126339

       (B) Whenever the department or agency imposes remedies under 126340
section 5111.465165.72, 5111.475165.73, or 5111.485165.74 of 126341
the Revised Code, it shall provide a written statement to the 126342
nursing facility that specifies all of the following:126343

       (1) The effective date of each remedy;126344

       (2) The deficiency or cluster of deficiencies for which each 126345
remedy is imposed;126346

       (3) The severity and scope of the deficiency or cluster of 126347
deficiencies;126348

       (4) The rationale, including all applicable factors specified 126349
in division (A) of this section, for imposing the remedies.126350

       Sec. 5111.50.        Sec. 5165.76.  At the time the department of job and 126351
family servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency, under section 126352
5111.455165.71, 5111.465165.72, or 5111.515165.77 of the 126353
Revised Code, issues an order terminating a nursing facility's 126354
participation in the medical assistancemedicaid program, the 126355
department or agency may also impose a fine, in accordance with 126356
sections 5111.465165.72 to 5111.485165.74 and 5111.565165.83 of 126357
the Revised Code, to be collected in the event the termination 126358
order does not take effect. The department or agency shall not 126359
collect this fine if the termination order takes effect.126360

       Sec. 5111.51.        Sec. 5165.77.  (A) If the department of health finds 126361
during a survey that an emergency exists at a nursing facility, as 126362
the result of a deficiency or cluster of deficiencies that creates 126363
immediate jeopardy, the department of job and family services126364
medicaid or a contracting agency shall impose one or more of the 126365
remedies described in division (A)(1) of this section and, in 126366
addition, may take one or both of the actions described in 126367
division (A)(2) of this section.126368

       (1) The department or agency shall impose one or more of the 126369
following remedies:126370

       (a) Appoint, subject to the continuing consent of the 126371
provider, a temporary manager of the facility;126372

       (b) Apply to the common pleas court of the county in which 126373
the facility is located for a temporary restraining order, 126374
preliminary injunction, or such other injunctive or equitable 126375
relief as is necessary to close the facility, transfer one or more 126376
residents to other nursing facilities or other appropriate care 126377
settings, or otherwise eliminate the condition of immediate 126378
jeopardy. If the court grants such an order, injunction, or 126379
relief, it may appoint a special master empowered to implement the 126380
court's judgment under the court's direct supervision.126381

       (c) Issue an order terminating the facility's participation 126382
in the medical assistancemedicaid program;126383

       (d) Regardless of whether the provider consents, appoint a 126384
temporary manager of the facility.126385

       (2) The department or agency may do one or both of the 126386
following:126387

       (a) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 126388
facility for all medicaid eligible residents admitted after the 126389
effective date of the order;126390

       (b) Impose remedies under sections 5111.465165.72 to 5111.48126391
5165.74 of the Revised Code appropriate to the severity and scope 126392
of the deficiency or cluster of deficiencies, except that the 126393
department or agency shall not impose a fine for the same 126394
deficiency for which the department or agency has issued an order 126395
under division (A)(2)(a) of this section.126396

       (B) If the department of health, department of job and family 126397
servicesmedicaid, or a contracting agency finds on the basis of a 126398
survey or other visit to the facility by representatives of that 126399
department or agency that an emergency exists at a facility that 126400
is not the result of a deficiency or cluster of deficiencies that 126401
constitutes immediate jeopardy, the department of job and family 126402
servicesmedicaid or contracting agency may do either of the 126403
following:126404

       (1) Appoint, subject to the continuing consent of the 126405
provider, a temporary manager of the facility;126406

       (2) Apply to the common pleas court of the county in which 126407
the facility is located for a temporary restraining order, 126408
preliminary injunction, or such other injunctive or equitable 126409
relief as is necessary to close the facility, transfer one or more 126410
residents to other nursing facilities or other appropriate care 126411
settings, or otherwise eliminate the emergency. If the court 126412
grants such an order, injunction, or relief, it may appoint a 126413
special master empowered to implement the court's judgment under 126414
the court's direct supervision.126415

       (C)(1) Prior to acting under division (A)(1)(b), (c), (d), or 126416
(2), or (B)(2) of this section, the department of job and family 126417
servicesmedicaid or contracting agency shall give written notice 126418
to the facility specifying all of the following:126419

       (a) The nature of the emergency, including the nature of any 126420
deficiency or deficiencies that caused the emergency;126421

       (b) The nature of the action the department or agency intends 126422
to take unless the department of health determines that the 126423
facility, in the absence of state intervention, possesses the 126424
capacity to eliminate the emergency;126425

       (c) The rationale for taking the action.126426

       (2) If the department of health determines that the facility 126427
does not possess the capacity to eliminate the emergency in the 126428
absence of state intervention, the department of job and family 126429
servicesmedicaid or contracting agency may immediately take 126430
action under division (A) or (B) of this section. If the 126431
department of health determines that the facility possesses the 126432
capacity to eliminate the emergency, the department of job and 126433
family servicesmedicaid or contracting agency shall direct the 126434
facility to eliminate the emergency within five days after the 126435
facility's receipt of the notice. At the end of the five-day 126436
period, the department of health shall conduct a follow-up survey 126437
that focuses on the emergency. If the department of health 126438
determines that the facility has eliminated the emergency within 126439
the time period, the department of job and family services126440
medicaid or contracting agency shall not act under division 126441
(A)(1)(b), (c), (d), or (2)(a), or (B)(2) of this section. If the 126442
department of health determines that the facility has failed to 126443
eliminate the emergency within the five-day period, the department 126444
of job and family servicesmedicaid or contracting agency shall 126445
take appropriate action under division (A)(1)(b), (c), (d), or 126446
(2), or (B)(2) of this section.126447

       (3) Until the written notice required by division (C)(1) of 126448
this section is actually delivered, no action taken by the 126449
department of job and family servicesmedicaid or contracting 126450
agency under division (A)(1)(b), (c), (d), or (2), or (B)(2) of 126451
this section shall have any legal effect. In addition to the 126452
written notice, the department of health survey team shall give 126453
oral notice to the facility, at the time of the survey, concerning 126454
any recommendations the survey team intends to make that could 126455
form the basis of a determination that an emergency exists.126456

       (D) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 126457
contracting agency shall deliver a written order issued under 126458
division (A)(1) of this section terminating a nursing facility's 126459
participation in the medical assistancemedicaid program to the 126460
facility within five days after the exit interview. If the 126461
facility alleges, at any time prior to the later of the twentieth 126462
day after the exit interview or the fifteenth day after it 126463
receives the order, that the condition of immediate jeopardy for 126464
which the order was issued has been eliminated, the department of 126465
health shall conduct a follow-up survey to determine whether the 126466
immediate jeopardy has been eliminated. The order shall take 126467
effect and the facility's participation shall terminate on the 126468
twentieth day after the exit interview, unless the facility has 126469
eliminated the immediate jeopardy or did not receive notice from 126470
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or contracting 126471
agency within five days after the exit interview. In the latter 126472
case, the order shall take effect and the facility's participation 126473
shall terminate on the fifteenth day after the facility received 126474
the order.126475

       (E) Any action taken by the department of job and family 126476
servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency under division 126477
(A)(1)(c), (d), or (2)(a) of this section is subject to appeal 126478
under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, except that the department 126479
or agency may take such action prior to and during the pendency of 126480
any proceeding under that chapter. No action taken by a facility 126481
under division (C) of this section to eliminate an emergency cited 126482
by the department of health shall be considered an admission by 126483
the facility of the existence of an emergency.126484

       Sec. 5165.771.  (A) As used in this section:126485

       "SFF list" means the list of nursing facilities that the 126486
United States department of health and human services creates 126487
under the special focus facility program. 126488

       "Special focus facility program" means the program conducted 126489
by the United States secretary of health and human services 126490
pursuant to the "Social Security Act," section 1919(f)(10), 42 126491
U.S.C. 1396r(f)(10).126492

       "Table A" means the table included in the SFF list that 126493
identifies nursing facilities that are newly added to the SFF 126494
list.126495

       "Table B" means the table included in the SFF list that 126496
identifies nursing facilities that have not improved.126497

       "Table C" means the table included in the SFF list that 126498
identifies nursing facilities that have shown improvement.126499

       "Table D" means the table included in the SFF list that 126500
identifies nursing facilities that have recently graduated from 126501
the special focus facility program.126502

       (B) The department of medicaid may issue an order terminating 126503
a nursing facility's participation in the medicaid program if any 126504
of the following apply:126505

       (1) The nursing facility is listed in table A or table B on 126506
the effective date of this section and fails to be placed in table 126507
C not later than eighteen months after the effective date of this 126508
section;126509

       (2) The nursing facility is listed in table A, table B, or 126510
table C on the effective date of this section and fails to be 126511
placed in table D not later than thirty months after the effective 126512
date of this section;126513

       (3) The nursing facility is placed in table A after the 126514
effective date of this section and fails to be placed in table C 126515
not later than eighteen months after the nursing facility is 126516
placed in table A;126517

       (4) The nursing facility is placed in table A after the 126518
effective date of this section and fails to be placed in table D 126519
not later than thirty months after the nursing facility is placed 126520
in table A.126521

       (C) An order issued under this section is subject to appeal 126522
under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.126523

       Sec. 5111.511.        Sec. 5165.78.  (A) If the department of job and 126524
family servicesmedicaid determines that a nursing facility is 126525
experiencing or is likely to experience a serious financial loss 126526
or failure that jeopardizes or is likely to jeopardize the health, 126527
safety, and welfare of its residents, the department, subject to 126528
the provider's consent, may appoint a temporary resident safety 126529
assurance manager in the nursing facility to take actions the 126530
department determines are appropriate to ensure the health, 126531
safety, and welfare of the residents.126532

       (B) A temporary resident safety assurance manager appointed 126533
under this section is vested with the authority necessary to take 126534
actions the department of job and family servicesmedicaid126535
determines are appropriate to ensure the health, safety, and 126536
welfare of the residents.126537

       (C) A temporary resident safety assurance manager appointed 126538
under this section may use any of the following funds to pay for 126539
costs the manager incurs on behalf of the nursing facility:126540

       (1) Medicaid payments made in accordance with the provider 126541
agreement for the nursing facility;126542

       (2) Funds from the residents protection fund that the 126543
department provides the manager under section 5111.625162.66 of 126544
the Revised Code;126545

       (3) Other funds the department determines are appropriate if 126546
such use of the funds is consistent with the appropriations that 126547
authorize the use of the funds and all other state and federal 126548
laws governing the use of the funds.126549

       (D) The provider is liable to the department for the amount 126550
of any payments the department makes to the temporary resident 126551
safety assurance manager, other than payments specified in 126552
division (C)(1) of this section. The department may recover the 126553
amount the provider owes the department by doing any of the 126554
following:126555

       (1) Offsetting medicaid payments made to the provider in 126556
accordance with the provider agreement;126557

       (2) Placing a lien on any of the provider's real and personal 126558
property;126559

       (3) Initiating other collection actions.126560

       (E) No action the department takes under this section is 126561
subject to appeal under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.126562

       (F) In rules adopted underauthorized by section 5111.36126563
5165.61 of the Revised Code, the medicaid director of job and 126564
family services may establish all of the following:126565

       (1) Qualifications persons must meet to be appointed 126566
temporary resident safety assurance managers under this section;126567

       (2) Procedures for maintaining a list of qualified temporary 126568
resident safety assurance managers;126569

       (3) Procedures consistent with federal law for paying for the 126570
services of temporary resident safety assurance managers;126571

       (4) Accounting and reporting requirements for temporary 126572
resident safety assurance managers;126573

       (5) Other procedures and requirements the director determines 126574
are necessary to implement this section.126575

       Sec. 5111.52.        Sec. 5165.79.  (A) As used in this section, 126576
"terminating" includes not renewing.126577

       (B) A nursing facility's participation in the medical 126578
assistancemedicaid program shall be terminated under sections 126579
5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code as 126580
follows:126581

       (1) If the department of job and family servicesmedicaid is 126582
terminating the facility's participation, it shall issue an order 126583
terminating the facility's provider agreement.126584

       (2) If the department of health, acting as a contracting 126585
agency, is terminating the facility's participation, it shall 126586
issue an order terminating certification of the facility's 126587
compliance with certification requirements. When the department of 126588
health terminates certification, the department of job and family 126589
servicesmedicaid shall terminate the facility's provider 126590
agreement. The department of job and family servicesmedicaid is 126591
not required to provide an adjudication hearing when it terminates 126592
a provider agreement following termination of certification by the 126593
department of health.126594

       (3) If a state agency other than the department of health, 126595
acting as a contracting agency, is terminating the facility's 126596
participation, it shall notify the department of job and family 126597
servicesmedicaid, and the department of job and family services126598
medicaid shall issue an order terminating the facility's provider 126599
agreement. The contracting agency shall conduct any administrative 126600
proceedings concerning the order.126601

       (C) If the following conditions are met, the department of 126602
job and family servicesmedicaid may make medical assistance126603
medicaid payments to a nursing facility for a period not exceeding 126604
thirty days after the effective date of termination under sections 126605
5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code of the 126606
facility's participation in the medical assistancemedicaid126607
program:126608

       (1) The payments are for medicaid eligible residents admitted 126609
to the facility prior to the effective date of the termination;126610

       (2) The provider is making reasonable efforts to transfer 126611
medicaid eligible residents to other care settings.126612

       The period during which payments may be made under this 126613
division begins on the later of the effective date of the 126614
termination or, if the facility has appealed a termination order, 126615
the date of issuance of the adjudication order upholding 126616
termination.126617

       Sec. 5111.53.        Sec. 5165.80.  (A) Whenever a nursing facility is 126618
closed under sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the 126619
Revised Code, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid126620
or contracting agency shall arrange for the safe and orderly 126621
transfer of all residents, including residents who are not 126622
medicaid eligible residents, to other appropriate care settings. 126623
Whenever a nursing facility's participation in the medical 126624
assistancemedicaid program is terminated under sections 5111.35126625
5165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code, the department or 126626
agency shall arrange for the safe and orderly transfer of all 126627
medicaid eligible residents or, if the termination results in the 126628
closure of the facility, of all residents. The provider and all 126629
persons involved in the facility's operation shall cooperate with 126630
and assist in the transfer of residents.126631

       (B) After a nursing facility's participation in the medical 126632
assistancemedicaid program is terminated under section 5111.45126633
5165.71, 5111.465165.72, 5111.515165.77, 5165.771, or 5111.58126634
5165.85 of the Revised Code, the department of job and family 126635
servicesmedicaid or contracting agency may appoint a temporary 126636
manager subject to the continuing consent of the provider, or may 126637
apply to the common pleas court of the county in which the 126638
facility is located for such injunctive relief as is necessary for 126639
the appointment of a special master, to ensure the transfer of 126640
medicaid eligible residents to other appropriate care settings 126641
and, if applicable, the orderly closure of the facility.126642

       Sec. 5111.54.        Sec. 5165.81.  (A) A temporary manager of a nursing 126643
facility appointed by the department of job and family services126644
medicaid or a contracting agency under sections 5111.355165.60 to 126645
5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code shall meet all of the 126646
following qualifications:126647

       (1) Be licensed as a nursing home administrator under Chapter 126648
4751. of the Revised Code;126649

       (2) Have demonstrated competence as a nursing home 126650
administrator;126651

       (3) Have had no disciplinary action taken against the 126652
temporary manager by any licensing board or professional society 126653
in this state.126654

       (B) The salary of a temporary manager or special master 126655
appointed under sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the 126656
Revised Code shall be paid by the facility and set by the 126657
department of job and family servicesmedicaid or contracting 126658
agency, in the case of a temporary manager, or by the court, in 126659
the case of a special master, at a rate not to exceed the maximum 126660
allowable compensation for an administrator under the medical 126661
assistancemedicaid program. The extent to which this compensation 126662
is allowable under the medical assistancemedicaid program is 126663
subject to and limited by this chapter and rules of the department126664
adopted under section 5165.02 of the Revised Code.126665

       Subject to division (C) of this section, any costs incurred 126666
on behalf of a nursing facility by a temporary manager or special 126667
master appointed under sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89126668
of the Revised Code shall be paid by the facility. The 126669
allowability of these costs under the medical assistancemedicaid126670
program shall be subject to and governed by this chapter and the126671
rules of the departmentadopted under section 5165.02 of the 126672
Revised Code. This division does not prohibit a facility from 126673
applying for or receiving any waiver of cost ceilings available 126674
under the rules of the department.126675

       (C) No temporary manager or special master appointed under 126676
sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code 126677
shall enter into any employment contract on behalf of a facility, 126678
or purchase any capital goods using facility funds totaling more 126679
than ten thousand dollars, unless the temporary manager or special 126680
master has obtained prior approval for the contract or purchase 126681
from either the provider or the court.126682

       (D)(1) A temporary manager appointed for a nursing facility 126683
under section 5111.465165.72 of the Revised Code is hereby 126684
vested, subject to division (C) of this section, with the legal 126685
authority necessary to correct any deficiency or cluster of 126686
deficiencies at a facility, bring the facility into compliance 126687
with certification requirements, and otherwise ensure the health 126688
and safety of the residents.126689

       (2) A temporary manager appointed under section 5111.51126690
5165.77 of the Revised Code is hereby vested, subject to division 126691
(C) of this section, with the authority necessary to eliminate the 126692
emergency, bring the facility into compliance with certification 126693
requirements, and otherwise ensure the health and safety of the 126694
residents.126695

       (3) A temporary manager appointed under section 5111.53126696
5165.80 of the Revised Code is hereby vested, subject to division 126697
(C) of this section, with the authority necessary to ensure the 126698
transfer of medicaid eligible residents to other appropriate care 126699
settings and, if applicable, the orderly closure of the facility, 126700
and to otherwise ensure the health and safety of the residents.126701

       (E) Prior to acting under division (A)(1)(b) or (2)(b) of 126702
section 5111.465165.72 of the Revised Code to appoint a temporary 126703
manager or apply for a special master, the department of job and 126704
family servicesmedicaid or contracting agency shall order the 126705
facility to substantially correct the deficiency or deficiencies 126706
within five days after receiving the statement and inform the 126707
facility, in the statement it provides pursuant to division (B) of 126708
section 5111.495165.75 of the Revised Code, of the order and 126709
that it will not take that action unless the facility fails to 126710
substantially correct the deficiency or deficiencies within that 126711
five-day period. At the end of the five-day period, the department 126712
of health shall conduct a follow-up survey that focuses on the 126713
deficiency or deficiencies. If the department of health determines 126714
that the facility has substantially corrected the deficiency or 126715
deficiencies within that time, the department of job and family 126716
servicesmedicaid or contracting agency shall not appoint a 126717
temporary manager or apply for a special master. If the department 126718
of health determines that the facility has failed to substantially 126719
correct the deficiency or deficiencies within that time, the 126720
department of job and family servicesmedicaid or contracting 126721
agency may proceed with appointment of the temporary manager or 126722
application for a special master. Until the statement required 126723
under division (B) of section 5111.495165.75 of the Revised Code 126724
is actually delivered, no action taken by the department or agency 126725
to appoint a temporary manager or apply for a temporary manager 126726
under division (A)(1)(b) or (2)(b) of section 5111.465165.72 of 126727
the Revised Code shall have any legal effect. No action taken by a 126728
facility under this division to substantially correct a deficiency 126729
or deficiencies shall be considered an admission by the facility 126730
of the existence of a deficiency or deficiencies.126731

       (F) Appointment of a temporary manager under division 126732
(A)(1)(b) or (2)(b) of section 5111.465165.72 or division 126733
(A)(1)(d) of section 5111.515165.77 of the Revised Code shall 126734
expire at the end of the seventh day following the appointment. If 126735
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or contracting 126736
agency finds that the deficiency or deficiencies that prompted the 126737
appointment under division (A)(1)(b) or (2)(b) of section 5111.46126738
5165.72 of the Revised Code cannot be substantially corrected, or 126739
the condition of immediate jeopardy that prompted the appointment 126740
under division (A)(1)(d) of section 5111.515165.77 of the Revised 126741
Code cannot be eliminated, prior to the expiration of the 126742
appointment, it may take one of the following actions:126743

       (1) Appoint, subject to the continuing consent of the 126744
provider, a temporary manager for the facility;126745

       (2) Apply to the common pleas court of the county in which 126746
the facility is located for an order appointing a special master 126747
who, under the authority and direct supervision of the court and 126748
subject to divisions (B) and (C) of this section, may take such 126749
additional actions as are necessary to correct the deficiency or 126750
deficiencies or eliminate the condition of immediate jeopardy and 126751
bring the facility into compliance with certification 126752
requirements.126753

       (G) The court, on finding that the deficiency or deficiencies 126754
for which a special master was appointed under division (F)(2) of 126755
this section or division (A)(1)(b) or (2)(b) of section 5111.46126756
5165.72 of the Revised Code has been substantially corrected, or 126757
the emergency for which a special master was appointed under 126758
division (F)(2) of this section or division (A)(1)(b) or (B)(2) of 126759
section 5111.515165.77 of the Revised Code has been eliminated, 126760
that the facility has been brought into compliance with 126761
certification requirements, and that the provider has established 126762
the management capability to ensure continued compliance with the 126763
certification requirements, shall immediately terminate its 126764
jurisdiction over the facility and return control and management 126765
of the facility to the provider. If the deficiency or deficiencies 126766
cannot be substantially corrected, or the emergency cannot be 126767
eliminated practicably within a reasonable time following 126768
appointment of the special master, the court may order the special 126769
master to close the facility and transfer all residents to other 126770
nursing facilities or other appropriate care settings.126771

       (H) This section does not apply to temporary resident safety 126772
assurance managers appointed under section 5111.5115165.78 of the 126773
Revised Code.126774

       Sec. 5111.55.        Sec. 5165.82.  (A) An order issued under section 126775
5111.465165.72, 5111.475165.73, 5111.485165.74, 5111.51126776
5165.77, or 5111.575165.84 of the Revised Code denying payment126777
medicaid payments to a nursing facility for all medicaid eligible 126778
residents admitted after its effective date, or an order issued 126779
under section 5111.465165.72, 5111.475165.73, or 5111.485165.74126780
of the Revised Code denying paymentmedicaid payments to a 126781
nursing facility for medicaid eligible residents admitted after 126782
the effective date of the order who have specified diagnoses or 126783
special care needs, shall also apply to individuals admitted to 126784
the facility on and after the effective date of the order who are 126785
not medicaid eligible residents but become medicaid eligible 126786
residents after admission. Such an order shall not apply to any of 126787
the following:126788

       (1) An individual who was a medicaid eligible resident of the 126789
facility on the day immediately preceding the effective date of 126790
the order and continues to be a medicaid eligible resident on and 126791
after that date;126792

       (2) An individual who was a resident of the facility on the 126793
day immediately preceding the effective date of the order, 126794
continues to be a resident on and after that date, and becomes 126795
medicaid eligible on or after that date;126796

       (3) An individual who was a medicaid eligible resident of the 126797
facility prior to the effective date of the order, is temporarily 126798
absent from the facility on that or a subsequent date due to 126799
hospitalization or participation in therapeutic programs outside 126800
the facility, and chooses to return to the facility;126801

       (4) An individual who was a resident of the facility prior to 126802
the effective date of the order, is temporarily absent from the 126803
facility on that or a subsequent date due to hospitalization or 126804
participation in therapeutic programs outside the facility, 126805
becomes medicaid eligible on or after that date, and chooses to 126806
return to the facility.126807

       (B) An order issued under section 5111.465165.72 of the 126808
Revised Code denying paymentmedicaid payments to a nursing 126809
facility for all medicaid eligible residents admitted after its 126810
effective date, or denying paymentmedicaid payments to a facility 126811
for medicaid eligible residents admitted after the effective date 126812
of the order who have specified diagnoses or special care needs 126813
shall not take effect prior to the fifth day after the order is 126814
delivered to the facility. Such an order issued under section 126815
5111.475165.73 or 5111.485165.74 of the Revised Code shall not 126816
take effect prior to the twentieth day after it is delivered to 126817
the facility.126818

       (C) No nursing facility that has received an order under 126819
section 5111.465165.72, 5111.475165.73, 5111.485165.74, 5111.51126820
5165.77, or 5111.575165.84 of the Revised Code denying payment126821
medicaid payments for all new admissions of medicaid eligible 126822
residents shall admit a medicaid eligible resident on or after the 126823
effective date of the order, unless the resident is described in 126824
division (A)(3) or (4) of this section, until the order is 126825
terminated pursuant to this section. No nursing facility that has 126826
received an order under section 5111.465165.72, 5111.475165.73, 126827
or 5111.485165.74 of the Revised Code denying paymentmedicaid 126828
payments to a nursing facility for new admissions of medicaid 126829
eligible residents with specified diagnoses or special care needs 126830
shall admit such a resident on or after the effective date of the 126831
order, unless the resident is described in division (A)(3) or (4) 126832
of this section, until the order is terminated pursuant to this 126833
section.126834

       (D) In the case of an order imposed under division (B) of 126835
section 5111.575165.84 of the Revised Code, the department or 126836
agency shall appoint monitors in accordance with section 5111.44126837
5165.70 of the Revised Code to conduct on-site monitoring.126838

       (E)(1) A facility may give written notice to the department 126839
of health whenever any of the following apply:126840

       (a) With respect to an order denying payment issued under 126841
section 5111.465165.72, 5111.475165.73, or 5111.485165.74 of 126842
the Revised Code, either of the following is the case:126843

       (i) The facility has completed implementation of the plan of 126844
correction it submitted under section 5111.435165.69 of the 126845
Revised Code and substantially corrected all deficiencies for 126846
which the order was issued.126847

       (ii) The facility has reduced the severity or scope of all of 126848
the deficiencies to a level at which sections 5111.465165.72 to 126849
5111.485165.74 of the Revised Code do not authorize the order.126850

       (b) With respect to an order denying payment issued under 126851
section 5111.515165.77 of the Revised Code, the facility has 126852
eliminated the immediate jeopardy.126853

       (c) With respect to an order denying paymentmedicaid 126854
payments issued under division (A) of section 5111.575165.84 of 126855
the Revised Code, the facility has completed implementation of the 126856
plan of correction it submitted under section 5111.435165.69 of 126857
the Revised Code and substantially corrected all deficiencies for 126858
which the order was issued.126859

       (d) With respect to an order denying paymentmedicaid 126860
payments issued under division (B) of section 5111.575165.84 of 126861
the Revised Code, both of the following are the case:126862

       (i) The facility has completed implementation of the plan of 126863
correction it submitted under section 5111.435165.69 of the 126864
Revised Code and substantially corrected all deficiencies for 126865
which the order was issued.126866

       (ii) The facility is in compliance with certification 126867
requirements and has provided adequate assurance that it will 126868
remain in compliance with them.126869

       (2) Within ten working days after it receives the notice 126870
under division (E)(1) of this section, the department of health 126871
shall conduct a follow-up survey that focuses on the cited 126872
deficiency or deficiencies, unless the department is able to 126873
determine, on the basis of documentation provided by the facility, 126874
that the facility has completed the applicable action described in 126875
divisions (E)(1)(a) to (d) of this section. If the department of 126876
health makes that determination on the basis of the documentation, 126877
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or contracting 126878
agency shall terminate the order denying paymentmedicaid payments126879
as of the date the facility completed the applicable action, as 126880
subsequently verified by the department of health. If the 126881
department of health conducts a follow-up survey, the department 126882
of job and family servicesmedicaid or contracting agency shall 126883
terminate the order denying paymentmedicaid payments as of the 126884
date the department of health makes the determination that the 126885
facility completed the applicable action.126886

       (F) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 126887
contracting agency shall provide public notice implementing an 126888
order under section 5111.465165.72, 5111.475165.73, 5111.48126889
5165.74, 5111.515165.77, or 5111.575165.84 of the Revised Code 126890
denying paymentmedicaid payments to a nursing facility under the 126891
medical assistance program for all medicaid eligible residents by 126892
publishing in a newspaper of general circulation in the county in 126893
which the facility is located an announcement stating: "By order 126894
of the (Ohio Department of Job and Family ServicesMedicaid or 126895
name of contracting agency), effective on and after (effective 126896
date of order), (name of facility) is no longer authorized to 126897
admit Medicaid eligible residents." Immediately following 126898
termination of any such order, the department or agency shall 126899
publish in a newspaper of general circulation in the county in 126900
which the facility is located an announcement stating: "By order 126901
of the (Ohio Department of Job and Family ServicesMedicaid or 126902
name of contracting agency), effective on and after (effective 126903
date of termination), (name of facility) is hereby authorized to 126904
admit Medicaid eligible residents." Neither the department nor the 126905
contracting agency shall issue public notice of an order under 126906
section 5111.465165.72, 5111.475165.73, or 5111.485165.74 of 126907
the Revised Code denying payment to a nursing facility for 126908
medicaid eligible residents with specified diagnoses or special 126909
care needs; public notice is not required for such an order to 126910
take effect.126911

       (G) A facility that complies with division (E) of this 126912
section shall not be considered to have admitted to the existence 126913
of the deficiency that constitutes the basis of the department's 126914
or agency's order.126915

       Sec. 5111.56.        Sec. 5165.83.  (A) As used in this section, 126916
"certified beds" means beds certified under Title XVIII or Title126917
XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 126918
301, as amended.126919

       (B) If the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 126920
a contracting agency imposes a fine on a nursing facility under 126921
section 5111.465165.72, 5111.475165.73, or 5111.485165.74 of 126922
the Revised Code, it may impose one or more of the following:126923

       (1) One hundred sixty per cent of the amount calculated under 126924
division (C) of this section for any deficiency or cluster of 126925
deficiencies that constitutes a severity level four and scope 126926
level four finding;126927

       (2) One hundred forty per cent of the amount calculated under 126928
division (C) of this section for any deficiency or cluster of 126929
deficiencies that constitutes a severity level four and scope 126930
level three finding;126931

       (3) One hundred twenty per cent of the amount calculated 126932
under division (C) of this section for any deficiency or cluster 126933
of deficiencies that constitutes a severity level four and scope 126934
level two finding;126935

       (4) The amount calculated under division (C) of this section 126936
for any deficiency or cluster of deficiencies that constitutes a 126937
severity level four and scope level one finding or any deficiency 126938
or cluster of deficiencies that constitutes a severity level three 126939
and scope level four finding;126940

       (5) Ninety per cent of the amount calculated under division 126941
(C) of this section for any deficiency or cluster of deficiencies 126942
that constitutes a severity level three and scope level three 126943
finding;126944

       (6) Eighty per cent of the amount calculated under division 126945
(C) of this section for any deficiency or cluster of deficiencies 126946
that constitutes a severity level three and scope level two 126947
finding;126948

       (7) Seventy per cent of the amount calculated under division 126949
(C) of this section for any deficiency or cluster of deficiencies 126950
that constitutes a severity level three and scope level one 126951
finding;126952

       (8) Fifty per cent of the amount calculated under division 126953
(C) of this section for any deficiency or cluster of deficiencies 126954
that constitutes a severity level two and scope level four 126955
finding;126956

       (9) Forty per cent of the amount calculated under division 126957
(C) of this section for any deficiency or cluster of deficiencies 126958
that constitutes a severity level two and scope level three 126959
finding.126960

       (C) The amount subject to division (B) of this section shall 126961
be the product of multiplying two dollars and fifty cents for each 126962
day the fine is in effect by the total number of licensed nursing 126963
home beds or certified beds, whichever is greater, in the facility 126964
as of the date the deficiency or cluster of deficiencies that is 126965
the reason for the fine was cited.126966

       (D)(1) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 126967
contracting agency shall not impose on a facility, at any one 126968
time, more than four fines as a result of any one survey.126969

       (2) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 126970
contracting agency shall not impose more than one fine based on a 126971
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies. However, if the department 126972
of health, in a follow-up or other subsequent survey, finds a 126973
change in the scope or severity of the deficiency or cluster of 126974
deficiencies, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid126975
or contracting agency may increase or decrease the fine in 126976
accordance with division (B) of this section to reflect the change 126977
in scope or severity. The department or agency shall give the 126978
facility written notice of the change in the amount of the fine. 126979
The change shall take effect on the date the follow-up or other 126980
subsequent survey is completed.126981

       If the department of health finds that a deficiency is a 126982
repeat deficiency, the department of job and family services126983
medicaid or contracting agency may impose a fine that is one 126984
hundred per cent greater than the fine specified in division (B) 126985
of this section for the deficiency.126986

       (E) The total amount of fines the department of job and 126987
family servicesmedicaid or contracting agency may impose on a 126988
facility in a single calendar year shall not exceed five hundred 126989
dollars for each licensed nursing home bed or certified bed, 126990
whichever is greater in number, in the facility.126991

       (F)(1) Except as provided in division (F)(2) of this section, 126992
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or contracting 126993
agency shall not impose a fine under section 5111.465165.72, 126994
5111.475165.73, or 5111.485165.74 of the Revised Code if the 126995
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies is substantially corrected 126996
within twenty days after the nursing facility receives the 126997
statement provided under division (B) of section 5111.495165.75126998
of the Revised Code. The department or agency shall inform the 126999
nursing facility in that statement that the fine will not be 127000
imposed if the deficiency or cluster of deficiencies is 127001
substantially corrected within the twenty-day period.127002

       (2) If a nursing facility has substantially corrected a 127003
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies within six months after the 127004
exit interview of a survey that was the basis for citing a 127005
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies, but after correcting it has 127006
been cited for the same deficiency or cluster of deficiencies by 127007
the department of health on the basis of a subsequent survey 127008
conducted during the remainder of the six-month period, the 127009
department of job and family servicesmedicaid or contracting 127010
agency may impose a fine beginning on the date of the exit 127011
interview of the subsequent survey.127012

       (G) Whenever a facility believes that it has completed 127013
implementation of the plan of correction it submitted under 127014
section 5111.435165.69 of the Revised Code and substantially 127015
corrected the cited deficiency or cluster of deficiencies that is 127016
the basis for a fine, it may give written notice to that effect to 127017
the department of health. After receiving the notice, the 127018
department shall conduct a follow-up survey of the facility that 127019
focuses on the deficiency or cluster, unless the department is 127020
able to determine, on the basis of documentation provided by the 127021
facility, that the facility has substantially corrected the 127022
deficiency or cluster. If, based on the follow-up survey, the 127023
department establishes that the facility had not completed 127024
implementation of the plan of correction at the time the 127025
department received the notice, any fine based on the deficiency 127026
or cluster shall be doubled effective from the date the department 127027
received the notice. A facility that complies with this division 127028
shall not be considered to have admitted the existence of the 127029
deficiency or cluster that is the basis for the fine.127030

       (H) Except for a fine imposed under division (C) of section 127031
5111.465165.72 of the Revised Code and as provided in division 127032
(F)(2) of this section, the department of job and family services127033
medicaid or contracting agency shall impose a fine only if the 127034
facility fails to give notice under division (G) of this section 127035
within twenty days after it receives the statement required by 127036
division (B) of section 5111.495165.75 of the Revised Code or if 127037
the department of health determines, based on a follow-up survey, 127038
that the deficiency or cluster of deficiencies for which the fine 127039
is proposed has not been substantially corrected within the 127040
twenty-day period. The fine shall be imposed effective on the 127041
twenty-first day after the facility receives the statement under 127042
division (B) of section 5111.495165.75 of the Revised Code. The 127043
fine shall remain in effect until the earliest of the following:127044

       (1) The date the department of health receives notice under 127045
division (G) of this section, unless the department determines, on 127046
the basis of a follow-up survey, that the deficiency or cluster of 127047
deficiencies that is the basis for the fine has not been 127048
substantially corrected as of that date;127049

       (2) The date on which the department of health makes a 127050
determination, on the basis of a follow-up survey, that the 127051
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies has been substantially 127052
corrected;127053

       (3) The date the facility substantially corrected the 127054
deficiency or cluster, as subsequently determined by the 127055
department of health on the basis of documentation provided by the 127056
facility.127057

       (I) Any fine imposed by the department of job and family 127058
servicesmedicaid or contracting agency under this section is 127059
subject to appeal under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. If the 127060
facility does not request a hearing under Chapter 119. of the 127061
Revised Code and either pays or agrees in writing to pay the fine 127062
when payment becomes due under division (J) of this section, the 127063
department or agency shall reduce the fine by fifty per cent. The 127064
department or agency may compromise any claim for payment of a 127065
fine under sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the 127066
Revised Code.127067

       (J) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 127068
contracting agency shall collect interest on fines, at the rate 127069
per calendar month that equals one-twelfth of the rate per year 127070
prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code for the calendar 127071
year that includes the month for which the interest charge 127072
accrues. Payment of a fine is due, and interest begins to accrue 127073
on the unpaid fine or balance, on the thirty-first day after the 127074
department or agency issues a final adjudication order imposing 127075
the fine. If the deficiency or deficiencies on which the fine is 127076
based have not been corrected when the final adjudication order is 127077
issued, the payment is due, and interest begins to accrue on the 127078
unpaid fine or balance, on the thirty-first day after the 127079
deficiency or deficiencies are corrected and the department or 127080
agency mails a notice specifying the amount of the fine to the 127081
facility.127082

       (K) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 127083
contracting agency shall collect fines and interest imposed under 127084
this section through one of the following means:127085

       (1) A lump sum payment from the provider;127086

       (2) Periodic payments for a period not to exceed twelve 127087
months, in accordance with a schedule approved by the department 127088
or agency;127089

       (3) Appropriately reducing the amounts of medicaid payments 127090
made to the facility for carenursing facility services provided 127091
to medicaid eligible residents for a period not to exceed twelve 127092
months following the date on which payment of the fine becomes due 127093
under division (J) of this section. An amount equal to the amount 127094
by which each payment is reduced shall be deposited to the credit 127095
of the residents protection fund in accordance with section 127096
5111.625162.66 of the Revised Code.127097

       Sec. 5111.57.        Sec. 5165.84.  (A) The department of job and family 127098
servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency shall issue an order 127099
denying paymentmedicaid payments to a nursing facility for all 127100
medicaid eligible residents admitted to the facility on or after 127101
the effective date of the order, if the facility has failed to 127102
substantially correct within ninety days after the exit interview 127103
a deficiency or cluster of deficiencies in accordance with the 127104
plan of correction it submitted under section 5111.435165.69 of 127105
the Revised Code, as determined by the department of health on the 127106
basis of a follow-up survey.127107

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 127108
contracting agency shall issue an order denying paymentmedicaid 127109
payments to a nursing facility for all medicaid eligible residents 127110
admitted to the facility on or after the effective date of the 127111
order, if during three consecutive standard surveys conducted 127112
after December 13, 1990, the department of health has found a 127113
condition of substandard care in a facility.127114

       (C) An order issued under division (A) or (B) of this section 127115
shall take effect on the later of the date the facility receives 127116
the order or the date the public notice required under division 127117
(F) of section 5111.555165.82 of the Revised Code is published. 127118
The order is subject to appeal under Chapter 119. of the Revised 127119
Code; however the order may take effect prior to or during the 127120
pendency of any hearing under that chapter. In that case, the 127121
department or agency shall provide the facility an opportunity for 127122
a hearing in accordance with section 5111.605165.87 of the 127123
Revised Code.127124

       Sec. 5111.58.        Sec. 5165.85.  (A) If a nursing facility notifies the 127125
department of job and family servicesmedicaid or a contracting 127126
agency, at any time during the six-month period following the exit 127127
interview of a survey that was the basis for citing a deficiency 127128
or deficiencies, that the deficiency or deficiencies have been 127129
substantially corrected in accordance with the plan of correction 127130
submitted and approved under section 5111.435165.69 of the 127131
Revised Code, the department of health shall conduct a follow-up 127132
survey to determine whether the deficiency or deficiencies have 127133
been substantially corrected in accordance with the plan.127134

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or a 127135
contracting agency shall terminate a nursing facility's 127136
participation in the medical assistancemedicaid program whenever 127137
the facility has not substantially corrected, within six months 127138
after the exit interview of the survey on the basis of which it 127139
was cited, a deficiency or deficiencies in accordance with the 127140
plan of correction submitted under section 5111.435165.69 of the 127141
Revised Code, as determined by the department of health on the 127142
basis of a follow-up survey.127143

       (C) Unless the facility has substantially corrected the 127144
deficiency or deficiencies in accordance with the plan of 127145
correction, as determined by the department of health on the basis 127146
of a follow-up survey, the department of job and family services127147
medicaid or contracting agency shall deliver to the facility, at 127148
least thirty days prior to the day that is six months after the 127149
exit interview, a written order terminating the facility's 127150
participation in the medical assistancemedicaid program. The 127151
order shall take effect and the facility's participation shall 127152
terminate on the day that is six months after the exit interview. 127153
The order shall not take effect if, after it is delivered to the 127154
facility and prior to the effective date of the order, the 127155
department of health determines on the basis of a follow-up survey 127156
that the facility has corrected the deficiency or deficiencies.127157

       An order issued under this section is subject to appeal under 127158
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code; however, the order may take 127159
effect prior to or during the pendency of any hearing under that 127160
chapter. In that case, the department of job and family services127161
medicaid or contracting agency shall provide the facility an 127162
opportunity for a hearing in accordance with section 5111.60127163
5165.87 of the Revised Code.127164

       (D) Except as provided in division (E) of this section, 127165
whenever the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or a 127166
contracting agency terminates a facility's participation in the 127167
medical assistancemedicaid program pursuant to this section, the 127168
provider shall repay the department the federal share of all 127169
medicaid payments made by the department to the facility under the 127170
medical assistance program during the six-month period following 127171
the exit interview of the survey that was the basis for citing the 127172
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies. The provider shall repay 127173
the department within thirty days after the department repays to 127174
the federal government the federal share of medicaid payments made 127175
to the facility during that six-month period.127176

       (E) A provider is not required to repay the department of job 127177
and family servicesmedicaid if either of the following is the 127178
case:127179

       (1) The facility has brought an appeal under Chapter 119. of 127180
the Revised Code of termination of its participation in the 127181
medical assistancemedicaid program, except that the provider 127182
shall repay the department of job and family servicesmedicaid127183
within thirty days after the facility exhausts its right to appeal 127184
under that chapter.127185

       (2) The facility complied with the plan of correction 127186
approved by the department of health and the obligation to repay 127187
resulted from the department's failure to provide timely 127188
verification to the United States department of health and human 127189
services of the facility's compliance with the plan of correction.127190

       (F) If a provider's obligation to repay the department of job 127191
and family servicesmedicaid under division (D) of this section 127192
results from disallowance of federal financial participation by 127193
the United States department of health and human services, the 127194
provider shall not be required to repay the department of job and 127195
family servicesmedicaid until the federal disallowance becomes 127196
final.127197

       (G) Any fines paid under sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.62127198
5165.89 of the Revised Code during any period for which the 127199
facility is required to repay the department of job and family 127200
servicesmedicaid under division (D) of this section shall be 127201
offset against the amount the provider is required to repay the 127202
department for that period.127203

       (H) Prior to a change of ownership of a facility for which a 127204
provider has an obligation to repay the department of job and 127205
family servicesmedicaid under division (D) of this section that 127206
has not become final, or has become final but not been paid, the 127207
department may do one or more of the following:127208

       (1) Require the provider to place money in escrow, or obtain 127209
a bond, in sufficient amount to indemnify the state against the 127210
provider's failure to repay the department after the change of 127211
ownership occurs;127212

       (2) Place a lien on the facility's real property;127213

       (3) Use any method to recover the medicaid payments that is 127214
available to the attorney general to recover payments on behalf of 127215
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid.127216

       Sec. 5111.59.        Sec. 5165.86.  The department of job and family 127217
servicesmedicaid, the department of health, and any contracting 127218
agency shall deliver a written notice, statement, or order to a 127219
nursing facility under sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.415165.66127220
and 5111.435165.69 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code by 127221
certified mail or hand delivery. If the notice, statement, or 127222
order is mailed, it shall be addressed to the administrator of the 127223
facility as indicated in the department's or agency's records. If 127224
it is hand delivered, it shall be delivered to a person at the 127225
facility who would appear to the average prudent person to have 127226
authority to accept it.127227

       Delivery of written notice by a nursing facility to the 127228
department of health, the department of job and family services127229
medicaid, or a contracting agency under sections 5111.355165.60127230
to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code shall be by certified mail 127231
or hand delivery to the appropriate department or the agency.127232

       Sec. 5111.60.        Sec. 5165.87.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) 127233
of this section, the following remedies are subject to appeal 127234
under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code:127235

       (1) An order issued under section 5111.455165.71, 5111.46127236
5165.72, 5111.515165.77, or 5111.585165.85 of the Revised Code 127237
terminating a nursing facility's participation in the medical 127238
assistancemedicaid program;127239

       (2) Appointment of a temporary manager of a facility under 127240
division (A)(1)(b) or (2)(b) of section 5111.465165.72, or 127241
division (A)(1)(d) of section 5111.515165.77 of the Revised Code;127242

       (3) An order issued under section 5111.465165.72, 5111.47127243
5165.73, 5111.485165.74, 5111.515165.77, or 5111.575165.84 of 127244
the Revised Code denying paymentmedicaid payments to a facility 127245
under the medical assistance program for all medicaid eligible 127246
residents admitted after the effective date of the order;127247

       (4) An order issued under section 5111.465165.72, 5111.47127248
5165.73, or 5111.485165.74 of the Revised Code denying payment127249
medicaid payments to a facility under the medical assistance 127250
program for medicaid eligible residents admitted after the 127251
effective date of the order who have certain diagnoses or special 127252
care needs specified by the department or agency;127253

       (5) A fine imposed under section 5111.465165.72, 5111.47127254
5165.73, or 5111.485165.74 of the Revised Code.127255

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 127256
contracting agency may do any of the following prior to or during 127257
the pendency of any proceeding under Chapter 119. of the Revised 127258
Code:127259

       (1) Issue and execute an order under section 5111.465165.72, 127260
5111.515165.77, or 5111.585165.85 of the Revised Code 127261
terminating a nursing facility's participation in the medical 127262
assistancemedicaid program;127263

       (2) Appoint a temporary manager under division (A)(1)(b) or 127264
(2)(b) of section 5111.465165.72 or division (A)(1)(d) of section 127265
5111.515165.77 of the Revised Code;127266

       (3) Issue and execute an order under section 5111.465165.72, 127267
5111.475165.73, 5111.515165.77, or 5111.575165.84 of the 127268
Revised Code denying paymentmedicaid payments to a facility for 127269
all medicaid eligible residents admitted after the effective date 127270
of the order;127271

       (4) Issue and execute an order under section 5111.465165.72127272
or 5111.475165.73 or division (A), (B), or (C) of section 127273
5111.485165.74 of the Revised Code denying paymentmedicaid 127274
payments to a facility for medicaid eligible residents admitted 127275
after the effective date of the order who have specified diagnoses 127276
or special care needs.127277

       (C) Whenever the department or agency imposes a remedy listed 127278
in division (B) of this section prior to or during the pendency of 127279
a proceeding, all of the following apply:127280

       (1) The provider against whom the action is taken shall have 127281
ten days after the date the facility actually receives the notice 127282
specified in section 119.07 of the Revised Code to request a 127283
hearing.127284

       (2) The hearing shall commence within thirty days after the 127285
date the department or agency receives the provider's request for 127286
a hearing.127287

       (3) The hearing shall continue uninterrupted from day to day, 127288
except for Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays, unless other 127289
interruptions are agreed to by the provider and the department or 127290
agency.127291

       (4) If the hearing is conducted by a hearing examiner, the 127292
hearing examiner shall file a report and recommendations within 127293
ten days after the close of the hearing.127294

       (5) The provider shall have five days after the date the 127295
hearing officer files the report and recommendations within which 127296
to file objections to the report and recommendations.127297

       (6) Not later than fifteen days after the date the hearing 127298
officer files the report and recommendations, the medicaid127299
director of job and family services or the director of the 127300
contracting agency shall issue an order approving, modifying, or 127301
disapproving the report and recommendations of the hearing 127302
examiner.127303

       (D) If the department or agency imposes more than one remedy 127304
as the result of deficiencies cited in a single survey, the 127305
proceedings for all of the remedies shall be consolidated. If any 127306
of the remedies are imposed during the pendency of a hearing, as 127307
permitted by division (B) of this section, the consolidated 127308
hearing shall be conducted in accordance with division (C) of this 127309
section. The consolidation of the remedies for purposes of a 127310
hearing does not affect the effective dates prescribed in sections 127311
5111.355165.60 to 5111.582165.85 of the Revised Code.127312

       (E) If a contracting agency conducts administrative 127313
proceedings pertaining to remedies imposed under sections 5111.35127314
5165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code, the department of 127315
job and family servicesmedicaid shall not be considered a party 127316
to the proceedings.127317

       Sec. 5111.61.        Sec. 5165.88.  (A)(1) Except as required by court 127318
order, as necessary for the administration or enforcement of any 127319
statute relating to nursing facilities, or as provided in division 127320
(C) of this section, the department of job and family services127321
medicaid and any contracting agency shall not release any of the 127322
following information without the permission of the individual or 127323
the individual's legal representative:127324

       (a) The identity of any resident of a nursing facility;127325

       (b) The identity of any individual who submits a complaint 127326
about a nursing facility;127327

       (c) The identity of any individual who provides the 127328
department or agency with information about a nursing facility and 127329
has requested confidentiality;127330

       (d) Any information that reasonably would tend to disclose 127331
the identity of any individual described in division (A)(1)(a) to 127332
(c) of this section.127333

       (2) An agency or individual to whom the department or 127334
contracting agency is required, by court order or for the 127335
administration or enforcement of a statute relating to nursing 127336
facilities, to release information described in division (A)(1) of 127337
this section shall not release the information without the 127338
permission of the individual who would be or would reasonably tend 127339
to be identified, or of the individual's legal representative, 127340
unless the agency or individual is required to release it by 127341
division (C) of this section, by court order, or for the 127342
administration or enforcement of a statute relating to nursing 127343
facilities.127344

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, any 127345
record that identifies an individual described in division (A)(1) 127346
of this section or that reasonably would tend to identify such an 127347
individual is not a public record for the purposes of section 127348
149.43 of the Revised Code, and is not subject to inspection and 127349
copying under section 1347.08 of the Revised Code.127350

       (C) If the department or a contracting agency, or an agency 127351
or individual to whom the department or contracting agency was 127352
required by court order or for administration or enforcement of a 127353
statute relating to nursing facilities to release information 127354
described in division (A)(1) of this section, uses information in 127355
any administrative or judicial proceeding against a facility that 127356
reasonably would tend to identify an individual described in 127357
division (A)(1) of this section, the department, agency, or 127358
individual shall disclose that information to the facility. 127359
However, the department, agency, or individual shall not disclose 127360
information that directly identifies an individual described in 127361
divisions (A)(1)(a) to (c) of this section, unless the individual 127362
is to testify in the proceedings.127363

       (D) No person shall knowingly register a false complaint 127364
about a nursing facility with the department or a contracting 127365
agency, or knowingly swear or affirm the truth of a false 127366
complaint, when the allegation is made for the purpose of 127367
incriminating another.127368

       Sec. 5111.63.        Sec. 5165.89. For the purposes of this section, 127369
"facility," "medicare," and "medicaid" have the same meanings as 127370
in section 3721.10 of the Revised Code.127371

       The department of health shall be the designee of the 127372
department of job and family servicesmedicaid for the purpose of 127373
conducting a hearing pursuant to section 3721.162 of the Revised 127374
Code concerning a nursing facility's decision to transfer or 127375
discharge a resident if the resident is a medicaid recipient or 127376
medicare beneficiary.127377

       Sec. 5111.99.        Sec. 5165.99.  (A) Whoever violates division (B) of127378
section 5111.265165.102 or division (E) of section 5111.31127379
5165.08 of the Revised Code shall be fined not less than five 127380
hundred dollars nor more than one thousand dollars for the first 127381
offense and not less than one thousand dollars nor more than five 127382
thousand dollars for each subsequent offense. Fines paid under 127383
this section shall be deposited in the state treasury to the 127384
credit of the general revenue fund.127385

       (B) Whoever violates division (D) of section 5111.615165.88127386
of the Revised Code is guilty of registering a false complaint, a 127387
misdemeanor of the first degree.127388

       Sec. 5166.01.  As used in this chapter:127389

       "Administrative agency" means, with respect to a home and 127390
community-based services medicaid waiver component, the department 127391
of medicaid or, if a state agency or political subdivision 127392
contracts with the department under section 5162.35 of the Revised 127393
Code to administer the component, that state agency or political 127394
subdivision.127395

       "Dual eligible individual" has the same meaning as in section 127396
5160.01 of the Revised Code.127397

       "Home and community-based services medicaid waiver component" 127398
means a medicaid waiver component under which home and 127399
community-based services are provided as an alternative to 127400
hospital services, nursing facility services, or ICF/IID services.127401

       "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of the 127402
Revised Code.127403

       "Hospital long-term care unit" has the same meaning as in 127404
section 5168.40 of the Revised Code.127405

       "ICDS participant" has the same meaning as in section 5164.01 127406
of the Revised Code.127407

       "ICF/IID" and "ICF/IID services" have the same meanings as in 127408
section 5124.01 of the Revised Code.127409

       "Integrated care delivery system" and "ICDS" have the same 127410
meanings as in section 5164.01 of the Revised Code.127411

       "Level of care determination" means a determination of 127412
whether an individual needs the level of care provided by a 127413
hospital, nursing facility, or ICF/IID and whether the individual, 127414
if determined to need that level of care, would receive hospital 127415
services, nursing facility services, or ICF/IID services if not 127416
for a home and community-based services medicaid waiver component.127417

       "Medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities program" has 127418
the same meaning as in section 5163.01 of the Revised Code.127419

       "Medicaid services" has the same meaning as in section 127420
5164.01 of the Revised Code. 127421

       "Medicaid waiver component" means a component of the medicaid 127422
program authorized by a waiver granted by the United States 127423
department of health and human services under the "Social Security 127424
Act," section 1115 or 1915, 42 U.S.C. 1315 or 1396n. "Medicaid 127425
waiver component" does not include a care management system 127426
established under section 5167.03 of the Revised Code.127427

       "Nursing facility" and "nursing facility services" have the 127428
same meanings as in section 5165.01 of the Revised Code.127429

       "Ohio home care waiver program" means the home and 127430
community-based services medicaid waiver component that is known 127431
as Ohio home care and was created pursuant to section 5166.11 of 127432
the Revised Code.127433

       "Ohio transitions II aging carve-out program" means the home 127434
and community-based services medicaid waiver component that is 127435
known as Ohio transitions II aging carve-out and was created 127436
pursuant to section 5166.11 of the Revised Code.127437

       "Provider agreement" has the same meaning as in section 127438
5164.01 of the Revised Code.127439

       "Residential treatment facility" means a residential facility 127440
licensed by the department of mental health and addiction services 127441
under section 5119.34 of the Revised Code, or an institution 127442
certified by the department of job and family services under 127443
section 5103.03 of the Revised Code, that serves children and 127444
either has more than sixteen beds or is part of a campus of 127445
multiple facilities or institutions that, combined, have a total 127446
of more than sixteen beds.127447

       "Skilled nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 127448
5165.01 of the Revised Code.127449

       "Unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver 127450
component" means the medicaid waiver component authorized by 127451
section 5166.14 of the Revised Code.127452

       Sec. 5111.85.        Sec. 5166.02.  (A) As used in this section and 127453
sections 5111.851 to 5111.856 of the Revised Code:127454

       "Home and community-based services medicaid waiver component" 127455
means a medicaid waiver component under which home and 127456
community-based services are provided as an alternative to 127457
hospital, nursing facility, or intermediate care facility for the 127458
mentally retarded services.127459

       "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of the 127460
Revised Code.127461

       "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" has 127462
the same meaning as in section 5111.20 of the Revised Code.127463

       "Medicaid waiver component" means a component of the medicaid 127464
program authorized by a waiver granted by the United States 127465
department of health and human services under section 1115 or 1915 127466
of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 127467
1315 or 1396n. "Medicaid waiver component" does not include a care 127468
management system established under section 5111.16 of the Revised 127469
Code.127470

       "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5111.20 127471
of the Revised Code.127472

       (B) The medicaid director of job and family services may127473
shall adopt rules underin accordance with Chapter 119. of the 127474
Revised Code governing medicaid waiver components that. The rules 127475
may establish all of the following:127476

       (1) Eligibility requirements for the medicaid waiver 127477
components;127478

       (2) The type, amount, duration, and scope of medicaid127479
services the medicaid waiver components providecover;127480

       (3) The conditions under which the medicaid waiver components 127481
cover medicaid services;127482

       (4) The amountamounts the medicaid waiver components pay for 127483
medicaid services or the methodmethods by which the amount is127484
amounts are determined;127485

       (5) The mannermanners in which the medicaid waiver 127486
components pay for medicaid services;127487

       (6) Safeguards for the health and welfare of medicaid 127488
recipients receiving medicaid services under a medicaid waiver 127489
component;127490

       (7) Procedures for prioritizing and approving for enrollment 127491
individuals who are eligible for a home and community-based 127492
services medicaid waiver component and choose to be enrolled in 127493
the component;127494

       (8) Procedures for enforcing the rules, including 127495
establishing corrective action plans for, and imposing financial 127496
and administrative sanctions on, persons and government entities 127497
that violate the rules. Sanctions shall include terminating 127498
medicaid provider agreements. The procedures shall include due 127499
process protections.127500

       (9) Other policies necessary for the efficient administration 127501
of the medicaid waiver components.127502

       (C)(B) The director of job and family services may adopt 127503
different rules for the different medicaid waiver components. The 127504
rules shall be consistent with the terms of the waiver authorizing 127505
the medicaid waiver component.127506

       (D)(C) The following apply to procedures established under 127507
division (B)(A)(7) of this section:127508

       (1) Any such procedures established for the medicaid-funded 127509
component of the PASSPORT program shall be consistent with section 127510
173.401173.521 of the Revised Code. 127511

       (2) Any such procedures established for the medicaid-funded 127512
component of the assisted living program shall be consistent with 127513
section 173.542 of the Revised Code.127514

       (3) Any such procedures established for the Ohio home care 127515
waiver program shall be consistent with section 5111.8625166.121127516
of the Revised Code.127517

       (3)(4) Any such procedures established for the unified 127518
long-term services and support medicaid waiver program shall be 127519
consistent with section 5111.8655166.141 of the Revised Code.127520

        (4) Any such procedures established for the medicaid-funded 127521
component of the assisted living program shall be consistent with 127522
section 5111.894 of the Revised Code.127523

       Sec. 5111.84.        Sec. 5166.03. The medicaid director of job and family 127524
services may not submit a request to the United States secretary 127525
of health and human services for a medicaid waiver under section 127526
1115 of the "Social Security Act of 1935," section 1115, 42 U.S.C. 127527
1315, unless the director provides the speaker of the house of 127528
representatives and president of the senate written notice of the 127529
director's intent to submit the request at least ten days before 127530
the date the director submits the request to the United States 127531
secretary. The notice shall include a detailed explanation of the 127532
medicaid waiver the director proposes to seek.127533

       Sec. 5111.851.        Sec. 5166.04. (A) As used in sections 5111.851 to 127534
5111.855 of the Revised Code:127535

       "Administrative agency" means, with respect to a home and 127536
community-based services medicaid waiver component, the department 127537
of job and family services or, if a state agency or political 127538
subdivision contracts with the department under section 5111.91 127539
of the Revised Code to administer the component, that state agency 127540
or political subdivision.127541

        "Level of care determination" means a determination of 127542
whether an individual needs the level of care provided by a 127543
hospital, nursing facility, or intermediate care facility for the 127544
mentally retarded and whether the individual, if determined to 127545
need that level of care, would receive hospital, nursing facility, 127546
or intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded services 127547
if not for a home and community-based services medicaid waiver 127548
component.127549

       "Medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities program" means 127550
the component of the medicaid program established under sections 127551
5111.70 to 5111.7011 of the Revised Code.127552

       "Skilled nursing facility" means a facility certified as a 127553
skilled nursing facility under Title XVIII of the "Social Security 127554
Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395, as amended.127555

       (B) The following requirements apply to each home and 127556
community-based services medicaid waiver component:127557

       (1)(A) Only an individual who qualifies for a component shall 127558
receive that component's medicaid services.127559

       (2)(B) A level of care determination shall be made as part of 127560
the process of determining whether an individual qualifies for a 127561
component and shall be made each year after the initial 127562
determination if, during such a subsequent year, the 127563
administrative agency determines there is a reasonable indication 127564
that the individual's needs have changed.127565

       (3)(C) A written plan of care or individual service plan 127566
based on an individual assessment of the medicaid services that an 127567
individual needs to avoid needing admission to a hospital, nursing 127568
facility, or intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded127569
ICF/IID shall be created for each individual determined eligible 127570
for a component.127571

       (4)(D) Each individual determined eligible for a component 127572
shall receive that component's medicaid services in accordance 127573
with the individual's level of care determination and written plan 127574
of care or individual service plan.127575

       (5)(E) No individual may receive medicaid services under a 127576
component while the individual is a hospital inpatient or resident 127577
of a skilled nursing facility, nursing facility, or intermediate 127578
care facility for the mentally retardedICF/IID.127579

       (6)(F) No individual may receive prevocational, educational, 127580
or supported employment services under a component if the 127581
individual is eligible for such services that are funded with 127582
federal funds provided under 29 U.S.C. 730 or the "Individuals 127583
with Disabilities Education Act," 111 Stat. 37 (1997), 20 U.S.C. 127584
1400, as amended.127585

       (7)(G) Safeguards shall be taken to protect the health and 127586
welfare of individuals receiving medicaid services under a 127587
component, including safeguards established in rules adopted under 127588
section 5111.855166.02 of the Revised Code and safeguards 127589
established by licensing and certification requirements that are 127590
applicable to the providers of that component's medicaid services.127591

        (8)(H) No medicaid services may be provided under a component 127592
by a provider that is subject to standards that the "Social 127593
Security Act," section 1616(e)(1), 42 U.S.C. 1382e(e)(1), requires 127594
be established if the provider fails to comply with the standards 127595
applicable to the provider.127596

       (9)(I) Individuals determined to be eligible for a component, 127597
or such individuals' representatives, shall be informed of that 127598
component's medicaid services, including any choices that the 127599
individual or representative may make regarding the component's 127600
medicaid services, and given the choice of either receiving 127601
medicaid services under that component or, as appropriate, 127602
hospital services, nursing facility services, or intermediate care 127603
facility for the mentally retardedICF/IID services.127604

       (10)(J) No individual shall lose eligibility for services 127605
under a component, or have the services reduced or otherwise 127606
disrupted, on the basis that the individual also receives services 127607
under the medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities program.127608

       (11)(K) No individual shall lose eligibility for services 127609
under a component, or have the services reduced or otherwise 127610
disrupted, on the basis that the individual's income or resources 127611
increase to an amount above the eligibility limit for the 127612
component if the individual is participating in the medicaid 127613
buy-in for workers with disabilities program and the amount of the 127614
individual's income or resources does not exceed the eligibility 127615
limit for the medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities 127616
program.127617

       (12)(L) No individual receiving services under a component 127618
shall be required to pay any cost sharing expenses for the 127619
services for any period during which the individual also 127620
participates in the medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities 127621
program.127622

       Sec. 5111.852.        Sec. 5166.05.  The department of job and family 127623
servicesmedicaid may review and approve, modify, or deny written 127624
plans of care and individual service plans that section 5111.851127625
5166.04 of the Revised Code requires be created for individuals 127626
determined eligible for a home and community-based services 127627
medicaid waiver component. If a state agency or political 127628
subdivision contracts with the department under section 5111.91127629
5162.35 of the Revised Code to administer a home and 127630
community-based services medicaid waiver component and approves, 127631
modifies, or denies a written plan of care or individual service 127632
plan pursuant to the agency's or subdivision's administration of 127633
the component, the department may review the agency's or 127634
subdivision's approval, modification, or denial and order the 127635
agency or subdivision to reverse or modify the approval, 127636
modification, or denial. The state agency or political subdivision 127637
shall comply with the department's order.127638

       The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall be 127639
granted full and immediate access to any records the department 127640
needs to implement its duties under this section.127641

       Sec. 5111.853.        Sec. 5166.06.  Each administrative agency shall 127642
maintain, for a period of time the department of job and family 127643
servicesmedicaid shall specify, financial records documenting 127644
the costs of medicaid services provided under the home and 127645
community-based services medicaid waiver components that the 127646
agency administers, including records of independent audits. The 127647
administrative agency shall make the financial records available 127648
on request to the United States secretary of health and human 127649
services, United States comptroller general, and their designees.127650

       Sec. 5111.854.        Sec. 5166.07.  Each administrative agency is 127651
financially accountable for funds expended for medicaid services 127652
provided undercovered by the home and community-based services 127653
medicaid waiver components that the agency administers.127654

       Sec. 5111.855.        Sec. 5166.08.  Each state agency and political 127655
subdivision that enters into a contract with the department of job 127656
and family servicesmedicaid under section 5111.915162.35 of the 127657
Revised Code to administer a home and community-based services 127658
medicaid waiver component, or one or more aspects of such a 127659
component, shall provide the department a written assurance that 127660
the agency or subdivision will not violate any of the requirements 127661
of sections 5111.855166.01 to 5111.8545166.07 of the Revised 127662
Code.127663

       Sec. 5111.856.        Sec. 5166.10.  To the extent necessary for the 127664
efficient and economical administration of medicaid waiver 127665
components, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid may 127666
transfer an individual enrolled in a medicaid waiver component 127667
administered by the department to another medicaid waiver 127668
component the department administers if the individual is eligible 127669
for the medicaid waiver component and the transfer does not 127670
jeopardize the individual's health or safety.127671

       Sec. 5111.86.        Sec. 5166.11. (A) As used in this section:127672

       (1) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of 127673
the Revised Code.127674

       (2) "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 127675
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.127676

       (3) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 127677
5111.20 of the Revised Code.127678

       (4), "Ohio home care program" means the program the 127679
department of job and family servicesmedicaid administers that 127680
provides state plan services and medicaid waiver component 127681
services pursuant to rules adopted under sections 5111.01 and 127682
5111.02 of the Revised Codefor the medicaid program and a 127683
medicaid waiver that went into effect July 1, 1998.127684

       (B) The directordepartment of job and family services127685
medicaid may submit requests to the United States secretary of 127686
health and human services pursuant to section 1915 of the "Social 127687
Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396n, as amended, 127688
to obtain waivers of federal medicaid requirements that would 127689
otherwise be violated in the creation and implementation ofcreate 127690
and administer two or more medicaid waiver components under which 127691
home and community-based services are provided to eligible 127692
individuals who need the level of care provided by a nursing 127693
facility or hospital. In administering the requestsmedicaid 127694
waiver components, the directordepartment may specify the 127695
following:127696

        (1) The maximum number of individuals who may be enrolled in 127697
each of the medicaid waiver components included in the requests;127698

        (2) The maximum amount the medicaid program may expend each 127699
year for each individual enrolled in the medicaid waiver 127700
components;127701

        (3) The maximum amount the medicaid program may expend each 127702
year for all individuals enrolled in the medicaid waiver 127703
components;127704

        (4) Any other requirements the directordepartment selects 127705
for the medicaid waiver components.127706

       (C) If the secretary approves the medicaid waivers requested 127707
under this section, the director may create and implement the 127708
medicaid waiver components in accordance with the provisions of 127709
the approved waivers. The department of job and family services 127710
shall administer the medicaid waiver components.127711

       (D) After the first of any of the medicaid waiver components 127712
createdthat the department administers under this section begins 127713
to enroll eligible individuals, the directordepartment may 127714
submit to the United States secretary of health and human services 127715
an amendment to a medicaid waiver component of the Ohio home care 127716
program authorizing the department to cease enrollingto enroll127717
additional individuals in thata medicaid waiver component of the 127718
Ohio home care program. If the secretary approves the amendment, 127719
the director may cease to enroll additional individuals in that 127720
medicaid waiver component of the Ohio home care program.127721

       Sec. 5111.861.        Sec. 5166.12.  (A) As used in this section:127722

       "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 127723
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.127724

       "Unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver 127725
component" means the medicaid waiver component authorized by 127726
section 5111.864 of the Revised Code.127727

       (B) Subject to division (C) of this section, there is hereby 127728
created the Ohio home care program. The program shall provide home 127729
and community-based services. The department of job and family 127730
services medicaid shall administer the program.127731

       (C) If the unified long-term services and support medicaid 127732
waiver component is created, the departments of aging and job and 127733
family servicesmedicaid shall work togethercollaborate to 127734
determine whether the Ohio home care waiver program should 127735
continue to operate as a separate medicaid waiver component or be 127736
terminated. If the departments determine that the Ohio home care 127737
waiver program should be terminated, the program shall cease to 127738
exist on a date the departments shall specify.127739

       Sec. 5111.862.        Sec. 5166.121.  (A) As used in this section:127740

       "Hospital long-term care unit" has the same meaning as in 127741
section 3721.50 of the Revised Code.127742

       "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5111.20 127743
of the Revised Code.127744

       "Ohio home care program" means the medicaid waiver component 127745
created under section 5111.861 of the Revised Code.127746

       "Residential treatment facility" means a residential facility 127747
licensed by the department of mental health under section 5119.22 127748
of the Revised Code, or an institution certified by the department 127749
of job and family services under section 5103.03 of the Revised 127750
Code, that serves children and either has more than sixteen beds 127751
or is part of a campus of multiple facilities or institutions 127752
that, combined, have a total of more than sixteen beds.127753

       (B) Subject to division (C) ofUnless the Ohio home care 127754
waiver program is terminated pursuant to section 5111.8615165.12127755
of the Revised Code, the department of job and family services127756
medicaid shall establish a home first component for the Ohio home 127757
care waiver program. An individual is eligible for the Ohio home 127758
care waiver program's home first component if the individual has 127759
been determined to be eligible for the Ohio home care waiver127760
program and at least one of the following applies:127761

       (1) If the individual is under twenty-one years of age, the 127762
individual received inpatient hospital services for at least 127763
fourteen consecutive days, or had at least three inpatient 127764
hospital stays during the twelve months, immediately preceding the 127765
date the individual applies for the Ohio home care waiver program.127766

       (2) If the individual is at least twenty-one but less than 127767
sixty years of age, the individual received inpatient hospital 127768
services for at least fourteen consecutive days immediately 127769
preceding the date the individual applies for the Ohio home care 127770
waiver program.127771

       (3) The individual received private duty nursing services 127772
under the medicaid program for at least twelve consecutive months 127773
immediately preceding the date the individual applies for the Ohio 127774
home care waiver program.127775

       (4) The individual does not reside in a nursing facility or 127776
hospital long-term care unit at the time the individual applies 127777
for the Ohio home care waiver program but is at risk of imminent 127778
admission to a nursing facility or hospital long-term care unit 127779
due to a documented loss of a primary caregiver.127780

       (5) The individual resides in a nursing facility at the time 127781
the individual applies for the Ohio home care waiver program.127782

       (6) At the time the individual applies for the Ohio home care 127783
waiver program, the individual participates in the money follows 127784
the person demonstration project authorized by section 6071 of the 127785
"Deficit Reduction Act of 2005," Pub. L. No. 109-171, as amended, 127786
and either resides in a residential treatment facility or 127787
inpatient hospital setting.127788

       (C)(B) An individual determined to be eligible for the home 127789
first component of the Ohio home care waiver program shall be 127790
enrolled in the Ohio home care program in accordance with rules 127791
adopted under section 5111.855166.02 of the Revised Code.127792

       Sec. 5111.863.        Sec. 5166.13. (A) As used in this section:127793

       "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 127794
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.127795

       "Unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver 127796
component" means the medicaid waiver component authorized by 127797
section 5111.864 of the Revised Code.127798

       (B) Subject to division (C) of this section, there is hereby 127799
created the Ohio transitions II aging carve-out program. The 127800
program shall provide home and community-based services. The 127801
department of job and family services shall administer the 127802
program.127803

       (C) If the unified long-term services and support medicaid 127804
waiver component is created, the departments of aging and job and 127805
family servicesmedicaid shall work togethercollaborate to 127806
determine whether the Ohio transitions II aging carve-out program 127807
should continue to operate as a separate medicaid waiver component 127808
or be terminated. If the departments determine that the Ohio 127809
transitions II aging carve-out program should be terminated, the 127810
program shall cease to exist on a date the departments shall 127811
specify.127812

       Sec. 5111.864.        Sec. 5166.14. (A) As used in this section:127813

       "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 127814
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.127815

       "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5111.20 127816
of the Revised Code.127817

       (B) The directordepartment of job and family services127818
medicaid shall submit a request to the United States secretary of 127819
health and human services pursuant to section 1915n of the "Social 127820
Security Act," 95 Stat. 809 (1981), 42 U.S.C. 1396n, as amended, 127821
to obtain approval to create a unified long-term services and 127822
support medicaid waiver component to provide home and 127823
community-based services to eligible individuals of any age who 127824
require the level of care provided by nursing facilities. The 127825
directordepartment of job and family servicesmedicaid shall work127826
collaborate with the directordepartment of aging in seeking 127827
approval of the unified long-term services and support medicaid 127828
waiver component and, if the approval is obtained, in creating and 127829
implementing the component.127830

       If the request to create the unified long-term services and 127831
support medicaid waiver component is approved, theThe medicaid127832
director of job and family services, workingshall collaborate127833
with the director of aging, shall adoptwhen adopting rules under 127834
section 5111.855166.02 of the Revised Code to implement the 127835
component. The rules may authorize the director of aging to adopt 127836
rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 127837
governing aspects of the unified long-term services and support 127838
medicaid waiver component.127839

       Sec. 5111.865.        Sec. 5166.141. (A) As used in this section, 127840
"unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver program" 127841
or "program" means the medicaid waiver component authorized by 127842
section 5111.864 of the Revised Code.127843

       (B) If the United States secretary of health and human 127844
services approves the request submitted under section 5111.864 of 127845
the Revised Code to create the unified long-term services and 127846
support medicaid waiver program, theThe department of job and 127847
family servicesmedicaid shall establish a home first component 127848
for the unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver127849
program. The home first component shall be similar to the home 127850
first component of the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT 127851
program established under section 173.401173.521 of the Revised 127852
Code, the home first component of the Ohio home care program 127853
established under section 5111.862 of the Revised Code, and the 127854
home first component of the medicaid-funded component of the 127855
assisted living program established under section 5111.894173.542127856
of the Revised Code, and the home first component of the Ohio home 127857
care waiver program established under section 5166.121 of the 127858
Revised Code.127859

       Sec. 5166.16.  (A) As used in this section, "ODA or MCD 127860
medicaid waiver component" means all of the following: 127861

       (1) The medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program, 127862
unless it is terminated pursuant to division (C) of section 173.52 127863
of the Revised Code;127864

       (2) The choices program, unless it is terminated pursuant to 127865
division (B) of section 173.53 of the Revised Code;127866

       (3) The medicaid-funded component of the assisted living 127867
program, unless it is terminated pursuant to division (C) of 127868
section 173.54 of the Revised Code;127869

       (4) The Ohio home care waiver program, unless it is 127870
terminated pursuant to section 5166.12 of the Revised Code;127871

       (5) The Ohio transitions II aging carve-out program, unless 127872
it is terminated pursuant to section 5166.13 of the Revised Code.127873

       (B) The medicaid director may create a home and 127874
community-based services medicaid waiver component as part of the 127875
integrated care delivery system. If the ICDS medicaid waiver 127876
component is created, both of the following apply:127877

       (1) The department of medicaid shall administer it;127878

       (2) When it begins to accept enrollments, no ICDS participant 127879
who is eligible for the ICDS medicaid waiver component shall be 127880
enrolled in an ODA or MCD medicaid waiver component regardless of 127881
whether the participant prefers to remain or be enrolled in an ODA 127882
or MCD medicaid waiver component.127883

       (C) A dual eligible individual who is eligible for an ODA or 127884
MCD medicaid waiver component may enroll in the component before 127885
the individual becomes an ICDS participant. The dual eligible 127886
individual shall disenroll from the ODA or MCD medicaid waiver 127887
component and enroll in the ICDS medicaid waiver component once 127888
the individual becomes an ICDS participant and it is possible to 127889
enroll the individual in the ICDS medicaid waiver component. The 127890
disenrollment from the ODA or MCD medicaid waiver component and 127891
enrollment into the ICDS medicaid waiver component shall occur 127892
regardless of whether the individual prefers to remain enrolled in 127893
the ODA or MCD medicaid waiver component.127894

       (D) An ICDS participant's disenrollment from an ODA or MCD 127895
medicaid waiver component and enrollment in the ICDS medicaid 127896
waiver component resulting from division (B)(2) or (C) of this 127897
section shall be accomplished without a disruption in the 127898
participant's services under the components.127899

       Sec. 5111.87.        Sec. 5166.20. (A) As used in this section and section 127900
5111.871 of the Revised Code:127901

       (1) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 127902
has the same meaning as in section 5111.20 of the Revised Code.127903

       (2) "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 127904
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.127905

       (B) The directordepartment of job and family services127906
medicaid may apply to the United States secretary of health and 127907
human services for both ofcreate the following:127908

       (1) One or more medicaid waiver components under which home 127909
and community-based services are provided to individuals with 127910
mental retardation or other developmental disability as an 127911
alternative to placement in an intermediate care facility for the 127912
mentally retardedICFs/IID;127913

        (2) One or more medicaid waiver components under which home 127914
and community-based services are provided in the form of any of 127915
the following:127916

        (a) Early intervention and supportive services for children 127917
under three years of age who have developmental delays or 127918
disabilities the directordepartment determines are significant;127919

        (b) Therapeutic services for children who have autism;127920

        (c) Specialized habilitative services for individuals who are 127921
eighteen years of age or older and have autism. 127922

       (C)(B) No medicaid waiver component authorized bycreated 127923
pursuant to division (B)(A)(2)(b) or (c) of this section shall 127924
provide services that are available under another medicaid waiver 127925
component. No medicaid waiver component authorized bycreated 127926
pursuant to division (B)(A)(2)(b) of this section shall provide 127927
services to an individual that the individual is eligible to 127928
receive through an individualized education program as defined in 127929
section 3323.01 of the Revised Code.127930

        (D)(C) The director of developmental disabilities orand127931
director of health may request that the directordepartment of job 127932
and family services apply formedicaid create one or more medicaid 127933
waiverswaiver components under this section.127934

       (E)(D) Before applying forcreating a medicaid waiver 127935
component under this section, the directordepartment of job and 127936
family servicesmedicaid shall seek, accept, and consider public 127937
comments.127938

       Sec. 5111.871.        Sec. 5166.21.  The department of job and family 127939
servicesmedicaid shall enter into a contract with the department 127940
of developmental disabilities under section 5111.915162.35 of the 127941
Revised Code with regard to one or more of the medicaid waiver 127942
components establishedcreated by the department of job and 127943
family servicesmedicaid under section 5111.875166.20 of the 127944
Revised Code. Subject, if needed, to the approval of the United 127945
States secretary of health and human services, theThe contract 127946
shall include the medicaid waiver component known as the 127947
transitions developmental disabilities waiver. The contract shall 127948
provide for the department of developmental disabilities to 127949
administer the components in accordance with the terms of the 127950
federal medicaid waivers authorizing the components. The contract 127951
shall include a schedule for the department of developmental 127952
disabilities to begin administering the transitions developmental 127953
disabilities waiver. The directors of job and family services and 127954
developmental disabilities shall adopt rules in accordance with 127955
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code governing the components.127956

       If the department of developmental disabilities or the 127957
department of job and family servicesmedicaid denies an 127958
individual's application for home and community-based services 127959
provided under any of these medicaid components, the department 127960
that denied the services shall give timely notice to the 127961
individual that the individual may request a hearing underappeal 127962
pursuant to section 5101.355160.31 of the Revised Code.127963

       The departments of developmental disabilities and job and 127964
family servicesmedicaid may approve, reduce, deny, or terminate a 127965
medicaid service included in the individualized service plan 127966
developed for a medicaid recipient eligible for home and 127967
community-based services provided under any of these medicaid 127968
components. The departments shall consider the recommendations a 127969
county board of developmental disabilities makes under division 127970
(A)(1)(c) of section 5126.055 of the Revised Code. If either 127971
department approves, reduces, denies, or terminates a medicaid127972
service, that department shall give timely notice to the medicaid 127973
recipient that the recipient may request a hearing underappeal 127974
pursuant to section 5101.355160.31 of the Revised Code.127975

       If supported living, as defined in section 5126.01 of the 127976
Revised Code, is to be provided as a medicaid service under any of 127977
these components, any person or government entity with a current, 127978
valid medicaid provider agreement and a current, valid 127979
certificate under section 5123.161 of the Revised Code may provide 127980
the medicaid service.127981

       If a medicaid service is to be provided under any of these 127982
components by a residential facility, as defined in section 127983
5123.19 of the Revised Code, any person or government entity with 127984
a current, valid medicaid provider agreement and a current, valid 127985
license under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code may provide the 127986
medicaid service.127987

       Sec. 5111.872.        Sec. 5166.22.  (A) Subject to division (B) of this 127988
section, when the department of developmental disabilities 127989
allocates enrollment numbers to a county board of developmental 127990
disabilities for home and community-based services specified in 127991
division (B)(A)(1) of section 5111.875166.20 of the Revised Code 127992
and provided under any of the medicaid waiver components that the 127993
department administers under section 5111.8715166.21 of the 127994
Revised Code, the department shall consider all of the following:127995

       (1) The number of individuals with mental retardation or 127996
other developmental disability who are on a waiting list the 127997
county board establishes under section 5126.042 of the Revised 127998
Code for those services and are given priority on the waiting 127999
list;128000

       (2) The implementation component required by division (A)(3) 128001
of section 5126.054 of the Revised Code of the county board's plan 128002
approved under section 5123.046 of the Revised Code;128003

       (3) Anything else the department considers necessary to 128004
enable county boards to provide those services to individuals in 128005
accordance with the priority requirements for waiting lists 128006
established under section 5126.042 of the Revised Code for those 128007
services.128008

       (B) Division (A) of this section applies to home and 128009
community-based services provided under the medicaid waiver 128010
component known as the transitions developmental disabilities 128011
waiver only to the extent, if any, provided by the contract 128012
required by section 5111.8715166.21 of the Revised Code regarding 128013
the waivercomponent.128014

       Sec. 5111.873.        Sec. 5166.23.  (A) Subject to division (D) of this 128015
section, the medicaid director of job and family services shall 128016
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119.under section 5166.02128017
of the Revised Code establishing the amount of reimbursement128018
payment amounts or the methods by which the payment amounts of 128019
reimbursement are to be determined for home and community-based 128020
services specified in division (B)(A)(1) of section 5111.87128021
5166.20 of the Revised Code and provided under the components of 128022
the medicaid program that the department of developmental 128023
disabilities administers under section 5111.8715166.21 of the 128024
Revised Code. With respect to these rules, all of the following 128025
apply:128026

       (1) The rules shall establish procedures for the department 128027
of developmental disabilities to follow in arranging for the 128028
initial and ongoing collection of cost information from a 128029
comprehensive, statistically valid sample of persons and 128030
government entities providing the services at the time the 128031
information is obtained.128032

       (2) The rules shall establish procedures for the collection 128033
of consumer-specific information through an assessment instrument 128034
the department of developmental disabilities shall provide to the 128035
department of job and family servicesmedicaid.128036

       (3) With the information collected pursuant to divisions 128037
(A)(1) and (2) of this section, an analysis of that information, 128038
and other information the director determines relevant, the rules 128039
shall establish reimbursementpayment standards that do all of the 128040
following:128041

       (a) Assure that reimbursement ispayment amounts are128042
consistent with efficiency, economy, and quality of care;128043

       (b) Consider the intensity of consumer resource need;128044

       (c) Recognize variations in different geographic areas 128045
regarding the resources necessary to assure the health and welfare 128046
of consumers;128047

       (d) Recognize variations in environmental supports available 128048
to consumers.128049

       (B) As part of the process of adopting rules underauthorized 128050
by this section, the director shall consult with the director of 128051
developmental disabilities, representatives of county boards of 128052
developmental disabilities, persons who provide the home and 128053
community-based services, and other persons and government 128054
entities the director identifies.128055

       (C) The directors of job and family servicesmedicaid 128056
director and director of developmental disabilities shall review 128057
the rules adopted underauthorized by this section at times they 128058
determine are necessary to ensure that the amount of reimbursement128059
payment amounts or the methods by which the payment amounts of 128060
reimbursement are to be determined continue to meet the 128061
reimbursementpayment standards established under division (A)(3) 128062
of this section.128063

       (D) This section applies to home and community-based services 128064
provided under the medicaid waiver component known as the 128065
transitions developmental disabilities waiver only to the extent, 128066
if any, provided by the contract required by section 5111.871128067
5166.21 of the Revised Code regarding the waivercomponent.128068

       Sec. 5111.88.        Sec. 5166.30.  (A) As used in sections 5111.88128069
5166.30 to 5111.88115166.3010 of the Revised Code:128070

       (1) "Adult" means an individual at least eighteen years of 128071
age.128072

       (2) "Appropriate director" means the following:128073

       (a) The medicaid director in the context of all of the 128074
following:128075

       (i) The Ohio home care waiver program, unless it is 128076
terminated pursuant to section 5166.12 of the Revised Code; 128077

       (ii) The Ohio transitions II aging carve-out program, unless 128078
it is terminated pursuant to section 5166.13 of the Revised Code;128079

       (iii) The integrated care delivery system medicaid waiver 128080
component authorized by section 5166.16 of the Revised Code.128081

       (b) The director of aging in the context of the 128082
medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program, unless it is 128083
terminated pursuant to division (C) of section 173.52 of the 128084
Revised Code.128085

       (3) "Authorized representative" means the following:128086

       (a) In the case of a consumer who is a minor, the consumer's 128087
parent, custodian, or guardian;128088

       (b) In the case of a consumer who is an adult, an individual 128089
selected by the consumer pursuant to section 5111.88105166.3010128090
of the Revised Code to act on the consumer's behalf for purposes 128091
regarding home care attendant services.128092

       (3)(4) "Authorizing health care professional" means a health 128093
care professional who, pursuant to section 5111.8875166.307 of 128094
the Revised Code, authorizes a home care attendant to assist a 128095
consumer with self-administration of medication, nursing tasks, or 128096
both.128097

       (4)(5) "Consumer" means an individual to whom all of the 128098
following apply:128099

       (a) The individual is enrolled in a participating medicaid 128100
waiver component.128101

       (b) The individual has a medically determinable physical 128102
impairment to which both of the following apply:128103

       (i) It is expected to last for a continuous period of not 128104
less than twelve months.128105

       (ii) It causes the individual to require assistance with 128106
activities of daily living, self-care, and mobility, including 128107
either assistance with self-administration of medication or the 128108
performance of nursing tasks, or both.128109

       (c) In the case of an individual who is an adult, the 128110
individual is mentally alert and is, or has an authorized 128111
representative who is, capable of selecting, directing the actions 128112
of, and dismissing a home care attendant.128113

       (d) In the case of an individual who is a minor, the 128114
individual has an authorized representative who is capable of 128115
selecting, directing the actions of, and dismissing a home care 128116
attendant.128117

       (5)(6) "Controlled substance" has the same meaning as in 128118
section 3719.01 of the Revised Code.128119

       (6)(7) "Custodian" has the same meaning as in section 128120
2151.011 of the Revised Code.128121

       (7)(8) "Gastrostomy tube" means a percutaneously inserted 128122
catheter that terminates in the stomach.128123

       (8)(9) "Guardian" has the same meaning as in section 2111.01 128124
of the Revised Code.128125

       (9)(10) "Health care professional" means a physician or 128126
registered nurse.128127

       (10)(11) "Home care attendant" means an individual holding a 128128
valid medicaid provider agreement in accordance with section 128129
5111.8815166.301 of the Revised Code that authorizes the 128130
individual to provide home care attendant services to consumers.128131

       (11)(12) "Home care attendant services" means all of the 128132
following as provided by a home care attendant:128133

       (a) Personal care aide services;128134

       (b) Assistance with the self-administration of medication;128135

       (c) Assistance with nursing tasks.128136

       (12)(13) "Jejunostomy tube" means a percutaneously inserted 128137
catheter that terminates in the jejunum.128138

       (13) "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 128139
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.128140

       (14) "Medication" means a drug as defined in section 4729.01 128141
of the Revised Code.128142

       (15) "Minor" means an individual under eighteen years of age.128143

       (16) "Participating medicaid waiver component" means both128144
all of the following:128145

       (a) The medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program, 128146
unless it is terminated pursuant to division (C) of section 173.52 128147
of the Revised Code;128148

       (b) The Ohio home care waiver program created under, unless 128149
it is terminated pursuant to section 5111.8615166.12 of the 128150
Revised Code;128151

       (b)(c) The Ohio transitions II aging carve-out program 128152
created under, unless it is terminated pursuant to section 128153
5111.8635166.13 of the Revised Code;128154

       (d) The integrated care delivery system medicaid waiver 128155
component authorized by section 5166.16 of the Revised Code.128156

       (17) "Physician" means an individual authorized under Chapter 128157
4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or 128158
osteopathic medicine and surgery.128159

       (18) "Practice of nursing as a registered nurse," "practice 128160
of nursing as a licensed practical nurse," and "registered nurse" 128161
have the same meanings as in section 4723.01 of the Revised Code. 128162
"Registered nurse" includes an advanced practice registered nurse, 128163
as defined in section 4723.01 of the Revised Code.128164

       (19) "Schedule II," "schedule III," "schedule IV," and 128165
"schedule V" have the same meanings as in section 3719.01 of the 128166
Revised Code.128167

       (B) The director of job and family services may submit 128168
requests to the United States secretary of health and human 128169
services to amend the federal medicaid waivers authorizing the 128170
participatingParticipating medicaid waiver components to have 128171
those componentsmay cover home care attendant services in 128172
accordance with sections 5111.885166.30 to 5111.88105166.3010 of 128173
the Revised Code and rules adopted under section 5111.88115166.02128174
of the Revised Code. Notwithstanding sections 5111.881 to 128175
5111.8811 of the Revised Code, those sections shall be implemented 128176
regarding a participating medicaid waiver component only if the 128177
secretary approves a waiver amendment for the component.128178

       Sec. 5111.881.        Sec. 5166.301.  The medicaid director of job and 128179
family services shall enter into a medicaid provider agreement 128180
with an individual to authorize the individual to provide home 128181
care attendant services to consumers if the individual does both 128182
of the following:128183

       (A) Agrees to comply with the requirements of sections 128184
5111.885166.30 to 5111.88105166.3010 and rules adopted under 128185
section 5111.88115166.02 of the Revised Code;128186

       (B) Provides the director evidence satisfactory to the 128187
director of all of the following:128188

       (1) That the individual either meets the personnel 128189
qualifications specified in 42 C.F.R. 484.4 for home health aides 128190
or has successfully completed at least one of the following:128191

       (a) A competency evaluation program or training and 128192
competency evaluation program approved or conducted by the 128193
director of health under section 3721.31 of the Revised Code;128194

       (b) A training program approved by the department of job and 128195
family servicesappropriate director that includes training in at 128196
least all of the following and provides training equivalent to a 128197
training and competency evaluation program specified in division 128198
(B)(1)(a) of this section or meets the requirements of 42 C.F.R. 128199
484.36(a):128200

       (i) Basic home safety;128201

       (ii) Universal precautions for the prevention of disease 128202
transmission, including hand-washing and proper disposal of bodily 128203
waste and medical instruments that are sharp or may produce sharp 128204
pieces if broken;128205

       (iii) Personal care aide services;128206

       (iv) The labeling, counting, and storage requirements for 128207
schedule II, III, IV, and V medications.128208

       (2) That the individual has obtained a certificate of 128209
completion of a course in first aid from a first aid course to 128210
which all of the following apply:128211

       (a) It is not provided solely through the internet.128212

       (b) It includes hands-on training provided by a first aid 128213
instructor who is qualified to provide such training according to 128214
standards set in rules adopted under section 5111.88115166.02 of 128215
the Revised Code.128216

       (c) It requires the individual to demonstrate successfully 128217
that the individual has learned the first aid taught in the 128218
course.128219

       (3) That the individual meets any other requirements for the 128220
medicaid provider agreement specified in rules adopted under 128221
section 5111.88115166.02 of the Revised Code.128222

       Sec. 5111.882.        Sec. 5166.302.  A home care attendant shall complete 128223
not less than twelve hours of in-service continuing education 128224
regarding home care attendant services each year and provide the 128225
appropriate director of job and family services evidence 128226
satisfactory to the appropriate director that the attendant 128227
satisfied this requirement. The evidence shall be submitted to the 128228
appropriate director not later than the annual anniversary of the 128229
issuance of the home care attendant's initial medicaid provider 128230
agreement.128231

       Sec. 5111.883.        Sec. 5166.303.  A home care attendant shall do all 128232
of the following:128233

       (A) Maintain a clinical record for each consumer to whom the 128234
attendant provides home care attendant services in a manner that 128235
protects the consumer's privacy;128236

       (B) Participate in a face-to-face visit every ninety days 128237
with all of the following to monitor the health and welfare of 128238
each of the consumers to whom the attendant provides home care 128239
attendant services:128240

       (1) The consumer;128241

       (2) The consumer's authorized representative, if any;128242

       (3) A registered nurse who agrees to answer any questions 128243
that the attendant, consumer, or authorized representative has 128244
about consumer care needs, medications, and other issues.128245

       (C) Document the activities of each visit required by 128246
division (B) of this section in the consumer's clinical record 128247
with the assistance of the registered nurse.128248

       Sec. 5111.884.        Sec. 5166.304.  (A) A home care attendant may assist 128249
a consumer with nursing tasks or self-administration of medication 128250
only after the attendant does both of the following:128251

       (1) Subject to division (B) of this section, completes 128252
consumer-specific training in how to provide the assistance that 128253
the authorizing health care professional authorizes the attendant 128254
to provide to the consumer;128255

       (2) At the request of the consumer, consumer's authorized 128256
representative, or authorizing health care professional, 128257
successfully demonstrates that the attendant has learned how to 128258
provide the authorized assistance to the consumer.128259

       (B) The training required by division (A)(1) of this section 128260
shall be provided by either of the following:128261

       (1) The authorizing health care professional;128262

       (2) The consumer or consumer's authorized representative in 128263
cooperation with the authorizing health care professional.128264

       Sec. 5111.885.        Sec. 5166.305.  A home care attendant shall comply 128265
with both of the following when assisting a consumer with nursing 128266
tasks or self-administration of medication:128267

       (A) The written consent of the consumer or consumer's 128268
authorized representative provided to the appropriate director of 128269
job and family services under section 5111.8865166.306 of the 128270
Revised Code;128271

       (B) The authorizing health care professional's written 128272
authorization provided to the appropriate director under section 128273
5111.8875166.307 of the Revised Code.128274

       Sec. 5111.886.        Sec. 5166.306.  To consent to a home care attendant 128275
assisting a consumer with nursing tasks or self-administration of 128276
medication, the consumer or consumer's authorized representative 128277
shall provide the appropriate director of job and family services128278
a written statement signed by the consumer or authorized 128279
representative under which the consumer or authorized 128280
representative consents to both of the following:128281

       (A) Having the attendant assist the consumer with nursing 128282
tasks or self-administration of medication;128283

       (B) Assuming responsibility for directing the attendant when 128284
the attendant assists the consumer with nursing tasks or 128285
self-administration of medication.128286

       Sec. 5111.887.        Sec. 5166.307.  To authorize a home care attendant 128287
to assist a consumer with nursing tasks or self-administration of 128288
medication, a health care professional shall provide the 128289
appropriate director of job and family services a written 128290
statement signed by the health care professional that includes all 128291
of the following:128292

       (A) The consumer's name and address;128293

       (B) A description of the nursing tasks or self-administration 128294
of medication with which the attendant is to assist the consumer, 128295
including, in the case of assistance with self-administration of 128296
medication, the name and dosage of the medication;128297

       (C) The times or intervals when the attendant is to assist 128298
the consumer with the self-administration of each dosage of the 128299
medication or nursing tasks;128300

       (D) The dates the attendant is to begin and cease providing 128301
the assistance;128302

       (E) A list of severe adverse reactions the attendant must 128303
report to the health care professional should the consumer 128304
experience one or more of the reactions;128305

       (F) At least one telephone number at which the attendant can 128306
reach the health care professional in an emergency;128307

       (G) Instructions the attendant is to follow when assisting 128308
the consumer with nursing tasks or self-administration of 128309
medication, including instructions for maintaining sterile 128310
conditions and for storage of task-related equipment and supplies;128311

       (H) The health care professional's attestation of both of the 128312
following:128313

       (1) That the consumer or consumer's authorized representative 128314
has demonstrated to the health care professional the ability to 128315
direct the attendant;128316

       (2) That the attendant has demonstrated to the health care 128317
professional the ability to provide the consumer assistance with 128318
nursing tasks or self-administration of medication that the health 128319
care professional has specifically authorized the attendant to 128320
provide and that the consumer or consumer's authorized 128321
representative has indicated to the health care professional that 128322
the consumer or authorized representative is satisfied with the 128323
attendant's demonstration.128324

       Sec. 5111.888.        Sec. 5166.308.  When authorizing a home care 128325
attendant to assist a consumer with nursing tasks or 128326
self-administration of medication, a health care professional may 128327
not authorize a home care attendant to do any of the following:128328

       (A) Perform a task that is outside of the health care 128329
professional's scope of practice;128330

       (B) Assist the consumer with the self-administration of a 128331
medication, including a schedule II, schedule III, schedule IV, or 128332
schedule V drug unless both of the following apply:128333

        (1) The medication is administered orally, topically, or via 128334
a gastrostomy tube or jejunostomy tube, including through any of 128335
the following:128336

        (a) In the case of an oral medication, a metered dose 128337
inhaler;128338

        (b) In the case of a topical medication, including a 128339
transdermal medication, either of the following:128340

        (i) An eye, ear, or nose drop or spray;128341

        (ii) A vaginal or rectal suppository.128342

        (c) In the case of a gastrostomy tube or jejunostomy tube, 128343
only through a pre-programmed pump.128344

        (2) The medication is in its original container and the label 128345
attached to the container displays all of the following:128346

       (a) The consumer's full name in print;128347

       (b) The medication's dispensing date, which must not be more 128348
than twelve months before the date the attendant assists the 128349
consumer with self-administration of the medication;128350

       (c) The exact dosage and means of administration that match 128351
the health care professional's authorization to the attendant.128352

       (C) Assist the consumer with the self-administration of a 128353
schedule II, schedule III, schedule IV, or schedule V medication 128354
unless, in addition to meeting the requirements of division (B) of 128355
this section, all of the following apply:128356

       (1) The medication has a warning label on its container.128357

       (2) The attendant counts the medication in the consumer's or 128358
authorized representative's presence when the medication is 128359
administered to the consumer and records the count on a form used 128360
for the count as specified in rules adopted under section 128361
5111.88115166.02 of the Revised Code.128362

       (3) The attendant recounts the medication in the consumer's 128363
or authorized representative's presence at least monthly and 128364
reconciles the recount on a log located in the consumer's clinical 128365
record.128366

       (4) The medication is stored separately from all other 128367
medications and is secured and locked at all times when not being 128368
administered to the consumer to prevent unauthorized access.128369

       (D) Perform an intramuscular injection;128370

       (E) Perform a subcutaneous injection unless it is for a 128371
routine dose of insulin;128372

       (F) Program a pump used to deliver a medication unless the 128373
pump is used to deliver a routine dose of insulin;128374

       (G) Insert, remove, or discontinue an intravenous access 128375
device;128376

       (H) Engage in intravenous medication administration;128377

       (I) Insert or initiate an infusion therapy;128378

       (J) Perform a central line dressing change.128379

       Sec. 5111.889.        Sec. 5166.309.  A home care attendant who provides 128380
home care attendant services to a consumer in accordance with the 128381
authorizing health care professional's authorization does not 128382
engage in the practice of nursing as a registered nurse or in the 128383
practice of nursing as a licensed practical nurse in violation of 128384
section 4723.03 of the Revised Code.128385

       A consumer or the consumer's authorized representative shall 128386
report to the appropriate director of job and family services if a 128387
home care attendant engages in the practice of nursing as a 128388
registered nurse or the practice of nursing as a licensed 128389
practical nurse beyond the authorizing health care professional's 128390
authorization. The appropriate director shall forward a copy of 128391
each report to the board of nursing.128392

       Sec. 5111.8810.        Sec. 5166.3010.  A consumer who is an adult may 128393
select an individual to act on the consumer's behalf for purposes 128394
regarding home care attendant services by submitting a written 128395
notice of the consumer's selection of an authorized representative 128396
to the appropriate director of job and family services. The 128397
notice shall specifically identify the individual the consumer 128398
selects as authorized representative and may limit what the 128399
authorized representative may do on the consumer's behalf 128400
regarding home care attendant services. A consumer may not select 128401
the consumer's home care attendant to be the consumer's authorized 128402
representative.128403

       Sec. 5111.97.        Sec. 5166.35.  (A) As used in this section:128404

       (1) "Home and community-based services medicaid waiver 128405
component" has the same meaning as in section 5111.85 of the 128406
Revised Code.128407

       (2) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 128408
5111.20 of the Revised Code.128409

       (B) To the extent funds are available, theThe medicaid128410
director of job and family services may establish the Ohio access 128411
success project to help medicaid recipients make the transition 128412
from residing in a nursing facilityfacilities to residing in a128413
community settingsettings. The project may be established as a 128414
separate nonmedicaid program or integrated into a new or existing 128415
home and community-based services medicaid waiver component. The 128416
director shall permit any medicaid recipient of medicaid-funded128417
receiving nursing facility services to apply for participation in 128418
the project, but may limit the number of project participants. 128419

       The director shall ensure that an assessment of an applicant 128420
is conducted as soon as practicable to determine whether the 128421
applicant is eligible for participation in the project. To the 128422
maximum extent possible, the assessment and eligibility 128423
determination shall be completed not later than the date that 128424
occurs six months after the applicant became a recipient of 128425
medicaid-fundedbegins to receive nursing facility services.128426

       (C)(B) To be eligible for benefits under the project, a 128427
medicaid recipient must satisfy all of the following requirements:128428

       (1) The medicaid recipient must be a recipient of 128429
medicaid-fundedreceiving nursing facility services, at the time 128430
of applying for the project benefits.128431

       (2) If the project is established as a nonmedicaid program, 128432
the medicaid recipient must be able to remain in the community as 128433
a result of receiving project benefits and the projected cost of 128434
the benefits to the project does not exceed eighty per cent of the 128435
average monthly medicaid cost of a medicaid recipient in a nursing 128436
facility.128437

       (3) If the project is integrated into a home and 128438
community-based services medicaid waiver component, the medicaid 128439
recipient must meet the waiver component's enrollment criteria.128440

        (D)(C) If the director establishes the Ohio access success 128441
project, the benefits provided under the project may include 128442
payment of all of the following:128443

       (1) The first month's rent in a community setting;128444

       (2) Rental deposits;128445

       (3) Utility deposits;128446

       (4) Moving expenses;128447

       (5) Other expenses not covered by the medicaid program that 128448
facilitate a medicaid recipient's move from a nursing facility to 128449
a community setting.128450

       (E)(D) If the project is established as a nonmedicaid 128451
program, no participant may receive more than two thousand 128452
dollars' worth of benefits under the project.128453

       (F)(E) If the department of job and family servicesmedicaid128454
enters into a contract with an entity to provide fiscal management 128455
services regarding the project, the contract may provide for a 128456
portion of a participant's benefits under the project to be paid 128457
to the contracting entity. The contract shall specify the portion 128458
to be paid to the contracting entity.128459

       (G) The director may submit a request to the United States 128460
secretary of health and human services pursuant to section 1915 of 128461
the "Social Security Act," 95 Stat. 809 (1981), 42 U.S.C. 1396n, 128462
as amended, to create a home and community-based services medicaid 128463
waiver component to serve individuals who meet the criteria for 128464
participation in the Ohio access success project.128465

       (H)(F) The director may adopt rules in accordance with 128466
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for the administration and 128467
operation of the project. If the project is integrated into a home 128468
and community-based services medicaid waiver component, the rules 128469
shall be adopted under section 5111.855166.02 of the Revised 128470
Code.128471

       Sec. 5167.01.  As used in this chapter:128472

       (A) "Controlled substance" has the same meaning as in section 128473
3719.01 of the Revised Code.128474

       (B) "Dual eligible individual" has the same meaning as in 128475
section 5160.01 of the Revised Code.128476

       (C) "Emergency services" has the same meaning as in the 128477
"Social Security Act," section 1932(b)(2), 42 U.S.C. 128478
1396u-2(b)(2).128479

       (D) "Home and community-based services medicaid waiver 128480
component" has the same meaning as in section 5166.01 of the 128481
Revised Code.128482

       (E) "Medicaid managed care organization" means a managed care 128483
organization under contract with the department of medicaid 128484
pursuant to section 5167.10 of the Revised Code.128485

       (F) "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 128486
section 5166.01 of the Revised Code.128487

       (G) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 128488
5165.01 of the Revised Code.128489

       (H) "Prescribed drug" has the same meaning as in section 128490
5164.01 of the Revised Code.128491

        (I) "Provider" means any person or government entity that 128492
furnishes services to a medicaid recipient enrolled in a medicaid 128493
managed care organization, regardless of whether the person or 128494
entity has a provider agreement.128495

       (J) "Provider agreement" has the same meaning as in section 128496
5164.01 of the Revised Code.128497

       Sec. 5167.02.  The medicaid director shall adopt rules as 128498
necessary to implement this chapter. The rules shall be adopted in 128499
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.128500

       Sec. 5111.16.        Sec. 5167.03. (A) As part of the medicaid program, 128501
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall establish 128502
a care management system. The department shall submit, if 128503
necessary, applications to the United States department of health 128504
and human services for waivers of federal medicaid requirements 128505
that would otherwise be violated in the implementation of the 128506
system.128507

       (B) The department shall implement the care management system 128508
in some or all counties and shall designate the medicaid 128509
recipients who are required or permitted to participate in the 128510
system. In the department's implementation of the system and 128511
designation of participants, all of the following apply:128512

       (1) In the case of individuals who receive medicaid on the 128513
basis of being included in the category identified by the 128514
department as covered families and children, the department shall 128515
implement the care management system in all counties. All 128516
individuals included in the category shall be designated for 128517
participation, except for individuals included in one or more of 128518
the medicaid recipient groups specified in 42 C.F.R. 438.50(d). 128519
The department shall ensure that all participants are enrolled in 128520
medicaid managed care organizations that are health insuring 128521
corporations under contract with the department pursuant to 128522
section 5111.17 of the Revised Code.128523

       (2) In the case of individuals who receive medicaid on the 128524
basis of being aged, blind, or disabled, as specified in division 128525
(C)(2) of section 5111.01 of the Revised Code, the department 128526
shall implement the care management system in all counties. Except 128527
as provided in division (C) of this section, all individuals 128528
included in the category shall be designated for participation. 128529
The department shall ensure that all participants are enrolled in 128530
medicaid managed care organizations that are health insuring 128531
corporations under contract with the department pursuant to 128532
section 5111.17 of the Revised Code.128533

        (3) Alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 128534
covered by medicaid shall not be included in any component of the 128535
care management system when the nonfederal share of the cost of 128536
those services is provided by a board of alcohol, drug addiction, 128537
and mental health services or a state agency other than the 128538
department of job and family servicesmedicaid, but the recipients 128539
of those services may otherwise be designated for participation in 128540
the system.128541

        (C)(1) In designating participants who receive medicaid on 128542
the basis of being aged, blind, or disabled, the department shall 128543
not include any of the following, except as provided under 128544
division (C)(2) of this section:128545

        (a) Individuals who are under twenty-one years of age;128546

        (b) Individuals who are institutionalized;128547

        (c) Individuals who become eligible for medicaid by spending 128548
down their income or resources to a level that meets the medicaid 128549
program's financial eligibility requirements;128550

        (d) Individuals who are duallyDual eligible under the 128551
medicaid program and the medicare program established under Title 128552
XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 128553
1395, as amendedindividuals;128554

        (e) Individuals to the extent that they are receiving 128555
medicaid services through a medicaid waiver component, as defined 128556
in section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.128557

       (2) If any necessary waiver of federal medicaid requirements 128558
is granted, theThe department may designate any of the following 128559
individuals who receive medicaid on the basis of being aged, 128560
blind, or disabled as individuals who are permitted or required to 128561
participate in the care management system:128562

       (a) Individuals who are under twenty-one years of age;128563

        (b) Individuals who reside in a nursing facility, as defined 128564
in section 5111.20 of the Revised Code;128565

       (c) Individuals who, as an alternative to receiving nursing 128566
facility services, are participating in a home and community-based 128567
services medicaid waiver component, as defined in section 5111.85 128568
of the Revised Code;128569

       (d) Individuals who are duallyDual eligible under the 128570
medicaid program and the medicare programindividuals.128571

       (D) Subject to division (B) of this section, the department 128572
may do both of the following under the care management system:128573

       (1) Require or permit participants in the system to obtain 128574
health care services from providers designated by the department;128575

       (2) Require or permit participants in the system to obtain 128576
health care services through medicaid managed care organizations 128577
under contract with the department pursuant to section 5111.17 of 128578
the Revised Code.128579

       (E)(1) The department shall prepare an annual report on the 128580
care management system. The report shall address the department's 128581
ability to implement the system, including all of the following 128582
components:128583

       (a) The required designation of participants included in the 128584
category identified by the department as covered families and 128585
children;128586

       (b) The required designation of participants included in the 128587
aged, blind, or disabled category of medicaid recipients;128588

       (c) The use of any programs for enhanced care management.128589

       (2) The department shall submit each annual report to the 128590
general assembly. The first report shall be submitted not later 128591
than October 1, 2007.128592

       (F) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 128593
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement 128594
this section.128595

       Sec. 5111.161.        Sec. 5167.031.  (A) As used in this section:128596

       (1) "Children's care network" means any of the following:128597

       (a) A children's hospital;128598

       (b) A group of children's hospitals;128599

       (c) A group of pediatric physicians.128600

       (2) "Children's hospital" has the same meaning as in section 128601
2151.86 of the Revised Code.128602

       (B) If the department of job and family servicesmedicaid128603
includes in the care management system, pursuant to section 128604
5111.165167.03 of the Revised Code, individuals under twenty-one 128605
years of age who are included in the category of individuals who 128606
receive medicaid on the basis of being aged, blind, or disabled, 128607
as specified in division (C)(2) of section 5111.01 of the Revised 128608
Code, the department shall develop a system tomay recognize 128609
entities as pediatric accountable care organizations. The purpose 128610
of the recognition system shall be to meet the complex medical and 128611
behavioral needs of disabled children through new approaches to 128612
care coordination. The department shall implement the recognition 128613
system not later than July 1, 2012.128614

       An entity recognized by the department as a pediatric 128615
accountable care organization may develop innovative partnerships 128616
between relevant groups and may contract directly or subcontract 128617
with the state to provide care coordination and other services to 128618
the medicaid recipients under twenty-one years of age described in 128619
this division who are permitted or required to participate in the 128620
care management system. 128621

       (C)(1) To be recognized by the department as a pediatric 128622
accountable care organization, an entity shall meet the standards 128623
established in rules adopted under this sectionby the department. 128624
Unless required by sectionssection 2706 and 3022 of the "Patient 128625
Protection and Affordable Care Act," 124 Stat. 325 (2010) and 128626
Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 124 Stat. 395 (2010)128627
section 1895, 42 U.S.C. 1395jjj, the regulations adopted pursuant 128628
to those sections, and the laws of this state, the department 128629
shall not require that an entity be a health insuring corporation 128630
as a condition of receiving the department's recognition.128631

       (2) Any of the following entities may receive the 128632
department's recognition, if the standards for recognition have 128633
been met:128634

       (a) A children's care network;128635

       (b) A children's care network that may include one or more 128636
other entities, including, but not limited to, health insuring 128637
corporations or other managed care organizations;128638

       (c) Any other entity the department determines is qualified.128639

       (D) The departmentmedicaid director shall consult with all 128640
of the following in adopting rules underauthorized by division 128641
(E) of this section necessary for an entity to be recognized by 128642
the department as a pediatric accountable care organization:128643

       (1) The superintendent of insurance;128644

       (2) Children's hospitals;128645

       (3) ManagedMedicaid managed care organizations under 128646
contract pursuant to section 5111.17 of the Revised Code;128647

       (4) Any other relevant entities, as determined necessary by 128648
the department, with interests in pediatric accountable care 128649
organizations.128650

       (E) The department shall adopt rules in accordance with 128651
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this 128652
section. In adopting the rules under section 5167.02 of the 128653
Revised Code, the departmentmedicaid director shall do all of the 128654
following:128655

       (1) Establish application procedures to be followed by an 128656
entity seeking recognition as a pediatric accountable care 128657
organization;128658

       (2) Ensure that the standards for recognition as a pediatric 128659
accountable care organization are the same as and do not conflict 128660
with those specified in sectionssection 2706 and 3022 of the 128661
"Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act," 124 Stat. 325 (2010) 128662
and Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 124 Stat. 395 128663
(2010)section 1895, 42 U.S.C. 1395jjj or the regulations adopted 128664
pursuant to those sections;128665

       (3) Establish requirements regarding the access to pediatric 128666
specialty care provided through or by a pediatric accountable care 128667
organization;128668

       (4) Establish accountability and financial requirements for 128669
an entity recognized as a pediatric accountable care organization;128670

       (5) Establish quality improvement initiatives consistent with 128671
any state medicaid quality plan established by the department;128672

       (6) Establish transparency and consumer protection 128673
requirements for an entity recognized as a pediatric accountable 128674
care organization;128675

       (7) Establish a process for sharing data.128676

       (F) This section does not limit the authority of the 128677
department of insurance to regulate the business of insurance in 128678
this state.128679

       Sec. 5111.17.        Sec. 5167.10.  (A) The department of job and family 128680
servicesmedicaid may enter into contracts with managed care 128681
organizations, including health insuring corporations, under which 128682
the organizations are authorized to provide, or arrange for the 128683
provision of, health care services to medical assistancemedicaid128684
recipients who are required or permitted to obtain health care 128685
services through managed care organizations as part of the care 128686
management system established under section 5111.165167.03 of the 128687
Revised Code.128688

       (B) The(1) Subject to division (B)(2)(a) of this section, 128689
the department or its actuary shall base the hospital inpatient 128690
capital payment portion of the payment made to managed care 128691
organizations on data for services provided to all recipients 128692
enrolled in managed care organizations with which the department 128693
contracts, as reported by hospitals on relevant cost reports 128694
submitted pursuant to rules adopted under this section 5167.02 of 128695
the Revised Code.128696

       (2)(a) The hospital inpatient capital payment portion of the 128697
payment made to medicaid managed care organizations shall not 128698
exceed any maximum rate established by the department pursuant to 128699
rules adopted under this section.128700

        (b) If a maximum rate is established, a medicaid managed care 128701
organization shall not compensate hospitals for inpatient capital 128702
costs in an amount that exceeds that rate. 128703

       (C) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 128704
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement 128705
this section. 128706

       (D) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 128707
allow a medicaid managed care organization to use providers to 128708
render care upon completion of the medicaid managed care 128709
organization's credentialing process.128710

       Sec. 5111.177.        Sec. 5167.11.  When contracting under section 128711
5111.175167.10 of the Revised Code with a health insuring 128712
corporation that holds a certificate of authority under Chapter 128713
1751. of the Revised Code, the department of job and family 128714
servicesmedicaid shall require the health insuring corporation to 128715
provide a grievance process for medicaid recipients in accordance 128716
with 42 C.F.R. 438, subpart F.128717

       Sec. 5111.172.        Sec. 5167.12.  (A) When contracting under section 128718
5111.175167.10 of the Revised Code with a managed care 128719
organization that is a health insuring corporation, the department 128720
of job and family servicesmedicaid shall require the health 128721
insuring corporation to provide coverage of prescription128722
prescribed drugs for medicaid recipients enrolled in the health 128723
insuring corporation. In providing the required coverage, the 128724
health insuring corporation may, subject to the department's 128725
approval and the limitations specified in division (B) of this 128726
section, use strategies for the management of drug utilization.128727

       (B) The department shall not permit a health insuring 128728
corporation to impose a prior authorization requirement in the 128729
case of a drug to which all of the following apply:128730

       (1) The drug is an antidepressant or antipsychotic.128731

       (2) The drug is administered or dispensed in a standard 128732
tablet or capsule form, except that in the case of an 128733
antipsychotic, the drug also may be administered or dispensed in a 128734
long-acting injectable form.128735

       (3) The drug is prescribed by either of the following:128736

       (a) A physician whom the health insuring corporation, 128737
pursuant to division (C) of section 5111.175167.10 of the Revised 128738
Code, has credentialed to provide care as a psychiatrist;128739

       (b) A psychiatrist practicing at a community mental health 128740
agencyservices provider certified by the department of mental 128741
healthmental health and addiction services under section 128742
5119.6115119.36 of the Revised Code.128743

       (4) The drug is prescribed for a use that is indicated on the 128744
drug's labeling, as approved by the federal food and drug 128745
administration.128746

       (C) As used in this division, "controlled substance" has the 128747
same meaning as in section 3719.01 of the Revised Code.128748

        The department shall permit a health insuring corporation to 128749
develop and implement a pharmacy utilization management program 128750
under which prior authorization through the program is established 128751
as a condition of obtaining a controlled substance pursuant to a 128752
prescription.128753

       Sec. 5111.179.        Sec. 5167.13.  Each contract the department of job 128754
and family servicesmedicaid enters into with a managed care 128755
organization under section 5111.175167.10 of the Revised Code 128756
shall require the managed care organization to implement a 128757
coordinated services program for medicaid recipients enrolled in 128758
the organization who are found to have obtained prescription128759
prescribed drugs under the medicaid program at a frequency or in 128760
an amount that is not medically necessary. The program shall be 128761
implemented in a manner that is consistent with section 1915(a)(2) 128762
of the "Social Security Act," 95 Stat. 810 (1981)section 128763
1915(a)(2), 42 U.S.C. 1396n(a)(2), as amended, and 42 C.F.R. 128764
431.54(e).128765

       Sec. 5111.1710.        Sec. 5167.14.  Each contract the department of job 128766
and family servicesmedicaid enters into with a managed care 128767
organization under section 5111.175167.10 of the Revised Code 128768
shall require the managed care organization to enter into a data 128769
security agreement with the state board of pharmacy governing the 128770
managed care organization's use of the board's drug database 128771
established and maintained under section 4729.75 of the Revised 128772
Code.128773

       This section does not apply if the board no longer maintains 128774
the drug database.128775

       Sec. 5111.162.        Sec. 5167.20.  (A) As used in this section:128776

       (1) "Emergency services" has the same meaning as in section 128777
1932(b)(2) of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 128778
U.S.C. 1396u-2(b)(2), as amended.128779

       (2) "Medicaid managed care organization" means a managed care 128780
organization that has entered into a contract with the department 128781
of job and family services pursuant to section 5111.17 of the 128782
Revised Code.128783

       (B) Except as provided in division (C)(B) of this section, 128784
when a participant in the care management system established under 128785
section 5111.16 of the Revised Codethis chapter is enrolled in a 128786
medicaid managed care organization and the organization refers the 128787
participant to receive services, other than emergency services 128788
provided on or after January 1, 2007, at a hospital that 128789
participates in the medicaid program but is not under contract 128790
with the organization, the hospital shall provide the service for 128791
which the referral was made and shall accept from the 128792
organization, as payment in full, the amount derived from the 128793
reimbursementpayment rate used by the department to reimbursepay128794
other hospitals of the same type for providing the same service to 128795
a medicaid recipient who is not enrolled in a medicaid managed 128796
care organization.128797

       (C)(B) A hospital is not subject to division (B)(A) of this 128798
section if all of the following are the case:128799

        (1) The hospital is located in a county in which participants 128800
in the care management system are required before January 1, 2006, 128801
to be enrolled in a medicaid managed care organization that is a 128802
health insuring corporation;128803

        (2) The hospital has entered into a contract before January 128804
1, 2006, with at least one health insuring corporation serving the 128805
participants specified in division (C)(B)(1) of this section;128806

        (3) The hospital remains under contract with at least one 128807
health insuring corporation serving participants in the care 128808
management system who are required to be enrolled in a health 128809
insuring corporation.128810

       (D)(C) The medicaid director of job and family services shall 128811
adopt rules under section 5167.02 of the Revised Code specifying 128812
the circumstances under which a medicaid managed care organization 128813
is permitted to refer a participant in the care management system 128814
to a hospital that is not under contract with the organization. 128815
The director may adopt any other rules necessary to implement this 128816
section. All rules adopted under this section shall be adopted in 128817
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.128818

       Sec. 5111.163.        Sec. 5167.201. (A) As used in this section:128819

       (1) "Emergency services" has the same meaning as in section 128820
1932(b)(2) of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 128821
U.S.C. 1396u-2(b)(2), as amended.128822

       (2) "Medicaid managed care organization" has the same meaning 128823
as in section 5111.162 of the Revised Code.128824

       (3) "Provider" means any person, institution, or entity that 128825
furnishes emergency services to a medicaid recipient enrolled in a 128826
medicaid managed care organization, regardless of whether the 128827
person, institution, or entity has a provider agreement with the 128828
department of job and family services pursuant to Title XIX of the 128829
"Social Security Act."128830

       (B) When a participant in the care management system 128831
established under section 5111.16 of the Revised Codethis chapter128832
is enrolled in a medicaid managed care organization and receives 128833
emergency services on or after January 1, 2007, from a provider 128834
that is not under contract with the organization, the provider 128835
shall accept from the organization, as payment in full, not more 128836
than the amounts (less any payments for indirect costs of medical 128837
education and direct costs of graduate medical education) that the 128838
provider could collect if the participant received medicaid other 128839
than through enrollment in a managed care organization.128840

       An agreement entered into by a participant, a participant's 128841
parent, or a participant's legal guardian that requires payment 128842
for emergency services in violation of this section is void and 128843
unenforceable.128844

       Sec. 5111.982.        Sec. 5167.21.  (A) As used in this section:128845

       (1) "Covered skilled nursing facility services" has the same 128846
meaning as in the "Social Security Act," section 1888(e)(2)(A), 42 128847
U.S.C. 1395yy(e)(2)(A).128848

       (2) "Current medicare fee-for-service rate" means the 128849
fee-for-service rate in effect for a covered skilled nursing 128850
facility service under medicare at the time the service is 128851
provided.128852

       (3) "Skilled nursing facility" has the same meaning as in the 128853
"Social Security Act," section 1819(a), 42 U.S.C. 1395i-3(a).128854

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, a 128855
medicaid managed care organization shall pay a skilled nursing 128856
facility at least the current medicare fee-for-service rate, 128857
without deduction for any coinsurance, for covered skilled nursing 128858
facility services that the skilled nursing facility provides to a 128859
dual eligible individual if the medicaid managed care organization 128860
is responsible for the payment under the terms of a contract that 128861
the medicaid managed care organization, medical assistance128862
medicaid director, and United States secretary of health and human 128863
services jointly enter into under the integrated care delivery 128864
system authorized by section 5111.9815164.91 of the Revised Code.128865

       (C) A medicaid managed care organization is required to pay 128866
the rate specified in division (B) of this section for covered 128867
skilled nursing facility services only if all of the following 128868
apply:128869

       (1) The United States secretary agrees to the payment rate as 128870
part of the contract that the medicaid managed care organization, 128871
medical assistancemedicaid director, and United States secretary 128872
jointly enter into under the integrated care delivery system;128873

       (2) The medicaid managed care organization receives a federal 128874
capitation payment that is an actuarially sufficient amount for 128875
the costs that the medicaid managed care organization incurs in 128876
paying the rate;128877

       (3) No state funds are used for any part of the costs that 128878
the medicaid managed care organization incurs in paying the rate;128879

       (4) The integrated care delivery system provides for dual 128880
eligible individuals to receive the covered skilled nursing 128881
facility services as part of the system.128882

       Sec. 5111.178.        Sec. 5167.25. (A) The medicaid director of job and 128883
family services shall determine whether a waiver of federal 128884
medicaid requirements is necessary to fulfill the requirements of 128885
section 3901.3814 of the Revised Code. If the director determines 128886
a waiver is necessary, the department of job and family services128887
medicaid shall apply to the United States secretary of health and 128888
human services for the waiver.128889

       (B)(1) If the director determines that section 3901.3814 of 128890
the Revised Code can be implemented without a waiver or a waiver 128891
is granted, the department shall notify the department of 128892
insurance that the section can be implemented. Implementation of 128893
the section shall be effective eighteen months after the notice is 128894
sent.128895

        (2) At the time the notice is given under division (B)(1) of 128896
this section, the department shall also give notice to each health 128897
insuring corporation that provides coverage to medicaid 128898
recipients. The notice shall inform the corporation that sections 128899
3901.38 and 3901.381 to 3901.3814 of the Revised Code apply to 128900
claims for services rendered to recipients on the date determined 128901
under division (B)(1) of this section, instead of the prompt 128902
payment requirements of 42 C.F.R. 447.46. That date shall be 128903
specified in the notice.128904

       Sec. 5111.175.        Sec. 5167.26. For the purpose of determining the 128905
amount the department of job and family servicesmedicaid pays 128906
hospitals under section 5112.085168.09 of the Revised Code and 128907
the amount of disproportionate share hospital payments paid by the 128908
medicare program established under Title XVIII ofpursuant to the 128909
"Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965)section 1915, 42 U.S.C. 128910
1396n, as amended, a medicaid managed care organization under 128911
contract with the department pursuant to section 5111.17 of the 128912
Revised Code authorizing the organization to provide, or arrange 128913
for the provision of, hospital services to medicaid recipients128914
shall keep detailed records for each hospital with which it 128915
contracts about, including records regarding the cost to the 128916
hospital of providing thehospital services for the organization, 128917
payments made by the organization to the hospital for the 128918
services, utilization of hospital services by medicaid recipients 128919
enrolled in the organization, and other utilization data required 128920
by the department.128921

       Sec. 5111.1711.        Sec. 5167.30.  (A)(1) The department of job and 128922
family servicesmedicaid shall establish a managed care 128923
performance payment program. Under the program, the department may 128924
provide payments to medicaid managed care organizations under 128925
contract with the department pursuant to section 5111.17 of the 128926
Revised Code that meet performance standards established by the 128927
department.128928

       (2) In establishing performance standards, the department may 128929
consult any of the following:128930

       (a) Any quality measurements developed under the pediatric 128931
quality measures program established pursuant to the "Social 128932
Security Act," section 1139A, 42 U.S.C. 1320b-9a;128933

       (b) Any core set of adult health quality measures for 128934
medicaid eligible adults used for purposes of the "Social Security 128935
Act," section 1139A, 42 U.S.C. 1320b-9b, and any adult health 128936
quality used for purposes of the medicaid quality measurement 128937
program when the program is established under 42 U.S.C. 1320b-9b128938
that section of the "Social Security Act";128939

       (c) The most recent healthcare effectiveness data and 128940
information set and quality measurement tool established by the 128941
national committee for quality assurance.128942

       (3) The standards that must be met to receive the payments 128943
may be specified in the contract the department enters into with a 128944
medicaid managed care organization.128945

       (4) If a medicaid managed care organization meets the 128946
performance standards established by the department, the 128947
department shall make one or more performance payments to the 128948
organization. The amount of each performance payment, the number 128949
of payments, and the schedule for making the payments shall be 128950
established by the department. The payments shall be discontinued 128951
if the department determines that the organization no longer meets 128952
the performance standards. The department shall not make or 128953
discontinue payments based on any performance standard that has 128954
been in effect as part of the organization's contract for less 128955
than six months.128956

       (B) For purposes of the program, the department shall 128957
establish an amount that is to be withheld each time a premium 128958
payment is made to a medicaid managed care organization. The 128959
amount shall be established as a percentage of each premium 128960
payment. The percentage shall be the same for all medicaid managed 128961
care organizations under contract with the department. The sum of 128962
all withholdings under this division shall not exceed onetwo per 128963
cent of the total of all premium payments made to all medicaid128964
managed care organizations under contract with the department.128965

       Each medicaid managed care organization shall agree to the 128966
withholding as a condition of receiving or maintaining its 128967
medicaid provider agreement with the department.128968

       When the amount is established and each time the amount is 128969
modified thereafter, the department shall certify the amount to 128970
the director of budget and management and begin withholding the 128971
amount from each premium the department pays to a medicaid managed 128972
care organization.128973

       (C) There is hereby created in the state treasury the managed 128974
care performance payment fund. The fund shall consist of amounts 128975
transferred to it by the director of budget and management for the 128976
purpose of the program. All investment earnings of the fund shall 128977
be credited to the fund. Amounts in the fund shall be used solely 128978
to make performance payments to managed care organizations in 128979
accordance with this section.128980

       (D) The department may adopt rules as necessary to implement 128981
this section. The rules shall be adopted in accordance with 128982
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.128983

       Sec. 5111.171.        Sec. 5167.31.  The department of job and family 128984
servicesmedicaid may provide financial incentive awards to 128985
medicaid managed care organizations under contract with the 128986
department pursuant to section 5111.17 of the Revised Code that 128987
meet or exceed performance standards specified in provider 128988
agreements or rules adopted by the departmentmedicaid director 128989
under section 5167.02 of the Revised Code. The department may 128990
specify in a contract with a medicaid managed care organization 128991
the amounts of financial incentive awards, methodology for 128992
distributing awards, types of awards, and standards for 128993
administration by the department.128994

       Sec. 5111.173.        Sec. 5167.40.  The department of job and family 128995
servicesmedicaid shall appoint a temporary manager for a 128996
medicaid managed care organization under contract with the 128997
department pursuant to section 5111.17 of the Revised Code if the 128998
department determines that the medicaid managed care organization 128999
has repeatedly failed to meet substantive requirements specified 129000
in section 1903(m) of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 129001
(1965)sections 1903(m) and 1932, 42 U.S.C. 1396b(m), as amended; 129002
section 1932 of the Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C.and 1396u-2, as 129003
amended; or 42 C.F.R. 438 Part I. The appointment of a temporary 129004
manager does not preclude the department from imposing other 129005
sanctions available to the department against the medicaid managed 129006
care organization.129007

       The medicaid managed care organization shall pay all costs of 129008
having the temporary manager perform the temporary manager's 129009
duties, including all costs the temporary manager incurs in 129010
performing those duties. If the temporary manager incurs costs or 129011
liabilities on behalf of the medicaid managed care organization, 129012
the medicaid managed care organization shall pay those costs and 129013
be responsible for those liabilities. 129014

       The appointment of a temporary manager is not subject to 129015
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, but the managed care 129016
organization may request a reconsideration of the appointment. 129017
Reconsiderations shall be requested and conducted in accordance 129018
with rules the director of job and family servicesmedicaid 129019
director shall adopt in accordance with Chapter 119. ofunder 129020
section 5167.02 of the Revised Code.129021

       The appointment of a temporary manager does not cause the 129022
medicaid managed care organization to lose the right to appeal, in 129023
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, any proposed 129024
termination or any decision not to renewrevalidate the medicaid129025
managed care organization's medicaid provider agreement or the 129026
right to initiate the sale of the medicaid managed care 129027
organization or its assets.129028

       In addition to the rules required to be adopted under this 129029
section, the director may adopt any other rules necessary to 129030
implement this section. The rules shall be adopted in accordance 129031
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.129032

       Sec. 5111.174.        Sec. 5167.41.  The department of job and family 129033
servicesmedicaid may disenroll some or all medicaid recipients 129034
enrolled in a medicaid managed care organization under contract 129035
with the department pursuant to section 5111.17 of the Revised 129036
Code if the department proposes to terminate or not to renew the 129037
contract and determines that the recipients' access to medically 129038
necessary services is jeopardized by the proposal to terminate or 129039
not to renew the contract. The disenrollment is not subject to 129040
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, but the medicaid managed care 129041
organization may request a reconsideration of the disenrollment. 129042
Reconsiderations shall be requested and conducted in accordance 129043
with rules the medicaid director of job and family services shall 129044
adopt in accordance with Chapter 119.under section 5167.02 of the 129045
Revised Code. The request for, or conduct of, a reconsideration 129046
regarding a proposed disenrollment shall not delay the 129047
disenrollment.129048

       In addition to the rules required to be adopted under this 129049
section, the director may adopt any other rules necessary to 129050
implement this section. The rules shall be adopted in accordance 129051
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. 129052

       Sec. 5112.01.        Sec. 5168.01.  As used in sections 5112.035168.01 to 129053
5112.215168.14 of the Revised Code:129054

       (A) "Bad debt," "charity care," "courtesy care," and 129055
"contractual allowances" have the same meanings given these terms 129056
in regulations adopted under Title XVIII of the "Social Security 129057
Act," 42 U.S.C. 1395 et seq.129058

       (B) "Cost reporting period" means the twelve-month period 129059
used by a hospital in reporting costs for purposes of Title XVIII 129060
of the "Social Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1395 et seq.129061

       (C) "Disproportionate share hospital" means a hospital that 129062
meets the definition of a disproportionate share hospital in rules 129063
adopted under section 5168.02 of the Revised Code.129064

       (D) "Federal poverty line" means the official poverty line 129065
defined by the United States office of management and budget based 129066
on the most recent data available from the United States bureau of 129067
the census and revised by the United States secretary of health 129068
and human services pursuant to the "Omnibus Budget Reconciliation 129069
Act of 1981," section 673(2), 42 U.S.C. 9902(2).129070

       (E) "Governmental hospital" means a county hospital with more 129071
than five hundred registered beds or a state-owned and -operated 129072
hospital with more than five hundred registered beds.129073

       (F)(1) "Hospital" means a nonfederal hospital to which either 129074
of the following applies:129075

       (a) The hospital is registered under section 3701.07 of the 129076
Revised Code as a general medical and surgical hospital or a 129077
pediatric general hospital, and provides inpatient hospital 129078
services, as defined in 42 C.F.R. 440.10;129079

       (b) The hospital is recognized under the medicare program 129080
established by Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 129081
620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, as a cancer hospital and 129082
is exempt from the medicare prospective payment system.129083

       (2) "Hospital" does not include a hospital operated by a 129084
health insuring corporation that has been issued a certificate of 129085
authority under section 1751.05 of the Revised Code or a hospital 129086
that does not charge patients for services.129087

       (2) "Disproportionate share hospital" means a hospital that 129088
meets the definition of a disproportionate share hospital in rules 129089
adopted under section 5112.03 of the Revised Code.129090

       (B) "Bad debt," "charity care," "courtesy care," and 129091
"contractual allowances" have the same meanings given these terms 129092
in regulations adopted under Title XVIII of the "Social Security 129093
Act."129094

       (C) "Cost reporting period" means the twelve-month period 129095
used by a hospital in reporting costs for purposes of Title XVIII 129096
of the "Social Security Act."129097

       (D) "Governmental hospital" means a county hospital with more 129098
than five hundred registered beds or a state-owned and -operated 129099
hospital with more than five hundred registered beds.129100

       (E)(G) "Indigent care pool" means the sum of the following:129101

       (1) The total of assessments to be paid in a program year by 129102
all hospitals under section 5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code, 129103
less the assessments deposited into the legislative budget 129104
services fund under section 5112.195168.12 of the Revised Code 129105
and into the health care services administration fund created 129106
under section 5111.945162.54 of the Revised Code;129107

       (2) The total amount of intergovernmental transfers required 129108
to be made in the same program year by governmental hospitals 129109
under section 5112.075168.07 of the Revised Code, less the amount 129110
of transfers deposited into the legislative budget services fund 129111
under section 5112.195168.12 of the Revised Code and into the 129112
health care services administration fund created under section 129113
5111.945162.54 of the Revised Code;129114

       (3) The total amount of federal matching funds that will be 129115
made available in the same program year as a result of funds 129116
distributed by the department of job and family servicesmedicaid129117
to hospitals under section 5112.085168.09 of the Revised Code.129118

       (F)(H) "Intergovernmental transfer" means any transfer of 129119
money by a governmental hospital under section 5112.075168.07 of 129120
the Revised Code.129121

       (G) "Medical assistance program" means the program of medical 129122
assistance established under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code 129123
and Title XIX of the "Social Security Act."129124

       (H)(I) "Medicaid services" has the same meaning as in section 129125
5164.01 of the Revised Code.129126

       (J) "Program year" means a period beginning the first day of 129127
October, or a later date designated in rules adopted under section 129128
5112.035168.02 of the Revised Code, and ending the thirtieth day 129129
of September, or an earlier date designated in rules adopted under 129130
that section.129131

       (I)(K) "Registered beds" means the total number of hospital 129132
beds registered with the department of health, as reported in the 129133
most recent "directory of registered hospitals" published by the 129134
department of health.129135

       (J)(L) "Third-party payer" means any person or government 129136
entity that may be liable by law or contract to make payment to or 129137
on behalf of an individual for health care services. "Third-party 129138
payer" does not include a hospital.129139

       (M) "Total facility costs" means the total costs for all 129140
services rendered to all patients, including the direct, indirect, 129141
and overhead cost to the hospital of all services, supplies, 129142
equipment, and capital related to the care of patients, regardless 129143
of whether patients are enrolled in a health insuring corporation, 129144
excluding costs associated with providing skilled nursing services 129145
in distinct-part nursing facility units, as shown on the 129146
hospital's cost report filed under section 5112.045168.05 of the 129147
Revised Code. Effective October 1, 1993, if rules adopted under 129148
section 5112.035168.02 of the Revised Code so provide, "total 129149
facility costs" may exclude costs associated with providing care 129150
to recipients of any of the governmental programs listed in 129151
division (B) of that section.129152

       (K)(N) "Uncompensated care" means bad debt and charity care.129153

       Sec. 5112.03.        Sec. 5168.02.  (A) The director of job and family 129154
services shall adopt, and may amend and rescind,medicaid director 129155
shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 129156
Code for the purpose of administering sections 5112.015168.01 to 129157
5112.215168.14 of the Revised Code, including rules that do all 129158
of the following:129159

       (1) Define as a "disproportionate share hospital" any 129160
hospital included under subsection (b) of section 1923 of the 129161
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935)section 1923(b), 42 129162
U.S.C.A. 1396r-4(b), as amended, and any other hospital the 129163
director determines appropriate;129164

       (2) Prescribe the form for submission of cost reports under 129165
section 5112.045168.05 of the Revised Code;129166

       (3) Establish, in accordance with division (A) of section 129167
5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code, the assessment rate or rates 129168
to be applied to hospitals under that section;129169

       (4) Establish schedules for hospitals to pay installments on 129170
their assessments under section 5112.065168.06 of the Revised 129171
Code and for governmental hospitals to pay installments on their 129172
intergovernmental transfers under section 5112.075168.07 of the 129173
Revised Code;129174

       (5) Establish procedures to notify hospitals of adjustments 129175
made under division (B)(2)(b) of section 5112.065168.06 of the 129176
Revised Code in the amount of installments on their assessment;129177

       (6) Establish procedures to notify hospitals of adjustments 129178
made under division (D) of section 5112.095168.08 of the Revised 129179
Code in the total amount of their assessment and to adjust for the 129180
remainder of the program year the amount of the installments on 129181
the assessments;129182

       (7) Establish, in accordance with section 5112.085168.09 of 129183
the Revised Code, the methodology for paying hospitals under that 129184
section.129185

       The director shall consult with hospitals when adopting the 129186
rules required by divisions (A)(4) and (5) of this section in 129187
order to minimize hospitals' cash flow difficulties.129188

       (B) Rules adopted under this section may provide that "total 129189
facility costs" excludes costs associated with any of the 129190
following:129191

       (1) Recipients of the medical assistance programMedicaid 129192
recipients;129193

       (2) Recipients of disability financial assistance provided 129194
under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code;129195

       (3) Recipients of the program for medically handicapped 129196
children established under section 3701.023 of the Revised Code;129197

       (4) Recipients of the medicare program established under 129198
Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 129199
U.S.C.A. 301, as amended:Medicare beneficiaries;129200

       (5) Recipients of Title V of the "Social Security Act," 42 129201
U.S.C. 701 et seq.,;129202

       (6) Any other category of costs deemed appropriate by the 129203
director in accordance with Title XIX of the "Social Security 129204
Act," 42 U.S.C. 1396 et seq., and the rules adopted under that 129205
title.129206

       Sec. 5112.05.        Sec. 5168.03.  The requirements of sections 5112.06129207
5168.06 to 5112.095168.09 of the Revised Code apply only as long 129208
as the United States health care financing administration 129209
determines that the assessment imposed under section 5112.06129210
5168.06 of the Revised Code is a permissible health care-related 129211
tax pursuant to section 1903(w) of the "Social Security Act," 49 129212
Stat. 620 (1935)section 1903(w), 42 U.S.C.A. 1396b(w), as 129213
amended. Whenever the department of job and family services129214
medicaid is informed that the assessment is an impermissible 129215
health care-related tax, the department shall promptly refund to 129216
each hospital the amount of money currently in the hospital care 129217
assurance program fund created by section 5112.185168.11 of the 129218
Revised Code that has been paid by the hospital under section 129219
5112.065168.06 or 5112.075168.07 of the Revised Code, plus any 129220
investment earnings on that amount.129221

       Sec. 5112.10.        Sec. 5168.04.  The department of job and family 129222
servicesmedicaid shall operate the hospital care assurance 129223
program established by sections 5112.015168.01 to 5112.215168.14129224
of the Revised Code on a program year basis. The department shall 129225
complete all program requirements on or before the thirtieth day 129226
of September each year.129227

       Sec. 5112.04.        Sec. 5168.05.  (A) Except as provided in division (C) 129228
of this section, each hospital, on or before the first day of July 129229
of each year or at a later date approved by the medicaid director 129230
of job and family services, shall submit to the department of job 129231
and family servicesmedicaid a financial statement for the 129232
preceding calendar year that accurately reflects the income, 129233
expenses, assets, liabilities, and net worth of the hospital, and 129234
accompanying notes. A hospital that has a fiscal year different 129235
from the calendar year shall file its financial statement within 129236
one hundred eighty days of the end of its fiscal year or at a 129237
later date approved by the director of job and family services. 129238
The financial statement shall be prepared by an independent 129239
certified public accountant and reflect an official audit report 129240
prepared in a manner consistent with generally accepted accounting 129241
principles. The financial statement shall, to the extent that the 129242
hospital has sufficient financial records, show bad debt and 129243
charity care separately from courtesy care and contractual 129244
allowances.129245

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, each 129246
hospital, within one hundred eighty days after the end of the 129247
hospital's cost reporting period, shall submit to the department a 129248
cost report in a format prescribed in rules adopted by the 129249
director of job and family services under section 5112.035168.02129250
of the Revised Code. The department shall grant a hospital an 129251
extension of the one hundred eighty day period if the health care 129252
financing administration of the United States department of health 129253
and human services extends the date by which the hospital must 129254
submit its cost report for the hospital's cost reporting period.129255

       (C) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 129256
under section 5112.035168.02 of the Revised Code specifying 129257
financial information that must be submitted by hospitals for 129258
which no financial statement or cost report is available. The 129259
rules shall specify deadlines for submitting the information. Each 129260
such hospital shall submit the information specified in the rules 129261
not later than the deadline specified in the rules.129262

       Sec. 5112.06.        Sec. 5168.06.  (A) For the purpose of distributing 129263
funds to hospitals under the medical assistancemedicaid program 129264
pursuant to sections 5112.015168.01 to 5112.215168.14 of the 129265
Revised Code and depositing funds into the legislative budget 129266
services fund under section 5112.195168.12 of the Revised Code 129267
and into the health care services administration fund created 129268
under section 5111.945162.54 of the Revised Code, there is hereby 129269
imposed an assessment on all hospitals. Each hospital's assessment 129270
shall be based on total facility costs. All hospitals shall be 129271
assessed according to the rate or rates established each program 129272
year by the department of job and family services in rules adopted 129273
under section 5112.035168.02 of the Revised Code. The department 129274
shall assess all hospitals uniformly and in a manner consistent 129275
with federal statutes and regulations. During any program year, 129276
the department shall not assess any hospital more than two per 129277
cent of the hospital's total facility costs.129278

       The department shall establish an assessment rate or rates 129279
each program year that will do both of the following:129280

       (1) Yield funds that, when combined with intergovernmental 129281
transfers and federal matching funds, will produce a program of 129282
sufficient size to pay a substantial portion of the indigent care 129283
provided by hospitals;129284

       (2) Yield funds that, when combined with intergovernmental 129285
transfers and federal matching funds, will produce amounts for 129286
distribution to disproportionate share hospitals that do not 129287
exceed, in the aggregate, the limits prescribed by the United 129288
States health care financing administration under subsection (f) 129289
of section 1923 of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935)129290
section 1923(f), 42 U.S.C.A. 1396r-4(f), as amended.129291

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (B)(3) of this section, 129292
each hospital shall pay its assessment in periodic installments in 129293
accordance with a schedule established by the director of job and 129294
family services in rules adopted under section 5112.035168.02 of 129295
the Revised Code.129296

       (2) The installments shall be equal in amount, unless either 129297
of the following applies:129298

       (a) The department makes adjustments during a program year 129299
under division (D) of section 5112.095168.08 of the Revised Code 129300
in the total amount of hospitals' assessments;129301

       (b) The medicaid director of job and family services129302
determines that adjustments in the amounts of installments are 129303
necessary for the administration of sections 5112.015168.01 to 129304
5112.215168.14 of the Revised Code and that unequal installments 129305
will not create cash flow difficulties for hospitals.129306

       (3) The director may adopt rules under section 5112.03129307
5168.02 of the Revised Code establishing alternate schedules for 129308
hospitals to pay assessments under this section in order to reduce 129309
hospitals' cash flow difficulties.129310

       Sec. 5112.07.        Sec. 5168.07.  (A) The department of job and family 129311
servicesmedicaid may require governmental hospitals to make 129312
intergovernmental transfers each program year for the purpose of 129313
distributing funds to hospitals under the medical assistance129314
medicaid program pursuant to sections 5112.015168.01 to 5112.21129315
5168.14 of the Revised Code and depositing funds into the 129316
legislative budget services fund under section 5112.195168.12 of 129317
the Revised Code and into the health care services administration 129318
fund created under section 5111.945162.54 of the Revised Code. 129319
The department shall not require transfers in an amount that, when 129320
combined with hospital assessments paid under section 5112.06129321
5168.06 of the Revised Code and federal matching funds, produce 129322
amounts for distribution to disproportionate share hospitals that, 129323
in the aggregate, exceed limits prescribed by the United States 129324
health care financing administration under subsection (f) of 129325
section 1923 of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935)129326
section 1923(f), 42 U.S.C.A. 1396r-4(f), as amended.129327

       (B) Before or during each program year, the department shall 129328
notify each governmental hospital of the amount of the 129329
intergovernmental transfer it is required to make during the 129330
program year. Each governmental hospital shall make 129331
intergovernmental transfers as required by the department under 129332
this section in periodic installments, executed by electronic fund 129333
transfer, in accordance with a schedule established in rules 129334
adopted under section 5112.035168.02 of the Revised Code.129335

       Sec. 5112.09.        Sec. 5168.08.  (A) Before or during each program 129336
year, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 129337
mail to each hospital by certified mail, return receipt requested, 129338
the preliminary determination of the amount that the hospital is 129339
assessed under section 5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code during 129340
the program year. The preliminary determination of a hospital's 129341
assessment shall be calculated for a cost-reporting period that is 129342
specified in rules adopted under section 5112.035168.02 of the 129343
Revised Code.129344

       The department shall consult with hospitals each year when 129345
determining the date on which it will mail the preliminary 129346
determinations in order to minimize hospitals' cash flow 129347
difficulties.129348

       If no hospital submits a request for reconsideration under 129349
division (B) of this section, the preliminary determination 129350
constitutes the final reconciliation of each hospital's assessment 129351
under section 5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code. The final 129352
reconciliation is subject to adjustments under division (D) of 129353
this section.129354

       (B) Not later than fourteen days after the preliminary 129355
determinations are mailed, any hospital may submit to the 129356
department a written request to reconsider the preliminary 129357
determinations. The request shall be accompanied by written 129358
materials setting forth the basis for the reconsideration. If one 129359
or more hospitals submit a request, the department shall hold a 129360
public hearing not later than thirty days after the preliminary 129361
determinations are mailed to reconsider the preliminary 129362
determinations. The department shall mail to each hospital a 129363
written notice of the date, time, and place of the hearing at 129364
least ten days prior to the hearing. On the basis of the evidence 129365
submitted to the department or presented at the public hearing, 129366
the department shall reconsider and may adjust the preliminary 129367
determinations. The result of the reconsideration is the final 129368
reconciliation of the hospital's assessment under section 5112.06129369
5168.06 of the Revised Code. The final reconciliation is subject 129370
to adjustments under division (D) of this section.129371

       (C) The department shall mail to each hospital a written 129372
notice of its assessment for the program year under the final 129373
reconciliation. A hospital may appeal the final reconciliation of 129374
its assessment to the court of common pleas of Franklin county. 129375
While a judicial appeal is pending, the hospital shall pay, in 129376
accordance with the schedules required by division (B) of section 129377
5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code, any amount of its assessment 129378
that is not in dispute into the hospital care assurance program 129379
fund created in section 5112.185168.11 of the Revised Code.129380

       (D) In the course of any program year, the department may 129381
adjust the assessment rate or rates established in rules pursuant 129382
to section 5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code or adjust the 129383
amounts of intergovernmental transfers required under section 129384
5112.075168.07 of the Revised Code and, as a result of the 129385
adjustment, adjust each hospital's assessment and 129386
intergovernmental transfer, to reflect refinements made by the 129387
United States health care financing administration during that 129388
program year to the limits it prescribed under subsection (f) of 129389
section 1923 of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935)129390
section 1923(f), 42 U.S.C.A. 1396r-4(f), as amended. When 129391
adjusted, the assessment rate or rates must comply with division 129392
(A) of section 5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code. An adjusted 129393
intergovernmental transfer must comply with division (A) of 129394
section 5112.075168.07 of the Revised Code. The department shall 129395
notify hospitals of adjustments made under this division and 129396
adjust for the remainder of the program year the installments paid 129397
by hospitals under sections 5112.065168.06 and 5112.075168.07 of 129398
the Revised Code in accordance with rules adopted under section 129399
5112.035168.02 of the Revised Code.129400

       Sec. 5112.08.        Sec. 5168.09.  The medicaid director of job and 129401
family services shall adopt rules under section 5112.035168.02 of 129402
the Revised Code establishing a methodology to pay hospitals that 129403
is sufficient to expend all money in the indigent care pool. Under 129404
the rules:129405

       (A) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid may 129406
classify similar hospitals into groups and allocate funds for 129407
distribution within each group.129408

       (B) The department shall establish a method of allocating 129409
funds to hospitals, taking into consideration the relative amount 129410
of indigent care provided by each hospital or group of hospitals. 129411
The amount to be allocated shall be based on any combination of 129412
the following indicators of indigent care that the director 129413
considers appropriate:129414

       (1) Total costs, volume, or proportion of services to 129415
recipients of the medical assistance program, including recipients 129416
enrolled in health insuring corporations;129417

       (2) Total costs, volume, or proportion of services to 129418
low-income patients in addition to medicaid recipients of the 129419
medical assistance program, which may include recipients of Title 129420
V of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 129421
301701 et seq., as amended, and recipients of disability129422
financial assistance provided under Chapter 5115. of the Revised 129423
Code;129424

       (3) The amount of uncompensated care provided by the hospital 129425
or group of hospitals;129426

       (4) Other factors that the director considers to be 129427
appropriate indicators of indigent care.129428

       (C) The department shall distribute funds to each hospital or 129429
group of hospitals in a manner that first may provide for an 129430
additional distribution to individual hospitals that provide a 129431
high proportion of indigent care in relation to the total care 129432
provided by the hospital or in relation to other hospitals. The 129433
department shall establish a formula to distribute the remainder 129434
of the funds. The formula shall be consistent with section 1923 of129435
the "Social Security Act," section 1923, 42 U.S.C.A. 1396r-4, as 129436
amended,and shall be based on any combination of the indicators 129437
of indigent care listed in division (B) of this section that the 129438
director considers appropriate.129439

       (D) The department shall distribute funds to each hospital in 129440
installments not later than ten working days after the deadline 129441
established in rules for each hospital to pay an installment on 129442
its assessment under section 5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code. 129443
In the case of a governmental hospital that makes 129444
intergovernmental transfers, the department shall pay an 129445
installment under this section not later than ten working days 129446
after the earlier of that deadline or the deadline established in 129447
rules for the governmental hospital to pay an installment on its 129448
intergovernmental transfer. If the amount in the hospital care 129449
assurance program fund created under section 5112.185168.11 of 129450
the Revised Code and the portion of the health care - federal fund 129451
created under section 5111.9435162.50 of the Revised Code that is 129452
credited to that fund pursuant to division (B) of section 5112.18129453
5168.11 of the Revised Code are insufficient to make the total 129454
distributions for which hospitals are eligible to receive in any 129455
period, the department shall reduce the amount of each 129456
distribution by the percentage by which the amount and portion are 129457
insufficient. The department shall distribute to hospitals any 129458
amounts not distributed in the period in which they are due as 129459
soon as moneys are available in the funds.129460

       Sec. 5112.11.        Sec. 5168.10.  Except for moneys deposited into the 129461
legislative budget services fund under section 5112.195168.12 of 129462
the Revised Code and the health care services administration fund 129463
created under section 5111.945162.54 of the Revised Code, the 129464
department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall not use money 129465
paid to the department under sections 5112.065168.06 and 5112.07129466
5168.07 of the Revised Code or money that the department pays to 129467
hospitals under section 5112.085168.09 of the Revised Code to 129468
replace any funds appropriated by the general assembly for the 129469
medical assistancemedicaid program.129470

       Sec. 5112.18.        Sec. 5168.11.  (A) Except as provided in section 129471
5112.195168.12 of the Revised Code, all payments of assessments 129472
by hospitals under section 5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code and 129473
all intergovernmental transfers under section 5112.075168.07 of 129474
the Revised Code shall be deposited in the state treasury to the 129475
credit of the hospital care assurance program fund, hereby 129476
created. All investment earnings of the hospital care assurance 129477
program fund shall be credited to the fund. The department of job 129478
and family servicesmedicaid shall maintain records that show the 129479
amount of money in the hospital care assurance program fund at any 129480
time that has been paid by each hospital and the amount of any 129481
investment earnings on that amount. All moneys credited to the 129482
hospital care assurance program fund shall be used solely to make 129483
payments to hospitals under division (D) of this section and 129484
section 5112.085168.09 of the Revised Code.129485

       (B) All federal matching funds received as a result of the 129486
department distributing funds from the hospital care assurance 129487
program fund to hospitals under section 5112.085168.09 of the 129488
Revised Code shall be credited to the health care - federal fund 129489
created under section 5111.9435162.50 of the Revised Code. 129490

       (C) All distributions of funds to hospitals under section 129491
5112.085168.09 of the Revised Code are conditional on:129492

       (1) Expiration of the time for appeals under section 5112.09129493
5168.08 of the Revised Code without the filing of an appeal, or on 129494
court determinations, in the event of appeals, that the hospital 129495
is entitled to the funds;129496

       (2) The sum of the following being sufficient to distribute 129497
the funds after the final determination of any appeals:129498

       (a) The available money in the hospital care assurance 129499
program fund;129500

       (b) The available portion of the money in the health care - 129501
federal fund that is credited to that fund pursuant to division 129502
(B) of this section.129503

       (3) The hospital's compliance with section 5112.175168.14 of 129504
the Revised Code.129505

       (D) If an audit conducted by the department of the amounts of 129506
payments made and funds received by hospitals under sections 129507
5112.065168.06, 5112.075168.07, and 5112.085168.09 of the 129508
Revised Code identifies amounts that, due to errors by the 129509
department, a hospital should not have been required to pay but 129510
did pay, should have been required to pay but did not pay, should 129511
not have received but did receive, or should have received but did 129512
not receive, the department shall:129513

       (1) Make payments to any hospital that the audit reveals paid 129514
amounts it should not have been required to pay or did not receive 129515
amounts it should have received;129516

       (2) Take action to recover from a hospital any amounts that 129517
the audit reveals it should have been required to pay but did not 129518
pay or that it should not have received but did receive.129519

       Payments made under division (D)(1) of this section shall be 129520
made from the hospital care assurance program fund. Amounts 129521
recovered under division (D)(2) of this section shall be deposited 129522
to the credit of that fund. Any hospital may appeal the amount the 129523
hospital is to be paid under division (D)(1) or the amount that is 129524
to be recovered from the hospital under division (D)(2) of this 129525
section to the court of common pleas of Franklin county.129526

       Sec. 5112.19.        Sec. 5168.12.  From the first installment of 129527
assessments paid under section 5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code 129528
and intergovernmental transfers made under section 5112.075168.07129529
of the Revised Code during each program year beginning in an 129530
odd-numbered calendar year, the department of job and family 129531
servicesmedicaid shall deposit into the state treasury to the 129532
credit of the legislative budget services fund, which is hereby 129533
created, a total amount equal to the amount by which the biennial 129534
appropriation from that fund exceeds the amount of unexpended, 129535
unencumbered moneys in that fund. All investment earnings of the 129536
legislative budget services fund shall be credited to that fund. 129537
Money in the legislative budget services fund shall be used solely 129538
to pay the expenses of the legislative budget office of the 129539
legislative service commission.129540

       Sec. 5112.21.        Sec. 5168.13.  Except as specifically required by 129541
sections 5112.015168.01 to 5112.195168.14 of the Revised Code, 129542
information filed under those sections shall not include any 129543
patient-identifying material. Information that includes 129544
patient-identifying material is not a public record under section 129545
149.43 of the Revised Code, and no patient-identifying material 129546
shall be released publicly by the department of job and family 129547
servicesmedicaid or by any person under contract with the 129548
department who has access to such information.129549

       Sec. 5112.17.        Sec. 5168.14.  (A) As used in this section:129550

       (1) "Federal poverty guideline" means the official poverty 129551
guideline as revised annually by the United States secretary of 129552
health and human services in accordance with section 673 of the 129553
"Community Service Block Grant Act," 95 Stat. 511 (1981), 42 129554
U.S.C.A. 9902, as amended, for a family size equal to the size of 129555
the family of the person whose income is being determined.129556

       (2) "Third-party payer" means any private or public entity or 129557
program that may be liable by law or contract to make payment to 129558
or on behalf of an individual for health care services. 129559
"Third-party payer" does not include a hospital.129560

       (B) Each hospital that receives funds distributed under 129561
sections 5112.015168.01 to 5112.215168.14 of the Revised Code 129562
shall provide, without charge to the individual, basic, medically 129563
necessary hospital-level services to individuals who are residents 129564
of this state, are not medicaid recipients of the medical 129565
assistance program, and whose income is at or below the federal 129566
poverty guidelineline. Recipients of disability financial 129567
assistance provided under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code 129568
qualify for services under this section. The medicaid director of 129569
job and family services shall adopt rules under section 5112.03129570
5168.02 of the Revised Code specifying the hospital services to be 129571
provided under this section.129572

       (C)(B) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prevent 129573
a hospital from requiring an individual to apply for eligibility 129574
under the medical assistancemedicaid program before the hospital 129575
processes an application under this section. Hospitals may bill 129576
any third-party payer for services rendered under this section. 129577
Hospitals may bill the medical assistancemedicaid program, in 129578
accordance with Chapter 5111. of the Revised Codestate statutes 129579
governing the medicaid program and the rules adopted under that 129580
chapterthose statutes, for medicaid services rendered under this 129581
section if the individual becomes a medicaid recipient of the 129582
program. Hospitals may bill individuals for services under this 129583
section if all of the following apply:129584

       (1) The hospital has an established post-billing procedure 129585
for determining the individual's income and canceling the charges 129586
if the individual is found to qualify for services under this 129587
section.129588

       (2) The initial bill, and at least the first follow-up bill, 129589
is accompanied by a written statement that does all of the 129590
following:129591

       (a) Explains that individuals with income at or below the 129592
federal poverty guidelineline are eligible for services without 129593
charge;129594

       (b) Specifies the federal poverty guidelineline for 129595
individuals and families of various sizes at the time the bill is 129596
sent;129597

       (c) Describes the procedure required by division (C)(1) of 129598
this section.129599

       (3) The hospital complies with any additional rules the 129600
department adoptsadopted under section 5112.035168.02 of the 129601
Revised Code.129602

       Notwithstanding division (B) of this section, a hospital 129603
providing care to an individual under this section is subrogated 129604
to the rights of any individual to receive compensation or 129605
benefits from any person or governmental entity for the hospital 129606
goods and services rendered.129607

       (D)(C) Each hospital shall collect and report to the 129608
department of medicaid, in the form and manner prescribed by the 129609
department, information on the number and identity of patients 129610
served pursuant to this section.129611

       (E)(D) This section applies beginning May 22, 1992, 129612
regardless of whether the department has adopted rules specifying 129613
the services to be provided have been adopted. Nothing in this 129614
section alters the scope or limits the obligation of any 129615
governmental entity or program, including the program awarding 129616
reparations to victims of crime under sections 2743.51 to 2743.72 129617
of the Revised Code and the program for medically handicapped 129618
children established under section 3701.023 of the Revised Code, 129619
to pay for hospital services in accordance with state or local 129620
law.129621

       Sec. 5112.40.        Sec. 5168.20.  As used in sections 5112.405168.20 to 129622
5112.485168.28 of the Revised Code:129623

       (A) "Applicable assessment percentage" means the percentage 129624
specified in rules adopted under section 5112.465168.26 of the 129625
Revised Code that is used in calculating a hospital's assessment 129626
under section 5112.415168.21 of the Revised Code.129627

       (B) "Assessment program year" means the twelve-month period 129628
beginning the first day of October of a calendar year and ending 129629
the last day of September of the following calendar year.129630

       (C) "Cost reporting period" means the period of time used by 129631
a hospital in reporting costs for purposes of the medicare 129632
program.129633

       (D) "Federal fiscal year" means the twelve-month period 129634
beginning the first day of October of a calendar year and ending 129635
the last day of September of the following calendar year.129636

       (E)(1) Except as provided in division (E)(2) of this section, 129637
"hospital" means a hospital to which any of the following applies:129638

       (a) The hospital is registered under section 3701.07 of the 129639
Revised Code as a general medical and surgical hospital or a 129640
pediatric general hospital and provides inpatient hospital 129641
services, as defined in 42 C.F.R. 440.10.129642

       (b) The hospital is recognized under the medicare program as 129643
a cancer hospital and is exempt from the medicare prospective 129644
payment system.129645

       (c) The hospital is a psychiatric hospital licensed under 129646
section 5119.205119.33 of the Revised Code.129647

       (2) "Hospital" does not include either of the following:129648

       (a) A federal hospital;129649

       (b) A hospital that does not charge any of its patients for 129650
its services.129651

       (F) "Hospital care assurance program" means the program 129652
established under sections 5112.015168.01 to 5112.215168.14 of 129653
the Revised Code.129654

       (G) "Medicaid" has the same meaning as in section 5111.01 of 129655
the Revised Code.129656

       (H) "Medicare" means the program established under Title 129657
XVIII of the Social Security Act.129658

       (I) "State fiscal year" means the twelve-month period 129659
beginning the first day of July of a calendar year and ending the 129660
last day of June of the following calendar year.129661

       (J)(H)(1) Except as provided in divisions (J)(H)(2) and (3) 129662
of this section, "total facility costs" means the total costs to a 129663
hospital for all care provided to all patients, including the 129664
direct, indirect, and overhead costs to the hospital of all 129665
services, supplies, equipment, and capital related to the care of 129666
patients, regardless of whether patients are enrolled in a health 129667
insuring corporation.129668

       (2) "Total facility costs" excludes all of the following of a 129669
hospital's costs as shown on the cost-reporting data used for 129670
purposes of determining the hospital's assessment under section 129671
5112.415168.21 of the Revised Code:129672

       (a) Skilled nursing services provided in distinct-part 129673
nursing facility units;129674

       (b) Home health services;129675

       (c) Hospice services;129676

       (d) Ambulance services;129677

       (e) Renting durable medical equipment;129678

       (f) Selling durable medical equipment.129679

       (3) "Total facility costs" excludes any costs excluded from a 129680
hospital's total facility costs pursuant to rules, if any, adopted 129681
under division (B)(1) of section 5112.465168.26 of the Revised 129682
Code.129683

       Sec. 5112.41.        Sec. 5168.21.  (A) For the purposes specified in 129684
section 5112.455168.25 of the Revised Code and subject to 129685
section 5112.485168.28 of the Revised Code, there is hereby 129686
imposed an assessment on all hospitals each assessment program 129687
year. The amount of a hospital's assessment for an assessment 129688
program year shall equal the applicable assessment percentage of 129689
the hospital's total facility costs for the period of time 129690
specified in division (B) of this section. The amount of a 129691
hospital's total facility costs shall be derived from 129692
cost-reporting data for the hospital submitted to the department 129693
of job and family servicesmedicaid for purposes of the hospital 129694
care assurance program. If a hospital has not submitted that 129695
cost-reporting data to the department, the amount of a hospital's 129696
total facility costs shall be derived from other financial 129697
statements that the hospital shall provide to the department as 129698
directed by the department. The cost-reporting data or financial 129699
statements used to determine a hospital's assessment is subject to 129700
the same type of adjustments made to the cost-reporting data under 129701
the hospital care assurance program.129702

       (B) The period of time specified in this division is the 129703
hospital's cost reporting period that ends in the state fiscal 129704
year that ends in the federal fiscal year that precedes the 129705
federal fiscal year that precedes the assessment program year for 129706
which the assessment is imposed. 129707

       (C) The assessment imposed by this section on a hospital is 129708
in addition to the assessment imposed by section 5112.065168.06129709
of the Revised Code.129710

       Sec. 5112.42.        Sec. 5168.22.  (A) Before or during each assessment 129711
program year, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid129712
shall mail to each hospital by certified mail, return receipt 129713
requested, the preliminary determination of the amount that the 129714
hospital is assessed under section 5112.415168.21 of the Revised 129715
Code for the assessment program year. Except as provided in 129716
division (B) of this section, the preliminary determination 129717
becomes the final determination for the assessment program year 129718
fifteen days after the preliminary determination is mailed to the 129719
hospital.129720

       (B) A hospital may request that the department reconsider the 129721
preliminary determination mailed to the hospital under division 129722
(A) of this section by submitting to the department a written 129723
request for a reconsideration not later than fourteen days after 129724
the hospital's preliminary determination is mailed to the 129725
hospital. The request must be accompanied by written materials 129726
setting forth the basis for the reconsideration. On receipt of the 129727
timely request, the department shall reconsider the preliminary 129728
determination and may adjust the preliminary determination on the 129729
basis of the written materials accompanying the request. The 129730
result of the reconsideration is the final determination of the 129731
hospital's assessment under section 5112.415168.21 of the Revised 129732
Code for the assessment program year.129733

       (C) The department shall mail to each hospital a written 129734
notice of the final determination of its assessment for the 129735
assessment program year. A hospital may appeal the final 129736
determination to the court of common pleas of Franklin county. 129737
While a judicial appeal is pending, the hospital shall pay, in 129738
accordance with section 5112.435168.23 of the Revised Code, any 129739
amount of its assessment that is not in dispute.129740

       Sec. 5112.43.        Sec. 5168.23.  Unless rules adopted under section 129741
5112.465168.26 of the Revised Code establish a different payment 129742
schedule, each hospital shall pay the amount it is assessed under 129743
section 5112.415168.21 of the Revised Code in accordance with the 129744
following payment schedule:129745

       (A) Twenty-eight per cent of a hospital's assessment is due 129746
on the last business day of October of each assessment program 129747
year.129748

       (B) Thirty-one per cent of a hospital's assessment is due on 129749
the last business day of February of each assessment program year.129750

       (C) Forty-one per cent of a hospital's assessment is due on 129751
the last business day of May of each assessment program year.129752

       Sec. 5112.44.        Sec. 5168.24.  The department of job and family 129753
servicesmedicaid may audit a hospital to ensure that the hospital 129754
properly pays the amount it is assessed under section 5112.41129755
5168.21 of the Revised Code. The department shall take action to 129756
recover from a hospital any amount the audit reveals that the 129757
hospital should have paid but did not pay.129758

       Sec. 5112.45.        Sec. 5168.25.  There is hereby created in the state 129759
treasury the hospital assessment fund. All installment payments 129760
made by hospitals under section 5112.435168.23 of the Revised 129761
Code and all recoveries the department of job and family services129762
medicaid makes under section 5112.445168.24 of the Revised Code 129763
shall be deposited into the fund. All investment earnings of the 129764
fund shall be credited to the fund. The department shall use money 129765
in the fund to pay for the costs of the medicaid program, 129766
including the program's administrative costs.129767

       Sec. 5112.46.        Sec. 5168.26.  (A) The director of job and family 129768
services shall adopt, amend, and rescindmedicaid director shall 129769
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as 129770
necessary to implement sections 5112.405168.20 to 5112.485168.28129771
of the Revised Code, including rules that specify the percentage 129772
of hospitals' total facility costs to be used in calculating 129773
hospitals' assessments under section 5112.415168.21 of the 129774
Revised Code.129775

       (B) The rules adopted under this section may do the 129776
following:129777

       (1) Provide that a hospital's total facility costs for the 129778
purpose of the assessment under section 5112.415168.21 of the 129779
Revised Code exclude any of the following:129780

       (a) A hospital's costs associated with providing care to 129781
recipients of any of the following:129782

       (i) The medicaid program;129783

       (ii) The medicare program;129784

       (iii) The disability financial assistance program established 129785
under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code;129786

       (iv) The program for medically handicapped children 129787
established under section 3701.023 of the Revised Code;129788

       (v) Services provided under the maternal and child health 129789
services block grant established under Title V of the "Social 129790
Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 701 et seq.129791

       (b) Any other category of hospital costs the director deems 129792
appropriate under federal law and regulations governing the 129793
medicaid program.129794

       (2) Subject to division (C) of this section, provide for the 129795
percentage of hospitals' total facility costs used in calculating 129796
hospitals' assessments to vary for different hospitals;129797

       (3) To reduce hospitals' cash flow difficulties, establish a 129798
schedule for hospitals to pay their assessments that is different 129799
from the schedule established under section 5112.435168.23 of the 129800
Revised Code.129801

       (C) Before adopting rules authorized by division (B)(2) of 129802
this section that establish varied percentages to be used in 129803
calculating hospitals' assessments, the director shall obtain a 129804
waiver from the United States secretary of health and human 129805
services under section 1903(w)(3)(E) of the "Social Security Act," 129806
105 Stat. 1796 (1991)section 1903(w)(3)(E), 42 U.S.C. 129807
1396b(w)(3)(E), as amended, if the varied percentages would cause 129808
the assessments to not be imposed uniformly.129809

       Sec. 5112.47.        Sec. 5168.27.  The medicaid director of job and 129810
family services shall implement the assessment imposed by section 129811
5112.415168.21 of the Revised Code in a manner that does not 129812
cause a reduction in federal financial participation for the 129813
medicaid program under the "Social Security Act," section 1903(w),129814
42 U.S.C. 1396b(w).129815

       Sec. 5112.48.        Sec. 5168.28.  If the United States secretary of 129816
health and human services determines that the assessment imposed 129817
by section 5112.415168.21 of the Revised Code is an 129818
impermissible health care-related tax under the "Social Security 129819
Act," section 1903(w), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w), the medicaid director 129820
of job and family services shall take all necessary actions to 129821
cease implementation of sections 5112.405168.20 to 5112.47129822
5168.27 of the Revised Code and shall promptly refund to each 129823
hospital the amount of money in the hospital assessment fund at 129824
the time the refund is to be made that the hospital paid under 129825
section 5112.435168.23 of the Revised Code, plus any 129826
corresponding investment earnings on that amount.129827

       Sec. 3721.50.        Sec. 5168.40.  As used in sections 3721.505168.40 to 129828
3721.585168.56 of the Revised Code:129829

       (A) "Bed surrender" means the following:129830

        (1) In the case of a nursing home, the removal of a bed from 129831
a nursing home's licensed capacity in a manner that reduces the 129832
total licensed capacity of all nursing homes;129833

        (2) In the case of a hospital, the removal of a hospital bed 129834
from registration under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as a 129835
skilled nursing facility bed or long-term care bed in a manner 129836
that reduces the total number of hospital beds registered under 129837
that section as skilled nursing facility beds or long-term care 129838
beds.129839

        (B) "Change of operator" means an entering operator becoming 129840
the operator of a nursing home or hospital in the place of the 129841
exiting operator.129842

       (1) Actions that constitute a change of operator include the 129843
following:129844

       (a) A change in an exiting operator's form of legal 129845
organization, including the formation of a partnership or 129846
corporation from a sole proprietorship;129847

       (b) A transfer of all the exiting operator's ownership 129848
interest in the operation of the nursing home or hospital to the 129849
entering operator, regardless of whether ownership of any or all 129850
of the real property or personal property associated with the 129851
nursing home or hospital is also transferred;129852

       (c) A lease of the nursing home or hospital to the entering 129853
operator or the exiting operator's termination of the exiting 129854
operator's lease;129855

       (d) If the exiting operator is a partnership, dissolution of 129856
the partnership;129857

       (e) If the exiting operator is a partnership, a change in 129858
composition of the partnership unless both of the following apply:129859

       (i) The change in composition does not cause the 129860
partnership's dissolution under state law.129861

       (ii) The partners agree that the change in composition does 129862
not constitute a change in operator.129863

       (f) If the operator is a corporation, dissolution of the 129864
corporation, a merger of the corporation into another corporation 129865
that is the survivor of the merger, or a consolidation of one or 129866
more other corporations to form a new corporation.129867

       (2) The following, alone, do not constitute a change of 129868
operator:129869

       (a) A contract for an entity to manage a nursing home or 129870
hospital as the operator's agent, subject to the operator's 129871
approval of daily operating and management decisions;129872

       (b) A change of ownership, lease, or termination of a lease 129873
of real property or personal property associated with a nursing 129874
home or hospital if an entering operator does not become the 129875
operator in place of an exiting operator;129876

       (c) If the operator is a corporation, a change of one or more 129877
members of the corporation's governing body or transfer of 129878
ownership of one or more shares of the corporation's stock, if the 129879
same corporation continues to be the operator.129880

       (C) "Effective date of a change of operator" means the day an 129881
entering operator becomes the operator of a nursing home or 129882
hospital.129883

       (D) "Entering operator" means the person or government entity 129884
that will become the operator of a nursing home or hospital on the 129885
effective date of a change of operator.129886

       (E) "Exiting operator" means an operator that will cease to 129887
be the operator of a nursing home or hospital on the effective 129888
date of a change of operator.129889

       (F) "Franchise permit fee rate" means the following:129890

       (1) For fiscal year 2012, eleven dollars and forty-seven 129891
cents;129892

       (2) For fiscal year 2013 and each fiscal year thereafter, 129893
eleven dollars and sixty-seven centsrate determined in accordance 129894
with section 5168.41 of the Revised Code.129895

       (G) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of 129896
the Revised Code.129897

       (H) "Hospital long-term care unit" means any distinct part of 129898
a hospital in which any of the following beds are located:129899

       (1) Beds registered pursuant to section 3701.07 of the 129900
Revised Code as skilled nursing facility beds or long-term care 129901
beds;129902

       (2) Beds licensed as nursing home beds under section 3721.02 129903
or 3721.09 of the Revised Code.129904

       (I) "Indirect guarantee percentage" means the percentage 129905
specified in section 1903(w)(4)(C)(ii) of the "Social Security 129906
Act," 120 Stat. 2994 (2006)section 1903(w)(4)(C)(ii), 42 U.S.C. 129907
1396b(w)(4)(C)(ii), that is to be used in determining whether a 129908
class of providers is indirectly held harmless for any portion of 129909
the costs of a broad-based health-care-related tax. If the 129910
indirect guarantee percentage changes during a fiscal year, the 129911
indirect guarantee percentage is the following:129912

       (1) For the part of the fiscal year before the change takes 129913
effect, the percentage in effect before the change;129914

       (2) For the part of the fiscal year beginning with the date 129915
the indirect guarantee percentage changes, the new percentage.129916

       (J) "Medicaid days" has the same meaning as in section 129917
5111.01 of the Revised Code.129918

       (K) "Medicare" means the program established by Title XVIII.129919

       (L)and "Nursingnursing facility" hashave the same meaning129920
meanings as in section 5111.205165.01 of the Revised Code.129921

       (M)(K)(1) "Nursing home" means all of the following:129922

       (a) A nursing home licensed under section 3721.02 or 3721.09 129923
of the Revised Code, including any part of a home for the aging 129924
licensed as a nursing home;129925

       (b) A facility or part of a facility, other than a hospital, 129926
that is certified as a skilled nursing facility under Title XVIII;129927

       (c) A nursing facility, other than a portion of a hospital 129928
certified as a nursing facility.129929

       (2) "Nursing home" does not include either of the following:129930

       (a) A county home, county nursing home, or district home 129931
operated pursuant to Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;129932

       (b) A nursing home maintained and operated by the department 129933
of veterans services under section 5907.01 of the Revised Code. 129934

       (N)(L) "Operator" means the person or government entity 129935
responsible for the daily operating and management decisions for a 129936
nursing home or hospital.129937

       (O)(M) "Title XIX" means Title XIX of the "Social Security 129938
Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396, as amendedet seq.129939

       (P)(N) "Title XVIII" means Title XVIII of the "Social 129940
Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395, as amendedet 129941
seq.129942

       Sec. 5168.41.  (A) The franchise permit fee rate shall be 129943
determined for each fiscal year as follows:129944

       (1) Determine the estimated total net patient revenues for 129945
all nursing homes and hospital long-term care units for the fiscal 129946
year;129947

       (2) Multiply the estimated total net patient revenues 129948
determined under division (A)(1) of this section by the lesser of 129949
the following:129950

       (a) The indirect guarantee percentage;129951

       (b) Six per cent.129952

       (3) Divide the product determined under division (A)(2) of 129953
this section by the number of days in the fiscal year;129954

       (4) Determine the sum of the following:129955

       (a) The total number of beds in all nursing homes and 129956
hospital long-term care units that are subject to the franchise 129957
permit fee for the fiscal year;129958

       (b) The total number of nursing home beds that are exempt 129959
from the franchise permit fee for the fiscal year because of the 129960
waiver obtained pursuant to section 5168.43 of the Revised Code.129961

       (5) Divide the quotient determined under division (A)(3) of 129962
this section by the sum determined under division (A)(4) of this 129963
section.129964

       (B) In determining the estimated total net patient revenues 129965
for all nursing homes and hospital long-term care units for a 129966
fiscal year, the department of medicaid shall use at least all of 129967
the following:129968

       (1) Information from medicaid cost reports filed under 129969
section 5165.10 of the Revised Code that are the most recent at 129970
the time the determination is made;129971

       (2) The projected total medicaid payment rates for nursing 129972
facility services for the fiscal year;129973

       (3) The projected total number of medicaid days for the 129974
fiscal year.129975

       Sec. 3721.51.        Sec. 5168.42.  The department of job and family 129976
servicesmedicaid shall do all of the following:129977

       (A) Subject to sections 3721.5125168.44, 3721.5135168.45, 129978
and 3721.5315168.48 of the Revised Code and divisions (C) and (D) 129979
of this section and for the purposes specified in section 3721.56129980
5168.54 of the Revised Code, determine an annual franchise permit 129981
fee on each nursing home in an amount equal to the franchise 129982
permit fee rate multiplied by the product of the following:129983

       (1) The number of beds licensed as nursing home beds, plus 129984
any other beds certified as skilled nursing facility beds under 129985
Title XVIII or nursing facility beds under Title XIX on the first 129986
day of May of the calendar year in which the fee is determined 129987
pursuant to division (A) of section 3721.535168.47 of the Revised 129988
Code;129989

       (2) The number of days in the fiscal year beginning on the 129990
first day of July of the calendar year in which the fee is 129991
determined pursuant to division (A) of section 3721.535168.47 of 129992
the Revised Code.129993

       (B) Subject to sections 3721.5125168.44, 3721.5135168.45, 129994
and 3721.5315168.48 of the Revised Code and divisions (C) and (D) 129995
of this section and for the purposes specified in section 3721.56129996
5168.54 of the Revised Code, determine an annual franchise permit 129997
fee on each hospital in an amount equal to the franchise permit 129998
fee rate multiplied by the product of the following:129999

       (1) The number of beds registered pursuant to section 3701.07 130000
of the Revised Code as skilled nursing facility beds or long-term 130001
care beds, plus any other beds licensed as nursing home beds under 130002
section 3721.02 or 3721.09 of the Revised Code, on the first day 130003
of May of the calendar year in which the fee is determined 130004
pursuant to division (A) of section 3721.535168.47 of the Revised 130005
Code;130006

       (2) The number of days in the fiscal year beginning on the 130007
first day of July of the calendar year in which the fee is 130008
determined pursuant to division (A) of section 3721.535168.47 of 130009
the Revised Code.130010

       (C) If the total amount of the franchise permit fee assessed 130011
under divisions (A) and (B) of this section for a fiscal year 130012
exceeds the indirect guarantee percentage of the actual net 130013
patient revenue for all nursing homes and hospital long-term care 130014
units for that fiscal year and seventy-five per cent or more of 130015
the combined total number of nursing homes and hospital long-term 130016
care units receive enhanced medicaid payments or other state 130017
payments equal to seventy-five per cent or more of their total 130018
franchise permit fee assessments, do both of the following:130019

       (1) Recalculate the assessments under divisions (A) and (B) 130020
of this section using a per bed per day rate equal to the indirect 130021
guarantee percentage of actual net patient revenue for all nursing 130022
homes and hospital long-term care units for that fiscal year;130023

       (2) Refund the difference between the amount of the franchise 130024
permit fee assessed for that fiscal year under divisions (A) and 130025
(B) of this section and the amount recalculated under division 130026
(C)(1) of this section as a credit against the assessments imposed 130027
under divisions (A) and (B) of this section for the subsequent 130028
fiscal year.130029

       (D) If the United States centers for medicare and medicaid 130030
services determines that the franchise permit fee established by 130031
sections 3721.505168.40 to 3721.585168.56 of the Revised Code is 130032
an impermissible health care-related tax under section 1903(w) of130033
the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935)section 1903(w), 42 130034
U.S.C. 1396b(w), as amended, take all necessary actions to cease 130035
implementation of sections 3721.505168.40 to 3721.585168.56 of 130036
the Revised Code in accordance with rules adopted under section 130037
3721.585168.56 of the Revised Code.130038

       Sec. 3721.511.        Sec. 5168.43.  (A) Not later than four months after 130039
July 17, 2009, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid130040
shall apply to the United States secretary of health and human 130041
services for a waiver under the "Social Security Act," section 130042
1903(w)(3)(E), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w)(3)(E), as necessary to do both 130043
of the following regarding the franchise permit fee assessed under 130044
section 3721.515168.42 of the Revised Code:130045

       (1) Reduce the franchise permit fee rate to zero dollars for 130046
each nursing home licensed under section 3721.02 or 3721.09 of the 130047
Revised Code to which either of the following applies:130048

       (a) The nursing home:130049

       (i) Is exempt from state taxation under section 140.08 of the 130050
Revised Code or is exempt from state taxation as a home for the 130051
aged as defined in section 5701.13 of the Revised Code;130052

       (ii) Is exempt from federal income taxation under section 501 130053
of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986;130054

       (iii) Does not participate in medicaid or medicare; and130055

       (iv) Provides services for the life of each resident without 130056
regard to the resident's ability to secure payment for the 130057
services.130058

       (b) The nursing home:130059

       (i) Has had a written affiliation agreement with a university 130060
in this state for education and research related to Alzheimer's 130061
disease for each of the twenty years preceding July 17, 2009, and 130062
has such an agreement on July 17, 2009;130063

       (ii) Was constructed pursuant to a certificate of need 130064
granted under Section 3 of Am. Sub. S.B. 256 of the 116th general 130065
assembly; and130066

       (iii) Does not participate in medicaid or medicare.130067

       (2) For each nursing facility with more than two hundred beds 130068
certified as nursing facility beds under Title XIX, reduce the 130069
franchise permit fee rate for a number of the nursing facility's 130070
beds specified by the department to the amount necessary to obtain 130071
approval of the waiver sought under this section.130072

       (B) The effective date of the waiver sought under this 130073
section shall be the first day of the quarter beginning after the 130074
United States secretary approves the waiver.130075

       Sec. 3721.512.        Sec. 5168.44.  If the United States secretary of 130076
health and human services approves the waiver sought under section 130077
3721.5115168.43 of the Revised Code, the department of job and 130078
family servicesmedicaid shall, for each nursing home and hospital 130079
that qualifies for a reduction of its franchise permit fee rate 130080
under the waiver, reduce the franchise permit fee rate in 130081
accordance with the terms of the waiver. For purposes of the first 130082
fiscal year during which the waiver takes effect, the department 130083
shall determine the amount of the reduction not later than the 130084
effective date of the waiver and shall mail to each nursing home 130085
and hospital qualifying for the reduction notice of the reduction 130086
not later than the last day of the first month of the quarter that 130087
begins after the United States secretary approves the waiver. For 130088
purposes of subsequent fiscal years, the department shall make 130089
such determinations and mail such notices in accordance with 130090
section 3721.535168.47 of the Revised Code.130091

       Sec. 3721.513.        Sec. 5168.45.  (A) If the United States secretary of 130092
health and human services approves the waiver sought under section 130093
3721.5115168.43 of the Revised Code, the department of job and 130094
family servicesmedicaid may do both of the following regarding 130095
the franchise permit fee assessed under section 3721.515168.42 of 130096
the Revised Code:130097

       (1) Determine how much money the franchise permit fee would 130098
have raised in a fiscal year if not for the waiver;130099

       (2) For each nursing home and hospital subject to the 130100
franchise permit fee, other than a nursing home or hospital that 130101
has its franchise permit fee rate reduced under section 3721.512130102
5168.44 of the Revised Code, uniformly increase the amount of the 130103
franchise permit fee rate for a fiscal year to an amount that will 130104
have the franchise permit fee raise an amount of money that does 130105
not exceed the amount determined under division (A)(1) of this 130106
section for that fiscal year.130107

       (B) If the department increases the franchise permit fee rate 130108
in accordance with division (A) of this section for the first 130109
fiscal year during which the waiver takes effect, the department 130110
shall determine the amount of the increase not later than the 130111
effective date of the waiver and shall mail to each nursing home 130112
and hospital subject to the increase notice of the increase not 130113
later than the last day of the first month of the quarter that 130114
begins after the United States secretary approves the waiver. If 130115
the department increases the franchise permit fee rate in 130116
accordance with division (A) of this section for a subsequent 130117
fiscal year, the department shall make such determinations and 130118
mail such notices in accordance with section 3721.535168.47 of 130119
the Revised Code.130120

       Sec. 3721.52.        Sec. 5168.46.  The department of health shall do all 130121
of the following:130122

       (A) For the purpose of the determinations made under 130123
divisions (A) and (B) of section 3721.515168.42 of the Revised 130124
Code and not later than the first day of each June, report to the 130125
department of job and family servicesmedicaid the following:130126

       (1) For each nursing home, the number of beds in the nursing 130127
home licensed on the preceding first day of May under section 130128
3721.02 or 3721.09 of the Revised Code or certified on that date 130129
under Title XVIII or Title XIX;130130

       (2) For each hospital, the number of beds in the hospital 130131
registered on the preceding first day of May pursuant to section 130132
3701.07 of the Revised Code as skilled nursing facility or 130133
long-term care beds or licensed on that date under section 3721.02 130134
or 3721.09 of the Revised Code as nursing home beds.130135

       (B) For the purpose of the redetermination under section 130136
3721.5315168.48 of the Revised Code and not later than the 130137
fifteenth day of each January, report to the department of job and 130138
family servicesmedicaid, for each nursing home and hospital, the 130139
number of beds for which a bed surrender occurred during the 130140
period beginning on the first day of May of the preceding calendar 130141
year and ending on the first day of January of the calendar year 130142
in which the redetermination is made.130143

       Sec. 3721.53.        Sec. 5168.47.  (A) Not later than the fifteenth day 130144
of September of each year, the department of job and family 130145
servicesmedicaid shall determine the annual franchise permit fee 130146
for each nursing home and hospital in accordance with section 130147
3721.515168.42 of the Revised Code and any adjustments made in 130148
accordance with sections 3721.5125168.44 and 3721.5135168.45 of 130149
the Revised Code.130150

       (B) Not later than the first day of October of each year, the 130151
department shall mail to each nursing home and hospital notice of 130152
the amount of the franchise permit fee that has been determined 130153
for the nursing home or hospital.130154

       (C) Subject to section 3721.5315168.48 of the Revised Code, 130155
each nursing home and hospital shall pay its fee under section 130156
3721.515168.42 of the Revised Code, as adjusted in accordance 130157
with sections 3721.5125168.44 and 3721.5135168.45 of the 130158
Revised Code, to the department in four installment payments not 130159
later than forty-five days after the last day of each October, 130160
December, March, and June.130161

       Sec. 3721.531.        Sec. 5168.48. (A) Not later than the last day of 130162
February of each year, the department of job and family services130163
medicaid shall redetermine each nursing home's and hospital's 130164
franchise permit fee if one or more bed surrenders occur during 130165
the period beginning on the first day of May of the preceding 130166
calendar year and ending on the first day of January of the 130167
calendar year in which the redetermination is made.130168

        (B) In redetermining nursing homes' and hospitals' franchise 130169
permit fees under this section, the department shall do both of 130170
the following:130171

        (1) Provide for the redetermination to be conducted in a 130172
manner consistent with the terms of the waiver sought under 130173
section 3721.5115168.43 of the Revised Code; 130174

       (2) Recalculate each nursing home's and hospital's franchise 130175
permit fee in accordance with division (A) or (B) of section 130176
3721.515168.42 of the Revised Code with the following changes:130177

        (a) In the case of a nursing home or hospital for which one 130178
or more bed surrenders occurred during the period beginning on the 130179
first day of May of the preceding calendar year and ending on the 130180
first day of January of the calendar year in which the 130181
redetermination is made, the number of beds included in the 130182
calculation for the purpose of division (A)(1) or (B)(1) of 130183
section 3721.515168.42 of the Revised Code shall exclude the beds 130184
for which bed surrenders occurred during that period.130185

        (b) The number of days used in the calculation under division 130186
(A)(2) or (B)(2) of section 3721.515168.42 of the Revised Code 130187
shall be the number of days in the first half of the calendar year 130188
in which the redetermination is made.130189

        (c) The franchise permit fee rate shall reflect adjustments 130190
made under sections 3721.5125168.44 and 3721.5135168.45 of the 130191
Revised Code.130192

        (C) Not later than the first day of March of each year, the 130193
department shall mail to each nursing home and hospital notice of 130194
the amount of its redetermined franchise permit fee.130195

        (D) Each nursing home and hospital shall pay its redetermined 130196
fee to the department in two installment payments not later than 130197
forty-five days after the last day of March and June of the 130198
calendar year in which the redetermination is made.130199

       Sec. 3721.532.        Sec. 5168.49.  If a nursing home or hospital 130200
undergoes a change of operator during a fiscal year, the 130201
responsibility for paying the franchise permit fee that was 130202
determined for the nursing home or hospital under section 3721.53130203
5168.47 of the Revised Code, or redetermined for the nursing home 130204
or hospital under section 3721.5315168.48 of the Revised Code, 130205
for that fiscal year shall be divided proportionally. The exiting 130206
operator shall be responsible for paying the amount of the fee 130207
that is for the part of the fiscal year that ends on the day 130208
before the effective date of the change of operator. The entering 130209
operator shall be responsible for paying the amount of the fee 130210
that is for the part of the fiscal year that begins on the 130211
effective date of the change of operator. The department of job 130212
and family servicesmedicaid is not required to mail a notice to 130213
the entering operator regarding the amount of that fiscal year's 130214
fee for which the entering operator is responsible.130215

       Sec. 3721.533.        Sec. 5168.50.  No nursing home or hospital shall 130216
directly bill its residents for the franchise permit fee paid 130217
under section 3721.535168.47 or 3721.5315168.48 of the Revised 130218
Code or otherwise directly pass the fee through to its residents.130219

       Sec. 3721.54.        Sec. 5168.51.  If a nursing home or hospital fails to 130220
pay the full amount of a franchise permit fee installment when 130221
due, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid may assess 130222
a five per cent penalty on the amount due for each month or 130223
fraction thereof the installment is overdue.130224

       Sec. 3721.541.        Sec. 5168.52.  (A) In addition to assessing a 130225
penalty pursuant to section 3721.545168.51 of the Revised Code, 130226
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid may do any of 130227
the following if a nursing facility or hospital fails to pay the 130228
full amount of a franchise permit fee installment when due:130229

        (1) Withhold an amount less than or equal to the installment 130230
and penalty assessed under section 3721.545168.51 of the Revised 130231
Code from a medicaid payment due the nursing facility or hospital 130232
until the nursing facility or hospital pays the installment and 130233
penalty;130234

        (2) Offset an amount less than or equal to the installment 130235
and penalty assessed under section 3721.545168.51 of the Revised 130236
Code from a Medicaidmedicaid payment due the nursing facility or 130237
hospital;130238

       (3) Terminate the nursing facility or hospital's medicaid 130239
provider agreement.130240

        (B) The department may offset a medicaid payment under 130241
division (A) of this section without providing notice to the 130242
nursing facility or hospital and without conducting an 130243
adjudication under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.130244

       Sec. 3721.55.        Sec. 5168.53.  (A) A nursing home or hospital may 130245
appeal the fee assessed under section 3721.515168.42 of the 130246
Revised Code, as adjusted under section 3721.5125168.44 or 130247
3721.5135168.45 of the Revised Code, and redetermined under 130248
section 3721.5315168.48 of the Revised Code solely on the grounds 130249
that the department of job and family servicesmedicaid committed 130250
a material error in determining or redetermining the amount of the 130251
fee. A request for an appeal must be received by the department 130252
not later than fifteen days after the date the department mails 130253
the notice of the fee and must include written materials setting 130254
forth the basis for the appeal.130255

       (B) If a nursing home or hospital submits a request for an 130256
appeal within the time required under division (A) of this 130257
section, the department of job and family services shall hold a 130258
public hearing in Columbus not later than thirty days after the 130259
date the department receives the request for an appeal. The 130260
department shall, not later than ten days before the date of the 130261
hearing, mail a notice of the date, time, and place of the hearing 130262
to the nursing home or hospital. The department may hear all the 130263
requested appeals in one public hearing.130264

       (C) On the basis of the evidence presented at the hearing or 130265
any other evidence submitted by the nursing home or hospital, the 130266
department may adjust a fee. The department's decision is final.130267

       Sec. 3721.56.        Sec. 5168.54.  (A) There is hereby created in the 130268
state treasury the nursing home franchise permit fee fund. All 130269
payments and penalties paid by nursing homes and hospitals under 130270
sections 3721.535168.47, 3721.5315168.48, and 3721.545168.51130271
of the Revised Code shall be deposited into the fund. The fund 130272
shall also consist of money deposited into it pursuant to sections 130273
3769.08 and 3769.26 of the Revised Code. Subject to division (B) 130274
of section 3769.08 of the Revised Code, the department of job and 130275
family servicesmedicaid shall use the money in the fund to make 130276
medicaid payments to providers of nursing facility services and 130277
providers of home and community-based services. Money in the fund 130278
may also be used for the residential state supplement program 130279
established under section 5119.695119.41 of the Revised Code.130280

        (B) Any money remaining in the nursing home franchise permit 130281
fee fund after payments specified in division (A) of this section 130282
are made shall be retained in the fund. Any interest or other 130283
investment proceeds earned on money in the fund shall be credited 130284
to the fund and used to make medicaid payments in accordance with 130285
division (A) of this section.130286

       Sec. 3721.57.        Sec. 5168.55.  The department of job and family 130287
servicesmedicaid may make any investigation it considers 130288
appropriate to obtain information necessary to fulfill its duties 130289
under sections 3721.505168.40 to 3721.585168.56 of the Revised 130290
Code. At the request of the department, the attorney general shall 130291
aid in any such investigations. The attorney general shall 130292
institute and prosecute all necessary actions for the enforcement 130293
of sections 3721.505168.40 to 3721.585168.56 of the Revised 130294
Code, except that at the request of the attorney general, the 130295
county prosecutor of the county in which a nursing home or 130296
hospital that has failed to comply with sections 3721.505168.40130297
to 3721.585168.56 of the Revised Code is located shall institute 130298
and prosecute any necessary action against the nursing home or 130299
hospital.130300

       Sec. 3721.58.        Sec. 5168.56.  The medicaid director of job and 130301
family services shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. 130302
of the Revised Code to do both of the following:130303

       (A) Prescribe the actions the department of job and family 130304
servicesmedicaid will take to cease implementation of sections 130305
3721.50 through 3721.575168.40 to 5168.56 of the Revised Code if 130306
the United States centers for medicare and medicaid services 130307
determines that the franchise permit fee established by those 130308
sections is an impermissible health-care related tax under section 130309
1903(w) of the "Social Security Act," 105 Stat. 1793 (1991)130310
section 1903(w), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w), as amended;130311

       (B) Establish any requirements or procedures the director 130312
considers necessary to implement sections 3721.505168.40 to 130313
3721.585168.56 of the Revised Code.130314

       Sec. 5112.30.        Sec. 5168.60.  As used in sections 5112.305168.60 to 130315
5112.395168.71 of the Revised Code:130316

       (A) "Franchise permit fee rate" means the following:130317

       (1) For fiscal year 20122014, seventeeneighteen dollars and 130318
ninety-ninetwenty-four cents;130319

       (2) For fiscal year 20132015 and each fiscal year 130320
thereafter, eighteen dollars and thirty-twoseventeen cents.130321

       (B) "Indirect guarantee percentage" means the percentage 130322
specified in section 1903(w)(4)(C)(ii) of the "Social Security 130323
Act," 120 Stat. 2994 (2006)section 1903(w)(4)(C)(ii), 42 U.S.C. 130324
1396b(w)(4)(C)(ii), as amended, that is to be used in determining 130325
whether a class of providers is indirectly held harmless for any 130326
portion of the costs of a broad-based health-care-related tax. If 130327
the indirect guarantee percentage changes during a fiscal year, 130328
the indirect guarantee percentage is the following:130329

       (1) For the part of the fiscal year before the change takes 130330
effect, the percentage in effect before the change;130331

       (2) For the part of the fiscal year beginning with the date 130332
the indirect guarantee percentage changes, the new percentage.130333

       (C) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded130334
ICF/IID" has the same meaning as in section 5111.205124.01 of 130335
the Revised Code, except that, until August 1, 2009, it does not 130336
include any such facility operated by the department of 130337
developmental disabilities.130338

       (D) "MedicaidMedicaid-certified capacity" has the same 130339
meaning as in section 5111.015124.01 of the Revised Code. 130340

       (E) "Provider agreement" has the same meaning as in section 130341
5124.01 of the Revised Code.130342

       Sec. 5112.31.        Sec. 5168.61.  The department of job and family 130343
servicesdevelopmental disabilities shall do all of the 130344
following:130345

       (A) Subject to section 5112.3315168.64 of the Revised Code 130346
and divisions (B) and (C) of this section and for the purposes 130347
specified in section 5112.3715168.69 of the Revised Code, assess 130348
for each fiscal year each intermediate care facility for the 130349
mentally retardedICF/IID a franchise permit fee equal to the 130350
franchise permit fee rate multiplied by the product of the 130351
following:130352

       (1) The number of beds certified under Title XIX of the 130353
"Social Security Act"ICF/IID's medicaid-certified capacity on the 130354
first day of May of the calendar year in which the assessment is 130355
determined pursuant to division (A) of section 5112.335168.63 of 130356
the Revised Code;130357

       (2) The number of days in the fiscal year.130358

       (B) If the total amount of the franchise permit fee assessed 130359
under division (A) of this section for a fiscal year exceeds the 130360
indirect guarantee percentage of the actual net patient revenue 130361
for all intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded130362
ICFs/IID for that fiscal year and seventy-five per cent or more of 130363
the total number of intermediate care facilities for the mentally 130364
retardedICFs/IID receive enhanced medicaid payments or other 130365
state payments equal to seventy-five per cent or more of their 130366
total franchise permit fee assessments, do both of the following:130367

       (1) Recalculate the assessments under division (A) of this 130368
section using a per bed per day rate equal to the indirect 130369
guarantee percentage of actual net patient revenue for all 130370
intermediate care facilities for the mentally retardedICFs/IID130371
for that fiscal year;130372

       (2) Refund the difference between the amount of the franchise 130373
permit fee assessed for that fiscal year under division (A) of 130374
this section and the amount recalculated under division (B)(1) of 130375
this section as a credit against the assessments imposed under 130376
division (A) of this section for the subsequent fiscal year.130377

       (C) If the United States secretary of health and human 130378
services determines that the franchise permit fee established by 130379
sections 5112.305168.60 to 5112.395168.71 of the Revised Code 130380
would be an impermissible health care-related tax under section 130381
1903(w) of the "Social Security Act," 105 Stat. 1793 (1991)130382
section 1903(w), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w), as amended, take all 130383
necessary actions to cease implementation of those sections in 130384
accordance with rules adopted under section 5112.395168.71 of the 130385
Revised Code.130386

       Sec. 5112.32.        Sec. 5168.62.  For the purpose of the franchise 130387
permit fee imposed under section 5112.315168.61 of the Revised 130388
Code and not later than the first day of each June, the department 130389
of developmental disabilities shall:130390

       (A) Not later than August 1, 1993, report to the department 130391
of job and family services the number of beds in each intermediate 130392
care facility for the mentally retarded certified on July 1, 1993, 130393
under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 130394
42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended;130395

       (B) Not later than June 1, 1994, and the first day of each 130396
June thereafter, report to the department of job and family 130397
servicesmedicaid the number of beds in each such facility 130398
certifiedICF/IID on the preceding first day of May under that 130399
title.130400

       Sec. 5112.33.        Sec. 5168.63.  (A) Not later than the fifteenth day 130401
of August of each year, the department of job and family services130402
developmental disabilities shall determine the annual franchise 130403
permit fee for each intermediate care facility for the mentally 130404
retardedICF/IID in accordance with section 5112.315168.61 of the 130405
Revised Code.130406

       (B) Not later than the first day of September of each year, 130407
the department shall mail to each intermediate care facility for 130408
the mentally retardedICF/IID notice of the amount of the 130409
franchise permit fee the facilityICF/IID has been assessed under 130410
section 5112.315168.61 of the Revised Code.130411

       (C) Subject to section 5112.3315168.64 of the Revised Code, 130412
each intermediate care facility for the mentally retardedICF/IID130413
shall pay its fee under section 5112.315168.61 of the Revised 130414
Code to the department in quarterly installment payments not later 130415
than forty-five days after the last day of each September, 130416
December, March, and June.130417

       Sec. 5112.331.        Sec. 5168.64.  (A) If, during the period beginning 130418
on the first day of May of a calendar year and ending on the first 130419
day of January of the immediately following calendar year, the 130420
operator of an intermediate care facility for the mentally 130421
retardedICF/IID converts, pursuant to section 5111.8745124.60130422
of the Revised Code, one or more of the facility'sICF/IID's beds 130423
to providing home and community-based services, the department of 130424
job and family servicesdevelopmental disabilities shall do the 130425
following:130426

       (1) If the facility'sICF/IID's medicaid certification is 130427
terminated because of the conversion, terminate the facility's130428
ICF/IID's franchise permit fee effective on the first day of the 130429
quarter immediately following the quarter in which the department 130430
receives the notice of the conversion from the director of health;130431

       (2) If the facility's certifiedICF/IID's medicaid-certified130432
capacity under medicaid is reduced because of the conversion, 130433
redetermine the facility'sICF/IID's franchise permit fee in 130434
accordance with division (B) of this section for the second half 130435
of the fiscal year for which the fee is assessed. 130436

       (B)(1) To redetermine an intermediate care facility for the 130437
mentally retarded'sICF/IID's franchise permit fee, the department 130438
shall multiply the franchise permit fee rate by the product of the 130439
following:130440

       (a) The number of the facility's beds that remain certified 130441
under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act"ICF/IID's 130442
medicaid-certified capacity as of the date the conversion takes 130443
effect;130444

       (b) The number of days in the second half of the fiscal year 130445
for which the redetermination is made.130446

       (2) The intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded130447
ICF/IID shall pay its franchise permit fee as redetermined under 130448
division (B)(1) of this section in installment payments not later 130449
than forty-five days after the last day of March and June of the 130450
fiscal year for which the redetermination is made.130451

       Sec. 5112.34.        Sec. 5168.65.  If an intermediate care facility for 130452
the mentally retardedICF/IID fails to pay the full amount of an 130453
installment when due, the department of job and family services130454
developmental disabilities may assess a five per cent penalty on 130455
the amount due for each month or fraction thereof the installment 130456
is overdue.130457

       Sec. 5112.341.        Sec. 5168.66.  (A) In addition to assessing a 130458
penalty pursuant to section 5112.345168.65 of the Revised Code, 130459
the department of job and family servicesdevelopmental 130460
disabilities may do any of the following if an intermediate care 130461
facility for the mentally retardedICF/IID fails to pay the full 130462
amount of a franchise permit fee installment when due:130463

        (1) Withhold an amount less than or equal to the installment 130464
and penalty assessed under section 5112.345168.65 of the Revised 130465
Code from a medicaid payment due the facilityICF/IID until the 130466
facilityICF/IID pays the installment and penalty;130467

        (2) Offset an amount less than or equal to the installment 130468
and penalty assessed under section 5112.345168.65 of the Revised 130469
Code from a medicaid payment due the facilityICF/IID;130470

       (3) TerminateProvide for the department of medicaid to 130471
terminate the facility's medicaidICF/IID's provider agreement.130472

        (B) The department may offset a medicaid payment under 130473
division (A) of this section without providing notice to the 130474
intermediate care facility for the mentally retardedICF/IID and 130475
without conducting an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the 130476
Revised Code.130477

       Sec. 5112.35.        Sec. 5168.67.  (A) An intermediate care facility for 130478
the mentally retardedICF/IID may appeal the franchise permit fee 130479
imposed under section 5112.315168.61 of the Revised Code solely 130480
on the grounds that the department of job and family services130481
developmental disabilities committed a material error in 130482
determining the amount of the fee. A request for an appeal must be 130483
received by the department not later than fifteen days after the 130484
date the department mails the notice of the fee and must include 130485
written materials setting forth the basis for the appeal.130486

       (B) If an intermediate care facility for the mentally 130487
retardedICF/IID submits a request for an appeal within the time 130488
required under division (A) of this section, the department shall 130489
hold a public hearing in Columbus not later than thirty days after 130490
the date the department receives the request for an appeal. The 130491
department shall, not later than ten days before the date of the 130492
hearing, mail a notice of the date, time, and place of the hearing 130493
to the facilityICF/IID. The department may hear all requested 130494
appeals in one public hearing.130495

       (C) On the basis of the evidence presented at the hearing or 130496
any other evidence submitted by the intermediate care facility for 130497
the mentally retardedICF/IID, the department may adjust a fee. 130498
The department's decision is final.130499

       Sec. 5112.37.        Sec. 5168.68.  There is hereby created in the state 130500
treasury the home and community-based services for the mentally 130501
retarded and developmentally disabled fund. All installment 130502
payments and penalties paid by an intermediate care facility for 130503
the mentally retardedICF/IID under sections 5112.335168.63 and 130504
5112.345168.65 of the Revised Code shall be deposited into the 130505
fund. As soon as possible after the end of each quarter, the 130506
medicaid director of job and family services shall certify to the 130507
director of budget and management the amount of money that is in 130508
the fund as of the last day of that quarter. On receipt of a 130509
certification, the director of budget and management shall 130510
transfer the amount so certified from the home and community-based 130511
services for the mentally retarded and developmentally disabled 130512
fund to the department of developmental disabilities operating and 130513
services fund created under section 5112.3715168.69 of the 130514
Revised Code.130515

       Sec. 5112.371.        Sec. 5168.69. There is hereby created in the state 130516
treasury the department of developmental disabilities operating 130517
and services fund. The fund shall consist of the money transferred 130518
to it under section 5112.375168.68 of the Revised Code. The money 130519
in the fund shall be used for the expenses of the programs that 130520
the department of developmental disabilities administers and the 130521
department's administrative expenses.130522

       Sec. 5112.38.        Sec. 5168.70.  The department of job and family 130523
servicesdevelopmental disabilities may make any investigation it 130524
considers appropriate to obtain information necessary to fulfill 130525
its duties under sections 5112.305168.60 to 5112.395168.71 of 130526
the Revised Code. At the request of the department, the attorney 130527
general shall aid in any such investigations. The attorney general 130528
shall institute and prosecute all necessary actions for the 130529
enforcement of sections 5112.305168.60 to 5112.395168.71 of the 130530
Revised Code, except that at the request of the attorney general, 130531
the county prosecutor of the county in which an intermediate care 130532
facility for the mentally retardedICF/IID that has failed to 130533
comply with those sections is located shall institute and 130534
prosecute any necessary action against the facilityICF/IID.130535

       Sec. 5112.39.        Sec. 5168.71. TheTo the extent authorized by rules 130536
authorized by section 5162.021 of the Revised Code, the director 130537
of job and family servicesdevelopmental disabilities shall adopt 130538
rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to do 130539
both of the following:130540

       (A) Prescribe the actions the department of developmental 130541
disabilities will take to cease implementation of sections 5112.30130542
5168.60 to 5112.395168.71 of the Revised Code if the United 130543
States secretary of health and human services determines that the 130544
franchise permit fee imposed under section 5112.315168.61 of the 130545
Revised Code is an impermissible health care-related tax under 130546
section 1903(w) of the "Social Security Act," 105 Stat. 1793 130547
(1991)section 1903(w), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w), as amended;130548

       (B) Establish any other requirements or procedures the 130549
director considers necessary to implement sections 5112.305168.60130550
to 5112.395168.71 of the Revised Code.130551

       Sec. 5112.99.        Sec. 5168.99.  (A) The medicaid director of job and 130552
family services shall impose a penalty for each day that a 130553
hospital fails to report the information required under section 130554
5112.045168.05 of the Revised Code on or before the dates 130555
specified in that section. The amount of the penalty shall be 130556
established by the director in rules adopted under section 5112.03130557
5168.02 of the Revised Code.130558

       (B) In addition to any other remedy available to the 130559
department of job and family servicesmedicaid under law to 130560
collect unpaid assessments and transfers under sections 5112.01130561
5168.01 to 5112.215168.14 of the Revised Code, the director 130562
shall impose a penalty of ten per cent of the amount due on any 130563
hospital that fails to pay assessments or make intergovernmental 130564
transfers by the dates required by rules adopted under section 130565
5112.035168.02 of the Revised Code.130566

       (C) In addition to any other remedy available to the 130567
department of job and family servicesmedicaid under law to 130568
collect unpaid assessments imposed under section 5112.415168.21130569
of the Revised Code, the director shall impose a penalty of ten 130570
per cent of the amount due on any hospital that fails to pay the 130571
assessment by the date it is due.130572

       (D) The director shall waive the penalties provided for in 130573
this section for good cause shown by the hospital.130574

       (E) All penalties imposed under this section shall be 130575
deposited into the health care administration fund created by 130576
section 5111.945162.54 of the Revised Code.130577

       Sec. 5112.991.        Sec. 5168.991.  The department of job and family 130578
servicesmedicaid may offset the amount of a hospital's unpaid 130579
penalty imposed under section 5112.995168.99 of the Revised Code 130580
from one or more payments due the hospital under the medicaid 130581
program. The total amount that may be offset from one or more 130582
payments shall not exceed the amount of the unpaid penalty.130583

       Sec. 5302.221. (A) As used in this section:130584

       "Estate" has the same meaning as in section 5111.115162.21130585
of the Revised Code.130586

       "Medicaid estate recovery program" means the program 130587
instituted under section 5111.115162.21 of the Revised Code.130588

       (B) The administrator of the medicaid estate recovery program 130589
shall prescribe a form on which a beneficiary of a transfer on 130590
death designation affidavit as provided in section 5302.22 of the 130591
Revised Code, who survives the deceased owner of the real property 130592
or an interest in the real property or that is in existence on the 130593
date of death of the deceased owner, or that beneficiary's 130594
representative is to indicate both of the following:130595

       (1) Whether the deceased owner was either of the following:130596

       (a) A decedent subject to the medicaid estate recovery 130597
program;130598

       (b) The spouse of a decedent subject to the medicaid estate 130599
recovery program.130600

       (2) Whether the real property or interest in the real 130601
property was part of the estate of a decedent subject to the 130602
medicaid estate recovery program.130603

       (C) A county recorder shall obtain a properly completed form 130604
prescribed under division (B) of this section from the beneficiary 130605
of a transfer on death designation affidavit or the beneficiary's 130606
representative and send a copy of the form to the administrator of 130607
the medicaid estate recovery program before recording the transfer 130608
of the real property or interest in the real property under 130609
section 5302.222 of the Revised Code.130610

       Sec. 5309.082. (A) As used in this section:130611

       "Estate" has the same meaning as in section 5111.115162.21130612
of the Revised Code.130613

       "Medicaid estate recovery program" means the program 130614
instituted under section 5111.115162.21 of the Revised Code.130615

       (B) The administrator of the medicaid estate recovery program 130616
shall prescribe a form on which a surviving tenant under a 130617
survivorship tenancy or such a surviving tenant's representative 130618
is to indicate both of the following:130619

       (1) Whether the deceased survivorship tenant was either of 130620
the following:130621

       (a) A decedent subject to the medicaid estate recovery 130622
program;130623

       (b) The spouse of a decedent subject to the medicaid estate 130624
recovery program.130625

       (2) Whether the registered land under a survivorship tenancy 130626
was part of the estate of a decedent subject to the medicaid 130627
estate recovery program.130628

       (C) A county recorder shall obtain a properly completed form 130629
prescribed under division (B) of this section from the surviving 130630
tenant under a survivorship tenancy or the surviving tenant's 130631
representative and send a copy of the form to the administrator of 130632
the medicaid estate recovery program before registering the title 130633
in the surviving tenants under section 5309.081 of the Revised 130634
Code.130635

       Sec. 5309.68.  Any person owning real estate, the title to 130636
which is registered, may request the withdrawal of such real 130637
estate from registration by presenting to the county recorder an 130638
affidavit of intention to withdraw. The affidavit shall describe 130639
the real estate, shall be properly executed and signed, and shall 130640
have attached to it the owner's duplicate certificate of title. 130641
Thereupon the county recorder shall register or record the 130642
affidavit and, upon order of the court, cancel said certificate of 130643
record, and thereafterrecord the court's order in the 130644
unregistered land official records. Thereafter, said title shall 130645
be considered the same as other unregistered lands. All deeds and 130646
mortgages heretofore filed conveying registered lands, theA130647
registration certificate of whichthat has been surrendered as 130648
herein provided, shall be recorded according to law, and 130649
thereafter the lands conveyed therein shall be considered the same 130650
as other unregistered lands.130651

       Sec. 5309.86. (A) Every memorial, notation, or cancellation 130652
of such memorial or notation, made on any certificate of title or 130653
duplicate thereof that is kept by paper means shall be signed by 130654
the county recorder or histhe recorder's authorized deputy or 130655
clerk.130656

       (B) If a county recorder maintains registered land records by 130657
nonpaper means in the manner authorized by section 5309.031 of the 130658
Revised Code, the signature and seal of the county recorder or the 130659
recorder's authorized deputy or clerk may be reproduced by 130660
electronic facsimile on a certificate of title or duplicate 130661
thereof. Any prior memorial, notation, or cancellation of such 130662
memorial or notation on a certificate of title or duplicate 130663
thereof shall note only the name of the prior recorder and need 130664
not be signed by the county recorder or the recorder's authorized 130665
deputy or clerk.130666

       Sec. 5501.311.  (A) Notwithstanding sections 123.01 and 130667
127.16 of the Revised Code the director of transportation may 130668
lease or lease-purchase all or any part of a transportation 130669
facility to or from one or more persons, one or more governmental 130670
agencies, a transportation improvement district, or any 130671
combination thereof, and may grant leases, easements, or licenses 130672
for lands under the control of the department of transportation. 130673
The director may adopt rules necessary to give effect to this 130674
section.130675

       (B) Plans and specifications for the construction of a 130676
transportation facility under a lease or lease-purchase agreement 130677
are subject to approval of the director and must meet or exceed 130678
all applicable standards of the department.130679

       (C) Any lease or lease-purchase agreement under which the 130680
department is the lessee shall be for a period not exceeding the 130681
then current two-year period for which appropriations have been 130682
made by the general assembly to the department, and such agreement 130683
may contain such other terms as the department and the other 130684
parties thereto agree, notwithstanding any other provision of law, 130685
including provisions that rental payments in amounts sufficient to 130686
pay bond service charges payable during the current two-year lease 130687
term shall be an absolute and unconditional obligation of the 130688
department independent of all other duties under the agreement 130689
without set-off or deduction or any other similar rights or 130690
defenses. Any such agreement may provide for renewal of the 130691
agreement at the end of each term for another term, not exceeding 130692
two years, provided that no renewal shall be effective until the 130693
effective date of an appropriation enacted by the general assembly 130694
from which the department may lawfully pay rentals under such 130695
agreement. Any such agreement may include, without limitation, any 130696
agreement by the department with respect to any costs of 130697
transportation facilities to be included prior to acquisition and 130698
construction of such transportation facilities. Any such agreement 130699
shall not constitute a debt or pledge of the faith and credit of 130700
the state, or of any political subdivision of the state, and the 130701
lessor shall have no right to have taxes or excises levied by the 130702
general assembly, or the taxing authority of any political 130703
subdivision of the state, for the payment of rentals thereunder. 130704
Any such agreement shall contain a statement to that effect.130705

       (D) A municipal corporation, township, or county may use 130706
service payments in lieu of taxes credited to special funds or 130707
accounts pursuant to sections 5709.43, 5709.75, and 5709.80 of the 130708
Revised Code to provide its contribution to the cost of a 130709
transportation facility, provided such facility was among the 130710
purposes for which such service payments were authorized. The 130711
contribution may be in the form of a lump sum or periodic 130712
payments.130713

       (E) Pursuant to the "Telecommunications Act of 1996," 110 130714
Stat. 152, 47 U.S.C. 332 note, the director may grant a lease, 130715
easement, or license in a transportation facility to a 130716
telecommunications service provider for construction, placement, 130717
or operation of a telecommunications facility. An interest granted 130718
under this division is subject to all of the following conditions:130719

       (1) The transportation facility is owned in fee simple or 130720
easement by this state at the time the lease, easement, or license 130721
is granted to the telecommunications provider.130722

       (2) The lease, easement, or license shall be granted on a 130723
competitive basis in accordance with policies and procedures to be 130724
determined by the director. The policies and procedures may 130725
include provisions for master leases for multiple sites.130726

       (3) The telecommunications facility shall be designed to 130727
accommodate the state's multi-agency radio communication system, 130728
the intelligent transportation system, and the department's 130729
communication system as the director may determine is necessary 130730
for highway or other departmental purposes.130731

       (4) The telecommunications facility shall be designed to 130732
accommodate such additional telecommunications equipment as may 130733
feasibly be co-located thereon as determined in the discretion of 130734
the director.130735

       (5) The telecommunications service providers awarded the 130736
lease, easement, or license, agree to permit other 130737
telecommunications service providers to co-locate on the 130738
telecommunications facility, and agree to the terms and conditions 130739
of the co-location as determined in the discretion of the 130740
director.130741

       (6) The director shall require indemnity agreements in favor 130742
of the department as a condition of any lease, easement, or 130743
license granted under this division. Each indemnity agreement 130744
shall secure this state and its agents from liability for damages 130745
arising out of safety hazards, zoning, and any other matter of 130746
public interest the director considers necessary.130747

       (7) The telecommunications service provider fully complies 130748
with any permit issued under section 5515.01 of the Revised Code 130749
pertaining to land that is the subject of the lease, easement, or 130750
license.130751

       (8) All plans and specifications shall meet with the 130752
director's approval.130753

       (9) Any other conditions the director determines necessary.130754

       (F) In accordance with section 5501.031 of the Revised Code, 130755
to further efforts to promote energy conservation and energy 130756
efficiency, the director may grant a lease, easement, or license 130757
in a transportation facility to a utility service provider that 130758
has received its certificate from the Ohio power siting board or 130759
appropriate local entity for construction, placement, or operation 130760
of an alternative energy generating facility service provider as 130761
defined in section 4928.64 of the Revised Code. An interest 130762
granted under this division is subject to all of the following 130763
conditions:130764

       (1) The transportation facility is owned in fee simple or in 130765
easement by this state at the time the lease, easement, or license 130766
is granted to the utility service provider.130767

       (2) The lease, easement, or license shall be granted on a 130768
competitive basis in accordance with policies and procedures to be 130769
determined by the director. The policies and procedures may 130770
include provisions for master leases for multiple sites.130771

       (3) The alternative energy generating facility shall be 130772
designed to provide energy for the department's transportation 130773
facilities with the potential for selling excess power on the 130774
power grid, as the director may determine is necessary for highway 130775
or other departmental purposes.130776

       (4) The director shall require indemnity agreements in favor 130777
of the department as a condition of any lease, easement, or 130778
license granted under this division. Each indemnity agreement 130779
shall secure this state from liability for damages arising out of 130780
safety hazards, zoning, and any other matter of public interest 130781
the director considers necessary.130782

       (5) The alternative energy service provider fully complies 130783
with any permit issued by the Ohio power siting board under 130784
Chapter 4906. of the Revised Code and complies with section 130785
5515.01 of the Revised Code pertaining to land that is the subject 130786
of the lease, easement, or license.130787

       (6) All plans and specifications shall meet with the 130788
director's approval.130789

       (7) Any other conditions the director determines necessary.130790

       (G) Money the department receives under divisions (E) and (F) 130791
of this section shall be deposited into the state treasury to the 130792
credit of the highway operating fund.130793

        (H) A lease, easement, or license granted under division (E) 130794
or (F) of this section, and any telecommunications facility or 130795
alternative energy generating facility relating to such interest 130796
in a transportation facility, is hereby deemed to further the 130797
essential highway purpose of building and maintaining a safe, 130798
energy-efficient, and accessible transportation system.130799

       Sec. 5501.312. (A) The director of transportation may do all 130800
of the following:130801

       (A)(1) Contract in the manner provided by this section with 130802
one or more persons, a transportation improvement district, one or 130803
more governmental agencies, or any combination thereof, desiring 130804
the use or service of a transportation facility, and fix the 130805
terms, conditions, rentals, or other charges for such use or 130806
services. Such contract may provide for acquisition by such person 130807
or governmental agency of all or any part of the facility for such 130808
consideration payable over the period of the contract or otherwise 130809
as the director in histhe director's sole discretion determines 130810
to be appropriate.130811

       (B)(2) Make loans from any available source, including the 130812
federal share of a project, for the planning, acquisition, or 130813
construction of transportation facilities upon such terms as the 130814
director may determine or authorize, including secured or 130815
unsecured loans, and in connection therewith, enter into loan 130816
agreements, subordination agreements, and other agreements, accept 130817
notes and other forms of obligation to evidence the indebtedness 130818
and mortgages, liens, pledges, assignments, or other security 130819
interests to secure the indebtedness, which may be prior or 130820
subordinate to or on a parity with other indebtedness, 130821
obligations, mortgages, pledges, assignments, other security 130822
interests, or liens or encumbrances, and take such actions as are 130823
appropriate to protect the security and safeguard against losses, 130824
including foreclosure and the bidding upon and purchase of 130825
property upon foreclosure or other sale. Repayments of a federal 130826
share loan may be obligated by the director for any transportation 130827
purpose, including the reloaning of such repaid funds for other 130828
projects. Reloaned funds would be considered state loans, not 130829
federal share loans.130830

       (C)(3) Sell transportation facilities under such terms as he130831
the director may determine, including conditional sale or 130832
installment sale, under which title may pass prior to or after 130833
completion of the facility, or at any time provided in the 130834
agreement pertaining to the sale, including sale under an option 130835
to purchase at a price which may be a nominal amount or less than 130836
true value at the time of the purchase;130837

       (D)(4) Grant a mortagemortgage, lien, or other encumbrance 130838
on, or pledge or assignment of, or other security interest with 130839
respect to, all or any part of a transportation facility, or on, 130840
of, or with respect to any lease, sublease, sale, conditional sale 130841
or installment sale agreement, loan agreement, or other agreement 130842
pertaining to the lease, sublease, sale, or other disposition of a 130843
facility or pertaining to a loan made for a facility, or any 130844
guaranty or insurance agreement made with respect thereto, or any 130845
interest of the department of transportation therein, or any other 130846
interest granted, assigned, or released to secure payments to be 130847
made by the department, which mortgage, lien, encumbrance, pledge, 130848
assignment, or other security interest may be prior or subordinate 130849
to or on a parity with any other mortgage assignment, or other 130850
security interest, lien, or encumbrance;130851

       (E)(5) Contract for the acquisition or construction of a 130852
transportation facility or any part thereof and for the leasing, 130853
subleasing, sale, or other disposition of the facility in a manner 130854
determined by the director.130855

       (B) All money received by the department under this section 130856
shall be deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the 130857
highway operating fund.130858

       Sec. 5501.73.  (A) After selecting a solicited or unsolicited 130859
proposal for a public-private initiative, the department of 130860
transportation shall enter into a public-private agreement for a 130861
transportation facility with the selected private entity or any 130862
configuration of private entities. An affected jurisdiction may be 130863
a party to a public-private agreement entered into by the 130864
department and a selected private entity or combination of private 130865
entities.130866

       (B) A public-private agreement under this section shall 130867
provide for all of the following: 130868

       (1) Planning, acquisition, financing, development, design, 130869
construction, reconstruction, replacement, improvement, 130870
maintenance, management, repair, leasing, or operation of a 130871
transportation facility; 130872

       (2) Term of the public-private agreement; 130873

       (3) Type of property interest, if any, the private entity 130874
will have in the transportation facility; 130875

       (4) A specific plan to ensure proper maintenance of the 130876
transportation facility throughout the term of the agreement and a 130877
return of the facility to the department, if applicable, in good 130878
condition and repair;130879

       (5) Whether user fees will be collected on the transportation 130880
facility and the basis by which such user fees shall be determined 130881
and modified; 130882

       (6) Compliance with applicable federal, state, and local 130883
laws; 130884

       (7) Grounds for termination of the public-private agreement 130885
by the department or operator;130886

       (8) Disposition of the facility upon completion of the 130887
agreement;130888

       (9) Procedures for amendment of the agreement. 130889

       (C) A public-private agreement under this section may provide 130890
for any of the following: 130891

       (1) Review and approval by the department of the operator's 130892
plans for the development and operation of the transportation 130893
facility; 130894

       (2) Inspection by the department of construction of or 130895
improvements to the transportation facility; 130896

       (3) Maintenance by the operator of a policy of liability 130897
insurance or self-insurance; 130898

       (4) Filing by the operator, on a periodic basis, of 130899
appropriate financial statements in a form acceptable to the 130900
department; 130901

       (5) Filing by the operator, on a periodic basis, of traffic 130902
reports in a form acceptable to the department; 130903

       (6) Financing obligations of the operator and the department; 130904

       (7) Apportionment of expenses between the operator and the 130905
department; 130906

       (8) Rights and duties of the operator, the department, and 130907
other state and local governmental entities with respect to use of 130908
the transportation facility; 130909

       (9) Rights and remedies available in the event of default or 130910
delay; 130911

       (10) Terms and conditions of indemnification of the operator 130912
by the department; 130913

       (11) Assignment, subcontracting, or other delegation of 130914
responsibilities of the operator or the department under the 130915
agreement to third parties, including other private entities and 130916
other state agencies;130917

       (12) Sale or lease to the operator of private property 130918
related to the transportation facility;130919

       (13) Traffic enforcement and other policing issues, including 130920
any reimbursement by the private entity for such services.130921

       (D)(1) The director of transportation may include in any 130922
public-private agreement under sections 5501.70 to 5501.83 of the 130923
Revised Code a provision authorizing a binding dispute resolution 130924
method for any controversy subsequently arising out of the 130925
contract. The binding dispute resolution method may proceed only 130926
upon agreement of all parties to the controversy. If all parties 130927
do not agree to proceed to a binding dispute resolution, a party 130928
having a claim against the department shall exhaust its 130929
administrative remedies specified in the public-private agreement 130930
prior to filing any action against the department in the court of 130931
claims.130932

       No appeal from the determination of a technical expert lies 130933
to any court, except that the court of common pleas of Franklin 130934
County may issue an order vacating such a determination upon the 130935
application of any party to the binding dispute resolution if any 130936
of the following applies:130937

       (a) The determination was procured by corruption, fraud, or 130938
undue means.130939

       (b) There was evidence of partiality or corruption on the 130940
part of the technical expert.130941

       (c) The technical expert was guilty of misconduct in refusing 130942
to postpone the hearing, upon sufficient cause shown, or in 130943
refusing to hear evidence pertinent and material to the 130944
controversy, or of any other misbehavior by which the rights of 130945
any party have been prejudiced.130946

       (2) As used in this division, "binding dispute resolution" 130947
means a binding determination after review by a technical expert 130948
of all relevant items, which may include documents, and by 130949
interviewing appropriate personnel and visiting the project site 130950
involved in the controversy. "Binding dispute resolution" does not 130951
involve representation by legal counsel or advocacy by any person 130952
on behalf of any party to the controversy.130953

       (E) No public-private agreement entered into under this 130954
section shall be construed to transfer to a private entity the 130955
director's authority to appropriate property under Chapters 163., 130956
5501., and 5519. of the Revised Code.130957

       (F) Money collected by the department pursuant to an 130958
agreement entered into under this section shall be deposited into 130959
the state treasury to the credit of the highway operating fund.130960

       Sec. 5502.011. (A) As used in this section, "department of 130961
public safety" and "department" include all divisions within the 130962
department of public safety.130963

        (B) The director of public safety is the chief executive and 130964
administrative officer of the department. The director may 130965
establish policies governing the department, the performance of 130966
its employees and officers, the conduct of its business, and the 130967
custody, use, and preservation of departmental records, papers, 130968
books, documents, and property. The director also may authorize 130969
and approve investigations to be conducted by any of the 130970
department's divisions. Whenever the Revised Code imposes a duty 130971
upon or requires an action of the department, the director may 130972
perform the action or duty in the name of the department or direct 130973
such performance to be performed by the director's designee.130974

        (C) In addition to any other duties enumerated in the Revised 130975
Code, the director or the director's designee shall do all of the 130976
following:130977

        (1) Administer and direct the performance of the duties of 130978
the department;130979

        (2) Pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, approve, 130980
adopt, and prescribe such forms and rules as are necessary to 130981
carry out the duties of the department;130982

        (3) On behalf of the department and in addition to any 130983
authority the Revised Code otherwise grants to the department, 130984
have the authority and responsibility for approving and entering 130985
into contracts, agreements, and other business arrangements;130986

        (4) Make appointments for the department as needed to comply 130987
with requirements of the Revised Code;130988

        (5) Approve employment actions of the department, including 130989
appointments, promotions, discipline, investigations, and 130990
terminations;130991

       (6) Accept, hold, and use, for the benefit of the department, 130992
any gift, donation, bequest, or devise, and may agree to and 130993
perform all conditions of the gift, donation, bequest, or devise, 130994
that are not contrary to law;130995

       (7) Apply for, allocate, disburse, and account for grants 130996
made available under federal law or from other federal, state, or 130997
private sources;130998

       (8) Develop a list of disqualifying offenses for licensure as 130999
a private investigator or a security guard provider pursuant to 131000
sections 4749.03, 4749.04, 4749.10, and 4776.10 of the Revised 131001
Code;131002

       (9) Do all other acts necessary or desirable to carry out 131003
this chapter.131004

       (D)(1) The director of public safety may assess a reasonable 131005
fee, plus the amount of any charge or fee passed on from a 131006
financial institution, on a drawer or indorser for each of the 131007
following:131008

       (a) A check, draft, or money order that is returned or 131009
dishonored;131010

       (b) An automatic bank transfer that is declined, due to 131011
insufficient funds or for any other reason;131012

       (c) Any financial transaction device that is returned or 131013
dishonored for any reason.131014

       (2) The director shall deposit any fee collected under this 131015
division in an appropriate fund as determined by the director 131016
based on the tax, fee, or fine being paid.131017

       (3) As used in this division, "financial transaction device" 131018
has the same meaning as in section 113.40 of the Revised Code.131019

       (E) The director shall establish a homeland security advisory 131020
council to advise the director on homeland security, including 131021
homeland security funding efforts. The advisory council shall 131022
include, but not be limited to, state and local government 131023
officials who have homeland security or emergency management 131024
responsibilities and who represent first responders. The director 131025
shall appoint the members of the council, who shall serve without 131026
compensation.131027

       (F)(1) The director or the director's designee shall carry 131028
out the duties required of the director under Chapter 5507. of the 131029
Revised Code. The director may, at the director's discretion, 131030
assign employees of the department to provide assistance in 131031
carrying out those duties as the director considers necessary.131032

       (2) The director may adopt rules under Chapter 111. of the 131033
Revised Code to approve, adopt, and prescribe such forms and 131034
processes as are necessary to carry out the duties required of the 131035
director under Chapter 5507. of the Revised Code.131036

       Sec. 5505.12.  (A) The state highway patrol retirement board 131037
shall have prepared annually by or under the supervision of an 131038
actuary an actuarial valuation of the pension assets, liabilities, 131039
and funding requirements of the state highway patrol retirement 131040
system as established pursuant to this chapter. The actuary shall 131041
complete the valuation in accordance with actuarial standards of 131042
practice promulgated by the actuarial standards board of the 131043
American academy of actuaries and prepare a report of the 131044
valuation. The report shall include all of the following:131045

       (1) A summary of the benefit provisions evaluated;131046

       (2) A summary of the census data and financial information 131047
used in the valuation;131048

       (3) A description of the actuarial assumptions, actuarial 131049
cost method, and asset valuation method used in the valuation, 131050
including a statement of the assumed rate of payroll growth and 131051
assumed rate of growth or decline in the number of members 131052
contributing to the retirement system;131053

       (4) A summary of findings that includes a statement of the 131054
actuarial accrued pension liabilities and unfunded actuarial 131055
accrued pension liabilities;131056

       (5) A schedule showing the effect of any changes in the 131057
benefit provisions, actuarial assumptions, or cost methods since 131058
the last annual actuarial valuation;131059

       (6) A statement of whether contributions to the retirement 131060
system are expected to be sufficient to satisfy the funding 131061
objectives established by the board.131062

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 131063
study council, the director of budget and management, and the 131064
standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate 131065
with primary responsibility for retirement legislation immediately 131066
upon its availability and not later than the first day of July 131067
following the year for which the valuation was made.131068

       (B) At such times as the state highway patrol retirement 131069
board determines, and at least once in each five-year period after 131070
January 1, 1966, the board shall have prepared by or under the 131071
supervision of an actuary an actuarial investigation of the 131072
mortality, service, and other experience of the members, 131073
retirants, and beneficiaries to update the actuarial assumptions 131074
used in the actuarial valuation required by division (A) of this 131075
section. The actuary shall prepare a report of the actuarial 131076
investigation. The report shall be prepared and any recommended 131077
changes in actuarial assumptions shall be made in accordance with 131078
the actuarial standards of practice promulgated by the actuarial 131079
standards board of the American academy of actuaries. The report 131080
shall include all of the following:131081

       (1) A summary of relevant decrement and economic assumption 131082
experience observed over the period of the investigation;131083

       (2) Recommended changes in actuarial assumptions to be used 131084
in subsequent actuarial valuations required by division (A) of 131085
this section;131086

       (3) A measurement of the financial effect of the recommended 131087
changes in actuarial assumptions;131088

       (4) If the investigation required by this division includes 131089
the investigation required by division (F) of this section, a 131090
report of the result of that investigation.131091

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 131092
study council and the standing committees of the house of 131093
representatives and the senate with primary responsibility for 131094
retirement legislation not later than the first day of November 131095
following the last fiscal year of the period the report covers.131096

       (C) The board may at any time request the actuary to make any 131097
studies or actuarial valuations to determine the adequacy of the 131098
rates of contributions provided by section 5505.15 of the Revised 131099
Code.131100

       (D) The board shall have prepared by or under the supervision 131101
of an actuary an actuarial analysis of any introduced legislation 131102
expected to have a measurable financial impact on the retirement 131103
system. The actuarial analysis shall be completed in accordance 131104
with the actuarial standards of practice promulgated by the 131105
actuarial standards board of the American academy of actuaries. 131106
The actuary shall prepare a report of the actuarial analysis, 131107
which shall include all of the following:131108

       (1) A summary of the statutory changes that are being 131109
evaluated;131110

       (2) A description of or reference to the actuarial 131111
assumptions and actuarial cost method used in the report;131112

       (3) A description of the participant group or groups included 131113
in the report;131114

       (4) A statement of the financial impact of the legislation, 131115
including the resulting increase, if any, in the employer normal 131116
cost percentage; the increase, if any, in actuarial accrued 131117
liabilities; and the per cent of payroll that would be required to 131118
amortize the increase in actuarial accrued liabilities as a level 131119
per cent of covered payroll for all active members over a period 131120
not to exceed thirty years;131121

       (5) A statement of whether the scheduled contributions to the 131122
system after the proposed change is enacted are expected to be 131123
sufficient to satisfy the funding objectives established by the 131124
board.131125

       Not later than sixty days from the date of introduction of 131126
the legislation, the board shall submit a copy of the actuarial 131127
analysis to the legislative service commission, the standing 131128
committees of the house of representatives and the senate with 131129
primary responsibility for retirement legislation, and the Ohio 131130
retirement study council.131131

       (E) The board shall have prepared annually a report giving a 131132
full accounting of the revenues and costs relating to the 131133
provision of benefits under section 5505.28 of the Revised Code. 131134
The report shall be made as of December 31, 1997, and the 131135
thirty-first day of December of each year thereafter. The report 131136
shall include the following:131137

       (1) A description of the statutory authority for the benefits 131138
provided;131139

       (2) A summary of the benefits;131140

       (3) A summary of the eligibility requirements for the 131141
benefits;131142

       (4) A statement of the number of participants eligible for 131143
the benefits;131144

       (5) A description of the accounting, asset valuation, and 131145
funding method used to provide the benefits;131146

       (6) A statement of the net assets available for the provision 131147
of the benefits as of the last day of the fiscal year;131148

       (7) A statement of any changes in the net assets available 131149
for the provision of benefits, including participant and employer 131150
contributions, net investment income, administrative expenses, and 131151
benefits provided to participants, as of the last day of the 131152
fiscal year;131153

       (8) For the last six consecutive fiscal years, a schedule of 131154
the net assets available for the benefits, the annual cost of 131155
benefits, administrative expenses incurred, and annual employer 131156
contributions allocated for the provision of benefits;131157

       (9) A description of any significant changes that affect the 131158
comparability of the report required under this division;131159

       (10) A statement of the amount paid under division (B) of 131160
section 5505.28 of the Revised Code.131161

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 131162
study council, the director of budget and management, and the 131163
standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate 131164
with primary responsibility for retirement legislation immediately 131165
upon its availability and not later than the thirtieth day of June 131166
following the year for which the report was made.131167

       (F) At least once in each five-year period, the board shall 131168
have prepared by or under the supervision of an actuary an 131169
actuarial investigation of the deferred retirement option plan 131170
established under section 5505.50 of the Revised Code. The 131171
investigation shall include an examination of the financial 131172
impact, if any, on the retirement system of offering the plan to 131173
members.131174

       The actuary shall prepare a report of the actuarial 131175
investigation. The report shall include a determination of whether 131176
the plan, as established or modified, has a negative financial 131177
impact on the retirement system and, if so, recommendations on how 131178
to modify the plan to eliminate the negative financial impact. If 131179
the actuarial report indicates that the plan has a negative 131180
financial impact on the retirement system, the board shall modify 131181
the plan. If the board modifies the plan, the rights and 131182
obligations of members who have already elected to participate 131183
shall not be altered.131184

       The state's contributions to the employer accumulation fund 131185
shall not be increased to offset any negative financial impact of 131186
the deferred retirement option plan.131187

       The board may include the actuarial investigation required 131188
under this division as part of the actuarial investigation 131189
required under division (B) of this section. If the report of the 131190
actuarial investigation required by this division is not included 131191
in the report required by division (B) of this section, the board 131192
shall submit the report required by this division to the Ohio 131193
retirement study council and the standing committees of the house 131194
of representatives and the senate with primary responsibility for 131195
retirement legislation not later than the first day of November 131196
following the last fiscal year of the period the report covers.131197

       Sec. 5511.03.  The director of transportation shall examine 131198
the existing highway facilities serving the several hospitals, 131199
educational institutions, and correctional and other similar 131200
institutions belonging to the state, and located outside municipal 131201
corporations. Where the director finds that any such state 131202
institution is not located on a state highway or connected with a 131203
highway by a suitable road, affording in its present condition 131204
adequate transportation facilities to those having occasion to 131205
visit such institution, the director may establish a state highway 131206
leading to such institution from a convenient point on an existing 131207
highway. Where the director finds that any such institution is not 131208
served by adequate highway facilities connecting it with the 131209
railroad delivery point from which it principally obtains fuel, 131210
provisions, and supplies, the director may establish a highway 131211
connecting such institution and railroad delivery point. 131212
Limitations imposed on the mileage of state highways shall not 131213
apply to highways established under this section.131214

       The director may construct at state expense all highways 131215
established under authority of this section and pay the entire 131216
cost thereof from the state highway operating fund. Such highways 131217
shall be maintained by the department of transportation and the 131218
cost shall be paid from the highway operating fund of the 131219
department.131220

       The directors of transportation, mental healthmental health 131221
and addiction services, developmental disabilities, and 131222
rehabilitation and correction may cooperate in the establishment, 131223
construction, reconstruction, maintenance, and repair of roads 131224
within the limits of state institutions. The cost shall be paid 131225
from funds appropriated for highway purposes and from the funds 131226
appropriated to the department of mental healthmental health and 131227
addiction services, department of developmental disabilities, or 131228
the department of rehabilitation and correction for capital 131229
improvements or maintenance in such proportion as may be agreed 131230
upon by the directors of transportation, mental healthmental 131231
health and addiction services, developmental disabilities, and 131232
rehabilitation and correction.131233

       Sec. 5515.08.  (A) The department of transportation may 131234
contract to sell commercial advertising space within or on the 131235
outside surfaces of any building located within a roadside rest 131236
area under its jurisdiction in exchange for cash payment. Money 131237
the department receives under this section shall be deposited in 131238
the state treasury to the credit of the roadside rest area 131239
improvementhighway operating fund, which is hereby created. The 131240
department shall use the money in the fund only to improve 131241
roadside rest areas in accordance with section 5529.06 of the 131242
Revised Code.131243

       (B) Advertising placed under this section shall comply with 131244
all of the following:131245

        (1) It shall not be libelous or obscene and shall not promote 131246
any illegal product or service.131247

        (2) It shall not promote illegal discrimination on the basis 131248
of the race, religion, national origin, handicap, age, or ancestry 131249
of any person.131250

        (3) It shall not support or oppose any candidate for 131251
political office or any political cause, issue, or organization.131252

        (4) It shall comply with any controlling federal or state 131253
regulations or restrictions.131254

        (5) To the extent physically and technically practical, it 131255
shall state that the advertisement is a paid commercial 131256
advertisement and that the state does not endorse the product or 131257
service promoted by the advertisement or make any representation 131258
about the accuracy of the advertisement or the quality or 131259
performance of the product or service promoted by the 131260
advertisement.131261

        (6) It shall conform to all applicable rules adopted by the 131262
director of transportation under division (E) of this section.131263

        (C) Contracts entered into under this section shall be 131264
awarded only to the qualified bidder who submits the highest 131265
responsive bid or according to uniformly applied rate classes.131266

        (D) No person, except an advertiser alleging a breach of 131267
contract or the improper awarding of a contract, has a cause of 131268
action against the state with respect to any contract or 131269
advertising authorized by this section. Under no circumstances is 131270
the state liable for consequential or noneconomic damages with 131271
respect to any contract or advertising authorized under this 131272
section.131273

       (E) The director, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 131274
Revised Code, shall adopt rules to implement this section. The 131275
rules shall be consistent with the policy of protecting the safety 131276
of the traveling public and consistent with the national policy 131277
governing the use and control of such roadside rest areas. The 131278
rules shall regulate the awarding of contracts and may regulate 131279
the content, display, and other aspects of the commercial 131280
advertising authorized by this section.131281

       Sec. 5540.03.  (A) A transportation improvement district may:131282

       (1) Adopt bylaws for the regulation of its affairs and the 131283
conduct of its business;131284

       (2) Adopt an official seal;131285

       (3) Sue and be sued in its own name, plead and be impleaded, 131286
provided any actions against the district shall be brought in the 131287
court of common pleas of the county in which the principal office 131288
of the district is located, or in the court of common pleas of the 131289
county in which the cause of action arose, and all summonses, 131290
exceptions, and notices of every kind shall be served on the 131291
district by leaving a copy thereof at its principal office with 131292
the secretary-treasurer;131293

       (4) Purchase, construct, maintain, repair, sell, exchange, 131294
police, operate, or lease projects;131295

       (5) Issue either or both of the following for the purpose of 131296
providing funds to pay the costs of any project or part thereof:131297

       (a) Transportation improvement district revenue bonds;131298

       (b) Bonds pursuant to Section 13 of Article VIII, Ohio 131299
Constitution;131300

       (6) Maintain such funds as it considers necessary;131301

       (7) Direct its agents or employees, when properly identified 131302
in writing and after at least five days' written notice, to enter 131303
upon lands within its jurisdiction to make surveys and 131304
examinations preliminary to the location and construction of 131305
projects for the district, without liability of the district or 131306
its agents or employees except for actual damage done;131307

       (8) Make and enter into all contracts and agreements 131308
necessary or incidental to the performance of its functions and 131309
the execution of its powers under this chapter;131310

       (9) Employ or retain or contract for the services of 131311
consulting engineers, superintendents, managers, and such other 131312
engineers, construction and accounting experts, financial 131313
advisers, trustees, marketing, remarketing, and administrative 131314
agents, attorneys, and other employees, independent contractors, 131315
or agents as are necessary in its judgment and fix their 131316
compensation, provided all such expenses shall be payable solely 131317
from the proceeds of bonds or from revenues;131318

       (10) Receive and accept from the federal or any state or 131319
local government, including, but not limited to, any agency, 131320
entity, or instrumentality of any of the foregoing, loans and 131321
grants for or in aid of the construction, maintenance, or repair 131322
of any project, and receive and accept aid or contributions from 131323
any source or person of money, property, labor, or other things of 131324
value, to be held, used, and applied only for the purposes for 131325
which such loans, grants, and contributions are made. Nothing in 131326
division (A)(10) of this section shall be construed as imposing 131327
any liability on this state for any loan received by a 131328
transportation improvement district from a third party unless this 131329
state has entered into an agreement to accept such liability.131330

       (11) Acquire, hold, and dispose of property in the exercise 131331
of its powers and the performance of its duties under this 131332
chapter;131333

       (12) Establish and collect tolls or user charges for its 131334
projects;131335

       (13) Subject to section 5540.18 of the Revised Code, enter 131336
into an agreement with a contiguous board of county commissioners 131337
other than the board of county commissioners that created the 131338
transportation improvement district, for the district to exercise 131339
all or any portion of its powers with respect to a project that is 131340
located wholly or partially within the county that is party to the 131341
agreement;131342

       (14) Do all acts necessary and proper to carry out the powers 131343
expressly granted in this chapter.131344

       (B) Chapters 123., 124., 125., 153., and 4115., and sections 131345
9.331 to 9.335 and 307.86 of the Revised Code do not apply to 131346
contracts or projects of a transportation improvement district.131347

       Sec. 5540.18.  A board of county commissioners may enter into 131348
an agreement with a contiguous transportation improvement district 131349
that the board of county commissioners did not create for the 131350
district to undertake a project that is located wholly or 131351
partially within that county provided that, the board of county 131352
commissioners of the county that created the transportation 131353
improvement district also must enter into the agreement.131354

       No transportation improvement district shall undertake a 131355
project that is located wholly or partially within a county that 131356
did not create the transportation improvement district except 131357
pursuant to an agreement entered into in accordance with this 131358
section, or as otherwise provided by law.131359

       Sec. 5701.13.  (A) As used in this section:131360

       (1) "Nursing home" means a nursing home or a home for the 131361
aging, as those terms are defined in section 3721.01 of the 131362
Revised Code, that is issued a license pursuant to section 3721.02 131363
of the Revised Code.131364

       (2) "Residential care facility" means a residential care 131365
facility, as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code, that 131366
is issued a license pursuant to section 3721.02 of the Revised 131367
Code.131368

       (3) "Residential facility" means a residential facility 131369
licensed under section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code that 131370
provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care services 131371
for three to sixteen unrelated adults.131372

       (B) As used in Title LVII of the Revised Code, and for the 131373
purpose of other sections of the Revised Code that refer 131374
specifically to Chapter 5701. or section 5701.13 of the Revised 131375
Code, a "home for the aged" means either of the following:131376

       (1) A place of residence for aged and infirm persons that 131377
satisfies divisions (B)(1)(a) to (e) of this section:131378

       (a) It is a nursing home, residential care facility, or 131379
residential facility.131380

       (b) It is owned by a corporation, unincorporated nonprofit 131381
association, or trust of a charitable, religious, or fraternal 131382
nature, that is organized and operated not for profit, is not 131383
formed for the pecuniary gain or profit of, and whose net earnings 131384
or any part of whose net earnings is not distributable to, its 131385
members, trustees, officers, or other private persons, and is 131386
exempt from federal income taxation under section 501 of the 131387
"Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 1.131388

       (c) It is open to the public without regard to race, color, 131389
or national origin.131390

       (d) It does not pay, directly or indirectly, compensation for 131391
services rendered, interest on debts incurred, or purchase price 131392
for land, building, equipment, supplies, or other goods or 131393
chattels, which compensation, interest, or purchase price is 131394
unreasonably high.131395

       (e) It provides services for the life of each resident 131396
without regard to the resident's ability to continue payment for 131397
the full cost of the services.131398

       (2) A place of residence that satisfies divisions (B)(1)(b), 131399
(d), and (e) of this section; that satisfies the definition of 131400
"nursing home" or "residential care facility" under section 131401
3721.01 of the Revised Code or the definition of "residential 131402
facility" under division (A)(3) of this section regardless of 131403
whether it is licensed as such a home or facility; and that is 131404
provided at no charge to individuals on account of their service 131405
without compensation to a charitable, religious, fraternal, or 131406
educational institution, which individuals are aged or infirm and 131407
are members of the corporation, association, or trust that owns 131408
the place of residence. For the purposes of division (B)(2) of 131409
this section, "compensation" does not include furnishing room and 131410
board, clothing, health care, or other necessities, or stipends or 131411
other de minimis payments to defray the cost thereof.131412

       Exemption from taxation shall be accorded, on proper 131413
application, only to those homes or parts of homes that meet the 131414
standards and provide the services specified in this section.131415

       Nothing in this section shall be construed as preventing a 131416
home from requiring a resident with financial need to apply for 131417
any applicable financial assistance or requiring a home to retain 131418
a resident who willfully refuses to pay for services for which the 131419
resident has contracted even though the resident has sufficient 131420
resources to do so.131421

       (C)(1) If a corporation, unincorporated nonprofit 131422
association, or trust described in division (B)(1)(b) of this 131423
section is granted a certificate of need pursuant to section 131424
3702.52 of the Revised Code to construct, add to, or otherwise 131425
modify a nursing home, or is given approval pursuant to section 131426
3791.04 of the Revised Code to construct, add to, or otherwise 131427
modify a residential care facility or residential facility and if 131428
the corporation, association, or trust submits an affidavit to the 131429
tax commissioner stating that, commencing on the date of licensure 131430
and continuing thereafter, the home or facility will be operated 131431
in accordance with the requirements of divisions (B)(1)(a) to (e) 131432
of this section, the corporation, association, or trust shall be 131433
considered to be operating a "home for the aged" within the 131434
meaning of division (B)(1) of this section, beginning on the first 131435
day of January of the year in which such certificate is granted or 131436
approval is given.131437

       (2) If a corporation, association, or trust is considered to 131438
be operating a "home for the aged" pursuant to division (C)(1) of 131439
this section, the corporation, association, or trust shall notify 131440
the tax commissioner in writing upon the occurrence of any of the 131441
following events:131442

       (a) The corporation, association, or trust no longer intends 131443
to complete the construction of, addition to, or modification of 131444
the home or facility, to obtain the appropriate license for the 131445
home or facility, or to commence operation of the home or facility 131446
in accordance with the requirements of divisions (B)(1)(a) to (e) 131447
of this section;131448

       (b) The certificate of approval referred to in division 131449
(C)(1) of this section expires, is revoked, or is otherwise 131450
terminated prior to the completion of the construction of, 131451
addition to, or modification of the home or facility;131452

       (c) The license to operate the home or facility is not 131453
granted by the director of health within one year following 131454
completion of the construction of, addition to, or modification of 131455
the home or facility;131456

       (d) The license to operate the home or facility is not 131457
granted by the director of health within four years following the 131458
date upon which the certificate or approval referred to in 131459
division (C)(1) of this section was granted or given;131460

       (e) The home or facility is granted a license to operate as a 131461
nursing home, residential care facility, or residential facility.131462

       (3) Upon the occurrence of any of the events referred to in 131463
divisions (C)(2)(a), (b), (c), (d), and (e) of this section, the 131464
corporation, association, or trust shall no longer be considered 131465
to be operating a "home for the aged" pursuant to division (C)(1) 131466
of this section, except that the tax commissioner, for good cause 131467
shown and to the extent the commissioner considers appropriate, 131468
may extend the time period specified in division (C)(2)(c) or (d) 131469
of this section, or both. Nothing in division (C)(3) of this 131470
section shall be construed to prevent a nursing home, residential 131471
care facility, or residential facility from qualifying as a "home 131472
for the aged" if, upon proper application made pursuant to 131473
division (B) of this section, it is found to meet the requirements 131474
of divisions (A) and (B) of this section.131475

       Sec. 5703.052.  (A) There is hereby created in the state 131476
treasury the tax refund fund, from which refunds shall be paid for 131477
taxes illegally or erroneously assessed or collected, or for any 131478
other reason overpaid, that are levied by Chapter 4301., 4305., 131479
5726., 5728., 5729., 5731., 5733., 5735., 5736., 5739., 5741., 131480
5743., 5747., 5748., 5749., 5751., or 5753. and sections 3737.71, 131481
3905.35, 3905.36, 4303.33, 5707.03, 5725.18, 5727.28, 5727.38, 131482
5727.81, and 5727.811 of the Revised Code. Refunds for fees 131483
illegally or erroneously assessed or collected, or for any other 131484
reason overpaid, that are levied by sections 3734.90 to 3734.9014 131485
of the Revised Code also shall be paid from the fund. Refunds for 131486
amounts illegally or erroneously assessed or collected by the tax 131487
commissioner, or for any other reason overpaid, that are due under 131488
section 1509.50 of the Revised Code shall be paid from the fund. 131489
However, refunds for taxes levied under section 5739.101 of the 131490
Revised Code shall not be paid from the tax refund fund, but shall 131491
be paid as provided in section 5739.104 of the Revised Code.131492

       (B)(1) Upon certification by the tax commissioner to the 131493
treasurer of state of a tax refund, a fee refund, or an other131494
another amount refunded, or by the superintendent of insurance of 131495
a domestic or foreign insurance tax refund, the treasurer of state 131496
shall place the amount certified to the credit of the fund. The 131497
certified amount transferred shall be derived from currentthe131498
receipts of the same tax, fee, or other amount from which the 131499
refund arose. If current receipts from the tax, fee, or other 131500
amount from which the refund arose are inadequate to make the 131501
transfer of the amount so certified, the treasurer of state shall 131502
transfer such certified amount from current receipts of the sales 131503
tax levied by section 5739.02 of the Revised Code.131504

       (2) When the treasurer of state provides for the payment of a 131505
refund of a tax, fee, or other amount from the current receipts of 131506
the sales tax, and thea refund is for a tax, fee, or other amount 131507
that is not levied by the state, the tax commissioner shall 131508
recover the amount of that refund from the next distribution of 131509
that tax, fee, or other amount that otherwise would be made to the 131510
taxing jurisdiction. If the amount to be recovered would exceed 131511
twenty-five per cent of the next distribution of that tax, fee, or 131512
other amount, the commissioner may spread the recovery over more 131513
than one future distribution, taking into account the amount to be 131514
recovered and the amount of the anticipated future distributions. 131515
In no event may the commissioner spread the recovery over a period 131516
to exceed twenty-four months.131517

       Sec. 5703.053.  As used in this section, "postal service" 131518
means the United States postal service.131519

       An application to the tax commissioner for a tax refund under 131520
section 4307.05, 4307.07, 5726.30, 5727.28, 5727.91, 5728.061, 131521
5735.122, 5735.13, 5735.14, 5735.141, 5735.142, 5736.08, 5739.07, 131522
5741.10, 5743.05, 5743.53, 5745.11, 5749.08, or 5751.08 of the 131523
Revised Code or division (B) of section 5703.05 of the Revised 131524
Code, or a fee refunded under section 3734.905 of the Revised 131525
Code, that is received after the last day for filing under such 131526
section shall be considered to have been filed in a timely manner 131527
if:131528

       (A) The application is delivered by the postal service and 131529
the earliest postal service postmark on the cover in which the 131530
application is enclosed is not later than the last day for filing 131531
the application;131532

       (B) The application is delivered by the postal service, the 131533
only postmark on the cover in which the application is enclosed 131534
was affixed by a private postal meter, the date of that postmark 131535
is not later than the last day for filing the application, and the 131536
application is received within seven days of such last day; or131537

       (C) The application is delivered by the postal service, no 131538
postmark date was affixed to the cover in which the application is 131539
enclosed or the date of the postmark so affixed is not legible, 131540
and the application is received within seven days of the last day 131541
for making the application.131542

       Sec. 5703.059. (A) The tax commissioner may adopt rules 131543
requiring returns, including any accompanying schedule or 131544
statement, for any of the following taxes to be filed 131545
electronically using the Ohio business gateway as defined in 131546
section 718.051 of the Revised Code, filed telephonically using 131547
the system known as the Ohio telefile system, or filed by any 131548
other electronic means prescribed by the commissioner:131549

       (1) Employer income tax withholding under Chapter 5747. of 131550
the Revised Code;131551

       (2) Motor fuel tax under Chapter 5735. of the Revised Code;131552

       (3) Cigarette and tobacco product tax under Chapter 5743. of 131553
the Revised Code;131554

       (4) Severance tax under Chapter 5749. of the Revised Code;131555

       (5) Use tax under Chapter 5741. of the Revised Code;131556

       (6) Commercial activity tax under Chapter 5751. of the 131557
Revised Code;131558

       (7) Financial institutions tax under Chapter 5726. of the 131559
Revised Code;131560

       (8) Motor fuel receipts tax under Chapter 5736. of the 131561
Revised Code.131562

       (B) The tax commissioner may adopt rules requiring any 131563
payment of tax shown on such a return to be due to be made 131564
electronically in a manner approved by the commissioner.131565

       (C) A rule adopted under this section does not apply to 131566
returns or reports filed or payments made before six months after 131567
the effective date of the rule. The commissioner shall publicize 131568
any new electronic filing requirement on the department's web 131569
site. The commissioner shall educate the public of the requirement 131570
through seminars, workshops, conferences, or other outreach 131571
activities.131572

       (D) Any person required to file returns and make payments 131573
electronically under rules adopted under this section may apply to 131574
the commissioner, on a form prescribed by the commissioner, to be 131575
excused from that requirement. For good cause shown, the 131576
commissioner may excuse the applicant from the requirement and 131577
permit the applicant to file the returns or reports or make the 131578
payments required under this section by nonelectronic means.131579

       Sec. 5703.19.  (A) To carry out the purposes of the laws that 131580
the tax commissioner is required to administer, the commissioner 131581
or any person employed by the commissioner for that purpose, upon 131582
demand, may inspect books, accounts, records, and memoranda of any 131583
person or public utility subject to those laws, and may examine 131584
under oath any officer, agent, or employee of that person or 131585
public utility. Any person other than the commissioner who makes a 131586
demand pursuant to this section shall produce the person's 131587
authority to make the inspection.131588

       (B) If a person or public utility receives at least ten days' 131589
written notice of a demand made under division (A) of this section 131590
and refuses to comply with that demand, a penalty of five hundred 131591
dollars shall be imposed upon the person or public utility for 131592
each day the person or public utility refuses to comply with the 131593
demand. Penalties imposed under this division may be assessed and 131594
collected in the same manner as assessments made under Chapter 131595
3769., 4305., 5727., 5728., 5733., 5735., 5736., 5739., 5743., 131596
5745., 5747., 5749., 5751., or 5753., or sections 3734.90 to 131597
3734.9014, of the Revised Code.131598

       Sec. 5703.21.  (A) Except as provided in divisions (B) and 131599
(C) of this section, no agent of the department of taxation, 131600
except in the agent's report to the department or when called on 131601
to testify in any court or proceeding, shall divulge any 131602
information acquired by the agent as to the transactions, 131603
property, or business of any person while acting or claiming to 131604
act under orders of the department. Whoever violates this 131605
provision shall thereafter be disqualified from acting as an 131606
officer or employee or in any other capacity under appointment or 131607
employment of the department.131608

       (B)(1) For purposes of an audit pursuant to section 117.15 of 131609
the Revised Code, or an audit of the department pursuant to 131610
Chapter 117. of the Revised Code, or an audit, pursuant to that 131611
chapter, the objective of which is to express an opinion on a 131612
financial report or statement prepared or issued pursuant to 131613
division (A)(7) or (9) of section 126.21 of the Revised Code, the 131614
officers and employees of the auditor of state charged with 131615
conducting the audit shall have access to and the right to examine 131616
any state tax returns and state tax return information in the 131617
possession of the department to the extent that the access and 131618
examination are necessary for purposes of the audit. Any 131619
information acquired as the result of that access and examination 131620
shall not be divulged for any purpose other than as required for 131621
the audit or unless the officers and employees are required to 131622
testify in a court or proceeding under compulsion of legal 131623
process. Whoever violates this provision shall thereafter be 131624
disqualified from acting as an officer or employee or in any other 131625
capacity under appointment or employment of the auditor of state.131626

       (2) For purposes of an internal audit pursuant to section 131627
126.45 of the Revised Code, the officers and employees of the 131628
office of internal auditingaudit in the office of budget and 131629
management charged with conductingdirecting the internal audit 131630
shall have access to and the right to examine any state tax 131631
returns and state tax return information in the possession of the 131632
department to the extent that the access and examination are 131633
necessary for purposes of the internal audit. Any information 131634
acquired as the result of that access and examination shall not be 131635
divulged for any purpose other than as required for the internal 131636
audit or unless the officers and employees are required to testify 131637
in a court or proceeding under compulsion of legal process. 131638
Whoever violates this provision shall thereafter be disqualified 131639
from acting as an officer or employee or in any other capacity 131640
under appointment or employment of the office of internal auditing131641
audit.131642

        (3) As provided by section 6103(d)(2) of the Internal Revenue 131643
Code, any federal tax returns or federal tax information that the 131644
department has acquired from the internal revenue service, through 131645
federal and state statutory authority, may be disclosed to the 131646
auditor of state or the office of internal auditingaudit solely 131647
for purposes of an audit of the department.131648

       (4) For purposes of Chapter 3739. of the Revised Code, an 131649
agent of the department of taxation may share information with the 131650
division of state fire marshal that the agent finds during the 131651
course of an investigation.131652

       (C) Division (A) of this section does not prohibit any of the 131653
following:131654

       (1) Divulging information contained in applications, 131655
complaints, and related documents filed with the department under 131656
section 5715.27 of the Revised Code or in applications filed with 131657
the department under section 5715.39 of the Revised Code;131658

       (2) Providing information to the office of child support 131659
within the department of job and family services pursuant to 131660
section 3125.43 of the Revised Code;131661

       (3) Disclosing to the motor vehicle repair board any 131662
information in the possession of the department that is necessary 131663
for the board to verify the existence of an applicant's valid 131664
vendor's license and current state tax identification number under 131665
section 4775.07 of the Revised Code;131666

       (4) Providing information to the administrator of workers' 131667
compensation pursuant to sections 4123.271 and 4123.591 of the 131668
Revised Code;131669

       (5) Providing to the attorney general information the 131670
department obtains under division (J) of section 1346.01 of the 131671
Revised Code;131672

       (6) Permitting properly authorized officers, employees, or 131673
agents of a municipal corporation from inspecting reports or 131674
information pursuant to rules adopted under section 5745.16 of the 131675
Revised Code;131676

       (7) Providing information regarding the name, account number, 131677
or business address of a holder of a vendor's license issued 131678
pursuant to section 5739.17 of the Revised Code, a holder of a 131679
direct payment permit issued pursuant to section 5739.031 of the 131680
Revised Code, or a seller having a use tax account maintained 131681
pursuant to section 5741.17 of the Revised Code, or information 131682
regarding the active or inactive status of a vendor's license, 131683
direct payment permit, or seller's use tax account;131684

       (8) Releasing invoices or invoice information furnished under 131685
section 4301.433 of the Revised Code pursuant to that section;131686

       (9) Providing to a county auditor notices or documents 131687
concerning or affecting the taxable value of property in the 131688
county auditor's county. Unless authorized by law to disclose 131689
documents so provided, the county auditor shall not disclose such 131690
documents;131691

       (10) Providing to a county auditor sales or use tax return or 131692
audit information under section 333.06 of the Revised Code;131693

       (11) Subject to section 4301.441 of the Revised Code, 131694
disclosing to the appropriate state agency information in the 131695
possession of the department of taxation that is necessary to 131696
verify a permit holder's gallonage or noncompliance with taxes 131697
levied under Chapter 4301. or 4305. of the Revised Code;131698

       (12) Disclosing to the department of natural resources 131699
information in the possession of the department of taxation that 131700
is necessary for the department of taxation to verify the 131701
taxpayer's compliance with division (A)(1), (5), (6), (8), or (9) 131702
of section 5749.02 of the Revised Code and information received 131703
pursuant to section 1509.50 of the Revised Code concerning the 131704
amount due under that sectionor to allow the department of 131705
natural resources to enforce Chapter 1509. of the Revised Code;131706

       (13) Disclosing to the department of job and family services, 131707
industrial commission, and bureau of workers' compensation 131708
information in the possession of the department of taxation solely 131709
for the purpose of identifying employers that misclassify 131710
employees as independent contractors or that fail to properly 131711
report and pay employer tax liabilities. The department of 131712
taxation shall disclose only such information that is necessary to 131713
verify employer compliance with law administered by those 131714
agencies.131715

       (14) Disclosing to the Ohio casino control commission 131716
information in the possession of the department of taxation that 131717
is necessary to verify a casino operator's compliance with section 131718
5747.063 or 5753.02 of the Revised Code and sections related 131719
thereto;131720

       (15) Disclosing to the state lottery commission information 131721
in the possession of the department of taxation that is necessary 131722
to verify a lottery sales agent's compliance with section 5747.064 131723
of the Revised Code.131724

       Sec. 5703.37.  (A)(1) Except as provided in division (B) of 131725
this section, whenever service of a notice or order is required in 131726
the manner provided in this section, a copy of the notice or order 131727
shall be served upon the person affected thereby either by 131728
personal service, by certified mail, or by a delivery service 131729
authorized under section 5703.056 of the Revised Code that 131730
notifies the tax commissioner of the date of delivery.131731

       (2) In lieu of serving a copy of a notice or order through 131732
one of the means provided in division (A)(1) of this section, the 131733
commissioner may serve a notice or order upon the person affected 131734
thereby through alternative means as provided in this section, 131735
including, but not limited to, delivery by secure electronic mail 131736
as provided in division (F) of this section. Delivery by such 131737
means satisfies the requirements for delivery under this section.131738

       (B)(1)(a) If certified mail is returned because of an 131739
undeliverable address, the commissioner shall first utilize 131740
reasonable means to ascertain a new last known address, including 131741
the use of a change of address service offered by the United 131742
States postal service or an authorized delivery service under 131743
section 5703.056 of the Revised Code. If, after using reasonable 131744
means, the commissioner is unable to ascertain a new last known 131745
address, the assessment is final for purposes of section 131.02 of 131746
the Revised Code sixty days after the notice or order sent by 131747
certified mail is first returned to the commissioner, and the 131748
commissioner shall certify the notice or order, if applicable, to 131749
the attorney general for collection under section 131.02 of the 131750
Revised Code.131751

       (b) Notwithstanding certification to the attorney general 131752
under division (B)(1)(a) of this section, once the commissioner or 131753
attorney general, or the designee of either, makes an initial 131754
contact with the person to whom the notice or order is directed, 131755
the person may protest an assessment by filing a petition for 131756
reassessment within sixty days after the initial contact. The 131757
certification of an assessment under division (B)(1)(a) of this 131758
section is prima-facie evidence that delivery is complete and that 131759
the notice or order is served.131760

       (2) If mailing of a notice or order by certified mail is 131761
returned for some cause other than an undeliverable address or if 131762
a person does not access an electronic notice or order within the 131763
time provided in division (F) of this section, the commissioner 131764
shall resend the notice or order by ordinary mail. The notice or 131765
order shall show the date the commissioner sends the notice or 131766
order and include the following statement:131767

       "This notice or order is deemed to be served on the addressee 131768
under applicable law ten days from the date this notice or order 131769
was mailed by the commissioner as shown on the notice or order, 131770
and all periods within which an appeal may be filed apply from and 131771
after that date."131772

       Unless the mailing is returned because of an undeliverable 131773
address, the mailing of that information is prima-facie evidence 131774
that delivery of the notice or order was completed ten days after 131775
the commissioner sent the notice or order by ordinary mail and 131776
that the notice or order was served.131777

       If the ordinary mail is subsequently returned because of an 131778
undeliverable address, the commissioner shall proceed under 131779
division (B)(1)(a) of this section. A person may challenge the 131780
presumption of delivery and service under this division in 131781
accordance with division (C) of this section.131782

       (C)(1) A person disputing the presumption of delivery and 131783
service under division (B) of this section bears the burden of 131784
proving by a preponderance of the evidence that the address to 131785
which the notice or order was sent was not an address with which 131786
the person was associated at the time the commissioner originally 131787
mailed the notice or order by certified mail. For the purposes of 131788
this section, a person is associated with an address at the time 131789
the commissioner originally mailed the notice or order if, at that 131790
time, the person was residing, receiving legal documents, or 131791
conducting business at the address; or if, before that time, the 131792
person had conducted business at the address and, when the notice 131793
or order was mailed, the person's agent or the person's affiliate 131794
was conducting business at the address. For the purposes of this 131795
section, a person's affiliate is any other person that, at the 131796
time the notice or order was mailed, owned or controlled at least 131797
twenty per cent, as determined by voting rights, of the 131798
addressee's business.131799

       (2) If the person elects to protest an assessment certified 131800
to the attorney general for collection, the person must do so 131801
within sixty days after the attorney general's initial contact 131802
with the person. The attorney general may enter into a compromise 131803
with the person under sections 131.02 and 5703.06 of the Revised 131804
Code if the person does not file a petition for reassessment with 131805
the commissioner.131806

       (D) Nothing in this section prohibits the commissioner or the 131807
commissioner's designee from delivering a notice or order by 131808
personal service.131809

       (E) Collection actions taken pursuant to section 131.02 of 131810
the Revised Code upon any assessment being challenged under 131811
division (B)(1)(b) of this section shall be stayed upon the 131812
pendency of an appeal under this section. If a petition for 131813
reassessment is filed pursuant to this section on a claim that has 131814
been certified to the attorney general for collection, the claim 131815
shall be uncertified.131816

       (F) The commissioner may serve a notice or order upon the 131817
person affected by the notice or order through secure electronic 131818
means only with the person's consent. The commissioner must inform 131819
the recipient, electronically or by mail, that a notice or order 131820
is available for electronic review and provide instructions to 131821
access and print the notice or order. The recipient's electronic 131822
access of the notice or order satisfies the requirements for 131823
delivery under this section. If the recipient fails to access the 131824
notice or order electronically within ten business days, then the 131825
commissioner shall inform the recipient a second time, 131826
electronically or by mail, that a notice or order is available for 131827
electronic review and provide instructions to access and print the 131828
notice or order. If the recipient fails to access the notice or 131829
order electronically within ten business days of the second 131830
notification, the notice or order shall be served upon the person 131831
through one of the means provided in division (A)(1)(B)(2) of this 131832
section. 131833

       (G) As used in this section:131834

       (1) "Last known address" means the address the department has 131835
at the time the document is originally sent by certified mail, or 131836
any address the department can ascertain using reasonable means 131837
such as the use of a change of address service offered by the 131838
United States postal service or an authorized delivery service 131839
under section 5703.056 of the Revised Code.131840

       (2) "Undeliverable address" means an address to which the 131841
United States postal service or an authorized delivery service 131842
under section 5703.056 of the Revised Code is not able to deliver 131843
a notice or order, except when the reason for nondelivery is 131844
because the addressee fails to acknowledge or accept the notice or 131845
order.131846

       Sec. 5703.50.  As used in sections 5703.50 to 5703.53 of the 131847
Revised Code:131848

       (A) "Tax" includes only those taxes imposed on tangible 131849
personal property listed in accordance with Chapter 5711. of the 131850
Revised Code and taxes imposed under Chapters 5733., 5736., 5739., 131851
5741., 5747., and 5751. of the Revised Code.131852

       (B) "Taxpayer" means a person subject to or potentially 131853
subject to a tax including an employer required to deduct and 131854
withhold any amount under section 5747.06 of the Revised Code.131855

       (C) "Audit" means the examination of a taxpayer or the 131856
inspection of the books, records, memoranda, or accounts of a 131857
taxpayer for the purpose of determining liability for a tax.131858

       (D) "Assessment" means a notice of underpayment or nonpayment 131859
of a tax issued pursuant to section 5711.26, 5711.32, 5733.11, 131860
5736.09, 5739.13, 5741.11, 5741.13, 5747.13, or 5751.09 of the 131861
Revised Code.131862

       (E) "County auditor" means the auditor of the county in which 131863
the tangible personal property subject to a tax is located.131864

       Sec. 5703.70. (A) On the filing of an application for refund 131865
under section 3734.905, 4307.05, 4307.07, 5726.30, 5727.28, 131866
5727.91, 5728.061, 5733.12, 5735.122, 5735.13, 5735.14, 5735.141, 131867
5735.142, 5735.18, 5736.08, 5739.07, 5739.071, 5739.104, 5741.10, 131868
5743.05, 5743.53, 5749.08, 5751.08, or 5753.06 of the Revised 131869
Code, or an application for compensation under section 5739.061 of 131870
the Revised Code, if the tax commissioner determines that the 131871
amount of the refund or compensation to which the applicant is 131872
entitled is less than the amount claimed in the application, the 131873
commissioner shall give the applicant written notice by ordinary 131874
mail of the amount. The notice shall be sent to the address shown 131875
on the application unless the applicant notifies the commissioner 131876
of a different address. The applicant shall have sixty days from 131877
the date the commissioner mails the notice to provide additional 131878
information to the commissioner or request a hearing, or both.131879

       (B) If the applicant neither requests a hearing nor provides 131880
additional information to the tax commissioner within the time 131881
prescribed by division (A) of this section, the commissioner shall 131882
take no further action, and the refund or compensation amount 131883
denied becomes final.131884

       (C)(1) If the applicant requests a hearing within the time 131885
prescribed by division (A) of this section, the tax commissioner 131886
shall assign a time and place for the hearing and notify the 131887
applicant of such time and place, but the commissioner may 131888
continue the hearing from time to time as necessary. After the 131889
hearing, the commissioner may make such adjustments to the refund 131890
or compensation as the commissioner finds proper, and shall issue 131891
a final determination thereon.131892

       (2) If the applicant does not request a hearing, but provides 131893
additional information, within the time prescribed by division (A) 131894
of this section, the commissioner shall review the information, 131895
make such adjustments to the refund or compensation as the 131896
commissioner finds proper, and issue a final determination 131897
thereon.131898

       (3) The commissioner shall serve a copy of the final 131899
determination made under division (C)(1) or (2) of this section on 131900
the applicant in the manner provided in section 5703.37 of the 131901
Revised Code, and the decision is final, subject to appeal under 131902
section 5717.02 of the Revised Code.131903

       (D) The tax commissioner shall certify to the director of 131904
budget and management and treasurer of state for payment from the 131905
tax refund fund created by section 5703.052 of the Revised Code, 131906
the amount of the refund to be refunded under division (B) or (C) 131907
of this section. The commissioner also shall certify to the 131908
director and treasurer of state for payment from the general 131909
revenue fund the amount of compensation to be paid under division 131910
(B) or (C) of this section.131911

       Sec. 5703.75.  This section applies to any tax payable to the 131912
state and administered by the tax commissioner. If the total 131913
amount of any such tax shown to be due on a return, amended 131914
return, or notice does not exceed one dollar, the taxpayer shall 131915
not be required to remit the amount due. If the total amount of a 131916
taxpayer's overpayment of any such tax does not exceed one dollar, 131917
the tax commissioner shall not be required to refund the 131918
overpayment.131919

       Sec. 5703.76. Any payment or distribution of money that the 131920
tax commissioner is required by law to make to a political 131921
subdivision of this state, an officer thereof, or a political 131922
party shall be made by electronic funds transfer. The commissioner 131923
shall promulgate any rules necessary to administer this section.131924

       Sec. 5703.82. (A) Not later than April 1, 2009, the 131925
department of taxation shall acquire the necessary hardware, 131926
software, and services to establish and implement a tax discovery 131927
data system to increase the efficiency of tax collections in the 131928
state. The system must be fully integrated and pre-staged for the 131929
purposes of assisting in revenue analysis, discovering 131930
noncompliant taxpayers, and collecting taxes from those taxpayers. 131931
The system shall consolidate tax data from various mainframe 131932
systems and operate as a single tax discovery data system. The 131933
department shall contract, pursuant to a competitive bidding 131934
process, for the necessary hardware, software, and services to 131935
implement the tax discovery data system.131936

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 131937
discovery project fund. All money to the credit of the fund shall 131938
be used to pay the costs of implementing and operating the tax 131939
discovery data system and to defray the costs incurred by the 131940
department of taxation in administering the system.131941

       (C) Beginning July 1, 2009, on or before the first day of 131942
January, April, July, and October of each calendar year, the tax 131943
commissioner shall determine and certify to the director of budget 131944
and management the amount needed to pay the costs of operating the 131945
tax discovery data system in the previous calendar quarter and the 131946
costs incurred in the previous calendar quarter by the department 131947
of taxation in administering the system. The director shall 131948
provide for payment from the general revenue fund to the discovery 131949
project fund of the amount so certified.131950

       Sec. 5705.01.  As used in this chapter:131951

       (A) "Subdivision" means any county; municipal corporation; 131952
township; township police district; joint police district; 131953
township fire district; joint fire district; joint ambulance 131954
district; joint emergency medical services district; fire and 131955
ambulance district; joint recreation district; township waste 131956
disposal district; township road district; community college 131957
district; technical college district; detention facility district; 131958
a district organized under section 2151.65 of the Revised Code; a 131959
combined district organized under sections 2152.41 and 2151.65 of 131960
the Revised Code; a joint-county alcohol, drug addiction, and 131961
mental health service district; a drainage improvement district 131962
created under section 6131.52 of the Revised Code; a lake 131963
facilities authority created under Chapter 353. of the Revised 131964
Code; a union cemetery district; a county school financing 131965
district; a city, local, exempted village, cooperative education, 131966
or joint vocational school district; or a regional student 131967
education district created under section 3313.83 of the Revised 131968
Code.131969

       (B) "Municipal corporation" means all municipal corporations, 131970
including those that have adopted a charter under Article XVIII, 131971
Ohio Constitution.131972

       (C) "Taxing authority" or "bond issuing authority" means, in 131973
the case of any county, the board of county commissioners; in the 131974
case of a municipal corporation, the council or other legislative 131975
authority of the municipal corporation; in the case of a city, 131976
local, exempted village, cooperative education, or joint 131977
vocational school district, the board of education; in the case of 131978
a community college district, the board of trustees of the 131979
district; in the case of a technical college district, the board 131980
of trustees of the district; in the case of a detention facility 131981
district, a district organized under section 2151.65 of the 131982
Revised Code, or a combined district organized under sections 131983
2152.41 and 2151.65 of the Revised Code, the joint board of county 131984
commissioners of the district; in the case of a township, the 131985
board of township trustees; in the case of a joint police 131986
district, the joint police district board; in the case of a joint 131987
fire district, the board of fire district trustees; in the case of 131988
a joint recreation district, the joint recreation district board 131989
of trustees; in the case of a joint-county alcohol, drug 131990
addiction, and mental health service district, the district's 131991
board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services; in 131992
the case of a joint ambulance district or a fire and ambulance 131993
district, the board of trustees of the district; in the case of a 131994
union cemetery district, the legislative authority of the 131995
municipal corporation and the board of township trustees, acting 131996
jointly as described in section 759.341 of the Revised Code; in 131997
the case of a drainage improvement district, the board of county 131998
commissioners of the county in which the drainage district is 131999
located; in the case of a lake facilities authority, the board of 132000
directors; in the case of a joint emergency medical services 132001
district, the joint board of county commissioners of all counties 132002
in which all or any part of the district lies; and in the case of 132003
a township police district, a township fire district, a township 132004
road district, or a township waste disposal district, the board of 132005
township trustees of the township in which the district is 132006
located. "Taxing authority" also means the educational service 132007
center governing board that serves as the taxing authority of a 132008
county school financing district as provided in section 3311.50 of 132009
the Revised Code, and the board of directors of a regional student 132010
education district created under section 3313.83 of the Revised 132011
Code.132012

       (D) "Fiscal officer" in the case of a county, means the 132013
county auditor; in the case of a municipal corporation, the city 132014
auditor or village clerk, or an officer who, by virtue of the 132015
charter, has the duties and functions of the city auditor or 132016
village clerk, except that in the case of a municipal university 132017
the board of directors of which have assumed, in the manner 132018
provided by law, the custody and control of the funds of the 132019
university, the chief accounting officer of the university shall 132020
perform, with respect to the funds, the duties vested in the 132021
fiscal officer of the subdivision by sections 5705.41 and 5705.44 132022
of the Revised Code; in the case of a school district, the 132023
treasurer of the board of education; in the case of a county 132024
school financing district, the treasurer of the educational 132025
service center governing board that serves as the taxing 132026
authority; in the case of a township, the township fiscal officer; 132027
in the case of a joint police district, the treasurer of the 132028
district; in the case of a joint fire district, the clerk of the 132029
board of fire district trustees; in the case of a joint ambulance 132030
district, the clerk of the board of trustees of the district; in 132031
the case of a joint emergency medical services district, the 132032
person appointed as fiscal officer pursuant to division (D) of 132033
section 307.053 of the Revised Code; in the case of a fire and 132034
ambulance district, the person appointed as fiscal officer 132035
pursuant to division (B) of section 505.375 of the Revised Code; 132036
in the case of a joint recreation district, the person designated 132037
pursuant to section 755.15 of the Revised Code; in the case of a 132038
union cemetery district, the clerk of the municipal corporation 132039
designated in section 759.34 of the Revised Code; in the case of a 132040
children's home district, educational service center, general 132041
health district, joint-county alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 132042
health service district, county library district, detention 132043
facility district, district organized under section 2151.65 of the 132044
Revised Code, a combined district organized under sections 2152.41 132045
and 2151.65 of the Revised Code, or a metropolitan park district 132046
for which no treasurer has been appointed pursuant to section 132047
1545.07 of the Revised Code, the county auditor of the county 132048
designated by law to act as the auditor of the district; in the 132049
case of a metropolitan park district which has appointed a 132050
treasurer pursuant to section 1545.07 of the Revised Code, that 132051
treasurer; in the case of a drainage improvement district, the 132052
auditor of the county in which the drainage improvement district 132053
is located; in the case of a lake facilities authority, the fiscal 132054
officer designated under section 353.02 of the Revised Code; in 132055
the case of a regional student education district, the fiscal 132056
officer appointed pursuant to section 3313.83 of the Revised Code; 132057
and in all other cases, the officer responsible for keeping the 132058
appropriation accounts and drawing warrants for the expenditure of 132059
the moneys of the district or taxing unit.132060

       (E) "Permanent improvement" or "improvement" means any 132061
property, asset, or improvement with an estimated life or 132062
usefulness of five years or more, including land and interests 132063
therein, and reconstructions, enlargements, and extensions thereof 132064
having an estimated life or usefulness of five years or more.132065

       (F) "Current operating expenses" and "current expenses" mean 132066
the lawful expenditures of a subdivision, except those for 132067
permanent improvements, and except payments for interest, sinking 132068
fund, and retirement of bonds, notes, and certificates of 132069
indebtedness of the subdivision.132070

       (G) "Debt charges" means interest, sinking fund, and 132071
retirement charges on bonds, notes, or certificates of 132072
indebtedness.132073

       (H) "Taxing unit" means any subdivision or other governmental 132074
district having authority to levy taxes on the property in the 132075
district or issue bonds that constitute a charge against the 132076
property of the district, including conservancy districts, 132077
metropolitan park districts, sanitary districts, road districts, 132078
and other districts.132079

       (I) "District authority" means any board of directors, 132080
trustees, commissioners, or other officers controlling a district 132081
institution or activity that derives its income or funds from two 132082
or more subdivisions, such as the educational service center, the 132083
trustees of district children's homes, the district board of 132084
health, a joint-county alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 132085
service district's board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 132086
health services, detention facility districts, a joint recreation 132087
district board of trustees, districts organized under section 132088
2151.65 of the Revised Code, combined districts organized under 132089
sections 2152.41 and 2151.65 of the Revised Code, and other such 132090
boards.132091

       (J) "Tax list" and "tax duplicate" mean the general tax lists 132092
and duplicates prescribed by sections 319.28 and 319.29 of the 132093
Revised Code.132094

       (K) "Property" as applied to a tax levy means taxable 132095
property listed on general tax lists and duplicates.132096

       (L) "Association library district" means a territory, the 132097
boundaries of which are defined by the state library board 132098
pursuant to division (I) of section 3375.01 of the Revised Code, 132099
in which a library association or private corporation maintains a 132100
free public library.132101

       (M) "Library district" means a territory, the boundaries of 132102
which are defined by the state library board pursuant to section 132103
3375.01 of the Revised Code, in which the board of trustees of a 132104
county, municipal corporation, school district, or township public 132105
library maintains a free public library.132106

       (N) "Qualifying library levy" means either of the following:132107

       (1) A levy for the support of a library association or 132108
private corporation that has an association library district with 132109
boundaries that are not identical to those of a subdivision;132110

       (2) A levy proposed under section 5705.23 of the Revised Code 132111
for the support of the board of trustees of a public library that 132112
has a library district with boundaries that are not identical to 132113
those of a subdivision.132114

       (O) "School library district" means a school district in 132115
which a free public library has been established that is under the 132116
control and management of a board of library trustees as provided 132117
in section 3375.15 of the Revised Code.132118

       Sec. 5705.10. (A) All revenue derived from the general levy 132119
for current expense within the ten-mill limitation, from any 132120
general levy for current expense authorized by vote in excess of 132121
the ten-mill limitation, and from sources other than the general 132122
property tax, unless its use for a particular purpose is 132123
prescribed by law, shall be paid into the general fund.132124

       (B) All revenue derived from general or special levies for 132125
debt charges, whether within or in excess of the ten-mill 132126
limitation, which is levied for the debt charges on serial bonds, 132127
notes, or certificates of indebtedness having a life less than 132128
five years, shall be paid into the bond retirement fund; and all 132129
such revenue which is levied for the debt charges on all other 132130
bonds, notes, or certificates of indebtedness shall be paid into 132131
the sinking fund.132132

       (C) All revenue derived from a special levy shall be credited 132133
to a special fund for the purpose for which the levy was made.132134

       (D) Except as otherwise provided by resolution adopted 132135
pursuant to section 3315.01 of the Revised Code, all revenue 132136
derived from a source other than the general property tax and 132137
which the law prescribes shall be used for a particular purpose, 132138
shall be paid into a special fund for such purpose. Except as 132139
otherwise provided by resolution adopted pursuant to section 132140
3315.01 of the Revised Code or as otherwise provided by section 132141
3315.40 of the Revised Code, all revenue derived from a source 132142
other than the general property tax, for which the law does not 132143
prescribe use for a particular purpose, including interest earned 132144
on the principal of any special fund, regardless of the source or 132145
purpose of the principal, shall be paid into the general fund.132146

       (E) All proceeds from the sale of public obligations or 132147
fractionalized interests in public obligations as defined in 132148
section 133.01 of the Revised Code, except premium and accrued 132149
interest, shall be paid into a special fund for the purpose of 132150
such issue, and any interest and other income earned on money in 132151
such special fund may be used for the purposes for which the 132152
indebtedness was authorized or may be credited to the general fund 132153
or other fund or account as the taxing authority authorizes and 132154
used for the purposes of that fund or account. The premium and 132155
accrued interest received from such sale shall be paid into the 132156
sinking fund or the bond retirement fund of the subdivision.132157

        (F) Except as provided in divisiondivisions (G) and (H) of 132158
this section, if a permanent improvement of the subdivision is 132159
sold, the amount received from the sale shall be paid into the 132160
sinking fund, the bond retirement fund, or a special fund for the 132161
construction or acquisition of permanent improvements; provided 132162
that the proceeds from the sale of a public utility shall be paid 132163
into the sinking fund or bond retirement fund to the extent 132164
necessary to provide for the retirement of the outstanding 132165
indebtedness incurred in the construction or acquisition of such 132166
utility. Proceeds from the sale of property other than a permanent 132167
improvement shall be paid into the fund from which such property 132168
was acquired or is maintained or, if there is no such fund, into 132169
the general fund.132170

       (G) A township that has a population greater than fifteen 132171
thousand according to the most recent federal decennial census and 132172
that has declared one or more improvements in the township to be a 132173
public purpose under section 5709.73 of the Revised Code may pay 132174
proceeds from the sale of a permanent improvement of the township 132175
into its general fund if both of the following conditions are 132176
satisfied:132177

        (1) The township fiscal officer determines that all 132178
foreseeable public infrastructure improvements, as defined in 132179
section 5709.40 of the Revised Code, to be made in the township in 132180
the ten years immediately following the date the permanent 132181
improvement is sold will have been financed through resolutions 132182
adopted under section 5709.73 of the Revised Code on or before the 132183
date of the sale. The fiscal officer shall provide written 132184
certification of this determination for the township's records.132185

        (2) The permanent improvement being sold was financed 132186
entirely from moneys in the township's general fund.132187

       (H) If a board of education of a school district disposes of 132188
real property under section 3313.41 of the Revised Code, the 132189
proceeds received from the sale may be paid into the school 132190
district's general fund and used only to pay for the costs of 132191
nonoperating capital expenses related to technological upgrades 132192
and equipment to be used for instruction and assessment.132193

       (I) Money paid into any fund shall be used only for the 132194
purposes for which such fund is established.132195

       Sec. 5705.19.  This section does not apply to school 132196
districts or, county school financing districts, or lake 132197
facilities authorities.132198

       The taxing authority of any subdivision at any time and in 132199
any year, by vote of two-thirds of all the members of the taxing 132200
authority, may declare by resolution and certify the resolution to 132201
the board of elections not less than ninety days before the 132202
election upon which it will be voted that the amount of taxes that 132203
may be raised within the ten-mill limitation will be insufficient 132204
to provide for the necessary requirements of the subdivision and 132205
that it is necessary to levy a tax in excess of that limitation 132206
for any of the following purposes:132207

       (A) For current expenses of the subdivision, except that the 132208
total levy for current expenses of a detention facility district 132209
or district organized under section 2151.65 of the Revised Code 132210
shall not exceed two mills and that the total levy for current 132211
expenses of a combined district organized under sections 2151.65 132212
and 2152.41 of the Revised Code shall not exceed four mills;132213

       (B) For the payment of debt charges on certain described 132214
bonds, notes, or certificates of indebtedness of the subdivision 132215
issued subsequent to January 1, 1925;132216

       (C) For the debt charges on all bonds, notes, and 132217
certificates of indebtedness issued and authorized to be issued 132218
prior to January 1, 1925;132219

       (D) For a public library of, or supported by, the subdivision 132220
under whatever law organized or authorized to be supported;132221

       (E) For a municipal university, not to exceed two mills over 132222
the limitation of one mill prescribed in section 3349.13 of the 132223
Revised Code;132224

       (F) For the construction or acquisition of any specific 132225
permanent improvement or class of improvements that the taxing 132226
authority of the subdivision may include in a single bond issue;132227

       (G) For the general construction, reconstruction, 132228
resurfacing, and repair of streets, roads, and bridges in 132229
municipal corporations, counties, or townships;132230

       (H) For parks and recreational purposes;132231

       (I) For the purpose of providing and maintaining fire 132232
apparatus, appliances, buildings, or sites therefor, or sources of 132233
water supply and materials therefor, or the establishment and 132234
maintenance of lines of fire alarm telegraph, or the payment of 132235
firefighting companies or permanent, part-time, or volunteer 132236
firefighting, emergency medical service, administrative, or 132237
communications personnel to operate the same, including the 132238
payment of any employer contributions required for such personnel 132239
under section 145.48 or 742.34 of the Revised Code, or the 132240
purchase of ambulance equipment, or the provision of ambulance, 132241
paramedic, or other emergency medical services operated by a fire 132242
department or firefighting company;132243

       (J) For the purpose of providing and maintaining motor 132244
vehicles, communications, other equipment, buildings, and sites 132245
for such buildings used directly in the operation of a police 132246
department, or the payment of salaries of permanent or part-time 132247
police, communications, or administrative personnel to operate the 132248
same, including the payment of any employer contributions required 132249
for such personnel under section 145.48 or 742.33 of the Revised 132250
Code, or the payment of the costs incurred by townships as a 132251
result of contracts made with other political subdivisions in 132252
order to obtain police protection, or the provision of ambulance 132253
or emergency medical services operated by a police department;132254

       (K) For the maintenance and operation of a county home or 132255
detention facility;132256

       (L) For community mental retardation and developmental 132257
disabilities programs and services pursuant to Chapter 5126. of 132258
the Revised Code, except that the procedure for such levies shall 132259
be as provided in section 5705.222 of the Revised Code;132260

       (M) For regional planning;132261

       (N) For a county's share of the cost of maintaining and 132262
operating schools, district detention facilities, forestry camps, 132263
or other facilities, or any combination thereof, established under 132264
section 2151.65 or 2152.41 of the Revised Code or both of those 132265
sections;132266

       (O) For providing for flood defense, providing and 132267
maintaining a flood wall or pumps, and other purposes to prevent 132268
floods;132269

       (P) For maintaining and operating sewage disposal plants and 132270
facilities;132271

       (Q) For the purpose of purchasing, acquiring, constructing, 132272
enlarging, improving, equipping, repairing, maintaining, or 132273
operating, or any combination of the foregoing, a county transit 132274
system pursuant to sections 306.01 to 306.13 of the Revised Code, 132275
or of making any payment to a board of county commissioners 132276
operating a transit system or a county transit board pursuant to 132277
section 306.06 of the Revised Code;132278

       (R) For the subdivision's share of the cost of acquiring or 132279
constructing any schools, forestry camps, detention facilities, or 132280
other facilities, or any combination thereof, under section 132281
2151.65 or 2152.41 of the Revised Code or both of those sections;132282

       (S) For the prevention, control, and abatement of air 132283
pollution;132284

       (T) For maintaining and operating cemeteries;132285

       (U) For providing ambulance service, emergency medical 132286
service, or both;132287

       (V) For providing for the collection and disposal of garbage 132288
or refuse, including yard waste;132289

       (W) For the payment of the police officer employers' 132290
contribution or the firefighter employers' contribution required 132291
under sections 742.33 and 742.34 of the Revised Code;132292

       (X) For the construction and maintenance of a drainage 132293
improvement pursuant to section 6131.52 of the Revised Code;132294

       (Y) For providing or maintaining senior citizens services or 132295
facilities as authorized by section 307.694, 307.85, 505.70, or 132296
505.706 or division (EE) of section 717.01 of the Revised Code;132297

       (Z) For the provision and maintenance of zoological park 132298
services and facilities as authorized under section 307.76 of the 132299
Revised Code;132300

       (AA) For the maintenance and operation of a free public 132301
museum of art, science, or history;132302

       (BB) For the establishment and operation of a 9-1-1 system, 132303
as defined in section 5507.01128.01 of the Revised Code;132304

       (CC) For the purpose of acquiring, rehabilitating, or 132305
developing rail property or rail service. As used in this 132306
division, "rail property" and "rail service" have the same 132307
meanings as in section 4981.01 of the Revised Code. This division 132308
applies only to a county, township, or municipal corporation.132309

       (DD) For the purpose of acquiring property for, constructing, 132310
operating, and maintaining community centers as provided for in 132311
section 755.16 of the Revised Code;132312

       (EE) For the creation and operation of an office or joint 132313
office of economic development, for any economic development 132314
purpose of the office, and to otherwise provide for the 132315
establishment and operation of a program of economic development 132316
pursuant to sections 307.07 and 307.64 of the Revised Code, or to 132317
the extent that the expenses of a county land reutilization 132318
corporation organized under Chapter 1724. of the Revised Code are 132319
found by the board of county commissioners to constitute the 132320
promotion of economic development, for the payment of such 132321
operations and expenses;132322

       (FF) For the purpose of acquiring, establishing, 132323
constructing, improving, equipping, maintaining, or operating, or 132324
any combination of the foregoing, a township airport, landing 132325
field, or other air navigation facility pursuant to section 505.15 132326
of the Revised Code;132327

       (GG) For the payment of costs incurred by a township as a 132328
result of a contract made with a county pursuant to section 132329
505.263 of the Revised Code in order to pay all or any part of the 132330
cost of constructing, maintaining, repairing, or operating a water 132331
supply improvement;132332

       (HH) For a board of township trustees to acquire, other than 132333
by appropriation, an ownership interest in land, water, or 132334
wetlands, or to restore or maintain land, water, or wetlands in 132335
which the board has an ownership interest, not for purposes of 132336
recreation, but for the purposes of protecting and preserving the 132337
natural, scenic, open, or wooded condition of the land, water, or 132338
wetlands against modification or encroachment resulting from 132339
occupation, development, or other use, which may be styled as 132340
protecting or preserving "greenspace" in the resolution, notice of 132341
election, or ballot form. Except as otherwise provided in this 132342
division, land is not acquired for purposes of recreation, even if 132343
the land is used for recreational purposes, so long as no 132344
building, structure, or fixture used for recreational purposes is 132345
permanently attached or affixed to the land. Except as otherwise 132346
provided in this division, land that previously has been acquired 132347
in a township for these greenspace purposes may subsequently be 132348
used for recreational purposes if the board of township trustees 132349
adopts a resolution approving that use and no building, structure, 132350
or fixture used for recreational purposes is permanently attached 132351
or affixed to the land. The authorization to use greenspace land 132352
for recreational use does not apply to land located in a township 132353
that had a population, at the time it passed its first greenspace 132354
levy, of more than thirty-eight thousand within a county that had 132355
a population, at that time, of at least eight hundred sixty 132356
thousand.132357

       (II) For the support by a county of a crime victim assistance 132358
program that is provided and maintained by a county agency or a 132359
private, nonprofit corporation or association under section 307.62 132360
of the Revised Code;132361

       (JJ) For any or all of the purposes set forth in divisions 132362
(I) and (J) of this section. This division applies only to a 132363
township.132364

       (KK) For a countywide public safety communications system 132365
under section 307.63 of the Revised Code. This division applies 132366
only to counties.132367

       (LL) For the support by a county of criminal justice services 132368
under section 307.45 of the Revised Code;132369

       (MM) For the purpose of maintaining and operating a jail or 132370
other detention facility as defined in section 2921.01 of the 132371
Revised Code;132372

       (NN) For purchasing, maintaining, or improving, or any 132373
combination of the foregoing, real estate on which to hold, and 132374
the operating expenses of, agricultural fairs operated by a county 132375
agricultural society or independent agricultural society under 132376
Chapter 1711. of the Revised Code. This division applies only to a 132377
county.132378

       (OO) For constructing, rehabilitating, repairing, or 132379
maintaining sidewalks, walkways, trails, bicycle pathways, or 132380
similar improvements, or acquiring ownership interests in land 132381
necessary for the foregoing improvements;132382

       (PP) For both of the purposes set forth in divisions (G) and 132383
(OO) of this section.132384

       (QQ) For both of the purposes set forth in divisions (H) and 132385
(HH) of this section. This division applies only to a township.132386

       (RR) For the legislative authority of a municipal 132387
corporation, board of county commissioners of a county, or board 132388
of township trustees of a township to acquire agricultural 132389
easements, as defined in section 5301.67 of the Revised Code, and 132390
to supervise and enforce the easements.132391

       (SS) For both of the purposes set forth in divisions (BB) and 132392
(KK) of this section. This division applies only to a county.132393

       (TT) For the maintenance and operation of a facility that is 132394
organized in whole or in part to promote the sciences and natural 132395
history under section 307.761 of the Revised Code.132396

       (UU) For the creation and operation of a county land 132397
reutilization corporation and for any programs or activities of 132398
the corporation found by the board of directors of the corporation 132399
to be consistent with the purposes for which the corporation is 132400
organized;132401

       (VV) For construction and maintenance of improvements and 132402
expenses of soil and water conservation district programs under 132403
Chapter 1515. of the Revised Code;132404

        (WW) For the Ohio cooperativeOSU extension service fund 132405
created under section 3335.35 of the Revised Code for the purposes 132406
prescribed under section 3335.36 of the Revised Code for the 132407
benefit of the citizens of a county. This division applies only to 132408
a county.132409

       (XX) For a municipal corporation that withdraws or proposes 132410
by resolution to withdraw from a regional transit authority under 132411
section 306.55 of the Revised Code to provide transportation 132412
services for the movement of persons within, from, or to the 132413
municipal corporation;132414

       (YY) For any combination of the purposes specified in 132415
divisions (NN), (VV), and (WW) of this section. This division 132416
applies only to a county.132417

       The resolution shall be confined to the purpose or purposes 132418
described in one division of this section, to which the revenue 132419
derived therefrom shall be applied. The existence in any other 132420
division of this section of authority to levy a tax for any part 132421
or all of the same purpose or purposes does not preclude the use 132422
of such revenues for any part of the purpose or purposes of the 132423
division under which the resolution is adopted.132424

       The resolution shall specify the amount of the increase in 132425
rate that it is necessary to levy, the purpose of that increase in 132426
rate, and the number of years during which the increase in rate 132427
shall be in effect, which may or may not include a levy upon the 132428
duplicate of the current year. The number of years may be any 132429
number not exceeding five, except as follows:132430

       (1) When the additional rate is for the payment of debt 132431
charges, the increased rate shall be for the life of the 132432
indebtedness.132433

       (2) When the additional rate is for any of the following, the 132434
increased rate shall be for a continuing period of time:132435

       (a) For the current expenses for a detention facility 132436
district, a district organized under section 2151.65 of the 132437
Revised Code, or a combined district organized under sections 132438
2151.65 and 2152.41 of the Revised Code;132439

       (b) For providing a county's share of the cost of maintaining 132440
and operating schools, district detention facilities, forestry 132441
camps, or other facilities, or any combination thereof, 132442
established under section 2151.65 or 2152.41 of the Revised Code 132443
or under both of those sections.132444

       (3) When the additional rate is for either of the following, 132445
the increased rate may be for a continuing period of time:132446

       (a) For the purposes set forth in division (I), (J), (U), or 132447
(KK) of this section;132448

       (b) For the maintenance and operation of a joint recreation 132449
district.132450

       (4) When the increase is for the purpose or purposes set 132451
forth in division (D), (G), (H), (CC), or (PP) of this section, 132452
the tax levy may be for any specified number of years or for a 132453
continuing period of time, as set forth in the resolution.132454

       (5) When the additional rate is for the purpose described in 132455
division (Z) of this section, the increased rate shall be for any 132456
number of years not exceeding ten.132457

       A levy for one of the purposes set forth in division (G), 132458
(I), (J), or (U) of this section may be reduced pursuant to 132459
section 5705.261 or 5705.31 of the Revised Code. A levy for one of 132460
the purposes set forth in division (G), (I), (J), or (U) of this 132461
section may also be terminated or permanently reduced by the 132462
taxing authority if it adopts a resolution stating that the 132463
continuance of the levy is unnecessary and the levy shall be 132464
terminated or that the millage is excessive and the levy shall be 132465
decreased by a designated amount.132466

       A resolution of a detention facility district, a district 132467
organized under section 2151.65 of the Revised Code, or a combined 132468
district organized under both sections 2151.65 and 2152.41 of the 132469
Revised Code may include both current expenses and other purposes, 132470
provided that the resolution shall apportion the annual rate of 132471
levy between the current expenses and the other purpose or 132472
purposes. The apportionment need not be the same for each year of 132473
the levy, but the respective portions of the rate actually levied 132474
each year for the current expenses and the other purpose or 132475
purposes shall be limited by the apportionment.132476

       Whenever a board of county commissioners, acting either as 132477
the taxing authority of its county or as the taxing authority of a 132478
sewer district or subdistrict created under Chapter 6117. of the 132479
Revised Code, by resolution declares it necessary to levy a tax in 132480
excess of the ten-mill limitation for the purpose of constructing, 132481
improving, or extending sewage disposal plants or sewage systems, 132482
the tax may be in effect for any number of years not exceeding 132483
twenty, and the proceeds of the tax, notwithstanding the general 132484
provisions of this section, may be used to pay debt charges on any 132485
obligations issued and outstanding on behalf of the subdivision 132486
for the purposes enumerated in this paragraph, provided that any 132487
such obligations have been specifically described in the 132488
resolution.132489

       A resolution adopted by the legislative authority of a 132490
municipal corporation that is for the purpose in division (XX) of 132491
this section may be combined with the purpose provided in section 132492
306.55 of the Revised Code, by vote of two-thirds of all members 132493
of the legislative authority. The legislative authority may 132494
certify the resolution to the board of elections as a combined 132495
question. The question appearing on the ballot shall be as 132496
provided in section 5705.252 of the Revised Code.132497

       The resolution shall go into immediate effect upon its 132498
passage, and no publication of the resolution is necessary other 132499
than that provided for in the notice of election.132500

       When the electors of a subdivision or, in the case of a 132501
qualifying library levy for the support of a library association 132502
or private corporation, the electors of the association library 132503
district, have approved a tax levy under this section, the taxing 132504
authority of the subdivision may anticipate a fraction of the 132505
proceeds of the levy and issue anticipation notes in accordance 132506
with section 5705.191 or 5705.193 of the Revised Code.132507

       Sec. 5705.192.  (A) For the purposes of this section only, 132508
"taxing authority" includes a township board of park commissioners 132509
appointed under section 511.18 of the Revised Code.132510

       (B) A taxing authority may propose to replace an existing 132511
levy that the taxing authority is authorized to levy, regardless 132512
of the section of the Revised Code under which the authority is 132513
granted, except a school district emergency levy proposed pursuant 132514
to sections 5705.194 to 5705.197 of the Revised Code. The taxing 132515
authority may propose to replace the existing levy in its entirety 132516
at the rate at which it is authorized to be levied; may propose to 132517
replace a portion of the existing levy at a lesser rate; or may 132518
propose to replace the existing levy in its entirety and increase 132519
the rate at which it is levied. If the taxing authority proposes 132520
to replace an existing levy, the proposed levy shall be called a 132521
replacement levy and shall be so designated on the ballot. Except 132522
as otherwise provided in this division, a replacement levy shall 132523
be limited to the purpose of the existing levy, and shall appear 132524
separately on the ballot from, and shall not be conjoined with, 132525
the renewal of any other existing levy. In the case of an existing 132526
school district levy imposed under section 5705.21 of the Revised 132527
Code for the purpose specified in division (F) of section 5705.19 132528
of the Revised Code, or in the case of an existing school district 132529
levy imposed under section 5705.217 of the Revised Code for the 132530
acquisition, construction, enlargement, renovation, and financing 132531
of permanent improvements, the replacement for that existing levy 132532
may be for the same purpose or for the purpose of general 132533
permanent improvements as defined in section 5705.21 of the 132534
Revised Code.132535

        The resolution proposing a replacement levy shall specify the 132536
purpose of the levy; its proposed rate expressed in mills; whether 132537
the proposed rate is the same as the rate of the existing levy, a 132538
reduction, or an increase; the extent of any reduction or increase 132539
expressed in mills; the first calendar year in which the levy will 132540
be due; and the term of the levy, expressed in years or, if 132541
applicable, that it will be levied for a continuing period of 132542
time.132543

       The sections of the Revised Code governing the maximum rate 132544
and term of the existing levy, the contents of the resolution that 132545
proposed the levy, the adoption of the resolution, the 132546
arrangements for the submission of the question of the levy, and 132547
notice of the election also govern the respective provisions of 132548
the proposal to replace the existing levy, except as provided in 132549
divisions (B)(1) to (3) of this section:132550

        (1) In the case of an existing school district levy that is132551
imposed under section 5705.21 of the Revised Code for the purpose 132552
specified in division (F) of section 5705.19 of the Revised Code 132553
or under section 5705.217 of the Revised Code for the acquisition, 132554
construction, enlargement, renovation, and financing of permanent 132555
improvements, and that is to be replaced by a levy for general 132556
permanent improvements, the maximum term of the replacement levy 132557
is not limited to the term of the existing levy and may be for a 132558
continuing period of time.132559

       (2) The date on which the election is held shall be as 132560
follows:132561

       (a) For the replacement of a levy with a fixed term of years, 132562
the date of the general election held during the last year the 132563
existing levy may be extended on the real and public utility 132564
property tax list and duplicate, or the date of any election held 132565
in the ensuing year;132566

       (b) For the replacement of a levy imposed for a continuing 132567
period of time, the date of any election held in any year after 132568
the year the levy to be replaced is first approved by the 132569
electors, except that only one election on the question of 132570
replacing the levy may be held during any calendar year.132571

       The failure by the electors to approve a proposal to replace 132572
a levy imposed for a continuing period of time does not terminate 132573
the existing continuing levy.132574

       (3) In the case of an existing school district levy imposed 132575
under division (B) of section 5705.21, division (C) of section 132576
5705.212, or division (J) of section 5705.218 of the Revised Code, 132577
the rates allocated to the municipal school district and to 132578
partnering community schools each may be increased or decreased or 132579
remain the same, and the total rate may be increased, decreased, 132580
or remain the same.132581

       (C) The form of the ballot at the election on the question of 132582
a replacement levy shall be as follows:132583

       "A replacement of a tax for the benefit of .......... (name 132584
of subdivision or public library) for the purpose of .......... 132585
(the purpose stated in the resolution) at a rate not exceeding 132586
.......... mills for each one dollar of valuation, which amounts 132587
to .......... (rate expressed in dollars and cents) for each one 132588
hundred dollars in valuation, for .......... (number of years levy 132589
is to run, or that it will be levied for a continuous period of 132590
time)132591

        132592

 FOR THE TAX LEVY 132593
 AGAINST THE TAX LEVY  " 132594

        132595

       If the replacement levy is proposed by a municipal school 132596
district to replace an existing tax levied under division (B) of 132597
section 5705.21, division (C)(1) of section 5705.212, or division 132598
(J) of section 5705.218 of the Revised Code, the form of the 132599
ballot shall be modified by adding, after the phrase "each one 132600
dollar of valuation," the following: "(of which ...... mills is to 132601
be allocated to partnering community schools)."132602

       If the proposal is to replace an existing levy and increase 132603
the rate of the existing levy, the form of the ballot shall be 132604
changed by adding the words ".......... mills of an existing levy 132605
and an increase of .......... mills, to constitute" after the 132606
words "a replacement of." If the proposal is to replace only a 132607
portion of an existing levy, the form of the ballot shall be 132608
changed by adding the words "a portion of an existing levy, being 132609
a reduction of .......... mills, to constitute" after the words "a 132610
replacement of." If the existing levy is imposed under division 132611
(B) of section 5705.21, division (C)(1) of section 5705.212, or 132612
division (J) of section 5705.218 of the Revised Code, the form of 132613
the ballot also shall state the portion of the total increased 132614
rate or of the total rate as reduced that is to be allocated to 132615
partnering community schools. 132616

       If the tax is to be placed on the tax list of the current tax 132617
year, the form of the ballot shall be modified by adding at the 132618
end of the form the phrase ", commencing in .......... (first year 132619
the replacement tax is to be levied), first due in calendar year 132620
.......... (first calendar year in which the tax shall be due)."132621

       The question covered by the resolution shall be submitted as 132622
a separate proposition, but may be printed on the same ballot with 132623
any other proposition submitted at the same election, other than 132624
the election of officers. More than one such question may be 132625
submitted at the same election.132626

       (D) Two existing levies, or any portion of those levies, may 132627
be combined into one replacement levy, so long as both of the 132628
existing levies are for the same purpose and either both are due 132629
to expire the same year or both are for a continuing period of 132630
time. The question of combining all or portions of the two 132631
existing levies into the replacement levy shall appear as one 132632
ballot proposition before the electors. If the electors approve 132633
the ballot proposition, all or the stated portions of the two 132634
existing levies are replaced by one replacement levy.132635

       (E) A levy approved in excess of the ten-mill limitation 132636
under this section shall be certified to the tax commissioner. In 132637
the first year of a levy approved under this section, the levy 132638
shall be extended on the tax lists after the February settlement 132639
succeeding the election at which the levy was approved. If the 132640
levy is to be placed on the tax lists of the current year, as 132641
specified in the resolution providing for its submission, the 132642
result of the election shall be certified immediately after the 132643
canvass by the board of elections to the taxing authority, which 132644
shall forthwith make the necessary levy and certify it to the 132645
county auditor, who shall extend it on the tax lists for 132646
collection. After the first year, the levy shall be included in 132647
the annual tax budget that is certified to the county budget 132648
commission.132649

       If notes are authorized to be issued in anticipation of the 132650
proceeds of the existing levy, notes may be issued in anticipation 132651
of the proceeds of the replacement levy, and such issuance is 132652
subject to the terms and limitations governing the issuance of 132653
notes in anticipation of the proceeds of the existing levy.132654

       (F) This section does not authorize a tax to be levied in any 132655
year after the year in which revenue is not needed for the purpose 132656
for which the tax is levied.132657

       Sec. 5705.21.  (A) At any time, the board of education of any 132658
city, local, exempted village, cooperative education, or joint 132659
vocational school district, by a vote of two-thirds of all its 132660
members, may declare by resolution that the amount of taxes which 132661
may be raised within the ten-mill limitation by levies on the 132662
current tax duplicate will be insufficient to provide an adequate 132663
amount for the necessary requirements of the school district, that 132664
it is necessary to levy a tax in excess of such limitation for one 132665
of the purposes specified in division (A), (D), (F), (H), or (DD) 132666
of section 5705.19 of the Revised Code, for general permanent 132667
improvements, for the purpose of operating a cultural center, for 132668
the purpose of providing for school safety and security, or for 132669
the purpose of providing education technology, and that the 132670
question of such additional tax levy shall be submitted to the 132671
electors of the school district at a special election on a day to 132672
be specified in the resolution. In the case of a qualifying 132673
library levy for the support of a library association or private 132674
corporation, the question shall be submitted to the electors of 132675
the association library district. If the resolution states that 132676
the levy is for the purpose of operating a cultural center, the 132677
ballot shall state that the levy is "for the purpose of operating 132678
the .......... (name of cultural center)."132679

       As used in this division, "cultural center" means a 132680
freestanding building, separate from a public school building, 132681
that is open to the public for educational, musical, artistic, and 132682
cultural purposes; "education technology" means, but is not 132683
limited to, computer hardware, equipment, materials, and 132684
accessories, equipment used for two-way audio or video, and 132685
software; and "general permanent improvements" means permanent 132686
improvements without regard to the limitation of division (F) of 132687
section 5705.19 of the Revised Code that the improvements be a 132688
specific improvement or a class of improvements that may be 132689
included in a single bond issue.132690

        A resolution adopted under this division shall be confined to 132691
a single purpose and shall specify the amount of the increase in 132692
rate that it is necessary to levy, the purpose of the levy, and 132693
the number of years during which the increase in rate shall be in 132694
effect. The number of years may be any number not exceeding five 132695
or, if the levy is for current expenses of the district or for 132696
general permanent improvements, for a continuing period of time. 132697

       (B)(1) The board of education of a municipal school district, 132698
by resolution, may declare that it is necessary to levy a tax in 132699
excess of the ten-mill limitation for the purpose of paying the 132700
current expenses of the district and of partnering community 132701
schools and that the question of the additional tax levy shall be 132702
submitted to the electors of the school district at a special 132703
election on a day to be specified in the resolution. The 132704
resolution shall state the purpose of the levy, the rate of the 132705
tax expressed in mills per dollar of taxable value, the number of 132706
such mills to be levied for the current expenses of the partnering 132707
community schools and the number of such mills to be levied for 132708
the current expenses of the school district, the number of years 132709
the tax will be levied, and the first year the tax will be levied. 132710
The number of years the tax may be levied may be any number not 132711
exceeding ten years, or for a continuing period of time.132712

       The levy of a tax for the current expenses of a partnering 132713
community school under this section and the distribution of 132714
proceeds from the tax by a municipal school district to partnering 132715
community schools is hereby determined to be a proper public 132716
purpose.132717

       (2) The form of the ballot at an election held pursuant to 132718
division (B) of this section shall be as follows:132719

       "Shall a levy be imposed by the ......... (insert the name of 132720
the municipal school district) for the purpose of current expenses 132721
of the school district and of partnering community schools at a 132722
rate not exceeding ...... (insert the number of mills) mills for 132723
each one dollar of valuation (of which ...... (insert the number 132724
of mills to be allocated to partnering community schools) mills is 132725
to be allocated to partnering community schools), which amounts to 132726
....... (insert the rate expressed in dollars and cents) for each 132727
one hundred dollars of valuation, for ...... (insert the number of 132728
years the levy is to be imposed, or that it will be levied for a 132729
continuing period of time), beginning ...... (insert first year 132730
the tax is to be levied), which will first be payable in calendar 132731
year ...... (insert the first calendar year in which the tax would 132732
be payable)?132733

 FOR THE TAX LEVY 132734
 AGAINST THE TAX LEVY  " 132735

       (3) Upon each receipt of a tax distribution by the municipal 132736
school district, the board of education shall credit the portion 132737
allocated to partnering community schools to the partnering 132738
community schools fund. All income from the investment of money in 132739
the partnering community schools fund shall be credited to that 132740
fund.132741

       Not more than forty-five days after the municipal school 132742
district receives and deposits each tax distribution, the board of 132743
education shall distribute the partnering community schools amount 132744
among the then qualifying community schools. From each tax 132745
distribution, each such partnering community school shall receive 132746
a portion of the partnering community schools amount in the 132747
proportion that the number of its resident students bears to the 132748
aggregate number of resident students of all such partnering 132749
community schools as of the date of receipt and deposit of the tax 132750
distribution. For the purposes of this division, the number of 132751
resident students shall be the number of such students reported 132752
under section 3317.03 of the Revised Code and established by the 132753
department of education as of the date of receipt and deposit of 132754
the tax distribution.132755

       (4) To the extent an agreement whereby the municipal school 132756
district and a community school endorse each other's programs is 132757
necessary for the community school to qualify as a partnering 132758
community school under division (B)(6)(b) of this section, the 132759
board of education of the school district shall certify to the 132760
department of education the agreement along with the determination 132761
that such agreement satisfies the requirements of that division. 132762
The board's determination is conclusive.132763

       (5) For the purposes of Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code or 132764
other laws referring to the "taxes charged and payable" for a 132765
school district, the taxes charged and payable for a municipal 132766
school district that levies a tax under division (B) of this 132767
section includes only the taxes charged and payable under that 132768
levy for the current expenses of the school district, and does not 132769
include the taxes charged and payable for the current expenses of 132770
partnering community schools. The taxes charged and payable for 132771
the current expenses of partnering community schools shall not 132772
affect the calculation of "state education aid" as defined in 132773
section 5751.20 of the Revised Code.132774

       (6) As used in division (B) of this section:132775

       (a) "Municipal school district" has the same meaning as in 132776
section 3311.71 of the Revised Code.132777

       (b) "Partnering community school" means a community school 132778
established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code that is 132779
located within the territory of the municipal school district and 132780
that either is sponsored by the district or is a party to an 132781
agreement with the district whereby the district and the community 132782
school endorse each other's programs.132783

       (c) "Partnering community schools amount" means the product 132784
obtained, as of the receipt and deposit of the tax distribution, 132785
by multiplying the amount of a tax distribution by a fraction, the 132786
numerator of which is the number of mills per dollar of taxable 132787
value of the property tax to be allocated to partnering community 132788
schools, and the denominator of which is the total number of mills 132789
per dollar of taxable value authorized by the electors in the 132790
election held under division (B) of this section, each as set 132791
forth in the resolution levying the tax.132792

       (d) "Partnering community schools fund" means a separate fund 132793
established by the board of education of a municipal school 132794
district for the deposit of partnering community school amounts 132795
under this section. 132796

       (e) "Resident student" means a student enrolled in a 132797
partnering community school who is entitled to attend school in 132798
the municipal school district under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of 132799
the Revised Code.132800

       (f) "Tax distribution" means a distribution of proceeds of 132801
the tax authorized by division (B) of this section under section 132802
321.24 of the Revised Code and distributions that are attributable 132803
to that tax under sections 323.156 and 4503.068 of the Revised 132804
Code or other applicable law.132805

       (C) A resolution adopted under this section shall specify the 132806
date of holding the election, which shall not be earlier than 132807
ninety days after the adoption and certification of the resolution 132808
and which shall be consistent with the requirements of section 132809
3501.01 of the Revised Code.132810

        A resolution adopted under this section may propose to renew 132811
one or more existing levies imposed under division (A) or (B) of 132812
this section or to increase or decrease a single levy imposed 132813
under either such division. 132814

       If the board of education imposes one or more existing levies 132815
for the purpose specified in division (F) of section 5705.19 of 132816
the Revised Code, the resolution may propose to renew one or more 132817
of those existing levies, or to increase or decrease a single such 132818
existing levy, for the purpose of general permanent improvements. 132819

       If the resolution proposes to renew two or more existing 132820
levies, the levies shall be levied for the same purpose. The 132821
resolution shall identify those levies and the rates at which they 132822
are levied. The resolution also shall specify that the existing 132823
levies shall not be extended on the tax lists after the year 132824
preceding the year in which the renewal levy is first imposed, 132825
regardless of the years for which those levies originally were 132826
authorized to be levied.132827

       If the resolution proposes to renew an existing levy imposed 132828
under division (B) of this section, the rates allocated to the 132829
municipal school district and to partnering community schools each 132830
may be increased or decreased or remain the same, and the total 132831
rate may be increased, decreased, or remain the same. The 132832
resolution and notice of election shall specify the number of the 132833
mills to be levied for the current expenses of the partnering 132834
community schools and the number of the mills to be levied for the 132835
current expenses of the municipal school district.132836

        A resolution adopted under this section shall go into 132837
immediate effect upon its passage, and no publication of the 132838
resolution shall be necessary other than that provided for in the 132839
notice of election. A copy of the resolution shall immediately 132840
after its passing be certified to the board of elections of the 132841
proper county in the manner provided by section 5705.25 of the 132842
Revised Code. That section shall govern the arrangements for the 132843
submission of such question and other matters concerning the 132844
election to which that section refers, including publication of 132845
notice of the election, except that the election shall be held on 132846
the date specified in the resolution. In the case of a resolution 132847
adopted under division (B) of this section, the publication of 132848
notice of that election shall state the number of the mills to be 132849
levied for the current expenses of partnering community schools 132850
and the number of the mills to be levied for the current expenses 132851
of the municipal school district. If a majority of the electors 132852
voting on the question so submitted in an election vote in favor 132853
of the levy, the board of education may make the necessary levy 132854
within the school district or, in the case of a qualifying library 132855
levy for the support of a library association or private 132856
corporation, within the association library district, at the 132857
additional rate, or at any lesser rate in excess of the ten-mill 132858
limitation on the tax list, for the purpose stated in the 132859
resolution. A levy for a continuing period of time may be reduced 132860
pursuant to section 5705.261 of the Revised Code. The tax levy 132861
shall be included in the next tax budget that is certified to the 132862
county budget commission.132863

       (D)(1) After the approval of a levy on the current tax list 132864
and duplicate for current expenses, for recreational purposes, for 132865
community centers provided for in section 755.16 of the Revised 132866
Code, or for a public library of the district under division (A) 132867
of this section, and prior to the time when the first tax 132868
collection from the levy can be made, the board of education may 132869
anticipate a fraction of the proceeds of the levy and issue 132870
anticipation notes in a principal amount not exceeding fifty per 132871
cent of the total estimated proceeds of the levy to be collected 132872
during the first year of the levy.132873

       (2) After the approval of a levy for general permanent 132874
improvements for a specified number of years or for permanent 132875
improvements having the purpose specified in division (F) of 132876
section 5705.19 of the Revised Code, the board of education may 132877
anticipate a fraction of the proceeds of the levy and issue 132878
anticipation notes in a principal amount not exceeding fifty per 132879
cent of the total estimated proceeds of the levy remaining to be 132880
collected in each year over a period of five years after the 132881
issuance of the notes.132882

       The notes shall be issued as provided in section 133.24 of 132883
the Revised Code, shall have principal payments during each year 132884
after the year of their issuance over a period not to exceed five 132885
years, and may have a principal payment in the year of their 132886
issuance.132887

       (3) After approval of a levy for general permanent 132888
improvements for a continuing period of time, the board of 132889
education may anticipate a fraction of the proceeds of the levy 132890
and issue anticipation notes in a principal amount not exceeding 132891
fifty per cent of the total estimated proceeds of the levy to be 132892
collected in each year over a specified period of years, not 132893
exceeding ten, after the issuance of the notes.132894

       The notes shall be issued as provided in section 133.24 of 132895
the Revised Code, shall have principal payments during each year 132896
after the year of their issuance over a period not to exceed ten 132897
years, and may have a principal payment in the year of their 132898
issuance.132899

       (4) After the approval of a levy on the current tax list and 132900
duplicate under division (B) of this section, and prior to the 132901
time when the first tax collection from the levy can be made, the 132902
board of education may anticipate a fraction of the proceeds of 132903
the levy for the current expenses of the school district and issue 132904
anticipation notes in a principal amount not exceeding fifty per 132905
cent of the estimated proceeds of the levy to be collected during 132906
the first year of the levy and allocated to the school district. 132907
The portion of the levy proceeds to be allocated to partnering 132908
community schools under that division shall not be included in the 132909
estimated proceeds anticipated under this division and shall not 132910
be used to pay debt charges on any anticipation notes.132911

        The notes shall be issued as provided in section 133.24 of 132912
the Revised Code, shall have principal payments during each year 132913
after the year of their issuance over a period not to exceed five 132914
years, and may have a principal payment in the year of their 132915
issuance.132916

       (E) The submission of questions to the electors under this 132917
section is subject to the limitation on the number of election 132918
dates established by section 5705.214 of the Revised Code.132919

       Sec. 5705.217.  (A) The board of education of a city, local, 132920
or exempted village school district, at any time by a vote of 132921
two-thirds of all its members, may declare by resolution that the 132922
amount of taxes that can be raised within the ten-mill limitation 132923
will be insufficient to provide an adequate amount for the present 132924
and future requirements of the school district; that it is 132925
necessary to levy an additional tax in excess of that limitation 132926
for the purposes of providing funds for current operating expenses 132927
and for the acquisition, construction, enlargement, renovation, 132928
and financing ofgeneral permanent improvements as defined in 132929
section 5705.21 of the Revised Code; and that the question of the 132930
tax shall be submitted to the electors of the district at a 132931
special election. The tax may be levied for a specified number of 132932
years not exceeding five or, if the tax is for current operating 132933
expenses or for general, on-going permanent improvements, for a 132934
continuing period of time. The resolution shall specify the 132935
proposed tax rate, the first year the tax will be levied, and the 132936
number of years it will be levied, or that it will be levied for a 132937
continuing period of time. The resolution shall apportion the 132938
annual rate of the tax between current operating expenses and 132939
permanent improvements. The apportionment may but need not be the 132940
same for each year of the tax, but the respective portions of the 132941
rate actually levied each year for current operating expenses and 132942
permanent improvements shall be limited by the apportionment.132943

       The resolution shall specify the date of holding the special 132944
election, which shall not be earlier than ninety days after 132945
certification of the resolution to the board of elections and 132946
shall be consistent with the requirements of section 3501.01 of 132947
the Revised Code. The resolution shall go into immediate effect 132948
upon its passage, and no publication of it is necessary other than 132949
that provided in the notice of election. The board of education 132950
shall certify a copy of the resolution to the board of elections 132951
immediately after its adoption. Section 5705.25 of the Revised 132952
Code governs the arrangements and form of the ballot for the 132953
submission of the question to the electors.132954

       If a majority of the electors voting on the question vote in 132955
favor of the tax, the board of education may make the levy at the 132956
additional rate, or at any lesser rate in excess of the ten-mill 132957
limitation. If the tax is for a continuing period of time, it may 132958
be decreased in accordance with section 5705.261 of the Revised 132959
Code.132960

       A board of education may adopt a resolution to renew one or 132961
more existing levies imposed under this section, or to increase or 132962
decrease the rate of a tax levied under this section, for the 132963
purpose of providing funds for either current expenses and general 132964
permanent improvements or solely for general permanent 132965
improvements.132966

       (B)(1) After the approval of a tax for current operating 132967
expenses under this section and prior to the time the first 132968
collection and distribution from the levy can be made, the board 132969
of education may anticipate a fraction of the proceeds of such 132970
levy and issue anticipation notes in a principal amount not 132971
exceeding fifty per cent of the total estimated proceeds of the 132972
tax to be collected during the first year of the levy.132973

       (2) After the approval of a tax under this section for 132974
general permanent improvements having a specific purposelevied 132975
under this section for a specified number of years, the board of 132976
education may anticipate a fraction of the proceeds of such tax 132977
and issue anticipation notes in a principal amount not exceeding 132978
fifty per cent of the total estimated proceeds of the tax 132979
remaining to be collected in each year over a specified period of 132980
five years, not exceeding the number of years for which the tax 132981
was levied, after issuance of the notes.132982

       (3) After the approval of a tax for general, on-going132983
permanent improvements levied under this section for a continuing 132984
period of time, the board of education may anticipate a fraction 132985
of the proceeds of such tax and issue anticipation notes in a 132986
principal amount not exceeding fifty per cent of the total 132987
estimated proceeds of the tax to be collected in each year over a 132988
specified period of years, not exceeding ten, after issuance of 132989
the notes.132990

       Anticipation notes under this section shall be issued as 132991
provided in section 133.24 of the Revised Code. Notes issued under 132992
division (B)(1) or (2) of this section shall have principal 132993
payments during each year after the year of their issuance over a 132994
period not to exceed five years, and may have a principal payment 132995
in the year of their issuance. Notes issued under division (B)(3) 132996
of this section shall have principal payments during each year 132997
after the year of their issuance over a period not to exceed ten 132998
years, and may have a principal payment in the year of their 132999
issuance.133000

       (C) The submission of a question to the electors under this 133001
section is subject to the limitation on the number of elections 133002
that can be held in a year under section 5705.214 of the Revised 133003
Code.133004

       Sec. 5705.218.  (A) The board of education of a city, local, 133005
or exempted village school district, at any time by a vote of 133006
two-thirds of all its members, may declare by resolution that it 133007
may be necessary for the school district to issue general 133008
obligation bonds for permanent improvements. The resolution shall 133009
state all of the following:133010

       (1) The necessity and purpose of the bond issue;133011

       (2) The date of the special election at which the question 133012
shall be submitted to the electors;133013

       (3) The amount, approximate date, estimated rate of interest, 133014
and maximum number of years over which the principal of the bonds 133015
may be paid;133016

       (4) The necessity of levying a tax outside the ten-mill 133017
limitation to pay debt charges on the bonds and any anticipatory 133018
securities.133019

       On adoption of the resolution, the board shall certify a copy 133020
of it to the county auditor. The county auditor promptly shall 133021
estimate and certify to the board the average annual property tax 133022
rate required throughout the stated maturity of the bonds to pay 133023
debt charges on the bonds, in the same manner as under division 133024
(C) of section 133.18 of the Revised Code.133025

       (B) After receiving the county auditor's certification under 133026
division (A) of this section, the board of education of the city, 133027
local, or exempted village school district, by a vote of 133028
two-thirds of all its members, may declare by resolution that the 133029
amount of taxes that can be raised within the ten-mill limitation 133030
will be insufficient to provide an adequate amount for the present 133031
and future requirements of the school district; that it is 133032
necessary to issue general obligation bonds of the school district 133033
for permanent improvements and to levy an additional tax in excess 133034
of the ten-mill limitation to pay debt charges on the bonds and 133035
any anticipatory securities; that it is necessary for a specified 133036
number of years or for a continuing period of time to levy 133037
additional taxes in excess of the ten-mill limitation to provide 133038
funds for the acquisition, construction, enlargement, renovation, 133039
and financing of permanent improvements or to pay for current 133040
operating expenses, or both; and that the question of the bonds 133041
and taxes shall be submitted to the electors of the school 133042
district at a special election, which shall not be earlier than 133043
ninety days after certification of the resolution to the board of 133044
elections, and the date of which shall be consistent with section 133045
3501.01 of the Revised Code. The resolution shall specify all of 133046
the following:133047

       (1) The county auditor's estimate of the average annual 133048
property tax rate required throughout the stated maturity of the 133049
bonds to pay debt charges on the bonds;133050

       (2) The proposed rate of the tax, if any, for current 133051
operating expenses, the first year the tax will be levied, and the 133052
number of years it will be levied, or that it will be levied for a 133053
continuing period of time;133054

       (3) The proposed rate of the tax, if any, for permanent 133055
improvements, the first year the tax will be levied, and the 133056
number of years it will be levied, or that it will be levied for a 133057
continuing period of time.133058

       The resolution shall apportion the annual rate of the tax 133059
between current operating expenses and permanent improvements, if 133060
both taxes are proposed. The apportionment may but need not be the 133061
same for each year of the tax, but the respective portions of the 133062
rate actually levied each year for current operating expenses and 133063
permanent improvements shall be limited by the apportionment. The 133064
resolution shall go into immediate effect upon its passage, and no 133065
publication of it is necessary other than that provided in the 133066
notice of election. The board of education shall certify a copy of 133067
the resolution, along with copies of the auditor's estimate and 133068
its resolution under division (A) of this section, to the board of 133069
elections immediately after its adoption.133070

       (C) The board of elections shall make the arrangements for 133071
the submission to the electors of the school district of the 133072
question proposed under division (B) or (J) of this section, and 133073
the election shall be conducted, canvassed, and certified in the 133074
same manner as regular elections in the district for the election 133075
of county officers. The resolution shall be put before the 133076
electors as one ballot question, with a favorable vote indicating 133077
approval of the bond issue, the levy to pay debt charges on the 133078
bonds and any anticipatory securities, the current operating 133079
expenses levy, the permanent improvements levy, and the levy for 133080
the current expenses of a municipal school district and of 133081
partnering community schools, as those levies may be proposed. The 133082
board of elections shall publish notice of the election in a 133083
newspaper of general circulation in the school district once a 133084
week for two consecutive weeks, or as provided in section 7.16 of 133085
the Revised Code, prior to the election. If a board of elections 133086
operates and maintains a web site, that board also shall post 133087
notice of the election on its web site for thirty days prior to 133088
the election. The notice of election shall state all of the 133089
following:133090

       (1) The principal amount of the proposed bond issue;133091

       (2) The permanent improvements for which the bonds are to be 133092
issued;133093

       (3) The maximum number of years over which the principal of 133094
the bonds may be paid;133095

       (4) The estimated additional average annual property tax rate 133096
to pay the debt charges on the bonds, as certified by the county 133097
auditor;133098

       (5) The proposed rate of the additional tax, if any, for 133099
current operating expenses and, if the question is proposed under 133100
division (J) of this section, the portion of the rate to be 133101
allocated to the school district and the portion to be allocated 133102
to partnering community schools;133103

       (6) The number of years the current operating expenses tax 133104
will be in effect, or that it will be in effect for a continuing 133105
period of time;133106

       (7) The proposed rate of the additional tax, if any, for 133107
permanent improvements;133108

       (8) The number of years the permanent improvements tax will 133109
be in effect, or that it will be in effect for a continuing period 133110
of time;133111

       (9) The time and place of the special election.133112

       (D) The form of the ballot for an election under this section 133113
is as follows:133114

       "Shall the .......... school district be authorized to do the 133115
following:133116

       (1) Issue bonds for the purpose of .......... in the 133117
principal amount of $......, to be repaid annually over a maximum 133118
period of ...... years, and levy a property tax outside the 133119
ten-mill limitation, estimated by the county auditor to average 133120
over the bond repayment period ...... mills for each one dollar of 133121
tax valuation, which amounts to ...... (rate expressed in cents or 133122
dollars and cents, such as "36 cents" or "$1.41") for each $100 of 133123
tax valuation, to pay the annual debt charges on the bonds, and to 133124
pay debt charges on any notes issued in anticipation of those 133125
bonds?"133126

       If either a levy for permanent improvements or a levy for 133127
current operating expenses is proposed, or both are proposed, the 133128
ballot also shall contain the following language, as appropriate:133129

       "(2) Levy an additional property tax to provide funds for the 133130
acquisition, construction, enlargement, renovation, and financing 133131
of permanent improvements at a rate not exceeding ....... mills 133132
for each one dollar of tax valuation, which amounts to ....... 133133
(rate expressed in cents or dollars and cents) for each $100 of 133134
tax valuation, for ...... (number of years of the levy, or a 133135
continuing period of time)?133136

       (3) Levy an additional property tax to pay current operating 133137
expenses at a rate not exceeding ....... mills for each one dollar 133138
of tax valuation, which amounts to ....... (rate expressed in 133139
cents or dollars and cents) for each $100 of tax valuation, for 133140
....... (number of years of the levy, or a continuing period of 133141
time)?133142

        133143

  FOR THE BOND ISSUE AND LEVY (OR LEVIES) 133144
  AGAINST THE BOND ISSUE AND LEVY (OR LEVIES)   " 133145

        133146

       If the question is proposed under division (J) of this 133147
section, the form of the ballot shall be modified as prescribed by 133148
division (J)(4) of this section.133149

       (E) The board of elections promptly shall certify the results 133150
of the election to the tax commissioner and the county auditor of 133151
the county in which the school district is located. If a majority 133152
of the electors voting on the question vote for it, the board of 133153
education may proceed with issuance of the bonds and with the levy 133154
and collection of the property tax or taxes at the additional rate 133155
or any lesser rate in excess of the ten-mill limitation. Any 133156
securities issued by the board of education under this section are 133157
Chapter 133. securities, as that term is defined in section 133.01 133158
of the Revised Code.133159

       (F)(1) After the approval of a tax for current operating 133160
expenses under this section and prior to the time the first 133161
collection and distribution from the levy can be made, the board 133162
of education may anticipate a fraction of the proceeds of such 133163
levy and issue anticipation notes in a principal amount not 133164
exceeding fifty per cent of the total estimated proceeds of the 133165
tax to be collected during the first year of the levy.133166

       (2) After the approval of a tax under this section for 133167
permanent improvements having a specific purpose, the board of 133168
education may anticipate a fraction of the proceeds of such tax 133169
and issue anticipation notes in a principal amount not exceeding 133170
fifty per cent of the total estimated proceeds of the tax 133171
remaining to be collected in each year over a period of five years 133172
after issuance of the notes.133173

       (3) After the approval of a tax under this section for 133174
general, on-going permanent improvements as defined under this133175
section 5705.21 of the Revised Code, the board of education may 133176
anticipate a fraction of the proceeds of such tax and issue 133177
anticipation notes in a principal amount not exceeding fifty per 133178
cent of the total estimated proceeds of the tax to be collected in 133179
each year over a specified period of years, not exceeding ten, 133180
after issuance of the notes.133181

       Anticipation notes under this section shall be issued as 133182
provided in section 133.24 of the Revised Code. Notes issued under 133183
division (F)(1) or (2) of this section shall have principal 133184
payments during each year after the year of their issuance over a 133185
period not to exceed five years, and may have a principal payment 133186
in the year of their issuance. Notes issued under division (F)(3) 133187
of this section shall have principal payments during each year 133188
after the year of their issuance over a period not to exceed ten 133189
years, and may have a principal payment in the year of their 133190
issuance.133191

       (G) A tax for current operating expenses or for permanent 133192
improvements levied under this section for a specified number of 133193
years may be renewed or replaced in the same manner as a tax for 133194
current operating expenses or for permanent improvements levied 133195
under section 5705.21 of the Revised Code. A tax for current 133196
operating expenses or for permanent improvements levied under this 133197
section for a continuing period of time may be decreased in 133198
accordance with section 5705.261 of the Revised Code.133199

       (H) The submission of a question to the electors under this 133200
section is subject to the limitation on the number of elections 133201
that can be held in a year under section 5705.214 of the Revised 133202
Code.133203

       (I) A school district board of education proposing a ballot 133204
measure under this section to generate local resources for a 133205
project under the school building assistance expedited local 133206
partnership program under section 3318.36 of the Revised Code may 133207
combine the questions under division (D) of this section with a 133208
question for the levy of a property tax to generate moneys for 133209
maintenance of the classroom facilities acquired under that 133210
project as prescribed in section 3318.361 of the Revised Code.133211

       (J)(1) After receiving the county auditor's certification 133212
under division (A) of this section, the board of education of a 133213
municipal school district, by a vote of two-thirds of all its 133214
members, may declare by resolution that it is necessary to levy a 133215
tax in excess of the ten-mill limitation for the purpose of paying 133216
the current expenses of the school district and of partnering 133217
community schools, as defined in section 5705.21 of the Revised 133218
Code; that it is necessary to issue general obligation bonds of 133219
the school district for permanent improvements of the district and 133220
to levy an additional tax in excess of the ten-mill limitation to 133221
pay debt charges on the bonds and any anticipatory securities; and 133222
that the question of the bonds and taxes shall be submitted to the 133223
electors of the school district at a special election, which shall 133224
not be earlier than ninety days after certification of the 133225
resolution to the board of elections, and the date of which shall 133226
be consistent with section 3505.01 of the Revised Code.133227

       The levy of taxes for the current expenses of a partnering 133228
community school under division (J) of this section and the 133229
distribution of proceeds from the tax by a municipal school 133230
district to partnering community schools is hereby determined to 133231
be a proper public purpose.133232

        (2) The tax for the current expenses of the school district 133233
and of partnering community schools is subject to the requirements 133234
of divisions (B)(3), (4), and (5) of section 5705.21 of the 133235
Revised Code.133236

        (3) In addition to the required specifications of the 133237
resolution under division (B) of this section, the resolution 133238
shall express the rate of the tax in mills per dollar of taxable 133239
value, state the number of the mills to be levied for the current 133240
expenses of the partnering community schools and the number of the 133241
mills to be levied for the current expenses of the school 133242
district, specify the number of years (not exceeding ten) the tax 133243
will be levied or that it will be levied for a continuing period 133244
of time, and state the first year the tax will be levied.133245

       The resolution shall go into immediate effect upon its 133246
passage, and no publication of it is necessary other than that 133247
provided in the notice of election. The board of education shall 133248
certify a copy of the resolution, along with copies of the 133249
auditor's estimate and its resolution under division (A) of this 133250
section, to the board of elections immediately after its adoption.133251

        (4) The form of the ballot shall be modified by replacing the 133252
ballot form set forth in division (D)(3) of this section with the 133253
following:133254

        "Levy an additional property tax for the purpose of the 133255
current expenses of the school district and of partnering 133256
community schools at a rate not exceeding ...... (insert the 133257
number of mills) mills for each one dollar of valuation (of which 133258
...... (insert the number of mills to be allocated to partnering 133259
community schools) mills is to be allocated to partnering 133260
community schools), which amounts to ...... (insert the rate 133261
expressed in dollars and cents) for each one hundred dollars of 133262
valuation, for ...... (insert the number of years the levy is to 133263
be imposed, or that it will be levied for a continuing period of 133264
time)?133265

  FOR THE BOND ISSUE AND LEVY (OR LEVIES) 133266
  AGAINST THE BOND ISSUE AND LEVY (OR LEVIES)   " 133267

        (5) After the approval of a tax for the current expenses of 133268
the school district and of partnering community schools under 133269
division (J) of this section, and prior to the time the first 133270
collection and distribution from the levy can be made, the board 133271
of education may anticipate a fraction of the proceeds of the levy 133272
for the current expenses of the school district and issue 133273
anticipation notes in a principal amount not exceeding fifty per 133274
cent of the estimated proceeds of the levy to be collected during 133275
the first year of the levy and allocated to the school district. 133276
The portion of levy proceeds to be allocated to partnering 133277
community schools shall not be included in the estimated proceeds 133278
anticipated under this division and shall not be used to pay debt 133279
charges on any anticipation notes.133280

        The notes shall be issued as provided in section 133.24 of 133281
the Revised Code, shall have principal payments during each year 133282
after the year of their issuance over a period not to exceed five 133283
years, and may have a principal payment in the year of their 133284
issuance.133285

        (6) A tax for the current expenses of the school district and 133286
of partnering community schools levied under division (J) of this 133287
section for a specified number of years may be renewed or replaced 133288
in the same manner as a tax for the current expenses of a school 133289
district and of partnering community schools levied under division 133290
(B) of section 5705.21 of the Revised Code. A tax for the current 133291
expenses of the school district and of partnering community 133292
schools levied under this division for a continuing period of time 133293
may be decreased in accordance with section 5705.261 of the 133294
Revised Code.133295

        (7) The proceeds from the issuance of the general obligation 133296
bonds under division (J) of this section shall be used solely to 133297
pay for permanent improvements of the school district and not for 133298
permanent improvements of partnering community schools.133299

       Sec. 5705.221.  (A) At any time, the board of county 133300
commissioners of any county by a majority vote of the full 133301
membership may declare by resolution and certify to the board of 133302
elections of the county that the amount of taxes which may be 133303
raised within the ten-mill limitation by levies on the current tax 133304
duplicate will be insufficient to provide the necessary 133305
requirements of the county's alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 133306
health service district established pursuant to Chapter 340. of 133307
the Revised Code, or the county's contribution to a joint-county 133308
district of which the county is a part, and that it is necessary 133309
to levy a tax in excess of such limitation for the operation of 133310
alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programsservices providers133311
and community mental health programsservices providers and the 133312
acquisition, construction, renovation, financing, maintenance, and 133313
operation of alcohol and drug addiction facilities and mental 133314
health facilities.133315

       Such resolution shall conform to section 5705.19 of the 133316
Revised Code, except that the increased rate may be in effect for 133317
any number of years not exceeding ten.133318

       The resolution shall be certified and submitted in the manner 133319
provided in section 5705.25 of the Revised Code, except that it 133320
may be placed on the ballot in any election, and shall be 133321
certified to the board of elections not less than ninety days 133322
before the election at which it will be voted upon.133323

       If the majority of the electors voting on a levy to 133324
supplement general fund appropriations for the support of the 133325
comprehensive alcohol and drugcommunity addiction and mental 133326
health programservices providers vote in favor of the levy, the 133327
board may levy a tax within the county at the additional rate 133328
outside the ten-mill limitation during the specified or continuing 133329
period, for the purpose stated in the resolution.133330

       (B) When electors have approved a tax levy under this 133331
section, the board of county commissioners may anticipate a 133332
fraction of the proceeds of the levy and, from time to time, issue 133333
anticipation notes in accordance with section 5705.191 or 5705.193 133334
of the Revised Code.133335

       (C) The county auditor who is the fiscal officer of the 133336
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district, upon 133337
receipt of a resolution from the board of alcohol, drug addiction, 133338
and mental health services, shall establish for the district a 133339
capital improvements account or a reserve balance account, or 133340
both, as specified in the resolution. The capital improvements 133341
account shall be a contingency fund for the necessary acquisition, 133342
replacement, renovation, or construction of facilities and movable 133343
and fixed equipment. Upon the request of the board, funds not 133344
needed to pay for current expenses may be appropriated to the 133345
capital improvements account, in amounts such that the account 133346
does not exceed twenty-five per cent of the replacement value of 133347
all capital facilities and equipment currently used by the board 133348
for programs and services. Other funds which are available for 133349
current capital expenses from federal, state, or local sources may 133350
also be appropriated to this account.133351

       The reserve balance account shall contain those funds that 133352
are not needed to pay for current operating expenses and not 133353
deposited in the capital improvements account but that will be 133354
needed to pay for operating expenses in the future. Upon the 133355
request of a board, such funds shall be appropriated to the 133356
reserve balance account. Payments from the capital improvements 133357
account and the reserve balance account shall be made by the 133358
county treasurer who is the custodian of funds for the district 133359
upon warrants issued by the county auditor who is the fiscal 133360
officer of the district pursuant to orders of the board.133361

       Sec. 5705.25.  (A) A copy of any resolution adopted as 133362
provided in section 5705.19 or 5705.2111 of the Revised Code shall 133363
be certified by the taxing authority to the board of elections of 133364
the proper county not less than ninety days before the general 133365
election in any year, and the board shall submit the proposal to 133366
the electors of the subdivision at the succeeding November 133367
election. In the case of a qualifying library levy, the board 133368
shall submit the question to the electors of the library district 133369
or association library district. Except as otherwise provided in 133370
this division, a resolution to renew an existing levy, regardless 133371
of the section of the Revised Code under which the tax was 133372
imposed, shall not be placed on the ballot unless the question is 133373
submitted at the general election held during the last year the 133374
tax to be renewed or replaced may be extended on the real and 133375
public utility property tax list and duplicate, or at any election 133376
held in the ensuing year. The limitation of the foregoing sentence 133377
does not apply to a resolution to renew and increase or to renew 133378
part of an existing levy that was imposed under section 5705.191 133379
of the Revised Code to supplement the general fund for the purpose 133380
of making appropriations for one or more of the following 133381
purposes: for public assistance, human or social services, relief, 133382
welfare, hospitalization, health, and support of general 133383
hospitals. The limitation of the second preceding sentence also 133384
does not apply to a resolution that proposes to renew two or more 133385
existing levies imposed under section 5705.21 or 5705.217 of the 133386
Revised Code, in which case the question shall be submitted on the 133387
date of the general or primary election held during the last year 133388
at least one of the levies to be renewed may be extended on the 133389
real and public utility property tax list and duplicate, or at any 133390
election held during the ensuing year. For purposes of this 133391
section, a levy shall be considered to be an "existing levy" 133392
through the year following the last year it can be placed on that 133393
tax list and duplicate.133394

       The board shall make the necessary arrangements for the 133395
submission of such questions to the electors of such subdivision, 133396
library district, or association library district, and the 133397
election shall be conducted, canvassed, and certified in the same 133398
manner as regular elections in such subdivision, library district, 133399
or association library district for the election of county 133400
officers. Notice of the election shall be published in a newspaper 133401
of general circulation in the subdivision, library district, or 133402
association library district once a week for two consecutive 133403
weeks, or as provided in section 7.16 of the Revised Code, prior 133404
to the election. If the board of elections operates and maintains 133405
a web site, the board of elections shall post notice of the 133406
election on its web site for thirty days prior to the election. 133407
The notice shall state the purpose, the proposed increase in rate 133408
expressed in dollars and cents for each one hundred dollars of 133409
valuation as well as in mills for each one dollar of valuation, 133410
the number of years during which the increase will be in effect, 133411
the first month and year in which the tax will be levied, and the 133412
time and place of the election.133413

       (B) The form of the ballots cast at an election held pursuant 133414
to division (A) of this section shall be as follows:133415

       "An additional tax for the benefit of (name of subdivision or 133416
public library) .......... for the purpose of (purpose stated in 133417
the resolution) .......... at a rate not exceeding ...... mills 133418
for each one dollar of valuation, which amounts to (rate expressed 133419
in dollars and cents) ............ for each one hundred dollars of 133420
valuation, for ...... (life of indebtedness or number of years the 133421
levy is to run).133422

        133423

 For the Tax Levy 133424
 Against the Tax Levy  " 133425

        133426

       (C) If the levy is to be in effect for a continuing period of 133427
time, the notice of election and the form of ballot shall so state 133428
instead of setting forth a specified number of years for the levy.133429

       If the tax is to be placed on the current tax list, the form 133430
of the ballot shall be modified by adding, after the statement of 133431
the number of years the levy is to run, the phrase ", commencing 133432
in .......... (first year the tax is to be levied), first due in 133433
calendar year .......... (first calendar year in which the tax 133434
shall be due)."133435

       If the levy submitted is a proposal to renew, increase, or 133436
decrease an existing levy, the form of the ballot specified in 133437
division (B) of this section may be changed by substituting for 133438
the words "An additional" at the beginning of the form, the words 133439
"A renewal of a" in case of a proposal to renew an existing levy 133440
in the same amount; the words "A renewal of ........ mills and an 133441
increase of ...... mills to constitute a" in the case of an 133442
increase; or the words "A renewal of part of an existing levy, 133443
being a reduction of ...... mills, to constitute a" in the case of 133444
a decrease in the proposed levy.133445

       If the levy submitted is a proposal to renew two or more 133446
existing levies imposed under section 5705.21 or 5705.217 of the 133447
Revised Code, the form of the ballot specified in division (B) of 133448
this section shall be modified by substituting for the words "an 133449
additional tax" the words "a renewal of ....(insert the number of 133450
levies to be renewed) existing taxes."133451

       If the levy submitted is a levy under section 5705.72 of the 133452
Revised Code or a proposal to renew, increase, or decrease an 133453
existing levy imposed under that section, the name of the 133454
subdivision shall be "the unincorporated area of .......... (name 133455
of township)." 133456

       The question covered by such resolution shall be submitted as 133457
a separate proposition but may be printed on the same ballot with 133458
any other proposition submitted at the same election, other than 133459
the election of officers. More than one such question may be 133460
submitted at the same election.133461

       (D) A levy voted in excess of the ten-mill limitation under 133462
this section shall be certified to the tax commissioner. In the 133463
first year of the levy, it shall be extended on the tax lists 133464
after the February settlement succeeding the election. If the 133465
additional tax is to be placed upon the tax list of the current 133466
year, as specified in the resolution providing for its submission, 133467
the result of the election shall be certified immediately after 133468
the canvass by the board of elections to the taxing authority, who 133469
shall make the necessary levy and certify it to the county 133470
auditor, who shall extend it on the tax lists for collection. 133471
After the first year, the tax levy shall be included in the annual 133472
tax budget that is certified to the county budget commission.133473

       Sec. 5705.55.  (A) The board of directors of a lake 133474
facilities authority, by a vote of two-thirds of all its members, 133475
may at any time declare by resolution that the amount of taxes 133476
which may be raised within the ten-mill limitation by levies on 133477
the current tax duplicate will be insufficient to provide an 133478
adequate amount for the necessary requirements of the authority, 133479
that it is necessary to levy a tax in excess of such limitation 133480
for any of the purposes specified in divisions (A), (B), (F), and 133481
(H) of section 5705.19 of the Revised Code, and that the question 133482
of such additional tax levy shall be submitted by the board to the 133483
electors residing within the boundaries of the impacted lake 133484
district on the day of a primary or general election. The 133485
resolution shall conform to section 5705.19 of the Revised Code, 133486
except that the tax levy may be in effect for no more than five 133487
years, as set forth in the resolution, unless the levy is for the 133488
payment of debt charges, and the total number of mills levied for 133489
each dollar of taxable valuation that may be levied under this 133490
section for any tax year shall not exceed one mill. If the levy is 133491
for the payment of debt charges, the levy shall be for the life of 133492
the bond indebtedness.133493

       The resolution shall specify the date of holding the 133494
election, which shall not be earlier than ninety days after the 133495
adoption and certification of the resolution to the board of 133496
elections. The resolution shall not include a levy on the current 133497
tax list and duplicate unless the election is to be held at or 133498
prior to the first Tuesday after the first Monday in November of 133499
the current tax year.133500

       The resolution shall be certified to the board of elections 133501
of the proper county or counties not less than ninety days before 133502
the date of the election. The resolution shall go into immediate 133503
effect upon its passage, and no publication of the resolution 133504
shall be necessary other than that provided in the notice of 133505
election. Section 5705.25 of the Revised Code shall govern the 133506
arrangements for the submission of such question and other matters 133507
concerning the election, to which that section refers, except that 133508
the election shall be held on the date specified in the 133509
resolution. If a majority of the electors voting on the question 133510
so submitted in an election vote in favor of the levy, the board 133511
of directors may forthwith make the necessary levy within the 133512
boundaries of the impacted lake district at the additional rate in 133513
excess of the ten-mill limitation on the tax list, for the purpose 133514
stated in the resolution. The tax levy shall be included in the 133515
next annual tax budget that is certified to the county budget 133516
commission.133517

       (B) The form of the ballot in an election held on the 133518
question of levying a tax proposed pursuant to this section shall 133519
be as follows or in any other form acceptable to the secretary of 133520
state:133521

       "A tax for the benefit of (name of lake facilities authority) 133522
.......... for the purpose of .......... at a rate not exceeding 133523
......... mills for each one dollar of valuation, which amounts to 133524
(rate expressed in dollars and cents) ............ for each one 133525
hundred dollars of valuation, for ............ (life of 133526
indebtedness or number of years the levy is to run).133527

        133528

 For the Tax Levy 133529
 Against the Tax Levy  " 133530

        133531

       (C) On approval of the levy, notes may be issued in 133532
anticipation of the collection of the proceeds of the tax levy, 133533
other than the proceeds to be received for the payment of bond 133534
debt charges, in the amount and manner and at the times as are 133535
provided in section 5705.193 of the Revised Code, for the issuance 133536
of notes by a county in anticipation of the proceeds of a tax 133537
levy. The lake facilities authority may borrow money in 133538
anticipation of the collection of current revenues as provided in 133539
section 133.10 of the Revised Code.133540

       (D) If a tax is levied under this section in a tax year, no 133541
other taxing authority of a subdivision or taxing unit, including 133542
a port authority, may levy a tax on property in the impacted lake 133543
district in the same tax year if the purpose of the levy is 133544
substantially the same as the purpose for which the lake 133545
facilities authority of the impacted lake district was created.133546

       Sec. 5709.17.  The following property shall be exempted from 133547
taxation:133548

       (A) Real estate held or occupied by an association or 133549
corporation, organized or incorporated under the laws of this 133550
state relative to soldiers' memorial associations, monumental 133551
building associations, or cemetery associations or corporations, 133552
which in the opinion of the trustees, directors, or managers 133553
thereof is necessary and proper to carry out the object intended 133554
for such association or corporation;133555

       (B) Real estate and tangible personal property held or 133556
occupied by a veterans' organization that qualifies for exemption 133557
from taxation under section 501(c)(19) or 501(c)(23) of the 133558
"Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 1, as 133559
amended, and is incorporated under the laws of this state or the 133560
United States, except real estate held by such organization for 133561
the production of rental or other income in excess of the 133562
designated amount, before accounting for any cost or expense 133563
incurred in the production of such income. For the purposes of 133564
this division, the:133565

       (1) "Rental income" includes only income arising directly 133566
from renting the real estate to others for consideration.133567

       (2) The "designated amount" equals seven thousand five 133568
hundred dollars in tax year 2002, and shall be increased by two 133569
hundred fifty dollars each year thereafter until tax year 2012, 133570
when it shall equal ten thousand dollars. For tax years 2013 and 133571
thereafter, the designated amount shall equal tenthirty-six133572
thousand dollars.133573

       (C) Tangible personal property held by a corporation 133574
chartered under 112 Stat. 1335, 36 U.S.C.A. 40701, described in 133575
section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code, and exempt from 133576
taxation under section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code shall 133577
be exempt from taxation if it is property obtained as described in 133578
112 Stat. 1335-1341, 36 U.S.C.A. Chapter 407.133579

       (D) Real estate held or occupied by a fraternal organization 133580
and used primarily for meetings of and the administration of the 133581
fraternal organization. As used in this division, "fraternal 133582
organization" means a domestic fraternal society, order, or 133583
association operating under the lodge, council, or grange system 133584
that qualifies for exemption from taxation under section 133585
501(c)(5), 501(c)(8), or 501(c)(10) of the "Internal Revenue Code 133586
of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 1, as amended; that provides 133587
financial support for charitable purposes, as defined in division 133588
(B)(12) of section 5739.02 of the Revised Code; and that has been 133589
operating in this state with a state governing body for at least 133590
one hundred years.133591

       Sec. 5709.75. (A) Any township that receives service payments 133592
in lieu of taxes under section 5709.74 of the Revised Code shall 133593
establish a township public improvement tax increment equivalent 133594
fund into which those payments shall be deposited. If the board of 133595
township trustees has adopted a resolution under division (C) of 133596
section 5709.73 of the Revised Code, the township shall establish 133597
at least one account in that fund with respect to resolutions 133598
adopted under division (B) of that section, and one account with 133599
respect to each incentive district created by a resolution adopted 133600
under division (C) of that section. If a resolution adopted under 133601
division (C) of section 5709.73 of the Revised Code also 133602
authorizes the use of service payments for housing renovations 133603
within the incentive district, the township shall establish 133604
separate accounts for the service payments designated for public 133605
infrastructure improvements and for the service payments 133606
authorized for the purpose of housing renovations.133607

       (B) Except as otherwise provided in division (C) or (D) of 133608
this section, money deposited in an account of the township public 133609
improvement tax increment equivalent fund shall be used by the 133610
township to pay the costs of public infrastructure improvements 133611
designated in or the housing renovations authorized by the 133612
resolution with respect to which the account is established, 133613
including any interest on and principal of the notes; in the case 133614
of an account established with respect to a resolution adopted 133615
under division (C) of that section, money in the account shall be 133616
used to finance the public infrastructure improvements designated, 133617
or the housing renovations authorized, for each incentive district 133618
created in the resolution. Money in an account shall not be used 133619
to finance or support housing renovations that take place after 133620
the incentive district has expired.133621

       (C)(1)(a) A township may distribute money in such an account 133622
to any school district in which the exempt property is located in 133623
an amount not to exceed the amount of real property taxes that 133624
such school district would have received from the improvement if 133625
it were not exempt from taxation. The resolution establishing the 133626
fund shall set forth the percentage of such maximum amount that 133627
will be distributed to any affected school district.133628

       (b) A township also may distribute money in such an account 133629
as follows:133630

       (i) To a board of county commissioners, in the amount that is 133631
owed to the board pursuant to division (E) of section 5709.73 of 133632
the Revised Code;133633

       (ii) To a county in accordance with section 5709.913 of the 133634
Revised Code.133635

       (2) Money from an account in a township public improvement 133636
tax increment equivalent fund may be distributed under division 133637
(C)(1)(b) of this section, regardless of the date a resolution was 133638
adopted under section 5709.73 of the Revised Code that prompted 133639
the establishment of the account, even if the resolution was 133640
adopted prior to March 30, 2006.133641

       (D) A board of township trustees that adopted a resolution 133642
under division (B) of section 5709.73 of the Revised Code before 133643
January 1, 1995, and that, with respect to property exempted under 133644
such a resolution, is party to a hold-harmless or service133645
agreement, may appropriate and expend unencumbered money in the 133646
fund to pay current public safety expenses of the township. A 133647
township appropriating and expending money under this division 133648
shall reimburse the fund for the sum so appropriated and expended 133649
not later than the day the exemption granted under the resolution 133650
expires. For the purposes of this division, a "hold-harmless 133651
agreement" is an agreement with the board of education of a city, 133652
local, or exempted village school district under which the board 133653
of township trustees agrees to compensate the school district for 133654
one hundred per cent of the tax revenue the school district would 133655
have received from improvements to parcels designated in the 133656
resolution were it not for the exemption granted by the 133657
resolution.133658

       (E) Any incidental surplusunencumbered money remaining in 133659
the township public improvement tax increment equivalent fund or 133660
an account of that fund upon dissolution of the account or fund 133661
shall be transferred to the general fund of the township.133662

       Sec. 5723.01.  (A)(1) Every tract of land and town lot, 133663
which, pursuant to foreclosure proceedings under section 323.25, 133664
sections 323.65 to 323.79, or section 5721.18 of the Revised Code, 133665
has been advertised and offered for sale on two separate 133666
occasions, not less than two weeks apart, and not sold for want of 133667
bidders, shall be forfeited to the state or to a political 133668
subdivision, school district, or county land reutilization 133669
corporation pursuant to division (A)(3) of this section.133670

       (2) The county prosecuting attorney shall certify to the 133671
court that such tract of land or town lot has been twice offered 133672
for sale and not sold for want of a bidder. Such forfeiture of 133673
lands and town lots shall be effective when the court by entry 133674
orders such lands and town lots forfeited to the state or to a 133675
political subdivision, school district, or county land 133676
reutilization corporation pursuant to division (A)(3) of this 133677
section. A copy of such entry shall be certified to the county 133678
auditor and, after the date of the certification, all the right, 133679
title, claim, and interest of the former owner is transferred to 133680
and vested in the state to be disposed of in compliance with this 133681
chapter.133682

       (3) After having been notified pursuant to division (A)(2) of 133683
this section that the tract of land or town lot has been twice 133684
offered for sale and not sold for want of bidders, the court shall 133685
notify the political subdivision and school district in which the 133686
property is located, and any county land reutilization corporation 133687
in the county, and offer to forfeit the property to the political 133688
subdivision, school district, or corporation, or to an electing 133689
subdivision as defined in section 5722.01 of the Revised Code, 133690
upon a petition from the political subdivision, school district, 133691
or corporation. If no such petition is filed with the court within 133692
ten days after notification by the court, the court shall forfeit 133693
the property to the state. If a political subdivision, school 133694
district, or corporation requests through a petition to receive 133695
the property through forfeiture, the forfeiture of land and town 133696
lots is effective when, by entry, the court orders such lands and 133697
town lots forfeited to the political subdivision, school district, 133698
or corporation. The court shall certify a copy of the entry to the 133699
county auditor and, after the date of certification, all the 133700
right, title, claim, and interest of the former owner is 133701
transferred to and vested in the political subdivision, school 133702
district, or corporation free and clear of all taxes, assessments, 133703
charges, penalties, interest, and costs. Any subordinate liens 133704
shall be deemed fully and forever satisfied and discharged.133705

       (B) Every parcel against which a judgment of foreclosure and 133706
forfeiture is made in accordance with section 5721.16 of the 133707
Revised Code is forfeited to the state on the date the court 133708
enters a finding under that section. After that date, all the 133709
right, title, claim, and interest of the former owner is 133710
transferred to the state to be disposed of in compliance with the 133711
relevant provisions of this chapter.133712

       Sec. 5725.18.  (A) An annual franchise tax on the privilege 133713
of being an insurance company is hereby levied on each domestic 133714
insurance company. In the month of May, annually, the treasurer of 133715
state shall charge for collection from each domestic insurance 133716
company a franchise tax in the amount computed in accordance with 133717
the following, as applicable:133718

       (1) With respect to a domestic insurance company that is a 133719
health insuring corporation, one per cent of all premium rate 133720
payments received, exclusive of payments received under the 133721
medicare program established under Title XVIII of the "Social 133722
Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended,133723
and exclusive of payments received pursuant to the medical 133724
assistancemedicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of the 133725
Revised Code for the period ending September 30, 2009, as 133726
reflected in its annual report for the preceding calendar year;133727

       (2) With respect to a domestic insurance company that is not 133728
a health insuring corporation, one and four-tenths per cent of the 133729
gross amount of premiums received from policies covering risks 133730
within this state, exclusive of premiums received under the 133731
medicare program established under Title XVIII of the "Social 133732
Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended,133733
and exclusive of payments received pursuant to the medical 133734
assistancemedicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of the 133735
Revised Code for the period ending September 30, 2009, as 133736
reflected in its annual statement for the preceding calendar year, 133737
and, if the company operates a health insuring corporation as a 133738
line of business, one per cent of all premium rate payments 133739
received from that line of business, exclusive of payments 133740
received under the medicare program established under Title XVIII 133741
of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 133742
301, as amended, and exclusive of payments received pursuant to 133743
the medical assistancemedicaid program established under Chapter 133744
5111. of the Revised Code for the period ending September 30, 133745
2009, as reflected in its annual statement for the preceding 133746
calendar year.133747

       Domestic insurance companies, including health insuring 133748
corporations, receiving payments pursuant to the medical 133749
assistancemedicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of the 133750
Revised Code during the period beginning October 1, 2009, and 133751
ending December 31, 2009, shall file with the 2009 annual 133752
statement to the superintendent a schedule that reflects those 133753
payments received pursuant to the medical assistancemedicaid133754
program for that period. The payments reflected in the schedule, 133755
plus all other taxable premiums, are subject to the annual 133756
franchise tax due to be paid in 2010.133757

       (B) The gross amount of premium rate payments or premiums 133758
used to compute the applicable tax in accordance with division (A) 133759
of this section is subject to the deductions prescribed by section 133760
5729.03 of the Revised Code for foreign insurance companies. The 133761
objects of such tax are those declared in section 5725.24 of the 133762
Revised Code, to which only such tax shall be applied.133763

       (C) In no case shall such tax be less than two hundred fifty 133764
dollars.133765

       Sec. 5725.33.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in this 133766
section, terms used in this section have the same meaning as 133767
section 45D of the Internal Revenue Code, any related proposed, 133768
temporary or final regulations promulgated under the Internal 133769
Revenue Code, any rules or guidance of the internal revenue 133770
service or the United States department of the treasury, and any 133771
related rules or guidance issued by the community development 133772
financial institutions fund of the United States department of the 133773
treasury, as such law, regulations, rules, and guidance exist on 133774
October 16, 2009.133775

       As used in this section:133776

       (1) "Adjusted purchase price" means the amount paid for 133777
qualified equity investments multiplied by the qualified 133778
low-income community investments made by the issuer in projects 133779
located in this state as a percentage of the total amount of 133780
qualified low-income community investments made by the issuer in 133781
projects located in all states on the credit allowance date during 133782
the applicable tax year, subject to divisions (B)(1) and (2) of 133783
this section.133784

       (2) "Applicable percentage" means zero per cent for each of 133785
the first two credit allowance dates, seven per cent for the third 133786
credit allowance date, and eight per cent for the four following 133787
credit allowance dates.133788

       (3) "Credit allowance date" means the date, on or after 133789
January 1, 2010, a qualified equity investment is made and each of 133790
the six anniversary dates thereafter. For qualified equity 133791
investments made after October 16, 2009, but before January 1, 133792
2010, the initial credit allowance date is January 1, 2010, and 133793
each of the six anniversary dates thereafter is on the first day 133794
of January of each year.133795

       (4) "Qualified active low-income community business" excludes 133796
any business that derives or projects to derive fifteen per cent 133797
or more of annual revenue from the rental or sale of real 133798
property, except any business that is a special purpose entity 133799
principally owned by a principal user of that property formed 133800
solely for the purpose of renting, either directly or indirectly, 133801
or selling real property back to such principal user if such 133802
principal user does not derive fifteen per cent or more of its 133803
gross annual revenue from the rental or sale of real property.133804

       (5) "Qualified community development entity" includes only 133805
entities:133806

       (a) Thatthat have entered into an allocation agreement with 133807
the community development financial institutions fund of the 133808
United States department of the treasury with respect to credits 133809
authorized by section 45D of the Internal Revenue Code;133810

       (b) Whoseand whose service area includes any portion of this 133811
state; and133812

       (c) That will designate an equity investment in such entities 133813
as a qualified equity investment for purposes of both section 45D 133814
of the Internal Revenue Code and this section.133815

       (6)(5) "Qualified equity investment" is limited to an equity 133816
investment in a qualified community development entity that:133817

       (a) Is acquired after October 16, 2009, at its original 133818
issuance solely in exchange for cash;133819

       (b) Has at least eighty-five per cent of its cash purchase 133820
price used by the qualified community development entity to make 133821
qualified low-income community investments, provided that in the 133822
seventh year after a qualified equity investment is made, only 133823
seventy-five per cent of such cash purchase price must be used by 133824
the qualified community development entity to make qualified 133825
low-income community investments; and133826

       (c) Is designated by the issuer as a qualified equity 133827
investment.133828

       "Qualified equity investment" includes any equity investment 133829
that would, but for division (A)(6)(5)(a) of this section, be a 133830
qualified equity investment in the hands of the taxpayer if such 133831
investment was a qualified equity investment in the hands of a 133832
prior holder.133833

       (B) There is hereby allowed a nonrefundable credit against 133834
the tax imposed by section 5725.18 of the Revised Code for an 133835
insurance company holding a qualified equity investment on the 133836
credit allowance date occurring in the calendar year for which the 133837
tax is due. The credit shall equal the applicable percentage of 133838
the adjusted purchase price of qualified low-income community 133839
investments, subject to divisions (B)(1) and (2) of this section:133840

       (1) For the purpose of calculating the amount of qualified 133841
low-income community investments held by a qualified community 133842
development entity, an investment shall be considered held by a 133843
qualified community development entity even if the investment has 133844
been sold or repaid, provided that, at any time before the seventh 133845
anniversary of the issuance of the qualified equity investment, 133846
the qualified community development entity reinvests an amount 133847
equal to the capital returned to or received or recovered by the 133848
qualified community development entity from the original 133849
investment, exclusive of any profits realized and costs incurred 133850
in the sale or repayment, in another qualified low-income 133851
community investment within twelve months of the receipt of such 133852
capital. If the qualified low-income community investment is sold 133853
or repaid after the sixth anniversary of the issuance of the 133854
qualified equity investment, the qualified low-income community 133855
investment shall be considered held by the qualified community 133856
development entity through the seventh anniversary of the 133857
qualified equity investment's issuance.133858

       (2) The qualified low-income community investment made in 133859
this state shall equal the sum of the qualified low-income 133860
community investments in each qualified active low-income 133861
community business in this state, not to exceed two million five 133862
hundred sixty-four thousand dollars, in which the qualified 133863
community development entity invests, including such investments 133864
in any such businesses in this state related to that qualified 133865
active low-income community business through majority ownership or 133866
control.133867

       The credit shall be claimed in the order prescribed by 133868
section 5725.98 of the Revised Code. If the amount of the credit 133869
exceeds the amount of tax otherwise due after deducting all other 133870
credits in that order, the excess may be carried forward and 133871
applied to the tax due for not more than four ensuing years. 133872

       By claiming a tax credit under this section, an insurance 133873
company waives its rights under section 5725.222 of the Revised 133874
Code with respect to the time limitation for the assessment of 133875
taxes as it relates to credits claimed that later become subject 133876
to recapture under division (E) of this section.133877

       (C) The amount of qualified equity investments on the basis 133878
of which credits may be claimed under this section and sections 133879
5726.54, 5729.16, and 5733.58 of the Revised Code shall not exceed 133880
the amount, estimated by the director of development, that would 133881
cause the total amount of credits allowed each fiscal year to 133882
exceed ten million dollars, computed without regard to the 133883
potential for taxpayers to carry tax credits forward to later 133884
years.133885

       (D) If any amount of thea federal tax credit allowed for a 133886
qualified equity investment for which a credit was received under 133887
this section is recaptured under section 45D of the Internal 133888
Revenue Code, or if the director of development services 133889
determines that an investment for which a tax credit is claimed 133890
under this section is not a qualified equity investment or that 133891
the proceeds of an investment for which a tax credit is claimed 133892
under this section are used to make qualified low-income community 133893
investments other than in a qualified active low-income community 133894
business, all or a portion of the credit received on account of 133895
that investment shall be paid by the insurance company that 133896
received the credit to the superintendent of insurance. The amount 133897
to be recovered shall be determined by the director of development 133898
services pursuant to rules adopted under division (E) of this 133899
section. The director shall certify any amount due under this 133900
division to the superintendent of insurance, and the 133901
superintendent shall notify the treasurer of state of the amount 133902
due. Upon notification, the treasurer shall invoice the insurance 133903
company for the amount due. The amount due is payable not later 133904
than thirty days after the date the treasurer invoices the 133905
insurance company. The amount due shall be considered to be tax 133906
due under section 5725.18 of the Revised Code, and may be 133907
collected by assessment without regard to the time limitations 133908
imposed under section 5725.222 of the Revised Code for the 133909
assessment of taxes by the superintendent. All amounts collected 133910
under this division shall be credited as revenue from the tax 133911
levied under section 5725.18 of the Revised Code.133912

       (E) The tax credits authorized under this section and 133913
sections 5726.54, 5729.16, and 5733.58 of the Revised Code shall 133914
be administered by the department of development services agency. 133915
The director of development services, in consultation with the tax 133916
commissioner and the superintendent of insurance, pursuant to 133917
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt rules for the 133918
administration of this section and sections 5726.54, 5729.16, and 133919
5733.58 of the Revised Code. The rules shall provide for 133920
determining the recovery of credits under division (D) of this 133921
section and under sections 5726.54, 5729.16, and 5733.58 of the 133922
Revised Code, including prorating the amount of the credit to be 133923
recovered on any reasonable basis, the manner in which credits may 133924
be allocated among claimants, and the amount of any application or 133925
other fees to be charged in connection with a recovery.133926

       (F) There is hereby created in the state treasury the new 133927
markets tax credit operating fund. The director of development 133928
services is authorized to charge reasonable application and other 133929
fees in connection with the administration of tax credits 133930
authorized by this section and sections 5726.54, 5729.16, and 133931
5733.58 of the Revised Code. Any such fees collected shall be 133932
credited to the fund. The director of development services shall 133933
use money in the fund to pay expenses related to the 133934
administration of tax credits authorized under sections 5725.33, 133935
5726.54, 5729.16, and 5733.58 of the Revised Code.133936

       Sec. 5725.34.  (A) As used in this section, "certificate 133937
owner" has the same meaning as in section 149.311 of the Revised 133938
Code.133939

       (B) There is allowed a credit against the tax imposed by 133940
section 5725.18 of the Revised Code for an insurance company 133941
subject to that tax that is a certificate owner of a 133942
rehabilitation tax credit certificate issued under section 149.311 133943
of the Revised Code. The credit shall equal twenty-five per cent 133944
of the dollar amount indicated on the certificate, but the amount 133945
of the credit allowed for any company for any year shall not 133946
exceed fiveten million dollars. The credit shall be claimed in 133947
the calendar year specified in the certificate and in the order 133948
required under section 5725.98 of the Revised Code. If the credit 133949
exceeds the amount of tax otherwise due in that year, the excess 133950
shall be refunded to the company but, if any amount of the credit 133951
is refunded, the sum of the amount refunded and the amount applied 133952
to reduce the tax otherwise due in that year shall not exceed 133953
three million dollars. The company may carry forward any balance 133954
of the credit in excess of the amount claimed in that year for not 133955
more than five ensuing years, and shall deduct any amount claimed 133956
in any such year from the amount claimed in an ensuing year.133957

       (C) An insurance company claiming a credit under this section 133958
shall retain the rehabilitation tax credit certificate for four 133959
years following the end of the year in which the credit was 133960
claimed, and shall make the certificate available for inspection 133961
by the tax commissioner upon the request of the tax commissioner 133962
during that period.133963

       Sec. 5726.20. (A) The tax commissioner may make an 133964
assessment, based on any information in the commissioner's 133965
possession, against any person that fails to file a return or 133966
report or pay any tax as required by this chapter. The reporting 133967
person for a taxpayer shall file the annual report required under 133968
section 5726.02 of the Revised Code and remit the tax imposed by 133969
this chapter. Each person included in the annual report of the 133970
taxpayer is jointly and severally liable for the tax imposed by 133971
this chapter and any penalties and interest thereon. If the 133972
reporting person fails, for any reason, to file and remit any tax, 133973
the amount due may be collected by assessment against the 133974
reporting person and against any or all other persons required to 133975
be included in the annual report of the taxpayer in the manner 133976
provided by this section. The commissioner shall give the person 133977
assessed written notice of the assessment as provided in section 133978
5703.37 of the Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner 133979
shall provide instructions on the manner in which to petition for 133980
reassessment and request a hearing with respect to the petition.133981

       (B) No assessment shall be made or issued against a person 133982
under this section more than four years after the later of the 133983
final date the report subject to assessment was required to be 133984
filed or the date such report was filed. Such time limit may be 133985
extended if both the person and the commissioner consent in 133986
writing to the extension or if an agreement waiving or extending 133987
the time limit has been entered into pursuant to section 122.171 133988
of the Revised Code. Any such extension shall extend the four-year 133989
time limit prescribed in division (A) of section 5726.30 of the 133990
Revised Code for the same period of time. There shall be no bar or 133991
limit to an assessment against a person that fails to file a 133992
report subject to assessment as required by this chapter, or that 133993
files a fraudulent report.133994

       (C) Unless the person assessed, within sixty days after 133995
service of the notice of assessment, files with the tax 133996
commissioner, either in person or by certified mail, a written 133997
petition for reassessment signed by the person or the person's 133998
authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the assessment 133999
shall become final, and the amount of the assessment is due and 134000
payable from the person assessed to the treasurer of state. A 134001
petition shall indicate the objections of the person assessed, but 134002
additional objections may be raised in writing if received by the 134003
commissioner prior to the date shown on the final determination. 134004
If a petition for reassessment has been properly filed, the 134005
commissioner shall proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised 134006
Code.134007

       (D)(1) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of 134008
the assessment, including any accrued interest, remains unpaid, a 134009
certified copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the 134010
assessment final may be filed in the office of the clerk of the 134011
court of common pleas in the county in which the person resides or 134012
has its principal place of business in this state, or in the 134013
office of the clerk of court of common pleas of Franklin county.134014

       (2) Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 134015
enter judgment for the state against the person assessed in the 134016
amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk 134017
in a loose-leaf book entitled, "special judgments for the 134018
financial institution tax" and shall have the same effect as other 134019
judgments. Execution shall issue upon the judgment at the request 134020
of the tax commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales on 134021
execution shall apply to sales made under the judgment.134022

       (3) The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its 134023
entirety within sixty days after the day the assessment was 134024
issued, the portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall 134025
bear interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 134026
of the Revised Code from the date the tax commissioner issues the 134027
assessment until the date the assessment is paid or until it is 134028
certified to the attorney general for collection under section 134029
131.02 of the Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid 134030
portion of the assessment is certified to the attorney general for 134031
collection, the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear 134032
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 134033
the Revised Code from the date of certification until the date it 134034
is paid in its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner 134035
as the tax and may be collected by the issuance of an assessment 134036
under this section.134037

       (E) If the tax commissioner believes that collection of the 134038
tax imposed by this chapter will be jeopardized unless proceedings 134039
to collect or secure collection of the tax are instituted without 134040
delay, the commissioner may issue a jeopardy assessment against 134041
the person liable for the tax. Immediately upon the issuance of 134042
the jeopardy assessment, the commissioner shall file an entry with 134043
the clerk of the court of common pleas in the manner prescribed by 134044
division (D) of this section. Notice of the jeopardy assessment 134045
shall be served on the person assessed or the person's authorized 134046
agent in the manner provided in section 5703.37 of the Revised 134047
Code within five days of the filing of the entry with the clerk. 134048
The total amount assessed shall be immediately due and payable, 134049
unless the person assessed files a petition for reassessment in 134050
accordance with division (C) of this section and provides security 134051
in a form satisfactory to the commissioner and in an amount 134052
sufficient to satisfy the unpaid balance of the assessment. Full 134053
or partial payment of the assessment shall not prejudice the 134054
commissioner's consideration of the petition for reassessment.134055

       (F) The tax commissioner shall immediately forward to the 134056
treasurer of state all amounts the commissioner receives under 134057
this section. Such amounts shall be considered as revenue arising 134058
from the tax imposed by this chapter.134059

       (G) If the tax commissioner possesses information indicating 134060
that the amount of tax a taxpayer is required to pay under this 134061
chapter exceeds the amount the reporting person for the taxpayer 134062
paid, the tax commissioner may audit a sample of the taxpayer's 134063
gross receipts over a representative period of time to ascertain 134064
the amount of tax due, and may issue an assessment based on the 134065
audit. The tax commissioner shall make a good faith effort to 134066
reach agreement with the taxpayer in selecting a representative 134067
sample. The tax commissioner may apply a sampling method only if 134068
the commissioner has prescribed the method by rule.134069

       (H) If the whereabouts of a person subject to this chapter is 134070
not known to the tax commissioner, the secretary of state is 134071
hereby deemed to be that person's agent for purposes of service of 134072
process or notice of any assessment, action, or proceedings 134073
instituted in this state against the person under this chapter. 134074
Such process or notice shall be served on such person by the 134075
commissioner or by an agent of the commissioner by leaving a true 134076
and attested copy of the process or notice at the office of the 134077
secretary of state at least fifteen days before the return day of 134078
such process or notice, and by sending a copy of the process or 134079
notice to such person by ordinary mail, with an endorsement 134080
thereon of the service upon the secretary of state, addressed to 134081
such person at the person's last known address.134082

       Sec. 5726.52. (A) As used in this section, "certificate 134083
owner" has the same meaning as in section 149.311 of the Revised 134084
Code.134085

       (B) A taxpayer may claim a refundable credit against the tax 134086
imposed by this chapter for each person included in the annual 134087
report of a taxpayer that is a certificate owner of a 134088
rehabilitation tax credit certificate issued under section 149.311 134089
of the Revised Code. The credit shall equal twenty-five per cent 134090
of the dollar amount indicated on each certificate, but shall not 134091
exceed fiveten million dollars for each certificate.134092

       The credit shall be claimed for the calendar year specified 134093
in the certificate and in the order required under section 5726.98 134094
of the Revised Code. If the credit exceeds the amount of tax 134095
otherwise due in that year, the excess shall be refunded to the 134096
taxpayer, provided that, if any amount of the credit is refunded, 134097
the sum of the amount refunded and the amount applied to reduce 134098
the tax otherwise due in that year shall not exceed three million 134099
dollars. The taxpayer may carry forward any balance of the credit 134100
in excess of the amount claimed in that year for not more than 134101
five ensuing years, and shall deduct any amount claimed in any 134102
such year from the amount claimed in an ensuing year. A taxpayer 134103
may claim against the tax imposed by this chapter any unused 134104
portion of the credit authorized under section 5725.151 of the 134105
Revised Code, but only to the extent of the five-year carry 134106
forward period authorized by that section.134107

       (C) A taxpayer claiming a credit under this section shall 134108
retain the rehabilitation tax credit certificate for four years 134109
following the end of the year to which the credit was applied, and 134110
shall make the certificate available for inspection by the tax 134111
commissioner upon the request of the commissioner during that 134112
period.134113

       Sec. 5726.54. (A) Any term used in this section has the same 134114
meaning as in section 5725.33 of the Revised Code.134115

       (B) A taxpayer may claim a nonrefundable credit against the 134116
tax imposed by this chapter for each person included in the annual 134117
report of the taxpayer that holds a qualified equity investment on 134118
a credit allowance date occurring in the calendar year immediately 134119
preceding the tax year for which the tax is due. The credit shall 134120
be computed in the same manner prescribed for the computation of 134121
credits allowed under section 5725.33 of the Revised Code.134122

       By claiming a tax credit under this section, a taxpayer 134123
waives its rights under section 5726.20 of the Revised Code with 134124
respect to the time limitation for the assessment of taxes as it 134125
relates to credits claimed under this section that later become 134126
subject to recapture under division (D) of this section.134127

       A taxpayer may claim against the tax imposed by this chapter 134128
any unused portion of the credits authorized under sections 134129
5725.33 and 5733.58 of the Revised Code, but only to the extent of 134130
the remaining carry forward period authorized by those sections.134131

       The credit shall be claimed in the order prescribed by 134132
section 5726.98 of the Revised Code. If the amount of the credit 134133
exceeds the amount of tax otherwise due after deducting all other 134134
credits preceding the credit in the order prescribed in section 134135
5726.98 of the Revised Code, the excess may be carried forward for 134136
not more than four ensuing tax years.134137

       (C) The total amount of qualified equity investments on the 134138
basis of which credits may be claimed under this section and 134139
sections 5725.33, 5729.16, and 5733.58 of the Revised Code is 134140
subject to the limitation of division (C) of section 5725.33 of 134141
the Revised Code.134142

       (D) If any amount of thea federal tax credit allowed for a 134143
qualified equity investment for which a credit was received under 134144
this section is recaptured under section 45D of the Internal 134145
Revenue Code, or if the director of development services 134146
determines that an investment for which a tax credit is claimed 134147
under this section is not a qualified equity investment or that 134148
the proceeds of an investment for which a tax credit is claimed 134149
under this section are used to make qualified low-income community 134150
investments other than in a qualified active low-income community 134151
business, all or a portion of the credit received on account of 134152
that investment shall be paid by the taxpayer that received the 134153
credit to the tax commissioner. The amount to be recovered shall 134154
be determined by the director pursuant to rules adopted under 134155
section 5725.33 of the Revised Code. The director shall certify 134156
any amount due under this division to the tax commissioner, and 134157
the commissioner shall notify the taxpayer of the amount due. The 134158
amount due is payable not later than thirty days after the day the 134159
commissioner issues the notice. The amount due shall be considered 134160
to be tax due under section 5726.02 of the Revised Code, and may 134161
be collected by assessment without regard to the limitations 134162
imposed under section 5726.20 of the Revised Code for the 134163
assessment of taxes by the commissioner. All amounts collected 134164
under this division shall be credited as revenue from the tax 134165
levied under section 5726.02 of the Revised Code.134166

       Sec. 5727.26.  (A) The tax commissioner may make an 134167
assessment, based on any information in the commissioner's 134168
possession, against any natural gas company or combined company 134169
that fails to file a return or pay any tax, interest, or 134170
additional charge as required by sections 5727.24 to 5727.29 of 134171
the Revised Code. The commissioner shall give the company assessed 134172
written notice of the assessment as provided in section 5703.37 of 134173
the Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner shall provide 134174
instructions on how to petition for reassessment and request a 134175
hearing on the petition. A penalty of up to fifteen per cent may 134176
be added to all amounts assessed under this section. The tax 134177
commissioner may adopt rules providing for the imposition and 134178
remission of the penalty.134179

       (B) Unless the company assessed, within sixty days after 134180
service of the notice of assessment, files with the tax 134181
commissioner, either personally or by certified mail, a written 134182
petition signed by the company's authorized agent having knowledge 134183
of the facts, the assessment becomes final, and the amount of the 134184
assessment is due and payable from the company assessed to the 134185
treasurer of state. The petition shall indicate the objections of 134186
the company assessed, but additional objections may be raised in 134187
writing if received by the commissioner prior to the date shown on 134188
the final determination.134189

       If a petition for reassessment has been properly filed, the 134190
commissioner shall proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised 134191
Code.134192

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 134193
assessment, including accrued interest, remains unpaid, a 134194
certified copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the 134195
assessment final may be filed in the office of the clerk of the 134196
court of common pleas in the county in which the natural gas 134197
company's or combined company's principal place of business is 134198
located, or in the office of the clerk of court of common pleas of 134199
Franklin county.134200

       Immediately on the filing of the entry, the clerk shall enter 134201
judgment for the state against the company assessed in the amount 134202
shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk in a 134203
loose-leaf book entitled, "special judgments for the public 134204
utility excise tax on natural gas and combined companies," and 134205
shall have the same effect as other judgments. Execution shall 134206
issue upon the judgment at the request of the tax commissioner, 134207
and all laws applicable to sales on execution shall apply to sales 134208
made under the judgment.134209

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety134210
within sixty days after the day the assessment was issued, the 134211
portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall bear 134212
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 134213
the Revised Code from the day the tax commissioner issues the 134214
assessment until it is paid or until it is certified to the 134215
attorney general for collection under section 131.02 of the 134216
Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid portion of the 134217
assessment is certified to the attorney general for collection, 134218
the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear interest at 134219
the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised 134220
Code from the date of certification until the date it is paid in 134221
its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner as the tax 134222
and may be collected by the issuance of an assessment under this 134223
section.134224

       (D) If the tax commissioner believes that collection of the 134225
tax will be jeopardized unless proceedings to collect or secure 134226
collection of the tax are instituted without delay, the 134227
commissioner may issue a jeopardy assessment against the company 134228
liable for the tax. Immediately upon the issuance of the jeopardy 134229
assessment, the commissioner shall file an entry with the clerk of 134230
the court of common pleas in the manner prescribed by division (C) 134231
of this section. Notice of the jeopardy assessment shall be served 134232
on the company assessed or the company's authorized agent in the 134233
manner provided in section 5703.37 of the Revised Code within five 134234
days of the filing of the entry with the clerk. The total amount 134235
assessed is immediately due and payable, unless the company 134236
assessed files a petition for reassessment in accordance with 134237
division (B) of this section and provides security in a form 134238
satisfactory to the commissioner and in an amount sufficient to 134239
satisfy the unpaid balance of the assessment. Full or partial 134240
payment of the assessment does not prejudice the commissioner's 134241
consideration of the petition for reassessment.134242

       (E) The tax commissioner shall immediately forward to the 134243
treasurer of state all amounts that the tax commissioner receives 134244
under this section, and such amounts shall be considered revenue 134245
arising from the tax imposed by section 5727.24 of the Revised 134246
Code.134247

       (F) No assessment shall be made or issued against a natural 134248
gas company or combined company for the tax imposed by section 134249
5727.24 of the Revised Code more than four years after the return 134250
date for the period in which the tax was reported, or more than 134251
four years after the return for the period was filed, whichever is 134252
later.134253

       Sec. 5727.75.  (A) For purposes of this section: 134254

       (1) "Qualified energy project" means an energy project 134255
certified by the director of development services pursuant to this 134256
section. 134257

       (2) "Energy project" means a project to provide electric 134258
power through the construction, installation, and use of an energy 134259
facility. 134260

       (3) "Alternative energy zone" means a county declared as such 134261
by the board of county commissioners under division (E)(1)(b) or 134262
(c) of this section. 134263

       (4) "Full-time equivalent employee" means the total number of 134264
employee-hours for which compensation was paid to individuals 134265
employed at a qualified energy project for services performed at 134266
the project during the calendar year divided by two thousand 134267
eighty hours. 134268

       (5) "Solar energy project" means an energy project composed 134269
of an energy facility using solar panels to generate electricity. 134270

       (B)(1) Tangible personal property of a qualified energy 134271
project using renewable energy resources is exempt from taxation 134272
for tax years 2011, 2012, 2013, and 2014through 2019 if all of 134273
the following conditions are satisfied: 134274

       (a) On or before December 31, 20132018, the owner or a 134275
lessee pursuant to a sale and leaseback transaction of the project 134276
submits an application to the power siting board for a certificate 134277
under section 4906.20 of the Revised Code, or if that section does 134278
not apply, submits an application for any approval, consent, 134279
permit, or certificate or satisfies any condition required by a 134280
public agency or political subdivision of this state for the 134281
construction or initial operation of an energy project. 134282

       (b) Construction or installation of the energy facility 134283
begins on or after January 1, 2009, and before January 1, 2014134284
2019. For the purposes of this division, construction begins on 134285
the earlier of the date of application for a certificate or other 134286
approval or permit described in division (B)(1)(a) of this 134287
section, or the date the contract for the construction or 134288
installation of the energy facility is entered into. 134289

       (c) For a qualified energy project with a nameplate capacity 134290
of five megawatts or greater, a board of county commissioners of a 134291
county in which property of the project is located has adopted a 134292
resolution under division (E)(1)(b) or (c) of this section to 134293
approve the application submitted under division (E) of this 134294
section to exempt the property located in that county from 134295
taxation. A board's adoption of a resolution rejecting an 134296
application or its failure to adopt a resolution approving the 134297
application does not affect the tax-exempt status of the qualified 134298
energy project's property that is located in another county. 134299

       (2) If tangible personal property of a qualified energy 134300
project using renewable energy resources was exempt from taxation 134301
under this section beginning in any of tax years 2011, 2012, 2013, 134302
or 2014, 2015, 2016, 2017, 2018, or 2019, and the certification 134303
under division (E)(2) of this section has not been revoked, the 134304
tangible personal property of the qualified energy project is 134305
exempt from taxation for tax year 20152020 and all ensuing tax 134306
years if the property was placed into service before January 1, 134307
20152020, as certified in the construction progress report 134308
required under division (F)(2) of this section. Tangible personal 134309
property that has not been placed into service before that date is 134310
taxable property subject to taxation. An energy project for which 134311
certification has been revoked is ineligible for further exemption 134312
under this section. Revocation does not affect the tax-exempt 134313
status of the project's tangible personal property for the tax 134314
year in which revocation occurs or any prior tax year.134315

       (C) Tangible personal property of a qualified energy project 134316
using clean coal technology, advanced nuclear technology, or 134317
cogeneration technology is exempt from taxation for the first tax 134318
year that the property would be listed for taxation and all 134319
subsequent years if all of the following circumstances are met: 134320

       (1) The property was placed into service before January 1, 134321
20192024. Tangible personal property that has not been placed 134322
into service before that date is taxable property subject to 134323
taxation. 134324

       (2) For such a qualified energy project with a nameplate 134325
capacity of five megawatts or greater, a board of county 134326
commissioners of a county in which property of the qualified 134327
energy project is located has adopted a resolution under division 134328
(E)(1)(b) or (c) of this section to approve the application 134329
submitted under division (E) of this section to exempt the 134330
property located in that county from taxation. A board's adoption 134331
of a resolution rejecting the application or its failure to adopt 134332
a resolution approving the application does not affect the 134333
tax-exempt status of the qualified energy project's property that 134334
is located in another county. 134335

       (3) The certification for the qualified energy project issued 134336
under division (E)(2) of this section has not been revoked. An 134337
energy project for which certification has been revoked is 134338
ineligible for exemption under this section. Revocation does not 134339
affect the tax-exempt status of the project's tangible personal 134340
property for the tax year in which revocation occurs or any prior 134341
tax year. 134342

       (D) Except as otherwise provided in this section, real 134343
property of a qualified energy project is exempt from taxation for 134344
any tax year for which the tangible personal property of the 134345
qualified energy project is exempted under this section. 134346

       (E)(1)(a) A person may apply to the director of development 134347
services for certification of an energy project as a qualified 134348
energy project on or before the following dates: 134349

       (i) December 31, 20132018, for an energy project using 134350
renewable energy resources; 134351

       (ii) December 31, 20152020, for an energy project using 134352
clean coal technology, advanced nuclear technology, or 134353
cogeneration technology. 134354

       (b) The director shall forward a copy of each application for 134355
certification of an energy project with a nameplate capacity of 134356
five megawatts or greater to the board of county commissioners of 134357
each county in which the project is located and to each taxing 134358
unit with territory located in each of the affected counties. Any 134359
board that receives from the director a copy of an application 134360
submitted under this division shall adopt a resolution approving 134361
or rejecting the application unless it has adopted a resolution 134362
under division (E)(1)(c) of this section. A resolution adopted 134363
under division (E)(1)(b) or (c) of this section may require an 134364
annual service payment to be made in addition to the service 134365
payment required under division (G) of this section. The sum of 134366
the service payment required in the resolution and the service 134367
payment required under division (G) of this section shall not 134368
exceed nine thousand dollars per megawatt of nameplate capacity 134369
located in the county. The resolution shall specify the time and 134370
manner in which the payments required by the resolution shall be 134371
paid to the county treasurer. The county treasurer shall deposit 134372
the payment to the credit of the county's general fund to be used 134373
for any purpose for which money credited to that fund may be used.134374

       The board shall send copies of the resolution by certified 134375
mail to the owner of the facility and the director within thirty 134376
days after receipt of the application, or a longer period of time 134377
if authorized by the director. 134378

       (c) A board of county commissioners may adopt a resolution 134379
declaring the county to be an alternative energy zone and 134380
declaring all applications submitted to the director of 134381
development services under this division after the adoption of the 134382
resolution, and prior to its repeal, to be approved by the board. 134383

       All tangible personal property and real property of an energy 134384
project with a nameplate capacity of five megawatts or greater is 134385
taxable if it is located in a county in which the board of county 134386
commissioners adopted a resolution rejecting the application 134387
submitted under this division or failed to adopt a resolution 134388
approving the application under division (E)(1)(b) or (c) of this 134389
section. 134390

       (2) The director shall certify an energy project if all of 134391
the following circumstances exist: 134392

       (a) The application was timely submitted. 134393

       (b) For an energy project with a nameplate capacity of five 134394
megawatts or greater, a board of county commissioners of at least 134395
one county in which the project is located has adopted a 134396
resolution approving the application under division (E)(1)(b) or 134397
(c) of this section. 134398

       (c) No portion of the project's facility was used to supply 134399
electricity before December 31, 2009. 134400

       (3) The director shall deny a certification application if 134401
the director determines the person has failed to comply with any 134402
requirement under this section. The director may revoke a 134403
certification if the director determines the person, or subsequent 134404
owner or lessee pursuant to a sale and leaseback transaction of 134405
the qualified energy project, has failed to comply with any 134406
requirement under this section. Upon certification or revocation, 134407
the director shall notify the person, owner, or lessee, the tax 134408
commissioner, and the county auditor of a county in which the 134409
project is located of the certification or revocation. Notice 134410
shall be provided in a manner convenient to the director. 134411

       (F) The owner or a lessee pursuant to a sale and leaseback 134412
transaction of a qualified energy project shall do each of the 134413
following: 134414

       (1) Comply with all applicable regulations; 134415

       (2) File with the director of development services a 134416
certified construction progress report before the first day of 134417
March of each year during the energy facility's construction or 134418
installation indicating the percentage of the project completed, 134419
and the project's nameplate capacity, as of the preceding 134420
thirty-first day of December. Unless otherwise instructed by the 134421
director of development services, the owner or lessee of an energy 134422
project shall file a report with the director on or before the 134423
first day of March each year after completion of the energy 134424
facility's construction or installation indicating the project's 134425
nameplate capacity as of the preceding thirty-first day of 134426
December. Not later than sixty days after June 17, 2010, the owner 134427
or lessee of an energy project, the construction of which was 134428
completed before June 17, 2010, shall file a certificate 134429
indicating the project's nameplate capacity. 134430

       (3) File with the director of development services, in a 134431
manner prescribed by the director, a report of the total number of 134432
full-time equivalent employees, and the total number of full-time 134433
equivalent employees domiciled in Ohio, who are employed in the 134434
construction or installation of the energy facility; 134435

       (4) For energy projects with a nameplate capacity of five 134436
megawatts or greater, repair all roads, bridges, and culverts 134437
affected by construction as reasonably required to restore them to 134438
their preconstruction condition, as determined by the county 134439
engineer in consultation with the local jurisdiction responsible 134440
for the roads, bridges, and culverts. In the event that the county 134441
engineer deems any road, bridge, or culvert to be inadequate to 134442
support the construction or decommissioning of the energy 134443
facility, the road, bridge, or culvert shall be rebuilt or 134444
reinforced to the specifications established by the county 134445
engineer prior to the construction or decommissioning of the 134446
facility. The owner or lessee of the facility shall post a bond in 134447
an amount established by the county engineer and to be held by the 134448
board of county commissioners to ensure funding for repairs of 134449
roads, bridges, and culverts affected during the construction. The 134450
bond shall be released by the board not later than one year after 134451
the date the repairs are completed. The energy facility owner or 134452
lessee pursuant to a sale and leaseback transaction shall post a 134453
bond, as may be required by the Ohio power siting board in the 134454
certificate authorizing commencement of construction issued 134455
pursuant to section 4906.10 of the Revised Code, to ensure funding 134456
for repairs to roads, bridges, and culverts resulting from 134457
decommissioning of the facility. The energy facility owner or 134458
lessee and the county engineer may enter into an agreement 134459
regarding specific transportation plans, reinforcements, 134460
modifications, use and repair of roads, financial security to be 134461
provided, and any other relevant issue. 134462

       (5) Provide or facilitate training for fire and emergency 134463
responders for response to emergency situations related to the 134464
energy project and, for energy projects with a nameplate capacity 134465
of five megawatts or greater, at the person's expense, equip the 134466
fire and emergency responders with proper equipment as reasonably 134467
required to enable them to respond to such emergency situations; 134468

       (6) Maintain a ratio of Ohio-domiciled full-time equivalent 134469
employees employed in the construction or installation of the 134470
energy project to total full-time equivalent employees employed in 134471
the construction or installation of the energy project of not less 134472
than eighty per cent in the case of a solar energy project, and 134473
not less than fifty per cent in the case of any other energy 134474
project. In the case of an energy project for which certification 134475
from the power siting board is required under section 4906.20 of 134476
the Revised Code, the number of full-time equivalent employees 134477
employed in the construction or installation of the energy project 134478
equals the number actually employed or the number projected to be 134479
employed in the certificate application, if such projection is 134480
required under regulations adopted pursuant to section 4906.03 of 134481
the Revised Code, whichever is greater. For all other energy 134482
projects, the number of full-time equivalent employees employed in 134483
the construction or installation of the energy project equals the 134484
number actually employed or the number projected to be employed by 134485
the director of development services, whichever is greater. To 134486
estimate the number of employees to be employed in the 134487
construction or installation of an energy project, the director 134488
shall use a generally accepted job-estimating model in use for 134489
renewable energy projects, including but not limited to the job 134490
and economic development impact model. The director may adjust an 134491
estimate produced by a model to account for variables not 134492
accounted for by the model. 134493

       (7) For energy projects with a nameplate capacity in excess 134494
of two megawatts, establish a relationship with a member of the 134495
university system of Ohio as defined in section 3345.011 of the 134496
Revised Code or with a person offering an apprenticeship program 134497
registered with the employment and training administration within 134498
the United States department of labor or with the apprenticeship 134499
council created by section 4139.02 of the Revised Code, to educate 134500
and train individuals for careers in the wind or solar energy 134501
industry. The relationship may include endowments, cooperative 134502
programs, internships, apprenticeships, research and development 134503
projects, and curriculum development. 134504

       (8) Offer to sell power or renewable energy credits from the 134505
energy project to electric distribution utilities or electric 134506
service companies subject to renewable energy resource 134507
requirements under section 4928.64 of the Revised Code that have 134508
issued requests for proposal for such power or renewable energy 134509
credits. If no electric distribution utility or electric service 134510
company issues a request for proposal on or before December 31, 134511
2010, or accepts an offer for power or renewable energy credits 134512
within forty-five days after the offer is submitted, power or 134513
renewable energy credits from the energy project may be sold to 134514
other persons. Division (F)(8) of this section does not apply if: 134515

        (a) The owner or lessee is a rural electric company or a 134516
municipal power agency as defined in section 3734.058 of the 134517
Revised Code. 134518

        (b) The owner or lessee is a person that, before completion 134519
of the energy project, contracted for the sale of power or 134520
renewable energy credits with a rural electric company or a 134521
municipal power agency. 134522

        (c) The owner or lessee contracts for the sale of power or 134523
renewable energy credits from the energy project before June 17, 134524
2010. 134525

       (9) Make annual service payments as required by division (G) 134526
of this section and as may be required in a resolution adopted by 134527
a board of county commissioners under division (E) of this 134528
section. 134529

       (G) The owner or a lessee pursuant to a sale and leaseback 134530
transaction of a qualified energy project shall make annual 134531
service payments in lieu of taxes to the county treasurer on or 134532
before the final dates for payments of taxes on public utility 134533
personal property on the real and public utility personal property 134534
tax list for each tax year for which property of the energy 134535
project is exempt from taxation under this section. The county 134536
treasurer shall allocate the payment on the basis of the project's 134537
physical location. Upon receipt of a payment, or if timely payment 134538
has not been received, the county treasurer shall certify such 134539
receipt or non-receipt to the director of development services and 134540
tax commissioner in a form determined by the director and 134541
commissioner, respectively. Each payment shall be in the following 134542
amount: 134543

       (1) In the case of a solar energy project, seven thousand 134544
dollars per megawatt of nameplate capacity located in the county 134545
as of December 31, 2010, for tax year 2011, as of December 31, 134546
2011, for tax year 2012, as of December 31, 2012, for tax year 134547
2013, as of December 31, 2013, for tax year 2014, and as of 134548
December 31, 2014, for tax year 2015, as of December 31, 2015, for 134549
tax year 2016, as of December 31, 2016, for tax year 2017, as of 134550
December 31, 2017, for tax year 2018, as of December 31, 2018, for 134551
tax year 2019, and as of December 31, 2019, for tax year 2020 and 134552
each tax year thereafter; 134553

       (2) In the case of any other energy project using renewable 134554
energy resources, the following: 134555

       (a) If the project maintains during the construction or 134556
installation of the energy facility a ratio of Ohio-domiciled 134557
full-time equivalent employees to total full-time equivalent 134558
employees of not less than seventy-five per cent, six thousand 134559
dollars per megawatt of nameplate capacity located in the county 134560
as of the thirty-first day of December of the preceding tax year; 134561

       (b) If the project maintains during the construction or 134562
installation of the energy facility a ratio of Ohio-domiciled 134563
full-time equivalent employees to total full-time equivalent 134564
employees of less than seventy-five per cent but not less than 134565
sixty per cent, seven thousand dollars per megawatt of nameplate 134566
capacity located in the county as of the thirty-first day of 134567
December of the preceding tax year; 134568

       (c) If the project maintains during the construction or 134569
installation of the energy facility a ratio of Ohio-domiciled 134570
full-time equivalent employees to total full-time equivalent 134571
employees of less than sixty per cent but not less than fifty per 134572
cent, eight thousand dollars per megawatt of nameplate capacity 134573
located in the county as of the thirty-first day of December of 134574
the preceding tax year. 134575

       (3) In the case of an energy project using clean coal 134576
technology, advanced nuclear technology, or cogeneration 134577
technology, the following: 134578

       (a) If the project maintains during the construction or 134579
installation of the energy facility a ratio of Ohio-domiciled 134580
full-time equivalent employees to total full-time equivalent 134581
employees of not less than seventy-five per cent, six thousand 134582
dollars per megawatt of nameplate capacity located in the county 134583
as of the thirty-first day of December of the preceding tax year; 134584

       (b) If the project maintains during the construction or 134585
installation of the energy facility a ratio of Ohio-domiciled 134586
full-time equivalent employees to total full-time equivalent 134587
employees of less than seventy-five per cent but not less than 134588
sixty per cent, seven thousand dollars per megawatt of nameplate 134589
capacity located in the county as of the thirty-first day of 134590
December of the preceding tax year; 134591

       (c) If the project maintains during the construction or 134592
installation of the energy facility a ratio of Ohio-domiciled 134593
full-time equivalent employees to total full-time equivalent 134594
employees of less than sixty per cent but not less than fifty per 134595
cent, eight thousand dollars per megawatt of nameplate capacity 134596
located in the county as of the thirty-first day of December of 134597
the preceding tax year. 134598

       (H) The director of development services in consultation with 134599
the tax commissioner shall adopt rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of 134600
the Revised Code to implement and enforce this section.134601

       Sec. 5727.84.  (A) As used in this section and sections 134602
5727.85, 5727.86, and 5727.87 of the Revised Code:134603

       (1) "School district" means a city, local, or exempted 134604
village school district.134605

       (2) "Joint vocational school district" means a joint 134606
vocational school district created under section 3311.16 of the 134607
Revised Code, and includes a cooperative education school district 134608
created under section 3311.52 or 3311.521 of the Revised Code and 134609
a county school financing district created under section 3311.50 134610
of the Revised Code.134611

       (3) "Local taxing unit" means a subdivision or taxing unit, 134612
as defined in section 5705.01 of the Revised Code, a park district 134613
created under Chapter 1545. of the Revised Code, or a township 134614
park district established under section 511.23 of the Revised 134615
Code, but excludes school districts and joint vocational school 134616
districts.134617

       (4) "State education aid," for a school district, means the 134618
following:134619

       (a) For fiscal years prior to fiscal year 2010, the sum of 134620
state aid amounts computed for the district under former sections 134621
3317.029, 3317.052, and 3317.053 of the Revised Code and the 134622
following provisions, as they existed for the applicable fiscal 134623
year: divisions (A), (C)(1), (C)(4), (D), (E), and (F) of section 134624
3317.022; divisions (B), (C), and (D) of section 3317.023; 134625
divisions (G), (L), and (N) of section 3317.024; and sections 134626
3317.029, 3317.0216, 3317.0217, 3317.04, and 3317.05, 3317.052, 134627
and 3317.053 of the Revised Code; and the adjustments required by: 134628
division (C) of section 3310.08; division (C)(2) of section 134629
3310.41; division (C) of section 3314.08; division (D)(2) of 134630
section 3314.091; division (D) of former section 3314.13; 134631
divisions (E), (K), (L), (M), and (N) of section 3317.023; 134632
division (C) of section 3317.20; and sections 3313.979 and 134633
3313.981 of the Revised Code. However, when calculating state 134634
education aid for a school district for fiscal years 2008 and 134635
2009, include the amount computed for the district under Section 134636
269.20.80 of H.B. 119 of the 127th general assembly, as 134637
subsequently amended, instead of division (D) of section 3317.022 134638
of the Revised Code; and include amounts calculated under Section 134639
269.30.80 of H.B. 119 of the 127th general assembly, as 134640
subsequently amended.134641

       (b) For fiscal years 2010 and 2011, the sum of the amounts 134642
computed for the district under former sections 3306.052, 3306.12, 134643
3306.13, 3306.19, 3306.191, and 3306.192, 3317.052, and 3317.053134644
of the Revised Code and the following provisions, as they existed 134645
for the applicable fiscal year: division (G) of section 3317.024; 134646
sectionssection 3317.05, 3317.052, and 3317.053 of the Revised 134647
Code; and the adjustments required by division (C) of section 134648
3310.08; division (C)(2) of section 3310.41; division (C) of 134649
section 3314.08; division (D)(2) of section 3314.091; division (D) 134650
of former section 3314.13; divisions (E), (K), (L), (M), and (N) 134651
of section 3317.023; division (C) of section 3317.20; and sections 134652
3313.979, 3313.981, and 3326.33 of the Revised Code.134653

       (c) For fiscal years 2012 and 2013, the amount paid in 134654
accordance with the section of H.B. 153 of the 129th general 134655
assembly entitled "FUNDING FOR CITY, EXEMPTED VILLAGE, AND LOCAL 134656
SCHOOL DISTRICTS" and the adjustments required by division (C) of 134657
section 3310.08; division (C)(2) of section 3310.41; section 134658
3310.55; division (C) of section 3314.08; division (D)(2) of 134659
section 3314.091; division (D) of former section 3314.13; 134660
divisions (B), (H), (I), (J), and (K) of section 3317.023; 134661
division (C) of section 3317.20; and sections 3313.979 and 134662
3313.981 of the Revised Code;134663

       (d) For fiscal year 2014 and each fiscal year thereafter, the 134664
sum of amounts computed for and paid to the district under section 134665
3317.022 of the Revised Code; and the adjustments required by 134666
division (C) of section 3310.08, division (C)(2) of section 134667
3310.41, section 3310.55, division (C) of section 3314.08, 134668
division (D)(2) of section 3314.091, divisions (B), (H), (J), and 134669
(K) of section 3317.023, and sections 3313.978, 3313.981, 134670
3317.0212, 3317.0213, 3317.0214, and 3326.33 of the Revised Code. 134671
However, for fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the amount computed for 134672
the district under the section of this act entitled "TRANSITIONAL 134673
AID FOR CITY, LOCAL, AND EXEMPTED VILLAGE SCHOOL DISTRICTS" also 134674
shall be included.134675

       (5) "State education aid," for a joint vocational school 134676
district, means the following:134677

       (a) For fiscal years prior to fiscal year 2010, the sum of 134678
the state aid amounts computed for the district under division (N) 134679
of section 3317.024 and section 3317.16 of the Revised Code. 134680
However, when calculating state education aid for a joint 134681
vocational school district for fiscal years 2008 and 2009, include 134682
the amount computed for the district under Section 269.30.90 of 134683
H.B. 119 of the 127th general assembly, as subsequently amended.134684

       (b) For fiscal years 2010 and 2011, the amount computed for 134685
the district in accordance with the section of H.B. 1 of the 128th 134686
general assembly entitled "FUNDING FOR JOINT VOCATIONAL SCHOOL 134687
DISTRICTS"."134688

       (c) For fiscal years 2012 and 2013, the amount paid in 134689
accordance with the section of H.B. 153 of the 129th general 134690
assembly entitled "FUNDING FOR JOINT VOCATIONAL SCHOOL DISTRICTS."134691

       (d) For fiscal year 2014 and each fiscal year thereafter, the 134692
amount computed for the district under section 3317.16 of the 134693
Revised Code; except that, for fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the 134694
amount computed for the district under the section of this act 134695
entitled "TRANSITIONAL AID FOR JOINT VOCATIONAL SCHOOL DISTRICTS" 134696
shall be included.134697

        (6) "State education aid offset" means the amount determined 134698
for each school district or joint vocational school district under 134699
division (A)(1) of section 5727.85 of the Revised Code.134700

       (7) "Recognized valuation" has the same meaning as inmeans 134701
the amount computed for a school district pursuant to section 134702
3317.023317.015 of the Revised Code.134703

       (8) "Electric company tax value loss" means the amount 134704
determined under division (D) of this section.134705

       (9) "Natural gas company tax value loss" means the amount 134706
determined under division (E) of this section.134707

       (10) "Tax value loss" means the sum of the electric company 134708
tax value loss and the natural gas company tax value loss.134709

       (11) "Fixed-rate levy" means any tax levied on property other 134710
than a fixed-sum levy.134711

       (12) "Fixed-rate levy loss" means the amount determined under 134712
division (G) of this section.134713

       (13) "Fixed-sum levy" means a tax levied on property at 134714
whatever rate is required to produce a specified amount of tax 134715
money or levied in excess of the ten-mill limitation to pay debt 134716
charges, and includes school district emergency levies charged and 134717
payable pursuant to section 5705.194 of the Revised Code.134718

       (14) "Fixed-sum levy loss" means the amount determined under 134719
division (H) of this section.134720

       (15) "Consumer price index" means the consumer price index 134721
(all items, all urban consumers) prepared by the bureau of labor 134722
statistics of the United States department of labor.134723

       (16) "Total resources" and "total library resources" have the 134724
same meanings as in section 5751.20 of the Revised Code.134725

       (17) "2011 current expense S.B. 3 allocation" means the sum 134726
of payments received by a school district or joint vocational 134727
school district in fiscal year 2011 for current expense levy 134728
losses pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 5727.85 of the 134729
Revised Code. If a fixed-rate levy eligible for reimbursement is 134730
not charged and payable in any year after tax year 2010, "2011 134731
current expense S.B. 3 allocation" used to compute payments to be 134732
made under division (C)(3) of section 5727.85 of the Revised Code 134733
in the tax years following the last year the levy is charged and 134734
payable shall be reduced to the extent that those payments are 134735
attributable to the fixed-rate levy loss of that levy.134736

       (18) "2010 current expense S.B. 3 allocation" means the sum 134737
of payments received by a municipal corporation in calendar year 134738
2010 for current expense levy losses pursuant to division (A)(1) 134739
of section 5727.86 of the Revised Code, excluding any such 134740
payments received for current expense levy losses attributable to 134741
a tax levied under section 5705.23 of the Revised Code. If a 134742
fixed-rate levy eligible for reimbursement is not charged and 134743
payable in any year after tax year 2010, "2010 current expense 134744
S.B. 3 allocation" used to compute payments to be made under 134745
division (A)(1)(d) or (e) of section 5727.86 of the Revised Code 134746
in the tax years following the last year the levy is charged and 134747
payable shall be reduced to the extent that those payments are 134748
attributable to the fixed-rate levy loss of that levy.134749

       (19) "2010 S.B. 3 allocation" means the sum of payments 134750
received by a local taxing unit during calendar year 2010 pursuant 134751
to division (A)(1) of section 5727.86 of the Revised Code, 134752
excluding any such payments received for fixed-rate levy losses 134753
attributable to a tax levied under section 5705.23 of the Revised 134754
Code. If a fixed-rate levy eligible for reimbursement is not 134755
charged and payable in any year after tax year 2010, "2010 S.B. 3 134756
allocation" used to compute payments to be made under division 134757
(A)(1)(d) or (e) of section 5727.86 of the Revised Code in the tax 134758
years following the last year the levy is charged and payable 134759
shall be reduced to the extent that those payments are 134760
attributable to the fixed-rate levy loss of that levy.134761

       (20) "Total S.B. 3 allocation" means, in the case of a school 134762
district or joint vocational school district, the sum of the 134763
payments received in fiscal year 2011 pursuant to divisions (C)(2) 134764
and (D) of section 5727.85 of the Revised Code. In the case of a 134765
local taxing unit, "total S.B. 3 allocation" means the sum of 134766
payments received by the unit in calendar year 2010 pursuant to 134767
divisions (A)(1) and (4) of section 5727.86 of the Revised Code, 134768
excluding any such payments received for fixed-rate levy losses 134769
attributable to a tax levied under section 5705.23 of the Revised 134770
Code. If a fixed-rate levy eligible for reimbursement is not 134771
charged and payable in any year after tax year 2010, "total S.B. 3 134772
allocation" used to compute payments to be made under division 134773
(C)(3) of section 5727.85 or division (A)(1)(d) or (e) of section 134774
5727.86 of the Revised Code in the tax years following the last 134775
year the levy is charged and payable shall be reduced to the 134776
extent that those payments are attributable to the fixed-rate levy 134777
loss of that levy as would be computed under division (C)(2) of 134778
section 5727.85 or division (A)(1)(b) of section 5727.86 of the 134779
Revised Code.134780

       (21) "2011 non-current expense S.B. 3 allocation" means the 134781
difference of a school district's or joint vocational school 134782
district's total S.B. 3 allocation minus the sum of the school 134783
district's 2011 current expense S.B. 3 allocation and the portion 134784
of the school district's total S.B. 3 allocation constituting 134785
reimbursement for debt levies pursuant to division (D) of section 134786
5727.85 of the Revised Code.134787

       (22) "2010 non-current expense S.B. 3 allocation" means the 134788
difference of a municipal corporation's total S.B. 3 allocation 134789
minus the sum of its 2010 current expense S.B. 3 allocation and 134790
the portion of its total S.B. 3 allocation constituting 134791
reimbursement for debt levies pursuant to division (A)(4) of 134792
section 5727.86 of the Revised Code. 134793

       (23) "S.B. 3 allocation for library purposes" means, in the 134794
case of a county, municipal corporation, school district, or 134795
township public library that receives the proceeds of a tax levied 134796
under section 5705.23 of the Revised Code, the sum of the payments 134797
received by the public library in calendar year 2010 pursuant to 134798
section 5727.86 of the Revised Code for fixed-rate levy losses 134799
attributable to a tax levied under section 5705.23 of the Revised 134800
Code. If a fixed-rate levy authorized under section 5705.23 of the 134801
Revised Code that is eligible for reimbursement is not charged and 134802
payable in any year after tax year 2010, "S.B. 3 allocation for 134803
library purposes" used to compute payments to be made under 134804
division (A)(1)(f) of section 5727.86 of the Revised Code in the 134805
tax years following the last year the levy is charged and payable 134806
shall be reduced to the extent that those payments are 134807
attributable to the fixed-rate levy loss of that levy as would be 134808
computed under division (A)(1)(b) of section 5727.86 of the 134809
Revised Code.134810

        (24) "Threshold per cent" means, in the case of a school 134811
district or joint vocational school district, two per cent for 134812
fiscal year 2012 and four per cent for fiscal years 2013 and 134813
thereafter. In the case of a local taxing unit or public library 134814
that receives the proceeds of a tax levied under section 5705.23 134815
of the Revised Code, "threshold per cent" means two per cent for 134816
calendar year 2011, four per cent for calendar year 2012, and six 134817
per cent for calendar years 2013 and thereafter.134818

       (B) The kilowatt-hour tax receipts fund is hereby created in 134819
the state treasury and shall consist of money arising from the tax 134820
imposed by section 5727.81 of the Revised Code. All money in the 134821
kilowatt-hour tax receipts fund shall be credited as follows:134822

Fiscal Year General Revenue Fund School District Property Tax Replacement Fund Local Government Property Tax Replacement Fund 134823
2001-2011 63.0% 25.4% 11.6% 134824
2012 and thereafter 88.0% 9.0% 3.0% 134825

       (C) The natural gas tax receipts fund is hereby created in 134826
the state treasury and shall consist of money arising from the tax 134827
imposed by section 5727.811 of the Revised Code. All money in the 134828
fund shall be credited as follows:134829

       (1) For fiscal years before fiscal year 2012:134830

       (a) Sixty-eight and seven-tenths per cent shall be credited 134831
to the school district property tax replacement fund for the 134832
purpose of making the payments described in section 5727.85 of the 134833
Revised Code.134834

       (b) Thirty-one and three-tenths per cent shall be credited to 134835
the local government property tax replacement fund for the purpose 134836
of making the payments described in section 5727.86 of the Revised 134837
Code.134838

       (2) For fiscal years 2012 and thereafter, one hundred per 134839
cent to the general revenue fund.134840

       (D) Not later than January 1, 2002, the tax commissioner 134841
shall determine for each taxing district its electric company tax 134842
value loss, which is the sum of the applicable amounts described 134843
in divisions (D)(1) to (4) of this section:134844

       (1) The difference obtained by subtracting the amount 134845
described in division (D)(1)(b) from the amount described in 134846
division (D)(1)(a) of this section.134847

       (a) The value of electric company and rural electric company 134848
tangible personal property as assessed by the tax commissioner for 134849
tax year 1998 on a preliminary assessment, or an amended 134850
preliminary assessment if issued prior to March 1, 1999, and as 134851
apportioned to the taxing district for tax year 1998;134852

       (b) The value of electric company and rural electric company 134853
tangible personal property as assessed by the tax commissioner for 134854
tax year 1998 had the property been apportioned to the taxing 134855
district for tax year 2001, and assessed at the rates in effect 134856
for tax year 2001.134857

       (2) The difference obtained by subtracting the amount 134858
described in division (D)(2)(b) from the amount described in 134859
division (D)(2)(a) of this section.134860

       (a) The three-year average for tax years 1996, 1997, and 1998 134861
of the assessed value from nuclear fuel materials and assemblies 134862
assessed against a person under Chapter 5711. of the Revised Code 134863
from the leasing of them to an electric company for those 134864
respective tax years, as reflected in the preliminary assessments;134865

       (b) The three-year average assessed value from nuclear fuel 134866
materials and assemblies assessed under division (D)(2)(a) of this 134867
section for tax years 1996, 1997, and 1998, as reflected in the 134868
preliminary assessments, using an assessment rate of twenty-five 134869
per cent.134870

       (3) In the case of a taxing district having a nuclear power 134871
plant within its territory, any amount, resulting in an electric 134872
company tax value loss, obtained by subtracting the amount 134873
described in division (D)(1) of this section from the difference 134874
obtained by subtracting the amount described in division (D)(3)(b) 134875
of this section from the amount described in division (D)(3)(a) of 134876
this section.134877

        (a) The value of electric company tangible personal property 134878
as assessed by the tax commissioner for tax year 2000 on a 134879
preliminary assessment, or an amended preliminary assessment if 134880
issued prior to March 1, 2001, and as apportioned to the taxing 134881
district for tax year 2000;134882

        (b) The value of electric company tangible personal property 134883
as assessed by the tax commissioner for tax year 2001 on a 134884
preliminary assessment, or an amended preliminary assessment if 134885
issued prior to March 1, 2002, and as apportioned to the taxing 134886
district for tax year 2001.134887

       (4) In the case of a taxing district having a nuclear power 134888
plant within its territory, the difference obtained by subtracting 134889
the amount described in division (D)(4)(b) of this section from 134890
the amount described in division (D)(4)(a) of this section, 134891
provided that such difference is greater than ten per cent of the 134892
amount described in division (D)(4)(a) of this section.134893

        (a) The value of electric company tangible personal property 134894
as assessed by the tax commissioner for tax year 2005 on a 134895
preliminary assessment, or an amended preliminary assessment if 134896
issued prior to March 1, 2006, and as apportioned to the taxing 134897
district for tax year 2005;134898

        (b) The value of electric company tangible personal property 134899
as assessed by the tax commissioner for tax year 2006 on a 134900
preliminary assessment, or an amended preliminary assessment if 134901
issued prior to March 1, 2007, and as apportioned to the taxing 134902
district for tax year 2006.134903

       (E) Not later than January 1, 2002, the tax commissioner 134904
shall determine for each taxing district its natural gas company 134905
tax value loss, which is the sum of the amounts described in 134906
divisions (E)(1) and (2) of this section:134907

       (1) The difference obtained by subtracting the amount 134908
described in division (E)(1)(b) from the amount described in 134909
division (E)(1)(a) of this section.134910

       (a) The value of all natural gas company tangible personal 134911
property, other than property described in division (E)(2) of this 134912
section, as assessed by the tax commissioner for tax year 1999 on 134913
a preliminary assessment, or an amended preliminary assessment if 134914
issued prior to March 1, 2000, and apportioned to the taxing 134915
district for tax year 1999;134916

       (b) The value of all natural gas company tangible personal 134917
property, other than property described in division (E)(2) of this 134918
section, as assessed by the tax commissioner for tax year 1999 had 134919
the property been apportioned to the taxing district for tax year 134920
2001, and assessed at the rates in effect for tax year 2001.134921

       (2) The difference in the value of current gas obtained by 134922
subtracting the amount described in division (E)(2)(b) from the 134923
amount described in division (E)(2)(a) of this section.134924

       (a) The three-year average assessed value of current gas as 134925
assessed by the tax commissioner for tax years 1997, 1998, and 134926
1999 on a preliminary assessment, or an amended preliminary 134927
assessment if issued prior to March 1, 2001, and as apportioned in 134928
the taxing district for those respective years;134929

       (b) The three-year average assessed value from current gas 134930
under division (E)(2)(a) of this section for tax years 1997, 1998, 134931
and 1999, as reflected in the preliminary assessment, using an 134932
assessment rate of twenty-five per cent.134933

       (F) The tax commissioner may request that natural gas 134934
companies, electric companies, and rural electric companies file a 134935
report to help determine the tax value loss under divisions (D) 134936
and (E) of this section. The report shall be filed within thirty 134937
days of the commissioner's request. A company that fails to file 134938
the report or does not timely file the report is subject to the 134939
penalty in section 5727.60 of the Revised Code.134940

       (G) Not later than January 1, 2002, the tax commissioner 134941
shall determine for each school district, joint vocational school 134942
district, and local taxing unit its fixed-rate levy loss, which is 134943
the sum of its electric company tax value loss multiplied by the 134944
tax rate in effect in tax year 1998 for fixed-rate levies and its 134945
natural gas company tax value loss multiplied by the tax rate in 134946
effect in tax year 1999 for fixed-rate levies.134947

       (H) Not later than January 1, 2002, the tax commissioner 134948
shall determine for each school district, joint vocational school 134949
district, and local taxing unit its fixed-sum levy loss, which is 134950
the amount obtained by subtracting the amount described in 134951
division (H)(2) of this section from the amount described in 134952
division (H)(1) of this section:134953

       (1) The sum of the electric company tax value loss multiplied 134954
by the tax rate in effect in tax year 1998, and the natural gas 134955
company tax value loss multiplied by the tax rate in effect in tax 134956
year 1999, for fixed-sum levies for all taxing districts within 134957
each school district, joint vocational school district, and local 134958
taxing unit. For the years 2002 through 2006, this computation 134959
shall include school district emergency levies that existed in 134960
1998 in the case of the electric company tax value loss, and 1999 134961
in the case of the natural gas company tax value loss, and all 134962
other fixed-sum levies that existed in 1998 in the case of the 134963
electric company tax value loss and 1999 in the case of the 134964
natural gas company tax value loss and continue to be charged in 134965
the tax year preceding the distribution year. For the years 2007 134966
through 2016 in the case of school district emergency levies, and 134967
for all years after 2006 in the case of all other fixed-sum 134968
levies, this computation shall exclude all fixed-sum levies that 134969
existed in 1998 in the case of the electric company tax value loss 134970
and 1999 in the case of the natural gas company tax value loss, 134971
but are no longer in effect in the tax year preceding the 134972
distribution year. For the purposes of this section, an emergency 134973
levy that existed in 1998 in the case of the electric company tax 134974
value loss, and 1999 in the case of the natural gas company tax 134975
value loss, continues to exist in a year beginning on or after 134976
January 1, 2007, but before January 1, 2017, if, in that year, the 134977
board of education levies a school district emergency levy for an 134978
annual sum at least equal to the annual sum levied by the board in 134979
tax year 1998 or 1999, respectively, less the amount of the 134980
payment certified under this division for 2002.134981

       (2) The total taxable value in tax year 1999 less the tax 134982
value loss in each school district, joint vocational school 134983
district, and local taxing unit multiplied by one-fourth of one 134984
mill.134985

       If the amount computed under division (H) of this section for 134986
any school district, joint vocational school district, or local 134987
taxing unit is greater than zero, that amount shall equal the 134988
fixed-sum levy loss reimbursed pursuant to division (F) of section 134989
5727.85 of the Revised Code or division (A)(2) of section 5727.86 134990
of the Revised Code, and the one-fourth of one mill that is 134991
subtracted under division (H)(2) of this section shall be 134992
apportioned among all contributing fixed-sum levies in the 134993
proportion of each levy to the sum of all fixed-sum levies within 134994
each school district, joint vocational school district, or local 134995
taxing unit.134996

       (I) Notwithstanding divisions (D), (E), (G), and (H) of this 134997
section, in computing the tax value loss, fixed-rate levy loss, 134998
and fixed-sum levy loss, the tax commissioner shall use the 134999
greater of the 1998 tax rate or the 1999 tax rate in the case of 135000
levy losses associated with the electric company tax value loss, 135001
but the 1999 tax rate shall not include for this purpose any tax 135002
levy approved by the voters after June 30, 1999, and the tax 135003
commissioner shall use the greater of the 1999 or the 2000 tax 135004
rate in the case of levy losses associated with the natural gas 135005
company tax value loss.135006

       (J) Not later than January 1, 2002, the tax commissioner 135007
shall certify to the department of education the tax value loss 135008
determined under divisions (D) and (E) of this section for each 135009
taxing district, the fixed-rate levy loss calculated under 135010
division (G) of this section, and the fixed-sum levy loss 135011
calculated under division (H) of this section. The calculations 135012
under divisions (G) and (H) of this section shall separately 135013
display the levy loss for each levy eligible for reimbursement.135014

       (K) Not later than September 1, 2001, the tax commissioner 135015
shall certify the amount of the fixed-sum levy loss to the county 135016
auditor of each county in which a school district with a fixed-sum 135017
levy loss has territory.135018

       Sec. 5727.89.  (A) The tax commissioner may make an 135019
assessment, based on any information in the commissioner's 135020
possession, against any natural gas distribution company, electric 135021
distribution company, self-assessing purchaser, or qualified end 135022
user that fails to file a return or pay any tax, interest, or 135023
additional charge as required by sections 5727.80 to 5727.95 of 135024
the Revised Code.135025

       When information in the possession of the tax commissioner 135026
indicates that a person liable for the tax imposed by section 135027
5727.81 or 5727.811 of the Revised Code has not paid the full 135028
amount of tax due, the commissioner may audit a representative 135029
sample of the person's business and may issue an assessment based 135030
on the audit. The commissioner shall give the person assessed 135031
written notice of the assessment in the manner provided in section 135032
5703.37 of the Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner 135033
shall provide instructions on how to petition for reassessment and 135034
request a hearing on the petition.135035

       The tax commissioner may issue an assessment for which the 135036
tax imposed by section 5727.81 or 5727.811 of the Revised Code was 135037
due and unpaid on the date the person was informed by an agent of 135038
the tax commissioner of an investigation or audit of the person. 135039
Any payment of the tax for the period covered by the assessment, 135040
after the person is so informed, shall be credited against the 135041
assessment.135042

       A penalty of up to fifteen per cent may be added to all 135043
amounts assessed under this section. The commissioner may adopt 135044
rules providing for the imposition and remission of penalties.135045

       (B) Unless the party assessed files with the tax commissioner 135046
within sixty days after service of the notice of assessment, 135047
either personally or by certified mail, a written petition for 135048
reassessment signed by the party assessed or that party's 135049
authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the assessment 135050
becomes final and the amount of the assessment is due and payable 135051
from the party assessed to the treasurer of state. The petition 135052
shall indicate the objections of the party assessed, but 135053
additional objections may be raised in writing if received by the 135054
commissioner prior to the date shown on the final determination. 135055
If the petition has been properly filed, the commissioner shall 135056
proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised Code.135057

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 135058
assessment, including accrued interest, remains unpaid, a 135059
certified copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the 135060
assessment final may be filed in the office of the clerk of the 135061
court of common pleas in the county in which the party assessed 135062
resides or in which the party's business is conducted. If the 135063
party assessed maintains no place of business in this state and is 135064
not a resident of this state, the certified copy of the entry may 135065
be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common pleas 135066
of Franklin county.135067

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 135068
enter a judgment for the state against the person assessed in the 135069
amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk 135070
in a loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for the 135071
distribution excise taxes," and shall have the same effect as 135072
other judgments. Execution shall issue upon the judgment at the 135073
request of the tax commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales 135074
on execution shall apply to sales made under the judgment.135075

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety135076
within sixty days after the day the assessment was issued, the 135077
portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall bear 135078
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 135079
the Revised Code from the day the tax commissioner issues the 135080
assessment until the day the assessment is paid or until it is 135081
certified to the attorney general for collection under section 135082
131.02 of the Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid 135083
portion of the assessment is certified to the attorney general for 135084
collection, the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear 135085
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 135086
the Revised Code from the date of certification until the date it 135087
is paid in its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner 135088
as the tax and may be collected by the issuance of an assessment 135089
under this section.135090

       (D) If the tax commissioner believes that collection of the 135091
tax imposed by section 5727.81 or 5727.811 of the Revised Code 135092
will be jeopardized unless proceedings to collect or secure 135093
collection of the tax are instituted without delay, the 135094
commissioner may issue a jeopardy assessment against the person 135095
liable for the tax. Immediately upon the issuance of the jeopardy 135096
assessment, the commissioner shall file an entry with the clerk of 135097
the court of common pleas in the manner prescribed by division (C) 135098
of this section. Notice of the jeopardy assessment shall be served 135099
on the party assessed or the party's legal representative within 135100
five days of the filing of the entry with the clerk. The total 135101
amount assessed is immediately due and payable, unless the party 135102
assessed files a petition for reassessment in accordance with 135103
division (B) of this section and provides security in a form 135104
satisfactory to the commissioner and in an amount sufficient to 135105
satisfy the unpaid balance of the assessment. Full or partial 135106
payment of the assessment does not prejudice the commissioner's 135107
consideration of the petition for reassessment.135108

       (E) All money collected by the tax commissioner under this 135109
section shall be paid to the treasurer of state, and when paid 135110
shall be considered as revenue arising from the taxes imposed by 135111
sections 5727.81 and 5727.811 of the Revised Code.135112

       Sec. 5728.10.  (A) If any person required to file a fuel use 135113
tax return by sections 5728.01 to 5728.14 of the Revised Code, 135114
fails to file the return within the time prescribed by those 135115
sections, files an incomplete return, files an incorrect return, 135116
or fails to remit the full amount of the tax due for the period 135117
covered by the return, the tax commissioner may make an assessment 135118
against the person, based upon any information in the 135119
commissioner's possession, for the period for which the tax was 135120
due.135121

       No assessment shall be made against any person for any tax 135122
imposed by this chapter more than four years after the return date 135123
for the period for which the tax was due or more than four years 135124
after the return for the period was filed, whichever is later. 135125
This section does not bar an assessment against any person who 135126
fails to file a fuel use tax return as required by this chapter, 135127
or who files a fraudulent fuel use tax return.135128

       A penalty of up to fifteen per cent may be added to the 135129
amount of every assessment made pursuant to this section. The 135130
commissioner may adopt rules providing for the imposition and 135131
remission of penalties added to assessments made under this 135132
section.135133

       The commissioner shall give the party assessed written notice 135134
of the assessment in the manner provided in section 5703.37 of the 135135
Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner shall provide 135136
instructions on how to petition for reassessment and request a 135137
hearing on the petition.135138

       (B) Unless the party assessed files with the tax commissioner 135139
within sixty days after service of the notice of assessment, 135140
either personally or by certified mail, a written petition for 135141
reassessment, signed by the party assessed, or by the party's 135142
authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the assessment 135143
becomes final and the amount of the assessment is due and payable 135144
from the party assessed to the treasurer of state. The petition 135145
shall indicate the objections of the party assessed, but 135146
additional objections may be raised in writing if received by the 135147
commissioner prior to the date shown on the final determination. 135148
If the petition has been properly filed, the commissioner shall 135149
proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised Code.135150

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 135151
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 135152
copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the assessment final 135153
may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common 135154
pleas in the county in which the party's place of business is 135155
located or the county in which the party assessed resides. If the 135156
party maintains no office in this state and is not a resident of 135157
this state, the certified copy of the entry may be filed in the 135158
office of the clerk of the court of common pleas of Franklin 135159
county.135160

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 135161
enter a judgment for the state of Ohio against the party assessed 135162
in the amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the 135163
clerk in a loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for state 135164
fuel use tax," and shall have the same effect as other judgments. 135165
Execution shall issue upon the judgment upon the request of the 135166
commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales on execution shall 135167
apply to sales made under the judgment.135168

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid within sixty 135169
days after the day the assessment was issued, the portion of the 135170
assessment consisting of tax due shall bear interest at the rate 135171
per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code from 135172
the day the commissioner issues the assessment until it is paid or 135173
until it is certified to the attorney general for collection under 135174
section 131.02 of the Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the 135175
unpaid portion of the assessment is certified to the attorney 135176
general for collection, the entire unpaid portion of the 135177
assessment shall bear interest at the rate per annum prescribed by 135178
section 5703.47 of the Revised Code from the date of certification 135179
until the date it is paid in its entirety. Interest shall be paid 135180
in the same manner as the tax and may be collected by the issuance 135181
of an assessment under this section.135182

       (D) All money collected by the tax commissioner under this 135183
section shall be paid into the state treasury in the same manner 135184
as the revenues deriving from the taxes imposed by section 5728.06 135185
of the Revised Code.135186

       Sec. 5729.03.  (A) If the superintendent of insurance finds 135187
the annual statement required by section 5729.02 of the Revised 135188
Code to be correct, the superintendent shall compute the following 135189
amount, as applicable, of the balance of such gross amount, after 135190
deducting such return premiums and considerations received for 135191
reinsurance, and charge such amount to such company as a tax upon 135192
the business done by it in this state for the period covered by 135193
such annual statement:135194

       (1) If the company is a health insuring corporation, one per 135195
cent of the balance of premium rate payments received, exclusive 135196
of payments received under the medicare program established under 135197
Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 135198
U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, and exclusive of payments received 135199
pursuant to the medical assistancemedicaid program established 135200
under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code for the period ending 135201
September 30, 2009, as reflected in its annual report;135202

       (2) If the company is not a health insuring corporation, one 135203
and four-tenths per cent of the balance of premiums received, 135204
exclusive of premiums received under the medicare program 135205
established under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 135206
Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, and exclusive of 135207
payments received pursuant to the medical assistancemedicaid135208
program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code for 135209
the period ending September 30, 2009, as reflected in its annual 135210
statement, and, if the company operates a health insuring 135211
corporation as a line of business, one per cent of the balance of 135212
premium rate payments received from that line of business, 135213
exclusive of payments received under the medicare program 135214
established under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 135215
Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, and exclusive of 135216
payments received pursuant to the medical assistancemedicaid135217
program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code for 135218
the period ending September 30, 2009, as reflected in its annual 135219
statement.135220

       Each foreign insurance company, including health insuring 135221
corporations, receiving payments pursuant to the medical 135222
assistancemedicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of the 135223
Revised Code during the period beginning October 1, 2009, and 135224
ending December 31, 2009, shall file with the 2009 annual 135225
statement to the superintendent a schedule that reflects those 135226
payments received pursuant to the medical assistancemedicaid135227
program for that period. The payments reflected in the schedule, 135228
plus all other taxable premiums, are subject to the annual 135229
franchise tax due to be paid in 2010.135230

       (B) Any insurance policies that were not issued in violation 135231
of Title XXXIX of the Revised Code and that were issued prior to 135232
April 15, 1967, by a life insurance company organized and operated 135233
without profit to any private shareholder or individual, 135234
exclusively for the purpose of aiding educational or scientific 135235
institutions organized and operated without profit to any private 135236
shareholder or individual, are not subject to the tax imposed by 135237
this section. All taxes collected pursuant to this section shall 135238
be credited to the general revenue fund.135239

       (C) In no case shall the tax imposed under this section be 135240
less than two hundred fifty dollars.135241

       Sec. 5729.04.  To compute franchise taxes on gross premiums 135242
to be paid under any law of this state by any mutual insurance 135243
company authorized to do business under the laws of this state, or 135244
by any stock insurance company so authorized, doing business on 135245
the plan of distributing back to its policyholders at the end of 135246
the policy year refunds of a portion of the premium collected, the 135247
amount of premium deposits received by the company upon any risk 135248
written pursuant to section 3925.34 or division (A)(1), (2), or135249
(7), or (14) of section 3929.01 of the Revised Code, within this 135250
state in excess of the net cost of insurance to the insured shall 135251
not be included where the excess deposit is returned ratably by 135252
the company to its policyholders; but the amount of gross or 135253
aggregate premiums received by the company is deemed the balance 135254
remaining after deducting from the gross amount of premium 135255
deposits received or collected by it on risks in this state during 135256
the preceding calendar year that portion of gross premium deposits 135257
returned by it to policyholders during the preceding calendar 135258
year, upon the cancellation or expiration of risks upon property 135259
situated within this state. In addition to the matters of return 135260
required to be made by insurance companies for the purpose of 135261
computing taxes, any company shall also return for such purpose in 135262
its annual statement:135263

       (A) The gross amount of premium deposits received or 135264
collected by it on risks in this state during the preceding 135265
calendar year;135266

       (B) The total amount of gross premium deposits returned to 135267
policyholders during such preceding calendar year upon 135268
cancellation and upon expiration of risks upon property situated 135269
within this state.135270

       Where insurance against fire is included with insurance 135271
against other perils at an undivided premium, a reasonable 135272
allocation from the entire premium shall be made for the fire 135273
portion of the coverage in such manner as the superintendent of 135274
insurance may direct.135275

       Sec. 5729.16.  (A) Terms used in this section have the same 135276
meaning as in section 5725.33 of the Revised Code.135277

       (B) There is hereby allowed a nonrefundable credit against 135278
the tax imposed by section 5729.03 of the Revised Code for a 135279
foreign insurance company holding a qualified equity investment on 135280
the credit allowance date occurring in the calendar year for which 135281
the tax is due. The credit shall be computed in the same manner 135282
prescribed for the computation of credits allowed under section 135283
5725.33 of the Revised Code.135284

       The credit shall be claimed in the order prescribed by 135285
section 5729.98 of the Revised Code. If the amount of the credit 135286
exceeds the amount of tax otherwise due after deducting all other 135287
credits in that order, the excess may be carried forward and 135288
applied to the tax due for not more than four ensuing years.135289

       By claiming a tax credit under this section, an insurance 135290
company waives its rights under section 5729.102 of the Revised 135291
Code with respect to the time limitation for the assessment of 135292
taxes as it relates to credits claimed that later become subject 135293
to recapture under division (D) of this section.135294

       (C) The total amount of qualified equity investments on the 135295
basis of which credits may be claimed under this section, section 135296
5725.33, and section 5733.58 of the Revised Code is subject to the 135297
limitation of division (C) of section 5725.33 of the Revised Code.135298

       (D) If any amount of thea federal tax credit allowed for a 135299
qualified equity investment for which a credit was received under 135300
this section is recaptured under section 45D of the Internal 135301
Revenue Code, or if the director of development services135302
determines that an investment for which a tax credit is claimed 135303
under this section is not a qualified equity investment or that 135304
the proceeds of an investment for which a tax credit is claimed 135305
under this section are used to make qualified low-income community 135306
investments other than in a qualified active low-income community 135307
business, all or a portion of the credit received on account of 135308
that investment shall be paid by the insurance company that 135309
received the credit to the superintendent of insurance. The amount 135310
to be recovered shall be determined by the director of development 135311
services pursuant to rules adopted under section 5725.33 of the 135312
Revised Code. The director shall certify any amount due under this 135313
division to the superintendent of insurance, and the 135314
superintendent shall notify the treasurer of state of the amount 135315
due. Upon notification, the treasurer shall invoice the insurance 135316
company for the amount due. The amount due is payable not later 135317
than thirty days after the date the treasurer invoices the 135318
insurance company. The amount due shall be considered to be tax 135319
due under section 5729.03 of the Revised Code, and may be 135320
collected by assessment without regard to the time limitations 135321
imposed under section 5729.102 of the Revised Code for the 135322
assessment of taxes by the superintendent. All amounts collected 135323
under this division shall be credited as revenue from the tax 135324
levied under section 5729.03 of the Revised Code.135325

       Sec. 5729.17.  (A) As used in this section, "certificate 135326
owner" has the same meaning as in section 149.311 of the Revised 135327
Code.135328

       (B) There is allowed a credit against the tax imposed by 135329
section 5729.03 of the Revised Code for an insurance company 135330
subject to that tax that is a certificate owner of a 135331
rehabilitation tax credit certificate issued under section 149.311 135332
of the Revised Code. The credit shall equal twenty-five per cent 135333
of the dollar amount indicated on the certificate, but the amount 135334
of the credit allowed for any company for any year shall not 135335
exceed fiveten million dollars. The credit shall be claimed in 135336
the calendar year specified in the certificate and in the order 135337
required under section 5729.98 of the Revised Code. If the credit 135338
exceeds the amount of tax otherwise due in that year, the excess 135339
shall be refunded to the company but, if any amount of the credit 135340
is refunded, the sum of the amount refunded and the amount applied 135341
to reduce the tax otherwise due in that year shall not exceed 135342
three million dollars. The company may carry forward any balance 135343
of the credit in excess of the amount claimed in that year for not 135344
more than five ensuing years, and shall deduct any amount claimed 135345
in any such year from the amount claimed in an ensuing year.135346

       (C) An insurance company claiming a credit under this section 135347
shall retain the rehabilitation tax credit certificate for four 135348
years following the end of the year in which the credit was 135349
claimed, and shall make the certificate available for inspection 135350
by the tax commissioner upon the request of the tax commissioner 135351
during that period.135352

       Sec. 5731.39.  This section does not apply to, and the 135353
written permission of the tax commissioner is not required for 135354
asset transfers with respect to, decedents dying on or after 135355
January 1, 2013.135356

       (A) No corporation organized or existing under the laws of 135357
this state shall transfer on its books or issue a new certificate 135358
for any share of its capital stock registered in the name of a 135359
decedent, or in trust for a decedent, or in the name of a decedent 135360
and another person or persons, without the written consent of the 135361
tax commissioner.135362

       (B) No safe deposit company, trust company, financial 135363
institution as defined in division (A) of section 5725.01 of the 135364
Revised Code, or other corporation or person, having in 135365
possession, control, or custody a deposit standing in the name of 135366
a decedent, or in trust for a decedent, or in the name of a 135367
decedent and another person or persons, shall deliver or transfer 135368
an amount in excess of three-fourths of the total value of such 135369
deposit, including accrued interest and dividends, as of the date 135370
of decedent's death, without the written consent of the tax 135371
commissioner. The written consent of the tax commissioner need not 135372
be obtained prior to the delivery or transfer of amounts having a 135373
value of three-fourths or less of said total value.135374

       (C) No life insurance company shall pay the proceeds of an 135375
annuity or matured endowment contract, or of a life insurance 135376
contract payable to the estate of a decedent, or of any other 135377
insurance contract taxable under Chapter 5731. of the Revised 135378
Code, without the written consent of the tax commissioner. Any 135379
life insurance company may pay the proceeds of any insurance 135380
contract not specified in this division (C) without the written 135381
consent of the tax commissioner.135382

       (D) No trust company or other corporation or person shall pay 135383
the proceeds of any death benefit, retirement, pension, or 135384
profit-sharing plan in excess of two thousand dollars, without the 135385
written consent of the tax commissioner. Such trust company or 135386
other corporation or person, however, may pay the proceeds of any 135387
death benefit, retirement, pension, or profit-sharing plan which 135388
consists of insurance on the life of the decedent payable to a 135389
beneficiary other than the estate of the insured without the 135390
written consent of the tax commissioner.135391

       (E) No safe deposit company, trust company, financial 135392
institution as defined in division (A) of section 5725.01 of the 135393
Revised Code, or other corporation or person, having in 135394
possession, control, or custody securities, assets, or other 135395
property (including the shares of the capital stock of, or other 135396
interest in, such safe deposit company, trust company, financial 135397
institution as defined in division (A) of section 5725.01 of the 135398
Revised Code, or other corporation), standing in the name of a 135399
decedent, or in trust for a decedent, or in the name of a decedent 135400
and another person or persons, and the transfer of which is 135401
taxable under Chapter 5731. of the Revised Code, shall deliver or 135402
transfer any such securities, assets, or other property which have 135403
a value as of the date of decedent's death in excess of 135404
three-fourths of the total value thereof, without the written 135405
consent of the tax commissioner. The written consent of the tax 135406
commissioner need not be obtained prior to the delivery or 135407
transfer of any such securities, assets, or other property having 135408
a value of three-fourths or less of said total value.135409

       (F) No safe deposit company, financial institution as defined 135410
in division (A) of section 5725.01 of the Revised Code, or other 135411
corporation or person having possession or control of a safe 135412
deposit box or similar receptacle standing in the name of a 135413
decedent or in the name of the decedent and another person or 135414
persons, or to which the decedent had a right of access, except 135415
when such safe deposit box or other receptacle stands in the name 135416
of a corporation or partnership, or in the name of the decedent as 135417
guardian or executor, shall deliver any of the contents thereof 135418
unless the safe deposit box or similar receptacle has been opened 135419
and inventoried in the presence of the tax commissioner or the 135420
commissioner's agent, and a written consent to transfer issued; 135421
provided, however, that a safe deposit company, financial 135422
institution, or other corporation or person having possession or 135423
control of a safe deposit box may deliver wills, deeds to burial 135424
lots, and insurance policies to a representative of the decedent, 135425
but that a representative of the safe deposit company, financial 135426
institution, or other corporation or person must supervise the 135427
opening of the box and make a written record of the wills, deeds, 135428
and policies removed. Such written record shall be included in the 135429
tax commissioner's inventory records.135430

       (G) Notwithstanding any provision of this section:135431

       (1) The tax commissioner may authorize any delivery or 135432
transfer or waive any of the foregoing requirements under such 135433
terms and conditions as the commissioner may prescribe;135434

       (2) A home, as defined in section 3721.10 of the Revised 135435
Code, or a residential facility licensed under section 5119.22135436
5119.34 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 135437
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 135438
unrelated adults, may transfer or use the money in a personal 135439
needs allowance account in accordance with section 5111.113135440
5162.22 of the Revised Code without the written consent of the tax 135441
commissioner, and without the account having been opened and 135442
inventoried in the presence of the commissioner or the 135443
commissioner's agent. 135444

       Failure to comply with this section shall render such safe 135445
deposit company, trust company, life insurance company, financial 135446
institution as defined in division (A) of section 5725.01 of the 135447
Revised Code, or other corporation or person liable for the amount 135448
of the taxes and interest due under the provisions of Chapter 135449
5731. of the Revised Code on the transfer of such stock, deposit, 135450
proceeds of an annuity or matured endowment contract or of a life 135451
insurance contract payable to the estate of a decedent, or other 135452
insurance contract taxable under Chapter 5731. of the Revised 135453
Code, proceeds of any death benefit, retirement, pension, or 135454
profit-sharing plan in excess of two thousand dollars, or 135455
securities, assets, or other property of any resident decedent, 135456
and in addition thereto, to a penalty of not less than five 135457
hundred or more than five thousand dollars.135458

       Sec. 5733.01.  (A) The tax provided by this chapter for 135459
domestic corporations shall be the amount charged against each 135460
corporation organized for profit under the laws of this state and 135461
each nonprofit corporation organized pursuant to Chapter 1729. of 135462
the Revised Code, except as provided in sections 5733.09 and 135463
5733.10 of the Revised Code, for the privilege of exercising its 135464
franchise during the calendar year in which that amount is 135465
payable, and the tax provided by this chapter for foreign 135466
corporations shall be the amount charged against each corporation 135467
organized for profit and each nonprofit corporation organized or 135468
operating in the same or similar manner as nonprofit corporations 135469
organized under Chapter 1729. of the Revised Code, under the laws 135470
of any state or country other than this state, except as provided 135471
in sections 5733.09 and 5733.10 of the Revised Code, for the 135472
privilege of doing business in this state, owning or using a part 135473
or all of its capital or property in this state, holding a 135474
certificate of compliance with the laws of this state authorizing 135475
it to do business in this state, or otherwise having nexus in or 135476
with this state under the Constitution of the United States, 135477
during the calendar year in which that amount is payable.135478

       (B) A corporation is subject to the tax imposed by section 135479
5733.06 of the Revised Code for each calendar year prior to 2014 135480
that it is so organized, doing business, owning or using a part or 135481
all of its capital or property, holding a certificate of 135482
compliance, or otherwise having nexus in or with this state under 135483
the Constitution of the United States, on the first day of January 135484
of that calendar year. No credit authorized by this chapter may be 135485
claimed for tax year 2014 or any tax year thereafter.135486

       (C) Any corporation subject to this chapter that is not 135487
subject to the federal income tax shall file its returns and 135488
compute its tax liability as required by this chapter in the same 135489
manner as if that corporation were subject to the federal income 135490
tax.135491

       (D) For purposes of this chapter, a federally chartered 135492
financial institution shall be deemed to be organized under the 135493
laws of the state within which its principal office is located.135494

       (E) For purposes of this chapter, any person, as defined in 135495
section 5701.01 of the Revised Code, shall be treated as a 135496
corporation if the person is classified for federal income tax 135497
purposes as an association taxable as a corporation, and an equity 135498
interest in the person shall be treated as capital stock of the 135499
person.135500

       (F) For the purposes of this chapter, "disregarded entity" 135501
has the same meaning as in division (D) of section 5745.01 of the 135502
Revised Code.135503

       (1) A person's interest in a disregarded entity, whether held 135504
directly or indirectly, shall be treated as the person's ownership 135505
of the assets and liabilities of the disregarded entity, and the 135506
income, including gain or loss, shall be included in the person's 135507
net income under this chapter.135508

       (2) Any sale, exchange, or other disposition of the person's 135509
interest in the disregarded entity, whether held directly or 135510
indirectly, shall be treated as a sale, exchange, or other 135511
disposition of the person's share of the disregarded entity's 135512
underlying assets or liabilities, and the gain or loss from such 135513
sale, exchange, or disposition shall be included in the person's 135514
net income under this chapter.135515

       (3) The disregarded entity's payroll, property, and sales 135516
factors shall be included in the person's factors.135517

       (G) The tax a corporation is required to pay under this 135518
chapter shall be as follows:135519

        (1)(a) For financial institutions, the greater of the minimum 135520
payment required under division (E) of section 5733.06 of the 135521
Revised Code or the difference between all taxes charged the 135522
financial institution under this chapter, without regard to 135523
division (G)(2) of this section, less any credits allowable 135524
against such tax.135525

       (b) A corporation satisfying the description in division 135526
(E)(5), (6), (7), (8), or (10) of section 5751.01 of the Revised 135527
Code, as that section existed before its amendment by H.B. 510 of 135528
the 129th general assembly, that is not a financial institution, 135529
insurance company, or dealer in intangibles is subject to the 135530
taxes imposed under this chapter as a corporation and not subject 135531
to tax as a financial institution, and shall pay the greater of 135532
the minimum payment required under division (E) of section 5733.06 135533
of the Revised Code or the difference between all the taxes 135534
charged under this chapter, without regard to division (G)(2) of 135535
this section, less any credits allowable against such tax.135536

        (2) For all corporations other than those persons described 135537
in division (G)(1)(a) or (b) of this section, the amount under 135538
division (G)(2)(a) of this section applicable to the tax year 135539
specified less the amount under division (G)(2)(b) of this 135540
section:135541

        (a)(i) For tax year 2005, the greater of the minimum payment 135542
required under division (E) of section 5733.06 of the Revised Code 135543
or the difference between all taxes charged the corporation under 135544
this chapter and any credits allowable against such tax;135545

        (ii) For tax year 2006, the greater of the minimum payment 135546
required under division (E) of section 5733.06 of the Revised Code 135547
or four-fifths of the difference between all taxes charged the 135548
corporation under this chapter and any credits allowable against 135549
such tax, except the qualifying pass-through entity tax credit 135550
described in division (A)(30) and the refundable credits described 135551
in divisions (A)(31) to (35) of section 5733.98 of the Revised 135552
Code;135553

        (iii) For tax year 2007, the greater of the minimum payment 135554
required under division (E) of section 5733.06 of the Revised Code 135555
or three-fifths of the difference between all taxes charged the 135556
corporation under this chapter and any credits allowable against 135557
such tax, except the qualifying pass-through entity tax credit 135558
described in division (A)(30) and the refundable credits described 135559
in divisions (A)(31) to (35) of section 5733.98 of the Revised 135560
Code;135561

        (iv) For tax year 2008, the greater of the minimum payment 135562
required under division (E) of section 5733.06 of the Revised Code 135563
or two-fifths of the difference between all taxes charged the 135564
corporation under this chapter and any credits allowable against 135565
such tax, except the qualifying pass-through entity tax credit 135566
described in division (A)(30) and the refundable credits described 135567
in divisions (A)(31) to (35) of section 5733.98 of the Revised 135568
Code;135569

        (v) For tax year 2009, the greater of the minimum payment 135570
required under division (E) of section 5733.06 of the Revised Code 135571
or one-fifth of the difference between all taxes charged the 135572
corporation under this chapter and any credits allowable against 135573
such tax, except the qualifying pass-through entity tax credit 135574
described in division (A)(30) and the refundable credits described 135575
in divisions (A)(31), (32), (33), and (34) of section 5733.98 of 135576
the Revised Code;135577

        (vi) For tax year 2010 and each tax year thereafter, no tax.135578

        (b) A corporation shall subtract from the amount calculated 135579
under division (G)(2)(a)(ii), (iii), (iv), or (v) of this section 135580
any qualifying pass-through entity tax credit described in 135581
division (A)(30) and any refundable credits described in divisions 135582
(A)(31) to (35) of section 5733.98 of the Revised Code to which 135583
the corporation is entitled. Any unused qualifying pass-through 135584
entity tax credit is not refundable.135585

        (c) For the purposes of computing the amount of a credit that 135586
may be carried forward to a subsequent tax year under division 135587
(G)(2) of this section, a credit is utilized against the tax for a 135588
tax year to the extent the credit applies against the tax for that 135589
tax year, even if the difference is then multiplied by the 135590
applicable fraction under division (G)(2)(a) of this section.135591

       (d) References in division (G)(2) of this section to section 135592
5733.98 of the Revised Code is to that section before its 135593
amendment by H.B. 59 of the 130th general assembly.135594

       (3) Nothing in division (G) of this section eliminates or 135595
reduces the tax imposed by section 5733.41 of the Revised Code on 135596
a qualifying pass-through entity.135597

       Sec. 5733.06.  For tax years prior to tax year 2014, the tax 135598
hereby charged each corporation subject to this chapter shall be 135599
the greater of the sum of divisions (A) and (B) of this section, 135600
after the reduction, if any, provided by division (J) of this 135601
section, or division (C) of this section, after the reduction, if 135602
any, provided by division (J) of this section, except that the tax 135603
hereby charged each financial institution subject to this chapter 135604
shall be the amount computed under division (D) of this section:135605

       (A) Except as set forth in division (F) of this section, five 135606
and one-tenth per cent upon the first fifty thousand dollars of 135607
the value of the taxpayer's issued and outstanding shares of stock 135608
as determined under division (B) of section 5733.05 of the Revised 135609
Code;135610

       (B) Except as set forth in division (F) of this section, 135611
eight and one-half per cent upon the value so determined in excess 135612
of fifty thousand dollars; or135613

       (C)(1) Except as otherwise provided under division (G) of 135614
this section, four mills times that portion of the value of the 135615
issued and outstanding shares of stock as determined under 135616
division (C) of section 5733.05 of the Revised Code. For the 135617
purposes of division (C) of this section, division (C)(2) of 135618
section 5733.065, and division (C) of section 5733.066 of the 135619
Revised Code, the value of the issued and outstanding shares of 135620
stock of an eligible corporation for tax year 2003 through tax 135621
year 2007, or of a qualifying holding company, is zero.135622

       (2) As used in division (C) of this section, "eligible 135623
corporation" means a person treated as a corporation for federal 135624
income tax purposes that meets all of the following criteria:135625

       (a) The corporation conducts business for an entire taxable 135626
year as a qualified trade or business as defined by division (C) 135627
of section 122.15 of the Revised Code, as that section existed 135628
before its repeal by H.B. 59 of the 130th general assembly.135629

       (b) The corporation uses more than fifty per cent of the 135630
corporation's assets, based on net book value, that are located in 135631
Ohio solely to conduct activities that constitute a qualified 135632
trade or business as defined by section 122.15 of the Revised 135633
Code, as that section existed before its repeal by H.B. 59 of the 135634
130th general assembly.135635

       (c) The corporation has been formed or organized not more 135636
than three years before the report required to be filed by section 135637
5733.02 of the Revised Code is due, without regard to any 135638
extensions.135639

       (d) The corporation is not a related member, as defined in 135640
section 5733.042 of the Revised Code, at any time during the 135641
taxable year with respect to another person treated as a 135642
corporation for federal income tax purposes. A corporation is not 135643
a related member if during the entire taxable year at least 135644
seventy-five per cent of the corporation's stock is owned directly 135645
or through a pass-through entity by individuals, estates, and 135646
grantor trusts, and the individuals, estates, and grantor trusts 135647
do not directly or indirectly own more than twenty per cent of the 135648
value of another person treated as a corporation for federal 135649
income tax purposes that is conducting a qualified trade or 135650
business.135651

       (D) The tax charged each financial institution subject to 135652
this chapter shall be that portion of the value of the issued and 135653
outstanding shares of stock as determined under division (A) of 135654
section 5733.05 of the Revised Code, multiplied by the following 135655
amounts:135656

       (1) For tax years prior to the 1999 tax year, fifteen mills;135657

       (2) For the 1999 tax year, fourteen mills;135658

       (3) For tax year 2000 and thereafter, thirteen mills.135659

       (E) No tax shall be charged from any corporation that has 135660
been adjudicated bankrupt, or for which a receiver has been 135661
appointed, or that has made a general assignment for the benefit 135662
of creditors, except for the portion of the then current tax year 135663
during which the tax commissioner finds such corporation had the 135664
power to exercise its corporate franchise unimpaired by such 135665
proceedings or act. The minimum payment for each corporation shall 135666
be as follows:135667

       (1) One thousand dollars in the case of a corporation having 135668
gross receipts for the taxable year equal to at least five million 135669
dollars from activities within or outside this state or in the 135670
case of a corporation employing at least three hundred employees 135671
at some time during the taxable year within or outside this state;135672

       (2) Fifty dollars in the case of any other corporation.135673

       The tax charged to corporations under this chapter for the 135674
privilege of engaging in business in this state, which is an 135675
excise tax levied on the value of the issued and outstanding 135676
shares of stock, shall in no manner be construed as prohibiting or 135677
otherwise limiting the powers of municipal corporations, joint 135678
economic development zones created under section 715.691 of the 135679
Revised Code, and joint economic development districts created 135680
under section 715.70 or 715.71 or sections 715.72 to 715.81 of the 135681
Revised Code in this state to impose an income tax on the income 135682
of such corporations.135683

       (F) If two or more taxpayers satisfy the ownership or control 135684
requirements of division (A) of section 5733.052 of the Revised 135685
Code, each such taxpayer shall substitute "the taxpayer's pro-rata 135686
amount" for "fifty thousand dollars" in divisions (A) and (B) of 135687
this section. For purposes of this division, "the taxpayer's 135688
pro-rata amount" is an amount that, when added to the other such 135689
taxpayers' pro-rata amounts, does not exceed fifty thousand 135690
dollars. For the purpose of making that computation, the 135691
taxpayer's pro-rata amount shall not be less than zero. Nothing in 135692
this division derogates from or eliminates the requirement to make 135693
the alternative computation of tax under division (C) of this 135694
section.135695

       (G) The tax liability of any corporation under division (C) 135696
of this section shall not exceed one hundred fifty thousand 135697
dollars.135698

       (H)(1) For the purposes of division (H) of this section, 135699
"exiting corporation" means a corporation that satisfies all of 135700
the following conditions:135701

       (a) The corporation had nexus with or in this state under the 135702
Constitution of the United States during any portion of a calendar 135703
year;135704

       (b) The corporation was not a corporation described in 135705
division (A) of section 5733.01 of the Revised Code on the first 135706
day of January immediately following that calendar year;135707

       (c) The corporation was not a financial institution on the 135708
first day of January immediately following that calendar year;135709

       (d) If the corporation was a transferor as defined in section 135710
5733.053 of the Revised Code, the corporation's transferee was not 135711
required to add to the transferee's net income the income of the 135712
transferor pursuant to division (B) of that section;135713

       (e) During any portion of that calendar year, or any portion 135714
of the immediately preceding calendar year, the corporation had 135715
net income that was not included in a report filed by the 135716
corporation or its transferee pursuant to section 5733.02, 135717
5733.021, 5733.03, 5733.031, or 5733.053 of the Revised Code;135718

       (f) The corporation would have been subject to the tax 135719
computed under divisions (A), (B), (C), (F), and (G) of this 135720
section if the corporation is assumed to be a corporation 135721
described in division (A) of section 5733.01 of the Revised Code 135722
on the first day of January immediately following the calendar 135723
year to which division (H)(1)(a) of this section refers.135724

       (2) For the purposes of division (H) of this section, 135725
"unreported net income" means net income that was not previously 135726
included in a report filed pursuant to section 5733.02, 5733.021, 135727
5733.03, 5733.031, or 5733.053 of the Revised Code and that was 135728
realized or recognized during the calendar year to which division 135729
(H)(1) of this section refers or the immediately preceding 135730
calendar year.135731

       (3) Each exiting corporation shall pay a tax computed by 135732
first allocating and apportioning the unreported net income 135733
pursuant to division (B) of section 5733.05 and section 5733.051 135734
and, if applicable, section 5733.052 of the Revised Code. The 135735
exiting corporation then shall compute the tax due on its 135736
unreported net income allocated and apportioned to this state by 135737
applying divisions (A), (B), and (F) of this section to that 135738
income.135739

       (4) Divisions (C) and (G) of this section, division (D)(2) of 135740
section 5733.065, and division (C) of section 5733.066 of the 135741
Revised Code do not apply to an exiting corporation, but exiting 135742
corporations are subject to every other provision of this chapter.135743

       (5) Notwithstanding division (B) of section 5733.01 or 135744
sections 5733.02, 5733.021, and 5733.03 of the Revised Code to the 135745
contrary, each exiting corporation shall report and pay the tax 135746
due under division (H) of this section on or before the 135747
thirty-first day of May immediately following the calendar year to 135748
which division (H)(1)(a) of this section refers. The exiting 135749
corporation shall file that report on the form most recently 135750
prescribed by the tax commissioner for the purposes of complying 135751
with sections 5733.02 and 5733.03 of the Revised Code. Upon 135752
request by the corporation, the tax commissioner may extend the 135753
date for filing the report.135754

       (6) If, on account of the application of section 5733.053 of 135755
the Revised Code, net income is subject to the tax imposed by 135756
divisions (A) and (B) of this section, such income shall not be 135757
subject to the tax imposed by division (H)(3) of this section.135758

       (7) The amendments made to division (H) of this section by 135759
Am. Sub. S.B. 287 of the 123rd general assembly do not apply to 135760
any transfer, as defined in section 5733.053 of the Revised Code, 135761
for which negotiations began prior to January 1, 2001, and that 135762
was commenced in and completed during calendar year 2001, unless 135763
the taxpayer makes an election prior to December 31, 2001, to 135764
apply those amendments.135765

       (8) The tax commissioner may adopt rules governing division 135766
(H) of this section.135767

       (I) Any reference in the Revised Code to "the tax imposed by 135768
section 5733.06 of the Revised Code" or "the tax due under section 135769
5733.06 of the Revised Code" includes the taxes imposed under 135770
sections 5733.065 and 5733.066 of the Revised Code.135771

       (J)(1) Division (J) of this section applies solely to a 135772
combined company. Section 5733.057 of the Revised Code shall apply 135773
when calculating the adjustments required by division (J) of this 135774
section.135775

       (2) Subject to division (J)(4) of this section, the total tax 135776
calculated in divisions (A) and (B) of this section shall be 135777
reduced by an amount calculated by multiplying such tax by a 135778
fraction, the numerator of which is the total taxable gross 135779
receipts attributed to providing public utility activity other 135780
than as an electric company under section 5727.03 of the Revised 135781
Code for the year upon which the taxable gross receipts are 135782
measured immediately preceding the tax year, and the denominator 135783
of which is the total gross receipts from all sources for the year 135784
upon which the taxable gross receipts are measured immediately 135785
preceding the tax year. Nothing herein shall be construed to 135786
exclude from the denominator any item of income described in 135787
section 5733.051 of the Revised Code.135788

       (3) Subject to division (J)(4) of this section, the total tax 135789
calculated in division (C) of this section shall be reduced by an 135790
amount calculated by multiplying such tax by the fraction 135791
described in division (J)(2) of this section.135792

       (4) In no event shall the reduction provided by division 135793
(J)(2) or (J)(3) of this section exceed the amount of the excise 135794
tax paid in accordance with section 5727.38 of the Revised Code, 135795
for the year upon which the taxable gross receipts are measured 135796
immediately preceding the tax year.135797

       Sec. 5733.11.  (A) If any corporation required to file a 135798
report under this chapter fails to file the report within the time 135799
prescribed, files an incorrect report, or fails to remit the full 135800
amount of the tax due for the period covered by the report, the 135801
tax commissioner may make an assessment against the corporation 135802
for any deficiency for the period for which the report or tax is 135803
due, based upon any information in the commissioner's possession.135804

       No assessment shall be made or issued against a corporation 135805
more than three years after the later of the final date the report 135806
subject to assessment was required to be filed or the date the 135807
report was filed. Such time limit may be extended if both the 135808
corporation and the commissioner consent in writing to the 135809
extension or if an agreement waiving or extending the time limit 135810
has been entered into pursuant to section 122.171 of the Revised 135811
Code. Any such extension shall extend the three-year time limit in 135812
division (B) of section 5733.12 of the Revised Code for the same 135813
period of time. There shall be no bar or limit to an assessment 135814
against a corporation that fails to file a report subject to 135815
assessment as required by this chapter, or that files a fraudulent 135816
report.135817

       The commissioner shall give the corporation assessed written 135818
notice of the assessment in the manner provided in section 5703.37 135819
of the Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner shall 135820
provide instructions on how to petition for reassessment and 135821
request a hearing on the petition.135822

       (B) Unless the corporation assessed files with the tax 135823
commissioner within sixty days after service of the notice of 135824
assessment, either personally or by certified mail, a written 135825
petition for reassessment, signed by the corporations135826
corporation's authorized agent having knowledge of the facts,, the 135827
assessment becomes final, and the amount of the assessment is due 135828
and payable from the corporation assessed to the treasurer of 135829
state. The petition shall indicate the corporation's objections, 135830
but additional objections may be raised in writing if received by 135831
the commissioner prior to the date shown on the final 135832
determination. If the petition has been properly filed, the 135833
commissioner shall proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised 135834
Code.135835

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 135836
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 135837
copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the assessment final 135838
may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common 135839
pleas in the county in which the corporation has an office or 135840
place of business in this state, the county in which the 135841
corporation's statutory agent is located, or Franklin county.135842

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 135843
enter a judgment against the corporation assessed in the amount 135844
shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk in a 135845
loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for state corporate 135846
franchise and litter taxes," and shall have the same effect as 135847
other judgments. Execution shall issue upon the judgment upon the 135848
request of the tax commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales 135849
on execution shall apply to sales made under the judgment.135850

       The portion of anIf the assessment is not paid within sixty 135851
days after the day the assessment was issued, the portion of the 135852
assessment consisting of tax due shall bear interest at the rate 135853
per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code from 135854
the day the tax commissioner issues the assessment until the 135855
assessment is paid or until it is certified to the attorney 135856
general for collection under section 131.02 of the Revised Code, 135857
whichever comes first. If the unpaid portion of the assessment is 135858
certified to the attorney general for collection, the entire 135859
unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear interest at the rate 135860
per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code from 135861
the date of certification until the date it is paid in its 135862
entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner as the tax and 135863
may be collected by issuing an assessment under this section.135864

       (D) All money collected under this section shall be 135865
considered as revenue arising from the taxes imposed by this 135866
chapter.135867

       (E) The portion of an assessment that must be paid upon the 135868
filing of a petition for reassessment shall be as follows:135869

       (1) If the sole item objected to is the assessed penalty or 135870
interest, payment of the assessment, including interest but not 135871
penalty, is required;135872

       (2) If the corporation assessed failed to file, prior to the 135873
date of issuance of the assessment, the annual report required by 135874
section 5733.02 of the Revised Code, any amended report required 135875
by division (C) of section 5733.031 of the Revised Code for the 135876
tax year at issue, or any amended report required by division (D) 135877
of section 5733.067 of the Revised Code to indicate a reduction in 135878
the amount of the credit provided under that section, payment of 135879
the assessment, including interest but not penalty, is required;135880

       (3) If the corporation assessed filed, prior to the date of 135881
issuance of the assessment, the annual report required by section 135882
5733.02 of the Revised Code, all amended reports required by 135883
division (C) of section 5733.031 of the Revised Code for the tax 135884
year at issue, and all amended reports required by division (D) of 135885
section 5733.067 of the Revised Code to indicate a reduction in 135886
the amount of the credit provided under that section, and a 135887
balance of the taxes shown due on the reports as computed on the 135888
reports remains unpaid, payment of only that portion of the 135889
assessment representing the unpaid balance of tax and interest is 135890
required;135891

       (4) If the corporation assessed does not dispute that it is a 135892
taxpayer but claims the protections of section 101 of Public Law 135893
86-272, 73 Stat. 555, 15 U.S.C.A. 381, as amended, payment of only 135894
that portion of the assessment representing any balance of taxes 135895
shown due on the corporation's annual report required by section 135896
5733.02 of the Revised Code, as computed on the report, that 135897
remains unpaid, and that represents taxes imposed by division (C) 135898
of section 5733.06, division (C)(2) of section 5733.065, and 135899
division (C) of section 5733.066 of the Revised Code, together 135900
with all related interest, is required;135901

       (5) If none of the conditions specified in divisions (E)(1) 135902
to (4) of this section apply, or if the corporation assessed 135903
disputes that it is a taxpayer, no payment is required.135904

       (F) Notwithstanding the fact that a petition for reassessment 135905
is pending, the corporation may pay all or a portion of the 135906
assessment that is the subject of the petition. The acceptance of 135907
a payment by the treasurer of state does not prejudice any claim 135908
for refund upon final determination of the petition.135909

       If upon final determination of the petition an error in the 135910
assessment is corrected by the tax commissioner, upon petition so 135911
filed or pursuant to a decision of the board of tax appeals or any 135912
court to which the determination or decision has been appealed, so 135913
that the amount due from the corporation under the corrected 135914
assessment is less than the portion paid, there shall be issued to 135915
the corporation, its assigns, or legal representative a refund in 135916
the amount of the overpayment as provided by section 5733.12 of 135917
the Revised Code, with interest on that amount as provided by 135918
section 5733.26 of the Revised Code, subject to section 5733.121 135919
of the Revised Code.135920

       Sec. 5733.55.  (A) As used in this section:135921

       (1) "9-1-1 system" has the same meaning as in section 5507.01135922
128.01 of the Revised Code.135923

       (2) "Nonrecurring 9-1-1 charges" means nonrecurring charges 135924
approved by the public utilities commission for the telephone 135925
network portion of a 9-1-1 system pursuant to section 5507.18135926
128.18 of the Revised Code.135927

       (3) "Eligible nonrecurring 9-1-1 charges" means all 135928
nonrecurring 9-1-1 charges for a 9-1-1 system except both of the 135929
following:135930

       (a) Charges for a system that was not established pursuant to 135931
a plan adopted under section 5507.08128.08 of the Revised Code or 135932
an agreement under section 5507.09128.09 of the Revised Code;135933

       (b) Charges for that part of a system established pursuant to 135934
such a plan or agreement that are excluded from the credit by 135935
division (C)(2) of section 5507.18128.18 of the Revised Code.135936

       (4) "Telephone company" has the same meaning as in section 135937
5727.01 of the Revised Code.135938

       (B) Beginning in tax year 2005, a telephone company shall be 135939
allowed a nonrefundable credit against the tax imposed by section 135940
5733.06 of the Revised Code equal to the amount of its eligible 135941
nonrecurring 9-1-1 charges. The credit shall be claimed for the 135942
company's taxable year that covers the period in which the 9-1-1 135943
service for which the credit is claimed becomes available for use. 135944
The credit shall be claimed in the order required by section 135945
5733.98 of the Revised Code. If the credit exceeds the total taxes 135946
due under section 5733.06 of the Revised Code for the tax year, 135947
the tax commissioner shall credit the excess against taxes due 135948
under that section for succeeding tax years until the full amount 135949
of the credit is granted.135950

       (C) After the last day a return, with any extensions, may be 135951
filed by any telephone company that is eligible to claim a credit 135952
under this section, the commissioner shall determine whether the 135953
sum of the credits allowed for prior tax years commencing with tax 135954
year 2005 plus the sum of the credits claimed for the current tax 135955
year exceeds fifteen million dollars. If it does, the credits 135956
allowed under this section for the current tax year shall be 135957
reduced by a uniform percentage such that the sum of the credits 135958
allowed for the current tax year do not exceed fifteen million 135959
dollars claimed by all telephone companies for all tax years. 135960
Thereafter, no credit shall be granted under this section, except 135961
for the remaining portions of any credits allowed under division 135962
(B) of this section.135963

       (D) A telephone company that is entitled to carry forward a 135964
credit against its public utility excise tax liability under 135965
section 5727.39 of the Revised Code is entitled to carry forward 135966
any amount of that credit remaining after its last public utility 135967
excise tax payment for the period of July 1, 2003, through June 135968
30, 2004, and claim that amount as a credit against its 135969
corporation franchise tax liability under this section. Nothing in 135970
this section authorizes a telephone company to claim a credit 135971
under this section for any eligible nonrecurring 9-1-1 charges for 135972
which it has already claimed a credit under this section or 135973
section 5727.39 of the Revised Code.135974

       Sec. 5733.58. (A) Terms used in this section have the same 135975
meaning as in section 5725.33 of the Revised Code.135976

       (B) There is hereby allowed a nonrefundable credit against 135977
the tax imposed by section 5733.06 of the Revised Code for a 135978
financial institution holding a qualified equity investment on the 135979
credit allowance date occurring in the calendar year immediately 135980
preceding the tax year for which the tax is due. The credit shall 135981
be computed in the same manner prescribed for the computation of 135982
credits allowed under section 5725.33 of the Revised Code.135983

       By claiming a tax credit under this section, a financial 135984
institution waives its rights under section 5733.11 of the Revised 135985
Code with respect to the time limitation for the assessment of 135986
taxes as it relates to credits claimed that later become subject 135987
to recapture under division (D) of this section.135988

       The credit shall be claimed in the order prescribed by 135989
section 5733.98 of the Revised Code. If the amount of the credit 135990
exceeds the amount of tax otherwise due after deducting all other 135991
credits in that order, the excess may be carried forward and 135992
applied to the tax due for not more than four ensuing tax years.135993

       (C) The total amount of qualified equity investments on the 135994
basis of which credits may be claimed under this section and 135995
sections 5725.33 and 5729.16 of the Revised Code is subject to the 135996
limitation of division (C) of section 5725.33 of the Revised Code.135997

       (D) If any amount of thea federal tax credit allowed for a 135998
qualified equity investment for which a credit was received under 135999
this section is recaptured under section 45D of the Internal 136000
Revenue Code, or if the director of development services136001
determines that an investment for which a tax credit is claimed 136002
under this section is not a qualified equity investment or that 136003
the proceeds of an investment for which a tax credit is claimed 136004
under this section are used to make qualified low-income community 136005
investments other than in a qualified active low-income community 136006
business, all or a portion of the credit received on account of 136007
that investment shall be paid by the financial institution that 136008
received the credit to the tax commissioner. The amount to be 136009
recovered shall be determined by the director of development 136010
services pursuant to rules adopted under section 5725.33 of the 136011
Revised Code. The director shall certify any amount due under this 136012
division to the tax commissioner, and the commissioner shall 136013
notify the financial institution of the amount due. The amount due 136014
is payable not later than thirty days after the day the 136015
commissioner issues the notice. The amount due shall be considered 136016
to be tax due under section 5733.06 of the Revised Code, and may 136017
be collected by assessment without regard to the limitations 136018
imposed under section 5733.11 of the Revised Code for the 136019
assessment of taxes by the commissioner. All amounts collected 136020
under this division shall be credited as revenue from the tax 136021
levied under section 5733.06 of the Revised Code.136022

       Sec. 5733.98.  (A) To provide a uniform procedure for 136023
calculating the amount of tax imposed by section 5733.06 of the 136024
Revised Code that is due under this chapter, a taxpayer shall 136025
claim any credits to which it is entitled in the following order, 136026
except as otherwise provided in section 5733.058 of the Revised 136027
Code:136028

       (1) For tax year 2005, the credit for taxes paid by a 136029
qualifying pass-through entity allowed under section 5733.0611 of 136030
the Revised Code;136031

       (2) The credit allowed for financial institutions under 136032
section 5733.45 of the Revised Code;136033

       (3) The credit for qualifying affiliated groups under section 136034
5733.068 of the Revised Code;136035

       (4) The subsidiary corporation credit under section 5733.067 136036
of the Revised Code;136037

       (5) The savings and loan assessment credit under section 136038
5733.063 of the Revised Code;136039

       (6) The credit for recycling and litter prevention donations 136040
under section 5733.064 of the Revised Code;136041

       (7) The credit for employers that enter into agreements with 136042
child day-care centers under section 5733.36 of the Revised Code;136043

       (8) The credit for employers that reimburse employee child 136044
care expenses under section 5733.38 of the Revised Code;136045

       (9) The credit for maintaining railroad active grade crossing 136046
warning devices under section 5733.43 of the Revised Code;136047

       (10) The credit for purchases of lights and reflectors under 136048
section 5733.44 of the Revised Code;136049

       (11) The nonrefundable job retention credit under division 136050
(B) of section 5733.0610 of the Revised Code;136051

       (12) The credit for tax years 2008 and 2009 for selling 136052
alternative fuel under section 5733.48 of the Revised Code;136053

       (13) The second credit for purchases of new manufacturing 136054
machinery and equipment under section 5733.33 of the Revised Code;136055

       (14) The job training credit under section 5733.42 of the 136056
Revised Code;136057

       (15) The credit for qualified research expenses under section 136058
5733.351 of the Revised Code;136059

       (16) The enterprise zone credit under section 5709.66 of the 136060
Revised Code;136061

       (17) The credit for the eligible costs associated with a 136062
voluntary action under section 5733.34 of the Revised Code;136063

       (18) The credit for employers that establish on-site child 136064
day-care centers under section 5733.37 of the Revised Code;136065

       (19) The ethanol plant investment credit under section 136066
5733.46 of the Revised Code;136067

       (20) The credit for purchases of qualifying grape production 136068
property under section 5733.32 of the Revised Code;136069

       (21) The export sales credit under section 5733.069 of the 136070
Revised Code;136071

       (22) The credit for research and development and technology 136072
transfer investors under section 5733.35 of the Revised Code;136073

       (23) The enterprise zone credits under section 5709.65 of the 136074
Revised Code;136075

       (24)(23) The credit for using Ohio coal under section 5733.39 136076
of the Revised Code;136077

       (25)(24) The credit for purchases of qualified low-income 136078
community investments under section 5733.58 of the Revised Code;136079

       (26)(25) The credit for small telephone companies under 136080
section 5733.57 of the Revised Code;136081

       (27)(26) The credit for eligible nonrecurring 9-1-1 charges 136082
under section 5733.55 of the Revised Code;136083

       (28)(27) For tax year 2005, the credit for providing programs 136084
to aid the communicatively impaired under division (A) of section 136085
5733.56 of the Revised Code;136086

       (29)(28) The research and development credit under section 136087
5733.352 of the Revised Code;136088

       (30)(29) For tax years 2006 and subsequent tax years, the 136089
credit for taxes paid by a qualifying pass-through entity allowed 136090
under section 5733.0611 of the Revised Code;136091

       (31)(30) The refundable credit for rehabilitating a historic 136092
building under section 5733.47 of the Revised Code;136093

       (32)(31) The refundable jobs creation credit or job retention 136094
credit under division (A) of section 5733.0610 of the Revised 136095
Code;136096

       (33)(32) The refundable credit for tax withheld under 136097
division (B)(2) of section 5747.062 of the Revised Code;136098

       (34)(33) The refundable credit under section 5733.49 of the 136099
Revised Code for losses on loans made to the Ohio venture capital 136100
program under sections 150.01 to 150.10 of the Revised Code;136101

       (35)(34) For tax years 2006, 2007, and 2008, the refundable 136102
credit allowable under division (B) of section 5733.56 of the 136103
Revised Code;136104

       (36)(35) The refundable motion picture production credit 136105
under section 5733.59 of the Revised Code.136106

       (B) For any credit except the refundable credits enumerated 136107
in this section, the amount of the credit for a tax year shall not 136108
exceed the tax due after allowing for any other credit that 136109
precedes it in the order required under this section. Any excess 136110
amount of a particular credit may be carried forward if authorized 136111
under the section creating that credit.136112

       Sec. 5735.012. AmountsWith respect to liquid motor fuel 136113
other than liquid natural gas, amounts of motor fuel reported 136114
under this chapter shall be measured in gross gallons, except that 136115
amounts reported for terminal to terminal transactions shall be 136116
measured in net gallons and amounts reported for terminal to Ohio 136117
licensed dealer transactions shall be measured in both net gallons 136118
and gross gallons. Amounts of liquid natural gas shall be measured 136119
in gallon equivalents as described in section 5735.013 of the 136120
Revised Code.136121

       Sec. 5735.013.  For the purposes of this chapter, if the 136122
national conference on weights and measures has adopted a diesel 136123
gallon equivalent standard for liquid natural gas, that standard 136124
shall be the equivalent of one gallon of motor fuel. If the 136125
national conference on weights and measures has not adopted such a 136126
standard, six and six one-hundredths pounds of liquid natural gas 136127
shall be the equivalent of one gallon of motor fuel.136128

       Sec. 5735.12.  (A) Any motor fuel dealer required by this 136129
chapter to file reports and pay the tax levied by this chapter who 136130
fails to file the report within the time prescribed, may be liable 136131
for an additional charge not exceeding the greater of ten per cent 136132
of the motor fuel dealer's tax liability for that month or fifty 136133
dollars. The tax commissioner may remit all or a portion of the 136134
additional charge and may adopt rules relating to the remission of 136135
all or a portion of the charge.136136

       If any person required by this chapter to file reports and 136137
pay the taxes, interest, or additional charge levied by this 136138
chapter fails to file the report, files an incomplete or incorrect 136139
report, or fails to remit the full amount of the tax, interest, or 136140
additional charge due for the period covered by the report, the 136141
commissioner may make an assessment against the person based upon 136142
any information in the commissioner's possession.136143

       No assessment shall be made against any motor fuel dealer for 136144
taxes imposed by this chapter more than four years after the date 136145
on which the report on which the assessment was based was due or 136146
was filed, whichever is later. This section does not bar an 136147
assessment against any motor fuel dealer who fails to file a 136148
report required by section 5735.06 of the Revised Code, or who 136149
files a fraudulent motor fuel tax report.136150

       A penalty of up to fifteen per cent may be added to the 136151
amount of every assessment made under this section. The 136152
commissioner may adopt rules providing for the imposition and 136153
remission of penalties added to assessments made under this 136154
section.136155

       The commissioner shall give the party assessed written notice 136156
of the assessment in the manner provided in section 5703.37 of the 136157
Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner shall provide 136158
instructions on how to petition for reassessment and request a 136159
hearing on the petition.136160

       (B) Unless the party assessed files with the tax commissioner 136161
within sixty days after service of the notice of assessment, 136162
either personally or by certified mail, a written petition for 136163
reassessment in writing, signed by the party assessed or that 136164
party's authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the 136165
assessment becomes final and the amount of the assessment is due 136166
and payable from the party assessed to the treasurer of state. The 136167
petition shall indicate the objections of the party assessed, but 136168
additional objections may be raised in writing if received by the 136169
commissioner prior to the date shown on the final determination. 136170
If the petition has been properly filed, the commissioner shall 136171
proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised Code.136172

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 136173
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 136174
copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the assessment final 136175
may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common 136176
pleas in the county in which the party assessed resides or in 136177
which the business of the party assessed is conducted. If the 136178
party assessed maintains no place of business in this state and is 136179
not a resident of this state, the certified copy of the entry may 136180
be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common pleas 136181
of Franklin county.136182

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 136183
enter a judgment for the state against the party assessed in the 136184
amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk 136185
in a loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for state motor 136186
fuel tax," and shall have the same effect as other judgments. 136187
Execution shall issue upon the judgment upon the request of the 136188
tax commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales on execution 136189
shall apply to sales made under the judgment.136190

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety136191
within sixty days after the day the assessment was issued, the 136192
portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall bear 136193
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 136194
the Revised Code from the day the commissioner issues the 136195
assessment until it is paid or until it is certified to the 136196
attorney general for collection under section 131.02 of the 136197
Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid portion of the 136198
assessment is certified to the attorney general for collection, 136199
the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear interest at 136200
the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised 136201
Code from the date of certification until the date it is paid in 136202
its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner as the tax 136203
and may be collected by the issuance of an assessment under this 136204
section.136205

       (D) All money collected by the tax commissioner under this 136206
section shall be paid to the treasurer of state, and when paid 136207
shall be considered as revenue arising from the tax imposed by 136208
this chapter.136209

       (E) If the tax commissioner determines that the commissioner 136210
has erroneously refunded motor fuel tax to any person, the 136211
commissioner may make an assessment against the person for 136212
recovery of the erroneously refunded tax.136213

       Sec. 5735.142. (A)(1) Any person who uses any motor fuel, on 136214
which the tax imposed by sections 5735.05, 5735.25, and 5735.29 of 136215
the Revised Code has been paid, for the purpose of operating a 136216
transit bus shall be reimbursed in the amount of such tax paid on 136217
motor fuel used by public transportation systems providing transit 136218
or paratransit service on a regular and continuing basis within 136219
the state;136220

       (2) A city, exempted village, joint vocational, or local 136221
school district or educational service center that purchases any 136222
motor fuel for school district or service center operations, on 136223
which any tax imposed by sectionsections 5735.25 and 5735.29 of 136224
the Revised Code that became effective on or after July 1, 2003,136225
has been paid, may, if an application is filed under this section, 136226
be reimbursed in the amount of all but two cents per gallon of the 136227
totalsuch tax imposed by such section and paid on motor fuel.136228

       (3) A county board of developmental disabilities that, on or 136229
after July 1, 2005, purchases any motor fuel for county board 136230
operations, on which any tax imposed by section 5735.29 of the 136231
Revised Code has been paid may, if an application is filed under 136232
this section, be reimbursed in the amount of all but two cents per 136233
gallon of the total tax imposed by such section and paid on motor 136234
fuel purchased on or after July 1, 2005.136235

       (B) Such person, school district, educational service center, 136236
or county board shall file with the tax commissioner an 136237
application for refund within one year from the date of purchase, 136238
stating the quantity of fuel used for operating transit buses used 136239
by local transit systems in furnishing scheduled common carrier, 136240
public passenger land transportation service along regular routes 136241
primarily in one or more municipal corporations or for operating 136242
vehicles used for school district, service center, or county board 136243
operations. However, no claim shall be made for the tax on fewer 136244
than one hundred gallons of motor fuel. A school district, 136245
educational service center, or county board shall not apply for a 136246
refund for any tax paid on motor fuel that is sold by the 136247
district, service center, or county board. The application shall 136248
be accompanied by the statement described in section 5735.15 of 136249
the Revised Code showing the purchase, together with evidence of 136250
payment thereof.136251

       (C) After consideration of the application and statement, the 136252
commissioner shall determine the amount of refund to which the 136253
applicant is entitled. If the amount is not less than that 136254
claimed, the commissioner shall certify the amount to the director 136255
of budget and management and treasurer of state for payment from 136256
the tax refund fund created by section 5703.052 of the Revised 136257
Code. If the amount is less than that claimed, the commissioner 136258
shall proceed in accordance with section 5703.70 of the Revised 136259
Code.136260

       The commissioner may require that the application be 136261
supported by the affidavit of the claimant. No refund shall be 136262
authorized or ordered for any single claim for the tax on fewer 136263
than one hundred gallons of motor fuel. No refund shall be 136264
authorized or ordered on motor fuel that is sold by a school 136265
district, educational service center, or county board.136266

       (D) The refund authorized by this section or section 5703.70 136267
of the Revised Code shall be reduced by the cents per gallon 136268
amount of any qualified fuel credit received under section 136269
5735.145 of the Revised Code, as determined by the commissioner, 136270
for each gallon of qualified fuel included in the total gallonage 136271
of motor fuel upon which the refund is computed.136272

       (E) The right to receive any refund under this section or 136273
section 5703.70 of the Revised Code is not assignable. The payment 136274
of this refund shall not be made to any person or entity other 136275
than the person or entity originally entitled thereto who used the 136276
motor fuel upon which the claim for refund is based, except that 136277
the refund when allowed and certified, as provided in this 136278
section, may be paid to the executor, the administrator, the 136279
receiver, the trustee in bankruptcy, or the assignee in insolvency 136280
proceedings of the person.136281

       Sec. 5735.27.  (A) There is hereby created in the state 136282
treasury the gasoline excise tax fund, which shall be distributed 136283
in the following manner:136284

       (1) The amount credited pursuant to divisions (B)(2)(a) and 136285
(C)(2)(a) of section 5735.23 of the Revised Code shall be 136286
distributed among municipal corporations. The amount paid to each 136287
municipal corporation shall be that proportion of the amount to be 136288
so distributed that the number of motor vehicles registered within 136289
the municipal corporation bears to the total number of motor 136290
vehicles registered within all the municipal corporations of this 136291
state during the preceding motor vehicle registration year. When a 136292
new village is incorporated, the registrar of motor vehicles shall 136293
determine from the applications on file in the bureau of motor 136294
vehicles the number of motor vehicles located within the territory 136295
comprising the village during the entire registration year in 136296
which the municipal corporation was incorporated. The registrar 136297
shall forthwith certify the number of motor vehicles so determined 136298
to the tax commissioner for use in distributing motor vehicle fuel 136299
tax funds to the village until the village is qualified to 136300
participate in the distribution of the funds pursuant to this 136301
division. The number of motor vehicle registrations shall be 136302
determined by the official records of the bureau of motor 136303
vehicles. The amount received by each municipal corporation shall 136304
be used to plan, construct, reconstruct, repave, widen, maintain, 136305
repair, clear, and clean public highways, roads, and streets; to 136306
maintain and repair bridges and viaducts; to purchase, erect, and 136307
maintain street and traffic signs and markers; to pay the costs 136308
apportioned to the municipal corporation under section 4907.47 of 136309
the Revised Code; to purchase, erect, and maintain traffic lights 136310
and signals; to pay the principal, interest, and charges on bonds 136311
and other obligations issued pursuant to Chapter 133. of the 136312
Revised Code or incurred pursuant to section 5531.09 of the 136313
Revised Code for the purpose of acquiring or constructing roads, 136314
highways, bridges, or viaducts or acquiring or making other 136315
highway improvements for which the municipal corporation may issue 136316
bonds; and to supplement revenue already available for these 136317
purposes.136318

       (2) The amount credited pursuant to division (B) of section 136319
5735.26 of the Revised Code shall be distributed among the 136320
municipal corporations within the state, in the proportion which 136321
the number of motor vehicles registered within each municipal 136322
corporation bears to the total number of motor vehicles registered 136323
within all the municipal corporations of the state during the 136324
preceding calendar year, as shown by the official records of the 136325
bureau of motor vehicles, and shall be expended by each municipal 136326
corporation to plan, construct, reconstruct, repave, widen, 136327
maintain, repair, clear, and clean public highways, roads, and 136328
streets; to maintain and repair bridges and viaducts; to purchase, 136329
erect, and maintain street and traffic signs and markers; to 136330
purchase, erect, and maintain traffic lights and signals; to pay 136331
costs apportioned to the municipal corporation under section 136332
4907.47 of the Revised Code; to pay the principal, interest, and 136333
charges on bonds and other obligations issued pursuant to Chapter 136334
133. of the Revised Code or incurred pursuant to section 5531.09 136335
of the Revised Code for the purpose of acquiring or constructing 136336
roads, highways, bridges, or viaducts or acquiring or making other 136337
highway improvements for which the municipal corporation may issue 136338
bonds; and to supplement revenue already available for these 136339
purposes.136340

       (3) The amount credited pursuant to divisions (B)(2)(b) and 136341
(C)(2)(c) of section 5735.23 of the Revised Code shall be paid in 136342
equal proportions to the county treasurer of each county within 136343
the state and shall be used only for the purposes of planning, 136344
maintaining, and repairing the county system of public roads and 136345
highways within the county; the planning, construction, and repair 136346
of walks or paths along county roads in congested areas; the 136347
planning, construction, purchase, lease, and maintenance of 136348
suitable buildings for the housing and repair of county road 136349
machinery, housing of supplies, and housing of personnel 136350
associated with the machinery and supplies; the payment of costs 136351
apportioned to the county under section 4907.47 of the Revised 136352
Code; the payment of principal, interest, and charges on bonds and 136353
other obligations issued pursuant to Chapter 133. of the Revised 136354
Code or incurred pursuant to section 5531.09 of the Revised Code 136355
for the purpose of acquiring or constructing roads, highways, 136356
bridges, or viaducts or acquiring or making other highway 136357
improvements for which the board of county commissioners may issue 136358
bonds under that chapter; and the purchase, installation, and 136359
maintenance of traffic signal lights.136360

       (4) The amount credited pursuant to division (C) of section 136361
5735.26 of the Revised Code shall be paid in equal proportions to 136362
the county treasurer of each county for the purposes of planning, 136363
maintaining, constructing, widening, and reconstructing the county 136364
system of public roads and highways; paying principal, interest, 136365
and charges on bonds and other obligations issued pursuant to 136366
Chapter 133. of the Revised Code or incurred pursuant to section 136367
5531.09 of the Revised Code for the purpose of acquiring or 136368
constructing roads, highways, bridges, or viaducts or acquiring or 136369
making other highway improvements for which the board of county 136370
commissioners may issue bonds under that chapter; and paying costs 136371
apportioned to the county under section 4907.47 of the Revised 136372
Code.136373

       (5)(a) The amount credited pursuant to division (D) of 136374
section 5735.26 and division (C)(2)(b) of section 5735.23 of the 136375
Revised Code shall be divided in equal proportions among the 136376
townships within the state.136377

       (b) As used in division (A)(5)(b) of this section, the 136378
"formula amount" for any township is the amount that would be 136379
allocated to that township if fifty per cent of the amount 136380
credited to townships pursuant to section 5735.291 of the Revised 136381
Code were allocated among townships in the state proportionate to 136382
the number of centerline miles within the boundaries of the 136383
respective townships, as determined annually by the department of 136384
transportation, and the other fifty per cent of the amount 136385
credited pursuant to section 5735.291 of the Revised Code were 136386
allocated among townships in the state proportionate to the number 136387
of motor vehicles registered within the respective townships, as 136388
determined annually by the records of the bureau of motor 136389
vehicles. The number of centerline miles within the boundaries of 136390
a township shall not include any centerline miles of township 136391
roads that have been placed on nonmaintained status by a board of 136392
township trustees pursuant to section 5571.20 of the Revised Code.136393

       Beginning on August 15, 2003, the tax levied by section 136394
5735.29 of the Revised Code shall be partially allocated to 136395
provide funding for townships. Each township shall receive the 136396
greater of the following two calculations:136397

       (i) The total statewide amount credited to townships under 136398
division (A) of section 5735.291 of the Revised Code divided by 136399
the number of townships in the state at the time of the 136400
calculation;136401

       (ii) Seventy per cent of the formula amount for that 136402
township.136403

       (c) The total difference between the amount of money credited 136404
to townships under division (A) of section 5735.291 of the Revised 136405
Code and the total amount of money required to make all the 136406
payments specified in division (A)(5)(b) of this section shall be 136407
deducted, in accordance with division (B) of section 5735.291 of 136408
the Revised Code, from the revenues resulting from the tax levied 136409
pursuant to section 5735.29 of the Revised Code prior to crediting 136410
portions of such revenues to counties, municipal corporations, and 136411
the highway operating fund.136412

       (d) All amounts credited pursuant to divisions (A)(5)(a) and 136413
(b) of this section shall be paid to the county treasurer of each 136414
county for the total amount payable to the townships within each 136415
of the counties. The county treasurer shall pay to each township 136416
within the county its proportional share of the funds, which shall 136417
be expended by each township only for the purposes of planning, 136418
constructing, maintaining, widening, and reconstructing the public 136419
roads and highways within the township, paying principal, 136420
interest, and charges on bonds and other obligations issued 136421
pursuant to Chapter 133. or 505. of the Revised Code or incurred 136422
pursuant to section 5531.09 of the Revised Code for the purpose of 136423
acquiring or constructing roads, highways, bridges, or viaducts or 136424
acquiring or making other highway improvements for which the board 136425
of township trustees may issue bonds under those chapters, and 136426
paying costs apportioned to the township under section 4907.47 of 136427
the Revised Code.136428

       No part of the funds designated for road and highway purposes 136429
shall be used for any purpose except to pay in whole or part the 136430
contract price of any such work done by contract, or to pay the 136431
cost of labor in planning, constructing, widening, and 136432
reconstructing such roads and highways, and the cost of materials 136433
forming a part of the improvement; provided that the funds may be 136434
used for the purchase of road machinery and equipment and for, the 136435
planning, construction, and maintenance of suitable buildings for 136436
housing road machinery and equipment, and the payment of 136437
principal, interest, and charges on bonds and other obligations 136438
issued pursuant to Chapter 133. or 505. of the Revised Code for 136439
the purpose of purchasing road machinery and equipment or 136440
planning, constructing, and maintaining suitable buildings for 136441
housing road machinery and equipment; and provided that all such 136442
improvement of roads shall be under supervision and direction of 136443
the county engineer as provided in section 5575.07 of the Revised 136444
Code. No obligation against the funds shall be incurred unless 136445
plans and specifications for the improvement, approved by the 136446
county engineer, are on file in the office of the township fiscal 136447
officer, and all contracts for material and for work done by 136448
contract shall be approved by the county engineer before being 136449
signed by the board of township trustees. The board of township 136450
trustees of any township may pass a resolution permitting the 136451
board of county commissioners to expend the township's share of 136452
the funds, or any portion of it, for the improvement of the roads 136453
within the township as may be designated in the resolution.136454

       All investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the 136455
fund.136456

       (B) Amounts credited to the highway operating fund pursuant 136457
to divisions (B)(2)(c) and (C)(2)(d) of section 5735.23 and 136458
division (A) of section 5735.26 of the Revised Code shall be 136459
expended in the following manner:136460

       (1) The amount credited pursuant to divisions (B)(2)(c) and 136461
(C)(2)(d) of section 5735.23 of the Revised Code shall be 136462
apportioned to and expended by the department of transportation 136463
for the purposes of planning, maintaining, repairing, and keeping 136464
in passable condition for travel the roads and highways of the 136465
state required by law to be maintained by the department; paying 136466
the costs apportioned to the state under section 4907.47 of the 136467
Revised Code; paying that portion of the construction cost of a 136468
highway project which a county, township, or municipal corporation 136469
normally would be required to pay, but which the director of 136470
transportation, pursuant to division (B) of section 5531.08 of the 136471
Revised Code, determines instead will be paid from moneys in the 136472
highway operating fund; and paying the costs of the department of 136473
public safety in administering and enforcing the state law 136474
relating to the registration and operation of motor vehicles.136475

       (2) The amount credited pursuant to division (A) of section 136476
5735.26 of the Revised Code shall be used for paying the state's 136477
share of the cost of planning, constructing, widening, 136478
maintaining, and reconstructing the state highways; paying that 136479
portion of the construction cost of a highway project which a 136480
county, township, or municipal corporation normally would be 136481
required to pay, but which the director of transportation, 136482
pursuant to division (B) of section 5531.08 of the Revised Code, 136483
determines instead will be paid from moneys in the highway 136484
operating fund; and also for supplying the state's share of the 136485
cost of eliminating railway grade crossings upon such highways and 136486
costs apportioned to the state under section 4907.47 of the 136487
Revised Code. The director of transportation may expend portions 136488
of such amount upon extensions of state highways within municipal 136489
corporations or upon portions of state highways within municipal 136490
corporations, as is provided by law.136491

       Sec. 5735.34.  (A) If any motor fuel dealer sells that motor 136492
fuel dealer's entire business or discontinues operating that 136493
business, the taxes and any interest and penalties imposed under 136494
this chapter that arose prior to the date of sale or 136495
discontinuation become due and payable immediately. TheWithin 136496
fifteen days after the date of the sale or discontinuation of the 136497
business, the motor fuel dealer shall make a final return within 136498
fifteen days after the date of the sale or discontinuation of the 136499
businessand provide written notification to the tax commissioner 136500
of the sale or discontinuation and the name and contact 136501
information of the purchaser, if applicable. The purchaser of the 136502
business shall withhold a sufficient amount of the purchase money 136503
to cover the amount of such taxes, interest, and penalties due and 136504
unpaid until the seller produces a receipt from the tax 136505
commissioner showing that the taxes, interest, and penalties have 136506
been paid, or until the seller produces a certificate indicating 136507
that no taxes, interest, and penalties are due.136508

       (B) If the purchaser of the business fails to withhold the 136509
purchase money required to be withheld under this section, the 136510
purchaser of the business is personally liable for the payment of 136511
the taxes, interest, and penalties accrued and unpaid during the 136512
operation of the business by the seller, but only to the extent of 136513
the consideration offered for the entire business.136514

       (C) For purposes of this section, "entire business" means 136515
substantially all of the seller's assets determined without regard 136516
to any then existing mortgages, liens, security interests or other 136517
encumbrances attaching to those assets. A person is considered to 136518
have sold the entire business only if the person ceases to qualify 136519
as a motor fuel dealer and has relinquished or the tax 136520
commissioner has canceled the person's motor fuel dealer's 136521
license.136522

       Sec. 5736.01.  As used in this division:136523

       (A) "Calendar quarter" and "person" have the same meanings as 136524
in section 5751.01 of the Revised Code.136525

       (B) "Distribution system" means a bulk transfer or terminal 136526
system for the distribution of motor fuel consisting of 136527
refineries, pipelines, marine vessels, and terminals. For the 136528
purposes of this section, motor fuel that is in a refinery, 136529
pipeline, terminal, or marine vessel that is transporting motor 136530
fuel to a refinery or terminal is in a "distribution system." 136531
Motor fuel is "outside of a distribution system" if the fuel is in 136532
a fuel storage facility, including, but not limited to, a bulk 136533
plant that is not part of a refinery or terminal, the fuel supply 136534
tank of an engine or motor vehicle, a marine vessel transporting 136535
motor fuel to a fuel storage facility that is not in a 136536
distribution system, or a tank car, rail car, trailer, truck, or 136537
other equipment suitable for ground transportation.136538

       (C) "Dyed diesel fuel," "import," "motor fuel," "public 136539
highways," and "terminal" have the same meanings as in section 136540
5735.01 of the Revised Code.136541

       (D) "First sale of motor fuel within this state" means the 136542
initial sale of motor fuel when sold for delivery to a location in 136543
this state.136544

       (E) "Gross receipts" means the total amount received by a 136545
person, without deduction for the cost of goods sold or other 136546
expenses incurred, from the first sale of motor fuel within this 136547
state. For the purposes of division (E) of this section, "amount 136548
received" includes amounts accrued under the accrual method of 136549
accounting. "Gross receipts" shall not include any of the 136550
following amounts:136551

       (1) Receipts derived from the sale of motor fuel when sold 136552
for export to another state;136553

       (2) An amount equal to the federal and state excise taxes 136554
paid by the supplier on the motor fuel;136555

       (3) Bad debts from receipts on the basis of which the tax 136556
imposed by this chapter was paid in a prior quarterly tax payment 136557
period. For the purpose of this division, "bad debts" has the same 136558
meaning as in section 5751.01 of the Revised Code.136559

       (4) Any amount realized from the sale of an account 136560
receivable to the extent the receipts from the underlying 136561
transaction giving rise to the account receivable were included in 136562
the gross receipts of the taxpayer.136563

       (F) "Motor fuel used to propel vehicles on public highways 136564
and waterways" includes motor fuel used for the operation of 136565
licensed motor vehicles employed in the maintenance, construction, 136566
or repair of public highways. "Motor fuel used to propel vehicles 136567
on public highways and waterways" does not include dyed diesel 136568
fuel.136569

       (G) "Rack" means a mechanism capable of delivering motor fuel 136570
from a refinery, terminal, or marine vessel into a railroad tank 136571
car, transport truck, tank wagon, fuel supply tank, marine vessel, 136572
or other means of transport outside of a distribution system.136573

       (H) "Refinery" means a facility used to produce motor fuel 136574
and from which motor fuel may be removed by pipeline, by vessel, 136575
or at a rack.136576

       (I) "Supplier" means either of the following:136577

       (1) A person that sells, exchanges, transfers, or otherwise 136578
distributes motor fuel from a terminal or refinery rack to a point 136579
outside of a distribution system, if the person distributes such 136580
motor fuel at a location in this state;136581

       (2) A person that imports or causes the importation of motor 136582
fuel for sale, exchange, transfer, or other distribution by the 136583
person to a point outside of a distribution system in this state. 136584

       (J) "Tax period" means the calendar quarter on the basis of 136585
which a taxpayer is required to pay the tax imposed under this 136586
chapter.136587

       (K) "Taxpayer" means a person subject to the tax imposed by 136588
this chapter.136589

       (L) "Waterways" means all streams, lakes, ponds, marshes, 136590
water courses, and all other bodies of surface water, natural or 136591
artificial, which are situated wholly or partially within this 136592
state or within its jurisdiction, except private impounded bodies 136593
of water. 136594

       Sec. 5736.02.  (A) Beginning with the tax period that 136595
commences July 1, 2014, and continuing for every tax period 136596
thereafter, there is hereby levied an excise tax on each supplier 136597
measured by the supplier's gross receipts derived from the first 136598
sale of motor fuel within this state. The tax shall be levied at a 136599
rate of six and five-tenths mills for each dollar of the 136600
supplier's gross receipts. 136601

       All revenue from the tax shall be distributed as follows:136602

       (1) All revenue from the tax as measured by gross receipts 136603
derived from the sale of motor fuel used for propelling vehicles 136604
on public highways and waterways shall be used for the purposes of 136605
maintaining the state highway system, funding the enforcement of 136606
traffic laws, and covering the costs of hospitalization of 136607
indigent persons injured in motor vehicle accidents on the public 136608
highways.136609

       (2) All revenue not distributed as required by division 136610
(A)(1) of this section shall be used for the purpose of funding 136611
the needs of this state and its local governments.136612

       (B) The tax imposed by this section is in addition to any 136613
other taxes or fees imposed under the Revised Code.136614

       Sec. 5736.03.  (A) No person shall avoid the tax imposed by 136615
this chapter by receiving motor fuel outside of this state and 136616
transferring the motor fuel into this state within one year. Any 136617
such person shall be considered to have received the fuel in this 136618
state and shall include as gross receipts the value of motor fuel 136619
the person transfers into this state within one year after the 136620
person receives the property outside of this state. 136621

       (B) The tax commissioner may adopt rules necessary to 136622
administer this section.136623

       Sec. 5736.04.  (A) Not later than the tenth day of the second 136624
month after the end of each calendar quarter, every taxpayer shall 136625
file with the tax commissioner a tax return in such form as the 136626
commissioner prescribes. The return shall include, but is not 136627
limited to, the amount of the taxpayer's gross receipts for the 136628
calendar quarter and shall indicate the amount of tax due under 136629
section 5736.02 of the Revised Code for the calendar quarter. The 136630
taxpayer shall indicate on each return the portion of the 136631
taxpayer's gross receipts attributable to motor fuel used for 136632
propelling vehicles on public highways and waterways and the 136633
portion of such receipts attributable to motor fuel used for other 136634
purposes.136635

       (B)(1) The taxpayer shall remit the tax shown to be due on 136636
the return, and, if required by the tax commissioner, file the 136637
return, electronically. The commissioner may require taxpayers to 136638
use the Ohio business gateway as defined in section 718.051 of the 136639
Revised Code to file return returns and remit the tax, or may 136640
provide another means for taxpayers to file and remit the tax 136641
electronically.136642

       (2) A person required by this section to remit taxes or file 136643
returns electronically may apply to the commissioner, on the form 136644
prescribed by the commissioner, to be excused from that 136645
requirement. The commissioner may excuse a person from such 136646
requirement for good cause.136647

       (C) The tax rate with respect to gross receipts for a 136648
calendar quarter is not fixed until the end of the measurement 136649
period for each calendar quarter. The total amount of gross 136650
receipts reported for a given calendar quarter shall be subject to 136651
the tax rate in effect in that quarter.136652

       Sec. 5736.05.  (A) Any taxpayer that fails to file a return 136653
or pay the full amount of the tax due within the period prescribed 136654
therefor under this chapter shall pay a penalty in an amount not 136655
exceeding the greater of fifty dollars or ten per cent of the tax 136656
required to be paid for the tax period.136657

       (B)(1) If any additional tax is found to be due, the tax 136658
commissioner may impose an additional penalty of up to fifteen per 136659
cent on the additional tax found to be due.136660

       (2) Any delinquent payments of the tax made after a taxpayer 136661
is notified of an audit or a tax discrepancy by the commissioner 136662
is subject to the penalty imposed by division (B) of this section. 136663
If an assessment is issued under section 5736.09 of the Revised 136664
Code in connection with such delinquent payments, the payments 136665
shall be credited to the assessment.136666

       (C) If a person required to remit taxes or file a return 136667
electronically under section 5736.04 of the Revised Code fails to 136668
do so, the commissioner may impose a penalty not to exceed the 136669
following:136670

       (1) For either of the first two calendar quarters the person 136671
so fails, five per cent of the amount of the payment that was 136672
required to be remitted;136673

       (2) For the third and any subsequent calendar quarters the 136674
person so fails, ten per cent of the amount of the payment that 136675
was required to be remitted.136676

       (D) The tax commissioner may collect any penalty or interest 136677
imposed by this section in the same manner as the tax imposed 136678
under this chapter. Penalties and interest so collected shall be 136679
considered as revenue arising from the tax imposed under this 136680
chapter.136681

       (E) The tax commissioner may abate all or a portion of any 136682
penalties imposed under this section and may adopt rules governing 136683
such abatements.136684

       (F) If any tax due is not timely paid in accordance with this 136685
chapter, the taxpayer shall pay interest, calculated at the rate 136686
per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code, from 136687
the date the tax payment was due to the date of payment or to the 136688
date an assessment was issued, whichever occurs first.136689

       Sec. 5736.06.  (A) No person subject to the tax imposed by 136690
section 5736.02 of the Revised Code shall distribute, import, or 136691
cause the importation of motor fuel for consumption in this state 136692
without holding a supplier's license issued by the tax 136693
commissioner to engage in such activities.136694

       (B)(1) A person subject to the tax imposed by section 5736.02 136695
of the Revised Code shall, on or before March 1, 2014, or within 136696
thirty days of first becoming subject to the tax imposed by this 136697
chapter, whichever is earlier, apply to the tax commissioner for a 136698
supplier's license on the form prescribed by the commissioner. 136699

       (2) Each person issued a supplier's license under division 136700
(B)(1) of this section shall apply to renew the license on or 136701
before the first day of March of each year.136702

       (3) With each license application submitted under division 136703
(B)(1) or (2) of this section, the applicant shall pay an 136704
application fee equal to one of the following amounts:136705

       (a) If the applicant solely imports or causes the importation 136706
of motor fuel for sale, exchange, or transfer by the person in 136707
this state, three hundred dollars;136708

       (b) If the applicant engages in activities in addition to 136709
those described in division (B)(3)(a) of this section, one 136710
thousand dollars.136711

       If an applicant timely submits an application under division 136712
(B)(1) of this section on or after the first day of September of 136713
any year, the fee that would apply to the applicant under division 136714
(B)(3)(a) or (b) of this section shall be reduced by one-half.136715

       (4) The failure to apply to the commissioner for a supplier's 136716
license does not relieve a person from the requirement to file 136717
returns and pay the tax imposed by this chapter.136718

       (C) The tax commissioner may refuse to issue a license to any 136719
applicant under this section in the following circumstances:136720

       (1) The applicant has previously had any license canceled for 136721
cause by the commissioner.136722

       (2) The commissioner believes that the application is not 136723
filed in good faith or is filed as a subterfuge in an attempt to 136724
procure a license for another person.136725

       (3) The applicant has violated any provision of this chapter.136726

       (D) If the tax commissioner refuses to issue a license to an 136727
applicant under this section, the applicant is entitled to a 136728
refund of the application fee in accordance with section 5736.08 136729
of the Revised Code. All application fees collected under this 136730
section shall be deposited into the motor fuel receipts tax 136731
administration fund created in section 5736.13 of the Revised 136732
Code.136733

       (E) No person shall make a false or fraudulent statement on 136734
an application required by this section.136735

       Sec. 5736.07.  (A) If a taxpayer files a false return, fails 136736
to file a return as required by section 5736.04 of the Revised 136737
Code, or fails to pay the full amount of tax due with a return, 136738
the tax commissioner may revoke the supplier's license issued to 136739
the taxpayer under section 5736.06 of the Revised Code by 136740
notifying the taxpayer in writing of such revocation by certified 136741
mail sent to the last known address of the taxpayer appearing on 136742
the files of the commissioner.136743

       (B) Upon the request of a person that is no longer subject to 136744
the tax imposed by this chapter, the tax commissioner may cancel 136745
the supplier's license issued to the person under section 5736.06 136746
of the Revised Code. The cancellation shall become effective at 136747
the time determined by the commissioner. No license shall be 136748
canceled upon the request of any person unless, prior to the date 136749
of cancellation, the person has paid to the state all taxes 136750
payable by such person under the laws of the state, together with 136751
any interest and penalties.136752

       Sec. 5736.08.  (A) An application for refund to the taxpayer 136753
of the amount of taxes imposed under this chapter that are 136754
overpaid, paid illegally or erroneously, or paid on any illegal or 136755
erroneous assessment shall be filed by the taxpayer with the tax 136756
commissioner, on the form prescribed by the commissioner, within 136757
four years after the date of the illegal or erroneous payment of 136758
the tax, or within any additional period allowed under division 136759
(F) of section 5736.09 of the Revised Code. The applicant shall 136760
provide the amount of the requested refund along with the claimed 136761
reasons for, and documentation to support, the issuance of a 136762
refund. 136763

       (B) On the filing of the refund application, the commissioner 136764
shall determine the amount of refund to which the applicant is 136765
entitled. If the amount is not less than that claimed, the 136766
commissioner shall certify the amount to the director of budget 136767
and management and treasurer of state for payment from the tax 136768
refund fund created under section 5703.052 of the Revised Code. If 136769
the amount is less than that claimed, the commissioner shall 136770
proceed in accordance with section 5703.70 of the Revised Code. 136771

       (C) Interest on a refund applied for under this section, 136772
computed at the rate provided for in section 5703.47 of the 136773
Revised Code, shall be allowed from the later of the date the tax 136774
was paid or when the tax payment was due. 136775

       (D) Except as provided in section 5736.081 of the Revised 136776
Code, the commissioner may provide for the crediting against tax 136777
due for a tax period the amount of any refund due the taxpayer 136778
under this chapter for a preceding tax period. 136779

       Sec. 5736.081.  As used in this section, "debt to this state" 136780
means unpaid taxes due the state, unpaid workers' compensation 136781
premiums due under section 4123.35 of the Revised Code, unpaid 136782
unemployment compensation contributions due under section 4141.25 136783
of the Revised Code, unpaid unemployment compensation payment in 136784
lieu of contribution under section 4141.241 of the Revised Code, 136785
unpaid fees payable to the state or to the clerk of courts 136786
pursuant to section 4505.06 of the Revised Code, incorrect 136787
payments for medicaid services under the medicaid program, or any 136788
unpaid charge, penalty, or interest arising from any of the 136789
foregoing.136790

       If a taxpayer entitled to a refund under section 5736.08 of 136791
the Revised Code owes any debt to this state, the amount 136792
refundable may be applied in satisfaction of the debt. If the 136793
amount refundable is less than the amount of the debt, it may be 136794
applied in partial satisfaction of the debt. If the amount 136795
refundable is greater than the amount of the debt, the amount 136796
remaining after satisfaction of the debt shall be refunded. This 136797
section applies only to debts that have become final. For the 136798
purposes of this section, a debt becomes final when, under the 136799
applicable law, any time provided for petition for reassessment, 136800
request for reconsideration, or other appeal of the legality or 136801
validity of the amount giving rise to the debt expires without an 136802
appeal having been filed in the manner provided by law.136803

       Sec. 5736.09.  (A) The tax commissioner may make an 136804
assessment, based on any information in the commissioner's 136805
possession, against any person that fails to file a return or pay 136806
any tax as required by this chapter. The commissioner shall give 136807
the person assessed written notice of the assessment as provided 136808
in section 5703.37 of the Revised Code. With the notice, the 136809
commissioner shall provide instructions on the manner in which to 136810
petition for reassessment and request a hearing with respect to 136811
the petition.136812

       (B) Unless the person assessed, within sixty days after 136813
service of the notice of assessment, files with the commissioner, 136814
either personally or by certified mail, a written petition signed 136815
by the person or the person's authorized agent having knowledge of 136816
the facts, the assessment becomes final, and the amount of the 136817
assessment is due and payable from the person assessed to the 136818
treasurer of state. The petition shall indicate the objections of 136819
the person assessed, but additional objections may be raised in 136820
writing if received by the commissioner prior to the date shown on 136821
the final determination. 136822

       If a petition for reassessment has been properly filed, the 136823
commissioner shall proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised 136824
Code. 136825

       (C)(1) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of 136826
the assessment, including accrued interest, remains unpaid, a 136827
certified copy of the commissioner's entry making the assessment 136828
final may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of 136829
common pleas in the county in which the person resides or has its 136830
principal place of business in this state, or in the office of the 136831
clerk of court of common pleas of Franklin county. 136832

       (2) Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 136833
enter judgment for the state against the person assessed in the 136834
amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk 136835
in a loose-leaf book entitled, "special judgments for the motor 136836
fuel receipts tax" and shall have the same effect as other 136837
judgments. Execution shall issue upon the judgment at the request 136838
of the commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales on execution 136839
shall apply to sales made under the judgment. 136840

       (3) If the assessment is not paid in its entirety within 136841
sixty days after the day the assessment was issued, the portion of 136842
the assessment consisting of tax due shall bear interest at the 136843
rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code 136844
from the day the commissioner issues the assessment until it is 136845
paid or until it is certified to the attorney general for 136846
collection under section 131.02 of the Revised Code, whichever 136847
comes first. If the unpaid portion of the assessment is certified 136848
to the attorney general for collection, the entire unpaid portion 136849
of the assessment shall bear interest at the rate per annum 136850
prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code from the date of 136851
certification until the date it is paid in its entirety. Interest 136852
shall be paid in the same manner as the tax and may be collected 136853
by the issuance of an assessment under this section.136854

       (D) If the commissioner believes that collection of the tax 136855
will be jeopardized unless proceedings to collect or secure 136856
collection of the tax are instituted without delay, the 136857
commissioner may issue a jeopardy assessment against the person 136858
liable for the tax. Immediately upon the issuance of the jeopardy 136859
assessment, the commissioner shall file an entry with the clerk of 136860
the court of common pleas in the manner prescribed by division (C) 136861
of this section. Notice of the jeopardy assessment shall be served 136862
on the person assessed or the person's authorized agent in the 136863
manner provided in section 5703.37 of the Revised Code within five 136864
days of the filing of the entry with the clerk. The total amount 136865
assessed is immediately due and payable, unless the person 136866
assessed files a petition for reassessment in accordance with 136867
division (B) of this section and provides security in a form 136868
satisfactory to the commissioner and in an amount sufficient to 136869
satisfy the unpaid balance of the assessment. Full or partial 136870
payment of the assessment does not prejudice the commissioner's 136871
consideration of the petition for reassessment. 136872

       (E) The commissioner shall immediately forward to the 136873
treasurer of state all amounts the commissioner receives under 136874
this section, and such amounts shall be considered as revenue 136875
arising from the tax imposed under this chapter. 136876

       (F) Except as otherwise provided in this division, no 136877
assessment shall be made or issued against a taxpayer for the tax 136878
imposed under this chapter more than four years after the due date 136879
for the filing of the return for the tax period for which the tax 136880
was reported, or more than four years after the return for the tax 136881
period was filed, whichever is later. The time limit may be 136882
extended if both the taxpayer and the commissioner consent in 136883
writing to the extension or enter into an agreement waiving or 136884
extending the time limit. Any such extension shall extend the 136885
four-year time limit in division (A) of section 5736.08 of the 136886
Revised Code for the same period of time. Nothing in this division 136887
bars an assessment against a taxpayer that fails to file a return 136888
required by this chapter or that files a fraudulent return.136889

       (G) If the commissioner possesses information that indicates 136890
that the amount of tax a taxpayer is required to pay under this 136891
chapter exceeds the amount the taxpayer paid, the commissioner may 136892
audit a sample of the taxpayer's gross receipts over a 136893
representative period of time to ascertain the amount of tax due, 136894
and may issue an assessment based on the audit. The commissioner 136895
shall make a good faith effort to reach agreement with the 136896
taxpayer in selecting a representative sample. The commissioner 136897
may apply a sampling method only if the commissioner has 136898
prescribed the method by rule. 136899

       (H) If the whereabouts of a person subject to this chapter is 136900
not known to the commissioner, the commissioner shall follow the 136901
procedures under section 5703.37 of the Revised Code.136902

       Sec. 5736.10.  If any person liable for the tax imposed under 136903
this chapter sells the trade or business, disposes in any manner 136904
other than in the regular course of business at least seventy-five 136905
per cent of assets of the trade or business, or quits the trade or 136906
business, any tax owed by such person shall become due and payable 136907
immediately, and the person shall pay the tax under this section, 136908
including any applicable penalties and interest, within forty-five 136909
days after the date of selling or quitting the trade or business. 136910
The person's successor shall withhold a sufficient amount of the 136911
purchase money to cover the amount due and unpaid until the former 136912
owner produces a receipt from the tax commissioner showing that 136913
the amounts are paid or a certificate indicating that no taxes are 136914
due. If a purchaser fails to withhold purchase money, that person 136915
is personally liable up to the purchase money amount, for such 136916
amounts that are unpaid during the operation of the business by 136917
the former owner.136918

       The commissioner may adopt rules regarding the issuance of 136919
certificates under this section, including the waiver of the need 136920
for a certificate if certain criteria are met.136921

       Sec. 5736.11.  If any person subject to this chapter fails to 136922
report or pay the tax as required under this chapter, or fails to 136923
pay any penalty imposed under this chapter within ninety days 136924
after the time prescribed for payment of the penalty, the attorney 136925
general, on the request of the tax commissioner, shall commence an 136926
action in quo warranto in the court of appeals of the county in 136927
which the person has its principal place of business to forfeit 136928
and annul its privileges or franchise within this state. If the 136929
court finds that the person is in default for the amount claimed, 136930
it shall render judgment revoking the person's privileges or 136931
franchise within this state and shall otherwise proceed as 136932
provided in Chapter 2733. of the Revised Code.136933

       Sec. 5736.12.  The tax commissioner may prescribe 136934
requirements for the keeping of records and other pertinent 136935
documents, the filing of copies of federal income tax returns and 136936
determinations, and computations reconciling federal income tax 136937
returns with the returns and reports required by section 5736.04 136938
of the Revised Code. The commissioner may require any person, by 136939
rule or notice served on that person, to keep those records that 136940
the commissioner considers necessary to show whether, and the 136941
extent to which, a person is subject to this chapter. Those 136942
records and other documents shall be open during business hours to 136943
the inspection of the commissioner, and shall be preserved for a 136944
period of four years unless the commissioner, in writing, consents 136945
to their destruction within that period, or by order requires that 136946
they be kept longer. If such records are normally kept by the 136947
person electronically, the person shall provide such records to 136948
the commissioner electronically at the commissioner's request.136949

       Sec. 5736.13.  (A) For the purpose of receiving, accounting 136950
for, and distributing revenue received from the tax imposed by 136951
section 5736.02 of the Revised Code, the following funds are 136952
hereby created in the state treasury:136953

       (1) The motor fuel receipts tax fund;136954

       (2) The motor fuel receipts tax administration fund. All 136955
amounts credited to the motor fuel receipts tax administration 136956
fund shall be used solely for the purpose of paying the expenses 136957
of the department of taxation incident to the administration of 136958
the tax imposed by section 5736.02 of the Revised Code. 136959

       (3) The motor fuel receipts tax public highways fund.136960

       (B) All money collected from the tax imposed by section 136961
5736.02 of the Revised Code shall be deposited into the motor fuel 136962
receipts tax fund. 136963

       (C) From the motor fuel receipts tax fund, the director of 136964
budget and management shall place to the credit of the tax refund 136965
fund established by section 5703.052 of the Revised Code amounts 136966
equal to the refunds certified by the tax commissioner pursuant to 136967
section 5736.08 of the Revised Code.136968

       (D) Not later than the last day of March, June, September, 136969
and December of each year, the director of budget and management 136970
shall provide for the transfer of the balance of the motor fuel 136971
receipts tax fund as of the last day of the preceding month, 136972
excluding any amounts required to be transferred as provided in 136973
division (C) of this section, as follows:136974

       (1) To the motor fuel receipts tax administration fund, one 136975
per cent;136976

       (2) To the motor fuel receipts tax public highways fund, an 136977
amount that bears the same ratio to the balance in the motor fuel 136978
tax receipts fund, after subtracting the amount transferred under 136979
division (D)(1) of this section, that (a) the gross receipts 136980
attributed to motor fuel used for propelling vehicles on public 136981
highways and waterways as indicated by returns filed by the last 136982
day of the preceding month, bears to (b) all gross receipts as 136983
indicated by those returns;136984

       (3) To the general revenue fund, the amount remaining after 136985
the transfers required by divisions (D)(1) and (2) of this 136986
section.136987

       Sec. 5736.14.  (A)(1) If any person, regardless of 136988
organizational form, required to file reports and to remit taxes 136989
imposed under this chapter fails for any reason to file such 136990
reports or pay such taxes, any employees of the person having 136991
control or supervision of, or charged with the responsibility of, 136992
filing reports and making payments, or any officers or trustees of 136993
the person responsible for the execution of the person's fiscal 136994
responsibilities, are personally liable for the failure.136995

       (2) The dissolution, termination, or bankruptcy of a person 136996
shall not discharge a responsible officer's, shareholder's, 136997
member's, manager's, employee's, or trustee's liability for 136998
failure of the person to file reports or remit taxes. The sum due 136999
for the liability may be collected by assessment in the manner 137000
provided in section 5736.09 of the Revised Code. 137001

       (B) If more than one individual is personally liable under 137002
this section for the unpaid tax of a person, then the liability of 137003
all such individuals shall be joint and several. 137004

       Sec. 5736.99.  (A) Any person that files a fraudulent refund 137005
claim under section 5736.08 of the Revised Code shall be fined the 137006
greater of not more than one thousand dollars or the amount of the 137007
fraudulent refund requested or imprisoned not more than sixty 137008
days, or both.137009

       (B) Except as provided in this section, whoever violates any 137010
section of this chapter, or any rule adopted by the tax 137011
commissioner under this chapter, shall be fined not more than five 137012
hundred dollars or imprisoned not more than thirty days, or both.137013

       (C) Any person that is subject to the tax imposed by this 137014
chapter and that is found to be engaged in distributing, 137015
importing, or causing the importation of motor fuel for 137016
consumption in this state without a license as required by section 137017
5736.06 of the Revised Code shall be fined not more than one 137018
thousand dollars or imprisoned not more than one hundred eighty 137019
days, or both.137020

       (D) The penalties provided in this section are in addition to 137021
any penalties imposed by the tax commissioner under section 137022
5736.05 of the Revised Code.137023

       Sec. 5739.01.  As used in this chapter:137024

       (A) "Person" includes individuals, receivers, assignees, 137025
trustees in bankruptcy, estates, firms, partnerships, 137026
associations, joint-stock companies, joint ventures, clubs, 137027
societies, corporations, the state and its political subdivisions, 137028
and combinations of individuals of any form.137029

       (B) "Sale" and "selling" include all of the following 137030
transactions for a consideration in any manner, whether absolutely 137031
or conditionally, whether for a price or rental, in money or by 137032
exchange, and by any means whatsoever:137033

       (1) All transactions by which title or possession, or both, 137034
of tangible personal property, is or is to be transferred, or a 137035
license to use or consume tangible personal property is or is to 137036
be granted;137037

       (2) All transactions by which lodging by a hotel is or is to 137038
be furnished to transient guests;137039

       (3) All transactions by which:137040

       (a) An item of tangible personal property is or is to be 137041
repaired, except property, the purchase of which would not be 137042
subject to the tax imposed by section 5739.02 of the Revised Code;137043

       (b) An item of tangible personal property is or is to be 137044
installed, except property, the purchase of which would not be 137045
subject to the tax imposed by section 5739.02 of the Revised Code 137046
or property that is or is to be incorporated into and will become 137047
a part of a production, transmission, transportation, or 137048
distribution system for the delivery of a public utility service;137049

       (c) The service of washing, cleaning, waxing, polishing, or 137050
painting a motor vehicle is or is to be furnished;137051

       (d) Until August 1, 2003, industrial laundry cleaning 137052
services are or are to be provided and, on and after August 1, 137053
2003, laundry and dry cleaning services are or are to be provided;137054

       (e) Automatic data processing, computer services, or 137055
electronic information services are or are to be provided for use 137056
in business when the true object of the transaction is the receipt 137057
by the consumer of automatic data processing, computer services, 137058
or electronic information services rather than the receipt of 137059
personal or professional services to which automatic data 137060
processing, computer services, or electronic information services 137061
are incidental or supplemental. Notwithstanding any other 137062
provision of this chapter, such transactions that occur between 137063
members of an affiliated group are not sales. An "affiliated 137064
group" means two or more persons related in such a way that one 137065
person owns or controls the business operation of another member 137066
of the group. In the case of corporations with stock, one 137067
corporation owns or controls another if it owns more than fifty 137068
per cent of the other corporation's common stock with voting 137069
rights.137070

       (f) Telecommunications service, including prepaid calling 137071
service, prepaid wireless calling service, or ancillary service, 137072
is or is to be provided, but not including coin-operated telephone 137073
service;137074

       (g) Landscaping and lawn care service is or is to be 137075
provided;137076

       (h) Private investigation and security service is or is to be 137077
provided;137078

       (i) Information services or tangible personal property is 137079
provided or ordered by means of a nine hundred telephone call;137080

       (j) Building maintenance and janitorial service is or is to 137081
be provided;137082

       (k) Employment service is or is to be provided;137083

       (l) Employment placement service is or is to be provided;137084

       (m) Exterminating service is or is to be provided;137085

       (n) Physical fitness facility service is or is to be 137086
provided;137087

       (o) Recreation and sports club service is or is to be 137088
provided;137089

       (p) On and after August 1, 2003, satellite broadcasting 137090
service is or is to be provided;137091

       (q) On and after August 1, 2003, personal care service is or 137092
is to be provided to an individual. As used in this division, 137093
"personal care service" includes skin care, the application of 137094
cosmetics, manicuring, pedicuring, hair removal, tattooing, body 137095
piercing, tanning, massage, and other similar services. "Personal 137096
care service" does not include a service provided by or on the 137097
order of a licensed physician or licensed chiropractor, or the 137098
cutting, coloring, or styling of an individual's hair.137099

       (r) On and after August 1, 2003, the transportation of 137100
persons by motor vehicle or aircraft is or is to be provided, when 137101
the transportation is entirely within this state, except for 137102
transportation provided by an ambulance service, by a transit bus, 137103
as defined in section 5735.01 of the Revised Code, and 137104
transportation provided by a citizen of the United States holding 137105
a certificate of public convenience and necessity issued under 49 137106
U.S.C. 41102;137107

       (s) On and after August 1, 2003, motor vehicle towing service 137108
is or is to be provided. As used in this division, "motor vehicle 137109
towing service" means the towing or conveyance of a wrecked, 137110
disabled, or illegally parked motor vehicle.137111

        (t) On and after August 1, 2003, snow removal service is or 137112
is to be provided. As used in this division, "snow removal 137113
service" means the removal of snow by any mechanized means, but 137114
does not include the providing of such service by a person that 137115
has less than five thousand dollars in sales of such service 137116
during the calendar year.137117

       (u) Electronic publishing service is or is to be provided to 137118
a consumer for use in business, except that such transactions 137119
occurring between members of an affiliated group, as defined in 137120
division (B)(3)(e) of this section, are not sales.137121

       (4) All transactions by which printed, imprinted, 137122
overprinted, lithographic, multilithic, blueprinted, photostatic, 137123
or other productions or reproductions of written or graphic matter 137124
are or are to be furnished or transferred;137125

       (5) The production or fabrication of tangible personal 137126
property for a consideration for consumers who furnish either 137127
directly or indirectly the materials used in the production of 137128
fabrication work; and include the furnishing, preparing, or 137129
serving for a consideration of any tangible personal property 137130
consumed on the premises of the person furnishing, preparing, or 137131
serving such tangible personal property. Except as provided in 137132
section 5739.03 of the Revised Code, a construction contract 137133
pursuant to which tangible personal property is or is to be 137134
incorporated into a structure or improvement on and becoming a 137135
part of real property is not a sale of such tangible personal 137136
property. The construction contractor is the consumer of such 137137
tangible personal property, provided that the sale and 137138
installation of carpeting, the sale and installation of 137139
agricultural land tile, the sale and erection or installation of 137140
portable grain bins, or the provision of landscaping and lawn care 137141
service and the transfer of property as part of such service is 137142
never a construction contract.137143

       As used in division (B)(5) of this section:137144

       (a) "Agricultural land tile" means fired clay or concrete 137145
tile, or flexible or rigid perforated plastic pipe or tubing, 137146
incorporated or to be incorporated into a subsurface drainage 137147
system appurtenant to land used or to be used primarily in 137148
production by farming, agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture. 137149
The term does not include such materials when they are or are to 137150
be incorporated into a drainage system appurtenant to a building 137151
or structure even if the building or structure is used or to be 137152
used in such production.137153

       (b) "Portable grain bin" means a structure that is used or to 137154
be used by a person engaged in farming or agriculture to shelter 137155
the person's grain and that is designed to be disassembled without 137156
significant damage to its component parts.137157

       (6) All transactions in which all of the shares of stock of a 137158
closely held corporation are transferred, or an ownership interest 137159
in a pass-through entity, as defined in section 5733.04 of the 137160
Revised Code, is transferred, if the corporation or pass-through 137161
entity is not engaging in business and its entire assets consist 137162
of boats, planes, motor vehicles, or other tangible personal 137163
property operated primarily for the use and enjoyment of the 137164
shareholders or owners;137165

       (7) All transactions in which a warranty, maintenance or 137166
service contract, or similar agreement by which the vendor of the 137167
warranty, contract, or agreement agrees to repair or maintain the 137168
tangible personal property of the consumer is or is to be 137169
provided;137170

       (8) The transfer of copyrighted motion picture films used 137171
solely for advertising purposes, except that the transfer of such 137172
films for exhibition purposes is not a sale;137173

       (9) On and after August 1, 2003, all transactions by which 137174
tangible personal property is or is to be stored, except such 137175
property that the consumer of the storage holds for sale in the 137176
regular course of business;137177

       (10) All transactions in which "guaranteed auto protection" 137178
is provided whereby a person promises to pay to the consumer the 137179
difference between the amount the consumer receives from motor 137180
vehicle insurance and the amount the consumer owes to a person 137181
holding title to or a lien on the consumer's motor vehicle in the 137182
event the consumer's motor vehicle suffers a total loss under the 137183
terms of the motor vehicle insurance policy or is stolen and not 137184
recovered, if the protection and its price are included in the 137185
purchase or lease agreement;137186

       (11)(a) Except as provided in division (B)(11)(b) of this 137187
section, on and after October 1, 2009, all transactions by which 137188
health care services are paid for, reimbursed, provided, 137189
delivered, arranged for, or otherwise made available by a medicaid 137190
health insuring corporation pursuant to the corporation's contract 137191
with the state.137192

       (b) If the centers for medicare and medicaid services of the 137193
United States department of health and human services determines 137194
that the taxation of transactions described in division (B)(11)(a) 137195
of this section constitutes an impermissible health care-related 137196
tax under section 1903(w) of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 137197
620 (1935)section 1903(w), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w), as amended, and 137198
regulations adopted thereunder, the medicaid director of job and 137199
family services shall notify the tax commissioner of that 137200
determination. Beginning with the first day of the month following 137201
that notification, the transactions described in division 137202
(B)(11)(a) of this section are not sales for the purposes of this 137203
chapter or Chapter 5741. of the Revised Code. The tax commissioner 137204
shall order that the collection of taxes under sections 5739.02, 137205
5739.021, 5739.023, 5739.026, 5741.02, 5741.021, 5741.022, and 137206
5741.023 of the Revised Code shall cease for transactions 137207
occurring on or after that date.137208

       Except as provided in this section, "sale" and "selling" do 137209
not include transfers of interest in leased property where the 137210
original lessee and the terms of the original lease agreement 137211
remain unchanged, or professional, insurance, or personal service 137212
transactions that involve the transfer of tangible personal 137213
property as an inconsequential element, for which no separate 137214
charges are made.137215

       (C) "Vendor" means the person providing the service or by 137216
whom the transfer effected or license given by a sale is or is to 137217
be made or given and, for sales described in division (B)(3)(i) of 137218
this section, the telecommunications service vendor that provides 137219
the nine hundred telephone service; if two or more persons are 137220
engaged in business at the same place of business under a single 137221
trade name in which all collections on account of sales by each 137222
are made, such persons shall constitute a single vendor.137223

       Physicians, dentists, hospitals, and veterinarians who are 137224
engaged in selling tangible personal property as received from 137225
others, such as eyeglasses, mouthwashes, dentifrices, or similar 137226
articles, are vendors. Veterinarians who are engaged in 137227
transferring to others for a consideration drugs, the dispensing 137228
of which does not require an order of a licensed veterinarian or 137229
physician under federal law, are vendors.137230

       (D)(1) "Consumer" means the person for whom the service is 137231
provided, to whom the transfer effected or license given by a sale 137232
is or is to be made or given, to whom the service described in 137233
division (B)(3)(f) or (i) of this section is charged, or to whom 137234
the admission is granted.137235

       (2) Physicians, dentists, hospitals, and blood banks operated 137236
by nonprofit institutions and persons licensed to practice 137237
veterinary medicine, surgery, and dentistry are consumers of all 137238
tangible personal property and services purchased by them in 137239
connection with the practice of medicine, dentistry, the rendition 137240
of hospital or blood bank service, or the practice of veterinary 137241
medicine, surgery, and dentistry. In addition to being consumers 137242
of drugs administered by them or by their assistants according to 137243
their direction, veterinarians also are consumers of drugs that 137244
under federal law may be dispensed only by or upon the order of a 137245
licensed veterinarian or physician, when transferred by them to 137246
others for a consideration to provide treatment to animals as 137247
directed by the veterinarian.137248

       (3) A person who performs a facility management, or similar 137249
service contract for a contractee is a consumer of all tangible 137250
personal property and services purchased for use in connection 137251
with the performance of such contract, regardless of whether title 137252
to any such property vests in the contractee. The purchase of such 137253
property and services is not subject to the exception for resale 137254
under division (E)(1) of this section.137255

       (4)(a) In the case of a person who purchases printed matter 137256
for the purpose of distributing it or having it distributed to the 137257
public or to a designated segment of the public, free of charge, 137258
that person is the consumer of that printed matter, and the 137259
purchase of that printed matter for that purpose is a sale.137260

       (b) In the case of a person who produces, rather than 137261
purchases, printed matter for the purpose of distributing it or 137262
having it distributed to the public or to a designated segment of 137263
the public, free of charge, that person is the consumer of all 137264
tangible personal property and services purchased for use or 137265
consumption in the production of that printed matter. That person 137266
is not entitled to claim exemption under division (B)(42)(f) of 137267
section 5739.02 of the Revised Code for any material incorporated 137268
into the printed matter or any equipment, supplies, or services 137269
primarily used to produce the printed matter.137270

       (c) The distribution of printed matter to the public or to a 137271
designated segment of the public, free of charge, is not a sale to 137272
the members of the public to whom the printed matter is 137273
distributed or to any persons who purchase space in the printed 137274
matter for advertising or other purposes.137275

       (5) A person who makes sales of any of the services listed in 137276
division (B)(3) of this section is the consumer of any tangible 137277
personal property used in performing the service. The purchase of 137278
that property is not subject to the resale exception under 137279
division (E)(1) of this section.137280

       (6) A person who engages in highway transportation for hire 137281
is the consumer of all packaging materials purchased by that 137282
person and used in performing the service, except for packaging 137283
materials sold by such person in a transaction separate from the 137284
service.137285

       (7) In the case of a transaction for health care services 137286
under division (B)(11) of this section, a medicaid health insuring 137287
corporation is the consumer of such services. The purchase of such 137288
services by a medicaid health insuring corporation is not subject 137289
to the exception for resale under division (E)(1) of this section 137290
or to the exemptions provided under divisions (B)(12), (18), (19), 137291
and (22) of section 5739.02 of the Revised Code.137292

       (E) "Retail sale" and "sales at retail" include all sales, 137293
except those in which the purpose of the consumer is to resell the 137294
thing transferred or benefit of the service provided, by a person 137295
engaging in business, in the form in which the same is, or is to 137296
be, received by the person.137297

       (F) "Business" includes any activity engaged in by any person 137298
with the object of gain, benefit, or advantage, either direct or 137299
indirect. "Business" does not include the activity of a person in 137300
managing and investing the person's own funds.137301

       (G) "Engaging in business" means commencing, conducting, or 137302
continuing in business, and liquidating a business when the 137303
liquidator thereof holds itself out to the public as conducting 137304
such business. Making a casual sale is not engaging in business.137305

       (H)(1)(a) "Price," except as provided in divisions (H)(2), 137306
(3), and (4) of this section, means the total amount of 137307
consideration, including cash, credit, property, and services, for 137308
which tangible personal property or services are sold, leased, or 137309
rented, valued in money, whether received in money or otherwise, 137310
without any deduction for any of the following:137311

       (i) The vendor's cost of the property sold;137312

       (ii) The cost of materials used, labor or service costs, 137313
interest, losses, all costs of transportation to the vendor, all 137314
taxes imposed on the vendor, including the tax imposed under 137315
Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code, and any other expense of the 137316
vendor;137317

       (iii) Charges by the vendor for any services necessary to 137318
complete the sale;137319

       (iv) On and after August 1, 2003, delivery charges. As used 137320
in this division, "delivery charges" means charges by the vendor 137321
for preparation and delivery to a location designated by the 137322
consumer of tangible personal property or a service, including 137323
transportation, shipping, postage, handling, crating, and packing.137324

       (v) Installation charges;137325

       (vi) Credit for any trade-in.137326

       (b) "Price" includes consideration received by the vendor 137327
from a third party, if the vendor actually receives the 137328
consideration from a party other than the consumer, and the 137329
consideration is directly related to a price reduction or discount 137330
on the sale; the vendor has an obligation to pass the price 137331
reduction or discount through to the consumer; the amount of the 137332
consideration attributable to the sale is fixed and determinable 137333
by the vendor at the time of the sale of the item to the consumer; 137334
and one of the following criteria is met:137335

       (i) The consumer presents a coupon, certificate, or other 137336
document to the vendor to claim a price reduction or discount 137337
where the coupon, certificate, or document is authorized, 137338
distributed, or granted by a third party with the understanding 137339
that the third party will reimburse any vendor to whom the coupon, 137340
certificate, or document is presented;137341

       (ii) The consumer identifies the consumer's self to the 137342
seller as a member of a group or organization entitled to a price 137343
reduction or discount. A preferred customer card that is available 137344
to any patron does not constitute membership in such a group or 137345
organization.137346

       (iii) The price reduction or discount is identified as a 137347
third party price reduction or discount on the invoice received by 137348
the consumer, or on a coupon, certificate, or other document 137349
presented by the consumer.137350

       (c) "Price" does not include any of the following:137351

       (i) Discounts, including cash, term, or coupons that are not 137352
reimbursed by a third party that are allowed by a vendor and taken 137353
by a consumer on a sale;137354

       (ii) Interest, financing, and carrying charges from credit 137355
extended on the sale of tangible personal property or services, if 137356
the amount is separately stated on the invoice, bill of sale, or 137357
similar document given to the purchaser;137358

       (iii) Any taxes legally imposed directly on the consumer that 137359
are separately stated on the invoice, bill of sale, or similar 137360
document given to the consumer. For the purpose of this division, 137361
the tax imposed under Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code is not a 137362
tax directly on the consumer, even if the tax or a portion thereof 137363
is separately stated.137364

       (iv) Notwithstanding divisions (H)(1)(b)(i) to (iii) of this 137365
section, any discount allowed by an automobile manufacturer to its 137366
employee, or to the employee of a supplier, on the purchase of a 137367
new motor vehicle from a new motor vehicle dealer in this state.137368

       (v) The dollar value of a gift card that is not sold by a 137369
vendor or purchased by a consumer and that is redeemed by the 137370
consumer in purchasing tangible personal property or services if 137371
the vendor is not reimbursed and does not receive compensation 137372
from a third party to cover all or part of the gift card value. 137373
For the purposes of this division, a gift card is not sold by a 137374
vendor or purchased by a consumer if it is distributed pursuant to 137375
an awards, loyalty, or promotional program. Past and present 137376
purchases of tangible personal property or services by the 137377
consumer shall not be treated as consideration exchanged for a 137378
gift card.137379

       (2) In the case of a sale of any new motor vehicle by a new 137380
motor vehicle dealer, as defined in section 4517.01 of the Revised 137381
Code, in which another motor vehicle is accepted by the dealer as 137382
part of the consideration received, "price" has the same meaning 137383
as in division (H)(1) of this section, reduced by the credit 137384
afforded the consumer by the dealer for the motor vehicle received 137385
in trade.137386

       (3) In the case of a sale of any watercraft or outboard motor 137387
by a watercraft dealer licensed in accordance with section 137388
1547.543 of the Revised Code, in which another watercraft, 137389
watercraft and trailer, or outboard motor is accepted by the 137390
dealer as part of the consideration received, "price" has the same 137391
meaning as in division (H)(1) of this section, reduced by the 137392
credit afforded the consumer by the dealer for the watercraft, 137393
watercraft and trailer, or outboard motor received in trade. As 137394
used in this division, "watercraft" includes an outdrive unit 137395
attached to the watercraft.137396

       (4) In the case of transactions for health care services 137397
under division (B)(11) of this section, "price" means the amount 137398
of managed care premiums received each month by a medicaid health 137399
insuring corporation.137400

       (I) "Receipts" means the total amount of the prices of the 137401
sales of vendors, provided that the dollar value of gift cards 137402
distributed pursuant to an awards, loyalty, or promotional 137403
program, and cash discounts allowed and taken on sales at the time 137404
they are consummated are not included, minus any amount deducted 137405
as a bad debt pursuant to section 5739.121 of the Revised Code. 137406
"Receipts" does not include the sale price of property returned or 137407
services rejected by consumers when the full sale price and tax 137408
are refunded either in cash or by credit.137409

       (J) "Place of business" means any location at which a person 137410
engages in business.137411

       (K) "Premises" includes any real property or portion thereof 137412
upon which any person engages in selling tangible personal 137413
property at retail or making retail sales and also includes any 137414
real property or portion thereof designated for, or devoted to, 137415
use in conjunction with the business engaged in by such person.137416

       (L) "Casual sale" means a sale of an item of tangible 137417
personal property that was obtained by the person making the sale, 137418
through purchase or otherwise, for the person's own use and was 137419
previously subject to any state's taxing jurisdiction on its sale 137420
or use, and includes such items acquired for the seller's use that 137421
are sold by an auctioneer employed directly by the person for such 137422
purpose, provided the location of such sales is not the 137423
auctioneer's permanent place of business. As used in this 137424
division, "permanent place of business" includes any location 137425
where such auctioneer has conducted more than two auctions during 137426
the year.137427

       (M) "Hotel" means every establishment kept, used, maintained, 137428
advertised, or held out to the public to be a place where sleeping 137429
accommodations are offered to guests, in which five or more rooms 137430
are used for the accommodation of such guests, whether the rooms 137431
are in one or several structures, except as otherwise provided in 137432
division (G) of section 5739.09 of the Revised Code.137433

       (N) "Transient guests" means persons occupying a room or 137434
rooms for sleeping accommodations for less than thirty consecutive 137435
days.137436

       (O) "Making retail sales" means the effecting of transactions 137437
wherein one party is obligated to pay the price and the other 137438
party is obligated to provide a service or to transfer title to or 137439
possession of the item sold. "Making retail sales" does not 137440
include the preliminary acts of promoting or soliciting the retail 137441
sales, other than the distribution of printed matter which 137442
displays or describes and prices the item offered for sale, nor 137443
does it include delivery of a predetermined quantity of tangible 137444
personal property or transportation of property or personnel to or 137445
from a place where a service is performed.137446

       (P) "Used directly in the rendition of a public utility 137447
service" means that property that is to be incorporated into and 137448
will become a part of the consumer's production, transmission, 137449
transportation, or distribution system and that retains its 137450
classification as tangible personal property after such 137451
incorporation; fuel or power used in the production, transmission, 137452
transportation, or distribution system; and tangible personal 137453
property used in the repair and maintenance of the production, 137454
transmission, transportation, or distribution system, including 137455
only such motor vehicles as are specially designed and equipped 137456
for such use. Tangible personal property and services used 137457
primarily in providing highway transportation for hire are not 137458
used directly in the rendition of a public utility service. In 137459
this definition, "public utility" includes a citizen of the United 137460
States holding, and required to hold, a certificate of public 137461
convenience and necessity issued under 49 U.S.C. 41102.137462

       (Q) "Refining" means removing or separating a desirable 137463
product from raw or contaminated materials by distillation or 137464
physical, mechanical, or chemical processes.137465

       (R) "Assembly" and "assembling" mean attaching or fitting 137466
together parts to form a product, but do not include packaging a 137467
product.137468

       (S) "Manufacturing operation" means a process in which 137469
materials are changed, converted, or transformed into a different 137470
state or form from which they previously existed and includes 137471
refining materials, assembling parts, and preparing raw materials 137472
and parts by mixing, measuring, blending, or otherwise committing 137473
such materials or parts to the manufacturing process. 137474
"Manufacturing operation" does not include packaging.137475

       (T) "Fiscal officer" means, with respect to a regional 137476
transit authority, the secretary-treasurer thereof, and with 137477
respect to a county that is a transit authority, the fiscal 137478
officer of the county transit board if one is appointed pursuant 137479
to section 306.03 of the Revised Code or the county auditor if the 137480
board of county commissioners operates the county transit system.137481

       (U) "Transit authority" means a regional transit authority 137482
created pursuant to section 306.31 of the Revised Code or a county 137483
in which a county transit system is created pursuant to section 137484
306.01 of the Revised Code. For the purposes of this chapter, a 137485
transit authority must extend to at least the entire area of a 137486
single county. A transit authority that includes territory in more 137487
than one county must include all the area of the most populous 137488
county that is a part of such transit authority. County population 137489
shall be measured by the most recent census taken by the United 137490
States census bureau.137491

       (V) "Legislative authority" means, with respect to a regional 137492
transit authority, the board of trustees thereof, and with respect 137493
to a county that is a transit authority, the board of county 137494
commissioners.137495

       (W) "Territory of the transit authority" means all of the 137496
area included within the territorial boundaries of a transit 137497
authority as they from time to time exist. Such territorial 137498
boundaries must at all times include all the area of a single 137499
county or all the area of the most populous county that is a part 137500
of such transit authority. County population shall be measured by 137501
the most recent census taken by the United States census bureau.137502

       (X) "Providing a service" means providing or furnishing 137503
anything described in division (B)(3) of this section for 137504
consideration.137505

       (Y)(1)(a) "Automatic data processing" means processing of 137506
others' data, including keypunching or similar data entry services 137507
together with verification thereof, or providing access to 137508
computer equipment for the purpose of processing data.137509

       (b) "Computer services" means providing services consisting 137510
of specifying computer hardware configurations and evaluating 137511
technical processing characteristics, computer programming, and 137512
training of computer programmers and operators, provided in 137513
conjunction with and to support the sale, lease, or operation of 137514
taxable computer equipment or systems.137515

       (c) "Electronic information services" means providing access 137516
to computer equipment by means of telecommunications equipment for 137517
the purpose of either of the following:137518

       (i) Examining or acquiring data stored in or accessible to 137519
the computer equipment;137520

       (ii) Placing data into the computer equipment to be retrieved 137521
by designated recipients with access to the computer equipment.137522

       For transactions occurring on or after the effective date of 137523
the amendment of this section by H.B. 157 of the 127th general 137524
assembly, December 21, 2007, "electronic information services" 137525
does not include electronic publishing as defined in division 137526
(LLL) of this section.137527

       (d) "Automatic data processing, computer services, or 137528
electronic information services" shall not include personal or 137529
professional services.137530

       (2) As used in divisions (B)(3)(e) and (Y)(1) of this 137531
section, "personal and professional services" means all services 137532
other than automatic data processing, computer services, or 137533
electronic information services, including but not limited to:137534

       (a) Accounting and legal services such as advice on tax 137535
matters, asset management, budgetary matters, quality control, 137536
information security, and auditing and any other situation where 137537
the service provider receives data or information and studies, 137538
alters, analyzes, interprets, or adjusts such material;137539

       (b) Analyzing business policies and procedures;137540

       (c) Identifying management information needs;137541

       (d) Feasibility studies, including economic and technical 137542
analysis of existing or potential computer hardware or software 137543
needs and alternatives;137544

       (e) Designing policies, procedures, and custom software for 137545
collecting business information, and determining how data should 137546
be summarized, sequenced, formatted, processed, controlled, and 137547
reported so that it will be meaningful to management;137548

       (f) Developing policies and procedures that document how 137549
business events and transactions are to be authorized, executed, 137550
and controlled;137551

       (g) Testing of business procedures;137552

       (h) Training personnel in business procedure applications;137553

       (i) Providing credit information to users of such information 137554
by a consumer reporting agency, as defined in the "Fair Credit 137555
Reporting Act," 84 Stat. 1114, 1129 (1970), 15 U.S.C. 1681a(f), or 137556
as hereafter amended, including but not limited to gathering, 137557
organizing, analyzing, recording, and furnishing such information 137558
by any oral, written, graphic, or electronic medium;137559

       (j) Providing debt collection services by any oral, written, 137560
graphic, or electronic means.137561

       The services listed in divisions (Y)(2)(a) to (j) of this 137562
section are not automatic data processing or computer services.137563

       (Z) "Highway transportation for hire" means the 137564
transportation of personal property belonging to others for 137565
consideration by any of the following:137566

       (1) The holder of a permit or certificate issued by this 137567
state or the United States authorizing the holder to engage in 137568
transportation of personal property belonging to others for 137569
consideration over or on highways, roadways, streets, or any 137570
similar public thoroughfare;137571

       (2) A person who engages in the transportation of personal 137572
property belonging to others for consideration over or on 137573
highways, roadways, streets, or any similar public thoroughfare 137574
but who could not have engaged in such transportation on December 137575
11, 1985, unless the person was the holder of a permit or 137576
certificate of the types described in division (Z)(1) of this 137577
section;137578

       (3) A person who leases a motor vehicle to and operates it 137579
for a person described by division (Z)(1) or (2) of this section.137580

       (AA)(1) "Telecommunications service" means the electronic 137581
transmission, conveyance, or routing of voice, data, audio, video, 137582
or any other information or signals to a point, or between or 137583
among points. "Telecommunications service" includes such 137584
transmission, conveyance, or routing in which computer processing 137585
applications are used to act on the form, code, or protocol of the 137586
content for purposes of transmission, conveyance, or routing 137587
without regard to whether the service is referred to as voice-over 137588
internet protocol service or is classified by the federal 137589
communications commission as enhanced or value-added. 137590
"Telecommunications service" does not include any of the 137591
following:137592

        (a) Data processing and information services that allow data 137593
to be generated, acquired, stored, processed, or retrieved and 137594
delivered by an electronic transmission to a consumer where the 137595
consumer's primary purpose for the underlying transaction is the 137596
processed data or information;137597

        (b) Installation or maintenance of wiring or equipment on a 137598
customer's premises;137599

        (c) Tangible personal property;137600

       (d) Advertising, including directory advertising;137601

        (e) Billing and collection services provided to third 137602
parties;137603

        (f) Internet access service;137604

        (g) Radio and television audio and video programming 137605
services, regardless of the medium, including the furnishing of 137606
transmission, conveyance, and routing of such services by the 137607
programming service provider. Radio and television audio and video 137608
programming services include, but are not limited to, cable 137609
service, as defined in 47 U.S.C. 522(6), and audio and video 137610
programming services delivered by commercial mobile radio service 137611
providers, as defined in 47 C.F.R. 20.3;137612

        (h) Ancillary service;137613

        (i) Digital products delivered electronically, including 137614
software, music, video, reading materials, or ring tones.137615

        (2) "Ancillary service" means a service that is associated 137616
with or incidental to the provision of telecommunications service, 137617
including conference bridging service, detailed telecommunications 137618
billing service, directory assistance, vertical service, and voice 137619
mail service. As used in this division:137620

        (a) "Conference bridging service" means an ancillary service 137621
that links two or more participants of an audio or video 137622
conference call, including providing a telephone number. 137623
"Conference bridging service" does not include telecommunications 137624
services used to reach the conference bridge.137625

        (b) "Detailed telecommunications billing service" means an 137626
ancillary service of separately stating information pertaining to 137627
individual calls on a customer's billing statement.137628

        (c) "Directory assistance" means an ancillary service of 137629
providing telephone number or address information.137630

        (d) "Vertical service" means an ancillary service that is 137631
offered in connection with one or more telecommunications 137632
services, which offers advanced calling features that allow 137633
customers to identify callers and manage multiple calls and call 137634
connections, including conference bridging service.137635

        (e) "Voice mail service" means an ancillary service that 137636
enables the customer to store, send, or receive recorded messages. 137637
"Voice mail service" does not include any vertical services that 137638
the customer may be required to have in order to utilize the voice 137639
mail service.137640

        (3) "900 service" means an inbound toll telecommunications 137641
service purchased by a subscriber that allows the subscriber's 137642
customers to call in to the subscriber's prerecorded announcement 137643
or live service, and which is typically marketed under the name 137644
"900" service" and any subsequent numbers designated by the 137645
federal communications commission. "900 service" does not include 137646
the charge for collection services provided by the seller of the 137647
telecommunications service to the subscriber, or services or 137648
products sold by the subscriber to the subscriber's customer.137649

        (4) "Prepaid calling service" means the right to access 137650
exclusively telecommunications services, which must be paid for in 137651
advance and which enables the origination of calls using an access 137652
number or authorization code, whether manually or electronically 137653
dialed, and that is sold in predetermined units or dollars of 137654
which the number declines with use in a known amount.137655

        (5) "Prepaid wireless calling service" means a 137656
telecommunications service that provides the right to utilize 137657
mobile telecommunications service as well as other 137658
non-telecommunications services, including the download of digital 137659
products delivered electronically, and content and ancillary 137660
services, that must be paid for in advance and that is sold in 137661
predetermined units or dollars of which the number declines with 137662
use in a known amount.137663

        (6) "Value-added non-voice data service" means a 137664
telecommunications service in which computer processing 137665
applications are used to act on the form, content, code, or 137666
protocol of the information or data primarily for a purpose other 137667
than transmission, conveyance, or routing.137668

        (7) "Coin-operated telephone service" means a 137669
telecommunications service paid for by inserting money into a 137670
telephone accepting direct deposits of money to operate.137671

        (8) "Customer" has the same meaning as in section 5739.034 of 137672
the Revised Code.137673

       (BB) "Laundry and dry cleaning services" means removing soil 137674
or dirt from towels, linens, articles of clothing, or other fabric 137675
items that belong to others and supplying towels, linens, articles 137676
of clothing, or other fabric items. "Laundry and dry cleaning 137677
services" does not include the provision of self-service 137678
facilities for use by consumers to remove soil or dirt from 137679
towels, linens, articles of clothing, or other fabric items.137680

       (CC) "Magazines distributed as controlled circulation 137681
publications" means magazines containing at least twenty-four 137682
pages, at least twenty-five per cent editorial content, issued at 137683
regular intervals four or more times a year, and circulated 137684
without charge to the recipient, provided that such magazines are 137685
not owned or controlled by individuals or business concerns which 137686
conduct such publications as an auxiliary to, and essentially for 137687
the advancement of the main business or calling of, those who own 137688
or control them.137689

       (DD) "Landscaping and lawn care service" means the services 137690
of planting, seeding, sodding, removing, cutting, trimming, 137691
pruning, mulching, aerating, applying chemicals, watering, 137692
fertilizing, and providing similar services to establish, promote, 137693
or control the growth of trees, shrubs, flowers, grass, ground 137694
cover, and other flora, or otherwise maintaining a lawn or 137695
landscape grown or maintained by the owner for ornamentation or 137696
other nonagricultural purpose. However, "landscaping and lawn care 137697
service" does not include the providing of such services by a 137698
person who has less than five thousand dollars in sales of such 137699
services during the calendar year.137700

       (EE) "Private investigation and security service" means the 137701
performance of any activity for which the provider of such service 137702
is required to be licensed pursuant to Chapter 4749. of the 137703
Revised Code, or would be required to be so licensed in performing 137704
such services in this state, and also includes the services of 137705
conducting polygraph examinations and of monitoring or overseeing 137706
the activities on or in, or the condition of, the consumer's home, 137707
business, or other facility by means of electronic or similar 137708
monitoring devices. "Private investigation and security service" 137709
does not include special duty services provided by off-duty police 137710
officers, deputy sheriffs, and other peace officers regularly 137711
employed by the state or a political subdivision.137712

       (FF) "Information services" means providing conversation, 137713
giving consultation or advice, playing or making a voice or other 137714
recording, making or keeping a record of the number of callers, 137715
and any other service provided to a consumer by means of a nine 137716
hundred telephone call, except when the nine hundred telephone 137717
call is the means by which the consumer makes a contribution to a 137718
recognized charity.137719

       (GG) "Research and development" means designing, creating, or 137720
formulating new or enhanced products, equipment, or manufacturing 137721
processes, and also means conducting scientific or technological 137722
inquiry and experimentation in the physical sciences with the goal 137723
of increasing scientific knowledge which may reveal the bases for 137724
new or enhanced products, equipment, or manufacturing processes.137725

       (HH) "Qualified research and development equipment" means 137726
capitalized tangible personal property, and leased personal 137727
property that would be capitalized if purchased, used by a person 137728
primarily to perform research and development. Tangible personal 137729
property primarily used in testing, as defined in division (A)(4) 137730
of section 5739.011 of the Revised Code, or used for recording or 137731
storing test results, is not qualified research and development 137732
equipment unless such property is primarily used by the consumer 137733
in testing the product, equipment, or manufacturing process being 137734
created, designed, or formulated by the consumer in the research 137735
and development activity or in recording or storing such test 137736
results.137737

       (II) "Building maintenance and janitorial service" means 137738
cleaning the interior or exterior of a building and any tangible 137739
personal property located therein or thereon, including any 137740
services incidental to such cleaning for which no separate charge 137741
is made. However, "building maintenance and janitorial service" 137742
does not include the providing of such service by a person who has 137743
less than five thousand dollars in sales of such service during 137744
the calendar year.137745

       (JJ) "Employment service" means providing or supplying 137746
personnel, on a temporary or long-term basis, to perform work or 137747
labor under the supervision or control of another, when the 137748
personnel so provided or supplied receive their wages, salary, or 137749
other compensation from the provider or supplier of the employment 137750
service or from a third party that provided or supplied the 137751
personnel to the provider or supplier. "Employment service" does 137752
not include:137753

       (1) Acting as a contractor or subcontractor, where the 137754
personnel performing the work are not under the direct control of 137755
the purchaser.137756

       (2) Medical and health care services.137757

       (3) Supplying personnel to a purchaser pursuant to a contract 137758
of at least one year between the service provider and the 137759
purchaser that specifies that each employee covered under the 137760
contract is assigned to the purchaser on a permanent basis.137761

       (4) Transactions between members of an affiliated group, as 137762
defined in division (B)(3)(e) of this section.137763

       (5) Transactions where the personnel so provided or supplied 137764
by a provider or supplier to a purchaser of an employment service 137765
are then provided or supplied by that purchaser to a third party 137766
as an employment service, except "employment service" does include 137767
the transaction between that purchaser and the third party.137768

       (KK) "Employment placement service" means locating or finding 137769
employment for a person or finding or locating an employee to fill 137770
an available position.137771

       (LL) "Exterminating service" means eradicating or attempting 137772
to eradicate vermin infestations from a building or structure, or 137773
the area surrounding a building or structure, and includes 137774
activities to inspect, detect, or prevent vermin infestation of a 137775
building or structure.137776

       (MM) "Physical fitness facility service" means all 137777
transactions by which a membership is granted, maintained, or 137778
renewed, including initiation fees, membership dues, renewal fees, 137779
monthly minimum fees, and other similar fees and dues, by a 137780
physical fitness facility such as an athletic club, health spa, or 137781
gymnasium, which entitles the member to use the facility for 137782
physical exercise.137783

       (NN) "Recreation and sports club service" means all 137784
transactions by which a membership is granted, maintained, or 137785
renewed, including initiation fees, membership dues, renewal fees, 137786
monthly minimum fees, and other similar fees and dues, by a 137787
recreation and sports club, which entitles the member to use the 137788
facilities of the organization. "Recreation and sports club" means 137789
an organization that has ownership of, or controls or leases on a 137790
continuing, long-term basis, the facilities used by its members 137791
and includes an aviation club, gun or shooting club, yacht club, 137792
card club, swimming club, tennis club, golf club, country club, 137793
riding club, amateur sports club, or similar organization.137794

       (OO) "Livestock" means farm animals commonly raised for food, 137795
food production, or other agricultural purposes, including, but 137796
not limited to, cattle, sheep, goats, swine, poultry, and captive 137797
deer. "Livestock" does not include invertebrates, amphibians, 137798
reptiles, domestic pets, animals for use in laboratories or for 137799
exhibition, or other animals not commonly raised for food or food 137800
production.137801

       (PP) "Livestock structure" means a building or structure used 137802
exclusively for the housing, raising, feeding, or sheltering of 137803
livestock, and includes feed storage or handling structures and 137804
structures for livestock waste handling.137805

       (QQ) "Horticulture" means the growing, cultivation, and 137806
production of flowers, fruits, herbs, vegetables, sod, mushrooms, 137807
and nursery stock. As used in this division, "nursery stock" has 137808
the same meaning as in section 927.51 of the Revised Code.137809

       (RR) "Horticulture structure" means a building or structure 137810
used exclusively for the commercial growing, raising, or 137811
overwintering of horticultural products, and includes the area 137812
used for stocking, storing, and packing horticultural products 137813
when done in conjunction with the production of those products.137814

       (SS) "Newspaper" means an unbound publication bearing a title 137815
or name that is regularly published, at least as frequently as 137816
biweekly, and distributed from a fixed place of business to the 137817
public in a specific geographic area, and that contains a 137818
substantial amount of news matter of international, national, or 137819
local events of interest to the general public.137820

       (TT) "Professional racing team" means a person that employs 137821
at least twenty full-time employees for the purpose of conducting 137822
a motor vehicle racing business for profit. The person must 137823
conduct the business with the purpose of racing one or more motor 137824
racing vehicles in at least ten competitive professional racing 137825
events each year that comprise all or part of a motor racing 137826
series sanctioned by one or more motor racing sanctioning 137827
organizations. A "motor racing vehicle" means a vehicle for which 137828
the chassis, engine, and parts are designed exclusively for motor 137829
racing, and does not include a stock or production model vehicle 137830
that may be modified for use in racing. For the purposes of this 137831
division:137832

       (1) A "competitive professional racing event" is a motor 137833
vehicle racing event sanctioned by one or more motor racing 137834
sanctioning organizations, at which aggregate cash prizes in 137835
excess of eight hundred thousand dollars are awarded to the 137836
competitors.137837

       (2) "Full-time employee" means an individual who is employed 137838
for consideration for thirty-five or more hours a week, or who 137839
renders any other standard of service generally accepted by custom 137840
or specified by contract as full-time employment.137841

        (UU)(1) "Lease" or "rental" means any transfer of the 137842
possession or control of tangible personal property for a fixed or 137843
indefinite term, for consideration. "Lease" or "rental" includes 137844
future options to purchase or extend, and agreements described in 137845
26 U.S.C. 7701(h)(1) covering motor vehicles and trailers where 137846
the amount of consideration may be increased or decreased by 137847
reference to the amount realized upon the sale or disposition of 137848
the property. "Lease" or "rental" does not include:137849

       (a) A transfer of possession or control of tangible personal 137850
property under a security agreement or a deferred payment plan 137851
that requires the transfer of title upon completion of the 137852
required payments;137853

       (b) A transfer of possession or control of tangible personal 137854
property under an agreement that requires the transfer of title 137855
upon completion of required payments and payment of an option 137856
price that does not exceed the greater of one hundred dollars or 137857
one per cent of the total required payments;137858

       (c) Providing tangible personal property along with an 137859
operator for a fixed or indefinite period of time, if the operator 137860
is necessary for the property to perform as designed. For purposes 137861
of this division, the operator must do more than maintain, 137862
inspect, or set-upset up the tangible personal property.137863

       (2) "Lease" and "rental," as defined in division (UU) of this 137864
section, shall not apply to leases or rentals that exist before 137865
June 26, 2003.137866

       (3) "Lease" and "rental" have the same meaning as in division 137867
(UU)(1) of this section regardless of whether a transaction is 137868
characterized as a lease or rental under generally accepted 137869
accounting principles, the Internal Revenue Code, Title XIII of 137870
the Revised Code, or other federal, state, or local laws.137871

       (VV) "Mobile telecommunications service" has the same meaning 137872
as in the "Mobile Telecommunications Sourcing Act," Pub. L. No. 137873
106-252, 114 Stat. 631 (2000), 4 U.S.C.A. 124(7), as amended, and, 137874
on and after August 1, 2003, includes related fees and ancillary 137875
services, including universal service fees, detailed billing 137876
service, directory assistance, service initiation, voice mail 137877
service, and vertical services, such as caller ID and three-way 137878
calling.137879

       (WW) "Certified service provider" has the same meaning as in 137880
section 5740.01 of the Revised Code.137881

       (XX) "Satellite broadcasting service" means the distribution 137882
or broadcasting of programming or services by satellite directly 137883
to the subscriber's receiving equipment without the use of ground 137884
receiving or distribution equipment, except the subscriber's 137885
receiving equipment or equipment used in the uplink process to the 137886
satellite, and includes all service and rental charges, premium 137887
channels or other special services, installation and repair 137888
service charges, and any other charges having any connection with 137889
the provision of the satellite broadcasting service.137890

       (YY) "Tangible personal property" means personal property 137891
that can be seen, weighed, measured, felt, or touched, or that is 137892
in any other manner perceptible to the senses. For purposes of 137893
this chapter and Chapter 5741. of the Revised Code, "tangible 137894
personal property" includes motor vehicles, electricity, water, 137895
gas, steam, and prewritten computer software.137896

       (ZZ) "Direct mail" means printed material delivered or 137897
distributed by United States mail or other delivery service to a 137898
mass audience or to addressees on a mailing list provided by the 137899
consumer or at the direction of the consumer when the cost of the 137900
items are not billed directly to the recipients. "Direct mail" 137901
includes tangible personal property supplied directly or 137902
indirectly by the consumer to the direct mail vendor for inclusion 137903
in the package containing the printed material. "Direct mail" does 137904
not include multiple items of printed material delivered to a 137905
single address.137906

       (AAA) "Computer" means an electronic device that accepts 137907
information in digital or similar form and manipulates it for a 137908
result based on a sequence of instructions.137909

       (BBB) "Computer software" means a set of coded instructions 137910
designed to cause a computer or automatic data processing 137911
equipment to perform a task.137912

       (CCC) "Delivered electronically" means delivery of computer 137913
software from the seller to the purchaser by means other than 137914
tangible storage media.137915

       (DDD) "Prewritten computer software" means computer software, 137916
including prewritten upgrades, that is not designed and developed 137917
by the author or other creator to the specifications of a specific 137918
purchaser. The combining of two or more prewritten computer 137919
software programs or prewritten portions thereof does not cause 137920
the combination to be other than prewritten computer software. 137921
"Prewritten computer software" includes software designed and 137922
developed by the author or other creator to the specifications of 137923
a specific purchaser when it is sold to a person other than the 137924
purchaser. If a person modifies or enhances computer software of 137925
which the person is not the author or creator, the person shall be 137926
deemed to be the author or creator only of such person's 137927
modifications or enhancements. Prewritten computer software or a 137928
prewritten portion thereof that is modified or enhanced to any 137929
degree, where such modification or enhancement is designed and 137930
developed to the specifications of a specific purchaser, remains 137931
prewritten computer software; provided, however, that where there 137932
is a reasonable, separately stated charge or an invoice or other 137933
statement of the price given to the purchaser for the modification 137934
or enhancement, the modification or enhancement shall not 137935
constitute prewritten computer software.137936

       (EEE)(1) "Food" means substances, whether in liquid, 137937
concentrated, solid, frozen, dried, or dehydrated form, that are 137938
sold for ingestion or chewing by humans and are consumed for their 137939
taste or nutritional value. "Food" does not include alcoholic 137940
beverages, dietary supplements, soft drinks, or tobacco.137941

       (2) As used in division (EEE)(1) of this section:137942

       (a) "Alcoholic beverages" means beverages that are suitable 137943
for human consumption and contain one-half of one per cent or more 137944
of alcohol by volume.137945

       (b) "Dietary supplements" means any product, other than 137946
tobacco, that is intended to supplement the diet and that is 137947
intended for ingestion in tablet, capsule, powder, softgel, 137948
gelcap, or liquid form, or, if not intended for ingestion in such 137949
a form, is not represented as conventional food for use as a sole 137950
item of a meal or of the diet; that is required to be labeled as a 137951
dietary supplement, identifiable by the "supplement facts" box 137952
found on the label, as required by 21 C.F.R. 101.36; and that 137953
contains one or more of the following dietary ingredients:137954

       (i) A vitamin;137955

       (ii) A mineral;137956

       (iii) An herb or other botanical;137957

       (iv) An amino acid;137958

       (v) A dietary substance for use by humans to supplement the 137959
diet by increasing the total dietary intake;137960

       (vi) A concentrate, metabolite, constituent, extract, or 137961
combination of any ingredient described in divisions 137962
(EEE)(2)(b)(i) to (v) of this section.137963

       (c) "Soft drinks" means nonalcoholic beverages that contain 137964
natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft drinks" does not include 137965
beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice, or 137966
similar milk substitutes, or that contains greater than fifty per 137967
cent vegetable or fruit juice by volume.137968

       (d) "Tobacco" means cigarettes, cigars, chewing or pipe 137969
tobacco, or any other item that contains tobacco.137970

       (FFF) "Drug" means a compound, substance, or preparation, and 137971
any component of a compound, substance, or preparation, other than 137972
food, dietary supplements, or alcoholic beverages that is 137973
recognized in the official United States pharmacopoeia, official 137974
homeopathic pharmacopoeia of the United States, or official 137975
national formulary, and supplements to them; is intended for use 137976
in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of 137977
disease; or is intended to affect the structure or any function of 137978
the body.137979

       (GGG) "Prescription" means an order, formula, or recipe 137980
issued in any form of oral, written, electronic, or other means of 137981
transmission by a duly licensed practitioner authorized by the 137982
laws of this state to issue a prescription.137983

       (HHH) "Durable medical equipment" means equipment, including 137984
repair and replacement parts for such equipment, that can 137985
withstand repeated use, is primarily and customarily used to serve 137986
a medical purpose, generally is not useful to a person in the 137987
absence of illness or injury, and is not worn in or on the body. 137988
"Durable medical equipment" does not include mobility enhancing 137989
equipment.137990

       (III) "Mobility enhancing equipment" means equipment, 137991
including repair and replacement parts for such equipment, that is 137992
primarily and customarily used to provide or increase the ability 137993
to move from one place to another and is appropriate for use 137994
either in a home or a motor vehicle, that is not generally used by 137995
persons with normal mobility, and that does not include any motor 137996
vehicle or equipment on a motor vehicle normally provided by a 137997
motor vehicle manufacturer. "Mobility enhancing equipment" does 137998
not include durable medical equipment.137999

       (JJJ) "Prosthetic device" means a replacement, corrective, or 138000
supportive device, including repair and replacement parts for the 138001
device, worn on or in the human body to artificially replace a 138002
missing portion of the body, prevent or correct physical deformity 138003
or malfunction, or support a weak or deformed portion of the body. 138004
As used in this division, "prosthetic device" does not include 138005
corrective eyeglasses, contact lenses, or dental prosthesis.138006

       (KKK)(1) "Fractional aircraft ownership program" means a 138007
program in which persons within an affiliated group sell and 138008
manage fractional ownership program aircraft, provided that at 138009
least one hundred airworthy aircraft are operated in the program 138010
and the program meets all of the following criteria:138011

       (a) Management services are provided by at least one program 138012
manager within an affiliated group on behalf of the fractional 138013
owners.138014

       (b) Each program aircraft is owned or possessed by at least 138015
one fractional owner.138016

       (c) Each fractional owner owns or possesses at least a 138017
one-sixteenth interest in at least one fixed-wing program 138018
aircraft.138019

       (d) A dry-lease aircraft interchange arrangement is in effect 138020
among all of the fractional owners.138021

       (e) Multi-year program agreements are in effect regarding the 138022
fractional ownership, management services, and dry-lease aircraft 138023
interchange arrangement aspects of the program.138024

       (2) As used in division (KKK)(1) of this section:138025

       (a) "Affiliated group" has the same meaning as in division 138026
(B)(3)(e) of this section.138027

        (b) "Fractional owner" means a person that owns or possesses 138028
at least a one-sixteenth interest in a program aircraft and has 138029
entered into the agreements described in division (KKK)(1)(e) of 138030
this section.138031

       (c) "Fractional ownership program aircraft" or "program 138032
aircraft" means a turbojet aircraft that is owned or possessed by 138033
a fractional owner and that has been included in a dry-lease 138034
aircraft interchange arrangement and agreement under divisions 138035
(KKK)(1)(d) and (e) of this section, or an aircraft a program 138036
manager owns or possesses primarily for use in a fractional 138037
aircraft ownership program.138038

       (d) "Management services" means administrative and aviation 138039
support services furnished under a fractional aircraft ownership 138040
program in accordance with a management services agreement under 138041
division (KKK)(1)(e) of this section, and offered by the program 138042
manager to the fractional owners, including, at a minimum, the 138043
establishment and implementation of safety guidelines; the 138044
coordination of the scheduling of the program aircraft and crews; 138045
program aircraft maintenance; program aircraft insurance; crew 138046
training for crews employed, furnished, or contracted by the 138047
program manager or the fractional owner; the satisfaction of 138048
record-keeping requirements; and the development and use of an 138049
operations manual and a maintenance manual for the fractional 138050
aircraft ownership program.138051

       (e) "Program manager" means the person that offers management 138052
services to fractional owners pursuant to a management services 138053
agreement under division (KKK)(1)(e) of this section.138054

       (LLL) "Electronic publishing" means providing access to one 138055
or more of the following primarily for business customers, 138056
including the federal government or a state government or a 138057
political subdivision thereof, to conduct research: news; 138058
business, financial, legal, consumer, or credit materials; 138059
editorials, columns, reader commentary, or features; photos or 138060
images; archival or research material; legal notices, identity 138061
verification, or public records; scientific, educational, 138062
instructional, technical, professional, trade, or other literary 138063
materials; or other similar information which has been gathered 138064
and made available by the provider to the consumer in an 138065
electronic format. Providing electronic publishing includes the 138066
functions necessary for the acquisition, formatting, editing, 138067
storage, and dissemination of data or information that is the 138068
subject of a sale.138069

       (MMM) "Medicaid health insuring corporation" means a health 138070
insuring corporation that holds a certificate of authority under 138071
Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code and is under contract with the 138072
department of job and family services pursuant to section 5111.17 138073
of the Revised Code.138074

       (NNN) "Managed care premium" means any premium, capitation, 138075
or other payment a medicaid health insuring corporation receives 138076
for providing or arranging for the provision of health care 138077
services to its members or enrollees residing in this state.138078

       (OOO) "Captive deer" means deer and other cervidae that have 138079
been legally acquired, or their offspring, that are privately 138080
owned for agricultural or farming purposes.138081

       (PPP) "Gift card" means a document, card, certificate, or 138082
other record, whether tangible or intangible, that may be redeemed 138083
by a consumer for a dollar value when making a purchase of 138084
tangible personal property or services.138085

       Sec. 5739.02.  For the purpose of providing revenue with 138086
which to meet the needs of the state, for the use of the general 138087
revenue fund of the state, for the purpose of securing a thorough 138088
and efficient system of common schools throughout the state, for 138089
the purpose of affording revenues, in addition to those from 138090
general property taxes, permitted under constitutional 138091
limitations, and from other sources, for the support of local 138092
governmental functions, and for the purpose of reimbursing the 138093
state for the expense of administering this chapter, an excise tax 138094
is hereby levied on each retail sale made in this state.138095

       (A)(1) The tax shall be collected as provided in section 138096
5739.025 of the Revised Code. The rate of the tax shall be five 138097
and one-half per cent. The tax applies and is collectible when the 138098
sale is made, regardless of the time when the price is paid or 138099
delivered.138100

        (2) In the case of the lease or rental, with a fixed term of 138101
more than thirty days or an indefinite term with a minimum period 138102
of more than thirty days, of any motor vehicles designed by the 138103
manufacturer to carry a load of not more than one ton, watercraft, 138104
outboard motor, or aircraft, or of any tangible personal property, 138105
other than motor vehicles designed by the manufacturer to carry a 138106
load of more than one ton, to be used by the lessee or renter 138107
primarily for business purposes, the tax shall be collected by the 138108
vendor at the time the lease or rental is consummated and shall be 138109
calculated by the vendor on the basis of the total amount to be 138110
paid by the lessee or renter under the lease agreement. If the 138111
total amount of the consideration for the lease or rental includes 138112
amounts that are not calculated at the time the lease or rental is 138113
executed, the tax shall be calculated and collected by the vendor 138114
at the time such amounts are billed to the lessee or renter. In 138115
the case of an open-end lease or rental, the tax shall be 138116
calculated by the vendor on the basis of the total amount to be 138117
paid during the initial fixed term of the lease or rental, and for 138118
each subsequent renewal period as it comes due. As used in this 138119
division, "motor vehicle" has the same meaning as in section 138120
4501.01 of the Revised Code, and "watercraft" includes an outdrive 138121
unit attached to the watercraft.138122

       A lease with a renewal clause and a termination penalty or 138123
similar provision that applies if the renewal clause is not 138124
exercised is presumed to be a sham transaction. In such a case, 138125
the tax shall be calculated and paid on the basis of the entire 138126
length of the lease period, including any renewal periods, until 138127
the termination penalty or similar provision no longer applies. 138128
The taxpayer shall bear the burden, by a preponderance of the 138129
evidence, that the transaction or series of transactions is not a 138130
sham transaction.138131

       (3) Except as provided in division (A)(2) of this section, in 138132
the case of a sale, the price of which consists in whole or in 138133
part of the lease or rental of tangible personal property, the tax 138134
shall be measured by the installments of that lease or rental.138135

       (4) In the case of a sale of a physical fitness facility 138136
service or recreation and sports club service, the price of which 138137
consists in whole or in part of a membership for the receipt of 138138
the benefit of the service, the tax applicable to the sale shall 138139
be measured by the installments thereof.138140

       (B) The tax does not apply to the following:138141

       (1) Sales to the state or any of its political subdivisions, 138142
or to any other state or its political subdivisions if the laws of 138143
that state exempt from taxation sales made to this state and its 138144
political subdivisions;138145

       (2) Sales of food for human consumption off the premises 138146
where sold;138147

       (3) Sales of food sold to students only in a cafeteria, 138148
dormitory, fraternity, or sorority maintained in a private, 138149
public, or parochial school, college, or university;138150

       (4) Sales of newspapers and of magazine subscriptions and 138151
sales or transfers of magazines distributed as controlled 138152
circulation publications;138153

       (5) The furnishing, preparing, or serving of meals without 138154
charge by an employer to an employee provided the employer records 138155
the meals as part compensation for services performed or work 138156
done;138157

       (6) Sales of motor fuel upon receipt, use, distribution, or 138158
sale of which in this state a tax is imposed by the law of this 138159
state, but this exemption shall not apply to the sale of motor 138160
fuel on which a refund of the tax is allowable under division (A) 138161
of section 5735.14 of the Revised Code; and the tax commissioner 138162
may deduct the amount of tax levied by this section applicable to 138163
the price of motor fuel when granting a refund of motor fuel tax 138164
pursuant to division (A) of section 5735.14 of the Revised Code 138165
and shall cause the amount deducted to be paid into the general 138166
revenue fund of this state;138167

       (7) Sales of natural gas by a natural gas company, of water 138168
by a water-works company, or of steam by a heating company, if in 138169
each case the thing sold is delivered to consumers through pipes 138170
or conduits, and all sales of communications services by a 138171
telegraph company, all terms as defined in section 5727.01 of the 138172
Revised Code, and sales of electricity delivered through wires;138173

       (8) Casual sales by a person, or auctioneer employed directly 138174
by the person to conduct such sales, except as to such sales of 138175
motor vehicles, watercraft or outboard motors required to be 138176
titled under section 1548.06 of the Revised Code, watercraft 138177
documented with the United States coast guard, snowmobiles, and 138178
all-purpose vehicles as defined in section 4519.01 of the Revised 138179
Code;138180

       (9)(a) Sales of services or tangible personal property, other 138181
than motor vehicles, mobile homes, and manufactured homes, by 138182
churches, organizations exempt from taxation under section 138183
501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, or nonprofit 138184
organizations operated exclusively for charitable purposes as 138185
defined in division (B)(12) of this section, provided that the 138186
number of days on which such tangible personal property or 138187
services, other than items never subject to the tax, are sold does 138188
not exceed six in any calendar year, except as otherwise provided 138189
in division (B)(9)(b) of this section. If the number of days on 138190
which such sales are made exceeds six in any calendar year, the 138191
church or organization shall be considered to be engaged in 138192
business and all subsequent sales by it shall be subject to the 138193
tax. In counting the number of days, all sales by groups within a 138194
church or within an organization shall be considered to be sales 138195
of that church or organization.138196

       (b) The limitation on the number of days on which tax-exempt 138197
sales may be made by a church or organization under division 138198
(B)(9)(a) of this section does not apply to sales made by student 138199
clubs and other groups of students of a primary or secondary 138200
school, or a parent-teacher association, booster group, or similar 138201
organization that raises money to support or fund curricular or 138202
extracurricular activities of a primary or secondary school.138203

       (c) Divisions (B)(9)(a) and (b) of this section do not apply 138204
to sales by a noncommercial educational radio or television 138205
broadcasting station.138206

       (10) Sales not within the taxing power of this state under 138207
the Constitution or laws of the United States or the Constitution 138208
of this state;138209

       (11) Except for transactions that are sales under division 138210
(B)(3)(r) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code, the 138211
transportation of persons or property, unless the transportation 138212
is by a private investigation and security service;138213

       (12) Sales of tangible personal property or services to 138214
churches, to organizations exempt from taxation under section 138215
501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, and to any other 138216
nonprofit organizations operated exclusively for charitable 138217
purposes in this state, no part of the net income of which inures 138218
to the benefit of any private shareholder or individual, and no 138219
substantial part of the activities of which consists of carrying 138220
on propaganda or otherwise attempting to influence legislation; 138221
sales to offices administering one or more homes for the aged or 138222
one or more hospital facilities exempt under section 140.08 of the 138223
Revised Code; and sales to organizations described in division (D) 138224
of section 5709.12 of the Revised Code.138225

       "Charitable purposes" means the relief of poverty; the 138226
improvement of health through the alleviation of illness, disease, 138227
or injury; the operation of an organization exclusively for the 138228
provision of professional, laundry, printing, and purchasing 138229
services to hospitals or charitable institutions; the operation of 138230
a home for the aged, as defined in section 5701.13 of the Revised 138231
Code; the operation of a radio or television broadcasting station 138232
that is licensed by the federal communications commission as a 138233
noncommercial educational radio or television station; the 138234
operation of a nonprofit animal adoption service or a county 138235
humane society; the promotion of education by an institution of 138236
learning that maintains a faculty of qualified instructors, 138237
teaches regular continuous courses of study, and confers a 138238
recognized diploma upon completion of a specific curriculum; the 138239
operation of a parent-teacher association, booster group, or 138240
similar organization primarily engaged in the promotion and 138241
support of the curricular or extracurricular activities of a 138242
primary or secondary school; the operation of a community or area 138243
center in which presentations in music, dramatics, the arts, and 138244
related fields are made in order to foster public interest and 138245
education therein; the production of performances in music, 138246
dramatics, and the arts; or the promotion of education by an 138247
organization engaged in carrying on research in, or the 138248
dissemination of, scientific and technological knowledge and 138249
information primarily for the public.138250

       Nothing in this division shall be deemed to exempt sales to 138251
any organization for use in the operation or carrying on of a 138252
trade or business, or sales to a home for the aged for use in the 138253
operation of independent living facilities as defined in division 138254
(A) of section 5709.12 of the Revised Code.138255

       (13) Building and construction materials and services sold to 138256
construction contractors for incorporation into a structure or 138257
improvement to real property under a construction contract with 138258
this state or a political subdivision of this state, or with the 138259
United States government or any of its agencies; building and 138260
construction materials and services sold to construction 138261
contractors for incorporation into a structure or improvement to 138262
real property that are accepted for ownership by this state or any 138263
of its political subdivisions, or by the United States government 138264
or any of its agencies at the time of completion of the structures 138265
or improvements; building and construction materials sold to 138266
construction contractors for incorporation into a horticulture 138267
structure or livestock structure for a person engaged in the 138268
business of horticulture or producing livestock; building 138269
materials and services sold to a construction contractor for 138270
incorporation into a house of public worship or religious 138271
education, or a building used exclusively for charitable purposes 138272
under a construction contract with an organization whose purpose 138273
is as described in division (B)(12) of this section; building 138274
materials and services sold to a construction contractor for 138275
incorporation into a building under a construction contract with 138276
an organization exempt from taxation under section 501(c)(3) of 138277
the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 when the building is to be used 138278
exclusively for the organization's exempt purposes; building and 138279
construction materials sold for incorporation into the original 138280
construction of a sports facility under section 307.696 of the 138281
Revised Code; building and construction materials and services 138282
sold to a construction contractor for incorporation into real 138283
property outside this state if such materials and services, when 138284
sold to a construction contractor in the state in which the real 138285
property is located for incorporation into real property in that 138286
state, would be exempt from a tax on sales levied by that state; 138287
and, until one calendar year after the construction of a 138288
convention center that qualifies for property tax exemption under 138289
section 5709.084 of the Revised Code is completed, building and 138290
construction materials and services sold to a construction 138291
contractor for incorporation into the real property comprising 138292
that convention center;138293

       (14) Sales of ships or vessels or rail rolling stock used or 138294
to be used principally in interstate or foreign commerce, and 138295
repairs, alterations, fuel, and lubricants for such ships or 138296
vessels or rail rolling stock;138297

       (15) Sales to persons primarily engaged in any of the 138298
activities mentioned in division (B)(42)(a), (g), or (h) of this 138299
section, to persons engaged in making retail sales, or to persons 138300
who purchase for sale from a manufacturer tangible personal 138301
property that was produced by the manufacturer in accordance with 138302
specific designs provided by the purchaser, of packages, including 138303
material, labels, and parts for packages, and of machinery, 138304
equipment, and material for use primarily in packaging tangible 138305
personal property produced for sale, including any machinery, 138306
equipment, and supplies used to make labels or packages, to 138307
prepare packages or products for labeling, or to label packages or 138308
products, by or on the order of the person doing the packaging, or 138309
sold at retail. "Packages" includes bags, baskets, cartons, 138310
crates, boxes, cans, bottles, bindings, wrappings, and other 138311
similar devices and containers, but does not include motor 138312
vehicles or bulk tanks, trailers, or similar devices attached to 138313
motor vehicles. "Packaging" means placing in a package. Division 138314
(B)(15) of this section does not apply to persons engaged in 138315
highway transportation for hire.138316

       (16) Sales of food to persons using supplemental nutrition 138317
assistance program benefits to purchase the food. As used in this 138318
division, "food" has the same meaning as in 7 U.S.C. 2012 and 138319
federal regulations adopted pursuant to the Food and Nutrition Act 138320
of 2008.138321

       (17) Sales to persons engaged in farming, agriculture, 138322
horticulture, or floriculture, of tangible personal property for 138323
use or consumption primarily in the production by farming, 138324
agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture of other tangible 138325
personal property for use or consumption primarily in the 138326
production of tangible personal property for sale by farming, 138327
agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture; or material and parts 138328
for incorporation into any such tangible personal property for use 138329
or consumption in production; and of tangible personal property 138330
for such use or consumption in the conditioning or holding of 138331
products produced by and for such use, consumption, or sale by 138332
persons engaged in farming, agriculture, horticulture, or 138333
floriculture, except where such property is incorporated into real 138334
property;138335

       (18) Sales of drugs for a human being that may be dispensed 138336
only pursuant to a prescription; insulin as recognized in the 138337
official United States pharmacopoeia; urine and blood testing 138338
materials when used by diabetics or persons with hypoglycemia to 138339
test for glucose or acetone; hypodermic syringes and needles when 138340
used by diabetics for insulin injections; epoetin alfa when 138341
purchased for use in the treatment of persons with medical 138342
disease; hospital beds when purchased by hospitals, nursing homes, 138343
or other medical facilities; and medical oxygen and medical 138344
oxygen-dispensing equipment when purchased by hospitals, nursing 138345
homes, or other medical facilities;138346

       (19) Sales of prosthetic devices, durable medical equipment 138347
for home use, or mobility enhancing equipment, when made pursuant 138348
to a prescription and when such devices or equipment are for use 138349
by a human being.138350

       (20) Sales of emergency and fire protection vehicles and 138351
equipment to nonprofit organizations for use solely in providing 138352
fire protection and emergency services, including trauma care and 138353
emergency medical services, for political subdivisions of the 138354
state;138355

       (21) Sales of tangible personal property manufactured in this 138356
state, if sold by the manufacturer in this state to a retailer for 138357
use in the retail business of the retailer outside of this state 138358
and if possession is taken from the manufacturer by the purchaser 138359
within this state for the sole purpose of immediately removing the 138360
same from this state in a vehicle owned by the purchaser;138361

       (22) Sales of services provided by the state or any of its 138362
political subdivisions, agencies, instrumentalities, institutions, 138363
or authorities, or by governmental entities of the state or any of 138364
its political subdivisions, agencies, instrumentalities, 138365
institutions, or authorities;138366

       (23) Sales of motor vehicles to nonresidents of this state 138367
under the circumstances described in division (B) of section 138368
5739.029 of the Revised Code;138369

       (24) Sales to persons engaged in the preparation of eggs for 138370
sale of tangible personal property used or consumed directly in 138371
such preparation, including such tangible personal property used 138372
for cleaning, sanitizing, preserving, grading, sorting, and 138373
classifying by size; packages, including material and parts for 138374
packages, and machinery, equipment, and material for use in 138375
packaging eggs for sale; and handling and transportation equipment 138376
and parts therefor, except motor vehicles licensed to operate on 138377
public highways, used in intraplant or interplant transfers or 138378
shipment of eggs in the process of preparation for sale, when the 138379
plant or plants within or between which such transfers or 138380
shipments occur are operated by the same person. "Packages" 138381
includes containers, cases, baskets, flats, fillers, filler flats, 138382
cartons, closure materials, labels, and labeling materials, and 138383
"packaging" means placing therein.138384

       (25)(a) Sales of water to a consumer for residential use;138385

       (b) Sales of water by a nonprofit corporation engaged 138386
exclusively in the treatment, distribution, and sale of water to 138387
consumers, if such water is delivered to consumers through pipes 138388
or tubing.138389

       (26) Fees charged for inspection or reinspection of motor 138390
vehicles under section 3704.14 of the Revised Code;138391

       (27) Sales to persons licensed to conduct a food service 138392
operation pursuant to section 3717.43 of the Revised Code, of 138393
tangible personal property primarily used directly for the 138394
following:138395

       (a) To prepare food for human consumption for sale;138396

       (b) To preserve food that has been or will be prepared for 138397
human consumption for sale by the food service operator, not 138398
including tangible personal property used to display food for 138399
selection by the consumer;138400

       (c) To clean tangible personal property used to prepare or 138401
serve food for human consumption for sale.138402

       (28) Sales of animals by nonprofit animal adoption services 138403
or county humane societies;138404

       (29) Sales of services to a corporation described in division 138405
(A) of section 5709.72 of the Revised Code, and sales of tangible 138406
personal property that qualifies for exemption from taxation under 138407
section 5709.72 of the Revised Code;138408

       (30) Sales and installation of agricultural land tile, as 138409
defined in division (B)(5)(a) of section 5739.01 of the Revised 138410
Code;138411

       (31) Sales and erection or installation of portable grain 138412
bins, as defined in division (B)(5)(b) of section 5739.01 of the 138413
Revised Code;138414

       (32) The sale, lease, repair, and maintenance of, parts for, 138415
or items attached to or incorporated in, motor vehicles that are 138416
primarily used for transporting tangible personal property 138417
belonging to others by a person engaged in highway transportation 138418
for hire, except for packages and packaging used for the 138419
transportation of tangible personal property;138420

       (33) Sales to the state headquarters of any veterans' 138421
organization in this state that is either incorporated and issued 138422
a charter by the congress of the United States or is recognized by 138423
the United States veterans administration, for use by the 138424
headquarters;138425

       (34) Sales to a telecommunications service vendor, mobile 138426
telecommunications service vendor, or satellite broadcasting 138427
service vendor of tangible personal property and services used 138428
directly and primarily in transmitting, receiving, switching, or 138429
recording any interactive, one- or two-way electromagnetic 138430
communications, including voice, image, data, and information, 138431
through the use of any medium, including, but not limited to, 138432
poles, wires, cables, switching equipment, computers, and record 138433
storage devices and media, and component parts for the tangible 138434
personal property. The exemption provided in this division shall 138435
be in lieu of all other exemptions under division (B)(42)(a) or 138436
(n) of this section to which the vendor may otherwise be entitled, 138437
based upon the use of the thing purchased in providing the 138438
telecommunications, mobile telecommunications, or satellite 138439
broadcasting service.138440

       (35)(a) Sales where the purpose of the consumer is to use or 138441
consume the things transferred in making retail sales and 138442
consisting of newspaper inserts, catalogues, coupons, flyers, gift 138443
certificates, or other advertising material that prices and 138444
describes tangible personal property offered for retail sale.138445

       (b) Sales to direct marketing vendors of preliminary 138446
materials such as photographs, artwork, and typesetting that will 138447
be used in printing advertising material; and of printed matter 138448
that offers free merchandise or chances to win sweepstake prizes 138449
and that is mailed to potential customers with advertising 138450
material described in division (B)(35)(a) of this section;138451

       (c) Sales of equipment such as telephones, computers, 138452
facsimile machines, and similar tangible personal property 138453
primarily used to accept orders for direct marketing retail sales.138454

       (d) Sales of automatic food vending machines that preserve 138455
food with a shelf life of forty-five days or less by refrigeration 138456
and dispense it to the consumer.138457

       For purposes of division (B)(35) of this section, "direct 138458
marketing" means the method of selling where consumers order 138459
tangible personal property by United States mail, delivery 138460
service, or telecommunication and the vendor delivers or ships the 138461
tangible personal property sold to the consumer from a warehouse, 138462
catalogue distribution center, or similar fulfillment facility by 138463
means of the United States mail, delivery service, or common 138464
carrier.138465

       (36) Sales to a person engaged in the business of 138466
horticulture or producing livestock of materials to be 138467
incorporated into a horticulture structure or livestock structure;138468

       (37) Sales of personal computers, computer monitors, computer 138469
keyboards, modems, and other peripheral computer equipment to an 138470
individual who is licensed or certified to teach in an elementary 138471
or a secondary school in this state for use by that individual in 138472
preparation for teaching elementary or secondary school students;138473

       (38) Sales to a professional racing team of any of the 138474
following:138475

       (a) Motor racing vehicles;138476

       (b) Repair services for motor racing vehicles;138477

       (c) Items of property that are attached to or incorporated in 138478
motor racing vehicles, including engines, chassis, and all other 138479
components of the vehicles, and all spare, replacement, and 138480
rebuilt parts or components of the vehicles; except not including 138481
tires, consumable fluids, paint, and accessories consisting of 138482
instrumentation sensors and related items added to the vehicle to 138483
collect and transmit data by means of telemetry and other forms of 138484
communication.138485

       (39) Sales of used manufactured homes and used mobile homes, 138486
as defined in section 5739.0210 of the Revised Code, made on or 138487
after January 1, 2000;138488

       (40) Sales of tangible personal property and services to a 138489
provider of electricity used or consumed directly and primarily in 138490
generating, transmitting, or distributing electricity for use by 138491
others, including property that is or is to be incorporated into 138492
and will become a part of the consumer's production, transmission, 138493
or distribution system and that retains its classification as 138494
tangible personal property after incorporation; fuel or power used 138495
in the production, transmission, or distribution of electricity; 138496
energy conversion equipment as defined in section 5727.01 of the 138497
Revised Code; and tangible personal property and services used in 138498
the repair and maintenance of the production, transmission, or 138499
distribution system, including only those motor vehicles as are 138500
specially designed and equipped for such use. The exemption 138501
provided in this division shall be in lieu of all other exemptions 138502
in division (B)(42)(a) or (n) of this section to which a provider 138503
of electricity may otherwise be entitled based on the use of the 138504
tangible personal property or service purchased in generating, 138505
transmitting, or distributing electricity.138506

       (41) Sales to a person providing services under division 138507
(B)(3)(r) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code of tangible 138508
personal property and services used directly and primarily in 138509
providing taxable services under that section.138510

       (42) Sales where the purpose of the purchaser is to do any of 138511
the following:138512

       (a) To incorporate the thing transferred as a material or a 138513
part into tangible personal property to be produced for sale by 138514
manufacturing, assembling, processing, or refining; or to use or 138515
consume the thing transferred directly in producing tangible 138516
personal property for sale by mining, including, without 138517
limitation, the extraction from the earth of all substances that 138518
are classed geologically as minerals, production of crude oil and 138519
natural gas, or directly in the rendition of a public utility 138520
service, except that the sales tax levied by this section shall be 138521
collected upon all meals, drinks, and food for human consumption 138522
sold when transporting persons. Persons engaged in rendering 138523
services in the exploration for, and production of, crude oil and 138524
natural gas for others are deemed engaged directly in the 138525
exploration for, and production of, crude oil and natural gas. 138526
This paragraph does not exempt from "retail sale" or "sales at 138527
retail" the sale of tangible personal property that is to be 138528
incorporated into a structure or improvement to real property.138529

       (b) To hold the thing transferred as security for the 138530
performance of an obligation of the vendor;138531

       (c) To resell, hold, use, or consume the thing transferred as 138532
evidence of a contract of insurance;138533

       (d) To use or consume the thing directly in commercial 138534
fishing;138535

       (e) To incorporate the thing transferred as a material or a 138536
part into, or to use or consume the thing transferred directly in 138537
the production of, magazines distributed as controlled circulation 138538
publications;138539

       (f) To use or consume the thing transferred in the production 138540
and preparation in suitable condition for market and sale of 138541
printed, imprinted, overprinted, lithographic, multilithic, 138542
blueprinted, photostatic, or other productions or reproductions of 138543
written or graphic matter;138544

       (g) To use the thing transferred, as described in section 138545
5739.011 of the Revised Code, primarily in a manufacturing 138546
operation to produce tangible personal property for sale;138547

       (h) To use the benefit of a warranty, maintenance or service 138548
contract, or similar agreement, as described in division (B)(7) of 138549
section 5739.01 of the Revised Code, to repair or maintain 138550
tangible personal property, if all of the property that is the 138551
subject of the warranty, contract, or agreement would not be 138552
subject to the tax imposed by this section;138553

       (i) To use the thing transferred as qualified research and 138554
development equipment;138555

       (j) To use or consume the thing transferred primarily in 138556
storing, transporting, mailing, or otherwise handling purchased 138557
sales inventory in a warehouse, distribution center, or similar 138558
facility when the inventory is primarily distributed outside this 138559
state to retail stores of the person who owns or controls the 138560
warehouse, distribution center, or similar facility, to retail 138561
stores of an affiliated group of which that person is a member, or 138562
by means of direct marketing. This division does not apply to 138563
motor vehicles registered for operation on the public highways. As 138564
used in this division, "affiliated group" has the same meaning as 138565
in division (B)(3)(e) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code and 138566
"direct marketing" has the same meaning as in division (B)(35) of 138567
this section.138568

       (k) To use or consume the thing transferred to fulfill a 138569
contractual obligation incurred by a warrantor pursuant to a 138570
warranty provided as a part of the price of the tangible personal 138571
property sold or by a vendor of a warranty, maintenance or service 138572
contract, or similar agreement the provision of which is defined 138573
as a sale under division (B)(7) of section 5739.01 of the Revised 138574
Code;138575

       (l) To use or consume the thing transferred in the production 138576
of a newspaper for distribution to the public;138577

       (m) To use tangible personal property to perform a service 138578
listed in division (B)(3) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code, 138579
if the property is or is to be permanently transferred to the 138580
consumer of the service as an integral part of the performance of 138581
the service;138582

       (n) To use or consume the thing transferred primarily in 138583
producing tangible personal property for sale by farming, 138584
agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture. Persons engaged in 138585
rendering farming, agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture 138586
services for others are deemed engaged primarily in farming, 138587
agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture. This paragraph does 138588
not exempt from "retail sale" or "sales at retail" the sale of 138589
tangible personal property that is to be incorporated into a 138590
structure or improvement to real property.138591

       (o) To use or consume the thing transferred in acquiring, 138592
formatting, editing, storing, and disseminating data or 138593
information by electronic publishing.138594

       As used in division (B)(42) of this section, "thing" includes 138595
all transactions included in divisions (B)(3)(a), (b), and (e) of 138596
section 5739.01 of the Revised Code.138597

       (43) Sales conducted through a coin operated device that 138598
activates vacuum equipment or equipment that dispenses water, 138599
whether or not in combination with soap or other cleaning agents 138600
or wax, to the consumer for the consumer's use on the premises in 138601
washing, cleaning, or waxing a motor vehicle, provided no other 138602
personal property or personal service is provided as part of the 138603
transaction.138604

       (44) Sales of replacement and modification parts for engines, 138605
airframes, instruments, and interiors in, and paint for, aircraft 138606
used primarily in a fractional aircraft ownership program, and 138607
sales of services for the repair, modification, and maintenance of 138608
such aircraft, and machinery, equipment, and supplies primarily 138609
used to provide those services.138610

       (45) Sales of telecommunications service that is used 138611
directly and primarily to perform the functions of a call center. 138612
As used in this division, "call center" means any physical 138613
location where telephone calls are placed or received in high 138614
volume for the purpose of making sales, marketing, customer 138615
service, technical support, or other specialized business 138616
activity, and that employs at least fifty individuals that engage 138617
in call center activities on a full-time basis, or sufficient 138618
individuals to fill fifty full-time equivalent positions.138619

        (46) Sales by a telecommunications service vendor of 900 138620
service to a subscriber. This division does not apply to 138621
information services, as defined in division (FF) of section 138622
5739.01 of the Revised Code.138623

        (47) Sales of value-added non-voice data service. This 138624
division does not apply to any similar service that is not 138625
otherwise a telecommunications service.138626

       (48)(a) Sales of machinery, equipment, and software to a 138627
qualified direct selling entity for use in a warehouse or 138628
distribution center primarily for storing, transporting, or 138629
otherwise handling inventory that is held for sale to independent 138630
salespersons who operate as direct sellers and that is held 138631
primarily for distribution outside this state;138632

       (b) As used in division (B)(48)(a) of this section:138633

       (i) "Direct seller" means a person selling consumer products 138634
to individuals for personal or household use and not from a fixed 138635
retail location, including selling such product at in-home product 138636
demonstrations, parties, and other one-on-one selling.138637

       (ii) "Qualified direct selling entity" means an entity 138638
selling to direct sellers at the time the entity enters into a tax 138639
credit agreement with the tax credit authority pursuant to section 138640
122.17 of the Revised Code, provided that the agreement was 138641
entered into on or after January 1, 2007. Neither contingencies 138642
relevant to the granting of, nor later developments with respect 138643
to, the tax credit shall impair the status of the qualified direct 138644
selling entity under division (B)(48) of this section after 138645
execution of the tax credit agreement by the tax credit authority.138646

       (c) Division (B)(48) of this section is limited to machinery, 138647
equipment, and software first stored, used, or consumed in this 138648
state within the period commencing June 24, 2008, and ending on 138649
the date that is five years after that date.138650

       (49)(a) Sales of materials, parts, equipment, or engines used 138651
in the repair or maintenance of aircraft or avionics systems of 138652
such aircraft, and sales of repair, remodeling, replacement, or 138653
maintenance services in this state performed on aircraft or on an 138654
aircraft's avionics, engine, or component materials or parts. As 138655
used in division (B)(49)(a) of this section, "aircraft" means 138656
aircraft of more than six thousand pounds maximum certified 138657
takeoff weight or used exclusively in general aviation.138658

       (b) Sales of tangible personal property, including materials, 138659
parts, equipment, software, supplies, tools, fuel, catalysts, oil, 138660
acids, and other consumables, or services used or consumed in 138661
performing research and development activities with respect to 138662
aerospace vehicles, the parts, avionics systems, control systems, 138663
engines, software, component materials, or component parts of such 138664
aerospace vehicles, and human performance equipment and technology 138665
associated with operating and testing aerospace vehicles. As used 138666
in division (B)(49)(b) of this section, "aerospace vehicles" means 138667
any manned or unmanned aviation device including, but not limited 138668
to, aircraft, airplanes, helicopters, missiles, rockets, and space 138669
vehicles.138670

       (50) Sales of full flight simulators that are used for pilot 138671
or flight-crew training, sales of repair or replacement parts or 138672
components, and sales of repair or maintenance services for such 138673
full flight simulators. "Full flight simulator" means a replica of 138674
a specific type, or make, model, and series of aircraft cockpit. 138675
It includes the assemblage of equipment and computer programs 138676
necessary to represent aircraft operations in ground and flight 138677
conditions, a visual system providing an out-of-the-cockpit view, 138678
and a system that provides cues at least equivalent to those of a 138679
three-degree-of-freedom motion system, and has the full range of 138680
capabilities of the systems installed in the device as described 138681
in appendices A and B of part 60 of chapter 1 of title 14 of the 138682
Code of Federal Regulations.138683

       (51) Any transfer or lease of tangible personal property 138684
between the state and a successful proposer in accordance with 138685
sections 126.60 to 126.605 of the Revised Code, provided the 138686
property is part of a project as defined in section 126.60 of the 138687
Revised Code and the state retains ownership of the project or 138688
part thereof that is being transferred or leased, between the 138689
state and JobsOhio in accordance with section 4313.02 of the 138690
Revised Code.138691

       (52)(a) Sales to a qualifying corporation. 138692

       (b) As used in division (B)(52) of this section: 138693

       (i) "Qualifying corporation" means a nonprofit corporation 138694
organized in this state that leases from an eligible county land, 138695
buildings, structures, fixtures, and improvements to the land that 138696
are part of or used in a public recreational facility used by a 138697
major league professional athletic team or a class A to class AAA 138698
minor league affiliate of a major league professional athletic 138699
team for a significant portion of the team's home schedule, 138700
provided the following apply: 138701

       (I) The facility is leased from the eligible county pursuant 138702
to a lease that requires substantially all of the revenue from the 138703
operation of the business or activity conducted by the nonprofit 138704
corporation at the facility in excess of operating costs, capital 138705
expenditures, and reserves to be paid to the eligible county at 138706
least once per calendar year. 138707

       (II) Upon dissolution and liquidation of the nonprofit 138708
corporation, all of its net assets are distributable to the board 138709
of commissioners of the eligible county from which the corporation 138710
leases the facility. 138711

       (ii) "Eligible county" has the same meaning as in section 138712
307.695 of the Revised Code.138713

       (C) For the purpose of the proper administration of this 138714
chapter, and to prevent the evasion of the tax, it is presumed 138715
that all sales made in this state are subject to the tax until the 138716
contrary is established.138717

       (D) The levy of this tax on retail sales of recreation and 138718
sports club service shall not prevent a municipal corporation from 138719
levying any tax on recreation and sports club dues or on any 138720
income generated by recreation and sports club dues.138721

       (E) The tax collected by the vendor from the consumer under 138722
this chapter is not part of the price, but is a tax collection for 138723
the benefit of the state, and of counties levying an additional 138724
sales tax pursuant to section 5739.021 or 5739.026 of the Revised 138725
Code and of transit authorities levying an additional sales tax 138726
pursuant to section 5739.023 of the Revised Code. Except for the 138727
discount authorized under section 5739.12 of the Revised Code and 138728
the effects of any rounding pursuant to section 5703.055 of the 138729
Revised Code, no person other than the state or such a county or 138730
transit authority shall derive any benefit from the collection or 138731
payment of the tax levied by this section or section 5739.021, 138732
5739.023, or 5739.026 of the Revised Code.138733

       Sec. 5739.026.  (A) A board of county commissioners may levy 138734
a tax of one-fourth or one-half of one per cent on every retail 138735
sale in the county, except sales of watercraft and outboard motors 138736
required to be titled pursuant to Chapter 1548. of the Revised 138737
Code and sales of motor vehicles, and may increase an existing 138738
rate of one-fourth of one per cent to one-half of one per cent, to 138739
pay the expenses of administering the tax and, except as provided 138740
in division (A)(6) of this section, for any one or more of the 138741
following purposes provided that the aggregate levy for all such 138742
purposes does not exceed one-half of one per cent:138743

       (1) To provide additional revenues for the payment of bonds 138744
or notes issued in anticipation of bonds issued by a convention 138745
facilities authority established by the board of county 138746
commissioners under Chapter 351. of the Revised Code and to 138747
provide additional operating revenues for the convention 138748
facilities authority;138749

       (2) To provide additional revenues for a transit authority 138750
operating in the county;138751

       (3) To provide additional revenue for the county's general 138752
fund;138753

       (4) To provide additional revenue for permanent improvements 138754
within the county to be distributed by the community improvements 138755
board in accordance with section 307.283 and to pay principal, 138756
interest, and premium on bonds issued under section 307.284 of the 138757
Revised Code;138758

       (5) To provide additional revenue for the acquisition, 138759
construction, equipping, or repair of any specific permanent 138760
improvement or any class or group of permanent improvements, which 138761
improvement or class or group of improvements shall be enumerated 138762
in the resolution required by division (D) of this section, and to 138763
pay principal, interest, premium, and other costs associated with 138764
the issuance of bonds or notes in anticipation of bonds issued 138765
pursuant to Chapter 133. of the Revised Code for the acquisition, 138766
construction, equipping, or repair of the specific permanent 138767
improvement or class or group of permanent improvements;138768

       (6) To provide revenue for the implementation and operation 138769
of a 9-1-1 system in the county. If the tax is levied or the rate 138770
increased exclusively for such purpose, the tax shall not be 138771
levied or the rate increased for more than five years. At the end 138772
of the last year the tax is levied or the rate increased, any 138773
balance remaining in the special fund established for such purpose 138774
shall remain in that fund and be used exclusively for such purpose 138775
until the fund is completely expended, and, notwithstanding 138776
section 5705.16 of the Revised Code, the board of county 138777
commissioners shall not petition for the transfer of money from 138778
such special fund, and the tax commissioner shall not approve such 138779
a petition.138780

       If the tax is levied or the rate increased for such purpose 138781
for more than five years, the board of county commissioners also 138782
shall levy the tax or increase the rate of the tax for one or more 138783
of the purposes described in divisions (A)(1) to (5) of this 138784
section and shall prescribe the method for allocating the revenues 138785
from the tax each year in the manner required by division (C) of 138786
this section.138787

       (7) To provide additional revenue for the operation or 138788
maintenance of a detention facility, as that term is defined under 138789
division (F) of section 2921.01 of the Revised Code;138790

       (8) To provide revenue to finance the construction or 138791
renovation of a sports facility, but only if the tax is levied for 138792
that purpose in the manner prescribed by section 5739.028 of the 138793
Revised Code.138794

       As used in division (A)(8) of this section:138795

       (a) "Sports facility" means a facility intended to house 138796
major league professional athletic teams.138797

       (b) "Constructing" or "construction" includes providing 138798
fixtures, furnishings, and equipment.138799

       (9) To provide additional revenue for the acquisition of 138800
agricultural easements, as defined in section 5301.67 of the 138801
Revised Code; to pay principal, interest, and premium on bonds 138802
issued under section 133.60 of the Revised Code; and for the 138803
supervision and enforcement of agricultural easements held by the 138804
county;138805

       (10) To provide revenue for the provision of ambulance, 138806
paramedic, or other emergency medical services;138807

       (11) To provide revenue for the operation of a lake 138808
facilities authority and the remediation of an impacted watershed 138809
by a lake facilities authority, as provided in Chapter 353. of the 138810
Revised Code.138811

       Pursuant to section 755.171 of the Revised Code, a board of 138812
county commissioners may pledge and contribute revenue from a tax 138813
levied for the purpose of division (A)(5) of this section to the 138814
payment of debt charges on bonds issued under section 755.17 of 138815
the Revised Code.138816

       The rate of tax shall be a multiple of one-fourth of one per 138817
cent, unless a portion of the rate of an existing tax levied under 138818
section 5739.023 of the Revised Code has been reduced, and the 138819
rate of tax levied under this section has been increased, pursuant 138820
to section 5739.028 of the Revised Code, in which case the 138821
aggregate of the rates of tax levied under this section and 138822
section 5739.023 of the Revised Code shall be a multiple of 138823
one-fourth of one per cent. The tax shall be levied and the rate 138824
increased pursuant to a resolution adopted by a majority of the 138825
members of the board. The board shall deliver a certified copy of 138826
the resolution to the tax commissioner, not later than the 138827
sixty-fifth day prior to the date on which the tax is to become 138828
effective, which shall be the first day of a calendar quarter.138829

       Prior to the adoption of any resolution to levy the tax or to 138830
increase the rate of tax exclusively for the purpose set forth in 138831
division (A)(3) of this section, the board of county commissioners 138832
shall conduct two public hearings on the resolution, the second 138833
hearing to be no fewer than three nor more than ten days after the 138834
first. Notice of the date, time, and place of the hearings shall 138835
be given by publication in a newspaper of general circulation in 138836
the county, or as provided in section 7.16 of the Revised Code, 138837
once a week on the same day of the week for two consecutive weeks. 138838
The second publication shall be no fewer than ten nor more than 138839
thirty days prior to the first hearing. Except as provided in 138840
division (E) of this section, the resolution shall be subject to a 138841
referendum as provided in sections 305.31 to 305.41 of the Revised 138842
Code. If the resolution is adopted as an emergency measure 138843
necessary for the immediate preservation of the public peace, 138844
health, or safety, it must receive an affirmative vote of all of 138845
the members of the board of county commissioners and shall state 138846
the reasons for the necessity.138847

       If the tax is for more than one of the purposes set forth in 138848
divisions (A)(1) to (7), (9), and (10) of this section, or is 138849
exclusively for one of the purposes set forth in division (A)(1), 138850
(2), (4), (5), (6), (7), (9), or (10) of this section, the 138851
resolution shall not go into effect unless it is approved by a 138852
majority of the electors voting on the question of the tax.138853

       (B) The board of county commissioners shall adopt a 138854
resolution under section 351.02 of the Revised Code creating the 138855
convention facilities authority, or under section 307.283 of the 138856
Revised Code creating the community improvements board, before 138857
adopting a resolution levying a tax for the purpose of a 138858
convention facilities authority under division (A)(1) of this 138859
section or for the purpose of a community improvements board under 138860
division (A)(4) of this section.138861

       (C)(1) If the tax is to be used for more than one of the 138862
purposes set forth in divisions (A)(1) to (7), (9), and (10) of 138863
this section, the board of county commissioners shall establish 138864
the method that will be used to determine the amount or proportion 138865
of the tax revenue received by the county during each year that 138866
will be distributed for each of those purposes, including, if 138867
applicable, provisions governing the reallocation of a convention 138868
facilities authority's allocation if the authority is dissolved 138869
while the tax is in effect. The allocation method may provide that 138870
different proportions or amounts of the tax shall be distributed 138871
among the purposes in different years, but it shall clearly 138872
describe the method that will be used for each year. Except as 138873
otherwise provided in division (C)(2) of this section, the 138874
allocation method established by the board is not subject to 138875
amendment during the life of the tax.138876

       (2) Subsequent to holding a public hearing on the proposed 138877
amendment, the board of county commissioners may amend the 138878
allocation method established under division (C)(1) of this 138879
section for any year, if the amendment is approved by the 138880
governing board of each entity whose allocation for the year would 138881
be reduced by the proposed amendment. In the case of a tax that is 138882
levied for a continuing period of time, the board may not so amend 138883
the allocation method for any year before the sixth year that the 138884
tax is in effect.138885

       (a) If the additional revenues provided to the convention 138886
facilities authority are pledged by the authority for the payment 138887
of convention facilities authority revenue bonds for as long as 138888
such bonds are outstanding, no reduction of the authority's 138889
allocation of the tax shall be made for any year except to the 138890
extent that the reduced authority allocation, when combined with 138891
the authority's other revenues pledged for that purpose, is 138892
sufficient to meet the debt service requirements for that year on 138893
such bonds.138894

       (b) If the additional revenues provided to the county are 138895
pledged by the county for the payment of bonds or notes described 138896
in division (A)(4) or (5) of this section, for as long as such 138897
bonds or notes are outstanding, no reduction of the county's or 138898
the community improvements board's allocation of the tax shall be 138899
made for any year, except to the extent that the reduced county or 138900
community improvements board allocation is sufficient to meet the 138901
debt service requirements for that year on such bonds or notes.138902

       (c) If the additional revenues provided to the transit 138903
authority are pledged by the authority for the payment of revenue 138904
bonds issued under section 306.37 of the Revised Code, for as long 138905
as such bonds are outstanding, no reduction of the authority's 138906
allocation of tax shall be made for any year, except to the extent 138907
that the authority's reduced allocation, when combined with the 138908
authority's other revenues pledged for that purpose, is sufficient 138909
to meet the debt service requirements for that year on such bonds.138910

       (d) If the additional revenues provided to the county are 138911
pledged by the county for the payment of bonds or notes issued 138912
under section 133.60 of the Revised Code, for so long as the bonds 138913
or notes are outstanding, no reduction of the county's allocation 138914
of the tax shall be made for any year, except to the extent that 138915
the reduced county allocation is sufficient to meet the debt 138916
service requirements for that year on the bonds or notes.138917

       (D)(1) The resolution levying the tax or increasing the rate 138918
of tax shall state the rate of the tax or the rate of the 138919
increase; the purpose or purposes for which it is to be levied; 138920
the number of years for which it is to be levied or that it is for 138921
a continuing period of time; the allocation method required by 138922
division (C) of this section; and if required to be submitted to 138923
the electors of the county under division (A) of this section, the 138924
date of the election at which the proposal shall be submitted to 138925
the electors of the county, which shall be not less than ninety 138926
days after the certification of a copy of the resolution to the 138927
board of elections and, if the tax is to be levied exclusively for 138928
the purpose set forth in division (A)(3) of this section, shall 138929
not occur in February or August of any year. Upon certification of 138930
the resolution to the board of elections, the board of county 138931
commissioners shall notify the tax commissioner in writing of the 138932
levy question to be submitted to the electors. If approved by a 138933
majority of the electors, the tax shall become effective on the 138934
first day of a calendar quarter next following the sixty-fifth day 138935
following the date the board of county commissioners and tax 138936
commissioner receive from the board of elections the certification 138937
of the results of the election, except as provided in division (E) 138938
of this section.138939

       (2)(a) A resolution specifying that the tax is to be used 138940
exclusively for the purpose set forth in division (A)(3) of this 138941
section that is not adopted as an emergency measure may direct the 138942
board of elections to submit the question of levying the tax or 138943
increasing the rate of the tax to the electors of the county at a 138944
special election held on the date specified by the board of county 138945
commissioners in the resolution, provided that the election occurs 138946
not less than ninety days after the resolution is certified to the 138947
board of elections and the election is not held in February or 138948
August of any year. Upon certification of the resolution to the 138949
board of elections, the board of county commissioners shall notify 138950
the tax commissioner in writing of the levy question to be 138951
submitted to the electors. No resolution adopted under division 138952
(D)(2)(a) of this section shall go into effect unless approved by 138953
a majority of those voting upon it and, except as provided in 138954
division (E) of this section, not until the first day of a 138955
calendar quarter following the expiration of sixty-five days from 138956
the date the tax commissioner receives notice from the board of 138957
elections of the affirmative vote.138958

       (b) A resolution specifying that the tax is to be used 138959
exclusively for the purpose set forth in division (A)(3) of this 138960
section that is adopted as an emergency measure shall become 138961
effective as provided in division (A) of this section, but may 138962
direct the board of elections to submit the question of repealing 138963
the tax or increase in the rate of the tax to the electors of the 138964
county at the next general election in the county occurring not 138965
less than ninety days after the resolution is certified to the 138966
board of elections. Upon certification of the resolution to the 138967
board of elections, the board of county commissioners shall notify 138968
the tax commissioner in writing of the levy question to be 138969
submitted to the electors. The ballot question shall be the same 138970
as that prescribed in section 5739.022 of the Revised Code. The 138971
board of elections shall notify the board of county commissioners 138972
and the tax commissioner of the result of the election immediately 138973
after the result has been declared. If a majority of the qualified 138974
electors voting on the question of repealing the tax or increase 138975
in the rate of the tax vote for repeal of the tax or repeal of the 138976
increase, the board of county commissioners, on the first day of a 138977
calendar quarter following the expiration of sixty-five days after 138978
the date the board and tax commissioner received notice of the 138979
result of the election, shall, in the case of a repeal of the tax, 138980
cease to levy the tax, or, in the case of a repeal of an increase 138981
in the rate of the tax, cease to levy the increased rate and levy 138982
the tax at the rate at which it was imposed immediately prior to 138983
the increase in rate.138984

       (c) A board of county commissioners, by resolution, may 138985
reduce the rate of a tax levied exclusively for the purpose set 138986
forth in division (A)(3) of this section to a lower rate 138987
authorized by this section. Any such reduction shall be made 138988
effective on the first day of the calendar quarter next following 138989
the sixty-fifth day after the tax commissioner receives a 138990
certified copy of the resolution from the board.138991

       (E) If a vendor makes a sale in this state by printed catalog 138992
and the consumer computed the tax on the sale based on local rates 138993
published in the catalog, any tax levied or repealed or rate 138994
changed under this section shall not apply to such a sale until 138995
the first day of a calendar quarter following the expiration of 138996
one hundred twenty days from the date of notice by the tax 138997
commissioner pursuant to division (G) of this section.138998

       (F) The tax levied pursuant to this section shall be in 138999
addition to the tax levied by section 5739.02 of the Revised Code 139000
and any tax levied pursuant to section 5739.021 or 5739.023 of the 139001
Revised Code.139002

       A county that levies a tax pursuant to this section shall 139003
levy a tax at the same rate pursuant to section 5741.023 of the 139004
Revised Code.139005

       The additional tax levied by the county shall be collected 139006
pursuant to section 5739.025 of the Revised Code.139007

       Any tax levied pursuant to this section is subject to the 139008
exemptions provided in section 5739.02 of the Revised Code and in 139009
addition shall not be applicable to sales not within the taxing 139010
power of a county under the Constitution of the United States or 139011
the Ohio Constitution.139012

       (G) Upon receipt from a board of county commissioners of a 139013
certified copy of a resolution required by division (A) of this 139014
section, or from the board of elections a notice of the results of 139015
an election required by division (D)(1), (2)(a), (b), or (c) of 139016
this section, the tax commissioner shall provide notice of a tax 139017
rate change in a manner that is reasonably accessible to all 139018
affected vendors. The commissioner shall provide this notice at 139019
least sixty days prior to the effective date of the rate change. 139020
The commissioner, by rule, may establish the method by which 139021
notice will be provided.139022

       Sec. 5739.09.  (A)(1) A board of county commissioners may, by 139023
resolution adopted by a majority of the members of the board, levy 139024
an excise tax not to exceed three per cent on transactions by 139025
which lodging by a hotel is or is to be furnished to transient 139026
guests. The board shall establish all regulations necessary to 139027
provide for the administration and allocation of the tax. The 139028
regulations may prescribe the time for payment of the tax, and may 139029
provide for the imposition of a penalty or interest, or both, for 139030
late payments, provided that the penalty does not exceed ten per 139031
cent of the amount of tax due, and the rate at which interest 139032
accrues does not exceed the rate per annum prescribed pursuant to 139033
section 5703.47 of the Revised Code. Except as provided in 139034
divisions (A)(2), (3), (4), (5), (6), and (7) of this section, the 139035
regulations shall provide, after deducting the real and actual 139036
costs of administering the tax, for the return to each municipal 139037
corporation or township that does not levy an excise tax on the 139038
transactions, a uniform percentage of the tax collected in the 139039
municipal corporation or in the unincorporated portion of the 139040
township from each transaction, not to exceed thirty-three and 139041
one-third per cent. The remainder of the revenue arising from the 139042
tax shall be deposited in a separate fund and shall be spent 139043
solely to make contributions to the convention and visitors' 139044
bureau operating within the county, including a pledge and 139045
contribution of any portion of the remainder pursuant to an 139046
agreement authorized by section 307.695 of the Revised Code, 139047
provided that if the board of county commissioners of an eligible 139048
county as defined in section 307.695 of the Revised Code adopts a 139049
resolution amending a resolution levying a tax under this division 139050
to provide that the revenue from the tax shall be used by the 139051
board as described in division (H) of section 307.695 of the 139052
Revised Code, the remainder of the revenue shall be used as 139053
described in the resolution making that amendment. Except as 139054
provided in division (A)(2), (3), (4), (5), (6), or (7) or (H) of 139055
this section, on and after May 10, 1994, a board of county 139056
commissioners may not levy an excise tax pursuant to this division 139057
in any municipal corporation or township located wholly or partly 139058
within the county that has in effect an ordinance or resolution 139059
levying an excise tax pursuant to division (B) of this section. 139060
The board of a county that has levied a tax under division (C) of 139061
this section may, by resolution adopted within ninety days after 139062
July 15, 1985, by a majority of the members of the board, amend 139063
the resolution levying a tax under this division to provide for a 139064
portion of that tax to be pledged and contributed in accordance 139065
with an agreement entered into under section 307.695 of the 139066
Revised Code. A tax, any revenue from which is pledged pursuant to 139067
such an agreement, shall remain in effect at the rate at which it 139068
is imposed for the duration of the period for which the revenue 139069
from the tax has been so pledged.139070

       The board of county commissioners of an eligible county as 139071
defined in section 307.695 of the Revised Code may, by resolution 139072
adopted by a majority of the members of the board, amend a 139073
resolution levying a tax under this division to provide that the 139074
revenue from the tax shall be used by the board as described in 139075
division (H) of section 307.695 of the Revised Code, in which case 139076
the tax shall remain in effect at the rate at which it was imposed 139077
for the duration of any agreement entered into by the board under 139078
section 307.695 of the Revised Code, the duration during which any 139079
securities issued by the board under that section are outstanding, 139080
or the duration of the period during which the board owns a 139081
project as defined in section 307.695 of the Revised Code, 139082
whichever duration is longest.139083

       (2) A board of county commissioners that levies an excise tax 139084
under division (A)(1) of this section on June 30, 1997, at a rate 139085
of three per cent, and that has pledged revenue from the tax to an 139086
agreement entered into under section 307.695 of the Revised Code 139087
or, in the case of the board of county commissioners of an 139088
eligible county as defined in section 307.695 of the Revised Code, 139089
has amended a resolution levying a tax under division (C) of this 139090
section to provide that proceeds from the tax shall be used by the 139091
board as described in division (H) of section 307.695 of the 139092
Revised Code, may, at any time by a resolution adopted by a 139093
majority of the members of the board, amend the resolution levying 139094
a tax under division (A)(1) of this section to provide for an 139095
increase in the rate of that tax up to seven per cent on each 139096
transaction; to provide that revenue from the increase in the rate 139097
shall be used as described in division (H) of section 307.695 of 139098
the Revised Code or be spent solely to make contributions to the 139099
convention and visitors' bureau operating within the county to be 139100
used specifically for promotion, advertising, and marketing of the 139101
region in which the county is located; and to provide that the 139102
rate in excess of the three per cent levied under division (A)(1) 139103
of this section shall remain in effect at the rate at which it is 139104
imposed for the duration of the period during which any agreement 139105
is in effect that was entered into under section 307.695 of the 139106
Revised Code by the board of county commissioners levying a tax 139107
under division (A)(1) of this section, the duration of the period 139108
during which any securities issued by the board under division (I) 139109
of section 307.695 of the Revised Code are outstanding, or the 139110
duration of the period during which the board owns a project as 139111
defined in section 307.695 of the Revised Code, whichever duration 139112
is longest. The amendment also shall provide that no portion of 139113
that revenue need be returned to townships or municipal 139114
corporations as would otherwise be required under division (A)(1) 139115
of this section.139116

       (3) A board of county commissioners that levies a tax under 139117
division (A)(1) of this section on March 18, 1999, at a rate of 139118
three per cent may, by resolution adopted not later than 139119
forty-five days after March 18, 1999, amend the resolution levying 139120
the tax to provide for all of the following:139121

       (a) That the rate of the tax shall be increased by not more 139122
than an additional four per cent on each transaction;139123

       (b) That all of the revenue from the increase in the rate 139124
shall be pledged and contributed to a convention facilities 139125
authority established by the board of county commissioners under 139126
Chapter 351. of the Revised Code on or before November 15, 1998, 139127
and used to pay costs of constructing, maintaining, operating, and 139128
promoting a facility in the county, including paying bonds, or 139129
notes issued in anticipation of bonds, as provided by that 139130
chapter;139131

       (c) That no portion of the revenue arising from the increase 139132
in rate need be returned to municipal corporations or townships as 139133
otherwise required under division (A)(1) of this section;139134

       (d) That the increase in rate shall not be subject to 139135
diminution by initiative or referendum or by law while any bonds, 139136
or notes in anticipation of bonds, issued by the authority under 139137
Chapter 351. of the Revised Code to which the revenue is pledged, 139138
remain outstanding in accordance with their terms, unless 139139
provision is made by law or by the board of county commissioners 139140
for an adequate substitute therefor that is satisfactory to the 139141
trustee if a trust agreement secures the bonds.139142

       Division (A)(3) of this section does not apply to the board 139143
of county commissioners of any county in which a convention center 139144
or facility exists or is being constructed on November 15, 1998, 139145
or of any county in which a convention facilities authority levies 139146
a tax pursuant to section 351.021 of the Revised Code on that 139147
date.139148

       As used in division (A)(3) of this section, "cost" and 139149
"facility" have the same meanings as in section 351.01 of the 139150
Revised Code, and "convention center" has the same meaning as in 139151
section 307.695 of the Revised Code.139152

       (4)(a) A board of county commissioners that levies a tax 139153
under division (A)(1) of this section on June 30, 2002, at a rate 139154
of three per cent may, by resolution adopted not later than 139155
September 30, 2002, amend the resolution levying the tax to 139156
provide for all of the following:139157

       (i) That the rate of the tax shall be increased by not more 139158
than an additional three and one-half per cent on each 139159
transaction;139160

       (ii) That all of the revenue from the increase in rate shall 139161
be pledged and contributed to a convention facilities authority 139162
established by the board of county commissioners under Chapter 139163
351. of the Revised Code on or before May 15, 2002, and be used to 139164
pay costs of constructing, expanding, maintaining, operating, or 139165
promoting a convention center in the county, including paying 139166
bonds, or notes issued in anticipation of bonds, as provided by 139167
that chapter;139168

       (iii) That no portion of the revenue arising from the 139169
increase in rate need be returned to municipal corporations or 139170
townships as otherwise required under division (A)(1) of this 139171
section;139172

       (iv) That the increase in rate shall not be subject to 139173
diminution by initiative or referendum or by law while any bonds, 139174
or notes in anticipation of bonds, issued by the authority under 139175
Chapter 351. of the Revised Code to which the revenue is pledged, 139176
remain outstanding in accordance with their terms, unless 139177
provision is made by law or by the board of county commissioners 139178
for an adequate substitute therefor that is satisfactory to the 139179
trustee if a trust agreement secures the bonds.139180

       (b) Any board of county commissioners that, pursuant to 139181
division (A)(4)(a) of this section, has amended a resolution 139182
levying the tax authorized by division (A)(1) of this section may 139183
further amend the resolution to provide that the revenue referred 139184
to in division (A)(4)(a)(ii) of this section shall be pledged and 139185
contributed both to a convention facilities authority to pay the 139186
costs of constructing, expanding, maintaining, or operating one or 139187
more convention centers in the county, including paying bonds, or 139188
notes issued in anticipation of bonds, as provided in Chapter 351. 139189
of the Revised Code, and to a convention and visitors' bureau to 139190
pay the costs of promoting one or more convention centers in the 139191
county.139192

       As used in division (A)(4) of this section, "cost" has the 139193
same meaning as in section 351.01 of the Revised Code, and 139194
"convention center" has the same meaning as in section 307.695 of 139195
the Revised Code.139196

       (5)(a) As used in division (A)(5) of this section:139197

        (i) "Port authority" means a port authority created under 139198
Chapter 4582. of the Revised Code.139199

        (ii) "Port authority military-use facility" means port 139200
authority facilities on which or adjacent to which is located an 139201
installation of the armed forces of the United States, a reserve 139202
component thereof, or the national guard and at least part of 139203
which is made available for use, for consideration, by the armed 139204
forces of the United States, a reserve component thereof, or the 139205
national guard.139206

        (b) For the purpose of contributing revenue to pay operating 139207
expenses of a port authority that operates a port authority 139208
military-use facility, the board of county commissioners of a 139209
county that created, participated in the creation of, or has 139210
joined such a port authority may do one or both of the following:139211

        (i) Amend a resolution previously adopted under division 139212
(A)(1) of this section to designate some or all of the revenue 139213
from the tax levied under the resolution to be used for that 139214
purpose, notwithstanding that division;139215

       (ii) Amend a resolution previously adopted under division 139216
(A)(1) of this section to increase the rate of the tax by not more 139217
than an additional two per cent and use the revenue from the 139218
increase exclusively for that purpose.139219

        (c) If a board of county commissioners amends a resolution to 139220
increase the rate of a tax as authorized in division (A)(5)(b)(ii) 139221
of this section, the board also may amend the resolution to 139222
specify that the increase in rate of the tax does not apply to 139223
"hotels," as otherwise defined in section 5739.01 of the Revised 139224
Code, having fewer rooms used for the accommodation of guests than 139225
a number of rooms specified by the board.139226

       (6) A board of county commissioners of a county organized 139227
under a county charter adopted pursuant to Article X, Section 3, 139228
Ohio Constitution, and that levies an excise tax under division 139229
(A)(1) of this section at a rate of three per cent and levies an 139230
additional excise tax under division (E) of this section at a rate 139231
of one and one-half per cent may, by resolution adopted not later 139232
than January 1, 2008, by a majority of the members of the board, 139233
amend the resolution levying a tax under division (A)(1) of this 139234
section to provide for an increase in the rate of that tax by not 139235
more than an additional one per cent on transactions by which 139236
lodging by a hotel is or is to be furnished to transient guests. 139237
Notwithstanding divisions (A)(1) and (E) of this section, the 139238
resolution shall provide that all of the revenue from the increase 139239
in rate, after deducting the real and actual costs of 139240
administering the tax, shall be used to pay the costs of 139241
improving, expanding, equipping, financing, or operating a 139242
convention center by a convention and visitors' bureau in the 139243
county. The increase in rate shall remain in effect for the period 139244
specified in the resolution, not to exceed ten years. The increase 139245
in rate shall be subject to the regulations adopted under division 139246
(A)(1) of this section, except that the resolution may provide 139247
that no portion of the revenue from the increase in the rate shall 139248
be returned to townships or municipal corporations as would 139249
otherwise be required under that division.139250

       (7) Division (A)(7) of this section applies only to a county 139251
with a population greater than sixty-five thousand and less than 139252
seventy thousand according to the most recent federal decennial 139253
census and in which, on December 31, 2006, an excise tax is levied 139254
under division (A)(1) of this section at a rate not less than and 139255
not greater than three per cent, and in which the most recent 139256
increase in the rate of that tax was enacted or took effect in 139257
November 1984.139258

       The board of county commissioners of a county to which this 139259
division applies, by resolution adopted by a majority of the 139260
members of the board, may increase the rate of the tax by not more 139261
than one per cent on transactions by which lodging by a hotel is 139262
or is to be furnished to transient guests. The increase in rate 139263
shall be for the purpose of paying expenses deemed necessary by 139264
the convention and visitors' bureau operating in the county to 139265
promote travel and tourism. The increase in rate shall remain in 139266
effect for the period specified in the resolution, not to exceed 139267
twenty years, provided that the increase in rate may not continue 139268
beyond the time when the purpose for which the increase is levied 139269
ceases to exist. If revenue from the increase in rate is pledged 139270
to the payment of debt charges on securities, the increase in rate 139271
is not subject to diminution by initiative or referendum or by law 139272
for so long as the securities are outstanding, unless provision is 139273
made by law or by the board of county commissioners for an 139274
adequate substitute for that revenue that is satisfactory to the 139275
trustee if a trust agreement secures payment of the debt charges. 139276
The increase in rate shall be subject to the regulations adopted 139277
under division (A)(1) of this section, except that the resolution 139278
may provide that no portion of the revenue from the increase in 139279
the rate shall be returned to townships or municipal corporations 139280
as would otherwise be required under division (A)(1) of this 139281
section. A resolution adopted under division (A)(7) of this 139282
section is subject to referendum under sections 305.31 to 305.99 139283
of the Revised Code.139284

       (B)(1) The legislative authority of a municipal corporation 139285
or the board of trustees of a township that is not wholly or 139286
partly located in a county that has in effect a resolution levying 139287
an excise tax pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section may, by 139288
ordinance or resolution, levy an excise tax not to exceed three 139289
per cent on transactions by which lodging by a hotel is or is to 139290
be furnished to transient guests. The legislative authority of the 139291
municipal corporation or the board of trustees of the township 139292
shall deposit at least fifty per cent of the revenue from the tax 139293
levied pursuant to this division into a separate fund, which shall 139294
be spent solely to make contributions to convention and visitors' 139295
bureaus operating within the county in which the municipal 139296
corporation or township is wholly or partly located, and the 139297
balance of that revenue shall be deposited in the general fund. 139298
The municipal corporation or township shall establish all 139299
regulations necessary to provide for the administration and 139300
allocation of the tax. The regulations may prescribe the time for 139301
payment of the tax, and may provide for the imposition of a 139302
penalty or interest, or both, for late payments, provided that the 139303
penalty does not exceed ten per cent of the amount of tax due, and 139304
the rate at which interest accrues does not exceed the rate per 139305
annum prescribed pursuant to section 5703.47 of the Revised Code. 139306
The levy of a tax under this division is in addition to any tax 139307
imposed on the same transaction by a municipal corporation or a 139308
township as authorized by division (A) of section 5739.08 of the 139309
Revised Code.139310

       (2)(a) The legislative authority of the most populous 139311
municipal corporation located wholly or partly in a county in 139312
which the board of county commissioners has levied a tax under 139313
division (A)(4) of this section may amend, on or before September 139314
30, 2002, that municipal corporation's ordinance or resolution 139315
that levies an excise tax on transactions by which lodging by a 139316
hotel is or is to be furnished to transient guests, to provide for 139317
all of the following:139318

       (i) That the rate of the tax shall be increased by not more 139319
than an additional one per cent on each transaction;139320

       (ii) That all of the revenue from the increase in rate shall 139321
be pledged and contributed to a convention facilities authority 139322
established by the board of county commissioners under Chapter 139323
351. of the Revised Code on or before May 15, 2002, and be used to 139324
pay costs of constructing, expanding, maintaining, operating, or 139325
promoting a convention center in the county, including paying 139326
bonds, or notes issued in anticipation of bonds, as provided by 139327
that chapter;139328

       (iii) That the increase in rate shall not be subject to 139329
diminution by initiative or referendum or by law while any bonds, 139330
or notes in anticipation of bonds, issued by the authority under 139331
Chapter 351. of the Revised Code to which the revenue is pledged, 139332
remain outstanding in accordance with their terms, unless 139333
provision is made by law, by the board of county commissioners, or 139334
by the legislative authority, for an adequate substitute therefor 139335
that is satisfactory to the trustee if a trust agreement secures 139336
the bonds.139337

       (b) The legislative authority of a municipal corporation 139338
that, pursuant to division (B)(2)(a) of this section, has amended 139339
its ordinance or resolution to increase the rate of the tax 139340
authorized by division (B)(1) of this section may further amend 139341
the ordinance or resolution to provide that the revenue referred 139342
to in division (B)(2)(a)(ii) of this section shall be pledged and 139343
contributed both to a convention facilities authority to pay the 139344
costs of constructing, expanding, maintaining, or operating one or 139345
more convention centers in the county, including paying bonds, or 139346
notes issued in anticipation of bonds, as provided in Chapter 351. 139347
of the Revised Code, and to a convention and visitors' bureau to 139348
pay the costs of promoting one or more convention centers in the 139349
county.139350

       As used in division (B)(2) of this section, "cost" has the 139351
same meaning as in section 351.01 of the Revised Code, and 139352
"convention center" has the same meaning as in section 307.695 of 139353
the Revised Code.139354

       (C) For the purposes described in section 307.695 of the 139355
Revised Code and to cover the costs of administering the tax, a 139356
board of county commissioners of a county where a tax imposed 139357
under division (A)(1) of this section is in effect may, by 139358
resolution adopted within ninety days after July 15, 1985, by a 139359
majority of the members of the board, levy an additional excise 139360
tax not to exceed three per cent on transactions by which lodging 139361
by a hotel is or is to be furnished to transient guests. The tax 139362
authorized by this division shall be in addition to any tax that 139363
is levied pursuant to division (A) of this section, but it shall 139364
not apply to transactions subject to a tax levied by a municipal 139365
corporation or township pursuant to the authorization granted by 139366
division (A) of section 5739.08 of the Revised Code. The board 139367
shall establish all regulations necessary to provide for the 139368
administration and allocation of the tax. The regulations may 139369
prescribe the time for payment of the tax, and may provide for the 139370
imposition of a penalty or interest, or both, for late payments, 139371
provided that the penalty does not exceed ten per cent of the 139372
amount of tax due, and the rate at which interest accrues does not 139373
exceed the rate per annum prescribed pursuant to section 5703.47 139374
of the Revised Code. All revenues arising from the tax shall be 139375
expended in accordance with section 307.695 of the Revised Code. 139376
The board of county commissioners of an eligible county as defined 139377
in section 307.695 of the Revised Code may, by resolution adopted 139378
by a majority of the members of the board, amend the resolution 139379
levying a tax under this division to provide that the revenue from 139380
the tax shall be used by the board as described in division (H) of 139381
section 307.695 of the Revised Code. A tax imposed under this 139382
division shall remain in effect at the rate at which it is imposed 139383
for the duration of the period during which any agreement entered 139384
into by the board under section 307.695 of the Revised Code is in 139385
effect, the duration of the period during which any securities 139386
issued by the board under division (I) of section 307.695 of the 139387
Revised Code are outstanding, or the duration of the period during 139388
which the board owns a project as defined in section 307.695 of 139389
the Revised Code, whichever duration is longest.139390

       (D) For the purpose of providing contributions under division 139391
(B)(1) of section 307.671 of the Revised Code to enable the 139392
acquisition, construction, and equipping of a port authority 139393
educational and cultural facility in the county and, to the extent 139394
provided for in the cooperative agreement authorized by that 139395
section, for the purpose of paying debt service charges on bonds, 139396
or notes in anticipation of bonds, described in division (B)(1)(b) 139397
of that section, a board of county commissioners, by resolution 139398
adopted within ninety days after December 22, 1992, by a majority 139399
of the members of the board, may levy an additional excise tax not 139400
to exceed one and one-half per cent on transactions by which 139401
lodging by a hotel is or is to be furnished to transient guests. 139402
The excise tax authorized by this division shall be in addition to 139403
any tax that is levied pursuant to divisions (A), (B), and (C) of 139404
this section, to any excise tax levied pursuant to section 5739.08 139405
of the Revised Code, and to any excise tax levied pursuant to 139406
section 351.021 of the Revised Code. The board of county 139407
commissioners shall establish all regulations necessary to provide 139408
for the administration and allocation of the tax that are not 139409
inconsistent with this section or section 307.671 of the Revised 139410
Code. The regulations may prescribe the time for payment of the 139411
tax, and may provide for the imposition of a penalty or interest, 139412
or both, for late payments, provided that the penalty does not 139413
exceed ten per cent of the amount of tax due, and the rate at 139414
which interest accrues does not exceed the rate per annum 139415
prescribed pursuant to section 5703.47 of the Revised Code. All 139416
revenues arising from the tax shall be expended in accordance with 139417
section 307.671 of the Revised Code and division (D) of this 139418
section. The levy of a tax imposed under this division may not 139419
commence prior to the first day of the month next following the 139420
execution of the cooperative agreement authorized by section 139421
307.671 of the Revised Code by all parties to that agreement. The 139422
tax shall remain in effect at the rate at which it is imposed for 139423
the period of time described in division (C) of section 307.671 of 139424
the Revised Code for which the revenue from the tax has been 139425
pledged by the county to the corporation pursuant to that section, 139426
but, to any extent provided for in the cooperative agreement, for 139427
no lesser period than the period of time required for payment of 139428
the debt service charges on bonds, or notes in anticipation of 139429
bonds, described in division (B)(1)(b) of that section.139430

       (E) For the purpose of paying the costs of acquiring, 139431
constructing, equipping, and improving a municipal educational and 139432
cultural facility, including debt service charges on bonds 139433
provided for in division (B) of section 307.672 of the Revised 139434
Code, and for any additional purposes determined by the county in 139435
the resolution levying the tax or amendments to the resolution, 139436
including subsequent amendments providing for paying costs of 139437
acquiring, constructing, renovating, rehabilitating, equipping, 139438
and improving a port authority educational and cultural performing 139439
arts facility, as defined in section 307.674 of the Revised Code, 139440
and including debt service charges on bonds provided for in 139441
division (B) of section 307.674 of the Revised Code, the 139442
legislative authority of a county, by resolution adopted within 139443
ninety days after June 30, 1993, by a majority of the members of 139444
the legislative authority, may levy an additional excise tax not 139445
to exceed one and one-half per cent on transactions by which 139446
lodging by a hotel is or is to be furnished to transient guests. 139447
The excise tax authorized by this division shall be in addition to 139448
any tax that is levied pursuant to divisions (A), (B), (C), and 139449
(D) of this section, to any excise tax levied pursuant to section 139450
5739.08 of the Revised Code, and to any excise tax levied pursuant 139451
to section 351.021 of the Revised Code. The legislative authority 139452
of the county shall establish all regulations necessary to provide 139453
for the administration and allocation of the tax. The regulations 139454
may prescribe the time for payment of the tax, and may provide for 139455
the imposition of a penalty or interest, or both, for late 139456
payments, provided that the penalty does not exceed ten per cent 139457
of the amount of tax due, and the rate at which interest accrues 139458
does not exceed the rate per annum prescribed pursuant to section 139459
5703.47 of the Revised Code. All revenues arising from the tax 139460
shall be expended in accordance with section 307.672 of the 139461
Revised Code and this division. The levy of a tax imposed under 139462
this division shall not commence prior to the first day of the 139463
month next following the execution of the cooperative agreement 139464
authorized by section 307.672 of the Revised Code by all parties 139465
to that agreement. The tax shall remain in effect at the rate at 139466
which it is imposed for the period of time determined by the 139467
legislative authority of the county. That period of time shall not 139468
exceed fifteen years, except that the legislative authority of a 139469
county with a population of less than two hundred fifty thousand 139470
according to the most recent federal decennial census, by 139471
resolution adopted by a majority of its members before the 139472
original tax expires, may extend the duration of the tax for an 139473
additional period of time. The additional period of time by which 139474
a legislative authority extends a tax levied under this division 139475
shall not exceed fifteen years.139476

       (F) The legislative authority of a county that has levied a 139477
tax under division (E) of this section may, by resolution adopted 139478
within one hundred eighty days after January 4, 2001, by a 139479
majority of the members of the legislative authority, amend the 139480
resolution levying a tax under that division to provide for the 139481
use of the proceeds of that tax, to the extent that it is no 139482
longer needed for its original purpose as determined by the 139483
parties to a cooperative agreement amendment pursuant to division 139484
(D) of section 307.672 of the Revised Code, to pay costs of 139485
acquiring, constructing, renovating, rehabilitating, equipping, 139486
and improving a port authority educational and cultural performing 139487
arts facility, including debt service charges on bonds provided 139488
for in division (B) of section 307.674 of the Revised Code, and to 139489
pay all obligations under any guaranty agreements, reimbursement 139490
agreements, or other credit enhancement agreements described in 139491
division (C) of section 307.674 of the Revised Code. The 139492
resolution may also provide for the extension of the tax at the 139493
same rate for the longer of the period of time determined by the 139494
legislative authority of the county, but not to exceed an 139495
additional twenty-five years, or the period of time required to 139496
pay all debt service charges on bonds provided for in division (B) 139497
of section 307.672 of the Revised Code and on port authority 139498
revenue bonds provided for in division (B) of section 307.674 of 139499
the Revised Code. All revenues arising from the amendment and 139500
extension of the tax shall be expended in accordance with section 139501
307.674 of the Revised Code, this division, and division (E) of 139502
this section.139503

       (G) For purposes of a tax levied by a county, township, or 139504
municipal corporation under this section or section 5739.08 of the 139505
Revised Code, a board of county commissioners, board of township 139506
trustees, or the legislative authority of a municipal corporation 139507
may adopt a resolution or ordinance at any time specifying that 139508
"hotel," as otherwise defined in section 5739.01 of the Revised 139509
Code, includes the following:139510

       (1) Establishments in which fewer than five rooms are used 139511
for the accommodation of guests. 139512

       (2) Establishments at which rooms are used for the 139513
accommodation of guests regardless of whether each room is 139514
accessible through its own keyed entry or several rooms are 139515
accessible through the same keyed entry; and, in determining the 139516
number of rooms, all rooms are included regardless of the number 139517
of structures in which the rooms are situated or the number of 139518
parcels of land on which the structures are located if the 139519
structures are under the same ownership and the structures are not 139520
identified in advertisements of the accommodations as distinct 139521
establishments. For the purposes of division (G)(2) of this 139522
section, two or more structures are under the same ownership if 139523
they are owned by the same person, or if they are owned by two or 139524
more persons the majority of the ownership interests of which are 139525
owned by the same person.139526

        The resolution or ordinance may apply to a tax imposed 139527
pursuant to this section prior to the adoption of the resolution 139528
or ordinance if the resolution or ordinance so states, but the tax 139529
shall not apply to transactions by which lodging by such an 139530
establishment is provided to transient guests prior to the 139531
adoption of the resolution or ordinance.139532

       (H)(1) As used in this division:139533

       (a) "Convention facilities authority" has the same meaning as 139534
in section 351.01 of the Revised Code.139535

       (b) "Convention center" has the same meaning as in section 139536
307.695 of the Revised Code.139537

       (2) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of division (D) of 139538
this section, the legislative authority of a county with a 139539
population of one million or more according to the most recent 139540
federal decennial census that has levied a tax under division (D) 139541
of this section may, by resolution adopted by a majority of the 139542
members of the legislative authority, provide for the extension of 139543
such levy and may provide that the proceeds of that tax, to the 139544
extent that they are no longer needed for their original purpose 139545
as defined by a cooperative agreement entered into under section 139546
307.671 of the Revised Code, shall be deposited into the county 139547
general revenue fund. The resolution shall provide for the 139548
extension of the tax at a rate not to exceed the rate specified in 139549
division (D) of this section for a period of time determined by 139550
the legislative authority of the county, but not to exceed an 139551
additional forty years.139552

       (3) The legislative authority of a county with a population 139553
of one million or more that has levied a tax under division (A)(1) 139554
of this section may, by resolution adopted by a majority of the 139555
members of the legislative authority, increase the rate of the tax 139556
levied by such county under division (A)(1) of this section to a 139557
rate not to exceed five per cent on transactions by which lodging 139558
by a hotel is or is to be furnished to transient guests. 139559
Notwithstanding any contrary provision of division (A)(1) of this 139560
section, the resolution may provide that all collections resulting 139561
from the rate levied in excess of three per cent, after deducting 139562
the real and actual costs of administering the tax, shall be 139563
deposited in the county general fund.139564

       (4) The legislative authority of a county with a population 139565
of one million or more that has levied a tax under division (A)(1) 139566
of this section may, by resolution adopted on or before August 30, 139567
2004, by a majority of the members of the legislative authority, 139568
provide that all or a portion of the proceeds of the tax levied 139569
under division (A)(1) of this section, after deducting the real 139570
and actual costs of administering the tax and the amounts required 139571
to be returned to townships and municipal corporations with 139572
respect to the first three per cent levied under division (A)(1) 139573
of this section, shall be deposited in the county general fund, 139574
provided that such proceeds shall be used to satisfy any pledges 139575
made in connection with an agreement entered into under section 139576
307.695 of the Revised Code.139577

       (5) No amount collected from a tax levied, extended, or 139578
required to be deposited in the county general fund under division 139579
(H) of this section shall be contributed to a convention 139580
facilities authority, corporation, or other entity created after 139581
July 1, 2003, for the principal purpose of constructing, 139582
improving, expanding, equipping, financing, or operating a 139583
convention center unless the mayor of the municipal corporation in 139584
which the convention center is to be operated by that convention 139585
facilities authority, corporation, or other entity has consented 139586
to the creation of that convention facilities authority, 139587
corporation, or entity. Notwithstanding any contrary provision of 139588
section 351.04 of the Revised Code, if a tax is levied by a county 139589
under division (H) of this section, the board of county 139590
commissioners of that county may determine the manner of 139591
selection, the qualifications, the number, and terms of office of 139592
the members of the board of directors of any convention facilities 139593
authority, corporation, or other entity described in division 139594
(H)(5) of this section.139595

       (6)(a) No amount collected from a tax levied, extended, or 139596
required to be deposited in the county general fund under division 139597
(H) of this section may be used for any purpose other than paying 139598
the direct and indirect costs of constructing, improving, 139599
expanding, equipping, financing, or operating a convention center 139600
and for the real and actual costs of administering the tax, 139601
unless, prior to the adoption of the resolution of the legislative 139602
authority of the county authorizing the levy, extension, increase, 139603
or deposit, the county and the mayor of the most populous 139604
municipal corporation in that county have entered into an 139605
agreement as to the use of such amounts, provided that such 139606
agreement has been approved by a majority of the mayors of the 139607
other municipal corporations in that county. The agreement shall 139608
provide that the amounts to be used for purposes other than paying 139609
the convention center or administrative costs described in 139610
division (H)(6)(a) of this section be used only for the direct and 139611
indirect costs of capital improvements, including the financing of 139612
capital improvements.139613

       (b) If the county in which the tax is levied has an 139614
association of mayors and city managers, the approval of that 139615
association of an agreement described in division (H)(6)(a) of 139616
this section shall be considered to be the approval of the 139617
majority of the mayors of the other municipal corporations for 139618
purposes of that division.139619

       (7) Each year, the auditor of state shall conduct an audit of 139620
the uses of any amounts collected from taxes levied, extended, or 139621
deposited under division (H) of this section and shall prepare a 139622
report of the auditor of state's findings. The auditor of state 139623
shall submit the report to the legislative authority of the county 139624
that has levied, extended, or deposited the tax, the speaker of 139625
the house of representatives, the president of the senate, and the 139626
leaders of the minority parties of the house of representatives 139627
and the senate.139628

       (I)(1) As used in this division:139629

       (a) "Convention facilities authority" has the same meaning as 139630
in section 351.01 of the Revised Code.139631

       (b) "Convention center" has the same meaning as in section 139632
307.695 of the Revised Code.139633

       (2) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of division (D) of 139634
this section, the legislative authority of a county with a 139635
population of one million two hundred thousand or more according 139636
to the most recent federal decennial census or the most recent 139637
annual population estimate published or released by the United 139638
States census bureau at the time the resolution is adopted placing 139639
the levy on the ballot, that has levied a tax under division (D) 139640
of this section may, by resolution adopted by a majority of the 139641
members of the legislative authority, provide for the extension of 139642
such levy and may provide that the proceeds of that tax, to the 139643
extent that the proceeds are no longer needed for their original 139644
purpose as defined by a cooperative agreement entered into under 139645
section 307.671 of the Revised Code and after deducting the real 139646
and actual costs of administering the tax, shall be used for 139647
paying the direct and indirect costs of constructing, improving, 139648
expanding, equipping, financing, or operating a convention center. 139649
The resolution shall provide for the extension of the tax at a 139650
rate not to exceed the rate specified in division (D) of this 139651
section for a period of time determined by the legislative 139652
authority of the county, but not to exceed an additional forty 139653
years.139654

       (3) The legislative authority of a county with a population 139655
of one million two hundred thousand or more that has levied a tax 139656
under division (A)(1) of this section may, by resolution adopted 139657
by a majority of the members of the legislative authority, 139658
increase the rate of the tax levied by such county under division 139659
(A)(1) of this section to a rate not to exceed five per cent on 139660
transactions by which lodging by a hotel is or is to be furnished 139661
to transient guests. Notwithstanding any contrary provision of 139662
division (A)(1) of this section, the resolution shall provide that 139663
all collections resulting from the rate levied in excess of three 139664
per cent, after deducting the real and actual costs of 139665
administering the tax, shall be used for paying the direct and 139666
indirect costs of constructing, improving, expanding, equipping, 139667
financing, or operating a convention center.139668

       (4) The legislative authority of a county with a population 139669
of one million two hundred thousand or more that has levied a tax 139670
under division (A)(1) of this section may, by resolution adopted 139671
on or before July 1, 2008, by a majority of the members of the 139672
legislative authority, provide that all or a portion of the 139673
proceeds of the tax levied under division (A)(1) of this section, 139674
after deducting the real and actual costs of administering the tax 139675
and the amounts required to be returned to townships and municipal 139676
corporations with respect to the first three per cent levied under 139677
division (A)(1) of this section, shall be used to satisfy any 139678
pledges made in connection with an agreement entered into under 139679
section 307.695 of the Revised Code or shall otherwise be used for 139680
paying the direct and indirect costs of constructing, improving, 139681
expanding, equipping, financing, or operating a convention center.139682

       (5) Any amount collected from a tax levied or extended under 139683
division (I) of this section may be contributed to a convention 139684
facilities authority created before July 1, 2005, but no amount 139685
collected from a tax levied or extended under division (I) of this 139686
section may be contributed to a convention facilities authority, 139687
corporation, or other entity created after July 1, 2005, unless 139688
the mayor of the municipal corporation in which the convention 139689
center is to be operated by that convention facilities authority, 139690
corporation, or other entity has consented to the creation of that 139691
convention facilities authority, corporation, or entity.139692

       (J) All money collected by a county and distributed under 139693
this section to a convention and visitors' bureau in existence as 139694
of the effective date of H.B. 59 of the 130th general assembly, 139695
except for any such money pledged, as of that effective date, to 139696
the payment of debt service charges on bonds, notes, securities, 139697
or lease agreements, shall be used solely for tourism sales, 139698
marketing and promotion, and their associated costs, including, 139699
but not limited to, operational and administrative costs of the 139700
bureau, sales and marketing, and maintenance of the physical 139701
bureau structure.139702

        (K) Of the funds distributed to a convention and visitors' 139703
bureau under this section, the amount a county may retain for real 139704
and actual costs associated with administering the tax shall not 139705
exceed the sum of (1) three per cent of the first five hundred 139706
thousand dollars distributed to the bureau and (2) one and 139707
one-half per cent of any amount in excess of five hundred thousand 139708
dollars distributed to the bureau.139709

       Sec. 5739.13.  (A) If any vendor collects the tax imposed by 139710
or pursuant to section 5739.02, 5739.021, 5739.023, or 5739.026 of 139711
the Revised Code, and fails to remit the tax to the state as 139712
prescribed, or on the sale of a motor vehicle, watercraft, or 139713
outboard motor required to be titled, fails to remit payment to a 139714
clerk of a court of common pleas as provided in section 1548.06 or 139715
4505.06 of the Revised Code, the vendor shall be personally liable 139716
for any tax collected and not remitted. The tax commissioner may 139717
make an assessment against such vendor based upon any information 139718
in the commissioner's possession.139719

       If any vendor fails to collect the tax or any consumer fails 139720
to pay the tax imposed by or pursuant to section 5739.02, 139721
5739.021, 5739.023, or 5739.026 of the Revised Code, on any 139722
transaction subject to the tax, the vendor or consumer shall be 139723
personally liable for the amount of the tax applicable to the 139724
transaction. The commissioner may make an assessment against 139725
either the vendor or consumer, as the facts may require, based 139726
upon any information in the commissioner's possession.139727

       An assessment against a vendor when the tax imposed by or 139728
pursuant to section 5739.02, 5739.021, 5739.023, or 5739.026 of 139729
the Revised Code has not been collected or paid, shall not 139730
discharge the purchaser's or consumer's liability to reimburse the 139731
vendor for the tax applicable to such transaction.139732

       An assessment issued against either, pursuant to this 139733
section, shall not be considered an election of remedies, nor a 139734
bar to an assessment against the other for the tax applicable to 139735
the same transaction, provided that no assessment shall be issued 139736
against any person for the tax due on a particular transaction if 139737
the tax on that transaction actually has been paid by another.139738

       The commissioner may make an assessment against any vendor 139739
who fails to file a return or remit the proper amount of tax 139740
required by this chapter, or against any consumer who fails to pay 139741
the proper amount of tax required by this chapter. When 139742
information in the possession of the commissioner indicates that 139743
the amount required to be collected or paid under this chapter is 139744
greater than the amount remitted by the vendor or paid by the 139745
consumer, the commissioner may audit a sample of the vendor's 139746
sales or the consumer's purchases for a representative period, to 139747
ascertain the per cent of exempt or taxable transactions or the 139748
effective tax rate and may issue an assessment based on the audit. 139749
The commissioner shall make a good faith effort to reach agreement 139750
with the vendor or consumer in selecting a representative sample.139751

       The commissioner may make an assessment, based on any 139752
information in histhe commissioner's possession, against any 139753
person who fails to file a return or remit the proper amount of 139754
tax required by section 5739.102 of the Revised Code.139755

       The commissioner may issue an assessment on any transaction 139756
for which any tax imposed under this chapter or Chapter 5741. of 139757
the Revised Code was due and unpaid on the date the vendor or 139758
consumer was informed by an agent of the tax commissioner of an 139759
investigation or audit. If the vendor or consumer remits any 139760
payment of the tax for the period covered by the assessment after 139761
the vendor or consumer was informed of the investigation or audit, 139762
the payment shall be credited against the amount of the 139763
assessment.139764

       The commissioner shall give the party assessed written notice 139765
of the assessment in the manner provided in section 5703.37 of the 139766
Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner shall provide 139767
instructions on how to petition for reassessment and request a 139768
hearing on the petition.139769

       (B) Unless the party assessed files with the commissioner 139770
within sixty days after service of the notice of assessment, 139771
either personally or by certified mail, a written petition for 139772
reassessment, signed by the party assessed or that party's 139773
authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the assessment 139774
becomes final and the amount of the assessment is due from the 139775
party assessed and payable to the treasurer of state and remitted 139776
to the tax commissioner. The petition shall indicate the 139777
objections of the party assessed, but additional objections may be 139778
raised in writing if received by the commissioner prior to the 139779
date shown on the final determination. If the petition has been 139780
properly filed, the commissioner shall proceed under section 139781
5703.60 of the Revised Code.139782

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 139783
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 139784
copy of the commissioner's entry making the assessment final may 139785
be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common pleas 139786
in the county in which the place of business of the party assessed 139787
is located or the county in which the party assessed resides. If 139788
the party assessed maintains no place of business in this state 139789
and is not a resident of this state, the certified copy of the 139790
entry may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of 139791
common pleas of Franklin county.139792

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 139793
enter a judgment for the state against the party assessed in the 139794
amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk 139795
in a loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for state, 139796
county, and transit authority retail sales tax" or, if 139797
appropriate, "special judgments for resort area excise tax," and 139798
shall have the same effect as other judgments. Execution shall 139799
issue upon the judgment upon the request of the tax commissioner, 139800
and all laws applicable to sales on execution shall apply to sales 139801
made under the judgment except as otherwise provided in this 139802
chapter.139803

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety139804
within sixty days after the date the assessment was issued, the 139805
portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall bear 139806
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 139807
the Revised Code from the day the tax commissioner issues the 139808
assessment until the assessment is paid or until it is certified 139809
to the attorney general for collection under section 131.02 of the 139810
Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid portion of the 139811
assessment is certified to the attorney general for collection, 139812
the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear interest at 139813
the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised 139814
Code from the date of certification until the date it is paid in 139815
its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner as the tax 139816
and may be collected by issuing an assessment under this section.139817

       (D) All money collected by the tax commissioner under this 139818
section shall be paid to the treasurer of state, and when paid 139819
shall be considered as revenue arising from the taxes imposed by 139820
or pursuant to sections 5739.01 to 5739.31 of the Revised Code.139821

       Sec. 5741.01.  As used in this chapter:139822

       (A) "Person" includes individuals, receivers, assignees, 139823
trustees in bankruptcy, estates, firms, partnerships, 139824
associations, joint-stock companies, joint ventures, clubs, 139825
societies, corporations, business trusts, governments, and 139826
combinations of individuals of any form.139827

       (B) "Storage" means and includes any keeping or retention in 139828
this state for use or other consumption in this state.139829

       (C) "Use" means and includes the exercise of any right or 139830
power incidental to the ownership of the thing used. A thing is 139831
also "used" in this state if its consumer gives or otherwise 139832
distributes it, without charge, to recipients in this state.139833

       (D) "Purchase" means acquired or received for a 139834
consideration, whether such acquisition or receipt was effected by 139835
a transfer of title, or of possession, or of both, or a license to 139836
use or consume; whether such transfer was absolute or conditional, 139837
and by whatever means the transfer was effected; and whether the 139838
consideration was money, credit, barter, or exchange. Purchase 139839
includes production, even though the article produced was used, 139840
stored, or consumed by the producer. The transfer of copyrighted 139841
motion picture films for exhibition purposes is not a purchase, 139842
except such films as are used solely for advertising purposes.139843

       (E) "Seller" means the person from whom a purchase is made, 139844
and includes every person engaged in this state or elsewhere in 139845
the business of selling tangible personal property or providing a 139846
service for storage, use, or other consumption or benefit in this 139847
state; and when, in the opinion of the tax commissioner, it is 139848
necessary for the efficient administration of this chapter, to 139849
regard any salesmansalesperson, representative, peddler, or 139850
canvasser as the agent of a dealer, distributor, supervisor, or 139851
employer under whom the person operates, or from whom the person 139852
obtains tangible personal property, sold by the person for 139853
storage, use, or other consumption in this state, irrespective of 139854
whether or not the person is making such sales on the person's own 139855
behalf, or on behalf of such dealer, distributor, supervisor, or 139856
employer, the commissioner may regard the person as such agent, 139857
and may regard such dealer, distributor, supervisor, or employer 139858
as the seller. "Seller" does not include any person to the extent 139859
the person provides a communications medium, such as, but not 139860
limited to, newspapers, magazines, radio, television, or cable 139861
television, by means of which sellers solicit purchases of their 139862
goods or services.139863

       (F) "Consumer" means any person who has purchased tangible 139864
personal property or has been provided a service for storage, use, 139865
or other consumption or benefit in this state. "Consumer" does not 139866
include a person who receives, without charge, tangible personal 139867
property or a service.139868

       A person who performs a facility management or similar 139869
service contract for a contractee is a consumer of all tangible 139870
personal property and services purchased for use in connection 139871
with the performance of such contract, regardless of whether title 139872
to any such property vests in the contractee. The purchase of such 139873
property and services is not subject to the exception for resale 139874
under division (E) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code.139875

       (G)(1) "Price," except as provided in divisions (G)(2) to (6) 139876
of this section, has the same meaning as in division (H)(1) of 139877
section 5739.01 of the Revised Code.139878

       (2) In the case of watercraft, outboard motors, or new motor 139879
vehicles, "price" has the same meaning as in divisions (H)(2) and 139880
(3) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code.139881

       (3) In the case of a nonresident business consumer that 139882
purchases and uses tangible personal property outside this state 139883
and subsequently temporarily stores, uses, or otherwise consumes 139884
such tangible personal property in the conduct of business in this 139885
state, the consumer or the tax commissioner may determine the 139886
price based on the value of the temporary storage, use, or other 139887
consumption, in lieu of determining the price pursuant to division 139888
(G)(1) of this section. A price determination made by the consumer 139889
is subject to review and redetermination by the commissioner.139890

       (4) In the case of tangible personal property held in this 139891
state as inventory for sale or lease, and that is temporarily 139892
stored, used, or otherwise consumed in a taxable manner, the price 139893
is the value of the temporary use. A price determination made by 139894
the consumer is subject to review and redetermination by the 139895
commissioner.139896

       (5) In the case of tangible personal property originally 139897
purchased and used by the consumer outside this state, and that 139898
becomes permanently stored, used, or otherwise consumed in this 139899
state more than six months after its acquisition by the consumer, 139900
the consumer or the commissioner may determine the price based on 139901
the current value of such tangible personal property, in lieu of 139902
determining the price pursuant to division (G)(1) of this section. 139903
A price determination made by the consumer is subject to review 139904
and redetermination by the commissioner.139905

       (6) If a consumer produces tangible personal property for 139906
sale and removes that property from inventory for the consumer's 139907
own use, the price is the produced cost of that tangible personal 139908
property.139909

       (H) "Nexus with this state" means that the seller engages in 139910
continuous and widespread solicitation of purchases from residents 139911
of this state or otherwise purposefully directs its business 139912
activities at residents of this state.139913

       (I)(1) "Substantial nexus with this state" means that the 139914
seller has sufficient contact with this state, in accordance with 139915
Section 8 of Article I of the Constitution of the United States, 139916
to allow the state to require the seller to collect and remit use 139917
tax on sales of tangible personal property or services made to 139918
consumers in this state. "Substantial139919

       (2) "Substantial nexus with this state" existsis presumed to 139920
exist when the seller does any of the following:139921

       (1) Maintains a(a) Uses an office, distribution facility, 139922
warehouse, storage facility, or similar place of business within 139923
this state, whether operated by employees or agents of the seller, 139924
by a member of an affiliated group, as defined in division 139925
(B)(3)(e) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code, of which the 139926
seller is a member, or by a franchisee using a trade name of the 139927
seller;or any other person, other than a common carrier acting in 139928
its capacity as a common carrier.139929

       (2)(b) Regularly hasuses employees, agents, representatives, 139930
solicitors, installers, repairmenrepairers, salesmen139931
salespersons, or other individualspersons in this state (i) for 139932
the purpose of conducting the business of the seller;, or that 139933
(ii) engage in a business with the same or a similar industry 139934
classification as the seller selling a similar product or line of 139935
products as the seller, or (iii) use trademarks, service marks, or 139936
trade names in this state that are the same or substantially 139937
similar to those used by the seller.139938

       (3)(c) Uses aany person, other than a common carrier acting 139939
in its capacity as a common carrier, in this state for any of the 139940
purpose of receivingfollowing purposes:139941

       (i) Receiving or processing orders of the seller's goods or 139942
services;139943

       (ii) Using that person's employees or facilities in this 139944
state to advertise, promote, or facilitate sales by the seller to 139945
customers; 139946

       (iii) Delivering, installing, assembling, or performing 139947
maintenance services for the seller's customers;139948

       (iv) Facilitating the seller's delivery of tangible personal 139949
property to customers in this state by allowing the seller's 139950
customers to pick up property sold by the seller at an office, 139951
distribution facility, warehouse, storage facility, or similar 139952
place of business.139953

       (4)(d) Makes regular deliveries of tangible personal property 139954
into this state by means other than common carrier;.139955

       (5)(e) Has membership in an affiliated group, as described in 139956
division (B)(3)(e) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code, at 139957
least one other member of whichperson that has substantial nexus 139958
with this state;139959

       (6)(f) Owns tangible personal property that is rented or 139960
leased to a consumer in this state, or offers tangible personal 139961
property, on approval, to consumers in this state;139962

       (7) Except as provided in section 5703.65 of the Revised 139963
Code, is registered with the secretary of state to do business in 139964
this state or is registered or licensed by any state agency, 139965
board, or commission to transact business in this state or to make 139966
sales to persons in this state;139967

       (8) Has any other contact with this state that would allow 139968
this state to require the seller to collect and remit use tax 139969
under Section 8 of Article I of the Constitution of the United 139970
States(g) Enters into an agreement with one or more residents of 139971
this state under which the resident, for a commission or other 139972
consideration, directly or indirectly refers potential customers 139973
to the seller, whether by a link on a web site, an in-person oral 139974
presentation, telemarketing, or otherwise, provided the cumulative 139975
gross receipts from sales to consumers referred to the seller by 139976
all such residents exceeded ten thousand dollars during the 139977
preceding twelve months.139978

       (3) A seller presumed to have substantial nexus with this 139979
state under divisions (I)(2)(a) to (f) of this section may rebut 139980
that presumption by demonstrating that activities described in any 139981
of those divisions that are conducted by a person in this state on 139982
the seller's behalf are not significantly associated with the 139983
seller's ability to establish or maintain a market in this state 139984
for the seller's sales.139985

       (4) A seller presumed to have substantial nexus with this 139986
state under division (I)(2)(g) of this section may rebut that 139987
presumption by submitting proof that each resident engaged by the 139988
seller as described in that division did not engage in any 139989
activity within this state during the preceding twelve months that 139990
was significantly associated with the seller's ability to 139991
establish or maintain the seller's market in this state during the 139992
preceding twelve months. Such proof may consist of sworn written 139993
statements from all the residents with whom the seller has an 139994
agreement stating that the resident did not engage in any 139995
solicitation in this state on behalf of the seller during the 139996
preceding twelve months if such statements are provided and 139997
obtained in good faith.139998

       (5) A seller that does not have substantial nexus with this 139999
state, and any affiliated person of the seller, before selling or 140000
leasing tangible personal property or services to a state agency, 140001
shall register with the tax commissioner in the same manner as a 140002
seller described in division (A)(1) of section 5741.17 of the 140003
Revised Code.140004

       (6) As used in division (I) of this section:140005

       (a) "Affiliated person" means any person that is a member of 140006
the same controlled group of corporations as the seller or any 140007
other person that, notwithstanding the form of organization, bears 140008
the same ownership relationship to the seller as a corporation 140009
that is a member of the same controlled group of corporations.140010

       (b) "Controlled group of corporations" has the same meaning 140011
as in section 1563(a) of the Internal Revenue Code.140012

       (c) "State agency" has the same meaning as in section 1.60 of 140013
the Revised Code.140014

       (J) "Fiscal officer" means, with respect to a regional 140015
transit authority, the secretary-treasurer thereof, and with 140016
respect to a county which is a transit authority, the fiscal 140017
officer of the county transit board appointed pursuant to section 140018
306.03 of the Revised Code or, if the board of county 140019
commissioners operates the county transit system, the county 140020
auditor.140021

       (K) "Territory of the transit authority" means all of the 140022
area included within the territorial boundaries of a transit 140023
authority as they from time to time exist. Such territorial 140024
boundaries must at all times include all the area of a single 140025
county or all the area of the most populous county which is a part 140026
of such transit authority. County population shall be measured by 140027
the most recent census taken by the United States census bureau.140028

       (L) "Transit authority" means a regional transit authority 140029
created pursuant to section 306.31 of the Revised Code or a county 140030
in which a county transit system is created pursuant to section 140031
306.01 of the Revised Code. For the purposes of this chapter, a 140032
transit authority must extend to at least the entire area of a 140033
single county. A transit authority which includes territory in 140034
more than one county must include all the area of the most 140035
populous county which is a part of such transit authority. County 140036
population shall be measured by the most recent census taken by 140037
the United States census bureau.140038

       (M) "Providing a service" has the same meaning as in division 140039
(X) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code.140040

       (N) "Other consumption" includes receiving the benefits of a 140041
service.140042

       (O) "Lease" or "rental" has the same meaning as in division 140043
(UU) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code.140044

       (P) "Certified service provider" has the same meaning as in 140045
section 5740.01 of the Revised Code.140046

       (Q) "Remote sale" means a sale for which the seller could not 140047
be legally required to pay, collect, or remit a tax imposed under 140048
this chapter or Chapter 5739. of the Revised Code, unless 140049
otherwise provided by the laws of the United States.140050

       (R) "Remote seller" means a seller that makes remote sales to 140051
one or more consumers.140052

       (S) "Remote small seller" means a remote seller that has 140053
gross annual receipts from remote sales in the United States not 140054
exceeding one million dollars for the preceding calendar year. For 140055
the purposes of determining whether a person is a small remote 140056
seller, the sales of all persons related within the meaning of 140057
subsection (b) or (c) of section 267 or section 707(b)(1) of the 140058
Internal Revenue Code shall be aggregated, and persons with one or 140059
more ownership relationships shall be aggregated if those 140060
relationships were designed with the principal purpose to qualify 140061
as a remote small seller.140062

       Sec. 5741.03.  (A) One hundred per cent of all money 140063
deposited into the state treasury under sections 5741.01 to 140064
5741.22 of the Revised Code that is not required to be distributed 140065
as provided in division (B) of this section shall be credited to 140066
the general revenue fund.140067

       (B) In any case where any county or transit authority has 140068
levied a tax or taxes pursuant to section 5741.021, 5741.022, or 140069
5741.023 of the Revised Code, the tax commissioner shall, within 140070
forty-five days after the end of each month, determine and certify 140071
to the director of budget and management the amount of the 140072
proceeds of such tax or taxes from billings and assessments 140073
received during that month, or shown on tax returns or reports 140074
filed during that month, to be returned to the county or transit 140075
authority levying the tax or taxes, which amounts shall be 140076
determined in the manner provided in section 5739.21 of the 140077
Revised Code. The director of budget and management shall 140078
transfer, from the general revenue fund, to the permissive tax 140079
distribution fund created by division (B)(1) of section 4301.423 140080
of the Revised Code and to the local sales tax administrative fund 140081
created by division (C) of section 5739.21 of the Revised Code, 140082
the amounts certified by the tax commissioner. The tax 140083
commissioner shall then, on or before the twentieth day of the 140084
month in which such certification is made, provide for payment of 140085
such respective amounts to the county treasurer or to the fiscal 140086
officer of the transit authority levying the tax or taxes. The 140087
amount transferred to the local sales tax administrative fund is 140088
for use by the tax commissioner in defraying costs the 140089
commissioner incurs in administering such taxes levied by a county 140090
or transit authority.140091

       (C) Not later than the first day of January and of July each 140092
calendar year, the tax commissioner shall determine and certify to 140093
the director of budget and management the amount of tax imposed by 140094
section 5741.02 of the Revised Code and remitted under this 140095
chapter by remote sellers during the six-month period ending on 140096
the preceding last day of November and of May, respectively, 140097
reduced by any refunds issued to remote sellers from the tax 140098
refund fund on account of that tax during the six-month period, 140099
and the director of budget and management shall transfer from the 140100
general revenue fund to the income tax reduction fund the amount 140101
so certified, less one-half of the amount of that tax remitted 140102
during fiscal year 2013 by remote sellers that voluntarily 140103
registered under section 5741.17 of the Revised Code. Amounts 140104
transferred to the income tax reduction fund under this section 140105
shall be included in the determination of the percentage under 140106
division (B)(2) of section 131.44 of the Revised Code required to 140107
be made by the thirty-first day of July of the calendar year in 140108
which the commissioner makes the certifications under this 140109
division.140110

       Sec. 5741.032.  There is hereby created in the state treasury 140111
the remote seller administration fund for the purpose of paying 140112
the expenses incurred by the department of taxation in the 140113
administration of this chapter with respect to remote sellers. 140114
Annually, before the thirty-first day of July, the treasurer of 140115
state shall transfer to the remote seller administration fund 140116
one-half of one per cent of the taxes collected from remote 140117
sellers under this chapter during the preceding fiscal year.140118

       Sec. 5741.17.  (A)(1) Except as otherwise provided in 140119
divisions (A)(2), (3), and (4) of this section, every seller of 140120
tangible personal property or services who has substantial nexus 140121
with this state shall register with the tax commissioner and 140122
supply any information concerning histhe seller's contacts with 140123
this state that may be required by the commissioner.140124

       (2) A seller who is licensed as a vendor pursuant to section 140125
5739.17 of the Revised Code shall not be required to register with 140126
the commissioner pursuant to this section if all sales to 140127
consumers in this state are made under the authority of histhe 140128
seller's vendor's license.140129

       (3) AUnless the seller has substantial nexus with this state 140130
pursuant to division (I)(2)(g) of section 5741.01 of the Revised 140131
Code, a seller is not required to register under this section if 140132
the seller has no contact with this state other than an agency 140133
relationship with a person engaged in the business of 140134
telemarketing in this state and engaged by the seller exclusively 140135
for the purpose of solicitation of customers in other states.140136

       (4) A seller is not required to register under this section 140137
if the seller has no contact with this state other than the 140138
ownership of property that is located at the facility of a printer 140139
with which the seller has contracted for printing and that 140140
consists of the final printed product, property that becomes a 140141
part of the final printed product, or copy from which the final 140142
printed product is produced.140143

       (B) A seller who does not have substantial nexus with this 140144
state may voluntarily register with the commissioner. A seller who 140145
voluntarily registers with the commissioner under this section is 140146
entitled to the same benefits and is subject to the same duties 140147
and requirements as a seller required to be registered with the 140148
commissioner under this chapter.140149

       The commissioner shall maintain an alphabetical index of all 140150
sellers registered under this chapter and records of the use tax 140151
reported and paid. Upon request, this information shall be made 140152
available to the treasurer of state.140153

       (C) A remote small seller is not required to register under 140154
this section.140155

       Sec. 5743.081.  (A) If any wholesale dealer or retail dealer 140156
fails to pay the tax levied under section 5743.02, 5743.021, 140157
5743.024, or 5743.026 of the Revised Code as required by sections 140158
5743.01 to 5743.20 of the Revised Code, and by the rules of the 140159
tax commissioner, or fails to collect the tax from the purchaser 140160
or consumer, the commissioner may make an assessment against the 140161
wholesale or retail dealer based upon any information in the 140162
commissioner's possession.140163

       The commissioner may make an assessment against any wholesale 140164
or retail dealer who fails to file a return required by section 140165
5743.03 or 5743.025 of the Revised Code.140166

       No assessment shall be made against any wholesale or retail 140167
dealer for any taxes imposed under section 5743.02, 5743.021, 140168
5743.024, or 5743.026 of the Revised Code more than three years 140169
after the last day of the calendar month that immediately follows 140170
the semiannual period prescribed in section 5743.03 of the Revised 140171
Code in which the sale was made, or more than three years after 140172
the semiannual return for such period is filed, whichever is 140173
later. This section does not bar an assessment against any 140174
wholesale or retail dealer who fails to file a return as required 140175
by section 5743.025 or 5743.03 of the Revised Code, or who files a 140176
fraudulent return.140177

       A penalty of up to thirty per cent may be added to the amount 140178
of every assessment made under this section. The commissioner may 140179
adopt rules providing for the imposition and remission of 140180
penalties added to assessments made under this section.140181

       The commissioner shall give the party assessed written notice 140182
of the assessment in the manner provided in section 5703.37 of the 140183
Revised Code. The notice shall specify separately any portion of 140184
the assessment that represents a county tax. With the notice, the 140185
commissioner shall provide instructions on how to petition for 140186
reassessment and request a hearing on the petition.140187

       (B) Unless the party assessed files with the tax commissioner 140188
within sixty days after service of the notice of assessment, 140189
either personally or by certified mail, a written petition for 140190
reassessment signed by the party assessed or that party's 140191
authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the assessment 140192
becomes final and the amount of the assessment is due and payable 140193
from the party assessed to the treasurer of state. The petition 140194
shall indicate the objections of the party assessed, but 140195
additional objections may be raised in writing if received by the 140196
commissioner prior to the date shown on the final determination. 140197
If the petition has been properly filed, the commissioner shall 140198
proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised Code.140199

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 140200
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 140201
copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the assessment final 140202
may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common 140203
pleas in the county in which the wholesale or retail dealer's 140204
place of business is located or the county in which the party 140205
assessed resides. If the party assessed maintains no place of 140206
business in this state and is not a resident of this state, the 140207
certified copy of the entry may be filed in the office of the 140208
clerk of the court of common pleas of Franklin county.140209

       Immediately upon the filing of the commissioner's entry, the 140210
clerk shall enter a judgment for the state against the party 140211
assessed in the amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be 140212
filed by the clerk in a loose-leaf book entitled "special 140213
judgments for state cigarette sales tax," and shall have the same 140214
effect as other judgments. Execution shall issue upon the judgment 140215
upon the request of the tax commissioner, and all laws applicable 140216
to sales on execution shall apply to sales made under the 140217
judgment, except as otherwise provided in sections 5743.01 to 140218
5743.20 of the Revised Code.140219

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety140220
within sixty days after the assessment was issued, the portion of 140221
the assessment consisting of tax due shall bear interest at the 140222
rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code 140223
from the day the commissioner issues the assessment until it is 140224
paid or until it is certified to the attorney general for 140225
collection under section 131.02 of the Revised Code, whichever 140226
comes first. If the unpaid portion of the assessment is certified 140227
to the attorney general for collection, the entire unpaid portion 140228
of the assessment shall bear interest at the rate per annum 140229
prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code from the date of 140230
certification until the date it is paid in its entirety. Interest 140231
shall be paid in the same manner as the tax and may be collected 140232
by the issuance of an assessment under this section.140233

       (D) All money collected by the tax commissioner under this 140234
section shall be paid to the treasurer of state, and when paid 140235
shall be considered as revenue arising from the taxes imposed by 140236
sections 5743.01 to 5743.20 of the Revised Code.140237

       Sec. 5743.15.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in this 140238
division, no person shall engage in this state in the wholesale or 140239
retail business of trafficking in cigarettes or in the business of 140240
a manufacturer or importer of cigarettes without having a license 140241
to conduct each such activity issued by a county auditor under 140242
division (B) of this section or the tax commissioner under 140243
divisions (C) and (F) of this section. On dissolution of a 140244
partnership by death, the surviving partner may operate under the 140245
license of the partnership until expiration of the license, and 140246
the heirs or legal representatives of deceased persons, and 140247
receivers and trustees in bankruptcy appointed by any competent 140248
authority, may operate under the license of the person succeeded 140249
in possession by such heir, representative, receiver, or trustee 140250
in bankruptcy if the partner or successor notifies the issuer of 140251
the license of the dissolution or succession within thirty days 140252
after the dissolution or succession.140253

       (B)(1) Each applicant for a license to engage in the retail 140254
business of trafficking in cigarettes under this section, 140255
annually, on or before the fourth Monday of May, shall make and 140256
deliver to the county auditor of the county in which the applicant 140257
desires to engage in the retail business of trafficking in 140258
cigarettes, upon a blank form furnished by such auditor for that 140259
purpose, a statement showing the name of the applicant, each 140260
physical place in the county where the applicant's business is 140261
conducted, the nature of the business, and any other information 140262
the tax commissioner requires in the form of statement prescribed 140263
by the commissioner. If the applicant is a firm, partnership, or 140264
association other than a corporation, the application shall state 140265
the name and address of each of its members. If the applicant is a 140266
corporation, the application shall state the name and address of 140267
each of its officers. At the time of making the application 140268
required by this section, every person desiring to engage in the 140269
retail business of trafficking in cigarettes shall pay an 140270
application fee in the sum of one hundred twenty-five dollars for 140271
each physical place where the person proposes to carry on such 140272
business. Each place of business shall be deemed such space, under 140273
lease or license to, or under the control of, or under the 140274
supervision of the applicant, as is contained in one or more 140275
contiguous, adjacent, or adjoining buildings constituting an 140276
industrial plant or a place of business operated by, or under the 140277
control of, one person, or under one roof and connected by doors, 140278
halls, stairways, or elevators, which space may contain any number 140279
of points at which cigarettes are offered for sale, provided that 140280
each additional point at which cigarettes are offered for sale 140281
shall be listed in the application.140282

        (2) Upon receipt of the application and exhibition of the 140283
county treasurer's receipt showing the payment of the application 140284
fee, the county auditor shall issue to the applicant a license for 140285
each place of business designated in the application, authorizing 140286
the applicant to engage in such business at such place for one 140287
year commencing on the fourth Monday of May. The form of the 140288
license shall be prescribed by the commissioner. A duplicate 140289
license may be obtained from the county auditor upon payment of a 140290
five-dollar fee if the original license is lost, destroyed, or 140291
defaced. When an application is filed after the fourth Monday of 140292
May, the application fee required to be paid shall be proportioned 140293
in amount to the remainder of the license year, except that it 140294
shall not be less than twenty-five dollars in any one year.140295

       (3) The holder of a retail dealer's cigarette license may 140296
transfer the license to a place of business within the same county 140297
other than that designated on the license on condition that the 140298
licensee's ownership interest and business structure remain 140299
unchanged, and that the licensee applies to the county auditor 140300
therefor, upon forms approved by the commissioner and the payment 140301
of a fee of five dollars into the county treasury.140302

       (C)(1) Each applicant for a license to engage in the 140303
wholesale business of trafficking in cigarettes under this 140304
section, annually, on or before the fourth Monday in May, shall 140305
make and deliver to the tax commissioner, upon a blank form 140306
furnished by the commissioner for that purpose, a statement 140307
showing the name of the applicant, physical street address where 140308
the applicant's business is conducted, the nature of the business, 140309
and any other information required by the commissioner. If the 140310
applicant is a firm, partnership, or association other than a 140311
corporation, the applicant shall state the name and address of 140312
each of its members. If the applicant is a corporation, the 140313
applicant shall state the name and address of each of its 140314
officers. At the time of making the application required by this 140315
section, every person desiring to engage in the wholesale business 140316
of trafficking in cigarettes shall pay an application fee of one 140317
thousand dollars for each physical place where the person proposes 140318
to carry on such business. Each place of business shall be deemed 140319
such space, under lease or license to, or under the control of, or 140320
under the supervision of the applicant, as is contained in one or 140321
more contiguous, adjacent, or adjoining buildings constituting an 140322
industrial plant or a place of business operated by, or under the 140323
control of, one person, or under one roof and connected by doors, 140324
halls, stairways, or elevators. A duplicate license may be 140325
obtained from the commissioner upon payment of a 140326
twenty-five-dollar fee if the original license is lost, destroyed, 140327
or defaced.140328

       (2) Upon receipt of the application and payment of any 140329
application fee required by this section, the commissioner shall 140330
verify that the applicant is in good standing undernot in 140331
violation of any provision of Chapter 1346. andor Title LVII of 140332
the Revised Code. The commissioner shall also verify that the 140333
applicant has filed any returns, submitted any information, and 140334
paid any outstanding taxes or fees as required by the 140335
commissioner, to the extent that the commissioner is aware of the 140336
returns, information, taxes, or fees at the time of the 140337
application. Upon approval, the commissioner shall issue to the 140338
applicant a license for each physical place of business designated 140339
in the application authorizing the applicant to engage in business 140340
at that location for one year commencing on the fourth Monday in 140341
May. For licenses issued after the fourth Monday in May, the 140342
application fee shall be reduced proportionately by the remainder 140343
of the twelve-month period for which the license is issued, except 140344
that the application fee required to be paid under this section 140345
shall be not less than two hundred dollars in any one year.140346

       (3) The holder of a wholesale dealer cigarette license may 140347
transfer the license to a place of business other than that 140348
designated on the license on condition that the licensee's 140349
ownership or business structure remains unchanged, and that the 140350
licensee applies to the commissioner for such a transfer upon a 140351
form promulgated by the commissioner and pays a fee of twenty-five 140352
dollars, which shall be deposited into the cigarette tax 140353
enforcement fund created in division (E) of this section.140354

       (D)(1) The wholesale cigarette license application fees 140355
collected under this section shall be paid into the cigarette tax 140356
enforcement fund.140357

       (2) The retail cigarette license application fees collected 140358
under this section shall be distributed as follows:140359

       (a) Thirty per cent shall be paid upon the warrant of the 140360
county auditor into the treasury of the municipal corporation or 140361
township in which the places of business for which the tax revenue 140362
was received are located;140363

       (b) Ten per cent shall be credited to the general fund of the 140364
county;140365

       (c) Sixty per cent shall be paid into the cigarette tax 140366
enforcement fund.140367

       (3) The remainder of the revenues and fines collected under 140368
this section and the penal laws relating to cigarettes shall be 140369
distributed as follows:140370

       (a) Three-fourths shall be paid upon the warrant of the 140371
county auditor into the treasury of the municipal corporation or 140372
township in which the place of business, on account of which the 140373
revenues and fines were received, is located;140374

       (b) One-fourth shall be credited to the general fund of the 140375
county.140376

       (E) There is hereby created within the state treasury the 140377
cigarette tax enforcement fund for the purpose of providing funds 140378
to assist in paying the costs of enforcing sections 1333.11 to 140379
1333.21 and Chapter 5743. of the Revised Code.140380

       The portion of cigarette license application fees received by 140381
a county auditor during the annual application period that ends on 140382
the fourth Monday in May and that is required to be deposited in 140383
the cigarette tax enforcement fund shall be sent to the treasurer 140384
of state by the thirtieth day of June each year accompanied by the 140385
form prescribed by the tax commissioner. The portion of cigarette 140386
license application fees received by each county auditor after the 140387
fourth Monday in May and that is required to be deposited in the 140388
cigarette tax enforcement fund shall be sent to the treasurer of 140389
state by the last day of the month following the month in which 140390
such fees were collected.140391

       (F)(1) Every person who desires to engage in the business of 140392
a manufacturer or importer of cigarettes shall, annually, on or 140393
before the fourth Monday of May, make and deliver to the tax 140394
commissioner, upon a blank form furnished by the commissioner for 140395
that purpose, a statement showing the name of the applicant, the 140396
nature of the applicant's business, and any other information 140397
required by the commissioner. If the applicant is a firm, 140398
partnership, or association other than a corporation, the 140399
applicant shall state the name and address of each of its members. 140400
If the applicant is a corporation, the applicant shall state the 140401
name and address of each of its officers.140402

       (2) Upon receipt of the application required under this 140403
section, the commissioner shall verify that the applicant is in 140404
good standing undernot in violation of any provision of Chapter 140405
1346. andor Title LVII of the Revised Code. The commissioner 140406
shall also verify that the applicant has filed any returns, 140407
submitted any information, and paid any outstanding taxes or fees 140408
as required by the commissioner, to the extent that the 140409
commissioner is aware of the returns, information, taxes, or fees 140410
at the time of the application. Upon approval, the commissioner 140411
shall issue to the applicant a license authorizing the applicant 140412
to engage in the business of manufacturer or importer, whichever 140413
the case may be, for one year commencing on the fourth Monday of 140414
May.140415

       (3) The issuing of a license under division (F)(1) of this 140416
section to a manufacturer does not excuse a manufacturer from the 140417
certification process required under section 1346.05 of the 140418
Revised Code. A manufacturer who is issued a license under 140419
division (F)(1) of this section and who is not listed on the 140420
directory required under section 1346.05 of the Revised Code shall 140421
not be permitted to sell cigarettes in this state other than to a 140422
licensed cigarette wholesaler for sale outside this state. Such a 140423
manufacturer shall provide documentation to the commissioner 140424
evidencing that the cigarettes are legal for sale in another 140425
state.140426

       (G) The tax commissioner may adopt rules necessary to 140427
administer this section.140428

       Sec. 5743.56.  (A) Any person required to pay the tax imposed 140429
by section 5743.51, 5743.62, or 5743.63 of the Revised Code is 140430
personally liable for the tax. The tax commissioner may make an 140431
assessment, based upon any information in the commissioner's 140432
possession, against any person who fails to file a return or pay 140433
any tax, interest, or additional charge as required by this 140434
chapter. The commissioner shall give the person assessed written 140435
notice of such assessment in the manner provided in section 140436
5703.37 of the Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner 140437
shall provide instructions on how to petition for reassessment and 140438
request a hearing on the petition.140439

       (B) When the information in the possession of the tax 140440
commissioner indicates that a person liable for the tax imposed by 140441
section 5743.51, 5743.62, or 5743.63 of the Revised Code has not 140442
paid the full amount of tax due, the commissioner may audit a 140443
representative sample of the person's business and may issue an 140444
assessment based on such audit.140445

       (C) A penalty of up to fifteen per cent may be added to all 140446
amounts assessed under this section. The tax commissioner may 140447
adopt rules providing for the imposition and remission of such 140448
penalties.140449

       (D) Unless the person assessed files with the tax 140450
commissioner within sixty days after service of the notice of 140451
assessment, either personally or by certified mail, a written 140452
petition for reassessment signed by the person assessed or that 140453
person's authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the 140454
assessment becomes final and the amount of the assessment is due 140455
and payable from the person assessed to the treasurer of state. A 140456
petition shall indicate the objections of the person assessed, but 140457
additional objections may be raised in writing if received by the 140458
commissioner prior to the date shown on the final determination. 140459
If the petition has been properly filed, the commissioner shall 140460
proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised Code.140461

       (E) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 140462
assessment, including accrued interest, remains unpaid, a 140463
certified copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the 140464
assessment final may be filed in the office of the clerk of the 140465
court of common pleas in the county in which the person assessed 140466
resides or in which the person assessed conducts business. If the 140467
person assessed maintains no place of business in this state and 140468
is not a resident of this state, the certified copy of the entry 140469
may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common 140470
pleas of Franklin county.140471

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 140472
enter a judgment for the state against the person assessed in the 140473
amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk 140474
in a loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for state tobacco 140475
products tax," and shall have the same effect as other judgments. 140476
Execution shall issue upon the judgment upon the request of the 140477
commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales on execution shall 140478
apply to sales made under the judgment.140479

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety140480
within sixty days after the day the assessment is issued, the 140481
portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall bear 140482
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 140483
the Revised Code from the day the commissioner issues the 140484
assessment until the assessment is paid or until it is certified 140485
to the attorney general for collection under section 131.02 of the 140486
Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid portion of the 140487
assessment is certified to the attorney general for collection, 140488
the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear interest at 140489
the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised 140490
Code from the date of certification until the date it is paid in 140491
its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner as the tax 140492
and may be collected by issuing an assessment under this section.140493

       (F) If the tax commissioner believes that collection of the 140494
tax will be jeopardized unless proceedings to collect or secure 140495
collection of the tax are instituted without delay, the 140496
commissioner may issue a jeopardy assessment against the person 140497
liable for the tax. Immediately upon the issuance of the jeopardy 140498
assessment, the commissioner shall file an entry with the clerk of 140499
the court of common pleas in the manner prescribed by division (E) 140500
of this section. Notice of the jeopardy assessment shall be served 140501
on the person assessed or the legal representative of the person 140502
assessed, as provided in section 5703.37 of the Revised Code, 140503
within five days of the filing of the entry with the clerk. The 140504
total amount assessed is immediately due and payable, unless the 140505
person assessed files a petition for reassessment in accordance 140506
with division (D) of this section and provides security in a form 140507
satisfactory to the commissioner and in an amount sufficient to 140508
satisfy the unpaid balance of the assessment. Full or partial 140509
payment of the assessment does not prejudice the commissioner's 140510
consideration of the petition for reassessment.140511

       (G) All money collected by the tax commissioner under this 140512
section shall be paid to the treasurer of state as revenue arising 140513
from the tax imposed by sections 5743.51, 5743.62, and 5743.63 of 140514
the Revised Code.140515

       Sec. 5745.12.  (A) If any taxpayer required to file a report 140516
under this chapter fails to file the report within the time 140517
prescribed, files an incorrect report, or fails to remit the full 140518
amount of the tax due for the period covered by the report, the 140519
tax commissioner may make an assessment against the taxpayer for 140520
any deficiency for the period for which the report or tax is due, 140521
based upon any information in the commissioner's possession.140522

       The tax commissioner shall not make or issue an assessment 140523
against a taxpayer more than three years after the later of the 140524
final date the report subject to assessment was required to be 140525
filed or the date the report was filed. Such time limit may be 140526
extended if both the taxpayer and the commissioner consent in 140527
writing to the extension. Any such extension shall extend the 140528
three-year time limit in section 5745.11 of the Revised Code for 140529
the same period of time. There shall be no bar or limit to an 140530
assessment against a taxpayer that fails to file a report subject 140531
to assessment as required by this chapter, or that files a 140532
fraudulent report. The commissioner shall give the taxpayer 140533
assessed written notice of the assessment as provided in section 140534
5703.37 of the Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner 140535
shall provide instructions on how to petition for reassessment and 140536
request a hearing on the petition.140537

       (B) Unless the taxpayer assessed files with the tax 140538
commissioner within sixty days after service of the notice of 140539
assessment, either personally or by certified mail, a written 140540
petition for reassessment signed by the authorized agent of the 140541
taxpayer assessed having knowledge of the facts, the assessment 140542
becomes final, and the amount of the assessment is due and payable 140543
from the taxpayer to the treasurer of state. The petition shall 140544
indicate the taxpayer's objections, but additional objections may 140545
be raised in writing if received by the commissioner prior to the 140546
date shown on the final determination. If the petition has been 140547
properly filed, the commissioner shall proceed under section 140548
5703.60 of the Revised Code.140549

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 140550
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 140551
copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the assessment final 140552
may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common 140553
pleas in the county in which the taxpayer has an office or place 140554
of business in this state, the county in which the taxpayer's 140555
statutory agent is located, or Franklin county.140556

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 140557
enter a judgment against the taxpayer assessed in the amount shown 140558
on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk in a 140559
loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for municipal income 140560
taxes," and shall have the same effect as other judgments. 140561
Execution shall issue upon the judgment upon the request of the 140562
tax commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales on execution 140563
shall apply to sales made under the judgment.140564

       The portion of anIf the assessment is not paid in its 140565
entirety within sixty days after the day the assessment was 140566
issued, the portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall 140567
bear interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 140568
of the Revised Code from the day the commissioner issues the 140569
assessment until the assessment is paid or until it is certified 140570
to the attorney general for collection under section 131.02 of the 140571
Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid portion of the 140572
assessment is certified to the attorney general for collection, 140573
the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear interest at 140574
the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised 140575
Code from the date of certification until the date it is paid in 140576
its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner as the tax 140577
and may be collected by issuing an assessment under this section.140578

       (D) All money collected under this section shall be credited 140579
and distributed to the municipal corporation to which the money is 140580
owed based on the assessment issued under this section.140581

       (E) If the tax commissioner believes that collection of the 140582
tax imposed by this chapter will be jeopardized unless proceedings 140583
to collect or secure collection of the tax are instituted without 140584
delay, the commissioner may issue a jeopardy assessment against 140585
the taxpayer liable for the tax. Immediately upon the issuance of 140586
the jeopardy assessment, the commissioner shall file an entry with 140587
the clerk of the court of common pleas in the manner prescribed by 140588
division (C) of this section. Notice of the jeopardy assessment 140589
shall be served on the taxpayer assessed or the taxpayer's legal 140590
representative in the manner provided in section 5703.37 of the 140591
Revised Code within five days of the filing of the entry with the 140592
clerk. The total amount assessed is immediately due and payable, 140593
unless the taxpayer assessed files a petition for reassessment in 140594
accordance with division (B) of this section and provides security 140595
in a form satisfactory to the commissioner and in an amount 140596
sufficient to satisfy the unpaid balance of the assessment. Full 140597
or partial payment of the assessment does not prejudice the 140598
commissioner's consideration of the petition for reassessment.140599

       (F) Notwithstanding the fact that a petition for reassessment 140600
is pending, the taxpayer may pay all or a portion of the 140601
assessment that is the subject of the petition. The acceptance of 140602
a payment by the treasurer of state does not prejudice any claim 140603
for refund upon final determination of the petition.140604

       If upon final determination of the petition an error in the 140605
assessment is corrected by the tax commissioner, upon petition so 140606
filed or pursuant to a decision of the board of tax appeals or any 140607
court to which the determination or decision has been appealed, so 140608
that the amount due from the taxpayer under the corrected 140609
assessment is less than the portion paid, there shall be issued to 140610
the taxpayer, its assigns, or legal representative a refund in the 140611
amount of the overpayment as provided by section 5745.11 of the 140612
Revised Code, with interest on that amount as provided by section 140613
5745.11 of the Revised Code.140614

       Sec. 5747.01.  Except as otherwise expressly provided or 140615
clearly appearing from the context, any term used in this chapter 140616
that is not otherwise defined in this section has the same meaning 140617
as when used in a comparable context in the laws of the United 140618
States relating to federal income taxes or if not used in a 140619
comparable context in those laws, has the same meaning as in 140620
section 5733.40 of the Revised Code. Any reference in this chapter 140621
to the Internal Revenue Code includes other laws of the United 140622
States relating to federal income taxes.140623

       As used in this chapter:140624

       (A) "Adjusted gross income" or "Ohio adjusted gross income" 140625
means federal adjusted gross income, as defined and used in the 140626
Internal Revenue Code, adjusted as provided in this section:140627

       (1) Add interest or dividends on obligations or securities of 140628
any state or of any political subdivision or authority of any 140629
state, other than this state and its subdivisions and authorities.140630

       (2) Add interest or dividends on obligations of any 140631
authority, commission, instrumentality, territory, or possession 140632
of the United States to the extent that the interest or dividends 140633
are exempt from federal income taxes but not from state income 140634
taxes.140635

       (3) Deduct interest or dividends on obligations of the United 140636
States and its territories and possessions or of any authority, 140637
commission, or instrumentality of the United States to the extent 140638
that the interest or dividends are included in federal adjusted 140639
gross income but exempt from state income taxes under the laws of 140640
the United States.140641

       (4) Deduct disability and survivor's benefits to the extent 140642
included in federal adjusted gross income.140643

       (5) Deduct benefits under Title II of the Social Security Act 140644
and tier 1 railroad retirement benefits to the extent included in 140645
federal adjusted gross income under section 86 of the Internal 140646
Revenue Code.140647

       (6) In the case of a taxpayer who is a beneficiary of a trust 140648
that makes an accumulation distribution as defined in section 665 140649
of the Internal Revenue Code, add, for the beneficiary's taxable 140650
years beginning before 2002, the portion, if any, of such 140651
distribution that does not exceed the undistributed net income of 140652
the trust for the three taxable years preceding the taxable year 140653
in which the distribution is made to the extent that the portion 140654
was not included in the trust's taxable income for any of the 140655
trust's taxable years beginning in 2002 or thereafter. 140656
"Undistributed net income of a trust" means the taxable income of 140657
the trust increased by (a)(i) the additions to adjusted gross 140658
income required under division (A) of this section and (ii) the 140659
personal exemptions allowed to the trust pursuant to section 140660
642(b) of the Internal Revenue Code, and decreased by (b)(i) the 140661
deductions to adjusted gross income required under division (A) of 140662
this section, (ii) the amount of federal income taxes attributable 140663
to such income, and (iii) the amount of taxable income that has 140664
been included in the adjusted gross income of a beneficiary by 140665
reason of a prior accumulation distribution. Any undistributed net 140666
income included in the adjusted gross income of a beneficiary 140667
shall reduce the undistributed net income of the trust commencing 140668
with the earliest years of the accumulation period.140669

       (7) Deduct the amount of wages and salaries, if any, not 140670
otherwise allowable as a deduction but that would have been 140671
allowable as a deduction in computing federal adjusted gross 140672
income for the taxable year, had the targeted jobs credit allowed 140673
and determined under sections 38, 51, and 52 of the Internal 140674
Revenue Code not been in effect.140675

       (8) Deduct any interest or interest equivalent on public 140676
obligations and purchase obligations to the extent that the 140677
interest or interest equivalent is included in federal adjusted 140678
gross income.140679

       (9) Add any loss or deduct any gain resulting from the sale, 140680
exchange, or other disposition of public obligations to the extent 140681
that the loss has been deducted or the gain has been included in 140682
computing federal adjusted gross income.140683

       (10) Deduct or add amounts, as provided under section 5747.70 140684
of the Revised Code, related to contributions to variable college 140685
savings program accounts made or tuition units purchased pursuant 140686
to Chapter 3334. of the Revised Code.140687

       (11)(a) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise allowable as a 140688
deduction or exclusion in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross 140689
income for the taxable year, the amount the taxpayer paid during 140690
the taxable year for medical care insurance and qualified 140691
long-term care insurance for the taxpayer, the taxpayer's spouse, 140692
and dependents. No deduction for medical care insurance under 140693
division (A)(11) of this section shall be allowed either to any 140694
taxpayer who is eligible to participate in any subsidized health 140695
plan maintained by any employer of the taxpayer or of the 140696
taxpayer's spouse, or to any taxpayer who is entitled to, or on 140697
application would be entitled to, benefits under part A of Title 140698
XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 140699
301, as amended. For the purposes of division (A)(11)(a) of this 140700
section, "subsidized health plan" means a health plan for which 140701
the employer pays any portion of the plan's cost. The deduction 140702
allowed under division (A)(11)(a) of this section shall be the net 140703
of any related premium refunds, related premium reimbursements, or 140704
related insurance premium dividends received during the taxable 140705
year.140706

       (b) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded 140707
in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income during the 140708
taxable year, the amount the taxpayer paid during the taxable 140709
year, not compensated for by any insurance or otherwise, for 140710
medical care of the taxpayer, the taxpayer's spouse, and 140711
dependents, to the extent the expenses exceed seven and one-half 140712
per cent of the taxpayer's federal adjusted gross income.140713

       (c) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded 140714
in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income, any amount 140715
included in federal adjusted gross income under section 105 or not 140716
excluded under section 106 of the Internal Revenue Code solely 140717
because it relates to an accident and health plan for a person who 140718
otherwise would be a "qualifying relative" and thus a "dependent" 140719
under section 152 of the Internal Revenue Code but for the fact 140720
that the person fails to meet the income and support limitations 140721
under section 152(d)(1)(B) and (C) of the Internal Revenue Code. 140722

       (d) For purposes of division (A)(11) of this section, 140723
"medical care" has the meaning given in section 213 of the 140724
Internal Revenue Code, subject to the special rules, limitations, 140725
and exclusions set forth therein, and "qualified long-term care" 140726
has the same meaning given in section 7702B(c) of the Internal 140727
Revenue Code. Solely for purposes of divisions (A)(11)(a) and (c) 140728
of this section, "dependent" includes a person who otherwise would 140729
be a "qualifying relative" and thus a "dependent" under section 140730
152 of the Internal Revenue Code but for the fact that the person 140731
fails to meet the income and support limitations under section 140732
152(d)(1)(B) and (C) of the Internal Revenue Code.140733

       (12)(a) Deduct any amount included in federal adjusted gross 140734
income solely because the amount represents a reimbursement or 140735
refund of expenses that in any year the taxpayer had deducted as 140736
an itemized deduction pursuant to section 63 of the Internal 140737
Revenue Code and applicable United States department of the 140738
treasury regulations. The deduction otherwise allowed under 140739
division (A)(12)(a) of this section shall be reduced to the extent 140740
the reimbursement is attributable to an amount the taxpayer 140741
deducted under this section in any taxable year.140742

       (b) Add any amount not otherwise included in Ohio adjusted 140743
gross income for any taxable year to the extent that the amount is 140744
attributable to the recovery during the taxable year of any amount 140745
deducted or excluded in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross 140746
income in any taxable year.140747

       (13) Deduct any portion of the deduction described in section 140748
1341(a)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code, for repaying previously 140749
reported income received under a claim of right, that meets both 140750
of the following requirements:140751

       (a) It is allowable for repayment of an item that was 140752
included in the taxpayer's adjusted gross income for a prior 140753
taxable year and did not qualify for a credit under division (A) 140754
or (B) of section 5747.05 of the Revised Code for that year;140755

       (b) It does not otherwise reduce the taxpayer's adjusted 140756
gross income for the current or any other taxable year.140757

       (14) Deduct an amount equal to the deposits made to, and net 140758
investment earnings of, a medical savings account during the 140759
taxable year, in accordance with section 3924.66 of the Revised 140760
Code. The deduction allowed by division (A)(14) of this section 140761
does not apply to medical savings account deposits and earnings 140762
otherwise deducted or excluded for the current or any other 140763
taxable year from the taxpayer's federal adjusted gross income.140764

       (15)(a) Add an amount equal to the funds withdrawn from a 140765
medical savings account during the taxable year, and the net 140766
investment earnings on those funds, when the funds withdrawn were 140767
used for any purpose other than to reimburse an account holder 140768
for, or to pay, eligible medical expenses, in accordance with 140769
section 3924.66 of the Revised Code;140770

       (b) Add the amounts distributed from a medical savings 140771
account under division (A)(2) of section 3924.68 of the Revised 140772
Code during the taxable year.140773

       (16) Add any amount claimed as a credit under section 140774
5747.059 or 5747.65 of the Revised Code to the extent that such 140775
amount satisfies either of the following:140776

       (a) The amount was deducted or excluded from the computation 140777
of the taxpayer's federal adjusted gross income as required to be 140778
reported for the taxpayer's taxable year under the Internal 140779
Revenue Code;140780

       (b) The amount resulted in a reduction of the taxpayer's 140781
federal adjusted gross income as required to be reported for any 140782
of the taxpayer's taxable years under the Internal Revenue Code.140783

       (17) Deduct the amount contributed by the taxpayer to an 140784
individual development account program established by a county 140785
department of job and family services pursuant to sections 329.11 140786
to 329.14 of the Revised Code for the purpose of matching funds 140787
deposited by program participants. On request of the tax 140788
commissioner, the taxpayer shall provide any information that, in 140789
the tax commissioner's opinion, is necessary to establish the 140790
amount deducted under division (A)(17) of this section.140791

       (18) Beginning in taxable year 2001 but not for any taxable 140792
year beginning after December 31, 2005, if the taxpayer is married 140793
and files a joint return and the combined federal adjusted gross 140794
income of the taxpayer and the taxpayer's spouse for the taxable 140795
year does not exceed one hundred thousand dollars, or if the 140796
taxpayer is single and has a federal adjusted gross income for the 140797
taxable year not exceeding fifty thousand dollars, deduct amounts 140798
paid during the taxable year for qualified tuition and fees paid 140799
to an eligible institution for the taxpayer, the taxpayer's 140800
spouse, or any dependent of the taxpayer, who is a resident of 140801
this state and is enrolled in or attending a program that 140802
culminates in a degree or diploma at an eligible institution. The 140803
deduction may be claimed only to the extent that qualified tuition 140804
and fees are not otherwise deducted or excluded for any taxable 140805
year from federal or Ohio adjusted gross income. The deduction may 140806
not be claimed for educational expenses for which the taxpayer 140807
claims a credit under section 5747.27 of the Revised Code.140808

       (19) Add any reimbursement received during the taxable year 140809
of any amount the taxpayer deducted under division (A)(18) of this 140810
section in any previous taxable year to the extent the amount is 140811
not otherwise included in Ohio adjusted gross income.140812

       (20)(a)(i) Subject to divisions (A)(20)(a)(iii), (iv), and 140813
(v) of this section, add five-sixths of the amount of depreciation 140814
expense allowed by subsection (k) of section 168 of the Internal 140815
Revenue Code, including the taxpayer's proportionate or 140816
distributive share of the amount of depreciation expense allowed 140817
by that subsection to a pass-through entity in which the taxpayer 140818
has a direct or indirect ownership interest.140819

       (ii) Subject to divisions (A)(20)(a)(iii), (iv), and (v) of 140820
this section, add five-sixths of the amount of qualifying section 140821
179 depreciation expense, including the taxpayer's proportionate 140822
or distributive share of the amount of qualifying section 179 140823
depreciation expense allowed to any pass-through entity in which 140824
the taxpayer has a direct or indirect ownership interest. 140825

       (iii) Subject to division (A)(20)(a)(v) of this section, for 140826
taxable years beginning in 2012 or thereafter, if the increase in 140827
income taxes withheld by the taxpayer is equal to or greater than 140828
ten per cent of income taxes withheld by the taxpayer during the 140829
taxpayer's immediately preceding taxable year, "two-thirds" shall 140830
be substituted for "five-sixths" for the purpose of divisions 140831
(A)(20)(a)(i) and (ii) of this section.140832

       (iv) Subject to division (A)(20)(a)(v) of this section, for 140833
taxable years beginning in 2012 or thereafter, a taxpayer is not 140834
required to add an amount under division (A)(20) of this section 140835
if the increase in income taxes withheld by the taxpayer and by 140836
any pass-through entity in which the taxpayer has a direct or 140837
indirect ownership interest is equal to or greater than the sum of 140838
(I) the amount of qualifying section 179 depreciation expense and 140839
(II) the amount of depreciation expense allowed to the taxpayer by 140840
subsection (k) of section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code, and 140841
including the taxpayer's proportionate or distributive shares of 140842
such amounts allowed to any such pass-through entities.140843

       (v) If a taxpayer directly or indirectly incurs a net 140844
operating loss for the taxable year for federal income tax 140845
purposes, to the extent such loss resulted from depreciation 140846
expense allowed by subsection (k) of section 168 of the Internal 140847
Revenue Code and by qualifying section 179 depreciation expense, 140848
"the entire" shall be substituted for "five-sixths of the" for the 140849
purpose of divisions (A)(20)(a)(i) and (ii) of this section.140850

       The tax commissioner, under procedures established by the 140851
commissioner, may waive the add-backs related to a pass-through 140852
entity if the taxpayer owns, directly or indirectly, less than 140853
five per cent of the pass-through entity.140854

       (b) Nothing in division (A)(20) of this section shall be 140855
construed to adjust or modify the adjusted basis of any asset.140856

       (c) To the extent the add-back required under division 140857
(A)(20)(a) of this section is attributable to property generating 140858
nonbusiness income or loss allocated under section 5747.20 of the 140859
Revised Code, the add-back shall be sitused to the same location 140860
as the nonbusiness income or loss generated by the property for 140861
the purpose of determining the credit under division (A) of 140862
section 5747.05 of the Revised Code. Otherwise, the add-back shall 140863
be apportioned, subject to one or more of the four alternative 140864
methods of apportionment enumerated in section 5747.21 of the 140865
Revised Code.140866

       (d) For the purposes of division (A)(20)(a)(v) of this 140867
section, net operating loss carryback and carryforward shall not 140868
include the allowance of any net operating loss deduction 140869
carryback or carryforward to the taxable year to the extent such 140870
loss resulted from depreciation allowed by section 168(k) of the 140871
Internal Revenue Code and by the qualifying section 179 140872
depreciation expense amount.140873

       (e) For the purposes of divisions (A)(20) and (21) of this 140874
section:140875

        (i) "Income taxes withheld" means the total amount withheld 140876
and remitted under sections 5747.06 and 5747.07 of the Revised 140877
Code by an employer during the employer's taxable year.140878

        (ii) "Increase in income taxes withheld" means the amount by 140879
which the amount of income taxes withheld by an employer during 140880
the employer's current taxable year exceeds the amount of income 140881
taxes withheld by that employer during the employer's immediately 140882
preceding taxable year.140883

        (iii) "Qualifying section 179 depreciation expense" means the 140884
difference between (I) the amount of depreciation expense directly 140885
or indirectly allowed to a taxpayer under section 179 of the 140886
Internal Revised Code, and (II) the amount of depreciation expense 140887
directly or indirectly allowed to the taxpayer under section 179 140888
of the Internal Revenue Code as that section existed on December 140889
31, 2002.140890

       (21)(a) If the taxpayer was required to add an amount under 140891
division (A)(20)(a) of this section for a taxable year, deduct one 140892
of the following:140893

       (i) One-fifth of the amount so added for each of the five 140894
succeeding taxable years if the amount so added was five-sixths of 140895
qualifying section 179 depreciation expense or depreciation 140896
expense allowed by subsection (k) of section 168 of the Internal 140897
Revenue Code;140898

       (ii) One-half of the amount so added for each of the two 140899
succeeding taxable years if the amount so added was two-thirds of 140900
such depreciation expense;140901

       (iii) One-sixth of the amount so added for each of the six 140902
succeeding taxable years if the entire amount of such depreciation 140903
expense was so added.140904

       (b) If the amount deducted under division (A)(21)(a) of this 140905
section is attributable to an add-back allocated under division 140906
(A)(20)(c) of this section, the amount deducted shall be sitused 140907
to the same location. Otherwise, the add-back shall be apportioned 140908
using the apportionment factors for the taxable year in which the 140909
deduction is taken, subject to one or more of the four alternative 140910
methods of apportionment enumerated in section 5747.21 of the 140911
Revised Code.140912

       (c) No deduction is available under division (A)(21)(a) of 140913
this section with regard to any depreciation allowed by section 140914
168(k) of the Internal Revenue Code and by the qualifying section 140915
179 depreciation expense amount to the extent that such 140916
depreciation results in or increases a federal net operating loss 140917
carryback or carryforward. If no such deduction is available for a 140918
taxable year, the taxpayer may carry forward the amount not 140919
deducted in such taxable year to the next taxable year and add 140920
that amount to any deduction otherwise available under division 140921
(A)(21)(a) of this section for that next taxable year. The 140922
carryforward of amounts not so deducted shall continue until the 140923
entire addition required by division (A)(20)(a) of this section 140924
has been deducted.140925

        (d) No refund shall be allowed as a result of adjustments 140926
made by division (A)(21) of this section.140927

       (22) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded 140928
in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable 140929
year, the amount the taxpayer received during the taxable year as 140930
reimbursement for life insurance premiums under section 5919.31 of 140931
the Revised Code.140932

        (23) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded 140933
in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable 140934
year, the amount the taxpayer received during the taxable year as 140935
a death benefit paid by the adjutant general under section 5919.33 140936
of the Revised Code.140937

       (24) Deduct, to the extent included in federal adjusted gross 140938
income and not otherwise allowable as a deduction or exclusion in 140939
computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable 140940
year, military pay and allowances received by the taxpayer during 140941
the taxable year for active duty service in the United States 140942
army, air force, navy, marine corps, or coast guard or reserve 140943
components thereof or the national guard. The deduction may not be 140944
claimed for military pay and allowances received by the taxpayer 140945
while the taxpayer is stationed in this state.140946

       (25) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise allowable as a 140947
deduction or exclusion in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross 140948
income for the taxable year and not otherwise compensated for by 140949
any other source, the amount of qualified organ donation expenses 140950
incurred by the taxpayer during the taxable year, not to exceed 140951
ten thousand dollars. A taxpayer may deduct qualified organ 140952
donation expenses only once for all taxable years beginning with 140953
taxable years beginning in 2007.140954

       For the purposes of division (A)(25) of this section:140955

        (a) "Human organ" means all or any portion of a human liver, 140956
pancreas, kidney, intestine, or lung, and any portion of human 140957
bone marrow.140958

        (b) "Qualified organ donation expenses" means travel 140959
expenses, lodging expenses, and wages and salary forgone by a 140960
taxpayer in connection with the taxpayer's donation, while living, 140961
of one or more of the taxpayer's human organs to another human 140962
being.140963

       (26) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded 140964
in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable 140965
year, amounts received by the taxpayer as retired military140966
personnel pay for service in the United States army, navy, air 140967
force, coast guard, or marine corpsuniformed services or reserve 140968
components thereof, or the national guard, or received by the 140969
surviving spouse or former spouse of such a taxpayer under the 140970
survivor benefit plan on account of such a taxpayer's death. If 140971
the taxpayer receives income on account of retirement paid under 140972
the federal civil service retirement system or federal employees 140973
retirement system, or under any successor retirement program 140974
enacted by the congress of the United States that is established 140975
and maintained for retired employees of the United States 140976
government, and such retirement income is based, in whole or in 140977
part, on credit for the taxpayer's militaryuniformed service, the 140978
deduction allowed under this division shall include only that 140979
portion of such retirement income that is attributable to the 140980
taxpayer's militaryuniformed service, to the extent that portion 140981
of such retirement income is otherwise included in federal 140982
adjusted gross income and is not otherwise deducted under this 140983
section. Any amount deducted under division (A)(26) of this 140984
section is not included in a taxpayer's adjusted gross income for 140985
the purposes of section 5747.055 of the Revised Code. No amount 140986
may be deducted under division (A)(26) of this section on the 140987
basis of which a credit was claimed under section 5747.055 of the 140988
Revised Code.140989

       (27) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded 140990
in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable 140991
year, the amount the taxpayer received during the taxable year 140992
from the military injury relief fund created in section 5101.98 of 140993
the Revised Code.140994

       (28) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded 140995
in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable 140996
year, the amount the taxpayer received as a veterans bonus during 140997
the taxable year from the Ohio department of veterans services as 140998
authorized by Section 2r of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution.140999

       (29) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded 141000
in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable 141001
year, any loss from wagering transactions that is allowed as an 141002
itemized deduction under section 165 of the Internal Revenue Code 141003
and that the taxpayer deducted in computing federal taxable 141004
income.141005

       (30) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded 141006
in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable 141007
year, any income derived from a transfer agreement or from the 141008
enterprise transferred under that agreement under section 4313.02 141009
of the Revised Code.141010

       (31) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded 141011
in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable 141012
year, Ohio college opportunity or federal Pell grant amounts 141013
received by the taxpayer or the taxpayer's spouse or dependent 141014
pursuant to section 3333.122 of the Revised Code or 20 U.S.C. 141015
1070a, et seq., and used to pay room or board furnished by the 141016
educational institution for which the grant was awarded at the 141017
institution's facilities, including meal plans administered by the 141018
institution. For the purposes of this division, receipt of a grant 141019
includes the distribution of a grant directly to an educational 141020
institution and the crediting of the grant to the enrollee's 141021
account with the institution.141022

       (32) Deduct one-half of the taxpayer's Ohio small business 141023
investor income, not to exceed one hundred eighty-seven thousand 141024
five hundred dollars for each spouse if spouses file separate 141025
returns under section 5747.08 of the Revised Code or three hundred 141026
seventy-five thousand dollars for all other taxpayers. No 141027
pass-through entity may claim a deduction under this division.141028

        For the purposes of this division, "Ohio small business 141029
investor income" means the portion of a taxpayer's adjusted gross 141030
income that is business income reduced by deductions from business 141031
income and apportioned or allocated to this state under sections 141032
5747.21 and 5747.22 of the Revised Code, to the extent not 141033
otherwise deducted or excluded in computing federal or Ohio 141034
adjusted gross income for the taxable year.141035

       (B) "Business income" means income, including gain or loss, 141036
arising from transactions, activities, and sources in the regular 141037
course of a trade or business and includes income, gain, or loss 141038
from real property, tangible property, and intangible property if 141039
the acquisition, rental, management, and disposition of the 141040
property constitute integral parts of the regular course of a 141041
trade or business operation. "Business income" includes income, 141042
including gain or loss, from a partial or complete liquidation of 141043
a business, including, but not limited to, gain or loss from the 141044
sale or other disposition of goodwill.141045

       (C) "Nonbusiness income" means all income other than business 141046
income and may include, but is not limited to, compensation, rents 141047
and royalties from real or tangible personal property, capital 141048
gains, interest, dividends and distributions, patent or copyright 141049
royalties, or lottery winnings, prizes, and awards.141050

       (D) "Compensation" means any form of remuneration paid to an 141051
employee for personal services.141052

       (E) "Fiduciary" means a guardian, trustee, executor, 141053
administrator, receiver, conservator, or any other person acting 141054
in any fiduciary capacity for any individual, trust, or estate.141055

       (F) "Fiscal year" means an accounting period of twelve months 141056
ending on the last day of any month other than December.141057

       (G) "Individual" means any natural person.141058

       (H) "Internal Revenue Code" means the "Internal Revenue Code 141059
of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 1, as amended.141060

       (I) "Resident" means any of the following, provided that 141061
division (I)(3) of this section applies only to taxable years of a 141062
trust beginning in 2002 or thereafter:141063

       (1) An individual who is domiciled in this state, subject to 141064
section 5747.24 of the Revised Code;141065

       (2) The estate of a decedent who at the time of death was 141066
domiciled in this state. The domicile tests of section 5747.24 of 141067
the Revised Code are not controlling for purposes of division 141068
(I)(2) of this section.141069

       (3) A trust that, in whole or part, resides in this state. If 141070
only part of a trust resides in this state, the trust is a 141071
resident only with respect to that part.141072

       For the purposes of division (I)(3) of this section:141073

       (a) A trust resides in this state for the trust's current 141074
taxable year to the extent, as described in division (I)(3)(d) of 141075
this section, that the trust consists directly or indirectly, in 141076
whole or in part, of assets, net of any related liabilities, that 141077
were transferred, or caused to be transferred, directly or 141078
indirectly, to the trust by any of the following:141079

        (i) A person, a court, or a governmental entity or 141080
instrumentality on account of the death of a decedent, but only if 141081
the trust is described in division (I)(3)(e)(i) or (ii) of this 141082
section;141083

       (ii) A person who was domiciled in this state for the 141084
purposes of this chapter when the person directly or indirectly 141085
transferred assets to an irrevocable trust, but only if at least 141086
one of the trust's qualifying beneficiaries is domiciled in this 141087
state for the purposes of this chapter during all or some portion 141088
of the trust's current taxable year;141089

       (iii) A person who was domiciled in this state for the 141090
purposes of this chapter when the trust document or instrument or 141091
part of the trust document or instrument became irrevocable, but 141092
only if at least one of the trust's qualifying beneficiaries is a 141093
resident domiciled in this state for the purposes of this chapter 141094
during all or some portion of the trust's current taxable year. If 141095
a trust document or instrument became irrevocable upon the death 141096
of a person who at the time of death was domiciled in this state 141097
for purposes of this chapter, that person is a person described in 141098
division (I)(3)(a)(iii) of this section.141099

        (b) A trust is irrevocable to the extent that the transferor 141100
is not considered to be the owner of the net assets of the trust 141101
under sections 671 to 678 of the Internal Revenue Code.141102

       (c) With respect to a trust other than a charitable lead 141103
trust, "qualifying beneficiary" has the same meaning as "potential 141104
current beneficiary" as defined in section 1361(e)(2) of the 141105
Internal Revenue Code, and with respect to a charitable lead trust 141106
"qualifying beneficiary" is any current, future, or contingent 141107
beneficiary, but with respect to any trust "qualifying 141108
beneficiary" excludes a person or a governmental entity or 141109
instrumentality to any of which a contribution would qualify for 141110
the charitable deduction under section 170 of the Internal Revenue 141111
Code.141112

        (d) For the purposes of division (I)(3)(a) of this section, 141113
the extent to which a trust consists directly or indirectly, in 141114
whole or in part, of assets, net of any related liabilities, that 141115
were transferred directly or indirectly, in whole or part, to the 141116
trust by any of the sources enumerated in that division shall be 141117
ascertained by multiplying the fair market value of the trust's 141118
assets, net of related liabilities, by the qualifying ratio, which 141119
shall be computed as follows:141120

        (i) The first time the trust receives assets, the numerator 141121
of the qualifying ratio is the fair market value of those assets 141122
at that time, net of any related liabilities, from sources 141123
enumerated in division (I)(3)(a) of this section. The denominator 141124
of the qualifying ratio is the fair market value of all the 141125
trust's assets at that time, net of any related liabilities.141126

        (ii) Each subsequent time the trust receives assets, a 141127
revised qualifying ratio shall be computed. The numerator of the 141128
revised qualifying ratio is the sum of (1) the fair market value 141129
of the trust's assets immediately prior to the subsequent 141130
transfer, net of any related liabilities, multiplied by the 141131
qualifying ratio last computed without regard to the subsequent 141132
transfer, and (2) the fair market value of the subsequently 141133
transferred assets at the time transferred, net of any related 141134
liabilities, from sources enumerated in division (I)(3)(a) of this 141135
section. The denominator of the revised qualifying ratio is the 141136
fair market value of all the trust's assets immediately after the 141137
subsequent transfer, net of any related liabilities.141138

       (iii) Whether a transfer to the trust is by or from any of 141139
the sources enumerated in division (I)(3)(a) of this section shall 141140
be ascertained without regard to the domicile of the trust's 141141
beneficiaries.141142

        (e) For the purposes of division (I)(3)(a)(i) of this 141143
section:141144

        (i) A trust is described in division (I)(3)(e)(i) of this 141145
section if the trust is a testamentary trust and the testator of 141146
that testamentary trust was domiciled in this state at the time of 141147
the testator's death for purposes of the taxes levied under 141148
Chapter 5731. of the Revised Code.141149

        (ii) A trust is described in division (I)(3)(e)(ii) of this 141150
section if the transfer is a qualifying transfer described in any 141151
of divisions (I)(3)(f)(i) to (vi) of this section, the trust is an 141152
irrevocable inter vivos trust, and at least one of the trust's 141153
qualifying beneficiaries is domiciled in this state for purposes 141154
of this chapter during all or some portion of the trust's current 141155
taxable year.141156

        (f) For the purposes of division (I)(3)(e)(ii) of this 141157
section, a "qualifying transfer" is a transfer of assets, net of 141158
any related liabilities, directly or indirectly to a trust, if the 141159
transfer is described in any of the following:141160

        (i) The transfer is made to a trust, created by the decedent 141161
before the decedent's death and while the decedent was domiciled 141162
in this state for the purposes of this chapter, and, prior to the 141163
death of the decedent, the trust became irrevocable while the 141164
decedent was domiciled in this state for the purposes of this 141165
chapter.141166

        (ii) The transfer is made to a trust to which the decedent, 141167
prior to the decedent's death, had directly or indirectly 141168
transferred assets, net of any related liabilities, while the 141169
decedent was domiciled in this state for the purposes of this 141170
chapter, and prior to the death of the decedent the trust became 141171
irrevocable while the decedent was domiciled in this state for the 141172
purposes of this chapter.141173

        (iii) The transfer is made on account of a contractual 141174
relationship existing directly or indirectly between the 141175
transferor and either the decedent or the estate of the decedent 141176
at any time prior to the date of the decedent's death, and the 141177
decedent was domiciled in this state at the time of death for 141178
purposes of the taxes levied under Chapter 5731. of the Revised 141179
Code.141180

        (iv) The transfer is made to a trust on account of a 141181
contractual relationship existing directly or indirectly between 141182
the transferor and another person who at the time of the 141183
decedent's death was domiciled in this state for purposes of this 141184
chapter.141185

        (v) The transfer is made to a trust on account of the will of 141186
a testator who was domiciled in this state at the time of the 141187
testator's death for purposes of the taxes levied under Chapter 141188
5731. of the Revised Code.141189

        (vi) The transfer is made to a trust created by or caused to 141190
be created by a court, and the trust was directly or indirectly 141191
created in connection with or as a result of the death of an 141192
individual who, for purposes of the taxes levied under Chapter 141193
5731. of the Revised Code, was domiciled in this state at the time 141194
of the individual's death.141195

       (g) The tax commissioner may adopt rules to ascertain the 141196
part of a trust residing in this state.141197

       (J) "Nonresident" means an individual or estate that is not a 141198
resident. An individual who is a resident for only part of a 141199
taxable year is a nonresident for the remainder of that taxable 141200
year.141201

       (K) "Pass-through entity" has the same meaning as in section 141202
5733.04 of the Revised Code.141203

       (L) "Return" means the notifications and reports required to 141204
be filed pursuant to this chapter for the purpose of reporting the 141205
tax due and includes declarations of estimated tax when so 141206
required.141207

       (M) "Taxable year" means the calendar year or the taxpayer's 141208
fiscal year ending during the calendar year, or fractional part 141209
thereof, upon which the adjusted gross income is calculated 141210
pursuant to this chapter.141211

       (N) "Taxpayer" means any person subject to the tax imposed by 141212
section 5747.02 of the Revised Code or any pass-through entity 141213
that makes the election under division (D) of section 5747.08 of 141214
the Revised Code.141215

       (O) "Dependents" means dependents as defined in the Internal 141216
Revenue Code and as claimed in the taxpayer's federal income tax 141217
return for the taxable year or which the taxpayer would have been 141218
permitted to claim had the taxpayer filed a federal income tax 141219
return.141220

       (P) "Principal county of employment" means, in the case of a 141221
nonresident, the county within the state in which a taxpayer 141222
performs services for an employer or, if those services are 141223
performed in more than one county, the county in which the major 141224
portion of the services are performed.141225

       (Q) As used in sections 5747.50 to 5747.55 of the Revised 141226
Code:141227

       (1) "Subdivision" means any county, municipal corporation, 141228
park district, or township.141229

       (2) "Essential local government purposes" includes all 141230
functions that any subdivision is required by general law to 141231
exercise, including like functions that are exercised under a 141232
charter adopted pursuant to the Ohio Constitution.141233

       (R) "Overpayment" means any amount already paid that exceeds 141234
the figure determined to be the correct amount of the tax.141235

       (S) "Taxable income" or "Ohio taxable income" applies only to 141236
estates and trusts, and means federal taxable income, as defined 141237
and used in the Internal Revenue Code, adjusted as follows:141238

       (1) Add interest or dividends, net of ordinary, necessary, 141239
and reasonable expenses not deducted in computing federal taxable 141240
income, on obligations or securities of any state or of any 141241
political subdivision or authority of any state, other than this 141242
state and its subdivisions and authorities, but only to the extent 141243
that such net amount is not otherwise includible in Ohio taxable 141244
income and is described in either division (S)(1)(a) or (b) of 141245
this section:141246

        (a) The net amount is not attributable to the S portion of an 141247
electing small business trust and has not been distributed to 141248
beneficiaries for the taxable year;141249

        (b) The net amount is attributable to the S portion of an 141250
electing small business trust for the taxable year.141251

       (2) Add interest or dividends, net of ordinary, necessary, 141252
and reasonable expenses not deducted in computing federal taxable 141253
income, on obligations of any authority, commission, 141254
instrumentality, territory, or possession of the United States to 141255
the extent that the interest or dividends are exempt from federal 141256
income taxes but not from state income taxes, but only to the 141257
extent that such net amount is not otherwise includible in Ohio 141258
taxable income and is described in either division (S)(1)(a) or 141259
(b) of this section;141260

       (3) Add the amount of personal exemption allowed to the 141261
estate pursuant to section 642(b) of the Internal Revenue Code;141262

       (4) Deduct interest or dividends, net of related expenses 141263
deducted in computing federal taxable income, on obligations of 141264
the United States and its territories and possessions or of any 141265
authority, commission, or instrumentality of the United States to 141266
the extent that the interest or dividends are exempt from state 141267
taxes under the laws of the United States, but only to the extent 141268
that such amount is included in federal taxable income and is 141269
described in either division (S)(1)(a) or (b) of this section;141270

       (5) Deduct the amount of wages and salaries, if any, not 141271
otherwise allowable as a deduction but that would have been 141272
allowable as a deduction in computing federal taxable income for 141273
the taxable year, had the targeted jobs credit allowed under 141274
sections 38, 51, and 52 of the Internal Revenue Code not been in 141275
effect, but only to the extent such amount relates either to 141276
income included in federal taxable income for the taxable year or 141277
to income of the S portion of an electing small business trust for 141278
the taxable year;141279

       (6) Deduct any interest or interest equivalent, net of 141280
related expenses deducted in computing federal taxable income, on 141281
public obligations and purchase obligations, but only to the 141282
extent that such net amount relates either to income included in 141283
federal taxable income for the taxable year or to income of the S 141284
portion of an electing small business trust for the taxable year;141285

       (7) Add any loss or deduct any gain resulting from sale, 141286
exchange, or other disposition of public obligations to the extent 141287
that such loss has been deducted or such gain has been included in 141288
computing either federal taxable income or income of the S portion 141289
of an electing small business trust for the taxable year;141290

       (8) Except in the case of the final return of an estate, add 141291
any amount deducted by the taxpayer on both its Ohio estate tax 141292
return pursuant to section 5731.14 of the Revised Code, and on its 141293
federal income tax return in determining federal taxable income;141294

       (9)(a) Deduct any amount included in federal taxable income 141295
solely because the amount represents a reimbursement or refund of 141296
expenses that in a previous year the decedent had deducted as an 141297
itemized deduction pursuant to section 63 of the Internal Revenue 141298
Code and applicable treasury regulations. The deduction otherwise 141299
allowed under division (S)(9)(a) of this section shall be reduced 141300
to the extent the reimbursement is attributable to an amount the 141301
taxpayer or decedent deducted under this section in any taxable 141302
year.141303

       (b) Add any amount not otherwise included in Ohio taxable 141304
income for any taxable year to the extent that the amount is 141305
attributable to the recovery during the taxable year of any amount 141306
deducted or excluded in computing federal or Ohio taxable income 141307
in any taxable year, but only to the extent such amount has not 141308
been distributed to beneficiaries for the taxable year.141309

       (10) Deduct any portion of the deduction described in section 141310
1341(a)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code, for repaying previously 141311
reported income received under a claim of right, that meets both 141312
of the following requirements:141313

       (a) It is allowable for repayment of an item that was 141314
included in the taxpayer's taxable income or the decedent's 141315
adjusted gross income for a prior taxable year and did not qualify 141316
for a credit under division (A) or (B) of section 5747.05 of the 141317
Revised Code for that year.141318

       (b) It does not otherwise reduce the taxpayer's taxable 141319
income or the decedent's adjusted gross income for the current or 141320
any other taxable year.141321

       (11) Add any amount claimed as a credit under section 141322
5747.059 or 5747.65 of the Revised Code to the extent that the 141323
amount satisfies either of the following:141324

       (a) The amount was deducted or excluded from the computation 141325
of the taxpayer's federal taxable income as required to be 141326
reported for the taxpayer's taxable year under the Internal 141327
Revenue Code;141328

       (b) The amount resulted in a reduction in the taxpayer's 141329
federal taxable income as required to be reported for any of the 141330
taxpayer's taxable years under the Internal Revenue Code.141331

       (12) Deduct any amount, net of related expenses deducted in 141332
computing federal taxable income, that a trust is required to 141333
report as farm income on its federal income tax return, but only 141334
if the assets of the trust include at least ten acres of land 141335
satisfying the definition of "land devoted exclusively to 141336
agricultural use" under section 5713.30 of the Revised Code, 141337
regardless of whether the land is valued for tax purposes as such 141338
land under sections 5713.30 to 5713.38 of the Revised Code. If the 141339
trust is a pass-through entity investor, section 5747.231 of the 141340
Revised Code applies in ascertaining if the trust is eligible to 141341
claim the deduction provided by division (S)(12) of this section 141342
in connection with the pass-through entity's farm income.141343

        Except for farm income attributable to the S portion of an 141344
electing small business trust, the deduction provided by division 141345
(S)(12) of this section is allowed only to the extent that the 141346
trust has not distributed such farm income. Division (S)(12) of 141347
this section applies only to taxable years of a trust beginning in 141348
2002 or thereafter.141349

       (13) Add the net amount of income described in section 641(c) 141350
of the Internal Revenue Code to the extent that amount is not 141351
included in federal taxable income.141352

       (14) Add or deduct the amount the taxpayer would be required 141353
to add or deduct under division (A)(20) or (21) of this section if 141354
the taxpayer's Ohio taxable income were computed in the same 141355
manner as an individual's Ohio adjusted gross income is computed 141356
under this section. In the case of a trust, division (S)(14) of 141357
this section applies only to any of the trust's taxable years 141358
beginning in 2002 or thereafter.141359

       (T) "School district income" and "school district income tax" 141360
have the same meanings as in section 5748.01 of the Revised Code.141361

       (U) As used in divisions (A)(8), (A)(9), (S)(6), and (S)(7) 141362
of this section, "public obligations," "purchase obligations," and 141363
"interest or interest equivalent" have the same meanings as in 141364
section 5709.76 of the Revised Code.141365

       (V) "Limited liability company" means any limited liability 141366
company formed under Chapter 1705. of the Revised Code or under 141367
the laws of any other state.141368

       (W) "Pass-through entity investor" means any person who, 141369
during any portion of a taxable year of a pass-through entity, is 141370
a partner, member, shareholder, or equity investor in that 141371
pass-through entity.141372

       (X) "Banking day" has the same meaning as in section 1304.01 141373
of the Revised Code.141374

       (Y) "Month" means a calendar month.141375

       (Z) "Quarter" means the first three months, the second three 141376
months, the third three months, or the last three months of the 141377
taxpayer's taxable year.141378

       (AA)(1) "Eligible institution" means a state university or 141379
state institution of higher education as defined in section 141380
3345.011 of the Revised Code, or a private, nonprofit college, 141381
university, or other post-secondary institution located in this 141382
state that possesses a certificate of authorization issued by the 141383
Ohio board of regents pursuant to Chapter 1713. of the Revised 141384
Code or a certificate of registration issued by the state board of 141385
career colleges and schools under Chapter 3332. of the Revised 141386
Code.141387

       (2) "Qualified tuition and fees" means tuition and fees 141388
imposed by an eligible institution as a condition of enrollment or 141389
attendance, not exceeding two thousand five hundred dollars in 141390
each of the individual's first two years of post-secondary 141391
education. If the individual is a part-time student, "qualified 141392
tuition and fees" includes tuition and fees paid for the academic 141393
equivalent of the first two years of post-secondary education 141394
during a maximum of five taxable years, not exceeding a total of 141395
five thousand dollars. "Qualified tuition and fees" does not 141396
include:141397

       (a) Expenses for any course or activity involving sports, 141398
games, or hobbies unless the course or activity is part of the 141399
individual's degree or diploma program;141400

       (b) The cost of books, room and board, student activity fees, 141401
athletic fees, insurance expenses, or other expenses unrelated to 141402
the individual's academic course of instruction;141403

       (c) Tuition, fees, or other expenses paid or reimbursed 141404
through an employer, scholarship, grant in aid, or other 141405
educational benefit program.141406

       (BB)(1) "Modified business income" means the business income 141407
included in a trust's Ohio taxable income after such taxable 141408
income is first reduced by the qualifying trust amount, if any.141409

       (2) "Qualifying trust amount" of a trust means capital gains 141410
and losses from the sale, exchange, or other disposition of equity 141411
or ownership interests in, or debt obligations of, a qualifying 141412
investee to the extent included in the trust's Ohio taxable 141413
income, but only if the following requirements are satisfied:141414

        (a) The book value of the qualifying investee's physical 141415
assets in this state and everywhere, as of the last day of the 141416
qualifying investee's fiscal or calendar year ending immediately 141417
prior to the date on which the trust recognizes the gain or loss, 141418
is available to the trust.141419

       (b) The requirements of section 5747.011 of the Revised Code 141420
are satisfied for the trust's taxable year in which the trust 141421
recognizes the gain or loss.141422

        Any gain or loss that is not a qualifying trust amount is 141423
modified business income, qualifying investment income, or 141424
modified nonbusiness income, as the case may be.141425

       (3) "Modified nonbusiness income" means a trust's Ohio 141426
taxable income other than modified business income, other than the 141427
qualifying trust amount, and other than qualifying investment 141428
income, as defined in section 5747.012 of the Revised Code, to the 141429
extent such qualifying investment income is not otherwise part of 141430
modified business income.141431

       (4) "Modified Ohio taxable income" applies only to trusts, 141432
and means the sum of the amounts described in divisions (BB)(4)(a) 141433
to (c) of this section:141434

       (a) The fraction, calculated under section 5747.013, and 141435
applying section 5747.231 of the Revised Code, multiplied by the 141436
sum of the following amounts:141437

        (i) The trust's modified business income;141438

        (ii) The trust's qualifying investment income, as defined in 141439
section 5747.012 of the Revised Code, but only to the extent the 141440
qualifying investment income does not otherwise constitute 141441
modified business income and does not otherwise constitute a 141442
qualifying trust amount.141443

       (b) The qualifying trust amount multiplied by a fraction, the 141444
numerator of which is the sum of the book value of the qualifying 141445
investee's physical assets in this state on the last day of the 141446
qualifying investee's fiscal or calendar year ending immediately 141447
prior to the day on which the trust recognizes the qualifying 141448
trust amount, and the denominator of which is the sum of the book 141449
value of the qualifying investee's total physical assets 141450
everywhere on the last day of the qualifying investee's fiscal or 141451
calendar year ending immediately prior to the day on which the 141452
trust recognizes the qualifying trust amount. If, for a taxable 141453
year, the trust recognizes a qualifying trust amount with respect 141454
to more than one qualifying investee, the amount described in 141455
division (BB)(4)(b) of this section shall equal the sum of the 141456
products so computed for each such qualifying investee.141457

       (c)(i) With respect to a trust or portion of a trust that is 141458
a resident as ascertained in accordance with division (I)(3)(d) of 141459
this section, its modified nonbusiness income.141460

        (ii) With respect to a trust or portion of a trust that is 141461
not a resident as ascertained in accordance with division 141462
(I)(3)(d) of this section, the amount of its modified nonbusiness 141463
income satisfying the descriptions in divisions (B)(2) to (5) of 141464
section 5747.20 of the Revised Code, except as otherwise provided 141465
in division (BB)(4)(c)(ii) of this section. With respect to a 141466
trust or portion of a trust that is not a resident as ascertained 141467
in accordance with division (I)(3)(d) of this section, the trust's 141468
portion of modified nonbusiness income recognized from the sale, 141469
exchange, or other disposition of a debt interest in or equity 141470
interest in a section 5747.212 entity, as defined in section 141471
5747.212 of the Revised Code, without regard to division (A) of 141472
that section, shall not be allocated to this state in accordance 141473
with section 5747.20 of the Revised Code but shall be apportioned 141474
to this state in accordance with division (B) of section 5747.212 141475
of the Revised Code without regard to division (A) of that 141476
section.141477

       If the allocation and apportionment of a trust's income under 141478
divisions (BB)(4)(a) and (c) of this section do not fairly 141479
represent the modified Ohio taxable income of the trust in this 141480
state, the alternative methods described in division (C) of 141481
section 5747.21 of the Revised Code may be applied in the manner 141482
and to the same extent provided in that section.141483

       (5)(a) Except as set forth in division (BB)(5)(b) of this 141484
section, "qualifying investee" means a person in which a trust has 141485
an equity or ownership interest, or a person or unit of government 141486
the debt obligations of either of which are owned by a trust. For 141487
the purposes of division (BB)(2)(a) of this section and for the 141488
purpose of computing the fraction described in division (BB)(4)(b) 141489
of this section, all of the following apply:141490

        (i) If the qualifying investee is a member of a qualifying 141491
controlled group on the last day of the qualifying investee's 141492
fiscal or calendar year ending immediately prior to the date on 141493
which the trust recognizes the gain or loss, then "qualifying 141494
investee" includes all persons in the qualifying controlled group 141495
on such last day.141496

        (ii) If the qualifying investee, or if the qualifying 141497
investee and any members of the qualifying controlled group of 141498
which the qualifying investee is a member on the last day of the 141499
qualifying investee's fiscal or calendar year ending immediately 141500
prior to the date on which the trust recognizes the gain or loss, 141501
separately or cumulatively own, directly or indirectly, on the 141502
last day of the qualifying investee's fiscal or calendar year 141503
ending immediately prior to the date on which the trust recognizes 141504
the qualifying trust amount, more than fifty per cent of the 141505
equity of a pass-through entity, then the qualifying investee and 141506
the other members are deemed to own the proportionate share of the 141507
pass-through entity's physical assets which the pass-through 141508
entity directly or indirectly owns on the last day of the 141509
pass-through entity's calendar or fiscal year ending within or 141510
with the last day of the qualifying investee's fiscal or calendar 141511
year ending immediately prior to the date on which the trust 141512
recognizes the qualifying trust amount.141513

        (iii) For the purposes of division (BB)(5)(a)(iii) of this 141514
section, "upper level pass-through entity" means a pass-through 141515
entity directly or indirectly owning any equity of another 141516
pass-through entity, and "lower level pass-through entity" means 141517
that other pass-through entity.141518

        An upper level pass-through entity, whether or not it is also 141519
a qualifying investee, is deemed to own, on the last day of the 141520
upper level pass-through entity's calendar or fiscal year, the 141521
proportionate share of the lower level pass-through entity's 141522
physical assets that the lower level pass-through entity directly 141523
or indirectly owns on the last day of the lower level pass-through 141524
entity's calendar or fiscal year ending within or with the last 141525
day of the upper level pass-through entity's fiscal or calendar 141526
year. If the upper level pass-through entity directly and 141527
indirectly owns less than fifty per cent of the equity of the 141528
lower level pass-through entity on each day of the upper level 141529
pass-through entity's calendar or fiscal year in which or with 141530
which ends the calendar or fiscal year of the lower level 141531
pass-through entity and if, based upon clear and convincing 141532
evidence, complete information about the location and cost of the 141533
physical assets of the lower pass-through entity is not available 141534
to the upper level pass-through entity, then solely for purposes 141535
of ascertaining if a gain or loss constitutes a qualifying trust 141536
amount, the upper level pass-through entity shall be deemed as 141537
owning no equity of the lower level pass-through entity for each 141538
day during the upper level pass-through entity's calendar or 141539
fiscal year in which or with which ends the lower level 141540
pass-through entity's calendar or fiscal year. Nothing in division 141541
(BB)(5)(a)(iii) of this section shall be construed to provide for 141542
any deduction or exclusion in computing any trust's Ohio taxable 141543
income.141544

       (b) With respect to a trust that is not a resident for the 141545
taxable year and with respect to a part of a trust that is not a 141546
resident for the taxable year, "qualifying investee" for that 141547
taxable year does not include a C corporation if both of the 141548
following apply:141549

       (i) During the taxable year the trust or part of the trust 141550
recognizes a gain or loss from the sale, exchange, or other 141551
disposition of equity or ownership interests in, or debt 141552
obligations of, the C corporation.141553

       (ii) Such gain or loss constitutes nonbusiness income.141554

        (6) "Available" means information is such that a person is 141555
able to learn of the information by the due date plus extensions, 141556
if any, for filing the return for the taxable year in which the 141557
trust recognizes the gain or loss.141558

        (CC) "Qualifying controlled group" has the same meaning as in 141559
section 5733.04 of the Revised Code.141560

        (DD) "Related member" has the same meaning as in section 141561
5733.042 of the Revised Code.141562

       (EE)(1) For the purposes of division (EE) of this section: 141563

       (a) "Qualifying person" means any person other than a 141564
qualifying corporation.141565

       (b) "Qualifying corporation" means any person classified for 141566
federal income tax purposes as an association taxable as a 141567
corporation, except either of the following:141568

       (i) A corporation that has made an election under subchapter 141569
S, chapter one, subtitle A, of the Internal Revenue Code for its 141570
taxable year ending within, or on the last day of, the investor's 141571
taxable year;141572

       (ii) A subsidiary that is wholly owned by any corporation 141573
that has made an election under subchapter S, chapter one, 141574
subtitle A of the Internal Revenue Code for its taxable year 141575
ending within, or on the last day of, the investor's taxable year.141576

       (2) For the purposes of this chapter, unless expressly stated 141577
otherwise, no qualifying person indirectly owns any asset directly 141578
or indirectly owned by any qualifying corporation.141579

       (FF) For purposes of this chapter and Chapter 5751. of the 141580
Revised Code:141581

       (1) "Trust" does not include a qualified pre-income tax 141582
trust.141583

       (2) A "qualified pre-income tax trust" is any pre-income tax 141584
trust that makes a qualifying pre-income tax trust election as 141585
described in division (FF)(3) of this section.141586

       (3) A "qualifying pre-income tax trust election" is an 141587
election by a pre-income tax trust to subject to the tax imposed 141588
by section 5751.02 of the Revised Code the pre-income tax trust 141589
and all pass-through entities of which the trust owns or controls, 141590
directly, indirectly, or constructively through related interests, 141591
five per cent or more of the ownership or equity interests. The 141592
trustee shall notify the tax commissioner in writing of the 141593
election on or before April 15, 2006. The election, if timely 141594
made, shall be effective on and after January 1, 2006, and shall 141595
apply for all tax periods and tax years until revoked by the 141596
trustee of the trust.141597

       (4) A "pre-income tax trust" is a trust that satisfies all of 141598
the following requirements:141599

       (a) The document or instrument creating the trust was 141600
executed by the grantor before January 1, 1972;141601

       (b) The trust became irrevocable upon the creation of the 141602
trust; and141603

       (c) The grantor was domiciled in this state at the time the 141604
trust was created.141605

       (GG) "Uniformed services" has the same meaning as in 10 141606
U.S.C. 101.141607

       Sec. 5747.02.  (A) For the purpose of providing revenue for 141608
the support of schools and local government functions, to provide 141609
relief to property taxpayers, to provide revenue for the general 141610
revenue fund, and to meet the expenses of administering the tax 141611
levied by this chapter, there is hereby levied on every 141612
individual, trust, and estate residing in or earning or receiving 141613
income in this state, on every individual, trust, and estate 141614
earning or receiving lottery winnings, prizes, or awards pursuant 141615
to Chapter 3770. of the Revised Code, on every individual, trust, 141616
and estate earning or receiving winnings on casino gaming, and on 141617
every individual, trust, and estate otherwise having nexus with or 141618
in this state under the Constitution of the United States, an 141619
annual tax measured in the case of individuals by Ohio adjusted 141620
gross income less an exemption for the taxpayer, the taxpayer's 141621
spouse, and each dependent as provided in section 5747.025 of the 141622
Revised Code; measured in the case of trusts by modified Ohio 141623
taxable income under division (D) of this section; and measured in 141624
the case of estates by Ohio taxable income. The tax imposed by 141625
this section on the balance thus obtained is hereby levied as 141626
follows: 141627

       (1) For taxable years beginning in 2004: 141628

OHIO ADJUSTED GROSS INCOME LESS EXEMPTIONS (INDIVIDUALS) 141629
OR 141630
MODIFIED OHIO 141631
TAXABLE INCOME (TRUSTS) 141632
OR 141633
OHIO TAXABLE INCOME (ESTATES) TAX 141634

$5,000 or less .743% 141635
More than $5,000 but not more than $10,000 $37.15 plus 1.486% of the amount in excess of $5,000 141636
More than $10,000 but not more than $15,000 $111.45 plus 2.972% of the amount in excess of $10,000 141637
More than $15,000 but not more than $20,000 $260.05 plus 3.715% of the amount in excess of $15,000 141638
More than $20,000 but not more than $40,000 $445.80 plus 4.457% of the amount in excess of $20,000 141639
More than $40,000 but not more than $80,000 $1,337.20 plus 5.201% of the amount in excess of $40,000 141640
More than $80,000 but not more than $100,000 $3,417.60 plus 5.943% of the amount in excess of $80,000 141641
More than $100,000 but not more than $200,000 $4,606.20 plus 6.9% of the amount in excess of $100,000 141642
More than $200,000 $11,506.20 plus 7.5% of the amount in excess of $200,000 141643

       (2) For taxable years beginning in 2005: 141644

OHIO ADJUSTED GROSS INCOME LESS EXEMPTIONS (INDIVIDUALS) 141645
OR 141646
MODIFIED OHIO 141647
TAXABLE INCOME (TRUSTS) 141648
OR 141649
OHIO TAXABLE INCOME (ESTATES) TAX 141650

$5,000 or less .712% 141651
More than $5,000 but not more than $10,000 $35.60 plus 1.424% of the amount in excess of $5,000 141652
More than $10,000 but not more than $15,000 $106.80 plus 2.847% of the amount in excess of $10,000 141653
More than $15,000 but not more than $20,000 $249.15 plus 3.559% of the amount in excess of $15,000 141654
More than $20,000 but not more than $40,000 $427.10 plus 4.27% of the amount in excess of $20,000 141655
More than $40,000 but not more than $80,000 $1,281.10 plus 4.983% of the amount in excess of $40,000 141656
More than $80,000 but not more than $100,000 $3,274.30 plus 5.693% of the amount in excess of $80,000 141657
More than $100,000 but not more than $200,000 $4,412.90 plus 6.61% of the amount in excess of $100,000 141658
More than $200,000 $11,022.90 plus 7.185% of the amount in excess of $200,000 141659

       (3) For taxable years beginning in 2006: 141660

OHIO ADJUSTED GROSS INCOME LESS EXEMPTIONS (INDIVIDUALS) 141661
OR 141662
MODIFIED OHIO 141663
TAXABLE INCOME (TRUSTS) 141664
OR 141665
OHIO TAXABLE INCOME (ESTATES) TAX 141666

$5,000 or less .681% 141667
More than $5,000 but not more than $10,000 $34.05 plus 1.361% of the amount in excess of $5,000 141668
More than $10,000 but not more than $15,000 $102.10 plus 2.722% of the amount in excess of $10,000 141669
More than $15,000 but not more than $20,000 $238.20 plus 3.403% of the amount in excess of $15,000 141670
More than $20,000 but not more than $40,000 $408.35 plus 4.083% of the amount in excess of $20,000 141671
More than $40,000 but not more than $80,000 $1,224.95 plus 4.764% of the amount in excess of $40,000 141672
More than $80,000 but not more than $100,000 $3,130.55 plus 5.444% of the amount in excess of $80,000 141673
More than $100,000 but not more than $200,000 $4,219.35 plus 6.32% of the amount in excess of $100,000 141674
More than $200,000 $10,539.35 plus 6.87% of the amount in excess of $200,000 141675

       (4) For taxable years beginning in 2007: 141676

OHIO ADJUSTED GROSS INCOME LESS EXEMPTIONS (INDIVIDUALS) 141677
OR 141678
MODIFIED OHIO 141679
TAXABLE INCOME (TRUSTS) 141680
OR 141681
OHIO TAXABLE INCOME (ESTATES) TAX 141682

$5,000 or less .649% 141683
More than $5,000 but not more than $10,000 $32.45 plus 1.299% of the amount in excess of $5,000 141684
More than $10,000 but not more than $15,000 $97.40 plus 2.598% of the amount in excess of $10,000 141685
More than $15,000 but not more than $20,000 $227.30 plus 3.247% of the amount in excess of $15,000 141686
More than $20,000 but not more than $40,000 $389.65 plus 3.895% of the amount in excess of $20,000 141687
More than $40,000 but not more than $80,000 $1,168.65 plus 4.546% of the amount in excess of $40,000 141688
More than $80,000 but not more than $100,000 $2,987.05 plus 5.194% of the amount in excess of $80,000 141689
More than $100,000 but not more than $200,000 $4,025.85 plus 6.031% of the amount in excess of $100,000 141690
More than $200,000 $10,056.85 plus 6.555% of the amount in excess of $200,000 141691

       (5) For taxable years beginning in 2008, 2009, or 2010: 141692

OHIO ADJUSTED GROSS INCOME LESS EXEMPTIONS (INDIVIDUALS) 141693
OR 141694
MODIFIED OHIO 141695
TAXABLE INCOME (TRUSTS) 141696
OR 141697
OHIO TAXABLE INCOME (ESTATES) TAX 141698

$5,000 or less .618% 141699
More than $5,000 but not more than $10,000 $30.90 plus 1.236% of the amount in excess of $5,000 141700
More than $10,000 but not more than $15,000 $92.70 plus 2.473% of the amount in excess of $10,000 141701
More than $15,000 but not more than $20,000 $216.35 plus 3.091% of the amount in excess of $15,000 141702
More than $20,000 but not more than $40,000 $370.90 plus 3.708% of the amount in excess of $20,000 141703
More than $40,000 but not more than $80,000 $1,112.50 plus 4.327% of the amount in excess of $40,000 141704
More than $80,000 but not more than $100,000 $2,843.30 plus 4.945% of the amount in excess of $80,000 141705
More than $100,000 but not more than $200,000 $3,832.30 plus 5.741% of the amount in excess of $100,000 141706
More than $200,000 $9,573.30 plus 6.24% of the amount in excess of $200,000 141707

       (6) For taxable years beginning in 2011 or thereafter: 141708

OHIO ADJUSTED GROSS INCOME LESS EXEMPTIONS (INDIVIDUALS) 141709
OR 141710
MODIFIED OHIO 141711
TAXABLE INCOME (TRUSTS) 141712
OR 141713
OHIO TAXABLE INCOME (ESTATES) TAX 141714

$5,000 or less .587% 141715
More than $5,000 but not more than $10,000 $29.35 plus 1.174% of the amount in excess of $5,000 141716
More than $10,000 but not more than $15,000 $88.05 plus 2.348% of the amount in excess of $10,000 141717
More than $15,000 but not more than $20,000 $205.45 plus 2.935% of the amount in excess of $15,000 141718
More than $20,000 but not more than $40,000 $352.20 plus 3.521% of the amount in excess of $20,000 141719
More than $40,000 but not more than $80,000 $1,056.40 plus 4.109% of the amount in excess of $40,000 141720
More than $80,000 but not more than $100,000 $2,700.00 plus 4.695% of the amount in excess of $80,000 141721
More than $100,000 but not more than $200,000 $3,639.00 plus 5.451% of the amount in excess of $100,000 141722
More than $200,000 $9,090.00 plus 5.925% of the amount in excess of $200,000 141723

       In JulyAugust of each year, beginning in 2010, the tax 141724
commissioner shall adjust the income amounts prescribed in this 141725
division by multiplying the percentage increase in the gross 141726
domestic product deflator computed that year under section 141727
5747.025 of the Revised Code by each of the income amounts 141728
resulting from the adjustment under this division in the preceding 141729
year, adding the resulting product to the corresponding income 141730
amount resulting from the adjustment in the preceding year, and 141731
rounding the resulting sum to the nearest multiple of fifty 141732
dollars. The tax commissioner also shall recompute each of the tax 141733
dollar amounts to the extent necessary to reflect the adjustment 141734
of the income amounts. The rates of taxation shall not be 141735
adjusted. 141736

       The adjusted amounts apply to taxable years beginning in the 141737
calendar year in which the adjustments are made. The tax 141738
commissioner shall not make such adjustments in any year in which 141739
the amount resulting from the adjustment would be less than the 141740
amount resulting from the adjustment in the preceding year. 141741

       (B) If the director of budget and management makes a 141742
certification to the tax commissioner under division (B) of 141743
section 131.44 of the Revised Code, the amount of tax as 141744
determined under division (A) of this section shall be reduced by 141745
the percentage prescribed in that certification for taxable years 141746
beginning in the calendar year in which that certification is 141747
made. 141748

       (C) The levy of this tax on income does not prevent a 141749
municipal corporation, a joint economic development zone created 141750
under section 715.691, or a joint economic development district 141751
created under section 715.70 or 715.71 or sections 715.72 to 141752
715.81 of the Revised Code from levying a tax on income. 141753

       (D) This division applies only to taxable years of a trust 141754
beginning in 2002 or thereafter. 141755

       (1) The tax imposed by this section on a trust shall be 141756
computed by multiplying the Ohio modified taxable income of the 141757
trust by the rates prescribed by division (A) of this section. 141758

       (2) A resident trust may claim a credit against the tax 141759
computed under division (D) of this section equal to the lesser of 141760
(1) the tax paid to another state or the District of Columbia on 141761
the resident trust's modified nonbusiness income, other than the 141762
portion of the resident trust's nonbusiness income that is 141763
qualifying investment income as defined in section 5747.012 of the 141764
Revised Code, or (2) the effective tax rate, based on modified 141765
Ohio taxable income, multiplied by the resident trust's modified 141766
nonbusiness income other than the portion of the resident trust's 141767
nonbusiness income that is qualifying investment income. The 141768
credit applies before any other applicable credits. 141769

       (3) The credits enumerated in divisions (A)(1) to (13) of 141770
section 5747.98 of the Revised Code do not apply to a trust 141771
subject to division (D) of this section. Any credits enumerated in 141772
other divisions of section 5747.98 of the Revised Code apply to a 141773
trust subject to division (D) of this section. To the extent that 141774
the trust distributes income for the taxable year for which a 141775
credit is available to the trust, the credit shall be shared by 141776
the trust and its beneficiaries. The tax commissioner and the 141777
trust shall be guided by applicable regulations of the United 141778
States treasury regarding the sharing of credits. 141779

       (E) For the purposes of this section, "trust" means any trust 141780
described in Subchapter J of Chapter 1 of the Internal Revenue 141781
Code, excluding trusts that are not irrevocable as defined in 141782
division (I)(3)(b) of section 5747.01 of the Revised Code and that 141783
have no modified Ohio taxable income for the taxable year, 141784
charitable remainder trusts, qualified funeral trusts and preneed 141785
funeral contract trusts established pursuant to sections 4717.31 141786
to 4717.38 of the Revised Code that are not qualified funeral 141787
trusts, endowment and perpetual care trusts, qualified settlement 141788
trusts and funds, designated settlement trusts and funds, and 141789
trusts exempted from taxation under section 501(a) of the Internal 141790
Revenue Code. 141791

       Sec. 5747.022.  An individual subject to the tax imposed by 141792
section 5747.02 of the Revised Code may claim a credit equal to 141793
twenty dollars times the number of exemptions allowed for the 141794
taxpayer, histhe taxpayer's spouse, and each dependent under 141795
section 5747.02 of the Revised Code. The credit shall be claimed 141796
in the order required under section 5747.98 of the Revised Code. 141797
The credit shall not be considered in determining the taxes 141798
required to be withheld under section 5747.06 of the Revised Code 141799
or the estimated taxes required to be paid under section 5747.09 141800
of the Revised Code. In the case of an individual with respect to 141801
whom an exemption under section 5747.02 of the Revised Code is 141802
allowable to another taxpayer for a taxable year beginning in the 141803
calendar year in which the individual's taxable year begins, the 141804
"number of exemptions allowed" for purposes of calculating the 141805
credit allowed under this section to such individual for the 141806
individual's taxable year shall not include an exemption for the 141807
individual.141808

       Sec. 5747.025.  (A) TheExcept as otherwise provided in this 141809
division, the personal exemption for the taxpayer and the 141810
taxpayer's spouse shall be seven hundred fifty dollars each for 141811
the taxable year beginning in 1996, eight hundred fifty dollars 141812
each for the taxable year beginning in 1997, nine hundred fifty 141813
dollars each for the taxable year beginning in 1998, and one 141814
thousand fifty dollars each for the taxable year beginning in 1999 141815
and taxable years beginning after 1999. The personal exemption 141816
amount prescribed in this division for taxable years beginning 141817
after 1999 shall be adjusted each year in the manner prescribed in 141818
division (C) of this section. In the case of an individual with 141819
respect to whom an exemption under section 5747.02 of the Revised 141820
Code is allowable to another taxpayer for a taxable year beginning 141821
in the calendar year in which the individual's taxable year 141822
begins, the exemption amount applicable to such individual for 141823
such individual's taxable year shall be zero.141824

       (B) The personal exemption for each dependent shall be eight 141825
hundred fifty dollars for the taxable year beginning in 1996, and 141826
one thousand fifty dollars for the taxable year beginning in 1997 141827
and taxable years beginning after 1997. The personal exemption 141828
amount prescribed in this division for taxable years beginning 141829
after 1999 shall be adjusted each year in the manner prescribed in 141830
division (C) of this section.141831

       (C) In SeptemberAugust of each year, beginning in 2000, the 141832
tax commissioner shall determine the percentage increase in the 141833
gross domestic product deflator determined by the bureau of 141834
economic analysis of the United States department of commerce from 141835
the first day of January of the preceding calendar year to the 141836
last day of December of the preceding year, and adjust the 141837
personal exemption amount for taxable years beginning in the 141838
current calendar year by multiplying that amount by the percentage 141839
increase in the gross domestic product deflator for that period; 141840
adding the resulting product to the personal exemption amount for 141841
taxable years beginning in the preceding calendar year; and 141842
rounding the resulting sum upward to the nearest multiple of fifty 141843
dollars. The commissioner shall not make such an adjustment in any 141844
calendar year in which the amount resulting from the adjustment 141845
would be less than the amount resulting from the adjustment in the 141846
preceding calendar year.141847

       Sec. 5747.08.  An annual return with respect to the tax 141848
imposed by section 5747.02 of the Revised Code and each tax 141849
imposed under Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code shall be made by 141850
every taxpayer for any taxable year for which the taxpayer is 141851
liable for the tax imposed by that section or under that chapter, 141852
unless the total credits allowed under divisions (E), (F), and (G) 141853
of section 5747.05 of the Revised Code for the year are equal to 141854
or exceed the tax imposed by section 5747.02 of the Revised Code, 141855
in which case no return shall be required unless the taxpayer is 141856
liable for a tax imposed pursuant to Chapter 5748. of the Revised 141857
Code.141858

       (A) If an individual is deceased, any return or notice 141859
required of that individual under this chapter shall be made and 141860
filed by that decedent's executor, administrator, or other person 141861
charged with the property of that decedent.141862

       (B) If an individual is unable to make a return or notice 141863
required by this chapter, the return or notice required of that 141864
individual shall be made and filed by the individual's duly 141865
authorized agent, guardian, conservator, fiduciary, or other 141866
person charged with the care of the person or property of that 141867
individual.141868

       (C) Returns or notices required of an estate or a trust shall 141869
be made and filed by the fiduciary of the estate or trust.141870

       (D)(1)(a) Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(1)(b) 141871
of this section, any pass-through entity may file a single return 141872
on behalf of one or more of the entity's investors other than an 141873
investor that is a person subject to the tax imposed under section 141874
5733.06 of the Revised Code. The single return shall set forth the 141875
name, address, and social security number or other identifying 141876
number of each of those pass-through entity investors and shall 141877
indicate the distributive share of each of those pass-through 141878
entity investor's income taxable in this state in accordance with 141879
sections 5747.20 to 5747.231 of the Revised Code. Such 141880
pass-through entity investors for whom the pass-through entity 141881
elects to file a single return are not entitled to the exemption 141882
or credit provided for by sections 5747.02 and 5747.022 of the 141883
Revised Code; shall calculate the tax before business credits at 141884
the highest rate of tax set forth in section 5747.02 of the 141885
Revised Code for the taxable year for which the return is filed; 141886
and are entitled to only their distributive share of the business 141887
credits as defined in division (D)(2) of this section. A single 141888
check drawn by the pass-through entity shall accompany the return 141889
in full payment of the tax due, as shown on the single return, for 141890
such investors, other than investors who are persons subject to 141891
the tax imposed under section 5733.06 of the Revised Code.141892

       (b)(i) A pass-through entity shall not include in such a 141893
single return any investor that is a trust to the extent that any 141894
direct or indirect current, future, or contingent beneficiary of 141895
the trust is a person subject to the tax imposed under section 141896
5733.06 of the Revised Code.141897

       (ii) A pass-through entity shall not include in such a single 141898
return any investor that is itself a pass-through entity to the 141899
extent that any direct or indirect investor in the second 141900
pass-through entity is a person subject to the tax imposed under 141901
section 5733.06 of the Revised Code.141902

       (c) Nothing in division (D) of this section precludes the tax 141903
commissioner from requiring such investors to file the return and 141904
make the payment of taxes and related interest, penalty, and 141905
interest penalty required by this section or section 5747.02, 141906
5747.09, or 5747.15 of the Revised Code. Nothing in division (D) 141907
of this section precludes such an investor from filing the annual 141908
return under this section, utilizing the refundable credit equal 141909
to the investor's proportionate share of the tax paid by the 141910
pass-through entity on behalf of the investor under division (J) 141911
of this section, and making the payment of taxes imposed under 141912
section 5747.02 of the Revised Code. Nothing in division (D) of 141913
this section shall be construed to provide to such an investor or 141914
pass-through entity any additional deduction or credit, other than 141915
the credit provided by division (J) of this section, solely on 141916
account of the entity's filing a return in accordance with this 141917
section. Such a pass-through entity also shall make the filing and 141918
payment of estimated taxes on behalf of the pass-through entity 141919
investors other than an investor that is a person subject to the 141920
tax imposed under section 5733.06 of the Revised Code.141921

       (2) For the purposes of this section, "business credits" 141922
means the credits listed in section 5747.98 of the Revised Code 141923
excluding the following credits:141924

       (a) The retirement credit under division (B) of section 141925
5747.055 of the Revised Code;141926

       (b) The senior citizen credit under division (C) of section 141927
5747.05 of the Revised Code;141928

       (c) The lump sum distribution credit under division (D) of 141929
section 5747.05 of the Revised Code;141930

       (d) The dependent care credit under section 5747.054 of the 141931
Revised Code;141932

       (e) The lump sum retirement income credit under division (C) 141933
of section 5747.055 of the Revised Code;141934

       (f) The lump sum retirement income credit under division (D) 141935
of section 5747.055 of the Revised Code;141936

       (g) The lump sum retirement income credit under division (E) 141937
of section 5747.055 of the Revised Code;141938

       (h) The credit for displaced workers who pay for job training 141939
under section 5747.27 of the Revised Code;141940

       (i) The twenty-dollar personal exemption credit under section 141941
5747.022 of the Revised Code;141942

       (j) The joint filing credit under division (G) of section 141943
5747.05 of the Revised Code;141944

       (k) The nonresident credit under division (A) of section 141945
5747.05 of the Revised Code;141946

       (l) The credit for a resident's out-of-state income under 141947
division (B) of section 5747.05 of the Revised Code;141948

       (m) The low-income credit under section 5747.056 of the 141949
Revised Code.141950

       (3) The election provided for under division (D) of this 141951
section applies only to the taxable year for which the election is 141952
made by the pass-through entity. Unless the tax commissioner 141953
provides otherwise, this election, once made, is binding and 141954
irrevocable for the taxable year for which the election is made. 141955
Nothing in this division shall be construed to provide for any 141956
deduction or credit that would not be allowable if a nonresident 141957
pass-through entity investor were to file an annual return.141958

       (4) If a pass-through entity makes the election provided for 141959
under division (D) of this section, the pass-through entity shall 141960
be liable for any additional taxes, interest, interest penalty, or 141961
penalties imposed by this chapter if the tax commissioner finds 141962
that the single return does not reflect the correct tax due by the 141963
pass-through entity investors covered by that return. Nothing in 141964
this division shall be construed to limit or alter the liability, 141965
if any, imposed on pass-through entity investors for unpaid or 141966
underpaid taxes, interest, interest penalty, or penalties as a 141967
result of the pass-through entity's making the election provided 141968
for under division (D) of this section. For the purposes of 141969
division (D) of this section, "correct tax due" means the tax that 141970
would have been paid by the pass-through entity had the single 141971
return been filed in a manner reflecting the commissioner's 141972
findings. Nothing in division (D) of this section shall be 141973
construed to make or hold a pass-through entity liable for tax 141974
attributable to a pass-through entity investor's income from a 141975
source other than the pass-through entity electing to file the 141976
single return.141977

       (E) If a husband and wife file a joint federal income tax 141978
return for a taxable year, they shall file a joint return under 141979
this section for that taxable year, and their liabilities are 141980
joint and several, but, if the federal income tax liability of 141981
either spouse is determined on a separate federal income tax 141982
return, they shall file separate returns under this section.141983

       If either spouse is not required to file a federal income tax 141984
return and either or both are required to file a return pursuant 141985
to this chapter, they may elect to file separate or joint returns, 141986
and, pursuant to that election, their liabilities are separate or 141987
joint and several. If a husband and wife file separate returns 141988
pursuant to this chapter, each must claim the taxpayer's own 141989
exemption, but not both, as authorized under section 5747.02 of 141990
the Revised Code on the taxpayer's own return.141991

       (F) Each return or notice required to be filed under this 141992
section shall contain the signature of the taxpayer or the 141993
taxpayer's duly authorized agent and of the person who prepared 141994
the return for the taxpayer, and shall include the taxpayer's 141995
social security number. Each return shall be verified by a 141996
declaration under the penalties of perjury. The tax commissioner 141997
shall prescribe the form that the signature and declaration shall 141998
take.141999

       (G) Each return or notice required to be filed under this 142000
section shall be made and filed as required by section 5747.04 of 142001
the Revised Code, on or before the fifteenth day of April of each 142002
year, on forms that the tax commissioner shall prescribe, together 142003
with remittance made payable to the treasurer of state in the 142004
combined amount of the state and all school district income taxes 142005
shown to be due on the form, unless the combined amount shown to 142006
be due is one dollar or less, in which case that amount need not 142007
be remitted.142008

       Upon good cause shown, the commissioner may extend the period 142009
for filing any notice or return required to be filed under this 142010
section and may adopt rules relating to extensions. If the 142011
extension results in an extension of time for the payment of any 142012
state or school district income tax liability with respect to 142013
which the return is filed, the taxpayer shall pay at the time the 142014
tax liability is paid an amount of interest computed at the rate 142015
per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code on 142016
that liability from the time that payment is due without extension 142017
to the time of actual payment. Except as provided in section 142018
5747.132 of the Revised Code, in addition to all other interest 142019
charges and penalties, all taxes imposed under this chapter or 142020
Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code and remaining unpaid after they 142021
become due, except combined amounts due of one dollar or less, 142022
bear interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 142023
of the Revised Code until paid or until the day an assessment is 142024
issued under section 5747.13 of the Revised Code, whichever occurs 142025
first.142026

       If the commissioner considers it necessary in order to ensure 142027
the payment of the tax imposed by section 5747.02 of the Revised 142028
Code or any tax imposed under Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code, 142029
the commissioner may require returns and payments to be made 142030
otherwise than as provided in this section.142031

       To the extent that any provision in this division conflicts 142032
with any provision in section 5747.026 of the Revised Code, the 142033
provision in that section prevails.142034

       (H) If any report, claim, statement, or other document 142035
required to be filed, or any payment required to be made, within a 142036
prescribed period or on or before a prescribed date under this 142037
chapter is delivered after that period or that date by United 142038
States mail to the agency, officer, or office with which the 142039
report, claim, statement, or other document is required to be 142040
filed, or to which the payment is required to be made, the date of 142041
the postmark stamped on the cover in which the report, claim, 142042
statement, or other document, or payment is mailed shall be deemed 142043
to be the date of delivery or the date of payment.142044

       If a payment is required to be made by electronic funds 142045
transfer pursuant to section 5747.072 of the Revised Code, the 142046
payment is considered to be made when the payment is received by 142047
the treasurer of state or credited to an account designated by the 142048
treasurer of state for the receipt of tax payments.142049

       "The date of the postmark" means, in the event there is more 142050
than one date on the cover, the earliest date imprinted on the 142051
cover by the United States postal service.142052

       (I) The amounts withheld by an employer pursuant to section 142053
5747.06 of the Revised Code, a casino operator pursuant to section 142054
5747.063 of the Revised Code, or a lottery sales agent pursuant to 142055
section 5747.064 of the Revised Code shall be allowed to the 142056
recipient of the compensation casino winnings, or lottery prize 142057
award as credits against payment of the appropriate taxes imposed 142058
on the recipient by section 5747.02 and under Chapter 5748. of the 142059
Revised Code.142060

       (J) If, in accordance with division (D) of this section, a 142061
pass-through entity elects to file a single return under division 142062
(D) of this section and if any investor is required to file the 142063
annual return and make the payment of taxes required by this 142064
chapter on account of the investor's other income that is not 142065
included in a single return filed by a pass-through entity or any 142066
other investor elects to file the annual return, the investor is 142067
entitled to a refundable credit equal to the investor's 142068
proportionate share of the tax paid by the pass-through entity on 142069
behalf of the investor. The investor shall claim the credit for 142070
the investor's taxable year in which or with which ends the 142071
taxable year of the pass-through entity. Nothing in this chapter 142072
shall be construed to allow any credit provided in this chapter to 142073
be claimed more than once. For the purposespurpose of computing 142074
any interest, penalty, or interest penalty, the investor shall be 142075
deemed to have paid the refundable credit provided by this 142076
division on the day that the pass-through entity paid the 142077
estimated tax or the tax giving rise to the credit.142078

       (K) The tax commissioner shall ensure that each return 142079
required to be filed under this section includes a box that the 142080
taxpayer may check to authorize a paid tax preparer who prepared 142081
the return to communicate with the department of taxation about 142082
matters pertaining to the return. The return or instructions 142083
accompanying the return shall indicate that by checking the box 142084
the taxpayer authorizes the department of taxation to contact the 142085
preparer concerning questions that arise during the processing of 142086
the return and authorizes the preparer only to provide the 142087
department with information that is missing from the return, to 142088
contact the department for information about the processing of the 142089
return or the status of the taxpayer's refund or payments, and to 142090
respond to notices about mathematical errors, offsets, or return 142091
preparation that the taxpayer has received from the department and 142092
has shown to the preparer.142093

       (L) The tax commissioner shall permit individual taxpayers to 142094
instruct the department of taxation to cause any refund of 142095
overpaid taxes to be deposited directly into a checking account, 142096
savings account, or an individual retirement account or individual 142097
retirement annuity, or preexisting college savings plan or program 142098
account offered by the Ohio tuition trust authority under Chapter 142099
3334. of the Revised Code, as designated by the taxpayer, when the 142100
taxpayer files the annual return required by this section 142101
electronically.142102

       (M) The tax commissioner may adopt rules to administer this 142103
section.142104

       Sec. 5747.10.  If any of the facts, figures, computations, or 142105
attachments required in a taxpayer's annual return to determine 142106
the tax charged by this chapter or Chapter 5748. of the Revised 142107
Code must be altered as the result of an adjustment to the 142108
taxpayer's federal income tax return, whether initiated by the 142109
taxpayer or the internal revenue service, and such alteration 142110
affects the taxpayer's tax liability under this chapter or Chapter 142111
5748. of the Revised Code, the taxpayer shall file an amended 142112
return with the tax commissioner in such form as the commissioner 142113
requires. The amended return shall be filed not later than sixty 142114
days after the adjustment has been agreed to or finally determined 142115
for federal income tax purposes or any federal income tax 142116
deficiency or refund, or the abatement or credit resulting 142117
therefrom, has been assessed or paid, whichever occurs first.142118

       (A) In the case of an underpayment, the amended return shall 142119
be accompanied by payment of any combined additional tax due 142120
together with interest thereon. If the combined tax shown to be 142121
due is one dollar or less, such amount need not accompany the 142122
amended return. An amended return required by this section is a 142123
return subject to assessment under section 5747.13 of the Revised 142124
Code for the purpose of assessing any additional tax due under 142125
this section, together with any applicable penalty and interest. 142126
It shall not reopen those facts, figures, computations, or 142127
attachments from a previously filed return no longer subject to 142128
assessment that are not affected, either directly or indirectly, 142129
by the adjustment to the taxpayer's federal income tax return.142130

       (B) In the case of an overpayment, an application for refund 142131
may be filed under this division within the sixty-day period 142132
prescribed for filing the amended return even if it is filed 142133
beyond the period prescribed in section 5747.11 of the Revised 142134
Code if it otherwise conforms to the requirements of such section. 142135
An application filed under this division shall claim refund of 142136
overpayments resulting from alterations to only those facts, 142137
figures, computations, or attachments required in the taxpayer's 142138
annual return that are affected, either directly or indirectly, by 142139
the adjustment to the taxpayer's federal income tax return unless 142140
it is also filed within the time prescribed in section 5747.11 of 142141
the Revised Code. It shall not reopen those facts, figures, 142142
computations, or attachments that are not affected, either 142143
directly or indirectly, by the adjustment to the taxpayer's 142144
federal income tax return.142145

       Sec. 5747.11.  (A) The tax commissioner shall refund to 142146
employers, qualifying entities, or taxpayers, with respect to any142147
subject to a tax imposed under section 5733.41, 5747.02, or 142148
5747.41, or Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code:142149

       (1) Overpayments of more than one dollar;142150

       (2) Amounts in excess of one dollar paid illegally or 142151
erroneously;142152

       (3) Amounts in excess of one dollar paid on an illegal, 142153
erroneous, or excessive assessmentthe amount of any overpayment 142154
of such tax.142155

       (B) Except as otherwise provided under divisions (D) and (E) 142156
of this section, applications for refund shall be filed with the 142157
tax commissioner, on the form prescribed by the commissioner, 142158
within four years from the date of the illegal, erroneous, or 142159
excessive payment of the tax, or within any additional period 142160
allowed by division (B)(3)(b) of section 5747.05, division (B) of 142161
section 5747.10, division (A) of section 5747.13, or division (C) 142162
of section 5747.45 of the Revised Code.142163

       On filing of the refund application, the commissioner shall 142164
determine the amount of refund due and, if that amount exceeds one 142165
dollar, certify such amount to the director of budget and 142166
management and treasurer of state for payment from the tax refund 142167
fund created by section 5703.052 of the Revised Code. Payment 142168
shall be made as provided in division (C) of section 126.35 of the 142169
Revised Code.142170

       (C)(1) Interest shall be allowed and paid upon any illegal or 142171
erroneous assessment in excess of one dollar in respect of the tax 142172
imposed under section 5747.02 or Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code 142173
at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised 142174
Code from the date of the payment of the illegal or erroneous 142175
assessment until the date the refund of such amount is paid. If 142176
such refund results from the filing of a return or report, or the 142177
payment accompanying such return or report, by an employer or 142178
taxpayer, rather than from an assessment by the commissioner, such 142179
interest shall run from a period ninety days after the final 142180
filing date of the annual return until the date the refund is 142181
paid.142182

       (2) Interest shall be allowed and paid at the rate per annum 142183
prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code upon any 142184
overpayment in excess of one dollar in respect ofon amounts 142185
refunded with respect to the tax imposed under section 5747.02 or 142186
Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code from the date of the overpayment 142187
until the date of the refund of the overpayment, except that if 142188
any overpayment is refunded within ninety days after the final 142189
filing date of the annual return or ninety days after the return 142190
is filed, whichever is later, no interest shall be allowed on such 142191
overpayment. If the overpayment results from the carryback of a 142192
net operating loss or net capital loss to a previous taxable year, 142193
the overpayment is deemed not to have been made prior to the 142194
filing date, including any extension thereof, for the taxable year 142195
in which the net operating loss or net capital loss arises. For 142196
purposes of the payment of interest on overpayments, no amount of 142197
tax, for any taxable year, shall be treated as having been paid 142198
before the date on which the tax return for that year was due 142199
without regard to any extension of time for filing such return.142200

       (3)(2) Interest shall be allowed at the rate per annum 142201
prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code on amounts 142202
refunded with respect to the taxes imposed under sections 5733.41 142203
and 5747.41 of the Revised Code. The interest shall run from 142204
whichever of the following days is the latest until the day the 142205
refund is paid: the day the illegal, erroneous, or excessive 142206
payment was made; the ninetieth day after the final day the annual 142207
report was required to be filed under section 5747.42 of the 142208
Revised Code; or the ninetieth day after the day that report was 142209
filed.142210

       (D) "Ninety days" shall be substituted for "four years" in 142211
division (B) of this section if the taxpayer satisfies both of the 142212
following conditions:142213

       (1) The taxpayer has applied for a refund based in whole or 142214
in part upon section 5747.059 of the Revised Code;142215

       (2) The taxpayer asserts that either the imposition or 142216
collection of the tax imposed or charged by this chapter or any 142217
portion of such tax violates the Constitution of the United States 142218
or the Constitution of Ohio.142219

       (E)(1) Division (E)(2) of this section applies only if all of 142220
the following conditions are satisfied:142221

       (a) A qualifying entity pays an amount of the tax imposed by 142222
section 5733.41 or 5747.41 of the Revised Code;142223

       (b) The taxpayer is a qualifying investor as to that 142224
qualifying entity;142225

       (c) The taxpayer did not claim the credit provided for in 142226
section 5747.059 of the Revised Code as to the tax described in 142227
division (E)(1)(a) of this section;142228

       (d) The four-year period described in division (B) of this 142229
section has ended as to the taxable year for which the taxpayer 142230
otherwise would have claimed that credit.142231

       (2) A taxpayer shall file an application for refund pursuant 142232
to division (E) of this section within one year after the date the 142233
payment described in division (E)(1)(a) of this section is made. 142234
An application filed under division (E)(2) of this section shall 142235
claim refund only of overpayments resulting from the taxpayer's 142236
failure to claim the credit described in division (E)(1)(c) of 142237
this section. Nothing in division (E) of this section shall be 142238
construed to relieve a taxpayer from complying with division 142239
(A)(16) of section 5747.01 of the Revised Code.142240

       Sec. 5747.113. (A) Any taxpayer claiming a refund under 142241
section 5747.11 of the Revised Code who wishes to contribute any 142242
part of the taxpayer's refund to the natural areas and preserves 142243
fund created in section 1517.11 of the Revised Code, the nongame 142244
and endangered wildlife fund created in section 1531.26 of the 142245
Revised Code, the military injury relief fund created in section 142246
5101.98 of the Revised Code, the Ohio historical society income 142247
tax contribution fund created in section 149.308 of the Revised 142248
Code, or all of those funds may designate on the taxpayer's income 142249
tax return the amount that the taxpayer wishes to contribute to 142250
the fund or funds. A designated contribution is irrevocable upon 142251
the filing of the return and shall be made in the full amount 142252
designated if the refund found due the taxpayer upon the initial 142253
processing of the taxpayer's return, after any deductions 142254
including those required by section 5747.12 of the Revised Code, 142255
is greater than or equal to the designated contribution. If the 142256
refund due as initially determined is less than the designated 142257
contribution, the contribution shall be made in the full amount of 142258
the refund. The tax commissioner shall subtract the amount of the 142259
contribution from the amount of the refund initially found due the 142260
taxpayer and shall certify the difference to the director of 142261
budget and management and treasurer of state for payment to the 142262
taxpayer in accordance with section 5747.11 of the Revised Code. 142263
For the purpose of any subsequent determination of the taxpayer's 142264
net tax payment, the contribution shall be considered a part of 142265
the refund paid to the taxpayer.142266

       (B) The tax commissioner shall provide a space on the income 142267
tax return form in which a taxpayer may indicate that the taxpayer 142268
wishes to make a donation in accordance with this section. The tax 142269
commissioner shall also print in the instructions accompanying the 142270
income tax return form a description of the purposes for which the 142271
natural areas and preserves fund, the nongame and endangered 142272
wildlife fund, the military injury relief fund, and the Ohio 142273
historical society income tax contribution fund were created and 142274
the use of moneys from the income tax refund contribution system 142275
established in this section. No person shall designate on the 142276
person's income tax return any part of a refund claimed under 142277
section 5747.11 of the Revised Code as a contribution to any fund 142278
other than the natural areas and preserves fund, the nongame and 142279
endangered wildlife fund, the military injury relief fund, or the 142280
Ohio historical society income tax contribution fund.142281

       (C) The money collected under the income tax refund 142282
contribution system established in this section shall be deposited 142283
by the tax commissioner into the natural areas and preserves fund, 142284
the nongame and endangered wildlife fund, the military injury 142285
relief fund, and the Ohio historical society income tax 142286
contribution fund in the amounts designated on the tax returns.142287

       (D) No later than the thirtieth day of September each year, 142288
the tax commissioner shall determine the total amount contributed 142289
to each fund under this section during the preceding eight months, 142290
any adjustments to prior months, and the cost to the department of 142291
taxation of administering the income tax refund contribution 142292
system during that eight-month period. The commissioner shall make 142293
an additional determination no later than the thirty-first day of 142294
January of each year of the total amount contributed to each fund 142295
under this section during the preceding four calendar months, any 142296
adjustments to prior years made during that four-month period, and 142297
the cost to the department of taxation of administering the income 142298
tax contribution system during that period. The cost of 142299
administering the income tax contribution system shall be 142300
certified by the tax commissioner to the director of budget and 142301
management, who shall transfer an amount equal to one-fourth of 142302
such administrative costs from the natural areas and preserves 142303
fund, one-fourth of such costs from the nongame and endangered 142304
wildlife fund, one-fourth of such costs from the military injury 142305
relief fund, and one-fourth of such costs from the Ohio historical 142306
society income tax contribution fund to the litter control and 142307
natural resourceincome tax administrationcontribution fund, 142308
which is hereby created, provided that the moneys that the 142309
department receives to pay the cost of administering the income 142310
tax refund contribution system in any year shall not exceed two 142311
and one-half per cent of the total amount contributed under that 142312
system during that year.142313

       (E)(1) The director of natural resources, in January of every 142314
odd-numbered year, shall report to the general assembly on the 142315
effectiveness of the income tax refund contribution system as it 142316
pertains to the natural areas and preserves fund and the nongame 142317
and endangered wildlife fund. The report shall include the amount 142318
of money contributed to each fund in each of the previous five 142319
years, the amount of money contributed directly to each fund in 142320
addition to or independently of the income tax refund contribution 142321
system in each of the previous five years, and the purposes for 142322
which the money was expended.142323

       (2) The director of job and family services and the director 142324
of the Ohio historical society, in January of every odd-numbered 142325
year, each shall report to the general assembly on the 142326
effectiveness of the income tax refund contribution system as it 142327
pertains to the military injury relief fund and the Ohio 142328
historical society income tax contribution fund, respectively. The 142329
report shall include the amount of money contributed to the fund 142330
in each of the previous five years, the amount of money 142331
contributed directly to the fund in addition to or independently 142332
of the income tax refund contribution system in each of the 142333
previous five years, and the purposes for which the money was 142334
expended.142335

       Sec. 5747.122.  (A) The tax commissioner, in accordance with 142336
section 5101.184 of the Revised Code, shall cooperate with the 142337
director of job and family services to collect overpayments of 142338
assistance under Chapter 5107., 5111., or 5115., former Chapter 142339
5113., or section 5101.54 of the Revised Code from refunds of 142340
state income taxes for taxable year 1992 and thereafter that are 142341
payable to the recipients of such overpayments.142342

       (B) At the request of the department of job and family 142343
services in connection with the collection of an overpayment of 142344
assistance from a refund of state income taxes pursuant to this 142345
section and section 5101.184 of the Revised Code, the tax 142346
commissioner shall release to the department the home address and 142347
social security number of any recipient of assistance whose 142348
overpayment may be collected from a refund of state income taxes 142349
under those sections.142350

       (C) In the case of a joint income tax return for two people 142351
who were not married to each other at the time one of them 142352
received an overpayment of assistance, only the portion of a 142353
refund that is due to the recipient of the overpayment shall be 142354
available for collection of the overpayment under this section and 142355
section 5101.184 of the Revised Code. The tax commissioner shall 142356
determine such portion. A recipient's spouse who objects to the 142357
portion as determined by the commissioner may file a complaint 142358
with the commissioner within twenty-one days after receiving 142359
notice of the collection, and the commissioner shall afford the 142360
spouse an opportunity to be heard on the complaint. The 142361
commissioner shall waive or extend the twenty-one-day period if 142362
the recipient's spouse establishes that such action is necessary 142363
to avoid unjust, unfair, or unreasonable results. After the 142364
hearing, the commissioner shall make a final determination of the 142365
portion of the refund available for collection of the overpayment.142366

       (D) The welfare overpayment intercept fund is hereby created 142367
in the state treasury. The tax commissioner shall deposit amounts 142368
collected from income tax refunds under this section to the credit 142369
of the welfare overpayment intercept fund. The director of job and 142370
family services shall distribute money in the fund in accordance 142371
with appropriate federal or state laws and procedures regarding 142372
collection of welfare overpayments.142373

       Sec. 5747.13.  (A) If any employer collects the tax imposed 142374
by section 5747.02 or under Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code and 142375
fails to remit the tax as required by law, or fails to collect the 142376
tax, the employer is personally liable for any amount collected 142377
that the employer fails to remit, or any amount that the employer 142378
fails to collect. If any taxpayer fails to file a return or fails 142379
to pay the tax imposed by section 5747.02 or under Chapter 5748. 142380
of the Revised Code, the taxpayer is personally liable for the 142381
amount of the tax.142382

       If any employer, taxpayer, or qualifying entity required to 142383
file a return under this chapter fails to file the return within 142384
the time prescribed, files an incorrect return, fails to remit the 142385
full amount of the taxes due for the period covered by the return, 142386
or fails to remit any additional tax due as a result of a 142387
reduction in the amount of the credit allowed under division (B) 142388
of section 5747.05 of the Revised Code together with interest on 142389
the additional tax within the time prescribed by that division, 142390
the tax commissioner may make an assessment against any person 142391
liable for any deficiency for the period for which the return is 142392
or taxes are due, based upon any information in the commissioner's 142393
possession.142394

       An assessment issued against either the employer or the 142395
taxpayer pursuant to this section shall not be considered an 142396
election of remedies or a bar to an assessment against the other 142397
for failure to report or pay the same tax. No assessment shall be 142398
issued against any person if the tax actually has been paid by 142399
another.142400

       No assessment shall be made or issued against an employer, 142401
taxpayer, or qualifying entity more than four years after the 142402
final date the return subject to assessment was required to be 142403
filed or the date the return was filed, whichever is later. 142404
However, the commissioner may assess any balance due as the result 142405
of a reduction in the credit allowed under division (B) of section 142406
5747.05 of the Revised Code, including applicable penalty and 142407
interest, within four years of the date on which the taxpayer 142408
reports a change in either the portion of the taxpayer's adjusted 142409
gross income subjected to an income tax or tax measured by income 142410
in another state or the District of Columbia, or the amount of 142411
liability for an income tax or tax measured by income to another 142412
state or the District of Columbia, as required by division (B)(3) 142413
of section 5747.05 of the Revised Code. Such time limits may be 142414
extended if both the employer, taxpayer, or qualifying entity and 142415
the commissioner consent in writing to the extension or if an 142416
agreement waiving or extending the time limits has been entered 142417
into pursuant to section 122.171 of the Revised Code. Any such 142418
extension shall extend the four-year time limit in division (B) of 142419
section 5747.11 of the Revised Code for the same period of time. 142420
There shall be no bar or limit to an assessment against an 142421
employer for taxes withheld from employees and not remitted to the 142422
state, against an employer, taxpayer, or qualifying entity that 142423
fails to file a return subject to assessment as required by this 142424
chapter, or against an employer, taxpayer, or qualifying entity 142425
that files a fraudulent return.142426

       The commissioner shall give the party assessed written notice 142427
of the assessment in the manner provided in section 5703.37 of the 142428
Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner shall provide 142429
instructions on how to petition for reassessment and request a 142430
hearing on the petition.142431

       (B) Unless the party assessed files with the tax commissioner 142432
within sixty days after service of the notice of assessment, 142433
either personally or by certified mail, a written petition for 142434
reassessment, signed by the party assessed or that party's 142435
authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the assessment 142436
becomes final, and the amount of the assessment is due and payable 142437
from the party assessed to the commissioner with remittance made 142438
payable to the treasurer of state. The petition shall indicate the 142439
objections of the party assessed, but additional objections may be 142440
raised in writing if received by the commissioner prior to the 142441
date shown on the final determination. If the petition has been 142442
properly filed, the commissioner shall proceed under section 142443
5703.60 of the Revised Code.142444

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 142445
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 142446
copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the assessment final 142447
may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common 142448
pleas in the county in which the employer's, taxpayer's, or 142449
qualifying entity's place of business is located or the county in 142450
which the party assessed resides. If the party assessed is not a 142451
resident of this state, the certified copy of the entry may be 142452
filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common pleas of 142453
Franklin county.142454

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 142455
enter a judgment against the party assessed in the amount shown on 142456
the entry. The judgment shall be filed by the clerk in one of two 142457
loose-leaf books, one entitled "special judgments for state and 142458
school district income taxes," and the other entitled "special 142459
judgments for qualifying entity taxes." The judgment shall have 142460
the same effect as other judgments. Execution shall issue upon the 142461
judgment upon the request of the tax commissioner, and all laws 142462
applicable to sales on execution shall apply to sales made under 142463
the judgment.142464

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety142465
within sixty days after the assessment was issued, the portion of 142466
the assessment consisting of tax due shall bear interest at the 142467
rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code 142468
from the day the tax commissioner issues the assessment until it 142469
is paid or until it is certified to the attorney general for 142470
collection under section 131.02 of the Revised Code, whichever 142471
comes first. If the unpaid portion of the assessment is certified 142472
to the attorney general for collection, the entire unpaid portion 142473
of the assessment shall bear interest at the rate per annum 142474
prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code from the date of 142475
certification until the date it is paid in its entirety. Interest 142476
shall be paid in the same manner as the tax and may be collected 142477
by the issuance of an assessment under this section.142478

       (D) All money collected under this section shall be 142479
considered as revenue arising from the taxes imposed by this 142480
chapter or Chapter 5733. or 5748. of the Revised Code, as 142481
appropriate.142482

       (E) If the party assessed files a petition for reassessment 142483
under division (B) of this section, the person, on or before the 142484
last day the petition may be filed, shall pay the assessed amount, 142485
including assessed interest and assessed penalties, if any of the 142486
following conditions exists:142487

       (1) The person files a tax return reporting Ohio adjusted 142488
gross income, less the exemptions allowed by section 5747.025 of 142489
the Revised Code, in an amount less than one cent, and the 142490
reported amount is not based on the computations required under 142491
division (A) of section 5747.01 or section 5747.025 of the Revised 142492
Code.142493

       (2) The person files a tax return that the tax commissioner 142494
determines to be incomplete, false, fraudulent, or frivolous.142495

        (3) The person fails to file a tax return, and the basis for 142496
this failure is not either of the following:142497

        (a) An assertion that the person has no nexus with this 142498
state;142499

        (b) The computations required under division (A) of section 142500
5747.01 of the Revised Code or the application of credits allowed 142501
under this chapter has the result that the person's tax liability 142502
is less than one dollar and one cent.142503

       (F) Notwithstanding the fact that a petition for reassessment 142504
is pending, the petitioner may pay all or a portion of the 142505
assessment that is the subject of the petition. The acceptance of 142506
a payment by the treasurer of state does not prejudice any claim 142507
for refund upon final determination of the petition.142508

       If upon final determination of the petition an error in the 142509
assessment is corrected by the tax commissioner, upon petition so 142510
filed or pursuant to a decision of the board of tax appeals or any 142511
court to which the determination or decision has been appealed, so 142512
that the amount due from the party assessed under the corrected 142513
assessment is less than the portion paid, there shall be issued to 142514
the petitioner or to the petitioner's assigns or legal 142515
representative a refund in the amount of the overpayment as 142516
provided by section 5747.11 of the Revised Code, with interest on 142517
that amount as provided by such section, subject to section 142518
5747.12 of the Revised Code.142519

       Sec. 5747.21. (A) This section applies solely for the 142520
purposes of computing the credit allowed under division (A) of 142521
section 5747.05 of the Revised Code, computing income taxable in 142522
this state under division (D) of section 5747.08 of the Revised 142523
Code, computing the deduction under division (A)(32) of section 142524
5747.01 of the Revised Code, and computing the credit allowed 142525
under section 5747.057 of the Revised Code.142526

       (B) Except as otherwise provided under sections 5747.211 and142527
section 5747.212 of the Revised Code, all items of business income 142528
and business deduction shall be apportioned to this state by 142529
multiplying the adjusted gross income by the fraction calculated 142530
under division (B)(2) of section 5733.05 and section 5733.057 of 142531
the Revised Code as if the taxpayer's business were a corporation 142532
subject to the tax imposed by section 5733.06 of the Revised Code.142533

       (C) If the allocation and apportionment provisions of 142534
sections 5747.20 to 5747.23 of the Revised Code or of any rule 142535
adopted by the tax commissioner, do not fairly represent the 142536
extent of business activity in this state of a taxpayer or 142537
pass-through entity, the taxpayer or pass-through entity may 142538
request, which request must be in writing accompanying thea 142539
timely filed return or timely filed amended return, or the tax 142540
commissioner may require, in respect of all or any part of the 142541
business activity, if reasonable, any one or more of the 142542
following:142543

       (1) Separate accounting;142544

       (2) The exclusion of one or more factors;142545

       (3) The inclusion of one or more additional factors which 142546
will fairly represent the business activity in this state;142547

       (4) The employment of any other method to effectuate an 142548
equitable allocation and apportionment of such business in this 142549
state. An alternative method will be effective only with approval 142550
of the tax commissioner.142551

       The tax commissioner may adopt rules in the manner provided 142552
by sections 5703.14 and 5747.18 of the Revised Code providing for 142553
alternative methods of calculating business income and nonbusiness 142554
income applicable to all taxpayers and pass-through entities, to 142555
classes of taxpayers and pass-through entities, or only to 142556
taxpayers and pass-through entities within a certain industry.142557

       Sec. 5747.22.  (A) This section applies solely for the 142558
purposes of computing the credit allowed under division (A) of 142559
section 5747.05 of the Revised Code and, computing income taxable 142560
in this state under division (D) of section 5747.08, and computing 142561
the deduction under division (A)(32) of section 5747.01 of the 142562
Revised Code.142563

       (B) With respect to a pass-through entity, one or more of the 142564
pass-through entity investors of which are liable for the tax 142565
imposed by section 5747.02 of the Revised Code, the business 142566
income and deductions included in the adjusted gross income of the 142567
pass-through entity shall be apportioned to this state in the 142568
hands of the pass-through entity investors pursuant to section 142569
5747.21 of the Revised Code. The business income and deductions as 142570
thus apportioned to this state then shall be allocated to the 142571
pass-through entity investors in proportion to their right to 142572
share in that business income.142573

       (C) With respect to a pass-through entity described in 142574
division (B) of this section, the nonbusiness income and 142575
deductions included in the adjusted gross income of the 142576
pass-through entity shall be allocated to the pass-through entity 142577
investors in proportion to their right to share in the nonbusiness 142578
income, and then the pass-through entity shares shall be allocated 142579
to this state in the hands of each pass-through entity investor 142580
pursuant to section 5747.20 of the Revised Code.142581

       Sec. 5747.47. (A)(1) By the twentiethtwenty-fifth day of 142582
July of each year, the tax commissioner shall estimate and certify 142583
the following for each county to its county auditor:142584

       (a) Its guaranteed share of the ensuing year's fund balance;142585

       (b) Its share of the excess of the ensuing year's fund 142586
balance;142587

       (c) Its total entitlement.142588

       (2) In December and in June following such estimations and 142589
certifications, the commissioner shall revise such estimates and 142590
certify such revised estimates to the respective county auditors.142591

       (B) By the tenth day of each month the commissioner shall 142592
distribute the amount credited to the public library fund in the 142593
current month under section 131.51 of the Revised Code. The 142594
distributions shall be made as follows:142595

       (1) During the first six months of each year, each county 142596
shall be paid a percentage of the balance that is the same per 142597
cent that the revised estimate of the county's total entitlement 142598
certified in December under division (A)(2) of this section is of 142599
the sum of such revised estimates of the total entitlements for 142600
all counties.142601

       (2) During the last six months, each county shall be paid a 142602
percentage of the balance that is the same per cent that the 142603
revised estimate of the county's total entitlement certified in 142604
June under division (A)(2) of this section is of the sum of such 142605
revised estimates of the total entitlements for all counties.142606

       (3) During each of the first six months of each year, the 142607
payments made to each county shall be adjusted as follows:142608

       (a) If the county received an overpayment during the 142609
preceding distribution year, reduce the sum of the payments by the 142610
amount of such overpayment. The reduction shall be apportioned 142611
over the six months.142612

       (b) If the county received an underpayment during the 142613
preceding distribution year, increase the sum of the payments by 142614
the amount of such underpayment. The increase shall be apportioned 142615
over the six months.142616

       (C) By the twentieth day of December of each year, the tax 142617
commissioner shall determine and certify to the auditor of each 142618
county each of the following with respect to the current 142619
distribution year:142620

       (1) The year's fund balance;142621

       (2) Each county's guaranteed share;142622

       (3) Each county's share of the excess;142623

       (4) Each county's total entitlement;142624

       (5) Each county's net distribution;142625

       (6) The amount by which each county's net distribution 142626
exceeded or was less than its total entitlement, which amount 142627
shall constitute the county's overpayment or underpayment for 142628
purposes of division (B)(3) of this section in the ensuing 142629
distribution year.142630

       Sec. 5747.501.  (A) On or before the twenty-fifth day of July 142631
of each year, the tax commissioner shall estimate and certify to 142632
each county auditor the amount to be distributed from the local 142633
government fund to each undivided local government fund during the 142634
following calendar year under section 5747.50 of the Revised Code. 142635
The estimate shall equal the sum of the separate amounts computed 142636
under divisions (B)(1) and (2) of this section.142637

       (B)(1) The product obtained by multiplying the percentage 142638
described in division (B)(1)(a) of this section by the amount 142639
described in division (B)(1)(b) of this section.142640

       (a) Each county's proportionate share of the total amount 142641
distributed to the counties from the local government fund and the 142642
local government revenue assistance fund during calendar year 142643
2007. In fiscal year 2014 and thereafter, the amount distributed 142644
to any county undivided local government fund shall be an amount 142645
not less than seven hundred fifty thousand dollars or the amount 142646
distributed to such fund in fiscal year 2013, whichever amount is 142647
smaller. To the extent necessary to implement this minimum 142648
distribution requirement, the proportionate shares computed under 142649
this division shall be adjusted accordingly.142650

       (b) The total amount distributed to counties from the local 142651
government fund and the local government revenue assistance fund 142652
during calendar year 2007 adjusted downward if, and to the extent 142653
that, total local government fund distributions to counties for 142654
the following year are projected to be less than what was 142655
distributed to counties from the local government fund and local 142656
government revenue assistance fund during calendar year 2007.142657

       (2) The product obtained by multiplying the percentage 142658
described in division (B)(2)(a) of this section by the amount 142659
described in division (B)(2)(b) of this section.142660

       (a) Each county's proportionate share of the state's 142661
population as reflected in the most recent federal decennial 142662
census or the federal government's most recent census estimates, 142663
whichever represents the most recent year.142664

       (b) The amount by which total estimated distributions from 142665
the local government fund during the immediately succeeding 142666
calendar year, less the total estimated amount to be distributed 142667
from the fund to municipal corporations under division (C) of 142668
section 5747.50 of the Revised Code during the immediately 142669
succeeding calendar year, exceed the total amount distributed to 142670
counties from the local government fund and local government 142671
revenue assistance fund during calendar year 2007.142672

       Sec. 5747.76. (A) As used in this section, "certificate 142673
owner" has the same meaning as in section 149.311 of the Revised 142674
Code.142675

       (B) There is allowed a credit against the tax imposed under 142676
section 5747.02 of the Revised Code for a taxpayer that is the 142677
certificate owner of a rehabilitation tax credit certificate 142678
issued under section 149.311 of the Revised Code. The credit shall 142679
equal twenty-five per cent of the dollar amount indicated on the 142680
certificate, but the amount of credit allowed for any taxpayer 142681
shall not exceed fiveten million dollars. The credit shall be 142682
claimed for the taxable year specified in the certificate and in 142683
the order required under section 5747.98 of the Revised Code. 142684

       (C) Nothing in this section limits or disallows pass-through 142685
treatment of the credit if the certificate owner is a pass-through 142686
entity. If the certificate owner is a pass-through entity, the 142687
amount of the credit allowed for the pass-through entity shall not 142688
exceed five million dollars. If the certificate owner is a 142689
pass-through entity, the credit may be allocated among the 142690
entity's equity owners in proportion to their ownership interests 142691
or in such proportions or amounts as the equity owners mutually 142692
agree.142693

       (D) If the credit allowed for any taxable year exceeds the 142694
tax otherwise due under section 5747.02 of the Revised Code, after 142695
allowing for any other credits preceding the credit in the order 142696
prescribed by section 5747.98 of the Revised Code, the excess 142697
shall be refunded to the taxpayer but, if any amount of the credit 142698
is refunded, the sum of the amount refunded and the amount applied 142699
to reduce the tax otherwise due for that year shall not exceed 142700
three million dollars or, if the certificate owner is a 142701
pass-through entity, shall not exceed the taxpayer's distributive 142702
or proportionate share, as allocated under division (C) of this 142703
section, of three million dollars. The taxpayer may carry forward 142704
any balance of the credit in excess of the amount claimed for that 142705
year for not more than five ensuing taxable years, and shall 142706
deduct any amount claimed for any such year from the amount 142707
claimed in an ensuing year.142708

       (E) A taxpayer claiming a credit under this section shall 142709
retain the rehabilitation tax credit certificate for four years 142710
following the end of the taxable year to which the credit was 142711
applied, and shall make the certificate available for inspection 142712
by the tax commissioner upon the request of the tax commissioner 142713
during that period.142714

       Sec. 5747.98.  (A) To provide a uniform procedure for 142715
calculating the amount of tax due under section 5747.02 of the 142716
Revised Code, a taxpayer shall claim any credits to which the 142717
taxpayer is entitled in the following order:142718

       (1) The retirement income credit under division (B) of 142719
section 5747.055 of the Revised Code;142720

       (2) The senior citizen credit under division (C) of section 142721
5747.05 of the Revised Code;142722

       (3) The lump sum distribution credit under division (D) of 142723
section 5747.05 of the Revised Code;142724

       (4) The dependent care credit under section 5747.054 of the 142725
Revised Code;142726

       (5) The lump sum retirement income credit under division (C) 142727
of section 5747.055 of the Revised Code;142728

       (6) The lump sum retirement income credit under division (D) 142729
of section 5747.055 of the Revised Code;142730

       (7) The lump sum retirement income credit under division (E) 142731
of section 5747.055 of the Revised Code;142732

       (8) The low-income credit under section 5747.056 of the 142733
Revised Code;142734

       (9) The credit for displaced workers who pay for job training 142735
under section 5747.27 of the Revised Code;142736

       (10) The campaign contribution credit under section 5747.29 142737
of the Revised Code;142738

       (11) The twenty-dollar personal exemption credit under 142739
section 5747.022 of the Revised Code;142740

       (12) The joint filing credit under division (G) of section 142741
5747.05 of the Revised Code;142742

       (13) The nonresident credit under division (A) of section 142743
5747.05 of the Revised Code;142744

       (14) The credit for a resident's out-of-state income under 142745
division (B) of section 5747.05 of the Revised Code;142746

       (15) The credit for employers that enter into agreements with 142747
child day-care centers under section 5747.34 of the Revised Code;142748

       (16) The credit for employers that reimburse employee child 142749
care expenses under section 5747.36 of the Revised Code;142750

       (17) The credit for adoption of a minor child under section 142751
5747.37 of the Revised Code;142752

       (18) The credit for purchases of lights and reflectors under 142753
section 5747.38 of the Revised Code;142754

       (19) The nonrefundable job retention credit under division 142755
(B) of section 5747.058 of the Revised Code;142756

       (20) The credit for selling alternative fuel under section 142757
5747.77 of the Revised Code;142758

       (21) The second credit for purchases of new manufacturing 142759
machinery and equipment and the credit for using Ohio coal under 142760
section 5747.31 of the Revised Code;142761

       (22) The job training credit under section 5747.39 of the 142762
Revised Code;142763

       (23) The enterprise zone credit under section 5709.66 of the 142764
Revised Code;142765

       (24) The credit for the eligible costs associated with a 142766
voluntary action under section 5747.32 of the Revised Code;142767

       (25) The credit for employers that establish on-site child 142768
day-care centers under section 5747.35 of the Revised Code;142769

       (26) The ethanol plant investment credit under section 142770
5747.75 of the Revised Code;142771

       (27) The credit for purchases of qualifying grape production 142772
property under section 5747.28 of the Revised Code;142773

       (28) The small business investment credit under section 142774
5747.81 of the Revised Code;142775

       (29) The credit for research and development and technology 142776
transfer investors under section 5747.33 of the Revised Code;142777

       (30) The enterprise zone credits under section 5709.65 of the 142778
Revised Code;142779

       (31)(30) The research and development credit under section 142780
5747.331 of the Revised Code;142781

       (32)(31) The credit for rehabilitating a historic building 142782
under section 5747.76 of the Revised Code;142783

       (33)(32) The refundable credit for rehabilitating a historic 142784
building under section 5747.76 of the Revised Code;142785

       (34)(33) The refundable jobs creation credit or job retention 142786
credit under division (A) of section 5747.058 of the Revised Code;142787

       (35)(34) The refundable credit for taxes paid by a qualifying 142788
entity granted under section 5747.059 of the Revised Code;142789

       (36)(35) The refundable credits for taxes paid by a 142790
qualifying pass-through entity granted under division (J) of 142791
section 5747.08 of the Revised Code;142792

       (37)(36) The refundable credit under section 5747.80 of the 142793
Revised Code for losses on loans made to the Ohio venture capital 142794
program under sections 150.01 to 150.10 of the Revised Code;142795

       (38)(37) The refundable motion picture production credit 142796
under section 5747.66 of the Revised Code.142797

       (39)(38) The refundable credit for financial institution 142798
taxes paid by a pass-through entity granted under section 5747.65 142799
of the Revised Code.142800

       (B) For any credit, except the refundable credits enumerated 142801
in this section and the credit granted under division (I) of 142802
section 5747.08 of the Revised Code, the amount of the credit for 142803
a taxable year shall not exceed the tax due after allowing for any 142804
other credit that precedes it in the order required under this 142805
section. Any excess amount of a particular credit may be carried 142806
forward if authorized under the section creating that credit. 142807
Nothing in this chapter shall be construed to allow a taxpayer to 142808
claim, directly or indirectly, a credit more than once for a 142809
taxable year.142810

       Sec. 5748.01.  As used in this chapter:142811

       (A) "School district income tax" means an income tax adopted 142812
under one of the following:142813

       (1) Former section 5748.03 of the Revised Code as it existed 142814
prior to its repeal by Amended Substitute House Bill No. 291 of 142815
the 115th general assembly;142816

       (2) Section 5748.03 of the Revised Code as enacted in 142817
Substitute Senate Bill No. 28 of the 118th general assembly;142818

       (3) Section 5748.08 of the Revised Code as enacted in Amended 142819
Substitute Senate Bill No. 17 of the 122nd general assembly;142820

       (4) Section 5748.021 of the Revised Code;142821

       (5) Section 5748.081 of the Revised Code;142822

       (6) Section 5748.09 of the Revised Code.142823

       (B) "Individual" means an individual subject to the tax 142824
levied by section 5747.02 of the Revised Code.142825

       (C) "Estate" means an estate subject to the tax levied by 142826
section 5747.02 of the Revised Code.142827

       (D) "Taxable year" means a taxable year as defined in 142828
division (M) of section 5747.01 of the Revised Code.142829

       (E) "Taxable income" means:142830

       (1) In the case of an individual, one of the following, as 142831
specified in the resolution imposing the tax:142832

       (a) Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable year as 142833
defined in division (A) of section 5747.01 of the Revised Code, 142834
less the exemptions provided by section 5747.02 of the Revised 142835
Code, plus any amount deducted under division (A)(32) of section 142836
5747.01 of the Revised Code for the taxable year;142837

       (b) Wages, salaries, tips, and other employee compensation to 142838
the extent included in Ohio adjusted gross income as defined in 142839
section 5747.01 of the Revised Code, and net earnings from 142840
self-employment, as defined in section 1402(a) of the Internal 142841
Revenue Code, to the extent included in Ohio adjusted gross 142842
income.142843

       (2) In the case of an estate, taxable income for the taxable 142844
year as defined in division (S) of section 5747.01 of the Revised 142845
Code.142846

       (F) "Resident" of the school district means:142847

       (1) An individual who is a resident of this state as defined 142848
in division (I) of section 5747.01 of the Revised Code during all 142849
or a portion of the taxable year and who, during all or a portion 142850
of such period of state residency, is domiciled in the school 142851
district or lives in and maintains a permanent place of abode in 142852
the school district;142853

       (2) An estate of a decedent who, at the time of death, was 142854
domiciled in the school district.142855

       (G) "School district income" means:142856

       (1) With respect to an individual, the portion of the taxable 142857
income of an individual that is received by the individual during 142858
the portion of the taxable year that the individual is a resident 142859
of the school district and the school district income tax is in 142860
effect in that school district. An individual may have school 142861
district income with respect to more than one school district.142862

       (2) With respect to an estate, the taxable income of the 142863
estate for the portion of the taxable year that the school 142864
district income tax is in effect in that school district.142865

       (H) "Taxpayer" means an individual or estate having school 142866
district income upon which a school district income tax is 142867
imposed.142868

       (I) "School district purposes" means any of the purposes for 142869
which a tax may be levied pursuant to division (A) of section 142870
5705.21 of the Revised Code, including the combined purposes 142871
authorized by section 5705.217 of the Revised Code.142872

       Sec. 5749.02.  (A) For the purpose of providing revenue to 142873
administer the state's coal mining and reclamation regulatory 142874
program, to meet the environmental and resource management needs 142875
of this state, and to reclaim land affected by mining, an excise 142876
tax is hereby levied on the privilege of engaging in the severance 142877
of natural resources from the soil or water of this state. The tax 142878
shall be imposed upon the severer and shall beat the rates 142879
prescribed by divisions (A)(1) to (9) of this section:142880

       (1) Ten cents per ton of coal;142881

       (2) Four cents per ton of salt;142882

       (3) Two cents per ton of limestone or dolomite;142883

       (4) Two cents per ton of sand and gravel;142884

       (5) Ten cents per barrel of oil;142885

       (6) Two and one-half cents per thousand cubic feet of natural 142886
gas;142887

       (7) One cent per ton of clay, sandstone or conglomerate, 142888
shale, gypsum, or quartzite;142889

       (8) Except as otherwise provided in this division or in rules 142890
adopted by the reclamation forfeiture fund advisory board under 142891
section 1513.182 of the Revised Code, an additional fourteen cents 142892
per ton of coal produced from an area under a coal mining and 142893
reclamation permit issued under Chapter 1513. of the Revised Code 142894
for which the performance security is provided under division 142895
(C)(2) of section 1513.08 of the Revised Code. Beginning July 1, 142896
2007, if at the end of a fiscal biennium the balance of the 142897
reclamation forfeiture fund created in section 1513.18 of the 142898
Revised Code is equal to or greater than ten million dollars, the 142899
rate levied shall be twelve cents per ton. Beginning July 1, 2007, 142900
if at the end of a fiscal biennium the balance of the fund is at 142901
least five million dollars, but less than ten million dollars, the 142902
rate levied shall be fourteen cents per ton. Beginning July 1, 142903
2007, if at the end of a fiscal biennium the balance of the fund 142904
is less than five million dollars, the rate levied shall be 142905
sixteen cents per ton. Beginning July 1, 2009, not later than 142906
thirty days after the close of a fiscal biennium, the chief of the 142907
division of mineral resources management shall certify to the tax 142908
commissioner the amount of the balance of the reclamation 142909
forfeiture fund as of the close of the fiscal biennium. Any 142910
necessary adjustment of the rate levied shall take effect on the 142911
first day of the following January and shall remain in effect 142912
during the calendar biennium that begins on that date.142913

       (9) An additional one and two-tenths cents per ton of coal 142914
mined by surface mining methods.142915

       (B) OfAfter the director of budget and management transfers 142916
money from the severance tax receipts fund as required in division 142917
(H) of section 5749.06 of the Revised Code, money remaining in the 142918
severance tax receipts fund, except for money in the fund from the 142919
amounts due under section 1509.50 of the Revised Code, shall be 142920
credited as follows:142921

       (1) Of the moneys received by the treasurer of statein the 142922
fund from the tax levied in division (A)(1) of this section, four 142923
and seventy-six-hundredths per cent shall be credited to the 142924
geological mapping fund created in section 1505.09 of the Revised 142925
Code, eighty and ninety-five-hundredths per cent shall be credited 142926
to the coal mining administration and reclamation reserve fund 142927
created in section 1513.181 of the Revised Code, and fourteen and 142928
twenty-nine-hundredths per cent shall be credited to the 142929
unreclaimed lands fund created in section 1513.30 of the Revised 142930
Code.142931

       (2) The money received by the treasurer of statein the fund142932
from the tax levied in division (A)(2) of this section shall be 142933
credited to the geological mapping fund.142934

       (3) Of the moneys received by the treasurer of statein the 142935
fund from the tax levied in divisions (A)(3) and (4) of this 142936
section, seven and five-tenths per cent shall be credited to the 142937
geological mapping fund, forty-two and five-tenths per cent shall 142938
be credited to the unreclaimed lands fund, and the remainder shall 142939
be credited to the surface mining fund created in section 1514.06 142940
of the Revised Code.142941

       (4) Of the moneys received by the treasurer of statein the 142942
fund from the tax levied in divisions (A)(5) and (6) of this 142943
section, ninety per cent shall be credited to the oil and gas well 142944
fund created in section 1509.02 of the Revised Code and ten per 142945
cent shall be credited to the geological mapping fund. All of the 142946
moneys received by the treasurer of statein the fund from the 142947
tax levied in division (A)(7) of this section shall be credited to 142948
the surface mining fund.142949

       (5) All of the moneys received by the treasurer of statein 142950
the fund from the tax levied in division (A)(8) of this section 142951
shall be credited to the reclamation forfeiture fund.142952

       (6) All of the moneys received by the treasurer of statein 142953
the fund from the tax levied in division (A)(9) of this section 142954
shall be credited to the unreclaimed lands fund.142955

       (C) When, at the close of any fiscal year, the chief finds 142956
that the balance of the reclamation forfeiture fund, plus 142957
estimated transfers to it from the coal mining administration and 142958
reclamation reserve fund under section 1513.181 of the Revised 142959
Code, plus the estimated revenues from the tax levied by division 142960
(A)(8) of this section for the remainder of the calendar year that 142961
includes the close of the fiscal year, are sufficient to complete 142962
the reclamation of all lands for which the performance security 142963
has been provided under division (C)(2) of section 1513.08 of the 142964
Revised Code, the purposes for which the tax under division (A)(8) 142965
of this section is levied shall be deemed accomplished at the end 142966
of that calendar year. The chief, within thirty days after the 142967
close of the fiscal year, shall certify those findings to the tax 142968
commissioner, and the tax levied under division (A)(8) of this 142969
section shall cease to be imposed for the subsequent calendar year 142970
after the last day of that calendar year on coal produced under a 142971
coal mining and reclamation permit issued under Chapter 1513. of 142972
the Revised Code if the permittee has made tax payments under 142973
division (A)(8) of this section during each of the preceding five 142974
full calendar years. Not later than thirty days after the close of 142975
a fiscal year, the chief shall certify to the tax commissioner the 142976
identity of any permittees who accordingly no longer are required 142977
to pay the tax levied under division (A)(8) of this section for 142978
the subsequent calendar year.142979

       Sec. 5749.06.  (A)(1) Each severer liable for the tax imposed 142980
by section 5749.02 of the Revised Code and each severer or owner 142981
liable for the amounts due under section 1509.50 of the Revised 142982
Code shall make and file returns with the tax commissioner in the 142983
prescribed form and as of the prescribed times, computing and 142984
reflecting therein the tax as required by this chapter and amounts 142985
due under section 1509.50 of the Revised Code.142986

       (2) The returns shall be filed for every quarterly period, 142987
which periods shall end on the thirty-first day of March, the 142988
thirtieth day of June, the thirtieth day of September, and the 142989
thirty-first day of December of each year, as required by this 142990
section, unless a different return period is prescribed for a 142991
taxpayer by the commissioner.142992

       (B)(1) A separate return shall be filed for each calendar 142993
quarterly period, or other period, or any part thereof, during 142994
which the severer holds a license as provided by section 5749.04 142995
of the Revised Code, or is required to hold the license, or during 142996
which an owner is required to file a return, and the. The return 142997
shall be filed within forty-five days after the last day of each 142998
such calendar month, or other period, or any part thereof, for 142999
which the return is required and shall include remittance payable 143000
to the treasurer of state of the amount of. The tax due is payable 143001
along with the return. All such returns shall contain such 143002
information as the commissioner may require to fairly administer 143003
the tax.143004

       (2) All returns shall be signed by the severer or owner, as 143005
applicable, shall contain the full and complete information 143006
requested, and shall be made under penalty of perjury.143007

       (C) If the commissioner believes that quarterly payments of 143008
tax would result in a delay that might jeopardize the collection 143009
of such tax payments, the commissioner may order that such 143010
payments be made weekly, or more frequently if necessary, such 143011
payments to be made not later than seven days following the close 143012
of the period for which the jeopardy payment is required. Such an 143013
order shall be delivered to the taxpayer personally or by 143014
certified mail and shall remain in effect until the commissioner 143015
notifies the taxpayer to the contrary.143016

       (D) Upon good cause the commissioner may extend for thirty 143017
days the period for filing any notice or return required to be 143018
filed under this section, and may remit all or a part of penalties 143019
that may become due under this chapter.143020

       (E) Any tax and any amount due under section 1509.50 of the 143021
Revised Code not paid by the day the tax or amount is due shall 143022
bear interest computed at the rate per annum prescribed by section 143023
5703.47 of the Revised Code on that amount due from the day that 143024
the amount was originally required to be paid to the day of actual 143025
payment or to the day an assessment was issued under section 143026
5749.07 or 5749.10 of the Revised Code, whichever occurs first.143027

       (F) The severer shall make all payments payable to the 143028
treasurer of state. Except for the amounts due under section 143029
1509.50 of the Revised Code, allA severer or owner, as 143030
applicable, that fails to file a complete return or pay the full 143031
amount due under this chapter within the time prescribed, 143032
including any extensions of time granted by the commissioner, 143033
shall be subject to a penalty not to exceed the greater of fifty 143034
dollars or ten per cent of the amount due for the period.143035

       (G)(1) A severer or owner, as applicable, shall remit 143036
payments electronically and, if required by the commissioner, file 143037
each return electronically. The commissioner may require that the 143038
severer or owner use the Ohio business gateway, as defined in 143039
section 718.051 of the Revised Code, or another electronic means 143040
to file returns and remit payments electronically.143041

       (2) A severer or owner that is required to remit payments 143042
electronically under this section may apply to the commissioner, 143043
in the manner prescribed by the commissioner, to be excused from 143044
that requirement. The commissioner may excuse a severer or owner 143045
from the requirements of division (G) of this section for good 143046
cause.143047

       (3) If a severer or owner that is required to remit payments 143048
or file returns electronically under this section fails to do so, 143049
the commissioner may impose a penalty on the severer or owner not 143050
to exceed the following:143051

       (a) For the first or second payment or return the severer or 143052
owner fails to remit or file electronically, the greater of five 143053
per cent of the amount of the payment that was required to be 143054
remitted or twenty-five dollars;143055

       (b) For every payment or return after the second that the 143056
severer or owner fails to remit or file electronically, the 143057
greater of ten per cent of the amount of the payment that was 143058
required to be remitted or fifty dollars.143059

       (H)(1) All amounts that the tax commissioner receives under 143060
this section shall be deemed to be revenue from taxes imposed 143061
under this chapter. The commissioner shall immediately forward to 143062
the treasurer of state all amounts received under this sectionor 143063
from the amount due under section 1509.50 of the Revised Code, as 143064
applicable, and shall be deposited in the severance tax receipts 143065
fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury.143066

       (2) The director of budget and management shall transfer from 143067
the severance tax receipts fund to the tax refund fund amounts 143068
equal to the refunds certified by the commissioner under section 143069
5749.08 of the Revised Code. Any amount transferred under division 143070
(H)(2) of this section shall be derived from receipts of the same 143071
tax or other amount from which the refund arose.143072

       (3) After the director of budget and management makes any 143073
transfer required by division (H)(2) of this section, but not 143074
later than the fifteenth day of the month following the end of 143075
each calendar quarter, the commissioner shall certify to the 143076
director the total amount remaining in the severance tax receipts 143077
fund organized according to the amount attributable to each 143078
natural resource and according to the amount attributable to a tax 143079
imposed by this chapter and the amounts due under section 1509.50 143080
of the Revised Code.143081

       (I) Penalties imposed under this section are in addition to 143082
any other penalty imposed under this chapter and shall be 143083
considered as revenue arising from the tax levied under this 143084
chapter or the amount due under section 1509.50 of the Revised 143085
Code, as applicable. The commissioner may collect any penalty or 143086
interest imposed under this section in the same manner as provided 143087
for the making of an assessment in section 5749.07 of the Revised 143088
Code. The commissioner may abate all or a portion of such interest 143089
or penalties and may adopt rules governing such abatements.143090

       Sec. 5749.07.  (A) If any severer required by this chapter to 143091
make and file returns and pay the tax levied by section 5749.02 of 143092
the Revised Code, or any severer or owner liable for the amounts 143093
due under section 1509.50 of the Revised Code, fails to make such 143094
return or pay such tax or amounts, the tax commissioner may make 143095
an assessment against the severer or owner based upon any 143096
information in the commissioner's possession.143097

       No assessment shall be made or issued against any severer for 143098
any tax imposed by section 5749.02 of the Revised Code or against 143099
any severer or owner for any amount due under section 1509.50 of 143100
the Revised Code more than four years after the return was due or 143101
was filed, whichever is later. This section does not bar an 143102
assessment against a severer or owner who fails to file a return 143103
as required by this chapter, or who files a fraudulent return.143104

       The commissioner shall give the party assessed written notice 143105
of such assessment in the manner provided in section 5703.37 of 143106
the Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner shall provide 143107
instructions on how to petition for reassessment and request a 143108
hearing on the petition.143109

       (B) Unless the party assessed files with the commissioner 143110
within sixty days after service of the notice of assessment, 143111
either personally or by certified mail, a written petition for 143112
reassessment signed by the party assessed or that party's 143113
authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the assessment 143114
becomes final and the amount of the assessment is due and payable 143115
from the party assessed to the treasurer of state. The petition 143116
shall indicate the objections of the party assessed, but 143117
additional objections may be raised in writing if received by the 143118
commissioner prior to the date shown on the final determination. 143119
If the petition has been properly filed, the commissioner shall 143120
proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised Code.143121

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 143122
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 143123
copy of the commissioner's entry making the assessment final may 143124
be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common pleas 143125
in the county in which the party assessed resides or in which the 143126
party's business is conducted. If the party assessed maintains no 143127
place of business in this state and is not a resident of this 143128
state, the certified copy of the entry may be filed in the office 143129
of the clerk of the court of common pleas of Franklin county.143130

       Immediately upon the filing of such entry, the clerk shall 143131
enter a judgment for the state against the party assessed in the 143132
amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk 143133
in a loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for state 143134
severance tax," and shall have the same effect as other judgments. 143135
Execution shall issue upon the judgment upon the request of the 143136
commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales on execution shall 143137
apply to sales made under the judgment.143138

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety143139
within sixty days after the day the assessment is issued, the 143140
portion of the assessment consisting of tax due or amounts due 143141
under section 1509.50 of the Revised Code shall bear interest at 143142
the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised 143143
Code from the day the commissioner issues the assessment until it 143144
is paid or until it is certified to the attorney general for 143145
collection under section 131.02 of the Revised Code, whichever 143146
comes first. If the unpaid portion of the assessment is certified 143147
to the attorney general for collection, the entire unpaid portion 143148
of the assessment shall bear interest at the rate per annum 143149
prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code from the date of 143150
certification until the date it is paid in its entirety. Interest 143151
shall be paid in the same manner as the tax and may be collected 143152
by the issuance of an assessment under this section.143153

       (D) All money collected by the commissioner under this 143154
section shall be paid to the treasurer of state, and when paid 143155
shall be considered as revenue arising from the tax imposed by 143156
section 5749.02 of the Revised Code and the amount due under 143157
section 1509.50 of the Revised Code, as applicable.143158

       Sec. 5749.17. AnyExcept for purposes of enforcing Chapter 143159
1509. of the Revised Code, any information provided to the 143160
department of natural resources by the department of taxation in 143161
accordance with division (C)(12) of section 5703.21 of the Revised 143162
Code shall not be disclosed publicly by the department of natural 143163
resources, but. However the department of natural resources may 143164
provide such information to the attorney general for purposes of 143165
enforcement of the lawChapter 1509. of the Revised Code.143166

       Sec. 5751.01.  As used in this chapter:143167

       (A) "Person" means, but is not limited to, individuals, 143168
combinations of individuals of any form, receivers, assignees, 143169
trustees in bankruptcy, firms, companies, joint-stock companies, 143170
business trusts, estates, partnerships, limited liability 143171
partnerships, limited liability companies, associations, joint 143172
ventures, clubs, societies, for-profit corporations, S 143173
corporations, qualified subchapter S subsidiaries, qualified 143174
subchapter S trusts, trusts, entities that are disregarded for 143175
federal income tax purposes, and any other entities. 143176

       (B) "Consolidated elected taxpayer" means a group of two or 143177
more persons treated as a single taxpayer for purposes of this 143178
chapter as the result of an election made under section 5751.011 143179
of the Revised Code.143180

       (C) "Combined taxpayer" means a group of two or more persons 143181
treated as a single taxpayer for purposes of this chapter under 143182
section 5751.012 of the Revised Code.143183

       (D) "Taxpayer" means any person, or any group of persons in 143184
the case of a consolidated elected taxpayer or combined taxpayer 143185
treated as one taxpayer, required to register or pay tax under 143186
this chapter. "Taxpayer" does not include excluded persons.143187

        (E) "Excluded person" means any of the following:143188

       (1) Any person with not more than one hundred fifty thousand 143189
dollars of taxable gross receipts during the calendar year. 143190
Division (E)(1) of this section does not apply to a person that is 143191
a member of a consolidated elected taxpayer;143192

        (2) A public utility that paid the excise tax imposed by 143193
section 5727.24 or 5727.30 of the Revised Code based on one or 143194
more measurement periods that include the entire tax period under 143195
this chapter, except that a public utility that is a combined 143196
company is a taxpayer with regard to the following gross receipts:143197

        (a) Taxable gross receipts directly attributed to a public 143198
utility activity, but not directly attributed to an activity that 143199
is subject to the excise tax imposed by section 5727.24 or 5727.30 143200
of the Revised Code;143201

        (b) Taxable gross receipts that cannot be directly attributed 143202
to any activity, multiplied by a fraction whose numerator is the 143203
taxable gross receipts described in division (E)(2)(a) of this 143204
section and whose denominator is the total taxable gross receipts 143205
that can be directly attributed to any activity;143206

        (c) Except for any differences resulting from the use of an 143207
accrual basis method of accounting for purposes of determining 143208
gross receipts under this chapter and the use of the cash basis 143209
method of accounting for purposes of determining gross receipts 143210
under section 5727.24 of the Revised Code, the gross receipts 143211
directly attributed to the activity of a natural gas company shall 143212
be determined in a manner consistent with division (D) of section 143213
5727.03 of the Revised Code.143214

        As used in division (E)(2) of this section, "combined 143215
company" and "public utility" have the same meanings as in section 143216
5727.01 of the Revised Code.143217

       (3) A financial institution, as defined in section 5726.01 of 143218
the Revised Code, that paid the tax imposed by section 5726.02 of 143219
the Revised Code based on one or more taxable years that include 143220
the entire tax period under this chapter;143221

       (4) A person directly or indirectly owned by one or more 143222
financial institutions, as defined in section 5726.01 of the 143223
Revised Code, that paid the tax imposed by section 5726.02 of the 143224
Revised Code based on one or more taxable years that include the 143225
entire tax period under this chapter.143226

        For the purposes of division (E)(4) of this section, a person 143227
owns another person under the following circumstances:143228

        (a) In the case of corporations issuing capital stock, one 143229
corporation owns another corporation if it owns fifty per cent or 143230
more of the other corporation's capital stock with current voting 143231
rights;143232

        (b) In the case of a limited liability company, one person 143233
owns the company if that person's membership interest, as defined 143234
in section 1705.01 of the Revised Code, is fifty per cent or more 143235
of the combined membership interests of all persons owning such 143236
interests in the company;143237

        (c) In the case of a partnership, trust, or other 143238
unincorporated business organization other than a limited 143239
liability company, one person owns the organization if, under the 143240
articles of organization or other instrument governing the affairs 143241
of the organization, that person has a beneficial interest in the 143242
organization's profits, surpluses, losses, or distributions of 143243
fifty per cent or more of the combined beneficial interests of all 143244
persons having such an interest in the organization.143245

        (5) A domestic insurance company or foreign insurance 143246
company, as defined in section 5725.01 of the Revised Code, that 143247
paid the insurance company premiums tax imposed by section 5725.18 143248
or Chapter 5729. of the Revised Code, or an unauthorized insurance 143249
company whose gross premiums are subject to tax under section 143250
3905.36 of the Revised Code based on one or more measurement 143251
periods that include the entire tax period under this chapter;143252

       (6) A person that solely facilitates or services one or more 143253
securitizations of phase-in-recovery property pursuant to a final 143254
financing order as those terms are defined in section 4928.23 of 143255
the Revised Code. For purposes of this division, "securitization" 143256
means transferring one or more assets to one or more persons and 143257
then issuing securities backed by the right to receive payment 143258
from the asset or assets so transferred.143259

       (7) Except as otherwise provided in this division, a 143260
pre-income tax trust as defined in division (FF)(4) of section 143261
5747.01 of the Revised Code and any pass-through entity of which 143262
such pre-income tax trust owns or controls, directly, indirectly, 143263
or constructively through related interests, more than five per 143264
cent of the ownership or equity interests. If the pre-income tax 143265
trust has made a qualifying pre-income tax trust election under 143266
division (FF)(3) of section 5747.01 of the Revised Code, then the 143267
trust and the pass-through entities of which it owns or controls, 143268
directly, indirectly, or constructively through related interests, 143269
more than five per cent of the ownership or equity interests, 143270
shall not be excluded persons for purposes of the tax imposed 143271
under section 5751.02 of the Revised Code.143272

       (8) Nonprofit organizations or the state and its agencies, 143273
instrumentalities, or political subdivisions.143274

       (F) Except as otherwise provided in divisions (F)(2), (3), 143275
and (4) of this section, "gross receipts" means the total amount 143276
realized by a person, without deduction for the cost of goods sold 143277
or other expenses incurred, that contributes to the production of 143278
gross income of the person, including the fair market value of any 143279
property and any services received, and any debt transferred or 143280
forgiven as consideration. 143281

       (1) The following are examples of gross receipts:143282

       (a) Amounts realized from the sale, exchange, or other 143283
disposition of the taxpayer's property to or with another;143284

       (b) Amounts realized from the taxpayer's performance of 143285
services for another;143286

       (c) Amounts realized from another's use or possession of the 143287
taxpayer's property or capital;143288

       (d) Any combination of the foregoing amounts.143289

       (2) "Gross receipts" excludes the following amounts:143290

       (a) Interest income except interest on credit sales;143291

       (b) Dividends and distributions from corporations, and 143292
distributive or proportionate shares of receipts and income from a 143293
pass-through entity as defined under section 5733.04 of the 143294
Revised Code;143295

       (c) Receipts from the sale, exchange, or other disposition of 143296
an asset described in section 1221 or 1231 of the Internal Revenue 143297
Code, without regard to the length of time the person held the 143298
asset. Notwithstanding section 1221 of the Internal Revenue Code, 143299
receipts from hedging transactions also are excluded to the extent 143300
the transactions are entered into primarily to protect a financial 143301
position, such as managing the risk of exposure to (i) foreign 143302
currency fluctuations that affect assets, liabilities, profits, 143303
losses, equity, or investments in foreign operations; (ii) 143304
interest rate fluctuations; or (iii) commodity price fluctuations. 143305
As used in division (F)(2)(c) of this section, "hedging 143306
transaction" has the same meaning as used in section 1221 of the 143307
Internal Revenue Code and also includes transactions accorded 143308
hedge accounting treatment under statement of financial accounting 143309
standards number 133 of the financial accounting standards board. 143310
For the purposes of division (F)(2)(c) of this section, the actual 143311
transfer of title of real or tangible personal property to another 143312
entity is not a hedging transaction.143313

       (d) Proceeds received attributable to the repayment, 143314
maturity, or redemption of the principal of a loan, bond, mutual 143315
fund, certificate of deposit, or marketable instrument;143316

       (e) The principal amount received under a repurchase 143317
agreement or on account of any transaction properly characterized 143318
as a loan to the person;143319

       (f) Contributions received by a trust, plan, or other 143320
arrangement, any of which is described in section 501(a) of the 143321
Internal Revenue Code, or to which Title 26, Subtitle A, Chapter 143322
1, Subchapter (D) of the Internal Revenue Code applies;143323

       (g) Compensation, whether current or deferred, and whether in 143324
cash or in kind, received or to be received by an employee, former 143325
employee, or the employee's legal successor for services rendered 143326
to or for an employer, including reimbursements received by or for 143327
an individual for medical or education expenses, health insurance 143328
premiums, or employee expenses, or on account of a dependent care 143329
spending account, legal services plan, any cafeteria plan 143330
described in section 125 of the Internal Revenue Code, or any 143331
similar employee reimbursement;143332

       (h) Proceeds received from the issuance of the taxpayer's own 143333
stock, options, warrants, puts, or calls, or from the sale of the 143334
taxpayer's treasury stock;143335

       (i) Proceeds received on the account of payments from 143336
insurance policies, except those proceeds received for the loss of 143337
business revenue;143338

       (j) Gifts or charitable contributions received; membership 143339
dues received by trade, professional, homeowners', or condominium 143340
associations; and payments received for educational courses, 143341
meetings, meals, or similar payments to a trade, professional, or 143342
other similar association; and fundraising receipts received by 143343
any person when any excess receipts are donated or used 143344
exclusively for charitable purposes;143345

       (k) Damages received as the result of litigation in excess of 143346
amounts that, if received without litigation, would be gross 143347
receipts;143348

       (l) Property, money, and other amounts received or acquired 143349
by an agent on behalf of another in excess of the agent's 143350
commission, fee, or other remuneration;143351

       (m) Tax refunds, other tax benefit recoveries, and 143352
reimbursements for the tax imposed under this chapter made by 143353
entities that are part of the same combined taxpayer or 143354
consolidated elected taxpayer group, and reimbursements made by 143355
entities that are not members of a combined taxpayer or 143356
consolidated elected taxpayer group that are required to be made 143357
for economic parity among multiple owners of an entity whose tax 143358
obligation under this chapter is required to be reported and paid 143359
entirely by one owner, pursuant to the requirements of sections 143360
5751.011 and 5751.012 of the Revised Code;143361

       (n) Pension reversions;143362

       (o) Contributions to capital;143363

       (p) Sales or use taxes collected as a vendor or an 143364
out-of-state seller on behalf of the taxing jurisdiction from a 143365
consumer or other taxes the taxpayer is required by law to collect 143366
directly from a purchaser and remit to a local, state, or federal 143367
tax authority;143368

       (q) In the case of receipts from the sale of cigarettes or 143369
tobacco products by a wholesale dealer, retail dealer, 143370
distributor, manufacturer, or seller, all as defined in section 143371
5743.01 of the Revised Code, an amount equal to the federal and 143372
state excise taxes paid by any person on or for such cigarettes or 143373
tobacco products under subtitle E of the Internal Revenue Code or 143374
Chapter 5743. of the Revised Code;143375

       (r) In the case of receipts from the sale of motor fuel by a 143376
licensed motor fuel dealer, licensed retail dealer, or licensed 143377
permissive motor fuel dealer, all as defined in section 5735.01 of 143378
the Revised Code, an amount equal to federal and state excise 143379
taxes paid by any person on such motor fuel under section 4081 of 143380
the Internal Revenue Code or Chapter 5735.Receipts from the sale, 143381
transfer, exchange, or other disposition of motor fuel as "motor 143382
fuel" is defined in section 5736.01 of the Revised Code;143383

       (s) In the case of receipts from the sale of beer or 143384
intoxicating liquor, as defined in section 4301.01 of the Revised 143385
Code, by a person holding a permit issued under Chapter 4301. or 143386
4303. of the Revised Code, an amount equal to federal and state 143387
excise taxes paid by any person on or for such beer or 143388
intoxicating liquor under subtitle E of the Internal Revenue Code 143389
or Chapter 4301. or 4305. of the Revised Code;143390

        (t) Receipts realized by a new motor vehicle dealer or used 143391
motor vehicle dealer, as defined in section 4517.01 of the Revised 143392
Code, from the sale or other transfer of a motor vehicle, as 143393
defined in that section, to another motor vehicle dealer for the 143394
purpose of resale by the transferee motor vehicle dealer, but only 143395
if the sale or other transfer was based upon the transferee's need 143396
to meet a specific customer's preference for a motor vehicle;143397

       (u) Receipts from a financial institution described in 143398
division (E)(3) of this section for services provided to the 143399
financial institution in connection with the issuance, processing, 143400
servicing, and management of loans or credit accounts, if such 143401
financial institution and the recipient of such receipts have at 143402
least fifty per cent of their ownership interests owned or 143403
controlled, directly or constructively through related interests, 143404
by common owners;143405

       (v) Receipts realized from administering anti-neoplastic 143406
drugs and other cancer chemotherapy, biologicals, therapeutic 143407
agents, and supportive drugs in a physician's office to patients 143408
with cancer;143409

       (w) Funds received or used by a mortgage broker that is not a 143410
dealer in intangibles, other than fees or other consideration, 143411
pursuant to a table-funding mortgage loan or warehouse-lending 143412
mortgage loan. Terms used in division (F)(2)(w) of this section 143413
have the same meanings as in section 1322.01 of the Revised Code, 143414
except "mortgage broker" means a person assisting a buyer in 143415
obtaining a mortgage loan for a fee or other consideration paid by 143416
the buyer or a lender, or a person engaged in table-funding or 143417
warehouse-lending mortgage loans that are first lien mortgage 143418
loans.143419

        (x) Property, money, and other amounts received by a 143420
professional employer organization, as defined in section 4125.01 143421
of the Revised Code, from a client employer, as defined in that 143422
section, in excess of the administrative fee charged by the 143423
professional employer organization to the client employer;143424

       (y) In the case of amounts retained as commissions by a 143425
permit holder under Chapter 3769. of the Revised Code, an amount 143426
equal to the amounts specified under that chapter that must be 143427
paid to or collected by the tax commissioner as a tax and the 143428
amounts specified under that chapter to be used as purse money;143429

       (z) Qualifying distribution center receipts.143430

       (i) For purposes of division (F)(2)(z) of this section:143431

       (I) "Qualifying distribution center receipts" means receipts 143432
of a supplier from qualified property that is delivered to a 143433
qualified distribution center, multiplied by a quantity that 143434
equals one minus the Ohio delivery percentage. If the qualified 143435
distribution center is a refining facility, "supplier" includes 143436
all dealers, brokers, processors, sellers, vendors, cosigners, and 143437
distributors of qualified property.143438

       (II) "Qualified property" means tangible personal property 143439
delivered to a qualified distribution center that is shipped to 143440
that qualified distribution center solely for further shipping by 143441
the qualified distribution center to another location in this 143442
state or elsewhere or, in the case of gold, silver, platinum, or 143443
palladium delivered to a refining facility solely for refining to 143444
a grade and fineness acceptable for delivery to a registered 143445
commodities exchange. "Further shipping" includes storing and 143446
repackaging property into smaller or larger bundles, so long as 143447
the property is not subject to further manufacturing or 143448
processing. "Refining" is limited to extracting impurities from 143449
gold, silver, platinum, or palladium through smelting or some 143450
other process at a refining facility.143451

       (III) "Qualified distribution center" means a warehouse, a 143452
facility similar to a warehouse, or a refining facility in this 143453
state that, for the qualifying year, is operated by a person that 143454
is not part of a combined taxpayer group and that has a qualifying 143455
certificate. All warehouses or facilities similar to warehouses 143456
that are operated by persons in the same taxpayer group and that 143457
are located within one mile of each other shall be treated as one 143458
qualified distribution center. All refining facilities that are 143459
operated by persons in the same taxpayer group and that are 143460
located in the same or adjacent counties may be treated as one 143461
qualified distribution center.143462

       (IV) "Qualifying year" means the calendar year to which the 143463
qualifying certificate applies.143464

       (V) "Qualifying period" means the period of the first day of 143465
July of the second year preceding the qualifying year through the 143466
thirtieth day of June of the year preceding the qualifying year.143467

       (VI) "Qualifying certificate" means the certificate issued by 143468
the tax commissioner after the operator of a distribution center 143469
files an annual application with the commissioner. The application 143470
and annual fee shall be filed and paid for each qualified 143471
distribution center on or before the first day of September before 143472
the qualifying year or within forty-five days after the 143473
distribution center opens, whichever is later.143474

       The applicant must substantiate to the commissioner's 143475
satisfaction that, for the qualifying period, all persons 143476
operating the distribution center have more than fifty per cent of 143477
the cost of the qualified property shipped to a location such that 143478
it would be sitused outside this state under the provisions of 143479
division (E) of section 5751.033 of the Revised Code. The 143480
applicant must also substantiate that the distribution center 143481
cumulatively had costs from its suppliers equal to or exceeding 143482
five hundred million dollars during the qualifying period. (For 143483
purposes of division (F)(2)(z)(i)(VI) of this section, "supplier" 143484
excludes any person that is part of the consolidated elected 143485
taxpayer group, if applicable, of the operator of the qualified 143486
distribution center.) The commissioner may require the applicant 143487
to have an independent certified public accountant certify that 143488
the calculation of the minimum thresholds required for a qualified 143489
distribution center by the operator of a distribution center has 143490
been made in accordance with generally accepted accounting 143491
principles. The commissioner shall issue or deny the issuance of a 143492
certificate within sixty days after the receipt of the 143493
application. A denial is subject to appeal under section 5717.02 143494
of the Revised Code. If the operator files a timely appeal under 143495
section 5717.02 of the Revised Code, the operator shall be granted 143496
a qualifying certificate, provided thateffective for the 143497
remainder of the qualifying year or until the appeal is finalized, 143498
whichever is earlier. If the operator is liable for any tax, 143499
interest, or penalty upon amounts claimed as qualifying 143500
distribution center receipts, other than those receipts exempt 143501
under division (C)(1) of section 5751.011 of the Revised Code, 143502
that would have otherwise not been owed by its suppliers if the 143503
qualifying certificate was validdoes not prevail in the appeal, 143504
the operator shall pay the ineligible operator's supplier tax 143505
liability.143506

       (VII) "Ohio delivery percentage" means the proportion of the 143507
total property delivered to a destination inside Ohio from the 143508
qualified distribution center during the qualifying period 143509
compared with total deliveries from such distribution center 143510
everywhere during the qualifying period.143511

       (VIII) "Refining facility" means one or more buildings 143512
located in a county in the Appalachian region of this state as 143513
defined by section 107.21 of the Revised Code and utilized for 143514
refining or smelting gold, silver, platinum, or palladium to a 143515
grade and fineness acceptable for delivery to a registered 143516
commodities exchange.143517

        (IX) "Registered commodities exchange" means a board of 143518
trade, such as New York mercantile exchange, inc. or commodity 143519
exchange, inc., designated as a contract market by the commodity 143520
futures trading commission under the "Commodity Exchange Act," 7 143521
U.S.C. 1 et seq., as amended.143522

       (X) "Ineligible operator's supplier tax liability" means an 143523
amount equal to the tax liability of all suppliers of a 143524
distribution center had the distribution center not been issued a 143525
qualifying certificate for the qualifying year. Ineligible 143526
operator's supplier tax liability shall not include interest or 143527
penalties. The tax commissioner shall determine an ineligible 143528
operator's supplier tax liability based on information that the 143529
commissioner may request from the operator of the distribution 143530
center. An operator shall provide a list of all suppliers of the 143531
distribution center and the corresponding costs of qualified 143532
property for the qualifying year at issue within sixty days of a 143533
request by the commissioner under this division.143534

       (ii)(I) If the distribution center is new and was not open 143535
for the entire qualifying period, the operator of the distribution 143536
center may request that the commissioner grant a qualifying 143537
certificate. If the certificate is granted and it is later 143538
determined that more than fifty per cent of the qualified property 143539
during that year was not shipped to a location such that it would 143540
be sitused outside of this state under the provisions of division 143541
(E) of section 5751.033 of the Revised Code or if it is later 143542
determined that the person that operates the distribution center 143543
had average monthly costs from its suppliers of less than forty 143544
million dollars during that year, then the operator of the 143545
distribution center shall pay a penalty for that year equal to 143546
five hundred thousand dollarsthe ineligible operator's supplier 143547
tax liability. (For purposes of division (F)(2)(z)(ii) of this 143548
section, "supplier" excludes any person that is part of the 143549
consolidated elected taxpayer group, if applicable, of the 143550
operator of the qualified distribution center.)143551

       (II) The commissioner may grant a qualifying certificate to a 143552
distribution center that does not qualify as a qualified 143553
distribution center for an entire qualifying period if the 143554
operator of the distribution center demonstrates that the business 143555
operations of the distribution center have changed or will change 143556
such that the distribution center will qualify as a qualified 143557
distribution center within thirty-six months after the date the 143558
operator first applies for a certificate. If, at the end of that 143559
thirty-six-month period, the business operations of the 143560
distribution center have not changed such that the distribution 143561
center qualifies as a qualified distribution center, the operator 143562
of the distribution center shall pay a penalty equal to five 143563
hundred thousand dollarsthe ineligible operator's supplier tax 143564
liability for each year that the distribution center received a 143565
certificate but did not qualify as a qualified distribution 143566
center. For each year the distribution center receives a 143567
certificate under division (F)(2)(z)(ii)(II) of this section, the 143568
distribution center shall pay all applicable fees required under 143569
division (F)(2)(z) of this section and shall submit an updated 143570
business plan showing the progress the distribution center made 143571
toward qualifying as a qualified distribution center during the 143572
preceding year. 143573

       (III) An operator may appeal the imposition of a penalty 143574
imposeddetermination under division (F)(2)(z)(ii)(I) or (II) of 143575
this section that the ineligible operator is liable for the 143576
operator's supplier tax liability as a result of not qualifying as 143577
a qualified distribution center, as provided in section 5717.02 of 143578
the Revised Code. 143579

       (iii) When filing an application for a qualifying certificate 143580
under division (F)(2)(z)(i)(VI) of this section, the operator of a 143581
qualified distribution center also shall provide documentation, as 143582
the commissioner requires, for the commissioner to ascertain the 143583
Ohio delivery percentage. The commissioner, upon issuing the 143584
qualifying certificate, also shall certify the Ohio delivery 143585
percentage. The operator of the qualified distribution center may 143586
appeal the commissioner's certification of the Ohio delivery 143587
percentage in the same manner as an appeal is taken from the 143588
denial of a qualifying certificate under division (F)(2)(z)(i)(VI) 143589
of this section.143590

       Within thirty days after all appeals have been exhausted, the 143591
operator of the qualified distribution center shall provide the 143592
commissioner with a list of all affected suppliers of qualified 143593
property. The commissioner shall notify all such suppliers that 143594
the suppliers are required to file, within sixty days after 143595
receiving the notice, amended reports for the affected calendar 143596
quarter or quarters or calendar year, whichever the case may be. 143597
Any additional tax liability or tax overpayment shall be subject 143598
to interest but shall not be subject to the imposition of any 143599
penalty so long as the amended returns are timely filed. The 143600
supplier of tangible personal property delivered to the qualified 143601
distribution center shall include in its report of taxable gross 143602
receipts the receipts from the total sales of property delivered 143603
to the qualified distribution center for the calendar quarter or 143604
calendar year, whichever the case may be, multiplied by the Ohio 143605
delivery percentage for the qualifying year. Nothing in division 143606
(F)(2)(z)(iii) of this section shall be construed as imposing 143607
liability on the operator of a qualified distribution center for 143608
the tax imposed by this chapter arising from any change to the 143609
Ohio delivery percentage.143610

       (iv)(I) In the case where the distribution center is new and 143611
not open for the entire qualifying period, the operator shall make 143612
a good faith estimate of an Ohio delivery percentage for use by 143613
suppliers in their reports of taxable gross receipts for the 143614
remainder of the qualifying period. The operator of the facility 143615
shall disclose to the suppliers that such Ohio delivery percentage 143616
is an estimate and is subject to recalculation. By the due date of 143617
the next application for a qualifying certificate, the operator 143618
shall determine the actual Ohio delivery percentage for the 143619
estimated qualifying period and proceed as provided in division 143620
(F)(2)(z)(iii) of this section with respect to the calculation and 143621
recalculation of the Ohio delivery percentage. The supplier is 143622
required to file, within sixty days after receiving notice from 143623
the operator of the qualified distribution center, amended reports 143624
for the impacted calendar quarter or quarters or calendar year, 143625
whichever the case may be. Any additional tax liability or tax 143626
overpayment shall be subject to interest but shall not be subject 143627
to the imposition of any penalty so long as the amended returns 143628
are timely filed.143629

       (II) The operator of a distribution center that receives a 143630
qualifying certificate under division (F)(2)(z)(ii)(II) of this 143631
section shall make a good faith estimate of the Ohio delivery 143632
percentage that the operator estimates will apply to the 143633
distribution center at the end of the thirty-six-month period 143634
after the operator first applied for a qualifying certificate 143635
under that division. The result of the estimate shall be 143636
multiplied by a factor of one and seventy-five one-hundredths. The 143637
product of that calculation shall be the Ohio delivery percentage 143638
used by suppliers in their reports of taxable gross receipts for 143639
each qualifying year that the distribution center receives a 143640
qualifying certificate under division (F)(2)(z)(ii)(II) of this 143641
section, except that, if the product is less than five per cent, 143642
the Ohio delivery percentage used shall be five per cent and that, 143643
if the product exceeds forty-nine per cent, the Ohio delivery 143644
percentage used shall be forty-nine per cent.143645

       (v) Qualifying certificates and Ohio delivery percentages 143646
issued by the commissioner shall be open to public inspection and 143647
shall be timely published by the commissioner. A supplier relying 143648
in good faith on a certificate issued under this division shall 143649
not be subject to tax on the qualifying distribution center 143650
receipts under division (F)(2)(z) of this section. A personAn 143651
operator receiving a qualifying certificate is liable for a 143652
penalty equal to five hundred thousand dollarsthe ineligible 143653
operator's supplier tax liability for each year the person143654
operator received a certificate that should not have been issued 143655
because the statutory requirements were in fact not metbut did 143656
not qualify as a qualified distribution center.143657

       (vi) The annual fee for a qualifying certificate shall be one 143658
hundred thousand dollars for each qualified distribution center. 143659
If a qualifying certificate is not issued, the annual fee is 143660
subject to refund after the exhaustion of all appeals provided for 143661
in division (F)(2)(z)(i)(VI) of this section. The fee imposed 143662
under this division may be assessed in the same manner as the tax 143663
imposed under this chapter. The first one hundred thousand dollars 143664
of the annual application fees collected each calendar year shall 143665
be credited to the revenue enhancement fund. The remainder of the 143666
annual application fees collected shall be distributed in the same 143667
manner required under section 5751.20 of the Revised Code.143668

       (vii) The tax commissioner may require that adequate security 143669
be posted by the operator of the distribution center on appeal 143670
when the commissioner disagrees that the applicant has met the 143671
minimum thresholds for a qualified distribution center as set 143672
forth in divisions (F)(2)(z)(i)(VI) anddivision (F)(2)(z)(ii) of 143673
this section.143674

       (aa) Receipts of an employer from payroll deductions relating 143675
to the reimbursement of the employer for advancing moneys to an 143676
unrelated third party on an employee's behalf;143677

        (bb) Cash discounts allowed and taken;143678

       (cc) Returns and allowances;143679

       (dd) Bad debts from receipts on the basis of which the tax 143680
imposed by this chapter was paid in a prior quarterly tax payment 143681
period. For the purpose of this division, "bad debts" means any 143682
debts that have become worthless or uncollectible between the 143683
preceding and current quarterly tax payment periods, have been 143684
uncollected for at least six months, and that may be claimed as a 143685
deduction under section 166 of the Internal Revenue Code and the 143686
regulations adopted under that section, or that could be claimed 143687
as such if the taxpayer kept its accounts on the accrual basis. 143688
"Bad debts" does not include repossessed property, uncollectible 143689
amounts on property that remains in the possession of the taxpayer 143690
until the full purchase price is paid, or expenses in attempting 143691
to collect any account receivable or for any portion of the debt 143692
recovered;143693

       (ee) Any amount realized from the sale of an account 143694
receivable to the extent the receipts from the underlying 143695
transaction giving rise to the account receivable were included in 143696
the gross receipts of the taxpayer;143697

       (ff) Any receipts directly attributed to a transfer agreement 143698
or to the enterprise transferred under that agreement under 143699
section 4313.02 of the Revised Code.143700

       (gg)(i) As used in this division:143701

       (I) "Qualified uranium receipts" means receipts from the 143702
sale, exchange, lease, loan, production, processing, or other 143703
disposition of uranium within a uranium enrichment zone certified 143704
by the tax commissioner under division (F)(2)(gg)(ii) of this 143705
section. "Qualified uranium receipts" does not include any 143706
receipts with a situs in this state outside a uranium enrichment 143707
zone certified by the tax commissioner under division 143708
(F)(2)(gg)(ii) of this section.143709

       (II) "Uranium enrichment zone" means all real property that 143710
is part of a uranium enrichment facility licensed by the United 143711
States nuclear regulatory commission and that was or is owned or 143712
controlled by the United States department of energy or its 143713
successor.143714

       (ii) Any person that owns, leases, or operates real or 143715
tangible personal property constituting or located within a 143716
uranium enrichment zone may apply to the tax commissioner to have 143717
the uranium enrichment zone certified for the purpose of excluding 143718
qualified uranium receipts under division (F)(2)(gg) of this 143719
section. The application shall include such information that the 143720
tax commissioner prescribes. Within sixty days after receiving the 143721
application, the tax commissioner shall certify the zone for that 143722
purpose if the commissioner determines that the property qualifies 143723
as a uranium enrichment zone as defined in division (F)(2)(gg) of 143724
this section, or, if the tax commissioner determines that the 143725
property does not qualify, the commissioner shall deny the 143726
application or request additional information from the applicant. 143727
If the tax commissioner denies an application, the commissioner 143728
shall state the reasons for the denial. The applicant may appeal 143729
the denial of an application to the board of tax appeals pursuant 143730
to section 5717.02 of the Revised Code. If the applicant files a 143731
timely appeal, the tax commissioner shall conditionally certify 143732
the applicant's property. The conditional certification shall 143733
expire when all of the applicant's appeals are exhausted. Until 143734
final resolution of the appeal, the applicant shall retain the 143735
applicant's records in accordance with section 5751.12 of the 143736
Revised Code, notwithstanding any time limit on the preservation 143737
of records under that section.143738

       (hh) Amounts realized by licensed motor fuel dealers or 143739
licensed permissive motor fuel dealers from the exchange of 143740
petroleum products, including motor fuel, between such dealers, 143741
provided that delivery of the petroleum products occurs at a 143742
refinery, terminal, pipeline, or marine vessel and that the 143743
exchanging dealers agree neither dealer shall require monetary 143744
compensation from the other for the value of the exchanged 143745
petroleum products other than such compensation for differences in 143746
product location or grade. Division (F)(2)(hh) of this section 143747
does not apply to amounts realized as a result of differences in 143748
location or grade of exchanged petroleum products or from 143749
handling, lubricity, dye, or other additive injections fees, 143750
pipeline security fees, or similar fees. As used in this division, 143751
"motor fuel," "licensed motor fuel dealer," "licensed permissive 143752
motor fuel dealer," and "terminal" have the same meanings as in 143753
section 5735.01 of the Revised Code.143754

       (ii) In the case of amounts collected by a licensed casino 143755
operator from casino gaming, amounts in excess of the casino 143756
operator's gross casino revenue. In this division, "casino 143757
operator" and "casino gaming" have the meanings defined in section 143758
3772.01 of the Revised Code, and "gross casino revenue" has the 143759
meaning defined in section 5753.01 of the Revised Code.143760

       (jj)(ii) Receipts realized from the sale of agricultural 143761
commodities by an agricultural commodity handler, both as defined 143762
in section 926.01 of the Revised Code, that is licensed by the 143763
director of agriculture to handle agricultural commodities in this 143764
state.143765

       (jj) Any receipts for which the tax imposed by this chapter 143766
is prohibited by the constitution or laws of the United States or 143767
the constitution of this state.143768

        (3) In the case of a taxpayer when acting as a real estate 143769
broker, "gross receipts" includes only the portion of any fee for 143770
the service of a real estate broker, or service of a real estate 143771
salesperson associated with that broker, that is retained by the 143772
broker and not paid to an associated real estate salesperson or 143773
another real estate broker. For the purposes of this division, 143774
"real estate broker" and "real estate salesperson" have the same 143775
meanings as in section 4735.01 of the Revised Code.143776

       (4) A taxpayer's method of accounting for gross receipts for 143777
a tax period shall be the same as the taxpayer's method of 143778
accounting for federal income tax purposes for the taxpayer's 143779
federal taxable year that includes the tax period. If a taxpayer's 143780
method of accounting for federal income tax purposes changes, its 143781
method of accounting for gross receipts under this chapter shall 143782
be changed accordingly.143783

       (G) "Taxable gross receipts" means gross receipts sitused to 143784
this state under section 5751.033 of the Revised Code.143785

       (H) A person has "substantial nexus with this state" if any 143786
of the following applies. The person:143787

       (1) Owns or uses a part or all of its capital in this state;143788

       (2) Holds a certificate of compliance with the laws of this 143789
state authorizing the person to do business in this state;143790

       (3) Has bright-line presence in this state;143791

       (4) Otherwise has nexus with this state to an extent that the 143792
person can be required to remit the tax imposed under this chapter 143793
under the Constitution of the United States.143794

       (I) A person has "bright-line presence" in this state for a 143795
reporting period and for the remaining portion of the calendar 143796
year if any of the following applies. The person:143797

       (1) Has at any time during the calendar year property in this 143798
state with an aggregate value of at least fifty thousand dollars. 143799
For the purpose of division (I)(1) of this section, owned property 143800
is valued at original cost and rented property is valued at eight 143801
times the net annual rental charge.143802

       (2) Has during the calendar year payroll in this state of at 143803
least fifty thousand dollars. Payroll in this state includes all 143804
of the following:143805

       (a) Any amount subject to withholding by the person under 143806
section 5747.06 of the Revised Code;143807

       (b) Any other amount the person pays as compensation to an 143808
individual under the supervision or control of the person for work 143809
done in this state; and143810

       (c) Any amount the person pays for services performed in this 143811
state on its behalf by another.143812

       (3) Has during the calendar year taxable gross receipts of at 143813
least five hundred thousand dollars.143814

       (4) Has at any time during the calendar year within this 143815
state at least twenty-five per cent of the person's total 143816
property, total payroll, or total gross receipts.143817

       (5) Is domiciled in this state as an individual or for 143818
corporate, commercial, or other business purposes.143819

       (J) "Tangible personal property" has the same meaning as in 143820
section 5739.01 of the Revised Code.143821

       (K) "Internal Revenue Code" means the Internal Revenue Code 143822
of 1986, 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 1, as amended. Any term used in 143823
this chapter that is not otherwise defined has the same meaning as 143824
when used in a comparable context in the laws of the United States 143825
relating to federal income taxes unless a different meaning is 143826
clearly required. Any reference in this chapter to the Internal 143827
Revenue Code includes other laws of the United States relating to 143828
federal income taxes.143829

       (L) "Calendar quarter" means a three-month period ending on 143830
the thirty-first day of March, the thirtieth day of June, the 143831
thirtieth day of September, or the thirty-first day of December.143832

       (M) "Tax period" means the calendar quarter or calendar year 143833
on the basis of which a taxpayer is required to pay the tax 143834
imposed under this chapter.143835

       (N) "Calendar year taxpayer" means a taxpayer for which the 143836
tax period is a calendar year.143837

       (O) "Calendar quarter taxpayer" means a taxpayer for which 143838
the tax period is a calendar quarter.143839

       (P) "Agent" means a person authorized by another person to 143840
act on its behalf to undertake a transaction for the other, 143841
including any of the following:143842

        (1) A person receiving a fee to sell financial instruments;143843

        (2) A person retaining only a commission from a transaction 143844
with the other proceeds from the transaction being remitted to 143845
another person;143846

        (3) A person issuing licenses and permits under section 143847
1533.13 of the Revised Code;143848

        (4) A lottery sales agent holding a valid license issued 143849
under section 3770.05 of the Revised Code;143850

        (5) A person acting as an agent of the division of liquor 143851
control under section 4301.17 of the Revised Code.143852

       (Q) "Received" includes amounts accrued under the accrual 143853
method of accounting.143854

       (R) "Reporting person" means a person in a consolidated 143855
elected taxpayer or combined taxpayer group that is designated by 143856
that group to legally bind the group for all filings and tax 143857
liabilities and to receive all legal notices with respect to 143858
matters under this chapter, or, for the purposes of section 143859
5751.04 of the Revised Code, a separate taxpayer that is not a 143860
member of such a group.143861

       Sec. 5751.02.  (A) For the purpose of funding the needs of 143862
this state and its local governments and providing revenue to the 143863
commercial activity tax motor fuel receipts fund, there is hereby 143864
levied a commercial activity tax on each person with taxable gross 143865
receipts for the privilege of doing business in this state. For 143866
the purposes of this chapter, "doing business" means engaging in 143867
any activity, whether legal or illegal, that is conducted for, or 143868
results in, gain, profit, or income, at any time during a calendar 143869
year. Persons on which the commercial activity tax is levied 143870
include, but are not limited to, persons with substantial nexus 143871
with this state. The tax imposed under this section is not a 143872
transactional tax and is not subject to Public Law No. 86-272, 73 143873
Stat. 555. The tax imposed under this section is in addition to 143874
any other taxes or fees imposed under the Revised Code. The tax 143875
levied under this section is imposed on the person receiving the 143876
gross receipts and is not a tax imposed directly on a purchaser. 143877
The tax imposed by this section is an annual privilege tax for the 143878
calendar year that, in the case of calendar year taxpayers, is the 143879
annual tax period and, in the case of calendar quarter taxpayers, 143880
contains all quarterly tax periods in the calendar year. A 143881
taxpayer is subject to the annual privilege tax for doing business 143882
during any portion of such calendar year.143883

       (B) The tax imposed by this section is a tax on the taxpayer 143884
and shall not be billed or invoiced to another person. Even if the 143885
tax or any portion thereof is billed or invoiced and separately 143886
stated, such amounts remain part of the price for purposes of the 143887
sales and use taxes levied under Chapters 5739. and 5741. of the 143888
Revised Code. Nothing in division (B) of this section prohibits:143889

       (1) A person from including in the price charged for a good 143890
or service an amount sufficient to recover the tax imposed by this 143891
section; or143892

       (2) A lessor from including an amount sufficient to recover 143893
the tax imposed by this section in a lease payment charged, or 143894
from including such an amount on a billing or invoice pursuant to 143895
the terms of a written lease agreement providing for the recovery 143896
of the lessor's tax costs. The recovery of such costs shall be 143897
based on an estimate of the total tax cost of the lessor during 143898
the tax period, as the tax liability of the lessor cannot be 143899
calculated until the end of that period.143900

       Sec. 5751.051.  (A)(1) Not later than the tenth day of the 143901
second month after the end of each calendar quarter, every 143902
taxpayer other than a calendar year taxpayer shall file with the 143903
tax commissioner a tax return in such form as the commissioner 143904
prescribes. The return shall include, but is not limited to, the 143905
amount of the taxpayer's taxable gross receipts for the calendar 143906
quarter and shall indicate the amount of tax due under section 143907
5751.03 of the Revised Code for the calendar quarter. The taxpayer 143908
shall indicate on the return the portion of the taxpayer's 143909
receipts attributable to motor fuel used for propelling vehicles 143910
on public highways. 143911

       (2)(a) Subject to division (C) of section 5751.05 of the 143912
Revised Code, a calendar quarter taxpayer shall report the taxable 143913
gross receipts for that calendar quarter.143914

       (b) With respect to taxable gross receipts incorrectly 143915
reported in a calendar quarter that has a lower tax rate, the tax 143916
shall be computed at the tax rate in effect for the quarterly 143917
return in which such receipts should have been reported. Nothing 143918
in division (A)(2)(b) of this section prohibits a taxpayer from 143919
filing an application for refund under section 5751.08 of the 143920
Revised Code with regard to the incorrect reporting of taxable 143921
gross receipts discovered after filing the annual return described 143922
in division (A)(3) of this section.143923

       A tax return shall not be deemed to be an incorrect reporting 143924
of taxable gross receipts for the purposes of division (A)(2)(b) 143925
of this section if the return reflects between ninety-five and one 143926
hundred five per cent of the actual taxable gross receipts for the 143927
calendar quarter.143928

       (3) For the purposes of division (A)(2)(b) of this section, 143929
the tax return filed for the fourth calendar quarter of a calendar 143930
year is the annual return for the privilege tax imposed by this 143931
chapter. Such return shall report any additional taxable gross 143932
receipts not previously reported in the calendar year and shall 143933
adjust for any over-reported taxable gross receipts in the 143934
calendar year. If the taxpayer ceases to be a taxpayer before the 143935
end of the calendar year, the last return the taxpayer is required 143936
to file shall be the annual return for the taxpayer and the 143937
taxpayer shall report any additional taxable gross receipts not 143938
previously reported in the calendar year and shall adjust for any 143939
over-reported taxable gross receipts in the calendar year. 143940
Taxpayers reporting taxable gross receipts attributable to motor 143941
fuel used for propelling vehicles on public highways may not 143942
utilize the statutory estimation procedure provided in divisions 143943
(A)(2) and (3) of this section. 143944

       (4) Because the tax imposed by this chapter is a privilege 143945
tax, the tax rate with respect to taxable gross receipts for a 143946
calendar quarter is not fixed until the end of the measurement 143947
period for each calendar quarter. Subject to division (A)(2)(b) of 143948
this section, the total amount of taxable gross receipts reported 143949
for a given calendar quarter shall be subject to the tax rate in 143950
effect in that quarter.143951

       (5) Not later than the tenth day of May following the end of 143952
each calendar year, every calendar year taxpayer shall file with 143953
the tax commissioner a tax return in such form as the commissioner 143954
prescribes. The return shall include, but is not limited to, the 143955
amount of the taxpayer's taxable gross receipts for the calendar 143956
year and shall indicate the amount of tax due under section 143957
5751.03 of the Revised Code for the calendar year. The taxpayer 143958
shall indicate on the return the portion of the taxpayer's 143959
receipts attributable to motor fuel used for propelling vehicles 143960
on public highways.143961

       (B)(1) A person that first becomes subject to the tax imposed 143962
under this chapter shall pay the minimum tax imposed under 143963
division (B) of section 5751.03 of the Revised Code on or before 143964
the day the return is required to be filed for that quarter under 143965
division (A)(1) of this section, regardless of whether the person 143966
registers as a calendar year taxpayer under section 5751.05 of the 143967
Revised Code.143968

       (2) The amount of the minimum tax for a person subject to 143969
division (B)(1) of this section shall be reduced to seventy-five 143970
dollars if the registration is timely filed after the first day of 143971
May and before the first day of January of the following calendar 143972
year.143973

       Sec. 5751.07.  (A) Any person required to file returns for a 143974
calendar quarterunder this chapter shall remit each tax payment, 143975
and, if required by the tax commissioner, file the tax return or 143976
the annual report, electronically. The commissioner may require 143977
taxpayers to use the Ohio business gateway as defined in section 143978
718.051 of the Revised Code to file returns and remit the tax, or 143979
may provide another means for taxpayers to file and remit the tax 143980
electronically.143981

       (B) A person required by this section to remit taxes or file 143982
returns electronically may apply to the tax commissioner, on the 143983
form prescribed by the commissioner, to be excused from that 143984
requirement. The commissioner may excuse a person from the 143985
requirements of this division for good cause.143986

       (C)(1) If a person required to remit taxes or file a return 143987
electronically under this section fails to do so, the commissioner 143988
may impose a penalty not to exceed the following:143989

       (a) For either of the first two calendar quarterstax periods143990
the person so fails, the greater of twenty-five dollars or five 143991
per cent of the amount of the payment that was required to be 143992
remitted;143993

       (b) For the third and any subsequent calendar quarterstax 143994
periods the person so fails, the greater of fifty dollars or ten 143995
per cent of the amount of the payment that was required to be 143996
remitted.143997

       (2) The penalty imposed under division (C)(1) of this section 143998
is in addition to any other penalty imposed under this chapter and 143999
shall be considered as revenue arising from the tax imposed under 144000
this chapter. A penalty may be collected by assessment in the 144001
manner prescribed by section 5751.09 of the Revised Code. The tax 144002
commissioner may abate all or a portion of such a penalty.144003

       (D) The tax commissioner may adopt rules necessary to 144004
administer this section.144005

       Sec. 5751.081.  As used in this section, "debt to this state" 144006
means unpaid taxes due the state, unpaid workers' compensation 144007
premiums due under section 4123.35 of the Revised Code, unpaid 144008
unemployment compensation contributions due under section 4141.25 144009
of the Revised Code, unpaid unemployment compensation payment in 144010
lieu of contribution under section 4141.241 of the Revised Code, 144011
unpaid feefees payable to the state or to the clerk of courts 144012
pursuant to section 4505.06 of the Revised Code, incorrect medical 144013
assistance payments for medicaid services under section 5111.02 of 144014
the Revised Codethe medicaid program, or any unpaid charge, 144015
penalty, or interest arising from any of the foregoing.144016

       If a taxpayer entitled to a refund under section 5751.08 of 144017
the Revised Code owes any debt to this state, the amount 144018
refundable may be applied in satisfaction of the debt. If the 144019
amount refundable is less than the amount of the debt, it may be 144020
applied in partial satisfaction of the debt. If the amount 144021
refundable is greater than the amount of the debt, the amount 144022
remaining after satisfaction of the debt shall be refunded. This 144023
section applies only to debts that have become final. For the 144024
purposes of this section, a debt becomes final when, under the 144025
applicable law, any time provided for petition for reassessment, 144026
request for reconsideration, or other appeal of the legality or 144027
validity of the amount giving rise to the debt expires without an 144028
appeal having been filed in the manner provided by law.144029

       Sec. 5751.09.  (A) The tax commissioner may make an 144030
assessment, based on any information in the commissioner's 144031
possession, against any person that fails to file a return or pay 144032
any tax as required by this chapter. The commissioner shall give 144033
the person assessed written notice of the assessment as provided 144034
in section 5703.37 of the Revised Code. With the notice, the 144035
commissioner shall provide instructions on the manner in which to 144036
petition for reassessment and request a hearing with respect to 144037
the petition. The commissioner shall send any assessments against 144038
consolidated elected taxpayer and combined taxpayer groups under 144039
section 5751.011 or 5751.012 of the Revised Code to the taxpayer's 144040
"reporting person" as defined under division (R) of section 144041
5751.01 of the Revised Code. The reporting person shall notify all 144042
members of the group of the assessment and all outstanding taxes, 144043
interest, and penalties for which the assessment is issued.144044

       (B) Unless the person assessed, within sixty days after 144045
service of the notice of assessment, files with the tax 144046
commissioner, either personally or by certified mail, a written 144047
petition signed by the person or the person's authorized agent 144048
having knowledge of the facts, the assessment becomes final, and 144049
the amount of the assessment is due and payable from the person 144050
assessed to the treasurer of state. The petition shall indicate 144051
the objections of the person assessed, but additional objections 144052
may be raised in writing if received by the commissioner prior to 144053
the date shown on the final determination.144054

       If a petition for reassessment has been properly filed, the 144055
commissioner shall proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised 144056
Code.144057

       (C)(1) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of 144058
the assessment, including accrued interest, remains unpaid, a 144059
certified copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the 144060
assessment final may be filed in the office of the clerk of the 144061
court of common pleas in the county in which the person resides or 144062
has its principal place of business in this state, or in the 144063
office of the clerk of court of common pleas of Franklin county.144064

       (2) Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 144065
enter judgment for the state against the person assessed in the 144066
amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk 144067
in a loose-leaf book entitled, "special judgments for the 144068
commercial activity tax" and shall have the same effect as other 144069
judgments. Execution shall issue upon the judgment at the request 144070
of the tax commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales on 144071
execution shall apply to sales made under the judgment.144072

       (3) The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its 144073
entirety within sixty days after the day the assessment was 144074
issued, the portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall 144075
bear interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 144076
of the Revised Code from the day the tax commissioner issues the 144077
assessment until it is paid or until it is certified to the 144078
attorney general for collection under section 131.02 of the 144079
Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid portion of the 144080
assessment is certified to the attorney general for collection, 144081
the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear interest at 144082
the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised 144083
Code from the date of certification until the date it is paid in 144084
its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner as the tax 144085
and may be collected by the issuance of an assessment under this 144086
section.144087

       (D) If the tax commissioner believes that collection of the 144088
tax will be jeopardized unless proceedings to collect or secure 144089
collection of the tax are instituted without delay, the 144090
commissioner may issue a jeopardy assessment against the person 144091
liable for the tax. Immediately upon the issuance of the jeopardy 144092
assessment, the commissioner shall file an entry with the clerk of 144093
the court of common pleas in the manner prescribed by division (C) 144094
of this section. Notice of the jeopardy assessment shall be served 144095
on the person assessed or the person's authorized agent in the 144096
manner provided in section 5703.37 of the Revised Code within five 144097
days of the filing of the entry with the clerk. The total amount 144098
assessed is immediately due and payable, unless the person 144099
assessed files a petition for reassessment in accordance with 144100
division (B) of this section and provides security in a form 144101
satisfactory to the commissioner and in an amount sufficient to 144102
satisfy the unpaid balance of the assessment. Full or partial 144103
payment of the assessment does not prejudice the commissioner's 144104
consideration of the petition for reassessment.144105

       (E) The tax commissioner shall immediately forward to the 144106
treasurer of state all amounts the commissioner receives under 144107
this section, and such amounts shall be considered as revenue 144108
arising from the tax imposed under this chapter.144109

       (F) Except as otherwise provided in this division, no 144110
assessment shall be made or issued against a taxpayer for the tax 144111
imposed under this chapter more than four years after the due date 144112
for the filing of the return for the tax period for which the tax 144113
was reported, or more than four years after the return for the tax 144114
period was filed, whichever is later. The time limit may be 144115
extended if both the taxpayer and the commissioner consent in 144116
writing to the extension or enter into an agreement waiving or 144117
extending the time limit. Any such extension shall extend the 144118
four-year time limit in division (B) of section 5751.08 of the 144119
Revised Code for the same period of time. Nothing in this division 144120
bars an assessment against a taxpayer that fails to file a return 144121
required by this chapter or that files a fraudulent return.144122

       (G) If the tax commissioner possesses information that 144123
indicates that the amount of tax a taxpayer is required to pay 144124
under this chapter exceeds the amount the taxpayer paid, the tax 144125
commissioner may audit a sample of the taxpayer's gross receipts 144126
over a representative period of time to ascertain the amount of 144127
tax due, and may issue an assessment based on the audit. The tax 144128
commissioner shall make a good faith effort to reach agreement 144129
with the taxpayer in selecting a representative sample. The tax 144130
commissioner may apply a sampling method only if the commissioner 144131
has prescribed the method by rule.144132

       (H) If the whereabouts of a person subject to this chapter is 144133
not known to the tax commissioner, the commissioner shall follow 144134
the procedures under section 5703.37 of the Revised Code.144135

       Sec. 5751.20.  (A) As used in sections 5751.20 to 5751.22 of 144136
the Revised Code:144137

       (1) "School district," "joint vocational school district," 144138
"local taxing unit," "recognized valuation," "fixed-rate levy," 144139
and "fixed-sum levy" have the same meanings as used in section 144140
5727.84 of the Revised Code.144141

       (2) "State education aid" for a school district means the 144142
following:144143

       (a) For fiscal years prior to fiscal year 2010, the sum of 144144
state aid amounts computed for the district under the following 144145
provisions, as they existed for the applicable fiscal year: 144146
division (A) of section 3317.022 of the Revised Code, including 144147
the amounts calculated under sectionsformer section 3317.029 and 144148
section 3317.0217 of the Revised Code; divisions (C)(1), (C)(4), 144149
(D), (E), and (F) of section 3317.022; divisions (B), (C), and (D) 144150
of section 3317.023; divisions (L) and (N) of section 3317.024; 144151
section 3317.0216; and any unit payments for gifted student 144152
services paid under sectionssection 3317.05,and former sections144153
3317.052, and 3317.053 of the Revised Code; except that, for 144154
fiscal years 2008 and 2009, the amount computed for the district 144155
under Section 269.20.80 of H.B. 119 of the 127th general assembly 144156
and as that section subsequently may be amended shall be 144157
substituted for the amount computed under division (D) of section 144158
3317.022 of the Revised Code, and the amount computed under 144159
Section 269.30.80 of H.B. 119 of the 127th general assembly and as 144160
that section subsequently may be amended shall be included.144161

       (b) For fiscal years 2010 and 2011, the sum of the amounts 144162
computed under former sections 3306.052, 3306.12, 3306.13, 144163
3306.19, 3306.191, and 3306.192 of the Revised Code;144164

       (c) For fiscal years 2012 and 2013, the sum of the amounts 144165
paid under Sections 267.30.50, 267.30.53, and 267.30.56 of H.B. 144166
153 of the 129th general assembly;144167

       (d) For fiscal year 2014 and each fiscal year thereafter, the 144168
sum of state amounts computed for the district under section 144169
3317.022 of the Revised Code; except that, for fiscal years 2014 144170
and 2015, the amount computed for the district under the section 144171
of this act entitled "TRANSITIONAL AID FOR CITY, LOCAL, AND 144172
EXEMPTED VILLAGE SCHOOL DISTRICTS" shall be included.144173

       (3) "State education aid" for a joint vocational school 144174
district means the following:144175

       (a) For fiscal years prior to fiscal year 2010, the sum of 144176
the state aid computed for the district under division (N) of 144177
section 3317.024 and former section 3317.16 of the Revised Code, 144178
except that, for fiscal years 2008 and 2009, the amount computed 144179
under Section 269.30.80 of H.B. 119 of the 127th general assembly 144180
and as that section subsequently may be amended shall be included.144181

       (b) For fiscal years 2010 and 2011, the amount paid in 144182
accordance with Section 265.30.50 of H.B. 1 of the 128th general 144183
assembly.144184

       (c) For fiscal years 2012 and 2013, the amount paid in 144185
accordance with Section 267.30.60 of H.B. 153 of the 129th general 144186
assembly.144187

       (d) For fiscal year 2014 and each fiscal year thereafter, the 144188
amount computed for the district under section 3317.16 of the 144189
Revised Code; except that, for fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the 144190
amount computed for the district under the section of this act 144191
entitled "TRANSITIONAL AID FOR JOINT VOCATIONAL SCHOOL DISTRICTS" 144192
shall be included.144193

        (4) "State education aid offset" means the amount determined 144194
for each school district or joint vocational school district under 144195
division (A)(1) of section 5751.21 of the Revised Code.144196

       (5) "Machinery and equipment property tax value loss" means 144197
the amount determined under division (C)(1) of this section.144198

       (6) "Inventory property tax value loss" means the amount 144199
determined under division (C)(2) of this section.144200

       (7) "Furniture and fixtures property tax value loss" means 144201
the amount determined under division (C)(3) of this section.144202

        (8) "Machinery and equipment fixed-rate levy loss" means the 144203
amount determined under division (D)(1) of this section.144204

       (9) "Inventory fixed-rate levy loss" means the amount 144205
determined under division (D)(2) of this section.144206

       (10) "Furniture and fixtures fixed-rate levy loss" means the 144207
amount determined under division (D)(3) of this section.144208

       (11) "Total fixed-rate levy loss" means the sum of the 144209
machinery and equipment fixed-rate levy loss, the inventory 144210
fixed-rate levy loss, the furniture and fixtures fixed-rate levy 144211
loss, and the telephone company fixed-rate levy loss.144212

       (12) "Fixed-sum levy loss" means the amount determined under 144213
division (E) of this section.144214

       (13) "Machinery and equipment" means personal property 144215
subject to the assessment rate specified in division (F) of 144216
section 5711.22 of the Revised Code.144217

       (14) "Inventory" means personal property subject to the 144218
assessment rate specified in division (E) of section 5711.22 of 144219
the Revised Code.144220

       (15) "Furniture and fixtures" means personal property subject 144221
to the assessment rate specified in division (G) of section 144222
5711.22 of the Revised Code.144223

       (16) "Qualifying levies" are levies in effect for tax year 144224
2004 or applicable to tax year 2005 or approved at an election 144225
conducted before September 1, 2005. For the purpose of determining 144226
the rate of a qualifying levy authorized by section 5705.212 or 144227
5705.213 of the Revised Code, the rate shall be the rate that 144228
would be in effect for tax year 2010.144229

       (17) "Telephone property" means tangible personal property of 144230
a telephone, telegraph, or interexchange telecommunications 144231
company subject to an assessment rate specified in section 144232
5727.111 of the Revised Code in tax year 2004.144233

       (18) "Telephone property tax value loss" means the amount 144234
determined under division (C)(4) of this section.144235

       (19) "Telephone property fixed-rate levy loss" means the 144236
amount determined under division (D)(4) of this section.144237

       (20) "Taxes charged and payable" means taxes charged and 144238
payable after the reduction required by section 319.301 of the 144239
Revised Code but before the reductions required by sections 144240
319.302 and 323.152 of the Revised Code.144241

       (21) "Median estate tax collections" means, in the case of a 144242
municipal corporation to which revenue from the taxes levied in 144243
Chapter 5731. of the Revised Code was distributed in each of 144244
calendar years 2006, 2007, 2008, and 2009, the median of those 144245
distributions. In the case of a municipal corporation to which no 144246
distributions were made in one or more of those years, "median 144247
estate tax collections" means zero. 144248

       (22) "Total resources," in the case of a school district, 144249
means the sum of the amounts in divisions (A)(22)(a) to (h) of 144250
this section less any reduction required under division (A)(32) or 144251
(33) of this section.144252

       (a) The state education aid for fiscal year 2010; 144253

       (b) The sum of the payments received by the school district 144254
in fiscal year 2010 for current expense levy losses pursuant to 144255
division (C)(2) of section 5727.85 and divisions (C)(8) and (9) of 144256
section 5751.21 of the Revised Code, excluding the portion of such 144257
payments attributable to levies for joint vocational school 144258
district purposes; 144259

       (c) The sum of fixed-sum levy loss payments received by the 144260
school district in fiscal year 2010 pursuant to division (E)(1) of 144261
section 5727.85 and division (E)(1) of section 5751.21 of the 144262
Revised Code for fixed-sum levies charged and payable for a 144263
purpose other than paying debt charges; 144264

       (d) Fifty per cent of the school district's taxes charged and 144265
payable against all property on the tax list of real and public 144266
utility property for current expense purposes for tax year 2008, 144267
including taxes charged and payable from emergency levies charged 144268
and payable under section 5709.194 of the Revised Code and 144269
excluding taxes levied for joint vocational school district 144270
purposes;144271

       (e) Fifty per cent of the school district's taxes charged and 144272
payable against all property on the tax list of real and public 144273
utility property for current expenses for tax year 2009, including 144274
taxes charged and payable from emergency levies and excluding 144275
taxes levied for joint vocational school district purposes;144276

       (f) The school district's taxes charged and payable against 144277
all property on the general tax list of personal property for 144278
current expenses for tax year 2009, including taxes charged and 144279
payable from emergency levies;144280

       (g) The amount certified for fiscal year 2010 under division 144281
(A)(2) of section 3317.08 of the Revised Code;144282

       (h) Distributions received during calendar year 2009 from 144283
taxes levied under section 718.09 of the Revised Code.144284

       (23) "Total resources," in the case of a joint vocational 144285
school district, means the sum of amounts in divisions (A)(23)(a) 144286
to (g) of this section less any reduction required under division 144287
(A)(32) of this section.144288

       (a) The state education aid for fiscal year 2010; 144289

       (b) The sum of the payments received by the joint vocational 144290
school district in fiscal year 2010 for current expense levy 144291
losses pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 5727.85 and 144292
divisions (C)(8) and (9) of section 5751.21 of the Revised Code; 144293

       (c) Fifty per cent of the joint vocational school district's 144294
taxes charged and payable against all property on the tax list of 144295
real and public utility property for current expense purposes for 144296
tax year 2008;144297

       (d) Fifty per cent of the joint vocational school district's 144298
taxes charged and payable against all property on the tax list of 144299
real and public utility property for current expenses for tax year 144300
2009;144301

       (e) Fifty per cent of a city, local, or exempted village 144302
school district's taxes charged and payable against all property 144303
on the tax list of real and public utility property for current 144304
expenses of the joint vocational school district for tax year 144305
2008;144306

       (f) Fifty per cent of a city, local, or exempted village 144307
school district's taxes charged and payable against all property 144308
on the tax list of real and public utility property for current 144309
expenses of the joint vocational school district for tax year 144310
2009;144311

       (g) The joint vocational school district's taxes charged and 144312
payable against all property on the general tax list of personal 144313
property for current expenses for tax year 2009.144314

       (24) "Total resources," in the case of county mental health 144315
and disability related functions, means the sum of the amounts in 144316
divisions (A)(24)(a) and (b) of this section less any reduction 144317
required under division (A)(32) of this section.144318

       (a) The sum of the payments received by the county for mental 144319
health and developmental disability related functions in calendar 144320
year 2010 under division (A)(1) of section 5727.86 and divisions 144321
(A)(1) and (2) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code as they 144322
existed at that time;144323

       (b) With respect to taxes levied by the county for mental 144324
health and developmental disability related purposes, the taxes 144325
charged and payable for such purposes against all property on the 144326
tax list of real and public utility property for tax year 2009.144327

       (25) "Total resources," in the case of county senior services 144328
related functions, means the sum of the amounts in divisions 144329
(A)(25)(a) and (b) of this section less any reduction required 144330
under division (A)(32) of this section. 144331

       (a) The sum of the payments received by the county for senior 144332
services related functions in calendar year 2010 under division 144333
(A)(1) of section 5727.86 and divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 144334
5751.22 of the Revised Code as they existed at that time; 144335

       (b) With respect to taxes levied by the county for senior 144336
services related purposes, the taxes charged and payable for such 144337
purposes against all property on the tax list of real and public 144338
utility property for tax year 2009. 144339

       (26) "Total resources," in the case of county children's 144340
services related functions, means the sum of the amounts in 144341
divisions (A)(26)(a) and (b) of this section less any reduction 144342
required under division (A)(32) of this section. 144343

       (a) The sum of the payments received by the county for 144344
children's services related functions in calendar year 2010 under 144345
division (A)(1) of section 5727.86 and divisions (A)(1) and (2) of 144346
section 5751.22 of the Revised Code as they existed at that time; 144347

       (b) With respect to taxes levied by the county for children's 144348
services related purposes, the taxes charged and payable for such 144349
purposes against all property on the tax list of real and public 144350
utility property for tax year 2009. 144351

       (27) "Total resources," in the case of county public health 144352
related functions, means the sum of the amounts in divisions 144353
(A)(27)(a) and (b) of this section less any reduction required 144354
under division (A)(32) of this section. 144355

       (a) The sum of the payments received by the county for public 144356
health related functions in calendar year 2010 under division 144357
(A)(1) of section 5727.86 and divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 144358
5751.22 of the Revised Code as they existed at that time; 144359

       (b) With respect to taxes levied by the county for public 144360
health related purposes, the taxes charged and payable for such 144361
purposes against all property on the tax list of real and public 144362
utility property for tax year 2009. 144363

       (28) "Total resources," in the case of all county functions 144364
not included in divisions (A)(24) to (27) of this section, means 144365
the sum of the amounts in divisions (A)(28)(a) to (d) of this 144366
section less any reduction required under division (A)(32) or (33) 144367
of this section. 144368

       (a) The sum of the payments received by the county for all 144369
other purposes in calendar year 2010 under division (A)(1) of 144370
section 5727.86 and divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 5751.22 of 144371
the Revised Code as they existed at that time; 144372

       (b) The county's percentage share of county undivided local 144373
government fund allocations as certified to the tax commissioner 144374
for calendar year 2010 by the county auditor under division (J) of 144375
section 5747.51 of the Revised Code or division (F) of section 144376
5747.53 of the Revised Code multiplied by the total amount 144377
actually distributed in calendar year 2010 from the county 144378
undivided local government fund; 144379

       (c) With respect to taxes levied by the county for all other 144380
purposes, the taxes charged and payable for such purposes against 144381
all property on the tax list of real and public utility property 144382
for tax year 2009, excluding taxes charged and payable for the 144383
purpose of paying debt charges; 144384

       (d) The sum of the amounts distributed to the county in 144385
calendar year 2010 for the taxes levied pursuant to sections 144386
5739.021 and 5741.021 of the Revised Code. 144387

       (29) "Total resources," in the case of a municipal 144388
corporation, means the sum of the amounts in divisions (A)(29)(a) 144389
to (g) of this section less any reduction required under division 144390
(A)(32) or (33) of this section. 144391

       (a) The sum of the payments received by the municipal 144392
corporation in calendar year 2010 for current expense levy losses 144393
under division (A)(1) of section 5727.86 and divisions (A)(1) and 144394
(2) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code as they existed at that 144395
time; 144396

       (b) The municipal corporation's percentage share of county 144397
undivided local government fund allocations as certified to the 144398
tax commissioner for calendar year 2010 by the county auditor 144399
under division (J) of section 5747.51 of the Revised Code or 144400
division (F) of section 5747.53 of the Revised Code multiplied by 144401
the total amount actually distributed in calendar year 2010 from 144402
the county undivided local government fund;144403

       (c) The sum of the amounts distributed to the municipal 144404
corporation in calendar year 2010 pursuant to section 5747.50 of 144405
the Revised Code; 144406

       (d) With respect to taxes levied by the municipal 144407
corporation, the taxes charged and payable against all property on 144408
the tax list of real and public utility property for current 144409
expenses, defined in division (A)(35) of this section, for tax 144410
year 2009; 144411

       (e) The amount of admissions tax collected by the municipal 144412
corporation in calendar year 2008, or if such information has not 144413
yet been reported to the tax commissioner, in the most recent year 144414
before 2008 for which the municipal corporation has reported data 144415
to the commissioner; 144416

       (f) The amount of income taxes collected by the municipal 144417
corporation in calendar year 2008, or if such information has not 144418
yet been reported to the tax commissioner, in the most recent year 144419
before 2008 for which the municipal corporation has reported data 144420
to the commissioner;144421

       (g) The municipal corporation's median estate tax 144422
collections.144423

       (30) "Total resources," in the case of a township, means the 144424
sum of the amounts in divisions (A)(30)(a) to (c) of this section 144425
less any reduction required under division (A)(32) or (33) of this 144426
section. 144427

       (a) The sum of the payments received by the township in 144428
calendar year 2010 pursuant to division (A)(1) of section 5727.86 144429
of the Revised Code and divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 144430
5751.22 of the Revised Code as they existed at that time, 144431
excluding payments received for debt purposes;144432

       (b) The township's percentage share of county undivided local 144433
government fund allocations as certified to the tax commissioner 144434
for calendar year 2010 by the county auditor under division (J) of 144435
section 5747.51 of the Revised Code or division (F) of section 144436
5747.53 of the Revised Code multiplied by the total amount 144437
actually distributed in calendar year 2010 from the county 144438
undivided local government fund; 144439

       (c) With respect to taxes levied by the township, the taxes 144440
charged and payable against all property on the tax list of real 144441
and public utility property for tax year 2009 excluding taxes 144442
charged and payable for the purpose of paying debt charges.144443

       (31) "Total resources," in the case of a local taxing unit 144444
that is not a county, municipal corporation, or township, means 144445
the sum of the amounts in divisions (A)(31)(a) to (e) of this 144446
section less any reduction required under division (A)(32) of this 144447
section.144448

       (a) The sum of the payments received by the local taxing unit 144449
in calendar year 2010 pursuant to division (A)(1) of section 144450
5727.86 of the Revised Code and divisions (A)(1) and (2) of 144451
section 5751.22 of the Revised Code as they existed at that time;144452

       (b) The local taxing unit's percentage share of county 144453
undivided local government fund allocations as certified to the 144454
tax commissioner for calendar year 2010 by the county auditor 144455
under division (J) of section 5747.51 of the Revised Code or 144456
division (F) of section 5747.53 of the Revised Code multiplied by 144457
the total amount actually distributed in calendar year 2010 from 144458
the county undivided local government fund; 144459

       (c) With respect to taxes levied by the local taxing unit, 144460
the taxes charged and payable against all property on the tax list 144461
of real and public utility property for tax year 2009 excluding 144462
taxes charged and payable for the purpose of paying debt charges;144463

       (d) The amount received from the tax commissioner during 144464
calendar year 2010 for sales or use taxes authorized under 144465
sections 5739.023 and 5741.022 of the Revised Code;144466

       (e) For institutions of higher education receiving tax 144467
revenue from a local levy, as identified in section 3358.02 of the 144468
Revised Code, the final state share of instruction allocation for 144469
fiscal year 2010 as calculated by the board of regents and 144470
reported to the state controlling board.144471

       (32) If a fixed-rate levy that is a qualifying levy is not 144472
charged and payable in any year after tax year 2010, "total 144473
resources" used to compute payments to be made under division 144474
(C)(12) of section 5751.21 or division (A)(1)(b) or (c) of section 144475
5751.22 of the Revised Code in the tax years following the last 144476
year the levy is charged and payable shall be reduced to the 144477
extent that the payments are attributable to the fixed-rate levy 144478
loss of that levy as would be computed under division (C)(2) of 144479
section 5727.85, division (A)(1) of section 5727.85, divisions 144480
(C)(8) and (9) of section 5751.21, or division (A)(1) of section 144481
5751.22 of the Revised Code.144482

       (33) In the case of a county, municipal corporation, school 144483
district, or township with fixed-rate levy losses attributable to 144484
a tax levied under section 5705.23 of the Revised Code, "total 144485
resources" used to compute payments to be made under division 144486
(C)(3) of section 5727.85, division (A)(1)(d) of section 5727.86, 144487
division (C)(12) of section 5751.21, or division (A)(1)(c) of 144488
section 5751.22 of the Revised Code shall be reduced by the 144489
amounts described in divisions (A)(34)(a) to (c) of this section 144490
to the extent that those amounts were included in calculating the 144491
"total resources" of the school district or local taxing unit 144492
under division (A)(22), (28), (29), or (30) of this section.144493

        (34) "Total library resources," in the case of a county, 144494
municipal corporation, school district, or township public library 144495
that receives the proceeds of a tax levied under section 5705.23 144496
of the Revised Code, means the sum of the amounts in divisions 144497
(A)(34)(a) to (c) of this section less any reduction required 144498
under division (A)(32) of this section.144499

        (a) The sum of the payments received by the county, municipal 144500
corporation, school district, or township public library in 144501
calendar year 2010 pursuant to sections 5727.86 and 5751.22 of the 144502
Revised Code, as they existed at that time, for fixed-rate levy 144503
losses attributable to a tax levied under section 5705.23 of the 144504
Revised Code for the benefit of the public library;144505

        (b) The public library's percentage share of county undivided 144506
local government fund allocations as certified to the tax 144507
commissioner for calendar year 2010 by the county auditor under 144508
division (J) of section 5747.51 of the Revised Code or division 144509
(F) of section 5747.53 of the Revised Code multiplied by the total 144510
amount actually distributed in calendar year 2010 from the county 144511
undivided local government fund;144512

        (c) With respect to a tax levied pursuant to section 5705.23 144513
of the Revised Code for the benefit of the public library, the 144514
amount of such tax that is charged and payable against all 144515
property on the tax list of real and public utility property for 144516
tax year 2009 excluding any tax that is charged and payable for 144517
the purpose of paying debt charges.144518

        (35) "Municipal current expense property tax levies" means 144519
all property tax levies of a municipality, except those with the 144520
following levy names: airport resurfacing; bond or any levy name 144521
including the word "bond"; capital improvement or any levy name 144522
including the word "capital"; debt or any levy name including the 144523
word "debt"; equipment or any levy name including the word 144524
"equipment," unless the levy is for combined operating and 144525
equipment; employee termination fund; fire pension or any levy 144526
containing the word "pension," including police pensions; 144527
fireman's fund or any practically similar name; sinking fund; road 144528
improvements or any levy containing the word "road"; fire truck or 144529
apparatus; flood or any levy containing the word "flood"; 144530
conservancy district; county health; note retirement; sewage, or 144531
any levy containing the words "sewage" or "sewer"; park 144532
improvement; parkland acquisition; storm drain; street or any levy 144533
name containing the word "street"; lighting, or any levy name 144534
containing the word "lighting"; and water.144535

       (36) "Current expense TPP allocation" means, in the case of a 144536
school district or joint vocational school district, the sum of 144537
the payments received by the school district in fiscal year 2011 144538
pursuant to divisions (C)(10) and (11) of section 5751.21 of the 144539
Revised Code to the extent paid for current expense levies. In the 144540
case of a municipal corporation, "current expense TPP allocation" 144541
means the sum of the payments received by the municipal 144542
corporation in calendar year 2010 pursuant to divisions (A)(1) and 144543
(2) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code to the extent paid for 144544
municipal current expense property tax levies as defined in 144545
division (A)(35) of this section, excluding any such payments 144546
received for current expense levy losses attributable to a tax 144547
levied under section 5705.23 of the Revised Code. If a fixed-rate 144548
levy that is a qualifying levy is not charged and payable in any 144549
year after tax year 2010, "current expense TPP allocation" used to 144550
compute payments to be made under division (C)(12) of section 144551
5751.21 or division (A)(1)(b) or (c) of section 5751.22 of the 144552
Revised Code in the tax years following the last year the levy is 144553
charged and payable shall be reduced to the extent that the 144554
payments are attributable to the fixed-rate levy loss of that levy 144555
as would be computed under divisions (C)(10) and (11) of section 144556
5751.21 or division (A)(1) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code.144557

       (37) "TPP allocation" means the sum of payments received by a 144558
local taxing unit in calendar year 2010 pursuant to divisions 144559
(A)(1) and (2) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code, excluding 144560
any such payments received for fixed-rate levy losses attributable 144561
to a tax levied under section 5705.23 of the Revised Code. If a 144562
fixed-rate levy that is a qualifying levy is not charged and 144563
payable in any year after tax year 2010, "TPP allocation" used to 144564
compute payments to be made under division (A)(1)(b) or (c) of 144565
section 5751.22 of the Revised Code in the tax years following the 144566
last year the levy is charged and payable shall be reduced to the 144567
extent that the payments are attributable to the fixed-rate levy 144568
loss of that levy as would be computed under division (A)(1) of 144569
that section.144570

       (38) "Total TPP allocation" means, in the case of a school 144571
district or joint vocational school district, the sum of the 144572
amounts received in fiscal year 2011 pursuant to divisions (C)(10) 144573
and (11) and (D) of section 5751.21 of the Revised Code. In the 144574
case of a local taxing unit, "total TPP allocation" means the sum 144575
of payments received by the unit in calendar year 2010 pursuant to 144576
divisions (A)(1), (2), and (3) of section 5751.22 of the Revised 144577
Code. If a fixed-rate levy that is a qualifying levy is not 144578
charged and payable in any year after tax year 2010, "total TPP 144579
allocation" used to compute payments to be made under division 144580
(C)(12) of section 5751.21 or division (A)(1)(b) or (c) of section 144581
5751.22 of the Revised Code in the tax years following the last 144582
year the levy is charged and payable shall be reduced to the 144583
extent that the payments are attributable to the fixed-rate levy 144584
loss of that levy as would be computed under divisions (C)(10) and 144585
(11) of section 5751.21 or division (A)(1) of section 5751.22 of 144586
the Revised Code.144587

       (39) "Non-current expense TPP allocation" means the 144588
difference of total TPP allocation minus the sum of current 144589
expense TPP allocation and the portion of total TPP allocation 144590
constituting reimbursement for debt levies, pursuant to division 144591
(D) of section 5751.21 of the Revised Code in the case of a school 144592
district or joint vocational school district and pursuant to 144593
division (A)(3) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code in the case 144594
of a municipal corporation. 144595

       (40) "TPP allocation for library purposes" means the sum of 144596
payments received by a county, municipal corporation, school 144597
district, or township public library in calendar year 2010 144598
pursuant to section 5751.22 of the Revised Code for fixed-rate 144599
levy losses attributable to a tax levied under section 5705.23 of 144600
the Revised Code. If a fixed-rate levy authorized under section 144601
5705.23 of the Revised Code that is a qualifying levy is not 144602
charged and payable in any year after tax year 2010, "TPP 144603
allocation for library purposes" used to compute payments to be 144604
made under division (A)(1)(d) of section 5751.22 of the Revised 144605
Code in the tax years following the last year the levy is charged 144606
and payable shall be reduced to the extent that the payments are 144607
attributable to the fixed-rate levy loss of that levy as would be 144608
computed under division (A)(1) of section 5751.22 of the Revised 144609
Code.144610

        (41) "Threshold per cent" means, in the case of a school 144611
district or joint vocational school district, two per cent for 144612
fiscal year 2012 and four per cent for fiscal years 2013 and 144613
thereafter. In the case of a local taxing unit or public library 144614
that receives the proceeds of a tax levied under section 5705.23 144615
of the Revised Code, "threshold per cent" means two per cent for 144616
tax year 2011, four per cent for tax year 2012, and six per cent 144617
for tax years 2013 and thereafter.144618

       (B)(1) The commercial activities tax receipts fund is hereby 144619
created in the state treasury and shall consist of money arising 144620
from the tax imposed under this chapter. Eighty-five 144621
one-hundredths of one per cent of the money credited to that fund 144622
shall be credited to the revenue enhancement fund and shall be 144623
used to defray the costs incurred by the department of taxation in 144624
administering the tax imposed by this chapter and in implementing 144625
tax reform measures. The remainder of the money in the commercial 144626
activities tax receipts fund shall first be credited to the 144627
commercial activity tax motor fuel receipts fund, pursuant to 144628
division (B)(2) of this section, and the remainder shall be 144629
credited in the following percentages each fiscal year to the 144630
general revenue fund, to the school district tangible property tax 144631
replacement fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury 144632
for the purpose of making the payments described in section 144633
5751.21 of the Revised Code, and to the local government tangible 144634
property tax replacement fund, which is hereby created in the 144635
state treasury for the purpose of making the payments described in 144636
section 5751.22 of the Revised Code, in the following percentages:144637

Fiscal year General Revenue Fund School District Tangible Property Tax Replacement Fund Local Government Tangible Property Tax Replacement Fund 144638
2006 67.7% 22.6% 9.7% 144639
2007 0% 70.0% 30.0% 144640
2008 0% 70.0% 30.0% 144641
2009 0% 70.0% 30.0% 144642
2010 0% 70.0% 30.0% 144643
2011 0% 70.0% 30.0% 144644
2012 25.0% 52.5% 22.5% 144645
2013 and thereafter 50.0% 35.0% 15.0% 144646

       (2) Not later than the twentieth day of February, May, 144647
August, and November of each year, the commissioner shall provide 144648
for payment from the commercial activities tax receipts fund to 144649
the commercial activity tax motor fuel receipts fund an amount 144650
that bears the same ratio to the balance in the commercial 144651
activities tax receipts fund that (a) the taxable gross receipts 144652
attributed to motor fuel used for propelling vehicles on public 144653
highways as indicated by returns filed by the tenth day of that 144654
month for a liability that is due and payable on or after July 1, 144655
2013, for a tax period ending before July 1, 2014, bears to (b) 144656
all taxable gross receipts as indicated by those returns for such 144657
liabilities.144658

       (C) Not later than September 15, 2005, the tax commissioner 144659
shall determine for each school district, joint vocational school 144660
district, and local taxing unit its machinery and equipment, 144661
inventory property, furniture and fixtures property, and telephone 144662
property tax value losses, which are the applicable amounts 144663
described in divisions (C)(1), (2), (3), and (4) of this section, 144664
except as provided in division (C)(5) of this section:144665

       (1) Machinery and equipment property tax value loss is the 144666
taxable value of machinery and equipment property as reported by 144667
taxpayers for tax year 2004 multiplied by:144668

       (a) For tax year 2006, thirty-three and eight-tenths per 144669
cent;144670

       (b) For tax year 2007, sixty-one and three-tenths per cent;144671

       (c) For tax year 2008, eighty-three per cent;144672

       (d) For tax year 2009 and thereafter, one hundred per cent.144673

       (2) Inventory property tax value loss is the taxable value of 144674
inventory property as reported by taxpayers for tax year 2004 144675
multiplied by:144676

       (a) For tax year 2006, a fraction, the numerator of which is 144677
five and three-fourths and the denominator of which is 144678
twenty-three;144679

        (b) For tax year 2007, a fraction, the numerator of which is 144680
nine and one-half and the denominator of which is twenty-three;144681

        (c) For tax year 2008, a fraction, the numerator of which is 144682
thirteen and one-fourth and the denominator of which is 144683
twenty-three;144684

        (d) For tax year 2009 and thereafter a fraction, the 144685
numerator of which is seventeen and the denominator of which is 144686
twenty-three.144687

        (3) Furniture and fixtures property tax value loss is the 144688
taxable value of furniture and fixture property as reported by 144689
taxpayers for tax year 2004 multiplied by:144690

        (a) For tax year 2006, twenty-five per cent;144691

        (b) For tax year 2007, fifty per cent;144692

        (c) For tax year 2008, seventy-five per cent;144693

        (d) For tax year 2009 and thereafter, one hundred per cent.144694

       The taxable value of property reported by taxpayers used in 144695
divisions (C)(1), (2), and (3) of this section shall be such 144696
values as determined to be final by the tax commissioner as of 144697
August 31, 2005. Such determinations shall be final except for any 144698
correction of a clerical error that was made prior to August 31, 144699
2005, by the tax commissioner.144700

       (4) Telephone property tax value loss is the taxable value of 144701
telephone property as taxpayers would have reported that property 144702
for tax year 2004 if the assessment rate for all telephone 144703
property for that year were twenty-five per cent, multiplied by:144704

       (a) For tax year 2006, zero per cent;144705

       (b) For tax year 2007, zero per cent;144706

       (c) For tax year 2008, zero per cent;144707

       (d) For tax year 2009, sixty per cent;144708

       (e) For tax year 2010, eighty per cent;144709

       (f) For tax year 2011 and thereafter, one hundred per cent.144710

       (5) Division (C)(5) of this section applies to any school 144711
district, joint vocational school district, or local taxing unit 144712
in a county in which is located a facility currently or formerly 144713
devoted to the enrichment or commercialization of uranium or 144714
uranium products, and for which the total taxable value of 144715
property listed on the general tax list of personal property for 144716
any tax year from tax year 2001 to tax year 2004 was fifty per 144717
cent or less of the taxable value of such property listed on the 144718
general tax list of personal property for the next preceding tax 144719
year.144720

       In computing the fixed-rate levy losses under divisions 144721
(D)(1), (2), and (3) of this section for any school district, 144722
joint vocational school district, or local taxing unit to which 144723
division (C)(5) of this section applies, the taxable value of such 144724
property as listed on the general tax list of personal property 144725
for tax year 2000 shall be substituted for the taxable value of 144726
such property as reported by taxpayers for tax year 2004, in the 144727
taxing district containing the uranium facility, if the taxable 144728
value listed for tax year 2000 is greater than the taxable value 144729
reported by taxpayers for tax year 2004. For the purpose of making 144730
the computations under divisions (D)(1), (2), and (3) of this 144731
section, the tax year 2000 valuation is to be allocated to 144732
machinery and equipment, inventory, and furniture and fixtures 144733
property in the same proportions as the tax year 2004 values. For 144734
the purpose of the calculations in division (A) of section 5751.21 144735
of the Revised Code, the tax year 2004 taxable values shall be 144736
used.144737

       To facilitate the calculations required under division (C) of 144738
this section, the county auditor, upon request from the tax 144739
commissioner, shall provide by August 1, 2005, the values of 144740
machinery and equipment, inventory, and furniture and fixtures for 144741
all single-county personal property taxpayers for tax year 2004.144742

       (D) Not later than September 15, 2005, the tax commissioner 144743
shall determine for each tax year from 2006 through 2009 for each 144744
school district, joint vocational school district, and local 144745
taxing unit its machinery and equipment, inventory, and furniture 144746
and fixtures fixed-rate levy losses, and for each tax year from 144747
2006 through 2011 its telephone property fixed-rate levy loss. 144748
Except as provided in division (F) of this section, such losses 144749
are the applicable amounts described in divisions (D)(1), (2), 144750
(3), and (4) of this section:144751

       (1) The machinery and equipment fixed-rate levy loss is the 144752
machinery and equipment property tax value loss multiplied by the 144753
sum of the tax rates of fixed-rate qualifying levies.144754

       (2) The inventory fixed-rate loss is the inventory property 144755
tax value loss multiplied by the sum of the tax rates of 144756
fixed-rate qualifying levies.144757

        (3) The furniture and fixtures fixed-rate levy loss is the 144758
furniture and fixture property tax value loss multiplied by the 144759
sum of the tax rates of fixed-rate qualifying levies.144760

       (4) The telephone property fixed-rate levy loss is the 144761
telephone property tax value loss multiplied by the sum of the tax 144762
rates of fixed-rate qualifying levies.144763

       (E) Not later than September 15, 2005, the tax commissioner 144764
shall determine for each school district, joint vocational school 144765
district, and local taxing unit its fixed-sum levy loss. The 144766
fixed-sum levy loss is the amount obtained by subtracting the 144767
amount described in division (E)(2) of this section from the 144768
amount described in division (E)(1) of this section:144769

       (1) The sum of the machinery and equipment property tax value 144770
loss, the inventory property tax value loss, and the furniture and 144771
fixtures property tax value loss, and, for 2008 through 2010, the 144772
telephone property tax value loss of the district or unit 144773
multiplied by the sum of the fixed-sum tax rates of qualifying 144774
levies. For 2006 through 2010, this computation shall include all 144775
qualifying levies remaining in effect for the current tax year and 144776
any school district levies charged and payable under section 144777
5705.194 or 5705.213 of the Revised Code that are qualifying 144778
levies not remaining in effect for the current year. For 2011 144779
through 2017 in the case of school district levies charged and 144780
payable under section 5705.194 or 5705.213 of the Revised Code and 144781
for all years after 2010 in the case of other fixed-sum levies, 144782
this computation shall include only qualifying levies remaining in 144783
effect for the current year. For purposes of this computation, a 144784
qualifying school district levy charged and payable under section 144785
5705.194 or 5705.213 of the Revised Code remains in effect in a 144786
year after 2010 only if, for that year, the board of education 144787
levies a school district levy charged and payable under section 144788
5705.194, 5705.199, 5705.213, or 5705.219 of the Revised Code for 144789
an annual sum at least equal to the annual sum levied by the board 144790
in tax year 2004 less the amount of the payment certified under 144791
this division for 2006.144792

       (2) The total taxable value in tax year 2004 less the sum of 144793
the machinery and equipment, inventory, furniture and fixtures, 144794
and telephone property tax value losses in each school district, 144795
joint vocational school district, and local taxing unit multiplied 144796
by one-half of one mill per dollar.144797

       (3) For the calculations in divisions (E)(1) and (2) of this 144798
section, the tax value losses are those that would be calculated 144799
for tax year 2009 under divisions (C)(1), (2), and (3) of this 144800
section and for tax year 2011 under division (C)(4) of this 144801
section.144802

       (4) To facilitate the calculation under divisions (D) and (E) 144803
of this section, not later than September 1, 2005, any school 144804
district, joint vocational school district, or local taxing unit 144805
that has a qualifying levy that was approved at an election 144806
conducted during 2005 before September 1, 2005, shall certify to 144807
the tax commissioner a copy of the county auditor's certificate of 144808
estimated property tax millage for such levy as required under 144809
division (B) of section 5705.03 of the Revised Code, which is the 144810
rate that shall be used in the calculations under such divisions.144811

       If the amount determined under division (E) of this section 144812
for any school district, joint vocational school district, or 144813
local taxing unit is greater than zero, that amount shall equal 144814
the reimbursement to be paid pursuant to division (E) of section 144815
5751.21 or division (A)(3) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code, 144816
and the one-half of one mill that is subtracted under division 144817
(E)(2) of this section shall be apportioned among all contributing 144818
fixed-sum levies in the proportion that each levy bears to the sum 144819
of all fixed-sum levies within each school district, joint 144820
vocational school district, or local taxing unit.144821

       (F) If a school district levies a tax under section 5705.219 144822
of the Revised Code, the fixed-rate levy loss for qualifying 144823
levies, to the extent repealed under that section, shall equal the 144824
sum of the following amounts in lieu of the amounts computed for 144825
such levies under division (D) of this section:144826

       (1) The sum of the rates of qualifying levies to the extent 144827
so repealed multiplied by the sum of the machinery and equipment, 144828
inventory, and furniture and fixtures tax value losses for 2009 as 144829
determined under that division;144830

       (2) The sum of the rates of qualifying levies to the extent 144831
so repealed multiplied by the telephone property tax value loss 144832
for 2011 as determined under that division.144833

       The fixed-rate levy losses for qualifying levies to the 144834
extent not repealed under section 5705.219 of the Revised Code 144835
shall be as determined under division (D) of this section. The 144836
revised fixed-rate levy losses determined under this division and 144837
division (D) of this section first apply in the year following the 144838
first year the district levies the tax under section 5705.219 of 144839
the Revised Code.144840

       (G) Not later than October 1, 2005, the tax commissioner 144841
shall certify to the department of education for every school 144842
district and joint vocational school district the machinery and 144843
equipment, inventory, furniture and fixtures, and telephone 144844
property tax value losses determined under division (C) of this 144845
section, the machinery and equipment, inventory, furniture and 144846
fixtures, and telephone fixed-rate levy losses determined under 144847
division (D) of this section, and the fixed-sum levy losses 144848
calculated under division (E) of this section. The calculations 144849
under divisions (D) and (E) of this section shall separately 144850
display the levy loss for each levy eligible for reimbursement.144851

       (H) Not later than October 1, 2005, the tax commissioner 144852
shall certify the amount of the fixed-sum levy losses to the 144853
county auditor of each county in which a school district, joint 144854
vocational school district, or local taxing unit with a fixed-sum 144855
levy loss reimbursement has territory.144856

       (I) Not later than the twenty-eighth day of February each 144857
year beginning in 2011 and ending in 2014, the tax commissioner 144858
shall certify to the department of education for each school 144859
district first levying a tax under section 5705.219 of the Revised 144860
Code in the preceding year the revised fixed-rate levy losses 144861
determined under divisions (D) and (F) of this section.144862

       (J)(1) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 144863
commercial activity tax motor fuel receipts fund.144864

       (2)(a) On or before June 15, 2014, the director of the Ohio 144865
public works commission shall certify to the director of budget 144866
and management the amount of debt service paid from the general 144867
revenue fund in fiscal years 2013 and 2014 on bonds issued to 144868
finance or assist in the financing of the cost of local 144869
subdivision public infrastructure capital improvement projects, as 144870
provided for in Sections 2k, 2m, and 2p of Article VIII, Ohio 144871
Constitution, that are attributable to costs for construction, 144872
reconstruction, maintenance, or repair of public highways and 144873
bridges and other statutory highway purposes. That certification 144874
shall allocate the total amount of debt service paid from the 144875
general revenue fund and attributable to those costs in each of 144876
fiscal years 2013 and 2014 according to the applicable section of 144877
the Ohio Constitution under which the bonds were originally 144878
issued.144879

       (b) On or before June 30, 2014, the director of budget and 144880
management shall determine an amount up to but not exceeding the 144881
amount certified under division (J)(2)(a) of this section and 144882
shall reserve that amount from the cash balance in the commercial 144883
activity tax motor fuel receipts fund for transfer to the general 144884
revenue fund at times and in amounts to be determined by the 144885
director. The director shall transfer the cash balance in the 144886
commercial activity tax motor fuel receipts fund in excess of the 144887
amount so reserved to the highway operating fund on or before June 144888
30, 2014.144889

       (3)(a) On or before the fifteenth day of June of each fiscal 144890
year beginning with fiscal year 2015, the director of the Ohio 144891
public works commission shall certify to the director of budget 144892
and management the amount of debt service paid from the general 144893
revenue fund in the current fiscal year on bonds issued to finance 144894
or assist in the financing of the cost of local subdivision public 144895
infrastructure capital improvement projects, as provided for in 144896
Sections 2k, 2m, and 2p of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, that 144897
are attributable to costs for construction, reconstruction, 144898
maintenance, or repair of public highways and bridges and other 144899
statutory highway purposes. That certification shall allocate the 144900
total amount of debt service paid from the general revenue fund 144901
and attributable to those costs in the current fiscal year 144902
according to the applicable section of the Ohio Constitution under 144903
which the bonds were originally issued.144904

       (b) On or before the thirtieth day of June of each fiscal 144905
year beginning with fiscal year 2015, the director of budget and 144906
management shall determine an amount up to but not exceeding the 144907
amount certified under division (J)(3)(a) of this section and 144908
shall reserve that amount from the cash balance in the motor fuel 144909
receipts tax public highways fund or the commercial activity tax 144910
motor fuel receipts fund for transfer to the general revenue fund 144911
at times and in amounts to be determined by the director. The 144912
director shall transfer the cash balance in the motor fuel 144913
receipts tax public highways fund or the commercial activity tax 144914
motor fuel receipts fund in excess of the amount so reserved to 144915
the highway operating fund on or before the thirtieth day of June 144916
of the current fiscal year.144917

       Sec. 5751.21.  (A) Not later than the thirtieth day of July 144918
of 2007 through 2010, the department of education shall consult 144919
with the director of budget and management and determine the 144920
following for each school district and each joint vocational 144921
school district eligible for payment under division (B) of this 144922
section:144923

       (1) The state education aid offset, which, except as provided 144924
in division (A)(1)(c) of this section, is the difference obtained 144925
by subtracting the amount described in division (A)(1)(b) of this 144926
section from the amount described in division (A)(1)(a) of this 144927
section:144928

       (a) The state education aid computed for the school district 144929
or joint vocational school district for the current fiscal year as 144930
of the thirtieth day of July;144931

       (b) The state education aid that would be computed for the 144932
school district or joint vocational school district for the 144933
current fiscal year as of the thirtieth day of July if the 144934
valuation used in the calculation in division (B)(1) of section 144935
3306.13 of the Revised Code as that division existed for fiscal 144936
years 2010 and 2011 included the machinery and equipment, 144937
inventory, furniture and fixtures, and telephone property tax 144938
value losses for the school district or joint vocational school 144939
district for the second preceding tax year, and if taxes charged 144940
and payable associated with the tax value losses are accounted for 144941
in any state education aid computation dependent on taxes charged 144942
and payable.144943

       (c) The state education aid offset for fiscal year 2010 and 144944
fiscal year 2011 equals the greater of the state education aid 144945
offset calculated for that fiscal year under divisions (A)(1)(a) 144946
and (b) of this section and the state education aid offset 144947
calculated for fiscal year 2009. For fiscal year 2012 and 2013, 144948
the state education aid offset equals the state education aid 144949
offset for fiscal year 2011.144950

       (2) For fiscal years 2008 through 2011, the greater of zero 144951
or the difference obtained by subtracting the state education aid 144952
offset determined under division (A)(1) of this section from the 144953
sum of the machinery and equipment fixed-rate levy loss, the 144954
inventory fixed-rate levy loss, furniture and fixtures fixed-rate 144955
levy loss, and telephone property fixed-rate levy loss certified 144956
under divisions (G) and (I) of section 5751.20 of the Revised Code 144957
for all taxing districts in each school district and joint 144958
vocational school district for the second preceding tax year.144959

       By the thirtieth day of July of each such year, the 144960
department of education and the director of budget and management 144961
shall agree upon the amount to be determined under division (A)(1) 144962
of this section.144963

       (B) On or before the thirty-first day of August of 2008, 144964
2009, and 2010, the department of education shall recalculate the 144965
offset described under division (A) of this section for the 144966
previous fiscal year and recalculate the payments made under 144967
division (C) of this section in the preceding fiscal year using 144968
the offset calculated under this division. If the payments 144969
calculated under this division differ from the payments made under 144970
division (C) of this section in the preceding fiscal year, the 144971
difference shall either be paid to a school district or recaptured 144972
from a school district through an adjustment at the same times 144973
during the current fiscal year that the payments under division 144974
(C) of this section are made. In August and October of the current 144975
fiscal year, the amount of each adjustment shall be three-sevenths 144976
of the amount calculated under this division. In May of the 144977
current fiscal year, the adjustment shall be one-seventh of the 144978
amount calculated under this division.144979

       (C) The department of education shall pay from the school 144980
district tangible property tax replacement fund to each school 144981
district and joint vocational school district all of the following 144982
for fixed-rate levy losses certified under divisions (G) and (I) 144983
of section 5751.20 of the Revised Code:144984

       (1) On or before May 31, 2006, one-seventh of the total 144985
fixed-rate levy loss for tax year 2006;144986

       (2) On or before August 31, 2006, and October 31, 2006, 144987
one-half of six-sevenths of the total fixed-rate levy loss for tax 144988
year 2006;144989

       (3) On or before May 31, 2007, one-seventh of the total 144990
fixed-rate levy loss for tax year 2007;144991

       (4) On or before August 31, 2007, and October 31, 2007, 144992
forty-three per cent of the amount determined under division 144993
(A)(2) of this section for fiscal year 2008, but not less than 144994
zero, plus one-half of six-sevenths of the difference between the 144995
total fixed-rate levy loss for tax year 2007 and the total 144996
fixed-rate levy loss for tax year 2006.144997

       (5) On or before May 31, 2008, fourteen per cent of the 144998
amount determined under division (A)(2) of this section for fiscal 144999
year 2008, but not less than zero, plus one-seventh of the 145000
difference between the total fixed-rate levy loss for tax year 145001
2008 and the total fixed-rate levy loss for tax year 2006.145002

       (6) On or before August 31, 2008, and October 31, 2008, 145003
forty-three per cent of the amount determined under division 145004
(A)(2) of this section for fiscal year 2009, but not less than 145005
zero, plus one-half of six-sevenths of the difference between the 145006
total fixed-rate levy loss in tax year 2008 and the total 145007
fixed-rate levy loss in tax year 2007.145008

       (7) On or before May 31, 2009, fourteen per cent of the 145009
amount determined under division (A)(2) of this section for fiscal 145010
year 2009, but not less than zero, plus one-seventh of the 145011
difference between the total fixed-rate levy loss for tax year 145012
2009 and the total fixed-rate levy loss for tax year 2007.145013

       (8) On or before August 31, 2009, and October 31, 2009, 145014
forty-three per cent of the amount determined under division 145015
(A)(2) of this section for fiscal year 2010, but not less than 145016
zero, plus one-half of six-sevenths of the difference between the 145017
total fixed-rate levy loss in tax year 2009 and the total 145018
fixed-rate levy loss in tax year 2008.145019

       (9) On or before May 31, 2010, fourteen per cent of the 145020
amount determined under division (A)(2) of this section for fiscal 145021
year 2010, but not less than zero, plus one-seventh of the 145022
difference between the total fixed-rate levy loss in tax year 2010 145023
and the total fixed-rate levy loss in tax year 2008.145024

       (10) On or before August 31, 2010, and October 31, 2010, 145025
forty-three per cent of the amount determined under division 145026
(A)(2) of this section for fiscal year 2011, but not less than 145027
zero, plus one-half of six-sevenths of the difference between the 145028
telephone property fixed-rate levy loss for tax year 2010 and the 145029
telephone property fixed-rate levy loss for tax year 2009.145030

       (11) On or before May 31, 2011, fourteen per cent of the 145031
amount determined under division (A)(2) of this section for fiscal 145032
year 2011, but not less than zero, plus one-seventh of the 145033
difference between the telephone property fixed-rate levy loss for 145034
tax year 2011 and the telephone property fixed-rate levy loss for 145035
tax year 2009.145036

       (12) For fiscal years 2012 and thereafter, the sum of the 145037
amounts in divisions (C)(12)(a) or (b) and (c) of this section 145038
shall be paid on or before the twentiethlast day of November and 145039
the last day of May:145040

       (a) If the ratio of current expense TPP allocation to total 145041
resources is equal to or less than the threshold per cent, zero;145042

       (b) If the ratio of current expense TPP allocation to total 145043
resources is greater than the threshold per cent, fifty per cent 145044
of the difference of current expense TPP allocation minus the 145045
product of total resources multiplied by the threshold per cent;145046

       (c) Fifty per cent of the product of non-current expense TPP 145047
allocation multiplied by seventy-five per cent for fiscal year 145048
2012 and fifty per cent for fiscal years 2013 and thereafter.145049

       The department of education shall report to each school 145050
district and joint vocational school district the apportionment of 145051
the payments among the school district's or joint vocational 145052
school district's funds based on the certifications under 145053
divisions (G) and (I) of section 5751.20 of the Revised Code.145054

       (D) For taxes levied within the ten-mill limitation for debt 145055
purposes in tax year 2005, payments shall be made equal to one 145056
hundred per cent of the loss computed as if the tax were a 145057
fixed-rate levy, but those payments shall extend from fiscal year 145058
2006 through fiscal year 2018, as long as the qualifying levy 145059
continues to be used for debt purposes. If the purpose of such a 145060
qualifying levy is changed, that levy becomes subject to the 145061
payments determined in division (C) of this section.145062

       (E)(1) Not later than January 1, 2006, for each fixed-sum 145063
levy of each school district or joint vocational school district 145064
and for each year for which a determination is made under division 145065
(E) of section 5751.20 of the Revised Code that a fixed-sum levy 145066
loss is to be reimbursed, the tax commissioner shall certify to 145067
the department of education the fixed-sum levy loss determined 145068
under that division. The certification shall cover a time period 145069
sufficient to include all fixed-sum levies for which the 145070
commissioner made such a determination. On or before the last day 145071
of May of the current year, the department shall pay from the 145072
school district property tax replacement fund to the school 145073
district or joint vocational school district one-third of the 145074
fixed-sum levy loss so certified, plus one-third of the amount 145075
certified under division (I) of section 5751.20 of the Revised 145076
Code, and on or before the twentiethlast day of November, 145077
two-thirds of the fixed-sum levy loss so certified, plus 145078
two-thirds of the amount certified under division (I) of section 145079
5751.20 of the Revised Code. Payments under this division of the 145080
amounts certified under division (I) of section 5751.20 of the 145081
Revised Code shall continue until the levy adopted under section 145082
5705.219 of the Revised Code expires.145083

       (2) Beginning in 2006, by the first day of January of each 145084
year, the tax commissioner shall review the certification 145085
originally made under division (E)(1) of this section. If the 145086
commissioner determines that a debt levy that had been scheduled 145087
to be reimbursed in the current year has expired, a revised 145088
certification for that and all subsequent years shall be made to 145089
the department of education.145090

       (F) Beginning in September 2007 and through June 2013, the 145091
director of budget and management shall transfer from the school 145092
district tangible property tax replacement fund to the general 145093
revenue fund each of the following:145094

       (1) On the first day of September, one-fourth of the amount 145095
determined for that fiscal year under division (A)(1) of this 145096
section;145097

       (2) On the first day of December, one-fourth of the amount 145098
determined for that fiscal year under division (A)(1) of this 145099
section;145100

       (3) On the first day of March, one-fourth of the amount 145101
determined for that fiscal year under division (A)(1) of this 145102
section;145103

       (4) On the first day of June, one-fourth of the amount 145104
determined for that fiscal year under division (A)(1) of this 145105
section.145106

       If, when a transfer is required under division (F)(1), (2), 145107
(3), or (4) of this section, there is not sufficient money in the 145108
school district tangible property tax replacement fund to make the 145109
transfer in the required amount, the director shall transfer the 145110
balance in the fund to the general revenue fund and may make 145111
additional transfers on later dates as determined by the director 145112
in a total amount that does not exceed one-fourth of the amount 145113
determined for the fiscal year.145114

       (G) If the total amount in the school district tangible 145115
property tax replacement fund is insufficient to make all payments 145116
under divisions (C), (D), and (E) of this section at the times the 145117
payments are to be made, the director of budget and management 145118
shall transfer from the general revenue fund to the school 145119
district tangible property tax replacement fund the difference 145120
between the total amount to be paid and the amount in the school 145121
district tangible property tax replacement fund. 145122

       (H) On the fifteenth day of June of each year, the director 145123
of budget and management may transfer any balance in the school 145124
district tangible property tax replacement fund to the general 145125
revenue fund. 145126

       (I) If all of the territory of a school district or joint 145127
vocational school district is merged with another district, or if 145128
a part of the territory of a school district or joint vocational 145129
school district is transferred to an existing or newly created 145130
district, the department of education, in consultation with the 145131
tax commissioner, shall adjust the payments made under this 145132
section as follows:145133

       (1) For a merger of two or more districts, the fixed-sum levy 145134
losses, total resources, current expense TPP allocation, total TPP 145135
allocation, and non-current expense TPP allocation of the 145136
successor district shall be the sum of such items for each of the 145137
districts involved in the merger.145138

       (2) If property is transferred from one district to a 145139
previously existing district, the amount of total resources, 145140
current expense TPP allocation, total TPP allocation, and 145141
non-current expense TPP allocation that shall be transferred to 145142
the recipient district shall be an amount equal to total 145143
resources, current expense TPP allocation, total TPP allocation, 145144
and non-current expense TPP allocation of the transferor district 145145
times a fraction, the numerator of which is the number of pupils 145146
being transferred to the recipient district, measured, in the case 145147
of a school district, by average daily membership as reported 145148
under division (A) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code or, in 145149
the case of a joint vocational school district, by formula ADM as 145150
reported in division (D) of that section, and the denominator of 145151
which is the average daily membership or formula ADM of the 145152
transferor district.145153

       (3) After December 31, 2010, if property is transferred from 145154
one or more districts to a district that is newly created out of 145155
the transferred property, the newly created district shall be 145156
deemed not to have any total resources, current expense TPP 145157
allocation, total TPP allocation, or non-current expense TPP 145158
allocation.145159

       (4) If the recipient district under division (I)(2) of this 145160
section or the newly created district under division (I)(3) of 145161
this section is assuming debt from one or more of the districts 145162
from which the property was transferred and any of the districts 145163
losing the property had fixed-sum levy losses, the department of 145164
education, in consultation with the tax commissioner, shall make 145165
an equitable division of the fixed-sum levy loss reimbursements.145166

       Sec. 5751.55.  (A) As used in this section, "certificate 145167
owner" has the same meaning as in section 149.311 of the Revised 145168
Code.145169

       (B) There is allowed a refundable credit against the tax 145170
imposed by section 5751.02 of the Revised Code for any taxpayer 145171
that is the certificate owner of a rehabilitation tax credit 145172
certificate issued under section 149.311 of the Revised Code. The 145173
credit shall equal twenty-five per cent of the dollar amount 145174
indicated on the certificate, but shall not exceed five million 145175
dollars. The credit shall be claimed for the calendar year 145176
specified in the certificate and in the order required under 145177
section 5751.98 of the Revised Code. For the purpose of making tax 145178
payments under this chapter, taxes equal to the amount of the 145179
credit shall be considered to be paid to the state on the first 145180
day of the tax period.145181

       (C) A taxpayer claiming a credit under this section shall 145182
retain the rehabilitation tax credit certificate for four years 145183
following the end of the tax period to which the credit was 145184
applied and shall make the certificate available for inspection by 145185
the tax commissioner upon the request of the commissioner during 145186
that four-year period.145187

       (D) Nothing in this section limits or disallows pass-through 145188
treatment of the credit if the certificate owner is a pass-through 145189
entity. If the certificate owner is a pass-through entity, the 145190
credit may be allocated among the entity's equity owners in such 145191
proportions or amounts as the equity owners mutually agree, 145192
whether or not the equity owner allocated the credit is part of a 145193
combined taxpayer or consolidated elected taxpayer group with the 145194
pass-through entity.145195

        (E) Notwithstanding division (B) of this section, a taxpayer 145196
that is a certificate owner and that could have claimed the credit 145197
under section 5733.47 of the Revised Code for tax year 2014 or 145198
2015, as that section existed before its amendment by H.B. 510 of 145199
the 129th general assembly, may claim the credit under this 145200
section for calendar year 2013 or 2014. Nothing in this division 145201
allows a taxpayer to claim the credit more than once.145202

       Sec. 5751.98.  (A) To provide a uniform procedure for 145203
calculating the amount of tax due under this chapter, a taxpayer 145204
shall claim any credits to which it is entitled in the following 145205
order:145206

        (1) The nonrefundable jobs retention credit under division 145207
(B) of section 5751.50 of the Revised Code;145208

        (2) The nonrefundable credit for qualified research expenses 145209
under division (B) of section 5751.51 of the Revised Code;145210

        (3) The nonrefundable credit for a borrower's qualified 145211
research and development loan payments under division (B) of 145212
section 5751.52 of the Revised Code;145213

        (4) The nonrefundable credit for calendar years 2010 to 2029 145214
for unused net operating losses under division (B) of section 145215
5751.53 of the Revised Code;145216

        (5) The refundable motion picture production credit under 145217
section 5751.54 of the Revised Code;145218

        (6) The refundable jobs creation credit or job retention 145219
credit under division (A) of section 5751.50 of the Revised Code;145220

       (7) The refundable credit for calendar year 2030 for unused 145221
net operating losses under division (C) of section 5751.53 of the 145222
Revised Code;145223

       (8) The refundable credit for rehabilitating a historic 145224
building under section 5751.55 of the Revised Code.145225

        (B) For any credit except the refundable credits enumerated 145226
in this section, the amount of the credit for a tax period shall 145227
not exceed the tax due after allowing for any other credit that 145228
precedes it in the order required under this section. Any excess 145229
amount of a particular credit may be carried forward if authorized 145230
under the section creating the credit.145231

       Sec. 5753.03.  (A) For the purpose of receiving and 145232
distributing, and accounting for, revenue received from the tax 145233
levied by section 5753.02 of the Revised Code, the following funds 145234
are created in the state treasury:145235

       (1) The casino tax revenue fund;145236

       (2) The gross casino revenue county fund;145237

       (3) The gross casino revenue county student fund;145238

       (4) The gross casino revenue host city fund;145239

       (5) The Ohio state racing commission fund;145240

       (6) The Ohio law enforcement training fund;145241

       (7) The problem casino gambling and addictions fund;145242

       (8) The casino control commission fund;145243

       (9) The casino tax administration fund;145244

       (10) The peace officer training academy fund;145245

       (11) The criminal justice services casino tax revenue fund.145246

       (B) All moneys collected from the tax levied under this 145247
chapter shall be deposited into the casino tax revenue fund.145248

       (C) From the casino tax revenue fund the director of budget 145249
and management shall transfer as needed to the tax refund fund 145250
amounts equal to the refunds certified by the tax commissioner 145251
under section 5753.06 of the Revised Code.145252

       (D) After making any transfers required by division (C) of 145253
this section, but not later than the fifteenth day of the month 145254
following the end of each calendar quarter, the director of budget 145255
and management shall transfer amounts to each fund as follows:145256

       (1) Fifty-one per cent to the gross casino revenue county 145257
fund to make payments as required by Section 6(C)(3)(a) of Article 145258
XV, Ohio Constitution;145259

       (2) Thirty-four per cent to the gross casino revenue county 145260
student fund to make payments as required by Section 6(C)(3)(b) of 145261
Article XV, Ohio Constitution and as provided in section 5753.11 145262
of the Revised Code;145263

       (3) Five per cent to the gross casino revenue host city fund 145264
for the benefit of the cities in which casino facilities are 145265
located;145266

       (4) Three per cent to the Ohio state racing commission fund 145267
to support the efforts and activities of the Ohio state racing 145268
commission to promote horse racing in this state at which the 145269
pari-mutuel system of wagering is conducted;145270

       (5) Two per cent to the Ohio law enforcement training fund to 145271
support law enforcement functions in the state;145272

       (6) Two per cent to the problem casino gambling and 145273
addictions fund to support efforts of the department of alcohol 145274
and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction services145275
to alleviate problem gambling and substance abuse and related 145276
research in the state under section 3793.0325119.47 of the 145277
Revised Code;145278

       (7) Three per cent to the casino control commission fund to 145279
support the operations of the Ohio casino control commission and 145280
to defray the cost of administering the tax levied under section 145281
5753.02 of the Revised Code.145282

       Payments under divisions (D)(1) and (3) of this section shall 145283
be made by the end of the month following the end of the quarterly 145284
period. The tax commissioner shall make the data available to the 145285
director of budget and management for this purpose.145286

       Money in the Ohio state racing commission fund shall be 145287
distributed at the discretion of the Ohio state racing commission 145288
for the purpose stated in division (D)(4) of this section by the 145289
end of the month following the end of the quarterly period. The 145290
commission may retain up to five per cent of the amount 145291
transferred to the fund under division (D)(4) of this section for 145292
operating expenses necessary for the administration of the fund.145293

       Payments from the gross casino revenue county student fund as 145294
required under section 5753.11 of the Revised Code shall be made 145295
by the last day of January and by the last day of August of each 145296
year, beginning in 2013. The tax commissioner shall make the data 145297
available to the director of budget and management for this 145298
purpose.145299

       Of the money credited to the Ohio law enforcement training 145300
fund, the director of budget and management shall distribute 145301
eighty-five per cent of the money to the police officer training 145302
academy fund for the purpose of supporting the law enforcement 145303
training efforts of the Ohio peace officer training academy and 145304
fifteen per cent of the money to the criminal justice services 145305
casino tax revenue fund for the purpose of supporting the law 145306
enforcement training efforts of the division of criminal justice 145307
services.145308

       (E)(1) The tax commissioner shall serve as an agent of the 145309
counties of this state only for the purposes of this division and 145310
solely to make payments directly to municipal corporations and 145311
school districts, as applicable, on the counties' behalf.145312

       (2) On or before the last day of the month following the end 145313
of each calendar quarter, the tax commissioner shall provide for 145314
payment from the funds referenced in divisions (D)(1) and (3) of 145315
this section to each county and municipal corporation as 145316
prescribed in those divisions.145317

       (3) On or before the last day of January and the last day of 145318
August each year, the commissioner shall provide for payments from 145319
the fund referenced in division (D)(2) of this section to each 145320
school district as prescribed in that division.145321

        (F) The director of budget and management shall transfer one 145322
per cent of the money credited to the casino control commission 145323
fund to the casino tax administration fund. The tax commissioner 145324
shall use the casino tax administration fund to defray the costs 145325
incurred in administering the tax levied by this chapter.145326

       (G) All investment earnings of the gross casino revenue 145327
county student fund shall be credited to the fund.145328

       Sec. 5753.07.  (A)(1) The tax commissioner may issue an 145329
assessment, based on any information in the tax commissioner's 145330
possession, against a casino operator who fails to pay the tax 145331
levied under section 5753.02 of the Revised Code or to file a 145332
return under section 5753.04 of the Revised Code. The tax 145333
commissioner shall give the casino operator written notice of the 145334
assessment under section 5703.37 of the Revised Code. With the 145335
notice, the tax commissioner shall include instructions on how to 145336
petition for reassessment and on how to request a hearing with 145337
respect to the petition.145338

       (2) Unless the casino operator, within sixty days after 145339
service of the notice of assessment, files with the tax 145340
commissioner, either personally or by certified mail, a written 145341
petition signed by the casino operator, or by the casino 145342
operator's authorized agent who has knowledge of the facts, the 145343
assessment becomes final, and the amount of the assessment is due 145344
and payable from the casino operator to the treasurer of state. 145345
The petition shall indicate the casino operator's objections to 145346
the assessment. Additional objections may be raised in writing if 145347
they are received by the tax commissioner before the date shown on 145348
the final determination.145349

       (3) If a petition for reassessment has been properly filed, 145350
the tax commissioner shall proceed under section 5703.60 of the 145351
Revised Code.145352

       (4) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 145353
assessment, including penalties and accrued interest, remains 145354
unpaid, the tax commissioner may file a certified copy of the 145355
entry making the assessment final in the office of the clerk of 145356
the court of common pleas of Franklin county or in the office of 145357
the clerk of the court of common pleas of the county in which the 145358
casino operator resides, the casino operator's casino facility is 145359
located, or the casino operator's principal place of business in 145360
this state is located. Immediately upon the filing of the entry, 145361
the clerk shall enter a judgment for the state against the 145362
taxpayer assessed in the amount shown on the entry. The judgment 145363
may be filed by the clerk in a loose-leaf book entitled, "special 145364
judgments for the gross casino revenue tax." The judgment has the 145365
same effect as other judgments. Execution shall issue upon the 145366
judgment at the request of the tax commissioner, and all laws 145367
applicable to sales on execution apply to sales made under the 145368
judgment.145369

       (5) The portion of anIf the assessment is not paid in its 145370
entirety within sixty days after the day the assessment was issued 145371
bears, the portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall 145372
bear interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 145373
of the Revised Code from the day the tax commissioner issued the 145374
assessment until the assessment is paid or until it is certified 145375
to the attorney general for collection under section 131.02 of the 145376
Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid portion of the 145377
assessment is certified to the attorney general for collection, 145378
the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear interest at 145379
the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised 145380
Code from the date of certification until the date it is paid in 145381
its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner as the tax 145382
levied under section 5753.02 of the Revised Code and may be 145383
collected by the issuance of an assessment under this section.145384

       (B) If the tax commissioner believes that collection of the 145385
tax levied under section 5753.02 of the Revised Code will be 145386
jeopardized unless proceedings to collect or secure collection of 145387
the tax are instituted without delay, the commissioner may issue a 145388
jeopardy assessment against the casino operator who is liable for 145389
the tax. Immediately upon the issuance of a jeopardy assessment, 145390
the tax commissioner shall file an entry with the clerk of the 145391
court of common pleas in the manner prescribed by division (A)(4) 145392
of this section, and the clerk shall proceed as directed in that 145393
division. Notice of the jeopardy assessment shall be served on the 145394
casino operator or the casino operator's authorized agent under 145395
section 5703.37 of the Revised Code within five days after the 145396
filing of the entry with the clerk. The total amount assessed is 145397
immediately due and payable, unless the casino operator assessed 145398
files a petition for reassessment under division (A)(2) of this 145399
section and provides security in a form satisfactory to the tax 145400
commissioner that is in an amount sufficient to satisfy the unpaid 145401
balance of the assessment. If a petition for reassessment has been 145402
filed, and if satisfactory security has been provided, the tax 145403
commissioner shall proceed under division (A)(3) of this section. 145404
Full or partial payment of the assessment does not prejudice the 145405
tax commissioner's consideration of the petition for reassessment.145406

       (C) The tax commissioner shall immediately forward to the 145407
treasurer of state all amounts the tax commissioner receives under 145408
this section, and the amounts forwarded shall be treated as if 145409
they were revenue arising from the tax levied under section 145410
5753.02 of the Revised Code.145411

       (D) Except as otherwise provided in this division, no 145412
assessment shall be issued against a casino operator for the tax 145413
levied under section 5753.02 of the Revised Code more than four 145414
years after the due date for filing the return for the tax period 145415
for which the tax was reported, or more than four years after the 145416
return for the tax period was filed, whichever is later. This 145417
division does not bar an assessment against a casino operator who 145418
fails to file a return as required by section 5753.04 of the 145419
Revised Code or who files a fraudulent return, or when the casino 145420
operator and the tax commissioner waive in writing the time 145421
limitation.145422

       (E) If the tax commissioner possesses information that 145423
indicates that the amount of tax a casino operator is liable to 145424
pay under section 5753.02 of the Revised Code exceeds the amount 145425
the casino operator paid, the tax commissioner may audit a sample 145426
of the casino operator's gross casino revenue over a 145427
representative period of time to ascertain the amount of tax due, 145428
and may issue an assessment based on the audit. The tax 145429
commissioner shall make a good faith effort to reach agreement 145430
with the casino operator in selecting a representative sample. The 145431
tax commissioner may apply a sampling method only if the tax 145432
commissioner has prescribed the method by rule.145433

       (F) If the whereabouts of a casino operator who is liable for 145434
the tax levied under section 5753.02 of the Revised Code are 145435
unknown to the tax commissioner, the tax commissioner shall 145436
proceed under section 5703.37 of the Revised Code.145437

       (G) If a casino operator fails to pay the tax levied under 145438
section 5753.02 of the Revised Code within a period of one year 145439
after the due date for remitting the tax, the Ohio casino control 145440
commission may suspend the casino operator's license.145441

       Sec. 5815.28.  (A) As used in this section:145442

       (1) "Ascertainable standard" includes a standard in a trust 145443
instrument requiring the trustee to provide for the care, comfort, 145444
maintenance, welfare, education, or general well-being of the 145445
beneficiary.145446

       (2) "Disability" means any substantial, medically 145447
determinable impairment that can be expected to result in death or 145448
that has lasted or can be expected to last for a continuous period 145449
of at least twelve months, except that "disability" does not 145450
include an impairment that is the result of abuse of alcohol or 145451
drugs.145452

       (3) "Political subdivision" and "state" have the same 145453
meanings as in section 2744.01 of the Revised Code.145454

       (4) "Supplemental services" means services specified by rule 145455
of the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 145456
services under section 5119.015119.10 of the Revised Code or the 145457
department of developmental disabilities under section 5123.04 of 145458
the Revised Code that are provided to an individual with a 145459
disability in addition to services the individual is eligible to 145460
receive under programs authorized by federal or state law.145461

       (B) Any person may create a trust under this section to 145462
provide funding for supplemental services for the benefit of 145463
another individual who meets either of the following conditions:145464

       (1) The individual has a physical or mental disability and is 145465
eligible to receive services through the department of 145466
developmental disabilities or a county board of developmental 145467
disabilities;145468

       (2) The individual has a mental disability and is eligible to 145469
receive services through the department of mental healthmental 145470
health and addiction services or a board of alcohol, drug 145471
addiction, and mental health services.145472

       The trust may confer discretion upon the trustee and may 145473
contain specific instructions or conditions governing the exercise 145474
of the discretion.145475

       (C) The general division of the court of common pleas and the 145476
probate court of the county in which the beneficiary of a trust 145477
authorized by division (B) of this section resides or is confined 145478
have concurrent original jurisdiction to hear and determine 145479
actions pertaining to the trust. In any action pertaining to the 145480
trust in a court of common pleas or probate court and in any 145481
appeal of the action, all of the following apply to the trial or 145482
appellate court:145483

       (1) The court shall render determinations consistent with the 145484
testator's or other settlor's intent in creating the trust, as 145485
evidenced by the terms of the trust instrument.145486

       (2) The court may order the trustee to exercise discretion 145487
that the trust instrument confers upon the trustee only if the 145488
instrument contains specific instructions or conditions governing 145489
the exercise of that discretion and the trustee has failed to 145490
comply with the instructions or conditions. In issuing an order 145491
pursuant to this division, the court shall require the trustee to 145492
exercise the trustee's discretion only in accordance with the 145493
instructions or conditions.145494

       (3) The court may order the trustee to maintain the trust and 145495
distribute assets in accordance with rules adopted by the director 145496
of mental healthmental health and addiction services under 145497
section 5119.015119.10 of the Revised Code or the director of 145498
developmental disabilities under section 5123.04 of the Revised 145499
Code if the trustee has failed to comply with such rules.145500

       (D) To the extent permitted by federal law and subject to the 145501
provisions of division (C)(2) of this section pertaining to the 145502
enforcement of specific instructions or conditions governing a 145503
trustee's discretion, a trust authorized by division (B) of this 145504
section that confers discretion upon the trustee shall not be 145505
considered an asset or resource of the beneficiary, the 145506
beneficiary's estate, the settlor, or the settlor's estate and 145507
shall be exempt from the claims of creditors, political 145508
subdivisions, the state, other governmental entities, and other 145509
claimants against the beneficiary, the beneficiary's estate, the 145510
settlor, or the settlor's estate, including claims regarding the 145511
medicaid program or based on provisions of Chapters 5111., 5121.,145512
or 5123. of the Revised Code and claims sought to be satisfied by 145513
way of a civil action, subrogation, execution, garnishment, 145514
attachment, judicial sale, or other legal process, if all of the 145515
following apply:145516

       (1) At the time the trust is created, the trust principal 145517
does not exceed the maximum amount determined under division (E) 145518
of this section;145519

       (2) The trust instrument contains a statement of the 145520
settlor's intent, or otherwise clearly evidences the settlor's 145521
intent, that the beneficiary does not have authority to compel the 145522
trustee under any circumstances to furnish the beneficiary with 145523
minimal or other maintenance or support, to make payments from the 145524
principal of the trust or from the income derived from the 145525
principal, or to convert any portion of the principal into cash, 145526
whether pursuant to an ascertainable standard specified in the 145527
instrument or otherwise;145528

       (3) The trust instrument provides that trust assets can be 145529
used only to provide supplemental services, as defined by rule of 145530
the director of mental healthmental health and addiction services145531
under section 5119.015119.10 of the Revised Code or the director 145532
of developmental disabilities under section 5123.04 of the Revised 145533
Code, to the beneficiary;145534

       (4) The trust is maintained and assets are distributed in 145535
accordance with rules adopted by the director of mental health145536
mental health and addiction services under section 5119.015119.10145537
of the Revised Code or the director of developmental disabilities 145538
under section 5123.04 of the Revised Code;145539

       (5) The trust instrument provides that on the death of the 145540
beneficiary, a portion of the remaining assets of the trust, which 145541
shall be not less than fifty per cent of such assets, will be 145542
deposited to the credit of the services fund for individuals with 145543
mental illness created by section 5119.175119.51 of the Revised 145544
Code or the services fund for individuals with mental retardation 145545
and developmental disabilities created by section 5123.40 of the 145546
Revised Code.145547

       (E) In 1994, the trust principal maximum amount for a trust 145548
created under this section shall be two hundred thousand dollars. 145549
The maximum amount for a trust created under this section prior to 145550
November 11, 1994, may be increased to two hundred thousand 145551
dollars.145552

       In 1995, the maximum amount for a trust created under this 145553
section shall be two hundred two thousand dollars. Each year 145554
thereafter, the maximum amount shall be the prior year's amount 145555
plus two thousand dollars.145556

       (F) This section does not limit or otherwise affect the 145557
creation, validity, interpretation, or effect of any trust that is 145558
not created under this section.145559

       (G) Once a trustee takes action on a trust created by a 145560
settlor under this section and disburses trust funds on behalf of 145561
the beneficiary of the trust, then the trust may not be terminated 145562
or otherwise revoked by a particular event or otherwise without 145563
payment into the services fund created pursuant to section 5119.17145564
5119.51 or 5123.40 of the Revised Code of an amount that is equal 145565
to the disbursements made on behalf of the beneficiary for medical 145566
care by the state from the date the trust vests but that is not 145567
more than fifty per cent of the trust corpus.145568

       Sec. 5902.02.  The duties of the director of veterans 145569
services shall include the following: 145570

       (A) Furnishing the veterans service commissions of all 145571
counties of the state copies of the state laws, rules, and 145572
legislation relating to the operation of the commissions and their 145573
offices; 145574

       (B) Upon application, assisting the general public in 145575
obtaining records of vital statistics pertaining to veterans or 145576
their dependents; 145577

       (C) Adopting rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised 145578
Code pertaining to minimum qualifications for hiring, certifying, 145579
and accrediting county veterans service officers, pertaining to 145580
their required duties, and pertaining to revocation of the 145581
certification of county veterans service officers; 145582

       (D) Adopting rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised 145583
Code for the education, training, certification, and duties of 145584
veterans service commissioners and for the revocation of the 145585
certification of a veterans service commissioner; 145586

       (E) Developing and monitoring programs and agreements 145587
enhancing employment and training for veterans in single or 145588
multiple county areas; 145589

       (F) Developing and monitoring programs and agreements to 145590
enable county veterans service commissions to address 145591
homelessness, indigency, and other veteran-related issues 145592
individually or jointly; 145593

       (G) Developing and monitoring programs and agreements to 145594
enable state agencies, individually or jointly, that provide 145595
services to veterans, including the veterans' homes operated under 145596
Chapter 5907. of the Revised Code and the director of job and 145597
family services, to address homelessness, indigency, employment, 145598
and other veteran-related issues; 145599

       (H) Establishing and providing statistical reporting formats 145600
and procedures for county veterans service commissions; 145601

       (I) Publishing electronically a listing of county veterans 145602
service offices and county veterans service commissioners. The 145603
listing shall include the expiration dates of commission members' 145604
terms of office and the organizations they represent; the names, 145605
addresses, and telephone numbers of county veterans service 145606
offices; and the addresses and telephone numbers of the Ohio 145607
offices and headquarters of state and national veterans service 145608
organizations. 145609

       (J) Establishing a veterans advisory committee to advise and 145610
assist the department of veterans services in its duties. Members 145611
shall include a member of the national guard association of the 145612
United States who is a resident of this state, a member of the 145613
military officers association of America who is a resident of this 145614
state, a state representative of congressionally chartered 145615
veterans organizations referred to in section 5901.02 of the 145616
Revised Code, a representative of any other congressionally 145617
chartered state veterans organization that has at least one 145618
veterans service commissioner in the state, three representatives 145619
of the Ohio state association of county veterans service 145620
commissioners, who shall have a combined vote of one, three 145621
representatives of the state association of county veterans 145622
service officers, who shall have a combined vote of one, one 145623
representative of the county commissioners association of Ohio, 145624
who shall be a county commissioner not from the same county as any 145625
of the other county representatives, a representative of the 145626
advisory committee on women veterans, a representative of a labor 145627
organization, and a representative of the office of the attorney 145628
general. The department of veterans services shall submit to the 145629
advisory committee proposed rules for the committee's operation. 145630
The committee may review and revise these proposed rules prior to 145631
submitting them to the joint committee on agency rule review. 145632

       (K) Adopting, with the advice and assistance of the veterans 145633
advisory committee, policy and procedural guidelines that the 145634
veterans service commissions shall adhere to in the development 145635
and implementation of rules, policies, procedures, and guidelines 145636
for the administration of Chapter 5901. of the Revised Code. The 145637
department of veterans services shall adopt no guidelines or rules 145638
regulating the purposes, scope, duration, or amounts of financial 145639
assistance provided to applicants pursuant to sections 5901.01 to 145640
5901.15 of the Revised Code. The director of veterans services may 145641
obtain opinions from the office of the attorney general regarding 145642
rules, policies, procedures, and guidelines of the veterans 145643
service commissions and may enforce compliance with Chapter 5901. 145644
of the Revised Code. 145645

       (L) Receiving copies of form DD214 filed in accordance with 145646
the director's guidelines adopted under division (L) of this 145647
section from members of veterans service commissions appointed 145648
under section 5901.02 and from county veterans service officers 145649
employed under section 5901.07 of the Revised Code; 145650

       (M) Developing and maintaining and improving a resource, such 145651
as a telephone answering point or a web site, by means of which 145652
veterans and their dependents, through a single portal, can access 145653
multiple sources of information and interaction with regard to the 145654
rights of, and the benefits available to, veterans and their 145655
dependents. The director of veterans services may enter into 145656
agreements with state and federal agencies, with agencies of 145657
political subdivisions, with state and local instrumentalities, 145658
and with private entities as necessary to make the resource as 145659
complete as is possible. 145660

       (N) Planning, organizing, advertising, and conducting 145661
outreach efforts, such as conferences and fairs, at which veterans 145662
and their dependents may meet, learn about the organization and 145663
operation of the department of veterans services and of veterans 145664
service commissions, and obtain information about the rights of, 145665
and the benefits and services available to, veterans and their 145666
dependents; 145667

       (O) Advertising, in print, on radio and television, and 145668
otherwise, the rights of, and the benefits and services available 145669
to, veterans and their dependents; 145670

       (P) Developing and advocating improved benefits and services 145671
for, and improved delivery of benefits and services to, veterans 145672
and their dependents; 145673

       (Q) Searching for, identifying, and reviewing statutory and 145674
administrative policies that relate to veterans and their 145675
dependents and reporting to the general assembly statutory and 145676
administrative policies that should be consolidated in whole or in 145677
part within the organization of the department of veterans 145678
services to unify funding, delivery, and accounting of statutory 145679
and administrative policy expressions that relate particularly to 145680
veterans and their dependents; 145681

       (R) Encouraging veterans service commissions to innovate and 145682
otherwise to improve efficiency in delivering benefits and 145683
services to veterans and their dependents and to report successful 145684
innovations and efficiencies to the director of veterans services; 145685

       (S) Publishing and encouraging adoption of successful 145686
innovations and efficiencies veterans service commissions have 145687
achieved in delivering benefits and services to veterans and their 145688
dependents; 145689

       (T) Establishing advisory committees, in addition to the 145690
veterans advisory committee established under division (K) of this 145691
section, on veterans issues;145692

       (U) Developing and maintaining a relationship with the United 145693
States department of veterans affairs, seeking optimal federal 145694
benefits and services for Ohio veterans and their dependents, and 145695
encouraging veterans service commissions to maximize the federal 145696
benefits and services to which veterans and their dependents are 145697
entitled; 145698

       (V) Developing and maintaining relationships with the several 145699
veterans organizations, encouraging the organizations in their 145700
efforts at assisting veterans and their dependents, and advocating 145701
for adequate state subsidization of the organizations; 145702

       (W) Requiring the several veterans organizations that receive 145703
funding from the state annually, not later than the thirtieth day 145704
of July, to report to the director of veterans services and 145705
prescribing the form and content of the report;145706

       (X) Reviewing the reports submitted to the director under 145707
division (W) of this section within thirty days of receipt and 145708
informing the veterans organization of any deficiencies that exist 145709
in the organization's report and that funding will not be released 145710
until the deficiencies have been corrected and a satisfactory 145711
report submitted;145712

        (Y) Advising the director of budget and management when a 145713
report submitted to the director under division (W) of this 145714
section has been reviewed and determined to be satisfactory;145715

        (Z) Furnishing copies of all reports that the director of 145716
veterans services has determined have been submitted 145717
satisfactorily under division (W) of this section to the 145718
chairperson of the finance committees of the general assembly;145719

       (AA) Investigating complaints against county veterans 145720
services commissioners and county veterans service officers if the 145721
director reasonably believes the investigation to be appropriate 145722
and necessary;145723

       (Y)(BB) Taking any other actions required by this chapter.145724

       Sec. 5905.02.  Whenever it appears that a person is eligible 145725
for care or treatment by the veterans' administration or other 145726
agency of the United States, and hospitalization is necessary for 145727
the proper care or treatment of such person, the probate court, 145728
upon receipt of a certificate from the veterans' administration or 145729
such other agency showing that facilities are available and such 145730
person is eligible for care or treatment therein, may order such 145731
person to said veterans' administration or other agency for care 145732
and treatment.145733

       Upon admission, such person shall be subject to the 145734
applicable regulations of the veterans' administration or other 145735
agency of the United States. The chief officer of any hospital to 145736
which any person is admitted pursuant to hospitalization as 145737
provided in sections 5905.01 to 5905.19 of the Revised Code, or 145738
under the law in effect at the time of such admission, shall have 145739
the same powers as are exercised by heads of hospitals for mental 145740
diseases and the department of mental healthmental health and 145741
addiction services with respect to the retention, transfer, 145742
parole, or discharge of the person hospitalized; provided no 145743
person shall be transferred to a hospital operated by the state or 145744
any political subdivision thereof without the consent of such 145745
department.145746

       The right of such person to appear and defend shall not be 145747
denied.145748

       The judgment or order of hospitalization by a court of 145749
competent jurisdiction of another state ordering a person to the 145750
veterans' administration or other agency of the United States, or 145751
any hospital operated by any such agency, for care or treatment 145752
shall have the same effect as to such person while in this state 145753
as in the state in which the court entering such judgment or 145754
making such order is situated, provided that no nonresident 145755
ordered to a veterans' administration facility located in Ohio 145756
shall thereby acquire a legal settlement in Ohio.145757

       Upon receipt of a certificate that facilities are available 145758
in any such hospital operated by the United States for the care or 145759
treatment of any person ordered to any hospital for the mentally 145760
ill or other hospital in this state for the care of persons 145761
similarly afflicted, and that such person is eligible for such 145762
care or treatment, such department may transfer any such person to 145763
the veterans' administration or other agency of the United States 145764
in the state. Upon effecting any such transfer, the ordering court 145765
shall be notified thereof by the transferring agency; provided 145766
that no such person shall be transferred if hethe person is 145767
confined pursuant to conviction of any crime or misdemeanor, or if 145768
hethe person has been acquitted of any such charge solely on the 145769
ground of insanity, unless prior to such transfer the court 145770
originally ordering such person enters an order for such transfer 145771
after appropriate motion and hearing.145772

       Any person transferred as provided in this section is ordered 145773
to the veterans' administration or other agency of the United 145774
States pursuant to the original order as though hethe person had 145775
been originally so ordered.145776

       Sec. 5910.02.  There is hereby created an Ohio war orphans 145777
scholarship board as part of the department of veterans services. 145778
The board consists of eight members as follows: the chancellor of 145779
the Ohio board of regents or the chancellor's designee; the 145780
director of veterans services or the director's designee; one 145781
member of the house of representatives, appointed by the speaker; 145782
one member of the senate, appointed by the president of the 145783
senate; and four members appointed by the governor, one of whom 145784
shall be a representative of the American Legion, one of whom 145785
shall be a representative of the Veterans of Foreign Wars, one of 145786
whom shall be a representative of the Disabled American Veterans, 145787
and one of whom shall be a representative of the AMVETS. At least 145788
ninety days prior to the expiration of the term of office of the 145789
representative of a veterans organization appointed by the 145790
governor, the governor shall notify the state headquarters of the 145791
affected organization of the need for an appointment and request 145792
the organization to make at least three nominations. Within sixty 145793
days after making the request for nominations, the governor may 145794
make the appointment from the nominations received, or may reject 145795
all the nominations and request at least three new nominations, 145796
from which the governor shall make an appointment within thirty 145797
days after making the request for the new nominations. If the 145798
governor receives no nominations during this thirty-day period, 145799
the governor may appoint any veteran.145800

       Terms of office for the four members appointed by the 145801
governor shall be for four years, commencing on the first day of 145802
January and ending on the thirty-first day of December, except 145803
that the term of the AMVETS representative shall expire December 145804
31, 1998, and the new term that succeeds it shall commence on 145805
January 1, 1999, and end on December 31, 2002. Each member shall 145806
hold office from the date of the member's appointment until the 145807
end of the term for which the member was appointed. The other 145808
members shall serve during their terms of office. Any vacancy 145809
shall be filled by appointment in the same manner as by original 145810
appointment. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring 145811
prior to the expiration of the term for which the member's 145812
predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of 145813
such term. Any appointed member shall continue in office 145814
subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term until the 145815
member's successor takes office, or until a period of sixty days 145816
has elapsed, whichever occurs first. The members of the board 145817
shall serve without pay but shall be reimbursed for travel 145818
expenses and for other actual and necessary expenses incurred in 145819
the performance of their duties, not to exceed ten dollars per day 145820
for ten days in any one year to be appropriated out of any moneys 145821
in the state treasury to the credit of the general revenue fund.145822

       The chancellor of the board of regents shall act as secretary 145823
to the board and shall furnish such clerical and other assistance 145824
as may be necessary to the performance of the duties of the board.145825

       The board shall determine the number of scholarships to be 145826
made available, receive applications for scholarships, pass upon 145827
the eligibility of applicants, decide which applicants are to 145828
receive scholarships, and do all other things necessary for the 145829
proper administration of this chapter.145830

       The board may apply for, and may receive and accept, grants, 145831
and may receive and accept gifts, bequests, and contributions, 145832
from public and private sources, including agencies and 145833
instrumentalities of the United States and this state, and shall 145834
deposit the grants, gifts, bequests, or contributions into the 145835
Ohio war orphans scholarship donation fund.145836

       Sec. 5910.07.  The Ohio war orphans scholarship donation fund 145837
is created in the state treasury. The fund shall consist of gifts, 145838
bequests, grants, and contributions made to the fund under section 145839
5910.02 of the Revised Code. Investment earnings of the fund shall 145840
be deposited into the fund. The fund shall be used to operate the 145841
war orphans scholarship program and to provide grants under 145842
sections 5910.01 to 5910.06 of the Revised Code.145843

       Sec. 5910.08. There is hereby created in the state treasury 145844
the war orphans scholarship reserve fund. Not later than the first 145845
day of July of each fiscal year, the chancellor of the Ohio board 145846
of regents shall certify to the director of budget and management 145847
the unencumbered balance of the general revenue fund 145848
appropriations made in the immediately preceding fiscal year for 145849
purposes of the war orphans scholarship program created in Chapter 145850
5910. of the Revised Code. Upon receipt of the certification, the 145851
director may transfer an amount not exceeding the certified amount 145852
from the general revenue fund to the war orphans scholarship 145853
reserve fund. Moneys in the war orphans scholarship reserve fund 145854
shall be used to pay scholarship obligations in excess of the 145855
general revenue fund appropriations made for that purpose.145856

       The director may transfer any unencumbered balance from the 145857
war orphans scholarship reserve fund to the general revenue fund.145858

       Sec. 5919.34.  (A) As used in this section:145859

       (1) "Academic term" means any one of the following:145860

       (a) Fall term, which consists of fall semester or fall 145861
quarter, as appropriate;145862

       (b) Winter term, which consists of winter semester, winter 145863
quarter, or spring semester, as appropriate;145864

       (c) Spring term, which consists of spring quarter;145865

       (d) Summer term, which consists of summer semester or summer 145866
quarter, as appropriate.145867

       (2) "Eligible applicant" means any individual to whom all of 145868
the following apply:145869

       (a) The individual does not possess a baccalaureate degree.145870

       (b) The individual has enlisted, re-enlisted, or extended 145871
current enlistment in the Ohio national guard or is an individual 145872
to which division (F) of this section applies.145873

       (c) The individual is actively enrolled as a full-time or 145874
part-time student for at least three credit hours of course work 145875
in a semester or quarter in a two-year or four-year 145876
degree-granting program at a state institution of higher education 145877
or a private institution of higher education, or in a 145878
diploma-granting program at a state or private institution of 145879
higher education that is a school of nursing.145880

       (d) The individual has not accumulated ninety-six eligibility 145881
units under division (E) of this section.145882

       (3) "State institution of higher education" means any state 145883
university or college as defined in division (A)(1) of section 145884
3345.12 of the Revised Code, community college established under 145885
Chapter 3354. of the Revised Code, state community college 145886
established under Chapter 3358. of the Revised Code, university 145887
branch established under Chapter 3355. of the Revised Code, or 145888
technical college established under Chapter 3357. of the Revised 145889
Code.145890

       (4) "Private institution of higher education" means an Ohio 145891
institution of higher education that is nonprofit and has received 145892
a certificate of authorization pursuant to Chapter 1713. of the 145893
Revised Code, that is a private institution exempt from regulation 145894
under Chapter 3332. of the Revised Code as prescribed in section 145895
3333.046 of the Revised Code, or that holds a certificate of 145896
registration and program authorization issued by the state board 145897
of career colleges and schools pursuant to section 3332.05 of the 145898
Revised Code.145899

       (5) "Tuition" means the charges imposed to attend an 145900
institution of higher education and includes general and 145901
instructional fees. "Tuition" does not include laboratory fees, 145902
room and board, or other similar fees and charges.145903

       (B) There is hereby created a scholarship program to be known 145904
as the Ohio national guard scholarship program.145905

       (C) The adjutant general shall approve scholarships for all 145906
eligible applicants. The adjutant general shall process all 145907
applications for scholarships for each academic term in the order 145908
in which they are received. The scholarships shall be made without 145909
regard to financial need. At no time shall one person be placed in 145910
priority over another because of sex, race, or religion.145911

       (D)(1) Except as provided in divisions (I) and (J) of this 145912
section, for each academic term that an eligible applicant is 145913
approved for a scholarship under this section and either remains a 145914
current member in good standing of the Ohio national guard or is 145915
eligible for a scholarship under division (F)(1) of this section, 145916
the institution of higher education in which the applicant is 145917
enrolled shall, if the applicant's enlistment obligation extends 145918
beyond the end of that academic term or if division (F)(1) of this 145919
section applies, be paid on the applicant's behalf the applicable 145920
one of the following amounts:145921

       (a) If the institution is a state institution of higher 145922
education, an amount equal to one hundred per cent of the 145923
institution's tuition charges;145924

       (b) If the institution is a nonprofit private institution or 145925
a private institution exempt from regulation under Chapter 3332. 145926
of the Revised Code as prescribed in section 3333.046 of the 145927
Revised Code, an amount equal to one hundred per cent of the 145928
average tuition charges of all state universities;145929

       (c) If the institution is an institution that holds a 145930
certificate of registration from the state board of career 145931
colleges and schools, the lesser of the following:145932

       (i) An amount equal to one hundred per cent of the 145933
institution's tuition;145934

       (ii) An amount equal to one hundred per cent of the average 145935
tuition charges of all state universities, as that term is defined 145936
in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.145937

       (2) An eligible applicant's scholarship shall not be reduced 145938
by the amount of that applicant's benefits under "the Montgomery 145939
G.I. Bill Act of 1984," Pub. L. No. 98-525, 98 Stat. 2553 (1984).145940

       (E) A scholarship recipient under this section shall be 145941
entitled to receive scholarships under this section for the number 145942
of quarters or semesters it takes the recipient to accumulate 145943
ninety-six eligibility units as determined under divisions (E)(1) 145944
to (3) of this section.145945

       (1) To determine the maximum number of semesters or quarters 145946
for which a recipient is entitled to a scholarship under this 145947
section, the adjutant general shall convert a recipient's credit 145948
hours of enrollment for each academic term into eligibility units 145949
in accordance with the following table:145950

The 145951
Number of following The following 145952
credit hours number of number of 145953
of enrollment eligibility eligibility 145954
in an academic units if a units if a 145955
term equals semester or quarter 145956
   145957
12 or more hours 12 units 8 units 145958
9 but less than 12 9 units 6 units 145959
6 but less than 9 6 units 4 units 145960
3 but less than 6 3 units 2 units 145961

       (2) A scholarship recipient under this section may continue 145962
to apply for scholarships under this section until the recipient 145963
has accumulated ninety-six eligibility units.145964

       (3) If a scholarship recipient withdraws from courses prior 145965
to the end of an academic term so that the recipient's enrollment 145966
for that academic term is less than three credit hours, no 145967
scholarship shall be paid on behalf of that person for that 145968
academic term. Except as provided in division (F)(3) of this 145969
section, if a scholarship has already been paid on behalf of the 145970
person for that academic term, the adjutant general shall add to 145971
that person's accumulated eligibility units the number of 145972
eligibility units for which the scholarship was paid.145973

       (F) This division applies to any eligible applicant called 145974
into active duty on or after September 11, 2001. As used in this 145975
division, "active duty" means active duty pursuant to an executive 145976
order of the president of the United States, an act of the 145977
congress of the United States, or section 5919.29 or 5923.21 of 145978
the Revised Code.145979

       (1) For a period of up to five years from when an 145980
individual's enlistment obligation in the Ohio national guard 145981
ends, an individual to whom this division applies is eligible for 145982
scholarships under this section for those academic terms that were 145983
missed or could have been missed as a result of the individual's 145984
call into active duty. Scholarships shall not be paid for the 145985
academic term in which an eligible applicant's enlistment 145986
obligation ends unless an applicant is eligible under this 145987
division for a scholarship for such academic term due to previous 145988
active duty.145989

       (2) When an individual to whom this division applies 145990
withdraws or otherwise fails to complete courses, for which 145991
scholarships have been awarded under this section, because the 145992
individual was called into active duty, the institution of higher 145993
education shall grant the individual a leave of absence from the 145994
individual's education program and shall not impose any academic 145995
penalty for such withdrawal or failure to complete courses. 145996
Division (F)(2) of this section applies regardless of whether or 145997
not the scholarship amount was paid to the institution of higher 145998
education.145999

       (3) If an individual to whom this division applies withdraws 146000
or otherwise fails to complete courses because the individual was 146001
called into active duty, and if scholarships for those courses 146002
have already been paid, either:146003

       (a) The adjutant general shall not add to that person's 146004
accumulated eligibility units calculated under division (E) of 146005
this section the number of eligibility units for the academic 146006
courses or term for which the scholarship was paid and the 146007
institution of higher education shall repay the scholarship amount 146008
to the state.146009

       (b) The adjutant general shall add to that individual's 146010
accumulated eligibility units calculated under division (E) of 146011
this section the number of eligibility units for the academic 146012
courses or term for which the scholarship was paid if the 146013
institution of higher education agrees to permit the individual to 146014
complete the remainder of the academic courses in which the 146015
individual was enrolled at the time the individual was called into 146016
active duty.146017

       (4) No individual who is discharged from the Ohio national 146018
guard under other than honorable conditions shall be eligible for 146019
scholarships under this division.146020

       (G) A scholarship recipient under this section who fails to 146021
complete the term of enlistment, re-enlistment, or extension of 146022
current enlistment the recipient was serving at the time a 146023
scholarship was paid on behalf of the recipient under this section 146024
is liable to the state for repayment of a percentage of all Ohio 146025
national guard scholarships paid on behalf of the recipient under 146026
this section, plus interest at the rate of ten per cent per annum 146027
calculated from the dates the scholarships were paid. This 146028
percentage shall equal the percentage of the current term of 146029
enlistment, re-enlistment, or extension of enlistment a recipient 146030
has not completed as of the date the recipient is discharged from 146031
the Ohio national guard.146032

       The attorney general may commence a civil action on behalf of 146033
the chancellor of the Ohio board of regents to recover the amount 146034
of the scholarships and the interest provided for in this division 146035
and the expenses incurred in prosecuting the action, including 146036
court costs and reasonable attorney's fees. A scholarship 146037
recipient is not liable under this division if the recipient's 146038
failure to complete the term of enlistment being served at the 146039
time a scholarship was paid on behalf of the recipient under this 146040
section is due to the recipient's death or discharge from the 146041
national guard due to disability.146042

       (H) On or before the first day of each academic term, the 146043
adjutant general shall provide an eligibility roster to the 146044
chancellor and to each institution of higher education at which 146045
one or more scholarship recipients have applied for enrollment. 146046
The institution shall use the roster to certify the actual 146047
full-time or part-time enrollment of each scholarship recipient 146048
listed as enrolled at the institution and return the roster to the 146049
adjutant general and the chancellor. Except as provided in 146050
division (J) of this section, the chancellor shall provide for 146051
payment of the appropriate number and amount of scholarships to 146052
each institution of higher education pursuant to division (D) of 146053
this section. If an institution of higher education fails to 146054
certify the actual enrollment of a scholarship recipient listed as 146055
enrolled at the institution within thirty days of the end of an 146056
academic term, the institution shall not be eligible to receive 146057
payment from the Ohio national guard scholarship program or from 146058
the individual enrollee. The adjutant general shall report on a 146059
semiannual basis to the director of budget and management, the 146060
speaker of the house of representatives, the president of the 146061
senate, and the chancellor the number of Ohio national guard 146062
scholarship recipients, the size of the scholarship-eligible 146063
population, and a projection of the cost of the program for the 146064
remainder of the biennium.146065

       (I) The chancellor and the adjutant general may adopt rules 146066
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code governing the 146067
administration and fiscal management of the Ohio national guard 146068
scholarship program and the procedure by which the chancellor and 146069
the department of the adjutant general may modify the amount of 146070
scholarships a member receives based on the amount of other state 146071
financial aid a member receives.146072

       (J) The adjutant general, the chancellor, and the director, 146073
or their designees, shall jointly estimate the costs of the Ohio 146074
national guard scholarship program for each upcoming fiscal 146075
biennium, and shall report that estimate prior to the beginning of 146076
the fiscal biennium to the chairpersons of the finance committees 146077
in the general assembly. During each fiscal year of the biennium, 146078
the adjutant general, the chancellor, and the director, or their 146079
designees, shall meet regularly to monitor the actual costs of the 146080
Ohio national guard scholarship program and update cost 146081
projections for the remainder of the biennium as necessary. If the 146082
amounts appropriated for the Ohio national guard scholarship 146083
program and any funds in the Ohio national guard scholarship 146084
reserve fund and the Ohio national guard scholarship donation fund146085
are not adequate to provide scholarships in the amounts specified 146086
in division (D)(1) of this section for all eligible applicants, 146087
the chancellor shall do all of the following:146088

       (1) Notify each private institution of higher education, 146089
where a scholarship recipient is enrolled, that, by accepting the 146090
Ohio national guard scholarship program as payment for all or part 146091
of the institution's tuition, the institution agrees that if the 146092
chancellor reduces the amount of each scholarship, the institution 146093
shall provide each scholarship recipient a grant or tuition waiver 146094
in an amount equal to the amount the recipient's scholarship was 146095
reduced by the chancellor.146096

        (2) Reduce the amount of each scholarship under division 146097
(D)(1)(a) of this section proportionally based on the amount of 146098
remaining available funds. Each state institution of higher 146099
education shall provide each scholarship recipient under division 146100
(D)(1)(a) of this section a grant or tuition waiver in an amount 146101
equal to the amount the recipient's scholarship was reduced by the 146102
chancellor.146103

       (K) Notwithstanding division (A) of section 127.14 of the 146104
Revised Code, the controlling board shall not transfer all or part 146105
of any appropriation for the Ohio national guard scholarship 146106
program.146107

       (L) The chancellor and the adjutant general may apply for, 146108
and may receive and accept grants, and may receive and accept 146109
gifts, bequests, and contributions, from public and private 146110
sources, including agencies and instrumentalities of the United 146111
States and this state, and shall deposit the grants, gifts, 146112
bequests, or contributions into the national guard scholarship 146113
reservedonation fund.146114

       Sec. 5919.342.  The national guard scholarship donation fund 146115
is created in the state treasury. The fund shall consist of gifts, 146116
bequests, grants, and contributions made to the fund under 146117
division (L) of section 5919.34 of the Revised Code. Investment 146118
earnings of the fund shall be deposited into the fund. The fund 146119
shall be used to operate the Ohio national guard scholarship 146120
program created under section 5919.34 of the Revised Code.146121

       Sec. 5924.502.  (A) If the issue of an accused's competence 146122
to stand trial is raised or if an accused enters a plea of not 146123
guilty by reason of insanity, the court may order one or more 146124
evaluations of the accused's present mental condition or, in the 146125
case of a plea of not guilty by reason of insanity, of the 146126
accused's mental condition at the time of the offense charged. An 146127
examiner shall conduct the evaluation.146128

       (B) If the court orders more than one evaluation under 146129
division (A) of this section, the trial counsel and the defense 146130
counsel may recommend to the court an examiner whom each prefers 146131
to perform one of the evaluations. If an accused enters a plea of 146132
not guilty by reason of insanity and if the court does not 146133
designate an examiner recommended by the defense counsel, the 146134
court shall inform the accused that the accused may have 146135
independent expert evaluation and that it will be obtained for the 146136
accused at public expense.146137

       (C) If the court orders an evaluation under division (A) of 146138
this section, the accused shall be available at the times and 146139
places established by the examiners who are to conduct the 146140
evaluation. The court may order an accused who is not being held 146141
in pretrial confinement to submit to an evaluation under this 146142
section. If an accused who is not being held in pretrial 146143
confinement refuses to submit to a complete evaluation, the court 146144
may order the sheriff to take the accused into custody and deliver 146145
the accused to a center, program, or facility operated or 146146
certified by the department of mental healthmental health and 146147
addiction services where the accused may be held for evaluation 146148
for a reasonable period of time not to exceed twenty days.146149

       (D) An accused who is being held in pretrial confinement may 146150
be evaluated at the accused's place of detention. Upon the request 146151
of the examiner, the court may order the sheriff to transport the 146152
accused to a program or facility operated or certified by the 146153
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services, 146154
where the accused may be held for evaluation for a reasonable 146155
period of time not to exceed twenty days, and to return the 146156
accused to the place of detention after the evaluation.146157

       (E) If a court orders the evaluation to determine an 146158
accused's mental condition at the time of the offense charged, the 146159
court shall inform the examiner of the offense with which the 146160
accused is charged.146161

       (F) In conducting an evaluation of an accused's mental 146162
condition at the time of the offense charged, the examiner shall 146163
consider all relevant evidence. If the offense charged involves 146164
the use of force against another person, the relevant evidence to 146165
be considered includes, but is not limited to, any evidence that 146166
the accused suffered at the time of the commission of the offense 146167
from the "battered woman syndrome."146168

       (G) The examiner shall file a written report with the court 146169
within thirty days after entry of a court order for evaluation, 146170
and the court shall provide copies of the report to the trial 146171
counsel and defense counsel. The report shall include all of the 146172
following:146173

       (1) The examiner's findings;146174

       (2) The facts in reasonable detail on which the findings are 146175
based;146176

       (3) If the evaluation was ordered to determine the accused's 146177
competence to stand trial, all of the following findings or 146178
recommendations that are applicable:146179

       (a) Whether the accused is capable of understanding the 146180
nature and objective of the proceedings against the accused or of 146181
assisting in the accused's defense;146182

       (b) If the examiner's opinion is that the accused is 146183
incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 146184
proceedings against the accused or of assisting in the accused's 146185
defense, whether the accused presently is mentally ill;146186

       (c) If the examiner's opinion is that the accused is 146187
incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 146188
proceedings against the accused or of assisting in the accused's 146189
defense, the examiner's opinion as to the likelihood of the 146190
accused becoming capable of understanding the nature and objective 146191
of the proceedings against the accused and of assisting in the 146192
accused's defense within one year if the accused is provided with 146193
a course of treatment;146194

       (d) If the examiner's opinion is that the accused is 146195
incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 146196
proceedings against the accused or of assisting in the accused's 146197
defense and that the accused presently is mentally ill, the 146198
examiner's recommendation as to the least restrictive placement or 146199
commitment alternative, consistent with the accused's treatment 146200
needs for restoration to competency and with the safety of the 146201
community;146202

       (e) If the accused is charged before a special or summary 146203
court-martial with an offense that is not a violation of section 146204
5924.120, 5924.127, or 5924.128 of the Revised Code and the 146205
examiner's opinion is that the accused is incapable of 146206
understanding the nature and objective of the proceedings against 146207
the accused or of assisting in the accused's defense and that the 146208
accused is presently mentally ill, the examiner's recommendation 146209
as to whether the accused is amenable to engagement in mental 146210
health treatment.146211

       (4) If the evaluation was ordered to determine the accused's 146212
mental condition at the time of the offense charged, the 146213
examiner's findings as to whether the accused at the time of the 146214
offense charged did not know, as a result of a severe mental 146215
disease or defect, the wrongfulness of the accused's acts charged.146216

       (H) An examiner appointed under divisions (A) and (B) of this 146217
section to evaluate an accused to determine the accused's 146218
competence to stand trial also may be appointed to evaluate an 146219
accused who has entered a plea of not guilty by reason of 146220
insanity, but an examiner of that nature shall prepare separate 146221
reports on the issue of competence to stand trial and the defense 146222
of not guilty by reason of insanity.146223

       (I) No statement that an accused makes in an evaluation or 146224
hearing under divisions (A) to (H) of this section relating to the 146225
accused's competence to stand trial or to the accused's mental 146226
condition at the time of the offense charged may be used against 146227
the accused on the issue of guilt in any criminal action or 146228
proceeding, but, in a criminal action or proceeding, the trial 146229
counsel or defense counsel may call as a witness any person who 146230
evaluated the accused or prepared a report pursuant to a referral 146231
under this section. Neither the appointment nor the testimony of 146232
an examiner appointed under this section precludes the trial 146233
counsel or defense counsel from calling other witnesses or 146234
presenting other evidence on competency or insanity issues.146235

       (J) Persons appointed as examiners under divisions (A) and 146236
(B) of this section or under division (H) of this section shall be 146237
paid a reasonable amount for their services and expenses, as 146238
certified by the court.146239

       Sec. 5924.503.  (A) If the issue of an accused's competence 146240
to stand trial is raised and if the court, upon conducting the 146241
hearing provided for in section 5924.502 of the Revised Code, 146242
finds that the accused is competent to stand trial, the accused 146243
shall be proceeded against as provided by law. If the court finds 146244
the accused competent to stand trial and the accused is receiving 146245
psychotropic drugs or other medication, the court may authorize 146246
the continued administration of the drugs or medication or other 146247
appropriate treatment in order to maintain the accused's 146248
competence to stand trial unless the accused's attending physician 146249
advises the court against continuation of the drugs, other 146250
medication, or treatment.146251

       (B)(1)(a) If, after taking into consideration all relevant 146252
reports, information, and other evidence, the court finds that the 146253
accused is incompetent to stand trial and that there is a 146254
substantial probability that the accused will become competent to 146255
stand trial within one year if the accused is provided with a 146256
course of treatment, the court shall order the accused to undergo 146257
treatment. If the accused is being tried by a general 146258
court-martial and if, after taking into consideration all relevant 146259
reports, information, and other evidence, the court finds that the 146260
accused is incompetent to stand trial, but the court is unable at 146261
that time to determine whether there is a substantial probability 146262
that the accused will become competent to stand trial within one 146263
year if the accused is provided with a course of treatment, the 146264
court shall order continuing evaluation and treatment of the 146265
accused for a period not to exceed four months to determine 146266
whether there is a substantial probability that the accused will 146267
become competent to stand trial within one year if the accused is 146268
provided with a course of treatment.146269

       (b) The court order for the accused to undergo treatment or 146270
continuing evaluation and treatment under division (B)(1)(a) of 146271
this section shall specify that the accused, if determined to 146272
require mental health treatment or continuing evaluation and 146273
treatment, shall be committed to the department of mental health146274
mental health and addiction services for treatment or continuing 146275
evaluation and treatment at a hospital, facility, or agency 146276
determined to be clinically appropriate by the department of 146277
mental healthmental health and addiction services. The order may 146278
restrict the accused's freedom of movement as the court considers 146279
necessary. The trial counsel in the accused's case shall send to 146280
the chief clinical officer of the hospital, facility, or agency146281
services provider where the accused is placed by the department of 146282
mental healthmental health and addiction services or to the 146283
managing officer of the institution, the director of the facility, 146284
or the person to which the accused is committed copies of relevant 146285
investigative reports and other background information that 146286
pertains to the accused and is available to the trial counsel 146287
unless the trial counsel determines that the release of any of the 146288
information in the investigative reports or any of the other 146289
background information to unauthorized persons would interfere 146290
with the effective prosecution of any person or would create a 146291
substantial risk of harm to any person.146292

       In committing the accused to the department of mental health146293
mental health and addiction services, the court shall consider the 146294
extent to which the person is a danger to the person and to 146295
others, the need for security, and the type of crime involved and, 146296
if the court finds that restrictions on the accused's freedom of 146297
movement are necessary, shall specify the least restrictive 146298
limitations on the person's freedom of movement determined to be 146299
necessary to protect public safety. In weighing these factors, the 146300
court shall give preference to protecting public safety.146301

       (c) If the accused is found incompetent to stand trial, if 146302
the chief clinical officer of the hospital, facility, or agency146303
services provider where the accused is placed, or the managing 146304
officer of the institution, the director of the facility, or the 146305
person to which the accused is committed for treatment or 146306
continuing evaluation and treatment under division (B)(1)(b) of 146307
this section determines that medication is necessary to restore 146308
the accused's competency to stand trial, and if the accused lacks 146309
the capacity to give informed consent or refuses medication, the 146310
chief clinical officer of the hospital, facility, or agency146311
services provider where the accused is placed or the managing 146312
officer of the institution, the director of the facility, or the 146313
person to which the accused is committed for treatment or 146314
continuing evaluation and treatment may petition the court for 146315
authorization for the involuntary administration of medication. 146316
The court shall hold a hearing on the petition within five days of 146317
the filing of the petition. Following the hearing, the court may 146318
authorize the involuntary administration of medication or may 146319
dismiss the petition.146320

       (d) If the accused is charged before a special or summary 146321
court-martial with an offense that is not a violation of section 146322
5924.120, 5924.127, or 5924.128 of the Revised Code, the trial 146323
counsel may hold the charges in abeyance while the accused engages 146324
in mental health treatment.146325

       (2) If the court finds that the accused is incompetent to 146326
stand trial and that, even if the accused is provided with a 146327
course of treatment, there is not a substantial probability that 146328
the accused will become competent to stand trial within one year, 146329
the court shall order the discharge of the accused, unless upon 146330
motion of the trial counsel or on its own motion, the court either 146331
seeks to retain jurisdiction over the accused pursuant to division 146332
(A)(2) of section 5924.504 of the Revised Code or files an 146333
affidavit in the probate court for the civil commitment of the 146334
accused pursuant to Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code alleging 146335
that the accused is a mentally ill person subject to 146336
hospitalization by court order. If an affidavit is filed in the 146337
probate court, the trial court shall send to the probate court 146338
copies of all written reports of the accused's mental condition 146339
that were prepared pursuant to section 5924.502 of the Revised 146340
Code.146341

       The trial court may issue the temporary order of detention 146342
that a probate court may issue under section 5122.11 of the 146343
Revised Code, to remain in effect until the probable cause or 146344
initial hearing in the probate court. Further proceedings in the 146345
probate court are civil proceedings governed by Chapter 5122. of 146346
the Revised Code.146347

       (C) No accused shall be required to undergo treatment, 146348
including any continuing evaluation and treatment, under division 146349
(B)(1) of this section for longer than whichever of the following 146350
periods is applicable:146351

       (1) One year, if the accused is being tried by a general 146352
court-martial;146353

       (2) Six months, if the accused is being tried before a 146354
special court-martial;146355

       (3) Sixty days, if the accused is being tried before a 146356
summary court-martial.146357

       (D) Any accused who is committed pursuant to this section 146358
shall not voluntarily admit the accused or be voluntarily admitted 146359
to a hospital or institution pursuant to section 5122.02 or 146360
5122.15 of the Revised Code.146361

       (E) Except as otherwise provided in this division, an accused 146362
who is charged with an offense and is committed by the court under 146363
this section to the department of mental healthmental health and 146364
addiction services with restrictions on the accused's freedom of 146365
movement shall not be granted unsupervised on-grounds movement, 146366
supervised off-grounds movement, or nonsecured status except in 146367
accordance with the court order. The court may grant an accused 146368
supervised off-grounds movement to obtain medical treatment or 146369
specialized habilitation treatment services if the person who 146370
supervises the treatment or the continuing evaluation and 146371
treatment of the accused ordered under division (B)(1)(a) of this 146372
section informs the court that the treatment or continuing 146373
evaluation and treatment cannot be provided at the hospital or 146374
facility where the accused is placed by the department of mental 146375
healthmental health and addiction services. The chief clinical 146376
officer of the hospital or facility where the accused is placed by 146377
the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 146378
services or the managing officer of the institution or director of 146379
the facility to which the accused is committed or a designee of 146380
any of those persons may grant an accused movement to a medical 146381
facility for an emergency medical situation with appropriate 146382
supervision to ensure the safety of the accused, staff, and 146383
community during that emergency medical situation. The chief 146384
clinical officer of the hospital or facility where the accused is 146385
placed by the department of mental healthmental health and 146386
addiction services or the managing officer of the institution or 146387
director of the facility to which the accused is committed shall 146388
notify the court within twenty-four hours of the accused's 146389
movement to the medical facility for an emergency medical 146390
situation under this division.146391

       (F) The person who supervises the treatment or continuing 146392
evaluation and treatment of an accused ordered to undergo 146393
treatment or continuing evaluation and treatment under division 146394
(B)(1)(a) of this section shall file a written report with the 146395
court at the following times:146396

       (1) Whenever the person believes the accused is capable of 146397
understanding the nature and objective of the proceedings against 146398
the accused and of assisting in the accused's defense;146399

       (2) Fourteen days before expiration of the maximum time for 146400
treatment as specified in division (C) of this section and 146401
fourteen days before the expiration of the maximum time for 146402
continuing evaluation and treatment as specified in division 146403
(B)(1)(a) of this section;146404

       (3) At a minimum, after each six months of treatment;146405

       (4) Whenever the person who supervises the treatment or 146406
continuing evaluation and treatment of an accused ordered under 146407
division (B)(1)(a) of this section believes that there is not a 146408
substantial probability that the accused will become capable of 146409
understanding the nature and objective of the proceedings against 146410
the accused or of assisting in the accused's defense even if the 146411
accused is provided with a course of treatment.146412

       (G) A report under division (F) of this section shall contain 146413
the examiner's findings, the facts in reasonable detail on which 146414
the findings are based, and the examiner's opinion as to the 146415
accused's capability of understanding the nature and objective of 146416
the proceedings against the accused and of assisting in the 146417
accused's defense. If, in the examiner's opinion, the accused 146418
remains incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 146419
proceedings against the accused and of assisting in the accused's 146420
defense and there is a substantial probability that the accused 146421
will become capable of understanding the nature and objective of 146422
the proceedings against the accused and of assisting in the 146423
accused's defense if the accused is provided with a course of 146424
treatment, if in the examiner's opinion the accused remains 146425
mentally ill, and if the maximum time for treatment as specified 146426
in division (C) of this section has not expired, the report also 146427
shall contain the examiner's recommendation as to the least 146428
restrictive placement or commitment alternative that is consistent 146429
with the accused's treatment needs for restoration to competency 146430
and with the safety of the community. The court shall provide 146431
copies of the report to the trial counsel and defense counsel.146432

       (H) If an accused is committed pursuant to division (B)(1) of 146433
this section, within ten days after the treating physician of the 146434
accused or the examiner of the accused who is employed or retained 146435
by the treating facility advises that there is not a substantial 146436
probability that the accused will become capable of understanding 146437
the nature and objective of the proceedings against the accused or 146438
of assisting in the accused's defense even if the accused is 146439
provided with a course of treatment, within ten days after the 146440
expiration of the maximum time for treatment as specified in 146441
division (C) of this section, within ten days after the expiration 146442
of the maximum time for continuing evaluation and treatment as 146443
specified in division (B)(1)(a) of this section, within thirty 146444
days after an accused's request for a hearing that is made after 146445
six months of treatment, or within thirty days after being advised 146446
by the treating physician or examiner that the accused is 146447
competent to stand trial, whichever is the earliest, the court 146448
shall conduct another hearing to determine if the accused is 146449
competent to stand trial and shall do whichever of the following 146450
is applicable:146451

       (1) If the court finds that the accused is competent to stand 146452
trial, the accused shall be proceeded against as provided by law.146453

       (2) If the court finds that the accused is incompetent to 146454
stand trial, but that there is a substantial probability that the 146455
accused will become competent to stand trial if the accused is 146456
provided with a course of treatment, and the maximum time for 146457
treatment as specified in division (C) of this section has not 146458
expired, the court, after consideration of the examiner's 146459
recommendation, shall order that treatment be continued, may 146460
change least restrictive limitations on the accused's freedom of 146461
movement.146462

       (3) If the court finds that the accused is incompetent to 146463
stand trial, if the accused is being tried by a general 146464
court-martial, and if the court finds that there is not a 146465
substantial probability that the accused will become competent to 146466
stand trial even if the accused is provided with a course of 146467
treatment, or if the maximum time for treatment as specified in 146468
division (C) of this section has expired, further proceedings 146469
shall be as provided in sections 5924.504 to 5924.506 of the 146470
Revised Code.146471

       (4) If the court finds that the accused is incompetent to 146472
stand trial, if the accused is being tried before a special 146473
court-martial, and if the court finds that there is not a 146474
substantial probability that the accused will become competent to 146475
stand trial even if the accused is provided with a course of 146476
treatment, or if the maximum time for treatment as specified in 146477
division (C) of this section has expired, the court shall dismiss 146478
the charge against the accused. A dismissal under this division is 146479
not a bar to further prosecution based on the same conduct. The 146480
court shall discharge the accused unless the court or trial 146481
counsel files an affidavit in probate court for civil commitment 146482
pursuant to Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code. If an affidavit for 146483
civil commitment is filed, the court may detain the accused for 146484
ten days pending civil commitment. All of the following provisions 146485
apply to persons being tried by a special court-martial who are 146486
committed by the probate court subsequent to the court's or trial 146487
counsel's filing of an affidavit for civil commitment under 146488
authority of this division:146489

       (a) The chief clinical officer of the entity, hospital, or 146490
facility, the managing officer of the institution, or the person 146491
to which the accused is committed or admitted shall do all of the 146492
following:146493

       (i) Notify the trial counsel in writing of the discharge of 146494
the accused, send the notice at least ten days prior to the 146495
discharge unless the discharge is by the probate court, and state 146496
in the notice the date on which the accused will be discharged;146497

       (ii) Notify the trial counsel in writing when the accused is 146498
absent without leave or is granted unsupervised, off-grounds 146499
movement and send this notice promptly after the discovery of the 146500
absence without leave or prior to the granting of the 146501
unsupervised, off-grounds movement, whichever is applicable;146502

       (iii) Notify the trial counsel in writing of the change of 146503
the accused's commitment or admission to voluntary status, send 146504
the notice promptly upon learning of the change to voluntary 146505
status, and state in the notice the date on which the accused was 146506
committed or admitted on a voluntary status.146507

       (b) The trial counsel shall promptly inform the convening 146508
authority of any notification received under division (H)(4)(a) of 146509
this section. Upon receiving notice that the accused will be 146510
granted unsupervised, off-grounds movement, the convening 146511
authority either shall refer the charges against the accused to an 146512
investigating officer again or promptly notify the court that the 146513
convening authority does not intend to refer the charges against 146514
the accused again.146515

       (I) If an accused is convicted of a crime and sentenced to 146516
confinement, the accused's sentence shall be reduced by the total 146517
number of days the accused is confined for evaluation to determine 146518
the accused's competence to stand trial or treatment under this 146519
section and sections 5924.502 and 5924.504 of the Revised Code or 146520
by the total number of days the accused is confined for evaluation 146521
to determine the accused's mental condition at the time of the 146522
offense charged.146523

       Sec. 5924.504.  (A) If an accused being tried by a general 146524
court-martial is found incompetent to stand trial, after the 146525
expiration of the maximum time for treatment as specified in 146526
division (C) of section 5924.503 of the Revised Code or after the 146527
court finds that there is not a substantial probability that the 146528
accused will become competent to stand trial even if the accused 146529
is provided with a course of treatment, one of the following 146530
applies:146531

       (1) The court or the trial counsel may file an affidavit in 146532
probate court for civil commitment of the accused in the manner 146533
provided in Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code. If the court or 146534
trial counsel files an affidavit for civil commitment, the court 146535
may detain the accused for ten days pending civil commitment. If 146536
the probate court commits the accused subsequent to the court's or 146537
trial counsel's filing of an affidavit for civil commitment, the 146538
chief clinical officer of the entity, hospital, or facility, the 146539
managing officer of the institution, or the person to which the 146540
accused is committed or admitted shall send to the trial counsel 146541
the notices described in divisions (H)(4)(a)(i) to (iii) of 146542
section 5924.503 of the Revised Code within the periods of time 146543
and under the circumstances specified in those divisions.146544

       (2) On the motion of the trial counsel or on its own motion, 146545
the court may retain jurisdiction over the accused if at a hearing 146546
the court finds both of the following by clear and convincing 146547
evidence:146548

       (a) The accused committed the offense with which the accused 146549
is charged.146550

       (b) The accused is a mentally ill person subject to 146551
hospitalization by court order.146552

       (B) In making its determination under division (A)(2) of this 146553
section as to whether to retain jurisdiction over the accused, the 146554
court may consider all relevant evidence, including, but not 146555
limited to, any relevant psychiatric, psychological, or medical 146556
testimony or reports, the acts constituting the offense charged, 146557
and any history of the accused that is relevant to the accused's 146558
ability to conform to the law.146559

       (C) If the court conducts a hearing as described in division 146560
(A)(2) of this section and if the court does not make both 146561
findings described in divisions (A)(2)(a) and (b) of this section 146562
by clear and convincing evidence, the court shall dismiss the 146563
charges against the accused. Upon the dismissal, the court shall 146564
discharge the accused unless the court or trial counsel files an 146565
affidavit in probate court for civil commitment of the accused 146566
pursuant to Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code. If the court or 146567
trial counsel files an affidavit for civil commitment, the court 146568
may order that the accused be detained for up to ten days pending 146569
the civil commitment. If the probate court commits the accused 146570
subsequent to the court's or trial counsel's filing of an 146571
affidavit for civil commitment, the chief clinical officer of the 146572
entity, hospital, or facility, the managing officer of the 146573
institution, or the person to which the accused is committed or 146574
admitted shall send to the trial counsel the notices described in 146575
divisions (H)(4)(a)(i) to (iii) of section 5924.503 of the Revised 146576
Code within the periods of time and under the circumstances 146577
specified in those divisions. A dismissal of charges under this 146578
division is not a bar to further criminal proceedings based on the 146579
same conduct.146580

       (D)(1) If the court conducts a hearing as described in 146581
division (A)(2) of this section and if the court makes the 146582
findings described in divisions (A)(2)(a) and (b) of this section 146583
by clear and convincing evidence, the court shall commit the 146584
accused, if determined to require mental health treatment, to the 146585
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services146586
for treatment at a hospital, facility, or agencyservices provider146587
as determined clinically appropriate by the department of mental 146588
healthmental health and addiction services. In committing the 146589
accused to the department of mental healthmental health and 146590
addiction services, the court shall specify the least restrictive 146591
limitations on the accused's freedom of movement determined to be 146592
necessary to protect public safety.146593

       (2) If a court makes a commitment of an accused under 146594
division (D)(1) of this section, the trial counsel shall send to 146595
the hospital, facility, or agencyservices provider where the 146596
accused is placed by the department of mental healthmental health 146597
and addiction services or to the accused's place of commitment all 146598
reports of the accused's current mental condition and, except as 146599
otherwise provided in this division, any other relevant 146600
information, including, but not limited to, a transcript of the 146601
hearing held pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section, copies 146602
of relevant investigative reports, and copies of any prior arrest 146603
and conviction records that pertain to the accused and that the 146604
trial counsel possesses. The trial counsel shall send the reports 146605
of the accused's current mental condition in every case of 146606
commitment, and, unless the trial counsel determines that the 146607
release of any of the other relevant information to unauthorized 146608
persons would interfere with the effective prosecution of any 146609
person or would create a substantial risk of harm to any person, 146610
the trial counsel also shall send the other relevant information.146611

       (3) If a court makes a commitment under division (D)(1) of 146612
this section, all further proceedings shall be in accordance with 146613
Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code.146614

       Sec. 5924.506.  (A) If an accused person is found not guilty 146615
by reason of insanity, the verdict shall state that finding, and 146616
the trial court shall conduct a full hearing to determine whether 146617
the person is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by 146618
court order. Prior to the hearing, if the military judge believes 146619
that there is probable cause that the person found not guilty by 146620
reason of insanity is a mentally ill person subject to 146621
hospitalization by court order, the military judge may issue a 146622
temporary order of detention for that person to remain in effect 146623
for ten court days or until the hearing, whichever occurs first.146624

       Any person detained pursuant to a temporary order of 146625
detention issued under this division shall be held in a suitable 146626
facility, taking into consideration the place and type of 146627
confinement prior to and during trial.146628

       (B) The court shall hold the hearing under division (A) of 146629
this section to determine whether the person found not guilty by 146630
reason of insanity is a mentally ill person subject to 146631
hospitalization by court order within ten court days after the 146632
finding of not guilty by reason of insanity. Failure to conduct 146633
the hearing within the ten-day period shall cause the immediate 146634
discharge of the respondent, unless the judge grants a continuance 146635
for not longer than ten court days for good cause shown or for any 146636
period of time upon motion of the respondent.146637

       (C) If a person is found not guilty by reason of insanity, 146638
the person has the right to attend a hearing conducted pursuant to 146639
this section. At the hearing, the court shall inform the person 146640
that the person has all of the following rights:146641

       (1) The right to be represented by defense counsel or to 146642
retain civilian counsel, if the person so chooses;146643

       (2) The right to have independent expert evaluation;146644

       (3) The right to subpoena witnesses and documents, to present 146645
evidence on the person's behalf, and to cross-examine witnesses 146646
against the person;146647

       (4) The right to testify in the person's own behalf and to 146648
not be compelled to testify;146649

       (5) The right to have copies of any relevant medical or 146650
mental health document in the custody of the state or of any place 146651
of commitment other than a document for which the court finds that 146652
the release to the person of information contained in the document 146653
would create a substantial risk of harm to any person.146654

       (D) The hearing under division (A) of this section shall be 146655
open to the public, and the court shall conduct the hearing in 146656
accordance with regulations prescribed by the adjutant general. 146657
The court shall make and maintain a full transcript and record of 146658
the hearing proceedings. The court may consider all relevant 146659
evidence, including, but not limited to, any relevant psychiatric, 146660
psychological, or medical testimony or reports, the acts 146661
constituting the offense in relation to which the person was found 146662
not guilty by reason of insanity, and any history of the person 146663
that is relevant to the person's ability to conform to the law.146664

       (E) Upon completion of the hearing under division (A) of this 146665
section, if the court finds there is not clear and convincing 146666
evidence that the person is a mentally ill person subject to 146667
hospitalization by court order, the court shall discharge the 146668
person, unless a detainer has been placed upon the person by the 146669
department of rehabilitation and correction, in which case the 146670
person shall be returned to that department.146671

       (F) If, at the hearing under division (A) of this section, 146672
the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that the person 146673
is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 146674
order, it shall commit the person to the department of mental 146675
healthmental health and addiction services for placement in a 146676
hospital, facility, or agencyservices provider as determined 146677
clinically appropriate by the department of mental healthmental 146678
health and addiction services. Further proceedings shall be in 146679
accordance with Chapter 5122. or 5123. of the Revised Code. In 146680
committing the accused to the department of mental healthmental 146681
health and addiction services, the court shall specify the least 146682
restrictive limitations on the accused's freedom of movement 146683
determined to be necessary to protect public safety.146684

       (G) If a court makes a commitment of a person under division 146685
(F) of this section, the trial counsel shall send to the hospital, 146686
facility, or agencyservices provider where the defendant is 146687
placed by the department of mental healthmental health and 146688
addiction services or to the accused's place of commitment all 146689
reports of the person's current mental condition, and, except as 146690
otherwise provided in this division, any other relevant 146691
information, including, but not limited to, a transcript of the 146692
hearing held pursuant to division (A) of this section, copies of 146693
relevant investigative reports, and copies of any prior arrest and 146694
conviction records that pertain to the person and that the trial 146695
counsel possesses. The trial counsel shall send the reports of the 146696
person's current mental condition in every case of commitment, 146697
and, unless the trial counsel determines that the release of any 146698
of the other relevant information to unauthorized persons would 146699
interfere with the effective prosecution of any person or would 146700
create a substantial risk of harm to any person, the trial counsel 146701
also shall send the other relevant information.146702

       (H) A person who is committed pursuant to this section shall 146703
not voluntarily admit the person or be voluntarily admitted to a 146704
hospital or institution pursuant to sections 5122.02 and 5122.15 146705
of the Revised Code.146706

       Sec. 6109.21.  (A) Except as provided in divisions (I) and 146707
(J) of this section, no person shall operate a public water system 146708
in this state without a license issued by the director of 146709
environmental protection. 146710

        (B)(1) A person who proposes to operate a new public water 146711
system, in addition to complying with section 6109.07 of the 146712
Revised Code and rules adopted under it, shall obtain an initial 146713
license from the director. The person shall submit an application 146714
for the initial license at least forty-five days prior to 146715
commencing the operation of the system.146716

        (C) A license shall expire on the thirtieth day of January in 146717
the year following its issuance.146718

        (D) A license shall be renewed annually. A person proposing 146719
to continue operating a public water system shall apply for a 146720
license renewal at least thirty days prior to the expiration date 146721
of the license.146722

        (E) Through June 30, 2014, eachEach application for a 146723
license or license renewal shall be accompanied by the appropriate 146724
fee established under division (M) of section 3745.11 of the 146725
Revised Code. However, an applicant for an initial license who is 146726
proposing to operate a new public water system shall submit a fee 146727
that equals a prorated amount of the appropriate fee established 146728
under that division for the remainder of the licensing year.146729

       (F) Not later than thirty days after receiving a completed 146730
application and the appropriate license fee for a license or 146731
license renewal for a public water system, the director shall do 146732
one of the following:146733

       (1) Issue the license or license renewal for the public water 146734
system;146735

       (2) Issue the license or license renewal subject to terms and 146736
conditions that the director determines are necessary to ensure 146737
compliance with this chapter and rules adopted under it;146738

       (3) Deny the license or license renewal if the director finds 146739
that the public water system cannot be operated in substantial 146740
compliance with this chapter and rules adopted under it.146741

       (G) The director may condition, suspend, or revoke a license 146742
or license renewal issued under this section at any time if the 146743
director finds that the public water system was not or will not be 146744
operated in substantial compliance with this chapter and rules 146745
adopted under it. 146746

       (H) The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 146747
119. of the Revised Code establishing procedures and requirements 146748
governing both of the following:146749

        (1) Information to be included on applications for licenses 146750
and license renewals issued under this section;146751

        (2) The issuance, conditioning, suspension, revocation, and 146752
denial of licenses and license renewals under this section. 146753

       (I)(1) As used in division (I) of this section, "church" 146754
means a fellowship of believers, congregation, society, 146755
corporation, convention, or association that is formed primarily 146756
or exclusively for religious purposes and that is not formed or 146757
operated for the private profit of any person.146758

       (2) This section does not apply to a church that operates or 146759
maintains a public water system solely to provide water for that 146760
church or for a campground that is owned by the church and 146761
operated primarily or exclusively for members of the church and 146762
their families. 146763

       (J) This section does not apply to any public or nonpublic 146764
school that meets minimum standards of the state board of 146765
education that operates or maintains a public water system solely 146766
to provide water for that school.146767

       (K) The environmental protection agency shall collect well 146768
log filing fees on behalf of the division of soil and water 146769
resources in the department of natural resources in accordance 146770
with section 1521.05 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under 146771
it. The fees shall be submitted to the division quarterly as 146772
provided in those rules.146773

       Sec. 6111.037.  (A) There is hereby created in the state 146774
treasury the nonpoint source pollution management fund. The fund 146775
shall consist of grant moneys received underFor purposes of state 146776
nonpoint source pollution management and pursuant to section 319 146777
of the "Federal Water Pollution Control Act," for purposes of 146778
assisting with the development and implementation of a 146779
comprehensive nonpoint source pollution management program 146780
pursuant to that section of the act. Moneys credited to the fund 146781
may be used for purposes of research, planning, water quality 146782
assessments, demonstration projects, enforcement, technical 146783
assistance, education, and training regarding management of 146784
nonpoint sources of water pollution. Thethe director of 146785
environmental protection may enter into agreements to receive 146786
grant moneys for the nonpoint source pollution management fund and146787
for deposit into the state treasury to the credit of the water 146788
quality protection fund created in section 6111.0381 of the 146789
Revised Code. The director may enter into agreements to make 146790
grants of moneys credited to the fund under this section,146791
including, without limitation, passthrough grants to other state 146792
departments or agencies.146793

       (B) The director shall periodically prepare and, by rules 146794
adopted under division (O) of section 6111.036 of the Revised 146795
Code, establish a priority system for identifying activities 146796
eligible for assistance under this section. The priority system 146797
shall ensure that financial assistance available under this 146798
section is first provided to:146799

       (1) Control particularly difficult or serious nonpoint source 146800
pollution problems, including, without limitation, problems 146801
resulting from mining activities;146802

       (2) Implement innovative methods or practices for controlling 146803
nonpoint sources of pollution, including, without limitation, 146804
regulatory programs that the director determines are appropriate;146805

       (3) Control interstate nonpoint source pollution problems;146806

       (4) Implement ground and surface water quality protection 146807
activities that the director determines are part of a 146808
comprehensive nonpoint source pollution control program, which 146809
activities include research, planning, ground water quality146810
assessments, demonstration programs, enforcement, technical 146811
assistance, education, and training to protect ground water 146812
quality from nonpoint sources of pollution.146813

       Sec. 6133.041. (A) Notwithstanding any other provision of 146814
this chapter or Chapter 6131. of the Revised Code to the contrary, 146815
a joint board of county commissioners, when practicable, may 146816
conduct proceedings regarding existing improvements by video 146817
conference or, if video conference is not available, by 146818
teleconference. The joint board shall make provisions for public 146819
attendance at any location involved in such a proceeding. The 146820
participation of any commissioner or board of county commissioners 146821
in a video conference or teleconference shall occur at the 146822
location of the commissioners' main office or board room in an 146823
open meeting at which the public is allowed to attend.146824

        (B) Before convening a meeting of a joint board of county 146825
commissioners by video conference or by teleconference, designated 146826
staff shall send, via electronic mail, facsimile, or United States 146827
postal service, a copy of meeting-related documents to each member 146828
of the joint board.146829

        (C) The minutes of each joint county ditch meeting shall 146830
specify who was attending by teleconference, who was attending by 146831
video conference, and who was physically present. 146832

       (D) Nothing in section 121.22 of the Revised Code prohibits a 146833
joint board of county commissioners from conducting a proceeding 146834
in a manner authorized by this section.146835

       Section 101.02. That existing sections 9.03, 9.15, 9.231, 146836
9.239, 9.24, 9.833, 9.90, 9.901, 101.39, 101.391, 102.02, 103.144, 146837
103.63, 107.033, 107.12, 109.06, 109.36, 109.57, 109.572, 109.71, 146838
109.746, 109.77, 109.85, 109.86, 109.90, 111.02, 111.15, 111.28, 146839
113.02, 113.061, 117.03, 117.10, 117.20, 119.01, 120.06, 121.02, 146840
121.03, 121.22, 121.35, 121.37, 121.372, 122.075, 122.083, 122.17, 146841
122.171, 122.175, 122.28, 122.30, 122.31, 122.32, 122.33, 122.34, 146842
122.35, 122.36, 122.58, 122.657, 122.658, 122.66, 122.67, 122.68, 146843
122.69, 122.70, 122.701, 122.76, 122.861, 123.01, 123.10, 123.11, 146844
123.201, 123.21, 123.27, 124.11, 124.14, 124.18, 124.30, 124.341, 146845
124.381, 124.57, 124.84, 125.05, 125.21, 125.212, 125.28, 125.602, 146846
125.603, 125.832, 125.836, 126.07, 126.14, 126.32, 126.35, 126.45, 146847
126.46, 126.47, 126.48, 127.14, 127.16, 131.51, 133.01, 133.06, 146848
135.143, 135.22, 135.35, 135.61, 135.71, 135.80, 135.81, 135.85, 146849
140.01, 140.03, 140.05, 145.01, 145.012, 145.037, 145.22, 149.01, 146850
149.12, 149.311, 149.43, 149.431, 149.54, 151.11, 152.09, 153.692, 146851
154.01, 154.17, 154.20, 154.22, 154.23, 154.25, 156.02, 156.03, 146852
156.04, 156.05, 166.02, 166.03, 166.04, 166.08, 166.25, 167.03, 146853
169.02, 169.05, 169.07, 169.08, 173.03, 173.14, 173.17, 173.19, 146854
173.20, 173.21, 173.23, 173.25, 173.26, 173.27, 173.28, 173.39, 146855
173.391, 173.392, 173.394, 173.40, 173.401, 173.402, 173.403, 146856
173.404, 173.42, 173.43, 173.431, 173.432, 173.434, 173.45, 146857
173.47, 173.48, 173.50, 173.501, 173.99, 175.04, 187.10, 191.01, 146858
191.02, 191.04, 191.06, 301.28, 305.23, 306.35, 307.07, 307.674, 146859
307.86, 309.09, 317.06, 317.08, 317.32, 317.321, 317.36, 321.35, 146860
321.44, 323.158, 329.04, 329.051, 329.06, 329.14, 333.01, 333.02, 146861
333.03, 333.04, 333.05, 339.02, 339.05, 339.06, 339.07, 340.01, 146862
340.011, 340.02, 340.021, 340.03, 340.031, 340.032, 340.04, 146863
340.05, 340.07, 340.09, 340.091, 340.10, 340.11, 340.12, 340.13, 146864
340.15, 340.16, 341.192, 349.01, 349.04, 351.021, 715.013, 146865
715.691, 721.01, 721.03, 731.091, 737.41, 742.14, 755.06, 901.21, 146866
901.22, 901.23, 903.11, 903.99, 905.06, 909.15, 924.02, 924.06, 146867
927.54, 935.01, 935.03, 935.041, 935.12, 955.01, 955.05, 955.06, 146868
955.07, 955.08, 955.09, 955.12, 955.14, 955.201, 956.07, 956.18, 146869
959.131, 959.132, 959.99, 991.03, 991.04, 991.06, 1309.521, 146870
1321.51, 1321.535, 1321.55, 1322.01, 1322.051, 1327.46, 1327.48, 146871
1327.50, 1327.501, 1327.61, 1327.99, 1332.26, 1337.11, 1347.08, 146872
1501.011, 1501.45, 1506.21, 1506.30, 1509.01, 1509.02, 1509.062, 146873
1509.10, 1509.11, 1509.22, 1509.226, 1509.50, 1511.02, 1511.022, 146874
1519.05, 1531.06, 1531.17, 1545.071, 1547.05, 1547.051, 1547.052, 146875
1547.06, 1547.542, 1547.99, 1548.02, 1551.33, 1551.35, 1555.15, 146876
1711.07, 1721.10, 1724.03, 1739.061, 1751.01, 1751.11, 1751.12, 146877
1751.14, 1751.271, 1751.31, 1751.60, 1901.10, 1901.12, 1901.33, 146878
1907.14, 1923.14, 2101.08, 2101.24, 2108.05, 2113.041, 2113.06, 146879
2117.061, 2117.25, 2133.01, 2133.25, 2151.011, 2151.3514, 146880
2151.362, 2151.83, 2151.86, 2152.54, 2152.59, 2301.14, 2301.20, 146881
2301.23, 2301.24, 2301.25, 2303.201, 2305.234, 2307.65, 2311.14, 146882
2317.02, 2317.422, 2335.09, 2335.11, 2501.16, 2505.02, 2701.03, 146883
2701.031, 2743.03, 2743.09, 2743.121, 2743.191, 2743.20, 2743.48, 146884
2743.52, 2743.53, 2743.531, 2743.55, 2743.60, 2743.601, 2743.61, 146885
2743.62, 2743.63, 2743.64, 2743.65, 2743.66, 2743.67, 2743.68, 146886
2743.69, 2743.71, 2744.05, 2901.13, 2901.30, 2903.33, 2907.22, 146887
2913.01, 2913.40, 2913.401, 2915.02, 2919.271, 2921.01, 2921.22, 146888
2921.36, 2921.38, 2923.126, 2925.03, 2929.15, 2930.01, 2935.03, 146889
2935.33, 2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, 146890
2951.041, 2953.32, 2967.22, 2981.01, 2981.12, 2981.13, 3101.051, 146891
3107.083, 3109.15, 3111.04, 3111.72, 3119.29, 3119.54, 3121.441, 146892
3121.89, 3121.891, 3121.892, 3121.893, 3121.898, 3123.958, 146893
3125.18, 3125.36, 3301.07, 3301.0711, 3301.0712, 3301.0714, 146894
3301.0715, 3301.0723, 3301.0725, 3301.15, 3301.16, 3302.01, 146895
3302.03, 3302.032, 3302.20, 3302.21, 3302.22, 3303.41, 3304.11, 146896
3304.12, 3304.13, 3304.14, 3304.15, 3304.16, 3304.17, 3304.18, 146897
3304.181, 3304.182, 3304.19, 3304.20, 3304.21, 3304.22, 3304.23, 146898
3304.231, 3304.25, 3304.27, 3304.28, 3304.41, 3305.03, 3307.51, 146899
3309.21, 3310.01, 3310.02, 3310.03, 3310.05, 3310.06, 3310.08, 146900
3310.13, 3310.14, 3310.522, 3310.56, 3311.0510, 3311.19, 3311.22, 146901
3311.231, 3311.38, 3311.86, 3312.08, 3313.372, 3313.376, 3313.48, 146902
3313.483, 3313.484, 3313.488, 3313.4810, 3313.533, 3313.539, 146903
3313.60, 3313.603, 3313.6013, 3313.6016, 3313.612, 3313.615, 146904
3313.62, 3313.64, 3313.646, 3313.65, 3313.674, 3313.714, 3313.715, 146905
3313.82, 3313.83, 3313.841, 3313.843, 3313.844, 3313.845, 146906
3313.847, 3313.88, 3313.911, 3313.976, 3313.978, 3313.98, 146907
3313.981, 3314.015, 3314.017, 3314.027, 3314.029, 3314.03, 146908
3314.05, 3314.06, 3314.072, 3314.074, 3314.08, 3314.083, 3314.084, 146909
3314.087, 3314.091, 3314.11, 3314.26, 3314.35, 3315.07, 3315.33, 146910
3315.40, 3315.42, 3316.041, 3316.06, 3317.01, 3317.013, 3317.021, 146911
3317.023, 3317.0212, 3317.03, 3317.032, 3317.05, 3317.06, 146912
3317.063, 3317.08, 3317.10, 3317.14, 3317.18, 3317.19, 3317.20, 146913
3317.201, 3317.50, 3317.51, 3318.011, 3318.031, 3318.08, 3318.31, 146914
3318.36, 3318.363, 3319.07, 3319.073, 3319.0811, 3319.112, 146915
3319.17, 3319.22, 3319.235, 3319.57, 3319.58, 3321.01, 3321.04, 146916
3321.05, 3321.13, 3321.14, 3321.15, 3323.021, 3323.03, 3323.04, 146917
3323.07, 3323.08, 3323.09, 3323.091, 3323.13, 3323.14, 3323.141, 146918
3323.142, 3326.07, 3326.08, 3326.11, 3326.31, 3326.32, 3326.33, 146919
3326.34, 3326.38, 3326.45, 3327.01, 3327.02, 3327.10, 3333.041, 146920
3333.73, 3333.82, 3333.90, 3334.08, 3335.35, 3335.36, 3335.37, 146921
3335.38, 3345.05, 3345.06, 3345.12, 3353.01, 3353.02, 3353.03, 146922
3353.04, 3353.06, 3353.07, 3365.01, 3365.02, 3365.021, 3365.07, 146923
3365.12, 3383.01, 3383.07, 3501.01, 3517.01, 3517.10, 3517.101, 146924
3517.102, 3517.103, 3517.153, 3517.154, 3517.155, 3517.20, 146925
3517.992, 3599.03, 3599.45, 3701.023, 3701.024, 3701.027, 146926
3701.041, 3701.13, 3701.132, 3701.243, 3701.261, 3701.262, 146927
3701.264, 3701.342, 3701.344, 3701.507, 3701.74, 3701.741, 146928
3701.742, 3701.78, 3701.881, 3701.921, 3701.922, 3701.99, 3702.30, 146929
3702.51, 3702.521, 3702.55, 3702.62, 3702.74, 3702.91, 3704.144, 146930
3706.01, 3707.511, 3709.01, 3709.051, 3709.10, 3712.051, 3712.07, 146931
3712.09, 3713.06, 3714.03, 3714.07, 3717.08, 3718.06, 3719.61, 146932
3721.01, 3721.011, 3721.02, 3721.022, 3721.024, 3721.027, 146933
3721.042, 3721.071, 3721.08, 3721.10, 3721.12, 3721.121, 3721.13, 146934
3721.14, 3721.15, 3721.16, 3721.17, 3721.19, 3721.50, 3721.51, 146935
3721.511, 3721.512, 3721.513, 3721.52, 3721.53, 3721.531, 146936
3721.532, 3721.533, 3721.54, 3721.541, 3721.55, 3721.56, 3721.57, 146937
3721.58, 3727.01, 3734.01, 3734.02, 3734.28, 3734.57, 3734.901, 146938
3734.907, 3735.58, 3737.02, 3737.83, 3737.841, 3737.88, 3737.882, 146939
3737.883, 3742.30, 3742.31, 3742.32, 3742.51, 3745.11, 3745.113, 146940
3745.72, 3748.01, 3748.04, 3769.08, 3769.087, 3769.088, 3770.02, 146941
3770.06, 3770.21, 3772.03, 3772.062, 3772.24, 3781.112, 3793.01, 146942
3793.031, 3793.032, 3793.051, 3793.10, 3793.11, 3793.12, 3793.13, 146943
3793.14, 3793.15, 3793.16, 3793.18, 3793.22, 3793.31, 3793.32, 146944
3793.33, 3793.34, 3793.35, 3793.36, 3793.37, 3793.38, 3793.39, 146945
3795.01, 3798.01, 3798.10, 3798.13, 3798.14, 3798.15, 3798.16, 146946
3901.3814, 3903.14, 3905.40, 3905.483, 3905.862, 3916.06, 3923.24, 146947
3923.241, 3923.281, 3923.443, 3923.49, 3923.50, 3923.601, 3923.83, 146948
3924.41, 3924.42, 3963.01, 3963.04, 4104.33, 4112.02, 4112.12, 146949
4112.31, 4115.034, 4115.32, 4117.06, 4117.14, 4117.15, 4121.44, 146950
4121.441, 4121.50, 4121.69, 4123.32, 4123.35, 4123.41, 4123.57, 146951
4123.93, 4131.03, 4141.162, 4141.29, 4301.01, 4301.10, 4301.171, 146952
4301.30, 4301.43, 4301.62, 4303.181, 4305.131, 4501.01, 4501.21, 146953
4503.03, 4503.0610, 4503.44, 4503.62, 4505.02, 4505.09, 4506.07, 146954
4507.01, 4507.06, 4507.51, 4510.038, 4510.45, 4511.19, 4511.191, 146955
4511.21, 4511.69, 4511.85, 4513.34, 4519.11, 4701.03, 4707.02, 146956
4707.073, 4707.10, 4709.11, 4713.08, 4713.44, 4715.22, 4715.36, 146957
4715.372, 4715.39, 4715.64, 4717.03, 4717.06, 4717.07, 4717.10, 146958
4717.14, 4717.15, 4719.01, 4723.18, 4723.35, 4723.481, 4725.03, 146959
4725.16, 4729.01, 4729.51, 4729.54, 4729.69, 4729.77, 4729.78, 146960
4729.79, 4729.80, 4729.81, 4729.99, 4730.411, 4731.05, 4731.151, 146961
4731.23, 4731.65, 4731.71, 4732.06, 4732.07, 4732.08, 4734.41, 146962
4735.07, 4735.09, 4735.10, 4735.142, 4735.56, 4742.01, 4751.01, 146963
4751.02, 4751.03, 4751.04, 4751.041, 4751.05, 4751.06, 4751.07, 146964
4751.08, 4751.10, 4751.11, 4751.12, 4751.13, 4753.071, 4755.11, 146965
4755.47, 4755.481, 4755.64, 4758.10, 4758.11, 4761.01, 4776.01, 146966
4778.02, 4778.03, 4781.121, 4781.28, 4781.29, 4906.20, 4955.32, 146967
4955.321, 4955.34, 4955.44, 4955.47, 4999.04, 5101.01, 5101.11, 146968
5101.141, 5101.16, 5101.162, 5101.18, 5101.181, 5101.183, 146969
5101.184, 5101.26, 5101.271, 5101.272, 5101.273, 5101.30, 5101.31, 146970
5101.34, 5101.35, 5101.36, 5101.46, 5101.461, 5101.47, 5101.49, 146971
5101.50, 5101.501, 5101.502, 5101.51, 5101.511, 5101.512, 146972
5101.513, 5101.516, 5101.517, 5101.519, 5101.5110, 5101.52, 146973
5101.521, 5101.522, 5101.524, 5101.527, 5101.571, 5101.572, 146974
5101.573, 5101.574, 5101.575, 5101.58, 5101.59, 5101.591, 5101.60, 146975
5101.61, 5101.80, 5101.801, 5101.803, 5103.02, 5103.0323, 5103.13, 146976
5103.42, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5104.02, 5104.021, 5104.03, 5104.08, 146977
5104.11, 5104.12, 5104.32, 5107.10, 5107.14, 5107.16, 5107.20, 146978
5107.24, 5107.26, 5107.42, 5107.64, 5111.01, 5111.011, 5111.013, 146979
5111.016, 5111.018, 5111.0112, 5111.0114, 5111.0116, 5111.0117, 146980
5111.0118, 5111.0119, 5111.02, 5111.021, 5111.022, 5111.023, 146981
5111.024, 5111.025, 5111.027, 5111.028, 5111.029, 5111.0210, 146982
5111.0211, 5111.0212, 5111.0213, 5111.0214, 5111.0215, 5111.03, 146983
5111.031, 5111.032, 5111.033, 5111.034, 5111.035, 5111.04, 146984
5111.042, 5111.05, 5111.051, 5111.052, 5111.053, 5111.054, 146985
5111.06, 5111.061, 5111.062, 5111.063, 5111.07, 5111.071, 5111.08, 146986
5111.081, 5111.082, 5111.083, 5111.084, 5111.085, 5111.086, 146987
5111.09, 5111.091, 5111.092, 5111.10, 5111.101, 5111.102, 5111.11, 146988
5111.111, 5111.112, 5111.113, 5111.114, 5111.12, 5111.121, 146989
5111.13, 5111.14, 5111.141, 5111.15, 5111.151, 5111.16, 5111.161, 146990
5111.162, 5111.163, 5111.17, 5111.171, 5111.172, 5111.173, 146991
5111.174, 5111.175, 5111.177, 5111.178, 5111.179, 5111.1710, 146992
5111.1711, 5111.18, 5111.181, 5111.19, 5111.191, 5111.20, 146993
5111.201, 5111.202, 5111.203, 5111.204, 5111.21, 5111.212, 146994
5111.22, 5111.221, 5111.222, 5111.223, 5111.224, 5111.225, 146995
5111.226, 5111.23, 5111.231, 5111.232, 5111.233, 5111.235, 146996
5111.24, 5111.241, 5111.242, 5111.244, 5111.245, 5111.246, 146997
5111.25, 5111.251, 5111.254, 5111.255, 5111.257, 5111.258, 146998
5111.259, 5111.26, 5111.261, 5111.262, 5111.263, 5111.264, 146999
5111.265, 5111.266, 5111.27, 5111.271, 5111.28, 5111.29, 5111.291, 147000
5111.30, 5111.31, 5111.32, 5111.33, 5111.331, 5111.35, 5111.36, 147001
5111.37, 5111.38, 5111.39, 5111.40, 5111.41, 5111.411, 5111.42, 147002
5111.43, 5111.44, 5111.45, 5111.46, 5111.47, 5111.48, 5111.49, 147003
5111.50, 5111.51, 5111.511, 5111.52, 5111.53, 5111.54, 5111.55, 147004
5111.56, 5111.57, 5111.58, 5111.59, 5111.60, 5111.61, 5111.62, 147005
5111.63, 5111.66, 5111.661, 5111.67, 5111.671, 5111.672, 5111.673, 147006
5111.674, 5111.675, 5111.676, 5111.677, 5111.68, 5111.681, 147007
5111.682, 5111.683, 5111.684, 5111.685, 5111.686, 5111.687, 147008
5111.688, 5111.689, 5111.70, 5111.701, 5111.702, 5111.703, 147009
5111.704, 5111.705, 5111.706, 5111.707, 5111.708, 5111.709, 147010
5111.7011, 5111.71, 5111.711, 5111.712, 5111.713, 5111.714, 147011
5111.715, 5111.83, 5111.84, 5111.85, 5111.851, 5111.852, 5111.853, 147012
5111.854, 5111.855, 5111.856, 5111.86, 5111.861, 5111.862, 147013
5111.863, 5111.864, 5111.865, 5111.87, 5111.871, 5111.872, 147014
5111.873, 5111.874, 5111.875, 5111.876, 5111.877, 5111.878, 147015
5111.879, 5111.88, 5111.881, 5111.882, 5111.883, 5111.884, 147016
5111.885, 5111.886, 5111.887, 5111.888, 5111.889, 5111.8810, 147017
5111.89, 5111.891, 5111.892, 5111.893, 5111.894, 5111.90, 5111.91, 147018
5111.911, 5111.912, 5111.914, 5111.915, 5111.92, 5111.93, 5111.94, 147019
5111.941, 5111.943, 5111.944, 5111.945, 5111.96, 5111.97, 5111.98, 147020
5111.981, 5111.982, 5111.99, 5112.01, 5112.03, 5112.04, 5112.05, 147021
5112.06, 5112.07, 5112.08, 5112.09, 5112.10, 5112.11, 5112.17, 147022
5112.18, 5112.19, 5112.21, 5112.30, 5112.31, 5112.32, 5112.33, 147023
5112.331, 5112.34, 5112.341, 5112.35, 5112.37, 5112.371, 5112.38, 147024
5112.39, 5112.40, 5112.41, 5112.42, 5112.43, 5112.44, 5112.45, 147025
5112.46, 5112.47, 5112.48, 5112.99, 5112.991, 5115.20, 5117.10, 147026
5119.01, 5119.012, 5119.02, 5119.04, 5119.06, 5119.061, 5119.07, 147027
5119.071, 5119.072, 5119.08, 5119.10, 5119.101, 5119.11, 5119.12, 147028
5119.14, 5119.16, 5119.161, 5119.17, 5119.18, 5119.20, 5119.201, 147029
5119.202, 5119.21, 5119.22, 5119.221, 5119.23, 5119.24, 5119.27, 147030
5119.30, 5119.33, 5119.34, 5119.35, 5119.351, 5119.36, 5119.42, 147031
5119.43, 5119.44, 5119.46, 5119.50, 5119.51, 5119.52, 5119.53, 147032
5119.57, 5119.60, 5119.61, 5119.611, 5119.612, 5119.613, 5119.62, 147033
5119.621, 5119.622, 5119.63, 5119.631, 5119.69, 5119.691, 5119.99, 147034
5120.07, 5120.09, 5120.135, 5120.17, 5120.171, 5120.652, 5120.654, 147035
5121.051, 5121.30, 5121.32, 5121.33, 5121.34, 5121.35, 5121.36, 147036
5121.37, 5121.38, 5121.40, 5121.42, 5121.43, 5121.44, 5121.45, 147037
5121.46, 5121.47, 5121.49, 5121.50, 5121.51, 5121.52, 5121.55, 147038
5122.01, 5122.03, 5122.10, 5122.11, 5122.12, 5122.13, 5122.15, 147039
5122.17, 5122.18, 5122.19, 5122.20, 5122.21, 5122.23, 5122.25, 147040
5122.26, 5122.27, 5122.271, 5122.31, 5122.311, 5122.32, 5122.33, 147041
5122.34, 5122.341, 5122.39, 5122.43, 5122.44, 5122.45, 5122.46, 147042
5122.47, 5123.01, 5123.021, 5123.022, 5123.03, 5123.0412, 147043
5123.0417, 5123.09, 5123.171, 5123.19, 5123.192, 5123.197, 147044
5123.198, 5123.38, 5123.61, 5123.86, 5126.01, 5126.026, 5126.043, 147045
5126.05, 5126.051, 5126.054, 5126.055, 5139.03, 5139.04, 5139.08, 147046
5139.34, 5145.162, 5145.18, 5149.22, 5153.16, 5302.221, 5309.082, 147047
5309.68, 5309.86, 5501.311, 5501.312, 5501.73, 5502.011, 5505.12, 147048
5507.01, 5507.02, 5507.021, 5507.022, 5507.03, 5507.06, 5507.07, 147049
5507.08, 5507.09, 5507.12, 5507.15, 5507.18, 5507.22, 5507.25, 147050
5507.26, 5507.27, 5507.32, 5507.34, 5507.40, 5507.42, 5507.44, 147051
5507.46, 5507.52, 5507.53, 5507.54, 5507.55, 5507.57, 5507.571, 147052
5507.60, 5507.63, 5507.99, 5511.03, 5515.08, 5540.03, 5701.13, 147053
5703.052, 5703.053, 5703.059, 5703.19, 5703.21, 5703.37, 5703.50, 147054
5703.70, 5703.82, 5705.01, 5705.10, 5705.19, 5705.192, 5705.21, 147055
5705.217, 5705.218, 5705.221, 5705.25, 5709.17, 5709.75, 5723.01, 147056
5725.18, 5725.33, 5725.34, 5726.20, 5726.52, 5726.54, 5727.26, 147057
5727.75, 5727.84, 5727.89, 5728.10, 5729.03, 5729.04, 5729.16, 147058
5729.17, 5731.39, 5733.01, 5733.06, 5733.11, 5733.55, 5733.58, 147059
5733.98, 5735.012, 5735.12, 5735.142, 5735.27, 5735.34, 5739.01, 147060
5739.02, 5739.026, 5739.09, 5739.13, 5741.01, 5741.03, 5741.17, 147061
5743.081, 5743.15, 5743.56, 5745.12, 5747.01, 5747.02, 5747.022, 147062
5747.025, 5747.08, 5747.10, 5747.11, 5747.113, 5747.122, 5747.13, 147063
5747.21, 5747.22, 5747.47, 5747.501, 5747.76, 5747.98, 5748.01, 147064
5749.02, 5749.06, 5749.07, 5749.17, 5751.01, 5751.02, 5751.051, 147065
5751.07, 5751.081, 5751.09, 5751.20, 5751.21, 5751.98, 5753.03, 147066
5753.07, 5815.28, 5902.02, 5905.02, 5910.02, 5910.07, 5919.34, 147067
5924.502, 5924.503, 5924.504, 5924.506, 6109.21, and 6111.037 of 147068
the Revised Code are hereby repealed.147069

       Section 105.01. That sections 122.076, 122.15, 122.151, 147070
122.152, 122.153, 122.154, 122.29, 122.97, 123.23, 125.837, 147071
125.838, 149.51, 149.55, 166.22, 166.28, 173.425, 173.433, 147072
183.28, 184.04, 340.022, 340.033, 340.06, 340.14, 1513.371, 147073
1531.34, 1547.721, 1547.722, 1547.723, 1547.724, 1547.725, 147074
1547.726, 1901.121, 2301.26, 2743.54, 3302.043, 3304.24, 3304.26, 147075
3304.38, 3313.481, 3313.482, 3313.4811, 3314.088, 3314.13, 147076
3317.012, 3317.014, 3317.018, 3317.02, 3317.022, 3317.029, 147077
3317.0217, 3317.051, 3317.052, 3317.053, 3317.11, 3317.16, 147078
3317.62, 3317.63, 3317.64, 3318.023, 3323.16, 3326.39, 3345.81, 147079
3353.09, 3353.15, 3353.20, 3383.02, 3383.03, 3383.04, 3383.05, 147080
3383.06, 3383.08, 3383.09, 3506.22, 3517.1010, 3701.072, 147081
3701.263, 3701.343, 3701.90, 3701.901, 3701.902, 3701.903, 147082
3701.904, 3701.905, 3701.906, 3701.907, 3721.026, 3793.02, 147083
3793.03, 3793.04, 3793.041, 3793.05, 3793.06, 3793.061, 147084
3793.08, 3793.09, 3793.19, 3793.20, 3793.21, 3793.99, 5101.503, 147085
5101.514, 5101.515, 5101.518, 5101.523, 5101.525, 5101.526, 147086
5101.528, 5101.529, 5111.012, 5111.014, 5111.015, 5111.0110, 147087
5111.0111, 5111.0113, 5111.0115, 5111.0120, 5111.0121, 147088
5111.0122, 5111.0123, 5111.0124, 5111.0125, 5111.176, 5111.211, 147089
5111.236, 5111.65, 5111.8710, 5111.8811, 5111.913, 5111.942, 147090
5111.946, 5119.011, 5119.013, 5119.03, 5119.05, 5119.47, 147091
5119.623, 5119.64, 5119.65, 5119.66, 5119.67, 5119.68, 5507.65, 147092
5507.66, 5707.05, 5727.41, 5733.35, 5747.211, 5747.33, 6101.451, 147093
and 6111.029 of the Revised Code are hereby repealed.147094

       Section 110.10. That section 3313.88 of the Revised Code as 147095
it results from Section 101.01 of this act be amended and 147096
recodified as section 3313.482 of the Revised Code to read as 147097
follows:147098

       Sec. 3313.88.        Sec. 3313.482.  (A)(1) Prior to the first day of 147099
August of each school year, the board of education of any school 147100
district or the governing authority of any chartered nonpublic 147101
school may submit to the department of education a plan to require 147102
students to access and complete classroom lessons posted on the 147103
district's or nonpublic school's web portal or web site in order 147104
to make up dayshours in that school year on which it is 147105
necessary to close schools for any of the reasons specified in 147106
division (B) of section 3317.01 of the Revised Code in excess of 147107
the number of days permitted under sections 3313.48, 3313.481, and 147108
3317.01 of the Revised Codedisease epidemic, hazardous weather 147109
conditions, law enforcement emergencies, inoperability of school 147110
buses or other equipment necessary to the school's operation, 147111
damage to a school building, or other temporary circumstances due 147112
to utility failure rendering the school building unfit for school 147113
use.147114

       Prior to the first day of August of each school year, the 147115
governing authority of any community school established under 147116
Chapter 3314. that is not an internet- or computer-based community 147117
school, as defined in section 3314.02 of the Revised Code, may 147118
submit to the department a plan to require students to access and 147119
complete classroom lessons posted on the school's web portal or 147120
web site in order to make up days or hours in that school year on 147121
which it is necessary to close the school for any of the reasons 147122
specified in division (H)(4) of section 3314.08 of the Revised 147123
Code so that the school is in compliance with the minimum number 147124
of hours required under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code.147125

        A plan submitted by a school district board or, chartered 147126
nonpublic school governing authority shall provide for making up 147127
any number of days, up to a maximum of three days. A plan 147128
submitted by a, or community school governing authority shall 147129
provide for making up any number of hours, up to a maximum of the 147130
number of hours that are the equivalent of three school days. 147131
Provided the plan meets all requirements of this section, the 147132
department shall permit the board or governing authority to 147133
implement the plan for the applicable school year.147134

       (2) Each plan submitted under this section by a school 147135
district board of education shall include the written consent of 147136
the teachers' employee representative designated under division 147137
(B) of section 4117.04 of the Revised Code.147138

       (3) Each plan submitted under this section shall provide for 147139
the following:147140

       (a) Not later than the first day of November of the school 147141
year, each classroom teacher shall develop a sufficient number of 147142
lessons for each course taught by the teacher that school year to 147143
cover the number of make-up days or hours specified in the plan. 147144
The teacher shall designate the order in which the lessons are to 147145
be posted on the district's, community school's, or nonpublic 147146
school's web portal or web site in the event of a school closure. 147147
Teachers may be granted up to one professional development day to 147148
create lesson plans for those lessons.147149

       (b) To the extent possible and necessary, a classroom teacher 147150
shall update or replace, based on current instructional progress, 147151
one or more of the lesson plans developed under division (A)(3)(a) 147152
of this section before they are posted on the web portal or web 147153
site under division (A)(3)(c) of this section or distributed under 147154
division (B) of this section.147155

       (c) As soon as practicable after a school closure, a district 147156
or school employee responsible for web portal or web site 147157
operations shall make the designated lessons available to students 147158
on the district's, community school's, or nonpublic school's 147159
portal or site. A lesson shall be posted for each course that was 147160
scheduled to meet on the day or hours of the closure.147161

       (d) Each student enrolled in a course for which a lesson is 147162
posted on the portal or site shall be granted a two-week period 147163
from the date of posting to complete the lesson. The student's 147164
classroom teacher shall grade the lesson in the same manner as 147165
other lessons. The student may receive an incomplete or failing 147166
grade if the lesson is not completed on time.147167

       (e) If a student does not have access to a computer at the 147168
student's residence and the plan does not include blizzard bags 147169
under division (B) of this section, the student shall be permitted 147170
to work on the posted lessons at school after the student's school 147171
reopens. If the lessons were posted prior to the reopening, the 147172
student shall be granted a two-week period from the date of the 147173
reopening, rather than from the date of posting as otherwise 147174
required under division (A)(3)(d) of this section, to complete the 147175
lessons. The district board or community school or nonpublic 147176
school governing authority may provide the student access to a 147177
computer before, during, or after the regularly scheduled school 147178
day or may provide a substantially similar paper lesson in order 147179
to complete the lessons.147180

       (B)(1) In addition to posting classroom lessons online under 147181
division (A) of this section, the board of education of any school 147182
district or governing authority of any community or chartered 147183
nonpublic school may include in the plan distribution of "blizzard 147184
bags," which are paper copies of the lessons posted online.147185

        (2) If a school opts to use blizzard bags, teachers shall 147186
prepare paper copies in conjunction with the lessons to be posted 147187
online and update the paper copies whenever the teacher updates 147188
the online lesson plans.147189

        (3) The board of education of any school district or 147190
governing authority of any community or chartered nonpublic school 147191
that opts to use blizzard bags shall specify in the plan the 147192
method of distribution of blizzard bag lessons, which may include, 147193
but not be limited to, requiring distribution by a specific 147194
deadline or requiring distribution prior to anticipated school 147195
closure as directed by the superintendent of a school district or 147196
the principal, director, chief administrative officer, or the 147197
equivalent, of a school.147198

        (4) Students shall turn in completed lessons in accordance 147199
with division (A)(3)(d) of this section. 147200

       (C)(1) No school district that implements a plan in 147201
accordance with this section shall be considered to have failed to 147202
comply with division (B) of section 3317.01 of the Revised Code 147203
with respect to the number of make-up dayshours specified in the 147204
plan.147205

       (2) No community school that implements a plan in accordance 147206
with this section shall be considered to have failed to comply 147207
with the minimum number of hours required under Chapter 3314. of 147208
the Revised Code with respect to the number of make-up hours 147209
specified in the plan.147210

       Section 110.11. That existing section 3313.88 of the Revised 147211
Code is hereby repealed.147212

       Section 110.12. Sections 110.10 and 110.11 of this act shall 147213
take effect July 1, 2014.147214

       Section 110.20. That the versions of sections 109.57, 147215
2151.011, 2923.126, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5104.03, 5104.08, and 147216
5104.32 of the Revised Code that are scheduled to take effect 147217
January 1, 2014, be amended to read as follows:147218

       Sec. 109.57.  (A)(1) The superintendent of the bureau of 147219
criminal identification and investigation shall procure from 147220
wherever procurable and file for record photographs, pictures, 147221
descriptions, fingerprints, measurements, and other information 147222
that may be pertinent of all persons who have been convicted of 147223
committing within this state a felony, any crime constituting a 147224
misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent 147225
offenses, or any misdemeanor described in division (A)(1)(a), 147226
(A)(5)(a), or (A)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code, of 147227
all children under eighteen years of age who have been adjudicated 147228
delinquent children for committing within this state an act that 147229
would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by an 147230
adult or who have been convicted of or pleaded guilty to 147231
committing within this state a felony or an offense of violence, 147232
and of all well-known and habitual criminals. The person in charge 147233
of any county, multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or 147234
multicounty-municipal jail or workhouse, community-based 147235
correctional facility, halfway house, alternative residential 147236
facility, or state correctional institution and the person in 147237
charge of any state institution having custody of a person 147238
suspected of having committed a felony, any crime constituting a 147239
misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent 147240
offenses, or any misdemeanor described in division (A)(1)(a), 147241
(A)(5)(a), or (A)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code or 147242
having custody of a child under eighteen years of age with respect 147243
to whom there is probable cause to believe that the child may have 147244
committed an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence 147245
if committed by an adult shall furnish such material to the 147246
superintendent of the bureau. Fingerprints, photographs, or other 147247
descriptive information of a child who is under eighteen years of 147248
age, has not been arrested or otherwise taken into custody for 147249
committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence 147250
who is not in any other category of child specified in this 147251
division, if committed by an adult, has not been adjudicated a 147252
delinquent child for committing an act that would be a felony or 147253
an offense of violence if committed by an adult, has not been 147254
convicted of or pleaded guilty to committing a felony or an 147255
offense of violence, and is not a child with respect to whom there 147256
is probable cause to believe that the child may have committed an 147257
act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed 147258
by an adult shall not be procured by the superintendent or 147259
furnished by any person in charge of any county, multicounty, 147260
municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal jail or 147261
workhouse, community-based correctional facility, halfway house, 147262
alternative residential facility, or state correctional 147263
institution, except as authorized in section 2151.313 of the 147264
Revised Code. 147265

       (2) Every clerk of a court of record in this state, other 147266
than the supreme court or a court of appeals, shall send to the 147267
superintendent of the bureau a weekly report containing a summary 147268
of each case involving a felony, involving any crime constituting 147269
a misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent 147270
offenses, involving a misdemeanor described in division (A)(1)(a), 147271
(A)(5)(a), or (A)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code, or 147272
involving an adjudication in a case in which a child under 147273
eighteen years of age was alleged to be a delinquent child for 147274
committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence 147275
if committed by an adult. The clerk of the court of common pleas 147276
shall include in the report and summary the clerk sends under this 147277
division all information described in divisions (A)(2)(a) to (f) 147278
of this section regarding a case before the court of appeals that 147279
is served by that clerk. The summary shall be written on the 147280
standard forms furnished by the superintendent pursuant to 147281
division (B) of this section and shall include the following 147282
information: 147283

       (a) The incident tracking number contained on the standard 147284
forms furnished by the superintendent pursuant to division (B) of 147285
this section; 147286

       (b) The style and number of the case; 147287

       (c) The date of arrest, offense, summons, or arraignment; 147288

       (d) The date that the person was convicted of or pleaded 147289
guilty to the offense, adjudicated a delinquent child for 147290
committing the act that would be a felony or an offense of 147291
violence if committed by an adult, found not guilty of the 147292
offense, or found not to be a delinquent child for committing an 147293
act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed 147294
by an adult, the date of an entry dismissing the charge, an entry 147295
declaring a mistrial of the offense in which the person is 147296
discharged, an entry finding that the person or child is not 147297
competent to stand trial, or an entry of a nolle prosequi, or the 147298
date of any other determination that constitutes final resolution 147299
of the case; 147300

       (e) A statement of the original charge with the section of 147301
the Revised Code that was alleged to be violated; 147302

       (f) If the person or child was convicted, pleaded guilty, or 147303
was adjudicated a delinquent child, the sentence or terms of 147304
probation imposed or any other disposition of the offender or the 147305
delinquent child. 147306

       If the offense involved the disarming of a law enforcement 147307
officer or an attempt to disarm a law enforcement officer, the 147308
clerk shall clearly state that fact in the summary, and the 147309
superintendent shall ensure that a clear statement of that fact is 147310
placed in the bureau's records. 147311

       (3) The superintendent shall cooperate with and assist 147312
sheriffs, chiefs of police, and other law enforcement officers in 147313
the establishment of a complete system of criminal identification 147314
and in obtaining fingerprints and other means of identification of 147315
all persons arrested on a charge of a felony, any crime 147316
constituting a misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on 147317
subsequent offenses, or a misdemeanor described in division 147318
(A)(1)(a), (A)(5)(a), or (A)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of the 147319
Revised Code and of all children under eighteen years of age 147320
arrested or otherwise taken into custody for committing an act 147321
that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by 147322
an adult. The superintendent also shall file for record the 147323
fingerprint impressions of all persons confined in a county, 147324
multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal 147325
jail or workhouse, community-based correctional facility, halfway 147326
house, alternative residential facility, or state correctional 147327
institution for the violation of state laws and of all children 147328
under eighteen years of age who are confined in a county, 147329
multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal 147330
jail or workhouse, community-based correctional facility, halfway 147331
house, alternative residential facility, or state correctional 147332
institution or in any facility for delinquent children for 147333
committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence 147334
if committed by an adult, and any other information that the 147335
superintendent may receive from law enforcement officials of the 147336
state and its political subdivisions. 147337

       (4) The superintendent shall carry out Chapter 2950. of the 147338
Revised Code with respect to the registration of persons who are 147339
convicted of or plead guilty to a sexually oriented offense or a 147340
child-victim oriented offense and with respect to all other duties 147341
imposed on the bureau under that chapter. 147342

       (5) The bureau shall perform centralized recordkeeping 147343
functions for criminal history records and services in this state 147344
for purposes of the national crime prevention and privacy compact 147345
set forth in section 109.571 of the Revised Code and is the 147346
criminal history record repository as defined in that section for 147347
purposes of that compact. The superintendent or the 147348
superintendent's designee is the compact officer for purposes of 147349
that compact and shall carry out the responsibilities of the 147350
compact officer specified in that compact. 147351

       (B) The superintendent shall prepare and furnish to every 147352
county, multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or 147353
multicounty-municipal jail or workhouse, community-based 147354
correctional facility, halfway house, alternative residential 147355
facility, or state correctional institution and to every clerk of 147356
a court in this state specified in division (A)(2) of this section 147357
standard forms for reporting the information required under 147358
division (A) of this section. The standard forms that the 147359
superintendent prepares pursuant to this division may be in a 147360
tangible format, in an electronic format, or in both tangible 147361
formats and electronic formats. 147362

       (C)(1) The superintendent may operate a center for 147363
electronic, automated, or other data processing for the storage 147364
and retrieval of information, data, and statistics pertaining to 147365
criminals and to children under eighteen years of age who are 147366
adjudicated delinquent children for committing an act that would 147367
be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by an adult, 147368
criminal activity, crime prevention, law enforcement, and criminal 147369
justice, and may establish and operate a statewide communications 147370
network to be known as the Ohio law enforcement gateway to gather 147371
and disseminate information, data, and statistics for the use of 147372
law enforcement agencies and for other uses specified in this 147373
division. The superintendent may gather, store, retrieve, and 147374
disseminate information, data, and statistics that pertain to 147375
children who are under eighteen years of age and that are gathered 147376
pursuant to sections 109.57 to 109.61 of the Revised Code together 147377
with information, data, and statistics that pertain to adults and 147378
that are gathered pursuant to those sections. 147379

       (2) The superintendent or the superintendent's designee shall 147380
gather information of the nature described in division (C)(1) of 147381
this section that pertains to the offense and delinquency history 147382
of a person who has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been 147383
adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a sexually oriented 147384
offense or a child-victim oriented offense for inclusion in the 147385
state registry of sex offenders and child-victim offenders 147386
maintained pursuant to division (A)(1) of section 2950.13 of the 147387
Revised Code and in the internet database operated pursuant to 147388
division (A)(13) of that section and for possible inclusion in the 147389
internet database operated pursuant to division (A)(11) of that 147390
section. 147391

        (3) In addition to any other authorized use of information, 147392
data, and statistics of the nature described in division (C)(1) of 147393
this section, the superintendent or the superintendent's designee 147394
may provide and exchange the information, data, and statistics 147395
pursuant to the national crime prevention and privacy compact as 147396
described in division (A)(5) of this section. 147397

       (4) The attorney general may adopt rules under Chapter 119. 147398
of the Revised Code establishing guidelines for the operation of 147399
and participation in the Ohio law enforcement gateway. The rules 147400
may include criteria for granting and restricting access to 147401
information gathered and disseminated through the Ohio law 147402
enforcement gateway. The attorney general shall permit the state 147403
medical board and board of nursing to access and view, but not 147404
alter, information gathered and disseminated through the Ohio law 147405
enforcement gateway.147406

       The attorney general may appoint a steering committee to 147407
advise the attorney general in the operation of the Ohio law 147408
enforcement gateway that is comprised of persons who are 147409
representatives of the criminal justice agencies in this state 147410
that use the Ohio law enforcement gateway and is chaired by the 147411
superintendent or the superintendent's designee.147412

       (D)(1) The following are not public records under section 147413
149.43 of the Revised Code:147414

       (a) Information and materials furnished to the superintendent 147415
pursuant to division (A) of this section;147416

       (b) Information, data, and statistics gathered or 147417
disseminated through the Ohio law enforcement gateway pursuant to 147418
division (C)(1) of this section;147419

       (c) Information and materials furnished to any board or 147420
person under division (F) or (G) of this section.147421

       (2) The superintendent or the superintendent's designee shall 147422
gather and retain information so furnished under division (A) of 147423
this section that pertains to the offense and delinquency history 147424
of a person who has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been 147425
adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a sexually oriented 147426
offense or a child-victim oriented offense for the purposes 147427
described in division (C)(2) of this section. 147428

       (E)(1) The attorney general shall adopt rules, in accordance 147429
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and subject to division 147430
(E)(2) of this section, setting forth the procedure by which a 147431
person may receive or release information gathered by the 147432
superintendent pursuant to division (A) of this section. A 147433
reasonable fee may be charged for this service. If a temporary 147434
employment service submits a request for a determination of 147435
whether a person the service plans to refer to an employment 147436
position has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense 147437
listed or described in division (A)(1), (2), or (3) of section 147438
109.572 of the Revised Code, the request shall be treated as a 147439
single request and only one fee shall be charged. 147440

       (2) Except as otherwise provided in this division, a rule 147441
adopted under division (E)(1) of this section may provide only for 147442
the release of information gathered pursuant to division (A) of 147443
this section that relates to the conviction of a person, or a 147444
person's plea of guilty to, a criminal offense. The superintendent 147445
shall not release, and the attorney general shall not adopt any 147446
rule under division (E)(1) of this section that permits the 147447
release of, any information gathered pursuant to division (A) of 147448
this section that relates to an adjudication of a child as a 147449
delinquent child, or that relates to a criminal conviction of a 147450
person under eighteen years of age if the person's case was 147451
transferred back to a juvenile court under division (B)(2) or (3) 147452
of section 2152.121 of the Revised Code and the juvenile court 147453
imposed a disposition or serious youthful offender disposition 147454
upon the person under either division, unless either of the 147455
following applies with respect to the adjudication or conviction:147456

       (a) The adjudication or conviction was for a violation of 147457
section 2903.01 or 2903.02 of the Revised Code.147458

       (b) The adjudication or conviction was for a sexually 147459
oriented offense, the juvenile court was required to classify the 147460
child a juvenile offender registrant for that offense under 147461
section 2152.82, 2152.83, or 2152.86 of the Revised Code, and that 147462
classification has not been removed.147463

       (F)(1) As used in division (F)(2) of this section, "head 147464
start agency" means an entity in this state that has been approved 147465
to be an agency for purposes of subchapter II of the "Community 147466
Economic Development Act," 95 Stat. 489 (1981), 42 U.S.C.A. 9831, 147467
as amended. 147468

       (2)(a) In addition to or in conjunction with any request that 147469
is required to be made under section 109.572, 2151.86, 3301.32, 147470
3301.541, division (C) of section 3310.58, or section 3319.39, 147471
3319.391, 3327.10, 3701.881, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5123.081, or 147472
5153.111 of the Revised Code or that is made under section 147473
3314.41, 3319.392, 3326.25, or 3328.20 of the Revised Code, the 147474
board of education of any school district; the director of 147475
developmental disabilities; any county board of developmental 147476
disabilities; any provider or subcontractor as defined in section 147477
5123.081 of the Revised Code; the chief administrator of any 147478
chartered nonpublic school; the chief administrator of a 147479
registered private provider that is not also a chartered nonpublic 147480
school; the chief administrator of any home health agency; the 147481
chief administrator of or person operating any child day-care 147482
center, type A family day-care home, or type B family day-care 147483
home licensed under Chapter 5104. of the Revised Code; the chief 147484
administrator of any head start agency; the executive director of 147485
a public children services agency; a private company described in 147486
section 3314.41, 3319.392, 3326.25, or 3328.20 of the Revised 147487
Code; or an employer described in division (J)(2) of section 147488
3327.10 of the Revised Code may request that the superintendent of 147489
the bureau investigate and determine, with respect to any 147490
individual who has applied for employment in any position after 147491
October 2, 1989, or any individual wishing to apply for employment 147492
with a board of education may request, with regard to the 147493
individual, whether the bureau has any information gathered under 147494
division (A) of this section that pertains to that individual. On 147495
receipt of the request, subject to division (E)(2) of this 147496
section, the superintendent shall determine whether that 147497
information exists and, upon request of the person, board, or 147498
entity requesting information, also shall request from the federal 147499
bureau of investigation any criminal records it has pertaining to 147500
that individual. The superintendent or the superintendent's 147501
designee also may request criminal history records from other 147502
states or the federal government pursuant to the national crime 147503
prevention and privacy compact set forth in section 109.571 of the 147504
Revised Code. Within thirty days of the date that the 147505
superintendent receives a request, subject to division (E)(2) of 147506
this section, the superintendent shall send to the board, entity, 147507
or person a report of any information that the superintendent 147508
determines exists, including information contained in records that 147509
have been sealed under section 2953.32 of the Revised Code, and, 147510
within thirty days of its receipt, subject to division (E)(2) of 147511
this section, shall send the board, entity, or person a report of 147512
any information received from the federal bureau of investigation, 147513
other than information the dissemination of which is prohibited by 147514
federal law. 147515

       (b) When a board of education or a registered private 147516
provider is required to receive information under this section as 147517
a prerequisite to employment of an individual pursuant to division 147518
(C) of section 3310.58 or section 3319.39 of the Revised Code, it 147519
may accept a certified copy of records that were issued by the 147520
bureau of criminal identification and investigation and that are 147521
presented by an individual applying for employment with the 147522
district in lieu of requesting that information itself. In such a 147523
case, the board shall accept the certified copy issued by the 147524
bureau in order to make a photocopy of it for that individual's 147525
employment application documents and shall return the certified 147526
copy to the individual. In a case of that nature, a district or 147527
provider only shall accept a certified copy of records of that 147528
nature within one year after the date of their issuance by the 147529
bureau. 147530

       (c) Notwithstanding division (F)(2)(a) of this section, in 147531
the case of a request under section 3319.39, 3319.391, or 3327.10 147532
of the Revised Code only for criminal records maintained by the 147533
federal bureau of investigation, the superintendent shall not 147534
determine whether any information gathered under division (A) of 147535
this section exists on the person for whom the request is made.147536

       (3) The state board of education may request, with respect to 147537
any individual who has applied for employment after October 2, 147538
1989, in any position with the state board or the department of 147539
education, any information that a school district board of 147540
education is authorized to request under division (F)(2) of this 147541
section, and the superintendent of the bureau shall proceed as if 147542
the request has been received from a school district board of 147543
education under division (F)(2) of this section. 147544

       (4) When the superintendent of the bureau receives a request 147545
for information under section 3319.291 of the Revised Code, the 147546
superintendent shall proceed as if the request has been received 147547
from a school district board of education and shall comply with 147548
divisions (F)(2)(a) and (c) of this section. 147549

       (5) When a recipient of a classroom reading improvement grant 147550
paid under section 3301.86 of the Revised Code requests, with 147551
respect to any individual who applies to participate in providing 147552
any program or service funded in whole or in part by the grant, 147553
the information that a school district board of education is 147554
authorized to request under division (F)(2)(a) of this section, 147555
the superintendent of the bureau shall proceed as if the request 147556
has been received from a school district board of education under 147557
division (F)(2)(a) of this section. 147558

       (G) In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is 147559
required to be made under section 3701.881, 3712.09, or 3721.121 147560
of the Revised Code with respect to an individual who has applied 147561
for employment in a position that involves providing direct care 147562
to an older adult or adult resident, the chief administrator of a 147563
home health agency, hospice care program, home licensed under 147564
Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, or adult day-care program 147565
operated pursuant to rules adopted under section 3721.04 of the 147566
Revised Code may request that the superintendent of the bureau 147567
investigate and determine, with respect to any individual who has 147568
applied after January 27, 1997, for employment in a position that 147569
does not involve providing direct care to an older adult or adult 147570
resident, whether the bureau has any information gathered under 147571
division (A) of this section that pertains to that individual. 147572

       In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is 147573
required to be made under section 173.27 of the Revised Code with 147574
respect to an individual who has applied for employment in a 147575
position that involves providing ombudspersonombudsman services 147576
to residents of long-term care facilities or recipients of 147577
community-based long-term care services, the state long-term care 147578
ombudspersonombudsman, ombudsperson's designee, orthe director 147579
of healthaging, a regional long-term care ombudsman program, or 147580
the designee of the ombudsman, director, or program may request 147581
that the superintendent investigate and determine, with respect to 147582
any individual who has applied for employment in a position that 147583
does not involve providing such ombudspersonombudsman services, 147584
whether the bureau has any information gathered under division (A) 147585
of this section that pertains to that applicant. 147586

       In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is 147587
required to be made under section 173.394173.38 of the Revised 147588
Code with respect to an individual who has applied for employment 147589
in a direct-care position that involves providing direct care to 147590
an individual, the chief administrator of a community-based 147591
long-term care agencyprovider, as defined in section 173.39 of 147592
the Revised Code, may request that the superintendent investigate 147593
and determine, with respect to any individual who has applied for 147594
employment in a position that doesis not involve providing direct 147595
carea direct-care position, whether the bureau has any 147596
information gathered under division (A) of this section that 147597
pertains to that applicant. 147598

        In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is 147599
required to be made under section 3712.09 of the Revised Code with 147600
respect to an individual who has applied for employment in a 147601
position that involves providing direct care to a pediatric 147602
respite care patient, the chief administrator of a pediatric 147603
respite care program may request that the superintendent of the 147604
bureau investigate and determine, with respect to any individual 147605
who has applied for employment in a position that does not involve 147606
providing direct care to a pediatric respite care patient, whether 147607
the bureau has any information gathered under division (A) of this 147608
section that pertains to that individual.147609

       On receipt of a request under this division, the 147610
superintendent shall determine whether that information exists 147611
and, on request of the individual requesting information, shall 147612
also request from the federal bureau of investigation any criminal 147613
records it has pertaining to the applicant. The superintendent or 147614
the superintendent's designee also may request criminal history 147615
records from other states or the federal government pursuant to 147616
the national crime prevention and privacy compact set forth in 147617
section 109.571 of the Revised Code. Within thirty days of the 147618
date a request is received, subject to division (E)(2) of this 147619
section, the superintendent shall send to the requester a report 147620
of any information determined to exist, including information 147621
contained in records that have been sealed under section 2953.32 147622
of the Revised Code, and, within thirty days of its receipt, shall 147623
send the requester a report of any information received from the 147624
federal bureau of investigation, other than information the 147625
dissemination of which is prohibited by federal law. 147626

       (H) Information obtained by a government entity or person 147627
under this section is confidential and shall not be released or 147628
disseminated. 147629

       (I) The superintendent may charge a reasonable fee for 147630
providing information or criminal records under division (F)(2) or 147631
(G) of this section. 147632

       (J) As used in this section:147633

       (1) "Pediatric respite care program" and "pediatric care 147634
patient" have the same meanings as in section 3712.01 of the 147635
Revised Code.147636

       (2) "Sexually oriented offense" and "child-victim oriented 147637
offense" have the same meanings as in section 2950.01 of the 147638
Revised Code.147639

       (3) "Registered private provider" means a nonpublic school or 147640
entity registered with the superintendent of public instruction 147641
under section 3310.41 of the Revised Code to participate in the 147642
autism scholarship program or section 3310.58 of the Revised Code 147643
to participate in the Jon Peterson special needs scholarship 147644
program.147645

       Sec. 2151.011.  (A) As used in the Revised Code:147646

       (1) "Juvenile court" means whichever of the following is 147647
applicable that has jurisdiction under this chapter and Chapter 147648
2152. of the Revised Code:147649

       (a) The division of the court of common pleas specified in 147650
section 2101.022 or 2301.03 of the Revised Code as having 147651
jurisdiction under this chapter and Chapter 2152. of the Revised 147652
Code or as being the juvenile division or the juvenile division 147653
combined with one or more other divisions;147654

       (b) The juvenile court of Cuyahoga county or Hamilton county 147655
that is separately and independently created by section 2151.08 or 147656
Chapter 2153. of the Revised Code and that has jurisdiction under 147657
this chapter and Chapter 2152. of the Revised Code;147658

       (c) If division (A)(1)(a) or (b) of this section does not 147659
apply, the probate division of the court of common pleas.147660

       (2) "Juvenile judge" means a judge of a court having 147661
jurisdiction under this chapter.147662

       (3) "Private child placing agency" means any association, as 147663
defined in section 5103.02 of the Revised Code, that is certified 147664
under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code to accept temporary, 147665
permanent, or legal custody of children and place the children for 147666
either foster care or adoption.147667

       (4) "Private noncustodial agency" means any person, 147668
organization, association, or society certified by the department 147669
of job and family services that does not accept temporary or 147670
permanent legal custody of children, that is privately operated in 147671
this state, and that does one or more of the following:147672

       (a) Receives and cares for children for two or more 147673
consecutive weeks;147674

       (b) Participates in the placement of children in certified 147675
foster homes;147676

       (c) Provides adoption services in conjunction with a public 147677
children services agency or private child placing agency.147678

       (B) As used in this chapter:147679

       (1) "Adequate parental care" means the provision by a child's 147680
parent or parents, guardian, or custodian of adequate food, 147681
clothing, and shelter to ensure the child's health and physical 147682
safety and the provision by a child's parent or parents of 147683
specialized services warranted by the child's physical or mental 147684
needs.147685

       (2) "Adult" means an individual who is eighteen years of age 147686
or older.147687

       (3) "Agreement for temporary custody" means a voluntary 147688
agreement authorized by section 5103.15 of the Revised Code that 147689
transfers the temporary custody of a child to a public children 147690
services agency or a private child placing agency.147691

       (4) "Alternative response" means the public children services 147692
agency's response to a report of child abuse or neglect that 147693
engages the family in a comprehensive evaluation of child safety, 147694
risk of subsequent harm, and family strengths and needs and that 147695
does not include a determination as to whether child abuse or 147696
neglect occurred.147697

       (5) "Certified foster home" means a foster home, as defined 147698
in section 5103.02 of the Revised Code, certified under section 147699
5103.03 of the Revised Code.147700

       (6) "Child" means a person who is under eighteen years of 147701
age, except that the juvenile court has jurisdiction over any 147702
person who is adjudicated an unruly child prior to attaining 147703
eighteen years of age until the person attains twenty-one years of 147704
age, and, for purposes of that jurisdiction related to that 147705
adjudication, a person who is so adjudicated an unruly child shall 147706
be deemed a "child" until the person attains twenty-one years of 147707
age.147708

       (7) "Child day camp," "child care," "child day-care center," 147709
"part-time child day-care center," "type A family day-care home," 147710
"licensed type B family day-care home," "type B family day-care 147711
home," "administrator of a child day-care center," "administrator 147712
of a type A family day-care home," and "in-home aide" have the 147713
same meanings as in section 5104.01 of the Revised Code.147714

       (8) "Child care provider" means an individual who is a 147715
child-care staff member or administrator of a child day-care 147716
center, a type A family day-care home, or a type B family day-care 147717
home, or an in-home aide or an individual who is licensed, is 147718
regulated, is approved, operates under the direction of, or 147719
otherwise is certified by the department of job and family 147720
services, department of developmental disabilities, or the early 147721
childhood programs of the department of education.147722

       (9) "Chronic truant" has the same meaning as in section 147723
2152.02 of the Revised Code.147724

       (10) "Commit" means to vest custody as ordered by the court.147725

       (11) "Counseling" includes both of the following:147726

       (a) General counseling services performed by a public 147727
children services agency or shelter for victims of domestic 147728
violence to assist a child, a child's parents, and a child's 147729
siblings in alleviating identified problems that may cause or have 147730
caused the child to be an abused, neglected, or dependent child.147731

       (b) Psychiatric or psychological therapeutic counseling 147732
services provided to correct or alleviate any mental or emotional 147733
illness or disorder and performed by a licensed psychiatrist, 147734
licensed psychologist, or a person licensed under Chapter 4757. of 147735
the Revised Code to engage in social work or professional 147736
counseling.147737

       (12) "Custodian" means a person who has legal custody of a 147738
child or a public children services agency or private child 147739
placing agency that has permanent, temporary, or legal custody of 147740
a child.147741

       (13) "Delinquent child" has the same meaning as in section 147742
2152.02 of the Revised Code.147743

       (14) "Detention" means the temporary care of children pending 147744
court adjudication or disposition, or execution of a court order, 147745
in a public or private facility designed to physically restrict 147746
the movement and activities of children.147747

       (15) "Developmental disability" has the same meaning as in 147748
section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.147749

       (16) "Differential response approach" means an approach that 147750
a public children services agency may use to respond to accepted 147751
reports of child abuse or neglect with either an alternative 147752
response or a traditional response.147753

       (17) "Foster caregiver" has the same meaning as in section 147754
5103.02 of the Revised Code.147755

       (18) "Guardian" means a person, association, or corporation 147756
that is granted authority by a probate court pursuant to Chapter 147757
2111. of the Revised Code to exercise parental rights over a child 147758
to the extent provided in the court's order and subject to the 147759
residual parental rights of the child's parents.147760

       (19) "Habitual truant" means any child of compulsory school 147761
age who is absent without legitimate excuse for absence from the 147762
public school the child is supposed to attend for five or more 147763
consecutive school days, seven or more school days in one school 147764
month, or twelve or more school days in a school year.147765

       (20) "Juvenile traffic offender" has the same meaning as in 147766
section 2152.02 of the Revised Code.147767

       (21) "Legal custody" means a legal status that vests in the 147768
custodian the right to have physical care and control of the child 147769
and to determine where and with whom the child shall live, and the 147770
right and duty to protect, train, and discipline the child and to 147771
provide the child with food, shelter, education, and medical care, 147772
all subject to any residual parental rights, privileges, and 147773
responsibilities. An individual granted legal custody shall 147774
exercise the rights and responsibilities personally unless 147775
otherwise authorized by any section of the Revised Code or by the 147776
court.147777

       (22) A "legitimate excuse for absence from the public school 147778
the child is supposed to attend" includes, but is not limited to, 147779
any of the following:147780

       (a) The fact that the child in question has enrolled in and 147781
is attending another public or nonpublic school in this or another 147782
state;147783

       (b) The fact that the child in question is excused from 147784
attendance at school for any of the reasons specified in section 147785
3321.04 of the Revised Code;147786

       (c) The fact that the child in question has received an age 147787
and schooling certificate in accordance with section 3331.01 of 147788
the Revised Code.147789

       (23) "Mental illness" and "mentally ill person subject to 147790
hospitalization by court order" have the same meanings as in 147791
section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.147792

       (24) "Mental injury" means any behavioral, cognitive, 147793
emotional, or mental disorder in a child caused by an act or 147794
omission that is described in section 2919.22 of the Revised Code 147795
and is committed by the parent or other person responsible for the 147796
child's care.147797

       (25) "Mentally retarded person" has the same meaning as in 147798
section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.147799

       (26) "Nonsecure care, supervision, or training" means care, 147800
supervision, or training of a child in a facility that does not 147801
confine or prevent movement of the child within the facility or 147802
from the facility.147803

       (27) "Of compulsory school age" has the same meaning as in 147804
section 3321.01 of the Revised Code.147805

       (28) "Organization" means any institution, public, 147806
semipublic, or private, and any private association, society, or 147807
agency located or operating in the state, incorporated or 147808
unincorporated, having among its functions the furnishing of 147809
protective services or care for children, or the placement of 147810
children in certified foster homes or elsewhere.147811

       (29) "Out-of-home care" means detention facilities, shelter 147812
facilities, certified children's crisis care facilities, certified 147813
foster homes, placement in a prospective adoptive home prior to 147814
the issuance of a final decree of adoption, organizations, 147815
certified organizations, child day-care centers, type A family 147816
day-care homes, type B family day-care homes, child care provided 147817
by in-home aides, group home providers, group homes, institutions, 147818
state institutions, residential facilities, residential care 147819
facilities, residential camps, day camps, public schools, 147820
chartered nonpublic schools, educational service centers, 147821
hospitals, and medical clinics that are responsible for the care, 147822
physical custody, or control of children.147823

       (30) "Out-of-home care child abuse" means any of the 147824
following when committed by a person responsible for the care of a 147825
child in out-of-home care:147826

       (a) Engaging in sexual activity with a child in the person's 147827
care;147828

       (b) Denial to a child, as a means of punishment, of proper or 147829
necessary subsistence, education, medical care, or other care 147830
necessary for a child's health;147831

       (c) Use of restraint procedures on a child that cause injury 147832
or pain;147833

       (d) Administration of prescription drugs or psychotropic 147834
medication to the child without the written approval and ongoing 147835
supervision of a licensed physician;147836

       (e) Commission of any act, other than by accidental means, 147837
that results in any injury to or death of the child in out-of-home 147838
care or commission of any act by accidental means that results in 147839
an injury to or death of a child in out-of-home care and that is 147840
at variance with the history given of the injury or death.147841

       (31) "Out-of-home care child neglect" means any of the 147842
following when committed by a person responsible for the care of a 147843
child in out-of-home care:147844

       (a) Failure to provide reasonable supervision according to 147845
the standards of care appropriate to the age, mental and physical 147846
condition, or other special needs of the child;147847

       (b) Failure to provide reasonable supervision according to 147848
the standards of care appropriate to the age, mental and physical 147849
condition, or other special needs of the child, that results in 147850
sexual or physical abuse of the child by any person;147851

       (c) Failure to develop a process for all of the following:147852

       (i) Administration of prescription drugs or psychotropic 147853
drugs for the child;147854

       (ii) Assuring that the instructions of the licensed physician 147855
who prescribed a drug for the child are followed;147856

       (iii) Reporting to the licensed physician who prescribed the 147857
drug all unfavorable or dangerous side effects from the use of the 147858
drug.147859

       (d) Failure to provide proper or necessary subsistence, 147860
education, medical care, or other individualized care necessary 147861
for the health or well-being of the child;147862

       (e) Confinement of the child to a locked room without 147863
monitoring by staff;147864

       (f) Failure to provide ongoing security for all prescription 147865
and nonprescription medication;147866

       (g) Isolation of a child for a period of time when there is 147867
substantial risk that the isolation, if continued, will impair or 147868
retard the mental health or physical well-being of the child.147869

       (32) "Permanent custody" means a legal status that vests in a 147870
public children services agency or a private child placing agency, 147871
all parental rights, duties, and obligations, including the right 147872
to consent to adoption, and divests the natural parents or 147873
adoptive parents of all parental rights, privileges, and 147874
obligations, including all residual rights and obligations.147875

       (33) "Permanent surrender" means the act of the parents or, 147876
if a child has only one parent, of the parent of a child, by a 147877
voluntary agreement authorized by section 5103.15 of the Revised 147878
Code, to transfer the permanent custody of the child to a public 147879
children services agency or a private child placing agency.147880

       (34) "Person" means an individual, association, corporation, 147881
or partnership and the state or any of its political subdivisions, 147882
departments, or agencies.147883

       (35) "Person responsible for a child's care in out-of-home 147884
care" means any of the following:147885

       (a) Any foster caregiver, in-home aide, or provider;147886

       (b) Any administrator, employee, or agent of any of the 147887
following: a public or private detention facility; shelter 147888
facility; certified children's crisis care facility; organization; 147889
certified organization; child day-care center; type A family 147890
day-care home; licensed type B family day-care home; group home; 147891
institution; state institution; residential facility; residential 147892
care facility; residential camp; day camp; school district; 147893
community school; chartered nonpublic school; educational service 147894
center; hospital; or medical clinic;147895

       (c) Any person who supervises or coaches children as part of 147896
an extracurricular activity sponsored by a school district, public 147897
school, or chartered nonpublic school;147898

       (d) Any other person who performs a similar function with 147899
respect to, or has a similar relationship to, children.147900

       (36) "Physically impaired" means having one or more of the 147901
following conditions that substantially limit one or more of an 147902
individual's major life activities, including self-care, receptive 147903
and expressive language, learning, mobility, and self-direction:147904

       (a) A substantial impairment of vision, speech, or hearing;147905

       (b) A congenital orthopedic impairment;147906

       (c) An orthopedic impairment caused by disease, rheumatic 147907
fever or any other similar chronic or acute health problem, or 147908
amputation or another similar cause.147909

       (37) "Placement for adoption" means the arrangement by a 147910
public children services agency or a private child placing agency 147911
with a person for the care and adoption by that person of a child 147912
of whom the agency has permanent custody.147913

       (38) "Placement in foster care" means the arrangement by a 147914
public children services agency or a private child placing agency 147915
for the out-of-home care of a child of whom the agency has 147916
temporary custody or permanent custody.147917

       (39) "Planned permanent living arrangement" means an order of 147918
a juvenile court pursuant to which both of the following apply:147919

       (a) The court gives legal custody of a child to a public 147920
children services agency or a private child placing agency without 147921
the termination of parental rights.147922

       (b) The order permits the agency to make an appropriate 147923
placement of the child and to enter into a written agreement with 147924
a foster care provider or with another person or agency with whom 147925
the child is placed.147926

       (40) "Practice of social work" and "practice of professional 147927
counseling" have the same meanings as in section 4757.01 of the 147928
Revised Code.147929

       (41) "Sanction, service, or condition" means a sanction, 147930
service, or condition created by court order following an 147931
adjudication that a child is an unruly child that is described in 147932
division (A)(4) of section 2152.19 of the Revised Code.147933

       (42) "Protective supervision" means an order of disposition 147934
pursuant to which the court permits an abused, neglected, 147935
dependent, or unruly child to remain in the custody of the child's 147936
parents, guardian, or custodian and stay in the child's home, 147937
subject to any conditions and limitations upon the child, the 147938
child's parents, guardian, or custodian, or any other person that 147939
the court prescribes, including supervision as directed by the 147940
court for the protection of the child.147941

       (43) "Psychiatrist" has the same meaning as in section 147942
5122.01 of the Revised Code.147943

       (44) "Psychologist" has the same meaning as in section 147944
4732.01 of the Revised Code.147945

       (45) "Residential camp" means a program in which the care, 147946
physical custody, or control of children is accepted overnight for 147947
recreational or recreational and educational purposes.147948

       (46) "Residential care facility" means an institution, 147949
residence, or facility that is licensed by the department of 147950
mental healthmental health and addiction services under section 147951
5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code and that provides care for a 147952
child.147953

       (47) "Residential facility" means a home or facility that is 147954
licensed by the department of developmental disabilities under 147955
section 5123.19 of the Revised Code and in which a child with a 147956
developmental disability resides.147957

       (48) "Residual parental rights, privileges, and 147958
responsibilities" means those rights, privileges, and 147959
responsibilities remaining with the natural parent after the 147960
transfer of legal custody of the child, including, but not 147961
necessarily limited to, the privilege of reasonable visitation, 147962
consent to adoption, the privilege to determine the child's 147963
religious affiliation, and the responsibility for support.147964

       (49) "School day" means the school day established by the 147965
state board of education of the applicable school district147966
pursuant to section 3313.483313.481 of the Revised Code.147967

       (50) "School month" and "school year" havehas the same 147968
meaningsmeaning as in section 3313.62 of the Revised Code.147969

       (51) "Secure correctional facility" means a facility under 147970
the direction of the department of youth services that is designed 147971
to physically restrict the movement and activities of children and 147972
used for the placement of children after adjudication and 147973
disposition.147974

       (52) "Sexual activity" has the same meaning as in section 147975
2907.01 of the Revised Code.147976

       (53) "Shelter" means the temporary care of children in 147977
physically unrestricted facilities pending court adjudication or 147978
disposition.147979

       (54) "Shelter for victims of domestic violence" has the same 147980
meaning as in section 3113.33 of the Revised Code.147981

       (55) "Temporary custody" means legal custody of a child who 147982
is removed from the child's home, which custody may be terminated 147983
at any time at the discretion of the court or, if the legal 147984
custody is granted in an agreement for temporary custody, by the 147985
person who executed the agreement.147986

       (56) "Traditional response" means a public children services 147987
agency's response to a report of child abuse or neglect that 147988
encourages engagement of the family in a comprehensive evaluation 147989
of the child's current and future safety needs and a fact-finding 147990
process to determine whether child abuse or neglect occurred and 147991
the circumstances surrounding the alleged harm or risk of harm.147992

       (C) For the purposes of this chapter, a child shall be 147993
presumed abandoned when the parents of the child have failed to 147994
visit or maintain contact with the child for more than ninety 147995
days, regardless of whether the parents resume contact with the 147996
child after that period of ninety days.147997

       Sec. 2923.126.  (A) A concealed handgun license that is 147998
issued under section 2923.125 of the Revised Code shall expire 147999
five years after the date of issuance. A licensee who has been 148000
issued a license under that section shall be granted a grace 148001
period of thirty days after the licensee's license expires during 148002
which the licensee's license remains valid. Except as provided in 148003
divisions (B) and (C) of this section, a licensee who has been 148004
issued a concealed handgun license under section 2923.125 or 148005
2923.1213 of the Revised Code may carry a concealed handgun 148006
anywhere in this state if the licensee also carries a valid 148007
license and valid identification when the licensee is in actual 148008
possession of a concealed handgun. The licensee shall give notice 148009
of any change in the licensee's residence address to the sheriff 148010
who issued the license within forty-five days after that change.148011

       If a licensee is the driver or an occupant of a motor vehicle 148012
that is stopped as the result of a traffic stop or a stop for 148013
another law enforcement purpose and if the licensee is 148014
transporting or has a loaded handgun in the motor vehicle at that 148015
time, the licensee shall promptly inform any law enforcement 148016
officer who approaches the vehicle while stopped that the licensee 148017
has been issued a concealed handgun license and that the licensee 148018
currently possesses or has a loaded handgun; the licensee shall 148019
not knowingly disregard or fail to comply with lawful orders of a 148020
law enforcement officer given while the motor vehicle is stopped, 148021
knowingly fail to remain in the motor vehicle while stopped, or 148022
knowingly fail to keep the licensee's hands in plain sight after 148023
any law enforcement officer begins approaching the licensee while 148024
stopped and before the officer leaves, unless directed otherwise 148025
by a law enforcement officer; and the licensee shall not knowingly 148026
have contact with the loaded handgun by touching it with the 148027
licensee's hands or fingers, in any manner in violation of 148028
division (E) of section 2923.16 of the Revised Code, after any law 148029
enforcement officer begins approaching the licensee while stopped 148030
and before the officer leaves. Additionally, if a licensee is the 148031
driver or an occupant of a commercial motor vehicle that is 148032
stopped by an employee of the motor carrier enforcement unit for 148033
the purposes defined in section 5503.04 of the Revised Code and if 148034
the licensee is transporting or has a loaded handgun in the 148035
commercial motor vehicle at that time, the licensee shall promptly 148036
inform the employee of the unit who approaches the vehicle while 148037
stopped that the licensee has been issued a concealed handgun 148038
license and that the licensee currently possesses or has a loaded 148039
handgun. 148040

       If a licensee is stopped for a law enforcement purpose and if 148041
the licensee is carrying a concealed handgun at the time the 148042
officer approaches, the licensee shall promptly inform any law 148043
enforcement officer who approaches the licensee while stopped that 148044
the licensee has been issued a concealed handgun license and that 148045
the licensee currently is carrying a concealed handgun; the 148046
licensee shall not knowingly disregard or fail to comply with 148047
lawful orders of a law enforcement officer given while the 148048
licensee is stopped or knowingly fail to keep the licensee's hands 148049
in plain sight after any law enforcement officer begins 148050
approaching the licensee while stopped and before the officer 148051
leaves, unless directed otherwise by a law enforcement officer; 148052
and the licensee shall not knowingly remove, attempt to remove, 148053
grasp, or hold the loaded handgun or knowingly have contact with 148054
the loaded handgun by touching it with the licensee's hands or 148055
fingers, in any manner in violation of division (B) of section 148056
2923.12 of the Revised Code, after any law enforcement officer 148057
begins approaching the licensee while stopped and before the 148058
officer leaves.148059

        (B) A valid concealed handgun license does not authorize the 148060
licensee to carry a concealed handgun in any manner prohibited 148061
under division (B) of section 2923.12 of the Revised Code or in 148062
any manner prohibited under section 2923.16 of the Revised Code. A 148063
valid license does not authorize the licensee to carry a concealed 148064
handgun into any of the following places:148065

       (1) A police station, sheriff's office, or state highway 148066
patrol station, premises controlled by the bureau of criminal 148067
identification and investigation, a state correctional 148068
institution, jail, workhouse, or other detention facility, an 148069
airport passenger terminal, or an institution that is maintained, 148070
operated, managed, and governed pursuant to division (A) of 148071
section 5119.025119.14 of the Revised Code or division (A)(1) of 148072
section 5123.03 of the Revised Code;148073

        (2) A school safety zone if the licensee's carrying the 148074
concealed handgun is in violation of section 2923.122 of the 148075
Revised Code;148076

       (3) A courthouse or another building or structure in which a 148077
courtroom is located, in violation of section 2923.123 of the 148078
Revised Code;148079

       (4) Any premises or open air arena for which a D permit has 148080
been issued under Chapter 4303. of the Revised Code if the 148081
licensee's carrying the concealed handgun is in violation of 148082
section 2923.121 of the Revised Code;148083

        (5) Any premises owned or leased by any public or private 148084
college, university, or other institution of higher education, 148085
unless the handgun is in a locked motor vehicle or the licensee is 148086
in the immediate process of placing the handgun in a locked motor 148087
vehicle;148088

        (6) Any church, synagogue, mosque, or other place of worship, 148089
unless the church, synagogue, mosque, or other place of worship 148090
posts or permits otherwise;148091

       (7) A child day-care center, a type A family day-care home, 148092
or a type B family day-care home, except that this division does 148093
not prohibit a licensee who resides in a type A family day-care 148094
home or a type B family day-care home from carrying a concealed 148095
handgun at any time in any part of the home that is not dedicated 148096
or used for day-care purposes, or from carrying a concealed 148097
handgun in a part of the home that is dedicated or used for 148098
day-care purposes at any time during which no children, other than 148099
children of that licensee, are in the home;148100

       (8) An aircraft that is in, or intended for operation in, 148101
foreign air transportation, interstate air transportation, 148102
intrastate air transportation, or the transportation of mail by 148103
aircraft;148104

       (9) Any building that is a government facility of this state 148105
or a political subdivision of this state and that is not a 148106
building that is used primarily as a shelter, restroom, parking 148107
facility for motor vehicles, or rest facility and is not a 148108
courthouse or other building or structure in which a courtroom is 148109
located that is subject to division (B)(3) of this section;148110

       (10) A place in which federal law prohibits the carrying of 148111
handguns.148112

       (C)(1) Nothing in this section shall negate or restrict a 148113
rule, policy, or practice of a private employer that is not a 148114
private college, university, or other institution of higher 148115
education concerning or prohibiting the presence of firearms on 148116
the private employer's premises or property, including motor 148117
vehicles owned by the private employer. Nothing in this section 148118
shall require a private employer of that nature to adopt a rule, 148119
policy, or practice concerning or prohibiting the presence of 148120
firearms on the private employer's premises or property, including 148121
motor vehicles owned by the private employer.148122

       (2)(a) A private employer shall be immune from liability in a 148123
civil action for any injury, death, or loss to person or property 148124
that allegedly was caused by or related to a licensee bringing a 148125
handgun onto the premises or property of the private employer, 148126
including motor vehicles owned by the private employer, unless the 148127
private employer acted with malicious purpose. A private employer 148128
is immune from liability in a civil action for any injury, death, 148129
or loss to person or property that allegedly was caused by or 148130
related to the private employer's decision to permit a licensee to 148131
bring, or prohibit a licensee from bringing, a handgun onto the 148132
premises or property of the private employer. As used in this 148133
division, "private employer" includes a private college, 148134
university, or other institution of higher education.148135

       (b) A political subdivision shall be immune from liability in 148136
a civil action, to the extent and in the manner provided in 148137
Chapter 2744. of the Revised Code, for any injury, death, or loss 148138
to person or property that allegedly was caused by or related to a 148139
licensee bringing a handgun onto any premises or property owned, 148140
leased, or otherwise under the control of the political 148141
subdivision. As used in this division, "political subdivision" has 148142
the same meaning as in section 2744.01 of the Revised Code.148143

       (3)(a) Except as provided in division (C)(3)(b) of this 148144
section, the owner or person in control of private land or 148145
premises, and a private person or entity leasing land or premises 148146
owned by the state, the United States, or a political subdivision 148147
of the state or the United States, may post a sign in a 148148
conspicuous location on that land or on those premises prohibiting 148149
persons from carrying firearms or concealed firearms on or onto 148150
that land or those premises. Except as otherwise provided in this 148151
division, a person who knowingly violates a posted prohibition of 148152
that nature is guilty of criminal trespass in violation of 148153
division (A)(4) of section 2911.21 of the Revised Code and is 148154
guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If a person 148155
knowingly violates a posted prohibition of that nature and the 148156
posted land or premises primarily was a parking lot or other 148157
parking facility, the person is not guilty of criminal trespass in 148158
violation of division (A)(4) of section 2911.21 of the Revised 148159
Code and instead is subject only to a civil cause of action for 148160
trespass based on the violation.148161

       (b) A landlord may not prohibit or restrict a tenant who is a 148162
licensee and who on or after September 9, 2008, enters into a 148163
rental agreement with the landlord for the use of residential 148164
premises, and the tenant's guest while the tenant is present, from 148165
lawfully carrying or possessing a handgun on those residential 148166
premises.148167

       (c) As used in division (C)(3) of this section:148168

       (i) "Residential premises" has the same meaning as in section 148169
5321.01 of the Revised Code, except "residential premises" does 148170
not include a dwelling unit that is owned or operated by a college 148171
or university.148172

       (ii) "Landlord," "tenant," and "rental agreement" have the 148173
same meanings as in section 5321.01 of the Revised Code.148174

        (D) A person who holds a concealed handgun license issued by 148175
another state that is recognized by the attorney general pursuant 148176
to a reciprocity agreement entered into pursuant to section 109.69 148177
of the Revised Code has the same right to carry a concealed 148178
handgun in this state as a person who was issued a concealed 148179
handgun license under section 2923.125 of the Revised Code and is 148180
subject to the same restrictions that apply to a person who 148181
carries a license issued under that section.148182

       (E) A peace officer has the same right to carry a concealed 148183
handgun in this state as a person who was issued a concealed 148184
handgun license under section 2923.125 of the Revised Code. For 148185
purposes of reciprocity with other states, a peace officer shall 148186
be considered to be a licensee in this state.148187

       (F)(1) A qualified retired peace officer who possesses a 148188
retired peace officer identification card issued pursuant to 148189
division (F)(2) of this section and a valid firearms 148190
requalification certification issued pursuant to division (F)(3) 148191
of this section has the same right to carry a concealed handgun in 148192
this state as a person who was issued a concealed handgun license 148193
under section 2923.125 of the Revised Code and is subject to the 148194
same restrictions that apply to a person who carries a license 148195
issued under that section. For purposes of reciprocity with other 148196
states, a qualified retired peace officer who possesses a retired 148197
peace officer identification card issued pursuant to division 148198
(F)(2) of this section and a valid firearms requalification 148199
certification issued pursuant to division (F)(3) of this section 148200
shall be considered to be a licensee in this state.148201

        (2)(a) Each public agency of this state or of a political 148202
subdivision of this state that is served by one or more peace 148203
officers shall issue a retired peace officer identification card 148204
to any person who retired from service as a peace officer with 148205
that agency, if the issuance is in accordance with the agency's 148206
policies and procedures and if the person, with respect to the 148207
person's service with that agency, satisfies all of the following:148208

        (i) The person retired in good standing from service as a 148209
peace officer with the public agency, and the retirement was not 148210
for reasons of mental instability.148211

        (ii) Before retiring from service as a peace officer with 148212
that agency, the person was authorized to engage in or supervise 148213
the prevention, detection, investigation, or prosecution of, or 148214
the incarceration of any person for, any violation of law and the 148215
person had statutory powers of arrest.148216

        (iii) At the time of the person's retirement as a peace 148217
officer with that agency, the person was trained and qualified to 148218
carry firearms in the performance of the peace officer's duties.148219

        (iv) Before retiring from service as a peace officer with 148220
that agency, the person was regularly employed as a peace officer 148221
for an aggregate of fifteen years or more, or, in the alternative, 148222
the person retired from service as a peace officer with that 148223
agency, after completing any applicable probationary period of 148224
that service, due to a service-connected disability, as determined 148225
by the agency.148226

        (b) A retired peace officer identification card issued to a 148227
person under division (F)(2)(a) of this section shall identify the 148228
person by name, contain a photograph of the person, identify the 148229
public agency of this state or of the political subdivision of 148230
this state from which the person retired as a peace officer and 148231
that is issuing the identification card, and specify that the 148232
person retired in good standing from service as a peace officer 148233
with the issuing public agency and satisfies the criteria set 148234
forth in divisions (F)(2)(a)(i) to (iv) of this section. In 148235
addition to the required content specified in this division, a 148236
retired peace officer identification card issued to a person under 148237
division (F)(2)(a) of this section may include the firearms 148238
requalification certification described in division (F)(3) of this 148239
section, and if the identification card includes that 148240
certification, the identification card shall serve as the firearms 148241
requalification certification for the retired peace officer. If 148242
the issuing public agency issues credentials to active law 148243
enforcement officers who serve the agency, the agency may comply 148244
with division (F)(2)(a) of this section by issuing the same 148245
credentials to persons who retired from service as a peace officer 148246
with the agency and who satisfy the criteria set forth in 148247
divisions (F)(2)(a)(i) to (iv) of this section, provided that the 148248
credentials so issued to retired peace officers are stamped with 148249
the word "RETIRED."148250

        (c) A public agency of this state or of a political 148251
subdivision of this state may charge persons who retired from 148252
service as a peace officer with the agency a reasonable fee for 148253
issuing to the person a retired peace officer identification card 148254
pursuant to division (F)(2)(a) of this section.148255

        (3) If a person retired from service as a peace officer with 148256
a public agency of this state or of a political subdivision of 148257
this state and the person satisfies the criteria set forth in 148258
divisions (F)(2)(a)(i) to (iv) of this section, the public agency 148259
may provide the retired peace officer with the opportunity to 148260
attend a firearms requalification program that is approved for 148261
purposes of firearms requalification required under section 148262
109.801 of the Revised Code. The retired peace officer may be 148263
required to pay the cost of the course.148264

        If a retired peace officer who satisfies the criteria set 148265
forth in divisions (F)(2)(a)(i) to (iv) of this section attends a 148266
firearms requalification program that is approved for purposes of 148267
firearms requalification required under section 109.801 of the 148268
Revised Code, the retired peace officer's successful completion of 148269
the firearms requalification program requalifies the retired peace 148270
officer for purposes of division (F) of this section for five 148271
years from the date on which the program was successfully 148272
completed, and the requalification is valid during that five-year 148273
period. If a retired peace officer who satisfies the criteria set 148274
forth in divisions (F)(2)(a)(i) to (iv) of this section 148275
satisfactorily completes such a firearms requalification program, 148276
the retired peace officer shall be issued a firearms 148277
requalification certification that identifies the retired peace 148278
officer by name, identifies the entity that taught the program, 148279
specifies that the retired peace officer successfully completed 148280
the program, specifies the date on which the course was 148281
successfully completed, and specifies that the requalification is 148282
valid for five years from that date of successful completion. The 148283
firearms requalification certification for a retired peace officer 148284
may be included in the retired peace officer identification card 148285
issued to the retired peace officer under division (F)(2) of this 148286
section.148287

        A retired peace officer who attends a firearms 148288
requalification program that is approved for purposes of firearms 148289
requalification required under section 109.801 of the Revised Code 148290
may be required to pay the cost of the program.148291

        (G) As used in this section:148292

       (1) "Qualified retired peace officer" means a person who 148293
satisfies all of the following:148294

        (a) The person satisfies the criteria set forth in divisions 148295
(F)(2)(a)(i) to (v) of this section.148296

       (b) The person is not under the influence of alcohol or 148297
another intoxicating or hallucinatory drug or substance.148298

        (c) The person is not prohibited by federal law from 148299
receiving firearms.148300

       (2) "Retired peace officer identification card" means an 148301
identification card that is issued pursuant to division (F)(2) of 148302
this section to a person who is a retired peace officer.148303

       (3) "Government facility of this state or a political 148304
subdivision of this state" means any of the following:148305

       (a) A building or part of a building that is owned or leased 148306
by the government of this state or a political subdivision of this 148307
state and where employees of the government of this state or the 148308
political subdivision regularly are present for the purpose of 148309
performing their official duties as employees of the state or 148310
political subdivision;148311

       (b) The office of a deputy registrar serving pursuant to 148312
Chapter 4503. of the Revised Code that is used to perform deputy 148313
registrar functions.148314

       Sec. 5104.012.  (A)(1) At the times specified in this 148315
division, the administrator of a child day-care center or a type A 148316
family day-care home shall request the superintendent of the 148317
bureau of criminal identification and investigation to conduct a 148318
criminal records check with respect to any applicant who has 148319
applied to the center or type A home for employment as a person 148320
responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child. 148321

        The administrator shall request a criminal records check 148322
pursuant to this division at the time of the applicant's initial 148323
application for employment and every fourfive years thereafter. 148324
When the administrator requests pursuant to this division a 148325
criminal records check for an applicant at the time of the 148326
applicant's initial application for employment, the administrator 148327
shall request that the superintendent obtain information from the 148328
federal bureau of investigation as a part of the criminal records 148329
check for the applicant, including fingerprint-based checks of 148330
national crime information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 148331
671, for the person subject to the criminal records check. In all 148332
other cases in which the administrator requests a criminal records 148333
check for an applicant pursuant to this division, the 148334
administrator may request that the superintendent include 148335
information from the federal bureau of investigation in the 148336
criminal records check, including fingerprint-based checks of 148337
national crime information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 148338
671.148339

       (2) A person required by division (A)(1) of this section to 148340
request a criminal records check shall provide to each applicant a 148341
copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 148342
109.572 of the Revised Code, provide to each applicant a standard 148343
impression sheet to obtain fingerprint impressions prescribed 148344
pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 109.572 of the Revised 148345
Code, obtain the completed form and impression sheet from each 148346
applicant, and forward the completed form and impression sheet to 148347
the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 148348
investigation at the time the person requests a criminal records 148349
check pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section. On and after 148350
August 14, 2008, the administrator of a child day-care center or a 148351
type A family day-care home shall review the results of the 148352
criminal records check before the applicant has sole 148353
responsibility for the care, custody, or control of any child.148354

       (3) An applicant who receives pursuant to division (A)(2) of 148355
this section a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division 148356
(C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a copy of an 148357
impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that 148358
section and who is requested to complete the form and provide a 148359
set of fingerprint impressions shall complete the form or provide 148360
all the information necessary to complete the form and shall 148361
provide the impression sheet with the impressions of the 148362
applicant's fingerprints. If an applicant, upon request, fails to 148363
provide the information necessary to complete the form or fails to 148364
provide impressions of the applicant's fingerprints, the center or 148365
type A home shall not employ that applicant for any position for 148366
which a criminal records check is required by division (A)(1) of 148367
this section.148368

       (B)(1) Except as provided in rules adopted under division (E) 148369
of this section, no child day-care center or type A family 148370
day-care home shall employ or contract with another entity for the 148371
services of a person as a person responsible for the care, 148372
custody, or control of a child if the person previously has been 148373
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the violations described 148374
in division (A)(5) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code.148375

       (2) A child day-care center or type A family day-care home 148376
may employ an applicant conditionally until the criminal records 148377
check required by this section is completed and the center or home 148378
receives the results of the criminal records check. If the results 148379
of the criminal records check indicate that, pursuant to division 148380
(B)(1) of this section, the applicant does not qualify for 148381
employment, the center or home shall release the applicant from 148382
employment.148383

       (C)(1) Each child day-care center and type A family day-care 148384
home shall pay to the bureau of criminal identification and 148385
investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of 148386
section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each criminal records 148387
check conducted in accordance with that section upon the request 148388
pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section of the administrator 148389
or provider of the center or home.148390

       (2) A child day-care center and type A family day-care home 148391
may charge an applicant a fee for the costs it incurs in obtaining 148392
a criminal records check under this section. A fee charged under 148393
this division shall not exceed the amount of fees the center or 148394
home pays under division (C)(1) of this section. If a fee is 148395
charged under this division, the center or home shall notify the 148396
applicant at the time of the applicant's initial application for 148397
employment of the amount of the fee and that, unless the fee is 148398
paid, the center or type A home will not consider the applicant 148399
for employment.148400

       (D) The report of any criminal records check conducted by the 148401
bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance 148402
with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant to a request 148403
under division (A)(1) of this section is not a public record for 148404
the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not 148405
be made available to any person other than the applicant who is 148406
the subject of the criminal records check or the applicant's 148407
representative; the center or type A home requesting the criminal 148408
records check or its representative; the department of job and 148409
family services or a county department of job and family services; 148410
and any court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 148411
involved in a case dealing with the denial of employment to the 148412
applicant.148413

       (E) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 148414
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this 148415
section, including rules specifying circumstances under which a 148416
center or home may hire a person who has been convicted of an 148417
offense listed in division (B)(1) of this section but who meets 148418
standards in regard to rehabilitation set by the department.148419

       (F) Any person required by division (A)(1) of this section to 148420
request a criminal records check shall inform each person, at the 148421
time of the person's initial application for employment, that the 148422
person is required to provide a set of impressions of the person's 148423
fingerprints and that a criminal records check is required to be 148424
conducted and satisfactorily completed in accordance with section 148425
109.572 of the Revised Code if the person comes under final 148426
consideration for appointment or employment as a precondition to 148427
employment for that position.148428

       (G) As used in this section:148429

       (1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 148430
consideration for appointment to or employment in a position with 148431
a child day-care center or a type A family day-care home as a 148432
person responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child or 148433
any person who would serve in any position with a child day-care 148434
center or a type A family day-care home as a person responsible 148435
for the care, custody, or control of a child pursuant to a 148436
contract with another entity.148437

       (2) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 148438
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.148439

       Sec. 5104.013.  (A)(1) At the times specified in division 148440
(A)(3) of this section, the director of job and family services, 148441
as part of the process of licensure of child day-care centers, 148442
type A family day-care homes, and licensed type B family day-care 148443
homes shall request the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 148444
identification and investigation to conduct a criminal records 148445
check with respect to the following persons:148446

       (a) Any owner, licensee, or administrator of a child day-care 148447
center;148448

       (b) Any owner, licensee, or administrator of a type A family 148449
day-care home and any person eighteen years of age or older who 148450
resides in a type A family day-care home;148451

        (c) Any administrator of a licensed type B family day-care 148452
home and any person eighteen years of age or older who resides in 148453
a licensed type B family day-care home.148454

       (2) At the time specified in division (A)(3) of this section, 148455
the director of a county department of job and family services, as 148456
part of the process of certification of in-home aides, shall 148457
request the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 148458
identification and investigation to conduct a criminal records 148459
check with respect to any in-home aide.148460

       (3) The director of job and family services shall request a 148461
criminal records check pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section 148462
at the time of the initial application for licensure and every 148463
fourfive years thereafter. The director of a county department of 148464
job and family services shall request a criminal records check 148465
pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section at the time of the 148466
initial application for certification and every fourfive years 148467
thereafter. When the director of job and family services or the 148468
director of a county department of job and family services 148469
requests pursuant to division (A)(1) or (2) of this section a 148470
criminal records check for a person at the time of the person's 148471
initial application for licensure or certification, the director 148472
shall request that the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 148473
identification and investigation obtain information from the 148474
federal bureau of investigation as a part of the criminal records 148475
check for the person, including fingerprint-based checks of 148476
national crime information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 671 148477
for the person subject to the criminal records check. In all other 148478
cases in which the director of job and family services or the 148479
director of a county department of job and family services 148480
requests a criminal records check for an applicant pursuant to 148481
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section, the director may request 148482
that the superintendent include information from the federal 148483
bureau of investigation in the criminal records check, including 148484
fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases 148485
as described in 42 U.S.C. 671. 148486

       (4) The director of job and family services shall review the 148487
results of a criminal records check subsequent to a request made 148488
pursuant to divisions (A)(1) and (3) of this section prior to 148489
approval of a license. The director of a county department of job 148490
and family services shall review the results of a criminal records 148491
check subsequent to a request made pursuant to divisions (A)(2) 148492
and (3) of this section prior to approval of certification.148493

       (B) The director of job and family services or the director 148494
of a county department of job and family services shall provide to 148495
each person for whom a criminal records check is required under 148496
this section a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division 148497
(C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard 148498
impression sheet to obtain fingerprint impressions prescribed 148499
pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section, obtain the completed 148500
form and impression sheet from that person, and forward the 148501
completed form and impression sheet to the superintendent of the 148502
bureau of criminal identification and investigation.148503

       (C) A person who receives pursuant to division (B) of this 148504
section a copy of the form and standard impression sheet described 148505
in that division and who is requested to complete the form and 148506
provide a set of fingerprint impressions shall complete the form 148507
or provide all the information necessary to complete the form and 148508
shall provide the impression sheet with the impressions of the 148509
person's fingerprints. If the person, upon request, fails to 148510
provide the information necessary to complete the form or fails to 148511
provide impressions of the person's fingerprints, the director may 148512
consider the failure as a reason to deny licensure or 148513
certification.148514

       (D) Except as provided in rules adopted under division (G) of 148515
this section, the director of job and family services shall not 148516
grant a license to a child day-care center, type A family day-care 148517
home, or type B family day-care home and a county director of job 148518
and family services shall not certify an in-home aide if a person 148519
for whom a criminal records check was required in connection with 148520
the center or home previously has been convicted of or pleaded 148521
guilty to any of the violations described in division (A)(5) of 148522
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.148523

       (E) Each child day-care center, type A family day-care home, 148524
and type B family day-care home shall pay to the bureau of 148525
criminal identification and investigation the fee prescribed 148526
pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 148527
for each criminal records check conducted in accordance with that 148528
section upon a request made pursuant to division (A) of this 148529
section.148530

       (F) The report of any criminal records check conducted by the 148531
bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance 148532
with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant to a request 148533
made under division (A) of this section is not a public record for 148534
the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not 148535
be made available to any person other than the person who is the 148536
subject of the criminal records check or the person's 148537
representative, the director of job and family services, the 148538
director of a county department of job and family services, the 148539
center, type A home, or type B home involved, and any court, 148540
hearing officer, or other necessary individual involved in a case 148541
dealing with a denial of licensure or certification related to the 148542
criminal records check.148543

       (G) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 148544
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement 148545
this section, including rules specifying exceptions to the 148546
prohibition in division (D) of this section for persons who have 148547
been convicted of an offense listed in that division but who meet 148548
standards in regard to rehabilitation set by the director.148549

       (H) As used in this section, "criminal records check" has the 148550
same meaning as in section 109.572 of the Revised Code.148551

       Sec. 5104.03.  (A) Any person, firm, organization, 148552
institution, or agency seeking to establish a child day-care 148553
center, type A family day-care home, or licensed type B family 148554
day-care home shall apply for a license to the director of job and 148555
family services on such form as the director prescribes. The 148556
director shall provide at no charge to each applicant for 148557
licensure a copy of the child care license requirements in this 148558
chapter and a copy of the rules adopted pursuant to this chapter. 148559
The copies may be provided in paper or electronic form.148560

       Fees shall be set by the director pursuant to sections 148561
5104.015, 5104.017, and 5104.018 of the Revised Code and shall be 148562
paid at the time of application for a license to operate a center, 148563
type A home, or type B home. Fees collected under this section 148564
shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the general 148565
revenue fund.148566

       (B)(1) Upon filing of the application for a license, the 148567
director shall investigate and inspect the center, type A home, or 148568
type B home to determine the license capacity for each age 148569
category of children of the center, type A home, or type B home 148570
and to determine whether the center, type A home, or type B home 148571
complies with this chapter and rules adopted pursuant to this 148572
chapter. When, after investigation and inspection, the director is 148573
satisfied that this chapter and rules adopted pursuant to it are 148574
complied with, subject to division (H) of this section, a license 148575
shall be issued as soon as practicable in such form and manner as 148576
prescribed by the director. The license shall be designated as 148577
provisional and shall be valid for twelve months from the date of 148578
issuance unless revoked.148579

       (2) The director may contract with a government entity or a 148580
private nonprofit entity for the entity to inspect and license 148581
type B family day-care homes pursuant to this section. The 148582
department, government entity, or nonprofit entity shall conduct 148583
the inspection prior to the issuance of a license for the type B 148584
home and, as part of that inspection, ensure that the type B home 148585
is safe and sanitary.148586

       (C)(1) On receipt of an application for licensure as a type B 148587
family day-care home to provide publicly funded child care, the 148588
department shall search the uniform statewide automated child 148589
welfare information system for information concerning any abuse or 148590
neglect report made pursuant to section 2151.421 of the Revised 148591
Code of which the applicant, any other adult residing in the 148592
applicant's home, or a person designated by the applicant to be an 148593
emergency or substitute caregiver for the applicant is the 148594
subject.148595

       (2) The department shall consider any information it 148596
discovers pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section or that is 148597
provided by a public children services agency pursuant to section 148598
5153.175 of the Revised Code. If the department determines that 148599
the information, when viewed within the totality of the 148600
circumstances, reasonably leads to the conclusion that the 148601
applicant may directly or indirectly endanger the health, safety, 148602
or welfare of children, the department shall deny the application 148603
for licensure or revoke the license of a type B family day-care 148604
home. 148605

        (D) The director shall investigate and inspect the center, 148606
type A home, or type B home at least once during operation under a 148607
license designated as provisional. If after the investigation and 148608
inspection the director determines that the requirements of this 148609
chapter and rules adopted pursuant to this chapter are met, 148610
subject to division (H) of this section, the director shall issue 148611
a new license to the center or home.148612

        (E) Each license shall state the name of the licensee, the 148613
name of the administrator, the address of the center, type A home, 148614
or licensed type B home, and the license capacity for each age 148615
category of children. The license shall include thereon, in 148616
accordance with sections 5104.015, 5104.017, and 5104.018 of the 148617
Revised Code, the toll-free telephone number to be used by persons 148618
suspecting that the center, type A home, or licensed type B home 148619
has violated a provision of this chapter or rules adopted pursuant 148620
to this chapter. A license is valid only for the licensee, 148621
administrator, address, and license capacity for each age category 148622
of children designated on the license. The license capacity 148623
specified on the license is the maximum number of children in each 148624
age category that may be cared for in the center, type A home, or 148625
licensed type B home at one time.148626

       The center or type A home licensee shall notify the director 148627
when the administrator of the center or home changes. The director 148628
shall amend the current license to reflect a change in an 148629
administrator, if the administrator meets the requirements of this 148630
chapter and rules adopted pursuant to this chapter, or a change in 148631
license capacity for any age category of children as determined by 148632
the director of job and family services.148633

       (F) If the director revokes the license of a center, a type A 148634
home, or a type B home, the director shall not issue another 148635
license to the owner of the center, type A home, or type B home 148636
until five years have elapsed from the date the license is 148637
revoked. 148638

        If the director denies an application for a license, the 148639
director shall not accept another application from the applicant 148640
until five years have elapsed from the date the application is 148641
denied.148642

       (G) If during the application for licensure process the 148643
director determines that the license of the owner has been 148644
revoked, the investigation of the center, type A home, or type B 148645
home shall cease. This action does not constitute denial of the 148646
application and may not be appealed under division (H) of this 148647
section. 148648

       (H) All actions of the director with respect to licensing 148649
centers, type A homes, or type B homes, refusal to license, and 148650
revocation of a license shall be in accordance with Chapter 119. 148651
of the Revised Code. Any applicant who is denied a license or any 148652
owner whose license is revoked may appeal in accordance with 148653
section 119.12 of the Revised Code.148654

       (I) In no case shall the director issue a license under this 148655
section for a center, type A home, or type B home if the director, 148656
based on documentation provided by the appropriate county 148657
department of job and family services, determines that the 148658
applicant had been certified as a type B family day-care home when 148659
such certifications were issued by county departments prior to the 148660
effective date of this amendmentJanuary 1, 2014, that the county 148661
department revoked that certification within the immediately 148662
preceding five years, that the revocation was based on the 148663
applicant's refusal or inability to comply with the criteria for 148664
certification, and that the refusal or inability resulted in a 148665
risk to the health or safety of children.148666

       (J)(1) Except as provided in division (J)(2) of this section, 148667
an administrator of a type B family day-care home that receives a 148668
license pursuant to this section to provide publicly funded child 148669
care is an independent contractor and is not an employee of the 148670
department of job and family services.148671

       (2) For purposes of Chapter 4141. of the Revised Code, 148672
determinations concerning the employment of an administrator of a 148673
type B family day-care home that receives a license pursuant to 148674
this section shall be determined under Chapter 4141. of the 148675
Revised Code.148676

       Sec. 5104.08. (A) There is hereby created in the department 148677
of job and family services a child care advisory council to advise 148678
and assist the department in the administration of this chapter 148679
and in the development of child care. The council shall consist of 148680
twenty-two voting members appointed by the director of job and 148681
family services with the approval of the governor. The director of 148682
job and family services, the director of developmental 148683
disabilities, the director of mental healthmental health and 148684
addiction services, the superintendent of public instruction, the 148685
director of health, the director of commerce, and the state fire 148686
marshal shall serve as nonvoting members of the council.148687

       Six members shall be representatives of child care centers 148688
subject to licensing, the members to represent a variety of 148689
centers, including nonprofit and proprietary, from different 148690
geographical areas of the state. At least three members shall be 148691
parents, guardians, or custodians of children receiving child care 148692
or publicly funded child care in the child's own home, a center, a 148693
type A home, a head start program, a licensed type B home, or a 148694
type B home at the time of appointment. Three members shall be 148695
representatives of in-home aides, type A homes, licensed type B 148696
homes, or type B homes or head start programs. At least six 148697
members shall represent county departments of job and family 148698
services. The remaining members shall be representatives of the 148699
teaching, child development, and health professions, and other 148700
individuals interested in the welfare of children. At least six 148701
members of the council shall not be employees or licensees of a 148702
child day-care center, head start program, or type A home, or 148703
providers operating a licensed type B home or type B home, or 148704
in-home aides.148705

        Appointments shall be for three-year terms. Vacancies shall 148706
be filled for the unexpired terms. A member of the council is 148707
subject to removal by the director of job and family services for 148708
a willful and flagrant exercise of authority or power that is not 148709
authorized by law, for a refusal or willful neglect to perform any 148710
official duty as a member of the council imposed by law, or for 148711
being guilty of misfeasance, malfeasance, nonfeasance, or gross 148712
neglect of duty as a member of the council.148713

       There shall be two co-chairpersons of the council. One 148714
co-chairperson shall be the director of job and family services or 148715
the director's designee, and one co-chairperson shall be elected 148716
by the members of the council. The council shall meet as often as 148717
is necessary to perform its duties, provided that it shall meet at 148718
least once in each quarter of each calendar year and at the call 148719
of the co-chairpersons. The co-chairpersons or their designee 148720
shall send to each member a written notice of the date, time, and 148721
place of each meeting.148722

       Members of the council shall serve without compensation, but 148723
shall be reimbursed for necessary expenses.148724

       (B) The child care advisory council shall advise the director 148725
on matters affecting the licensing of centers, type A homes, and 148726
type B homes and the certification of in-home aides. The council 148727
shall make an annual report to the director of job and family 148728
services that addresses the availability, affordability, 148729
accessibility, and quality of child care and that summarizes the 148730
recommendations and plans of action that the council has proposed 148731
to the director during the preceding fiscal year. The director of 148732
job and family services shall provide copies of the report to the 148733
governor, speaker and minority leader of the house of 148734
representatives, and the president and minority leader of the 148735
senate and, on request, shall make copies available to the public.148736

       (C) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 148737
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement 148738
this section.148739

       Sec. 5104.32.  (A) Except as provided in division (C) of this 148740
section, all purchases of publicly funded child care shall be made 148741
under a contract entered into by a licensed child day-care center, 148742
licensed type A family day-care home, licensed type B family 148743
day-care home, certified in-home aide, approved child day camp, 148744
licensed preschool program, licensed school child program, or 148745
border state child care provider and the department of job and 148746
family services. All contracts for publicly funded child care 148747
shall be contingent upon the availability of state and federal 148748
funds. The department shall prescribe a standard form to be used 148749
for all contracts for the purchase of publicly funded child care, 148750
regardless of the source of public funds used to purchase the 148751
child care. To the extent permitted by federal law and 148752
notwithstanding any other provision of the Revised Code that 148753
regulates state contracts or contracts involving the expenditure 148754
of state or federal funds, all contracts for publicly funded child 148755
care shall be entered into in accordance with the provisions of 148756
this chapter and are exempt from any other provision of the 148757
Revised Code that regulates state contracts or contracts involving 148758
the expenditure of state or federal funds.148759

       (B) Each contract for publicly funded child care shall 148760
specify at least the following:148761

       (1) That the provider of publicly funded child care agrees to 148762
be paid for rendering services at the lower of the rate 148763
customarily charged by the provider for children enrolled for 148764
child care or the reimbursement ceiling or rate of payment 148765
established pursuant to section 5104.30 of the Revised Code;148766

       (2) That, if a provider provides child care to an individual 148767
potentially eligible for publicly funded child care who is 148768
subsequently determined to be eligible, the department agrees to 148769
pay for all child care provided between the date the county 148770
department of job and family services receives the individual's 148771
completed application and the date the individual's eligibility is 148772
determined;148773

       (3) Whether the county department of job and family services, 148774
the provider, or a child care resource and referral service 148775
organization will make eligibility determinations, whether the 148776
provider or a child care resource and referral service 148777
organization will be required to collect information to be used by 148778
the county department to make eligibility determinations, and the 148779
time period within which the provider or child care resource and 148780
referral service organization is required to complete required 148781
eligibility determinations or to transmit to the county department 148782
any information collected for the purpose of making eligibility 148783
determinations;148784

       (4) That the provider, other than a border state child care 148785
provider, shall continue to be licensed, approved, or certified 148786
pursuant to this chapter and shall comply with all standards and 148787
other requirements in this chapter and in rules adopted pursuant 148788
to this chapter for maintaining the provider's license, approval, 148789
or certification;148790

       (5) That, in the case of a border state child care provider, 148791
the provider shall continue to be licensed, certified, or 148792
otherwise approved by the state in which the provider is located 148793
and shall comply with all standards and other requirements 148794
established by that state for maintaining the provider's license, 148795
certificate, or other approval;148796

       (6) Whether the provider will be paid by the state department 148797
of job and family services or in some other manner as prescribed 148798
by rules adopted under section 5104.42 of the Revised Code;148799

       (7) That the contract is subject to the availability of state 148800
and federal funds.148801

       (C) Unless specifically prohibited by federal law or by rules 148802
adopted under section 5104.42 of the Revised Code, the county 148803
department of job and family services shall give individuals 148804
eligible for publicly funded child care the option of obtaining 148805
certificates that the individual may use to purchase services from 148806
any provider qualified to provide publicly funded child care under 148807
section 5104.31 of the Revised Code. Providers of publicly funded 148808
child care may present these certificates for payment in 148809
accordance with rules that the director of job and family services 148810
shall adopt. Only providers may receive payment for certificates. 148811
The value of the certificate shall be based on the lower of the 148812
rate customarily charged by the provider or the rate of payment 148813
established pursuant to section 5104.30 of the Revised Code. The 148814
county department may provide the certificates to the individuals 148815
or may contract with child care providers or child care resource 148816
and referral service organizations that make determinations of 148817
eligibility for publicly funded child care pursuant to contracts 148818
entered into under section 5104.34 of the Revised Code for the 148819
providers or resource and referral service organizations to 148820
provide the certificates to individuals whom they determine are 148821
eligible for publicly funded child care.148822

       For each six-month period a provider of publicly funded child 148823
care provides publicly funded child care to the child of an 148824
individual given certificates, the individual shall provide the 148825
provider certificates for days the provider would have provided 148826
publicly funded child care to the child had the child been 148827
present. The maximum number of days providers shall be provided 148828
certificates shall not exceed ten days in a six-month period 148829
during which publicly funded child care is provided to the child 148830
regardless of the number of providers that provide publicly funded 148831
child care to the child during that period.148832

       (D)(1) The department shall establish the Ohio electronic 148833
child care system to track attendance and calculate payments for 148834
publicly funded child care. The system shall include issuing an 148835
electronic child care card to each caretaker parent to swipe 148836
through a point of service device issued to an eligible provider, 148837
as described in section 5104.31 of the Revised Code.148838

        (2) Each eligible provider that provides publicly funded 148839
child care shall participate in the Ohio electronic child care 148840
system. A provider participating in the system shall not do any of 148841
the following:148842

        (a) Use or have possession of an electronic child care card 148843
issued to a caretaker parent;148844

        (b) Falsify attendance records;148845

        (c) Knowingly seek payment for publicly funded child care 148846
that was not provided;148847

        (d) Knowingly accept reimbursement for publicly funded child 148848
care that was not provided.148849

       Section 110.21.  That the existing versions of sections 148850
109.57, 2151.011, 2923.126, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5104.03, 5104.08, 148851
and 5104.32 of the Revised Code that are scheduled to take effect 148852
January 1, 2014, are hereby repealed.148853

       Section 110.22. Sections 110.20 and 110.21 of this act shall 148854
take effect January 1, 2014, except that the amendments by 148855
Sections 110.20 and 110.21 of this act to divisions (B)(49) and 148856
(50) of section 2151.011 of the Revised Code shall take effect 148857
July 1, 2014.148858

       Section 110.30.  That the versions of sections 4501.01, 148859
4507.01, and 4507.06 of the Revised Code that are scheduled to 148860
take effect January 1, 2017, be amended to read as follows:148861

       Sec. 4501.01.  As used in this chapter and Chapters 4503., 148862
4505., 4507., 4509., 4510., 4511., 4513., 4515., and 4517. of the 148863
Revised Code, and in the penal laws, except as otherwise provided:148864

       (A) "Vehicles" means everything on wheels or runners, 148865
including motorized bicycles, but does not mean electric personal 148866
assistive mobility devices, vehicles that are operated exclusively 148867
on rails or tracks or from overhead electric trolley wires, and 148868
vehicles that belong to any police department, municipal fire 148869
department, or volunteer fire department, or that are used by such 148870
a department in the discharge of its functions.148871

       (B) "Motor vehicle" means any vehicle, including mobile homes 148872
and recreational vehicles, that is propelled or drawn by power 148873
other than muscular power or power collected from overhead 148874
electric trolley wires. "Motor vehicle" does not include utility 148875
vehicles as defined in division (VV) of this section, under-speed 148876
vehicles as defined in division (XX) of this section, mini-trucks 148877
as defined in division (BBB) of this section, motorized bicycles, 148878
road rollers, traction engines, power shovels, power cranes, and 148879
other equipment used in construction work and not designed for or 148880
employed in general highway transportation, well-drilling 148881
machinery, ditch-digging machinery, farm machinery, and trailers 148882
that are designed and used exclusively to transport a boat between 148883
a place of storage and a marina, or in and around a marina, when 148884
drawn or towed on a public road or highway for a distance of no 148885
more than ten miles and at a speed of twenty-five miles per hour 148886
or less.148887

       (C) "Agricultural tractor" and "traction engine" mean any 148888
self-propelling vehicle that is designed or used for drawing other 148889
vehicles or wheeled machinery, but has no provisions for carrying 148890
loads independently of such other vehicles, and that is used 148891
principally for agricultural purposes.148892

       (D) "Commercial tractor," except as defined in division (C) 148893
of this section, means any motor vehicle that has motive power and 148894
either is designed or used for drawing other motor vehicles, or is 148895
designed or used for drawing another motor vehicle while carrying 148896
a portion of the other motor vehicle or its load, or both.148897

       (E) "Passenger car" means any motor vehicle that is designed 148898
and used for carrying not more than nine persons and includes any 148899
motor vehicle that is designed and used for carrying not more than 148900
fifteen persons in a ridesharing arrangement.148901

       (F) "Collector's vehicle" means any motor vehicle or 148902
agricultural tractor or traction engine that is of special 148903
interest, that has a fair market value of one hundred dollars or 148904
more, whether operable or not, and that is owned, operated, 148905
collected, preserved, restored, maintained, or used essentially as 148906
a collector's item, leisure pursuit, or investment, but not as the 148907
owner's principal means of transportation. "Licensed collector's 148908
vehicle" means a collector's vehicle, other than an agricultural 148909
tractor or traction engine, that displays current, valid license 148910
tags issued under section 4503.45 of the Revised Code, or a 148911
similar type of motor vehicle that displays current, valid license 148912
tags issued under substantially equivalent provisions in the laws 148913
of other states.148914

       (G) "Historical motor vehicle" means any motor vehicle that 148915
is over twenty-five years old and is owned solely as a collector's 148916
item and for participation in club activities, exhibitions, tours, 148917
parades, and similar uses, but that in no event is used for 148918
general transportation.148919

       (H) "Noncommercial motor vehicle" means any motor vehicle, 148920
including a farm truck as defined in section 4503.04 of the 148921
Revised Code, that is designed by the manufacturer to carry a load 148922
of no more than one ton and is used exclusively for purposes other 148923
than engaging in business for profit.148924

       (I) "Bus" means any motor vehicle that has motor power and is 148925
designed and used for carrying more than nine passengers, except 148926
any motor vehicle that is designed and used for carrying not more 148927
than fifteen passengers in a ridesharing arrangement.148928

       (J) "Commercial car" or "truck" means any motor vehicle that 148929
has motor power and is designed and used for carrying merchandise 148930
or freight, or that is used as a commercial tractor.148931

       (K) "Bicycle" means every device, other than a device that is 148932
designed solely for use as a play vehicle by a child, that is 148933
propelled solely by human power upon which a person may ride, and 148934
that has two or more wheels, any of which is more than fourteen 148935
inches in diameter.148936

       (L) "Motorized bicycle" or "moped" means any vehicle that 148937
either has two tandem wheels or one wheel in the front and two 148938
wheels in the rear, that may be pedaled, and that is equipped with 148939
a helper motor of not more than fifty cubic centimeters piston 148940
displacement that produces no more than one brake horsepower and 148941
is capable of propelling the vehicle at a speed of no greater than 148942
twenty miles per hour on a level surface.148943

       (M) "Trailer" means any vehicle without motive power that is 148944
designed or used for carrying property or persons wholly on its 148945
own structure and for being drawn by a motor vehicle, and includes 148946
any such vehicle that is formed by or operated as a combination of 148947
a semitrailer and a vehicle of the dolly type such as that 148948
commonly known as a trailer dolly, a vehicle used to transport 148949
agricultural produce or agricultural production materials between 148950
a local place of storage or supply and the farm when drawn or 148951
towed on a public road or highway at a speed greater than 148952
twenty-five miles per hour, and a vehicle that is designed and 148953
used exclusively to transport a boat between a place of storage 148954
and a marina, or in and around a marina, when drawn or towed on a 148955
public road or highway for a distance of more than ten miles or at 148956
a speed of more than twenty-five miles per hour. "Trailer" does 148957
not include a manufactured home or travel trailer.148958

       (N) "Noncommercial trailer" means any trailer, except a 148959
travel trailer or trailer that is used to transport a boat as 148960
described in division (B) of this section, but, where applicable, 148961
includes a vehicle that is used to transport a boat as described 148962
in division (M) of this section, that has a gross weight of no 148963
more than ten thousand pounds, and that is used exclusively for 148964
purposes other than engaging in business for a profit, such as the 148965
transportation of personal items for personal or recreational 148966
purposes.148967

       (O) "Mobile home" means a building unit or assembly of closed 148968
construction that is fabricated in an off-site facility, is more 148969
than thirty-five body feet in length or, when erected on site, is 148970
three hundred twenty or more square feet, is built on a permanent 148971
chassis, is transportable in one or more sections, and does not 148972
qualify as a manufactured home as defined in division (C)(4) of 148973
section 3781.06 of the Revised Code or as an industrialized unit 148974
as defined in division (C)(3) of section 3781.06 of the Revised 148975
Code.148976

       (P) "Semitrailer" means any vehicle of the trailer type that 148977
does not have motive power and is so designed or used with another 148978
and separate motor vehicle that in operation a part of its own 148979
weight or that of its load, or both, rests upon and is carried by 148980
the other vehicle furnishing the motive power for propelling 148981
itself and the vehicle referred to in this division, and includes, 148982
for the purpose only of registration and taxation under those 148983
chapters, any vehicle of the dolly type, such as a trailer dolly, 148984
that is designed or used for the conversion of a semitrailer into 148985
a trailer.148986

       (Q) "Recreational vehicle" means a vehicular portable 148987
structure that meets all of the following conditions:148988

       (1) It is designed for the sole purpose of recreational 148989
travel.148990

       (2) It is not used for the purpose of engaging in business 148991
for profit.148992

       (3) It is not used for the purpose of engaging in intrastate 148993
commerce.148994

       (4) It is not used for the purpose of commerce as defined in 148995
49 C.F.R. 383.5, as amended.148996

       (5) It is not regulated by the public utilities commission 148997
pursuant to Chapter 4905., 4921., or 4923. of the Revised Code.148998

       (6) It is classed as one of the following:148999

       (a) "Travel trailer" or "house vehicle" means a 149000
nonself-propelled recreational vehicle that does not exceed an 149001
overall length of forty feet, exclusive of bumper and tongue or 149002
coupling. "Travel trailer" includes a tent-type fold-out camping 149003
trailer as defined in section 4517.01 of the Revised Code.149004

       (b) "Motor home" means a self-propelled recreational vehicle 149005
that has no fifth wheel and is constructed with permanently 149006
installed facilities for cold storage, cooking and consuming of 149007
food, and for sleeping.149008

       (c) "Truck camper" means a nonself-propelled recreational 149009
vehicle that does not have wheels for road use and is designed to 149010
be placed upon and attached to a motor vehicle. "Truck camper" 149011
does not include truck covers that consist of walls and a roof, 149012
but do not have floors and facilities enabling them to be used as 149013
a dwelling.149014

       (d) "Fifth wheel trailer" means a vehicle that is of such 149015
size and weight as to be movable without a special highway permit, 149016
that is constructed with a raised forward section that allows a 149017
bi-level floor plan, and that is designed to be towed by a vehicle 149018
equipped with a fifth-wheel hitch ordinarily installed in the bed 149019
of a truck.149020

       (e) "Park trailer" means a vehicle that is commonly known as 149021
a park model recreational vehicle, meets the American national 149022
standard institute standard A119.5 (1988) for park trailers, is 149023
built on a single chassis, has a gross trailer area of four 149024
hundred square feet or less when set up, is designed for seasonal 149025
or temporary living quarters, and may be connected to utilities 149026
necessary for the operation of installed features and appliances.149027

       (R) "Pneumatic tires" means tires of rubber and fabric or 149028
tires of similar material, that are inflated with air.149029

       (S) "Solid tires" means tires of rubber or similar elastic 149030
material that are not dependent upon confined air for support of 149031
the load.149032

       (T) "Solid tire vehicle" means any vehicle that is equipped 149033
with two or more solid tires.149034

       (U) "Farm machinery" means all machines and tools that are 149035
used in the production, harvesting, and care of farm products, and 149036
includes trailers that are used to transport agricultural produce 149037
or agricultural production materials between a local place of 149038
storage or supply and the farm, agricultural tractors, threshing 149039
machinery, hay-baling machinery, corn shellers, hammermills, and 149040
machinery used in the production of horticultural, agricultural, 149041
and vegetable products.149042

       (V) "Owner" includes any person or firm, other than a 149043
manufacturer or dealer, that has title to a motor vehicle, except 149044
that, in sections 4505.01 to 4505.19 of the Revised Code, "owner" 149045
includes in addition manufacturers and dealers.149046

       (W) "Manufacturer" and "dealer" include all persons and firms 149047
that are regularly engaged in the business of manufacturing, 149048
selling, displaying, offering for sale, or dealing in motor 149049
vehicles, at an established place of business that is used 149050
exclusively for the purpose of manufacturing, selling, displaying, 149051
offering for sale, or dealing in motor vehicles. A place of 149052
business that is used for manufacturing, selling, displaying, 149053
offering for sale, or dealing in motor vehicles shall be deemed to 149054
be used exclusively for those purposes even though snowmobiles or 149055
all-purpose vehicles are sold or displayed for sale thereat, even 149056
though farm machinery is sold or displayed for sale thereat, or 149057
even though repair, accessory, gasoline and oil, storage, parts, 149058
service, or paint departments are maintained thereat, or, in any 149059
county having a population of less than seventy-five thousand at 149060
the last federal census, even though a department in a place of 149061
business is used to dismantle, salvage, or rebuild motor vehicles 149062
by means of used parts, if such departments are operated for the 149063
purpose of furthering and assisting in the business of 149064
manufacturing, selling, displaying, offering for sale, or dealing 149065
in motor vehicles. Places of business or departments in a place of 149066
business used to dismantle, salvage, or rebuild motor vehicles by 149067
means of using used parts are not considered as being maintained 149068
for the purpose of assisting or furthering the manufacturing, 149069
selling, displaying, and offering for sale or dealing in motor 149070
vehicles.149071

       (X) "Operator" includes any person who drives or operates a 149072
motor vehicle upon the public highways.149073

       (Y) "Chauffeur" means any operator who operates a motor 149074
vehicle, other than a taxicab, as an employee for hire; or any 149075
operator whether or not the owner of a motor vehicle, other than a 149076
taxicab, who operates such vehicle for transporting, for gain, 149077
compensation, or profit, either persons or property owned by 149078
another. Any operator of a motor vehicle who is voluntarily 149079
involved in a ridesharing arrangement is not considered an 149080
employee for hire or operating such vehicle for gain, 149081
compensation, or profit.149082

       (Z) "State" includes the territories and federal districts of 149083
the United States, and the provinces of Canada.149084

       (AA) "Public roads and highways" for vehicles includes all 149085
public thoroughfares, bridges, and culverts.149086

       (BB) "Manufacturer's number" means the manufacturer's 149087
original serial number that is affixed to or imprinted upon the 149088
chassis or other part of the motor vehicle.149089

       (CC) "Motor number" means the manufacturer's original number 149090
that is affixed to or imprinted upon the engine or motor of the 149091
vehicle.149092

       (DD) "Distributor" means any person who is authorized by a 149093
motor vehicle manufacturer to distribute new motor vehicles to 149094
licensed motor vehicle dealers at an established place of business 149095
that is used exclusively for the purpose of distributing new motor 149096
vehicles to licensed motor vehicle dealers, except when the 149097
distributor also is a new motor vehicle dealer, in which case the 149098
distributor may distribute at the location of the distributor's 149099
licensed dealership.149100

       (EE) "Ridesharing arrangement" means the transportation of 149101
persons in a motor vehicle where the transportation is incidental 149102
to another purpose of a volunteer driver and includes ridesharing 149103
arrangements known as carpools, vanpools, and buspools.149104

       (FF) "Apportionable vehicle" means any vehicle that is used 149105
or intended for use in two or more international registration plan 149106
member jurisdictions that allocate or proportionally register 149107
vehicles, that is used for the transportation of persons for hire 149108
or designed, used, or maintained primarily for the transportation 149109
of property, and that meets any of the following qualifications:149110

       (1) Is a power unit having a gross vehicle weight in excess 149111
of twenty-six thousand pounds;149112

       (2) Is a power unit having three or more axles, regardless of 149113
the gross vehicle weight;149114

       (3) Is a combination vehicle with a gross vehicle weight in 149115
excess of twenty-six thousand pounds.149116

       "Apportionable vehicle" does not include recreational 149117
vehicles, vehicles displaying restricted plates, city pick-up and 149118
delivery vehicles, buses used for the transportation of chartered 149119
parties, or vehicles owned and operated by the United States, this 149120
state, or any political subdivisions thereof.149121

       (GG) "Chartered party" means a group of persons who contract 149122
as a group to acquire the exclusive use of a passenger-carrying 149123
motor vehicle at a fixed charge for the vehicle in accordance with 149124
the carrier's tariff, lawfully on file with the United States 149125
department of transportation, for the purpose of group travel to a 149126
specified destination or for a particular itinerary, either agreed 149127
upon in advance or modified by the chartered group after having 149128
left the place of origin.149129

       (HH) "International registration plan" means a reciprocal 149130
agreement of member jurisdictions that is endorsed by the American 149131
association of motor vehicle administrators, and that promotes and 149132
encourages the fullest possible use of the highway system by 149133
authorizing apportioned registration of fleets of vehicles and 149134
recognizing registration of vehicles apportioned in member 149135
jurisdictions.149136

       (II) "Restricted plate" means a license plate that has a 149137
restriction of time, geographic area, mileage, or commodity, and 149138
includes license plates issued to farm trucks under division (J) 149139
of section 4503.04 of the Revised Code.149140

       (JJ) "Gross vehicle weight," with regard to any commercial 149141
car, trailer, semitrailer, or bus that is taxed at the rates 149142
established under section 4503.042 or 4503.65 of the Revised Code, 149143
means the unladen weight of the vehicle fully equipped plus the 149144
maximum weight of the load to be carried on the vehicle.149145

       (KK) "Combined gross vehicle weight" with regard to any 149146
combination of a commercial car, trailer, and semitrailer, that is 149147
taxed at the rates established under section 4503.042 or 4503.65 149148
of the Revised Code, means the total unladen weight of the 149149
combination of vehicles fully equipped plus the maximum weight of 149150
the load to be carried on that combination of vehicles.149151

       (LL) "Chauffeured limousine" means a motor vehicle that is 149152
designed to carry nine or fewer passengers and is operated for 149153
hire on an hourly basis pursuant to a prearranged contract for the 149154
transportation of passengers on public roads and highways along a 149155
route under the control of the person hiring the vehicle and not 149156
over a defined and regular route. "Prearranged contract" means an 149157
agreement, made in advance of boarding, to provide transportation 149158
from a specific location in a chauffeured limousine at a fixed 149159
rate per hour or trip. "Chauffeured limousine" does not include 149160
any vehicle that is used exclusively in the business of funeral 149161
directing.149162

       (MM) "Manufactured home" has the same meaning as in division 149163
(C)(4) of section 3781.06 of the Revised Code.149164

       (NN) "Acquired situs," with respect to a manufactured home or 149165
a mobile home, means to become located in this state by the 149166
placement of the home on real property, but does not include the 149167
placement of a manufactured home or a mobile home in the inventory 149168
of a new motor vehicle dealer or the inventory of a manufacturer, 149169
remanufacturer, or distributor of manufactured or mobile homes.149170

       (OO) "Electronic" includes electrical, digital, magnetic, 149171
optical, electromagnetic, or any other form of technology that 149172
entails capabilities similar to these technologies.149173

       (PP) "Electronic record" means a record generated, 149174
communicated, received, or stored by electronic means for use in 149175
an information system or for transmission from one information 149176
system to another.149177

       (QQ) "Electronic signature" means a signature in electronic 149178
form attached to or logically associated with an electronic 149179
record.149180

       (RR) "Financial transaction device" has the same meaning as 149181
in division (A) of section 113.40 of the Revised Code.149182

       (SS) "Electronic motor vehicle dealer" means a motor vehicle 149183
dealer licensed under Chapter 4517. of the Revised Code whom the 149184
registrar of motor vehicles determines meets the criteria 149185
designated in section 4503.035 of the Revised Code for electronic 149186
motor vehicle dealers and designates as an electronic motor 149187
vehicle dealer under that section.149188

       (TT) "Electric personal assistive mobility device" means a 149189
self-balancing two non-tandem wheeled device that is designed to 149190
transport only one person, has an electric propulsion system of an 149191
average of seven hundred fifty watts, and when ridden on a paved 149192
level surface by an operator who weighs one hundred seventy pounds 149193
has a maximum speed of less than twenty miles per hour.149194

       (UU) "Limited driving privileges" means the privilege to 149195
operate a motor vehicle that a court grants under section 4510.021 149196
of the Revised Code to a person whose driver's or commercial 149197
driver's license or permit or nonresident operating privilege has 149198
been suspended.149199

       (VV) "Utility vehicle" means a self-propelled vehicle 149200
designed with a bed, principally for the purpose of transporting 149201
material or cargo in connection with construction, agricultural, 149202
forestry, grounds maintenance, lawn and garden, materials 149203
handling, or similar activities. 149204

       (WW) "Low-speed vehicle" means a three- or four-wheeled motor 149205
vehicle with an attainable speed in one mile on a paved level 149206
surface of more than twenty miles per hour but not more than 149207
twenty-five miles per hour and with a gross vehicle weight rating 149208
less than three thousand pounds.149209

       (XX) "Under-speed vehicle" means a three- or four-wheeled 149210
vehicle, including a vehicle commonly known as a golf cart, with 149211
an attainable speed on a paved level surface of not more than 149212
twenty miles per hour and with a gross vehicle weight rating less 149213
than three thousand pounds.149214

       (YY) "Motor-driven cycle or motor scooter" means any vehicle 149215
designed to travel on not more than three wheels in contact with 149216
the ground, with a seat for the driver and floor pad for the 149217
driver's feet, and is equipped with a motor with a piston 149218
displacement between fifty and one hundred fifty cubic centimeters 149219
piston displacement that produces not more than five brake 149220
horsepower and is capable of propelling the vehicle at a speed 149221
greater than twenty miles per hour on a level surface.149222

       (ZZ) "Motorcycle" means a motor vehicle with motive power 149223
having a seat or saddle for the use of the operator, designed to 149224
travel on not more than three wheels in contact with the ground, 149225
and having no occupant compartment top or occupant compartment top 149226
that can be installed or removed by the user.149227

       (AAA) "Cab-enclosed motorcycle" means a motor vehicle with 149228
motive power having a seat or saddle for the use of the operator, 149229
designed to travel on not more than three wheels in contact with 149230
the ground, and having an occupant compartment top or an occupant 149231
compartment top that can be installed or removed by the user.149232

       (BBB) "Mini-truck" means a vehicle that has four wheels, is 149233
propelled by an electric motor with a rated power of seven 149234
thousand five hundred watts or less or an internal combustion 149235
engine with a piston displacement capacity of six hundred sixty 149236
cubic centimeters or less, has a total dry weight of nine hundred 149237
to two thousand two hundred pounds, contains an enclosed cabin and 149238
a seat for the vehicle operator, resembles a pickup truck or van 149239
with a cargo area or bed located at the rear of the vehicle, and 149240
was not originally manufactured to meet federal motor vehicle 149241
safety standards.149242

       Sec. 4507.01.  (A) As used in this chapter, "motor vehicle," 149243
"motorized bicycle," "state," "owner," "operator," "chauffeur," 149244
and "highways" have the same meanings as in section 4501.01 of the 149245
Revised Code.149246

       "Driver's license" means a class D license issued to any 149247
person to operate a motor vehicle or motor-driven cycle, other 149248
than a commercial motor vehicle, and includes "probationary 149249
license," "restricted license," and any operator's or chauffeur's 149250
license issued before January 1, 1990.149251

       "Probationary license" means the license issued to any person 149252
between sixteen and eighteen years of age to operate a motor 149253
vehicle.149254

       "Restricted license" means the license issued to any person 149255
to operate a motor vehicle subject to conditions or restrictions 149256
imposed by the registrar of motor vehicles.149257

       "Commercial driver's license" means the license issued to a 149258
person under Chapter 4506. of the Revised Code to operate a 149259
commercial motor vehicle.149260

       "Commercial motor vehicle" has the same meaning as in section 149261
4506.01 of the Revised Code.149262

       "Motorcycle operator's temporary instruction permit, license, 149263
or endorsement" includes a temporary instruction permit, license, 149264
or endorsement for a motor-driven cycle or motor scooter unless 149265
otherwise specified.149266

       "Motorized bicycle license" means the license issued under 149267
section 4511.521 of the Revised Code to any person to operate a 149268
motorized bicycle including a "probationary motorized bicycle 149269
license."149270

       "Probationary motorized bicycle license" means the license 149271
issued under section 4511.521 of the Revised Code to any person 149272
between fourteen and sixteen years of age to operate a motorized 149273
bicycle.149274

       "Identification card" means a card issued under sections 149275
4507.50 and 4507.51 of the Revised Code.149276

       "Resident" means a person who, in accordance with standards 149277
prescribed in rules adopted by the registrar, resides in this 149278
state on a permanent basis.149279

       "Temporary resident" means a person who, in accordance with 149280
standards prescribed in rules adopted by the registrar, resides in 149281
this state on a temporary basis.149282

       (B) In the administration of this chapter and Chapter 4506. 149283
of the Revised Code, the registrar has the same authority as is 149284
conferred on the registrar by section 4501.02 of the Revised Code. 149285
Any act of an authorized deputy registrar of motor vehicles under 149286
direction of the registrar is deemed the act of the registrar.149287

       To carry out this chapter, the registrar shall appoint such 149288
deputy registrars in each county as are necessary.149289

       The registrar also shall provide at each place where an 149290
application for a driver's or commercial driver's license or 149291
identification card may be made the necessary equipment to take a 149292
color photograph of the applicant for such license or card as 149293
required under section 4506.11 or 4507.06 of the Revised Code, and 149294
to conduct the vision screenings required by section 4507.12 of 149295
the Revised Code, and equipment to laminate licenses, motorized 149296
bicycle licenses, and identification cards as required by sections 149297
4507.13, 4507.52, and 4511.521 of the Revised Code.149298

       The registrar shall assign one or more deputy registrars to 149299
any driver's license examining station operated under the 149300
supervision of the director of public safety, whenever the 149301
registrar considers such assignment possible. Space shall be 149302
provided in the driver's license examining station for any such 149303
deputy registrar so assigned. The deputy registrars shall not 149304
exercise the powers conferred by such sections upon the registrar, 149305
unless they are specifically authorized to exercise such powers by 149306
such sections.149307

       (C) No agent for any insurance company, writing automobile 149308
insurance, shall be appointed deputy registrar, and any such 149309
appointment is void. No deputy registrar shall in any manner 149310
solicit any form of automobile insurance, nor in any manner 149311
advise, suggest, or influence any licensee or applicant for 149312
license for or against any kind or type of automobile insurance, 149313
insurance company, or agent, nor have the deputy registrar's 149314
office directly connected with the office of any automobile 149315
insurance agent, nor impart any information furnished by any 149316
applicant for a license or identification card to any person, 149317
except the registrar. This division shall not apply to any 149318
nonprofit corporation appointed deputy registrar.149319

       (D) The registrar shall immediately remove a deputy registrar 149320
who violates the requirements of this chapter.149321

       (E) The registrar shall periodically solicit bids and enter 149322
into a contract for the provision of laminating equipment and 149323
laminating materials to the registrar and all deputy registrars. 149324
The registrar shall not consider any bid that does not provide for 149325
the supplying of both laminating equipment and laminating 149326
materials. The laminating materials selected shall contain a 149327
security feature so that any tampering with the laminating 149328
material covering a license or identification card is readily 149329
apparent. In soliciting bids and entering into a contract for the 149330
provision of laminating equipment and laminating materials, the 149331
registrar shall observe all procedures required by law.149332

       Sec. 4507.06.  (A)(1) Every application for a driver's 149333
license, motorcycle operator's license or endorsement, or 149334
motor-driven cycle or motor scooter license or endorsement, or 149335
duplicate of any such license or endorsement, shall be made upon 149336
the approved form furnished by the registrar of motor vehicles and 149337
shall be signed by the applicant.149338

       Every application shall state the following:149339

       (a) The applicant's name, date of birth, social security 149340
number if such has been assigned, sex, general description, 149341
including height, weight, color of hair, and eyes, residence 149342
address, including county of residence, duration of residence in 149343
this state, and country of citizenship;149344

       (b) Whether the applicant previously has been licensed as an 149345
operator, chauffeur, driver, commercial driver, or motorcycle 149346
operator and, if so, when, by what state, and whether such license 149347
is suspended or canceled at the present time and, if so, the date 149348
of and reason for the suspension or cancellation;149349

       (c) Whether the applicant is now or ever has been afflicted 149350
with epilepsy, or whether the applicant now is suffering from any 149351
physical or mental disability or disease and, if so, the nature 149352
and extent of the disability or disease, giving the names and 149353
addresses of physicians then or previously in attendance upon the 149354
applicant;149355

       (d) Whether an applicant for a duplicate driver's license, 149356
duplicate license containing a motorcycle operator endorsement, or 149357
duplicate license containing a motor-driven cycle or motor scooter 149358
endorsement has pending a citation for violation of any motor 149359
vehicle law or ordinance, a description of any such citation 149360
pending, and the date of the citation;149361

       (e) WhetherIf an applicant has not certified the applicant's 149362
willingness to make an anatomical gift under section 2108.05 of 149363
the Revised Code, whether the applicant wishes to certify 149364
willingness to make such an anatomical gift under section 2108.05 149365
of the Revised Code, which shall be given no consideration in the 149366
issuance of a license or endorsement;149367

       (f) Whether the applicant has executed a valid durable power 149368
of attorney for health care pursuant to sections 1337.11 to 149369
1337.17 of the Revised Code or has executed a declaration 149370
governing the use or continuation, or the withholding or 149371
withdrawal, of life-sustaining treatment pursuant to sections 149372
2133.01 to 2133.15 of the Revised Code and, if the applicant has 149373
executed either type of instrument, whether the applicant wishes 149374
the applicant's license to indicate that the applicant has 149375
executed the instrument;149376

       (g) On and after October 7, 2009, whether the applicant is a 149377
veteran, active duty, or reservist of the armed forces of the 149378
United States and, if the applicant is such, whether the applicant 149379
wishes the applicant's license to indicate that the applicant is a 149380
veteran, active duty, or reservist of the armed forces of the 149381
United States by a military designation on the license.149382

       (2) Every applicant for a driver's license shall be 149383
photographed in color at the time the application for the license 149384
is made. The application shall state any additional information 149385
that the registrar requires.149386

       (B) The registrar or a deputy registrar, in accordance with 149387
section 3503.11 of the Revised Code, shall register as an elector 149388
any person who applies for a license or endorsement under division 149389
(A) of this section, or for a renewal or duplicate of the license 149390
or endorsement, if the applicant is eligible and wishes to be 149391
registered as an elector. The decision of an applicant whether to 149392
register as an elector shall be given no consideration in the 149393
decision of whether to issue the applicant a license or 149394
endorsement, or a renewal or duplicate.149395

       (C) The registrar or a deputy registrar, in accordance with 149396
section 3503.11 of the Revised Code, shall offer the opportunity 149397
of completing a notice of change of residence or change of name to 149398
any applicant for a driver's license or endorsement under division 149399
(A) of this section, or for a renewal or duplicate of the license 149400
or endorsement, if the applicant is a registered elector who has 149401
changed the applicant's residence or name and has not filed such a 149402
notice.149403

       (D) In addition to any other information it contains, on and 149404
after October 7, 2009, the approved form furnished by the 149405
registrar of motor vehicles for an application for a license or 149406
endorsement or an application for a duplicate of any such license 149407
or endorsement shall inform applicants that the applicant must 149408
present a copy of the applicant's DD-214 or an equivalent document 149409
in order to qualify to have the license or duplicate indicate that 149410
the applicant is a veteran, active duty, or reservist of the armed 149411
forces of the United States based on a request made pursuant to 149412
division (A)(1)(g) of this section.149413

       Section 110.31.  That the existing versions of sections 149414
4501.01, 4507.01, and 4507.06 of the Revised Code that are 149415
scheduled to take effect January 1, 2017, are hereby repealed.149416

       Section 110.32.  Sections 110.30 and 110.31 of this act shall 149417
take effect January 1, 2017.149418

       Section 125.10. (A) Sections 5168.01, 5168.02, 5168.03, 149419
5168.04, 5168.05, 5168.06, 5168.07, 5168.08, 5168.09, 5168.10, 149420
5168.11, 5168.12, 5168.13, 5168.99, and 5168.991 of the Revised 149421
Code are hereby repealed, effective October 16, 2015.149422

        (B) Any money remaining in the Legislative Budget Services 149423
Fund on October 16, 2015, the date that section 5168.12 of the 149424
Revised Code is repealed by division (A) of this section, shall be 149425
used solely for the purposes stated in then former section 5168.12 149426
of the Revised Code. When all money in the Legislative Budget 149427
Services Fund has been spent after then former section 5168.12 of 149428
the Revised Code is repealed under division (A) of this section, 149429
the fund shall cease to exist.149430

       Section 125.11. Sections 5168.20, 5168.21, 5168.22, 5168.23, 149431
5168.24, 5168.25, 5168.26, 5168.27, and 5168.28 of the Revised 149432
Code are hereby repealed, effective October 1, 2015.149433

       Section 125.11.03.  Section 5124.67 of the Revised Code is 149434
hereby repealed, effective July 1, 2018.149435

       Section 125.11.10. That Section 267.60.31 of Am. Sub. H.B. 149436
153 of the 129th General Assembly is hereby repealed.149437

       Section 125.12. That Section 153 of Am. Sub. H.B. 117 of the 149438
121st General Assembly, as most recently amended by Am. Sub. H.B. 149439
153 of the 129th General Assembly, is hereby repealed.149440

       Section 125.13. That Section 125.10 of Am. Sub. H.B. 1 of the 149441
128th General Assembly, as most recently amended by Am. Sub. H.B. 149442
153 of the 129th General Assembly, is hereby repealed.149443

       Section 125.14. That Section 514.03 of Am. Sub. H.B. 66 of 149444
the 126th General Assembly is hereby repealed.149445

       Section 201.10.  Except as otherwise provided in this act, 149446
all appropriation items in this act are appropriated out of any 149447
moneys in the state treasury to the credit of the designated fund 149448
that are not otherwise appropriated. For all appropriations made 149449
in this act, the amounts in the first column are for fiscal year 149450
2014 and the amounts in the second column are for fiscal year 149451
2015.149452

       Section 203.10. ACC ACCOUNTANCY BOARD OF OHIO149453

General Services Fund Group149454

4J80 889601 CPA Education Assistance $ 325,000 $ 325,000 149455
4K90 889609 Operating Expenses $ 977,500 $ 977,500 149456
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 149457
Group $ 1,302,500 $ 1,302,500 149458
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,302,500 $ 1,302,500 149459


       Section 205.10. ADJ ADJUTANT GENERAL149461

General Revenue Fund149462

GRF 745401 Ohio Military Reserve $ 12,308 $ 12,308 149463
GRF 745404 Air National Guard $ 1,810,606 $ 1,810,606 149464
GRF 745407 National Guard Benefits $ 400,000 $ 400,000 149465
GRF 745409 Central Administration $ 2,682,098 $ 2,682,098 149466
GRF 745499 Army National Guard $ 3,689,871 $ 3,689,871 149467
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 8,594,883 $ 8,594,883 149468

General Services Fund Group149469

5340 745612 Property Operations Management $ 534,304 $ 534,304 149470
5360 745605 Marksmanship Activities $ 128,600 $ 128,600 149471
5360 745620 Camp Perry and Buckeye Inn Operations $ 978,846 $ 978,846 149472
5370 745604 Ohio National Guard Facilities Maintenance $ 62,000 $ 62,000 149473
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 1,703,750 $ 1,703,750 149474

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group149475

3410 745615 Air National Guard Base Security $ 2,919,000 $ 2,919,000 149476
3420 745616 Army National Guard Service Agreement $ 15,063,000 $ 15,063,000 149477
3E80 745628 Air National Guard Operations and Maintenance $ 16,850,000 $ 16,850,000 149478
3R80 745603 Counter Drug Operations $ 15,000 $ 15,000 149479
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 34,847,000 $ 34,847,000 149480

State Special Revenue Fund Group149481

5U80 745613 Community Match Armories $ 350,000 $ 350,000 149482
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 350,000 $ 350,000 149483

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 45,495,633 $ 45,495,633 149484

       NATIONAL GUARD BENEFITS149485

       The foregoing appropriation item 745407, National Guard 149486
Benefits, shall be used for purposes of sections 5919.31 and 149487
5919.33 of the Revised Code, and for administrative costs of the 149488
associated programs.149489

       If necessary, in order to pay benefits in a timely manner 149490
pursuant to sections 5919.31 and 5919.33 of the Revised Code, the 149491
Adjutant General may request the Director of Budget and Management 149492
transfer appropriation from any appropriation item used by the 149493
Adjutant General to appropriation item 745407, National Guard 149494
Benefits. The Adjutant General may subsequently seek Controlling 149495
Board approval to restore the appropriation in the appropriation 149496
item from which such a transfer was made.149497

       For active duty members of the Ohio National Guard who died 149498
after October 7, 2001, while performing active duty, the death 149499
benefit, pursuant to section 5919.33 of the Revised Code, shall be 149500
paid to the beneficiary or beneficiaries designated on the 149501
member's Servicemembers' Group Life Insurance Policy.149502

       STATE ACTIVE DUTY COSTS149503

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 745409, Central 149504
Administration, $50,000 in each fiscal year shall be used for the 149505
purpose of paying expenses related to state active duty of members 149506
of the Ohio organized militia, in accordance with a proclamation 149507
of the Governor. Expenses include, but are not limited to, the 149508
cost of equipment, supplies, and services, as determined by the 149509
Adjutant General's Department.149510

       Section 207.10. DAS DEPARTMENT OF ADMINISTRATIVE SERVICES149511

General Revenue Fund149512

GRF 100403 Public Employees Health Care Program $ 309,600 $ 309,600 149513
GRF 100414 MARCS Lease Rental Payments $ 5,133,700 $ 5,135,800 149514
GRF 100415 OAKS Lease Rental Payments $ 22,998,500 $ 22,982,500 149515
GRF 100416 STARS Lease Rental Payments $ 4,976,500 $ 4,973,200 149516
GRF 100447 Administrative Building Lease Rental Payments $ 85,847,800 $ 91,059,600 149517
GRF 100448 Office Building Operating Payments $ 20,000,000 $ 20,000,000 149518
GRF 100449 DAS - Building Operating Payments $ 7,551,571 $ 7,551,571 149519
GRF 100452 Lean Ohio $ 1,059,624 $ 1,059,624 149520
GRF 100456 State IT Services $ 1,739,038 $ 1,739,038 149521
GRF 100457 Equal Opportunity Services $ 1,910,516 $ 1,910,516 149522
GRF 100459 Ohio Business Gateway $ 4,049,094 $ 4,049,094 149523
GRF 130321 State Agency Support Services $ 2,477,008 $ 2,477,008 149524
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 158,052,951 $ 163,247,551 149525

General Services Fund Group149526

1120 100616 DAS Administration $ 6,127,659 $ 6,147,659 149527
1150 100632 Central Service Agency $ 911,580 $ 927,699 149528
1170 100644 General Services Division - Operating $ 12,993,870 $ 12,993,870 149529
1220 100637 Fleet Management $ 4,200,000 $ 4,200,000 149530
1250 100622 Human Resources Division - Operating $ 17,749,839 $ 17,749,839 149531
1250 100657 Benefits Communication $ 712,316 $ 712,316 149532
1280 100620 Office of Collective Bargaining $ 3,329,507 $ 3,329,507 149533
1300 100606 Risk Management Reserve $ 6,635,784 $ 6,635,784 149534
1320 100631 DAS Building Management $ 19,343,170 $ 19,343,170 149535
1330 100607 IT Services Delivery $ 57,521,975 $ 57,521,975 149536
1880 100649 Equal Opportunity Division - Operating $ 863,013 $ 863,013 149537
2100 100612 State Printing $ 20,459,526 $ 20,459,526 149538
2290 100630 IT Governance $ 16,446,474 $ 16,446,474 149539
2290 100640 Leveraged Enterprise Purchases $ 7,065,639 $ 7,065,639 149540
4270 100602 Investment Recovery $ 1,618,062 $ 1,638,515 149541
4N60 100617 Major IT Purchases $ 56,888,635 $ 56,888,635 149542
4P30 100603 DAS Information Services $ 6,400,070 $ 6,400,070 149543
5C20 100605 MARCS Administration $ 14,292,596 $ 14,512,028 149544
5C30 100608 Minor Construction Project Management $ 1,004,375 $ 1,004,375 149545
5EB0 100635 OAKS Support Organization $ 25,813,077 $ 19,813,077 149546
5EB0 100656 OAKS Updates and Developments $ 9,886,923 $ 2,636,923 149547
5HU0 100655 Construction Reform Demo Compliance $ 150,000 $ 150,000 149548
5KZ0 100659 Building Improvement $ 500,000 $ 500,000 149549
5L70 100610 Professional Development $ 2,100,000 $ 2,100,000 149550
5LA0 100660 Building Operation $ 26,600,767 $ 26,814,648 149551
5LJ0 100661 IT Development $ 13,200,000 $ 13,200,000 149552
5V60 100619 Employee Educational Development $ 800,000 $ 800,000 149553
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 149554
Group $ 333,614,857 $ 320,854,742 149555

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group149556

3AJ0 100654 ARRA Broadband Mapping Grant $ 1,723,009 $ 1,723,009 149557
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 149558
Fund Group $ 1,723,009 $ 1,723,009 149559

State Special Revenue Fund Group149560

5JQ0 100658 Professionals Licensing System $ 3,028,366 $ 990,000 149561
5MV0 100662 Theater Equipment Maintenance $ 80,891 $ 80,891 149562
5NM0 100663 911 Program $ 290,000 $ 290,000 149563
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 149564
Fund Group $ 3,399,257 $ 1,360,891 149565
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 496,790,074 $ 487,186,193 149566


       Section 207.20. OAKS LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS149568

       The foregoing appropriation item 100415, OAKS Lease Rental 149569
Payments, shall be used for payments at the times they are 149570
required to be made for the period from July 1, 2013, through June 149571
30, 2015, pursuant to leases and agreements entered into under 149572
Chapter 125. of the Revised Code, as supplemented by Section 149573
281.10 of Am. Sub. H.B. 562 of the 127th General Assembly and 149574
other prior acts of the General Assembly, with respect to 149575
financing the costs associated with the acquisition, development, 149576
installation, and implementation of the Ohio Administrative 149577
Knowledge System. If it is determined that additional 149578
appropriations are necessary for this purpose, the amounts are 149579
hereby appropriated.149580

       Section 207.30. STARS LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS149581

        The foregoing appropriation item 100416, STARS Lease Rental 149582
Payments, shall be used for payments at the times they are 149583
required to be made for the period from July 1, 2013, through June 149584
30, 2015, pursuant to leases and agreements entered into under 149585
Chapter 125. of the Revised Code, as supplemented by Section 149586
207.10.30 of Am. Sub. H.B. 1 of the 128th General Assembly and 149587
other prior acts of the General Assembly, with respect to 149588
financing the cost for the acquisition, development, installation, 149589
and implementation of the State Taxation Accounting and Revenue 149590
System (STARS). If it is determined that additional appropriations 149591
are necessary for this purpose, the amounts are appropriated.149592

       The State Taxation Accounting and Revenue System (STARS) is 149593
an integrated tax collection and audit system that will replace 149594
all of the state's existing separate tax software and 149595
administration systems for the various taxes collected by the 149596
state. The Department of Administrative Services, in conjunction 149597
with the Department of Taxation, may acquire STARS, including, but 149598
not limited to, the application hardware and software and 149599
installation and implementation thereof, for the use of the 149600
Department of Taxation. Any lease-purchase agreement used under 149601
Chapter 125. of the Revised Code to acquire STARS, including any 149602
fractionalized interests as defined in division (N) of section 149603
133.01 of the Revised Code in the lease payments under that 149604
agreement, shall provide at the end of the lease period that the 149605
financed asset becomes the property of the state. The principal 149606
amount of any new such financing is limited, excluding the 149607
principal amounts of any lease-purchase financing heretofore 149608
completed for STARS, to the amount of $20,000,000.149609

       Section 207.40. MARCS LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS149610

       The foregoing appropriation item 100414, MARCS Lease Rental 149611
Payments, shall be used for payments at the times they are 149612
required to be made for the period from July 1, 2013, through June 149613
30, 2015, pursuant to leases and agreements entered into under 149614
Chapter 125. of the Revised Code, as supplemented by Section 149615
701.20 of Sub. H.B. 482 of the 129th General Assembly, with 149616
respect to financing the cost for the acquisition, development, 149617
installation, and implementation of the Multi-Agency Radio 149618
Communication System (MARCS) upgrade. If it is determined that 149619
additional appropriations are necessary for this purpose, the 149620
amounts are hereby appropriated.149621

       Section 207.50. MULTI-AGENCY RADIO COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 149622
UPGRADE149623

       The Multi-Agency Radio Communications System (MARCS) is a 149624
statewide computer and communications network designed to provide 149625
instant voice and data communication and supply a communications 149626
backbone to public safety and emergency management. The Department 149627
of Administrative Services may update or add functionality to 149628
MARCS to upgrade the existing system to a 700/800 megahertz voice 149629
and data system specifically designed to support interoperable 149630
communications for public safety law enforcement and first 149631
responders. The improvements may include, but are not limited to, 149632
hardware and software and the installation and implementation 149633
thereof. Any lease-purchase agreement utilized under Chapter 125. 149634
of the Revised Code to acquire MARCS and the enhancements 149635
described above, including any fractionalized interest as defined 149636
in division (N) of section 133.01 of the Revised Code in the lease 149637
payments under that agreement, shall provide at the end of the 149638
lease period that the financed asset becomes the property of the 149639
state. The principal amount of any new such financing is limited, 149640
in addition to the principal amounts of lease-purchase financing 149641
heretofore completed for MARCS, to the amount of $27,000,000. 149642

       Section 207.60. ADMINISTRATIVE BUILDING LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS149643

       The foregoing appropriation item 100447, Administrative 149644
Building Lease Rental Payments, shall be used to meet all payments 149645
at the times they are required to be made during the period from 149646
July 1, 2013, through June 30, 2015, by the Department of 149647
Administrative Services pursuant to leases and agreements under 149648
Chapters 152. and 154. of the Revised Code. These appropriations 149649
are the source of funds pledged for bond service charges on 149650
related obligations issued under Chapters 152. and 154. of the 149651
Revised Code.149652

        The foregoing appropriation item 100448, Office Building 149653
Operating Payments, shall be used to pay the expenses of vacant 149654
space, space undergoing renovation, agencies funded by the General 149655
Revenue Fund, and the rent expenses of tenants that have been 149656
relocated because of building renovations that occupy space in the 149657
James A. Rhodes State Office Tower, the Vern Riffe Center for 149658
Government and the Arts, the Frank J. Lausche State Office 149659
Building, the Michael V. DiSalle Government Center, and the Oliver 149660
R. Ocasek Government Office Building.149661

       At least once per year, the portion of appropriation item 149662
100448, Office Building Operating Payments, that is not used for 149663
expenses of agencies funded by the General Revenue Fund, vacant 149664
space, space undergoing renovation, and the rent expenses of 149665
tenants that are relocated because of building renovations shall 149666
be processed by the Department of Administrative Services through 149667
intrastate voucher and placed in the Building Improvements Fund 149668
(Fund 5KZ0).149669

       Section 207.70. DAS - BUILDING OPERATING PAYMENTS AND 149670
BUILDING MANAGEMENT FUND149671

       The foregoing appropriation item 100449, DAS - Building 149672
Operating Payments, shall be used to pay the rent expenses of 149673
veterans organizations pursuant to section 123.024 of the Revised 149674
Code in fiscal years 2014 and 2015.149675

       The foregoing appropriation item, 100449, DAS - Building 149676
Operating Payments, also may be used to provide funding for the 149677
cost of property appraisals or building studies that the 149678
Department of Administrative Services may be required to obtain 149679
for property that is being sold by the state or property under 149680
consideration to be renovated or purchased by the state.149681

       Notwithstanding section 125.28 of the Revised Code, the 149682
remaining portion of the appropriation may be used to pay the 149683
operating expenses of state facilities maintained by the 149684
Department of Administrative Services that are not billed to 149685
building tenants, or other costs associated with the Voinovich 149686
Center in Youngstown, Ohio. These expenses may include, but are 149687
not limited to, the costs for vacant space and space undergoing 149688
renovation, and the rent expenses of tenants that are relocated 149689
because of building renovations. These payments may be processed 149690
by the Department of Administrative Services through intrastate 149691
transfer vouchers and placed in the Building Management Fund (Fund 149692
1320) or the Information Technology Services Fund (Fund 1330).149693

       Notwithstanding section 125.28 of the Revised Code, the 149694
Department of Administrative Services may forego some or all of 149695
the amounts attributable to debt service included in 149696
reimbursements made by tenants who are supported in whole or in 149697
part by non-GRF money for the costs of occupying space at the 149698
North High Street Complex in Columbus.149699

       The Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the 149700
portion of payments attributed to depreciation from Fund 1320 to 149701
the General Revenue Fund, as applicable.149702

       CASH TRANSFER FROM THE WORKFORCE DEVELOPMENT FUND TO THE 149703
HUMAN RESOURCES SERVICES FUND149704

       Upon request of the Director of Administrative Services, 149705
during the FY 2014 - FY 2015 biennium, the Director of Budget and 149706
Management shall transfer up to $975,000 from the Workforce 149707
Development Fund (Fund 5D70) to the Human Resources Services Fund 149708
(Fund 1250) to support one-time human resources administration 149709
activities for state agencies. 149710

       Section 207.80. CENTRAL SERVICE AGENCY FUND149711

       Appropriation item 100632, Central Service Agency, shall be 149712
used to purchase the equipment, products, and services that are 149713
needed to maintain existing automated applications for the 149714
professional licensing boards and the Casino Control Commission to 149715
support board licensing functions in fiscal years 2014 and 2015 149716
until these functions are replaced by the Ohio Professionals 149717
Licensing System. The Department of Administrative Services shall 149718
establish charges for recovering the costs of carrying out these 149719
functions. The charges shall be billed to the professional 149720
licensing boards and the Casino Control Commission, and deposited 149721
via intrastate transfer vouchers to the credit of the Central 149722
Service Agency Fund (Fund 1150).149723

       Upon implementation of the replacement Ohio Professionals 149724
Licensing System and the decommissioning of the existing automated 149725
applications, the Director of Budget and Management may transfer 149726
any cash balances that remain in the Central Service Agency Fund 149727
(Fund 1150) and that are attributable to the operation of the 149728
existing automated applications to the Professions Licensing 149729
System Fund (Fund 5JQ0).149730

       Section 207.90. GENERAL SERVICE CHARGES149731

       The Department of Administrative Services, with the approval 149732
of the Director of Budget and Management, shall establish charges 149733
for recovering the costs of administering the programs funded by 149734
the General Services Fund (Fund 1170) and the State Printing Fund 149735
(Fund 2100). Such charges within Fund 1170 may be used to recover 149736
the cost of paying a vendor to establish reduced pricing for 149737
contracted supplies or services.149738

        If the Director of Administrative Services determines that 149739
additional amounts are necessary to pay for consulting and 149740
administrative costs related to securing lower pricing, the 149741
Director of Administrative Services may request that the Director 149742
of Budget and Management approve additional expenditures. Such 149743
approved additional amounts are appropriated to appropriation item 149744
100644, General Services Division-Operating. 149745

       Section 207.93. CASH TRANSFER TO THE INVESTMENT RECOVERY FUND149746

        Notwithstanding division (B) of section 125.14 of the Revised 149747
Code, the Director of Budget and Management, at the request of the 149748
Director of Administrative Services, shall transfer up to $200,000 149749
of cash in excess of needs from the General Services Fund (Fund 149750
1170) to the Investment Recovery Fund (Fund 4270) during the 149751
biennium beginning July 1, 2013, and ending June 30, 2015, to pay 149752
the operating expenses of the State Surplus, Federal Surplus, and 149753
Asset Management Programs, including expenses to develop database 149754
systems for use in these programs.149755

       Section 207.95. TRANSFER OF THE EMPLOYEE ASSISTANCE PROGRAM 149756
TO THE DEPARTMENT OF ADMINISTRATIVE SERVICES149757

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Employee Assistance Program under 149758
section 3701.041 of the Revised Code shall be transferred to the 149759
Ohio Department of Administrative Services. The Department of 149760
Administrative Services is thereupon and thereafter successor to, 149761
assumes the operations, functions, powers, and obligations of, and 149762
otherwise constitutes the continuation of the Employee Assistance 149763
Program as provided in section 3701.041 (124.88) of the Revised 149764
Code. All related functions, equipment, assets, and liabilities, 149765
regardless of form or medium, agreements, and contracts of the 149766
program are transferred to the Department of Administrative 149767
Services.149768

       Employees of the Employee Assistance Program shall be 149769
transferred to the Department of Administrative Services in their 149770
same classification, and shall retain the rights specified in 149771
sections 124.321 to 124.328 of the Revised Code.149772

       On and after the effective date of this section, 149773
notwithstanding any provision of the law to the contrary, if 149774
requested by the Director of Administrative Services, the Director 149775
of Budget and Management shall make the budget changes made 149776
necessary by the transfer, if any, including administrative 149777
reorganization or program transfers. 149778

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 149779
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 149780
440633, Employee Assistance Program, and reestablish them against 149781
appropriation item 100622, Human Resources Division - Operating. 149782
The reestablished encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 149783
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 149784
440633, Employee Assistance Program, by July 1, 2013, shall be 149785
completed under appropriation item 100622, Human Resources 149786
Division - Operating, in the same manner, and with the same 149787
effect, as if completed with regard to appropriation item 440633, 149788
Employee Assistance Program. All of the rules, policies, orders, 149789
and determinations associated with the program continue in effect 149790
as rules, orders, and determinations associated with the 149791
Department of Administrative Services until modified or rescinded 149792
by the Director of Administrative Services. If necessary to ensure 149793
the integrity of the Administrative Code rule numbering system, 149794
the Director of the Legislative Service Commission shall renumber 149795
the rules relating to the Employee Assistance Program to reflect 149796
their transfer to the Department of Administrative Services. No 149797
validation, cure, right, privilege, remedy, obligation, or 149798
liability is lost or impaired by reason of the transfer and shall 149799
be administered with regard to appropriation item 100622, Human 149800
Resources Division - Operating. On and after July 1, 2013, if the 149801
Employee Assistance Program is referred to in any statute, rule, 149802
contract, grant, or other document, the reference is deemed to 149803
refer to the Department of Administrative Services.149804

       Funds collected by the Department of Health for the Employee 149805
Assistance Program, which previously were deposited in the 149806
Employee Assistance Fund (Fund 6830), shall be credited to the 149807
Human Resources Services Fund (Fund 1250) created in section 149808
124.07 of the Revised Code. The Director of Budget and Management 149809
shall transfer from the Employee Assistance Fund to the Human 149810
Resources Services Fund any remaining cash balances in the 149811
Employee Assistance Fund. In order to facilitate this transfer, 149812
the Director of Health, on July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible 149813
thereafter, shall certify to the Director of Budget and Management 149814
an estimate of the amount to be transferred. Upon the completion 149815
of this transfer, the Employee Assistance Fund is abolished.149816

       Section 207.100. COLLECTIVE BARGAINING ARBITRATION EXPENSES149817

       With approval of the Director of Budget and Management, the 149818
Department of Administrative Services may seek reimbursement from 149819
state agencies for the actual costs and expenses the Department 149820
incurs in the collective bargaining arbitration process. The 149821
reimbursements shall be processed through intrastate transfer 149822
vouchers and credited to the Collective Bargaining Fund (Fund 149823
1280).149824

       Section 207.110. EQUAL OPPORTUNITY PROGRAM149825

       The Department of Administrative Services, with the approval 149826
of the Director of Budget and Management, shall establish charges 149827
for recovering the costs of administering the activities supported 149828
by the State EEO Fund (Fund 1880). These charges shall be 149829
deposited to the credit of the State EEO Fund (Fund 1880) upon 149830
payment made by state agencies, state-supported or state-assisted 149831
institutions of higher education, and tax-supported agencies, 149832
municipal corporations, and other political subdivisions of the 149833
state, for services rendered.149834

       Section 207.111. STATE PRINTING FUND149835

        On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 149836
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer $30,109.39 in 149837
cash from the General Revenue Fund to the State Printing Fund 149838
(Fund 2100) to correct fiscal year 2012 disbursements that were 149839
made from Fund 2100 but that should have been made from the 149840
General Revenue Fund.149841

       Section 207.113. LEVERAGED ENTERPRISE PURCHASES149842

        The foregoing appropriation item 100640, Leveraged Enterprise 149843
Purchases, shall be used by the Department of Administrative 149844
Services to make information technology purchases for the benefit 149845
of one or more government entities as authorized under division 149846
(G) of section 125.18 of the Revised Code. If the Director of 149847
Administrative Services determines that additional amounts are 149848
necessary to pay for pass-through information technology purchases 149849
that will be billed to one or more state agencies, the Director of 149850
Administrative Services shall seek Controlling Board approval for 149851
an increase in appropriation to make the requested purchases.149852

       Section 207.120. INVESTMENT RECOVERY FUND149853

       Notwithstanding division (B) of section 125.14 of the Revised 149854
Code, cash balances in the Investment Recovery Fund (Fund 4270) 149855
may be used to support the operating expenses of the Federal 149856
Surplus Operating Program created in sections 125.84 to 125.90 of 149857
the Revised Code.149858

       The Director of Administrative Services shall use the 149859
foregoing appropriation item 100602, Investment Recovery, to pay 149860
the operating expenses of the State Surplus Property Program and 149861
the Surplus Federal Property Program, under Chapter 125. of the 149862
Revised Code and this section. If additional appropriations are 149863
necessary for the operations of these programs, the Director of 149864
Administrative Services shall seek increased appropriations from 149865
the Controlling Board under section 131.35 of the Revised Code.149866

       The Director of Administrative Services shall transfer 149867
proceeds from the sale of surplus property from the Investment 149868
Recovery Fund to non-General Revenue Funds under division (A)(2) 149869
of section 125.14 of the Revised Code. 149870

       Section 207.130. MAJOR IT PURCHASES CHARGES149871

       The Department of Administrative Services may bill agencies 149872
for actual expenditures made for major IT purchases if those 149873
expenditures are not recovered as part of the information 149874
technology services rates the Department charges and deposits into 149875
the Information Technology Fund (Fund 1330) created in section 149876
125.15 of the Revised Code. These charges shall be deposited to 149877
the credit of the Major IT Purchases Fund (Fund 4N60).149878

       Section 207.140. DAS INFORMATION SERVICES149879

       There is hereby established in the State Treasury the DAS 149880
Information Services Fund. The foregoing appropriation item 149881
100603, DAS Information Services, shall be used to pay the costs 149882
of providing information systems and services in the Department of 149883
Administrative Services. Any state agency, board, or commission 149884
may use DAS Information Services by paying for the services 149885
rendered.149886

        The Department of Administrative Services shall establish 149887
user charges for all information systems and services that are 149888
allowable in the statewide indirect cost allocation plan submitted 149889
annually to the United States Department of Health and Human 149890
Services. These charges shall comply with federal regulations and 149891
shall be deposited to the credit of the DAS Information Services 149892
Fund (Fund 4P30).149893

       Section 207.150. CASH TRANSFER FROM THE MARCS ADMINISTRATION 149894
FUND TO GRF149895

       Upon the request of the Director of Administrative Services, 149896
the Director of Budget and Management may transfer unobligated 149897
cash in the MARCS Administration Fund (Fund 5C20) to the General 149898
Revenue Fund to reimburse the General Revenue Fund for lease 149899
rental payments made on behalf of the MARCS upgrade.149900

       Section 207.160. PROFESSIONS LICENSING SYSTEM149901

       There is hereby created in the state treasury the Professions 149902
Licensing System Fund (Fund 5JQ0). Appropriation item 100658, Ohio 149903
Professionals Licensing System, shall be used to make payments 149904
from the fund. The fund shall be used to purchase the equipment, 149905
products, and services necessary to develop and maintain a 149906
replacement automated licensing system for the professional 149907
licensing boards. The Director of Budget and Management may 149908
transfer up to a total of $990,000 in cash from the Occupational 149909
Licensing and Regulatory Fund (4K90), the State Medical Board 149910
Operating Fund (Fund 5C60), and the Casino Control Commission – 149911
Operating Fund (Fund 5HS0) to the Professions Licensing System 149912
Fund during the FY 2014 - FY 2015 biennium. These transfers shall 149913
be in proportion to the number of current licensees issued by the 149914
professional licensing boards and current and anticipated licenses 149915
in the case of the Casino Control Commission. The purpose of these 149916
cash transfers is to fund the initial acquisition and development 149917
of the system. Any cash balances not expended in fiscal year 2014 149918
are hereby reappropriated in fiscal year 2015. 149919

       Effective with the implementation of the replacement 149920
licensing system, the Department of Administrative Services shall 149921
establish charges for recovering the costs of ongoing maintenance 149922
of the system. The charges shall be billed to the professional 149923
licensing boards and the Casino Control Commission, and deposited 149924
via intrastate transfer vouchers to the credit of the Professions 149925
Licensing System Fund. 149926

       Section 207.170. BUILDING IMPROVEMENT FUND149927

       The foregoing appropriation item 100659, Building 149928
Improvement, shall be used to make payments from the Building 149929
Improvement Fund (Fund 5KZ0) for major maintenance or improvements 149930
required in the James A. Rhodes State Office Tower, the Vern Riffe 149931
Center for Government and the Arts, the Frank J. Lausche State 149932
Office Building, the Michael V. DiSalle Government Center, and the 149933
Oliver R. Ocasek Government Office. The Department of 149934
Administrative Services shall conduct or contract for regular 149935
assessments of these buildings and shall maintain a cash balance 149936
in the Building Improvement Fund equal to the cost of the repairs 149937
and improvements that are recommended to occur within the next 149938
five years, with the following exception described below.149939

       Upon request of the Director of Administrative Services, the 149940
Director of Budget and Management may permit a cash transfer from 149941
the Building Improvement Fund (Fund 5KZ0) to the Building 149942
Operating Fund (Fund 5LA0) to pay costs of operating and 149943
maintaining the James A. Rhodes State Office Tower, the Vern Riffe 149944
Center for Government and the Arts, the Frank J. Lausche State 149945
Office Building, the Michael V. DiSalle Government Center, and the 149946
Oliver R. Ocasek Government Office that are not charged to tenants 149947
during the same fiscal year.149948

       Should the cash balance in the Building Operating Fund (Fund 149949
5LA0) be determined to be sufficient, the Director of 149950
Administrative Services may request that the Director of Budget 149951
and Management transfer cash from the Building Operating Fund 149952
(Fund 5LA0) to the Building Improvement Fund (Fund 5KZ0) in an 149953
amount equal to the initial cash transfer made under this section 149954
plus applicable interest. 149955

       Section 207.180. PROFESSIONAL DEVELOPMENT FUND149956

       The foregoing appropriation item 100610, Professional 149957
Development, shall be used to make payments from the Professional 149958
Development Fund (Fund 5L70) under section 124.182 of the Revised 149959
Code. If it is determined by the Director of Administrative 149960
Services that additional amounts are necessary, the Director of 149961
Administrative Services may request that the Director of Budget 149962
and Management approve additional amounts. Such approved 149963
additional amounts are hereby appropriated.149964

       Section 207.190. BUILDING OPERATING FUND149965

       The foregoing appropriation item 100660, Building Operation, 149966
shall be used to make payments from the Building Operating Fund 149967
(Fund 5LA0) to pay costs of operating and maintaining the James A. 149968
Rhodes State Office Tower, the Vern Riffe Center for Government 149969
and the Arts, the Frank J. Lausche State Office Building, the 149970
Michael V. DiSalle Government Center, and the Oliver R. Ocasek 149971
Government Office.149972

       The Department of Administrative Services, with the approval 149973
of the Director of Budget and Management, shall establish charges 149974
to be reimbursed for the cost of operating these buildings. These 149975
charges shall include the cost of applicable depreciation on the 149976
buildings and the resulting revenue shall be deposited in the 149977
Building Operating Fund (Fund 5LA0). The Director of Budget and 149978
Management shall transfer the portion of these charges attributed 149979
to depreciation from the Building Operating Fund (Fund 5LA0) to 149980
the Building Improvement Fund (Fund 5KZ0) or to the General 149981
Revenue Fund, as applicable.149982

       Section 207.200. INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY DEVELOPMENT149983

       The foregoing appropriation item 100661, IT Development, 149984
shall be used by the Department of Administrative Services to pay 149985
the costs of modernizing the state's information technology 149986
management and investment practices away from a limited, 149987
agency-specific focus in favor of a statewide methodology 149988
supporting development of enterprise solutions.149989

       The Department of Administrative Services, with the approval 149990
of the Director of Budget and Management, may charge state 149991
agencies an information technology development assessment based on 149992
state agencies' information technology expenditures or other 149993
methodology. The revenue from this assessment shall be deposited 149994
in the Information Technology Development Fund (Fund 5LJ0), which 149995
is hereby created.149996

       Section  207.210. EMPLOYEE EDUCATIONAL DEVELOPMENT149997

       The foregoing appropriation item 100619, Employee Educational 149998
Development, shall be used to make payments from the Employee 149999
Educational Development Fund (Fund 5V60) under section 124.86 of 150000
the Revised Code. The fund shall be used to pay the costs of 150001
administering educational programs under existing collective 150002
bargaining agreements with District 1199, the Health Care and 150003
Social Service Union; State Council of Professional Educators; 150004
Ohio Education Association and National Education Association; the 150005
Fraternal Order of Police Ohio Labor Council, Unit 2; and the Ohio 150006
State Troopers Association, Units 1 and 15.150007

       If it is determined by the Director of Administrative 150008
Services that additional amounts are necessary, the Director of 150009
Administrative Services may request that the Director of Budget 150010
and Management approve additional amounts. Such approved 150011
additional amounts are hereby appropriated.150012

       Section 207.220.  CASH TRANSFERS TO THE MAJOR IT PURCHASES 150013
FUND150014

       Upon request of the Director of Administrative Services, the 150015
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to $4,000,000 150016
from the OAKS Support Organization Fund (Fund 5EB0) to the Major 150017
IT Purchases Fund (Fund 4N60). This amount represents cash 150018
transferred from Fund 4N60 during fiscal year 2010 pursuant to 150019
Section 207.30.80 of Am. Sub. H.B. 1 of the 128th General 150020
Assembly. Any portion of appropriation item 100617, Major IT 150021
Purchases, that is unencumbered and unexpended at the end of 150022
fiscal year 2014 is hereby reappropriated for fiscal year 2015.150023

       Section 207.230. MULTI-AGENCY RADIO COMMUNICATION SYSTEM DEBT 150024
SERVICE PAYMENTS150025

       The Director of Administrative Services, in consultation with 150026
the Multi-Agency Radio Communication System (MARCS) Steering 150027
Committee and the Director of Budget and Management, shall 150028
determine the share of debt service payments attributable to 150029
spending for MARCS components that are not specific to any one 150030
agency and that shall be charged to agencies supported by the 150031
motor fuel tax. Such share of debt service payments shall be 150032
calculated for MARCS capital disbursements made beginning July 1, 150033
1997. Within thirty days of any payment made from appropriation 150034
item 100447, Administrative Building Lease Payments, the Director 150035
of Administrative Services shall certify to the Director of Budget 150036
and Management the amount of this share. The Director of Budget 150037
and Management shall transfer such amounts to the General Revenue 150038
Fund from the State Highway Safety Fund (Fund 7036) established in 150039
section 4501.06 of the Revised Code.150040

       The Director of Administrative Services shall consider 150041
renting or leasing existing tower sites at reasonable or current 150042
market rates, so long as these existing sites are equipped with 150043
the technical capabilities to support the MARCS project.150044

       Section 207.240. ENTERPRISE IT STRATEGY IMPLEMENTATION150045

       The Director of Administrative Services shall determine and 150046
implement strategies that benefit the enterprise by improving 150047
efficiency, reducing costs or enhancing capacity of information 150048
technology (IT) services. Such improvements and efficiencies may 150049
result in the consolidation and transfer of such services. As 150050
determined to be necessary for successful implementation of this 150051
section and notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, 150052
the Director of Administrative Services may request the Director 150053
of Budget and Management to consolidate or transfer IT-specific 150054
budget authority between agencies as necessary to implement 150055
enterprise IT cost containment strategies and related 150056
efficiencies. Once the Director of Budget and Management is 150057
satisfied that the proposed initiative is cost advantageous to the 150058
enterprise, the Director of Budget and Management may transfer 150059
appropriations, funds and cash as needed to implement the proposed 150060
initiative. The establishment of any new fund or total increased 150061
appropriation as a result of this section will be subject to 150062
approval by the Controlling Board.150063

       The Director of Budget and Management and the Director of 150064
Administrative Services may transfer any employees, assets, and 150065
liabilities, including, but not limited to, records, contracts, 150066
and agreements in order to facilitate the improvements determined 150067
in accordance with this section.150068

       Section 207.250. 911 PROGRAM150069

       The foregoing appropriation item 100663, 911 Program, shall 150070
be used by the Department of Administrative Services to pay the 150071
administrative costs of the Statewide Emergency Services Internet 150072
Protocol Network Steering Committee.150073

       Section 209.10. AGE DEPARTMENT OF AGING150074

General Revenue Fund150075

GRF 490321 Operating Expenses $ 1,487,418 $ 1,487,418 150076
GRF 490410 Long-Term Care Ombudsman $ 477,448 $ 477,448 150077
GRF 490411 Senior Community Services $ 7,060,844 $ 7,060,844 150078
GRF 490414 Alzheimer's Respite $ 1,995,245 $ 1,995,245 150079
GRF 490506 National Senior Service Corps $ 241,413 $ 241,413 150080
GRF 656423 Long-Term Care Program Support - State $ 3,385,057 $ 3,385,057 150081
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 14,647,425 $ 14,647,425 150082

General Services Fund Group150083

4800 490606 Senior Community Outreach and Education $ 372,523 $ 372,523 150084
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 150085
Group $ 372,523 $ 372,523 150086

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group150087

3220 490618 Federal Aging Grants $ 12,000,000 $ 12,000,000 150088
3C40 656623 Long-Term Care Program Support - Federal $ 3,385,057 $ 3,385,057 150089
3M40 490612 Federal Independence Services $ 58,655,080 $ 58,655,080 150090
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 150091
Fund Group $ 74,040,137 $ 74,040,137 150092

State Special Revenue Fund Group150093

4C40 490609 Regional Long-Term Care Ombudsman Program $ 935,000 $ 935,000 150094
5BA0 490620 Ombudsman Support $ 550,000 $ 550,000 150095
5K90 490613 Long-Term Care Consumers Guide $ 1,059,400 $ 1,059,400 150096
5W10 490616 Resident Services Coordinator Program $ 344,700 $ 344,700 150097
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 150098
Fund Group $ 2,889,100 $ 2,889,100 150099
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 91,949,185 $ 91,949,185 150100


       Section 209.20. LONG-TERM CARE150102

       Pursuant to an interagency agreement, the Department of 150103
Medicaid may designate the Department of Aging to perform 150104
assessments under section 5165.04 of the Revised Code. The 150105
Department of Aging shall provide long-term care consultations 150106
under section 173.42 of the Revised Code to assist individuals in 150107
planning for their long-term health care needs. 150108

       The Department of Aging shall administer the Medicaid 150109
waiver-funded PASSPORT Home Care Program, the Choices Program, the 150110
Assisted Living Program, and PACE as delegated by the Department 150111
of Medicaid in an interagency agreement. The foregoing 150112
appropriation items 656423, Long-Term Care Program Support - 150113
State, and 656623, Long-Term Care Program Support - Federal, may 150114
be used to support the Department of Aging's administrative costs 150115
associated with operating the PASSPORT, Choices, Assisted Living, 150116
and PACE programs.150117

       PERFORMANCE-BASED REIMBURSEMENT150118

       The Department of Aging may design and utilize a payment 150119
method for PASSPORT administrative agency operations that includes 150120
a pay-for-performance incentive component that is earned by a 150121
PASSPORT administrative agency when defined consumer and policy 150122
outcomes are achieved.150123

       Section 209.30.  LONG-TERM CARE OMBUDSMAN150124

       The foregoing appropriation item 490410, Long-Term Care 150125
Ombudsman, shall be used to fund ombudsman program activities as 150126
authorized in sections 173.14 to 173.27 and section 173.99 of the 150127
Revised Code.150128

       The State Ombudsman may explore the design of a payment 150129
method for the Ombudsman Program that includes a 150130
pay-for-performance incentive component that is earned by 150131
designated regional long-term care ombudsman programs. 150132

       SENIOR COMMUNITY SERVICES150133

       The foregoing appropriation item 490411, Senior Community 150134
Services, shall be used for services designated by the Department 150135
of Aging, including, but not limited to, home-delivered and 150136
congregate meals, transportation services, personal care services, 150137
respite services, adult day services, home repair, care 150138
coordination, prevention and disease self-management, and decision 150139
support systems. Service priority shall be given to low income, 150140
frail, and cognitively impaired persons 60 years of age and over. 150141
The department shall promote cost sharing by service recipients 150142
for those services funded with senior community services funds, 150143
including, when possible, sliding-fee scale payment systems based 150144
on the income of service recipients.150145

       ALZHEIMER'S RESPITE150146

       The foregoing appropriation item 490414, Alzheimer's Respite, 150147
shall be used to fund only Alzheimer's disease services under 150148
section 173.04 of the Revised Code.150149

       NATIONAL SENIOR SERVICE CORPS150150

       The foregoing appropriation item 490506, National Senior 150151
Service Corps, shall be used by the Department of Aging to fund 150152
grants for three Corporation for National and Community 150153
Service/Senior Corps programs: the Foster Grandparents Program, 150154
the Senior Companion Program, and the Retired Senior Volunteer 150155
Program. A recipient of these grant funds shall use the funds to 150156
support priorities established by the Department and the Ohio 150157
State Office of the Corporation for National and Community 150158
Service. The expenditure of these funds by any grant recipient 150159
shall be in accordance with Senior Corps policies and procedures, 150160
as stated in the Domestic Volunteer Service Act of 1973, as 150161
amended. Neither the Department nor any area agencies on aging 150162
that are involved in the distribution of these funds to 150163
lower-tiered grant recipients may use any portion of these funds 150164
to cover administrative costs. 150165

       SENIOR COMMUNITY OUTREACH AND EDUCATION150166

       The foregoing appropriation item 490606, Senior Community 150167
Outreach and Education, may be used to provide training to workers 150168
in the field of aging pursuant to division (G) of section 173.02 150169
of the Revised Code.150170

       TRANSFER OF APPROPRIATIONS - FEDERAL INDEPENDENCE SERVICES 150171
AND FEDERAL AGING GRANTS150172

       At the request of the Director of Aging, the Director of 150173
Budget and Management may transfer appropriation between 150174
appropriation items 490612, Federal Independence Services, and 150175
490618, Federal Aging Grants. The amounts transferred shall not 150176
exceed 30 per cent of the appropriation from which the transfer is 150177
made. Any transfers shall be reported by the Department of Aging 150178
to the Controlling Board at the next scheduled meeting of the 150179
board.150180

       REGIONAL LONG-TERM CARE OMBUDSMAN PROGRAM150181

       The foregoing appropriation item 490609, Regional Long-Term 150182
Care Ombudsman Program, shall be used to pay the costs of 150183
operating the regional long-term care ombudsman programs 150184
designated by the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman.150185

       TRANSFER OF RESIDENT PROTECTION FUNDS150186

       In each fiscal year, the Director of Budget and Management 150187
may transfer up to $550,000 cash from the Resident Protection Fund 150188
(Fund 4E30), which is used by the Department of Medicaid, to the 150189
Ombudsman Support Fund (Fund 5BA0), which is used by the 150190
Department of Aging.150191

       LONG-TERM CARE CONSUMERS GUIDE150192

        The foregoing appropriation item 490613, Long-Term Care 150193
Consumers Guide, shall be used to conduct annual consumer 150194
satisfaction surveys and to pay for other administrative expenses 150195
related to the publication of the Ohio Long-Term Care Consumer 150196
Guide.150197

       Section 209.40. DEPARTMENT OF AGING'S APPROPRIATION ITEM 150198
STRUCTURE150199

        Upon request from the Director of Aging, the Director of 150200
Budget and Management may establish new funds, new appropriation 150201
items, and appropriations in order to support the transition to a 150202
new appropriation item structure in the Department of Aging's 150203
budget. Also, upon request of the Director of Aging, the Director 150204
of Budget and Management may transfer appropriations between GRF 150205
appropriation items, transfer cash between any funds used by the 150206
Department of Aging, abolish existing funds used by the Department 150207
of Aging, and cancel and reestablish encumbrances. Any 150208
establishment of new funds or appropriation items, any transfers 150209
of appropriations or cash, and any increases in appropriation 150210
under this section are subject to Controlling Board approval.150211

       Section 209.50. UPDATING AUTHORIZING STATUTE CITATIONS150212

       As used in this section, "authorizing statute" means a 150213
Revised Code section or provision of a Revised Code section that 150214
is cited in the Ohio Administrative Code as the statute that 150215
authorizes the adoption of a rule.150216

       The Director of Aging is not required to amend any rule for 150217
the sole purpose of updating the citation in the Ohio 150218
Administrative Code to the rule's authorizing statute to reflect 150219
that this act renumbers the authorizing statute or relocates it to 150220
another Revised Code section. Such citations shall be updated as 150221
the Director amends the rules for other purposes.150222

       Section 211.10. AGR DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE150223

General Revenue Fund150224

GRF 700401 Animal Disease Control $ 3,936,687 $ 3,936,687 150225
GRF 700403 Dairy Division $ 1,088,115 $ 1,088,115 150226
GRF 700404 Ohio Proud $ 50,000 $ 50,000 150227
GRF 700406 Consumer Analytical Lab $ 1,287,556 $ 1,287,556 150228
GRF 700407 Food Safety $ 848,792 $ 848,792 150229
GRF 700409 Farmland Preservation $ 72,750 $ 72,750 150230
GRF 700412 Weights and Measures $ 600,000 $ 600,000 150231
GRF 700415 Poultry Inspection $ 592,978 $ 592,978 150232
GRF 700418 Livestock Regulation Program $ 1,108,071 $ 1,108,071 150233
GRF 700424 Livestock Testing and Inspections $ 102,770 $ 102,770 150234
GRF 700426 Dangerous and Restricted Animals $ 800,000 $ 800,000 150235
GRF 700427 High Volume Breeder Kennel Control $ 400,000 $ 200,000 150236
GRF 700499 Meat Inspection Program - State Share $ 4,175,097 $ 4,175,097 150237
GRF 700501 County Agricultural Societies $ 391,415 $ 391,415 150238
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 15,454,231 $ 15,254,231 150239

General Services Fund Group150240

5DA0 700644 Laboratory Administration Support $ 1,115,000 $ 1,115,000 150241
5GH0 700655 Central Support Indirect Cost $ 4,368,013 $ 4,404,073 150242
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 5,483,013 $ 5,519,073 150243

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group150244

3260 700618 Meat Inspection Program - Federal Share $ 4,450,000 $ 4,450,000 150245
3360 700617 Ohio Farm Loan Revolving Fund $ 150,000 $ 150,000 150246
3820 700601 Cooperative Contracts $ 4,500,000 $ 4,500,000 150247
3AB0 700641 Agricultural Easement $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 150248
3J40 700607 Indirect Cost $ 1,100,000 $ 1,100,000 150249
3R20 700614 Federal Plant Industry $ 1,606,000 $ 1,606,000 150250
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 150251
Fund Group $ 12,806,000 $ 12,806,000 150252

State Special Revenue Fund Group150253

4900 700651 License Plates - Sustainable Agriculture $ 10,000 $ 10,000 150254
4940 700612 Agricultural Commodity Marketing Program $ 218,000 $ 213,000 150255
4960 700626 Ohio Grape Industries $ 970,000 $ 970,000 150256
4970 700627 Commodity Handlers Regulatory Program $ 482,672 $ 482,672 150257
4C90 700605 Commercial Feed and Seed $ 1,760,000 $ 1,760,000 150258
4D20 700609 Auction Education $ 35,000 $ 35,000 150259
4E40 700606 Utility Radiological Safety $ 130,000 $ 130,000 150260
4P70 700610 Food Safety Inspection $ 1,017,328 $ 1,017,328 150261
4R00 700636 Ohio Proud Marketing $ 45,500 $ 45,500 150262
4R20 700637 Dairy Industry Inspection $ 1,738,247 $ 1,738,247 150263
4T60 700611 Poultry and Meat Inspection $ 120,000 $ 120,000 150264
5780 700620 Ride Inspection Fees $ 1,175,142 $ 1,175,142 150265
5880 700633 Brand Registration $ 5,000 $ 5,000 150266
5B80 700629 Auctioneers $ 340,000 $ 340,000 150267
5CP0 700652 License Plate Scholarships $ 10,000 $ 10,000 150268
5FC0 700648 Plant Pest Program $ 1,190,000 $ 1,190,000 150269
5H20 700608 Metrology Lab and Scale Certification $ 552,000 $ 552,000 150270
5L80 700604 Livestock Management Program $ 145,000 $ 145,000 150271
5MA0 700657 Dangerous and Restricted Animals $ 195,000 $ 195,000 150272
6520 700634 Animal and Consumer Analytical Laboratory $ 4,966,383 $ 4,966,383 150273
6690 700635 Pesticide, Fertilizer, and Lime Inspection Program $ 3,418,041 $ 3,418,041 150274
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 150275
Fund Group $ 18,523,313 $ 18,518,313 150276

Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group150277

7057 700632 Clean Ohio Agricultural Easement $ 310,000 $ 310,000 150278
TOTAL CLF Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group $ 310,000 $ 310,000 150279

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 52,576,557 $ 52,407,617 150280

       DANGEROUS AND RESTRICTED WILD ANIMALS150281

       The foregoing GRF appropriation item 700426, Dangerous and 150282
Restricted Animals, shall be used to administer the Dangerous and 150283
Restricted Wild Animal Permitting Program.150284

       COUNTY AGRICULTURAL SOCIETIES150285

       The foregoing appropriation item 700501, County Agricultural 150286
Societies, shall be used to reimburse county and independent 150287
agricultural societies for expenses related to Junior Fair 150288
activities.150289

       CLEAN OHIO AGRICULTURAL EASEMENT150290

       The foregoing appropriation item 700632, Clean Ohio 150291
Agricultural Easement, shall be used by the Department of 150292
Agriculture in administering Ohio Agricultural Easement Fund (Fund 150293
7057) projects pursuant to sections 901.21, 901.22, and 5301.67 to 150294
5301.70 of the Revised Code.150295

       Section 213.10. AIR AIR QUALITY DEVELOPMENT AUTHORITY150296

General Services Fund Group150297

5EG0 898608 Energy Strategy Development $ 240,681 $ 240,681 150298
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund $ 240,681 $ 240,681 150299

State Special Revenue Fund Group150300

4Z90 898602 Small Business Ombudsman $ 288,232 $ 288,232 150301
5700 898601 Operating Expenses $ 323,980 $ 323,980 150302
5A00 898603 Small Business Assistance $ 900,000 $ 1,125,000 150303
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 1,512,212 $ 1,737,212 150304
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,752,893 $ 1,977,893 150305


       Section 213.20.  ENERGY STRATEGY DEVELOPMENT150307

       The Energy Strategy Development Program shall develop energy 150308
initiatives, projects, and policy that align with the energy 150309
policy for the state. Issues addressed by such initiatives, 150310
projects, and policy shall not be limited to those governed by 150311
Chapter 3706. of the Revised Code. The Ohio Air Quality 150312
Development Authority shall be responsible for the monitoring of 150313
the program.150314

       There is hereby created in the state treasury the Energy 150315
Strategy Development Fund (Fund 5EG0). The fund shall consist of 150316
money credited to it and money obtained for advanced energy 150317
projects from federal or private grants, loans, or other sources. 150318
Money in the fund shall be used to carry out the purposes of the 150319
program. Interest earned on the money in the fund shall be 150320
credited to the General Revenue Fund.150321

       On July 1 of each fiscal year, or as soon as possible 150322
thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management may transfer 150323
cash from the funds specified below, up to the amounts specified 150324
below, to the Energy Strategy Development Fund. Fund 5EG0 may 150325
accept contributions and transfers made to the fund. On July 1, 150326
2015, or as soon as possible thereafter, the Director shall 150327
transfer to the General Revenue Fund all cash credited to Fund 150328
5EG0. Upon completion of the transfer, Fund 5EG0 is abolished.150329

Fund Fund Name User FY 2014 FY 2015 150330
1310 State Agency Construction Project Service Ohio Facilities Construction Commission $27,405 $27,439 150331
5GH0 Central Support Indirect Cost Department of Agriculture $27,405 $27,439 150332
1350 Supportive Services Development Services Agency $27,405 $27,439 150333
2190 Central Support Indirect Cost Environmental Protection Agency $27,405 $27,439 150334
1570 Central Support Indirect Chargeback Department of Natural Resources $27,405 $27,439 150335
7002 Highway Operating Department of Transportation $39,150 $39,199 150336

       Section 213.30. REIMBURSEMENT TO AIR QUALITY DEVELOPMENT 150337
AUTHORITY TRUST ACCOUNT150338

       Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, 150339
the Air Quality Development Authority may reimburse the Air 150340
Quality Development Authority trust account established under 150341
section 3706.10 of the Revised Code from all operating funds of 150342
the agency for expenses pertaining to the administration and 150343
shared costs incurred by the Air Quality Development Authority in 150344
the execution of responsibilities as prescribed in Chapter 3706. 150345
of the Revised Code. Reimbursement shall be made by voucher and 150346
completed in accordance with the administrative indirect costs 150347
allocation plan approved by the Office of Budget and Management.150348

       Section 215.10. ARC STATE BOARD OF EXAMINERS OF ARCHITECTS150349

General Services Fund Group150350

4K90 891609 Operating $ 481,379 $ 485,954 150351
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 150352
Group $ 481,379 $ 485,954 150353
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 481,379 $ 485,954 150354


       Section 217.10. ART OHIO ARTS COUNCIL150356

General Revenue Fund150357

GRF 370321 Operating Expenses $ 1,649,204 $ 1,649,204 150358
GRF 370502 State Program Subsidies $ 9,700,000 $ 9,700,000 150359
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 11,349,204 $ 11,349,204 150360

General Services Fund Group150361

4600 370602 Management Expenses and Donations $ 247,000 $ 247,000 150362
4B70 370603 Percent for Art Acquisitions $ 247,000 $ 247,000 150363
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 494,000 $ 494,000 150364

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group150365

3140 370601 Federal Support $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 150366
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 150367
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 12,843,204 $ 12,843,204 150368

       OPERATING EXPENSES150369

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 370321, Operating 150370
Expenses, up to $50,000 shall be used in each fiscal year for 150371
technology upgrades and improvements.150372

       FEDERAL SUPPORT150373

       Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the 150374
foregoing appropriation item 370601, Federal Support, shall be 150375
used by the Ohio Arts Council for subsidies only, and not for its 150376
administrative costs, unless the Council is required to use a 150377
portion of the funds for administrative costs under conditions of 150378
the federal grant.150379

       Section 219.10. ATH ATHLETIC COMMISSION150380

General Services Fund Group150381

4K90 175609 Operating Expenses $ 312,000 $ 320,000 150382
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 312,000 $ 320,000 150383
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 312,000 $ 320,000 150384


       Section 221.10. AGO ATTORNEY GENERAL150386

General Revenue Fund150387

GRF 055321 Operating Expenses $ 42,514,169 $ 43,114,169 150388
GRF 055405 Law-Related Education $ 100,000 $ 100,000 150389
GRF 055407 Tobacco Settlement Enforcement $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 150390
GRF 055411 County Sheriffs' Pay Supplement $ 757,921 $ 757,921 150391
GRF 055415 County Prosecutors' Pay Supplement $ 831,499 $ 831,499 150392
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 45,703,589 $ 46,303,589 150393

General Services Fund Group150394

1060 055612 General Reimbursement $ 54,806,192 $ 55,820,716 150395
1950 055660 Workers' Compensation Section $ 8,415,504 $ 8,415,504 150396
4180 055615 Charitable Foundations $ 8,286,000 $ 8,286,000 150397
4200 055603 Attorney General Antitrust $ 1,839,074 $ 1,839,074 150398
4210 055617 Police Officers' Training Academy Fee $ 500,000 $ 500,000 150399
4Z20 055609 BCI Asset Forfeiture and Cost Reimbursement $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 150400
5900 055633 Peace Officer Private Security Fund $ 79,438 $ 95,325 150401
5A90 055618 Telemarketing Fraud Enforcement $ 45,000 $ 10,000 150402
5L50 055619 Law Enforcement Assistance Program $ 1,226,201 $ 1,038,573 150403
5LR0 055655 Peace Officer Training - Casino $ 4,629,409 $ 4,629,409 150404
5MP0 055657 Peace Officer Training Commission $ 25,000 $ 25,000 150405
6310 055637 Consumer Protection Enforcement $ 6,700,000 $ 6,834,000 150406
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 150407
Group $ 87,551,818 $ 88,493,601 150408

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group150409

3060 055620 Medicaid Fraud Control $ 4,537,408 $ 4,628,156 150410
3810 055611 Civil Rights Legal Service $ 75,000 $ 35,574 150411
3830 055634 Crime Victims Assistance $ 15,000,000 $ 15,000,000 150412
3E50 055638 Attorney General Pass-Through Funds $ 599,999 $ 599,999 150413
3FV0 055656 Crime Victim Compensation $ 7,000,000 $ 7,000,000 150414
3R60 055613 Attorney General Federal Funds $ 999,999 $ 999,999 150415
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 150416
Fund Group $ 28,212,406 $ 28,263,728 150417

State Special Revenue Fund Group150418

4020 055616 Victims of Crime $ 16,456,769 $ 16,456,769 150419
4190 055623 Claims Section $ 55,920,716 $ 56,937,131 150420
4L60 055606 DARE Programs $ 3,578,901 $ 3,486,209 150421
4Y70 055608 Title Defect Recision $ 600,000 $ 600,000 150422
6590 055641 Solid and Hazardous Waste Background Investigations $ 310,730 $ 310,730 150423
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 150424
Fund Group $ 76,867,116 $ 77,790,839 150425

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group150426

R004 055631 General Holding Account $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 150427
R005 055632 Antitrust Settlements $ 1,000 $ 1,000 150428
R018 055630 Consumer Frauds $ 750,000 $ 750,000 150429
R042 055601 Organized Crime Commission Distributions $ 25,025 $ 25,025 150430
R054 055650 Collection Payment Redistribution $ 4,500,000 $ 4,500,000 150431
TOTAL 090 Holding Account 150432
Redistribution Fund Group $ 6,276,025 $ 6,276,025 150433

Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group150434

U087 055402 Tobacco Settlement Oversight, Administration, and Enforcement $ 500,000 $ 500,000 150435
TOTAL TSF Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group $ 500,000 $ 500,000 150436
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 245,110,954 $ 247,627,782 150437

       OHIO BCI FORENSIC RESEARCH AND PROFESSIONAL TRAINING CENTER150438

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 055321, Operating 150439
Expenses, $600,000 in fiscal year 2015 shall be used to create the 150440
Ohio BCI Forensic Research and Professional Training Center at 150441
Bowling Green State University. The purpose of the Center shall be 150442
to foster forensic science research techniques (BCI Eminent 150443
Scholar) and to create professional training opportunities to 150444
students (BCI Scholars) in the forensic science fields.150445

       COUNTY SHERIFFS' PAY SUPPLEMENT150446

        The foregoing appropriation item 055411, County Sheriffs' Pay 150447
Supplement, shall be used for the purpose of supplementing the 150448
annual compensation of county sheriffs as required by section 150449
325.06 of the Revised Code.150450

       At the request of the Attorney General, the Director of 150451
Budget and Management may transfer appropriation from 150452
appropriation item 055321, Operating Expenses, to appropriation 150453
item 055411, County Sheriffs' Pay Supplement. Any appropriation so 150454
transferred shall be used to supplement the annual compensation of 150455
county sheriffs as required by section 325.06 of the Revised Code.150456

       COUNTY PROSECUTORS' PAY SUPPLEMENT150457

       The foregoing appropriation item 055415, County Prosecutors' 150458
Pay Supplement, shall be used for the purpose of supplementing the 150459
annual compensation of certain county prosecutors as required by 150460
section 325.111 of the Revised Code.150461

       At the request of the Attorney General, the Director of 150462
Budget and Management may transfer appropriation from 150463
appropriation item 055321, Operating Expenses, to appropriation 150464
item 055415, County Prosecutors' Pay Supplement. Any appropriation 150465
so transferred shall be used to supplement the annual compensation 150466
of county prosecutors as required by section 325.111 of the 150467
Revised Code.150468

       CASH TRANSFER FROM THE GENERAL REVENUE FUND TO THE GENERAL 150469
REIMBURSEMENT FUND150470

        Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, 150471
on July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the Director 150472
of Budget and Management shall transfer $80,000 cash from the 150473
General Revenue Fund to the General Reimbursement Fund (Fund 150474
1060).150475

       WORKERS' COMPENSATION SECTION150476

       The Workers' Compensation Fund (Fund 1950) is entitled to 150477
receive payments from the Bureau of Workers' Compensation and the 150478
Ohio Industrial Commission at the beginning of each quarter of 150479
each fiscal year to fund legal services to be provided to the 150480
Bureau of Workers' Compensation and the Ohio Industrial Commission 150481
during the ensuing quarter. The advance payment shall be subject 150482
to adjustment.150483

       In addition, the Bureau of Workers' Compensation shall 150484
transfer payments at the beginning of each quarter for the support 150485
of the Workers' Compensation Fraud Unit.150486

       All amounts shall be mutually agreed upon by the Attorney 150487
General, the Bureau of Workers' Compensation, and the Ohio 150488
Industrial Commission.150489

       CASH TRANSFERS FROM CRIMINAL JUSTICE SERVICES CASINO TAX 150490
REVENUE FUND TO LAW ENFORCEMENT ASSISTANCE FUND150491

        Notwithstanding division (D)(7) of section 5753.03 of the 150492
Revised Code and any other provision of law to the contrary, the 150493
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the amounts 150494
deposited into the Criminal Justice Services Casino Tax Revenue 150495
Fund (Fund 5LM0) pursuant to division (D)(7) of section 5753.03 of 150496
the Revised Code during fiscal years 2014 and 2015 to the Law 150497
Enforcement Assistance Fund (Fund 5L50) at the times that such 150498
deposits are made or as soon as practicable thereafter.150499

       ATTORNEY GENERAL PASS-THROUGH FUNDS150500

        The foregoing appropriation item 055638, Attorney General 150501
Pass-Through Funds, shall be used to receive federal grant funds 150502
provided to the Attorney General by other state agencies, 150503
including, but not limited to, the Department of Youth Services 150504
and the Department of Public Safety.150505

       GENERAL HOLDING ACCOUNT150506

       The foregoing appropriation item 055631, General Holding 150507
Account, shall be used to distribute moneys under the terms of 150508
relevant court orders or other settlements received in a variety 150509
of cases involving the Office of the Attorney General. If it is 150510
determined that additional amounts are necessary for this purpose, 150511
the amounts are hereby appropriated.150512

        ANTITRUST SETTLEMENTS150513

       The foregoing appropriation item 055632, Antitrust 150514
Settlements, shall be used to distribute moneys under the terms of 150515
relevant court orders or other out of court settlements in 150516
antitrust cases or antitrust matters involving the Office of the 150517
Attorney General. If it is determined that additional amounts are 150518
necessary for this purpose, the amounts are hereby appropriated.150519

       CONSUMER FRAUDS150520

        The foregoing appropriation item 055630, Consumer Frauds, 150521
shall be used for distribution of moneys from court-ordered 150522
judgments against sellers in actions brought by the Office of 150523
Attorney General under sections 1334.08 and 4549.48 and division 150524
(B) of section 1345.07 of the Revised Code. These moneys shall be 150525
used to provide restitution to consumers victimized by the fraud 150526
that generated the court-ordered judgments. If it is determined 150527
that additional amounts are necessary for this purpose, the 150528
amounts are hereby appropriated.150529

       ORGANIZED CRIME COMMISSION DISTRIBUTIONS150530

        The foregoing appropriation item 055601, Organized Crime 150531
Commission Distributions, shall be used by the Organized Crime 150532
Investigations Commission, as provided by section 177.011 of the 150533
Revised Code, to reimburse political subdivisions for the expenses 150534
the political subdivisions incur when their law enforcement 150535
officers participate in an organized crime task force. If it is 150536
determined that additional amounts are necessary for this purpose, 150537
the amounts are hereby appropriated.150538

       COLLECTION PAYMENT REDISTRIBUTION150539

        The foregoing appropriation item 055650, Collection Payment 150540
Redistribution, shall be used for the purpose of allocating the 150541
revenue where debtors mistakenly paid the client agencies instead 150542
of the Attorney General's Collections Enforcement Section. If it 150543
is determined that additional amounts are necessary for this 150544
purpose, the amounts are hereby appropriated.150545

       Section 223.10. AUD AUDITOR OF STATE150546

General Revenue Fund150547

GRF 070321 Operating Expenses $ 27,434,452 $ 27,434,452 150548
GRF 070403 Fiscal Watch/Emergency Technical Assistance $ 800,000 $ 800,000 150549
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 28,234,452 $ 28,234,452 150550

Auditor of State Fund Group150551

1090 070601 Public Audit Expense - Intra-State $ 9,069,804 $ 9,196,081 150552
4220 070602 Public Audit Expense - Local Government $ 31,052,999 $ 31,031,044 150553
5840 070603 Training Program $ 181,730 $ 181,250 150554
5JZ0 070606 LEAP Revolving Loans $ 650,000 $ 650,000 150555
6750 070605 Uniform Accounting Network $ 3,241,533 $ 3,160,637 150556
TOTAL AUD Auditor of State Fund 150557
Group $ 44,196,066 $ 44,219,012 150558
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 72,430,518 $ 72,453,464 150559

       FISCAL WATCH/EMERGENCY TECHNICAL ASSISTANCE150560

       The foregoing appropriation item 070403, Fiscal 150561
Watch/Emergency Technical Assistance, shall be used for expenses 150562
incurred by the Office of the Auditor of State in its role 150563
relating to fiscal watch or fiscal emergency activities under 150564
Chapters 118. and 3316. of the Revised Code. Expenses include, but 150565
are not limited to, the following: duties related to the 150566
determination or termination of fiscal watch or fiscal emergency 150567
of municipal corporations, counties, townships, or school 150568
districts; development of preliminary accounting reports; 150569
performance of annual forecasts; provision of performance audits; 150570
and supervisory, accounting, or auditing services for the 150571
municipal corporations, counties, townships, or school districts.150572

       Section 225.10. BRB BOARD OF BARBER EXAMINERS150573

General Services Fund Group150574

4K90 877609 Operating Expenses $ 670,882 $ 674,272 150575
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 150576
Group $ 670,882 $ 674,272 150577
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 670,882 $ 674,272 150578


       Section 227.10. OBM OFFICE OF BUDGET AND MANAGEMENT150580

General Revenue Fund150581

GRF 042321 Budget Development and Implementation $ 2,703,189 $ 2,697,483 150582
GRF 042409 Commission Closures $ 304,000 $ 155,000 150583
GRF 042416 Office of Health Transformation $ 484,486 $ 498,571 150584
GRF 042425 Shared Services Development $ 1,250,000 $ 1,250,000 150585
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 4,741,675 $ 4,601,054 150586

General Services Fund Group150587

1050 042603 Financial Management $ 14,060,275 $ 14,451,086 150588
1050 042620 Shared Services Operating $ 8,837,518 $ 8,924,830 150589
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 22,897,793 $ 23,375,916 150590

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group150591

3CM0 042606 Office of Health Transformation - Federal $ 438,723 $ 438,723 150592
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 438,723 $ 438,723 150593

Agency Fund Group150594

5EH0 042604 Forgery Recovery $ 40,000 $ 40,000 150595
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 40,000 $ 40,000 150596
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 28,118,191 $ 28,455,693 150597

       COMMISSION CLOSURES150598

       The foregoing appropriation item 042409, Commission Closures, 150599
may be used to pay obligations associated with the closure of any 150600
state agency, whether in the executive, legislative, or judicial 150601
branch of government. Notwithstanding any provision of law to the 150602
contrary, this appropriation item may also be used to pay final 150603
payroll expenses occurring after the closure of any state agency, 150604
whether in the executive, legislative, or judicial branch of 150605
government in the event that appropriations or cash in the closing 150606
agency are insufficient to do so. 150607

       The Director of Budget and Management may request Controlling 150608
Board approval for funds to be transferred to appropriation item 150609
042409, Commission Closures, from appropriation item 911614, CB 150610
Emergency Purposes, for anticipated expenses associated with 150611
agency closures.150612

       AUDIT COSTS AND DUES150613

       All centralized audit costs associated with either Single 150614
Audit Schedules or financial statements prepared in conformance 150615
with generally accepted accounting principles for the state shall 150616
be paid from the foregoing appropriation item 042603, Financial 150617
Management.150618

       Costs associated with the audit of the Auditor of State and 150619
national association dues shall be paid from the foregoing 150620
appropriation item 042321, Budget Development and Implementation.150621

       SHARED SERVICES CENTER150622

       The foregoing appropriation items 042425, Shared Services 150623
Development, and 042620, Shared Services Operating, shall be used 150624
by the Director of Budget and Management to support a Shared 150625
Services Center within the Office of Budget and Management for the 150626
purpose of consolidating statewide business functions and common 150627
transactional processes.150628

        The Director of Budget and Management shall include the 150629
recovery of costs to operate the Shared Services Center in the 150630
accounting and budgeting services payroll rate and through a 150631
direct charges using intrastate transfer vouchers to agencies for 150632
services rendered. The Director of Budget and Management shall 150633
determine the cost recovery methodology. Such cost recovery 150634
revenues shall be deposited to the credit of Fund 1050.150635

       INTERNAL AUDIT 150636

       The Director of Budget and Management shall include the 150637
recovery of costs to operate the Internal Audit Program in the 150638
accounting and budgeting services payroll rate and through a 150639
direct charge using intrastate transfer vouchers to agencies 150640
reviewed by the program. The Director of Budget and Management, 150641
with advice from the Internal Audit Advisory Council, shall 150642
determine the cost recovery methodology. Such cost recovery 150643
revenues shall be deposited to the credit of the Accounting and 150644
Budgeting Fund (Fund 1050).150645

       FORGERY RECOVERY150646

       The foregoing appropriation item 042604, Forgery Recovery, 150647
shall be used to reissue warrants that have been certified as 150648
forgeries by the rightful recipient as determined by the Bureau of 150649
Criminal Identification and Investigation and the Treasurer of 150650
State. Upon receipt of funds to cover the reissuance of the 150651
warrant, the Director of Budget and Management shall reissue a 150652
state warrant of the same amount. Any additional amounts needed to 150653
reissue warrants backed by the receipt of funds are hereby 150654
appropriated.150655

       ABOLISHMENT OF FUND 5N40 AND FUND 5Z80150656

       On or before December 31, 2013, the Director of Budget and 150657
Management shall transfer the cash balances of the OAKS Project 150658
Implementation Fund (Fund 5N40) and the Office of Health 150659
Transformation Administration Fund (Fund 5Z80) to the General 150660
Revenue Fund. Upon completion of the transfers, Fund 5N40 and Fund 150661
5Z80 are abolished.150662

       Section 229.10. CSR CAPITOL SQUARE REVIEW AND ADVISORY BOARD150663

General Revenue Fund150664

GRF 874100 Personal Services $ 2,417,467 $ 2,417,467 150665
GRF 874320 Maintenance and Equipment $ 1,161,098 $ 1,161,098 150666
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 3,578,565 $ 3,578,565 150667

General Services Fund Group150668

4G50 874603 Capitol Square Education Center and Arts $ 5,882 $ 5,882 150669
4S70 874602 Statehouse Gift Shop/Events $ 629,409 $ 629,409 150670
TOTAL GSF General Services 150671
Fund Group $ 635,291 $ 635,291 150672

Underground Parking Garage150673

2080 874601 Underground Parking Garage Operations $ 3,049,740 $ 2,996,740 150674
TOTAL UPG Underground Parking 150675
Garage $ 3,049,740 $ 2,996,740 150676
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 7,263,596 $ 7,210,596 150677

       WAREHOUSE PAYMENTS150678

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 874601, Underground 150679
Parking Garage Operations, $48,000 in each fiscal year shall be 150680
used to meet all payments at the times they are required to be 150681
made during the period from July 1, 2013, through June 30, 2015, 150682
to the Department of Administrative Services for bond service 150683
charges relating to the purchase and improvement of a warehouse 150684
acquired pursuant to section 105.41 of the Revised Code, in which 150685
to store items of the Capitol Collection Trust and, whenever 150686
necessary, equipment or other property of the Board.150687

       UNDERGROUND PARKING GARAGE FUND150688

       Notwithstanding division (G) of section 105.41 of the Revised 150689
Code and any other provision to the contrary, moneys in the 150690
Underground Parking Garage Fund (Fund 2080) may be used for 150691
personnel and operating costs related to the operations of the 150692
Statehouse and the Statehouse Underground Parking Garage.150693

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 874601, Underground 150694
Parking Garage Operations, up to $10,000 in fiscal year 2014 shall 150695
be used to support the 1st Ohio Light Artillery Battery A for the 150696
150th Anniversary Reenactment of the Battle of Gettysburg, and up 150697
to $15,000 in fiscal year 2015 shall be used for preparations in 150698
anticipation of the Lincoln Funeral Procession Train.150699

       Section 231.10. SCR STATE BOARD OF CAREER COLLEGES AND 150700
SCHOOLS150701

General Services Fund Group150702

4K90 233601 Operating Expenses $ 579,328 $ 579,328 150703
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 579,328 $ 579,328 150704
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 579,328 $ 579,328 150705


       Section 233.10. CAC CASINO CONTROL COMMISSION150707

State Special Revenue Fund Group150708

5HS0 955321 Casino Control - Operating $ 13,121,283 $ 13,542,674 150709
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 13,121,283 $ 13,542,674 150710
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 13,121,283 $ 13,542,674 150711


       Section 235.10. CDP CHEMICAL DEPENDENCY PROFESSIONALS BOARD150713

General Services Fund Group150714

4K90 930609 Operating Expenses $ 476,642 $ 469,349 150715
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 476,642 $ 469,349 150716
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 476,642 $ 469,349 150717


       Section 237.10. CHR STATE CHIROPRACTIC BOARD150719

General Services Fund Group150720

4K90 878609 Operating Expenses $ 617,829 $ 630,775 150721
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 617,829 $ 630,775 150722
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 617,829 $ 630,775 150723


       Section 239.10. CIV OHIO CIVIL RIGHTS COMMISSION150725

General Revenue Fund150726

GRF 876321 Operating Expenses $ 4,725,784 $ 4,725,784 150727
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 4,725,784 $ 4,725,784 150728

General Services Fund Group150729

2170 876604 Operations Support $ 4,000 $ 4,000 150730
TOTAL GSF General Services 150731
Fund Group $ 4,000 $ 4,000 150732

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group150733

3340 876601 Federal Programs $ 2,820,670 $ 2,947,983 150734
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 150735
Fund Group $ 2,820,670 $ 2,947,983 150736

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 7,550,454 $ 7,677,767 150737


       Section 241.10. COM DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE150739

General Services Fund Group150740

1630 800620 Division of Administration $ 6,200,000 $ 6,200,000 150741
1630 800637 Information Technology $ 6,011,977 $ 6,011,977 150742
5430 800602 Unclaimed Funds-Operating $ 7,737,546 $ 7,737,546 150743
5430 800625 Unclaimed Funds-Claims $ 64,000,000 $ 64,000,000 150744
5F10 800635 Small Government Fire Departments $ 300,000 $ 300,000 150745
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 150746
Group $ 84,249,523 $ 84,249,523 150747

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group150748

3480 800622 Underground Storage Tanks $ 1,129,518 $ 1,129,518 150749
3480 800624 Leaking Underground Storage Tanks $ 1,556,211 $ 1,556,211 150750
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 150751
Fund Group $ 2,685,729 $ 2,685,729 150752

State Special Revenue Fund Group150753

4B20 800631 Real Estate Appraisal Recovery $ 35,000 $ 35,000 150754
4H90 800608 Cemeteries $ 266,688 $ 266,688 150755
4X20 800619 Financial Institutions $ 1,854,298 $ 1,854,298 150756
5440 800612 Banks $ 6,836,589 $ 6,836,589 150757
5450 800613 Savings Institutions $ 2,259,536 $ 2,259,536 150758
5460 800610 Fire Marshal $ 15,315,738 $ 15,324,574 150759
5460 800639 Fire Department Grants $ 2,198,802 $ 2,198,802 150760
5470 800603 Real Estate Education/Research $ 69,655 $ 69,655 150761
5480 800611 Real Estate Recovery $ 50,000 $ 50,000 150762
5490 800614 Real Estate $ 3,310,412 $ 3,310,412 150763
5500 800617 Securities $ 4,238,814 $ 4,238,814 150764
5520 800604 Credit Union $ 3,297,888 $ 3,297,888 150765
5530 800607 Consumer Finance $ 3,481,692 $ 3,481,692 150766
5560 800615 Industrial Compliance $ 26,612,520 $ 27,104,205 150767
5FW0 800616 Financial Literacy Education $ 200,000 $ 200,000 150768
5GK0 800609 Securities Investor Education/Enforcement $ 432,150 $ 432,150 150769
5HV0 800641 Cigarette Enforcement $ 118,800 $ 118,800 150770
5LP0 800646 Liquor Regulatory Operating Expenses $ 7,988,921 $ 7,844,537 150771
5X60 800623 Video Service $ 337,224 $ 337,224 150772
6530 800629 UST Registration/Permit Fee $ 3,831,888 $ 3,612,588 150773
6A40 800630 Real Estate Appraiser-Operating $ 672,973 $ 672,973 150774
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 150775
Fund Group $ 83,409,588 $ 83,546,425 150776

Liquor Control Fund Group150777

5LC0 800644 Liquor JobsOhio Extraordinary Allowance $ 557,974 $ 372,661 150778
5LN0 800645 Liquor Operating Services $ 13,949,342 $ 9,316,535 150779
TOTAL LCF Liquor Control 150780
Fund Group $ 14,507,316 $ 9,689,196 150781
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 184,852,156 $ 180,170,873 150782

       ADMINISTRATIVE ASSESSMENTS150783

       Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, 150784
the Division of Administration Fund (Fund 1630) is entitled to 150785
receive assessments from all operating funds of the Department in 150786
accordance with procedures prescribed by the Director of Commerce 150787
and approved by the Director of Budget and Management.150788

       UNCLAIMED FUNDS PAYMENTS150789

       The foregoing appropriation item 800625, Unclaimed 150790
Funds-Claims, shall be used to pay claims under section 169.08 of 150791
the Revised Code. If it is determined that additional amounts are 150792
necessary, the amounts are appropriated.150793

       FIRE DEPARTMENT GRANTS150794

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 800639, Fire Department 150795
Grants, up to $2,198,802 in each fiscal year shall be used to make 150796
annual grants to the following eligible recipients: volunteer fire 150797
departments, fire departments that serve one or more small 150798
municipalities or small townships, joint fire districts comprised 150799
of fire departments that primarily serve small municipalities or 150800
small townships, local units of government responsible for such 150801
fire departments, and local units of government responsible for 150802
the provision of fire protection services for small municipalities 150803
or small townships. For the purposes of these grants, a private 150804
fire company, as that phrase is defined in section 9.60 of the 150805
Revised Code, that is providing fire protection services under a 150806
contract to a political subdivision of the state, is an additional 150807
eligible recipient for a training grant.150808

       Eligible recipients that consist of small municipalities or 150809
small townships that all intend to contract with the same fire 150810
department or private fire company for fire protection services 150811
may jointly apply and be considered for a grant. If a joint 150812
applicant is awarded a grant, the State Fire Marshal shall, if 150813
feasible, proportionately award the grant and any equipment 150814
purchased with grant funds to each of the joint applicants based 150815
upon each applicant's contribution to and demonstrated need for 150816
fire protection services.150817

       If the grant awarded to joint applicants is an equipment 150818
grant and the equipment to be purchased cannot be readily 150819
distributed or possessed by multiple recipients, each of the joint 150820
applicants shall be awarded by the State Fire Marshal an ownership 150821
interest in the equipment so purchased in proportion to each 150822
applicant's contribution to and demonstrated need for fire 150823
protection services. The joint applicants shall then mutually 150824
agree on how the equipment is to be maintained, operated, stored, 150825
or disposed of. If, for any reason, the joint applicants cannot 150826
agree as to how jointly owned equipment is to be maintained, 150827
operated, stored, or disposed of or any of the joint applicants no 150828
longer maintain a contract with the same fire protection service 150829
provider as the other applicants, then the joint applicants shall, 150830
with the assistance of the State Fire Marshal, mutually agree as 150831
to how the jointly owned equipment is to be maintained, operated, 150832
stored, disposed of, or owned. If the joint applicants cannot 150833
agree how the grant equipment is to be maintained, operated, 150834
stored, disposed of, or owned, the State Fire Marshal may, in its 150835
discretion, require all of the equipment acquired by the joint 150836
applicants with grant funds to be returned to the State Fire 150837
Marshal. The State Fire Marshal may then award the returned 150838
equipment to any eligible recipients.150839

       Except as otherwise provided in this section, the grants 150840
shall be used by recipients to purchase firefighting or rescue 150841
equipment or gear or similar items, to provide full or partial 150842
reimbursement for the documented costs of firefighter training, 150843
or, at the discretion of the State Fire Marshal, to cover fire 150844
department costs for providing fire protection services in that 150845
grant recipient's jurisdiction. 150846

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 800639, up to $500,000 150847
per fiscal year may be used to pay for the State Fire Marshal's 150848
costs of providing firefighter I certification classes or other 150849
firefighter classes approved by the Department of Public Safety in 150850
accordance with section 4765.55 of the Revised Code at no cost to 150851
selected students attending the Ohio Fire Academy or other class 150852
providers approved by the State Fire Marshal. The State Fire 150853
Marshal may establish the qualifications and selection processes 150854
for students to attend such classes by written policy, and such 150855
students shall be considered eligible recipients of fire 150856
department grants for the purposes of this portion of the grant 150857
program.150858

       Grant awards for firefighting or rescue equipment or gear or 150859
for fire department costs of providing fire protection services 150860
shall be up to $15,000 per fiscal year, or up to $25,000 per 150861
fiscal year if an eligible entity serves a jurisdiction in which 150862
the Governor declared a natural disaster during the preceding or 150863
current fiscal year in which the grant was awarded. In addition to 150864
any grant funds awarded for rescue equipment or gear, or for fire 150865
department costs associated with the provision of fire protection 150866
services, an eligible entity may receive a grant for up to $15,000 150867
per fiscal year for full or partial reimbursement of the 150868
documented costs of firefighter training. For each fiscal year, 150869
the State Fire Marshal shall determine the total amounts to be 150870
allocated for each eligible purpose.150871

       The grant program shall be administered by the State Fire 150872
Marshal in accordance with rules the State Fire Marshal adopts as 150873
part of the state fire code adopted pursuant to section 3737.82 of 150874
the Revised Code that are necessary for the administration and 150875
operation of the grant program. The rules may further define the 150876
entities eligible to receive grants and establish criteria for the 150877
awarding and expenditure of grant funds, including methods the 150878
State Fire Marshal may use to verify the proper use of grant funds 150879
or to obtain reimbursement for or the return of equipment for 150880
improperly used grant funds. Any amounts in appropriation item 150881
800639, Fire Department Grants, in excess of the amount allocated 150882
for these grants may be used for the administration of the grant 150883
program.150884

       CASH TRANSFERS TO DIVISION OF REAL ESTATE OPERATING FUND150885

       The Director of Budget and Management, upon the request of 150886
the Director of Commerce, may transfer up to $500,000 in cash from 150887
the Real Estate Recovery Fund (Fund 5480) and up to $250,000 in 150888
cash from the Real Estate Appraiser Recovery Fund (Fund 4B20) to 150889
the Division of Real Estate Operating Fund (Fund 5490) during the 150890
biennium ending June 30, 2015.150891

       Section 243.10. OCC OFFICE OF CONSUMERS' COUNSEL150892

General Services Fund Group150893

5F50 053601 Operating Expenses $ 5,641,093 $ 5,641,093 150894
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 5,641,093 $ 5,641,093 150895
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 5,641,093 $ 5,641,093 150896


       Section 245.10. CEB CONTROLLING BOARD150898

General Revenue Fund150899

GRF 911441 Ballot Advertising Costs $ 475,000 $ 475,000 150900
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 475,000 $ 475,000 150901

General Services Fund Group150902

5KM0 911614 CB Emergency Purposes $ 10,000,000 $ 10,000,000 150903
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 10,000,000 $ 10,000,000 150904
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 10,475,000 $ 10,475,000 150905

       FEDERAL SHARE150906

       In transferring appropriations to or from appropriation items 150907
that have federal shares identified in this act, the Controlling 150908
Board shall add or subtract corresponding amounts of federal 150909
matching funds at the percentages indicated by the state and 150910
federal division of the appropriations in this act. Such changes 150911
are hereby appropriated.150912

       DISASTER SERVICES150913

        Pursuant to requests submitted by the Department of Public 150914
Safety, the Controlling Board may approve transfers from the 150915
Disaster Services Fund (5E20) to a fund and appropriation item 150916
used by the Department of Public Safety to provide for assistance 150917
to political subdivisions made necessary by natural disasters or 150918
emergencies. These transfers may be requested and approved prior 150919
to the occurrence of any specific natural disasters or emergencies 150920
in order to facilitate the provision of timely assistance. The 150921
Emergency Management Agency of the Department of Public Safety 150922
shall use the funding to fund the State Disaster Relief Program 150923
for disasters that have a written Governor's authorization, and 150924
the State Individual Assistance Program for disasters that have a 150925
written Governor's authorization and is declared by the federal 150926
Small Business Administration. The Ohio Emergency Management 150927
Agency shall publish and make available application packets 150928
outlining procedures for the State Disaster Relief Program and the 150929
State Individual Assistance Program.150930

       Fund 5E20 shall be used by the Controlling Board, pursuant to 150931
requests submitted by state agencies, to transfer cash and 150932
appropriations to any fund and appropriation item for the payment 150933
of state agency disaster relief program expenses for disasters 150934
that have a written Governor's authorization, if the Director of 150935
Budget and Management determines that sufficient funds exist.150936

       Upon the request of the Department of Public Safety, the 150937
Controlling Board may release up to $3,000,000 for Blanchard River 150938
flood mitigation projects.150939

       BALLOT ADVERTISING COSTS150940

       Pursuant to section 3501.17 of the Revised Code, and upon 150941
requests submitted by the Secretary of State, the Controlling 150942
Board shall approve transfers from the foregoing appropriation 150943
item 911441, Ballot Advertising Costs, to appropriation item 150944
050621, Statewide Ballot Advertising, in order to pay for the cost 150945
of public notices associated with statewide ballot initiatives.150946

       CAPITAL APPROPRIATION INCREASE FOR FEDERAL STIMULUS 150947
ELIGIBILITY150948

        A state agency director shall request that the Controlling 150949
Board increase the amount of the agency's capital appropriations 150950
if the director determines such an increase is necessary for the 150951
agency to receive and use funds under the federal American 150952
Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009. The Controlling Board may 150953
increase the capital appropriations pursuant to the request up to 150954
the exact amount necessary under the federal act if the Board 150955
determines it is necessary for the agency to receive and use those 150956
federal funds.150957

       Section 247.10. COS STATE BOARD OF COSMETOLOGY150958

General Services Fund Group150959

4K90 879609 Operating Expenses $ 3,474,030 $ 3,474,030 150960
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 150961
Group $ 3,474,030 $ 3,474,030 150962
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 3,474,030 $ 3,474,030 150963


       Section 249.10. CSW COUNSELOR, SOCIAL WORKER, AND MARRIAGE 150965
AND FAMILY THERAPIST BOARD150966

General Services Fund Group150967

4K90 899609 Operating Expenses $ 1,265,856 $ 1,281,478 150968
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 150969
Group $ 1,265,856 $ 1,281,478 150970
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,265,856 $ 1,281,478 150971


       Section 251.10. CLA COURT OF CLAIMS150973

General Revenue Fund150974

GRF 015321 Operating Expenses $ 2,501,052 $ 2,501,052 150975
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 2,501,052 $ 2,501,052 150976

State Special Revenue Fund Group150977

5K20 015603 CLA Victims of Crime $ 415,556 $ 415,953 150978
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 150979
Fund Group $ 415,556 $ 415,953 150980
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 2,916,608 $ 2,917,005 150981


       Section 251.20. AFC OHIO CULTURAL FACILITIES COMMISSION150983

General Revenue Fund150984

GRF 371401 Lease Rental Payments $ 22,555,872 $ 0 150985
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 22,555,872 $ 0 150986

State Special Revenue Fund Group150987

4T80 371601 Riffe Theatre Equipment Maintenance $ 40,446 $ 0 150988
4T80 371603 Project Administration Services $ 250,000 $ 0 150989
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Group $ 290,446 $ 0 150990
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 22,846,318 $ 0 150991

       LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS150992

       The foregoing appropriation item 371401, Lease Rental 150993
Payments, shall be used to meet all payments at the times they are 150994
required to be made during the period from July 1, 2013, through 150995
December 31, 2013, from the Ohio Cultural Facilities Commission 150996
under the primary leases and agreements for those arts and sports 150997
facilities made under Chapters 152. and 154. of the Revised Code. 150998
These appropriations are the source of funds pledged for bond 150999
service charges on related obligations issued under Chapters 152. 151000
and 154. of the Revised Code.151001

       PROJECT ADMINISTRATION SERVICES151002

       The foregoing appropriation item 371603, Project 151003
Administration Services, shall be used by the Ohio Cultural 151004
Facilities Commission in administering Cultural and Sports 151005
Facilities Building Fund (Fund 7030) projects pursuant to Chapter 151006
3383. of the Revised Code.151007

       By the tenth day following each calendar quarter in each 151008
fiscal year, or as soon as possible thereafter, the Director of 151009
Budget and Management shall determine the amount of cash from 151010
interest earnings to be transferred from the Cultural and Sports 151011
Facilities Building Fund (Fund 7030) to the Cultural Facilities 151012
Commission Administration Fund (Fund 4T80).151013

       As soon as possible after each bond issuance made on behalf 151014
of the Cultural Facilities Commission, the Director of Budget and 151015
Management shall determine the amount of cash from any premium 151016
paid on each issuance that is available to be transferred, after 151017
all issuance costs have been paid, from the Cultural and Sports 151018
Facilities Building Fund (Fund 7030) to the Cultural Facilities 151019
Commission Administration Fund (Fund 4T80).151020

       CAPITAL DONATIONS FUND CERTIFICATIONS AND APPROPRIATIONS151021

        The Executive Director of the Cultural Facilities Commission 151022
shall certify to the Director of Budget and Management the amount 151023
of cash receipts and related investment income, irrevocable 151024
letters of credit from a bank, or certification of the 151025
availability of funds that have been received from a county or a 151026
municipal corporation for deposit into the Capital Donations Fund 151027
(Fund 5A10) and that are related to an anticipated project. These 151028
amounts are hereby appropriated to appropriation item C37146, 151029
Capital Donations. Prior to certifying these amounts to the 151030
Director, the Executive Director shall make a written agreement 151031
with the participating entity on the necessary cash flows required 151032
for the anticipated construction or equipment acquisition project.151033

       Section 253.10. DEN STATE DENTAL BOARD151034

General Services Fund Group151035

4K90 880609 Operating Expenses $ 1,566,484 $ 1,566,484 151036
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 151037
Group $ 1,566,484 $ 1,566,484 151038
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,566,484 $ 1,566,484 151039


       Section 255.10. BDP BOARD OF DEPOSIT151041

General Services Fund Group151042

4M20 974601 Board of Deposit $ 1,876,000 $ 1,876,000 151043
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 151044
Group $ 1,876,000 $ 1,876,000 151045
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,876,000 $ 1,876,000 151046

       BOARD OF DEPOSIT EXPENSE FUND151047

       Upon receiving certification of expenses from the Treasurer 151048
of State, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer 151049
cash from the Investment Earnings Redistribution Fund (Fund 6080) 151050
to the Board of Deposit Expense Fund (Fund 4M20). The latter fund 151051
shall be used pursuant to section 135.02 of the Revised Code to 151052
pay for any and all necessary expenses of the Board of Deposit or 151053
for banking charges and fees required for the operation of the 151054
State of Ohio Regular Account.151055

       Section 257.10. DEV DEVELOPMENT SERVICES AGENCY151056

General Revenue Fund151057

GRF 195402 Coal Research Operating $ 261,205 $ 261,405 151058
GRF 195405 Minority Business Development $ 1,693,691 $ 1,693,691 151059
GRF 195407 Travel and Tourism $ 1,300,000 $ 0 151060
GRF 195415 Business Development Services $ 2,413,387 $ 2,413,387 151061
GRF 195426 Redevelopment Assistance $ 468,365 $ 468,365 151062
GRF 195497 CDBG Operating Match $ 1,015,000 $ 1,015,000 151063
GRF 195501 Appalachian Local Development Districts $ 440,000 $ 440,000 151064
GRF 195532 Technology Programs and Grants $ 13,547,341 $ 13,547,341 151065
GRF 195533 Business Assistance $ 4,205,774 $ 4,205,774 151066
GRF 195535 Appalachia Assistance $ 3,846,482 $ 3,846,482 151067
GRF 195537 Ohio-Israel Agricultural Initiative $ 150,000 $ 150,000 151068
GRF 195901 Coal Research & Development General Obligation Debt Service $ 2,858,900 $ 4,327,200 151069
GRF 195905 Third Frontier Research & Development General Obligation Debt Service $ 66,511,600 $ 83,783,000 151070
GRF 195912 Job Ready Site Development General Obligation Debt Service $ 15,498,400 $ 19,124,500 151071
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 114,210,145 $ 135,276,145 151072

General Services Fund Group151073

1350 195684 Development Services Operations $ 10,800,000 $ 10,800,000 151074
4W10 195646 Minority Business Enterprise Loan $ 2,500,000 $ 2,500,000 151075
5KN0 195640 Local Government Innovation $ 16,130,986 $ 16,000,000 151076
5MB0 195623 Business Incentive Grants $ 15,000,000 $ 0 151077
5MK0 195600 Vacant Facilities Grant $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 151078
5W50 195690 Travel and Tourism Cooperative Projects $ 150,000 $ 150,000 151079
6850 195636 Development Services Reimbursable Expenditures $ 700,000 $ 700,000 151080
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 151081
Group $ 46,280,986 $ 31,150,000 151082

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group151083

3080 195602 Appalachian Regional Commission $ 475,000 $ 475,000 151084
3080 195603 Housing Assistance Programs $ 10,000,000 $ 10,000,000 151085
3080 195609 Small Business Administration Grants $ 5,271,381 $ 5,271,381 151086
3080 195618 Energy Grants $ 9,307,779 $ 4,109,193 151087
3080 195670 Home Weatherization Program $ 17,000,000 $ 17,000,000 151088
3080 195671 Brownfield Redevelopment $ 5,000,000 $ 5,000,000 151089
3080 195672 Manufacturing Extension Partnership $ 5,359,305 $ 5,359,305 151090
3080 195675 Procurement Technical Assistance $ 600,000 $ 600,000 151091
3080 195681 SBDC Disability Consulting $ 1,300,000 $ 1,300,000 151092
3350 195610 Energy Programs $ 200,000 $ 200,000 151093
3AE0 195643 Workforce Development Initiatives $ 1,800,000 $ 1,800,000 151094
3DB0 195642 Federal Stimulus - Energy Efficiency & Conservation Block Grants $ 38,152 $ 0 151095
3FJ0 195626 Small Business Capital Access and Collateral Enhancement Program $ 32,046,846 $ 5,655,326 151096
3FJ0 195661 Technology Targeted Investment Program $ 12,750,410 $ 2,250,072 151097
3K80 195613 Community Development Block Grant $ 65,000,000 $ 65,000,000 151098
3K90 195611 Home Energy Assistance Block Grant $ 172,000,000 $ 172,000,000 151099
3K90 195614 HEAP Weatherization $ 22,000,000 $ 22,000,000 151100
3L00 195612 Community Services Block Grant $ 27,240,217 $ 27,240,217 151101
3V10 195601 HOME Program $ 30,000,000 $ 30,000,000 151102
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 151103
Fund Group $ 417,389,090 $ 375,260,494 151104

State Special Revenue Fund Group151105

4500 195624 Minority Business Bonding Program Administration $ 74,868 $ 74,905 151106
4510 195649 Business Assistance Programs $ 6,300,800 $ 6,700,800 151107
4F20 195639 State Special Projects $ 102,145 $ 102,104 151108
4F20 195699 Utility Community Assistance $ 500,000 $ 500,000 151109
5CG0 195679 Alternative Fuel Transportation $ 750,000 $ 750,000 151110
5HR0 195526 Incumbent Workforce Training Vouchers $ 30,000,000 $ 30,000,000 151111
5HR0 195622 Defense Development Assistance $ 5,000,000 $ 5,000,000 151112
5JR0 195635 Redevelopment Program Support $ 100,000 $ 100,000 151113
5KP0 195645 Historic Rehab Operating $ 650,000 $ 650,000 151114
5LU0 195673 Racetrack Facility Community Economic Redevelopment Fund $ 12,000,000 $ 0 151115
5M40 195659 Low Income Energy Assistance (USF) $ 350,000,000 $ 350,000,000 151116
5M50 195660 Advanced Energy Loan Programs $ 8,000,000 $ 8,000,000 151117
5MH0 195644 SiteOhio Administration $ 100,000 $ 100,000 151118
5MJ0 195683 TourismOhio Administration $ 8,000,000 $ 8,000,000 151119
5W60 195691 International Trade Cooperative Projects $ 18,000 $ 18,000 151120
6170 195654 Volume Cap Administration $ 32,562 $ 32,562 151121
6460 195638 Low- and Moderate- Income Housing Trust Fund $ 53,000,000 $ 53,000,000 151122
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 151123
Fund Group $ 474,628,375 $ 463,028,371 151124

Facilities Establishment Fund Group151125

5S90 195628 Capital Access Loan Program $ 3,000,000 $ 3,000,000 151126
7009 195664 Innovation Ohio $ 15,000,000 $ 15,000,000 151127
7010 195665 Research and Development $ 22,000,000 $ 22,000,000 151128
7037 195615 Facilities Establishment $ 50,000,000 $ 50,000,000 151129
TOTAL 037 Facilities 151130
Establishment Fund Group $ 90,000,000 $ 90,000,000 151131

Clean Ohio Revitalization Fund151132

7003 195663 Clean Ohio Program $ 950,000 $ 950,000 151133
TOTAL 7003 Clean Ohio Revitalization Fund $ 950,000 $ 950,000 151134

Third Frontier Research & Development Fund Group151135

7011 195686 Third Frontier Operating $ 1,149,750 $ 1,149,750 151136
7011 195687 Third Frontier Research & Development Projects $ 90,850,250 $ 90,850,250 151137
7014 195620 Third Frontier Operating - Tax $ 1,700,000 $ 1,700,000 151138
7014 195692 Research & Development Taxable Bond Projects $ 38,300,000 $ 38,300,000 151139
TOTAL 011 Third Frontier Research & Development Fund Group $ 132,000,000 $ 132,000,000 151140

Job Ready Site Development Fund Group151141

7012 195688 Job Ready Site Development $ 800,000 $ 800,000 151142
TOTAL 012 Job Ready Site Development Fund Group $ 800,000 $ 800,000 151143

Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group151144

M087 195435 Biomedical Research and Technology Transfer $ 1,896,595 $ 1,906,025 151145
TOTAL TSF Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group $ 1,896,595 $ 1,906,025 151146
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,278,155,191 $ 1,230,371,035 151147


       Section 257.20. COAL RESEARCH OPERATING151149

       The foregoing appropriation item 195402, Coal Research 151150
Operating, shall be used for the operating expenses of the 151151
Community Services Division in support of the Ohio Coal 151152
Development Office.151153

       TRAVEL AND TOURISM151154

       The foregoing appropriation item 195407, Travel and Tourism, 151155
shall be used for marketing the state of Ohio as a tourism 151156
destination and to support administrative expenses and contracts 151157
necessary to market Ohio.151158

        BUSINESS DEVELOPMENT SERVICES151159

       The foregoing appropriation item 195415, Business Development 151160
Services, shall be used for the operating expenses of the Business 151161
Services Division and the regional economic development offices 151162
and for grants for cooperative economic development ventures.151163

       REDEVELOPMENT ASSISTANCE151164

        The foregoing appropriation item 195426, Redevelopment 151165
Assistance, shall be used to fund the costs of administering the 151166
Clean Ohio Revitalization program and other urban revitalization 151167
programs that may be implemented by the Development Services 151168
Agency.151169

       CDBG OPERATING MATCH151170

       The foregoing appropriation item 195497, CDBG Operating 151171
Match, shall be used as matching funds for grants from the United 151172
States Department of Housing and Urban Development pursuant to the 151173
Housing and Community Development Act of 1974 and regulations and 151174
policy guidelines for the programs pursuant thereto.151175

       APPALACHIAN LOCAL DEVELOPMENT DISTRICTS151176

       The foregoing appropriation item 195501, Appalachian Local 151177
Development Districts, shall be used to support four local 151178
development districts. Of the foregoing appropriation amount in 151179
each fiscal year, up to $135,000 shall be allocated to the Ohio 151180
Valley Regional Development Commission, up to $135,000 shall be 151181
allocated to the Ohio Mid-Eastern Government Association, up to 151182
$135,000 shall be allocated to the Buckeye Hills-Hocking Valley 151183
Regional Development District, and up to $35,000 shall be 151184
allocated to the Eastgate Regional Council of Governments. Local 151185
development districts receiving funding under this section shall 151186
use the funds for the implementation and administration of 151187
programs and duties under section 107.21 of the Revised Code.151188

       TECHNOLOGY PROGRAMS AND GRANTS151189

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 195532, Technology 151190
Programs and Grants, up to $547,341 in each fiscal year shall be 151191
used for operating expenses incurred in administering the Ohio 151192
Third Frontier pursuant to sections 184.10 to 184.20 of the 151193
Revised Code; and up to $13,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be 151194
used for the Thomas Edison Program pursuant to sections 122.28 to 151195
122.38 of the Revised Code, of which not less than $7,650,000 151196
shall be allocated for the Edison Center Network entities defined 151197
in division (C) of section 122.33 of the Revised Code, $2,000,000 151198
of which shall be allocated on a competitive basis among the 151199
entities, and not more than ten per cent shall be used for 151200
operating expenses incurred in administering the program.151201

       BUSINESS ASSISTANCE151202

        The foregoing appropriation item 195533, Business Assistance, 151203
may be used to provide a range of business assistance, including 151204
grants to local organizations to support economic development 151205
activities that promote minority business development, small 151206
business development, entrepreneurship, and exports of Ohio's 151207
goods and services. This appropriation item shall also be used as 151208
matching funds for grants from the United States Small Business 151209
Administration and other federal agencies, pursuant to Public Law 151210
No. 96-302 as amended by Public Law No. 98-395, and regulations 151211
and policy guidelines for the programs pursuant thereto.151212

       APPALACHIA ASSISTANCE151213

       The foregoing appropriation item 195535, Appalachia 151214
Assistance, may be used for the administrative costs of planning 151215
and liaison activities for the Governor's Office of Appalachia, to 151216
provide financial assistance to projects in Ohio's Appalachian 151217
counties, and to pay dues for the Appalachian Regional Commission. 151218
These funds may be used to match federal funds from the 151219
Appalachian Regional Commission.151220

       OHIO-ISRAEL AGRICULTURE INITIATIVE151221

        The foregoing appropriation item 195537, Ohio-Israel 151222
Agricultural Initiative, shall be used for the Ohio-Israel 151223
Agricultural Initiative.151224

       COAL RESEARCH AND DEVELOPMENT GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE151225

       The foregoing appropriation line item 195901, Coal Research 151226
and Development General Obligation Debt Service, shall be used to 151227
pay all debt service and related financing costs during the period 151228
July 1, 2013, through June 30, 2015 for obligations issued under 151229
sections 151.01 and 151.07 of the Revised Code.151230

       THIRD FRONTIER RESEARCH & DEVELOPMENT GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT 151231
SERVICE151232

       The foregoing appropriation item 195905, Third Frontier 151233
Research & Development General Obligation Debt Service, shall be 151234
used to pay all debt service and related financing costs during 151235
the period from July 1, 2013, through June 30, 2015, on 151236
obligations issued for research and development purposes under 151237
sections 151.01 and 151.10 of the Revised Code.151238

       JOB READY SITE DEVELOPMENT GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE151239

       The foregoing appropriation item 195912, Job Ready Site 151240
Development General Obligation Debt Service, shall be used to pay 151241
all debt service and related financing costs during the period 151242
from July 1, 2013, through June 30, 2015, on obligations issued 151243
for job ready site development purposes under sections 151.01 and 151244
151.11 of the Revised Code.151245

       Section 257.30.  DEVELOPMENT SERVICES OPERATIONS151246

       The Director of Development Services may assess offices of 151247
the agency for the cost of central service operations. An 151248
assessment shall contain the characteristics of administrative 151249
ease and uniform application. A division's payments shall be 151250
credited to the Supportive Services Fund (Fund 1350) using an 151251
intrastate transfer voucher.151252

       LOCAL GOVERNMENT INNOVATION FUND151253

       The foregoing appropriation item 195640, Local Government 151254
Innovation, shall be used for the purposes of making loans and 151255
grants to political subdivisions under the Local Government 151256
Innovation Program in accordance with sections 189.01 to 189.10 of 151257
the Revised Code. Of the foregoing appropriation item 195640, 151258
Local Government Innovation, up to $175,000 in each fiscal year 151259
shall be used for administrative costs incurred by the Development 151260
Services Agency.151261

       TRAVEL AND TOURISM COOPERATIVE PROJECTS151262

       The foregoing appropriation item 195690, Travel and Tourism 151263
Cooperative Projects, shall consist solely of leveraged private 151264
sector paid advertising dollars received in tourism marketing 151265
assistance and co-op programs. These funds are to be used for the 151266
marketing and promotion of travel and tourism in Ohio.151267

        DEVELOPMENT SERVICES REIMBURSABLE EXPENDITURES151268

       The foregoing appropriation item 195636, Development Services 151269
Reimbursable Expenditures, shall be used for reimbursable costs 151270
incurred by the agency. Revenues to the General Reimbursement Fund 151271
(Fund 6850) shall consist of moneys charged for administrative 151272
costs that are not central service costs.151273

       Section 257.40. WORKFORCE DEVELOPMENT INITIATIVES151274

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 195643, Workforce 151275
Development Initiatives, $500,000 in fiscal year 2014 shall be 151276
used to fund the Heavy Machinery Pilot Program at Central Ohio 151277
Technical College for tuition support and reimbursement to train 151278
approximately 30 students for careers in construction and the oil 151279
and gas industries in Eastern Ohio and statewide.151280

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 195643, Workforce 151281
Development Initiative, $500,000 in each fiscal year shall be used 151282
for grants to BioOhio to support the Bioscience Workforce 151283
Development Initiative for training incumbent and prospective 151284
workers in the bioscience manufacturing industry in partnership 151285
with community colleges. BioOhio shall provide an annual report to 151286
the Office of the Governor and the General Assembly assessing the 151287
progress of the BioScience Workforce Development Initiative, and 151288
the report shall include enrollment and placement statistics.151289

       HEAP WEATHERIZATION 151290

       Up to twenty-five per cent of the federal funds deposited to 151291
the credit of the Home Energy Assistance Block Grant Fund (Fund 151292
3K90) may be expended from appropriation item 195614, HEAP 151293
Weatherization, to provide home weatherization services in the 151294
state as determined by the Director of Development Services. Any 151295
transfers or increases in appropriation for the foregoing 151296
appropriation items 195614, HEAP Weatherization, or 195611, Home 151297
Energy Assistance Block Grant, shall be subject to approval by the 151298
Controlling Board.151299

       Section 257.50. BUSINESS ASSISTANCE PROGRAMS151300

       The foregoing appropriation item 195649, Business Assistance 151301
Programs, shall be used for administrative expenses associated 151302
with the operation of tax credit programs, loan servicing, the 151303
Ohio Film Office, workforce initiatives, and the Office of 151304
Strategic Business Investments.151305

        STATE SPECIAL PROJECTS151306

       The State Special Projects Fund (Fund 4F20), may be used for 151307
the deposit of private-sector funds from utility companies and for 151308
the deposit of other miscellaneous state funds. State moneys so 151309
deposited may also be used to match federal housing grants for the 151310
homeless. 151311

       MINORITY BUSINESS ENTERPRISE LOAN151312

       All repayments from the Minority Development Financing 151313
Advisory Board Loan Program and the Ohio Mini-Loan Guarantee 151314
Program shall be deposited in the State Treasury to the credit of 151315
the Minority Business Enterprise Loan Fund (Fund 4W10).151316

       MINORITY BUSINESS BONDING FUND151317

       Notwithstanding Chapters 122., 169., and 175. of the Revised 151318
Code, the Director of Development Services may, upon the 151319
recommendation of the Minority Development Financing Advisory 151320
Board, pledge up to $10,000,000 in the fiscal year 2014-fiscal 151321
year 2015 biennium of unclaimed funds administered by the Director 151322
of Commerce and allocated to the Minority Business Bonding Program 151323
under section 169.05 of the Revised Code.151324

       If needed for the payment of losses arising from the Minority 151325
Business Bonding Program, the Director of Budget and Management 151326
may, at the request of the Director of Development Services, 151327
request that the Director of Commerce transfer unclaimed funds 151328
that have been reported by holders of unclaimed funds under 151329
section 169.05 of the Revised Code to the Minority Bonding Fund 151330
(Fund 4490). The transfer of unclaimed funds shall only occur 151331
after proceeds of the initial transfer of $2,700,000 by the 151332
Controlling Board to the Minority Business Bonding Program have 151333
been used for that purpose. If expenditures are required for 151334
payment of losses arising from the Minority Business Bonding 151335
Program, such expenditures shall be made from appropriation item 151336
195658, Minority Business Bonding Contingency in the Minority 151337
Business Bonding Fund, and such amounts are hereby appropriated.151338

        INCUMBENT WORKFORCE TRAINING VOUCHERS151339

       (A) The Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to 151340
$30,000,000 cash in each fiscal year from the Economic Development 151341
Programs Fund (Fund 5JC0) used by the Board of Regents to the Ohio 151342
Incumbent Workforce Job Training Fund (Fund 5HR0) used by the 151343
Development Services Agency.151344

        (B) Of the foregoing appropriation item 195526, Incumbent 151345
Workforce Training Vouchers, up to $30,000,000 in each fiscal year 151346
shall be used to support the Ohio Incumbent Workforce Training 151347
Voucher Program. 151348

        (C) The Ohio Incumbent Workforce Training Voucher Program 151349
shall conform to guidelines for the operation of the program, 151350
including, but not limited to, the following:151351

        (1) A requirement that a training voucher under the program 151352
shall not exceed $6,000 per worker per year;151353

       (2) A provision for an employer of an eligible employee to 151354
apply for a voucher on behalf of the eligible employee;151355

        (3) A provision for an eligible employee to apply directly 151356
for a training voucher with the pre-approval of the employee's 151357
employer; and151358

        (4) A requirement that an employee participating in the 151359
program, or the employee's employer, shall pay for not less than 151360
thirty-three per cent of the training costs under the program.151361

       On July 1, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 151362
Director of Development Services may request that the Director of 151363
Budget and Management reappropriate any unexpended, unencumbered 151364
balance of the prior fiscal year's appropriation to the foregoing 151365
appropriation item 195526, Incumbent Workforce Training Vouchers, 151366
for fiscal year 2015. The Director of Budget and Management may 151367
request additional information necessary for evaluating the 151368
request, and the Director of Development Services shall provide 151369
the requested information to the Director of Budget and 151370
Management. Based on the information provided by the Director of 151371
Development Services, the Director of Budget and Management shall 151372
determine the amount to be reappropriated, and those amounts are 151373
hereby reappropriated for fiscal year 2015.151374

       DEFENSE DEVELOPMENT ASSISTANCE151375

       The Director of Budget and Management shall transfer up to 151376
$5,000,000 in cash in each fiscal year from the Economic 151377
Development Programs Fund (Fund 5JC0) used by the Board of Regents 151378
to the Ohio Incumbent Workforce Job Training Fund (Fund 5HR0) used 151379
by the Development Services Agency. The transferred funds shall be 151380
used for appropriation item 195622, Defense Development 151381
Assistance, for economic development programs and the creation of 151382
new jobs to leverage and support mission gains at Department of 151383
Defense facilities in Ohio by working with future base realignment 151384
and closure activities and ongoing Department of Defense 151385
efficiency initiatives, assisting efforts to secure Department of 151386
Defense support contracts for Ohio companies, assessing and 151387
supporting regional job training and workforce development needs 151388
generated by the Department of Defense and the Ohio aerospace 151389
industry, and for expanding job training and economic development 151390
programs in human performance related initiatives. A portion of 151391
these funds shall be matched in the aggregate amount of $5,000,000 151392
by either public or private industry partners, educational 151393
entities, or federal agencies.151394

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 195622, Defense 151395
Development Assistance, $3,000,000 shall be used by Applied 151396
Research Corporation to support education or research projects 151397
conducted by public-private partnerships in Ohio that seek to 151398
develop and train the workforce of Ohio in all industries.151399

       On July 1, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 151400
Director of Development Services may request that the Director of 151401
Budget and Management reappropriate any unexpended, unencumbered 151402
balance of the prior fiscal year's appropriation to the foregoing 151403
appropriation item 195622, Defense Development Assistance, for 151404
fiscal year 2015. The Director of Budget and Management may 151405
request additional information necessary for evaluating the 151406
request, and the Director of Development Services shall provide 151407
the requested information to the Director of Budget and 151408
Management. Based on the information provided by the Director of 151409
Development Services, the Director of Budget and Management shall 151410
determine the amount to be reappropriated, and those amounts are 151411
hereby reappropriated for fiscal year 2015. 151412

        ADVANCED ENERGY LOAN PROGRAMS151413

       The foregoing appropriation item 195660, Advanced Energy Loan 151414
Programs, shall be used to provide financial assistance to 151415
customers for eligible advanced energy projects for residential, 151416
commercial, and industrial business, local government, educational 151417
institution, nonprofit, and agriculture customers, and to pay for 151418
the program's administrative costs as provided in sections 4928.61 151419
to 4928.63 of the Revised Code and rules adopted by the Director 151420
of Development Services.151421

       TOURISMOHIO ADMINISTRATION151422

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 195683, TourismOhio 151423
Administration, $1,000,000 in fiscal year 2014 shall be used to 151424
administer a program established by the Development Services 151425
Agency pursuant to section 122.121 of the Revised Code.151426

       VOLUME CAP ADMINISTRATION151427

       The foregoing appropriation item 195654, Volume Cap 151428
Administration, shall be used for expenses related to the 151429
administration of the Volume Cap Program. Revenues received by the 151430
Volume Cap Administration Fund (Fund 6170) shall consist of 151431
application fees, forfeited deposits, and interest earned from the 151432
custodial account held by the Treasurer of State.151433

       Section 257.60.  CAPITAL ACCESS LOAN PROGRAM151434

       The foregoing appropriation item 195628, Capital Access Loan 151435
Program, shall be used for operating, program, and administrative 151436
expenses of the program. Funds of the Capital Access Loan Program 151437
shall be used to assist participating financial institutions in 151438
making program loans to eligible businesses that face barriers in 151439
accessing working capital and obtaining fixed-asset financing.151440

       INNOVATION OHIO LOAN FUND151441

        The foregoing appropriation item 195664, Innovation Ohio, 151442
shall be used to provide for Innovation Ohio purposes, including 151443
loan guarantees and loans under Chapter 166. and particularly 151444
sections 166.12 to 166.16 of the Revised Code.151445

       RESEARCH AND DEVELOPMENT151446

       The foregoing appropriation item 195665, Research and 151447
Development, shall be used to provide for research and development 151448
purposes, including loans, under Chapter 166. and particularly 151449
sections 166.17 to 166.21 of the Revised Code.151450

       FACILITIES ESTABLISHMENT 151451

       The foregoing appropriation item 195615, Facilities 151452
Establishment, shall be used for the purposes of the Facilities 151453
Establishment Fund (Fund 7037) under Chapter 166. of the Revised 151454
Code.151455

       Notwithstanding Chapter 166. of the Revised Code, an amount 151456
not to exceed $3,000,000 in cash in each fiscal year may be 151457
transferred from the Facilities Establishment Fund (Fund 7037) to 151458
the Business Assistance Fund (Fund 4510). The transfer is subject 151459
to Controlling Board approval under division (B) of section 166.03 151460
of the Revised Code.151461

        Notwithstanding Chapter 166. of the Revised Code, the 151462
Director of Budget and Management may transfer an amount not to 151463
exceed $1,000,000 in cash in each fiscal year from the Facilities 151464
Establishment Fund (Fund 7037) to the Minority Business Enterprise 151465
Loan Fund (Fund 4W10).151466

       Notwithstanding Chapter 166. of the Revised Code, the 151467
Director of Budget and Management may transfer an amount not to 151468
exceed $2,000,000 in cash in each fiscal year from the Facilities 151469
Establishment Fund (Fund 7037) to the Capital Access Loan Fund 151470
(Fund 5S90).151471

       Section 257.70. CLEAN OHIO OPERATING EXPENSES151472

       The foregoing appropriation item 195663, Clean Ohio Program, 151473
shall be used by the Development Services Agency in administering 151474
Clean Ohio Revitalization Fund (Fund 7003) projects pursuant to 151475
sections 122.65 to 122.658 of the Revised Code.151476

       Section 257.80.  THIRD FRONTIER OPERATING151477

       The foregoing appropriation items 195686, Third Frontier 151478
Operating, and 195620, Third Frontier Operating - Tax, shall be 151479
used for operating expenses incurred by the Development Services 151480
Agency in administering projects pursuant to sections 184.10 to 151481
184.20 of the Revised Code. Operating expenses paid from item 151482
195686 shall be limited to the administration of projects funded 151483
from the Third Frontier Research & Development Fund (Fund 7011) 151484
and operating expenses paid from item 195620 shall be limited to 151485
the administration of projects funded from the Third Frontier 151486
Research & Development Taxable Bond Project Fund (Fund 7014).151487

       THIRD FRONTIER RESEARCH AND DEVELOPMENT PROJECTS AND RESEARCH 151488
AND DEVELOPMENT TAXABLE BOND PROJECTS151489

        The foregoing appropriation items 195687, Third Frontier 151490
Research & Development Projects, 195692, Research & Development 151491
Taxable Bond Projects, and 195620, Third Frontier Operating - Tax, 151492
shall be used by the Development Services Agency to fund selected 151493
projects. Eligible costs are those costs of research and 151494
development projects to which the proceeds of the Third Frontier 151495
Research & Development Fund (Fund 7011) and the Research & 151496
Development Taxable Bond Project Fund (Fund 7014) are to be 151497
applied.151498

        TRANSFERS OF THIRD FRONTIER APPROPRIATIONS151499

        The Director of Budget and Management may approve written 151500
requests from the Director of Development Services for the 151501
transfer of appropriations between appropriation items 195687, 151502
Third Frontier Research & Development Projects, and 195692, 151503
Research & Development Taxable Bond Projects, based upon awards 151504
recommended by the Third Frontier Commission. The transfers are 151505
subject to approval by the Controlling Board.151506

       In fiscal year 2015, the Director of Development Services may 151507
request that the Director of Budget and Management reappropriate 151508
any unexpended, unencumbered balances of the prior fiscal year's 151509
appropriation to the foregoing appropriation items 195687, Third 151510
Frontier Research & Development Projects, and 195692, Research & 151511
Development Taxable Bond Projects, for fiscal year 2015. The 151512
Director of Budget and Management may request additional 151513
information necessary for evaluating these requests, and the 151514
Director of Development Services shall provide the requested 151515
information to the Director of Budget and Management. Based on the 151516
information provided by the Director of Development Services, the 151517
Director of Budget and Management shall determine the amounts to 151518
be reappropriated, and those amounts are hereby reappropriated for 151519
fiscal year 2015.151520

        AUTHORITY TO ISSUE AND SELL ORIGINAL OBLIGATIONS151521

        The Ohio Public Facilities Commission is hereby authorized to 151522
issue and sell, in accordance with Section 2p of Article VIII, 151523
Ohio Constitution, and particularly sections 151.01 and 151.10 of 151524
the Revised Code, original obligations of the State of Ohio in an 151525
aggregate amount not to exceed $350,000,000 in addition to the 151526
original issuance of obligations authorized by prior acts of the 151527
General Assembly. The authorized obligations shall be issued and 151528
sold from time to time and in amounts necessary to ensure 151529
sufficient moneys to the credit of the Third Frontier Research and 151530
Development Fund (Fund 7011) and the Third Frontier Research and 151531
Development Taxable Bond Fund (Fund 7014) to pay costs of research 151532
and development projects.151533

       Section 257.90. JOB READY SITE PROGRAM151534

       The foregoing appropriation item 195688, Job Ready Site 151535
Development, shall be used for operating expenses incurred by the 151536
Development Services Agency in administering Job Ready Site 151537
Development Fund (Fund 7012) projects pursuant to sections 122.085 151538
to 122.0820 of the Revised Code. Operating expenses include, but 151539
are not limited to, certain qualified expenses of the District 151540
Public Works Integrating Committees, as applicable, engineering 151541
review of submitted applications by the State Architect or a 151542
third-party engineering firm, audit and accountability activities, 151543
and costs associated with formal certifications verifying that 151544
site infrastructure is in place and is functional.151545

       Section 257.110.  (A) ASSORTED TRANSFERS FOR RESTRUCTURING151546

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 151547
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to the cash 151548
balances in the Tax Incentive Program Operating Fund (Fund 4S00) 151549
and the Tax Credit Operating Fund (Fund 4S10) to the Business 151550
Assistance Fund (Fund 4510).151551

        On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 151552
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to the cash 151553
balances in the Family Farm Loan Fund (Fund 5H10) and the First 151554
Frontier Fund (Fund 4H40) to the Facility Establishment Fund (Fund 151555
7037).151556

        On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 151557
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to the cash 151558
balance in the Brownfield Stormwater Loan Fund (Fund 5KD0) to the 151559
New Markets Tax Credit Program Fund (Fund 5JR0).151560

        On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 151561
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to the cash 151562
balances in the Water and Sewer Fund (Fund 4440) and the Water and 151563
Sewer Administrative Fund (Fund 6110) to the General 151564
Reimbursements Fund (Fund 6850).151565

        On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 151566
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to the cash 151567
balance in the Local Government Services Collaboration Grant Fund 151568
(Fund 7088) to the Local Government Innovation Fund (Fund 5KN0).151569

        (B) ABOLISHMENT OF FUNDS151570

        On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, upon 151571
completion of a transfer of the cash balance in a fund as 151572
described in division (A) of this section by the Director of 151573
Budget and Management, notwithstanding the establishment authority 151574
of the fund, the fund is hereby abolished.151575

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 151576
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 151577
in the Rapid Outreach Loan Fund (Fund 7022) to the Facilities 151578
Establishment Fund (Fund 7037). After completion of the transfer 151579
and on the effective date of its repeal by this act, Fund 7022 151580
shall be abolished.151581

       The following funds are determined to be dormant and shall be 151582
abolished on the effective date of their repeal by this act: 151583
Diesel Emissions Grant Fund (Fund 3BD0), Shovel Ready Sites Fund 151584
(Fund 5CA0), Energy Projects Fund (Fund 5DU0), Business 151585
Development and Assistance Fund (Fund 5LK0), Clean Ohio 151586
Revitalization Revolving Loan Fund (Fund 7007), and Logistics & 151587
Distribution Infrastructure Taxable Bond Fund (Fund 7048).151588

       (C) ELIMINATION OF DORMANT FUNDS151589

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 151590
Director of Budget and Management may determine whether the 151591
following funds are dormant. If the Director of Budget and 151592
Management determines a fund to be dormant, notwithstanding the 151593
establishment authority of the fund, the fund is hereby abolished. 151594
The funds are: 151595

Fund Number Fund Name 151596
1360 International Trade 151597
3800 Ohio Housing Agency 151598
3BJ0 TANF Heating Assistance 151599
3X30 TANF Housing 151600
4450 OHFA Administration 151601
4480 Ohio Coal Development 151602
4D00 Public & Private Assistance 151603
5CV0 Defense Conversion Assistance 151604
5D10 Port Authority Bond Reserves 151605
5D20 Urban Redevelopment Loan 151606
5F70 Local Government Y2K Loan Program 151607
5X50 Family Homelessness Prevention Pilot 151608
5Y60 Economic Development Contingency 151609
5Z30 Jobs 151610
QA70 Electric Revenue Development 151611

       Section 259.10. DDD DEPARTMENT OF DEVELOPMENTAL DISABILITIES151612

General Revenue Fund151613

GRF 320412 Protective Services $ 1,918,196 $ 1,918,196 151614
GRF 320415 Lease-Rental Payments $ 15,843,300 $ 16,076,700 151615
GRF 322420 Screening and Early Intervention $ 300,000 $ 300,000 151616
GRF 322451 Family Support Services $ 5,932,758 $ 5,932,758 151617
GRF 322501 County Boards Subsidies $ 44,449,280 $ 44,449,280 151618
GRF 322503 Tax Equity $ 14,000,000 $ 14,000,000 151619
GRF 322507 County Board Case Management $ 2,500,000 $ 2,500,000 151620
GRF 322508 Employment First Pilot Program $ 3,000,000 $ 3,000,000 151621
GRF 653321 Medicaid Program Support - State $ 6,186,694 $ 6,186,694 151622
GRF 653407 Medicaid Services $ 430,056,111 $ 437,574,237 151623
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 524,186,339 $ 531,937,865 151624

General Services Fund Group151625

1520 653609 DC and Residential Operating Services $ 3,414,317 $ 3,414,317 151626
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 3,414,317 $ 3,414,317 151627

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group151628

3A50 320613 DD Council $ 3,297,656 $ 3,324,187 151629
3250 322612 Community Social Service Programs $ 10,604,896 $ 10,604,896 151630
3A40 653604 DC & ICF/IID Program Support $ 8,013,611 $ 8,013,611 151631
3A40 653605 DC and Residential Services and Support $ 159,548,565 159,548,565 151632
3A40 653653 ICF/IID $ 354,712,840 $ 353,895,717 151633
3G60 653639 Medicaid Waiver Services $ 932,073,249 $ 1,025,921,683 151634
3G60 653640 Medicaid Waiver Program Support $ 36,934,303 $ 36,170,872 151635
3M70 653650 CAFS Medicaid $ 3,000,000 $ 3,000,000 151636
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 1,508,185,120 $ 1,600,479,531 151637

State Special Revenue Fund Group151638

5GE0 320606 Operating and Services $ 7,407,297 $ 7,407,297 151639
2210 322620 Supplement Service Trust $ 150,000 $ 150,000 151640
5DJ0 322625 Targeted Case Management Match $ 33,750,000 $ 37,260,000 151641
5DK0 322629 Capital Replacement Facilities $ 750,000 $ 750,000 151642
5H00 322619 Medicaid Repayment $ 160,000 $ 160,000 151643
5JX0 322651 Interagency Workgroup - Autism $ 45,000 45,000 151644
4890 653632 DC Direct Care Services $ 16,497,169 $ 16,497,169 151645
5CT0 653607 Intensive Behavioral Needs $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 151646
5DJ0 653626 Targeted Case Management Services $ 91,740,000 $ 100,910,000 151647
5EV0 653627 Medicaid Program Support $ 685,000 $ 685,000 151648
5GE0 653606 ICF/IID and Waiver Match $ 40,353,139 $ 39,106,638 151649
5S20 653622 Medicaid Admin and Oversight $ 17,341,201 $ 19,032,154 151650
5Z10 653624 County Board Waiver Match $ 284,740,000 $ 336,480,000 151651
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 494,618,806 $ 559,483,258 151652
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 2,530,404,582 $ 2,695,314,971 151653


       Section 259.20. LEASE-RENTAL PAYMENTS151655

       The foregoing appropriation item 320415, Lease-Rental 151656
Payments, shall be used to meet all payments at the times they are 151657
required to be made during the period from July 1, 2013, through 151658
June 30, 2015, by the Department of Developmental Disabilities 151659
under leases and agreements made under section 154.20 of the 151660
Revised Code. These appropriations are the source of funds pledged 151661
for bond service charges on related obligations issued under 151662
Chapter 154. of the Revised Code.151663

       Section 259.30. SCREENING AND EARLY INTERVENTION151664

       The foregoing appropriation item 322420, Screening and Early 151665
Intervention, shall be used for screening and early intervention 151666
programs for children with autism selected by the Director of 151667
Developmental Disabilities.151668

       Section 259.40.  FAMILY SUPPORT SERVICES SUBSIDY151669

        The foregoing appropriation item 322451, Family Support 151670
Services, may be used as follows in fiscal year 2014 and fiscal 151671
year 2015:151672

       (A) The appropriation item may be used to provide a subsidy 151673
to county boards of developmental disabilities for family support 151674
services provided under section 5126.11 of the Revised Code. The 151675
subsidy shall be paid in quarterly installments and allocated to 151676
county boards according to a formula the Director of Developmental 151677
Disabilities shall develop in consultation with representatives of 151678
county boards. A county board shall use not more than seven per 151679
cent of its subsidy for administrative costs.151680

       (B) The appropriation item may be used to distribute funds to 151681
county boards for the purpose of addressing economic hardships and 151682
to promote efficiency of operations. In consultation with 151683
representatives of county boards, the Director shall determine the 151684
amount of funds to distribute for these purposes and the criteria 151685
for distributing the funds.151686

       Section 259.50. STATE SUBSIDY TO COUNTY DD BOARDS151687

       (A) Except as provided in the section of this act titled 151688
"NONFEDERAL SHARE OF ICF/IID SERVICES," the foregoing 151689
appropriation item 322501, County Boards Subsidies, shall be used 151690
for the following purposes:151691

       (1) To provide a subsidy to county boards of developmental 151692
disabilities in quarterly installments and allocated according to 151693
a formula developed by the Director of Developmental Disabilities 151694
in consultation with representatives of county boards. Except as 151695
provided in section 5126.0511 of the Revised Code or in division 151696
(B) of this section, county boards shall use the subsidy for early 151697
childhood services and adult services provided under section 151698
5126.05 of the Revised Code, service and support administration 151699
provided under section 5126.15 of the Revised Code, or supported 151700
living as defined in section 5126.01 of the Revised Code.151701

       (2) To provide funding, as determined necessary by the 151702
Director, for residential services, including room and board, and 151703
support service programs that enable individuals with 151704
developmental disabilities to live in the community.151705

       (3) To distribute funds to county boards of developmental 151706
disabilities to address economic hardships and promote efficiency 151707
of operations. The Director shall determine, in consultation with 151708
representatives of county boards, the amount of funds to 151709
distribute for these purposes and the criteria for distributing 151710
the funds.151711

       (B) In collaboration with the county's family and children 151712
first council, a county board of developmental disabilities may 151713
transfer portions of funds received under this section, to a 151714
flexible funding pool in accordance with the section of this act 151715
titled "FAMILY AND CHILDREN FIRST FLEXIBLE FUNDING POOL." 151716

       Section 259.60. COUNTY BOARD SHARE OF WAIVER SERVICES151717

        As used in this section, "home and community-based services" 151718
has the same meaning as in section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.151719

        The Director of Developmental Disabilities shall establish a 151720
methodology to be used in fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015 to 151721
estimate the quarterly amount each county board of developmental 151722
disabilities is to pay of the nonfederal share of home and 151723
community-based services that section 5126.0510 of the Revised 151724
Code requires county boards to pay. Each quarter, the Director 151725
shall submit to a county board written notice of the amount the 151726
county board is to pay for that quarter. The notice shall specify 151727
when the payment is due.151728

       Section 259.70. TAX EQUITY151729

       Notwithstanding section 5126.18 of the Revised Code, the 151730
foregoing appropriation item 322503, Tax Equity, may be used to 151731
distribute funds to county boards of developmental disabilities to 151732
address economic hardships and promote efficiency of operations. 151733
The Director of Developmental Disabilities shall determine, in 151734
consultation with representatives of county boards, the amount of 151735
funds to distribute for these purposes and the criteria for 151736
distributing the funds.151737

       Section 259.80. MEDICAID SERVICES151738

       Except as provided in section 5123.0416 of the Revised Code, 151739
the purposes for which the foregoing appropriation item 653407, 151740
Medicaid Services, shall be used include the following:151741

       (A) Home and community-based services, as defined in section 151742
5123.01 of the Revised Code;151743

       (B) Implementation of the requirements of the agreement 151744
settling the consent decree in Sermak v. Manuel, Case No. 151745
C-2-80-220, United States District Court for the Southern District 151746
of Ohio, Eastern Division;151747

       (C) Implementation of the requirements of the agreement 151748
settling the consent decree in the Martin v. Strickland, Case No. 151749
89-CV-00362, United States District Court for the Southern 151750
District of Ohio, Eastern Division;151751

       (D) ICF/IID services, as defined in section 5124.01 of the 151752
Revised Code;151753

       (E) Other programs as identified by the Director of 151754
Developmental Disabilities. 151755

       Section 259.90.  EMPLOYMENT FIRST PILOT PROGRAM151756

       The foregoing appropriation item 322508, Employment First 151757
Pilot Program, shall be used to increase employment opportunities 151758
for individuals with developmental disabilities through the 151759
Employment First Initiative in accordance with section 5123.022 of 151760
the Revised Code.151761

       Of the foregoing appropriation item, 322508, Employment First 151762
Pilot Program, the Director of Developmental Disabilities shall 151763
transfer, in each fiscal year, to the Opportunities for Ohioans 151764
with Disabilities Agency an amount agreed upon by the Director of 151765
Developmental Disabilities and the Executive Director of the 151766
Opportunities for Ohioans with Disabilities Agency. The transfer 151767
shall be made via an intrastate transfer voucher. The transferred 151768
funds shall be used to support the Employment First Pilot Program. 151769
The Opportunities for Ohioans with Disabilities Agency shall use 151770
the funds transferred as state matching funds to obtain available 151771
federal grant dollars for vocational rehabilitation services. Any 151772
federal match dollars received by the Opportunities for Ohioans 151773
with Disabilities Agency shall be used for the pilot program. The 151774
Director of Developmental Disabilities and the Executive Director 151775
of the Opportunities for Ohioans with Disabilities Agency shall 151776
enter into an interagency agreement in accordance with section 151777
3304.181 of the Revised Code that will specify the 151778
responsibilities of each agency under the pilot program. Under the 151779
interagency agreement, the Opportunities for Ohioans with 151780
Disabilities Agency shall retain responsibility for eligibility 151781
determination, order of selection, plan approval, plan amendment, 151782
and release of vendor payments.151783

       The remainder of appropriation item 322508, Employment First 151784
Pilot Program, shall be used to develop a long term, sustainable 151785
system that places individuals with developmental disabilities in 151786
community employment, as defined in section 5126.01 of the Revised 151787
Code. 151788

       Section 259.100.  EMPLOYMENT FIRST TASKFORCE FUND151789

       If an employment first task force is established by the 151790
Director of Developmental Disabilities in accordance with section 151791
5123.023 of the Revised Code, the Director of Budget and 151792
Management shall establish an appropriation item from the 151793
Employment First Taskforce Fund for use by the Department of 151794
Developmental Disabilities to support the work of the task force. 151795
In fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, if an employment first 151796
task force is established, the Director of Developmental 151797
Disabilities shall certify to the Director of Budget and 151798
Management the appropriation amounts necessary for the Department 151799
of Developmental Disabilities to fulfill its obligation to support 151800
the work of the task force. Once the certification required under 151801
this section has been submitted and approved by the Director of 151802
Budget and Management, the appropriations established under this 151803
section are hereby appropriated in the amounts approved by the 151804
Director of Budget and Management. 151805

       Section 259.110. TRANSFER TO OPERATING AND SERVICES FUND151806

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 151807
Director of Developmental Disabilities shall request the Director 151808
of Budget and Management to transfer the cash balance in the Home 151809
and Community-Based Services Fund (Fund 4K80) to the Operating and 151810
Services Fund (Fund 5GE0). Upon completion of the transfer, Fund 151811
4K80 is hereby abolished. The Director of Budget and Management 151812
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 151813
322604, Medicaid Waiver – State Match, and reestablish them 151814
against appropriation item 653606, ICF/IID and Waiver Match. The 151815
reestablished encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated.151816

       Section 259.120. OPERATING AND SERVICES151817

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 320606, Operating and 151818
Services, $100,000 in each fiscal year shall be provided to the 151819
Ohio Center for Autism and Low Incidence to establish a lifespan 151820
autism hub to support families and professionals.151821

       Section 259.130. TARGETED CASE MANAGEMENT SERVICES151822

       County boards of developmental disabilities shall pay the 151823
nonfederal portion of targeted case management costs to the 151824
Department of Developmental Disabilities.151825

       The Director of Developmental Disabilities and the Medicaid 151826
Director may enter into an interagency agreement under which the 151827
Department of Developmental Disabilities shall transfer cash from 151828
the Targeted Case Management Fund (Fund 5DJ0) to the Health 151829
Care/Medicaid Support and Recoveries Fund (Fund 5DL0) used by the 151830
Department of Medicaid in an amount equal to the nonfederal 151831
portion of the cost of targeted case management services paid by 151832
county boards. Under the agreement, the Department of Medicaid 151833
shall pay the total cost of targeted case management claims. The 151834
transfer shall be made using an intrastate transfer voucher.151835

       Section 259.140.  WITHHOLDING OF FUNDS OWED THE DEPARTMENT151836

       If a county board of developmental disabilities does not 151837
fully pay any amount owed to the Department of Developmental 151838
Disabilities by the due date established by the Department, the 151839
Director of Developmental Disabilities may withhold the amount the 151840
county board did not pay from any amounts due to the county board. 151841
The Director may use any appropriation item or fund used by the 151842
Department to transfer cash to any other fund used by the 151843
Department in an amount equal to the amount owed the Department 151844
that the county board did not pay. Transfers under this section 151845
shall be made using an intrastate transfer voucher. 151846

       Section 259.150. DEVELOPMENTAL CENTER BILLING FOR SERVICES151847

       Developmental centers of the Department of Developmental 151848
Disabilities may provide services to persons with mental 151849
retardation or developmental disabilities living in the community 151850
or to providers of services to these persons. The Department may 151851
develop a method for recovery of all costs associated with the 151852
provision of these services.151853

       Section 259.160. TRANSFER OF FUNDS FOR DEVELOPMENTAL CENTER 151854
PHARMACY PROGRAMS151855

       The Director of Developmental Disabilities shall quarterly 151856
transfer cash from the Medicaid - Medicare Fund (Fund 3A40) to the 151857
Health Care/Medicaid Support and Recoveries Fund (Fund 5DL0) used 151858
by the Department of Medicaid, in an amount equal to the 151859
nonfederal share of Medicaid prescription drug claim costs for all 151860
developmental centers paid by the Department of Medicaid. The 151861
quarterly transfer shall be made using an intrastate transfer 151862
voucher.151863

       Section 259.170. NONFEDERAL MATCH FOR ACTIVE TREATMENT 151864
SERVICES151865

        Any county funds received by the Department of Developmental 151866
Disabilities from county boards of developmental disabilities for 151867
active treatment shall be deposited in the Developmental 151868
Disabilities Operating Fund (Fund 4890).151869

       Section 259.180. ODODD INNOVATIVE PILOT PROJECTS151870

       (A) In fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, the Director of 151871
Developmental Disabilities may authorize the continuation or 151872
implementation of one or more innovative pilot projects that, in 151873
the judgment of the Director, are likely to assist in promoting 151874
the objectives of Chapter 5123. or 5126. of the Revised Code. 151875
Subject to division (B) of this section and notwithstanding any 151876
provision of Chapters 5123. and 5126. of the Revised Code and any 151877
rule adopted under either chapter, a pilot project authorized by 151878
the Director may be continued or implemented in a manner 151879
inconsistent with one or more provisions of either chapter or one 151880
or more rules adopted under either chapter. Before authorizing a 151881
pilot program, the Director shall consult with entities interested 151882
in the issue of developmental disabilities, including the Ohio 151883
Provider Resource Association, Ohio Association of County Boards 151884
of Developmental Disabilities, Ohio Health Care Association/Ohio 151885
Centers for Intellectual Disabilities, the Values and Faith 151886
Alliance, and ARC of Ohio.151887

       (B) The Director may not authorize a pilot project to be 151888
implemented in a manner that would cause the state to be out of 151889
compliance with any requirements for a program funded in whole or 151890
in part with federal funds.151891

       Section 259.190. DEPARTMENT OF DEVELOPMENTAL DISABILITIES' 151892
APPROPRIATION ITEM STRUCTURE151893

       Upon request from the Director of Developmental Disabilities, 151894
the Director of Budget and Management may establish new funds, new 151895
appropriation items, and appropriations in order to support the 151896
transition to a new appropriation item structure in the Department 151897
of Developmental Disabilities' budget. Also, upon request of the 151898
Director of Developmental Disabilities, the Director of Budget and 151899
Management may transfer appropriations between GRF appropriation 151900
items, transfer cash between any funds used by the Department of 151901
Developmental Disabilities, abolish existing funds used by the 151902
Department of Developmental Disabilities, and cancel and 151903
reestablish encumbrances. Any establishment of new funds or 151904
appropriation items, any transfers of appropriations or cash, and 151905
any increases in appropriation under this section are subject to 151906
Controlling Board approval.151907

       Section 259.200.  FISCAL YEAR 2014 MEDICAID PAYMENT RATES FOR 151908
ICFs/IID151909

       (A) As used in this section:151910

       "Change of operator," "entering operator," "exiting 151911
operator," "ICF/IID," "ICF/IID services," "Medicaid days," "new 151912
ICF/IID," "provider," and "provider agreement" have the same 151913
meanings as in section 5124.01 of the Revised Code.151914

       "Franchise permit fee" means the fee imposed by sections 151915
5168.60 to 5168.71 of the Revised Code.151916

       "Modified per diem rate" means the total per Medicaid day 151917
payment rate calculated for an ICF/IID under division (C) of this 151918
section.151919

       "Unmodified per diem rate" means the total per Medicaid day 151920
payment rate calculated for an ICF/IID under Chapter 5124. of the 151921
Revised Code. In the case of a new ICF/IID, "unmodified per diem 151922
rate" means the initial total per Medicaid day payment rate 151923
calculated for the new ICF/IID under section 5124.151 of the 151924
Revised Code.151925

       (B) This section applies to each ICF/IID provider to which 151926
any of the following applies:151927

       (1) The provider has a valid Medicaid provider agreement for 151928
the ICF/IID on June 30, 2013, and a valid Medicaid provider 151929
agreement for the ICF/IID during fiscal year 2014.151930

       (2) The ICF/IID undergoes a change of operator that takes 151931
effect during fiscal year 2014, the exiting operator has a valid 151932
Medicaid provider agreement for the ICF/IID on the day immediately 151933
preceding the effective date of the change of operator, and the 151934
entering operator has a valid Medicaid provider agreement for the 151935
ICF/IID during fiscal year 2014.151936

       (3) The ICF/IID is a new ICF/IID for which the provider 151937
obtains an initial provider agreement during fiscal year 2014.151938

       (C)(1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, an 151939
ICF/IID provider to which this section applies shall be paid, for 151940
ICF/IID services the ICF/IID provides during fiscal year 2014, the 151941
total modified per diem rate determined for the ICF/IID under this 151942
division.151943

       (2) Except in the case of a new ICF/IID, an ICF/IID's total 151944
modified per diem rate for fiscal year 2014 shall be the ICF/IID's 151945
total unmodified per diem rate for that fiscal year with the 151946
following modifications: 151947

       (a) In place of the inflation adjustment otherwise made under 151948
section 5124.23 of the Revised Code, the ICF/IID's desk-reviewed, 151949
actual, allowable, per diem other protected costs, excluding the 151950
franchise permit fee, from calendar year 2012 shall be multiplied 151951
by 1.014. 151952

       (b) In place of the maximum cost per case-mix unit 151953
established for the ICF/IID's peer group under division (C) of 151954
section 5124.19 of the Revised Code, the ICF/IID's maximum costs 151955
per case-mix unit shall be the following:151956

       (i) In the case of an ICF/IID with more than eight beds, 151957
$123.05;151958

       (ii) In the case of an ICF/IID with eight or fewer beds, 151959
$117.22.151960

       (c) In place of the inflation adjustment otherwise calculated 151961
under division (D) of section 5124.19 of the Revised Code for the 151962
purpose of division (A)(1)(b) of that section, an inflation 151963
adjustment of 1.014 shall be used.151964

       (d) In place of the maximum rate for indirect care costs 151965
established for the ICF/IID's peer group under division (C) of 151966
section 5124.21 of the Revised Code, the maximum rate for indirect 151967
care costs for the ICF/IID's peer group shall be the following:151968

       (i) In the case of an ICF/IID with more than eight beds, 151969
$68.98;151970

       (ii) In the case of an ICF/IID with eight or fewer beds, 151971
$59.60.151972

       (e) In place of the inflation adjustment otherwise calculated 151973
under division (D)(1) of section 5124.21 of the Revised Code for 151974
the purpose of division (B)(1) of that section only, an inflation 151975
adjustment of 1.014 shall be used.151976

       (f) In place of the efficiency incentive otherwise calculated 151977
under division (B)(2) or (3) of section 5124.21 of the Revised 151978
Code, the ICF/IID's efficiency incentive for indirect care costs 151979
shall be the following:151980

       (i) In the case of an ICF/IID with more than eight beds, 151981
$3.69;151982

       (ii) In the case of an ICF/IID with eight or fewer beds, 151983
$3.19. 151984

       (g) The ICF/IID's efficiency incentive for capital costs, as 151985
determined under division (E) of section 5124.17 of the Revised 151986
Code, shall be reduced by 50%.151987

       (3) In the case of a new ICF/IID, the ICF/IID's initial total 151988
modified per diem rate for fiscal year 2014 shall be the ICF/IID's 151989
total unmodified per diem rate for that fiscal year with the 151990
following modifications:151991

       (a) In place of the amount determined under division 151992
(A)(2)(a) of section 5124.151 of the Revised Code, if there are no 151993
cost or resident assessment data for the new ICF/IID, the new 151994
ICF/IID's initial per Medicaid day rate for direct care costs 151995
shall be determined as follows:151996

       (i) Using the costs per case-mix units determined for 151997
ICFs/IID under division (C)(3)(b) of Section 11 of Sub. H.B. 303 151998
of the 129th General Assembly, as amended by this act, determine 151999
the median of the costs per case-mix units of each peer group;152000

       (ii) Multiply the median determined under division 152001
(C)(3)(a)(i) of this section by the median of the averages 152002
determined under division (C)(3)(a) of Section 11 of Sub. H.B. 303 152003
of the 129th General Assembly, as amended by this act, for the 152004
ICFs/IID in the new ICF/IID's peer group;152005

       (iii) Multiply the product determined under division 152006
(C)(3)(a)(ii) of this section by 1.014.152007

       (b) In place of the amount determined under division (A)(3) 152008
of section 5124.151 of the Revised Code, the new ICF/IID's initial 152009
per Medicaid day rate for indirect care costs shall be the 152010
following:152011

       (i) If the new ICF/IID has more then eight beds, $68.98;152012

       (ii) If the new ICF/IID has eight or fewer beds, $59.60.152013

       (c) In place of the amount determined under division (A)(4) 152014
of section 5124.151 of the Revised Code, the new ICF/IID's initial 152015
per Medicaid day rate for other protected costs shall be one 152016
hundred fifteen per cent of the median rate for ICFs/IID 152017
determined under section 5124.23 of the Revised Code with the 152018
modification made under division (C)(2)(a) of this section.152019

       (4) A new ICF/IID's initial total modified per diem rate for 152020
fiscal year 2014 as determined under division (C)(3) of this 152021
section shall be adjusted at the applicable time specified in 152022
division (B) of section 5124.151 of the Revised Code. If the 152023
adjustment affects the ICF/IID's rate for ICF/IID services 152024
provided during fiscal year 2014, the modifications specified in 152025
division (C)(2) of this section apply to the adjustment.152026

       (D) If the mean total per diem rate for all ICFs/IID to which 152027
this section applies, weighted by May 2013 Medicaid days and 152028
determined under division (C) of this section as of July 1, 2013, 152029
is other than $282.84, the Department of Developmental 152030
Disabilities shall adjust, for fiscal year 2014, the total per 152031
diem rate for each ICF/IID to which this section applies by a 152032
percentage that is equal to the percentage by which the mean total 152033
per diem rate is greater or less than $282.84.152034

       (E) If the United States Centers for Medicare and Medicaid 152035
Services requires that the franchise permit fee be reduced or 152036
eliminated, the Department of Developmental Disabilities shall 152037
reduce the amount it pays ICF/IID providers under this section as 152038
necessary to reflect the loss to the state of the revenue and 152039
federal financial participation generated from the franchise 152040
permit fee.152041

       (F) The Department of Developmental Disabilities shall follow 152042
this section in determining the rate to be paid ICF/IID providers 152043
subject to this section notwithstanding anything to the contrary 152044
in Chapter 5124. of the Revised Code.152045

       (G) Of the foregoing appropriation items 653407, Medicaid 152046
Services, 653606, ICF/IID and Waiver Match, and 653653, ICF/IID, 152047
portions shall be used to pay the Medicaid payment rates 152048
determined in accordance with this section for ICF/IID services 152049
provided during fiscal year 2014. 152050

       Section 259.210. FISCAL YEAR 2015 MEDICAID PAYMENT RATES FOR 152051
ICFs/IID152052

       (A) As used in this section:152053

        "Change of operator," "entering operator," "exiting 152054
operator," "ICF/IID," "ICF/IID services," "Medicaid days," 152055
"provider," and "provider agreement" have the same meanings as in 152056
section 5124.01 of the Revised Code.152057

       "Franchise permit fee" means the fee imposed by sections 152058
5168.60 to 5168.71 of the Revised Code.152059

       "Modified per diem rate" means the total per Medicaid day 152060
payment rate calculated for an ICF/IID under division (C) of this 152061
section.152062

       "Unmodified per diem rate" means the total per Medicaid day 152063
payment rate calculated for an ICF/IID under Chapter 5124. of the 152064
Revised Code. In the case of a new ICF/IID, "unmodified per diem 152065
rate" means the initial total per Medicaid day payment rate 152066
calculated for the new ICF/IID under section 5124.151 of the 152067
Revised Code.152068

       (B) This section applies to each ICF/IID provider to which 152069
any of the following applies:152070

       (1) The provider has a valid Medicaid provider agreement for 152071
the ICF/IID on June 30, 2014, and a valid Medicaid provider 152072
agreement for the ICF/IID during fiscal year 2015.152073

       (2) The ICF/IID undergoes a change of operator that takes 152074
effect during fiscal year 2015, the exiting operator has a valid 152075
Medicaid provider agreement for the ICF/IID on the day immediately 152076
preceding the effective date of the change of operator, and the 152077
entering operator has a valid Medicaid provider agreement for the 152078
ICF/IID during fiscal year 2015.152079

       (3) The ICF/IID is a new ICF/IID for which the provider 152080
obtains an initial provider agreement during fiscal year 2015.152081

       (C)(1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, an 152082
ICF/IID provider to which this section applies shall be paid, for 152083
ICF/IID services the ICF/IID provides during fiscal year 2015, the 152084
total modified per diem rate determined for the ICF/IID under this 152085
division.152086

       (2) Except in the case of a new ICF/IID, an ICF/IID's total 152087
modified per diem rate for fiscal year 2015 shall be the ICF/IID's 152088
total unmodified per diem rate for that fiscal year with the 152089
following modifications: 152090

       (a) In place of the inflation adjustment otherwise made under 152091
section 5124.23 of the Revised Code, the ICF/IID's desk-reviewed, 152092
actual, allowable, per diem other protected costs, excluding the 152093
franchise permit fee, from calendar year 2013 shall be multiplied 152094
by 1.014. 152095

       (b) In place of the maximum cost per case-mix unit 152096
established for the ICF/IID's peer group under division (C) of 152097
section 5124.19 of the Revised Code, the ICF/IID's maximum costs 152098
per case-mix unit shall be the following:152099

       (i) In the case of an ICF/IID with more than eight beds, 152100
$114.37 or the different amount, if any, specified in a future 152101
amendment to this section made under division (D)(3) of this 152102
section;152103

       (ii) In the case of an ICF/IID with eight or fewer beds, 152104
$109.09 or the different amount, if any, specified in a future 152105
amendment to this section made under division (D)(3) of this 152106
section.152107

       (c) In place of the inflation adjustment otherwise calculated 152108
under division (D) of section 5124.19 of the Revised Code for the 152109
purpose of division (A)(1)(b) of that section, an inflation 152110
adjustment of 1.014 shall be used.152111

       (d) In the place of the grouper methodology prescribed, as of 152112
the day immediately before the effective date of this section, in 152113
rules authorized by section 5124.192 of the Revised Code, the new 152114
grouper methodology prescribed in rules authorized by division 152115
(D)(2)(a) of this section shall be used.152116

       (e) In place of the maximum rate for indirect care costs 152117
established for the ICF/IID's peer group under division (C) of 152118
section 5124.21 of the Revised Code, the maximum rate for indirect 152119
care costs for the ICF/IID's peer group shall be the following:152120

       (i) In the case of an ICF/IID with more than eight beds, 152121
$68.98;152122

       (ii) In the case of an ICF/IID with eight or fewer beds, 152123
$59.60. 152124

       (f) In place of the inflation adjustment otherwise calculated 152125
under divisions (D)(1) and (2) of section 5124.21 of the Revised 152126
Code for the purpose of division (B)(1) of that section only, an 152127
inflation adjustment of 1.014 shall be used.152128

       (g) In place of the efficiency incentive otherwise calculated 152129
under division (B)(2) or (3) of section 5124.21 of the Revised 152130
Code, the ICF/IID's efficiency incentive for indirect care costs 152131
shall be the following:152132

       (i) In the case of an ICF/IID with more than eight beds, 152133
$3.69;152134

       (ii) In the case of an ICF/IID with eight or fewer beds, 152135
$3.19.152136

       (h) The ICF/IID's efficiency incentive for capital costs, as 152137
determined under division (E) of section 5124.17 of the Revised 152138
Code, shall be reduced by 50%.152139

       (3) In the case of a new ICF/IID, the ICF/IID's initial total 152140
modified per diem rate for fiscal year 2015 shall be the ICF/IID's 152141
total unmodified per diem rate for that fiscal year with the 152142
following modifications:152143

       (a) In place of the amount determined under division 152144
(A)(2)(a) of section 5124.151 of the Revised Code, if there are no 152145
cost or resident assessment data for the new ICF/IID, the new 152146
ICF/IID's initial per Medicaid day rate for direct care costs 152147
shall be determined as follows:152148

       (i) Using the costs per case-mix units determined for 152149
ICFs/IID under division (C)(3)(b) of Section 11 of Sub. H.B. 303 152150
of the 129th General Assembly, as amended by this act, determine 152151
the median of the costs per case-mix units of each peer group;152152

       (ii) Multiply the median determined under division 152153
(C)(3)(a)(i) of this section by the median annual average case-mix 152154
score for the new ICF/IID's peer group for calendar year 2013;152155

       (iii) Multiply the product determined under division 152156
(C)(3)(a)(ii) of this section by 1.014.152157

       (b) In place of the amount determined under division (A)(3) 152158
of section 5124.151 of the Revised Code, the new ICF/IID's initial 152159
per Medicaid day rate for indirect care costs shall be the 152160
following:152161

       (i) If the new ICF/IID has more then eight beds, $68.98;152162

       (ii) If the new ICF/IID has eight or fewer beds, $59.60.152163

       (c) In place of the amount determined under division (A)(4) 152164
of section 5124.151 of the Revised Code, the new ICF/IID's initial 152165
per Medicaid day rate for other protected costs shall be one 152166
hundred fifteen per cent of the median rate for ICFs/IID 152167
determined under section 5124.23 of the Revised Code with the 152168
modification made under division (C)(2)(a) of this section.152169

       (4) A new ICF/IID's initial total modified per diem rate for 152170
fiscal year 2015 as determined under division (C)(3) of this 152171
section shall be adjusted at the applicable time specified in 152172
division (B) of section 5124.151 of the Revised Code. If the 152173
adjustment affects the ICF/IID's rate for ICF/IID services 152174
provided during fiscal year 2015, the modifications specified in 152175
division (C)(2) of this section apply to the adjustment.152176

       (D)(1) In consultation with the Ohio Provider Resource 152177
Association, Values and Faith Alliance, Ohio Association of County 152178
Boards of Developmental Disabilities, and Ohio Health Care 152179
Association/Ohio Centers for Intellectual Disabilities, the 152180
Director of Developmental Disabilities shall study all of the 152181
following:152182

       (a) Establishing a new grouper methodology to be used when 152183
determining ICFs/IID's case-mix scores for fiscal year 2015;152184

       (b) Whether the amounts specified in division (C)(2)(b)(i) 152185
and (ii) of this section are set at levels that will avoid or 152186
minimize rate reductions under division (E) of this section;152187

       (c) For the purposes of sections 5124.153 and 5124.154 of the 152188
Revised Code, specifying additional diagnoses and special care 152189
needs that individuals must have to meet the criteria for 152190
admission to designated outlier ICFs/IID or units;152191

       (d) Sources of funding for, or mechanisms to ensure the 152192
budget neutrality of, the additional diagnoses and special care 152193
needs studied under division (D)(1)(c) of this section.152194

       (2) Not later than March 31, 2014, the Director shall adopt 152195
rules under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code to do both of the 152196
following:152197

       (a) Prescribe the following:152198

       (i) If the Director and the organizations with which the 152199
Director consults under division (D)(1) of this section agree, not 152200
later than December 31, 2013, to the terms of a new grouper 152201
methodology to be used when determining ICFs/IID's case-mix scores 152202
for fiscal year 2015, a new methodology that is consistent with 152203
those terms;152204

       (ii) If division (D)(2)(a)(i) of this section does not apply, 152205
a new grouper methodology that provides for six classes based on 152206
data available to the Director on the day immediately before the 152207
effective date of this section.152208

       (b) Specify additional diagnoses and special care needs that 152209
individuals must have to meet the criteria for admission to 152210
designated outlier ICFs/IID or units for the purposes of Medicaid 152211
payment rates under sections 5124.153 and 5124.154 of the Revised 152212
Code.152213

       (3) If the Director and the organizations with which the 152214
Director consults under divisions (D)(1) of this section agree 152215
that the amounts specified in divisions (C)(2)(b)(i) and (ii) of 152216
this section are not set at levels that will avoid or minimize 152217
rate reductions under division (E) of this section, the Director 152218
and organizations shall recommend, not later than March 31, 2014, 152219
that the General Assembly amend this section to revise the 152220
amounts. It is the General Assembly's intent to amend this section 152221
to revise the amounts specified in divisions (C)(2)(b)(i) and (ii) 152222
of this section if the Director and organizations recommend that 152223
the amounts be revised.152224

       (E) If the mean total per diem rate for all ICFs/IID to which 152225
this section applies, weighted by May 2014 Medicaid days and 152226
determined under division (C) of this section as of July 1, 2014, 152227
is other than $282.77, the Department of Developmental 152228
Disabilities shall adjust, for fiscal year 2015, the total per 152229
diem rate for each ICF/IID to which this section applies by a 152230
percentage that is equal to the percentage by which the mean total 152231
per diem rate is greater or less than $282.77.152232

       (F) If the United States Centers for Medicare and Medicaid 152233
Services requires that the franchise permit fee be reduced or 152234
eliminated, the Department of Developmental Disabilities shall 152235
reduce the amount it pays ICF/IID providers under this section as 152236
necessary to reflect the loss to the state of the revenue and 152237
federal financial participation generated from the franchise 152238
permit fee.152239

       (G) The Department of Developmental Disabilities shall follow 152240
this section in determining the rate to be paid ICF/IID providers 152241
subject to this section notwithstanding anything to the contrary 152242
in Chapter 5124. of the Revised Code.152243

       (H) Of the foregoing appropriation items 653407, Medicaid 152244
Services, 653606, ICF/IID and Waiver Match, and 653653, ICF/IID, 152245
portions shall be used to pay the Medicaid payment rates 152246
determined in accordance with this section for ICF/IID services 152247
provided during fiscal year 2015.152248

       Section 259.220. TRANSFER OF FUNDS FOR OUTLIER SERVICES 152249
PROVIDED TO PEDIATRIC VENTILATOR-DEPENDENT ICF/IID RESIDENTS152250

       As used in this section, "ICF/IID" and "ICF/IID services" 152251
have the same meanings as in section 5124.01 of the Revised Code.152252

       Each quarter during fiscal year 2015, the Director of 152253
Developmental Disabilities shall certify to the Director of Budget 152254
and Management the amount needed to pay the nonfederal share of 152255
the costs of the Medicaid rate add-on paid to ICFs/IID pursuant to 152256
section 5124.25 of the Revised Code for providing outlier ICF/IID 152257
services to residents who qualify for the services and are 152258
transferred to ICFs/IID from hospitals at which they receive 152259
ventilator services at the time of their transfer to the ICFs/IID.152260

       On receipt of a certification, the Director of Budget and 152261
Management shall transfer appropriations equaling the certified 152262
amount from appropriation item 651525, Medicaid/Health Care 152263
Services, to appropriation item 653407, Medicaid Services, and, in 152264
addition, shall reduce the appropriation in 651525, 152265
Medicaid/Health Care Services, by the corresponding federal share.152266

       If receipts credited to the Developmental Center and 152267
Residential Facility Services and Support Fund (Fund 3A40), used 152268
by the Department of Developmental Disabilities, exceed the 152269
amounts appropriated in appropriation item 653653, ICF/IID, the 152270
Director of Developmental Disabilities may request the Director of 152271
Budget and Management to authorize expenditures from the fund in 152272
excess of the amounts appropriated. Upon approval of the Director 152273
of Budget and Management, the additional amounts are hereby 152274
appropriated.152275

       Section 259.230. ICF/IID MEDICAID RATE WORKGROUP152276

       As used in this section, "ICF/IID," "ICF/IID services," and 152277
"Medicaid-certified capacity" have the same meanings as in section 152278
5124.01 of the Revised Code.152279

       For the purpose of assisting the Department of Developmental 152280
Disabilities during fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015 with an 152281
evaluation of revisions to the formula used to determine Medicaid 152282
payment rates for ICF/IID services, the Department shall retain 152283
the workgroup that was created to assist with the study required 152284
by Section 309.30.80 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General 152285
Assembly. In conducting the evaluation, the Department and 152286
workgroup shall do all of the following:152287

       (A) Focus primarily on the service needs of individuals with 152288
complex challenges that ICFs/IID are able to meet;152289

       (B) Pursue the goal of reducing the Medicaid-certified 152290
capacity of individual ICFs/IID and the total number of ICF/IID 152291
beds in the state for the purpose of increasing the service 152292
choices and community integration of individuals eligible for 152293
ICF/IID services;152294

       (C) Consider the impact that exception reviews conducted 152295
under section 5124.193 of the Revised Code have on ICFs/IID's 152296
case-mix scores.152297

       Section 259.240. NONFEDERAL SHARE OF ICF/IID SERVICES152298

       (A) As used in this section, "ICF/IID," "ICF/IID services," 152299
and "Medicaid-certified capacity" have the same meanings as in 152300
section 5124.01 of the Revised Code.152301

       (B) The Director of Developmental Disabilities shall pay the 152302
nonfederal share of a claim for ICF/IID services using funds 152303
specified in division (C) of this section if all of the following 152304
apply:152305

       (1) Medicaid covers the ICF/IID services.152306

       (2) The ICF/IID services are provided to a Medicaid recipient 152307
to whom both of the following apply:152308

       (a) The Medicaid recipient is eligible for the ICF/IID 152309
services;152310

       (b) The Medicaid recipient does not occupy a bed in the 152311
ICF/IID that used to be included in the Medicaid-certified 152312
capacity of another ICF/IID certified by the Director of Health 152313
before June 1, 2003.152314

       (3) The ICF/IID services are provided by an ICF/IID whose 152315
Medicaid certification by the Director of Health was initiated or 152316
supported by a county board of developmental disabilities.152317

       (4) The provider of the ICF/IID services has a valid Medicaid 152318
provider agreement for the services for the time that the services 152319
are provided.152320

       (C) When required by division (B) of this section to pay the 152321
nonfederal share of a claim, the Director of Developmental 152322
Disabilities shall use the following funds to pay the claim:152323

       (1) Funds available from appropriation item 322501, County 152324
Boards Subsidies, that the Director allocates to the county board 152325
that initiated or supported the Medicaid certification of the 152326
ICF/IID that provided the ICF/IID services for which the claim is 152327
made;152328

       (2) If the amount of funds used pursuant to division (C)(1) 152329
of this section is insufficient to pay the claim in full, an 152330
amount of funds that are needed to make up the difference and 152331
available from amounts the Director allocates to other county 152332
boards from appropriation item 322501, County Boards Subsidies.152333

       Section 259.250. FY 2014 AND FY 2015 RATES FOR CERTAIN 152334
HOMEMAKER/PERSONAL CARE SERVICES UNDER IO WAIVER152335

       (A) As used in this section:152336

       "Converted facility" means an ICF/IID, or former ICF/IID, 152337
that converted some or all of its beds to providing home and 152338
community-based services under the IO Waiver pursuant to section 152339
5124.60 of the Revised Code.152340

       "Developmental center" and "ICF/IID" have the same meanings 152341
as in section 5124.01 of the Revised Code.152342

       "H.B. 153 increased Medicaid payment rate" means the total 152343
Medicaid payment rate for each fifteen minutes of routine 152344
homemaker/personal care services that was set by Section 263.20.70 152345
of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly, as amended by 152346
Am. Sub. H.B. 487 of the 129th General Assembly.152347

       "IO Waiver" means the Medicaid waiver component, as defined 152348
in section 5166.01 of the Revised Code, known as Individual 152349
Options.152350

       "Public hospital" has the same meaning as in section 5122.01 152351
of the Revised Code.152352

       "Regular Medicaid payment rate" means the total Medicaid 152353
payment rate for each fifteen minutes of routine 152354
homemaker/personal care services that are available under the IO 152355
Waiver and to which this section does not apply.152356

       (B) This section applies to routine homemaker/personal care 152357
services to which both of the following apply:152358

       (1) The services are provided to an IO Waiver enrollee to 152359
whom all of the following apply:152360

       (a) The enrollee began to receive the services from the 152361
provider on or after July 1, 2011.152362

       (b) The enrollee resided in a developmental center, converted 152363
facility, or public hospital immediately before enrolling in the 152364
IO Wavier.152365

       (c) The Director of Developmental Disabilities has determined 152366
that the enrollee's special circumstances (including the 152367
enrollee's diagnosis, service needs, or length of stay at the 152368
developmental center, converted facility, or public hospital) 152369
warrants paying the Medicaid payment rate authorized by this 152370
section.152371

       (2) The provider of the services has a valid Medicaid 152372
provider agreement for the services for the period during which 152373
the enrollee receives the services from the provider.152374

       (C) The total Medicaid payment rate for each fifteen minutes 152375
of routine homemaker/personal care services to which this section 152376
applies and that are provided during the period beginning July 1, 152377
2013, and ending June 30, 2015, shall be the greater of the 152378
following:152379

       (1) The H.B. 153 increased Medicaid payment rate;152380

       (2) The regular Medicaid payment rate in effect at the time 152381
the services are provided.152382

       (D) Of the foregoing appropriation items 653407, Medicaid 152383
Services, and 653639, Medicaid Waiver Services, portions shall be 152384
used to pay the Medicaid payment rates determined in accordance 152385
with this section for certain homemaker/personal care services 152386
under the IO Waiver.152387

       Section 259.260. UPDATING AUTHORIZING STATUTE CITATIONS152388

       As used in this section, "authorizing statute" means a 152389
Revised Code section or provision of a Revised Code section that 152390
is cited in the Ohio Administrative Code as the statute that 152391
authorizes the adoption of a rule.152392

       The Director of Developmental Disabilities is not required to 152393
amend any rule for the sole purpose of updating the citation in 152394
the Ohio Administrative Code to the rule's authorizing statute to 152395
reflect that this act renumbers the authorizing statute or 152396
relocates it to another Revised Code section. Such citations shall 152397
be updated as the Director amends the rules for other purposes.152398

       Section 259.270. REASON FOR THE REPEAL OF R.C. 5111.236152399

       This act repeals section 5111.236 of the Revised Code to 152400
carry out the intent of the Governor as indicated in the veto 152401
message regarding Am. Sub. H.B. 1 of the 128th General Assembly 152402
transmitted to the Clerk of the House of Representatives on July 152403
17, 2009. The actual veto removed the section from the title and 152404
enacting clause of H.B. 1 and an earmark related to the section. 152405
However, the actual veto inadvertently showed only division (C) of 152406
the section, rather than the entire section, as being vetoed.152407

       Section 261.10. OBD OHIO BOARD OF DIETETICS152408

General Services Fund Group152409

4K90 860609 Operating Expenses $ 330,592 $ 342,592 152410
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 152411
Group $ 330,592 $ 342,592 152412
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 330,592 $ 342,592 152413


       Section 263.10. EDU DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION152415

General Revenue Fund152416

GRF 200321 Operating Expenses $ 13,142,780 $ 13,142,780 152417
GRF 200408 Early Childhood Education $ 33,318,341 $ 45,318,341 152418
GRF 200420 Information Technology Development and Support $ 4,241,296 $ 4,241,296 152419
GRF 200421 Alternative Education Programs $ 7,403,998 $ 7,403,998 152420
GRF 200422 School Management Assistance $ 3,000,000 $ 3,000,000 152421
GRF 200424 Policy Analysis $ 328,558 $ 328,558 152422
GRF 200425 Tech Prep Consortia Support $ 260,542 $ 260,542 152423
GRF 200426 Ohio Educational Computer Network $ 29,625,569 $ 19,625,569 152424
GRF 200427 Academic Standards $ 3,800,000 $ 3,800,000 152425
GRF 200437 Student Assessment $ 55,895,000 $ 75,895,000 152426
GRF 200439 Accountability/Report Cards $ 3,500,000 $ 3,750,000 152427
GRF 200442 Child Care Licensing $ 827,140 $ 827,140 152428
GRF 200446 Education Management Information System $ 6,833,070 $ 6,833,070 152429
GRF 200447 GED Testing $ 879,551 $ 879,551 152430
GRF 200448 Educator Preparation $ 1,136,737 $ 1,564,237 152431
GRF 200455 Community Schools and Choice Programs $ 2,438,685 $ 2,491,395 152432
GRF 200464 General Technology Operations $ 192,097 $ 192,097 152433
GRF 200465 Technology Integration and Professional Development $ 1,778,879 $ 1,778,879 152434
GRF 200502 Pupil Transportation $ 505,013,527 $ 521,013,527 152435
GRF 200505 School Lunch Match $ 9,100,000 $ 9,100,000 152436
GRF 200511 Auxiliary Services $ 130,499,457 $ 138,214,374 152437
GRF 200532 Nonpublic Administrative Cost Reimbursement $ 58,951,750 $ 62,436,882 152438
GRF 200540 Special Education Enhancements $ 156,871,292 $ 157,871,292 152439
GRF 200545 Career-Technical Education Enhancements $ 9,372,999 $ 9,372,999 152440
GRF 200550 Foundation Funding $ 5,808,098,389 $ 6,151,463,768 152441
GRF 200566 Literacy Improvement $ 150,000 $ 150,000 152442
GRF 200901 Property Tax Allocation - Education $ 1,138,800,000 $ 1,184,352,000 152443
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 7,985,459,657 $ 8,425,307,295 152444

General Services Fund Group152445

1380 200606 Information Technology Development and Support $ 6,850,090 $ 6,850,090 152446
4520 200638 Fees and Refunds $ 500,000 $ 500,000 152447
4L20 200681 Teacher Certification and Licensure $ 8,313,762 $ 13,658,274 152448
5960 200656 Ohio Career Information System $ 529,761 $ 529,761 152449
5H30 200687 School District Solvency Assistance $ 25,000,000 $ 25,000,000 152450
5KX0 200691 Ohio School Sponsorship Program $ 487,419 $ 487,419 152451
5KY0 200693 Community Schools Temporary Sponsorship $ 83,000 $ 83,000 152452
TOTAL GSF General Services 152453
Fund Group $ 41,764,032 $ 47,108,544 152454

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group152455

3090 200601 Neglected and Delinquent Education $ 2,168,642 $ 2,168,642 152456
3670 200607 School Food Services $ 8,200,664 $ 8,700,149 152457
3700 200624 Education of Exceptional Children $ 1,530,000 $ 1,530,000 152458
3AF0 200603 Schools Medicaid Administrative Claims $ 750,000 $ 750,000 152459
3AN0 200671 School Improvement Grants $ 20,400,000 $ 20,400,000 152460
3BK0 200628 Longitudinal Data Systems $ 1,250,000 $ 0 152461
3C50 200661 Early Childhood Education $ 14,554,749 $ 14,554,749 152462
3CG0 200646 Teacher Incentive $ 15,125,588 $ 15,183,285 152463
3D20 200667 Math Science Partnerships $ 6,000,000 $ 6,000,000 152464
3EC0 200653 Teacher Incentive - Federal Stimulus $ 1,300,000 $ 0 152465
3EH0 200620 Migrant Education $ 2,900,000 $ 2,900,000 152466
3EJ0 200622 Homeless Children Education $ 2,600,000 $ 2,600,000 152467
3EK0 200637 Advanced Placement $ 450,000 $ 450,000 152468
3EN0 200655 State Data Systems - Federal Stimulus $ 1,250,000 $ 0 152469
3FD0 200665 Race to the Top $ 136,000,000 $ 58,074,046 152470
3FN0 200672 Early Learning Challenge - Race to the Top $ 7,040,000 $ 7,040,000 152471
3GE0 200674 Summer Food Service Program $ 13,596,000 $ 14,003,800 152472
3GF0 200675 Miscellaneous Nutrition Grants $ 700,000 $ 700,000 152473
3GG0 200676 Fresh Fruit and Vegetable Program $ 4,738,000 $ 4,880,140 152474
3H90 200605 Head Start Collaboration Project $ 225,000 $ 225,000 152475
3L60 200617 Federal School Lunch $ 350,608,075 $ 361,126,273 152476
3L70 200618 Federal School Breakfast $ 108,480,590 $ 112,819,813 152477
3L80 200619 Child/Adult Food Programs $ 106,992,650 $ 110,202,428 152478
3L90 200621 Career-Technical Education Basic Grant $ 44,663,900 $ 44,663,900 152479
3M00 200623 ESEA Title 1A $ 560,000,000 $ 560,000,000 152480
3M20 200680 Individuals with Disabilities Education Act $ 443,170,050 $ 443,170,050 152481
3T40 200613 Public Charter Schools $ 500,000 $ 0 152482
3Y20 200688 21st Century Community Learning Centers $ 48,201,810 $ 50,611,900 152483
3Y60 200635 Improving Teacher Quality $ 101,900,000 $ 101,900,000 152484
3Y70 200689 English Language Acquisition $ 9,700,000 $ 9,700,000 152485
3Y80 200639 Rural and Low Income Technical Assistance $ 3,300,000 $ 3,300,000 152486
3Z20 200690 State Assessments $ 11,800,000 $ 11,800,000 152487
3Z30 200645 Consolidated Federal Grant Administration $ 7,949,280 $ 7,949,280 152488
TOTAL FED Federal Special 152489
Revenue Fund Group $ 2,038,044,998 $ 1,977,403,455 152490

State Special Revenue Fund Group152491

4540 200610 GED Testing $ 1,050,000 $ 250,000 152492
4550 200608 Commodity Foods $ 24,000,000 $ 24,000,000 152493
4R70 200695 Indirect Operational Support $ 6,600,000 $ 6,600,000 152494
4V70 200633 Interagency Program Support $ 717,725 $ 717,725 152495
5980 200659 Auxiliary Services Reimbursement $ 1,328,910 $ 1,328,910 152496
5BJ0 200626 Half-Mill Maintenance Equalization $ 19,000,000 $ 20,000,000 152497
5MM0 200677 Child Nutrition Refunds $ 500,000 $ 500,000 152498
5T30 200668 Gates Foundation Grants $ 200,000 $ 153,000 152499
5U20 200685 National Education Statistics $ 300,000 $ 300,000 152500
6200 200615 Educational Improvement Grants $ 300,000 $ 300,000 152501
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 152502
Fund Group $ 53,996,635 $ 54,149,635 152503

Lottery Profits Education Fund Group152504

7017 200612 Foundation Funding $ 775,000,000 $ 850,000,000 152505
7017 200648 Straight A Fund $ 100,000,000 $ 150,000,000 152506
7017 200666 EdChoice Expansion $ 8,500,000 $ 17,000,000 152507
7017 200684 Community School Facilities $ 7,500,000 $ 7,500,000 152508
TOTAL LPE Lottery Profits 152509
Education Fund Group $ 891,000,000 $ 1,024,500,000 152510

Revenue Distribution Fund Group152511

7047 200909 School District Property Tax Replacement-Business $ 482,000,000 $ 482,000,000 152512
7053 200900 School District Property Tax Replacement-Utility $ 28,000,000 $ 28,000,000 152513
TOTAL RDF Revenue Distribution 152514
Fund Group $ 510,000,000 $ 510,000,000 152515
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 11,520,265,322 $ 12,038,468,929 152516


       Section 263.20. OPERATING EXPENSES152518

        A portion of the foregoing appropriation item 200321, 152519
Operating Expenses, shall be used by the Department of Education 152520
to provide matching funds under 20 U.S.C. 2321. 152521

       EARLY CHILDHOOD EDUCATION152522

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200408, Early Childhood 152523
Education, up to $50,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to 152524
support the operations of the "Ready, Set, Go...to Kindergarten" 152525
Program at the Horizon Education Center in Lorain County. The 152526
effectiveness of the program shall be evaluated and reported to 152527
the Department of Education in a study that includes statistics on 152528
program participants' scores for the "Get It, Got It, Go!" 152529
assessment and the kindergarten readiness assessment.152530

       The Department of Education shall distribute the remainder of 152531
the foregoing appropriation item 200408, Early Childhood 152532
Education, to pay the costs of early childhood education programs. 152533
The Department shall distribute such funds directly to qualifying 152534
providers.152535

       (A) As used in this section:152536

       (1) "Provider" means a city, local, exempted village, or 152537
joint vocational school district; an educational service center; a 152538
community school; a chartered nonpublic school; an early childhood 152539
education child care provider licensed under Chapter 5104. of the 152540
Revised Code that participates in and meets at least the third 152541
highest tier of the tiered quality rating and improvement system 152542
described in section 5104.30 of the Revised Code; or a combination 152543
of entities described in this paragraph.152544

       (2) In the case of a city, local, or exempted village school 152545
district or early childhood education child care provider licensed 152546
under Chapter 5104. of the Revised Code, "new eligible provider" 152547
means a provider that did not receive state funding for Early 152548
Childhood Education in the previous fiscal year or demonstrates a 152549
need for early childhood programs as defined in division (D) of 152550
this section.152551

       (3) "Eligible child" means a child who is at least three 152552
years of age as of the district entry date for kindergarten, is 152553
not of the age to be eligible for kindergarten, and whose family 152554
earns not more than two hundred per cent of the federal poverty 152555
guidelines as defined in division (A)(3) of section 5101.46 of the 152556
Revised Code. Children with an Individualized Education Program 152557
and where the Early Childhood Education program is the least 152558
restrictive environment may be enrolled on their third birthday.152559

       (4) "Early learning program standards" means early learning 152560
program standards for school readiness developed by the Department 152561
to assess the operation of early learning programs.152562

       (B) In each fiscal year, up to two per cent of the total 152563
appropriation may be used by the Department for program support 152564
and technical assistance. The Department shall distribute the 152565
remainder of the appropriation in each fiscal year to serve 152566
eligible children.152567

       (C) The Department shall provide an annual report to the 152568
Governor, the Speaker of the House of Representatives, and the 152569
President of the Senate and post the report to the Department's 152570
web site, regarding early childhood education programs operated 152571
under this section and the early learning program standards.152572

       (D) After setting aside the amounts to make payments due from 152573
the previous fiscal year, in fiscal year 2014, the Department 152574
shall distribute funds first to recipients of funds for early 152575
childhood education programs under Section 267.10.10 of Am. Sub. 152576
H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly, as amended by Am. Sub. 152577
H.B. 487 of the 129th General Assembly, in the previous fiscal 152578
year and the balance to new eligible providers of early childhood 152579
education programs under this section or to existing providers to 152580
serve more eligible children or for purposes of program expansion, 152581
improvement, or special projects to promote quality and 152582
innovation.152583

       After setting aside the amounts to make payments due from the 152584
previous fiscal year, in fiscal year 2015, the Department shall 152585
distribute funds first to providers of early childhood education 152586
programs under this section in the previous fiscal year and the 152587
balance to new eligible providers or to existing providers to 152588
serve more eligible children as outlined under division (E) of 152589
this section or for purposes of program expansion, improvement, or 152590
special projects to promote quality and innovation.152591

       (E) The Department shall distribute any new or remaining 152592
funding to existing providers of early childhood education 152593
programs or any new eligible providers in an effort to invest in 152594
high quality early childhood programs where there is a need as 152595
determined by the Department. The Department shall distribute the 152596
new or remaining funds to existing providers of early childhood 152597
education programs or any new eligible providers to serve 152598
additional eligible children based on community economic 152599
disadvantage, limited access to high quality preschool or 152600
childcare services, and demonstration of high quality preschool 152601
services as determined by the Department using new metrics 152602
developed pursuant to Ohio's Race to the Top—Early Learning 152603
Challenge Grant, awarded to the Department in December 2011.152604

        Awards under divisions (D) and (E) of this section shall be 152605
distributed on a per-pupil basis, and in accordance with division 152606
(I) of this section. The Department may adjust the per-pupil 152607
amount so that the per-pupil amount multiplied by the number of 152608
eligible children enrolled and receiving services on the first day 152609
of December or the business day closest to that date equals the 152610
amount allocated under this section.152611

       (F) Costs for developing and administering an early childhood 152612
education program may not exceed fifteen per cent of the total 152613
approved costs of the program.152614

       All providers shall maintain such fiscal control and 152615
accounting procedures as may be necessary to ensure the 152616
disbursement of, and accounting for, these funds. The control of 152617
funds provided in this program, and title to property obtained, 152618
shall be under the authority of the approved provider for purposes 152619
provided in the program unless, as described in division (K) of 152620
this section, the program waives its right for funding or a 152621
program's funding is eliminated or reduced due to its inability to 152622
meet financial or early learning program standards. The approved 152623
provider shall administer and use such property and funds for the 152624
purposes specified.152625

       (G) The Department may examine a provider's financial and 152626
program records. If the financial practices of the program are not 152627
in accordance with standard accounting principles or do not meet 152628
financial standards outlined under division (F) of this section, 152629
or if the program fails to substantially meet the early learning 152630
program standards, meet a quality rating level in the tiered 152631
quality rating and improvement system developed under section 152632
5104.30 of the Revised Code as prescribed by the Department, or 152633
exhibits below average performance as measured against the 152634
standards, the early childhood education program shall propose and 152635
implement a corrective action plan that has been approved by the 152636
Department. The approved corrective action plan shall be signed by 152637
the chief executive officer and the executive of the official 152638
governing body of the provider. The corrective action plan shall 152639
include a schedule for monitoring by the Department. Such 152640
monitoring may include monthly reports, inspections, a timeline 152641
for correction of deficiencies, and technical assistance to be 152642
provided by the Department or obtained by the early childhood 152643
education program. The Department may withhold funding pending 152644
corrective action. If an early childhood education program fails 152645
to satisfactorily complete a corrective action plan, the 152646
Department may deny expansion funding to the program or withdraw 152647
all or part of the funding to the program and establish a new 152648
eligible provider through a selection process established by the 152649
Department.152650

       (H)(1) If the early childhood education program is licensed 152651
by the Department of Education and is not highly rated, as 152652
determined by the Director of Job and Family Services, under the 152653
tiered quality rating and improvement system described in section 152654
5104.30 of the Revised Code, the program shall do all of the 152655
following:152656

       (a) Meet teacher qualification requirements prescribed by 152657
section 3301.311 of the Revised Code;152658

       (b) Align curriculum to the early learning content standards 152659
developed by the Department;152660

       (c) Meet any child or program assessment requirements 152661
prescribed by the Department;152662

       (d) Require teachers, except teachers enrolled and working to 152663
obtain a degree pursuant to section 3301.311 of the Revised Code, 152664
to attend a minimum of twenty hours every two years of 152665
professional development as prescribed by the Department;152666

       (e) Document and report child progress as prescribed by the 152667
Department;152668

       (f) Meet and report compliance with the early learning 152669
program standards as prescribed by the Department;152670

       (g) Participate in the tiered quality rating and improvement 152671
system developed under section 5104.30 of the Revised Code. 152672
Effective July 1, 2016, all programs shall be rated through the 152673
system.152674

       (2) If the program is highly rated, as determined by the 152675
Director of Job and Family Services, under the tiered quality 152676
rating and improvement system developed under section 5104.30 of 152677
the Revised Code, the program shall comply with the requirements 152678
of that system.152679

       (I) Per-pupil funding for programs subject to this section 152680
shall be sufficient to provide eligible children with services for 152681
a standard early childhood schedule which shall be defined in this 152682
section as a minimum of twelve and one-half hours per school week 152683
as defined in section 3313.62 of the Revised Code for the minimum 152684
school year as defined in sections 3313.48, 3313.481, and 3313.482 152685
of the Revised Code. Nothing in this section shall be construed to 152686
prohibit program providers from utilizing other funds to serve 152687
eligible children in programs that exceed the twelve and one-half 152688
hours per week or that exceed the minimum school year. For any 152689
provider for which a standard early childhood education schedule 152690
creates a hardship or for which the provider shows evidence that 152691
the provider is working in collaboration with a preschool special 152692
education program, the provider may submit a waiver to the 152693
Department requesting an alternate schedule. If the Department 152694
approves a waiver for an alternate schedule that provides services 152695
for less time than the standard early childhood education 152696
schedule, the Department may reduce the provider's annual 152697
allocation proportionately. Under no circumstances shall an annual 152698
allocation be increased because of the approval of an alternate 152699
schedule.152700

       (J) Each provider shall develop a sliding fee scale based on 152701
family incomes and shall charge families who earn more than two 152702
hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines, as defined in 152703
division (A)(3) of section 5101.46 of the Revised Code, for the 152704
early childhood education program.152705

       The Department shall conduct an annual survey of each 152706
provider to determine whether the provider charges families 152707
tuition or fees, the amount families are charged relative to 152708
family income levels, and the number of families and students 152709
charged tuition and fees for the early childhood program.152710

       (K) If an early childhood education program voluntarily 152711
waives its right for funding, or has its funding eliminated for 152712
not meeting financial standards or the early learning program 152713
standards, the provider shall transfer control of title to 152714
property, equipment, and remaining supplies obtained through the 152715
program to providers designated by the Department and return any 152716
unexpended funds to the Department along with any reports 152717
prescribed by the Department. The funding made available from a 152718
program that waives its right for funding or has its funding 152719
eliminated or reduced may be used by the Department for new grant 152720
awards or expansion grants. The Department may award new grants or 152721
expansion grants to eligible providers who apply. The eligible 152722
providers who apply must do so in accordance with the selection 152723
process established by the Department.152724

       (L) Eligible expenditures for the Early Childhood Education 152725
Program shall be claimed each fiscal year to help meet the state's 152726
TANF maintenance of effort requirement. The Superintendent of 152727
Public Instruction and the Director of Job and Family Services 152728
shall enter into an interagency agreement to carry out the 152729
requirements under this division, which shall include developing 152730
reporting guidelines for these expenditures.152731

       (M) The Early Childhood Advisory Council established under 152732
section 3301.90 of the Revised Code shall provide, by October 1, 152733
2013, recommendations including, but not limited to, the 152734
administration, implementation, and distribution of funding for an 152735
early childhood voucher program, to the Superintendent of Public 152736
Instruction, the Governor's Office of 21st Century Education, the 152737
Speaker of the House of Representatives, the President of the 152738
Senate, and the chairpersons of the standing committees of the 152739
House of Representatives and the Senate that deal primarily with 152740
issues of education.152741

       Section 263.30.  INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY DEVELOPMENT AND 152742
SUPPORT152743

       The foregoing appropriation item 200420, Information 152744
Technology Development and Support, shall be used to support the 152745
development and implementation of information technology solutions 152746
designed to improve the performance and services of the Department 152747
of Education. Funds may be used for personnel, maintenance, and 152748
equipment costs related to the development and implementation of 152749
these technical system projects. Implementation of these systems 152750
shall allow the Department to provide greater levels of assistance 152751
to school districts and to provide more timely information to the 152752
public, including school districts, administrators, and 152753
legislators. Funds may also be used to support data-driven 152754
decision-making and differentiated instruction, as well as to 152755
communicate academic content standards and curriculum models to 152756
schools through web-based applications.152757

       Section 263.40. ALTERNATIVE EDUCATION PROGRAMS152758

       The foregoing appropriation item 200421, Alternative 152759
Education Programs, shall be used for the renewal of successful 152760
implementation grants and for competitive matching grants to 152761
school districts for alternative educational programs for existing 152762
and new at-risk and delinquent youth. Programs shall be focused on 152763
youth in one or more of the following categories: those who have 152764
been expelled or suspended, those who have dropped out of school 152765
or who are at risk of dropping out of school, those who are 152766
habitually truant or disruptive, or those on probation or on 152767
parole from a Department of Youth Services facility. Grants shall 152768
be awarded only to programs in which the grant will not serve as 152769
the program's primary source of funding. These grants shall be 152770
administered by the Department of Education.152771

       The Department of Education may waive compliance with any 152772
minimum education standard established under section 3301.07 of 152773
the Revised Code for any alternative school that receives a grant 152774
under this section on the grounds that the waiver will enable the 152775
program to more effectively educate students enrolled in the 152776
alternative school.152777

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200421, Alternative 152778
Education Programs, a portion may be used for program 152779
administration, monitoring, technical assistance, support, 152780
research, and evaluation.152781

       Section 263.50. SCHOOL MANAGEMENT ASSISTANCE152782

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200422, School Management 152783
Assistance, $1,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be used by the 152784
Auditor of State in consultation with the Department of Education 152785
for expenses incurred in the Auditor of State's role relating to 152786
fiscal caution, fiscal watch, and fiscal emergency activities as 152787
defined in Chapter 3316. of the Revised Code, unless an amount 152788
less than $1,000,000 is needed and mutually agreed to by the 152789
Department and the Auditor of State. This set-aside may also be 152790
used by the Auditor of State to conduct performance audits of 152791
other school districts with priority given to districts in fiscal 152792
distress. Districts in fiscal distress shall be determined by the 152793
Auditor of State and shall include districts that the Auditor of 152794
State, in consultation with the Department of Education, 152795
determines are employing fiscal practices or experiencing 152796
budgetary conditions that could produce a state of fiscal watch or 152797
fiscal emergency.152798

       The remainder of appropriation item 200422, School Management 152799
Assistance, shall be used by the Department of Education to 152800
provide fiscal technical assistance and inservice education for 152801
school district management personnel and to administer, monitor, 152802
and implement the fiscal caution, fiscal watch, and fiscal 152803
emergency provisions under Chapter 3316. of the Revised Code.152804

       Section 263.60. POLICY ANALYSIS152805

       The foregoing appropriation item 200424, Policy Analysis, 152806
shall be used by the Department of Education to support a system 152807
of administrative, statistical, and legislative education 152808
information to be used for policy analysis. Staff supported by 152809
this appropriation shall administer the development of reports, 152810
analyses, and briefings to inform education policymakers of 152811
current trends in education practice, efficient and effective use 152812
of resources, and evaluation of programs to improve education 152813
results. The database shall be kept current at all times. These 152814
research efforts shall be used to supply information and analysis 152815
of data to the General Assembly and other state policymakers, 152816
including the Office of Budget and Management, the Governor's 152817
Office of 21st Century Education, and the Legislative Service 152818
Commission.152819

       The Department of Education may use funding from this 152820
appropriation item to purchase or contract for the development of 152821
software systems or contract for policy studies that will assist 152822
in the provision and analysis of policy-related information. 152823
Funding from this appropriation item also may be used to monitor 152824
and enhance quality assurance for research-based policy analysis 152825
and program evaluation to enhance the effective use of education 152826
information to inform education policymakers.152827

       TECH PREP CONSORTIA SUPPORT152828

       The foregoing appropriation item 200425, Tech Prep Consortia 152829
Support, shall be used by the Department of Education to support 152830
state-level activities designed to support, promote, and expand 152831
tech prep programs. Use of these funds shall include, but not be 152832
limited to, administration of grants, program evaluation, 152833
professional development, curriculum development, assessment 152834
development, program promotion, communications, and statewide 152835
coordination of tech prep consortia.152836

       Section 263.70. OHIO EDUCATIONAL COMPUTER NETWORK152837

       The foregoing appropriation item 200426, Ohio Educational 152838
Computer Network, shall be used by the Department of Education to 152839
maintain a system of information technology throughout Ohio and to 152840
provide technical assistance for such a system in support of the 152841
P-16 State Education Technology Plan developed under section 152842
3353.09 of the Revised Code.152843

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200426, Ohio Educational 152844
Computer Network, up to $10,705,569 in each fiscal year shall be 152845
used by the Department of Education to support connection of all 152846
public school buildings and participating chartered nonpublic 152847
schools to the state's education network, to each other, and to 152848
the Internet. In each fiscal year the Department of Education 152849
shall use these funds to assist information technology centers or 152850
school districts with the operational costs associated with this 152851
connectivity. The Department of Education shall develop a formula 152852
and guidelines for the distribution of these funds to information 152853
technology centers or individual school districts. As used in this 152854
section, "public school building" means a school building of any 152855
city, local, exempted village, or joint vocational school 152856
district, any community school established under Chapter 3314. of 152857
the Revised Code, any college preparatory boarding school 152858
established under Chapter 3328. of the Revised Code, any STEM 152859
school established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code, any 152860
educational service center building used for instructional 152861
purposes, the Ohio School for the Deaf and the Ohio School for the 152862
Blind, high schools chartered by the Ohio Department of Youth 152863
Services, or high schools operated by Ohio Department of 152864
Rehabilitation and Corrections' Ohio Central School System.152865

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200426, Ohio Educational 152866
Computer Network, up to $2,500,000 in each fiscal year shall be 152867
used for the Union Catalog and InfOhio Network and to support the 152868
provision of electronic resources with priority given to resources 152869
that support the teaching of state academic content standards in 152870
all public schools. Consideration shall be given by the Department 152871
of Education to coordinating the allocation of these moneys with 152872
the efforts of Libraries Connect Ohio, whose members include 152873
OhioLINK, the Ohio Public Information Network, and the State 152874
Library of Ohio.152875

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200426, Ohio Educational 152876
Computer Network, up to $5,220,000 in each fiscal year shall be 152877
used, through a formula and guidelines devised by the Department, 152878
to subsidize the activities of designated information technology 152879
centers, as defined by State Board of Education rules, to provide 152880
school districts and chartered nonpublic schools with 152881
computer-based student and teacher instructional and 152882
administrative information services, including approved 152883
computerized financial accounting, and to ensure the effective 152884
operation of local automated administrative and instructional 152885
systems.152886

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200426, Ohio Educational 152887
Computer Network, up to $10,000,000 in fiscal year 2014 shall be 152888
used for middle mile connections for the information technology 152889
centers established under section 3301.075 of the Revised Code and 152890
select large urban districts to connect to the state broadband 152891
backbone managed by the Ohio Technology Consortium and for other 152892
connectivity upgrades necessary for K-12 school buildings with 152893
severely restricted broadband connections. The Department of 152894
Education shall develop an expenditure plan to facilitate 152895
instructional technology/blended learning initiatives. The State 152896
Chief Information Officer and the Education Technology Division of 152897
the Ohio Board of Regents shall review the plan to ensure it 152898
coincides with State of Ohio and higher education network 152899
strategies and shall either approve or reject the plan. If the 152900
plan is rejected, the State Chief Information Officer and the 152901
Education Technology Division of the Ohio Board of Regents shall 152902
identify deficiencies in the plan and work with the Department to 152903
complete an acceptable plan. "Select large urban districts" are 152904
those districts that connect to the state broadband backbone 152905
directly rather than through an information technology center. At 152906
the request of the Superintendent of Public Instruction, the 152907
Director of Budget and Management may authorize the expenditure in 152908
fiscal year 2015 of any unexpended and unencumbered portion of 152909
this set-aside at the end of fiscal year 2014. The authorized 152910
expenditure is hereby reappropriated to the Department for the 152911
same purpose for fiscal year 2015.152912

       The remainder of appropriation item 200426, Ohio Educational 152913
Computer Network, shall be used to support the work of the 152914
development, maintenance, and operation of a network of uniform 152915
and compatible computer-based information and instructional 152916
systems as well as the teacher student linkage/roster verification 152917
process and the eTranscript/student records exchange initiative. 152918
This technical assistance shall include, but not be restricted to, 152919
development and maintenance of adequate computer software systems 152920
to support network activities. In order to improve the efficiency 152921
of network activities, the Department and information technology 152922
centers may jointly purchase equipment, materials, and services 152923
from funds provided under this appropriation for use by the 152924
network and, when considered practical by the Department, may 152925
utilize the services of appropriate state purchasing agencies.152926

       Section 263.80. ACADEMIC STANDARDS152927

       The foregoing appropriation item 200427, Academic Standards, 152928
shall be used by the Department of Education to develop, revise, 152929
and communicate to school districts academic content standards and 152930
curriculum models and to develop professional development programs 152931
and other tools on the new content standards and model curriculum.152932

       Section 263.90. STUDENT ASSESSMENT152933

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200437, Student 152934
Assessment, up to $95,000 in each fiscal year may be used to 152935
support the assessments required under section 3301.0715 of the 152936
Revised Code.152937

       The remainder of appropriation item 200437, Student 152938
Assessment, shall be used to develop, field test, print, 152939
distribute, score, report results, and support other associated 152940
costs for the tests required under sections 3301.0710, 3301.0711, 152941
and 3301.0712 of the Revised Code and for similar purposes as 152942
required by section 3301.27 of the Revised Code. The funds may 152943
also be used to update and develop diagnostic assessments required 152944
under sections 3301.079, 3301.0715, and 3313.608 of the Revised 152945
Code.152946

       DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION APPROPRIATION TRANSFERS FOR STUDENT 152947
ASSESSMENT152948

       In fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, if the 152949
Superintendent of Public Instruction determines that additional 152950
funds are needed to fully fund the requirements of sections 152951
3301.0710, 3301.0711, 3301.0712, and 3301.27 of the Revised Code 152952
and this act for assessments of student performance, the 152953
Superintendent of Public Instruction may recommend the 152954
reallocation of unexpended and unencumbered General Revenue Fund 152955
appropriations within the Department of Education to appropriation 152956
item 200437, Student Assessment, to the Director of Budget and 152957
Management. If the Director of Budget and Management determines 152958
that such a reallocation is required, the Director of Budget and 152959
Management may transfer unexpended and unencumbered appropriations 152960
within the Department of Education as necessary to appropriation 152961
item 200437, Student Assessment. If these transferred 152962
appropriations are not sufficient to fully fund the assessment 152963
requirements in fiscal year 2014 or fiscal year 2015, the 152964
Superintendent of Public Instruction may request that the 152965
Controlling Board transfer up to $9,000,000 cash from the Lottery 152966
Profits Education Reserve Fund (Fund 7018) to the General Revenue 152967
Fund. Upon approval of the Controlling Board, the Director of 152968
Budget and Management shall transfer the cash. These transferred 152969
funds are hereby appropriated for the same purpose as 152970
appropriation item 200437, Student Assessment.152971

       Section 263.100.  Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in 152972
sections 3301.0710 and 3301.0711 of the Revised Code, in the 152973
2013-2014 school year, the Department of Education shall not 152974
furnish, and school districts and schools shall not administer, 152975
the elementary writing and social studies achievement assessments 152976
prescribed by section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code, unless the 152977
Superintendent of Public Instruction determines the Department has 152978
sufficient funds to pay the costs of furnishing and scoring those 152979
assessments.152980

       Section 263.110. ACCOUNTABILITY/REPORT CARDS152981

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200439, 152982
Accountability/Report Cards, a portion in each fiscal year may be 152983
used to train district and regional specialists and district 152984
educators in the use of the value-added progress dimension and in 152985
the use of data as it relates to improving student achievement. 152986
This training may include teacher and administrator professional 152987
development in the use of data to improve instruction and student 152988
learning, and teacher and administrator training in understanding 152989
teacher value-added reports and how they can be used as a 152990
component in measuring teacher and administrator effectiveness. A 152991
portion of this funding may be provided to a credible nonprofit 152992
organization with expertise in value-added progress dimensions.152993

       The remainder of appropriation item 200439, 152994
Accountability/Report Cards, shall be used by the Department to 152995
incorporate a statewide value-added progress dimension into 152996
performance ratings for school districts and for the development 152997
of an accountability system that includes the preparation and 152998
distribution of school report cards, funding and expenditure 152999
accountability reports under sections 3302.03 and 3302.031 of the 153000
Revised Code, and the development and maintenance of teacher 153001
value-added reports.153002

       CHILD CARE LICENSING153003

       The foregoing appropriation item 200442, Child Care 153004
Licensing, shall be used by the Department of Education to license 153005
and to inspect preschool and school-age child care programs under 153006
sections 3301.52 to 3301.59 of the Revised Code.153007

       Section 263.120. EDUCATION MANAGEMENT INFORMATION SYSTEM153008

       The foregoing appropriation item 200446, Education Management 153009
Information System, shall be used by the Department of Education 153010
to improve the Education Management Information System (EMIS).153011

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200446, Education 153012
Management Information System, up to $729,000 in each fiscal year 153013
shall be distributed to designated information technology centers 153014
for costs relating to processing, storing, and transferring data 153015
for the effective operation of the EMIS. These costs may include, 153016
but are not limited to, personnel, hardware, software development, 153017
communications connectivity, professional development, and support 153018
services, and to provide services to participate in the State 153019
Education Technology Plan developed under section 3353.09 of the 153020
Revised Code.153021

       The remainder of appropriation item 200446, Education 153022
Management Information System, shall be used to develop and 153023
support a common core of data definitions and standards as adopted 153024
by the Education Management Information System Advisory Board, 153025
including the ongoing development and maintenance of the data 153026
dictionary and data warehouse. In addition, such funds shall be 153027
used to support the development and implementation of data 153028
standards; the design, development, and implementation of a new 153029
data exchange system; and responsibilities related to the school 153030
report cards prescribed by section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and 153031
value-added progress dimension calculations.153032

       Any provider of software meeting the standards approved by 153033
the Education Management Information System Advisory Board shall 153034
be designated as an approved vendor and may enter into contracts 153035
with local school districts, community schools, STEMS schools, 153036
information technology centers, or other educational entities for 153037
the purpose of collecting and managing data required under Ohio's 153038
education management information system (EMIS) laws. On an annual 153039
basis, the Department of Education shall convene an advisory group 153040
of school districts, community schools, and other 153041
education-related entities to review the Education Management 153042
Information System data definitions and data format standards. The 153043
advisory group shall recommend changes and enhancements based upon 153044
surveys of its members, education agencies in other states, and 153045
current industry practices, to reflect best practices, align with 153046
federal initiatives, and meet the needs of school districts.153047

       School districts, STEM schools, and community schools not 153048
implementing a common and uniform set of data definitions and data 153049
format standards for Education Management Information System 153050
purposes shall have all EMIS funding withheld until they are in 153051
compliance.153052

       Section 263.130. GED TESTING153053

       The foregoing appropriation item 200447, GED Testing, shall 153054
be used to provide General Educational Development (GED) testing 153055
under rules adopted by the State Board of Education.153056

       Section 263.140. EDUCATOR PREPARATION153057

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200448, Educator 153058
Preparation, up to $500,000 in each fiscal year may be used by the 153059
Department of Education to monitor and support Ohio's State System 153060
of Support in accordance with the "No Child Left Behind Act of 153061
2011," 20 U.S.C. 6317, as administered pursuant to the Elementary 153062
and Secondary Education Act flexibility waivers approved for Ohio 153063
by the United States Department of Education.153064

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200448, Educator 153065
Preparation, up to $100,000 in each fiscal year may be used by the 153066
Department to support the Educator Standards Board under section 153067
3319.61 of the Revised Code and reforms under sections 3302.042, 153068
3302.06 through 3302.068, 3302.12, 3302.20 through 3302.22, and 153069
3319.58 of the Revised Code.153070

       The remainder of the foregoing appropriation item 200448, 153071
Educator Preparation, in fiscal year 2015 may be used for 153072
implementation of teacher and principal evaluation systems, 153073
including incorporation of student growth as a metric in those 153074
systems, and teacher value-added reports.153075

       Section 263.150. COMMUNITY SCHOOLS AND CHOICE PROGRAMS153076

       The foregoing appropriation item 200455, Community Schools 153077
and Choice Programs, may be used by the Department of Education 153078
for additional services and responsibilities under section 3314.11 153079
of the Revised Code and for operation of the school choice 153080
programs.153081

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200455, Community Schools 153082
and Choice Programs, a portion in each fiscal year may be used by 153083
the Department of Education for developing and conducting training 153084
sessions for community schools and sponsors and prospective 153085
sponsors of community schools as prescribed in division (A)(1) of 153086
section 3314.015 of the Revised Code, and other schools 153087
participating in school choice programs.153088

       Section 263.160.  TECHNOLOGY INTEGRATION AND PROFESSIONAL 153089
DEVELOPMENT153090

       The foregoing appropriation item 200465, Technology 153091
Integration and Professional Development, shall be used by the 153092
Department of Education to contract with educational television 153093
stations and education technology centers to provide Ohio public 153094
schools with instructional resources and services, with priority 153095
given to resources and services aligned with state academic 153096
content standards. Such resources and services shall be based upon 153097
the advice and approval of the Department, based on a formula used 153098
by the former eTech Ohio Commission unless and until a substitute 153099
formula is developed in consultation with the Ohio Board of 153100
Regents.153101

       Section 263.170. PUPIL TRANSPORTATION153102

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200502, Pupil 153103
Transportation, up to $838,930 in each fiscal year may be used by 153104
the Department of Education for training prospective and 153105
experienced school bus drivers in accordance with training 153106
programs prescribed by the Department. Up to $60,469,220 in each 153107
fiscal year may be used by the Department of Education for special 153108
education transportation reimbursements to school districts and 153109
county DD boards for transportation operating costs as provided in 153110
divisions (C) and (F) of section 3317.024 of the Revised Code. Up 153111
to $5,000,000 in fiscal year 2014 and up to $2,500,000 in fiscal 153112
year 2015 may be used by the Department of Education to reimburse 153113
school districts that make payments to parents in lieu of 153114
transportation under section 3327.02 of the Revised Code and whose 153115
transportation is not funded under division (C) of section 153116
3317.024 of the Revised Code.153117

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200502, Pupil 153118
Transportation, up to $25,300,000 in fiscal year 2014 and up to 153119
$23,100,000 in fiscal year 2015 shall be used for additional 153120
transportation aid for school districts as provided by division 153121
(G)(2) of section 3317.0212 of the Revised Code, as amended by 153122
this act. The Department shall pay each school district a pro rata 153123
portion of the amounts calculated so that the amount appropriated 153124
is not exceeded.153125

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200502, Pupil 153126
Transportation, $413,385,915 in fiscal year 2014 and $434,055,210 153127
in fiscal year 2015 shall be used to distribute the amounts 153128
calculated for transportation aid under division (G)(1) of section 153129
3317.0212 of the Revised Code, as amended by this act.153130

       Section 263.180. SCHOOL LUNCH MATCH153131

       The foregoing appropriation item 200505, School Lunch Match, 153132
shall be used to provide matching funds to obtain federal funds 153133
for the school lunch program.153134

       Any remaining appropriation after providing matching funds 153135
for the school lunch program may be used to partially reimburse 153136
school buildings within school districts that are required to have 153137
a school breakfast program under section 3313.813 of the Revised 153138
Code, at a rate decided by the Department.153139

       Section 263.190. AUXILIARY SERVICES153140

       The foregoing appropriation item 200511, Auxiliary Services, 153141
shall be used by the Department of Education for the purpose of 153142
implementing section 3317.06 of the Revised Code. Of the 153143
appropriation, up to $1,888,106 in fiscal year 2014 and up to 153144
$1,944,949 in fiscal year 2015 may be used for payment of the 153145
Post-Secondary Enrollment Program for nonpublic students, except 153146
that in fiscal year 2014 the Department may spend above the 153147
set-aside to pay for outstanding obligations for the 153148
Post-Secondary Enrollment Options Program in fiscal year 2013.153149

       Section 263.200. NONPUBLIC ADMINISTRATIVE COST REIMBURSEMENT153150

       The foregoing appropriation item 200532, Nonpublic 153151
Administrative Cost Reimbursement, shall be used by the Department 153152
of Education for the purpose of implementing section 3317.063 of 153153
the Revised Code.153154

       Section 263.210. SPECIAL EDUCATION ENHANCEMENTS153155

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200540, Special Education 153156
Enhancements, up to $50,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be used 153157
to fund special education and related services at county boards of 153158
developmental disabilities for eligible students under section 153159
3317.20 of the Revised Code and at institutions for eligible 153160
students under section 3317.201 of the Revised Code. If necessary, 153161
the Department shall proportionately reduce the amount calculated 153162
for each county board of developmental disabilities and 153163
institution so as not to exceed the amount appropriated in each 153164
fiscal year.153165

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200540, Special Education 153166
Enhancements, up to $1,333,468 in each fiscal year shall be used 153167
for parent mentoring programs.153168

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200540, Special Education 153169
Enhancements, up to $2,537,824 in each fiscal year may be used for 153170
school psychology interns.153171

        The remainder of appropriation item 200540, Special Education 153172
Enhancements, shall be distributed by the Department of Education 153173
to school districts and institutions, as defined in section 153174
3323.091 of the Revised Code, for preschool special education 153175
funding under section 3317.0213 of the Revised Code. If necessary, 153176
the Department shall proportionately reduce the amount calculated 153177
for each school district and institution so as not to exceed the 153178
amount appropriated in each fiscal year.153179

       The Department may reimburse school districts and 153180
institutions for services provided by instructional assistants, 153181
related services as defined in rule 3301-51-11 of the 153182
Administrative Code, physical therapy services provided by a 153183
licensed physical therapist or physical therapist assistant under 153184
the supervision of a licensed physical therapist as required under 153185
Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code and Chapter 4755-27 of the 153186
Administrative Code and occupational therapy services provided by 153187
a licensed occupational therapist or occupational therapy 153188
assistant under the supervision of a licensed occupational 153189
therapist as required under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code and 153190
Chapter 4755-7 of the Administrative Code. Nothing in this section 153191
authorizes occupational therapy assistants or physical therapist 153192
assistants to generate or manage their own caseloads.153193

       The Department of Education shall require school districts, 153194
educational service centers, county DD boards, and institutions 153195
serving preschool children with disabilities to adhere to Ohio's 153196
early learning program standards, participate in the tiered 153197
quality rating and improvement system developed under section 153198
5104.30 of the Revised Code, and document child progress using 153199
research-based indicators prescribed by the Department and report 153200
results annually. The reporting dates and method shall be 153201
determined by the Department. Effective July 1, 2018, all programs 153202
shall be rated through the tiered quality rating and improvement 153203
system.153204

       Section 263.220. CAREER-TECHNICAL EDUCATION ENHANCEMENTS153205

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200545, Career-Technical 153206
Education Enhancements, up to $2,563,568 in each fiscal year shall 153207
be used to fund secondary career-technical education at 153208
institutions using a grant-based methodology, notwithstanding 153209
section 3317.05 of the Revised Code.153210

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200545, Career-Technical 153211
Education Enhancements, up to $2,838,281 in each fiscal year shall 153212
be used by the Department of Education to fund competitive grants 153213
to tech prep consortia that expand the number of students enrolled 153214
in tech prep programs. These grant funds shall be used to directly 153215
support expanded tech prep programs provided to students enrolled 153216
in school districts, including joint vocational school districts, 153217
and affiliated higher education institutions. This support may 153218
include the purchase of equipment.153219

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200545, Career-Technical 153220
Education Enhancements, up to $3,100,850 in each fiscal year shall 153221
be used by the Department of Education to support existing High 153222
Schools That Work (HSTW) sites, develop and support new sites, 153223
fund technical assistance, and support regional centers and middle 153224
school programs. The purpose of HSTW is to combine challenging 153225
academic courses and modern career-technical studies to raise the 153226
academic achievement of students. HSTW provides intensive 153227
technical assistance, focused staff development, targeted 153228
assessment services, and ongoing communications and networking 153229
opportunities.153230

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200545, Career-Technical 153231
Education Enhancements, up to $600,000 in each fiscal year shall 153232
be used by the Department of Education to enable students in 153233
agricultural programs to enroll in a fifth quarter of instruction 153234
based on the agricultural education model of delivering work-based 153235
learning through supervised agricultural experience. The 153236
Department of Education shall determine eligibility criteria and 153237
the reporting process for the Agriculture 5th Quarter Project and 153238
shall fund as many programs as possible given the set aside. The 153239
eligibility criteria developed by the Department shall allow these 153240
funds to support supervised agricultural experience that occurs 153241
anytime outside of the regular school day.153242

       Of the foregoing appropriation item, 200545, Career-Technical 153243
Education Enhancements, up to $162,200 in each fiscal year shall 153244
be distributed to the Cleveland Municipal School District and the 153245
Cincinnati City School District to be used for a VoAg Program in 153246
one at-risk nonvocational school in each district. The amount 153247
distributed to the Cleveland Municipal School District shall be 153248
equal to $78,600 minus the funding allocated to the district under 153249
division (A)(8) of section 3317.022 of the Revised Code for the 153250
students participating in the program. The amount distributed to 153251
the Cincinnati City School District shall be equal to $83,600 153252
minus the funding allocated to the district under section 3317.162 153253
of the Revised Code for the students participating in the program.153254

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200545, Career-Technical 153255
Education Enhancements, $108,100 in each fiscal year shall be used 153256
to prepare students for careers in culinary arts and restaurant 153257
management under the Ohio ProStart school restaurant program.153258

       Section 263.230. FOUNDATION FUNDING153259

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 153260
Funding, up to $675,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to 153261
support the work of the College of Education and Human Ecology at 153262
the Ohio State University in reviewing and assessing the alignment 153263
of courses offered through the distance learning clearinghouse 153264
established in sections 3333.81 to 3333.88 of the Revised Code 153265
with the academic content standards adopted under division (A) of 153266
section 3301.079 of the Revised Code.153267

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 153268
Funding, up to $40,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to 153269
provide additional state aid to school districts, joint vocational 153270
school districts, community schools, and STEM schools for special 153271
education students under division (C)(3) of section 3314.08, 153272
section 3317.0214, division (B) of section 3317.16, and section 153273
3326.34 of the Revised Code, except that the Controlling Board may 153274
increase these amounts if presented with such a request from the 153275
Department of Education at the final meeting of the fiscal year.153276

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 153277
Funding, up to $2,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be reserved 153278
for Youth Services tuition payments under section 3317.024 of the 153279
Revised Code.153280

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 153281
Funding, up to $3,800,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to 153282
fund gifted education at educational service centers. The 153283
Department shall distribute the funding through the unit-based 153284
funding methodology in place under division (L) of section 153285
3317.024, division (E) of section 3317.05, and divisions (A), (B), 153286
and (C) of section 3317.053 of the Revised Code as they existed 153287
prior to fiscal year 2010.153288

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 153289
Funding, up to $43,500,000 in fiscal year 2014 and up to 153290
$40,000,000 in fiscal year 2015 shall be reserved to fund the 153291
state reimbursement of educational service centers under the 153292
section of this act entitled "EDUCATIONAL SERVICE CENTERS 153293
FUNDING"; and up to $3,500,000 in each fiscal year shall be 153294
distributed to educational service centers for School Improvement 153295
Initiatives and, in consultation with the Governor's Director of 153296
21st Century Education, for the provision of technical assistance 153297
as required by the Elementary and Secondary Education Act 153298
Flexibility waivers approved for Ohio by the United States 153299
Department of Education. Educational service centers shall be 153300
required to support districts in the development and 153301
implementation of their continuous improvement plans as required 153302
in section 3302.04 of the Revised Code and to provide technical 153303
assistance and support in accordance with Title I of the "No Child 153304
Left Behind Act of 2001," 115 Stat. 1425, 20 U.S.C. 6317, as 153305
administered pursuant to the Elementary and Secondary Education 153306
Act Flexibility waivers approved for Ohio by the United States 153307
Department of Education. 153308

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 153309
Funding, up to $20,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be reserved 153310
for payments under sections 3317.026, 3317.027, and 3317.028 of 153311
the Revised Code. If this amount is not sufficient, the Department 153312
of Education shall prorate the payment amounts so that the 153313
aggregate amount allocated in this paragraph is not exceeded.153314

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 153315
Funding, up to $2,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to pay 153316
career-technical planning districts for the amounts reimbursed to 153317
students, as prescribed in this paragraph. Each career-technical 153318
planning district shall reimburse individuals taking the online 153319
General Educational Development (GED) test for the first time for 153320
application/test fees in excess of $40. Each career-technical 153321
planning district shall designate a site or sites where 153322
individuals may register and take the exam. For each individual 153323
that registers for the exam, the career-technical planning 153324
district shall make available and offer career counseling 153325
services, including information on adult education programs that 153326
are available.153327

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 153328
Funding, up to $410,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to pay 153329
career-technical planning districts $500 for each student that 153330
receives a journeyman certification, as recognized by the United 153331
States Department of Labor.153332

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 153333
Funding, up to $18,713,327 in each fiscal year shall be used to 153334
support school choice programs.153335

       Of the portion of the funds distributed to the Cleveland 153336
Municipal School District under this section, up to $11,901,887 in 153337
each fiscal year shall be used to operate the school choice 153338
program in the Cleveland Municipal School District under sections 153339
3313.974 to 3313.979 of the Revised Code. Notwithstanding 153340
divisions (B) and (C) of section 3313.978 and division (C) of 153341
section 3313.979 of the Revised Code, up to $1,000,000 in each 153342
fiscal year of this amount shall be used by the Cleveland 153343
Municipal School District to provide tutorial assistance as 153344
provided in division (H) of section 3313.974 of the Revised Code. 153345
The Cleveland Municipal School District shall report the use of 153346
these funds in the district's three-year continuous improvement 153347
plan as described in section 3302.04 of the Revised Code in a 153348
manner approved by the Department of Education.153349

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 153350
Funding, up to $2,000,000 in fiscal year 2015 shall be used to pay 153351
college-preparatory boarding schools the per pupil boarding amount 153352
pursuant to section 3328.34 of the Revised Code.153353

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 153354
Funding, up to $500,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to 153355
support Jobs for Ohio's Graduates.153356

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 153357
Funding, up to $250,000 in fiscal year 2015 may be used for 153358
payment of the Post-Secondary Enrollment Options Program for 153359
students instructed at home pursuant to section 3321.04 of the 153360
Revised Code.153361

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 153362
Funding, up to $5,000,000 in fiscal year 2014 shall be used to 153363
reimburse school districts for the full amount deducted in that 153364
year under section 3310.55 of the Revised Code for Jon Peterson 153365
Scholarships awarded under sections 3310.51 to 3310.64 of the 153366
Revised Code to students who did not attend a public school in 153367
their resident district in the previous school year. If this 153368
amount is not sufficient, the Department of Education shall 153369
prorate the payment amounts so that the aggregate amount 153370
appropriated in this paragraph is not exceeded.153371

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 153372
Funding, an amount shall be available in each fiscal year to be 153373
paid to joint vocational school districts in accordance with 153374
division (A) of section 3317.16 of the Revised Code and the 153375
section of this act entitled "TEMPORARY TRANSITIONAL AID FOR JOINT 153376
VOCATIONAL SCHOOL DISTRICTS."153377

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 153378
Funding, up to $700,000 in each fiscal year shall be used by the 153379
Department of Education for a program to pay for educational 153380
services for youth who have been assigned by a juvenile court or 153381
other authorized agency to any of the facilities described in 153382
division (A) of the section of this act entitled "PRIVATE 153383
TREATMENT FACILITY PROJECT."153384

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 153385
Funding, an amount shall be available in each fiscal year to pay 153386
eligible community schools the amounts required to comply with 153387
divisions (B) and (C) of the section of this act entitled 153388
"GUARANTEE FOR HIGH PERFORMING COMMUNITY SCHOOLS."153389

       The remainder of appropriation item 200550, Foundation 153390
Funding, shall be used to distribute the amounts calculated for 153391
formula aid under section 3317.022 of the Revised Code and the 153392
section of this act entitled "TEMPORARY TRANSITIONAL AID FOR CITY, 153393
LOCAL, AND EXEMPTED VILLAGE SCHOOL DISTRICTS."153394

       Appropriation items 200502, Pupil Transportation, 200540, 153395
Special Education Enhancements, and 200550, Foundation Funding, 153396
other than specific set-asides, are collectively used in each 153397
fiscal year to pay state formula aid obligations for school 153398
districts, community schools, STEM schools, college preparatory 153399
boarding schools, and joint vocational school districts under this 153400
act. The first priority of these appropriation items, with the 153401
exception of specific set-asides, is to fund state formula aid 153402
obligations. It may be necessary to reallocate funds among these 153403
appropriation items or use excess funds from other general revenue 153404
fund appropriation items in the Department of Education's budget 153405
in each fiscal year, in order to meet state formula aid 153406
obligations. If it is determined that it is necessary to transfer 153407
funds among these appropriation items or to transfer funds from 153408
other General Revenue Fund appropriations in the Department of 153409
Education's budget to meet state formula aid obligations, the 153410
Department of Education shall seek approval from the Controlling 153411
Board to transfer funds as needed.153412

       The Superintendent of Public Instruction shall make payments, 153413
transfers, and deductions, as authorized by Title XXXIII of the 153414
Revised Code and Sections 267.30.50, 267.30.53, 267.30.56, and 153415
267.30.60 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly, in 153416
amounts substantially equal to those made in the prior year, or 153417
otherwise, at the discretion of the Superintendent, until at least 153418
the effective date of the amendments and enactments made to Title 153419
XXXIII by this act. If a new school district, community school, or 153420
STEM school opens prior to the effective date of this act, the 153421
Department of Education shall pay to the district or school an 153422
amount of $5,000 per pupil, based upon the estimated number of 153423
students that the district or school is expected to serve. Any 153424
funds paid to districts or schools under this section shall be 153425
credited toward the annual funds calculated for the district or 153426
school after the changes made to Title XXXIII in this act are 153427
effective. Upon the effective date of changes made to Title XXXIII 153428
in this act, funds shall be calculated as an annual amount.153429

       Section 263.240. TEMPORARY TRANSITIONAL AID FOR CITY, LOCAL, 153430
AND EXEMPTED VILLAGE SCHOOL DISTRICTS153431

        The Department of Education shall distribute funds within 153432
appropriation item 200550, Foundation Funding, for temporary 153433
transitional aid in each fiscal year to each qualifying city, 153434
local, and exempted village school district.153435

       (A) For fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the Department shall pay 153436
temporary transitional aid to each city, local, or exempted 153437
village school district that experiences any decrease in its state 153438
foundation funding for the current fiscal year from its 153439
transitional aid guarantee base. The amount of the temporary 153440
transitional aid payment shall equal the difference between its 153441
foundation funding for the current fiscal year and its 153442
transitional aid guarantee base. If the computation made under 153443
this division results in a negative number, the district's funding 153444
under this division shall be zero.153445

       (1) As used in this section, foundation funding for each 153446
city, local, and exempted village school district for a given 153447
fiscal year equals the sum of the amount calculated for the 153448
district under section 3317.022 of the Revised Code, as re-enacted 153449
by this act, and the amounts calculated for the district under 153450
divisions (G)(1) and (2) of section 3317.0212 of the Revised Code, 153451
as amended by this act, for that fiscal year.153452

       (2) The transitional aid guarantee base for each city, local, 153453
and exempted village school district equals the sum of the amounts 153454
computed for the district for fiscal year 2013, under Sections 153455
267.30.50, 267.30.53, and 267.30.56 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 153456
129th General Assembly. The Department of Education shall adjust, 153457
as necessary, the transitional aid guarantee base of any local 153458
school district that participates in the establishment of a joint 153459
vocational school district that begins receiving payments under 153460
section 3317.16 of the Revised Code, as re-enacted by this act, 153461
for fiscal year 2014, but does not receive payments under Section 153462
267.30.60 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly, for 153463
fiscal year 2013. The Department shall adjust any such local 153464
school district's guarantee base according to the amounts received 153465
by the district in fiscal year 2013 for career-technical education 153466
students who attend the newly established joint vocational school 153467
district in fiscal year 2014.153468

       (B)(1) Notwithstanding section 3317.022 of the Revised Code, 153469
as re-enacted by this act, in fiscal year 2014, no city, local, or 153470
exempted village school district shall be allocated foundation 153471
funding that is greater than 1.0625 times the district's 153472
transitional aid guarantee base.153473

       (2) Notwithstanding section 3317.022 of the Revised Code, as 153474
re-enacted by this act, in fiscal year 2015, no city, local, or 153475
exempted village school district shall be allocated foundation 153476
funding that is greater than 1.105 times the amount computed for 153477
foundation funding for the district for fiscal year 2014 plus any 153478
amount calculated for temporary transitional aid for fiscal year 153479
2014 under division (A) of this section and after any reductions 153480
made for fiscal year 2014 under division (B)(1) of this section.153481

        (3) The Department shall reduce a district's payments under 153482
divisions (A)(1), (2), (4), (5), (6), and (7) of section 3317.022 153483
of the Revised Code, as re-enacted by this act, and divisions 153484
(G)(1) and (2) of section 3317.0212 of the Revised Code, as 153485
amended by this act, proportionately as necessary in order to 153486
comply with this division. If those amounts are insufficient, the 153487
Department shall proportionately reduce a district's payments 153488
under divisions (A)(3), (8), and (9) of section 3317.022 of the 153489
Revised Code, as re-enacted by this act.153490

       Section 263.250.  TEMPORARY TRANSITIONAL AID FOR JOINT 153491
VOCATIONAL SCHOOL DISTRICTS153492

       The Department of Education shall distribute funds within 153493
appropriation item 200550, Foundation Funding, for temporary 153494
transitional aid in each fiscal year to each qualifying joint 153495
vocational school district.153496

       (A) For fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the Department shall pay 153497
temporary transitional aid to each joint vocational school 153498
district that experiences any decrease in its state core 153499
foundation funding under division (A) of section 3317.16 of the 153500
Revised Code, as re-enacted by this act, for the current fiscal 153501
year from its transitional aid guarantee base. The amount of the 153502
temporary transitional aid payment shall equal the difference 153503
between the district's funding under division (A) of section 153504
3317.16 of the Revised Code for the current fiscal year and its 153505
transitional aid guarantee base. If the computation made under 153506
this division results in a negative number, the district's funding 153507
under this division shall be zero.153508

       The transitional aid guarantee base for each joint vocational 153509
school district equals the amount computed for the district for 153510
fiscal year 2013, under Section 267.30.60 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of 153511
the 129th General Assembly. The Department of Education shall 153512
establish, as necessary, the transitional aid guarantee base of 153513
any joint vocational school district that begins receiving 153514
payments under section 3317.16 of the Revised Code, as re-enacted 153515
by this act, for fiscal year 2014, but does not receive payments 153516
under Section 267.30.60 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General 153517
Assembly, for fiscal year 2013. The Department shall establish any 153518
such joint vocational school district's guarantee base as an 153519
amount equal to the absolute value of the sum of the associated 153520
adjustments of any local school districts' guarantee bases under 153521
Section 263.240 of this act.153522

       (B)(1) Notwithstanding division (A) of section 3317.16 of the 153523
Revised Code, as re-enacted by this act, in fiscal year 2014, no 153524
joint vocational school district shall be allocated state core 153525
foundation funding, as computed under division (A) of section 153526
3317.16 of the Revised Code, as re-enacted by this act, that is 153527
greater than 1.0625 times the district's transitional aid 153528
guarantee base.153529

       (2) Notwithstanding division (A) of section 3317.16 of the 153530
Revised Code, as re-enacted by this act, in fiscal year 2015, no 153531
joint vocational school district shall be allocated state core 153532
foundation funding, under division (A) of section 3317.16 of the 153533
Revised Code, as re-enacted by this act, that is greater than 153534
1.105 times the amount computed for state core foundation funding 153535
for the district for fiscal year 2014 under division (A) of 153536
section 3317.16 of the Revised Code, as re-enacted by this act, 153537
plus any amount calculated for temporary transitional aid for 153538
fiscal year 2014 under division (A) of this section and after any 153539
reductions made for fiscal year 2014 under division (B)(1) of this 153540
section.153541

       (3) The Department shall reduce a district's payments under 153542
divisions (A)(1), (3), and (4) of section 3317.16 of the Revised 153543
Code, as re-enacted by this act, proportionately as necessary in 153544
order to comply with this division. If those amounts are 153545
insufficient, the Department shall proportionately reduce a 153546
district's payments under divisions (A)(2), (5), and (6) of 153547
section 3317.16 of the Revised Code, as re-enacted by this act.153548

       Section 263.253. GUARANTEE FOR HIGH PERFORMING COMMUNITY 153549
SCHOOLS153550

        (A) As used in this section, "eligible community school" 153551
means a community school established under Chapter 3314. of the 153552
Revised Code that, for the 2009-2010, 2010-2011, and 2011-2012 153553
school years, was declared to be excellent or higher under section 153554
3302.03 of the Revised Code, as that section existed prior to 153555
March 22, 2013.153556

       (B) Notwithstanding section 3314.08 of the Revised Code, as 153557
amended by this act, in fiscal year 2014, no eligible community 153558
school shall receive payments under divisions (C)(1) and (2) of 153559
section 3314.08 of the Revised Code, as amended by this act, and 153560
division (D) of section 3314.091 of the Revised Code, as amended 153561
by this act, in an aggregate amount that is less than the 153562
community school's payments for fiscal year 2013 under divisions 153563
(D)(1), (2), and (4) to (10) of section 3314.08 of the Revised 153564
Code, as that section existed prior to the effective date of the 153565
amendments to that section by this act, division (D) of section 153566
3314.091 of the Revised Code, as that section existed prior to the 153567
effective date of the amendments to that section by this act, and 153568
Section 267.30.56 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General 153569
Assembly.153570

        (C) Notwithstanding section 3314.08 of the Revised Code, as 153571
amended by this act, in fiscal year 2015, no eligible community 153572
school shall receive payments under divisions (C)(1) and (2) of 153573
section 3314.08 of the Revised Code, as amended by this act, and 153574
division (D) of section 3314.091 of the Revised Code, as amended 153575
by this act, in an aggregate amount that is less than the 153576
community school's payments for fiscal year 2013 under divisions 153577
(D)(1), (2), and (4) to (10) of section 3314.08 of the Revised 153578
Code, as that section existed prior to the effective date of the 153579
amendments to that section by this act, and division (D) of 153580
section 3314.091 of the Revised Code, as that section existed 153581
prior to the effective date of the amendments to that section by 153582
this act, and Section 267.30.56 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th 153583
General Assembly.153584

       Section 263.255. LITERACY IMPROVEMENT 153585

       The foregoing appropriation item 200566, Literacy 153586
Improvement, shall be used for Read Baby Read.153587

       Section 263.260. PROPERTY TAX ALLOCATION - EDUCATION153588

       The Superintendent of Public Instruction shall not request, 153589
and the Controlling Board shall not approve, the transfer of 153590
appropriation from appropriation item 200901, Property Tax 153591
Allocation - Education, to any other appropriation item.153592

       The appropriation item 200901, Property Tax Allocation - 153593
Education, is appropriated to pay for the state's costs incurred 153594
because of the homestead exemption, the property tax rollback, and 153595
payments required under division (C) of section 5705.2110 of the 153596
Revised Code. In cooperation with the Department of Taxation, the 153597
Department of Education shall distribute these funds directly to 153598
the appropriate school districts of the state, notwithstanding 153599
sections 321.24 and 323.156 of the Revised Code, which provide for 153600
payment of the homestead exemption and property tax rollback by 153601
the Tax Commissioner to the appropriate county treasurer and the 153602
subsequent redistribution of these funds to the appropriate local 153603
taxing districts by the county auditor.153604

       Upon receipt of these amounts, each school district shall 153605
distribute the amount among the proper funds as if it had been 153606
paid as real or tangible personal property taxes. Payments for the 153607
costs of administration shall continue to be paid to the county 153608
treasurer and county auditor as provided for in sections 319.54, 153609
321.26, and 323.156 of the Revised Code.153610

       Any sums, in addition to the amount specifically appropriated 153611
in appropriation items 200901, Property Tax Allocation - 153612
Education, for the homestead exemption and the property tax 153613
rollback payments, and payments required under division (C) of 153614
section 5705.2110 of the Revised Code, which are determined to be 153615
necessary for these purposes, are hereby appropriated.153616

       Section 263.270. TEACHER CERTIFICATION AND LICENSURE153617

       The foregoing appropriation item 200681, Teacher 153618
Certification and Licensure, shall be used by the Department of 153619
Education in each year of the biennium to administer and support 153620
teacher certification and licensure activities.153621

       SCHOOL DISTRICT SOLVENCY ASSISTANCE153622

       (A) Of the foregoing appropriation item 200687, School 153623
District Solvency Assistance, $20,000,000 in each fiscal year 153624
shall be allocated to the School District Shared Resource Account 153625
and $5,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be allocated to the 153626
Catastrophic Expenditures Account. These funds shall be used to 153627
provide assistance and grants to school districts to enable them 153628
to remain solvent under section 3316.20 of the Revised Code. 153629
Assistance and grants shall be subject to approval by the 153630
Controlling Board. Except as provided under division (C) of this 153631
section, any required reimbursements from school districts for 153632
solvency assistance shall be made to the appropriate account in 153633
the School District Solvency Assistance Fund (Fund 5H30).153634

       (B) Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, 153635
upon the request of the Superintendent of Public Instruction, the 153636
Director of Budget and Management may make transfers to the School 153637
District Solvency Assistance Fund (Fund 5H30) from any fund used 153638
by the Department of Education or the General Revenue Fund to 153639
maintain sufficient cash balances in Fund 5H30 in fiscal years 153640
2014 and 2015. Any cash transferred is hereby appropriated. The 153641
transferred cash may be used by the Department of Education to 153642
provide assistance and grants to school districts to enable them 153643
to remain solvent and to pay unforeseeable expenses of a temporary 153644
or emergency nature that the school district is unable to pay from 153645
existing resources. The Director of Budget and Management shall 153646
notify the members of the Controlling Board of any such transfers.153647

        (C) If the cash balance of the School District Solvency 153648
Assistance Fund (Fund 5H30) is insufficient to pay solvency 153649
assistance in fiscal years 2014 and 2015, at the request of the 153650
Superintendent of Public Instruction, and with the approval of the 153651
Controlling Board, the Director of Budget and Management may 153652
transfer cash from the Lottery Profits Education Reserve Fund 153653
(Fund 7018) to Fund 5H30 to provide assistance and grants to 153654
school districts to enable them to remain solvent and to pay 153655
unforeseeable expenses of a temporary nature that they are unable 153656
to pay from existing resources under section 3316.20 of the 153657
Revised Code. Such transfers are hereby appropriated to 153658
appropriation item 200670, School District Solvency Assistance – 153659
Lottery. Any required reimbursements from school districts for 153660
solvency assistance granted from appropriation item 200670, School 153661
District Solvency Assistance – Lottery, shall be made to Fund 153662
7018.153663

       Section 263.280. SCHOOLS MEDICAID ADMINISTRATIVE CLAIMS153664

       Upon the request of the Superintendent of Public Instruction, 153665
the Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to $750,000 153666
cash in each fiscal year from the General Revenue Fund to the 153667
Schools Medicaid Administrative Claims Fund (Fund 3AF0). The 153668
transferred cash is to be used by the Department of Education to 153669
pay the expenses the Department incurs in administering the 153670
Medicaid School Component of the Medicaid program established 153671
under sections 5162.36 to 5162.364 of the Revised Code. On June 1 153672
of each fiscal year, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 153673
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer cash from Fund 153674
3AF0 back to the General Revenue Fund in an amount equal to the 153675
total amount transferred to Fund 3AF0 in that fiscal year.153676

       The money deposited into Fund 3AF0 under division (B) of 153677
section 5162.64 of the Revised Code is hereby appropriated for 153678
fiscal years 2014 and 2015 and shall be used in accordance with 153679
division (C) of section 5162.64 of the Revised Code.153680

       Section 263.290.  HALF-MILL MAINTENANCE EQUALIZATION153681

        The foregoing appropriation item 200626, Half-Mill 153682
Maintenance Equalization, shall be used to make payments pursuant 153683
to section 3318.18 of the Revised Code.153684

       Section 263.300.  GATES FOUNDATION GRANTS153685

       The foregoing appropriation item 200668, Gates Foundation 153686
Grants, shall be used by the Department of Education to provide 153687
professional development to school district principals, 153688
superintendents, and other administrative staff on the use of 153689
education technology. 153690

       Section 263.310. AUXILIARY SERVICES REIMBURSEMENT153691

       Notwithstanding section 3317.064 of the Revised Code, if the 153692
unexpended, unencumbered cash balance is sufficient, the Treasurer 153693
of State shall transfer $1,500,000 in fiscal year 2014 within 153694
thirty days after the effective date of this section, and 153695
$1,500,000 in fiscal year 2015 by August 1, 2014, from the 153696
Auxiliary Services Personnel Unemployment Compensation Fund to the 153697
Auxiliary Services Reimbursement Fund (Fund 5980) used by the 153698
Department of Education.153699

       Section 263.320. LOTTERY PROFITS EDUCATION FUND153700

       Appropriation item 200612, Foundation Funding (Fund 7017), 153701
shall be used in conjunction with appropriation item 200550, 153702
Foundation Funding (GRF), to provide state foundation payments to 153703
school districts.153704

       The Department of Education, with the approval of the 153705
Director of Budget and Management, shall determine the monthly 153706
distribution schedules of appropriation item 200550, Foundation 153707
Funding (GRF), and appropriation item 200612, Foundation Funding 153708
(Fund 7017). If adjustments to the monthly distribution schedule 153709
are necessary, the Department of Education shall make such 153710
adjustments with the approval of the Director of Budget and 153711
Management.153712

       STRAIGHT A FUND153713

       Of the foregoing appropriation item, 200648, Straight A Fund, 153714
up to $375,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to provide 153715
scholarships to parents of high needs children enrolled in the Get 153716
Ready for Kindergarten pilot program. These scholarships shall be 153717
administered as provided under the section of this act entitled 153718
"GET READY FOR KINDERGARTEN."153719

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200648, Straight A Fund, 153720
up to $500,000 in fiscal year 2014 and up to $3,000,000 in fiscal 153721
year 2015 shall be used for the New Leaders for Ohio Schools Pilot 153722
Project in accordance with Section 733.40 of this act.153723

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200648, Straight A Fund, 153724
up to $70,000 in each fiscal year shall be used by Kids Unlimited 153725
of Toledo for quality after-school tutoring and mentoring programs 153726
in two elementary school buildings in Lucas County. The school 153727
buildings may include any community school, chartered nonpublic 153728
school, or building that is part of a city, local, or exempted 153729
village school district. Kids Unlimited of Toledo shall provide 153730
local matching funds equal to the set-aside.153731

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200648, Straight A Fund, 153732
up to $5,000,000 in fiscal year 2015 shall be used to support the 153733
implementation of the College Credit Plus Program established 153734
under Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code.153735

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200648, Straight A Fund, 153736
up to $250,000 in each fiscal year may be used to make competitive 153737
grants in accordance with Section 263.324 of this act.153738

       The remainder of appropriation item 200648, Straight A Fund, 153739
shall be used to make competitive grants in accordance with 153740
Section 263.325 of this act.153741

       EDCHOICE EXPANSION153742

       The foregoing appropriation item 200666, EdChoice Expansion, 153743
shall be used as follows:153744

       (A) In fiscal year 2014, notwithstanding section 3310.032 of 153745
the Revised Code, the Department of Education shall administer an 153746
expansion of the Educational Choice Scholarship program as 153747
follows:153748

        (1) A student is an "eligible student" for purposes of the 153749
expansion of the Educational Choice Scholarship Pilot Program 153750
under division (A) of this section if the student's resident 153751
district is not a school district in which the pilot project 153752
scholarship program is operating under sections 3313.974 to 153753
3313.979 of the Revised Code and the student's family income is at 153754
or below two hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines, 153755
as defined in section 5101.46 of the Revised Code.153756

       (2) The Department shall pay scholarships to attend chartered 153757
nonpublic schools in accordance with section 3310.08 of the 153758
Revised Code. The number of scholarships awarded under division 153759
(A) of this section shall not exceed the number that can be funded 153760
with appropriations made by the general assembly for this purpose.153761

       (3) Scholarships under division (A) of this section shall be 153762
awarded for the 2013-2014 school year, to eligible students who 153763
are entering kindergarten in that school year for the first time.153764

       (4) If the number of eligible students who apply for a 153765
scholarship exceeds the scholarships available based on the 153766
appropriation for division (A) of this section, the department 153767
shall award scholarships in the following order of priority:153768

       (a) First, to eligible students with family incomes at or 153769
below one hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines.153770

       (b) Second, to other eligible students who qualify under 153771
division (A) of this section. If the number of students described 153772
in division (A)(4)(b) of this section exceeds the number of 153773
available scholarships after awards are made under division 153774
(A)(4)(a) of this section, the department shall select students 153775
described in division (A)(4)(b) of this section by lot to receive 153776
any remaining scholarships.153777

       (5) A student who receives a scholarship under division (A) 153778
of this section remains an eligible student and may continue to 153779
receive scholarships under section 3310.032 of the Revised Code in 153780
subsequent school years until the student completes grade twelve, 153781
so long as the student satisfies the conditions specified in 153782
divisions (E)(2) and (3) of section 3310.03 of the Revised Code.153783

       Once a scholarship is awarded under this section, the student 153784
shall remain eligible for that scholarship for the current and 153785
subsequent school years, even if the student's family income rises 153786
above the amount specified in division (A) of section 3310.032 of 153787
the Revised Code, provided the student remains enrolled in a 153788
chartered nonpublic school.153789

       (B) In fiscal year 2015, to provide for the scholarships 153790
awarded under the expansion of the educational choice program 153791
established under section 3310.032 of the Revised Code. The number 153792
of scholarships awarded under the expansion of the educational 153793
choice program shall not exceed the number that can be funded with 153794
the appropriations made by the General Assembly for this purpose.153795

       COMMUNITY SCHOOL FACILITIES153796

       The foregoing appropriation item 200684, Community School 153797
Facilities, shall be used to pay each community school established 153798
under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code that is not an internet- 153799
or computer-based community school and each STEM school 153800
established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code an amount 153801
equal to $100 for each full-time equivalent pupil for assistance 153802
with the cost associated with facilities. If the amount 153803
appropriated is not sufficient, the Department of Education shall 153804
prorate the amounts so that the aggregate amount appropriated is 153805
not exceeded. 153806

       Section 263.323. GET READY FOR KINDERGARTEN153807

        (A) A preschool is an "eligible preschool" for the purposes 153808
of this section if the preschool has a quality rating in the top 153809
two tiers of the tiered rating improvement system developed under 153810
division (C)(3)(d) of section 5104.30 of the Revised Code.153811

        (B) The Department of Education shall provide scholarships to 153812
parents of high needs children to enroll in eligible preschools as 153813
defined in division (A) of this section.153814

        (C) Scholarships under this section shall be awarded to 153815
students who are at least age three but are not of compulsory 153816
school age, as defined in section 3321.01 of the Revised Code, and 153817
who are not currently enrolled in kindergarten. Students who 153818
receive scholarships under this section shall enroll in eligible 153819
preschools between July 1, 2013, and December 31, 2013.153820

       Section 263.324.  (A) A program that has applied for or 153821
received a Promise Neighborhood Implementation Grant from the 153822
United States Department of Education that is located in a city 153823
school district may apply to the Ohio Department of Education for 153824
a grant under this section.153825

        (B) To be eligible to receive a grant, a program shall meet 153826
either of the following criteria:153827

       (1) The program was awarded a Promise Neighborhood 153828
Implementation Grant in the year for which a grant is sought from 153829
the Ohio Department of Education.153830

        (2) The program applied to the United States Department of 153831
Education for a Promise Neighborhood Implementation Grant in 153832
either the year for which the state grant is sought or in the year 153833
prior to which the state grant is sought.153834

       (C) A program that receives a grant from the Ohio Department 153835
of Education under this section shall use the funds for 153836
administrative costs associated with the Promise Neighborhood 153837
Program.153838

        (D) Any program that receives a grant from the Ohio 153839
Department of Education under this section shall contribute local 153840
matching funds that are equal to the amount of the grant received 153841
by the Department.153842

       Section 263.325. (A) The Straight A Program is hereby created 153843
for fiscal years 2014 and 2015 to provide grants to city, local, 153844
exempted village, and joint vocational school districts, 153845
educational service centers, community schools established under 153846
Chapter 3314., STEM schools established under Chapter 3326., 153847
college-preparatory boarding schools established under Chapter 153848
3328. of the Revised Code, individual school buildings, education 153849
consortia (which may represent a partnership among school 153850
districts, school buildings, community schools, or STEM schools), 153851
institutions of higher education, and private entities partnering 153852
with one or more of the educational entities identified in this 153853
division for projects that aim to achieve significant advancement 153854
in one or more of the following goals:153855

       (1) Student achievement;153856

       (2) Spending reduction in the five-year fiscal forecast 153857
required under section 5705.391 of the Revised Code;153858

       (3) Utilization of a greater share of resources in the 153859
classroom.153860

       (B)(1) Grants shall be awarded by a nine-member governing 153861
board consisting of the Superintendent of Public Instruction, or 153862
the Superintendent's designee, four members appointed by the 153863
Governor, two members appointed by the Speaker of the House of 153864
Representatives, and two members appointed by the President of the 153865
Senate. The Department of Education shall provide administrative 153866
support to the board. No member shall be compensated for the 153867
member's service on the board.153868

       (2) The board may establish an advisory council consisting of 153869
grant advisors with fiscal expertise and education expertise. 153870
These advisors shall evaluate proposals from grant applicants, 153871
consult with the governing board regarding strategic planning, and 153872
advise the staff administering the program. No advisor shall be 153873
compensated for this service.153874

       (3) The board shall issue an annual report to the Governor, 153875
the Speaker of the House of Representatives, the President of the 153876
Senate, and the chairpersons of the House and Senate committees 153877
that primarily deal with education regarding the types of grants 153878
awarded, the grant recipients, and the effectiveness of the grant 153879
program.153880

       (4) The board shall create a grant application and publish on 153881
the Department's web site the application and timeline for the 153882
submission, review, notification, and awarding of grant proposals.153883

        (5) With the approval of the board, the Department shall 153884
establish a system for evaluating and scoring the grant 153885
applications received under this section. 153886

       (C) Each grant applicant shall submit a proposal that 153887
includes all of the following:153888

       (1) A description of the project for which the applicant is 153889
seeking a grant, including a description of how the project will 153890
have substantial value and lasting impact;153891

       (2) An explanation of how the project will be 153892
self-sustaining. If the project will result in increased ongoing 153893
spending, the applicant shall show how the spending will be offset 153894
by verifiable, credible, permanent spending reductions.153895

       (3) A description of quantifiable results of the project that 153896
can be benchmarked.153897

       If an education consortia described in division (A) of this 153898
section applies for a grant, the lead applicant shall be the 153899
school district, school building, community school, or STEM school 153900
that is a member of the consortia and shall so indicate on the 153901
grant application.153902

       (D)(1) Within seventy-five days after receiving a grant 153903
application, the board shall issue a decision on the application 153904
of "yes," "no," "hold," or "edit." In making its decision, the 153905
board shall consider whether the project has the capability of 153906
being replicated in other school districts and schools or creates 153907
something that can be used in other districts and schools.153908

       (2) If the board issues a "hold" or "edit" decision for an 153909
application, it shall, upon returning the application to the 153910
applicant, specify the process for reconsideration of the 153911
application. An applicant may work with the grant advisors and 153912
staff to modify or improve a grant application.153913

       (E) Upon deciding to award a grant to an applicant, the board 153914
shall enter into a grant agreement with the applicant that 153915
includes all of the following:153916

       (1) The content of the applicant's proposal as outlined under 153917
division (C) of this section;153918

       (2) The project's deliverables and a timetable for their 153919
completion;153920

       (3) Conditions for receiving grant funding;153921

       (4) Conditions for receiving funding in future years if the 153922
contract is a multi-year contract;153923

       (5) A provision specifying that funding will be returned to 153924
the board if the applicant fails to implement the agreement, as 153925
determined by the Auditor of State.153926

       (6) A provision specifying that the agreement may be amended 153927
by mutual agreement between the board and the applicant.153928

       (F) Each grant awarded under this section shall be subject to 153929
approval by the Controlling Board prior to execution of the grant 153930
agreement.153931

       Section 263.330. LOTTERY PROFITS EDUCATION RESERVE FUND153932

       (A) There is hereby created the Lottery Profits Education 153933
Reserve Fund (Fund 7018) in the State Treasury. Investment 153934
earnings of the Lottery Profits Education Reserve Fund shall be 153935
credited to the fund.153936

       (B) Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the 153937
contrary, the Director of Budget and Management may transfer cash 153938
from Fund 7018 to the Lottery Profits Education Fund (Fund 7017) 153939
in fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015.153940

       (C) On July 15, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 153941
Director of the Ohio Lottery Commission shall certify to the 153942
Director of Budget and Management the amount by which lottery 153943
profit transfers received by Fund 7017 exceeded $680,500,000 in 153944
fiscal year 2013.153945

       (D) On July 15, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 153946
Director of the Ohio Lottery Commission shall certify to the 153947
Director of Budget and Management the amount by which lottery 153948
profit transfers received by Fund 7017 exceeded $841,000,000 in 153949
fiscal year 2014.153950

       (E) Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, in 153951
fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, the Director of Budget and 153952
Management may transfer cash in excess of the amounts necessary to 153953
support appropriations in Fund 7017 from that fund to Fund 7018.153954

       Section 263.340. GENERAL REVENUE FUND TRANSFERS TO SCHOOL 153955
DISTRICT PROPERTY TAX REPLACEMENT - BUSINESS (FUND 7047)153956

       Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, in 153957
fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015 the Director of Budget and 153958
Management may make temporary transfers between the General 153959
Revenue Fund and the School District Property Tax Replacement – 153960
Business Fund (Fund 7047), used by the Department of Education, to 153961
ensure sufficient balances in Fund 7047 and to replenish the 153962
General Revenue Fund for such transfers.153963

       Section 263.350. SCHOOL DISTRICT PROPERTY TAX REPLACEMENT - 153964
BUSINESS153965

       The foregoing appropriation item 200909, School District 153966
Property Tax Replacement – Business, shall be used by the 153967
Department of Education, in consultation with the Department of 153968
Taxation, to make payments to school districts and joint 153969
vocational school districts under section 5751.21 of the Revised 153970
Code. If it is determined by the Director of Budget and Management 153971
that additional appropriations are necessary for this purpose, 153972
such amounts are hereby appropriated.153973

       SCHOOL DISTRICT PROPERTY TAX REPLACEMENT - UTILITY153974

       The foregoing appropriation item 200900, School District 153975
Property Tax Replacement-Utility, shall be used by the Department 153976
of Education, in consultation with the Department of Taxation, to 153977
make payments to school districts and joint vocational school 153978
districts under section 5727.85 of the Revised Code. If it is 153979
determined by the Director of Budget and Management that 153980
additional appropriations are necessary for this purpose, such 153981
amounts are hereby appropriated.153982

       DISTRIBUTION FORMULAS153983

       The Department of Education shall report the following to the 153984
Director of Budget and Management and the Legislative Service 153985
Commission:153986

       (A) Changes in formulas for distributing state 153987
appropriations, including administratively defined formula 153988
factors;153989

       (B) Discretionary changes in formulas for distributing 153990
federal appropriations;153991

       (C) Federally mandated changes in formulas for distributing 153992
federal appropriations.153993

       Any such changes shall be reported two weeks prior to the 153994
effective date of the change.153995

       Section 263.360. EDUCATIONAL SERVICE CENTERS FUNDING153996

       In fiscal year 2014, the Department of Education shall pay 153997
the governing board of each primary educational service center 153998
state funds equal to thirty-seven dollars times its student count, 153999
as calculated under division (G)(1) of section 3313.843 of the 154000
Revised Code.154001

       In fiscal year 2015, the Department of Education shall pay 154002
the governing board of each primary educational service center 154003
state funds equal to thirty-five dollars times its student count, 154004
as calculated under division (G)(1) of section 3313.843 of the 154005
Revised Code.154006

        If the amount earmarked for the state reimbursement of 154007
educational service centers in appropriation item 200550, 154008
Foundation Funding, is not sufficient, the Department of Education 154009
shall prorate the payment amounts so that the appropriation is not 154010
exceeded.154011

       Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the 154012
Department of Education shall modify the payments under this 154013
section as follows:154014

       (A) If an educational service center ceases operation, the 154015
Department shall redistribute that center's funding, as calculated 154016
under this section, to the remaining centers in proportion to each 154017
center's service center ADM as defined in former section 3317.11 154018
of the Revised Code, as that section existed prior to the date of 154019
its repeal.154020

       (B) If two or more educational service centers merge 154021
operations to create a single service center, the Department shall 154022
distribute the sum of the original service centers' funding, as 154023
calculated under this section, to the new service center.154024

       Section 263.370. SCHOOL DISTRICT PARTICIPATION IN NATIONAL 154025
ASSESSMENT OF EDUCATION PROGRESS154026

       The General Assembly intends for the Superintendent of Public 154027
Instruction to provide for school district participation in the 154028
administration of the National Assessment of Education Progress in 154029
accordance with section 3301.27 of the Revised Code. Each school 154030
and school district selected for participation by the 154031
Superintendent of Public Instruction shall participate.154032

       Section 263.373. COMMUNITY SCHOOL FUNDING GUARANTEE FOR SBH 154033
STUDENTS154034

       (A) As used in this section:154035

       (1) "IEP" has the same meaning as in section 3323.01 of the 154036
Revised Code.154037

       (2) "SBH student" means a student receiving special education 154038
and related services for severe behavior disabilities pursuant to 154039
an IEP.154040

       (B) This section applies only to a community school 154041
established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code that in each 154042
of fiscal years 2014 and 2015 enrolls a number of SBH students 154043
equal to at least fifty per cent of the total number of students 154044
enrolled in the school in the applicable fiscal year.154045

       (C) In addition to any state foundation payments made, in 154046
each of fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the Department of Education 154047
shall pay to a community school to which this section applies a 154048
subsidy equal to the difference between the aggregate amount 154049
calculated and paid in that fiscal year to the community school 154050
for special education and related services additional weighted 154051
costs for the SBH students enrolled in the school and the 154052
aggregate amount that would have been calculated for the school 154053
for special education and related services additional weighted 154054
costs for those same students in fiscal year 2001. If the 154055
difference is a negative number, the amount of the subsidy shall 154056
be zero.154057

       (D) The amount of any subsidy paid to a community school 154058
under this section shall not be deducted from the school district 154059
in which any of the students enrolled in the community school are 154060
entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the 154061
Revised Code. The amount of any subsidy paid to a community school 154062
under this section shall be paid from funds appropriated to the 154063
Department of Education in appropriation item 200550, Foundation 154064
Funding.154065

       Section 263.380. EARMARK ACCOUNTABILITY154066

       At the request of the Superintendent of Public Instruction, 154067
any entity that receives a budget earmark under the Department of 154068
Education shall submit annually to the chairpersons of the 154069
committees of the House of Representatives and the Senate 154070
primarily concerned with education and to the Department of 154071
Education a report that includes a description of the services 154072
supported by the funds, a description of the results achieved by 154073
those services, an analysis of the effectiveness of the program, 154074
and an opinion as to the program's applicability to other school 154075
districts. For an earmarked entity that received state funds from 154076
an earmark in the prior fiscal year, no funds shall be provided by 154077
the Department of Education to an earmarked entity for a fiscal 154078
year until its report for the prior fiscal year has been 154079
submitted.154080

       Section 263.390. COMMUNITY SCHOOL OPERATING FROM HOME154081

        A community school established under Chapter 3314. of the 154082
Revised Code that was open for operation as a community school as 154083
of May 1, 2005, may operate from or in any home, as defined in 154084
section 3313.64 of the Revised Code, located in the state, 154085
regardless of when the community school's operations from or in a 154086
particular home began.154087

       Section 263.400. USE OF VOLUNTEERS154088

       The Department of Education may utilize the services of 154089
volunteers to accomplish any of the purposes of the Department. 154090
The Superintendent of Public Instruction shall approve for what 154091
purposes volunteers may be used and for these purposes may 154092
recruit, train, and oversee the services of volunteers. The 154093
Superintendent may reimburse volunteers for necessary and 154094
appropriate expenses in accordance with state guidelines and may 154095
designate volunteers as state employees for the purpose of motor 154096
vehicle accident liability insurance under section 9.83 of the 154097
Revised Code, for immunity under section 9.86 of the Revised Code, 154098
and for indemnification from liability incurred in the performance 154099
of their duties under section 9.87 of the Revised Code.154100

       Section 263.410. RESTRICTION OF LIABILITY FOR CERTAIN 154101
REIMBURSEMENTS154102

       (A) Except as expressly required under a court judgment not 154103
subject to further appeals, or a settlement agreement with a 154104
school district executed on or before June 1, 2009, in the case of 154105
a school district for which the formula ADM for fiscal year 2005, 154106
as reported for that fiscal year under division (A) of section 154107
3317.03 of the Revised Code, was reduced based on enrollment 154108
reports for community schools, made under section 3314.08 of the 154109
Revised Code, regarding students entitled to attend school in the 154110
district, which reduction of formula ADM resulted in a reduction 154111
of foundation funding or transitional aid funding for fiscal year 154112
2005, 2006, or 2007, no school district, except a district named 154113
in the court's judgment or the settlement agreement, shall have a 154114
legal claim for reimbursement of the amount of such reduction in 154115
foundation funding or transitional aid funding, and the state 154116
shall not have liability for reimbursement of the amount of such 154117
reduction in foundation funding or transitional aid funding. 154118

       (B) As used in this section: 154119

       (1) "Community school" means a community school established 154120
under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code.154121

       (2) "Entitled to attend school" means entitled to attend 154122
school in a school district under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of 154123
the Revised Code. 154124

       (3) "Foundation funding" means payments calculated for the 154125
respective fiscal year under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code.154126

       (4) "Transitional aid funding" means payments calculated for 154127
the respective fiscal year under Section 41.37 of Am. Sub. H.B. 95 154128
of the 125th General Assembly, as subsequently amended; Section 154129
206.09.39 of Am. Sub. H.B. 66 of the 126th General Assembly, as 154130
subsequently amended; and Section 269.30.80 of Am. Sub. H.B. 119 154131
of the 127th General Assembly. 154132

       Section 263.420.  UNAUDITABLE COMMUNITY SCHOOL154133

       (A) If the Auditor of State or a public accountant, pursuant 154134
to section 117.41 of the Revised Code, declares a community school 154135
established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code to be 154136
unauditable, the Auditor of State shall provide written 154137
notification of that declaration to the school, the school's 154138
sponsor, and the Department of Education. The Auditor of State 154139
also shall post the notification on the Auditor of State's web 154140
site.154141

       (B) Notwithstanding any provision to the contrary in Chapter 154142
3314. of the Revised Code or any other provision of law, a sponsor 154143
of a community school that is notified by the Auditor of State 154144
under division (A) of this section that a community school it 154145
sponsors is unauditable shall not enter into contracts with any 154146
additional community schools under section 3314.03 of the Revised 154147
Code until the Auditor of State or a public accountant has 154148
completed a financial audit of that school.154149

       (C) Not later than forty-five days after receiving 154150
notification by the Auditor of State under division (A) of this 154151
section that a community school is unauditable, the sponsor of the 154152
school shall provide a written response to the Auditor of State. 154153
The response shall include the following:154154

       (1) An overview of the process the sponsor will use to review 154155
and understand the circumstances that led to the community school 154156
becoming unauditable;154157

       (2) A plan for providing the Auditor of State with the 154158
documentation necessary to complete an audit of the community 154159
school and for ensuring that all financial documents are available 154160
in the future;154161

       (3) The actions the sponsor will take to ensure that the plan 154162
described in division (C)(2) of this section is implemented.154163

       (D) If a community school fails to make reasonable efforts 154164
and continuing progress to bring its accounts, records, files, or 154165
reports into an auditable condition within ninety days after being 154166
declared unauditable, the Auditor of State, in addition to 154167
requesting legal action under sections 117.41 and 117.42 of the 154168
Revised Code, shall notify the Department of the school's failure. 154169
If the Auditor of State or a public accountant subsequently is 154170
able to complete a financial audit of the school, the Auditor of 154171
State shall notify the Department that the audit has been 154172
completed.154173

       (E) Notwithstanding any provision to the contrary in Chapter 154174
3314. of the Revised Code or any other provision of law, upon 154175
notification by the Auditor of State under division (D) of this 154176
section that a community school has failed to make reasonable 154177
efforts and continuing progress to bring its accounts, records, 154178
files, or reports into an auditable condition following a 154179
declaration that the school is unauditable, the Department shall 154180
immediately cease all payments to the school under Chapter 3314. 154181
of the Revised Code and any other provision of law. Upon 154182
subsequent notification from the Auditor of State under that 154183
division that the Auditor of State or a public accountant was able 154184
to complete a financial audit of the community school, the 154185
Department shall release all funds withheld from the school under 154186
this section.154187

       Section 263.430.  FLEXIBLE FUNDING FOR FAMILIES AND CHILDREN154188

       In collaboration with the County Family and Children First 154189
Council, a city, local, or exempted village school district, 154190
community school, STEM school, joint vocational school district, 154191
educational service center, or county board of developmental 154192
disabilities that receives allocations from the Department of 154193
Education from appropriation item 200550, Foundation Funding, or 154194
appropriation item 200540, Special Education Enhancements, may 154195
transfer portions of those allocations to a flexible funding pool 154196
authorized by the Section of this act entitled "FAMILY AND 154197
CHILDREN FIRST FLEXIBLE FUNDING POOL." Allocations used for 154198
maintenance of effort or for federal or state funding matching 154199
requirements shall not be transferred unless the allocation may 154200
still be used to meet such requirements. 154201

       Section 263.440.  The Department of Education shall conduct a 154202
formative evaluation of the Jon Peterson Special Needs Scholarship 154203
Program established under sections 3310.51 to 3310.64 of the 154204
Revised Code and shall report its findings to the General 154205
Assembly, in accordance with section 101.68 of the Revised Code, 154206
not later than December 31, 2014.154207

        In conducting the evaluation, the Department shall to the 154208
extent possible gather comments from parents who have been awarded 154209
scholarships under the program, school district officials, 154210
representatives of registered private providers, educators, and 154211
representatives of educational organizations for inclusion in the 154212
report required under this section.154213

       The Department may contract with one or more qualified 154214
researchers who have previous experience evaluating school choice 154215
programs to conduct this study. The Department may accept grants 154216
to assist in funding this study.154217

       Section 263.443. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in 154218
section 3310.52 of the Revised Code, during the fall 2013 154219
application period for the Jon Peterson Special Needs Scholarship 154220
Program established under sections 3310.51 to 3310.64 of the 154221
Revised Code, the Department of Education shall not accept any 154222
applications from students who have not received a scholarship 154223
from the program in the previous or current school year.154224

       Section 263.450. (A) The Ohio Open Enrollment Task Force is 154225
hereby established to review and make recommendations on open 154226
enrollment. The Superintendent of Public Instruction shall consult 154227
with the Governor's Office of 21st Century Education to convene a 154228
taskforce that consists of representatives from school districts 154229
that represent all sectors of Ohio's educational community.154230

       (B) The Superintendent shall designate the chairperson of the 154231
Task Force. All meetings of the Task Force shall be held at the 154232
call of the chairperson.154233

       (C) The Task Force shall review and make recommendations 154234
regarding the process by which students may enroll in other school 154235
districts under open enrollment and the funding mechanisms 154236
associated with open enrollment deductions and credits.154237

       (D) Not later than December 31, 2013, the Task Force shall 154238
issue a report of its findings and recommendations to the 154239
Governor, the President of the Senate, and the Speaker of the 154240
House of Representatives. Upon issuance of the report, the Task 154241
Force shall cease to exist.154242

       Section 263.470.  (A) On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible 154243
thereafter, notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, 154244
and if requested by the Department of Education, the Director of 154245
Budget and Management shall make budget changes made necessary by 154246
the transfer of the operations and related management functions of 154247
the eTech Ohio Commission to the Department of Education, if any, 154248
including administrative organization, program transfers, the 154249
creation of new funds, the transfer of state funds, and the 154250
consolidation of funds, as authorized by this section. The 154251
Director of Budget and Management may, if necessary, establish 154252
encumbrances or parts of encumbrances in the fiscal year 2014-2015 154253
biennium in the appropriate fund and appropriation item for the 154254
same purpose and for payment to the same vendor. The established 154255
encumbrances plus any additional amounts determined to be 154256
necessary for the Ohio Department of Education to perform the 154257
operations and related management functions of the eTech Ohio 154258
Commission are hereby appropriated.154259

       (B) Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and 154260
Management shall cancel any existing encumbrances against 154261
appropriation item 935607, Gates Foundation Grants, and 154262
re-establish them against appropriation item 200668, Gates 154263
Foundation Grants. The re-established encumbrance amounts are 154264
hereby appropriated. Any business commenced but not completed 154265
under appropriation item 935607 by July 1, 2013, shall be 154266
completed under appropriation item 200668 in the same manner and 154267
with the same effect as if it were completed with regard to 154268
appropriation item 935607.154269

       (C) Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and 154270
Management shall cancel existing encumbrances against 154271
appropriation item 935408, General Operations, and re-establish 154272
them, as determined to be appropriate by the Director of Budget 154273
and Management, against appropriation item 200464, General 154274
Technology Operations. The re-established encumbrance amounts are 154275
hereby appropriated. Any business commenced but not completed 154276
under appropriation item 935408 by July 1, 2013, shall be 154277
completed, as determined to be appropriate by the Director of 154278
Budget and Management, under appropriation item 200464 in the same 154279
manner and with the same effect as if it were completed with 154280
regard to appropriation item 935408.154281

       (D) Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and 154282
Management shall cancel existing encumbrances against 154283
appropriation item 935411, Technology Integration and Professional 154284
Development, and re-establish them, as determined to be 154285
appropriate by the Director of Budget and Management, against 154286
appropriation item 200465, Technology Integration and Professional 154287
Development. The re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby 154288
appropriated. Any business commenced but not completed under 154289
appropriation item 935411 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed, as 154290
determined to be appropriate by the Director of Budget and 154291
Management, under appropriation item 200465 in the same manner and 154292
with the same effect as if it were completed with regard to 154293
appropriation item 935411.154294

       (E) There is hereby created the Educational Technology 154295
Practice Office as a cross-functional office comprised of 154296
employees of the Ohio Board of Regents and the Department of 154297
Education, including former employees of the eTech Ohio Commission 154298
transferred to the Ohio Board of Regents and the Department of 154299
Education. The Office shall work with educational service centers 154300
and information technology centers to develop digital learning, 154301
blended learning, and professional development materials using 154302
shared infrastructure. The Office shall also evaluate new 154303
educational technology and methodologies of teaching and learning 154304
and work with educators to increase awareness of such new 154305
technology and methodologies shown to be helpful to Ohio students.154306

       Section 263.473. Notwithstanding section 3321.01 of the 154307
Revised Code, no student who has been admitted to and has 154308
successfully completed kindergarten in the 2012-2013 school year 154309
shall be required to repeat kindergarten based solely on the age 154310
of the student.154311

       Section 263.480. PRIVATE TREATMENT FACILITY PROJECT154312

       (A) As used in this section:154313

       (1) The following are "participating residential treatment 154314
centers":154315

       (a) Private residential treatment facilities that have 154316
entered into a contract with the Department of Youth Services to 154317
provide services to children placed at the facility by the 154318
Department and which, in fiscal year 2014 or fiscal year 2015 or 154319
both, the Department pays through appropriation item 470401, 154320
RECLAIM Ohio;154321

       (b) Abraxas, in Shelby;154322

       (c) Paint Creek, in Bainbridge;154323

       (d) F.I.R.S.T., in Mansfield.154324

       (2) "Education program" means an elementary or secondary 154325
education program or a special education program and related 154326
services.154327

       (3) "Served child" means any child receiving an education 154328
program pursuant to division (B) of this section.154329

       (4) "School district responsible for tuition" means a city, 154330
exempted village, or local school district that, if tuition 154331
payment for a child by a school district is required under law 154332
that existed in fiscal year 1998, is the school district required 154333
to pay that tuition.154334

       (5) "Residential child" means a child who resides in a 154335
participating residential treatment center and who is receiving an 154336
educational program under division (B) of this section.154337

       (B) A youth who is a resident of the state and has been 154338
assigned by a juvenile court or other authorized agency to a 154339
residential treatment facility specified in division (A) of this 154340
section shall be enrolled in an approved educational program 154341
located in or near the facility. Approval of the educational 154342
program shall be contingent upon compliance with the criteria 154343
established for such programs by the Department of Education. The 154344
educational program shall be provided by a school district or 154345
educational service center, or by the residential facility itself. 154346
Maximum flexibility shall be given to the residential treatment 154347
facility to determine the provider. In the event that a voluntary 154348
agreement cannot be reached and the residential facility does not 154349
choose to provide the educational program, the educational service 154350
center in the county in which the facility is located shall 154351
provide the educational program at the treatment center to 154352
children under twenty-two years of age residing in the treatment 154353
center.154354

       (C) Any school district responsible for tuition for a 154355
residential child shall, notwithstanding any conflicting provision 154356
of the Revised Code regarding tuition payment, pay tuition for the 154357
child for fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015 to the education 154358
program provider and in the amount specified in this division. If 154359
there is no school district responsible for tuition for a 154360
residential child and if the participating residential treatment 154361
center to which the child is assigned is located in the city, 154362
exempted village, or local school district that, if the child were 154363
not a resident of that treatment center, would be the school 154364
district where the child is entitled to attend school under 154365
sections 3313.64 and 3313.65 of the Revised Code, that school 154366
district, notwithstanding any conflicting provision of the Revised 154367
Code, shall pay tuition for the child for fiscal year 2014 and 154368
fiscal year 2015 under this division unless that school district 154369
is providing the educational program to the child under division 154370
(B) of this section.154371

       A tuition payment under this division shall be made to the 154372
school district, educational service center, or residential 154373
treatment facility providing the educational program to the child.154374

       The amount of tuition paid shall be:154375

       (1) The amount of tuition determined for the district under 154376
division (A) of section 3317.08 of the Revised Code;154377

       (2) In addition, for any student receiving special education 154378
pursuant to an individualized education program as defined in 154379
section 3323.01 of the Revised Code, a payment for excess costs. 154380
This payment shall equal the actual cost to the school district, 154381
educational service center, or residential treatment facility of 154382
providing special education and related services to the student 154383
pursuant to the student's individualized education program, minus 154384
the tuition paid for the child under division (C)(1) of this 154385
section.154386

       A school district paying tuition under this division shall 154387
not include the child for whom tuition is paid in the district's 154388
average daily membership certified under division (A) of section 154389
3317.03 of the Revised Code.154390

       (D) In each of fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the Department of 154391
Education shall reimburse, from appropriations made for the 154392
purpose, a school district, educational service center, or 154393
residential treatment facility, whichever is providing the 154394
service, that has demonstrated that it is in compliance with the 154395
funding criteria for each served child for whom a school district 154396
must pay tuition under division (C) of this section. The amount of 154397
the reimbursement shall be the amount appropriated for this 154398
purpose divided by the full-time equivalent number of children for 154399
whom reimbursement is to be made.154400

       (E) Funds provided to a school district, educational service 154401
center, or residential treatment facility under this section shall 154402
be used to supplement, not supplant, funds from other public 154403
sources for which the school district, service center, or 154404
residential treatment facility is entitled or eligible.154405

       (F) The Department of Education shall track the utilization 154406
of funds provided to school districts, educational service 154407
centers, and residential treatment facilities under this section 154408
and monitor the effect of the funding on the educational programs 154409
they provide in participating residential treatment facilities. 154410
The Department shall monitor the programs for educational 154411
accountability.154412

       Section 265.10. ELC OHIO ELECTIONS COMMISSION154413

General Revenue Fund154414

GRF 051321 Operating Expenses $ 333,117 $ 333,117 154415
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 333,117 $ 333,117 154416

General Services Fund Group154417

4P20 051601 Ohio Elections Commission Fund $ 225,000 $ 225,000 154418
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 225,000 $ 225,000 154419
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 558,117 $ 558,117 154420


       Section 267.10. FUN STATE BOARD OF EMBALMERS AND FUNERAL 154422
DIRECTORS154423

General Services Fund Group154424

4K90 881609 Operating Expenses $ 737,000 $ 741,000 154425
TOTAL GSF General Services 154426
Fund Group $ 737,000 $ 741,000 154427
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 737,000 $ 741,000 154428


       Section 269.10. PAY EMPLOYEE BENEFITS FUNDS154430

Accrued Leave Liability Fund Group154431

8060 995666 Accrued Leave Fund $ 73,494,242 $ 74,964,127 154432
8070 995667 Disability Fund $ 26,593,747 $ 27,345,147 154433
TOTAL ALF Accrued Leave Liability 154434
Fund Group $ 100,087,989 $ 102,309,274 154435

Agency Fund Group154436

1240 995673 Payroll Deductions $ 775,712,468 $ 814,498,091 154437
8080 995668 State Employee Health Benefit Fund $ 689,654,314 $ 758,608,963 154438
8090 995669 Dependent Care Spending Account $ 2,967,711 $ 3,116,097 154439
8100 995670 Life Insurance Investment Fund $ 2,143,053 $ 2,143,053 154440
8110 995671 Parental Leave Benefit Fund $ 3,668,471 $ 3,741,840 154441
8130 995672 Health Care Spending Account $ 8,033,020 $ 8,434,671 154442
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 1,482,179,037 $ 1,590,542,715 154443
154444

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,582,267,026 $ 1,692,851,989 154445

       ACCRUED LEAVE LIABILITY FUND154446

       The foregoing appropriation item 995666, Accrued Leave Fund, 154447
shall be used to make payments from the Accrued Leave Liability 154448
Fund (Fund 8060) pursuant to section 125.211 of the Revised Code. 154449
If it is determined by the Director of Budget and Management that 154450
additional amounts are necessary, the amounts are hereby 154451
appropriated.154452

       STATE EMPLOYEE DISABILITY LEAVE BENEFIT FUND154453

       The foregoing appropriation item 995667, Disability Fund, 154454
shall be used to make payments from the State Employee Disability 154455
Leave Benefit Fund (Fund 8070) pursuant to section 124.83 of the 154456
Revised Code. If it is determined by the Director of Budget and 154457
Management that additional amounts are necessary, the amounts are 154458
hereby appropriated.154459

       PAYROLL DEDUCTION FUND154460

       The foregoing appropriation item 995673, Payroll Deductions, 154461
shall be used to make payments from the Payroll Deduction Fund 154462
(Fund 1240) pursuant to section 125.21 of the Revised Code. If it 154463
is determined by the Director of Budget and Management that 154464
additional appropriation amounts are necessary, the amounts are 154465
hereby appropriated.154466

       STATE EMPLOYEE HEALTH BENEFIT FUND154467

       The foregoing appropriation item 995668, State Employee 154468
Health Benefit Fund, shall be used to make payments from the State 154469
Employee Health Benefit Fund (Fund 8080) pursuant to section 154470
124.87 of the Revised Code. If it is determined by the Director of 154471
Budget and Management that additional amounts are necessary, the 154472
amounts are hereby appropriated.154473

       DEPENDENT CARE SPENDING FUND154474

       The foregoing appropriation item 995669, Dependent Care 154475
Spending Account, shall be used to make payments from the 154476
Dependent Care Spending Fund (Fund 8090) to employees eligible for 154477
dependent care expenses pursuant to section 124.822 of the Revised 154478
Code. If it is determined by the Director of Budget and Management 154479
that additional amounts are necessary, the amounts are hereby 154480
appropriated.154481

       LIFE INSURANCE INVESTMENT FUND154482

       The foregoing appropriation item 995670, Life Insurance 154483
Investment Fund, shall be used to make payments from the Life 154484
Insurance Investment Fund (Fund 8100) for the costs and expenses 154485
of the state's life insurance benefit program pursuant to section 154486
125.212 of the Revised Code. If it is determined by the Director 154487
of Budget and Management that additional amounts are necessary, 154488
the amounts are hereby appropriated.154489

       PARENTAL LEAVE BENEFIT FUND154490

       The foregoing appropriation item 995671, Parental Leave 154491
Benefit Fund, shall be used to make payments from the Parental 154492
Leave Benefit Fund (Fund 8110) to employees eligible for parental 154493
leave benefits pursuant to section 124.137 of the Revised Code. If 154494
it is determined by the Director of Budget and Management that 154495
additional amounts are necessary, the amounts are hereby 154496
appropriated.154497

       HEALTH CARE SPENDING ACCOUNT FUND154498

       The foregoing appropriation item 995672, Health Care Spending 154499
Account, shall be used to make payments from the Health Care 154500
Spending Account Fund (Fund 8130) for payments pursuant to state 154501
employees' participation in a flexible spending account for 154502
non-reimbursed health care expenses and section 124.821 of the 154503
Revised Code. If it is determined by the Director of 154504
Administrative Services that additional appropriation amounts are 154505
necessary, the Director of Administrative Services may request 154506
that the Director of Budget and Management increase such amounts. 154507
Such amounts are hereby appropriated.154508

       Section 269.20. CASH TRANSFERS FROM THE COST SAVINGS FUND154509

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 154510
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer $735,000 cash 154511
from the Cost Savings Fund (Fund 8140) to the Investment Recovery 154512
Fund (Fund 4270) used by the Department of Administrative 154513
Services, and up to $5,200,000 cash from the Cost Savings Fund 154514
(Fund 8140) to the Accrued Leave Fund (Fund 8060) in order to 154515
support accrued leave payouts to state employees who are 154516
participating in an annual leave conversion or who are separating 154517
from state service.154518

       Section 271.10.  ERB STATE EMPLOYMENT RELATIONS BOARD154519

General Revenue Fund154520

GRF 125321 Operating Expenses $ 3,761,457 $ 3,761,457 154521
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 3,761,457 $ 3,761,457 154522

General Services Fund Group154523

5720 125603 Training and Publications $ 85,000 $ 85,000 154524
TOTAL GSF General Services 154525
Fund Group $ 85,000 $ 85,000 154526
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 3,846,457 $ 3,846,457 154527


       Section 273.10. ENG STATE BOARD OF ENGINEERS AND SURVEYORS154529

General Services Fund Group154530

4K90 892609 Operating $ 996,938 $ 993,889 154531
TOTAL GSF General Services 154532
Fund Group $ 996,938 $ 993,889 154533
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 996,938 $ 993,889 154534


       Section 275.10. EPA ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY154536

General Revenue Fund154537

GRF 715502 Auto Emissions e-Check Program $ 10,923,093 $ 10,923,093 154538
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 10,923,093 $ 10,923,093 154539

General Services Fund Group154540

1990 715602 Laboratory Services $ 252,153 $ 326,029 154541
2190 715604 Central Support Indirect $ 10,255,680 $ 10,255,680 154542
4A10 715640 Operating Expenses $ 2,600,000 $ 2,602,000 154543
4D50 715618 Recycled State Materials $ 50,000 $ 50,000 154544
TOTAL GSF General Services 154545
Fund Group $ 13,157,833 $ 13,233,709 154546

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group154547

3530 715612 Public Water Supply $ 2,562,578 $ 2,474,605 154548
3540 715614 Hazardous Waste Management - Federal $ 4,088,383 $ 4,088,383 154549
3570 715619 Air Pollution Control - Federal $ 6,310,203 $ 6,310,203 154550
3620 715605 Underground Injection Control - Federal $ 111,874 $ 111,874 154551
3BU0 715684 Water Quality Protection $ 16,205,000 $ 15,280,000 154552
3CS0 715688 Federal NRD Settlements $ 200,000 $ 200,000 154553
3F20 715630 Revolving Loan Fund - Operating $ 832,543 $ 1,114,543 154554
3F30 715632 Federally Supported Cleanup and Response $ 3,012,021 $ 3,012,991 154555
3FH0 715693 Diesel Emission Reduction Grants $ 10,000,000 $ 10,000,000 154556
3T30 715669 Drinking Water State Revolving Fund $ 2,609,198 $ 2,824,076 154557
3V70 715606 Agencywide Grants $ 600,000 $ 600,000 154558
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 154559
Fund Group $ 46,531,800 $ 46,016,675 154560

State Special Revenue Fund Group154561

4J00 715638 Underground Injection Control $ 389,126 $ 402,697 154562
4K20 715648 Clean Air - Non Title V $ 3,165,400 $ 3,237,450 154563
4K30 715649 Solid Waste $ 15,685,342 $ 16,330,873 154564
4K40 715650 Surface Water Protection $ 6,993,800 $ 7,688,800 154565
4K40 715686 Environmental Laboratory Services $ 2,096,007 $ 2,096,007 154566
4K50 715651 Drinking Water Protection $ 6,316,772 $ 6,476,011 154567
4P50 715654 Cozart Landfill $ 100,000 $ 100,000 154568
4R50 715656 Scrap Tire Management $ 1,059,378 $ 1,070,532 154569
4R90 715658 Voluntary Action Program $ 916,690 $ 945,195 154570
4T30 715659 Clean Air - Title V Permit Program $ 14,528,885 $ 15,080,366 154571
4U70 715660 Construction and Demolition Debris $ 335,000 $ 335,000 154572
5000 715608 Immediate Removal Special Account $ 660,033 $ 660,293 154573
5030 715621 Hazardous Waste Facility Management $ 7,615,403 $ 8,224,041 154574
5050 715623 Hazardous Waste Cleanup $ 14,528,609 $ 14,933,345 154575
5050 715674 Clean Ohio Environmental Review $ 108,104 $ 108,104 154576
5320 715646 Recycling and Litter Control $ 4,514,500 $ 4,535,500 154577
5410 715670 Site Specific Cleanup $ 1,548,101 $ 1,548,101 154578
5420 715671 Risk Management Reporting $ 208,936 $ 214,826 154579
5860 715637 Scrap Tire Market Development $ 1,497,645 $ 1,497,645 154580
5BC0 715617 Clean Ohio $ 611,455 $ 611,455 154581
5BC0 715622 Local Air Pollution Control $ 2,297,980 $ 2,297,980 154582
5BC0 715624 Surface Water $ 9,614,974 $ 9,614,974 154583
5BC0 715672 Air Pollution Control $ 5,684,758 $ 5,684,758 154584
5BC0 715673 Drinking and Ground Water $ 4,863,521 $ 4,863,521 154585
5BC0 715676 Assistance and Prevention $ 695,069 $ 695,069 154586
5BC0 715677 Laboratory $ 1,358,586 $ 1,558,586 154587
5BC0 715678 Corrective Actions $ 705,423 $ 705,423 154588
5BC0 715687 Areawide Planning Agencies $ 450,000 $ 450,000 154589
5BC0 715692 Administration $ 10,582,627 $ 10,582,627 154590
5BC0 715694 Environmental Resource Coordination $ 170,000 $ 170,000 154591
5BT0 715679 C&DD Groundwater Monitoring $ 203,800 $ 203,800 154592
5CD0 715682 Clean Diesel School Buses $ 475,000 $ 475,000 154593
5H40 715664 Groundwater Support $ 128,212 $ 223,212 154594
5Y30 715685 Surface Water Improvement $ 1,800,000 $ 1,800,000 154595
6440 715631 Emergency Response Radiological Safety $ 284,266 $ 290,674 154596
6600 715629 Infectious Waste Management $ 88,764 $ 88,764 154597
6760 715642 Water Pollution Control Loan Administration $ 3,921,605 $ 3,921,605 154598
6780 715635 Air Toxic Release $ 133,636 $ 133,636 154599
6790 715636 Emergency Planning $ 2,623,252 $ 2,623,252 154600
6960 715643 Air Pollution Control Administration $ 1,100,000 $ 1,125,000 154601
6990 715644 Water Pollution Control Administration $ 345,000 $ 345,000 154602
6A10 715645 Environmental Education $ 1,350,000 $ 1,350,000 154603
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 131,755,659 $ 135,299,122 154604

Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group154605

5S10 715607 Clean Ohio - Operating $ 284,124 $ 284,124 154606
TOTAL CLF Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group $ 284,124 $ 284,124 154607
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 202,652,509 $ 205,756,723 154608

       AREAWIDE PLANNING AGENCIES154609

       The Director of Environmental Protection Agency may award 154610
grants from appropriation item 715687, Areawide Planning Agencies, 154611
to areawide planning agencies engaged in areawide water quality 154612
management and planning activities in accordance with Section 208 154613
of the "Federal Clean Water Act," 33 U.S.C. 1288.154614

       CASH TRANSFERS154615

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 154616
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to $11,400,000 154617
cash from the Hazardous Waste Management Fund (Fund 5030) to the 154618
Hazardous Waste Cleanup Fund (Fund 5050) to support closure and 154619
corrective action programs that were transferred to the Division 154620
of Environmental Response and Revitalization.154621

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 154622
Director of Environmental Protection shall certify to the Director 154623
of Budget and Management the cash balance in the Dredge and Fill 154624
Fund (Fund 5N20). The Director of Budget and Management shall 154625
transfer the certified amount from Fund 5N20 to the Surface Water 154626
Protection Fund (Fund 4K40). Any existing encumbrances against 154627
appropriation item 715613, Dredge and Fill, shall be canceled and 154628
reestablished against appropriation item 715650, Surface Water 154629
Protection. The reestablished encumbrance amounts are hereby 154630
appropriated and Fund 5N20 is abolished.154631

       Section 277.10. EBR ENVIRONMENTAL REVIEW APPEALS COMMISSION154632

General Revenue Fund154633

GRF 172321 Operating Expenses $ 545,530 $ 545,530 154634
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 545,530 $ 545,530 154635
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 545,530 $ 545,530 154636


       Section 278.10. ETC BROADCAST EDUCATIONAL MEDIA COMMISSION154638

General Revenue Fund154639

GRF 935401 Statehouse News Bureau $ 215,561 $ 215,561 154640
GRF 935402 Ohio Government Telecommunications Services $ 1,252,089 $ 1,252,089 154641
GRF 935408 General Operations $ 495,000 $ 495,000 154642
GRF 935409 Technology Operations $ 2,743,962 $ 2,743,962 154643
GRF 935410 Content Development, Acquisition, and Distribution $ 2,607,094 $ 2,607,094 154644
GRF 935412 Information Technology $ 500,000 $ 500,000 154645
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 7,813,706 $ 7,813,706 154646

General Services Fund Group154647

4F30 935603 Affiliate Services $ 50,000 $ 50,000 154648
4T20 935605 Government Television/Telecommunications Operating $ 25,000 $ 25,000 154649
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 75,000 $ 75,000 154650

State Special Revenue Fund Group154651

5FK0 935608 Media Services $ 491,373 $ 491,373 154652
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 491,373 $ 491,373 154653

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 8,380,079 $ 8,380,079 154654


       Section 278.20.  STATEHOUSE NEWS BUREAU154656

       The foregoing appropriation item 935401, Statehouse News 154657
Bureau, shall be used solely to support the operations of the Ohio 154658
Statehouse News Bureau.154659

       OHIO GOVERNMENT TELECOMMUNICATIONS SERVICES154660

       The foregoing appropriation item 935402, Ohio Government 154661
Telecommunications Services, shall be used solely to support the 154662
operations of Ohio Government Telecommunications Services which 154663
include providing multimedia support to the state government and 154664
its affiliated organizations and broadcasting the activities of 154665
the legislative, judicial, and executive branches of state 154666
government, among its other functions.154667

       TECHNOLOGY OPERATIONS154668

       The foregoing appropriation item 935409, Technology 154669
Operations, shall be used by the Broadcast Educational Media 154670
Commission to pay expenses of the network infrastructure, which 154671
includes the television and radio transmission infrastructure and 154672
infrastructure that shall link all public K-12 classrooms to each 154673
other and to the Internet, and provide access to voice, video, 154674
other communication services, and data educational resources for 154675
students and teachers. 154676

       CONTENT DEVELOPMENT, ACQUISITION, AND DISTRIBUTION154677

       The foregoing appropriation item 935410, Content Development, 154678
Acquisition, and Distribution, shall be used for the development, 154679
acquisition, and distribution of information resources by public 154680
media and radio reading services and for educational use in the 154681
classroom and online.154682

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 935410, Content 154683
Development, Acquisition, and Distribution, up to $658,099 in each 154684
fiscal year shall be allocated equally among the Ohio educational 154685
television stations. Funds shall be used for the production of 154686
interactive instructional programming series with priority given 154687
to resources aligned with state academic content standards. The 154688
programming shall be targeted to the needs of the poorest two 154689
hundred school districts as determined by the district's adjusted 154690
valuation per pupil as defined in former section 3317.0213 of the 154691
Revised Code as that section existed prior to June 30, 2005.154692

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 935410, Content 154693
Development, Acquisition, and Distribution, up to $1,749,283 in 154694
each fiscal year shall be distributed by the Broadcast Educational 154695
Media Commission to Ohio's qualified public educational television 154696
stations and educational radio stations to support their 154697
operations. The funds shall be distributed pursuant to an 154698
allocation formula used by the Ohio Educational Telecommunications 154699
Network Commission unless a substitute formula is developed by the 154700
Broadcast Educational Media Commission in consultation with Ohio's 154701
qualified public educational television stations and educational 154702
radio stations.154703

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 935410, Content 154704
Development, Acquisition, and Distribution, up to $199,712 in each 154705
fiscal year shall be distributed by the Broadcast Educational 154706
Media Commission to Ohio's qualified radio reading services to 154707
support their operations. The funds shall be distributed pursuant 154708
to an allocation formula used by the Ohio Educational 154709
Telecommunications Network Commission unless a substitute formula 154710
is developed by the Broadcast Educational Media Commission in 154711
consultation with Ohio's qualified radio reading services.154712

       Section 279.10. ETH OHIO ETHICS COMMISSION154713

General Revenue Fund154714

GRF 146321 Operating Expenses $ 1,409,751 $ 1,381,556 154715
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 1,409,751 $ 1,381,556 154716

General Services Fund Group154717

4M60 146601 Operating Expenses $ 636,388 $ 641,000 154718
TOTAL GSF General Services 154719
Fund Group $ 636,388 $ 641,000 154720
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 2,046,139 $ 2,022,556 154721


       Section 281.10. EXP OHIO EXPOSITIONS COMMISSION154723

General Revenue Fund154724

GRF 723403 Junior Fair Subsidy $ 250,000 $ 250,000 154725
GRF 723501 Construction Planning $ 670,000 $ 0 154726
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 920,000 $ 250,000 154727

State Special Revenue Fund Group154728

4N20 723602 Ohio State Fair Harness Racing $ 235,000 $ 235,000 154729
5060 723601 Operating Expenses $ 12,894,000 $ 12,894,000 154730
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 154731
Fund Group $ 13,129,000 $ 13,129,000 154732
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 14,049,000 $ 13,379,000 154733

       CONSTRUCTION PLANNING154734

       The foregoing appropriation item 723501, Construction 154735
Planning, shall be used for acquiring purchased services for new 154736
and renovated facility planning, including, but not limited to, 154737
necessary architectural engineering, land or facility use 154738
consulting services, and facility construction. An amount equal to 154739
the unexpended, unencumbered portion of the foregoing 154740
appropriation item 723501, Construction Planning, is hereby 154741
reappropriated for the same purpose in FY 2015.154742

       STATE FAIR RESERVE154743

       The General Manager of the Expositions Commission, in 154744
consultation with the Director of Budget and Management, may 154745
submit a request to the Controlling Board to use available amounts 154746
in the State Fair Reserve Fund (Fund 6400) if revenues for the 154747
Ohio State Fair for the 2013 or 2014 Ohio State Fair are 154748
unexpectedly low.154749

       Section 282.10. FCC OHIO FACILITIES CONSTRUCTION COMMISSION154750

General Revenue Fund154751

GRF 230401 Lease Rental Payments - Cultural Facilities $ 10,550,568 $ 29,854,500 154752
GRF 230458 State Construction Management Services $ 2,495,751 $ 2,245,751 154753
GRF 230908 Common Schools General Obligation Debt Service $ 351,806,100 $ 377,364,700 154754
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 364,852,419 $ 409,464,951 154755

General Services Fund Group154756

1310 230639 State Construction Management Operations $ 9,463,342 $ 9,463,342 154757
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 9,463,342 $ 9,463,342 154758

State Special Revenue Fund Group154759

4T80 230603 Community Project Administration $ 150,000 $ 200,000 154760
5E30 230644 Operating Expenses $ 8,550,000 $ 8,550,000 154761
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 154762
Fund Group $ 8,700,000 $ 8,750,000 154763
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 383,015,761 $ 427,678,293 154764


       Section 282.20. LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS154766

       The foregoing appropriation item 230401, Lease Rental 154767
Payments - Cultural Facilities, shall be used to meet all payments 154768
at the times they are required to be made during the period from 154769
January 1, 2014, through June 30, 2015, from the Ohio Facilities 154770
Construction Commission under the primary leases and agreements 154771
for those arts and sports facilities made under Chapters 152. and 154772
154. of the Revised Code. These appropriations are the source of 154773
funds pledged for bond service charges on related obligations 154774
issued under Chapters 152. and 154. of the Revised Code.154775

       COMMON SCHOOLS GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE154776

       The foregoing appropriation item 230908, Common Schools 154777
General Obligation Debt Service, shall be used to pay all debt 154778
service and related financing costs at the times they are required 154779
to be made during the period from July 1, 2013, through June 30, 154780
2015, for obligations issued under sections 151.01 and 151.03 of 154781
the Revised Code.154782

       Section 282.30.  COMMUNITY PROJECT ADMINISTRATION154783

       The foregoing appropriation item 230603, Community Project 154784
Administration, shall be used by the Ohio Facilities Construction 154785
Commission in administering Cultural and Sports Facilities 154786
Building Fund (Fund 7030) projects pursuant to section 123.201 of 154787
the Revised Code.154788

       Section 282.40. OPERATING EXPENSES154789

       The foregoing appropriation item 230644, Operating Expenses, 154790
shall be used by the Ohio School Facilities Commission to carry 154791
out its responsibilities under this section and Chapter 3318. of 154792
the Revised Code.154793

       In both fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the Executive Director of 154794
the Ohio School Facilities Commission shall certify on a quarterly 154795
basis to the Director of Budget and Management the amount of cash 154796
from interest earnings to be transferred from the School Building 154797
Assistance Fund (Fund 7032), the Public School Building Fund (Fund 154798
7021), and the Educational Facilities Trust Fund (Fund N087) to 154799
the Ohio School Facilities Commission Fund (Fund 5E30). The amount 154800
transferred from the School Building Assistance Fund (Fund 7032) 154801
may not exceed investment earnings credited to the fund, less any 154802
amount required to be paid for federal arbitrage rebate purposes.154803

       If the Executive Director of the Ohio Facilities Construction 154804
Commission determines that transferring cash from interest 154805
earnings is insufficient to support operations and carry out its 154806
responsibilities under this section and Chapter 3318. of the 154807
Revised Code, the Commission may, with the approval of the 154808
Controlling Board, transfer cash not generated from interest from 154809
the Public School Building Fund (Fund 7021) and the Educational 154810
Trust Fund (Fund N087) to the Ohio School Facilities Commission 154811
Fund (Fund 5E30).154812

       SCHOOL FACILITIES ENCUMBRANCES AND REAPPROPRIATION154813

       At the request of the Executive Director of the Ohio School 154814
Facilities Commission, the Director of Budget and Management may 154815
cancel encumbrances for school district projects from a previous 154816
biennium if the district has not raised its local share of project 154817
costs within thirteen months of receiving Controlling Board 154818
approval under section 3318.05 or 3318.41 of the Revised Code. The 154819
Executive Director of the Ohio School Facilities Commission shall 154820
certify the amounts of the canceled encumbrances to the Director 154821
of Budget and Management on a quarterly basis. The amounts of the 154822
canceled encumbrances are hereby appropriated.154823

       Section 282.50. CAPITAL DONATIONS FUND CERTIFICATIONS AND 154824
APPROPRIATIONS154825

        On January 1, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 154826
Executive Director of the Facilities Construction Commission shall 154827
certify to the Director of Budget and Management the amount of 154828
cash receipts and related investment income, irrevocable letters 154829
of credit from a bank, or certification of the availability of 154830
funds that have been received from a county or a municipal 154831
corporation for deposit into the Capital Donations Fund (Fund 154832
5A10) and that are related to an anticipated project. These 154833
amounts are hereby appropriated to appropriation item C37146, 154834
Capital Donations. Prior to certifying these amounts to the 154835
Director, the Executive Director shall make a written agreement 154836
with the participating entity on the necessary cash flows required 154837
for the anticipated construction or equipment acquisition project.154838

       Section 282.60.  AMENDMENT TO PROJECT AGREEMENT FOR 154839
MAINTENANCE LEVY154840

        The Ohio School Facilities Commission shall amend the project 154841
agreement between the Commission and a school district that is 154842
participating in the Accelerated Urban School Building Assistance 154843
Program on the effective date of this section, if the Commission 154844
determines that it is necessary to do so in order to comply with 154845
division (B)(3)(c) of section 3318.38 of the Revised Code.154846

       Section 282.70. Notwithstanding any other provision of law to 154847
the contrary, the Ohio School Facilities Commission may determine 154848
the amount of funding available for disbursement in a given fiscal 154849
year for any project approved under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of 154850
the Revised Code in order to keep aggregate state capital spending 154851
within approved limits and may take actions including, but not 154852
limited to, determining the schedule for design or bidding of 154853
approved projects, to ensure appropriate and supportable cash 154854
flow. 154855

       Section 282.80. Notwithstanding division (B) of section 154856
3318.40 of the Revised Code, the Ohio School Facilities Commission 154857
may provide assistance to at least one joint vocational school 154858
district each fiscal year for the acquisition of classroom 154859
facilities in accordance with sections 3318.40 to 3318.45 of the 154860
Revised Code. 154861

       Section 282.90. Effective January 1, 2014, the Ohio Cultural 154862
Facilities Commission is abolished. Except as otherwise provided 154863
in this section, all obligations of the Ohio Cultural Facilities 154864
Commission under agreements to which the Ohio Cultural Facilities 154865
Commission is a party, and all records and assets of the Ohio 154866
Cultural Facilities Commission, including, without limitation, 154867
equipment, inventory, contract rights, accounts, and general 154868
intangibles, are transferred to the Ohio Facilities Construction 154869
Commission.154870

       The Ohio Facilities Construction Commission shall designate 154871
the positions, if any, to be transferred to the Ohio Facilities 154872
Construction Commission, along with any equipment assigned to 154873
those positions. Any employee transferred to the Ohio Facilities 154874
Construction Commission retains the employee's respective 154875
classification, but the Ohio Facilities Construction Commission 154876
may reassign and reclassify the employee's position and 154877
compensation as the Ohio Facilities Construction Commission 154878
determines to be in the best interest of office administration.154879

       The Ohio Facilities Construction Commission shall complete 154880
any activities related to the design, planning, construction, and 154881
related management functions commenced but not completed by the 154882
Ohio Cultural Facilities Commission in the same manner and with 154883
the same effect as if the Ohio Cultural Facilities Commission had 154884
completed them. The consolidation of the commissions shall not 154885
cause the loss or impairment of any validation, cure, right, 154886
privilege, remedy, obligation, or liability, which the Ohio 154887
Facilities Construction Commission shall administer. 154888

        All rules, orders, and determinations related to the design, 154889
planning, and construction and related management functions of the 154890
Ohio Cultural Facilities Commission continue in effect as rules, 154891
orders, and determinations of the Ohio Facilities Construction 154892
Commission until the Ohio Facilities Construction Commission 154893
modifies or rescinds them. The Director of the Legislative Service 154894
Commission shall renumber the rules of the Ohio Cultural 154895
Facilities Commission related to that commission's design, 154896
planning, and construction and related management functions to 154897
reflect their transfer to the Ohio Facilities Construction 154898
Commission.154899

       The transfer of functions from the Ohio Cultural Facilities 154900
Commission to the Ohio Facilities Construction Commission does not 154901
affect any pending judicial or administrative action or proceeding 154902
to which the Ohio Cultural Facilities Commission is a party and 154903
that is related to that commission's design, planning, 154904
construction, capital funding, or related management functions. 154905
Any such action or proceeding shall be prosecuted or defended in 154906
the name of the Ohio Facilities Construction Commission. On 154907
application to the court or agency, the Ohio Facilities 154908
Construction Commission shall be substituted for the Ohio Cultural 154909
Facilities Commission as a party to the action or proceeding.154910

       Effective January 1, 2014, the Director of Budget and 154911
Management shall cancel any existing encumbrances against 154912
appropriation item 371603, Project Administration, and 154913
re-establish them against appropriation item 230603, Community 154914
Project Administration. The re-established encumbrance amounts are 154915
hereby appropriated. Any business commenced but not completed 154916
under appropriation item 371603 by January 1, 2014, shall be 154917
completed under appropriation item 230603 in the same manner and 154918
with the same effect as if it were completed with regard to 154919
appropriation item 371603.154920

       Funds collected as part of a management contract for the 154921
Riffe Theatres, which previously were deposited in the Ohio 154922
Cultural Facilities Commission Administration Fund (Fund 4T80), 154923
shall be credited to the Theater Equipment Maintenance Fund (Fund 154924
5MV0), which is hereby created in the State Treasury. The Director 154925
of Budget and Management shall transfer from the Ohio Cultural 154926
Facilities Commission Administration Fund to the Theater Equipment 154927
Maintenance Fund any remaining cash balances from funds collected 154928
as part of a management contract for the Riffe Theatres. In order 154929
to facilitate this transfer, the Executive Director of the Ohio 154930
Facilities Construction Commission, by January 1, 2014, or as soon 154931
as possible thereafter, shall certify to the Director of Budget 154932
and Management an estimate of the amount to be transferred. The 154933
Department of Administrative Services shall use appropriation item 154934
100662, Theater Equipment Maintenance, to spend cash in the 154935
Theater Equipment Maintenance Fund (Fund 5MV0).154936

       The Ohio Facilities Construction Commission may enter into an 154937
interagency agreement with the Department of Administrative 154938
Services for the Department to perform any of the functions 154939
transferred to the Ohio Facilities Construction Commission under 154940
this section.154941

       Any reference to the Ohio Cultural Facilities Commission in 154942
any statute, rule, contract, grant, or other document is deemed to 154943
refer to the Ohio Facilities Construction Commission.154944

       The Ohio Facilities Construction Commission, the Ohio Public 154945
Facilities Commission, and the issuing authority of any 154946
obligations issued for the financing of capital facilities for 154947
Ohio cultural facilities and Ohio sports facilities may execute 154948
instruments, documents, and agreements and may take necessary or 154949
appropriate actions to effect the orderly transfer of those 154950
obligations from the Ohio Cultural Facilities Commission to the 154951
Ohio Facilities Construction Commission.154952

       This section takes effect January 1, 2014.154953

       Section 283.10. GOV OFFICE OF THE GOVERNOR154954

General Revenue Fund154955

GRF 040321 Operating Expenses $ 2,851,552 $ 2,851,552 154956
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 2,851,552 $ 2,851,552 154957

General Services Fund Group154958

5AK0 040607 Government Relations $ 365,149 $ 365,149 154959
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 365,149 $ 365,149 154960

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 3,216,701 $ 3,216,701 154961

       GOVERNMENT RELATIONS154962

       A portion of the foregoing appropriation item 040607, 154963
Government Relations, may be used to support Ohio's membership in 154964
national or regional associations.154965

       The Office of the Governor may charge any state agency of the 154966
executive branch using an intrastate transfer voucher such amounts 154967
necessary to defray the costs incurred for the conduct of 154968
governmental relations associated with issues that can be 154969
attributed to the agency. Amounts collected shall be deposited in 154970
the Government Relations Fund (Fund 5AK0).154971

       Section 285.10. DOH DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH154972

General Revenue Fund154973

GRF 440412 Cancer Incidence Surveillance System $ 600,000 $ 600,000 154974
GRF 440413 Local Health Departments $ 823,061 $ 823,061 154975
GRF 440416 Mothers and Children Safety Net Services $ 4,428,015 $ 4,428,015 154976
GRF 440418 Immunizations $ 8,825,829 $ 8,825,829 154977
GRF 440431 Free Clinics Safety Net Services $ 437,326 $ 437,326 154978
GRF 440438 Breast and Cervical Cancer Screening $ 823,217 $ 823,217 154979
GRF 440444 AIDS Prevention and Treatment $ 5,842,315 $ 5,842,315 154980
GRF 440451 Public Health Laboratory $ 3,655,449 $ 3,655,449 154981
GRF 440452 Child and Family Health Services Match $ 630,444 $ 630,444 154982
GRF 440453 Health Care Quality Assurance $ 4,874,361 $ 4,874,361 154983
GRF 440454 Environmental Health $ 1,194,634 $ 1,194,634 154984
GRF 440459 Help Me Grow $ 33,673,987 $ 33,673,987 154985
GRF 440465 Federally Qualified Health Centers $ 2,686,688 $ 2,686,688 154986
GRF 440467 Access to Dental Care $ 540,484 $ 540,484 154987
GRF 440468 Chronic Disease and Injury Prevention $ 2,447,251 $ 2,447,251 154988
GRF 440472 Alcohol Testing $ 1,100,000 $ 1,100,000 154989
GRF 440473 Tobacco Prevention and Cessation $ 1,050,000 $ 1,050,000 154990
GRF 440474 Infant Vitality $ 3,116,688 $ 3,116,688 154991
GRF 440505 Medically Handicapped Children $ 7,512,451 $ 7,512,451 154992
GRF 440507 Targeted Health Care Services Over 21 $ 1,045,414 $ 1,045,414 154993
GRF 654453 Medicaid - Health Care Quality Assurance $ 3,300,000 $ 3,300,000 154994
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 88,607,614 $ 88,607,614 154995

State Highway Safety Fund Group154996

4T40 440603 Child Highway Safety $ 233,894 $ 233,894 154997
TOTAL HSF State Highway Safety 154998
Fund Group $ 233,894 $ 233,894 154999

General Services Fund Group155000

1420 440646 Agency Health Services $ 820,998 $ 820,998 155001
2110 440613 Central Support Indirect Costs $ 30,615,591 $ 31,052,469 155002
4730 440622 Lab Operating Expenses $ 5,000,000 $ 5,000,000 155003
6980 440634 Nurse Aide Training $ 99,265 $ 99,265 155004
TOTAL GSF General Services 155005
Fund Group $ 36,535,854 $ 36,972,732 155006

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group155007

3200 440601 Maternal Child Health Block Grant $ 23,889,057 $ 23,889,057 155008
3870 440602 Preventive Health Block Grant $ 6,000,000 $ 6,000,000 155009
3890 440604 Women, Infants, and Children $ 250,000,000 $ 250,000,000 155010
3910 440606 Medicare Survey and Certification $ 19,449,282 $ 19,961,405 155011
3920 440618 Federal Public Health Programs $ 134,546,304 $ 135,140,586 155012
3GD0 654601 Medicaid Program Support $ 21,126,014 $ 22,392,094 155013
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 155014
Fund Group $ 455,010,657 $ 457,383,142 155015

State Special Revenue Fund Group155016

4700 440647 Fee Supported Programs $ 25,905,250 $ 26,213,586 155017
4710 440619 Certificate of Need $ 878,433 $ 878,433 155018
4770 440627 Medically Handicapped Children Audit $ 3,692,703 $ 3,692,703 155019
4D60 440608 Genetics Services $ 3,311,039 $ 3,311,039 155020
4F90 440610 Sickle Cell Disease Control $ 1,032,824 $ 1,032,824 155021
4G00 440636 Heirloom Birth Certificate $ 5,000 $ 5,000 155022
4G00 440637 Birth Certificate Surcharge $ 5,000 $ 5,000 155023
4L30 440609 HIV Care and Miscellaneous Expenses $ 8,333,164 $ 8,333,164 155024
4P40 440628 Ohio Physician Loan Repayment $ 476,870 $ 476,870 155025
4V60 440641 Save Our Sight $ 2,255,789 $ 2,255,789 155026
5B50 440616 Quality, Monitoring, and Inspection $ 878,997 $ 878,997 155027
5CN0 440645 Choose Life $ 75,000 $ 75,000 155028
5D60 440620 Second Chance Trust $ 1,151,902 $ 1,151,902 155029
5ED0 440651 Smoke Free Indoor Air $ 250,000 $ 250,000 155030
5G40 440639 Adoption Services $ 20,000 $ 20,000 155031
5L10 440623 Nursing Facility Technical Assistance Program $ 700,000 $ 700,000 155032
5Z70 440624 Ohio Dentist Loan Repayment $ 140,000 $ 140,000 155033
6100 440626 Radiation Emergency Response $ 1,049,954 $ 1,086,098 155034
6660 440607 Medically Handicapped Children - County Assessments $ 19,739,617 $ 19,739,617 155035
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 155036
Fund Group $ 69,901,542 $ 70,246,022 155037

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group155038

R014 440631 Vital Statistics $ 44,986 $ 44,986 155039
R048 440625 Refunds, Grants Reconciliation, and Audit Settlements $ 20,000 $ 20,000 155040
TOTAL 090 Holding Account 155041
Redistribution Fund Group $ 64,986 $ 64,986 155042

Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group155043

5BX0 440656 Tobacco Use Prevention $ 1,450,000 $ 1,450,000 155044
TOTAL TSF Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group $ 1,450,000 $ 1,450,000 155045
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 651,804,547 $ 654,958,390 155046


       Section 285.20.  MOTHERS AND CHILDREN SAFETY NET SERVICES155048

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 440416, Mothers and 155049
Children Safety Net Services, $200,000 in each fiscal year shall 155050
be used to assist families with hearing impaired children under 155051
twenty-one years of age in purchasing hearing aids. The Director 155052
of Health shall adopt rules governing the distribution of these 155053
funds, including rules that do both of the following: (1) 155054
establish eligibility criteria to include families with incomes at 155055
or below four hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines 155056
as defined in section 5101.46 of the Revised Code, and (2) develop 155057
a sliding scale of disbursements under this section based on 155058
family income. The Director may adopt other rules as necessary to 155059
implement this section. Rules adopted under this section shall be 155060
adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.155061

        The Department shall disburse all of the funds appropriated 155062
under this section.155063

        HIV/AIDS PREVENTION/TREATMENT155064

       The foregoing appropriation item 440444, AIDS Prevention and 155065
Treatment, shall be used to assist persons with HIV/AIDS in 155066
acquiring HIV-related medications and to administer educational 155067
prevention initiatives.155068

       PUBLIC HEALTH LABORATORY155069

       A portion of the foregoing appropriation item 440451, Public 155070
Health Laboratory, shall be used for coordination and management 155071
of prevention program operations and the purchase of drugs for 155072
sexually transmitted diseases.155073

       HELP ME GROW155074

       The foregoing appropriation item 440459, Help Me Grow, shall 155075
be used by the Department of Health to implement the Help Me Grow 155076
Program. Funds shall be distributed to counties through 155077
agreements, contracts, grants, or subsidies in accordance with 155078
section 3701.61 of the Revised Code. Appropriation item 440459, 155079
Help Me Grow, may be used in conjunction with other early 155080
childhood funds and services to promote the optimal development of 155081
young children and family-centered programs and services that 155082
acknowledge and support the social, emotional, cognitive, 155083
intellectual, and physical development of children and the vital 155084
role of families in ensuring the well-being and success of 155085
children. The Department of Health shall enter into interagency 155086
agreements with the Department of Education, Department of 155087
Developmental Disabilities, Department of Job and Family Services, 155088
and Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services to ensure 155089
that all early childhood programs and initiatives are coordinated 155090
and school linked.155091

       The foregoing appropriation item 440459, Help Me Grow, may 155092
also be used for the Developmental Autism and Screening Program.155093

       INFANT VITALITY155094

       The foregoing appropriation item 440474, Infant Vitality, 155095
shall be used to fund the following projects, which are hereby 155096
created: 155097

       (A) The Infant Safe Sleep Campaign to educate parents and 155098
caregivers with a uniform message regarding safe sleep 155099
environments; 155100

       (B) The Progesterone Prematurity Prevention Project to enable 155101
prenatal care providers to identify, screen, treat, and track 155102
outcomes for women eligible for progesterone supplementation; and 155103

       (C) The Prenatal Smoking Cessation Project to enable prenatal 155104
care providers who work with women of reproductive age, including 155105
pregnant women, to have the tools, training, and technical 155106
assistance needed to treat smokers effectively. 155107

       TARGETED HEALTH CARE SERVICES OVER 21155108

       The foregoing appropriation item 440507, Targeted Health Care 155109
Services Over 21, shall be used to administer the Cystic Fibrosis 155110
Program and to implement the Hemophilia Insurance Premium Payment 155111
Program.155112

       The foregoing appropriation item 440507, Targeted Health Care 155113
Services Over 21, shall also be used to provide essential 155114
medications and to pay the copayments for drugs approved by the 155115
Department of Health and covered by Medicare Part D that are 155116
dispensed to Bureau for Children with Medical Handicaps (BCMH) 155117
participants for the Cystic Fibrosis Program.155118

       The Department shall expend all of these funds.155119

       GENETICS SERVICES155120

       The foregoing appropriation item 440608, Genetics Services 155121
(Fund 4D60), shall be used by the Department of Health to 155122
administer programs authorized by sections 3701.501 and 3701.502 155123
of the Revised Code. None of these funds shall be used to counsel 155124
or refer for abortion, except in the case of a medical emergency.155125

       MEDICALLY HANDICAPPED CHILDREN AUDIT155126

       The Medically Handicapped Children Audit Fund (Fund 4770) 155127
shall receive revenue from audits of hospitals and recoveries from 155128
third-party payers. Moneys may be expended for payment of audit 155129
settlements and for costs directly related to obtaining recoveries 155130
from third-party payers and for encouraging Medically Handicapped 155131
Children's Program recipients to apply for third-party benefits. 155132
Moneys also may be expended for payments for diagnostic and 155133
treatment services on behalf of medically handicapped children, as 155134
defined in division (A) of section 3701.022 of the Revised Code, 155135
and Ohio residents who are twenty-one or more years of age and who 155136
are suffering from cystic fibrosis or hemophilia. Moneys may also 155137
be expended for administrative expenses incurred in operating the 155138
Medically Handicapped Children's Program.155139

       MEDICALLY HANDICAPPED CHILDREN - COUNTY ASSESSMENTS155140

       The foregoing appropriation item 440607, Medically 155141
Handicapped Children - County Assessments (Fund 6660), shall be 155142
used to make payments under division (E) of section 3701.023 of 155143
the Revised Code.155144

       NURSING FACILITY TECHNICAL ASSISTANCE PROGRAM155145

        On July 1 of each fiscal year, or as soon as possible 155146
thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management may transfer 155147
$700,000 cash from the Resident Protection Fund (Fund 4E30), which 155148
is used by the Department of Medicaid, to the Nursing Facility 155149
Technical Assistance Program Fund (Fund 5L10), which is used by 155150
the Department of Health.155151

       CASH TRANSFER FROM THE PUBLIC HEALTH PRIORITIES TRUST FUND TO 155152
THE TOBACCO USE PREVENTION FUND155153

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 155154
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer $2,439,230 cash 155155
from the Public Health Priorities Trust Fund (Fund L087) to the 155156
Tobacco Use Prevention Fund (Fund 5BX0) to meet the operating 155157
needs of the Department of Health's tobacco enforcement and 155158
cessation efforts.155159

       Section 285.30. DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH'S APPROPRIATION ITEM 155160
STRUCTURE155161

       Upon request from the Director of Health, the Director of 155162
Budget and Management may establish new funds, new appropriation 155163
items, and appropriations in order to support the transition to a 155164
new appropriation item structure in the Department of Health's 155165
budget. Also, upon request of the Director of Health, the Director 155166
of Budget and Management may transfer appropriations between GRF 155167
appropriation items, transfer cash between any funds used by the 155168
Department of Health, abolish existing funds used by the 155169
Department of Health, and cancel and reestablish encumbrances. Any 155170
establishment of new funds or appropriation items, any transfers 155171
of appropriations or cash, and any increases in appropriation 155172
under this section are subject to Controlling Board approval.155173

       Section 287.10. HEF HIGHER EDUCATIONAL FACILITY COMMISSION155174

Agency Fund Group155175

4610 372601 Operating Expenses $ 12,500 $ 12,500 155176
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 12,500 $ 12,500 155177
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 12,500 $ 12,500 155178


       Section 289.10. SPA COMMISSION ON HISPANIC/LATINO AFFAIRS155180

General Revenue Fund155181

GRF 148100 Personal Services $ 333,037 $ 347,852 155182
GRF 148402 Community Programs $ 44,924 $ 44,924 155183
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 377,961 $ 392,776 155184

General Services Fund Group155185

6010 148602 Special Initiatives $ 24,558 $ 24,558 155186
TOTAL GSF General Services 155187
Fund Group $ 24,558 $ 24,558 155188
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 402,519 $ 417,334 155189


       Section 291.10. OHS OHIO HISTORICAL SOCIETY155191

General Revenue Fund155192

GRF 360501 Education and Collections $ 3,618,997 $ 3,618,997 155193
GRF 360502 Site and Museum Operations $ 4,426,288 $ 4,926,288 155194
GRF 360504 Ohio Preservation Office $ 290,000 $ 290,000 155195
GRF 360505 National Afro-American Museum $ 414,798 $ 414,798 155196
GRF 360506 Hayes Presidential Center $ 309,147 $ 309,147 155197
GRF 360508 State Historical Grants $ 1,000,000 $ 900,000 155198
GRF 360509 Outreach and Partnership $ 90,395 $ 90,395 155199
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 10,149,625 $ 10,549,625 155200

Agency Fund Group155201

5KL0 360602 Ohio History Tax Check-off $ 250,000 $ 250,000 155202
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 250,000 $ 250,000 155203
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 10,399,625 $ 10,799,625 155204

       SUBSIDY APPROPRIATION155205

       Upon approval by the Director of Budget and Management, the 155206
foregoing appropriation items shall be released to the Ohio 155207
Historical Society in quarterly amounts that in total do not 155208
exceed the annual appropriations. The funds and fiscal records of 155209
the society for fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015 shall be 155210
examined by independent certified public accountants approved by 155211
the Auditor of State, and a copy of the audited financial 155212
statements shall be filed with the Office of Budget and 155213
Management. The society shall prepare and submit to the Office of 155214
Budget and Management the following:155215

       (A) An estimated operating budget for each fiscal year of the 155216
biennium. The operating budget shall be submitted at or near the 155217
beginning of each calendar year.155218

       (B) Financial reports, indicating actual receipts and 155219
expenditures for the fiscal year to date. These reports shall be 155220
filed at least semiannually during the fiscal biennium.155221

       The foregoing appropriations shall be considered to be the 155222
contractual consideration provided by the state to support the 155223
state's offer to contract with the Ohio Historical Society under 155224
section 149.30 of the Revised Code.155225

       STATE HISTORICAL GRANTS155226

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 360508, State Historical 155227
Grants, $200,000 in each fiscal year shall be used for the 155228
Cincinnati Museum Center, $200,000 in each fiscal year shall be 155229
used for the Western Reserve Historical Society, and $100,000 in 155230
fiscal year 2014 shall be used to complete renovations and 155231
additional construction work on the Chardon Heritage House.155232

       Section 293.10.  REP OHIO HOUSE OF REPRESENTATIVES155233

General Revenue Fund155234

GRF 025321 Operating Expenses $ 21,031,091 $ 21,031,091 155235
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 21,031,091 $ 21,031,091 155236

General Services Fund Group155237

1030 025601 House Reimbursement $ 1,433,664 $ 1,433,664 155238
4A40 025602 Miscellaneous Sales $ 37,849 $ 37,849 155239
TOTAL GSF General Services 155240
Fund Group $ 1,471,513 $ 1,471,513 155241
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 22,502,604 $ 22,502,604 155242

        OPERATING EXPENSES155243

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the Chief 155244
Administrative Officer of the House of Representatives may certify 155245
to the Director of Budget and Management the amount of the 155246
unexpended, unencumbered balance of the foregoing appropriation 155247
item 025321, Operating Expenses, at the end of fiscal year 2013 to 155248
be reappropriated to fiscal year 2014. The amount certified is 155249
hereby reappropriated to the same appropriation item for fiscal 155250
year 2014.155251

        On July 1, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the Chief 155252
Administrative Officer of the House of Representatives may certify 155253
to the Director of Budget and Management the amount of the 155254
unexpended, unencumbered balance of the foregoing appropriation 155255
item 025321, Operating Expenses, at the end of fiscal year 2014 to 155256
be reappropriated to fiscal year 2015. The amount certified is 155257
hereby reappropriated to the same appropriation item for fiscal 155258
year 2015.155259

       HOUSE REIMBURSEMENT155260

       If it is determined by the Chief Administrative Officer of 155261
the House of Representatives that additional appropriations are 155262
necessary for the foregoing appropriation item 025601, House 155263
Reimbursement, the amounts are hereby appropriated.155264

       Section 295.10. HFA OHIO HOUSING FINANCE AGENCY155265

State Special Revenue Fund Group155266

5AZ0 997601 Housing Finance Agency Personal Services $ 12,526,713 $ 12,850,014 155267
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 12,526,713 $ 12,850,014 155268
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 12,526,713 $ 12,850,014 155269


       Section 297.10. IGO OFFICE OF THE INSPECTOR GENERAL155271

General Revenue Fund155272

GRF 965321 Operating Expenses $ 1,175,598 $ 1,175,598 155273
GRF 965404 Deputy Inspector General for ARRA $ 475,000 $ 350,000 155274
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 1,650,598 $ 1,525,598 155275

General Services Fund Group155276

5FA0 965603 Deputy Inspector General for ODOT $ 400,000 $ 400,000 155277
5FT0 965604 Deputy Inspector General for BWC/OIC $ 425,000 $ 425,000 155278
5GI0 965605 Deputy Inspector General for ARRA $ 25,000 $ 0 155279
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 850,000 $ 825,000 155280
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 2,500,598 $ 2,350,598 155281


       Section 299.10.  INS DEPARTMENT OF INSURANCE155283

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group155284

3EV0 820610 Health Insurance Premium Review $ 1,300,000 $ 1,300,000 155285
3U50 820602 OSHIIP Operating Grant $ 1,970,725 $ 1,970,725 155286
TOTAL FED Federal Special 155287
Revenue Fund Group $ 3,270,725 $ 3,270,725 155288

State Special Revenue Fund Group155289

5540 820601 Operating Expenses - OSHIIP $ 180,000 $ 180,000 155290
5540 820606 Operating Expenses $ 27,570,433 $ 24,910,367 155291
5550 820605 Examination $ 8,184,065 $ 8,184,065 155292
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 155293
Fund Group $ 35,934,498 $ 33,274,432 155294
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 39,205,223 $ 36,545,157 155295

       MARKET CONDUCT EXAMINATION155296

       When conducting a market conduct examination of any insurer 155297
doing business in this state, the Superintendent of Insurance may 155298
assess the costs of the examination against the insurer. The 155299
superintendent may enter into consent agreements to impose 155300
administrative assessments or fines for conduct discovered that 155301
may be violations of statutes or rules administered by the 155302
Superintendent. All costs, assessments, or fines collected shall 155303
be deposited to the credit of the Department of Insurance 155304
Operating Fund (Fund 5540).155305

       EXAMINATIONS OF DOMESTIC FRATERNAL BENEFIT SOCIETIES155306

       The Director of Budget and Management, at the request of the 155307
Superintendent of Insurance, may transfer funds from the 155308
Department of Insurance Operating Fund (Fund 5540), established by 155309
section 3901.021 of the Revised Code, to the Superintendent's 155310
Examination Fund (Fund 5550), established by section 3901.071 of 155311
the Revised Code, only for expenses incurred in examining domestic 155312
fraternal benefit societies as required by section 3921.28 of the 155313
Revised Code.155314

       TRANSFER FROM FUND 5540 TO GENERAL REVENUE FUND155315

        Not later than the thirty-first day of July each fiscal year, 155316
the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer $5,000,000 155317
from the Department of Insurance Operating Fund (Fund 5540) to the 155318
General Revenue Fund.155319

       Section 301.10. JFS DEPARTMENT OF JOB AND FAMILY SERVICES155320

General Revenue Fund155321

GRF 600321 Program Support $ 31,320,964 $ 31,109,751 155322
GRF 600410 TANF State/Maintenance of Effort $ 152,386,934 $ 152,386,934 155323
GRF 600413 Child Care State/Maintenance of Effort $ 84,732,730 $ 84,732,730 155324
GRF 600416 Information Technology Projects $ 54,223,871 $ 54,184,700 155325
GRF 600420 Child Support Programs $ 6,498,667 $ 6,591,048 155326
GRF 600421 Family Assistance Programs $ 3,161,930 $ 3,161,930 155327
GRF 600423 Families and Children Programs $ 6,384,514 $ 6,542,517 155328
GRF 600502 Child Support - Local $ 23,814,103 $ 23,814,103 155329
GRF 600511 Disability Financial Assistance $ 22,000,000 $ 22,000,000 155330
GRF 600521 Family Assistance - Local $ 41,132,751 $ 41,132,751 155331
GRF 600523 Family and Children Services $ 54,255,323 $ 54,255,323 155332
GRF 600528 Adoption Services 155333
State $ 28,623,389 $ 28,623,389 155334
Federal $ 38,202,557 $ 38,202,557 155335
Adoption Services Total $ 66,825,946 $ 66,825,946 155336
GRF 600533 Child, Family, and Adult Community & Protective Services $ 13,500,000 $ 13,500,000 155337
GRF 600534 Adult Protective Services $ 500,000 $ 500,000 155338
GRF 600535 Early Care and Education $ 123,596,474 $ 123,596,474 155339
GRF 600540 Food Banks $ 6,000,000 $ 6,000,000 155340
GRF 600541 Kinship Permanency Incentive Program $ 3,500,000 $ 3,500,000 155341
GRF 655522 Medicaid Program Support - Local $ 31,067,970 $ 31,067,970 155342
GRF 655523 Medicaid Program Support - Local Transportation $ 30,680,495 $ 30,680,495 155343
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund 155344
State $ 717,380,115 $ 717,380,115 155345
Federal $ 38,202,557 $ 38,202,557 155346
GRF Total $ 755,582,672 $ 755,582,672 155347

General Services Fund Group155348

4A80 600658 Public Assistance Activities $ 34,000,000 $ 34,000,000 155349
5DM0 600633 Administration & Operating $ 19,660,339 $ 19,660,339 155350
5HC0 600695 Unemployment Compensation Interest $ 60,000,000 $ 60,000,000 155351
5HL0 600602 State and County Shared Services $ 3,020,000 $ 3,020,000 155352
6130 600645 Training Activities $ 100,000 $ 92,989 155353
TOTAL GSF General Services 155354
Fund Group $ 116,780,339 $ 116,773,328 155355

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group155356

3270 600606 Child Welfare $ 29,769,866 $ 29,769,866 155357
3310 600615 Veterans Programs $ 8,000,000 $ 8,000,000 155358
3310 600624 Employment Services Programs $ 26,000,000 $ 26,000,000 155359
3310 600686 Workforce Programs $ 6,260,000 $ 6,260,000 155360
3840 600610 Food Assistance Programs $ 209,333,246 $ 180,381,394 155361
3850 600614 Refugee Services $ 12,564,952 $ 12,564,952 155362
3950 600616 Federal Discretionary Grants $ 2,259,264 $ 2,259,264 155363
3960 600620 Social Services Block Grant $ 47,000,000 $ 47,000,000 155364
3970 600626 Child Support - Federal $ 235,000,000 $ 235,000,000 155365
3980 600627 Adoption Program - Federal $ 174,178,779 $ 174,178,779 155366
3A20 600641 Emergency Food Distribution $ 5,000,000 $ 5,000,000 155367
3D30 600648 Children's Trust Fund Federal $ 3,477,699 $ 3,477,699 155368
3F01 655624 Medicaid Program Support $ 110,680,495 $ 110,680,495 155369
3H70 600617 Child Care Federal $ 241,987,805 $ 222,212,089 155370
3N00 600628 Foster Care Program - Federal $ 311,968,616 $ 311,968,616 155371
3S50 600622 Child Support Projects $ 534,050 $ 534,050 155372
3V00 600688 Workforce Investment Act Programs $ 136,000,000 $ 136,000,000 155373
3V40 600678 Federal Unemployment Programs $ 182,814,212 $ 182,814,212 155374
3V40 600679 UC Review Commission - Federal $ 6,185,788 $ 6,185,788 155375
3V60 600689 TANF Block Grant $ 777,957,809 $ 790,304,845 155376
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 155377
Fund Group $ 2,526,972,581 $ 2,490,592,049 155378

State Special Revenue Fund Group155379

1980 600647 Children's Trust Fund $ 5,873,848 $ 5,873,848 155380
4A90 600607 Unemployment Compensation Administration Fund $ 9,006,000 $ 9,006,000 155381
4E70 600604 Family and Children Services Collections $ 400,000 $ 400,000 155382
4F10 600609 Family and Children Activities $ 683,549 $ 683,549 155383
5DB0 600637 Military Injury Relief Subsidies $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 155384
5DP0 600634 Adoption Assistance Loan $ 500,000 $ 500,000 155385
5ES0 600630 Food Bank Assistance $ 500,000 $ 500,000 155386
5KU0 600611 Unemployment Compensation Support - Other Sources $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 155387
5NG0 600660 Victims of Human Trafficking $ 100,000 $ 100,000 155388
5U60 600663 Family and Children Support $ 4,000,000 $ 4,000,000 155389
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 155390
Fund Group $ 25,063,397 $ 25,063,397 155391

Agency Fund Group155392

1920 600646 Child Support Intercept - Federal $ 129,250,000 $ 129,250,000 155393
5830 600642 Child Support Intercept - State $ 14,000,000 $ 14,000,000 155394
5B60 600601 Food Assistance Intercept $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 155395
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 144,250,000 $ 144,250,000 155396

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group155397

R012 600643 Refunds and Audit Settlements $ 2,200,000 $ 2,200,000 155398
R013 600644 Forgery Collections $ 10,000 $ 10,000 155399
TOTAL 090 Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group $ 2,210,000 $ 2,210,000 155400
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 3,570,858,989 $ 3,534,471,446 155401


       Section 301.20. TRANSFER TO STATE AND COUNTY SHARED SERVICES 155403
FUND155404

       Within thirty days of the effective date of this act, or as 155405
soon as possible thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management 155406
shall transfer the cash balance in the County Technologies Fund 155407
(Fund 5N10) to the State and County Shared Services Fund (Fund 155408
5HL0).155409

       Section 301.30. AGENCY AND HOLDING ACCOUNT REDISTRIBUTION 155410
FUND GROUPS155411

       The Agency Fund Group and Holding Account Redistribution Fund 155412
Group shall be used to hold revenues until the appropriate fund is 155413
determined or until the revenues are directed to the appropriate 155414
governmental agency other than the Department of Job and Family 155415
Services. If receipts credited to the Support Intercept – Federal 155416
Fund (Fund 1920), the Support Intercept – State Fund (Fund 5830), 155417
the Food Stamp Offset Fund (Fund 5B60), the Refunds and Audit 155418
Settlements Fund (Fund R012), or the Forgery Collections Fund 155419
(Fund R013) exceed the amounts appropriated from the fund, the 155420
Director of Job and Family Services may request the Director of 155421
Budget and Management to authorize expenditures from the fund in 155422
excess of the amounts appropriated. Upon the approval of the 155423
Director of Budget and Management, the additional amounts are 155424
hereby appropriated.155425

       Section 301.33. BIG BROTHERS BIG SISTERS155426

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 600410, TANF 155427
State/Maintenance of Effort, $1,000,000 in each fiscal year shall 155428
be provided, in accordance with sections 5101.80 and 5101.801 of 155429
the Revised Code, to Big Brothers Big Sisters of Central Ohio to 155430
provide mentoring services to children of incarcerated parents 155431
throughout the state.155432

       Section 301.40. COUNTY ADMINISTRATIVE FUNDS155433

       (A) The foregoing appropriation item 600521, Family 155434
Assistance - Local, may be provided to county departments of job 155435
and family services to administer food assistance and disability 155436
assistance programs. 155437

       (B) The foregoing appropriation item 655522, Medicaid Program 155438
Support - Local, may be provided to county departments of job and 155439
family services to administer the Medicaid program and the State 155440
Children's Health Insurance program. 155441

       (C) At the request of the Director of Job and Family 155442
Services, the Director of Budget and Management may transfer 155443
appropriations between appropriation item 600521, Family 155444
Assistance - Local, and appropriation item 655522, Medicaid 155445
Program Support - Local, in order to ensure county administrative 155446
funds are expended from the proper appropriation item. 155447

       Section 301.50. FOOD STAMPS TRANSFER155448

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 155449
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to $1,000,000 155450
cash from the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program Fund (Fund 155451
3840), to the Food Assistance Fund (Fund 5ES0).155452

       Section 301.60. NAME OF FOOD STAMP PROGRAM155453

       The Director of Job and Family Services is not required to 155454
amend rules regarding the Food Stamp Program to change the name of 155455
the program to the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program. The 155456
Director may refer to the program as the Food Stamp Program or the 155457
Food Assistance Program in rules and documents of the Department 155458
of Job and Family Services.155459

       Section 301.70. OHIO ASSOCIATION OF FOOD BANKS155460

       The foregoing appropriation item 600540, Food Banks, shall be 155461
used to provide funds to the Ohio Association of Food Banks to 155462
purchase and distribute food products.155463

       Notwithstanding section 5101.46 of the Revised Code and any 155464
other provision in this bill, in addition to funds designated for 155465
the Ohio Association of Food Banks in this section, in fiscal year 155466
2014 and fiscal year 2015, the Director of Job and Family Services 155467
shall provide assistance from eligible funds to the Ohio 155468
Association of Food Banks in an amount up to or equal to the 155469
assistance provided in state fiscal year 2013 from all funds used 155470
by the Department, except the General Revenue Fund.155471

       Eligible nonfederal expenditures made by member food banks of 155472
the Association shall be counted by the Department of Job and 155473
Family Services toward the TANF maintenance of effort requirements 155474
of 42 U.S.C. 609(a)(7). The Director of Job and Family Services 155475
shall enter into an agreement with the Ohio Association of Food 155476
Banks, in accordance with sections 5101.80 and 5101.801 of the 155477
Revised Code, to carry out the requirements under this section. 155478

       Section 301.80. PUBLIC ASSISTANCE ACTIVITIES/TANF MOE155479

       The foregoing appropriation item 600658, Public Assistance 155480
Activities, shall be used by the Department of Job and Family 155481
Services to meet the TANF maintenance of effort requirements of 42 155482
U.S.C. 609(a)(7). When the state is assured that it will meet the 155483
maintenance of effort requirement, the Department of Job and 155484
Family Services may use funds from appropriation item 600658, 155485
Public Assistance Activities, to support public assistance 155486
activities.155487

       Section 301.90. GOVERNOR'S OFFICE OF FAITH-BASED AND 155488
COMMUNITY INITIATIVES155489

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 600689, TANF Block Grant, 155490
up to $6,540,000 in each fiscal year shall be used, in accordance 155491
with sections 5101.80 and 5101.801 of the Revised Code, to provide 155492
support to programs or organizations that provide services that 155493
align with the mission and goals of the Governor's Office of 155494
Faith-Based and Community Initiatives, as outlined in section 155495
107.12 of the Revised Code, and that further at least one of the 155496
four purposes of the TANF program, as specified in 42 U.S.C. 601. 155497

       Section 301.100. INDEPENDENT LIVING INITIATIVE155498

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 600689, TANF Block Grant, 155499
up to $2,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be used, in accordance 155500
with sections 5101.80 and 5101.801 of the Revised Code, to support 155501
the Independent Living Initiative, including life skills training 155502
and work supports for older children in foster care and those who 155503
have recently aged out of foster care.155504

       Section 301.110. KINSHIP PERMANENCY INCENTIVE PROGRAM155505

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 600689, TANF Block Grant, 155506
$1,750,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 155507
activities of the Kinship Permanency Incentive Program established 155508
in section 5101.802 of the Revised Code.155509

       Section 301.120. OHIO COMMISSION ON FATHERHOOD155510

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 600689, TANF Block Grant, 155511
$1,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be provided to the Ohio 155512
Commission on Fatherhood.155513

       Section 301.123. OHIO ALLIANCE OF BOYS AND GIRLS CLUBS155514

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 600689, TANF Block Grant, 155515
$500,000 in each fiscal year shall be provided, in accordance with 155516
sections 5101.80 and 5101.801 of the Revised Code, to the Ohio 155517
Alliance of Boys and Girls Clubs to provide after-school programs 155518
that protect at-risk children and enable youth to become 155519
responsible adults.155520

       Section 301.130. DIFFERENTIAL RESPONSE 155521

       In accordance with an independent evaluation of the Ohio 155522
Alternative Response Pilot Program that recommended statewide 155523
implementation, the Department of Job and Family Services shall 155524
plan the statewide expansion of the Ohio Alternative Response 155525
Pilot Program on a county by county basis, through a schedule 155526
determined by the Department. The program shall be known as the 155527
"differential response" approach as defined in section 2151.011 of 155528
the Revised Code. Notwithstanding provisions of Chapter 2151. of 155529
the Revised Code that refer to "differential response," 155530
"traditional response," and "alternative response," those 155531
provisions shall become effective on the scheduled date of 155532
expansion of the differential response approach to that county. 155533
Prior to statewide implementation, the Department may adopt rules 155534
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary 155535
to carry out the purposes of this section.155536

       Section 301.140. FLEXIBLE FUNDING FOR FAMILIES AND CHILDREN155537

       In collaboration with the county family and children first 155538
council, a county department of job and family services or public 155539
children services agency that receives an allocation from the 155540
Department of Job and Family Services from the foregoing 155541
appropriation item 600523, Family and Children Services, or 155542
600533, Child, Family, and Adult Community & Protective Services, 155543
may transfer a portion of either or both allocations to a flexible 155544
funding pool as authorized by the section of this act titled 155545
"FAMILY AND CHILDREN FIRST FLEXIBLE FUNDING POOL."155546

       Section 301.143. CHILDREN'S CRISIS CARE FACILITIES155547

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 600523, Family and 155548
Children Services, $150,000 in each fiscal year shall be provided 155549
to children's crisis care facilities, as defined in section 155550
5103.13 of the Revised Code. The Director of Job and Family 155551
Services shall allocate funds based on the number of children at 155552
each facility. A children's crisis care facility may decline to 155553
receive funds provided for under this section. A children's crisis 155554
care facility that accepts funds provided under this section shall 155555
use the funds in accordance with section 5103.13 of the Revised 155556
Code and rules in section 5101:2-9-36 of the Administrative Code.155557

       Section 301.150. CHILD, FAMILY, AND ADULT COMMUNITY AND 155558
PROTECTIVE SERVICES155559

        (A) The foregoing appropriation item 600533, Child, Family, 155560
and Adult Community & Protective Services, shall be distributed to 155561
each county department of job and family services using the 155562
formula the Department of Job and Family Services uses when 155563
distributing Title XX funds to county departments of job and 155564
family services under section 5101.46 of the Revised Code. County 155565
departments shall use the funds distributed to them under this 155566
section as follows, in accordance with the written plan of 155567
cooperation entered into under section 307.983 of the Revised 155568
Code:155569

        (1) To assist individuals achieve or maintain 155570
self-sufficiency, including by reducing or preventing dependency 155571
among individuals with family income not exceeding two hundred per 155572
cent of the federal poverty guidelines;155573

        (2) Subject to division (B) of this section, to respond to 155574
reports of abuse, neglect, or exploitation of children and adults, 155575
including through the differential response approach program 155576
developed under Section 309.50.10 of this act;155577

        (3) To provide outreach and referral services regarding home 155578
and community-based services to individuals at risk of placement 155579
in a group home or institution, regardless of the individuals' 155580
family income and without need for a written application;155581

        (4) To provide outreach, referral, application assistance, 155582
and other services to assist individuals receive assistance, 155583
benefits, or services under Medicaid; Title IV-A programs, as 155584
defined in section 5101.80 of the Revised Code; the Supplemental 155585
Nutrition Assistance Program; and other public assistance 155586
programs.155587

        (B) Protective services may be provided to a child or adult 155588
as part of a response, under division (A)(2) of this section, to a 155589
report of abuse, neglect, or exploitation without regard to a 155590
child or adult's family income and without need for a written 155591
application. The protective services may be provided if the case 155592
record documents circumstances of actual or potential abuse, 155593
neglect, or exploitation.155594

       Section 301.160. CHILDREN AND FAMILY SERVICES ACTIVITIES155595

        The foregoing appropriation item 600609, Children and Family 155596
Services Activities, shall be used to expend miscellaneous 155597
foundation funds and grants to support children and family 155598
services activities.155599

       Section 301.170. ADOPTION ASSISTANCE LOAN155600

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 600634, Adoption 155601
Assistance Loan, the Department of Job and Family Services may use 155602
up to ten per cent for administration of adoption assistance loans 155603
pursuant to section 3107.018 of the Revised Code.155604

       Section 301.173. VICTIMS OF HUMAN TRAFFICKING155605

        The foregoing appropriation item 600660, Victims of Human 155606
Trafficking, shall be used to provide treatment, care, 155607
rehabilitation, education, housing, and assistance for victims of 155608
trafficking in persons as specified in section 5101.87 of the 155609
Revised Code. If receipts credited to the Victims of Human 155610
Trafficking Fund (Fund 5NG0) exceed the amounts appropriated to 155611
the fund, the Director of Job and Family Services may request the 155612
Director of Budget and Management to authorize expenditures from 155613
the fund in excess of the amounts appropriated. Upon the approval 155614
of the Director of Budget and Management, the additional amounts 155615
are hereby appropriated.155616

       Section 301.180. FEDERAL UNEMPLOYMENT PROGRAMS155617

       All unexpended funds remaining at the end of fiscal year 2013 155618
that were appropriated and made available to the state under 155619
section 903(d) of the Social Security Act, as amended, in the 155620
foregoing appropriation item 600678, Federal Unemployment Programs 155621
(Fund 3V40), are hereby appropriated to the Department of Job and 155622
Family Services. Upon the request of the Director of Job and 155623
Family Services, the Director of Budget and Management may 155624
increase the appropriation for fiscal year 2014 by the amount 155625
remaining unspent from the fiscal year 2013 appropriation and may 155626
increase the appropriation for fiscal year 2015 by the amount 155627
remaining unspent from the fiscal year 2014 appropriation. The 155628
appropriation shall be used under the direction of the Department 155629
of Job and Family Services to pay for administrative activities 155630
for the Unemployment Insurance Program, employment services, and 155631
other allowable expenditures under section 903(d) of the Social 155632
Security Act, as amended.155633

       The amounts obligated pursuant to this section shall not 155634
exceed at any time the amount by which the aggregate of the 155635
amounts transferred to the account of the state under section 155636
903(d) of the Social Security Act, as amended, exceeds the 155637
aggregate of the amounts obligated for administration and paid out 155638
for benefits and required by law to be charged against the amounts 155639
transferred to the account of the state.155640

       Section 301.190.  UNEMPLOYMENT COMPENSATION INTEREST155641

       The foregoing appropriation item 600695, Unemployment 155642
Compensation Interest, shall be used for payment of interest costs 155643
paid to the United States Secretary of the Treasury for the 155644
repayment of accrued interest related to federal unemployment 155645
account borrowing.155646

       Section 303.10. JCR JOINT COMMITTEE ON AGENCY RULE REVIEW155647

General Revenue Fund155648

GRF 029321 Operating Expenses $ 455,858 $ 456,376 155649
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 455,858 $ 456,376 155650
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 455,858 $ 456,376 155651

       OPERATING GUIDANCE155652

       The Chief Administrative Officer of the House of 155653
Representatives and the Clerk of the Senate shall determine, by 155654
mutual agreement, which of them shall act as fiscal agent for the 155655
Joint Committee on Agency Rule Review. Members of the Committee 155656
shall be paid in accordance with section 101.35 of the Revised 155657
Code.155658

       OPERATING EXPENSES155659

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 155660
Executive Director of the Joint Committee on Agency Rule Review 155661
may certify to the Director of Budget and Management the amount of 155662
the unexpended, unencumbered balance of the foregoing 155663
appropriation item 029321, Operating Expenses, at the end of 155664
fiscal year 2013 to be reappropriated to fiscal year 2014. The 155665
amount certified is hereby reappropriated to the same 155666
appropriation item for fiscal year 2014.155667

       On July 1, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 155668
Executive Director of the Joint Committee on Agency Rule Review 155669
may certify to the Director of Budget and Management the amount of 155670
the unexpended, unencumbered balance of the foregoing 155671
appropriation item 029321, Operating Expenses, at the end of 155672
fiscal year 2014 to be reappropriated to fiscal year 2015. The 155673
amount certified is hereby reappropriated to the same 155674
appropriation item for fiscal year 2015. 155675

       Section 305.10.  JCO JUDICIAL CONFERENCE OF OHIO155676

General Revenue Fund155677

GRF 018321 Operating Expenses $ 824,900 $ 847,200 155678
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 824,900 $ 847,200 155679

General Services Fund Group155680

4030 018601 Ohio Jury Instructions $ 385,000 $ 385,000 155681
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 385,000 $ 385,000 155682
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,209,900 $ 1,232,200 155683

       STATE COUNCIL OF UNIFORM STATE LAWS155684

       Notwithstanding section 105.26 of the Revised Code, of the 155685
foregoing appropriation item 018321, Operating Expenses, up to 155686
$84,900 in fiscal year 2014 and up to $88,300 in fiscal year 2015 155687
shall be used to pay the expenses of the State Council of Uniform 155688
State Laws, including membership dues to the National Conference 155689
of Commissioners on Uniform State Laws.155690

       OHIO JURY INSTRUCTIONS FUND155691

       The Ohio Jury Instructions Fund (Fund 4030) shall consist of 155692
grants, royalties, dues, conference fees, bequests, devises, and 155693
other gifts received for the purpose of supporting costs incurred 155694
by the Judicial Conference of Ohio in its activities as a part of 155695
the judicial system of the state as determined by the Judicial 155696
Conference Executive Committee. Fund 4030 shall be used by the 155697
Judicial Conference of Ohio to pay expenses incurred in its 155698
activities as a part of the judicial system of the state as 155699
determined by the Judicial Conference Executive Committee. All 155700
moneys accruing to Fund 4030 in excess of $385,000 in fiscal year 155701
2014 and in excess of $385,000 in fiscal year 2015 are hereby 155702
appropriated for the purposes authorized.155703

       No money in Fund 4030 shall be transferred to any other fund 155704
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board.155705

       Section 307.10.  JSC THE JUDICIARY/SUPREME COURT155706

General Revenue Fund155707

GRF 005321 Operating Expenses - Judiciary/Supreme Court $ 143,016,534 $ 140,232,737 155708
GRF 005406 Law-Related Education $ 236,172 $ 236,172 155709
GRF 005409 Ohio Courts Technology Initiative $ 3,350,000 $ 3,350,000 155710
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 146,602,706 $ 143,818,909 155711

General Services Fund Group155712

6720 005601 Continuing Judicial Education $ 101,392 $ 93,563 155713
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 101,392 $ 93,563 155714

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group155715

3J00 005603 Federal Grants $ 1,235,900 $ 1,252,600 155716
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 1,235,900 $ 1,252,600 155717

State Special Revenue Fund Group155718

4C80 005605 Attorney Services $ 3,923,101 $ 3,915,721 155719
5HT0 005617 Court Interpreter Certification $ 23,000 $ 23,000 155720
5JY0 005620 County Law Library Resources Boards $ 258,000 $ 258,000 155721
5T80 005609 Grants and Awards $ 25,000 $ 25,000 155722
6A80 005606 Supreme Court Admissions $ 1,283,751 $ 1,308,025 155723
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 5,512,852 $ 5,529,746 155724
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 153,452,850 $ 150,694,818 155725

       OPERATING EXPENSES - JUDICIARY/SUPREME COURT155726

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 005321, Operating 155727
Expenses - Judiciary/Supreme Court, up to $206,770 in each fiscal 155728
year may be used to support the functions of the State Criminal 155729
Sentencing Council, and $5,000,000 in fiscal year 2014 shall be 155730
used to support the pilot program established under the section of 155731
this act entitled "ADDICTION TREATMENT PILOT PROGRAM." Of the 155732
$5,000,000 allocated for the pilot program, the Supreme Court 155733
shall receive an amount of not more than five per cent for an 155734
administrative fee.155735

       LAW-RELATED EDUCATION155736

       The foregoing appropriation item 005406, Law-Related 155737
Education, shall be distributed directly to the Ohio Center for 155738
Law-Related Education for the purposes of providing continuing 155739
citizenship education activities to primary and secondary 155740
students, expanding delinquency prevention programs, increasing 155741
activities for at-risk youth, and accessing additional public and 155742
private money for new programs.155743

       OHIO COURTS TECHNOLOGY INITIATIVE155744

       The foregoing appropriation item 005409, Ohio Courts 155745
Technology Initiative, shall be used to fund an initiative by the 155746
Supreme Court to facilitate the exchange of information and 155747
warehousing of data by and between Ohio courts and other justice 155748
system partners through the creation of an Ohio Courts Network, 155749
the delivery of technology services to courts throughout the 155750
state, including the provision of hardware, software, and the 155751
development and implementation of educational and training 155752
programs for judges and court personnel, and operation of the 155753
Commission on Technology and the Courts by the Supreme Court for 155754
the promulgation of statewide rules, policies, and uniform 155755
standards, and to aid in the orderly adoption and comprehensive 155756
use of technology in Ohio courts.155757

       CONTINUING JUDICIAL EDUCATION155758

       The Continuing Judicial Education Fund (Fund 6720) shall 155759
consist of fees paid by judges and court personnel for attending 155760
continuing education courses and other gifts and grants received 155761
for the purpose of continuing judicial education. The foregoing 155762
appropriation item 005601, Continuing Judicial Education, shall be 155763
used to pay expenses for continuing education courses for judges 155764
and court personnel. If it is determined by the Administrative 155765
Director of the Supreme Court that additional appropriations are 155766
necessary, the amounts are hereby appropriated.155767

       No money in Fund 6720 shall be transferred to any other fund 155768
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 155769
Interest earned on money in Fund 6720 shall be credited to the 155770
fund.155771

       FEDERAL GRANTS155772

       The Federal Grants Fund (Fund 3J00) shall consist of grants 155773
and other moneys awarded to the Supreme Court (The Judiciary) by 155774
the United States Government or other entities that receive the 155775
moneys directly from the United States Government and distribute 155776
those moneys to the Supreme Court (The Judiciary). The foregoing 155777
appropriation item 005603, Federal Grants, shall be used in a 155778
manner consistent with the purpose of the grant or award. If it is 155779
determined by the Administrative Director of the Supreme Court 155780
that additional appropriations are necessary, the amounts are 155781
hereby appropriated.155782

       No money in Fund 3J00 shall be transferred to any other fund 155783
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 155784
However, interest earned on money in Fund 3J00 shall be credited 155785
or transferred to the General Revenue Fund.155786

       ATTORNEY SERVICES155787

       The Attorney Services Fund (Fund 4C80), formerly known as the 155788
Attorney Registration Fund, shall consist of money received by the 155789
Supreme Court (The Judiciary) pursuant to the Rules for the 155790
Government of the Bar of Ohio. In addition to funding other 155791
activities considered appropriate by the Supreme Court, the 155792
foregoing appropriation item 005605, Attorney Services, may be 155793
used to compensate employees and to fund appropriate activities of 155794
the following offices established by the Supreme Court: the Office 155795
of Disciplinary Counsel, the Board of Commissioners on Grievances 155796
and Discipline, the Clients' Security Fund, and the Attorney 155797
Services Division. If it is determined by the Administrative 155798
Director of the Supreme Court that additional appropriations are 155799
necessary, the amounts are hereby appropriated.155800

       No money in Fund 4C80 shall be transferred to any other fund 155801
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 155802
Interest earned on money in Fund 4C80 shall be credited to the 155803
fund.155804

       COURT INTERPRETER CERTIFICATION155805

       The Court Interpreter Certification Fund (Fund 5HT0) shall 155806
consist of money received by the Supreme Court (The Judiciary) 155807
pursuant to Rules 80 through 87 of the Rules of Superintendence 155808
for the Courts of Ohio. The foregoing appropriation item 005617, 155809
Court Interpreter Certification, shall be used to provide 155810
training, to provide the written examination, and to pay language 155811
experts to rate, or grade, the oral examinations of those applying 155812
to become certified court interpreters. If it is determined by the 155813
Administrative Director that additional appropriations are 155814
necessary, the amounts are hereby appropriated.155815

       No money in Fund 5HT0 shall be transferred to any other fund 155816
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 155817
Interest earned on money in Fund 5HT0 shall be credited to the 155818
fund.155819

       COUNTY LAW LIBRARY RESOURCES BOARD155820

       The Statewide Consortium of County Law Library Resources 155821
Boards Fund (Fund 5JY0) shall consist of moneys deposited pursuant 155822
to section 307.515 of the Revised Code into a county's law library 155823
resources fund and forwarded by that county's treasurer for 155824
deposit in the state treasury pursuant to division (E)(1) of 155825
section 3375.481 of the Revised Code. The foregoing appropriation 155826
item 005620, County Law Library Resources Board, shall be used for 155827
the operation of the Statewide Consortium of County Law Library 155828
Resources Boards. If it is determined by the Administrative 155829
Director of the Supreme Court that additional appropriations are 155830
necessary, the amounts are hereby appropriated.155831

        No money in Fund 5JY0 shall be transferred to any other fund 155832
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 155833
Interest earned on money in Fund 5JY0 shall be credited to the 155834
fund.155835

       GRANTS AND AWARDS155836

       The Grants and Awards Fund (Fund 5T80) shall consist of 155837
grants and other money awarded to the Supreme Court (The 155838
Judiciary) by the State Justice Institute, the Division of 155839
Criminal Justice Services, or other entities. The foregoing 155840
appropriation item 005609, Grants and Awards, shall be used in a 155841
manner consistent with the purpose of the grant or award. If it is 155842
determined by the Administrative Director of the Supreme Court 155843
that additional appropriations are necessary, the amounts are 155844
hereby appropriated.155845

       No money in Fund 5T80 shall be transferred to any other fund 155846
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 155847
However, interest earned on money in Fund 5T80 shall be credited 155848
or transferred to the General Revenue Fund.155849

       SUPREME COURT ADMISSIONS155850

       The foregoing appropriation item 005606, Supreme Court 155851
Admissions, shall be used to compensate Supreme Court employees 155852
who are primarily responsible for administering the attorney 155853
admissions program under the Rules for the Government of the Bar 155854
of Ohio, and to fund any other activities considered appropriate 155855
by the court. Moneys shall be deposited into the Supreme Court 155856
Admissions Fund (Fund 6A80) under the Supreme Court Rules for the 155857
Government of the Bar of Ohio. If it is determined by the 155858
Administrative Director of the Supreme Court that additional 155859
appropriations are necessary, the amounts are hereby appropriated.155860

       No money in Fund 6A80 shall be transferred to any other fund 155861
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 155862
Interest earned on money in Fund 6A80 shall be credited to the 155863
fund.155864

       Section 307.20. ADDICTION TREATMENT PILOT PROGRAM155865

       (A) As used in this section:155866

       (1) "Certified drug court program" means a session of any of 155867
the following that holds initial or final certification from the 155868
Supreme Court of Ohio as a specialized docket program for drugs: a 155869
common pleas court, municipal court, or county court or a division 155870
of any of those courts.155871

       (2) "Prescriber" has the same meaning as in section 4729.01 155872
of the Revised Code.155873

        (B)(1) The Supreme Court of Ohio shall conduct a pilot 155874
program to provide addiction treatment, including 155875
medication-assisted treatment, to persons who are offenders within 155876
the criminal justice system, eligible to participate in a 155877
certified drug court program, and selected under this section to 155878
be participants in the pilot program because of their dependence 155879
on opioids, alcohol, or both.155880

       (2) The Supreme Court shall conduct the pilot program in the 155881
courts of Crawford, Franklin, Hardin, Mercer, and Scioto counties 155882
that are conducting certified drug court programs. If in any these 155883
counties there is no court conducting a certified drug court 155884
program, the Supreme Court shall conduct the pilot program in a 155885
court that is conducting a certified drug court program in another 155886
county.155887

        (3) In addition to courts of the counties listed in division 155888
(B)(2) of this section, the Supreme Court may conduct the pilot 155889
program in any court that is conducting a certified drug court 155890
program.155891

        (C) In conducting the pilot program, the Supreme Court shall 155892
collaborate with the Department of Mental Health and Addiction 155893
Services, Department of Rehabilitation and Correction, and any 155894
other state agency that it determines may be of assistance in 155895
accomplishing the objectives of the pilot program. In addition, 155896
the Supreme Court may collaborate with the boards of alcohol, drug 155897
addiction, and mental health services that serve the counties in 155898
which the courts participating in the pilot program are located.155899

       (D) Not later than sixty days after the effective date of 155900
this section, the Supreme Court shall select a nationally 155901
recognized criminal justice research institute with extensive 155902
experience in the evaluation of criminal justice and substance 155903
abuse projects to develop an evaluation plan for the pilot 155904
program. The evaluation plan shall include performance measures 155905
that reflect the purpose of the pilot program, which is to assist 155906
participants in addressing their dependence on opioids, alcohol, 155907
or both, by maintaining abstinence from the use of those 155908
substances and reducing recidivism.155909

       (E) Before any person may be enrolled as a participant in the 155910
pilot program, the evaluation plan developed by the research 155911
institute shall be put into place with each of the certified drug 155912
court programs included in the pilot program and the addiction 155913
services providers that will provide treatment to the 155914
participants.155915

       Once the evaluation plan has been put into place, the 155916
certified drug court programs shall select persons who are 155917
offenders within the criminal justice system to be participants in 155918
the pilot program. To be selected, a person must meet the legal 155919
and clinical eligibility criteria for the certified drug court 155920
program and be an active participant in the program. The total 155921
number of persons participating in the pilot program at any one 155922
time shall not exceed five hundred, except that the Supreme Court 155923
may authorize the maximum number to be exceeded in circumstances 155924
that the Court considers appropriate.155925

       After being enrolled in the pilot program, a participant 155926
shall comply with all requirements of the certified drug court 155927
program.155928

       (F) Treatment may be provided under the pilot program only by 155929
an addiction services provider that is certified under section 155930
5119.36 of the Revised Code. In serving as a treatment provider, 155931
an addiction services provider shall do all of the following:155932

       (1) Provide treatment based on an integrated service delivery 155933
model that consists of the coordination of care between a 155934
prescriber and the addiction services provider;155935

       (2) Conduct professional, comprehensive substance abuse and 155936
mental health diagnostic assessments of persons under 155937
consideration for selection as pilot program participants to 155938
determine whether they would benefit from substance abuse 155939
treatment and monitoring;155940

       (3) Determine, based on the assessments described in division 155941
(F)(2) of this section, the treatment needs of the participants 155942
served by the treatment provider;155943

       (4) Develop, for the participants served by the treatment 155944
provider, individualized goals and objectives;155945

       (5) Provide access to the long-acting antagonist therapies, 155946
partial agonist therapies, or both that are included in the pilot 155947
program's medication-assisted treatment;155948

       (6) Provide other types of therapies, including psychosocial 155949
therapies, for both substance abuse and any disorders that are 155950
considered by the treatment provider to be co-occurring disorders;155951

       (7) Monitor pilot program compliance through the use of 155952
regular drug testing, including urinalysis, of the participants 155953
being served by the treatment provider.155954

       (G) In the case of the medication-assisted treatment provided 155955
under the pilot program, all of the following conditions apply:155956

       (1) A drug may be used only if it has been approved by the 155957
United States Food and Drug Administration for use in treating 155958
dependence on opioids, alcohol, or both or for preventing relapse 155959
into the use of opioids, alcohol, or both.155960

       (2) One or more drugs may be used, but each drug that is used 155961
must constitute long-acting antagonist therapy or partial agonist 155962
therapy.155963

       (3) If a drug constituting partial agonist therapy is used, 155964
the pilot program shall provide safeguards to minimize abuse and 155965
diversion of the drug, including such safeguards as routine drug 155966
testing of the pilot program participants.155967

       (H) The research institute selected by the Supreme Court 155968
under division (D) of this section shall prepare a report of the 155969
findings obtained from the pilot program. The report shall include 155970
data derived from the drug testing and performance measures used 155971
in the pilot program. In preparing the report, the research 155972
institute shall obtain assistance from the Supreme Court.155973

       Not later than six months after the conclusion of the pilot 155974
program, the research institute shall complete its report. On 155975
completion, the research institute shall submit the report to the 155976
Governor; Chief Justice of the Supreme Court; President of the 155977
Senate; Speaker of the House of Representatives; Department of 155978
Mental Health and Addiction Services and Department of 155979
Rehabilitation and Correction; and any other state agency the 155980
Supreme Court collaborates with in conducting the pilot program.155981

       Section 309.10. LEC LAKE ERIE COMMISSION155982

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group155983

3EP0 780603 Lake Erie Federal Grants $ 25,000 $ 0 155984
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 25,000 $ 0 155985

State Special Revenue Fund Group155986

4C00 780601 Lake Erie Protection Fund $ 200,000 $ 200,000 155987
5D80 780602 Lake Erie Resources Fund $ 298,942 $ 339,637 155988
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 155989
Fund Group $ 498,942 $ 539,637 155990
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 523,942 $ 539,637 155991

       CASH TRANSFERS TO THE LAKE ERIE RESOURCES FUND155992

       On July 1 of each fiscal year, or as soon as possible 155993
thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management may transfer 155994
cash from the funds specified below, up to the amounts specified 155995
below, to the Lake Erie Resources Fund (Fund 5D80). Fund 5D80 may 155996
accept contributions and transfers made to the fund. 155997

Fund Fund Name User FY 2014 FY 2015 155998
5BC0 Environmental Protection Environmental Protection Agency $23,500 $53,500 155999
6690 Pesticide, Fertilizer and Lime Department of Agriculture $23,500 $53,500 156000
4700 General Operations Department of Health $23,500 $53,500 156001
1570 Central Support Indirect Department of Natural Resources $23,500 $53,500 156002

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 156003
Director of Budget and Management may transfer $23,500 cash from a 156004
fund used by the Development Services Agency, as specified by the 156005
Director of Development Services, to Fund 5D80.156006

       On July 1, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 156007
Director of Budget and Management may transfer $53,500 cash from a 156008
fund used by the Development Services Agency, as specified by the 156009
Director of Development Services, to Fund 5D80.156010

       Section 311.10. JLE JOINT LEGISLATIVE ETHICS COMMITTEE156011

General Revenue Fund156012

GRF 028321 Legislative Ethics Committee $ 550,000 $ 550,000 156013
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 550,000 $ 550,000 156014

General Services Fund Group156015

4G70 028601 Joint Legislative Ethics Committee $ 150,000 $ 150,000 156016
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 150,000 $ 150,000 156017
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 700,000 $ 700,000 156018

       LEGISLATIVE ETHICS COMMITTEE156019

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 156020
Legislative Inspector General of the Joint Legislative Ethics 156021
Committee may certify to the Director of Budget and Management the 156022
amount of the unexpended, unencumbered balance of the foregoing 156023
appropriation item 028321, Legislative Ethics Committee, at the 156024
end of fiscal year 2013 to be reappropriated to fiscal year 2014. 156025
The amount certified is hereby reappropriated to the same 156026
appropriation item for fiscal year 2014.156027

        On July 1, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 156028
Legislative Inspector General of the Joint Legislative Ethics 156029
Committee may certify to the Director of Budget and Management the 156030
amount of the unexpended, unencumbered balance of the foregoing 156031
appropriation item 028321, Legislative Ethics Committee, at the 156032
end of fiscal year 2014 to be reappropriated to fiscal year 2015. 156033
The amount certified is hereby reappropriated to the same 156034
appropriation item for fiscal year 2015.156035

       Section 313.10. LSC LEGISLATIVE SERVICE COMMISSION156036

General Revenue Fund156037

GRF 035321 Operating Expenses $ 15,117,700 $ 15,117,700 156038
GRF 035402 Legislative Fellows $ 1,022,120 $ 1,022,120 156039
GRF 035405 Correctional Institution Inspection Committee $ 460,845 $ 460,845 156040
GRF 035407 Legislative Task Force on Redistricting $ 320,000 $ 400,000 156041
GRF 035409 National Associations $ 460,560 $ 460,560 156042
GRF 035410 Legislative Information Systems $ 3,861,250 $ 3,861,250 156043
GRF 035411 Ohio Constitutional Modernization Commission $ 500,000 $ 500,000 156044
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 21,742,475 $ 21,822,475 156045

General Services Fund Group156046

4100 035601 Sale of Publications $ 10,000 $ 10,000 156047
4F60 035603 Legislative Budget Services $ 200,000 $ 200,000 156048
5EF0 035607 Legislative Agency Telephone Usage $ 30,000 $ 30,000 156049
TOTAL GSF General Services 156050
Fund Group $ 240,000 $ 240,000 156051
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 21,982,475 $ 22,062,475 156052

        OPERATING EXPENSES156053

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 156054
Director of the Legislative Service Commission may certify to the 156055
Director of Budget and Management the amount of the unexpended, 156056
unencumbered balance of the foregoing appropriation item 035321, 156057
Operating Expenses, at the end of fiscal year 2013 to be 156058
reappropriated to fiscal year 2014. The amount certified is hereby 156059
reappropriated to the same appropriation item for fiscal year 156060
2014.156061

        On July 1, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 156062
Director of the Legislative Service Commission may certify to the 156063
Director of Budget and Management the amount of the unexpended, 156064
unencumbered balance of the foregoing appropriation item 035321, 156065
Operating Expenses, at the end of fiscal year 2014 to be 156066
reappropriated to fiscal year 2015. The amount certified is hereby 156067
reappropriated to the same appropriation item for fiscal year 156068
2015.156069

       LEGISLATIVE TASK FORCE ON REDISTRICTING156070

        An amount equal to the unexpended, unencumbered portion of 156071
the foregoing appropriation item 035407, Legislative Task Force on 156072
Redistricting, at the end of fiscal year 2013 is hereby 156073
reappropriated to the Legislative Service Commission for the same 156074
purpose for fiscal year 2014.156075

       An amount equal to the unexpended, unencumbered portion of 156076
the foregoing appropriation item 035407, Legislative Task Force on 156077
Redistricting, at the end of fiscal year 2014 is hereby 156078
reappropriated to the Legislative Service Commission for the same 156079
purpose for fiscal year 2015.156080

        LEGISLATIVE INFORMATION SYSTEMS156081

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 156082
Director of the Legislative Service Commission may certify to the 156083
Director of Budget and Management the amount of the unexpended, 156084
unencumbered balance of the foregoing appropriation item 035410, 156085
Legislative Information Systems, at the end of fiscal year 2013 to 156086
be reappropriated to fiscal year 2014. The amount certified is 156087
hereby reappropriated to the same appropriation item for fiscal 156088
year 2014.156089

        On July 1, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 156090
Director of the Legislative Service Commission may certify to the 156091
Director of Budget and Management the amount of the unexpended, 156092
unencumbered balance of the foregoing appropriation item 035410, 156093
Legislative Information Systems, at the end of fiscal year 2014 to 156094
be reappropriated to fiscal year 2015. The amount certified is 156095
hereby reappropriated to the same appropriation item for fiscal 156096
year 2015.156097

       OHIO CONSTITUTIONAL MODERNIZATION COMMISSION156098

       The foregoing appropriation item 035411, Ohio Constitutional 156099
Modernization Commission, shall be used to support the operation 156100
and expenses of the Ohio Constitutional Modernization Commission 156101
under sections 103.61 to 103.67 of the Revised Code.156102

        An amount equal to the unexpended, unencumbered portion of 156103
the foregoing appropriation item 035411, Ohio Constitutional 156104
Modernization Commission, at the end of fiscal year 2013 is hereby 156105
reappropriated to the Legislative Service Commission for the same 156106
purpose for fiscal year 2014.156107

       An amount equal to the unexpended, unencumbered portion of 156108
the foregoing appropriation item 035411, Ohio Constitutional 156109
Modernization Commission, at the end of fiscal year 2014 is hereby 156110
reappropriated to the Legislative Service Commission for the same 156111
purpose for fiscal year 2015.156112

       Section 315.10.  LIB STATE LIBRARY BOARD156113

General Revenue Fund156114

GRF 350321 Operating Expenses $ 5,057,364 $ 5,057,364 156115
GRF 350401 Ohioana Rental Payments $ 120,114 $ 120,114 156116
GRF 350502 Regional Library Systems $ 582,469 $ 582,469 156117
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 5,759,947 $ 5,759,947 156118

General Services Fund Group156119

1390 350602 Intra-Agency Service Charges $ 8,000 $ 8,000 156120
4590 350603 Library Service Charges $ 3,237,430 $ 3,526,368 156121
4S40 350604 Ohio Public Library Information Network $ 5,689,788 $ 5,689,788 156122
5GB0 350605 Library for the Blind $ 1,274,194 $ 1,274,194 156123
TOTAL GSF General Services 156124
Fund Group $ 10,209,412 $ 10,498,350 156125

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group156126

3130 350601 LSTA Federal $ 5,303,693 $ 5,120,439 156127
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 156128
Fund Group $ 5,303,693 $ 5,120,439 156129
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 21,273,052 $ 21,378,736 156130

       OHIOANA RENTAL PAYMENTS156131

       The foregoing appropriation item 350401, Ohioana Rental 156132
Payments, shall be used to pay the rental expenses of the Martha 156133
Kinney Cooper Ohioana Library Association under section 3375.61 of 156134
the Revised Code.156135

       REGIONAL LIBRARY SYSTEMS156136

       The foregoing appropriation item 350502, Regional Library 156137
Systems, shall be used to support regional library systems 156138
eligible for funding under sections 3375.83 and 3375.90 of the 156139
Revised Code.156140

       OHIO PUBLIC LIBRARY INFORMATION NETWORK156141

       (A) The foregoing appropriation item 350604, Ohio Public 156142
Library Information Network, shall be used for an information 156143
telecommunications network linking public libraries in the state 156144
and such others as may participate in the Ohio Public Library 156145
Information Network (OPLIN).156146

        The Ohio Public Library Information Network Board of Trustees 156147
created under section 3375.65 of the Revised Code may make 156148
decisions regarding use of the foregoing appropriation item 156149
350604, Ohio Public Library Information Network.156150

       (B) The OPLIN Board shall research and assist or advise local 156151
libraries with regard to emerging technologies and methods that 156152
may be effective means to control access to obscene and illegal 156153
materials. The OPLIN Director shall provide written reports upon 156154
request within ten days to the Governor, the Speaker and Minority 156155
Leader of the House of Representatives, and the President and 156156
Minority Leader of the Senate on any steps being taken by OPLIN 156157
and public libraries in the state to limit and control such 156158
improper usage as well as information on technological, legal, and 156159
law enforcement trends nationally and internationally affecting 156160
this area of public access and service.156161

       (C) The Ohio Public Library Information Network, INFOhio, and 156162
OhioLINK shall, to the extent feasible, coordinate and cooperate 156163
in their purchase or other acquisition of the use of electronic 156164
databases for their respective users and shall contribute funds in 156165
an equitable manner to such effort.156166

       LIBRARY FOR THE BLIND156167

        The foregoing appropriation item 350605, Library for the 156168
Blind, shall be used for the statewide Talking Book Program to 156169
assist the blind and disabled.156170

       TRANSFER TO OPLIN TECHNOLOGY FUND156171

       Notwithstanding sections 5747.03 and 5747.47 of the Revised 156172
Code and any other provision of law to the contrary, in accordance 156173
with a schedule established by the Director of Budget and 156174
Management, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer 156175
$3,689,788 cash in each fiscal year from the Public Library Fund 156176
(Fund 7065) to the OPLIN Technology Fund (Fund 4S40).156177

       TRANSFER TO LIBRARY FOR THE BLIND FUND156178

        Notwithstanding sections 5747.03 and 5747.47 of the Revised 156179
Code and any other provision of law to the contrary, in accordance 156180
with a schedule established by the Director of Budget and 156181
Management, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer 156182
$1,274,194 cash in each fiscal year from the Public Library Fund 156183
(Fund 7065) to the Library for the Blind Fund (Fund 5GB0).156184

       Section 317.10. LCO LIQUOR CONTROL COMMISSION156185

State Special Revenue Fund Group156186

5LP0 970601 Commission Operating Expenses $ 784,376 $ 796,368 156187
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 784,376 $ 796,368 156188
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 784,376 $ 796,368 156189


       Section 319.10. LOT STATE LOTTERY COMMISSION156191

State Lottery Fund Group156192

2310 950604 Charitable Gaming Oversight $ 1,946,000 $ 1,946,000 156193
7044 950321 Operating Expenses $ 49,778,677 $ 51,173,293 156194
7044 950402 Advertising Contracts $ 23,024,080 $ 23,024,080 156195
7044 950403 Gaming Contracts $ 63,405,851 $ 59,356,988 156196
7044 950601 Direct Prize Payments $ 116,281,000 $ 114,779,000 156197
7044 950605 Problem Gambling $ 2,000,000 $ 3,000,000 156198
8710 950602 Annuity Prizes $ 79,039,985 $ 80,299,167 156199
TOTAL SLF State Lottery Fund 156200
Group $ 335,475,593 $ 333,578,528 156201
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 335,475,593 $ 333,578,528 156202

       OPERATING EXPENSES156203

       Notwithstanding sections 127.14 and 131.35 of the Revised 156204
Code, the Controlling Board may, at the request of the State 156205
Lottery Commission, authorize expenditures from the State Lottery 156206
Fund in excess of the amounts appropriated, up to a maximum of 10 156207
per cent of anticipated total revenue accruing from the sale of 156208
lottery products. Upon the approval of the Controlling Board, the 156209
additional amounts are hereby appropriated.156210

       DIRECT PRIZE PAYMENTS156211

       Any amounts, in addition to the amounts appropriated in 156212
appropriation item 950601, Direct Prize Payments, that the 156213
Director of the State Lottery Commission determines to be 156214
necessary to fund prizes are hereby appropriated.156215

       ANNUITY PRIZES156216

       Upon request of the State Lottery Commission, the Director of 156217
Budget and Management may transfer cash from the State Lottery 156218
Fund (Fund 7044) to the Deferred Prizes Trust Fund (Fund 8710) in 156219
an amount sufficient to fund deferred prizes. The Treasurer of 156220
State, from time to time, shall credit the Deferred Prizes Trust 156221
Fund (Fund 8710) the pro rata share of interest earned by the 156222
Treasurer of State on invested balances.156223

       Any amounts, in addition to the amounts appropriated in 156224
appropriation item 950602, Annuity Prizes, that the Director of 156225
the State Lottery Commission determines to be necessary to fund 156226
deferred prizes and interest earnings are hereby appropriated.156227

       TRANSFERS TO THE LOTTERY PROFITS EDUCATION FUND156228

       Estimated transfers from the State Lottery Fund (Fund 7044) 156229
to the Lottery Profits Education Fund (Fund 7017) are to be 156230
$841,000,000 in fiscal year 2014 and $974,500,000 in fiscal year 156231
2015. The Director of Budget and Management shall transfer such 156232
amounts contingent upon the availability of resources. Transfers 156233
from the State Lottery Fund to the Lottery Profits Education Fund 156234
shall represent the estimated net income from operations for the 156235
Commission in fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015. Transfers by 156236
the Director of Budget and Management to the Lottery Profits 156237
Education Fund shall be administered as the statutes direct.156238

       Section 321.10. MHC MANUFACTURED HOMES COMMISSION156239

General Services Fund Group156240

4K90 996609 Operating Expenses $ 459,134 $ 459,134 156241
TOTAL GSF General Services 156242
Fund Group $ 459,134 $ 459,134 156243

State Special Revenue Fund Group156244

5MC0 996610 Manufactured Homes Regulation $ 747,825 $ 747,825 156245
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 747,825 $ 747,825 156246
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,206,959 $ 1,206,959 156247


       Section 323.10. MCD DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAID156249

General Revenue Fund156250

GRF 651425 Medicaid Program Support - State $ 150,382,299 $ 156,964,636 156251
GRF 651525 Medicaid/Health Care Services 156252
State $ 4,747,521,777 $ 4,991,552,135 156253
Federal $ 9,000,192,337 $ 9,314,662,342 156254
Medicaid/Health Care Services Total $ 13,747,714,114 $ 14,306,214,477 156255
GRF 651526 Medicare Part D $ 308,749,142 $ 324,920,518 156256
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund 156257
State $ 5,206,653,218 $ 5,473,437,289 156258
Federal $ 9,000,192,337 $ 9,314,662,342 156259
GRF Total $ 14,206,845,555 $ 14,788,099,631 156260

General Services Fund Group156261

5DL0 651639 Medicaid Services - Recoveries $ 462,900,000 $ 514,700,000 156262
5FX0 561638 Medicaid Services - Payment Withholding $ 6,000,000 $ 6,000,000 156263
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 468,900,000 $ 520,700,000 156264

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group 156265

3ER0 651603 Medicaid Health Information Technology $ 123,074,778 $ 123,089,606 156266
3F00 651623 Medicaid Services - Federal $ 2,977,109,943 $ 3,214,589,109 156267
3F00 651624 Medicaid Program Support - Federal $ 409,896,401 $ 410,223,399 156268
3FA0 651680 Health Care Grants - Federal $ 20,000,000 $ 20,000,000 156269
3G50 651655 Medicaid Interagency Pass-Through $ 1,712,881,658 $ 1,895,403,348 156270
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 5,242,962,780 $ 5,663,305,462 156271

State Special Revenue Fund Group156272

4E30 651605 Resident Protection Fund $ 2,878,319 $ 2,878,319 156273
5AJ0 651631 Money Follows the Person $ 5,555,000 $ 4,517,500 156274
5GF0 651656 Medicaid Services - Hospitals/UPL $ 531,273,601 $ 531,273,601 156275
5KC0 651682 Health Care Grants - State $ 10,000,000 $ 10,000,000 156276
5R20 651608 Medicaid Services - Long Term Care $ 402,000,000 $ 402,000,000 156277
5U30 651654 Medicaid Program Support $ 36,205,843 $ 35,403,126 156278
6510 651649 Medicaid Services - HCAP $ 215,527,947 $ 215,314,482 156279
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 1,203,440,710 $ 1,201,387,028 156280

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group156281

R055 651644 Refunds and Reconciliations $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 156282
TOTAL 090 Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 156283
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 21,123,149,045 $ 22,174,492,121 156284


       Section 323.10.10. CREATION OF THE DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAID156286

       (A) As used in this section, "medical assistance program" 156287
means all of the following:156288

        (1) The Medicaid program established by Title XIX of the 156289
"Social Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1396 et seq.156290

        (2) The Children's Health Insurance Program authorized by 156291
Title XXI of the "Social Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1397aa et seq.156292

        (3) The Refugee Medical Assistance program authorized by the 156293
"Immigration and Nationality Act," section 412(e), 42 U.S.C. 156294
1522(e).156295

       (B) On July 1, 2013, all of the following apply:156296

       (1) The Department of Medicaid is created.156297

        (2) The Department of Medicaid is to be administered by the 156298
Medicaid Director who is to be appointed by the Governor with the 156299
advice and consent of the Senate.156300

       (3) The Medicaid Director is to hold the Director's office 156301
during the term of the appointing Governor and is subject to 156302
removal at the pleasure of the Governor.156303

        (4) The Medicaid Director is the executive head of the 156304
Department of Medicaid and all duties conferred on the Department 156305
by law or order of the Director are under the Director's control 156306
and shall be performed in accordance with rules the Director 156307
adopts.156308

        (5) The Medicaid Director may appoint such employees as are 156309
necessary for the efficient operation of the Department of 156310
Medicaid and may prescribe the title and duties of the employees.156311

        (6) The Office of Medical Assistance shall cease to exist.156312

       (7) Each reference to the Department or Director of Public 156313
Welfare, Department or Director of Human Services, Department or 156314
Director of Job and Family Services, Office of Medical Assistance, 156315
or Medical Assistance Director in any statute, rule, contract, 156316
grant, or other document is deemed to refer to the Department of 156317
Medicaid or Medicaid Director, as the case may be, to the extent 156318
the reference is about a duty or authority of the Department of 156319
Medicaid or Medicaid Director regarding a medical assistance 156320
program.156321

       (8) Employees of the Office of Medical Assistance are hereby 156322
transferred to the Department of Medicaid. The vehicles and 156323
equipment assigned to the Office's employees are transferred to 156324
the Department.156325

       (9) The assets, liabilities, other equipment not provided 156326
for, and records, irrespective of form or medium, of the Office of 156327
Medical Assistance are transferred to the Department of Medicaid. 156328
The Department is the successor to, assumes the obligations of, 156329
and otherwise constitutes the continuation of, the Office.156330

       (10) Business commenced but not completed on July 1, 2013, by 156331
the Medical Assistance Director, the Office of Medical Assistance, 156332
Director of Job and Family Services, or Department of Job and 156333
Family Services regarding a medical assistance program shall be 156334
completed by the Medicaid Director or Department of Medicaid in 156335
the same manner, and with the same effect, as if completed by the 156336
Medical Assistance Director, Office of Medical Assistance, 156337
Director of Job and Family Services, or Department of Job and 156338
Family Services. No validation, cure, right, privilege, remedy, 156339
obligation, or liability is lost or impaired by reason of the 156340
transfer required by this section but shall be administered by the 156341
Medicaid Director or Department of Medicaid.156342

       (11) For the purpose of the "Social Security Act," section 156343
1902(a)(5), 42 U.S.C. 1396a(a)(5), the Department of Medicaid 156344
shall act as the single state agency to supervise the 156345
administration of the Medicaid program. As the single state 156346
agency, the Department shall comply with 42 C.F.R. 431.10(e) and 156347
all other federal requirements applicable to the single state 156348
agency.156349

       (D) The rules, orders, and determinations pertaining to the 156350
Office of Medical Assistance and Department of Job and Family 156351
Services regarding medical assistance programs continue in effect 156352
as rules, orders, and determinations of the Department of Medicaid 156353
until modified or rescinded by the Department of Medicaid.156354

       (E) No judicial or administrative action or proceeding 156355
pending on July 1, 2013, is affected by the transfer of functions 156356
from the Medical Assistance Director, Office of Medical 156357
Assistance, Director of Job and Family Services, or Department of 156358
Job and Family Services to the Medicaid Director or Department of 156359
Medicaid and shall be prosecuted or defended in the name of the 156360
Medicaid Director or Department of Medicaid. On application to the 156361
court or other tribunal, the Medicaid Director or Department of 156362
Medicaid shall be substituted as a party in such actions and 156363
proceedings.156364

       (F) When the Department of Medicaid created in section 121.02 156365
of the Revised Code comes into effect, it is a continuation of the 156366
Department of Medicaid created in this section.156367

        (G) A portion of the foregoing appropriation items 651425, 156368
Medicaid Program Support – State, 651525, Medicaid/Health Care 156369
Services, 651526, Medicare Part D, 651639, Medicaid Services – 156370
Recoveries, 651638, Medicaid Services - Payment Withholding, 156371
651603, Medicaid Health Information Technology, 651623, Medicaid 156372
Services – Federal, 651624, Medicaid Program Support – Federal, 156373
651680 Health Care Grants – Federal, 651655, Medicaid Interagency 156374
Pass-Through, 651605, Resident Protection Fund, 651631, Money 156375
Follows the Person, 651656, Medicaid Services – Hospitals/UPL, 156376
651682, Health Care Grants – State, 651608, Medicaid Services – 156377
Long Term Care, 651654, Medicaid Program Support, 651649, Medicaid 156378
Services – HCAP, 651644, Refunds and Reconciliations, and 651612, 156379
Managed Care Performance Payments, may be used to pay for Medicaid 156380
services and costs associated with the administration of the 156381
Medicaid program.156382

       Section 323.10.20. TRANSFER OF ENCUMBRANCES AND RECEIVABLES156383

        On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 156384
Medicaid Director shall certify to the Director of Budget and 156385
Management all medical assistance-related encumbrances held by the 156386
Department of Job and Family Services, and specify which of those 156387
encumbrances are requested to be transferred to the Department of 156388
Medicaid. The Director of Budget and Management may cancel any 156389
existing encumbrances, as certified by the Medicaid Director, and 156390
reestablish them in the Department of Medicaid. The reestablished 156391
encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any business 156392
commenced, but not completed, with regard to the encumbrances 156393
certified shall be completed by the Department of Medicaid in the 156394
same manner and with the same effect as if it were completed by 156395
the Department of Job and Family Services.156396

        On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 156397
Medicaid Director shall certify to the Director of Budget and 156398
Management all medical assistance-related receivables held by the 156399
Department of Job and Family Services, and specify which of those 156400
receivables are requested to be transferred to the Department of 156401
Medicaid. The Director of Budget and Management may cancel any 156402
existing receivables as certified by the Medicaid Director and 156403
reestablish them in the Department of Medicaid.156404

        A portion of the foregoing appropriation items 651425, 156405
Medicaid Program Support – State, 651525, Medicaid/Health Care 156406
Services, 651639, Medicaid Services – Recoveries, 651638, Medicaid 156407
Services-Payment Withholding, 651624, Medicaid Program Support – 156408
Federal, 651680, Health Care Grants – Federal, 651655, Medicaid 156409
Interagency Pass-Through, 651605, Resident Protection Fund, 156410
651631, Money Follows the Person, 651656, Medicaid Services – 156411
Hospitals/UPL, 651682, Health Care Grants – State, 651608, 156412
Medicaid Services – Long Term Care, 651654, Medicaid Program 156413
Support, and 651649, Medicaid Services – HCAP, may be used to pay 156414
for medical assistance services and costs associated with the 156415
administration of the Medicaid program.156416

       Section 323.10.30. TEMPORARY AUTHORITY REGARDING EMPLOYEES156417

       (A) As used in this section, "medical assistance program" has 156418
the same meaning as in the section of this act titled "CREATION OF 156419
THE DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAID."156420

       (B) During the period beginning July 1, 2013, and ending June 156421
30, 2015, all of the following apply:156422

       (1) The Medicaid Director has the authority to establish, 156423
change, and abolish positions for the Department of Medicaid, and 156424
to assign, reassign, classify, reclassify, transfer, reduce, 156425
promote, or demote all employees of the Department of Medicaid who 156426
are not subject to Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code.156427

       (2) As part of the transfer of medical assistance programs to 156428
the Department of Medicaid, the Director of Job and Family 156429
Services has the authority to establish, change, and abolish 156430
positions for the Department of Job and Family Services, and to 156431
assign, reassign, classify, reclassify, transfer, reduce, promote, 156432
or demote all employees of the Department of Job and Family 156433
Services who are not subject to Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code.156434

       (C) The authority granted under division (B) of this section 156435
includes assigning or reassigning an exempt employee, as defined 156436
in section 124.152 of the Revised Code, to a bargaining unit 156437
classification if the Medicaid Director or Director of Job and 156438
Family Services determines that the bargaining unit classification 156439
is the proper classification for that employee. The actions of the 156440
Medicaid Director or Director of Job and Family Services shall be 156441
consistent with the requirements of 5 C.F.R. 900.603 for those 156442
employees subject to such requirements. If an employee in the E-1 156443
pay range is to be assigned, reassigned, classified, reclassified, 156444
transferred, reduced, or demoted to a position in a lower 156445
classification during the period specified in this section, the 156446
Medicaid Director or Director of Job and Family Services, or in 156447
the case of a transfer outside the Department of Medicaid or 156448
Department of Job and Family Services, the Director of 156449
Administrative Services, shall assign the employee to the 156450
appropriate classification and place the employee in Step X. The 156451
employee shall not receive any increase in compensation until the 156452
maximum rate of pay for that classification exceeds the employee's 156453
compensation.156454

       (D) Actions taken by the Medicaid Director, Director of Job 156455
and Family Services, and Director of Administrative Services 156456
pursuant to this section are not subject to appeal to the State 156457
Personnel Board of Review.156458

       (E) A portion of the foregoing appropriation items 651425, 156459
Medicaid Program Support – State, 651603, Medicaid Health 156460
Information Technology, 651624, Medicaid Program Support – 156461
Federal, 651680, Health Care Grants – Federal, 651655, Medicaid 156462
Interagency Pass-Through, 651605, Resident Protection Fund, 156463
651631, Money Follows the Person, 651682, Health Care Grants – 156464
State, and 651654, Medicaid Program Support, may be used to pay 156465
for costs associated with the administration of the Medicaid 156466
program, including the assignment, reassignment, classification, 156467
reclassification, transfer, reduction, promotion, or demotion of 156468
employees authorized by this section.156469

       Section 323.10.40. STAFF TRAINING REGARDING TRANSFERS156470

       As used in this section, "medical assistance program" has the 156471
same meaning as in the section of this act titled "CREATION OF THE 156472
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAID."156473

       The Medicaid Director and Director of Job and Family Services 156474
may jointly or separately enter into one or more contracts with 156475
public or private entities for staff training and development to 156476
facilitate the transfer of the staff and duties regarding medical 156477
assistance programs to the Department of Medicaid. Division (B) of 156478
section 127.16 of the Revised Code does not apply to contracts 156479
entered into under this section.156480

       A portion of the foregoing appropriation items 651425, 156481
Medicaid Program Support – State, 651624, Medicaid Program Support 156482
– Federal, 651680, Health Care Grants – Federal, 651605, Resident 156483
Protection Fund, 651631, Money Follows the Person, and 651654, 156484
Medicaid Program Support, may be used to pay for costs associated 156485
with the administration of the Medicaid program, including staff 156486
training authorized under this section.156487

       Section 323.10.50. CREATION OF THE DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAID NOT 156488
A COLLECTIVE BARGAINING SUBJECT156489

       As used in this section, "medical assistance program" has the 156490
same meaning as in the section of this act titled "CREATION OF THE 156491
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAID."156492

       Notwithstanding sections 4117.08 and 4117.10 of the Revised 156493
Code, this act's creation of the Department of Medicaid and 156494
reassignment of the functions and duties of the Office of Medical 156495
Assistance regarding medical assistance programs are not 156496
appropriate subjects for collective bargaining under Chapter 4117. 156497
of the Revised Code.156498

       A portion of the foregoing appropriation items 651425, 156499
Medicaid Program Support – State, 651624, Medicaid Program Support 156500
– Federal, 651680, Health Care Grants – Federal, 651655, Medicaid 156501
Interagency Pass-Through, 651605, Resident Protection Fund, 156502
651631, Money Follows the Person, 651682, Health Care Grants – 156503
State, and 651654, Medicaid Program Support, may be used to pay 156504
for costs associated with the administration of the Medicaid 156505
program, including the reassignment of functions and duties 156506
related to the transition of the Office of Medical Assistance into 156507
the Department of Medicaid.156508

       Section 323.10.60. NEW AND AMENDED GRANT AGREEMENTS156509

       (A) As used in this section:156510

       (1) "Grant agreement" has the same meaning as in section 156511
5101.21 of the Revised Code.156512

       (2) "Medical assistance program" has the same meaning as in 156513
the section of this act titled "CREATION OF THE DEPARTMENT OF 156514
MEDICAID."156515

       (B) The Director of Job and Family Services and boards of 156516
county commissioners may enter into negotiations to amend an 156517
existing grant agreement or to enter into a new grant agreement 156518
regarding the transfer of medical assistance programs to the 156519
Department of Medicaid. Any such amended or new grant agreement 156520
shall be drafted in the name of the Department of Job and Family 156521
Services. The amended or new grant agreement may be executed 156522
before July 1, 2013, if the amendment or agreement does not become 156523
effective sooner than that date.156524

       (C) A portion of the foregoing appropriation items 651525, 156525
Health Care/Medicaid Services, 651603, Medicaid Health Information 156526
Technology, 651623, Medicaid Services – Federal, 651624, Medicaid 156527
Program Support – Federal, 651680, Health Care Grants – Federal, 156528
and 651682, Health Care Grants - State, may be used to pay for 156529
Medicaid services and costs associated with the administration of 156530
the Medicaid program.156531

       Section 323.10.63. EXCHANGE OF CERTAIN INFORMATION BETWEEN 156532
SPECIFIED STATE AGENCIES; HEALTH TRANSFORMATION INITIATIVES156533

        Until the amendments to sections 191.01, 191.02, 191.04, and 156534
191.06 of the Revised Code made by this act take effect in 156535
accordance with section 101.01 of this act, all of the following 156536
shall be the case:156537

        (A) The definition of "state agency" in section 191.01 of the 156538
Revised Code includes the Department of Administrative Services 156539
and the Department of Medicaid in addition to the other agencies 156540
specified in division (I)(1) to (13) of that section.156541

       (B) For the purpose of fulfilling the requirement in section 156542
191.02 of the Revised Code, the Executive Director of the Office 156543
of Health Transformation may consult with the Director of 156544
Administrative Services and the Medicaid Director in addition to 156545
the other individuals specified in divisions (A) to (O) of that 156546
section. 156547

       (C) Notwithstanding any provision of the Revised Code to the 156548
contrary, the provisions in sections 191.04 and 191.06 of the 156549
Revised Code apply only for fiscal years 2013, 2014, and 2015.156550

        (D) A portion of the foregoing appropriation items 651425, 156551
Medicaid Program Support-State, 651525, Medicaid/Health Care 156552
Services, 651639, Medicaid Services-Recoveries, 651638, Medicaid 156553
Services-Payment Withholding, 651624, Medicaid Program 156554
Support-Federal, 651680, Health Care Grants-Federal, 651655, 156555
Medicaid Interagency Pass-Through, 651605, Resident Protection 156556
Fund, 651631, Money Follows the Person, 651656, Medicaid 156557
Services-Hospitals/UPL, 651682, Health Care Grants-State, 651608, 156558
Medicaid Services-Long Term Care, 651654, Medicaid Program 156559
Support, and 651649, Medicaid Services-HCAP, may be used to pay 156560
for services and costs associated with operating protocols adopted 156561
under section 191.06 of the Revised Code and this section.156562

       Section 323.10.70. LSC TO RENUMBER ADMINISTRATIVE RULES156563

       On and after October 1, 2013, if necessary to ensure the 156564
integrity of the numbering of the Administrative Code, the 156565
Director of the Legislative Service Commission shall renumber the 156566
rules of the Office of Medical Assistance within the Department of 156567
Job and Family Services to reflect its transfer to the Department 156568
of Medicaid.156569

       Section 323.20.  MEDICAID/HEALTH CARE SERVICES156570

       The foregoing appropriation item 651525, Medicaid/Health Care 156571
Services, shall not be limited by section 131.33 of the Revised 156572
Code.156573

       Section 323.30.  QUALITY INCENTIVE PROGRAM TO REDUCE 156574
AVOIDABLE ADMISSIONS156575

       (A) The Department of Medicaid may implement, for fiscal year 156576
2014 and fiscal year 2015, a quality incentive program to do both 156577
of the following:156578

       (1) Reduce the number of times that the following persons are 156579
admitted to hospitals and nursing facilities or utilize emergency 156580
department services when the admissions or utilizations are 156581
avoidable:156582

        (a) Medicaid recipients enrolled in a home and 156583
community-based services Medicaid waiver component administered by 156584
the Office;156585

        (b) Medicaid recipients receiving nursing services available 156586
under the home health services benefit pursuant to 42 C.F.R. 156587
440.70(b)(1);156588

        (c) Medicaid recipients receiving home health aide services 156589
available under the home health services benefit pursuant to 42 156590
C.F.R. 440.70(b)(2);156591

        (d) Medicaid recipients receiving private duty nursing 156592
services as defined in 42 C.F.R. 440.80.156593

       (2) Reduce the number of times that Medicaid recipients 156594
receiving nursing facility services are admitted to hospitals or 156595
utilize emergency department services when the admissions or 156596
utilizations are avoidable.156597

        (B) If the quality incentive program is implemented, the 156598
Department shall include in the program methods by which the 156599
Department will determine the program's actual savings to the 156600
Medicaid program and shall distribute not more than fifty per cent 156601
of the savings to participating Medicaid providers.156602

       Section 323.40.  CHILDREN'S HOSPITALS QUALITY OUTCOMES 156603
PROGRAM156604

       (A) As used in this section, "children's hospital" means a 156605
hospital, as defined in section 3727.01 of the Revised Code, that 156606
is located in this state, primarily serves patients eighteen years 156607
of age and younger, is subject to the Medicaid prospective payment 156608
system for hospitals established in rules adopted under section 156609
5164.02 of the Revised Code, and is excluded from Medicare 156610
prospective payments in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 412.23(d).156611

        (B) The Medicaid Director may implement, during fiscal year 156612
2014 and fiscal year 2015, a children's hospitals quality outcomes 156613
program that encourages children's hospitals to develop the 156614
following:156615

        (1) Infrastructures that are needed to care for patients in 156616
the least restrictive setting and promote the care of patients and 156617
their families;156618

        (2) Programs designed to improve birth outcomes and 156619
measurably reduce neonatal intensive care admissions;156620

        (3) Patient-centered methods to measurably reduce utilization 156621
of emergency department services for primary care needs and 156622
nonemergency health conditions;156623

        (4) Other quality-focused reforms the Director identifies.156624

       (C) Up to $6,000,000 state share plus the corresponding 156625
federal share in each fiscal year shall be used to support 156626
payments made to children's hospitals for developing programs that 156627
achieve the outcomes specified under division (B) of this section 156628
and any other measures the Medicaid Director deems appropriate.156629

       Section 323.50. UNIFIED LONG TERM CARE156630

       The foregoing appropriation item 651425, Medicaid Program 156631
Support - State, may be used to provide the preadmission screening 156632
and resident review (PASRR), which includes screening, 156633
assessments, and determinations made under sections 5119.061 156634
(renumbered section 5119.40 of the Revised Code in this act), 156635
5123.021, and 5165.04 of the Revised Code.156636

       The foregoing appropriation item 651425, Medicaid Program 156637
Support - State, may be used to assess and provide long-term care 156638
consultations under section 173.42 of the Revised Code to clients 156639
regardless of Medicaid eligibility.156640

       The foregoing appropriation item 651525, Medicaid/Health Care 156641
Services, may be used to provide nonwaiver funded PASSPORT and 156642
assisted living services to persons who the state department has 156643
determined to be eligible to participate in the nonwaiver funded 156644
PASSPORT and assisted living programs, who applied for but have 156645
not yet been determined to be financially eligible to participate 156646
in the Medicaid waiver component of the PASSPORT Home Care Program 156647
or the Assisted Living Program by a county department of job and 156648
family services, and to persons who are not eligible for Medicaid 156649
but were enrolled in the PASSPORT Program prior to July 1, 1990.156650

       The foregoing appropriation item 651425, Medicaid Program 156651
Support - State, shall be used to provide the required state match 156652
for federal Medicaid funds supporting the Medicaid waiver-funded 156653
PASSPORT Home Care Program, the Choices Program, the Assisted 156654
Living Program, and the PACE Program.156655

       The foregoing appropriation item 651525, Medicaid/Health Care 156656
Services, shall be used to provide the federal matching share of 156657
program costs determined by the Department of Medicaid to be 156658
eligible for Medicaid reimbursement for the Medicaid waiver-funded 156659
PASSPORT Home Care Program, the Choices Program, the Assisted 156660
Living Program, and the PACE Program.156661

       Section 323.53. PASSPORT ADMINISTRATIVE AGENCY SITE 156662
OPERATIONS156663

       For fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, spending for 156664
PASSPORT administrative agencies' site operating functions 156665
relating to screening, assessments, general administrative 156666
functions, and provider relations for the Medicaid waiver-funded 156667
PASSPORT Home Care Program, Choices Program, Assisted Living 156668
Program, and PACE Program shall be at one hundred five per cent of 156669
the level provided in fiscal year 2013.156670

       Section 323.60.  MANAGED CARE PERFORMANCE PAYMENT PROGRAM 156671

       At the beginning of each quarter, or as soon as possible 156672
thereafter, the Medicaid Director shall certify to the Director of 156673
Budget and Management the amount withheld in accordance with 156674
section 5167.30 of the Revised Code for purposes of the Managed 156675
Care Performance Payment Program. Upon receiving certification, 156676
the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer cash in the 156677
amount certified from the General Revenue Fund to the Managed Care 156678
Performance Payment Fund. Appropriation item 651525, 156679
Medicaid/Health Care Services, is hereby reduced by the amount of 156680
the transfer. Upon request of the Medicaid Director and approval 156681
of the Director of Budget and Management, appropriation up to the 156682
cash balance in the Managed Care Performance Payment Fund is 156683
hereby appropriated.156684

       In addition to any other purpose authorized by law, the 156685
Department of Medicaid may use money in the Managed Care 156686
Performance Payment Fund for the following purposes for fiscal 156687
year 2014 and fiscal year 2015:156688

        (A) To meet obligations specified in provider agreements with 156689
Medicaid managed care organizations;156690

        (B) To pay for Medicaid services provided by a Medicaid 156691
managed care organization;156692

        (C) To reimburse a Medicaid managed care organization that 156693
has paid a fine for failure to meet performance standards or other 156694
requirements specified in provider agreements or rules adopted 156695
under section 5167.02 of the Revised Code if the organization 156696
comes into compliance with the standards or requirements.156697

       Section 323.70.  MEDICAID MANAGED CARE EXEMPTIONS156698

       (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this section, the 156699
Department of Medicaid shall not include in the care management 156700
system established under section 5167.03 of the Revised Code any 156701
individual receiving services through the program for medically 156702
handicapped children established under section 3701.023 of the 156703
Revised Code who has one or more of the following conditions:156704

        (1) Cystic fibrosis;156705

        (2) Hemophilia;156706

        (3) Cancer.156707

       (B) An individual described in division (A) of this section 156708
may be designated for participation in the care management system 156709
if the individual was receiving services through the system 156710
immediately before April 1, 2013.156711

        (C) This section applies until July 1, 2014, notwithstanding 156712
any provision of section 5167.03 of the Revised Code that 156713
otherwise authorizes or requires the designation of individuals 156714
for participation in the care management system.156715

       Section 323.80.  PRIOR AUTHORIZATION FOR COMMUNITY MENTAL 156716
HEALTH SERVICES156717

        (A) As used in this section, "community mental health 156718
services" means mental health services included in the state 156719
Medicaid plan pursuant to section 5164.15 of the Revised Code.156720

        (B) For fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, a Medicaid 156721
recipient who is under twenty-one years of age automatically 156722
satisfies all requirements for any prior authorization process for 156723
community mental health services provided under a component of the 156724
Medicaid program administered by the Department of Mental Health 156725
and Addiction Services pursuant to an interagency agreement 156726
authorized by section 5162.35 of the Revised Code if any of the 156727
following apply to the recipient:156728

        (1) The recipient is in the temporary custody or permanent 156729
custody of a public children services agency or private child 156730
placing agency or is in a planned permanent living arrangement.156731

       (2) The recipient has been placed in protective supervision 156732
by a juvenile court.156733

        (3) The recipient has been committed to the Department of 156734
Youth Services.156735

        (4) The recipient is an alleged or adjudicated delinquent or 156736
unruly child receiving services under the Felony Delinquent Care 156737
and Custody Program operated under section 5139.43 of the Revised 156738
Code.156739

       Section 323.90.  JOINT LEGISLATIVE COMMITTEE FOR UNIFIED 156740
LONG-TERM SERVICES AND SUPPORTS156741

       (A) The Joint Legislative Committee for Unified Long-Term 156742
Services and Supports created under section 309.30.73 of Am. Sub. 156743
H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly, as subsequently amended, 156744
shall continue to exist during fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 156745
2015. The Committee shall consist of the following members:156746

       (1) Two members of the House of Representatives from the 156747
majority party, appointed by the Speaker of the House of 156748
Representatives;156749

       (2) One member of the House of Representatives from the 156750
minority party, appointed by the Speaker of the House of 156751
Representatives;156752

       (3) Two members of the Senate from the majority party, 156753
appointed by the President of the Senate;156754

       (4) One member of the Senate from the minority party, 156755
appointed by the President of the Senate.156756

       (B) The Speaker of the House of Representatives shall 156757
designate one of the members of the Committee appointed under 156758
division (A)(1) of this section to serve as co-chairperson of the 156759
Committee. The President of the Senate shall designate one of the 156760
members of the Committee appointed under division (A)(3) of this 156761
section to serve as the other co-chairperson of the Committee. The 156762
Committee shall meet at the call of the co-chairpersons. The 156763
co-chairpersons may request assistance for the Committee from the 156764
Legislative Service Commission.156765

       (C) The Committee may examine the following issues:156766

       (1) The implementation of the dual eligible integrated care 156767
demonstration project authorized by section 5164.91 of the Revised 156768
Code;156769

       (2) The implementation of a unified long-term services and 156770
support Medicaid waiver component under section 5166.14 of the 156771
Revised Code;156772

       (3) Providing consumers choices regarding a continuum of 156773
services that meet their health-care needs, promote autonomy and 156774
independence, and improve quality of life;156775

       (4) Ensuring that long-term care services and supports are 156776
delivered in a cost-effective and quality manner;156777

       (5) Subjecting county homes, county nursing homes, and 156778
district homes operated pursuant to Chapter 5155. of the Revised 156779
Code to the franchise permit fee under sections 5168.40 to 5168.56 156780
of the Revised Code;156781

       (6) Other issues of interest to the committee.156782

       (D) The co-chairpersons of the Committee shall provide for 156783
the Medicaid Director to testify before the Committee at least 156784
quarterly regarding the issues that the Committee examines.156785

       Section 323.100.  HOSPITAL INPATIENT AND OUTPATIENT 156786
SUPPLEMENTAL UPPER PAYMENT LIMIT PROGRAM; MEDICAID MANAGED CARE 156787
HOSPITAL INCENTIVE PAYMENT PROGRAM156788

       (A) As used in this section:156789

       (1) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 5168.20 of 156790
the Revised Code.156791

       (2) "Hospital Assessment Fund" means the fund created under 156792
section 5168.25 of the Revised Code.156793

       (3) "Medicaid managed care organization" has the same meaning 156794
as in section 5167.01 of the Revised Code.156795

       (B) The Department of Medicaid shall do both of the 156796
following:156797

       (1) Continue the Hospital Inpatient and Outpatient 156798
Supplemental Upper Payment Limit Program that was established 156799
pursuant to Section 309.30.17 of Am. Sub. H.B. 1 of the 128th 156800
General Assembly, with any modifications necessary to implement 156801
the program as described under division (D) of this section;156802

       (2) Continue the Medicaid Managed Care Hospital Incentive 156803
Payment Program, as described under division (E) of this section.156804

       (C) The Department shall use amounts deposited into the 156805
Hospital Assessment Fund in fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015 156806
for the following purposes in each fiscal year:156807

        (1) To pay for costs associated with all of the following:156808

        (a) The Hospital Inpatient and Outpatient Supplemental Upper 156809
Payment Limit Program;156810

        (b) The Medicaid Managed Care Hospital Incentive Payment 156811
Program;156812

        (c) The Medicaid payment rates for hospital inpatient and 156813
outpatient services required by the section of this act entitled 156814
"CONTINUATION OF MEDICAID RATES FOR HOSPITAL INPATIENT."156815

        (2) To reduce spending in appropriation item 651525, 156816
Medicaid/Health Care Services.156817

       (D)(1) Under the Hospital Inpatient and Outpatient 156818
Supplemental Upper Payment Limit Program, subject to division 156819
(D)(2) of this section, supplemental Medicaid payments shall be 156820
made to hospitals for Medicaid-covered inpatient and outpatient 156821
services. The Department shall make the payments through amounts 156822
available for the Program pursuant to division (C) of this section 156823
and any federal financial participation available for the Program.156824

       (2) The Department shall take all actions necessary to cease 156825
implementation of the Program if the United States Secretary 156826
determines that the assessment imposed under section 5168.21 of 156827
the Revised Code is an impermissible health care-related tax under 156828
the "Social Security Act," section 1903(w), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w).156829

       (E)(1) The purpose of the Medicaid Managed Care Hospital 156830
Incentive Payment Program is to increase access to hospital 156831
services for Medicaid recipients who are enrolled in Medicaid 156832
managed care organizations.156833

       Under the Program, subject to division (E)(2) of this 156834
section, funds shall be provided to Medicaid managed care 156835
organizations, which shall use the funds to increase payments to 156836
hospitals for providing services to Medicaid recipients who are 156837
enrolled in the organizations. The Department shall provide the 156838
funds through amounts available for the Program pursuant to 156839
division (C) of this section and any federal financial 156840
participation available for the Program.156841

       (2)(a) The Department shall not provide funds to Medicaid 156842
managed care organizations under the Program unless an actuary 156843
selected by the Department certifies that the Program would not 156844
violate the actuarial soundness of the capitation rates paid to 156845
Medicaid managed care organizations.156846

       (b) The Department shall not implement the Program in a 156847
manner that causes a hospital to receive less money from the 156848
Hospital Assessment Fund than the hospital would have received if 156849
the Program were not implemented.156850

       (c) The Department shall not implement the Program in a 156851
manner that causes a Medicaid managed care organization to receive 156852
a lower capitation payment rate solely because funds are made 156853
available to the organization under the Program.156854

       (d) The Department shall take all necessary actions to cease 156855
implementation of the Program if the United States Secretary 156856
determines that the assessment imposed under section 5168.21 of 156857
the Revised Code is an impermissible health care-related tax under 156858
the "Social Security Act," section 1903(w), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w).156859

       (F) The Director of Budget and Management may authorize 156860
additional expenditures from appropriation item 651623, Medicaid 156861
Services - Federal, appropriation item 651525, Medicaid/Health 156862
Care Services, and appropriation item 651656, Medicaid Services - 156863
Hospital/UPL, in order to implement the programs authorized by 156864
this section. Any amounts authorized are hereby appropriated.156865

       (G) The Medicaid Director shall adopt rules as necessary to 156866
implement this section. The rules shall provide for the applicable 156867
assessment percentage that is used for the purpose of section 156868
5168.21 of the Revised Code to be an amount that raises, from the 156869
assessments imposed on hospitals under that section, an amount the 156870
Director determines is appropriate to fund the purposes specified 156871
in division (C) of this section.156872

       Section 323.103. CONTINUATION OF MEDICAID RATES FOR HOSPITAL 156873
INPATIENT SERVICES156874

       (A) The Medicaid payment rates for Medicaid-covered hospital 156875
inpatient services shall be the same as the Medicaid payment rates 156876
for the services in effect on June 30, 2013, until the effective 156877
date of the first of any rules adopted under section 5164.02 of 156878
the Revised Code establishing new diagnosis-related groups for the 156879
services.156880

       (B) The Director of Budget and Management may authorize 156881
additional expenditures from appropriation item 651623, Medicaid 156882
Services – Federal, appropriation item 651525, Medicaid/Health 156883
Care Services, and appropriation item 651656, Medicaid Services – 156884
Hospital/UPL, in order to implement this section. Any amounts 156885
authorized are hereby appropriated.156886

       Section 323.105. MEDICAID RATES FOR CERTAIN HOSPITAL 156887
OUTPATIENT AND LABORATORY SERVICES156888

       (A) As used in this section:156889

       (1) "Applicable hospital outpatient and laboratory services" 156890
means the following Medicaid-covered services:156891

       (a) Hospital outpatient services paid at hospital-specific 156892
costs;156893

       (b) Hospital laboratory procedures paid in excess of Medicare 156894
rates for the procedures.156895

       (2) "Hospital outpatient savings" means the amount, if any, 156896
by which the actual amount expended and encumbered under the 156897
Medicaid program for hospital outpatient services for a fiscal 156898
year is less than the amount the Medicaid Director, before the 156899
beginning of that fiscal year, projected would be expended and 156900
encumbered under the Medicaid program for hospital outpatient 156901
services for that fiscal year.156902

       (B) On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 156903
Medicaid Director shall determine whether the amount of hospital 156904
outpatient savings for fiscal year 2013 is greater than zero. If 156905
the Director determines that the amount of hospital outpatient 156906
savings for fiscal year 2013 is greater than zero, the Director 156907
shall increase the Medicaid payment rates for applicable hospital 156908
outpatient and laboratory services provided during fiscal year 156909
2014. Subject to division (D) of this section, the rates shall be 156910
increased to the highest amount that it is possible to raise the 156911
rates using the amount of hospital outpatient savings for fiscal 156912
year 2013.156913

       (C) On July 1, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 156914
Medicaid Director shall determine whether the amount of hospital 156915
outpatient savings for fiscal year 2014 is greater than zero. If 156916
the Director determines that the amount of hospital outpatient 156917
savings for fiscal year 2014 is greater than zero, the Director 156918
shall increase the Medicaid payment rates for applicable hospital 156919
outpatient and laboratory services provided during fiscal year 156920
2015. Subject to division (D) of this section, the rates shall be 156921
increased to the highest amount that it is possible to raise the 156922
rates using the amount of hospital outpatient savings for fiscal 156923
year 2014.156924

       (D) The Medicaid payment rates for applicable hospital 156925
outpatient and laboratory services provided during the period 156926
beginning July 1, 2013, and ending June 30, 2015, shall not be 156927
greater than the Medicaid payment rates for the services in effect 156928
on June 30, 2013.156929

       Section 323.110. ADMINISTRATIVE ISSUES RELATED TO TERMINATION 156930
OF MEDICAID WAIVER PROGRAMS156931

       (A) As used in this section, "MCD or ODA Medicaid waiver 156932
component" means the following:156933

       (1) The Medicaid waiver component of the PASSPORT program 156934
created under section 173.52 of the Revised Code;156935

       (2) The Choices program created under section 173.53 of the 156936
Revised Code;156937

       (3) The Medicaid waiver component of the Assisted Living 156938
program created under section 173.54 of the Revised Code.156939

       (4) The Ohio Home Care Waiver program as defined in section 156940
5166.01 of the Revised Code;156941

       (5) The Ohio Transitions II Aging Carve-Out program as 156942
defined in section 5166.01 of the Revised Code;156943

       (B) If an MCD or ODA Medicaid waiver component is terminated 156944
under section 173.52, 173.53, 173.54, 5166.12, or 5166.13 of the 156945
Revised Code, all of the following apply:156946

       (1) All applicable statutes, and all applicable rules, 156947
standards, guidelines, or orders issued by the Medicaid Director 156948
or Department of Medicaid or Director or Department of Aging 156949
before the component is terminated, shall remain in full force and 156950
effect on and after that date, but solely for purposes of 156951
concluding the component's operations, including fulfilling the 156952
Departments' legal obligations for claims arising from the 156953
component relating to eligibility determinations, covered medical 156954
assistance provided to eligible persons, and recovering erroneous 156955
overpayments.156956

       (2) Notwithstanding the termination of the component, the 156957
right of subrogation for the cost of medical assistance given 156958
under section 5160.37 of the Revised Code to the Department of 156959
Medicaid and an assignment of the right to medical assistance 156960
given under section 5160.38 of the Revised Code to the Department 156961
continue to apply with respect to the component and remain in 156962
force to the full extent provided under those sections.156963

       (3) The Department of Medicaid and Department of Aging may 156964
use appropriated funds to satisfy any claims or contingent claims 156965
for medical assistance provided under the component before the 156966
component's termination.156967

       (4) Neither the Department of Medicaid nor the Department of 156968
Aging has liability under the component to reimburse any provider 156969
or other person for claims for medical assistance rendered under 156970
the component after it is terminated.156971

       (C) The Medicaid Director and Director of Aging may adopt 156972
rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to 156973
implement this section.156974

       Section 323.130.  DISPENSING FEE FOR NONCOMPOUNDED DRUGS156975

        The Medicaid dispensing fee for each noncompounded drug 156976
covered by the Medicaid program shall be $1.80 for the period 156977
beginning July 1, 2013, and ending on the effective date of a rule 156978
changing the amount of the fee that the Medicaid Director adopts 156979
under section 5164.02 of the Revised Code.156980

       Section 323.140. MONEY FOLLOWS THE PERSON ENHANCED 156981
REIMBURSEMENT FUND156982

       The federal payments made to the state under subsection (e) 156983
of section 6071 of the "Deficit Reduction Act of 2005," Pub. L. 156984
No. 109-171, as amended, shall be deposited into the Money Follows 156985
the Person Enhanced Reimbursement Fund. The Department of Medicaid 156986
shall continue to use money deposited into the fund for system 156987
reform activities related to the Money Follows the Person 156988
demonstration project.156989

       Section 323.150. MEDICARE PART D156990

       The foregoing appropriation item 651526, Medicare Part D, may 156991
be used by the Department of Medicaid for the implementation and 156992
operation of the Medicare Part D requirements contained in the 156993
"Medicare Prescription Drug, Improvement, and Modernization Act of 156994
2003," Pub. L. No. 108-173, as amended. Upon the request of the 156995
Department of Medicaid, the Director of Budget and Management may 156996
transfer the state share of appropriations between appropriation 156997
item 651525, Medicaid/Health Care Services, or appropriation item 156998
651526, Medicare Part D. If the state share of appropriation item 156999
651525, Medicaid/Health Care Services, is adjusted, the Director 157000
of Budget and Management shall adjust the federal share 157001
accordingly. The Department of Medicaid shall provide notification 157002
to the Controlling Board of any transfers at the next scheduled 157003
Controlling Board meeting.157004

       Section 323.160. REBALANCING LONG-TERM CARE157005

       (A) As used in this section:157006

       "Balancing Incentive Payments Program" means the program 157007
established under section 10202 of the Patient Protection and 157008
Affordable Care Act.157009

       "Long-term services and supports" has the same meaning as in 157010
section 10202(f)(1) of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care 157011
Act.157012

       "Non-institutionally-based long-term services and supports" 157013
has the same meaning as in section 10202(f)(1)(B) of the Patient 157014
Protection and Affordable Care Act.157015

       "Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act" means Public Law 157016
111-148.157017

       (B) The Departments of Aging, Developmental Disabilities, and 157018
Medicaid shall continue efforts to achieve a sustainable and 157019
balanced delivery system for long-term services and supports. In 157020
so doing, the Departments shall strive to realize the following 157021
goals by June 30, 2015:157022

       (1) Having at least fifty per cent of Medicaid recipients who 157023
are sixty years of age or older and need long-term services and 157024
supports utilize non-institutionally-based long-term services and 157025
supports;157026

       (2) Having at least sixty per cent of Medicaid recipients who 157027
are less than sixty years of age and have cognitive or physical 157028
disabilities for which long-term services and supports are needed 157029
utilize non-institutionally-based long-term services and supports.157030

       (C) If the Department of Medicaid determines that 157031
participating in the Balancing Incentive Payments Program will 157032
assist in achieving the goals specified in division (B) of this 157033
section, the Department may apply to the United States Secretary 157034
of Health and Human Services to participate in the program.157035

       Section 323.170. OHIO ACCESS SUCCESS PROJECT157036

        Of the foregoing appropriation item, 651525, Medicaid/Health 157037
Care Services, up to $450,000 in each fiscal year may be used to 157038
provide one-time transitional benefits under the Ohio Access 157039
Success Project that the Medicaid Director may establish under 157040
section 5166.35 of the Revised Code.157041

       Section 323.180. PROVIDER FRANCHISE FEE OFFSETS157042

       (A) At least quarterly, the Medicaid Director shall certify 157043
to the Director of Budget and Management the amount of offsets 157044
withheld under section 5168.52 of the Revised Code from payments 157045
made from the General Revenue Fund. 157046

       (B) The Director of Budget and Management may transfer cash 157047
from the General Revenue Fund to the Nursing Home Franchise Permit 157048
Fee Fund (Fund 5R20), in accordance with section 5168.54 of the 157049
Revised Code.157050

       (C) Amounts transferred pursuant to this section are hereby 157051
appropriated.157052

       Section 323.190. HOSPITAL CARE ASSURANCE MATCH157053

       The foregoing appropriation item 651623, Medicaid Services - 157054
Federal, shall be used by the Department of Medicaid for 157055
distributing the federal share of Medicaid services required under 157056
the section of this act entitled "CREATION OF THE DEPARTMENT OF 157057
MEDICAID," including the federal share of all hospital care 157058
assurance program funds to hospitals under section 5168.09 of the 157059
Revised Code.157060

       If receipts credited to the Health Care Federal Fund (Fund 157061
3F00) exceed the amounts appropriated from the fund for making the 157062
hospital care assurance program distribution, the Medicaid 157063
Director may request the Director of Budget and Management to 157064
authorize expenditures from the fund in excess of the amounts 157065
appropriated. Upon the approval of the Director of Budget and 157066
Management, the additional amounts are hereby appropriated.157067

        The foregoing appropriation item 651649, Medicaid Services – 157068
HCAP, shall be used by the Department of Medicaid for distributing 157069
the state share of all hospital care assurance program funds to 157070
hospitals under section 5168.09 of the Revised Code. If receipts 157071
credited to the Hospital Care Assurance Program Fund (Fund 6510) 157072
exceed the amounts appropriated from the fund for making the 157073
hospital care assurance program distribution, the Medicaid 157074
Director may request the Director of Budget and Management to 157075
authorize expenditures from the fund in excess of the amounts 157076
appropriated. Upon the approval of the Director of Budget and 157077
Management, the additional amounts are hereby appropriated.157078

       Section 323.200. HEALTH CARE SERVICES ADMINISTRATION FUND157079

       Of the amount received by the Department of Medicaid during 157080
fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015 from the first installment 157081
of assessments paid under section 5168.06 of the Revised Code and 157082
intergovernmental transfers made under section 5168.07 of the 157083
Revised Code, the Medicaid Director shall deposit $350,000 in each 157084
fiscal year into the state treasury to the credit of the Health 157085
Care Services Administration Fund (Fund 5U30).157086

       Section 323.210. TRANSFERS OF OFFSETS TO THE HEALTH CARE 157087
SERVICES ADMINISTRATION FUND157088

       (A) As used in this section:157089

       "Hospital offset" means an offset from a hospital's Medicaid 157090
payment authorized by section 5168.991 of the Revised Code.157091

       "Vendor offset" means a reduction of a Medicaid payment to a 157092
Medicaid provider to correct a previous, incorrect Medicaid 157093
payment. 157094

       (B) During fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, at 157095
intervals selected by the Medicaid Director, the Director shall 157096
certify to the Director of Budget and Management the amount of 157097
hospital offsets and vendor offsets for the period covered by the 157098
certification and the particular funds that would have been used 157099
to make Medicaid payments to providers if not for the offsets. 157100
Each certification shall specify the amount that would have been 157101
taken from each of the funds if not for the hospital offsets and 157102
vendor offsets.157103

       (C) On receipt of a certification under division (B) of this 157104
section, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer cash 157105
from the funds identified in the certification to the Health Care 157106
Services Administration Fund (Fund 5U30). The amount transferred 157107
from a fund shall equal the amount that would have been taken from 157108
the fund if not for the hospital offsets and vendor offsets as 157109
specified in the certification. The transferred cash is hereby 157110
appropriated. 157111

       Section 323.220. MEDICAID INTERAGENCY PASS-THROUGH157112

       The Medicaid Director may request the Director of Budget and 157113
Management to increase appropriation item 651655, Medicaid 157114
Interagency Pass-Through. Upon the approval of the Director of 157115
Budget and Management, the additional amounts are hereby 157116
appropriated.157117

       Section 323.230. MEDICAID PAYMENTS FOR NONINSTITUTIONAL 157118
SERVICES PROVIDED TO DUAL ELIGIBLE INDIVIDUALS157119

        (A) As used in this section:157120

        "Dual eligible individual" has the same meaning as in the 157121
"Social Security Act," section 1915(h)(2)(B), 42 U.S.C. 157122
1396n(h)(2)(B).157123

        "Medicare Part B" means the Supplementary Medical Insurance 157124
Program for the Aged and Disabled component of the Medicare 157125
program established by Part B of Title XVIII of the "Social 157126
Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1395j et seq.157127

        "Noninstitutional services" means any services other than 157128
hospital services, nursing facility services, and intermediate 157129
care facilities for individuals with intellectual disabilities.157130

        (B) Notwithstanding any conflicting state statute, a Medicaid 157131
payment for noninstitutional services, excluding physician 157132
services and including freestanding dialysis center services, 157133
provided during the period beginning January 1, 2014, and ending 157134
July 1, 2015, to a Medicaid recipient who is a dual eligible 157135
individual enrolled for benefits under Medicare Part B shall equal 157136
the lesser of the following:157137

        (1) The sum of the Medicare Part B deductible, coinsurance, 157138
and copayment for the services that are applicable to the 157139
individual;157140

        (2) The greater of the following:157141

        (a) The maximum allowable Medicaid payment for the services 157142
when the services are provided to other Medicaid recipients, less 157143
the total Medicaid payment (if any) most recently paid on the 157144
Medicaid recipient's behalf for such services;157145

        (b) Zero.157146

       Section 323.233. MEDICAID PAYMENTS FOR HOME HEALTH SERVICES 157147
AND PRIVATE DUTY NURSING157148

       (A) As used in this section, "responsible adult" means the 157149
spouse of a Medicaid recipient or, in the case of a Medicaid 157150
recipient who is a minor, the minor's parent, foster caregiver, 157151
stepparent, guardian, legal custodian, or any other person who 157152
stands in loco parentis for the minor.157153

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, for 157154
fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, Medicaid payments shall not 157155
be made for any of the following services that are provided to a 157156
Medicaid recipient by an individual who is a responsible adult for 157157
that recipient:157158

       (1) Nursing services available under the home health services 157159
benefit pursuant to 42 C.F.R. 440.70(b)(1);157160

       (2) Home health aide services available under the home health 157161
services benefit pursuant to 42 C.F.R. 440.70(b)(2);157162

        (3) Private duty nursing services, as defined in 42 C.F.R. 157163
440.80.157164

       (C) For fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, the Medicaid 157165
Director shall establish the conditions under which Medicaid 157166
payments may be made for any of the services described in division 157167
(B) of this section that are provided to a Medicaid recipient by 157168
an individual who is a responsible adult for that recipient. 157169

       (D) The Director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 157170
119. of the Revised Code necessary to implement this section. The 157171
Director shall consult provider representatives, consumer 157172
representatives, and other stakeholders in developing the rules, 157173
which may include the following: 157174

       (1) Qualification and training requirements necessary for 157175
responsible adults to receive Medicaid payments under division (C) 157176
of this section;157177

       (2) Oversight requirements necessary for responsible adults 157178
to receive Medicaid payments under division (C) of this section;157179

       (3) Procedures designed to protect against fraud, waste, and 157180
abuse that may occur as a result of payments made under division 157181
(C) of this section;157182

       (4) Any other procedures, standards, or requirements the 157183
Director considers appropriate.157184

       Section 323.234. DIRECT CARE WORKER ADVISORY WORKGROUP157185

       (A) As used in this section:157186

       (1) "Core competencies" means the minimum standards a direct 157187
care worker must meet when providing direct care services and 157188
engaging in any one or more of the following activities associated 157189
with care for a medicaid recipient: maintaining a clean and safe 157190
environment, ensuring recipient-centered care, promoting the 157191
recipient's development, assisting the recipient with activities 157192
of daily living, communicating with the recipient, completing 157193
administrative tasks, and participating in professional 157194
development activities.157195

       (2) "Direct care services" means health care services, 157196
ancillary services, or services related to or in support of the 157197
provision of health care or ancillary services.157198

       (3) "Direct care worker" means an individual who, for direct 157199
or indirect payment, provides direct care services to a medicaid 157200
recipient in the recipient's home or other place of residence.157201

       (4) "Direct payment" means a Medicaid payment made directly 157202
to a direct care worker for the worker's provision of direct care 157203
services to a Medicaid recipient.157204

       (5) "Indirect payment" means a Medicaid payment made to a 157205
third party who pays a direct care worker for the worker's 157206
provision of direct care services to a Medicaid recipient. 157207

       (B) There is hereby created the Direct Care Worker Advisory 157208
Workgroup. The Workgroup shall consist of the following members:157209

       (1) The Director of Aging or the Director's designee;157210

       (2) The Director of Developmental Disabilities or the 157211
Director's designee;157212

       (3) The Director of Health or the Director's designee;157213

       (4) The Medicaid Director or the Director's designee;157214

       (5) The Executive Director of the Office of Health 157215
Transformation or the Executive Director's designee;157216

       (6) Two representatives from each of the following 157217
organizations, appointed by the organization's chief executive 157218
officer or the individual serving in an equivalent capacity for 157219
the organization:157220

       (a) The Ohio Council for Home Care and Hospice;157221

       (b) The Ohio Health Care Association;157222

       (c) The Ohio Provider Resource Association;157223

       (d) The Ohio Nurses Association;157224

       (e) The Midwest Care Alliance;157225

       (f) The Ohio Assisted Living Association;157226

       (g) LeadingAge Ohio.157227

       (7) Two members of the House of Representatives, one from the 157228
majority party and the other from the minority party, appointed by 157229
the Speaker of the House of Representatives;157230

       (8) Two members of the Senate, one from the majority party 157231
and the other from the minority party, appointed by the President 157232
of the Senate.157233

       (C) Members of the Workgroup shall be appointed not later 157234
than fifteen days after the effective date of this section. 157235
Vacancies shall be filled in the same manner as the original 157236
appointments. Each member shall serve without compensation or 157237
reimbursement for expenses incurred while serving on the 157238
Workgroup, except to the extent that serving on the Workgroup is 157239
considered to be among the member's employment duties.157240

       (D) The Executive Director of the Office of Health 157241
Transformation or the Executive Director's designee shall serve as 157242
chairperson of the Workgroup. The Departments of Health and 157243
Medicaid shall provide staff and other support services for the 157244
Workgroup.157245

       (E) The Workgroup shall do all of the following:157246

       (1) Determine core competencies;157247

       (2) Designate which direct care workers should meet core 157248
competencies;157249

       (3) Determine whether existing regulatory requirements are 157250
equivalent or similar to core competencies;157251

       (4) Identify funding sources that could be used to assist 157252
direct care workers in meeting core competencies;157253

       (5) Recommend policies that may be incorporated in 157254
legislation the General Assembly intends to consider, as described 157255
in division (G) of this section.157256

       (F) Not later than December 31, 2013, the Workgroup shall 157257
submit a report to the General Assembly describing its findings 157258
and recommendations. The report shall be submitted in accordance 157259
with section 101.68 of the Revised Code. On submission of the 157260
report, the Workgroup shall cease to exist.157261

       (G) It is the intent of the General Assembly to enact 157262
legislation in the future, taking into account the recommendations 157263
of the Workgroup, regarding certification of direct care workers 157264
and Medicaid payments for direct care services provided by those 157265
workers. The legislation is intended to do both of the following:157266

       (1) Require the Director of Health to establish, not later 157267
than October 1, 2014, a direct care worker certification program 157268
that applies to the workers designated by the Workgroup;157269

       (2) Prohibit the Department of Medicaid, beginning October 1, 157270
2015, from allowing a direct or indirect payment to be made for 157271
direct care services provided by a direct care worker to whom the 157272
certification program applies unless the worker is appropriately 157273
certified under that program.157274

       Section 323.236.  PURCHASING STRATEGIES FOR CERTAIN SERVICES157275

       As used in this section, "custom wheelchair" has the same 157276
meaning as in section 5165.01 of the Revised Code.157277

       For the period beginning January 1, 2014, and ending June 30, 157278
2015, the Medicaid Director shall implement strategies for 157279
purchasing oxygen (other than emergency oxygen), resident 157280
transportation services, and custom wheelchairs for Medicaid 157281
recipients residing in nursing facilities. In implementing the 157282
purchasing strategies, the Director shall seek to achieve a more 157283
efficient allocation of resources and price and quality 157284
competition among providers of the goods and services. The 157285
Director shall consider one or more of the following when 157286
determining the purchasing strategies to implement:157287

       (A) Establishing competitive bidding;157288

       (B) Establishing manufacturers rebate programs;157289

       (C) Another purchasing strategy that saves the Medicaid 157290
program an amount equivalent to the savings that would be realized 157291
from the purchasing strategies specified in division (A) or (B), 157292
or both, of this section.157293

       Section 323.250. REDUCED RATE FOR REPEAT RADIOLOGICAL 157294
SERVICES157295

       (A) The Medicaid Director shall reduce the Medicaid payment 157296
rate for radiological services to which both of the following 157297
apply:157298

       (1) They are provided in a physician's office or an 157299
independent diagnostic testing facility;157300

       (2) They are provided more than once by the same provider for 157301
the same Medicaid recipient during the same session.157302

       (B) The Director shall adopt rules under section 5164.02 of 157303
the Revised Code to implement the rate reduction required by this 157304
section. The rules shall not take effect before January 1, 2014.157305

       Section 323.260. VARYING MEDICAID PAYMENT RATES FOR PHYSICIAN 157306
SERVICES DEPENDING ON LOCATION OF SERVICE157307

       (A) The Medicaid Director shall do both of the following:157308

       (1) Identify physician services for which Medicaid payment 157309
rates should vary depending on where the services are provided;157310

       (2) Adopt rules under section 5164.02 of the Revised Code to 157311
establish the varying Medicaid payment rates.157312

       (B) The rules required by division (A)(2) of this section 157313
shall not take effect before January 1, 2014.157314

       Section 323.263. PAYMENT RATES FOR PASSPORT SERVICES157315

        The Medicaid payment rates for services provided under the 157316
PASSPORT program, other than adult day-care services, during the 157317
period beginning July 1, 2013, and ending June 30, 2015, shall be 157318
not less than ninety-eight and five-tenths per cent of the 157319
Medicaid payment rates for the services in effect on June 30, 157320
2011. The Medicaid payment rates for adult day-care services 157321
provided under the PASSPORT program during the period beginning 157322
July 1, 2013, and ending June 30, 2015, shall be twenty per cent 157323
higher than the amount of the Medicaid payment rates for the 157324
services in effect on June 30, 2013.157325

       Section 323.270. MEDICAID PAYMENT METHODOLOGIES ALIGNED WITH 157326
MEDICARE PAYMENT METHODOLOGIES157327

       (A) The Medicaid Director shall do both of the following:157328

       (1) Identify Medicaid services for which the Medicaid payment 157329
methodologies should be aligned, to the extent the Director 157330
considers appropriate, with Medicare payment methodologies for the 157331
services;157332

       (2) Adopt rules under section 5164.02 of the Revised Code to 157333
so align the payment methodologies for the services.157334

       (B) The rules required by division (A)(2) of this section 157335
shall not take effect before January 1, 2014.157336

       Section 323.280. ALTERNATIVE PURCHASING MODEL FOR NURSING 157337
FACILITY SERVICES157338

       As used in this section, "Medicaid waiver component" has the 157339
same meaning as in section 5166.01 of the Revised Code.157340

       The Medicaid Director may establish, as a Medicaid waiver 157341
component, an alternative purchasing model for nursing facility 157342
services provided, during the period beginning July 1, 2013, and 157343
ending July 1, 2015, to Medicaid recipients with specialized 157344
health care needs, including recipients dependent on ventilators, 157345
recipients who have severe traumatic brain injury, and recipients 157346
who would be admitted to long-term acute care hospitals or 157347
rehabilitation hospitals if they did not receive nursing facility 157348
services. If established, the alternative purchasing model shall 157349
do all of the following:157350

       (A) Recognize a connection between enhanced Medicaid payment 157351
rates and improved health outcomes capable of being measured;157352

       (B) Include criteria for identifying Medicaid recipients with 157353
specialized health care needs;157354

        (C) Include procedures for ensuring that Medicaid recipients 157355
identified pursuant to division (B) of this section receive 157356
nursing facility services under the alternative purchasing model.157357

        The total per Medicaid day payment rate for nursing facility 157358
services provided under the alternative purchasing model may 157359
differ from the rate that would otherwise be paid pursuant to 157360
Chapter 5165. of the Revised Code.157361

       Section 323.290. REVIEW OF LONG-TERM SERVICES TO IMPROVE 157362
EFFICIENCY AND INDIVIDUAL CARE157363

       (A) The Department of Medicaid may review the following 157364
services covered by the Medicaid program to identify opportunities 157365
to improve the efficiency of, and individual care provided by, 157366
long-term care services and supports:157367

       (1) Nursing services available under the home health services 157368
benefit pursuant to 42 C.F.R. 440.70(b)(1);157369

       (2) Home health aide services available under the home health 157370
services benefit pursuant to 42 C.F.R. 440.70(b)(2);157371

       (3) Private duty nursing services as defined in 42 C.F.R. 157372
440.80.157373

       (B) The Department, in its review authorized by division (A) 157374
of this section, may consider establishing the following:157375

       (1) New methods for authorizing and coordinating long-term 157376
care services and supports, including such services and supports 157377
covered by the Medicaid state plan, using case managers or care 157378
coordinators;157379

       (2) Competency and training requirements for the case 157380
managers or care coordinators;157381

       (3) Other mechanisms for improving efficiency and individual 157382
care in the delivery of long-term care services and supports.157383

       Section 323.300. PERFORMANCE PAYMENTS FOR MEDICAID MANAGED 157384
CARE157385

       (A) As used in this section:157386

       (1) "Dual eligible individual" has the same meaning as in 157387
section 1915(h)(2)(B) of the "Social Security Act," 124 Stat. 315, 157388
42 U.S.C. 1396n(h)(2)(B).157389

        (2) "Dual eligible integrated care demonstration project" 157390
means the demonstration project authorized by section 5164.91 of 157391
the Revised Code.157392

       (3) "Medicaid managed care organization" has the same meaning 157393
as in section 5167.01 of the Revised Code.157394

       (4) "Participant" means an individual participating in the 157395
dual eligible integrated care demonstration project. 157396

       (B) For fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, the Department 157397
of Medicaid shall provide performance payments as provided under 157398
this section to Medicaid managed care organizations providing care 157399
under the Dual Eligible Integrated Care Demonstration Project.157400

       (C) If the Department implements the Dual Eligible Integrated 157401
Care Demonstration Project, and if participants receive care 157402
through Medicaid managed care organizations under the project, the 157403
Department shall, in consultation with the United States Centers 157404
for Medicare and Medicaid Services, do both of the following:157405

       (1) Develop quality measures designed specifically to 157406
determine the effectiveness of the health care and other services 157407
provided to participants by Medicaid managed care organizations;157408

       (2) Determine an amount to be withheld from the Medicaid 157409
premium payments paid to Medicaid managed care organizations for 157410
participants.157411

       (D)(1) For the purposes of division (C)(2) of this section, 157412
the Department shall establish an amount that is to be withheld 157413
each time a premium payment is made to a Medicaid managed care 157414
organization for a participant. The amount shall be established as 157415
a percentage of each premium payment. The percentage shall be the 157416
same for all Medicaid managed care organizations providing care to 157417
participants. 157418

       (2) Each Medicaid managed care organization shall agree to 157419
the withholding as a condition of receiving or maintaining its 157420
Medicaid provider agreement with the Department.157421

       (3) When the amount is established and each time the amount 157422
is modified thereafter, the Department shall certify the amount to 157423
the Director of Budget and Management and begin withholding the 157424
amount from each premium the Department pays to a Medicaid managed 157425
care organization for a participant.157426

       (E) The Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the 157427
amounts certified in accordance with division (D) of this section 157428
into the Managed Care Performance Payment Fund created under 157429
section 5162.60 of the Revised Code. The amounts transferred may 157430
be used to make performance payments to Medicaid managed care 157431
organizations providing care to participants in accordance with 157432
rules that may be adopted by the Medicaid Director under Chapter 157433
119. of the Revised Code.157434

       (F) A Medicaid managed care organization subject to this 157435
section is not subject to section 5167.30 of the Revised Code for 157436
premium payments attributed to participants during fiscal year 157437
2014 and fiscal year 2015.157438

       Section 323.310. INTEGRATED CARE DELIVERY SYSTEM PERFORMANCE 157439
PAYMENT PROGRAM157440

       At the beginning of each quarter, or as soon as possible 157441
thereafter, the Medicaid Director may certify to the Director of 157442
Budget and Management the amount withheld in accordance with the 157443
section in this act titled "PERFORMANCE PAYMENTS FOR MEDICAID 157444
MANAGED CARE." On receipt of certification, the Director of Budget 157445
and Management shall transfer cash in the amount certified from 157446
the General Revenue Fund to the Managed Care Performance Payment 157447
Fund (Fund 5KW0). The transferred cash is hereby appropriated. 157448
Appropriation item 651525, Medicaid/Health Care Services, is 157449
hereby reduced by the amount of the transfer.157450

       Section 323.320. VENDOR COLLECTION OF PATIENT LIABILITY157451

       (A) As used in this section:157452

       "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 157453
section 5166.01 of the Revised Code.157454

       "Patient liability" means the amount that 42 C.F.R. 435.735 157455
requires be reduced from a Medicaid payment for home and 157456
community-based services available under a Medicaid waiver 157457
component.157458

       (B) The Medicaid Director may contract with a person or 157459
government entity to collect patient liabilities for fiscal year 157460
2014 and fiscal year 2015. The Director may adopt rules under 157461
section 5166.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this 157462
section.157463

       Section 323.330. STATE PLAN HOME AND COMMUNITY-BASED SERVICES157464

       (A) As used in this section:157465

       "Federal poverty line" means the official poverty line 157466
defined by the United States Office of Management and Budget based 157467
on the most recent data available from the United States Bureau of 157468
the Census and revised by the United States Secretary of Health 157469
and Human Services pursuant to the "Omnibus Budget Reconciliation 157470
Act of 1981," section 673(2), 42 U.S.C. 9902(2).157471

       "State plan home and community-based services" means home and 157472
community-based services that may be included in the Medicaid 157473
state plan pursuant to the "Social Security Act," section 1915(i), 157474
42 U.S.C. 1396n(i).157475

       (B) During fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, the 157476
Medicaid program may cover state plan home and community-based 157477
services for Medicaid recipients of any age who have behavioral 157478
health issues and countable incomes not exceeding one hundred 157479
fifty per cent of the federal poverty line. A Medicaid recipient 157480
is not required to undergo a level of care determination to be 157481
eligible for the state plan home and community-based services.157482

       The Medicaid Director may adopt rules under section 5164.02 157483
of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this section.157484

       Section 323.340. INPATIENT PSYCHIATRIC HOSPITAL SERVICES FOR 157485
INDIVIDUALS UNDER AGE 21157486

       (A) As used in this section:157487

       "Inpatient psychiatric hospital services for individuals 157488
under age 21" has the same meaning as in the "Social Security 157489
Act," section 1905(h), 42 U.S.C. 1396d(h).157490

       "Psychiatric residential treatment facility" has the same 157491
meaning as in 42 C.F.R. 483.352.157492

       (B) During fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, the 157493
Medicaid program may cover inpatient psychiatric hospital services 157494
for individuals under age 21 that are provided by psychiatric 157495
residential treatment facilities to Medicaid recipients to whom 157496
both of the following apply:157497

       (1) They are in the custody of the Department of Youth 157498
Services.157499

       (2) They have been identified as meeting a clinical criterion 157500
of serious emotional disturbance specified pursuant to division 157501
(C) of this section.157502

       (C) The Department of Youth Services, in collaboration with 157503
the Department of Medicaid and Department of Mental Health and 157504
Addiction Services, shall specify the clinical criterion of 157505
serious emotional disturbance to be used for the purpose of 157506
division (B)(2) of this section.157507

       Section 323.350. MCD COLLABORATION WITH DVS157508

       The Department of Medicaid may collaborate with the 157509
Department of Veterans Services to determine ways to improve the 157510
coordination of the services that the Departments make available 157511
to veterans in a manner that enhances veterans' receipt of the 157512
services. The Departments may implement, during fiscal year 2014 157513
and fiscal year 2015, initiatives that they determine during the 157514
collaboration will maximize the efficiency of the services and 157515
ensure that veterans' needs are met.157516

       Section 323.360. IMPROVED BIRTH OUTCOMES INITIATIVES157517

       (A) The Medicaid Director may develop and implement, during 157518
fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, initiatives designed to 157519
improve birth outcomes for Medicaid recipients, including 157520
improvements designed to do the following:157521

       (1) Reduce the number of preterm births;157522

       (2) Reduce Medicaid costs;157523

       (3) Improve the quality of Medicaid services.157524

       (B) In developing the initiatives, the Director may consult 157525
with experts in practice improvement, Medicaid managed care 157526
organizations, hospitals, and other types of Medicaid providers. 157527
The Director, Medicaid managed care organizations, and other types 157528
of Medicaid providers involved in the initiatives shall make 157529
information about the initiatives available on their web sites.157530

       Section 323.370. ABOLISHMENT OF THE PRESCRIPTION DRUG REBATES 157531
FUND157532

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 157533
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 157534
in the Prescription Drug Rebates Fund (Fund 5P50) to the Health 157535
Care/Medicaid Support and Recoveries Fund (Fund 5DL0). Upon 157536
completion of the transfer, Fund 5P50 is abolished. The Director 157537
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 157538
600692, Health Care/Medicaid Support – Drug Rebates, and 157539
reestablish them against appropriation item 651639, Medicaid 157540
Services - Recoveries. The re-established encumbrance amounts are 157541
hereby appropriated.157542

       All money that would have been deposited into the 157543
Prescription Drug Rebates Fund shall be deposited into the Health 157544
Care/Medicaid Support and Recoveries Fund during fiscal year 2014 157545
and fiscal year 2015.157546

       Section 323.380.  ABOLISHMENT OF THE HEALTHCARE COMPLIANCE 157547
FUND157548

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 157549
Medicaid Director shall certify to the Director of Budget and 157550
Management, the cash balance related to managed care obligations 157551
in the Healthcare Compliance Fund (Fund 4Z10). The Director of 157552
Budget and Management shall transfer the amount certified from 157553
Fund 4Z10 to the Managed Care Performance Payment Fund (Fund 157554
5KW0). The Director shall cancel any existing encumbrances related 157555
to managed care obligations against appropriation item 600625, 157556
Healthcare Compliance, and re-establish them against appropriation 157557
item 651612, Managed Care Performance Payment. The re-established 157558
encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated.157559

       After the cash relating to managed care obligations has been 157560
transferred, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer 157561
the remaining cash balance in the Healthcare Compliance Fund (Fund 157562
4Z10) to the Health Care Services Administration Fund (Fund 5U30). 157563
Upon completion of the transfer, Fund 4Z10 is abolished. The 157564
Director shall cancel any remaining encumbrances against 157565
appropriation item 600625, Healthcare Compliance, and re-establish 157566
them against appropriation item 651654, Medicaid Program Support. 157567
The re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated.157568

       All money that would have been deposited into the Health Care 157569
Compliance Fund pursuant to division (B)(2) of former section 157570
5111.946 of the Revised Code shall be deposited into the Health 157571
Care Services Administration Fund during fiscal year 2014 and 157572
fiscal year 2015.157573

       Section 323.390.  ABOLISHMENT OF THE ODJFS ADMINISTRATION AND 157574
OVERSIGHT FUND157575

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 157576
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 157577
in the ODJFS Administration and Oversight Fund (Fund 5S30) to the 157578
Health Care Services Administration Fund (Fund 5U30). Upon 157579
completion of the transfer, Fund 5S30 is abolished. The Director 157580
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 157581
600629, Healthcare Program and DDD Support, and re-establish them 157582
against appropriation item 651654, Medicaid Program Support. The 157583
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated.157584

       Section 323.400.  REFUNDS AND RECONCILIATION FUND157585

       The Refunds and Reconciliation Fund (Fund R055) shall be used 157586
to hold refund and reconciliation revenues until the appropriate 157587
fund is determined or until the revenues are directed to the 157588
appropriate governmental agency other than the Department of 157589
Medicaid. Any Medicaid refunds or reconciliations received or held 157590
by the Department of Job and Family Services shall be transferred 157591
or credited to this fund. If receipts credited to the Refunds and 157592
Reconciliation Fund exceed the amounts appropriated from the fund, 157593
the Medicaid Director may request the Director of Budget and 157594
Management to authorize expenditures from the fund in excess of 157595
the amounts appropriated. Upon approval of the Director of Budget 157596
and Management, the additional amounts are hereby appropriated.157597

       Section 323.460. NO LOSS OF MEDICAID ELIGIBILITY BEFORE 157598
JANUARY 1, 2014157599

       Notwithstanding the amendments by this act to sections 157600
5101.18, 5111.01 (as renumbered as section 5162.03), and 5111.011 157601
(as renumbered as section 5163.02) and the repeal by this act of 157602
sections 5111.014, 5111.015, 5111.0110, 5111.0111, 5111.0113, 157603
5111.0115, 5111.0120, 5111.0121, 5111.0122, 5111.0123, 5111.0124, 157604
and 5111.0125 of the Revised Code, no individual eligible for 157605
Medicaid pursuant to those sections shall lose Medicaid 157606
eligibility before January 1, 2014, because of the amendments to, 157607
or repeal of, those sections. This section does not preclude an 157608
individual from losing Medicaid eligibility before January 1, 157609
2014, if the individual would cease to be Medicaid eligible before 157610
that date for reasons unrelated to the amendments to, or repeal 157611
of, those sections. Unrelated reasons include acquiring income or 157612
assets exceeding eligibility limits and failure to comply with 157613
eligibility requirements.157614

       Section 323.470. ALTERATIONS TO AND ELIMINATION OF OPTIONAL 157615
MEDICAID ELIGIBILITY GROUPS157616

       The Medicaid Director may initiate, before January 1, 2014, 157617
the rule-making process to alter the eligibility requirements for, 157618
or to eliminate, one or more Medicaid optional eligibility groups 157619
or subgroups pursuant to section 5163.06 of the Revised Code. 157620
However, none of the rules may go into effect before that date.157621

       Section 323.480. UPDATING AUTHORIZING STATUTE CITATIONS157622

       As used in this section, "authorizing statute" means a 157623
Revised Code section or provision of a Revised Code section that 157624
is cited in the Ohio Administrative Code as the statute that 157625
authorizes the adoption of a rule.157626

       The Medicaid Director is not required to amend any rule for 157627
the sole purpose of updating the citation in the Ohio 157628
Administrative Code to the rule's authorizing statute to reflect 157629
that this act renumbers the authorizing statute or relocates it to 157630
another Revised Code section. Such citations shall be updated as 157631
the Director amends the rules for other purposes.157632

       Section 325.10. MED STATE MEDICAL BOARD157633

General Services Fund Group157634

5C60 883609 Operating Expenses $ 9,172,062 $ 9,172,062 157635
TOTAL GSF General Services 157636
Fund Group $ 9,172,062 $ 9,172,062 157637
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 9,172,062 $ 9,172,062 157638


       Section 327.10. MHA DEPARTMENT OF MENTAL HEALTH AND ADDICTION 157640
SERVICES157641

General Revenue Fund157642

GRF 333321 Central Administration $ 13,495,337 $ 13,486,290 157643
GRF 333402 Resident Trainees $ 450,000 $ 450,000 157644
GRF 333415 Lease-Rental Payments $ 15,843,300 $ 16,076,700 157645
GRF 333416 Research Program Evaluation $ 321,998 $ 321,998 157646
GRF 334412 Hospital Services $ 190,514,437 $ 190,514,437 157647
GRF 334506 Court Costs $ 784,210 $ 784,210 157648
GRF 335405 Family & Children First $ 1,386,000 $ 1,386,000 157649
GRF 335406 Prevention and Wellness $ 868,659 $ 868,659 157650
GRF 335421 Continuum of Care Services $ 77,318,546 $ 77,718,546 157651
GRF 335422 Criminal Justice Services $ 4,917,898 $ 4,917,898 157652
GRF 335504 Community Innovations $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 157653
GRF 335506 Residential State Supplement $ 7,502,875 $ 7,502,875 157654
GRF 335507 Community Behavioral Health $ 47,500,000 $ 47,500,000 157655
GRF 652507 Medicaid Support $ 1,727,553 $ 1,736,600 157656
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 364,130,813 $ 364,764,213 157657

General Services Fund Group157658

1490 333609 Central Office Operating $ 1,343,190 $ 1,343,190 157659
5T90 333641 Problem Gambling Services - Administration $ 60,000 $ 60,000 157660
1490 334609 Hospital - Operating Expenses $ 28,190,000 $ 28,190,000 157661
1500 334620 Special Education $ 150,000 $ 150,000 157662
4P90 335604 Community Mental Health Projects $ 250,000 $ 250,000 157663
5T90 335641 Problem Gambling Services $ 275,000 $ 275,000 157664
1510 336601 Office of Support Services $ 115,000,000 $ 115,000,000 157665
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 145,268,190 $ 145,268,190 157666

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group157667

3240 333605 Medicaid/Medicare - Refunds $ 154,500 $ 154,500 157668
3A60 333608 Federal Miscellaneous - Administration $ 140,000 $ 140,000 157669
3A70 333612 Social Services Block Grant - Administration $ 50,000 $ 50,000 157670
3A80 333613 Federal Grants - Administration $ 4,717,000 $ 4,717,000 157671
3A90 333614 Mental Health Block Grant - Administration $ 748,470 $ 748,470 157672
3G40 333618 Substance Abuse Block Grant- Administration $ 3,307,789 $ 3,307,789 157673
3H80 333606 Demonstration Grants - Administration $ 3,237,574 $ 3,237,574 157674
3N80 333639 Administrative Reimbursement $ 300,000 $ 300,000 157675
3240 334605 Medicaid/Medicare - Hospitals $ 28,200,000 $ 28,200,000 157676
3A60 334608 Federal Miscellaneous - Hospitals $ 200,000 $ 200,000 157677
3A80 334613 Federal Letter of Credit $ 200,000 $ 200,000 157678
3A60 335608 Federal Miscellaneous $ 2,170,000 $ 2,170,000 157679
3A70 335612 Social Services Block Grant $ 8,400,000 $ 8,400,000 157680
3A80 335613 Federal Grant - Community Mental Health Board Subsidy $ 2,500,000 $ 2,500,000 157681
3A90 335614 Mental Health Block Grant $ 14,200,000 $ 14,200,000 157682
3FR0 335638 Race to the Top - Early Learning Challenge Grant $ 1,164,000 $ 1,164,000 157683
3G40 335618 Substance Abuse Block Grant $ 62,542,003 $ 62,557,967 157684
3H80 335606 Demonstration Grants $ 5,428,006 $ 5,428,006 157685
3B10 652635 Community Medicaid Legacy Costs $ 5,000,000 $ 0 157686
3B10 652636 Community Medicaid Legacy Support $ 7,000,000 $ 7,000,000 157687
3J80 652609 Medicaid Legacy Costs Support $ 3,000,000 $ 0 157688
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 152,659,342 $ 144,675,306 157689

State Special Revenue Fund Group157690

2320 333621 Family and Children First Administration $ 400,000 $ 400,000 157691
4750 333623 Statewide Treatment and Prevention - Administration $ 5,490,667 $ 5,490,667 157692
4850 333632 Mental Health Operating - Refunds $ 134,233 $ 134,233 157693
5JL0 333629 Problem Gambling and Casino Addictions - Administration $ 1,361,592 $ 1,361,592 157694
5V20 333611 Non-Federal Miscellaneous $ 100,000 $ 100,000 157695
6890 333640 Education and Conferences $ 150,000 $ 150,000 157696
4850 334632 Mental Health Operating - Hospitals $ 2,477,500 $ 2,477,500 157697
4750 335623 Statewide Treatment and Prevention $ 10,059,333 $ 10,059,333 157698
5AU0 335615 Behavioral Health Care $ 6,690,000 $ 6,690,000 157699
5JL0 335629 Problem Gambling and Casino Addictions $ 4,084,772 4,084,772 157700
6320 335616 Community Capital Replacement $ 350,000 $ 350,000 157701
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 31,298,097 $ 31,298,097 157702
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 693,356,442 $ 686,005,806 157703


       Section 327.20. TRANSITION RELATING TO CONSOLIDATION OF 157705
DEPARTMENTS157706

       Notwithstanding Chapters 340., 3793., 5119., and 5122. of the 157707
Revised Code, and any other provision of law to the contrary, on 157708
July 1, 2013, there is hereby created the Department of Mental 157709
Health and Addiction Services, which shall be administered by the 157710
Director of Mental Health and Addiction Services. The Director of 157711
Mental Health and Addiction Services shall be appointed by the 157712
Governor, with the advice and consent of the Senate, and shall 157713
hold office during the term of the appointing Governor, and is 157714
subject to removal at the pleasure of the Governor. The Director 157715
of Mental Health and Addiction Services is the executive head of 157716
the Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services. The 157717
Department of Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services and the 157718
Department of Mental Health shall be consolidated into the single 157719
Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services. All of the 157720
authority, functions, and assets and liabilities of the Department 157721
of Mental Health and the Department of Alcohol and Drug Addiction 157722
Services are transferred to the Department of Mental Health and 157723
Addiction Services. The Department of Mental Health and Addiction 157724
Services is thereupon and thereafter successor to, assumes the 157725
obligations of, and otherwise constitutes the continuation of the 157726
Department of Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services and the 157727
Department of Mental Health. The Director of Mental Health and 157728
Addiction Services assumes all of the duties, authorities, and 157729
responsibilities of the Director of Alcohol and Drug Addiction 157730
Services and the Director of Mental Health. Any action, license, 157731
or certification that was undertaken or issued by the Director of 157732
Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services or the Director of Mental 157733
Health that is current and valid on the effective date of the 157734
consolidation is deemed to be an action, license, or certification 157735
undertaken or issued by the Department of Mental Health and 157736
Addiction Services under the statute creating that Department. 157737

       Any business commenced but not completed by July 1, 2013, by 157738
the Department of Mental Health or the Department of Alcohol and 157739
Drug Addiction Services shall be completed by the Department of 157740
Mental Health and Addiction Services. The business shall be 157741
completed in the same manner, and with the same effect, as if 157742
completed by the Department of Mental Health or by the Department 157743
of Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services prior to July 1, 2013.157744

       No validation, cure, right, privilege, remedy, obligation, or 157745
liability is lost or impaired by reason of this act's transfer of 157746
responsibility from the Department of Mental Health and the 157747
Department of Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services to the 157748
Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services. Each such 157749
validation, cure, right, remedy, obligation, or liability shall be 157750
administered by the Department of Mental Health and Addiction 157751
Services pursuant to the statute creating that department.157752

       All rules, orders, and determinations made or undertaken 157753
pursuant to the authority and responsibilities of the Department 157754
of Mental Health and the Department of Alcohol and Drug Addiction 157755
Services prior to July 1, 2013, shall continue in effect as rules, 157756
orders, and determinations of the Department of Mental Health and 157757
Addiction Services until modified or rescinded by the Department 157758
of Mental Health and Addiction Services. If necessary to ensure 157759
the integrity of the numbering system of the Administrative Code, 157760
the Director of the Legislative Service Commission shall renumber 157761
the rules to reflect the transfer of authority and responsibility 157762
to the Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services.157763

       Any action or proceeding that is related to the functions or 157764
duties of the Department of Mental Health or the Department of 157765
Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services pending on July 1, 2013, is 157766
not affected by the transfer of responsibility to the Department 157767
of Mental Health and Addiction Services and shall be prosecuted or 157768
defended in the name of the Department of Mental Health and 157769
Addiction Services. In all such actions and proceedings, the 157770
Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services, on application 157771
to the court, shall be substituted as a party.157772

       It is the intention of the Department of Mental Health and 157773
Addiction Services that community subsidies allocated or 157774
distributed by the department will be used to fund mental health 157775
and addiction services in largely the same proportion that such 157776
services were funded when allocated or distributed as separate 157777
funding streams through the separate Department of Mental Health 157778
or Department of Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services.157779

       All employees of the Department of Mental Health and the 157780
Department of Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services shall be 157781
employees of the Department of Mental Health and Addiction 157782
Services and shall serve in the positions previously held within 157783
their respective agencies unless the Department of Mental Health 157784
and Addiction Services determines otherwise. The merger of 157785
Department of Mental Health and Department of Alcohol and Drug 157786
Addiction Services shall not be deemed a transfer of employees 157787
pursuant to division (D)(3)(b) of section 124.11 of the Revised 157788
Code. Any unclassified employee of the Department of Mental Health 157789
and Addiction Services who held a right to resume a position 157790
within the classified service of his or her previous respective 157791
agency of the Department of Mental Health or the Department of 157792
Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services shall retain such a right 157793
subject to section 5119.18 of the Revised Code as may be amended.157794

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, 157795
notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, and if 157796
requested by the Department of Mental Health and Addiction 157797
Services, the Director of Budget and Management shall make budget 157798
changes made necessary by the consolidation, if any, including 157799
administrative organization, program transfers, the creation of 157800
new funds, the transfer of state funds, and the consolidation of 157801
funds, as authorized by this section. The Director of Budget and 157802
Management may make any transfer of cash balances between funds. 157803

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 157804
Director of Mental Health and Addiction Services shall certify to 157805
the Director of Budget and Management all encumbrances held by the 157806
Department of Mental Health and the Department of Alcohol and Drug 157807
Addiction Services, and specify which of those encumbrances are 157808
requested to be transferred to the Department of Mental Health and 157809
Addiction Services. The Director of Budget and Management may 157810
cancel any existing encumbrances as certified by the Director of 157811
Mental Health and Addiction Services and re-establish them in the 157812
new agency. The re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby 157813
appropriated. Any business commenced but not completed with regard 157814
to the encumbrances certified shall be completed by the Department 157815
of Mental Health and Addiction Services in the same manner and 157816
with the same effect as if it were completed by the Department of 157817
Mental Health or the Department of Alcohol and Drug Addiction 157818
Services. 157819

       Not later than 30 days after the transfer and consolidation 157820
of the operations and related management functions of the 157821
Department of Mental Health and the Department of Alcohol and Drug 157822
Addiction Services to the Department of Mental Health and 157823
Addiction Services, an authorized officer of the former Department 157824
of Mental Health and the former Department of Alcohol and Drug 157825
Addiction Services shall certify to the Director of Mental Health 157826
and Addiction Services the unexpended balance and location of any 157827
funds and accounts designated for building and facility operation 157828
and management functions, and the custody of such funds and 157829
accounts shall be transferred to the Department of Mental Health 157830
and Addiction Services.157831

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 157832
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 157833
038616, Problem Gambling Services, and re-establish them against 157834
appropriation items 333641, Problem Gambling Services - 157835
Administration, and 335641, Problem Gambling Services. The 157836
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 157837
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 157838
038616 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 157839
items 333641 and 335641 in the same manner and with the same 157840
effect as if it were completed with regard to appropriation item 157841
038616.157842

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 157843
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 157844
038614, Substance Abuse Block Grant, and re-establish them against 157845
appropriation items 333618, Substance Abuse Block Grant - 157846
Administration, and 335618, Substance Abuse Block Grant. The 157847
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 157848
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 157849
038614 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 157850
items 333618 and 335618 in the same manner and with the same 157851
effect as if it were completed with regard to appropriation item 157852
038614. 157853

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 157854
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 157855
038609, Demonstration Grants, and re-establish them against 157856
appropriation items 333606, Demonstration Grants - Administration, 157857
and 335606, Demonstration Grants. The re-established encumbrance 157858
amounts are hereby appropriated. Any business commenced but not 157859
completed under appropriation item 038609 by July 1, 2013, shall 157860
be completed under appropriation items 333606 and 335606 in the 157861
same manner and with the same effect as if it were completed with 157862
regard to appropriation item 038609.157863

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 157864
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 157865
038621, Statewide Treatment and Prevention, and re-establish them 157866
against appropriation items 333623, Statewide Treatment and 157867
Prevention - Administration, and 335623, Statewide Treatment and 157868
Prevention. The re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby 157869
appropriated. Any business commenced but not completed under 157870
appropriation item 038621 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed 157871
under appropriation items 333623 and 335623 in the same manner and 157872
with the same effect as if it were completed with regard to 157873
appropriation item 038621.157874

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 157875
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 157876
038629, Problem Gambling and Casino Addictions, and re-establish 157877
them against appropriation items 333629, Problem Gambling and 157878
Casino Addictions - Administration, and 335629, Problem Gambling 157879
and Casino Addictions. The re-established encumbrance amounts are 157880
hereby appropriated. Any business commenced but not completed 157881
under appropriation item 038629 by July 1, 2013, shall be 157882
completed under appropriation items 333629 and 335629 in the same 157883
manner and with the same effect as if it were completed with 157884
regard to appropriation item 038629.157885

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 157886
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 157887
038611, Administrative Reimbursement, and re-establish them 157888
against appropriation item 333639, Administrative Reimbursement. 157889
The re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. 157890
Any business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 157891
038611 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 157892
item 333639 in the same manner and with the same effect as if it 157893
were completed with regard to appropriation item 038611.157894

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 157895
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 157896
335635, Community Medicaid Expansion, and re-establish them 157897
against appropriation item 652635, Community Medicaid Legacy 157898
Costs. The re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby 157899
appropriated. Any business commenced but not completed under 157900
appropriation item 335635 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed 157901
under appropriation item 652635 in the same manner and with the 157902
same effect as if it were completed with regard to appropriation 157903
item 335635.157904

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 157905
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 157906
333635, Community Medicaid Expansion, and re-establish them 157907
against appropriation item 652636, Community Medicaid Legacy 157908
Support. The re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby 157909
appropriated. Any business commenced but not completed under 157910
appropriation item 333635 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed 157911
under appropriation item 652636 in the same manner and with the 157912
same effect as if it were completed with regard to appropriation 157913
item 333635.157914

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 157915
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 157916
038610, Medicaid, and re-establish them against appropriation item 157917
652609, Medicaid Legacy Costs Support. The re-established 157918
encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any business 157919
commenced but not completed under appropriation item 038610 by 157920
July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation item 652609 157921
in the same manner and with the same effect as if it were 157922
completed with regard to appropriation item 038610.157923

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 157924
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 157925
038604, Education and Conferences, and re-establish them against 157926
appropriation item 333640, Education and Conferences. The 157927
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 157928
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 157929
038604 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 157930
item 333640 in the same manner and with the same effect as if it 157931
were completed with regard to appropriation item 038604.157932

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 157933
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 157934
038401, Treatment Services, and re-establish them against 157935
appropriation items 335421, Continuum of Care Services, 335422, 157936
Criminal Justice Services, and 335406, Prevention and Wellness. 157937
The re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. 157938
Any business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 157939
038401 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 157940
items 335421, 335422, and 335406 in the same manner and with the 157941
same effect as if it were completed with regard to appropriation 157942
item 038401.157943

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 157944
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 157945
335419, Community Medication Subsidy, and re-establish them 157946
against appropriation item 335421, Continuum of Care Services. The 157947
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 157948
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 157949
335419 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 157950
item 335421 in the same manner and with the same effect as if it 157951
were completed with regard to appropriation item 335419.157952

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 157953
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 157954
335505, Local Mental Health Systems of Care, and re-establish them 157955
against appropriation item 335421, Continuum of Care Services. The 157956
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 157957
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 157958
335505 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 157959
item 335421 in the same manner and with the same effect as if it 157960
were completed with regard to appropriation item 335505.157961

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 157962
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 157963
332401, Forensic Services, and re-establish them against 157964
appropriation item 335422, Criminal Justice Services. The 157965
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 157966
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 157967
332401 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 157968
item 335422 in the same manner and with the same effect as if it 157969
were completed with regard to appropriation item 332401.157970

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 157971
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 157972
333403, Pre-Admission Screening Expenses, and re-establish them 157973
against appropriation item 652507, Medicaid Support. The 157974
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 157975
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 157976
333403 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 157977
item 652507 in the same manner and with the same effect as if it 157978
were completed with regard to appropriation item 333403.157979

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 157980
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 157981
038900, Indigent Drivers Alcohol Treatment, and re-establish them 157982
against appropriation item 335900, Indigent Drivers Alcohol 157983
Treatment. The re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby 157984
appropriated. Any business commenced but not completed under 157985
appropriation item 038900 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed 157986
under appropriation item 335900 in the same manner and with the 157987
same effect as if it were completed with regard to appropriation 157988
item 038900.157989

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 157990
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 157991
038404, Prevention Services, and re-establish them against 157992
appropriation item 335406, Prevention and Wellness. The 157993
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 157994
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 157995
038404 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 157996
item 335406 in the same manner and with the same effect as if it 157997
were completed with regard to appropriation item 038404.157998

       Section 327.20.10. Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of 157999
Mental Health and Addiction Services, with respect to all mental 158000
health and addiction facilities and services established and 158001
operated or provided under Chapter 340. of the Revised Code shall 158002
do all of the following:158003

       (A) To the extent the Director determines necessary, and 158004
after consultation with the boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 158005
mental health services, develop and operate, or contract for the 158006
operation of, a community behavioral health information system or 158007
systems, and shall specify the information that must be provided 158008
by boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 158009
for inclusion in the system or systems, which may include 158010
information on services provided in whole or in part under 158011
contract with a board, financial information regarding 158012
expenditures of federal, state, or local funds by boards, and 158013
information about persons served under contract with a board. 158014

       (B)(1) Receive and review each board's community mental 158015
health and addiction services plan, budget, and statement of 158016
services to be made available, and approve or disapprove the plan, 158017
budget, and statement of services in whole or in part. 158018

       (2) The Department may withhold all or part of the funds 158019
allocated to a board if it disapproves all or part of a plan, 158020
budget, or statement of service. 158021

       (3) Prior to a final decision to disapprove a plan, budget, 158022
or statement of services, or to withhold funds from a board, a 158023
representative of the Director shall meet with the board to 158024
discuss the reasons for the action and any corrective action that 158025
should be taken to make the plan, budget, or statement of services 158026
acceptable, and give the board a reasonable time in which to 158027
revise the plan, budget, or statement of services. 158028

       (C) Establish procedures for the review of plans, budgets, 158029
and statements of services, and a timetable for submission and 158030
review. Boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 158031
services shall submit to the Department of Mental Health and 158032
Addiction Services the information, plans, budgets, and statements 158033
of services described above in accordance with the guidance or 158034
directives of the Department or Director. After notifying and 158035
consulting with relevant constituents, the Department of Mental 158036
Health and Addiction Services shall establish a methodology for 158037
allocating to boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 158038
services the funds appropriated by the General Assembly to the 158039
Department for the purpose of local mental health and addiction 158040
services continuums of care. Subject to existing provisions of law 158041
that permit the Director to withhold funds from boards of alcohol, 158042
drug addiction, and mental health services for failure to comply 158043
with applicable sections of law, or for discriminating in making 158044
services available, and subject to a board's submission and 158045
approval of the required plan, budget, and statement of services 158046
described above, the Department shall allocate the funds to the 158047
boards in a manner consistent with the methodology and state and 158048
federal laws, rules, and regulations. 158049

       Portions of appropriation items 333609, Central Office 158050
Operating, 333606, Demonstration Grants - Administration, 333612, 158051
Social Services Block Grant - Administration, 333613, Federal 158052
Grants - Administration, 333614, Mental Health Block Grant - 158053
Administration, 333618, Substance Abuse Block Grant - 158054
Administration, 333623, Statewide Treatment and Prevention - 158055
Administration, 333629, Problem Gambling and Casino Addictions - 158056
Administration, 333608, Federal Miscellaneous - Administration, 158057
333641, Problem Gambling Services - Administration, 335406, 158058
Prevention and Wellness, 335421, Continuum of Care Services, 158059
335422, Criminal Justice Services, 335604, Community Mental Health 158060
Projects, 335606, Demonstration Grants, 335612, Social Services 158061
Block Grant, 335613, Federal Grant - Community Mental Health 158062
Subsidy, 335614, Mental Health Block Grant, 335615, Behavioral 158063
Health Care, 335618, Substance Abuse Block Grant, 335623, 158064
Statewide Treatment and Prevention, 335629, Problem Gambling and 158065
Casino Addictions, 335638, Race to the Top - Early Learning 158066
Challenge Grant, and 335900, Indigent Drivers Alcohol Treatment, 158067
may be used to pay for the Department and board functions 158068
enumerated above. 158069

       Section 327.20.20. (A) Effective July 1, 2013, all records 158070
and reports, other than court journal entries or court docket 158071
entries, identifying a person and pertaining to the person's 158072
mental health condition, assessment, provision of care or 158073
treatment, or payment for assessment, care, or treatment that are 158074
maintained in connection with any services certified by the 158075
Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services, or any 158076
hospitals or facilities licensed or operated by the Department, 158077
shall be kept confidential and shall not be disclosed by any 158078
person, with the following exceptions:158079

       (1) If the person identified, or the person's legal guardian, 158080
if any, or if the person is a minor, the person's parent or legal 158081
guardian, consents. 158082

       (2) When disclosure is provided for in Chapters 340., 5119., 158083
or 5122., or in Title 47 of the Revised Code. 158084

       (3) Hospitals, boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 158085
health services, licensed facilities, and community mental health 158086
services providers may release necessary information to insurers 158087
and other third-party payers, including government entities 158088
responsible for processing and authorizing payment, to obtain 158089
payment for goods and services furnished to the person.158090

       (4) Pursuant to a court order signed by a judge; 158091

       (5) A person shall be granted access to the person's own 158092
psychiatric and medical records unless access specifically is 158093
restricted in a person's treatment plan for clear treatment 158094
reasons. 158095

       (6) The Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services 158096
may exchange psychiatric records and other pertinent information 158097
with community mental health services providers and boards of 158098
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services relating to 158099
the person's care or services. Records and information that may be 158100
exchanged pursuant to this division shall be limited to medication 158101
history, physical health status and history, financial status, 158102
summary of course of treatment, summary of treatment needs, and a 158103
discharge summary, if any.158104

       (7) The Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services, 158105
hospitals, and community providers operated by the Department, 158106
hospitals licensed by the Department under section 5119.20 158107
(5119.33) of the Revised Code and community mental health services 158108
providers may exchange psychiatric records and other pertinent 158109
information with payers and other providers of treatment and 158110
health services if the purpose of the exchange is to facilitate 158111
continuity of care for the person or for the emergency treatment 158112
of the person. 158113

       (8) The Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services 158114
and community mental health services providers may exchange 158115
psychiatric records and other pertinent information with boards of 158116
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services for purposes 158117
of any board function set forth in Chapter 340. of the Revised 158118
Code. Boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 158119
services shall not access or use any personal information from the 158120
Department or providers except as required or permitted by this 158121
section, or Chapters 340. and 5122. of the Revised Code for 158122
purposes related to payment, care coordination, health care 158123
operations, program and service evaluation, reporting activities, 158124
research, system administration, oversight, or other authorized 158125
purposes. 158126

       (9) A person's family member who is involved in the 158127
provision, planning, and monitoring of services to the person may 158128
receive medication information, a summary of the person's 158129
diagnosis and prognosis, and a list of the services and personnel 158130
available to assist the person and the person's family, if the 158131
person's treatment provider determines that the disclosure would 158132
be in the best interests of the person. No such disclosure shall 158133
be made unless the person is notified first and receives the 158134
information and does not object to the disclosure. 158135

       (10) Community mental health services providers may exchange 158136
psychiatric records and certain other information with the board 158137
of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services and other 158138
providers in order to provide services to a person involuntarily 158139
committed to a board. Release of records under this division shall 158140
be limited to medication history, physical health status and 158141
history, financial status, summary of course of treatment, summary 158142
of treatment needs, and discharge summary, if any. 158143

       (11) Information may be disclosed to the executor or the 158144
administrator of an estate of a deceased person when the 158145
information is necessary to administer the estate. 158146

       (12) Information may be disclosed to staff members of the 158147
appropriate board or to staff members designated by the Director 158148
of Mental Health and Addiction Services for the purpose of 158149
evaluating the quality, effectiveness, and efficiency of services 158150
and determining if the services meet minimum standards. 158151
Information obtained during such evaluations shall not be retained 158152
with the name of any person. 158153

       (13) Records pertaining to the person's diagnosis, course of 158154
treatment, treatment needs, and prognosis shall be disclosed and 158155
released to the appropriate prosecuting attorney if the person was 158156
committed pursuant to section 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, 158157
or 2945.402 of the Revised Code, or to the attorney designated by 158158
the board for proceedings pursuant to involuntary commitment under 158159
Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code. 158160

       (14) The Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services 158161
may exchange psychiatric hospitalization records, other mental 158162
health treatment records, and other pertinent information with the 158163
Department of Rehabilitation and Correction and with the 158164
Department of Youth Services to ensure continuity of care for 158165
inmates and offenders who are receiving mental health services in 158166
an institution of the Department of Rehabilitation and Correction 158167
or the Department of Youth Services and may exchange psychiatric 158168
hospitalization records, other mental health treatment records, 158169
and other pertinent information with boards of alcohol, drug 158170
addiction, and mental health services and community mental health 158171
services providers to ensure continuity of care for inmates or 158172
offenders who are receiving mental health services in an 158173
institution and are scheduled for release within six months. The 158174
release of records under this division is limited to records 158175
regarding an inmate's or offender's medication history, physical 158176
health status and history, summary of course of treatment, summary 158177
of treatment needs, and a discharge summary, if any. 158178

       (15) A community mental health services provider that ceases 158179
to operate may transfer to either a community mental health 158180
services provider that assumes its caseload or to the board of 158181
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services of the service 158182
district in which the person resided at the time services were 158183
most recently provided any treatment records that have not been 158184
transferred elsewhere at the person's request. 158185

       (B) Before records are disclosed pursuant to divisions 158186
(A)(3), (6), or (10) of this section, the custodian of the records 158187
shall attempt to obtain the consent of the person in question for 158188
the disclosure. 158189

       (C) No person shall reveal the content of a medical record of 158190
a person except as authorized by the law. 158191

       (D) Portions of appropriation items 333321, Central 158192
Administration, 333416, Research Program Evaluation, 333605, 158193
Medicaid/Medicare - Refunds, 333606, Demonstration Grants - 158194
Administration, 333608, Federal Miscellaneous - Administration, 158195
333609, Central Office Opening, 333611, Non-Federal Miscellaneous, 158196
333612, Social Services Block Grant - Administration, 333613, 158197
Federal Grants - Administration, 333614, Mental Health Block Grant 158198
- Administration, 333618, Substance Abuse Block Grant - 158199
Administration, 333621, Family and Children First Administration, 158200
333623, Statewide Treatment and Prevention - Administration, 158201
333629, Problem Gambling and Casino Addictions - Administration, 158202
333632, Mental Health Operating - Refunds, 333608, Federal 158203
Miscellaneous - Administration, 333640, Education and Conferences, 158204
333641, Problem Gambling Services - Administration, 333639, 158205
Administrative Reimbursement, 334605, Medicaid/Medicare - 158206
Hospitals, 334608, Federal Miscellaneous - Hospitals, 334609, 158207
Hospital - Operating Expenses, 334613, Federal Letter of Credit, 158208
334620, Special Education, 334632, Mental Health Operating - 158209
Hospitals, 335405, Family and Children First, 335406, Prevention 158210
and Wellness, 335421, Continuum of Care Services, 335422, Criminal 158211
Justice Services, 335604, Community Mental Health Projects, 158212
335506, Residential State Supplement, 335608, Federal 158213
Miscellaneous, 335606, Demonstration Grants, 335612, Social 158214
Services Block Grant, 335613, Federal Grant - Community Mental 158215
Health Subsidy, 335614, Mental Health Block Grant, 335615, 158216
Behavioral Health Care, 335618, Substance Abuse Block Grant, 158217
335623, Statewide Treatment and Prevention, 335629, Problem 158218
Gambling and Casino Addictions, 335638, Race to the Top - Early 158219
Learning Challenge Grant, 335900, Indigent Drivers Alcohol 158220
Treatment, 336601, Office of Support Services, 652609, Medicaid 158221
Legacy Costs Support, 652635, Community Medicaid Legacy Costs, and 158222
652636, Community Medicaid Legacy Support, may be used to pay for 158223
the Department and community mental health system functions that 158224
operate under the confidentiality provisions enumerated above. 158225

       Section 327.20.30. Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of 158226
Mental Health and Addiction Services may adopt rules pursuant to 158227
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code governing licensure and operation 158228
of residential facilities, that include procedures for conducting 158229
criminal records checks for operators, employees, and volunteers 158230
who have direct access to facility residents.158231

        Portions of appropriation items 334506, Court Costs, 335406, 158232
Prevention and Wellness, 335421, Continuum of Care Services, 158233
335614, Mental Health Block Grant, 335506, Residential State 158234
Supplement, 335615, Behavioral Health Care, 335618, Substance 158235
Abuse Block Grant, 335623, Statewide Treatment and Prevention, and 158236
335900, Indigent Drivers Alcohol Treatment, may be used to pay for 158237
these regulated activities.158238

       Section 327.20.40.  Effective July 1, 2013, to the extent 158239
funds are available and on application of boards of alcohol, drug 158240
addiction, and mental health services, the Director of Mental 158241
Health and Addiction Services may approve state reimbursement of, 158242
or state grants for, community construction programs, including 158243
residential housing for severely mentally disabled persons and 158244
persons with substance use disorders. The Director may also 158245
approve an application for reimbursement or a grant for such 158246
programs submitted by other governmental entities or by private, 158247
nonprofit organizations after the board of alcohol, drug 158248
addiction, and mental health services has reviewed and approved 158249
the application and the application is consistent with the plan, 158250
budget, and statement of services submitted to and approved by the 158251
Department. The Director shall adopt rules in accordance with 158252
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that specify procedures for 158253
applying for state reimbursement and for state grants for 158254
community construction programs, including residential housing for 158255
severely mentally disabled persons and persons with substance use 158256
disorders.158257

        Portions of appropriation item 335616, Community Capital 158258
Replacement, may be used to pay for the Department functions 158259
enumerated above.158260

       Section 327.20.50.  Effective July 1, 2013, the Department of 158261
Mental Health and Addiction Services shall collect information 158262
about services delivered and persons served as required for 158263
reporting and evaluation relating to state and federal funds 158264
expended for such purposes. No alcohol, drug addiction, or mental 158265
health program, agency, or services provider shall fail to supply 158266
statistics or other information within its knowledge and with 158267
respect to its programs or services upon the request of the 158268
department.158269

       Portions of appropriation items 333321, Central 158270
Administration, 333609 Central Office Operating, 333606, 158271
Demonstration Grants - Administration, 333612, Social Services 158272
Block Grant - Administration, 333613, Federal Grants - 158273
Administration, 333614, Mental Health Block Grant - 158274
Administration, 333618, Substance Abuse Block Grant - 158275
Administration, 333623, Statewide Treatment and Prevention - 158276
Administration, 333629, Problem Gambling and Casino Addictions - 158277
Administration, 333608, Federal Miscellaneous - Administration, 158278
333641, Problem Gambling Services - Administration, 335406, 158279
Prevention and Wellness, 335421, Continuum of Care Services, 158280
335422, Criminal Justice Services, 335604, Community Mental Health 158281
Projects, 335606, Demonstration Grants, 335612, Social Services 158282
Block Grant, 335613, Federal Grant - Community Mental Health 158283
Subsidy, 335614, Mental Health Block Grant, 335615, Behavioral 158284
Health Care, 335618, Substance Abuse Block Grant, 335623, 158285
Statewide Treatment and Prevention, 335629, Problem Gambling and 158286
Casino Addictions, 335638, Race to the Top - Early Learning 158287
Challenge Grant, and 335900, Indigent Drivers Alcohol Treatment, 158288
652609, Medicaid Legacy Costs Support, and 652636, Community 158289
Medicaid Legacy Support, may be used to pay for the Department 158290
information collection and reporting functions enumerated above.158291

       Section 327.20.60. The Department of Mental Health and 158292
Addiction Services shall administer specified Medicaid services as 158293
delegated by the State's single agency responsible for the 158294
Medicaid program. Effective July 1, 2013, the Department shall use 158295
appropriation item 652507, Medicaid Support, to fund the 158296
Medicaid-related services and supports performed by the 158297
Department.158298

       Section 327.30. RESIDENT TRAINEES158299

       The foregoing appropriation item 333402, Resident Trainees, 158300
shall be used to fund training agreements entered into by the 158301
Director of Mental Health and Addiction Services for the 158302
development of curricula and the provision of training programs to 158303
support public mental health services.158304

       Section 327.40. LEASE-RENTAL PAYMENTS158305

       The foregoing appropriation item 333415, Lease-Rental 158306
Payments, shall be used to meet all payments at the times they are 158307
required to be made during the period from July 1, 2013, through 158308
June 30, 2015, by the Department of Mental Health and Addiction 158309
Services under leases and agreements made under section 154.20 of 158310
the Revised Code. These appropriations are the source of funds 158311
pledged for bond service charges on obligations issued pursuant to 158312
Chapter 154. of the Revised Code.158313

       Section 327.50. HOSPITAL SERVICES158314

       The foregoing appropriation item 334412, Hospital Services, 158315
shall be used for the operation of the State Regional Psychiatric 158316
Hospitals, including, but not limited to, all aspects involving 158317
civil and forensic commitment, treatment, and discharge as 158318
determined by the Director of Mental Health and Addiction 158319
Services. A portion of this appropriation may be used by the 158320
Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services to create, 158321
purchase, or contract for the custody, supervision, control, and 158322
treatment of persons committed to the Department of Mental Health 158323
and Addiction Services in other clinically appropriate 158324
environments, consistent with public safety.158325

       Section 327.60. CONTINUUM OF CARE SERVICES158326

       The foregoing appropriation item 335421, Continuum of Care 158327
Services, shall be used as follows:158328

       (A) A portion of this appropriation shall be allocated to 158329
community alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 158330
boards in accordance with a distribution methodology determined by 158331
the Director of Mental Health and Addiction Services:158332

       (1) For the boards to purchase mental health and addiction 158333
services permitted under Chapter 340. of the Revised Code;158334

       (2) To provide subsidized support for psychotropic medication 158335
needs of indigent citizens in the community to reduce unnecessary 158336
hospitalization due to lack of medication; and158337

       (3) To provide subsidized support for medication assisted 158338
treatment costs.158339

       (B) A portion of this appropriation may be distributed to 158340
community alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 158341
boards, community addiction and/or mental health services 158342
providers, courts, or other governmental entities to provide 158343
specific grants in support of mental health and addiction services 158344
initiatives.158345

        (C) In fiscal year 2014 $250,000 and in fiscal year 2015 158346
$750,000 shall be allocated to the Human Trafficking Center at The 158347
Ohio State University. The Center shall use the funds to 158348
investigate all aspects of human trafficking, including research, 158349
training, and direct services for victims. The Center shall do all 158350
of the following:158351

        (1) Provide research opportunities in areas affecting human 158352
trafficking, including topics such as socioeconomic, political, 158353
and cultural factors involved in human trafficking;158354

        (2) Develop assessments and other tools to help human 158355
trafficking victims or service providers, including online 158356
training courses for law enforcement and social and medical 158357
service personnel on how best to identify and treat victims of 158358
human trafficking;158359

        (3) Offer internships, clinical hours, and other training 158360
opportunities for undergraduate and graduate students;158361

        (4) Provide direct services and care for victims of human 158362
trafficking; and158363

       (5) Collaborate with community affiliates and other 158364
institutions of higher education engaged in human trafficking 158365
research, training, and direct victim services.158366

       (D) $669,446 in fiscal year 2014 and $569,446 in fiscal year 158367
2015 shall be allocated to the Geauga County Board of Mental 158368
Health and Recovery Services to support the Chardon Pilot Program. 158369
The Chardon Pilot Program shall support the behavioral health 158370
needs of the Chardon community. The board shall distribute 158371
$469,446 of these funds in fiscal year 2014 and $369,446 of these 158372
funds in fiscal year 2015 to the Chardon school district to be 158373
used for program-related activities. The Department of Mental 158374
Health and Addiction Services shall submit a report to the General 158375
Assembly in accordance with section 101.68 of the Revised Code 158376
regarding the performance of the program by September 30, 2015.158377

       Section 327.70. CRIMINAL JUSTICE SERVICES158378

       The foregoing appropriation item 335422, Criminal Justice 158379
Services, shall be used to provide forensic psychiatric 158380
evaluations to courts of common pleas and to conduct evaluations 158381
of patients of forensic status in facilities operated or 158382
designated by the Department of Mental Health and Addiction 158383
Services prior to conditional release to the community. A portion 158384
of this appropriation may be allocated through community alcohol, 158385
drug addiction, and mental health services boards to community 158386
addiction and/or mental health services providers in accordance 158387
with a distribution methodology as determined by the Director of 158388
Mental Health and Addiction Services.158389

       Appropriation item 335422, Criminal Justice Services, may 158390
also be used to:158391

       (A) Provide forensic monitoring and tracking of individuals 158392
on conditional release;158393

       (B) Provide forensic training;158394

       (C) Support projects that assist courts and law enforcement 158395
to identify and develop appropriate alternative services to 158396
incarceration for nonviolent mentally ill offenders;158397

       (D) Provide specialized re-entry services to offenders 158398
leaving prisons and jails;158399

       (E) Provide specific grants in support of addiction services 158400
alternatives to incarceration;158401

       (F) Support specialty dockets; and158402

       (G) Support therapeutic communities.158403

       Section 327.80. COMMUNITY INNOVATIONS158404

       The foregoing appropriation item 335504, Community 158405
Innovations, may be used by the Department of Mental Health and 158406
Addiction Services to make targeted investments in programs, 158407
projects, or systems operated by or under the authority of other 158408
state agencies, governmental entities, or private not-for-profit 158409
agencies that impact, or are impacted by, the operations and 158410
functions of the Department, with the goal of achieving a net 158411
reduction in expenditure of state general revenue funds and/or 158412
improved outcomes for Ohio citizens without a net increase in 158413
state general revenue fund spending.158414

       The Director shall identify and evaluate programs, projects, 158415
or systems proposed or operated, in whole or in part, outside of 158416
the authority of the Department, where targeted investment of 158417
these funds in the program, project, or system is expected to 158418
decrease demand for the Department or other resources funded with 158419
state general revenue funds, and/or to measurably improve outcomes 158420
for Ohio citizens with mental illness or with alcohol, drug, or 158421
gambling addictions. The Director shall have discretion to 158422
transfer money from the appropriation item to other state 158423
agencies, governmental entities, or private not-for-profit 158424
agencies in amounts, and subject to conditions, that the Director 158425
determines most likely to achieve state savings and/or improved 158426
outcomes. Distribution of moneys from this appropriation item 158427
shall not be subject to sections 9.23 to 9.239 or Chapter 125. of 158428
the Revised Code. 158429

       The Department shall enter into an agreement with each 158430
recipient of community innovation funds, identifying: allowable 158431
expenditure of the funds; other commitment of funds or other 158432
resources to the program, project, or system; expected state 158433
savings and/or improved outcomes and proposed mechanisms for 158434
measurement of such savings or outcomes; and required reporting 158435
regarding expenditure of funds and savings or outcomes achieved.158436

       The foregoing appropriation item 335504, Community 158437
Innovations, may also be used by the Department to make payments 158438
to the Opportunities for Ohioans with Disabilities Agency for 158439
vocational rehabilitation services to individuals receiving mental 158440
health or addiction services paid for with public dollars.158441

       Section 327.83. COMMUNITY BEHAVIORAL HEALTH158442

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 335507, Community 158443
Behavioral Health, $30,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be 158444
allocated to community alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 158445
services boards to provide mental health services.158446

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 335507, Community 158447
Behavioral Health, $17,500,000 in each fiscal year shall be 158448
allocated to community alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 158449
services boards to be used for addiction services including 158450
medication, treatment programs, and counseling.158451

       Section 327.90. COMMUNITY OPERATING/PLANNING158452

       Appropriation item 335609, Community Operating/Planning, may 158453
be used by the Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services 158454
to make payments to the Opportunities for Ohioans with 158455
Disabilities Agency for vocational rehabilitation services to 158456
individuals receiving mental health or addiction services paid for 158457
with public dollars.158458

       In addition, appropriation item 335609, Community 158459
Operating/Planning, may be used by the Department to make 158460
incentive payments to operators of residential facilities that are 158461
licensed by the Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services 158462
and provide accommodations and personal care services for one or 158463
two unrelated adults or accommodations, supervision, and personal 158464
care services for three to sixteen unrelated adults. The incentive 158465
payments shall be granted based upon operators demonstrating 158466
linkage between their facilities' residents and community 158467
resources, based on the residents' needs including, but not 158468
limited to, aged, mental health, and physical health issues. The 158469
financial incentive shall be used to support community living for 158470
individuals with a disability or who are aged, and to assist with 158471
costs arising from facility operations.158472

       Appropriation item 335609, Community Operating/Planning, may 158473
also be used by the Department to support non-Medicaid program 158474
costs for individuals moving into community settings.158475

       Section 327.93. PROBLEM GAMBLING AND CASINO ADDICTIONS158476

       A portion of appropriation item 335629, Problem Gambling and 158477
Casino Addictions, shall be allocated to boards of alcohol, drug 158478
addiction, and mental health services in accordance with a 158479
distribution methodology determined by the Director of Mental 158480
Health and Addiction Services.158481

       Section 327.100. RESIDENTIAL STATE SUPPLEMENT158482

       (A) As used in this section:158483

       (1) "Residential facility" means a facility licensed by the 158484
Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services under section 158485
5119.34 of the Revised Code.158486

       (2) "Residential care facility" means a facility licensed by 158487
the Director of Health under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code or 158488
by a political subdivision certified under section 3721.09 of the 158489
Revised Code.158490

       (B) The foregoing appropriation item 335506, Residential 158491
State Supplement, may be used by the Department of Mental Health 158492
and Addiction Services to provide training for residential 158493
facilities providing accommodations, supervision, and personal 158494
care services to three to sixteen unrelated adults with mental 158495
illness, to transfer cash to the Nursing Home Franchise Permit Fee 158496
Fund (Fund 5R20) used by the Department of Job and Family 158497
Services, and to make benefit payments to residential state 158498
supplement recipients. 158499

       (C) Under the Residential State Supplement Program, the 158500
amount used to determine whether a resident is eligible for 158501
payment, and for determining the amount per month the eligible 158502
resident will receive, shall be as follows: 158503

       (1) $927 for a residential care facility; 158504

       (2) $927 for a residential facility that provides 158505
accommodations, supervision, and personal care services for six to 158506
sixteen unrelated adults as described in section 5119.34 of the 158507
Revised Code;158508

       (3) $824 for a residential facility that provides 158509
accommodations, supervision, and personal care services for one or 158510
two unrelated adults as described in division (A)(9)(b)(ii) of 158511
section 5119.34 of the Revised Code;158512

       (4) $824 for a residential facility providing accommodations, 158513
supervision, and personal care services to three to five unrelated 158514
adults, as described in section 5119.34 of the Revised Code;158515

       (5) $824 for a residential facility that provides 158516
accommodations, supervision, and personal care services for one or 158517
two unrelated persons with mental illness or persons with severe 158518
mental disabilities who are referred by or are receiving mental 158519
health services from a community mental health services provider 158520
or a hospital, as described in division (A)(9)(b)(i) of section 158521
5119.34 of the Revised Code;158522

       (6) $618 for community mental health housing services, as 158523
described in division (D)(1)(c) of section 5119.41 of the Revised 158524
Code.158525

       The Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services shall 158526
reflect these amounts in any applicable rules the Department 158527
adopts under section 5119.41 of the Revised Code.158528

       (D) The Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services 158529
shall, with the input of stakeholders and impacted state agencies, 158530
conduct a review of the state and federal rules and statutes 158531
governing the Residential State Supplement Program and report on 158532
potential improvements to be made in governing the program not 158533
later than January 1, 2014.158534

       Section 327.110. FAMILY AND CHILDREN FIRST FLEXIBLE FUNDING 158535
POOL158536

       A county family and children first council may establish and 158537
operate a flexible funding pool in order to assure access to 158538
needed services by families, children, and older adults in need of 158539
protective services. The operation of the flexible funding pools 158540
shall be subject to the following restrictions:158541

       (A) The county council shall establish and operate the 158542
flexible funding pool in accordance with formal guidance issued by 158543
the Family and Children First Cabinet Council; 158544

       (B) The county council shall produce an annual report on its 158545
use of the pooled funds. The annual report shall conform to a 158546
format prescribed in the formal guidance issued by the Family and 158547
Children First Cabinet Council; 158548

       (C) Unless otherwise restricted, funds transferred to the 158549
flexible funding pool may include state general revenues allocated 158550
to local entities to support the provision of services to families 158551
and children; 158552

       (D) The amounts transferred to the flexible funding pool 158553
shall be limited to amounts that can be redirected without 158554
impairing the achievement of the objectives for which the initial 158555
allocation is designated; and158556

       (E) Each amount transferred to the flexible funding pool from 158557
a specific allocation shall be approved for transfer by the 158558
director of the local agency that was the original recipient of 158559
the allocation. 158560

       Section 329.10. MIH COMMISSION ON MINORITY HEALTH158561

General Revenue Fund158562

GRF 149321 Operating Expenses $ 581,490 $ 591,615 158563
GRF 149501 Minority Health Grants $ 889,100 $ 878,975 158564
GRF 149502 Lupus Program $ 110,047 $ 110,047 158565
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 1,580,637 $ 1,580,637 158566

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group158567

3J90 149602 Federal Grants $ 140,000 $ 140,000 158568
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 158569
Fund Group $ 140,000 $ 140,000 158570

State Special Revenue Fund Group158571

4C20 149601 Minority Health Conference $ 25,000 $ 25,000 158572
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 158573
Fund Group $ 25,000 $ 25,000 158574
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,745,637 $ 1,745,637 158575


       Section 331.10. CRB MOTOR VEHICLE REPAIR BOARD158577

General Services Fund Group158578

4K90 865601 Operating Expenses $ 487,592 $ 484,292 158579
TOTAL GSF General Services 158580
Fund Group $ 487,592 $ 484,292 158581
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 487,592 $ 484,292 158582


       Section 333.10. DNR DEPARTMENT OF NATURAL RESOURCES158584

General Revenue Fund158585

GRF 725401 Wildlife-GRF Central Support $ 1,800,000 $ 1,800,000 158586
GRF 725413 Lease Rental Payments $ 21,622,900 $ 23,943,400 158587
GRF 725456 Canal Lands $ 135,000 $ 135,000 158588
GRF 725502 Soil and Water Districts $ 2,900,000 $ 2,900,000 158589
GRF 725505 Healthy Lake Erie Fund $ 650,000 $ 500,000 158590
GRF 725507 Coal and Mine Safety Program $ 2,500,000 $ 2,500,000 158591
GRF 725903 Natural Resources General Obligation Debt Service $ 24,325,400 $ 25,443,000 158592
GRF 727321 Division of Forestry $ 4,392,002 $ 4,392,001 158593
GRF 728321 Division of Geological Survey $ 800,000 $ 800,000 158594
GRF 729321 Office of Information Technology $ 177,405 $ 177,405 158595
GRF 730321 Division of Parks and Recreation $ 30,000,000 $ 30,000,000 158596
GRF 736321 Division of Engineering $ 2,279,115 $ 2,324,736 158597
GRF 737321 Division of Soil and Water Resources $ 4,782,704 $ 4,782,652 158598
GRF 738321 Division of Real Estate and Land Management $ 715,963 $ 670,342 158599
GRF 741321 Division of Natural Areas and Preserves $ 1,200,000 $ 1,200,000 158600
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 98,280,489 $ 101,568,536 158601

General Services Fund Group158602

1550 725601 Departmental Projects $ 2,109,968 $ 1,839,204 158603
1570 725651 Central Support Indirect $ 4,609,154 $ 4,671,566 158604
2040 725687 Information Services $ 5,179,097 $ 5,288,168 158605
2050 725696 Human Resource Direct Service $ 2,474,345 $ 2,526,662 158606
2070 725690 Real Estate Services $ 50,000 $ 50,000 158607
2230 725665 Law Enforcement Administration $ 2,126,432 $ 2,126,432 158608
2270 725406 Parks Projects Personnel $ 436,500 $ 436,500 158609
4300 725671 Canal Lands $ 883,879 $ 883,879 158610
4S90 725622 NatureWorks Personnel $ 404,657 $ 412,570 158611
4X80 725662 Water Resources Council $ 138,005 $ 138,005 158612
5100 725631 Maintenance - State-owned Residences $ 303,611 $ 303,611 158613
5160 725620 Water Management $ 2,559,292 $ 2,559,292 158614
6350 725664 Fountain Square Facilities Management $ 3,329,935 $ 3,346,259 158615
6970 725670 Submerged Lands $ 852,982 $ 869,145 158616
TOTAL GSF General Services 158617
Fund Group $ 25,457,857 $ 25,451,293 158618

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group158619

3320 725669 Federal Mine Safety Grant $ 265,000 $ 265,000 158620
3B30 725640 Federal Forest Pass-Thru $ 500,000 $ 500,000 158621
3B40 725641 Federal Flood Pass-Thru $ 500,000 $ 500,000 158622
3B50 725645 Federal Abandoned Mine Lands $ 11,851,759 $ 11,851,759 158623
3B60 725653 Federal Land and Water Conservation Grants $ 950,000 $ 950,000 158624
3B70 725654 Reclamation - Regulatory $ 3,200,000 $ 3,200,000 158625
3P10 725632 Geological Survey - Federal $ 933,448 $ 557,146 158626
3P20 725642 Oil and Gas - Federal $ 234,509 $ 234,509 158627
3P30 725650 Coastal Management - Federal $ 2,790,633 $ 2,790,633 158628
3P40 725660 Federal - Soil and Water Resources $ 969,190 $ 1,006,874 158629
3R50 725673 Acid Mine Drainage Abatement/Treatment $ 4,342,280 $ 4,342,280 158630
3Z50 725657 Federal Recreation and Trails $ 1,850,000 $ 1,850,000 158631
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 158632
Fund Group $ 28,386,819 $ 28,048,201 158633

State Special Revenue Fund Group158634

4J20 725628 Injection Well Review $ 128,466 $ 128,466 158635
4M70 725686 Wildfire Suppression $ 100,000 $ 100,000 158636
4U60 725668 Scenic Rivers Protection $ 100,000 $ 100,000 158637
5090 725602 State Forest $ 6,873,330 $ 6,880,158 158638
5110 725646 Ohio Geological Mapping $ 1,220,690 $ 1,993,519 158639
5120 725605 State Parks Operations $ 29,654,880 $ 29,671,044 158640
5140 725606 Lake Erie Shoreline $ 1,559,583 $ 1,559,583 158641
5180 725643 Oil and Gas Permit Fees $ 12,812,311 $ 13,140,201 158642
5180 725677 Oil and Gas Well Plugging $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 158643
5210 725627 Off-Road Vehicle Trails $ 143,490 $ 143,490 158644
5220 725656 Natural Areas and Preserves $ 546,639 $ 546,639 158645
5260 725610 Strip Mining Administration Fee $ 1,800,000 $ 1,800,000 158646
5270 725637 Surface Mining Administration $ 1,941,532 $ 1,941,532 158647
5290 725639 Unreclaimed Land Fund $ 1,804,180 $ 1,804,180 158648
5310 725648 Reclamation Forfeiture $ 500,000 $ 500,000 158649
5B30 725674 Mining Regulation $ 28,135 $ 28,135 158650
5BV0 725658 Heidelberg Water Quality Lab $ 250,000 $ 250,000 158651
5BV0 725683 Soil and Water Districts $ 8,000,000 $ 8,000,000 158652
5EJ0 725608 Forestry Law Enforcement $ 1,000 $ 1,000 158653
5EK0 725611 Natural Areas & Preserves Law Enforcement $ 1,000 $ 1,000 158654
5EL0 725612 Wildlife Law Enforcement $ 12,000 $ 12,000 158655
5EM0 725613 Park Law Enforcement $ 34,000 $ 34,000 158656
5EN0 725614 Watercraft Law Enforcement $ 2,500 $ 2,500 158657
5HK0 725625 Ohio Nature Preserves $ 1,000 $ 1,000 158658
5MF0 725635 Ohio Geology License Plate $ 7,500 $ 7,500 158659
5MW0 725604 Natural Resources Special Purposes $ 9,000,000 $ 6,000,000 158660
6150 725661 Dam Safety $ 943,517 $ 943,517 158661
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 158662
Fund Group $ 78,965,753 $ 77,089,464 158663

Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group158664

7061 725405 Clean Ohio Operating $ 300,775 $ 300,775 158665
TOTAL CLF Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group $ 300,775 $ 300,775 158666

Wildlife Fund Group158667

5P20 725634 Wildlife Boater Angler Administration $ 3,000,000 $ 3,000,000 158668
7015 740401 Division of Wildlife Conservation $ 56,466,564 $ 57,075,976 158669
8150 725636 Cooperative Management Projects $ 120,449 $ 120,449 158670
8160 725649 Wetlands Habitat $ 966,885 $ 966,885 158671
8170 725655 Wildlife Conservation Checkoff Fund $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 158672
8180 725629 Cooperative Fisheries Research $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 158673
8190 725685 Ohio River Management $ 203,584 $ 203,584 158674
81B0 725688 Wildlife Habitat Fund $ 1,200,000 $ 1,200,000 158675
TOTAL WLF Wildlife Fund Group $ 65,457,482 $ 66,066,894 158676

Waterways Safety Fund Group158677

7086 725414 Waterways Improvement $ 5,693,671 $ 5,693,671 158678
7086 725418 Buoy Placement $ 52,182 $ 52,182 158679
7086 725501 Waterway Safety Grants $ 120,000 $ 120,000 158680
7086 725506 Watercraft Marine Patrol $ 576,153 $ 576,153 158681
7086 725513 Watercraft Educational Grants $ 366,643 $ 366,643 158682
7086 739401 Division of Watercraft $ 19,467,370 $ 19,297,370 158683
TOTAL WSF Waterways Safety Fund 158684
Group $ 26,276,019 $ 26,106,019 158685

Accrued Leave Liability Fund Group158686

4M80 725675 FOP Contract $ 20,219 $ 20,219 158687
TOTAL ALF Accrued Leave 158688
Liability Fund Group $ 20,219 $ 20,219 158689

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group158690

R017 725659 Performance Cash Bond Refunds $ 496,263 $ 496,263 158691
R043 725624 Forestry $ 2,100,000 $ 2,100,000 158692
TOTAL 090 Holding Account 158693
Redistribution Fund Group $ 2,596,263 $ 2,596,263 158694
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 325,741,676 $ 327,247,664 158695


       Section 333.20. CENTRAL SUPPORT INDIRECT158697

        With the exception of the Division of Wildlife, whose direct 158698
and indirect central support charges shall be paid out of the 158699
General Revenue Fund from the foregoing appropriation item 725401, 158700
Wildlife-GRF Central Support, the Department of Natural Resources, 158701
with approval of the Director of Budget and Management, shall 158702
utilize a methodology for determining each division's payments 158703
into the Central Support Indirect Fund (Fund 1570). The 158704
methodology used shall contain the characteristics of 158705
administrative ease and uniform application in compliance with 158706
federal grant requirements. It may include direct cost charges for 158707
specific services provided. Payments to Fund 1570 shall be made 158708
using an intrastate transfer voucher.158709

       Section 333.30.  LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS158710

       The foregoing appropriation item 725413, Lease Rental 158711
Payments, shall be used to meet all payments at the times they are 158712
required to be made during the period from July 1, 2013, through 158713
June 30, 2015, by the Department of Natural Resources pursuant to 158714
leases and agreements made under section 154.22 of the Revised 158715
Code. These appropriations are the source of funds pledged for 158716
bond service charges on related obligations issued under Chapter 158717
154. of the Revised Code.158718

       CANAL LANDS158719

        The foregoing appropriation item 725456, Canal Lands, shall 158720
be used to provide operating expenses for the State Canal Lands 158721
Program.158722

       HEALTHY LAKE ERIE FUND158723

       The foregoing appropriation item 725505, Healthy Lake Erie 158724
Fund, shall be used by the Director of Natural Resources, in 158725
consultation with the Director of Agriculture and the Director of 158726
Environmental Protection, to implement nonstatutory 158727
recommendations of the Agriculture Nutrients and Water Quality 158728
Working Group. The Director shall give priority to recommendations 158729
that encourage farmers to adopt agricultural production guidelines 158730
commonly known as 4R nutrient stewardship practices. Funds may 158731
also be used for enhanced soil testing in the Western Lake Erie 158732
Basin, monitoring the quality of Lake Erie and its tributaries, 158733
and conducting research and establishing pilot projects that have 158734
the goal of reducing algae blooms in Lake Erie.158735

       COAL AND MINE SAFETY PROGRAM158736

       The foregoing appropriation item 725507, Coal and Mine Safety 158737
Program, shall be used for the administration of the Mine Safety 158738
Program and the Coal Regulation Program.158739

       NATURAL RESOURCES GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE158740

       The foregoing appropriation item 725903, Natural Resources 158741
General Obligation Debt Service, shall be used to pay all debt 158742
service and related financing costs during the period July 1, 158743
2013, through June 30, 2015, on obligations issued under sections 158744
151.01 and 151.05 of the Revised Code.158745

       Section 333.40. WELL LOG FILING FEES158746

       The Chief of the Division of Soil and Water Resources shall 158747
deposit fees forwarded to the Division pursuant to section 1521.05 158748
of the Revised Code into the Departmental Services – Intrastate 158749
Fund (Fund 1550) for the purposes described in that section.158750

       CRANBERRY BOG PRESERVATION158751

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 725601, Departmental 158752
Projects, $12,450 in fiscal year 2014 shall be used for the 158753
Greater Buckeye Lake Historical Society to preserve the Cranberry 158754
Bog.158755

       Section 333.50. HUMAN RESOURCES DIRECT SERVICE158756

        The foregoing appropriation item 725696, Human Resources 158757
Direct Service, shall be used to cover the cost of support, 158758
coordination, and oversight of the Department of Natural 158759
Resources' human resources functions. The Human Resources 158760
Chargeback Fund (Fund 2050) shall consist of cash transferred to 158761
it via intrastate transfer voucher from other funds as determined 158762
by the Director of Natural Resources and the Director of Budget 158763
and Management.158764

       Section 333.60. LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION158765

        The foregoing appropriation item 725665, Law Enforcement 158766
Administration, shall be used to cover the cost of support, 158767
coordination, and oversight of the Department of Natural 158768
Resources' law enforcement functions. The Law Enforcement 158769
Administration Fund (Fund 2230) shall consist of cash transferred 158770
to it via intrastate transfer voucher from other funds as 158771
determined by the Director of Natural Resources and the Director 158772
of Budget and Management.158773

       Section 333.70. FOUNTAIN SQUARE AND ODNR GROUNDS AT THE OHIO 158774
EXPO CENTER158775

       The foregoing appropriation item 725664, Fountain Square 158776
Facilities Management, shall be used for payment of repairs, 158777
renovation, utilities, property management, and building 158778
maintenance expenses for the Fountain Square complex and the 158779
Department of Natural Resources grounds at the Ohio Expo Center. 158780
Cash transferred by intrastate transfer vouchers from various 158781
department funds and rental income received by the Department of 158782
Natural Resources shall be deposited into the Fountain Square 158783
Facilities Management Fund (Fund 6350).158784

       Section 333.80.  SOIL AND WATER DISTRICTS158785

       In addition to state payments to soil and water conservation 158786
districts authorized by section 1515.10 of the Revised Code, the 158787
Department of Natural Resources may use appropriation item 725683, 158788
Soil and Water Districts, to pay any soil and water conservation 158789
district an annual amount not to exceed $40,000, upon receipt of a 158790
request and justification from the district and approval by the 158791
Ohio Soil and Water Conservation Commission. The county auditor 158792
shall credit the payments to the special fund established under 158793
section 1515.10 of the Revised Code for the local soil and water 158794
conservation district. Moneys received by each district shall be 158795
expended for the purposes of the district.158796

       OIL AND GAS WELL PLUGGING158797

       The foregoing appropriation item 725677, Oil and Gas Well 158798
Plugging, shall be used exclusively for the purposes of plugging 158799
wells and to properly restore the land surface of idle and orphan 158800
oil and gas wells pursuant to section 1509.071 of the Revised 158801
Code. No funds from the appropriation item shall be used for 158802
salaries, maintenance, equipment, or other administrative 158803
purposes, except for those costs directly attributed to the 158804
plugging of an idle or orphan well. This appropriation item shall 158805
not be used to transfer cash to any other fund or appropriation 158806
item.158807

       TRANSFER OF FUNDS FOR OIL AND GAS DIVISION OPERATIONS158808

       During fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the Director of Budget and 158809
Management may, in consultation with the Director of Natural 158810
Resources, transfer such cash as necessary from the General 158811
Revenue Fund to the Oil and Gas Well Fund (Fund 5180) for handling 158812
the increased regulatory work related to the expansion of the oil 158813
and gas program that will occur before receipts from this activity 158814
are deposited into Fund 5180. Once funds from severance taxes, 158815
application and permitting fees, and other sources have accrued to 158816
Fund 5180 in such amounts as are considered sufficient to sustain 158817
expanded operations, the Director of Budget and Management, in 158818
consultation with the Director of Natural Resources, shall 158819
establish a schedule for repaying the transferred funds from Fund 158820
5180 to the General Revenue Fund.158821

       NATURAL RESOURCES SPECIAL PURPOSES158822

        On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 158823
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer $3,000,000 cash 158824
from the General Revenue Fund to the Natural Resources Special 158825
Purposes Fund (Fund 5MW0). Of the amount transferred, $2,100,000 158826
in fiscal year 2014 shall be used for the construction or 158827
acquisition of a treatment train process at an Ohio inland lake, 158828
and $900,000 in fiscal year 2014 shall be used for the purchase of 158829
a sweeper dredge for use at Ohio inland lakes.158830

       Section 333.90. CLEAN OHIO OPERATING EXPENSES158831

       The foregoing appropriation item 725405, Clean Ohio 158832
Operating, shall be used by the Department of Natural Resources in 158833
administering Clean Ohio Trail Fund (Fund 7061) projects pursuant 158834
to section 1519.05 of the Revised Code.158835

       Section 333.100. WATERCRAFT MARINE PATROL158836

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 739401, Division of 158837
Watercraft, up to $200,000 in each fiscal year shall be expended 158838
for the purchase of equipment for marine patrols qualifying for 158839
funding from the Department of Natural Resources pursuant to 158840
section 1547.67 of the Revised Code. Proposals for equipment shall 158841
accompany the submission of documentation for receipt of a marine 158842
patrol subsidy pursuant to section 1547.67 of the Revised Code and 158843
shall be loaned to eligible marine patrols pursuant to a 158844
cooperative agreement between the Department of Natural Resources 158845
and the eligible marine patrol.158846

       Section 333.110. PARKS CAPITAL EXPENSES FUND158847

        The Director of Natural Resources shall submit to the 158848
Director of Budget and Management the estimated design, 158849
engineering, and planning costs of capital-related work to be done 158850
by Department of Natural Resources staff for parks projects within 158851
the Ohio Parks and Recreation Improvement Fund (Fund 7035). If the 158852
Director of Budget and Management approves the estimated costs, 158853
the Director may release appropriations from appropriation item 158854
C725E6, Project Planning, Fund 7035, for those purposes. Upon 158855
release of the appropriations, the Department of Natural Resources 158856
shall pay for these expenses from the Parks Capital Expenses Fund 158857
(Fund 2270). Expenses paid from Fund 2270 shall be reimbursed by 158858
Fund 7035 using an intrastate transfer voucher.158859

       NATUREWORKS CAPITAL EXPENSES FUND158860

       The Department of Natural Resources shall periodically 158861
prepare and submit to the Director of Budget and Management the 158862
estimated design, planning, and engineering costs of 158863
capital-related work to be done by Department of Natural Resources 158864
staff for each capital improvement project within the Ohio Parks 158865
and Natural Resources Fund (Fund 7031). If the Director of Budget 158866
and Management approves the estimated costs, the Director may 158867
release appropriations from appropriation item C725E5, Project 158868
Planning, in Fund 7031, for those purposes. Upon release of the 158869
appropriations, the Department of Natural Resources shall pay for 158870
these expenses from the Capital Expenses Fund (Fund 4S90). 158871
Expenses paid from Fund 4S90 shall be reimbursed by Fund 7031 by 158872
using an intrastate transfer voucher.158873

       Section 333.120. ELIMINATION OF DORMANT FUNDS158874

       The following funds are hereby abolished and the fund names 158875
and fund numbers shall be stricken from the list of funds falling 158876
within the jurisdiction of the Department of Natural Resources:158877

Fund Number Fund Name 158878
1580 Reprint and Replacement - Intrastate 158879
1610 Parks and Recreation Depreciation Reserve 158880
1620 Civilian Conservation Corps Earned Revenues 158881
2060 General Services 158882
5080 Natural Resources Publications and Promotions 158883
5190 Burr Oak Water Plant 158884
5250 Reclamation Forfeiture 158885
5300 Surface Mining Reclamation 158886
8800 Cooperative Boat Harbor Project 158887
4B80 Forestry Development 158888
5F90 Flood Reimbursement 158889
81A0 Wildlife Education 158890
R029 Reclamation Fee 158891
R030 Surface Mining Reclamation Fee 158892
R040 Wildlife Refunds 158893
3280 Federal Special Revenue 158894
3P00 Natural Areas and Preserves - Federal 158895
5K10 Urban Forestry Grant 158896
5150 Conservancy District Organization 158897
6300 Wild Animal 158898
3CH0 Mined Land Set Aside 158899

       TRANSFER OF ELIMINATED DORMANT FUNDS158900

       The Watercraft Revolving Loan Fund (Fund 5AW0) is hereby 158901
abolished. Any balance remaining in the fund as of July 1, 2013, 158902
shall be transferred into the Waterways Safety Fund (Fund 7086) 158903
and appropriated to appropriation item 739401, Division of 158904
Watercraft.158905

       The Division of Forestry Law Enforcement Fund (Fund 5EJ0) and 158906
the Division of Natural Areas and Preserves Law Enforcement Fund 158907
(Fund 5EK0) are hereby abolished. Any balance remaining in these 158908
funds as of July 1, 2013, shall be transferred into the Park Law 158909
Enforcement Fund (Fund 5EM0) and appropriated to appropriation 158910
item 725613, Park Law Enforcement.158911

       Section 335.10. NUR STATE BOARD OF NURSING158912

General Services Fund Group158913

4K90 884609 Operating Expenses $ 7,181,743 $ 7,273,978 158914
5AC0 884602 Nurse Education Grant Program $ 1,373,506 $ 1,373,506 158915
5P80 884601 Nursing Special Issues $ 2,000 $ 2,000 158916
TOTAL GSF General Services 158917
Fund Group $ 8,557,249 $ 8,649,484 158918
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 8,557,249 $ 8,649,484 158919


       Section 337.10. PYT OCCUPATIONAL THERAPY, PHYSICAL THERAPY, 158921
AND ATHLETIC TRAINERS BOARD158922

General Services Fund Group158923

4K90 890609 Operating Expenses $ 866,169 $ 925,897 158924
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 866,169 $ 925,897 158925
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 866,169 $ 925,897 158926


       Section 339.10.  OLA OHIOANA LIBRARY ASSOCIATION158928

General Revenue Fund158929

GRF 355501 Library Subsidy $ 135,000 $ 140,000 158930
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 135,000 $ 140,000 158931
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 135,000 $ 140,000 158932


       Section 340.10. OOD OPPORTUNITIES FOR OHIOANS WITH 158934
DISABILITIES AGENCY158935

General Revenue Fund158936

GRF 415402 Independent Living Council $ 252,000 $ 252,000 158937
GRF 415406 Assistive Technology $ 26,618 $ 26,618 158938
GRF 415431 Office for People with Brain Injury $ 126,567 $ 126,567 158939
GRF 415506 Services for People with Disabilities $ 15,277,885 $ 15,277,885 158940
GRF 415508 Services for the Deaf $ 28,000 $ 28,000 158941
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 15,711,070 $ 15,711,070 158942

General Services Fund Group158943

4670 415609 Business Enterprise Operating Expenses $ 962,538 $ 965,481 158944
TOTAL GSF General Services 158945
Fund Group $ 962,538 $ 965,481 158946

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group158947

3170 415620 Disability Determination $ 83,332,186 $ 84,641,911 158948
3790 415616 Federal - Vocational Rehabilitation $ 117,431,895 $ 113,610,728 158949
3L10 415601 Social Security Personal Care Assistance $ 2,748,451 $ 2,752,396 158950
3L10 415605 Social Security Community Centers for the Deaf $ 772,000 $ 772,000 158951
3L10 415608 Social Security Special Programs/Assistance $ 445,258 $ 498,269 158952
3L40 415612 Federal Independent Living Centers or Services $ 638,431 $ 638,431 158953
3L40 415615 Federal - Supported Employment $ 916,727 $ 916,727 158954
3L40 415617 Independent Living/Vocational Rehabilitation Programs $ 1,548,658 $ 1,348,658 158955
TOTAL FED Federal Special 158956
Revenue Fund Group $ 207,833,606 $ 205,179,120 158957

State Special Revenue Fund Group158958

4680 415618 Third Party Funding $ 11,000,000 $ 11,000,000 158959
4L10 415619 Services for Rehabilitation $ 3,502,168 $ 3,502,168 158960
4W50 415606 Program Management Expenses $ 12,369,751 $ 12,594,758 158961
TOTAL SSR State Special 158962
Revenue Fund Group $ 26,871,919 $ 27,096,926 158963
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 251,379,133 $ 248,952,597 158964

       INDEPENDENT LIVING COUNCIL158965

       The foregoing appropriation item 415402, Independent Living 158966
Council, shall be used to fund the operations of the State 158967
Independent Living Council and to support state independent living 158968
centers and independent living services under Title VII of the 158969
Independent Living Services and Centers for Independent Living of 158970
the Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1992, 106 Stat. 4344, 29 158971
U.S.C. 796d.158972

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 415402, Independent 158973
Living Council, $67,662 in each fiscal year shall be used as state 158974
matching funds for vocational rehabilitation innovation and 158975
expansion activities.158976

       ASSISTIVE TECHNOLOGY158977

       The total amount of the foregoing appropriation item 415406, 158978
Assistive Technology, shall be provided to Assistive Technology of 158979
Ohio to provide grants and assistive technology services for 158980
people with disabilities in the State of Ohio.158981

       OFFICE FOR PEOPLE WITH BRAIN INJURY158982

       The foregoing appropriation item 415431, Office for People 158983
with Brain Injury, shall be provided to The Ohio State University 158984
College of Medicine to support the Brain Injury Program 158985
established under section 3304.23 of the Revised Code. 158986

       VOCATIONAL REHABILITATION SERVICES158987

       The foregoing appropriation item 415506, Services for People 158988
with Disabilities, shall be used as state matching funds to 158989
provide vocational rehabilitation services to eligible consumers.158990

       SERVICES FOR THE DEAF158991

        The foregoing appropriation item 415508, Services for the 158992
Deaf, shall be used to provide grants to community centers for the 158993
deaf.158994

       INDEPENDENT LIVING/VOCATIONAL REHABILITATION PROGRAMS158995

       The foregoing appropriation item 415617, Independent 158996
Living/Vocational Rehabilitation Programs, shall be used to 158997
support vocational rehabilitation programs.158998

       SOCIAL SECURITY REIMBURSEMENT FUNDS158999

       Reimbursement funds received from the Social Security 159000
Administration, United States Department of Health and Human 159001
Services, for the costs of providing services and training to 159002
return disability recipients to gainful employment shall be 159003
expended from the Social Security Reimbursement Fund (Fund 3L10), 159004
to the extent funds are available, as follows:159005

       (A) Appropriation item 415601, Social Security Personal Care 159006
Assistance, to provide personal care services in accordance with 159007
section 3304.41 of the Revised Code;159008

       (B) Appropriation item 415605, Social Security Community 159009
Centers for the Deaf, to provide grants to community centers for 159010
the deaf in Ohio for services to individuals with hearing 159011
impairments; and159012

       (C) Appropriation item 415608, Social Security Special 159013
Programs/Assistance, to provide vocational rehabilitation services 159014
to individuals with severe disabilities who are Social Security 159015
beneficiaries, to enable them to achieve competitive employment. 159016
This appropriation item shall also be used to pay a portion of 159017
indirect costs of the Personal Care Assistance Program and the 159018
Independent Living Programs as mandated by federal OMB Circular 159019
A-87.159020

       PROGRAM MANAGEMENT EXPENSES159021

       The foregoing appropriation item 415606, Program Management 159022
Expenses, shall be used to support the administrative functions of 159023
the commission related to the provision of vocational 159024
rehabilitation, disability determination services, and ancillary 159025
programs.159026

       Section 341.10. ODB OHIO OPTICAL DISPENSERS BOARD159027

General Services Fund Group159028

4K90 894609 Operating Expenses $ 366,000 $ 365,000 159029
TOTAL GSF General Services 159030
Fund Group $ 366,000 $ 365,000 159031
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 366,000 $ 365,000 159032


       Section 343.10. OPT STATE BOARD OF OPTOMETRY159034

General Services Fund Group159035

4K90 885609 Operating Expenses $ 347,278 $ 347,278 159036
TOTAL GSF General Services 159037
Fund Group $ 347,278 $ 347,278 159038
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 347,278 $ 347,278 159039


       Section 345.10. OPP STATE BOARD OF ORTHOTICS, PROSTHETICS, 159041
AND PEDORTHICS159042

General Services Fund Group159043

4K90 973609 Operating Expenses $ 151,417 $ 159,982 159044
TOTAL GSF General Services 159045
Fund Group $ 151,417 $ 159,982 159046
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 151,417 $ 159,982 159047

       Section 347.10. UST PETROLEUM UNDERGROUND STORAGE TANK 159048
RELEASE COMPENSATION BOARD159049

State Special Revenue Fund Group159050

6910 810632 PUSTRCB Staff $ 1,233,249 $ 1,252,202 159051
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 159052
Fund Group $ 1,233,249 $ 1,252,202 159053
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,233,249 $ 1,252,202 159054


       Section 349.10. PRX STATE BOARD OF PHARMACY159056

General Services Fund Group159057

4A50 887605 Drug Law Enforcement $ 150,000 $ 150,000 159058
4K90 887609 Operating Expenses $ 6,701,285 $ 6,701,285 159059
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 6,851,285 $ 6,851,285 159060

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group159061

3BC0 887604 Dangerous Drugs Database $ 390,869 $ 0 159062
3CT0 887606 2008 Developing/Enhancing PMP $ 224,691 $ 112,346 159063
3DV0 887607 Enhancing Ohio's PMP $ 2,000 $ 2,000 159064
3EY0 887603 Administration of PMIX Hub $ 66,335 $ 0 159065
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 683,895 $ 114,346 159066
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 7,535,180 $ 6,965,631 159067


       Section 351.10. PSY STATE BOARD OF PSYCHOLOGY159069

General Services Fund Group159070

4K90 882609 Operating Expenses $ 548,000 $ 571,000 159071
TOTAL GSF General Services 159072
Fund Group $ 548,000 $ 571,000 159073
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 548,000 $ 571,000 159074


       Section 353.10. PUB OHIO PUBLIC DEFENDER COMMISSION159076

General Revenue Fund159077

GRF 019401 State Legal Defense Services $ 3,020,855 $ 3,020,855 159078
GRF 019403 Multi-County: State Share $ 1,237,318 $ 1,250,824 159079
GRF 019404 Trumbull County - State Share $ 354,743 $ 359,631 159080
GRF 019405 Training Account $ 50,000 $ 50,000 159081
GRF 019501 County Reimbursement $ 9,768,050 $ 9,885,175 159082
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 14,430,966 $ 14,566,485 159083

General Services Fund Group159084

4070 019604 County Representation $ 351,149 $ 354,248 159085
4080 019605 Client Payments $ 725,144 $ 722,931 159086
5CX0 019617 Civil Case Filing Fee $ 532,136 $ 528,476 159087
TOTAL GSF General Services 159088
Fund Group $ 1,608,429 $ 1,605,655 159089

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group159090

3FX0 019621 Wrongful Conviction Program $ 103,950 $ 103,950 159091
3S80 019608 Federal Representation $ 204,706 $ 202,942 159092
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 159093
Fund Group $ 308,656 $ 306,892 159094

State Special Revenue Fund Group159095

4C70 019601 Multi-County: County Share $ 2,297,876 $ 2,322,959 159096
4X70 019610 Trumbull County - County Share $ 658,809 $ 667,887 159097
5740 019606 Civil Legal Aid $ 20,000,000 $ 20,000,000 159098
5DY0 019618 Indigent Defense Support - County Share $ 40,320,991 $ 41,191,285 159099
5DY0 019619 Indigent Defense Support Fund - State Office $ 5,186,329 $ 5,612,719 159100
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 159101
Fund Group $ 68,464,005 $ 69,794,850 159102
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 84,812,056 $ 86,273,882 159103

       INDIGENT DEFENSE OFFICE159104

       The foregoing appropriation items 019404, Trumbull County - 159105
State Share, and 019610, Trumbull County - County Share, shall be 159106
used to support an indigent defense office for Trumbull County.159107

       MULTI-COUNTY OFFICE159108

       The foregoing appropriation items 019403, Multi-County: State 159109
Share, and 019601, Multi-County: County Share, shall be used to 159110
support the Office of the Ohio Public Defender's Multi-County 159111
Branch Office Program.159112

       TRAINING ACCOUNT159113

       The foregoing appropriation item 019405, Training Account, 159114
shall be used by the Ohio Public Defender to provide legal 159115
training programs at no cost for private appointed counsel who 159116
represent at least one indigent defendant at no cost and for state 159117
and county public defenders and attorneys who contract with the 159118
Ohio Public Defender to provide indigent defense services.159119

       FEDERAL REPRESENTATION159120

       The foregoing appropriation item 019608, Federal 159121
Representation, shall be used to receive reimbursements from the 159122
federal courts when the Ohio Public Defender provides 159123
representation in federal court cases and to support 159124
representation in such cases.159125

       Section 355.10. DPS DEPARTMENT OF PUBLIC SAFETY159126

General Revenue Fund159127

GRF 767420 Investigative Unit - Operating $ 10,500,000 $ 10,500,000 159128
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 10,500,000 $ 10,500,000 159129
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 10,500,000 $ 10,500,000 159130


       Section 357.10. PUC PUBLIC UTILITIES COMMISSION OF OHIO159132

General Services Fund Group159133

5BP0 870623 Wireless 9-1-1 Administration $ 18,035,000 $ 0 159134
5F60 870622 Utility and Railroad Regulation $ 30,619,708 $ 30,619,708 159135
5F60 870624 NARUC/NRRI Subsidy $ 85,000 $ 85,000 159136
5Q50 870626 Telecommunications Relay Service $ 5,000,000 $ 5,000,000 159137
TOTAL GSF General Services 159138
Fund Group $ 53,739,708 $ 35,704,708 159139

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group159140

3330 870601 Gas Pipeline Safety $ 597,959 $ 597,959 159141
3500 870608 Motor Carrier Safety $ 7,351,660 $ 7,351,660 159142
3EA0 870630 Energy Assurance Planning $ 192,001 $ 0 159143
3ED0 870631 State Regulators Assistance $ 115,912 $ 0 159144
3V30 870604 Commercial Vehicle Information Systems/Networks $ 100,000 $ 100,000 159145
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 159146
Fund Group $ 8,357,532 $ 8,049,619 159147

State Special Revenue Fund Group159148

4A30 870614 Grade Crossing Protection Devices-State $ 1,347,357 $ 1,347,357 159149
4L80 870617 Pipeline Safety-State $ 331,992 $ 331,992 159150
5610 870606 Power Siting Board $ 581,618 $ 581,618 159151
5LT0 870640 Intrastate Registration $ 180,000 $ 180,000 159152
5LT0 870641 Unified Carrier Registration $ 420,000 $ 420,000 159153
5LT0 870642 Hazardous Materials Registration $ 743,346 $ 753,346 159154
5LT0 870643 Nonhazardous Materials Civil Forfeiture $ 277,496 $ 277,496 159155
5LT0 870644 Hazardous Materials Civil Forfeiture $ 898,800 $ 898,800 159156
5LT0 870645 Motor Carrier Enforcement $ 4,768,453 $ 4,709,592 159157
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 159158
Fund Group $ 9,549,062 $ 9,500,201 159159
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 71,646,302 $ 53,254,528 159160

        TELECOMMUNICATIONS TRANSITION PLANNING 159161

       The foregoing appropriation item 870622, Utility and Railroad 159162
Regulation, shall be used in part to plan for the transition, 159163
consistent with the directives and policies of the federal 159164
communications commission, from the current public switched 159165
telephone network to an internet-protocol network that will 159166
stimulate investment in the internet-protocol network in Ohio and 159167
that will expand the availability of advanced telecommunications 159168
services to all Ohioans. The transition plan shall include a 159169
review of statutes or rules that may prevent or delay an 159170
appropriate transition. The transition plan shall address consumer 159171
protection issues, including the availability and reliability of 159172
alternatives to basic local exchange service. The commission shall 159173
report to the General Assembly by December 31, 2013, on any 159174
further action required to be taken by the General Assembly to 159175
insure a successful and timely transition.159176

       Section 359.10. PWC PUBLIC WORKS COMMISSION159177

General Revenue Fund159178

GRF 150904 Conservation General Obligation Debt Service $ 33,376,600 $ 34,447,700 159179
GRF 150907 State Capital Improvements General Obligation Debt Service $ 227,810,300 $ 228,948,900 159180
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 261,186,900 $ 263,396,600 159181

Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group159182

7056 150403 Clean Ohio Operating Expenses $ 288,980 $ 288,980 159183
TOTAL 056 Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group $ 288,980 $ 288,980 159184

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 261,475,880 $ 263,685,580 159185

       CONSERVATION GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE159186

       The foregoing appropriation item 150904, Conservation General 159187
Obligation Debt Service, shall be used to pay all debt service and 159188
related financing costs during the period from July 1, 2013, 159189
through June 30, 2015, at the times they are required to be made 159190
for obligations issued under sections 151.01 and 151.09 of the 159191
Revised Code.159192

       STATE CAPITAL IMPROVEMENTS GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE159193

       The foregoing appropriation item 150907, State Capital 159194
Improvements General Obligation Debt Service, shall be used to pay 159195
all debt service and related financing costs during the period 159196
from July 1, 2013, through June 30, 2015, at the times they are 159197
required to be made for obligations issued under sections 151.01 159198
and 151.08 of the Revised Code.159199

       CLEAN OHIO OPERATING EXPENSES159200

       The foregoing appropriation item 150403, Clean Ohio Operating 159201
Expenses, shall be used by the Ohio Public Works Commission in 159202
administering Clean Ohio Conservation Fund (Fund 7056) projects 159203
pursuant to sections 164.20 to 164.27 of the Revised Code.159204

       Section 361.10. RAC STATE RACING COMMISSION159205

State Special Revenue Fund Group159206

5620 875601 Thoroughbred Race Fund $ 1,696,456 $ 1,696,456 159207
5630 875602 Standardbred Development Fund $ 1,697,452 $ 1,697,452 159208
5640 875603 Quarter Horse Development Fund $ 1,000 $ 1,000 159209
5650 875604 Racing Commission Operating $ 2,934,178 $ 2,934,178 159210
5C40 875607 Simulcast Horse Racing Purse $ 12,000,000 $ 12,000,000 159211
5JK0 875610 Racing Commission Fund $ 10,000,000 $ 10,000,000 159212
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 159213
Fund Group $ 28,329,086 $ 28,329,086 159214

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group159215

R021 875605 Bond Reimbursements $ 100,000 $ 100,000 159216
TOTAL 090 Holding Account Redistribution 159217
Fund Group $ 100,000 $ 100,000 159218
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 28,429,086 $ 28,429,086 159219


       Section 363.10. BOR BOARD OF REGENTS159221

General Revenue Fund159222

GRF 235321 Operating Expenses $ 2,850,357 $ 2,850,357 159223
GRF 235401 Lease Rental Payments $ 5,805,300 $ 0 159224
GRF 235402 Sea Grants $ 285,000 $ 285,000 159225
GRF 235406 Articulation and Transfer $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 159226
GRF 235408 Midwest Higher Education Compact $ 95,000 $ 95,000 159227
GRF 235409 HEI Information System $ 1,505,683 $ 1,505,683 159228
GRF 235414 State Grants and Scholarship Administration $ 830,180 $ 830,180 159229
GRF 235417 eStudent Services $ 2,532,688 $ 2,532,688 159230
GRF 235428 Appalachian New Economy Partnership $ 737,366 $ 737,366 159231
GRF 235433 Economic Growth Challenge $ 521,153 $ 521,153 159232
GRF 235434 College Readiness and Access $ 1,200,000 $ 1,200,000 159233
GRF 235438 Choose Ohio First Scholarship $ 16,665,114 $ 16,665,114 159234
GRF 235443 Adult Basic and Literacy Education - State $ 7,302,416 $ 7,302,416 159235
GRF 235444 Post-Secondary Adult Career-Technical Education $ 15,817,547 $ 15,817,547 159236
GRF 235474 Area Health Education Centers Program Support $ 900,000 $ 900,000 159237
GRF 235480 General Technology Operations $ 500,000 $ 500,000 159238
GRF 235483 Technology Integration and Professional Development $ 2,378,598 $ 2,378,598 159239
GRF 235501 State Share of Instruction $ 1,792,320,502 $ 1,818,225,497 159240
GRF 235502 Student Support Services $ 632,974 $ 632,974 159241
GRF 235504 War Orphans Scholarships $ 5,500,000 $ 5,500,000 159242
GRF 235507 OhioLINK $ 6,211,012 $ 6,211,012 159243
GRF 235508 Air Force Institute of Technology $ 1,740,803 $ 1,740,803 159244
GRF 235510 Ohio Supercomputer Center $ 3,747,418 $ 3,747,418 159245
GRF 235511 Cooperative Extension Service $ 23,086,658 $ 23,056,658 159246
GRF 235512 OSU Agricultural Technical Institute Supplement $ 0 $ 503,870 159247
GRF 235514 Central State Supplement $ 11,063,468 $ 11,063,468 159248
GRF 235515 Case Western Reserve University School of Medicine $ 2,146,253 $ 2,146,253 159249
GRF 235516 Wright State Lake Campus Agricultural Program $ 200,000 $ 0 159250
GRF 235519 Family Practice $ 3,166,185 $ 3,166,185 159251
GRF 235520 Shawnee State Supplement $ 2,326,097 $ 2,326,097 159252
GRF 235523 Youth STEM Commercialization and Entrepreneurship Program $ 2,000,000 $ 3,000,000 159253
GRF 235524 Police and Fire Protection $ 107,814 $ 107,814 159254
GRF 235525 Geriatric Medicine $ 522,151 $ 522,151 159255
GRF 235526 Primary Care Residencies $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 159256
GRF 235535 Ohio Agricultural Research and Development Center $ 34,126,100 $ 34,126,100 159257
GRF 235536 The Ohio State University Clinical Teaching $ 9,668,941 $ 9,668,941 159258
GRF 235537 University of Cincinnati Clinical Teaching $ 7,952,573 $ 7,952,573 159259
GRF 235538 University of Toledo Clinical Teaching $ 6,198,600 $ 6,198,600 159260
GRF 235539 Wright State University Clinical Teaching $ 3,011,400 $ 3,011,400 159261
GRF 235540 Ohio University Clinical Teaching $ 2,911,212 $ 2,911,212 159262
GRF 235541 Northeast Ohio Medical University Clinical Teaching $ 2,994,178 $ 2,994,178 159263
GRF 235552 Capital Component $ 13,628,639 $ 10,280,387 159264
GRF 235555 Library Depositories $ 1,440,342 $ 1,440,342 159265
GRF 235556 Ohio Academic Resources Network $ 3,172,519 $ 3,172,519 159266
GRF 235558 Long-term Care Research $ 325,300 $ 325,300 159267
GRF 235563 Ohio College Opportunity Grant $ 90,284,264 $ 90,284,264 159268
GRF 235572 The Ohio State University Clinic Support $ 766,533 $ 766,533 159269
GRF 235599 National Guard Scholarship Program $ 16,711,514 $ 17,384,511 159270
GRF 235909 Higher Education General Obligation Debt Service $ 221,168,700 $ 248,822,000 159271
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 2,332,558,552 $ 2,378,910,162 159272

General Services Fund Group159273

2200 235614 Program Approval and Reauthorization $ 903,595 $ 903,595 159274
4560 235603 Sales and Services $ 199,250 $ 199,250 159275
5JC0 235649 Co-op Internship Program $ 8,000,000 $ 8,000,000 159276
5JC0 235668 Defense/Aerospace Workforce Development Initiative $ 4,000,000 $ 4,000,000 159277
5JC0 235685 Manufacturing Workforce Development Initiative $ 2,000,000 $ 0 159278
TOTAL GSF General Services 159279
Fund Group $ 15,102,845 $ 13,102,845 159280

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group159281

3120 235612 Carl D. Perkins Grant/Plan Administration $ 1,350,000 $ 1,350,000 159282
3120 235617 Improving Teacher Quality Grant $ 3,200,000 $ 3,200,000 159283
3120 235641 Adult Basic and Literacy Education - Federal $ 14,835,671 $ 14,835,671 159284
3120 235672 H-1B Tech Skills Training $ 1,100,000 $ 1,100,000 159285
3BW0 235630 Indirect Cost Recovery - Federal $ 50,000 $ 50,000 159286
3H20 235608 Human Services Project $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 159287
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 159288
Fund Group $ 21,535,671 $ 21,535,671 159289

State Special Revenue Fund Group159290

4E80 235602 Higher Educational Facility Commission Administration $ 29,100 $ 29,100 159291
4X10 235674 Telecommunity and Distance Learning $ 49,150 $ 49,150 159292
5D40 235675 Conferences/Special Purposes $ 1,884,095 $ 1,884,095 159293
5FR0 235643 Making Opportunity Affordable $ 230,000 $ 230,000 159294
5P30 235663 Variable Savings Plan $ 8,066,920 $ 8,104,370 159295
6450 235664 Guaranteed Savings Plan $ 1,290,718 $ 1,303,129 159296
6820 235606 Nursing Loan Program $ 891,320 $ 891,320 159297
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 159298
Fund Group $ 12,441,303 $ 12,491,164 159299

Third Frontier Research & Development Fund Group159300

7011 235634 Research Incentive Third Frontier Fund $ 8,000,000 $ 8,000,000 159301
TOTAL 011 Third Frontier Research & Development Fund Group $ 8,000,000 $ 8,000,000 159302
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 2,389,638,371 $ 2,434,039,842 159303


       Section 363.20. LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS159305

       The foregoing appropriation item 235401, Lease Rental 159306
Payments, shall be used to meet all payments at the times they are 159307
required to be made during the period from July 1, 2013, through 159308
June 30, 2015, by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents under 159309
leases and agreements made under section 154.21 of the Revised 159310
Code. These appropriations are the source of funds pledged for 159311
bond service charges on related obligations issued under Chapter 159312
154. of the Revised Code.159313

       Section 363.23. SEA GRANTS159314

        The foregoing appropriation item 235402, Sea Grants, shall be 159315
used to match federal dollars and leverage additional support by 159316
The Ohio State University's Sea Grant program, including Stone 159317
Laboratory, for research, education, and outreach to enhance the 159318
economic value, public utilization, and responsible management of 159319
Lake Erie and Ohio's coastal resources.159320

       Section 363.30. ARTICULATION AND TRANSFER159321

       The foregoing appropriation item 235406, Articulation and 159322
Transfer, shall be used by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents 159323
to maintain and expand the work of the Articulation and Transfer 159324
Council to develop a system of transfer policies to ensure that 159325
students at state institutions of higher education can transfer 159326
and have coursework apply to their majors and degrees at any other 159327
state institution of higher education without unnecessary 159328
duplication or institutional barriers under sections 3333.16, 159329
3333.161, and 3333.162 of the Revised Code.159330

       Section 363.40. MIDWEST HIGHER EDUCATION COMPACT159331

       The foregoing appropriation item 235408, Midwest Higher 159332
Education Compact, shall be distributed by the Chancellor of the 159333
Board of Regents under section 3333.40 of the Revised Code.159334

       Section 363.50. HEI INFORMATION SYSTEM159335

       The foregoing appropriation item 235409, HEI Information 159336
System, shall be used by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents to 159337
support the development and implementation of information 159338
technology solutions designed to improve the performance and 159339
services of the Chancellor of the Board of Regents and the 159340
University System of Ohio. Information technology solutions may be 159341
provided by the Ohio Academic Research Network (OARnet).159342

       Section 363.60. STATE GRANTS AND SCHOLARSHIP ADMINISTRATION159343

       The foregoing appropriation item 235414, State Grants and 159344
Scholarship Administration, shall be used by the Chancellor of the 159345
Board of Regents to administer the following student financial aid 159346
programs: Ohio College Opportunity Grant, Ohio War Orphans' 159347
Scholarship, Nurse Education Assistance Loan Program, Ohio Safety 159348
Officers College Memorial Fund, and any other student financial 159349
aid programs created by the General Assembly. The appropriation 159350
item also shall be used to support all state financial aid audits 159351
and student financial aid programs created by Congress, and to 159352
provide fiscal services for the Ohio National Guard Scholarship 159353
Program.159354

       Section 363.70. ESTUDENT SERVICES159355

       The foregoing appropriation item 235417, eStudent Services, 159356
shall be used by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents to support 159357
the continued implementation of eStudent Services, a consortium 159358
organized under division (T) of section 3333.04 of the Revised 159359
Code to expand access to dual enrollment opportunities for high 159360
school students, as well as adult and higher education 159361
opportunities through technology. The funds shall be used by 159362
eStudent Services to develop and promote learning and assessment 159363
through the use of technology, to test and provide advice on 159364
emerging learning-directed technologies, to support the distance 159365
learning clearinghouse and platform created under section 3333.82 159366
of the Revised Code, and to facilitate cost-effectiveness through 159367
shared educational technology investments.159368

       Section 363.80. APPALACHIAN NEW ECONOMY PARTNERSHIP159369

       The foregoing appropriation item 235428, Appalachian New 159370
Economy Partnership, shall be distributed to Ohio University to 159371
continue a multi-campus and multi-agency coordinated effort to 159372
link Appalachia to the new economy. Ohio University shall use 159373
these funds to provide leadership in the development and 159374
implementation of initiatives in the areas of entrepreneurship, 159375
management, education, and technology.159376

       Section 363.90. ECONOMIC GROWTH CHALLENGE159377

       The foregoing appropriation item 235433, Economic Growth 159378
Challenge, shall be used for administrative expenses of the 159379
Research Incentive Program and other economic advancement 159380
initiatives undertaken by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents.159381

       The Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall use any 159382
appropriation transfer to the foregoing appropriation item 235433, 159383
Economic Growth Challenge, to enhance the basic research and 159384
commercialization capabilities of public colleges and universities 159385
and accredited Ohio institutions of higher education holding 159386
certificates of authorization issued under section 1713.02 of the 159387
Revised Code, in order to strengthen academic research and 159388
commercialization for pursuing Ohio's economic development goals.159389

       Section 363.93. COLLEGE READINESS AND ACCESS159390

        The foregoing appropriation item 235434, College Readiness 159391
and Access, shall be used by the Chancellor of the Board of 159392
Regents to support early college high school initiatives. The 159393
Chancellor shall distribute grants equal to $2,000 per enrolled 159394
early college high school student to institutions of higher 159395
education supporting an early college high school. If the 159396
Chancellor determines that the amounts appropriated are inadequate 159397
to provide full grant awards to all eligible institutions, the 159398
Chancellor may decrease the per student grant amount.159399

       Section 363.100. CHOOSE OHIO FIRST SCHOLARSHIP159400

       The foregoing appropriation item 235438, Choose Ohio First 159401
Scholarship, shall be used to operate the program prescribed in 159402
sections 3333.60 to 3333.70 of the Revised Code.159403

       Section 363.110. ADULT BASIC AND LITERACY EDUCATION159404

       The foregoing appropriation item 235443, Adult Basic and 159405
Literacy Education - State, shall be used to support the adult 159406
basic and literacy education instructional grant program and state 159407
leadership program. The supported programs shall satisfy the state 159408
match and maintenance of effort requirements for the 159409
state-administered grant program.159410

       Section 363.120. POST-SECONDARY ADULT CAREER-TECHNICAL 159411
EDUCATION159412

       The foregoing appropriation item 235444, Post-Secondary Adult 159413
Career-Technical Education, shall be used by the Chancellor of the 159414
Board of Regents, in consultation with the Superintendent of 159415
Public Instruction and the Governor's Office of Workforce 159416
Transformation, to support post-secondary adult career-technical 159417
education. The Chancellor of the Board of Regents, the 159418
Superintendent of Public Instruction, and the Governor's Office of 159419
Workforce Transformation, or their designees, shall hold a series 159420
of consultations with the Ohio Technical Centers during fiscal 159421
year 2014 to develop an appropriate funding formula to distribute 159422
these funds based on student outcomes, beginning in fiscal year 159423
2015.159424

       Not later than June 30, 2014, the Chancellor of the Board of 159425
Regents shall establish a One-Year Option credit articulation 159426
system in which graduates of Ohio Technical Centers who complete a 159427
900-hour program of study and obtain an industry-recognized 159428
credential approved by the Chancellor shall receive 30 college 159429
technical credit hours toward a technical degree upon enrollment 159430
in an institution of higher education.159431

        By June 30, 2014, the Chancellor also shall submit a report 159432
to the General Assembly, in accordance with section 101.68 of the 159433
Revised Code, that recommends a process to award proportional 159434
credit toward a technical degree for students who complete a 159435
program of study between 600 and 899 hours and obtain an 159436
industry-recognized credential approved by the Chancellor.159437

        As used in this section, "institution of higher education" 159438
has the same meaning as in section 3345.12 of the Revised Code.159439

       Section 363.130. AREA HEALTH EDUCATION CENTERS159440

       The foregoing appropriation item 235474, Area Health 159441
Education Centers Program Support, shall be used by the Chancellor 159442
of the Board of Regents to support the medical school regional 159443
area health education centers' educational programs for the 159444
continued support of medical and other health professions 159445
education and for support of the Area Health Education Center 159446
Program.159447

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 159448
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 159449
935408, General Operations, and re-establish them, as determined 159450
to be appropriate by the Director of Budget and Management, 159451
against appropriation item 235480, General Technology Operations. 159452
The re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. 159453
Any business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 159454
935408, General Operations, by July 1, 2013, shall be completed, 159455
as determined to be appropriate by the Director of Budget and 159456
Management, under appropriation item 235480, General Technology 159457
Operations, in the same manner and with the same effect as if it 159458
were completed with regard to appropriation item 935408, General 159459
Operations.159460

       Section 363.180. TECHNOLOGY INTEGRATION AND PROFESSIONAL 159461
DEVELOPMENT159462

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235483, Technology 159463
Integration and Professional Development, up to $2,000,000 in each 159464
fiscal year shall be used to provide grants on a competitive basis 159465
to public and chartered nonpublic schools for their participation 159466
in the electronic textbook pilot project. These grants shall be 159467
administered as provided under the section of this act entitled 159468
ELECTRONIC TEXTBOOK PILOT PROJECT. On July 1, 2014, or as soon as 159469
possible thereafter, the Chancellor of the Board of Regents may 159470
certify to the Director of Budget and Management the amount of the 159471
unexpended, unencumbered balance of this set aside at the end of 159472
fiscal year 2014 to be appropriated to fiscal year 2015. The 159473
amount certified is hereby reappropriated for the same purpose for 159474
fiscal year 2015.159475

       The remainder of the foregoing appropriation item 235483, 159476
Technology Integration and Professional Development, shall be used 159477
by the Ohio Department of Education and the Chancellor of the 159478
Board of Regents for the provision of staff development, hardware, 159479
software, telecommunications services, and information resources 159480
to support educational uses of technology in the classroom and at 159481
a distance and for professional development for teachers, 159482
administrators, and technology staff on the use of educational 159483
technology in qualifying public schools, including the State 159484
School for the Blind, the School for the Deaf, and the Department 159485
of Youth Services.159486

       Section 363.190. STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FORMULAS159487

       The Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall establish 159488
procedures to allocate the foregoing appropriation item 235501, 159489
State Share of Instruction, based on the formulas detailed in this 159490
section that utilize the enrollment, course completion, degree 159491
attainment, and student achievement factors reported annually by 159492
each state institution of higher education participating in the 159493
Higher Education Information (HEI) system.159494

       (A) FULL-TIME EQUIVALENT (FTE) ENROLLMENTS AND COURSE 159495
COMPLETIONS159496

       (1) As soon as possible during each fiscal year of the 159497
biennium ending June 30, 2015, in accordance with instructions of 159498
the Board of Regents, each state institution of higher education 159499
shall report its actual data, consistent with the definitions in 159500
the Higher Education Information (HEI) system's enrollment files, 159501
to the Chancellor of the Board of Regents.159502

       (2) In defining the number of full-time equivalent students 159503
for state subsidy instructional cost purposes, the Chancellor of 159504
the Board of Regents shall exclude all undergraduate students who 159505
are not residents of Ohio, except those charged in-state fees in 159506
accordance with reciprocity agreements made under section 3333.17 159507
of the Revised Code or employer contracts entered into under 159508
section 3333.32 of the Revised Code.159509

       (3) In calculating the core subsidy entitlements for 159510
university branch and main campuses, the Chancellor of the Board 159511
of Regents shall use the following count of FTE students:159512

       (a) The subsidy eligible enrollments by model shall equal 159513
only those FTE students who successfully complete the course as 159514
defined and reported through the Higher Education Information 159515
(HEI) system course enrollment file; 159516

       (b) Those undergraduate FTE students with successful course 159517
completions, identified in division (A)(3)(a) of this section, 159518
that had an expected family contribution less than 2190 or were 159519
determined to have been in need of remedial education shall be 159520
defined as at-risk students and shall have their eligible 159521
completions weighted by the following:159522

       (i) Campus-specific course completion indexes, where the 159523
indexes are calculated based upon the number of at-risk students 159524
enrolled during the 2010-2012 academic years; and159525

       (ii) A statewide average at-risk course completion weight 159526
determined for each subsidy model. The statewide average at-risk 159527
course completion weight shall be determined by calculating the 159528
difference between the percentage of traditional students who 159529
complete a course and the percentage of at-risk students who 159530
complete the same course.159531

       (4) In calculating the core subsidy entitlements for Medical 159532
II models only, students repeating terms may be no more than five 159533
per cent of current year enrollment.159534

       (5) In calculating the core subsidy entitlements for students 159535
enrolled in state-supported law schools, subsidy eligible FTE 159536
completions shall be limited to students identified as residents 159537
of Ohio.159538

       (B) TOTAL COSTS PER FULL-TIME EQUIVALENT STUDENT159539

       For purposes of calculating state share of instruction 159540
allocations, the total instructional costs per full-time 159541
equivalent student shall be:159542

Model Fiscal Year 2014 Fiscal Year 2015 159543
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 1 $7,803 $7,940 159544
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 2 $10,828 $11,018 159545
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 3 $13,988 $14,234 159546
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 4 $20,242 $20,598 159547
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 5 $33,969 $34,567 159548
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 6 $38,280 $38,954 159549
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 1 $7,109 $7,235 159550
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 2 $8,106 $8,249 159551
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 3 $10,640 $10,827 159552
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 4 $12,647 $12,869 159553
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 5 $19,657 $20,003 159554
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 6 $22,006 $22,393 159555
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 7 $30,558 $31,096 159556
MEDICAL 1 $53,424 $54,365 159557
MEDICAL 2 $45,873 $46,681 159558
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 1 $7,190 $7,317 159559
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 2 $10,091 $10,268 159560
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 3 $11,928 $12,138 159561
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 4 $15,186 $15,454 159562
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 5 $20,043 $20,396 159563
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 6 $21,633 $22,013 159564
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 7 $26,471 $26,937 159565
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 8 $36,766 $37,413 159566
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 9 $52,170 $53,088 159567

       Doctoral I and Doctoral II models shall be allocated in 159568
accordance with division (D)(3) of this section.159569

       (C) SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICAL, 159570
AND GRADUATE WEIGHTS159571

       For the purpose of implementing the recommendations of the 159572
2006 State Share of Instruction Consultation and the Higher 159573
Education Funding Study Council that priority be given to 159574
maintaining state support for science, technology, engineering, 159575
mathematics, medicine, and graduate programs, the costs in 159576
division (B) of this section shall be weighted by the amounts 159577
provided below:159578

Model Fiscal Year 2014 Fiscal Year 2015 159579
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 1 1.0000 1.0000 159580
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 2 1.0000 1.0000 159581
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 3 1.0000 1.0000 159582
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 4 1.0000 1.0000 159583
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 5 1.0425 1.0425 159584
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 6 1.0425 1.0425 159585
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 1 1.0000 1.0000 159586
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 2 1.0000 1.0000 159587
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 3 1.0000 1.0000 159588
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 4 1.0000 1.0000 159589
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 5 1.0425 1.0425 159590
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 6 1.0425 1.0425 159591
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 7 1.0425 1.0425 159592
MEDICAL 1 1.6456 1.6456 159593
MEDICAL 2 1.7462 1.7462 159594
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 1 1.0000 1.0000 159595
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 2 1.0017 1.0017 159596
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 3 1.6150 1.6150 159597
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 4 1.6920 1.6920 159598
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 5 1.4222 1.4222 159599
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 6 1.8798 1.8798 159600
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 7 1.4380 1.4380 159601
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 8 1.5675 1.5675 159602
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 9 1.1361 1.1361 159603

       (D) CALCULATION OF STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FORMULA 159604
ENTITLEMENTS AND ADJUSTMENTS159605

       (1) Of the foregoing appropriation item 235501, State Share 159606
of Instruction, 25 per cent of the fiscal year 2014 appropriation 159607
for state-supported community colleges, state community colleges, 159608
and technical colleges shall be allocated to colleges in 159609
proportion to their share of college student success factors as 159610
adopted by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents in formal 159611
communication to the Controlling Board on August 30, 2010.159612

       (2) Of the foregoing appropriation item 235501, State Share 159613
of Instruction, 25 per cent of the fiscal year 2014 appropriation 159614
for state-supported community colleges, state community colleges, 159615
and technical colleges shall be reserved for course completion 159616
FTEs as aggregated by the subsidy models defined in division (B) 159617
of this section.159618

       The course completion funding shall be allocated to colleges 159619
in proportion to each campuses' share of the total sector's course 159620
completions, weighted by the instructional cost of the subsidy 159621
models.159622

       To calculate the subsidy entitlements for course completions 159623
at community colleges, state community colleges, and technical 159624
colleges, the Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall use the 159625
following calculations:159626

       (a) In calculating each campus's count of FTE course 159627
completions, the Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall use the 159628
three-year average course completions for the three-year period 159629
ending in the prior year.159630

       (b) The model costs as used in the calculation shall be 159631
augmented by the model weights for science, technology, 159632
engineering, mathematics, and medicine models as established in 159633
division (C) of this section.159634

       (3) Of the foregoing appropriation item 235501, State Share 159635
of Instruction, up to 11.78 per cent of the appropriation for 159636
universities, as established in division (A)(2) of the section of 159637
this act entitled "STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FOR FISCAL YEARS 159638
2014 and 2015," in each fiscal year shall be reserved for support 159639
of doctoral programs to implement the funding recommendations made 159640
by representatives of the universities. The amount so reserved 159641
shall be referred to as the doctoral set-aside.159642

       The doctoral set-aside shall be allocated to universities as 159643
follows:159644

       (a) 62.50 per cent of the doctoral set-aside in fiscal year 159645
2014 and 55 per cent of the doctoral set-aside in fiscal year 2015 159646
shall be allocated to universities in proportion to their share of 159647
the statewide total of each state institution's three-year average 159648
Doctoral I equivalent FTEs as calculated on an institutional basis 159649
using historical FTEs for the period fiscal year 1994 through 159650
fiscal year 1998 with annualized FTEs for fiscal years 1994 159651
through 1997 and all-term FTEs for fiscal year 1998 as adjusted to 159652
reflect the effects of doctoral review and subsequent changes in 159653
Doctoral I equivalent enrollments. For the purposes of this 159654
calculation, Doctoral I equivalent FTEs shall equal the sum of 159655
Doctoral I FTEs plus 1.5 times the sum of Doctoral II FTEs.159656

       (b) 25 per cent of the doctoral set-aside in fiscal year 2014 159657
and 30 per cent of the doctoral set-aside in fiscal year 2015 159658
shall be allocated to universities in proportion to each campus's 159659
share of the total statewide doctoral degrees, weighted by the 159660
cost of the doctoral discipline. In calculating each campus's 159661
doctoral degrees the Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall use 159662
the three-year average doctoral degrees awarded for the three-year 159663
period ending in the prior year. 159664

       (c) 12.5 per cent of the doctoral set-aside in fiscal year 159665
2014 and 15 per cent of the doctoral set-aside in fiscal year 2015 159666
shall be allocated to universities in proportion to their share of 159667
research grant activity, using a data collection method that is 159668
reviewed and approved by the presidents of Ohio's doctoral degree 159669
granting universities. In the event that the data collection 159670
method is not available, funding for this component shall be 159671
allocated to universities in proportion to their share of research 159672
grant activity published by the National Science Foundation. Grant 159673
awards from the Department of Health and Human Services shall be 159674
weighted at 50 per cent.159675

       (4) Of the foregoing appropriation item 235501, State Share 159676
of Instruction, 6.41 per cent of the appropriation for 159677
universities, as established in division (A)(2) of the section of 159678
this act entitled "STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FOR FISCAL YEARS 159679
2014 AND 2015," in each fiscal year shall be reserved for support 159680
of Medical II FTEs. The amount so reserved shall be referred to as 159681
the medical II set-aside.159682

       The medical II set-aside shall be allocated to universities 159683
in proportion to their share of the statewide total of each state 159684
institution's three-year average Medical II FTEs as calculated in 159685
division (A) of this section, weighted by model cost.159686

       (5) Of the foregoing appropriation item 235501, State Share 159687
of Instruction, 1.48 per cent of the appropriation for 159688
universities, as established in division (A)(2) of the section of 159689
this act entitled "STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FOR FISCAL YEARS 159690
2014 AND 2015," in each fiscal year shall be reserved for support 159691
of Medical I FTEs. The amount so reserved shall be referred to as 159692
the medical I set-aside.159693

       The medical I set-aside shall be allocated to universities in 159694
proportion to their share of the statewide total of each state 159695
institution's three-year average Medical I FTEs as calculated in 159696
division (A) of this section.159697

        (6) Of the foregoing appropriation item 235501, State Share 159698
of Instruction, 50 per cent of the appropriation in each fiscal 159699
year for universities, net any earmarked funding for university 159700
regional campuses as detailed in division (B)(1) of the section of 159701
this act entitled "STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FOR FISCAL YEARS 159702
2014 AND 2015," shall be reserved for support of associate, 159703
baccalaureate, master's, and professional level degree attainment.159704

       The degree attainment funding shall be allocated to 159705
universities in proportion to each campus's share of the total 159706
statewide degrees granted, weighted by the cost of the degree 159707
programs. The degree cost calculations shall include the model 159708
cost weights for the science, technology, engineering, 159709
mathematics, and medicine models as established in division (C) of 159710
this section.159711

       For degrees including credits earned at multiple 159712
institutions, in fiscal year 2015, degree attainment funding shall 159713
be allocated to universities and branch campuses in proportion to 159714
each campus's share of the cost of earned credits for the degree. 159715
Each institution shall receive its prorated share of degree 159716
funding for credits earned at that institution. Cost of credits 159717
not earned at a university main or regional campus shall be 159718
credited to the degree-granting institution.159719

       In calculating the subsidy entitlements for degree attainment 159720
at university main and regional campuses, the Chancellor of the 159721
Board of Regents shall use the following count of degrees and 159722
degree costs:159723

       (a) The subsidy eligible undergraduate degrees shall be 159724
defined as follows:159725

       (i) The subsidy eligible degrees conferred to students 159726
identified as residents of the state of Ohio in any term of their 159727
studies, as reported through the Higher Education Information 159728
(HEI) system student enrollment file, shall be weighted by a 159729
factor of 1.159730

       (ii) The subsidy eligible degrees conferred to students 159731
identified as out-of-state residents during all terms of their 159732
studies, as reported through the Higher Education Information 159733
(HEI) system student enrollment file, who remain in the state of 159734
Ohio at least one year after graduation, as calculated based on 159735
the three-year average in-state residency rate for out-of-state 159736
students at each institution, shall be weighted by a factor of 50 159737
per cent. For fiscal year 2014, subsidy eligible degrees conferred 159738
to all out-of-state students shall be weighted by a factor of 25 159739
per cent.159740

       (b) In fiscal year 2014, for those associate degrees awarded 159741
by a state-supported university, the subsidy eligible degrees 159742
granted are defined as only those earned by students attending a 159743
university that received funding under GRF appropriation item 159744
235418, Access Challenge, in fiscal year 2009. In fiscal year 159745
2015, subsidy eligible associate degrees are defined as those 159746
earned by students attending any state-supported university main 159747
or regional campus.159748

       (c) In calculating each campus's count of degrees, the 159749
Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall use the three-year 159750
average associate, baccalaureate, master's, and professional 159751
degrees awarded for the three-year period ending in the prior 159752
year. In fiscal year 2014, university regional campuses are not 159753
eligible for degree completion funding. In fiscal year 2015, all 159754
university campuses are eligible for degree completion funding.159755

       (d) For fiscal year 2014, eligible associate degrees defined 159756
in division (D)(6)(b) of this section and all bachelor's degrees 159757
earned by a student that either had an expected family 159758
contribution less than 2190, was determined to have been in need 159759
of remedial education, is Native American, African American, or 159760
Hispanic, or is at least age 26 at the time of graduation, shall 159761
be defined as degrees earned by an at-risk student and shall be 159762
weighted by the following:159763

        (i) A campus-specific at-risk index, where the index is 159764
calculated based on the proportion of at-risk students enrolled 159765
during a four-year cohort beginning in fiscal year 2001, 2002, 159766
2003, or 2004; and159767

       (ii) A statewide average at-risk degree completion weight 159768
determined by calculating the difference between the percentage of 159769
non-at-risk students who earned a degree and the percentage of 159770
at-risk students who earned a degree in eight years or less.159771

       (e) For fiscal year 2015, eligible associate degrees defined 159772
in division (D)(6)(b) of this section and all bachelor's degrees 159773
earned by a student that either had an expected family 159774
contribution less than 2190, was determined to be in need of 159775
remedial education, is Native American, African American, or 159776
Hispanic, or is at least 26 years of age at the time of 159777
graduation, shall be defined as degrees earned by an at-risk 159778
student and shall be weighted by the following:159779

        A student-specific degree completion weight, where the weight 159780
is calculated based on the at risk factors of the individual 159781
student, determined by calculating the difference between the 159782
percentage of students with each risk factor who earned a degree 159783
and the percentage of non-at-risk students who earned a degree.159784

       (7) State share of instruction base formula earnings shall be 159785
determined as follows:159786

       (a) The instructional costs shall be determined by 159787
multiplying the amounts listed above in divisions (B) and (C) of 159788
this section by the average subsidy-eligible FTEs for the 159789
three-year period ending in the prior year for all models except 159790
Doctoral I and Doctoral II.159791

       (b) The Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall compute a 159792
uniform state share of instructional costs for each sector.159793

       (i) For the state-supported community colleges, state 159794
community colleges, and technical colleges, in fiscal year 2014 159795
the Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall compute the uniform 159796
state share of instructional costs for enrollment by dividing the 159797
sector level appropriation total as determined by the Chancellor 159798
in division (A)(1) of the section of this act entitled "STATE 159799
SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FOR FISCAL YEARS 2014 AND 2015," and adjusted 159800
pursuant to divisions (B) and (C) of that section, less the 159801
student college success allocation as described in division (D)(1) 159802
of this section and less the course completion allocation as 159803
detailed in division (D)(2) of this section, by the sum of all 159804
eligible campuses' instructional costs as calculated in division 159805
(D)(7)(b) of this section.159806

       (ii) For the state-supported university regional campuses, in 159807
fiscal year 2014 the Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall 159808
compute the uniform state share of instructional costs by dividing 159809
the sector level appropriation, as determined by the Chancellor in 159810
division (A)(2) of the section of this act entitled "STATE SHARE 159811
OF INSTRUCTION FOR FISCAL YEARS 2014 AND 2015," and adjusted 159812
pursuant to division (B) of that section by the sum of all 159813
campuses' instructional costs as calculated in division (D)(7)(b) 159814
of this section.159815

       (iii) For the state-supported university main campuses, in 159816
fiscal year 2014 the Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall 159817
compute the uniform state share of instructional costs by dividing 159818
the sector level appropriation, as determined by the Chancellor in 159819
division (A)(3) of the section of this act entitled "STATE SHARE 159820
OF INSTRUCTION FOR FISCAL YEARS 2014 AND 2015," and adjusted 159821
pursuant to division (B) of that section, less the degree 159822
attainment funding as calculated in divisions (D)(3) to (6) of 159823
this section, less the doctoral set-aside, less the medical I 159824
set-aside, and less the medical II set-aside, by the sum of all 159825
campuses' instructional costs as calculated in division (D)(7)(b) 159826
of this section. 159827

       (iv) For the state university regional and main campuses, in 159828
fiscal year 2015 the Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall 159829
compute the uniform state share of instructional costs by dividing 159830
the university appropriation, as determined by the Chancellor in 159831
division (A)(3) of the section of this act entitled "STATE SHARE 159832
OF INSTRUCTION FOR FISCAL YEARS 2014 AND 2015," and adjusted 159833
pursuant to division (B) of that section, less the degree 159834
attainment funding as calculated in divisions (D)(3) to (6) of 159835
this section, less the doctoral set-aside, less the medical I 159836
set-aside, and less the medical II set-aside, by the sum of all 159837
campuses' instructional costs as calculated in division (D)(7)(b) 159838
of this section. 159839

       (c) The formula entitlement shall be determined by 159840
multiplying the uniform state share of instructional costs 159841
calculated in division (D)(7)(c) of this section by the 159842
instructional cost determined in division (D)(7)(b) of this 159843
section.159844

       (8) In addition to the student success allocation, doctoral 159845
set-aside, medical I set-aside, medical II set-aside, and the 159846
degree attainment allocation determined in divisions (D)(1) to (6) 159847
of this section and the formula entitlement determined in division 159848
(D)(7) of this section, an allocation based on facility-based 159849
plant operations and maintenance (POM) subsidy shall be made. For 159850
each eligible university main campus, the amount of the POM 159851
allocation in each fiscal year shall be distributed based on what 159852
each campus received in the fiscal year 2009 POM allocation.159853

       Any POM allocations required by this division shall be funded 159854
by proportionately reducing formula entitlement earnings, 159855
including the POM allocations, for all campuses in that sector.159856

       (9) STABILITY IN STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FUNDING FOR 159857
COMMUNITY, STATE COMMUNITY, AND TECHNICAL COLLEGES159858

       In addition to and after the adjustments noted above, in 159859
fiscal year 2014, no community college, state community college, 159860
or technical college shall receive a state share of instruction 159861
allocation that is less than 97 per cent of the prior year's state 159862
share of instruction earnings. Funds shall be made available to 159863
support this allocation by proportionately reducing formula 159864
entitlement earnings from those campuses, within the community, 159865
state community, and technical college sector, that are not 159866
receiving stability funding. 159867

       (10) CAPITAL COMPONENT DEDUCTION159868

       After all other adjustments have been made, state share of 159869
instruction earnings shall be reduced for each campus by the 159870
amount, if any, by which debt service charged in Am. H.B. 748 of 159871
the 121st General Assembly, Am. Sub. H.B. 850 of the 122nd General 159872
Assembly, Am. Sub. H.B. 640 of the 123rd General Assembly, H.B. 159873
675 of the 124th General Assembly, Am. Sub. H.B. 16 of the 126th 159874
General Assembly, Am. Sub. H.B. 699 of the 126th General Assembly, 159875
Am. Sub. H.B. 496 of the 127th General Assembly, and Am. Sub. H.B. 159876
562 of the 127th General Assembly for that campus exceeds that 159877
campus's capital component earnings. The sum of the amounts 159878
deducted shall be transferred to appropriation item 235552, 159879
Capital Component, in each fiscal year.159880

       (E) EXCEPTIONAL CIRCUMSTANCES159881

       Adjustments may be made to the state share of instruction 159882
payments and other subsidies distributed by the Chancellor of the 159883
Board of Regents to state colleges and universities for 159884
exceptional circumstances. No adjustments for exceptional 159885
circumstances may be made without the recommendation of the 159886
Chancellor and the approval of the Controlling Board.159887

       (F) APPROPRIATION REDUCTIONS TO THE STATE SHARE OF 159888
INSTRUCTION159889

       The standard provisions of the state share of instruction 159890
calculation as described in the preceding sections of temporary 159891
law shall apply to any reductions made to appropriation item 159892
235501, State Share of Instruction, before the Chancellor of the 159893
Board of Regents has formally approved the final allocation of the 159894
state share of instruction funds for any fiscal year.159895

       Any reductions made to appropriation item 235501, State Share 159896
of Instruction, after the Chancellor of the Board of Regents has 159897
formally approved the final allocation of the state share of 159898
instruction funds for any fiscal year, shall be uniformly applied 159899
to each campus in proportion to its share of the final allocation.159900

       (G) DISTRIBUTION OF STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION159901

       The state share of instruction payments to the institutions 159902
shall be in substantially equal monthly amounts during the fiscal 159903
year, unless otherwise determined by the Director of Budget and 159904
Management pursuant to section 126.09 of the Revised Code. 159905
Payments during the first six months of the fiscal year shall be 159906
based upon the state share of instruction appropriation estimates 159907
made for the various institutions of higher education according to 159908
the Chancellor of the Board of Regents enrollment, completion, and 159909
performance estimates. Payments during the last six months of the 159910
fiscal year shall be distributed after approval of the Controlling 159911
Board upon the request of the Chancellor.159912

       (H) STUDIES TO DETERMINE IMPROVEMENTS TO THE FISCAL YEAR 2015 159913
STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FORMULAS159914

       (1) STUDY ON IDENTIFYING "AT-RISK" STUDENTS FOR COMMUNITY 159915
COLLEGES159916

       Community college presidents, or their designees, in 159917
consultation with the Chancellor of the Board of Regents, shall 159918
study the most appropriate formula weights for students who come 159919
from "at-risk" populations and recommend how they may be used to 159920
determine allocations of appropriations to community colleges from 159921
appropriation item 235501, State Share of Instruction, in fiscal 159922
year 2015. The study shall identify the socio-economic, 159923
demographic, academic, personal, and other factors that identify a 159924
student as being "at-risk" of academic failure, and recommend how 159925
these factors may be used to determine allocations of the State 159926
Share of Instruction for community colleges in fiscal year 2015. 159927
The study shall be completed by December 31, 2013. Notwithstanding 159928
any provision of law to the contrary, community college 159929
presidents, or their designees, in consultation with the 159930
Chancellor of the Board of Regents, shall use the results of the 159931
study to recommend changes in the determination of the 159932
distribution of the community college allocations beginning in 159933
fiscal year 2015 and shall report any such formula change 159934
recommendations to the Governor, the General Assembly, and the 159935
Office of Budget and Management not later than February 15, 2014.159936

       (2) STUDY ON THE USE OF SUCCESS POINTS AND COMPLETION 159937
MEASURES FOR COMMUNITY COLLEGES159938

       Community college presidents, or their designees, in 159939
consultation with the Chancellor of the Board of Regents, shall 159940
study the most appropriate formula weights for the "success 159941
points" and completion performance measures used in the allocation 159942
of appropriations to community colleges from appropriation item 159943
235501, State Share of Instruction, in fiscal year 2015. The study 159944
shall research the most appropriate success points and completion 159945
measures that occur during the academic career of community 159946
college students and recommend revisions to the current State 159947
Share of Instruction model to fund achievement of the success 159948
points beginning in fiscal year 2015. In addition, community 159949
college presidents, or their designees, in consultation with the 159950
Chancellor of the Board of Regents, shall determine how the 159951
community college's fiscal year 2015 share of State Share of 159952
Instruction funding shall be distributed among its success points, 159953
completion measures and course completion funding, or other 159954
performance and access measures. The study shall be completed by 159955
December 31, 2013. Notwithstanding any provision of law to the 159956
contrary, community college presidents, or their designees, in 159957
consultation with the Chancellor of the Board of Regents, shall 159958
use the results of the study to recommend changes in the 159959
determination of the distribution of the community college 159960
allocations beginning in fiscal year 2015 and shall report any 159961
such formula change recommendations to the Governor, the General 159962
Assembly, and the Office of Budget and Management not later than 159963
February 15, 2014.159964

       Section 363.200. STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FOR FISCAL YEARS 159965
2014 AND 2015159966

       (A) The foregoing appropriation item 235501, State Share of 159967
Instruction, shall be distributed according to the section of this 159968
act entitled "STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FORMULAS."159969

       (1) Of the foregoing appropriation item 235501, State Share 159970
of Instruction, $411,257,477 in fiscal year 2014 and $419,101,428 159971
in fiscal year 2015 shall be distributed to state-supported 159972
community colleges, state community colleges, and technical 159973
colleges. 159974

       (2) Of the foregoing appropriation item 235501, State Share 159975
of Instruction, $1,372,968,020 in fiscal year 2014 and 159976
$1,399,124,069 in fiscal year 2015 shall be distributed to 159977
state-supported university main and regional campuses.159978

       (B) Of the amounts earmarked in division (A)(2) of this 159979
section:159980

       (1) $116,181,104 in fiscal year 2014 shall be distributed to 159981
state university regional campuses.159982

       (2) $3,923,764 in each fiscal year shall be distributed to 159983
university main campuses based on each campus's share of the 159984
appropriation item 235418, Access Challenge, in fiscal year 2009. 159985

       (C) Of the foregoing appropriation item 235501, State Share 159986
of Instruction, $8,095,005 in fiscal year 2014 shall be used by 159987
the Chancellor to provide supplemental subsidy payments to each 159988
campus receiving a State Share of Instruction allocation, as 159989
determined according to the section of this act entitled "STATE 159990
SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FORMULAS" and divisions (A) and (B) of this 159991
section, in fiscal year 2014 that is lower than that campus's 159992
State Share of Instruction allocation in fiscal year 2013. If the 159993
Chancellor determines that the amounts earmarked for these 159994
supplemental subsidies are inadequate to provide full payments to 159995
all eligible campuses, the Chancellor shall proportionally reduce 159996
payment amounts.159997

       (D) The POM adjustment in division (D)(7) of the section of 159998
this act entitled "STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FORMULAS" and the 159999
Access Challenge earmark in division (B) of this section shall 160000
expire on June 30, 2015.160001

       (E) The state share of instruction payments to the 160002
institutions shall be in substantially equal monthly amounts 160003
during the fiscal year, unless otherwise determined by the 160004
Director of Budget and Management pursuant to section 126.09 of 160005
the Revised Code. Payments during the last six months of the 160006
fiscal year shall be distributed after approval of the Controlling 160007
Board upon the request of the Chancellor of the Board of Regents.160008

       Section 363.210. TRANSFER OF INSTRUCTIONAL SUBSIDIES BETWEEN 160009
UNIVERSITIES160010

       Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, in 160011
consultation with the Chancellor of the Board of Regents, a 160012
state-supported university may request to transfer its fiscal year 160013
2014 state share of instruction subsidy allocations of the 160014
foregoing appropriation item 235501, State Share of Instruction, 160015
between a university main campus and any university branch campus 160016
for which the university main campus is affiliated to best 160017
accomplish institutional goals and objectives. At the request of 160018
the Chancellor of the Board of Regents, the Director of Budget and 160019
Management may transfer the requested amounts of state share of 160020
instruction appropriation allocations between affiliated 160021
university branch campuses and university main campuses.160022

       Section 363.220. RESTRICTION ON FEE INCREASES160023

       The boards of trustees of state institutions of higher 160024
education shall restrain increases in in-state undergraduate 160025
instructional and general fees. Each state university and the 160026
Northeast Ohio Medical University shall not increase its in-state 160027
undergraduate instructional and general fees by more than 2.0 per 160028
cent or $188, whichever is higher, over what the institution 160029
charged for the preceding academic year.160030

       Each university regional campus shall not increase its 160031
in-state undergraduate instructional and general fees by more than 160032
2.0 per cent or $114, whichever is higher, over what the 160033
institution charged for the preceding academic year.160034

       Each community college, state community college, and 160035
technical college shall not increase its in-state undergraduate 160036
instructional and general fees by more than $100 over what the 160037
institution charged for the preceding academic year.160038

       These limitations shall not apply to increases required to 160039
comply with institutional covenants related to their obligations 160040
or to meet unfunded legal mandates or legally binding obligations 160041
incurred or commitments made prior to the effective date of this 160042
section with respect to which the institution had identified such 160043
fee increases as the source of funds. Any increase required by 160044
such covenants and any such mandates, obligations, or commitments 160045
shall be reported by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents to the 160046
Controlling Board. These limitations may also be modified by the 160047
Chancellor of the Board of Regents, with the approval of the 160048
Controlling Board, to respond to exceptional circumstances as 160049
identified by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents. 160050

       These limitations shall not apply to institutions 160051
participating in an undergraduate tuition guarantee program 160052
pursuant to section 3345.48 of the Revised Code.160053

       Section 363.230. HIGHER EDUCATION - BOARD OF TRUSTEES160054

       (A) Funds appropriated for instructional subsidies at 160055
colleges and universities may be used to provide such branch or 160056
other off-campus undergraduate courses of study and such master's 160057
degree courses of study as may be approved by the Chancellor of 160058
the Board of Regents.160059

       (B) In providing instructional and other services to 160060
students, boards of trustees of state institutions of higher 160061
education shall supplement state subsidies with income from 160062
charges to students. Except as otherwise provided in this act, 160063
each board shall establish the fees to be charged to all students, 160064
including an instructional fee for educational and associated 160065
operational support of the institution and a general fee for 160066
noninstructional services, including locally financed student 160067
services facilities used for the benefit of enrolled students. The 160068
instructional fee and the general fee shall encompass all charges 160069
for services assessed uniformly to all enrolled students. Each 160070
board may also establish special purpose fees, service charges, 160071
and fines as required; such special purpose fees and service 160072
charges shall be for services or benefits furnished individual 160073
students or specific categories of students and shall not be 160074
applied uniformly to all enrolled students. A tuition surcharge 160075
shall be paid by all students who are not residents of Ohio.160076

       The board of trustees of a state institution of higher 160077
education shall not authorize a waiver or nonpayment of 160078
instructional fees or general fees for any particular student or 160079
any class of students other than waivers specifically authorized 160080
by law or approved by the Chancellor. This prohibition is not 160081
intended to limit the authority of boards of trustees to provide 160082
for payments to students for services rendered the institution, 160083
nor to prohibit the budgeting of income for staff benefits or for 160084
student assistance in the form of payment of such instructional 160085
and general fees.160086

       Each state institution of higher education in its statement 160087
of charges to students shall separately identify the instructional 160088
fee, the general fee, the tuition charge, and the tuition 160089
surcharge. Fee charges to students for instruction shall not be 160090
considered to be a price of service but shall be considered to be 160091
an integral part of the state government financing program in 160092
support of higher educational opportunity for students.160093

       (C) The boards of trustees of state institutions of higher 160094
education shall ensure that faculty members devote a proper and 160095
judicious part of their work week to the actual instruction of 160096
students. Total class credit hours of production per academic term 160097
per full-time faculty member is expected to meet the standards set 160098
forth in the budget data submitted by the Chancellor of the Board 160099
of Regents.160100

       (D) The authority of government vested by law in the boards 160101
of trustees of state institutions of higher education shall in 160102
fact be exercised by those boards. Boards of trustees may consult 160103
extensively with appropriate student and faculty groups. 160104
Administrative decisions about the utilization of available 160105
resources, about organizational structure, about disciplinary 160106
procedure, about the operation and staffing of all auxiliary 160107
facilities, and about administrative personnel shall be the 160108
exclusive prerogative of boards of trustees. Any delegation of 160109
authority by a board of trustees in other areas of responsibility 160110
shall be accompanied by appropriate standards of guidance 160111
concerning expected objectives in the exercise of such delegated 160112
authority and shall be accompanied by periodic review of the 160113
exercise of this delegated authority to the end that the public 160114
interest, in contrast to any institutional or special interest, 160115
shall be served.160116

       Section 363.240. STUDENT SUPPORT SERVICES160117

       The foregoing appropriation item 235502, Student Support 160118
Services, shall be distributed by the Chancellor of the Board of 160119
Regents to Ohio's state colleges and universities that incur 160120
disproportionate costs in the provision of support services to 160121
disabled students.160122

       Section 363.250. WAR ORPHANS SCHOLARSHIPS160123

       The foregoing appropriation item 235504, War Orphans 160124
Scholarships, shall be used to reimburse state institutions of 160125
higher education for waivers of instructional fees and general 160126
fees provided by them, to provide grants to institutions that have 160127
received a certificate of authorization from the Chancellor of the 160128
Board of Regents under Chapter 1713. of the Revised Code, in 160129
accordance with the provisions of section 5910.04 of the Revised 160130
Code, and to fund additional scholarship benefits provided by 160131
section 5910.032 of the Revised Code.160132

       Section 363.260. OHIOLINK160133

       The foregoing appropriation item 235507, OhioLINK, shall be 160134
used by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents to support 160135
OhioLINK, a consortium organized under division (T) of section 160136
3333.04 of the Revised Code to serve as the state's electronic 160137
library information and retrieval system, which provides access 160138
statewide to an extensive set of electronic databases and 160139
resources, the library holdings of Ohio's public and participating 160140
private nonprofit colleges and universities, and the State Library 160141
of Ohio.160142

       Section 363.270. AIR FORCE INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY160143

       The foregoing appropriation item 235508, Air Force Institute 160144
of Technology, shall be used to: (A) strengthen the research and 160145
educational linkages between the Wright Patterson Air Force Base 160146
and institutions of higher education in Ohio; and (B) support the 160147
Dayton Area Graduate Studies Institute, an engineering graduate 160148
consortium of Wright State University, the University of Dayton, 160149
and the Air Force Institute of Technology, with the participation 160150
of the University of Cincinnati and The Ohio State University. 160151

       Section 363.280. OHIO SUPERCOMPUTER CENTER160152

       The foregoing appropriation item 235510, Ohio Supercomputer 160153
Center, shall be used by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents to 160154
support the operation of the Ohio Supercomputer Center, a 160155
consortium organized under division (T) of section 3333.04 of the 160156
Revised Code, located at The Ohio State University. The Ohio 160157
Supercomputer Center is a statewide resource available to Ohio 160158
research universities both public and private. It is also intended 160159
that the center be made accessible to private industry as 160160
appropriate.160161

       Funds shall be used, in part, to support the Ohio 160162
Supercomputer Center's Computational Science Initiative, which 160163
includes its industrial outreach program, Blue Collar Computing, 160164
and its School of Computational Science. These collaborations 160165
between the Ohio Supercomputer Center and Ohio's colleges and 160166
universities shall be aimed at making Ohio a leader in using 160167
computer modeling to promote economic development.160168

       Section 363.290. COOPERATIVE EXTENSION SERVICE160169

       The foregoing appropriation item 235511, Cooperative 160170
Extension Service, shall be disbursed through the Chancellor of 160171
the Board of Regents to The Ohio State University in monthly 160172
payments, unless otherwise determined by the Director of Budget 160173
and Management under section 126.09 of the Revised Code.160174

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235511, Cooperative 160175
Extension Service, up to $30,000 in fiscal year 2014 shall be used 160176
to develop an in-school agriculturally based curriculum for 160177
inclusion within the regular classroom curriculum of an elementary 160178
school in the Cleveland Municipal School District and the 160179
Cincinnati City School District.160180

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 235511, Cooperative 160181
Extension Service, up to $73,450 in each fiscal year shall be used 160182
to support a City of Cleveland Program Manager tasked with 160183
preparing regular classroom teachers in one elementary school to 160184
recruit and train volunteers for an after-school 4-H Club.160185

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 235511, Cooperative 160186
Extension Service, $73,450 in each fiscal year shall be used to 160187
support a City of Cincinnati Program Manager tasked with preparing 160188
regular classroom teachers in one elementary school to recruit and 160189
train volunteers for an after-school 4-H Club.160190

       Section 363.293. OSU AGRICULTURAL TECHNICAL INSTITUTE 160191
SUPPLEMENT160192

       The foregoing appropriation item 235512, OSU Agricultural 160193
Technical Institute Supplement, shall be used to support The Ohio 160194
State University Agricultural Technical Institute Campus.160195

       Section 363.300. CENTRAL STATE SUPPLEMENT160196

       The foregoing appropriation item 235514, Central State 160197
Supplement, shall be disbursed by the Chancellor of the Board of 160198
Regents to Central State University in accordance with the plan 160199
developed by the Chancellor and submitted to the Governor and the 160200
General Assembly as directed by Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th 160201
General Assembly. Funds shall be used in a manner consistent with 160202
the goals of increasing enrollment, improving course completion, 160203
and increasing the number of degrees conferred.160204

        The Chancellor shall monitor the implementation of the plan 160205
and the use of funds. Central State University shall provide any 160206
information requested by the Chancellor related to the 160207
implementation of the plan. If the Chancellor determines that 160208
Central State University's use of supplemental funds is not in 160209
accordance with the plan or if the plan is not having the desired 160210
effect, the Chancellor may notify Central State University that 160211
the plan is suspended. Upon receiving such notice, Central State 160212
University shall avoid all unnecessary expenditures under the 160213
plan. The Chancellor shall notify the Controlling Board of the 160214
suspension of the plan and within sixty days prepare a new plan 160215
for the use of any remaining funds.160216

       Section 363.310. CASE WESTERN RESERVE UNIVERSITY SCHOOL OF 160217
MEDICINE160218

       The foregoing appropriation item 235515, Case Western Reserve 160219
University School of Medicine, shall be disbursed to Case Western 160220
Reserve University through the Chancellor of the Board of Regents 160221
in accordance with agreements entered into under section 3333.10 160222
of the Revised Code, provided that the state support per full-time 160223
medical student shall not exceed that provided to full-time 160224
medical students at state universities.160225

       Section 363.313. WRIGHT STATE LAKE CAMPUS AGRICULTURAL 160226
PROGRAM160227

        The foregoing appropriation item 235516, Wright State Lake 160228
Campus Agricultural Program, shall be used to support the 160229
agricultural program at Wright State University's Lake Campus.160230

       Section 363.320. FAMILY PRACTICE160231

       The Chancellor of the Ohio Board of Regents shall develop 160232
plans consistent with existing criteria and guidelines as may be 160233
required for the distribution of appropriation item 235519, Family 160234
Practice.160235

       Section 363.330. SHAWNEE STATE SUPPLEMENT160236

       The foregoing appropriation item 235520, Shawnee State 160237
Supplement, shall be disbursed by the Chancellor of the Board of 160238
Regents to Shawnee State University in accordance with the plan 160239
developed by the Chancellor and submitted to the Governor and the 160240
General Assembly as directed by Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th 160241
General Assembly. Funds shall be used in a manner consistent with 160242
the goals of improving course completion, increasing the number of 160243
degrees conferred, and furthering the university's mission of 160244
service to the Appalachian region.160245

        The Chancellor shall monitor the implementation of the plan 160246
and the use of funds. Shawnee State University shall provide any 160247
information requested by the Chancellor related to the 160248
implementation of the plan. If the Chancellor determines that 160249
Shawnee State University's use of supplemental funds is not in 160250
accordance with the plan or if the plan is not having the desired 160251
effect, the Chancellor may notify Shawnee State University that 160252
the plan is suspended. Upon receiving such notice, Shawnee State 160253
University shall avoid all unnecessary expenditures under the 160254
plan. The Chancellor shall notify the Controlling Board of the 160255
suspension of the plan and within sixty days prepare a new plan 160256
for the use of any remaining funds.160257

       Section 363.333. YOUTH STEM COMMERCIALIZATION AND 160258
ENTREPRENEURSHIP PROGRAM160259

       The foregoing appropriation item 235523, Youth STEM 160260
Commercialization and Entrepreneurship Program, shall be used by 160261
the Chancellor of the Ohio Board of Regents to support the Youth 160262
STEM Commercialization and Entrepreneurship Program. The purpose 160263
of this program is to grow Ohio's next generation of 160264
entrepreneurs, to create jobs in Ohio by focusing on the practical 160265
application of science, technology, engineering, and mathematics 160266
(STEM), including medicine and health fields, and to innovate new 160267
products and services. The Youth STEM Commercialization and 160268
Entrepreneurship Program shall (1) conduct regional STEM forums 160269
for students and educators; (2) develop regional online high 160270
school and collegiate STEM commercialization and entrepreneurship 160271
content and courses; (3) create a statewide STEM commercialization 160272
and entrepreneurship mentoring network available to high school 160273
students anywhere in Ohio; and (4) conduct a statewide STEM 160274
Commercialization and Entrepreneurship Plan competition that 160275
includes incentive awards and scholarships for students and 160276
professional development and incentives for teacher participation. 160277
The competition and all aspects of the program shall be open to 160278
any Ohio high school student and shall include initiatives to 160279
engage minority, rural, and economically disadvantaged students 160280
anywhere in Ohio. The Youth STEM Commercialization and 160281
Entrepreneurship Program shall collaborate with Ohio's colleges 160282
and universities, existing STEM and entrepreneurship programs, and 160283
Ohio's STEM professional and trade associations to implement these 160284
provisions and to create the new products or services of the 160285
future, advance job creation in Ohio, and encourage enrollment at 160286
Ohio institutions of higher education.160287

       Section 363.340. POLICE AND FIRE PROTECTION160288

       The foregoing appropriation item 235524, Police and Fire 160289
Protection, shall be used for police and fire services in the 160290
municipalities of Kent, Athens, Oxford, Fairborn, Bowling Green, 160291
Portsmouth, Xenia Township (Greene County), Rootstown Township, 160292
and the City of Nelsonville that may be used to assist these local 160293
governments in providing police and fire protection for the 160294
central campus of the state-affiliated university located therein. 160295

       Section 363.350. GERIATRIC MEDICINE160296

       The Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall develop plans 160297
consistent with existing criteria and guidelines as may be 160298
required for the distribution of appropriation item 235525, 160299
Geriatric Medicine.160300

       Section 363.360. PRIMARY CARE RESIDENCIES160301

       The Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall develop plans 160302
consistent with existing criteria and guidelines as may be 160303
required for the distribution of appropriation item 235526, 160304
Primary Care Residencies.160305

       The foregoing appropriation item 235526, Primary Care 160306
Residencies, shall be distributed in each fiscal year of the 160307
biennium, based on whether or not the institution has submitted 160308
and gained approval for a plan. If the institution does not have 160309
an approved plan, it shall receive five per cent less funding per 160310
student than it would have received from its annual allocation. 160311
The remaining funding shall be distributed among those 160312
institutions that meet or exceed their targets.160313

       Section 363.370. OHIO AGRICULTURAL RESEARCH AND DEVELOPMENT 160314
CENTER160315

       The foregoing appropriation item 235535, Ohio Agricultural 160316
Research and Development Center, shall be disbursed through the 160317
Chancellor of the Board of Regents to The Ohio State University in 160318
monthly payments, unless otherwise determined by the Director of 160319
Budget and Management under section 126.09 of the Revised Code. 160320
The Ohio Agricultural Research and Development Center shall not be 160321
required to remit payment to The Ohio State University during the 160322
biennium ending June 30, 2015, for cost reallocation assessments. 160323
The cost reallocation assessments include, but are not limited to, 160324
any assessment on state appropriations to the Center.160325

       The Ohio Agricultural Research and Development Center, an 160326
entity of the College of Food, Agricultural, and Environmental 160327
Sciences of The Ohio State University, shall further its mission 160328
of enhancing Ohio's economic development and job creation by 160329
continuing to internally allocate on a competitive basis 160330
appropriated funding of programs based on demonstrated 160331
performance. Academic units, faculty, and faculty-driven programs 160332
shall be evaluated and rewarded consistent with agreed-upon 160333
performance expectations as called for in the College's 160334
Expectations and Criteria for Performance Assessment.160335

       Section 363.380. STATE UNIVERSITY CLINICAL TEACHING160336

       The foregoing appropriation items 235536, The Ohio State 160337
University Clinical Teaching; 235537, University of Cincinnati 160338
Clinical Teaching; 235538, University of Toledo Clinical Teaching; 160339
235539, Wright State University Clinical Teaching; 235540, Ohio 160340
University Clinical Teaching; and 235541, Northeast Ohio Medical 160341
University Clinical Teaching, shall be distributed through the 160342
Chancellor of the Board of Regents.160343

       Section 363.390. CAPITAL COMPONENT160344

       The foregoing appropriation item 235552, Capital Component, 160345
shall be used by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents to provide 160346
funding for prior commitments made pursuant to the state's former 160347
capital funding policy for state colleges and universities that 160348
was originally established in Am. H.B. 748 of the 121st General 160349
Assembly. Appropriations from this item shall be distributed to 160350
all campuses for which the estimated campus debt service 160351
attributable to qualifying capital projects was less than the 160352
campus's formula-determined capital component allocation. Campus 160353
allocations shall be determined by subtracting the estimated 160354
campus debt service attributable to qualifying capital projects 160355
from the campus's formula-determined capital component allocation. 160356
Moneys distributed from this appropriation item shall be 160357
restricted to capital-related purposes.160358

       Any campus for which the estimated campus debt service 160359
attributable to qualifying capital projects is greater than the 160360
campus's formula-determined capital component allocation shall 160361
have the difference subtracted from its State Share of Instruction 160362
allocation in each fiscal year. Appropriation equal to the sum of 160363
all such amounts except that of the Ohio Agricultural Research and 160364
Development Center shall be transferred from appropriation item 160365
235501, State Share of Instruction, to appropriation item 235552, 160366
Capital Component. Appropriation equal to any estimated Ohio 160367
Agricultural Research and Development Center debt service 160368
attributable to qualifying capital projects that is greater than 160369
the Center's formula-determined capital component allocation shall 160370
be transferred from appropriation item 235535, Ohio Agricultural 160371
Research and Development Center, to appropriation item 235552, 160372
Capital Component.160373

       Section 363.400. LIBRARY DEPOSITORIES160374

       The foregoing appropriation item, 235555, Library 160375
Depositories, shall be distributed to the state's five regional 160376
depository libraries for the cost-effective storage of and access 160377
to lesser-used materials in university library collections. The 160378
depositories shall be administrated by the Chancellor of the Board 160379
of Regents, or by OhioLINK at the discretion of the Chancellor.160380

       Section 363.410. OHIO ACADEMIC RESOURCES NETWORK (OARNET)160381

       The foregoing appropriation item 235556, Ohio Academic 160382
Resources Network, shall be used by the Chancellor of the Board of 160383
Regents to support the operations of the Ohio Academic Resources 160384
Network, a consortium organized under division (T) of section 160385
3333.04 of the Revised Code, which shall include support for 160386
Ohio's colleges and universities in maintaining and enhancing 160387
network connections, using new network technologies to improve 160388
research, education, and economic development programs, and 160389
sharing information technology services. To the extent network 160390
capacity is available, OARnet shall support allocating bandwidth 160391
to eligible programs directly supporting Ohio's economic 160392
development.160393

       Section 363.420. LONG-TERM CARE RESEARCH160394

       The foregoing appropriation item 235558, Long-term Care 160395
Research, shall be disbursed to Miami University for long-term 160396
care research.160397

       Section 363.430.  OHIO COLLEGE OPPORTUNITY GRANT160398

       (A) Except as provided in division (C) of this section:160399

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235563, Ohio College 160400
Opportunity Grant, $41,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be used 160401
by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents to award need-based 160402
financial aid to students enrolled in eligible four-year public 160403
institutions of higher education, excluding early college high 160404
school and post-secondary enrollment option participants.160405

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235563, Ohio College 160406
Opportunity Grant, $41,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be used 160407
by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents to award need-based 160408
financial aid to students enrolled in eligible private nonprofit 160409
institutions of higher education, excluding early college high 160410
school and post-secondary enrollment option participants.160411

       The remainder of the foregoing appropriation item 235563, 160412
Ohio College Opportunity Grant, shall be used by the Chancellor of 160413
the Board of Regents to award needs-based financial aid to 160414
students enrolled in eligible private for-profit career colleges 160415
and schools.160416

       (B)(1) As used in this section:160417

       (a) "Eligible institution" means any institution described in 160418
divisions (B)(2)(a) to (c) of section 3333.122 of the Revised 160419
Code.160420

       (b) The three "sectors" of institutions of higher education 160421
consist of the following:160422

       (i) State colleges and universities, community colleges, 160423
state community colleges, university branches, and technical 160424
colleges;160425

       (ii) Eligible private nonprofit institutions of higher 160426
education;160427

       (iii) Eligible private for-profit career colleges and 160428
schools.160429

       (2) If the Chancellor determines that the amounts 160430
appropriated for support of the Ohio College Opportunity Grant 160431
program are inadequate to provide grants to all eligible students 160432
as calculated under division (D) of section 3333.122 of the 160433
Revised Code, the Chancellor may create a distribution formula for 160434
fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015 based on the formula used in 160435
fiscal year 2013, or may follow methods established in division 160436
(C)(1)(a) or (b) of section 3333.122 of the Revised Code. The 160437
Chancellor shall notify the Controlling Board of the distribution 160438
method. Any formula calculated under this division shall be 160439
complete and established to coincide with the start of the 160440
2013-2014 academic year. 160441

       (C) Prior to determining the amount of funds available to 160442
award under this section and section 3333.122 of the Revised Code, 160443
the Chancellor shall use the foregoing appropriation item 235563, 160444
Ohio College Opportunity Grant, to pay for renewals or partial 160445
renewals of scholarships students receive under the Ohio Academic 160446
Scholarship Program under sections 3333.21 and 3333.22 of the 160447
Revised Code. In paying for scholarships under this division, the 160448
Chancellor shall deduct funds from the allocations made under 160449
division (A) of this section. Deductions shall be proportionate to 160450
the amounts allocated to each sector from the total amounts 160451
appropriated for each sector under the foregoing appropriation 160452
item 235563, Ohio College Opportunity Grant.160453

       In each fiscal year, with the exception of sections 3333.121 160454
and 3333.124 of the Revised Code and Section 363.530 of this act, 160455
the Chancellor shall not distribute or obligate or commit to be 160456
distributed an amount greater than what is appropriated under the 160457
foregoing appropriation item 235563, Ohio College Opportunity 160458
Grant.160459

       (D) The Chancellor shall establish, and post on the Ohio 160460
Board of Regents' web site, award tables based on any formulas 160461
created under division (B) of this section. The Chancellor shall 160462
notify students and institutions of any reductions in awards under 160463
this section.160464

        On or before August 31, 2013, the Chancellor of the Board of 160465
Regents shall submit award tables to the Controlling Board for the 160466
2013-2014 academic year and allocations of Ohio College 160467
Opportunity Grant awards not already specified in section 3333.122 160468
of the Revised Code.160469

       (E) Notwithstanding section 3333.122 of the Revised Code, no 160470
student shall be eligible to receive an Ohio College Opportunity 160471
Grant for more than ten semesters, fifteen quarters, or the 160472
equivalent of five academic years, less the number of semesters or 160473
quarters in which the student received an Ohio Instructional 160474
Grant.160475

       Section 363.440. THE OHIO STATE UNIVERSITY CLINIC SUPPORT160476

       The foregoing appropriation item 235572, The Ohio State 160477
University Clinic Support, shall be distributed through the 160478
Chancellor of the Board of Regents to The Ohio State University 160479
for support of dental and veterinary medicine clinics.160480

       Section 363.450. NATIONAL GUARD SCHOLARSHIP PROGRAM160481

       The Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall disburse funds 160482
from appropriation item 235599, National Guard Scholarship 160483
Program. During each fiscal year, the Chancellor of the Board of 160484
Regents, within ten days of cancellation, may certify to the 160485
Director of Budget and Management the amount of canceled 160486
prior-year encumbrances in appropriation item 235599, National 160487
Guard Scholarship Program. Upon receipt of the certification, the 160488
Director of Budget and Management may transfer cash in an amount 160489
up to the amount certified from the General Revenue Fund to the 160490
National Guard Scholarship Reserve Fund (Fund 5BM0). The 160491
Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall seek Controlling Board 160492
approval to authorize additional expenditures for appropriation 160493
item 235623, National Guard Scholarship Reserve Fund. Upon 160494
approval of the Controlling Board, the additional amounts are 160495
hereby appropriated. The Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall 160496
disburse funds from appropriation item 235623, National Guard 160497
Scholarship Reserve Fund.160498

       Section 363.460. PLEDGE OF FEES160499

       Any new pledge of fees, or new agreement for adjustment of 160500
fees, made in the biennium ending June 30, 2015, to secure bonds 160501
or notes of a state institution of higher education for a project 160502
for which bonds or notes were not outstanding on the effective 160503
date of this section shall be effective only after approval by the 160504
Chancellor of the Board of Regents, unless approved in a previous 160505
biennium.160506

       Section 363.470. HIGHER EDUCATION GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT 160507
SERVICE160508

       The foregoing appropriation item 235909, Higher Education 160509
General Obligation Debt Service, shall be used to pay all debt 160510
service and related financing costs at the times they are required 160511
to be made during the period from July 1, 2013, through June 30, 160512
2015, for obligations issued under sections 151.01 and 151.04 of 160513
the Revised Code.160514

       Section 363.480. SALES AND SERVICES160515

        The Chancellor of the Board of Regents is authorized to 160516
charge and accept payment for the provision of goods and services. 160517
Such charges shall be reasonably related to the cost of producing 160518
the goods and services. Except as otherwise provided by law, no 160519
charges may be levied for goods or services that are produced as 160520
part of the routine responsibilities or duties of the Chancellor. 160521
All revenues received by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents 160522
shall be deposited into Fund 4560, and may be used by the 160523
Chancellor of the Board of Regents to pay for the costs of 160524
producing the goods and services.160525

       Section 363.483.  CO-OP INTERNSHIP PROGRAM160526

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 160527
Program, $200,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 160528
Museum of Contemporary Art Cleveland fellowship program in 160529
collaboration with Cleveland State University.160530

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 160531
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used by the 160532
Chancellor of the Board of Regents to support the operations of 160533
Ohio University's Voinovich School.160534

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 160535
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year, shall be used by the 160536
Chancellor of the Board of Regents to support the operations of 160537
The Ohio State University's John Glenn School of Public Affairs.160538

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 160539
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 160540
Bliss Institute of Applied Politics at the University of Akron.160541

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 160542
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 160543
Center for Public Management and Regional Affairs at Miami 160544
University.160545

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 160546
Program, $150,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 160547
Washington Center Internship Program.160548

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 160549
Program, $150,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 160550
Ohio Center for the Advancement of Women in Public Service at the 160551
Maxine Goodman Levin College of Urban Affairs at Cleveland State 160552
University.160553

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 160554
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 160555
University of Cincinnati Internship Program.160556

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 160557
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used by the 160558
Chancellor of the Board of Regents to support the operations of 160559
the Center for Regional Development at Bowling Green State 160560
University.160561

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 160562
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used by the 160563
Chancellor of the Board of Regents to support the operations of 160564
the Institute for Defense Studies at Wright State University.160565

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 160566
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 160567
Kent State University Columbus Program.160568

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 160569
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 160570
University of Toledo Urban Affairs Center.160571

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 160572
Program, $10,000 in each fiscal year shall be provided to the Ohio 160573
College Access Network to support the Ohio Student Education 160574
Policy Institute.160575

       Section 363.485. DEFENSE/AEROSPACE WORKFORCE DEVELOPMENT 160576
INITIATIVE160577

       The foregoing appropriation item 235668, Defense/Aerospace 160578
Workforce Development Initiative, shall be used by the 160579
Defense/Aerospace Graduate Studies Institute, to collaborate with 160580
the aviation, aerospace, and defense industries, to strengthen job 160581
training programs, equip Ohio's workforce with needed skills, and 160582
strengthen and grow research and educational linkages among Ohio's 160583
defense and aerospace aviation industry, federal agencies, and the 160584
University System of Ohio. A portion of the foregoing 160585
appropriation item 235668, Defense/Aerospace Workforce Development 160586
Initiative, shall be allocated to develop a strategic plan to 160587
align the University System of Ohio's research and workforce 160588
development assets with the workforce needs of public and private 160589
sector employers. A portion of these funds shall be used to 160590
support the Aerospace Professional Development Center to establish 160591
processes necessary to link underemployed or unemployed persons to 160592
job openings in these industries. The funds appropriated in this 160593
appropriation item shall be matched by private industry or 160594
educational partners or federal agencies in the aggregate amount 160595
of $4,000,000 over the FY 2014–FY 2015 biennium.160596

       Section 363.487. MANUFACTURING WORKFORCE DEVELOPMENT 160597
INITIATIVE160598

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235685, Manufacturing 160599
Workforce Development Initiative, $1,000,000 in fiscal year 2014 160600
shall be used for a demonstration project to purchase portable 160601
welding stations made from large shipping containers and high 160602
level advanced training equipment for use by Lorain County 160603
Community College.160604

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235685, Manufacturing 160605
Workforce Development Initiative, $1,000,000 in fiscal year 2014 160606
shall be used for a demonstration project to purchase portable 160607
welding stations made from large shipping containers and high 160608
level advanced training equipment for use at the Point Industrial 160609
Park in South Point.160610

       Section 363.490. HIGHER EDUCATIONAL FACILITY COMMISSION 160611
ADMINISTRATION160612

       The foregoing appropriation item 235602, Higher Educational 160613
Facility Commission Administration, shall be used by the 160614
Chancellor of the Board of Regents for operating expenses related 160615
to the Chancellor of the Board of Regents' support of the 160616
activities of the Ohio Higher Educational Facility Commission. 160617
Upon the request of the Chancellor, the Director of Budget and 160618
Management may transfer up to $29,100 cash in each fiscal year 160619
from the HEFC Operating Expenses Fund (Fund 4610) to the HEFC 160620
Administration Fund (Fund 4E80).160621

       Section 363.500. NURSING LOAN PROGRAM160622

       The foregoing appropriation item 235606, Nursing Loan 160623
Program, shall be used to administer the nurse education 160624
assistance program. Up to $50,000 in each fiscal year may be used 160625
for operating expenses associated with the program. Any additional 160626
funds needed for the administration of the program are subject to 160627
Controlling Board approval.160628

       Section 363.510.  TELECOMMUNITY AND DISTANCE LEARNING160629

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 235674, Telecommunity and 160630
Distance Learning, up to $25,000 in each fiscal year shall be 160631
distributed by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents on a grant 160632
basis to eligible school districts to establish "distance 160633
learning" through interactive video technologies in the school 160634
district. Per agreements with eight Ohio local telephone 160635
companies, ALLTEL Ohio, CENTURY Telephone of Ohio, Chillicothe 160636
Telephone Company, Cincinnati Bell Telephone Company, Orwell 160637
Telephone Company, Sprint North Central Telephone, VERIZON, and 160638
Western Reserve Telephone Company, school districts are eligible 160639
for funds if they are within one of the listed telephone company 160640
service areas. Funds to administer the program shall be expended 160641
by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents up to the amount 160642
specified in the agreements with the listed telephone companies.160643

        Within thirty days after the effective date of this section, 160644
the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer to Fund 4X10 160645
in the State Special Revenue Fund Group any investment earnings 160646
from moneys paid by any telephone company as part of any 160647
settlement agreement between the listed companies and the Public 160648
Utilities Commission in fiscal years 1996 and beyond.160649

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 235674, Telecommunity and 160650
Distance Learning, up to $24,150 in each fiscal year shall be 160651
distributed by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents on a grant 160652
basis to eligible school districts to establish "distance 160653
learning" in the school district. Per an agreement with Ameritech, 160654
school districts are eligible for funds if they are within an 160655
Ameritech service area. Funds to administer the program shall be 160656
expended by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents up to the 160657
amount specified in the agreement with Ameritech.160658

        Within thirty days after the effective date of this section, 160659
the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer to Fund 4X10 160660
in the State Special Revenue Fund Group any investment earnings 160661
from moneys paid by any telephone company as part of a settlement 160662
agreement between the company and the Public Utilities Commission 160663
in fiscal year 1995.160664

       Section 363.520. VETERANS PREFERENCES160665

       The Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall work with the 160666
Department of Veterans Services to develop specific veterans 160667
preference guidelines for higher education institutions. These 160668
guidelines shall ensure that the institutions' hiring practices 160669
are in accordance with the intent of Ohio's veterans preference 160670
laws.160671

       Section 363.530. STATE NEED-BASED FINANCIAL AID 160672
RECONCILIATION160673

       By the first day of August in each fiscal year, or as soon as 160674
possible thereafter, the Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall 160675
certify to the Director of Budget and Management the amount 160676
necessary to pay any outstanding prior year obligations to higher 160677
education institutions for the state's need-based financial aid 160678
programs. The amounts certified are hereby appropriated to 160679
appropriation item 235618, State Need-based Financial Aid 160680
Reconciliation, from revenues received in the State Need-based 160681
Financial Aid Reconciliation Fund (Fund 5Y50).160682

       Section 363.540.  (A) As used in this section:160683

       (1) "Board of trustees" includes the managing authority of a 160684
university branch district.160685

       (2) "State institution of higher education" has the same 160686
meaning as in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.160687

       (B) The board of trustees of any state institution of higher 160688
education, notwithstanding any rule of the institution to the 160689
contrary, may adopt a policy providing for mandatory furloughs of 160690
employees, including faculty, to achieve spending reductions 160691
necessitated by institutional budget deficits.160692

       Section 363.550. EFFICIENCY ADVISORY COMMITTEE160693

        The Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall establish an 160694
efficiency advisory committee for the purpose of generating 160695
optimal efficiency plans for campuses, identifying shared services 160696
opportunities, and sharing best practices. The efficiency advisory 160697
committee shall also explore methods for reducing the costs for 160698
students for textbooks and other education resource materials. The 160699
committee shall meet at the call of the Chancellor or the 160700
Chancellor's designee, but at least quarterly. Each state 160701
institution of higher education shall designate an employee to 160702
serve as its efficiency officer responsible for the evaluation and 160703
improvement of operational efficiencies on campus. Each efficiency 160704
officer shall serve on the efficiency advisory committee.160705

       By December 31 of each year, the Efficiency Advisory 160706
Committee shall provide a report to the Office of Budget and 160707
Management, the Governor, and the General Assembly compiling the 160708
operational efficiency plans for all institutions of higher 160709
education and benchmarking efficiency gains realized over the 160710
preceding year and progress in implementing the prior year's 160711
efficiency plan. The report shall also be made available to the 160712
public on the Ohio Board of Regents web site. 160713

       Section 363.570. (A) FUND ABOLITION160714

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 160715
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 160716
in the eTech Ohio Telecommunity Education Fund (Fund 4W90) to the 160717
Distance Learning Fund (Fund 4X10). Upon completion of the 160718
transfer, the eTech Ohio Telecommunity Education Fund (Fund 160719
4W90)is hereby abolished.160720

       (B) ETECH OHIO COMMISSION ABOLISHMENT AND APPROPRIATION LINE 160721
ITEM TRANSFER160722

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 160723
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 160724
935411, Technology Integration and Professional Development, and 160725
re-establish them, as determined to be appropriate by the Director 160726
of Budget and Management, against appropriation item 235483, 160727
Technology Integration and Professional Development. The 160728
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 160729
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 160730
935411, Technology Integration and Professional Development, by 160731
July 1, 2013, shall be completed, as determined to be appropriate 160732
by the Director of Budget and Management, under appropriation item 160733
235483, Technology Integration and Professional Development, in 160734
the same manner and with the same effect as if it were completed 160735
with regard to appropriation item 935411, Technology Integration 160736
and Professional Development. 160737

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 160738
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 160739
935640, Conference/Special Purposes, and re-establish them against 160740
appropriation item 235675, Conference/Special Purposes. The 160741
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 160742
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 160743
935640, Conference/Special Purposes, by July 1, 2013, shall be 160744
completed under appropriation item 235675, Conference/Special 160745
Purposes, in the same manner and with the same effect as if it 160746
were completed with regard to appropriation item 935640, 160747
Conference/Special Purposes. 160748

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 160749
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 160750
935630, Telecommunity, and cancel any existing encumbrances 160751
against appropriation item 935634, Distance Learning, and 160752
re-establish them against appropriation item 235674, Telecommunity 160753
and Distance Learning. The re-established encumbrance amounts are 160754
hereby appropriated. Any business commenced but not completed 160755
under appropriation items 935630, Telecommunity, and 935634, 160756
Distance Learning, by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under 160757
appropriation item 235674, Telecommunity and Distance Learning, in 160758
the same manner and with the same effect as if it were completed 160759
with regard to appropriation items 935630, Telecommunity, and 160760
935634, Distance Learning. 160761

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 160762
Director of Budget and Management shall cancel any existing 160763
capital appropriations and capital encumbrances of the former 160764
eTech Ohio Commission in the Higher Education Improvement Fund 160765
(Fund 7034), and re-establish them with the Chancellor of the 160766
Board of Regents in the Higher Education Improvement Fund (Fund 160767
7034). The re-established amounts are hereby appropriated. 160768

       Effective July 1, 2013, notwithstanding any provision of the 160769
law to the contrary, the Director of Budget and Management may 160770
make budget changes made necessary by the transfer of the former 160771
eTech Ohio Commission to the Chancellor of the Board of Regents, 160772
if any, including administrative organization, program transfers, 160773
the creation of new funds, the transfer of state funds, the 160774
consolidation of funds, and the transfer of capital 160775
appropriations, as authorized by this section. The Director of 160776
Budget and Management may, if necessary, establish prior year 160777
encumbrances or parts of prior year encumbrances of the former 160778
eTech Ohio Commission with the Chancellor of the Board of Regents 160779
in the appropriate fund and appropriation item for the same 160780
purpose and for payment to the same vendor in fiscal year 2014 or 160781
fiscal year 2015. The established encumbrances plus any additional 160782
amounts determined to be necessary for the Chancellor of the Board 160783
of Regents to perform the operations and related management 160784
functions of the former eTech Ohio Commission are hereby 160785
appropriated.160786

       (C) CONFERENCE OPERATION OFFICE160787

       Beginning in fiscal year 2014, the annual eTech Ohio 160788
Conference will be overseen by a Conference Operation Office 160789
comprised of employees of the Chancellor of the Board of Regents 160790
and Department of Education, including former employees of the 160791
eTech Ohio Commission transferred to the Chancellor of the Board 160792
of Regents and the Department of Education. The Office shall be 160793
responsible for conferences that focus on professional development 160794
in the education field, educational technology, distance learning, 160795
and other education topics pertinent to the State of Ohio.160796

       (D) TRANSFER OF CAPITAL DUTIES160797

       As of July 1, 2013, the Chancellor of the Board of Regents 160798
shall succeed to and have and perform all fiduciary duties and 160799
responsibilities previously held by the Director of eTech Ohio for 160800
all outstanding capital appropriations designated for use by eTech 160801
Ohio.160802

       Section 363.580. ELECTRONIC TEXTBOOK PILOT PROJECT 160803

       (A) The Electronic Textbook Pilot Project is hereby 160804
established to provide grants on a competitive basis to public and 160805
chartered nonpublic schools to purchase electronic textbooks, 160806
electronic educational content, and professional development and 160807
training resources through the learning clearinghouse established 160808
in section 3333.81 to 3333.88. The Electronic Textbook Pilot 160809
Project shall be administered by the Chancellor of the Board of 160810
Regents.160811

       (B) The Chancellor shall have the authority to set the grant 160812
criteria and to select grant recipients. In awarding grants under 160813
this section, the Chancellor shall establish the criteria for 160814
determining which applicants will be considered a priority for 160815
receiving grant funds.160816

        (C) Not later than January 31, 2014, the Chancellor shall 160817
issue a request for proposals from eligible schools.160818

        (D) Not later than May 31, 2014, the Chancellor shall award 160819
grants for use during the 2014-2015 school year.160820

        (E) The Chancellor and Superintendent of Public Instruction 160821
jointly shall notify schools of and promote participation in the 160822
pilot project.160823

        (F) Not later than December 31, 2015, the Chancellor shall 160824
submit to the Governor and the General Assembly, in accordance 160825
with section 101.68 of the Revised Code, a formative evaluation of 160826
the implementation and results of the pilot project and 160827
legislative recommendations for any changes in the pilot project.160828

       (G) The number of grants awarded under this section shall not 160829
exceed the number that can be funded with appropriations made by 160830
the General Assembly for this purpose.160831

       Section 363.590. COLLEGE CREDIT PLUS PROGRAM160832

        The Chancellor shall make recommendations to the General 160833
Assembly to establish the College Credit Plus program, whereby 160834
high school students may earn credits through Ohio institutions of 160835
higher education. The Chancellor shall consult with the 160836
Inter-University Council of Ohio, the Association of Independent 160837
Colleges and Universities of Ohio, the Ohio Association of 160838
Community Colleges, and the Superintendent of Public Instruction 160839
in developing the recommendations. The Chancellor shall provide a 160840
report of the recommendation to the Governor, the President of the 160841
Senate, and the Speaker of the House of Representatives by 160842
December 31, 2013, for implementation in the 2014-2015 academic 160843
year.160844

       Section 365.10. DRC DEPARTMENT OF REHABILITATION AND 160845
CORRECTION160846

General Revenue Fund160847

GRF 501321 Institutional Operations $ 883,768,015 $ 873,724,802 160848
GRF 501403 Prisoner Compensation $ 6,000,000 $ 6,000,000 160849
GRF 501405 Halfway House $ 45,049,356 $ 46,024,108 160850
GRF 501406 Lease Rental Payments $ 104,099,500 $ 99,534,800 160851
GRF 501407 Community Nonresidential Programs $ 34,187,858 $ 34,314,390 160852
GRF 501408 Community Misdemeanor Programs $ 12,856,800 $ 12,856,800 160853
GRF 501501 Community Residential Programs - CBCF $ 63,345,972 $ 66,150,781 160854
GRF 503321 Parole and Community Operations $ 64,480,938 $ 65,029,680 160855
GRF 504321 Administrative Operations $ 20,659,664 $ 20,907,476 160856
GRF 505321 Institution Medical Services $ 243,289,774 $ 254,139,452 160857
GRF 506321 Institution Education Services $ 19,102,051 $ 19,112,418 160858
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 1,496,839,928 $ 1,497,794,707 160859

General Services Fund Group160860

1480 501602 Institutional Services $ 3,139,577 $ 3,139,577 160861
2000 501607 Ohio Penal Industries $ 41,393,226 $ 40,609,872 160862
4830 501605 Property Receipts $ 582,086 $ 582,086 160863
4B00 501601 Sewer Treatment Services $ 2,023,671 $ 2,067,214 160864
4D40 501603 Prisoner Programs $ 17,499,255 $ 17,499,255 160865
4L40 501604 Transitional Control $ 1,113,120 $ 1,113,120 160866
4S50 501608 Education Services $ 4,114,782 $ 4,114,782 160867
5710 501606 Training Academy Receipts $ 125,000 $ 125,000 160868
5930 501618 Laboratory Services $ 3,750,000 $ 0 160869
5AF0 501609 State and Non-Federal Awards $ 1,440,000 $ 1,440,000 160870
5H80 501617 Offender Financial Responsibility $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 160871
5L60 501611 Information Technology Services $ 250,000 $ 250,000 160872
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 77,430,717 $ 72,940,906 160873

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group160874

3230 501619 Federal Grants $ 7,132,943 $ 7,132,943 160875
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 160876
Fund Group $ 7,132,943 $ 7,132,943 160877

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,581,403,588 $ 1,577,868,556 160878

       TRANSFER OF OPERATING APPROPRIATIONS TO IMPLEMENT CRIMINAL 160879
SENTENCING REFORMS160880

       For the purposes of implementing criminal sentencing reforms, 160881
and notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, 160882
the Director of Budget and Management, at the request of the 160883
Director of Rehabilitation and Correction, may transfer up to 160884
$14,000,000 in appropriations, in each of fiscal years 2014 and 160885
2015, from appropriation item 501321, Institutional Operations, to 160886
any combination of appropriation items 501405, Halfway House; 160887
501407, Community Residential Programs; 501408, Community 160888
Misdemeanor Programs; and 501501, Community Residential Programs - 160889
CBCF.160890

       LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS160891

       The foregoing appropriation item 501406, Lease Rental 160892
Payments, shall be used to meet all payments at the times they are 160893
required to be made during the period from July 1, 2013, through 160894
June 30, 2015, by the Department of Rehabilitation and Correction 160895
under the primary leases and agreements for those buildings made 160896
under Chapters 152. and 154. of the Revised Code. These 160897
appropriations are the source of funds pledged for bond service 160898
charges on related obligations issued under Chapters 152. and 154. 160899
of the Revised Code.160900

        OSU MEDICAL CHARGES160901

        Notwithstanding section 341.192 of the Revised Code, at the 160902
request of the Department of Rehabilitation and Correction, The 160903
Ohio State University Medical Center, including the Arthur G. 160904
James Cancer Hospital and Richard J. Solove Research Institute and 160905
the Richard M. Ross Heart Hospital, shall provide necessary care 160906
to persons who are confined in state adult correctional 160907
facilities. The provision of necessary care shall be billed to the 160908
Department at a rate not to exceed the authorized reimbursement 160909
rate for the same service established by the Department of 160910
Medicaid under the Medicaid Program.160911

       CORRECTIVE CASH TRANSFER160912

       At the request of the Director of Rehabilitation and 160913
Correction, the Director of Budget and Management may transfer an 160914
amount not to exceed $2,391 in cash that was mistakenly deposited 160915
in the Federal Grants Fund (Fund 3230) to the General Revenue 160916
Fund.160917

       Section 369.10. RCB RESPIRATORY CARE BOARD160918

General Services Fund Group160919

4K90 872609 Operating Expenses $ 552,876 $ 545,246 160920
TOTAL GSF General Services 160921
Fund Group $ 552,876 $ 545,246 160922
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 552,876 $ 545,246 160923


       Section 371.10. RDF REVENUE DISTRIBUTION FUNDS160925

Special State Revenue Fund Group160926

5JG0 110633 Gross Casino Revenue County Fund $ 158,005,325 $ 168,977,942 160927
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 158,005,325 $ 168,977,942 160928

Volunteer Firefighters' Dependents Fund160929

7085 800985 Volunteer Firemen's Dependents Fund $ 300,000 $ 300,000 160930
TOTAL 085 Volunteer Firefighters' 160931
Dependents Fund $ 300,000 $ 300,000 160932

Agency Fund Group160933

4P80 001698 Cash Management Improvement Fund $ 3,100,000 $ 3,100,000 160934
5JH0 110634 Gross Casino Revenue County Student Fund $ 105,336,883 $ 112,651,961 160935
5JJ0 110636 Gross Casino Revenue Host City Fund $ 15,490,718 $ 16,566,465 160936
6080 001699 Investment Earnings $ 30,000,000 $ 30,000,000 160937
7062 110962 Resort Area Excise Tax $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 160938
7063 110963 Permissive Tax Distribution $ 2,066,331,400 $ 2,151,135,100 160939
7067 110967 School District Income Tax $ 346,669,300 $ 365,277,800 160940
7099 762902 Permissive Tax Distribution - Auto Registration $ 184,000,000 $ 184,000,000 160941
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 2,751,928,301 $ 2,863,731,326 160942

Holding Account Redistribution160943

R045 110617 International Fuel Tax Distribution $ 40,000,000 $ 40,000,000 160944
TOTAL 090 Holding Account Redistribution Fund $ 40,000,000 $ 40,000,000 160945
Revenue Distribution Fund Group 160946
7049 335900 Indigent Drivers Alcohol Treatment $ 2,250,000 $ 2,250,000 160947
7050 762900 International Registration Plan Distribution $ 30,000,000 $ 30,000,000 160948
7051 762901 Auto Registration Distribution $ 360,000,000 $ 360,000,000 160949
7054 110954 Local Government Property Tax Replacement - Utility $ 5,649,000 $ 5,649,000 160950
7060 110960 Gasoline Excise Tax Fund $ 395,000,000 $ 395,000,000 160951
7065 110965 Public Library Fund $ 359,300,000 $ 369,000,000 160952
7066 800966 Undivided Liquor Permits $ 14,100,000 $ 14,100,000 160953
7068 110968 State and Local Government Highway Distribution $ 196,000,000 $ 196,000,000 160954
7069 110969 Local Government Fund $ 363,600,000 $ 376,400,000 160955
7081 110981 Local Government Property Tax Replacement-Business $ 146,500,000 $ 107,900,000 160956
7082 110982 Horse Racing Tax $ 100,000 $ 100,000 160957
7083 700900 Ohio Fairs Fund $ 1,400,000 $ 1,400,000 160958
TOTAL RDF Revenue Distribution 160959
Fund Group $ 1,873,899,000 $ 1,857,799,000 160960
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 4,824,132,626 $ 4,930,808,268 160961

       ADDITIONAL APPROPRIATIONS160962

       Appropriation items in this section shall be used for the 160963
purpose of administering and distributing the designated revenue 160964
distribution funds according to the Revised Code. If it is 160965
determined that additional appropriations are necessary for this 160966
purpose, such amounts are hereby appropriated.160967

       GENERAL REVENUE FUND TRANSFERS160968

        Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, in 160969
fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, the Director of Budget and 160970
Management may transfer from the General Revenue Fund to the Local 160971
Government Tangible Property Tax Replacement Fund (Fund 7081) in 160972
the Revenue Distribution Fund Group, those amounts necessary to 160973
reimburse local taxing units under section 5751.22 of the Revised 160974
Code. Also, in fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, the Director 160975
of Budget and Management may make temporary transfers from the 160976
General Revenue Fund to ensure sufficient balances in the Local 160977
Government Tangible Property Tax Replacement Fund (Fund 7081) and 160978
to replenish the General Revenue Fund for such transfers.160979

       Section 373.10. SAN BOARD OF SANITARIAN REGISTRATION160980

General Services Fund Group160981

4K90 893609 Operating Expenses $ 137,850 $ 129,850 160982
TOTAL GSF General Services 160983
Fund Group $ 137,850 $ 129,850 160984
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 137,850 $ 129,850 160985


       Section 375.10. OSB OHIO STATE SCHOOL FOR THE BLIND160987

General Revenue Fund160988

GRF 226321 Operations $ 7,278,579 $ 7,278,579 160989
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 7,278,579 $ 7,278,579 160990

General Services Fund Group160991

4H80 226602 Education Reform Grants $ 27,000 $ 27,000 160992
5NJ0 226622 Food Service Program $ 9,000 $ 9,000 160993
TOTAL GSF General Services 160994
Fund Group $ 36,000 $ 36,000 160995

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group160996

3100 226626 Coordinating Unit $ 2,527,104 $ 2,527,104 160997
3DT0 226621 Ohio Transition Collaborative $ 650,000 $ 650,000 160998
3P50 226643 Medicaid Professional Services Reimbursement $ 50,000 $ 50,000 160999
TOTAL FED Federal Special 161000
Revenue Fund Group $ 3,227,104 $ 3,227,104 161001

State Special Revenue Fund Group161002

4M50 226601 Work Study and Technology Investment $ 461,521 $ 461,521 161003
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 161004
Fund Group $ 461,521 $ 461,521 161005
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 11,003,204 $ 11,003,204 161006


       Section 377.10. OSD OHIO SCHOOL FOR THE DEAF161008

General Revenue Fund161009

GRF 221321 Operations $ 8,727,657 $ 8,727,657 161010
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 8,727,657 $ 8,727,657 161011

General Services Fund Group161012

4M10 221602 Education Reform Grants $ 35,000 $ 35,000 161013
5NK0 221610 Food Service Program $ 9,000 $ 9,000 161014
TOTAL GSF General Services 161015
Fund Group $ 44,000 $ 44,000 161016

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group161017

3110 221625 Coordinating Unit $ 2,153,245 $ 2,153,245 161018
3R00 221684 Medicaid Professional Services Reimbursement $ 35,000 $ 35,000 161019
TOTAL FED Federal Special 161020
Revenue Fund Group $ 2,188,245 $ 2,188,245 161021

State Special Revenue Fund Group161022

4M00 221601 Educational Program Expenses $ 95,000 $ 95,000 161023
5H60 221609 Even Start Fees and Gifts $ 35,000 $ 35,000 161024
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 161025
Fund Group $ 130,000 $ 130,000 161026
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 11,089,902 $ 11,089,902 161027


       Section 381.10. SOS SECRETARY OF STATE161029

General Revenue Fund161030

GRF 050321 Operating Expenses $ 2,144,030 $ 2,144,030 161031
GRF 050407 Pollworkers Training $ 234,196 $ 234,196 161032
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 2,378,226 $ 2,378,226 161033

General Services Fund Group161034

4120 050609 Notary Commission $ 475,000 $ 475,000 161035
4130 050601 Information Systems $ 49,000 $ 49,000 161036
4S80 050610 Board of Voting Machine Examiners $ 7,200 $ 7,200 161037
5FG0 050620 BOE Reimbursement and Education $ 80,000 $ 80,000 161038
TOTAL General Services Fund Group $ 611,200 $ 611,200 161039

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group161040

3AH0 050614 Election Reform/Health and Human Services $ 300,000 $ 300,000 161041
3AS0 050616 Help America Vote Act (HAVA) $ 1,710,000 $ 1,710,000 161042
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 161043
Fund Group $ 2,010,000 $ 2,010,000 161044

State Special Revenue Fund Group161045

5990 050603 Business Services Operating Expenses $ 14,385,400 $ 14,385,400 161046
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 161047
Fund Group $ 14,385,400 $ 14,385,400 161048

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group161049

R001 050605 Uniform Commercial Code Refunds $ 30,000 $ 30,000 161050
R002 050606 Corporate/Business Filing Refunds $ 85,000 $ 85,000 161051
TOTAL 090 Holding Account 161052
Redistribution Fund Group $ 115,000 $ 115,000 161053
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 19,499,826 $ 19,499,826 161054

       POLLWORKER TRAINING161055

       The foregoing appropriation item 050407, Pollworkers 161056
Training, shall be used to reimburse county boards of elections 161057
for pollworker training pursuant to section 3501.27 of the Revised 161058
Code. At the end of fiscal year 2014, an amount equal to the 161059
unexpended, unencumbered portion of appropriation item 050407, 161060
Pollworkers Training, is hereby reappropriated in fiscal year 2015 161061
for the same purpose.161062

       BOARD OF VOTING MACHINE EXAMINERS161063

       The foregoing appropriation item 050610, Board of Voting 161064
Machine Examiners, shall be used to pay for the services and 161065
expenses of the members of the Board of Voting Machine Examiners, 161066
and for other expenses that are authorized to be paid from the 161067
Board of Voting Machine Examiners Fund, which is created in 161068
section 3506.05 of the Revised Code. Moneys not used shall be 161069
returned to the person or entity submitting equipment for 161070
examination. If it is determined that additional appropriations 161071
are necessary, such amounts are hereby appropriated.161072

       HAVA FUNDS161073

        An amount equal to the unexpended, unencumbered portion of 161074
appropriation item 050614, Election Reform/Health and Human 161075
Services, at the end of fiscal year 2014 is reappropriated for the 161076
same purpose in fiscal year 2015.161077

       An amount equal to the unexpended, unencumbered portion of 161078
appropriation item 050616, Help America Vote Act (HAVA), at the 161079
end of fiscal year 2014 is reappropriated for the same purpose in 161080
fiscal year 2015.161081

       The Director of Budget and Management shall credit the 161082
ongoing interest earnings from the Election Reform/Health and 161083
Human Services Fund (Fund 3AH0) and the Help America Vote Act 161084
(HAVA) (Fund 3AS0) to the respective funds and distribute these 161085
earnings in accordance with the terms of the grant under which the 161086
money is received.161087

       MISCELLANEOUS FEDERAL GRANTS161088

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 161089
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer from the General 161090
Revenue Fund (GRF) all investment earnings and amounts equal to 161091
the interest earnings that were attributable to the Miscellaneous 161092
Federal Grants Fund (Fund 3FM0) in each quarter of fiscal year 161093
2013. The Director of Budget and Management shall credit the 161094
ongoing interest earnings from Fund 3FM0 to that fund and 161095
distribute these earnings in accordance with the terms of the 161096
grant under which the money was received.161097

       HOLDING ACCOUNT REDISTRIBUTION GROUP161098

       The foregoing appropriation items 050605, Uniform Commercial 161099
Code Refunds, and 050606, Corporate/Business Filing Refunds, shall 161100
be used to hold revenues until they are directed to the 161101
appropriate accounts or until they are refunded. If it is 161102
determined that additional appropriations are necessary, such 161103
amounts are hereby appropriated.161104

       Section 383.10. SEN THE OHIO SENATE161105

General Revenue Fund161106

GRF 020321 Operating Expenses $ 11,947,822 $ 11,947,822 161107
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 11,947,822 $ 11,947,822 161108

General Services Fund Group161109

1020 020602 Senate Reimbursement $ 852,001 $ 852,001 161110
4090 020601 Miscellaneous Sales $ 34,497 $ 34,497 161111
TOTAL GSF General Services 161112
Fund Group $ 886,498 $ 886,498 161113
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 12,834,320 $ 12,834,320 161114

       OPERATING EXPENSES161115

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the Clerk 161116
of the Senate may certify to the Director of Budget and Management 161117
the amount of the unexpended, unencumbered balance of the 161118
foregoing appropriation item 020321, Operating Expenses, at the 161119
end of fiscal year 2013 to be reappropriated to fiscal year 2014. 161120
The amount certified is hereby reappropriated to the same 161121
appropriation item for fiscal year 2014.161122

        On July 1, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the Clerk 161123
of the Senate may certify to the Director of Budget and Management 161124
the amount of the unexpended, unencumbered balance of the 161125
foregoing appropriation item 020321, Operating Expenses, at the 161126
end of fiscal year 2014 to be reappropriated to fiscal year 2015. 161127
The amount certified is hereby reappropriated to the same 161128
appropriation item for fiscal year 2015.161129

       Section 385.10. CSV COMMISSION ON SERVICE AND VOLUNTEERISM161130

General Revenue Fund161131

GRF 866321 CSV Operations $ 286,661 $ 294,072 161132
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 286,661 $ 294,072 161133

General Services Fund161134

5GN0 866605 Serve Ohio Support $ 30,000 $ 30,000 161135
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund $ 30,000 $ 30,000 161136

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group161137

3R70 866617 AmeriCorps Programs $ 7,447,000 $ 7,447,000 161138
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 161139
Fund Group $ 7,447,000 $ 7,447,000 161140
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 7,763,661 $ 7,771,072 161141


       Section 387.10. CSF COMMISSIONERS OF THE SINKING FUND161143

Debt Service Fund Group161144

7070 155905 Third Frontier Research and Development Bond Retirement Fund $ 66,511,600 $ 83,783,000 161145
7072 155902 Highway Capital Improvement Bond Retirement Fund $ 132,647,900 $ 127,171,800 161146
7073 155903 Natural Resources Bond Retirement Fund $ 24,325,400 $ 25,443,000 161147
7074 155904 Conservation Projects Bond Retirement Fund $ 33,376,600 $ 34,447,700 161148
7076 155906 Coal Research and Development Bond Retirement Fund $ 2,858,900 $ 4,327,200 161149
7077 155907 State Capital Improvement Bond Retirement Fund $ 227,810,300 $ 228,948,900 161150
7078 155908 Common Schools Bond Retirement Fund $ 351,806,100 $ 377,364,700 161151
7079 155909 Higher Education Bond Retirement Fund $ 221,168,700 $ 248,822,000 161152
7080 155901 Persian Gulf, Afghanistan, and Iraq Conflicts Bond Retirement Fund $ 7,542,600 $ 9,914,800 161153
7090 155912 Job Ready Site Development Bond Retirement Fund $ 15,498,400 $ 19,124,500 161154
TOTAL DSF Debt Service Fund Group $ 1,083,546,500 $ 1,159,347,600 161155
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,083,546,500 $ 1,159,347,600 161156

       ADDITIONAL APPROPRIATIONS161157

       Appropriation items in this section are for the purpose of 161158
paying debt service and financing costs on bonds or notes of the 161159
state issued under the Ohio Constitution and acts of the General 161160
Assembly. If it is determined that additional amounts are 161161
necessary for this purpose, such amounts are hereby appropriated.161162

       Section 389.10. SOA SOUTHERN OHIO AGRICULTURAL AND COMMUNITY 161163
DEVELOPMENT FOUNDATION161164

Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group161165

5M90 945601 Operating Expenses $ 426,800 $ 426,800 161166
TOTAL TMF Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group $ 426,800 $ 426,800 161167
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 426,800 $ 426,800 161168


       Section 391.10. SPE BOARD OF SPEECH-LANGUAGE PATHOLOGY & 161170
AUDIOLOGY161171

General Services Fund Group161172

4K90 886609 Operating Expenses $ 472,260 $ 508,660 161173
TOTAL GSF General Services 161174
Fund Group $ 472,260 $ 508,660 161175
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 427,260 $ 508,660 161176


       Section 393.10. BTA BOARD OF TAX APPEALS161178

General Revenue Fund161179

GRF 116321 Operating Expenses $ 1,700,000 $ 1,700,000 161180
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 1,700,000 $ 1,700,000 161181
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,700,000 $ 1,700,000 161182


       Section 395.10. TAX DEPARTMENT OF TAXATION161184

General Revenue Fund161185

GRF 110321 Operating Expenses $ 72,568,330 $ 67,968,332 161186
GRF 110404 Tobacco Settlement Enforcement $ 178,200 $ 178,200 161187
GRF 110901 Property Tax Allocation - Taxation $ 666,640,000 $ 693,305,600 161188
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 739,386,530 $ 761,452,132 161189

General Services Fund Group161190

2280 110628 Revenue Enhancement $ 15,500,000 $ 17,500,000 161191
4330 110602 Tape File Account $ 175,000 $ 175,000 161192
5BP0 110639 Wireless 9-1-1 Administration $ 290,000 $ 290,000 161193
5CZ0 110631 Vendor's License Application $ 250,000 $ 250,000 161194
5MN0 110638 STARS Development and Implementation $ 5,000,000 $ 3,000,000 161195
5N50 110605 Municipal Income Tax Administration $ 150,000 $ 150,000 161196
5N60 110618 Kilowatt Hour Tax Administration $ 100,000 $ 100,000 161197
5V80 110623 Property Tax Administration $ 11,978,310 $ 11,978,310 161198
5W70 110627 Exempt Facility Administration $ 49,500 $ 49,500 161199
TOTAL GSF General Services 161200
Fund Group $ 33,492,810 $ 33,492,810 161201

State Special Revenue Fund Group161202

4350 110607 Local Tax Administration $ 20,000,000 $ 20,700,000 161203
4360 110608 Motor Vehicle Audit $ 1,459,609 $ 1,459,609 161204
4370 110606 Income Tax Contribution $ 38,800 $ 38,800 161205
4380 110609 School District Income Tax $ 5,802,044 $ 5,802,044 161206
4C60 110616 International Registration Plan $ 682,415 $ 682,415 161207
4R60 110610 Tire Tax Administration $ 244,193 $ 244,193 161208
5V70 110622 Motor Fuel Tax Administration $ 5,035,374 $ 5,035,374 161209
6390 110614 Cigarette Tax Enforcement $ 1,750,000 $ 1,750,000 161210
6420 110613 Ohio Political Party Distributions $ 500,000 $ 500,000 161211
6880 110615 Local Excise Tax Administration $ 775,015 $ 775,015 161212
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 161213
Fund Group $ 36,287,450 $ 36,987,450 161214

Agency Fund Group161215

4250 110635 Tax Refunds $ 1,546,800,000 $ 1,546,800,000 161216
7095 110995 Municipal Income Tax $ 21,000,000 $ 21,000,000 161217
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 1,567,800,000 $ 1,567,800,000 161218

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group161219

R010 110611 Tax Distributions $ 50,000 $ 50,000 161220
R011 110612 Miscellaneous Income Tax Receipts $ 50,000 $ 50,000 161221
TOTAL 090 Holding Account 161222
Redistribution Fund Group $ 100,000 $ 100,000 161223
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 2,377,066,790 $ 2,399,832,392 161224

       HOMESTEAD EXEMPTION, PROPERTY TAX ROLLBACK161225

       The foregoing appropriation item 110901, Property Tax 161226
Allocation - Taxation, is hereby appropriated to pay for the 161227
state's costs incurred due to the Homestead Exemption, the 161228
Manufactured Home Property Tax Rollback, and the Property Tax 161229
Rollback. The Tax Commissioner shall distribute these funds 161230
directly to the appropriate local taxing districts, except for 161231
school districts, notwithstanding the provisions in sections 161232
321.24 and 323.156 of the Revised Code, which provide for payment 161233
of the Homestead Exemption, the Manufactured Home Property Tax 161234
Rollback, and Property Tax Rollback by the Tax Commissioner to the 161235
appropriate county treasurer and the subsequent redistribution of 161236
these funds to the appropriate local taxing districts by the 161237
county auditor.161238

       Upon receipt of these amounts, each local taxing district 161239
shall distribute the amount among the proper funds as if it had 161240
been paid as real property taxes. Payments for the costs of 161241
administration shall continue to be paid to the county treasurer 161242
and county auditor as provided for in sections 319.54, 321.26, and 161243
323.156 of the Revised Code.161244

       Any sums, in addition to the amounts specifically 161245
appropriated in appropriation item 110901, Property Tax Allocation 161246
- Taxation, for the Homestead Exemption, the Manufactured Home 161247
Property Tax Rollback, and the Property Tax Rollback payments, 161248
which are determined to be necessary for these purposes, are 161249
hereby appropriated.161250

       MUNICIPAL INCOME TAX161251

       The foregoing appropriation item 110995, Municipal Income 161252
Tax, shall be used to make payments to municipal corporations 161253
under section 5745.05 of the Revised Code. If it is determined 161254
that additional appropriations are necessary to make such 161255
payments, such amounts are hereby appropriated.161256

       TAX REFUNDS161257

       The foregoing appropriation item 110635, Tax Refunds, shall 161258
be used to pay refunds under section 5703.052 of the Revised Code. 161259
If it is determined that additional appropriations are necessary 161260
for this purpose, such amounts are hereby appropriated.161261

       INTERNATIONAL REGISTRATION PLAN AUDIT161262

       The foregoing appropriation item 110616, International 161263
Registration Plan, shall be used under section 5703.12 of the 161264
Revised Code for audits of persons with vehicles registered under 161265
the International Registration Plan.161266

       TRAVEL EXPENSES FOR THE STREAMLINED SALES TAX PROJECT161267

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 110607, Local Tax 161268
Administration, the Tax Commissioner may disburse funds, if 161269
available, for the purposes of paying travel expenses incurred by 161270
members of Ohio's delegation to the Streamlined Sales Tax Project, 161271
as appointed under section 5740.02 of the Revised Code. Any travel 161272
expense reimbursement paid for by the Department of Taxation shall 161273
be done in accordance with applicable state laws and guidelines.161274

       TOBACCO SETTLEMENT ENFORCEMENT161275

       The foregoing appropriation item 110404, Tobacco Settlement 161276
Enforcement, shall be used by the Tax Commissioner to pay costs 161277
incurred in the enforcement of divisions (F) and (G) of section 161278
5743.03 of the Revised Code.161279

       STARS DEVELOPMENT AND IMPLEMENTATION FUND161280

       The foregoing appropriation item 110638, STARS Development 161281
and Implementation Fund, shall be used to pay costs incurred in 161282
the development and implementation of the department's State Tax 161283
Accounting and Revenue System. The Director of Budget and 161284
Management, under a plan submitted by the Tax Commissioner, or as 161285
otherwise determined by the Director of Budget and Management, 161286
shall set a schedule to transfer cash from the Tax Reform System 161287
Implementation Fund, Local Tax Administration Fund, School 161288
District Income Tax Fund, Discovery Project Fund, and the Motor 161289
Fuel Tax Administration Fund to the credit of the STARS 161290
Development and Implementation Fund (Fund 5MN0). The transfers of 161291
cash shall not exceed $8,000,000 in the biennium.161292

       Section 397.10. DOT DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION161293

General Revenue Fund161294

GRF 775451 Public Transportation - State $ 7,300,000 $ 7,300,000 161295
GRF 776465 Ohio Rail Development Commission $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 161296
GRF 777471 Airport Improvements - State $ 750,000 $ 750,000 161297
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 10,050,000 $ 10,050,000 161298
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 10,050,000 $ 10,050,000 161299


       Section 399.10. TOS TREASURER OF STATE161301

General Revenue Fund161302

GRF 090321 Operating Expenses $ 7,743,553 $ 7,743,553 161303
GRF 090401 Office of the Sinking Fund $ 502,304 $ 502,304 161304
GRF 090402 Continuing Education $ 377,702 $ 377,702 161305
GRF 090524 Police and Fire Disability Pension Fund $ 6,000 $ 6,000 161306
GRF 090534 Police and Fire Ad Hoc Cost of Living $ 70,000 $ 70,000 161307
GRF 090554 Police and Fire Survivor Benefits $ 507,000 $ 507,000 161308
GRF 090575 Police and Fire Death Benefits $ 20,000,000 $ 20,000,000 161309
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 29,206,559 $ 29,206,559 161310

General Services Fund Group161311

4E90 090603 Securities Lending Income $ 3,765,000 $ 3,765,000 161312
5770 090605 Investment Pool Reimbursement $ 850,000 $ 850,000 161313
5C50 090602 County Treasurer Education $ 170,057 $ 170,057 161314
6050 090609 Treasurer of State Administrative Fund $ 835,000 $ 835,000 161315
TOTAL GSF General Services 161316
Fund Group $ 5,620,057 $ 5,620,057 161317

Agency Fund Group161318

4250 090635 Tax Refunds $ 6,000,000 $ 6,000,000 161319
TOTAL Agency Fund Group $ 6,000,000 $ 6,000,000 161320
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 40,826,616 $ 40,826,616 161321


       Section 399.20. OFFICE OF THE SINKING FUND161323

       The foregoing appropriation item 090401, Office of the 161324
Sinking Fund, shall be used for costs incurred by or on behalf of 161325
the Commissioners of the Sinking Fund and the Ohio Public 161326
Facilities Commission with respect to State of Ohio general 161327
obligation bonds or notes, and the Treasurer of State with respect 161328
to State of Ohio general obligation and special obligation bonds 161329
or notes, including, but not limited to, printing, advertising, 161330
delivery, rating fees and the procurement of ratings, professional 161331
publications, membership in professional organizations, and other 161332
services referred to in division (D) of section 151.01 of the 161333
Revised Code. The General Revenue Fund shall be reimbursed for 161334
such costs relating to the issuance and administration of Highway 161335
Capital Improvement bonds or notes authorized under Ohio 161336
Constitution, Article VIII, Section 2m and Chapter 151. of the 161337
Revised Code. That reimbursement shall be made from appropriation 161338
item 155902, Highway Capital Improvement Bond Retirement Fund, by 161339
intrastate transfer voucher pursuant to a certification by the 161340
Office of the Sinking Fund of the actual amounts used. The amounts 161341
necessary to make such a reimbursement are hereby appropriated 161342
from the Highway Capital Improvement Bond Retirement Fund created 161343
in section 151.06 of the Revised Code.161344

       POLICE AND FIRE DEATH BENEFIT FUND161345

       The foregoing appropriation item 090575, Police and Fire 161346
Death Benefits, shall be disbursed quarterly by the Treasurer of 161347
State at the beginning of each quarter of each fiscal year to the 161348
Board of Trustees of the Ohio Police and Fire Pension Fund. The 161349
Treasurer of State shall certify such amounts quarterly to the 161350
Director of Budget and Management. By the twentieth day of June of 161351
each fiscal year, the Board of Trustees of the Ohio Police and 161352
Fire Pension Fund shall certify to the Treasurer of State the 161353
amount disbursed in the current fiscal year to make the payments 161354
required by section 742.63 of the Revised Code and shall return to 161355
the Treasurer of State moneys received from this appropriation 161356
item but not disbursed.161357

       TAX REFUNDS161358

       The foregoing appropriation item 090635, Tax Refunds, shall 161359
be used to pay refunds under section 5703.052 of the Revised Code. 161360
If the Director of Budget and Management determines that 161361
additional amounts are necessary for this purpose, such amounts 161362
are hereby appropriated.161363

       Section 401.10. VTO VETERANS' ORGANIZATIONS161364

General Revenue Fund161365

VAP AMERICAN EX-PRISONERS OF WAR
161366

GRF 743501 State Support $ 28,910 $ 28,910 161367

VAN ARMY AND NAVY UNION, USA, INC.
161368

GRF 746501 State Support $ 63,539 $ 63,539 161369

VKW KOREAN WAR VETERANS
161370

GRF 747501 State Support $ 57,118 $ 57,118 161371

VJW JEWISH WAR VETERANS
161372

GRF 748501 State Support $ 34,321 $ 34,321 161373

VCW CATHOLIC WAR VETERANS
161374

GRF 749501 State Support $ 66,978 $ 66,978 161375

VPH MILITARY ORDER OF THE PURPLE HEART
161376

GRF 750501 State Support $ 65,116 $ 65,116 161377

VVV VIETNAM VETERANS OF AMERICA
161378

GRF 751501 State Support $ 214,776 $ 214,776 161379

VAL AMERICAN LEGION OF OHIO
161380

GRF 752501 State Support $ 349,189 $ 349,189 161381

VII AMVETS
161382

GRF 753501 State Support $ 332,547 $ 332,547 161383

VAV DISABLED AMERICAN VETERANS
161384

GRF 754501 State Support $ 249,836 $ 249,836 161385

VMC MARINE CORPS LEAGUE
161386

GRF 756501 State Support $ 133,947 $ 133,947 161387

V37 37TH DIVISION VETERANS' ASSOCIATION
161388

GRF 757501 State Support $ 6,868 $ 6,868 161389

VFW VETERANS OF FOREIGN WARS
161390

GRF 758501 State Support $ 284,841 $ 284,841 161391

TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 1,887,986 $ 1,887,986 161392
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,887,986 $ 1,887,986 161393

       RELEASE OF FUNDS161394

       The Director of Budget and Management may release the 161395
foregoing appropriation items 743501, 746501, 747501, 748501, 161396
749501, 750501, 751501, 752501, 753501, 754501, 756501, 757501, 161397
and 758501, State Support.161398

       Section 403.10.  DVS DEPARTMENT OF VETERANS SERVICES161399

General Revenue Fund161400

GRF 900321 Veterans' Homes $ 27,369,946 $ 27,369,946 161401
GRF 900402 Hall of Fame $ 107,075 $ 107,075 161402
GRF 900408 Department of Veterans Services $ 2,001,823 $ 2,001,823 161403
GRF 900901 Persian Gulf, Afghanistan, and Iraq Compensation Debt Service $ 7,542,600 $ 9,914,800 161404
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 37,021,444 $ 39,393,644 161405

General Services Fund Group161406

4840 900603 Veterans' Homes Services $ 1,596,894 $ 1,596,894 161407
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 1,596,894 $ 1,596,894 161408

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group161409

3680 900614 Veterans Training $ 684,017 $ 697,682 161410
3740 900606 Troops to Teachers $ 111,822 $ 111,879 161411
3BX0 900609 Medicare Services $ 2,250,000 $ 2,250,000 161412
3L20 900601 Veterans' Homes Operations - Federal $ 24,887,790 $ 25,634,423 161413
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 161414
Fund Group $ 27,933,629 $ 28,693,984 161415

State Special Revenue Fund Group161416

4E20 900602 Veterans' Homes Operating $ 10,614,652 $ 10,837,435 161417
6040 900604 Veterans' Homes Improvement $ 403,663 $ 459,359 161418
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 161419
Fund Group $ 11,018,315 $ 11,296,794 161420

Persian Gulf, Afghanistan, and Iraq Compensation Fund Group161421

7041 900615 Veteran Bonus Program - Administration $ 738,703 $ 629,709 161422
7041 900641 Persian Gulf, Afghanistan, and Iraq Compensation $ 14,500,000 $ 9,400,000 161423
TOTAL 041 Persian Gulf, 161424
Afghanistan, and Iraq 161425
Compensation Fund Group $ 15,238,703 $ 10,029,709 161426
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 92,808,985 $ 91,011,025 161427

       PERSIAN GULF, AFGHANISTAN AND IRAQ COMPENSATION GENERAL 161428
OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE161429

       The foregoing appropriation item 900901, Persian Gulf, 161430
Afghanistan and Iraq Compensation Debt Service, shall be used to 161431
pay all debt service and related financing costs during the period 161432
from July 1, 2013, through June 30, 2015, on obligations issued 161433
for Persian Gulf, Afghanistan and Iraq Conflicts Compensation 161434
purposes under sections 151.01 and 151.12 of the Revised Code.161435

       Section 405.10. DVM STATE VETERINARY MEDICAL BOARD161436

General Services Fund Group161437

4K90 888609 Operating Expenses $ 337,432 $ 331,695 161438
5BU0 888602 Veterinary Student Loan Program $ 30,000 $ 30,000 161439
TOTAL GSF General Services 161440
Fund Group $ 367,432 $ 361,695 161441
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 367,432 $ 361,695 161442


       Section 407.10. DYS DEPARTMENT OF YOUTH SERVICES161444

General Revenue Fund161445

GRF 470401 RECLAIM Ohio $ 166,862,228 $ 166,862,228 161446
GRF 470412 Lease Rental Payments $ 26,044,800 $ 27,819,700 161447
GRF 470510 Youth Services $ 16,702,728 $ 16,702,728 161448
GRF 472321 Parole Operations $ 10,583,118 $ 10,583,118 161449
GRF 477321 Administrative Operations $ 11,355,389 $ 11,355,389 161450
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 231,548,263 $ 233,323,163 161451

General Services Fund Group161452

1750 470613 Education Reimbursement $ 3,950,000 $ 3,600,000 161453
4790 470609 Employee Food Service $ 125,000 $ 125,000 161454
4A20 470602 Child Support $ 250,000 $ 250,000 161455
4G60 470605 General Operational Funds $ 115,000 $ 115,000 161456
5BN0 470629 E-Rate Program $ 525,000 $ 525,000 161457
TOTAL GSF General Services 161458
Fund Group $ 4,965,000 $ 4,615,000 161459

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group161460

3210 470601 Education $ 1,480,740 $ 1,203,272 161461
3210 470603 Juvenile Justice Prevention $ 300,000 $ 300,000 161462
3210 470606 Nutrition $ 1,033,947 $ 1,033,947 161463
3210 470614 Title IV-E Reimbursements $ 5,755,620 $ 3,714,548 161464
3CP0 470638 Federal Juvenile Programs FFY 09 $ 20,000 $ 5,000 161465
3CR0 470639 Federal Juvenile Programs FFY 10 $ 479,900 $ 126,000 161466
3FB0 470641 Federal Juvenile Programs FFY 11 $ 500,000 $ 105,000 161467
3FC0 470642 Federal Juvenile Programs FFY 12 $ 600,000 $ 50,000 161468
3GB0 470643 Federal Juvenile Programs FFY 13 $ 135,000 $ 600,000 161469
3GC0 470644 Federal Juvenile Programs FFY 14 $ 0 $ 135,000 161470
3V50 470604 Juvenile Justice/Delinquency Prevention $ 1,300,000 $ 1,000,000 161471
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 161472
Fund Group $ 11,605,207 $ 8,272,767 161473

State Special Revenue Fund Group161474

1470 470612 Vocational Education $ 1,795,000 $ 1,795,000 161475
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 161476
Fund Group $ 1,795,000 $ 1,795,000 161477
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 249,913,470 $ 248,005,930 161478

       COMMUNITY PROGRAMS161479

       For purposes of improving community programs, and 161480
notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, of the 161481
foregoing appropriation item 470401, RECLAIM Ohio, the Department 161482
of Youth Services shall use $8,813,811 in each fiscal year to 161483
expand Targeted RECLAIM, the Behavioral Health Juvenile Justice 161484
Initiative, and other evidence-based community programs.161485

       For purposes of implementing juvenile sentencing reforms, and 161486
notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the 161487
Department of Youth Services may use up to forty-five per cent of 161488
the unexpended, unencumbered balance of the portion of 161489
appropriation item 470401, RECLAIM Ohio, that is allocated to 161490
juvenile correctional facilities in each fiscal year to expand 161491
Targeted RECLAIM, the Behavioral Health Juvenile Justice 161492
Initiative, and other evidence-based community programs.161493

       LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS161494

       The foregoing appropriation item 470412, Lease Rental 161495
Payments, shall be used to meet all payments at the times they are 161496
required to be made for the period from July 1, 2013, through June 161497
30, 2015, by the Department of Youth Services under the leases and 161498
agreements for facilities made under Chapters 152. and 154. of the 161499
Revised Code. This appropriation is the source of funds pledged 161500
for bond service charges on related obligations issued under 161501
Chapters 152. and 154. of the Revised Code.161502

       EDUCATION REIMBURSEMENT161503

       The foregoing appropriation item 470613, Education 161504
Reimbursement, shall be used to fund the operating expenses of 161505
providing educational services to youth supervised by the 161506
Department of Youth Services. Operating expenses include, but are 161507
not limited to, teachers' salaries, maintenance costs, and 161508
educational equipment. This appropriation item may be used for 161509
capital expenses related to the education program.161510

       EMPLOYEE FOOD SERVICE AND EQUIPMENT161511

       Notwithstanding section 125.14 of the Revised Code, the 161512
foregoing appropriation item 470609, Employee Food Service, may be 161513
used to purchase any food operational items with funds received 161514
into the fund from reimbursements for state surplus property.161515

       FLEXIBLE FUNDING FOR CHILDREN AND FAMILIES161516

       In collaboration with the county family and children first 161517
council, the juvenile court of that county that receives 161518
allocations from one or both of the foregoing appropriation items 161519
470401, RECLAIM Ohio, and 470510, Youth Services, may transfer 161520
portions of those allocations to a flexible funding pool as 161521
authorized by the section of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th 161522
General Assembly titled "FAMILY AND CHILDREN FIRST FLEXIBLE 161523
FUNDING POOL."161524

       Section 501.10. SCREENING TOOL FOR HIGH-RISK YOUTH TEAM 161525
EVALUATION161526

       The Office of Health Transformation shall convene a team 161527
comprised of the Department of Youth Services, the Department of 161528
Medicaid, the Department of Job and Family Services, the 161529
Department of Health, and the Department of Mental Health and 161530
Addiction Services. The team shall evaluate the feasibility of 161531
implementing a trauma screening tool for high-risk youth and 161532
create a report with the following information: (A) the 161533
recommended trauma screening tool to be used to evaluate high-risk 161534
youth; (B) training in the administration of the recommended tool; 161535
(C) screening protocols; (D) the persons to whom the recommended 161536
tool should apply; and (E) the implications for treatment. The 161537
report shall be completed by December 1, 2013, and shall be 161538
distributed to the Governor. The Department of Youth Services may 161539
receive funds for piloting the recommended tool in detention 161540
centers.161541

       Section 501.20. All items set forth in sections 501.20 and 161542
501.30 of this act are hereby appropriated for the biennium ending 161543
on June 30, 2015, out of any moneys in the state treasury to the 161544
credit of the Administrative Building Fund (Fund 7026) that are 161545
not otherwise appropriated.161546

Appropriations

CSR CAPITOL SQUARE REVIEW AND ADVISORY BOARD
161547

C87412 Capitol Square Security $ 1,200,000 161548
TOTAL Capitol Square Review and Advisory Board $ 1,200,000 161549


Appropriations

       Section 501.30. TOS TREASURER OF STATE161551

C09001 Treasury Management System $ 10,000,000 161552
TOTAL Treasurer of State $ 10,000,000 161553
TOTAL Administrative Building Fund $ 11,200,000 161554

       The foregoing appropriation item C09001, Treasury Management 161555
System, shall be used to pay costs incurred in the acquisition and 161556
implementation of the Treasury Management System.161557

        The Treasurer of State may acquire and implement a Treasury 161558
Management System, including, but not limited to, the application 161559
hardware and software and the installation and implementation 161560
thereof, for the use of the Treasurer of State. The Treasury 161561
Management System is an integrated treasury technology 161562
infrastructure system that will replace the Treasurer of State's 161563
existing separate cash, custody, investment, and accounting 161564
software and administration systems for the various treasury 161565
functions performed by the state. 161566

        The Treasurer of State is hereby authorized to issue and 161567
sell, in accordance with Section 2i of Article VIII, Ohio 161568
Constitution, and Chapter 154. of the Revised Code, particularly 161569
section 154.24 of the Revised Code, original obligations in an 161570
aggregate principal amount not to exceed $11,200,000, in addition 161571
to the original issuance of obligations heretofore authorized by 161572
prior acts of the General Assembly. These authorized obligations 161573
shall be issued, subject to applicable constitutional and 161574
statutory limitations, to pay costs associated with previously 161575
authorized capital facilities and the capital facilities referred 161576
to in this section of the act.161577

       Section 503.10. PERSONAL SERVICE EXPENSES161578

       Unless otherwise prohibited by law, any appropriation from 161579
which personal service expenses are paid shall bear the employer's 161580
share of public employees' retirement, workers' compensation, 161581
disabled workers' relief, and insurance programs; and the costs of 161582
centralized financial services, centralized payroll processing, 161583
and related reports and services; centralized human resources 161584
services, including affirmative action and equal employment 161585
opportunity programs; the Office of Collective Bargaining; the 161586
Employee Assistance Program; centralized information technology 161587
management services; administering the enterprise resource 161588
planning system; and administering the state employee merit system 161589
as required by section 124.07 of the Revised Code. These costs 161590
shall be determined in conformity with the appropriate sections of 161591
law and paid in accordance with procedures specified by the Office 161592
of Budget and Management. Expenditures from appropriation item 161593
070601, Public Audit Expense - Intra-State, may be exempted from 161594
the requirements of this section.161595

       Section 503.20. SATISFACTION OF JUDGMENTS AND SETTLEMENTS 161596
AGAINST THE STATE161597

       Except as otherwise provided in this section, an 161598
appropriation in this act or any other act may be used for the 161599
purpose of satisfying judgments, settlements, or administrative 161600
awards ordered or approved by the Court of Claims or by any other 161601
court of competent jurisdiction in connection with civil actions 161602
against the state. This authorization does not apply to 161603
appropriations to be applied to or used for payment of guarantees 161604
by or on behalf of the state, or for payments under lease 161605
agreements relating to, or debt service on, bonds, notes, or other 161606
obligations of the state. Notwithstanding any other statute to the 161607
contrary, this authorization includes appropriations from funds 161608
into which proceeds of direct obligations of the state are 161609
deposited only to the extent that the judgment, settlement, or 161610
administrative award is for, or represents, capital costs for 161611
which the appropriation may otherwise be used and is consistent 161612
with the purpose for which any related obligations were issued or 161613
entered into. Nothing contained in this section is intended to 161614
subject the state to suit in any forum in which it is not 161615
otherwise subject to suit, and is not intended to waive or 161616
compromise any defense or right available to the state in any suit 161617
against it.161618

       Section 503.30. CAPITAL PROJECT SETTLEMENTS161619

       This section specifies an additional and supplemental 161620
procedure to provide for payments of judgments and settlements if 161621
the Director of Budget and Management determines, pursuant to 161622
division (C)(4) of section 2743.19 of the Revised Code, that 161623
sufficient unencumbered moneys do not exist in the fund to support 161624
a particular appropriation to pay the amount of a final judgment 161625
rendered against the state or a state agency, including the 161626
settlement of a claim approved by a court, in an action upon and 161627
arising out of a contractual obligation for the construction or 161628
improvement of a capital facility if the costs under the contract 161629
were payable in whole or in part from a state capital projects 161630
appropriation. In such a case, the Director may either proceed 161631
pursuant to division (C)(4) of section 2743.19 of the Revised Code 161632
or apply to the Controlling Board to increase an appropriation or 161633
create an appropriation out of any unencumbered moneys in the 161634
state treasury to the credit of the capital projects fund from 161635
which the initial state appropriation was made. The amount of an 161636
increase in appropriation or new appropriation approved by the 161637
Controlling Board is hereby appropriated from the applicable 161638
capital projects fund and made available for the payment of the 161639
judgment or settlement.161640

       If the Director does not make the application authorized by 161641
this section or the Controlling Board disapproves the application, 161642
and the Director does not make application under division (C)(4) 161643
of section 2743.19 of the Revised Code, the Director shall for the 161644
purpose of making that payment make a request to the General 161645
Assembly as provided for in division (C)(5) of that section.161646

       Section 503.40. RE-ISSUANCE OF VOIDED WARRANTS161647

       In order to provide funds for the reissuance of voided 161648
warrants under section 126.37 of the Revised Code, there is hereby 161649
appropriated, out of moneys in the state treasury from the fund 161650
credited as provided in section 126.37 of the Revised Code, that 161651
amount sufficient to pay such warrants when approved by the Office 161652
of Budget and Management.161653

       Section 503.50. REAPPROPRIATION OF UNEXPENDED ENCUMBERED 161654
BALANCES OF OPERATING APPROPRIATIONS161655

       (A) An unexpended balance of an operating appropriation or 161656
reappropriation that a state agency lawfully encumbered prior to 161657
the close of a fiscal year is hereby reappropriated on the first 161658
day of July of the following fiscal year from the fund from which 161659
it was originally appropriated or reappropriated for the following 161660
period and shall remain available only for the purpose of 161661
discharging the encumbrance:161662

       (1) For an encumbrance for personal services, maintenance, 161663
equipment, or items for resale, other than an encumbrance for an 161664
item of special order manufacture not available on term contract 161665
or in the open market or for reclamation of land or oil and gas 161666
wells, for a period of not more than five months from the end of 161667
the fiscal year;161668

       (2) For an encumbrance for an item of special order 161669
manufacture not available on term contract or in the open market, 161670
for a period of not more than five months from the end of the 161671
fiscal year or, with the written approval of the Director of 161672
Budget and Management, for a period of not more than twelve months 161673
from the end of the fiscal year;161674

       (3) For an encumbrance for reclamation of land or oil and gas 161675
wells, for a period ending when the encumbered appropriation is 161676
expended or for a period of two years, whichever is less;161677

       (4) For an encumbrance for any other expense, for such period 161678
as the Director approves, provided such period does not exceed two 161679
years.161680

       (B) Any operating appropriations for which unexpended 161681
balances are reappropriated beyond a five-month period from the 161682
end of the fiscal year by division (A)(2) of this section shall be 161683
reported to the Controlling Board by the Director of Budget and 161684
Management by the thirty-first day of December of each year. The 161685
report on each such item shall include the item, the cost of the 161686
item, and the name of the vendor. The report shall be updated on a 161687
quarterly basis for encumbrances remaining open.161688

       (C) Upon the expiration of the reappropriation period set out 161689
in division (A) of this section, a reappropriation made by this 161690
section lapses, and the Director of Budget and Management shall 161691
cancel the encumbrance of the unexpended reappropriation not later 161692
than the end of the weekend following the expiration of the 161693
reappropriation period.161694

       (D) Notwithstanding division (C) of this section, with the 161695
approval of the Director of Budget and Management, an unexpended 161696
balance of an encumbrance that was reappropriated on the first day 161697
of July by this section for a period specified in division (A)(3) 161698
or (4) of this section and that remains encumbered at the close of 161699
the fiscal biennium is hereby reappropriated on the first day of 161700
July of the following fiscal biennium from the fund from which it 161701
was originally appropriated or reappropriated for the applicable 161702
period specified in division (A)(3) or (4) of this section and 161703
shall remain available only for the purpose of discharging the 161704
encumbrance.161705

       (E) The Director of Budget and Management may correct 161706
accounting errors committed by the staff of the Office of Budget 161707
and Management, such as reestablishing encumbrances or 161708
appropriations cancelled in error, during the cancellation of 161709
operating encumbrances in November and of nonoperating 161710
encumbrances in December.161711

       (F) The Director of Budget and Management may at any time 161712
correct accounting errors committed by the staff of a state agency 161713
or state institution of higher education, as defined in section 161714
3345.011 of the Revised Code, such as reestablishing prior year 161715
nonoperating encumbrances canceled or modified in error. The 161716
reestablished encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated.161717

       (G) If the Controlling Board approved a purchase, that 161718
approval remains in effect so long as the appropriation used to 161719
make that purchase remains encumbered.161720

       Section 503.60. APPROPRIATIONS RELATED TO CASH TRANSFERS AND 161721
RE-ESTABLISHMENT OF ENCUMBRANCES161722

       Any cash transferred by the Director of Budget and Management 161723
under section 126.15 of the Revised Code is hereby appropriated. 161724
Any amounts necessary to re-establish appropriations or 161725
encumbrances under section 126.15 of the Revised Code are hereby 161726
appropriated.161727

       Section 503.70. INCOME TAX DISTRIBUTION TO COUNTIES161728

       There are hereby appropriated out of any moneys in the state 161729
treasury to the credit of the General Revenue Fund, which are not 161730
otherwise appropriated, funds sufficient to make any payment 161731
required by division (B)(2) of section 5747.03 of the Revised 161732
Code.161733

       Section 503.80. EXPENDITURES AND APPROPRIATION INCREASES 161734
APPROVED BY THE CONTROLLING BOARD161735

       Any money that the Controlling Board approves for expenditure 161736
or any increase in appropriation that the Controlling Board 161737
approves under sections 127.14, 131.35, and 131.39 of the Revised 161738
Code or any other provision of law is hereby appropriated for the 161739
period ending June 30, 2015.161740

       Section 503.90. FUNDS RECEIVED FOR USE OF GOVERNOR'S 161741
RESIDENCE161742

       If the Governor's Residence Fund (Fund 4H20) receives payment 161743
for use of the residence pursuant to section 107.40 of the Revised 161744
Code, the amounts so received are hereby appropriated to 161745
appropriation item 100604, Governor's Residence Gift.161746

       Section 506.10. UTILITY RADIOLOGICAL SAFETY BOARD ASSESSMENTS161747

       Unless the agency and nuclear electric utility mutually agree 161748
to a higher amount by contract, the maximum amounts that may be 161749
assessed against nuclear electric utilities under division (B)(2) 161750
of section 4937.05 of the Revised Code and deposited into the 161751
specified funds are as follows:161752

Fund User FY 2014 FY 2015 161753
Utility Radiological Safety Fund (Fund 4E40) Department of Agriculture $ 130,000 $ 130,000 161754
Radiation Emergency Response Fund (Fund 6100) Department of Health $ 1,049,954 $ 1,086,098 161755
ER Radiological Safety Fund (Fund 6440) Environmental Protection Agency $ 284,266 $ 290,674 161756
Emergency Response Plan Fund (Fund 6570) Department of Public Safety $ 1,415,945 $ 1,415,945 161757

       Section 512.10. TRANSFERS TO THE GENERAL REVENUE FUND OF 161758
INTEREST EARNED161759

       Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the 161760
Director of Budget and Management, through June 30, 2015, may 161761
transfer interest earned by any state fund to the General Revenue 161762
Fund. This section does not apply to funds whose source of revenue 161763
is restricted or protected by the Ohio Constitution, federal tax 161764
law, or the "Cash Management Improvement Act of 1990," 104 Stat. 161765
1058 (1990), 31 U.S.C. 6501 et seq., as amended.161766

       Section 512.20. CASH TRANSFERS TO THE GENERAL REVENUE FUND 161767
FROM NON-GRF FUNDS161768

        Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the 161769
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to $60,000,000 161770
in each fiscal year in cash from non-General Revenue Funds that 161771
are not constitutionally restricted to the General Revenue Fund in 161772
order to ensure that available General Revenue Fund receipts and 161773
balances are sufficient to support General Revenue Fund 161774
appropriations in each fiscal year.161775

       Section 512.30. FISCAL YEAR 2013 GENERAL REVENUE FUND ENDING 161776
BALANCE161777

       Notwithstanding divisions (B) and (C) of section 131.44 of 161778
the Revised Code, the Director of Budget and Management shall 161779
determine the surplus General Revenue Fund revenue that existed on 161780
June 30, 2013, in excess of the amount required under division 161781
(A)(3) of section 131.44 of the Revised Code, and transfer from 161782
the General Revenue Fund, to the extent of the amount so 161783
determined, the following:161784

       (A) To the Disaster Services Fund (Fund 5E20), a cash amount 161785
of up to $15,000,000;161786

       (B) To the Controlling Board Emergency Purposes Fund (Fund 161787
5KM0), a cash amount of up to $20,000,000;161788

       (C) To the Natural Resources Special Purposes Fund (Fund 161789
5MW0), which is hereby created in the state treasury, a cash 161790
amount of up to $12,000,000;161791

       (D) To the Unemployment Compensation Interest Contingency 161792
Fund (Fund 5HC0), a cash amount of up to $120,000,000 for payment 161793
to the United States Secretary of the Treasury of accrued interest 161794
costs related to federal unemployment account borrowing.161795

       Section 512.40.  ACCESS SUCCESS II PROGRAM161796

       To the extent cash is available, the Director of Budget and 161797
Management may transfer cash from the Money Follows the Person 161798
Enhanced Reimbursement Fund (Fund 5AJ0), used by the Department of 161799
Medicaid, to the Sale of Goods and Services Fund (Fund 1490), used 161800
by the Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services. The 161801
transferred cash is hereby appropriated. 161802

       The Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services shall 161803
use the transferred funds to administer the Access Success II 161804
Program to help non-Medicaid patients in any hospital established, 161805
controlled, or supervised by the Department under Chapter 5119. of 161806
the Revised Code to transition from inpatient status to a 161807
community setting. 161808

       Section 512.50. Not later than the first day of September 161809
2013, the Director of Mental Health and the Director of Alcohol 161810
and Drug Addiction Services shall certify to the Director of 161811
Budget and Management the amount of all of the unexpended, 161812
unencumbered balances of general revenue fund appropriations made 161813
to the Department of Mental Health and to the Department of 161814
Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services for FY 2012, excluding funds 161815
appropriated for rental payments to the Ohio Public Facilities 161816
Commission. On receipt of the certification, the Director of 161817
Budget and Management shall transfer cash to the Department of 161818
Mental Health and Addiction Services Trust Fund created in section 161819
5119.46 of the Revised Code (renumbered section 5119.60 of the 161820
Revised Code in this act) in an amount up to, but not exceeding, 161821
the total amounts certified by the Director of Mental Health and 161822
the Director of Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services.161823

       Section 512.70. PROHIBITION ON TRANSFERS161824

        Notwithstanding section 131.44 of the Revised Code, cash 161825
shall not be transferred to the Income Tax Reduction Fund prior to 161826
July 1, 2015.161827

       Section 512.80. DIESEL EMISSIONS REDUCTION GRANT PROGRAM161828

       There is hereby established in the Highway Operating Fund 161829
(Fund 7002), used by the Department of Transportation, a Diesel 161830
Emissions Reduction Grant Program. The Director of Environmental 161831
Protection shall administer the program and shall solicit, 161832
evaluate, score, and select projects submitted by public and 161833
private entities that are eligible for the federal Congestion 161834
Mitigation and Air Quality (CMAQ) Program. The Director of 161835
Transportation shall process Federal Highway 161836
Administration-approved projects as recommended by the Director of 161837
Environmental Protection.161838

       In addition to the allowable expenditures set forth in 161839
section 122.861 of the Revised Code, Diesel Emissions Reduction 161840
Grant Program funds also may be used to fund projects involving 161841
the purchase or use of hybrid and alternative fuel vehicles that 161842
are allowed under guidance developed by the Federal Highway 161843
Administration for the CMAQ Program.161844

        Public entities eligible to receive funds under section 161845
122.861 of the Revised Code and CMAQ shall be reimbursed from 161846
moneys in the Highway Operating Fund (Fund 7002) designated for 161847
the Department of Transportation's Diesel Emissions Reduction 161848
Grant Program.161849

        Private entities eligible to receive funds under section 161850
122.861 of the Revised Code and CMAQ shall be reimbursed through 161851
transfers of cash from moneys in the Highway Operating Fund (Fund 161852
7002) designated for the Department of Transportation's Diesel 161853
Emissions Reduction Grant Program to the Diesel Emissions 161854
Reduction Fund (Fund 3FH0), used by the Environmental Protection 161855
Agency. Total expenditures between both the Environmental 161856
Protection Agency and the Department of Transportation shall not 161857
exceed the amounts appropriated in this act for appropriation item 161858
715693, Diesel Emissions Reduction Grants.161859

       On or before June 30, 2014, the Director of Environmental 161860
Protection may certify to the Director of Budget and Management 161861
the amount of any unencumbered balance of the foregoing 161862
appropriation item 715693, Diesel Emissions Reduction Grants, for 161863
fiscal year 2014 to be used for the same purpose in fiscal year 161864
2015. Once the certification permitted under this section has been 161865
submitted and approved by the Director of Budget and Management, 161866
the amount approved is hereby appropriated for fiscal year 2015.161867

        Any cash transfers or allocations under this section 161868
represent CMAQ program moneys within the Department of 161869
Transportation for use by the Diesel Emissions Reduction Grant 161870
Program by the Environmental Protection Agency. These allocations 161871
shall not reduce the amount of such moneys designated for 161872
metropolitan planning organizations. 161873

       The Director of Environmental Protection, in consultation 161874
with the directors of Development Services and Transportation, 161875
shall develop guidance for the distribution of funds and for the 161876
administration of the Diesel Emissions Reduction Grant Program. 161877
The guidance shall include a method of prioritization for 161878
projects, acceptable technologies, and procedures for awarding 161879
grants.161880

       Section 515.30. On the effective date of this section, the 161881
Rehabilitation Services Commission is renamed the Opportunities 161882
for Ohioans with Disabilities Agency. The Rehabilitation Services 161883
Commission's functions, and its assets and liabilities, are 161884
transferred to the Opportunities for Ohioans with Disabilities 161885
Agency. The Opportunities for Ohioans with Disabilities Agency is 161886
successor to, assumes the obligations and authority of, and 161887
otherwise continues the Rehabilitation Services Commission. No 161888
right, privilege, or remedy, and no duty, liability, or 161889
obligation, accrued under the Rehabilitation Services Commission 161890
is impaired or lost by reason of the renaming and shall be 161891
recognized, administered, performed, or enforced by the 161892
Opportunities for Ohioans with Disabilities Agency.161893

       Business commenced but not completed by the Rehabilitation 161894
Services Commission or by the Administrator of the Rehabilitation 161895
Services Commission shall be completed by the Opportunities for 161896
Ohioans with Disabilities Agency or the Executive Director of the 161897
Opportunities for Ohioans with Disabilities Agency in the same 161898
manner, and with the same effect, as if completed by the 161899
Rehabilitation Services Commission or the Administrator of the 161900
Rehabilitation Services Commission.161901

       All of the Rehabilitation Services Commission's rules, 161902
orders, and determinations continue in effect as rules, orders, 161903
and determinations of the Opportunities for Ohioans with 161904
Disabilities Agency until modified or rescinded by the 161905
Opportunities for Ohioans with Disabilities Agency.161906

       Subject to the layoff provisions of sections 124.321 to 161907
124.382 of the Revised Code, all employees of the Rehabilitation 161908
Services Commission continue with the Opportunities for Ohioans 161909
with Disabilities Agency and retain their positions and all 161910
benefits accruing thereto.161911

       The Director of Budget and Management shall determine the 161912
amount of unexpended balances in the appropriation accounts that 161913
pertain to the Rehabilitation Services Commission and shall 161914
recommend to the Controlling Board their transfer to the 161915
appropriation accounts that pertain to the Opportunities for 161916
Ohioans with Disabilities Agency. The Administrator of the 161917
Rehabilitation Services Commission shall provide full and timely 161918
information to the Controlling Board to facilitate the transfer.161919

       Whenever the Rehabilitation Services Commission or the 161920
Administrator of the Rehabilitation Services Commission is 161921
referred to in a statute, contract, or other instrument, the 161922
reference is deemed to refer to the Opportunities for Ohioans with 161923
Disabilities Agency or to the Executive Director of the 161924
Opportunities for Ohioans with Disabilities Agency, whichever is 161925
appropriate in context.161926

       No pending action or proceeding being prosecuted or defended 161927
in court or before an agency by the Rehabilitation Services 161928
Commission or the Administrator of the Rehabilitation Services 161929
Commission is affected by the renaming and shall be prosecuted or 161930
defended in the name of the Opportunities for Ohioans with 161931
Disabilities Agency or the Executive Director of the Opportunities 161932
for Ohioans with Disabilities Agency, whichever is appropriate. 161933
Upon application to the court or agency, the Opportunities for 161934
Ohioans with Disabilities Agency or the Executive Director of the 161935
Opportunities for Ohioans with Disabilities Agency shall be 161936
substituted.161937

       Section 515.40.  On the effective date of this section, the 161938
Board of Examiners of Nursing Home Administrators is renamed the 161939
Board of Executives of Long-Term Services and Supports. The Board 161940
of Examiners of Nursing Home Administrators' functions and its 161941
assets and liabilities, are transferred to the Board of Executives 161942
of Long-Term Services and Supports. The Board of Executives of 161943
Long-Term Services and Supports is successor to, assumes the 161944
obligations and authority of, and otherwise continues the Board of 161945
Examiners of Nursing Home Administrators. No right, privilege, or 161946
remedy, and no duty, liability, or obligation, accrued under the 161947
Board of Examiners of Nursing Home Administrators is impaired or 161948
lost by reason of the renaming and shall be recognized, 161949
administered, performed, or enforced by the Board of Executives of 161950
Long-Term Services and Supports.161951

       Business commenced but not completed by the Board of 161952
Examiners of Nursing Home Administrators or by the Secretary of 161953
the Board of Examiners of Nursing Home Administrators shall be 161954
completed by the Board of Executives of Long-Term Services and 161955
Supports or the Secretary of the Board of Executives of Long-Term 161956
Services and Supports in the same manner, and with the same 161957
effect, as if completed by the Board of Examiners of Nursing Home 161958
Administrators or by the Secretary of the Board of Examiners of 161959
Nursing Home Administrators.161960

       All of the Board of Examiners of Nursing Home Administrators' 161961
rules, orders, and determinations continue in effect as rules, 161962
orders, and determinations of the Board of Executives of Long-Term 161963
Services and Supports.161964

       Subject to the layoff provisions of sections 124.321 to 161965
124.328 of the Revised Code, all employees of the Board of 161966
Examiners of Nursing Home Administrators who provide 161967
administrative, technical, or other services to the Board of 161968
Examiners of Nursing Home Administrators on a full-time, permanent 161969
basis shall continue with the Board of Executives of Long-Term 161970
Services and Supports and retain their positions and benefits 161971
accruing thereto, except that those employees in the classified 161972
service shall be reclassified into the unclassified service and 161973
shall serve at the pleasure of the Board.161974

        Notwithstanding section 4751.03 of the Revised Code, as 161975
amended by this act, those board members currently serving as 161976
members of the Board of Examiners of Nursing Home Administrators 161977
on the effective date of this act shall continue to serve as 161978
members of the Board of Executives of Long-Term Services and 161979
Supports for the remainder of their appointment period, at which 161980
time new members shall be appointed in a manner consistent with 161981
section 4751.03 of the Revised Code, as amended by this act.161982

       Within ninety days after the effective date of this act, the 161983
Governor shall appoint to the Board of Executives of Long-Term 161984
Services and Supports those new members who are required to be 161985
appointed under divisions (A)(3) and (6) of section 4751.03 of the 161986
Revised Code, as amended by this act, for terms ending on May 27, 161987
2014. Thereafter, appointment for those members shall be as 161988
provided in section 4751.03 of the Revised Code, as amended by 161989
this act.161990

       Whenever the Board of Examiners of Nursing Home 161991
Administrators is referred to in statute, contract, or other 161992
instrument, the reference is deemed to refer to the Board of 161993
Executives of Long-Term Services and Supports.161994

       No pending action or proceeding being prosecuted or defended 161995
in court or before an agency by the Board of Examiners of Nursing 161996
Home Administrators or the Secretary of the Board of Examiners of 161997
Nursing Home Administrators is affected by the renaming and shall 161998
be prosecuted or defended in the name of the Board of Executives 161999
of Long-Term Services and Supports or the Secretary of the Board 162000
of Executives of Long-Term Services and Supports. Upon application 162001
to the court or agency, the Board of Executives of Long-Term 162002
Services and Supports or the Secretary of the Board of Executives 162003
of Long-Term Services and Supports shall be substituted.162004

       Section 515.50. (A) On July 1, 2013, the eTech Ohio 162005
Commission is renamed and reconstituted as the Broadcast 162006
Educational Media Commission, as described in section 3353.02 of 162007
the Revised Code as amended by this act. The Broadcast Educational 162008
Media Commission is thereupon and thereafter successor to, assumes 162009
the obligations of, and otherwise constitutes the continuation of 162010
the eTech Ohio Commission, for all obligations related to the 162011
state's educational broadcasting services, including educational 162012
television, radio, and radio reading services. 162013

       (B) Any business related to the state's educational 162014
television, radio, or radio reading services commenced but not 162015
completed by the eTech Ohio Commission shall be completed by the 162016
Broadcast Educational Media Commission in the same manner, and 162017
with the same effect, as if completed by the eTech Ohio 162018
Commission. No validation, cure, right, privilege, remedy, 162019
obligation, or liability is lost or impaired by reason of the 162020
renaming, and shall be recognized, administered, performed, or 162021
enforced by the Broadcast Educational Media Commission. 162022

       (C) All of the rules of the eTech Ohio Commission related to 162023
the state's educational broadcasting services, including 162024
educational television, radio, or radio reading services, continue 162025
in effect as rules of the Broadcast Educational Media Commission, 162026
until amended or rescinded by the Broadcast Educational Media 162027
Commission. 162028

       (D) No judicial or administrative action or proceeding 162029
related to the state's educational broadcasting services, 162030
including educational television, radio, or radio reading 162031
services, in which the eTech Ohio Commission is a party, that is 162032
pending on the effective date of this section is affected by the 162033
renaming. Such action or proceeding shall be prosecuted or 162034
defended in the name of the Broadcast Educational Media 162035
Commission. On application to the court or other tribunal, the 162036
Broadcast Educational Media Commission shall be substituted for 162037
the eTech Ohio Commission as a party to such action or proceeding. 162038

       (E) Subject to the layoff provisions of sections 124.321 to 162039
124.328 and division (D) of section 3353.03 of the Revised Code, 162040
as amended by this act, all employees of the former eTech Ohio 162041
Commission assigned to activities related to the state's 162042
educational broadcasting services, including educational 162043
television, radio, or radio reading services, continue with the 162044
Broadcast Educational Media Commission and retain their positions 162045
and all benefits accruing thereto. 162046

       (F) All books, records, documents, files, transcripts, 162047
equipment, furniture, supplies, and other materials related to the 162048
state's educational broadcasting services, including educational 162049
television, radio, or radio reading services, assigned to or in 162050
the possession of the former eTech Ohio Commission shall be 162051
transferred to the Broadcast Educational Media Commission. 162052

       (G) Each current member of the eTech Ohio Commission shall 162053
serve until June 30, 2013. On July 1, 2013, or as soon after July 162054
1, 2013, as possible, each member shall either be reappointed or 162055
replaced by another member to serve on the Educational Media 162056
Commission pursuant to section 3353.02 of the Revised Code, as 162057
amended by this act.162058

       Section 515.51. (A) On July 1, 2013, all responsibilities 162059
related to the administration of the Telecommunity Fund and the 162060
Distance Learning Fund, as well as for technology-related teacher 162061
professional development programs, are transferred from the former 162062
eTech Ohio Commission to the Chancellor of the Board of Regents as 162063
described in sections 3319.235, 3317.50, and 3317.51 of the 162064
Revised Code, as amended by this act. The Chancellor is thereupon 162065
and thereafter successor to, assumes the obligations of, and 162066
otherwise constitutes the continuation of the eTech Ohio 162067
Commission relating to the functions, assets, records, and 162068
obligations relating to these responsibilities. 162069

       (B) Any business related to these responsibilities commenced 162070
but not completed by the former eTech Ohio Commission shall be 162071
completed by the Chancellor in the same manner, and with the same 162072
effect, as if completed by the eTech Ohio Commission. No 162073
validation, cure, right, privilege, remedy, obligation, or 162074
liability is lost or impaired by reason of the transfer, and shall 162075
be recognized, administered, performed, or enforced by the 162076
Chancellor. 162077

       (C) All of the rules of the former eTech Ohio Commission 162078
related to these responsibilities continue in effect as rules of 162079
the Chancellor, until amended or rescinded by the Chancellor. 162080

       (D) Any judicial or administrative action or proceeding 162081
related to these responsibilities, in which the eTech Ohio 162082
Commission is a party, that is pending on the effective date of 162083
this section is affected by the transfer. Such action or 162084
proceeding shall be prosecuted or defended in the name of the 162085
Chancellor. On application to the court or other tribunal, the 162086
Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall be substituted for the 162087
eTech Ohio Commission as a party to such action or proceeding. 162088

       (E) Subject to the layoff provisions of sections 124.321 to 162089
124.328 and division (D) of section 3353.03 of the Revised Code, 162090
as amended by this act, all employees of the former eTech Ohio 162091
Commission assigned to these responsibilities continue with the 162092
Chancellor and retain their positions and all benefits accruing 162093
thereto. 162094

       (F) All books, records, documents, files, transcripts, 162095
equipment, furniture, supplies, and other materials related to 162096
these responsibilities assigned to or in the possession of the 162097
former eTech Ohio Commission shall be transferred to the 162098
Chancellor.162099

       (G) All employees of the former eTech Ohio Commission who 162100
transferred to the Chancellor of the Board of Regents upon the 162101
reconstitution of the Commission as prescribed by Section 515.50 162102
of H.B. 59 of the 130th General Assembly and who when employed by 162103
that Commission or a predecessor agency were included in a 162104
bargaining unit established under Chapter 4117. of the Revised 162105
Code, shall continue to be included in that bargaining unit, are 162106
public employees as defined in section 4117.01 of the Revised 162107
Code, and may collectively bargain with the Chancellor in 162108
accordance with that chapter. Otherwise, any employee hired by the 162109
Chancellor after the reconstitution of the Commission, either to 162110
fill vacancies or to fill new positions related to the transferred 162111
employees' duties, shall be exempt from Chapter 4117. of the 162112
Revised Code and shall not be public employees as defined in 162113
section 4117.01 of the Revised Code. 162114

       Section 515.52. (A) On July 1, 2013, all responsibilities of 162115
the former eTech Ohio Commission related to the purchase of 162116
software services and supplies, the redistribution of hardware and 162117
software from closed community schools, and technology-related 162118
teacher professional development programs are transferred from the 162119
former eTech Ohio Commission to the Department of Education as 162120
described in sections 125.05, 3314.074, and 3319.235 of the 162121
Revised Code, as amended by this act. The Department is thereupon 162122
and thereafter successor to, assumes the obligations of, and 162123
otherwise constitutes the continuation of the eTech Ohio 162124
Commission relating to these responsibilities. 162125

       (B) Any business related to these responsibilities commenced 162126
but not completed by the former eTech Ohio Commission shall be 162127
completed by the Department in the same manner, and with the same 162128
effect, as if completed by the eTech Ohio Commission. No 162129
validation, cure, right, privilege, remedy, obligation, or 162130
liability is lost or impaired by reason of the transfer, and shall 162131
be recognized, administered, performed, or enforced by the 162132
Department. 162133

       (C) All of the rules of the eTech Ohio Commission related to 162134
these responsibilities continue in effect as rules of the 162135
Department, until amended or rescinded by the Department. 162136

       (D) Any judicial or administrative action or proceeding 162137
related to these responsibilities, in which the eTech Ohio 162138
Commission is a party, that is pending on the effective date of 162139
this section is affected by the transfer. Such action or 162140
proceeding shall be prosecuted or defended in the name of the 162141
Department. On application to the court or other tribunal, the 162142
Department of Education shall be substituted for the eTech Ohio 162143
Commission as a party to such action or proceeding. 162144

       (E) Subject to the layoff provisions of sections 124.321 to 162145
124.328 and division (D) of section 3353.03 of the Revised Code, 162146
as amended by this act, all employees of the former eTech Ohio 162147
Commission assigned to these responsibilities continue with the 162148
Department and retain their positions and all benefits accruing 162149
thereto. 162150

       (F) All books, records, documents, files, transcripts, 162151
equipment, furniture, supplies, and other materials related to 162152
these responsibilities assigned to or in the possession of the 162153
former eTech Ohio Commission shall be transferred to the 162154
Department.162155

       (G) All employees of the former eTech Ohio Commission who 162156
transferred to the Department of Education upon the reconstitution 162157
of the Commission as prescribed by Section 515.50 of H.B. 59 of 162158
the 130th General Assembly and who when employed by that 162159
Commission or a predecessor agency were included in a bargaining 162160
unit established under Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code, shall 162161
continue to be included in that bargaining unit, are public 162162
employees as defined in section 4117.01 of the Revised Code, and 162163
may collectively bargain with the state Board of Education in 162164
accordance with that chapter. Otherwise, any employee hired by the 162165
Department after the reconstitution of the Commission, either to 162166
fill vacancies or to fill new positions related to the transferred 162167
employees' duties, shall be exempt from Chapter 4117. of the 162168
Revised Code and shall not be public employees as defined in 162169
section 4117.01 of the Revised Code. 162170

       Section 515.53.  Any duties and responsibilities of the 162171
former eTech Ohio Commission not transferred in accordance with 162172
Sections 515.50, 515.51, and 515.52 of this act are eliminated on 162173
July 1, 2013.162174

       Section 518.10. GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE PAYMENTS162175

       Certain appropriations are in this act for the purpose of 162176
paying debt service and financing costs on general obligation 162177
bonds or notes of the state issued pursuant to the Ohio 162178
Constitution and acts of the General Assembly. If it is determined 162179
that additional appropriations are necessary for this purpose, 162180
such amounts are hereby appropriated.162181

       Section 518.20. LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS FOR DEBT SERVICE162182

       Certain appropriations are in this act for the purpose of 162183
making lease rental payments pursuant to leases and agreements 162184
relating to bonds or notes issued by the Treasurer of State, or 162185
previously by the Ohio Public Facilities Commission or the Ohio 162186
Building Authority, pursuant to the Ohio Constitution and acts of 162187
the General Assembly. If it is determined that additional 162188
appropriations are necessary for this purpose, such amounts are 162189
hereby appropriated.162190

       Section 518.30. AUTHORIZATION FOR TREASURER OF STATE AND OBM 162191
TO EFFECTUATE CERTAIN DEBT SERVICE PAYMENTS162192

       The Office of Budget and Management shall process payments 162193
from general obligation and lease rental payment appropriation 162194
items during the period from July 1, 2013, through June 30, 2015, 162195
relating to bonds or notes issued under Sections 2i, 2k, 2l, 2m, 162196
2n, 2o, 2p, 2q, 2r, and 15 of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, and 162197
Chapters 151., 152., and 154. of the Revised Code. Payments shall 162198
be made upon certification by the Treasurer of State of the dates 162199
and the amounts due on those dates.162200

       Section 521.11. STATE AND LOCAL REBATE AUTHORIZATION162201

        There is hereby appropriated, from those funds designated by 162202
or pursuant to the applicable proceedings authorizing the issuance 162203
of state obligations, amounts computed at the time to represent 162204
the portion of investment income to be rebated or amounts in lieu 162205
of or in addition to any rebate amount to be paid to the federal 162206
government in order to maintain the exclusion from gross income 162207
for federal income tax purposes of interest on those state 162208
obligations under section 148(f) of the Internal Revenue Code.162209

       Rebate payments shall be approved and vouchered by the Office 162210
of Budget and Management.162211

       Section 521.20. STATEWIDE INDIRECT COST RECOVERY162212

       Whenever the Director of Budget and Management determines 162213
that an appropriation made to a state agency from a fund of the 162214
state is insufficient to provide for the recovery of statewide 162215
indirect costs under section 126.12 of the Revised Code, the 162216
amount required for such purpose is hereby appropriated from the 162217
available receipts of such fund.162218

       Section 521.30.  TRANSFERS ON BEHALF OF THE STATEWIDE 162219
INDIRECT COST ALLOCATION PLAN162220

       The total transfers made from the General Revenue Fund by the 162221
Director of Budget and Management under this section shall not 162222
exceed the amounts transferred into the General Revenue Fund under 162223
section 126.12 of the Revised Code.162224

       The director of an agency may certify to the Director of 162225
Budget and Management the amount of expenses not allowed to be 162226
included in the Statewide Indirect Cost Allocation Plan under 162227
federal regulations, from any fund included in the Statewide 162228
Indirect Cost Allocation Plan, prepared as required by section 162229
126.12 of the Revised Code.162230

       Upon determining that no alternative source of funding is 162231
available to pay for such expenses, the Director of Budget and 162232
Management may transfer cash from the General Revenue Fund into 162233
the fund for which the certification is made, up to the amount of 162234
the certification. The director of the agency receiving such funds 162235
shall include, as part of the next budget submission prepared 162236
under section 126.02 of the Revised Code, a request for funding 162237
for such activities from an alternative source such that further 162238
federal disallowances would not be required.162239

       The director of an agency may certify to the Director of 162240
Budget and Management the amount of expenses paid in error from a 162241
fund included in the Statewide Indirect Cost Allocation Plan. The 162242
Director of Budget and Management may transfer cash from the fund 162243
from which the expenditure should have been made into the fund 162244
from which the expenses were erroneously paid, up to the amount of 162245
the certification.162246

       The director of an agency may certify to the Director of 162247
Budget and Management the amount of expenses or revenues not 162248
allowed to be included in the Statewide Indirect Cost Allocation 162249
Plan under federal regulations, for any fund included in the 162250
Statewide Indirect Cost Allocation Plan, for which the federal 162251
government requires payment. If the Director of Budget and 162252
Management determines that an appropriation made to a state agency 162253
from a fund of the state is insufficient to pay the amount 162254
required by the federal government, the amount required for such 162255
purpose is hereby appropriated from the available receipts of such 162256
fund, up to the amount of the certification.162257

       Section 521.35. CASH TRANSFERS TO TOBACCO OVERSIGHT 162258
ADMINISTRATION AND ENFORCEMENT FUND162259

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 162260
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 162261
in the Tobacco Settlement Enforcement Fund (Fund T087) and the 162262
Education Technology Trust Fund (Fund S087) to the Tobacco 162263
Oversight Administration and Enforcement Fund (Fund U087). Upon 162264
completion of the transfer, Fund T087 and Fund S087 are abolished. 162265
The Director shall cancel any existing encumbrances against 162266
appropriation items 110402, Tobacco Settlement Enforcement, and 162267
935602, Education Technology Trust.162268

       On July 1, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 162269
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 162270
in the Law Enforcement Improvement Trust Fund (Fund J087) to the 162271
Tobacco Oversight Administration and Enforcement Fund (Fund U087). 162272
Upon completion of the transfer, Fund J087 is abolished. The 162273
Director shall cancel any existing encumbrances against 162274
appropriation item 055635, Law Enforcement Technology, Training, 162275
and Facility Enhancements.162276

       Section 521.40. FEDERAL GOVERNMENT INTEREST REQUIREMENTS162277

       Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, on or 162278
before the first day of September of each fiscal year, the 162279
Director of Budget and Management, in order to reduce the payment 162280
of adjustments to the federal government, as determined by the 162281
plan prepared under division (A) of section 126.12 of the Revised 162282
Code, may designate such funds as the Director considers necessary 162283
to retain their own interest earnings.162284

       Section 521.50. FEDERAL CASH MANAGEMENT IMPROVEMENT ACT162285

       Pursuant to the plan for compliance with the Federal Cash 162286
Management Improvement Act required by section 131.36 of the 162287
Revised Code, the Director of Budget and Management may cancel and 162288
re-establish all or part of encumbrances in like amounts within 162289
the funds identified by the plan. The amounts necessary to 162290
re-establish all or part of encumbrances are hereby appropriated.162291

       Section 521.60. FISCAL STABILIZATION AND RECOVERY162292

        To ensure the level of accountability and transparency 162293
required by federal law, the Director of Budget and Management may 162294
issue guidelines to any agency applying for federal money made 162295
available to this state for fiscal stabilization and recovery 162296
purposes, and may prescribe the process by which agencies are to 162297
comply with any reporting requirements established by the federal 162298
government.162299

       Section 605.03. That Section 1 of Sub. H.B. 34 of the 130th 162300
General Assembly be amended to read as follows:162301

       Sec. 1. All items in this section are hereby appropriated out 162302
of any moneys in the state treasury to the credit of the 162303
designated fund. For all appropriations made in this act, those in 162304
the first column are for fiscal year 2014, and those in the second 162305
column are for fiscal year 2015.162306

FND AI AI TITLE Appropriations 162307

BWC BUREAU OF WORKERS' COMPENSATION
162308

Workers' Compensation Fund Group162309

7023 855401 William Green Lease Payments to OBA $ 16,026,100 $ 0 162310
7023 855407 Claims, Risk and Medical Management $ 118,338,586 $ 118,338,586 162311
7023 855408 Fraud Prevention $ 12,114,226 $ 12,114,226 162312
7023 855409 Administrative Services $ 105,857,276 $ 105,357,276 162313
7023 855410 Attorney General Payments $ 4,621,850 $ 4,621,850 162314
8220 855606 Coal Workers' Fund $ 147,666 $ 147,666 162315
8230 855608 Marine Industry $ 75,527 $ 75,527 162316
8250 855605 Disabled Workers Relief Fund $ 319,718 $ 319,718 162317
8260 855609 Safety and Hygiene Operating $ 19,161,132 21,661,132 $ 19,161,132 21,661,132 162318
8260 855610 Gear Program Safety Grants $ 5,000,000 15,000,000 $ 5,000,000 15,000,000 162319
8290 855604 Long Term Care Loan Program $ 100,000 $ 100,000 162320
TOTAL WCF Workers' Compensation 162321
Fund Group $ 281,762,081 294,262,081 $ 265,235,981 277,735,981 162322

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group162323

3490 855601 OSHA Enforcement $ 1,731,000 $ 1,731,000 162324
3FW0 855614 BLS SOII Grant $ 116,919 $ 116,919 162325
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 1,847,919 $ 1,847,919 162326
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 283,610,000 296,110,000 $ 267,083,900 279,583,900 162327

       WILLIAM GREEN LEASE PAYMENTS162328

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 855401, William Green 162329
Lease Payments, up to $16,026,100 shall be used to make lease 162330
payments to the Treasurer of State at the times they are required 162331
to be made during the period from July 1, 2013 to June 30, 2015, 162332
pursuant to leases and agreements made under section 154.24 of the 162333
Revised Code. If it is determined that additional appropriations 162334
are necessary for such purpose, such amounts are hereby 162335
appropriated.162336

       WORKERS' COMPENSATION FRAUD UNIT162337

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 855410, Attorney General 162338
Payments, $828,200 in each fiscal year shall be used to fund the 162339
expenses of the Workers' Compensation Fraud Unit within the 162340
Attorney General's Office. These payments shall be processed at 162341
the beginning of each quarter of each fiscal year and deposited 162342
into the Workers' Compensation Section Fund (Fund 1950) used by 162343
the Attorney General.162344

       SAFETY AND HYGIENE162345

       Notwithstanding section 4121.37 of the Revised Code, the 162346
Treasurer of State shall transfer $19,161,132$21,661,132 cash in 162347
fiscal year 2014 and $19,161,132$21,661,132 cash in fiscal year 162348
2015 from the State Insurance Fund to the Safety and Hygiene Fund 162349
(Fund 8260).162350

       OSHA ON-SITE CONSULTATION PROGRAM162351

        The Bureau of Workers' Compensation may designate a portion 162352
of appropriation item 855609, Safety and Hygiene Operating, to be 162353
used to match federal funding for the federal Occupational Safety 162354
and Health Administration's (OSHA) on-site consultation program.162355

       VOCATIONAL REHABILITATION162356

       The Bureau of Workers' Compensation and the Rehabilitation 162357
Services CommissionOpportunities for Ohioans with Disabilities 162358
Agency shall enter into an interagency agreement for the provision 162359
of vocational rehabilitation services and staff to mutually 162360
eligible clients. The bureau may provide not more than $605,407 in 162361
fiscal year 2014 and not more than $605,407 in fiscal year 2015 162362
from the State Insurance Fund to fund vocational rehabilitation 162363
services and staff in accordance with the interagency agreement.162364

       FUND BALANCE162365

       Any unencumbered cash balance in excess of $45,000,000 in the 162366
Workers' Compensation Fund (Fund 7023) on the thirtieth day of 162367
June of each fiscal year shall be used to reduce the 162368
administrative cost rate charged to employers to cover 162369
appropriations for Bureau of Workers' Compensation operations.162370

       Section 605.04. That existing Section 1 of Sub. H.B. 34 of 162371
the 130th General Assembly is hereby repealed.162372

       Section 605.10. That Sections 205.10, 506.10, and 755.30 of 162373
Am. Sub. H.B. 51 of the 130th General Assembly be amended to read 162374
as follows:162375

       Sec. 205.10. DPS DEPARTMENT OF PUBLIC SAFETY162376

State Highway Safety Fund Group162377

4W40 762321 Operating Expense - BMV $ 130,559,268 $ 130,418,957 162378
5V10 762682 License Plate Contribution $ 2,100,000 $ 2,100,000 162379
7036 761321 Operating Expense - Information and Education $ 7,055,066 $ 6,999,331 162380
7036 761401 Lease Rental Payments $ 2,472,300 $ 2,473,100 162381
7036 764033 Minor Capital Projects $ 1,250,000 $ 1,250,000 162382
7036 764321 Operating Expense - Highway Patrol $ 268,232,602 268,743,502 $ 270,232,602 162383
7036 764605 Motor Carrier Enforcement Expenses $ 2,860,000 $ 2,860,000 162384
8300 761603 Salvage and Exchange - Administration $ 20,053 $ 20,053 162385
8310 761610 Information and Education - Federal $ 300,000 $ 300,000 162386
8310 764608 FARS Grant Federal $ 175,000 $ 175,000 162387
8310 764610 Patrol - Federal $ 2,250,000 $ 2,250,000 162388
8310 764659 Transportation Enforcement - Federal $ 5,200,000 $ 5,200,000 162389
8310 765610 EMS - Federal $ 225,000 $ 225,000 162390
8310 769610 Investigative Unit Federal Reimbursement $ 1,400,000 $ 1,400,000 162391
8310 769631 Homeland Security - Federal $ 750,000 $ 400,000 162392
8320 761612 Traffic Safety - Federal $ 22,000,000 $ 22,000,000 162393
8350 762616 Financial Responsibility Compliance $ 5,274,068 $ 5,274,068 162394
8370 764602 Turnpike Policing $ 11,553,959 $ 11,553,959 162395
83C0 764630 Contraband, Forfeiture, Other $ 622,894 $ 622,894 162396
83F0 764657 Law Enforcement Automated Data System $ 8,500,000 $ 8,500,000 162397
83G0 764633 OMVI Enforcement/Education $ 641,927 $ 641,927 162398
83J0 764693 Highway Patrol Justice Contraband $ 2,100,000 $ 2,100,000 162399
83M0 765624 Operating - EMS $ 3,056,069 $ 3,056,069 162400
83M0 765640 EMS - Grants $ 3,300,000 $ 3,300,000 162401
83R0 762639 Local Immobilization Reimbursement $ 450,000 $ 450,000 162402
83T0 764694 Highway Patrol Treasury Contraband $ 21,000 $ 21,000 162403
8400 764607 State Fair Security $ 1,294,354 $ 1,294,354 162404
8400 764617 Security and Investigations $ 8,793,865 $ 9,514,236 162405
8400 764626 State Fairgrounds Police Force $ 1,047,560 $ 1,084,559 162406
8400 769632 Homeland Security - Operating $ 650,000 $ 630,000 162407
8410 764603 Salvage and Exchange - Highway Patrol $ 1,339,399 $ 1,339,399 162408
8460 761625 Motorcycle Safety Education $ 3,280,563 $ 3,280,563 162409
8490 762627 Automated Title Processing Board $ 16,675,513 $ 16,467,293 162410
TOTAL HSF State Highway Safety Fund Group $ 515,450,460 515,961,360 $ 517,434,364 162411

General Services Fund Group162412

4P60 768601 Justice Program Services $ 900,000 $ 875,000 162413
5ET0 768625 Drug Law Enforcement $ 4,250,000 $ 4,250,000 162414
5LM0 768698 Criminal Justice Services Law Enforcement Support $ 850,946 $ 850,946 162415
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 6,290,946 5,150,000 $ 6,265,946 5,125,000 162416

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group162417

3290 763645 Federal Mitigation Program $ 10,413,642 $ 10,413,642 162418
3370 763609 Federal Disaster Relief $ 27,707,636 $ 27,707,636 162419
3390 763647 Emergency Management Assistance and Training $ 70,934,765 $ 70,934,765 162420
3CE0 768611 Justice Assistance Grants – FFY09 $ 400,000 $ 100,000 162421
3DE0 768612 Federal Stimulus - Justice Assistance Grants $ 1,000,000 $ 300,000 162422
3DU0 762628 BMV Grants $ 1,350,000 $ 1,325,000 162423
3EU0 768614 Justice Assistance Grants – FFY10 $ 830,000 $ 500,000 162424
3FK0 768615 Justice Assistance Grants – FFY11 $ 900,000 $ 900,000 162425
3FP0 767620 Ohio Investigative Unit Justice Contraband $ 55,000 $ 55,000 162426
3FY0 768616 Justice Assistance Grants – FFY12 $ 2,200,000 $ 1,500,000 162427
3FZ0 768617 Justice Assistance Grants – FFY13 $ 7,000,000 $ 2,000,000 162428
3GA0 768618 Justice Assistance Grants – FFY14 $ 0 $ 7,500,000 162429
3L50 768604 Justice Program $ 10,500,000 $ 10,500,000 162430
3N50 763644 U.S. Department of Energy Agreement $ 31,672 $ 31,672 162431
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 133,322,715 $ 133,767,715 162432

State Special Revenue Fund Group162433

4V30 763662 Storms/NOAA Maintenance $ 4,950,000 $ 4,950,000 162434
5390 762614 Motor Vehicle Dealers Board $ 150,000 $ 140,000 162435
5B90 766632 Private Investigator and Security Guard Provider $ 1,400,000 $ 1,400,000 162436
5BK0 768687 Criminal Justice Services - Operating $ 400,000 $ 400,000 162437
5BK0 768689 Family Violence Shelter Programs $ 750,000 $ 750,000 162438
5CM0 767691 Equitable Share Account $ 300,000 $ 300,000 162439
5DS0 769630 Homeland Security $ 1,414,384 $ 1,414,384 162440
5FF0 762621 Indigent Interlock and Alcohol Monitoring $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 162441
5FL0 769634 Investigations $ 899,300 $ 899,300 162442
5ML0 769635 Infrastructure Protection $ 400,000 $ 400,000 162443
5BP0 764609 DPS Wireless 911 Administration $ 290,000 $ 290,000 162444
6220 767615 Investigative Contraband and Forfeiture $ 325,000 $ 325,000 162445
6570 763652 Utility Radiological Safety $ 1,415,945 $ 1,415,945 162446
6810 763653 SARA Title III HAZMAT Planning $ 262,438 $ 262,438 162447
8500 767628 Investigative Unit Salvage $ 92,700 $ 92,700 162448
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 15,049,767 14,759,767 $ 15,039,767 14,749,767 162449

Agency Fund Group162450

5J90 761678 Federal Salvage/GSA $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 162451
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 162452

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group162453

R024 762619 Unidentified Motor Vehicle Receipts $ 1,885,000 $ 1,885,000 162454
R052 762623 Security Deposits $ 350,000 $ 350,000 162455
TOTAL 090 Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group $ 2,235,000 $ 2,235,000 162456
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 673,558,888 672,928,842 $ 675,952,792 674,811,846 162457

       MOTOR VEHICLE REGISTRATION162458

       The Registrar of Motor Vehicles may deposit revenues to meet 162459
the cash needs of the State Bureau of Motor Vehicles Fund (Fund 162460
4W40) established in section 4501.25 of the Revised Code, obtained 162461
under sections 4503.02 and 4504.02 of the Revised Code, less all 162462
other available cash. Revenue deposited pursuant to this paragraph 162463
shall support, in part, appropriations for operating expenses and 162464
defray the cost of manufacturing and distributing license plates 162465
and license plate stickers and enforcing the law relative to the 162466
operation and registration of motor vehicles. Notwithstanding 162467
section 4501.03 of the Revised Code, the revenues shall be paid 162468
into Fund 4W40 before any revenues obtained pursuant to sections 162469
4503.02 and 4504.02 of the Revised Code are paid into any other 162470
fund. The deposit of revenues to meet the aforementioned cash 162471
needs shall be in approximately equal amounts on a monthly basis 162472
or as otherwise determined by the Director of Budget and 162473
Management pursuant to a plan submitted by the Registrar of Motor 162474
Vehicles.162475

       OPERATING EXPENSE – BMV162476

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 762321, Operating Expense 162477
– BMV, up to $50,000 in fiscal year 2014 shall be used to pay for 162478
costs associated with improvements to the program to accept 162479
applications for registration transactions of apportionable 162480
vehicles electronically over the internet.162481

       OPERATING EXPENSE - INFORMATION AND EDUCATION162482

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 761321, Operating Expense 162483
– Information and Education, up to $250,000 in each fiscal year 162484
may be used to fund state employees to staff travel information 162485
centers on the border of the state.162486

       The Department of Public Safety shall conduct a study for 162487
partnering with local travel and tourism centers, as well as a 162488
study for the creation of the Ohio Ambassadors Volunteer Program 162489
at rest stops.162490

       LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS162491

       The foregoing appropriation item 761401, Lease Rental 162492
Payments, shall be used for payments to the Treasurer of State for 162493
the period July 1, 2013, through June 30, 2015, under the primary 162494
leases and agreements for public safety related buildings. The 162495
appropriations are the source of funds pledged for bond service 162496
charges on obligations pursuant to Chapters 152. and 154. of the 162497
Revised Code.162498

       OPERATING EXPENSE - HIGHWAY PATROL162499

        On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 162500
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer $510,900 cash 162501
from the GRF to the State Highway Safety Fund (Fund 7036). The 162502
transferred cash shall be used by the State Highway Patrol for the 162503
purchase of specialized equipment for examining commercial truck 162504
cargo. 162505

       CASH TRANSFERS BETWEEN FUNDS162506

        Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the 162507
Director of Budget and Management, upon the written request of the 162508
Director of Public Safety, may transfer cash between the following 162509
six funds: the Trauma and Emergency Medical Services Fund (Fund 162510
83M0), the Homeland Security Fund (Fund 5DS0), the Investigations 162511
Fund (Fund 5FL0), the Emergency Management Agency Service and 162512
Reimbursement Fund (Fund 4V30), the Justice Program Services Fund 162513
(Fund 4P60), and the State Bureau of Motor Vehicles Fund (Fund 162514
4W40).162515

       CASH TRANSFER FROM TEEN DRIVER EDUCATION FUND TO LICENSE 162516
PLATE CONTRIBUTION FUND162517

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 162518
Director of Budget and Management may transfer the cash balance in 162519
the Teen Driver Education Fund (Fund 5JS0) to the License Plate 162520
Contribution Fund (Fund 5V10). Upon completion of the transfer, 162521
Fund 5JS0 is hereby abolished.162522

       CASH TRANSFER FROM HILLTOP UTILITY REIMBURSEMENT FUND TO 162523
STATE HIGHWAY SAFETY FUND162524

       Not later than January 1, 2014, the Director of Budget and 162525
Management may transfer the cash balance in the Hilltop Utility 162526
Reimbursement Fund (Fund 4S30) to the State Highway Safety Fund 162527
(Fund 7036). Upon completion of the transfer, Fund 4S30 is hereby 162528
abolished. The Director shall cancel any existing encumbrances 162529
against appropriation item 766661, Hilltop Utility Reimbursement, 162530
and reestablish them against appropriation item 761321, Operating 162531
Expense – Information and Education. The reestablished encumbrance 162532
amounts are hereby appropriated.162533

       CASH TRANSFER FROM REGISTRAR RENTAL FUND TO STATE HIGHWAY 162534
SAFETY FUND162535

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 162536
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 162537
in the Registrar Rental Fund (Fund 8380) to the State Bureau of 162538
Motor Vehicles Fund (Fund 4W40). Upon completion of the transfer, 162539
Fund 8380 is abolished.162540

       STATE DISASTER RELIEF162541

       The State Disaster Relief Fund (Fund 5330) may accept 162542
transfers of cash and appropriations from Controlling Board 162543
appropriation items for Ohio Emergency Management Agency disaster 162544
response costs and disaster program management costs, and may also 162545
be used for the following purposes:162546

       (A) To accept transfers of cash and appropriations from 162547
Controlling Board appropriation items for Ohio Emergency 162548
Management Agency public assistance and mitigation program match 162549
costs to reimburse eligible local governments and private 162550
nonprofit organizations for costs related to disasters;162551

       (B) To accept and transfer cash to reimburse the costs 162552
associated with Emergency Management Assistance Compact (EMAC) 162553
deployments;162554

       (C) To accept disaster related reimbursement from federal, 162555
state, and local governments. The Director of Budget and 162556
Management may transfer cash from reimbursements received by this 162557
fund to other funds of the state from which transfers were 162558
originally approved by the Controlling Board.162559

       (D) To accept transfers of cash and appropriations from 162560
Controlling Board appropriation items to fund the State Disaster 162561
Relief Program, for disasters that qualify for the program by 162562
written authorization of the Governor, and the State Individual 162563
Assistance Program for disasters that have been declared by the 162564
federal Small Business Administration and that qualify for the 162565
program by written authorization of the Governor. The Ohio 162566
Emergency Management Agency shall publish and make available 162567
application packets outlining procedures for the State Disaster 162568
Relief Program and the State Individual Assistance Program.162569

       JUSTICE ASSISTANCE GRANT FUND162570

       The federal payments made to the state for the Byrne Justice 162571
Assistance Grants Program under Title II of Division A of the 162572
American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009 shall be deposited 162573
to the credit of the Justice Assistance Grant Fund (Fund 3DE0), 162574
which is hereby created in the state treasury. All investment 162575
earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund.162576

        TRANSFER FROM STATE FIRE MARSHAL FUND TO EMERGENCY MANAGEMENT 162577
AGENCY SERVICE AND REIMBURSEMENT FUND162578

        On July 1 of each fiscal year, or as soon as possible 162579
thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer 162580
$200,000 cash from the State Fire Marshal Fund (Fund 5460) to the 162581
Emergency Management Agency Service and Reimbursement Fund (Fund 162582
4V30) to be distributed to the Ohio Task Force One – Urban Search 162583
and Rescue Unit, other similar urban search and rescue units 162584
around the state, and for the maintenance of the statewide fire 162585
emergency response plan by an entity recognized by the Ohio 162586
Emergency Management Agency.162587

       FAMILY VIOLENCE PREVENTION FUND162588

        Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, in each 162589
of fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the first $750,000 received to the 162590
credit of the Family Violence Prevention Fund (Fund 5BK0) is 162591
appropriated to appropriation item 768689, Family Violence Shelter 162592
Programs, and the next $400,000 received to the credit of Fund 162593
5BK0 in each of those fiscal years is appropriated to 162594
appropriation item 768687, Criminal Justice Services - Operating. 162595
Any moneys received to the credit of Fund 5BK0 in excess of the 162596
aforementioned appropriated amounts in each fiscal year shall, 162597
upon the approval of the Controlling Board, be used to provide 162598
grants to family violence shelters in Ohio.162599

       SARA TITLE III HAZMAT PLANNING162600

       The SARA Title III HAZMAT Planning Fund (Fund 6810) is 162601
entitled to receive grant funds from the Emergency Response 162602
Commission to implement the Emergency Management Agency's 162603
responsibilities under Chapter 3750. of the Revised Code.162604

       COLLECTIVE BARGAINING INCREASES162605

       Notwithstanding division (D) of section 127.14 and division 162606
(B) of section 131.35 of the Revised Code, except for the General 162607
Revenue Fund, the Controlling Board may, upon the request of 162608
either the Director of Budget and Management, or the Department of 162609
Public Safety with the approval of the Director of Budget and 162610
Management, authorize expenditures in excess of appropriations and 162611
transfer appropriations, as necessary, for any fund used by the 162612
Department of Public Safety, to assist in paying the costs of 162613
increases in employee compensation that have occurred pursuant to 162614
collective bargaining agreements under Chapter 4117. of the 162615
Revised Code and, for exempt employees, under section 124.152 of 162616
the Revised Code. Any money approved for expenditure under this 162617
paragraph is hereby appropriated.162618

       CASH BALANCE FUND REVIEW162619

       Not later than the first day of April in each fiscal year of 162620
the biennium, the Director of Budget and Management shall review 162621
the cash balances for each fund, except the State Highway Safety 162622
Fund (Fund 7036) and the State Bureau of Motor Vehicles Fund (Fund 162623
4W40), in the State Highway Safety Fund Group, and shall recommend 162624
to the Controlling Board an amount to be transferred to the credit 162625
of Fund 7036 or Fund 4W40, as appropriate.162626

       AUTO REGISTRATION DISTRIBUTION FUND162627

       Notwithstanding the amendment by this act to section 4501.03 162628
of the Revised Code and the enactment by this act of section 162629
4501.031 of the Revised Code, any license tax assessed under 162630
Chapters 4503. or 4504. of the Revised Code, and derived from 162631
registrations processed on business days prior to July 1, 2013, 162632
shall be deposited to the state treasury to the credit of the Auto 162633
Registration Distribution Fund (Fund 7051) created by section 162634
4501.03 of the Revised Code, even if such deposit does not occur 162635
until on or after July 1, 2013. All license tax assessed on 162636
registrations under Chapters 4503. or 4504. of the Revised Code 162637
prior to July 1, 2013, shall be deposited, and distributed, in 162638
accordance with sections 4501.03, 4501.04, 4501.041, 4501.042, and 162639
4501.043 of the Revised Code as they existed prior to the 162640
amendments to those sections by this act.162641

       Sec. 506.10. Notwithstanding division (A)(3) of section 162642
4501.044 and division (A)(1) of section 4501.045 of the Revised 162643
Code, commencing July 1, 2013, and extending through June 30, 162644
2014, the Director of Public Safety shall deposit the money 162645
otherwise deposited and distributed in accordance with those 162646
divisions into the State Highway Safety Fund (Fund 7036) created 162647
by section 4501.06 of the Revised Code until such time as the 162648
deposits equal a cumulative total of $35,000,000$29,000,000. At 162649
that point, the Director shall cease depositing any such money 162650
into Fund 7036 and shall deposit and distribute that money as 162651
prescribed in division (A)(3) of section 4501.044 and division 162652
(A)(1) of section 4501.045 of the Revised Code.162653

       Notwithstanding division (A)(3) of section 4501.044 and 162654
division (A)(1) of section 4501.045 of the Revised Code, 162655
commencing July 1, 2014, and extending through June 30, 2015, the 162656
Director of Public Safety shall deposit the money otherwise 162657
deposited and distributed in accordance with those divisions into 162658
the State Highway Safety Fund (Fund 7036) created by section 162659
4501.06 of the Revised Code until such time as the deposits equal 162660
a cumulative total of $35,000,000. At that point, the Director 162661
shall cease depositing any such money into Fund 7036 and shall 162662
deposit and distribute that money as prescribed in division (A)(3) 162663
of section 4501.044 and division (A)(1) of section 4501.045 of the 162664
Revised Code.162665

       Sec. 755.30. On July 1Beginning on July 31, 2013, and on 162666
the firstlast day of the month for each month thereafter, the 162667
Treasurer of State, before making any of the distributions 162668
specified in sections 5735.23, 5735.26, 5735.291, and 5735.30 of 162669
the Revised Code but after any transfers to the tax refund fund as 162670
required by those sections and section 5703.052 of the Revised 162671
Code, the Treasurer of State shall deposit the first two per cent 162672
of the amount of motor fuel tax received for the preceding 162673
calendar month to the credit of the Highway Operating Fund (Fund 162674
7002).162675

       Section 605.11. That existing Sections 205.10, 506.10, and 162676
755.30 of Am. Sub. H.B. 51 of the 130th General Assembly are 162677
hereby repealed.162678

       Section 605.20. That Section 753.30 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of 162679
the 129th General Assembly be amended to read as follows:162680

       Sec. 753.30. (A) The Governor is authorized to execute a deed 162681
in the name of the state conveying to a buyer or buyers to be 162682
determined in the manner provided in division (B) of this section 162683
all of the state's right, title, and interest in the real property 162684
of any facility under the management and control of the Department 162685
of Youth Services following the closure of that facility that the 162686
Director of Administrative Services determines is no longer 162687
required for state purposes. This section applies only to 162688
facilities that are closed before January 1, 2012.162689

       (B)(1) The Director of Administrative Services shall offer 162690
the real estate, improvements and chattels of a facility sold 162691
pursuant to division (A) of this section for sale "as is" in its 162692
present condition according to the following process:162693

       The real estate of the facility shall be sold as an entire 162694
parcel and not subdivided.162695

       The Director of Administrative Services shall conduct a 162696
sealed bid sale and the real property of the facility shall be 162697
sold to the highest bidder at a price acceptable to both the 162698
Director of Administrative Services and the Director of Youth 162699
Services.162700

       (2) The contract for sale of a facility pursuant to this 162701
section shall include a condition that requires the purchaser to 162702
provide preferential hiring treatment to employees or former 162703
employees of the Department of Youth Services in order to retain 162704
or rehire staff displaced as a result of the closure of the 162705
facility located on the property, to the extent the purchaser's 162706
use of the facility requires employees in the same or similar 162707
positions as those displaced as a result of the closure.162708

       The contract for sale also shall include a binding commitment 162709
that irrevocably grants to the state a right, upon the occurrence 162710
of any triggering event described in division (B)(2)(a) or (b) of 162711
this section and in accordance with the particular division, to 162712
repurchase the facility and the real property on which it is 162713
situated, any surrounding land that is to be transferred under the 162714
contract, or both the facility and real property on which it is 162715
situated plus the surrounding land that is to be transferred under 162716
the contract. The triggering events and the procedures for a 162717
repurchase under the irrevocable grant described in this division 162718
are as follows:162719

        (a) Before the purchaser, or the purchaser's successor in 162720
title, may resell or otherwise transfer the facility and the real 162721
property on which it is situated, any surrounding land that is to 162722
be transferred under the contract, or both the facility and real 162723
property on which it is situated plus the surrounding land that is 162724
to be transferred under the contract, the purchaser or successor 162725
first must offer the state the opportunity to repurchase the 162726
facility, real property, and surrounding land that is to be resold 162727
or transferred for a price not greater than the purchase price 162728
paid to the state for that facility, real property, or surrounding 162729
land, less depreciation from the time of the conveyance of that 162730
facility, real property, or surrounding land to the purchaser, 162731
plus the depreciated value of any capital improvements to that 162732
facility, real property, or surrounding land that were made to it 162733
and funded by anyone other than the state subsequent to the 162734
conveyance to the purchaser. The repurchase opportunity described 162735
in this division must be offered to the state at least one hundred 162736
twenty days before the purchaser intends to resell or otherwise 162737
transfer the facility, real property, or surrounding land that is 162738
to be resold or transferred. After being offered the repurchase 162739
opportunity, the state has the right to repurchase the facility, 162740
real property, and surrounding land that is to be resold or 162741
otherwise transferred for the price described in this division.162742

       (b) Upon the purchaser's default of any financial agreement 162743
for the purchase of the facility and the real property on which it 162744
is situated, any surrounding land that is to be transferred under 162745
the contract, or both the facility and real property on which it 162746
is situated plus the surrounding land that is to be transferred 162747
under the contract, upon the purchaser's default of any other term 162748
in the contract, or upon the purchaser's financial insolvency or 162749
inability to meet its contractual obligations, the state has the 162750
right to repurchase the facility and real property, the 162751
surrounding land, or both the facility and real property and the 162752
surrounding land, for a price not greater than the purchase price 162753
paid to the state for that facility, real property, or surrounding 162754
land, less depreciation from the time of the conveyance of that 162755
facility, real property, or surrounding land to the purchaser, 162756
plus the depreciated value of any capital improvements to that 162757
facility, real property, or surrounding land that were made to it 162758
and funded by anyone other than the state subsequent to the 162759
conveyance to the purchaser.162760

       (3) The Director of Administrative Services shall advertise 162761
the sealed bid sale in a newspaper of general circulation within 162762
Scioto County once a week for three consecutive weeks prior to the 162763
date of the sealed bid sale. The Director of Administrative 162764
Services may reject any and all bids from the sealed bid sale. The 162765
terms of sale shall be ten per cent of the purchase price in cash, 162766
bank draft, or certified check payable within five business days 162767
following written notification of the acceptance of the bid by the 162768
Director of Administrative Services, with the balance payable 162769
within sixty days after the date of the written notification of 162770
the acceptance of the bid by the Director of Administrative 162771
Services. A purchaser who does not complete the conditions of the 162772
sale as prescribed in this division shall forfeit the ten per cent 162773
of the purchase price paid to the state as liquidated damages. 162774
Should a purchaser not complete the conditions of sale as 162775
described in this division, the Director of Administrative 162776
Services is authorized to accept the next highest bid by 162777
collecting ten per cent of the revised purchase price from that 162778
bidder and to proceed to close the sale, provided that the 162779
secondary bid meets all other criteria provided for in this 162780
section. If the Director of Administrative Services rejects all 162781
bids from the sealed bid sale, the Director may repeat the sealed 162782
bid process described in this section or may use an alternate sale 162783
process acceptable to the Director of Youth Services.162784

       Advertising costs and any other costs incident to the sale of 162785
a facility pursuant to this section shall be paid by the 162786
Department of Youth Services.162787

       Upon notice from the Director of Administrative Services, the 162788
Auditor of State, with the assistance of the Attorney General, 162789
shall prepare a deed to the facility to the purchaser identified 162790
by the Director of Administrative Services. The deed shall be 162791
executed by the Governor, countersigned by the Secretary of State, 162792
presented in the Office of the Auditor of State for recording, and 162793
delivered to the grantee at closing and upon the grantee's payment 162794
of the balance of the purchase price. The grantee shall present 162795
the deed for recording in the office of the recorder of the county 162796
in which the facility is located.162797

       The grantee shall pay all costs associated with the purchase 162798
and conveyance of the facility, including the costs of recording 162799
the deed.162800

       The net proceeds of the conveyance of the facility shall be 162801
deposited into the State Treasury to the credit of the Adult and 162802
Juvenile Correctional Facilities Bond Retirement Fund and shall be 162803
used to offset bond indebtedness on state bonds issued for the 162804
facility that has been sold. The Director of Budget and Management 162805
may direct that any moneys remaining in the fund after the 162806
redemption or defeasance of the bonds issued for that facility be 162807
transferred to the General Revenue Fund.162808

       (C) This section expires two years after its effective date 162809
or on November 1, 2015, whichever is later.162810

       Section 605.21. That existing Section 753.30 of Am. Sub. H.B. 162811
153 of the 129th General Assembly is hereby repealed.162812

       Section 605.23. That Section 4 of Am. Sub. H.B. 279 of the 162813
129th General Assembly be amended to read as follows:162814

       Sec. 4.  Notwithstanding any provision of the Revised Code to 162815
the contrary, individuals that provide services to a child under 162816
the autism scholarship program shall not be required to comply 162817
with the requirements of section 3310.43 of the Revised Code as 162818
enacted by this act until twelve months after the effective date 162819
of this sectionDecember 20, 2014.162820

       Section 605.24. That existing Section 4 of Am. Sub. H.B. 279 162821
of the 129th General Assembly is hereby repealed.162822

       Section 605.30. That Section 11 of Sub. H.B. 303 of the 129th 162823
General Assembly be amended to read as follows:162824

       Sec. 11. (A) As used in this section, "intermediate care 162825
facility for individuals with intellectual disabilities" and 162826
"ICF/IID" mean an intermediate care facility for the mentally 162827
retarded as defined in the "Social Security Act," section 1905(d), 162828
42 U.S.C. 1396d(d).162829

       (B) The Department of Developmental Disabilities may conduct 162830
or contract with another entity to conduct, for the first quarter 162831
of calendar year 2013, assessments of all residents of each 162832
ICF/IID, regardless of payment source, who are in the ICF/IID, or 162833
on hospital or therapeutic leave from the ICF/IID, on the day or 162834
days that the assessments are conducted at the ICF/IID.162835

       (C) If assessments are conducted under division (B) of this 162836
section, the Department shall do all of the following:162837

       (1) In conducting the assessments, provide for both of the 162838
following:162839

       (a) The resident assessment instrument prescribed in rules 162840
authorized by division (B) of section 5111.2325124.191 of the 162841
Revised Code to be used in accordance with an inter-rater reliable 162842
process;162843

       (b) The assessments to be performed by individuals who meet 162844
the requirements to be qualified intellectual disability 162845
professionals, as specified in 42 C.F.R. 483.430(a).162846

       (2) Use the data obtained from the assessments to determine 162847
each ICF/IID's case-mix score for the first quarter of calendar 162848
year 2013;162849

       (3) For the purpose of determining each ICF/IID's fiscal year 162850
2014 Medicaid rates for direct care costs and subjectSubject to 162851
divisions (C)(8)(7), (D), and (E)(F) of this section, do both of 162852
the followingdetermine the fiscal year 2014 Medicaid payment rate 162853
for the direct care costs of each ICF/IID as follows:162854

       (a) Determine the average of the following:162855

       (i) The ICF/IID's case-mix score determined or assigned under 162856
section 5124.192 of the Revised Code for the last quarter of 162857
calendar year 2012;162858

       (ii) The ICF/IID's case-mix score determined under section 162859
5124.192 of the Revised Code for the first quarter of calendar 162860
year 2013;162861

       (iii) The ICF/IID's case-mix score determined under division 162862
(C)(2) of this section for the first quarter of calendar year 162863
2013.162864

       (b) In determining costs per case-mix units and maximum costs 162865
per case-mix units for the purpose of divisiondivisions (B) and 162866
(C) of section 5111.235124.19 of the Revised Code, use each 162867
ICF/IID's case-mix scorethe average determined under division 162868
(C)(2)(3)(a) of this section in place of the ICF/IID's average 162869
case-mix score for calendar year 2012;162870

       (b) Instead of determining quarterly Medicaid rates for the 162871
direct care costs of each ICF/IID pursuant to division (D) of 162872
section 5111.23 of the Revised Code, determine, as follows, one 162873
Medicaid rate for the direct care costs of each ICF/IID to be paid 162874
for all of fiscal year 2014:162875

       (i)(c) Multiply the ICF/IID's case-mix scoreaverage162876
determined under division (C)(2)(3)(a) of this section by the 162877
lesser of the cost per case-mix unit determined for the ICF/IID 162878
pursuant to division (C)(3)(a)(b) of this section or the maximum 162879
cost per case-mix unit determined for the ICF/IID's peer group 162880
pursuant to division (C)(3)(a)(b) of this section;162881

       (ii)(d) Adjust the product determined under division 162882
(C)(3)(b)(i)(c) of this section by the inflation rate estimated in 162883
accordance with division (B)(3)(D) of section 5111.235124.19 of 162884
the Revised Code.162885

       (4) For the purpose of determining each ICF/IID's fiscal year 162886
2015 Medicaid rates for direct care costs and subject to division 162887
(C)(8)(7) of this section, use the following when determining, 162888
pursuant to the second paragraph of division (C) of section 162889
5111.232 of the Revised Code, each ICF/IID's annual average162890
case-mix score determined under division (C)(2) of this section162891
for the first quarter of calendar year 2013:162892

       (a) For the first quarter of calendar year 2013, the 162893
ICF/IID's case-mix score determined under division (C)(2) of this 162894
section;162895

       (b) For the last three quarters of calendar year 2013 and 162896
except as provided in division (D) of section 5111.232 of the 162897
Revised Code, the ICF/IID's case-mix scores determined by using 162898
the data the ICF/IID provider compiles in accordance with the 162899
first paragraph of division (C) of section 5111.232 of the Revised 162900
Code.if the ICF/IID provider does not submit resident assessment 162901
data for that quarter pursuant to section 5124.191 of the Revised 162902
Code;162903

       (5) Notify each ICF/IID provider that the provider is 162904
permitted but not required to compile assessment data for the 162905
first quarter of calendar year 2013 pursuant to the first 162906
paragraph of division (C) of section 5111.232 of the Revised Code;162907

       (6) After the assessments of all of an ICF/IID's residents 162908
are completed but not later than April 30, 2013, provide, or have 162909
the entity (if any) with which the Department contracts pursuant 162910
to division (B) of this section provide, the results of the 162911
assessments to the ICF/IID provider;162912

       (7)(6) Conduct, in accordance with division (C)(8)(7) of this 162913
section, a reconsideration for any ICF/IID provider who does both 162914
of the following:162915

       (a) Submits a written request for the reconsideration to the 162916
Department not later than fifteen days after the provider receives 162917
the assessments' results pursuant to division (C)(6)(5) of this 162918
section;162919

       (b) Includes in the request all of the following:162920

       (i) A detailed explanation of the items in the assessments' 162921
results that the provider disputes;162922

       (ii) Copies of relevant supporting documentation from 162923
specific resident records;162924

       (iii) The provider's proposed resolution of the disputes.162925

       (8)(7) When conducting a reconsideration required by division 162926
(C)(7)(6) of this section, do both of the following:162927

       (a) Consider all of the following:162928

       (i) The historic results of the resident assessments 162929
performed pursuant to section 5124.191 of the Revised Code 162930
(formerly the first paragraph of division (C) of section 5111.232162931
5124.19 of the Revised Code as that section existed on the day 162932
immediately before the effective date of the amendments to that 162933
section by Sub. H.B. 59 of the 130th general assembly) by the 162934
ICF/IID provider who requested the reconsideration;162935

       (ii) All of the materials the provider includes in the 162936
reconsideration request;162937

       (iii) All other matters the Department determines necessary 162938
for consideration.162939

       (b) Issue a written decision regarding the reconsideration 162940
not later than the sooner of the following:162941

       (i) Thirty days after the Department receives the 162942
reconsideration request;162943

       (ii) June 1, 2013.162944

       (D) If an ICF/IID provider does not submit resident 162945
assessment data to the department pursuant to section 5124.191 of 162946
the Revised Code for the first quarter of calendar year 2013, the 162947
Department shall use the case-mix scores specified in divisions 162948
(C)(3)(a)(i) and (iii) of this section when determining the 162949
average under division (C)(3)(a) of this section.162950

       (E) The Department's decision regarding a reconsideration 162951
required by division (C)(7)(6) of this section is final and not 162952
subject to further appeal.162953

       (E)(F) Regardless of what an ICF/IID's case-mix score is 162954
determined to be under division (C)(2) of this section or pursuant 162955
to a reconsideration required by division (C)(7)(6) of this 162956
section, no such case-mix score shall cause an ICF/IID's fiscal 162957
year 2014 Medicaid payment rate for direct care costs to be less 162958
than ninety per cent of its June 30, 2013, Medicaid rate for 162959
direct care costs.162960

       (F)(G) No ICF/IID provider shall be treated as having failed, 162961
for the first quarter of calendar year 2013, to timely submit data 162962
necessary to determine the ICF/IID's case-mix score for that 162963
quarter if the assessment is to be conducted under division (B) of 162964
this section.162965

       (G)(H) The Department may provide for assessments to be 162966
conducted under division (B) of this section and, if it so 162967
provides, shall comply with the other divisions of this section 162968
notwithstanding anything to the contrary in sections 5111.20162969
5124.01, 5111.235124.19, 5124.191, and 5111.2325124.192 of the 162970
Revised Code.162971

       Section 605.31. That existing Section 11 of Sub. H.B. 303 of 162972
the 129th General Assembly is hereby repealed.162973

       Section 605.40. That Section 4 of Am. Sub. H.B. 472 of the 162974
129th General Assembly be amended to read as follows:162975

       Sec. 4. That sections 5507.40 andsection 5507.53 of the 162976
Revised Code areis hereby repealed.162977

       Section 605.41. That existing Section 4 of Am. Sub. H.B. 472 162978
of the 129th General Assembly is hereby repealed.162979

       Section 610.10.  That Sections 201.80, 205.83, and 509.40 of 162980
Sub. H.B. 482 of the 129th General Assembly be amended to read as 162981
follows:162982

       Sec. 201.80. All items set forth in this section are hereby 162983
appropriated out of any moneys in the state treasury to the credit 162984
of the School Building Program Assistance Fund (Fund 7032), that 162985
are not otherwise appropriated.162986

Appropriations

SFC SCHOOL FACILITIES COMMISSION
162987

C23002 School Building Program Assistance $ 425,000,000 413,000,000 162988
C23020 School Security Grant Program $ 12,000,000 162989
Total School Facilities Commission $ 425,000,000 162990
TOTAL School Building Program Assistance Fund $ 425,000,000 162991

       SCHOOL BUILDING PROGRAM ASSISTANCE162992

       The foregoing appropriation item C23002, School Building 162993
Program Assistance, shall be used by the School Facilities 162994
Commission to provide funding to school districts that receive 162995
conditional approval from the Commission pursuant to Chapter 3318. 162996
of the Revised Code.162997

       SCHOOL SECURITY GRANT PROGRAM162998

       The foregoing appropriation item C23020, School Security 162999
Grant Program, shall be used by the School Facilities Commission 163000
to provide funding to all public schools for the purchase and 163001
installation of one Multi-Agency Radio Communications System unit 163002
per school building and one school entrance security system, per 163003
school building. The school entrance security system may include 163004
improvements to access control, intrusion detection, or video 163005
surveillance. A school may apply to the School Facilities 163006
Commission for reimbursement up to $2,000 for one Multi-Agency 163007
Radio Communications System Unit per school building and up to 163008
$5,000 for costs incurred with the purchase of a school entrance 163009
security system installed on or after January 1, 2013.163010

       Sec. 205.83. The Ohio Public Facilities Commission is hereby 163011
authorized to issue and sell, in accordance with Section 2o and 2q 163012
of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, and pursuant to sections 163013
151.01 and 151.09 of the Revised Code, original obligations of the 163014
state in an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $6,000,000163015
12,500,000 in addition to the original issuance of obligations 163016
heretofore authorized by prior acts of the General Assembly. These 163017
authorized obligations shall be issued and sold from time to time, 163018
subject to applicable constitutional and statutory limitations, as 163019
needed to ensure sufficient moneys to the credit of the Clean Ohio 163020
Trail Fund (Fund 7061) to pay costs of conservation projects.163021

       Sec. 509.40. AGENCY ADMINISTRATION OF CAPITAL FACILITIES 163022
PROJECTS163023

        Notwithstanding sections 123.01 and 123.15section 123.21 of 163024
the Revised Code, the Executive Director of Administrative 163025
Servicesthe Ohio Facilities Construction Commission may authorize 163026
the Departments of Mental Health, Developmental Disabilities, 163027
Agriculture, Job and Family Services, Rehabilitation and 163028
Correction, Youth Services, Public Safety, Transportation, and163029
Veterans Services, and the Bureau of Workers' Compensation to 163030
administer any capital facilities projects, the estimated cost of 163031
which, including design fees, construction, equipment, and 163032
contingency amounts, is less than $1,500,000. Requests for 163033
authorization to administer capital facilities projects shall be 163034
made in writing to the Director of Administrative Servicesthrough 163035
the OAKS-CI application by the applicable state agency within 163036
sixty days after the effective date of the section of law in which 163037
the General Assembly initially makes an appropriation for the 163038
project. Upon the release of funds for the projects by the 163039
Controlling Board or the Director of Budget and Management, the 163040
agency may administer the capital project or projects for which 163041
agency administration has been authorized without the supervision, 163042
control, or approval of the Executive Director of Administrative 163043
Servicesthe Ohio Facilities Construction Commission.163044

        A state agency authorized by the Executive Director of 163045
Administrative Servicesthe Ohio Facilities Construction 163046
Commission to administer capital facilities projects pursuant to 163047
this section shall comply with the applicable procedures and 163048
guidelines established in Chapter 153. of the Revised Code and 163049
shall track all project information in OAKS-CI pursuant to Ohio 163050
Facilities Construction Commission guidelines.163051

       Section 610.11.  That existing Sections 201.80, 205.83, and 163052
509.40 of Sub. H.B. 482 of the 129th General Assembly are hereby 163053
repealed.163054

       Section 610.14. That Sections 301.11, 301.12, and 301.13 of 163055
Am. Sub. H.B. 487 of the 129th General Assembly be amended to read 163056
as follows:163057

       Sec. 301.11.  The items set forth in this section are hereby 163058
appropriated out of any moneys in the state treasury to the credit 163059
of the Clean Ohio Conservation Fund (Fund 7056) that are not 163060
otherwise appropriated.163061

Appropriations

PWC PUBLIC WORKS COMMISSION
163062

C15060 Clean Ohio Conservation $ 36,000,000 75,000,000 163063
Total Public Works Commission $ 36,000,000 75,000,000 163064
TOTAL Clean Ohio Conservation Fund $ 36,000,000 75,000,000 163065

        The foregoing appropriation item C15060, Clean Ohio 163066
Conservation, shall be used in accordance with sections 164.20 to 163067
164.27 of the Revised Code. If the Public Works Commission 163068
receives refunds due to project overpayments that are discovered 163069
during the post-project audit, the Director of the Public Works 163070
Commission may certify to the Director of Budget and Management 163071
that refunds have been received. If the Director of Budget and 163072
Management determines that the project refunds are available to 163073
support additional appropriations, such amounts are hereby 163074
appropriated.163075

       Sec. 301.12. The items set forth in this section are hereby 163076
appropriated out of any moneys in the state treasury to the credit 163077
of the Clean Ohio Agricultural Easement Fund (Fund 7057) that are 163078
not otherwise appropriated.163079

Appropriations

AGR DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE
163080

C70009 Clean Ohio Agricultural Easements $ 6,000,000 12,500,000 163081
Total Department of Agriculture $ 6,000,000 12,500,000 163082
TOTAL Clean Ohio Agricultural Easement Fund $ 6,000,000 12,500,000 163083


       Sec. 301.13. (A) The Ohio Public Facilities Commission is 163085
hereby authorized to issue and sell, in accordance with Section 2o 163086
and 2q of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, and pursuant to 163087
sections 151.01 and 151.09 of the Revised Code, original 163088
obligations of the state in an aggregate principal amount not to 163089
exceed $36,000,00075,000,000 in addition to the original issuance 163090
of obligations heretofore authorized by prior acts of the General 163091
Assembly. These authorized obligations shall be issued and sold 163092
from time to time, subject to applicable constitutional and 163093
statutory limitations, as needed to ensure sufficient moneys to 163094
the credit of the Clean Ohio Conservation Fund (Fund 7056) to pay 163095
costs of conservation projects.163096

       (B) The Ohio Public Facilities Commission is hereby 163097
authorized to issue and sell, in accordance with Section 2o and 2q 163098
of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, and pursuant to sections 163099
151.01 and 151.09 of the Revised Code, original obligations of the 163100
state in an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $6,000,000163101
12,500,000 in addition to the original issuance of obligations 163102
heretofore authorized by prior acts of the General Assembly. These 163103
authorized obligations shall be issued and sold from time to time, 163104
subject to applicable constitutional and statutory limitations, as 163105
needed to ensure sufficient moneys to the credit of the Clean Ohio 163106
Agricultural Easement Fund (Fund 7057) to pay costs of 163107
conservation projects.163108

       Section 610.15. That existing Sections 301.11, 301.12, and 163109
301.13 of Am. Sub. H.B. 487 of the 129th General Assembly are 163110
hereby repealed.163111

       Section 610.16. That Section 205.80 of Sub. H.B. 482 of the 163112
129th General Assembly, as amended by Am. Sub. H.B. 487 of the 163113
129th General Assembly, be amended to read as follows:163114

       Sec. 205.80. The items set forth in this section are hereby 163115
appropriated out of any moneys in the state treasury to the credit 163116
of the Clean Ohio Trail Fund (Fund 7061) that are not otherwise 163117
appropriated.163118

DNR DEPARTMENT OF NATURAL RESOURCES
163119

Appropriations

C72514 Clean Ohio Local Grants $ 6,000,000 12,500,000 163120
Total Department of Natural Resources $ 6,000,000 12,500,000 163121
TOTAL Clean Ohio Trail Fund $ 6,000,000 12,500,000 163122


       Section 610.17. That existing Section 205.80 of Sub. H.B. 482 163124
of the 129th General Assembly, as amended by Am. Sub. H.B. 487 of 163125
the 129th General Assembly, is hereby repealed.163126

       Section 610.20. That Section 4 of Sub. S.B. 171 of the 129th 163127
General Assembly, as amended by Am. Sub. H.B. 487 of the 129th 163128
General Assembly, be amended to read as follows:163129

       Sec. 4. The following agencies are retained under division 163130
(D) of section 101.83 of the Revised Code and expire on December 163131
31, 2016:163132

AGENCY NAME REVISED CODE OR UNCODIFIED SECTION 163133
Academic Distress Commission 3302.10 163134
Advisory Board of Governor's Office of Faith-Based and Community Initiatives 107.12 163135
Advisory Board to Assist and Advise in the Operation of the Ohio Center for Autism and Low Incidence 3323.33, 3323.34 163136
Advisory Council on Amusement Ride Safety 1711.51, 1711.52 163137
Advisory Council of Directors for Prison Labor Office of Enterprise Development Advisory Board 5145.162 163138
Advisory Council for Wild, Scenic, or Recreational River Area(s) 1547.84 163139
Advisory Committee on Livestock Exhibitions 901.71 163140
Agricultural Commodity Marketing Programs Operating Committees 924.07 163141
Agricultural Commodity Marketing Programs Coordinating Committee 924.14 163142
Alternative Energy Advisory Committee 4928.64(D) 163143
AMBER Alert Advisory Committee 5502.521 163144
Apprenticeship Council Chapter 4139. 163145
Armory Board of Control 5911.09, 5911.12 163146
Automated Title Processing Board 4505.09(C)(1) 163147
Backflow Advisory Board 3703.21 163148
Banking Commission 1123.01 163149
Board of Directors of the Great Lakes Protection Fund 1506.22 (6161.04) 163150
Board of Directors of the Medical Liability Underwriting Association Stabilization Fund 3929.631 163151
Board of Directors of the Ohio Appalachian Center for Higher Education 3333.58 163152
Board of Directors of the Ohio Health Reinsurance Program 3924.08 - 3924.11 163153
Board of Governors of the Commercial Insurance Joint Underwriting Association 3930.03 163154
Board of Governors of the Medical Liability Underwriting Association 3929.64 163155
Board of Voting Machines Examiners 3506.05 163156
Budget Planning and Management Commission Section 509.10, H.B. 1, 128th G.A. 163157
Brain Injury Advisory Committee 3304.231 163158
Bureau of Workers' Compensation Board of Directors 4121.12 163159
Capitol Square Review and Advisory Board 105.41 163160
Child Care Advisory Council 5104.08 163161
Child Support Guideline Advisory Council 3119.024 163162
Children's Trust Fund Board 3109.15 - 3109.17 163163
Citizen's Advisory Council 5123.092, 5123.093 163164
Clean Ohio Trail Advisory Board 1519.06 163165
Coastal Resources Advisory Council 1506.12 163166
Commission on African-American Males 4112.12, 4112.13 163167
Commission on Hispanic-Latino Affairs 121.31 163168
Commission on Minority Health 3701.78 163169
Committee on Prescriptive Governance 4723.49 - 4723.492 163170
Commodity Advisory Commission 926.32 163171
Consumer Advisory Committee to the Opportunities for Ohioans with Disabilities Commission 3304.16 (3304.14), Section 803.40 163172
Continuing Education Committee 109.80(B) 163173
Council on Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services 3793.09 163174
Council on Unreclaimed Strip Mined Lands 1513.29 163175
County Sheriff's Standard Car Marking and Uniform Commission 311.25 - 311.27 163176
Credential Review Board 3319.65 163177
Credit Union Council 1733.329 163178
Criminal Sentencing Advisory Committee 181.22 163179
Data Collection and Analysis Group 3727.32 163180
Dentist Loan Repayment Advisory Board 3702.92 163181
Department Advisory Council(s) 107.18, 121.13 163182
Development Financing Advisory Council 122.40, 122.41 163183
Early Childhood Advisory Council 3301.90 163184
Education Commission of the States (Interstate Compact for Education) 3301.48, 3301.49 163185
Education Management Information System Advisory Board 3301.0713 163186
Educator Standards Board 3319.60 163187
Electrical Safety Inspector Advisory Committee 3783.08 163188
Emergency Response Commission 3750.02 163189
Engineering Experiment Station Advisory Committee 3335.27 163190
Environmental Education Council 3745.21 163191
Environmental Protection Agency Advisory Board(s) 121.13, 3704.03, 3745.01 163192
eTech Ohio Broadcast Educational Media Commission 3353.02 - 3353.04 163193
Ex-Offender Reentry Coalition 5120.07 163194
Farmland Preservation Advisory Board 901.23 163195
Financial Planning and Supervision Commission(s) for Municipal Corporation, County, or Township 118.05 163196
Financial Planning and Supervision Commission for a school district 3316.05 163197
Forestry Advisory Council 1503.40 163198
Governance Authority for a State University or College 3345.75 163199
Governor's Council on People with Disabilities 3303.41 163200
Governor's Policy Information Working Group Section 313, H.B. 420, 127th G.A. 163201
Governor's Residence Advisory Commission 107.40 163202
Grain Marketing Program Operating Committee 924.20 - 924.30 163203
Great Lakes Commission (Great Lakes Basin Compact) 6161.01 163204
Gubernatorial Transition Committee 107.29, 126.26 163205
Help Me Grow Advisory Council 3701.611 163206
Hemophilia Advisory Subcommittee of the Medically Handicapped Children's Medical Advisory Council 3701.0210 163207
Homeland Security Advisory Council 5502.011(E) 163208
Hospital Measures Advisory Council 3727.31 163209
Housing Trust Fund Advisory Committee 174.06 163210
Industrial Commission Nominating Council 4121.04 163211
Industrial Technology and Enterprise Advisory Council 122.29, 122.30 163212
Infant Hearing Screening Subcommittee 3701.507 163213
Infection Control Group 3727.312(D) 163214
Insurance Agent Education Advisory Council 3905.483 163215
Interstate Rail Passenger Advisory Council 4981.35 163216
Joint Select Committee on Volume Cap 133.021 163217
Labor-Management Government Advisory Council 4121.70 163218
Legislative Programming Committee of the Ohio Government Telecommunications Service 3353.07 163219
Legislative Task Force on Redistricting, Reapportionment, and Demographic Research 103.51 163220
Maternity and Newborn Advisory Council 3711.20, 3711.21 163221
Medically Handicapped Children's Medical Advisory Council 3701.025 163222
Midwest Interstate Passenger Rail Compact Commission 4981.361 163223
Milk Sanitation Board 917.03 - 917.032 163224
Mine Subsidence Insurance Governing Board 3929.51 163225
Minority Development Financing Advisory Board 122.72, 122.73 163226
Multi-Agency Radio Communications System (MARCS) Steering Committee Section 15.02, H.B. 640, 123rd G.A. 163227
National Museum of Afro-American History and Culture Planning Committee 149.303 163228
New African Immigrants Commission 4112.31, 4112.32 163229
Ohio Accountability Task Force 3302.021(E) 163230
Ohio Advisory Council for the Aging 173.03 163231
Ohio Agriculture License Plate Scholarship Fund Board 901.90 163232
Ohio Arts Council Chapter 3379. 163233
Ohio Business Gateway Steering Committee 5703.57 163234
Ohio Cemetery Dispute Resolution Commission 4767.05, 4767.06 163235
Ohio Civil Rights Commission Advisory Agencies and Conciliation Councils 4112.04(B)(4) 163236
Ohio Commercial Market Assistance Plan Executive Committee 3930.02 163237
Ohio Commission on Dispute Resolution and Conflict Management 179.02 - 179.04 163238
Ohio Commission on Fatherhood 5101.34 163239
Ohio Community Service Council 121.40 - 121.404 163240
Ohio Council for Interstate Adult Offender Supervision 5149.22 163241
Ohio Cultural Facilities Commission Chapter 3383. 163242
Ohio Cystic Fibrosis Legislative Task Force 101.38 163243
Ohio Developmental Disabilities Council 5123.35 163244
Ohio Expositions Commission 991.02 163245
Ohio Family and Children First Cabinet Council 121.37 163246
Ohio Geographically Referenced Information Program Council 125.901, 125.902 163247
Ohio Geology Advisory Council 1501.11 163248
Ohio Grape Industries Committee 924.51 - 924.55 163249
Ohio Historic Site Preservation Advisory Board 149.301 163250
Ohio Historical Society Board of Trustees 149.30 163251
Ohio Judicial Conference 105.91 - 105.97 163252
Ohio Lake Erie Commission 1506.21 163253
Ohio Legislative Commission on the Education and Preservation of State History Section 701.05, H.B. 1, 128th G.A. 163254
Ohio Medical Quality Foundation 3701.89 163255
Ohio Parks and Recreation Council 1541.40 163256
Ohio Peace Officer Training Commission 109.71, 109.72 163257
Ohio Private Investigation and Security Services Commission 4749.021, 4743.01 163258
Ohio Public Defender Commission 120.01 - 120.03 163259
Ohio Public Library Information Network Board of Trustees 3375.65, 3375.66 163260
Ohio Quarter Horse Development Commission 3769.086 163261
Ohio Small Government Capital Improvements Commission 164.02(C)(D) 163262
Ohio Soil and Water Conservation Commission 1515.02 163263
Ohio Standardbred Development Commission 3769.085 163264
Ohio Subrogation Rights Commission 2323.44 163265
Ohio Thoroughbred Racing Advisory Committee 3769.084 163266
Ohio Transportation Finance Commission 5531.12(B) to (D) 163267
Ohio Tuition Trust Authority 3334.03, 3334.08 163268
Ohio University College of Osteopathic Medicine Advisory Committee 3337.10, 3337.11 163269
Ohio Vendors Representative Committee 3304.34, 20 USC 107 163270
Ohio War Orphans Scholarship Board 5910.02 - 5910.06 163271
Ohio Water Advisory Council 1521.031 163272
Ohio Water Resources Council Advisory Group 1521.19 163273
Ohio Water Resources Council 1521.19 163274
Oil and Gas Commission 1509.35 163275
Operating Committee of the Oil and Gas Marketing Program 1510.06, 1510.11 163276
Organized Crime Investigations Commission 177.01 163277
Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee of the Department of Job and Family Services Medicaid 5111.084 5164.7510 163278
Physician Assistant Policy Committee of the State Medical Board 4730.05, 4730.06 163279
Physician Loan Repayment Advisory Board 3702.81 163280
Power Siting Board 4906.02 163281
Prequalification Review Board 5525.07 163282
Private Water Systems Advisory Council 3701.346 163283
Public Utilities Commission Nominating Council 4901.021 163284
Public Utility Property Tax Study Committee 5727.85(K) 163285
Radiation Advisory Council 3748.20 163286
Reclamation Commission 1513.05 163287
Reclamation Forfeiture Fund Advisory Board 1513.182 163288
Recreation and Resources Commission 1501.04 163289
Recycling and Litter Prevention Advisory Council 1502.04 163290
School and Ministerial Lands Divestiture Committee 501.041 163291
Savings and Loan Associations and Savings Banks Board 1181.16 163292
Second Chance Trust Fund Advisory Committee 2108.35 163293
Service Coordination Workgroup Section 751.20, H.B. 1, 128th G.A. 163294
Ski Tramway Board 4169.02 163295
Small Business Stationary Source Technical and Environmental Compliance Assistance Council 3704.19 163296
Solid Waste Management Advisory Council 3734.51 163297
Special Commission to Consider the Suspension of Local Government Officials 3.16 163298
Speed to Scale Task Force Section 375.60.80, H.B. 119, 128th G.A. 163299
State Agency Coordinating Group 1521.19 163300
State Audit Committee 126.46 163301
State Council of Uniform State Laws 105.21 - 105.27 163302
State Criminal Sentencing Commission 181.22 - 181.26 163303
State Fire Council 3737.81 163304
State Library Board 3375.01 163305
State Victims Assistance Advisory Council 109.91(B) and (C) 163306
Statewide Consortium of County Law Library Resource Boards 3375.481 163307
STEM Committee 3326.02 163308
Student Tuition Recovery Authority 3332.081 163309
Sunset Review Committee 101.84 - 101.87 163310
Tax Credit Authority 122.17(M) 163311
Technical Advisory Committee to Assist Director of the Ohio Coal Development Office 1551.35 163312
Technical Advisory Council on Oil and Gas 1509.38 163313
Transportation Review Advisory Council 5512.07 - 5512.09 163314
Unemployment Compensation Advisory Council 4141.08 163315
Unemployment Compensation Review Commission 4141.06 163316
Veterans Advisory Committee 5902.02(K) 163317
Volunteer Fire Fighters' Dependents Fund Boards (private volunteer) 146.02 - 146.06 163318
Volunteer Fire Fighters' Dependents Fund Boards (public) 146.02 - 146.06 163319
Water and Sewer Commission 1525.11(C) 163320
Waterways Safety Council 1547.73 163321
Wildlife Council 1531.03 - 1531.05 163322
Workers' Compensation Board of Directors Nominating Committee 4121.123 163323

       Section 610.21. That existing Section 4 of Sub. S.B. 171 of 163324
the 129th General Assembly, as amended by Am. Sub. H.B. 487 of the 163325
129th General Assembly, is hereby repealed.163326

       Section 620.10. That Section 105.05 of Am. Sub. H.B. 2 of the 163327
128th General Assembly be amended to read as follows:163328

       Sec. 105.05. Section 121.53 of the Revised Code is hereby 163329
repealed, effective SeptemberJune 30, 20132014.163330

       Section 620.11. That existing Section 105.05 of Am. Sub. H.B. 163331
2 of the 128th General Assembly is hereby repealed.163332

       Section 630.10. All items set forth in this section are 163333
hereby appropriated out of any moneys in the state treasury to the 163334
credit of the Administrative Building Fund (Fund 7026) that are 163335
not otherwise appropriated for the biennium ending June 30, 2014:163336

Appropriations

DEV DEVELOPMENT SERVICES AGENCY
163337

C19506 Children's Home $ 100,000 163338
Total Development Services Agency $ 100,000 163339

       CHILDREN'S HOME163340

       The foregoing appropriation item C19506, Children's Home, 163341
shall be used for the Children's Home of Cincinnati.163342

       Section 630.10.10.  All items set forth in this section are 163343
hereby appropriated out of any moneys in the state treasury to the 163344
credit of the Parks and Recreation Improvement Fund (Fund 7035) 163345
that are not otherwise appropriated for the biennium ending June 163346
30, 2014:163347

Appropriations

DNR DEPARTMENT OF NATURAL RESOURCES
163348

C725S6 Cleveland Zoological Society $ 150,000 163349
TOTAL Department of Natural Resources $ 150,000 163350

       CLEVELAND ZOOLOGICAL SOCIETY163351

       Of the foregoing appropriation item C725S6, Cleveland 163352
Zoological Society, shall be used for the Cleveland Zoological 163353
Society.163354

       Section 630.11. That Sections 203.30.40, 203.30.70, 163355
203.30.80, 203.90.10, 203.90.20, 205.10.20, 205.30.90, 205.50.70, 163356
and 207.10.10 of Sub. S.B. 312 of the 129th General Assembly be 163357
amended to read as follows:163358

Reappropriations

       Sec. 203.30.40. CSR CAPITOL SQUARE REVIEW AND ADVISORY BOARD163359

C87405 Capitol Rotunda Renovations $ 37,363 163360
C87406 Statehouse Grounds Repair/Improvements $ 34,663 163361
C87407 Sound System Upgrades $ 30,654 163362
C87409 Cupola Gutters and Ancillary Roof $ 5,577 163363
C87411 ADA Specific Sidewalk Ramp Replacement $ 7,564 163364
C87412 Capitol Square Security $ 121,316 163365
C87413 CSRAB Visitors' Center $ 48,576 163366
Total Capitol Square Review and Advisory Board $ 285,713 163367

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 163368
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer any unexpended 163369
appropriations in appropriation item C87405, Capitol Rotunda 163370
Renovations, and appropriation item C87413, CSRAB Visitors' 163371
Center, to appropriation item C87412, Capitol Square Security. The 163372
appropriations transferred under this section are hereby 163373
appropriated.163374

Reappropriations

       Sec. 203.30.70. OSB SCHOOL FOR THE BLIND163375

C22607 Renovation of Science Laboratory Greenhouse $ 26,473 163376
C22614 New School Lighting $ 32,775 163377
C22616 Renovation and Repairs $ 779,478 163378
C22617 Elevator Replacement $ 104,500 163379
C22619 Public Address System Replacement $ 73,150 163380
C22622 Track Shelter $ 42,750 163381
C22624 Natatorium Renovations $ 2,483 163382
C22700 Infrastructure Improvements $ 1,640,652 1,657,435 163383
Total Ohio School for the Blind $ 2,702,261 2,719,044 163384

       PUBLIC ADDRESS SYSTEM REPLACEMENT163385

       The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 163386
item C22619, Public Address System Replacement, is the 163387
unencumbered and unallotted balance as of June 30, 2012, in 163388
appropriation item C22619, Public Address System Replacement, 163389
minus $77,000.163390

       TRACK SHELTER163391

       The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 163392
item C22622, Track Shelter, is the unencumbered and unallotted 163393
balance as of June 30, 2012, in appropriation item C22622, Track 163394
Shelter, plus $77,000.163395

       INFRASTRUCTURE IMPROVEMENTS163396

       The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 163397
item C22700, Infrastructure Improvements, is the unencumbered and 163398
unallotted balance as of June 30, 2013, in appropriation item 163399
C22700, Infrastructure Improvements, plus $16,783.163400

Reappropriations

       Sec. 203.30.80. OSD SCHOOL FOR THE DEAF163401

C22104 Boilers, Blowers, and Controls for the School Complex $ 44,992 163402
C22107 Renovation and Repairs $ 950,000 163403
C22108 High School Window Replacement $ 20,041 163404
C22109 High School HVAC $ 19,182 163405
C22111 Staff Building Windows and Repair $ 15,983 163406
C22112 Alumni Park Preservation $ 59,375 163407
C22800 Infrastructure Improvements $ 905,833 922,616 163408
Total Ohio School for the Deaf $ 2,015,406 2,032,189 163409
TOTAL Administrative Building Fund $ 29,689,586 29,723,152 163410


Reappropriations

       Sec. 203.90.10.  DMH DEPARTMENT OF MENTAL HEALTH163412

C58000 Hazardous Materials Abatement $ 118,750 163413
C58001 Community Assistance Projects $ 332,500 232,500 163414
C58002 Campus Consolidation - Automation $ 95,000 163415
C58004 Demolition $ 142,500 163416
C58005 Life Safety/Critical Plant Renovations $ 23,750 163417
C58006 Patient Care/Environment Improvement $ 285,000 163418
C58007 Infrastructure Renovations $ 475,000 163419
C58008 Emergency Improvements $ 285,000 163420
C58009 Patient Environment Improvement Consolidation $ 1,000 163421
C58010 Campus Consolidation $ 23,750,000 163422
C58020 Mandel Jewish Community Center $ 199,500 163423
Total Department of Mental Health $ 25,708,000 25,608,000 163424

       COMMUNITY ASSISTANCE PROJECTS163425

       Of the foregoing appropriation item C58001, Community 163426
Assistance Projects, $100,000 shall be used for the Children's 163427
Home of Cincinnati, $100,000 shall be used for the Shaw JCC, and 163428
$300,000 shall be used for the Berea Children's Home.163429

        The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 163430
item C58001, Community Assistance Projects, is the unencumbered 163431
unallotted balance, as of June 30, 2012, in appropriation item 163432
C58001, Community Assistance Projects, plus $1,096,159.42. Prior 163433
to the expenditure of this reappropriation, the Director of Mental 163434
Health shall certify to the Director of Budget and Management 163435
canceled encumbrances in the amount of at least $1,096,159.42.163436

        INFRASTRUCTURE RENOVATIONS163437

       The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 163438
item C58007, Infrastructure Renovations, is the unencumbered and 163439
unallotted balance as of June 30, 2012, in appropriation item 163440
C58007, Infrastructure Renovations, plus $2,995,450.24. Prior to 163441
the expenditure of this reappropriation, the Director of Mental 163442
Health shall certify to the Director of Budget and Management 163443
canceled encumbrances in the amount of at least $2,995,450.24.163444

Reappropriations

       Sec. 203.90.20.  DDD DEPARTMENT OF DEVELOPMENTAL DISABILITIES163445

C59004 Community Assistance Projects $ 13,913,599 163446
C59029 Emergency Generator Replacement $ 460,362 163447
C59034 Statewide Developmental Centers $ 1,407,067 163448
C59050 Emergency Improvements $ 484,984 163449
C59051 Energy Conservation $ 430,500 163450
C59055 Camp McKinley Improvements $ 30,000 163451
C59056 The Hope Learning Center $ 250,000 163452
TOTAL Department of Developmental Disabilities $ 16,976,512 163453
TOTAL Mental Health Facilities Improvement Fund $ 42,684,512 42,584,512 163454

       COMMUNITY ASSISTANCE PROJECTS163455

       The foregoing appropriation item C59004, Community Assistance 163456
Projects, may be used to provide community assistance funds for 163457
the construction or renovation of facilities for day programs or 163458
residential programs that provide services to persons eligible for 163459
services from the Department of Developmental Disabilities or 163460
county boards of developmental disabilities.163461

       The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 163462
item C59004, Community Assistance Projects, is the unencumbered, 163463
unallotted balance as of June 30, 2012, in appropriation item 163464
C59004, Community Assistance Projects, plus $8,326,255. Prior to 163465
the expenditure of this reappropriation, the Director of 163466
Developmental Disabilities shall certify to the Director of Budget 163467
and Management canceled encumbrances in the Mental Health 163468
Facilities Improvement Fund (Fund 7033) in the amount of at least 163469
$8,326,255.163470

        STATEWIDE DEVELOPMENTAL CENTERS163471

        The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 163472
item C59034, Statewide Developmental Centers, is the unencumbered, 163473
unallotted balance as of June 30, 2012, in appropriation item 163474
C59034, Statewide Developmental Centers, plus $167,912. Prior to 163475
the expenditure of this reappropriation, the Director of 163476
Developmental Disabilities shall certify to the Director of Budget 163477
and Management canceled encumbrances in the Mental Health 163478
Facilities Improvement Fund (Fund 7033) in the amount of at least 163479
$167,912.163480

Reappropriations

       Sec. 205.10.20.  BOR BOARD OF REGENTS163481

C23506 Third Frontier Project $ 15,689,958 163482
C23519 315 Research and Technology Corridor $ 2,090,000 163483
C23525 CWRU Mt. Sinai Skills and Simulation Center $ 500,000 163484
C23528 Clintonville Fiber Project $ 100,000 163485
C23529 Non-credit Job Training Facilities $ 2,011,227 163486
C23535 CWRU Energy Center Cleveland Center for Membrane and Structural Biology $ 333,333 163487
Total Board of Regents $ 20,724,518 163488

       SUPPLEMENTAL RENOVATIONS LIBRARY DEPOSITORIES163489

       The amount reappropriated for appropriation item C23524, 163490
Supplemental Renovations Library Depositories, is the unencumbered 163491
and unallotted balance in appropriation item C23524, Supplemental 163492
Renovations Library Depositories, minus $95,695.163493

       NON-CREDIT JOB TRAINING FACILITIES163494

       The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 163495
item C23529, Non-credit Job Training Facilities, is the 163496
unencumbered and unallotted balance in appropriation item C23529, 163497
Non-credit Job Training Facilities, as of June 30, 2012, plus 163498
$866,811.163499

Reappropriations

       Sec. 205.30.90. CCC CUYAHOGA COMMUNITY COLLEGE163500

C37800 Basic Renovations $ 617,662 163501
C37803 Technology Learning Center - Western $ 40,941 163502
C37812 Building A Expansion Module - Western $ 118,115 163503
C37816 College-Wide Wayfinding Signage System $ 118,825 163504
C37817 College-Wide Asset Protection & Building $ 599,645 163505
C37818 Healthcare Technology Building - Eastern $ 1,343,897 163506
C37821 Hospitality Management Program $ 37,203 163507
C37822 Theater Renovations $ 948,231 163508
C37824 Rock and Roll Hall of Fame Archive $ 3,000 163509
C37826 CW Roof Replacement $ 181,197 163510
C37831 Visiting Nurse Association $ 142,500 163511
C37833 Cleveland Zoological Society $ 142,500 163512
C37834 Museum of Contemporary Art Cleveland $ 427,500 163513
C37835 Western Reserve Historical Society $ 2,660,000 163514
Total Cuyahoga Community College $ 7,381,216 7,238,716 163515

       BASIC RENOVATIONS163516

        The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 163517
item C37800, Basic Renovations, is the unencumbered and unallotted 163518
balance as of June 30, 2012, in appropriation item C37800, Basic 163519
Renovations, plus $1,033,551.163520

       NON-CREDIT JOB TRAINING 163521

       The amount reappropriated for appropriation item C37805, 163522
Non-credit Job Training, is the unencumbered and unallotted 163523
balance in appropriation item C37805, Non-credit Job Training, as 163524
of June 30, 2012, minus $38,676.163525

        BUILDING A EXPANSION MODULE - WESTERN163526

        The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 163527
item C37812, Building A Expansion Module - Western, is the 163528
unencumbered and unallotted balance as of June 30, 2012, in 163529
appropriation item C37812, Building A Expansion Module - Western, 163530
minus $82,761.163531

        THEATER RENOVATIONS163532

        The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 163533
item C37822, Theater Renovations, is the unencumbered and 163534
unallotted balance as of June 30, 2012, in appropriation item 163535
C37822, Theater Renovations, minus $950,790.163536

       CCC AUTO LAB IMPROVEMENTS163537

       The amount reappropriated for appropriation item C37830, CCC 163538
Auto Lab Improvements, is the unencumbered and unallotted balance 163539
in appropriation item C37830, CCC Auto Lab Improvements, as of 163540
June 30, 2012, minus $239.163541

Reappropriations

       Sec. 205.50.70. STC STARK TECHNICAL COLLEGE163542

C38900 Basic Renovations $ 4,775 163543
C38917 Wind Energy Research and Development Center $ 1,166,996 163544
Total Stark Technical College $ 1,171,771 163545
TOTAL Higher Education Improvement Fund $ 226,722,333 226,579,833 163546


       Sec. 207.10.10.  LOCAL PARKS PROJECTS163548

       Of the foregoing appropriation item C725E2, Local Parks 163549
Projects, $50,000 plus an amount equal to two per cent of the 163550
projects listed may be used by the Ohio Department of Natural 163551
Resources for the administration of local projects; $1,586,570 163552
shall be used for Grand Lake St. Mary's Improvements; $400,000 163553
shall be used for the Austin Pike Project - Land Acquisition; 163554
$191,000 shall be used for Deerfield Township Simpson Creek 163555
Erosion Mitigation and Bank Control; $121,700 shall be used for 163556
the Salt Fork State Park Concession Stand; $100,000 shall be used 163557
for the Crown Point Conservation Easement; $100,000 shall be used 163558
for the Euclid Beach Pier; $100,000 shall be used for the Liberty 163559
Park Expansion – Twinsburg; $100,000 shall be used for the Lucas 163560
County Marina; $100,000 shall be used for the Midtown Cleveland 163561
Mountain Bike Park; $100,000 shall be used for the Mudbrook Trail 163562
and Greenway Project; $69,000 shall be used for Miami and Erie 163563
Canal Repairs in Spencerville; $60,000 shall be used for the 163564
Marseilles Reservoir Bulkhead Project; $50,000 shall be used for 163565
Dillon State Park Upgrades; $25,000 shall be used for the 163566
Marblehead Lighthouse State Park Life Boat Station; $24,165 shall 163567
be used for Tar Hollow State Park Improvements; $20,200 shall be 163568
used for Van Buren State Park Campground Electric and Restroom 163569
Facility Improvements; and $10,000 shall be used for Village of 163570
Albany Bike Paths.163571

       FINDLEY STATE PARK163572

       The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 163573
item C72511, Findley State Park, is the unencumbered and 163574
unallotted balance as of June 30, 2012, in appropriation item 163575
C72511, Findley State Park, minus $22,856.163576

       LAKE HOPE STATE PARK163577

       The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 163578
item C72522, Lake Hope State Park, is the unencumbered and 163579
unallotted balance as of June 30, 2012, in appropriation item 163580
C72522, Lake Hope State Park, minus $7,276.163581

       HOCKING HILLS STATE PARK163582

       The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 163583
item C72559, Hocking Hills State Park, is the unencumbered and 163584
unallotted balance as of June 30, 2012, in appropriation item 163585
C72559, Hocking Hills State Park, minus $3,025.163586

       PORTAGE LAKES STATE PARK163587

       The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 163588
item C72576, Portage Lakes State Park, is the unencumbered and 163589
unallotted balance as of June 30, 2012, in appropriation item 163590
C72576, Portage Lakes State Park, minus $2,040.163591

       DEER CREEK STATE PARK163592

       The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 163593
item C72594, Deer Creek State Park, is the unencumbered and 163594
unallotted balance as of June 30, 2012, in appropriation item 163595
C72594, Deer Creek State Park, minus $19,392.163596

       RIVERFRONT IMPROVEMENTS163597

       The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 163598
item C725D0, Riverfront Improvements, is the unencumbered and 163599
unallotted balance as of June 30, 2012, in appropriation item 163600
C725D0, Riverfront Improvements, minus $5,000.163601

       MOHICAN STATE PARK163602

       The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 163603
item C725M9, Mohican State Park, is the unencumbered and 163604
unallotted balance as of June 30, 2012, in appropriation item 163605
C725M9, Mohican State Park, minus $72,469.163606

       WASTEWATER AND WATER SYSTEMS UPGRADE163607

       The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 163608
item C725N6, Wastewater and Water Systems Upgrade, is the 163609
unencumbered and unallotted balance as of June 30, 2012, in 163610
appropriation item C725N6, Wastewater and Water Systems Upgrade, 163611
plus $162,050.163612

       SOUTH BASS ISLAND STATE PARK163613

       The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 163614
item C725R0, South Bass Island State Park, is the unencumbered and 163615
unallotted balance as of June 30, 2012, in appropriation item 163616
C725R0, South Bass Island State Park, minus $29,992.163617

       KAMP DOVETAIL PROJECT163618

        The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 163619
item C725S5, Kamp Dovetail Project, used by the Department of 163620
Natural Resources, is the unencumbered and unallotted balance 163621
remaining as of June 30, 2013, in appropriation item C59020, Kamp 163622
Dovetail Project, used by the Department of Developmental 163623
Disabilities. 163624

       FEDERAL REIMBURSEMENT163625

       All reimbursements received from the federal government for 163626
any expenditures made pursuant to sections of this act numbered 163627
with the prefix "207.10" shall be deposited in the state treasury 163628
to the credit of the Parks and Recreation Improvement Fund.163629

       Section 630.12. That existing Sections 203.30.40, 203.30.70, 163630
203.30.80, 203.90.10, 203.90.20, 205.10.20, 205.30.90, 205.50.70, 163631
and 207.10.10 of Sub. S.B. 312 of the 129th General Assembly are 163632
hereby repealed.163633

       Section 701.10. EXEMPT EMPLOYEE CONSENT TO CERTAIN DUTIES163634

        As used in this section, "appointing authority" has the same 163635
meaning as in section 124.01 of the Revised Code, and "exempt 163636
employee" has the same meaning as in section 124.01 of the Revised 163637
Code.163638

        Notwithstanding section 124.181 of the Revised Code, in cases 163639
where no vacancy exists, an appointing authority may, with the 163640
written consent of an exempt employee, assign duties of a higher 163641
classification to that exempt employee for a period of time not to 163642
exceed two years, and that exempt employee shall receive 163643
compensation at a rate commensurate with the duties of the higher 163644
classification.163645

       Section 701.30. As used in this section, "public record" has 163646
the meaning defined in section 149.43 of the Revised Code, and 163647
"public office" has the meaning defined in section 149.011 of the 163648
Revised Code.163649

       Not later than December 31, 2013, the Director of 163650
Administrative Services shall deliver a report to the Governor, 163651
the Speaker and Minority Leader of the House of Representatives, 163652
and the President and Minority Leader of the Senate that proposes 163653
uniform standards that should apply to a public office that 163654
chooses to post public records on an internet web site maintained 163655
by the public office. In developing the standards, the Director 163656
shall consider, at a minimum, the following factors: any 163657
recommended technology and/or software to use; the projected costs 163658
of implementing and maintaining such technology and software; and 163659
how a public office is to post a public record on its web site, or 163660
on a public web site maintained by the state, so that the public 163661
record, or the data contained in the public record, is capable of 163662
being searched and downloaded by the public in a uniform manner.163663

       Section 715.10.  Two years after the amendments to section 163664
1501.011 of the Revised Code by this act take effect, the Ohio 163665
Facilities Construction Commission and the Department of Natural 163666
Resources shall review division (C) of that section.163667

       Section 733.10. Notwithstanding section 3317.01 of the 163668
Revised Code, as amended by this act, to determine whether a 163669
school district satisfied the minimum school year in the 2013-2014 163670
school year in order to qualify for state funding under Chapter 163671
3317. of the Revised Code for fiscal year 2015, the Department of 163672
Education shall apply the criteria prescribed in the version of 163673
division (B) of section 3317.01 of the Revised Code in effect 163674
prior to July 1, 2014.163675

       Section 733.20.  The General Assembly hereby declares its 163676
intent, in enacting section 3319.031 of the Revised Code, to 163677
supersede any effect of the decision of the Court of Appeals of 163678
the Eighth Appellate District in OAPSE/AFSCME Local 4 v. Berdine, 163679
174 Ohio App.3d 46 (Cuyahoga County, 2007) to the extent the 163680
decision conflicts with the principle that boards of education may 163681
appoint a licensed business manager, but also may determine 163682
instead to assign the roles and functions of a business manager to 163683
one or more employees or officers of the board, including the 163684
treasurer, in the board's sole discretion.163685

       Section 733.40. (A) The Superintendent of Public Instruction 163686
shall appoint three incorporators who are knowledgeable about the 163687
administration of public schools and about the operation of 163688
nonprofit corporations in Ohio.163689

        (B) The incorporators shall do whatever is necessary and 163690
proper to set up a nonprofit corporation under Chapter 1702. of 163691
the Revised Code. The articles of incorporation, in addition to 163692
meeting the requirements of section 1702.04 of the Revised Code, 163693
shall set forth the following provisions:163694

        (1) That the nonprofit corporation is to create and implement 163695
a pilot program that provides an alternative path for individuals 163696
to receive training and development in the administration of 163697
primary and secondary education and leadership, that will enable 163698
these individuals to earn a degree in public school 163699
administration, that will enable these individuals to obtain 163700
licenses in public school administration, and that promotes the 163701
placement of these individuals in public schools that have a 163702
poverty percentage greater than fifty per cent.163703

        (2) That the Board of Directors are to establish criteria for 163704
program costs, participant selection, and continued participation, 163705
and metrics to document and measure pilot program activities.163706

       (3) That the name of the nonprofit corporation is "New 163707
Leaders for Ohio Schools."163708

       (4) That the Board of Directors is to consist of the 163709
following nine directors:163710

        (a) The Governor or the Governor's designee;163711

        (b) The Superintendent of Public Instruction, or the 163712
Superintendent's designee;163713

        (c) The Chancellor of the Ohio Board of Regents, or the 163714
Chancellor's designee;163715

        (d) Two individuals to represent major business enterprises 163716
in Ohio;163717

        (e) Two individuals appointed by the Speaker of the House of 163718
Representatives, one of whom shall be an active duty or retired 163719
military officer;163720

        (f) Two individuals appointed by the President of the Senate, 163721
one of whom shall be a current or retired teacher or principal.163722

        The Dean of The Ohio State University Fisher College of 163723
Business and the Dean of The Ohio State University College of 163724
Education and Human Ecology are to serve as ex-officio nonvoting 163725
members of the Board.163726

       The individuals on the Board who represent major business 163727
enterprises in Ohio are to be appointed by a statewide 163728
organization selected by the Governor. The organization is to be 163729
nonpartisan and consist of chief executive officers of major 163730
corporations organized in Ohio. 163731

       (5) That the Board is to elect a chairperson from among its 163732
members, and is to appoint a President of the corporation.163733

       (6) That the President of the Corporation, subject to the 163734
approval of the Board, is to enter into a contract with The Ohio 163735
State University Fisher College of Business. Under the contract, 163736
the College is to provide oversight to the corporation, is to 163737
serve as fiscal agent for the corporation, and is to provide the 163738
corporation with office space, and with office furniture and 163739
equipment, as is necessary for the corporation successfully to 163740
fulfill its duties.163741

        (7) That the overhead expenses of the corporation are not to 163742
exceed fifteen per cent of the annual budget of the corporation.163743

        (8) That the President is to apply for, and is to receive and 163744
accept, grants, gifts, bequests, and contributions from private 163745
sources.163746

       (9) That the corporation is to submit an annual report to the 163747
General Assembly and Governor beginning December 31, 2013.163748

       (10) That state financial support for the corporation shall 163749
cease on the date that is five years after the effective date of 163750
this section.163751

       Section 733.50. (A) The State Board of Education shall issue 163752
an alternative principal or administrator license in accordance 163753
with rules adopted under this section to an individual who 163754
successfully completes the New Leaders for Ohio Schools pilot 163755
program under Section 733.40 of this act.163756

       (B) The State Board, in consultation with the Board of 163757
Directors of New Leaders for Ohio Schools, shall adopt rules that 163758
prescribe the requirements for an alternative principal or 163759
administrator license specifically for an individual who 163760
successfully completes the New Leaders for Ohio Schools pilot 163761
program. The State Board shall use the rules for alternative 163762
principal and administrator licenses previously adopted under 163763
section 3319.27 of the Revised Code as a guideline for development 163764
of the rules adopted under this section. 163765

       Section 737.20.  TELEMEDICINE POLICY WORKGROUP163766

       The Executive Director of the Governor's Office of Health 163767
Transformation may convene a workgroup of state agency directors 163768
to study policy matters regarding the potential benefits of using 163769
telemedicine as a means of increasing the quality and availability 163770
of health care services within this state. If established, the 163771
workgroup shall include the Medicaid Director, Superintendent of 163772
Insurance, and any other state agency director the Executive 163773
Director considers appropriate. Additional individuals may be 163774
included at the discretion of the Executive Director.163775

       A study conducted by a workgroup established under this 163776
section shall focus on developing a comprehensive statewide policy 163777
that encourages the use of telemedicine as an integral component 163778
of the state's health care system. In doing so, the workgroup 163779
shall consider not only the practice of telemedicine and the 163780
technology used to provide telemedicine services, but also matters 163781
pertaining to the implementation of telemedicine systems and the 163782
reimbursement of health care professionals, health care 163783
facilities, and other providers of telemedicine services, 163784
including coverage provided by health care insurers and the 163785
Medicaid program.163786

       Section 747.10.  (A) The Ohio Cemetery Law Task Force shall 163787
develop recommendations on modifications of the laws of this state 163788
relating to cemeteries. 163789

       (B) The Ohio Cemetery Law Task Force is established. The Task 163790
Force shall consist of the following eleven members: a 163791
representative of local government, other than townships, 163792
appointed by the President of the Senate; a representative of the 163793
Ohio Township Association appointed by the President of the 163794
Senate; a representative of Native Americans appointed by the 163795
President of the Senate; a representative of private cemeteries 163796
appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives; a 163797
representative of the Ohio Historical Society appointed by the 163798
Speaker of the House of Representatives; a representative of 163799
archeologists appointed by the Speaker of the House of 163800
Representatives; a representative of the Ohio Genealogical Society 163801
appointed by the Governor; a representative of the Ohio Cemetery 163802
Dispute Resolution Commission appointed by the Governor; a 163803
representative of the Division of Real Estate and Professional 163804
Licensing in the Department of Commerce appointed by the Governor; 163805
a representative of the Department of Transportation appointed by 163806
the Governor; and a representative of the Department of Natural 163807
Resources appointed by the Governor. 163808

       The initial appointments shall be made not later than thirty 163809
days after the effective date of this section. Vacancies shall be 163810
filled in the manner provided for original appointments. 163811

       The Task Force shall elect two of its members to serve as 163812
co-chairpersons of the Task Force.163813

       The Task Force shall meet as often as necessary to carry out 163814
its duties and responsibilities. Members of the Task Force shall 163815
serve without compensation. 163816

        (C) The Task Force shall issue a report of its 163817
recommendations to the President of the Senate, the Speaker of the 163818
House of Representatives, and the Governor not later than one year 163819
after the effective date of this section. The Task Force ceases to 163820
exist upon submitting its report.163821

       Section 747.20.  The county recorder shall continue to keep 163822
six separate sets of records of all agreements for the 163823
registration of lands as archaeological or historic landmarks 163824
recorded before the effective date of this section.163825

       Section 747.30.  Notwithstanding section 4783.04 of the 163826
Revised Code, as enacted by this act, if an individual certified 163827
as a board certified behavior analyst by the Behavior Analyst 163828
Certification Board or its successor organization can demonstrate 163829
active practice in a manner prescribed in rules adopted by the 163830
State Board of Psychology within one year after the effective date 163831
of those rules, the individual may apply for immediate 163832
certification as a certified Ohio behavior analyst without paying 163833
a fee or satisfying other requirements specified in section 163834
4783.04 of the Revised Code or requirements prescribed by the 163835
State Board of Psychology. 163836

       The State Board of Psychology shall provide internet access 163837
to the study guide produced by the State Board of Psychology that 163838
summarizes the applicable laws and rules. An individual issued a 163839
certificate pursuant to this section is responsible for knowledge 163840
of Ohio law based on self-study of these documents.163841

       Following initial certification under this section, a 163842
certified Ohio behavior analyst shall comply with section 4783.05 163843
of the Revised Code with respect to biennial registration, payment 163844
of fees, and continuing education requirements.163845

       Section 751.10.  RECOVERY REQUIRES A COMMUNITY PROGRAM163846

       The Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services, in 163847
consultation with the Department of Medicaid, shall administer the 163848
Recovery Requires a Community Program to identify individuals 163849
residing in nursing facilities who can be successfully moved into 163850
a community setting with the aid of community non-Medicaid 163851
services. 163852

       The Director of Mental Health and Addiction Services and the 163853
Medicaid Director shall agree upon an amount representing the 163854
savings realized from decreased nursing facility utilization to be 163855
transferred within the biennium from the Department of Medicaid to 163856
the Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services to support 163857
non-Medicaid program costs for individuals moving into community 163858
settings.163859

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 651525, Medicaid/Health 163860
Care Services, the Medicaid Director shall transfer the amount 163861
agreed upon representing the savings from the General Revenue Fund 163862
to the Sale of Goods and Services Fund (Fund 1490). The transfer 163863
shall be made using an intrastate transfer voucher. The 163864
transferred cash is hereby appropriated to appropriation item 163865
335609, Community Operating/Planning. 163866

       Section 753.20. (A) The Director of Administrative Services, 163867
on behalf of the Department of Rehabilitation and Correction, is 163868
authorized to sell by bid, auction, real estate sale agreement, or 163869
through any other available legal means, all of the state's right, 163870
title, and interest in any or all of the real property described 163871
below, that the Director of Administrative Services and the 163872
Director of Rehabilitation and Correction determine should be sold 163873
in the best interest of, and as surplus to, the needs of the 163874
state.163875

       (B) The Governor is authorized to execute one or more deeds 163876
in the name of the state, conveying to one or more purchasers, 163877
their heirs and assigns or successors and assigns, all of the 163878
state's right, title, and interest in one or more of the real 163879
properties and improvements described below: 163880

       101 Oval Drive Lima 45801163881

       102 Oval Drive Lima 45801163882

       1757 South Avon Belden Road Grafton 44044163883

       2069 South Avon Belden Road Grafton 44044163884

       900 East Capel Road Grafton 44044163885

       1088 North Main Street Mansfield 44903163886

       1659 Scioto Village Drive Marion 43302163887

       1674 Scioto Village Drive Marion 43302163888

       1686 Scioto Village Drive Marion 43302163889

       1693 Scioto Village Drive Marion 43302163890

       1705 Scioto Village Drive Marion 43302163891

       1710 Scioto Village Drive Marion 43302163892

       1717 Scioto Village Drive Marion 43302163893

       745 Likens Road Marion 43302163894

       813 Likens Road Marion 43302163895

       PCI Unit 4 - 11781 State Route 762 Orient 43146163896

       103 Reservation Circle Chillicothe 45601163897

       123 Reservation Circle Chillicothe 45601163898

       124 Reservation Circle Chillicothe 45601163899

       14166 Pleasant Valley Road Chillicothe 45601163900

       1187 Cook Road Lucasville 45648163901

       (C) The Director of Administrative Services shall convey the 163902
real estate, its improvements and chattels, "as-is," in its 163903
present condition. 163904

       (D) Consideration for conveyance of the real estate shall be 163905
determined by bid, auction, or negotiated purchase agreement, at 163906
the discretion of the Director of Administrative Services and the 163907
Director of Rehabilitation and Correction.163908

       (E) The real property shall be conveyed subject to all 163909
easements, covenants, conditions, and restrictions of record; all 163910
legal highways; zoning, building, and other laws, ordinances, 163911
restrictions, and regulations; and real estate taxes and 163912
assessments not yet due and payable.163913

       (F)(1) The deed or deeds to the real estate may contain any 163914
terms and conditions the Director of Administrative Services and 163915
the Director of Rehabilitation and Correction determine to be in 163916
the best interest of the state. The deed or deeds may contain 163917
restrictions that the Directors determine are reasonably necessary 163918
to protect the interest of the state in neighboring state-owned 163919
land.163920

       (2) The deed or deeds shall contain restrictions prohibiting 163921
the purchaser from occupying, using, developing, or selling the 163922
real estate, such as will interfere with quiet enjoyment of the 163923
neighboring state-owned land.163924

       (G) The method of sale and disposition of the real estate 163925
shall be determined by the Director of Administrative Services and 163926
the Director of Rehabilitation and Correction.163927

       (H) The real estate may be sold as an entire tract, as 163928
multiple tracts, or in parcels.163929

       (I) The purchaser or purchasers shall pay all costs 163930
associated with the purchase and conveyance of the real estate, 163931
including, but not limited to, title evidence, title insurance, 163932
transfer costs and fees, recording costs of the deed, taxes, and 163933
any other fees and costs that may be imposed. 163934

       (J) Surveys and legal descriptions as are required for the 163935
conveyance of the real estate shall be prepared at the purchaser's 163936
expense.163937

       (K) The net proceeds of the sale of the real estate shall be 163938
deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the Property 163939
Receipts Fund created by section 5120.22 of the Revised Code.163940

       (L) Upon payment of the purchase price for all or any of the 163941
real estate, the Auditor of State, with the assistance of the 163942
Attorney General, shall prepare a deed or deeds for the real 163943
estate. A deed shall state the consideration, and any terms or 163944
conditions and the restrictions. A deed shall be executed by the 163945
Governor in the name of the state, countersigned by the Secretary 163946
of State, sealed with the Great Seal of the State, presented in 163947
the Office of the Auditor of State for recording, and delivered to 163948
the purchaser. The purchaser shall present the deed for recording 163949
in the office of the appropriate County Recorder. 163950

       (M) This section expires two years after its effective date.163951

       Section 753.30. (A) There is the State Facility Utilization 163952
and Consolidation Task Force. The Task Force shall create an 163953
inventory of state-owned real property and of assets related to 163954
the real property, study the current utilization of the real 163955
property and related assets, determine which real properties and 163956
related assets are not being productively used, determine which 163957
real properties and related assets that are not being productively 163958
used could be productively used, and determine which real 163959
properties and related assets that are not being productively used 163960
could be productively used if consolidated. The Task Force, based 163961
on its study, shall provide the Governor, the President of the 163962
Senate, and the Speaker of the House of Representatives, not later 163963
than one year after the effective date of this section, a report 163964
expressing Task Force's recommendations for the sale, productive 163965
use, or consolidation of state-owned real property and assets. 163966
Upon completing delivery of its report, the Task Force ceases to 163967
exist.163968

       (B) The Task Force consists of the following members: Two 163969
members of the House of Representatives, appointed by the Speaker 163970
of the House of Representatives; two members of the Senate 163971
appointed by the President of the Senate; one individual appointed 163972
by the Governor; the Director of Administrative Services or the 163973
Director's designee; and the Director of Budget and Management or 163974
the Director's designee. Vacancies on the Task Force shall be 163975
filled by the appointing authority.163976

       The Task Force shall select a chairperson and 163977
vice-chairperson from among its members.163978

        Members of the Task Force are not entitled to compensation 163979
for serving on the Task Force. Members of the Task Force may 163980
continue to receive the compensation and benefits accruing from 163981
their regular offices or employments. A member of the Task Force 163982
is entitled to reimbursement of actual and necessary expenses 163983
incurred because of service on the Task Force.163984

       The Task Force first shall meet within one month after the 163985
effective date of this section at the call of the Governor. 163986
Thereafter, the Task Force shall meet at the call of its 163987
chairperson as necessary to carry out its duties.163988

        The Director of Administrative Services shall provide the 163989
Task Force with meeting space and with professional, technical, 163990
and clerical staff as is necessary for the Task Force successfully 163991
and efficiently to fulfill its duties.163992

       Section 755.10.  Not later than ninety days after the 163993
effective date of this section, the Director of Transportation 163994
shall establish a county bridge program to assist counties with 163995
the maintenance of bridges. The program may provide monetary and 163996
other resources, and shall address infrastructure needs related to 163997
county-maintained bridges, including bridge embankments, drainage 163998
bridge repair, and other related conditions.163999

       The Director may consult with affected political subdivisions 164000
in assessing needs and in developing the program. Upon 164001
establishing the program, the Director shall notify affected 164002
political subdivisions in an appropriate manner of the 164003
availability of the program.164004

       Section 757.10.  MINIMUM DISTRIBUTION OF LOCAL GOVERNMENT 164005
FUND164006

       Notwithstanding any provision of section 131.51 of the 164007
Revised Code to the contrary, from revenue arising from the 164008
personal income tax levied under Chapter 5747. of the Revised 164009
Code, an amount equal to one hundred per cent of the amount 164010
credited to the Local Government Fund in July 2012 shall be 164011
credited to such fund in July 2013. In July 2013 each county 164012
undivided local government fund shall receive the same amount it 164013
received in July 2012. In July 2013 each municipal corporation 164014
shall receive the same amount it directly received from the Local 164015
Government Fund in July 2012.164016

       Section 757.30. (A) There is hereby created the Commercial 164017
Activity Tax Review Committee to review and make recommendations 164018
for reforming and improving the tax levied under Chapter 5751. of 164019
the Revised Code. The committee shall be composed of the following 164020
members:164021

        (1) The chair of the standing committee of the House of 164022
Representatives that deals primarily with issues of taxation;164023

        (2) The chair of the standing committee of the Senate that 164024
deals primarily with issues of taxation;164025

        (3) Three members of the House of Representatives appointed 164026
by the Speaker of the House of Representatives, two of whom shall 164027
be members of the minority party; 164028

        (4) Three members of the Senate appointed by the President of 164029
the Senate, two of whom shall be members of the minority party;164030

       (5) The Tax Commissioner or the Commissioner's designee; and164031

        (6) The Director of Budget and Management or the Director's 164032
designee.164033

        (B) The Commercial Activity Tax Review Committee shall be 164034
jointly chaired by the members described in divisions (A)(1) and 164035
(2) of this section. The committee shall meet monthly, beginning 164036
in July 2013, at the call of the chairs and may accept testimony. 164037
The committee is a public body for the purposes of section 121.22 164038
of the Revised Code.164039

       The committee shall, on or before October 31, 2013, submit a 164040
report with the committee's recommendations to the Governor, the 164041
Speaker and Minority Leader of the House of Representatives, and 164042
the President and Minority Leader of the Senate.164043

        (C) The Commercial Activity Tax Review Committee shall cease 164044
to exist after October 31, 2013.164045

       Section 757.50.  The amendment by this act of divisions (Q), 164046
(R), and (S) of section 5741.01 and section 5741.03 of the Revised 164047
Code and the enactment of section 5741.032 of the Revised Code are 164048
hereby effectuated with the intent that if the United States 164049
Congress enacts the Marketplace Fairness Act of 2013, or other 164050
similar legislation authorizing states to require sellers that 164051
lack a substantial nexus with the state to pay, collect, or remit 164052
sales or use tax, the General Assembly shall adopt, before the 164053
effective date of such federal legislation, any conforming 164054
amendments required by such federal legislation and requiring the 164055
Tax Commissioner to adopt rules necessary to effectively 164056
administer such taxes with respect to remote sellers, as defined 164057
in division (R) of section 5741.01 of the Revised Code.164058

       This section is not intended to create a nexus between this 164059
state and remote sellers for any tax other than those imposed 164060
under Chapters 5739. and 5741. of the Revised Code. 164061

       Section 757.60.  The purpose of section 3735.661 of the 164062
Revised Code is to clarify the intent of the General Assembly that 164063
"first two amendments," as used in division (B) of Section 3 of 164064
Am. Sub. S.B. 19 of the 120th General Assembly, has, on and after 164065
July 22, 1994, referred and continues to refer to only a 164066
substantive amendment to a community reinvestment area ordinance 164067
or resolution that extends, expands, increases, or otherwise 164068
broadens the availability of tax exemptions provided under the 164069
ordinance or resolution and does not refer to an amendment that 164070
decreases or otherwise limits the availability of tax exemptions 164071
under the ordinance or resolution or that are procedural or 164072
administrative. Therefore, section 3735.661 of the Revised Code 164073
applies retroactively to ordinances and resolutions adopted under 164074
section 3735.66 of the Revised Code before and after the effective 164075
date of section 3735.661 of the Revised Code.164076

       Section 803.10. An investor who is issued a tax credit 164077
certificate under section 122.152 of the Revised Code prior to 164078
that section's repeal by this act may continue to claim that 164079
credit in the manner provided for in that section.164080

       Section 803.20. The member of the Farmland Preservation 164081
Advisory Board appointed under division (A)(4) of section 901.23 164082
of the Revised Code, as that section existed prior to its 164083
amendment by this act, who is serving on the effective date of 164084
this act shall continue to serve until the expiration of the term 164085
for which the member was appointed. At the end of that term, a 164086
member shall be appointed in accordance with division (A)(4) of 164087
that section as amended by this act.164088

       Section 803.30.  A member of the technical advisory committee 164089
created in section 1551.35 of the Revised Code, as amended by this 164090
act, who was appointed by the Director of the Ohio Coal 164091
Development Office and who is serving on the committee immediately 164092
prior to the effective date of the amendments to that section 164093
shall continue in office until the expiration of the member's 164094
term. Thereafter, the appointment of a member for that position on 164095
the committee shall be made in accordance with the amendments to 164096
that section by this act.164097

       Section 803.41. (A) A member serving on the Rehabilitation 164098
Services Commission immediately prior to the effective date of 164099
this section who was appointed under section 3304.12 of the 164100
Revised Code as that section existed prior to its amendment by 164101
this act shall continue serving on the Opportunities for Ohioans 164102
with Disabilities Commission established by the amendments to that 164103
section by this act until the end of the term for which the member 164104
was appointed.164105

       (B) The consumer advisory committee that is required to be 164106
appointed by the Opportunities for Ohioans with Disabilities 164107
Commission by section 3304.16 (3304.14) of the Revised Code, as 164108
amended and renumbered by this act, is a continuation of the 164109
consumer advisory committee that was required to be appointed by 164110
the Rehabilitation Services Commission by section 3304.24 of the 164111
Revised Code prior to the repeal of that section by this act.164112

       Section 803.50. The amendments to sections 3313.48, 3313.533, 164113
3313.62, 3317.01, and 3321.05; the repeal and reenactment of 164114
section 3313.481; and the repeal of section 3313.482 of the 164115
Revised Code made by this act do not apply to any collective 164116
bargaining agreement executed under Chapter 4117. of the Revised 164117
Code prior to July 1, 2014. Any collective bargaining agreement or 164118
renewal executed after that date shall comply with the changes 164119
provided for in this act.164120

       Section 803.60. (A) As used in this section:164121

       (1) "State institution of higher education" has the same 164122
meaning as in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.164123

       (2) "Career-technical planning district" has the same meaning 164124
as in section 3302.033 of the Revised Code.164125

       (B) Nothing in Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code or the 164126
amendment of sections in that chapter by this act shall be 164127
construed to infringe upon or require the alteration of any 164128
existing or future articulation agreement for technical coursework 164129
offered through state-approved career-technical programs of study 164130
or any corresponding payment structure between any state 164131
institution of higher education and a career-technical planning 164132
district.164133

       The Department of Education and the Board of Regents shall 164134
study the implications of applying the changes in Chapter 3365. of 164135
the Revised Code to articulation agreements for technical 164136
coursework offered through state-approved career-technical 164137
programs of study. The Department and the Board also shall make 164138
recommendations on how such career-technical programs of study 164139
might be included under Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code and the 164140
implications of including them. These recommendations shall be 164141
submitted to the Governor's Office of 21st Century Education and 164142
the General Assembly in accordance with section 101.68 of the 164143
Revised Code, not later than July 1, 2014.164144

       Section 803.80. (A) The amendment by this act of section 164145
5747.01 of the Revised Code, amending or enacting divisions 164146
(A)(26) and (GG) of that section, applies to taxable years ending 164147
on or after the effective date of this section.164148

       (B) The amendment by this act of section 5747.022 and 164149
division (A) of section 5747.025 of the Revised Code applies to 164150
taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2014.164151

       (C) The amendment by this act of division (A)(32) of section 164152
5747.01, division (C) of section 5747.025, and of sections 164153
5747.02, 5747.08, 5747.21, 5747.22, and 5748.01 and the repeal of 164154
section 5747.211 of the Revised Code apply to taxable years 164155
beginning on or after January 1, 2013.164156

       Section 803.90. (A) Except as provided in division (B) of 164157
this section, the amendment by this act of section 5751.01 of the 164158
Revised Code applies to tax periods ending on or after the 164159
effective date of that amendment.164160

       (B) The amendment by this act of section 5751.02, section 164161
5751.051, divisions (B)(1), (B)(2), and (J) of section 5751.20, 164162
and all divisions of section 5751.01 of the Revised Code except 164163
divisions (F)(2)(z) and (jj) of that section shall take effect 164164
July 1, 2014.164165

       (C) The amendment by this act of divisions (F)(2)(z) and (jj) 164166
of section 5751.01 of the Revised Code applies to original returns 164167
filed on or after January 1, 2014.164168

       Section 803.120. (A) The amendment by this act of section 164169
1509.50, division (C)(12) of section 5703.21, section 5749.02, 164170
divisions (D), (F), (H), and (I) of section 5749.06, and section 164171
5749.17 of the Revised Code applies to calendar quarters beginning 164172
on or after October 1, 2013.164173

       (B) The amendment by this act of division (G) of section 164174
5749.06 of the Revised Code applies to the severance of natural 164175
resources occurring in calendar quarters beginning on or after 164176
January 1, 2014.164177

       Section 803.160. (A) References to the Ohio Cooperative 164178
Extension Service, or use of a similar term, in any contracts, 164179
agreements, or other instruments that were entered into or 164180
executed prior to the effective date of this section pursuant to 164181
state statutes are deemed to be references to OSU Extension as 164182
defined in section 1.611 of the Revised Code as enacted by this 164183
act.164184

        (B) References to the Ohio Cooperative Extension Service, or 164185
use of a similar term, in rules adopted prior to the effective 164186
date of this section pursuant to state statutes are deemed to be 164187
references to OSU Extension.164188

       Section 803.170.  The amendment by this act of section 164189
5709.17 of the Revised Code applies to tax year 2013 and every tax 164190
year thereafter.164191

       Section 803.180. The amendment or enactment by this act of 164192
sections 5735.012 and 5735.013 applies on and after January 1, 164193
2014.164194

       Section 803.190. (A) The amendment or enactment by this act 164195
of division (I), except for divisions (I)(2)(g) and (I)(4), of 164196
section 5741.01 of the Revised Code applies to the storage, use, 164197
or other consumption of tangible personal property or services 164198
occurring on and after the first month beginning after the 164199
effective date of that division and section.164200

       (B) The amendment by this act of divisions (I)(2)(g) and 164201
(I)(4) of section 5741.01 and section 5741.17 of the Revised Code 164202
applies to the storage, use, or other consumption of tangible 164203
personal property or services occurring on and after October 1, 164204
2013, regardless of the date a seller and a resident entered into 164205
an agreement described in division (I)(2)(g) of section 5741.01 of 164206
the Revised Code. On that date, as used in divisions (I)(2)(g) and 164207
(I)(4) of section 5741.01 of the Revised Code, "preceding twelve 164208
months" means the twelve months beginning October 1, 2012, and 164209
ending September 30, 2013.164210

       (C) The amendment by this act of section 5739.02 of the 164211
Revised Code, adding division (B)(49)(b), applies to retail sales 164212
occurring on or after the first day of the first month beginning 164213
after the effective date of that section.164214

       Section 803.210. Section 4503.192 of the Revised Code, which 164215
under Am. Sub. H.B. 51 of the 130th General Assembly is scheduled 164216
to take effect on July 1, 2013, rather takes effect on January 1, 164217
2014.164218

       Section 803.220.  The new filing requirements applicable to 164219
persons who are elected or appointed to, or who are candidates 164220
for, an office of a township with a population of five thousand or 164221
more under section 102.02 of the Revised Code, as amended by this 164222
act, first apply to 2013 statements required to be filed by 164223
persons who are candidates for or serving in a township office in 164224
calendar year 2014, which shall be filed not later than ninety 164225
days after the effective date of this section.164226

       Section 803.230.  The amendment by this act of section 164227
5739.02 of the Revised Code, adding division (B)(52), applies to 164228
the sale or storage, use, or other consumption of tangible 164229
personal property or services occurring before, on, or after the 164230
effective date of this section.164231

       Section 803.240.  The amendments by this act to section 164232
5735.27 of the Revised Code apply to any proceedings commenced 164233
after their effective date, and, so far as their provisions 164234
support the actions taken, also apply to any proceedings that on 164235
their effective date are pending, in progress, or completed and 164236
that are supplemented to provide or confirm compliance with or 164237
support by the provisions of those amendments as if they had been 164238
in effect at the time of those proceedings, and also apply to any 164239
public obligations authorized, issued, or incurred pursuant to 164240
those proceedings, notwithstanding any law, resolution, ordinance, 164241
order, advertisement, notice, or other proceeding in effect before 164242
their effective date. Any proceedings pending or in progress on 164243
the effective date of the amendments, or any public obligations 164244
authorized, sold, issued, incurred, delivered, or validated 164245
pursuant to those proceedings, shall be deemed to have been taken, 164246
authorized, sold, issued, incurred, delivered, or validated in 164247
conformity with the amendments so far as their provisions support 164248
the actions taken. 164249

       The amendments by this act to section 5735.27 of the Revised 164250
Code provide additional and supplemental provisions for subject 164251
matter that may also be the subject of other laws, and are 164252
intended to be supplemental to, and not in derogation of, any 164253
similar authority provided by, derived from, or implied by, the 164254
Constitution of Ohio, or any other law, including laws amended by 164255
this act, or any charter, order, resolution, or ordinance; and 164256
those amendments to section 5735.27 of the Revised Code shall not 164257
be interpreted to negate the authority provided by, derived from, 164258
or implied by the Constitution of Ohio, laws, charters, orders, 164259
resolutions, or ordinances. 164260

       Section 803.250.  The amendment by this act of section 164261
323.158 of the Revised Code applies to tax year 2013 and every tax 164262
year thereafter, and the amendment of section 4503.0610 of the 164263
Revised Code applies to tax year 2014 and every tax year 164264
thereafter.164265

       Section 803.260.  The amendment by this act of section 164266
5729.04 of the Revised Code applies to calendar years ending on or 164267
after December 31, 2013.164268

       Section 803.270. The amendment by this act of section 164269
5735.142 of the Revised Code applies to motor fuel purchased on or 164270
after the effective date of this section.164271

       Section 806.10. The items of law contained in this act, and 164272
their applications, are severable. If any item of law contained in 164273
this act, or if any application of any item of law contained in 164274
this act, is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other 164275
items of law contained in this act and their applications that can 164276
be given effect without the invalid item of law or application.164277

       Section 809.10. An item of law, other than an amending, 164278
enacting, or repealing clause, that composes the whole or part of 164279
an uncodified section contained in this act has no effect after 164280
June 30, 2015, unless its context clearly indicates otherwise.164281

       Section 812.10. Except as otherwise provided in this act, the 164282
amendment, enactment, or repeal by this act of a section is 164283
subject to the referendum under Ohio Constitution, Article II, 164284
Section 1c and therefore takes effect on the ninety-first day 164285
after this act is filed with the Secretary of State or, if a later 164286
effective date is specified below, on that date.164287

       The amendment, enactment, or repeal of sections 123.19, 164288
123.201, 123.21, 123.27, 154.01, 154.23, 307.674, 3383.01 164289
(123.28), 3383.02, 3383.03, 3383.04, 3383.05, 3383.06, 3383.07 164290
(123.281), 3383.08, 3383.09, and 5162.12 of the Revised Code takes 164291
effect January 1, 2014.164292

        The amendment, enactment, or repeal of sections 3313.48, 164293
3313.533, 3313.62, 3314.092, 3321.05, 3326.11, and 3327.02 of the 164294
Revised Code takes effect July 1, 2014.164295

        The repeal and reenactment of section 3313.481 of the Revised 164296
Code takes effect July 1, 2014.164297

        The enactment of section 3327.07 of the Revised Code takes 164298
effect on July 1, 2014.164299

       Division (A) of section 4783.02 of the Revised Code takes 164300
effect one year after the effective date of that section.164301

       Sections 323.70, 323.110, 323.120, and 323.480 of this act 164302
take effect at the earliest time permitted by law but not earlier 164303
than September 30, 2013.164304

       Section 282.90 of this act takes effect on January 1, 2014.164305

       Section 812.20. The amendment, enactment, or repeal by this 164306
act of the sections listed below is exempt from the referendum 164307
under Ohio Constitution, Article II, Section 1d and section 1.471 164308
of the Revised Code and therefore takes effect immediately when 164309
this act becomes law or, if a later effective date is specified 164310
below, on that date.164311

        Sections 131.51, 731.091, 3314.05, 3734.57, 3734.901, 164312
4301.43, 5727.84, 5747.501, and 5753.03 of the Revised Code.164313

        Sections of this act prefixed with section numbers in the 164314
200's, 300's, 400's, and 500's except for sections 282.90, 164315
323.10.70, 323.70, 323.110, 323.120, 323.480, 363.230, 363.520, 164316
363.540, and 363.550 of this act.164317

       Sections 605.30 and 605.31 of this act.164318

       Section 803.210 of this act.164319

       Sections 812.10, 812.20, and 812.30 of this act.164320

       The amendment, enactment, or repeal of sections 125.05, 164321
152.09, 154.25, 3313.603, 3314.074, 3317.06, 3317.50, 3317.51, 164322
3319.22, 3319.235, 3345.12, 3353.01, 3353.02, 3353.04, 3353.06, 164323
3353.07, 3353.08, 3353.09, 3353.15, and 3353.20 takes effect July 164324
1, 2013.164325

       The enactment of section 5168.41 of the Revised Code takes 164326
effect July 1, 2013.164327

       The amendment of sections 120.06 and 5139.04 of the Revised 164328
Code takes effect July 1, 2013.164329

       Section 812.30.  The sections that are listed in the 164330
left-hand column of the following table combine amendments by this 164331
act that are and that are not exempt from the referendum under 164332
Ohio Constitution, Article II, sections 1c and 1d and section 164333
1.471 of the Revised Code.164334

       The middle column identifies the amendments to the listed 164335
sections that are subject to the referendum under Ohio 164336
Constitution, Article II, Section 1c and therefore take effect on 164337
the ninety-first day after this act is filed with the Secretary of 164338
State or, if a later effective date is specified, on that date.164339

       The right-hand column identifies the amendments to the listed 164340
sections that are exempt from the referendum under Ohio 164341
Constitution, Article II, Section 1d and section 1.471 of the 164342
Revised Code and therefore take effect immediately when this act 164343
becomes law or, if a later effective date is specified, on that 164344
date.164345

Section of law Amendments subject to referendum Amendments exempt from referendum 164346
3745.11 Amendments to division (M)(5) All amendments except as described in the middle column 164347
3721.50 (5168.40) All amendments except as described in the right-hand column Amendments to division (F) 164348
5112.30 (5168.60) All amendments except as described in the right-hand column Amendments to division (A) take effect July 1, 2013 164349
6109.21 The stricken sentence in division (E) All amendments except as described in the middle column 164350

       Section 812.40. The amendments to sections 3317.01, 3317.03, 164351
5101.573 (5160.40), 5101.58 (5160.37), 5111.07 (5164.752), 164352
5111.071 (5164.753), 5111.083 (5164.757), 5111.17 (5167.10), and 164353
5111.19 (5164.74) of the Revised Code are subject to the 164354
referendum under Ohio Constitution, Article II, Section 1c and 164355
section 1.471 of the Revised Code, and therefore take effect on 164356
the ninety-first day after this act is filed with the Secretary of 164357
State. However:164358

       (A) In section 3317.01 of the Revised Code, the amendments to 164359
division (B) take effect July 1, 2014.164360

       (B) In section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, the following 164361
amendments in divisions (A) and (D) take effect July 1, 2014:164362

        (1) The strike through of "the first paragraph of";164363

        (2) The strike through of "(B)" and insertion of "(A)(1)";164364

        (3) The strike through of "3317.01" and insertion of 164365
"3313.482".164366

        (C) In section 5101.573 (5160.40) of the Revised Code, the 164367
new matter inserted into division (C) takes effect January 1, 164368
2014.164369

        (D) In section 5101.58 (5160.37) of the Revised Code, the 164370
insertion of division (K) takes effect January 1, 2014.164371

        (E)(1) In section 5111.07 (5164.752) of the Revised Code, all 164372
of the amendments take effect July 1, 2014, except for the 164373
following amendments:164374

        (a) The renumbering of the section;164375

        (b) The strike through of "job and family services" and 164376
insertion of "medicaid" in the first sentence as the section 164377
appears on the day immediately preceding the effective date of 164378
this section.164379

        (2) The reference to "director of job and family services" in 164380
the last sentence shall be read as if it reads the "director of 164381
medicaid" while the last sentence remains in effect.164382

        (F) In section 5111.071 (5164.753) of the Revised Code, the 164383
insertion in the last sentence of "and the extent to which each 164384
terminal distributor participates in the medicaid program as a 164385
provider of drugs" takes effect July 1, 2014.164386

        (G) In section 5111.083 (5164.757) of the Revised Code, all 164387
of the amendments take effect January 1, 2014, except for the 164388
following amendments:164389

        (1) The renumbering of the section;164390

        (2) The insertion of "medicaid" before "director" in the 164391
first sentence of division (B);164392

        (3) The strike through of "of job and family services".164393

        (H) In section 5111.17 (5167.10) of the Revised Code, the 164394
amendments to division (B)(2) take effect January 1, 2014.164395

       (I) In section 5111.19 (5164.74) of the Revised Code, the 164396
following amendments take effect January 1, 2014:164397

        (1) The insertion of ", and the allocation of payments for," 164398
in the first paragraph;164399

        (2) The strike through of the second paragraph and divisions 164400
(A), (B), and (C).164401

       Section 815.10. The General Assembly, applying the principle 164402
stated in division (B) of section 1.52 of the Revised Code that 164403
amendments are to be harmonized if reasonably capable of 164404
simultaneous operation, finds that the following sections, 164405
presented in this act as composites of the sections as amended by 164406
the acts indicated, are the resulting versions of the sections in 164407
effect prior to the effective date of the sections as presented in 164408
this act:164409

       Section 9.90 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. Sub. 164410
H.B. 153 and Sub. S.B. 171 of the 129th General Assembly.164411

       Section 109.572 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 164412
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. S.B. 337 of the 129th General Assembly.164413

       Section 122.17 of the Revised Code as amended by Sub. H.B. 164414
327, Am. Sub. H.B. 510, and Am. Sub. S.B. 314, all of the 129th 164415
General Assembly.164416

        Section 122.171 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 164417
Sub. S.B. 314 and Am. Sub. H.B. 510 of the 129th General Assembly.164418

       Section 122.33 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 164419
Sub. H.B. 117 and Am. Sub. H.B. 356 of the 121st General Assembly.164420

       Section 124.381 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 164421
Sub. H.B. 1 and Sub. S.B. 79 of the 128th General Assembly.164422

       Section 149.311 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 164423
Sub. H.B. 510 and Am. Sub. S.B. 314 of the 129th General Assembly.164424

       Section 149.43 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 164425
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. S.B. 314 of the 129th General Assembly.164426

       Section 329.06 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 164427
Sub. H.B. 1 and Sub. S.B. 79 of the 128th General Assembly.164428

        Section 955.201 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 164429
Sub. H.B. 1 and Am. Sub. H.B. 2 of the 128th General Assembly.164430

       Section 2901.30 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 164431
H.B. 181 and Sub. S.B. 87 of the 127th General Assembly.164432

       Section 2921.13 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 164433
Sub. H.B. 495 and Sub. S.B. 343 of the 129th General Assembly.164434

       Section 2923.126 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 164435
Sub. H.B. 495 and Am. Sub. S.B. 316 of the 129th General Assembly, 164436
that is scheduled to take effect January 1, 2014.164437

       Section 3304.231 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 164438
Sub. H.B. 1 and Sub. S.B. 79 of the 128th General Assembly.164439

       Section 3313.978 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 164440
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. S.B. 316 of the 129th General Assembly.164441

       Section 3701.78 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 164442
Sub. H.B. 1 and Sub. S.B. 79 of the 128th General Assembly.164443

        Section 3734.01 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 164444
Sub. H.B. 487 and Sub. S.B. 294 of the 129th General Assembly.164445

       Section 3745.11 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 164446
Sub. H.B. 487 and Sub. S.B. 294 of the 129th General Assembly.164447

       Section 4141.29 of the Revised Code as amended by both Sub. 164448
H.B. 525 and Am. Sub. S.B. 316 of the 129th General Assembly.164449

       Section 5104.012 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 164450
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. S.B. 316 of the 129th General Assembly, 164451
that is scheduled to take effect January 1, 2014.164452

       Section 5104.013 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 164453
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. S.B. 316 of the 129th General Assembly, 164454
that is scheduled to take effect January 1, 2014.164455

       Section 5111.032 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 164456
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. S.B. 337 of the 129th General Assembly.164457

       Section 5111.033 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 164458
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. S.B. 337 of the 129th General Assembly.164459

       Section 5111.034 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 164460
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. S.B. 337 of the 129th General Assembly.164461

       Section 5111.172 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 164462
Sub. H.B. 93 and Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly.164463

       Section 5119.16 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 164464
Sub. H.B. 1 and Sub. S.B. 79 of the 128th General Assembly.164465

       Section 5701.13 of the Revised Code as amended by both Sub. 164466
H.B. 267 and Am. Sub. H.B. 487 of the 129th General Assembly.164467

        Section 5705.21 of the Revised Code as amended by both Sub. 164468
H.B. 525 and Am. S.B. 321 of the 129th General Assembly.164469

       Section 5705.25 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 164470
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. S.B. 321 of the 129th General Assembly.164471

        Section 5731.39 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 164472
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. H.B. 508 of the 129th General Assembly.164473

       Section 5735.142 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 164474
Sub. H.B. 1 and Sub. S.B. 79 of the 128th General Assembly.164475

       Section 5739.01 of the Revised Code as amended by Am. Sub. 164476
H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. H.B. 508 of the 129th General Assembly.164477

       Section 5739.02 of the Revised Code as amended by Am. Sub. 164478
H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. H.B. 508 of the 129th General Assembly.164479

       Section 5747.01 of the Revised Code as amended by Am. H.B. 164480
167, Sub. H.B. 365, and Am. Sub. H.B. 510, all of the 129th 164481
General Assembly.164482

       Section 5747.98 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 164483
Sub. H.B. 386 and Am. Sub. H.B. 510 of the 129th General Assembly.164484

       Section 5749.02 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 164485
Sub. H.B. 1 and S.B. 73 of the 128th General Assembly.164486

       Section 5751.01 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 164487
Sub. H.B. 51 and Am. S.B. 28 of the 130th General Assembly.164488

       Section 5753.03 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 164489
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. H.B. 386 of the 129th General Assembly.164490

       Section 815.20. The amendment of sections 5104.11 and 5120.07 164491
of the Revised Code by this act is not intended to supersede the 164492
earlier repeal, with delayed effective date, of those sections.164493

       The amendment of section 5507.53 (128.53) of the Revised Code 164494
by this act is not intended to supersede the earlier repeal, with 164495
delayed effective date, of that section. The amendment of section 164496
5507.40 (128.40) of the Revised Code of this act is intended to 164497
supersede the earlier repeal, with delayed effective date, of that 164498
section.164499